Emergency Medical Services Flashcards, test questions and answers
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We've found 17 Emergency Medical Services tests
19th And 20th Centuries
Emergency Medical Services
Nursing
Public Health
Week 3 – Flashcard 68 terms

Adam Howard
68 terms
Preview
Week 3 – Flashcard
question
identify the most influential event that led to the HHS Policy for Protection of Human Research Subjects A. Nuremberg trials B. syphilis study at tuskegee c. jewish chronic disease hospital study d. willowbrook study
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b
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drafted as a set of standards for judging physicians and scientists who had conducted biomedical experiments on concentration camp prisoners. This code became the prototype of many later codes (1) intended to assure that research involving human subjects would be carried out in an ethical manner.
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nuremburg code
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23 Nazi Doctors and Scientists on Trial after World War II
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nuremberg trials
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mentally retarded children in Staten Island, New York were intentionally given Hepatitis in an attempt to trck the development of the viral infection. began in 1956 and lasted 14 years
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willowbrook study
question
what are the 3 ethical principles that constitute the basis for the HHS Human Subjects Regulations (45 CFR 46) a. honesty, trust, respect b. informed consent, IRB review, research integrity c. respect for persons, beneficence, justice d. protections for pregnant women, children, children
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c
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which entity has regulatory authority for the protection of human subjects for PHS-funded research? a. OHRP b. NIH c. institutes that receive federal funds d. HHS
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a
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office for human research protections
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OHRP
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us public health service
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PHS
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national institute of health
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NIH
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US department of health and human services
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HHS
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T/F all research that involves interaction or intervention with humans or human samples/data, whether they are alive or dead, is human subjects research
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f
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T/F an institutionally designated authority, other than the investigator, should determine that proposed studies are exempt from regulatory requirements
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t
question
which of the following should be eliminated or minimized in the research design? a. coercion b. research risks c. repeated recruitment of research participants for new protocols d. all of the above
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d
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when might human subjects research require investigators to obtain informed consent a. investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves interaction with research participants b. investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves interventions with research participants c. investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves collection of private information from or about research participants d. all of the above
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d
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T/F after informed consent for a research study is given, a research participant must complete the study
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f
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T/F in general, informed consent should be a process rather than a one-time event
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t
question
in order to participate in research, children must a. provide written informed consent b. provide written permission c. prove assent, unless the IRB determines they are too young d. sign, or put an X on the assent document
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c
question
expression of approval or agreement, typically officially
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assent
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for research involving pregnant women, participation requires... a. that women have completed the first trimester b. that the study be conducted first in men c. permission of the father d. consideration of risks and potential benefits for the fetus and the pregnant woman
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d
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why might an individual have diminished autonomy? a. they are neonate b. they are incarcerated or involuntarily confined c. they are unconscious d. all the above
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d
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T/F risks to research participants must be completely eliminated for the study to be considered ethical
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f
question
when are researchers specifically required by NIH policy to describe Data and Safety Monitoring? a. for all research involving human subjects b. for all research involving children such as subjects in research c. for all clinical trials d. for all research with prisoners
answer
c
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T/F there must be equipoise in order to justify conducting a clinical trial
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t
question
what is an appropriate method for maintaining confidentiality of private information obtained from human subjects? a. keeping data in password-protected databases b. coding data or specimens and keeping the key to the code in a separate, locked drawer d. all of the above are ways to maintain confidentiality
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d
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T/F if a researcher determines that his/her study poses no more than minimal risks as defined in 45 CFR 46, there is no need for the protocol to have IRB review and approval
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f
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children must be included in all NIH-supported human subjects research unless: a. the researcher is not a pediatrician b. past experience has shown it is time consuming and expensive to recruit children c. there are scientific and ethical reasons to exclude them d. the researcher does not possess the pediatric equipment necessary to involve children in the proposed research
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c
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T/F for HIV antiretroviral treatment trials conducted in developing countries, the NIH expects investigators/contractors to address the provision of antiretroviral treatment to trial participants after their completion of participation in the clinical trial
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t
question
which of the following is true regarding applications for NIH-funded research overseas? a. it is illegal to spend NIH funds in research overseas b. research conducted overseas is subject to HHS Human Subjects Regulations (45 CFR 46) and local regulations and policies c. research conducted overseas is only subject to local regulations and policies d. research conducted overseas need not address human subjects protections
answer
b
question
in localities where community consent is the norm a. a family member's consent for another individual may be sufficient, as long as community consent is given b. federal regulations preclude the conduct of PHS-funded research c. community consent to participate in the research study is sufficient and no IRB approval is required d. in addition to the cultural norm, individuals informed consent is required
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d
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in 19th and 20th centuries, medical research participants were often
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poor ward patients
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benefits of improved medical care flowed mainly to ____ in 19th and 20th centuries
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private patients
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T/F in 19th and 20th century medical and social science research often involved risks to participants without their knowledge of the risks
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t
question
"it is not cruel to inflict on a few sufferings which may benefit multitudes of innocent people through all centuries"
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1st century physician Celsus
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an experiment focusing on the conflict between obedience to authority and personal conscience
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milgram's obedience study
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experiment to answer the question "Could it be that Eichmann and his million accomplices in the Holocaust were just following orders? Could we call them all accomplices?"
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milgram's obedience study
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participant was paired with another person and they drew lots to find out who would be the learner and who would be the teacher. fixed so participant was always teacher. the learner went into a room and had electrodes attached to his arms and the teacher and researcher went into a room next door where teacher was told to shock if learner gave wrong answer.
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milgram's obedience study
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____ % of participants in milgram's study continued to the highest level. all continued to 300 volts
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65%
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concluded ordinary people are likely to follow orders given by an authority figure, even to the extent of killing an innocent human being. obedience to authority is ingrained in us all from the way we are brought up
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milgram's obedience study
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people direct their own actions, and they take responsibility for the results of those actions
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autonomous state
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people allow others to direct their actions, and then pass off the responsibility for the consequences to the person giving the orders. act as agents for another person's will
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agentic state
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millgram's two states of behavior when they are in a social situation
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autonomous and agentic state
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set of ethical principles underlying acceptable research involving human subjects prepared by the National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research submitted September 30, 1978
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Belmont Report
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3 ethical and moral principles of belmont report
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respect for persons beneficence justice
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recognition of the personal dignity and autonomy of individuals special protection of anyone with diminished autonomy
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respect for persons
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a/an ________ person can deliberate about personal goals and act under the direction of such deliberation
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autonomous
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obligation to protect persons from harm and to secure their well being maximizing anticipated benefits from participation in the research minimizing possible risks of harm
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beneficence
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benefits and burdens of research should be distributed fairly
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justice
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research participants shouldn't be systematically selected because of their easy availability, compromised position, or manipulability
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justice
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therapeutic research should not unduly involve persons from groups unlikely to be the beneficiaries of applying the research
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justice
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research participants, to the degree that they are capable, choose what shall or shall not happen to them
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informed consent
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components of informed consent
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information comprehension voluntariness
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to apply respect for persons one uses
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informed consent
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to apply beneficence
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a risks/benefits assessment of possible harms and anticipated benefits
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to apply justice
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fair procedures and outcomes don't select research subjects because they are favored/held in disdain avoid selection bias that arises from social, racial, sexual, and cultural biases institutionalized in society" don't select subjects because they are readily available or manipulable
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study of untreated syphilis in black males from 1932-1972 in which U.S. Public Health Service purposefully withheld known effective treatments from black men suffering from syphilis from 1930s to 1960s
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tuskegee syphilis study
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longest nontherapeutic study on human beings in medical history contributed to distrust and suspicion about public health programs and medical research
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tuskegee syphilis study
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highly contagious -- acquired, usually from sex, or congential, three stages -- primary, secondary, tertiary (or late)
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syphilis
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transmitted to the fetus from the infected mother
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congential
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___ syphilis inflicts the greatest damage (e.g. damage to cardiovascular and central nervous systems)
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late
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___, a former veneral disease interviewer and investigator for PHS told the story of tuskegee syphilis study to a reporter for the AP and on July 25th, 1972 The Washington Star ran a fron-page story about the experiment
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Peter Buxton
question
contributed to AIDS conspiracy theories hampered HIV/AIDS education in black communities became a metaphor for racism, ethical mistakes, and the danger of state-run medical research
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tuskegee syphilis study
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proposed study for pregnant women infected with HIV in Africa to be given a drug to stop mother-to-infant transmission of HIV or a placebo
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AZT study
question
___ % of adults receiving care for HIV participated in medical trial or study
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14
question
T/F minority groups were underrepresented in medical trials of treatment of HIV infection
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t
question
T/F there are differences among racial/ethnic groups in major cancer and heart disease trials
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f
question
T/F drug companies could in past suppress data showing their drugs to be useless after first obtaining approval to market the drug
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t
question
___ concealed negative info about Paxil, a drug used to treat depression in adolescents and children
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GSK
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T/F two studies found Paxil was no more effective than a placebo in treating adolescent depression and might even provoke suicidal thoughts
answer
t
Active Listening Skills
Emergency Medical Services
Verbal And Non Verbal
911 Public Safety Telecommunicators State Exam Study Guide- MOCK Exams – Flashcards 322 terms

Rosa Sloan
322 terms
Preview
911 Public Safety Telecommunicators State Exam Study Guide- MOCK Exams – Flashcards
question
CAD is an acronym for: A. Computer Aided Dispatch B. Computer Assisted Dispatch C. Call takers Assisting Dispatch D. Callers Annoying Dispatch
answer
A. Computer Aided Dispatch
question
Which department obtains criminal justice intelligence utilizing local, state and national databases, inputs criminal justice information that will be added to the FCIC/NCIC hot files and sends and receives state and national messages pertaining to criminal justice information? A. Warrants B. Communications C. Teletype D. Information Technology (IT)
answer
C. Teletype
question
FCIC is based in _______ and is administered by the Florida Department of Law Enforcement. A. Sarasota B. Tallahassee C. Tampa D. Miami
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B. Tallahassee
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NCIC is an acronym for: A. Nationwide Criminal Incarceration Center B. National Crime Information Center C. Nationwide Criminal Information Center D. National Criminal Information Computer
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B. National Crime Information Center
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On the NCIC, the primary information system is the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System. A. True B. False
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A. True
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The purpose of NLETS is to: A. Provide for the exchange of life-threatening information between interstate and/or inter-agency personnel B. Provide for the interstate and/or inter-agency exchange of criminal justice and related information C. Provide for the interstate and/or inter-agency exchange of medical and fire department information D. Provide for the interstate and/or inter-agency exchange of private or confidential information
answer
B. Provide for the interstate and/or inter-agency exchange of criminal justice and related information
question
The NCIC maintains information on stolen and recovered property as well as wanted and missing persons for all 50 states, Canada, U.S. Virgin Islands, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa and Mariana Islands. NCIC also houses federal _______ and _______ data. A. Misdemeanor, felony B. Criminal, incarceration C. Criminal, warrants D. Warrants, injunction
answer
C. Criminal, warrants
question
________ is a device giving people the ability to type a conversation instead of speaking. A. DTC B. TTD C. TDD D. FRS
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C. TDD
question
The abbreviation for Go Ahead is: A. GoAd B. GoAh C. GA D. GOA
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C. GA
question
Which of the below abbreviations is not approved for use with Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf: A. GA B. STOP C. SKSK D. Q
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B. STOP
question
What number do you dial to reach the Florida Relay Systems? A. 711 B. 411 C. 511 D. 911
answer
A. 711
question
________ station radios are permanently mounted in the station or remote transmitter site. A. Sub B. Base C. Police D. Fire
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B. Base
question
An emergency incident is one that does not require an immediate response due to persons in imminent danger or loss of life or limb, or injuries beyond immediate first aid. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
A non-emergency incident does not require an immediate response and no imminent threat exists. It is a non-critical situation that requires a(n): A. Non- emergency police response B. Pubic safety response C. Immediate supervisor's attention D. No action necessary
answer
B. Pubic safety response
question
Dispatch all calls with ______, _______ and _______ A. Accuracy, brevity, clarity B. Accuracy, brevity, courtesy C. Accuracy, brilliance, clarity D. Accuracy, brilliance, confidence
answer
A. Accuracy, brevity, clarity
question
Which section of the "Sunshine Law" provides that all state, county and municipal records are open for personal inspection and copying by any person? A. 119.04 B. 119.07 C. 119.01 D. 119.03
answer
C. 119.01
question
Which of the following is not a technical rescue? A. High angle chain rescue B. Confined space rescue C. Vehicle extrication D. Trench rescue
answer
A. High angle chain rescue
question
Hazardous materials are liquids or gases that when released are capable of causing harm to people, the environment and property. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Which is an example of a solid? A. Magnesium B. Gasoline C. Chlorine D. Acetone
answer
A. Magnesium
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Which is an example of a liquid? A. Hydrogen B. Calcium Carbide C. Acetone D. Chlorine
answer
C. Acetone
question
Which is an example of a gas? A. Calcium Carbide B. Acetone C. Hydrogen D. Gasoline
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C. Hydrogen
question
The DOT Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) was developed jointly by the U.S. Department of Transportation, Transport Canada and the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
The DOT Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) has established a six-digit numbering system to identify materials. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
The telecommunicator must ________, categorize it as emergency or non-emergency and identify which responders are needed to handle the situation. A. Befriend the caller B. Complete the call as quickly as possible C. Determine the nature of the call D. Get control of the call
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C. Determine the nature of the call
question
A wrong call classification will not delay a priority call. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Interpersonal skills encompass communications between ______ or _______ people, including verbal and non-verbal communications. A. Two, more B. One, two C. One, more D. Three, more
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A. Two, more
question
The communications cycle is comprised of 5 parts. Which part refers to the content? A. Feedback B. Message C. Medium D. Receiver
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B. Message
question
Effective communication includes verbal and non-verbal communications. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Which of the following isn't an example of a positive interpersonal skill? A. Active listening B. Positive thinking C. Impatience D. Open-minded acceptance of others' differences
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C. Impatience
question
A fire engine and an ambulance are examples of ________ and ________ units. A. Firefighter, paramedics B. Fire Department, rescue C. Primary, secondary D. First, necessary
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C. Primary, secondary
question
_________ provide advanced life support to victims. Skills include those of an _________ as well as injections, intravenous infusions, needle thoracostomy, cricothyroidotomy, intraosseus and advanced airway management. A. Paramedic, entomologist B. EMT, observer C. Paramedic, EMT D. Paramedic, entomologist
answer
C. Paramedic, EMT
question
During a multi-casualty incident (MCI), communicator's roles and responsibilities include all of the following except: A. Coordinate the requests of other agencies B. If additional help is needed, leave and offer assistance C. Dispatch additional resources D. Make notification and requests of other agencies, such as hospitals, air transport units, law enforcement, etc.
answer
B. If additional help is needed, leave and offer assistance
question
A hospital that provides surgeons and other medical personnel and equipment to provide care for severely injured patients around the clock is an example of what type of center? A. Fully Equipped B. Emergency C. Surgical D. Trauma
answer
D. Trauma
question
Members do not have to conduct themselves in such a manner that their actions and behavior reflect favorably on the profession when they are off duty. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
__________ is that connection or linkage of authority and responsibility that joins one level of an organization to another. A. Promotional pyramid B. Chain of command C. Organizational chart D. Chain of authority
answer
B. Chain of command
question
All of the following are examples of the impact absences can have on a communications center except: A. Increased costs due to overtime B. Put additional workload on others C. Brings families closer together D. Lowers morale
answer
C. Brings families closer together
question
All of the following are examples of internal and external customer service skills except: A. Use active listening skills B. Be courteous, patient and sincere C. Hurry through the call to minimize pending times D. Be empathetic
answer
C. Hurry through the call to minimize pending times
question
Telecommunicators need to have the ability to recognize when information is not appropriate. All the following are appropriate except: A. Zero in on key words B. Listen to the caller only, block out all background noises C. Ask follow-up/open-ended questions to gather information D. Not drawing premature conclusions
answer
B. Listen to the caller only, block out all background noises
question
Decision-making refers to the ability to use _________ __________ in making decisions based on available facts, prior knowledge or experience when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. Sound judgment B. Experienced judgment C. Educated judgment D. Logical judgment
answer
A. Sound judgment
question
Stress is defined as physical, mental or emotional factors that cause bodily or mental tension. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Eustress is defined as any stress associated with negative experiences or negative emotions. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Lack of work ethic, low morale and difficulty concentrating and remaining focused are all examples of: A. Distress B. Mental stress C. Physical stress D. Emotional stress
answer
B. Mental stress
question
Soreness in one's joints, headaches, changes in weight or insomnia are all examples of: A. Distress B. Mental stress C. Physical stress D. Emotional stress
answer
C. Physical stress
question
Which of the following is not unethical? A. Prejudice B. Willful neglect of duty C. Courtesy D. Sexual harassment
answer
C. Courtesy
question
A _______ consists of two or more people working together to accomplish a common goal. A. Pack B. Group C. Team D. Partnership
answer
C. Team
question
PST's will maintain the integrity of private information; they will neither seek personal data beyond that needed to perform their professional responsibilities, nor reveal case information to anyone not having proper professional use for such. Violators of _______ are subject to disciplinary actions and/or civil liability and/or criminal prosecution. A. Personal information B. Confidentiality C. Civil rights D. Agency values
answer
B. Confidentiality
question
The ________ Police Department was the first to use an "on the air" voice communication system in 1928. This was a one-way radio system. A. Detroit B. New York C. New Jersey D. Philadelphia
answer
A. Detroit
question
What was the first year police cars were equipped with radio receivers? A. 1933 B. 1929 C. 1949 D. 1937
answer
B. 1929 (California)
question
Where was the first two-way radio used? A. Metuchen, New Jersey B. Bayshore, New York C. Bayonne, New Jersey D. Manorville, New York
answer
C. Bayonne, New Jersey
question
In January, 1980, the first 911 enhanced call was received in _______, Florida. A. Alachua County B. Pinellas County C. Orange County D. Sarasota County
answer
C. Orange County
question
On ________, President Clinton signed Senate Bill 800 declaring 911 as the National Communications number. A. October 6, 1999 B. October 26, 1994 C. October 26, 1999 D. October 6, 1994
answer
C. October 26, 1999
question
A telecommunicator can be held civilly liable if they violate a law or statute. A. True B. False
answer
B. False (Criminally)
question
Any disclosure of confidential information must be properly documented and only released to those with a need to know. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A deposition, also known as a depo, is the taking of testimony under oath. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
If a judge makes the ruling to sustain, all the following are true except: A. Objection withheld B. Witness may not answer C. This information was already presented to the judge D. Mistrial could result if witness answers and witness could be held in contempt
answer
C. This information was already presented to the judge
question
Which of the following is NOT a form of terrorism? A. Bio-terrorism B. Eco- terrorism C. Nuclear-terrorism D. Explosive terrorism
answer
D. Explosive terrorism
question
_________ is a microorganism that causes disease in personnel, plants or animals, or causes the deterioration of material. A. Biological agent B. Chemical weapon C. Radiological dispersal device D. Biological weapon
answer
A. Biological agent
question
Anarchism is a political theory holding all forms of governmental authority to be unnecessary and undesirable and advocating a society based on voluntary cooperation and free association of individuals and groups. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Anti-terrorism is defensive measures used to increase the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts, to include limited response and containment by local military forces. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Counter-terrorism is the defensive measures taken to prevent, deter and respond to terrorism. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A pathogen is any organism (usually living) capable of producing serious disease or death, such as bacteria, fungi and viruses. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A dirty bomb or Radiological Dispersal Device (RDD) uses conventional explosive to disperse radioactive material like that used in the medical area over a given area. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A dirty bomb will cause immediate physical damage and will also spread radioactive material which may render an area uninhabitable and cause cancers and other illness to those that are exposed. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
An asset (terrorist) is a resource-person, group, relationship, instrument, installation or supply at the disposition of a terrorist organization for the use on an operational or support role. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A nerve agent is a substance that interferes with the endocrine system. Exposure is primarily through the skin and eyes and, secondarily through inhalation of the vapor. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
NIMS is the acronym for: A. National Incident Management System B. Newest Incident Management System C. National Insurance Management System D. National Incident Micromanagement System
answer
A. National Incident Management System
question
FEMA is the acronym for: A. Florida Emergency Management Agency B. Florida Emergency Management Association C. Federal Emergency Management Agency D. Federal Emergency Management Administration
answer
C. Federal Emergency Management Agency
question
Criminal complaints involve an offense against society and can be penalized by a fine. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Civil complaints involve disputes between private individuals or disputes involving contractual matters and are penalized by fines and/or imprisonment. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Telecommunicators should give information, not advice. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
In progress refers to an event that occurred within a short period of time. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
A past event, or a delayed call, refers to an event that occurred within a short period of time. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
A law enforcement only telecommunicator will not be required to take a CPR course. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
In the ________ phase, the suspect has made plans and has committed to carrying out the act. A. Preparation B. Approach C. Implementation D. Fantasy
answer
B. Approach
question
A hostage is an individual being held against their will. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
In the negotiation phase, demands have been received and negotiations are in progress, between the suspect(s) and law enforcement. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A subject who has blocked himself in an area that is not accessible would be considered a _______ subject. A. Unreachable B. Barricaded C. Not available D. High risk
answer
B. Barricaded
question
When dealing with a suicidal caller, the telecommunicator cannot mention the word suicide when dealing directly with the caller. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
The AMBER alert program is a voluntary partnership between law enforcement agencies, broadcasters, transportation agencies and the wireless industry, to activate an urgent bulletin reference... A. Missing adults B. Habitual runaways C. Serious child abductions D. Exploited children
answer
C. Serious child abductions
question
The AMBER alert was established August 30... A. 1996 B. 2000 C. 1998 D. 2002
answer
B. 2000
question
Responding "Cold" to call by Emergency Medical Services is: A. Lights and sirens B. For life threatening calls or emergencies C. No lights or sirens D. For routine calls
answer
C. No lights or sirens
question
EOP is the acronym for: A. Emergency Operations Policy B. Emergency Operator Prerequisites C. Emergency Operations Plans D. Emergency Operator performance
answer
C. Emergency Operations Plans
question
The Emergency Support Function's (ESF) provide the structure for coordinating federal interagency support for a federal response to an incident. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
ESF4 is the Emergency Support Function (ESF) for: A. Firefighting B. Transportation C. Communications D. Mass care and human services
answer
A. Firefighting
question
The duration of response for the TERT ranges from _______ to _________ depending on area and severity of the incident. A. Five days, two weeks B. Five days, two months C. Five weeks, two months D. Five months, two years
answer
A. Five days, two weeks
question
______ can be defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served and commitment to the continued development of skills in the pursuit of excellence. A. Morality B. Ethics C. Professionalism D. Self-respect
answer
C. Professionalism
question
What statute advises that no public safety telecommunicator or employee of a state agency or county, city or other political subdivision in the state shall have any interest financial or otherwise, direct or indirect, engages in any business transaction or professional activity; or incur any obligation of any nature, which is in substantial conflict with the proper discharge of his/her duties in the public interest. A. 119 B. 114 C. 112 D. 136
answer
C. 112
question
A high standard of ethical and moral conduct is an essential ingredient in the development of a professional public safety telecommunicator on or off duty. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A _____ is anything of value intended to benefit the giver more then the receive, given to a person because of position and authority rather than because of individual or personal qualities. A. Gift B. Reward C. Gratuity D. Benefit
answer
C. Gratuity
question
What state was the first to utilize 2 way radios in 1933? A. California B. New Jersey C. Illinois D. Florida
answer
B. New Jersey
question
Civil Law deals with the body of statutes and other laws that define conduct which is prohibited by the government and that sets out government sanctions to be imposed on those that breach laws. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
The ____ specifies a series of administrative, physical, and technical safeguards for covered entities to us to assure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronically protected health information. A. The Sunshine Law B. The Security Rule C. Hippa Privacy Rule D. Public Records Law
answer
B. The Security Rule
question
What is a sign of physical stress? A. Lack of work ethic B. Difficulty concentrating and remaining focused C. Low morale D. Insomnia
answer
D. Insomnia
question
What phase of barricaded subjects is information about subject obtained? A. Containment phase B. Termination phase C. Observation phase D. Approach phase
answer
C. Observation phase
question
What is the age for a missing person when Silver Alerts are activated? A. 75 B. 60 C. 55 D. 65
answer
B. 60
question
Which information can not be garnered from FCIC? A. Stolen guns B. Gang files C. Criminal histories D. Stolen credit cards
answer
D. Stolen credit cards
question
Where is NCIC housed? A. Washington D.C B. Richmond, Virginia C. Clarksburg, West Virginia D. Annapolis, Maryland
answer
C. Clarksburg, West Virginia
question
Florida has _____ Emergency Support Functions (ESFs), grouped by function rather than agency. A. 25 B. 18 C. 22 D. 17
answer
B. 18
question
Each Emergency Support Function (ESF) is headed by a primary state agency and supported by additional state agencies. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
What alert was created for the public after an officer has been seriously injured or killed by an offender? A. Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) B. Florida Department of Law Enforcement (FDLE) C. Law Enforcement Officer (LEO) D. Officer Down
answer
C. Law Enforcement Officer (LEO)
question
A high standard of ethical and moral conduct is an essential ingredient in the development of a professional Public Safety Telecommunicator, on or off duty. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
____________________ was the first state to utilize 2-way radios in 1933.
answer
New Jersey
question
In 1999, Senate Bill _______ declared 911 as the National Communications number.
answer
800
question
What Florida State Statute governs the "Sunshine Law"? A. 114 B. 121 C. 119 D. 111
answer
C. 119
question
To fit Amber Alert criteria, the child must be under the age of 21 years of age. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
The group whose mission it is to support citizens and first responders to ensure that as a nation we work together to build, sustain and improve our capability to prepare for, protect against, respond to, recover from and mitigate hazards is known as: A. NIMS B. NORAD C. CEMP D. FEMA
answer
D. FEMA
question
Stressors that are unique to a Telecommunicator include: A. Multi-tasking, life or death situations, urgency and shift rotations B. Death in the family, divorce or familial issues C. Heavy traffic coming into work, long commutes or traffic delays D. Problems with coworkers, supervisors or managers
answer
A. Multi-tasking, life or death situations, urgency and shift rotations
question
What basic information is needed by a Telecommunicator for basic questioning techniques? A. Getting the callers first and last name, address and date of birth B. Asking if the patient needs an ambulance C. Finding out if the call just occurred or if it occurred in the past D. Where, what, when, weapons, who and how
answer
D. Where, what, when, weapons, who and how
question
What are the five parts of the communications cycle? _____________, _____________, _____________, _____________, _____________
answer
Sender, Receiver, Message, Medium, Feedback
question
Ethics can be defined as: A. Commitment to one's career B. Behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked in pride in oneself C. Respect for the people one serves D. Principles of honor, morality and accepted rules of conduct of an individual or group
answer
D. Principles of honor, morality and accepted rules of conduct of an individual or group
question
What are the 5 phases of an Active Shooter? _____________, _____________, _____________, _____________, _____________
answer
Fantasy, Planning, Preperation, Approach, Implementation
question
Florida's ______________________________ was made effective by an Executive Order signed by Charlie Crist on October 8, 2008.
answer
Silver Alert
question
Intentional release of toxic biological agents to harm and terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause is known as: A. State terrorism B. Bio-terrorism C. Eco-terrorism D. Nuclear terrorism
answer
B. Bio-terrorism
question
The primary role and responsibilities of the ____________ Team is to provide mission critical assistance for call-taking and dispatcher functions during and after a disaster incident.
answer
TERT
question
Information being disseminated to the public is governed by the following: A. Agency policies, local government, state laws and federal laws B. Individual agencies, state laws and federal laws and local government C. Local government, state laws, and federal laws D. Agency policies, local government and state laws
answer
A. Agency policies, local government, state laws and federal laws
question
Active listening skills include: A. Not passing judgments or jumping to conclusions B. Becoming defensive if the caller becomes defensive C. Interrupting when the caller is going on and on D. Not showing empathy for the caller's situation; it shows weakness
answer
A. Not passing judgments or jumping to conclusions
question
The following are all techniques to prevent and manage stress, with the exception of: A. Taking medication B. Establish proper eating habits C. Take regular breaks D. Get adequate sleep
answer
A. Taking medication
question
All federal, state and local laws for disseminating public information evolve from the Freedom of Information Act, also known as: A. Public Law 89.554 B. F.S. 119 C. Federal Law 89.54 D. Public Law 89.54
answer
A. Public Law 89.554
question
911 is used as the emergency number in: A. United States B. United States, Canada C. United States, Mexico, Canada D. United States, Mexico
answer
B. United States, Canada
question
In courtroom testimony, tactics used by opposing counsel during cross-examination include rapid-firing questions to: A. Attempt to confuse or lead the witness B. Cause lack of concentration on the part of the witness (to focus on error rather than question) C. Confuse and attempt to force inconsistency in witness answers D. Lull the witness into false sense of security to give answers in favor of the defense
answer
A. Attempt to confuse or lead the witness
question
Paramedics provide what type of medical treatment to the injured: A. Advanced Life Support B. Basic Life Support C. Basic Living Support D. Advanced Living Support
answer
A. Advanced Life Support
question
Defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served and commitment to the continued development of skills in the pursuit of excellence. A. Morality B. Professionalism C. Ethics D. Self-respect
answer
B. Professionalism
question
The use of 911 equipment starts with a 911 call via landline phone, cellular phones, and ___________________________________
answer
Voip
question
FEMA is the acronym for: A. Florida Emergency Management Agency B. Florida Emergency Management Association C. Federal Emergency Management Agency D. Federal Emergency Management Administration
answer
C. Federal Emergency Management Agency
question
Terrorism can be defined as: A. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by one individual to another with the intention of intimidating or coercing societies or governments, often for ideological or political reasons. B. Threatened use of force by one individual to another with the intention of coercing or intimidating a government, often for ideological reasons. C. Unlawful use of force by or violence by an organized group against people or property with the intention of coercing or intimidating a government, often for ideological reasons. D. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by a person or an organized group against people or property with the intention of intimidating or coercing societies or governments, often for ideological or political reasons.
answer
D. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by a person or an organized group against people or property with the intention of intimidating or coercing societies or governments, often for ideological or political reasons.
question
SERT, Florida's State Emergency Response Team, is composed of all but the following? A. Sheriffs from each County B. Emergency Coordination Officers C. Volunteer Agencies D. Non-Governmental organizations
answer
A. Sheriffs from each County
question
Florida Statute 252.35 deals with what subject? A. Division of Emergency Management B. Department of Emergency Management C. County Emergency Management D. Florida's State Emergency Response Team
answer
A. Division of Emergency Management
question
Which of the following is not a responsibility of County Emergency Management? A. Enforce the laws in a state of emergency B. Coordinate emergency response efforts within its jurisdiction C. Maintain and operate a 24-hour warning point D. Develop and maintain an emergency management plan
answer
A. Enforce the laws in a state of emergency
question
_________ was developed jointly by the U.S. Department of Transportation, Transport Canada and the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico.
answer
DOT-ERG
question
Anarchism is a political theory holding all forms of governmental authority to be unnecessary and undesirable and advocating a society based on voluntary cooperation and free association of individuals and groups. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
An asset (terrorist) is a resource-person, group, relationship, instrument, installation or supply at the disposition of a terrorist organization for the use for an operational or support role. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
The first documented form of police communication was: A. A flag B. A whistle C. A horn D. A bell
answer
D. A bell
question
The Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC) was created in June, 1970, and is based in ___________________________________
answer
Tallahassee, FL
question
Utilizing the TDD, "SKSK" is the abbreviation for: ___________________________________
answer
Stop / end conversation
question
Sulfur is an example of what kind of hazardous material? A. Liquid B. Gas C. Solid D. Aerosol
answer
C. Solid
question
CHEMTREC provides information on: A. Prices on gasoline around the globe B. Hazardous materials C. Chemical dependency D. Chemical companies around the globe
answer
B. Hazardous materials
question
What EMS calls require police response? A. The patient requires CPR B. The patient is having congestive heart failure C. The patient is home alone D. Crowd/traffic control may be required
answer
D. Crowd/traffic control may be required
question
When a Telecommunicator provides legal advice, _______________can be attached to the Telecommunicator and/or the employing agency.
answer
liability
question
Which of the five phases of an active shooter event is where the suspect has made plans and has committed to carrying out the act? A. Approach phase B. Implementation phase C. Preparation phase D. Fantasy phase
answer
A. Approach phase
question
The termination phase during a hostage situation is the _______________ phase which will result in surrender, suspect arrested or killed, or demands met
answer
Final
question
The Emergency Operations Center (EOC) has three levels of activation: A. Level 1 (Green), Level 2 (Orange), Level 3 (Red) B. Level 1 (Normal Response), Level 2 (Moderate Response), Level 3 (Full Response) C. Level 1 (Full activation), Level 2 (Partial activation), and Level 3 (Monitoring activation). D. Level 1 (Monitoring Activation), Level 2 (Partial Activation), Level 3 (Full Activation)
answer
C. Level 1 (Full activation), Level 2 (Partial activation), and Level 3 (Monitoring activation).
question
The Emergency Support Function (ESF) that provides coordination of federal firefighting activities and support to wildland, rural and urban firefighting operations is? A. ESF5 B. ESF4 C. ESF6 D. ESF3
answer
B. ESF4
question
Define ATU? A. Air Rescue Transport Unit B. Air Transport Unit C. Aid Rescue Transport Unit D. Aid/Air Transport Unit
answer
A. Air Rescue Transport Unit
question
There are many incidents, to include _______________ and _______________, that must be reported to the State Watch Office.
answer
natural, manmade
question
Role of the Telecommunicator during a disaster is to be the first responder to any event. A. On-call status B. Mutual aid C. Mission critical D. Recovery
answer
C. Mission critical
question
A Telecommunicator should recognize the need to change _________________________ based on your caller's ability to understand.
answer
communication style
question
According to the mission of the Department of Homeland Security, its main areas of responsibility include all except: A. Guarding against terrorism B. Protecting our gun rights C. Securing our borders D. Enforcing our immigration laws
answer
B. Protecting our gun rights
question
What allows communication centers to receive location and number information on emergency calls utilizing the 911 network? A. FIN B. Telematics C. ANI and ALI D. Florida Relay System
answer
C. ANI and ALI
question
A high standard of _______________ and _______________ conduct is an essential ingredient in the development of a professional Public Safety Telecommunicator on and off duty.
answer
ethical, moral
question
Unethical conduct by Public Safety Telecommunicators is viewed by the public as a reflection of: A. Their agency and the entire profession B. The Telecommunicator and the agency C. The agency and their coworkers only D. The profession
answer
A. Their agency and the entire profession
question
When being questioned in court if the exact information is not known (i.e., measurement of something) you should use the term ____________________
answer
approximately
question
_________________________ is the duty of a responsible party to take action to prevent harm to the public or other party. This duty may be directed by agency policy and procedure or may result from a moral obligation.
answer
Duty to Act
question
The first two-way radio was used in Bayonne, New Jersey in A. 1913 B. 1930 C. 1993 D. 1933
answer
D. 1933
question
To demonstrate the ability to recognize when information is not appropriate: A. Gather information by only asking questions that require a yes or no answer B. Pay attention to the caller only and do not listen to any background noises C. Draw premature conclusions to end call faster D. Zero in on key words
answer
D. Zero in on key words
question
"Receiver" is one of the 5 parts of the communications cycle. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
_____________________________________ is a method used by emergency medical personnel to grade the severity of a traumatic injury.
answer
Trauma Alert Criteria
question
Telecommunicators may be subject to ______________________ for violation of public information laws, including civil liability and criminal prosecution.
answer
severe penalties
question
All of the following are hazardous gas materials except: A. Chlorine B. Hydrogen C. Diesel Fuel D. Anhydrous ammonia
answer
C. Diesel Fuel
question
ESF is headed by a primary state agency and supported by : A. Their own agency and the County B. Primary state agency and additional state agencies C. Additional state agencies and all local agencies D. Their own agency and no one else
answer
B. Primary state agency and additional state agencies
question
Inter-State Mutual Aid: In accordance with __________ of Florida Statutes, Florida has also adopted the Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) and Memoranda of Understanding with other States and private organizations. These agreements provide mechanisms to share resources between each other during major disasters. A. Chapter 252, Part III B. Chapter 250, Part II C. Chapter 352, Part III D. Chapter 352, Part II
answer
A. Chapter 252, Part III
question
Define Deposition: A. Being in a courtroom while a trial is in progress B. Taking of testimony under oath C. Receiving a subpoena while on duty D. The scope of questioning
answer
B. Taking of testimony under oath
question
As part of the proper interview questions for disaster calls, such as plane crashes, you should always ask the following: location, caller's name, type of aircraft, tail number, actions of the plane before the crash, injuries, accessibility by ground, and any special equipment or vehicles needed for access to the site: A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
BNICE is the acronym for? A. Biological, Nuclear/Radiological, Incendiary, Chemical, and Explosive Agents B. Biological, Nuclear/Radiological, Incendiary, Chemical, and Explosive Ammunition C. Bomb, Nuclear/Radiological, Improvised Explosive device, Chemical, and Explosive Agents D. Biological weapon, Nerve agents, Radiological, Improvised Explosive device, Counter-terrorism, and Explosive agents.
answer
A. Biological, Nuclear/Radiological, Incendiary, Chemical, and Explosive Agents
question
Telecommunicators are often faced with civil questions. Telecommunicators should: A. Tell the caller what they think is lawful B. Wait for the officers to respond and then explain it correctly C. Rely on agency policy and procedures D. Tell the caller to contact an attorney
answer
C. Rely on agency policy and procedures
question
Telecommunicators will maintain the integrity of ______________________; they will neither seek personal data beyond that needed to perform their professional responsibilities, nor reveal case information to anyone not having proper professional use for same.
answer
private information
question
Professionalism can be defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards of character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served and commitment to: A. The Public Safety Telecommunicator B. The agency C. The continued development of skills in pursuit of excellence D. The continued development of the agency and fellow coworkers
answer
C. The continued development of skills in pursuit of excellence
question
Decision-making refers to the ability to use __________ in making decisions based on available facts, prior knowledge or experience, when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. Logical judgment B. Experienced judgment C. Educated judgment D. Sound judgment
answer
D. Sound judgment
question
TDD is the acronym for: A. Telephone Device for the Deaf B. Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf C. Telecommunications Dealing with the Deaf D. Telecommunications Device for the Hearing Impaired
answer
B. Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf
question
The first test call was made using the 911 system in Haleyville, Alabama, February 16, 1968. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Provides the template for the management of incidents, while the NRF provides the structure and mechanisms for national-level policy for incident management. A. NORAD B. NIMS C. FEMA D. SERT
answer
B. NIMS
question
The effect of long term mental stress is known as: A. Low morale B. Lack of drive C. Burnout D. Negative attitude
answer
C. Burnout
question
Florida's Silver Alert Plan was made effective by Executive Order signed by Barack Obama on October 8, 2008. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
An Amber Alert activation must be recommended by: A. FDLE B. FCIC, FDLE, FBI and local law enforcement agency of jurisdiction C. The local law enforcement agency of jurisdiction D. FBI
answer
C. The local law enforcement agency of jurisdiction
question
What are the placards on conveyances that transport hazardous materials used for? A. To track hazardous materials B. To provide owner information C. To identify hazardous materials D. To track hazmat incidents
answer
C. To identify hazardous materials
question
FIN (Florida Interoperability Network) is a statewide VOIP. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Telecommunicators should have knowledge of the skills and capabilities of the units handling an incident, be aware of resources available, and recognize potential issues that may threaten __________. A. The surrounding areas B. Responder and public safety C. Public safety D. First responders
answer
B. Responder and public safety
question
The acronym HIPAA stands for: A. Health Insurance Protective and Accountability Act B. Health Integrity Protection and Assurance Act C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act D. Health Information Protection and Accountability Act
answer
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
question
Senate Bill 800 declared 911 as the National Communications number in what year? A. 2001 B. 1999 C. 1961 D. 2004
answer
B. 1999
question
FEMA provides services for crisis counseling, unemployment, legal services and special tax considerations. A. True B. False
answer
A. True (p2)
question
Intentional release of toxic biologic agents intended to harm and terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause is known as: A. Nuclear Terrorism B. State Terrorism C. Bio-Terrorism D. Eco-Terrorism
answer
C. Bio-Terrorism
question
Active listening is a way of listening and responding that shows interest in what the speaker is saying and ensures mutual understanding. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Amber Alerts are the only type of Florida alerts that are displayed on lottery machines and DOT dynamic messaging signs. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
____________ can be defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served and commitment to the continued development of skills in the pursuit of excellence. A. Self-respect B. Professionalism C. Ethics D. Morality
answer
B. Professionalism
question
A law enforcement Telecommunicator will not be required to take a CPR course. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Typically, liability exposure for public safety agencies revolves around issues where the service and ____________ did not meet the expectations of the public. A. Standards of the Telecommunicator B. Standard of care C. Level of standards D. Agency Standards
answer
B. Standard of care
question
Telecommunicators should give information, not advice. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
The Emergency Support Functions (ESF) provide the structure for coordinating federal interagency support for a federal response to an incident. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Each Emergency Support Function (ESF) is headed by a primary state agency and supported by additional state agencies. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A ____________ is a device which gives the ability to receive calls and communicate with citizens who are hearing impaired and/or unable to verbally communicate, through typing instead of speaking. A. TDD B. DTC C. TTD D. FRS
answer
A. TDD
question
Decision-making refers to the ability to use sound judgment in the making of decisions based on available facts, prior knowledge or experience when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
CHEMTREC is an emergency call center open during the week that provides immediate information and assistance to anyone involved in a chemical or hazardous material incident. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
An event that is currently taking place and requires emergency assistance. A. Occurred within the week B. Just-occurred C. In-progress D. Past event
answer
C. In-progress
question
ALI is the acronym for: A. Authorized Location Incident B. Automatic Location Identifier C. Authorized Landing Identifier D. Automatic Listening Indicator
answer
B. Automatic Location Identifier
question
Jurisdictions are primarily configured as agency-specific and can be known as, but not limited to, city, county, zone, region, territory or state. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
FCIC is based in Tampa and is administered by the Florida Department of Law Enforcement. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
The first 911 enhanced call was received in Pinellas County, Florida, in January, 1980. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
In what year were police cars first equipped with radio receivers? A. 1937 B. 1933 C. 1949 D. 1929
answer
D. 1929
question
The AMBER Alert was established August 30th of what year? A. 2000 B. 1996 C. 1998 D. 2002
answer
A. 2000
question
Which alert relates to serious injury or death of an officer? A. Officer Down B. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) C. Law Enforcement Officer (LEO) D. Florida Department of Law Enforcement (FDLE)
answer
C. Law Enforcement Officer (LEO)
question
68. In the negotiation phase, demands have been received, and negotiations are occurring between suspect(s) and law enforcement. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
To fits the criteria for an AMBER Alert activation, a person must be under 21 years of age. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
More than _____ million FCIC transactions are performed monthly. A. 87 B. 93 C. 102 D. 61
answer
A. 87
question
The group whose mission it is to support citizens and first responders to ensure that as a nation we work together to build, sustain and improve our capability to prepare for, protect against, respond to, recover from, and mitigate hazards, is known as: A. CEMP B. FEMA C. NORAD D. NIMS
answer
B. FEMA
question
EMT provide advanced life support to victims. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
The first 911 test call was made on February 16, 1968, in: A. Fort Myers, Florida B. Evanston, Illinois C. Haleyville, Alabama D. Detroit, Michigan
answer
C. Haleyville, Alabama
question
An Emergency Operations Center (EOC) is located: A. In another county as to where the incident is occurring B. In a centralized location for representatives of emergency support functions C. Near the largest county sheriff's office in the area D. Inside a hospital
answer
B. In a centralized location for representatives of emergency support functions
question
The Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC) and the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) collects and maintains and provides criminal justice information to local, state and federal agencies in a complete and accurate manner. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
The following are included in the five phases of an active shooter except: A. Initial B. Fantasy C. Planning D. Preparation
answer
A. Initial
question
An incident that requires an immediate response due to persons in imminent danger of loss of life or limb, or injuries beyond immediate first aid. A. Urgent B. Non-emergency C. Emergency D. Routine
answer
C. Emergency
question
The acronym HIPAA stands for: A. Health Insurance Protective and Accountability Act B. Health Integrity Protection and Assurance Act C. Health Information Protection and Accountability Act D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
answer
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
question
Public Safety Telecommunicators need to be able to discern the differences between criminal and civil law. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
____________ use two-way wireless communications between a vehicle and processing center. A. TDD B. Relay services C. Telematic Call Centers D. Communications centers
answer
C. Telematic Call Centers
question
The primary role and responsibilities of a TERT team is to provide mission critical assistance for call-taking and dispatcher functions during and after a disaster incident. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
The following are examples of confidential information except: A. The identity of a deceased person before next of kin has been notified B. Suspect information C. Names, addresses and telephone numbers D. Patient information
answer
B. Suspect information
question
Multifunctional dexterity is: A. The ability to carry on a conversation with a co-worker while listening to a caller B. The ability to eat food and drink water at your desk C. The ability to sit at your desk for a long period of time without a break D. The ability to write, type, listen and talk at the same time
answer
D. The ability to write, type, listen and talk at the same time
question
Active listening skills include: A. Not passing judgments or jumping to conclusions. B. Interrupting when the caller is going on and on C. Becoming defensive if the caller becomes defensive D. Not showing empathy for a caller's situation as it shows weakness
answer
A. Not passing judgments or jumping to conclusions.
question
HIPAA was designed to protect patients from disclosure of protected oral, written or electronic health information A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Telecommunicators should have knowledge of the skills and capabilities of the unit handling an incident, be aware of resources available, and recognize potential issues that may threaten: A. Responder and public safety B. The surrounding areas C. Public safety D. First responders
answer
A. Responder and public safety
question
Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM) is a structured process for managing the stress involved in a critical incident. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
The acronym NORAD stands for: A. North American Roadway Area Department B. North American Aerospace Defense Command C. National Officers Retaining Area Defenses D. National Organization for Response and Detaining
answer
B. North American Aerospace Defense Command
question
The Florida Interoperability Network (FIN) is provided by the State of Florida for all public safety disciplines. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Officers can identify a material by finding the number: A. In the chemical aid booklet B. On the black and white panel C. On the red panel D. On the orange panel
answer
D. On the orange panel
question
Which United State President signed Senate Bill 800 declaring 911 as the National Communications number on October 26, 1999? A. President George W Bush B. President Clinton C. President George Bush D. President Reagan
answer
B. President Clinton
question
The ________is the means of delivery A. Sender B. Message C. Feedback D. Medium
answer
D. Medium
question
A_______ refers to something that actually exists and can be verified. A. Inference B. Fact C. Fiction D. Truth
answer
B. Fact
question
Telecommunicators do not need to know which agencies surround their boundaries/zones. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
_________is not a hazardous gas material. A. Chlorine B. Diesel Fuel C. Hydrogen D. Anhydrous ammonia
answer
B. Diesel Fuel
question
Providing legal advice can attach liability to the telecommunicator and/or the employing agency. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
During a hostage situation the phase which will result in the surrender, suspect is arrested or killed or their demands are met is called _______. A. Negotiation phase B. Termination phase C. Initial phase D. Beginning phase
answer
B. Termination phase
question
One role of a telecommunicator in handling a suicidal call is to determine if anyone else is present. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Florida Governor Charlie Crist signed which executive order on May 5, 2008? A. LEO Alert B. Silver Alert C. Amber Alert D. Missing Child Alert
answer
A. LEO Alert
question
Any stress reaction resulting from unpleasant or harmful events or consequences is called ________. A. Anti-Stress B. Eustress C. Distress D. Stressor
answer
C. Distress
question
Use of drug trafficking to fund their operations is called _______. A. Bio-terrorism B. Narco-terrorism C. State Terrorism D. Cyber Terrorism
answer
B. Narco-terrorism
question
An item of material which projects, disperses or disseminates a biological agent including arthropod vectors is a ________. A. Biological weapon B. Chemical weapon C. Biological agent D. Nuclear weapon
answer
A. Biological weapon
question
NIMS is the acronym for the National Incident Management System. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Personal Gain is when the public safety telecommunicator uses their official positions to secure privileges or advantages for themselves. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
When was the first telephone added to call booths, linking the officer with the police department? A. 1880 B. 1870 C. 1928 D. 1929
answer
B. 1870
question
Civil law deals with disputes between individuals and organizations? A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
The order in which the telecommunicator needs to ask questions in order to obtain how an incident happened is? A. Where, what, when, weapons, who, how B. What, when, where, weapons, who, how C. How, who, where, when, weapons, what D. Weapons, where, what, when, how, who
answer
A. Where, what, when, weapons, who, how
question
Sender, receiver, message, medium and feedback are the 5 parts of the communications cycle essential for effective communications. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
The NCIC Maintains information on stolen and recovered property as well as wanted and missing persons for all 50 states but does not for Guam, American Samoa and the Mariana Islands. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Decision-making refers to the ability to use sound judgment in the making decisions based on the available facts, prior knowledge or experience when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A_______incident is one that requires an immediate response due to persons in imminent danger of loss of life or limb or injuries beyond immediate first aid. A. Emergency B. Priority C. Eminent D. Fast
answer
A. Emergency
question
Section 119.01, F.S., provides that all state, county and municipal records are closed for personal inspection and copy by any person. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Materials that burn in the presence of an ignition source are called_______. A. Solids B. Gasoline C. Chlorine D. Acetone
answer
A. Solids
question
Chemtrec is an emergency call center open during the week that provides immediate information and assistance to anyone involved in a chemical or hazardous material incident around the globe. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
A delayed call is called a _____ event. A. Just occurred B. In-progress C. Past event call D. Occurred within the week
answer
C. Past event call
question
Decision making refers to the ability to use_______ judgment in making decisions based on available facts, _______ knowledge or experience when handling calls for service or responding to emergency situations. A. Resonance - previous B. Sound - prior C. Quality - earlier D. Valuable - past
answer
B. Sound - prior
question
Jurisdictions are primarily configured as agency specific and can be known as, but not limited to, city, county, zone, region, territory or state. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
A trauma center is defined as: A. A method used by emergency medical personnel to grade the severity of a traumatic injury and determine the need for transport. B. The type of hospital that provides surgeons and other medical personnel and equipment to provide care for severely injured patients around the clock. C. The type of hospital that is used by emergency medical personnel to grade the severity of any traumatic injury. D. The closest hospital is named the trauma center for any given emergency.
answer
B. The type of hospital that provides surgeons and other medical personnel and equipment to provide care for severely injured patients around the clock.
question
Chemical agent is defined as: A chemical agent substance that is intended for use in ______ operations to kill, seriously injure, or ________ people through its physiological effects. A. Law enforcement - enable B. Immigration - constrict C. Military - incapacitate D. Homeland security - facilitate
answer
C. Military - incapacitate
question
FEMA provides services for crisis counseling, legal services, special tax considerations and unemployment. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Ethics can be defined as the behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career. A. True B. False
answer
B. False (Professionalism)
question
In 1870, the Chicago Police Department updated their signal lights with: A. Call boxes B. Private booths C. Clock boxes D. Call booths
answer
D. Call booths
question
Any disclosure of confidential information must be properly documented and only released to those with a need to know, such as _______ or those with a right to know as authorized by law. A. Media personnel B. Florida Department of Law Enforcement C. Public safety officials D. Private security
answer
C. Public safety officials
question
The Sunshine Law provides that limited records made or received by any public agency in the course of its official business are available for inspection. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Which typical component is not included in a communication center? A. 911/in-coming telephone lines B. Media line C. CAD D. Teletype
answer
B. Media line
question
A multi-casualty incident is defined as an incident where the number and severity of casualties exceeds the capability of the responders' initial resources. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Legal advice can only be obtained from an attorney, unless the telecommunicator has experience in a given area in question. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Of the alerts: Amber/Silver/LEO, only the Amber Alerts are displayed on lottery machines and DOT dynamic message signs. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Roles and responsibilities of the telecommunicators Emergency Response Taskforce (TERT) team is to provide mission critical assistance for call-taking and dispatch functions during and after a disaster incident. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
When a judge "sustains" an objection A. The witness may answer B. The witness should ask his attorney C. The witness should not answer. D. The witness should ask a question.
answer
C. The witness should not answer.
question
The ____ specifies a series of administrative, physical, and technical safeguards for covered entities to us to assure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronically protected health information. A. The Sunshine Law B. The Security Rule C. Hippa Privacy Rule D. Public Records Law
answer
B. The Security Rule
question
What is a sign of physical stress? A. Lack of work ethic B. Difficulty concentrating and remaining focused C. Low morale D. Insomnia
answer
D. Insomnia
question
What phase of barricaded subjects is information about subject obtained? A. Containment phase B. Termination phase C. Observation phase D. Approach phase
answer
C. Observation phase
question
What is the age for a missing person when Silver Alerts are activated? A. 75 B. 60 C. 55 D. 65
answer
B. 60
question
Which information can not be garnered from FCIC? A. Stolen guns B. Gang files C. Criminal histories D. Stolen credit cards
answer
D. Stolen credit cards
question
A telecommunicator's agency assumes all liability if a telecommunicator violates a law or statute. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Typically depositions are used to determine how strong a witness the telecommunicator will be. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
The Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC) is based in Jacksonville and is administered by the Florida Department of Law Enforcement (FDLE). A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Mobile radios and portable radios can both be defined as a radio small enough for a responder to carry at all times. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
The Florida Relay Systems (511) assists individuals with hearing and speech impediments in communications with those without 9-1-1 access. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 provides _____________ protections for personal health information. A. State B. Federal C. Local D. Agency
answer
B. Federal
question
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) dictates that 9-1-1 services must be accessible to people with _____________. A. Hearing loss. B. Speech impediments. C. Hearing and speech impediments. D. Deafness or hard of hearing.
answer
C. Hearing and speech impediments.
question
9-1-1 equipment allows communication centers to receive emergency calls utilizing the 9-1-1 network. This includes Automatic Location Identifier (ALI), Automatic Number Identifier (ANI), ______________. A. Recording equipment, landlines and voice over internet protocol. B. Mapping systems, recording equipment, and computer aided dispatch. C. Mapping systems, telematic call centers and vehicles. D. Mapping systems, recording equipment and cellular phones.
answer
B. Mapping systems, recording equipment, and computer aided dispatch.
question
The Florida Interoperability Network (FIN) allows: A. Limited communications for all public safety disciplines. B. Seamless communications, through limited frequencies for most public safety agencies. C. Seamless communications, over shared frequencies, for statewide use, by all public safety disciplines. D. Shared frequencies between any public safety agency and any federal agency.
answer
C. Seamless communications, over shared frequencies, for statewide use, by all public safety disciplines
question
Public safety telecommunicators must clearly identify ________ and use caution when making __________ about a situation. Improper inferences and assumptions may lead to the telecommunicator to misinterpret a situation and may result in an incorrect response. A. Identify facts and use caution when making inferences about a situation. B. Identify facts and use caution when making decisions about a situation. C. Identify callers and use caution when making decisions about a situation. D. Identify inferences and use caution when making decisions about a situation.
answer
A. Identify facts and use caution when making inferences about a situation.
question
All federal, state and local laws for disseminating public information evolve from the Freedom of Information Act also known as: A. Public Law 89.54 B. F.S. 119 C. Federal Law 89.54 D. Public Law 89.554
answer
D. Public Law 89.554
question
Information being disseminated to the public is governed by the following: A. Agency policies and local government B. Individual agencies, state laws and federal laws C. Local government, state laws, and federal laws D. Agency policies, local government, state laws and federal laws
answer
D. Agency policies, local government, state laws and federal laws
question
Telecommunicators should have knowledge of the skills and capabilities of the unit handling an incident, be aware of resources available, and recognize potential issues that may threaten ______________. A. The surrounding areas. B. Responder and public safety. C. Public safety. D. First responders.
answer
B. Responder and public safety.
question
Identify which statement is not correct when working with a hazardous material emergency. A. Different apparatus will respond B. For HAZMAT a specialty unit will respond to assess and handle the situation C. Telecommunicators will identify precautions to be taken and relay to responders D. Immediately attempt to identify the types of materials involved in an incident to determine possible response
answer
C. Telecommunicators will identify precautions to be taken and relay to responders
question
Which of the following is not a tool a first responder would typically utilize when dealing with a hazardous materials incident? A. DOT ERG Guidebook B. Training Manual C. CHEMTREC Book D. Placards
answer
B. Training Manual
question
The DOT ERG - Department of Transportation Emergency Response Guidebook (RD) was developed by: A. US Department of Transportation & Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico B. US Department of Transportation & Transport Canada C. US Department of Transportation & the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico D. US Department of Transportation, Transport Canada & the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico
answer
D. US Department of Transportation, Transport Canada & the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico
question
A structured process for managing the stress involved in a critical incident that may nclude group or individual debriefing where participants share experiences and emotions and are provided referrals if additional help is required is called: A. Crucial Incident Stress Debriefing B. Critical Incident Stabilization Management C. Critical Assessment and Stress Debriefing D. Critical Incident Stress Management
answer
D. Critical Incident Stress Management
question
Identify the necessary actions to manage stress during an "in-progress" incident. A. Focus on something else, stand up, personalize the situation. B. Remain focused, ask for assistance, follow protocols, take a deep breath. C. Remain focused, ask for assistance, disregard protocols, stand up. D. Follow protocols, personalize the situation, stand up, take a deep breath.
answer
B. Remain focused, ask for assistance, follow protocols, take a deep breath.
question
The chain of command is defined as: A. The link between one organization and another. B. The connection or linkage of authority between one individual and another. C. The linkage of responsible people that joins many levels of several organizations together. D. Connection or linkage of authority and responsibility that joins one level of an organization to another.
answer
D. Connection or linkage of authority and responsibility that joins one level of an organization to another.
question
Terrorism can be defined as: A. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by one individual to another with the intention of intimidating or coercing societies or governments, often for ideological or political reasons. B. Threatened use of force by one individual to another with the intention of coercing or intimidating a government, often for ideological reasons. C. Unlawful use of force by or violence by an organized group against people or property with the intention of coercing or intimidating a government, often for ideological reasons. D. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by a person or an organized group against people or property with the intention of intimidating or coercing
answer
D. Unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by a person or an organized group against people or property with the intention of intimidating or coercing
question
Bio-terrorism can be defined as: A. Intentional release of toxic biological agents to harm and terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause (Anthrax, botulism, plague,smallpox). B. Unintentional release of toxic agents to harm citizens in the name of a political cause. C. Intentional release of biological agents to terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause (Anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox). D. Use of nuclear materials as a terrorist tactic.
answer
A. Intentional release of toxic biological agents to harm and terrorize citizens in the name of a political or other cause (Anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox).
question
State terrorism can be defined as: A. States that use threats without declaring war to terrorize citizens for a political goal (ex., Hitler). B. States that use extreme force by declaring war to terrorize citizens for a political goal (ex., Hitler). C. States that use force or the threat of force without declaring war to terrorize citizens and achieve a political goal (ex., Hitler). D. States that use the threat of force and declare war to terrorize citizens for a political goal (ex., Hitler).
answer
C. States that use force or the threat of force without declaring war to terrorize citizens and achieve a political goal (ex., Hitler).
question
The Emergency Operations Center operates under what three levels of activation? A. Complete activation, partial activation, limited monitoring B. Complete activation, partial activation, monitoring C. Full activation, partial activation, monitoring D. Full activation, limited activation, monitor only
answer
B, Complete activation, partial activation, monitoring
question
Florida Statute 252.38 deals with what subject? A. County Emergency Management B. State Emergency Management C. Division of Emergency Management D. Florida's State Emergency Response Team
answer
A. County Emergency Management
question
Florida Statute 252.35 deals with what subject? A. County Emergency Management B. Department of Emergency Management C. Division of Emergency Management D. Florida's State Emergency Response Team
answer
C. Division of Emergency Management
question
A telecommunicator is a first responder to any event and considered mission critical. A. True B. False
answer
A. True
question
Vital piece of information that should be obtained first is __________ a. How many people b. Any weapons c. Any injuries d. Location
answer
d. Location
question
A team consists of two or more people working together to accomplish a common goal a. Team Concept b. Duty to Act c. Agency Values d. Doing Business with ones Agency
answer
a. Team Concept
question
Violations of criminal laws and regulations, such as perjury, bribery, theft, identification theft, false report to law enforcement, false official statement, vandalism, burglary, firearms violations, etc a. Negligence on Duty b. Criminal Acts c. Personal Gain d. Illegal activities
answer
b. Criminal Acts
question
What is this term: Public safety telecommunicators will not use their official positions to secure privileges or advantages for themselves. a. gratuity b. gifts c. personal gain d. duty to act
answer
c. personal gain
question
Most public safety agencies have rules that prohibit employees from conducting personal business for profit with their agencies. Public safety telecommunicators should refer to s.112.313, F.S., Standards of Conduct for Public Officers, Employees of Agencies and Local Government Attorneys. a. Professionalism b. Confidentially c. Doing Business w/ ones Agency d. Negligence on Duty
answer
c. Doing Business w/ ones Agency
question
The failure to do that which a public safety telecommunicator has a directed or moral obligation to do; careless or reckless performance of one's duties a. Negligence of Duty b. Low Morale c. Burnout d. Duty to Act
answer
a. Negligence of Duty
question
The duty of a responsible party to take action to prevent harm to the public or another party. This duty may be directed by agency policy and procedure or may result from a moral obligation. a. Negligence on Duty b. Duty to Act c. Agency Values d. Moral Duty
answer
b. Duty to Act
question
Telecommunicators must be familiar with and follow all codes of ethics, professional conduct codes, standards, policies and procedures as determined by their agency. They must always uphold and follow the values and mission of their agency a. Personal Gain b. Team Concept c. Agency Values d. Doing Business with ones Agency
answer
c. Agency Values
question
Name the term: PSTs will maintain the integrity of private information; they will neither seek personal data beyond that needed to perform their professional responsibilities, nor reveal case information to anyone not having proper professional use for such. Violations of confidentiality are subject to disciplinary actions and/or civil liability and/or criminal prosecution a. HIPPA b. Security law c. Confidentially d. Privacy
answer
c. Confidentially
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) Used to confuse and attempt to force inconsistent answers a. Condescending Counsel b. Rapid Fire Questions c. Staring d. Conflicting Answers
answer
b. Rapid Fire Questions
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To give impression witness in inept, lacks confidence or is unreliable a. Condescending Counsel b. Rapid Fire Questions c. Staring d. Conflicting Answers
answer
a. Condescending Counsel
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To lull witness into a false sense of security to give answers in favor of defense a. Repetitious Questions b. Friendly Counsel c. Badgering/ Belligerent d. Suggestive Questioning
answer
b. Friendly Counsel
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To make witness angry so sense of logic and calmness is lost and PST is portrayed as one who can lose temper a. Suggestive Questioning b. Demanding Yes or No Answer c. Reversing Witness's Words d. Badgering/ Belligerent
answer
d. Badgering/ Belligerent
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To cause lack of concentration on witness' part (focus on error rather than question) a. Reversing Witness's Words b. Conflicting Answers c. Mispronouncing Telecommunicator's Name d. Staring
answer
c. Mispronouncing Telecommunicator's Name
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) Attempt to confuse or lead witness a. Suggestive Questioning b. Condescending Counsel c. Rapid Fire Questions c. Conflicting Answers
answer
a. Suggestive Questioning
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To prevent pertinent and mitigating details from being considered by the jury a. Reversing Witness's Words b. Conflicting Answers c. Demanding Yes or No Answer d. Badgering / Belligerent
answer
c. Demanding Yes or No Answer
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To confuse witness and demonstrate lack of confidence in witness a. Friendly Counsel b. Repetitious Questions c. Staring d. Reversing Witness's Words
answer
d. Reversing Witness's Words
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To obtain inconsistent or conflicting answers from witness a. Repetitus Questions b. Staring c. Mispronouncing Telecommunicators Name d. Reversing Witness's Words
answer
a. Repetitus Questions
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To show inconsistency in the investigation or testimony a. Conflicting Answers b. Demanding Yes or No Answers c. Condescending Counsel d. Repetitious Questions
answer
a. Conflicting Answers
question
(Tactics used by opposing Counsel) To provoke witness into offering more than the question called for a. Staring b. Rapid Fire Questions c. Friendly Counsel d. Suggestive Questioning
answer
a. Staring
question
___________to lull witness into a false sense of security to give answers in favor of defense (this tactic is used by the defense during cross examination) a. condescending councel b. badgering, belligerent c. suggestive question d. friendliness
answer
d. friendliness
question
__________can be awarded during civil law violations a. monies b. compensation c. gratuity d. gifts
answer
b. compensation
question
Initially, you called _______ for the ________ for 911 a. 1, operator b. 211, police c. zero, operator d. zero, police
answer
c. zero, operator
question
(What type of objection is this) Objection withheld, witness may not answer, could result in mistrial if witness answers, and witness could be held in contempt a. overrule b. sustain c. irrelevancy d. refrain
answer
b. sustain
question
(Term) Witness may answer question a. Overrule b. Sustain c. Irrelevancy d. Refrain
answer
a. Overrule
question
Good sense of humor is part of having good interpersonal skills a. true b. false
answer
a. true
question
The first hand- held radios were introduced in: a. 1940 b. 1950 c. 1960 d. 1970
answer
c. 1960
question
What vital information should be obtained first in order to properly classify a call? a. What the nature of the incident is b. When did the event actually take place c. Are there weapons d. Where or location of the event
answer
d. Where or location of the event
question
In 1940 the first statewide radio system was implemented by the Connecticut State Police a. true b. false
answer
a. true
Emergency Medical Services
First Aid
Full Thickness Burns
Health Science
Life Threatening Emergency
Healthcare Chapter 17: 1 Providing First Aid – Flashcards 15 terms

Gracie Stone
15 terms
Preview
Healthcare Chapter 17: 1 Providing First Aid – Flashcards
question
Define First Aid
answer
Immediate care that is given to the victim of an injury or illness to minimize the effect of the injury or illness until experts can take over.
question
Using the correct first aid methods can mean the difference between..... and......, or.......versus......
answer
Using the correct methods can mean the difference between life and death, or recovery versus permanent disability.
question
The type of first aid treatment you provide will vary depending on several factors. List three (3) factors that may affect any action taken.
answer
The type of injury/illness, the environment, and equipment/supplies on hand.
question
Identify three (3) senses that can alert you to an emergency.
answer
Listen for for unusual sounds, notice an unfamiliar odors, and look for unusual sights.
question
What action should you take if you notice that it is not safe to approach the scene of an accident?
answer
If the scene isn't safe to approach call for medical help.
question
What is the first thing you should determine when you get to the victim?
answer
Whether the victim is conscious or not.
question
Why is it important to avoid moving a victim whenever possible?
answer
You can harm the victim even more.
question
List five (5) kinds of information that should be reported when calling emergency medical services (EMS).
answer
Describe the situation, exact location, telephone from which you are calling, number of people involved, and condition of the victim(s).
question
What should you do if a person refuses to give consent for care?
answer
Don't proceed to care for them medically. If possible have someone witness the disapproval from the victim.
question
What is triage?
answer
A method prioritizing treatment.
question
Identify six (6) life- threatening emergencies that must be cared for first.
answer
No pulse, Severe bleeding, shock, poisoning, vomiting/passing of blood, and no breathing or difficulty breathing.
question
List four (4) sources of information you can use to find out the details regarding an accident, injury, or illness.
answer
Ask the victim about pain or discomfort, check vital signs, note any abnormal signs/ symptoms, and note temperature, color of skin, and moistness of skin.
question
How can you reassure the victim?
answer
Make sure the victim is able to speak to reassure you. A confident, calm attitude will help relieve the victim's anxiety.
question
Why shouldn't you discuss the victim's condition with observers at the scene?
answer
It is essential to maintain confidentiality and protect the victim's rights to privacy while providing treatment.
question
While providing first aid to the victim, make every attempt to avoid further...... Provide only the treatment you are..... to provide.
answer
while providing first aid to the victim, make every attempt to avoid further injury. Provide only the treatment you are qualified to provide.
Emergency Medical Services
Equipment And Supplies
First Aid
Physical Fitness
The Body
Chapter 37: Emergency Medical Procedures and First Aid – Flashcards 43 terms

Ray Collins
43 terms
Preview
Chapter 37: Emergency Medical Procedures and First Aid – Flashcards
question
Burn
answer
injury to tissues caused by exposure to thermal, chemical, electrical, or radioactive agents.
question
Crash Cart
answer
a specially equipped cart for holding and transporting medications, equipment, and supplies needed for lifesaving procedures in an emergency.
question
Crepitus
answer
A grating sensation created by fractured bone,bone fragments rubbing against each other.
question
Dislocation
answer
An injury in which one end of the bone making up a joint is separated or displaced from its normal anatomic position.
question
EMS System
answer
network of community resources,equipment, and personnel that provides care to victims of injury or sudden illness.
question
fracture (Fx)
answer
any break in a bone
question
hypothermia
answer
life threatening condition in which the body temperature falls dangerously low
question
poison
answer
any substance that causes injury,illness, or death if it enters the body
question
pressure point
answer
a site on the body where an artery lies close to the surface of the skin and can be compressed against an underlying bone to control bleeding
question
seizure
answer
a sudden episode of involuntary muscle contractions and relaxation, often accompanied by changes in sensation,behavior, and level of consciousness.
question
shock
answer
the failure of the cardiovascular system to deliver enough blood to all of the vital organs of the body
question
splint
answer
any device that immobilizes a body part
question
sprain
answer
trauma to a joint that causes tearing of ligaments
question
strain
answer
a stretching or tearing of muscles or tendons caused by trauma
question
wound
answer
a break in the continuity of an external or internal surface, caused by physical means.
question
Heart Attack
answer
Myocardial Infarction; obstruction of coronary arteries or branches; severity characterized by amount of muscle tissue nourished by blocked artery
question
MI symptoms
answer
chest pain and radiation to jaw,shoulders,and arms (angina) SOB diaphoretic syncope
question
Tx for MI
answer
Nitroglycerin 1 SL q 5 min X3 fizzes and causes headache,works as vasodialator, monitor BP for decrease. Do NOT provide anti-coagulates if victim has bleeding
question
CVA
answer
Stroke
question
Stroke SX/SY
answer
Face droop Arm downward drift Speech slurred Time to call 911 also confussion,dizziness, severe headache, LOC
question
LOC
answer
loss of consciousness
question
Hypovolemic Shock
answer
loss of blood or fluids
question
Cardiogenic Shock
answer
failure to pump blood to vital organs
question
Neurogenic Shock
answer
nervous system unable to control diameter of blood vessels BP drops significantly.
question
Anaphylactic Shock
answer
life threatening reaction to allergen
question
Psychogenic Shock
answer
causes syncope
question
Insulin Shock
answer
hypoglycemia; needs sugar immediately experiences excess insulin
question
capillary bleeding
answer
slow oozing and bright red
question
venous bleeding
answer
slow, study and dark red
question
arterial bleeding
answer
spurts in dark red
question
epistaxis
answer
nosebleed
question
aspiration
answer
breathing in anything else other than air
question
diabetic coma
answer
needs insulin and admit to emergency room
question
internal bleeding sx
answer
rapid weak pulse; bruises,pain tenderness, swelling at the sit, cold clammy skin,nausea and emesis, excess thirst , low BP, decreased consciousness
question
TDAP vaccine
answer
prevents tetanus,diphtheria, and pertussis. TD boosts against tetanus and pertussis.
question
cyanosis
answer
low O2
question
contusion
answer
bruise
question
syncope
answer
fainting
question
encephalitis
answer
brain inflammation, maybe related to seizure
question
postictal state
answer
follows seizure as an altered state of unconsciousness
question
diaphoresis
answer
sweating; often referred to excessive sweating
question
erythema
answer
redness of skin
question
edema
answer
swelling
Emergency Medical Services
First Aid
Full Thickness Burns
Health Science
Life Threatening Emergency
Health- First Aid all Notes – Flashcards 111 terms

Ben Russell
111 terms
Preview
Health- First Aid all Notes – Flashcards
question
an immediate care given to a victim of an accident or illness to minimize effect of injury or illness until experts can take over
answer
first aid
question
using the correct first aid methods can mean the difference between _____ and _____ or ________ versus __________.
answer
life and death; recovery versus permanent disability
question
factors that may affect the type of treatment you provide:
answer
-type of injury or illness -environment -equipment or supplies on hand -availability of medical help
question
types of senses that can alert you to an emergency:
answer
-unusual sounds -unusual sights -unusual appearances
question
what if the scene is not safe?
answer
call for medical help and do not endanger your life or the life of bystanders
question
what to do when approaching the victim:
answer
determine consciousness; if no response, call for help
question
why is it important to avoid moving the victim?
answer
victims have been injured more severely by improper movement
question
information the EMS needs:
answer
-description of the situation -actions taken -exact location -telephone number -number of people involved -condition of the victim(s)
question
method of prioritizing treatment
answer
triage
question
what is ABC?
answer
airway, breathing, circulation
question
examples of life-threatening emergencies:
answer
-no breathing or difficulty breathing -no pulse -severe bleeding -persistent pain in the chest or abdomen -poisoning
question
sources of information to discover details of accident, illness or injury:
answer
-details from victims, others or items present at the scene -medical ID such as bracelet or card
question
how do you reassure the victim?
answer
use a confident, calm voice to help relieve victim's anxiety
question
______ discuss the victim's condition with observers of the scene.
answer
never
question
maintain _______ and protect the victim's ___________ while providing treatment.
answer
confidentiality; right to privacy
question
while providing first aid to the victim, make every attempt to _________.
answer
avoid further injury
question
provide only treatment you are ______________
answer
qualified to provide
question
break in the bone
answer
fracture
question
the end of a bone is displaced from a joint or moved out of its normal position
answer
dislocation
question
injury to tissues surrounding a joint (involving ligaments and tendons)
answer
sprain
question
over stretching of a muscle
answer
strain
question
has no external wound on the skin
answer
closed or simple fracture
question
has an open wound on the skin
answer
open or compound fracture
question
list six signs and symptoms of a fracture.
answer
deformities, limited motion, pain, victim hears a snap, victim feels a grating sensation, swelling and discoloration
question
treatment for fractures is directed at maintaining ___________, treating for ______, keeping the broken bone from ______, and preventing further _______.
answer
respirations; shock; moving; injury
question
list four signs and symptoms of a dislocation.
answer
deformity, limited movement, swelling and discoloration, pain
question
why is movement of the injured part dangerous when a dislocation has occurred?
answer
can lead to additional injury to nerves, blood vessels, and other tissues in the area
question
list four signs and symptoms of a sprain.
answer
swelling, pain, impaired motion, discoloration
question
list three first aid treatments for a sprain.
answer
application of cold, elevation of the part, elastic bandage, rest
question
why are cold applications used to treat a sprain or strain?
answer
to reduce swelling and pain
question
why are warm applications used to treat a strain?
answer
to relax the muscles
question
list four different types of materials that can be used for splints.
answer
cardboard, newspapers, pillows, boards
question
list three basic principles that should be followed when splits are applied.
answer
-should be long enough to immobilize the joint above and below the injury -should be padded -should be tied in place
question
list four points you can check to make sure that circulation is not impaired after a splint or sling has been applied.
answer
skin temperature (should be warm), skin color (pale or blueness indicates poor circulation), note swelling, check for pain/tingling
question
what should you do if you notice signs of impaired circulation after applying a splint?
answer
immediately loosen the ties holding the splint
question
has a break in the skin or mucous membrane
answer
open wound
question
has no break in the skin (occurs to the underlying tissues)
answer
closed wound
question
first aid care for wounds must be directed at controlling _________ and preventing _________.
answer
bleeding; infections
question
scrape on the skin
answer
abrasion
question
cut or injury by sharp object
answer
incision
question
jagged irregular injury with tearing
answer
laceration
question
wound caused by sharp pointed object
answer
puncture
question
tissue torn or separated from body
answer
avulsion
question
body part cut off
answer
amputation
question
usually spurts from a wound, heavy blood loss, bright red in color
answer
arterial blood
question
slower, dark red, easier to control
answer
venous blood
question
oozes from the wound, clots easily
answer
capillary blood
question
list the four methods for controlling bleeding in the order in which they should be used.
answer
direct pressure, elevation, pressure bandage, pressure points
question
name two items that can be used to form a protective barrier while controlling bleeding
answer
a clean cloth or towel (or your bare hand)
question
the main pressure point for the arm is the _________
answer
brachial artery (inside of upper arm)
question
the main pressure point in the leg is the ___________
answer
femoral artery (groin)
question
list four ways to prevent infection while caring for minor wounds without severe bleeding.
answer
-wash hands before treating -put gloves on if available -wash wound with soap and water -rinse with cool water
question
list five signs of infection.
answer
-swelling -heat -pain -fever -pus
question
if a tetanus infection is a possibility, what first aid is necessary?
answer
tetanus shot
question
how should objects embedded deep in the tissues be removed?
answer
-if on the surface, remove it with sterile tweezers -if objects are deep, leave it and see a physician
question
list six signs and symptoms of a closed wound.
answer
-pain -tenderness -deformity -cold/clammy skin -rapid pulse -low blood pressure
question
list four first aid treatments for a victim of a closed wound.
answer
-get medical help ASAP -check breathing -avoid unnecessary movement of the victim -DO NOT give the victim fluids or foods
question
What other condition must you be prepared to treat while caring for wounds?
answer
shock
question
At all times, remain _____ while providing first aid.
answer
calm
question
Obtain ________ care as soon as possible.
answer
medical
question
a clinical set of signs and symptoms that are associated with an inadequate supply of blood to body organs
answer
shock
question
name the two main body organs affected by an inadequate supply of blood.
answer
brain and heart
question
list six causes of shock.
answer
-excessive loss of blood (hemorrhage) -dehydration (burns, vomiting, diarrhea) -excessive pain or infection -heart attack or stroke -poisoning -lack of oxygen
question
list nine signs or symptoms of shock.
answer
-skin is pale or bluish-gray in color -skin is cool or cold to the touch -diaphoresis (excessive perspiration) -rapid, weak pulse -respirations that are shallow, rapid, and sometimes irregular -blood pressure that is very low or not obtainable -general weakness -extreme restlessness -blurred vision
question
Treatment for shock is directed at eliminating the _______, improving ___________, providing ______, and maintaining _____________.
answer
cause; circulation; oxygen; body temperature
question
position for victim with neck or spine injuries:
answer
do not move them unless necessary for their safety
question
position for victim vomiting or bleeding from the mouth:
answer
on their side to prevent choking or breathing problems
question
victim with respiratory distress:
answer
head should be slightly raised
question
position if none of the previous conditions is present:
answer
flat on the back with legs and feet raised to improve circulation to the heart and brain
question
allergic reaction to a substance
answer
anaphylactic shock
question
caused by damage to the heart muscle form heart attack or cardiac arrest
answer
cardiogenic shock
question
caused by severe bleeding or loss of blood plasma
answer
hemorrhagic shock
question
caused by a loss of body fluid from severe vomiting, diarrhea, or heat illness
answer
hypovolemic shock
question
caused by injury and trauma to the brain and/or spinal cord
answer
neurogenic shock
question
caused by emotional distress such as anger, fear, or grief
answer
psychogenic shock
question
caused by trauma to respiratory tract; respiratory distress or arrest (chronic disease, choking)
answer
respiratory shock
question
caused by acute infection
answer
septic shock
question
an injury that can be caused by fire, heat, chemical agents, radiation and/or electricity
answer
burn
question
involves only the first layer of skin ex) sunburn, brief contact with hot objects
answer
first degree or superficial
question
-causes injury to top layers of skin; involves both the dermis and epidermis -swelling occurs ex) severe sunburn, contact with boiling liquids
answer
second degree or partial-thickness
question
-involves injury to all layers of the skin AND underlying tissue -can be painless -life-threatening ex) exposure to fire/flames, electricity
answer
third degree or full-thickness
question
first aid treatment for burns is directed at removing the ____________, cooling the _______, covering the ____, relieving ______, observing and treating for ______, and preventing ________.
answer
source of heat; skin area; burn; pain; shock; infection
question
identify 4 times when medical care should be obtained for burn victims.
answer
-more than 15% of the ADULT body is burned -more than 10% of a CHILD'S body is burned -burns affect face or respiratory tract -burns result form chemicals, explosions, or electricity
question
what is the main treatment for superficial and mild, partial-thickness burns?
answer
-cool the area by flushing it with cool water -use dry, sterile gauze to blot the area dry -elevate the affected part if possible
question
why is a sterile dressing applied to a burn?
answer
to prevent infection
question
if blisters appear on a burn, how should you treat these?
answer
DO NOT break any blisters open!
question
how should third degree burns be treated?
answer
-call for medical help immediately -cover with a sterile dressing -elevate the extremity -do not attempt to remove articles of clothing from the burn -watch the victim closely until help arrives
question
if chemicals or irritating gases burn the eyes, how should the eye be treated?
answer
-remove contact lenses if applicable -flush eyes with large amounts of water for 15-20 minutes -allow water to run to the outside of the eye
question
why is shock frequently noted in victims with severe burns?
answer
because of loss of body fluids (dehydration)
question
what occurs when the body is over exposed to heat?
answer
a chemical imbalance of water and salt that occurs through perspiration
question
what are heat cramps?
answer
muscle pains/spasms that result from salt and water loss
question
list 3 first aid treatments for heat cramps.
answer
-apply firm pressure on the muscle -encourage the victim to rest and move to a cooler area -give small sips of water or sports drink
question
list 6 signs or symptoms of heat exhaustion.
answer
-pale, clammy skin -profuse perspiration -tired, weak -headache -muscle cramps -nausea/vomiting
question
list 3 first aid treatments for heat exhaustion.
answer
-loosen or remove clothing -apply cool, wet cloths -lie victim down and elevate feet slightly
question
how does internal body temperature differ in heat exhaustion and heat stroke?
answer
-body is not able to eliminate excess heat -body temp is 105 degrees or higher whereas in heat exhaustion, it is not elevated
question
list 3 signs and symptoms of heat stroke.
answer
-red, hot, dry skin -rapid pulse -loss of consciousness
question
high body temperatures (such as 105 degrees F or 41 degrees C) can cause _________ and/or ______.
answer
convulsions; death
question
list 3 first aid treatments for heat stroke.
answer
-cool victim quickly, place them in a tub of cool water -apply cold packs to wrists, ankles, axillary and groin area -watch for signs of shock
question
identify 2 precautions a victim should take after recovering from any condition caused by exposure to heat.
answer
-warn the victim to avoid warm or hot temperatures for several days after recovering from heat exposure -encourage the victim to drink sufficient amounts of water and have an adequate intake of salt
question
list 4 ways that poisoning can be caused.
answer
-swallowing various substances -inhaling poisonous gases -injecting substances -contacting the skin with poison
question
treatment for poisoning will vary depending on the ________ poison, the ______ involved, and the method of _______.
answer
type of; injury; contact
question
what is the first thing to do when a victim swallows a poison?
answer
call the poison control center or a physician immediately
question
list 3 types of information that should be given to a poison control center or physician.
answer
-was was taken? -how much? -the time in which the poisoning occurred
question
what should you do if a conscious poison victim vomits?
answer
save a sample of it
question
how should you position an unconscious poisoning victim who is breathing? Why?
answer
on one side, with their head slightly downward; so they don't aspirate
question
list 2 ways to induce vomiting.
answer
-syrup of ipecac, followed by a glass of water -tickle the back of the victim's throat or administer warm salt water
question
why is activated charcoal used after a poisoning victim vomits?
answer
to counteract the remaining poison by helping to absorb it
question
list 4 types of poison victims in whom vomiting should not be induced.
answer
-unconscious -victims who swallowed an acid or alkali -victims who swallowed a petroleum product -victims who are convulsing
question
what is the first step of treatment for a victim who has been poisoned by inhaling gas?
answer
remove the victim immediately from the area before treating them
question
how do you treat victims poisoned by chemicals splashing on the skin?
answer
use large amounts of water to wash the skin for at least 15-20 minutes
question
list 5 signs of an allergic reaction to an injected poison.
answer
-redness and swelling at the site -itching -hives -pain -swelling of the throat
Emergency Medical Services
Emergency Medicine
First Aid
First Aid Training
Head Tilt Chin Lift
CPR/AED Exam Chapters 1-7 – Flashcards 202 terms

Ray Collins
202 terms
Preview
CPR/AED Exam Chapters 1-7 – Flashcards
question
the leading cause of death and disability in children and young adults is
answer
unintentional injuries
question
each year one person in ___ suffers a nonfatal injury serious enough to need medical attention or to restrict activity
answer
four
question
who primarily benefits from first aid training
answer
oneself
question
first aid is intended to
answer
provide temporary help until proper medical care, if needed, is obtained
question
properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between
answer
life and death, rapid recovery and long hospitalization, and temporary disability and permanent injury
question
consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is
answer
responsive, mentally competent, and of legal age
question
if the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is known as
answer
implied consent
question
which of the following is a true statement regarding obtaining consent to give first aid
answer
consent should be obtained from every responsive, mentally competent adult
question
in cases of psychiatric emergencies, who has the authority to restrain and transport a person
answer
a police officer
question
a first aider must stay with the victim until another equally or better trained person takes over failure to do so would be considered
answer
abandonment
question
deviating from accepted standards of care that results in further injury to the victim is known as
answer
negligence
question
duty to act, breach of duty (standard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all factors involved in
answer
assault or battery
question
which statement involving duty to act is correct
answer
occurs when employment requires it, occurs when a preexisting relationship exists, and follows guidelines for standards of care
question
occupations that include a legal obligation to give first aid include law enforcement officers, park rangers, athletic trainers, lifeguards, and
answer
flight attendants and fire fighters
question
a first aider who breaks his or her responsibility to a victim by failing to provide the type of care that another person with similar training would provide, commits
answer
breach of duty
question
failure to do what a responsible prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances is known as
answer
an act of omission
question
which of the following statements concerning Good Samaritan laws is true
answer
they protect first aiders acting in good faith
question
supplies in a first aid kit should be customized to include those items likely to be used
answer
on a regular basis
question
what level of care is a first aider expected to give
answer
standard of care
question
minimizing the risk of a lawsuit includes but is not limited to which of the following
answer
obtaining consent, not exceeding your training, and staying with the victim once care has began
question
___ encourage(s) people to assist others in distress by granting them immunity against lawsuits
answer
Good Samaritan laws
question
if a victim refuses first aid treatment, the first aid responder should
answer
call 9-1-1 and stay with the victim until help arrives
question
the Hadden Matrix is a strategy for ___ that can be applied to any type of illness or injury
answer
interventions
question
Who usually recognizes a situation as an emergency and acts to help the victim
answer
a bystander
question
who is a vital link between emergency medical services (EMS) and the victim
answer
bystanders
question
why are laypersons less likely to offer help when an emergency occurs in a public place
answer
lack of knowledge, confusion about what an emergency is, and characteristics of the emergency
question
a bystander who has seen the emergency happen is ___ to help than is a bystander who arrives after the event
answer
more likely
question
first aid and other assistance given by bystanders can be
answer
inadequate and potentially dangerous
question
what is the first action a bystander should take in an emergency
answer
recognize the emergency
question
severity, physical distance, relationship, and time exposed are all factors that can help the bystander
answer
recognize the emergency
question
refusing to acknowledge an emergency is a strategy that can interfere with which emergency action
answer
deciding to help
question
the most important time to decide whether to help in an emergency is
answer
before encountering an emergency
question
why might someone decide not to help in an emergency situation
answer
it may be harmful to the responder, helping does not matter, and no other bystanders are helping the victim
question
someone must call 9-1-1 if you are unsure of the victim's condition, if the victim's condition is life threatening or could become life threatening, or
answer
the victim needs the skill and equipment of EMS, a spinal injury is suspected, or distance or traffic could delay getting to the hospital
question
in a serious situation, who should you call first
answer
9-1-1
question
when calling 9-1-1, which of the following information should be given to EMS dispatch
answer
the victim;s location and condition, number of persons involved, and your name and the phone number you are calling from
question
desensitization relates to
answer
overcoming anxieties caused by unpleasant sights and sounds
question
a stressful event can be psychologically overwhelming and can result in a condition known as
answer
posttraumatic stress disorder
question
what should the rescuer look for during the scene size-up
answer
hazards that could be dangerous to the rescuer, the victim(s), or bystanders, the mechanism or cause of injury, and the number of victims
question
a(n) ___ is a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body
answer
infectious disease
question
a(n) ___ is a disease that can be spread from one person to another
answer
communicable disease
question
personal protective equipment (PPE) includes
answer
exam gloves, mouth-to-barrier devices, and eye protection
question
the most common type of personal protective equipment available for first aiders to protect against blood borne pathogens is
answer
gloves
question
what is the best method for personal protection against contact with blood borne pathogens
answer
wearing proper personal protective equipment
question
which of the following are blood borne diseases
answer
Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV
question
a vaccine is available for
answer
hepatitis B
question
Hepatitis C virus can cause ___ disease or cancer
answer
liver
question
___ is a potentially life-threatening viral infection
answer
SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)
question
___ are transmitted through the air by coughing or sneezing
answer
airborne diseases
question
the grieving process has ___ stages
answer
five
question
the first stage of grieving is ___
answer
denial
question
the second stage of grieving is ___
answer
anger
question
the third stage of grieving is ___
answer
bargaining
question
the fourth stage of grieving is ___
answer
depression
question
the fifth stage of grieving is ___
answer
acceptance
question
the ___ stage of grieving is characterized by denial
answer
first
question
the ___ stage of grieving is characterized by bargaining
answer
third
question
the ___ stage of grieving is characterized by sadness and despair
answer
fourth
question
a key point in victim assessment is to conduct a ___
answer
primary check
question
the ___ helps determine the safety of the scene and the general condition of the victim
answer
scene size-up
question
the A in AVPU stands for
answer
airway
question
check the victim's responsiveness by gently tapping the victim's shoulder and asking loudly
answer
are you okay
question
for an alert, responsive victim, you can evaluate his or her ability to remember by asking
answer
person, place, time, and event
question
the RAP in RAP-CAB stands for
answer
responsive, activate, position
question
which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim
answer
head tilt-chin lift
question
which of the following indicates a breathing problem
answer
snoring, gargling, and wheezing
question
the checking for severe bleeding, search the
answer
victim's entire body --- head to toe, floor or ground for pooling blood, and victim's clothing
question
if the unresponsive victim is breathing, the best position for the victim is
answer
on the side
question
if the unresponsive victim has difficult breathing, place the victim
answer
in a modified HAINES recovery position
question
victims placed in a recovery position or HAINES position should be placed on their
answer
left side
question
squeezing the victim's fingers and toes is done when checking the victim for
answer
spinal injury
question
which of the following is a sign
answer
moist skin
question
which of the following is a symptom
answer
nausea
question
the T in DOTS stands for
answer
tenderness
question
the P in SAMPLE stands for
answer
preexisting conditions
question
circulation, sensation, and movement (CSM) is checked during assessment of the
answer
extremities
question
how do you check a victim's abdomen for tenderness
answer
gently press the four quadrants
question
while waiting for an ambulance, the initial assessment should be repeated every ___ minutes for an unresponsive victim
answer
5
question
abandonment
answer
failure to continue first aid until relieved by someone with the same or a higher level of training
question
act of commission
answer
doing something that a reasonably prudent person would not do under the same or similar circumstances
question
act of omission
answer
failure to do what a reasonably prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances
question
battery
answer
touching a person or providing first aid without consent
question
breach of duty
answer
when a first aider fails to provide the type of care that would be given by a person having the same or similar training
question
consent
answer
an agreement by a patient or victim to accept treatment offered as explained by medical personnel or first aiders
question
duty to act
answer
a person's responsibility to provide victim care
question
expressed consent
answer
permission for care that a victim gives verbally or with a head nod
question
first aid
answer
immediate care given to an injured or suddenly ill person
question
Good Samaritan laws
answer
laws that encourage people to voluntarily help an injured or suddenly ill person by minimizing the liability for errors made while rendering emergency care in good faith
question
implied consent
answer
an assumed consent given by an unconscious adult when emergency lifesaving treatment is required
question
negligence
answer
deviation from the accepted standard pf care that results in further injury to the victim
question
airborne diseases
answer
infections transmitted through the air, such as tuberculosis
question
bloodborne diseases
answer
infections transmitted through the blood, such as HIV or HBV
question
communicable disease
answer
a disease that can spread from person to person, or from animal to person
question
emergency medical services (EMS)
answer
a system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide emergency medical care
question
grieving process
answer
feelings and emotions after a stressful situation that cause personal pain; people go through several stages of grieving
question
hepatitis B virus (HBV)
answer
a viral infection of the liver for which a vaccine is available
question
hepatitis C virus (HCV)
answer
a viral infection of the liver for which no vaccine is available
question
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
answer
the virus that can cause acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
question
infectious disease
answer
a medical condition caused by the growth of small, harmful organisms within the body
question
personal protective equipment (PPE)
answer
equipment, such as exam gloves, used to block the entry of an organism into the body
question
posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
answer
a delayed stress reaction to a prior emergency event
question
SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)
answer
a potentially life-threatening viral infection that usually starts with flu-like symptoms
question
scene size-up
answer
steps taken when approaching an emergency scene; steps include checking for hazards, noting the cause of injury or illness, and determining the number of victims
question
standard precautions
answer
protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers For Disease Control And Prevention (CDC) for use in dealing with objects, blood, bodily fluids, or other potential exposure risks of communicable disease
question
tuberculosis
answer
a bacterial disease usually affecting the lungs
question
abdomen
answer
the body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and exertion; it is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis
question
Adam's apple
answer
the projection on the anterior surface of the neck, formed by the thyroid cartilage over the larynx
question
alveoli
answer
the air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place
question
aorta
answer
the principal artery leaving the left side of the heart and carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the body
question
arteries
answer
a blood vessel, consisting of three layers of tissue and smooth muscle, that carries blood away from the heart
question
blood
answer
the fluid that circulates through the heart, arteries, capillaries, and veins carrying nutrients and oxygen to the body cells and removing waste products such as carbon dioxide and various metabolic products for excretion
question
bones
answer
the hard form of connective tissue that consists mostly of the skeleton in humans
question
brachial artery
answer
the artery of the arm that, in turn branches at the elbow into the radial and ulnar arteries; used to determine an infant's pulse
question
brain
answer
the soft, large mass of nerve tissue that is contained in the cranium
question
brain stem
answer
the area of the brain between the spinal cord and the cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life, such as respirations
question
capillaries
answer
the small blood vessels through whose walls various substances pass into and out of tissues and onto the cells
question
carotid artery
answer
the major arteries that supply blood to the head and brain
question
central nervous system (CNS)
answer
the brain and spinal cord
question
cerebellum
answer
one of the three major subdivisions of the brain; coordinates the various activities of the brain particularly fine body movements
question
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
answer
a clear, watery solution similar to blood plasma
question
cerebrum
answer
the largest part of three subdivisions of the brain, made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions, and personality
question
circulatory system
answer
the arrangement of connected tubes, including the arteries, arteries, capillaries, venues, and veins, that moves blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide, and cellular waste throughout the body
question
clavicle
answer
the collarbone
question
cranium
answer
the area of the head above the ears and eyes; the skull; this term contains the brain
question
dermis
answer
the inner layer of skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels
question
diaphragm
answer
a muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, separating the chest from the abdominal cavity; contraction of this term brings air into the lungs; relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs
question
dorsalis pedis artery
answer
the artery on the anterior (top) surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals
question
epidermis
answer
the outer layer of the skin, which is made up of cell that are sealed together to form a water-tight protective covering for the body
question
esophagus
answer
a collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach;; contractions of the muscles in the wall of this term propel food and liquids through it to the stomach
question
femoral artery
answer
the principal artery of the thigh; it supplies blood to the lower abdominal wall, external genitalia, and legs; it can be palpated in the groin area
question
femur
answer
the thighbone; the largest and one of the strongest bones in the body
question
floating ribs
answer
the 11th and 12th ribs, which do not attach to the sternum
question
heart
answer
a hollow muscular organ that receives blood from the veins and propels it into the arteries
question
humerus
answer
the supporting bone of the upper arm
question
joint
answer
the place where two bones come into contact
question
larynx
answer
the voice box
question
ligament
answer
a band of the fibrous tissue that contains bones to bone; it supports and strengthens a joint
question
nervous system
answer
the system that controls virtually all activities of the body, both voluntary and involuntary
question
patella
answer
the kneecap; a specialized bone that lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle
question
perfusion
answer
the circulation of oxygenated blood within a organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs
question
plasma
answer
a sticky, yellow fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs of excretion
question
platelets
answer
tiny, disk-shaped elements that are much smaller then cells; they are essential in the initial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding
question
posterior tibial artery
answer
the artery just posterior to the medial malleolus; supplies blood to the foot
question
pulse
answer
the wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries
question
radial artery
answer
the major artery in the forearm; it is palpable at the wrist on the thumb side
question
radius
answer
the bone on the thumb side of the forearm
question
red blood cells
answer
cells that carry oxygen to the body;s tissues; also called erythrocytes
question
respiratory system
answer
all the structures of the body that contribute to the process of breathing, consisting of the upper and lower airways and their component parts
question
skeleteal muscle
answer
muscle that is attached to bones and usually crosses at least one joint; striated, or voluntary, muscle
question
skeleton
answer
the framework that gives us our recognizable form; also designed to allow motion of the body and protection of vital organs
question
smooth muscle
answer
nonstrained, involuntary muscle; it constitutes the bulk of the gastrointestinal tract and is present in every organ to regulate automatic activity
question
spinal cord
answer
an extension of the brain, composed of virtually all the nerves carrying messages between the brain and the rest of the body; it lies inside of and is protected by the spinal canal
question
tibia
answer
the shinbone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg
question
trachea
answer
the windpipe; the main trunk for air passing to and from the lungs
question
ulna
answer
the inner bone of the forearm, on the side opposite the thumb
question
vein
answer
any blood vessel that carries blood from the tissues to the heart
question
voluntary muscle
answer
muscle that is under direct voluntary control of the brain and can be contracted or relaxed at will; skeletal or striated muscle
question
white blood cells
answer
blood cells that play a role in the body's immune defense mechanisms against infection
question
xiphoid process
answer
the lowest part of the sternum
question
defibrillation is most effective if used
answer
within 4 minutes (10 cycles) of CPR
question
what is the most common abnormal heart rhythm in cases of sudden cardiac arrest in adults
answer
ventricular fibrillation
question
during ventricular fibrillation, the heart
answer
quivers and cannot pump blood
question
during ventricular tachycardia (v-tach), the heart
answer
beats too fast to pump blood effectively
question
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
answer
is the initial care for cardiac arrest until a defibrillator is available
question
an AED can
answer
analyze the heart's rhythm, deliver an electrical shock, and be used by trained laypersons
question
how many adhesive pads (electrodes) are placed on the victim's chest
answer
two
question
which of the following statements about AED is true
answer
the AED pads need to be attached to a dry chest
question
place the right AED pad
answer
right of the breastbone, just below the collarbone, above the right nipple
question
place the second AED pad
answer
on the left side of the chest, left of the nipple, above the lower rib margin
question
begin ___ immediately after the shock and follow the prompts of the AED
answer
CPR
question
avoid placing the AED pads ___ implanted devices
answer
directly over
question
which of the following statements about AED is true part 2
answer
remove patches containing medication (e.g. nitroglycerin, nicotine, or pain medicine)
question
rapid blood loss of ___ quart(s) or more in an adult can lead to shock and death
answer
1
question
the term ___ refers to a large amount of bleeding in a short time
answer
hemorrhage
question
in ___ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound
answer
arterial
question
which is the most serious type of bleeding
answer
arterial
question
quiet often, ___ bleeding will clot and stop by itself
answer
capillary
question
if a dressing become blood-soaked, what should be done
answer
apply another dressing on top of the old one
question
what is the most effective method for controlling most types of bleeding
answer
direct pressure over the wound
question
when direct pressure cannot be applied, such as in the case of a protruding bone, bleeding should be controlled by using
answer
doughnut-shaped ring pads
question
which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding
answer
bruises of the skin, fractured ribs or bruises on the chest, vomiting or coughing up blood
question
to treat bruises, the first aider should
answer
apply an ice pack over the injury for 20 minutes
question
when adequate blood and oxygen are provided to all cells in different tissues and organs in the body, this is called
answer
perfusion
question
shock refers to the failure of which system
answer
cardiovascular
question
without oxygen, the brain will start to be damaged irreparably in ___ minutes
answer
2 to 3
question
without oxygen, the abdominal organs will start to be damaged irreparably in ___ minutes
answer
45 to 90
question
without oxygen, the skin and muscle cells will start to be damaged irreparably in ___ minutes
answer
180 to 360
question
the Perfusion Triangle includes
answer
heart, blood vessels, blood
question
hypovolemic shock refers to
answer
the loss of a significant amount of fluid
question
septic shock develops in some victims with
answer
bacterial infection
question
neurogenic shock results from
answer
damage to the nervous system
question
anaphylactic shock
answer
is a massive allergic reaction
question
which of the following are signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis
answer
swelling in the face, tongue, and lips, bluish lips (cyanosis), sneezing, coughing, wheezing
question
the early stage of shock is called
answer
compensated
question
the late stage of shock is called
answer
decompensated
question
which of the following statements about shock is correct
answer
a first aider can prevent shock from worsening
question
when a person experiences shock, the person's skin is usually
answer
clammy
question
victims of shock may experience ___ during the early stage of compensated shock
answer
anxiety and restlessness
question
a shock victim who is unresponsive or a victim of stroke should be placed:
answer
in a recovery position
question
why is neither food nor drink given to a shock victim
answer
it could cause nausea and vomiting
question
when treating a shock victim, the first aider should place blankets and/or coats
answer
under and over the victim
question
why are the legs NOT elevated more than 12 inches when treating for shock
answer
it would affect the victim's breathing
Emergency Medical Service
Emergency Medical Services
First Aid
First Aid Training
Personal Protective Equipment
Sadness And Despair
Second Degree Burn
First Aid and Emergency Care – Flashcards 140 terms

Noah Thomson
140 terms
Preview
First Aid and Emergency Care – Flashcards
question
Who is the most important link between the emergency medical service (EMS) and the victim?
answer
Bystanders
question
Who primarily benefits from first aid training?
answer
Other people
question
First aid is intended to:
answer
Provide temporary assistance until competent medical care, if needed, is obtained.
question
Properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between:
answer
All of the above
question
Consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is:
answer
All of the above
question
If the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is known as:
answer
Implied consent
question
Which of the following is a true statement regarding obtaining consent to give first aid?
answer
Consent should be obtained from every responsive, mentally competent adult.
question
Why might someone hesitate to get involved during an emergency?
answer
All of the above
question
A first aider must stay with the victim until another equally or better trained person takes over. Failure to do so would be considered:
answer
Abandonment
question
Deviating from accepted standards of care that results in further injury to the victim is known as:
answer
Negligence
question
Duty to act, breach of duty (substandard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all factors involved in:
answer
Assault or battery
question
Which statement concerning duty to act is correct?
answer
All of the above
question
EMS personnel should definitely be called for:
answer
Breathing diffuculty
question
A first aider who breaks his or her responsibility to a victim by failing to provide the type of care that another person with similar training would proved, commits:
answer
Breach of Duty
question
Failure to do what a reasonably prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances is known as:
answer
An act of omission
question
Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing?
answer
All of the above
question
Cyanosis would cause what kind of skin color?
answer
Blue-gray
question
The most common type of personal protective equipment available for first aiders to protect against bloodborne pathogens is:
answer
Gloves
question
The "O" in DOTS stands for:
answer
Open wound
question
How would you check a victim's abdomen for tenderness?
answer
Gently press the four quadrants
question
Which of the following is a sign?
answer
Moist skin
question
Something that the victim tells the first aider about is:
answer
A symptom
question
Which of the following is a symptom?
answer
Nausea
question
The "L" in SAMPLE stands for:
answer
Last oral intake
question
The "E" in SAMPLE stands for:
answer
Events leading to the injury or illness
question
A bystander who has seen the emergency happen is ___ to help than a bystander who arrives after the event.
answer
More likely
question
Why might someone hesitate to get involved during an emergency?
answer
All of the above
question
What should the rescuer look for during the scene survey?
answer
All of the above
question
EMS personnel should definitely be summoned in which instance?
answer
All of the above
question
In a serious situation, who should you call first?
answer
EMS
question
What information will you need to provide to the EMS dispatcher?
answer
All of the above
question
The passage of air into and out of the lungs is called
answer
Respiration
question
The process of breathing out is called
answer
Exhalation
question
A person with a back or neck injury must be handled with extreme care to prevent injury to the:
answer
Spinal cord
question
The lowest part of the sternum is called the:
answer
Xiphoid process
question
Which of the following is part of the initial check?
answer
B-broken bones
question
A victim's level of responsiveness or mental status can be described according to the ___ scale.
answer
AVPU
question
The "U" in AVPU stands for
answer
Unresponsive to any stimulus
question
The physical exam on an adult should be started at the victim's:
answer
Head
question
Something that the first aider sees, hears, or feels is:
answer
A sign
question
You cause the victim to roll down the hill and hit a tree when examining him. The good Samaritan Law protects you even though you caused further harm.
answer
False
question
You are required to provide first aid to any injured or suddenly ill person you encounter.
answer
False
question
First aiders should assume that blood and all body fluids are infectious.
answer
True
question
A scene survey should be done before giving first aid to an injured victim.
answer
True
question
The human body can store oxygen for hours.
answer
False
question
Name one location for feeling a pulse.
answer
Wrist (radial)
question
You must perform a complete assessment for every injured or suddenly ill victim.
answer
False
question
What position is known as the recovery position?
answer
Left side
question
There is no need to wash your hands after performing first aid if you were wearing protective gloves.
answer
False
question
Tuberculosis is a bloodborne disease.
answer
False
question
An estimated 80% of all burn injuries occur:
answer
In the home.
question
Burns that affect only the outer layer (epidermis) of the skin are considered:
answer
First degree (superficial)
question
Burns that extend through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin layer are considered:
answer
Second degree (partial thickness)
question
Burns that penetrate all the skin layers and into the underlying fat and muscle are considered:
answer
Third degree (full thickness)
question
Blisters, swelling, weeping of fluids, and severe pain are characteristics of which type of burn?
answer
Second degree (partial thickness)
question
Skin that looks leathery, waxy, or pearly gray are characteristics of which type of burn?
answer
Third degree (full thickness)
question
The first step in caring for a burn victim with a first degree or small second degree burn is to:
answer
Run cold tap water over the area as soon as possible.
question
What is the first step in caring for dry chemicals spilled on the skin?
answer
Brush off the substance and flush with water.
question
When washing chemicals from the body, the area should be flushed for at least:
answer
20 minutes
question
If you can safely reach the victim of electric shock caused by downed power lines, attempt to remove the wires:
answer
Do not attempt to move any wires.
question
Shock refers to the failure of which system?
answer
Cardiovascular
question
Shock occurs when body parts do not receive adequate:
answer
Oxygenated blood
question
The Perfusion Triangle includes:
answer
Heart, blood vessels, blood.
question
What type of shock is caused by inadequate function of the heart?
answer
Cardiogenic
question
Neurogenic shock results from:
answer
Damage to the nervous system.
question
Septic shock develops in some victims with:
answer
Bacterial infection
question
Anaphylactic shock:
answer
is a massive allergic reaction
question
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?
answer
All of the above
question
When a person experiences shock, the person's skin is usually:
answer
Clammy
question
The term ___ refers to a large amount of bleeding in a short time.
answer
Hemorrhage
question
In ___ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound
answer
Arterial
question
Which is the most serious type of bleeding?
answer
Arterial
question
If a dressing becomes blood-soaked, what should be done?
answer
Apply another dressing on type of the old one.
question
What should be done when caring for a victim of severe internal bleeding?
answer
All of the Above
question
Which results when the top layer of skin is removed, with little or no blood loss?
answer
Abrasion
question
Which wound results in skin cut with jagged, irregular edges?
answer
Laceration
question
Which wound is smooth-edged?
answer
Incision
question
Which wound is usually deep and narrow, with a high risk of infection?
answer
Puncture
question
Which wound usually involves ears, fingers, and hands, and results in tearing of a flap of skin?
answer
Avulsion
question
Which wound involves the cutting or tearing off a body part?
answer
Amputation
question
Care for open wounds includes which of the following guidelines?
answer
All of the above
question
How should animal bites, dirty wounds, and puncture wounds be cleaned?
answer
They should be cleaned only by medical personnel.
question
Which first aid supply is applied over a wound to control bleeding and prevent contamination?
answer
Dressing
question
What are the signs and symptoms of an infected wound?
answer
All of the above
question
Which of the following factors increases the likelihood of wound infection?
answer
All of the above
question
Tetanus shots must be given within ___ hours of the injury to be effective.
answer
72
question
Which type of amputation is a clean cut complete detachment?
answer
Guillotine
question
What type of amputation occurs when an extremity separates by being crushed or mashed off?
answer
Crushing
question
What is the proper procedure for breaking a blister?
answer
Drain the fluid by making a small hole at the base of the blister.
question
The only time an impaled object can safely remove is:
answer
When it is stuck in the cheek
question
In cases of scalp wounds, the first aider should expect ____ bleeding.
answer
Profuse
question
How should you control bleeding when a depressed skull fracture is suspected?
answer
Apply pressure around the edges of the wound.
question
How should you care for cuts of the eye or lid?
answer
Bandage both eyes lightly
question
When flushing an eye burned by chemicals:
answer
Both A and B: hold the victim's head under a faucet, or pour water into the eye from a clean container. Use a clean eye cup.
question
If an eye is avulsed from its socket:
answer
Cover the eye loosely with a moist, sterile dressing.
question
When damage or death of part of the heart muscle occurs as a result of ischemia, it is called ______
answer
A heart attack
question
The condition where air fills a portion of the chest cavity is called ____
answer
Pneumothorax
question
What is the primary symptom of fractured ribs?
answer
Pain
question
What can be used to stabilize fractured ribs?
answer
A soft object, such as a pillow
question
What is the most important step in caring for a victim of an impaled object in the chest?
answer
Stabilizing the object in place
question
How do you care for a sucking chest wound?
answer
Seal the wound
question
For an abdominal wound in which organs protrude, you should:
answer
Cover the organs with a moist, sterile dressing.
question
How should you first aider treat a victim with a pelvis injury?
answer
All of the above
question
A fracture that cuts across at right angles to the bone's long axis is called:
answer
Transverse
question
When the fracture line crosses the bone in a slanting direction, the fracture is called:
answer
oblique
question
A fracture in which the bone is fragmented into more than two pieces is called:
answer
Communuted
question
A fracture that usually results from a twisting injury is called:
answer
Spiral
question
A fracture that commonly occurs in children whose bones are pliable is called:
answer
Greenstick
question
What mneumonic can be used to identify signs and symptoms of a fracture?
answer
DOTS-deformities, open wounds, tenderness, swelling
question
The C is CSM stands for:
answer
Circulation
question
The O in DOTS stands for:
answer
Open wound
question
What should be used to keep swelling out of a joint?
answer
RICE-rest, ice, compression, elevation
question
A ___ results when the muscle is stretched beyond its normal range of motion.
answer
Strain
question
A ___ occurs when a muscle goes into an uncontrolled spasm and contraction.
answer
Cramp
question
A ___ occurs when a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion.
answer
Dislocation
question
Inflammation of a tendon from overuse is called:
answer
Tendonitis
question
In the mnemonic RICE, the E stands for:
answer
Elevation
question
The painful pressure caused by accumulation of blood under a fingernail or toenail can be relieved by:
answer
Melting a hole through the nail with a red-hot paperclip.
question
What is the purpose of splinting an extremity fracture?
answer
All of the above.
question
A stroke occurs when:
answer
Blood vessels to the brain rupture or become plugged.
question
Weakness, numbness, and paralysis of the face, an arm, or a leg on one side of the body are signs and symptoms of:
answer
Stroke
question
Seizures are a symptom of
answer
Epilepsy
question
When should a first aider call 9-1-1 for seizure victim?
answer
All of the above
question
Type ___ diabetics tend to be overweight
answer
II
question
Very low blood glucose is called:
answer
Hypoglycemia
question
Confusion, trembling, and pale color are all signs and symptoms of:
answer
Hypoglycemia
question
Under what conditions should you give a diabetic sugar?
answer
If all of the above conditions are met.
question
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of hyperglycemia?
answer
All of the above
question
Coughing, cyanosis, wheezing, and inability to speak in complete sentences without pausing for breath are all signs of:
answer
Asthma
question
A device used to stabilize a fracture or a dislocation is called:
answer
A splint
question
When should a fracture be stabilized?
answer
Before you move the victim
question
When should you suspect a penetrating eye injury?
answer
The lid is lacerated or cut.
question
In a ___, the skin is not broken.
answer
Closed chest injury
question
____ occur when the internal abdominal tissues are damaged but the skin is unbroken.
answer
Closed abdominal injuries
question
Bruising of the tissue is considered a:
answer
Contusion
question
A ___ results when bones are displaced from their normal joint alignment.
answer
Dislocation
question
When applying a compression bandage to an injured area, always wrap ___ the injury upward.
answer
From below
question
Proper first aid for a heart attack includes:
answer
All of the above
question
First aid for a stroke victim should include:
answer
All of the above
question
Airway inflammation and overly sensitive airways are all components of:
answer
Asthma
Emergency Medical Services
Emergency Medicine
First Aid
Good Samaritan Laws
Life Threatening Conditions
Health Quiz: First Aid Basics – Flashcards 37 terms

Candace Young
37 terms
Preview
Health Quiz: First Aid Basics – Flashcards
question
Who may be required to perform first aid while working?
answer
Law enforcement officers, firefighters, flight attendants, lifeguards, park rangers
question
When you are off-duty you can...
answer
choose whether or not to provide first aid
question
Deciding to Provide First Aid
answer
Providing first aid may be part of your job description. If so, you must help while you're working. When you're off duty, you can choose whether or not to provide first aid.
question
Before your provide first aid, it is important to do what?
answer
Ask the ill or injured person if you may help.
question
Actions to asking if you can help an ill or injured person:
answer
1. If the person responds, introduce yourself as a first aid provider before you touch him. Ask if you may help him. 2. If he person agrees, you may give first aid. 3. If the person refuses your help, phone your emergency response number (or 911) and stay with him until someone with more advanced training arrives and takes over. 4. If the person is confused or cannot answer, assume that he would want you to help.
question
First Aid Kit
answer
Contains supplies that you might need in an emergency
question
Action: Supplying the First Aid Kit
answer
- Keep the supplies in a sturdy, watertight container that is clearly labeled - Know where the first aid kit is. - Replace what you use so the kit will be ready for the next emergency - Check the kit at the beginning of each work period for expired supplies and to make sure it is complete and ready for an emergency
question
First Aid in Dangerous Places
answer
Before doing anything else, make sure the scene is safe for you and the injured person, and keep looking around to make sure that the scene stays safe
question
Action: Assess the Scene
answer
As you approach the scene, consider the following: - Danger: Look out for danger to you and danger to the injured person. Move the injured person only if she's in danger or if you need to move her to provide first aid or CPR. Move her if you can do so safely. - Help: Look for people who can help you and look for telephones. Have someone phone your emergency response number (or 911). Phone for help yourself if no one else is around. - Who: Who's injured? Figure our how many people are hurt and see if you can tell what happened. - Where: Where are you? Be specific. The emergency response team (or 911) dispatcher will want to know your address, floor, or location in the building or on the property.
question
FYI: When you give first aid...
answer
Know your limits, don't become another victim
question
Washing your hands
answer
Is one of the most important protections you have. Always use soap and water if your hands are visibly dirty and after taking off gloves.
question
Actions for Washing Hands Well
answer
1. Wet your hands with clean running water )warm if available) and apply soap.2. Rub hands together and rub all surfaces of hands and fingers for at least 20 seconds. 3. Rinse hands with lots of running water. 4. Dry your hands using a paper towel or air dryer. If possible, use your paper towel to turn off the faucet.
question
Important if no soap and water available:
answer
Use a hand sanitizer, rub your hands well to loosen germs and then allow the sanitizer to dry
question
Universal Precautions
answer
Treat everyone's blood as if it were infected (body fluids, such as blood, saliva, and urine, can sometimes carry germs that cause diseases).
question
Personalized Protective Equipment (PPE)
answer
Includes: - gloves to protect your hands from blood and other body fluids - eye protection, if the injured person is bleeding, to protect your eyes from blood and other body fluids - Mask to protect you when you give breaths
question
Actions for Universal Precaustions
answer
1. Wear personalized protective equipment whenever necessary. 2. Place all disposable equipment that has touched blood or body fluids containing blood in a biohazard waste bag (or as required by your workplace). 3. To dispose of the biohazard waste bag, follow your company's plan for disposing of hazardous waste. 4. Wash your hands well with soap and lots of water after properly taking off your gloves.
question
Latex Allergies
answer
Some rescuers and ill or injured people may be allergic to latex. Use protective gloves that don't contain latex, such as vinyl gloves, whenever possible.
question
Bloodborne Diseases
answer
Caused by germs. A rescuer may catch a disease if germs in someone else's blood or body fluids enter the rescuer's body, often through the rescuer's mouth or eye or a cut on the skin. To be safe, rescuers should wear personal protective equipment - gloves and eye shields (goggles) - to keep from touching the injured person's blood or body fluids.
question
Three examples of bloodborne diseases:
answer
- HIV - Hepatitis B - Hepatitis C
question
Actions: Exposure to Blood
answer
1. If you are wearing gloves, take them off. 2. Immediately wash your hands and the contact area with soap and lots of water. 3. If body fluids have splattered in your eyes, nose, or the inside of your mouth, rinse these areas with lots of water. 4. Tell your company's emergency response program supervisor what happened as soon as possible. Then contact a healthcare professional.
question
Definitions and Key Facts: Taking off Gloves
answer
When you giver first aid, the outside of your gloves may touch blood or other body fluids. Take your gloves off without touching the outside of the gloves with your bare hands.
question
Action: Taking Off Gloves
answer
1. Grip 1 glove on the outside of the glove near the cuff and peel it down until it comes off inside out. 2. Cup it with your other (gloved) hand. 3. Place 2 fingers of your bare hand inside the cuff of the glove that is still on your hand. 4. Peel that glove off so that it comes off inside out, with the first glove inside it. 5. If there is blood on the gloves, dispose of the gloves properly: put them in a biohazard wast bah or as required by your workplace, if you do not have a biohazard wast bag, put the gloves in a plastic bag that can be sealed before you dispose of it. 6. Wash your hands after you giver first aid so that you don't spread germs.
question
FYI Washing Your Hands
answer
Use waterless hand sanitizers only if you do not have immediate access to soap and water. Wash your hands with soap and lots of water as soon as you can.
question
Definitions and Key Facts: Chain of Survival
answer
shows the most important actions needed to treat life-threatening emergencies in adults. 1. recognize the emergency and phone an emergency number to get help
question
Chain of Survival
answer
1. Recognize the emergency and phone for help 2. Early CPR with emphasis on compressions 3. Rapid AED use 4. Effective advanced care 5. Coordinated care afterward
question
Action: Assess When to Phone for Help
answer
As a general rule, you should phone the emergency response number (or 911) and ask for help whenever someone is seriously ill or injured, you are not sure what to do in an emergency
question
Some examples of someone who is seriously ill or injured...
answer
The person: - Does not respond to voice or touch - Has chest discomfort - Has signs of stroke - Has a problem breathing - Has severe injury or burn - Has a seizure - Suddenly can't move a part of the body - Has received an electric shock - Has been exposed to poison If someone tries to commit suicide or is assaulted, phone the emergency response number (or 911) regardless of the person's condition.
question
Action: How to Phone for Help (if you are alone)
answer
1. Yell for help while you start to check the ill or injured person. 2. If no one answers you yell and immediate care isn't needed: - Leave for a moment while you phone your emergency response number (or 911) - Get the first aid kit and automated external defibrillator (AED), if available 3. Return to the ill or injured person
question
Action: How to Phone for Help (with others)
answer
1. Stay with the ill or injured person and be prepared to give first aid or CPR if you know how. 2. Sen someone else to phone your emergency response number (or 911) and get the first aid kit and AED if available.
question
Important: How to Phone for Help
answer
Answering all of a dispatcher's questions is important to getting help to you as fast as possible. Do not hang up until the dispatcher tells you to. Answering the dispatcher's questions won't delay the arrival of help.
question
FYI: Emergency Dispatchers
answer
When you phone for help, the emergency dispatcher may be able to tell you how to do CPR, use an AED, or give first aid.
question
Definitions and Key Facts: Finding the Problem
answer
After you check the scene to be sure it is safe, you must find out what the problem is before you give first aid. Learn to look for problems in order of importance. First look for problems that may be life threatening. Then look for other problems.
question
Someone who "responds" does what?
answer
Moves, speaks, blinks, or otherwise reacts to you when you tap him and ask, "Are you OK?" Someone who doesn't "respond" does nothing when you tap him and ask if he's OK.
question
A person who gasps:
answer
Usually appears to be drawing air in very quickly. He may open his mouth and move the jaw, head, or neck. Gasps may appear forceful or weak, and some time may pass between gasps since they usually happen at a slow rate. The gasp may sound like a snort, snore, or groan. Gasping is not regular or normal breathing. It is a sign of cardiac arrest in someone who doesn't respond.
question
Action: Find the Problem
answer
1. Check the scene to be sure it is safe. 2. Tap the person and shout, "Are you OK?" - send someone to phone your emergency response number (or 911) and get the first aid kit and AED. 3. Check if the person is breathing for 5-10 seconds - if not breathing or only gasping, begin CPR and use an AED if you know how 4. Look for any obvious signs of injury 5. Look for medical information jewlery
question
FYI: Find the Problem
answer
The muscles at the back of the throat relax in a person who does not respond. When the muscles relax, the tongue may fall back and block the airway. A person with a blocked airway cannot breathe.
question
Actions: Privacy
answer
- Give all information about an ill or injured person to EMS rescuers. - Fill out the company's report or forms. - Protect the ill or injured person's privacy.
Emergency Medical Service
Emergency Medical Services
Emergency Medical Technology
Middle East Respiratory Syndrome
Chapter 1 Introduction to Emergency Medical Care – Flashcards 41 terms

Joel Boykin
41 terms
Preview
Chapter 1 Introduction to Emergency Medical Care – Flashcards
question
1) Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? A) Quality improvement B) System effectiveness management C) Process Improvement Plan (PIP) D) Total quality system Answer:
answer
A
question
2) Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service? A) The Spanish B) The Egyptians C) The Mayans D) The French Answer:
answer
D
question
3) In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? A) U.S. Department of Transportation B) U.S. Department of the Interior C) U.S. Department of Health Services D) U.S. Department of Homeland Security Answer:
answer
A
question
4) Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? A) Emergency preparedness plan B) Trauma system C) Resource management D) Central deployment Answer:
answer
C
question
5) Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? A) Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) B) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) D) United States Health Services Agency (HSA) Answer:
answer
C
question
6) Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? A) To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital B) To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene C) To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital D) To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care Answer:
answer
A
question
7) What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? A) Prehospital care B) Prompt emergency response C) Safe emergency transportation D) Trained medical personnel Answer:
answer
A
question
8) Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance? A) Emergency department B) Emergency medical services system C) Surgical services department D) Emergency medical dispatch center Answer:
answer
A
question
9) Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling? A) Data display 911 B) Priority dispatch 911 C) Enhanced 911 D) Advanced 911 Answer:
answer
C
question
10) What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? A) Emergency Medical Technician B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Advanced EMT D) Emergency Ambulance Driver Answer:
answer
A
question
11) What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? A) Emergency Medical Dispatcher B) Cardiac care responder C) EMT D) Emergency Medical Responder Answer:
answer
D
question
12) What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? A) Advanced EMT B) Paramedic C) Emergency Medical Responder D) EMT Answer:
answer
A
question
13) What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? A) Advanced EMT B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Emergency Medical Technician D) Paramedic Answer:
answer
D
question
14) Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? A) Protect and stabilize the patient B) Communicate with other responders on the scene C) Maintain personal health and safety D) Provide emergency care Answer:
answer
C
question
15) What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care? A) Patient access B) Patient assessment C) Medical intervention D) Patient advocacy Answer:
answer
B
question
16) Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? A) Transfer of care B) Breach of duty C) Definitive care D) End of tour Answer:
answer
A
question
17) Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? A) Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury B) Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities C) Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital D) Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath Answer:
answer
C
question
18) Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? A) Traffic director B) Law enforcement C) All crew members D) Triage officer Answer:
answer
C
question
19) Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? A) Guardian B) Assistant C) Advocate D) Representative Answer:
answer
C
question
20) To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT? A) Able to listen to others B) Pleasant C) Judgmental but fair D) Emotionally stable Answer:
answer
A
question
21) Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT? A) Nonjudgmental and fair B) Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds C) Ability to speak clearly D) Ability to remain calm in stressful situations Answer:
answer
C
question
22) Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? A) Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds B) Awareness of problems with color vision C) Ability to dominate the patient D) Control of personal habits Answer:
answer
D
question
23) Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT's original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals? A) Distance education B) EMT training program C) Recertification D) Continuing education Answer:
answer
D
question
24) During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? A) The state requires the training. B) EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam. C) It looks good to a jury should the service be sued. D) EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research. Answer:
answer
D
question
25) Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate? A) Self-starter B) Strong student C) Strong communication D) Good eyesight Answer:
answer
A
question
26) What is NOT one the common settings that an EMT may work in? A) Rural/wilderness settings B) Ambulance services C) Hospitals D) Fire departments Answer:
answer
C
question
27) The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the following? A) An education curriculum for EMT courses B) Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices C) National standards for emergency medical services personnel D) Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services Answer:
answer
C
question
28) You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give him? A) Vital signs are something you have to fill out because the state requires it. B) The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the patient's condition. C) It is important you show the QI manager that you are a team player. D) The report looks better when all the boxes are filled out. Answer:
answer
B
question
29) Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs? A) To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted B) To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan C) To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence D) To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies Answer:
answer
C
question
30) After delivering a patient to the emergency department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the following? A) Patient advocacy B) Transfer of care C) Quality improvement D) Continuing education Answer:
answer
C
question
31) The EMT's role in the quality improvement process includes becoming involved in the quality process, keeping carefully written documentation, obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital staff, continuing your education, and which of the following? A) Writing protocols and standing orders B) Maintaining your equipment C) Providing quality care D) Being a member of the QI committee Answer:
answer
B
question
32) Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process? A) Taking responsibility for the actions of one's partner B) Writing complete patient care reports C) Critiquing performance of one's partner D) Assuring personal safety Answer:
answer
B
question
33) Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT? A) EMS supervisor B) EMT C) Director of quality assurance D) Medical Director Answer:
answer
D
question
34) The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the following? A) On-line medical direction B) Standards of care C) Standing orders D) Breach of duty Answer:
answer
C
question
35) Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical situations? A) Standing orders B) On-line medical direction C) Protocols D) Standard operating procedures Answer:
answer
C
question
36) A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a(n): A) on-line protocol. B) standard of care. C) direct medical order. D) standing order. Answer:
answer
D
question
37) You and another new EMT are studying your local protocols. The other EMT notices that you may give oral glucose without utilizing on-line medical control, but you must get an on-line order from a physician before assisting a patient in taking his nitroglycerin for chest pain. The EMT asks you why some drugs require on-line medical control while others do not. What is the best answer to give him? A) Glucose is only sugar so it cannot hurt the patient. B) The physician does not trust EMTs. C) The patient's nitroglycerin might be expired. D) The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient. Answer:
answer
D
question
38) You respond to a 35-year-old male patient who fell 50 feet from a bluff. Your authority to provide emergency care is an extension of the Medical Director's license to practice medicine. You are acting as a(n) ________ of the Medical Director. A) subordinate B) employee C) designated agent D) extension Answer:
answer
C
question
39) A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The EMT states that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clotting bandages for serious bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular bandages, but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the EMT by saying he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the additional cost. How can the EMT best prove the worth of the special bandages? A) Have a member of the other ambulance service call the Medical Director to provide firsthand information on how the special bandages are much better. B) Call the manufacturer of the special bandage and request literature to give to the Medical Director. C) Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director. D) Order a small number of the special bandages and compare them side-by-side to the regular bandages. Answer:
answer
C
question
40) You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are to inspect the rooms and common areas for fall hazards. Your partner is upset that he is not in the ambulance where the "action is." He complains that "looking for loose rugs" is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his complaints? A) It is good practice for the next emergency call. B) It makes the taxpayers happy. C) Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS. D) It minimizes the number of 911 calls late at night. Answer:
answer
C
question
41) You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door open, steps out of the truck, and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver. Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What is the best way to respond? A) Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene. B) New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally. C) The On-Duty Supervisor should be called. D) An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient. Answer:
answer
A
Business Management
Emergency Medical Services
Incident Action Plan
Incident Command System
Final Exam for: IS-703.a: NIMS Resource Management – Flashcards 25 terms

Carmen Dawson
25 terms
Preview
Final Exam for: IS-703.a: NIMS Resource Management – Flashcards
question
Select the action below that improves accountability and helps provide security and force protection. A. Prohibiting all VIP and media visits to the incident scene B. Locating the Incident Command Post at least 1 mile away from the incident scene C. Establishing and enforcing inner and outer perimeters around the incident scene D. Deputizing personnel within the Operations Section to give them law enforcement authority
answer
Establishing and enforcing inner and outer perimeters around the incident scene
question
Select the TRUE statement about the resource coordination process: A. In a complex incident within a State, an Area Commander requests resources directly from DHS and FEMA. B. Typically, requests for resources flow from the on-scene incident command through the local, tribal, and State Emergency Operations Centers to the Federal Government. C. Prior to requesting assistance through intrastate mutual aid, a State must first ask the Federal Government for resources. D. In a complex incident, the Joint Field Office is used as the single point where local and tribal Incident Management Teams submit their requests for needed on-scene incident response resources.
answer
Typically, requests for resources flow from the on-scene incident command through the local, tribal, and State Emergency Operations Centers to the Federal Government.
question
Incident managers begin planning for the demobilization process: A. As soon as the incident is stabilized, including during resource mobilization. B. After being requested by the Emergency Operations Center. C. Immediately before the first resources are ready to be released. D. When incident objectives and activities shift from response to recovery.
answer
As soon as the incident is stabilized, including during resource mobilization.
question
The first step in managing resources during an incident is to identify requirements. To do so, an Incident Commander should: A. Conduct a thorough assessment or "sizeup" of the current incident situation and future incident potential. B. Delegate resource prioritization decisions to the Finance and Administration Section Chief to ensure prudent use of resources. C. Request that the Logistics Section develop a proposed staffing plan for the incident based on the Incident Action Plan. D. Establish incident objectives based on the resources that are currently available at the scene.
answer
Conduct a thorough assessment or "sizeup" of the current incident situation and future incident potential.
question
In most incidents, which source provides the first line of emergency response and incident management resources? A. Unaffiliated volunteers who are representing private-sector and nongovernmental organizations. B. Federal Government agencies that are mission assigned to provide resources under the Robert T. Stafford Act. C. State resources augmented through an agreement, such as the Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC). D. Local or tribal resources and local mutual aid and assistance agreements.
answer
Local or tribal resources and local mutual aid and assistance agreements.
question
What is the correct term for a set of established guidelines for actions (which may be designated by individuals, teams, functions, or capabilities) under various specified conditions? A. Manual B. Policy C. Regulation D. Protocol
answer
Protocol
question
Select the preferred method for placing orders. A. A fully automated resource-ordering system that avoids the need for radio communications or verbal orders being placed from the incident scene to an ordering center or source B. A single-point resource ordering system where the burden of finding the requested resources is placed on the responsible jurisdiction/agency dispatch/ordering center rather than the incident organization C. A flexible resource ordering system whereby the incident is responsible for locating and acquiring resources from multiple sources rather than contacting a single, centralized ordering support function D. A self-dispatching system that identifies resources in advance of an incident and provides them with explicit instructions on how and when to self-dispatch in anticipation of a need at the incident scene
answer
A single-point resource ordering system where the burden of finding the requested resources is placed on the responsible jurisdiction/agency dispatch/ordering center rather than the incident organization
question
Which of the following resources are an example of Tier I resources that must be inventoried for NIMS compliance? A. Fire service resources available through intrastate mutual aid B. All resources acquired using Federal grant funding C. Urban search and rescue task forces used in national deployments D. Equipment used to communicate across departments and jurisdictions
answer
All resources acquired using Federal grant funding
question
What is the correct term for the entity that prioritizes incidents for the purpose of allocating scarce resources, mobilizes resources, ensures interagency and interjurisdictional coordination, and makes policy decisions to support incidents, but not decisions reserved for Area Commands and Incident Commanders. A. Command and Control Center B. Incident Operations Network C. Incident Management Team D. Multiagency Coordination System
answer
Multiagency Coordination System
question
The resource management planning process includes the following steps: • Step 1: Identify Associated Risks and Consequences • Step 2: Project Resource Needs • Step 3: Identify Potential Sources • Step 4: Review Procedures • Step 5: ____________________ (Select the fifth step from below.) A. Step 5: Collect Stakeholder Feedback on Priorities B. Step 5: Identify Emerging Technologies C. Step 5: Maintain Resource Inventory D. Step 5: Develop Equipment Reserve Budgets
answer
Step 5: Maintain Resource Inventory
question
Select the FALSE statement from below: A. Given the limited resources, emergency managers should encourage groups to provide unsolicited donations. B. Failure to include voluntary organizations in your planning and exercises will result in duplication of effort and/or resource shortfalls and "spontaneous" volunteers arriving at the scene. C. Communities cannot effectively respond to or recover from incidents without strong cooperative relations with the private sector. D. Jurisdictions should assume that resources outside the incident area (State and Federal resources) may take up to 72 hours to arrive.
answer
Given the limited resources, emergency managers should encourage groups to provide unsolicited donations.
question
The credentialing process involves an objective evaluation and documentation of an individual's: • Current certification, license, or degree; • Training and experience; and • ________________________________. (Select the missing element.) A. Competence or proficiency B. Compensation amount C. Supervisory expertise D. Security clearance level
answer
Competence or proficiency
question
An important part of the process is managing inventories to: A. Ensure consistency by relying solely on a single source or contractor from which to acquire critical supplies. B. Limit access to inventory lists to those staff located at the Emergency Operations Center. C. Maintain items through periodic replenishments, preventive maintenance, and capital improvements. D. Contract for critical items at the onset of an incident rather than stockpiling these items.
answer
Maintain items through periodic replenishments, preventive maintenance, and capital improvements.
question
A key benefit of resource typing to describe specific resources is that it allows resource managers to: A. Reduce the cost of emergency resources. B. Describe resource needs to the public more easily. C. Locate and mobilize resources. D. Anticipate resource needs.
answer
Locate and mobilize resources.
question
The key to effective management of donations is the ability to: A. Increase the amount of donations by delegating the donation solicitation and management functions to a committee of volunteers. B. Assign the Staging Manager with the Operations Section the responsibility for donation tracking. C. Develop and implement an effective management structure to receive, warehouse, inventory, organize, distribute, and account for large-scale donations. D. Develop public information and media releases to help prevent communities and voluntary groups from collecting donations in the first place.
answer
Develop and implement an effective management structure to receive, warehouse, inventory, organize, distribute, and account for large-scale donations.
question
TRUE OR FALSE: The first strategy for managing volunteers is to establish working relationships with the local organizations representing these entities, such as the National Voluntary Organizations Active in Disaster (National VOAD), and Citizen Corps initiatives such as Community Emergency Response Teams. A. True B. False
answer
True
question
What is the purpose of the Operational Planning Worksheet (ICS Form 215)? A. To identify and track operational resources assigned to each organizational component within the Incident Command System organization. B. To document expenditures associated with resources acquired through mutual aid and assistance agreements. C. To indicate the kind and type of resources needed to implement recommended tactics to meet the incident objectives. D. To provide the Incident Commander with basic information about the incident situation and resources allocated to the incident.
answer
To indicate the kind and type of resources needed to implement recommended tactics to meet the incident objectives.
question
What term is used to refer to broad classes that characterize like resources, such as teams, equipment, supplies, vehicles, and aircraft? A. Group B. Set C. Class D. Kind
answer
Kind
question
Select the FALSE statement from below: A. NIMS is applicable across the full spectrum of potential incidents, regardless of cause, size, location, or complexity. B. NIMS specifies how Federal and interstate mutual aid resources will be allocated among jurisdictions. C. NIMS integrates best practices into a comprehensive, standardized framework. D. NIMS is based on best practices collected from local, tribal, State, and Federal responders and emergency managers.
answer
NIMS integrates best practices into a comprehensive, standardized framework.
question
TRUE OR FALSE: Sending resources to the incident scene that have not been requested by the Incident Commander and bypassing the established system for ordering resources can put responders at risk, and at best typically lead to inefficient use and/or lack of accounting of resources. A. True B. False
answer
True
question
Which ICS Section is responsible for checking in and tracking all resources assigned to the incident and their status (assigned, available, out of service)? A. Logistics Section B. Finance/Administration Section C. Planning Section D. Operations Section
answer
Logistics Section
question
Actions such as using national standards for connections, fittings, and hardware and sharing communications frequencies help to promote: A. Reliability B. Sustainability C. Affordability. D. Interoperability
answer
Interoperability
question
Incident resource information management systems are used to collect, update, and process data; track resources; and: A. Project when inventory items need to be ordered. B. Develop capital budgets for acquisition of new resources. C. Display resource readiness status. D. Alert personnel when credentials are about to expire.
answer
Display resource readiness status.
question
Mutual aid agreements and assistance agreements: A. Allow Federal agencies to provide services to local governments under a Stafford Act declaration. B. Permit jurisdictions to share sensitive information about incident status and lessons learned. C. Provide a mechanism to quickly obtain emergency assistance. D. Are contracts with private-sector entities to provide services during emergencies.
answer
Provide a mechanism to quickly obtain emergency assistance.
question
Which type of exercise involves field movement and mobilization of resources rather than simulation? A. Functional exercise B. Full-scale exercise C. Drill D. Tabletop exercise
answer
Full-scale exercise
American National Standards Institute
Daily Routine
Emergency Medical Services
Emergency Medical Technology
Law Enforcement
San Francisco Earthquake
Security And Privacy
Standard Operating Procedure
Traffic Incident Management – Flashcards 39 terms

Marie Florence
39 terms
Preview
Traffic Incident Management – Flashcards
question
Why do we need traffic incident management
answer
Event responder safety at the site Prevention of secondary crashes decrease the length and impact of the incident Improve clearance techniques Improve response approach for other responders
question
Traffic incident
answer
Any non-recurrent event, such as vehicle crashes, vehicle breakdown, or special event
question
Special events can cause
answer
Reduction of roadway capacity Abnormal increase in traffic demand or congestion Secondary incidents
question
Normal Flow
answer
0% effected
question
Crash on Shoulder
answer
26% effected
question
Stall (one lane blocked)
answer
48% effected
question
Non-Injury crash (one lane blocked)
answer
50% effected
question
Crash ( two lanes blocked)
answer
79% effected
question
Classification of traffic incidents
answer
Major Intermediate Minor
question
Major traffic incident
answer
Expected duration is more than 2 hours
question
Intermediate traffic incident
answer
Expected duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours
question
Minor traffic incident
answer
Expected duration under 30 minutes
question
Factors that endanger first responders
answer
Complacency Improper Attitude Arrogant Courage Poor Physical Conditioning Fatigue Bad Vehicle Positioning
question
Elements of Effective Incident Management
answer
Law Enforcement Fire Services Emergency Medical Services Emergency Management Louisiana Department of Transportation Media
question
Incident Management Components
answer
Detection Response Clearance
question
Incident Management Component Detection
answer
The determination that an incident had occurred
question
Incident Management Component Response
answer
The activation, coordination and management of all appropriate personnel and equipment
question
Incident Management Component Clearance
answer
The restoration of the highway to pre-incident conditions
question
Clearance consists of
answer
Resolution of conditions threatening responder, victim, or public safety Removal of disabled vehicles, spilled cargo, and other debris from roadway Removal of responders and their vehicles, equipment from the roadway Reestablishment of normal traffic patterns
question
Motorist information includes the dissemination of incident related information to motorist who
answer
Are at the scene Are approaching the scene Have not yet left their home, work, or other location
question
Two types of roadway system congestion
answer
Recurring Nonrecurring
question
Recurring roadway system congestion
answer
That which occurs regularly at points of excessive demand and deficient capacity
question
Nonrecurring roadway system congestion
answer
Random incidents, such as crashes, spilled loads, disabled vehicles, and other unpredictable events
question
Under-Response
answer
Results when too few, or the wrong resources are dispatched
question
Over-Response
answer
Results when too much equipment and personnel are sent to the scene and stay there an excessive amount of time
question
Site Management "4 C's"
answer
Command Communication Coordination Cooperation
question
Temporary Traffic Control
answer
Advanced Warning Area Transition Area Activity Area Termination Area
question
Blocking
answer
Positioning of emergency vehicles on an angle to the lanes of traffic creating a physical barrier between traffic and the work area
question
Shadowing
answer
The protected work area at vehicle-related roadway incident that is shielded by the block from emergency vehicles also know as Safe Zone or Work Zone
question
Cone Placement and Light Discipline
answer
Use hand signals when deploying cones Always face traffic when deploying Be able to deploy a 200 foot taper with at least 5 cones at 50 foot increments at a 45 degree angle Place at least one cone 10 feet behind your unit as a safety point of reference
question
Flares
answer
Be able to deploy a 200 foot taper with at least 5 cones at 50 foot increments at a 45 degree angle Place at least one flare 10 feet behind your unit as a safety point of reference
question
Clearance
answer
The safe and quick removal of vehicles, debris and spilled cargo in order to restore the roadway to full capacity
question
LA RS 32:153
answer
Instant tow dispatch pilot program creation
question
LA RS 32:141
answer
Stopping, standing, or parking outside business or residence districts (move it laws)
question
LA RS 32:142
answer
Abandoned vehicle immediate removal
question
LA RS 32:473.1
answer
Abandoned vehicle removal within 24 hours
question
LA RS 32:125
answer
Passing a parked emergency vehicle
question
LA RS 32:1567
answer
Coroner misconceptions about moving a body at a fatal scene
question
Section 1971
answer
Fire ground authority
Emergency Medical Services
Low Blood Sugar
Medical/Clerical Assisting
Chapter 10 Medical Office Management and Safety – Flashcards 16 terms

Bernice Cooper
16 terms
Preview
Chapter 10 Medical Office Management and Safety – Flashcards
question
Bioterrorism
answer
Intentional release of a biologic agent with the intent to harm an individual
question
Body Mechanics
answer
Using the correct muscles and posture to complete a task safely and efficiently.
question
Budget
answer
Financial planning tool that helps an organization estimate its anticipated expenditures and revenues.
question
Compliance Officer
answer
Person charged with ensuring that a facility follows laws and protocols.
question
Epidemic
answer
disease affects numerous people within a specific geographical area
question
Ergonomics
answer
The study of human physical characteristics and their environment to minimize the risk for injury through the use of appropriate adaptive equipment.
question
Expected Threshold
answer
A numerical goal
question
Incident reports
answer
A form used by a n organization to document an unusual occurrence to a patient, visitor, or employee
question
Job Description
answer
Informs employees about the essential job duties and expectations for a given position.
question
Mission Statement
answer
A statement describing the goals of the medical office and those it serves.
question
Organizational Chart
answer
A flow sheet depicting the members of a team in a structured or hierarchical manner.
question
Pandemic
answer
Disease affects numerous people in many areas of the world at the same time.
question
Policy
answer
A statement that reflects the organizations rules on a given topic.
question
Procedure
answer
Series of steps required to perform a given tasks
question
Quality Improvement
answer
Plan that allows an organization to scientifically measure the quality of its product and service
question
Task Force
answer
Group of employees that works together to solve a given problem.
Conduction System Of The Heart
Emergency Medical Services
Nursing
Third Degree Heart Block
Type Ii Diabetes Mellitus
ACLS EMSTA College 19 terms

Elizabeth Hill
19 terms
Preview
ACLS EMSTA College
question
What does MET stand for?
answer
Medical emergency team
question
What does RRT stand for?
answer
Rapid response team
question
What is the purpose of the rapid response team?
answer
- identify and intervene during deterioration - improve patient outcomes
question
Maximum amount of time you can be off the chest during CPR
answer
No more than 10 seconds
question
How often should you switch rescuers for CPR?
answer
Every two minutes
question
Best indicator of cardiac arrest in an unresponsive patient
answer
Agonal respirations
question
Time spent on pulse checks
answer
Only 5 to 10 seconds
question
Reasons for closed loop communication
answer
Repeat the drug dose.
question
Part of medication administration
answer
Communicate orders for clarification.
question
Best compression rate for high-quality CPR
answer
100 to 120 per minute
question
PPV increases intrathoracic pressure by
answer
Decreasing cardiac output. Decreases venous return.
question
Adult rescue breathing during intubation is performed
answer
Every 5 to 6 seconds
question
Two best ways to avoid interruptions in CPR and defibrillation.
answer
Continue CPR after defibrillation. Perform CPR while charging the defibrillator.
question
Four best ways to manage an airway.
answer
Properly sized OPA or NPA. Good mask seal. Consider superglottic airways. (King, LMA)
question
Quality capnography is referred to as
answer
The gold standard for tube placement and monitoring.
question
ETCO2 target range for ROSC
answer
35mmHg to 40mmHg
question
Target temperature and dose for induced hypothermia
answer
30mL per kilogram of chilled normal saline at 32°C to 36°C over 24 hours
question
What is done post cardiac arrest care
answer
Labs. Considered induced hypothermia. Cath Lab. Arterial blood gas.
question
Door-to-balloon goal time
answer
No more than 90 minutes
Emergency Medical Services
High And Low
Incident Command System
National Park Service
Opening Statement
Prevention And Control
Fire Protection Organization Quiz 1 24 terms

Richard Lattimore
24 terms
Preview
Fire Protection Organization Quiz 1
question
Who is the current Director of the entire Santa Ana College Fire Technology Program?
answer
Don Mahany
question
Santa Ana College has a fire academy program that is recognized by the California State Fire Marshal.
answer
True
question
Which of the following would NOT likely occur during the background check?
answer
Evaluation of overall physical conditioning
question
Cooking fires are identified as accounting as the cause for the largest number of residential fires.
answer
True
question
Television shows have raised the public's expectations of the fire service?
answer
True
question
Firefighter certification is based on what?
answer
NFPA 1001
question
Where is the National Fire Academy located?
answer
Emmitsburg, Maryland
question
The U.S. fire departments respond to a fire how often?
answer
Every 17 seconds
question
Early American water systems consisted of what?
answer
Hollow logs with wooden plugs
question
Approximately how many firefighters in the United States die every year as a result of fires?
answer
100
question
Firefighters must be well trained in a number of different skill sets (e.g., fire, medical, rescue, etc.)
answer
True
question
Place the rank order, starting with an initial (e.g., entry level) ranking to highest (e.g., experience) ranking. *for this question, 1 = least highest rank / 4 = highest rank*
answer
1. Firefighter, 2. Fire Captain, 3. Fire Battalion Chief, 4. Fire Chief
question
In 1853, what city became the first city with a fully paid fire department?
answer
Cincinnati
question
What word means to perform operations without a coordinated effort or the knowledge of one's superior officer?
answer
Freelance
question
What is used to measure education, experience, and to interactively evaluate the personal characteristics of the individual job candidate. Moreover, it is considered to be the MOST IMPORTANT part of the hiring process by many!
answer
Oral Interview
question
Which of the following jobs normally includes firefighting (e.g., suppression) duties?
answer
Apparatus Engineer
question
The first hand pumpers discharged water through a large nozzle mounted on top called what?
answer
A gooseneck
question
Horse drawn apparatuses in fire-related services were eventually replaced by motorized apparatuses.
answer
True
question
The employment standards for a regular firefighter are essentially the same as for a firefighter trainee.
answer
True
question
What does FEMA stand for?
answer
Federal Emergency Management Agency
question
The Corps of Vigiles are considered to be one of the earliest firefighting forces.
answer
True
question
A well-rounded background of education, experience, community service, skill, and positive attitude will take potential firefighter candidates far!
answer
True
question
Approximately how many people in the United States die every year as the result of fires?
answer
4000
question
How long does a typical (most common) probationary period last if a firefighter is working a 24-hour shift schedule, making the average days per month worked approximately 10?
answer
12 months
Emergency Medical Services
Nursing
NIH Flashcards 45 terms

Paula Corcoran
45 terms
Preview
NIH Flashcards
question
The Belmont Report is significant because
answer
It articulated ethical principles that formed the basis for the HHS Human Subjects Regulations.
question
A study proposing to involve pregnant adolescents who are detained in a juvenile detention center would only be allowed if
answer
The requirements of Subparts A, B, C, and D are met.
question
An \"autonomous person\" is someone who:
answer
Understands the risks and benefits of his or her participation and is able to make a voluntary decision if adequate information is provided.
question
45 CFR 46 requires Federal Departments and Agencies to rely solely on IRBs to evaluate risks to subjects, protection against these risks, potential benefits of the research and the importance of the knowledge to be gained.
answer
False
question
What are the three ethical principles that constitute the basis for the HHS Human Subjects Regulations (45 CFR 46)?
answer
Respect for Persons, Beneficence, Justice
question
An institutionally designated authority, other than the investigator, should determine that proposed studies are exempt from regulatory requirements.
answer
True
question
Communities may grant emergency waivers of informed consent for research involving pregnant women in the community who are in active labor and call Emergency Medical Services.
answer
False
question
Research involving prisoners requires both specific IRB membership and approval by OHRP to signify that the proposed research falls within the permissible research categories.
answer
True
question
When might human subjects research require investigators to obtain informed consent?
answer
A. Investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves interactions with research participants. B. Investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves interventions with research participants. C. Investigators must obtain informed consent if the study involves collection of private information from or about research participants.
question
After informed consent for a research study is given, a research participant must complete the study.
answer
False
question
In general, informed consent should be a process rather than a one-time event.
answer
True
question
In order to participate in research, children must:
answer
Provide assent, unless the IRB determines that they are too young
question
An example of a potential economic risk to a research subject is the potential negative impact research may have on the employment or promotion potential of a research subject.
answer
True
question
Risk to research subjects includes:
answer
A. Physical, psychological, social, legal or economic harm that may reasonably be anticipated as a result of participation in research B. The probability that a certain harm will occur from disclosure of findings C. Unforeseen physical harm that is possible from participation in therapeutic research
question
When appropriate, research data should be ___________ to prevent accidental disclosure of private information.
answer
De-identified
question
When are researchers specifically required by NIH policy to describe Data and Safety Monitoring?
answer
For all clinical trials
question
If a researcher determines that his/her study poses no more than minimal risk as defined in 45 CFR 46, there is no need for the protocol to have IRB review and approval.
answer
False
question
The use of placebo in a clinical trial may be justified:
answer
for conditions where there is no approved, effective treatment
question
IRBs reviewing research in a different geographical location and/or cultural context have a responsibility to:
answer
B. Defer to an IRB that is in the situated within the local research context C. Ask specialists with direct knowledge of the local research context to participate in IRB discussions
question
Which of the following is TRUE regarding applications for NIH-funded research overseas?
answer
Research conducted overseas is subject to HHS Human Subjects Regulations (45 CFR 46) and local regulations and policies
question
In localities where community consent is the norm,
answer
In addition to the cultural norm, individual informed consent is required
question
Which subpart(s) of the 45 CFR 46 is/are sometimes referred to as The Common Rule?
answer
Subpart A which describes the required protections for all human subjects
question
Identify the most influential event that led to the HHS Policy for Protection of Human Research Subjects:
answer
Syphilis Study at Tuskegee
question
Which entity has regulatory authority for the protection of human subjects for PHS-funded research?
answer
OHRP
question
The three fundamental principle of Informed consent are
answer
Voluntariness, Comprehension, Disclosure
question
If informed consent information is presented orally, it must be documented using a short form that states that all of the required elements were presented orally.
answer
True
question
Which of the following most accurately describes clinical equipoise:
answer
Scientific uncertainty that one study intervention is superior to another.
question
Risks to research participants must be completely eliminated for the study to be considered ethical.
answer
False
question
What is an appropriate method for maintaining confidentiality of private information obtained from human subjects?
answer
1. Keeping data in a password-protected database 2. Storing images in a secured cabinet 3. Coding data or specimens and keeping the key to the code in a separate, locked drawer
question
Social justice and individual justice are different and distinct, yet compatible, concepts
answer
True
question
Children must be included in all NIH-supported human subjects research unless:
answer
There are scientific and ethical reasons to exclude them
question
A study proposing to involve pregnant adolescents who are detained in a juvenile detention center would only be allowed if:
answer
The requirements of Subparts A, B, C, and D are met.
question
Which subpart(s) of the 45 CFR 46 is/are sometimes referred to as The Common Rule :
answer
Subpart A which describes the required protections for all human subjects
question
45 CFR 46 requires Federal Departments and Agencies to rely solely on IRBs to evaluate risks to subjects, protection against these risks, potential benefits of the research and the importance of the knowledge to be gained.
answer
False
question
All research that involves interaction or intervention with humans or human samples/data, whether they are alive or dead, is human subjects research.
answer
False
question
Requirements specific to informed consent for prisoners include adequate assurance that parole boards do not consider a prisoner?s participation in making decisions regarding parole.
answer
True
question
One of the requirements of informed consent is that subjects must be told whether they are eligible to receive compensation if they are injured as a result of their participation in the research
answer
True
question
For research involving pregnant women, participation requires:
answer
Consideration of risks and potential benefits for the fetus and the pregnant woman.
question
Why might an individual have diminished autonomy?
answer
1. They are a neonate. 2. They are incarcerated or involuntarily confined. 3. They are unconscious.
question
According to the regulations, to be approvable, research participation must provide a tangible benefit to the individual research subjects.
answer
False
question
There must be equipoise in order to justify conducting a clinical trial.
answer
True
question
If a researcher determines that his/her study poses no more than minimal risk as defined in 45 CFR 46, there is no need for the protocol to have IRB review and approval.
answer
False
question
The concept of individual justice implies that it is acceptable for investigators to offer potentially beneficial research only to favored patients while selecting undesirable persons for riskier research.
answer
False
question
NIH has specific policies addressing:
answer
1. Inclusion of children in research 2. Inclusion of women and minorities in research 3. Treatment for research subjects in HIV/AIDS antiretroviral studies following completing of trials in developing countries
question
Excluding children from participation in research, while well intentioned, may deny children the benefits of participation and prevent the collection of sufficient data about the possible effects of potentially therapeutic agents in children.
answer
True
Design
Emergency Medical Services
Fashion
Goods And Services
Japanese
BMGT385 Chapter 7 – Flashcards 42 terms

Noel Macdonald
42 terms
Preview
BMGT385 Chapter 7 – Flashcards
question
Effective management of services requires a clear focus on understanding operations, so much so, that it may even require the exclusion of consideration of marketing or personnel.
answer
FALE
question
Services often take the form of repeated encounters involving face-to-face interactions.
answer
TRUE
question
The term "encounter" is defined by Webster's Dictionary as "meeting in conflict or battle" and is used to also designate meetings between consumers and service systems.
answer
TRUE
question
A service system with a high degree of customer contact is less difficult to control than a low degree of customer contact service system.
answer
FALSE
question
Because little or no inventory is carried in a service operation, it is easy to separate the operations management functions from marketing in services.
answer
FALSE
question
It is difficult to separate the operations management functions from marketing in services.
answer
TRUE
question
The service-system design matrix identifies five alternative forms of service encounters.
answer
FALSE
question
The service-system design matrix identifies six forms of service encounters.
answer
TRUE
question
The "service blueprint" is a classification of services.
answer
FALSE
question
Poka-Yokes are procedures that block the inevitable mistake from becoming a service defect.
answer
TRUE
question
Poka-Yoke is roughly translated from Japanese as "Quality Management."
answer
FALSE
question
Poka-Yoke is roughly translated from Japanese as "Avoid Mistakes."
answer
TRUE
question
An important aspect of service products is that they cannot be inventoried.
answer
TRUE
question
Customer contact refers to creation of the service.
answer
FALSE
question
The work process involved in providing the service must involve the physical presence of the customer in the system.
answer
FALSE
question
The central problem in virtually every waiting line situation is a trade-off decision balancing the costs of adding services with the costs of waiting.
answer
TRUE
question
Ideally in waiting line or queuing Analyze we want to balance the cost of service capacity with the cost of waiting.
answer
TRUE
question
The customer arrivals in a queuing system come almost exclusively from finite populations.
answer
FALSE
question
The customer arrivals in a queuing system come almost exclusively from infinite populations.
answer
FALSE
question
A finite population in waiting line management refers to a population that is large enough in relation to the service system so that the change in population size caused by subtraction or additions to the population does not significantly affect the system probabilities.
answer
FALSE
question
An infinite population in waiting line management refers to a population that is large enough in relation to the service system so that the change in population size caused by subtraction or additions to the population does not significantly affect the system probabilities.
answer
TRUE
question
A variable arrival rate is more common in waiting line management than a constant arrival rate.
answer
TRUE
question
A constant arrival rate is more common in productive systems than a variable arrival rate.
answer
FALSE
question
Arrival characteristics in a queuing problem analysis include the length of the queue.
answer
FALSE
question
The Poisson probability distribution is used in waiting line management when we are interested in the number of arrivals to a queue during some fixed time period.
answer
TRUE
question
The demand on a hospital's emergency medical services is considered a controllable arrival pattern of the calling population.
answer
FALSE
question
The demand on a hospital's emergency medical services is considered an uncontrollable arrival pattern of the calling population.
answer
TRUE
question
Gas stations, loading docks, and parking lots have infinite potential length of lines for their respective queuing systems.
answer
FALSE
question
Highest-profit customer first is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.
answer
TRUE
question
Longest waiting time in line is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.
answer
TRUE
question
Best customer last is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.
answer
FALSE
question
A car wash is an example of a single channel, multiphase queuing system.
answer
TRUE
question
A tellers' window in a bank is an example of a single channel, multiphase queuing system.
answer
FALSE
question
The admissions system in a hospital for patients is an example of a single channel, single phase queuing system.
answer
FALSE
question
There are different queuing models to fit different queuing situations.
answer
TRUE
question
In a practical sense, an infinite queue is one that includes every possible member of the served population.
answer
FALSE
question
In a waiting line situation, multiple lines occur only when there are multiple servers.
answer
FALSE
question
The term "queue discipline" involves the art of controlling surly and unruly customers who have become irritated by waiting.
answer
FALSE
question
In a practical sense, a finite population is one that potentially would form a very long line in relation to the capacity of the serving system.
answer
FALSE
question
A department of 25 machines is kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. An analyst who wanted to know how much production was being lost by machines waiting for service could use queuing theory analysis to find out.
answer
TRUE
question
A department of 25 machines is kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. When an operator is absent, the amount of production being lost by machines waiting for service increases. The analyst can use queuing theory analysis to determine whether to pay overtime to an operator from a different shift or not.
answer
TRUE
question
A department of 25 machines is kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. An analyst wanting to know whether to add a fourth operator or downsize to two operators would be helped by using queuing theory analysis.
answer
TRUE
Emergency Medical Services
Fast Food Restaurant
Principles Of Marketing
Problem Solving
mktg ch. 10 – Flashcards 75 terms

Ewan Tanner
75 terms
Preview
mktg ch. 10 – Flashcards
question
The central problem in virtually every waiting line situation is a decision balancing the costs of adding services with the costs of waiting.
answer
True
question
Ideally, in waiting line or queuing analysis, we want to balance the cost of service capacity with the cost of waiting.
answer
True
question
The customer arrivals in a queuing system come almost exclusively from finite populations.
answer
False
question
The customer arrivals in a queuing system come almost exclusively from infinite populations.
answer
False
question
A finite population in waiting line management refers to a population that is large enough in relation to the service system so that the change in population size caused by subtractions or additions to the population does not significantly affect the system probabilities.
answer
False
question
An infinite population in waiting line management refers to a population that is large enough in relation to the service system so that the change in population size caused by subtractions or additions to the population does not significantly affect the system probabilities.
answer
True
question
A variable arrival rate is more common in waiting line management than a constant arrival rate.
answer
True
question
A constant arrival rate is more common in productive systems than a variable arrival rate
answer
False
question
Arrival characteristics in a queuing problem analysis include the length of the queue.
answer
False
question
The Poisson probability distribution is used in waiting line management when one is interested in the number of arrivals to a queue during some fixed time period.
answer
True
question
The demand on a hospital's emergency medical services is considered a controllable arrival pattern of the calling population
answer
False
question
The demand on a hospital's emergency medical services is considered an uncontrollable arrival pattern of the calling population.
answer
True
question
Gas stations, loading docks, and parking lots have infinite potential length of lines for their respective queuing systems.
answer
False
question
Highest-profit customer first is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.
answer
True
question
Longest waiting time in line is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook.
answer
True
question
Best customer last is a queue discipline discussed in the textbook
answer
False
question
A car wash is an example of a single-channel, multiphase queuing system
answer
True
question
A tellers' window in a bank is an example of a single-channel, multiphase queuing system.
answer
False
question
The admissions system in a hospital for patients is an example of a single-channel, single-phase queuing system.
answer
False
question
There are different queuing models to fit different queuing situations.
answer
True
question
In a practical sense, an infinite queue is one that includes every possible member of the served population
answer
False
question
In a waiting line situation, multiple lines occur only when there are multiple servers.
answer
True
question
The term "queue discipline" involves the art of controlling surly and unruly customers who have become irritated by waiting.
answer
False
question
In a practical sense, a finite population is one that potentially would form a very long line in relation to the capacity of the serving system.
answer
False
question
In a department 25 machines are kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. An analyst who wanted to know how much production was being lost by machines waiting for service could use queuing theory analysis to find out.
answer
True
question
In a department 25 machines are kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. When an operator is not immediately available for servicing a machine having a problem, the amount of production being lost by machines waiting for service increases. An analyst can use queuing theory analysis to determine whether to pay overtime to get an operator from a different shift or not
answer
True
question
In a department, 25 machines are kept running by three operators who respond to randomly occurring equipment problems. An analyst wanting to know whether to add a fourth operator or downsize to two operators would be helped by using queuing theory analysis.
answer
True
question
Regardless of the computer language chosen for a simulation model, too much data from a simulation can be dysfunctional to problem solving.
answer
True
question
Spreadsheet simulations have become obsolete due in part to specialized computer simulation languages like SLAM or SIMAN.
answer
False
question
General-purpose simulation software (GPSS) is really a computer language that allows programmers to build their own simulation models.
answer
True
question
Special-purpose simulation software is specially built to run specific applications and may have provisions in manufacturing models to allow for specifying the number of workcenters, their descriptions, arrival rates, and even batch sizes
answer
True
question
Having animation capabilities to graphically display product flows through a production system is not considered a desirable feature of simulation software systems.
answer
False
question
Being able to permit interactive debugging of a model so the user can trace flows through the model and more easily find errors is considered a desirable feature of simulation software systems.
answer
True
question
Being user-friendly and easy to understand is considered a desirable feature of simulation software systems.
answer
True
question
Being user-friendly and easy to understand typically means that the simulation produces less accurate results.
answer
False
question
The more time, money, and effort you spend developing a simulation model, the more likely you are to achieve useful results.
answer
False
question
The leading general- and special-purpose simulation models follow a well-documented and standardized approach.
answer
False
question
While spreadsheets can be somewhat useful for a variety of simulation problems, they can be confusing and are vulnerable to several drawbacks, including weak routines for random-number selection.
answer
False
question
Which of the following is a suggestion for managing queues that is mentioned in the textbook? A. Put up a serpentine lane to keep people from jumping ahead in line. B. Use humor to defuse a potentially irritating situation. C. Segment the customers. D. Assure customers that the wait is fair, and inform them of the queue discipline. E. Tell people in the queue that each will be served as soon as possible.
answer
C- segment the customers
question
Which of the following is not a suggestion for managing queues presented in the textbook? A. Try to divert your customer's attention when waiting. B. Segment the customers. C. Encourage customers to come during the slack periods. D. Train your people to be friendly. E. Periodically close the service channel to temporarily disperse the line.
answer
E- periodically close the service channel to temporarily disperse the line.
question
Which of the following is a suggestion for managing queues presented in the textbook? A. Train your servers to be friendly. B. Tell customers that the line should encourage them to come during slack periods. C. Give each customer a number. D. Periodically close the service channel to temporarily disperse the line. E. Use humor to defuse a potentially irritating situation.
answer
A- train your servers to be friendly
question
Which of the following are the three major components of a queuing system? A. The source population, how customers exit the system, and the queuing discipline B. The number of servers, the service speed, and the waiting line C. The source population, how the customer exits the system, and the servicing system D. The source population and the way customers arrive at the system, the serving systems, and how customers exit the system E. The service speed, the queue discipline, and the waiting line
answer
C- the source population, how the customer exits the system, and the servicing system.
question
Which of the following is a suggestion for managing queues that is mentioned in the textbook? A. Put up a serpentine lane to keep people from jumping ahead in line. B. Use humor to defuse a potentially irritating situation. C. Train your servers to be friendly. D. Assure customers that the wait is fair, and inform them of the queue discipline. E. Tell people in the queue that each will be served as soon as possible.
answer
C- train your servers to be friendly.
question
Which of the following is not a suggestion for managing queues presented in the textbook? A. Train your servers to be friendly. B. Segment the customers. C. Determine an acceptable waiting time for your customers. D. Inform your customers of what to expect. E. Encourage customers to come during slack periods.
answer
C- determine an acceptable waiting time for your customers.
question
In essence, a queuing system includes several major components. Which of the following is not one of them? A. Source population B. Servicing system C. How the customer exits the system D. The queue discipline E. None of these
answer
D- the queue discipline
question
Which of the following is an example of a finite population in a queuing system? A. People waiting to place their order at a fast-food restaurant B. The departmental faculty in line at the copier C. People waiting in line at an ATM D. Patients seeking help in a hospital emergency room E. Taxpayers calling for assistance from the IRS
answer
B- the departmental faulty in line at the copier
question
Which of the following is not a queue discipline discussed in the textbook? A. First come, first served B. Last in, first out C. Limited needs D. Shortest processing time E. Best customer first
answer
B- last in, first out
question
Which of the following queue disciplines is discussed in the textbook? A. Emergencies first B. Garner-Whitten formula C. Newest customer first D. Patient customers last E. None of these
answer
A- emergencies first
question
Buying a ticket for a college football game where there are multiple windows at which to buy the ticket features which type of queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these
answer
C- multichannel, single phase
question
Buying food at a large food store with multiple checkout counters features which type of queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these
answer
C- multichannel, single phase
question
Getting an autograph from a famous person might involve standing in which type of queuing line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these
answer
A- single channel, single phase
question
In a college registration process, several department heads have to approve an individual student's semester course load. What is the queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these
answer
B- single channel, multiphase
question
Standing in line to buy a ticket for a movie where there are multiple windows at which to buy tickets is which type of queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these
answer
C- multichannel, single phase
question
A roller coaster ride in an amusement park employs which type of queuing system line structure? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these
answer
A- single channel, single phase
question
Machine breakdown and repair in a 12-machine factory having one repair mechanic would develop which type of queuing system line structure concerning machine breakdowns? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these
answer
A- single channel, single phase
question
Machine breakdown and repair in a 12-machine factory having three repair mechanics would develop which type of queuing system line structure concerning machine breakdowns? A. Single channel, single phase B. Single channel, multiphase C. Multichannel, single phase D. Multichannel, multiphase E. None of these
answer
C- multichannel, single phase
question
Assume the service rate for a queue in a truck-loading operation is 2 trucks per hour. Using the infinite queuing notion for the models presented in the textbook, which of the following is the average service time? A. 2 hours B. 1 hour C. 0.5 hour D. 0.25 hour E. None of these
answer
C- 0.5 hour
question
For an infinite queuing situation, if the arrival rate for loading trucks is 5 trucks per hour, what is the mean time between arrivals? A. 5 hours B. 2.5 hours C. 0.2 hour D. 0.1 hour E. None of these
answer
C- 0.2 hour
question
A company is concerned about the number of customers who have to wait for service in its customer service department. Assume the rate at which customers are serviced is 12 per hour. Using the infinite queuing notion for the models presented in the textbook, which of the following is the mean time between arrivals? A. 12 minutes B. 6 minutes C. 2 minutes D. 1 minute E. None of these
answer
E- none of these
question
In modeling a simulation, random numbers from 00 to 99 are assigned with the intervals determined from frequency distributions for each behavior occurrence. Assume there are two behaviors, A and B, out of 100 tallies. On behavior A you record 45 tallies, and on behavior B you record 55 tallies. Which of the following is a correct random-number interval for behavior A? A. 00 to 45 B. 00 to 44 C. 56 to 99 D. 55 to 100 E. 45 to 100
answer
B- 00 to 44
question
In modeling a simulation, random numbers from 00 to 99 are assigned with the intervals determined from frequency distributions for each behavior occurrence. Assume there are two behaviors, X and Y, out of 50 tallies. On behavior X you record 20 tallies, and on behavior Y you record 30 tallies. Which of the following is a correct random-number interval for behavior X? A. 00 to 19 B. 01 to 20 C. 00 to 39 D. 41 to 61 E. 45 to 100
answer
C- 00 to 39
question
A small vendor has either a good day of sales with an average of $1,000 or a bad day with an average of only $500 for the day. To simulate these outcomes, random numbers from 00 to 99 should be assigned with the intervals determined from the frequency distribution. If, during the last 100 days, the vendor had 27 good days and 73 bad days, which of the following is a correct random-number interval for a bad day? A. 28 to 99 B. 27 to 73 C. 27 to 100 D. 27 to 99 E. 00 to 26
answer
D- 27 to 99
question
Which of the following is an example of general-purpose simulation software? A. Link Trainer Programs B. SIMSCRIPT II.5 C. SIM-Central D. C++ E. Visual Basic
answer
B- SIMSCRIPT II.5
question
Which of the following is an example of general-purpose simulation software? A. PC-MODEL B. MAP/1 C. SIMFACTORY D. Canella IV E. OPUS/2.3
answer
A- PC-MODEL
question
Which of the following is not an example of general-purpose simulation software? A. SIMAN B. GPSS/PC C. RESQ D. GAPE/H E. SLAMII
answer
D- GAPE/H
question
When arrivals occur in a purely random fashion at a service facility, what kind of distribution does a plot of interarrival times yield? ___________________________
answer
exponential
question
When arrivals occur in a purely random fashion at a service facility, the distribution of the number of arrivals per unit of time forms which kind of distribution? ______________________________________
answer
Poisson
question
In finite queuing theory, the average waiting time in line is denoted by what symbol?
answer
W
question
In infinite queuing theory, the average number in the waiting line divided by the average arrival rate yields what measure of waiting line performance? _________________________________
answer
average waiting time
question
Joining a line at an airport shoeshine stand where there are five people shining shoes puts you in which type of queuing system line structure? ______________________________________________________
answer
multichannel, single phase
question
Buying items at a department store where there are a large number of checkout counters features which type of queuing system line structure? ______________________________________
answer
multichannel, single phase
question
Getting a flu shot from the one campus nurse who is on duty might involve standing in which type of queuing line structure? _____________________________________
answer
single channel, single phase
question
In getting your first driver's license, several steps had to be taken. First, you took the written test. Then you took the driving test. Then your photograph was taken and the license made. What was the queuing system line structure in the Department of Motor Vehicles? ________________________________
answer
single channel, multiphase
question
Standing in line to buy tickets for a basketball game where there are multiple ticket windows involves which type of queuing system line structure? _________________________________
answer
multichannel, single phase
question
A single toll booth on a one-lane bridge is which type of queuing system line structure?
answer
single channel, single phase