What is agricultural microbiology?

Study of plant diseases and pesticides. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-1-the-main-themes-of-microbiology-532/

What is Food and Dairy Microbiology?

Pasteurization. Making food safe. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-1-the-main-themes-of-microbiology-532/

Which event helped establish the science of microbiology? The discovery of DNA The organization of life into taxonomic herarchies The development of the microscope

The development of the microscope More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-1-the-main-themes-of-microbiology/

What organisms are studied in microbiology?

Bacteria, algae, fungi, viruses, protozoa More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-1-8-515/

What are three exceptions to the definition of microbiology?

Viruses, protozoa/helminthes, and arthropods More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/exam-1-micro-fall-2016-864/

The Golden Age of Microbiology was born when?

When the theory of spontaneous generation died More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/microbiology-a-human-perspective-7th-edition/

What does the field of microbiology examine?

– How microbes interact with humans, with food, and how they can be used by humans More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/microbiology-chapter-1-3/

What is the scope of microbiology? 5 things

Bacteriology, mycology, phycology, protozoology, and virology More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/mcb-test-one-1474/

Microbiology test questions and answers | Get Access To Microbiology Flashcards and exam tests

Home Page Science Biology Microbiology

We've found 876 Microbiology tests

Microbiology

Lab Final Essay Questions – Flashcards 40 terms

Jamie Hutchinson

40 terms

Preview

Lab Final Essay Questions – Flashcards

question

Why will gram-positive cells more than 24 hours old stain gram-negative?

answer

The cell wall can't retain primary stain

question

Can iodine be added before the primary stain in a Gram stain?

answer

No because iodine causes the crystal violet to chemically bond to the peptidoglycan cell walls Chemical bonding prevents the crystal violet from washing away by helping it adhere

question

List the steps of the Gram-stain procedure in order (omit washings), and fill in the color of gram-positive cells and gram-negative cells

answer

Chemical gram-positive gram-negative Crystal violet purple purple iodine (mordant) purple purple alcohol (ethanol) violet clear safranin violet red

question

Which step can be omitted without affecting determination of the Gram reaction?

answer

Safranin

question

Suppose you performed a Gram stain on a sample from a pure culture of bacteria and observed a field of red and purple cocci. Adjacent cells were not always the same color. What do you conclude?

answer

The culture is old

question

Suppose you are viewing a Gram-stained field of red rods and purple cocci through the microscope. What do you conclude?

answer

Mixed culture

question

Considering you can't identify bacteria from a Gram stain, why might a physician perform a Gram stain on a sample before prescribing an antibiotic?

answer

To determine its sensitivity to the antibiotic correlates with cell wall type

question

If you performed a Gram stain on human cells, what would happen?

answer

Primary stain would be removed easily because human cells don't have cell walls

question

What are the large blue-stained areas on the sputum slide?

answer

Fragmented WBCs

question

What is the decolorizing agent in the Gram stain?

answer

Ethanol

question

What is the decolorizing agent in the acid-fast stain?

answer

Acid-alcohol

question

What diseases are diagnosed using the acid-fast procedure?

answer

Tuberculosis and Leprosy

question

What is phenol (carbolic acid), and what is its usual application

answer

Disinfectant 5%

question

How might the acid-fast characteristic of Mycobacterium enhance the organism's ability to cause disease?

answer

Cells are not digested by phagocytes Cell walls contain lipids (mycolic acid) that resist drying and environmental stress so bacteria can survive harsh conditions

question

Clinical specimens suspected of containing Mycobacterium are digested with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) for 30 minutes prior to staining. Why is this technique used? Why isn't this technique used for staining other bacteria?

answer

Digestion removes unwanted bacteria,sputum, and human cells. Not used for staining because it kills other bacteria

question

The acid-fast stain is used to detect Cryptosporidium protozoa in fecal samples. Which of the following would you expect to be a major component of their cell walls: carbohydrates, lipids, or proteins?

answer

Lipids

question

What are the Gram reactions of Clostridium and Bacillus?

answer

Bacillus = gram-positive Clostridium = gram-positive (usually) gram-negative (some)

question

How might a capsule contribute to pathogenicity?

answer

Interferring with phagocytosis Capsule provides virulence to disease fighting cells

question

How might a flagella contribute to pathogenicity?

answer

Motility

question

Of what advantage to Clostridium is an endospore?

answer

Endospores remain dormant until conditions improve They can survive harsh environments

question

You can see endospores by simple staining. Why not use this technique?

answer

They look white or transparent

question

How would an endospore stain of Mycobacterium appear?

answer

Green

question

What type of culture medium would increase the size of a bacterial capsule?

answer

Bacterial capsules are composed of polysaccharides. Give them disaccharides

question

Describe the microscopic appearance of encapsulated Streptococcus if stained with safranin and nigrosin

answer

Bacteria (within capsule) - Safranin red Capsule (outer layer of bacteria - Clear Background - Dark (nigrosin)

question

In the Dorner endospore stain, a smear covered with carbolfuhsin is steamed, then decolorized with acid-alcohol and counterstained with nigrosin. Describe the microscopic appearance after this procedure.

answer

Endospore - Red Bacteria - Colorless Background - Dark/Black

question

How could the procedures used in this experiment be altered to measure bacteriostatic effects?

answer

Subculture

question

Why isn't one antimicrobial agent equally effective against all three bacteria?

answer

Each antimicrobial agent inhibits growth differently by: Cell wall structure Permeability Species

question

Is the disk-diffusion technique measuring bacteriostatic or bactericidal activity?

answer

Can't say without subculture

question

In which growth phase is an organism most sensitive to an antimicrobial agent?

answer

Log phase

question

Why is disk-diffusion technique not a perfect indication of how the drug will perform in vivo? What other factors are considered before using the antimicrobial agent in vivo?

answer

Variable such as serum, body pH, ionic content, O2 level. How drug is metabolized and excreted and the side effect of the drug

question

What effects would the presence of tetracycline in the body have on penicillin therapy?

answer

Tetracycline is bacteriostatic (stops growth) Penicillin needs growing bacteria in order to kill it. So penicillin is useless with tetracycline

question

Disk-diffusion test against bacterium Which drug should be used to treat an infection caused by this bacterium?

answer

Largest zone of inhibition

question

Broth dilution: What is the minimum bactericidal concentration of each antibiotic?

answer

A = 1:80 B = 1:150

question

Broth dilution: What is the minimum bacteriostatic concentration?

answer

A = 1:190 B = 1:160

question

Which antibiotic is more effective against Staphylococcus aureus?

answer

question

Which antibiotic is more effective against Salmonella enterica?

answer

N/A

question

What is a surgeon trying to accomplish with a 10 minute scrub with a brush followed by an antiseptic?

answer

Scrubbing is an attempt to dislodge as many microbes as possible Antiseptic is used to kill as many microbes as possible

question

How do normal microbiota and transient microbiota differ?

answer

Normal = permanent microorganisms Transient = present only for days or weeks

question

If most of the normal microbiota and transient microbiota aren't harmful, then why must hands be scrubbed before surgery?

answer

Because externally they may not be harmful but internally they can cause infection

question

Aerobic bacteria were isolated from 25 soap products. Data are expressed as percentage of soap products contaminated. What conclusions can you draw from these data?

answer

Bar soap has highest % of bacteria Pump soaps prevent bacteria from getting into the soap

STUDY

Biology Microbiology Pathology

College Biology 1 Final Exam – Flashcards 146 terms

Elizabeth Bates

146 terms

Preview

College Biology 1 Final Exam – Flashcards

question

General differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are?

answer

Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles, prokaryotic cells generally do not.

question

Beta cells are cells in the human pancreas whose primary function is to produce and secrete the protein hormone insulin. A beta cell would contain?

answer

An active Golgi apparatus.

question

What is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids keep biological membranes fluid at lower temperatures?

answer

Unsaturated fatty acids have kinks in their tails, preventing tight packing of adjacent lipids.

question

What is not found in chloroplasts?

answer

Thylakoids, DNA, Ribosomes and an electron transport proteins.

question

What is found in plant cells, but not in animal cells?

answer

Central vacuole.

question

In a plant cell DNA is found where?

answer

In the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.

question

What central structures grows out to the centrosome, and provides compression resistance for the cell?

answer

Microtubules.

question

What cellular structures interact with myosin motor proteins to produce contraction in human skeletal muscles?

answer

Microfilaments.

question

What molecules would you expect to move most quickly through the plasma membrane via passive diffusion (directly through the phospholipid bilayer)?

answer

Oxygen (O₂)

question

What structures would most likely be associated with the cell-cell junction between a nerve cell and a muscle cell?

answer

Gap junction.

question

White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process?

answer

Phagocytosis.

question

What functions are not associated with membrane proteins?

answer

Signal transduction, Enzymatic activity, Transport, and Phosphorilation of ADP to ATP.

question

What is always true of a chemical reaction with a negative delta G?

answer

The reaction is spontaneous.

question

What is not true of the citric acid cycle?

answer

3 NADH are produced per pyruvate, 1 FADH₂is produced per pyruvate and 1 ATP is produced per pyruvate.

question

What is true of Glycolysis, assuming 1 glucose as the starting carbohydrate?

answer

Two 3-carbon sugars are produced by this process.

question

What processes produce(es) ATP by substrate level phosphorylation?

answer

Glycolysis.

question

What would be expected to up-regulate (activate) phosphofructokinase activity?

answer

High AMP concentration.

question

Use the following chemical reaction for this question and the next. CH₄+ o₂---> CO₂+ H₂O Which of the molecules acts as the reducing agent in the above reaction?

answer

CH₄

question

Which of the molecules acts as the oxidizing agent in the above reaction?

answer

O₂

question

What is not a direct product of the light reactions of photosynthesis?

answer

Glucose

question

T/F...Placing an animal cell in a hypertonic saline solution may result in cell lysis (cell rupture).

answer

False.

question

T/F...Spontaneous processes increase the entropy of the universe.

answer

True.

question

T/F...The diffusion of dye molecules when a drop of dye is dropped into a flask of water is an endergonic process.

answer

False.

question

Facilitated diffusion of molecules through protein channels is a type of active transport.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Proteins that function in the cytosol are generally made at free ribosomes.

answer

True.

question

T/F...A Glycolipid consists of a protein covalently bound to a lipid.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Spontaneous reactions always proceed toward equilibrium.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Hydrolyisis of ATP to ADP + P₁ os am exergonic process.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Pyruvate dehydrogensase, an essential enzyme in the production of acetyl CoA from pyruvate, requires Mg+ ions. Her, Mg+ ions acts as cofactors.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Pyruvate oxidation to acetyl CoA yields 2 FADH₂ per pyruvate.

answer

False.

question

Overall, cellular respiration is an anabolic process.

answer

False.

question

What is the overall balanced chemical equation for photosynthesis in plants? Use glucose as the sugar.

answer

Energy + 6CO₂+ 6H₂O----->C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

question

Carbon fixation is the first step in ____. Carbon fixation is catalyzed by the enzyme_____, which incorporates carbon from the molecule_____ into organic molecules. The organic molecules are then (reduced or oxidized)______to produce a sugar with (How many)____carbons, which is then further modified to produce glucose?

answer

Calvin cycle, rubisco, CO₂, reduced, 3.

question

At which level of the hierarchy of biology does the emergent property of Photosynthesis first occur?

answer

Organelle level.

question

What is the lowest level of the hierarchy of biology that can perform all of the functions of life, and thus has all the properties of life?

answer

Cellular level.

question

In an aqueous solution at standard temperature and pressure, if [H+] = 10⁻⁹M, what is [OH]?

answer

10⁻⁵M

question

The common ancestor between two species is most recent (i.e. the two species are most closely related) if the two species are members of the same?

answer

Family.

question

What best describes all of the white-tailed deer living in a 20km₂forest in eastern Faulkner County, AR?

answer

A population.

question

What four elements make up about 96% of the human body, and about 96% of all living matter?

answer

Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen.

question

What type of bond must be broken in order for water to vaporize? (evaporate)

answer

Hydrogen bonds.

question

Which type of energy is produced as a by-product of conversions of energy from one type to another?

answer

Heat energy.

question

The purpose of double-blinding in an experiment is to?

answer

Minimize human bias.

question

A botanist is studying the effect of light on leaf growth in the plant species Arabidopsis thaliana. 100 A. thaliana plants are grown in a greenhouse under varying lengths of artificial daylight, with treatments varying from 2 hours of daylight to 20 hours of daylight, per 24 hour period. The amount of water and fertilizer were kept constant among all treatments. After 30 days, the size of each leaf on every plant was measured. Depending on the genetics of the individual plant, hair-like structures called trichomes may or may not be present on the stem of the plant. What is the independent variable?

answer

Length of artificial daylight.

question

In the previous experiment in Arabidopsis thaliana, which of the following was the dependent variable?

answer

Size of leaves.

question

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are?

answer

Nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.

question

We can be sure that a mole of water (H₂O) and a mole of ethanol (C₂H₆O) are equal in their?

answer

Number of molecules.

question

How many electrons does oxygen need to gain to fill its valence shell?

answer

question

If oxygen were more electronegative...?

answer

water would be more polar.

question

A compound contains carboxyl groups as its predominant functional group. What is true concerning this compound?

answer

It should dissolve in water.

question

What is not a polymer?

answer

Glucose.

question

The covalent bonding of two amino acids requires?

answer

The release of a water molecule.

question

The covalent bond that holds two amino acids together is called a ?

answer

Peptide bond.

question

What would you expect to find at the 5' end of a DNA strand?

answer

A Phosphate group.

question

Transmembrane proteins span the phospholipid bilayer, from one surface to the other, often acting as a "tunnel" through the hydrophobic membrane interior. Of these three amino acids: Alanine, Leucine and Asparagine, which would you expect to find at the surface "entrance" to the transmembrane protein?

answer

Asparagine.

question

Which of the three amono acids, asparagine, alanine and leucine would you expect to find covering the exterior of the "tunnel" section, coming into contact with the interior of the phospholipid bilayer?

answer

Both alanine and leucine.

question

If in a double-stranded DNA molecule, 20% of the nitrogenous bases are Guanine, what percentage of the nitrogenous bases are Cytosine?

answer

20%

question

What term correctly describes the monomeric subunit that is linked together to form the nucleic acid polymer?

answer

Nucleotide

question

Beta pleated sheets and Alpha helices form a part of the____structure of proteins.

answer

Secondary

question

What is true of Thymine?

answer

Its a pyrimidine and it occurs in DNA.

question

Which type of bond holds the two antiparallel strands of a double DNA molecule together?

answer

Covalent bonds between purines and pyrimidines.

question

T/F...Independent variables are manipulated by the researcher, and the effect on the dependent variables is measured.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Qualitative data is never as good or as valuable as quantitative data.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A population that has zero genetic variation and no variation in traits will NOT be acted upon by natural selection.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Archaea, bacteria, and eukaryotes share a common ancestor.

answer

True.

question

T/F... A scientific theory is generally accepted as truth and is supported by a great deal of evidence, but still can be modified or discarded if sufficient evidence comes out to disprove the theory.

answer

False.

question

T/F...An atom with 12 protons and 14 neutrons is the same element as an atom with 12 protons and 12 neutrons.

answer

True.

question

T/F...For glucose, an equilibrium exists between a linear and a ring structure, but that equilibrium favors the linear structure.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Saturated fats are usually liquid at room temperature.

answer

False.

question

T/F...In a population of white beetles living in a dark cave, where no variation in color and no variation in the genes controlling color exist, a mutation occurs in a new-born beetle that gives it a black color. The birth of this individual is due to natural selection.

answer

False.

question

T/F...In the beetle population aforementioned, following the birth of the white beetle and over the course of several dozen generations, black color becomes more common than white color. This change in the population over generations is due to natural selection.

answer

true.

question

T/F...An aqueous solution in which [H+] = 10⁴M is acidic.

answer

True

question

T/F...Phospholipids, like fats, contain glycerol.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Every protein has four levels of structure: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary.

answer

False.

question

What is characterized by a cell releasing a signaling molecule into the extracellular environment, followed by a response from cells in the immediate vicinity?

answer

Paracrine signaling

question

What is true of transcription factors?

answer

They regulate gene expression.

question

One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts to a signaling molecule by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins. Which type does this?

answer

Receptor tyrosine kinases.

question

What is a correct association?

answer

GTPase activity and hydrolysis of GTP to GDP.

question

What is/are potential cellular responses to an endocrine signal?

answer

Upregulation of gene expression, changing of cytoplasmic ion concentrations, activation of a particular enzyme, and cytoskeletal movement.

question

Phosphorilation cascades involving a series of protein kinases are useful for cellular signal transduction because?

answer

They amplify the original signal.

question

A group of cells assayed for DNA content at the beginning of G₁, and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S phase, and at the end of G²?

answer

16, 16

question

For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?

answer

Spindle microtubules must begin to break down.

question

At which stage of the cell cycle are chromosomes attached to the spindle and lined up along the middle of the cell?

answer

Metaphase.

question

Microtubules that interact with microtubules from the other side of the mitotic spindle, pushing against each other and maintaining the shape of the spindle, are called?

answer

Non-kinetochore microtubules.

question

What mechanism is normally involved in regulating the cell cycle?

answer

Anchorage dependance, density-dependent inhibition, and growth factors.

question

During which stage of the cell cycle do the two members of a homologous pair of chromosomes line up on opposite sides of the metaphase plate?

answer

Metaphase I of meiosis.

question

During which stage of the cell cycle does crossing over (homologous recombination) occur?

answer

Prophase I of meiosis.

question

During which stage of the cell cycle is the DNA found in duplicated, non-condensed chromatin form?

answer

G₂

question

During which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

answer

S phase.

question

A human somatic cell contains 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes at G₁. How many sister chromatids are present in the same cell at G₂?

answer

question

What is the probability that a normal, two sided coin is flipped three times in a row, landing on heads all three times?

answer

1/8

question

What is an example of a true-breeding genotype?

answer

AABB

question

What is/are true of the flower color gene in pea plants, for which dominant purple allele (P) and a recessive (p) allele exist?

answer

Both alleles are found at the same locus.

question

T/F...Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is a common second messenger involved in cell signaling.

answer

True.

question

T/F...In a multicellular eukaryotic organism, all cells respond the same way to an endocrine signal.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Flowering plants produce a multicellular haploid stage as part of their life cycle.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Animals produce a multicellular haploid stage as part of their life cycle.

answer

False.

question

T/F...In animals, a cell plate forms between the daughter cells during cytokinesis.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A human somatic cell is diploid at mitotic metaphase.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells with haploid sets of chromosomes.

answer

True.

question

T/F...In all eukaryotic organisms, the nuclear envelope breaks down during mitosis.

answer

False.

question

T/F...No human characteristics are inherited in a single gene, dominant/recessive manner.

answer

False.

question

The human ABO blood group is inherited in a codominant manner.

answer

True.

question

A father is AaTt and can make what gametes?

answer

AT, At, aT, and at

question

A mother is AaTT and can make what gametes?

answer

AT, and at.

question

The most common form of colorblindness is inherited on the X chromosome. If a colorblind man and a woman who is a carrier for colorblindness have a child, what is the probability that the child is a colorblind male?

answer

1/4

question

If the couple aforementioned has another child, what is the probability that the child is a girl with normal vision?

answer

1/4

question

What human cell types would be expected to have 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome?

answer

Sperm.

question

What phenomena is responsible for the calico coloration seen in female domestic cats?

answer

X-inactivation.

question

What process could transfer a gene from chromosome 4 to chromosome 7?

answer

Translocation.

question

In DNA replication E.coli, what enzymes is/are more active on the lagging strand than on the leading strand?

answer

Primase.

question

What is true of a nucleosome?

answer

It consists of DNA wrapped around 8 histone proteins, contains 4 different types of histone proteins, and are "beads on a string".

question

What is the role of the scaffold protein in chromatin packaging?

answer

Serves as an attachment point for the looping of the selenoid structure.

question

In which area of a chromosome would you expect to find the most genes?

answer

Euchromatin.

question

What process involves the production of mRNA from a DNA template?

answer

Transcription.

question

Where would you expect to find a difference in sugar in the sugar in DNA, compared to the sugar in RNA?

answer

At the 2' carbon.

question

What is found in the eukaryotic gene but not in a bacterial gene?

answer

Polyadenylation signal.

question

Given the following mRNA sequence: 5'-AACUCGUGCT-3' : what is the coding strand of DNA?

answer

5'-AACTCGTGCT-3'

question

What eukaryotic processes requires the presence of transcription factors?

answer

Initiation of transcription.

question

What is removed from a eukaryotic pre-mRNA by the Spliceosome?

answer

Introns.

question

What structures are composed of a combination of nucleic acids and amino acids?

answer

Spliceosome, ribosome, and chromatin.

question

What is not true of tRNA?

answer

That it's found only in prokaryotic organisms.

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme adds nucleotides to the growing daughter strand.

answer

DNA polymerase 3

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme separates the two parent strands at the replication fork.

answer

Helicase.

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme adds nucleotides to fill in gaps left by the removal of primers.

answer

Ligase.

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme relieves tension in the DNA double helix downstream from the replication fork.

answer

Topisomerase.

question

In E.coli DNA replication, this enzyme has proofreading ability, allowing it to catch and correct most of its own mistakes.

answer

DNA polymerase 3

question

A charged tRNA enters the ribosome at this location

answer

A site.

question

An uncharged tRNA exits the ribosome at this location.

answer

E site.

question

The growing polypeptide chain is transformed from the tRNA in the___ to the tRNA in the ___forming a new peptide bond.

answer

P site, A site.

question

T/F...Males are the heterogametic sex in all animal species.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Human mitochondrial genes are inherited from the male parent.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A single nondisjunction during meiosis 1 would result in two gametes each with one extra chromosome, and two gametes each with one missing chromosome.

answer

True.

question

T/F...A trisomy of chromosome 1 would be expected to have a more profound effect on phenotype than a trisomy of chromosome 21.

answer

True.

question

T/F...In humans there are more Y-linked disorders than X-linked disorders.

answer

False.

question

T/F...The nitrogenous base Adenine is a purine.

answer

True.

question

T/F...The nitrogenous base in Adenine is found in RNA and DNA.

answer

True.

question

T/F...The nitrogenous base Adenine usually pairs with Cytosine.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A phosphate group is found at the 3' end of a DNA strand.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Okasaki fragments are produced only by leading strand synthesis.

answer

True.

question

T/F...The enzyme telomerase is more active in somatic cells than in cells that produce gametes.

answer

False.

question

T/F...Chromatin is a combination of DNA and protein.

answer

True.

question

T/F...Eukaryotic transcription and translation often occur simultaneously in the same part of the cell.

answer

False.

question

T/F...There is always only one codon that can code for any particular amino acid.

answer

False.

question

T/F...A nucleotide-pair substitution is more likely to lead to a frame-shift than a nucleotide-pair insertion.

answer

False.

question

T/F... It is possible for a change in the DNA sequence of a gene to have no effect on protein structure.

answer

True.

question

T/F...A ribosome is not able to alternate between a free and a bound state.

answer

False.

STUDY

Broad Spectrum Drugs Gram Positive Organisms Microbiology Sexually Transmitted Diseases Signs And Symptoms White Blood Cells

Ch.13 Infection and Disease – Flashcards 111 terms

Marlon Riddle

111 terms

Preview

Ch.13 Infection and Disease – Flashcards

question

1. Infection occurs when:

answer

A) contaminants are present on the skin B) a person swallows microbes in/on food C) a person inhales microbes in the air D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues* E) all of the choices are correct

question

2. All infectious diseases:

answer

A) are contagious B) only occur in humans C) are caused by microorganisms or their products* D) are caused by vectors E) involve viruses as the pathogen

question

3. Which is not terminology used for resident flora:

answer

A) pathogenic flora* B) normal flora C) indigenous flora D) normal microflora E) all of the choices are correct

question

4. Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are:

answer

A) in food B) the patient's own normal flora* C) on fomites D) in the air E) transmitted form one person to another

question

5. The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora:

answer

A) before birth, in utero B) during, and immediately after birth* C) when a child first goes to school D) when an infant gets its first infectious disease E) during puberty

question

6. Resident flora are found in/on the:

answer

A) skin B) mouth C) nasal passages D) large intestine E) all of the choices are correct*

question

7. All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except:

answer

A) Escherichia* B) Staphylococcus C) Corynebacterium D) Micrococcus E) Mycobacterium

question

8. Resident flora of the intestines include the following:

answer

A) Streptococcus B) Bacteroides C) Staphylococcus D) Haemophilus E) all of the choices are correct*

question

9. Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina?

answer

A) Lactobacillus* B) Streptococcus C) Haemophilus D) Escherichia E) Mycobacterium

question

10. Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces?

answer

A) Lactobacillus B) Streptococcus* C) Haemophilus D) Escherichia E) Mycobacterium

question

11. The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several other vitamins is the:

answer

A) skin B) mouth C) large intestine* D) vagina E) nasal passages

question

12. Virulence factors include all the following except:

answer

A) capsules B) ribosomes* C) exoenzymes D) endotoxin E) exotoxin

question

13. STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common:

answer

A) genera of resident flora B) sexually transmitted diseases C) portals of entry D) vectors E) infections of the fetus and neonate*

question

14. Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of:

answer

A) adhesive factors B) exotoxins C) hemolysins D) antiphagocytic factors E) exoenzymes*

question

15. Exotoxins are:

answer

A) proteins* B) only released after a cell is damaged or lysed C) antiphagocytic factors D) secretions that always target nervous tissue E) lipopolysaccharides

question

16. Enterotoxins are:

answer

A) virulence factors B) toxins that target the intestines* C) proteins D) exotoxins E) all of the choices are correct

question

17. Which is mismatched?

answer

A) fimbriae - adherence to substrate B) capsules - antiphagocytic factor C) coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots* D) leukocidins - damage white blood cells E) hemolysins - damage red blood cells

question

18. The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is:

answer

A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) period of invasion* E) all of the choices are correct

question

19. The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the:

answer

A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period* D) period of invasion E) all of the choices are correct

question

20. The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the:

answer

A) prodromal stage* B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) period of invasion E) all of the choices are correct

question

21. Which is mismatched:

answer

A) secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites* B) mixed infection - several agents established at infection site C) acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms D) local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site E) toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

question

22. The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed:

answer

A) syndrome B) symptom* C) sign D) pathology E) inflammation

question

23. The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed:

answer

A) syndrome B) symptom C) sign* D) pathology E) inflammation

question

24. Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of:

answer

A) toxemia B) inflammation* C) sequelae D) a syndrome E) latency

question

25. The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is:

answer

A) pathology B) clinical microbiology C) medicine D) immunology E) epidemiology*

question

26. The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is:

answer

A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention* B) World Health Organization C) National Institutes of Health D) United States Department of Agriculture E) Infection Control Committee

question

27. The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the:

answer

A) mortality rate B) morbidity rate C) incidence rate* D) prevalence rate E) epidemic rate

question

28. A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is:

answer

A) epidemic B) endemic* C) pandemic D) sporadic E) chronic

question

29. The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the:

answer

A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir* E) source

question

30. Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a:

answer

A) fomite B) carrier* C) vector D) reservoir E) source

question

31. An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a:

answer

A) fomite B) carrier C) vector* D) reservoir E) source

question

32. An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a:

answer

A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source

question

33. The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the:

answer

A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source*

question

34. Reservoirs include:

answer

A) humans B) animals C) soil D) water E) all of the choices are correct*

question

35. A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is:

answer

A) direct B) fomite C) vehicle+ D) droplet nuclei E) aerosols

question

36. The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are:

answer

A) fomites B) aerosols C) mechanical vectors D) droplet nuclei* E) biological vectors

question

37. Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are:

answer

A) fomites B) aerosols C) mechanical vectors D) droplet nuclei E) biological vectors*

question

38. Nosocomial infections involve all the following except:

answer

A) are only transmitted by medical personnel B) often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions C) the patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent D) Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents E) medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence*

question

39. When would Koch's Postulates be utilized:

answer

A) determination of the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab B) development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab C) determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab* D) formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab E) whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem

question

40. Most of the skin's resident flora are found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis.

answer

A) True

question

41. Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens.

answer

A) True

question

42. The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection.

answer

A) True

question

43. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to biosafety level 4.

answer

A) True

question

44. A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues.

answer

A) True

question

45. When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.

answer

B) False

question

46. Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood.

answer

A) True

question

47. Sentinel animals are monitored for specific diseases in order to determine the potential for human exposure to a disease.

answer

A) True B) False

question

48. Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.

answer

A) True

question

49. Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.

answer

Decrease

question

50. A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.

answer

Vector

question

51. _____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease.

answer

Convalescent

question

52. A _____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.

answer

Bacteremia or Viremia

question

53. _____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram negative cell walls.

answer

Endotoxin

question

54. _____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.

answer

Bacterial kinases (Ex.Streptokinase, Staphylokinase)

question

55. The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the _____ rate.

answer

Mortality

question

56. _____ are a set of criteria used to identify and link a specific microorganism as the etiologic agent of a new infectious disease.

answer

Koch P.

question

What is an Infection?

answer

a condition in which pathogenic microbes penetrate host defenses, enter tissues & multiply

question

What is a Disease?

answer

any deviation from health, disruption of a tissue or organ caused by microbes or their products

question

What is Resident Flora?

answer

*includes bacteria, fungi, protozoans, viruses and arthropods (see word document) *most areas of the body in contact with the outside environment harbor resident microbes; large intestine has the highest numbers of bacteria *internal organs, tissues & fluids are microbe-free *bacterial flora benefit host by preventing overgrowth of harmful microbes

question

What is True pathogens

answer

-capable of causing disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses -Influenza - virus, plague - bacillus, malarial - protozoan

question

What is an Opportunistic pathogens

answer

-cause disease when the host's defenses are compromised or when they grow in part of the body that is not natural to them -Pseudomonas sp & Candida albicans

question

List all Portal of Entries

answer

- skin - gastrointestinal tract - respiratory tract - urogenital tract

question

what is Infectious dose (ID)

answer

-minimum number of microbes required for infection to proceed -microbes with small Infectious Dose have greater virulence -1 rickettsial cell in Q fever -10 bacteria in TB, giardiasis -109 bacteria in cholera (1,000,000,000) -Lack of ID will not result in infection

question

List Mechanisms of adhesion

answer

fimbrae flagella adhesive slimes or capsules cilia suckers hooks barbs

question

Virulence factors - what is exoenzymes

answer

-digest epithelial tissues & permit invasion of pathogens -Mucinase (amoebic dysentery), keratinase (ringworm), Collagenase (gangrene), hyaluronidase (staph, strepto)

question

Virulence factors - Toxigenicity

answer

-capacity to produce toxins at the site of multiplication

question

Virulence factors - exotoxins

answer

- secreted by gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, the cell wall stays intact (does not have to be lysed

question

Virulence factors - endotoxins

answer

-secreted by gram-negative bacteria during lysis of the cell wall

question

Virulence factors -antiphagocytic factors

answer

help them to kill or avoid phagocytes, include leukocidins and capsules

question

Patterns of infection - localized infection

answer

microbes enters the body & remains confined to a specific tissue

question

Patterns of infection - focal infection

answer

when the infectious agent breaks loose from a local infection and is carried to other tissues

question

Patterns of infection - systemic infection

answer

infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids (usually in the bloodstream)

question

Patterns of infection - Primary infection

answer

initial infection, first microbe

question

Patterns of infection - Secondary infection

answer

another infection at another site by a different microbe

question

Patterns of infection - Mixed infection

answer

several microbes grow simultaneously at the same infectious site

question

Patterns of infection - Focal infection

answer

- is an infection at 2 different sites by one organism.

question

Bacteremia

answer

is the presence of bacteria in the blood. The blood is normally a sterile environment, so the detection of bacteria in the blood is considered abnormal

question

Septicemia

answer

is a related medical term referring to the presence of pathogenic organisms in the bloodstream, leading to sepsis, infection in a system or two.

question

Sepsis

answer

is a potentially serious medical condition that is characterized by a whole-body inflammatory state and the presence of a known or suspected infection. The body may develop this inflammatory response by the immune system to microbes in the blood, urine, lungs, skin, or other tissues. Severe sepsis is the systemic inflammatory response, plus infection, plus the presence of organ dysfunction.

question

Symptom

answer

subjective evidence of disease as sensed by the patient ex. vomiting

question

Sign

answer

objective evidence of disease as noted by an observer, factual, should be recorded ex. White blood cell count, temperature

question

True pathogens

answer

capable of causing disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses Influenza - virus, plague - bacillus, malarial - protozoan

question

Opportunistic pathogens

answer

cause disease when the host's defenses are compromised or when they grow in part of the body that is not natural to them Pseudomonas sp & Candida albicans

question

List the Portals of exit

answer

Respiratory, saliva Skin scales Fecal exit Urogenital tract Removal of blood

question

Sequelae

answer

long-term or permanent damage to tissues or organs, a pathological condition resulting from a disease, injury, or other trauma, a secondary consequence or result Latin sequēla - something that follows; a continuation Examples. Streptococcus pyogenes, Strep throat, can lead to rheumatic fever, and kidney damage or Chronic kidney disease, for example, is sometimes a sequela of diabetes

question

Epidemiology

answer

The study of the frequency and distribution of disease & health-related factors in human populations, how often a disease presents itself and where it occurs

question

Etiology

answer

is the study of causation, or origin. The word is derived from the Greek αἰτιολογία, aitiologia, "giving a reason for", it can be the genetic reason for the disease

question

Surveillance

answer

- collecting, analyzing, & reporting data on rates of occurrence, mortality, morbidity, and transmission of infections

question

Prevalence

answer

total number of existing cases with respect to the entire population usually represented by a percentage of the population USA - 861,533 with diabetes 293,655,405 total population = 2.9% Canada - 95,372 with diabetes , 32,507,874 total population = .29%

question

Incidence

answer

measures the number of new cases over a certain time period, as compared with the general healthy population Down's Syndrome - 340,000 per year, 28,333 per month, 6,538 per week, 931 per day, 38 per hour, 0 per minute, 0 per second

question

Mortality rate

answer

the total number of deaths in a population due to a certain disease

question

Morbidity rate

answer

number of people afflicted with a certain disease per 1000, an inexact term that can mean either the incidence rate or the prevalence rate.

question

Sporadic

answer

when occasional cases are reported at irregular intervals

question

Endemic

answer

disease that exhibits a relatively steady frequency over a long period of time in a particular geographic locale

question

Epidemic

answer

when prevalence of a disease is increasing beyond what is expected

question

Pandemic

answer

(from Greek παν pan all + δήμος demos people) epidemic across continents

question

Describe a Pandemic

answer

A pandemic is a global disease outbreak. A flu pandemic occurs when a new influenza virus emerges for which people have little or no immunity, and for which there is no vaccine. The disease spreads easily person-to person, causes serious illness, and can sweep across the country and around the world in very short time.

question

Antonine Plague

answer

165-180 BC. Possibly smallpox brought back from the Near East; killed a quarter of those infected and up to five million in all. 5,000 people a day were said to be dying in Rome

question

Peloponnesian War

answer

430 BC, Typhoid fever killed a quarter of the Athenian troops and a quarter of the population over four years.

question

The Black Death

answer

the bubonic plague returned to Europe, Starting in Asia, the disease reached the Mediterranean and western Europe in 1348 (possibly from Italian merchants fleeing fighting in the Crimea) killed twenty million Europeans in six years, a quarter of the total population and up to a half in the worst-affected urban areas

question

Influenza

answer

the "first" pandemic of 1510 traveled from Africa and spread across Europe, it is estimated that it killed about ten people in a thousand per day, or about 1%

question

Cholera

answer

the first pandemic 1816-1826, previously restricted to the Indian subcontinent, the pandemic began in Bengal, then spread across India by 1820. It extended as far as China and the Caspian Sea before receding. The third pandemic (1852-1860) mainly affected Russia over a million deaths

question

The "Spanish flu" - 1918-1919

answer

In six months, 25 million were dead; some estimates put the total of those killed worldwide at over twice that number, An estimated 17 million died in India, 500,000 in the United States and 200,000 in the UK.

question

The Asian Flu

answer

caused about 70,000 deaths in the United States

question

The "Hong Kong Flu

answer

caused about 34,000 deaths in the United States

question

Reservoirs of infection

answer

Any person, animal, plant, soil or substance in which an infectious agent normally lives and multiplies. The reservoir typically harbors the infectious agent without injury to itself and serves as a source from which other individuals can be infected. The infectious agent primarily depends on the reservoir for its survival. It is from the reservoir that the infectious substance is transmitted to a human or another susceptible host.

question

Living reservoirs may or may not have symptoms

answer

Asymptomatic carriers - gonorrhea, genital warts Passive carriers - health care professionals Vectors - live animals that transmits infectious disease, ticks, fleas, mosquitoes, flies, cockroaches, birds, rats

question

Nonliving reservoirs

answer

soil, water, air bacteria, fungi, helminths, protozoa (in all forms - spores, cysts, larvae)

question

Patterns of transmission - Direct contact

answer

-contact between mucous membranes &/or skin, portal of exit meets a portal of entry -Kissing, nursing, animal bites

question

Patterns of transmission -Indirect contact -

answer

-contact achieved through some intervening medium implicated in the spread of infection -Vehicle - fomites (inanimate material), food, water, biological products Airborne -droplet nuclei - the dried residue formed by evaporation of droplets coughed or sneezed into the air -Aerosols - is a suspension of airborne particles that contain living organisms or were released from living organisms

question

Nosocomial infections

answer

Diseases that are acquired during a hospital stay

STUDY

Graft Versus Host Disease Immunology Mast Cells And Basophils Microbiology Microbiology For Health Sciences

microbiology chapter 16 – Flashcards 62 terms

Jazzlyn Howe

62 terms

Preview

microbiology chapter 16 – Flashcards

question

The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are A. Type I only B. Type I and Type I C. Type IV only D. Type I, Type II, Type III E. Type I, Type II, Type III and Type IV

answer

D. Type I, Type II, Type III

question

Which is mismatched? A. Food allergy - Type I hypersensitivity B. Poison ivy dermatitis - Type IV hypersensitivity C. Serum sickness - Type III hypersensitivity D. Transfusion reaction - Type II hypersensitivity E. Hay fever - Type IV hypersensitivity

answer

E. Hay fever - Type IV hypersensitivity

question

Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an A. Autoimmune disease B. Immunodeficiency C. Hypersensitivity D. Transfusion reaction E. Desensitization

answer

C. Hypersensitivity

question

The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system i A. Humoralpathology B. Hemopathology C. Epidemiology D. Immunopathology E. Histopathology

answer

D. Immunopathology

question

Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category A. Type I only B. Type I and Type IV C. Type IV only D. Type I, Type II, Type III E. Type I, Type II, Type III and Type IV

answer

A. Type I only

question

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A. Ingestant B. Inhalant C. Injectant D. Contactant E. None of the choices are correct

answer

C. Injectant

question

Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A. Ingestant B. Inhalant C. Injectant D. Contactant E. None of the choices are correct

answer

B. Inhalant

question

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the A. Sensitizing dose B. Provocative dose C. Allergic dose D. Hypersensitivity dose E. Desensitizing dose

answer

A. Sensitizing dose

question

A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the A. Sensitizing dose B. Provocative dose C. Allergic dose D. Hypersensitivity dose E. Desensitizing dose

answer

B. Provocative dose

question

What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time? A. Degranulation B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

answer

B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

question

Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators? A. Degranulation B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

answer

A. Degranulation

question

Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen? A. Degranulation B. Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

answer

C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

question

Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity? A. Rhinitis B. Rashes C. Sneezing D. Diarrhea E. Contact dermatitis

answer

E. Contact dermatitis

question

Histamine causes all the following except A. Increased sensitivity to pain B. Constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine C. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle D. Wheal and flare reaction in skin E. Pruritis and headache

answer

A. Increased sensitivity to pain

question

The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is A. Prostaglandin B. Histamine C. Leukotriene D. Serotonin E. Platelet-activating factor

answer

C. Leukotriene

question

Which type(s) of hypersensitivities is IgG is involved with? A. Anaphylaxis B. Antibody mediated C. Immune complex mediated D. Both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated E. Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated

answer

E. Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated

question

Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a/an _____ hypersensitivity. A. T-cell mediated B. Antibody mediated C. Immune complex mediated D. Immediate E. Both T-cell mediated and antibody mediated

answer

D. Immediate

question

Allergies run in families because A. Immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus B. Immunoglobulins pass through breast milk C. The variable region of antibodies is genetically determined D. Relative production of IgE is inherited E. All of the choices are correct

answer

D. Relative production of IgE is inherited

question

A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered A. Delayed B. T-cell mediated C. Atopic D. Antibody-mediated E. Systemic anaphylactic

answer

C. Atopic

question

A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is A. Delayed B. T-cell mediated C. Atopic D. Antibody-mediated E. Systemic anaphylactic

answer

E. Systemic anaphylactic

question

A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is A. Atopic dermatitis B. Eczema C. Allergic rhinitis D. Asthma E. Anaphylaxis

answer

C. Allergic rhinitis

question

All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell mediated allergy except A. Drug allergy B. Eczema C. Anaphylaxis D. Allergic asthma E. Systemic lupus erythematosus

answer

E. Systemic lupus erythematosus

question

Epinephrine A. Is an antihistamine B. Reverses constriction of airways C. Causes desensitization D. Inhibits the activity of lymphocytes E. All of the choices are correct

answer

B. Reverses constriction of airways

question

Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing A. Desensitization B. Sensitization C. Tissue matching D. Degranulation E. None of the choices are correct

answer

A. Desensitization

question

An antihistamine will A. Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes B. Bind to histamine receptors on target organs C. Block synthesis of Leukotrienes D. Relieve inflammatory symptoms E. Reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles

answer

B. Bind to histamine receptors on target organs

question

Corticosteroids will A. Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes B. Bind to histamine receptors on target organs C. Block synthesis of Leukotrienes D. Relieve inflammatory symptoms E. Reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles

answer

A. Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes

question

All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity except A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. Complement E. Foreign cells

answer

C. IgE

question

Human blood types involve all the following except A. MHC genes B. ABO antigen markers C. Inheritance of two of three possible alleles D. Genetically determined glycoprotein markers E. Genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors

answer

A. MHC genes

question

The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh- will have which of the following? A. Anti A, anti Rh B. Anti B, anti Rh C. Anti A D. Anti B E. Anti A, anti B, anti Rh

answer

B. Anti B, anti Rh

question

A person with O type blood A. Lacks all the alleles for ABO blood type B. Lacks A and B antigens C. Could not have the Rh factor D. Is called a universal recipient E. All of the choices are correct

answer

B. Lacks A and B antigens

question

A person who has anti A and anti B serum antibodies will have blood type A. A B. B C. AB D. O E. Rh

answer

D. O

question

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause A. Recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs B. Fever and anemia C. Systemic shock and kidney failure D. Massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs E. All of the choices are correct

answer

E. All of the choices are correct

question

33.A female who is Rh- A. Inherited two dominant genes B. Is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status C. Is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn D. Can never have an Rh+ baby E. All of the choices are correct

answer

C. Is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn

question

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when A. Maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus B. Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother C. Maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus D. Fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother E. Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother

answer

B. Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother

question

Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor A. All other Rh+ fetuses are at risk B. She can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn C. She can never again have a low risk pregnancy D. Only future Rh- fetuses are at risk E. None of the choices are correct

answer

A. All other Rh+ fetuses are at risk

question

Which of the following is not true of Type III hypersensitivity? A. Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues B. Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies C. Involves an immune complex reaction D. The Arthus reaction is a local response E. Serum sickness is a systemic response

answer

B. Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies

question

Which of the following is not a major organ that can be a target of immune complex deposition? A. Blood vessels and skin B. Heart and lungs C. Brain D. Joints E. Kidneys

answer

C. Brain

question

Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in A. Serum sickness B. Delayed hypersensitivity C. Anaphylaxis D. Hemolytic disease of the newborn E. All of the choices are correct

answer

E. All of the choices are correct

question

Contact dermatitis involves A. A sensitizing and provocative dose B. Allergen entering the skin C. T lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines D. Itchy papules and blisters E. All of the choices are correct

answer

E. All of the choices are correct

question

What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes? A. Host rejection of graft B. Graft versus host disease C. Formation of autoantibodies D.Hypogammaglobulinemia E. None of the choices are correct

answer

B. Graft versus host disease

question

Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a/an A. Isograft B. Autograft C. Allograft D. Xenograft E. Hypograft

answer

B. Autograft

question

What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue? A. Skin graft B. Blood transfusion C. Organ transplantation D. Both skin graft and organ transplantation E. All of the choices are correct

answer

D. Both skin graft and organ transplantation

question

43. Autoimmunity is typically due to A. Transfusion reaction B. IgE and mast cells C. Autoantibodies and T cells D. Graft rejection E. A deficiency in T-cell development

answer

C. Autoantibodies and T cells

question

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases except A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Graves' disease D. Tuberculin reaction E. Multiple sclerosis

answer

D. Tuberculin reaction

question

Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Graves disease C. Type I diabetes D. Metastatic cancer E. Rheumatic fever

answer

D. Metastatic cancer

question

Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against A. Myelin sheath cells of the nervous system B. Acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle C. Acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle D. Sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane

answer

C. Acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle

question

In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack A. Myelin sheath cells of the nervous system B. Acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle C. Acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle D. Sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane E. Cells in thyroid follicles?

answer

A. Myelin sheath cells of the nervous system

question

Which of the following is not a theory to explain the origin of autoimmune diseases? A. Sequestered antigen theory B. Clonal selection theory C. Theory of immune deficiency D. Viral infection theory E. All the choices are possible theories

answer

E. All the choices are possible theories

question

What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity? A. Host rejection of graft B. Graft versus host disease C. Formation of autoantibodies D. Hypogammaglobulinemia E. None of the choices are correct

answer

D. Hypogammaglobulinemia

question

The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of A. Autoantibodies B. Delayed hypersensitivity C. Congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland D. Failure of B cell development and maturity E. A genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

answer

C. Congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland

question

51.Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A. Autoantibodies B. Delayed hypersensitivity C. Congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland D. Failure of B cell development and maturity E. A genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

answer

E. A genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

question

A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is A. AIDS B. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency C. Digeorge syndrome D. Agammaglobulinemia E. SCID

answer

A. AIDS

question

Each of the following can result in acquired immune deficiencies except A. Malnutrition B. Stress C. Pregnancy D. Bacterial infection E. Radiation treatment

answer

D. Bacterial infection

question

In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE? A. IgE B. IgG C. IgA D. IgD

answer

B. IgG

question

Degranulation of mast cells leads to: A. Airway obstruction B. Headache C. Dilated blood vessels D. All of these

answer

D. All of these

question

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen A.Ingestant B.Inhalant C.Injectant D.Contactant

answer

C.Injectant

question

Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen ? A.Degranulation B.Histamine is released C.Binding of IgE to mast cells D.Histamine acts on smooth muscle

answer

C.Binding of IgE to mast cells

question

An antihistamine drug will A.Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes B.Bind to histamine receptors on target organs C.Block synthesis of Leukotrienes D.Relieve high blood pressure

answer

B.Bind to histamine receptors on target organs

question

Individuals with severe allergies A.Should carry at all times Epinephrine (adrenalin) B.Take medication for high blood pressure C.Drink a lot of water D.Stay away from corticosteroid drugs

answer

A.Should carry at all times Epinephrine (adrenalin)

question

Type 4 hypersensitivity includes all EXCEPT A.Graft rejection B.Contact dermititis C.Rh incompatibility D.Tuberculin r

answer

C.Rh incompatibility

question

Autoimmune diseases include all except A.Rheumatoid arthrititis B.Tuberculosis C.Scleroderma D.Lupus

answer

B.Tuberculosis

question

According to geography data of Multiple Sclerosis, it is known that higher prevalence of MS occurs in the further Northern and Southern Latitudes, possibly due to less sunlight, MS is more likely to occur among people living in: A.Central America B.India C.Europe and North America D.North America

answer

C.Europe and North America

STUDY

AP Biology Biology Microbiology Virology

Biology Chapter 24 – Viruses – Flashcards 41 terms

Niamh Mitchell

41 terms

Preview

Biology Chapter 24 – Viruses – Flashcards

question

What is a virus?

answer

Non-living particle made up of nucleic acid and capsid

question

Is a virus a cell?

answer

question

Are viruses considered living?

answer

question

What are the 4 main reasons viruses don't qualify as living?

answer

1. No cells, 2. Doesn't occur through mitosis, 3. Must be inside the host, 4. Doesn't maintain homeostasis through metabolic reactions

question

How does a virus use its host cell to reproduce?

answer

Use host's enzymes and organelles

question

Name 5 diseases caused by viruses:

answer

Adeno- Respiratory infections, Herpes- Cold and genital sores, Pox- Small pox, Picorna- Polio, hepatitis, colds, Retro- AIDS, leukemia

question

Why don't viruses work with antibiotics?

answer

They aren't living and only work on bacteria

question

What is a retrovirus?

answer

Contains RNA and reverse transcriptase

question

What is a prion?

answer

Infectious protein particle with no genome

question

What is an example of a disease caused by a prion?

answer

Mad Cow Disease

question

How are the majority of viruses spread to others?

answer

Air, water, and vector

question

Why do viruses have to be intracellular parasites?

answer

Viruses are lifeless without them

question

What types of nucleic acid are in viruses?

answer

DNA and RNA

question

What does reverse transcriptase do?

answer

It uses RNA as a template to make DNA

question

What is a capsid composed of?

answer

Proteins or lipids

question

What are the two lifecycles exhibited by a virus?

answer

Lytic and lysogenic

question

During which lifecycle does the host become sick?

answer

Lytic

question

During which lifecycle does the host become infected with the virus, but doesn't get sick?

answer

Lysogenic

question

A person comes to the doctor with a cold sore. The patient complains that they come and go. Sometimes, there are periods of outbreaks of cold sores between months. What does he have?

answer

Temperate virus- Viral replication becomes lytic

question

Viruses that infect bacteria are called:

answer

Bacteriophages

question

Viruses can be seen with a --- microscope.

answer

Transmission-electron

question

Viruses can cause damage to ---.

answer

Living organisms

question

Each kind of virus infects --- hosts.

answer

Specific

question

Viruses are --- than the cells they infect.

answer

Smaller

question

Viruses reproduce --- of living cells.

answer

Inside

question

Viruses --- the cells in which they live.

answer

Harm

question

The study of viruses is a part of biology because:

answer

Cause diseases in living organisms and continue genetic research

question

The capsid of the virus is the:

answer

Only layer surrounding some viruses

question

Viruses are classified according to:

answer

DNA or RNA, single or double stranded, linear or circular, nature of the capsid, and presence of the envelope

question

Tobacco mosaic virus has what kind of shape?

answer

Helical

question

Scientists first began to study viruses because:

answer

Smaller factor than bacteria causes disease

question

Animals viruses often infect only specific host cells because:

answer

They have specific receptors for glycoprotein on the virus

question

Viroids contain only:

answer

RNA (no capsid)

question

What is an example of a retrovirus?

answer

HIV

question

What are vectors?

answer

Intermediate hosts that transfer pathogens or parasites to an organism

question

What has been the most successful at fighting viral disease?

answer

Vector control and vaccination

question

Most scientists believe viruses originated from:

answer

Early cells

question

HIV causes AIDS by:

answer

Spreading with sexual contact

question

Viruses linked to cancer:

answer

HPV, Hepatitis B, HTLV, and EBV

question

Common viral diseases in humans:

answer

Flu, chickenpox, measles, polio, and hepatitis

question

When viral replication includes the lysogenic cycle, the virus is called:

answer

Temperate

STUDY

Biology Microbiology Microbiology For Health Sciences Nucleic Acid Core

Microbiology Final Exam Review – Flashcards 107 terms

Aiden Boyd

107 terms

Preview

Microbiology Final Exam Review – Flashcards

question

purpose of studying microbiology

answer

1. microorganisms affect human health 2. microorganisms are essential in all life cycles 3. microbes are used in food production

question

benefits of studying microbiology

answer

understanding the world around us- everything is covered in microbes

question

microbiology

answer

the study of microorganisms

question

bacteria

answer

all prokaryotic organisms

question

algae

answer

photosynthesis; eukaryotic organisms in the kingdoms Protista and Plantae

question

fungi

answer

the kingdom of non-photosynthetic eukaryotic organisms that absorb nutrients from their environment

question

viruses

answer

obligate intracellular parasites; composed of a nucleic acid core inside a protein coat

question

protozoa

answer

single-celled, microscopic, animal-like protists in the kingdom Protista

question

site of employment of microbiologists

answer

a. university- teaching, researching, raining students b. commercial laboratories- developing microbes used in genetic engineering c. health professions- clinical laboratories performing tests to diagnose disease or determining which anitbiotics will cure a particular disease d. hospital/gov't labs- controlling spread of infection and related public health matters

question

Hippocrates

answer

Greek physician who lived around 400 B.C. He associated particular signs and symptoms with certain illnesses and realized that disease could be transmitted from one person to another by clothing or other objects.

question

Hooke

answer

built a compound microscope (one in which light passes through two lenses) and used it to observe thin slices of cork; he coined the term cell; 1664

question

Leeuwenhok

answer

Dutch cloth merchant and amateur lens grinder, who first made and used lenses to observe living microorganism; his lenses gave magnifications up to 300X; everywhere he looked he found animalcules and observed all the major kinds of microorganisms; he refused to sell his microscopes to others and so failed to foster the development of microbiology; 1684

question

cell theory

answer

Theory formulated by Schleiden and Schwann that cells are the fundamental units of all living things

question

bubonic plague

answer

a bacterial disease, transmitted by flea bites, spreads in the blood and lymphatic system

question

germ theory of disease

answer

microorganisms can invade other organism and cause disease

question

spontaneous generation

answer

theory that living organisms can arise from nonliving things

question

Aristotle

answer

proposed spontaneous generation

question

Redi

answer

refuted spontaneous generation with his meat experiments (people thought rotten meat grew maggots. He placed 3 pieces of meat in an open jar, a sealed jar, and a jar covered with gauze. No maggots grew in the sealed jar, howeversome did hatch from fly eggs laid in the gauze)

question

Pasteur

answer

1. disproved spontaneous generation with his swan-necked flasks 2. discovered that selected yeast made good wine, but mixture of other microorganisms comped with the yeast for sugar and made wine taste oily or sour, and developed pasteurization to kill unwanted organisms as a result; 3. identified three different microoganisms that each caused a different disease in silkworms, which was a step in proving the germ theory of disease 4. created/ discovered the rabies vaccine (made of dried spinal cord from rabbits infected with rabies); got this idea when his assistant accidentally used an old chicken cholera culture to inoculate some chickens and later inoculated them with a fresh chicken cholera culture and they remained healthy 5. was director of the Pasteur Institute, where he guided the training and work of other scientists 6. associated specific organisms with specific diseases

question

Koch's postulates (general)

answer

four postulates formulated by Robert Koch in the 19th century; used to prove that a particular organism causes a particular disease

question

Koch's postulats (specific)

answer

1. The specific causative agent must be found in every case of the disease 2. The disease organism must be isolated in pure culture 3. Inoculation of a sample of the culture into a healthy, susceptible animal must produce the same disease 4. The disease organism must be recovered from the inoculated animal.

question

Semmelweis

answer

recognized the connection between autopsies and puerperal (childbed) fever- scientists would conduct an autopsy and then help a woman deliver without washing their hands; he was ridiculed for his ideas and eventually had a nervous breakdown; associated with sanitation

question

Lister

answer

initiated the use of dilute carbolic acid on bandages and instruments to reduce infection (the first aseptic techniques) after reading of Pasteur's and Semmelweis's work; considered the father of antiseptic surgery

question

immunology

answer

study of specific immunity and how the immune system responds to infectious agents

question

Jenner

answer

realized that people who got cowpox didn't get smallpox; he inoculated his son and another child first with cowpox and then with smallpox, both lived (first vaccine); he received grants to continue his work, probably the first grants for medical research

question

Reed/yellow fever

answer

identified virus causing yellow fever, transmitted by mosquitoes

question

chemotherapy

answer

use of chemical substances to treat various aspects of disease

question

Ehrlich

answer

1. discovered that certain dyes stained microorganisms but not animal cells, suggesting that the dyes or other chemicals might selectively kill microbial cells. This gave him the idea of a "magic bullet," a chemical that would destroy specific bacteria without damaging surrounding tissues 2. found arsenophenylglycine to be effect against sleeping sickness 3. found Salvarsan to be effective against syphilis (the only treatment for the next 40 years)

question

Griffith

answer

discovered that previously harmless bacteria could change their own nature and become capable of causing disease; esp. remarkable that live bacteria were shown to acquire heritable traits from dead ones

question

Human Genome Project

answer

1. Identified location and chemical sequence of genes on human chromosome 2. Microbes helped read the human genome 3. 113 genes in the human genome come from bacteria

question

Waksman

answer

examined soil samples from all over the world for growth-inhibiting microorganisms or their products. He finally managed to isolate streptomycycin, which constituted a major breakthrough in the treatment of tuberculosis. He also isolated neomycin, chlorampheniocol, and chlotetracycline. He also coined the term antibiotic.

question

evolution of the microscope

answer

One Lens--> Light Microscope--> Electron Microscope

question

units of measurements

answer

meter (m) centimeter (cm) millimeter (mm) micrometer (μm) nanometer (nm) angstrom (Å)

question

resolution

answer

ability of an optical device to show two items as separate and discrete entities rather than a fuzzily overlapped image

question

wavelength

answer

distance between successive crests or troughs of a light wave

question

numerical aperture

answer

the widest cone of light that can enter a lens

question

resolving power

answer

A numerical measure of the resolution of an optical instrument (λ/ 2NA)

question

total magnification

answer

Obtained by multiplying the magnifying power of the objective lens by the magnifying power of the ocular lens

question

transmission

answer

passage of light through an object

question

reflections

answer

bouncing of light off an object

question

absorption

answer

attachment of the virus to the host cell in the replication process

question

luminescence

answer

process in which adsorbed light rays are reemitted at longer wavelengths

question

fluorescence

answer

emission of light of one color when irradiated with another shorter wavelength of light

question

phosphorescent

answer

continued emission of light by an object when light rays no longer strike it

question

diffraction

answer

phenomenon in which light waves, as they pass through a small opening, are broken up into bands of different wavelengths

question

refraction

answer

the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another of a different density

question

immersion oil

answer

Substance used to avoid refraction at a glass-air interface when examining objects through a microscope: same refractive index as glass- doesn't work w/ plastic

question

base

answer

supporting structure, contains light source

question

condenser

answer

converges light beams to pass through specimen

question

iris diaphragm

answer

controls the amount of light passing through the specimen

question

objective lens

answer

lens in a microscope closest to the specimen that creates an enlarged image of the object viewed

question

body tube

answer

transmits light to ocular lens

question

ocular lens

answer

lens in microscope that further magnifies the image from the objective lens

question

mechanical stage

answer

allows precise control in moving the slide

question

coarse adjustment

answer

knob to locate specimen

question

fine adjustment

answer

brings specimen into focus

question

bright-field illumination

answer

illumination produced by the passage of visible light through the condenser of a light microscope

question

dark-field illumination

answer

in light microscopy the light that is reflected from an object rather than passing through it, resulting in a bright image on a dark background

question

phase-contrast

answer

use of a microscope having a condenser that accentuates small differences in the refractive index of various structures within the cell

question

fluorescence microscopy

answer

use of ultraviolet light in a microscope to excite molecules so that they release light of different colors; flurochrmoe used so specimen stands out from dark background; fluorescent antibody staining determines if antibody is present

question

Normarski microscopy

answer

aka differential interference contrast microscopy; utilizes differences in refractive index to visualize structures, producing a nearly 3D image

question

electron microscopy

answer

uses a beam of electrons rather than a beam of light and electromagnets instead of glass lenses to produce an image, allows whole specimens to be viewed in 3D; includes TEM, SEM, STMs

question

scanning electron microscopy

answer

uses electron bean and electromagnetic lenses, gives a 3D view of surfaces, is useful for observation of exterior surfaces of cells or of internal surfaces

question

wet mount slide

answer

microscopy technique in which a drop of fluid containing the organisms (often living) is placed on a slide

question

hanging drop

answer

a special type of wet mout often used with dark-field illumination to study motility of organisms

question

smear

answer

a thin layer of liquid specimen spread out on a microscopic slide

question

stain

answer

aka dye; a molecule that can bind to a structure and give it color

question

simple stain

answer

single dye used to reveal basic cell shapes and arrangements

question

differential stain

answer

Use of two or more dyes to differentiate among bacterial species or to distinguish various structures of an organism; for example, the Gram Stain

question

Gram Stain

answer

A differential stain that uses crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, and safranin to differentiate bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria stain dark purple; Gram-negative ones stain pink/red

question

spore stain (Schaeffer-Fulton)

answer

stain which allows visualization of spores easily within a cell. Heat-fixed smears are covered with malachite green and then gently heated until they steam. 5 minutes of such steaming causes the endospore walls to become more permeable to the dye. The slide is then rinsed w/ water for 30 seconds to remove the green dye from all parts of the cell except for endospores, which retain it. Then a counterstain of safranin is placed on the slide to stain the non-spore-forming areas of the cells.

question

Acid-Fast Stain

answer

detects acid fast organisms like tuberculosis and leprosy

question

negative stain

answer

Technique of staining the background around a specimen, leaving the specimen clear and unstained

question

flagellar stain

answer

A technique for observing flagella by coating the surfaces of flagella with a dye or a metal such as silver

question

obligate intracellular parasites

answer

an organism or virus that can live or multiply only inside a living host cell

question

capsid

answer

protein coating of a virus, which protects the nucleic acid core from the environment and usually determines the shape of the virus; composed of capsomeres

question

nucleocapsid

answer

the nucleic acid and capsid of an virus

question

virion

answer

a complete virus particle, including its envelope if it has one

question

genome

answer

the genetic information contained in the DNA of an organism

question

envelope

answer

a bilayer membrane found outside the capsid of some viruses, acquired as the virus buds through one of the host's membrane

question

spike

answer

a glycoprotein projection that extends from the viral capsid or envelope and is used to attach to or fuse with host cells

question

RNA

answer

viral genetic material

question

virion

answer

A complete virus particle, including its envelope if it had one

question

capsid

answer

The protein coating of a virus which protects the nucleic acid core from the environment and usually determines the shape of the virus

question

host range

answer

the different types of organisms that a microbe can infect

question

specificity

answer

the property of a virus that restricts it to specific types of host cells

question

rhinoviruses

answer

a virus that replicates in cells of the upper respiratory tract and causes the common cold

question

retroviruses

answer

An enveloped RNA virus that uses its own reverse transcriptase to transcribe its RNA into DNA in the cytoplasm of the host cell

question

adenoviruses

answer

A medium-sized, naked DNA virus that is highly resistant to chemical agents and often causes respiratory infections or diarrhea

question

herpesviruses

answer

DNA virus that can remain latent in host cells for long periods of time

question

virioids

answer

An infectious RNA particle, smaller than a virus and lacking a capsid that causes various plant diseases

question

prions

answer

An exceedingly small infectious particle consisting of protein without nucleic acid

question

adsorption

answer

attachment of the virus to the host cell in the replication process

question

penetration

answer

The entry of the virus or its nucleic acid into the host cell in the replication process

question

synthesis

answer

viral replication step in which new nucleic acids and viral proteins are made

question

maturation

answer

The process by which complete virions are assembled from newly synthesized components in the replication process

question

release

answer

The exit from the host cell of new virions which usually kill the host cell

question

bacteriophage

answer

a virus that infects bacteria

question

recognition factors

answer

factors that cause the body to recognize antigens and produce antibodies, involves viral exterior

question

growth curve

answer

the different growth periods of a bacterial or phage population; includes lag phase, log phase, and stationary phase

question

eclipse period

answer

Period during which viruses have absorbed to and penetrated host cells but cannot yet be detected in cells

question

accumulation period

answer

during replication cycle viruses are undetected from exterior b/c are accumulating in the cell

question

rise period

answer

during replication cycle, viruses are maturing and being released

question

culturing methods

answer

•Subculturing: cells from existing culture are transferred to new containers with fresh nutrient media •Cell suspensions forming monolayers which can be subcultured (tissue culture today cell culture)

question

primary cell cultures

answer

A culture that comes directly from an animal and is not subcultured

question

continuous cell lines

answer

Cell culture consisting of cells that can be propagated over many generations

question

teratogen

answer

An agent that induces defects during embryonic development

STUDY

Cell Structure Human Body Microbiology Packaging And Labeling Phlebotomy Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

MA 46 CMP week 2 – Flashcards 79 terms

Ben Stevenson

79 terms

Preview

MA 46 CMP week 2 – Flashcards

question

Which of the following refers to the study of microorganisms?

answer

Microbiology

question

Which of the following is characteristic of resident normal flora?

answer

They are normally found on the skin and within the human body.

question

An example of a subcellular microorganism is a ___.

answer

virus

question

Which of the following is an example of a microorganism that is classified a prokaryotic cell?

answer

Bacterium

question

Which of the following is characteristic of a subcellular microorganism?

answer

Noncellular structure in which the nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein coat

question

Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells?

answer

They are simply structured with a single chromosome and no organelles.

question

Which of the following are characteristics of eukaryotic cells?

answer

They have a complex cell structure containing a nucleus and specialized organelles in the cytoplasm.

question

Which classification of microorganisms contains protozoans, fungi, and parasites?

answer

Eukaryotic

question

A microorganism capable of causing disease is a ____.

answer

pathogen

question

Which of the following can weaken the body's ability to fight infection?

answer

cancer treatment

question

Beneficial bacteria found in the body that perform functions such as producing vitamins are called

answer

normal flora

question

A complication of a strep infection manifested by inflammation of the heart tissue is ____.

answer

rheumatic fever

question

The viral infection that affects the salivary glands, causing fever, headache, and inflammation of the glands is ____.

answer

mumps

question

The respiratory disease that causes fever, cough, sore throat, runny or stuffy nose, muscle or body aches, headaches, and fatigue, and is spread by airborne transmission is ____.

answer

influenza

question

Amy is a 9-year-old patient who has a high fever, headache, and an itchy rash. Although Amy usually has a good appetite, her mother says she has not been hungry for the last few days. The rash is starting to blister. Which of the following diseases might you suspect?

answer

chickenpox

question

Mononucleosis is caused by ____.

answer

the Epstein-Barr virus

question

Three-year-old Tyler's parents report that he has had a runny nose and a mild cough for the last several days. They brought him to the clinic because the coughing has become "terrible" during the past 24 hours. While getting the history from the parents, you notice a "whoop" sound as Tyler inhales after a severe coughing spell. Which of the following diseases is the most probable cause of Tyler's cough

answer

Pertussis

question

An acute, often fatal, infectious bacterial disease caused by the introduction of pathogenic spores, which enter the body through a contaminated puncture wound, is____.

answer

tetanus

question

In which condition does a pseudomembrane cover the tonsils, throat, and nose, causing respiratory obstruction?

answer

Diphtheria

question

Which of the following is a frequent cause of bacterial infections, including epiglottitis and pneumonia, in infants and young children in the United States?

answer

Haemophilus influenzae Serotype B

question

Which of the following microorganisms cause diseases that are a leading cause of death in developing countries because of lack of proper sanitation?

answer

Protozoans

question

Examples of diseases caused by viruses include ____.

answer

chickenpox, hepatitis, and influenza

question

Which of the following are characteristics of viruses?

answer

They cannot be seen with a regular microscope.

question

The most common way to classify bacteria is according to their ____.

answer

shape

question

Which of the following are grapelike clusters of cocci that are commonly found on the skin?

answer

Staphylococci

question

The causative agents for boils, acne, abscesses, food poisoning, and a type of pneumonia are ____.

answer

staphylococci

question

Which of the following are pairs of cocci?

answer

Diplococci

question

Streptococci are configured in ____.

answer

chains

question

Diplococci bacteria are responsible for causing ____.

answer

gonorrhea and some forms of meningitis

question

Which of the following microorganisms cause infections such as strep throat, certain types of pneumonia, and rheumatic fever?

answer

Streptococci

question

Which of the following types of bacteria are responsible for gastroenteritis, tuberculosis, whooping cough, botulism, and tetanus?

answer

Bacilli

question

Which of the following types of bacteria are responsible for infections such as syphilis and Lyme disease?

answer

Spirilla

question

Which of the following types of bacteria are responsible for diseases such as cholera?

answer

Vibrios

question

A solution of a dye or group of dyes that imparts a color to microorganisms is a ____.

answer

stain

question

Which of the following is the most common staining procedure, which differentiates bacteria according to the chemical composition of their cell walls?

answer

Gram stain

question

Acid-fast stain is a ____.

answer

staining procedure for identifying bacteria with a waxy cell wall

question

Which of the following are bacteria that grow best in the presence of oxygen?

answer

Aerobes

question

A preparation of a specimen in a liquid that allows the organisms to remain alive and mobile while being identified is a(n) ____.

answer

wet mount

question

Anaerobes are bacteria that ____.

answer

grow best in the absence of oxygen

question

A sample of a specimen that is placed in or on a substance that allows microorganisms to grow is a ____.

answer

culture

question

Facultative bacteria are bacteria that ____.

answer

grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

question

In which of the following is a specimen spread thinly and unevenly across a slide?

answer

Smear

question

Which of the following, found in insects such as ticks and mites, are responsible for diseases such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus?

answer

Rickettsiae

question

The genus that causes tuberculosis and leprosy is ____.

answer

mycobacterium

question

Which of the following cause eye disease, venereal disease, and a form of pneumonia?

answer

Chlamydiae

question

Fungi that grow into large, fuzzy, multicelled organisms that produce spores are called ____.

answer

molds

question

Which of the following is an organism that lives on or in another organism and uses that other organism for its nourishment, or for some other advantage, to the detriment of the host organism?

answer

Parasite

question

An infection caused by a parasite is called a(n) ____.

answer

infestation

question

Which of the following is a parasitic disease?

answer

Scabies

question

Which of the following reproduce by budding?

answer

Yeasts

question

Which of the following involves culturing a specimen and then testing the isolated bacterium's susceptibility to antibiotics?

answer

Culture and sensitivity

question

Which of the following is an agent that kills microorganisms or suppresses their growth?

answer

Antimicrobial

question

Which of the following is a guideline for the preparation and transportation of a specimen to an outside laboratory for pathologic study?

answer

Maintain the sample in a state as close to its original state as possible

question

Which of the following is included in specimen-collection guidelines?

answer

Obtain the specimen at a time that allows optimal chance of recovery of the microorganism

question

Which of the following is an inflammation of the heart tissue that occurs most frequently in school-age children as a result of an untreated strep throat?

answer

Rheumatic fever

question

Rick, a 22-year-old patient, has had a bad cough that has lasted almost a month. He says his chest hurts, and he has been coughing up blood. Since his last visit three months ago, he has lost 12 pounds. His temperature is 101.9°F. For which of the following diseases might you expect the physician to test?

answer

Tuberculosis

question

Which of the following specimens would you expect the physician to order if he or she suspects a patient has tuberculosis?

answer

Sputum specimen

question

Which of the following would you include when obtaining a throat culture specimen from a patient?

answer

Wear examination gloves, goggles, and a mask or face shield

question

Which type of specimen is examined for the presence of parasites such as roundworms or tapeworms?

answer

Stool specimen

question

Mary has come to the medical office complaining of an infection involving her left great toenail. Which of the following would you expect the physician to order?

answer

KOH mount

question

Which of the following should you include when preparing a KOH mount?

answer

Suspend the specimen in a drop of 10% potassium hydroxide

question

The hard protein the body produces that makes visualizing the fungus possible only in a KOH mount is called ____.

answer

keratin

question

Which of the following would you include in the preparation of a microbiologic specimen smear?

answer

Heat-fix the slide with the smear side up

question

A substance that can intensify or deepen the response of a specimen to a stain is called a(n) ____.

answer

mordant

question

Which of the following would you include when performing a Gram stain?

answer

Cover the entire specimen area with iodine and allow it to remain for 1 minute

question

Which of the following is a distinct group of organisms that can be seen on the surface of the culture medium?

answer

Colony

question

The gelatin-like substance derived from seaweed that gives a culture medium its consistency is called

answer

agar

question

Determination of the type of pathogen is called ____.

answer

qualitative analysis

question

Determination of the number of bacteria present in specimens is called ____.

answer

quantitative analysis

question

What information must be included on a laboratory request form?

answer

Source of the microbiologic specimen

question

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) are caused by a(n) ____.

answer

prion

question

Which of the following is not a reason people are able to avoid infection most of the time?

answer

Pathogens have developed ways to evade the host defenses.

question

Which of the following is a virus that infects and gradually destroys components of the immune system, resulting in AIDS?

answer

HIV

question

The greatest risk factor for contracting HIV infection is ____.

answer

engaging in unprotected sexual activity

question

Most of the confirmed cases in which a healthcare worker contracted HIV as a direct result of occupational activities were the result of ____.

answer

a puncture wound or needlestick

question

When packaging and labeling a specimen for mail delivery, you must follow the procedures set by ____.

answer

CDC

question

A living microorganism or its toxin that may cause human disease that is transported through the US mail must be marked as a(n) ____.

answer

etiologic agent

question

Which of the following is considered the most reliable and timely method of transporting microbiologic specimens?

answer

Laboratory pickup

question

In a culture and sensitivity test, at what temperature is the inoculated agar plate incubated to show bacterial sensitivity to various antimicrobial agents?

answer

98.6°F

STUDY

Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek Genus And Species Microbiology

Micro Chapter 1 Test Answers – Flashcards 44 terms

Kate Moore

44 terms

Preview

Micro Chapter 1 Test Answers – Flashcards

question

When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called A. Bioremediation B. Genetic engineering C. Epidemiology D. Immunology E. Taxonomy

answer

B. Genetic engineering

question

Which of the following is not considered a microorganism? A. Mosquito B. Protozoa C. Bacteria D. Viruses

answer

A. Mosquito

question

All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that A. Cause human disease B. Lack a cell nucleus C. Are infectious particles D. Are too small to be seen with the unaided eye E. Can only be found growing in laboratories

answer

D. Are too small to be seen with the unaided eye

question

Which activity is an example of biotechnology? A. Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors B. A microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria C. Egyptians using moldy bread on wounds D. Eschericia coli producing human insulin E. Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community

answer

D. Eschericia coli producing human insulin

question

Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Parasites D. Microorganisms E. None of the choices is correct

answer

D. Micoorganisms

question

The study of the immune response to infection caused by microorganisms is A. Hypersensitivity B. Epidemiology C. Immunology D. Morbidity E. Geomicrobiology

answer

C. Immunology

question

Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow? A. Formation of oxygen by an oxygenic photosynthesis B. Formation of greenhouse gases C. Formation of soil D. Digestion of complex carbohydrates in animal diets E. Decomposition of dead matter and wastes

answer

A. Formation of oxygen by an oxygenic photosynthesis

question

The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called A. Decomposers B. Prokaryotes C. Pathogens D. Eukaryotes E. Fermenters

answer

A. Decomposers

question

The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called A. Decomposers B. Prokaryotes C. Pathogens D. Eukaryotes E. Fermenters

answer

Prokaryotes

question

The first prokaryotes appeared about ___ billion years ago. A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2 E. 1

answer

B. 4

question

Which of the following is not a human use of microorganisms? A. Baking bread B. Treating water and sewage C. Breaking down chocolate D. Mass producing antibiotics E. Cleaning up oil spills

answer

C. Breaking down chocolate

question

Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of A. Biotechnology B. Bioremediation C. Decomposition D. Immunology E. Epidemiology

answer

B. Bioremediation

question

Disease-causing microorganisms are called A. Decomposers B. Prokaryotes C. Pathogens D. Eukaryotes E. Fermenters

answer

C. Pathogens

question

The number one worldwide infectious diseases are A. AIDS related diseases B. Diarrhea diseases C. Malaria diseases D. Measles E. Respiratory diseases

answer

E. Respiratory diseases

question

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? A. Cause human disease B. Lack a nucleus C. Cannot be seen without a microscope D. Contain genetic material E. Lack cell structure

answer

E. Lack cell sturcture

question

Helminths are A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Molds D. Parasitic worms E. Infectious particles

answer

D. Parasitic worms

question

Organisms called parasites are A. Always classified in the kingdom Monera B. Always harmful to their host C. The decomposers in ecosystems D. Always a virus E. Free-living

answer

B. Always harmful to their host

question

Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering? A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Parasites D. Fungi E. Yeasts

answer

A. Viruses

question

The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was A. Francesco Redi B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek C. Louis Pasteur D. Joseph Lister E. Robert Koch

answer

B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

question

Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method? A. Belief in a preconceived idea B. Formulate a hypothesis C. Systematic observation D. Laboratory experimentation E. Development of a theory

answer

A. Belief in a preconceived idea

question

Experimentation A. Is designed to refute an hypothesis B. Is designed to support an hypothesis C. Provides a means to gather subjective data D. Provides a means to gather objective data E. Is the first step in the scientific method

answer

D. Provides a means to gather objective data

question

A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the hypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the _____ approach. A. Koch B. Scientific method C. Spontaneous generation D. Taxonomic E. None of the choices is correct

answer

B. Scientific method

question

The scientific method includes all of the following except A. Hypothesis B. Experimentation C. Observation D. Control group E. Theory

answer

E. Theory

question

Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that A. Microbes are found on dust particles B. A specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease C. Life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms D. A specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom E. Microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills

answer

B. A specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease

question

The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was A. Joseph Lister B. Ignaz Semmelweis C. Robert Koch D. Louis Pasteur E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

answer

A. Joseph Lister

question

Sterile refers to A. Pathogen free B. Absence of spores C. Absence of any life forms and viral particles D. Pasteurized E. Homogenized

answer

C. Absence of any life forms and viral particles

question

Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis? A. Joseph Lister B. Ignaz Semmelweis C. Robert Koch D. Louis Pasteur E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

answer

C. Robert Kock

question

Taxonomy does not involve A. Nomenclature B. Classification C. Taxa D. Identification E. Common name

answer

E. Common name

question

Which scientific field is involved in the identification, classification and naming of organisms? A. Nomenclature B. Taxonomy C. Phylogeny D. Woesean classification E. None of the choices is correct

answer

B. Taxonomy

question

The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called A. Classification B. Identification C. Nomenclature D. Experimentation E. Biotechnology

answer

A. Classification

question

Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? A. Species B. Phylum C. Kingdom D. Genus E. Family

answer

C. Kingdom

question

The smallest and most significant taxon is A. Genus B. Species C. Kingdom D. Family E. Phylum

answer

B. Species

question

Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right). A. Family, order, class B. Family, genus, species C. Genus, species, family D. Class, phylum, order E. Kingdom, domain, phylum

answer

B. Family, genus, species

question

Which of the following is a scientific name? A. Gram positive streptococcus B. Staphlococcus C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Anthrax E. Streptobacilli

answer

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

question

When assigning a scientific name to an organism, A. The species name is capitalized B. The species name is placed first C. The species name can be abbreviated D. Both genus and species names are capitalized E. Both genus and species names are italicized or underlined

answer

E. Both genus and species names are italicized or underlined

question

The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called A. Biotechnology B. Genetics C. Recombinant DNA D. Phylogeny E. Taxonomy

answer

D. Phylogeny

question

Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time? A. Morphology B. Phylogeny C. Evolution D. Genetics E. None of the choices is correct

answer

C. Evolution

question

A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on A. Determining evolutionary relatedness B. Bioremediation C. Recombinant DNA D. Nomenclature E. Determining if that species is the cause of a new disease

answer

A. Determining evolutionary relatedness

question

The scientist/s that proposed that organisms be assigned to one of 3 domains is/are A. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek C. Carl Woese and George Fox D. Robert Whittaker E. Francesco Redi

answer

C. Carl Woese and George Fox

question

In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom A. Monera B. Protist C. Fungi D. Plant E. Animal

answer

B. Protist

question

Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes? A. Monera B. Protist C. Fungi D. Plant E. Animal

answer

A. Monera

question

Who developed the first rabies vaccine in 1885? A. Pasteur B. Lister C. Leeuwenhoek D. Redi

answer

A. Pasteur

question

Which scientific name is written correctly? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. staphylococcus aureus C. Staphylococcus Aureus D. Staphylococcus aureus

answer

D. Staphylococcus aureus

question

Traditional approaches to taxonomy involved observation of visible morphological characteristics. Today, however, new molecular methods include the examination of: A. DNA B. rRNA C. proteins D. All of these

answer

D. All of these

STUDY

Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek Microbiology Microbiology For Health Sciences

Microbiology Chapter 1: History of Microbiology – Flashcards 70 terms

William Jordan

70 terms

Preview

Microbiology Chapter 1: History of Microbiology – Flashcards

question

Which of the following taxonomic kingdoms were recognized by Linnaeus? A. protozoa, plants, and animals B.fungi, plants, and animals C.plants and animals D.plants, animals, and bacteria

answer

question

Which of the following is NOT an example of a fungus? A.algae B.yeasts C. mushrooms D.molds

answer

question

Microbiologists study parasitic worms because __________. A.they usually contain bacteria and other microbes B.they cause diseases that are diagnosed by finding microscopic eggs in clinical specimens C.they were not studied by early microbiologists D.they are microscopic as adults

answer

question

Which of the following is a true statement concerning bacteria and archaea? A.Bacteria and archaea have identical types of cell walls. B.Bacteria reproduce asexually, while archaea reproduce sexually. C.Bacteria are often found in sufficiently dry environments. D.No archaea are known to cause disease in humans.

answer

question

What was Leeuwenhoek's contribution to the science of microbiology? A.He developed the vaccine for smallpox. B.He discovered some of the ways in which microbes can be transmitted between individuals. C.He developed the first microscope. D.He did experiments supporting the idea of spontaneous generation.

answer

question

How are the bacteria and the archaea different from all the other cellular microbes? A.They reproduce asexually. B.They can move. C.They have cell walls. D.They have no nucleus.

answer

question

A microorganism has the following characteristics: eukaryotic, multicellular, has cell walls, and grows in long filaments. What is its general classification? A.protozoan B.fungus C.bacterium D. parasitic worm

answer

question

Modern biologists had to revise Linnaeus's system of taxonomy because __________. A.he did not know that some organisms reproduce asexually B.he only classified organisms found in Sweden C.he thought all organisms spontaneously generated D.he grouped all organisms into only two categories

answer

question

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to A.prove the germ theory. B.develop a taxonomic system. C.use a magnifying glass. D.disprove spontaneous generation. E.view protozoa and bacteria.

answer

question

The microbes commonly known as ________ are single-celled eukaryotes that are generally motile. A.bacteria B.archaea C.fungi D.viruses E.protozoa

answer

question

Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE? A.they provide most of the oxygen on Earth. B.they are photosynthetic organisms. C.they are a source of food for aquatic and marine animals. D.they are important in the degradation of dead plants and animals. E..the group includes seaweeds and kelps.

answer

question

Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE? A.yeast are unicellular. B.fungi have a cell wall. C.molds form hyphae. D.fungi are eukaryotes. E.fungi are photosynthetic.

answer

question

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses? A.they are visible with a light microscope. B.they are composed of genetic material and protein. C.they are obligatory parasites. D.they are acellular. E.they are smaller than prokaryotic cells.

answer

question

Microbiology

answer

study of organisms too small to be seen without magn.

question

Prokaryotes

answer

lack nucleus and other intern struc, small, simple ( bact. And arch.)

question

Eukaryote

answer

have nucleus, internal memb., large, complex, (alg.,pro., fun. Anim, pl)

question

major groups of microorganisms

answer

Bacteria Archaea Algae Protozoa Animals Plants

question

Leeuwenhoek

answer

to observe microbes, magnified 300X, 1674-1723

question

Redi

answer

1668, meat in jar, flies, disproove spontaneous generation

question

Schwann

answer

air was source of microbes, prove by air flask, strong chemicals, prevention.

question

Pasteur

answer

disproved spont. Gen., by prevent dust part.,1861 complete exper

question

Jablot

answer

hay infusion, opened vessel develop microor, help disprove, spon. Gen.

question

Tyndall

answer

after pasteurs' results,sterilize thigns, heat resistant forms of life...

question

Cohn

answer

1876, also discovered heat resist. Form of bacteria, now termed ENDOSPORES!!!

question

Needham

answer

boiled beef gravy, and plantinfus, seald, still develp bact. Pool

question

Spallanzani

answer

- boiled longer, and sealed to disprove (maybe air was needed to grow)

question

Jenner

answer

worked with smallpox, noticed milkmaids contract similar cowpox didn't get it, inoculated gardener's son with cowpoz lesion, boy contracted mild cowpox, (intentionally exposed boy and found was immune.

question

"Golden Age of Microbiology"

answer

1860-1900, rapid advances, b Pasteur and Koch. ..as a science

question

Pasteur

answer

1864, microbes and disease in preventing wine from spoil as pasteurization...kills bacteria in alcohol by heat. ( vinegar)

question

Lister

answer

medical procedures and microbe diseases, spracyed (phenol) in dressings, wounds instruments, reduced deaths by 66%. Aseptic technique

question

Koch

answer

1876, proved germ theory of disease, show bacteria actually caused disea. Developed experimental steps a specific microbe to a specific disease. Postulates!!! 1884, developed more staining technique, dyes, purple = +, neg.+ -

question

Koch's postulates

answer

1.Find evidence of particular microbs in every case. 2.Isolate microbe from infect subj, and cultivate in lab. 3.Inoculate a susceptible healthy subj. with isolated from lab. 4.Reisolate microb from the subj.

question

Ehrlich

answer

1890's, magic bullet would find and destroy pathogens but not harm host...discovered chemicals could treat sleeping sickness and syphilis, chemotherapy!!!

question

Fleming

answer

1928,observed growth of staphyloccus aureus, inhibit in colony of nold, mold identitifed and active penicillin ERA OF ANTIBIOTICS WAS BEGINNING!!!

question

atomic structure

answer

protons+, neutrons (neutral) [nucleus], electrons - surrounding.

question

Ionic

answer

have positive(cation) and negative (anion) charges, attract eachother, for ionic bonds....NO ELECTRONS SHARED, ..form salts

question

Hydrogen

answer

weak forces comb with polar coval bond, electrical attraction between H+ and full or partial nega on same molecule or differ., weaker than covalent, essential for life.

question

Carbohydrates

answer

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, longterm storage of chemical energy, ready energy sourc, backbones of nucleic acid, converts to amino acids, form cell wall, (types (mono-, Di-, and Poly-saccharides)

question

Proteins

answer

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, structure, enzymatic catalysis, regulation, transport, defense and offense.

question

Lipids

answer

no reg subunits, hydrophobic (groups fats, phospholipids, waxes, steroids)

question

Amino acids

answer

-monomers make up proteins, use 21 amino acids in synthesis of proteins, covalent bond (peptid btwn amino acids by dehydration

question

Nucleic acids

answer

DNA and RNA, genetic material, RNA als is enzyme binds amino acids forms polypeptides. nucleotides are monomers make up nucleic acids, (phosphate, pentose, one of 5 cyclic nitrogenous bases)

question

Glycocalyx

answer

sticky, surrounds outside of cell contains polysaccharide, polypept, or both.

question

Two Types of Glycocalyx

answer

Capsule, Slime layer

question

Capsule

answer

=repeating units of organic chem., firmly attached to surface of cell,, may prevent bact. to be recogn. By host

question

Slime Layer

answer

loosely attached, water soluble, sticky layer allows prokaryotes to attach to surfaces.

question

Flagella

answer

movement, long structures extend beyond cell surface, not on all bact. Structure=filament, book, basal body (anchors filament and hook to cell wall by a rod..) Function=rotation propels bact through environment, rotation reversible or clockwise, Runs tumbles

question

Fimbriae

answer

sticky bristlelike projections,shorter than flagella,used to adhere, important for biofilms.

question

Pili

answer

special type of fimbria, conjugation pili, longer than fimbria but shorter than flagella, have only one or 2 per cell, mediate transfer of DNA from 1 cell to another.

question

Bacterial Cell walls

answer

provide structure, protect, assist some in attaching to other cells or resist antimicrobial drugs, target bacteria with antibiotics, composed of peptidoglycan,

question

Gram-positive

answer

= thick layer of peptidoglycan, contain polyalcohols (teichoic acids), purple, 60% mycolic acid in acid fast bacteria...helps survive desiccation.

question

Gram-negative

answer

thin layer of peptidoglycan, bilayers outside peptide...contains phospholipids, proteins, and LPS, may be impediment to treatment of diseas, pink!!!

question

NAG

answer

= N-acetylglucosamine, similar to glucose, "glycan"

question

NAM

answer

= N-acetylmuramic acid, similar to glucose, "glycan"

question

Teichoic acid

answer

chemical in peptidoglycan

question

Lipotechoic acid

answer

= formed when teichoic acids are covalently linked to lipids.

question

LPS=

answer

Lipopolysaccharide, outerleaflet

question

Lipid A

answer

lipid portion of LPS.

question

Endotoxin

answer

toxic released by lipid A, killing drug, cause fever, vasodialation.

question

Fluid Mosaic Model

answer

describes our current understanding of membrane structure, membrane proteins arrangedin a way that resembles the tiles ina mosaic, fluid free to flow

question

Cytoplasmic membrane

answer

= separate contents of cell from outside, produce moleculses for energy storage,

question

Diffusion

answer

net movement of a chemical down its concentration, high to low.

question

Facilitated DIffusion

answer

proteins provide a pathway for diffusion, no energy,

question

Osmosis

answer

diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane, but it not to solutes, high to low, water follows salt.

question

Group Translocation

answer

an active process that occurs only in some bacteria., actively transport across membrane chemically changed...

question

Cytoplasm

answer

gelatinous material inside a cell, fluid, elastic, aqueous.

question

Inclusion

answer

Deposits, within bacterial cytosol.

question

Ribosomes

answer

= sites of protein synthesis in cells

question

Edospores

answer

durability and pathogenicity

question

Cytoskeleton

answer

an internal network of fibers, plays a role in cell's shape.

STUDY

Antibiotic Resistance Gene AP Biology Biology Biotechnology Microbiology

Exam chapter 9 – Flashcards 40 terms

Ben Powell

40 terms

Preview

Exam chapter 9 – Flashcards

question

The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?

answer

Digest with a restriction enzyme.

question

The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is

answer

mRNA → cDNA.

question

Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?

answer

Its genes are well known.

question

Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques? A) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide B) glyphosate-resistant crops C) pectinase D) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation) E) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins.

answer

Pectinase

question

If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is

answer

Inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium.

question

Biotechnology involves the

answer

Use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants.

question

Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures? A) circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome B) large size C) self-replication D) may replicate in several species E) has a selectable marker

answer

Large size.

question

An advantage of synthetic DNA over genomic or cDNA is the ability to

answer

Insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence.

question

An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it

answer

Lacks introns.

question

Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a

answer

Library.

question

A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a

answer

Clone.

question

Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a

answer

Vector.

question

The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on

answer

Determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.

question

A colleague has used computer modeling to design an improved enzyme. To produce this enzyme, the next step is to

answer

Determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme.

question

You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have?

answer

8 double-stranded DNA molecules.

question

Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases, such as hepatitis B? A) RNA interference (RNAi) B) reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR) C) DNA fingerprinting D) tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids) E) complementary DNA (cDNA)

answer

RNA interference (RNAi)

question

Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants? A) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium B) protoplast fusion C) microinjection D) gene guns E) electroporation

answer

Microinjection.

question

A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is

answer

Thermus aquaticus.

question

Gene silencing blocks an undesirable product by

answer

Making double-stranded RNA.

question

You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase. This process is

answer

PCR

question

Assume you have discovered a cell that produces a lipase that works in cold water for a laundry additive. You can increase the efficiency of this enzyme by changing one amino acid. This is done by

answer

Site-directed mutagenesis.

question

The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes

answer

Direct selection possible.

question

The use of "suicide" genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to

answer

Prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment.

question

A restriction fragment is

answer

A segment of DNA.

question

In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required? A) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose B) electrophoresis to separate fragments C) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA D) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA E) addition of a labeled probe to identify the gene of interest

answer

Addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA

question

Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA? A) RNA processing to remove introns B) translation C) reverse transcription D) transcription

answer

Translation.

question

PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because

answer

The RNA primer is specific.

question

The random shotgun method is used in

answer

Genome sequencing.

question

Restriction enzymes are

answer

Bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.

question

The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is

answer

Metagenomics.

question

The term biotechnology refers exclusively to the use of genetically engineered organism for the production of desired products.

answer

False

question

In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome.

answer

True

question

The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called natural selection.

answer

False

question

A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells.

answer

True

question

Nearly all cells, including E. coli and yeast, naturally take up DNA from their surroundings without chemical treatment.

answer

False

question

The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns.

answer

True

question

One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli

answer

True

question

Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.

answer

True

question

The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant.

answer

False

question

The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction.

answer

True

STUDY

Microbiology Mycology

Mycology – Study of fungi – Flashcards 48 terms

Livia Baldwin

48 terms

Preview

Mycology – Study of fungi – Flashcards

question

What is symbiosis?

answer

Two kinds of organisms living together (ie. microbiota & human host)

question

What are 3 types of symbiosis?

answer

Commensalism, mutualism, and parasitism

question

What traits pertain to commensalism?

answer

*One organism benefits, the other is neither harmed nor benefited. *Eg. normal microbiota, no single species is essential *Saprophytic mycobacteria that inhabit ear and external genitalia *No apparent benefit/harm to host. *ie. cornyebacteria on eye surface

question

What is mutualism?

answer

Where both partners are benefited (ie. cud chewing cows that ferment cellulose via gut bacteria; E. coli synthesizes vitamin B/K in humans)

question

What is parasitism?

answer

Any species that lives at the expense of another- pathogenic bacteria, protozoa, etc.

question

Classify 6 different types of parasites

answer

*Ectoparasites- live on outside of body *Endoparasites- Live inside the host *Obligate parasites- Must have a host (ie. virus) *Permanent parasites- Don't leave once inside *Temp parasites- biting insects, organism living free of host during part of its life cycle *Accidental parasites- Organism desired a different host, not living in usual host.

question

Describe 4 different host options for parasites

answer

*Definitive host- Where the parasite reproduces sexually (sexually mature form of parasite) *Intermediate host- Where juvenile matures or reproduces asexually. An organism that harbors larvae or asexual stage of a parasite *Accidental host- can be humans (ie. Echinococcus granulosus-tapeworm) Human becomes dead-end host *Host specificity- Some parasites are specific about type of host & organ/tissue which they infect. (ie. Rabies virus infects nerve tissue of mammal)

question

How many species of fungi are there, and how many are known to be pathogenic?

answer

100,000; 200 pathogenic

question

How are yeasts and molds different, and what class do they fall under?

answer

Yeasts are unicellular non-filametous organisms (spherical/oval), and molds are multicellular filamentous organisms (long filaments of cells joined together) **Class- fungi

question

What is the order of development for molds?

answer

Cells-> hyphae->Filaments->Mycelium (food fuzz)

question

How do hypha grow?

answer

By elongating at the tips. Each part is capable of growth, so when a fragment breaks off, it can establish on substrate and grow into new hypha

question

Describe septate hypha

answer

Distinct uninucleate cell-like units; most common form; Septum divides hypha into the cell-like units. Can grow to immense size (40 acres, 10 tons)

question

Describe Coenocytic hypha

answer

No septa, just long continuous cells or filaments. Multinucleated

question

Which part of hypha obtains nutrients?

answer

Vegetative hypha. It penetrates the substrate

question

When a hypha grows into a filamentous mass, what is it called?

answer

Mycelium

question

What is chitin?

answer

Found in cell walls of many hypha. Provides rigidity, strength, and resists high osmotic pressures.

question

Are hyphae aerobic or anaerobic?

answer

Aerobic

question

How do molds reproduce?

answer

Asexually by fragmentation of their hyphae, and via fungal reproductive spores

question

How are asexual spores formed?

answer

From the hyphae of one organism (clone via mitosis/ cell division). Spores detach from parent & germinates into new mold.

question

Which spores do molds produce less frequently?

answer

Sexual spores

question

Fungal spores are reproductive, whereas what is not?

answer

Bacterial endospores *A fungal spore is much less tolerant to adverse conditions

question

What shape is a yeast?

answer

Oval or spherical

question

How would a nonfilamentous yeast appear on fruit?

answer

As a white powdery coating

question

Yeasts are capable of facultative anaerobic growth, what does this mean?

answer

It can grow w/ or w/out oxygen, and will use O2 if present. If O2 is unavailable, will use fermentation or anaerobic respiration/glycolysis

question

What are the steps of yeast reproduction, and what is the means?

answer

It uses mitosis; Starts w/ fission- produces 2 daughter cells; Budding- Divides, then divided 1/2 migrates into bud that elongates & breaks off; Pseudohypha- Buds fail to detach after forming allowing invasion of deeper tissues

question

What is dimorphic fungi?

answer

2 forms of growth. Usually in pathogenic species *Mold-like & yeast-like form (Candida albicans)

question

What determines whether dimorphic fungi will take a mold-like or yeast-like form?

answer

Temperature Mold-like @ 80-90degrees F Yeast-like @ 100-105 degrees F

question

How do fungi meet their nutritional needs?

answer

By absorbing dissolved organic matter thru plasma membrane (similar to bacteria) *Note- Fungi are chemoheterotrophs

question

What environment conditions suit fungi the best??

answer

*Acidic w/ pH of 5-6 (bacteria are 6.5-7.5); More resistant to osmotic pressure, so grow well in higher sugar/salt conditions; Less moist (compared to bacteria); Grow well on bathroom wall, leather, newspaper, insulation, toe nail

question

What are fungi capable of metabolizing that bacteria can't use for nutrients?

answer

Complex carbohydrates such as lignan (wood cellulose)

question

What is mycosis?

answer

A fungal infection. Usually not contagious & infrequently spread person to person.

question

Which mycoses are restricted to keratin-containing surfaces (dead layers)?

answer

Cutaneous mycoses

question

What are the cutaneous molds, and how do they work?

answer

Dermatophytes, Tinea, & Ringworm (same entity); Mold colonizes superficial epidermal cells in skin, hair, nails. Vegetative hyphae synthesize/secrete keratinase (enzyme that digests keratin); Partial to heat & moisture, but grows in fridge, crawl space.

question

What cell-mediated immune response might a cutaneous mold provoke?

answer

Damage of living tissue

question

What are some characteristics of Tinea capitus, pedis (athlete's foot), unguium, cruris (groin, jock itch)?

answer

All molds; tend to grow outward in expanding ring-ringworm...this is Tinea of head, feet, nail, groin. Very contagious. Tinea-infected skin is shed and picked up via fomite (hair salon, shower floor, carpeting, bus seats)

question

What is Tinea latin for?

answer

Worm

question

What is Candidiasis, and what are 3 types?

answer

Infection of mucous membranes; Oral candidiasis (thrush), vulvovaginal candidiasis, and balanitis

question

What are the signs and symptoms of Candida albicans?

answer

White (cheesy) tongue is thrush, or oral candidiasis; Thick yellow/white cheesy vaginal coating->irritation->inflamed->severe itch->yeasty odor or none; Penile vesicles-> penile fungal patches-> severe itch/burn

question

What would cause Candida albicans?

answer

Overgrowth of yeast via decreased bacteria, increased pH, antibiotic use. Microbiota of mucous membrane of mouth, intestinal tract, genital/urinary tract that is suppressed to low levels by microbiota competition/antagonism. *Attaches to human epithelial cells by fungal fimbria

question

How is Candida albicans transmitted?

answer

Via saliva, vaginal fluid, STDs, or nosocomial (hospital acquired)

question

What percentage of US women have experienced at least 1 episode of Candida albicans?

answer

75%

question

What microbiota suppress Candidiasis, and which ones support?

answer

Suppress- Lactobilli (create pH of 3.5-4.5) Support- Pregnancy/oral contraceptives-> increased glycogen in vagina; douches/ vaginal deodorants; Uncontrolled diabetes; Antibiotics decrease normal microbiota, so pH increases

question

What is an opportunistic mycosis?

answer

Fungi that exist normally in body w/out adverse effects. Adverseness arises when immune system or normal flora is depressed

question

What is immunocompetent?

answer

Asymptomatic; May clear fungus from body w/ lasting immunity.

question

What is Pneumocystis jiroveci?

answer

An opportunistic mycosis that causes Pneumocystis pneumonia. Proliferates under the immunosuppression of AIDS *AIDS marker. s/s lung inflammation, fever, fluid in lung, dyspnea, non-productive cough

question

What is the etiology of sick house syndrome?

answer

Stachybotrys chartarum. A greenish-black, slimy mold found especially on cellulose products (wood, paper, insulation) that have been wet for several days.

question

Why are eukaryotic fungis difficult to treat?

answer

Fungal drugs can also affect our eukaryotic cells. They can be long-lasting, as they grow very slow. There aren't any vaccines for fungi either. *It is dimorphic

question

How is Stachybotrys chartarum (sick house syndrome) transmitted, and what are s/s?

answer

Respiratory route; Pathogenesis- hypersensitivity/allergy. can produce mycotoxins which can be present in spores and small mold fragments released in air. S/S- cough, wheeze, runny nose. irritates eyes/throat. skin rash/diarrhea

STUDY

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek Biology Microbiology Rod Shaped Bacteria

Microbiology Exam #1 Study Guide – Flashcards 44 terms

Isabel Padilla

44 terms

Preview

Microbiology Exam #1 Study Guide – Flashcards

question

Spontaneous Generation

answer

The hypothesis that living organisms arise from nonliving matter. A "vital force" forms life.

question

Biogenesis

answer

The hypothesis that the living organisms arise from preexisting life.

question

Leeuwenhoeke

answer

Developed the first microscope.

question

Pasteur

answer

Showed that microbes are responsible for fermentation. Demonstrated that these spoilage bacteria could be killed by heat.

question

Koch

answer

Proved that a bacterium causes anthrax. Developed Koch's Postulates.

question

Koch's Postulates

answer

The microorganism must be present in all cases of the disease. The microorganism can be isolated from the diseased host and grown in a laboratory setting. The microorganism will cause disease when injected into a healthy host. The microorganism must be reisolated from the NEW host and shown to be the same as the microorganism previously identified.

question

Jenner

answer

First vaccination.

question

Erlich

answer

Founding father of chemotherapy

question

Fleming

answer

Discovered first antibiotic

question

Ionic Bond

answer

Attraction between ions of opposite charge. One atom loses electrons, one gains.

question

Covalent Bond

answer

Chemical bond formed by two atoms sharing one or more pairs of electrons.

question

Hydrogen Bond

answer

A hydrogen atom that is covalently bonded to one oxygen or nitrogen atom is attracted to another oxygen or nitrogen atom.

question

Dehydration Synthesis

answer

A chemical reaction in which a molecule of water is released. Produces energy.Energy in. A + B= AB

question

Hydrolysis

answer

Reverse of dehydration synthesis. Breaks down. Release of energy.Energy out. AB=A + B

question

Monomers (building blocks)

answer

amino acids monosaccharides fatty acids nucleotides

question

Polymers

answer

proteins carbs lipids nucleic acids

question

Three types of Lipids

answer

Fats/Oils Phospholipids Steroids

question

Simple Sugars

answer

Called monosaccharides (Glucose)

question

Disaccharides

answer

Formed when two monosaccharides bond in dehydration synthesis. (Maltose, Dextrose, Lactose, Sucrose)

question

Polysaccharides

answer

Consist of tens or hundreds of monosaccharides joined through dehydration synthesis.

question

Nucleotides

answer

Are the structural units of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide has three parts: a nitrogen containing base, a pentose sugar (deoxyribose or ribose) and a phosphate group.

question

DNA

answer

A, T, C, G (RNA is A, U, C, G)

question

Microscope we use

answer

Compound

question

Types of staining

answer

Simple, Differential, Special

question

Simple Staining

answer

Use of a single basic dye

question

Differential Staining

answer

Used to distinguish between bacteria (Gram stain & Acid-fast stain)

question

Special Staining

answer

Used to distinguish parts of cells (Capsule stain, Endospore stain, Flagella stain)

question

Monomorphic

answer

One shape

question

Pleomorphic

answer

Can change shape

question

Bacillus

answer

rod shaped

question

Coccus

answer

spherical

question

Spiral

answer

wavy (Spirillum, Vibrio, Spirochete)

question

Diplo

answer

Pairs

question

Staphyl

answer

Cluster

question

Strepto

answer

Chains

question

Peritrichous

answer

Flagella all around cell structure

question

Monotrichous

answer

One flagella

question

Lophotrichous

answer

Multiple flagella all on one side

question

Amphitrichous

answer

One flagella on each side

question

Gram Positive Bacteria

answer

Purple. Tougher. More resisitant to detergents. Produce exotoxins.

question

Gram Negative Bacteria

answer

Pink. Delicate. Less resistant to detergents. Contain endotoxins. Thrive in aqueous environments.

question

Acid Fast Bacteria

answer

Similar to gram positive cell walls. Waxy lipid. Resist decolorizing agent. (Mycobacterium, Nocardia)

question

Diffusion

answer

Simple: movement from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Facilitated: uses channels. Combines with transporter protein.

question

Osmosis

answer

Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from area of high water to an area of low water concentration.

STUDY

Gram Negative Cell Walls Inflammation Of The Brain Microbiology

***Microbiology Chapter 14*** – Flashcards 80 terms

Alden Wolfe

80 terms

Preview

***Microbiology Chapter 14*** – Flashcards

question

Which of the following statements concerning pathology, infection, and disease is true?

answer

Pathology refers to the study of structural and functional changes that occur in the body as a result of a disease.

question

Which of the following is an example of the symbiotic relationship known as mutualism?

answer

E. coli within the large intestine

question

Koch's postulates established criteria for proving that a specific organism causes a specific disease. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria given by Koch's postulates?

answer

The pathogen must be isolated from inoculated animals and must be different from the original organism.

question

Which of the following is classified as a latent disease?

answer

shingles

question

A patient acquires an infection by touching a contaminated door handle. Which mode of transmission best describes this scenario?

answer

indirect contact transmission

question

A dog develops a diarrheal disease after drinking water from a creek during a hike with his owner. Which of the following best describes this method of disease transmission?

answer

vehicle transmission

question

Plague is transmitted through the bite of an infected flea. Which of the following best describes this mode of transmission?

answer

vector transmission

question

Which of the following is a fungal zoonosis that can be transmitted by direct contact?

answer

ringworm

question

Which of the following would be an example of disease transmission via INDIRECT contact?

answer

A student sneezes on her test booklet. The instructor grades it and catches her cold.

question

According to the animation, surgical infections account for what percentage of nosocomial infections?

answer

20%

question

What type of nosocomial infection is likely to arise from intravenous catheterizations?

answer

Bacteremia

question

How might a patient who is not being treated with an antibiotic still be exposed to an antibiotic?

answer

Antibiotics can be used in aerosols, thereby entering the environment.

question

Why are invasive procedures likely to increase the risk of nosocomial infections?

answer

These procedures allow microbes from the skin to enter the bloodstream of the patient.

question

How can health care workers reduce the occurrence of nosocomial infections?

answer

Practice more stringent aseptic techniques

question

The health of the patient

answer

should be the primary concern of the healthcare worker.

question

How can surgeons help to limit nosocomial infections?

answer

They should perform surgeries and invasive procedures only when absolutely necessary.

question

If a patient notices a healthcare worker not following suggested precautions

answer

they should immediately bring it to the attention of the healthcare worker.

question

Which of the following characteristics of a catheter should be considered, to help minimize the spread of nosocomial infections?

answer

Single-use

question

Which of the following statements is true regarding hand washing?

answer

Frequent and proper hand washing should be routinely done by patients and by healthcare workers, both prior to and after interaction.

question

Epidemiology is defined as the study of

answer

where and when a disease occurs, and how it is transmitted.

question

What is the role of epidemiology?

answer

To learn how to treat and prevent various diseases.

question

Expected prevalence of a disease is

answer

the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations.

question

In the sixth segment of the animation, why is the disease epidemic in North America?

answer

The disease occurs at a higher rate than what would normally be expected in this region.

question

If a disease occurs at a fairly stable rate, it is said to be

answer

endemic

question

Which of the following would be considered a fomite?

answer

An infected toy

question

Which of the following would be considered a vector?

answer

A fly carrying disease from fecal matter to food

question

When aerosols containing pathogens spread disease from a distance of less than one meter, it is considered

answer

contact transmission.

question

Which of the following is considered a major category of transmission of disease?

answer

Contact, vehicle, and vector transmission

question

Which is an example of vehicle disease transmission?

answer

The presence of Listeria on undercooked chicken served for dinner

question

The following choices list several types of diseases, along with factors that may contribute to their emergence. Which disease and associated factor do NOT match?

answer

emergence of avian influenza A (H5N1): use of antibiotics

question

As a health care worker, I am keenly aware of how important it is to avoid harming my patients. I worry about inadvertently transmitting an infectious disease to an already compromised individual. According to the CDC, what is the MOST important thing I can do to avoid this?

answer

Wash my hands before interacting with any patient.

question

Which of the following statements about the development of infectious diseases is correct?

answer

The period of convalescence is the time during which the person regains health and fully recovers (back to the pre-disease state).

question

Malaria is an infectious disease caused by infection with a protozoan. In certain tropical regions, malaria is constantly present. We would say that malaria is a(n) _________ disease in these regions.

answer

endemic

question

One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in

answer

increased susceptibility to disease.

question

During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. The etiologic agent of the disease in the situation is

answer

Coxiella burnetii.

question

A commensal bacterium

answer

may also be an opportunistic pathogen.

question

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

answer

At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

question

Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota

answer

are present for a relatively short time.

question

Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?

answer

bacteria causing disease

question

The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of ______.

answer

the normal microbiota

question

The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that

answer

microorganisms cause disease.

question

Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?

answer

septicemia

question

Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Kochs postulates?

answer

Some diseases are noncommunicable.

question

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?

answer

epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world

question

Focal infections initially start out as

answer

local infections.

question

The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to

answer

vaccinations

question

Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases?

answer

tetanus

question

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms

answer

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?

question

A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as

answer

latent

question

The graph in the figure shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates a(n)

answer

epidemic level.

question

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease?

answer

None of the answers are correct; all of these are predisposing factors of disease.

question

In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?

answer

urinary tract infections

question

In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?

answer

incubation and convalescence

question

If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to

answer

illness

question

Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?

answer

botulism

question

Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission

answer

involves specific diseases.

question

Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?

answer

None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.

question

Which of the following is a fomite?

answer

a hypodermic needle

question

Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?

answer

Houseflies are an important vector.

question

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

answer

None of the pairs is mismatched.

question

A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of which form of disease transmission?

answer

vehicle transmission

question

A needlestick is an example of

answer

fomite

question

answer

a zoonosis.

question

answer

vehicle.

question

Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?

answer

None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses.

question

A nosocomial infection is

answer

acquired during the course of hospitalization.

question

Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?

answer

gram-negative cell walls

question

Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE?

answer

The patient was infected before hospitalization.

question

Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?

answer

All of the answers are correct.

question

Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a

answer

nosocomial infection.

question

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the emergence of infectious diseases?

answer

The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these

question

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

answer

The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.

question

The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called

answer

epidemiology.

question

The CDC is located in

answer

Atlanta, GA.

question

Which of the following best describes why West Nile Virus is considered to be an emerging infectious disease?

answer

West Nile virus outbreaks have increased in number and affected areas since 1937.

question

During his research on West Nile virus, Bill learned that this virus is placed within a functional grouping known as arboviruses. What is meant by the term arbovirus?

answer

Arboviruses get their name because they are typically arthropod-borne viruses that remain in nature because of biological transmission between susceptible hosts by blood-feeding arthropods, such as mosquitoes.

question

If mosquitoes are the mode of transmission for West Nile virus, why did the students in Bill's virology class focus on finding the virus in the dead birds rather than collecting mosquitoes to examine?

answer

The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they are an amplifying host for the virus, making it more likely that the virus can be isolated from these animals.

question

The brain tissue of the birds indicated the possibility of encephalitis. What is encephalitis, and why should this type of infection cause concern among health care professionals?

answer

Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue. It is a concern to health care professionals because an infection in the brain means the virus has breached protective measures.

question

Which of the following is the best mode of controlling the spread of West Nile infections?

answer

Limit exposure to mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus.

question

What features of West Nile virus make it an emerging disease of special concern?

answer

Emerging infectious diseases are defined as ones that are new or changing, have increased in incidence in the recent past, or show a potential to increase in the near future. Given the increase in number of cases of West Nile virus encephalitis and avian death since it appeared in New York City in 1999, this virus meets the definition of an emerging infectious disease. Over half of known emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic, mainly of viral origin, and are likely to be vector-borne. West Nile virus is all of these things, and infections with this virus must be reported to the CDC for tracking. The CDC works along with the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and the World Health Organization (WHO) to address issues related to emerging infectious diseases. Together, these agencies have set goals for investigating, monitoring, and controlling emerging infectious diseases worldwide.

STUDY

AP Biology Microbiology Organisms Sexual Reproduction Three Domains Of Life

BIOLOGY Practice questions exam 1 – Flashcards 172 terms

Ewan Knight

172 terms

Preview

BIOLOGY Practice questions exam 1 – Flashcards

question

The three domains of life __________

answer

are bacteria, archaea, and eukarya

question

Homologies that appear to have marginal, if any, importance to an organism are called _______

answer

vestigial structures

question

How does our understanding of genetics today refute Lamarck's principle of the inheritance of acquired characteristics?

answer

Experiments in genetics show that traits acquired during an individual's lifetime are not inherited in the way proposed by Lamarck

question

Adaptations are defined as _____

answer

nherited characteristics of organisms that enhance their survival and reproduction in specific environments

question

The bacteria Staphylococcus aureus has developed resistance to some antibiotic drugs. How did this resistance come about?

answer

Some members of the bacteria populations possessed some sort of genetic variation for antibiotic resistance that was selected for when the bacteria was exposed to the drugs.

question

How did Hutton and Lyell's ideas influence Charles Darwin's thinking?

answer

Darwin reasoned that the Earth must be very old and that slow, subtle processes could produce substantial biological changes.

question

Which of the following is not an observation or inference that Darwin made while developing his theory of evolution

answer

Interactions between individuals and their environments cause individuals to evolve

question

All known organisms transcribe genetic information to protein molecules via the same genetic code. This finding strongly supports the hypothesis that

answer

all organisms are descended from a single common ancestor

question

not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based?

answer

poorly adapted organisms never reproduce

question

A(n) __________ is the smallest unit that can evolve.

answer

population

question

Darwin originally defined evolution as __________

answer

descent with modification

question

Even though rodents known as sugar gliders and flying squirrels are members of distinctly different groups of organisms and live on different continents, they possess similar characteristics.

answer

convergent evolution

question

What insight did Darwin gain from reading Thomas Malthus's essay on human suffering?

answer

organisms have capacity to overproduce

question

Animals that possess homologous structures probably __________.

answer

evolved from the same ancestor

question

An important challenge to traditional (pre-1860) ideas about species was the observation that seemingly dissimilar organisms such as hummingbirds, humans, and whales have similar skeletal structures. This most directly suggested to biologists that ___

answer

dissimilar organisms might have evolved from a distant, common ancestor

question

During periods of rapid environmental change, what may happen to a species that was well-suited to the former environment?

answer

the species may go extinct, individuals with particular traits that provide an advantage in the new environment will have higher reproductive success, the population may change so much in adapting to the new environment that it is considered a new species, and traits that were favorable in the original environment may be detrimental in the new environment. When environments change, species will either adapt, possibly giving rise to new species, or go extinct.

question

A population of zooplankton is exposed to a small number of predatory fish that feed on the larger-sized (adult) zooplankton. Which of the following predictions would most likely occur based on the principles of natural selection?

answer

Adult zooplankton will start to reach sexual maturity when they are still relatively small.

question

In Darwin's view of descent with modification, _________

answer

natural selection can improve the match between an organism and its environment

question

At the time Darwin voyaged on the HMS Beagle, the popularly accepted theory in Western culture that explained the origin of Earth's plants and animals held that the various species __________.

answer

had been created by divine intervention a few thousand years before

question

The upper forelimbs of humans and bats have fairly similar skeletal structures, whereas the corresponding bones in whales have very different shapes and proportions. However, genetic data suggest that all three kinds of organisms diverged from a common ancestor at about the same time

answer

Natural selection in an aquatic environment resulted in significant changes to whale forelimb anatomy

question

Darwin's explanation of how adaptations arise centered on __________.

answer

natural selection

question

Organisms found only in specific places in the world are referred to as

answer

endemic

question

Carolus Linnaeus is considered to be the founder of __________, and he

answer

the binomial classification system; thought that resemblances among different species reflected the pattern of their creation

question

Which of the following people developed the idea known as the scala naturae, or scale of nature?

answer

aristotle

question

What does each branch point on an evolutionary tree represent?

answer

The common ancestor of the lineages beginning there and to the right of it

question

The modern idea of extinction as a common occurrence in Earth's history was first proposed in the early 19th century writings of _________

answer

Cuvier

question

On an evolutionary tree, __________.

answer

homologous characteristics form a nested pattern

question

Inductive Reasoning

answer

question

Regulation of molecules within an organism in response to a changing level of chemicals and the ability to self-regulate is called __________.

answer

feedback regulation

question

attribute of all living things

answer

question

The energy used by most organisms for metabolism and growth ultimately comes from

answer

the sun

question

Which observations and inferences led Charles Darwin to his theory of natural selection as a mechanism for evolution?

answer

Individuals in a population of any species vary in many heritable traits. Individuals with heritable traits best suited to the local environment will generally produce a disproportionate number of healthy, fertile offspring. A population of any species has the potential to produce far more offspring than will survive to produce offspring of their own. Individuals of a population are unequal in the likelihood of surviving and reproducing.

question

The fundamental organizing principle of biology and core theme is __________.

answer

evolution

question

Reductionism

answer

is a strategy for studying life which reduces complex systems to simpler components that are more manageable. It is not a property or process associated with life itself.

question

With evolution as the core theme of biology, we can explain traits shared by organisms as evidence of __________ and traits that differ among organisms as evidence of __________.

answer

descent from a common ancestor; adaptation through natural selection

question

The units of inheritance are called __________.

answer

genes

question

The use of energy by living organisms __________.

answer

involves chemical cycling from light energy from the sun for the production of chemical energy in food to the decomposition and the returning of chemicals to the cycle

question

What is the appropriate term for an interacting group of individuals of a single type occupying a defined area?

answer

Population

question

A nonlinear, realistic model of the scientific process is called the process of science. The core activity of this process is __________.

answer

forming and testing hypotheses

question

Which of the following statements best describes what is meant by "emergence"?

answer

The whole is greater than the sum of the parts.

question

In the theme of biological organization, the approach called reductionism ________

answer

allows us to reduce complex systems to simpler components that are more manageable to study

question

Hierarchy of Organization from least to most complex.

answer

question

Using models that represented camouflaged and non-camouflaged mice, Hoekstra and her students tested the hypothesis that coloration of beach and inland mice provides camouflage that protects them from predation. Regardless of whether the models were placed in the beach or the inland habitat, the camouflaged model always acted as the __________ group

answer

control

question

Which of the following is the smallest unit of organization that can perform all activities required for life?

answer

cell

question

The genetic material within cells is called __________ and is organized into structures called __________.

answer

DNA; chromosome

question

A hypothesis must be testable and falsifiable to be scientifically valid. Being testable and falsifiable means that __________

answer

some conceivable observation or experiment could reveal whether a given hypothesis is incorrect

question

What is the molecule that can account for both the unity and the diversity of life?

answer

DNA

question

The process that directs the manufacture of a cell product from a gene is called __________

answer

gene expression

question

Natural selection tends to act at which of the following levels?

answer

population

question

The concept of "descent with modification" was proposed by __________he concept of "descent with modification" was proposed by __________

answer

charles darwin

question

The information in a gene that directs the production of a cellular product is gene expression. The correct sequence for the transfer of information from a gene to a function protein is _________

answer

transcription, translation and protein folding

question

A scientific theory is __________.

answer

a well-supported concept that has broad explanatory power

question

How is the information encoded in DNA actually used by organisms?

answer

he information in DNA is transcribed to RNA and then translated into protein.

question

Feedback regulation includes __________.

answer

both negative feedback where the pathway shuts down and positive feedback where the pathway speeds up

question

Paleontology, the study of fossils, was developed by __________.

answer

Georges Cuvier

question

The fossil record is __________.

answer

biased in favor of species that existed for a long time

question

What evidence most strongly suggests that an impact by an asteroid or meteorite may have caused the extinction of the dinosaurs?

answer

Sedimentary rocks contain a layer of iridium, a mineral uncommon on Earth

question

Which of the following is a true statement about the current status of Earth's biodiversity?

answer

The current rate of extinctions is as high as 1,000 times the typical rate seen in the fossil record.

question

Single-celled prokaryotes had the Earth to themselves for approximately

answer

1.5 billion years

question

The original atmosphere of Earth had little oxygen. What was the likely first source of oxygen that led to an oxygen atmosphere?

answer

Cyanobacteria

question

What was one ecological change that occurred following the Permian mass extinction?

answer

The percentage of marine predators increased.

question

Adaptive radiations can be a direct consequence of

answer

question

Which of the following is the correct ordering of divisions of the geologic record from largest to smallest?

answer

eon, era, period, epoch

question

unique anatomical features of mammals that can be recognized in the fossil record?

answer

question

What were the two major "problems" that had to be solved before plants, animals, and fungi could move into terrestrial habitats?

answer

Reproduction and prevention of dehydration

question

Why is RNA, rather than DNA, thought to have been the first genetic material?

answer

RNA can also function as a catalyst

question

Prior to the Cambrian explosion, all large animals had what characteristic in common?

answer

They were all soft-bodied

question

In the species selection model, __________ is to macroevolution as __________ is to microevolution.

answer

differential speciation success; differential reproductive success

question

The correct order of the geologic eras, from most ancient to most recent, is __________.

answer

Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic

question

Which of the following is not an internal structure that appears in eukaryotic cells and was also not present in more ancient prokaryotic cells?

answer

Vesicles

question

Although they originated around 180 million years ago, mammals underwent an adaptive radiation starting approximately 65 million years ago. Why?

answer

Between 180 and 65 million years ago, mammals were outcompeted by the well-established dinosaurs.

question

Which of the following would not have been a consequence of tectonic plate movements bringing previously separated landmasses together in the formation of the supercontinent of Pangaea about 250 million years ago?

answer

Allopatric speciation increased

question

You are watching a movie in which one of the characters excitedly claims to have found human remains in Asia dated at 10 million years old. The date was obtained by carbon-14 dating.

answer

This can't possibly be true because carbon-14 dating can only be used back to about 75,000 years.

question

The amphibians, reptiles, and mammals comprise which group?

answer

tetrapods

question

The Miller and Urey abiotic synthesis experiment (and subsequent, similar experiments) showed that __________.

answer

simple organic molecules can form spontaneously under conditions like those thought to prevail early in Earth's history

question

Fossilized stromatolites __________.

answer

resemble structures formed by bacterial communities that are found today in some warm, shallow, salty bays

question

Which of the following is a true statement concerning the history of Earth's biological diversity?

answer

The majority of species that ever lived are now extinct.

question

If the wings of extant flying birds originally arose as thermoregulatory devices in ancestral reptiles, then the bird wings could be accurately described as __________.

answer

exaptations

question

The ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 in a fossil can be used to determine the age of the fossil because __________.

answer

carbon-14, unlike carbon-12, decays at a continuous rate after the death of an organism

question

Retention of juvenile body features into sexual maturity is referred to as the presence of __________.

answer

paedomorphosis

question

A genetic change that caused a certain Hox gene to be expressed along the tip of a vertebrate limb bud instead of farther back helped make possible the evolution of the tetrapod limb This type of change is illustrative of

answer

a change in a developmental gene or in its regulation that altered the spatial organization of body parts

question

The early atmosphere may not have been as reducing as originally postulated by Haldane, Oparin, Miller, and Urey. In light of current thinking about the composition of the early atmosphere, what is regarded as a likely place for the abiotic synthesis of organic molecules to have occurred?

answer

Near volcanoes

question

Why is the four-stage hypothesis for the abiotic origin of life useful?

answer

It leads to predictions that can be tested.

question

Macroevolution differs from microevolution in that macroevolution __________.

answer

includes broad evolutionary changes above the species level

question

What evidence supports the hypothesis that mitochondria and plastids evolved from prokaryotic endosymbionts?

answer

They have a single circular chromosome similar to bacterial chromosomes; their ribosomes are more like prokaryotic ribosomes than eukaryotic ribosomes

question

Rabbits and guinea pigs both belong to class Mammalia. This means they must also both belong to __________.

answer

phylum Chordata

question

The binomial system assigns to each organism a unique name that describes its __________.

answer

genus and species

question

Which of the following is an assumption that should be made when reading a phylogenetic tree?

answer

None of the listed assumptions should be made.

question

By applying a molecular clock, researchers have proposed that the first HIV-1 M invasion into humans occurred in the __________.

answer

1930s

question

What is a primary reason why a three-domain taxonomic scheme has been adopted over the previous five-kingdom taxonomic scheme

answer

Phylogenies based on genetic data revealed that some prokaryotes (kingdom Monera) differ as much from each other as they differ from eukaryotes.

question

Which of the following is a true statement concerning horizontal gene transfer?

answer

Which of the following is a true statement concerning horizontal gene transfer?

question

Birds and mammals have a four-chambered heart, but most reptiles have a three-chambered heart. How does this fact affect the construction of phylogenetic trees for these groups?

answer

The most likely tree is not always the most parsimonious.

question

Which of the following best summarizes the neutral theory?

answer

Darwinian selection does not influence a lot of evolutionary change in genes and proteins because many of these changes do not affect fitness.

question

To which domain is the domain Eukarya (the domain to which humans belong) most closely related?

answer

It is not clear whether eukaryotes are more closely related to bacteria or archaea.

question

Researchers can use molecular homologies to __________.

answer

reveal the number of mutations in a particular sequence that has occurred in each species since they diverged from a common ancestor

question

If you wanted to determine the lineage of plants that have evolved on a relatively young archipelago—approximately 15,000 years old—what type of nucleic acid should you compare?

answer

mtDNA

question

What is the relationship between systematics and taxonomy?

answer

Systematics is a discipline within taxonomy.

question

The idea of using molecules as clocks to time evolutionary events is very attractive, but there are many problems in actually applying the technique. What seems to be the best way to get reliable results?

answer

It is important to use as many genes as possible. With this approach, fluctuations in evolutionary rate will tend to average out

question

A phylogenetic tree of bird families constructed by cladistic analysis would be a hypothesis about which of the following?

answer

Evolutionary relationships among bird families

question

Three living species X, Y, and Z share a common ancestor T, as do extinct species U and V. A grouping that consists of species T, X, Y, and Z (but not U or V) makes up __________.

answer

a paraphyletic group

question

In a cladistic approach to systematics, an outgroup is __________.

answer

a species or group of species from an evolutionary lineage that is known to have diverged before the lineage that includes all the species under study

question

What is the basis for the use of a molecular clock to determine the absolute time of evolutionary change

answer

Nucleotide substitutions in a gene occur at a relatively constant rate.

question

A taxon __________

answer

is a formal grouping at any given level

question

In cladistics, biologists attempt to place species into groups that each include an ancestral species and all of its descendants. A group that is paraphyletic fails to accomplish this goal in what way?

answer

It consists of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants

question

Why are phylogenetic trees considered hypotheses

answer

they can be used to make testable predictions

question

Which of the following would be the least useful in determining the relationships among various species?

answer

Analogous structures

question

A bald eagle and a black bear both have four limbs with digits because they are both tetrapods, descendants of a four-limbed ancestor. In this comparison, the limbs of the eagle and the bear are what type of structure

answer

Homologous

question

Sister taxa on a phylogenetic tree are defined as groups that ____

answer

share an immediate common ancestor and are each other's closest relatives

question

The term polytomy refers to a situation in which __________

answer

there is a branch point on a phylogeny from which more than two descendent groups emerg

question

principle of maximum parsimony is applied to the process of constructing a phylogenetic tree in what way?

answer

tree that requires the fewest evolutionary events, as measured by the origin of shared derived characters, is selected.

question

Using cladistic analysis, a taxonomist wishes to construct a phylogenetic tree showing the relationships among various species of mammals. Which of the following would be the least useful for this purpose?

answer

The fact that all mammals have hair

question

two genes are recognized as orthologous if __________.

answer

they are homologous genes found in different species, and their divergence traces back to speciation events that produced the specie

question

The separate lineages leading to dolphins and sharks both evolved streamlined bodies, dorsal fins, and broad tail fins as adaptations to efficient locomotion in a marine environment. In this comparison, the bodies and fins of dolphins and sharks are what type of structures

answer

Analogous

question

Which of the following is the correct order of taxonomic levels in the Linnean system of classification, from most to least inclusive

answer

Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

question

Which subgroup of proteobacteria contains many species that are predators of other bacteria?

answer

Delta

question

Which group of bacteria is unusual in that they lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls?

answer

Chlamydias

question

Which of the following statements about cyanobacteria is true

answer

Cyanobacteria are photoautotrophs that conduct plantlike photosynthesis, during which they split water, liberating oxygen. Some cyanobacteria are able to use atmospheric nitrogen directly as a source of nitrogen. These photoautotrophs are the only prokaryotes with plantlike, oxygen-generating photosynthesis. Both solitary and filamentous cyanobacteria are abundant components of freshwater and marine phytoplankton, the collection of photosynthetic organisms that drift near the water's surface.

question

Which of the following mechanisms is/are (a) means of genetic recombination in prokaryotes?

answer

transformation, transduction, conjucation,

question

Some prokaryotes stick to their substrate or to one another by means of hairlike appendages, each called a __________.

answer

fimbria

question

Which of the following does not contribute to bacteria's ability to evolve rapidly?

answer

Sexual reproduction

question

In an experiment, a microbiologist put equal numbers of each of the following organisms into a flask of sterile broth, consisting mostly of sugar and a few amino acids. She then placed the flask in the dark. Which of the following organisms would be most likely to survive?

answer

Chemoheterotrophic bacteria

question

Bacterial flagellum are_____ to eukaryotic flagellum

answer

analogous

question

What is the structural feature of gram-positive bacteria that results in their retaining a crystal violet dye stain and thereby being distinguished from gram-negative bacteria in a Gram-stain technique?

answer

Gram-positive bacteria have thicker cell walls

question

Bacteria that __________ tend to have abundant internal membranes.

answer

are photosynthetic

question

Choose the list below that contains the substances required by typical nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria

answer

Carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water, light, and some minerals

question

Which subgroup of proteobacteria contains many species that are closely associated with eukaryotic hosts in mutualistic or parasitic relationships?

answer

Alpha

question

What are biofilms?

answer

Biofilms are cooperative colonies of bacteria

question

An F+ bacterial cell __________.

answer

acts as a donor during conjugation

question

The Desulfovibrio bacterium breaks down organic matter (which it must have) and uses sulfate (not oxygen) as an electron acceptor. As a result, it produces hydrogen sulfide (H2S), accounting for the "rotten egg" smell of swamp muck. Oxygen is a deadly poison to Desulfovibrio. We would call Desulfovibrio a(n) __________.

answer

obligately anaerobic chemoheterotroph

question

Antibiotics administered in human medicine work against bacterial infections by __________.

answer

interfering with an aspect of bacterial metabolism or structure that differs from that of eukaryotic cells

question

What is a difference between the cell walls of prokaryotes and the cell walls of eukaryotes?

answer

The cell walls of prokaryotes are made of molecules different from those comprising the cell walls of eukaryotes

question

Portions of the genomes of certain prokaryotic species are very similar to portions of the genomes of distantly related prokaryotes. The process that most likely accounts for this genetic similarity is _

answer

horizontal gene transfer

question

Plasmids __________

answer

The cells of prokaryotes are simpler than those of eukaryotes in both their internal structure and the physical arrangement of their DNA. The genome of a prokaryote is structurally different from a eukaryotic genome and in most cases has considerably less DNA. In the majority of prokaryotes, the genome consists of a circular chromosome with many fewer proteins than found in the linear chromosomes of eukaryotes. In addition to its single chromosome, a typical prokaryotic cell may also have much smaller rings of independently replicating DNA molecules called plasmids, most carrying only a few genes. Plasmids have a number of different characteristics. They replicate independently of the main chromosome and often contain antibiotic resistance genes. Plasmids are transferred from one bacterium to another by conjugation. They also allow bacteria to survive adverse conditions and may also direct the metabolism of rarely encountered nutrients.

question

Bacterial flagella have a very complex structure composed of 42 distinct proteins. What is the most likely explanation for the evolution of these complex structures?

answer

Exaptation

question

disease caused by bacteria

answer

Tuberculosis

question

Which of the following characteristics is a reason why a Gram-stain to distinguish gram-positive from gram-negative bacteria is an important tool in a medical diagnosis of a bacterial infection?

answer

All of the listed characteristics are reasons why a Gram-stain is important in medicine.

question

Bacteria that use light for their energy source and CO2 for their carbon source are called __________.

answer

photoautotrophs

question

Acquiring an R plasmid would allow a bacterium to do what?

answer

Resist antibiotics

question

Bacteria function primarily in which ecological role?

answer

Bacteria are common in all of the listed ecological roles

question

Which of the following is a structure that bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes have?

answer

Plasma membrane

question

Why is salt a good preservative to use for foods such as pork and fish?

answer

Prokaryotic cells living in the food will shrink from their cell walls, impacting their ability to reproduce.

question

Prokaryotes found inhabiting the Great Salt Lake would be ____

answer

extreme halophiles

question

What is the function of a bacterial endospore?

answer

To facilitate persistence in temporarily harsh environments

question

How do prions propagate and replicate themselves?

answer

Prions convert normal proteins into the misfolded prion version.

question

Which of the following is not a class I virus?

answer

parvovirus

question

Class IV viruses are characterized by which of the following types of genomes

answer

single-stranded RNA that serves as mRNA

question

Restriction enzymes help defend bacteria against viral infections by _______

answer

cutting viral DNA once it has entered the cell

question

The avian flu virus H5N1 is considered a greater long-term threat than the swine flu virus H1N1 because __________

answer

it has a significantly higher mortality rate

question

Why are viruses often considered to be ?

answer

Viruses do not carry out metabolic processes, a primary characteristic of living organisms

question

How does a retrovirus like HIV enter a host cell

answer

Glycoproteins on the viral envelope bind to receptors on the host cell. The viral envelope fuses with the host cell's plasma membrane, facilitating uptake of the virus by the host cell

question

HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, only infects certain cells within the immune system. This is because __________

answer

the virus binds to specific receptors that are only present on certain immune cells

question

Viruses can vary with respect to all of the following characteristics except __________

answer

the presence or absence of metabolic machinery

question

The phage reproductive cycle that kills the bacterial host cell is a __________ cycle, and a phage that always reproduces this way is a __________ phage

answer

lytic; virulent

question

When a virus infects an E. coli cell, what part of the virus enters the bacterial cytoplasm?

answer

Only the nucleic acid

question

When comparing DNA and RNA viruses, which mutate more quickly, and why?

answer

RNA viruses, because no proofreading is done on RNA molecules

question

Which of the following events occurs during the lytic life cycle of phages?

answer

The host cell usually dies, releasing many new copies of the virus.

question

Animals that harbor and can transmit a particular virus but are generally unaffected by it are said to act as a __________ for that virus.

answer

natural reservoir

question

Viral DNA incorporated into a bacterial chromosome is known as a(n) __________

answer

prophage

question

Which of the following statements correctly describes one difference between virulent phages and temperate phages?

answer

Virulent phages replicate through the lytic cycle only, and temperate phages replicate using both the lytic and the lysogenic cycles.

question

Candidates for the original source of viral genomes include _________

answer

plasmids and transposon

question

A widespread outbreak of a viral disease is called a(n) __________, and a global outbreak is called a(n) __________

answer

epidemic; pandemic

question

Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission of a virus in plants?

answer

An infected plant produces seeds that contain the virus, giving rise to infected progeny.

question

Vaccines for viral diseases are __________ and help prevent infection by __________.

answer

harmless derivatives of pathogenic viruses; stimulating the immune system to mount a defense against the actual pathogen

question

Some viruses have membranous envelopes. Where do viral envelopes typically originate from?

answer

Membranes from the host cell

question

Viruses that infect bacteria are called _________

answer

bacteriophages

question

Why can flare-ups of herpes virus infection recur throughout a person's life?

answer

Herpes virus can leave its DNA behind as minichromosomes in nerve cell nuclei. Stress can trigger another round of virus production, producing characteristic blisters and sores.

question

Reverse transcription, carried out by retroviruses, is the process by which __________.

answer

RNA information is copied into DNA

question

Circular RNA molecules that function like a virus in plants are termed __________

answer

viroids

question

Prions are __________ that are thought to cause disease by __________.

answer

abnormally shaped proteins; inducing similar but normally shaped proteins in the brain to adopt the abnormal form

question

A phage that inserts itself into the host DNA is called __________

answer

lysogenic

question

Genomes of viruses may consist of which of the following types of nucleic acids?

answer

We usually think of genes as being made of double-stranded DNA, but many viruses defy this convention. Their genomes may consist of double-stranded DNA, single-stranded DNA, double-stranded RNA, or single-stranded RNA, depending on the type of virus. A virus is called a DNA virus or an RNA virus based on the kind of nucleic acid that makes up its genome. In either case, the genome is usually organized as a single linear or circular molecule of nucleic acid, although the genomes of some viruses consist of multiple molecules of nucleic acid. The smallest viruses known have only three genes in their genome, while the largest have several hundred to a thousand. For comparison, bacterial genomes contain about 200 to a few thousand genes.

question

How are retroviruses different from other types of viruses?

answer

Retroviruses use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to transcribe a copy of DNA from their own RNA

STUDY

Microbiology

Microbiology Exam 2 Study Guide – Flashcards 122 terms

Elizabeth Bates

122 terms

Preview

Microbiology Exam 2 Study Guide – Flashcards

question

Metabolism

answer

The sum of all chemical reactions, both anabolic and catabolic, within an organism.

question

Catabolism

answer

All of the decomposition reactions in an organism taken together.

question

Anabolism

answer

All of the synthesis reactions in an organism taken together.

question

Kinetic Energy

answer

Energy of motion.

question

Potential Energy

answer

Stored Energy.

question

Enzymes

answer

An organic catalyst.

question

Substrates

answer

The molecule upon which an enzyme acts.

question

Products

answer

The atoms, ions, or molecules that remain after a chemical reaction is complete.

question

Electron Carriers

answer

Carry electrons or electrons and protons. NADH, FADH₂

question

Co-enzyme

answer

Organic cofactor.

question

Temperature

answer

A measure of how hot (or cold) something is; specifically, a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in an object.

question

Denature

answer

A change in the shape of a protein (such as an enzyme) that can be caused by changes in temperature or pH (among other things).

question

answer

A logarithmic scale used for measuring the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.

question

Inhibitors

answer

An agent that slows or interferes with a chemical action.

question

Phosphorylation

answer

The transfer of a phosphate group, usually from ATP, to a molecule. Nearly all cellular work depends on ATP energizing other molecules.

question

Glycolysis

answer

First-step in the catabolism of glucose via respiration and fermentation.

question

Acetyl-CoA

answer

Combination of two-carbon acetate and coenzyme A.

question

Kreb's Cycle

answer

Series of eight enzymatically catalyzed reactions that transfer stored energy from acetyl-CoA to coenzymes NAD+ and FAD.

question

Electron Transport

answer

A sequence of electron carrier molecules (membrane proteins) that shuttle electrons during the redox reactions that release energy used to make ATP.

question

Aerobic Respiration

answer

Type of cellular respiration requiring oxygen atoms as final electron acceptors.

question

Anaerobic Respiration

answer

Type of cellular respiration not requiring oxygen atoms as final electron acceptors.

question

Fermentation

answer

In metabolism, the parietal oxidation of sugar to release energy using an endogenous organic molecular rather than an electron transport chain as the final electron acceptor. In food microbiology, any desirable change to food or beverage induced by microbes.

question

Beta-oxidation

answer

A catabolic process in which enzymes split pairs of hydrogenated carbon atoms from fatty acid and join them to coenzyme A to form acetyl-CoA.

question

Photosynthesis

answer

Process in which light energy is captured by chlorophylls and transferred to ATP and metabolites.

question

Carbon Fixation

answer

The attachment of atmospheric carbon dioxide to ribulose 1,5-biphosphate (RuBp).

question

Calvin Cycle

answer

Stage of photosynthesis in which atmospheric carbon dioxide is fixed and reduced to produce glucose.

question

Biosynthesis

answer

Production of phage DNA and proteins

question

Biofilms

answer

A slimy community or microbes growing on a surface.

question

Photoautotroph

answer

Microorganism which requires light energy and uses carbon dioxide as a carbon source.

question

Photoheterotroph

answer

Microorganism that requires light energy and gains nutrients via catabolism of organic compounds.

question

Chemoautotroph

answer

Microorganism that uses carbon dioxide as a carbon source and catabolizes organic molecules for energy.

question

Chemoheterotroph

answer

Microorganism that uses organic compounds for both energy and carbon.

question

Trace Element

answer

Element required in very small amounts for microbial metabolism.

question

Aerobic

answer

Chemical reactions that require the presence of oxygen.

question

Anaerobic

answer

Describes a process that does not require oxygen.

question

Facultative Anaerobic

answer

Microorganism which can across a cell membrane via protein channels.

question

Aerotolerant Anaerobe

answer

Do not use Aerobic Metabolism, but do have some enzymes that detoxify oxygen's poisonous forms, so can grow in its presence.

question

Microaerophile

answer

Microorganism that requires low levels of oxygen.

question

Minimum Temperature

answer

Lowest temperature that permits a microbe's growth and metabolism.

question

Optimum Temperature

answer

Temperature at which organisms grow best.

question

Maximum Temperature

answer

Temperature above which bacterial growth will not take place.

question

Psychrophile

answer

Microorganism requiring cold temperatures (below 20ºC).

question

Mesophile

answer

Microorganism requiring temperatures ranging from 20ºC to about 40ºC

question

Thermophile

answer

Microorganism requiring temperatures above 45ºC.

question

Hyperthermophile

answer

Microorganism requiring temperatures above 80ºC.

question

Neutrophile

answer

Microorganism requiring neutral pH.

question

Acidophile

answer

Microorganism requiring acidic pH.

question

Alkalinophile

answer

Microorganism requiring alkaline pH environments.

question

Halophile

answer

Microorganism requiring a saline environment (greater than 9% NaCl).

question

Nitrogen Fixation

answer

The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia.

question

Inoculum

answer

Sample of microorganisms.

question

Pure Culture

answer

Culture containing cells of only one species.

question

Colony Forming Unit (CFU)

answer

A single cell or group of related cells that produce a colony.

question

Sterile

answer

Free of microbial contamination.

question

Steak Plate

answer

Method of culturing microorganisms in which a sterile inoculating loop is used to spread a inoculum across the surface of a solid medium in Petri dishes.

question

Petri Dish

answer

Dish filled with solid medium used in culturing microorganisms.

question

Aseptic

answer

Characteristic of an environment or procedure that is free of contamination by pathogens.

question

Culture Medium

answer

(bacteriology) a nutrient substance (solid or liquid) that is used to cultivate micro-organisms.

question

Complex Medium

answer

Culturing medium that contains nutrients released by the partial digestion of yeast, beef, soy, or other proteins; thus, the exact chemical composition is unknown.

question

Defined Medium

answer

Culturing medium of which the exact chemical composition is known.

question

Selective Medium

answer

Culturing medium containing substances that either favor the growth of particular microorganisms or inhibit the growth of unwanted ones.

question

Differential Medium

answer

Culturing medium formulated such that either the presence of visible changes in the medium or differences in the appearances of the colonies help microbiologists differentiate amount kinds of bacteria growing on the medium.

question

Capnophile

answer

Microorganism that grows best with high levels of carbon dioxide in addition to low levels of oxygen.

question

Lyophilized

answer

Removal of water from a frozen culture or other substance by means of vacuum pressure. Used for the long-term preservation of cells and food.

question

Binary Fission

answer

The most common method of asexual reproduction of prokaryotes, in which the parental cells disappears with the formation of progeny.

question

Generation

answer

Time required for a cell to grow and divide.

question

Doubling Time

answer

Amount of time it takes for a population to double.

question

Growth Curve

answer

Graph that plots the number in a population over time.

question

Lag Phase

answer

Phase in a growth curve in which the organisms are adducting to their environment.

question

Log Phase

answer

Phase in a growth curve in which the population is most actively growing.

question

Stationary Phase

answer

Phase in a growth curve in which new organisms are being produced at the same rate at which older organisms are dying.

question

Death Phase

answer

Phase in a growth curve in which the organisms are dying more quickly than they are being replaced by new organisms.

question

Genetics

answer

The study of inheritance and heritable traits as expressed in an organism's genetic material.

question

Genome

answer

The sum of all the genetic material in a cell or virus.

question

Gene

answer

A specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a polypeptide or an RNA molecule.

question

Nucleotide

answer

Monomer of nucleic acid, which is composed of a nucleoside and a phosphate.

question

Chromosome

answer

A molecule of DNA associated with protein. In prokaryotes, typically circular and localized in a region of the cytosol called the nucleoid. In eukaryotes, chromosomes are threadlike and are most visible during mitosis and meiosis.

question

Plasmid

answer

A small, circular molecule of DNA that replicates independently of the chromosome. Each carries genes for its own replication and often for one or more nonessential functions such as resistance to antibiotics.

question

DNA

answer

Nucleic acid consisting of nucleotides made up of phosphate, a deoxyribose pentose sugar, and an arrangement of the bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine.

question

Replication

answer

The process whereby DNA makes a copy of itself before cell division

question

Primer

answer

An already existing RNA chain bound to template DNA to which DNA nucleotides are added during DNA synthesis.

question

Replication Fork

answer

A Y-shaped region on a replicating DNA molecule where new strands are growing.

question

Haploid

answer

A nucleus with a single copy of each chromosome.

question

Diploid

answer

A nucleus with two copies of each chromosome.

question

Genotype

answer

Actual set of genes in an organism's genome.

question

Phenotype

answer

The physical features and functional traits of an organism expressed by genes in the genotype.

question

mRNA

answer

Form of ribonucleic acid that carries genetic information from DNA to ribosome.

question

rRNA

answer

Forms of ribonucleic acid which, together with polypeptides, makes up the structure of ribosomes.

question

tRNA

answer

Form of ribonucleic acid that carries amino acids to the ribosome.

question

RNA Polymerase

answer

Enzyme that synthesizes RNA by linking RNA nucleotides that are complementary to genetic sequences in DNA.

question

Genetic Code

answer

Collection of codons of mRNA, each of which directs the incorporation of a particular amino acid into a protein during protein synthesis.

question

Codon

answer

Triplet of mRNA nucleotides that codes for specific amino acids. For example, AAA is a codon for lysine.

question

Anticodon

answer

Portion of tRNA molecule that is complementary to a codon on mRNA.

question

Ribosome

answer

Nonmembranous organelle found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes that is composed of protein and ribosomal RNA and functions to make polypeptides.

question

Operon

answer

A series of genes, a promoter, and often an operator sequence controlled by one regulatory gene. The operon model explains gene regulation in prokaryotes.

question

Repressor

answer

A protein that binds to an operator and physically blocks RNA polymerase from binding to a promoter site.

question

Promotor

answer

Region of DNA where transcription begins.

question

Mutation

answer

In genetics, a permanent change in the nucleotide base sequence of a genome.

question

Mutagen

answer

Physical or chemical agent that introduces a mutation.

question

Base Substitution

answer

A type of point mutation; the replacement of one nucleotide and its partner in the complementary DNA strand by another pair of nucleotides.

question

Missense Mutation

answer

A substitution in a nucleotide sequence resulting in a codon that specifies a different amino acid: what is transcribed makes sense, but not the right sense.

question

Nonsense Mutation

answer

A substitution in a nucleotide sequence that causes an amino acid codon to be replaces by a stop codon.

question

Frameshift Mutation

answer

Type of mutation in which nucleotide triplets subsequent to an insertion to deletion are displaced, creating new sequences of codons that result in vastly altered polypeptide sequences.

question

Carcinogen

answer

Chemical capable of causing cancer.

question

Teratogen

answer

Ability to cause birth defects.

question

Gene Transfer

answer

Movement of genetic information between organisms.

question

Vertical Gene Transfer

answer

Occurs during reproduction between generations of cells.

question

Horizontal Gene Transfer

answer

Process in which a donor cell contributes part of its genome to a recipient cell, which may be a different species or genus from the donor.

question

Conjugation

answer

In genetics: method of horizontal gene transfer in which a bacterium containing a fertility plasmid forms a conjugation pills that attaches and transfers plasmid genes to a recipient; in reproduction of ciliates: coupling of mating cells.

question

Transduction

answer

Method of horizontal gene transfer in which DNA is transferred from one cell to another via a replicating virus.

question

Biotechnology

answer

Branch of microbiology in which microbes are manipulated to manufacture useful products.

question

Restriction Enzymes

answer

Enzyme that cuts DNA at specific nucleotide sequences and is used to produce recombinant DNA molecules.

question

Restriction Fragments

answer

DNA segment resulting from cutting of DNA by a restriction enzyme.

question

Reverse Transcriptase

answer

Complex enzyme that allows retroviruses to make dsDNA from RNA templates used in recombinant DNA technology to make cDNA.

question

Sticky Ends

answer

Single stranded ends of DNA left after cutting with enzymes.

question

PCR

answer

Technique of recombinant DNA technology that allows researchers to produce large number of identical DNA molecules in vitro.

question

Vector

answer

In genetics and recombinant DNA technology, nucleic acid molecule, such as a vital genome, transposon, or plasmid that is used to deliver a gene tine a cell. In epidemiology, an animal (typically an arthropod) that transmits disease from one host to another.

question

Electroporation

answer

A technique to introduce recombinant DNA into cells by applying a brief electrical pulse to a solution containing cells. The electricity creates temporary holes in the cells' plasma membranes, through which DNA can enter.

question

Microenjection

answer

The process of using a glass micropipette to insert substances at a microscopic or borderline macroscopic level into a single living cell.

question

Protoplast Fusion

answer

The fusing of two protoplasts from different plant species that would otherwise be reproductively incompatible.

question

Gene Therapy

answer

The use of recombinant DNA technology to insert a missing gene or repair a defective gene in human cells.

question

Gene Gun

answer

A device that delivers DNA to cells by micro-projectile bombardment.

STUDY

Bacteria And Archaea Membrane Bound Organelles Microbiology Recombinant Dna Technology

Chapter 1 PP – Flashcards 42 terms

Robert May

42 terms

Preview

Chapter 1 PP – Flashcards

question

Microbiology....What is it??

answer

is the study of organisms too small to be seen with human eye. Includes viruses.

question

Microbes are ubiquitous

answer

(i.e., they are found virtually everywhere).

question

Nonliving microbes are known as

answer

acellular microbes or infectious particles; examples include viroids, prions, and viruses.

question

Living microbes are known as

answer

cellular microbes or microorganisms; examples include bacteria, archaea, some algae, protozoa, and some fungi.

question

******indigenous microbiota

answer

Microbes that live on and in our bodies

question

Opportunistic pathogens

answer

are microbes that can cause disease, but usually do not; they can be thought of as microbes that are awaiting the opportunity to cause disease

question

Pathogens cause two categories of diseases

answer

infectious diseases and microbial intoxications

question

Photosynthetic algae and bacteria

answer

produce much of the oxygen in our atmosphere.

question

Microorganisms are involved in

answer

the decomposition of dead organisms and waste products.

question

Saprophytes are organisms that

answer

that live on dead and/or decaying organic matter.

question

*****bioremediation

answer

The use of microbes to clean up toxic wastes and other industrial waste products

question

Many microbes play essential roles in various elemental cycles

answer

such as the carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, sulfur, and phosphorus cycles.

question

Microbes are used in many industries, such as

answer

food, beverage, chemical, and antibiotic industries and in genetic engineering

question

biotechnology

answer

The use of living organisms or their derivatives to make or modify useful products or processes

question

Candidates for the first microorganisms on Earth are

answer

archaea and cyanobacteria

question

Anton van Leeuwenhoek (1632-1723)

answer

*Not a trained scientist! *Made many simple single-lens microscopes *Observed "animalcules" (bacteria and protozoa

question

Louis Pasteur (1822-1895) Father of microbiology

answer

*French chemist *Investigated different fermentation products *Developed the pasteurization process D*iscovered life forms that could exist without oxygen (anaerobes) *Developed several vaccines, including rabies and anthrax vaccines

question

******Robert Koch (1843-1910 Coined trem cell

answer

*German physician *Made significant contributions to the germ theory of disease *Discovered that Bacillus anthracis produced spores *Developed methods of fixing and staining bacteria *Developed methods to cultivate bacteria

question

Koch's Postulates

answer

1. A particular microbe must be found in all cases of the disease and must not be present in healthy animals or humans. 2. The microbe must be isolated from the diseased animal or human and grown in pure culture in the laboratory. 3. The same disease must be produced when microbes from the pure culture are inoculated into healthy susceptible laboratory animals. 4. The same microbe must be recovered from the experimentally infected animals and grown again in pure culture. 6. If an organism fulfills Koch's Postulates, it has been proven to be the cause of that particular infectious disease.

question

*******Prokaryotes

answer

Bacteria and Archaea -Both are single-celled organisms -Contain no membrane bound nucleus --Termed prokaryotes = pre nucleus --------Pro = pre --------karyote = nucleus -Do not contain any other organelles -Cytoplasm is surrounded by rigid cell wall

question

Domain Bacteria

answer

*Most common type in human infection *features include: -Specific shapes ----Rod-shaped, spherical and spiral -Rigid cell walls ----Responsible for cell shape -Multiply by binary fission ----One cell divides into two ----Each cell is genetically identical to the first -Some bacteria are motile ----Move by means of flagella

question

Domain Archaea

answer

*same attributes as Bacteria -Rod-shaped, spherical and spiral -Multiply through binary fission -Move by means of flagellum *Archaea exhibit significant differences -Chemical composition of cell wall differs from organisms in other domains -Organisms of Archaea domain found in extreme environments --Extreme temperatures --Environments with high concentrations of salts

question

Domain Eucarya

answer

*Organisms contain membrane bound nucleus -Termed eukaryote = true nucleus --Eu = true --karyote = nucleus *Contains internal organelles -Making organism more complex --Example = mitochondria *May be single and/or multicellular

question

Algae

answer

Includes single and multicellular organisms All contain chlorophyll Usually found near surface waters Have rigid cell wall

question

************Fungi

answer

single-celled and multicellular organisms -Single-celled = yeast -Multicellular = molds Gain energy from organic materials Found wherever organic materials are present Makes antibiotic

question

*************Protozoa

answer

Microscopic, single-celled organism Found in water and on land Much larger than prokaryote Do not have a rigid cell wall Gain energy from organic matter Most are motile -Means of motility diverse and a feature of their classification

question

************Nomenclature

answer

Binomial naming system -Two word naming system First word is genus name -Always capitalized --Escherichia Second word is species name -Not capitalized --coli When writing full name, genus usually abbreviated -E. coli Full name always italicized -Or underlined

question

Viruses

answer

Viruses contain protein coat surrounding nucleic acid -Essentially protein bag of nucleic acid Viruses termed obligate intracellular parasites -Must have host machinery to replicate -Inactive outside of host All forms of life can be infected by viruses Viruses frequently kill host cells -Some live harmoniously with host

question

Viroids

answer

Viroids are simpler than viruses -Still require host cell for replication Consist of a single short piece of RNA -Contain no protective protein coat Viroids smaller than viruses Generally cause plant diseases

question

**********Prions (made of proteins)

answer

Prions are infectious proteins -Contain no nucleic acid Responsible for at least seven neurodegenerative diseases -Animal disease --Scrapie in sheep --Mad cow disease in cattle Human disease -Kuru -Creutzfelt-Jakob

question

Whose experiments supported the existence of a "life force"?

answer

Needham

question

What did the work of Lister and Ehrlich have in common?

answer

They both explored the use of chemicals in the prevention and treatment of infectious diseases.

question

Which field of microbiology involves the study of microorganisms in their natural habitats?

answer

environmental microbiology

question

******fungi

answer

yeasts are unicellular. molds are multicellular. fungi are eukaryotes. fungi have a cell wall.

question

accurate description of viruses?

answer

they are acellular obligatory parasites.

question

Aristotle was an early natural philosopher who formulated the

answer

theory of spontaneous generation (abiogenesis).

question

pioneered the use of chemicals to reduce the incidence of infections during surgery?

answer

Lister

question

against putrefaction

answer

antisepsis.

question

The study of the occurrence, distribution, and spread of disease is known as

answer

epidemiology.

question

Inserting a gene from the hepatitis B virus into yeast so that the yeast produces a viral protein is an example of

answer

genetic engineering.

question

*****The term for the use of microorganisms to restore damaged environments is

answer

bioremediation.

question

***Prokaryotes**

answer

CNA is circular

STUDY

Microbiology Modify The Environment Prokaryotic And Eukaryotic Cells

Answers on Microbiology Chapter 1 Test – Flashcards 116 terms

Tyree Bender

116 terms

Preview

Answers on Microbiology Chapter 1 Test – Flashcards

question

microbiology

answer

The study of organisms too small to be seen without magnification

question

Microorganisms include

answer

bacteria viruses fungi protozoa helminths (worms) algae

question

Branches of Study Within Microbiology

answer

Immunology Public health microbiology and epidemiology Food, dairy and aquatic microbiology Biotechnology Genetic engineering and recombinant DNA technology

question

Microbes are Involved in

answer

Nutrient production and energy flow Decomposition Biotechnology production of foods, drugs and vaccines Genetic engineering Bioremediation Infectious disease

question

bioremediation

answer

uses biological process to overcome environmental problems (ex: a microorganism that eats oil for an oil spill)

question

biotechnology

answer

study and creation of vaccines and drugs

question

2 types of microbes

answer

cellular and noncellular

question

3 names of microbes

answer

procaryotes, eukaryotes and viruses

question

procaryote

answer

microscopic, unicellular organisms, lack nuclei and membrane-bound organelles, no organelles

question

eucaryote

answer

unicellular (microscopic) and multicellular, nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, have organelles

question

Viruses

answer

acellular, parasitic particles composed of a nucleic acid and protein

question

Microbes - cellular

answer

procaryotes and eukaryotes

question

Microbes - non cellular

answer

viruses

question

Procaryotes are measured in

answer

micrometers

question

Viruses are measured in

answer

nanometers

question

Helminths are measured in

answer

millimeters

question

Historical Foundations of Microbiology, Prominent discoveries include

answer

microscopy scientific method development of medical microbiology microbiology techniques

question

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

answer

Discovered lens magnification First to observe living microbes Single-lens magnified up to 300X

question

Spontaneous Generation

answer

Early belief that some forms of life could arise from vital forces present in nonliving or decomposing matter (flies from manure, etc)

question

Discovery of Spores and Sterilization

answer

John Tyndall and Ferdinand Cohn each demonstrated the presence of heat resistant forms of some microbes. Cohn determined these forms to be endospores.

question

Discovery of Spores and Sterilization - name the 2 men

answer

John Tyndall, Ferdinand Cohn

question

Sterilization

answer

ABSENCE of all living microorganisms

question

Sanitization

answer

Microorganisms are all dead (but still there)

question

Development of Aseptic Techniques: Joseph Lister

answer

introduced aseptic techniques reducing microbes in medical settings to prevent infections involved disinfection of hands using chemicals prior to surgery use of heat for sterilization, used of carbonic acid as an antiseptic spray

question

Pathogens and Germ Theory of Disease, Two major contributors

answer

Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch

question

Louis Pasteur

answer

Showed microbes caused fermentation and spoilage Disproved spontaneous generation of microorganisms Developed pasteurization Demonstrated what is now known as Germ Theory of Disease Developed a rabies vaccine

question

Robert Koch

answer

Established Koch's postulates - a sequence of experimental steps that verified the germ theory Identified cause of anthrax, TB, and cholera Developed pure culture methods

question

Taxonomy

answer

the foprmal system for organizing, classifying and naming living things

question

Taxonomy concerned with

answer

classification - orderly arrangement of organisms into groups nomenclature - assigning names identification - discovering and recording traits of organisms for placement into taxonomic schemes

question

Levels of Classification

answer

Domain - Archaea, Bacteria & Eukarya Kingdom - 5 Phylum or Division Class Order Family Genus species

question

Naming Micoorganisms

answer

Binomial (scientific) nomenclature Gives each microbe 2 names: Genus - noun, always capitalized species - adjective, lowercase Both italicized or underlined Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus) Bacillus subtilis (B. subtilis) Escherichia coli (E. coli)

question

3 Domains

answer

Bacteria - true bacteria, peptidoglycan Archaea - odd bacteria that live in extreme environments, high salt, heat, etc. Eukarya- have a nucleus and organelles

question

3 Domains: Bacteria

answer

true bacteria, peptidoglycan

question

3 Domains: Archaea

answer

odd bacteria that live in extreme environments, high salt, heat, etc.

question

3 Domains: Eukarya

answer

have a nucleus and organelles

question

In the latter part of the twentieth century, scientists became increasingly concerned about the threat of infectious diseases. Which of the following is not a reason why the incidence of infectious diseases has risen?

answer

Ineffective diagnoses of diseases

question

What is the branch of microbiology that involves DNA manipulation in order to create new products and genetically modified organisms?

answer

Genetic engineering

question

When looking for life on other planets, scientists first look for signs of microbial inhabitation. Which of the following is not a reason why?

answer

Microbes prevent the recycling of elements

question

The majority of the oxygen in the earth's atmosphere is derived from processes carried out by what group of microorganisms?

answer

Photosynthetic organisms

question

In the process of bioremediation, biological agents perform what function?

answer

Degrade environmental pollutants

question

Many non-infectious diseases have been shown to be associated with chronic infections with certain microorganisms. Which of the following is one of these diseases?

answer

Coronary artery disease

question

Which of the following is not classified as an emerging disease

answer

polio

question

Which of the following statements is true of the procaryotes?

answer

They do not contain a nucleus

question

Which of the following statements does not describe viruses?

answer

They are more complex than procaryotes and eucaryotes

question

How do the majority of microorganisms exist in nature?

answer

As free-living and harmless organisms

question

Who is known as the "Father of Bacteriology and Protozoology?"

answer

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

question

Early scientists explained natural phenomena using several methods. Which of the following is not one of the methods they used?

answer

Scientific method

question

Whose experiments finally discounted the theory of abiogenesis?

answer

Louis Pasteur

question

Which of the following is the smallest in size?

answer

Poliovirus

question

Robert Koch used what microorganism (and disease it causes) to formulate Koch's postulates?

answer

Bacillus anthracis/Anthrax

question

What is the smallest and most specific of the levels of classification?

answer

Species

question

What term refers to the degree of evolutionary relatedness between living organisms?

answer

Phylogeny

question

The analysis of what component has led to the classification of organisms into three domains?

answer

rRNA

question

parasite

answer

lives off host AND causes harm to host (in some way)

question

order of what dies in what order

answer

cells-tissues-organs-organ systems-organism

question

nucleotide units (for nucleic acid)

answer

sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) phosphate nitrogen base (adenine, thymine, uracil, guanine, cytosine)

question

only item seen in procaryotes, eukaryotes and viruses

answer

DNA or rNA

question

virulence factor

answer

what makes it stronger (ex: emvelope makes virus stronger by protecting D/rNA)

question

bacteria

answer

category of prokaryotes with peptidoglycan in their cells walls and a single, circular chromosome. This group of small cells is widely distributed in the earth's habitats

question

viruses

answer

microscopic, acellular agent composed of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat

question

fungi

answer

heterotrophic unicellular or multicellular eukaryotic organism which may take the form of a larger macroscopic organism, as in the case of mushrooms, or a smaller micoscopic organism, as in the case of yeasts and molds

question

protozoa

answer

a group of single-celled, eukaryotic organisms

question

algae

answer

photosynthetic, plantlike organisms which generally lack the complex structure of plants; they may be single-celled or multicellular, and inhabit diversse habitats such as marine and freshwater environments, glaciers, and hot springs

question

microorganism

answer

a living thing ordinarily too small to be seen without magnification; an organism of microscopic size

question

microscopic

answer

invisible to the naked eye

question

immunology

answer

the study of the system of body defenses that protect against infection

question

epidemiology

answer

the study of the factors affecting the prevalence and spread of disease within a community

question

eucaryotes

answer

a cell that differs from a prokaryotic cell chiefly by having a nuclear membrane, organelles, and mitotic cell division

question

prokaryotes

answer

small cells, lacking special structures such as nucleus and organelles, all procaryotes are microorganisms

question

pathogen

answer

any agent, usually a virus, bacterium, fungus, protozoan, or helminth, that causes disease

question

hypotheses

answer

a tentative explanation of what has been observed or measured

question

theories

answer

a collection of statements, propositions, or concepts that explains or accounts for a natural event

question

Germ theory of disease

answer

a theory first originating in the 1800s which proposed that microorganisms can be the cause of diseases. The concept is actually so well established in the present time that it is considered a fact.

question

nomenclature

answer

a set system for scientifically naming organisms, enzymes, anatomical structures, etc.

question

domain

answer

in the levels of classification, the broadest general category to which an organism is assigned, members of a domain share only one or a few general characteristics

question

kingdom

answer

in the levels of classification, the second division from more general to more specific, each domain is divided into kingdoms

question

phylum

answer

in the levels of classification, the third level of classification from general to more specific, each kingdom is divided into numerous phyla, sometimes referred to a division

question

division

answer

in the levels of classification, an alternate term for phylum

question

class

answer

in the levels of classification, the division of organisms that follows phylum

question

order

answer

in the levels of classification, the division of organisms that follows class, increasingly similarity may be noticed among organisms assigned to the same order

question

family

answer

in the levels of classification, a mid-level division of organisms that groups more closely related organisms that previous levels, an order is divided into families

question

genus

answer

in the levels if classification, the second most specific level, a family is divided into several genera

question

species

answer

in the levels of classification, the most specific level of organization

question

binomial scientific names

answer

scientific method of assigning names to organisms that employs two names to identify every organism-genus plus species name

question

archaea

answer

procaryotic single-celled organisms of primitive origin that have unusual anatomy, physiology and genetics, and live in harsh habitats; when capitalized (Archaea) the term refers to one of the three domains of living organisms as proposed by Woese

question

eukarya

answer

one of the three domains (sometimes called superkingdoms) of living organisms, as proposed by Woese; contains all eukaryotiv organisms

question

eubacteria

answer

term used for non-archaea prokaryotes, stands for "true bacteria"

question

Disease-causing microorganisms are called

answer

pathogens

question

The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called

answer

procaryotes

question

When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called

answer

genetic engineering.

question

Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?

answer

mosquito

question

All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that

answer

are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.

question

Which activity is an example of biotechnology?

answer

humans using yeast to make beer and wine

question

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms?

answer

lack cell structure

question

The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was

answer

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.

question

Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that

answer

dust in air was a source of living microorganisms.

question

Spontaneous generation is the belief that

answer

living things arise from nonliving matter.

question

Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that

answer

a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.

question

Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?

answer

kingdom

question

A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eucaryote without cell walls. In which kingdom will it likely be classified?

answer

Protista

question

A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of

answer

epidemiology

question

Helminths are

answer

parasitic worms.

question

Organisms called parasites are

answer

always harmful to their host.

question

The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was

answer

Joseph Lister.

question

Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis?

answer

Robert Koch

question

When assigning a scientific name to an organism

answer

both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.

question

Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth?

answer

bacteria and fungi

question

The most common cause of death worldwide is

answer

heart disease.

question

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes?

answer

malaria

question

All of the following are correct about prokaryotes except

answer

they have organelles.

question

Which scientist discovered heat resistant bacterial spores?

answer

Ferdinand Cohn

question

Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of this bacterium?

answer

Staphylococcus aureus

question

When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called

answer

bioremediation.

question

The scientific field called _____ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.

answer

Taxonomy

question

Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed _____.

answer

Microorganisms

question

_____ are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering.

answer

Viruses

STUDY

Biology Microbiology Public Health

UNIT 8: VIRUSES AND BACTERIA (STUDY GUIDE) – Flashcards 52 terms

Ewan Knight

52 terms

Preview

UNIT 8: VIRUSES AND BACTERIA (STUDY GUIDE) – Flashcards

question

3 ways to protect from viral infection

answer

•Use of vaccines, •Stay away from sick people; •Safe practices.

question

Are viruses living/nonliving?

answer

Nonliving

question

Why are viruses considered nonliving?

answer

They are noncellular particles made up of genetic material that is not activated until injected into a host cell.

question

Lytic Cycle

answer

1) Take over the cell's machinery and hijacks it to transcribe the viral gene (using its own functions to make thousands of new viruses); 2) Cells lyse (burst), allowing viral particles to escape.

question

Lysogenic Cycle

answer

1) Integrated into the cell's chromosome; 2) Cells replicate with the virus that is passed on (may remain dormant, but could activate at any time, prompting the lytic cycle).

question

Retrovirus

answer

Infect a cell and produce a DNA copy of the virus' RNA.

question

2 examples of a retrovirus

answer

HIV, human T cell leukemia virus

question

Why is it so difficult to produce a vaccine for a retrovirus?

answer

RNA doesn't have the same proofreading mechanism as DNA, so mutations accumulate quickly; (Ex: why we need a new flu shot every year).

question

What is HIV? How does it infect humans? Which cells are targeted?

answer

•Human immunodeficiency virus; •Infects helper T cells; •Eventually, white blood cell count drops too low and AIDS develops.

question

Helper T cells as related to white blood cells...

answer

Lymphocytes that are a kind of white blood cell.

question

Vaccine

answer

Preparation of weakened or killed virus that stimulates the immune system to defend against the real virus in the future.

question

5 examples of viral diseases

answer

Common cold, influenza, AIDS, chicken pox, and West Nile virus

question

Bacteria reproduce asexually by a process known as ---.

answer

binary fission

question

Some bacteria have a primitive form of sexual reproduction known as CONJUNCTION. Describe what happens in the process.

answer

A hollow tube forms between two cells and they exchange genetic material.

question

Bacteria (domain)

answer

•More species than archaea; •Live almost anywhere (fresh/salt water, land, on and within humans/other eukaryotes); •Usually surrounded by cell wall containing peptidoglycan; (Ex: E. coli).

question

Archaea (domain)

answer

•Looks very similar to Bacteria domain (equally small, lack nucleus, have cell walls); •Lack peptidoglycan and the DNA sequences are more like eukaryotes than bacteria; •Live in extremely harsh environments; (Ex: anaerobes).

question

4 ways in which bacteria are useful to the environment or humans

answer

•Decompose dead organisms to supply raw material; •Produce energy that food chains everywhere are dependent on; •Converts atmospheric nitrogen to nitrogen used by organisms; •Produce foods, remove human waste and poisons from water.

question

3 ways in which bacterial diseases can be transmitted

answer

•Airborne: respiratory droplets (sneezing, coughing); •Physical contact; •Food/water contamination.

question

5 examples of bacterial diseases

answer

Lyme disease, tuberculosis, strep throat, tetanus, cholera

question

2 ways that bacteria cause the symptoms of disease

answer

•Damaging host tissues; •Releasing toxins.

question

List 5 methods used to control bacterial growth

answer

Physical removal, disinfectants, food storage, food processing, sterilization by heat

question

How are bacterial diseases treated?

answer

Antibiotics

question

Pathogen

answer

Disease-causing agent

question

Give two examples of pathogens

answer

Bacteria, virus (As well as prion, protozoa, viroid, fungi, parasite)

question

Nonspecific Defense

answer

•Don't target specific disease; wide range; •1st and 2nd line of defense; (Skin, mucus, fever).

question

Specific Defense

answer

•Attack particular pathogen; targeted response; •3rd line of defense; (Involves B and T cells).

question

Antigen

answer

Substance that sends the immune system into action.

question

Antibody

answer

Proteins produced to target a specific antigen and tags it for destruction; shape of antibody fits shape of antigen (lock and key): humoral.

question

Mucus

answer

Traps pathogens in the nose and throat.

question

Fever

answer

Increases body temperature to slow the growth of pathogens.

question

Interferon

answer

Inhibits the making of viral proteins and helps block viral replication.

question

Cilia

answer

Push pathogens away from lungs.

question

Inflammatory Response

answer

Increases flow of white blood cells and fluids to an area.

question

Humoral Response

answer

The branch of acquired immunity that involves the activation of B cells and that leads to the production of antibodies, which destroy antigens using "lock and key"; in body fluids/bloodstream.

question

Cell-Mediated Response

answer

The branch of acquired immunity that involves the activation of cytotoxic T cells, which defend against infected cells; cell eats the antigen.

question

It is not always easy to determine if a patient has a bacterial infection or a viral infection. How could this contribute to the misuse of medications?

answer

Vaccines don't respond to antibiotics, so using them when it's not necessary can contribute to bacterial resistance.

question

Active Immunity

answer

•Body FORMS antibodies from exposure to pathogen; •Long lived.

question

Passive Immunity

answer

•Body GIVEN antibodies from the memory cells of another person; •Short lived.

question

3 ways to prevent the spread of infectious disease.

answer

Vaccination, washing hands, clean water

question

Both viruses and bacteria are infectious diseases; true/false.

answer

True

question

Emerging Disease

answer

New disease that appears or an old one that reappears.

question

Describe 2 reasons we are seeing an emergence of new diseases, or the re-emergence of diseases that were once completely gone.

answer

1) Changing interactions with animals (converging habitats, exotic animal trade); 2) Misuse of medications (bacterial resistance).

question

Type of virus that infects bacterial cells

answer

Bacteriophage

question

Cocci

answer

Spherical bacteria

question

Methanogens

answer

Prokaryotes that synthesize methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen gas.

question

Spirilli

answer

Spiral shaped bacteria

question

Bacilli

answer

Rod shaped bacteria

question

All bacteria are classified as ---.

answer

Prokaryotes

question

Why are antibiotics only effective for bacterial infections, not viral infections?

answer

Antibiotics destroy the call wall of the bacteria, but viruses only infect body cells, which have no cell wall to destroy.

question

Any change, other than an injury, that causes a change in the normal function of the body system is called a ---.

answer

Disease

question

A strong response by the immune system to a harmless antigen is called an ---.

answer

Allergy

question

Antigen vs. pathogen

answer

•Antigen: substance that triggers the response of an antibody; •Pathogen: disease-causing agent.

STUDY

Microbiology West Nile Virus Western Europe

Intro To Public Health Final Exam – Flashcards 194 terms

Marlon Riddle

194 terms

Preview

Intro To Public Health Final Exam – Flashcards

question

Vaccines are an example of:

answer

Primary prevention

question

Epidemiology is part of what function of public health?

answer

Assessment

question

Primary prevention refers to:

answer

Prevention of exposure to risk factors

question

seat belt laws are an example of:

answer

secondary prevention

question

public health focuses on ___ of disease and ___ of health

answer

prevention; promotion

question

enforcing laws and regulations falls under which core function of public health?

answer

assurance

question

the core functions of public health are:

answer

assessment, policy development, and assurance

question

public health focuses on populations, whereas medicine focuses on individuals

answer

true

question

People's behavior is strongly influenced by their ____

answer

social environment

question

public health measures that contribute most to people being healthier today than they were a century ago are:

answer

sanitation, better nutrition, and occupational safety

question

Restricting the legal drinking age in the US to 21 is an example of:

answer

paternalism

question

what expresses the social justice view of public health?

answer

members of a community have collective responsibility for their common welfare

question

restricting individual freedoms for public health purposes is unconstitutional

answer

false

question

what example of justification for limiting people's freedom is likely to be the most controversial?

answer

to prevent someone from harming himself

question

what statement best expresses the market justice view?

answer

every adult individual is responsible for his/her own lot in life

question

the lesson of the "tragedy of the commons" for public health is that:

answer

under some circumstances, individuals in a community may profit by agreeing as a group to limit each person's freedom to act

question

what could be considered primarily an attempt to legislate morality

answer

laws against homosexuality

question

Many public health measures have a negative economic impact on an industry. In some cases, public health advocates would consider this economic impact to be an acceptable consequence. However, sometimes this economic impact may have mixed consequences for public health. What is most likely to have negative as well as positive results for public health?

answer

effect of banning pesticide use on the agriculture industry

question

the costs of public health measures are easier to calculate than are the benefits

answer

true

question

What measure to limit the freedom of adults in the name of public health has not been taken by the U.S. or state governments?

answer

laws against smoking cigarettes

question

Legislatures:

answer

do not have the power to restrict the actions of public health agencies

question

which governmental organization is the main assessment and epidemiological agency for the nation?

answer

CDC

question

The federal government:

answer

sometimes uses the interstate commerce provision of the Constitution to protect the health of the population

question

The level of government that, according to the Constitution, has the primary responsibility for the health of the population is:

answer

state

question

What are some of the FDA's responsibilities?

answer

evaluate new drugs, ensure the safety of foods, and regulate vaccines and diagnostic tests

question

What are some of the NIH's responsibilities?

answer

conduct research on the basic physiology of diseases, test experimental medical therapies, and operate a reference library for medical information

question

What agencies are part of the Department of Health and Human Services?

answer

NIH, FDA, CDC

question

The U.S. Constitution authorizes the federal government to do which activities relevant to public health?

answer

tax and spend

question

What carries out core public health functions, such as sanitation?

answer

local public health agencies

question

what are parts of the CDC's responsibilities?

answer

identify behavioral health hazards, control the spread of infectious diseases, and publish MMWR

question

The Framingham Heart Study identified these as risk factors for heart disease:

answer

High cholesterol, high blood pressure, smoking

question

routine data collected by the british government enabled Snow to recognize the cause of cholera

answer

true

question

john Snow is called the father of modern epidemiology because:

answer

He was the first to use epidemiology by recognizing a natural experiment was occurring.

question

Epidemiological data can be used to directly develop policy and influence population health: T/F

answer

True

question

from an epidemiological perspective, what are some factors of chronic diseases?

answer

They usually have more than one cause, they usually take a long time to develop, they are more difficult to study than infectious diseases

question

The main purpose of epidemiological surveillance is:

answer

to recognize when an outbreak is occurring so that control measures may be instituted

question

what were some findings of the British Doctors Study?

answer

death rates from lung cancer increased with the amount smoked, death rates from lung cancer were lower in ex-smokers than current smokers, and deaths from heart attacks were higher in heavy smokers

question

What are some facts about epidemiology?

answer

it studies disease occurrence in humans, it is a component of the assessment function of public health, and its objective is primarily to determine the causes of disease

question

What is true of heart disease?

answer

moderate alcohol consumption protects against heart disease

question

What are some facts about the Framingham Heart Study?

answer

it found that smokers' risks of heart disease drops to normal after they quit, publicity about its findings helped to change people's health - related behavior, and it found that high bp is associated with weight gain

question

an epidemic curve illustrates which questions of disease distribution?

answer

when

question

The Long Island Breast Cancer Study tested the hypothesis that environmental pollution was causing the relatively high rates of breast cancer among residents of Suffolk and Nassau counties of New York. Epidemiologists identified a group of 1,420 women who were diagnosed with breast cancer between 1984 and 1986 and compared their residential histories over a 20 year period with those of a matched group of healthy women. What kind of epidemiologic study was this?

answer

case-control

question

what is part of the "who" question of disease distribution?

answer

age, sex, and race

question

the nurses' health study is what kind of study?

answer

cohort

question

Researchers want to identify the impact of cholesterol on the development of heart disease. They follow individuals who are vegan, vegetarian, and meat-eaters for 10 years and they record if any of them experience a heart attack. What kind of epidemiologic study was this?

answer

cohort

question

Smoking is a(n) ____ of lung cancer

answer

determinant

question

The New York State Health Department reported in 1997 that the death rate for AIDS in the state had fallen over the past year due to the efficacy of the new drugs. The incidence of HIV remained constant. What happened to the prevalence of HIV infections?

answer

It increased

question

An epidemiologist investigating an outbreak of encephalitis in New York City reports that there have been 17 new cases this week. Which of the following terms best describes the number he reports?

answer

Incidence of encephalitis

question

When epidemiologists are called on to investigate an outbreak of an infectious disease, what is the first thing they must do?

answer

agree on a case definition

question

International comparisons of cancer mortality suggest that which of the following factors accounts for differences among countries in colon and rectum cancer?

answer

diet

question

What is a common source of error in a large cohort study?

answer

confounding variables

question

what is a common source of error in a small epidemiologic study?

answer

random variation

question

In a case-control study that found an association between breast cancer and air pollution, 500 women who had recently been diagnosed were asked what industries were within a mile of their home twenty years ago. The controls were 500 healthy women. What is the most likely source of error in this study?

answer

reporting bias

question

what is a common source of error in a large case-control study?

answer

subjects do not remember their past exposure

question

what is an Institutional Review Board (IRB)?

answer

a committee that ensures studies are well designed and ethical

question

In an intervention study to determine whether a vegetarian diet can help college women to lose weight, 500 residents of a women's dormitory were divided into two groups: one that ate in a vegetarian dining hall and one that ate a normal diet. Women were allowed to choose which group they wished to be in. After three months, the vegetarian group had lost an average of 10 pounds while the control group had not lost weight. What is the most likely source of error in this study?

answer

selection bias

question

what has been proven effective as a treatment for the disease indicated?

answer

penicillin for syphilis

question

what is a common source of error in a large randomized controlled trial?

answer

subjects do not adhere to the prescribed regimen

question

In a cohort study that found an association between alcohol consumption and bladder cancer, 20,000 middle-aged men were asked about their drinking habits and then tracked for five years to watch for the development of cancer. Researchers asked the men about their diet and exercise habits, but not about smoking. What is the most likely source of error in this study?

answer

confounding variable

question

it is hard to conduct studies with human participants because:

answer

it is hard to control human behavior, people may not have the motivation to adhere to the study protocols, and people may lie about their behavior during the study

question

a low p-value means:

answer

there's a low probability that the result occurred by chance

question

the death rate in Florida is higher than the death rate in Alaska because:

answer

the population in Florida is older

question

to avoid false positives in a screening program to detect pregnancy, a test must be:

answer

highly specific

question

which of the following is the definition of the birth rate?

answer

the number of live births per 1,000 people

question

If you want to compare death rates in two cities with populations that are different from one another with respect to age, you should compare:

answer

age adjusted death rates

question

what is true about risk assessment?

answer

it includes a judgment of the probability that a harmful event will occur

question

to avoid false negatives in a screening program to detect breast cancer among women over 50 years of age, the test must be

answer

highly sensitive

question

a concept used as a measure of premature mortality is:

answer

YPLL

question

the birth rate of a population in the U.S. will be affected by all of the following:

answer

age of the population, proportion of females in the population, and ethnicity of the population

question

what cause of death has the greatest impact on YPLL?

answer

suicide

question

What is true about data relevant to infant mortality?

answer

birth certificates contain info that may help to explain why an infant dies, the info on birth certificates is used mainly for public health research, and birth certificates contain info on when the mother first received prenatal care

question

What is true of the BRFSS?

answer

The data is self-reported by the individuals who are interviewed

question

data is collected on all of the following events as a part of vital statistics:

answer

births, abortions, deaths

question

all of the following categories of people are likely to be missed in the Census:

answer

poor minorities, illegal aliens, homeless

question

what pieces of data are part of the vital statistics system?

answer

births, dissolutions of marriage, and deaths

question

what is true of the U.S. Census?

answer

it obtains more details about the population by conducting the American Community Survey; starting in the 2000 census, people were allowed to check more than one race, and in the 2010 Census, everyone was sent the same, short form

question

What vital statistics record are linked to give additional public health information?

answer

births and infant deaths

question

census data can be used for:

answer

determining sex specific rates or race specific rates; tracking trends in interracial marriage; and determining age-adjusted and age-specific rates

question

the National Center for Health Statistics is part of which of the following agencies:

answer

CDC

question

which population health surveys does not rely on people to report their own health?

answer

national health and nutrition examination survey

question

What are some factors of measles?

answer

it requires a repeat vaccination to be effective, it is caused by a virus, it can be fatal

question

what are some diseases caused by a virus?

answer

polio, rabies, small pox, west nile, yellow fever, aids, cold, hepatitis, influenza, and measles

question

which disease can be treated with antibiotics successfully? Typhoid, Malaria, Smallpox, or Rabies?

answer

typhoid

question

what is a method of interrupting the chain of infection?

answer

immunization, hand washing, quarantine

question

what diseases are caused by bacteria?

answer

cholera, diphtheria, dysentary, plague, pneumonia, staph, strep, syphilis, tetanus, typhoid, tuberculosis

question

infectious diseases are caused by...

answer

pathogens

question

which disease is not considered eradicable? Rabies, measles, polio, smallpox

answer

rabies

question

Herd immunity works by emphasizing the philosophy that vaccination of the___________ provides protection to __________ individuals.

answer

majority; unvaccinated

question

which disease is transmitted by a vector? malaria, typhoid, tuberculosis, aids

answer

malaria

question

What is the only virus to be eradicated worldwide?

answer

smallpox

question

Which bacteria has a reservoir in water towers used for air conditioning?

answer

Legionnaire's disease

question

With which of the following diseases would you be most likely to be infected if you were stuck in an elevator for several hours with a patient suffering from the disease? Cholera, Malaria, aids, tuberculosis

answer

tuberculosis

question

HIV can be transmitted by:

answer

being pricked by a contaminated hypodermic needle, heterosexual intercourse with an infected person, homosexual intercourse with an infected male

question

What practices contribute to widespread antibiotic resistance?

answer

physicians prescribing antibiotics for viral infections, routine use of antibiotics in animal feed, and easy spread of hospital acquired infections

question

The flu vaccine must be changed every year based on specific strains that are circulating worldwide. T/F

answer

True

question

These viruses originate in animals and spread readily among humans:

answer

West Nile virus, hantavirus, and SARS

question

people infected with a prion can be easily treated. T/F

answer

False

question

Which practices are effective in preventing HIV transmission?

answer

use of clean needles for injections, using condoms for sex, treating pregnant women with antiretroviral drugs

question

scientists believe that all of the following are responsible for the emergence of new infections:

answer

ecological change, changing social conditions, and inappropriate use of antibiotics

question

In an HIV positive person, exposure to what can lead to HIV transmission?

answer

Breast milk

question

A high fat diet increases the risk of:

answer

Cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular disease

question

According to the genetic screening guidelines from the Institute of Medicine (IOM), newborn screening should only be done when:

answer

it benefits the newborn, it can confirm disease diagnosis, and treatment is available for the infants

question

Diabetes increases the risk of cancer T/F

answer

False

question

the main sources of cholesterol in the american diet are:

answer

eggs, meat, and milk

question

congenital anomalies may be caused by:

answer

some bacteria and viruses, some drugs and chemicals, genetics

question

What are some known teratogens?

answer

tetracycline, alcohol, diethylstilbesterol (DES)

question

what are some conditions associated with cardiovascular disease?

answer

atherosclerosis, hypertension, high LDL

question

smoking is known to increase the risk of all the following diseases:

answer

cardiovascular disease, bladder cancer, lung cancer

question

Sickle cell disease is caused by which kind of gene?

answer

recessive

question

Most conditions tested for in newborn screening programs are autosomal recessive T/F

answer

True

question

some cancers are caused by viruses T/F

answer

True

question

According to the CDC, it is safe for pregnant women to consume small amounts of alcohol throughout their pregnancies. T/F

answer

False

question

Huntington is caused by which kind of gene?

answer

Dominant gene

question

Which cancer can be prevented by immunization?

answer

cervical

question

Which pathogens are known causes of birth defects?

answer

syphilis, rubella, toxoplasma parasite

question

diet has not been implicated as a cause of which of the following diseases? Cardiovascular disease, type 1/2 diabetes, cancer

answer

type 1 diabetes

question

What is a goal of genomic medicine?

answer

to create specialized drug regimens based on genetic makeup

question

What is a practical application of the human genome project?

answer

predicting individuals' response to therapeutic drugs

question

The risk of which diseases increase with age?

answer

cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, cancer

question

The intrapersonal level in the ecological model of health behavior is most influenced by which of the following factors? self efficacy, school/work, family/friend, laws

answer

self efficacy

question

people of low SES are to blame for their poor health T/F

answer

False

question

Black Americans tend to have lower SES than whites. T/F

answer

True

question

African Americans and whites of the same socioeconomic status are equally healthy or unhealthy. T/F

answer

False

question

African Americans and Hispanics are on average poorer than whites. T/F

answer

true

question

What are some responses to the war on drugs?

answer

financial incentives for drug dealers, increased rates of incarceration for minor drug offenses, high prices of drugs

question

Which educational efforts by the government has been shown to significantly reduce the prevalence of the targeted behavior?

answer

surgeon general's 1964 report on smoking and health

question

high SES is associated with what factors that affect health behavior?

answer

high educational level, strong social support, high self efficacy

question

recent thinking about promotion of health behavior focuses on which factors?

answer

the social environment

question

which factor is associated with self efficacy?

answer

a sense of control over one's behavior

question

The model that describes five levels of influence on health behavior (interpersonal, intrapersonal, institutional, community, and public policy) is called what:

answer

ecological model

question

poor people have higher mortality rates for all of the following reasons:

answer

poor nutrition, adverse environmental conditions, more stress

question

A program that is effective in getting people to change their health-related behavior must convey all of the following messages:

answer

there is something that i could do that would reduce my risk, i am at risk, i am strong enough to make these changes

question

which of the following actual causes of death is least under the control of individual behavior? poor diet and inactivity, misuse of alcohol, tobacco, toxic agents

answer

toxic agents

question

Which factor is considered the leading ACTUAL cause of death in the US?

answer

tobacco

question

socioeconomic status is determined by all of the following:

answer

education, income, occupation

question

Which model describes perceived severity, susceptibility, barriers, and benefits?

answer

health belief model

question

The model that describes five stages of change of health behavior (precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance) is called which of the following

answer

transtheoretical model

question

Which of the following diseases is not known to be -- in part at least -- preventable by practicing healthy behavior? cancer, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, arthritis

answer

arthritis

question

the most important predictor of overall health is:

answer

socioeconomic status

question

poor diet and inactivity contribute to all of the following causes of death:

answer

diabetes, cancer, cardiovascular disease

question

Which intervention has proven most successful in reducing the prevalence of smoking among young people?

answer

raising cigarette taxes

question

All of the following factors have contributed to a reduction in the prevalence of smoking:

answer

laws against smoking in indoor public places, taxes, evidence that tobacco companies use dishonest practices to hook new users

question

All of the following public health measures to increase physical activity have had success in some places:

answer

walking school bus, aerobic dance programs in school, pedometers

question

Cigarette smoking is known to be a major cause of death and disability from all of the following diseases:

answer

heart disease, low birthweight, cancer

question

All of the following factors contributed to the increasing prevalence of smoking in the first half of the 20th century:

answer

fallacy of women's immunity, distribution of free cigarettes to soldiers, mass marketing campaigns

question

lack of physical activity raises the risk of all of the following:

answer

high blood pressure, death from cardiovascular disease, diabetes

question

the cause of the greatest number of deaths annually in the US is:

answer

smoking-related diseases

question

Which food/drink contribute the most to overweight in children?

answer

soft drinks

question

nicotine is a carcinogen T/F

answer

False

question

The 2009 Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act permits all of the following actions by the FDA:

answer

restriction on advertising of cigarettes, requirement for disclosure of ingredients of cigarettes, regulation of nicotine in cigarettes

question

Cigarette companies purposefully manipulate nicotine levels in order to make cigarettes more addictive to consumers. T/F

answer

True

question

The Body Mass Index is a standard measure used by health professionals to determine health risks associated with obesity. T/F

answer

True

question

All of the following public health measures to combat obesity have been implemented in some places:

answer

"5-a-Day" educational campaigns, requirements for food labeling, weight report cards

question

federal guidelines recommend that americans eat more of all these foods:

answer

whole grains, fruits, veggies, low fat milk products

question

Weight carried in the midsection is less harmful to health than extra weight in the hips. T/F

answer

False

question

The percentage of Americans who are overweight has increased over the past two decades T/F

answer

True

question

Federal guidelines recommend that Americans eat less of all these foods:

answer

sweetened beverages, processed foods, meat

question

All of the following factors contributed to the tobacco industry's agreement to the Master Settlement Agreement:

answer

lawsuit by state attorneys general, publication of tobacco industry internal documents, lawsuits by injured smokers

question

Cigarette advertising on television was banned in agreement with the Federal Communications Commission. T/F

answer

True

question

The Master Settlement Agreement included these provisions:

answer

restrictions on billboard advertising, payment of $206 billion to 46 states over a 25 year period, creation of the American Legacy Foundation

question

Which component of tobacco smoke keeps people addicted?

answer

Nicotine

question

What is a method of secondary prevention of motor vehicle injuries?

answer

Airbags

question

The only way to prevent firearms injuries is to ban guns T/F

answer

False

question

Use of guns accounts for the high rates of suicide among American adolescents T/F

answer

True

question

These are methods of primary prevention of motor vehicle injuries:

answer

laws that require annual inspection of automobile brakes, divided highways, laws against drunk driving

question

Old people have higher injury rates than young people T/F

answer

False

question

African Americans have higher injury rates than whites T/F

answer

True

question

Traumatic brain injuries are common in these instances:

answer

boxers, motor vehicle crashes, football players

question

Substandard housing increases the risk of house fires T/F

answer

True

question

Poor people are more likely to use cell phones while driving T/F

answer

False

question

The leading cause of occupational injury death is:

answer

motor vehicle crashes

question

These contribute to motor vehicle injuries:

answer

youth, alcohol, cell phone use

question

What are some effects of population?

answer

social breakdown, emerging infections, global warming

question

Which group of Americans do not have a right to medical care? Children, Veterans, the elderly, children

answer

children

question

This was created as a federal insurance program for the poor?

answer

Medicaid

question

The world population...

answer

Is currently at about 7 billion, is growing rapidly, growth rate is decreasing

question

The earth's capacity is limited by all of the following:

answer

amount and productivity of the land, amount and disposition of wastes, supply and availability of fresh water

question

The U.N. has decided that the best strategy for controlling population growth is:

answer

ensuring women's rights

question

All of the following approaches to controlling medicare spending have been tried:

answer

DRGs, Price controls, Managed care

question

Demographic transition is the phenomenon where...

answer

birth rates fall because of falling death rates

question

All of the following programs were created to provide medical care for the poor:

answer

local health department clinics, community health centers, medicaid

question

Which effect of population growth has not yet occurred? depletion of fish stocks, depletion of soil, water shortages, global population control

answer

global population control

question

more money is spent on medical care than on public health T/F

answer

true

question

This federal program was created for individuals over the age of 65

answer

Medicare

question

What is defensive medicine?

answer

Ordering more diagnostic tests and procedures than necessary to safeguard doctors' practices

question

Public health improvements have contributed to world population growth T/F

answer

True

question

Public health in the United States is not affected by population growth in developing countries T/F

answer

False

question

The percentage of Americans who lack health insurance is higher than that in other industrialized countries T/F

answer

True

question

Most Americans who lack health insurance are over 65 T/F

answer

False

question

Which of the following countries have the highest birth rate? US, Russia, Sub-saharan Africa, East Asia

answer

Sub-saharan africa

question

Sick individuals requiring life saving treatment can be turned away from emergency rooms if they are unable to pay for medical services. T/F

answer

False

question

Immunization for school children is required by law T/F

answer

True

question

The US pays more health care costs than all other countries T/F

answer

True

question

Most Americans' health insurance is paid for by:

answer

their employers

STUDY

Biology Infectious Disease Microbiology Microbiology For Health Sciences

CHAPTER 1 History of Microbiology – Flashcards 82 terms

Tyree Bender

82 terms

Preview

CHAPTER 1 History of Microbiology – Flashcards

question

False

answer

Gene therapy is a modern approach to preventing infectious disease

question

he grouped all organisms into only two categories

answer

Modern biologists had to revise Linnaeus's system of taxonomy because __________.

question

bioremediation

answer

Which of the following fields of modern microbiology is NOT directly concerned with the genetic characteristics of a cell?

question

genetic engineering

answer

Inserting a gene from the hepatitis B virus into yeast so that the yeast produces a viral protein is an example of

question

Nightingale, Semmelweis and Lister

answer

All of the following individuals showed that cleanliness played a role in human disease

question

They both explored the use of chemicals in the prevention and treatment of infectious diseases

answer

What did the work of Lister and Ehrlich have in common?

question

immunology.

answer

The study of the body's defenses against pathogens is called

question

etiology.

answer

The study of the causation of disease is known as:

question

IV, I, II, V, III

answer

Put the following events in the history of microbiology in order, from the earliest to the latest: I. Leeuwenhoek observes microbes using a microscope. II. Pasteur disproves spontaneous generation. III. Woese discovers the archaea. IV. Fracastoro proposes that "germs" cause disease. V. Ehrlich discovers the first "magic bullet."

question

What causes disease, and is spontaneous generation of microbes possible?

answer

Which of the following questions largely stimulated the research of microbes during what is known as the Golden Age of Microbiology?

question

-the cause of tuberculosis -the cause of anthrax. - development of a method to prove the cause of an infectious disease. -techniques for isolating microbes in the laboratory.

answer

Robert Koch was involved in research on all of the following topics

question

nosocomial

answer

The term __________ refers to an infection acquired in a health care setting.

question

prokaryotes.

answer

Microorganisms characterized by the absence of a nucleus are called:

question

-algae: aquatic and marine habitats -viruses: acellular parasites -prokaryotes: no nuclei -fungi: cell walls

answer

the following are correct pairing?

question

epidemiology.

answer

The study of the occurrence, distribution, and spread of disease is known as:

question

-yeast can grow in sealed or open flasks of grape juice. -bacteria produce acid in grape juice. -yeast cells can grow and reproduce in grape juice. -yeast can grow with or without oxygen.

answer

the following are the observation Pasteur made concerning the fermentation of grape juice?

question

fermentation

answer

The microbial production of alcohol from sugar is known as

question

mushrooms molds yeasts

answer

The following are the example of a fungus.

question

they are the microbes most similar to plants

answer

the following are characteristic of protozoa

question

viral

answer

The first true vaccine protected against disease caused by a ________ pathogen.

question

c, a, b, d

answer

Put the following steps of Koch's postulates in order: a. The suspected infectious agent must be isolated and grown outside the host. b. The suspected infectious agent causes the disease when it is introduced to a healthy, susceptible animal. c. The suspected infectious agent must be found in every case of the disease. d. The suspected infectious agent must be found in the diseased experimental host.

question

True

answer

Koch's postulates can be used only to prove the causes of infectious diseases.

question

Needham

answer

Which of the following scientists provided evidence in favor of the concept of spontaneous generation?

question

The disease is prevented by vaccination

answer

Which of the following NOT true for both hepatitis B and hepatitis C infection?

question

Both can be prevented by a vaccine.

answer

What do hepatitis A and hepatitis B have in common?

question

liver

answer

What organ is most affected by hepatitis B virus?

question

they cause diseases that are diagnosed by finding microscopic eggs in clinical specimens

answer

Microbiologists study parasitic worms because __________.

question

Needham

answer

Whose experiments seemingly proved the existence of a "life force"?

question

They have no nucleus

answer

How are the bacteria and the archaea different from all the other cellular microbes?

question

they are the microbes most similar to plants.

answer

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of protozoa?

question

enzymes.

answer

Proteins that promote chemical reactions in the cell are called

question

both infection control and epidemiology

answer

John Snow's research during a cholera outbreak in London laid the foundation for which of the following branches of microbiology?

question

False

answer

Joseph Lister reduced the incidence of wound infections in health care settings by using chlorinated lime water.

question

anthrax

answer

What was the first disease proven to be bacterial in origin?

question

view protozoa and bacteria

answer

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to

question

syphilis.

answer

Paul Ehrlich used chemotherapy to treat

question

True

answer

Lazzaro Spallanzani was the first scientist to provide evidence disproving the spontaneous generation of microorganisms.

question

protozoa

answer

The microbes commonly known as ________ are single-celled eukaryotes that are generally motile.

question

bioremediation

answer

The term for the use of microorganisms to restore damaged environments is:

question

-Koch. - Pasteur. - Snow. -Fracastoro

answer

All of the following were involved in developing the germ theory of disease

question

fungus

answer

Saccharomyces cerevisiae is an example of which of the following types of microbes?

question

Bacteria

answer

The organisms infecting Martin are unicellular and do not have a nucleus. They are extremely small but can be seen with a light microscope when stained. Which of the following categories of microorganisms would they be classified in?

question

Epidemiology

answer

Martin has cholera, a disease that played a key role in good public health hygiene standards. Snow's research into cholera outbreaks in London provided the foundation for what branches of Microbiology?

question

molecular biology

answer

A toxin made by certain strains of Vibrio cholera produce the serious gastrointestinal symptoms and water loss characterized by cholera. The study of that toxin, its biochemistry, and its effect on human cells would be called ______________.

question

Linnaeus

answer

Which of the following scientists was the first to develop a taxonomic system for classifying organisms?

question

puerperal fever

answer

Semmelweis advocated handwashing as a method of preventing which of the following diseases?

question

-they are composed of genetic material and protein. -they are acellular. -they are smaller than prokaryotic cells. -they are obligatory parasites

answer

Which of the following are the characteristic of viruses?

question

Pauling

answer

Who was the scientist who first hypothesized that gene sequences could provide new insights into evolutionary relationships between organisms such as microbes?

question

True

answer

Christian Gram devised a staining technique that divides all bacteria into two groups.

question

-they provide most of the oxygen on Earth. -they are a source of food for aquatic and marine animals -the group includes seaweeds and kelps. -they are photosynthetic organisms

answer

the following statements about algae are true

question

Buchner

answer

Which of the following scientists showed that fermentation does not require living cells?

question

False

answer

The production of human blood-clotting factor by E. coli is an example of bioremediation.

question

True

answer

Fermentation can occur in the absence of living cells.

question

developing methods for reducing nosocomial infections.

answer

The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious disease by

question

fungus

answer

A microorganism has the following characteristics: eukaryotic, multicellular, has cell walls, and grows in long filaments. What is its general classification?

question

he eliminated air from his flasks by sealing them

answer

Spallanzani's experiments concerning spontaneous generation were not universally accepted because __________.

question

Winogradsky and Beijerinck Winogradsky studied the microbial recycling of sulfur in the environment, while Beijerinck studied the nitrogen cycle in bacteria.

answer

Which of the following groups of scientists did NOT contribute to research in microbial genetics?

question

False

answer

Robert Koch developed a vaccine to prevent anthrax after identifying the causative agent.

question

Snow. Lister. Semmelweis Nightingale.

answer

All of the following individuals were involved in improving public health in the 19th century

question

The necks of the flasks he used were bent into an S-shape. The flasks were free of microbes until they were opened. He boiled the infusions to kill any microbes present. The flasks were incubated for very long periods of time.

answer

the following are the aspect of Pasteur's experiments to disprove spontaneous generation?

question

plants and animals

answer

Which of the following taxonomic kingdoms were recognized by Linnaeus?

question

Fleming

answer

Who discovered penicillin?

question

both fungi and bacteria

answer

The microbial activity of ________ is responsible for the production of various foods.

question

fungi are photosynthetic

answer

Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE?

question

He developed the first microscope

answer

What was Leeuwenhoek's contribution to the science of microbiology?

question

serology

answer

The term __________ means the study of the blood components that fight infection.

question

True

answer

Walter Reed proved that a virus causes yellow fever in humans.

question

antisepsis.

answer

The term that literally means "against putrefaction" is:

question

Aristotle

answer

Who first promulgated the theory of abiogenesis

question

Robert Koch

answer

Who hypothesixed that a bacterial colony arises from a sigle bacterial cell

question

Ignaz Semmelweis

answer

Who first hypothesized that medical personnel can infect patients with pathogens

question

animalcules

answer

Leeuwenthok described microorganisms as

question

an enrionmental microbiolgist

answer

A scientist who studes tha role of microorganisms in the environment is

question

-simple staining technique -use of Petri dishes -first photomicrograph of bacteria

answer

The laboratoy of robert Koch contributed the following to the microbiology

question

Biochemistry

answer

Louis Pasteur and Eduard Buchner

question

-Biotechnology and food microbiology -Germ theory of disease 'Father of Microbiology"

answer

Louis Pasteur

question

Enrironmental microbiology

answer

Martinus Beijerinck and Sergei Winogradsky

question

Etiology First photomicrograph of bacteria

answer

Robert Koch

question

sought a " magic bullet" to destroy pathogens

answer

Paul Ehrlich

question

Discover of bacteria Discover of protozoa

answer

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

question

Developed smallpox immunization " founder of antiseptic surgery"

answer

Edward Jenner

question

developed the most widely used bacterial staining technique

answer

Hans Christian Gram

STUDY

AP Biology Biology Cell Biology Compound Light Microscope Microbiology Optical Physics

Biology: Cellular Processes – Flashcards 110 terms

Jacoby Flores

110 terms

Preview

Biology: Cellular Processes – Flashcards

question

What do scanning electron microscopes and transmission electron microscopes have in common? Both generate three-dimensional images. Both offer magnification to the atomic level. Both are used to view the parts of a cell. Both require a vacuum.

answer

vacuum

question

According to the cell theory, which structure contains cells? blood water carbon dioxide chromosome

answer

blood

question

The study of which structure was instrumental in the formulation of the modern cell theory? plant cell animal cell cell membrane DNA molecule

answer

DNA molecule

question

Which is a part of the cell theory? cells come from pre-existing cells cells have a nucleus organisms with one cell must be seen with a microscope organisms must have more than one cell to live

answer

pre-existing cells

question

Which microscope uses a series of lenses to magnify an object in steps? electron microscope simple microscope compound light microscope scanning microscope

answer

compound light

question

Which statement best explains why cells were observed in more detail using a compound microscope than a simple microscope? A compound microscope has greater magnification ability than a simple microscope. The compound microscope was invented before the simple microscope. A compound microscope is much easier to manufacture than a simple microscope. Compound microscopes were more common than simple microscopes.

answer

compound has greater magnification ability

question

What was Rudolph Virchow's contribution to the cell theory? He concluded that all cells come from preexisting cells. He concluded that cells are the basic units of structure and function of all living things. He concluded that all organisms are composed of cells. He concluded that all cells are similar in composition and metabolic activities.

answer

all cells come from pre-existing cells

question

Which microscope is often used to view metal surfaces? scanning electron microscope scanning tunneling microscope transmission electron microscope compound light microscope

answer

scanning tunneling

question

Which experiments led to changes to the original cell theory? experiments that showed that blood cells transport gases, waste, and nutrients throughout the body experiments that showed that all cells are similar in how they metabolize and in their composition experiments that transplanted synthetic chromosomes into bacterial cells to create a new species experiments that established the existence of single-celled organisms and microbes

answer

experiments that showed that all cells are similar in how they metabolize and in their composition

question

Which microscope did Anton van Leeuwenhoek use to observe single-celled organisms? simple microscope compound light microscope electron microscope tunneling microscope

answer

simple

question

Which discovery supported the endosymbiotic theory? DNA in mitochondria DNA in the cell nucleus DNA in ribosomes DNA in the cytoplasm

answer

mitochondria

question

Based on the endosymbiotic theory, what cell would result from the endosymbiosis of a cell with a cyanobacterium? a eukaryotic cell that can make its own food a prokaryotic cell that can make its own food an aerobic bacterium an anaerobic bacterium

answer

euk. can make own food

question

which statement is least likely to support the endosymbiotic theory? Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce independently from the cell. Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own ribosomes. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have DNA that resembles bacterial DNA. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are much larger than prokaryotic cells.

answer

much larger than prok. cells

question

Which structure is unique to eukaryotic cells? DNA cell membrane ribosomes nucleus

answer

nucleus

question

The discovery of mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) had no effect on which area of scientific investigation? endosymbiotic theory inheritance research forensic science study of cork bark

answer

cork bark

question

A scientist is studying a cell and can clearly see that it has ribosomes and mitochondria. Which statement best describes how the cell could be classified? The cell is prokaryotic because it contains ribosomes. The cell is prokaryotic because it contains mitochondria. The cell is eukaryotic because it contains ribosomes. The cell is eukaryotic because it contains mitochondria

answer

euk, contains mitochondria

question

What is the basic unit of structure and function of all living organisms? mitochondrion DNA nucleus cell

answer

cell

question

The endosymbiotic theory helps to explain the origin of which structures? mitochondria ribosomes nuclei cell membranes

answer

mitochondria

question

A student wonders whether removing the nucleus from a cell would result in a new prokaryotic cell. Why would this procedure fail to produce a prokaryotic cell? The cell would lack genetic information. The cell would lack the structure that is needed to produce proteins. The cell would lack the structure that is needed to protect the cell's organelles. The cell would lack control over materials that move into and out of the cell.

answer

lack genetic information

question

Which best describes mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA)? Mitochondrial DNA is the same as nuclear DNA. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited through the father. Mitochondrial DNA can be traced for generations. Mitochondrial DNA requires large amounts for testing

answer

traced for generations

question

For diffusion to occur, which condition must be met? A concentration gradient must exist. A hypotonic external environment is required. A hypertonic external environment is required. Dynamic equilibrium must exist.

answer

A concentration gradient must exist

question

Which solution would most likely cause a plant placed in it to become firmer and more rigid? hypertonic hypotonic isotonic osmotic

answer

hypontonic

question

Which adaptation is used by polar bears to maintain internal homeostasis in cold temperatures? three layers of fur blubber finding shade underground white skin

answer

three layers of fur

question

Which homeostatic process moves particles against a concentration gradient? dynamic equilibrium passive transport osmosis active transport

answer

active transport

question

In which solution might a cell maintain homeostasis through diffusion? isotonic hypertonic hypotonic concentrated

answer

isotonic

question

Which movement of particles would be most affected by a disorder that causes damage to carrier proteins? osmosis isotonic active transport diffusion

answer

active transport

question

Which reason best explains why the cell membrane helps the cell maintain homeostasis? The cell membrane is selectively permeable. The cell membrane is composed of lipids and phosphates. The cell membrane is both hydrophilic and hydrophobic. The cell membrane is a bilayer structure.

answer

the cell membrane is selectively permeable

question

Reptiles and birds excrete waste as an insoluble white solid that is called uric acid. How does this help them to maintain internal homeostasis in hot climates? by retaining water by conserving energy by reducing body temperature by maintaining heart rate

answer

by retaining water

question

Water makes up a large percentage of the body's cells. For a cell to remain in homeostasis, there must be a mechanism to control water changes in the cells. The movement of water from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration is

answer

osmosis

question

Which best describes dynamic equilibrium? There is a difference in concentration on either side of the cell membrane. There is an uneven distribution of particles inside and outside the cell. Particles are moving into and out of the cell, but their concentrations remain stable. A concentration gradient is forcing water out of the cell and particles into the cell.

answer

Particles are moving...remain stable

question

Which are replicated during interphase? sister chromatids chromosomes centromeres nuclei

answer

chromosomes

question

Which is the end result of cytokinesis? one cell that has two identical copies of DNA one cell that has two different copies of DNA two cells that have two identical copies of DNA two cells that have two different copies of DNA

answer

two cells that have two identical copies of DNA

question

Centromeres split apart during

answer

anaphase

question

What would happen to skin cells if mitosis did not take place? Skin cells would regrow from other types of cells. Skin cells would be replaced at a slower rate. Skin cells would be replaced with new cells. Skin cells would die and not be replaced.

answer

skin cells would die and not be replaced

question

An example of mitosis at work is a leaf turning yellow. growing. taking in carbon dioxide. hosting a caterpillar.

answer

growing

question

Which of the steps in this sequence of events is an example of mitosis at work? A baseball hits the arm of a baseball player. The player reacts quickly grabbing his arm. A bruise forms where the ball hit the arm. The bruise slowly disappears as the arm heals.

answer

bruise slowly disappears as the arm heals

question

Scientists use tissue cultures to study possible medicines that can be used to treat cancer patients. What is one benefit of this procedure? Patients do not receive harmful or ineffective medication. The cultured cells are not in their normal environment. Doctors know how to treat all types of cancer. One tissue culture can be used for all cancer patients.

answer

patients do not receive harmful or ineffective meds

question

An example of mitosis at work is a plant root elongating. absorbing. pointing down. breaking.

answer

elongating

question

Which best describes the importance of mitosis to living organisms? genetic variation and growth growth and development development and sexual reproduction sexual reproduction and genetic variation

answer

growth and development

question

During which phase of mitosis do the nuclear membrane, nucleolus, and nucleus dissolve? metaphase prophase anaphase telophase

answer

prophase

question

Which best describes meiosis? It produces cells that are identical to the original cell. It is responsible for the replacement of damaged skin cells. It is responsible for growth of the organism. It produces male and female sex cells.

answer

it produces male and female sex cells

question

During which phase of meiosis does crossing over of chromosomes occur? prophase I metaphase I anaphase I telophase I

answer

prophase I

question

Why is meiosis important for organisms? It allows for genetic variation among organisms. It determines which genes are dominant and which are recessive. It produces genetically identical cells. It provides a means of asexual reproduction.

answer

allows for genetic variation among organisms

question

Which discovery did Gregor Mendel make? Traits are inherited independently of each other. Traits are inherited as a tetrad. Traits are inherited as homologous pairs. Traits are inherited as a set, from one parent.

answer

independently of each other

question

The diagram illustrates one method of genetic recombination. paternal maternal AA aa Aa Aa AA aa Aa Aa Which method of genetic recombination is illustrated in the diagram? crossing over independent assortment fertilization tetrad formation

answer

crossing over

question

How many cell divisions occur during meiosis? one two three four

answer

two

question

Which process of genetic recombination involves genes from both parents? crossing over independent assortment fertilization tetrad formation

answer

fertilization

question

Which best illustrates how Gregor Mendel used creativity that lead to scientific discovery? He noticed that traits were passed on from parents to offspring. He chose a parent generation and carefully studied its traits. He used pea plants to study the patterns of heredity. He observed how specific traits were passed from parent to offspring.

answer

pea plants to study patterns of heredity

question

Which three processes are methods of genetic recombination? natural selection, crossing over, and independent assortment crossing over, independent assortment, and fertilization independent assortment, fertilization, and natural selection fertilization, natural selection, and crossing over

answer

crossing over, independent assortment, fertilization

question

In his study of pea plants, Gregor Mendel used which method to produce offspring? cross-pollination, by using parents that had identical traits cross-pollination, by using parents that had different traits self-pollination, by using one parent random pollination, by using both identical- and different-trait matings

answer

cross-pollination, by using parents that had different traits

question

Which is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction? mutation accumulation genetic variation slow reproduction process mate required

answer

mutation accumulation

question

Mitosis produces which cell type? haploid diploid chromosome gamete

answer

diploid

question

Which process can be described as two cell divisions, genetic variation, and haploid cells? meiosis mitosis binary fission fertilization

answer

meiosis

question

Which process must the cell undergo to have genetically different cells at the end of cell division? meiosis mitosis asexual reproduction binary fission

answer

meiosis

question

Scientists studied reproduction in the New Zealand mud snail to answer the question, "Are there benefits to reproducing sexually or asexually?" Which of these hypotheses would least likely aid the scientists as they worked to answer the question? Sexual reproduction is advantageous over asexual reproduction because it reduces the rate of mutation accumulation. Asexual reproduction is advantageous over sexual reproduction because it allows the snails to produce more offspring. Sexual reproduction is advantageous over asexual reproduction because it allows for snails to have increased genetic variation. Asexual reproduction is advantageous over sexual reproduction because it decreases the snails' need for social interaction.

answer

Asexual reproduction is advantageous over sexual reproduction because it decreases the snails' need for social interaction.

question

In which type of reproduction can cells divide through the process of mitosis? chromosome duplication sexual reproduction gamete formation asexual reproduction

answer

asexual

question

Which of these pairings is correct? mitosis, part of asexual reproduction because it produces diploids mitosis, part of sexual reproduction because it produces haploids meiosis, part of asexual reproduction because it produces haploids meiosis, part of sexual reproduction because it produces diploids

answer

mitosis, part of asexual reproduction because it produces diploids

question

Which describes the process of a bacterial cell dividing to create two daughter cells? binary fission fertilization meiosis gamete formation

answer

binary fission

question

A cell contains the same DNA as its parent cell. This is a result of which process? mitosis meiosis gamete formation fertilization

answer

mitosis

question

Meiosis produces which cell type? haploid diploid chromosome somatic

answer

haploid

question

All the major organs of the body are formed by week 10 of gestation. Which process makes this possible? growth fertilization self-renewal differentiation

answer

differentiation

question

When a disease-causing agent enters an organism, the immune system alerts which specialized cells? red blood cells epithelial cells white blood cells somatic stem cells

answer

white blood cells

question

Which statement best describes embryonic stem cells? Embryonic stem cells are capable of self-renewal only. Embryonic stem cells are capable of differentiation only. Embryonic stem cells are capable of self-renewal and limited differentiation. Embryonic stem cells are capable of self-renewal and unlimited differentiation.

answer

self renewel and unlimited differentiation

question

Gene expression within the body is controlled by the cells, which determine when a specific gene should or should not be expressed. Influenza (the flu) is caused by a virus that attacks the respiratory system. Which type of gene is likely to be widely expressed in the body of someone who contracts the influenza virus? The gene that controls production of stem cells. The gene that controls production of skin cells. The gene that controls production of red blood cells. The gene that controls production of white blood cells.

answer

white blood cells

question

_______ are a source of stem cells that has the characteristics of self-renewal and limited differentiation.

answer

amnoitic fluid

question

Which cells are considered immortal? neurons blood cells cardiac muscle cells stem cells

answer

stem

question

Which cell is unspecialized? blood cell stem cell epithelial cell gamete

answer

stem

question

Which series lists the stages of development in the gestational process in order, from beginning to end? gametes ® embryo ® zygote ® fetus ® organism gametes ® zygote ® embryo ® fetus ® organism embryo ® gametes ® zygote ® fetus ® organism zygote ® gametes ® embryo ® fetus ® organism

answer

gametes ® zygote ® embryo ® fetus ® organism

question

Which best describes embryonic stem cells? They are capable of self-renewal only. They are capable of differentiation only. They are capable of self-renewal and limited differentiation. They are capable of self-renewal and unlimited differentiation

answer

They are capable of self-renewal and unlimited differentiation ( same as above )

question

Which of these pairings is incorrect? blood cells, components of blood neurons, conduct electrical impulses epithelial cells, react to stimuli muscle cells, elongated cells that can contract

answer

epithelial

question

A species of mud snail was studied for five years. During this time, scientists observed the season in which they mated, the number of offspring they produced, and the results of such stressors as drought, famine, and lack of mates. Which question were the scientists most likely studying? What is the food source most often chosen by the mud snail? Are mud snails able to reproduce both asexually and sexually? Are mud snails more likely to choose mates with colorful shells? Do mud snails prefer to live in water or near a water source?

answer

reproduce both asexually and sexually?

question

Which two microscopes generate three-dimensional images? scanning electron microscope and scanning tunneling microscope transmission electron microscope and scanning electron microscope scanning tunneling microscope and transmission electron microscope compound light microscope and scanning electron microscope

answer

SEM and scanning tunneling

question

Rapid reproduction is an advantage of which process? gamete formation sexual reproduction asexual reproduction chromosome duplicatio

answer

asexual

question

Tissue cultures (samples of cancer cells) are taken from cancer patients, and the cells are then grown in a laboratory. What is the purpose of growing cancer cells in a laboratory? to test medicinal treatments before giving them to patients to replace cancer cells with healthy cells to provide evidence of cancer cells in the patient to stop the cancer from growing in the patien

answer

test medicinal...to patients

question

Fewer offspring is a disadvantage of which form of reproduction? mitosis asexual reproduction binary fission sexual reproduction

answer

sexual

question

Smooth muscle, a type of specialized muscle cell, functions in which process? food digestion skeletal movement pumping of blood heart contraction

answer

food digestion

question

Chlorophyll is found in plant leaves and absorbs light from the sun to enable plants to perform photosynthesis. Magnesium is an important component of chlorophyll. The concentration of magnesium ions is higher in the root-hair cells of plants than in the soil. Which mechanism of ion uptake would best enable a plant to produce a steady supply of chlorophyll? osmosis diffusion passive transport active transport

answer

active transport

question

Which homeostatic process is characterized by the diffusion of water molecules? active transport osmosis passive transport dynamic equilibrium

answer

osmosis

question

A patient is in need of hydration. Which type of solution are the patient's cells most likely in? hypotonic hypertonic isotonic osmotic

answer

hypertonic

question

Which best defines a diploid cell during meiosis? a cell that has double the number of chromosomes as the parent cell a cell that has half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell a cell that has double the number of chromosomes as the daughter cell a cell that has half the number of chromosomes as the daughter cell

answer

double number of chromosomes as daughter cell

question

Based on the data in the graph, which would most likely happen if the paramecium were placed in distilled water? The contractions would increase. The contractions would decrease. The contractions would cease altogether. The contractions would establish dynamic equilibrium.

answer

Increase

question

Which series of diagrams correctly represents the order of mitosis?

answer

question

Which statement best summarizes the importance of meiosis to reproduction? It produces diploid cells that are needed for sexual reproduction. It produces diploid cells that are needed for asexual reproduction. It produces gametes that are needed for sexual reproduction. It produces gametes that are needed for asexual reproduction.

answer

gametes; sexual

question

A new multicellular organism has been discovered, and scientists want to study the organism's cell structures, including organelles. Which microscope should they use? scanning electron microscope transmission electron microscope compound light microscope simple microscope

answer

transmission electron microscope

question

Which part of cell division is different in plant and animal cells? cytokinesis anaphase mitosis eukaryotic

answer

cytokinesis

question

Which correctly describes crossing over? the process whereby nonsister chromatids exchange genetic material the process whereby homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles of the cell the process whereby sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell the process whereby homologous chromosome pairs align randomly along the metaphase plate

answer

the process whereby homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles of the cell

question

Which best describes the cell theory? Scientists know all there is to know about cells, so the cell theory will not change. As technological advancements are made, the cell theory may change. A theory, once formulated, cannot be changed. The development of a synthetic cell has caused the cell theory to change

answer

cell theory may change

question

Which process helps make meiotic cells genetically different and occurs during prophase I, but not during prophase II?

answer

crossing over

question

A magnifying glass is an example of which type of microscope? electron microscope scanning microscope compound light microscope simple microscope

answer

simple

question

How has the study of mitosis affected scientists' knowledge of cancer? It led to a study of how to induce cancer cells to divide more rapidly. It led to an understanding of how cancer cells divide so rapidly. It led to the development of contact-inhibition regulators. It led to the discovery of how to prevent cancer cells from dividing

answer

understanding of how

question

Which statement correctly describes the bars on a bar graph representing the data? The graph has five bars of equal height. The bars range from tallest for very high concentration to shortest for very low concentration. The bar for very low concentration is twice the height of the bar for medium concentration. The bar for very high concentration is five times the height of the bar for very low concentration.

answer

question

Which does the letter A represent in the diagram? centriole chromosome centromere spindle

answer

spindle

question

Which specialized cells are responsible for transmitting messages throughout the body? neurons epithelial cells blood cells muscle cells

answer

neurons

question

Which best defines homeostasis? modifying the external environment maintaining a stable internal environment controlling what enters and exits the cell movement of materials into the cell

answer

stable internal environment

question

Scientists use squid nerve cells in research because the nerve cells of a squid are 1,000 times fatter than those of a human. How is the outcome of nerve cell research most likely to be affected if scientists were to study human nerve cells directly? The outcome would be different because humans and squids are very different. The outcome would be different because the nerve cells in squids are much larger than those of humans. The outcome would be the same because in both cases a nerve cell is being researched. The outcome would be the same because genes in squids and humans are 85 percent identical

answer

same, in both cases a nerve cell is being researched

question

How is mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) typing used in forensic science? An unknown mtDNA sample is matched to a sample of nuclear DNA that was found at a crime scene. An unknown mtDNA sample is matched to a sample of mtDNA that was found at a crime scene. An unknown nuclear DNA sample is matched to a sample of nuclear DNA that was found at a crime scene. An unknown nuclear DNA sample is matched to a sample of mtDNA that was found at a crime scene.

answer

mtDNA; mtDNA

question

A scientist discovers a cell that has chloroplasts, cytoplasm, DNA, and a cell membrane. Which statement best describes how the cell could be classified? The cell is prokaryotic because it has DNA. The cell is prokaryotic because it has cytoplasm. The cell is eukaryotic because it has a cell membrane. The cell is eukaryotic because it has chloroplasts

answer

euk, chloroplasts

question

Which best describes reproduction? Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are identical to the parent. Sexual reproduction allows for diploid gametes to combine to increase genetic variation. Asexual reproduction leads to the formation of haploid gametes. Sexual reproduction does not require the production of gametes

answer

asexual; identical

question

Which process is similar to binary fission? genetic variation crossing over meiosis mitosis

answer

mitosis

question

Which process produces clones? asexual reproduction sexual reproduction chromosome duplication gamete formation

answer

chromosome duplication

question

Which statement is one component of the cell theory? All living and nonliving things consist of one or more cells. Cells and living organisms are spontaneously created. Cells are the most complex unit of structure and function in living things. A cell is the basic unit of structure and function of all organisms

answer

all living or nonliving...or more cells

question

Which stem cells are capable of the most limited differentiation? adult stem cells amniotic fluid stem cells embryonic stem cells somatic stem cells

answer

embryonic

question

What is the end result of meiosis? four identical daughter cells four different daughter cells two identical daughter cells two different daughter cells

answer

4 diff daughter cells

question

Who first recognized the cell as the universal unit of life? Virchow van Leeuwenhoek Hooke Schleiden and Schwann

answer

Schleiden and Schwann

question

What is the step that is labeled D? metaphase I metaphase II telophase II telophase I

answer

metaphase I

question

How many more phases occur during meiosis than during mitosis? none two four six

answer

four

question

In the study of cancer, researchers have used different types of cells, different environmental conditions, and different experimental designs. But, all researchers have arrived at the same conclusion. What does this say about the conclusion? It is well supported. It is weakly supported. It is inconclusive. It is refuted

answer

well supported

question

How would the contractile vacuole of a freshwater amoeba respond if the organism was placed in seawater? with more contractions with fewer contractions the contractions would suddenly cease with the same frequency of contractions

answer

question

The endosymbiotic theory provides an explanation for the origin of chloroplasts. Which trait of chloroplasts supports this explanation? Chloroplasts do not reproduce. Chloroplasts rely on proteins that are made by the cell. Chloroplasts are larger than prokaryotic cells. Chloroplasts have their own DNA

answer

own DNA

question

How does interphase prepare cells for mitosis? rest prior to cell division growth of cell and replication of DNA dissolution of nucleus and cell membrane division of cytoplasm

answer

growth of cell, DNA

STUDY

AP Biology Bacterial Cell Wall Gram Positive Bacteria Microbiology

Microbiology Final Exam Study Guide – Flashcards 109 terms

Anna Collins

109 terms

Preview

Microbiology Final Exam Study Guide – Flashcards

question

list the steps of a gram stain in order

answer

1) crystal violet is applied to heat fixed smear 1 min. this stains all cells, called a primary stain. rinse w/ water 2) an iodine mordant is added; 1 min, rinse 3) wash with ethanol (some species of bacteria are decolorized and some are not. if smear retains purple dye, organism is gram positive. if alcohol removes the dye, organisms are no longer visible.) 4) safrinin is used as a counterstain. it is applied and the decolorized bacteria are visibly red. these are gram negative.

question

what are the two possible responses of a gram stain?

answer

gram positive-crystal violet and gram negative-safrinin. the gram stain reflects a basic difference in the cell wall structure of bacteria. it is the first step in identification and the susceptibility of miocroorganisms to antibiotics is often related to the gram reaction.

question

will retain crystal violet dye and become purple. peptidoglycan layer is thick.has many teichoic acids. has no periplasmic space. has no outer membrane. has little to no LPS content. has low lipid and lipoprotein content because acid fast bacteria have lipids linked to peptidoglycan. has 2 flagellar rings in basal body. produces exotoxins. has very high resistant to physical disruption. has a high cellwall disruption by lysozyme. susceptible to penicillin and sulfonamide. not susceptible to streptomycin, chloramphenicol, and tetra cycline. highly inhibited by basic dyes.highly susceptible to anionic detergents. highly resistant to sodium azide. resistant to drying.

answer

gram positive

question

can be decolorized to accept the counterstain safranin and stain pink/red.peptidoglycan layer is thin. has no teichoic acids. has periplasmic space. has outer membrane. has high LPS content. has high lipid and lipoprotein content because of the presence of the outer membrane. has 4 flagellar rings in basal body. produces endotoxins and exotoxins. has very low resistance to physical disruption. has a low cell wall disruption by lysozyme because it requires pretreatment to destabilize the outer membrane. not susceptible to penicillin and sulfonamide. susceptible to streptomycin, chloramphenicol, and tetra cycline. not inhibited by basic dyes. not susceptible to anionic detergents. susceptible to sodium azide. susceptible to drying.

answer

gram negative

question

what is the best microscope for biofilms?

answer

scanning acoustic

question

which microscope has the highest magnification?

answer

transmission electron microscope. 10,000x-100,000x

question

microbial communities that reside in a matrix called slime made of hydrogel. enable bacteria to share nutrients and shelter them from drying and other harmful environmental factors. play an important role in the digestive system of ruminants. 70% of all human infections involve this. and these are 1,000 x more resistant to antibiotics than normal bacteria. pass around antibiotic resistance (DNA) through conjugation. they especially infect humans through nosocomical infections from indwelling medical devices like catheters and ventilators. everything has biofilms on it but it becomes dangerous and an infection when it gets inside the body

answer

biofilms

question

pts with catheters are at risk because of what?

answer

biofilms

question

Nutritional type: Chemoheterotroph,ATP Cellular Arrangement: Multicellulare, has tissues and organs Food Acquisition Method: Ingestion/absorbtion Charecteristic features: elaborate reproductive system; transmitted via ingestion.

answer

helminths

question

HSV1 and HSV2(cold sores), HTLV1 and HTLV2(Luekemia), and Varicellovirus(shingles) are examples of this type of virus

answer

latent viruses

question

HIV1 and HIV2/AIDS, HPV(cervical cancer),measles(SSPE), HBV(Hepatitis B virus) are examples of this type of virus

answer

persistent viruses

question

Koch's postulate is used to prove _______________

answer

the CAUSE of infectious disease. *important to note that not all diseases are caused by microoganisms therefore this method cannot be used to find the cause to all infectious diseases.*

question

the study of WHERE and WHEN diseases occur and HOW they are transmitted. Center for Disease and Control (CDC) collects data and it is published in the Morbidity and Mortality Weekly

answer

epidemiology

question

disease that is constantly present in a population(ex: common cold)

answer

endemic

question

disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short time(ex: Influenza).

answer

epidemic

question

worldwide epidemic.(ex: AIDS, FLU H1-N1)

answer

pandemic

question

infections that are acquired as a result of hospital stay. Affect 5-15% of all hospital patients. In order for a nosocomial infection to develop, 3 things must be present: 1.)microorganisms in a hospital environment 2)compromised host 3)chain of transmission

answer

nosocomial infections

question

what is the major component of the plant cell wall?

answer

cellulose

question

what is the major component of the fungi cell wall?

answer

chiton

question

what is the major component of the bacterial cell wall?

answer

peptidoglycan. ***note: pseudomurein for archaea****

question

what is peptidoglycan made of?

answer

NAG and NAM

question

has a thick waxy wall

answer

mycobacterium

question

has no cell wall

answer

mycoplasma

question

animal cells and protozoa have __________

answer

no cell wall

question

most common bug to cause food spoilage in terms of temperature. 10-50 degrees Celsius. room temp

answer

mesophile

question

-10-20 degrees celsius

answer

psychrophiles

question

0-30 degrees celsius

answer

pyschrotrophs

question

40-70 degrees celsius

answer

thermophiles

question

67-110 degreees celsius

answer

hyperthermophiles

question

what group would you expect penicillin to be uneffective against?

answer

mycoplasmas. because they have no cell wall

question

biofilms are _____________

answer

1,000x more resistant to microbicides. 70% of human infections associated with biofilms

question

which cell wall is sensitive to penicillin?

answer

gram positive. no porin protein like gram negative has. penicillins prevent the cross-linking of the peptidoglycans, which interferes with the final stages of the construction of the cell walls.

question

what is the difference between bacteria and viruses?

answer

viruses are not cells; bacteria are. bacteria are treated with antibiotics; viruses arent. viruses are obligate intracellular and they have DNA or RNA but never both and they all have a protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid-capsid.

question

contain and envelope around the outside of the genetic material and the capsid. ex. influenza

answer

enveloped viruses

question

virus structure that contains capsomere, Nucleic acid, and capsid and lack envelope.

answer

polyhedral viruses

question

virus structure with a virion, and in addition having feet like apparatus to help inject its genetic material into the host cell. has spikes for attachment

answer

complex viruses

question

virus structure that contains a cylindrical capsid with helical/spiral genetic information

answer

helical viruses

question

why are cancers hard to link to viruses?

answer

most particles of some viruses do not induce cancer. Don't develop until long after the viral infection. Cancers do not seem to be contagious and viral diseases usually are.

question

viruses that infect without causing symptoms

answer

subclinical

question

virus cylce where virus infecs host and does not destroy cell when released

answer

lysogenic cycle

question

Source: Mostly Gram + Relation to Microbe: by products of growing cell Chemistry: Protein Fever: NO Neutralized by Antitoxin: YES LD50: small

answer

exotoxin

question

Source: Gram - Relations to Microbe: outer membrane Chemistry: Lipid A and LPS Fever: YES Neutralized by Antitoxin: NO LD50: Relatively Large ****role: cause DECREASED BP*****

answer

endotoxin

question

take iron from host cells. Protein that bacteria release that can bind to iron and take it away(compete w/ tranferin iron complex[keeps iron for you] )

answer

siderophore

question

defenses we are born w/;rapid; always there

answer

innate immunity

question

virus cycle that ends with the death of the host cell as the virus is released

answer

lytic cycle

question

stage of cycle wherre phage attaches(chance collision)by tail fibers to host cell

answer

Attachment(Lytic Cycle)

question

stage of cycle where phage lysozyme opens cell wall; tail sheath contracts to force tail core and DNA into cell.

answer

Penetration(Lytic Cycle)

question

stage of cycle where there is production of phage DNA and proteins using the host cell's ribosomes, enzymes, and amino acids.

answer

Biosynthesis(Lytic Cycle)

question

stage where assembly of phage particles takes place

answer

Maturation(Lytic Cycle)

question

stage where phage Lysozyme breaks cell wall

answer

Release(Lytic Cycle)

question

fraction of a population that contracts a disease DURING A SPECIFIC TIME.

answer

incidence

question

change in body fxn that is felt by a patient as a result of a disease(subjective)(what patients tell you)ex: pain and malaise

answer

symptoms

question

a change in a body that can be measured or observed as a result of disease (objective) ex: fever, rash, swelling, paralysis.

answer

signs

question

which WBC has the highest phagocytic activity?

answer

neutrophils

question

which WBC is associated with parasites?

answer

eosinophils

question

Nutritional Type: Chemoheterotrophic Cellular arrangement: unicellular, multicellular, filamentous, fleshy Charecteristics: Fungi are classified according to sexual and asexual spores. Fungi grow in HIGH osmotic pressure, LOW pH, and LOW moisture environments. human pathogens: YES Food source: Organic

answer

fungi

question

Phagocytes squeeze between endothelial cells

answer

diapedesis

question

Phagocytes stick to endothelium

answer

margination

question

Order of bacteria that has efflux pumps, Responsible for 10% of Nosocomial infections. on soil and plants. cystic fibrosis patients are susceptible to this.

answer

pseudomonales

question

what is unusual about caulobacter?

answer

it is a bacteria that is stalked for increased nutrient absorption. occurs in low nutrient environments such as lakes.

question

what are yeast infections caused by?

answer

candida albicans

question

antigens on a cell(ex:blood typing)

answer

direct aggultination

question

use living organism but weakened microbes; provides long lasting lifetime immunity derived from mutations accumulated during long term artificial culture; not recommended for patients with weakened immune systems(ex: measles, mumps, rubella, chickenpox)

answer

attenuated whole agent vaccine

question

uses microbes that have been killed, usually by Formalin or Phenol. (ex: rabies, influenza, and salk polio)

answer

inactivated whole agent vaccine

question

use only those antigenic fragments of a microorganism that best stimulates an immune response; inherintly safer because they cannot reproduce in the recipient; fewer side effects(B. Pertussis)

answer

sub unit vaccine

question

used in new Hep B.; consists of a portion of the viral protein coat that is produced by genetically modified yeast.

answer

recombinant vaccine

question

developed in recent years to deal with the poor immune responses of children to vaccines. based on capsular polysaccharides. These are combined with toxoid leading to a very successful vaccine such as H Flu Type B even at 2 mnths.

answer

conjugated vaccine

question

this vaccine Uses DNA insterted into plasmids

answer

nucleic acid vaccine

question

particular antigens

answer

agglutination

question

soluble antigens

answer

precipitation

question

cause the unpleasant and damaging effects of an allergic reaction(histamine,leukotrienes, and prostaglandin)

answer

mediators

question

mediator that causes swelling, mucous secretion, tightening of airway, increase of permeability of blood capillaries

answer

histamine

question

mediator; effect is the longest and takes longest to release

answer

prostaglandin

question

mediator; longer reacting; slower to happen

answer

leukotrienes

question

process that releases mediators; mast cells and basophils undergo this.

answer

degranulation

question

-occur within 2-30 min after re exposure to antigen -can be systemic or localized -IgE attached to Mast cells and Basophiles -Antigen binds to two adjacent IgE -Mast cell and basophils undergo degranulation which release mediators(histamine,leukotrienes,and prostaglandin)

answer

anaphylactic reactions type 1

question

reactions that are directed against antigens located on cell tissue surfaces. Involve IgG and IgM antibodies and complement. Complement activation cause cell lysis or damage by macrophages.(ex: blood typing)

answer

cytotoxic reactions type 2

question

these reactions involve antibodies against soluble antigens circulating in the serum. Antigen AB complexes can be deposited in organs and cause damage. IgG antibodies and antigens form immune complexes-circulate in the blood-pass between endothelial cells of blood vessels and become lodged in basement membranes. Here they activate complement and may cause transient inflammatory reaction(ex: glomurulonephritis)

answer

immune complex reactions type 3

question

involves cell-mediated immune responses. Delayed type hypersensitivities(DTH) due to T cells, not apparent for a day or more. Cytokines attract macrophages and t-cells(initiate tissue damage ex: transplant rejection, TB skin test, allergic contact dermatitis)

answer

cell mediated reactions type 4

question

objective is to cause the production of IgG using INJECTIONS of ANTIGENS rather than IgE-hoping that the circulating IgG Abs will act as blocking Abs.

answer

desensitization

question

what is the difference between natural penicillins and semisynthetic?

answer

part of the penicillin is produced by the mold and part is added synthetically. Nucleus is the natural part. side chains are synthetic.

question

tine cruris

answer

jock itch

question

list some antifungal drugs

answer

amphrotercerin B and Griseofulvin(both are types of Polyenes)

question

what are the diseases that cross the placenta?

answer

toxoplasmosis, cytomegalovirus, and syphilis

question

whats the treatment for bacterial vaginosis and trichinosis?

answer

metronidazole

question

most common reportable disease in US

answer

gonorrhea

question

major difference between rickettsias and chlamydias

answer

rickettsia has an insect vector.

question

encysted larvae of tapeworms

answer

cysticerci

question

binds to 50s portion of ribosome and inhibits formation of peptide bond(amino acids)*side affect: it can suppess bone marrow leading to aplastic anemia; potentially fatal* -also macrolides

answer

chloramphenicol

question

changes shape of 30s portion of ribosome, causing code on mRNA to be read incorrectly. -aminoglycosides

answer

streptomycin

question

(broad spectrum) interefere with attachment of tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex which prevents the addition of amino acids to the growing protein chain. **serious side effect: cannot be used on children because it turn teeth brown. cannot be used on pregnant women because it can cause liver damage.**

answer

tetracycline

question

generation of cephalosporins; narrow spectrum, gram+

answer

cephalosporins 1st

question

generation of cephalosporins; extended spectrum includes gram-

answer

cephalosporins 2nd

question

generation of cephalosporins; includes pseudomondales;injected; also oral

answer

cephalosporins 3rd

question

generation of cephalosporins; injections, but have the most extended spectrum

answer

cephalosporins 4th

question

inhibits cell wall formation earlier than Penicillin. Against gram+(staph and strept)

answer

bacitracin

question

very important antibiotic. should be used as a last resort against MRSA. IV administered only. known as "The Big Boy".*VRE is considered a medical emergency.*

answer

vancomycin

question

inhibit cell wall synthesis; consists of 4 generations. have beta lactam ring like penicillin which inhibits the replication of bacterial cell walls.

answer

cephalosporins

question

all have beta lactum ring called the nucleus. A group of over 50 related chemicals. they differ by the side chains of the nucleus and prevent crosslinking of peptidoglycan of gram +. inhibits cell wall synthesis.

answer

penicillins

question

the newest class of antibiotics. it binds to the 50s subunit which prevents translation by blocking the tunnel of the ribosome. best known is Erythromycin, but also includes azithromycin(which has the highest levels of resistance from overuse).

answer

macrolides

question

broad spectrum, interferes with protein synthesis by changing the 30s subunit causing mRNA to be read incorrectly.**serious side effect: causes permanent damage to auditory nerve(ototoxic) and damage to kidney(nephrotoxic)**

answer

aminoglycosides

question

inhibits mRNA synthesis. used in combo to treat tuberculosis. **serious side effect: turns saliva, urine, tears, sweat and feces orange.**

answer

rifampin

question

topical application. treats gram(-) and is available over the counter. causes injury to the plasma membrane.

answer

polymixin B

question

hese inhibit DNA gyrase activity. Drug of choice to treat urinary tract infections. common drugs on the market: Gatifloxacin, Gemifloxalin, moxifloxin & Ciprofloxcin. ***Cipro most common one used for UTI's & anthrax.

answer

quinolones and flouroquinolones

question

Niclosamide - prevents ATP generation. used to treat tapeworms. Mebendazole - inhibits nutrient absorption in most intestinal worms. what type of drugs are these?

answer

antihelminth drugs

question

why are helminthic diseases hard to treat?

answer

structurally & functionally similar to human cells, therefore hard to treat since medication can affect host.

question

oxazolidinones(zyvox) prevents the formation of this ribosome?

answer

70s

question

when altered this ribosome prohibits translation

answer

30s

question

when altered this ribosome inhibits formation of peptide bond

answer

50s

STUDY

Microbiology Flashcards, test questions and answers

We've found 876 Microbiology tests

Haven't found what you were looking for?

Search for samples, answers to your questions and flashcards