9. (p. 298) Which of the following statements about antibiotic resistance in bacteria is FALSE? A. Antibiotic use is not a factor in antibiotic resistance. B. Bacteria can only pass resistant genes on to their progeny. C. Resistant genes arise naturally in bacteria. D. Bacteria can share resistant genes with other bacteria.

B. Bacteria can only pass resistant genes on to their progeny. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/heed-300-exam-4/

Why is the evolution of antibiotic resistance in bacteria happening so quickly?

1) Because of overuse of antibiotics in humans 2) Because bacteria can reproduce so quickly 3) Because any use of antibiotics will select for resistant bacteria. 4) Because of overuse of antibiotics in livestock. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/krill-bio1005-exam-4/

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Antibiotic Resistance In Bacteria Flashcards, test questions and answers

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Antibiotic Resistance In Bacteria Vaginal Yeast Infection

Last exam – Flashcard 103 terms

August Dunbar

103 terms

Preview

Last exam – Flashcard

question

The term used to describe the speed and intensity with which a pathogen is likely to cause and infection is

answer

Virulence

question

When to take transfers Lyme disease from a deer to a human the tick is considered the what in the chain of infection

answer

Vector

question

Which of the following statements regarding bacteria and viruses is false

answer

Verses are able to replicate on their own

question

Mad cow disease is caused by what type of poorly understood micro organism

answer

PR I ON

question

Which of the following is not an example from the parasite category

answer

Fungi

question

Megan suffers from candidiasis do you vaginal yeast infection which type of micro organism has infected Megan

answer

Fungus

question

Tapeworms belong to which category of organisms involved in human infection and disease

answer

Helminths

question

Which of the following statements about micro organisms that cause human faction and diseases false

answer

Protozoa are really cause illness in humans

question

The acute inflammatory response is part of which immune system

answer

Innate

question

Giovanni is not a physical barrier against infection

answer

Lysozyme

question

All of the following are chemical barriers involved in immunity except

answer

The skin

question

Which type of white blood cell is responsible for the antibody production in the acquired immunity response

answer

B cells

question

The lymphocytes. That are responsible for monitoring the events that occur inside the body's cells are which type of cell

answer

T cell

question

The lymphocytes that Monitor blood and tissue fluids are which type of cell

answer

B cell

question

In the acquired immune system helper cells do all the following except

answer

Produce antibiotic

question

After an infection or immunization memory cells develop and can lead to a rapid response it the same organism is encountered by the body again this person is said to have

answer

Immunity

question

Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis B and hepatitis C is false

answer

A vaccine is currently available to prevent hepatitis C

question

Which of the following statements about anabiotic resistance in bacteria is false

answer

Bacteria can only pass resistant jeans on to their progeny

question

The main factors believe to includes bacterial resistance are

answer

The frequency of resistance genes among bacteria and antibiotic overuse

question

Which of the following is the pneumonia type illness that surfaced in February 2003 in China and cause an epidemic scare

answer

Acute severe respiratory syndrome

question

What is the most common infectious disease worldwide

answer

Tuberculosis

question

Which of the following statements regarding tuberculosis is false

answer

People with HIV infection have no greater risk than the general population for active tuberculosis

question

The most common sexual transmitted disease in the United States is

answer

The human papilloma virus

question

Safe and effective vaccine is available for which of the following sexually transmitted disease is

answer

Hepatitis B

question

Federico has painful sores on his penis which sexually-transmitted disease does Fredrica most likely have

answer

Herpes simplex

question

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea and chlamydia is false

answer

Most men with chlamydia infection will have symptoms

question

Which of the following statements about human immunodeficiency virus is false

answer

Infected person remains symptomatic after the viral load setpoint is establish

question

Which of the following situations has not been shown to transmit HIV between individuals

answer

Cattle contacts that is holding hands or hugging

question

Which of the following is true regarding perinatal transmission of HIV

answer

The risk of transmission from mother to child can be significantly deduce used of anti-retro viral medication during pregnancy and delivery

question

Hepatitis C most severely affects which area of the body

answer

Liver

question

Which of the following is not among the steps you should take to protect yourself from infectious disease is

answer

Use antibiotics frequently

question

Which of the following is one of the ABCD's of STD prevention

answer

Promote detection of STDs

question

The right ventricle of the heart

answer

Pumps oxygen poor blood into the lungs

question

The leading cause of death in the United States is

answer

Cardiovascular disease

question

What are the following statements about atherosclerosis is false

answer

It is an irreversible process

question

Bob had a myocardial infarction in other words Bob had a

answer

Heart attack

question

Which of the following statements regarding symptoms of heart attacks is false

answer

All symptoms occur in all cases they are just not always recognize

question

A blood clot that develops a distant site and then travels to blood vessel where it becomes larger blocks blood flow is called a

answer

Embolism

question

Which of the following conditions with sudden onset is not a signal that a stroke has occurrd

answer

Ringing ears

question

Which of the following statements about peripheral vascular disease is false

answer

PVD is often fatal in older adults

question

Kevin woke up and had difficulty speaking he went to the hospital and several hours later his speech is back to normal what medical condition best describes Kevin's situation

answer

Transient ischemic attack

question

What is the condition in which the heart because I'm scared after it through infection with the strain of strep to caucus bacteria

answer

Rheumatic heart disease

question

The optimal range for blood pressure level is

answer

Systolic less than 120 and diastolic less than 80

question

Which of the following ethnic population groups has the highest rate of hypertension

answer

Black

question

Perhaps the most important on controllable risk factor for cardiovascular disease is

answer

Age

question

Which of the following is not a noncontrollable risk factor for cardiovascular disease

answer

Ethnicity

question

Which of the following statements regarding differences between men and women with heart disease is false

answer

If a woman has a heart attack she is less likely than a man to die from it

question

Which of the following is not one of the major controllable risk factors known to increase the likelihood of cardiovascular disease

answer

Vitamin deficiency

question

Elevated levels of which type of lipoprotein are clearly associated with atherosclerosis

answer

Low density lipoprotein's

question

Which type of lipoprotein takes cholesterol from cells or atherosclerotic deposits back to the liver

answer

Higher density lipoprotein

question

Which of the following statements regarding high density lipoprotein's is false

answer

HDL levels vary greatly with Age

question

What is the leading control risk factor for all forms of cardiovascular disease

answer

Tobacco use

question

Which of the following statements regarding tobacco and cardiovascular risk is false

answer

Tobacco decreases level of LDL-cholesterol

question

Which of the following statements is true

answer

Secondhand tobacco smoke increases the risk of heart disease

question

What to the following statements are running cardiovascular health and diabetes is false

answer

People with diabetes are less likely to have silent heart attacks

question

My blood levels of the amino acid blank have been linked to increased risk of cardiovascular disease

answer

Homocysteine

question

Which of the following statements regarding tobacco use and cardiovascular disease is false

answer

Smoking affects appear to decrease about 10 years after tobacco use is stopped

question

Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of cerebrovascular disease is false

answer

Quad does all the medications can be use for all types of strokes

question

An EKG is used to visualize what

answer

Electrical activity in the heart

question

During which surgical procedure is a balloon catheter threaded into the narrow area of a closed vessel and inflated to stretch the vessel open again

answer

Angioplasty

question

A diet that supports cardiovascular health does not empathize which of the following

answer

High-fat dairy

question

Visceral fat as indicated by Abdominal circumference and lack of physical activity affairs to be a strong indicator of risk for which type of diabetes

answer

Type two

question

A combination of insulin resistant hypertension high lipids and central obesity represents what medical syndrome

answer

Metabolic syndrome

question

In the United States blank people are at risk of developing diabetes in the next 10 years

answer

79 million

question

Type one diabetes is caused bye

answer

The destruction of insulin producing cells in the pancreas by the immune system

question

Which type of obesity not associated with obesity

answer

Type one

question

Type two diabetes accounts for blank of all creases of diabetes

answer

90 to 95%

question

The two most common forms of chronic lung disease are asthma and

answer

COPD

question

Ongoing cough shortness of breath wheezing and chest tightness

answer

Asthma bronchitis and emphysema

question

A person with which of the following is most likely to require supplemental oxygen in later stages

answer

Emphysema

question

Define statements is not true regarding treatments for asthma

answer

Inhaled steroids are used during asthma attacks

question

Cells that are capable of unlimited division and retain the ability to become different cell types are called

answer

Stem cells

question

Which of the following is not a safety mechanism in place to help maintain cell order and decrease the chance of cancer developing in the body

answer

Initiating event

question

Which of the following does not trigger an initiating event

answer

Stem cell protection

question

What determines which type of cancer in individuals diagnosed with

answer

The tissue in which a cancer originate or the primary site

question

The most common form of cancer blank is a large category of cancers originate from epithelial tissue

answer

Carcinoma

question

Cancer that starts in bone marrow

answer

Leukemia

question

The most significant risk for most cancers is

answer

Age

question

Which of the following is not a source of ionizing radiation

answer

UVA rays

question

Certain environmental conditions can increase one's likelihood of being exposed to carcinogens in developing cancer which of the following is not an environment that increases one expose her to carcinogens

answer

Dense forests

question

Which of the following statements regarding tobacco use and cancer is false

answer

Smokers are no let more likely to die from lung cancer than non-smokers

question

What do the following statements about diets affect on cancer is false

answer

Diet high in fiber appear to increase the risk of colon cancer

question

Which of the following statements about sun exposure is false

answer

Sunburns during adulthood seem to be the most strung associate it with melanoma

question

Many naturally occurring environmental exposures increased risk for cancer residence in many parts of North America exposed to low levels of the radioactive gas blank and their homes particularly in homes with basements

answer

Radon

question

Which of the following infection to cancer type associations is not correct

answer

Hepatitis B to skin cancer

question

Which of the following statements about reproductive behaviors effects on cancer rates is false

answer

Pregnancy appears increase the risk for breast and ovarian cancer

question

Leading cause of cancer death is attributed to what type of cancer

answer

Lung

question

Which of the following statements regarding lung cancer is false

answer

Chest x-rays are recommended as a routine screening test for lung cancer

question

Of the following is not among the risk factors for breast cancer

answer

Late onset of menstruation

question

Which of the following is not a factor that decreases the risk of breast cancer

answer

Use of hormone replacement therapy

question

I'm a replacement therapy reduces the risk for which of the following conditions

answer

Colon cancer

question

To the following is not a strong risk factor for ovarian cancer

answer

Use of oral contraceptive pill

question

Which cancer is the second most common cause of cancer death in men in the most commonly diagnosed cancer in men

answer

Prostate

question

To the following statements regarding prostate cancer is false

answer

Most warning signs occur in the early seasons of cancer

question

One of the main screening test available for prostate cancer is the blank test

answer

PSA

question

Which of the following statements about colon cancer is false

answer

Postmenopausal women who take estrogen therapy have a higher risk of colon cancer

question

: Cancer screening test include all the following except

answer

: Specific antigen test

question

Risk for endometrial cancer is increased by all the following except

answer

Having multiple sex partners

question

Which of the following statements about ovarian cancer is false

answer

Women with the genetic predisposition for ovarian cancer have about 10% chance of developing ovarian cancer

question

The common features of a Red, scaley area with the non-healing sore describe which type of skin cancer

answer

Squamous cell

question

Which of the following statements about cancer screening tests is true

answer

Jag screening is reserved for people whose families have multiple members with cancer

question

A drug treatment that work to interfere with rapid cell division

answer

Chemotherapy

question

Approximately how many people living in the United States have had cancer

answer

12 million

STUDY

Antibiotic Resistance In Bacteria AP Biology Biology Microbiology Microbiology For Health Sciences

bio week 8 homework – Flashcards 27 terms

Sam Arent

27 terms

Preview

bio week 8 homework – Flashcards

question

which antibiotic is overcome by beta-lactamases?

answer

Penicillin

question

how might efflux pumps increase antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

answer

resistant bacteria can have more efflux pumps, and can have less specific efflux pumps

question

Bacteria that are resistant to sulfonamide have enzymes that have a greater affinity for what?

answer

PABA

question

Why would an efflux pump for penicillin located on a bacterial cell membrane NOT be effective at providing resistance to the drug?

answer

Penicillin disrupts the cell wall, which is located outside of the cell membrane

question

membrane tansport proteins are required for which mode (s) of antibiotic resistance?

answer

Efflux pumps, beta-lactamases, and membrane transport proteins

question

who was the most likely source of infection for this child?

answer

Uncle

question

What is DOT?

answer

Directly Observed Therapy

question

which drugfor the treatment of tuberculosis inhabits RNA production and colors body secretions red-orange?

answer

Rifampin

question

What is the therapeutic index?

answer

the drug dose that patient can tolerate divided by the effective dose

question

How did the multi-drug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

answer

conjugation and exchange of resistance factor located on plasmids

question

If a particular bacterial species is resistant to bets-lactam antibiotics, which of the following might you expect to ind inside the bacterial cells?

answer

R-plasmids

question

which of the following is NOT associated with microbial mechanisms of resistance?

answer

denaturation of proteins

question

which of the following is NOT a type of side effect exhibited by antimicrobial drugs? -allergic reaction -damage to live or kidney tissue -inhibition of host cellular enzymes -disruption of normal microbiota

answer

inhibition of host cellular enzymes

question

which of the following antimicrobial drugs would likely be useful to treat staphylococcal infection?

answer

erythromycin

question

what is meant by selective toxicity?

answer

Chemotherapeutic agents should ct against the pathogen and not the host

question

why are chemotherapeutic agents that work on the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria a good choice of drug?

answer

Humans and other animal hosts lack peptidoglycan call walls

question

Why is polymyxin only used on the skin?

answer

It can also damage living human cell membranes, but the drug is safely used on the skin, where the outer layers of cells are dead

question

Quinolones and fluoroquinolones act against what bacterial target?

answer

DNA gyrase

question

Why is it difficult to find food chemotherapeutic agents against viruses?

answer

Viruses depend on the host cells machinery, so it is hard to find a viral target that would leave the host cell unaffected.

question

Certain cancer cells have ABC transport molecules at the cell surface. These transporters use energy from ATP to move chemotherapeutic agents out of the cell. Which of the following do you think these transporters are most closely related to?

answer

membrane pumps

question

A researcher creates an antibiotic that binds to a protein present only on B. anthracis (the causative agent of anthrax), lysing the cell from the outside. After a couple of years using this antibiotic, some resistant organisms are found. Which of the following best outlines the mechanism for development of this resistance?

answer

mutation in B. anthracis --> altered target --> resistant bacterium

question

A new bacterial molecule is discovered. This molecule binds to an antibiotic and facilitates the binding of a phosphate group, thus inactivating the antibiotic. Which category best describes the mechanism of antibiotic resistance conferred by this molecule?

answer

bacterial enzymes

question

__________ cells would be expected to be the most susceptible to the action of polyene drugs such as amphotericin B, while __________ cells would be the least susceptible.

answer

Fungi; bacterial

question

The following molecules are involved in the biosynthetic pathway that leads to the formation of DNA and RNA; what is their correct sequence in this pathway? a. PABA b. tetrahydrofolic acid c. purine and pyrimidine nucleotides d. dihydrofolic acid

answer

A,D, B, C

question

why is the drug actinomycin used only on research applications or in the treatment of cancer?

answer

because it is active against both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

question

which of the following is NOT a direct mode of action of antimicrobial drugs?

answer

inhibition of flagella formation

question

An antimicrobial drug that blocks the transport of NAG and NAM from the cytoplasm is targeting which of the following cellular processes?

answer

cell wall synthesis

STUDY

Antibiotic Resistance In Bacteria Mad Cow Disease Microbiology Nucleic Acid Core Virology

Chap 6, 24, 25 – Flashcards 170 terms

Lisa Currey

170 terms

Preview

Chap 6, 24, 25 – Flashcards

question

Viruses have all the following except A. definite shape. B. metabolism. C. genes. D. ability to infect host cells. E. ultramicroscopic size.

answer

B. metabolism.

question

Host cells of viruses include A. human and other animals. B. plants and fungi. C. bacteria. D. protozoa and algae. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

The core of every virus particle always contains A. DNA. B. capsomers. C. enzymes. D. DNA and RNA. E. either DNA or RNA.

answer

E. either DNA or RNA.

question

Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A. type of nucleic acid. B. type of capsid. C. presence of an envelope. D. biochemical reactions. E. nucleic acid strand number.

answer

D. biochemical reactions.

question

Which of the following represents a virus family name? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Herpesviridae C. Picornavirus D. Enterovirus E. Hepatitis B virus

answer

B. Herpesviridae

question

Virus capsids are made from subunits called A. envelopes. B. spikes. C. capsomeres. D. prophages. E. peplomers.

answer

C. capsomeres.

question

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus A. spike. B. capsomere. C. envelope. D. capsid. E. core.

answer

D. capsid.

question

Which of the following is correct about viruses? A. cannot be seen with a light microscope B. are procaryotic C. contain 70S ribosomes D. undergo binary fission E. can be grown on nutrient agar

answer

A. cannot be seen with a light microscope

question

All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they A. are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane. B. are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane. C. contain special virus proteins. D. help the virus particle attach to host cells. E. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

answer

E. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

question

Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A. envelope B. capsomers C. capsid D. nucleic acid E. genome

answer

A. envelope

question

These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors. A. sheath B. tail fibers C. nucleic acid D. capsid head E. None of the choices are correct.

answer

B. tail fibers

question

Which is incorrect about prophages? A. present when the virus is in lysogeny B. formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome C. replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny D. cause lysis of host cells E. occur when temperate phages enter host cells

answer

D. cause lysis of host cells

question

T-even phages A. include the poxviruses. B. infect Escherichia coli cells. C. enter host cells by engulfment. D. have helical capsids. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

B. infect Escherichia coli cells.

question

The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A. penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release. B. replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release. C. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release. D. assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption. E. adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.

answer

C. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.

question

The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A. adsorption to the host cells. B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell. C. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. D. assembly of nucleocapsids. E. replication of viral nucleic acid.

answer

B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.

question

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A. replication. B. assembly. C. adsorption. D. release. E. penetration

answer

D. release.

question

Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? A. live lab animals B. embryonated bird eggs C. primary cell cultures D. continuous cell cultures E. blood agar

answer

E. blood agar

question

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____. A. nucleus, cytoplasm B. cytoplasm, cell membrane C. cell membrane, cytoplasm D. cytoplasm, nucleus E. nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

answer

A. nucleus, cytoplasm

question

Host range is limited by A. type of nucleic acid in the virus. B. age of the host cell. C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane. D. size of the host cell. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane.

question

The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks.

answer

D. cytopathic effects.

question

Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks

answer

C. plaques.

question

Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks.

answer

E. pocks.

question

Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A. latent B. oncogenic. C. prions. D. viroids. E. delta agents.

answer

A. latent

question

Oncogenic viruses include all the following except A. hepatitis B virus. B. measles virus. C. papillomavirus. D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses. E. Epstein-Barr virus.

answer

B. measles virus.

question

Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? A. inclusions in the nucleus B. multinucleated giant cells C. inclusions in the cytoplasm D. cells round up E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Uncoating of viral nucleic acid A. does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication. B. involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid. C. occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle. D. occurs before replication. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Infectious protein particles are called A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes

answer

C. prions.

question

Infectious naked strands of RNA are called A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes.

answer

A. viroids.

question

Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is A. caused by a chronic latent virus. B. initiated by an oncogenic virus. C. caused by a viroid. D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans. E. also called "mad cow disease".

answer

D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans.

question

Satellite viruses are A. also called viroids. B. dependent on other viruses for replication. C. the cause of spongiform encephalopathies. D. significant pathogens of plants. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

B. dependent on other viruses for replication.

question

All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria. B. many antiviral drugs block viral replication. C. many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects. D. interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria.

question

The capsomers are made of A. DNA. B. RNA. C. lipids. D. protein. E. carbohydrate.

answer

E. carbohydrate.

question

Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered A. simple viruses. B. complex viruses. C. naked viruses. D. viroids. E. incomplete viruses.

answer

C. naked viruses.

question

The nucleocapsid consists of A. the capsomers assembled into the capsid. B. the nucleic acid of the virus only. C. the nucleic acid along with the capsid. D. the envelope and capsid. E. the envelope, nucleic acid, and capsid.

answer

C. the nucleic acid along with the capsid.

question

Which of the following parts of a virus is not always present? A. envelope B. nucleic acid C. capsid D. capsomers E. None of the choices are optional parts of a virus.

answer

A. envelope

question

Which of the following viruses did D. Ivanovski and M. Beijerinck work with? A. rabies B. smallpox C. tobacco mosaic virus D. herpes E. Epstein-Barr virus

answer

C. tobacco mosaic virus

question

Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms? A. Protists B. Fungi C. Archaea D. Bacteria E. None of the choices are correct.

answer

E. None of the choices are correct.

question

Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? A. digestive B. genitourinary C. nervous D. circulatory E. respiratory

answer

C. nervous

question

When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means A. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent. B. the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane. C. the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid. D. the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host. E. the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.

answer

A. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.

question

All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A. they can be crystallized. B. they often have a geometric capsid. C. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids. D. they can cause fatal diseases. E. they can cause mild diseases.

answer

C. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids.

question

How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host? A. Budding or exocytosis B. Bursting the host cell C. Rupturing the virus D. Endocytosis E. None of these are correct

answer

A. Budding or exocytosis

question

Clostridium botulinum is made virulent by incorporated prophage genes encoding for the botulinum toxin. What term describes this process? A. Lytic phase B. Budding C. Adsorption D. Lysogenic conversion E. Latent phase

answer

D. Lysogenic conversion

question

Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm.

answer

False

question

Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.

answer

False

question

Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle.

answer

True

question

Viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections.

answer

False

question

The International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses has determined that there are only three orders of viruses.

answer

True

question

Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration.

answer

False

question

When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell.

answer

True

question

Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs.

answer

True

question

No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the United States.

answer

True

question

The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions.

answer

False

question

Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the: A. Herpesviruses. B. Poxviruses. C. Adenoviruses. D. Papovaviruses. E. Parvoviruses.

answer

E. Parvoviruses

question

All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae, except: A. Varicella-zoster virus. B. Cytomegalovirus. C. Variola virus D. Herpes simplex viruses. E. Epstein-Barr virus.

answer

C. Variola virus

question

Smallpox is a disease in which: A. fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs. B. virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons. C. recurrent episodes are called shingles. D. can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

A. fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs.

question

All of the following pertain to monkeypox, except: A. symptoms include skin pocks, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. B. outbreaks have occurred in Africa. C. transmission is typically by contact with monkeys, squirrels, and rats. D. a recent U.S. outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat. E. the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.

answer

E. the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.

question

All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1), except: A. it causes gingivostomatitis. B. it causes cold sores and herpes keratitis. C. it is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia. D. it is transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions. E. it causes herpetic whitlow in health-care workers.

answer

C. it is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia

question

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes: A. genital lesions. B. intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals. C. symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching. D. infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is: A. shingles. B. paralysis. C. encephalitis. D. myocarditis. E. kidney failure.

answer

C. encephalitis

question

Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2? A. Interferon B. Valacyclovir C. Acyclovir D. Famciclovir E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

A. Interferon

question

Chickenpox: A. is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions. B. is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material. C. has an incubation of 10 to 20 days. D. has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops. E. All of the choices are correct

answer

E. All of the choices are correct

question

Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the: A. nasal mucosa. B. finger. C. oral mucosa and tongue. D. eye. E. newborn.

answer

B. finger

question

Varicella-zoster virus: A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. C. has humans as its reservoir. D. causes chickenpox and shingles.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with: A. herpes labialis. B. shingles. C. chickenpox. D. infectious mononucleosis. E. herpes keratitis.

answer

C. chickenpox.

question

Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics, except: A. it infects the respiratory epithelium. B. it is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. C. it multiplies and is latent in the parotid gland. D. it has a 30-50 day incubation. E. it can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants.

answer

A. it infects the respiratory epithelium.

question

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. fever, and pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. D. fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis. E. None of the choices are correct.

answer

C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.

question

Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include: A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, and tinnitus. D. severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis. E. None of the choices are correct.

answer

D. severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.

question

The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following, except: A. individuals with hypertension. B. organ transplant patients. C. infants infected in utero. D. AIDS patients. E. bone marrow transplant patients.

answer

A. individuals with hypertension.

question

Cytomegalovirus: A. is among the most common of human infections. B. is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions. C. can be sexually transmitted. D. is commonly carried in the latent state. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics, except: A. it replicates in T lymphocytes, macrophages, and salivary gland tissue. B. it causes roseola in infants. C. it appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults. D. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma. E. it is transmitted by saliva.

answer

D. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma.

question

The hepadnaviruses: A. include the adenoviruses. B. show tropism for the liver. C. are transmitted by respiratory secretions. D. are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

B. show tropism for the liver.

question

Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called: A. hepatitis. B. jaundice. C. liver cancer. D. mononucleosis. E. None of the choices are correct.

answer

A. hepatitis.

question

Hepatitis B virus: A. is principally transmitted by blood. B. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse. C. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers. D. has many chronic carriers. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct

question

Hepatitis B infection: A. has an incubation of 1 to 3 weeks. B. can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route. C. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer. D. is due to a flavivirus. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

C. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer.

question

Adenoviruses are: A. nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses. B. transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions. C. causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children. D. causes of outbreaks among military recruits. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Which is incorrect about warts? A. Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV). B. Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites. C. Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet. D. Are usually cancerous. E. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal.

answer

D. Are usually cancerous.

question

All of the following pertain to genital warts, except: A. are not common in the United States B. are sexually transmitted C. often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix D. includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata E. certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis

answer

A. are not common in the United States

question

Polyomaviruses: A. cause common asymptomatic to mild infections. B. cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. C. cause problems in renal transplant patients. D. include the JC virus and BK virus. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Which is incorrect about Parvoviruses? A. They cause several diseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals. B. They are-single stranded DNA viruses. C. They cannot be transmissible to the fetus. D. They cause a disease known as fifth disease. E. Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum

answer

C. They cannot be transmissible to the fetus.

question

Fifth disease: A. is caused by Parvovirus B19. B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks. C. involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta. D. in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Which of the following viruses is an RNA virus that causes many cases of infusion hepatitis? A. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) C. Adenovirus D. Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) E. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

answer

C. Adenovirus

question

When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes: A. shock. B. hypotension. C. swelling of the legs. D. jaundice. E. gangrene.

answer

D. jaundice.

question

All of the following are similarities between HAV, HBV, and HCV, except: A. They all cause hepatitis. B. They are all endemic in the U.S. C. They all can have an incubation period of one month. D. There are diagnostic tests available to distinguish between them. E. They are all RNA viruses.

answer

E. They are all RNA viruses.

question

Which of the following are ways to control or treat hepatitis B? A. Recombinant interferon B. Heptavax vaccine C. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) D. Recombivax vaccine E. All of the choices may be recommended.

answer

E. All of the choices may be recommended.

question

Which virus may play a role in multiple sclerosis? A. Epstein Barr Virus B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) D. Herpes simplex virus-2 E. Smallpox

answer

B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)

question

Which of the following may cause reactivation of varicella-zoster virus as shingles? A. developing malignancy B. X-ray treatments C. immunosuppressive conditions D. surgery E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Which infection are you likely looking at if you view a direct smear of a cervical scraping and see enlarged (multinucleate giant) cells and intranuclear inclusions? A. HCV B. EBV C. HSV-2 D. VZV E. HPV

answer

C. HSV-2

question

Which is not correct about genital warts? A. The etiological agent is the human polyoma virus JC. B. They are strongly associated with cancer of the penis. C. Treatment can involve laser surgery. D. It is the most common STD in the United States. E. They are strongly associated with cancer of the cervix.

answer

A. The etiological agent is the human polyoma virus JC.

question

Which is incorrect about smallpox? A. There is an effective vaccine. B. Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food. C. The vaccine is effective even if given in the first few days after exposure. D. The poxvirus called variola is the etiological agent. E. The last case was seen in 1977.

answer

B. Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food.

question

Which is incorrect about viral diseases? A. Some DNA viruses can become permanent residents of host cells. B. Viral diseases can be zoonoses. C. Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm. D. Some viruses are teratogenic. E. Diagnosis of some diseases involves antigen detection with monoclonal antibodies.

answer

C. Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm.

question

As of 2000, according to the International Committee on the Taxonomy of Viruses, how are viruses classified? A. Genetic information only B. Structure only C. Chemical composition and structure D. Genetic information, structure, and chemical composition E. Genetic information, structure, host, and diseases caused

answer

D. Genetic information, structure, and chemical composition

question

Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity.

answer

TRUE

question

Chickenpox is caused by a poxvirus.

answer

FALSE

question

Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye.

answer

TRUE

question

Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus.

answer

TRUE

question

Virtually, everyone becomes infected with the herpesviruses at some time in their lives.

answer

TRUE

question

Zoster immune globulin (ZIG) and varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) are attenuated vaccines for childhood vaccination.

answer

FALSE

question

Burkett lymphoma is a B-cell malignancy, usually of the jaw, associated with Epstein-Barr infection or coinfection with other diseases.

answer

TRUE

question

Carriers of hepatitis B virus are not common.

answer

FALSE

question

All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers.

answer

FALSE

question

Parvovirus B19 causes a fatal anemia in the fetus.

answer

TRUE

question

There are vaccines for immunity to the hepatitis B virus.

answer

TRUE

question

The only body fluid that can transmit hepatitis B virus is blood.

answer

FALSE

question

Poxviruses are the largest and most complex of all animal viruses.

answer

TRUE

question

Variola major and variola minor are the two principal forms of smallpox disease.

answer

TRUE

question

The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection.

answer

FALSE

question

Characteristics of the Orthomyxoviruses include all of the following, except: A. enveloped B. include paramyxoviruses C. hemagglutinin spikes D. RNA genome E. neuraminidase spikes

answer

B. include paramyxoviruses

question

The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is: A. catalase. B. reverse transcriptase. C. hyaluronidase. D. neuraminidase. E. kinase.

answer

D. neuraminidase.

question

Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following, except: A. influenza. B. rubella. C. dengue fever. D. mumps. E. SARS.

answer

C. dengue fever.

question

Symptoms of influenza include: A. nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough. B. fever, diarrhea, vomiting. C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge. D. fever, sore throat, rash, cough. E. fever and pneumonia.

answer

C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge.

question

Reye's syndrome involves: A. aspirin use. B. a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox. C. fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney. D. children, adolescents, and young adults. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Influenza vaccines include all the following, except: A. inactivated intramuscular vaccine. B. usually incorporates three different strains. C. attenuated, nasal drops vaccine. D. provides lifelong immunity. E. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.

answer

D. provides lifelong immunity.

question

Influenza infection can be treated with: A. amantadine. B. rimantadine. C. zanamivir. D. oseltamivir. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses? A. lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Lassa fever C. hantaviruses D. Bolivian hemorrhagic fever E. Argentine hemorrhagic fever

answer

C. hantaviruses

question

Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics, except: A. reservoir is human carriers B. is a zoonosis C. symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension D. transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta E. first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest

answer

A. reservoir is human carriers

question

Parainfluenza virus: A. usually infects the elderly. B. is in the Orthomyxovirus family. C. causes influenza. D. causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

D. causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia.

question

Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of: A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella.

answer

B. mumps.

question

Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with: A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella.

answer

D. measles (rubeola).

question

This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough: A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella

answer

A. croup

question

This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage: A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella

answer

E. rubella

question

Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization? A. contains attenuated virus B. contains toxoids C. is given in early childhood D. protects against 3 different viral diseases E. None of the choices are correct.

answer

B. contains toxoids

question

All the following pertain to measles (rubeola), except: A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash B. humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen C. secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis occur D. involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) E. dry cough, sore throat, fever, conjunctivitis are symptoms

answer

A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash

question

Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus): A. causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger. B. uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site. C. can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin. D. Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Which is incorrect about rabies? A. is a zoonotic disease B. wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs C. transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation D. average incubation in human is one week E. symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, paralysis

answer

D. average incubation in human is one week

question

Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes: A. debridement. B. wash bite with soap or detergent. C. wound is infused with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG). D. postexposure vaccination with HDCV. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Coronaviruses cause: A. fever, rash, nasal discharge. B. meningitis. C. measles. D. croup. E. common cold and SARS.

answer

E. common cold and SARS.

question

Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS): A. can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress. B. began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China. C. is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus. D. is not highly transmissible. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

A. can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress.

question

Rubella is: A. caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus). B. a zoonosis. C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects. D. seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia. E. All of the choices are correct

answer

C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.

question

All arboviruses involve: A. congenital infection. B. arthropod vectors. C. diarrhea. D. birds as the primary reservoir. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

B. arthropod vectors.

question

Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involve: A. fever, headache, and rash. B. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases. C. myalgia and orbital pain. D. muscle aches and joint stiffness. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever? A. Yellow fever B. Western equine encephalitis C. Eastern equine encephalitis D. Colorado tick fever E. St. Louis encephalitis

answer

A. Yellow fever

question

West Nile virus has the following characteristics, except: A. causes hemorrhagic fever B. is an arbovirus C. transmitted by a mosquito vector D. typically is a flu-like illness E. severe encephalitis occurs in less than 1% of infected persons

answer

A. causes hemorrhagic fever

question

Yellow fever and dengue fever are: A. caused by arboviruses. B. caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting. C. zoonoses. D. transmitted by a mosquito vector. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Retroviruses have the following characteristics, except: A. glycoprotein spikes. B. DNA genome. C. envelope. D. reverse transcriptase. E. viral genes integrate into the host genome.

answer

B. DNA genome.

question

All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except: A. have an immunodeficiency B. have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm3 of blood C. get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections D. can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders E. highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States

answer

E. highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States

question

Documented transmission of HIV involves: A. mosquitoes. B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products. C. respiratory droplets. D. contaminated food. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.

question

All of the following pertain to HIV, except: A. attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors B. viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus C. it has reverse transcriptase D. causes Kaposi sarcoma E. can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities

answer

D. causes Kaposi sarcoma

question

Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Fusion inhibitors D. Integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

B. Protease inhibitors

question

This new class of drugs will interfere with the virus inserting itself into host DNA: A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. protease inhibitors C. fusion inhibitors D. integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

D. integrase inhibitors

question

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is: A. leukemia. B. Hodgkin's lymphoma. C. Kaposi's sarcoma. D. melanoma. E. colon cancer.

answer

C. Kaposi's sarcoma.

question

Hydrophobia, the dumb phase, and Negri bodies in nervous tissue are all part of which disease? A. Rabies B. Dengue fever C. Norwalk virus D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) E. Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease

answer

A. Rabies

question

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except: A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing B. transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water C. can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea D. if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed E. there are effective vaccines to prevent polio

answer

A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing

question

The major agents responsible for the common cold are: A. Coxsackie viruses. B. Rhinoviruses. C. Influenza viruses. D. Caliciviruses. E. Rotavirus.

answer

B. Rhinoviruses.

question

The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is: A. Coxsackie viruses. B. Rhinoviruses. C. Influenza viruses. D. Caliciviruses. E. Rotavirus.

answer

E. Rotavirus.

question

Norwalk agent is A. a calicivirus. B. transmitted orofecally. C. sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish. D. a common enteric virus of gastroenteritis. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection? A. It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route. B. It has flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine. C. It predisposes a person for liver cancer. D. Iimmune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity. E. HAVRAX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.

answer

C. It predisposes a person for liver cancer.

question

Spongiform encephalopathies are: A. associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain. B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system. C. caused by prions. D. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Strussler-Scheinker syndrome. E. All of the choices are correct.

answer

E. All of the choices are correct.

question

The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through: A. intravenous drug use. B. homosexual sex. C. blood transfusion. D. heterosexual sex. E. blood products.

answer

D. heterosexual sex.

question

Which area has the largest number of people living with HIV/AIDS? A. North America B. Sub-Saharan Africa C. Southeast Asia D. Carribbean E. Western Europe

answer

B. Sub-Saharan Africa

question

Which of the following is incorrect regarding coronaviruses? A. One type can cause the common cold. B. One type can cause SARS. C. They are common animal viruses in pigs, dogs, cats, and poultry. D. There are no tests to confirm diagnosis. E. There is no specific treatment other than supportive care.

answer

D. There are no tests to confirm diagnosis.

question

Which is incorrect about measles? A. Koplik spots appear before the characteristic rash. B. Humans are the sole reservoir. C. Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine. D. It is also known as rubeola. E. It is one of the most contagious infectious diseases.

answer

C. Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine.

question

All of the following are important bunyavirus diseases, except: A. Hantavirus. B. Rift Valley fever. C. California encephalitis. D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). E. Korean hemorrhagic fever.

answer

D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).

question

Which is correct about influenza? A. Antigenic shift is a minor change in the viral strain. B. The virus is found in swine and cats. C. The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines. D. Influenza A has a mortality rate of close to 35%. E. The virus binds to the intestinal mucosa.

answer

C. The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines.

question

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a paramyxovirus? A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) B. Parainfluenza C. Mumps D. Measles E. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections

answer

A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

question

All the following are correct about the polio vaccines, except: A. The inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain. B. Treatment for polio involves mainly alleviating pain and suffering. C. The virus is transmitted through fecal-oral means. D. Most infections do not result in paralysis. E. Dr. Jonas Salk developed the IPV vaccine in 1954.

answer

A. The inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain.

question

Which of the following is correct about polio? A. The disease is still affecting millions of people worldwide, mainly in Africa and India. B. The disease is spread by the respiratory route. C. The oral polio vaccine (OPV) is not responsible for causing any polio. D. The Sabin vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine in the U.S. today. E. The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces.

answer

E. The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces

question

Cocksackieviruses: A. are paramyxoviurses. B. are the etiological agents of hairy-cell leukemia. C. can cause hand-foot-mouth disease. D. are a retrovirus. E. replicate in helper T cells.

answer

C. can cause hand-foot-mouth disease.

question

A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes and enlarged lymph nodes. The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years. However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash. The patient also has thrush. Among various blood tests, which result is the causative agent of AIDS? A. High level of CD4 T cells B. Positive level of HIV antigen C. Positive isolation of Candida albicans D. Positive isolation of Herpes simplex ulcers

answer

B. Positive level of HIV antigen

question

What does AIDS stand for? A. aids induced diseases B. aids in disguises C. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome D. human acquired immunodeficiency syndromes

answer

C. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

question

The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person.

answer

TRUE

question

Influenza is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route.

answer

FALSE

question

The major reservoir for the Sin Nombre hantavirus is the deer mouse.

answer

TRUE

question

Guillain-Barré syndrome involves varying degrees of demyelination of the peripheral nervous system leading to muscle weakness of extremities and possible paralysis.

answer

TRUE

question

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion.

answer

FALSE

question

Respiratory syncytial virus and Rotavirus are major causes of global outbreaks in infants 6 months of age, or younger.

answer

TRUE

question

In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water.

answer

TRUE

question

The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester.

answer

FALSE

question

Aedes mosquitoes is the vector involved in yellow fever and dengue fever.

answer

TRUE

question

A vaccine is currently available to prevent HIV infection.

answer

FALSE

question

One positive test for the presence of HIV antibodies dictates the diagnosis as AIDS

answer

FALSE

STUDY

Antibiotic Resistance In Bacteria Biochemistry Inhibit Cell Wall Synthesis Microbiology Microbiology For Health Sciences

Biochemistry – Lecture 25 – Flashcards 77 terms

Martha Hill

77 terms

Preview

Biochemistry – Lecture 25 – Flashcards

question

X occur widely as components of antibiotics (derived from various sources)

answer

oligosaccharides

question

How is erythromycin produced?

answer

is an antibiotic produced by a strain of Streptomyces erythreus

question

is an antibiotic produced by a strain of Streptomyces erythreus

answer

erythromycin

question

***Erythromycin - It's an important antibiotic 1. What does it do and how? 2. Compared to penicillin? 3. Side effects?

answer

1. Erthryomycin binds to the 50s subunit of the bacterial 70s rRNA complex, and protein synthesis and subsequently structure/function processes critical for life or replication are inhibited. 2. Erythromycin is an antibiotic that has an antimicrobial spectrum similar to or slightly wider than that of penicillin, and is often used for people who have an allergy to penicillins. For respiratory tract infections, it has better coverage of atypical organisms, including mycoplasma (a genus of bacteria without a cell wall) and Legionellosis (stains poorly with Gram stain because of unique lipopolysaccharide coat, requires silver staining to visualize) 3. Gastrointestinal disturbances, such as diarrhea, nausea, abdominal pain, and vomiting are very common

question

binds to the 50s subunit of the bacterial 70s rRNA complex, and protein synthesis and subsequently structure/function processes critical for life or replication are inhibited.

answer

Erythromycin

question

is an antibiotic that has an antimicrobial spectrum similar to or slightly wider than that of penicillin, and is often used for people who have an allergy to penicillins. For respiratory tract infections, it has better coverage of atypical organisms, including mycoplasma (a genus of bacteria without a cell wall) and Legionellosis (stains poorly with Gram stain because of unique lipopolysaccharide coat, requires silver staining to visualize)

answer

Erythromycin

question

Erthryomycin binds to the x of the bacterial x, and protein synthesis and subsequently structure/function processes critical for life or replication are inhibited.

answer

50s subunit of the bacterial 70s rRNA complex

question

Mycoplasma

answer

a genus of bacteria without a cell wall

question

Stains poorly with Gram-stain because of unique lipopolysaccharide coat, requires silver stain to visualize

answer

Legionellosis

question

How to stain for Legionella

answer

It's a gram negative bacteria, and you need to stain with silver to visualize it.

question

Legionnaires' disease is caused by

answer

Legionella bacteria

question

Legionellosis 1. What is it? 2. History 3. When was it identified and isolated? 4. How do you visualize it?

answer

1. It's a disease caused by Legionellosis bacteria that causes illness, pneumonia, rapid breathing then chest pain. Can cause death 2. First recognized outbreak occurred on July 27, 1976 at the Bellevue Stratford Hotel in Philadelphia, where members of the American Legion, a United States military veterans association, had gathered for the American bicentennial. Within two days of the event's start, veterans began falling ill with a then unidentified pneumonia. They had rapid breathing and complained of chest pain. As many as 221 people were given medical treatment, and 34 deaths occurred. At the time, the U.S. was debating the risk of a possible swine flu epidemic, and this incident prompted the passage of a national swine flu vaccination program. That cause was ruled out, and research continued for months, and various theories proposed - from toxic chemicals to terrorism aimed at the veterans. U.S CDCP mounted an unprecedented investigation and by September ended up focusing on the hotel environment itself and found in January 1977 the true cause, the Legionellosis bacterium. It was finally identified and isolated, and was found to be breeding in the cooling tower of the hotel's air conditioning system, which then spread it through the entire building. This prompted new regulations worldwide for climate control systems. 3. Identified in January 1977. 4. Have to do a silver stain

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Vancomycin 1. What is it? 2. How does it act in general terms? 3. How does it act specifically? 4. Describe the chemistry and molecules involved that vancomycin binds

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1. is a glycopeptide antibiotic used in the treatment of infections caused by Gram positive bacteria 2. Vancomycin acts by inhibiting proper cell wall synthesis in GRAM POSITIVE bacteria. Due to different mechanism by which gram negative bacteria produce their cell walls and the various factors related to entering the outer membrane of Gram-negative organisms. Vancomycin is not active against Gram-negative bacteria. 3. Vancomycin prevents incorporation of N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetylglucosamine peptide subunits into the peptidoglycan matrix; which forms the major structural component of Gram-positive cell walls. Basically, it ruins the base of everything 4. Vancomycin is a ****ing huge hydrophilic molecule that's able to form hydrogen bond interactions with the terminal D-alanyl-D-alanine moieties of the NAM/NAG peptides. This binding of vancomycin to the D-alanyl-D-alanine prevents the incorporation of the NAM/NAG subunits into the peptidoglycan matrix.

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When is Vancomycin used?

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Vancomycin has traditionally been reserved as a drug of "last resort", used only after treatment with other antibiotics had failed, although the emergence of vancomycin resistant organisms means that it is increasingly being displaced from this role by new antibiotics. Vancomycin never became first-line treatment for Staphylococcus aureus for several reasons... in other slides

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Does vancomycin work against gram positive or gram negative bacteria? Why?

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Vancomycin acts by inhibiting proper cell wall synthesis in GRAM POSITIVE bacteria. Due to different mechanism by which gram negative bacteria produce their cell walls and the various factors related to entering the outer membrane of Gram-negative organisms. Vancomycin is not active against Gram-negative bacteria.

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How does Vancomycin prevent NAM/NAG-peptide subunit incorporation into the peptidoglycan matrix?

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Vancomycin is a ****ing huge hydrophilic molecule that's able to form hydrogen bond interactions with the terminal D-alanyl-D-alanine moieties of the NAM/NAG peptides. This binding of vancomycin to the D-alanyl-D-alanine prevents the incorporation of the NAM/NAG subunits into the peptidoglycan matrix.

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has traditionally been reserved as a drug of "last resort", used only after treatment with other antibiotics had failed, although the emergence of x resistant organisms means that it is increasingly being displaced from this role by new antibiotics. x never became first-line treatment for Staphylococcus aureus for several reasons... in other slides

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Vancomycin

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Why is vancomycin not a first line of treatment for bacterial infections, especially for Staphylococcus aureus?

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1. Poor oral bioavailability: not well absorbed into GI tract, have to give intravenously. 2. Other orally available antibiotics including methicillin (and its successors, nafcillin and cloxacillin) have better activity against staph aureus. Vancomycin is still used for methicillin resistant staph aureus.

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What antibiotics kick the crap out of vancomycin in terms of killing staph aureus?

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methicillin, nafcillin, cloxacillin

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Dextrans

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It's a cooler version of starch and glycogen, where the main linkages aren't alpha(1,4), but they are alpha(1,6). This isn't amylopectin, where 1,4 is main linkage with occasional 1,6 here and there. No, dextrans are linked 1,6 and have occasional 1,4 1,3 and 1,2 linking adjacent strands

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If you change main glucose linkage from alpha 1,4 to alpha 1,6, you get a new family of polysaccharides - called?

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dextrans

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Roles of dextrans

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1. Dextrans formed by bacteria are components of dental plaque 2. Dextrans in plaque presumably provide protection for oral bacteria 3. Cross linked dextrans are used as "Sephadex" gels in column chromatography 4. These gels, used to separate biomolecules on the basis of size, are up to 98% water.

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X formed by bacteria are components of dental plaque

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dextrans

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dextrans in plaque presumably provide

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protection for oral bacteria

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x are used as "Sephadex" gels in column chromatography

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cross-linked dextrans

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These gels, used to separate biomolecules on the basis of size are up to 98% water

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Sephadex gels made from cross linked dextrans.

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Agarose, a component of agar obtained from marine red algae, is a chain of

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alternating D-galactose and 3,6-anhydro-L-galactose

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used in laboratories to separate biomolecules on the basis of size

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agarose gels (sephadex another answer)

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The favored conformation of agarose in water is.....why does this matter?

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The tertiary structure of agarose is a double helix with a so-called threefold screw axis. The central cavity of this double helix can accommodate H2O molecules. Agarose and agaropectin readily form gels that contain high amounts of H2O (up to 99.5%).

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x are linear chains of repeating disaccharides in which one unit is an amino sugar and one or both is negatively charged.

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Glycosaminoglycans

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Glycosaminoglycans are components of

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proteoglycans

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Glycosaminoglycans

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linear chains of repeating disaccharides in which one unit is an amino sugar and one or both is negatively charged.

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Linear chain of repeating disaccharides

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glycosaminoglycans

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Functions of glycosaminoglycans 1. What is a GAG? 2. Heparin 3. Hyaluronates 3. Chondroitins and keratan sulfate 4. Dermatan sulfate 5. Constituents of?

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1. Linear chains of repeating disaccharides in which one unit is an amino sugar and one or both is negatively charged 2. Heparin, very high negative charge, is natural anticoagulant. 3. Hyaluronates (up to 25,000 disaccharides units) are components of the vitreous humor of the eye and of synovial fluid, the lubricant fluid of the body's joints. 4. Chondroitins and keratan sulfate are found in tendons, cartilage, and other connective tissue 5. Dermatan sulfate is a component of the extracellular matrix of skin 6. Glycosaminoglycans are constituents of proteoglycans

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Glycosaminoglycan with very high negative charge, a natural anticoagulant.

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heparin

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Hyaluronates

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Glycosaminoglycan structure consisting of up to 25,00 disaccharide units. Component of the vitreous humor of the eye and of synovial fluid, the lubricant fluid of the body's joints.

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Glycosaminoglycan structure consisting of up to 25,00 disaccharide units. Component of the vitreous humor of the eye and of synovial fluid, the lubricant fluid of the body's joints.

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Hyaluronates

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Chondroitins and keratan sulfate

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glycosaminoglycan structure found in tendons, cartilage, and other connective tissue

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glycosaminoglycan structure found in tendons, cartilage, and other connective tissue

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Chondroitins and keratan sulfate

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Dermatan sulfate

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glycosaminoglycan component of the extracellular matrix of skin.

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glycosaminoglycan component of the extracellular matrix of skin.

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dermatan sulfate

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Glycosaminoglycans are constituents of

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Proteoglycans, heparin, hyaluronates, chondroitins, keratan sulfate, dermatan sulfate

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Where do you see a huge variety of glycoproteins and proteoglycans

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animal cell surfaces

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***Describe basic proteoglycan structure

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You have GAG units with tetrapeptide bridges?

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Function of cell surface polysaccharides. How do they even show info?

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These polysaccharide structures, glycoproteins and proteoglycans, regulate cell-cell recognition and interaction. The uniqueness of the "information" in these structures is determined by the enzymes that synthesize these polysaccharides

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The uniqueness of the "information" in these structures is determined by the enzymes that synthesize these polysaccharides

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Cell surface polysaccharides/glycoproteins/proteoglycans

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How do proteoglycans modulate processes in cells and organisms?

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Proteoglycans are glycoproteins whose carbohydrates are mostly glycosaminoglycans. Proteoglycans are components of the cell membrane and the glycocalyx - the sugar shell around the cell. Proteoglycans typically consist of proteins with one or two types of glycosaminoglycans

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*****What's the difference between proteoglycans and glycoproteins?

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Proteoglycans are glycoproteins whose carbohydrates are mostly glycosaminoglycans.

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Where do you find proteoglycans?

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They are components of the cell membrane and the GLYCOCALYX - "sugar shell" around the cell.

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Glycocalyx

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Proteoglycan "sugar shell" around the cell

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Proteoglycan "sugar shell" around the cell

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glycocalyx

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They typically consist of proteins with one or two types of glycosaminoglycan

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proteoglycans

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How is the structure of cartilage matrix proteoglycan important for function?

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The cartilage matrix proteoglycan is highly hydrated. Compression of cartilage (as in walking) squeezes water out of the cartilage tissue to cushion the joint. Water is reabsorbed when the stress and compression diminishes.

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2 major functions of Proteoglycans and examples

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1. Modulation of cell growth processes - proteoglycans bind growth factor proteins in the glycocalyx, providing a reservoir of growth factors at the cell surface 2. Cushioning in joints - Cartilage matrix proteoglycans absorb large amounts of water. During joint movement, cartilage is compressed, expelling water.

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Cartilage matrix proteoglycans absorb large amounts of water. During joint movement, cartilage is x, expelling water.

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compressed

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x bind growth factor proteins in the glycocalyx, providing a reservoir of growth factors at the cell surface

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proteoglycans

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2 big functions of heparin

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Glycosaminoglycan structure with very high negative charge, - Natural anticoagulant - inhibits cell proliferation in a process involving internalization of the GAG moiety and its migration to cell nucleus.

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Heparin - a x glycosaminoglycan, is widely used as an x anticoagulant

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highly sulfated, injectable

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A highly sulfated glycosaminoglycan, widely used as an injectable anticoagulant

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Heparin

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Can be used to form an inner anticoagulant surface on various experimental and medical devices such as test tubes and renal dialysis machines

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heparin

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Heparin acts as an x, preventing the formation of clots and extension of existing clots within the blood. While heparin does not x, it allows the body's natural clot lysis mechanism to...x

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anticoagulant, does not break down clots that have already formed, it allows body's natural clot lysis mechanisms to work normally to break down clots that have formed.

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***The Heparin anticoagulation pathway

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Heparin binds to enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III(AT), this causes a conformation change that activates AT through an increase in the flexibility of its reactive site loop. The activated AT then inactivates thrombin and other proteases involved in blood clotting. So, basically Heparin binds and activates AT, and AT inactivates thrombin and other proteases involved in blood clotting.

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Heparin binds and activates

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Enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III (AT)

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Enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III(AT) is activated by, and inactivates...

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activated by heparin, and inactivates thrombin and other proteases involved in blood clotting.

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Proteins that bind carbohydrates with high specificity and high affinity

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Lectins

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Lectins

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proteins that bind carbohydrates with high specificity and high affinity.

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What is the sugar code?

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Sugars are the "letters" of the sugar code. Lectins are "translators" of the sugar code. Many processes, such as cell migration, cell-cell interactions, immune responses, and blood clotting, depend on information transfer using this code.

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Many processes, such as cell migration, cell-cell interactions, immune responses, and blood clotting, depend on information transfer using this code.

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the sugar code - sugars are the letters, lectins are the translators.

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C-Reactive Protein 1. What is it? 2. What does it do? 3. How does it act? 4. Diagnostic marker of x?

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1. A protein (lectin) that is found in the blood, the levels of which rise in response to inflammation. 2. C-reactive protein (CRP) functions to limit tissue damage, acute inflammation, and autoimmune reactions 3. CRP acts by binding to phosphocholine moieties expressed on the surface of dead or dying cells (and some types of bacteria) in order to activate the complement system, a system that helps clear pathogens from the body. 4 CRP is a diagnostic marker of inflammation, and as such it is an indicator of heart disease risk. Since many things can cause elevated CRP, it's not a specific prognostic indicator.

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A protein found in the blood, the levels of which rise in response to inflammation. Its physiological role is to bind to phosphocholine expressed on the surface of dead or dying cells (and some types of bacteria) in order to activate the complement system, a system that helps clear pathogens from the body.

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C-reactive protein (CRP)

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How does CRP attempt to limit inflammation?

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CRP levels rise dramatically during inflammatory processes occurring in the body. CRP binds to phosphocholine on FOREIGN CELLS/MICROBES and DEAD/DAMAGED CELLS and is thought to assist in complement binding by enhancing phagocytosis by macrophages, which express a receptor for CRP.

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Activity of these goes up when CRP binds to foreign or damaged cells

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Macrophages.

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Express a receptor for CRP

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macrophages - target CRP bound to foreign/dead stuff

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This rises up to 50,000 fold in acute inflammation, such as infection

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CRP

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CRP rises up to x fold in acute inflammation, such as infection

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50,000

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Marker of inflammation

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CRP

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Measuring and charting CRP values can prove useful in

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determining disease progress or the effectiveness of treatments

STUDY

Antibiotic Resistance In Bacteria AP Biology Biology Evolutionary Biology

Holt McDougal Biology Ch 1 – Flashcards 27 terms

Robert Lollar

27 terms

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Holt McDougal Biology Ch 1 – Flashcards

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Adaptation

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Inherited trait selected over time for organisms to live in their environment.

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Biodiversity

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Variety of life in an area.

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Biology

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The science that studies living organisms.

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Biosphere

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The regions of the surface and atmosphere of the Earth (or other planet) where living organisms exist.

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Biotechnology

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Use and application of living things and biological processes.

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Cell

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Basic unit of life.

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Constant

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Condition that is controlled so it doesn't change during an experiment.

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Data

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Observations and measurements taken during experiment

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Dependent variable

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Experimental data collected through observation and measurement.

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DNA

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Molecule that stores genetic info.

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Ecosystem

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Collection of organisms and non living things.

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Evolution

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Change in species over time.

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Experiment

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Process that tests a hypothesis.

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Gene

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Specific region of DNA that codes for a particular protein.

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Genomics

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Study and comparison of a genome in a certain species.

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Homeostasis

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Regulation and maintenance of constant internal conditions in an organism.

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Hypothesis

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Proposed explanation or answer to a scientific explanation.

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Independent variable

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Condition or factor that is manipulated by a scientist during and experiment.

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Metabolism

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Chemical process that synthesize or break down materials in an organism.

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Microscope

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Tool that provides an enlarged image of an object.

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Molecular genetics

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Study of DNA structure and function.

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Observation

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Using the senses to study the world.

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Organism

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Any individual living thing.

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Species

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Group of organisms that are similar.

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System

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Changing, organized group of related part that form a whole.

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Theory

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Proposed explanations for variety of observations and data results.

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Transgenic

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Organism whose genome has been altered to contain one or more genes from another species.

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