A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, “Help! I think he’s having a heart attack!” The nurse responds to the scene and finds an unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse’s first action, after making certain someone has called for emergency medical services (EMS), should be to

administer cardiac compressions. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/fundamentals-2/

A 27-year-old has been brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services following a violent sexual assault that took place in the parking garage of the client’s building. Which task would fall most clearly within the scope of practice of a forensic nurse?

Collecting specimens from the client for use as evidence More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/prep-u-psychiatric-mental-health-nursing-chapter-12-abuse-and-violence/

(undocumented or illegal aliens) may have crossed the border illegally or legal permission expired; eligible only for emergency medical services

What is an unauthorized immigrant? More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/cultural-considerations/

EMS System (Emergency Medical Services System)

A network of trained professionals linked to provide advanced out-of-hospital care for victims of sudden traumatic injuries or illness. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/florida-basic-recruit-high-liability-chapter-2-first-aid/

3 The judicious use of telephone triage has decreased the number of unnecessary visits, allowing time for improved care. Health care costs have decreased because of fewer visits to emergency departments. Based on the response to screening questions, the triage nurse determines whether the child needs to be referred to emergency medical services. The nurse can then initiate the call if needed. Home care is recommended only when indicated on the basis of the screening questions.

Which statement is true concerning the increased use of telephone triage by nurses? 1 Telephone triage has led to an increase in health care costs. 2 Emergency department visits are not recommended by nurses and thus are not a Perry component of telephone triage. 3 Access to high-quality health care services has increased through telephone triage. 4 Home care is often recommended when it is not appropriate. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/maternal-child-nursing-chapter-29/

Who is a vital link between emergency medical services and the victim?

bystanders More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/first-aid-exam-1/

Home Page Science Medicine Physical Fitness Emergency Medical Services

Emergency Medical Services Flashcards, test questions and answers

Q: Emergency Medical Services (EMS)

A network of community resources & medical personnel providing emergency car. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/sph-h-160-first-aid-exam-1/

Discover flashcards, test exam answers, and assignments to help you learn more about Emergency Medical Services and other subjects. Don’t miss the chance to use them for more effective college education. Use our database of questions and answers on Emergency Medical Services and get quick solutions for your test.

We've found 17 Emergency Medical Services tests

19th And 20th Centuries Emergency Medical Services Nursing Public Health

Week 3 – Flashcard 68 terms

Adam Howard

68 terms

Preview

Week 3 – Flashcard

question

identify the most influential event that led to the HHS Policy for Protection of Human Research Subjects A. Nuremberg trials B. syphilis study at tuskegee c. jewish chronic disease hospital study d. willowbrook study

answer

question

drafted as a set of standards for judging physicians and scientists who had conducted biomedical experiments on concentration camp prisoners. This code became the prototype of many later codes (1) intended to assure that research involving human subjects would be carried out in an ethical manner.

answer

nuremburg code

question

23 Nazi Doctors and Scientists on Trial after World War II

answer

nuremberg trials

question

mentally retarded children in Staten Island, New York were intentionally given Hepatitis in an attempt to trck the development of the viral infection. began in 1956 and lasted 14 years

answer

willowbrook study

question

what are the 3 ethical principles that constitute the basis for the HHS Human Subjects Regulations (45 CFR 46) a. honesty, trust, respect b. informed consent, IRB review, research integrity c. respect for persons, beneficence, justice d. protections for pregnant women, children, children

answer

question

which entity has regulatory authority for the protection of human subjects for PHS-funded research? a. OHRP b. NIH c. institutes that receive federal funds d. HHS

answer

question

office for human research protections

answer

OHRP

question

us public health service

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PHS

question

national institute of health

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NIH

question

US department of health and human services

answer

HHS

question

T/F all research that involves interaction or intervention with humans or human samples/data, whether they are alive or dead, is human subjects research

answer

question

T/F an institutionally designated authority, other than the investigator, should determine that proposed studies are exempt from regulatory requirements

answer

question

which of the following should be eliminated or minimized in the research design? a. coercion b. research risks c. repeated recruitment of research participants for new protocols d. all of the above

answer

question

when might human subjects research require investigators to obtain informed consent a. investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves interaction with research participants b. investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves interventions with research participants c. investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves collection of private information from or about research participants d. all of the above

answer

question

T/F after informed consent for a research study is given, a research participant must complete the study

answer

question

T/F in general, informed consent should be a process rather than a one-time event

answer

question

in order to participate in research, children must a. provide written informed consent b. provide written permission c. prove assent, unless the IRB determines they are too young d. sign, or put an X on the assent document

answer

question

expression of approval or agreement, typically officially

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assent

question

for research involving pregnant women, participation requires... a. that women have completed the first trimester b. that the study be conducted first in men c. permission of the father d. consideration of risks and potential benefits for the fetus and the pregnant woman

answer

question

why might an individual have diminished autonomy? a. they are neonate b. they are incarcerated or involuntarily confined c. they are unconscious d. all the above

answer

question

T/F risks to research participants must be completely eliminated for the study to be considered ethical

answer

question

when are researchers specifically required by NIH policy to describe Data and Safety Monitoring? a. for all research involving human subjects b. for all research involving children such as subjects in research c. for all clinical trials d. for all research with prisoners

answer

question

T/F there must be equipoise in order to justify conducting a clinical trial

answer

question

what is an appropriate method for maintaining confidentiality of private information obtained from human subjects? a. keeping data in password-protected databases b. coding data or specimens and keeping the key to the code in a separate, locked drawer d. all of the above are ways to maintain confidentiality

answer

question

T/F if a researcher determines that his/her study poses no more than minimal risks as defined in 45 CFR 46, there is no need for the protocol to have IRB review and approval

answer

question

children must be included in all NIH-supported human subjects research unless: a. the researcher is not a pediatrician b. past experience has shown it is time consuming and expensive to recruit children c. there are scientific and ethical reasons to exclude them d. the researcher does not possess the pediatric equipment necessary to involve children in the proposed research

answer

question

T/F for HIV antiretroviral treatment trials conducted in developing countries, the NIH expects investigators/contractors to address the provision of antiretroviral treatment to trial participants after their completion of participation in the clinical trial

answer

question

which of the following is true regarding applications for NIH-funded research overseas? a. it is illegal to spend NIH funds in research overseas b. research conducted overseas is subject to HHS Human Subjects Regulations (45 CFR 46) and local regulations and policies c. research conducted overseas is only subject to local regulations and policies d. research conducted overseas need not address human subjects protections

answer

question

in localities where community consent is the norm a. a family member's consent for another individual may be sufficient, as long as community consent is given b. federal regulations preclude the conduct of PHS-funded research c. community consent to participate in the research study is sufficient and no IRB approval is required d. in addition to the cultural norm, individuals informed consent is required

answer

question

in 19th and 20th centuries, medical research participants were often

answer

poor ward patients

question

benefits of improved medical care flowed mainly to ____ in 19th and 20th centuries

answer

private patients

question

T/F in 19th and 20th century medical and social science research often involved risks to participants without their knowledge of the risks

answer

question

"it is not cruel to inflict on a few sufferings which may benefit multitudes of innocent people through all centuries"

answer

1st century physician Celsus

question

an experiment focusing on the conflict between obedience to authority and personal conscience

answer

milgram's obedience study

question

experiment to answer the question "Could it be that Eichmann and his million accomplices in the Holocaust were just following orders? Could we call them all accomplices?"

answer

milgram's obedience study

question

participant was paired with another person and they drew lots to find out who would be the learner and who would be the teacher. fixed so participant was always teacher. the learner went into a room and had electrodes attached to his arms and the teacher and researcher went into a room next door where teacher was told to shock if learner gave wrong answer.

answer

milgram's obedience study

question

____ % of participants in milgram's study continued to the highest level. all continued to 300 volts

answer

65%

question

concluded ordinary people are likely to follow orders given by an authority figure, even to the extent of killing an innocent human being. obedience to authority is ingrained in us all from the way we are brought up

answer

milgram's obedience study

question

people direct their own actions, and they take responsibility for the results of those actions

answer

autonomous state

question

people allow others to direct their actions, and then pass off the responsibility for the consequences to the person giving the orders. act as agents for another person's will

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agentic state

question

millgram's two states of behavior when they are in a social situation

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autonomous and agentic state

question

set of ethical principles underlying acceptable research involving human subjects prepared by the National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research submitted September 30, 1978

answer

Belmont Report

question

3 ethical and moral principles of belmont report

answer

respect for persons beneficence justice

question

recognition of the personal dignity and autonomy of individuals special protection of anyone with diminished autonomy

answer

respect for persons

question

a/an ________ person can deliberate about personal goals and act under the direction of such deliberation

answer

autonomous

question

obligation to protect persons from harm and to secure their well being maximizing anticipated benefits from participation in the research minimizing possible risks of harm

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beneficence

question

benefits and burdens of research should be distributed fairly

answer

justice

question

research participants shouldn't be systematically selected because of their easy availability, compromised position, or manipulability

answer

justice

question

therapeutic research should not unduly involve persons from groups unlikely to be the beneficiaries of applying the research

answer

justice

question

research participants, to the degree that they are capable, choose what shall or shall not happen to them

answer

informed consent

question

components of informed consent

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information comprehension voluntariness

question

to apply respect for persons one uses

answer

informed consent

question

to apply beneficence

answer

a risks/benefits assessment of possible harms and anticipated benefits

question

to apply justice

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fair procedures and outcomes don't select research subjects because they are favored/held in disdain avoid selection bias that arises from social, racial, sexual, and cultural biases institutionalized in society" don't select subjects because they are readily available or manipulable

question

study of untreated syphilis in black males from 1932-1972 in which U.S. Public Health Service purposefully withheld known effective treatments from black men suffering from syphilis from 1930s to 1960s

answer

tuskegee syphilis study

question

longest nontherapeutic study on human beings in medical history contributed to distrust and suspicion about public health programs and medical research

answer

tuskegee syphilis study

question

highly contagious -- acquired, usually from sex, or congential, three stages -- primary, secondary, tertiary (or late)

answer

syphilis

question

transmitted to the fetus from the infected mother

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congential

question

___ syphilis inflicts the greatest damage (e.g. damage to cardiovascular and central nervous systems)

answer

late

question

___, a former veneral disease interviewer and investigator for PHS told the story of tuskegee syphilis study to a reporter for the AP and on July 25th, 1972 The Washington Star ran a fron-page story about the experiment

answer

Peter Buxton

question

contributed to AIDS conspiracy theories hampered HIV/AIDS education in black communities became a metaphor for racism, ethical mistakes, and the danger of state-run medical research

answer

tuskegee syphilis study

question

proposed study for pregnant women infected with HIV in Africa to be given a drug to stop mother-to-infant transmission of HIV or a placebo

answer

AZT study

question

___ % of adults receiving care for HIV participated in medical trial or study

answer

question

T/F minority groups were underrepresented in medical trials of treatment of HIV infection

answer

question

T/F there are differences among racial/ethnic groups in major cancer and heart disease trials

answer

question

T/F drug companies could in past suppress data showing their drugs to be useless after first obtaining approval to market the drug

answer

question

___ concealed negative info about Paxil, a drug used to treat depression in adolescents and children

answer

GSK

question

T/F two studies found Paxil was no more effective than a placebo in treating adolescent depression and might even provoke suicidal thoughts

answer

STUDY

Active Listening Skills Emergency Medical Services Verbal And Non Verbal

911 Public Safety Telecommunicators State Exam Study Guide- MOCK Exams – Flashcards 322 terms

Rosa Sloan

322 terms

Preview

911 Public Safety Telecommunicators State Exam Study Guide- MOCK Exams – Flashcards

question

CAD is an acronym for: A. Computer Aided Dispatch B. Computer Assisted Dispatch C. Call takers Assisting Dispatch D. Callers Annoying Dispatch

answer

A. Computer Aided Dispatch

question

Which department obtains criminal justice intelligence utilizing local, state and national databases, inputs criminal justice information that will be added to the FCIC/NCIC hot files and sends and receives state and national messages pertaining to criminal justice information? A. Warrants B. Communications C. Teletype D. Information Technology (IT)

answer

C. Teletype

question

FCIC is based in _______ and is administered by the Florida Department of Law Enforcement. A. Sarasota B. Tallahassee C. Tampa D. Miami

answer

B. Tallahassee

question

NCIC is an acronym for: A. Nationwide Criminal Incarceration Center B. National Crime Information Center C. Nationwide Criminal Information Center D. National Criminal Information Computer

answer

B. National Crime Information Center

question

On the NCIC, the primary information system is the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The purpose of NLETS is to: A. Provide for the exchange of life-threatening information between interstate and/or inter-agency personnel B. Provide for the interstate and/or inter-agency exchange of criminal justice and related information C. Provide for the interstate and/or inter-agency exchange of medical and fire department information D. Provide for the interstate and/or inter-agency exchange of private or confidential information

answer

B. Provide for the interstate and/or inter-agency exchange of criminal justice and related information

question

The NCIC maintains information on stolen and recovered property as well as wanted and missing persons for all 50 states, Canada, U.S. Virgin Islands, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa and Mariana Islands. NCIC also houses federal _______ and _______ data. A. Misdemeanor, felony B. Criminal, incarceration C. Criminal, warrants D. Warrants, injunction

answer

C. Criminal, warrants

question

________ is a device giving people the ability to type a conversation instead of speaking. A. DTC B. TTD C. TDD D. FRS

answer

C. TDD

question

The abbreviation for Go Ahead is: A. GoAd B. GoAh C. GA D. GOA

answer

C. GA

question

Which of the below abbreviations is not approved for use with Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf: A. GA B. STOP C. SKSK D. Q

answer

B. STOP

question

What number do you dial to reach the Florida Relay Systems? A. 711 B. 411 C. 511 D. 911

answer

A. 711

question

________ station radios are permanently mounted in the station or remote transmitter site. A. Sub B. Base C. Police D. Fire

answer

B. Base

question

An emergency incident is one that does not require an immediate response due to persons in imminent danger or loss of life or limb, or injuries beyond immediate first aid. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

A non-emergency incident does not require an immediate response and no imminent threat exists. It is a non-critical situation that requires a(n): A. Non- emergency police response B. Pubic safety response C. Immediate supervisor's attention D. No action necessary

answer

B. Pubic safety response

question

Dispatch all calls with ______, _______ and _______ A. Accuracy, brevity, clarity B. Accuracy, brevity, courtesy C. Accuracy, brilliance, clarity D. Accuracy, brilliance, confidence

answer

A. Accuracy, brevity, clarity

question

Which section of the "Sunshine Law" provides that all state, county and municipal records are open for personal inspection and copying by any person? A. 119.04 B. 119.07 C. 119.01 D. 119.03

answer

C. 119.01

question

Which of the following is not a technical rescue? A. High angle chain rescue B. Confined space rescue C. Vehicle extrication D. Trench rescue

answer

A. High angle chain rescue

question

Hazardous materials are liquids or gases that when released are capable of causing harm to people, the environment and property. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Which is an example of a solid? A. Magnesium B. Gasoline C. Chlorine D. Acetone

answer

A. Magnesium

question

Which is an example of a liquid? A. Hydrogen B. Calcium Carbide C. Acetone D. Chlorine

answer

C. Acetone

question

Which is an example of a gas? A. Calcium Carbide B. Acetone C. Hydrogen D. Gasoline

answer

C. Hydrogen

question

The DOT Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) was developed jointly by the U.S. Department of Transportation, Transport Canada and the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The DOT Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) has established a six-digit numbering system to identify materials. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

The telecommunicator must ________, categorize it as emergency or non-emergency and identify which responders are needed to handle the situation. A. Befriend the caller B. Complete the call as quickly as possible C. Determine the nature of the call D. Get control of the call

answer

C. Determine the nature of the call

question

A wrong call classification will not delay a priority call. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Interpersonal skills encompass communications between ______ or _______ people, including verbal and non-verbal communications. A. Two, more B. One, two C. One, more D. Three, more

answer

A. Two, more

question

The communications cycle is comprised of 5 parts. Which part refers to the content? A. Feedback B. Message C. Medium D. Receiver

answer

B. Message

question

Effective communication includes verbal and non-verbal communications. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Which of the following isn't an example of a positive interpersonal skill? A. Active listening B. Positive thinking C. Impatience D. Open-minded acceptance of others' differences

answer

C. Impatience

question

A fire engine and an ambulance are examples of ________ and ________ units. A. Firefighter, paramedics B. Fire Department, rescue C. Primary, secondary D. First, necessary

answer

C. Primary, secondary

question

_________ provide advanced life support to victims. Skills include those of an _________ as well as injections, intravenous infusions, needle thoracostomy, cricothyroidotomy, intraosseus and advanced airway management. A. Paramedic, entomologist B. EMT, observer C. Paramedic, EMT D. Paramedic, entomologist

answer

C. Paramedic, EMT

question

During a multi-casualty incident (MCI), communicator's roles and responsibilities include all of the following except: A. Coordinate the requests of other agencies B. If additional help is needed, leave and offer assistance C. Dispatch additional resources D. Make notification and requests of other agencies, such as hospitals, air transport units, law enforcement, etc.

answer

B. If additional help is needed, leave and offer assistance

question

A hospital that provides surgeons and other medical personnel and equipment to provide care for severely injured patients around the clock is an example of what type of center? A. Fully Equipped B. Emergency C. Surgical D. Trauma

answer

D. Trauma

question

Members do not have to conduct themselves in such a manner that their actions and behavior reflect favorably on the profession when they are off duty. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

__________ is that connection or linkage of authority and responsibility that joins one level of an organization to another. A. Promotional pyramid B. Chain of command C. Organizational chart D. Chain of authority

answer

B. Chain of command

question

All of the following are examples of the impact absences can have on a communications center except: A. Increased costs due to overtime B. Put additional workload on others C. Brings families closer together D. Lowers morale

answer

C. Brings families closer together

question

All of the following are examples of internal and external customer service skills except: A. Use active listening skills B. Be courteous, patient and sincere C. Hurry through the call to minimize pending times D. Be empathetic

answer

C. Hurry through the call to minimize pending times

question

Telecommunicators need to have the ability to recognize when information is not appropriate. All the following are appropriate except: A. Zero in on key words B. Listen to the caller only, block out all background noises C. Ask follow-up/open-ended questions to gather information D. Not drawing premature conclusions

answer

B. Listen to the caller only, block out all background noises

question

Decision-making refers to the ability to use _________ __________ in making decisions based on available facts, prior knowledge or experience when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. Sound judgment B. Experienced judgment C. Educated judgment D. Logical judgment

answer

A. Sound judgment

question

Stress is defined as physical, mental or emotional factors that cause bodily or mental tension. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Eustress is defined as any stress associated with negative experiences or negative emotions. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Lack of work ethic, low morale and difficulty concentrating and remaining focused are all examples of: A. Distress B. Mental stress C. Physical stress D. Emotional stress

answer

B. Mental stress

question

Soreness in one's joints, headaches, changes in weight or insomnia are all examples of: A. Distress B. Mental stress C. Physical stress D. Emotional stress

answer

C. Physical stress

question

Which of the following is not unethical? A. Prejudice B. Willful neglect of duty C. Courtesy D. Sexual harassment

answer

C. Courtesy

question

A _______ consists of two or more people working together to accomplish a common goal. A. Pack B. Group C. Team D. Partnership

answer

C. Team

question

PST's will maintain the integrity of private information; they will neither seek personal data beyond that needed to perform their professional responsibilities, nor reveal case information to anyone not having proper professional use for such. Violators of _______ are subject to disciplinary actions and/or civil liability and/or criminal prosecution. A. Personal information B. Confidentiality C. Civil rights D. Agency values

answer

B. Confidentiality

question

The ________ Police Department was the first to use an "on the air" voice communication system in 1928. This was a one-way radio system. A. Detroit B. New York C. New Jersey D. Philadelphia

answer

A. Detroit

question

What was the first year police cars were equipped with radio receivers? A. 1933 B. 1929 C. 1949 D. 1937

answer

B. 1929 (California)

question

Where was the first two-way radio used? A. Metuchen, New Jersey B. Bayshore, New York C. Bayonne, New Jersey D. Manorville, New York

answer

C. Bayonne, New Jersey

question

In January, 1980, the first 911 enhanced call was received in _______, Florida. A. Alachua County B. Pinellas County C. Orange County D. Sarasota County

answer

C. Orange County

question

On ________, President Clinton signed Senate Bill 800 declaring 911 as the National Communications number. A. October 6, 1999 B. October 26, 1994 C. October 26, 1999 D. October 6, 1994

answer

C. October 26, 1999

question

A telecommunicator can be held civilly liable if they violate a law or statute. A. True B. False

answer

B. False (Criminally)

question

Any disclosure of confidential information must be properly documented and only released to those with a need to know. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A deposition, also known as a depo, is the taking of testimony under oath. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

If a judge makes the ruling to sustain, all the following are true except: A. Objection withheld B. Witness may not answer C. This information was already presented to the judge D. Mistrial could result if witness answers and witness could be held in contempt

answer

C. This information was already presented to the judge

question

Which of the following is NOT a form of terrorism? A. Bio-terrorism B. Eco- terrorism C. Nuclear-terrorism D. Explosive terrorism

answer

D. Explosive terrorism

question

_________ is a microorganism that causes disease in personnel, plants or animals, or causes the deterioration of material. A. Biological agent B. Chemical weapon C. Radiological dispersal device D. Biological weapon

answer

A. Biological agent

question

Anarchism is a political theory holding all forms of governmental authority to be unnecessary and undesirable and advocating a society based on voluntary cooperation and free association of individuals and groups. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Anti-terrorism is defensive measures used to increase the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts, to include limited response and containment by local military forces. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Counter-terrorism is the defensive measures taken to prevent, deter and respond to terrorism. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A pathogen is any organism (usually living) capable of producing serious disease or death, such as bacteria, fungi and viruses. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A dirty bomb or Radiological Dispersal Device (RDD) uses conventional explosive to disperse radioactive material like that used in the medical area over a given area. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A dirty bomb will cause immediate physical damage and will also spread radioactive material which may render an area uninhabitable and cause cancers and other illness to those that are exposed. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

An asset (terrorist) is a resource-person, group, relationship, instrument, installation or supply at the disposition of a terrorist organization for the use on an operational or support role. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A nerve agent is a substance that interferes with the endocrine system. Exposure is primarily through the skin and eyes and, secondarily through inhalation of the vapor. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

NIMS is the acronym for: A. National Incident Management System B. Newest Incident Management System C. National Insurance Management System D. National Incident Micromanagement System

answer

A. National Incident Management System

question

FEMA is the acronym for: A. Florida Emergency Management Agency B. Florida Emergency Management Association C. Federal Emergency Management Agency D. Federal Emergency Management Administration

answer

C. Federal Emergency Management Agency

question

Criminal complaints involve an offense against society and can be penalized by a fine. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Civil complaints involve disputes between private individuals or disputes involving contractual matters and are penalized by fines and/or imprisonment. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Telecommunicators should give information, not advice. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

In progress refers to an event that occurred within a short period of time. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

A past event, or a delayed call, refers to an event that occurred within a short period of time. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

A law enforcement only telecommunicator will not be required to take a CPR course. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

In the ________ phase, the suspect has made plans and has committed to carrying out the act. A. Preparation B. Approach C. Implementation D. Fantasy

answer

B. Approach

question

A hostage is an individual being held against their will. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

In the negotiation phase, demands have been received and negotiations are in progress, between the suspect(s) and law enforcement. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A subject who has blocked himself in an area that is not accessible would be considered a _______ subject. A. Unreachable B. Barricaded C. Not available D. High risk

answer

B. Barricaded

question

When dealing with a suicidal caller, the telecommunicator cannot mention the word suicide when dealing directly with the caller. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

The AMBER alert program is a voluntary partnership between law enforcement agencies, broadcasters, transportation agencies and the wireless industry, to activate an urgent bulletin reference... A. Missing adults B. Habitual runaways C. Serious child abductions D. Exploited children

answer

C. Serious child abductions

question

The AMBER alert was established August 30... A. 1996 B. 2000 C. 1998 D. 2002

answer

B. 2000

question

Responding "Cold" to call by Emergency Medical Services is: A. Lights and sirens B. For life threatening calls or emergencies C. No lights or sirens D. For routine calls

answer

C. No lights or sirens

question

EOP is the acronym for: A. Emergency Operations Policy B. Emergency Operator Prerequisites C. Emergency Operations Plans D. Emergency Operator performance

answer

C. Emergency Operations Plans

question

The Emergency Support Function's (ESF) provide the structure for coordinating federal interagency support for a federal response to an incident. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

ESF4 is the Emergency Support Function (ESF) for: A. Firefighting B. Transportation C. Communications D. Mass care and human services

answer

A. Firefighting

question

The duration of response for the TERT ranges from _______ to _________ depending on area and severity of the incident. A. Five days, two weeks B. Five days, two months C. Five weeks, two months D. Five months, two years

answer

A. Five days, two weeks

question

______ can be defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served and commitment to the continued development of skills in the pursuit of excellence. A. Morality B. Ethics C. Professionalism D. Self-respect

answer

C. Professionalism

question

What statute advises that no public safety telecommunicator or employee of a state agency or county, city or other political subdivision in the state shall have any interest financial or otherwise, direct or indirect, engages in any business transaction or professional activity; or incur any obligation of any nature, which is in substantial conflict with the proper discharge of his/her duties in the public interest. A. 119 B. 114 C. 112 D. 136

answer

C. 112

question

A high standard of ethical and moral conduct is an essential ingredient in the development of a professional public safety telecommunicator on or off duty. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A _____ is anything of value intended to benefit the giver more then the receive, given to a person because of position and authority rather than because of individual or personal qualities. A. Gift B. Reward C. Gratuity D. Benefit

answer

C. Gratuity

question

What state was the first to utilize 2 way radios in 1933? A. California B. New Jersey C. Illinois D. Florida

answer

B. New Jersey

question

Civil Law deals with the body of statutes and other laws that define conduct which is prohibited by the government and that sets out government sanctions to be imposed on those that breach laws. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

The ____ specifies a series of administrative, physical, and technical safeguards for covered entities to us to assure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronically protected health information. A. The Sunshine Law B. The Security Rule C. Hippa Privacy Rule D. Public Records Law

answer

B. The Security Rule

question

What is a sign of physical stress? A. Lack of work ethic B. Difficulty concentrating and remaining focused C. Low morale D. Insomnia

answer

D. Insomnia

question

What phase of barricaded subjects is information about subject obtained? A. Containment phase B. Termination phase C. Observation phase D. Approach phase

answer

C. Observation phase

question

What is the age for a missing person when Silver Alerts are activated? A. 75 B. 60 C. 55 D. 65

answer

B. 60

question

Which information can not be garnered from FCIC? A. Stolen guns B. Gang files C. Criminal histories D. Stolen credit cards

answer

D. Stolen credit cards

question

Where is NCIC housed? A. Washington D.C B. Richmond, Virginia C. Clarksburg, West Virginia D. Annapolis, Maryland

answer

C. Clarksburg, West Virginia

question

Florida has _____ Emergency Support Functions (ESFs), grouped by function rather than agency. A. 25 B. 18 C. 22 D. 17

answer

B. 18

question

Each Emergency Support Function (ESF) is headed by a primary state agency and supported by additional state agencies. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

What alert was created for the public after an officer has been seriously injured or killed by an offender? A. Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) B. Florida Department of Law Enforcement (FDLE) C. Law Enforcement Officer (LEO) D. Officer Down

answer

C. Law Enforcement Officer (LEO)

question

A high standard of ethical and moral conduct is an essential ingredient in the development of a professional Public Safety Telecommunicator, on or off duty. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

____________________ was the first state to utilize 2-way radios in 1933.

answer

New Jersey

question

In 1999, Senate Bill _______ declared 911 as the National Communications number.

answer

800

question

What Florida State Statute governs the "Sunshine Law"? A. 114 B. 121 C. 119 D. 111

answer

C. 119

question

To fit Amber Alert criteria, the child must be under the age of 21 years of age. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

The group whose mission it is to support citizens and first responders to ensure that as a nation we work together to build, sustain and improve our capability to prepare for, protect against, respond to, recover from and mitigate hazards is known as: A. NIMS B. NORAD C. CEMP D. FEMA

answer

D. FEMA

question

Stressors that are unique to a Telecommunicator include: A. Multi-tasking, life or death situations, urgency and shift rotations B. Death in the family, divorce or familial issues C. Heavy traffic coming into work, long commutes or traffic delays D. Problems with coworkers, supervisors or managers

answer

A. Multi-tasking, life or death situations, urgency and shift rotations

question

What basic information is needed by a Telecommunicator for basic questioning techniques? A. Getting the callers first and last name, address and date of birth B. Asking if the patient needs an ambulance C. Finding out if the call just occurred or if it occurred in the past D. Where, what, when, weapons, who and how

answer

D. Where, what, when, weapons, who and how

question

What are the five parts of the communications cycle? _____________, _____________, _____________, _____________, _____________

answer

Sender, Receiver, Message, Medium, Feedback

question

Ethics can be defined as: A. Commitment to one's career B. Behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked in pride in oneself C. Respect for the people one serves D. Principles of honor, morality and accepted rules of conduct of an individual or group

answer

D. Principles of honor, morality and accepted rules of conduct of an individual or group

question

What are the 5 phases of an Active Shooter? _____________, _____________, _____________, _____________, _____________

answer

Fantasy, Planning, Preperation, Approach, Implementation

question

Florida's ______________________________ was made effective by an Executive Order signed by Charlie Crist on October 8, 2008.

answer

Silver Alert

question

Intentional release of toxic biological agents to harm and terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause is known as: A. State terrorism B. Bio-terrorism C. Eco-terrorism D. Nuclear terrorism

answer

B. Bio-terrorism

question

The primary role and responsibilities of the ____________ Team is to provide mission critical assistance for call-taking and dispatcher functions during and after a disaster incident.

answer

TERT

question

Information being disseminated to the public is governed by the following: A. Agency policies, local government, state laws and federal laws B. Individual agencies, state laws and federal laws and local government C. Local government, state laws, and federal laws D. Agency policies, local government and state laws

answer

A. Agency policies, local government, state laws and federal laws

question

Active listening skills include: A. Not passing judgments or jumping to conclusions B. Becoming defensive if the caller becomes defensive C. Interrupting when the caller is going on and on D. Not showing empathy for the caller's situation; it shows weakness

answer

A. Not passing judgments or jumping to conclusions

question

The following are all techniques to prevent and manage stress, with the exception of: A. Taking medication B. Establish proper eating habits C. Take regular breaks D. Get adequate sleep

answer

A. Taking medication

question

All federal, state and local laws for disseminating public information evolve from the Freedom of Information Act, also known as: A. Public Law 89.554 B. F.S. 119 C. Federal Law 89.54 D. Public Law 89.54

answer

A. Public Law 89.554

question

911 is used as the emergency number in: A. United States B. United States, Canada C. United States, Mexico, Canada D. United States, Mexico

answer

B. United States, Canada

question

In courtroom testimony, tactics used by opposing counsel during cross-examination include rapid-firing questions to: A. Attempt to confuse or lead the witness B. Cause lack of concentration on the part of the witness (to focus on error rather than question) C. Confuse and attempt to force inconsistency in witness answers D. Lull the witness into false sense of security to give answers in favor of the defense

answer

A. Attempt to confuse or lead the witness

question

Paramedics provide what type of medical treatment to the injured: A. Advanced Life Support B. Basic Life Support C. Basic Living Support D. Advanced Living Support

answer

A. Advanced Life Support

question

Defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served and commitment to the continued development of skills in the pursuit of excellence. A. Morality B. Professionalism C. Ethics D. Self-respect

answer

B. Professionalism

question

The use of 911 equipment starts with a 911 call via landline phone, cellular phones, and ___________________________________

answer

Voip

question

FEMA is the acronym for: A. Florida Emergency Management Agency B. Florida Emergency Management Association C. Federal Emergency Management Agency D. Federal Emergency Management Administration

answer

C. Federal Emergency Management Agency

question

Terrorism can be defined as: A. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by one individual to another with the intention of intimidating or coercing societies or governments, often for ideological or political reasons. B. Threatened use of force by one individual to another with the intention of coercing or intimidating a government, often for ideological reasons. C. Unlawful use of force by or violence by an organized group against people or property with the intention of coercing or intimidating a government, often for ideological reasons. D. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by a person or an organized group against people or property with the intention of intimidating or coercing societies or governments, often for ideological or political reasons.

answer

D. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by a person or an organized group against people or property with the intention of intimidating or coercing societies or governments, often for ideological or political reasons.

question

SERT, Florida's State Emergency Response Team, is composed of all but the following? A. Sheriffs from each County B. Emergency Coordination Officers C. Volunteer Agencies D. Non-Governmental organizations

answer

A. Sheriffs from each County

question

Florida Statute 252.35 deals with what subject? A. Division of Emergency Management B. Department of Emergency Management C. County Emergency Management D. Florida's State Emergency Response Team

answer

A. Division of Emergency Management

question

Which of the following is not a responsibility of County Emergency Management? A. Enforce the laws in a state of emergency B. Coordinate emergency response efforts within its jurisdiction C. Maintain and operate a 24-hour warning point D. Develop and maintain an emergency management plan

answer

A. Enforce the laws in a state of emergency

question

_________ was developed jointly by the U.S. Department of Transportation, Transport Canada and the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico.

answer

DOT-ERG

question

answer

A. True

question

An asset (terrorist) is a resource-person, group, relationship, instrument, installation or supply at the disposition of a terrorist organization for the use for an operational or support role. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The first documented form of police communication was: A. A flag B. A whistle C. A horn D. A bell

answer

D. A bell

question

The Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC) was created in June, 1970, and is based in ___________________________________

answer

Tallahassee, FL

question

Utilizing the TDD, "SKSK" is the abbreviation for: ___________________________________

answer

Stop / end conversation

question

Sulfur is an example of what kind of hazardous material? A. Liquid B. Gas C. Solid D. Aerosol

answer

C. Solid

question

CHEMTREC provides information on: A. Prices on gasoline around the globe B. Hazardous materials C. Chemical dependency D. Chemical companies around the globe

answer

B. Hazardous materials

question

What EMS calls require police response? A. The patient requires CPR B. The patient is having congestive heart failure C. The patient is home alone D. Crowd/traffic control may be required

answer

D. Crowd/traffic control may be required

question

When a Telecommunicator provides legal advice, _______________can be attached to the Telecommunicator and/or the employing agency.

answer

liability

question

Which of the five phases of an active shooter event is where the suspect has made plans and has committed to carrying out the act? A. Approach phase B. Implementation phase C. Preparation phase D. Fantasy phase

answer

A. Approach phase

question

The termination phase during a hostage situation is the _______________ phase which will result in surrender, suspect arrested or killed, or demands met

answer

Final

question

The Emergency Operations Center (EOC) has three levels of activation: A. Level 1 (Green), Level 2 (Orange), Level 3 (Red) B. Level 1 (Normal Response), Level 2 (Moderate Response), Level 3 (Full Response) C. Level 1 (Full activation), Level 2 (Partial activation), and Level 3 (Monitoring activation). D. Level 1 (Monitoring Activation), Level 2 (Partial Activation), Level 3 (Full Activation)

answer

C. Level 1 (Full activation), Level 2 (Partial activation), and Level 3 (Monitoring activation).

question

The Emergency Support Function (ESF) that provides coordination of federal firefighting activities and support to wildland, rural and urban firefighting operations is? A. ESF5 B. ESF4 C. ESF6 D. ESF3

answer

B. ESF4

question

Define ATU? A. Air Rescue Transport Unit B. Air Transport Unit C. Aid Rescue Transport Unit D. Aid/Air Transport Unit

answer

A. Air Rescue Transport Unit

question

There are many incidents, to include _______________ and _______________, that must be reported to the State Watch Office.

answer

natural, manmade

question

Role of the Telecommunicator during a disaster is to be the first responder to any event. A. On-call status B. Mutual aid C. Mission critical D. Recovery

answer

C. Mission critical

question

A Telecommunicator should recognize the need to change _________________________ based on your caller's ability to understand.

answer

communication style

question

According to the mission of the Department of Homeland Security, its main areas of responsibility include all except: A. Guarding against terrorism B. Protecting our gun rights C. Securing our borders D. Enforcing our immigration laws

answer

B. Protecting our gun rights

question

What allows communication centers to receive location and number information on emergency calls utilizing the 911 network? A. FIN B. Telematics C. ANI and ALI D. Florida Relay System

answer

C. ANI and ALI

question

A high standard of _______________ and _______________ conduct is an essential ingredient in the development of a professional Public Safety Telecommunicator on and off duty.

answer

ethical, moral

question

Unethical conduct by Public Safety Telecommunicators is viewed by the public as a reflection of: A. Their agency and the entire profession B. The Telecommunicator and the agency C. The agency and their coworkers only D. The profession

answer

A. Their agency and the entire profession

question

When being questioned in court if the exact information is not known (i.e., measurement of something) you should use the term ____________________

answer

approximately

question

_________________________ is the duty of a responsible party to take action to prevent harm to the public or other party. This duty may be directed by agency policy and procedure or may result from a moral obligation.

answer

Duty to Act

question

The first two-way radio was used in Bayonne, New Jersey in A. 1913 B. 1930 C. 1993 D. 1933

answer

D. 1933

question

To demonstrate the ability to recognize when information is not appropriate: A. Gather information by only asking questions that require a yes or no answer B. Pay attention to the caller only and do not listen to any background noises C. Draw premature conclusions to end call faster D. Zero in on key words

answer

D. Zero in on key words

question

"Receiver" is one of the 5 parts of the communications cycle. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

_____________________________________ is a method used by emergency medical personnel to grade the severity of a traumatic injury.

answer

Trauma Alert Criteria

question

Telecommunicators may be subject to ______________________ for violation of public information laws, including civil liability and criminal prosecution.

answer

severe penalties

question

All of the following are hazardous gas materials except: A. Chlorine B. Hydrogen C. Diesel Fuel D. Anhydrous ammonia

answer

C. Diesel Fuel

question

ESF is headed by a primary state agency and supported by : A. Their own agency and the County B. Primary state agency and additional state agencies C. Additional state agencies and all local agencies D. Their own agency and no one else

answer

B. Primary state agency and additional state agencies

question

Inter-State Mutual Aid: In accordance with __________ of Florida Statutes, Florida has also adopted the Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) and Memoranda of Understanding with other States and private organizations. These agreements provide mechanisms to share resources between each other during major disasters. A. Chapter 252, Part III B. Chapter 250, Part II C. Chapter 352, Part III D. Chapter 352, Part II

answer

A. Chapter 252, Part III

question

Define Deposition: A. Being in a courtroom while a trial is in progress B. Taking of testimony under oath C. Receiving a subpoena while on duty D. The scope of questioning

answer

B. Taking of testimony under oath

question

As part of the proper interview questions for disaster calls, such as plane crashes, you should always ask the following: location, caller's name, type of aircraft, tail number, actions of the plane before the crash, injuries, accessibility by ground, and any special equipment or vehicles needed for access to the site: A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

BNICE is the acronym for? A. Biological, Nuclear/Radiological, Incendiary, Chemical, and Explosive Agents B. Biological, Nuclear/Radiological, Incendiary, Chemical, and Explosive Ammunition C. Bomb, Nuclear/Radiological, Improvised Explosive device, Chemical, and Explosive Agents D. Biological weapon, Nerve agents, Radiological, Improvised Explosive device, Counter-terrorism, and Explosive agents.

answer

A. Biological, Nuclear/Radiological, Incendiary, Chemical, and Explosive Agents

question

Telecommunicators are often faced with civil questions. Telecommunicators should: A. Tell the caller what they think is lawful B. Wait for the officers to respond and then explain it correctly C. Rely on agency policy and procedures D. Tell the caller to contact an attorney

answer

C. Rely on agency policy and procedures

question

Telecommunicators will maintain the integrity of ______________________; they will neither seek personal data beyond that needed to perform their professional responsibilities, nor reveal case information to anyone not having proper professional use for same.

answer

private information

question

Professionalism can be defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards of character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served and commitment to: A. The Public Safety Telecommunicator B. The agency C. The continued development of skills in pursuit of excellence D. The continued development of the agency and fellow coworkers

answer

C. The continued development of skills in pursuit of excellence

question

Decision-making refers to the ability to use __________ in making decisions based on available facts, prior knowledge or experience, when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. Logical judgment B. Experienced judgment C. Educated judgment D. Sound judgment

answer

D. Sound judgment

question

TDD is the acronym for: A. Telephone Device for the Deaf B. Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf C. Telecommunications Dealing with the Deaf D. Telecommunications Device for the Hearing Impaired

answer

B. Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf

question

The first test call was made using the 911 system in Haleyville, Alabama, February 16, 1968. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Provides the template for the management of incidents, while the NRF provides the structure and mechanisms for national-level policy for incident management. A. NORAD B. NIMS C. FEMA D. SERT

answer

B. NIMS

question

The effect of long term mental stress is known as: A. Low morale B. Lack of drive C. Burnout D. Negative attitude

answer

C. Burnout

question

Florida's Silver Alert Plan was made effective by Executive Order signed by Barack Obama on October 8, 2008. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

An Amber Alert activation must be recommended by: A. FDLE B. FCIC, FDLE, FBI and local law enforcement agency of jurisdiction C. The local law enforcement agency of jurisdiction D. FBI

answer

C. The local law enforcement agency of jurisdiction

question

What are the placards on conveyances that transport hazardous materials used for? A. To track hazardous materials B. To provide owner information C. To identify hazardous materials D. To track hazmat incidents

answer

C. To identify hazardous materials

question

FIN (Florida Interoperability Network) is a statewide VOIP. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Telecommunicators should have knowledge of the skills and capabilities of the units handling an incident, be aware of resources available, and recognize potential issues that may threaten __________. A. The surrounding areas B. Responder and public safety C. Public safety D. First responders

answer

B. Responder and public safety

question

The acronym HIPAA stands for: A. Health Insurance Protective and Accountability Act B. Health Integrity Protection and Assurance Act C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act D. Health Information Protection and Accountability Act

answer

C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

question

Senate Bill 800 declared 911 as the National Communications number in what year? A. 2001 B. 1999 C. 1961 D. 2004

answer

B. 1999

question

FEMA provides services for crisis counseling, unemployment, legal services and special tax considerations. A. True B. False

answer

A. True (p2)

question

Intentional release of toxic biologic agents intended to harm and terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause is known as: A. Nuclear Terrorism B. State Terrorism C. Bio-Terrorism D. Eco-Terrorism

answer

C. Bio-Terrorism

question

Active listening is a way of listening and responding that shows interest in what the speaker is saying and ensures mutual understanding. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Amber Alerts are the only type of Florida alerts that are displayed on lottery machines and DOT dynamic messaging signs. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

____________ can be defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served and commitment to the continued development of skills in the pursuit of excellence. A. Self-respect B. Professionalism C. Ethics D. Morality

answer

B. Professionalism

question

A law enforcement Telecommunicator will not be required to take a CPR course. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Typically, liability exposure for public safety agencies revolves around issues where the service and ____________ did not meet the expectations of the public. A. Standards of the Telecommunicator B. Standard of care C. Level of standards D. Agency Standards

answer

B. Standard of care

question

Telecommunicators should give information, not advice. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The Emergency Support Functions (ESF) provide the structure for coordinating federal interagency support for a federal response to an incident. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Each Emergency Support Function (ESF) is headed by a primary state agency and supported by additional state agencies. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A ____________ is a device which gives the ability to receive calls and communicate with citizens who are hearing impaired and/or unable to verbally communicate, through typing instead of speaking. A. TDD B. DTC C. TTD D. FRS

answer

A. TDD

question

Decision-making refers to the ability to use sound judgment in the making of decisions based on available facts, prior knowledge or experience when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

CHEMTREC is an emergency call center open during the week that provides immediate information and assistance to anyone involved in a chemical or hazardous material incident. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

An event that is currently taking place and requires emergency assistance. A. Occurred within the week B. Just-occurred C. In-progress D. Past event

answer

C. In-progress

question

ALI is the acronym for: A. Authorized Location Incident B. Automatic Location Identifier C. Authorized Landing Identifier D. Automatic Listening Indicator

answer

B. Automatic Location Identifier

question

Jurisdictions are primarily configured as agency-specific and can be known as, but not limited to, city, county, zone, region, territory or state. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

FCIC is based in Tampa and is administered by the Florida Department of Law Enforcement. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

The first 911 enhanced call was received in Pinellas County, Florida, in January, 1980. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

In what year were police cars first equipped with radio receivers? A. 1937 B. 1933 C. 1949 D. 1929

answer

D. 1929

question

The AMBER Alert was established August 30th of what year? A. 2000 B. 1996 C. 1998 D. 2002

answer

A. 2000

question

Which alert relates to serious injury or death of an officer? A. Officer Down B. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) C. Law Enforcement Officer (LEO) D. Florida Department of Law Enforcement (FDLE)

answer

C. Law Enforcement Officer (LEO)

question

68. In the negotiation phase, demands have been received, and negotiations are occurring between suspect(s) and law enforcement. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

To fits the criteria for an AMBER Alert activation, a person must be under 21 years of age. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

More than _____ million FCIC transactions are performed monthly. A. 87 B. 93 C. 102 D. 61

answer

A. 87

question

The group whose mission it is to support citizens and first responders to ensure that as a nation we work together to build, sustain and improve our capability to prepare for, protect against, respond to, recover from, and mitigate hazards, is known as: A. CEMP B. FEMA C. NORAD D. NIMS

answer

B. FEMA

question

EMT provide advanced life support to victims. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

The first 911 test call was made on February 16, 1968, in: A. Fort Myers, Florida B. Evanston, Illinois C. Haleyville, Alabama D. Detroit, Michigan

answer

C. Haleyville, Alabama

question

An Emergency Operations Center (EOC) is located: A. In another county as to where the incident is occurring B. In a centralized location for representatives of emergency support functions C. Near the largest county sheriff's office in the area D. Inside a hospital

answer

B. In a centralized location for representatives of emergency support functions

question

The Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC) and the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) collects and maintains and provides criminal justice information to local, state and federal agencies in a complete and accurate manner. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The following are included in the five phases of an active shooter except: A. Initial B. Fantasy C. Planning D. Preparation

answer

A. Initial

question

An incident that requires an immediate response due to persons in imminent danger of loss of life or limb, or injuries beyond immediate first aid. A. Urgent B. Non-emergency C. Emergency D. Routine

answer

C. Emergency

question

The acronym HIPAA stands for: A. Health Insurance Protective and Accountability Act B. Health Integrity Protection and Assurance Act C. Health Information Protection and Accountability Act D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

answer

D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

question

Public Safety Telecommunicators need to be able to discern the differences between criminal and civil law. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

____________ use two-way wireless communications between a vehicle and processing center. A. TDD B. Relay services C. Telematic Call Centers D. Communications centers

answer

C. Telematic Call Centers

question

The primary role and responsibilities of a TERT team is to provide mission critical assistance for call-taking and dispatcher functions during and after a disaster incident. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The following are examples of confidential information except: A. The identity of a deceased person before next of kin has been notified B. Suspect information C. Names, addresses and telephone numbers D. Patient information

answer

B. Suspect information

question

Multifunctional dexterity is: A. The ability to carry on a conversation with a co-worker while listening to a caller B. The ability to eat food and drink water at your desk C. The ability to sit at your desk for a long period of time without a break D. The ability to write, type, listen and talk at the same time

answer

D. The ability to write, type, listen and talk at the same time

question

Active listening skills include: A. Not passing judgments or jumping to conclusions. B. Interrupting when the caller is going on and on C. Becoming defensive if the caller becomes defensive D. Not showing empathy for a caller's situation as it shows weakness

answer

A. Not passing judgments or jumping to conclusions.

question

HIPAA was designed to protect patients from disclosure of protected oral, written or electronic health information A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Telecommunicators should have knowledge of the skills and capabilities of the unit handling an incident, be aware of resources available, and recognize potential issues that may threaten: A. Responder and public safety B. The surrounding areas C. Public safety D. First responders

answer

A. Responder and public safety

question

Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM) is a structured process for managing the stress involved in a critical incident. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The acronym NORAD stands for: A. North American Roadway Area Department B. North American Aerospace Defense Command C. National Officers Retaining Area Defenses D. National Organization for Response and Detaining

answer

B. North American Aerospace Defense Command

question

The Florida Interoperability Network (FIN) is provided by the State of Florida for all public safety disciplines. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Officers can identify a material by finding the number: A. In the chemical aid booklet B. On the black and white panel C. On the red panel D. On the orange panel

answer

D. On the orange panel

question

Which United State President signed Senate Bill 800 declaring 911 as the National Communications number on October 26, 1999? A. President George W Bush B. President Clinton C. President George Bush D. President Reagan

answer

B. President Clinton

question

The ________is the means of delivery A. Sender B. Message C. Feedback D. Medium

answer

D. Medium

question

A_______ refers to something that actually exists and can be verified. A. Inference B. Fact C. Fiction D. Truth

answer

B. Fact

question

Telecommunicators do not need to know which agencies surround their boundaries/zones. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

_________is not a hazardous gas material. A. Chlorine B. Diesel Fuel C. Hydrogen D. Anhydrous ammonia

answer

B. Diesel Fuel

question

Providing legal advice can attach liability to the telecommunicator and/or the employing agency. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

During a hostage situation the phase which will result in the surrender, suspect is arrested or killed or their demands are met is called _______. A. Negotiation phase B. Termination phase C. Initial phase D. Beginning phase

answer

B. Termination phase

question

One role of a telecommunicator in handling a suicidal call is to determine if anyone else is present. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Florida Governor Charlie Crist signed which executive order on May 5, 2008? A. LEO Alert B. Silver Alert C. Amber Alert D. Missing Child Alert

answer

A. LEO Alert

question

Any stress reaction resulting from unpleasant or harmful events or consequences is called ________. A. Anti-Stress B. Eustress C. Distress D. Stressor

answer

C. Distress

question

Use of drug trafficking to fund their operations is called _______. A. Bio-terrorism B. Narco-terrorism C. State Terrorism D. Cyber Terrorism

answer

B. Narco-terrorism

question

An item of material which projects, disperses or disseminates a biological agent including arthropod vectors is a ________. A. Biological weapon B. Chemical weapon C. Biological agent D. Nuclear weapon

answer

A. Biological weapon

question

NIMS is the acronym for the National Incident Management System. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Personal Gain is when the public safety telecommunicator uses their official positions to secure privileges or advantages for themselves. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

When was the first telephone added to call booths, linking the officer with the police department? A. 1880 B. 1870 C. 1928 D. 1929

answer

B. 1870

question

Civil law deals with disputes between individuals and organizations? A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The order in which the telecommunicator needs to ask questions in order to obtain how an incident happened is? A. Where, what, when, weapons, who, how B. What, when, where, weapons, who, how C. How, who, where, when, weapons, what D. Weapons, where, what, when, how, who

answer

A. Where, what, when, weapons, who, how

question

Sender, receiver, message, medium and feedback are the 5 parts of the communications cycle essential for effective communications. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The NCIC Maintains information on stolen and recovered property as well as wanted and missing persons for all 50 states but does not for Guam, American Samoa and the Mariana Islands. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Decision-making refers to the ability to use sound judgment in the making decisions based on the available facts, prior knowledge or experience when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A_______incident is one that requires an immediate response due to persons in imminent danger of loss of life or limb or injuries beyond immediate first aid. A. Emergency B. Priority C. Eminent D. Fast

answer

A. Emergency

question

Section 119.01, F.S., provides that all state, county and municipal records are closed for personal inspection and copy by any person. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Materials that burn in the presence of an ignition source are called_______. A. Solids B. Gasoline C. Chlorine D. Acetone

answer

A. Solids

question

Chemtrec is an emergency call center open during the week that provides immediate information and assistance to anyone involved in a chemical or hazardous material incident around the globe. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

A delayed call is called a _____ event. A. Just occurred B. In-progress C. Past event call D. Occurred within the week

answer

C. Past event call

question

Decision making refers to the ability to use_______ judgment in making decisions based on available facts, _______ knowledge or experience when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. Resonance - previous B. Sound - prior C. Quality - earlier D. Valuable - past

answer

B. Sound - prior

question

Jurisdictions are primarily configured as agency specific and can be known as, but not limited to, city, county, zone, region, territory or state. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

A trauma center is defined as: A. A method used by emergency medical personnel to grade the severity of a traumatic injury and determine the need for transport. B. The type of hospital that provides surgeons and other medical personnel and equipment to provide care for severely injured patients around the clock. C. The type of hospital that is used by emergency medical personnel to grade the severity of any traumatic injury. D. The closest hospital is named the trauma center for any given emergency.

answer

B. The type of hospital that provides surgeons and other medical personnel and equipment to provide care for severely injured patients around the clock.

question

Chemical agent is defined as: A chemical agent substance that is intended for use in ______ operations to kill, seriously injure, or ________ people through its physiological effects. A. Law enforcement - enable B. Immigration - constrict C. Military - incapacitate D. Homeland security - facilitate

answer

C. Military - incapacitate

question

FEMA provides services for crisis counseling, legal services, special tax considerations and unemployment. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Ethics can be defined as the behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career. A. True B. False

answer

B. False (Professionalism)

question

In 1870, the Chicago Police Department updated their signal lights with: A. Call boxes B. Private booths C. Clock boxes D. Call booths

answer

D. Call booths

question

Any disclosure of confidential information must be properly documented and only released to those with a need to know, such as _______ or those with a right to know as authorized by law. A. Media personnel B. Florida Department of Law Enforcement C. Public safety officials D. Private security

answer

C. Public safety officials

question

The Sunshine Law provides that limited records made or received by any public agency in the course of its official business are available for inspection. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Which typical component is not included in a communication center? A. 911/in-coming telephone lines B. Media line C. CAD D. Teletype

answer

B. Media line

question

A multi-casualty incident is defined as an incident where the number and severity of casualties exceeds the capability of the responders' initial resources. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Legal advice can only be obtained from an attorney, unless the telecommunicator has experience in a given area in question. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Of the alerts: Amber/Silver/LEO, only the Amber Alerts are displayed on lottery machines and DOT dynamic message signs. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Roles and responsibilities of the telecommunicators Emergency Response Taskforce (TERT) team is to provide mission critical assistance for call-taking and dispatch functions during and after a disaster incident. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

When a judge "sustains" an objection A. The witness may answer B. The witness should ask his attorney C. The witness should not answer. D. The witness should ask a question.

answer

C. The witness should not answer.

question

answer

B. The Security Rule

question

What is a sign of physical stress? A. Lack of work ethic B. Difficulty concentrating and remaining focused C. Low morale D. Insomnia

answer

D. Insomnia

question

What phase of barricaded subjects is information about subject obtained? A. Containment phase B. Termination phase C. Observation phase D. Approach phase

answer

C. Observation phase

question

What is the age for a missing person when Silver Alerts are activated? A. 75 B. 60 C. 55 D. 65

answer

B. 60

question

Which information can not be garnered from FCIC? A. Stolen guns B. Gang files C. Criminal histories D. Stolen credit cards

answer

D. Stolen credit cards

question

A telecommunicator's agency assumes all liability if a telecommunicator violates a law or statute. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Typically depositions are used to determine how strong a witness the telecommunicator will be. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

The Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC) is based in Jacksonville and is administered by the Florida Department of Law Enforcement (FDLE). A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

Mobile radios and portable radios can both be defined as a radio small enough for a responder to carry at all times. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

The Florida Relay Systems (511) assists individuals with hearing and speech impediments in communications with those without 9-1-1 access. A. True B. False

answer

B. False

question

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 provides _____________ protections for personal health information. A. State B. Federal C. Local D. Agency

answer

B. Federal

question

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) dictates that 9-1-1 services must be accessible to people with _____________. A. Hearing loss. B. Speech impediments. C. Hearing and speech impediments. D. Deafness or hard of hearing.

answer

C. Hearing and speech impediments.

question

9-1-1 equipment allows communication centers to receive emergency calls utilizing the 9-1-1 network. This includes Automatic Location Identifier (ALI), Automatic Number Identifier (ANI), ______________. A. Recording equipment, landlines and voice over internet protocol. B. Mapping systems, recording equipment, and computer aided dispatch. C. Mapping systems, telematic call centers and vehicles. D. Mapping systems, recording equipment and cellular phones.

answer

B. Mapping systems, recording equipment, and computer aided dispatch.

question

The Florida Interoperability Network (FIN) allows: A. Limited communications for all public safety disciplines. B. Seamless communications, through limited frequencies for most public safety agencies. C. Seamless communications, over shared frequencies, for statewide use, by all public safety disciplines. D. Shared frequencies between any public safety agency and any federal agency.

answer

C. Seamless communications, over shared frequencies, for statewide use, by all public safety disciplines

question

Public safety telecommunicators must clearly identify ________ and use caution when making __________ about a situation. Improper inferences and assumptions may lead to the telecommunicator to misinterpret a situation and may result in an incorrect response. A. Identify facts and use caution when making inferences about a situation. B. Identify facts and use caution when making decisions about a situation. C. Identify callers and use caution when making decisions about a situation. D. Identify inferences and use caution when making decisions about a situation.

answer

A. Identify facts and use caution when making inferences about a situation.

question

All federal, state and local laws for disseminating public information evolve from the Freedom of Information Act also known as: A. Public Law 89.54 B. F.S. 119 C. Federal Law 89.54 D. Public Law 89.554

answer

D. Public Law 89.554

question

Information being disseminated to the public is governed by the following: A. Agency policies and local government B. Individual agencies, state laws and federal laws C. Local government, state laws, and federal laws D. Agency policies, local government, state laws and federal laws

answer

D. Agency policies, local government, state laws and federal laws

question

Telecommunicators should have knowledge of the skills and capabilities of the unit handling an incident, be aware of resources available, and recognize potential issues that may threaten ______________. A. The surrounding areas. B. Responder and public safety. C. Public safety. D. First responders.

answer

B. Responder and public safety.

question

Identify which statement is not correct when working with a hazardous material emergency. A. Different apparatus will respond B. For HAZMAT a specialty unit will respond to assess and handle the situation C. Telecommunicators will identify precautions to be taken and relay to responders D. Immediately attempt to identify the types of materials involved in an incident to determine possible response

answer

C. Telecommunicators will identify precautions to be taken and relay to responders

question

Which of the following is not a tool a first responder would typically utilize when dealing with a hazardous materials incident? A. DOT ERG Guidebook B. Training Manual C. CHEMTREC Book D. Placards

answer

B. Training Manual

question

The DOT ERG - Department of Transportation Emergency Response Guidebook (RD) was developed by: A. US Department of Transportation & Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico B. US Department of Transportation & Transport Canada C. US Department of Transportation & the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico D. US Department of Transportation, Transport Canada & the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico

answer

D. US Department of Transportation, Transport Canada & the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico

question

A structured process for managing the stress involved in a critical incident that may nclude group or individual debriefing where participants share experiences and emotions and are provided referrals if additional help is required is called: A. Crucial Incident Stress Debriefing B. Critical Incident Stabilization Management C. Critical Assessment and Stress Debriefing D. Critical Incident Stress Management

answer

D. Critical Incident Stress Management

question

Identify the necessary actions to manage stress during an "in-progress" incident. A. Focus on something else, stand up, personalize the situation. B. Remain focused, ask for assistance, follow protocols, take a deep breath. C. Remain focused, ask for assistance, disregard protocols, stand up. D. Follow protocols, personalize the situation, stand up, take a deep breath.

answer

B. Remain focused, ask for assistance, follow protocols, take a deep breath.

question

The chain of command is defined as: A. The link between one organization and another. B. The connection or linkage of authority between one individual and another. C. The linkage of responsible people that joins many levels of several organizations together. D. Connection or linkage of authority and responsibility that joins one level of an organization to another.

answer

D. Connection or linkage of authority and responsibility that joins one level of an organization to another.

question

answer

D. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by a person or an organized group against people or property with the intention of intimidating or coercing

question

Bio-terrorism can be defined as: A. Intentional release of toxic biological agents to harm and terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause (Anthrax, botulism, plague,smallpox). B. Unintentional release of toxic agents to harm citizens in the name of a political cause. C. Intentional release of biological agents to terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause (Anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox). D. Use of nuclear materials as a terrorist tactic.

answer

A. Intentional release of toxic biological agents to harm and terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause (Anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox).

question

State terrorism can be defined as: A. States that use threats without declaring war to terrorize citizens for a political goal (ex., Hitler). B. States that use extreme force by declaring war to terrorize citizens for a political goal (ex., Hitler). C. States that use force or the threat of force without declaring war to terrorize citizens and achieve a political goal (ex., Hitler). D. States that use the threat of force and declare war to terrorize citizens for a political goal (ex., Hitler).

answer

C. States that use force or the threat of force without declaring war to terrorize citizens and achieve a political goal (ex., Hitler).

question

The Emergency Operations Center operates under what three levels of activation? A. Complete activation, partial activation, limited monitoring B. Complete activation, partial activation, monitoring C. Full activation, partial activation, monitoring D. Full activation, limited activation, monitor only

answer

B, Complete activation, partial activation, monitoring

question

Florida Statute 252.38 deals with what subject? A. County Emergency Management B. State Emergency Management C. Division of Emergency Management D. Florida's State Emergency Response Team

answer

A. County Emergency Management

question

Florida Statute 252.35 deals with what subject? A. County Emergency Management B. Department of Emergency Management C. Division of Emergency Management D. Florida's State Emergency Response Team

answer

C. Division of Emergency Management

question

A telecommunicator is a first responder to any event and considered mission critical. A. True B. False

answer

A. True

question

Vital piece of information that should be obtained first is __________ a. How many people b. Any weapons c. Any injuries d. Location

answer

d. Location

question

A team consists of two or more people working together to accomplish a common goal a. Team Concept b. Duty to Act c. Agency Values d. Doing Business with ones Agency

answer

a. Team Concept

question

Violations of criminal laws and regulations, such as perjury, bribery, theft, identification theft, false report to law enforcement, false official statement, vandalism, burglary, firearms violations, etc a. Negligence on Duty b. Criminal Acts c. Personal Gain d. Illegal activities

answer

b. Criminal Acts

question

What is this term: Public safety telecommunicators will not use their official positions to secure privileges or advantages for themselves. a. gratuity b. gifts c. personal gain d. duty to act

answer

c. personal gain

question

Most public safety agencies have rules that prohibit employees from conducting personal business for profit with their agencies. Public safety telecommunicators should refer to s.112.313, F.S., Standards of Conduct for Public Officers, Employees of Agencies and Local Government Attorneys. a. Professionalism b. Confidentially c. Doing Business w/ ones Agency d. Negligence on Duty

answer

c. Doing Business w/ ones Agency

question

The failure to do that which a public safety telecommunicator has a directed or moral obligation to do; careless or reckless performance of one's duties a. Negligence of Duty b. Low Morale c. Burnout d. Duty to Act

answer

a. Negligence of Duty

question

The duty of a responsible party to take action to prevent harm to the public or another party. This duty may be directed by agency policy and procedure or may result from a moral obligation. a. Negligence on Duty b. Duty to Act c. Agency Values d. Moral Duty

answer

b. Duty to Act

question

Telecommunicators must be familiar with and follow all codes of ethics, professional conduct codes, standards, policies and procedures as determined by their agency. They must always uphold and follow the values and mission of their agency a. Personal Gain b. Team Concept c. Agency Values d. Doing Business with ones Agency

answer

c. Agency Values

question

Name the term: PSTs will maintain the integrity of private information; they will neither seek personal data beyond that needed to perform their professional responsibilities, nor reveal case information to anyone not having proper professional use for such. Violations of confidentiality are subject to disciplinary actions and/or civil liability and/or criminal prosecution a. HIPPA b. Security law c. Confidentially d. Privacy

answer

c. Confidentially

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) Used to confuse and attempt to force inconsistent answers a. Condescending Counsel b. Rapid Fire Questions c. Staring d. Conflicting Answers

answer

b. Rapid Fire Questions

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To give impression witness in inept, lacks confidence or is unreliable a. Condescending Counsel b. Rapid Fire Questions c. Staring d. Conflicting Answers

answer

a. Condescending Counsel

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To lull witness into a false sense of security to give answers in favor of defense a. Repetitious Questions b. Friendly Counsel c. Badgering/ Belligerent d. Suggestive Questioning

answer

b. Friendly Counsel

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To make witness angry so sense of logic and calmness is lost and PST is portrayed as one who can lose temper a. Suggestive Questioning b. Demanding Yes or No Answer c. Reversing Witness's Words d. Badgering/ Belligerent

answer

d. Badgering/ Belligerent

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To cause lack of concentration on witness' part (focus on error rather than question) a. Reversing Witness's Words b. Conflicting Answers c. Mispronouncing Telecommunicator's Name d. Staring

answer

c. Mispronouncing Telecommunicator's Name

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) Attempt to confuse or lead witness a. Suggestive Questioning b. Condescending Counsel c. Rapid Fire Questions c. Conflicting Answers

answer

a. Suggestive Questioning

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To prevent pertinent and mitigating details from being considered by the jury a. Reversing Witness's Words b. Conflicting Answers c. Demanding Yes or No Answer d. Badgering / Belligerent

answer

c. Demanding Yes or No Answer

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To confuse witness and demonstrate lack of confidence in witness a. Friendly Counsel b. Repetitious Questions c. Staring d. Reversing Witness's Words

answer

d. Reversing Witness's Words

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To obtain inconsistent or conflicting answers from witness a. Repetitus Questions b. Staring c. Mispronouncing Telecommunicators Name d. Reversing Witness's Words

answer

a. Repetitus Questions

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To show inconsistency in the investigation or testimony a. Conflicting Answers b. Demanding Yes or No Answers c. Condescending Counsel d. Repetitious Questions

answer

a. Conflicting Answers

question

(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To provoke witness into offering more than the question called for a. Staring b. Rapid Fire Questions c. Friendly Counsel d. Suggestive Questioning

answer

a. Staring

question

___________to lull witness into a false sense of security to give answers in favor of defense (this tactic is used by the defense during cross examination) a. condescending councel b. badgering, belligerent c. suggestive question d. friendliness

answer

d. friendliness

question

__________can be awarded during civil law violations a. monies b. compensation c. gratuity d. gifts

answer

b. compensation

question

Initially, you called _______ for the ________ for 911 a. 1, operator b. 211, police c. zero, operator d. zero, police

answer

c. zero, operator

question

(What type of objection is this) Objection withheld, witness may not answer, could result in mistrial if witness answers, and witness could be held in contempt a. overrule b. sustain c. irrelevancy d. refrain

answer

b. sustain

question

(Term) Witness may answer question a. Overrule b. Sustain c. Irrelevancy d. Refrain

answer

a. Overrule

question

Good sense of humor is part of having good interpersonal skills a. true b. false

answer

a. true

question

The first hand- held radios were introduced in: a. 1940 b. 1950 c. 1960 d. 1970

answer

c. 1960

question

What vital information should be obtained first in order to properly classify a call? a. What the nature of the incident is b. When did the event actually take place c. Are there weapons d. Where or location of the event

answer

d. Where or location of the event

question

In 1940 the first statewide radio system was implemented by the Connecticut State Police a. true b. false

answer

a. true

STUDY

Emergency Medical Services First Aid Full Thickness Burns Health Science Life Threatening Emergency

Healthcare Chapter 17: 1 Providing First Aid – Flashcards 15 terms

Gracie Stone

15 terms

Preview

Healthcare Chapter 17: 1 Providing First Aid – Flashcards

question

Define First Aid

answer

Immediate care that is given to the victim of an injury or illness to minimize the effect of the injury or illness until experts can take over.

question

Using the correct first aid methods can mean the difference between..... and......, or.......versus......

answer

Using the correct methods can mean the difference between life and death, or recovery versus permanent disability.

question

The type of first aid treatment you provide will vary depending on several factors. List three (3) factors that may affect any action taken.

answer

The type of injury/illness, the environment, and equipment/supplies on hand.

question

Identify three (3) senses that can alert you to an emergency.

answer

Listen for for unusual sounds, notice an unfamiliar odors, and look for unusual sights.

question

What action should you take if you notice that it is not safe to approach the scene of an accident?

answer

If the scene isn't safe to approach call for medical help.

question

What is the first thing you should determine when you get to the victim?

answer

Whether the victim is conscious or not.

question

Why is it important to avoid moving a victim whenever possible?

answer

You can harm the victim even more.

question

List five (5) kinds of information that should be reported when calling emergency medical services (EMS).

answer

Describe the situation, exact location, telephone from which you are calling, number of people involved, and condition of the victim(s).

question

What should you do if a person refuses to give consent for care?

answer

Don't proceed to care for them medically. If possible have someone witness the disapproval from the victim.

question

What is triage?

answer

A method prioritizing treatment.

question

Identify six (6) life- threatening emergencies that must be cared for first.

answer

No pulse, Severe bleeding, shock, poisoning, vomiting/passing of blood, and no breathing or difficulty breathing.

question

List four (4) sources of information you can use to find out the details regarding an accident, injury, or illness.

answer

Ask the victim about pain or discomfort, check vital signs, note any abnormal signs/ symptoms, and note temperature, color of skin, and moistness of skin.

question

How can you reassure the victim?

answer

Make sure the victim is able to speak to reassure you. A confident, calm attitude will help relieve the victim's anxiety.

question

Why shouldn't you discuss the victim's condition with observers at the scene?

answer

It is essential to maintain confidentiality and protect the victim's rights to privacy while providing treatment.

question

While providing first aid to the victim, make every attempt to avoid further...... Provide only the treatment you are..... to provide.

answer

while providing first aid to the victim, make every attempt to avoid further injury. Provide only the treatment you are qualified to provide.

STUDY

Emergency Medical Services Equipment And Supplies First Aid Physical Fitness The Body

Chapter 37: Emergency Medical Procedures and First Aid – Flashcards 43 terms

Ray Collins

43 terms

Preview

Chapter 37: Emergency Medical Procedures and First Aid – Flashcards

question

Burn

answer

injury to tissues caused by exposure to thermal, chemical, electrical, or radioactive agents.

question

Crash Cart

answer

a specially equipped cart for holding and transporting medications, equipment, and supplies needed for lifesaving procedures in an emergency.

question

Crepitus

answer

A grating sensation created by fractured bone,bone fragments rubbing against each other.

question

Dislocation

answer

An injury in which one end of the bone making up a joint is separated or displaced from its normal anatomic position.

question

EMS System

answer

network of community resources,equipment, and personnel that provides care to victims of injury or sudden illness.

question

fracture (Fx)

answer

any break in a bone

question

hypothermia

answer

life threatening condition in which the body temperature falls dangerously low

question

poison

answer

any substance that causes injury,illness, or death if it enters the body

question

pressure point

answer

a site on the body where an artery lies close to the surface of the skin and can be compressed against an underlying bone to control bleeding

question

seizure

answer

a sudden episode of involuntary muscle contractions and relaxation, often accompanied by changes in sensation,behavior, and level of consciousness.

question

shock

answer

the failure of the cardiovascular system to deliver enough blood to all of the vital organs of the body

question

splint

answer

any device that immobilizes a body part

question

sprain

answer

trauma to a joint that causes tearing of ligaments

question

strain

answer

a stretching or tearing of muscles or tendons caused by trauma

question

wound

answer

a break in the continuity of an external or internal surface, caused by physical means.

question

Heart Attack

answer

Myocardial Infarction; obstruction of coronary arteries or branches; severity characterized by amount of muscle tissue nourished by blocked artery

question

MI symptoms

answer

chest pain and radiation to jaw,shoulders,and arms (angina) SOB diaphoretic syncope

question

Tx for MI

answer

Nitroglycerin 1 SL q 5 min X3 fizzes and causes headache,works as vasodialator, monitor BP for decrease. Do NOT provide anti-coagulates if victim has bleeding

question

CVA

answer

Stroke

question

Stroke SX/SY

answer

Face droop Arm downward drift Speech slurred Time to call 911 also confussion,dizziness, severe headache, LOC

question

LOC

answer

loss of consciousness

question

Hypovolemic Shock

answer

loss of blood or fluids

question

Cardiogenic Shock

answer

failure to pump blood to vital organs

question

Neurogenic Shock

answer

nervous system unable to control diameter of blood vessels BP drops significantly.

question

Anaphylactic Shock

answer

life threatening reaction to allergen

question

Psychogenic Shock

answer

causes syncope

question

Insulin Shock

answer

hypoglycemia; needs sugar immediately experiences excess insulin

question

capillary bleeding

answer

slow oozing and bright red

question

venous bleeding

answer

slow, study and dark red

question

arterial bleeding

answer

spurts in dark red

question

epistaxis

answer

nosebleed

question

aspiration

answer

breathing in anything else other than air

question

diabetic coma

answer

needs insulin and admit to emergency room

question

internal bleeding sx

answer

rapid weak pulse; bruises,pain tenderness, swelling at the sit, cold clammy skin,nausea and emesis, excess thirst , low BP, decreased consciousness

question

TDAP vaccine

answer

prevents tetanus,diphtheria, and pertussis. TD boosts against tetanus and pertussis.

question

cyanosis

answer

low O2

question

contusion

answer

bruise

question

syncope

answer

fainting

question

encephalitis

answer

brain inflammation, maybe related to seizure

question

postictal state

answer

follows seizure as an altered state of unconsciousness

question

diaphoresis

answer

sweating; often referred to excessive sweating

question

erythema

answer

redness of skin

question

edema

answer

swelling

STUDY

Emergency Medical Services First Aid Full Thickness Burns Health Science Life Threatening Emergency

Health- First Aid all Notes – Flashcards 111 terms

Ben Russell

111 terms

Preview

Health- First Aid all Notes – Flashcards

question

an immediate care given to a victim of an accident or illness to minimize effect of injury or illness until experts can take over

answer

first aid

question

using the correct first aid methods can mean the difference between _____ and _____ or ________ versus __________.

answer

life and death; recovery versus permanent disability

question

factors that may affect the type of treatment you provide:

answer

-type of injury or illness -environment -equipment or supplies on hand -availability of medical help

question

types of senses that can alert you to an emergency:

answer

-unusual sounds -unusual sights -unusual appearances

question

what if the scene is not safe?

answer

call for medical help and do not endanger your life or the life of bystanders

question

what to do when approaching the victim:

answer

determine consciousness; if no response, call for help

question

why is it important to avoid moving the victim?

answer

victims have been injured more severely by improper movement

question

information the EMS needs:

answer

-description of the situation -actions taken -exact location -telephone number -number of people involved -condition of the victim(s)

question

method of prioritizing treatment

answer

triage

question

what is ABC?

answer

airway, breathing, circulation

question

examples of life-threatening emergencies:

answer

-no breathing or difficulty breathing -no pulse -severe bleeding -persistent pain in the chest or abdomen -poisoning

question

sources of information to discover details of accident, illness or injury:

answer

-details from victims, others or items present at the scene -medical ID such as bracelet or card

question

how do you reassure the victim?

answer

use a confident, calm voice to help relieve victim's anxiety

question

______ discuss the victim's condition with observers of the scene.

answer

never

question

maintain _______ and protect the victim's ___________ while providing treatment.

answer

confidentiality; right to privacy

question

while providing first aid to the victim, make every attempt to _________.

answer

avoid further injury

question

provide only treatment you are ______________

answer

qualified to provide

question

break in the bone

answer

fracture

question

the end of a bone is displaced from a joint or moved out of its normal position

answer

dislocation

question

injury to tissues surrounding a joint (involving ligaments and tendons)

answer

sprain

question

over stretching of a muscle

answer

strain

question

has no external wound on the skin

answer

closed or simple fracture

question

has an open wound on the skin

answer

open or compound fracture

question

list six signs and symptoms of a fracture.

answer

deformities, limited motion, pain, victim hears a snap, victim feels a grating sensation, swelling and discoloration

question

treatment for fractures is directed at maintaining ___________, treating for ______, keeping the broken bone from ______, and preventing further _______.

answer

respirations; shock; moving; injury

question

list four signs and symptoms of a dislocation.

answer

deformity, limited movement, swelling and discoloration, pain

question

why is movement of the injured part dangerous when a dislocation has occurred?

answer

can lead to additional injury to nerves, blood vessels, and other tissues in the area

question

list four signs and symptoms of a sprain.

answer

swelling, pain, impaired motion, discoloration

question

list three first aid treatments for a sprain.

answer

application of cold, elevation of the part, elastic bandage, rest

question

why are cold applications used to treat a sprain or strain?

answer

to reduce swelling and pain

question

why are warm applications used to treat a strain?

answer

to relax the muscles

question

list four different types of materials that can be used for splints.

answer

cardboard, newspapers, pillows, boards

question

list three basic principles that should be followed when splits are applied.

answer

-should be long enough to immobilize the joint above and below the injury -should be padded -should be tied in place

question

list four points you can check to make sure that circulation is not impaired after a splint or sling has been applied.

answer

skin temperature (should be warm), skin color (pale or blueness indicates poor circulation), note swelling, check for pain/tingling

question

what should you do if you notice signs of impaired circulation after applying a splint?

answer

immediately loosen the ties holding the splint

question

has a break in the skin or mucous membrane

answer

open wound

question

has no break in the skin (occurs to the underlying tissues)

answer

closed wound

question

first aid care for wounds must be directed at controlling _________ and preventing _________.

answer

bleeding; infections

question

scrape on the skin

answer

abrasion

question

cut or injury by sharp object

answer

incision

question

jagged irregular injury with tearing

answer

laceration

question

wound caused by sharp pointed object

answer

puncture

question

tissue torn or separated from body

answer

avulsion

question

body part cut off

answer

amputation

question

usually spurts from a wound, heavy blood loss, bright red in color

answer

arterial blood

question

slower, dark red, easier to control

answer

venous blood

question

oozes from the wound, clots easily

answer

capillary blood

question

list the four methods for controlling bleeding in the order in which they should be used.

answer

direct pressure, elevation, pressure bandage, pressure points

question

name two items that can be used to form a protective barrier while controlling bleeding

answer

a clean cloth or towel (or your bare hand)

question

the main pressure point for the arm is the _________

answer

brachial artery (inside of upper arm)

question

the main pressure point in the leg is the ___________

answer

femoral artery (groin)

question

list four ways to prevent infection while caring for minor wounds without severe bleeding.

answer

-wash hands before treating -put gloves on if available -wash wound with soap and water -rinse with cool water

question

list five signs of infection.

answer

-swelling -heat -pain -fever -pus

question

if a tetanus infection is a possibility, what first aid is necessary?

answer

tetanus shot

question

how should objects embedded deep in the tissues be removed?

answer

-if on the surface, remove it with sterile tweezers -if objects are deep, leave it and see a physician

question

list six signs and symptoms of a closed wound.

answer

-pain -tenderness -deformity -cold/clammy skin -rapid pulse -low blood pressure

question

list four first aid treatments for a victim of a closed wound.

answer

-get medical help ASAP -check breathing -avoid unnecessary movement of the victim -DO NOT give the victim fluids or foods

question

What other condition must you be prepared to treat while caring for wounds?

answer

shock

question

At all times, remain _____ while providing first aid.

answer

calm

question

Obtain ________ care as soon as possible.

answer

medical

question

a clinical set of signs and symptoms that are associated with an inadequate supply of blood to body organs

answer

shock

question

name the two main body organs affected by an inadequate supply of blood.

answer

brain and heart

question

list six causes of shock.

answer

-excessive loss of blood (hemorrhage) -dehydration (burns, vomiting, diarrhea) -excessive pain or infection -heart attack or stroke -poisoning -lack of oxygen

question

list nine signs or symptoms of shock.

answer

-skin is pale or bluish-gray in color -skin is cool or cold to the touch -diaphoresis (excessive perspiration) -rapid, weak pulse -respirations that are shallow, rapid, and sometimes irregular -blood pressure that is very low or not obtainable -general weakness -extreme restlessness -blurred vision

question

Treatment for shock is directed at eliminating the _______, improving ___________, providing ______, and maintaining _____________.

answer

cause; circulation; oxygen; body temperature

question

position for victim with neck or spine injuries:

answer

do not move them unless necessary for their safety

question

position for victim vomiting or bleeding from the mouth:

answer

on their side to prevent choking or breathing problems

question

victim with respiratory distress:

answer

head should be slightly raised

question

position if none of the previous conditions is present:

answer

flat on the back with legs and feet raised to improve circulation to the heart and brain

question

allergic reaction to a substance

answer

anaphylactic shock

question

caused by damage to the heart muscle form heart attack or cardiac arrest

answer

cardiogenic shock

question

caused by severe bleeding or loss of blood plasma

answer

hemorrhagic shock

question

caused by a loss of body fluid from severe vomiting, diarrhea, or heat illness

answer

hypovolemic shock

question

caused by injury and trauma to the brain and/or spinal cord

answer

neurogenic shock

question

caused by emotional distress such as anger, fear, or grief

answer

psychogenic shock

question

caused by trauma to respiratory tract; respiratory distress or arrest (chronic disease, choking)

answer

respiratory shock

question

caused by acute infection

answer

septic shock

question

an injury that can be caused by fire, heat, chemical agents, radiation and/or electricity

answer

burn

question

involves only the first layer of skin ex) sunburn, brief contact with hot objects

answer

first degree or superficial

question

-causes injury to top layers of skin; involves both the dermis and epidermis -swelling occurs ex) severe sunburn, contact with boiling liquids

answer

second degree or partial-thickness

question

-involves injury to all layers of the skin AND underlying tissue -can be painless -life-threatening ex) exposure to fire/flames, electricity

answer

third degree or full-thickness

question

first aid treatment for burns is directed at removing the ____________, cooling the _______, covering the ____, relieving ______, observing and treating for ______, and preventing ________.

answer

source of heat; skin area; burn; pain; shock; infection

question

identify 4 times when medical care should be obtained for burn victims.

answer

-more than 15% of the ADULT body is burned -more than 10% of a CHILD'S body is burned -burns affect face or respiratory tract -burns result form chemicals, explosions, or electricity

question

what is the main treatment for superficial and mild, partial-thickness burns?

answer

-cool the area by flushing it with cool water -use dry, sterile gauze to blot the area dry -elevate the affected part if possible

question

why is a sterile dressing applied to a burn?

answer

to prevent infection

question

if blisters appear on a burn, how should you treat these?

answer

DO NOT break any blisters open!

question

how should third degree burns be treated?

answer

-call for medical help immediately -cover with a sterile dressing -elevate the extremity -do not attempt to remove articles of clothing from the burn -watch the victim closely until help arrives

question

if chemicals or irritating gases burn the eyes, how should the eye be treated?

answer

-remove contact lenses if applicable -flush eyes with large amounts of water for 15-20 minutes -allow water to run to the outside of the eye

question

why is shock frequently noted in victims with severe burns?

answer

because of loss of body fluids (dehydration)

question

what occurs when the body is over exposed to heat?

answer

a chemical imbalance of water and salt that occurs through perspiration

question

what are heat cramps?

answer

muscle pains/spasms that result from salt and water loss

question

list 3 first aid treatments for heat cramps.

answer

-apply firm pressure on the muscle -encourage the victim to rest and move to a cooler area -give small sips of water or sports drink

question

list 6 signs or symptoms of heat exhaustion.

answer

-pale, clammy skin -profuse perspiration -tired, weak -headache -muscle cramps -nausea/vomiting

question

list 3 first aid treatments for heat exhaustion.

answer

-loosen or remove clothing -apply cool, wet cloths -lie victim down and elevate feet slightly

question

how does internal body temperature differ in heat exhaustion and heat stroke?

answer

-body is not able to eliminate excess heat -body temp is 105 degrees or higher whereas in heat exhaustion, it is not elevated

question

list 3 signs and symptoms of heat stroke.

answer

-red, hot, dry skin -rapid pulse -loss of consciousness

question

high body temperatures (such as 105 degrees F or 41 degrees C) can cause _________ and/or ______.

answer

convulsions; death

question

list 3 first aid treatments for heat stroke.

answer

-cool victim quickly, place them in a tub of cool water -apply cold packs to wrists, ankles, axillary and groin area -watch for signs of shock

question

identify 2 precautions a victim should take after recovering from any condition caused by exposure to heat.

answer

-warn the victim to avoid warm or hot temperatures for several days after recovering from heat exposure -encourage the victim to drink sufficient amounts of water and have an adequate intake of salt

question

list 4 ways that poisoning can be caused.

answer

-swallowing various substances -inhaling poisonous gases -injecting substances -contacting the skin with poison

question

treatment for poisoning will vary depending on the ________ poison, the ______ involved, and the method of _______.

answer

type of; injury; contact

question

what is the first thing to do when a victim swallows a poison?

answer

call the poison control center or a physician immediately

question

list 3 types of information that should be given to a poison control center or physician.

answer

-was was taken? -how much? -the time in which the poisoning occurred

question

what should you do if a conscious poison victim vomits?

answer

save a sample of it

question

how should you position an unconscious poisoning victim who is breathing? Why?

answer

on one side, with their head slightly downward; so they don't aspirate

question

list 2 ways to induce vomiting.

answer

-syrup of ipecac, followed by a glass of water -tickle the back of the victim's throat or administer warm salt water

question

why is activated charcoal used after a poisoning victim vomits?

answer

to counteract the remaining poison by helping to absorb it

question

list 4 types of poison victims in whom vomiting should not be induced.

answer

-unconscious -victims who swallowed an acid or alkali -victims who swallowed a petroleum product -victims who are convulsing

question

what is the first step of treatment for a victim who has been poisoned by inhaling gas?

answer

remove the victim immediately from the area before treating them

question

how do you treat victims poisoned by chemicals splashing on the skin?

answer

use large amounts of water to wash the skin for at least 15-20 minutes

question

list 5 signs of an allergic reaction to an injected poison.

answer

-redness and swelling at the site -itching -hives -pain -swelling of the throat

STUDY

Emergency Medical Services Emergency Medicine First Aid First Aid Training Head Tilt Chin Lift

CPR/AED Exam Chapters 1-7 – Flashcards 202 terms

Ray Collins

202 terms

Preview

CPR/AED Exam Chapters 1-7 – Flashcards

question

the leading cause of death and disability in children and young adults is

answer

unintentional injuries

question

each year one person in ___ suffers a nonfatal injury serious enough to need medical attention or to restrict activity

answer

four

question

who primarily benefits from first aid training

answer

oneself

question

first aid is intended to

answer

provide temporary help until proper medical care, if needed, is obtained

question

properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between

answer

life and death, rapid recovery and long hospitalization, and temporary disability and permanent injury

question

consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is

answer

responsive, mentally competent, and of legal age

question

if the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is known as

answer

implied consent

question

which of the following is a true statement regarding obtaining consent to give first aid

answer

consent should be obtained from every responsive, mentally competent adult

question

in cases of psychiatric emergencies, who has the authority to restrain and transport a person

answer

a police officer

question

a first aider must stay with the victim until another equally or better trained person takes over failure to do so would be considered

answer

abandonment

question

deviating from accepted standards of care that results in further injury to the victim is known as

answer

negligence

question

duty to act, breach of duty (standard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all factors involved in

answer

assault or battery

question

which statement involving duty to act is correct

answer

occurs when employment requires it, occurs when a preexisting relationship exists, and follows guidelines for standards of care

question

occupations that include a legal obligation to give first aid include law enforcement officers, park rangers, athletic trainers, lifeguards, and

answer

flight attendants and fire fighters

question

a first aider who breaks his or her responsibility to a victim by failing to provide the type of care that another person with similar training would provide, commits

answer

breach of duty

question

failure to do what a responsible prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances is known as

answer

an act of omission

question

which of the following statements concerning Good Samaritan laws is true

answer

they protect first aiders acting in good faith

question

supplies in a first aid kit should be customized to include those items likely to be used

answer

on a regular basis

question

what level of care is a first aider expected to give

answer

standard of care

question

minimizing the risk of a lawsuit includes but is not limited to which of the following

answer

obtaining consent, not exceeding your training, and staying with the victim once care has began

question

___ encourage(s) people to assist others in distress by granting them immunity against lawsuits

answer

Good Samaritan laws

question

if a victim refuses first aid treatment, the first aid responder should

answer

call 9-1-1 and stay with the victim until help arrives

question

the Hadden Matrix is a strategy for ___ that can be applied to any type of illness or injury

answer

interventions

question

Who usually recognizes a situation as an emergency and acts to help the victim

answer

a bystander

question

who is a vital link between emergency medical services (EMS) and the victim

answer

bystanders

question

why are laypersons less likely to offer help when an emergency occurs in a public place

answer

lack of knowledge, confusion about what an emergency is, and characteristics of the emergency

question

a bystander who has seen the emergency happen is ___ to help than is a bystander who arrives after the event

answer

more likely

question

first aid and other assistance given by bystanders can be

answer

inadequate and potentially dangerous

question

what is the first action a bystander should take in an emergency

answer

recognize the emergency

question

severity, physical distance, relationship, and time exposed are all factors that can help the bystander

answer

recognize the emergency

question

refusing to acknowledge an emergency is a strategy that can interfere with which emergency action

answer

deciding to help

question

the most important time to decide whether to help in an emergency is

answer

before encountering an emergency

question

why might someone decide not to help in an emergency situation

answer

it may be harmful to the responder, helping does not matter, and no other bystanders are helping the victim

question

someone must call 9-1-1 if you are unsure of the victim's condition, if the victim's condition is life threatening or could become life threatening, or

answer

the victim needs the skill and equipment of EMS, a spinal injury is suspected, or distance or traffic could delay getting to the hospital

question

in a serious situation, who should you call first

answer

9-1-1

question

when calling 9-1-1, which of the following information should be given to EMS dispatch

answer

the victim;s location and condition, number of persons involved, and your name and the phone number you are calling from

question

desensitization relates to

answer

overcoming anxieties caused by unpleasant sights and sounds

question

a stressful event can be psychologically overwhelming and can result in a condition known as

answer

posttraumatic stress disorder

question

what should the rescuer look for during the scene size-up

answer

hazards that could be dangerous to the rescuer, the victim(s), or bystanders, the mechanism or cause of injury, and the number of victims

question

a(n) ___ is a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body

answer

infectious disease

question

a(n) ___ is a disease that can be spread from one person to another

answer

communicable disease

question

personal protective equipment (PPE) includes

answer

exam gloves, mouth-to-barrier devices, and eye protection

question

the most common type of personal protective equipment available for first aiders to protect against blood borne pathogens is

answer

gloves

question

what is the best method for personal protection against contact with blood borne pathogens

answer

wearing proper personal protective equipment

question

which of the following are blood borne diseases

answer

Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV

question

a vaccine is available for

answer

hepatitis B

question

Hepatitis C virus can cause ___ disease or cancer

answer

liver

question

___ is a potentially life-threatening viral infection

answer

SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)

question

___ are transmitted through the air by coughing or sneezing

answer

airborne diseases

question

the grieving process has ___ stages

answer

five

question

the first stage of grieving is ___

answer

denial

question

the second stage of grieving is ___

answer

anger

question

the third stage of grieving is ___

answer

bargaining

question

the fourth stage of grieving is ___

answer

depression

question

the fifth stage of grieving is ___

answer

acceptance

question

the ___ stage of grieving is characterized by denial

answer

first

question

the ___ stage of grieving is characterized by bargaining

answer

third

question

the ___ stage of grieving is characterized by sadness and despair

answer

fourth

question

a key point in victim assessment is to conduct a ___

answer

primary check

question

the ___ helps determine the safety of the scene and the general condition of the victim

answer

scene size-up

question

the A in AVPU stands for

answer

airway

question

check the victim's responsiveness by gently tapping the victim's shoulder and asking loudly

answer

are you okay

question

for an alert, responsive victim, you can evaluate his or her ability to remember by asking

answer

person, place, time, and event

question

the RAP in RAP-CAB stands for

answer

responsive, activate, position

question

which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim

answer

head tilt-chin lift

question

which of the following indicates a breathing problem

answer

snoring, gargling, and wheezing

question

the checking for severe bleeding, search the

answer

victim's entire body --- head to toe, floor or ground for pooling blood, and victim's clothing

question

if the unresponsive victim is breathing, the best position for the victim is

answer

on the side

question

if the unresponsive victim has difficult breathing, place the victim

answer

in a modified HAINES recovery position

question

victims placed in a recovery position or HAINES position should be placed on their

answer

left side

question

squeezing the victim's fingers and toes is done when checking the victim for

answer

spinal injury

question

which of the following is a sign

answer

moist skin

question

which of the following is a symptom

answer

nausea

question

the T in DOTS stands for

answer

tenderness

question

the P in SAMPLE stands for

answer

preexisting conditions

question

circulation, sensation, and movement (CSM) is checked during assessment of the

answer

extremities

question

how do you check a victim's abdomen for tenderness

answer

gently press the four quadrants

question

while waiting for an ambulance, the initial assessment should be repeated every ___ minutes for an unresponsive victim

answer

question

abandonment

answer

failure to continue first aid until relieved by someone with the same or a higher level of training

question

act of commission

answer

doing something that a reasonably prudent person would not do under the same or similar circumstances

question

act of omission

answer

failure to do what a reasonably prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances

question

battery

answer

touching a person or providing first aid without consent

question

breach of duty

answer

when a first aider fails to provide the type of care that would be given by a person having the same or similar training

question

consent

answer

an agreement by a patient or victim to accept treatment offered as explained by medical personnel or first aiders

question

duty to act

answer

a person's responsibility to provide victim care

question

expressed consent

answer

permission for care that a victim gives verbally or with a head nod

question

first aid

answer

immediate care given to an injured or suddenly ill person

question

Good Samaritan laws

answer

laws that encourage people to voluntarily help an injured or suddenly ill person by minimizing the liability for errors made while rendering emergency care in good faith

question

implied consent

answer

an assumed consent given by an unconscious adult when emergency lifesaving treatment is required

question

negligence

answer

deviation from the accepted standard pf care that results in further injury to the victim

question

airborne diseases

answer

infections transmitted through the air, such as tuberculosis

question

bloodborne diseases

answer

infections transmitted through the blood, such as HIV or HBV

question

communicable disease

answer

a disease that can spread from person to person, or from animal to person

question

emergency medical services (EMS)

answer

a system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide emergency medical care

question

grieving process

answer

feelings and emotions after a stressful situation that cause personal pain; people go through several stages of grieving

question

hepatitis B virus (HBV)

answer

a viral infection of the liver for which a vaccine is available

question

hepatitis C virus (HCV)

answer

a viral infection of the liver for which no vaccine is available

question

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

answer

the virus that can cause acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

question

infectious disease

answer

a medical condition caused by the growth of small, harmful organisms within the body

question

personal protective equipment (PPE)

answer

equipment, such as exam gloves, used to block the entry of an organism into the body

question

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

answer

a delayed stress reaction to a prior emergency event

question

SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)

answer

a potentially life-threatening viral infection that usually starts with flu-like symptoms

question

scene size-up

answer

steps taken when approaching an emergency scene; steps include checking for hazards, noting the cause of injury or illness, and determining the number of victims

question

standard precautions

answer

protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers For Disease Control And Prevention (CDC) for use in dealing with objects, blood, bodily fluids, or other potential exposure risks of communicable disease

question

tuberculosis

answer

a bacterial disease usually affecting the lungs

question

abdomen

answer

the body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and exertion; it is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis

question

Adam's apple

answer

the projection on the anterior surface of the neck, formed by the thyroid cartilage over the larynx

question

alveoli

answer

the air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place

question

aorta

answer

the principal artery leaving the left side of the heart and carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the body

question

arteries

answer

a blood vessel, consisting of three layers of tissue and smooth muscle, that carries blood away from the heart

question

blood

answer

the fluid that circulates through the heart, arteries, capillaries, and veins carrying nutrients and oxygen to the body cells and removing waste products such as carbon dioxide and various metabolic products for excretion

question

bones

answer

the hard form of connective tissue that consists mostly of the skeleton in humans

question

brachial artery

answer

the artery of the arm that, in turn branches at the elbow into the radial and ulnar arteries; used to determine an infant's pulse

question

brain

answer

the soft, large mass of nerve tissue that is contained in the cranium

question

brain stem

answer

the area of the brain between the spinal cord and the cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life, such as respirations

question

capillaries

answer

the small blood vessels through whose walls various substances pass into and out of tissues and onto the cells

question

carotid artery

answer

the major arteries that supply blood to the head and brain

question

central nervous system (CNS)

answer

the brain and spinal cord

question

cerebellum

answer

one of the three major subdivisions of the brain; coordinates the various activities of the brain particularly fine body movements

question

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

answer

a clear, watery solution similar to blood plasma

question

cerebrum

answer

the largest part of three subdivisions of the brain, made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions, and personality

question

circulatory system

answer

the arrangement of connected tubes, including the arteries, arteries, capillaries, venues, and veins, that moves blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide, and cellular waste throughout the body

question

clavicle

answer

the collarbone

question

cranium

answer

the area of the head above the ears and eyes; the skull; this term contains the brain

question

dermis

answer

the inner layer of skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels

question

diaphragm

answer

a muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, separating the chest from the abdominal cavity; contraction of this term brings air into the lungs; relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs

question

dorsalis pedis artery

answer

the artery on the anterior (top) surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals

question

epidermis

answer

the outer layer of the skin, which is made up of cell that are sealed together to form a water-tight protective covering for the body

question

esophagus

answer

a collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach;; contractions of the muscles in the wall of this term propel food and liquids through it to the stomach

question

femoral artery

answer

the principal artery of the thigh; it supplies blood to the lower abdominal wall, external genitalia, and legs; it can be palpated in the groin area

question

femur

answer

the thighbone; the largest and one of the strongest bones in the body

question

floating ribs

answer

the 11th and 12th ribs, which do not attach to the sternum

question

heart

answer

a hollow muscular organ that receives blood from the veins and propels it into the arteries

question

humerus

answer

the supporting bone of the upper arm

question

joint

answer

the place where two bones come into contact

question

larynx

answer

the voice box

question

ligament

answer

a band of the fibrous tissue that contains bones to bone; it supports and strengthens a joint

question

nervous system

answer

the system that controls virtually all activities of the body, both voluntary and involuntary

question

patella

answer

the kneecap; a specialized bone that lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle

question

perfusion

answer

the circulation of oxygenated blood within a organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs

question

plasma

answer

a sticky, yellow fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs of excretion

question

platelets

answer

tiny, disk-shaped elements that are much smaller then cells; they are essential in the initial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding

question

posterior tibial artery

answer

the artery just posterior to the medial malleolus; supplies blood to the foot

question

pulse

answer

the wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries

question

radial artery

answer

the major artery in the forearm; it is palpable at the wrist on the thumb side

question

radius

answer

the bone on the thumb side of the forearm

question

red blood cells

answer

cells that carry oxygen to the body;s tissues; also called erythrocytes

question

respiratory system

answer

all the structures of the body that contribute to the process of breathing, consisting of the upper and lower airways and their component parts

question

skeleteal muscle

answer

muscle that is attached to bones and usually crosses at least one joint; striated, or voluntary, muscle

question

skeleton

answer

the framework that gives us our recognizable form; also designed to allow motion of the body and protection of vital organs

question

smooth muscle

answer

nonstrained, involuntary muscle; it constitutes the bulk of the gastrointestinal tract and is present in every organ to regulate automatic activity

question

spinal cord

answer

an extension of the brain, composed of virtually all the nerves carrying messages between the brain and the rest of the body; it lies inside of and is protected by the spinal canal

question

tibia

answer

the shinbone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg

question

trachea

answer

the windpipe; the main trunk for air passing to and from the lungs

question

ulna

answer

the inner bone of the forearm, on the side opposite the thumb

question

vein

answer

any blood vessel that carries blood from the tissues to the heart

question

voluntary muscle

answer

muscle that is under direct voluntary control of the brain and can be contracted or relaxed at will; skeletal or striated muscle

question

white blood cells

answer

blood cells that play a role in the body's immune defense mechanisms against infection

question

xiphoid process

answer

the lowest part of the sternum

question

defibrillation is most effective if used

answer

within 4 minutes (10 cycles) of CPR

question

what is the most common abnormal heart rhythm in cases of sudden cardiac arrest in adults

answer

ventricular fibrillation

question

during ventricular fibrillation, the heart

answer

quivers and cannot pump blood

question

during ventricular tachycardia (v-tach), the heart

answer

beats too fast to pump blood effectively

question

cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

answer

is the initial care for cardiac arrest until a defibrillator is available

question

an AED can

answer

analyze the heart's rhythm, deliver an electrical shock, and be used by trained laypersons

question

how many adhesive pads (electrodes) are placed on the victim's chest

answer

two

question

which of the following statements about AED is true

answer

the AED pads need to be attached to a dry chest

question

place the right AED pad

answer

right of the breastbone, just below the collarbone, above the right nipple

question

place the second AED pad

answer

on the left side of the chest, left of the nipple, above the lower rib margin

question

begin ___ immediately after the shock and follow the prompts of the AED

answer

CPR

question

avoid placing the AED pads ___ implanted devices

answer

directly over

question

which of the following statements about AED is true part 2

answer

remove patches containing medication (e.g. nitroglycerin, nicotine, or pain medicine)

question

rapid blood loss of ___ quart(s) or more in an adult can lead to shock and death

answer

question

the term ___ refers to a large amount of bleeding in a short time

answer

hemorrhage

question

in ___ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound

answer

arterial

question

which is the most serious type of bleeding

answer

arterial

question

quiet often, ___ bleeding will clot and stop by itself

answer

capillary

question

if a dressing become blood-soaked, what should be done

answer

apply another dressing on top of the old one

question

what is the most effective method for controlling most types of bleeding

answer

direct pressure over the wound

question

when direct pressure cannot be applied, such as in the case of a protruding bone, bleeding should be controlled by using

answer

doughnut-shaped ring pads

question

which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding

answer

bruises of the skin, fractured ribs or bruises on the chest, vomiting or coughing up blood

question

to treat bruises, the first aider should

answer

apply an ice pack over the injury for 20 minutes

question

when adequate blood and oxygen are provided to all cells in different tissues and organs in the body, this is called

answer

perfusion

question

shock refers to the failure of which system

answer

cardiovascular

question

without oxygen, the brain will start to be damaged irreparably in ___ minutes

answer

2 to 3

question

without oxygen, the abdominal organs will start to be damaged irreparably in ___ minutes

answer

45 to 90

question

without oxygen, the skin and muscle cells will start to be damaged irreparably in ___ minutes

answer

180 to 360

question

the Perfusion Triangle includes

answer

heart, blood vessels, blood

question

hypovolemic shock refers to

answer

the loss of a significant amount of fluid

question

septic shock develops in some victims with

answer

bacterial infection

question

neurogenic shock results from

answer

damage to the nervous system

question

anaphylactic shock

answer

is a massive allergic reaction

question

which of the following are signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis

answer

swelling in the face, tongue, and lips, bluish lips (cyanosis), sneezing, coughing, wheezing

question

the early stage of shock is called

answer

compensated

question

the late stage of shock is called

answer

decompensated

question

which of the following statements about shock is correct

answer

a first aider can prevent shock from worsening

question

when a person experiences shock, the person's skin is usually

answer

clammy

question

victims of shock may experience ___ during the early stage of compensated shock

answer

anxiety and restlessness

question

a shock victim who is unresponsive or a victim of stroke should be placed:

answer

in a recovery position

question

why is neither food nor drink given to a shock victim

answer

it could cause nausea and vomiting

question

when treating a shock victim, the first aider should place blankets and/or coats

answer

under and over the victim

question

why are the legs NOT elevated more than 12 inches when treating for shock

answer

it would affect the victim's breathing

STUDY

Emergency Medical Service Emergency Medical Services First Aid First Aid Training Personal Protective Equipment Sadness And Despair Second Degree Burn

First Aid and Emergency Care – Flashcards 140 terms

Noah Thomson

140 terms

Preview

First Aid and Emergency Care – Flashcards

question

Who is the most important link between the emergency medical service (EMS) and the victim?

answer

Bystanders

question

Who primarily benefits from first aid training?

answer

Other people

question

First aid is intended to:

answer

Provide temporary assistance until competent medical care, if needed, is obtained.

question

Properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between:

answer

All of the above

question

Consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is:

answer

All of the above

question

If the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is known as:

answer

Implied consent

question

Which of the following is a true statement regarding obtaining consent to give first aid?

answer

Consent should be obtained from every responsive, mentally competent adult.

question

Why might someone hesitate to get involved during an emergency?

answer

All of the above

question

A first aider must stay with the victim until another equally or better trained person takes over. Failure to do so would be considered:

answer

Abandonment

question

Deviating from accepted standards of care that results in further injury to the victim is known as:

answer

Negligence

question

Duty to act, breach of duty (substandard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all factors involved in:

answer

Assault or battery

question

Which statement concerning duty to act is correct?

answer

All of the above

question

EMS personnel should definitely be called for:

answer

Breathing diffuculty

question

A first aider who breaks his or her responsibility to a victim by failing to provide the type of care that another person with similar training would proved, commits:

answer

Breach of Duty

question

Failure to do what a reasonably prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances is known as:

answer

An act of omission

question

Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing?

answer

All of the above

question

Cyanosis would cause what kind of skin color?

answer

Blue-gray

question

The most common type of personal protective equipment available for first aiders to protect against bloodborne pathogens is:

answer

Gloves

question

The "O" in DOTS stands for:

answer

Open wound

question

How would you check a victim's abdomen for tenderness?

answer

Gently press the four quadrants

question

Which of the following is a sign?

answer

Moist skin

question

Something that the victim tells the first aider about is:

answer

A symptom

question

Which of the following is a symptom?

answer

Nausea

question

The "L" in SAMPLE stands for:

answer

Last oral intake

question

The "E" in SAMPLE stands for:

answer

Events leading to the injury or illness

question

A bystander who has seen the emergency happen is ___ to help than a bystander who arrives after the event.

answer

More likely

question

Why might someone hesitate to get involved during an emergency?

answer

All of the above

question

What should the rescuer look for during the scene survey?

answer

All of the above

question

EMS personnel should definitely be summoned in which instance?

answer

All of the above

question

In a serious situation, who should you call first?

answer

EMS

question

What information will you need to provide to the EMS dispatcher?

answer

All of the above

question

The passage of air into and out of the lungs is called

answer

Respiration

question

The process of breathing out is called

answer

Exhalation

question

A person with a back or neck injury must be handled with extreme care to prevent injury to the:

answer

Spinal cord

question

The lowest part of the sternum is called the:

answer

Xiphoid process

question

Which of the following is part of the initial check?

answer

B-broken bones

question

A victim's level of responsiveness or mental status can be described according to the ___ scale.

answer

AVPU

question

The "U" in AVPU stands for

answer

Unresponsive to any stimulus

question

The physical exam on an adult should be started at the victim's:

answer

Head

question

Something that the first aider sees, hears, or feels is:

answer

A sign

question

You cause the victim to roll down the hill and hit a tree when examining him. The good Samaritan Law protects you even though you caused further harm.

answer

False

question

You are required to provide first aid to any injured or suddenly ill person you encounter.

answer

False

question

First aiders should assume that blood and all body fluids are infectious.

answer

True

question

A scene survey should be done before giving first aid to an injured victim.

answer

True

question

The human body can store oxygen for hours.

answer

False

question

Name one location for feeling a pulse.

answer

Wrist (radial)

question

You must perform a complete assessment for every injured or suddenly ill victim.

answer

False

question

What position is known as the recovery position?

answer

Left side

question

There is no need to wash your hands after performing first aid if you were wearing protective gloves.

answer

False

question

Tuberculosis is a bloodborne disease.

answer

False

question

An estimated 80% of all burn injuries occur:

answer

In the home.

question

Burns that affect only the outer layer (epidermis) of the skin are considered:

answer

First degree (superficial)

question

Burns that extend through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin layer are considered:

answer

Second degree (partial thickness)

question

Burns that penetrate all the skin layers and into the underlying fat and muscle are considered:

answer

Third degree (full thickness)

question

Blisters, swelling, weeping of fluids, and severe pain are characteristics of which type of burn?

answer

Second degree (partial thickness)

question

Skin that looks leathery, waxy, or pearly gray are characteristics of which type of burn?

answer

Third degree (full thickness)

question

The first step in caring for a burn victim with a first degree or small second degree burn is to:

answer

Run cold tap water over the area as soon as possible.

question

What is the first step in caring for dry chemicals spilled on the skin?

answer

Brush off the substance and flush with water.

question

When washing chemicals from the body, the area should be flushed for at least:

answer

20 minutes

question

If you can safely reach the victim of electric shock caused by downed power lines, attempt to remove the wires:

answer

Do not attempt to move any wires.

question

Shock refers to the failure of which system?

answer

Cardiovascular

question

Shock occurs when body parts do not receive adequate:

answer

Oxygenated blood

question

The Perfusion Triangle includes:

answer

Heart, blood vessels, blood.

question

What type of shock is caused by inadequate function of the heart?

answer

Cardiogenic

question

Neurogenic shock results from:

answer

Damage to the nervous system.

question

Septic shock develops in some victims with:

answer

Bacterial infection

question

Anaphylactic shock:

answer

is a massive allergic reaction

question

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?

answer

All of the above

question

When a person experiences shock, the person's skin is usually:

answer

Clammy

question

The term ___ refers to a large amount of bleeding in a short time.

answer

Hemorrhage

question

In ___ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound

answer

Arterial

question

Which is the most serious type of bleeding?

answer

Arterial

question

If a dressing becomes blood-soaked, what should be done?

answer

Apply another dressing on type of the old one.

question

What should be done when caring for a victim of severe internal bleeding?

answer

All of the Above

question

Which results when the top layer of skin is removed, with little or no blood loss?

answer

Abrasion

question

Which wound results in skin cut with jagged, irregular edges?

answer

Laceration

question

Which wound is smooth-edged?

answer

Incision

question

Which wound is usually deep and narrow, with a high risk of infection?

answer

Puncture

question

Which wound usually involves ears, fingers, and hands, and results in tearing of a flap of skin?

answer

Avulsion

question

Which wound involves the cutting or tearing off a body part?

answer

Amputation

question

Care for open wounds includes which of the following guidelines?

answer

All of the above

question

How should animal bites, dirty wounds, and puncture wounds be cleaned?

answer

They should be cleaned only by medical personnel.

question

Which first aid supply is applied over a wound to control bleeding and prevent contamination?

answer

Dressing

question

What are the signs and symptoms of an infected wound?

answer

All of the above

question

Which of the following factors increases the likelihood of wound infection?

answer

All of the above

question

Tetanus shots must be given within ___ hours of the injury to be effective.

answer

question

Which type of amputation is a clean cut complete detachment?

answer

Guillotine

question

What type of amputation occurs when an extremity separates by being crushed or mashed off?

answer

Crushing

question

What is the proper procedure for breaking a blister?

answer

Drain the fluid by making a small hole at the base of the blister.

question

The only time an impaled object can safely remove is:

answer

When it is stuck in the cheek

question

In cases of scalp wounds, the first aider should expect ____ bleeding.

answer

Profuse

question

How should you control bleeding when a depressed skull fracture is suspected?

answer

Apply pressure around the edges of the wound.

question

How should you care for cuts of the eye or lid?

answer

Bandage both eyes lightly

question

When flushing an eye burned by chemicals:

answer

Both A and B: hold the victim's head under a faucet, or pour water into the eye from a clean container. Use a clean eye cup.

question

If an eye is avulsed from its socket:

answer

Cover the eye loosely with a moist, sterile dressing.

question

When damage or death of part of the heart muscle occurs as a result of ischemia, it is called ______

answer

A heart attack

question

The condition where air fills a portion of the chest cavity is called ____

answer

Pneumothorax

question

What is the primary symptom of fractured ribs?

answer

Pain

question

What can be used to stabilize fractured ribs?

answer

A soft object, such as a pillow

question

What is the most important step in caring for a victim of an impaled object in the chest?

answer

Stabilizing the object in place

question

How do you care for a sucking chest wound?

answer

Seal the wound

question

For an abdominal wound in which organs protrude, you should:

answer

Cover the organs with a moist, sterile dressing.

question

How should you first aider treat a victim with a pelvis injury?

answer

All of the above

question

A fracture that cuts across at right angles to the bone's long axis is called:

answer

Transverse

question

When the fracture line crosses the bone in a slanting direction, the fracture is called:

answer

oblique

question

A fracture in which the bone is fragmented into more than two pieces is called:

answer

Communuted

question

A fracture that usually results from a twisting injury is called:

answer

Spiral

question

A fracture that commonly occurs in children whose bones are pliable is called:

answer

Greenstick

question

What mneumonic can be used to identify signs and symptoms of a fracture?

answer

DOTS-deformities, open wounds, tenderness, swelling

question

The C is CSM stands for:

answer

Circulation

question

The O in DOTS stands for:

answer

Open wound

question

What should be used to keep swelling out of a joint?

answer

RICE-rest, ice, compression, elevation

question

A ___ results when the muscle is stretched beyond its normal range of motion.

answer

Strain

question

A ___ occurs when a muscle goes into an uncontrolled spasm and contraction.

answer

Cramp

question

A ___ occurs when a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion.

answer

Dislocation

question

Inflammation of a tendon from overuse is called:

answer

Tendonitis

question

In the mnemonic RICE, the E stands for:

answer

Elevation

question

The painful pressure caused by accumulation of blood under a fingernail or toenail can be relieved by:

answer

Melting a hole through the nail with a red-hot paperclip.

question

What is the purpose of splinting an extremity fracture?

answer

All of the above.

question

A stroke occurs when:

answer

Blood vessels to the brain rupture or become plugged.

question

Weakness, numbness, and paralysis of the face, an arm, or a leg on one side of the body are signs and symptoms of:

answer

Stroke

question

Seizures are a symptom of

answer

Epilepsy

question

When should a first aider call 9-1-1 for seizure victim?

answer

All of the above

question

Type ___ diabetics tend to be overweight

answer

question

Very low blood glucose is called:

answer

Hypoglycemia

question

Confusion, trembling, and pale color are all signs and symptoms of:

answer

Hypoglycemia

question

Under what conditions should you give a diabetic sugar?

answer

If all of the above conditions are met.

question

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of hyperglycemia?

answer

All of the above

question

Coughing, cyanosis, wheezing, and inability to speak in complete sentences without pausing for breath are all signs of:

answer

Asthma

question

A device used to stabilize a fracture or a dislocation is called:

answer

A splint

question

When should a fracture be stabilized?

answer

Before you move the victim

question

When should you suspect a penetrating eye injury?

answer

The lid is lacerated or cut.

question

In a ___, the skin is not broken.

answer

Closed chest injury

question

____ occur when the internal abdominal tissues are damaged but the skin is unbroken.

answer

Closed abdominal injuries

question

Bruising of the tissue is considered a:

answer

Contusion

question

A ___ results when bones are displaced from their normal joint alignment.

answer

Dislocation

question

When applying a compression bandage to an injured area, always wrap ___ the injury upward.

answer

From below

question

Proper first aid for a heart attack includes:

answer

All of the above

question

First aid for a stroke victim should include:

answer

All of the above

question

Airway inflammation and overly sensitive airways are all components of:

answer

Asthma

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Emergency Medical Services Emergency Medicine First Aid Good Samaritan Laws Life Threatening Conditions

Health Quiz: First Aid Basics – Flashcards 37 terms

Candace Young

37 terms

Preview

Health Quiz: First Aid Basics – Flashcards

question

Who may be required to perform first aid while working?

answer

Law enforcement officers, firefighters, flight attendants, lifeguards, park rangers

question

When you are off-duty you can...

answer

choose whether or not to provide first aid

question

Deciding to Provide First Aid

answer

Providing first aid may be part of your job description. If so, you must help while you're working. When you're off duty, you can choose whether or not to provide first aid.

question

Before your provide first aid, it is important to do what?

answer

Ask the ill or injured person if you may help.

question

Actions to asking if you can help an ill or injured person:

answer

1. If the person responds, introduce yourself as a first aid provider before you touch him. Ask if you may help him. 2. If he person agrees, you may give first aid. 3. If the person refuses your help, phone your emergency response number (or 911) and stay with him until someone with more advanced training arrives and takes over. 4. If the person is confused or cannot answer, assume that he would want you to help.

question

First Aid Kit

answer

Contains supplies that you might need in an emergency

question

Action: Supplying the First Aid Kit

answer

- Keep the supplies in a sturdy, watertight container that is clearly labeled - Know where the first aid kit is. - Replace what you use so the kit will be ready for the next emergency - Check the kit at the beginning of each work period for expired supplies and to make sure it is complete and ready for an emergency

question

First Aid in Dangerous Places

answer

Before doing anything else, make sure the scene is safe for you and the injured person, and keep looking around to make sure that the scene stays safe

question

Action: Assess the Scene

answer

As you approach the scene, consider the following: - Danger: Look out for danger to you and danger to the injured person. Move the injured person only if she's in danger or if you need to move her to provide first aid or CPR. Move her if you can do so safely. - Help: Look for people who can help you and look for telephones. Have someone phone your emergency response number (or 911). Phone for help yourself if no one else is around. - Who: Who's injured? Figure our how many people are hurt and see if you can tell what happened. - Where: Where are you? Be specific. The emergency response team (or 911) dispatcher will want to know your address, floor, or location in the building or on the property.

question

FYI: When you give first aid...

answer

Know your limits, don't become another victim

question

Washing your hands

answer

Is one of the most important protections you have. Always use soap and water if your hands are visibly dirty and after taking off gloves.

question

Actions for Washing Hands Well

answer

1. Wet your hands with clean running water )warm if available) and apply soap.2. Rub hands together and rub all surfaces of hands and fingers for at least 20 seconds. 3. Rinse hands with lots of running water. 4. Dry your hands using a paper towel or air dryer. If possible, use your paper towel to turn off the faucet.

question

Important if no soap and water available:

answer

Use a hand sanitizer, rub your hands well to loosen germs and then allow the sanitizer to dry

question

Universal Precautions

answer

Treat everyone's blood as if it were infected (body fluids, such as blood, saliva, and urine, can sometimes carry germs that cause diseases).

question

Personalized Protective Equipment (PPE)

answer

Includes: - gloves to protect your hands from blood and other body fluids - eye protection, if the injured person is bleeding, to protect your eyes from blood and other body fluids - Mask to protect you when you give breaths

question

Actions for Universal Precaustions

answer

1. Wear personalized protective equipment whenever necessary. 2. Place all disposable equipment that has touched blood or body fluids containing blood in a biohazard waste bag (or as required by your workplace). 3. To dispose of the biohazard waste bag, follow your company's plan for disposing of hazardous waste. 4. Wash your hands well with soap and lots of water after properly taking off your gloves.

question

Latex Allergies

answer

Some rescuers and ill or injured people may be allergic to latex. Use protective gloves that don't contain latex, such as vinyl gloves, whenever possible.

question

Bloodborne Diseases

answer

Caused by germs. A rescuer may catch a disease if germs in someone else's blood or body fluids enter the rescuer's body, often through the rescuer's mouth or eye or a cut on the skin. To be safe, rescuers should wear personal protective equipment - gloves and eye shields (goggles) - to keep from touching the injured person's blood or body fluids.

question

Three examples of bloodborne diseases:

answer

- HIV - Hepatitis B - Hepatitis C

question

Actions: Exposure to Blood

answer

1. If you are wearing gloves, take them off. 2. Immediately wash your hands and the contact area with soap and lots of water. 3. If body fluids have splattered in your eyes, nose, or the inside of your mouth, rinse these areas with lots of water. 4. Tell your company's emergency response program supervisor what happened as soon as possible. Then contact a healthcare professional.

question

Definitions and Key Facts: Taking off Gloves

answer

When you giver first aid, the outside of your gloves may touch blood or other body fluids. Take your gloves off without touching the outside of the gloves with your bare hands.

question

Action: Taking Off Gloves

answer

1. Grip 1 glove on the outside of the glove near the cuff and peel it down until it comes off inside out. 2. Cup it with your other (gloved) hand. 3. Place 2 fingers of your bare hand inside the cuff of the glove that is still on your hand. 4. Peel that glove off so that it comes off inside out, with the first glove inside it. 5. If there is blood on the gloves, dispose of the gloves properly: put them in a biohazard wast bah or as required by your workplace, if you do not have a biohazard wast bag, put the gloves in a plastic bag that can be sealed before you dispose of it. 6. Wash your hands after you giver first aid so that you don't spread germs.

question

FYI Washing Your Hands

answer

Use waterless hand sanitizers only if you do not have immediate access to soap and water. Wash your hands with soap and lots of water as soon as you can.

question

Definitions and Key Facts: Chain of Survival

answer

shows the most important actions needed to treat life-threatening emergencies in adults. 1. recognize the emergency and phone an emergency number to get help

question

Chain of Survival

answer

1. Recognize the emergency and phone for help 2. Early CPR with emphasis on compressions 3. Rapid AED use 4. Effective advanced care 5. Coordinated care afterward

question

Action: Assess When to Phone for Help

answer

As a general rule, you should phone the emergency response number (or 911) and ask for help whenever someone is seriously ill or injured, you are not sure what to do in an emergency

question

Some examples of someone who is seriously ill or injured...

answer

The person: - Does not respond to voice or touch - Has chest discomfort - Has signs of stroke - Has a problem breathing - Has severe injury or burn - Has a seizure - Suddenly can't move a part of the body - Has received an electric shock - Has been exposed to poison If someone tries to commit suicide or is assaulted, phone the emergency response number (or 911) regardless of the person's condition.

question

Action: How to Phone for Help (if you are alone)

answer

1. Yell for help while you start to check the ill or injured person. 2. If no one answers you yell and immediate care isn't needed: - Leave for a moment while you phone your emergency response number (or 911) - Get the first aid kit and automated external defibrillator (AED), if available 3. Return to the ill or injured person

question

Action: How to Phone for Help (with others)

answer

1. Stay with the ill or injured person and be prepared to give first aid or CPR if you know how. 2. Sen someone else to phone your emergency response number (or 911) and get the first aid kit and AED if available.

question

Important: How to Phone for Help

answer

Answering all of a dispatcher's questions is important to getting help to you as fast as possible. Do not hang up until the dispatcher tells you to. Answering the dispatcher's questions won't delay the arrival of help.

question

FYI: Emergency Dispatchers

answer

When you phone for help, the emergency dispatcher may be able to tell you how to do CPR, use an AED, or give first aid.

question

Definitions and Key Facts: Finding the Problem

answer

After you check the scene to be sure it is safe, you must find out what the problem is before you give first aid. Learn to look for problems in order of importance. First look for problems that may be life threatening. Then look for other problems.

question

Someone who "responds" does what?

answer

Moves, speaks, blinks, or otherwise reacts to you when you tap him and ask, "Are you OK?" Someone who doesn't "respond" does nothing when you tap him and ask if he's OK.

question

A person who gasps:

answer

Usually appears to be drawing air in very quickly. He may open his mouth and move the jaw, head, or neck. Gasps may appear forceful or weak, and some time may pass between gasps since they usually happen at a slow rate. The gasp may sound like a snort, snore, or groan. Gasping is not regular or normal breathing. It is a sign of cardiac arrest in someone who doesn't respond.

question

Action: Find the Problem

answer

1. Check the scene to be sure it is safe. 2. Tap the person and shout, "Are you OK?" - send someone to phone your emergency response number (or 911) and get the first aid kit and AED. 3. Check if the person is breathing for 5-10 seconds - if not breathing or only gasping, begin CPR and use an AED if you know how 4. Look for any obvious signs of injury 5. Look for medical information jewlery

question

FYI: Find the Problem

answer

The muscles at the back of the throat relax in a person who does not respond. When the muscles relax, the tongue may fall back and block the airway. A person with a blocked airway cannot breathe.

question

Actions: Privacy

answer

- Give all information about an ill or injured person to EMS rescuers. - Fill out the company's report or forms. - Protect the ill or injured person's privacy.

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Emergency Medical Service Emergency Medical Services Emergency Medical Technology Middle East Respiratory Syndrome

Chapter 1 Introduction to Emergency Medical Care – Flashcards 41 terms

Joel Boykin

41 terms

Preview

Chapter 1 Introduction to Emergency Medical Care – Flashcards

question

1) Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? A) Quality improvement B) System effectiveness management C) Process Improvement Plan (PIP) D) Total quality system Answer:

answer

question

2) Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service? A) The Spanish B) The Egyptians C) The Mayans D) The French Answer:

answer

question

3) In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? A) U.S. Department of Transportation B) U.S. Department of the Interior C) U.S. Department of Health Services D) U.S. Department of Homeland Security Answer:

answer

question

4) Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? A) Emergency preparedness plan B) Trauma system C) Resource management D) Central deployment Answer:

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5) Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? A) Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) B) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) D) United States Health Services Agency (HSA) Answer:

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6) Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? A) To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital B) To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene C) To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital D) To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care Answer:

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7) What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? A) Prehospital care B) Prompt emergency response C) Safe emergency transportation D) Trained medical personnel Answer:

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8) Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance? A) Emergency department B) Emergency medical services system C) Surgical services department D) Emergency medical dispatch center Answer:

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9) Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling? A) Data display 911 B) Priority dispatch 911 C) Enhanced 911 D) Advanced 911 Answer:

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10) What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? A) Emergency Medical Technician B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Advanced EMT D) Emergency Ambulance Driver Answer:

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11) What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? A) Emergency Medical Dispatcher B) Cardiac care responder C) EMT D) Emergency Medical Responder Answer:

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12) What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? A) Advanced EMT B) Paramedic C) Emergency Medical Responder D) EMT Answer:

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13) What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? A) Advanced EMT B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Emergency Medical Technician D) Paramedic Answer:

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14) Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? A) Protect and stabilize the patient B) Communicate with other responders on the scene C) Maintain personal health and safety D) Provide emergency care Answer:

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15) What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care? A) Patient access B) Patient assessment C) Medical intervention D) Patient advocacy Answer:

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16) Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? A) Transfer of care B) Breach of duty C) Definitive care D) End of tour Answer:

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17) Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? A) Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury B) Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities C) Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital D) Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath Answer:

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18) Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? A) Traffic director B) Law enforcement C) All crew members D) Triage officer Answer:

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19) Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? A) Guardian B) Assistant C) Advocate D) Representative Answer:

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20) To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT? A) Able to listen to others B) Pleasant C) Judgmental but fair D) Emotionally stable Answer:

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21) Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT? A) Nonjudgmental and fair B) Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds C) Ability to speak clearly D) Ability to remain calm in stressful situations Answer:

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22) Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? A) Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds B) Awareness of problems with color vision C) Ability to dominate the patient D) Control of personal habits Answer:

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23) Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT's original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals? A) Distance education B) EMT training program C) Recertification D) Continuing education Answer:

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24) During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? A) The state requires the training. B) EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam. C) It looks good to a jury should the service be sued. D) EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research. Answer:

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25) Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate? A) Self-starter B) Strong student C) Strong communication D) Good eyesight Answer:

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26) What is NOT one the common settings that an EMT may work in? A) Rural/wilderness settings B) Ambulance services C) Hospitals D) Fire departments Answer:

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27) The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the following? A) An education curriculum for EMT courses B) Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices C) National standards for emergency medical services personnel D) Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services Answer:

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28) You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give him? A) Vital signs are something you have to fill out because the state requires it. B) The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the patient's condition. C) It is important you show the QI manager that you are a team player. D) The report looks better when all the boxes are filled out. Answer:

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29) Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs? A) To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted B) To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan C) To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence D) To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies Answer:

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30) After delivering a patient to the emergency department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the following? A) Patient advocacy B) Transfer of care C) Quality improvement D) Continuing education Answer:

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31) The EMT's role in the quality improvement process includes becoming involved in the quality process, keeping carefully written documentation, obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital staff, continuing your education, and which of the following? A) Writing protocols and standing orders B) Maintaining your equipment C) Providing quality care D) Being a member of the QI committee Answer:

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32) Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process? A) Taking responsibility for the actions of one's partner B) Writing complete patient care reports C) Critiquing performance of one's partner D) Assuring personal safety Answer:

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33) Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT? A) EMS supervisor B) EMT C) Director of quality assurance D) Medical Director Answer:

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34) The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the following? A) On-line medical direction B) Standards of care C) Standing orders D) Breach of duty Answer:

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35) Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical situations? A) Standing orders B) On-line medical direction C) Protocols D) Standard operating procedures Answer:

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36) A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a(n): A) on-line protocol. B) standard of care. C) direct medical order. D) standing order. Answer:

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37) You and another new EMT are studying your local protocols. The other EMT notices that you may give oral glucose without utilizing on-line medical control, but you must get an on-line order from a physician before assisting a patient in taking his nitroglycerin for chest pain. The EMT asks you why some drugs require on-line medical control while others do not. What is the best answer to give him? A) Glucose is only sugar so it cannot hurt the patient. B) The physician does not trust EMTs. C) The patient's nitroglycerin might be expired. D) The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient. Answer:

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38) You respond to a 35-year-old male patient who fell 50 feet from a bluff. Your authority to provide emergency care is an extension of the Medical Director's license to practice medicine. You are acting as a(n) ________ of the Medical Director. A) subordinate B) employee C) designated agent D) extension Answer:

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39) A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The EMT states that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clotting bandages for serious bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular bandages, but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the EMT by saying he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the additional cost. How can the EMT best prove the worth of the special bandages? A) Have a member of the other ambulance service call the Medical Director to provide firsthand information on how the special bandages are much better. B) Call the manufacturer of the special bandage and request literature to give to the Medical Director. C) Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director. D) Order a small number of the special bandages and compare them side-by-side to the regular bandages. Answer:

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40) You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are to inspect the rooms and common areas for fall hazards. Your partner is upset that he is not in the ambulance where the "action is." He complains that "looking for loose rugs" is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his complaints? A) It is good practice for the next emergency call. B) It makes the taxpayers happy. C) Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS. D) It minimizes the number of 911 calls late at night. Answer:

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41) You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door open, steps out of the truck, and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver. Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What is the best way to respond? A) Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene. B) New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally. C) The On-Duty Supervisor should be called. D) An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient. Answer:

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STUDY

Business Management Emergency Medical Services Incident Action Plan Incident Command System

Final Exam for: IS-703.a: NIMS Resource Management – Flashcards 25 terms

Carmen Dawson

25 terms

Preview

Final Exam for: IS-703.a: NIMS Resource Management – Flashcards

question

Select the action below that improves accountability and helps provide security and force protection. A. Prohibiting all VIP and media visits to the incident scene B. Locating the Incident Command Post at least 1 mile away from the incident scene C. Establishing and enforcing inner and outer perimeters around the incident scene D. Deputizing personnel within the Operations Section to give them law enforcement authority

answer

Establishing and enforcing inner and outer perimeters around the incident scene

question

Select the TRUE statement about the resource coordination process: A. In a complex incident within a State, an Area Commander requests resources directly from DHS and FEMA. B. Typically, requests for resources flow from the on-scene incident command through the local, tribal, and State Emergency Operations Centers to the Federal Government. C. Prior to requesting assistance through intrastate mutual aid, a State must first ask the Federal Government for resources. D. In a complex incident, the Joint Field Office is used as the single point where local and tribal Incident Management Teams submit their requests for needed on-scene incident response resources.

answer

Typically, requests for resources flow from the on-scene incident command through the local, tribal, and State Emergency Operations Centers to the Federal Government.

question

Incident managers begin planning for the demobilization process: A. As soon as the incident is stabilized, including during resource mobilization. B. After being requested by the Emergency Operations Center. C. Immediately before the first resources are ready to be released. D. When incident objectives and activities shift from response to recovery.

answer

As soon as the incident is stabilized, including during resource mobilization.

question

The first step in managing resources during an incident is to identify requirements. To do so, an Incident Commander should: A. Conduct a thorough assessment or "sizeup" of the current incident situation and future incident potential. B. Delegate resource prioritization decisions to the Finance and Administration Section Chief to ensure prudent use of resources. C. Request that the Logistics Section develop a proposed staffing plan for the incident based on the Incident Action Plan. D. Establish incident objectives based on the resources that are currently available at the scene.

answer

Conduct a thorough assessment or "sizeup" of the current incident situation and future incident potential.

question

In most incidents, which source provides the first line of emergency response and incident management resources? A. Unaffiliated volunteers who are representing private-sector and nongovernmental organizations. B. Federal Government agencies that are mission assigned to provide resources under the Robert T. Stafford Act. C. State resources augmented through an agreement, such as the Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC). D. Local or tribal resources and local mutual aid and assistance agreements.

answer

Local or tribal resources and local mutual aid and assistance agreements.

question

What is the correct term for a set of established guidelines for actions (which may be designated by individuals, teams, functions, or capabilities) under various specified conditions? A. Manual B. Policy C. Regulation D. Protocol

answer

Protocol

question

Select the preferred method for placing orders. A. A fully automated resource-ordering system that avoids the need for radio communications or verbal orders being placed from the incident scene to an ordering center or source B. A single-point resource ordering system where the burden of finding the requested resources is placed on the responsible jurisdiction/agency dispatch/ordering center rather than the incident organization C. A flexible resource ordering system whereby the incident is responsible for locating and acquiring resources from multiple sources rather than contacting a single, centralized ordering support function D. A self-dispatching system that identifies resources in advance of an incident and provides them with explicit instructions on how and when to self-dispatch in anticipation of a need at the incident scene

answer

A single-point resource ordering system where the burden of finding the requested resources is placed on the responsible jurisdiction/agency dispatch/ordering center rather than the incident organization

question

Which of the following resources are an example of Tier I resources that must be inventoried for NIMS compliance? A. Fire service resources available through intrastate mutual aid B. All resources acquired using Federal grant funding C. Urban search and rescue task forces used in national deployments D. Equipment used to communicate across departments and jurisdictions

answer

All resources acquired using Federal grant funding

question

What is the correct term for the entity that prioritizes incidents for the purpose of allocating scarce resources, mobilizes resources, ensures interagency and interjurisdictional coordination, and makes policy decisions to support incidents, but not decisions reserved for Area Commands and Incident Commanders. A. Command and Control Center B. Incident Operations Network C. Incident Management Team D. Multiagency Coordination System

answer

Multiagency Coordination System

question

The resource management planning process includes the following steps: • Step 1: Identify Associated Risks and Consequences • Step 2: Project Resource Needs • Step 3: Identify Potential Sources • Step 4: Review Procedures • Step 5: ____________________ (Select the fifth step from below.) A. Step 5: Collect Stakeholder Feedback on Priorities B. Step 5: Identify Emerging Technologies C. Step 5: Maintain Resource Inventory D. Step 5: Develop Equipment Reserve Budgets

answer

Step 5: Maintain Resource Inventory

question

Select the FALSE statement from below: A. Given the limited resources, emergency managers should encourage groups to provide unsolicited donations. B. Failure to include voluntary organizations in your planning and exercises will result in duplication of effort and/or resource shortfalls and "spontaneous" volunteers arriving at the scene. C. Communities cannot effectively respond to or recover from incidents without strong cooperative relations with the private sector. D. Jurisdictions should assume that resources outside the incident area (State and Federal resources) may take up to 72 hours to arrive.

answer

Given the limited resources, emergency managers should encourage groups to provide unsolicited donations.

question

The credentialing process involves an objective evaluation and documentation of an individual's: • Current certification, license, or degree; • Training and experience; and • ________________________________. (Select the missing element.) A. Competence or proficiency B. Compensation amount C. Supervisory expertise D. Security clearance level

answer

Competence or proficiency

question

An important part of the process is managing inventories to: A. Ensure consistency by relying solely on a single source or contractor from which to acquire critical supplies. B. Limit access to inventory lists to those staff located at the Emergency Operations Center. C. Maintain items through periodic replenishments, preventive maintenance, and capital improvements. D. Contract for critical items at the onset of an incident rather than stockpiling these items.

answer

Maintain items through periodic replenishments, preventive maintenance, and capital improvements.

question

A key benefit of resource typing to describe specific resources is that it allows resource managers to: A. Reduce the cost of emergency resources. B. Describe resource needs to the public more easily. C. Locate and mobilize resources. D. Anticipate resource needs.

answer

Locate and mobilize resources.

question

The key to effective management of donations is the ability to: A. Increase the amount of donations by delegating the donation solicitation and management functions to a committee of volunteers. B. Assign the Staging Manager with the Operations Section the responsibility for donation tracking. C. Develop and implement an effective management structure to receive, warehouse, inventory, organize, distribute, and account for large-scale donations. D. Develop public information and media releases to help prevent communities and voluntary groups from collecting donations in the first place.

answer

Develop and implement an effective management structure to receive, warehouse, inventory, organize, distribute, and account for large-scale donations.

question

TRUE OR FALSE: The first strategy for managing volunteers is to establish working relationships with the local organizations representing these entities, such as the National Voluntary Organizations Active in Disaster (National VOAD), and Citizen Corps initiatives such as Community Emergency Response Teams. A. True B. False

answer

True

question

What is the purpose of the Operational Planning Worksheet (ICS Form 215)? A. To identify and track operational resources assigned to each organizational component within the Incident Command System organization. B. To document expenditures associated with resources acquired through mutual aid and assistance agreements. C. To indicate the kind and type of resources needed to implement recommended tactics to meet the incident objectives. D. To provide the Incident Commander with basic information about the incident situation and resources allocated to the incident.

answer

To indicate the kind and type of resources needed to implement recommended tactics to meet the incident objectives.

question

What term is used to refer to broad classes that characterize like resources, such as teams, equipment, supplies, vehicles, and aircraft? A. Group B. Set C. Class D. Kind

answer

Kind

question

Select the FALSE statement from below: A. NIMS is applicable across the full spectrum of potential incidents, regardless of cause, size, location, or complexity. B. NIMS specifies how Federal and interstate mutual aid resources will be allocated among jurisdictions. C. NIMS integrates best practices into a comprehensive, standardized framework. D. NIMS is based on best practices collected from local, tribal, State, and Federal responders and emergency managers.

answer

NIMS integrates best practices into a comprehensive, standardized framework.

question

TRUE OR FALSE: Sending resources to the incident scene that have not been requested by the Incident Commander and bypassing the established system for ordering resources can put responders at risk, and at best typically lead to inefficient use and/or lack of accounting of resources. A. True B. False

answer

True

question

Which ICS Section is responsible for checking in and tracking all resources assigned to the incident and their status (assigned, available, out of service)? A. Logistics Section B. Finance/Administration Section C. Planning Section D. Operations Section

answer

Logistics Section

question

Actions such as using national standards for connections, fittings, and hardware and sharing communications frequencies help to promote: A. Reliability B. Sustainability C. Affordability. D. Interoperability

answer

Interoperability

question

Incident resource information management systems are used to collect, update, and process data; track resources; and: A. Project when inventory items need to be ordered. B. Develop capital budgets for acquisition of new resources. C. Display resource readiness status. D. Alert personnel when credentials are about to expire.

answer

Display resource readiness status.

question

Mutual aid agreements and assistance agreements: A. Allow Federal agencies to provide services to local governments under a Stafford Act declaration. B. Permit jurisdictions to share sensitive information about incident status and lessons learned. C. Provide a mechanism to quickly obtain emergency assistance. D. Are contracts with private-sector entities to provide services during emergencies.

answer

Provide a mechanism to quickly obtain emergency assistance.

question

Which type of exercise involves field movement and mobilization of resources rather than simulation? A. Functional exercise B. Full-scale exercise C. Drill D. Tabletop exercise

answer

Full-scale exercise

STUDY

American National Standards Institute Daily Routine Emergency Medical Services Emergency Medical Technology Law Enforcement San Francisco Earthquake Security And Privacy Standard Operating Procedure

Traffic Incident Management – Flashcards 39 terms

Marie Florence

39 terms

Preview

Traffic Incident Management – Flashcards

question

Why do we need traffic incident management

answer

Event responder safety at the site Prevention of secondary crashes decrease the length and impact of the incident Improve clearance techniques Improve response approach for other responders

question

Traffic incident

answer

Any non-recurrent event, such as vehicle crashes, vehicle breakdown, or special event

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Special events can cause

answer

Reduction of roadway capacity Abnormal increase in traffic demand or congestion Secondary incidents

question

Normal Flow

answer

0% effected

question

Crash on Shoulder

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26% effected

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Stall (one lane blocked)

answer

48% effected

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Non-Injury crash (one lane blocked)

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50% effected

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Crash ( two lanes blocked)

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79% effected

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Classification of traffic incidents

answer

Major Intermediate Minor

question

Major traffic incident

answer

Expected duration is more than 2 hours

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Intermediate traffic incident

answer

Expected duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours

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Minor traffic incident

answer

Expected duration under 30 minutes

question

Factors that endanger first responders

answer

Complacency Improper Attitude Arrogant Courage Poor Physical Conditioning Fatigue Bad Vehicle Positioning

question

Elements of Effective Incident Management

answer

Law Enforcement Fire Services Emergency Medical Services Emergency Management Louisiana Department of Transportation Media

question

Incident Management Components

answer

Detection Response Clearance

question

Incident Management Component Detection

answer

The determination that an incident had occurred

question

Incident Management Component Response

answer

The activation, coordination and management of all appropriate personnel and equipment

question

Incident Management Component Clearance

answer

The restoration of the highway to pre-incident conditions

question

Clearance consists of

answer

Resolution of conditions threatening responder, victim, or public safety Removal of disabled vehicles, spilled cargo, and other debris from roadway Removal of responders and their vehicles, equipment from the roadway Reestablishment of normal traffic patterns

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Motorist information includes the dissemination of incident related information to motorist who

answer

Are at the scene Are approaching the scene Have not yet left their home, work, or other location

question

Two types of roadway system congestion

answer

Recurring Nonrecurring

question

Recurring roadway system congestion

answer

That which occurs regularly at points of excessive demand and deficient capacity

question

Nonrecurring roadway system congestion

answer

Random incidents, such as crashes, spilled loads, disabled vehicles, and other unpredictable events

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Under-Response

answer

Results when too few, or the wrong resources are dispatched

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Over-Response

answer

Results when too much equipment and personnel are sent to the scene and stay there an excessive amount of time

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Site Management "4 C's"

answer

Command Communication Coordination Cooperation

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Temporary Traffic Control

answer

Advanced Warning Area Transition Area Activity Area Termination Area

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Blocking

answer

Positioning of emergency vehicles on an angle to the lanes of traffic creating a physical barrier between traffic and the work area

question

Shadowing

answer

The protected work area at vehicle-related roadway incident that is shielded by the block from emergency vehicles also know as Safe Zone or Work Zone

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Cone Placement and Light Discipline

answer

Use hand signals when deploying cones Always face traffic when deploying Be able to deploy a 200 foot taper with at least 5 cones at 50 foot increments at a 45 degree angle Place at least one cone 10 feet behind your unit as a safety point of reference

question

Flares

answer

Be able to deploy a 200 foot taper with at least 5 cones at 50 foot increments at a 45 degree angle Place at least one flare 10 feet behind your unit as a safety point of reference

question

Clearance

answer

The safe and quick removal of vehicles, debris and spilled cargo in order to restore the roadway to full capacity

question

LA RS 32:153

answer

Instant tow dispatch pilot program creation

question

LA RS 32:141

answer

Stopping, standing, or parking outside business or residence districts (move it laws)

question

LA RS 32:142

answer

Abandoned vehicle immediate removal

question

LA RS 32:473.1

answer

Abandoned vehicle removal within 24 hours

question

LA RS 32:125

answer

Passing a parked emergency vehicle

question

LA RS 32:1567

answer

Coroner misconceptions about moving a body at a fatal scene

question

Section 1971

answer

Fire ground authority

STUDY

Emergency Medical Services Low Blood Sugar Medical/Clerical Assisting

Chapter 10 Medical Office Management and Safety – Flashcards 16 terms

Bernice Cooper

16 terms

Preview

Chapter 10 Medical Office Management and Safety – Flashcards

question

Bioterrorism

answer

Intentional release of a biologic agent with the intent to harm an individual

question

Body Mechanics

answer

Using the correct muscles and posture to complete a task safely and efficiently.

question

Budget

answer

Financial planning tool that helps an organization estimate its anticipated expenditures and revenues.

question

Compliance Officer

answer

Person charged with ensuring that a facility follows laws and protocols.

question

Epidemic

answer

disease affects numerous people within a specific geographical area

question

Ergonomics

answer

The study of human physical characteristics and their environment to minimize the risk for injury through the use of appropriate adaptive equipment.

question

Expected Threshold

answer

A numerical goal

question

Incident reports

answer

A form used by a n organization to document an unusual occurrence to a patient, visitor, or employee

question

Job Description

answer

Informs employees about the essential job duties and expectations for a given position.

question

Mission Statement

answer

A statement describing the goals of the medical office and those it serves.

question

Organizational Chart

answer

A flow sheet depicting the members of a team in a structured or hierarchical manner.

question

Pandemic

answer

Disease affects numerous people in many areas of the world at the same time.

question

Policy

answer

A statement that reflects the organizations rules on a given topic.

question

Procedure

answer

Series of steps required to perform a given tasks

question

Quality Improvement

answer

Plan that allows an organization to scientifically measure the quality of its product and service

question

Task Force

answer

Group of employees that works together to solve a given problem.

STUDY

Conduction System Of The Heart Emergency Medical Services Nursing Third Degree Heart Block Type Ii Diabetes Mellitus

ACLS EMSTA College 19 terms

Elizabeth Hill

19 terms

Preview

ACLS EMSTA College

question

What does MET stand for?

answer

Medical emergency team

question

What does RRT stand for?

answer

Rapid response team

question

What is the purpose of the rapid response team?

answer

- identify and intervene during deterioration - improve patient outcomes

question

Maximum amount of time you can be off the chest during CPR

answer

No more than 10 seconds

question

How often should you switch rescuers for CPR?

answer

Every two minutes

question

Best indicator of cardiac arrest in an unresponsive patient

answer

Agonal respirations

question

Time spent on pulse checks

answer

Only 5 to 10 seconds

question

Reasons for closed loop communication

answer

Repeat the drug dose.

question

Part of medication administration

answer

Communicate orders for clarification.

question

Best compression rate for high-quality CPR

answer

100 to 120 per minute

question

PPV increases intrathoracic pressure by

answer

Decreasing cardiac output. Decreases venous return.

question

Adult rescue breathing during intubation is performed

answer

Every 5 to 6 seconds

question

Two best ways to avoid interruptions in CPR and defibrillation.

answer

Continue CPR after defibrillation. Perform CPR while charging the defibrillator.

question

Four best ways to manage an airway.

answer

Properly sized OPA or NPA. Good mask seal. Consider superglottic airways. (King, LMA)

question

Quality capnography is referred to as

answer

The gold standard for tube placement and monitoring.

question

ETCO2 target range for ROSC

answer

35mmHg to 40mmHg

question

Target temperature and dose for induced hypothermia

answer

30mL per kilogram of chilled normal saline at 32°C to 36°C over 24 hours

question

What is done post cardiac arrest care

answer

Labs. Considered induced hypothermia. Cath Lab. Arterial blood gas.

question

Door-to-balloon goal time

answer

No more than 90 minutes

STUDY

Emergency Medical Services High And Low Incident Command System National Park Service Opening Statement Prevention And Control

Fire Protection Organization Quiz 1 24 terms

Richard Lattimore

24 terms

Preview

Fire Protection Organization Quiz 1

question

Who is the current Director of the entire Santa Ana College Fire Technology Program?

answer

Don Mahany

question

Santa Ana College has a fire academy program that is recognized by the California State Fire Marshal.

answer

True

question

Which of the following would NOT likely occur during the background check?

answer

Evaluation of overall physical conditioning

question

Cooking fires are identified as accounting as the cause for the largest number of residential fires.

answer

True

question

Television shows have raised the public's expectations of the fire service?

answer

True

question

Firefighter certification is based on what?

answer

NFPA 1001

question

Where is the National Fire Academy located?

answer

Emmitsburg, Maryland

question

The U.S. fire departments respond to a fire how often?

answer

Every 17 seconds

question

Early American water systems consisted of what?

answer

Hollow logs with wooden plugs

question

Approximately how many firefighters in the United States die every year as a result of fires?

answer

100

question

Firefighters must be well trained in a number of different skill sets (e.g., fire, medical, rescue, etc.)

answer

True

question

Place the rank order, starting with an initial (e.g., entry level) ranking to highest (e.g., experience) ranking. *for this question, 1 = least highest rank / 4 = highest rank*

answer

1. Firefighter, 2. Fire Captain, 3. Fire Battalion Chief, 4. Fire Chief

question

In 1853, what city became the first city with a fully paid fire department?

answer

Cincinnati

question

What word means to perform operations without a coordinated effort or the knowledge of one's superior officer?

answer

Freelance

question

What is used to measure education, experience, and to interactively evaluate the personal characteristics of the individual job candidate. Moreover, it is considered to be the MOST IMPORTANT part of the hiring process by many!

answer

Oral Interview

question

Which of the following jobs normally includes firefighting (e.g., suppression) duties?

answer

Apparatus Engineer

question

The first hand pumpers discharged water through a large nozzle mounted on top called what?

answer

A gooseneck

question

Horse drawn apparatuses in fire-related services were eventually replaced by motorized apparatuses.

answer

True

question

The employment standards for a regular firefighter are essentially the same as for a firefighter trainee.

answer

True

question

What does FEMA stand for?

answer

Federal Emergency Management Agency

question

The Corps of Vigiles are considered to be one of the earliest firefighting forces.

answer

True

question

A well-rounded background of education, experience, community service, skill, and positive attitude will take potential firefighter candidates far!

answer

True

question

Approximately how many people in the United States die every year as the result of fires?

answer

4000

question

How long does a typical (most common) probationary period last if a firefighter is working a 24-hour shift schedule, making the average days per month worked approximately 10?

answer

12 months

STUDY

Emergency Medical Services Nursing

NIH Flashcards 45 terms

Paula Corcoran

45 terms

Preview

NIH Flashcards

question

The Belmont Report is significant because

answer

It articulated ethical principles that formed the basis for the HHS Human Subjects Regulations.

question

A study proposing to involve pregnant adolescents who are detained in a juvenile detention center would only be allowed if

answer

The requirements of Subparts A, B, C, and D are met.

question

An \"autonomous person\" is someone who:

answer

Understands the risks and benefits of his or her participation and is able to make a voluntary decision if adequate information is provided.

question

45 CFR 46 requires Federal Departments and Agencies to rely solely on IRBs to evaluate risks to subjects, protection against these risks, potential benefits of the research and the importance of the knowledge to be gained.

answer

False

question

What are the three ethical principles that constitute the basis for the HHS Human Subjects Regulations (45 CFR 46)?

answer

Respect for Persons, Beneficence, Justice

question

An institutionally designated authority, other than the investigator, should determine that proposed studies are exempt from regulatory requirements.

answer

True

question

Communities may grant emergency waivers of informed consent for research involving pregnant women in the community who are in active labor and call Emergency Medical Services.

answer

False

question

Research involving prisoners requires both specific IRB membership and approval by OHRP to signify that the proposed research falls within the permissible research categories.

answer

True

question

When might human subjects research require investigators to obtain informed consent?

answer

A. Investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves interactions with research participants. B. Investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves interventions with research participants. C. Investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves collection of private information from or about research participants.

question

After informed consent for a research study is given, a research participant must complete the study.

answer

False

question

In general, informed consent should be a process rather than a one-time event.

answer

True

question

In order to participate in research, children must:

answer

Provide assent, unless the IRB determines that they are too young

question

An example of a potential economic risk to a research subject is the potential negative impact research may have on the employment or promotion potential of a research subject.

answer

True

question

Risk to research subjects includes:

answer

A. Physical, psychological, social, legal or economic harm that may reasonably be anticipated as a result of participation in research B. The probability that a certain harm will occur from disclosure of findings C. Unforeseen physical harm that is possible from participation in therapeutic research

question

When appropriate, research data should be ___________ to prevent accidental disclosure of private information.

answer

De-identified

question

When are researchers specifically required by NIH policy to describe Data and Safety Monitoring?

answer

For all clinical trials

question

If a researcher determines that his/her study poses no more than minimal risk as defined in 45 CFR 46, there is no need for the protocol to have IRB review and approval.

answer

False

question

The use of placebo in a clinical trial may be justified:

answer

for conditions where there is no approved, effective treatment

question

IRBs reviewing research in a different geographical location and/or cultural context have a responsibility to:

answer

B. Defer to an IRB that is in the situated within the local research context C. Ask specialists with direct knowledge of the local research context to participate in IRB discussions

question

Which of the following is TRUE regarding applications for NIH-funded research overseas?

answer

Research conducted overseas is subject to HHS Human Subjects Regulations (45 CFR 46) and local regulations and policies

question

In localities where community consent is the norm,

answer

In addition to the cultural norm, individual informed consent is required

question

Which subpart(s) of the 45 CFR 46 is/are sometimes referred to as The Common Rule?

answer

Subpart A which describes the required protections for all human subjects

question

Identify the most influential event that led to the HHS Policy for Protection of Human Research Subjects:

answer

Syphilis Study at Tuskegee

question

Which entity has regulatory authority for the protection of human subjects for PHS-funded research?

answer

OHRP

question

The three fundamental principle of Informed consent are

answer

Voluntariness, Comprehension, Disclosure

question

If informed consent information is presented orally, it must be documented using a short form that states that all of the required elements were presented orally.

answer

True

question

Which of the following most accurately describes clinical equipoise:

answer

Scientific uncertainty that one study intervention is superior to another.

question

Risks to research participants must be completely eliminated for the study to be considered ethical.

answer

False

question

What is an appropriate method for maintaining confidentiality of private information obtained from human subjects?

answer

1. Keeping data in a password-protected database 2. Storing images in a secured cabinet 3. Coding data or specimens and keeping the key to the code in a separate, locked drawer

question

Social justice and individual justice are different and distinct, yet compatible, concepts

answer

True

question

Children must be included in all NIH-supported human subjects research unless:

answer

There are scientific and ethical reasons to exclude them

question

A study proposing to involve pregnant adolescents who are detained in a juvenile detention center would only be allowed if:

answer

The requirements of Subparts A, B, C, and D are met.

question

Which subpart(s) of the 45 CFR 46 is/are sometimes referred to as The Common Rule :

answer

Subpart A which describes the required protections for all human subjects

question

answer

False

question

All research that involves interaction or intervention with humans or human samples/data, whether they are alive or dead, is human subjects research.

answer

False

question

Requirements specific to informed consent for prisoners include adequate assurance that parole boards do not consider a prisoner?s participation in making decisions regarding parole.

answer

True

question

One of the requirements of informed consent is that subjects must be told whether they are eligible to receive compensation if they are injured as a result of their participation in the research

answer

True

question

For research involving pregnant women, participation requires:

answer

Consideration of risks and potential benefits for the fetus and the pregnant woman.

question

Why might an individual have diminished autonomy?

answer

1. They are a neonate. 2. They are incarcerated or involuntarily confined. 3. They are unconscious.

question

According to the regulations, to be approvable, research participation must provide a tangible benefit to the individual research subjects.

answer

False

question

There must be equipoise in order to justify conducting a clinical trial.

answer

True

question

If a researcher determines that his/her study poses no more than minimal risk as defined in 45 CFR 46, there is no need for the protocol to have IRB review and approval.

answer

False

question

The concept of individual justice implies that it is acceptable for investigators to offer potentially beneficial research only to favored patients while selecting undesirable persons for riskier research.

answer

False

question

NIH has specific policies addressing:

answer

1. Inclusion of children in research 2. Inclusion of women and minorities in research 3. Treatment for research subjects in HIV/AIDS antiretroviral studies following completing of trials in developing countries

question

Excluding children from participation in research, while well intentioned, may deny children the benefits of participation and prevent the collection of sufficient data about the possible effects of potentially therapeutic agents in children.

answer

True

STUDY

Design Emergency Medical Services Fashion Goods And Services Japanese

BMGT385 Chapter 7 – Flashcards 42 terms

Noel Macdonald

42 terms

Preview

BMGT385 Chapter 7 – Flashcards

question

Effective management of services requires a clear focus on understanding operations, so much so, that it may even require the exclusion of consideration of marketing or personnel.

answer

FALE

question

Services often take the form of repeated encounters involving face-to-face interactions.

answer

TRUE

question

The term "encounter" is defined by Webster's Dictionary as "meeting in conflict or battle" and is used to also designate meetings between consumers and service systems.

answer

TRUE

question

A service system with a high degree of customer contact is less difficult to control than a low degree of customer contact service system.

answer

FALSE

question

Because little or no inventory is carried in a service operation, it is easy to separate the operations management functions from marketing in services.

answer

FALSE

question

It is difficult to separate the operations management functions from marketing in services.

answer

TRUE

question

The service-system design matrix identifies five alternative forms of service encounters.

answer

FALSE

question

The service-system design matrix identifies six forms of service encounters.

answer

TRUE

question

The "service blueprint" is a classification of services.

answer

FALSE

question

Poka-Yokes are procedures that block the inevitable mistake from becoming a service defect.

answer

TRUE

question

Poka-Yoke is roughly translated from Japanese as "Quality Management."

answer

FALSE

question

Poka-Yoke is roughly translated from Japanese as "Avoid Mistakes."

answer

TRUE

question

An important aspect of service products is that they cannot be inventoried.

answer

TRUE

question

Customer contact refers to creation of the service.

answer

FALSE

question

The work process involved in providing the service must involve the physical presence of the customer in the system.

answer

FALSE

question

The central problem in virtually every waiting line situation is a trade-off decision balancing the costs of adding services with the costs of waiting.

answer

TRUE

question

Ideally in waiting line or queuing Analyze we want to balance the cost of service capacity with the cost of waiting.

answer

TRUE

question

The customer arrivals in a queuing system come almost exclusively from finite populations.

answer

FALSE

question

The customer arrivals in a queuing system come almost exclusively from infinite populations.

answer

FALSE

question

A finite population in waiting line management refers to a population that is large enough in relation to the service system so that the change in population size caused by subtraction or additions to the population does not significantly affect the system probabilities.

answer

FALSE

question

An infinite population in waiting line management refers to a population that is large enough in relation to the service system so that the change in population size caused by subtraction or additions to the population does not significantly affect the system probabilities.

answer

TRUE

question

A variable arrival rate is more common in waiting line management than a constant arrival rate.

answer

TRUE

question

A constant arrival rate is more common in productive systems than a variable arrival rate.

answer

FALSE

question

Arrival characteristics in a queuing problem analysis include the length of the queue.

answer

FALSE

question

The Poisson probability distribution is used in waiting line management when we are interested in the number of arrivals to a queue during some fixed time period.

answer

TRUE

question

The demand on a hospital's emergency medical services is considered a controllable arrival pattern of the calling population.

answer

FALSE

question

The demand on a hospital's emergency medical services is considered an uncontrollable arrival pattern of the calling population.

answer

TRUE

question

Gas stations, loading docks, and parking lots have infinite potential length of lines for their respective queuing systems.

answer

FALSE

question

Highest-profit customer first is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.

answer

TRUE

question

Longest waiting time in line is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.

answer

TRUE

question

Best customer last is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.

answer

FALSE

question

A car wash is an example of a single channel, multiphase queuing system.

answer

TRUE

question

A tellers' window in a bank is an example of a single channel, multiphase queuing system.

answer

FALSE

question

The admissions system in a hospital for patients is an example of a single channel, single phase queuing system.

answer

FALSE

question

There are different queuing models to fit different queuing situations.

answer

TRUE

question

In a practical sense, an infinite queue is one that includes every possible member of the served population.

answer

FALSE

question

In a waiting line situation, multiple lines occur only when there are multiple servers.

answer

FALSE

question

The term "queue discipline" involves the art of controlling surly and unruly customers who have become irritated by waiting.

answer

FALSE

question

In a practical sense, a finite population is one that potentially would form a very long line in relation to the capacity of the serving system.

answer

FALSE

question

A department of 25 machines is kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. An analyst who wanted to know how much production was being lost by machines waiting for service could use queuing theory analysis to find out.

answer

TRUE

question

A department of 25 machines is kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. When an operator is absent, the amount of production being lost by machines waiting for service increases. The analyst can use queuing theory analysis to determine whether to pay overtime to an operator from a different shift or not.

answer

TRUE

question

A department of 25 machines is kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. An analyst wanting to know whether to add a fourth operator or downsize to two operators would be helped by using queuing theory analysis.

answer

TRUE

STUDY

Emergency Medical Services Fast Food Restaurant Principles Of Marketing Problem Solving

mktg ch. 10 – Flashcards 75 terms

Ewan Tanner

75 terms

Preview

mktg ch. 10 – Flashcards

question

The central problem in virtually every waiting line situation is a decision balancing the costs of adding services with the costs of waiting.

answer

True

question

Ideally, in waiting line or queuing analysis, we want to balance the cost of service capacity with the cost of waiting.

answer

True

question

The customer arrivals in a queuing system come almost exclusively from finite populations.

answer

False

question

The customer arrivals in a queuing system come almost exclusively from infinite populations.

answer

False

question

A finite population in waiting line management refers to a population that is large enough in relation to the service system so that the change in population size caused by subtractions or additions to the population does not significantly affect the system probabilities.

answer

False

question

An infinite population in waiting line management refers to a population that is large enough in relation to the service system so that the change in population size caused by subtractions or additions to the population does not significantly affect the system probabilities.

answer

True

question

A variable arrival rate is more common in waiting line management than a constant arrival rate.

answer

True

question

A constant arrival rate is more common in productive systems than a variable arrival rate

answer

False

question

Arrival characteristics in a queuing problem analysis include the length of the queue.

answer

False

question

The Poisson probability distribution is used in waiting line management when one is interested in the number of arrivals to a queue during some fixed time period.

answer

True

question

The demand on a hospital's emergency medical services is considered a controllable arrival pattern of the calling population

answer

False

question

The demand on a hospital's emergency medical services is considered an uncontrollable arrival pattern of the calling population.

answer

True

question

Gas stations, loading docks, and parking lots have infinite potential length of lines for their respective queuing systems.

answer

False

question

Highest-profit customer first is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.

answer

True

question

Longest waiting time in line is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.

answer

True

question

Best customer last is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook

answer

False

question

A car wash is an example of a single-channel, multiphase queuing system

answer

True

question

A tellers' window in a bank is an example of a single-channel, multiphase queuing system.

answer

False

question

The admissions system in a hospital for patients is an example of a single-channel, single-phase queuing system.

answer

False

question

There are different queuing models to fit different queuing situations.

answer

True

question

In a practical sense, an infinite queue is one that includes every possible member of the served population

answer

False

question

In a waiting line situation, multiple lines occur only when there are multiple servers.

answer

True

question

The term "queue discipline" involves the art of controlling surly and unruly customers who have become irritated by waiting.

answer

False

question

In a practical sense, a finite population is one that potentially would form a very long line in relation to the capacity of the serving system.

answer

False

question

In a department 25 machines are kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. An analyst who wanted to know how much production was being lost by machines waiting for service could use queuing theory analysis to find out.

answer

True

question

In a department 25 machines are kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. When an operator is not immediately available for servicing a machine having a problem, the amount of production being lost by machines waiting for service increases. An analyst can use queuing theory analysis to determine whether to pay overtime to get an operator from a different shift or not

answer

True

question

In a department, 25 machines are kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. An analyst wanting to know whether to add a fourth operator or downsize to two operators would be helped by using queuing theory analysis.

answer

True

question

Regardless of the computer language chosen for a simulation model, too much data from a simulation can be dysfunctional to problem solving.

answer

True

question

Spreadsheet simulations have become obsolete due in part to specialized computer simulation languages like SLAM or SIMAN.

answer

False

question

General-purpose simulation software (GPSS) is really a computer language that allows programmers to build their own simulation models.

answer

True

question

Special-purpose simulation software is specially built to run specific applications and may have provisions in manufacturing models to allow for specifying the number of workcenters, their descriptions, arrival rates, and even batch sizes

answer

True

question

Having animation capabilities to graphically display product flows through a production system is not considered a desirable feature of simulation software systems.

answer

False

question

Being able to permit interactive debugging of a model so the user can trace flows through the model and more easily find errors is considered a desirable feature of simulation software systems.

answer

True

question

Being user-friendly and easy to understand is considered a desirable feature of simulation software systems.

answer

True

question

Being user-friendly and easy to understand typically means that the simulation produces less accurate results.

answer

False

question

The more time, money, and effort you spend developing a simulation model, the more likely you are to achieve useful results.

answer

False

question

The leading general- and special-purpose simulation models follow a well-documented and standardized approach.

answer

False

question

While spreadsheets can be somewhat useful for a variety of simulation problems, they can be confusing and are vulnerable to several drawbacks, including weak routines for random-number selection.

answer

False

question

Which of the following is a suggestion for managing queues that is mentioned in the textbook? A. Put up a serpentine lane to keep people from jumping ahead in line. B. Use humor to defuse a potentially irritating situation. C. Segment the customers. D. Assure customers that the wait is fair, and inform them of the queue discipline. E. Tell people in the queue that each will be served as soon as possible.

answer

C- segment the customers

question

Which of the following is not a suggestion for managing queues presented in the textbook? A. Try to divert your customer's attention when waiting. B. Segment the customers. C. Encourage customers to come during the slack periods. D. Train your people to be friendly. E. Periodically close the service channel to temporarily disperse the line.

answer

E- periodically close the service channel to temporarily disperse the line.

question

Which of the following is a suggestion for managing queues presented in the textbook? A. Train your servers to be friendly. B. Tell customers that the line should encourage them to come during slack periods. C. Give each customer a number. D. Periodically close the service channel to temporarily disperse the line. E. Use humor to defuse a potentially irritating situation.

answer

A- train your servers to be friendly

question

Which of the following are the three major components of a queuing system? A. The source population, how customers exit the system, and the queuing discipline B. The number of servers, the service speed, and the waiting line C. The source population, how the customer exits the system, and the servicing system D. The source population and the way customers arrive at the system, the serving systems, and how customers exit the system E. The service speed, the queue discipline, and the waiting line

answer

C- the source population, how the customer exits the system, and the servicing system.

question

Which of the following is a suggestion for managing queues that is mentioned in the textbook? A. Put up a serpentine lane to keep people from jumping ahead in line. B. Use humor to defuse a potentially irritating situation. C. Train your servers to be friendly. D. Assure customers that the wait is fair, and inform them of the queue discipline. E. Tell people in the queue that each will be served as soon as possible.

answer

C- train your servers to be friendly.

question

Which of the following is not a suggestion for managing queues presented in the textbook? A. Train your servers to be friendly. B. Segment the customers. C. Determine an acceptable waiting time for your customers. D. Inform your customers of what to expect. E. Encourage customers to come during slack periods.

answer

C- determine an acceptable waiting time for your customers.

question

In essence, a queuing system includes several major components. Which of the following is not one of them? A. Source population B. Servicing system C. How the customer exits the system D. The queue discipline E. None of these

answer

D- the queue discipline

question

Which of the following is an example of a finite population in a queuing system? A. People waiting to place their order at a fast-food restaurant B. The departmental faculty in line at the copier C. People waiting in line at an ATM D. Patients seeking help in a hospital emergency room E. Taxpayers calling for assistance from the IRS

answer

B- the departmental faulty in line at the copier

question

Which of the following is not a queue discipline discussed in the textbook? A. First come, first served B. Last in, first out C. Limited needs D. Shortest processing time E. Best customer first

answer

B- last in, first out

question

Which of the following queue disciplines is discussed in the textbook? A. Emergencies first B. Garner-Whitten formula C. Newest customer first D. Patient customers last E. None of these

answer

A- emergencies first

question

Buying a ticket for a college football game where there are multiple windows at which to buy the ticket features which type of queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these

answer

C- multichannel, single phase

question

Buying food at a large food store with multiple checkout counters features which type of queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these

answer

C- multichannel, single phase

question

Getting an autograph from a famous person might involve standing in which type of queuing line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these

answer

A- single channel, single phase

question

In a college registration process, several department heads have to approve an individual student's semester course load. What is the queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these

answer

B- single channel, multiphase

question

Standing in line to buy a ticket for a movie where there are multiple windows at which to buy tickets is which type of queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these

answer

C- multichannel, single phase

question

A roller coaster ride in an amusement park employs which type of queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these

answer

A- single channel, single phase

question

Machine breakdown and repair in a 12-machine factory having one repair mechanic would develop which type of queuing system line structure concerning machine breakdowns? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these

answer

A- single channel, single phase

question

Machine breakdown and repair in a 12-machine factory having three repair mechanics would develop which type of queuing system line structure concerning machine breakdowns? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these

answer

C- multichannel, single phase

question

Assume the service rate for a queue in a truck-loading operation is 2 trucks per hour. Using the infinite queuing notion for the models presented in the textbook, which of the following is the average service time? A. 2 hours B. 1 hour C. 0.5 hour D. 0.25 hour E. None of these

answer

C- 0.5 hour

question

For an infinite queuing situation, if the arrival rate for loading trucks is 5 trucks per hour, what is the mean time between arrivals? A. 5 hours B. 2.5 hours C. 0.2 hour D. 0.1 hour E. None of these

answer

C- 0.2 hour

question

A company is concerned about the number of customers who have to wait for service in its customer service department. Assume the rate at which customers are serviced is 12 per hour. Using the infinite queuing notion for the models presented in the textbook, which of the following is the mean time between arrivals? A. 12 minutes B. 6 minutes C. 2 minutes D. 1 minute E. None of these

answer

E- none of these

question

In modeling a simulation, random numbers from 00 to 99 are assigned with the intervals determined from frequency distributions for each behavior occurrence. Assume there are two behaviors, A and B, out of 100 tallies. On behavior A you record 45 tallies, and on behavior B you record 55 tallies. Which of the following is a correct random-number interval for behavior A? A. 00 to 45 B. 00 to 44 C. 56 to 99 D. 55 to 100 E. 45 to 100

answer

B- 00 to 44

question

In modeling a simulation, random numbers from 00 to 99 are assigned with the intervals determined from frequency distributions for each behavior occurrence. Assume there are two behaviors, X and Y, out of 50 tallies. On behavior X you record 20 tallies, and on behavior Y you record 30 tallies. Which of the following is a correct random-number interval for behavior X? A. 00 to 19 B. 01 to 20 C. 00 to 39 D. 41 to 61 E. 45 to 100

answer

C- 00 to 39

question

A small vendor has either a good day of sales with an average of $1,000 or a bad day with an average of only $500 for the day. To simulate these outcomes, random numbers from 00 to 99 should be assigned with the intervals determined from the frequency distribution. If, during the last 100 days, the vendor had 27 good days and 73 bad days, which of the following is a correct random-number interval for a bad day? A. 28 to 99 B. 27 to 73 C. 27 to 100 D. 27 to 99 E. 00 to 26

answer

D- 27 to 99

question

Which of the following is an example of general-purpose simulation software? A. Link Trainer Programs B. SIMSCRIPT II.5 C. SIM-Central D. C++ E. Visual Basic

answer

B- SIMSCRIPT II.5

question

Which of the following is an example of general-purpose simulation software? A. PC-MODEL B. MAP/1 C. SIMFACTORY D. Canella IV E. OPUS/2.3

answer

A- PC-MODEL

question

Which of the following is not an example of general-purpose simulation software? A. SIMAN B. GPSS/PC C. RESQ D. GAPE/H E. SLAMII

answer

D- GAPE/H

question

When arrivals occur in a purely random fashion at a service facility, what kind of distribution does a plot of interarrival times yield? ___________________________

answer

exponential

question

When arrivals occur in a purely random fashion at a service facility, the distribution of the number of arrivals per unit of time forms which kind of distribution? ______________________________________

answer

Poisson

question

In finite queuing theory, the average waiting time in line is denoted by what symbol?

answer

question

In infinite queuing theory, the average number in the waiting line divided by the average arrival rate yields what measure of waiting line performance? _________________________________

answer

average waiting time

question

Joining a line at an airport shoeshine stand where there are five people shining shoes puts you in which type of queuing system line structure? ______________________________________________________

answer

multichannel, single phase

question

Buying items at a department store where there are a large number of checkout counters features which type of queuing system line structure? ______________________________________

answer

multichannel, single phase

question

Getting a flu shot from the one campus nurse who is on duty might involve standing in which type of queuing line structure? _____________________________________

answer

single channel, single phase

question

In getting your first driver's license, several steps had to be taken. First, you took the written test. Then you took the driving test. Then your photograph was taken and the license made. What was the queuing system line structure in the Department of Motor Vehicles? ________________________________

answer

single channel, multiphase

question

Standing in line to buy tickets for a basketball game where there are multiple ticket windows involves which type of queuing system line structure? _________________________________

answer

multichannel, single phase

question

A single toll booth on a one-lane bridge is which type of queuing system line structure?

answer

single channel, single phase

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