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Aerobic Physical Activity
Physical Fitness
Kinesiology 201 Exercise Section. Endurance exercise, regular activity, body reduce effect – Flashcards 152 terms
152 terms
Preview
Kinesiology 201 Exercise Section. Endurance exercise, regular activity, body reduce effect – Flashcards
question
getting 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic exercise per week
answer
What does the latest version of the Physical Activity and Exercise Guide lines for Americans recommend?
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periodization
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What is another name for cycle training?
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a little physical activity is better then none
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Which statement is correct regarding physical activity?
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vary the program from time to time
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What is one way t develop a higher degree of fitness?
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exercise moderately for 60 to 90 minutes per day on most days of the week.
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The physical activity and exercise recommendations for promoting General Health, Fitness, and Weight Management suggest which action to achieve or maintain weight loss?
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it restores circulation to its normal resting condition.
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How does cooling down help those who exercise?
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cardiorespiratory endurance
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What term is defined as the ability of the body to perform prolonged, large-muscle, dynamic exercise at moderate to high levels of intensity?
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when a person increases the intensity of exercise before increasing the time (duration) of exercise
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When do overuse or over training injuries occur?
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the resting heart rate decreases
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what is one effect of increasing one's cardiorespiratory endurance?
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stable diet, resistance training, and cardiorespiratory endurance exercise
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Which combination of activities develops healthy body composition?
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the amount of force a muscle can produce with a single maximum effort
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What is the definition of muscular strength?
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exercise consistently
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What is a key to improving fitness?
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the cells get smaller in size
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Which change to muscle cells causes older adults to lose muscular strength?
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activities that involve working with resistance such as weights or performing callisthenic exercise.
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Which activities best develop muscular strength and endurance?
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the ability to resist fatigue and to sustain muscular tension over time
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What is muscular endurance?
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walking, climbing stairs, and yard work
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Which activities are on the bottom level of the physical activity pyramid?
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high proportion of muscle, bone, and water and an acceptably low proportion of fat.
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What characterizes healthy body composition?
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Goals should be clear and important to you personally.
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what characteristic helps make goals long lasting and attainable?
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agility
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Which ability is a skill-related fitness component?
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assess your current fitness level
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What is the first step in creating a successful fitness program?
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transport nutrients
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Which is one of the functions of the cardiorespiratory system?
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avoiding or minimizing high impact activities
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which is included in the guidelines for preventing exercise injuries?
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the lungs
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which organ is part of the cardiorespiratory system?
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exercise at the low end of the target heart rate range
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What should a beginner do during the initial phase of an exercise program?
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pulmonary
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Which circulation does the right side of the heart provide?
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it restores circulation to its normal resting condition
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Why is cooling dwn after exercise important?
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the lungs
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To where does pulmonary circulation carry blood?
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It can enhance performance and reduce injuries.
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Which statement refers to a warm-up session?
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Aorata
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Which is the largest artery in the body?
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Intensity
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On what does the recommended time (duration) of an endurance training workout depend?
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contracting
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What is the state of the heart during systole?
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rating of perceived exertion
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In addition to pulse counting, who can one monitor exercise intensity?
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Capillaries
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Which small blood vessels distribute blood throughout the body?
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intensity
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Which is the most important exercise factor for achieving tainning effects?
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They allow for the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen
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What functions does the alveoli serve in the lungs?
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between 65% and 90%
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What percentage of the maximum heart rate is an appropriate target heat rate zone for an average individual?
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right and left coronary arteries
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Which large blood vessels branch off the aorta and supply the heart muscle with oxygenated blood?
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It can increases daily energy expenditure
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How does regular endurance exercise contribute to better control of body fat?
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60 bpm
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What is a typical resting heart rate for a healthy individual?
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It improves control of blood sugar
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How does regular endurance exercise reduce the risk of Type 2 Diabetes?
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by measuring the most force a muscle can produce in one effort
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How is muscular strength assessed?
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rest between sets of exercises
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Which approach is recommended for strength training safety?
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by measuring the ability to exert a sub maximal force repeatedly over time
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How is muscular endurance assessed?
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a muscle that is stretched when an agonist muscle contracts, opposing the agonist
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Which defines an antagonist muscle?
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one motor nerve connected to muscle fibers
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What makes up a motor unit?
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8-10
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For overall fitness, how many different exercises should a weight-training program include?
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an individual muscle cell
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Which describes a muscle fiber?
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3 sets, 12-15 repetitions, 65% of 1 RM
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According to the NSCA guidelines, which exercise program is an example of a weight-training program focused on building muscular endurance?
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an increase in muscle fiber size
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Which is a definition of hypertrophy?
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30 to 90 seconds
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According to the NSCA guidelines, how long should the rest interval between sets last when focusing on general fitness?
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fatigue resistance
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What characterizes slow twitch muscle fivers?
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group of repetitions followed by a rest period
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In weight training, what is the definition of a set?
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rapid contraction
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What characterizes fast twitch muscle fibers?
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use light resistance with many repetitions
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what is the best way to improve muscular endurance?
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walking and jogging
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Which activities predominantly use slow-twitch muscle fibers?
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use heavy resistance with few repetitions for multiple sets
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What is the best way to build individual muscle strength and muscle size?
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abdomen and hips
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properly aligning the spine and the strong muscles in which area can reduce such injuries as low back pain?
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amount of weight lifted
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What determines training intensity for weigh training?
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primarily by increasing muscle mass
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How does strength training improve body composition?
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2
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What is the MINIMUM number of training days per week for gaining strength?
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structure of a joint
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Upon which does static flexibility depends?
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after a warm-up or workout
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When should a person perform stretching exercise?
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may not produce a sufficient stretch
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What is a disadvantage of active stretching?
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semi-elastic structures that surround major joints
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What are joint capsules
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long-term, consistent coordination of many aspects of a wellness prgram
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What does successful management of body composition require?
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associated with a significantly increased risk of disease
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Which association is accurate for people with a waist-to-hip ratio above 1.0?
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women have essential fat deposited in the breasts, uterus, and other sex specific sites
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Why do women have a higher proportion of essential fat than me?
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avoiding under hydration prior to the measurement
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Which approach helps avoid errors in bioelectrical impedance analysis?
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fat incorporated into the organs and tissues
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Which is a definition of essential fat?
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good communication with partner
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Which is an essential component of safe passive stretching?
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elastin
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what are the yellow fibers that make connective tissue flexible?
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PNF
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Which type of stretching usually requires a partner?
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elastin and collagen
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What are the two principla types of connective tissue in a muscle?
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proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
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what type of stretching features contracting a muscle prior to stretching?
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they are a practical way to assess body composition
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Which statement about skin-fold measurements is true?
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increased portion sizes
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What is one possible explanation for he increase in obesity among Americans over the past 40 years?
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body density
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Hydrostatic weighing uses which statistic to predict the percentage of body fat?
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diabetes
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What condition do obese people develop at three times faster rate of non-obese people?
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+- 4%
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What is the error range fro skin-fold measurements?
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it is objective and gives details of a person's plan for behavior change
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What does a personal contract for behavior change include?
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emotional wellness
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Which dimension of wellness includes optimism, trust, and self-confidence?
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it makes the ultimate goal seem more manageable
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How does setting realistic , specific goals help a persons change unwanted behavior?
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possession of a set of guiding beliefs that give meaning to life
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Which best describes spiritual wellness?
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a plan that sets goals
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What is the key to a successful behavior change program?
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a network of caring people
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which characteristic helps improve interpersonal and social wellness?
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preparation stage
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According to the "stages of change" model of changing behavior which stage includes people who begin to make small changes in their behavior?
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it seeks to achieve a better quality of life for Amercians
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What is a characteristic of the U.S. government's Healthy People Reports?
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life expectancy has nearly doubled in length
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How has the average life expectancy changed in the past 100 years?
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they often interact with each other
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What is true about the factors involved in wellness?
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a person's belief she or he can take action and perform a specific task
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what is the best definition for self-efficacy?
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high blood pressure
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which condition can result from a diet high in calories, fat and low in fiber?
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start with something simple
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When choosing a target behavior to change, how can one maximize her chances of success?
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the top causes of death int he United States
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Which condition is associated with tobacco use?
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heart disease, cancer, and chronic lower respiratory diseases
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What are the three leading causes of death in the United States?
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prevention
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What i the most effective way of dealing with disease?
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a plan that sets goals
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What is the key to successful behavior change program?
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doing push-ups to develop chest and shoulder endurance
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Which activity best demonstrates specificity of training?
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symptoms of heart disease
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Which condition can an exercise stress test determine?
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progressive overload
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The body adapting to a gradual increase in the amount of exercise is the definition of which stage of exercising?
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duration
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What determines the amount of overload needed to maintain or improve one's fitness level?
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5 to 30%
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What is the maximal improvement in the body's ability to transport and use oxygen that people can expect...
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fitness benefits occur when a person exercises harder then his or her normal level of activity
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What can one expect to experience with exercise intensity?
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intensity
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If one must temporarily stop exercising regularly, which factor should be maintained while the others are curtailed?
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the number of sets and repetitions of specific exercises
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What principle forms the base of the time component of the FITT principle for overload for a muscular strength program?
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20 to 60 minutes
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What is the recommended duration for cardiorespriratory endurance exercise?
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fat
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Which element is an energy-containing nutrient?
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it reduces the risk of dementia
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What effect does regular moderate endurance exercise have on a person?
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glucose
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Into what substance do most carbohydrates break down during digestion?
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the sedentary student has about the same VO2 max
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How does the VO2 max of a sedentary college student compare to an older athlete?
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Glycogen
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What is the storage form of carbohydrate in the liver, muscles, an kidneys?
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high blood pressue
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What of the following does endurance exercise reduce?
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It is converted to fat and stored in the body's fatty tissues
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If glycogen stores are full and the body's immediate need for energy is met, what happens to the remaining glucose?
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It beats 10 to 20 beats per minute lower
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What happens to the resting heart rate as a result of regular endurance exercise?
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weight lifting
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Which activity primarily uses the immediate energy system?
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increased heart size
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What is long-term effect of regular cardiorespiratory exercise
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when muscle mass increases
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When does the metabolic rate increase?
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Pilates
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Which describes a type of body weight exercise that emphasize control of movement?
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15%
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How much boost to the resting metabolic rate can strength training provide?
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Free weights adapt to real life motion
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Which is true when comparing free weights and weight machines?
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testosterone
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Which essential hormone do men have in higher amounts than women...
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applying force at a constant speed
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What is the best description of isokinetic exercise?
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loss of bone mass
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Which is a result of inactivity and aging?
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plyometrics
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Which type of exercise is an individual performing when she/he jumps from a platform to the ground and then jumps back up on the platform?
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30
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At what age do people typically begin to lose muscle mass?
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plyometrics
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What is a good resistance training technique for developing explosive strength?
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lower risk of sport injury
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What is an outcome of good flexibility?
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ballistic streching
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Which stretching technique is most commonly associated with injury?
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prevention of muscle strains
answer
which benefit comes with flexibility?
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2 or 3
answer
according to the american college of sports medicine, how many day a week should one perform stretching exercises?
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3 days per week, 20 seconds per stretch 4 repetitions of each stretch
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which stretching program conforms to ACSM
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resistance to the effects of insuin
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which is a symptom of metabolic syndrome
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obese
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how is a person with a body mass index of 31.2 classified?
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men and women
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for which group of people does metabolic syndrome increase the risk of heart disease?
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500 calories
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since 1970, how much has the daily calorie intake among Americans risen?
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it accounts for 5 % to 10% of all cases of diabetes
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which is true about type 1 diabetes?
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they may stimulate a muscular contraction during a stretch
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why are ballistic stretches considered dangerous?
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it depends on individual fitness goals and choice of sports and activities
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which statement describes an appropriate goal for flexibility?
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overweight
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How is a person with a body mass index of 26.5 classified?
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it is best prevented through a healthy diet and regular physical activity
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which is true for type 2 diabetes
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diabetes
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which condition are people who tend to gain weigh in the abdominal area at a greater risk for developing?
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abnormal eating patterns, premature osteoporosis and amenorrhea
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what makes up the condition called the "female athlete triad"?
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body mass index
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which technique for evaluating health risks associated with body weight is based on the concept that a person's weight should be proportional to his or her height ?
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10-120 seconds
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how long does the nonoxidative energy system typically provide energy?
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increase blood pressure
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What is the immediate effect of cardiorespiratory endurance exercise?
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mitochondria
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which structure in the oxidation energy system produces ATP?
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increased heart rate
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which response occurs immediately when one exercises?
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during periods of mild, low-intensity activity
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when does the body utilize fat efficiently as a fuel?
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The highest rate of oxygen consumption that an individual is capable of during maximum physical effort
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How is maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 max) defined?
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transport nutrients
answer
which is one of the functions of the cardiorespiartory system?
question
exercise at the low end of the target heart rate range
answer
what should a beginner do during the initial phase of an exercise program?
question
pulumonary
answer
which circulation does the right side of the heart provide?
question
it restores circulation to its normal resting condition
answer
why is cooling down after exercise important?
Aerobic Physical Activity
Nutrition
chapter 18 part 2 – Flashcards 15 terms
15 terms
Preview
chapter 18 part 2 – Flashcards
question
Special proteins that direct immune and inflammatory responses are known as ________ .
answer
cytokines
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Which nutrient participates in the synthesis and function of the organs and cells of the immune system and antibody production?
answer
protein
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Which nutrient participates in the cell replication and specialization that supports immune - cell and antibody production and the anti - inflammatory response?
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vitamin A
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Nutrition plays a role in ________ of the top ten causes of death in the United States.
answer
4
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The protein released during the acute phase of infection or inflammation that enhances immunity by promoting phagocytosis and activating platelets is ________ .
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C-reactive protein
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An LDL level of _____ mg/dL is considered desirable.
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<100
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Metabolic syndrome includes which of the following signs and symptoms?
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HDL<40mg/dL
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Performing aerobic physical activity for at least 40 minutes per day, most days of the week, is expected to result in a blood pressure reduction of ________ mm Hg.
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2 to 5
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Type 1 diabetes is ________ .
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an autoimmune disorder
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In type 2 diabetes, ________ .
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glucose enters the cells slowly
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Arsenic in drinking water raises the risk of ________ cancer.
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lung
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The recommendation to keep total fat 20 to 35 percent of kcalories pertains to reduction in risk of ________ .
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cardiovascular disease
question
What herb may interact with warfarin and coumarin, prolonging bleeding time and increasing the risk of hemorrhage?
answer
feverfew
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Which claim about herbal preparations has research support?
answer
Garlic may lower blood cholesterol
question
The use of large doses of vitamins to treat chronic disease is called ________
answer
orthomolecular medicine
Aerobic Physical Activity
High Fructose Corn Syrup
Nutrition
Nutrition study questions from quizzes – Flashcards 98 terms
98 terms
Preview
Nutrition study questions from quizzes – Flashcards
question
The recommendations for a high-carbohydrate diet refers to one that is ___ in complext carbohydrates and ____ in simple carbohydrates
answer
high, low
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dietary fiber may play a role in the prevention of ____ cancer
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colon
question
is a condition in which one lacks lactase. symptoms include gas and bloating after consuming dairy products
answer
lactose maldigestion
question
are the main problem associated with excessive sugar intake
answer
dental caries
question
the main function of glucose is to supply ____ for the body
answer
energy
question
are products from partial fat metabolism as a result of too little dietary carbohydrate
answer
ketones
question
polysaccharides that cannot be digested by human digestive enzymes, and therefore cannot be absorbed are called ____
answer
dietary fiber
question
a(n) _____ is the simplest form of lipid; it is a carbon chain, flanked by hydrogens, with an acid group at one end and a methyl group at the other end.
answer
fatty acid
question
sometimes phospholipids are used in commercial salad dressings to suspend vegetable oil in water. In this case, phospholipids are serving as ____
answer
emulsifiers
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the process of ____ removes double bonds from fatty acids, giving the fat a more solid consistency.
answer
hydrogenation
question
one fat replacer that has gained notoriety lately due to its undesirable side effects is _____
answer
olestra
question
during rest and light activities, fatty acids are the main fuel for ____
answer
muscles
question
is the name of the disease in which children may be getting adequate calories, but not enough protein
answer
Kwashiorkor
question
an illness that results from a malfunction of the red blood cells because of an incorrect structure in parts of the hemoglobin protein chain is called _____
answer
sickle cell anemia
question
short chain proteins and ____ are the end products of protein digestion that can be taken up by the absorptive cells of the small intestine
answer
amino acids
question
Insulin is one example of a protein that acts as a _____
answer
hormone
question
in proteins, amino acids are joined by _____ bonds
answer
peptide
question
is a type of malnutrition that results primarily from not consuming enough calories
answer
marasmus
question
the best estimate for the about of protein required for nearly all adults is ____ g/kg/day
answer
0.8
question
How many grams of protein are needed per day by a male non-athlete, weighing 87 kg?
answer
70 (87x0.8)
question
The Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences advocates that 10% to 35% of calories come from protein and ________________ from carbohydrate. Select one: a. 20% to 35% b. 45% to 65% c. 50% to 70% d. 55% to 75%
answer
b. 45% to 65%
question
Which of the following yield greater than 4 kcalories per gram? Select one: a. Plant fats b. Plant carbohydrates c. Plant proteins d. Animal proteins
answer
a. Plant fats
question
Minerals can Select one: a. provide energy. b. be destroyed during cooking. c. be degraded by the body. d. become part of the body structural systems.
answer
d. become part of the body structural systems.
question
The correct answer is: become part of the body structural systems. Which of the following does not regulate body processes? Select one: a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Water d. Vitamins
answer
b. Carbohydrates
question
Which of the following is not a nutrition-related objective from Healthy People 2010? Select one: a. Reduce obesity b. Increase fruit intake c. Increase grain intake d. Increase protein intake
answer
d. Increase protein intake
question
Which of the following is not a simple carbohydrate? Select one: a. Starches b. Table sugar c. Disaccharides d. Monosaccharides
answer
a. Starches
question
Food eaten away from home now accounts for close to ____ of the American food dollar. Select one: a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%
answer
c. 50%
question
Healthy People 2010 was designed to Select one: a. promote healthful lifestyles and reduce preventable death and disability in all Americans. b. disclose dietary practices that best support health. c. prevent chronic disease. d. eliminate dietary inadequacies and excesses, and to encourage healthful practices.
answer
a. promote healthful lifestyles and reduce preventable death and disability in all Americans.
question
Which of the following is true about the energy content of nutrients? Select one: a. Lipids supply 7 kcalories per gram. b. Carbohydrates and proteins supply 4 kcalories per gram. c. Alcohol supplies 9 kcalories per gram. d. Lipids and alcohol supply 9 kcalories per gram
answer
b. Carbohydrates and proteins supply 4 kcalories per gram.
question
Which of the following are substances in plant foods that are not digested in the stomach or small intestine? Select one: a. Dextrose b. Disaccharides c. Dietary fiber d. Simple sugars
answer
c. Dietary fiber
question
Which of the following is true about the use of the USDA MyPyramid? Select one: a. The Guide applies to infants. b. Milk and meat are essential to good nutrition. c. Variety is the key to the plan. d. The Guide does not permit use of fats, oils, and sweets.
answer
c. Variety is the key to the plan.
question
The acronym RDA stands for Select one: a. Recommended Dietary Allowance. b. Recommended Daily Allowance. c. Required Dietary Allowance. d. Required Daily Allowance.
answer
a. Recommended Dietary Allowance.
question
Which statement best describes nutrient density? Select one: a. Choose a number of different foods within any given food group rather than the "same old thing." b. Consume a variety of foods from MyPyramid's five major food groups every day. c. Plan your entire day's diet so that you don't overconsume nutrient sources. d. Consume foods that have the most nutrition for their kcalories
answer
d. Consume foods that have the most nutrition for their kcalories
question
Which of the following statements is consistent with the Dietary Guidelines for Americans? Select one: a. Choose a diet very low in fat and cholesterol. b. Balance the food you eat with physical activity. c. Choose a diet with plenty of animal products including milk and meats. d. Eat an abundance of saturated fats.
answer
b. Balance the food you eat with physical activity.
question
Which of the following has been set for vitamin D, fluoride, and biotin? Select one: a. Minimum requirements b. RDAs c. AIs d. Reference Daily Intakes
answer
c. AIs
question
One cup of apple juice has 111 kcalories and 1.4 mg of vitamin C. The same serving size of orange juice has 112 kcalories and 124 mg of vitamin C. Which of the following is true regarding their nutrient density? Select one: a. Apple juice is more vitamin C nutrient dense than orange juice. b. To get adequate vitamin C while watching kcalorie intake, it would be better to consume apple juice than orange juice. c. Apple juice would be a better choice than orange juice in terms of vitamin C, while watching kcalories. d. Orange juice is more vitamin C nutrient dense than apple juice.
answer
d. Orange juice is more vitamin C nutrient dense than apple juice
question
The Dietary Guidelines were issued in response to Select one: a. widespread prevalence of nutritional deficiency. b. concerns regarding disease patterns in the United States. c. nutritional deficiency among children in low socioeconomic classes. d. over-consumption of energy, fat, cholesterol, and alcohol.
answer
b. concerns regarding disease patterns in the United States.
question
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends which of the following? Select one: a. Choosing and preparing foods without salt b. Consuming two alcoholic beverages per day c. Being physically active each day d. Washing meat and poultry
answer
c. Being physically active each day
question
Which of the following measures does not assess nutritional status? Select one: a. Dietary analysis b. Biochemical evaluation c. Clinical evaluation d. Hair analysis
answer
d. Hair analysis
question
Which of the following is an important dietary recommendation for avoiding heartburn? Select one: a. Eat smaller meals that are lower in fat. b. Eat large meals. c. Eat meals low in carbohydrate. d. Avoid fluids.
answer
a. Eat smaller meals that are lower in fat.
question
The ring-like muscles that retard or prevent backflow of partially digested food in the gastrointestinal tract are called Select one: a. sphincters. b. passages. c. openings. d. gates.
answer
a. sphincters.
question
A function of the large intestine is to absorb Select one: a. fats and proteins. b. vitamins and minerals. c. water and minerals. d. proteins and carbohydrates.
answer
c. water and minerals.
question
The function of thick mucus in the stomach is to Select one: a. promote fat digestion. b. activate stomach enzymes. c. protect stomach cells from acid and enzymes. d. keep the stomach bacteria-free.
answer
c. protect stomach cells from acid and enzymes.
question
A recurrent and more serious form of heartburn, also known as acid reflux, is called Select one: a. gastroesophageal reflux disease. b. cardiovascular reflux disease. c. esophageal ulceritis. d. gastric distress.
answer
a. gastroesophageal reflux disease.
question
The study of how genes determine our nutritional requirements is called Select one: a. nutrigenomics. b. food biotechnology. c. nutritional biochemistry. d. genetic engineering.
answer
a. nutrigenomics.
question
Which of the following is true regarding bile? Select one: a. It is secreted in response to the presence of carbohydrates in the small intestine. b. It stimulates the release of pancreatic juices. c. It is produced by the liver. d. It is a hormone.
answer
c. It is produced by the liver.
question
All of the following are characteristics of heartburn except which one? Select one: a. It is a gnawing pain in the upper chest. b. It is caused by a backflow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus. c. It can damage the esophagus because it has no mucus lining to protect the esophagus. d. It subsides when a person relaxes and lies down after a meal
answer
d. It subsides when a person relaxes and lies down after a meal
question
The stomach empties into the small intestine through the Select one: a. pyloric sphincter. b. esophageal sphincter. c. Sphincter of Oddi. d. ileocecal sphincter.
answer
a. pyloric sphincter.
question
Which of the following is true about the lymphatic system? Select one: a. The specialized fluid carried by this system is blood. b. This system never intersects with the bloodstream. c. It is not involved in the transport of nutrients. d. It is important for transporting fat-soluble nutrients.
answer
d. It is important for transporting fat-soluble nutrients.
question
Which of the following is a major source of lactose? Select one: c. photosynthesis. b. Broccoli c. Apples d. Honey
answer
c. photosynthesis.
question
The process that plants use to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of the sun's heat and light is called Select one: a. biosynthesis. b. anabolism. c. photosynthesis. d. glycogenesis.
answer
c. photosynthesis.
question
Lactose intolerance is caused by Select one: a. a milk allergy. b. lactase deficiency. c. milk bacteria. d. intestinal bacteria.
answer
b. lactase deficiency.
question
Which of the following hormones is released to correct a hypoglycemic state? Select one: a. Insulin b. Testosterone c. Estrogen d. Glucagon
answer
d. Glucagon
question
Amylase is Select one: a. an enzyme that digests protein. b. a branched chain of glucose units. c. an enzyme that digests starch. d. a straight chain of glucose units.
answer
c. an enzyme that digests starch.
question
Which of the following is not a rich source of viscous (soluble) fibers? Select one: a. Fruits b. Oatmeal c. Whole wheat bread d. Legumes
answer
c. Whole wheat bread
question
The major symptoms of lactose intolerance are Select one: a. gas, abdominal pain, and distention. b. a rash, sneezing, and stuffy nose. c. a headache and chest pain. d. nausea and vomiting.
answer
a. gas, abdominal pain, and distention.
question
Which of the following describes the process of starch digestion? Select one: a. Starch to lactose to galactose b. Starch to maltose to glucose c. Starch to glycogen to glucose d. Starch to sucrose to fructose
answer
b. Starch to maltose to glucose
question
ou are on a diet and eating less than 50 grams of carbohydrate per day. The claim made in the diet educational materials is that carbohydrate is the main culprit in being overweight, so it must be restricted. Which of the following will happen as a result of this low carbohydrate diet? Select one: a. Proteins in muscles, heart, and other vital organs will be broken down into amino acids to make needed glucose, over time weakening the muscles and organs. b. Fat will be broken down and used as the exclusive fuel, leading to considerable fat loss and little health risk. c. Ketones will be produced from partial protein metabolism to be used for energy. d. Fat will be broken down and converted to glucose that will be used as the primary energy source.
answer
a. Proteins in muscles, heart, and other vital organs will be broken down into amino acids to make needed glucose, over time weakening the muscles and organs.
question
If you had the condition phenylketonuria, which should you not use? Select one: a. Stevia b. Aspartame c. High fructose corn syrup d. Saccharin
answer
b. Aspartame
question
Hydrogenation produces what kinds of fat? Select one: a. High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL) b. Cis-fatty acids c. Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL) d. Trans-fatty acids
answer
d. Trans-fatty acids
question
Which lipoprotein is responsible for picking up cholesterol from dying cells and other sources so it can be transported back to the liver for excretion? Select one: a. Chylomicron b. Low-density lipoprotein c. Very-low-density lipoprotein d. High-density lipoprotein
answer
d. High-density lipoprotein
question
Which of the following would be a good source of polyunsaturated fatty acids? Select one: a. Beef b. Chicken c. Olive oil d. Safflower oil
answer
d. Safflower oil
question
Lipoproteins contain all of the following components except Select one: a. protein. b. cholesterol. c. carbohydrate. d. phospholipid.
answer
c. carbohydrate.
question
Which of the following would you buy if you wanted the highest polyunsaturated fatty acid content? Select one: a. Stick margarine made with canola oil b. Semisolid shortening made with olive oil c. Soft margarine in a tub, made from corn oil d. Liquid, squeezable margarine, made from safflower oil
answer
d. Liquid, squeezable margarine, made from safflower oil
question
Studies of Greenland Eskimos, among others, have demonstrated a relationship between the consumption of fish and the risk for heart disease. What is the most likely mechanism for the reduction of heart disease risk when fish is consumed? Select one: a. The protein in fish lowers the blood cholesterol. b. Fish is low in cholesterol. c. Fish contain fatty acids that decrease blood clotting. d. The carbohydrate in fish lowers blood cholesterol.
answer
c. Fish contain fatty acids that decrease blood clotting.
question
Sterols are similar to triglycerides in which of the following ways? Select one: a. They contain fatty acids. b. They contain glycerol. c. They usually contain three fatty acids. d. They do not dissolve in water.
answer
d. They do not dissolve in water.
question
Which of the following is true about cholesterol? Select one: a. It is an essential nutrient. b. It is found in plant and animal foods. c. It is found only in plants. d. It is found only in animal products
answer
d. It is found only in animal products
question
Triglycerides in food are said to have satiety value primarily because Select one: a. they are high in kcalories. b. they are readily stored in adipose tissue. c. they provide bulk in foods. d. they require bile to be digested.
answer
a. they are high in kcalories.
question
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend getting no more than ______ percent of your total kcalories from fat. Select one: a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35
answer
d. 35
question
Kwashiorkor appears in children between the ages of 2 and 5 years. The reason is that Select one: a. growth needs are low. b. children have been weaned from breast milk early. c. by this time adequate exposure to other children allows them to catch it. d. protein intake has been high for a long enough time to cause kidney damage.
answer
b. children have been weaned from breast milk early.
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The child with kwashiorkor has all the following conditions except Select one: a. moderate weight deficit. b. some visible fat stores. c. edema in the abdomen and legs. d. a skin-and-bones appearance.
answer
d. a skin-and-bones appearance.
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An essential amino acid Select one: a. can be synthesized in the body if there is a nitrogen source. b. can be synthesized in the body if caloric intake is adequate. c. cannot be synthesized in the body in sufficient quantity to meet body needs. d. can be formed in the body from semiessential amino acids.
answer
c. cannot be synthesized in the body in sufficient quantity to meet body needs.
question
Food proteins are used most efficiently when we Select one: a. are eating a very low kcalorie diet. b. eat large quantities of protein even though our kcalorie intake may be low. c. are consuming enough carbohydrates and fats to meet our kcalorie needs. d. are eating enough fat even though carbohydrate intake may be low.
answer
c. are consuming enough carbohydrates and fats to meet our kcalorie needs.
question
Which of the following is true about protein intake in the United States compared to the rest of the world? Select one: a. Plant sources of protein predominate in the United States. b. We eat less animal sources of protein than people in Asia and Africa. c. About 70 percent of the protein we eat in the United States comes from animal products. d. Chicken is our main animal source of protein.
answer
c. About 70 percent of the protein we eat in the United States comes from animal products.
question
Proteins are digested in which areas of the body? Select one: a. Mouth and stomach b. Mouth and small intestine b. sickle cell anemia. d. Small and large intestines
answer
b. sickle cell anemia.
question
A hereditary condition caused by an incorrect amino acid in the amino acid sequence of a protein chain is Select one: a. kwashiorkor. b. sickle cell anemia. c. marasmus. d. edema.
answer
b. sickle cell anemia.
question
Jack weighs 176 pounds (80 kilograms). What would be his RDA for protein? Select one: a. 10 grams b. 64 grams c. 80 grams d. 27 grams
answer
b. 64 grams
question
All of the following describe kwashiorkor and marasmus except Select one: a. forms of protein-energy malnutrition. b. common in developing nations. c. created by political, economic, geographic, social, and dietary factors. d. diseases that are troublesome but not life threatening
answer
d. diseases that are troublesome but not life threatening
question
Today the best estimate for the amount of protein required for nearly all adults is _____ grams per kilogram body weight per day. Select one: a. 2 b. 0.6 c. 0.8 d. 1.5
answer
c. 0.8
question
A body fat level of ____% or greater for women warrants a diagnosis of obesity.
answer
35
question
John weighs 80 kg and is 1.6 m tall. His BMI is ______ kg/m2.
answer
31 (80/(1.6x1.6)
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increases energy expenditure above basal energy needs by about 25-40%.
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physical activity
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a technique for estimating energy expenditure by measuring oxygen used by a person is called ____
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indirect calorimetry
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Underweight is defined as a BMI below ____
answer
18.5
question
restricting food and beverage intake by _____ kcal per day below calorie needs typically leads to weight loss of 1 pound per week.
answer
500
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obesity is a pattern of body fat distribution that is associated with an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension.
answer
android
question
cycles of loss and regain of weight are called ____ relapse prevention. With each cycle, it is easier to gain weight and harder to lose.
answer
yo-yo dieting
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the energy expended to digest, absorb, and further process nutrients in food is called the ____. This equals approximately 5-10% of energy intake.
answer
thermic effect of food
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Bill consumes 2,500 kcalories per day. What would be his energy expenditure, in kcalories, from the thermic effect of food? Select one: a. 125 to 250 b. 250 to 375 c. 300 to 550 d. 425 to 600
answer
a. 125 to 250
question
Margaret's parents are both obese. She has dieted six times, each time losing a considerable amount of weight and subsequently regaining it. Margaret has an aversion to exercise. Which of the following is true about Margaret's situation? Select one: a. Her frequent weight loss attempts have most likely led to greater amounts of lean body mass. b. Her problem is genetic and there is no reason for her to attempt to lose weight. c. When she ends the diet she regains additional body fat. d. Her problem results from poor habits, with studies showing genetics as an insignificant contributor.
answer
c. When she ends the diet she regains additional body fat.
question
Currently, the most common and effective surgical procedure for morbid obesity is Select one: a. intestinal bypass. b. gastric bypass. c. gastric balloons. d. gastrectomy.
answer
b. gastric bypass
question
Which of the following is not true about android obesity? Select one: a. It is upper body obesity. b. High testosterone levels encourage it. c. A low waist-to-hip ratio is indicative of it. d. It is related to heart disease, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.
answer
c. A low waist-to-hip ratio is indicative of it.
question
Which of the following is not a way to estimate body fat? Select one: a. Body mass index b. Bioelectrical impedance c. Skinfolds d. Underwater weighing
answer
a. Body mass index
question
When attempting to use body fat content to define obesity, body fat above ____ for women warrants an obesity diagnosis. Select one: a. 25% b. 20% c. 35% d. 30%
answer
c. 35%
question
The MyPyramid calorie guideline for a 19- to 30-year-old active woman is Select one: a. 1600. b. 2000. c. 2400. d. 2800.
answer
c. 2400
question
The best formal weight loss program for the average dieter is Select one: a. Weight Watchers. b. Jenny Craig. c. Nutri-System. d. Diet Center.
answer
a. Weight Watchers
question
When attempting to use body fat content to define obesity, body fat above ____ for men warrants an obesity diagnosis. Select one: a. 8% b. 20% c. 24% d. 30%
answer
c. 24%
question
Xenical is a weight loss drug that works in the digestive system Select one: a. to substitute xylose for glucose. b. to block digestion of about one-third of the fat in the food we eat. c. to produce a full feeling that decreases hunger. d. as an artificial fat.
answer
b. to block digestion of about one-third of the fat in the food we eat.
Aerobic Physical Activity
Nursing
Total Hip Arthroplasty
BASIC NURSING Chapter 33: Mobility – Flashcards 88 terms
88 terms
Preview
BASIC NURSING Chapter 33: Mobility – Flashcards
question
posture, spinal position
answer
What is body alignment (page 1122)
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when your body is in alignment
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what is balance?
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Proper alignment Wide base of support Avoid bending and twisting Squat to lift Keep objects close when lifting Raise beds Push vs. lift Get help
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What are principles of body mechanics?
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Lifespan Nutrition Lifestyle Stress Environmental factors Diseases & Abnormalities e
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what factors effect mobility?
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bone
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fracture
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stretch injury of a ligament
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sprain
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injury to muscle caused by excessive stress on the muscle
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strain
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when the joint won't go through full range anymore; limited
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what is a joint contracture?
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Muscles and bones lungs Heart and vessels Metabolism Integumentary system Gastrointestinal system Genitourinary system Psychological
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What are complications of immobility?
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Improve or maintain mobility Prevent complications Goals- measureable, specific, time specific
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Goal or outcome associated with immobility?
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Promote exercise Injury prevention from exercise Positioning Moving patients in bed Transferring patients out of bed ROM exercises Ambulation
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Interventions nurses can take
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Positioning Healthy diet Prevent orthostatic hypotension Turn every 2 hours
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Interventions for patients on bedrest
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Change position every 2 hours Firm mattress Clean, dry bed linens Use proper body mechanics Plan the move Avoid manual lift- use assistive devices
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Things pertaining to positioning
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decreases pressure on diaphragm for proper lung expansion
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fowlers position
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laying on side, recumbant-legs straight, oblique-knees flexed
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lateral position
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stomach
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prone position
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left side(raised arm, right leg up and over) , almost prone good for enemas, exposes buttox area
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sims position
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laying flat on your back
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supine position
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Boards Mechanical lifts Transfer belt
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Things used to transfer patients
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3-5x a session a minimum of twice a day
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how often should you perform ROM?
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The stronger side. Go forward with assistive device and weaker or injured leg or side, strong leg then follows through
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if patient is using a cane, which side should the cain be on?
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wide base of support, one leg out, let them slide down and gently slide down with themyou aren't preventing it or breaking their fall
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How do you assist someone to the floor
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High protein- high calorie diet Vitamin B & C Monitor dietary intake at each meal
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metabolic nursing interventions
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Deep breath and cough q 1-2 h Incentive spirometer Minimal fluid intake 1100-1400 mL/day for adults *if not contraindicated
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respiratory nursing interventions
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Body alignment Balance Coordination Joint Mobility Active range of motion (AROM) Passive range of motion (PROM)
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Body Mechanics
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Activity Intolerance Impaired physical mobility Impaired bed mobility Impaired walking Impaired transfer ability Risk for disuse syndrome Sedentary lifestyle
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NANDA Nursing Diagnosis
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Explain purpose Observe patient Support limb Move joint slow, smooth, rhythmic Never force joint Perform PROM BID (3-5 times each session) Return joint to neutral position Encourage AROM
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ROM Exercises
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Reduce orthostatic hypotension Early movement- dangle at bedside or up to chair Avoid straining with BM or moving up in bed- breath out
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Cardiovascular Interventions
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Identify clients at risk ROM exercises Leg, ankle, foot exercises TED hose SCDs Proper and timely administration of anticoagulant medication (Heparin, Lovenox)
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DVT Protocol Intervention
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ROM- active or passive, 2-3 times daily CPM therapy for orthopedic conditions
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Musculoskeletal Interventions
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Reposition q 1-2 h Teach clients to shift weight q 15 minutes; especially sitting in chair Pressure relieving devices
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Integumentary Interventions
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Hydration- 1100-1400 mL fluid/day Toileting routine Monitor bowel movement- frequency and consistency Diet: fruits, vege, fiber
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Elimination Interventions
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Monitor for depression or mood swings Socialization- visitors Daily newspaper Therapeutic communication throughout shift Involve client in care routine- ADL
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Psychosocial Interventions
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usual activity, fitness goals, mobility concerns, underlying health concerns, lifestyle, and external factors.
answer
A nursing history focused on activity and exercise assesses:
question
vital signs, height, weight, body mass index, body alignment, joint function, gait, and activity tolerance.
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Physical assessment that is focused on activity and exercise examines the musculoskeletal system and activity tolerance. Important data include:
question
150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity, or 75 minutes per week of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity, or an equivalent combination of moderate- and vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity.
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The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services physical activity recommendations:
question
the maximum movement possible at a joint.
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Range of motion (ROM) is:
question
the movement of the joint through the entire ROM by the individual.
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Active range of motion is defined as:
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Forms the framework of the body Protects the internal organs Produces red blood cells Serves as a storage site for calcium Works with the muscles to cause movement
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Name three purposes of the skeletal system.
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The three types of muscle are skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.
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Identify three types of muscle.
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is turning downward
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Pronation
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The three components of a well-rounded exercise program are flexibility, resistance training, and aerobic conditioning.
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State the components of an exercise program.
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is turning upward
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Supination
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is turning toward midline
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Internal rotation
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is moving in a circular fashion
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Circumduction
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is straightening, increasing the joint angle
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Extension
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is moving away from midline
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Abduction
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is bending, decreasing the joint angle
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Flexion
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Musculoskeletal system. Inactivity causes significant wasting of the gastrocnemius, soleus, and the leg muscles that control flexion and extension of the hip, knee, and ankle. Confinement to bed leads to a 7% to 10% loss of muscle strength (atrophy) per week. Immobility also causes the joints to become stiff. The strongest muscles, usually the flexors, pull the joints in their direction, leading to contractures or joint ankylosis (fusion of the joints). Immobility affects parathyroid function, calcium metabolism, and bone formation. The result of these changes is osteoporosis, calcium depletion in the joints, and renal calculi (stones) due to increased excretion of calcium. These changes place the patient at risk for pathological fractures with minimal trauma.
answer
Identify the effects of immobility on the musculoskeletal system.
question
Disorders that limit activity or mobility include the following: Congenital abnormalities of the musculoskeletal system Disorders of bone formation, integrity, metabolism, or joint mobility Disorders of the central nervous system or other body systems that produce fatigue, shortness of breath, or impaired circulation
answer
What types of disorders limit activity or mobility?
question
Signs and symptoms of a fracture include the following: Tenderness at the site Loss of function Deformity of the area Swelling of the surrounding tissues Diagnosis is confirmed by x-ray. Treatment of a fracture is stabilization until the body can create enough new bone to support function. The type and severity of fracture determine whether casting or surgical repair is necessary.
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What are the signs and symptoms of a fracture?
question
A strain and sprain have the following differences: A sprain is a stretch injury of a ligament that causes the ligament to tear. A strain is an injury to muscle caused by excessive stress on the muscle.
answer
What is the difference between a strain and a sprain?
question
Integumentary system. External pressure from lying in one position compresses capillaries in the skin, obstructing skin circulation. Poor circulation causes tissue ischemia and possible necrosis (tissue death). Nursing interventions include frequent turning and skin care to prevent the formation of wounds, known as pressure ulcers.
answer
Identify the effects of immobility on the integumentary system.
question
is moving toward midline
answer
Adduction
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Cardiovascular system. Immobility increases the workload of the heart and promotes venous stasis. When you are active, the skeletal muscles of the legs assist with pumping blood back to the heart. Recall that the veins are thin-walled vessels with valves. Muscular activity propels blood toward the right side of the heart, and the valves prevent backflow of blood. Without muscular activity (immobility), blood pools in the periphery. To compensate, heart rate and stroke volume increase to maintain blood pressure. In addition to venous pooling, immobility leads to compression and injury of the small vessels in the legs and decreased clearance of coagulation factors, causing the blood to clot faster. These three changes—stasis, activation of clotting, and vessel injury—make up what is known as Virchow's Triad, a trilogy of symptoms associated with a greater chance of thrombus formation in the affected blood vessels. An immobile person is also more prone to orthostatic hypotension. Bedrest causes inactivation of the baroreceptors involved with constriction and dilation of the vessels. As a result, when a patient who has been immobilized changes position, he is unable to maintain his blood pressure. The patient complains of feeling dizzy and lightheaded and may be unable to support his own weight.
answer
Identify the effects of immobility on the cardiovascular system.
question
Immobility might be referred to as a stressor because it triggers the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, thyroid hormones, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland, and aldosterone from the kidneys. These changes in hormone levels are the same as the stress response, letting us see that immobility can be a stress in itself.
answer
Why might immobility be referred to as a stressor?
question
Immobility slows peristalsis, which often leads to constipation, gas, and difficulty evacuating stool from the rectum. In extreme circumstances, a paralytic ileus (cessation of peristalsis) may occur. With peristalsis slowed, appetite diminishes and food that is consumed is digested slowly. The net effect is usually decreased caloric intake and inability to meet the protein demands of the body. Body muscle is broken down as a fuel source, and further wasting occurs.
answer
What are three effects of immobility on the GI system?
question
Patients who are in bed (immobile) for long periods of time can suffer depression, anxiety, hostility, sleep disturbances, and changes in their ability to perform self-care activities, as well as disorientation and apathy.
answer
What changes in mood might be seen with immobility?
question
The focused assessment includes gathering a nursing history and performing a physical examination. A nursing history focused on activity and exercise assesses past and current activity, as well as future plans. The history addresses the following topics: Usual activity Fitness goals Mobility concerns Underlying health concerns Lifestyle External factors A physical examination focused on activity and exercise assesses the musculoskeletal system and activity tolerance. Important data include vital signs, pain assessment, height, weight, body mass index, body alignment, joint function, gait, and activity tolerance.
answer
Describe a focused assessment for a patient experiencing mobility concerns.
question
Assessing joint function includes inspection and palpation of the joints and assessment of range of motion. Inspect each joint for swelling, erythema, asymmetry, or obvious deformity. Compare the size of the muscles above and below the joint and on each side of the body. Palpate the joint for temperature and crepitus. Warmth over a joint indicates inflammation or infection. Be sure to compare body temperature over several joints and right to left. As you palpate the joint, move it through its range of motion. Auscultation is part of the physical assessment for mobility and range of motion. Listen for crepitus, which is a grating sensation when the joint is moved. It can often be heard as well as felt.
answer
Identify the assessment methods (inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation) used when performing a physical examination focused on mobility concerns.
question
The five crutch gaits are the two-point gait, three-point gait, four-point gait, swing-to gait, and swing-through gait.
answer
Identify five crutch gaits.
question
partial weight bearing.
answer
Two-point and four-point gaits are used for
question
non-weight bearing
answer
Three-point gait is used for
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weight bearing is permitted.
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Swing-to and swing-through are used when
question
The forearm support crutch is more likely to be used by a patient with permanent limitations.
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When are forearm support crutches used?
question
Protect the patient as you guide him to a seated or lying position.
answer
What action should you take if a patient begins to fall when ambulating?
question
A transfer belt should be used when helping a weak patient from a bed to a chair.
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Helping a weak patient from bed to chair
question
A mechanical lift should be used when assisting an immobile patient to a recliner chair.
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Assisting an immobile patient to a recliner chair
question
A transfer board should be used when transferring an obese patient from a bed to a stretcher.
answer
Identify the most appropriate device for the following activities: Transferring an obese patient from a bed to a stretcher
question
Conditioning exercises that promote a patient's readiness for ambulation include the following: Quadriceps and gluteal drills. Arm exercises. The arm muscles are used when getting out of bed and for crutch walking. To prepare the patient for ambulation, install a trapeze bar. The trapeze bar exercises the biceps muscles. To exercise the triceps muscles, ask the patient to lift his upper body off the mattress by firmly pressing down with the palms. Push-ups can also be done from a seated position at the side of the bed or from a stationary chair or wheelchair. Dangling Daily activities
answer
Describe activities that can promote a patient's readiness for ambulation.
question
Answer: D. Performing a skin assessment to dependent areas at least once every shift Rationale: Other responses are incorrect. A diet low in calcium will not prevent kidney stones; kidney stones develop only in susceptible people, regardless of calcium intake. Limiting the fluid intake will place the patient at risk for a urinary tract infection. Keeping extremities still will lead to increased venous pooling and risk for the development of blood clots.
answer
In addition to proper positioning, which of the following would be an important nursing measure for a patient who is immobile? A. Encouraging a low-calcium diet to prevent kidney stones B. Limiting fluid intake so she does not have to use the bedpan as frequently C. Encouraging the patient to lie still so he does not cause a blood clot to become dislodged D. Performing a skin assessment to dependent areas at least once every shift
question
Answer: B. Basketball sneakers Rationale: Basketball sneakers are a type of high-top shoes that help to keep the foot in flexion. The other responses are incorrect. A trapeze would not be used by a comatose patient. A pillow is too soft to maintain proper position of the feet. A trochanter roll prevents external rotation of the hips.
answer
Mary is working in a small rural hospital and is caring for a comatose patient who is beginning to develop foot drop. If there were no footboard available to use for attaining proper positioning of the feet, Mary could use which of the following? A. Overhead trapeze B. Basketball sneakers C. Pillow D. Trochanter roll
question
Answer: C. Activity Intolerance Rationale: There is no data to suggest the patient is not coping or has a knowledge deficit. While she does have impaired mobility, the most accurate diagnosis is Activity Intolerance related to her poor oxygenation status.
answer
Mrs. Williams has severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and becomes very short of breath when completing her ADLs. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would most accurately reflect Mrs. Williams' mobility problem? A. Ineffective Coping B. Impaired Physical Mobility C. Activity Intolerance D. Deficient Knowledge
question
Answer: True
answer
When checking a patient to be sure her body is aligned properly, it is desirable to observe the patient from the front, back, and side views.
question
Leaning over a pillow on a table
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Orthopneic position
question
Lateral curvature of the spine
answer
Scoliosis
question
Used after spinal surgery
answer
Logrolling
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Fusing of the joints
answer
Ankylosis
question
Creaking of the joint
answer
Crepitus
question
Answer: 4) an x-ray of the extremity is obtained. Rationale: A venous or arterial Doppler is used to detect blood flow and would not be used to detect a fracture. Although the clinical exam of the arm indicates a fracture, an x-ray of the suspected bone is a cost-effective, reliable test to definitively diagnose fracture. Applying ice would aid in decreasing the swelling at the site. Signs and symptoms associated with a sprain, strain, or fracture are the same. The variation in density evident on an x-ray allows the clinician to visually diagnose a fracture.
answer
A 10-year-old boy fell playing ice hockey. He comes to the emergency department complaining of pain in his right forearm. The nurse notes that the boy's arm is swelling and tender to touch. There is an area of bruising on the lateral aspect of his arm, which upon palpation is very firm. The nurse suspects a fracture; however, it cannot be confirmed until: 1) a venous and arterial Doppler is obtained. 2) clinical exam of the arm indicates a fracture. 3) the swelling is decreased by applying ice. 4) an x-ray of the extremity is obtained.
question
Answer: 4) lead with the left leg when going up steps, and lead with the right leg when going down steps. Rationale: To teach the patient how to go down stairs, instruct him to hold his injured leg in front and hop down each stair on his good leg, one step at a time. When going up stairs with no handrail, he should lead with his good leg by standing close to the first step with weight on the crutches, and lift the uninjured leg, landing it solidly on the step. Then bring the crutches up to that same step, and repeat. If there is a handrail, then patient holds the crutches in one hand and handrail with the other. He then brings the good leg up one step, while the injured leg bears no weight.
answer
A 50-year-old woman had a surgical repair of a fracture of her right tibia 2 days ago. She has been using crutches for ambulation and must remain non-weight-bearing on her right leg, but must learn to use the steps leading into her house. The nurse should instruct the woman to: 1) set the crutches aside and use the stair rail to bear weight only on the left leg when going up or down stairs. 2) use the crutches, maintaining toe-touch weight-bearing on the right leg when going up or down the stairs. 3) have someone carry her up and down the stairs. 4) lead with the left leg when going up steps, and lead with the right leg when going down steps.
question
Answer: 3) "The risk of having a heart attack during strenuous exercise is low, but you still should be checked out first." Rationale: Exercise itself is rarely life threatening, especially when compared with the alternative (not exercising). Before starting an exercise program or significantly increasing the intensity of normal workouts, seasoned athletes as well as rank beginners should be screened for underlying health problems, such as high blood pressure, thickened heart muscle (cardiac hypertrophy), electrical abnormalities, and blood vessel abnormalities. Although showing empathy might help establish rapport and asking questions about family medical history might elicit information, neither does anything to address the patient's concern and encourage him to exercise. He is not a "high-risk" patient according to the data in this scenario and would not have a greater risk of heart attack with strenuous physical activity.
answer
A middle-aged man has no known medical problems, although he is overweight. He tells the nurse that he is a computer programmer and gets little exercise. The nurse suggests to the patient that a fitness program would be beneficial to control his weight and improve his overall health. The patient states "I would like to exercise but I am afraid I will have a heart attack and die if I strain my heart too much." The nurse's best response would be: 1) "It sounds like you are fearful of having a heart attack and dying. I understand why you might feel this way." 2) "There is a health history of heart attack in your family; tell me more about that." 3) "The risk of having a heart attack during strenuous exercise is low, but you still should be checked out first." 4) "The risk of having a heart attack during strenuous exercise increases in a high-risk patient such as you."
question
Answer: 3) Activity Intolerance related to morbid obesity and dyspnea secondary to sedentary lifestyle. Rationale: In this scenario, Impaired Physical Mobility is the etiology of another problem: Activity Intolerance. Activity Intolerance is a state in which a patient has insufficient physical or psychological energy to carry out daily activities. Subjective characteristics include fatigue, weakness, and discomfort on exertion, dyspnea, and verbalization of no interest in activity. Objective characteristics include changes in heart rate, blood pressure disproportionate to activity, dysrhythmias, or evidence of ischemia on electrocardiogram (ECG), and pallor or cyanosis with activity. There is no evidence that this patient has limited range of motion. Disuse syndrome is a more severe complication of immobility, more likely to be seen where there is almost total lack of skeletal muscle activity.
answer
A patient is obese with complaints of fatigue with activity. She states, "I am so tired, I can't even walk out to my mailbox without resting every 5 minutes." Her vital signs are within normal limits at rest; however, upon minimal exertion she experiences dyspnea, and her pulse rises from 80 to 140 beats/min. She denies chest pain and has full range of motion to all joints. The nurse practitioner explains to the patient that she needs to lose weight and begin a fitness program. The best nursing diagnosis for this patient is: 1) Impaired Physical Mobility related to obesity. 2) Risk for Disuse Syndrome related to musculoskeletal inactivity. 3) Activity Intolerance related to morbid obesity and dyspnea secondary to sedentary lifestyle. 4) Impaired Physical Mobility related to limited range of motion, secondary to obesity.
question
Answer: 1) Endurance 2) Activity Tolerance Rationale: Both Endurance and Activity Tolerance, if demonstrated by this patient, would show that her problem (Activity Intolerance) is improving. Active Joint Movement and Mobility Level relate to part of the etiology of her problem, which is lack of activity. Even if she demonstrates joint movement and other mobility, this would not necessarily indicate that she is tolerating the activity well.
answer
A patient is obese with complaints of fatigue with activity. The nurse is planning goals for this patient. Which of the following NOC outcome(s) relate(s) directly to the above nursing diagnosis; that is, which outcome(s), if achieved, would demonstrate resolution of her problem? Select all that apply. 1) Endurance 2) Activity Tolerance 3) Active Joint Movement 4) Mobility Level
question
Answer: 1) consult her primary care provider prior to starting a fitness program. 2) increase her level of activity within her daily routine. 3) refuel with protein and carbohydrate within 45 minutes of her workout. 4) rest as needed when her perceived level of exertion is high. Rationale: This patient can begin to improve her activity tolerance by increasing her level of physical activity with everyday activities, such as taking stairs instead of an elevator, or parking farther rather than the closest spot. A regular exercise program has many benefits, including weight loss and improving overall cardiovascular health. However, to reduce the risk of injury and other health complications, she needs to be seen by her primary care provider for a thorough history and physical assessment. If she has not been exercising regularly, it is best to start out slow and gradually increase the intensity and frequency of her workout, and rest as needed when her perceived level of exertion is high. Using the Talk Test, that would be when she is too tired to talk while exercising. After a moderate or vigorous intensity workout, the body needs to be refueled with protein and carbohydrate, regardless of the person's baseline weight (i.e., whether the person is a normal weight or obese). Good hydration, especially water, not only quenches thirst but also replaces the fluid lost by exertion and perspiration.
answer
A patient is obese wants to lose weight and start exercising. She complains of fatigue with activity. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate for this patient? Encourage her to (select all that apply): 1) consult her primary care provider prior to starting a fitness program. 2) increase her level of activity within her daily routine. 3) refuel with protein and carbohydrate within 45 minutes of her workout. 4) rest as needed when her perceived level of exertion is high.
question
Answer: 4) participates in a fitness program at the community center 3 days a week. Rationale: By participating regularly in an exercise program, the patient has demonstrated an increase in activity tolerance (recall that her goal was Activity Tolerance). This is also an indication that her sedentary lifestyle habits are changing.
answer
A patient is obese with complaints of fatigue with activity. To evaluate your nursing care plan for this patient, at the end of 12 weeks an indication of its effectiveness would be that she: 1) has lost 15 pounds when measured at the same time as the initial weight. 2) has full range of motion to all joints without experiencing pain. 3) jogs five city blocks twice a week without tiring or stopping. 4) participates in a fitness program at the community center 3 days a week.
question
Answer: 2) "Gaining weight and getting out of shape takes time; reversing this also takes time." Rationale: Many patients feel they have tried to exercise but that it did not make a difference, and they give up. Remind them that gaining weight and getting out of shape takes time and that reversing these changes also takes time. Patients may not begin to see the effects of an exercise program for at least 12 weeks. Encourage them to be consistent and not give up.
answer
To promote exercise for a patient who is obese, the nurse's best statement would be: 1) "I know exercising is hard, but you are going to have to do it to remain healthy." 2) "Gaining weight and getting out of shape takes time; reversing this also takes time." 3) "I know exactly how you feel; I absolutely hate to exercise, too." 4) "The problem was probably the exercise program you participated in."
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Rationale: For prevention of weight gain in most adults, adults are encouraged to engage in physical activity for 150 to 250 minutes per week with an energy equivalent of 1,200 to 2,000 kcal/week. However, when an adult has lost a significant amount of weight, more physical activity is needed to help minimize weight regain. Approximately 250 to 300 minutes of physical activity per week is advised by the American College of Sports Medicine, although "more is better."
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To prevent weight gain in an adult who has lost a significant amount of weight, how much physical activity should the nurse recommend? 1) 60 to 119 minutes/week 2) 120 to 150 minutes/week 3) 151 to 250 minutes/week 4) More than 250 minutes/week Answer: 4) More than 250 minutes/week
Aerobic Physical Activity
Human Anatomy And Physiology 1
Increase The Risk
National School Lunch Program
Normal Blood Glucose Levels
Nutrition
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
Nutrition Chapters 14 & 15 – Flashcards 30 terms
30 terms
Preview
Nutrition Chapters 14 & 15 – Flashcards
question
A cup (8 ounces) of which beverage has the highest caffeine content?
answer
drip brewed coffee
question
A man's diet and lifestyle do not affect the likelihood of conception.
answer
false
question
Certain fish contain methylmercury and should be avoided by pregnant women.
answer
true
question
Besides iron, which other minerals should a pregnant woman also take to prevent a deficiency?
answer
zinc and copper
question
Which of the following is the site of common tissue between the mother and embryo?
answer
placenta
question
Which is a benefit of daily exercise during pregnancy?
answer
prevents backaches, relives constipation and shortens labor
question
Healthy pregnant women should get at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity, spread over a 7-day period, each week.
answer
true
question
Macrosomia occurs when blood pressure rises in a pregnant woman.
answer
false, it's a large baby weighing more than 8 pounds 13 ounces
question
During the second trimester, pregnant women should consume an additional 500 calories daily.
answer
false, it should be 340
question
Eclampsia is a major cause of death of women during pregnancy.
answer
true, it can cause seizures
question
Which of the following causes the milk to be released from the breast?
answer
oxytocin
question
Which of the following binds iron and protects infant against bacteria?
answer
lactoferrin
question
Which of the following is a fatty acid needed for brain development?
answer
DHA
question
Oxytocin causes milk to be produced in the breast.
answer
false, prolactin produces it
question
Colostrum is rich in antibodies that help protect infants from infections.
answer
true
question
If a child doesn't reach the appropriate milestones, he or she may eventually develop a condition called failure to thrive.
answer
true
question
Inconsolable crying by an infant, often for long periods of time, is called colic.
answer
true
question
The cells that release histamines when allergic reactions occur are called mass cells
answer
false
question
A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction is called an anaphylactic reaction.
answer
true
question
Individuals with allergies often carry a syringe injector of epinephrine to be self-administered when severe reactions occur.
answer
true
question
Picky eating is when children will only eat the same food, meal after meal.
answer
false, it's the unwillingness to try unfarmiliar foods
question
The National School Lunch Program is designed to meet nutrition standards based on the latest
answer
Dietary Guidelines for Americans.
question
Children and teens require at least 30 minutes of physical activity every day.
answer
false, they need at least 60 minutes
question
Too much preformed vitamin A may increase the risk of
answer
osteoporosis
question
The requirement for vitamin D increases with age because
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intestines lose their ability to absorb it, kidneys lose their ability to convert it to the active form and the skin's ability to make it from sunlight decreases.
question
The number of individuals 65 years of age and older is projected to ________ in the next decade.
answer
increase
question
The skin's ability to make vitamin D with the assistance of sunlight decreases with age.
answer
true
question
Which of the following describes meals eaten at a facility?
answer
congregate meals
question
Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of dementia in older adults.
answer
true
question
The anti-inflammatory activities of omega-3 fatty acids may reduce the stiffness and joint tenderness characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.
answer
true
3 Times Per Week
Aerobic Physical Activity
Physical Fitness
Self Concept And Self Esteem
Rat #7: Effects of Physical Exercise on Cognitive Functioning Flashcards 25 terms
25 terms
Preview
Rat #7: Effects of Physical Exercise on Cognitive Functioning Flashcards
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE.
answer
High intensity exercise is necessary to produce changes in anxiety and depression.
question
The relationship between exercise and hardiness has recently been investigated. A hardly personality is characterized by
answer
All of the above
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE
answer
An increase in physical fitness is necessary to produce decreases in anxiety
question
Which of the following is TRUE
answer
Exercise produces larger antidepressant effects when the training program is at least 9 weeks long.
question
Which of the following conditions is generally not related to positive changes in mood?
answer
Interpersonal competition
question
Which of the following physiological explanations has NOT been put forth to help describe the positive relationship between exercise and psychological well being?
answer
Decreased maximal oxygen to the tissues
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding exercise and cognitive functioning?
answer
moderate intensity exercise if related to increased performance of speed of information processing wheras high intensity exercise improves executive functioning.
question
The \"runners high\" is thought to be related to production of ___________ in the brain.
answer
Endorphies
question
The \"runners high\" is facilitated by the following with the exception of.
answer
moderate distance (>3 miles)
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding exercise as therapy?
answer
Exercise therapy is best conducted by a professional with training only in clinical psychology
question
The premise of the health belief model is that individuals will engage in preventive health behaviors depending on the individuals perception of the:
answer
Severity of past illnesses
question
According to research on adherence to exercise programs, what percentages of individuals starting an exercise program will likely drop out after 6 month?
answer
50%
question
The major barrier to physical activity is
answer
lack of time
question
Which of the following is NOT positively related to exercise adherence?
answer
Blue collar profession
question
According to social cognitive theory the most crucial factor in making a positive lifestyle change such as exercising is
answer
Self-efficacy
question
According the trans theoretical model during the _________stage the couch potato is having fleeting thoughts about excercise
answer
Contemplation
question
According to the trans theoretical model the ____________stage correlates to the highest risk of relapse.
answer
Action
question
A new client states in his initial interview that he is meeting with you because of his wife and doctors prodding. Based on the trans theoretical model what would be the most appropriate intervention at that point?
answer
Decissional balance sheet
question
Contracts to enhance exercise adherence should include
answer
All of the above
question
As a person moves through the stages of changes, reasons for exercise becomes more
answer
Internal
question
To prevent a relapse in physical activity, it is suggested that a person engage in all but one of the following:
answer
Replace \"wants\" with \"should's\"
question
Which of the following statements is true of the use of a decisional balance sheet?
answer
all of the above
question
Studies on social support as a strategy to help adherence have indicated that
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Social support on works with support from close friends
question
____________are verbal, physical, or symbolic cues to initiate behaviors (e.g posters encouraging people to take the stairs, telephone reminders, packing a gym bag for the next day before going to bed, scheduling time for excercise in a daily schedule).
answer
Prompts
question
In adhering to exercise long term the individual needs to eventually shift to
answer
Focusing on the exercise experience itself
Aerobic Physical Activity
Fast Twitch Muscle Fibers
Health Psychology
Physical Activity Guidelines For Americans
Physical Fitness
Health Class Ch5 – Flashcards 21 terms
21 terms
Preview
Health Class Ch5 – Flashcards
question
_______ is the ability to interact effectively with other people
answer
social health
question
All of the following can be impacted by a person's social circle except
answer
sexual behaviors
question
Which of the following may be the most difficult to communicate?
answer
emotions
question
The problem with communicating anger through action only, as in running from the room and slamming the door, is that
answer
There is no indication of what caused the anger
question
When one wants to be assertive, all are true except
answer
being aggressive and powerful toward the other person
question
All of the following are true statements concerning gender differences in communication, except
answer
Men tend to be better listeners than women
question
Nonverbal language makes up what percentage of communication?
answer
90%
question
A person with self-esteem would demonstrate which of the following attributes?
answer
genuine concern and respect for themselves
question
Today's college students are emailing ______, compared to five years ago.
answer
less
question
The appeal of social networking sites includes the opportunity to do all the following except
answer
Participate in political movements
question
The level of information we are willing to share with others is known as
answer
self-disclosure
question
Most of us can maintain no more than_____meaningful relationships
answer
150
question
The closest friendships that most individuals will ever have develop during
answer
young adulthood
question
A true key to overcoming loneliness is
answer
learning to reach out to others
question
All of the following are benefits of altruism except
answer
higher intelligence
question
According to Hans Selye, Satisfying our own needs while helping others satisfy theirs is known a s
answer
altruistic egotism
question
For men, a perceived benefit of traditional dating is
answer
physical intimacy
question
For women, a perceived risk of traditional dating is
answer
the risk of losing a friendship
question
All of the following are effective strategies for staying happy and single, except
answer
Develop one close friendship
question
Undergraduates who were in committed relationships
answer
had fewer mental health problems
question
The term intimacy comes from the Latin word meaning
answer
within
