What does empirical mean, and how does it relate to the study of biology?

Knowledge gathered through observation and experiments that are rational, testable and repeatable. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/bio-111-p1/

Howard was upset that he got a B in Biology, but he felt better knowing that the average grade was a C. Howard was using ______ to make himself feel better.

downward social comparison. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/psychology-chapters-11-12-13-14-15/

which topic falls under the study of biology

the digestive system of an earthworm More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/biology-chapter-1-test/

which of the following are likely topics of a biology course

all of these( lizard, plants, pipefish) More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/biology-chapter-1-test/

which of the following best describes a benefit of studying biology

one is able to intelligently debate issues such as cloning More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/biology-chapter-1-test/

what are the levels of organization in biology? smallest to largest.

molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/biology-semester-one-final-exam-study-guide/

Which could not be included in the work of the biology unit of a crime lab?

fingerprint analysis More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch-1-forensic-science-and-the-law/

Nearly all the major advances in marine biology have come in the last 200 years, What do you think are the reasons for this?

because of new technology More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/oceanography-chapter-1-5/

it relates to how much language is controlled by biology.

The key reason why psychologists are interested in whether parrots or chimpanzees can learn different aspects of language is because More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/psychology-chapter-8-part-2/

What is psychobiology?

the scientific study of the biology of behavior More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/psych-15-final/

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Biology Central Nervous System

Biology Chapter 31.1-31.2 – Flashcards 34 terms

Blake Terry

34 terms

Preview

Biology Chapter 31.1-31.2 – Flashcards

question

Which system coordinates the body's response to changes in its internal and external environment?

answer

nervous system

question

Which system enables you to understand the words you read in a book?

answer

nervous system

question

The peripheral nervous system collects information about changes in internal body temperature using

answer

nerves and supporting cells

question

Read the following statements that describe how information flows in the nervous system. What is the correct order in which they occur?

answer

3,2,1

question

What is the function of the central nervous system?

answer

to process information and form a response

question

Which division of the peripheral nervous system transmit(s) impulses from sense organs to the central nervous system?

answer

motor division

question

Which division of the nervous system speeds up your heart rate?

answer

autonomic

question

The 31 major nerves that branch out from the spinal cord connecting it to the rest of the body are the

answer

spinal nerves

question

It's 2:00 in the afternoon and you haven't eaten anything since breakfast. Which part of your brain is telling you that you're hungry?

answer

hypothalamus

question

For a person who writes with his or her left hand, the muscles involved in writing are controlled by

answer

the right hemisphere of the cerebrum

question

Which of the following sensory receptors would lead you to squint in bright light?

answer

photoreceptors

question

Sensory receptors that are sensitive to chemical information from the environment are found in the

answer

nose and taste buds

question

The primary function of the sensory division of the peripheral nervous system is to transmit impulses

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from sense organs to the central nervous system

question

Which receptors respond to a scraped knee?

answer

pain receptors

question

Which type of sensory receptor is responsible for smell and taste?

answer

chemoreceptor

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When you move your fingers to type a text message, you are using motor neurons of the

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somatic nervous system

question

Which sense relies on the largest sense organ in the body?

answer

touch

question

Which organ does not have pain receptors?

answer

brain

question

If you did not like the flavor of a certain oral liquid medicine, you could hide much of its taste by

answer

holding your nose

question

The senses of smell and taste are similar because

answer

both rely on chemoreceptors

question

Your alarm clock wakes you up and reminds you to get ready for school. Which type of neuron receives the sound of the alarm?

answer

sensory neurons

question

31-1 Which structure carries impulses to the cell body?

answer

question

31-1 Which structure carries impulses away from the cell body?

answer

III

question

What begins when a neuron is stimulated by another neuron or by a stimulus in the environment?

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an impulse

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What is the function of neurotransmitters?

answer

to transmit nerve impulses across synapses

question

When an impulse reaches the end of a neuron, it triggers the release of

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neurotransmitters

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When drugs produce a sensation of feeling and well being, what part of the brain is being stimulated?

answer

limbic system

question

Place these events in the order in which they would occur in a person who uses an addictive drug

answer

IV, II, I, III

question

How does nicotine affect dopamine synapses?

answer

it increases the release of dopamine

question

When exposed to addictive drugs, how does the brain react to excessive dopamine levels?

answer

it reduces the number of receptors for the neurotransmitters

question

Which of the following choices best describes dopamine?

answer

a substance that is naturally found in the brain

question

When you swat a fly, which type of neuron stimulates your arm to move?

answer

motor neurons

question

Which of the five senses involves two types of photoreceptors called rods and cones?

answer

vision

question

31-7 Which structures release neurotransmitters?

answer

vesicles

STUDY

Biology First Hand Knowledge Measure Of Central Tendency Scientific Method The Environment

ACT Science Research Summary Vocab – Flashcards 29 terms

Alexander Rose

29 terms

Preview

ACT Science Research Summary Vocab – Flashcards

question

Analytical Balance

answer

Equipment which digitally measures the mass of an object.

question

Control Group

answer

This is an experimental group, used as a baseline comparison, that receives all the control variables, but does not receive the independent variable treatment.

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Analysis

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This is a process of interpreting experimental results.

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Control Variable

answer

This is a condition which remains constant, or unchanged, in an experiment.

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Accuracy

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How well the results of an experiment agree with the accepted value.

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Data Collection

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This is the act of writing down the required information you get from a laboratory experiment.

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Data Set

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This is a compilation of information, usually quantitative, that represents measures of a variable or set of variables.

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Data Table

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This is the correct method of recording numerical information from an experiment.

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Dependent Variable

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This is the observed variable in an experiment or study whose changes are determined by the presence or degree of one or more independent variables. When graphed, this variable is usually on the vertical axis.

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Experiment

answer

Scientific procedure followed to obtain results for analysis. This is also a means to test a hypothesis.

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Experimental Variable

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This is the condition which is changed within experiment.

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Hypothesis

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This is a prediction of the outcome of scientific processes based on analysis.

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Independent Variable

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This is the manipulated variable in an experiment or study whose presence or degree determines the change in the dependent variable. When graphed this is graphed usually on the horizontal axis.

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Measurement Error

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The difference between the accepted value and the experimental value.

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Meter Stick

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Equipment used to measure SI (metric) lengths.

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Precision

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This is the ability of a measurement to be reproduced consistently.

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Prediction

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This is a statement that a particular event will occur, based on reasonable observations of prior events.

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Qualitative Data

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This is information from an experiment, such as observations or behaviors, that cannot be recorded with a numerical value.

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Quantitative Data

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This is information from an experiment that can be assigned a number or a quantity and can often be used to construct a graph.

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Reliable

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When referring to experimentation, this is the consistency of a set of measurements or measuring instrument. It is the inverse of random error.

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Research

answer

This is what people do when they are searching for information. People often look in more than one location.

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Research Question

answer

This is one of the first steps in scientific research. It usually starts with: How, What, When, Who, Which, Why, or Where

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Scientific Method

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A process used to gather evidence and lead to understanding

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Stopwatch

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This is a timing device used to measure the length of time for short events

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Trial

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This is a repetition of an experiment. Scientists use multiples of these to ensure the reliability of their results.

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Trial Run

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This is a test or rehearsal of something new in order to evaluate the product.

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Unit Of Measure

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This is a standard of measure for a physical quantity and is included as part of the X and Y axes labels on a line graph.

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Validity

answer

This is the degree at which a test measures what it is intended to measure.

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Variable

answer

This is the factor which is tested in an experiment.

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Atoms Biology Compounds Indicate How Many Physical Science

Section 6.3 Naming Compounds and Writing Formulas – Flashcards 10 terms

Jennifer Hawkins

10 terms

Preview

Section 6.3 Naming Compounds and Writing Formulas – Flashcards

question

The name of an ionic compound must distinguish the compound from other ionic compounds containing the same elements

answer

True

question

What information is provided by the formula for an ionic compound

answer

The formula for an ionic compound describes the ratio of the ions in the compound . The formula indicates which element in the compound contains

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What is a compound made from only two elements

answer

Binary

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Names of anions are formed by placing the suffix I-ide after part of the name of the nonmetal

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True

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When metals form more than one ion the name of the ion contains a Roman numeral to indicate what ?

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The charge of the ion

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What is a polyatomic ion

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A covalently bonded group of atoms that has a positive or negative charge

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A type of Bond that holds cations and anions together

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Ionic

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An ion with a negative charge

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Anion

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An ion with s positive charge

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Cation

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A notation that shows what elements a compound contains and the ratio of the atoms

answer

STUDY

Acids and Bases Biology Chemistry Conjugate Acid Base Pair Strong Acids And Bases Weak Acids And Bases

Chemistry – Nomenclature of Covalent Compounds – Flashcards 23 terms

Lucas Davies

23 terms

Preview

Chemistry – Nomenclature of Covalent Compounds – Flashcards

question

Acids

answer

Increase concentration of H+ ions in aqueous (water) solution

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Bases

answer

Increases concentration of OH- ions in aqueouse solution

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Naming bindary acids (acids that conatin exactly two atoms)

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Start with hydro- to indicate H, Add the root of the nonmetal, add -ic

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Naming oxyacids (acids that contain polyatomic ions, which contain one or more oxygen atoms)

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-ate anions make -ic acids, -ite anions make -ous acids

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Naming Bases

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Covalent bases are usually amines-Derivatives of ammonia, A hydrogen ion can attach to a lone pair of electrons, naming is based on the number of groups attached to N, Ionic bases follow the same naming rule as other ionic compounds

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SO2

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sulfur dioxide

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H2SO4

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sulfuric acid

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HBr (as a compound)

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hydrogen bromide

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HBr (as an acid)

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hydrobromic acid

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Carbon tetrabromide

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CBr4

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Chlorine monofluoride

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ClF

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Sulfur dioxide

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SO2

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Phosphorus trichloride

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PCl3

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Which rule is used for writing the name of an ionic base?

answer

The chemical name ends with "hydroxide."

question

Which is the formula for dinitrogen pentoxide?

answer

N2O5

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Which is the IUPAC name for NO?

answer

nitrogen monoxide

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Which formula stands for boric acid?

answer

H3BO3

question

Which is an IUPAC name for a covalent compound?

answer

carbon dioxide

question

Which is the formula for iodine tribromide?

answer

IBr3

question

Which is the name for SO3?

answer

sulfur trioxide

question

Which rule should be followed when naming binary acids?

answer

Start the name with hydro-

question

Which formula correctly represents antinomy trichloride?

answer

SbCl3

question

Based on the name, which substance is a covalent compound?

answer

dinitrogen pentoxide

STUDY

Biology Course(s) In English Physical Science

Writing with ease level 2 – Flashcards 31 terms

Isabel Padilla

31 terms

Preview

Writing with ease level 2 – Flashcards

question

Owl and the Grasshopper

answer

Aesop

question

The Patchwork Girl of Oz

answer

Frank Baum

question

Mrs. Piggle-Wiggle

answer

Betty MacDonald

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Doctor Dolittle

answer

Hugh Lofting

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Misty of Chincoteague

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Marguerite Henry

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My Shadow

answer

Robert Louis Stephenson

question

Ginger Pye

answer

Eleanor Estes

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The Jungle Book

answer

Rudyard Kipling

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Pippi Longstocking

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Astrid Lingren

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Nurse Matilda

answer

Christinna Brand

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The 101 Dalmations

answer

Dodie Smith

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Pilgrim's Progress

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John Bunyan

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The Borrowers

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Mary Norton

question

The Mouse and the Motorcycle

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Beverly Cleary

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Mrs. Frisby and the Rats of Nihm

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Robert O'Brien

question

The Young Man and the Cat

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Andrew Lang

question

The Pied Piper of Hamelin

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Robert Browning

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Paul Revere

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James Baldwin

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Five Children and It

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Edith Nesbit

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Alexander the great and his horse

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Arthur Terry

question

The Hare that Ran Away

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Marie Shedlock

question

Little Women

answer

Louisa May Alcott

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The Plant that ate Dirty Socks

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Nancy McArthur

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Moominland Midwinter

answer

Tove Jeansson

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The Elephant's Child

answer

Rudyard Kipling

question

The Real Princess

answer

Hans Christian Anderson

question

The Magic of Oz

answer

Frank Baum

question

The Ginggum Dog and The Calico Cat

answer

Eugene Field

question

The Hobbit

answer

J.R.R. Tolkien

question

Bunnicula

answer

Deborah Howe

question

Peter Pan

answer

J.M. Barrie

STUDY

Biology Earth Science Names Nomenclature Organisms Systematics

Binomial Nomenclature – Flashcards 16 terms

William Jordan

16 terms

Preview

Binomial Nomenclature – Flashcards

question

Interpretations based upon emotions or opinion are considered:

answer

subjective

question

Plants are living organisms.

answer

True

question

Which phrase best describes plants?

answer

they are living

question

A precise scientific description of life is not easy to find.

answer

True

question

Common names given to organisms may be useful locally, but may become meaningless on a basis.

answer

global

question

The currently used binomial nomenclature was developed by

answer

Linnaeus

question

Why does binomial nomenclature use Latin?

answer

it was a language of study for all educated peopl

question

In binomial nomenclature, the genus functions as the , and the species functions as the .

answer

generic name species name

question

The rankings of Class, Order, and Family are referred to as:

answer

taxa

question

A kingdom may be subdivided into only one Phylum.

answer

False

question

An "Order" may be subdivided into (consist of) several:

answer

Families

question

The language of taxonomy is usually:

answer

Latin

question

The correct form for writing binomial nomenclature is:

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Genus species

question

Humans differ from all other life forms by possessing a:

answer

soul and spirit

question

Rules for naming plants and animals are found in _____ .

answer

the International Code of Nomenclature

question

Problems in using common names to universally identify living things include:

answer

Names mean different things to different people. Foreign names may not be understood. Many names may exist for the same organism. There may be no common name for an organism.

STUDY

Biology Genetics Law Of Independent Assortment Sex Linked Traits Tay Sachs Disease

BIO_Chapter 7 – Flashcards 95 terms

Gabriela Compton

95 terms

Preview

BIO_Chapter 7 – Flashcards

question

What is the purpose of a test-cross? a) A test-cross is just another term for an experimental cross between two unknown organisms. b) A test-cross allows a breeder to see how quickly it takes to go from generation to generation for a particular organism. c) A test-cross can demonstrate the efficiency of breeding. d) A test-cross can reveal an unknown genotype. e) A test-cross can reveal an unknown internal phenotype.

answer

d) A test-cross can reveal an unknown genotype.

question

Which of the following statements about the Rh marker allele is most accurate? a) The Rh marker results from a single gene with two alleles. b) An individual's red blood cells carry the Rh cell surface marker if they have one or two copies of the dominant Rh marker allele. c) If a person has one or two copies of the dominant Rh marker allele then their blood type is noted as "positive", that is, B+ or B positive. d) If an individual has two copies of the recessive allele for the gene, they do not have any Rh markers, and are therefore are described as "negative", that is, B- or B negative. e) All of the above

answer

e) All of the above

question

Which of the following did NOT contribute to the success of Mendel's research? a) He chose a good organism to study, i.e. pea plants, which had clear-cut phenotypes. b) He chose to focus on easily categorized traits, such as round or wrinkled c) He began his studies by first repeatedly breeding together similar plants until he had many distinct populations, each of which was unvarying for a certain trait d) He did not utilize any true-breeding organisms in order to study various types of traits e) None of the above contributed to Mendel's research success.

answer

d) He did not utilize any true-breeding organisms in order to study various types of traits

question

Sex-linked traits: a) are only controlled by genes on the Y chromosome. b) are controlled by genes on the X and Y chromosomes. c) appear more frequently in females if they are recessive. d) are only inherited from the father. cannot be visualized using a pedigree.

answer

b) are controlled by genes on the X and Y chromosomes.

question

The impact of a single gene on more than one characteristic is called: a) codominance. b) homozygosity. c) polygenic inheritance. d) pleiotropy. e) epistasis.

answer

d) pleiotropy.

question

Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of a phenotype? a) all the genes an individual carries b) chemicals an individual produces, such as in digesting lactose c) features visible to the naked eye, i.e. height d) certain behaviors an individual exhibits e) outward appearance

answer

a) all the genes an individual carries

question

What is a pedigree? a) A cross between animals other than humans b) A type of genetic test to determine probability of inheritance c) A tool to document harmful traits only d) A way of following genotypes that are the same as the phenotype e) A type of family tree that can help answer questions about genes and their inheritance patterns

answer

e) A type of family tree that can help answer questions about genes and their inheritance patterns

question

Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) Type AB blood cells produce A and B antigens but neither A nor B antibodies b) Type A blood cells produce A antigens and B antibodies c) Type B blood cells produce B antigens and A antibodies d) Type O blood cells produce neither A nor B antigens and produce no antibodies e) Type AB blood cells produce A and B antigens and A and B antibodies

answer

e) Type AB blood cells produce A and B antigens and A and B antibodies

question

Traits that are determined by a single gene: a) must occur on the X chromosome because males have only a single X, so the gene must be able to function in the absence of its homologous allele. b) occur in single-celled organisms, but not in humans. c) can have only two alleles. d) are common in humans. e) include eye color and skin color.

answer

d) are common in humans.

question

Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disease caused by the presence of a faulty hemoglobin gene (HbS). The normal version of this gene is HbA. Which of the following is TRUE about HbS and HbA? a) It is impossible for a person to carry two HbS genes. b) They're both alleles for the same trait. c) A person with two HbS genes would be a silent carrier. d) Hemoglobin genes are always inherited from one's mother. e) People carrying two HbS genes smell like rotten fish.

answer

b) They're both alleles for the same trait.

question

Which of the following blood types is incorrectly matched with its potential recipient? a) Type AB can only receive from type A, B, or AB. b) Type A can only receive from type A or type O. c) Type B can only receive from type B or type O. d) Type O can only receive from type O. e) All of the answer options are correct.

answer

a) Type AB can only receive from type A, B, or AB.

question

Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched regarding the Punnett Square and a one-factor cross (e.g. BB x Bb)? a) Inside the square: genotypes of actual offspring b) There are no rules to setting up a Punnett square; just do it in a way that you understand. c) Top of the square: lists the two alleles that one of the parents produces d) Left side of the square: lists the two alleles that the other parent produces e) Inside the square: genotypes of potential offspring

answer

a) Inside the square: genotypes of actual offspring

question

What is a linked gene? a) The situation where two different genes are found on the same chromosome b) An abnormality where two chromosomes are connected due to some sort of mutation c) Any gene that exhibits an outward effect; in fact, all genes are linked. d) A gene that suppresses the effects of another gene e) A gene that causes mutations, such as trisomy 21

answer

a) The situation where two different genes are found on the same chromosome

question

How can an individual carry a defective gene but not exhibit the defective phenotype? a) An individual may not have that defective gene in every cell, and so appear normal. b) Individuals carry two copies of gene instructions, and one dominant allele could mask the presence of a recessive defective allele. c) Individuals are always homozygous. d) Both choices A and C are true. e) None of the above

answer

b) Individuals carry two copies of gene instructions, and one dominant allele could mask the presence of a recessive defective allele.

question

Which of the following statements is true regarding pedigree analysis? a) Darkened shapes always represent individuals with the trait being traced. b) Squares represent females, while circles represent males. c) The length of the vertical lines is dependent on the relatedness coefficient between two individuals. d) Pedigree charts always enable you to predict the characteristics of the offspring. e) Horizontal lines connect siblings.

answer

a) Darkened shapes always represent individuals with the trait being traced.

question

A diploid individual with two identical alleles for a particular gene is said to be: a) homozygous for every gene. b) heterozygous for that gene. c) homozygous for that gene. d) isogenous. e) heterozygous for every gene.

answer

c) homozygous for that gene.

question

In certain plants, red flowers are dominant to white flowers. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous red-flowered plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be white-flowered? a) 25% b) 50% c) 0% d) 75% e) It depends on whether the traits are linked.

answer

c) 0%

question

The phenotype of an organism is: a) a hypothesis of its evolutionary origins. b) the form it achieves as an adult. c) the embryonic expression of its genes. d) its genetic make-up. e) its physical characteristics.

answer

e) its physical characteristics.

question

In snapdragons, there is an allele for flower color, CW, that produces no pigment. A plant with the genotype CWCW will produce _____________ flowers. a) no b) black c) pink d) red e) white

answer

e) white

question

In the figure shown, which are the recessive traits? a) green and wrinkled b) wrinkled and smooth c) yellow and smooth d) green and short e) yellow and short

answer

a) green and wrinkled

question

A cross between homozygous red-eyed flies and homozygous white-eyed flies results in progeny that all have red-eyes. This result demonstrates: a) a dihybrid cross. b) the norm of reaction. c) a blending of alleles. d) the law of independent assortment. e) dominance.

answer

e) dominance.

question

A person with the genotype AB can receive blood of what type? a) type B blood b) type O blood c) type A blood d) All of the above blood types would work fine. e) None of the above blood types would work.

answer

d) All of the above blood types would work fine.

question

Which of the following pairings, indicated by letters referring to blood type phenotypes, CANNOT produce a child with type B blood? a) B x O b) A x B c) O x AB d) AO x AO e) All of the above could produce a child with type B blood.

answer

d) AO x AO

question

Jay has type O blood, and his brother Alon has type AB blood. What are the genotypes of these boys' parents? a) IAi and IBi b) ii and IBi c) IAi and IBIB d) IAIA and IBi e) It is not possible to determine the phenotype of the boys' parents from the information provided.

answer

a) IAi and IBi

question

Most genes come in alternative forms called: a) heterozygotes. b) homozygotes. c) gametes. d) chromosomes. e) alleles.

answer

e) alleles.

question

The same genetic condition that causes sickle-cell anemia can also protect against: a) yellow fever. b) hemophilia. c) tuberculosis. d) malaria. e) HIV-AIDS.

answer

d) malaria.

question

In pea plants, purple flower color is dominant to white flower color. If two pea plants that are true-breeding for purple flowers are crossed, in the offspring: a) all of the flowers will be purple. b) three-quarters of the flowers will be purple and one-quarter will be white. c) half of the flowers will be purple and one-quarter will be white. d) one-quarter of the flowers will be purple and three-quarters will be white. e) all of the flowers will be white.

answer

e) all of the flowers will be white.

question

A woman with type B blood and a man with type A blood could have children with which of the following phenotypes? a) A, B, AB, or O b) O only c) AB only d) AB or O e) A, B, or O

answer

a) A, B, AB, or O

question

How can an individual carry a defective gene but not exhibit the defective phenotype? a) An individual may not have that defective gene in every cell, and so appear normal b) Individuals carry two copies of gene instructions, and one dominant allele could mask the presence of a recessive defective allele c) Individuals are always homozygous d) Both a) and c) are true e) None of the above is true

answer

b) Individuals carry two copies of gene instructions, and one dominant allele could mask the presence of a recessive defective allele

question

A phenotype:

answer

consists of the observable properties of an individual.

question

In pea plants, purple flower color is dominant to white flower color. If two pea plants that are true-breeding for purple flowers are crossed, in the offspring:

answer

all of the flowers will be purple.

question

How can two pea plants that have different genotypes for seed color be identical in phenotype?How can two pea plants that have different genotypes for seed color be identical in phenotype? a) Genotype has no relation to phenotype. b) One of the two plants could be homozygous for the dominant allele while the other could be heterozygous. c) One of the two plants could be homozygous for the recessive allele while the other could be heterozygous. d) Both of them have the dominant gene, but it is not being expressed. e) One of the two plants could be homozygous for the dominant allele while the other could be homozygous for the recessive allele.

answer

One of the two plants could be homozygous for the dominant allele while the other could be heterozygous.

question

The impact of a single gene on more than one characteristic is called: a) epistasis. b) pleiotropy. c) homozygousity. d) codominance. e) polygenic inheritance.

answer

b) pleiotropy

question

Cystic fibrosis, which is usually lethal before reproductive ages, is a homozygous recessive disease. Why do cases continue to arise, even though people with the disease rarely live to reproduce? a) Individuals can pass on the alleles in non-genetic ways, including through the sharing of needles. b) The harmful allele can reside in heterozygous individuals with few to no negative effects. c) Cystic fibrosis is a multifactorial disorder, and is probably controlled by the action of many genes. d) Mosquitoes can transfer the disease from person to person. e) Occassionally an individual does reproduce and passes on both of their alleles.

answer

b) The harmful allele can reside in heterozygous individuals with few to no negative effects.

question

If a baby has "his father's nose," it's because: a) the baby has not inherited the "suppress father's nose allele" from his mother. b) the father's nose is not a heritable trait, it is just a chance event that the baby has a similar nose. c) the baby has inherited many alleles from his father that work together to shape the baby's nose. d) the baby has inherited the "father's nose" allele from his father. e) the baby has inherited the "father's nose" allele from his mother.

answer

c) the baby has inherited many alleles from his father that work together to shape the baby's nose.

question

If you have blood type A, which of the following is true about you? a) you produce antibodies to attack A antigens b) you can donate blood to Type B and Type AB only c) you have A antigens d) you are the universal donor e) you can receive blood from Type B and Type O only

answer

c) you have A antigens

question

The phenotype of an organism can best be determined by: a) a reciprocal cross. b) true-breeding. c) inbreeding. d) observing the organism. e) sequencing its genes.

answer

d) observing the organism.

question

The sickle-cell allele is considered to be pleiotropic because: a) it is involved in a continuously varying trait: the amount of resistance to malaria. b) it has at least two effects: disrupting oxygen delivery and protecting against malaria. c) it is codominant, in that heterozygotes have both circular and sickled red blood cells. d) it has at least two effects: promoting oxygen delivery and protecting against malaria. e) in the dominant form it disrupts oxygen and in the recessive form in protects against malaria.

answer

d) it has at least two effects: promoting oxygen delivery and protecting against malaria.

question

The test-cross: a) makes it possible to determine the genotype of an individual of unknown genotype who exhibits the dominant version of a trait. b) is a cross of an individual whose genotype for a trait is not known with an individual homozygous recessive for the trait. c) only takes one offspring to reveal the genotype of an individual whose genotype is unknown. d) a) and b) are both correct. e) a), b), and c) are correct.

answer

d) a) and b) are both correct.

question

The law of segregation states that: a) the number of chromosomes in a cell is always divisible by 2. b) Eggs and sperm separate before fertilization occurs. c) gametes cannot be separate and equal. d) an allele on one chromosome will always segregate from an allele on a different chromosome. e) each of two alleles for a given trait segregate into different gametes.

answer

e) each of two alleles for a given trait segregate into different gametes.

question

A plant with pink flowers is allowed to self-pollinate. Generation after generation, it produces pink flowers. This is an example of: a) the law of independent assortment. b) a true-breeding plant. c) allopolyploidy. d) interbreeding. e) codominance.

answer

b) a true-breeding plant.

question

The failure of a seedling to turn green if grown in the dark is an example of: a) a lack of the chroloplast gene. b) incomplete dominance. c) interaction between codominant alleles. d) pleiotropy. e) interaction between genotype and environment.

answer

e) interaction between genotype and environment.

question

Flower color in snapdragons is an example of incomplete dominance. When a red-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant, the offspring have pink flowers. If a pink-flowered plant is crossed with another pink-flowered plant, their offspring will be: a) all white. b) all pink. c) 50% pink and 50% red. d) 25% white and 75% red. e) 25% red, 50% pink, and 25% white.

answer

e) 25% red, 50% pink, and 25% white.

question

Monterey cypress trees grow along the coast of California with most of their branches clustered on one side of the tree, pointing away from the sea. If a monterey cypress seed is germinated beyond 50 miles from the coastline, the tree grows up with a symmetric distribution of branches, just like other evergreens. This scenario demonstrates which statement about genetics? a) The "windblown" shape seen in coastal trees is obviously caused by a polygenic inheritance. b) The "windblown" shape seen in coastal trees is obviously determined by their genotypes. c) The "windblown" shape seen in coastal trees is a result of environmental conditions, not their genes. d) Both a) and b) are true. e) None of the above are true.

answer

c) The "windblown" shape seen in coastal trees is a result of environmental conditions, not their genes.

question

If two giraffes were crossed, where one is heterozygous for albinism (a) and the other has a homozygous dominant genotype, what would be the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios? a) 0 AA: 0 Aa: 1 aa; all albino b) 1 AA: 2Aa: 1aa; 3 pigmented: 2 albino c) 2 AA: 2 Aa: 0 aa; all pigmented d) 2 AA: 0 Aa: 0 aa; all pigmented e) 2 AA: 2 Aa: 0 aa; 4 pigmented: 2 albino

answer

c) 2 AA: 2 Aa: 0 aa; all pigmented

question

In the ABO blood type system in humans, there are _________ different alleles, ____________ different phenotypes, and ____________ different genotypes. a) four; three; six b) four; six; four c) four; six; three d) three; four; six e) four; four; three

answer

d) three; four; six

question

If you have blood type A, which of the following is true about you? a) you can donate blood to Type B and Type AB only b) you have A antigens c) you produce antibodies to attack A antigens d) you are the universal donor e) you can receive blood from Type B and Type O only

answer

b) you have A antigens

question

A woman with type B blood and a man with type A blood could have children with which of the following phenotypes? a) AB or O b) AB only c) A, B, AB, or O d) A, B, or O e) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

answer

c) A, B, AB, or O

question

When genetically based traits are inherited independently from each other, this is known as: a) pleitropy. b) Law of Segregation. c) linkage. d) multi-allelism. e) Mendel's law of independent assortment.

answer

e) Mendel's law of independent assortment.

question

Which of the following is NOT a continuously varying trait? a) eye color b) height c) blood type d) skin color e) geekiness

answer

c) blood type

question

If you crossed a snapdragon that had the CWCW genotype at the flower color gene with a snapdragon that had the CRCR genotype: a) all of the offspring would have the CRCR genotype. b) one-quarter of the offspring would have the CWCW genotype; one-half the offspring would have the CWCR genotype, and one-quarter of the offspring would have the CRCR genotype. c) three-quarters of the offspring would have white flowers. d) all of the offspring would have the CWCR genotype. e) all of the offspring would have the CWCW genotype.

answer

d) all of the offspring would have the CWCR genotype.

question

In peas, tall plants are dominant to short plants. A heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive plant. What fraction of the offspring would you expect to have the short phenotype? a) none b) all of the offspring c) 1/4 d) 1/2 e) 3/4

answer

d) 1/2

question

Gregor Mendel performed his famous experiments on: a) finches. b) pigeons. c) green beans. d) humans. e) garden peas.

answer

e) garden peas.

question

Which of the following did Gregor Mendel never see? a) a gene b) a pea c) a stamen d) an F2 generation e) the publication of his research on the genetics of pea plants

answer

a) a gene

question

Albinism (lack of skin and hair pigmentation) is caused by a recessive autosomal allele. A woman and man, both normally pigmented, have an albino child together. For this trait, what is the genotype of the albino child? a) It depends on the environment that the child lives in. b) homozygous dominant c) heterozygous d) homozygous recessive e) It is unknown, because not enough information is provided.

answer

d) homozygous recessive

question

Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disease caused by the presence of a faulty hemoglobin gene (HbS). The normal version of this gene is HbA. Which of the following is TRUE about HbS and HbA? a) It is impossible for a person to carry two HbS genes. b) People carrying two HbS genes smell like rotten fish. c) A person with two HbS genes would be a silent carrier. d) They're both alleles for the same trait. e) Hemoglobin genes are always inherited from one's mother.

answer

d) They're both alleles for the same trait.

question

We say that genes are linked when: a) they are located near each other on a single chromosome. b) they are responsible for producing the same protein. c) they are located in the same spot on two different chromosomes. d) they produce a balanced polymorphism. e) they are responsible for producing different proteins that act together in the same biochemical reaction.

answer

a) they are located near each other on a single chromosome.

question

What was the MOST important scientific advance gained from Gregor Mendel's experiments with pea plants? a) Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection was confirmed. b) We learned that recessive alleles occur more frequently in the F2 generation than do dominant ones. c) We learned that there is considerable genetic variation in garden peas. d) We learned that chromosomes are composed of DNA. e) We learned that many traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the result of blending.

answer

e) We learned that many traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the result of blending.

question

An individual's blood-type alleles carry instructions that direct construction of a specfic set of chemicals which protrude from every red blood cell. These chemicals are called: a) cell proteins b) antibodies c) antigens d) hemoglobins e) sickled cells

answer

c) antigens

question

In ABO blood group inheritance, what is the relationship between the alleles A and B (sometimes written as IA and IB)? a) They are polygenic to each other. b) They are incompletely dominant to each other. c) They are pleiotropic to each other. d) They are codominant to each other. e) None of the above is correct about alleles A and B.

answer

d) They are codominant to each other.

question

The difference between incomplete dominance and codominance is: a) that in incomplete dominance, the offspring exhibit the traits of both parents, while in codominance, the offspring do not exhibit the traits of either parent. b) that in incomplete dominance, the offspring do not exhibit the traits of either parent, while in codominance, the offspring exhibit the traits of both parents. c) that in incomplete dominance, the trait under observation is produced by the a single allele, while in codominance, the trait is produced by a combination of multiple alleles. d) that in incomplete dominance, the trait under observation is produced by the combination of multiple alleles, while in codominance, the trait is produced by a single allele. e) There is no difference, incomplete dominance and codominance mean the same thing.

answer

b) that in incomplete dominance, the offspring do not exhibit the traits of either parent, while in codominance, the offspring exhibit the traits of both parents.

question

The ABO blood type system in humans is a system that contains ________ alleles that produce __________ different phenotypes. a) four; three b) three; four c) six; three d) three; six e) three; three

answer

b) three; four

question

A male with an X-linked recessive disorder mates with a female that is a carrier for this same X-linked recessive disorder. Which of the following is the correct expected frequency of this disorder in their children? a) 50% frequency in the daughters b) 50% frequency in the sons c) 50% frequency in both the sons and the daughters d) 75% frequency in the sons e) 75% frequency in the daughters

answer

c) 50% frequency in both the sons and the daughters

question

Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder that: a) causes the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. b) causes the inability to convert tyrosine to phenylalanine. c) causes a build up of lipid in the neurons. d) causes too many copies of phenylalanine to be added to protein chains. e) causes too few copies of tyrosine to be added to protein chains.

answer

a) causes the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine.

question

Which of the following is true of an individual with blood type AB? a) They have red blood cells with A and B antigens. b) They are classified as the "universal donor" and can donate blood to anyone. c) They produce A and B antibodies. d) They can receive blood from blood type O individuals only. e) They have red blood cells with A antigens only.

answer

question

Tay-Sachs, which is a recessive lethal disease, results only when individuals possess two copies of the disease-causing allele. Which of the following statements is true about this disease? a) Heterozygous individuals only pass on the dominant copy of the allele to offspring. b) Heterozygous individuals may pass on their copy of the disease-causing allele to offspring. c) Heterozygous individuals are more fit than homozygous dominant individuals, so eventually, there will only be heterozygotes in the population. d) All cases of this disease must be caused by new mutations. e) A homozygous individual can pass on both of the recessive genes for Tay-Sachs.

answer

b)Heterozygous individuals may pass on their copy of the disease-causing allele to offspring.

question

A man who is a silent carrier of the FMO3 "fish odor syndrome" has children by a woman who is "normal." Which of the following would best explain how a child born from these parents could have fish odor syndrome? a) FMO3 is x-linked. b) The child inherits two copies of defective FMO3 alleles from its father. c) The mother is also a silent carrier of the defective FMO3 allele. d) The child has a mutation in one of its cells, making the FMO3 genes defective in those cells. e) The child inherits two copies of defective FMO3 alleles from its mother.

answer

c) The mother is also a silent carrier of the defective FMO3 allele.

question

Peas (Pisum sativum) were well suited for Mendel's breeding experiments for all of the following reasons except: a) the pea plant is rather prolific in seed production. b) peas exhibit variations in a number of observable characteristics, such as flower color and seed shape. c) Mendel and his staff could control the pollination between different pea plants. d) many of the characteristics that vary in pea plants are controlled by single genes. e) peas have a particularly long generation time.

answer

e) peas have a particularly long generation time.

question

The SRY gene is considered pleiotropic because: a) it is a single gene that influences multiple traits: development of fetal gonads, secretion of testosterone, and more. b) it is one gene involved in continuously varying traits, in this instance, height. c) it is part of a multi-allelic system that determines the sex of a growing fetus. d) it is part of a multi-allelic system that determines blood type. e) it is one gene involved in continuously varying traits, in this instance, eye color.

answer

it is a single gene that influences multiple traits: development of fetal gonads, secretion of testosterone, and more.

question

Which of the following did Gregor Mendel never see?

answer

a chromosome

question

Virtually everyone __________________ has a parent that exhibits the same trait. a) with unattached earlobes b) with albinism c) with Tay-Sachs disease d) over six feet tall e) under five feet tall

answer

a) with unattached earlobes

question

Which of the following was NOT true of Gregor Mendel? a) He developed the first theory about how traits are inherited. b) He lived in the 19th century. c) His primary research system was the pea plant. d) He was an Austrian monk. e) He understood basic concepts about DNA replication.

answer

e) He understood basic concepts about DNA replication.

question

If a male with color blindness (sex-related variety) and a female with normal vision have a color blind son, what can you infer about the parents? a) The mother was a carrier for color blindness. b) The mother was homozygous for color blindness. c) The son inherited a gene for color blindness from his mother and one from his father. d) The mother's father was color blind. e) The son inherited the gene for color blindness from his father.

answer

a) The mother was a carrier for color blindness.

question

Genes that are _____________ do not assort independently, but they may recombine by crossing over. a) epistatic b) polygenic c) pleiotropic d) linked e) dominant

answer

d) linked

question

Phenotypes are generally a product of: a) pleitropic effects of a single gene. b) multiple alleles at the same gene locus. c) two or more genes in combination with each other. d) the genotype in combination with the environment. e) incomplete dominance.

answer

d) the genotype in combination with the environment.

question

In pea plants, tall stem length is dominant to short and round seed shape is dominant to wrinkled seed shape. If a plant that is homozygous for tall stem and homozygous for wrinkled seeds is allowed to self-fertilize, what proportion of the offspring will have wrinkled seeds and a tall stem? a) None of the offspring will have wrinkled seeds and a tall stem. b) 3/16 c) 1/2 d) All of the offspring will have wrinkled seeds and a tall stem. e) 3/4

answer

d) All of the offspring will have wrinkled seeds and a tall stem.

question

Pedram and Monica are both heterozygous for the widow's peak trait. Individuals who have two copies of the widow's peak allele exhibit a sharp, pointed hairline. What is the probability that the couple's first three children will all have widow's peaks? a) 1/64 b) 1/8 c) 3/4 d) 1/4 e) 1/12

answer

a) 1/64

question

Four traits that Mendel studied extensively in pea plants were flower position, seed color, stem length, and pod shape. For flower position, the axial (A) allele is dominant over terminal (a); for seed color, the yellow allele (Y) is dominant over green (y); for stem length, the tall (T) allele is dominant over dwarf (t); and for pod shape, the inflated (I) allele is dominant over constricted (i). Imagine a tetrahybrid cross between two AaYyTtIi plants. What is the probability of observing an individual with the AaYYttIi genotype in the next generation? a) 1/16 b) 1/4 c) 1/128 d) 1/64 e) 1/2

answer

d) 1/64

question

The fact that freckles tend to be inherited with red hair is counter to which of Mendel's assertions? a) Genes for different traits sort independently of each other. b) There are only two alleles possible for a trait. c) One allele is always fully dominant over another. d) Two copies of genetic instructions are carried per cell for a given characteristic. e) A single phenotype is dictated by two genes carried in each cell.

answer

a) Genes for different traits sort independently of each other.

question

Which of the following traits shows a polygenic method of inheritance? a) flower color in snapdragons b) seed color in peas c) sickle-cell disease in humans d) skin color in humans e) blood type in humans

answer

d) skin color in humans

question

An individual's blood-type alleles carry instructions that direct construction of a specfic set of chemicals which protrude from every red blood cell. These chemicals are called antigens. If you have A antigens, which antibodies will you produce? a) neither A nor B b) O c) A d) both A and B e) B

answer

question

An individual who has the genotype HbSHbA has the phenotype of: a) hemophilia. b) blood type O. c) having both normal, circular red blood cells and sickle-shaped red blood cells in his or her circulatory system. d) having red blood cells that are intermediate in shape between circular and sickle-shaped. e) blood type A.

answer

c) having both normal, circular red blood cells and sickle-shaped red blood cells in his or her circulatory system.

question

A situation in which the heterozygote offspring of two homozygotes show an phenotype intermediate between those of the parents is called: a) multiple allelism. b) heterozygote superiority. c) pleiotropy. d) polygenic traits. e) incomplete dominance.

answer

e) incomplete dominance

question

How can an individual whose parents did not have the "fish odor syndrome" trait inherit that trait? a) Under the circumstances outlined above, the "fish odor syndrome" cannot be inherited. b) If each parent were a silent carrier of the "fish odor syndrome," then their offspring would have a 50% chance of having the syndrome. c) If each parent were a silent carrier of the "fish odor syndrome," then their offspring would have a 100% chance of having the syndrome. d) Only one parent needs to pass on the gene in order for the offspring to have the "fish odor syndrome. e) If each parent were a silent carrier of the "fish odor syndrome," then their offspring would have a 25% chance of having the syndrome.

answer

e) If each parent were a silent carrier of the "fish odor syndrome," then their offspring would have a 25% chance of having the syndrome.

question

Without knowing the genetic basis, humans have selectively bred for: a) increased body size in cattle. b) transgenic tomatoes. c) increased milk production. d) both a) and b). e) both a) and c).

answer

e) both a) and c).

question

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a disease characterized by the buildup of phenylalanine. The enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, which catalyzes the conversion of _________ to __________, is mutated and non-functional. a) phenylalanine; tyrosine b) phenylalanine; trypsin c) phenylalanine; arginine d) tyrosine; phenylalanine e) None of the above is correct.

answer

a) phenylalanine; tyrosine

question

Individuals carrying two non-functioning alleles for the gene producing the enzyme that converts phenylalanine into tyrosine: a) will develop phenylketonuria (PKU). b) will develop both PKU and Tay-Sachs disease, because one pleiotropic gene influences both traits. c) may or may not develop phenylketonuria, because the environment (diet, in this case) also plays a role in determining their phenotype. d) will develop both PKU and Tay-Sachs disease, because the genes causing the two traits are on the same chromosome. e) do not need to worry about their phenylalanine consumption, because PKU depends on both genes and the environment.

answer

c) may or may not develop phenylketonuria, because the environment (diet, in this case) also plays a

question

The ABO blood type system in humans is an example of: a) multiple alleles and codominance. b) codominance but not multiple alleles. c) multiple alleles but not codominance. d) balanced polymorphism and codominance. e) balanced polymorphism and dominant alleles.

answer

a) multiple alleles and codominance.

question

A man with the autosomal recessive disorder phenylketonuria (PKU) and a woman without PKU have a son named Peter, who does not have PKU. Peter is curious about whether his mother is a carrier for PKU. Which of the following facts would allow him to know? a) Neither of Peter's maternal grandparents have PKU. b) Peter's own daughter has PKU. c) Peter submits his own blood sample to a local genotyping lab, which establishes that he is a carrier for PKU. d) Peter's maternal grandfather has PKU. e) Peter's sister does not have PKU.

answer

d) Peter's maternal grandfather has PKU.

question

In the case of Mendel's peas, a single gene determined the height of the plant. However, in humans, adult height is influenced by many genes. A trait such as human height is said to be:

answer

polygenic.

question

All of the offspring of a black hen and a white rooster are gray. The simplest explanation for this pattern of inheritance is: a) sex linkage. b) incomplete dominance. c) codominance. d) multiple alleles. e) incomplete heterozygosity.

answer

b) incomplete dominance.

question

Pea flowers may be purple (P) or white (p). Pea seeds may be round (R) or wrinkled(r). What proportion of the offspring from a cross between heterozygous purple-flowered, round-seeded individuals will have both white flowers and round seeds? a) 1/16 b) 3/4 c) 9/16 d) 1/2 e) 3/16 The SRY gene is considered pleiotropic bec

answer

e) 3/16

question

Heart disease is thought to be a polygenic disorder in humans. Knowing this, what would you expect to see if you screened 100 people for heart disease? a) Those with heart disease should carry two of three or four different alleles for a single heart disease gene. b) Those heterozygous for heart disease should be normal. c) Those with heart disease should exhibit three levels of disease: mild, intermediate, and intense. d) Those with heart disease should show a continuous range of symptoms, from very mild to very intense. e) They should either have no heart disease or suffer full, debilitating effects from the disease.

answer

d) Those with heart disease should show a continuous range of symptoms, from very mild to very intense.

question

Which of the following is NOT a continuously varying trait? a) height b) weight c) skin color d) sickle cell disease e) eye color

answer

d) sickle cell disease

question

How many human traits are controlled by single gene? a) over a 100,000 b) 2 c) 0 d) about a 100 e) over 9,000

answer

b) 2

STUDY

AP Biology Around The World Biology Descent With Modification Evolutionary Biology Use And Disuse

Chapter 22 Test Test Questions – Flashcards 30 terms

Kayden Hussain

30 terms

Preview

Chapter 22 Test Test Questions – Flashcards

question

Darwin originally defined evolution as _____. ( Overview) the passing of acquired characteristics to offspring an individual's ability to adapt to its environment descent with modification a way to classify organisms based on morphological similarities None of the listed responses is correct.

answer

descent with modification

question

Which of the following is a key observation that must be explained in a unifying theory about life? ( Overview) All living things require oxygen to survive. Many basic characteristics are shared by all living things. Evolution is based on descent with modification. The Earth is very old. Organisms are rarely well-suited to their environments

answer

Many basic characteristics are shared by all living things.

question

Which of the following is an example of the process of evolution? ( Overview and Concept 22.3) the existence of homologous traits such as the forelimbs of mammals the large number and diversity of species of marsupials in Australia the changes in organisms over time observed in the fossil record herbivory the observed match between organisms and their environments

answer

herbivory Herbivory, such as that practiced by the soapberry bugs on the goldenrain tree, acts as a process of natural selection. Natural selection is one of the major processes that drives evolution.

question

The scala naturae, or scale of nature, is based on the ideas of _____ Darwin Lamarck Aristotle Linnaeus Lyell

answer

Aristotle

question

At the time Darwin voyaged on the HMS Beagle, the popularly accepted theory in Western culture that explained the origin of Earth's plants and animals held that the various species _____. ( Concept 22.1) arose continually from nonliving materials by spontaneous generation had been created by divine intervention a few thousand years before had evolved from now-extinct organisms arose from a single species that had survived the biblical flood are all related to one another

answer

had been created by divine intervention a few thousand years before

question

Carolus Linnaeus is considered to be the founder of _____, and he _____. ( Concept 22.1) paleontology ... believed in catastrophism uniformitarianism ... believed the same geologic forces are operating today that occurred in the past genetics ... described the mechanism for descent with modification evolution ... first proposed that acquired characteristics are inherited the binomial classification system ... thought that resemblances among different species reflected the pattern of their creation

answer

the binomial classification system ... thought that resemblances among different species reflected the pattern of their creation

question

The modern idea of extinction as a common occurrence in Earth's history was first proposed in the early 19th century writings of _____. ( Concept 22.1) Cuvier Lamarck Aristotle Wallace Lyell

answer

Cuvier

question

Lyell's principle of uniformitarianism _____. ( Concept 22.1) was rejected by Darwin in favor of catastrophism was compatible with the idea of the Earth being only a few thousand years old was similar to Lamarck's theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics states that current geologic processes are very different from those that operated in the past strongly influenced Darwin's view of how living organisms could change over time

answer

strongly influenced Darwin's view of how living organisms could change over time

question

Which of the following is a true statement about Charles Darwin? ( Concept 22.2) He was the first to discover that living things can change, or evolve. He based his theory on the inheritance of acquired characteristics. He worked out the principles of population genetics. He proposed natural selection as the mechanism of evolution. He was the first to conclude that Earth is billions of years old.

answer

He proposed natural selection as the mechanism of evolution

question

At the time Charles Darwin sailed on the HMS Beagle, _____. ( Concept 22.1) the idea that animals and plants might change over time was absent from Western science several biologists had proposed that species might change over time, but none had suggested a convincing mechanism that might cause the change the idea of evolution was widely accepted because it could fit into the biblical story of creation the idea of evolution was widely accepted by scientists, but Darwin's great impact was to popularize it for the layperson None of the listed responses is correct.

answer

several biologists had proposed that species might change over time, but none had suggested a convincing mechanism that might cause the change

question

Because he was well aware of the effect his theory of evolution would have on the public and on the Church of England, Darwin delayed publishing his work for several decades while he gathered additional evidence. After invoking selective breeding of domesticated species as evidence that groups of organisms are capable of change, he then proposed that natural populations can change as well. On which two lines of evidence did he base this proposal? ( Concept 22.2) Individuals within a population vary, yet island species around the world all appear to be related to each other. Organisms produce more offspring than can be supported by their environment, and adaptations to specific environments increase an organism's ability to survive and reproduce. Organisms within a population vary, and all populations produce more offspring than can be supported by the environment, resulting in competition for survival within the population. Some individuals leave more descendants than other individuals, but the individuals in a population are essentially identical to each other. Some individuals within a population have greater survivability and reproductive success than others, and favorable traits within a population will accumulate over generations.

answer

Organisms within a population vary, and all populations produce more offspring than can be supported by the environment, resulting in competition for survival within the population.

question

During his voyage around the world, Darwin was inspired to think about evolution by _____. ( Concept 22.2) the works of others such as Lamarck fossils he collected studying adaptations of organisms to their environments the unique organisms he saw in the Gálapagos Islands All of the listed responses are correct.

answer

All of the listed responses are correct.

question

In Darwin's view of descent with modification _____. ( Concept 22.2) an organism's traits only affect its own survival natural selection can improve the match between an organism and its environment individuals can evolve environmental changes have no effect on the organisms living in that environment natural selection only operates when an organism needs to evolve

answer

natural selection can improve the match between an organism and its environment

question

What insight did Darwin gain from reading Thomas Malthus's essay on human suffering? ( Concept 22.2) Organisms have the capacity to overreproduce. Natural selection should be capable of considerable modifications over hundreds of thousands of generations. Population size usually remains relatively stable. Favorable characteristics of a population accumulate over time. All of the listed responses are correct.

answer

Organisms have the capacity to overreproduce

question

The breeding of plants and animals for particular traits by humans is called _____. ( Concept 22.2) natural selection sexual recombination paleontology artificial selection homology

answer

sexual recombination

question

During periods of rapid environmental change, what may happen to a species that was well-suited to the former environment? ( Concept 22.2) the species may go extinct. Individuals with particular traits that provide an advantage in the new environment will have higher reproductive success. The population may change so much in adapting to the new environment that it is considered a new species. Traits that were favorable in the original environment may be detrimental in the new environment. All of the listed responses are correct.

answer

All of the listed responses are correct.

question

The smallest unit that can evolve is a(n) _____. ( Concept 22.2) species genotype individual population morph

answer

population

question

Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based? Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring. Individuals whose characteristics are best suited to the environment generally leave more offspring than those whose characteristics are less well suited. There is heritable variation among individuals. Only a fraction of an individual's offspring may survive. Species produce more offspring than the environment can support.

answer

Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.

question

Which of the following observations helped Darwin shape his concept of descent with modification? Species diversity declines farther from the equator. Fewer species live on islands than on the nearest continents. Birds can be found on islands located farther from the mainland than the birds' maximum nonstop flight distance. Earthquakes reshape life by causing mass extinctions. South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe.

answer

South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe.

question

Evolution is supported by

answer

scientific evidence

question

Desent with modification by natural selection explains

answer

the adaptations of organisms and the unity and diversity of life

question

Which of the following statements best describes theories? A) They are nearly the same things as hypotheses. B) They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations. C) They cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once. D) They are predictions of future events.

answer

B) They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations.

question

Catastrophism, meaning the regular occurrence of geological or meteorological disturbances (catastrophes), was Cuvier's attempt to explain the existence of A) evolution. B) the fossil record. C) uniformitarianism. D) the origin of new species. E) natural selection.

answer

B) the fossil record.

question

With what other idea of his time was Cuvier's theory of catastrophism most in conflict? A) gradualism B) the fixity of species C) island biogeography D) uniformitarianism E) the scala naturae

answer

D) uniformitarianism

question

What was the prevailing belief prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin? A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging. B) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change. C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change. D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging. E) Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change.

answer

A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging.

question

During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, "The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception? A) Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes. B) Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits. C) Only favorable adaptations have survival value. D) Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance. E) If the giraffes did not have to compete with each other, longer necks would not have been passed on to the next generation.

answer

Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes.

question

Charles Darwin was the first person to propose A) that evolution occurs. B) a mechanism for how evolution occurs. C) that Earth is older than a few thousand years. D) a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence. E) that population growth can outpace the growth of food resources.

answer

a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence.

question

Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural selection in a population over time? A) All variation between individuals is due only to environmental factors. B) The environment is changing at a relatively slow rate. C) The population size is large. D) The population lives in a habitat where there are no competing species present.

answer

A) All variation between individuals is due only to environmental factors

question

Natural selection is based on all of the following except A) genetic variation exists within populations. B) the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring. C) individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young. D) populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support. E) individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.

answer

E) individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.

question

Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population? A) genetic variation among individuals B) variation among individuals caused by environmental factors C) sexual reproduction D) Three of the responses are correct. E) Two of the responses are correct.

answer

A) genetic variation among individuals

STUDY

AP Biology Biology Descent With Modification Evolutionary Biology

Bio – Practice Test Questions; Chapter 19 – Flashcards 37 terms

Sean Hill

37 terms

Preview

Bio – Practice Test Questions; Chapter 19 – Flashcards

question

Darwin originally defined evolution as _____.

answer

descent with modification

question

Which of the following is a key observation that must be explained in a unifying theory about life?

answer

Many basic characteristics are shared by all living things.

question

The scala naturae, or scale of nature, is based on the ideas of _____.

answer

Aristotle

question

At the time Darwin voyaged on the HMS Beagle, the popularly accepted theory in Western culture that explained the origin of Earth's plants and animals held that the various species _____.

answer

had been created by divine intervention a few thousand years before

question

Carolus Linnaeus is considered to be the founder of _____, and he _____.

answer

the binomial classification system ... thought that resemblances among different species reflected the pattern of their creation

question

The modern idea of extinction as a common occurrence in Earth's history was first proposed in the early 19th century writings of _____.

answer

Cuvier

question

Lyell's principle of uniformitarianism _____.

answer

strongly influenced Darwin's view of how living organisms could change over time

question

Which of the following is a true statement about Charles Darwin?

answer

He proposed natural selection as the mechanism of evolution.

question

At the time Charles Darwin sailed on the HMS Beagle, _____.

answer

several biologists had proposed that species might change over time, but none had suggested a convincing mechanism that might cause the change

question

answer

Organisms within a population vary, and all populations produce more offspring than can be supported by the environment, resulting in competition for survival within the population.

question

During his voyage around the world, Darwin was inspired to think about evolution by _____.

answer

All of the listed responses are correct.

question

In Darwin's view of descent with modification _____.

answer

natural selection can improve the match between an organism and its environment

question

What insight did Darwin gain from reading Thomas Malthus's essay on human suffering?

answer

Organisms have the capacity to overproduce.

question

The breeding of plants and animals for particular traits by humans is called _____.

answer

artificial selection

question

During periods of rapid environmental change, what may happen to a species that was well-suited to the former environment?

answer

All of the listed responses are correct.

question

The smallest unit that can evolve is a(n) _____.

answer

population

question

According to the theory of evolution, anatomical and molecular homologies should _____.

answer

produce similar patterns of evolutionary relatedness

question

When they were first sold, aerosol insecticides were highly effective in killing flies and mosquitoes. Now, several decades later, a much smaller proportion of these insects die when sprayed. The reason fewer insects die when they are sprayed is that _____.

answer

many mosquitoes today are descendants of mosquitoes with insecticide-resistant characteristics

question

A population of zooplankton is exposed to a small number of predatory fish that feed on the larger-sized (adult) zooplankton. Which of the following predictions would most likely occur based on the principles of natural selection?

answer

Adult zooplankton will start to reach sexual maturity when they are still relatively small.

question

How did some strains of Staphylococcus aureus become resistant to antibiotic drugs?

answer

Some members of the bacteria population must have had a genetic variation that made them resistant to antibiotics.

question

An important challenge to traditional (pre-1860) ideas about species was the observation that seemingly dissimilar organisms such as hummingbirds, humans, and whales have similar skeletal structures. This most directly suggested to biologists that _____.

answer

dissimilar organisms might have evolved from a distant, common ancestor

question

Animals that possess homologous structures probably _____.

answer

evolved from the same ancestor

question

Vestigial organs are _____.

answer

remnants of structures that were useful to an organism's ancestors

question

All known organisms transcribe genetic information to protein molecules via the same genetic code. This finding strongly supports the hypothesis that _____.

answer

all organisms are descended from a single common ancestor

question

Evidence from molecular biology supports the theory of evolution by demonstrating that _____.

answer

closely related organisms have more similar DNA and proteins

question

What did Darwin observe about species on islands?

answer

They are often closely related to species from the nearest mainland or neighboring islands.

question

To describe evolution as a "scientific theory" means that _____.

answer

it is a broad model that is supported by many observations and much experimental evidence

question

The best description of natural selection is

answer

the reproductive success of the members of a population best adapted to the environment.

question

To Cuvier, the differences in fossils from different strata were evidence for

answer

local catastrophic events such as droughts or floods.

question

Darwin proposed that new species evolve from ancestral forms by

answer

the gradual accumulation of adaptations to changing or different environment.

question

All of the following influences Darwin as he synthesized the theory of evolution by natural selection except

answer

Mendel's paper in which he described his "laws of inheritance."

question

Which of the following statements is not considered part of the process of natural selection?

answer

Many adaptive traits may be acquired during an individual's lifetime, contributing to that individual's reproductive success.

question

What might you conclude from the observation that the bones in your arm and hand are similar to the bones that make up a bat's wing?

answer

The bones in a bat's wing are homologous to your arm ad hand bones.

question

The remnants of pelvic and leg bones in a snake

answer

are vestigial structures.

question

The hypothesis that whales evolved from land dwelling ancestors is supported by

answer

fossils of extinct whales that had increasingly reproduced hind limbs.

question

which of the following sources of evidence provides the best support for Darwin's claim that all of life is descended from a common ancestor?

answer

comparative anatomy

question

When cytochrome c molecules are compared, yeasts and molds are found to differ by approximately 46 amino acids per 100 residues (amino acid in proteins); insects and vertebrates are found to differ by 29 amino acids per 100 residues. What can one conclude from these data?

answer

Insects and vertebrates diverged from a common ancestor more recently than did yeast and molds.

STUDY

Biology Genetics IB Biology Skin

Biology Chapter 10 Test Questions – Flashcards 50 terms

Ben Russell

50 terms

Preview

Biology Chapter 10 Test Questions – Flashcards

question

A healthy young couple are both carriers of cystic fibrosis, the chance that each of their future children will inherit this serious illness is:

answer

25%

question

A portion of DNA that encodes a specific protein is:

answer

A Gene

question

Gametes may carry different combinations of alleles because of:

answer

Crossing over and random alignment of chromosomes

question

Genotype means:

answer

The combination of alleles in an individual

question

Linked genes, by definition, are genes that:

answer

Are found on the same chromosome

question

The fact that the two alleles of each gene are packaged into separate gametes; that they move apart from each other during gamete formation is Mendel's:

answer

Law of segregation

question

Homologous chromosomes have:

answer

the same genes but can have different alleles

question

If the two alleles for a particular gene are identical the gene pair is

answer

homozygous

question

If the two alleles for a particular gene are different the gene pair is

answer

heterozygous

question

If an individual is heterozygous for a particular trait

answer

Each parent contributed a different allele for that trait

question

If an individual is homozygous for a particular trait

answer

each parent contributed the same allele for that trait.

question

Phenotype means:

answer

the observable expression of the genes in an individual.

question

Two alleles of each gene are packaged into separate gametes and they move apart from each other during gamete formation summarizes Mendel's

answer

Law of segregation

question

Recombinant chromosomes have a mix of paternal and maternal alleles due to

answer

Cross over

question

The chromosome that determines human gender is

answer

the Y chromosome

question

Expression of X chromosome in males expresses

answer

Both the dominant and recessive alleles on his X chromosome.

question

correct order in which they occur: fertilization, haploid gametes produced, meiosis of diploid cell, and new diploid organism formed.

answer

meiosis of diploid cell, haploid gametes produced, fertilization, new diploid organism formed

question

The wide variation in skin color in humans is best explained by

answer

Skin color is a polygenic traits.

question

Evolution

answer

The genetic change in a population over time.

question

According to Darwin, natural selection usually:

answer

Preserves favorable variations and rejects harmful variations in a population

question

The relatively short term changes in allele frequencies within a species or population is:

answer

Microevolution

question

The entire collection of genes and their alleles is a population's:

answer

Gene pool

question

The mode of natural selection in which one extreme phenotype is fittest and the environment selects against the others is:

answer

Directional selection

question

Darwin made which observation while on his four- year voyage on the Beagle?

answer

Organisms are varied and some variations are inherited

question

Babies that are at a low birth weight are more likely to have health problems, while women will have difficulty delivering babies with high birth weight. Together this leads to ______ for babies of average birth weight.

answer

Stabilizing selection

question

Natural selection acts on

answer

Individuals

question

The founder effect occurs when

answer

small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves.

question

A gradual change from an ancestral type was referred to by Darwin as

answer

descent with modification.

question

An organisms phenotype is

answer

Its observable properties

question

The mode of natural selection in which two or more extreme phenotypes are fitter than the intermediate phenotype is

answer

disruptive selection.

question

Individuals whose red blood cells are the correct shape and are able to resist malaria have a better chance of reaching reproductive age. This is known as

answer

heterozygote advantage.

question

At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

answer

allele frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur.

question

Darwin obtained which of the following in the Essay on the Principle of Population by Malthus?

answer

More individuals of a population are born than survive to reproduce.

question

Darwin concluded from his observations of nature and readings that

answer

individuals compete with one another for limited resources and only the fittest reproduce.

question

The bottleneck effect

answer

occurs when many members of a population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity.

question

Evolution cannot occur in

answer

a single organism.

question

Farmers and horticulturalists bred broccoli, cauliflower, kale, and cabbage from the wild mustard plant through _____.

answer

artificial selection

question

The few ancestors of the Galapagos finches who colonized the islands is an example of

answer

founder effect

question

Why do different mutations accumulate in two species once they diverge?

answer

Because they can no longer mate and swap the mutation

question

The observation that most aquatic animals, like fish, penguins, and whales all have streamlined bodies and fins or flippers for steering are a result of:

answer

Convergent evolution

question

The number of differences between human cytochrome c and cytochrome c of some other organisms is as follows: Rhesus monkey - 1 difference; Pigeon - 12 differences; Fruit fly - 24 differences. The order in which these species are most similar to humans is:

answer

Rhesus monkey, pigeon, fruit fly

question

f similarities between two structures in different organisms reflect common ancestry, these structures are:

answer

Homologous

question

The abundant remains of ammonites in Oklahoma indicate

answer

that Oklahoma was in the past covered by a shallow ocean.

question

Earth once consisted of a single large landmass and one ocean. The landmass is named

answer

Pangaea

question

The wings of a bat and an insect are examples of

answer

analogous structures.

question

The femur in a snake and pelvis in a whale are examples of

answer

vestigial structures.

question

A fossil is defined as any evidence of an organism from

answer

at least 10,000 years ago.

question

A gene that when mutated leads to organisms with structures in abnormal places is termed

answer

homeotic.

question

Which of the following is most likely to be preserved as a fossil?

answer

a Bone or a shell

question

Amphibians, birds, and mammals look the most similar as _____.

answer

embryos

STUDY

AP Biology Biogeography Biology Genetics

Biology 110 Unit 2 – Flashcards 42 terms

Jaxon Craft

42 terms

Preview

Biology 110 Unit 2 – Flashcards

question

During his voyage around the world, Darwin was inspired to think about evolution by a number of different observations. What were they?

answer

Fossils, Geographical Distribution, Oceanic Islands

question

Describe the term "natural selection."

answer

Individuals that have superior physical, behavioral, or other attributes are more likely to survive than others not so well endowed

question

In natural selection, what factor determines "success"?

answer

those who can respond to the challenges of their environment become more common, "survival of the fittest"

question

What insight did Darwin gain from reading Thomas Malthus's essay on human suffering?

answer

the inescapable consequence of the potential for human populations to increase faster than food supplies and other resources.

question

What is the difference between Lamarkian and Darwinian evolution?

answer

Lamarckian evolution believes all acquired characters are inherited by the next generation. Darwinian evolution believes in survival of the fittest.

question

Describe the difference between artificial selection and natural selection.

answer

whether the difference in reproductive success is driven by naturally occurring processes, or whether the selection is imposed by humans.

question

How do vestigial organs, embryology, and molecular similarities among organisms relate to evolution?

answer

Vestigial organs, embryology, and molecular similarities in organisms show that the organisms have evolved in some way. It shows that there are some organs that they no longer need, all organism's embryos are almost the same, and that at the cellular levels all organisms are alike.

question

microevolution

answer

changes in the gene pool of a population over time that result in changes to the varieties of individuals in a population.

question

macroevolution

answer

Evolution happening on a large scale, e.g. at or above the level of a species, over geologic time resulting in the divergence of taxonomic groups.

question

What is the smallest unit that can "evolve"?

answer

population

question

How are divergence and convergence different?

answer

Divergence: The evolutionary process wherein a population of species diverge into two or more descendant species, resulting in once similar or related species becoming more and more dissimilar Convergence: A kind of evolution wherein organisms evolve structures that have similar (analogous) structures or functions in spite of their evolutionary ancestors being very dissimilar or unrelated.

question

What is the difference between homologous and analogous structures? What are some examples of each?

answer

Homologous: Structures derived from a common ancestor or same evolutionary or developmental origin (cat, bat, bird) Analogous: Structures of different species having similar or corresponding function but not from the same evolutionary origin (dragon fly)

question

What is the Hardy-Weinberg rule (What are the H-W equations, What do p and q stand for in the equations, What is the definition of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium)?

answer

p + q = 1, p = frequency of the dominant allele, q = frequency of the recessive allele

question

How do new alleles originate?

answer

mutation

question

What are the criteria necessary for a population to be in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium? How do these criteria relate to the factors involved in microevolution?

answer

Extremely large population size. (No genetic drift), No gene flow, No mutations, Random mating, No natural selection.

question

How do new combinations of existing alleles originate?

answer

sexual reproduction

question

genetic drift

answer

a change in a gene pool of a small population due to chance.

question

founder effect

answer

small sample of gene pool leads to radical change in allelic frequency in subsequent generations, eg island populations (Galapagos).

question

gene flow

answer

is a gain or loss of alleles from a population

question

bottleneck effect

answer

disaster eliminates alleles from gene pool, eg. elephant seals.

question

inbreeding

answer

The mating of two closely related persons.

question

selective predation

answer

involves predators preferring prey of a certain size.

question

What are the 5 (mechanisms of evolution) evolutionary forces that cause allele frequencies in population to change (deviate from the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium)?

answer

Mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, nonrandom mating, natural selection.

question

In a large sexually reproducing population, the frequency of an allele changes from 0.8 to 0.1. What can be deduced from this?

answer

evolution has occurred

question

directional selection

answer

a mode of natural selection in which extreme values for a trait are favored over intermediate values

question

disruptive selection

answer

a mode of natural selection in which a single phenotype is favored, causing the allele frequency to continuously shift in one direction

question

stabilizing selection

answer

a type of natural selection in which genetic diversity decreases as the population stabilizes on a particular trait value

question

What are the 6 types of prezygotic mechanisms discussed?

answer

temporal isolation, behavioral isolation, mechanical isolation, prevention of gamete fusion, ecological isolation, geographical isolation

question

prezygotic isolating mechanisms

answer

prevent the formation of viable zygotes

question

postzygotic isolating mechanism

answer

prevent hybrids from passing on their genes.

question

Describe how genetic variation exists within a population and between populations.

answer

within-polymorphism between-geographic variation

question

What is the biological species concept?

answer

A species is a reproductive community of populations (reproductively isolated from others) that occupies a specific niche (breed among themselves)

question

How do the evolutionary species concept and the phylogenetic species differ from the biological species concept?

answer

Species as members of populations that actually or potentially interbreed in nature, not according to similarity of appearance.

question

allopatric speciation

answer

occurs when a single species becomes geographically separated; each group evolves new and distinctive traits.

question

sympatric speciation

answer

occurs when two individual populations diverge from an ancestral species without being separated geographically.

question

What are some mechanisms of sympatric speciation?

answer

polyploidy, autopolyploidy, allopolyploidy

question

polyploidy

answer

extra sets of chromosomes

question

allopolyploidy

answer

hybrids that have a chromosome Number double that off their parents.

question

autopolyploidy

answer

An occurrence where both sets of chromosomes in parents have been duplicated in the offspring, sometimes resulting in the formation of a new species.

question

adaptive radiation

answer

The diversification of several new species from a recent ancestral source, each adapted to utilize or occupy a vacant adaptive zone

question

The original source of all genetic variation is_____.

answer

mutation

question

In evolutionary terms, an organism's fitness is measured by its _____.

answer

contribution to the gene pool of the next generation

STUDY

Biology Descent With Modification Evolutionary Biology

ch 22: descent with modification – Flashcards 18 terms

Robert May

18 terms

Preview

ch 22: descent with modification – Flashcards

question

Darwin originally defined evolution as...

answer

descent with modification

question

an example of the process of evolution

answer

herbivory

question

The scala naturae, or scale of nature, is based on the ideas of..

answer

aristotle

question

answer

divine intervention

question

Carolus Linnaeus is considered to be the founder of ....., and he thought that resemblances among different species reflected the pattern of their creation

answer

binomial classification system

question

The modern idea of extinction as a common occurrence in Earth's history was first proposed in the early 19th century writings of ...

answer

cuvier

question

what principle strongly influenced Darwin's view of how living organisms could change over time?

answer

uniformitarianism

question

what did darwin propose as the mechanism of evolution?

answer

natural selection

question

What insight did Darwin gain from reading Thomas Malthus's essay on human suffering?

answer

organisms have capacity to overproduce

question

The breeding of plants and animals for particular traits by humans is called _____

answer

artificial selection

question

The smallest unit that can evolve is a(n) _____

answer

population

question

According to the theory of evolution, anatomical and molecular homologies should _____

answer

produce similar patterns of evolutionary relatedness

question

Evidence from molecular biology supports the theory of evolution by demonstrating that _____

answer

closely related organisms have more similar DNA and proteins

question

What did Darwin observe about species on islands?

answer

They are often closely related to species from the nearest mainland or neighboring islands

question

answer

dissimilar organisms might have evolved from a distant, common ancestor

question

Animals that possess homologous structures probably evolved from the...

answer

same ancestor

question

On an evolutionary tree homologous characteristics for a ..... pattern

answer

nested

question

remnants of structures that were useful to an organism's ancestors

answer

vestigial organs

STUDY

Alfred Russel Wallace AP Biology Biology Biology-Advanced Studies Dogs And Cats Genetics Select The Correct Statement

Chapter 12 Reading Questions – Flashcards 20 terms

Killian Parsons

20 terms

Preview

Chapter 12 Reading Questions – Flashcards

question

Genetic change in a population through multiple generations defines which of the following?

answer

Evolution

question

The scientist who published "On the Origin of the Species by Means of Natural Selection" in 1859 was?

answer

Charles Darwin

question

A gradual change from an ancestral type was referred to by Darwin as?

answer

descent with modification

question

According to Darwin, natural selection usually

answer

preserves favorable variations and rejects harmful variations in a population.

question

The relatively short-term changes in allele frequencies within a species or population is

answer

microevolution

question

The entire collection of genes and their alleles is a population's

answer

gene pool

question

The mode of natural selection in which one extreme phenotype is fittest and the environment selects against the others is

answer

directional selection

question

The three types of natural selection are

answer

directional selection, disruptive selection, and stabilizing selection

question

Darwin made which observation while on his four-year voyage on the HMS Beagle?

answer

Organisms are varied and some variations are inherited.

question

Darwin obtained which of the following in the "Essay on the Principle of Population" by Malthus?

answer

More individuals of a population are born than survive to produce.

question

If an environment changes rapidly, organisms with ______ will be more likely to survive and reproduce.

answer

existing beneficial mutations

question

The founder effect

answer

occurs when small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements mating only among themselves.

question

The bottleneck effect

answer

occurs when many members of the population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity.

question

The mode of natural selection in which two or more extreme phenotypes are fitter than the intermediate phenotype is

answer

disruptive selection

question

The mode of natural selection in which extreme phenotypes are less fit than the optimal intermediate phenotype is

answer

stabilizing selection

question

Farmers and horticulturalists bred broccoli, cauliflower, kale, and cabbage from the wild mustard plant through ______.

answer

artificial selection

question

Darwin concluded from his observations of nature and readings that

answer

individuals compete with one another for limited resources and only the fittest reproduce.

question

A male peacock has enormous tail feathers that it uses in mating displays to attract females. While the tail of feathers are an advantage in mating, what is the potential disadvantage of these feathers to the male?

answer

The feathers require a lot of energy to produce.

question

Sexually dimorphic features do not include

answer

intelligence

question

Which of the following does NOT lead to natural selection?

answer

adjustments an individual makes during its lifetime

STUDY

Biology Classroom Public Policy Scientists

Biology and the Environment – Flashcards 160 terms

Alexander Barker

160 terms

Preview

Biology and the Environment – Flashcards

question

Scientific inquiry is largely based on

answer

an incremental approach to truth

question

The conservation ethic holds that we should

answer

be responsible for wise management while using natural resources

question

A paradigm

answer

is a dominant view in science

question

Advances in agriculture

answer

resulted in alteration and destruction of natural systems

question

The scientific process and knowledge is based on

answer

testing hypotheses that are build on observations

question

Ecological economists argue that

answer

if nothing is done to rein in population growth and increased resource consumption, human economies will plunge into ruin

question

Ecosystem services include

answer

essential services including items such as water purification and oxygen production

question

In a controlled experiment

answer

the scientist controls for the effects of all variables but the one(s) of interest

question

Environmental policy aims to

answer

promote fairness among people in the use of resources, protect the values people hold, protect the natural resources people use (all of the above)

question

Rachel Carson's book Silent Spring, published in the 1960's,

answer

awakened the American public to negative effects of pesticides, focused on chemical pollutants including industrial chemicals, was the beginning of the third wave of U.S. environmental policy, warned of bird losses through pesticide use (all of the above)

question

The categorical imperative

answer

is an ethical standard, can be used to differentiate between right and wrong, is a told for a decision making, is roughly Christianity's Golden rule (all of the above)

question

Solutions to environmental problems

answer

must be sustainable

question

The principle of utility

answer

holds hat something is right when it produces the greatest benefit for the greatest number of people

question

One ecological lesson from Easter Island is that

answer

humans and their environment are integrated

question

A centrally planned economy is

answer

a state socialist economy

question

A worldview is developed a sa result of

answer

religion, culture, education, sex (all of the above)

question

"Ecosystem services" include:

answer

erosion control

question

Which of the following is an assumption of neoclassical economics

answer

growth is good

question

Aldo Leopold's "Land Ethic" essay describes

answer

ecological communities are comprised of interdependent parts

question

An ecological footprint is a measure of

answer

the amount of land required to sustain a lifestyle

question

The use of the ocean as a site waste disposal for all is an example of

answer

a commons

question

Using the ocean as a waste disposal site

answer

benefits some people for a limited amount of time

question

Following the concept of ecological economics, the use of the ocean for surfing

answer

represents an ecosystem service

question

To change the situation, Josie can,

answer

vote, lobby, organize her fellow surfers, contribute to the campaign of like-minded politicians (all of the above)

question

The horizontal line shows

answer

productivity of the land is relatively constant, productivity of the ocean is relatively constant, the ocean's ability to absorb waste is relatively constant, the atmosphere's ability to absorb waste s relatively constant (all of the above)

question

The solid line shows

answer

humanity's ecological footprint has been increasing

question

The fact that the solid line exceeds the dashed line (an overshoot) after 1977 suggests:

answer

environmental degradation is occurring at a rate faster than the planet can restore itself

question

The fact that the overshoot continues to increase each year suggests

answer

the day that the overshoot occurs is happening earlier each year

question

Which of the variables of the experiment is the dependent variable?

answer

the number of seeds that germinated

question

Which of the variables of the experiment is the independent variable?

answer

the light level

question

What problem(s) do you see in Dr. Williams' experimental design and conclusions

answer

he did not control for temperature changes due to different light levels, he did not control for evaporation effects due to different light levels, he did not have adequate replicates to reduce the chance that the results were not due to chance, he idd not use a statistical analysis to determine the significance of his results (all of the above)

question

In order to publish this work in a legitimate scientific journal, what will need to happen

answer

the manuscript that details the experiment and results will need to be reviewed positively by other scientists

question

The GDP measures

answer

the monetary value of goods and services exchanged

question

An increase in the GDP

answer

is not necessarily a good or bad thing

question

An increase in the GPI

answer

is a good thing

question

A steady-state economy means that the economy

answer

stays stable

question

"Humans have dominion over the environment" is a view primarily espoused by

answer

anthropocentrics

question

"All life is sacred and needs to treated as such" is a view primarily espoused by

answer

biocentrics

question

Aldo Leopold, Deep Ecologists, and Transcedentalists are most closely aligned to

answer

ecocentrics

question

The utilitarian viewpoint of the environment is a view primarily espoused by

answer

anthropocentrics

question

The two processes that determine the world's current biodiversity (the number of species) are

answer

extinction and speciation

question

Which list includes biomes in the correct order of highest to lowest rainfall

answer

tropical rainforest, temperate deciduous forest, grassland, desert

question

The overall number of species has generally _______ sinces 4.5 billion years ago

answer

increased

question

The carrying capacity is the

answer

maximum population size that a given environment can sustain

question

Variation in populations

answer

is what natural selection "selects" for or against

question

Primary succession

answer

is community development on bare rock following removal of previous community including growth substrates such as soil

question

Atoms can bond to form

answer

molecules

question

A population is a

answer

group of individuals of single species that live in one area

question

All organisms with organelles in their fluid-filled inner chambers are

answer

eukaryotes

question

Chemical energy is

answer

potential energy, the energy held in the bonds between atoms

question

The pH scale was devised to quantify the ______ of a solution

answer

acidity

question

If the presence of species A reduces the growth rate of species B and the presence of species B reduces the growth rate of species A, the relationship between the two species is said to be

answer

competitive

question

Which of the following equations represents cellular respiration

answer

C6H12+602---> 6H20+6CO2+ENERGY

question

Macronutrients

answer

are required in large doses for organisms to survive

question

How energy flows in an ecosystem is often diagrammed as

answer

food web

question

Evolution in response to competition through altered resource use

answer

is called resource partitioning

question

Which macromolecule encodes the genetic messages that are transmitted between generations

answer

DNA

question

A network of relationships among a group of parts, elements, or components, that interact with and influence one another through exchange of matter and/or information is referred to as

answer

a system

question

An invasive species

answer

may outcompete native species, is a species that spreads wildly and rapidly becomes dominant can refer to exotic species, ma alter the food web (all of the above)

question

Unregulated populations tend to increase by

answer

exponential growth

question

the overall patter of this type of population is called

answer

logistic growth

question

the region on the curve around the number 2, where growth rate is positive, best reflects

answer

exponential growth

question

the population size at the number 1 is called

answer

the carrying capacity

question

the fact that the population becomes stable may imply

answer

there is a limit of resources, the birth rate is density depended, the mortality rate is density dependent, there is a negative feedback (all of the abolve)

question

the transfer of which gas goes from plants to animals

answer

oxygen

question

the transfer of which gas goes from animals to plants

answer

carbon dioxide

question

the transfer of which type of energy goes from plants to animals

answer

chemical

question

the transfer of which type of energy goes from animals to plants

answer

none of the above

question

If Shawn only suffered injury that rendered him unable to reproduce (and he had not produced any offspring yet), his fitness, in terms of evolutionary theory, would be

answer

zero

question

If this is a typical behavior of someone with a small bladder (assume bladder size has a genetic basis), and those with small bladders suffer similar fates in this population, what model of selection would apply

answer

directional selection would occur favoring those with larger bladders

question

If bladder size has a genetic basis, this means the information that determines bladder size is carried by

answer

nucleotide chains

question

natural selection assumes

answer

there is individual variation

question

the climate is

answer

seasonal

question

the months where drought is most likely to occur are

answer

june-august

question

the location of the climate regions is most likely

answer

in the northern hemisphere

question

if infrequently disturbed, the most likely biome for this climatograph is

answer

shrubby desert

question

life began in which era

answer

precambrian

question

humans began in which period

answer

quaternary

question

which of the following is in the proper sequence from earliest to the most recent

answer

prokaryotic life, eukaryotic life, terrestrial life, vertebrate life, human

question

extinction and speciation occurred in which era

answer

cenozoic, mesozoic, paleozoic, precambrian (all of the above)

question

the largest component of atmospheric gases is

answer

nitrogen

question

the green revolution prevented

answer

the starvation of millions of people

question

one of the problems that occurs as a consequence of CFC pollution is

answer

increasing skin cancer in humans

question

the increase in atmospheric greenhouse gases over the last two centuries is primarily due to

answer

fossil fuel use

question

soil can be characterized by

answer

the amount of sand, silt, and clay, pH, number and types of horizons, amount of organic material (all of the above)

question

insecticides often kill

answer

pollinators, pests, organisms that can act as biocontrol agents, organisms that feed higher on the food chain (all of the above)

question

aquaculture

answer

is typically more energetically efficient than raising terrestrial livestock

question

life expectancy in countries in countries such as botswana in southern africa

answer

has fallen dramatically compared to expectancies of the 1950's because of AIDS

question

crops made with genes extracted from other organisms are

answer

genetically engineered

question

Earth's climate

answer

is subject to change through human and natural processes

question

seasons are a result of

answer

the tilt of the earth on its axis

question

the impact of humans on the environment depends primarily on

answer

the number of people and how they live

question

exponential growth

answer

increases by a fixed percentage o=per unit time

question

keelin's mauna loa data on carbon dioxide demonstrated

answer

an increase in carbon dioxide since recording began

question

pesticides become less useful over time because

answer

resistance is acquired by larger andlarger numbers of individuals

question

populations in less developed nations

answer

are growing much more rapidly than those in more developed nations

question

the breakdown of large rocks into smaller pieces is termed

answer

weathering

question

the impacts of global climate hcange on forests will likely include

answer

shifts in the abundance of certain tree s[ecies

question

the practice of cultivating soil, producing crops, and raising livestock for human use and consumption is

answer

agriculture

question

during most of our species' 100,000-year existence and until about 10,000 years ago, we depended on

answer

hunting and gathering

question

lakes with high levels of nutrients are called

answer

eutrophic

question

which lake would you expect ot have more algae growth

answer

lake one (the one that recies high levels of nutrient inputs

question

which lake would you expect to have higher levels of oxygen

answer

lake two (lake that does not have less nutrients)

question

nutrients found in florida lake systems include

answer

agricultural fertilizers, lawn fertilizers, phosphorous, nitrogen (all of the above)

question

which population is most likely stable

answer

square bottoms and slightly stairs up

question

which population is most likely growing

answer

stairs

question

which population is most likely shrinking

answer

up side down stairs

question

which population has an uneven sex ratio

answer

the weird looking boxes

question

the numbers 1 to 12 on the y-axis are in the

answer

billions

question

the population seems to level off shortly after the year 2100. at this point

answer

the birth rate equals the death rate

question

population growth after 2000 AD is concentrated most in

answer

lesser developed world

question

base on the ipat model, an increase in population size leads to

answer

an increased environmental impact

question

this process depicted above is known as

answer

biomagnification

question

if you were a native american, eating which animal would be the least damaging in terms of PCB

answer

zooplankton

question

if PCBs function as endocrine disruptors, what may happen to the porpoises

answer

the sexuality of them will be altered

question

this process is similar to one rachel carson found with

answer

insecticides

question

atmospheric carbon dioxide has been ______ since 1958

answer

increasing

question

the seasonal ups and downs relate primarily to

answer

cycles of terrestrial plants photosynthesizing

question

the general trend of atmospheric carbon dioxide is caused by

answer

fossil fuel burning

question

carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is in part responsible for the

answer

greenhouse effect

question

water that reaches earth's surface that does not evaporate can

answer

infiltrate the surface, be taken up by animals, run off, end up in the aquifer (all of the above)

question

changes in habitat have tremendous effects on the organisms that depend on them. theses effects are

answer

generally negative because organisms are already adapted to the habitats in which they occur, so that any change is likely to render the habitat less suitable for them

question

mangroves are

answer

adapted to often flood, marine environments

question

the most dramatic form of timber harvesting in terms of habitat loss result from

answer

clear cutting

question

we build dams to

answer

generate electricity, ease irrigations, prevent floods, provide drinking water (all of the above)

question

of the fresh water that exists in the ecosphere, most of it is found where

answer

ice caps and glaciers

question

presently, extinction occurs primarily from

answer

habitat destruction

question

habitat disturbance that occurs as a result of logging includes

answer

soil erosion

question

a species

answer

can freely breed with one another to produce fertile offspring

question

biodiversity refers to

answer

genetic variants of a single species, communities of organisms, individual species, ecosystems (all of the above)

question

coral reefs are

answer

found primarily in tropical regions

question

the energy that corals use is derived from

answer

symbiotic algae that are capable of photosynthesis

question

the greatest general problem with suburbs is

answer

they spread environmental impact over a larger area

question

what percentage of total water on earth is freshwater

answer

2.5%

question

layers develop in the ocean due to

answer

sunlight penetration providing heat

question

which of the following change global species diversity

answer

speciation and extinction

question

sinkholes result from

answer

over consumption of water from aquifers

question

which of the following is the major source of oil pollution in the oceans

answer

runoff from terestrial sources

question

the greatest diversity of organisms can be found in

answer

insects

question

which of the following leads to changes in local species diversity

answer

immigration and extinction

question

the system

answer

has a variety of plant communities

question

the flow of water presently is

answer

reduced from 200 years ago

question

channelizing the kissimmee river led to

answer

a reduction in flooding

question

which is part of the overall everglades restoration plan

answer

re-establishing the flow patterns of the kissimmee river

question

according to the theory of island biogeography, which islands should have the higher rates of extinction

answer

the smaller islands

question

according to the theory of island biogeography, which islands should have the higher rates of immigration

answer

the two closer islands

question

according to the theory of island biogeography, which island would you expect to have the most species

answer

the closer bigger island

question

according to the theory of island biogeography, which island would you expect to have the least species

answer

the smaller further one

question

the dominant life form in terms of species number found in the system is

answer

insects

question

the dominant life form in terms of biomass found in the system is

answer

trees

question

individual species niche space here, compared to latitudes further away from the equator

answer

is typically more finely divided

question

the number of unknown species estimated to live in this system is

answer

1,000,000-30,000,000

question

which time period has the most interior forest

answer

the most dark area

question

which time period has the highest edge to interior area ratio

answer

the least amount of dark

question

which forested landscape would be considered the most connected

answer

the most dark area

question

which time period would you expect there to be more native vertebrate species

answer

the most dark area

question

which region would you expect a large clockwise surface gyre

answer

in between america and africa

question

which region does the warming/cooling associated with el nino/la nina occur

answer

near south america, on the equator

question

which region would you expect to find kelp forests

answer

near california

question

which region would you expect o find mangrove forests

answer

on the equator below europe

STUDY

AP Biology Biology Genetics IB Biology

AP BIOLOGY ESSAY QUESTION DNA (TAB 4) – Flashcards 12 terms

Lewis Gardner

12 terms

Preview

AP BIOLOGY ESSAY QUESTION DNA (TAB 4) – Flashcards

question

Describe the steps of protein synthesis, beginning with the attachment of messenger RNA molecule to the small subunit of a ribosome and ending with the release of the polypeptide from the ribosome. Include in your answer a discussion of how different types of RNA function in the process.

answer

In protein synthesis, the first step is the transcription of mRNA from a DNA gene in the nucleus. Messenger RNA is read from the gene for that protein by base pairing. The order of nucleotides in mRNA determine the order of amino acids, which control what the gene codes for. Transcription occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. For every gene there is a coding strand of DNA and a "dummy" strand. Both strands are located randomly on the DNA molecule. The locations of these strands are determined by the evolutionary origins of their chromosomes. Only the coding strand will be translated into RNA base pairing. RNA polymerase is the enzyme that arranges DNA into RNA. The RNA polymerase builds the RNA strand from the 5' to the 3' end. Eukaryotes have 3 types of RNA polymerase. RNA polymerase recognizes an area in DNA called the promoter and binds to it. The promoter is a string of nucleotides in DNA to which RNA polymerase binds. Promoters signal the beginning of a gene. When the RNA polymerase binds to a promoter, its starts transcribing DNA into RNA. The mRNA is then read into protein on the ribosomes. Protein is made on a ribosome. A ribosome has a large subunit and a small subunit. The large subunit contains 2 RNA molecules ( one large, one small), while the small subunit contains 1 RNA molecule. The large subunit has three sites that can hold an amino acid: the A site, the P site, and the E site. The next step is initiation, this is when the small subunit of the ribosome attaches to an mRNA molecule. The large ribosomal subunit attaches to the mRNA-formyl methionine complex with the formylmethionine tRNA going into the P site of the large subunit. Next proteins bring all the components together. Elongation is the next process to occur. A second tRNA with its amino acid goes into the A site of the large ribosomal subunit.A peptide bond is formed between the first two amino acids. The tRNA in site P, moves to the E site and exits the cell. The tRNA in the A site moves into the P site. The next tRNA moves into the A site and another peptide bond is formed. This process continues adding one amino acid at a time. Finally termination occurs, this happens when the ribosome reaches one of the three termination codons which are : UAA, UAG, UGA. At this point the protein is released from the ribosome and the ribosomal subunits separate and move to find more mRNA.

question

Describe the biochemical composition, structure and replication of DNA. Discuss how recombinant DNA techniques may be used to correct a point mutation.

answer

DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid, which is found in chromosomes, contains inherited information, they are made up of nucleotides, and are what make up genes. A nucleotide is composed of a sugar (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a base. There are 4 bases found in DNA, Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C). Adenine and guanine are double ring bases while thymine and cytosine are single ring bases. Nucleotides are joined to each other by covalent bonds between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3' carbon atom of the deoxyribose (sugar) of the next nucleotide. Each DNA molecule is unique because the order of nucleotides is unique. The order of nucleotides determines the order of amino acids in a protein. In order for DNA to replicate the initiator proteins must recognize a DNA sequence. Helicases break the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of nucleotides so that the strands can be separated. Then DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to each strand. DNA needs to be very accurate or else there will be errors in the proteins. There are 50 known repair enzymes and they will repair the DNA after it replicated. Point mutation is when there is a change in a single base pair. These changes (depending on the type) can have no to a very drastic effect on the resulting protein. But the repair enzymes correct these mutations throughout the process.

question

Experiments by the following scientists provided critical information concerning DNA. Describe each classical experiment and indicate how it provided evidence for the chemical nature of the gene. a)Hershey Chase- bacteriophage replication b)Griffith and Avery, MacLeod and McCarty- bacterial transformation c)Meselson and Stahl- DNA replication in bacteria

answer

not done yet

question

a)Describe in a brief paragraph the characteristics of mutation. b)List the various alterations in the hereditary material that result in mutation. Illustrate each with a simple but appropriate diagram and/or example. c)Discuss how one of the alterations you discussed in part B cause hereditary change.

answer

not done yet

question

Proteins-large complex molecules- are major building blocks of all living organisms. Discuss the following in relation to proteins. a)The chemical composition and levels of structure of proteins. b)The roles of DNA and RNA in protein synthesis. c)The roles of proteins in membrane structure and transport of molecules across the membrane.

answer

a)The chemical composition and levels of structure of proteins. A protein is a string of amino acids held together by a peptide bond. Every protein has free amino and a free carboxyl end. Typically proteins have a primary, secondary, and tertiary structure. The primary structure is the order of the amino acids in the protein. The secondary structure has the long string of amino acids coiling into an alpha helix. The tertiary structure is composed of the beta-pleated sheets and the alpha helices folding together. b)The roles of DNA and RNA in protein synthesis. DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid, which is found in chromosomes, contains inherited information, they are made up of nucleotides, and are what make up genes. A nucleotide is composed of a sugar (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a base. There are 4 bases found in DNA, Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C). Adenine and guanine are double ring bases while thymine and cytosine are single ring bases. Nucleotides are joined to each other by covalent bonds between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3' carbon atom of the deoxyribose (sugar) of the next nucleotide. Each DNA molecule is unique because the order of nucleotides is unique. The order of nucleotides determines the order of amino acids in a protein. RNA is a nucleic acid composed of nucleotides and consists of one strand of nucleotides. There are three different types of RNA: Ribosomal, Messenger, and Transfer. Ribosomal RNA is the RNA molecules found in ribosomes. The large subunit RNA contains the enzymatic activity that makes the peptide bonds between amino acids. Messenger RNA is what controls the order of amino acids in a protein and determines which gene it codes for. Transfer RNA brings amino acids to ribosomes. The transfer RNA has two recognition sites: one recognizes an amino acid and the other recognizes one codon. The transfer RNA brings the the correct amino acid to the ribosome. c) not done yet

question

Scientists seeking to determine which molecule is responsible for the transmission of characteristics from one generation to the next knew that the molecule must (1) copy itself precisely, (2) be stable but able to be changed, and (3) be complex enough to determine the organism's phenotype. a)Explain how DNA meets each of the three criteria stated above. b)Select one of the criteria stated above and describe experimental evidence to determine that DNA is the hereditary material.

answer

not done yet

question

A portion of a specific DNA molecule consists of the following sequence of nucleotide triplets. TAC GAA CTT GGG TCC This DNA sequence codes for the following short polypeptide. methionine-leucine-glutamic acid-proline- arginine Describe the steps in the synthesis of this polypeptide. What would be the effect of a deletion or an addition in one of the DNA nucleotides? What would be the effect of a substitution in one of the nucleotides?

answer

not done yet

question

Information transfer is fundamental to all living organisms. For two of the following examples, explain in detail how the transfer of information is accomplished. a)The genetic material in one eukaryotic cell is copied and distributed to two identical daughter cells. b)A gene in a eukaryotic cell is transcribed and translated to produce a protein. c)The genetic material from one bacterial cell enters another via transformation, transduction, or conjugation.

answer

not done yet

question

A bacterial plasmid is 100 kb in length. The plasmid DNA was digested to completion with two restriction enzymes in three separate treatments: EcoRI, HaeIII, and EcoRI + HaeIII (double digest). The fragments were then separated with electrophoresis, as shown. Using the circle provided, construct a labeled diagram of the restriction map of the plasmid. Explain how you developed your map. Describe how: recombinant DNA technology could be used to insert a gene interest into a bacterium recombinant bacteria could be defined expression of the gene of interest could be ensured Discuss how a specific genetically modified organism might provide a benefit for humans and at the same time pose as a threat to a population or ecosystem.

answer

not done yet

question

not in yet

answer

not done yet

question

The flow of genetic information from DNA to protein in eukaryotic cell is called the central dogma of biology. Explain the role of each of the following in protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. -RNA polymerase -Spliceosomal ( snRNPs) -Codons -tRNA

answer

not done yet

question

Information flow in cells can be regulated by various mechanisms. a)Describe the role of THREE of the following in the regulation of protein synthesis: -RNA splicing -repressor proteins -methylation -siRNA b)Information flow can be altered by mutation. Describe THREE different types of mutation and their effect on protein synthesis. c)Identify TWO environmental factors that increase the rate in an organism, and discuss their effect on the genome of the organism. d)Epigenetics is the study of heritable changes in the phenotype caused by mechanisms other than changes in the DNA sequence. Describe ONE example of epigenetic inheritance.

answer

not done yet

STUDY

AP Biology Biology Genetics

DNA Structure, replication, Transcription and translation – Flashcards 53 terms

Aiden Boyd

53 terms

Preview

DNA Structure, replication, Transcription and translation – Flashcards

question

DNA Replication

answer

the process of making identical copies of DNA before cell division

question

central dogma

answer

DNA -> RNA -> Protein

question

DNA helicase

answer

An enzyme that unwinds the double helix of DNA and separates the DNA strands in preparation for DNA replication.

question

DNA Polymerase

answer

"Proof reads", to fix mistakes in DNA, Enzyme involved in DNA replication that joins individual nucleotides to produce a DNA molecule

question

double helix

answer

The form of native DNA, referring to its two adjacent polynucleotide strands wound into a spiral shape.

question

stages of replication

answer

Initiation (RNA primer, then DNA polymerase attaches) + Elongation (DNA polymerase adds bases)

question

Primase

answer

An enzyme that joins RNA nucleotides to make the primer using the parental DNA strand as a template.

question

RNA primer

answer

short segment of RNA used to initiate synthesis of a new strand of DNA during replication

question

DNA helicase

answer

An enzyme that unwinds the DNA double helix during DNA replication

question

Leading strand

answer

the new continuous complementary DNA strand synthesized along the template strand in the mandatory 5' --> 3' direction

question

Lagging strand

answer

A discontinuously synthesized DNA strand that elongates in a direction away from the replication fork.

question

semi conservative

answer

Each half of an original DNA molecule serves as a template for a new strand, and the two new DNA molecules each have one old and one new strand.

question

deoxyribonucleic acid

answer

A nucleic acid molecule, usually a double stranded helix, in which each polynucleotide strand consists of nucleotide monomers with a deoxyribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases A T C G; capable of being replicated and determining the inherited structure of cell's proteins.

question

nucleotide

answer

long chain of polymers; A subunit of nucleic acids formed from a simple sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.

question

adenine

answer

A nitrogenous base found in DNA and RNA. It pairs with thymine in DNA and with uracil in RNA

question

guanine

answer

A nitrogenous base found in both DNA and RNA; pairs only with cytosine.

question

thymine

answer

A nitrogenous base that pairs with adenine. Found only in DNA.

question

cytosine

answer

A nitrogenous base found in DNA and RNA; pairs with guanine

question

purine

answer

A class of nucleotides that includes adenine and guanine. - double ring

question

replication

answer

The process whereby DNA makes a copy of itself before cell division

question

complementary

answer

Capable of precisely base-pairing with one another by matching G with C and A with T.

question

base pairs

answer

Any of the pairs formed between complimentary bases in the two nucleotide chains of DNA, such as A-T and C-G (DNA); A-U and C-G (RNA)

question

replication fork

answer

A Y-shaped region on a replicating DNA molecule where new strands are growing. - Point where DNA is separated and replication begins

question

Mutation

answer

- An error during replication - any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA - wrong nucleotide is added, changes the gene sequence, one error per billion nucleotides

question

Nitrogenous Base

answer

Flags, two different groups (Pyrimidines and Purines)

question

Double Helix

answer

Two twisted strands of DNA

question

Polyneucleotides

answer

long chain of nucleotides - assembled in the 5 prime to 3 prime direction (covalent bonds)

question

Transcription

answer

(genetics) the organic process whereby the DNA sequence in a gene is copied into mRNA DNA to mRNA Construction of mRNA from a DNA molecule

question

RNA polymerase

answer

Enzyme similar to DNA polymerase that binds to DNA and separates the DNA strands during transcription An enzyme that links together the growing chain of RNA nucleotides during transcription, using a DNA strand as a template.

question

mRNA

answer

A type of RNA, synthesized from DNA, that attaches to ribosomes in the cytoplasm and specifies the primary structure of a protein; also called messenger RNA.

question

Stages in Transcription

answer

initiation, elongation, termination

question

Initiation in transcription

answer

Attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter RNA polymerase binds to a promoter start (start!)

question

elongation In transcription

answer

RNA nucleotides are added to the chain

question

promoter

answer

A specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that binds RNA polymerase and indicates where to start transcribing RNA.

question

Termination in transcription

answer

RNA polymerase reaches a terminator sequence (Stop codon) and detaches from the template

question

tRNA

answer

An RNA molecule that functions as an interpreter between nucleic acid and protein language by picking up specific amino acids and recognizing the appropriate codons in the mRNA

question

rRNA

answer

-gives physical support for mRNA and tRNA Ribosomal RNA

question

Ribosomes

answer

Cytoplasmic organelles at which proteins are synthesized. A cell organelle constructed in the nucleolus and functioning as the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm; consists of rRNA and protein molecules, which make up two subunits.

question

Translation

answer

(genetics) the process whereby genetic information coded in messenger RNA directs the formation of a specific protein at a ribosomes in the cytoplasm Decoding of a mRNA message into a polypeptide chain

question

Codon

answer

A specific sequence of three adjacent bases on a strand of DNA or RNA that provides genetic code information for a particular amino acid

question

Anticodon

answer

A sequence of three bases of a tRNA molecule that pairs with the complementary three-nucleotide codon of an mRNA molecule during protein synthesis.

question

Start codon

answer

AUG; the codon that begins all RNA. AUG (methionine) specific codon (AUG) that signals to the ribosome that the translation commences at that point

question

Stop codon

answer

UAG, UAA, or UGA; the codon that ends all RNA. Codon that signals to ribosomes to stop translation

question

degenerate codon

answer

A codon that specifies the same amino acid as another codon. more than one codon codes for amino acid

question

Codon table

answer

shows all 64 codons with the amino acids they code for.

question

Nucleus

answer

Contains DNA

question

exit site on Ribosomes

answer

question

P and A site on Ribosomes

answer

question

epigenetics

answer

HERITABLE changes in expression of a gene that changes phenotype but not the DNA itself... just changes in chromatin structurer

question

ribosomes

answer

A cell organelle constructed in the nucleolus and functioning as the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm; consists of rRNA and protein molecules, which make up two subunits.

question

origin of replication

answer

Site where the replication of a DNA molecule begins, consisting of a specific sequence of nucleotides. short stretches of DNA having a specific sequence of nucleotides

question

eukaryote origin of replication

answer

many (maybe in the thousands) origins of replication

question

prokaryote orgin of replication

answer

one orgin of replication

STUDY

Biology Evolutionary Biology Genetics Hardy Weinberg Equation

Bio Ch 13 & 15 – Flashcards 50 terms

Kate Moore

50 terms

Preview

Bio Ch 13 & 15 – Flashcards

question

In his Essay on the Principle of Population, Malthus said humans were the only population that could continue to grow in size indefinitely

answer

question

The books Principles of Geology by Charles Lyell described how changes in land formations can cause species to evolve

answer

question

Natural selection can cause the spread of an advantageous adaptation throughout a population over time

answer

question

The 2 major ideas that Darwin presented in The Origin of the Species were that evolution occurred and that natural selection was its mechanism

answer

question

Natural selection causes allele frequencies within population to remain the same

answer

question

Two hypotheses suggested about the rate at which evolution proceeds are gradualism and punctuated equilibrium

answer

question

The theory of evolution predicts that genes will accumulate more alterations in their nucleotide sequences over time

answer

question

Evidence for evolution occurs only in the fossil record

answer

question

The human forelimb and the bat forelimb are homologous structures

answer

question

The way an embryo develops is not important in determining the evolutionary history of a species

answer

question

The environment dictates only the direction and extent of evolution

answer

question

Mutant bacteria that cause tuberculosis were selected against by natural selection mechanisms

answer

question

When food is plentiful, there is little selective pressure on the beaks of finches

answer

question

When food is scarce, there is little selective pressure on the beaks of finches

answer

question

When food is scarce, the number of different beak shapes of finches increases

answer

question

Within populations, divergence leads to speciation

answer

question

The study of demographics helps predict changes in the size of a population

answer

question

Very small populations are less likely to become extinct than large populations

answer

question

The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that the proportions of recessive and dominate alleles in a population fluctuate randomly from generation to generation

answer

question

Mutations are so common that they are the major cause of changes in allele frequencies within a population

answer

question

Darwin thought that the plants and animals of the Galapagos Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast of South America because __ a. their ancestors had migrated from South America to the Galapagos Islands // b. other scientists in South America had written about similar species // c. the island organ isms had the same nucleotide sequences in their DNA as the mainland organisms // d. he found fossils, proving that the animals and plants had common ancestors

answer

question

Darwin conducted much of his research in __ a. the Samoan Islands // b. Manhattan Island // c. the Hawaiian Islands // d. the Galapagos Islands

answer

question

The process by which a species becomes better suited to its environment is known as __ a. accommodation // b. variation // c. adaptation // d. selection

answer

question

According to Darwin, evolution occurs __ a. by chance // b. during half-life periods of 5,750 years // c. because of natural selection // d. rapidly

answer

question

The hypothesis that evolution occurs at a slow, constant rate is known as __ a. gradualism // b. slow motion // c. natural selection // d. adaptation

answer

question

Which of the following are examples of fossils? __ a. shell or old bones // b. any traces of dead organism // c. footprints of human ancestors, insects trapped in tree sap, and animals buried in tar // d. All of the above

answer

question

Refer to the illustration above. The similarity of the structures suggests that the organism __ a. have a common ancestor // b. all grow at different rates // c. evolved slowly // d. live for a long time

answer

question

The theory of evolution predicts that __ a. closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences // b. if species have changed over time, their genes should have changed // c. closely related species will show similarities in amino acid sequences // d. All of the above

answer

question

Scarcity of resources and a growing population are __ a. homology // b. protective coloration // c. competition // d. convergent evolution

answer

question

A change in the frequency of a particular gene in one direction in a population is a result of __ a. natural selection // b. acquired variation // c. chromosome drift // d. balancing selection

answer

question

Mycobacterium tuberculosis __ a. always responds to antibiotics // b. can mutate and become resistant to antibiotics // c. is a harmless organism that normally occurs in human lungs // d. has never responded to antibiotics

answer

question

The lung disease tuberculosis __ a. kills more adults than any other infectious disease // b. is easily treated with rifampin and isoniazid // c. is caused by an unknown organism // d. usually affects only children

answer

question

Rifampin, the antibiotic commonly used to treat tuberculosis, acts by __ a. mutating bacterial RNA // b. preventing bacteria from dividing // c. mutating bacterial polymerase genes // d. prevent bacterial mRNA transcription

answer

question

Beak shape in finches is affected by __ a. the number of predators in the area // b. the size of the finch // c. the order of the finch // d. the availability of food

answer

question

In order to fit into their habitat, the Galapagos Finches had __ a. not changed // b. migrated // c. evolved // d. None of the above

answer

question

The accumulation of differences between species or populations is called __ a. gradualism // b. adaptation // c. divergence // d. differentiation

answer

question

New species form __ a. when subspecies diverge more and more // b. because of natural selection // c. when members of the same species become adapted to new environments // d. All of the above

answer

question

All of the following are problems arising from inbreeding, except __ a. production of a genetically uniform population // b. increases in the diversity within a population // c. increases chance of homozygous recessive alleles occurring // d. reduction of a population's ability to adapt to environmental changes

answer

question

Demographic studies of populations must take into consideration __ a. population size // b. population density // c. population dispersion // d. All of the above

answer

question

As a population reaches its carrying capacity, there is an increase in competition for __ a. food // b. shelter // c. mates // d. All of the above

answer

question

Refer to the illustration above. Which time period shows exponential growth of the population? __ a. period A // b. period B // c. period C // d. period D

answer

question

Refer to the illustration above. During which time period are the birth rate and death rate equal? __ a. period A // b. period B // c. period C // d. period D

answer

question

Refer to the illustration above. The rate of growth of a population is represented by r. During which time period will r=0? __ a. period A // b. period B // c. period C // d. period D

answer

No answer available

question

All of the following are true of r-strategists except __ a. early maturation and reproduction // b. little parental care // c. few offspring // d. small offspring

answer

question

bacteria : r-strategists : : __ a. gorillas : k-strategist // b. insects : k-strategists // c. annual plants : k-strategists // d. rhinoceroses : r-strategists

answer

question

In 1908, Hardy and Weinberg independently demonstrated that __ a. r- and k- strategists populations are actually the same // b. recessive alleles replace dominant alleles in a population over long periods of time // c. dominant alleles do not replace recessive alleles in a population // d. recessive alleles are usually more common than dominant alleles

answer

question

non random mating : increasing proportion of homozygotes : : __ a. migration of individuals : gene flow // b. mutation : major change in allele frequencies // c. Hardy-Weinberg equation : natural selection // d. inbreeding : frequency of alleles

answer

question

homozygous : heterozygous : : __ a. heterozygous : Bb // b. Probability : predicting chances // c. dominant : recessive // d. factor : gene

answer

question

Directional selection tends to eliminate __ a. both extremes in a range of phenotypes // b. one extreme in a range of phenotypes // c. intermediate phenotypes // d. None of the above, it causes new phenotypes to form

answer

question

The range of phenotypes shifts toward one extreme in __ a. stabilizing selection // b. disruptive selection // c. directional selection // d. polygenic selection

answer

STUDY

Biology Microbiology Pathology

College Biology 1 Final Exam – Flashcards 146 terms

Elizabeth Bates

146 terms

Preview

College Biology 1 Final Exam – Flashcards

question

General differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are?

answer

Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles, prokaryotic cells generally do not.

question

Beta cells are cells in the human pancreas whose primary function is to produce and secrete the protein hormone insulin. A beta cell would contain?

answer

An active Golgi apparatus.

question

What is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids keep biological membranes fluid at lower temperatures?

answer

Unsaturated fatty acids have kinks in their tails, preventing tight packing of adjacent lipids.

question

What is not found in chloroplasts?

answer

Thylakoids, DNA, Ribosomes and an electron transport proteins.

question

What is found in plant cells, but not in animal cells?

answer

Central vacuole.

question

In a plant cell DNA is found where?

answer

In the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.

question

What central structures grows out to the centrosome, and provides compression resistance for the cell?

answer

Microtubules.

question

What cellular structures interact with myosin motor proteins to produce contraction in human skeletal muscles?

answer

Microfilaments.

question

What molecules would you expect to move most quickly through the plasma membrane via passive diffusion (directly through the phospholipid bilayer)?

answer

Oxygen (O₂)

question

What structures would most likely be associated with the cell-cell junction between a nerve cell and a muscle cell?

answer

Gap junction.

question

White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process?

answer

Phagocytosis.

question

What functions are not associated with membrane proteins?

answer

Signal transduction, Enzymatic activity, Transport, and Phosphorilation of ADP to ATP.

question

What is always true of a chemical reaction with a negative delta G?

answer

The reaction is spontaneous.

question

What is not true of the citric acid cycle?

answer

3 NADH are produced per pyruvate, 1 FADH₂is produced per pyruvate and 1 ATP is produced per pyruvate.

question

What is true of Glycolysis, assuming 1 glucose as the starting carbohydrate?

answer

Two 3-carbon sugars are produced by this process.

question

What processes produce(es) ATP by substrate level phosphorylation?

answer

Glycolysis.

question

What would be expected to up-regulate (activate) phosphofructokinase activity?

answer

High AMP concentration.

question

Use the following chemical reaction for this question and the next. CH₄+ o₂---> CO₂+ H₂O Which of the molecules acts as the reducing agent in the above reaction?

answer

CH₄

question

Which of the molecules acts as the oxidizing agent in the above reaction?

answer

O₂

question

What is not a direct product of the light reactions of photosynthesis?

answer

Glucose

question

T/F...Placing an animal cell in a hypertonic saline solution may result in cell lysis (cell rupture).

answer

False.

question

T/F...Spontaneous processes increase the entropy of the universe.

answer

True.

question

T/F...The diffusion of dye molecules when a drop of dye is dropped into a flask of water is an endergonic process.

answer

False.

question

Facilitated diffusion of molecules through protein channels is a type of active transport.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Proteins that function in the cytosol are generally made at free ribosomes.

answer

True.

question

T/F...A Glycolipid consists of a protein covalently bound to a lipid.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Spontaneous reactions always proceed toward equilibrium.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Hydrolyisis of ATP to ADP + P₁ os am exergonic process.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Pyruvate dehydrogensase, an essential enzyme in the production of acetyl CoA from pyruvate, requires Mg+ ions. Her, Mg+ ions acts as cofactors.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Pyruvate oxidation to acetyl CoA yields 2 FADH₂ per pyruvate.

answer

False.

question

Overall, cellular respiration is an anabolic process.

answer

False.

question

What is the overall balanced chemical equation for photosynthesis in plants? Use glucose as the sugar.

answer

Energy + 6CO₂+ 6H₂O----->C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

question

Carbon fixation is the first step in ____. Carbon fixation is catalyzed by the enzyme_____, which incorporates carbon from the molecule_____ into organic molecules. The organic molecules are then (reduced or oxidized)______to produce a sugar with (How many)____carbons, which is then further modified to produce glucose?

answer

Calvin cycle, rubisco, CO₂, reduced, 3.

question

At which level of the hierarchy of biology does the emergent property of Photosynthesis first occur?

answer

Organelle level.

question

What is the lowest level of the hierarchy of biology that can perform all of the functions of life, and thus has all the properties of life?

answer

Cellular level.

question

In an aqueous solution at standard temperature and pressure, if [H+] = 10⁻⁹M, what is [OH]?

answer

10⁻⁵M

question

The common ancestor between two species is most recent (i.e. the two species are most closely related) if the two species are members of the same?

answer

Family.

question

What best describes all of the white-tailed deer living in a 20km₂forest in eastern Faulkner County, AR?

answer

A population.

question

What four elements make up about 96% of the human body, and about 96% of all living matter?

answer

Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen.

question

What type of bond must be broken in order for water to vaporize? (evaporate)

answer

Hydrogen bonds.

question

Which type of energy is produced as a by-product of conversions of energy from one type to another?

answer

Heat energy.

question

The purpose of double-blinding in an experiment is to?

answer

Minimize human bias.

question

A botanist is studying the effect of light on leaf growth in the plant species Arabidopsis thaliana. 100 A. thaliana plants are grown in a greenhouse under varying lengths of artificial daylight, with treatments varying from 2 hours of daylight to 20 hours of daylight, per 24 hour period. The amount of water and fertilizer were kept constant among all treatments. After 30 days, the size of each leaf on every plant was measured. Depending on the genetics of the individual plant, hair-like structures called trichomes may or may not be present on the stem of the plant. What is the independent variable?

answer

Length of artificial daylight.

question

In the previous experiment in Arabidopsis thaliana, which of the following was the dependent variable?

answer

Size of leaves.

question

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are?

answer

Nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.

question

We can be sure that a mole of water (H₂O) and a mole of ethanol (C₂H₆O) are equal in their?

answer

Number of molecules.

question

How many electrons does oxygen need to gain to fill its valence shell?

answer

question

If oxygen were more electronegative...?

answer

water would be more polar.

question

A compound contains carboxyl groups as its predominant functional group. What is true concerning this compound?

answer

It should dissolve in water.

question

What is not a polymer?

answer

Glucose.

question

The covalent bonding of two amino acids requires?

answer

The release of a water molecule.

question

The covalent bond that holds two amino acids together is called a ?

answer

Peptide bond.

question

What would you expect to find at the 5' end of a DNA strand?

answer

A Phosphate group.

question

Transmembrane proteins span the phospholipid bilayer, from one surface to the other, often acting as a "tunnel" through the hydrophobic membrane interior. Of these three amino acids: Alanine, Leucine and Asparagine, which would you expect to find at the surface "entrance" to the transmembrane protein?

answer

Asparagine.

question

Which of the three amono acids, asparagine, alanine and leucine would you expect to find covering the exterior of the "tunnel" section, coming into contact with the interior of the phospholipid bilayer?

answer

Both alanine and leucine.

question

If in a double-stranded DNA molecule, 20% of the nitrogenous bases are Guanine, what percentage of the nitrogenous bases are Cytosine?

answer

20%

question

What term correctly describes the monomeric subunit that is linked together to form the nucleic acid polymer?

answer

Nucleotide

question

Beta pleated sheets and Alpha helices form a part of the____structure of proteins.

answer

Secondary

question

What is true of Thymine?

answer

Its a pyrimidine and it occurs in DNA.

question

Which type of bond holds the two antiparallel strands of a double DNA molecule together?

answer

Covalent bonds between purines and pyrimidines.

question

T/F...Independent variables are manipulated by the researcher, and the effect on the dependent variables is measured.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Qualitative data is never as good or as valuable as quantitative data.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A population that has zero genetic variation and no variation in traits will NOT be acted upon by natural selection.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Archaea, bacteria, and eukaryotes share a common ancestor.

answer

True.

question

T/F... A scientific theory is generally accepted as truth and is supported by a great deal of evidence, but still can be modified or discarded if sufficient evidence comes out to disprove the theory.

answer

False.

question

T/F...An atom with 12 protons and 14 neutrons is the same element as an atom with 12 protons and 12 neutrons.

answer

True.

question

T/F...For glucose, an equilibrium exists between a linear and a ring structure, but that equilibrium favors the linear structure.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Saturated fats are usually liquid at room temperature.

answer

False.

question

T/F...In a population of white beetles living in a dark cave, where no variation in color and no variation in the genes controlling color exist, a mutation occurs in a new-born beetle that gives it a black color. The birth of this individual is due to natural selection.

answer

False.

question

T/F...In the beetle population aforementioned, following the birth of the white beetle and over the course of several dozen generations, black color becomes more common than white color. This change in the population over generations is due to natural selection.

answer

true.

question

T/F...An aqueous solution in which [H+] = 10⁴M is acidic.

answer

True

question

T/F...Phospholipids, like fats, contain glycerol.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Every protein has four levels of structure: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary.

answer

False.

question

What is characterized by a cell releasing a signaling molecule into the extracellular environment, followed by a response from cells in the immediate vicinity?

answer

Paracrine signaling

question

What is true of transcription factors?

answer

They regulate gene expression.

question

One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts to a signaling molecule by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins. Which type does this?

answer

Receptor tyrosine kinases.

question

What is a correct association?

answer

GTPase activity and hydrolysis of GTP to GDP.

question

What is/are potential cellular responses to an endocrine signal?

answer

Upregulation of gene expression, changing of cytoplasmic ion concentrations, activation of a particular enzyme, and cytoskeletal movement.

question

Phosphorilation cascades involving a series of protein kinases are useful for cellular signal transduction because?

answer

They amplify the original signal.

question

A group of cells assayed for DNA content at the beginning of G₁, and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S phase, and at the end of G²?

answer

16, 16

question

For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?

answer

Spindle microtubules must begin to break down.

question

At which stage of the cell cycle are chromosomes attached to the spindle and lined up along the middle of the cell?

answer

Metaphase.

question

Microtubules that interact with microtubules from the other side of the mitotic spindle, pushing against each other and maintaining the shape of the spindle, are called?

answer

Non-kinetochore microtubules.

question

What mechanism is normally involved in regulating the cell cycle?

answer

Anchorage dependance, density-dependent inhibition, and growth factors.

question

During which stage of the cell cycle do the two members of a homologous pair of chromosomes line up on opposite sides of the metaphase plate?

answer

Metaphase I of meiosis.

question

During which stage of the cell cycle does crossing over (homologous recombination) occur?

answer

Prophase I of meiosis.

question

During which stage of the cell cycle is the DNA found in duplicated, non-condensed chromatin form?

answer

G₂

question

During which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

answer

S phase.

question

A human somatic cell contains 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes at G₁. How many sister chromatids are present in the same cell at G₂?

answer

question

What is the probability that a normal, two sided coin is flipped three times in a row, landing on heads all three times?

answer

1/8

question

What is an example of a true-breeding genotype?

answer

AABB

question

What is/are true of the flower color gene in pea plants, for which dominant purple allele (P) and a recessive (p) allele exist?

answer

Both alleles are found at the same locus.

question

T/F...Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is a common second messenger involved in cell signaling.

answer

True.

question

T/F...In a multicellular eukaryotic organism, all cells respond the same way to an endocrine signal.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Flowering plants produce a multicellular haploid stage as part of their life cycle.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Animals produce a multicellular haploid stage as part of their life cycle.

answer

False.

question

T/F...In animals, a cell plate forms between the daughter cells during cytokinesis.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A human somatic cell is diploid at mitotic metaphase.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells with haploid sets of chromosomes.

answer

True.

question

T/F...In all eukaryotic organisms, the nuclear envelope breaks down during mitosis.

answer

False.

question

T/F...No human characteristics are inherited in a single gene, dominant/recessive manner.

answer

False.

question

The human ABO blood group is inherited in a codominant manner.

answer

True.

question

A father is AaTt and can make what gametes?

answer

AT, At, aT, and at

question

A mother is AaTT and can make what gametes?

answer

AT, and at.

question

The most common form of colorblindness is inherited on the X chromosome. If a colorblind man and a woman who is a carrier for colorblindness have a child, what is the probability that the child is a colorblind male?

answer

1/4

question

If the couple aforementioned has another child, what is the probability that the child is a girl with normal vision?

answer

1/4

question

What human cell types would be expected to have 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome?

answer

Sperm.

question

What phenomena is responsible for the calico coloration seen in female domestic cats?

answer

X-inactivation.

question

What process could transfer a gene from chromosome 4 to chromosome 7?

answer

Translocation.

question

In DNA replication E.coli, what enzymes is/are more active on the lagging strand than on the leading strand?

answer

Primase.

question

What is true of a nucleosome?

answer

It consists of DNA wrapped around 8 histone proteins, contains 4 different types of histone proteins, and are "beads on a string".

question

What is the role of the scaffold protein in chromatin packaging?

answer

Serves as an attachment point for the looping of the selenoid structure.

question

In which area of a chromosome would you expect to find the most genes?

answer

Euchromatin.

question

What process involves the production of mRNA from a DNA template?

answer

Transcription.

question

Where would you expect to find a difference in sugar in the sugar in DNA, compared to the sugar in RNA?

answer

At the 2' carbon.

question

What is found in the eukaryotic gene but not in a bacterial gene?

answer

Polyadenylation signal.

question

Given the following mRNA sequence: 5'-AACUCGUGCT-3' : what is the coding strand of DNA?

answer

5'-AACTCGTGCT-3'

question

What eukaryotic processes requires the presence of transcription factors?

answer

Initiation of transcription.

question

What is removed from a eukaryotic pre-mRNA by the Spliceosome?

answer

Introns.

question

What structures are composed of a combination of nucleic acids and amino acids?

answer

Spliceosome, ribosome, and chromatin.

question

What is not true of tRNA?

answer

That it's found only in prokaryotic organisms.

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme adds nucleotides to the growing daughter strand.

answer

DNA polymerase 3

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme separates the two parent strands at the replication fork.

answer

Helicase.

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme adds nucleotides to fill in gaps left by the removal of primers.

answer

Ligase.

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme relieves tension in the DNA double helix downstream from the replication fork.

answer

Topisomerase.

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme has proofreading ability, allowing it to catch and correct most of its own mistakes.

answer

DNA polymerase 3

question

A charged tRNA enters the ribosome at this location

answer

A site.

question

An uncharged tRNA exits the ribosome at this location.

answer

E site.

question

The growing polypeptide chain is transformed from the tRNA in the___ to the tRNA in the ___forming a new peptide bond.

answer

P site, A site.

question

T/F...Males are the heterogametic sex in all animal species.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Human mitochondrial genes are inherited from the male parent.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A single nondisjunction during meiosis 1 would result in two gametes each with one extra chromosome, and two gametes each with one missing chromosome.

answer

True.

question

T/F...A trisomy of chromosome 1 would be expected to have a more profound effect on phenotype than a trisomy of chromosome 21.

answer

True.

question

T/F...In humans there are more Y-linked disorders than X-linked disorders.

answer

False.

question

T/F...The nitrogenous base Adenine is a purine.

answer

True.

question

T/F...The nitrogenous base in Adenine is found in RNA and DNA.

answer

True.

question

T/F...The nitrogenous base Adenine usually pairs with Cytosine.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A phosphate group is found at the 3' end of a DNA strand.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Okasaki fragments are produced only by leading strand synthesis.

answer

True.

question

T/F...The enzyme telomerase is more active in somatic cells than in cells that produce gametes.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Chromatin is a combination of DNA and protein.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Eukaryotic transcription and translation often occur simultaneously in the same part of the cell.

answer

False.

question

T/F...There is always only one codon that can code for any particular amino acid.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A nucleotide-pair substitution is more likely to lead to a frame-shift than a nucleotide-pair insertion.

answer

False.

question

T/F... It is possible for a change in the DNA sequence of a gene to have no effect on protein structure.

answer

True.

question

T/F...A ribosome is not able to alternate between a free and a bound state.

answer

False.

STUDY

AP World History Art Appreciation Art History Biology World History

College Biology final exam review – Flashcards 170 terms

Kaitlynn Baldwin

170 terms

Preview

College Biology final exam review – Flashcards

question

science

answer

concentrated effort to understand the natural world and how it works, physical evidence that can be observed, pursuit of the truth about the natural world

question

biology

answer

the scientific study of life

question

amoeba

answer

single cell organism

question

cells #1 in characteristics of life

answer

structural functional unit of life all living things are made of one or more cells all cells come from pre-exisiting cells

question

what are the characteristics of life?

answer

cells organization energy use homeostasis growth and development reproduction excretion movement sensitivity adaptability

question

viruses

answer

not composed of cells but are said to be "living" one excepton to cell theory

question

prokaryotic cells

answer

bacterial cells no nucleus

question

eukaryotic cells

answer

everything thats not a bacteria

question

organization #2 in characteristics of life

answer

complex organizational patterns are found in all living organisims, arrange themselves on very small levels

question

4 catagories of animal tissues

answer

epithelial muscle nervous connective

question

epithelial tissues

answer

covers/ linning

question

muscle tissues

answer

movement

question

nervous tissues

answer

transmittion of impulses - neurons

question

connective tissues

answer

help hold one thing to another

question

organ systems

answer

integumentary muscular skeletal nervous digestive respiratory circulatory excretory reproductive endocrine lymphatic

question

two different ways organisms can be organized

answer

taxonomically ecologically

question

taxonomically organized would be... (highest to lowest)

answer

domain kingdom phylum class order family genus species

question

species is...?

answer

a group or population with the actual or potential ability to interbreed and produce fertile offspring

question

taxonomical organization of humans (highest to lowest)

answer

eukarya- domain animalia- kingdom chordata- phylum mammalia- class primates- order hominidae- family homo- genus homo sapiens- species

question

ecologically organized would be... (smallest to largest)

answer

species populations communities ecosystems biomes biosphere

question

population

answer

members of a particular species

question

communities

answer

all populations that live in one place

question

ecosystems

answer

a community plus all the components

question

biomes

answer

group of ecosystems that are equal to each other around the world

question

biosphere

answer

the ecosystem comprising the entire earth and the living organisms that inhabit it

question

energy use #3 in characteristics of life

answer

all organisms use energy relates to both nutrition and cellular respiration

question

nutrition

answer

the process of taking in food and using it for energy, growth, and good health

question

metabolism

answer

sum of all chemical activity

question

the metabolic process may be...?

answer

anabolic or catabolic

question

anabolic

answer

building up energy is used

question

catabolic

answer

breaking down energy is released

question

autotrophs

answer

Organisms that are able to make their own food

question

types of autotrophs

answer

photoautotrophs- produces food using light CO2+ H2O chemoautotrophs- produces food using a chemical reaction

question

heterotrophs

answer

organisms that get their nutrients by feeding off nutrients produced by others

question

types of heterotrophs

answer

chemoheterotrophs- breaks down food by using a chemical reaction photoheterotrophs- breaks down food by using light

question

homeostasis

answer

steady state condition, stimulus and response

question

bios is the greek word for?

answer

life

question

the scientific name for the common species of earthworm is

answer

annelida

question

a catabolic activity is

answer

digestion of protiens

question

the genetic "suitability" of an organism for a particular environment or task is termed

answer

adaptation

question

any change in tne environment to which an organism responds is termed

answer

stimulus

question

the sum of chemical activity of an organism is termed

answer

metabolisim

question

you are a member of the phylum Chordata, subphylum

answer

Vertebrata

question

the blood vessels near exposed or poorly insulated skin constrict in cold weather. This helps the body conserve heat. This invouluntary behavor is an example of?

answer

stimulus and response

question

the correct order for the hiearchy of biological organization is...

answer

molecule- organelle- cell- tissue- organ- organ system- organism- population- community- ecosystem

question

in the system of classification used to catagorize living things, phyla are divided into?

answer

kingdoms

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a biological community is composed of...

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all the different species of organisms living together in one ecosystem

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the survival of advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is?

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variation due to new genetic combinations

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cyanobacteria have the ability to absorb sunlight and use its energy to convert CO2 + H2O into organic compounds such as C6H12O6. because of this ability they are

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photoheterotrophs

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the type of tissue that make linnings for organs or cavities in the body is?

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epithelial tissue

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a predictable directional resopnse in animals to certain stimuli such as water current, gravity, and physical contact is termed?

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taxis

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the digestion of protiens into amino acids, and the reassembling of amino acids into the specific protiens needed by the body for growth and development is an example of?

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entropy

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a tropical rainforest in South America and a tropical rainforest in Asia are part of the same

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biome

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in a neuron, an axon carries the impulse

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away from the cell body

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sweat glands and oil glands are accessory components of the

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integumentary system

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the study of fishes is

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ichthology

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the study of protistans, bateria, and other tiny organisms would be best included in

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microbiology

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smuts, mushrooms, molds, rusts, and yeasts belong in the domain__, kingdom__

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Eukarya...Fungi

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herpetology would not include which of the following: snakes frogs rats lizards

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rats

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porifera

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sponge

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arthropoda

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lobster

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cnidaria

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sea anemone

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echinodermata

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starfish

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chordata

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amphioxus

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annelida

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earthworm

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nematoda

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canine heartworm

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ctenophora

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combjelly

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placodermi

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is a vertebrate class that is extinct

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the resistence of matter to any change in its position or motion is

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inertia

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matter which cannot be broken down into two or more simpler forms is called an

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element

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this subatomic particle has a mass of1amu and and electrical charge of 1+

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proton

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this subatomic particle has a mass of 0 amu and an electrical charge of 1-

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electron

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this subatomic particle as a mass of 1 amu and no electrical charge

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neutron

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an atom which has lost an electron is best described as a

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cation

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which of the following would be most apt to form an anion? calcium iron helium fluorine

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fluorine

question

the arsenide ion is an

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anion

question

how many energy levels are in an atom of barium?

answer

question

an element is matter in which all atoms have the same

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atomic number

question

the number of electrons in the outermost energy level of an atom of phosphorus is

answer

question

one atom has 56 protons and 81 electrons. a second atom has 56 protons and 83 electrons. these are best decribed as

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ions

question

an alpha particle is structurally the same thing as a

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helium nucleus

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the hydrogen to oxygen bond in a water molecule is a__bond

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polar covalent

question

the study of the relationship between an organism and both tits biotic and abiotic environment is

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ecology

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the smallest part of an element that retains all the properties of that element is the

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atom

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the tendency of an atom to attract the pair of electrons in a bond between itself and the atom of another element is called

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electronegativity

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when the chlorine bonds with calcium, it forms__bonds

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ionic

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the number of stable isotopes is __ than the number of radioisoptopes

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much less than

question

researchers studying the effects of toxic wastes knew that animals were poisoned by the heavy metel cadmium, but they wanted to know where cadmium accumulated in the body. they could find out by:

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tracing the movement of cadmium radioisotopes in test animals

question

researchers were studying a radioisotope of selenium in the livers of a population of whitetail dear. the purpose of their study was probably

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to determine the biochemical pathways of selenium in liver function

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kinosternidae

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the family of the musk turtle

question

1.which is most polar? 2.which is least polar? 3.which is toxic waste produced in cells? A) O B) H C) H D) S E) O=O / | | / H H N H--- C ---Cl H H / | H H H

answer

1.A) 2.C) 3.B)

question

what is a trace element in the human body?

answer

iodine

question

atoms of different barium isotopes

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have different numbers of electrons

question

when the protonn number and electron number are unequal, the atom molecule

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can form ionic bonds

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hydrogen bonding is most often seen

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when hydrogen is covalently bonded to nitrogen and oxygen

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this formula represents an amino acid

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H2NC5H9O2

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changing the number of __ would change an atom into an atom of a different element

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protons in an atom

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Rana is...

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the genus of the bullfrog

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a sodium ion has a mass number of 23. its atomic number is 11, and its charge is 1+. how many electrons does it have?

answer

question

an acid is a substance that

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donates hydrogen ions into solutions

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fluorine atoms tend to take electronsfrom any atoms that come near. as a result, fluorine atoms:

answer

tend to form ionic bonds

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which atom is most likely to become an anion? A)argon B)sodium C)calcium D)chlorine

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D)chlorine

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atoms are the most versatile building blocks of the molecules used by living organisms because:

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carbon has the potential to form moleculeswhich can be straight, branched, or ringed

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we belong to the Phylum

answer

Chordata

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no amino acid by itself can speed reactions between other molecules, but when amino acids are joined together to make an enzyme, this new strcture can speed up reactions. this is a type of phenomenon is an illustration of

answer

emergent properties

question

water provides thermal stability for organisms because

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water has a high specific heat

question

give the correct order for revealing increasing complexity in living systems

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molecule, cell, tissue, organ

question

having hair and mammary glands allows for inclusion in the

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class Mammalia

question

Match 1.herpetolgy (A)lightning bugs 2.ornithology (B)great white sharks 3.entomolgy (C)turtles 4.ichthyology (D)grasses 5.mirco biology (E)bald eagles 6.botany (F)bacteria

answer

1.C 2.E 3.A 4.B 5.F 6.D

question

the group of organic molecules composed of C,H,and O, with the H:O ratio 2:1 is the

answer

carbohydrates

question

Match: 1.Porifera (A)earthworm 2.Arthropoda (B)combjelly 3.Cnidaria (C)lobster 4.Echinodermata (D)canine heartworm 5.Chordata (E)sea anemone 6.Annelida (F)starfish 7.Nematoda (G)sponge 8.Ctenophora (H)amphioxus

answer

1.G 2.C 3.E 4.F 5.H 6.A 7.D 8.B

question

an atom of lead-209 formed from the alpha particle decay of a radioisotope. what was that isotope

answer

polonium-213

question

Is CCL4 an organic molecule?

answer

question

anabolism is to catabolosm as __ is to __

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condensation reaction...hydrolysis

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sugars such as C5H10O5 and C4H10O4 are primarily used...

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for energy and structurally

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chitin is to cellulose as __ is to __

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fungi...plants

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deoxyribose is to __ as ribose is to __

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DNA...RNA

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starch is digestible while cellulose is indigestible. this is explained by the fact that:

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the sugars in cellulose bond together differently than in starch, giving cellulose a different shape

question

in various places a protein molecule may twist or fold into severe distortion caused by R group interactions. This is called __ and the coils or folds are held in place by __

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tertiary structure...covalent bonds

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a hydrophilic amino acid R group would be found where in a protein

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on the outside of the folded chain, in the water

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the overall three-dimensinonal shape of a protein composed of several polypeptides is called the

answer

quaternary structure

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the primary structure is most likely to be affected when a protein is...

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denatured

question

a glucose molecule is to startch as

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a nucleotide is to a nucleic acid

question

a shortage of sulfur in the soil would make it especially difficult for a plant to manufacture

answer

proteins

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the biological function of a molecule is most directly related to

answer

the shape of the molecule

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starch is a __ made of many __

answer

polymer...glucose molecules

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in terms of energy storage, animal is to plant as

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glycogen is to starch

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the amount of heat enerhy needed to raise the temp of 1 gram of substance 1 degree celsius is termed

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specific heat

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what is an indigestible polysaccharide

answer

cellulose

question

the building blocks of protein molecules are called

answer

amino acids

question

in various places a protein molecule may coil or fold a double helix or a pleted sheet. this is called __ and the coils or folds are held in place by __

answer

secondary structure...hydrogen bonds

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a hydrophobic amino acid R group would be found where in a protein

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on the inside of the folded chain, away from the water

question

pentose sugars are

answer

structural components of the nucleic acids

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chitin is

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a carbohydrate that contain a nitrogenous component

question

disulfide linkages and hydrphobic R group interactions are associated with __ structure in proteins

answer

tertiary

question

glycoproteins are important because they serve as __ for the cells

answer

receptor molecules

question

a common feture of starch and glycogen is that moleules of both

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are polymers of glucose

question

consider the reaction A+B ---> AB though not shown, in biological systems, this reaction would involve

answer

dehydration synthesis

question

phospholipid molecules in a membrane are arranged with their __ on the outside and their __ on the inside

answer

hydrophilic heads...hydrophobic tails

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what best describes the general structure of a cell membrane

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protein and other molecules embedded in two layers of phospholipid

question

the bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a dipeptide requires

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the release of a water molecule

question

a sample of DNA contains 23.8% adenine nucleotides. what is the percent of thymine nucleotides?

answer

23.8%

question

a protein is to an amino acid as __ is to__

answer

nucleic acid...nucleotide

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on the basis of the principle of base pairing you would expect the % of __ to be = to the % of __

answer

A...T

question

palm oil + coconut oil are more like animal fats than other plant oils., because they __ than other plant oils, they can contribute to cardiovascular disease

answer

contain fewer double bonds

question

lipids differ from other large biological molecules in that they

answer

are not truly polymers

question

a a phospholipid is __ at the phosphate group, and __ at the hydrocarbon tails

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polar and hydrophilic...nonpolar and hydrophobic

question

deoxyribose is to __ as ribose is to __

answer

thymine...uracil

question

the 5 main catagories of macromoleules in a cell are

answer

RNA, DNA, proteins, lipids, and polysaccharides

question

the characteristics that all typical lipids have in common are

answer

they are are hydrophobic

question

a shortage of phosporus in the soil would make it difficult for a plant to make

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DNA

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HDL is a type of __ that is __ for the body

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cholesterol...good

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anabolism is to catabolism as __ is to __

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reduction...oxidation

question

chitin is to cellulose as the __ is to the __

answer

fungal cell wall...plant cell wall

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deoxyribose is to __ as ribose is to __

answer

DNA...RNA

question

disulfide likages and the hydrophobic R group interactions aew associated with __ structure in proteins

answer

primary

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a sample of DNA contains 23.8% adenine nucleotides. what is the % of guanine nucleotides

answer

26.2%

question

LDL is the type of __ that is __ for the body

answer

cholesterol...bad

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nitrogen fixing bacteria

answer

convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia or nitrates which can be utilized by plants

question

peptidoglycans are to chitin as __is to __

answer

the fungal cell wall...bacterial cell wall

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nitrogen fixing bacteria are __ with/to the plant in which they live

answer

mutualistic

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the typical size or eukaryotic cells ranges from __ to _

answer

10...100um

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best way to observe living cells is with the use of the

answer

light microscope

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to enter or leave a cell, substances must pass throught the

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plasma membrane

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a cell has a mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth and rought ER, and other parts. based on this info it could not be

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a bacterium

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a gene is that portion of a

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DNA molecule which codees for the synthesis of a polypeptide

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what organelle is leat closely asssociated with the endomembrane system?

answer

mitochondrion

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ribosomes are manufactured

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in the nucleolus

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in a hydrolysis reaction, ___, and in this process water is __

answer

a polymer breaks up to form monomers...consumed

question

archaebacteria

answer

bacteria that live under extreme conditions such as: high temperature, high salt content, and low oxygen

STUDY

200 Years Ago A Level Biology Biology Divided Into Two Parts Mechanical Engineering

HOSA Chapter 2 – Flashcards 74 terms

Kayden Hussain

74 terms

Preview

HOSA Chapter 2 – Flashcards

question

Hospitals

answer

Vary in size and shape and types of services provided

question

General hospitals

answer

Treat a wide range of conditions and age groups; usually provide diagnostic, medical, surgical, and emergency care

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Specialty hospitals

answer

Provide care for special conditions or age groups (burn hospitals, cancer hospitals, pediatric hospitals)

question

Government hospitals

answer

Operated by federal, state, and local government agencies located throughout the world that provide care for government service personnel and their dependents

question

University of college medical centers

answer

Provide hospital services along with research and education; can be funded by private and/or governmental sources

question

Long-term care facilities

answer

Mainly provide assistance and care for elderly patients or residents; also care for individual as with disabilities, handicap, chronic, or long-term illness

question

Residential care facilities

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(Nursing home) provide basic physical and emotional care to individuals who can no longer care for themselves

question

Extended care facilities or skilled care facilities

answer

Designed to provide skilled nursing care and rehabilitative care to prepare patients a residence for return to home environments or other long-term care facilities

question

Independent living and assisted living facilities

answer

Allow individuals who can care for themselves to rent or purchase an apartment in the facility; a la carte

question

Medical offices

answer

Very from offices that are privately owned by one position too large complex is that operate as corporations and employee many physicians and other healthcare professionals

question

What services do medical offices provide?

answer

Diagnosis, treatment, examination, basic laboratory testing, minor surgery, and other similar care

question

Clinics or satellite centers

answer

Healthcare facilities found in many types of health care; some clinics are composed of a group of medical or dental doctors who share a facility or other personnel

question

Surgical clinics

answer

Perform minor surgical procedures; frequently called one day surgical centers

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Emergency care clinics

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Provide a first aide or emergency care to ill or injured patients

question

Rehabilitation clinics

answer

Offer physical, occupational, speech, and other similar therapies

question

Substance abuse clinics

answer

Provide rehabilitation for drug and alcohol abuse

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Specialty clinics

answer

Provide care for specific diseases; examples include diabetic clinic's, kidney dialysis centers, and oncology clinics

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Outpatient clinics

answer

Usually operated by hospitals or large medical groups and provide care for outpatients

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Health department clinics

answer

Offer clinics for pediatric health, respiratory disease, immunizations, and other special services

question

Medical Center clinics

answer

Usually located in colleges or universities; offer clinics for various health conditions; offer care and treatment and provide learning experiences for medical students

question

Emergency care centers

answer

Provide special care for victims of accidents or sudden illness; these services include ambulance services, rescue squads, helicopter services, and airplane services

question

Laboratories

answer

Are often a part of other facilities but can operate a separate healthcare services; can perform special diagnostic tests such as blood or urine tests

question

Home health care

answer

Provide care in patients home, frequently used by elderly and disabled, provide nursing care, personal care, therapy, and homemaking; offered by health departments, hospitals, private agencies, government agencies, volunteer groups, and nonprofits

question

Hospice

answer

Provide care for terminally ill persons who usually have life expectancy is of six months or less; can be provided in the person's home or in a hospice facility

question

Mental health facilities

answer

Treatment for patients with mental disorders or disease; examples include guidance and counseling centers, psychiatric clinics and hospitals, and chemical abuse treatment centers

question

Genetic counseling centers

answer

Work with couples or individuals who are pregnant or considering a pregnancy; can perform prenatal screening tests, check for genetic abnormalities, and explain the results of the tests

question

Rehabilitation facilities

answer

Provide care to help patients with physical or mental disabilities obtain maximum self-care and function

question

Health maintenance organization (HMOs)

answer

Both healthcare delivery systems and types of health insurance; provide total healthcare services that are primarily directed toward preventative healthcare for fee that is usually fix and prepaid; services include exams, basic medical services, health education, and hospitalization or rehabilitation services

question

Industrial healthcare centers

answer

Found in large companies are industries and provide health care for employees of the industry or business by performing basic exams, teaching accident prevention and safety, and providing emergency care

question

School health services

answer

Provide emergency care for victims of accidents or sudden illness, Promote health education, and maintain a safe and sanitary school environment

question

Government agencies

answer

Health services offered at international, national, state, and local levels; tax supported

question

World Health Organization (WHO)

answer

International agency sponsored by the United Nations; compiles stats and information on disease, publishes health information, and investigates and addresses serious health problems throughout the world

question

U.S Department of Health and Human Services (USDHHS)

answer

National agency that deals with the health problems in the United States

question

National Institutes of Health (NIH)

answer

The division of the USDHHS; involved in research on disease

question

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

answer

Another division of the USDHHS; concerned with the causes, spread, in control of diseases and populations

question

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

answer

A federal agency responsible for regulating food and drug products sold to the public

question

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)

answer

The federal agency established to improve the quality, safety, efficiency, and effectiveness of health care for Americans

question

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

answer

Establishes and enforces standards that protect workers from job-related injuries and illness

question

Health departments

answer

Provide health services as directed by the US Department of Health and Human Services; also provide specific services needed by the state or local community; examples include vaccinations, inspections, healthcare clinics, and prevention

question

Voluntary or nonprofit agencies

answer

Supported by donations, membership fees, fundraisers, and federal or state grants; provide health services at national, state, and local levels; Examples include the American Cancer Society, March of Dimes, American Red Cross

question

Health insurance plans

answer

Insurance plan to help pay for the cost of healthcare

question

Premium

answer

A fee the individual pays for insurance coverage to the insurance company

question

Deductibles

answer

Amounts that must be paid by the patient for medical services before the policy begins to pay

question

Co-insurance

answer

Requires that specific percentages of expenses are shared by the patient and insurance company; For example, in an 80-20% co-insurance, The insurance company pays 80% of it and you pay 20%

question

Co-payment

answer

A specific amount of money a patient pays for a particular service, for example, $10 for each physician visit regardless of the total cost of the visit; Paid at the time of service on top of the deductible; before the bill

question

If you meet your premium what happens?

answer

The insurance company send you checks in the mail; reimbursed

question

Employer - sponsored health insurance or group

answer

Insurance coverage through their places of employment, where the premiums are paid by the employer

question

Health maintenance organization (HMOs)

answer

Type of health service plan that provides a managed-care plan for the delivery of healthcare services; a monthly fee is paid for membership, and the fees stay the same regardless of the amount of healthcare used

question

What is one advantage of HMOs?

answer

They cover routine exams and preventative care

question

What is one disadvantage of HMOs?

answer

People can only visit HMO affiliated health care centers, basically a dictatorship of healthcare

question

How can an industry or company provide healthcare at lower rates?

answer

By using a PPO

question

Preferred provider organization (PPO)

answer

Another insurance plan usually provided by large industries or companies to their employees; forms a contract with certain health care agencies to provide certain types of healthcare at reduced rates, prefers

question

What do PPOs usually require?

answer

A deductible and a co-payment; Is in enrollee uses a nonaffiliated provider, The PPO may require co-payments of 40 to 60%

question

Medicare

answer

Offered for people 65 or older, Who has received Social Security benefits for 2+ years, or has end stage renal disease; elderly

question

Medicaid

answer

Offered for people with low incomes, children without public assistance, and disabled or the blind; financial aid

question

Medicare consists of how many types of coverage?

answer

Three

question

Type A coverage?

answer

Hospital insurance

question

Type B coverage?

answer

Medical insurance

question

Type D coverage?

answer

Pharmaceutical/drug expenses

question

How much does Medicare actually pay for?

answer

Only 80% of the services

question

Medigap

answer

Health insurance plans that help pay expenses not covered by Medicare; offered by private insurance companies require the payment of a premium by the enrollee; must meet specific federal guidelines

question

Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP)

answer

For uninsured children of working families who don't have enough money for Medicaid

question

Worker's Compensation

answer

Health insurance plan providing treatment for workers injured on the job; administered by the state, and payments are made by the employers in the state

question

TRICARE

answer

US government health insurance plan for all military personnel, active-duty members and their families, survivors of military personnel, and retired members of the Armed Forces

question

Managed care

answer

Developed in response to rising healthcare costs; employers, as well as insurance companies who pay large bills, want to ensure that such money is spent efficiently rather than wastefully; basically that all health care provided to the patient must have a purpose

question

If you have a pre-existing medical condition and you lose your job, what act protects your excess ability to health insurance coverage?

answer

HIPAA

question

Health Insurance Potability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

answer

Establishes guidelines for insurance companies to deny or except people for insurance based on five main components

question

How many main components are there in HIPAA?

answer

Five

question

Health care access, portability, and renewability

answer

Limits it's exclusions on pre-existing conditions to allow for the continuance of insurance even with job changes, prohibits discrimination against and enrollee or beneficiary based on health status, guarantees renewability in multiemployer plans, and provide special enrollment rights for individuals who lose insurance coverage in certain in situations such as divorce or termination of employment

question

Preventing healthcare fraud and abuse; administrative simplification, and medical liability reform

answer

Establishes message for preventing fraud and abuse and imposes sanctions or penalties if fraud or abuse does occur

question

Tax related health provisions

answer

Promote the use of medical saving accounts by allowing tax deductions for monies placed in the accounts, establishes standards for long-term care insurance

question

Application and enforcement of group health plan requirements

answer

Establishes standards that require group health care plans to offer portability, access, and renewability to all members of the group

question

Revenue offsets

answer

Provides changes to the International Revenue Code for HIPAA expenses

question

Organizational structure

answer

The line of authority or chain of command at a hospital that indicates areas of responsibility; essential for the most efficient hospitals

STUDY

AP Biology Biology Biology-Advanced Studies Life Science

Biology EOC study guide – Flashcards 82 terms

Lesly Nixon

82 terms

Preview

Biology EOC study guide – Flashcards

question

What is the study of Biology?

answer

The science that seeks to understand the living world. Studies molecules, cells, organisms, populations of a single organism, communities of populations living in the same area, and the biosphere.

question

Contrast unicellular and multicellular organisms.

answer

Unicellular only consists of a single cell, and multicellular organisms consist of many cells.

question

What is homeostasis? Give an example.

answer

Homeostasis is the process by which organisms maintain a relatively stable internal environment. Example: regulating body temperature.

question

What are the main characteristics of life?

answer

The main characteristics of life include: living things are made up of cells, living things reproduce, living things are based on a universal genetic code, living things grow and develop, living things use energy (metabolism), living things respond to their environment, living things maintain a stable internal environment, and living things change over time (groups change).

question

What are the steps of a scientific method?

answer

State the problem, research, form a hypothesis, experiment using variables, collect data, derive a conclusion.

question

How do scientists use the scientific method?

answer

Scientists follow the scientific method in all experiments performed to ensure proper results and data.

question

What are the purposes of using microscopes in science?

answer

Microscopes aid in magnifying images of structures that are too small to see with the unaided eye.

question

What is an element?

answer

An element is a substance consisting entirely of one type of atom.

question

What is an atom?

answer

An atom is the basic unit of matter.

question

What is a molecule?

answer

A molecule is the smallest unit of compounds.

question

What is a compound?

answer

A compound is a substance formed by the chemical combination of two or more elements in definite proportions.

question

Describe the atomic structure of an atom.

answer

An atom consists of protons, neutrons, and electrons. The protons(+) and neutrons (neutral) are formed in the nucleus. The electrons (-) orbit, or move around, the nucleus. The atomic number on the periodic table is determined by the number of PROTONS present.

question

Describe the different types of atomic bonding (covalent, ionic, hydrogen)

answer

Covalent bonds form when electrons are shared between atoms. Ionic bonds form when two or more electrons are transferred (lost or gained) from one atom to another. Hydrogen bonds (opposite charges) are the strongest bonds that can form between MOLECULES. Hydrogen bonds are the bonds present in a DNA molecule.

question

What are solutions?

answer

Solutions are a mixture of two or more substances in which the molecules of the substances are evenly distributed. Ex: Salt Water

question

What is the difference between a solvent and a solute?

answer

A solvent is a substance in which a solute is dissolved to form a solution. A solute is a substance that is dissolved in a solvent to make a solution.

question

What does "polarity" mean in regards to the properties of water?

answer

Polarity involves a substance that has a distinct positive end and a distinct negative end. Water is an example! Because it is polar, water molecules attract to other water molecules.

question

What are organic compounds?

answer

An organic compounds is any compounds that contains carbon. Organic chemistry is the study of these compounds.

question

What is the main function of ATP? How is ATP made?

answer

ATP provides and stores energy for many cellular processes. ATP is made when a single phosphorus is added to ADP.

question

What are three carbohydrates?

answer

Glucose, fructose(monosaccharides), galactose, disaccharides, and glycogen (polysaccharides). Elements: carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio. Monomers are monosarccharides.

question

What are the role of proteins and enzymes?

answer

Proteins are polymers of amino acid that control the rate of reactions and regulate cell process. Enzymes are catalysts (remain unchanged during the reaction) that speed up chemical reactions that take place in cells and break down certain substances. They speed up a reaction by lowering the activation energy.

question

What is a positive test for starch? Sugar? What indicator gives that response?

answer

A positive test for starch is a change in the appearance of iodine. Iodine turns black. Sugar is the change in the appearance of Benedict's solution- goes from blue to orange.

question

What is a positive test for lipids? What indicator gives that response?

answer

A positive test for lipids is clear spots on brown paper. (Think grease spots on your Fast Food bags!) Sudan IV- dark red to orange!

question

What is a positive test for proteins? What indicator gives that response?

answer

A positive test for proteins is a change in the Biuret reagent. It turns a blue color to a purple color when positive for proteins. Proteins include carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. Monomers are amino acid.

question

What are lipids? Give an example of a lipid.

answer

Lipids are made mostly from hydrogen and carbon atoms (consist of glycerol and fatty acids) and can be used to store energy. Examples: Oils. Made of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and phosphorus. Monomers are nucleotides.

question

Describe a prokaryotic cell in comparison to a eukaryotic cell.

answer

Prokaryotic cells do not contain a nuclei or other organelles, except cell membranes, cytoplasm, and DNA. (example:bacteria). Eukaryotic cells are much more complex, and they do contain a nucleus and organelles. (example:animals).

question

What is the cell theory?

answer

The cell theory states: all living things are composed of cells, cells are basic units of structure and function in living things, and new cells are produced from existing cells.

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Why is the surface area-to-volume ratio important in cells?

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Changes in the surface area to volume ratio have important implications for limits or constraints on organism size (too large result in lack of nutrients, size and information overload, and excess of wastes) Cells splits into two cells to avoid this (mitosis)

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List and describe the main organelles present in an eukaryotic cell.

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Cell Membrane: Doorway-allows substances in and out. Cytoplasm: Jelly-like substance inside a cell. Nucleus: Control center-brain. Nuclear Membrane: protects the nucleus. Mitochondria: powerhouse-source of energy. Endoplasmic Reticulum: transportation system. Ribosomes: protein factories Golgi bodies: post office- enzymes attach carbs Vacuole: storage tanks Lysosomes: clean up crew- break down substances. Cell Wall (plant): Fence-structure and support Chloroplast (plant): Energy Producers-photosynthesis.

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What is the role of the plasma membrane? What does it mean to be selectively permeable?

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The plasma membrane regulates what leaves and enters the cell and also provides protection and support. If selectively permeable, the membrane only allows certain material to enter and leave the cell.

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What are phospholipids?

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Make up the lipid bilayer. Phospholipids are fat derivatives in which one fatty acid has been replaced by a phosphate group and one of several nitrogen-containing molecules. They are amphiphlic molecule, meaning a portion can be dissolved in water and a portion that cannot dissolve in water.

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Describe the fluid mosaic model.

answer

The fluid mosaic model states that the phospholipid bilayer behaves like a fluid more than it behaves like a solid. The membrane's lipids and proteins can move laterally within the bilayer, like a boat on the ocean.

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What does the cell membrane have embedded proteins?

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The proteins help substances that can not easily pass through the membrane by allowing them to pass through protein channels (faciliated diffusion)

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Describe multicellular organization (steps from cells to organisms)

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Cells to tissue to organs to organ systems.

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What is passive transport? Give three examples.

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Passive transport involves the movement of substances across a cell membrane that does not require the input energy. Examples: diffusion, osmosis( movement from higher concentration to lower concentration, and faciliated diffusion.

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Hypertonic:

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When the concentration of solute molecules outside the cell is higher than the concentration in the cytosol.

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Hypotonic:

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when the concentration of solute molecules outside the cell is lower than concentration in the cytosol.

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Isotonic:

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when the concentration of solutes outside and inside the cell are equal.

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What is a concentration gradient?

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The movement of a substance from an area with a high concentration to an area of low concentration. In active transport, the substances move against the concentration gradient (move from low to high)

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What does it mean to have equilibrium in a cell?

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Equilibrium is a stable situation in which forces cancel one another (no net movement in or out of cell) Think Isotonic!

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Describe active transport. Give an example.

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In active transport the substances move across the concentration gradient (move from low to high) . Example: sodium/potassium pump.

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Contrast autotrophs and heterotrophs.

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Autotrophs have the ability to capture energy from sunlight or chemicals and use it to produce its own food (also known as producers). Heterotrophs obtain their energy from the food it consumes (also known as consumers.)

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What are the reactants and products in photosynthesis?

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The reactants of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide, water, and light. The product is sugar (glucose) and oxygen.

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What are the roles of chloroplast in a plant cell?

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Chloroplasts use the energy from sunlight to make energy-rich food molecules in a process known as photosynthesis.

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Distinguish between photosystems 1 and 11 in photosynthesis.

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Photosynthesis starts in photosystem 2 (light is absorbed and transfered to electrons. After photosystem 2, the process continues to photosystem 1 (electrons are picked up by NADP+ into the energy carriers ATP and NADPH.

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What happens during the light reaction of photosynthesis?

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The light dependent reactions produce oxygen gas and convert ADP and NADP+ into the energy carrieres ATP and NADPH.

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Describe the electron transport chain.

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High energy electrons move from photosystem 11 through the electron transport chain to photosystem 1.

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What is the Calvin Cycle (dark cycle)?

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The Calvin Cycle uses ATP and NADPH from the light-dependent reactions to produce high-energy sugars. Need the addition of carbon dioxide!

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Discuss the rate of photosynthesis.

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Many factors affect the rate of photosynthesis includes: water shortages, temperature, and intensity.

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What are the reactants and products of cellular respiration?

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Reactants of cellular respiration include oxygen and glucose. The products are carbon dioxide, water and energy.

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Describe the process of glycolysis.

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Glycolysis is the process in which one molecule glucose is broken in half, producing two molecules of pyruvic acid, a 3-carbon compound.

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What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

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Aerobic respiration requires oxygen, and anaerobic respiration does not require oxygen.

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What is the outcome of the Krebs Cycle?

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During the Krebs Cycle, pyruvic acid (Acetyl-CoA) is broken down into carbon dioxide in a series of energy-extraction reactions.

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When does the process of fermentation take place? What are the two main types of fermentation?

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Fermentation takes place when oxygen is not present during glycolysis. The two main types of fermentation are alcoholic fermentation (yeast cells) and lactic acid fermentation (muscle cells)

question

Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. What are the components present?

answer

DNA molecules are a double-helix structure (winding staircase). DNA molecules consist of a chain of nucleotides, a sugar-phosphate backbone (covalent bonds) and hydrogen bonds holding the base pairs together.

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The structure of a condensed chromosome.

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Chromosomes consists of 2 identical chromatids and a centromere.

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What is a chromatin?

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Chromatin is DNA that is not condensed (in the nucleus).

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What is the role of histones?

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Histones are globular protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin.

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Discuss the difference between sex chromosomes and autosomal chromosomes.

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Sex chromosomes determine the sex of a child (male or female). Autosomal chromosomes determine other traits (heredity).

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What are homologous chromosomes?

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Chromosomes that each have a corresponding chromosome from the opposite-sex parent.

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How is a karyotype useful in genetics?

answer

Karyotype are a set of photographs of chromosomes grouped in order in pairs. Are used to examine an individual's chromosomes.

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Contrast a haploid cell verses a diploid cell.

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Haploid cells contain only a single set of chromosomes and therefore only a single set of genes. Diploid cells contain both sets of homologous chromosomes.

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What is binary fission?

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Binary fission is a type of asexual reproduction in which a prokaryote replicates its DNA, and divide in half, producing two identical daughter cells. Budding is asexual reproduction.

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Discuss the cell cycle (include G1, S, and G2.

answer

Series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide. G1=cell growth, S=DNA replication, G2=preparation for mitosis. All part of interphase.

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What are the phases of mitosis?

answer

(interphase and cytokinesis-not a phase of mitosis!) Interphase in not a phase of mitosis!) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telpphase.

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What are gametes?

answer

Specialized cells involved in sexual reproduction. Egg cells-oogensis. Sperm cells- spermatogensis.

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What is crossing over? Where does it occur during the process of meiosis?

answer

Crossing over is the process in which homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their chromatids during prophase 1 of meiosis,

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What is the difference between sexual and asexual reproduction?

answer

Sexual reproduction is the process by which two cells from different parents unite to produce the first cell of a new organism. Asexual reproduction is the process by which a single parent reproduces by itself.

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Describe the study of genetics.

answer

Genetics is the scientific study of heredity.

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Define: Heredity, dominant allele, recessive allele.

answer

Heredity is the genetic transmission of characteristics from parent to offspring. Dominant alleles mask the recessive alleles. Recessive will only show up-if dominant allele is not present~

question

What was Mendel's experiment? How did it determine traits passed from generation to the next?

answer

Mendel studied traits and gene transfer by cross-pollinating pea plants. He used Punnett Squares to determine the probability of traits being passed from one generation to another.

question

Discuss pollination (self vs. cross)

answer

Self-pollination includes only one plant that produces offspring identical to them. Cross-pollination is the fertilization of male sex cells in pollen from the flower on one plant with the egg cell of a flower on another plant (hybrid)

question

What are the P, F1, and F2 generations?

answer

P=parent generation. F1=first generation, F2=second generation.

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Contrast homozygous and heterozygous.

answer

Homozygous is the term used to refer to an organism that has two identical alleles for a particular trait (TT or tt). Heterozygous is used to refer to an organism that has two different alleles for the same trait (Tt).

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What is a genotype?

answer

Genotype is the genetic makeup of an organisms.

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What is a phenotype?

answer

Phenotype is the physical characteristics of an organism.

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Discuss the Law of Segregation (alleles)

answer

States that a pair of factors is segregated, or separated, during the formation of gametes.

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What is the Law of Independent Assortment?

answer

states that each chromosome (or pair) separates independently of each other to form the gametes (egg and sperm)

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How does probability help us understand the passing of traits from one generation to the next?

answer

It is simply the likelihood that a certain trait will be passed on to the next generation.

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What are alleles? What is their function?

answer

Each of several alternative forms of a gene. Ex. AA or Aa, the individual A is an allele. AA is alleles for a gene.

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What do Punett Squares determine?

answer

They aid in predicting the probability that certain traits will be inherited by offspring.

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What is a monohybrid cross? Dihybrid crosses?

answer

A monohybrid cross involves the crossing of just one trait. Ex. AA x Aa. A Dihybrid cross involves crossing 2 traits. Ex. AABb x AaBB

question

What is the result of incomplete dominance?

answer

? A blending of the traits. Red flowers x White flowers = pink flower in heterozygous offspring

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AP Biology Biogeography Biology Ecology Environmental Science

Mastering Biology – Ch 52 – Flashcards 57 terms

Patrick Turner

57 terms

Preview

Mastering Biology – Ch 52 – Flashcards

question

What are the two major factors determining the distribution of terrestrial biomes?

answer

temperature and rainfall

question

Which of these biomes is characterized by little rainfall?

answer

desert

question

Which of these is the largest terrestrial biome on Earth?

answer

coniferous forest

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Which biome is characterized by an extensive canopy that allows little light to penetrate to the ground and by the presence of epiphytes?

answer

tropical rain forest

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Which biome is characterized by the prescence of permafrost?

answer

tundra

question

Which action influences the abiotic components of an organism's environment?

answer

water pollution

question

Which aspects of a region's climate have the most impact on plants and animals?

answer

temperature and moisture

question

True or False? Weather is defined as the prevailing long-term atmospheric conditions in a particular region.

answer

FALSE!!!!! Climate is defined as the prevailing LONG-TERM weather conditions in a particular region. Weather is defined as the SHORT-TERM atmospheric conditions of temp, sunlight, moisture, and wind.

question

Which of the following statements about Hadley cells is true?

answer

As warm air rises, air at the top of the atmosphere is pushed poleward and cools. *** This cool air causes the cooler climates away from the equator.

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Which location on Earth receives the MOST SOLAR RADIATION per unit area?

answer

Equator

question

What are rain shadows?

answer

Dry regions on the LEEWARD side of mountain ranges.

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Which desert is caused by a Hadley cell?

answer

Sahara Desert in Africa

question

Which is the most inclusive level of organization in nature?

answer

biosphere

question

Which of the following causes Earth's seasons?

answer

Earth's tilt on its axis

question

Which of the following investigations is an example of the study of an abiotic factor?

answer

investigating how the amount of annual precipitation affects the distribution of a tree species

question

In most cases, the two major climatic factors affecting the distribution of organisms in terrestrial ecosystems are _____

answer

water and temp

question

What is a biome?

answer

a major type of ecosystem; a biome is a type of community with certain abiotic environmental conditions

question

Which of the biomes - tundra, coniferous forest, temperate broadleaf forest, temperate grassland, savanna, chaparral, desert, tropical rainforest - requires periodic fires to maintain their existence?

answer

savanna, chaparral, temperate grassland, and coniferous forest *fire prevents the replacement of dominant species

question

trans

answer

across

question

answer

true, good

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logy

answer

study of

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aqua

answer

water

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macro

answer

large

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a- or an-

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without, lack of, not

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micro

answer

small

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eco

answer

house, household

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phyte

answer

plant

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bio

answer

life

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answer

from, out of, remove

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prim

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first

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zoo

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animal

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oligo

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few

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vor

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eat

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hydro

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water

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sub

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under, below

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herb

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grass

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carn

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flesh

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omni

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all

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troph

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food, nourishment

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photo

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light

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intra

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within

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para

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alongside

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inter

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between

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hetero

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other

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auto

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self

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ultra

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beyond

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therm

answer

heat

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cide

answer

killer

question

Which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy, organisms, and materials between ecosystems?

answer

landscape ecology

question

Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?

answer

tropical forests - nearly constant day length and temp

question

Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes?

answer

vegetation demonstrating vertical layering

question

The oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways EXCEPT

answer

regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater

question

When climbing a moutain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that area analogous to the changes

answer

in biomes at different latitudes

question

WHAT IF? If the direction of Earth's rotation reversed, the most predictable effect would be

answer

winds blowing from west to east along the equator

question

In ecological terms, disturbance is an event such as a storm, fire, or human activity that changes a community, removing organisms and altering resource availability. Which of the following statements about the effects of disturbance is correct?

answer

Disturbances can create patches of different habitats in a community

question

Which statement accurately describes the potential effects of disturbances on species diversity?

answer

Many species are well adapted to survive periodic disturbances

question

Which two factors influence the distribution of organisms?

answer

temperature and rainfall

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