Which specific part of the human anatomy allows us the unique ability to produce speech?

The hyoid bone, found in the neck More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/anth-101-inquisitive-what-is-physical-anthropology/

Which two primary energies of your subtle anatomy does yoga merge? p. 22

Prana (Life Force of the Atom) and Apana (The Eliminating Force)

Which of the following is TRUE about respiratory anatomy in infants and children?

The tongue of an infant or child takes up proportionally more space than an adult’s. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-6-anatomy-and-physiology-31539/

Which of the following options best describes anatomy?

The study of external body structures The oldest medical science The study of internal body structures More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/map-chapter-1/

What are the 7 different Anatomy of a Dental Syringe?

1. thumb ring, 2. finger grip, 3. spring, 4. guide bearing, 5. piston with attached harpoon, 6. syringe barrel, 7. needle adaptor More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/local-anesthesia-quiz-2/

What anatomy can be used to locate T7?

The tip of the scapula when patients arms are at their sides. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/9-12-spinal-anesthesia/

Which items were among the earliest prints on paper to be widely distributed throughout Europe? Playing Cards Maps Studies of human anatomy Cartoons

Playing cards More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/art-appreciaion-final-revel-quizzes/

Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of female anatomy? Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle then develops into:

A corpus luteum More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/patho-chapts-3132/

What is the anatomy of the stomach from anterior to posterior

esophagus -> cardia/cardial notch -> fundus -> body -> pyloric antrum – > / angular inclosure / ->pyloric canal – > pylorus – > duodenum More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/gastric-cancer-lecture/

What is the basic anatomy of the Breast and the pathologies associated with each part?

Lactiferous sinus/ Major duct –Intraductal papilloma -Abscess/mastitis -Paget disease Terminal duct/lobular unit -Fibrocystic change -DCIS -LCIS -Ductal carcinoma -Lobular carcinoma Stroma -Fibroadenoma -Phyllodes tumor More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/overview-of-breast-cancer-breast-pathology-1-and-2/

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Psychology Study Guide: 2 – Flashcards 104 terms

Jennifer Hawkins

104 terms

Preview

Psychology Study Guide: 2 – Flashcards

question

In psychology, the term sensation formally refers to:

answer

the process of detecting a psychical stimulus.

question

In contrast to sensation, the term perception is formally defined as the:

answer

active mental process of integrating , organizing, and interpreting sensory data.

question

The process by which physical energy such as light, is converted into a coded neural signal that can be transmitted to and interpreted by the brain is called:

answer

transduction

question

The smallest possible stimulus that can be detected half the time, or or the minimum level of stimuli that we can detect is called:

answer

the absolute threshold.

question

The smallest possible difference between two stimuli that can be detected is called the:

answer

difference threshold, or just the noticeable difference

question

According to _____, whether we can detect a change in the strength of a stimulus depends upon the intensity of the original stimulus.

answer

Weber's law.

question

John puts one toe in the swimming pool.... blah blah blah... shivers... example of what?

answer

Sensory difference

question

When psychologists refer to the visible spectrum, they mean:

answer

the narrow range of wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum that are visible to the human eye

question

The clear membrane that covers the outside of the eye and helps gather and direct incoming light is called the:

answer

cornea

question

the muscle that controls the amount of light entering the pupil is the:

answer

iris

question

The ____ thickens or thins to focus incomin light. This process is called____.

answer

lends; accommodation

question

As light waves enter the eye, which three stuctures do they pass through first?

answer

cornea, iris, lens

question

the blind spot is caused by

answer

the absence of rods or cones at the point where the optic nerve leaves the eye.

question

Bob had perfect vision until he was 45, and then he needed to start wearing glasses for reading. Most likely, Bob has developed a visual problem called:

answer

myopiam causes by thickening of the cornea

question

Identify the sequence that correctly represents the path taken by light signals through the eye

answer

cornea,pupil,lens,retina,optic nerve

question

By definition, stimuli that are perceived subliminally are:

answer

inaccessible to conscious awareness

question

How do glasses correct visual problems?

answer

Glasses correct vision by intercepting and bending incoming light waves so that they are focused properly on the retina

question

Rods are used for vision in _____ light, and cones are used for vision in _____ light.

answer

dim;bright

question

Cones are most concentrated in the:

answer

fovea

question

According to the trichromatic theory of color vision:

answer

cones come in three basic varieties: red-sensitive, green-sensitive, or blue-sensitive

question

Which of the following phenomena can be explained by the opponent-process theory of color vision?

answer

afterimages

question

Our perception of sound is directly related to the physical properties of:

answer

sound waves

question

Loudness is to ____ as pitch is to ____.

answer

amplitude; frequency

question

The primary function of the ____ is to catch sound waves and funnel them into the ear canal.

answer

pinna

question

The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are:

answer

three tiny bones in the middle ear

question

Separating the middle ear from the inner ear is a structure called the:

answer

oval window

question

The inner ear includes which of the following structures?

answer

The cochlea, basilar membrane, and hair cells

question

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of parts of the ear that sound travels in hearing?

answer

pinna, ear canal, eardrum, hammer, anvil, stirrup, oval window, cochlea, basilar membrane, hair cells, auditory nerve

question

Which of the following is true?

answer

Place theory explains how people hear high pitched sounds, while frequency theory explains how people hear low pitched sounds

question

Smell and taste receptors respond to what type of stimulus?

answer

chemical

question

Gustation is to olfaction as ____ is to ____.

answer

taste; smell

question

Which part of the brain is thought to regulate the emotional response to odors?

answer

the limbic system

question

The sensation of taste results from the activation of receptor cells by what kind of stimuli?

answer

chemical substances dissolved in saliva

question

The primary tastes include:

answer

sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami(MSG)

question

An influential theory for explaining the experience of pain is called the ____ theory of pain, which holds that the sensation of pain is controlled by a series of ____ in the spinal cord.

answer

gate control; gates

question

You are able to maintain your equilibrium and balance because of the:

answer

vestibular sense

question

In exercise class, your teacher instructs you to close your eyes and touch your toes. Your ability to touch your toes even though you can't see them is due to your ____ sense.

answer

kinesthetic

question

According to one important perceptual principle, when we look at a scene we automatically tend to separate the elements of that scene into an object and its background. This principle is called"

answer

Figure-ground relationship

question

The tendency to group objects that are close to one another as a single unit is called the:

answer

law of proximity

question

Because of the law of _____, you perceive the following as two groups of O's that are separated by a group of dashes.

answer

similarity

question

The letters on the falshing neon sign actually read: CPEN FOR BUSINESS! What law makes us perceive it as OPEN FOR BUSINESS?

answer

closure

question

Two identical model cars are parked at the far end of a parking lot. You are able to determine that one of the cars is closer to you than the other because it appears to be slightly larger, even though you know it is the same size as the other. This is what perceptual cue?

answer

relative size

question

Feedback from the muscles of the eye can help us judge the distance of an object, because the lens of the eye thickens when we change our focus from a distant object to a nearby object. This is a visual lens called?

answer

accommodation

question

Which of the following statements is correct

answer

the process of accommodation requires only one eye

question

IF you look at a far away street sign with first your left eye then your right eye the images look virtually identical. But if you look at your finger held just in front of your nose at a time, the two images look different. What kind of phenomenon is an example of which distance cue?

answer

retinal disparity

question

Distance cues that involve both eyes are called ____ cues,while distance cues that involve only one eye are called___

answer

binocular; monocular

question

the visceral sensory systems involves ____, while the vestibular system involves

answer

internal organs; balance

question

psychologists formally define learning as

answer

a relatively permanent change in behavior or knowledge that is due to past experiance

question

when it comes to the learning theories of conditioning, which psychological perspective has has the most influence?

answer

behaviorism

question

in psychology the term conditioning refers to:

answer

learning associations between environmental events and behavioral repsonses

question

in response to a cold temperature, your body will shiver reflexively. Using Pavlov's terminology, the cold temperature would be termed a(n):

answer

unconditioned stimulus UCS

question

In response to cutting up an onion, airborne irritants released by the onion body will cause your eyes to tear, Using Pavlov's terminologym the tears would be termed a(n):

answer

Unconditioned response UCR

question

Essentially, classical conditioning is a process of learning:

answer

an association between two stimuli

question

If you shine a bright light directly into a persons eye, the pupil of the eye will reflexively constrict. Using Pavlov's terminology, the bright light would be termed _____, and the pupil constricting would be termed the ____.

answer

UCS;UCR

question

After repeatedly paring the sound of a bell with food being placed in a dogs mouth,the sound of the bell alone will make the dog salivate. At this point, the sound of the bell is a

answer

conditioned stimulus

question

A young child has learned to associate the sight of a nurse's white uniform witht eh fear and pain of getting an injection. If the young child begins reacting with fear to the sight of any white jacket what has occurred?

answer

stimulus generalization

question

After a dog had been conditioned to salivate at the sight of meat powderm the meat powder was presented to the dog every three mintues and held just out of the dogs reach. Over the course of several trials, the amount of saliva secreted by the dog decreased to zero, indicating that ____ had occurred.

answer

extinction

question

What was the unconditioned response UCR in Watson and Rayners famous "Little albert" study?

answer

fear in response to the loud clanging sound

question

What happened after little Albert was classically conditioned to fear a tame white rat?

answer

stimulus generalization occurred, Albert responded with fear to fuzzy objects and furry animals

question

Ever since she foolishly drank too much beer at a party and vomited sharon becomes nausteated at the smell or taste of beer. The conditioned stimulus is ___ and the conditioned response is ____

answer

the smell or taste of beer; nausea

question

Classical conditioning involves_____ while operant conditioning involves ____.

answer

reflexive behaviors; voluntary behaviors

question

Which of the following statements best captures the flavor of Thorndike's law of effect?

answer

rewarding behaviors are more likely to be repeated, while unrewarded bahviors are less likely to be repeated

question

which of the following statement sbest captures the basic idea of operant conditioning

answer

behavior is shaped and maintained by its consequences

question

While a primary reinforcer derives it reinforcing value _____, conditioned reinforcers derive their reinforcing value _____.

answer

naturally ; form primary reinforcers

question

Which of the following would be considered a secondary or conditioned reinforcer?

answer

money

question

Negative reinforcement ____ the likelihood of a behavior being repeated, and punishment ____ the likelihood of a behavior being repeated

answer

increases ; decreases

question

Punishment is most effective if

answer

it consistently follows the operant

question

Which of the following alternatives to punishment represents the BEST method for reducing a problem behavior?

answer

Jose is reinforced for working quietly in class instead of being punished for talking in class

question

If you reinforce successively closer approximations of a behavior until the desired behavior is displayed, you are using the perant conditioning procedure called:

answer

shaping

question

Partial reinforcement is to ____ as continuous reinforcement is to ____

answer

sometimes; always

question

The ____ scheduales of reinforcement prodice behavior that is MORE RESISTANT TO EXTINCTION

answer

variable ratio and variable interval

question

A rat in a skinner box recieves a food pellet every ten times the bar is pressed. The rat is on a ____ schedule of reinforcement

answer

fixed-ratio

question

If exposure to inescapable and uncontrollable aversive events produces passive behaviorm the respinse of passivity is termed:

answer

learned helplessness

question

A rat in skinners box is reinforced for the first bar press it maked after one minute has elapsed. The rat is on a ___ schedule of reinforcement

answer

fixed- interval

question

Which of the following researches would be most likely to believe that we learn to do things by seeing others receive rewards or punishments for their actions

answer

Albert Bandura

question

Positive reinforcement is to negative reinforcement as:

answer

Addition of a reinforcing stimulus is to removal of an aversive stimulus

question

The famous bobo doll research was conducted by____ and showed the power of___

answer

Albert bandura; obervational learning

question

according to the multi-store or stage model of memory:

answer

Memory inolves the stages of sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory

question

Short-term memory is ofter referred to as ___ memory

answer

working

question

Visual sensory memory is to auditory sensory memory as ___ is to ___

answer

iconic memory; echoic memory

question

seeing what you wrote with a sparkler after you waved it around is an example of what

answer

ionic memory

question

what happens to information in short term memory that is not firther processed or rehearsed?

answer

the information fades or decays

question

When you relate a long number to other things to remember the full thing, like the first numbers 1997 is the year you were born and the last numbers are your aunts phone number what are you doing

answer

chunking

question

Merely repeating information over and over is called___ while focusing on the meaning of the information is called___

answer

maintenance rehearsal, elaborative rehersal

question

the amount of information that can be help in long-term memory:

answer

seems to be limitless

question

which of the following statements about long-term memory is FALSE?

answer

one effective strategy for encoding information into long term memory is maintenance rehersal

question

Knowledge of how to perform different skills and actions is called ___ memory while knowledge of facts, concepts, and ideas is called ____ memory

answer

procedural; semantic

question

Brandon vividly remembers when he had to go to the emergency room for stitches on his left thigh. This is an example of which type of long term memory

answer

episodic memory

question

Another name for explicit memory is

answer

declarative memory

question

___ is the process of accessing information stored in long term memory

answer

retrieval

question

Essay tests are to ___ as matching tests are to ___

answer

free recal;cued recall

question

While trying to recall a list of items in correct order, the tendency to remember the first items in the list is called ____ while the tendency to remember the last items in the list is called ____

answer

the primacy effect; the recency effect

question

When something tragic happens and you dwell on sad depressing things

answer

mood congruence

question

specific, intense, emotional memories like the memory of your first child being born are what

answer

flashbulb memories

question

which of the following is NOT a possible cause of forgetting described in your text book?

answer

consolidation

question

When old memories interfere with a new memory,____ is said to have occurred, and when a new memory interferes with an old memory, ___ is said to have occurred

answer

proactive interference; retroactive interference

question

___ is due to conscious deliberate forgetting as ____ is due to unconcious forgetting

answer

suppression; repression

question

the idea of repression is a cornerstone of psychoanalysism Sigmund Frued's famous theory of personality and psychotherapy. According to Frued, what gets repressed

answer

psychologically threatening feelings, emotions, and memories, especially those from early childhood

question

Justin was involved in an automobile accident and sustained a serious injury to his head. When asked about the accident Justin could not remember what happened or how the accident occurred. Justin is suffering from

answer

retrograde amnesia

question

The inability to remember pst events is ___ as the inability to form new memories is ___.

answer

Retrograde amnesia; anterograde amnesia

question

The gradula, physical process of converting new long term memories into stable enduring memory codes is termed:

answer

memory consolidation

question

Keisha is determined to ace her microbiology final. What is least likely to help her

answer

going without sleep the night before and studying right up until she takes the test

question

the cocktail party effect provides an example of:

answer

selective attention

question

Which of the following helps the process of consolidating new memories

answer

sleep

STUDY

Adolescents And Young Adults Anatomy Anatomy And Physiology Human Anatomy And Physiology 1

A&P- "essay questions" – Flashcards 9 terms

Thomas Owen

9 terms

Preview

A&P- "essay questions" – Flashcards

question

Bone Marrow

answer

There are spaces in the trabecular cavities of spongy bone that hold either red bone marrow (hematopoietic tissue) or yellow bone marrow (fat) depending on the age of the person.

question

Where does blood cell production occur in adults?

answer

????? In the red bone marrow of the long bones

question

An X-ray is taken of the epiphysis of the right humerus of a child. Upon examination of the X-ray, a transverse layer of hyaline cartilage is observed at this epiphyseal juncture. What is this layer called? When this child stops growing in length, what will this epiphyseal juncture be called and how thick will it be?

answer

The growth plate or epiphyseal plate. It will be called an epiphyseal line because longitudinal growth (lengthening) has ceased and it will be almost impossible to see on an X-ray because it is so thin

question

Compare & contrast compact bones versus spongy bones.

answer

Compact bones and spongy bones are both made-up of bone tissue, but compact bones has osteon that are tube-like structures that fit one into the other and make compact bones dense and heavy. Spongy bones has trabeculae, which are like dried up coal reef and disburse the weight due to gravity and resist failure.

question

Name one bone that does not articulate with an other and important features of the hyoid.

answer

????? the temporal bone

question

What is the function of bursae and tendon sheaths?

answer

?????

question

What is the term that describes the condition that occurs when a joint is deteriorating or inflamed?

answer

Arthritis

question

Briefly describe the three kinds of muscle

answer

Skeletal- under voluntary control of the nervous system. On a tissue slide, there is a banding pattern called striations. Cardiac- under involuntary control of the nervous system. On a tissue slide, the are intercalating disks. Smooth- under involuntary control of the nervous system. Contractions are slow to start, but last longer.

question

How does a skeletal muscle get stimulated to eventually contract the whole muscle?

answer

?????

STUDY

Anatomy Select The Correct Statement

Bio227 ch 23 Long essay – Flashcards 10 terms

Patrick Thompson

10 terms

Preview

Bio227 ch 23 Long essay – Flashcards

question

150. Richard is told by his family doctor that he is bleeding from either the colon or the rectum, and he should see a specialist as soon as possible. Which specialist should he go see?

answer

Richard should see a proctologist.

question

151. Mrs. Wong goes to the emergency room with the following symptoms: severe pain in the umbilical region, loss of appetite, nausea, and vomiting. While she was waiting to see a doctor, the pain moved to the lower right abdominal quadrant. What is the diagnosis and treatment?

answer

The diagnosis is appendicitis. The accepted treatment is immediate surgical removal of the appendix.

question

152. Jose is brought to the emergency room complaining of a burning sensation in his chest, increased salivation, and difficulty in swallowing. He is having difficulty breathing and feels the presence of a "lump in his throat." The diagnosis is gastroesophageal reflux disease. Explain.

answer

Gastroesophageal reflux disease is a disorder in which the rate of reflux is greater than in normal individuals and causes clinical symptoms and/or histological changes. Reflux and regurgitation may result in aspiration of gastric contents into the air passages, causing respiratory distress such as hoarseness, asthma, and pneumonia. The sensation of a lump in his throat may be due to esophageal sphincter pressure.

question

153. Sami has been hospitalized with acute gastritis. Her symptoms were epigastric pressure (just above the stomach), headache, nausea, and vomiting. She revealed that she had been suffering back pain and drank four shots of gin and took three aspirin to "kill the pain." What led the physician to make this diagnosis, and what may have caused the sudden attack?

answer

Gastritis is an inflammation of the mucosal lining of the stomach. The probable reason for the abrupt onset of symptoms is due to rapid and heavy ingestion of alcohol and aspirin. Acute gastritis is often due to chemical irritants, particularly alcohol or salicylate.

question

154. A woman is brought to an emergency room complaining of severe pain in her left iliac region. She claims previous episodes and says that the condition is worse when she is constipated, and is relieved by defecation. A large, tender mass is palpated in the left iliac fossa and a barium study reveals a large number of diverticula in her descending and sigmoid colon. What are diverticula, and what is believed to promote their formation? Does this woman have diverticulitis or diverticulosis? Explain.

answer

Diverticula are small herniations of the mucosa through the colon walls, a condition called diverticulosis. They are believed to form when the diet lacks bulk and the volume of residue in the colon is small. The colon narrows contractions of its circular muscles and they become more powerful, increasing the pressure on its walls. Diverticulitis is a condition in which the diverticula become inflamed. This woman has diverticulitis due to the inflammation of her diverticula.

question

155. A patient is 67 years old and has had a hiatal hernia for three years. In the last year, she has complained of worsening heartburn, especially at night. What are the characteristic symptoms of a hiatal hernia and which of these symptoms did the patient have?

answer

Heartburn and regurgitation from gastroesophageal reflux are the most common clinical manifestations of hiatal hernia. This patient complained of heartburn.

question

156. A patient was admitted to the hospital because of severe epigastric pain. He has noted that his stools were darker than the usual brown color. He appears pale and very anxious. The history reports that he drinks 2-3 beers per day and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day. Based on the assessment data, what condition might the nurse determine this patient has? Explain why.

answer

The patient most likely has a gastric ulcer. The most distressing symptom of a gastric ulcer is gnawing epigastric pain that seems to bore through to the back. The danger posed by ulcers is perforation of the stomach wall followed by peritonitis and massive hemorrhage. Because the patient's stools are darker than usual and he is pale and anxious, the nurse suspects a bleeding ulcer. Factors such as smoking and alcohol increase hypersecretion of hydrochloric acid and low secretion of mucus.

question

157. A patient has esophageal cancer and must have a feeding tube inserted. The nurse tells the patient that the tube will be inserted surgically into the duodenum. The patient's wife asks why the tube will not be inserted into the stomach. What should the nurse say?

answer

The duodenum is part of the small intestine, which is the body's major digestive organ. Digestion is completed and absorption is best in the small intestine. There is also less risk for vomiting, which may cause complications.

question

158. A 45-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver. He is thin and malnourished. His abdomen is very large due to an accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. His lower extremities are very swollen. Explain why these changes have occurred.

answer

Cirrhosis is a diffuse and progressive chronic inflammation of the liver that typically results from chronic alcoholism or severe chronic hepatitis. Cirrhosis is characterized by extensive degeneration and destruction of the liver parenchymal cells. Edema and ascites (accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity) are the clinical manifestations of the portal hypertension.

question

159. A 45-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse is observing him closely for the possibility of gastrointestinal bleeding. Why is this considered a possible complication?

answer

As scar tissue eventually shrinks, it obstructs blood flow throughout the hepatic portal system, causing portal hypertension. Some veins of the portal system anastomose with veins that drain into the venae cavae. However, these connecting veins are small and tend to burst when forced to carry large volumes of blood. Signs of their failure include vomiting blood.

STUDY

Anatomy Arteries Blood Human Anatomy And Physiology 1 Select The Correct Statement The Body

PED 101 Final: Chapter 3 – Flashcards 55 terms

Blake Terry

55 terms

Preview

PED 101 Final: Chapter 3 – Flashcards

question

T/F: Veins carry blood away from the heart

answer

false

question

At what point after an activity has been initiated does the body switch energy sources from the immediate energy system to the anaerobic energy system?

answer

30 seconds

question

The upper chambers of the heart are called

answer

atria

question

T/F: Your resting heart rate increases as your cardiorespiratory system becomes more conditioned

answer

false

question

Cellular structures where oxidative energy production takes place are known as

answer

mitochondria

question

During the ________ phase of the heart cycle, the ventricles relax and fill with blood.

answer

diastolic

question

T/F: Heart rate reserve is the difference between your resting heart rate and maximum heart rate.

answer

true

question

Training that involves continuous activity sustained for 20 or more minutes is known as

answer

aerobic training

question

The lower chambers of the heart are called

answer

ventricles

question

T/F: To prevent dehydration, it is recommended that you start drinking fluid approximately 30 minutes after beginning an activity

answer

false

question

Cardiorespiratory fitness is defined as the

answer

ability of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems to supply oxygen to muscles.

question

Damage to muscle or tendon fibers due to injury or overtraining is known as

answer

strain

question

Which of the following may occur as the result of cardiorespiratory training?

answer

improved oxygen delivery to muscles

question

T/F: The cardiorespiratory system is made up of the cardiovascular system and the endocrine system.

answer

false

question

Small blood vessels that branch from arterioles and allow exchange of nutrients and wastes from body cells are known as

answer

capillaries

question

T/F: When checking your pulse during exercise, you should measure your heart rate for 30 seconds

answer

false

question

The right ventricle pumps blood through the ________ to the lungs.

answer

pulmonary artery

question

The improvements in oxygen delivery seen with training are a result of a(n)

answer

increase in hemoglobin

question

The pressure that blood exerts on the walls of your blood vessels is known as

answer

blood pressure

question

T/F: People who stop exercising lose fitness gains at the same rate as they gained them.

answer

false

question

SMART goals are

answer

specific, measurable, action-oriented, realistic, and time-oriented

question

The three metabolic energy systems are

answer

immediate, oxidative, and non-oxidative

question

Which of the following increases as the result of cardiorespiratory training?

answer

stroke volume

question

Damage to ligaments or joint structures due to acute injury is known as

answer

sprain

question

Which of the following would be considered an example of an aerobic activity?

answer

cycling

question

T/F: The increase in oxygen transfer that occurs as the result of cardiorespiratory training is due to an increase in the number of capillaries and mitochondria within the muscle.

answer

true

question

Your body's maximal ability to utilize oxygen during exercise is known as

answer

VO2max

question

T/F: Having a high level of fitness contributes to the risk for heat illness.

answer

false

question

A protein that transports oxygen in blood is which of the following?

answer

hemoglobin

question

Small hairlike projections in the respiratory tract that filter out unwanted particles are called

answer

cilia

question

T/F: Studies have shown that regular physical activity is ineffective at lowering the risk of cancer.

answer

false

question

The respiratory system consists of the

answer

air passageways and the lungs.

question

A subjective assessment of exercise intensity is

answer

perceived exertion

question

The two major types of blood vessels are

answer

arteries and veins

question

Creatine phosphate is stored in

answer

muscles

question

T/F: It is easier to maintain cardiorespiratory fitness with shorter but more intense workouts.

answer

true

question

According to the American College of Sports Medicine the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory exercise is

answer

3 to 5 days per week

question

Aerobic exercise training has been shown to

answer

increase plasma

question

The American College of Sports Medicine recommends a target heart rate range of ________ of HRmax.

answer

64-95%

question

T/F: The best time to shop for new exercise shoes is after a workout or at the end of the day, when your feet are at their biggest.

answer

true

question

T/F: Tendonitis is a form of overuse injury.

answer

true

question

Training that alternates periods of high intensity exercise with period of lower intensity exercise or rest is

answer

interval training

question

Training that alternates exercise modes within a given program is

answer

crossed training

question

T/F: A faster time and lower heart rate on a one mile walk test would indicate a lower VO2 max

answer

false

question

A byproduct of breaking down glucose for energy that may cause burning in the muscle is

answer

lactic acid

question

Gas exchange (the delivery of oxygen and the removal of CO2) in the lungs takes place in the

answer

alveoli

question

T/F: When starting an exercise program, you should perform longer warm up and cool down segments

answer

true

question

Cardiorespiratory fitness

answer

improves self esteem

question

Which of the following would be considered indoor cardio workout equipment?

answer

elliptical machine

question

The fluid portion of blood is which of the following

answer

plasma

question

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide is called

answer

respiration

question

The wave of blood that can be felt moving through the arteries when the heart contracts is the

answer

pulse

question

Which of the following activities would be primary fueled by the anaerobic energy system?

answer

a sprint down a football field

question

A group of obesity related risk factors associated with heart disease and type 2 diabetes is known as

answer

metabolic syndrome

question

Inflammation of the fascia on the underside of the foot is known as

answer

plantar fasciitis

STUDY

Anatomy Daily Energy Expenditure Maximum Heart Rate Target Heart Rate Zone

HED M03 Test 3 Study Guide – Flashcards 50 terms

Elizabeth Bates

50 terms

Preview

HED M03 Test 3 Study Guide – Flashcards

question

The small blood vessels that distribute blood throughout the entire body are

answer

capillaries

question

Alveoli serve what function in the lungs?

answer

they allow for exchange of CO2 & O2 between the lungs and blood

question

Which of the following is one of the function of the cardiorespiratory system?

answer

-Circulates blood through the body -carries away waste products so they can be used or expelled

question

Which of the following is a component of the cardiorespiratory system?

answer

heart, blood vessels, and the respiratory system

question

A person's total blood volume is circulated about once every ______ seconds

answer

question

During systole, the heart is

answer

The atria contract first, pumping blood into the ventricles. A fraction of a second later, the ventricles contract, pumping blood to the lungs and the body.

question

A typical resting heart rate for a normal individual is around

answer

50-90

question

Olympic caliber athletes may be able to increase their metabolic rate by

answer

2000%

question

Which of the following is an energy-containing nutrient

answer

Carbohydrates, fats, and protiens

question

During digestion, most carbohydrates are broken down into

answer

Glucose

question

The storage form of carbohydrate in the liver, muscles, and kidney is

answer

Glycogen

question

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is defined as

answer

The basic form of energy used by cells

question

An example of an activity that primarily used the immediate energy system is

answer

Weight lifting and shot-putting. Rising from a chair or picking up a bag of groceries.

question

The nonoxidative energy system typically provides energy for

answer

Used at the start of an exercise session and during high-intensity activities lasting longer than 10 seconds and up to 2 minutes

question

The oxidative energy system produces ATP in structures called

answer

Mitochondria

question

Fat is utilized as a fuel more efficiently during periods of

answer

Mild, low-intensity activities

question

Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) is

answer

The maximum amount of oxygen the body can use during maximal effort exercise

question

Which of the following is an immediate response to exercise?

answer

All three energy systems

question

Immediate effects of cardiorespiratory endurance exercise includes

answer

increases in cardiac output and blood pressure, breathing rate, and blood flow to the skeletal muscles.

question

Long-term effects of regular cardiorespiratory exercise include

answer

Improved cardiorespiratory functioning, improved cellular metabolism, Reduced risk of chronic disease, better control of body fat, improved immune function, and improved psychological and emotional well-being.

question

As the result of regular endurance exercise, resting heart rate is often

answer

lowerd

question

Endurance exercise can help reduce

answer

The effort required to perform everyday tasks and make the body better able to respond to physical challenges.

question

Compared to an older athlete, the VO2max of a sedentary college student is

answer

about the same

question

Regular moderate endurance exercise

answer

reduces risk of many chronic diseases and disabling diseases (EX-heart disease, cancer, diabetes, osteoporosis, and dimentia)

question

Regular exercise reduces the risk of type 2 diabetes by

answer

Exercise metabolizes excess sugar and makes cells more sensitive to the hormone insulin, which is involved in the regulation of blood sugar levels.

question

Regular endurance exercise contributes to better control of body fat by

answer

Increases daily calorie expenditure, exercise burns calories directly, raises resting metabolic rate for several hours following an exercise session.

question

An appropriate exercise heart rate for an average individual is ______ of maximum heart rate

answer

70-85%

question

The most important exercise factor for achieving training effects is

answer

Intensity

question

In addition to pulse counting, one may also monitor exercise intensity by using

answer

a heart rate monitor

question

The recommended time (duration) of an endurance training workout is dependent on its

answer

intensity

question

Appropriate cardiorespirtory endurance exercise does include

answer

Setting realistic goals, set your starting frequency, intensity, and duration of exercise at appropriate levels, choose suitable activities, warm up and cool down, adjust your program as your fitness improves. Use of large-muscle groups for an extended period of time (EX-jogging, walking, cycling...)

question

Which of the following statements about warm-up session is true

answer

Enhances performance and decreases the chance of injury. It gives the body time to redirect blood to active muscles and the heart time to adapt to increased demands. Warming up also helps spread protective fluid throughout the joints, preventing injury to their surfaces.

question

Cooling down after exercise is important to

answer

Returning the body to a non-exercising state. A cool-down helps maintain blood to the heart and brain and redirects blood from working muscles to other areas of the body.

question

During the initial phase of an exercise program, a beginner should

answer

Exercise at the low end of your target heart rate zone. Begin with a frequency of 3-4 days per week, and choose a duration appropriate for your fitness level.

question

Excessive loss of body fluid is called

answer

dehydration

question

Which of the following requires immediate medical attention.

answer

Heatstroke

question

Recommended treatments of minor soft tissue injuries, such as bruises, does include.

answer

Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation

question

Guidelines for preventing exercise injuries do include

answer

Training regularly, increases of intensity, avoiding or minimizing high impact activities, proper rest, drinking enough fluids, warming up, normal ranges of motion throughout joints, proper body mechanics, don't exercise when feeling ill, using proper equipment, and don't return to your normal exercise program until injuries have healed.

question

blood pressure is greater during systole than during diastole

answer

true

question

the nonoxidative (anaerobic) energy system is used for high intensity activities lasting about 10 sec. - 2 min.

answer

true

question

people who are fit have a higher resting heart rate than people who are unfit

answer

false

question

exercise can help prevent cell damage caused by free radicals

answer

true

question

during short high-intensity activities, fat is the favored fuel

answer

false

question

exercise reduces levels of high blood pressure

answer

true

question

cardiovascular endurance exercise increases levels of low-density lipoproteins

answer

false

question

regular endurance exercise helps protect against the development of the most common type of diabetes

answer

true

question

the total time(duration) of cardiorespiratory endurance exercise should be 20-60 min.

answer

true

question

it is best to stretch after the body temperature has been elevated

answer

true

question

thirst alone is a good indicator of how much you need to drink for intense exercise

answer

false

question

in treating a soft tissue injury, ice should not be left on one spot for more than 20 minl

answer

true

STUDY

Anatomy Anatomy And Physiology Dimensions Of Wellness Health And Wellness Health Psychology Human Anatomy And Physiology 1

GCH 332 Final Prep – Flashcards 80 terms

Karlie Mack

80 terms

Preview

GCH 332 Final Prep – Flashcards

question

During the stress response, which of the following changes does NOT occur as a result of epinephrine being released?

answer

Air passages constrict and allow less air into the lungs.

question

An individual with a Type C personality is characterized by

answer

having difficulty expressing emotions.

question

Which of the following influences the way in which an individual responds to stress?

answer

all of these

question

General exhaustion results when

answer

a stressor persists over a long period.

question

The long-term wear and tear of the stress response has been termed

answer

the allostatic load.

question

Which of the following has been linked to unmanaged stress?

answer

menstrual irregularities

question

Which of the following circumstances make normal job stresses worse?

answer

being shut out of decision-making

question

Which of the following statements regarding exercise and stress is FALSE?

answer

Exercise prevents the body from achieving homeostasis.

question

A person seeking to overcome procrastination should

answer

divide tasks into groups that can be prioritized.

question

Progressive relaxation techniques

answer

involve tensing and then relaxing the muscles in your body.

question

Which of the following statements accurately describes self-actualized people?

answer

They are largely able to accept themselves and others.

question

Elena is ashamed of her sexual feelings, so she pushes them to the back of her mind and refuses to acknowledge them. This is an example of

answer

repression.

question

Which of the following is a helpful strategy to use when you feel explosive anger coming on?

answer

Try to reframe what you are thinking at the moment.

question

Irrational, repetitive, hard-to-resist actions are called

answer

compulsions.

question

Manic episodes are often characterized by

answer

pleasure-seeking behavior.

question

Which of the following is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of suicide?

answer

suicide of a family member or friend

question

The model of human nature that sees behavior as the result of a complex system of wishes and emotions hidden by active defenses is the _______________ model.

answer

psychodynamic

question

College students can typically find helpful peer counseling through

answer

on-campus counseling centers.

question

Which of the following mental health professionals is a licensed physician?

answer

psychiatrist

question

Which one of the following approaches is Roger's therapist LEAST likely to use?

answer

telling Roger that there is absolutely nothing to worry about

question

Lindsey has a drug dependence. As a result, she is at risk for

answer

all of these.

question

Psychoactive drugs change mood or behavior by acting on

answer

brain chemistry.

question

Narcotics is another term for

answer

opioids.

question

Cocaine is derived from

answer

the coca plant.

question

All of the following are potential effects of cocaine use during pregnancy EXCEPT

answer

increased birth weight.

question

Which of the following best describes the phenomenon known as state dependence?

answer

It is a situation whereby information learned in a drug-induced state is difficult to recall when the drug wears off.

question

Women who use amphetamines during pregnancy risk

answer

all of these.

question

A potent preparation made from the thick resin that exudes from marijuana leaves is known as

answer

hashish.

question

Marijuana use during pregnancy may cause

answer

impaired fetal growth and development.

question

Which of the following statements regarding drugs and crime is FALSE?

answer

People under the influence of drugs are less likely to commit violent crimes than people who do not use drugs.

question

Which of the following can slow the rate of alcohol absorption into the bloodstream?

answer

food in the stomach

question

Which of the following is true of caffeinated alcoholic beverages?

answer

They may cause drinkers to consume more alcohol than they normally would.

question

The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome are

answer

both physical and mental impairments.

question

Cardiovascular benefits from moderate alcohol consumption may be due to

answer

increased levels of HDL cholesterol.

question

Which of the following statements BEST describes Alcoholics Anonymous?

answer

It often pairs recovering drinkers with a sponsor.

question

Which of the following is the MOST common single cause of death among smokers?

answer

coronary heart disease

question

Heart disease caused by the deposit of fatty substances in the walls of the arteries is called

answer

atherosclerosis.

question

The primary effects of environmental tobacco smoke on children are

answer

related to the respiratory system.

question

Which of the following poses the greatest threat to Joan?

answer

alcohol poisoning

question

Which of the following strategies probably will NOT help Rodney quit smoking?

answer

substituting spit tobacco for cigarettes

question

Meats, fish, poultry, and eggs are sources of ___________ protein.

answer

complete

question

Which of the following foods is NOT considered a simple carbohydrate?

answer

potato

question

Osteoporosis is associated with low intake of

answer

calcium

question

Human body weight is composed of approximately _______________ water.

answer

50-60 percent

question

Antioxidants

answer

found in foods can help protect the body from damage caused by free radicals.

question

Vegetarians who eat no meat, poultry, or fish, but do eat eggs and dairy products, are called

answer

lacto-ovo-vegetarians.

question

What is the main nutrition-related problem likely to be encountered by a vegan if his or her diet is not carefully selected?

answer

insufficient intake of vitamin B-12

question

Endurance athletes may benefit from consuming additional

answer

carbohydrates.

question

Connie could adjust her diet closer to that recommended by the USDA MyPlate food guidance system by increasing her daily servings of all of the following EXCEPT

answer

refined sugars.

question

Connie's current diet is most likely to be adequate in which of the following nutrients?

answer

protein

question

The large artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and distributes it to the rest of the body is called the

answer

aorta.

question

Among the following treatment options for mild to moderate hypertension, which should be the LAST option tried, after the others have failed to produce an improvement?

answer

drug therapy

question

Angina pectoris is caused by

answer

a need for oxygen in the heart that exceeds supply.

question

Which of the following is a treatment for heart disease?

answer

balloon angioplasty

question

A wandering clot that causes a stroke is called a(n)

answer

embolus.

question

Transient ischemic attacks

answer

are also known as "mini strokes."

question

Smoking is responsible for what percentage of lung cancer?

answer

90 percent

question

Lung cancer is

answer

difficult to cure at any stage.

question

Risk factors for endometrial cancer include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

using oral contraceptives.

question

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of melanoma?

answer

occurs most commonly on the face

question

White blood cells are produced in the

answer

bone marrow.

question

White blood cells that directly destroy virus-infected and cancerous cells are ______ cells.

answer

natural killer

question

Antibodies have complementary surface markers that work with ______ like a lock and key.

answer

antigens

question

Streptococcus and staphylococcus are examples of

answer

bacteria

question

Hepatitis B is transmitted mainly by

answer

sexual contact.

question

The riskiest sexual activity for contracting HIV is

answer

being the receptive partner during unprotected anal intercourse.

question

Drugs frequently used to treat opportunistic infections such as pneumonia and tuberculosis are

answer

antibiotics

question

Treatments for genital HPV infection (warts) include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

antibiotics.

question

Judging from the protective steps she has taken, for which STI is Molly most at risk?

answer

HPV infection

question

Based on Molly's sexual behavior, she is probably most at risk for

answer

developing cervical cancer.

question

Which of the following statements about environmental health is FALSE?

answer

Environmental pollutants contribute to infectious diseases but not to chronic diseases.

question

A gas or vapor that traps infrared radiation instead of allowing it to escape through the atmosphere is called a(n)

answer

greenhouse gas.

question

Levels of atmospheric greenhouse gases are rising because of

answer

combustion of fossil fuels.

question

You can help save the ozone layer by

answer

making sure old refrigerants are properly disposed of.

question

What is the process by which organic substances are broken down naturally by living organisms?

answer

biodegradation

question

In ______, the waste material from one product is used as the raw material to produce a new product.

answer

recycling

question

Which of the following pollutants causes central nervous system damage and mental impairment and is a particular risk for children living in older buildings?

answer

lead

question

If Alec wants to reduce the chance that he is contributing to the formation of smog, he should limit his driving time/distance in all of the following areas or conditions EXCEPT

answer

cold weather.

question

Which of the following is likely to emit the lowest amount of greenhouse gases?

answer

an HEV

question

An environmentally friendly driving style includes all of the following EXCEPT

answer

keeping tires slightly underinflated.

STUDY

Anatomy Red Blood Cell Count

Life Span – Flashcard 107 terms

Lewis Gardner

107 terms

Preview

Life Span – Flashcard

question

Primary Sex Characteristics

answer

Girl-Uterus, vagina, menstruation. Boy-Penis, enlargement of testes, prostate gland and seminal vesicles. occurs 9-14 years of age)

question

Secondary Sex Characteristics

answer

Are not directly related to fertility. Girl- Breasts and pubic hair. Boy- Pubic and facial hair, lowering voice

question

Circadian rhythm

answer

A day-night cycle of biological activity that occurs approx every 24 hours.

question

reason why teenagers have increased endurance

answer

Adrenal glands have increase endurance

question

Cause of adolescent acne

answer

Androgen makes the skins oil gland get larger and make more sebum

question

Developed nation with the highest rate of teenage pregnancy

answer

U.S rate of adolescent pregnancy is the highest of any developed nation

question

Sexually active group with the highest rate of gonorrhea, genital herpes, and chlamydia

answer

Worldwide, sexually active TEENS have higher rates of the common sexual transmitted diseases.

question

Early-maturing girls

answer

tend to have lower self-esteem, more depressed, and poorer body image

question

Early-maturing boys

answer

are more aggressive, lawbreaking, and alcohol abusing

question

Slow development boys

answer

tend to be more anxious, depressed, and afraid of sex

question

Imaginary audience

answer

The other people who in an adolescent's egocentric belief, are watching and taking notes of his or her appearance, ideas, and behavior. This belief makes many teenagers very self-conscious

question

Egocentrism

answer

creates an imaginary audience in the minds if many adolescents.

question

Adolescent egocentrism

answer

Thinking about themselves and about what other think of them. ages 10-13

question

base rate neglect

answer

Common fallacy in which a person ignores the overall frequency of some behavior or characteristics in making a decision.

question

Intuitive thought

answer

begins with a belief, assumption, or general rule AKA heuristic, rather than logic. Intuition is quick and powerful, it feels "right"

question

digital natives

answer

young people who have grown up with computers and mobile technology; multitaskers with cellphones, music downloads, and instant messaging on the internet; less comfortable communicating via voice

question

cyber-bullying

answer

Bullying that takes place by email, instant messaging, text messages or web sites

question

General amount of high school graduates who will graduate from college

answer

1/4 of high school graduates who will graduate with their Associate degree. On 34% of those entering college finish with bachelors degree

question

Foreclosure

answer

Erikson's term for premature identity formation, which occurs when an adolescent adopts parents' or society's roles and value without questioning or analysis

question

Negative identity

answer

The direct opposite of whatever their parents want- again without thoughtful questioning

question

parental monitoring

answer

parents' ongoing awareness of what their children are doing, where, and with whom

question

deviancy training

answer

Destructive peer support in which one person shows another how to rebel against authority or social norms.

question

Facilitate destructive behaviors

answer

"Let's all skip school on Friday."

question

Constructive behaviors

answer

"let's study together"

question

Peer facilitation

answer

helps adolescents act in ways they are unlikely to act alone

question

cluster suicides

answer

Several suicides committed by members of a group within a brief period of time.

question

adolescence-limited offender

answer

a person whose criminal activity stops by age 21

question

when most drug use begins

answer

Ages 10 to 25, with use before 18 being the best predictor of later abuse

question

confidence of adolescents

answer

the general emotional trend from late childhood through adolescences is toward less confidence

question

age group that would likely want to look good

answer

Is ages 19 through 26.

question

A worldwide epidemic resulting from sexual activity if young adult.

answer

is HIV/AIDs. Emerging adults are prime STI vectors

question

major depression

answer

A very serious mood disorder in which people lose interest in life and can no longer find enjoyment in anything. Other difficulties in sleeping, concentrating, eating, carrying on friendships and feeling hopeful.

question

Social phobia

answer

A type of anxiety disorder involving excessive fear of social situations (unable to make new friends or get a job)

question

organ reserve

answer

The capacity of organs to allow the body to cope with stress, via extra, unused functioning ability

question

homeostasis

answer

a balance between various parts of the body systems- keeping every physical function in sync

question

allostasis

answer

Process by which the body achieves stability through physiological change.

question

age group at risk of serious injury and violent death

answer

ages 18 to 24 year olds (about age 20)

question

Percent of emerging adults in the US who have been arrested for drug-related offenses

answer

33.3% between the ages 18-21

question

subjective thought

answer

arises from personal experiences and perceptions

question

Popular major in college

answer

Business

question

Massification

answer

The idea that establishing colleges of higher learning and encouraging college enrollment can benefit everyone (the masses)

question

type of student most likely to benefit from colleges

answer

students with B.A or higher

question

College students most likely to experience shifts in moral reasoning.

answer

college education is one stimulus for young adults shifts in moral reasoning, especially if course work includes extensive discussion of moral issues

question

Intimacy vs. isolation

answer

The sixth of erikson's eight stages of development. Adults seek someone with whom to share their lives in an enduring and self-sacrificing commitment. Without intimacy adults suffer from loneliness and isolation

question

Emerging adulthood

answer

friendships "Reach their peak of functional significance."

question

in male-male friendships

answer

men tend to share activities and interests, and they talk about external matters-sport, work, politics, cars

question

cohabitation

answer

A situation in which partners share a household and engage in intimate social and sexual relations without being formally married. Increase the likelihood of divorce.

question

the prime prerequisite for western marriage

answer

LOVE is considered a prerequisite for marriage

question

linked lives

answer

Lives in which the success, health, and well-being of each family member are connected to those of other members, including those of another generation, as in the relationship between parents and children.

question

helicopter parents

answer

Parents who hover over children, constantly involved; part of every action, decision, and emotion

question

Disability

answer

Difficulty in performing normal activities of daily life because of some physical, mental, or emotional condition.

question

country with the highest rate of diabetes

answer

The United states is the world leader in obesity and diabetes

question

One crucial factor in achieving success

answer

is social support such as (1) letting others know the specifics of the plan. Implementation-stage of breaking a habit

question

effects of drinking alcohol, in moderate/psychoactive substance

answer

all phychoactive drugs can harm the brain, especially alcohol abuse over decades, which can cause Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome "wet brain". most likely to be used by 30-year-old

question

reaction time in an aging brain

answer

By middle adulthood, there are less neurons and synapses. As a result of these changes, reaction time slows, multitasking becomes more difficult, processing takes longer, and complex working -memory tasks may become impossible.

question

analytic intelligence

answer

Valuable in high school and college, as students are expected to remember and analyze various ideas., A form of intelligence that involves such mental processes as abstract planning, strategy selection, focused attention, and information processing, as well as verbal and logical skills.

question

practical intelligence

answer

Intelligence that is required for everyday tasks. e.g. street smarts

question

avoidant coping

answer

a method of responding to a stressor by ignoring, forgetting, or hiding it.

question

weathering

answer

the gradual accumulation of stressors over a long period of time, wearing down a person's resilience and resistance

question

religious coping

answer

stress-reducing techniques that involve relying on religious or spiritual beliefs

question

midlife crisis

answer

Period of unusual anxiety, radical reexamination, and sudden transformation that is widely associated with middle age but has more to do with developmental history than with chronological age.

question

Big Five

answer

Five basic personality traits from which other traits are derived. They include neuroticism: anxious, moody, self pushing, critical. extraversion: outgoing, assertive, active. openness: imaginative, curious, artistic, creative, open to new experience. agreeableness: kind, helpful, easy going generous. conscientiousness: organized, deliberate, confirming, self-disciplined.

question

social convoy

answer

Collectively, the family members, friends, acquaintances, and even strangers who move through life with an individual

question

consequential stranger

answer

People who are not in a person's closest friendship circle convoy but nonetheless have an impact. Example: neighbors, coworkers, local police officer

question

how young adults feel when they move back into their parents home

answer

more comfortable

question

ageism

answer

Discrimination or prejudice based on a person's age.

question

how ageism impacts the elderly

answer

Ageism impact elderly by seeping into and eating away the older's feelings of incompetence. The resulting self-doubt foster anxiety, morbidity, and even mortality.

question

elderspeak

answer

A condescending way of speaking to older adults that resembles baby talk, with simple and short sentences, exaggerated emphasis, repetition, and a slower rate and a higher pitch than normal speech.

question

the most common living arrangement for people over age 65

answer

most older adults live completely independently along or with an aging spouse

question

do elderly drivers have fewer accidents than young people?

answer

yes, because they are cautious and limit themselves, elderly drivers have few accidents than 20 year old

question

primary aging

answer

The universal and irreversible physical changes that occur to all living creatures as they grow older

question

osteoporosis

answer

A bone disorder characterized by reduced bone mass, increased fragile bone, and risk of fractures.

question

factors that contribute to a long life

answer

diet, work, social interaction, and exercise

question

brain shrinkage

answer

-The hypothalamus (memory) and the prefrontal cortex (planning, inhibiting unwanted responses, and coordinating thoughts) shrink faster than some other brain areas. Interferes with multitasking

question

working memory

answer

A newer understanding of short-term memory that focuses on conscious, active processing of incoming auditory and visual-spatial information, and of information retrieved from long-term memory. example: ability to recall string of digits backward

question

speed of processing

answer

speed with which a person can mentally process information; unaffected by age

question

plaques

answer

Clumps of amyloid, a type of protein, that cluster among axon terminals and interfere with neural transmission.

question

tangles

answer

twisted fibers of another protein called tau (rhymes with "wow") that build up inside cells

question

symptoms of Parkinson's disease

answer

tremors, rigidity of limbs, poor balance and difficulty initiating movements, - uncontrollable hand shaking or pill rolling with fingers (resting tremors

question

Parkinson's disease

answer

A slowly progressive neurological disease, marked by tremors and rigidity, that may also cause dementia. caused by reduction of dopamine production in the brain

question

factors that worsen the symptoms of dementia

answer

High level of homocysteine from animal fat seem to increase dementia, and some prescribed drugs destroy certain nutrient

question

polypharmacy

answer

Multiple drug prescriptions. This situation is very common for elderly individuals, and it often increases confusion, forgetfulness, and noncompliance. Minimizing polypharmacy also should be an important consideration when trying to avoid harmful drug interactions.

question

life review

answer

elders provide an account of their personal journey by writing or telling their story. Engaged in by many elderly people

question

What happened to extraordinarily creative people in their 70s 80s and 90s

answer

Robert Butler explained that "old age can be the time of emotional sensory awareness and enjoyment" for example: elder take up gardening, bird watching, sculpting, painting, or making music, even if they have never done so before

question

compulsive hoarding

answer

The urge to accumulate and hold on to familiar objects and possessions, sometimes to the point of their becoming health and/or safety hazards. This impulse tends to increase with age.

question

activity theory

answer

A theory of aging that suggests that those elderly people who remain active and socially involved will be best adjusted

question

age in place

answer

Refers to a preference of elderly people to remain in the same home and community, adjusting but not leaving when health fades.

question

if older Americans move, where would they most likely to move

answer

If they move, most elders want to remain nearby perhaps in a smaller apartment with elevator, never out of state

question

crucial factor in success of long-term marriage

answer

one crucial factor is that the challenges of child rearing, home ownership, economic crises, and so on required cooperation

question

frail elderly

answer

People over age 65, and often over age 85, who are physically infirm, very ill, or cognitively disabled.

question

social engagement

answer

Remaining social is critical to successful aging. Examples : Family, neighborhood, activities at church (DON'T DISENGAGE)

question

ways death today is different from 100 years ago

answer

Death occurs later: A century ago, average life span is less than 40 years. Dying takes longer: Death is postponed through medical tech. Death often occurs in hospitals: with medical tech. the causes of death have changed: now disease deaths before age 50 is rare.

question

one hundred years ago where most people died

answer

at home with their family members nearby

question

Religions responses to the issue of autopsies

answer

most religion opposed to autopsies

question

Terminally ill children fear death

answer

because they fear death means being abandoned

question

Good death

answer

A death that is peaceful, quick, and painless and that occurs after a long life, in the company of family and friends, and in familiar surroundings

question

Kubler-Ross's stages of death and dying

answer

1. Denial "It cant be!" 2. Anger "Why me?" 3. Bargaining "Just let me do this first!" 4. Depression Withdraw, crying and grieving 5. Acceptance-a sense of peace comes

question

hospice

answer

A program that assists with the physical, emotional, spiritual, psychological, social, financial, and legal needs of the dying patient and her or his family. THe service may be provided in the patient's home, or in an institution. Bereavement care for the family is also included

question

mourning

answer

The ceremonies and behaviors that religion or culture prescribed for people to employ in expression their bereavement after death

question

purpose of paid obituaries and roadside memorials

answer

Authorities realized that public commemoration aids grief and mourning, building community

question

positivity effect

answer

The tendency for elderly people to perceive, prefer, and remember positive images and experiences more than negative ones.

question

socioemotional selectivity theory

answer

Older adults become more selective about their social networks. Spend time with more familiar and close friends and family

question

The role of malnutrition in dementia

answer

Some elderly refuse to drink water because they want to avoid urination. Since homeostasis slows with age, older people are likely not to recognize and remedy their hunger or thirst, and thus may inadvertently impair their cognitive.

question

dependency ratio

answer

Calculation of the number of self-sufficient, productive adults compared to number of dependents in a given population.

question

the benefits of age and motivation at work

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expertise allows people to continue performing well in their work and their family life throughout adulthood

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factors that contribute to the development of expertise

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choices and practice over time produce expertise, which is intuitive, automatic, strategic, and flexible.

question

how a typical 45 years old feel about his chronological age

answer

feel 5 to 10 years younger. Most adult feel strong, capable, healthy, and in their prime.

STUDY

Anatomy Anatomy And Physiology Anatomy And Physiology 2 AP Psychology Human Anatomy And Physiology 1 Voltage Gated Sodium Channels

Chapter 2 – Quiz Questions: Charged Molecules, Adoption Studies, Active Neurons – Flashcards 69 terms

Shelby Arnold

69 terms

Preview

Chapter 2 – Quiz Questions: Charged Molecules, Adoption Studies, Active Neurons – Flashcards

question

During depolarization, _________ molecules rush into the axon; during repolarization _________ molecules rush out of the axon.

answer

sodium; potassium

question

Anions are __________ charged molecules located _________ the axon.

answer

negatively; inside

question

The process by which a single neuron relays messages to other neurons is called:

answer

synaptic transmission.

question

In the process of communication between neurons, neurotransmitter molecules are released into the gap between neurons by the:

answer

synaptic vesicles

question

An axon is polarized when:

answer

the inside of the axon is electrically negative with respect to the outside.

question

Who discovered the synapse?

answer

Sir Charles Sherrington

question

Natural, opiate-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control are called:

answer

endorphins.

question

In a highly intelligent person's brain, the proportion of _______ cells to neurons would be expected to be higher than in the brain of a person of normal intelligence..

answer

glial

question

Botox injections smooth facial wrinkles because botulin is an ACh antagonist that blocks the underlying _________.

answer

muscles

question

You have been asked to give a brief lecture on neurons and action potential to a group of high school students. You use as a model to describe the chemistry-to-electricity process of the action potential and describe it as similar to the way:

answer

batteries generate electricity.

question

A number of antiepileptic medications work to increase _______, as low levels have been linked to seizures, tremors, and insomnia.

answer

GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)

question

Santiago Ramon y Cajal referred to _____________ as "protoplasmic kisses'.

answer

synaptic gaps

question

Oversupply of ________ can lead to migraines and seizures.

answer

glutamate

question

The correct order of the structures of the motor neuron is:

answer

dendrites -> the cell body -> axon -> terminal branches of the axon.

question

Marlee has just been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). As the disease progresses, communication to some of her muscles may slow down and she could lose some muscle control as a result of the degeneration of the:

answer

myelin sheath

question

Synapses were discovered and named by ___________.

answer

Sir Charles Sherrington

question

Matthew is paralyzed. It is likely his __________ transmission is blocked.

answer

ACh (Acetylcholine) - Page 40

question

Neurotransmitter is to _______ as neural receptor is to ______.

answer

key; lock

question

The peripheral nervous system includes _________, which carry/carries messages from the body to the central nervous system.

answer

sensory neurons

question

The ________ gland triggers ovaries and testes to release sex hormones.

answer

pituitary

question

Which of the following does the autonomic nervous system most directly control? - speech production - bladder contractions - thinking and memory - movement of the arms and legs

answer

bladder contractions

question

If you were to compare the endocrine system and the body's electrochemical information system in terms of speed, you might call the former a _______ and the latter a _______.

answer

tortoise; hare

question

Leiko is paralyzed below the waist following an accident. Though her genitals do not respond to erotic images, she does experience an increase in vaginal lubrication in response to genital stimulation. Leiko has most clearly suffered damage to her:

answer

spinal cord.

question

A firefighter wakes in the middle of the night to the sound of an alarm. It is likely that her _____ have released epinephrine and norepinephrine.

answer

adrenal glands

question

A medical equipment company is thinking of expanding by developing lie-detection machines that measure perspiration, cardiovascular, and respiratory changes. On which of the following systems should their research focus?

answer

the sympathetic nervous system.

question

Joan was born without functioning ovaries. What do we know? - She may need sex hormone replacement. - None of these things are true. - She will have difficulty urinating. - She will be a man.

answer

- She may need sex hormone replacement.

question

Given the proportional amounts of the different types of neurons, the type of neuron you would be LEAST likely to worry about if you lost 100,000 of them would be a(n)_____.

answer

interneuron

question

Normal people who have been blindfolded can name an object placed in their left hand because:

answer

information about the object is transferred across the corpus callosum to the left hemisphere of the brain.

question

A right-handed split-brain patient can most effectively assemble a puzzle with the __________ hand because the __________ hemisphere of the brain excels at spatial tasks.

answer

left; right

question

Evidence that the left hemisphere is especially effective at processing language is provided by the fact that split-brain patients are able to:

answer

read words more easily when they are flashed briefly in their right rather than their left visual field.

question

The left hemisphere of a split-brain patient receives visual input only from the ________ visual field of __________.

answer

right; both right and left eyes.

question

Right-handed split-brain patients are able to:

answer

name unseen objects placed in their right hands, but not objects placed in their left hands.

question

While some neural clusters in the _____ regulate hunger, other areas influence thirst, sleep, body temperature, and sexual behavior.

answer

hypothalamas

question

The _____ is responsible for heartbeat and breathing.

answer

Medulla

question

Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is most directly involved in hearing?

answer

temporal

question

Research with split-brain patients suggests that the _____ typically constructs the theories people offer to explain their own behaviors.

answer

left cerebral hemisphere

question

In his research on the limbic system, Dr. Harrington electrically stimulates the _____ of cats and then measures their rage and fear reactions.

answer

amygdala

question

A person who suffers a head trauma slightly above the ear is likely to have problems with bodily functions controlled by the _____ lobes.

answer

temporal

question

Greg starts to play baseball at the age of 6 and throws left-handed. He would have first exhibited his left hand dominance _____.

answer

thumb-sucking in the womb

question

The limbic system structure that influences aggression is called the:

answer

amygdala

question

The regions of the parietal lobes that are involved in mathematical and spatial reasoning are known as _____.

answer

association areas

question

Cynthia performs well above her grade level in mathematics. Researchers would conclude that her _____ hemiphere functions very well.

answer

left

question

The _____ is to sensory input as the registrar's office is to a college campus.

answer

thalamus

question

The _____ lobes of the cerebral cortex are most directly involved in touch and body position.

answer

parietal

question

Right-handed dominance in humans is:

answer

seen throughout human history.

question

Brain activity results in telltale electrical signals that can be detected by a(n):

answer

electroencephalogram (EEG).

question

A person who is having difficulty feeling touches and sensations most likely has a problem with his or her _____ lobes.

answer

parietal

question

Dr. Schoenfeld is a neurosurgeon working with patients who have major epileptic seizures. The part of the brain Dr. Schoenfeld should sever to help reduce his patients' seizures is the _____.

answer

corpus callosum

question

Active neurons require _____ the way a car requires fuel.

answer

glucose

question

Jane took a hard fall backwards and banged her head while walking in the dark next to her house. She would be most likely to have problems associated with bodily functions controlled by the _____ lobe of the cerebral cortex.

answer

occipital

question

In 1949, Giuseppe Moruzzi and Horace Magoun severed a cat's _____ from higher brain regions; the cat lapsed into a permanent coma.

answer

reticular formation

question

A panel of primate experts observes a group of chimpanzees and bonobos over a period of a few days. The primates are most likely to be observed picking up an object with their _____ hands.

answer

right

question

Following a head injury, a person who has difficulty recognizing emotional responses in others MOST likely suffered damage to the _____.

answer

amygdala

question

If a cat's _____ is severed from the rest of the brain, it will stop engaging in purposefully climbing and eating, though it can still move.

answer

brain stem

question

Someone with a split brain will have trouble verbally identifying an object projected in their _____ visual field.

answer

left

question

A thermostat is to a house as the _____ is to the brain.

answer

hypothalamus

question

Paul, a construction worker, is walking quickly through his construction site and runs face-first into a low-hanging beam. He notices afterward that he has trouble forming words. Paul may have suffered an injury to his _____ lobe.

answer

frontal

question

Joe is experiencing vision problems after getting hit very hard in the back of the head during a hockey game. He likely has an injury to the _____ lobes of his cerebral cortex.

answer

occipital

question

Chromosomes are composed of _______.

answer

DNA

question

Using the principles of natural selection, _____ psychology attempts to study how behavior and the mind have evolved.

answer

evolutionary

question

As environments become LESS similar, heredity becomes _____ important as a source of personality differences.

answer

less

question

A random error in gene replication that leads to a change is called a:

answer

mutation

question

You are in charge of hiring a cruise-ship social director and you want to pick someone who is very outgoing. Unfortunately, you only have information about the siblings of the potential candidates. Given what is known about the genetic transmission of outgoingness, which of the following candidates would you choose? the candidate whose fraternal twin is outgoing any candidate, because genes do not influence extraversion the candidate whose identical twin is outgoing the candidate whose older sister is outgoing

answer

the candidate whose identical twin is outgoing

question

Your professor, an evolutionary psychologist, suggests that the increasing problem of obesity in the United States might be attributable to our _____ predisposition to love the taste of sweets and fats. Although these foods were difficult for our ancestors to find, they helped them to survive famines. Now, these foods are easily available and Americans are eating too much of them.

answer

genetic

question

Your sister's fiance has an identical twin brother who has been divorced three times. What research information would be most applicable to her situation?

answer

Research has shown that divorce risks are about 50 percent attributable to genetic factors.

question

June's child was born with an extra chromosome, resulting in Down syndrome. This is an example of a(n) _____.

answer

mutation

question

Given findings from recent adoption studies, which of the following scenarios is the MOST likely? A biological brother and sister reared together will be similarly outgoing and agreeable. An adopted brother and sister reared together will share the same political and religious beliefs. An adopted brother and sister reared together will be similarly outgoing and agreeable. A biological brother and sister reared apart will share the same political and religious beliefs.

answer

An adopted brother and sister reared together will share the same political and religious beliefs.

question

Dr. Simon is an evolutionary psychologist working on a research grant about the impact of _____ in everyday society.

answer

evolution

question

When Mandy was born, her parents worried about her lack of eye contact, her unwillingness to cuddle like other babies, and her withdrawn behavior. However, her parents were patient and slowly introduced Mandy to new situations and new people while always giving affectionate support. By the time Mandy was 2 years old, she blossomed into an outgoing, social, friendly child. This example serves as evidence of the importance of:

answer

the interaction between genes and the environment.

STUDY

Anatomy Anatomy And Physiology Human Anatomy And Physiology 1 Select The Correct Statement

PSY 101 H Chapter 6 – Flashcards 50 terms

Sara Graham

50 terms

Preview

PSY 101 H Chapter 6 – Flashcards

question

The olfactory receptors are activated by

answer

odorant molecules

question

According to the gate-control theory, a back massage would most likely reduce your physical aches and pains by causing the

answer

activation of nerve fibers in your spinal cord

question

The tendency to perceive a moving light in the night sky as belonging to an airplane rather than a satellite best illustrates the impact of

answer

perceptual set.

question

Margo insists that her dreams frequently enable her to perceive and predict future events. Margo is claiming to possess the power of

answer

precognition

question

Touching side-by-side cold and pressure spots triggers a sense of

answer

wetness

question

En route to the visual cortex, neural impulses from the retina are first relayed to the

answer

thalamus

question

Ms. Shields, a recent stroke victim, cannot consciously perceive the large book on the coffee table in front of her. Yet, when urged to identify the book, she correctly reads aloud the printed title on the book cover. Her response best illustrates

answer

blindsight

question

Patients who have negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure may experience increased postoperative pain. This best illustrates the importance of

answer

top-down processing

question

The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the

answer

absolute threshold

question

Receptor cells for kinesthesis are located in the

answer

bones, ears, tendons, and joints.

question

The visual cliff is a laboratory device for testing ________ in infants.

answer

depth perception

question

Giulio's bag of marbles is twice as heavy as Jim's. If it takes 5 extra marbles to make Jim's bag feel heavier, it will take 10 extra marbles to make Giulio's bag feel heavier. This best illustrates

answer

changes in the shape of the lens as it focuses on objects.

question

Which basic taste attracts us to protein-rich foods?

answer

umami

question

Our sense of position and movement if individual body parts is called

answer

kinesthesis

question

Visual information is processed by

answer

ganglion cells before it is processed by feature detectors.

question

Although college textbooks frequently cast a trapezoidal image on the retina, students typically perceive the books as rectangular objects. This illustrates the importance of

answer

shape constancy

question

Evidence that some cones are especially sensitive to red light, others to green light, and still others to blue light is most directly supportive of

answer

the Young-Helmholtz theory.

question

Which senses is best described as a chemical sense?

answer

Smell

question

The extrasensory ability to perceive an automobile accident taking place in a distant location ________

answer

clairvoyance

question

The extrasensory ability to know at any moment exactly what your best friend is thinking is to ________.

answer

telepathy

question

Knowing about the effects of the perceived distance of objects on their perceived size helps us to understand

answer

the Moon illusion

question

After losing his left hand in an accident, Jack continued to experience pain in his nonexistent hand. His experience illustrates

answer

phantom limb sensations

question

The organizational rules identified by Gestalt psychologists illustrate that

answer

the perceived whole differs from the sum of its parts.

question

Jody's horse looks just as black in the brilliant sunlight as it does in the dim light of the stable. This illustrates what is known as

answer

lightness constancy

question

The direct link between a single cone and a single ________ preserves the fine details in the cone's message

answer

bipolar cell

question

The high notes on a piano always produce ________ sound waves than the low notes

answer

higher-frequency

question

Photographs of people were rated more positively if the photos immediately followed a briefly flashed image of kittens. This best illustrates the impact of

answer

priming

question

Infants who were exposed to the visual cliff

answer

refused to cross over the "deep" side to their mothers.

question

In experiments, an image is quickly flashed and then replaced by a masking stimulus that inhibits conscious perception of the original image. In these experiments, the researchers are studying the effects of

answer

priming

question

The principle of connectedness would most likely lead you to perceive all the ________ as parts of a single unit.

answer

rungs in a ladder

question

Because she mistakenly thought she was much closer to the mountain than she actually was, Fiona perceived the mountain to be ________ than it actually was.

answer

smaller

question

Which of the following best illustrates the impact of central nervous system activity in the absence of normal sensory input?

answer

tinnitus

question

Cones and rods are to vision as ________ are to audition.

answer

hair cells

question

According to the gate-control theory, a back massage would most likely reduce your physical aches and pains by causing the

answer

activation of nerve fibers in your spinal cord.

question

The brain network responsible for vision develops normally only if visual experience occurs during the first few months after birth. This suggests the importance of ________ for normal visual development.

answer

a critical period

question

The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel consist of

answer

nerve cells in the brain

question

A concept that helps us to interpret ambiguous sensations is called a

answer

schema

question

According to the Young-Helmholtz theory, when both red-sensitive and green-sensitive cones are stimulated simultaneously, a person should see

answer

yellow

question

During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that Mr. Antall could hardly detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Antall's

answer

absolute threshold

question

Our shifting perceptions of a Necker cube best illustrate the importance of

answer

top-down processing.

question

People with color-deficient vision for red and green may still see yellow. This is most easily explained by

answer

the opponent-process theory

question

Because Carmella, Jorge, and Gail were all sitting behind the same bowling lane, Ruth perceived that they were all members of the same bowling team. This best illustrates the organizational principle of

answer

proximity.

question

Because the two teams wore different-colored uniforms, Cheri perceived the 10 basketball players as two distinct groups. This best illustrates the principle of

answer

similarity

question

Which of the following play the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a thrilling roller coaster ride?

answer

semicircular canals

question

Retinal disparity is an important cue for

answer

perceiving distance

question

The process of receiving and representing stimulus energies by the nervous system is called

answer

sensation

question

Lightness constancy is most clearly facilitated by

answer

relative luminance

question

Rebecca was born with cataracts that were not surgically removed until she was 3 years old. As a result, Rebecca is most likely to

answer

have inadequate neural connections in her visual cortex

question

As the airplane descended for a landing, the pilot saw several beautiful islands that appeared to float in a vast expanse of blue ocean water. In this instance, the ocean is a

answer

ground

question

When given a placebo that is said to relieve pain, we are likely to be soothed by the brain's release of

answer

endorphins

STUDY

Anatomy Anatomy And Physiology Human Anatomy And Physiology 1

Skeletal System Study Guide – Flashcards 140 terms

Karlie Mack

140 terms

Preview

Skeletal System Study Guide – Flashcards

question

The three major regions of the Axial Skeleton

answer

-Skull -Vertebral column -Thoracic cage

question

Skull consist of Two sets of bones

answer

-Cranial - Facial

question

Function of Cranial bones :

answer

• Enclose the brain in the cranial cavity •Form cavity where brain is located •Provide sites of attachment for head and neck muscles •Form the sutures (joints) of the skull that articulate the cranial bones together

question

Names of Cranial Bones:

answer

•Frontal bone (1) (forms forehead) connected to the parietal at the coronal suture •Parietal bones (2) (are behind frontal bone) •Occipital bone (1) (located at the back of the skull) •Temporal bones (2) (below the parietal bones) •Sphenoid bone (1) •Ethmoid bone (1) (not clearly visible from outside, form floor of skull)

question

What are the Four sutures called that mark the articulations of parietal bones with frontal, occipital, and temporal bones:

answer

1. Coronal suture—between parietal bones and frontal bone 2. Sagittal suture—between right and left parietal bones 3. Lambdoid suture—between parietal bones and occipital bone 4. Squamous (squamosal) sutures—between parietal and temporal bones on each side of skull

question

What are the names of the 14 Facial Bones?

answer

• Mandible (1) • Maxillary bones (maxillae) (2) • Zygomatic bones (2) • Nasal bones (2) • Lacrimal bones (2) • Palatine bones (2) • Vomer (1) • Inferior nasal conchae (2)

question

Describe the Mandible

answer

• Forms lower jaw • Largest, strongest bone of face (skull) • Temporomandibular joint: only freely movable (bone) joint in skull • Attached to the temporal bone at the TMJ

question

Describe the Maxillary Bones

answer

• Medially fused to form upper jaw and central portion of facial skeleton • Keystone bones • Articulate with all other facial bones except mandible

question

Zygomatic Bones form:

answer

• Cheekbones (prominance of cheek) • Inferolateral margins of orbits

question

Nasal bones

answer

• Form bridge of nose

question

Lacrimal bones Form and Function:

answer

• In medial walls of orbits • Lacrimal fossa houses lacrimal sac (has depression which holds membranous sac, which holds tear)

question

Palantine Bones Form and Function:

answer

• Posterior one-third of hard palate • Posterolateral walls of the nasal cavity • Small part of the orbits • Front part of the hard pallet is formed by maxilla • Posterior part of the hard pallet is the palatine bones ***the hard pallet is formed by the Palatine bone and the Palantine process of maxilla

question

Vomer Form and Function:

answer

• Plow shaped • Lower part of nasal septum, {the septum is formed by two bones and cartilage. The lower part is the vomer, and the upper part is the perpendicular plate of the Ethmoid bone • Inferior nasal conchae

question

Paranasal Sinuses Form and Function:

answer

• Mucosa-lined, air-filled spaces • Lighten the skull • Enhance resonance of voice (sound) • Found in frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary (largest sinus)bones • Boney wall has epithealial lining (mucosa) • Sinusitis -when sinus is filled with fluid and attracts bacteria (microorganisms)

question

Hyoid Bone Form and Function:

answer

• Not a bone of the skull • Does not articulate directly with another bone • Site of attachment for muscles of swallowing and speech • Found in front of neck • Called lonely bone • Important for anterior neck muscles (speech and swallowing)

question

Vertebral Column Function:

answer

• Transmits weight of trunk to lower limbs • Surrounds and protects spinal cord • Flexible curved structure

question

Intervertebral Discs - Function

answer

absorb, shock and cushion

question

The Intervetebral disc is a cushionlike pad composed of what two parts

answer

-Nucleus pulposus -Anulus fibrosus

question

Nucleus pulposus

answer

• (inner) soft like jelly • Inner gelatinous nucleus that gives the disc its elasticity and compressibility

question

Anulus fibrosus

answer

• (outer) fibrocartilage tough • Outer collar composed of collagen and fibrocartilage *Anulus fibrosus is the tough fibrocartilage of the outer part of the intervetebral disc

question

Herniated disc- Herniation-

answer

-slips backward and compresses on nerve. -Dislocation or displacement of any body part from normal to abnormal.

question

General Structure of Vertebrae

answer

• Body or centrum - Anterior weight-bearing region

question

Cervical Vertebrae

answer

• C1 to C7: smallest, lightest vertebrae • C3 to C7 share the following features (typical) -Oval body -Spinous processes are bifid (except C7) -Large, triangular vertebral foramen -Transverse foramen in each transverse process -Small body -Spinous process are split, divided or bifid -Transverse foramen is large

question

C1 (atlas) and C2 (axis) are

answer

they are atypical

question

C1 (atlas) unique features

answer

- No body or spinous process - Consists of anterior and posterior arches, and two lateral masses - Superior surfaces of lateral masses articulate with the occipital condyles - Body missing - Posterior arch is larger - Anterior arch is smaller

question

C2 (axis) unique features

answer

- Dens projects superiorly into the anterior arch of the atlas - Dens is a pivot for the rotation of the atlas - In body there is a fingerlike structure pointing upward called Dens

question

The dens attaches to

answer

back of anterior arch of C1 (respiratory center)

question

Scoliosis

answer

- sideway bending

question

Appendicular Skeleton Consists of:

answer

• 2 Girdles 1. Pectoral girdle: Formed by Clavicles (front) and scapulae (back) -Attach the upper limbs to the axial skeleton (trunk) -Secure the upper limbs -Supports upper limbs 2. Pelvic girdle: hip bones -Attaches the lower limbs to the axial skeleton -Secures the lower limbs

question

Clavicles (Collarbones) and Scapula Form and Function:

answer

***Clavical is the only long bone that places horizontally • Lateral- acromial end 1/3 concave • Medial- sternal end 2/3 convex Scapula - Glenoid cavity holds the head of the humerous • Posterior -Spine becomes the acromion -Supraspinous fossa is above the spine - Infraspinous fossa is below the spine

question

The Upper Limb

answer

• 30 bones form the skeletal framework of each upper limb Arm (upper) • Humerus - 2 necks -Surgical - Atomical Forearm • Radius-lateral • Ulna- medial Hand • 8 carpal bones in the wrist (2 rows of short bones) • 5 metacarpal bones in the palm • 14 phalanges in the fingers (each finger has 3 phalanges except thumb, it has 2

question

Humerus (features)

answer

Round head (anatomical neck) • Largest, longest bone of upper limb • Articulates superiorly with glenoid cavity of scapula • Articulates inferiorly with radius and ulna Features: • upper end- head, anatomical neck, surgical neck, greater tubercle, lesser tubercle, intertubercular sulcus. • Lower end: Trochlea, capitulum, olecrenon fossa, coronoid fossa, radial fossa • Capitulum (lateral) articulates with radius. Trochlea (medial) looks like triangle, articulates with ulna. Together they form a joint

question

Common descriptive terms (humerus)

answer

⃰ Condyle-rounded prominence at the end of a bone, most often for articulation of another bone ⃰ Tubercule- Almost round boney structure ⃰ Fossa- round or almost round depression Ex. Coronoid fossa, Radial fossa ⃰ Sulcus- long narrow depression on bone to hold blood vessels and nerves

question

Dropped shoulder, dislocated shoulder

answer

• Dropped shoulder- Acromionclavicular joint seperates • Shoulder dislocation- ead of humerous is displaced from glenoid cavity • Fracture- surgical neck

question

Ulna:

answer

-Medial bone in forearm -Forms the major portion of the elbow joint with the humerus -Features: Upper part looks like open mouth of a snake • Upper jaw (olecranon process) • Lower jaw (coronoid process) • The trochlear notch is in between the olecranon process and coronoid process • Coronoid process will go inside coronoid fossa when forearm is flexed • Olecranon process articulates with the olecranon fossa in extension

question

Radius:

answer

- Lateral bone in forearm - Head articulates with capitulum of humerus and with radial notch of ulna - Features: (Upper end)- head is disc flat, below head is neck

question

Interosseous membrane connects the

answer

radius and ulna along their entire length

question

Hand: Carpus:

answer

• Eight bones in two rows - Proximal row • Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform proximally - Distal row • Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate distally ⃰ Only scaphoid and lunate articulate with radius to form wrist joint ⃰ Proximal- scaphoid and lunate articulate with lower end of radius and forms the wrist joint

question

Hand: Metacarpus and Phalanges

answer

• Metacarpus - Five metacarpal bones (#1 to #5) form the palm • Phalanges - Each finger (digit), except the thumb, has three phalanges— distal, middle, and proximal - Fingers are numbered 1-5, beginning with the thumb (pollex) - Thumb has no middle phalanx

question

Pelvic (Hip) Girdle

answer

• Two hip bones (each also called coxal) - Attach the lower limbs to the axial skeleton - Transmit weight of upper body to lower limbs - Support pelvic organs • Each hip bone consists of three fused bones: -ilium (upper) -ischium ( posterior lower) -pubis (anterior lower) • Together with the sacrum and the coccyx, these bones form the bony pelvis ӿ The pubic symphysis is the only place where the hip bones are joined together (by fibrocartilage)

question

Hip Bone

answer

Meet anteriorly at the pubic symphysis. Together with the sacrum, they form a ring termed the bony pelvis. Each hip bone consists of an ilium, an ischium, and a pubis, all three of which in the adult are fused at the acetabulum to form a single bone.

question

Female Pelvis

answer

- Adapted for childbearing (wider) - True pelvis (inferior to pelvic brim) defines birth canal -Cavity of the true pelvis is broad, shallow, and has greater capacity - Pelvic brim is wider - Coccyx is straighter, more moveable - Pubic angle/arch is broader more rounded 80o-90o

question

Femur

answer

• Bone of the thigh • The only bone of the thigh • Largest and strongest bone in the body • (Upper end) Articulates proximally with the acetabulum of the hip and distally with the tibia and patella (lower end) • Round head fits into acetabulum to form hip joint • Anterior- in between the condyles is the patellar surface • Posterior- in between the condyles is the intercondylar fossa • Linea aspera - line on bone , the nutrients and blood vessels flow through this • Supracondylerlines- these two lines meet to form the linea aspera

question

Bones of the Leg

answer

• Tibia • Fibula

question

Tibia:

answer

- Larger and stronger than the fibula - Transmits weight from femur - Medial leg bone - Receives the weight of the body from the femur and transmits it to the foot - Medial malleolus (in upper limb is called styloid process) - Below kneecap, patellar ligament attaches to tibial tuberosity - Upper end of tibia there are two condyles (medial and lateral)

question

Fibula:

answer

-Not weight bearing; no articulation with femur -Does not transfer body weight -Site of muscle attachment (provides attachment and support to leg muscles) -Connected to tibia by interosseous membrane -Articulates with tibia via proximal and distal tibiofibular joints

question

Tibia and fibula attach at two points

answer

• Proximal tibiofibular joint • Distal tibiofibular joint

question

Tarsals

answer

• 7 bones form the posterior half of the foot • Talus transfers most of the weight from the tibia to the calcaneus (talas articulates with lower end of tibia , most weight bearing) • Other bones: cuboid, navicular, and the medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiforms • Large bone (calcaneous)

question

Foot: Metatarsals and Phalanges:

answer

Metatarsals: • Five metatarsal bones (#1 to #5) • Enlarged head of metatarsal 1 forms the "ball of the foot"

question

Skeletal Tissue 3 types

answer

• Bones (vascular) • Cartilages (avascular) • Ligaments (avascular) ӿ Bones have their own blood vessels, however, ligaments and cartilages have no blood vessels or nerves. They are avascular.

question

Hyaline cartilages

answer

- Provide support, flexibility, and resilience - Most abundant type - In fetal skeleton, costal cartilage, respiratory tract, joint caartilage (articular)

question

Elastic cartilages

answer

- Ear - epiglotis - Similar to hyaline cartilages, but contain elastic fibers. Provides elasticity

question

Fibrocartilages

answer

-Pubic symphysis -Invertebral discs -Collagen fibers—have great tensile strength

question

Joints are locations where we move our body parts and they are formed by:

answer

bones

question

Functions of Bones:

answer

- form skeleton • Support: For the body and soft organs • Protection: For brain, spinal cord, and vital organs • Movement: Levers for muscle action • Storage: Minerals (calcium and phosphorus) and growth factors • Blood cell formation (hematopoiesis) in marrow cavities [red marrow is replaced by yellow as we age] • Fat & triglyceride (energy) storage in bone cavities (adipose tissue) When blood calcium goes down, bone releases calcium

question

4 types of bone shapes

answer

1. Long 2. Short 3. Flat 4.Irregular

question

Long bones

answer

- Longer than they are wide ex. humerous

question

Short bones

answer

- Cube-shaped bones small (in wrist {carpal} and ankle {tarsal}) - Sesamoid bones (within tendons, e.g., patella)

question

Flat bones

answer

-sternum, cranial bones -Thin, flat, slightly curved

question

Irregular bones

answer

- no particular shape, vertebra - Complicated shapes

question

Classification of Bones by texture/structure (2 types)

answer

1. Compact Bone 2. Spongy Bone

question

Compact bone

answer

- Dense outer layer - Shaft of long bone formed by compact bone

question

Spongy (cancellous) bone

answer

-Honeycomb of trabeculae (spikes of bones in different directions) -Spaces are present in spongy bone because red bone marrow is present -The inside of the head of the long bone is composed of spongy bone surrounded by compact bone

question

Bone Markings: Projections •Sites of muscle and ligament attachment

answer

-Tuberosity -Crest -Trochanter -Line -Tubercle -Epicondyle -Spine -Process

question

Tuberosity

answer

rounded projection, large structure

question

Crest

answer

narrow, prominent ridge , ex. Iliac crest

question

Trochanter

answer

large, blunt, irregular surface/structure

question

Line

answer

narrow ridge of bone ex. Linea aspera

question

Tubercle

answer

small rounded projection/structue

question

Epicondyle

answer

raised area above a condyle, extra large round articular structures

question

Spine

answer

sharp, slender projection

question

Process

answer

any bony prominence, bony extension from main part of bone, a process is broader than a spine

question

Bone Markings: Projections Structures that help to form joints

answer

-Head- Bony expansion carried on a narrow neck -Facet- Smooth, nearly flat articular surface (vertebra connecting) -Condyle - Rounded articular projection -Ramus - Armlike bar

question

Bone Markings: Depressions

answer

•Meatus - Canal-like passageway ex. Internal acoustic meatus •Sinus- Cavity within a bone, air cavities •Fossa - Shallow, basinlike depression. bones, glands, pituitary, can be round •Groove- Furrow, narrow long depression, elongated (salcus)

question

Bone Markings: Openings

answer

•Fissure- Narrow, slitlike opening, elongated •Foramen- Round or oval opening through a bone ex. Foramen magnum

question

Diaphysis (shaft)

answer

-Compact (formed) bone collar surrounds medullary (marrow) cavity - (inside) Medullary cavity in adults contains fat (yellow marrow) early in life marrow is red

question

Epiphyses (ends)

answer

- Expanded ends - Spongy bone interior - Epiphyseal line (remnant of growth plate) - Articular (hyaline) cartilage on joint surfaces

question

Bones are covered by:

answer

tough connective tissue

question

Periosteum

answer

Coverings of Bone (Outer) 2 layers -Outer fibrous layer -Inner osteogenic layer (osteo-bone, genic-forming). It contains 3 types of cells: •Osteoblasts ( young bone-forming cells) •Osteoclasts (mature bone-destroying cells) •Osteogenic cells (stem cells) produce new cells (bone producing) -Nerve fibers, nutrient blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels enter the bone via nutrient foramina

question

Endosteum

answer

•Coverings of Bone (Inner) -Delicate membrane on internal surfaces of bone -Also contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts -NO osteogenic cells

question

Location of Hematopoietic Tissue (Red Marrow)

answer

•Locations of red marrow (primary site) •Adults -Heads of the femur and humerus (head of long bones) -Trabecular cavities of the diploë of flat bones •Newborn infants (found everywhere) -Medullary (in shaft) cavities and all spaces in spongy bone

question

Osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells

answer

Osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells • Stem cells in periosteum and endosteum that give rise to osteoblasts

question

Microscopic Anatomy of Bone: Compact Bone

answer

• Haversian system, or osteon—structural unit - Lamellae • Weight-bearing • Column-like matrix tubes -- Central (Haversian) canal • Contains blood vessels and nerves • Lacunae—small cavities (chambers) that contain osteocytes • Canaliculi—hairlike canals that connect lacunae to each other and the central canal

question

Microscopic Anatomy of Bone: Spongy Bone

answer

•Trabeculae -Align along lines of stress -No osteons -Contain irregularly arranged lamellae, osteocytes, and canaliculi -Capillaries in endosteum supply nutrients

question

Chemical Composition of Bone: Organic

answer

•Osteoid •organic bone matrix secreted by osteoblasts -Ground substance (proteoglycans, glycoproteins)-chemicals -Collagen fibers •Provide tensile strength and flexibility •Mineral salts -65% of bone by mass -Mainly calcium phosphate crystals (magnesium) -Responsible for hardness and resistance to compression

question

Osteogenesis (ossification)

answer

•bone tissue formation.

question

Begins in the 2nd month of development

answer

Bone formation

question

2 types of bone formation

answer

1.Intramembranous ossification 2.Endochondral ossification

question

Intramembranous ossification

answer

(inside membrane) •Bone develops from membrane •Forms flat bones, e.g. clavicles and cranial bones

question

Endochondral ossification

answer

(inside cartilage) •Bone forms by replacing hyaline cartilage •Forms most of the rest of the skeleton

question

Most of our bones come from

answer

hyaline cartilage

question

Bones that come from membranes

answer

flat bones, clavical

question

All connective tissue comes from

answer

mesenchymal tissue

question

Intramembranous ossification

answer

1. Ossification centers appear in the fibrous connective tissue membrane. • Selected centrally located mesenchymal cells cluster and differentiate into osteoblasts, forming an ossification center.

question

Intrachondral ossification

answer

1. Bone collar forms around hyaline cartilage model. (osteoblast grows) 2 Cartilage in the center of the diaphysis calcifies and then develops cavities. 3. The periosteal bud inavades the internal cavities and spongy bone begins to form. (blood vessels branch) 4. The diaphysis elongates and a medullary cavity forms as ossification continues. Secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses in preparation for stage 5. 5. The epiphyses ossify. When completed, hyaline cartilage remains only in the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages. (articularcartilage never changes to bone, protects joint)

question

•Blood Supply of Mature Bones -Three major sets of blood vessels develop

answer

1. Nutrient artery and vein: (nutrient foramen shaft) 2. Metaphyseal vessels: (upper and outer ends) 3. Periosteal vessels provide: ( outer surface)

question

Nutrient artery and vein:

answer

(nutrient foramen shaft) -a single pair of large blood vessels -enter the diaphysis through the nutrient foramen -femur has more than one pair

question

Metaphyseal vessels:

answer

(upper and outer ends) -supply the epiphyseal cartilage -where bone growth occurs

question

Periosteal vessels provide:

answer

( outer surface) -blood to superficial osteons -secondary ossification centers

question

Bone Remodeling (destruction and formation)

answer

•Involves osteocytes, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts -Bone continually remodels, recycles, and replaces -Turnover rate varies •If deposition is greater than removal, bones get stronger •If removal is faster than replacement, bones get weaker

question

are weak

answer

Bone Remodeling (destruction and formation) If Destruction is more-bones

question

are strong

answer

Bone Remodeling (destruction and formation) If formation is more- bones

question

Hormones: •Helps in bone growth:

answer

•Growth hormone -comes from pituitary gland works on all the tissue in our body -In Bones and skeletal muscle these hormones work more and faster •Thyroid hormone- modulates activity of growth hormone Works through growth hormone •Testosterone and estrogens (at puberty)-Promote adolescent growth. Works on bones

question

Hormones: •Helps in calcium homeostasis:

answer

(regulates calcium in blood) •Thyroid hormone: Calcitonin (decreases blood calcium)-secreted from C cells/parafollicular cells •Parathyroid glans: Parathyroid hormones (PTH) or Parathromone (increases blood calcium) •Vitamin D: (calcium regulation) Vitamin because it enters into the body with food. It is also a proenzyme, synthesized within the body.

question

Hormones regulate blood calcium

answer

Calcitonin: decreases blood calcium levels (works on 2 structures) •Effects: 1.Bone: Calcitonin inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, a cell type that "digests" bone matrix, releasing calcium and phosphorus into blood. --If matrix is not broken calcium will not leave into blood --Matrix has lots of calcium 2.Kidney:Calcitonin inhibits tubular reabsorption of these two ions, leading to increased rates of their loss in urine. --Tubes are filled with nephrons filled with urine --Blood level reduced by blocking or reabsorbing

question

Hormones regulate blood calcium

answer

Parathormone: - does opposite of calcitonin -Increase in serum calcium concentration: •Activates large bone-dissolving cells called osteoclasts •Stimulates the kidney tubules to reabsorb calcium from the urine. •Parathormone also stimulates the kidney tubules to produce calcitriol, the most active form of vitamin D, from calcidiol a less active form of vitamin D. - Skin produces cholicaliferol (inactive vitamin D) , it goes to kidney where it is converted by parathormone in kidney to calcitrol (active vitamin D) - Blood level increase level of calcium

question

Why calcium ion is important?

answer

Calcium is most important mineral 9-11 gram/DL •Calcium is necessary for -Transmission of nerve impulses -Muscle contraction -Blood coagulation (blood clotting) -Secretion by glands and nerve cells -Cell division

question

(vertebrae) Body or centrum

answer

- Anterior weight-bearing region • Seven processes per vertebra: - Spinous process—projects posteriorly - Transverse processes (2)—project laterally - Superior articular processes (2)—protrude superiorly inferiorly - Inferior articular processes (2)—protrude inferiorly *pedicle connects arch and body

question

Vertebral arch

answer

- Composed of pedicles and laminae that, along with centrum, enclose vertebral foramen

question

Vertebral foramina

answer

- Together make up vertebral canal for spinal cord

question

Intervertebral foramina

answer

- Lateral openings between adjacent vertebrae for spinal nerves

question

Seven processes per vertebra:

answer

- Spinous process—projects posteriorly - Transverse processes (2)—project laterally - Superior articular processes (2)—protrude superiorly inferiorly - Inferior articular processes (2)—protrude inferiorly *pedicle connects arch and body

question

Appendicular Skeleton Consists of 2 Girdles:

answer

Pectoral girdle: Pelvic girdle:

question

Pectoral girdle:

answer

Formed by Clavicles (front) and scapulae (back) -Attach the upper limbs to the axial skeleton (trunk) -Secure the upper limbs -Supports upper limbs

question

Pelvic girdle:

answer

hip bones -Attaches the lower limbs to the axial skeleton -Secures the lower limbs

question

Male pelvis

answer

- Cavity of true pelvis is narrow and deep - Pelvic brim is narrower - Coccyx -more inverted (inward) less moveable - Pubic arch is more acute 50-60 degree

question

Osteoclasts

answer

• Cells that break down (resorb) bone matrix (destroy matrix) bone-resorbing cell -More powerful - More nuclei -More mitochondria

question

Osteoblasts

answer

• Bone-forming cells (form matrix) responsible for bone growth

question

Osteocytes

answer

Mature bone cells (just sit) maintains matrix

question

Vertebral column contains

answer

26 irregular bones (vertebrae) - Cervical vertebrae (7)—vertebrae of the neck - Thoracic vertebrae (12)—vertebrae of the thoracic cage - Lumbar vertebrae (5)—vertebra of the lower back - Sacrum—bone inferior to the lumbar vertebrae (large triangle) [five separate pieces as fetus that fuse] - Coccyx—terminus of vertebral column (tiny)

question

Kyphosis

answer

forward bending of the upper neck

question

Lordosis

answer

lower part bends forward

question

Spina bifida

answer

when the two pieces do not fuse • Meningmylocele- when covering (meninges) and spinal cord comeout • Meningocele- when just the covering comes out

question

The Upper Limb

answer

• 30 bones form the skeletal framework

question

lVertebral arch

answer

Composed of pedicles and laminae that, along with centrum, enclose vertebral foramen

question

Vertebral foramina

answer

Together make up vertebral canal for spinal cord

question

Intervertebral foramina

answer

Lateral openings between adjacent vertebrae for spinal nerves

question

Seven processes per vertebra:

answer

- Spinous process—projects posteriorly - Transverse processes (2)—project laterally - Superior articular processes (2)—protrude superiorly inferiorly Inferior articular processes (2)—protrude inferiorly

question

pedicle

answer

connects arch and body

question

Phalanges (foot)

answer

Phalanges • The 14 bones of the toes • Each digit (except the hallux) has three phalanges • Hallux has no middle phalanx ӿ Weight should go from talas to calcaneous then down to the ground

question

Ilium

answer

• Superior region of the coxal bone • Auricular surface articulates with the sacrum (sacroiliac joint • Illiac crest - the top part of the illium

question

Ischium

answer

• Posteroinferior part of hip bone

question

Pubis

answer

• Anterior portion of hip bone • Midline pubic symphysis joint

question

Arm (upper)

answer

• Humerus - 2 necks -Surgical - Atomical

question

Forearm

answer

• Radius-lateral • Ulna- medial

question

carpals

answer

• 8 bones in the wrist (2 rows of short bones)

question

metacarpal (hand)

answer

5 bones in the palm

question

answer

number of phalanges in the hand (each finger has 3 phalanges except thumb, it has 2

question

Lacunae

answer

small cavities (chambers) that contain osteocytes

question

Canaliculi

answer

hairlike canals that connect lacunae to each other and the central canal

STUDY

Anatomy Anatomy And Physiology Human Anatomy And Physiology 1

NHA Phlebotomy Study Guide – Pt 1 – Flashcards 100 terms

Brooke Sharp

100 terms

Preview

NHA Phlebotomy Study Guide – Pt 1 – Flashcards

question

What are the two circulations of the Heart ?

answer

Pulmonary and Systemic

question

The pulmonary circulation carries _____?

answer

Deoxygenated blood to the lungs and oxygenated blood from the lungs.

question

What kind of valve is the tricuspid valve?

answer

atrioventricle

question

The pulmonic valve is situated between _____________?

answer

Right Ventricle (RV) and pulmonary artery

question

Endocardium is which layer of the heart?

answer

inner

question

The myocardium is the layer of the heart that is made of ____________?

answer

muscle

question

Which layer of the heart is the epicardium?

answer

outer

question

What kind of blood do arteries and arterioles carry?

answer

oxygenated

question

What percentage of the blood is made up of formed elements?

answer

45%

question

What percentage of formed elements is erythrocytes?

answer

90%

question

What is the oxygen carrying protein in erythrocytes?

answer

hemoglobin

question

Where do blood cells originate?

answer

bone marrow

question

How many liters of blood does the average adult have?

answer

5-6

question

What is the normal life span of a RBC?

answer

120 days

question

What is the liquid portion of blood (inside of body) called?

answer

plasma

question

What is the function of a leukocyte?

answer

protect from infection

question

What is a condition that could cause leukopenia (low white blood cell count)?

answer

chemotherapy

question

How many types of leukocytes are in blood?

answer

question

Which WBC comprises 40%-60% of the WBCs?

answer

neutrophils

question

How much of 20%-40% comprises of WBC ?

answer

lymphocytes

question

Which WBC carries histamine?

answer

basophils

question

Another name for thrombocytes is _____?

answer

Platelets

question

Hemostatis is defined as __________?

answer

stoppage of blood

question

The first phase of hemostasis is ______?

answer

vascular stage; 2) platelet stage; 3) coagulation; 4) fibrinolysis

question

The test used to evaluate intrinsic pathway is called ____________?

answer

aPTT (heparin TDM)

question

The break down and removal of a clot in the hemostasis process is _________?

answer

fibrinolysis

question

What is the preferred site for venipuncture?

answer

antecubital fossa

question

Sclerosed (Schlerosis) veins feel ________?

answer

cordlike

question

Crooked or winding veins are also called ______________?

answer

tortuous

question

What is the preferred antiseptic for venipuncture?

answer

isopropyl alcohol

question

What is the size (in inches) of needle routinely used for venipuncture?

answer

1-1.5 inches in length

question

What is another name for winged infusion sets?

answer

butterfly

question

Which is NOT a reason the tourniquet is used?

answer

to make veins blue

question

A pad used to protect the patient's clothing?

answer

Chux

question

The most common complication of phlebotomy ?

answer

Hematoma (especially in older patients)

question

Leaving the tourniquet on too long may cause _________?

answer

Hemoconcentration (pool of blood)

question

Tiny red spots on the skin cause from the rupturing of capillaires are called ?

answer

Petechiae (p-t-k)

question

Accumulation of fluid in the tissues is called ?

answer

Edema

question

Permanent surgical connection btwn an artery and a vein?

answer

fistula

question

What are some of causes of a pre-analytical error(s) ?

answer

1) improper time of collection; 2) wrong order of draw; 3) faulty technique; 4) exposure to light

question

What is the purpose of the post-analytical phase?

answer

Access pt and provide tx (treatment) by medical staff(i.e. DR, RP, PA who ordered the test(s))

question

The most important step in a routine venipuncture?

answer

Identify the patient

question

How many inches above the site should be the tourniquet be tied?

answer

3-4 inches

question

If the patient continues to bleed after 8 minutes of pressure you should?

answer

Call for help - Emergency

question

Which is not a reason for failure to collect blood ?

answer

Patient drank too much liquid

question

There are several possibilities why tubes may lose their vacuum due to _____________?

answer

1) manufacturing defects; 2) expired tube; 3) a fine crack in the tube

question

If the needle passes completely through the vein you must pull it out of the arm and try another vein.

answer

False

question

Using a butterfly needle may be necessary if the vein collapses with the evacuated tube system.

answer

True

question

A person should sustain from eating for how many hours prior to a fasting blood test?

answer

12 (book).

question

To measure diurnal variation of cortisol hormone what kind of specimen would be required ?

answer

Timed

question

Postprandial means________.

answer

after eating

question

The OGTT (oral Glucose Tolerance test or GTT test diagnoses _____________

answer

diabetes

question

In therapeutic blood monitoring, the trough levels are tested ___________

answer

30 minutes BEFORE the scheduled dose.

question

Blood cultures are used to diagnose ______________?

answer

FUO (fever of unknown origin)

question

What part of the infant is a PKU test performed on ?

answer

Heel

question

What special handling does a cold agglutinins test require ?

answer

pre-warmed tubes

question

What special handling does an ABG (Arterial Blood Gases) require ?

answer

chilling

question

Which test is NOT a light sensitive test ?

answer

porphyrins

question

What is the recommended depth of a heel puncture on an infant?

answer

2.0mm

question

Blood Culture tests can be done with a dermal puncture when venipuncture is not possible.

answer

False. Blood cultures required 5cc-10cc collected.

question

The first tube in the order of draw for capillary specimens are lavender.

answer

True. Micro-containers has reverse order of draw.

question

In the order of draw for capillary specimens should you draw tubes with or without additives first?

answer

With additives first

question

Which order of draw is correct?

answer

Regular method: red, green, lavender

question

The order of draw for venipuncture is BC, blue, Red-serum, green, Lavender(EDTA), gray.

answer

True

question

Which tube is used for PTT?

answer

Light Blue

question

Which tube is used for a sickle cell (anemia) screen?

answer

Lavender

question

Blood cultures are collected in a __________ tube.

answer

Yellow

question

Which tube contains sodium citrate?

answer

Light Blue

question

Which tube would you use to measure lactic acid ?

answer

Gray

question

Microorganisms cultures are collected in ____________ tubes.

answer

Yellow

question

To check for trace elements a phlebotomist would use a ________ tube.

answer

Royal Blue. Toxicology/Microbiology (not in the order of draw) special use

question

What tube is used for a WBC differential?

answer

Lavender

question

Ammonia chemical test would be done with a ___________ tube.

answer

Green

question

Sodium Citrate is the additive in which tube?

answer

Light Blue

question

What tube is used for ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

answer

Lavender - to discover if there's an inflammation.

question

What organ would a doctor be interested in if he ordered an ALP, AST, ALT, GGT and bilirubin?

answer

Liver (aka Liver Panel tests)

question

How many times should a red top tube be inverted?

answer

0 according to textbook/NHA exam. Note: Real life you do invert.

question

Invert a Gray Tube ___________ times.

answer

8-10 times

question

Which tube is sometimes called a serum separator tube?

answer

Red/gray (aka tiger top)

question

How many times to invert a red/gray tiger top ?

answer

question

Lavender tubes must be 2/3 full.

answer

True

question

Lavender, yellow, and green tubes should all be inverted 8 times each.

answer

True

question

How many times should a light-blue tube be inverted?

answer

3-4 times

question

Light Blue tubes must be _________ full.

answer

Completely. no vacuum left. Blood ratio: 9:1

question

Sodium Fluoride preserves glucose for how many days?

answer

3 days (72hrs)

question

A CBC would be sent to what lab section?

answer

hemotology (lavender top)

question

Where is the blood collected, stored, and prepared for transfusions?

answer

Blood Bank

question

Which lab section would analyze the C&S test?

answer

Microbiolgy - Culture & Sensitivity

question

What are the 3 components of an urinalysis?

answer

Physical, chemical, microscopic exams

question

What is the first link in the chain of infection?

answer

Agent - because it's the source.

question

Contact, droplet and airborne are ______________.

answer

Modes of transmission

question

Which is NOT a common symptom of shock ?

answer

Blinking eyes

question

When someone is in shock you should keep them cool.

answer

False

question

An open wound can be a portal of entry in an infection chain.

answer

True

question

Medical asepsis is the destruction of pathogens outside the body.

answer

True

question

What is the most important step in preventing infections?

answer

handwashing

question

Which is not a PPE ?

answer

Room dividers

question

All patients are presumed to be infectious for

answer

Blood Borne pathogens

question

Always recap your needle before putting it into the sharps container.

answer

False

question

What is a Systemic Circulation of the heart?

answer

It is the part of the cardiovascular system which carries oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body, and returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

STUDY

Anatomy Anatomy And Physiology Estrogen Replacement Therapy

Anatomy & Physiology I Study Guide Chapter 6, "The Skeleton System" – Flashcards 79 terms

Kaitlynn Baldwin

79 terms

Preview

Anatomy & Physiology I Study Guide Chapter 6, "The Skeleton System" – Flashcards

question

Components of the Skeletal System

answer

All Bones, Joints, Cartilage, Ligaments

question

Functions of the Skeletal System

answer

Support & Protect- body & organs Body Movement- prividing attachments fior muscles that pull on the bones that acts as lever Storage area for Minerals- Calcium & Phosphorus Production of Blood Cells - Red Bone Marrow

question

4 Classifications of Bones

answer

long bones short bones irregular bones flat bones

question

long bones

answer

longer than they are wide, bones of the arms and legs, Humerous, Radius, Ulna, Femur, Fibula and Tibia

question

short bones

answer

cube-shaped bones having a spongy core, with limited movement, carpals (wrist) and tarsals (foot)

question

irregular bones

answer

variety of shapes and are usually connected to several other bones , pelvic girdle, vertebrae, facial bones, pubis, ischium, inner cranial bones

question

flat bones

answer

thin, flattened, and usually curved, two thin layers of compact sandwiching spongey bone....Sternum, Ribs, Scapula, Ilium, Outer Cranial Bones.

question

2 Types of Bone Tissue

answer

Compact Bone and Spongy or Cancellous Bone

question

Compact Bone

answer

mostly solid, dense part of bone, outside of bone, along shaft of bone

question

Spongy Bone found

answer

part of bone with many small pores or spaces, is found in the inside of the bones & ends of Long Bones

question

Functions of Spongy Bones

answer

-Decease the weight of bones, making them lighter but strong -Contain Red Bone Marrow

question

Function of the Red Bone Marow

answer

Production of all blood cells

question

Ossification

answer

the process of bone formation; osteogenesis

question

Osteoblast

answer

Bone building Cells that deposit Calcium & Phosphours in the bone

question

Osteocytes

answer

mature bone cells

question

Osteoclast

answer

cells that breaks down bone (deconstruction) which is the break down of the calcium and phosphorus contained in the bone and release them into the bloodstream.

question

Articular Cartilage

answer

cartilage located on the ends of bones and acts as a shock absorber, preventing the bones from grinding together (reduces friction)

question

3 Types of Joints

answer

fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

question

Fibrous Joints

answer

(synarthrotic joints) immovable joints

question

Cartilaginous Joints

answer

(amohiarthrotic joints) Slightly movable

question

Synovial Joints

answer

(diarthrotic joints) freely movable joints

question

6 Types of Synovial Joints

answer

Pivot - Ball & Socket - Hinge - Gliding - Saddle -

question

Pivot Joints

answer

Joints between the Vertebrae & Proximal Humerus/Radius Joint, Allow rotation of one bone against another.

question

Ball & Socket

answer

Hip and Shoulder, Twisting joint that can move in many directions.

question

Hinge Joint

answer

Elbow and phalanges of the fingers and toes.....allows movement back and forth like a hinged door

question

Gliding Joints

answer

Joints Between the Carpals - these joints allowed bones to slide over one another

question

Saddle Joints

answer

(Carpometacarpal) Joint in the Thumb

question

Ellipsoidal

answer

(Condyloid Joints) joints between the metacarpal and first phalange of the fingers and mandible and temporal bone joint (jaw joint)

question

Flexion

answer

bending at the joint so that the angle between the bones is decreased

question

Extension

answer

bending of a joint that increases the angle between the bones

question

Hyperextension

answer

overextending the joint beyond its normally extended position

question

ABDuction

answer

Movement away from the midline

question

ADDuction

answer

movement toward the midline of the body

question

Plantar

answer

bending the foot downward, as in pointing the toes.

question

Doriflexion

answer

bending the foot up toward the leg

question

Inversion

answer

turning the sole of the foot inward

question

Eversion

answer

turning the sole of the foot outward

question

Supination

answer

the action of turning the palm up and forward

question

Pronation

answer

the action of turning the palm down or backward

question

Axial Skeleton

answer

the portion of the skeleton that supports and protects the head, neck, and trunk

question

Apendicular Skeleton

answer

bones that form the shoulders, hips, and extremities (arms & legs)

question

2 divisions of the Skull

answer

cranial (8 bones); facial (14 bones)

question

Maxilla

answer

upper jaw bone

question

Mandible

answer

lower jaw bone

question

Sternum

answer

the middle of the chest (connects the ribs), breastbone

question

Parts of the Sternum

answer

Manubrium, body, Xiphoid process

question

Manubrium

answer

Superior / upper portion of the sternum

question

Body

answer

Middle Division of the Sternum

question

Xiphoid Process

answer

Inferior Portion of Sternum (landmark for CPR compressions)

question

Ribs

answer

12 pairs, The bones in the chest that protect the heart and lungs.

question

True Ribs

answer

first 7 pairs of ribs; attach directly to sternum (pairs 1-7) by means of individual externsions of costal cartilage.

question

False Ribs

answer

The bottom 5 ribs attached to the spine but not directly to the sternum, but indirectly by the costal cartilage of the inferior-most true rib.

question

Floating Ribs

answer

last 2 ribs 11 & 12 that do not connect to sternum with cartilage

question

Cervical Vertebrae

answer

7, C1-C7, first set of seven bones, forming the neck

question

Thoracic Vertebrae

answer

12, the twelve vertebrae of the thorax that hold the ribs, T1-T12

question

Lumbar Vertebrae

answer

5, third curve of the spine; largest vertebrae; function to protect the spinal cord and support the weight of the body, L1-L5

question

Kyphosis

answer

hunchback, exaggerated posterior curvature of the thoracic spine

question

Lordosis

answer

abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine, swayback

question

Scoliosis

answer

lateral curvature of the spine

question

Atlas

answer

the 1st cervical vertebra that supports the Head C-1

question

Axis

answer

the 2nd cervical vertebra, acts as a pivot on which the Atlas & Head rotate.

question

Clavicle & Scapula

answer

bones of the shoulder girdle

question

Humerus

answer

bone of the upper arm

question

Radius

answer

lateral bone of the forearm when in anatomical position

question

Ulna

answer

the medial bone of the forearm when in anatomical position

question

Carpals

answer

8 bones of the wrist

question

Metacarpals

answer

5 Hand bones.

question

Phalanges

answer

14 bones of the fingers & toes

question

Pelvic Girdle

answer

Hip bones, Formed by 2 Coxal Bones

question

Pubic Symphysis Joints

answer

point where the coxal bones join anteriorly

question

Sacroiliac Joints

answer

point where the coxal attached to sacrum join posteriorly

question

3 parts of the Coxal Bones

answer

Illium - Ishcium - Pubis

question

Fermur

answer

Thigh bone of the leg; the longest and strongest bone in the body

question

Patella

answer

the kneecap, a small flat triangular bone in front of the knee that protects the knee joint

question

Tibia

answer

Shin bone. On medial and anterior side of the leg. Bears most of the weight larger of the bones in lower leg

question

Fibula

answer

calf bone the lateral and smaller bone of the lower leg

question

Tarsals

answer

7 bones that make up the ankle

question

Metatarsals

answer

5 bones of the foot.

question

Calcaneous

answer

Heel Bone; largest bone of the foot

STUDY

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Anatomy Inflammation Of The Brain Medical Terminology

Medical Terminology 2 – The Nervous System – Flashcards 41 terms

Ewan Knight

41 terms

Preview

Medical Terminology 2 – The Nervous System – Flashcards

question

The study of the nervous system is called __________.

answer

neurology

question

The organs of the nervous system are the __________,__________,__________

answer

brain, spinal cord, nerves

question

The two divisions of the nervous system are the __________, and __________.

answer

central nervous system, peripheral nervous system

question

The neurons that carry impulses away from the brain and spinal cord are called __________ neurons.

answer

motor

question

The neurons that carry impulses to the brain and spinal cord are called __________ neurons.

answer

sensory

question

The largest portion of the brain is the __________.

answer

cerebrum

question

The second largest portion of the brain is the __________.

answer

cerebellum

question

The occipital lobe controls __________.

answer

vision

question

The temporal lobe controls __________, and __________.

answer

hearing, smell

question

The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system are the __________ and __________.

answer

sympathetic branch, parasympathetic branch

question

inflammation of the nerve

answer

neuritis

question

specialist in nerves

answer

neurologist

question

pain in the nerve

answer

neuralgia

question

inflammation of many nerves

answer

polyneuritis

question

removal of a nerve

answer

neurectomy

question

surgical repair of a nerve

answer

neuroplasty

question

nerve tumor

answer

neuroma

question

suture of a nerve

answer

neurorrhaphy

question

inflammation of the meninges

answer

meningitis

question

protrusion of the meninges

answer

meningocele

question

protrusion of the spinal cord and the meninges

answer

myelomeningocele

question

x-ray record of the brain

answer

encephalogram

question

disease of the brain

answer

encephalopathy

question

inflammation of the brain

answer

encephalitis

question

protrusion of the brain

answer

encephalocele

question

pertaining to the cerebrum and spinal cord

answer

cerebrospinal

question

pertaining to the cerebrum

answer

cerebral

question

TIA

answer

transient ischemic attack

question

answer

multiple sclerosis

question

SCI

answer

spinal cord injury

question

CNS

answer

central nervous system

question

PNS

answer

peripheral nervous system

question

answer

headache

question

answer

cerebral palsy

question

answer

lumbar puncture

question

ALS

answer

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

question

-plegia

answer

paralysis

question

muscle coordination

answer

-taxia

question

pertaining to development

answer

-trophic

question

weakness

answer

-paresis

question

speech

answer

-phasia

STUDY

Anatomy Anatomy And Physiology

DIGESTIVE SYSTEM CHAPTER 15 STUDY GUIDE!! – Flashcards 135 terms

Jonathan Walsh

135 terms

Preview

DIGESTIVE SYSTEM CHAPTER 15 STUDY GUIDE!! – Flashcards

question

The process by which we process the food we eat so that nutrients can be extracted and then absorbed for use by the millions of body cells for energy is a requirement for life is called

answer

Digestion

question

An irregular tube, that opens at both ends is called

answer

GI Tract or Alimentary canal

question

How long is the GI tract?

answer

9 meters (29ft long)

question

What are the mechanisms used by the digestive system to make nutrients available to each cell of the body?

answer

1.Ingestion 2.Digestion 3.Motility 4.Secretion 5.Absorption 6.Elimination 7.Regulation

question

What is the process called for which you will be taking food into the mouth, and starting it on its journey through the digestive tract called?

answer

Ingestion

question

The breakdown, or digestion, of material is needs to be both

answer

mechanic and chemical

question

What is used to physically breakdown large chucks of food before it is swallowed?

answer

The teeth

question

Physically breaking large chucks into small bits is considered to be

answer

Mechanical digestion

question

The movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion?

answer

Motility

question

Large food molecules are reduced to smaller molecules in what type of digestion?

answer

Chemical

question

The process that requires __________ of digestive enzymes and other products into the lumen of the GI Tract.

answer

Secretion

question

The movement of digested nutrients through the GI mucosa and into the internal environment is called?

answer

Absorption

question

Excretion of the residues of the digestive process (feces) from the rectum, through the anus; or defecation is called

answer

Elimination

question

Activities such as motility and secretion is required to coordinate the various mechanisms of digestion which is called

answer

Regulation

question

The release of digestive juices is part of what mechanism?

answer

Secretion

question

What is required of the GI Wall in order to move and break down large chunks of food into smaller bits?

answer

Motility Or movement

question

The main organs of the digestive system are

answer

1.Mouth 2.Pharynx 3.Esophagus 4.Stomach 5.Small Intestine 6.Large Intestine 7.Rectum 8.Anal Cavity

question

What are the sections of the small intestine called in order of which food passes through them

answer

1.Duodenum 2.jejunum 3.lleum

question

What are the 4 different parts of the colon?

answer

1.Ascending 2.Transverse 3.Descending 4. Sigmoid

question

What are the accessory organs to the digestive system?

answer

Teeth, Tongue, Salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, Pancreas, Vermiform Appendix.

question

What are the 3 types of salivary glands?

answer

Parotid, Submandibular, and Sublingual

question

What are the names of the 4 digestive tissues found on the wall of the digestive tube, starting from the inside coat to the outside tube?

answer

1. Mucosa (mucous membrane) 2.Submucosa 3.Muscularis 4.Serosa

question

The inside, or hollow space within the digestive tube is called

answer

Lumen

question

Which type of the digestive tube is composed of tough and stratified abrasion-resistant epithelium only in the esophagus, but then remains a delicate layer of simple columnar epithelium designed for absorption and secretion is called?

answer

Mucosa

question

The connective tissue layer that lies just below the mucosa is called

answer

Submucosa

question

The GI Wall tissue that contains many blood vessels and nerves is called

answer

Submucosa

question

The two layered muscle tissue that plays an important role in producing motility or movement of the GI Tract during the digestive process is called?

answer

Muscularis

question

What is a rhythmic, wavelike contraction of the gut wall caused by alternating contraction and relaxation of the circular and longitudinal muscle laters in the muscular called?

answer

Peristalis

question

What contraction squeezes and pushes ingested food material forward through the digestive tube's internal pathway?

answer

Peristalis

question

Alternating contractions of the circular layer of the muscularis within a single region, or segment, of the GI tract also produces a "back and forth" type of intestinal motility called

answer

Segmentation

question

As the peristalsis movement pushes food down the GI Tract, __________ contractions further assist in mixing food with digestive juices and helps continue the mechanical breakdown of larger food particles.

answer

Segmentation

question

Food is churned and mixed as it slowly progresses along the GI Tract in close contact with the intestinal mucosa, which facilitates absorption of nutrients this is an example of which alternating sequence?

answer

Peristalis and segmentation

question

What is the outermost covering or coat of the digestive tube?

answer

Serosa

question

In the abdominal cavity, this series covering is called the

answer

Visceral Peritoneum

question

The loops of the digestive tract are anchored to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity by a large fold of peritoneal tissue is called

answer

Mesentery

question

A hollow chamber with a roof, a floor, and walls is called the

answer

Mouth

question

The mouth is lined with what type of tissue membrane?

answer

mucous

question

A bony structure in the anterior or front portion of the mouth formed by parts of the palatine and maxillary bones.

answer

Hard Palate

question

What is located above the posterior or rear portion of the mouth. It is soft because it consist of chiefly muscle?

answer

Soft Palate

question

Hanging down from the center of the soft palate is a cone-shaped structure is called?

answer

Uvula

question

What prevents food and liquid from entering the nasal cavities?

answer

Uvula and soft palate

question

What does the floor of the mouth consist of?

answer

tongue and its muscles.

question

What attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

answer

Frenulum

question

The tongue can be divided into what 3 sections

answer

root, pointed tip, and central body.

question

What are the three main parts of the tooth?

answer

Crown, neck, and root

question

What is the portion of the mouth that is exposed and visible, and covered by enamel?

answer

Crown

question

What is the hardest tissue of the body

answer

Enamel

question

The outer shell of the tooth is convered by two dental tissue called

answer

dentin and cementum

question

The center of the tooth contains a

answer

pulp cavity, that consist of connective tissue, blood, lymphatic tissue, and sensory nerves.

question

A narrow portion of the tooth that joins the crown of the tooth to the root

answer

neck

question

inflamation of the gums is called

answer

gingivitiis

question

What part of the tooth fits into the bony socket that surrounds it in either the upper or lower jaw bone?

answer

Root

question

Periodontis is the result of inflammation and infection due to untreated

answer

gingivitis

question

What are the 4 major types of teeth

answer

1.Incisors 2.Canines or cuspids 3.Premolars (bicuspids) 4.Molars (tricuspids)

question

A set of 20 teeth is called

answer

Deciduous or baby teeth

question

Deciduous or baby teeth erupt between how many months of age?

answer

6 to 30

question

When are the Deciduous or baby teeth usually lost

answer

6 to 13 years old

question

Deciduous teeth are shed and completely replaced with a full set of how many teeth

answer

32 permanent teeth

question

How do salivary glands convey their exocrine secretions?

answer

ducts into the tract

question

Thin, watery, and free of mucous salivary secretions are said to be

answer

Serous in nature

question

The enzyme that begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates is called

answer

Amylase

question

Which type saliva serves the important function of lubricating food during mastication?

answer

Mucous type saliva

question

What is the largest salivary gland?

answer

Parotid gland

question

Which gland produces only serous type secretory cells, which produce a watery, or serous, type of saliva containing enzymes but not mucous?

answer

Parotid gland

question

mixed or compound salivary glands because they contain both serous and mucus-producing secretory cells are called?

answer

Submandibular glands

question

Smallest of the main salivary glands?

answer

Sublingual gland

question

Which is the only salivary gland that only produces mucous saliva?

answer

Sublingual

question

Tubelike structure made of muscle and lines with mucous membrane is called

answer

Pharynx

question

The pharynx functions as part of what two systems?

answer

Respiratory and digestive

question

What are the three anatomical components of the pharynx?

answer

1.Nasopharynx 2.oropharynx 3.laryngopharynx

question

What division of the pharynx is directly involved in the digestive process of swallowing

answer

Oropharynx

question

The process of swallowing is called

answer

Deglutition

question

mastication is considered

answer

voluntary movement

question

bolus of food is moved through the oropharynx by

answer

involuntary movement

question

swallowing movements is dependent on nervous impulses orginating in the motor cortex of the cerebrum

answer

regulation of voluntary

question

movements originating in the swallowing or "deglutition center" located in the medulla and pons of the brainstem

answer

regulation of involuntary

question

Muscus lined tube that connects the pharynx with the stomach and is about 25 cm (10 inches) long

answer

Esophagus

question

Which organ serves as a dynamic passageway for food, pushing the food towards the stomach?

answer

Esophagus

question

What is located in the upper part of the abdominal cavity just under the diaphragm?

answer

Stomach

question

What serves as a pouch that food enters after it is chewed, swallowed, and passed through the esophagus?

answer

Stomach

question

Sphincters are

answer

rings of tissue

question

Contraction of the stomachs muscular walls mixes the food throughly with the gastric juice and breaks it down into a semisolid mixture called

answer

Chyme

question

Gastric juice contains

answer

Hydrochloric acid and enzymes

question

What are the three layers of smooth muscle in the wall of the stomach?

answer

1.Longitudinal muscle layer 2.Circular muscle layer 3.Oblique muscle layer

question

Stomach muscle contractions result in

answer

Peristalis, propels food down the tract

question

what type of membrane lines the stomach

answer

mucous

question

What are the three divisions of the stomach?

answer

1.Fundus, 2.Plyous 3. body

question

The lower narrow section of the stomach that joins the first part of the small intestine

answer

pylorus

question

The small intestine is roughly how many meters long?

answer

7 meters (20 inches)

question

Name the 3 sections of the small intestine in order by which food passes through them

answer

1.Duodenum 2.jejunum 3.ileum

question

multiple circular folds of the small intestines intestinal lining is called

answer

plicae

question

inside each ________ lies a rich network of blood capillaries that absorb products of carbohydrate and protein digestion (sugar and amino acids).

answer

villus

question

What absorbs lipid or fat materials from the chyme passing through the small intestine

answer

Lacteal

question

Most chemical digestion occurs in the

answer

duodenum

question

Which organ secretes bile into the ducts

answer

liver

question

What is the largest gland in the body also considered a exocrine gland

answer

liver

question

Bile contains

answer

Cholesterol and bile salts

question

What concentrates and stores bile from the liver

answer

gallbladder

question

Which duct drains bile from the liver

answer

Hepatic

question

by which duct does bile enter and leave the gallbladder

answer

Cystic

question

A union from by the hepatic and cystic duct; drains bile from hepatic duct or cystic duct to the duodenum is called

answer

common bile

question

The pancreas is considered what type of gland

answer

Exocrine

question

Which cells secrete pancreatic juice (most important digestive juice) into pancreatic ducts; main duct empties into the duodenum

answer

Pancreatic

question

Cells not connected to pancreatic ducts; secrete hormones glucagon and insulin into the blood are called

answer

Pancreatic islets

question

How long in length is the large intestine?

answer

1.5 meters (5 ft)

question

what is the Sphincter like opening structure located in the large intestine called

answer

ileocecal valve

question

Bacteria in the large intestine is responsible for the synthesis of what vitamin

answer

k and production of some b complex vitamins

question

What are the subdivisions of the large intestine, in order in which food or feces passes through them?

answer

1.cecum 2.Ascending colon 3.Transverse colon 4.Descending colon 5.sigmoid colon 6.rectum 7.anal canal

question

The inner anal sphincter is composed of

answer

smooth or involuntary muscle

question

The outer anal sphincter is composed of

answer

striated voluntary muscle

question

A blind tubelike interior lumen that communicates with the lumen of the large interns 3 cm below the opening of the ileocecal valve into the cecum is called

answer

Appendix

question

a large, moist, slippery sheet of serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the organs located in it, including most of the digestive organs is called

answer

Peritoneum

question

Which layer of the peritoneum forms the outer, or covering, layer of each abdominal organ

answer

viseral layer

question

Which layer of the peritoneum lines the abdominal cavity

answer

Parietal

question

An extension between parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum is shaped like a giant, pleated fan is called

answer

mesentery

question

a pouchlike extension of the visceral peritoneum from the lower edge of the stomach, part of the duodenum, and transverse colon is called

answer

greater omentum

question

A complex process that occurs in the alimentary canal, consist of physical and chemical changes that prepare food for absorption

answer

digestion

question

enzymes in the saliva, gastric juice, pancreatic juice, and intestinal juice are all part of

answer

chemical digestion

question

Fat-digesting enzyme that acts on lips (fats)

answer

Lipase

question

enzymes that speed up reactions that add water (hydro) to chemically break up or split (lysis) larger molecules into smaller molecules is called

answer

hydrolysis

question

What pancreatic enzyme started the process of breaking down polysaccharides such as starches into disaccharides (double sugars)?

answer

amylase

question

What are the three intestinal enzymes that digest disaccharides into monosaccharides (simple sugars)

answer

maltase, sucrase, and lactase

question

Maltase digest

answer

maltose (malt sugar)

question

sucrase digest

answer

sucrose (ordinary cane sugar)

question

Lactase digest

answer

lactose

question

Protein digestion starts in the

answer

Stomach

question

an enzyme in the gastric juice, causes the giant protein molecules to break up into somewhat simpler compounds.

answer

Pepsin

question

A compound of gastric juice, is converted into active pepsin enzyme by hydrochloric acid.

answer

Pepsinogen

question

what other enzymes in the pancreatic juice and peptidases in the intestinal juice finish the job of protein digestion

answer

trypsin

question

When enzymes have split up the large protein molecule into its separate amino acids, then

answer

protein digestion is completed.

question

Most fats are undigested until after emulsification by bile in the

answer

duodenum

question

Pacreatic lipase slips up the fat molecules into fatty acids and glycerol (glycerin). The end products of fat digestion, then, are

answer

fatty acids and glycerol.

question

after food is digested, the resulting nutrients are absorbed and move through the mucous membrane lining of the

answer

small intestine into the blood and lymph.

question

the process by which molecules of amino acids, glucose, fatty acids, and glycerol go from the inside of the intestines into the circulating fluid of the body.

answer

Absorption

question

Amylase in saliva and pancreatic juices have a resulting product is

answer

maltose

STUDY

Anatomy Psychology

AFAA Personal Trainer Certification Study Guide – Flashcards 285 terms

Patrick Thompson

285 terms

Preview

AFAA Personal Trainer Certification Study Guide – Flashcards

question

Myocardial Infarction

answer

Hear attack occurs due to lack of blood flow through the coronary arteries to the heart muscle

question

Ischemia

answer

lack of blood flow

question

Stroke Volume

answer

the amount of blood pumped with each beat or systole

question

Cardiac Output

answer

heart rate x stroke volume. usually measured in liters (or milileters) of blood pumped per minute

question

Venous Return

answer

The amount of blood returned to the heart by the veins

question

Valsalva Maneuver

answer

occurs when a person holds his or her breath during a strenuous activity, such as lifting weights or shoveling snow

question

Minute Ventilation

answer

total amount of air breathed per minute

question

Residual lung volume

answer

amount of air remaining in the lungs after a complete and total forced exhale

question

Forced vital capacity

answer

amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a maximal inahle

question

Total lung capacity

answer

sum of the residual volume and the forced vital capacity

question

Glucose

answer

body's usable form of carbohydrate

question

Lactic Acid

answer

produced in muscles during rapid exercise when the body cannot supply enough oxygen to the tissues

question

Glycolysis

answer

a metabolic process that breaks down carbohydrates and sugars through a series of reactions to either pyruvic acid or lactic acid and release energy for the body in the form of ATP

question

Mitochondria

answer

a subcellular structure where oxidation takes place

question

Beta oxidation

answer

A metabolic sequence that breaks fatty acids down to two-carbon fragments that enter the citric acid cycle as acetyl CoA.

question

Krebs cycle

answer

the acetyl CoA formed in the first component of aerobic metabolism enters into the citric acid cycle

question

Electron transport system

answer

the final sequence of reactions in the aerobic production of ATP

question

Maximal oxygen uptake

answer

the maximum amount of oxygen consumed and utilized by the body during an all-out effort to exhaustion

question

Excess Post-Exercise Oxygen Consumption

answer

additional oxygen consumed immediately after an exercise bout when the body is no longer exercising

question

Sarcomere

answer

each section of a myofibril in muscle

question

Actin

answer

structural protein that makes up the thin filaments of myofibrils; functions in muscle contraction

question

Anatomical Position

answer

standing position with hands down and palms facing forward

question

Supine

answer

lying on the spine

question

Prone

answer

lying face down

question

Axial Skeleton

answer

part of the skeleton that contains skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum

question

Synovial joints

answer

have a small space between the articulating bones that allows for a greater range of motion

question

Cartilage

answer

a white, semi-opaque, fibrous connective tissue that cushions the joints and prevents wear on the joint surfaces

question

Synovial membrane

answer

secretes synovial fluid which provides nourishment, lubrication, and hydrotastic cushioning for the joint

question

Bursae

answer

liquid-filled membranes that protect soft tissues as they pass by bony projections

question

Ligament

answer

band of fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone and provides joint stability.

question

Tendon

answer

dense, fibrous connective tissue that forms the end of a muscle and attaches muscle to bone

question

Fascia

answer

fibrous connective tissue that forms sheaths for individual muscles.

question

Circuit Weight Training

answer

resistance exercises performed one after the other without rest for approximately 20 minutes

question

Muscular Strength

answer

maximum force a muscle or muscle group can generate at one time

question

Muscle Endurance

answer

capacity to sustain repeated muscle actions, as in push-ups or sit ups, or sustain fixed, static muscle actions for an extended period of time

question

Muscle Power

answer

explosive aspect of strength, is the product of strength and speed of movement

question

Muscle Stability

answer

ability of a muscle or muscle group to stabilize a joint and maintain its position without movement. (to perform a sustained isometric contraction)

question

Muscle hypertrophy

answer

an increase in the muscle fiber size, specifically an increased cross-sectional area resulting from increased myofibrilis

question

Overload Principle

answer

increasing the intensity (resistance), frequency, or duration of the training above the levels normally expected

question

Specificity

answer

specific adaptions in the metabolic and neuromuscular systems depending on the type of program or exercises that are performed

question

Volume

answer

total number of repetitions performed multiplied by the total amount of weight, or resistance, used during a single training session. (Reps x Weight = Volume)

question

Progressive resistance exercise

answer

resistance must be gradually, progressively increased as the muscles adapt to a given exercise

question

Periodization

answer

variations in the training program over the course of several months or a year, that help to improve performance and prevent injury, staleness, and burnout

question

Plateau

answer

a point where further increases in strength become difficult and progress seems to stop

question

Single-Set System

answer

basic system ( one set 8-12 reps for each muscle group) that is widely recommended and used for beginners and those interested in an effective, time efficient workout

question

Multiple-Set system

answer

consists of 3 to 6 sets of an exercise, usually the same weight load throughout

question

Super-Set System

answer

any combination of 2 different exercises immediately following one another without a rest

question

Tri-Set System

answer

3 different exercises immediately following one another

question

Dynamic Constant Resistance

answer

external resistance or weight that does not vary through the range of motion

question

Dynamic Variable Resistance

answer

attempts to match the external resistance to the exerciser's strength curve. Strength varies throughout the range of motion of each muscle

question

Isokinetic Resistance

answer

maintains constant muscle tension at a steady speed or velocity

question

Balance

answer

ability to maintain a position without moving for a certain period of time, and can also be defined as a state of bodily equilibrium

question

Isometric Resistance Training

answer

involves contracting a muscle in a held position, usually against a wall, weight machine, or against another part of the body

question

Core Exercise

answer

any exercise that is multi-joint and recruits one or more large muscle groups or areas with the synergistic help of one or more smaller muscle groups

question

Core Training

answer

refers to the center of the body. Incorporates stabilization exercises for muscles of the spine, neck, pelvis, and scapulae

question

Plyometric Training

answer

involves using the stretch reflex to increase muscle fiber recruitment. (squat jumps, tuck jumps, medicine ball passes)

question

Scapulae

answer

shoulder blades

question

Patella

answer

kneecap

question

Acute Muscle Soreness

answer

occurs during and immediately after exercise and is due to the accumulation of lactate, decreased oxygen, and tissue swelling within the muscle

question

Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS)

answer

A temporary muscle soreness and stiffness that occur 24 to 48 hours after performing unaccustomed eccentric muscle contractions and last for three to four days.

question

Alignment Cue

answer

clearly state which joints are moving and which are still

question

Safety Cue

answer

lets client know about a potential injury risk and how it can be minimized

question

Breathing Cue

answer

remind your clients to breathe

question

Visual Cue

answer

demonstrating a move

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Motivational Cue

answer

motivational cues such as "You can do it!" and "Great Job!"

question

Wrong/Right Cue

answer

help kinesthetically feel when they are in alignment and using proper form. Showing the correct and incorrect way of doing something.

question

Flexibility

answer

range of motion possible around a joint, or around a series of joints

question

Ballistic Stretching

answer

characterized by bouncing, pulsing, rapid, or uncontrolled-type movements

question

Static Stretching

answer

low-intensity, long-duration muscle elongation; ideally in a supported position that allows the muscle fibers to relax

question

Active (unassisted) Stretching

answer

static or ballistic, performed alone, using the concentric contraction of the opposing muscles

question

Passive (assisted) Stretching

answer

stretch is initiated by another person or outside force and the person being stretched is passive

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Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation

answer

flexibility technique that promotes or hastens the neuromuscular response through stimulation of the proprioceptors

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Ligament Laxity

answer

results from being born with ligaments that have a higher degree of elastic properties. "double jointed"

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Acute Injury

answer

sudden onset due to a specific trauma, such as twisting the ankle

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Chronic Injury

answer

excessive, repeated stress is placed on one area of the body over an extended period of time, the affected tissues may begin to fail

question

Muscle sTrain

answer

overstretching, overexertion, or overuse of soft tissue, less severe than a sprain. May occur from a slight trauma or unaccustomed repeated trauma

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Sprain

answer

usually caused by a severe s tress, stretch or tear of the soft tissues such as ligaments or joint capsules

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Subluxation

answer

an incomplete or partial dislocation that often involves secondary trauma to the surrounding tissue

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Dislocation

answer

displacement of a bony part of a joint that leads to soft tissue damage, inflammation, pain, and muscle spasm

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Muscle/Tendon Rupture or Tear

answer

with a partial tear, pain is felt when the muscle is stretched or contracted against resistance. With a complete tear, muscle is incapable of working

question

Tendinitis

answer

inflammation of a tendon leading to scarring or calcium deposits

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Synovitis

answer

inflammation of a synovial membrane; an excessive amount of synovial fluid

question

Bursitis

answer

inflammation of a bursa

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Contusion

answer

bruising from a direct blow, resulting in capillary rupture, bleeding, and inflammation

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Adhesions

answer

abnormal adherance of collagen fibers to surrounding tissues during immobilization or after an injury, resulting in a loss of normal elasticity

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RICE

answer

Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

question

Agonist

answer

Prime mover, or the contracting muscle that is responsible for the movement that you see

question

Antagonist

answer

Muscle that works (opposite) to the prime mover and reflexively elongates to allow the agonist to contract and move the joint

question

Body Composition

answer

refers to the percentage of weight that is fat and is based on the assumption that body weight can be divided into various components

question

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

answer

caused by mechanical compression, which results in reduced blood flow to the median nerve

question

Metacarpals

answer

Hand bones. 5 bones numbered from 1-5, medial to lateral

question

Carotid Artery

answer

located at the larnyx of neck, used for measuring heart rate

question

Distal

answer

further from the trunk, situated farthest from point of attachment or origin, as of a limb or bone

question

Eccentric Training

answer

Also called negative resistance training, is a muscular action in which the muscle lengthens in a controlled manner.

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Concentric Training

answer

exerting more force than is placed on it, results in shortening of muscle

question

Glenohumeral

answer

shoulder - structure: synovial; ball and socket function:diarthrotic ROM:multiaxial flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, rotation

question

Slow Twitch Fibers

answer

slow to fatigue and have a high level of aerobic endurance, used for long-term, low to moderate intensity activities ranging from maintaining proper posture to long-distance running

question

Fast Twitch Fibers

answer

poor aerobic endurance, short-duration, high-intense activities and fatigue quickly

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Proprioceptors

answer

sense the degree of tension and the length of the muscle

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Flexion

answer

joint angle diminishing, most movements are forward movements

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Extension

answer

return from flexion, movement that increases the angle between 2 bones

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Rotation

answer

movement around an axis or pivot point

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Circumduction

answer

movement in which an extremity describes a circle (360 degrees)

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Horizontal Plane (transverse)

answer

divides the body into upper and lower portions. Rotation occurs within the horizontal plane

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Frontal Plane (coronal)

answer

divides the body into front and back. Abduction and Adduction occur within the frontal plane

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Sagittal Plane (medial)

answer

divides the body into right and left portions. Flexion and extension occur within the sagittal plane

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Joint

answer

a point at which 2 or more bones meet and where movement occurs

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Cervical Spine

answer

the first seven vertebrae, or the neck

question

Thoracic Spine

answer

12 vertebrae, where the ribs attach

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Lumbar Spine

answer

5 vertebrae, lower back

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Sacral Spine

answer

fused to form the sacrum

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Sacrum

answer

bone formed from five vertebrae fused together near the base of the spinal column

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Coccygeal Spine

answer

4 vertebrae, fused to form the tailbone

question

Iliopsoas

answer

hip flexors

question

Hamstrings

answer

Biceps Femoris, Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus

question

Quadriceps

answer

consists of 4 muscles: vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vestus intermedius, rectus femoris

question

Talocrural Joint

answer

hinge, synovial,distal tibia, fibular form mortise for trochlea of talus, primary motions are dorsiflexion and plantarflexion,

question

Subtalar Joint

answer

Ankle eversion and Ankle inversion

question

Ankle Dorsiflexion

answer

bring top of the foot toward the shin

question

Ankle Plantar Flexion

answer

bring soles of the foot downward (pointing toes)

question

Ankle Eversion

answer

Pronation. Arch flattens

question

Ankle Inversion

answer

Supination, Arch lifts

question

Isokinetic

answer

muscle actions performed on special equipment in which speed is controlled

question

First Class Lever

answer

fulcrum is in between the applied force and resistance. example = see-saw

question

Second Class Lever

answer

fulcrum or axis is at the end of the lever, resistance is in the middle, applied force at the opposite end. example = wheelbarrow

question

Third Class Lever

answer

axis as one end, applied force in the middle and resistance at the opposite end. example = using a hammer to drive a nail into a piece of wood

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Radial Artery

answer

artery of the lower arm. It is felt when taking the pulse at the wrist.

question

Prehypertension

answer

systolic = 120-1389 mmHG diastolic = 80-89 mmHg

question

Hypertension

answer

a common disorder in which blood pressure remains abnormally high (a reading of 140/90 mm Hg or greater)

question

Optimal Blood Pressure

answer

systolic <120 diastolic<80

question

Systolic pressure

answer

amount of pressure or force exerted against the arterial walls immediately after the heart has contracted

question

Diastolic pressure

answer

amount of pressure still remaining against the arterial walls as the heart relaxes before the next contraction

question

Triceps

answer

opposing muscles of the biceps

question

Anterior and Medial Deltoids

answer

opposing muscles of the posterior deltoid, mid-trapezius and rhomboids

question

Abdominals

answer

opposing muscles of the erector spinae

question

Erector Spinae

answer

extends the back, provides resistance and helps us bend over at the waist

question

Hip Abductors

answer

works the muscles on the outer part of the upper thigh muscles, A muscle that draws a body part away from the midline or axis of the body.

question

Hip Adductors

answer

Works the muscles on the inside of the thigh (groin muscles)., Inward toward the median axis of the body or of an extremity.

question

ITB syndrome

answer

an overuse injury, typically caused by a tight iliotibial band. The band is aggravated by excessive or abnormal rotational movements of the femur and tibia by walking or running

question

Femur

answer

the longest and thickest bone, upper leg bone

question

Tibia

answer

Shin bone. On medial side of the leg. Bears most of the weight

question

Adenosine Triphosphate

answer

molecule found in every cell of the body that is composed of adenosine, ribose, and 3 phosphate groups. It is the form in which food energy is stored in your cells

question

Phosphagen System

answer

supplies energy very quickly and is the primary source of energy for very high-intensity exercise

question

Anaerobic Glycolytic System

answer

Glucose is used for fuel and is either blood glucose or muscle glycogen, broken down in to pyruvic acid, when there is insufficient oxygen it then is transformed into lactic acid

question

Aerobic Energy System

answer

virtually unlimited capacity for making ATP, uses carbs, fat, protein for fuel. Slow to produce ATP

question

Anaerobic Threshold

answer

when work becomes so intense, muscle cells cannot supply the additional energy and rely more on the anaerobic system to produce ATP. At this level, lactic acid begins to accumulate

question

Skeletal Muscle

answer

A muscle that is attached to the bones of the skeleton and provides the force that moves the bones.

question

Smooth Muscle

answer

a muscle that contracts without conscious control and found in walls of internal organs such as stomach and intestine and bladder and blood vessels (excluding the heart)

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Cardiac Muscle

answer

forms the walls of the heart

question

Sensory Neurons

answer

bring messages back to the brain and spinal cord from the muscles, skin and other areas of the body

question

Motor Neurons

answer

send messages from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles causing a neuromuscular response

question

Appendicular Skeleton

answer

forms the extremities and is composed of the shoulder girdle, arm bones, pelvic girdle, and leg bones, , the portion of the skeleton that attaches to the axial skeleton and has the limbs attached to it

question

Supination

answer

hands upward

question

Pronation

answer

hands downward

question

Tennis Elbow

answer

painful inflammation of the tendon at the outer border of the elbow resulting from overuse of lower arm muscles (as in twisting of the hand)

question

Golfer's Elbow

answer

Inflammation and pain of the flexor and pronator muscles of the forearm where their tendons originate on the medial epicondyle of the humerus; Epicondylitis

question

Rheumatoid Arthritis

answer

a chronic autoimmune disease with inflammation of the joints and marked deformities

question

Fibromyalgia

answer

widespread pain in joints, muscles, ligaments, heightened pain at "Tender" points

question

Osteopenia

answer

premature bone thining, with a bone density of 1-2.5 standard deviation units below average

question

Preipheral Artery Disease

answer

condition of atherosclerosis in the extremities, primarly affecting the calves.

question

Parkinson's Disease

answer

disorder of the nervous system, specifically of the basal ganglia, a mass nerve of cells in the brain that is responsible for motor functions

question

Simple Carbohydrates

answer

sugars, fruits and vegetables, lactose from milk, cane or beet sugar

question

Complex Carbohydrates

answer

carrots, broccoli, corn, potatoes, bread, cereal, pasta, rice and beans

question

Glycemic Index

answer

carbohydrate ranking developed to help define which carbohydrate foods may or may not contribute to the insulin surge and eventual resistance problem

question

Fiber

answer

primarily indigestible type of carbohydrate found in fresh fruits, vegetables and grains

question

Soluble fiber

answer

fruits, vegetables, seeds, brown rice, barley and oats. Appears to lower blood cholesterol levels and retard the entry of glucose into the bloodstream

question

Insoluble fiber

answer

includes cellulose, found in whole grains, outside of seeds, fruits, legumes. Promotes more efficient elimination may play a role in colon cancer prevention

question

Complete Protein

answer

animal or fish based foods that supply essential amino acids

question

Incomplete Protein

answer

lacks one or more of the essential amino acids. Generally from plants, fruits, grains, vegetables

question

Triglycerides

answer

main type of fat found in the diet and in adipose tissue. Desirable serum levels are under 150 mg/dl

question

Saturated Fats

answer

primarily from animal sources, butter, whole milk dairy products, meat.

question

Monounsaturated Fat

answer

shown to reduce LDL cholesterol without affecting the beneficial HDL cholesterol. Good sources = canola oil, peanut oil, avocado oil

question

Polyunsaturated Fat

answer

divided into omega-6 vegetable oils and omega-3 fish oils.

question

HDL cholesterol

answer

"good" blood cholesterol, helps remove plaque from the arterial walls, returning it to the liver. 60 mg/dl or more

question

LDL cholesterol

answer

"bad" blood cholesterol, delivers plaque to the arterial walls. < 100 mg/dl

question

Vitamins

answer

non-caloric, organic compounds that the human body cannot produce on it's own

question

Phytonutrients

answer

neither vitamins or minerals. They are substances that plants manufacture to protect themselves from viruses, bacteria, fungi, insects and drought.

question

Nutrition Density

answer

concept of eating foods that are very nutritious relative to the number of calories

question

Low Nutrition Density

answer

high in fat, sugar, refined carbohydrates, alcohol

question

High Nutrition Density

answer

papaya, peppers, wheat bran, bell peppers, greens, skim milk

question

Glycemic Load

answer

calculated by multiplying the grams of carbohydrates by the glycemic index

question

Carbohydrate Loading

answer

pre-event practice used by endurance athletes to maximally load their muscles with stored glycogen

question

Hitting the Wall

answer

having an inadequate supply of glycogen (Carbs) for muscular work. Makes for excessive fatigue and a desire to quit

question

Bonking

answer

inadequate supply of glucose to the brain, leading to light-headedness, lack of coordination and weakness

question

Anorexia Nervosa

answer

an eating disorder in which a normal-weight person (usually an adolescent female) diets and becomes significantly (15 percent or more) underweight, yet, still feeling fat, continues to starve.

question

Bulimia Nervosa

answer

an eating disorder characterized by episodes of overeating, usually of high-calorie foods, followed by vomiting, laxative use, fasting, or excessive exercise

question

Female Athlete Triad

answer

amenorrhea, osteoporosis, and eating disorders; when left untreated they damage the musculoskeletal and reproductive systems

question

Adipose Tissue

answer

a kind of body tissue containing stored fat that serves as a source of energy

question

Resting Metabolic Rate

answer

accounts for 60-75% of daily expenditure and is higher in individuals with a high percentage of lean body mass

question

Lean Body Mass

answer

structural and functional elements in cells, body water, muscle, bones, and other organs (anything that is not fat)

question

Self-Efficacy

answer

inner confidence that a person has that he or she will be able to accomplish a task

question

Approach Goals

answer

yield more positive results because positive outcomes are emphasised often yielding happy moments

question

Avoidance Goals

answer

may result in anxiety, depression, and less enjoyment, even if the goal is achieved

question

Resting Heart Rate

answer

Obtained first thing in the morning when you are completely relaxed but conscious, before getting out of bed

question

Resting Blood Pressure

answer

What test may require that it can only be taken by licensed health care providers?

question

biceps

answer

opposing muscles of the triceps

question

triceps

answer

opposing muscles of the biceps

question

anterior medial deltoids

answer

opposing muscles of the latissimus dorsi

question

latissmus dorsi

answer

opposing muscles of the anterior medial deltoids

question

pectoralis major

answer

opposing muscles of the posterior deltoid, mid-trapezius, and rhomboids

question

abdominals

answer

opposing muscles of the erector spinae

question

quadriceps

answer

opposing muscles of the hamstrings

question

hip abductors

answer

opposing msucles of the hip adductors

question

answer

How many risk factors are associated with the ACSM Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease Risk Factors?

question

Age

answer

1. Men >45 Women >55

question

Family History

answer

2.Myocardial Infarction, Sudden death before 55 of father, 65 of mother

question

Cigarette Smoking

answer

3. Current smoker, or quit 6 months prior

question

Sedentary Lifestyle

answer

4. not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity 3 x a week

question

Prediabetes

answer

fasting plasma glucose >100 mg

question

Health Risk Factor

answer

any factor that increases the chance that an individual will develop a disease or condition

question

Medical History Form

answer

helps identify individuals at risk for cardiovascular, pulmonary, metabolic, musculoskeletal or other potential problems

question

answer

How many components are associated with a Fitness Assessment?

question

advantages of max tests

answer

large amount of information gathered, actual measurement of a person's ability at a high level

question

disadvantages of max tests

answer

needs special, expensive equipment, riskier due to potential abnormal heart waves

question

submaximal exercise test

answer

assess the client's functional aerobic fitness, show improvement of that level over time, help develop an appropriate level of exercise intensity

question

advantages of submax tests

answer

less expensive, less risky, less specialized equipment is required, testing personnel does not have to be as highly trained or qualified

question

disadvantages of subxmax tests

answer

less information is obtained, only estimated and not actually achieved

question

Wellness

answer

Behaviors that minimize diseases and disabilities

question

in identifying risk factors

answer

One professional role of a personal fitness trainer is to assist clients:

question

Exercise

answer

What is the term that is defined by incorporating skill-related, health-related, and physiologic components?

question

use visualization

answer

In wellness, a physical method used to break the stress/tension cycle is to:

question

45-65%

answer

What percent of your diet per day should be carbohydrates?

question

answer

How many servings of fruits and vegetables per day?

question

answer

How many servings of whole grains should you eat per day?

question

3 components of energy expenditure

answer

Resting Metabolic Rate, Energy expended with exertion, the thermic effect of food

question

Fiber

answer

What is the primary indigestible type of carbohydrate found in fresh fruits, vegetables and grains?

question

larger

answer

In general, the ______ muscles are worked first

question

slow twitch

answer

Which muscle fiber type is predominantly used during endurance events? (marathons)

question

transverse abdominals

answer

What primary muscle has no actual joint action?

question

leg press

answer

What is one example of a closed kinetic chain exercise?

question

closed kinetic chain

answer

feet stationary but able to move upper body. Touching a nonmovable surface-distal end stationary proximal end moves

question

open kinetic chain

answer

When the distal end of an extremity is not fixed to any surface, allowing any one joint in the extremity to move or function separately without necessitating movement of other joints in the extremity.

question

Diabetes mellitus

answer

a condition of abnormal use of glucose usually caused by too little insulin or lack of response to insulin

question

Recovery Heart Rate

answer

the heart rate of an individual 3 to 5 minutes after a workout. Should be around 100 beats per minute. If any higher, then more conditioning is needed. Body is not recovering fast enough., the gradual return of the heart rate to resting levels within 5-10 minutes of a session of normal cardiovascular physical activity or exercise

question

Target Heart Rate

answer

the approximate heart rate a person needs to maintain during aerobic exercise in order to benefit from the workout; target heart rate for teens: 145-170

question

perpendicular

answer

Personal trainers should make sure that the caliper is ______ to the skinfold

question

shoulder girdle

answer

The trapezius moves the:

question

Lateral Rotation

answer

rotate outward, away from the midline (Supination)

question

Medial Rotation

answer

rotates inward, towards the middle of the body (Pronation)

question

Rate of perceived exertion

answer

subjective measure of intensity level of an activity using a numerical scale

question

Heart Rate Reserve

answer

The difference between maximum heart rate and resting heart rate

question

Maximum Heart Rate

answer

The heart's maximum working capacity. To find maximum heart rate = subtract age from 220 Examples: 220 - 14 = 206

question

aorta

answer

Oxygenated blood flows from the heart through the:

question

atrium

answer

each of the two upper chambers of the heart that receives blood that comes into the heart

question

ventricle

answer

Each of the two lower chambers of the heart that pumps blood out of the heart

question

COPD

answer

airway resistance increases making it difficult to breathe

question

Piriformis syndrome

answer

Excessive use of the gluteal muscles in some athletes (e.g., ice skaters, cyclists, rock climbers) can lead to hypertrophy or spasm of the piriformis muscle, which can compress the sciatic nerve. In individuals with a proximal split of the sciatic nerve (~12%), the common fibular nerve can become compressed as it passes through piriformis.

question

answer

How many calories are in 1 gram of fat?

question

answer

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?

question

answer

How many calories are in 1 gram of carbohydrate?

question

calculate protein needs

answer

1. body weight x .45 =body weight in kg 2. body weight kg x .8

question

answer

Protein is digested into how many amino acids?

question

pre-contemplation

answer

people in this stage are not even thinking about a new behavior pattern. Unmotivated, resistant and engage in avoidance tactics

question

contemplation

answer

during this stage individuals are seriously considering change but still are not ready to initiate new behaviors

question

preparation

answer

individuals in this stage are preparing to change. May call a health club, buy an exercise video

question

action

answer

people are actively changing their behavior in this stage.

question

maintenance

answer

this is the stage that sustains long-term ongoing consciousness of the new behavior and successful integration of it into the lifestyle

question

transtheorectical model

answer

5 stages in the change process, precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

question

barriers to exercise

answer

lack of access to exercise, expense of exercise, depression and lethargy, multiple health problems, fear of injury, history of sedentary lifestyle

question

SMART

answer

Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Realistic/relevant, Timed

question

6 dimensions of wellness

answer

Emotional, Social, Intellectual, Spiritual, Physical, Occupational

question

aerobic system

answer

Which energy system uses glucose, fat and protein for fuel?

question

Motor unit

answer

A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it controls

question

Golgi tendon organ

answer

proprioceptor protects the muscle from excessive shortening or lengthening

question

rotator cuff muscles

answer

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

question

muscle spindle

answer

Lie parallel to the muscle fibers; detect changes in muscle length and speed

question

sit and reach test

answer

trunk flexion test primarily measures the flexibility of the hamstring and erector spinae muscles, as well as the calf and upper back muscles

question

excessive lordosis

answer

Swayback or increase in secondary curvature

question

excessive kyphosis

answer

Hunchback or increase in primary curvature

question

scoliosis

answer

abnormal lateral curvature of the spine (S-shaped curve)

question

3-4 months

answer

How often is it recommended to reassess fitness?

question

Karvonen formula

answer

aka max heart rate reserve method; training HR = max HR - resting HR X target intensity (40/50-85%) + resting HR

question

Pre-exhaustion

answer

exercises that isolate large muscles first, prior to exercises that work both large and small muscles simultaneously

question

sliding filament theory

answer

widely accepted theory of muscle shortening during contraction, thick & thin filaments slide past one another

question

overtraining symptoms

answer

decline in physical performance, elevated blood pressure, muscle tenderness and joint soreness, loss of muscle strength, loss of motivation to exercise

question

meniscus tears

answer

cartilage tears caused by traumatic blows ot the knees, and by bending and straightening the knee to far

question

shin splints

answer

pain in the shin due to repetitive impac loading activities

question

teres major

answer

Medially rotates and adducts the arm

question

phosphagen system

answer

If the activity can be sustained for no more than 15-20 seconds then the _____ is the primary source of energy

question

anaerobic glycolytic system

answer

This system provides much of the energy for sustained, high-intensity things such as:soccer, field hockey, ice hockey, lacrosse, basketball, volleyball, tennis

question

muscular fitness

answer

term used to describe the relationship between Muscular Strength & Muscular Endurance

question

muscular flexibility

answer

the achievable range of motion at a joint or group of joints without causing injury

question

bodybuilding

answer

judged according to muscle hypertrophy, definition, and symmetry.

question

power lifting

answer

compete in 3 lifts: bench press, squat, dead lift

question

olympic lifting

answer

compete in the clean and jerk

STUDY

Advanced Pathophysiology Anatomy Conduction System Of The Heart

PSY 241 Intro to Health Psychology Chapter 10 – Flashcards 64 terms

Killian Parsons

64 terms

Preview

PSY 241 Intro to Health Psychology Chapter 10 – Flashcards

question

Cardiovascular Disease (CVD)

answer

Disorders of the heart and blood vessel system, including stroke (peripheral) and coronary heart disease

question

Coronary Heart Disease (CHD)

answer

#1 killer A chronic disease in which the arteries that supply the heart become narrowed or clogged

question

Atherosclerosis

answer

Chronic disease in which cholesterol and other fats are deposited to inner walls of the coronary arteries, reducing circulation to the heart

question

Atherogenesis

answer

Atheromatous plaques form in arteries inner lining (caused from inflammation: walls of arteries are inflamed cause damage to the cell walls which result in heart attack)

question

Arteriosclerosis

answer

"Hardening of the arteries," chronic disease in which blood vessels lose their elasticity -Contributes toward hypertension and high blood pressure

question

Angina pectoris

answer

A condition of extreme chest pain caused by a restriction of the blood supply to the heart (risk factor of heart attack; pain caused by less oxygenated blood being released to the heart)

question

Myocardial infarction

answer

A heart attack; the permanent death of heart tissue in response to an interruption of blood supply

question

Stroke

answer

A cerebrovascular accident that results in damage to the brain due to lack of oxygen (Depending upon how much damage there is, stroke victims can typically get some functioning back)

question

Ischemia

answer

blockage in blood vessels to the brain due to blood clot, cholesterol deposits

question

Hemorrhage

answer

bursting of blood vessels (massive amount of blood goes to brain which can cause brain cells to die) (Brain swelling against skull can cause damage)

question

Electrocardiogram (EKG)

answer

A measure of the electrical discharges that emanate from the heart Includes stress test and echocardiogram

question

Stress test

answer

checks to see if there's any irregularities while heart is pumping

question

Echocardiogram

answer

Uses sound waves of heart beating against the chest which gives off echo of the heart ("Picture of the heart" -Reveals tissue damage, blood clots, problems with valves -Determines whether there is aneurism)

question

Coronary angiography

answer

Diagnostic test in which dye is injected so that x-rays can reveal any obstructions in the coronary arteries (Dye gives image as to whether there is blockage in arteries and extent of blockage Definitive way to diagnose athlersclerosis)

question

Cardiac medications

answer

Beta-blockers calcium-channel blockers vasodilators anticoagulants (prevent forming of blood clots) thrombolytic agents (medication that detects blood clots and quickly dissolves it)

question

Coronary artery bypass graft

answer

Form of surgery in which a small piece of healthy vein is grafted around a blocked coronary artery (if blockage is bad enough, bypass surgery must be done) *Use to be only way blockage of arteries is treated *Blocked artery cut from blood supply to become dead, then graft healthy vein over artery for blood to flow through healthy vein

question

Coronary angioplasty

answer

Surgery in which an inflatable catheter is used to open a blocked coronary artery (catheter inflates to open up artery, then is entered in to keep artery open)

question

Framingham's Risk Factors for Cardiovascular Disease

answer

(See slideshow and notes)

question

Framingham Heart Study

answer

(began 1948) -Study where we first learned about cholesterol, risk factors, etc. -Landmark prospective study of demographic, biological and psychological risk factors in CVD

question

Uncontrollable risk factors

answer

*Identified from Framingham Heart Study Age (older you get, higher risk of cardiovascular disease) gender family history (strongly predicts cardiovascular disease) race/ethnicity

question

Controllable risk factors

answer

*Identified from Framingham Heart Study Hypertension, body, weight, diet, smoking (Things we can change/ do something about)

question

Gender differences in CVD

answer

May be due to sex hormones

question

Testosterone

answer

-Linked with aggressiveness, competitiveness and other behaviors that may contribute to CVD -Levels peak during early adulthood, just when gender difference immortality peaks

question

Estrogen

answer

-Helps elevate "good cholesterol" (HDL) -Helps clean out arteries

question

Mortality Rates for CVD and Breast Cancer

answer

(See slideshow and notes) -Women are more likely to die from cardiovascular disease than breast cancer -Most common killer in women, yet not #1

question

Gender differences in CVD recovery

answer

-Women are twice as likely as men to die following a heart attack -Women with CVD tend to be older than men with CVD (10-15 years after with chronic conditions) -CVD tends to be diagnosed earlier in men than in women (underrepresentation of women in clinical trials) -Men receive more aggressive diagnostic and treatment procedures

question

Race and ethnicity

answer

(See slideshow and next notecards for details)

question

Who are at increased risk of CVD?

answer

Compared with white Americans, African-Americans are at increased risk of CVD -African American women are less likely to be diagnosed for more aggressive treatment/diagnosis

question

Who are at lower risk of CVD?

answer

Asian and Latin-Americans are at lower risk of CVD -Some reasons involve healthier food choices, exercise by walking around, more physical jobs, low stress levels due to strong family routes and support

question

Do socioeconomic factors effect CVD?

answer

People of low SES tend to have more total CVD risk factors, including high-fat diets, lack of exercise, smoking, lack of access to health care and stressful life experience -Financial difficulties can cause higher rates of divorce

question

Chicago Heart Association Detection Project

answer

Men with the healthiest lifestyles had a life expectancy 9 years longer than other men in their age group

question

Hypertension

answer

A sustained elevation of diastolic and systolic blood pressure (140/90) -Over a period of time

question

Primary (essential) hypertension

answer

Exact cause is unknown (most causes of hypertension are not really known)

question

Causes of hypertension

answer

-No single cause, but rather the interaction of biological, psychological and social factors -Obesity, lack of exercise, dietary salt and excessive stress can produce hypertension in biologically predisposed people -Also related to anxiety and anger, especially in middle-aged men -Prevalence varies widely among racial and ethnic groups (more in African-American men compared with European American men) *Excessive/chronic stress can lead to higher risk of hypertension *Biological predisposition for higher risk of hypertension *Biological + behavior factors = much higher risk

question

Cardiovascular Reactivity

answer

An individual's characteristic reaction to stress, including changes in heart rate, blood pressure and hormones *Looking at how strong of stress response person has *Some people have stronger reaction towards stress due to nervous system

question

Obesity

answer

-Abdominal obesity promotes the greatest risk of CVD -This explains why men have greater risk of CVD *Most of weight centered in abdomen for men (hips for women) *Lower levels of HDL; higher triglyceride levels *Thicker, narrow artery walls (blood has hard time getting through blood vessels)

question

Risk factor of cholesterol levels

answer

Depends on how high or how low cholesterol levels are

question

Total cholesterol level of 240 or greater

answer

Doubles the risk of CVD

question

Total cholesterol level below 200

answer

Lowers the risk of CVD

question

High total cholesterol and low HDL levels

answer

Promotes the greatest risk (HDL below 40 mg/dL is considered a risk factor)

question

The French Paradox

answer

Regular consumption of flavonoids in red wine and other foods may offer some protection against an otherwise unhealthy diet *The French eat the most fatty foods, exercise less (less aerobic exercise and gyms) and smoke the most, yet have low cardiovascular disease *French might have lower risk due to lower portions of food, walking and biking used as transportation in cities, etc.)

question

Flavonoids

answer

Lower bad LDL cholesterol and raise good HDL cholesterol levels *Found in red wine (Yet for women, 1-2 cups of alcohol a day puts at risk of alcohol abuse and breast cancer *Found in a lot of other foods (Vegetables in rich color such as carrots, parsley, broccoli etc., citrus fruits, berries, green tea and dark chocolate)

question

Metabolic syndrome

answer

Three or more of following: higher risk of heart disease -Large waist circumference -Elevated serum triglyceride -Low HDL cholesterol -Elevated blood pressure -Glucose intolerance (insulin resistance; insulin decreases glucose levels, unless insulin cannot bind to receptors)

question

Psychosocial Factors in CVD

answer

Involve Type A and Type B

question

Type A people

answer

(Friedman & Rosenman's term) Competitive, hurried hostile people who may be at increased risk for developing CVD

question

Type B people

answer

More relaxed people who are not pressured by time considerations and thus tend to be resistant to coronary disease

question

Type A people have:

answer

-More rapid blood clotting (risk for stroke and heart attack) -Higher cholesterol and triglyceride levels under stress -Greater autonomic arousal, elevated heart rate and higher blood pressure in the face of challenging events -"Combat ready" hyper reactivity (ready to respond in strong, vigilant, quick to react fight or flight response) *Anxiety and depression are also associated with Type A and CVD (more likely to be anxious and depressed)

question

Carver & Glass Study (1978)

answer

Type A students more likely to retaliate (instigation condition than Type B students) -Study involved paired up college students with another "student" (confederate part of study) -Worked on problem solving task -Instigation group (Type A): confederate would antagonize participant -Non-instigation group (Type B): participant and confederate would work together -Next assignment: computer task (if confederate got something wrong then would get shock from participant; participant got to choose shock level)

question

Hostility and heart attacks

answer

(PLEASE SEE GRAPH FROM SLIDESHOW AND NOTES FOR DETAILS)

question

Hostility

answer

-Negative attitude -Often long-lasting *Involves cynical (don't expect good things of people, pessimistic)

question

Anger

answer

-Negative emotion -Accompanied by physiological arousal (sympathetic nervous system; fight or flight response) -Usually shorter in duration *People who get ________ all the time

question

Expression of anger-hostility

answer

Positively correlated to severity of coronary artery blockage *Those with higher anger and hostility have more sever atherosclerosis

question

Atherosclerosis Risk in Communities (ARIC) Study

answer

-Massive study of 13,000 middle-aged men and women -People who scored highest on an anger scale were three times more likely to have a heart attack than those with the lowest score

question

Suppressed anger and expressed anger

answer

Suppressed anger may be as hazardous as expressed anger (Pennebaker)

question

Depression

answer

-Strongly implicated risk factor in CVD and metabolic syndrome; rivals regular expose to secondhand smoke -Not simply an aftereffect of CVD diagnosis; rather, an independent risk factor with likely genetic and environmental causes -Remains underdiagnosed and often untreated in many people with CVD *Prediction of cardiovascular disease *Those diagnosed are prior to heart disease (4x more likely to have a heart attack) *Less likely to take care of themselves *Very undiagnosed, most people not treated for it

question

C-reactive protein

answer

Found in great amounts of people depressed (show inflammation in blood vessels)

question

Psychosocial Vulnerability Hypothesis

answer

Hostile adults lead more stressful lives and have low levels of social support, which, over time, have a toxic effect on cardiovascular health *Face more interpersonal conflicts, problems with work and at home, etc.

question

Health Behavior Explanation

answer

Hostility has an indirect effect through its relationship to other CVD risk factors, including obesity, hypertension, alcohol and tobacco use *More likely not to eat healthy and exercise

question

Psychophysiological Reactivity Model

answer

Hostility and anger act slowly to damage the arteries and heart through unhealthy increases in blood pressure, blood levels of free fatty acids, and outpourings of epinephrine, cortisol and other stress hormones

question

The Biopsychosocial Model

answer

-CVD is triggered by physiological vulnerability in conjunction with a variety of psychosocial factors in the person's life -Stress from work and home environments -Availability of social support -Cognitive-emotional states such as hostility and anger

question

Reducing the risk of CVD

answer

-Controlling hypertension by lowering sodium intake, reducing excess body weight and exercising regularly -Reducing cholesterol by limiting intake of animal fats and hydrogenated oils -Combination of stress management, aerobic exercise, relaxation training, smoking cessation and low fat diet (e.g. the Ornish program) may reverse the development of CVD (yet, can be intensive) *Research tries to find ways for people to change their health lifestyles

question

After CVD: Preventing Recurrence

answer

Stress management following a cardiovascular episode may lower rates of mortality and morbidity

question

Controlling Hostility and Anger

answer

-Hostile people are more likely to encounter stress and less likely to have stress-busting resources such as social support -Interventions focus on identifying triggers of anger, developing strategies for coping with aggravation and helping participants challenge cynical attitudes and modify unrealistic beliefs and expectations *Anger comes into play once cardiac condition comes into effect. (Anger management is then needed) *If you expect too much from other people, you get angry *Obtaining attitudes that things should be done your own way. Yet, the only control we have is on ourselves, not on other people.

question

Cynical attitudes

answer

Contributes toward hostility "People are out to get you, not to help you" can contribute towards anger

STUDY

Anatomy Human Anatomy And Physiology 1 Right And Left Ventricles

EKG Technician Study Guide – Flashcards 29 terms

Gabriela Compton

29 terms

Preview

EKG Technician Study Guide – Flashcards

question

Mediastenum

answer

The heart is a hollow muscular organ located in the thoracic cavity between the lungs in a space called_

question

Base

answer

Located at the level of the second intercostal

question

Apex

answer

Located at the level of the 5th intercostal and mid-clavicular line on the left

question

Endocardium

answer

the innermost layer of the heart

question

Myocardium

answer

the middle and contractile layer of the heart

question

Heart Skeleton

answer

made up of four rings of thick connective tissue

question

Pericardium

answer

the outermost layer of the heart

question

Septum

answer

A structure in the middle of the heart

question

Four chambers of the heart

answer

Left and Right Atrium and Left and Right Ventricle

question

The right side

answer

pumps deoxygenated blood

question

The left side

answer

pumps oxygenated blood

question

Right atrium

answer

receives deoxygenated blood via the superior and inferior vena cava

question

Right Ventricle

answer

receives deoxygenated blood from right atrium which pumps to the lungs

question

Pulmonary arteries

answer

the ONLY arteries in the body to carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart

question

Left atrium

answer

received oxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the right and left pulmonary veins

question

Pulmonary veins

answer

only veins in body that carry oxygenated blood towards the heart

question

Left ventricle

answer

receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body through the aorta

question

Atrioventricular valves (AV)

answer

located between the atria and ventricles

question

Tricuspid valve

answer

located between right atrium and right ventricle has 3 cusps

question

Bicuspid Mitral valve

answer

located between the left atrium and left ventricle has 2 cusps

question

Semilunar valves

answer

are half moon shaped

question

Pulmonic valve

answer

located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

question

Aortic valve

answer

located between the left ventricle and aorta

question

Cardiac Cycle

answer

systole-contractions diastole-relaxation

question

Heart sounds

answer

S1 (LUBB)-contraction and the closure of AV valves S2 (DUBB)-relaxation when the SL valves close

question

Murmurs

answer

caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities

question

Heart Rate

answer

Is the number of heart contractions per minute 60-100 BPM

question

Heart as a Pump

answer

the blood volume ejected outside the hearts is equal to the blood volume returning back into the heart

question

Cardiac Output

answer

the amount of blood ejected outside the heart per minute

STUDY

Anatomy Introductory Sociology Marriage Sociology

Sociology chapter 7 and beyond – Flashcards 137 terms

Kate Moore

137 terms

Preview

Sociology chapter 7 and beyond – Flashcards

question

There are ____ phases in the adult female development:

answer

three

question

The whole phase of early adulthood is also known as the novice phase.

answer

question

The age 30 transition can be a difficult period because

answer

all of the above

question

In the study conducted by Daniel Levinson, midlife transition was a period of moderate to severe crisis.

answer

question

Phase III of female development reveals that

answer

both a and b

question

The greatest stresses of adulthood are during the

answer

early adult transition, entering the adult world, the age 30 transition, the settling down period, and the midlife transition.

question

The first stage of the middle adulthood era, called the midlife transition, serves as the bridge between early and middle adulthood.

answer

question

The settling down period, the first stage of early adulthood, is called "making it" in the adult world.

answer

question

Which group holds slightly more than half of the professional jobs in the United States?

answer

women

question

Changes in the American labor force since 1970 reveal all of the following EXCEPT

answer

over one half of the labor force has a college degree.

question

Control over job responsibilities has a positive correlation to job satisfaction.

answer

question

Which of the following has not been a major change in the workforce within the last century?

answer

greater emphasis on farming and manufacturing jobs

question

In today's labor force, workers are waiting longer to retire.

answer

question

Today, it is typical to change professions how many times in a lifetime?

answer

5-6

question

A vast majority of workers today have a college degree.

answer

question

Job satisfaction

answer

varies according to income and age.

question

Among the topics studied by gerontologists for the young-old, ages 65-74, adjustment to retirement is one of the most important developmental issues.

answer

question

Alzheimer's disease is not a progressive deterioration of the brain cells.

answer

question

Research indicates all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

people who were happy or fulfilled in their work rarely find retirement satisfying.

question

Retirees adjust better to their new situation if they remain linked to the larger social world to which they belong.

answer

question

Researchers now believe that most elderly people

answer

retain their intellectual abilities throughout life.

question

ages 65 - 74

answer

young-old

question

ages 40-59

answer

MIDDLE ADULTHOOD

question

age 75 - 84

answer

middle-old

question

common American jobs held

answer

The most commonly held jobs are managerial and professional specialty jobs and more men hold these type of jobs than females.

question

The interactionist perspective looks at how the interaction between individuals influence deviance.

answer

question

The suspension of moral beliefs to commit deviant acts is a

answer

technique of neutralization

question

____ explains deviance as a learned behavior.

answer

Cultural transmission theory

question

Conflict theorist believe that

answer

both a and b

question

The concepts of culturally approved goals and the legitimate means of achieving these goals was devised by

answer

Robert K. Merton.

question

Differential association refers to the frequency and closeness of associations a person has with deviant and nondeviant individuals.

answer

question

Behavior that violates significant social norms is called

answer

deviant

question

People who use innovation do not accept the cultural goals of their society but do accept the approved means for achieving these goals.

answer

question

It is suggested that deviance has the following uses in social life:

answer

all of the above

question

The interactionist perspective focuses on

answer

all above

question

People with power commit deviant acts to obtain economic rewards.

answer

question

Like strain theory, control theory explains deviance as a natural occurrence.

answer

question

Innovation, ritualism, retreatism, and rebellion employ deviant behavior.

answer

question

In a ____, a person is assigned a status at birth and remains at that level throughout life.

answer

caste system

question

The division of society into categories, ranks, or classes is called

answer

social stratification

question

American society is based on the caste system.

answer

question

Workers who sell their labor in exchange for wages.

answer

proletariat

question

In a class system, the distribution of scarce resources and rewards is determined on the basis of achieved status.

answer

question

The subjective method is used to define social class by income, occupation, and education.

answer

question

Social classes in the United States are usually divided into three classes—upper class, middle class, and lower class.

answer

question

____ individuals can attend prestigious schools and their families have usually been wealthy for generations.

answer

upper class

question

nursing and sales are professions associated with this social class

answer

lower middle

question

social class that is comprised of migrant farm workers

answer

working poor

question

Intergenerational mobility is the status difference between generations in different families.

answer

question

The reputational method is always the best method for determining social class.

answer

question

Underclass families have experienced unemployment and poverty over several generations.

answer

question

Individuals that are primarily high-income business people and professionals are

answer

upper middle

question

social class that relies on public assistance

answer

underclass

question

Conflict theorists see competition over scarce resources as

answer

the cause of social inequality.

question

Advances in technology can cause workers with outdated skills to experience _____.

answer

Downward social mobility

question

Which of the following is not considered to be an ethnic group?

answer

Mongoloid

question

Collective discrimination is

answer

a negative bias against an entire group.

question

Racial stratification is almost extinct, thanks to reform attempts.

answer

question

There are no biologically pure races.

answer

question

Scapegoating—placing the blame for one's troubles on an innocent individual or group—is a sociological explanation of discrimination and prejudice.

answer

question

Segregation based on informal norms is ______.

answer

de facto

question

Segregation based on laws is called _____

answer

de jure

question

A group is considered incapable of understanding technical training, and thus is denied technical training. This group is then unable to gain employment in technical fields. Taking this lack of employment in technical fields as evidence of the group's inability to understand technical information is a self-fulfilling prophecy.

answer

question

African Americans, Asian Americans, Hispanics, and American Indians have all faced the same levels of discrimination and prejudice.

answer

question

A form of discrimination that is upheld by the law is called _____.

answer

legal

question

The apartheid system in South Africa was an example of legal discrimination.

answer

question

All of the following are sources of prejudice and discrimination EXCEPT:

answer

subjugation

question

Competition for jobs produced physical violence and discrimination

answer

Asian Americans

question

During the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, immigrants from predominantly Catholic countries faced open discrimination at the hands of the American-born white Protestant majority.

answer

question

Face many challenges, including suicide and alcohol-related deaths.

answer

American Indians

question

Immigrants in the 1900s were mainly from

answer

Southern and Eastern Europe.

question

Denial of equal treatment to individuals based on their group membership.

answer

discrimination

question

The belief that one's own race or ethnic group is superior to other races or ethnic groups.

answer

racism

question

South Africa practiced subjugation.

answer

question

The confinement of Japanese Americans to relocation camps during World War II is an example of

answer

population transfer

question

How do children learn gender role behaviors?

answer

through socialization

question

The family is the most powerful agent of gender socialization.

answer

question

One result of the second shift is that

answer

women, on average, have less leisure time than men.

question

Women make up 52 percent of the voting-age population.

answer

question

A new development in the political arena is that more women are holding statewide positions, which has increased from four percent in years past to twenty-nine percent.

answer

question

Which of the following is NOT a result of the women's rights movement?

answer

the Civil Rights Act of 1964

question

In 1972 the Equal Rights Amendment was formed and was ratified by 38 states.

answer

question

Which of the following is a cause of the challenges to Social Security?

answer

longer life expectancies

question

Where would you be more likely to find proper health care?

answer

wealthy urban area

question

According to the article, "President Bush Proposes Health Savings Accounts," about 46 million of the U.S. population are uninsured.

answer

question

In just two decades, AIDS has become one of the most serious public health problems in the United States and worldwide.

answer

question

In the year 2000, it was reported that health care costs exceeded

answer

1.3 trillion

question

The behavioral and psychological traits considered appropriate for men and women.

answer

gender

question

How many people in the United States are affected with disabilities?

answer

53 mil

question

The elderly in the United States have become

answer

a political force

question

In theory, there are three possible patterns of authority in families.

answer

question

Which of the following describes a family where the mother and the father share authority?

answer

egalitarian

question

When a woman is permitted to marry more than one man at a time.

answer

polyandry

question

Family consisting of an individual, his or her spouse, and their children.

answer

family of procreation

question

Kinship traced through the mother's family is called

answer

matrilineal descent

question

The family form most recognizable to Americans.

answer

nuclear family

question

What do most sociologist argue is the most-devastating family disruption?

answer

family violence

question

Today in the United States it is not at all uncommon for a woman to have her first child at what age?

answer

question

More than half of American schools report at least one serious, violent incident per year.

answer

question

The educational issues facing the United States in the early 2000s include

answer

educational reform

question

The assignment of students to different types of educational programs is considered

answer

tracking

question

The following groups are more likely to participate regularly in religious services:

answer

African Americans, women, and older citizens

question

The "opium of the people" idea refers to the theory that religion encourages people to accept their social conditions because rewards await them in the afterlife.

answer

question

Belief systems can be organized into three basic types

answer

animism, theism, ethicalism.

question

The following is not a goal included in the Goals 2000: Educate America Act:

answer

the number of high-school graduates will rise to 80 percent or more

question

Under this program, parents may receive a voucher equal to the amount their state spends on education for their child.

answer

school choice

question

A new religion whose beliefs and practices differ from those of the society?s major religions.

answer

cult

question

Judaism, Christianity, and Islam are examples of

answer

monotheistic

question

The four factors that contributed to the rebirth of science are the decline of the Roman empire, the influence of the Catholic church, the Protestant Reformation, and the invention of the printing press.

answer

question

Science emerged as a recognizable system of study in 800s B.C.

answer

question

The central ideal of industrialization was maintaining "status quo."

answer

question

What is the sociology of science?

answer

The sociological investigation of how scientific knowledge develops.

question

The Age of Enlightenment supported

answer

reason over religious beliefs.

question

What is the Matthew effect?

answer

A tendency for honors and recognition to go to those scientists who have already achieved recognition

question

A paradigm, as described by Thomas S. Kuhn,

answer

determines the topics of scientific inquiry and shapes the interpretations of data.

question

Respected individuals in the community who review and evaluate media messages and then pass the information to friends and acquaintances are called

answer

opinion leaders

question

The belief that all scientific knowledge should be made available to everyone in the scientific community.

answer

communalism

question

Idea that scientific research should be judged solely on the basis of quality.

answer

universalism

question

Fertility is

answer

the actual number of births occurring to women of childbearing age.

question

The biological capability to bear children.

answer

fecundity

question

The demographic transition theory helps explain

answer

how population change is related to the technological development of a society.

question

Model that describes cities as growing in wedge-shaped sectors outward from the center to the edge of the city.

answer

sector model

question

Model that describes a city as developing around several centers of activity.

answer

multiple nuclei model

question

The subcultural theory explains the nature of city life.

answer

question

According to urban anomie theory the impersonal nature of city life extends to situations that do not call for social involvement.

answer

question

During the 1920s and 1930s, sociologists interested in urban life developed an approach to the study of cities called ⇒ urban ecology.

answer

urban ecology

question

In many of the less developed nations, the rapid growth of cities has led to ⇒ over urbanization.

answer

over urbanization

question

English economist Thomas R. Malthus predicted that there would not be any problems resulting from population growth.

answer

question

The contagion theory describes how

answer

emotions encourage people toward collective action.

question

Equilibrium theory appeals to some sociologists because it explains

answer

how societies are able to change yet maintain order.

question

Class conflict has not resulted in revolution in most modern industrial societies.

answer

question

According to Karl Marx, social change results from the efforts of

answer

the powerless to gain power.

question

Pitirim Sorokin's belief that societies have a natural tendency toward social change is called

answer

PRINCIPLE of imminent change

question

Culture in which truth and knowledge are sought through faith or religion.

answer

ideational

question

⇒ Social change is the result of the natural tendency for societies to pass through stages of development.

answer

question

Modern theories of social change suggest that all societies follow similar patterns of development.

answer

question

Cyclical theories of social change gain popularity during periods of extreme social turmoil.

answer

STUDY

Anatomy Calculus Cancer Coding Medical/Clerical Assisting Urinary System

CPT Coding Module 9 for final – Flashcards 19 terms

Anna Collins

19 terms

Preview

CPT Coding Module 9 for final – Flashcards

question

A cystourethroscope is passed through the urethra to the bladder to view the urinary collecting system.

answer

True

question

A common abbreviation for a transurethral electrosurgery of the prostate is TURP.

answer

False

question

The insertion and removal of a temporary stent during diagnostic or therapeutic cystourethroscopic interventions is included in 52320-52355 and not reported separately.

answer

True

question

When urodynamics are performed and the physician only interprets the results, the correct modifier would be:

answer

-26

question

To report the cystourethroscopic removal of a self-retaining indwelling ureteral stent, the correct codes would be 52310 or 52315. What modifier would be applied?

answer

-58

question

An instillation procedure of the bladder is performed for treatment of:

answer

Bladder Cancer

question

The type of treatment used to treat prostate cancer by placing the radioactive elements directly into the prostate.

answer

brachytherapy

question

When lithotripsy is performed, the patient may be surrounded by:

answer

liquid

question

What do the letters in UPP stand for?

answer

urethral pressure profile

question

Within the Male Genital System, the greatest numbers of codes fall under what category?

answer

penis

question

The term that describes the study of the motion and flow of urine is:

answer

urodynamics

question

Endoscopic procedures within the Urinary subsection, Kidney subheading, are often divided based on this unique factor:

answer

existence of a stoma

question

Urethral dilatation codes are often divided based on this factor:

answer

initial or subsequent

question

Test to measure kidney and ureter flow and pressure

answer

Manometric study

question

Removal of a kidney

answer

Nephrectomy

question

Removal of urine from the bladder

answer

Bladder aspiration

question

Removal of the prostate

answer

Prostatectomy

question

Area located behind the abdominal cavity

answer

Retroperitoneal

question

Kidney stone

answer

Calculus

STUDY

Anatomy Urinary System

Urinary System study guide – Flashcards 137 terms

Cara Robinson

137 terms

Preview

Urinary System study guide – Flashcards

question

What does the urinary (excretory) system consist of?

answer

2 kidneys, 2 ureters, bladder, and urethra

question

What is the function of the kidney?

answer

removing waste from blood, maintain fluid and electrolyte balance, and secreting substances that affect blood pressure and other body functions.

question

How much urine do the kidneys secrete in one day?

answer

1-2 L

question

Urine is expelled through the ___ system.

answer

Excretory system

question

What is the urinary system also known as?

answer

Excretory system

question

Suprarenal glands are also called ___?

answer

Adrenal glands

question

What significance do adrenal glands have in relationship to the urinary system?

answer

None other than anatomical position

question

What do the adrenal glands consist of?

answer

Medullary portion and cortical portion

question

What 2 things do the adrenal glands secrete?

answer

epinephrine and cortical hormones.

question

What part of the adrenal gland secretes epinephrine?

answer

medulla

question

What part of the adrenal gland secretes the cortical hormone?

answer

cortex

question

Which border of the kidney is concave? Convex?

answer

medial is concave, lateral is convex

question

The kidneys are arbitrarily divided into an upper and lower portion called what?

answer

upper and lower poles

question

About how long, wide, and thick are the kidneys?

answer

4.5" long, 2-3" wide, 1.25" thick

question

Which kidney left or right is slightly longer and narrower than the right?

answer

Left

question

Where are the kidneys located in relation to the peritoneum?

answer

posterior (it's in the retroperitoneal cavity)

question

At what vertebral level do the kidneys lie?

answer

T12-L3

question

At what angle do the kidneys lie in relation to the aorta?

answer

Each kidney lies in an oblique plane 30* anterior towards the aorta

question

In What body habitus do the kidneys sit higher?

answer

hypersthenic

question

Which kidney sits higher right or left?

answer

left because of the position of the liver

question

What is the outer covering of the kidney called?

answer

renal capsule

question

The kidneys have a respiratory movement of approximately how much?

answer

question

How much do the kidneys move when going from the supine to upright position?

answer

question

The medial side of the kidney has a slit for transmission of blood and lymphatic vessels, nerves, and ureters, what is it called?

answer

Hilum

question

The hilum extends into the body to form a central cavity called what?

answer

Renal sinus

question

What is the outer and inner portion of the kidney called?

answer

medulla is the inner portion and the cortex is the outer portion

question

What does the renal medulla mainly consists of segments called what?

answer

renal pyramids

question

An average sized medulla will consist of how many renal pyramids?

answer

8-15

question

What are the pyramids made of?

answer

Collecting tubules

question

Extensions of the renal pyramids are called what?

answer

Renal columns

question

The functional unit of the kidney is what?

answer

Nephrons

question

The essential microscopic components of the parenchyma of the kidney are called ___?

answer

Nephrons

question

About how many nephrons are there in one kidney?

answer

1 million

question

The individual nephron is composed of what two things?

answer

Renal corpuscle and a renal tubule

question

The renal corpuscle consists of a double- walled serous membrane cup called ___?

answer

Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus

question

The glomerular capsule is also known as what?

answer

Bowman's capsule

question

What is the cluster of capillaries called that occupies Bowman's capsule?

answer

Glomerulus

question

Which arteriole (afferent/efferent) enters the glomerular capsule, and which one exits it?

answer

Afferent enters, efferent exits

question

The glomerulus serves as a filter for ___, permitting only water and finely dissolved substances to pass?

answer

Blood

question

What is the tube called as it leaves the glomerular capsule?

answer

Convoluted tubule

question

The ___ are cup shaped stems arising at the sides of the papilla of each renal pyramid.

answer

Calyces

question

The ___ unite to form the major calyx.

answer

Minor calyx

question

The ___ unite to form the renal pelvis.

answer

Major calyx

question

How long are ureters?

answer

10-12"

question

Where are the ureters located?

answer

Behind the peritoneum

question

Where do the ureters attach to the bladder?

answer

The posterolateral side of the bladder (approx the level of ischial spine)

question

What transports urine from the kidney to the bladder?

answer

Ureters

question

The ___ is a musculomembranous sac that serves as a reservoir for urine.

answer

Urinary bladder

question

The bladder is located posterior/anterior in both males and females.

answer

question

What is the most fixed part of the bladder?

answer

Neck

question

How much urine can the adult bladder hold?

answer

500 mL

question

When does the desire to urinate (micturition) occur?

answer

250 mL

question

Where is the internal urethral orifice located in the bladder?

answer

The neck

question

What is the triangular area between the ureteral and urethral openings called?

answer

Trigone

question

What are the folds in the bladder called when the bladder is empty?

answer

Rugae

question

What is the tube called that conveys urine out of the body?

answer

Urethra

question

How long is the urethra in men?

answer

7-8"

question

How long is the urethra in women?

answer

1.5"

question

The male urethra is divided into what 3 sections?

answer

Prostatic, membranous, and spongy

question

What is the gland called that surrounds the proximal part of the male urethra?

answer

Prostate

question

What system does the prostate technically belong to?

answer

Reproductive

question

About how long is the prostate?

answer

About 1 inch

question

What does the prostate secrete?

answer

A milky fluid that combines with semen

question

What is Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?

answer

Enlargement of the prostate

question

What is a calculus?

answer

Abnormal concretion of mineraled salt, often a stone

question

What is a Duplicating Collecting system?

answer

2 renal pelvi and/or ureters at the lower poles

question

What is a horseshoe kidney?

answer

Fusion of the 2 kidneys, usually at the lower poles

question

What is a pelvic kidney?

answer

Kidney that fails to ascend and remains in the pelvis

question

What is cystitis?

answer

Inflammation of the bladder

question

What is a fistula?

answer

Abnormal connection between 2 internal organs or between an organ and the body surface

question

What is glomerulonephritis?

answer

Inflammation of the capillary loops in the glomeruli of the kidney

question

What is hypernephrosis?

answer

Distension of the renal pelvis and calyces with urine

question

What is a polycystic kidney?

answer

Massive enlargement of the kidney with the formation of many cysts

question

What is pyelonephritis?

answer

Inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis

question

What is renal hypertension?

answer

increased blood pressure to the kidneys

question

What is renal obstruction?

answer

Condition preventing the normal flow of urine through the urinary system

question

What is a Wilm' tumor?

answer

Most common childhood abdominal neoplasm affecting the kidney

question

What is an ureterocele?

answer

ballooning of the lower end of the ureter into the bladder

question

What is vesicoureteral reflux?

answer

Backward flow of urine from the bladder into the ureters

question

What does BPH stand for?

answer

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

question

What position will demonstrate the mobility of the kidneys?

answer

AP upright

question

How would you demonstrate the collecting system (calyces, pelves, ureters, bladder, and urethra)?

answer

Canals must be filled with contrast

question

What procedure is used to investigate the blood vessels of the kidneys and suprarenal glands?

answer

angiography

question

What is the radiologic investigation of the collecting system is called what?

answer

urography

question

What are the 2 techniques used for filled the uninary canals with contrast medium?

answer

antegrade and retrograde

question

Which filling technique allows the contrast to enter the kidney in the normal direction of blood flow?

answer

Antegrade

question

What is percutaneous antegrade urography?

answer

introducing contrast medium directly into the kidney through percutaneous puncture.

question

What is the technique called when the contrast agent is administered through an IV?

answer

Intravenous urography (IVU) or excretory.

question

When would you use IVU?

answer

Upper urinary tract in infants and children and it is the preferred method for adults unless the retrograde technique is definitely indicated

question

What does the term pyelography refer to?

answer

Radiographic demonstration of the renal pelves and calyces.

question

True or False: IVP and IVU are the same things?

answer

True but IVU is more accurate

question

Which technique uses a technique where the contrast in introduced directly into the ureter by means of catheterization?

answer

retrograde

question

Investigations of the lower urinary tract- bladder, lower ureters, and urethra- are usually made by which technique?

answer

retrograde

question

What is another term for bladder exam?

answer

cystrography

question

What is another term for an exam of the bladder and urethra?

answer

cystourethrography

question

What contrast medium is used for a cystogram?

answer

iodinated salts of 30% concentration or less

question

Name the characteristic adverse reactions to iodinated contrast.

answer

warm, flush, sometimes hives.

question

Name all adverse reactions that could occur from iodinated contrast but are rare.

answer

nausea, vomiting, and edema of respiratory mucous membrane.

question

Most reactions to contrast media occur within the first _ minutes.

answer

5 minutes

question

What is the one thing that usually interferes with exams of the urinary tract?

answer

gas

question

What did Hope and Campoy recommend giving to small children and infants to distend the stomach with gas?

answer

carbonated soft drinks

question

What is accomplished by giving small children and infants carbonated drinks?

answer

intestinal loops are pushed inferiorly and the upper urinary tract especially the left side is clearly seen through the gas filled stomach

question

What position would resolve the problem of obscuring gas in majority of patients?

answer

prone

question

What is the patient prep for exams of the urinary tract?

answer

low residue diet for 1-2 days to prevent gas formation, light evening meal night before exam, non-gas forming laxative evening before, NPO after midnight with the exception of water for patients with multiple myeloma, high uric acid levels, and diabetes.

question

What additional patient prep of necessary for patients scheduled for retrograde urography?

answer

drink a large amount of water (4-5 cups) several hours before

question

What is the patient prep for the lower urinary tract?

answer

none

question

In excretory urography (IVU) where is the compression band applied?

answer

over the distal ends of the ureters centered at ASIS

question

How much pressure is applied with a compression band?

answer

as much as the patient can handle.

question

When is a compression band contraindicated?

answer

urinary stones, abdominal mass or aneurysm, a colostomy, a suprapubic catheter, or a traumatic injury.

question

What is the respiration phase for all radiographs taken of the urinary system?

answer

suspend on respiration.

question

What is another name for a preliminary radiograph taken before contrast is introduced?

answer

scout

question

What position is the patient in when taking a scout of the kidneys?

answer

AP recumbent

question

Can you shield women for urinary exams?

answer

no, unless you are specifically looking at the kidneys then you can shield the pelvis

question

The most common contraindications for IVU relate to what?

answer

1) the ability of the kidneys to filter contrast medium from blood, and 2) the patients allergic history

question

What are some examples of contraindications of IVU?

answer

asthma, previous reaction, cardiovascular disease, elevated creatinine level, sickle cell disease, diabetes mellitus, or multiple myeloma.

question

What is a normal creatinine level?

answer

0.60- 1.5 mg/100mL

question

How long does it take contrast to appear in the pelvicaliceal cavity?

answer

2-8 minutes

question

The initial contrast "blush" of the kidney is termed the what?

answer

nephrogram phase

question

How long does it take to have the greatest concentration of contrast media appear in the kidney?

answer

15-20 minutes after injection

question

What are the most commonly recommended position and time intervals for an IVU?

answer

AP @ 3-20 minute time intervals

question

How is excess contrast filtered from the body after the exam?

answer

filtered from blood by the kidney and eventually excreted in the urine

question

For the AP Projection of the urinary system, how is the patient positioned?

answer

supine for scout and then upright or semi-upright to demonstrate opacified bladder and he mobility of the kidneys

question

What position would you place the patient in when trying to obtain an AP projection of the lower ureters?

answer

Trendelenburg 15-20*

question

When using the Trendelenburg method to demonstrate the lower ureters, how is the CR angled?

answer

Perpendicular @ level of crest

question

Where/How is the CR directed for the AP projection of the urinary system?

answer

Perp to IR @ crest

question

What 3 structures should be shown on the AP view? And if not all 3 are on there what projection should you take?

answer

Kidneys, ureters, and bladder. If not all 3 are on there you may need to do a bladder shot

question

Why might you need to place the patient in the prone position rather than supine for an AP projection?

answer

Ureters fill better in the prone position. So, if the patient is suspected to have an obstructed ureter in the presence of hyrdonephritis prone would be better.

question

What positions do you place the patient in for an AP oblique radiography of the urinary tract?

answer

RPO or LPO

question

How much do you rotate the patient for a radiograph of the urinary tract?

answer

30*

question

When performing an AP oblique which kidney will be perpendicular to the IR and which will be parallel?

answer

Closer kidney will be perp and kidney farther (elevated side) will be parallel

question

Where should the IR be centered for an AP oblique of the urinary system?

answer

MSP @ level of crest

question

Where should the CR be directed for an AP oblique of the urinary system?

answer

Perp @ level of crest entering 2" lateral to midline on elevated side

question

What plane is centered to the grid for the lateral projection of the urinary system?

answer

MCP

question

Where is the CR directed for the lateral proj of the urinary system?

answer

Perp to IR @ level of crest entering MCP

question

What scale of contrast should a lateral projection of the urinary system have?

answer

Short scale- a distinct difference b/w contrast media and anatomy

question

What is another name for renal parenchyma?

answer

the nephrons and collecting tubes

question

Why do we use nephrotomography?

answer

to evaluate renal hypertension

STUDY

Anatomy Medical Terminology Medical/Clerical Assisting

Medical Terminology Chapter 5 Chapter Review – Flashcards 90 terms

Ember Wagner

90 terms

Preview

Medical Terminology Chapter 5 Chapter Review – Flashcards

question

The study of the heart is called

answer

Cardiology

question

The three layers of the heart are

answer

Endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium

question

The impulse for the heartbeat (the pacemaker) originates in the

answer

sinoatrial node

question

Arteries carry blood ________ the heart

answer

away from

question

The four heart valves are

answer

tricuspid, pulmonary, mitral or bicuspid, and aortic

question

The ___ are the receiving chambers of the heart and the _____ are the pumping chambers

answer

atria and ventricles

question

The ____ circulation carries blood to and from the lungs.

answer

pulmonary

question

The pointed tip of the heart is called the

answer

apex

question

The ___ divides the heart into left and right halves.

answer

septum

question

_____ is the contraction phase of the heartbeat and _____ is the relaxation phase.

answer

Systole, diastole

question

pertaining to the heart

answer

cardiac

question

disease of the heart muscle

answer

cardiomyopathy

question

enlargement of the heart

answer

cardiomegaly

question

abnormally fast heart rate

answer

tachycardia

question

abnormally slow heart rate

answer

bradycardia

question

record of heart electricity

answer

electrocardiogram

question

vessel narrowing

answer

angiostenosis

question

vessel inflammation

answer

angiitis

question

involuntary muscle contraction of a vessel

answer

angiospasm

question

pertaining to an artery

answer

arterial

question

hardening of an artery

answer

arteriosclerosis

question

small artery

answer

arteriole

question

inflammation of the inner lining of the heart

answer

endocarditis

question

inflammation of the outer layer of the heart

answer

epicarditis

question

inflammation of the muscle of the heart

answer

myocarditis

question

cardio/o

answer

heart

question

valvul/o or valv/o

answer

valve

question

steth/o

answer

chest

question

arteri/o

answer

artery

question

phleb/o

answer

vein

question

angi/o

answer

vessel

question

ventricul/o

answer

ventricle

question

thromb/o

answer

clot

question

atri/o

answer

atrium

question

ather/o

answer

fatty substance

question

pertaining to a vein

answer

venous

question

study of the heart

answer

cardiology

question

record of a vein

answer

venogram

question

process of recording electrical activity of the heart

answer

electrocardiography

question

high blood pressure

answer

hypertension

question

low blood pressure

answer

hypotension

question

surgical repair of a valve

answer

valvoplasty or valvuloplasty (either is acceptable)

question

pertaining to between ventricles

answer

interventricular

question

removal of fatty substance

answer

atherectomy

question

narrowing of the arteries

answer

arteriostenosis

question

pressure

answer

- tension

question

abnormal narrowing

answer

-stenosis

question

instrument to measure pressure

answer

-manometer

question

small

answer

-ule or -ole

question

hardening

answer

-sclerosis

question

arrthymia

answer

irregular heartbeat

question

thrombus

answer

clot in blood vessel

question

bradycardia

answer

slow heart rate

question

murmur

answer

an abnormal heart sound

question

phlebitis

answer

inflammation of vein

question

hypotension

answer

low blood pressure

question

varicose vein

answer

swollen, distended veins

question

tetralogy of Fallot

answer

serious congenital abnomaly

question

catheterization

answer

insertion of thin tubing

question

sphygmomanometer

answer

blood pressure cuff

question

answer

blood pressure

question

CHF

answer

congestive heart failure

question

answer

myocardial infarction

question

CCU

answer

coronary care unit

question

PVC

answer

premature ventricular contractions

question

CPR

answer

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

question

CAD

answer

coronary artery disease

question

answer

chest pain

question

EKG

answer

electrocardiogram

question

answer

first heart sound

question

mitral valve prolapse

answer

MVP

question

ventricular septal defect

answer

VSD

question

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

answer

PTCA

question

ventricular fibrillation

answer

Vfib

question

deep vein thrombosis

answer

DVT

question

lactate dehydrogenase

answer

LDH

question

coarctation of the aorta

answer

CoA

question

tissue-type plasminogen activator

answer

tPA

question

cardiovascular

answer

question

extracorporeal circulation

answer

ECC

question

cardiac enzymes

answer

blood test that indicates heart muscle damage

question

Doppler ultrasound

answer

measures velocity of blood moving through the blood vessels

question

Holter monitor

answer

portable EKG monitor

question

cardiac scan

answer

visualizes heart after patient is given radioactive thallium

question

stress testing

answer

uses treadmill to evaluate cardiac fitness

question

echocardiography

answer

uses ultrasound to visualize heart beating

question

extracorporeal circulation

answer

use of a heart-lung machine

question

ligation and stripping

answer

removes varicose veins

question

thrombolytic therapy

answer

clot-dissolving drugs

question

PTAC

answer

ballon angioplasty

STUDY

Anatomy

Anatomy and Physiology II: Study Guide Questions – Exam 1 – Flashcards 42 terms

Chloe Barnes

42 terms

Preview

Anatomy and Physiology II: Study Guide Questions – Exam 1 – Flashcards

question

What are the distinguishing features of the endocrine system?

answer

- Ductless - Slow to Act - Long Distance Signalling - Long Lasting Effects

question

what are the primary Endocrine organs?

answer

- Pituitary Gland - Thyroid Gland - Parathyroid Gland - Adrenal Glands - Pineal Gland - Hypothalamus

question

What hormones do the Anterior and Posterior Pituitary Glands secrete/produce? What is the basic function of each hormone.

answer

Anterior Pituitary Hormones - Growth Hormone (GH) - Increased cellular division (growth). - Thyroid (Thyrotropin) Stimulating Hormone (TSH) - Stimulates the Thyroid to produce Thyroid Hormones (T4 and T3). - Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - increased production and release of corticosteroids and cortisol from the adrenal cortex. - Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) - In Females FSH stimulates the growth and recruitment of immature ovarian follicles in the ovary. In males FSH stimulates primary spermatocytes to undergo the first division of meiosis, to form secondary spermatocytes. - Lutenizing Hormone (LH) - In females it triggers ovulation, in males it stimulates the production of Testosterone. - Prolactin - (PRL) - Stimulates mammary milk production in response to stimulation of the nipples of hormones during pregnancy. - Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) - Stimulate the production and release of melanin. Posterior Pituitary Hormones - Oxytocin - Produced by the hypothalamus and than stored in the pituitary - stimulates smooth muscle contractions of the uterus in response to uterine stretching. - Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) - Produced by the hypothalamus and than stored in posterior pituitary - secretion stimulates the kidneys to take up extra water via the kidney tubels in response to decreased blood volume

question

What hormones are associated with the Thyroid Gland? What are the basic functions of each.

answer

- Thyroxine (T4) - Important component of cellular metabolism - inactive form of T3. - Triiodothyronine (T3) - Important component of cellular metabolism - active form of T4. - Calcitonin - Lowers blood calcium levels in response to increasing calcium levels in the blood - does so by stimulating osteoblasts.

question

What hormones are associated with the Parathyroid gland? What are the basic functions of each.

answer

- Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) - Increases blood levels of calcium in response to falling calcium levels - it does so by promoting intestinal calcium absorption, inhibiting urinary secretion, and by stimulating osteoclasts.

question

What hormones are associated with the Adrenal glands? What are the basic functions of each.

answer

- Epinephrine - Short term "Fight or Flight" hormone produced in response to stress. - Norephinephrine - Short term "Fight or Flight" hormone produced in response to stress. - Mineralocorticoids - Long term stress response - regulate electrolyte concentrations in the blood to help control blood pressure and volume. - Glucocorticoids - Influence metabolism and glucose mobilization; causes glucoegenesis and vascocontrictive actions aimed at rapidly distributing glucose to cells. - Gonodocorticoids -Sexual Developement.

question

What hormones are associated with the Pineal Gland? What are the basic functions of each.

answer

- Melatonin - secreted in response to low light levels - acts on the brain stem and aids in sleep regulation.

question

The Hypothalamus has been deemed the "CEO" of the endocrine system - explain this, and described the two classes of hormones produced by it.

answer

Because it controls the entire endocrine system by way of the pituitary gland. Releasing Hormones Inhibiting Hormones

question

What is a negative feedback loop? Give two examples.

answer

A system where production of the end product shuts off the initial production stimulus. Examples: Hypothalamus detects low circulating thyroid hormones -> Releases TRH (Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone) -> Pituitary Gland responds to TRH and secrects TSH (Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone) -> Thyroid Releases Thyroid Hormone -> Increased levels of thyroid hormone shut off the Hypothalamus' release of TRH. Blood Glucose Rises -> Pancreases detects elevated levels and releases insulin -> Cells receive signal and re-uptake glucose -> Insulin levels drop and insulin production ceases

question

Name the phases in a hormone's life cycle - provide a brief description of each phase.

answer

1. Synthesis - The hormone is synthesised by the originating endocrine organ. 2. Secretion and Storage - The hormone is held within a specialized compartment of its original synthesising organ or is shuttled to another organ for storage - it is than released when the right trigger appears. 3. Transport To Target Cell - Hormone travels via the blood stream until it reaches the appropriate receptor on the intended target cell(s). 4. Recognition By Associated Receptor - The Hormone is recognised by the appropriate receptor on the cell surface or in the cytoplasm and binds to it. 5. Relay and Amplification - Binding produces intracellular cascades that perform the work the hormone dictates must occur. 6. Degradation and Secretion - The hormone is degraded and secreted by the liver or kidneys when it's role is finished.

question

What are the two functional classes of hormones? How do they vary? How are their effects different at the cellular level?

answer

Steroid - Cholesterol based - lipid soluble - interact with intracellular receptors within cytoplasm - non-polar Amino Acid Based - Water Soluble (except thyroid hormone which is Amino Acid based by acts like a steroid) - bind to external cell receptors Lipid-Soluble Hormones - Diffuses through the cell membrane and binds to intracellular receptor; steroid-receptor complex than migrates to nucleus; Complex binds to specific section of DNA (hormone response element); Binding initiates transcription; Transcribed mRNA is translated into protein. Water-soluble Hormones - PIP2- Calcium Signalling pathway: Hormone binds to receptor activating G protein; G protein activates phospholipase C; Phospholipase C cleaves PIP2 into IP3 and DAG; IP3 releases intracellular calcium; DAG activates protein kinases Cyclic AMP (cAMP) pathway: Hormone binds to receptor; receptor changes shape binding to inactive G protein; G protein is activated as GDP displaced by GTP; Activated G protein binds to adenylate cyclase; Activated adenylate cyclase generates cAMP; cAMP diffuses through the cell and activates protein kinases

question

What are the three kinds of hormone responses?

answer

Humoral - Endocrine organ secretes a hormone in response to changing levels of a particular nutrient or ion Neural - Nerve fibers stimulate an endocrine organ to release a hormone Hormone - Endocrine organ releases a hormone in response to another hormone being released.

question

What are the three kinds of hormone interactions? Provide one example for each.

answer

Synergism - Both hormone have identical effects and work to amplify each other - Example: Growth Hormone and Gonadal Hormones Antagonism - One hormone opposes the action of another - Example: Glucagon vs Insulin Permissiveness - One hormone needs the presence of another to function optimally - Example: Thyroid hormone increases the number of epinephrine receptors

question

Name at least three organs which are not primarily endocrine which secrete endocrine hormones.

answer

Pancreases - Insulin and Glucagon Heart - ANP Kidneys - Erythroprotein (Erythrocyte production)

question

What are the two types of carbohydrates? What are the two forms of fiber they provide? How do they differ? How is Glucose used?

answer

Complex Carbs (Starches) - Gains and Vegtables Simple Carbs (Sugars) - Fruits, Sugarcane, Sugar Beets, Honey, and Milk. Sources of Fiber - Insoluble - Cellulose in vegtables; not digestible but adds roughage Souble - Pectin in apples and citrus fruits; reduces blood cholesterol levels; digestible Broken Down into Glucose - heavily used by Neurons and Erythrocytes which use it almost exclusively.

question

What are the two types of lipids? What are the functions of adipose tissue, prostaglandins, and cholesterol in relation to lipids? What are the essential uses of the body.

answer

Saturated - meat diary foods and tropical oils - no double hydrogen bond on tails Unsaturated - Seeds, nuts, olives, and most vegetable oils - has at least one double bond Functions: Adipose tissue - protective cushions around organs; insulating body layer beneath skin; concentrated source of energy Prostaglandins - smooth muscle contractions; control of blood pressure; inflammation Cholesterol - stabilize membranes; precursor of bile salts and steroid hormones Essential Use in the Body: Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins; major fuel of hepatocytes and skeletal muscle; phospholipids are essential in myelin sheaths and all cell membranes

question

What are the two classes of proteins. How can the issues associated with the second class be over come. And finally, what are the bodily uses of proteins.

answer

Complete protein (meat, milk, and fish) Incomplete protein (nuts, legumes, and cereals) Incomplete protein sources (i.e; legumes and cereals) can be combined to form complete proteins. Uses: structural materials: keratin, collagen, elastin, muscle proteins; most functional molecules: enzymes, some hormones.

question

Nitrogen balance directly correlates with the rate by which protein synthesis equals the rate of degradation. If one's balance is positive (+) rather than equal, what does this mean? What if it is negative (-)? When do these generally occur?

answer

(+) Positive = synthesis exceeds breakdown - normal in children and tissue repair) (-) Negative = Breakdown exceeds synthesis - (stress, burns, infection, injury)

question

What are the products of Glycolysis?

answer

4 ATP (Net gain of 2), 2 molecules of NADH become NAD+, 2 pyruvic acid

question

What are the products of the Kreb's Cycle?

answer

3 NADH + H (NADH), 1 FADH2, 2 CO2, 1 ATP (Per pyruvic acid - so twice per molecule of glucose)

question

What is Gluconeogenesis? What molecule(s) does it use? Where does it occur? Why?

answer

- Glucose formation - noncarbohydrate sources (glycerol and amino acids) - Mainly in the liver - Protects against damage brought on by hypoglycemia

question

What is Glycogenesis? Why does it occur? Where does it occur?

answer

- The formation of glycogen. - Serves as long term storage for when glucose supplies exceed ATP synthesis - Mostly in liver and skeletal muslces

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What is Glycogenolysis? Why does it occur?

answer

- The breakdown of Glycogen - Occurs when blood glucose drops.

question

Explain the basic functions of digestion in order and give a brief explanation as to what they are.

answer

1. Ingestion - intake of food. 2. Propulsion - Muscular movement of food through the digestive system. 3. Mechanical Digestion - Physical breakdown of food via physical manipulation - chewing, mixing, pummelling, etc. 4. Chemical Digestion - The degradation of food stuffs through the use of enzymes - used to break foods down to their chemical building blocks. 5. Absorption - The passage of chemical building blocks from food in the lumen into the blood stream. 6. Defecation - The elimination of indigestible products.

question

What are the accessory organs of digestion? Describe their basic purposes.

answer

teeth (mechanical digestion), tongue (taste), gallbladder (bile secretion), salivary glands (carbohydrate digestion, moistens foods, antibodies, lysozyme, defensins), liver (bile via hepatocytes), pancreas (pancreatic juice - enzymes to help break down all sorts of food - neutralizes chyme entering duodenum).

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What are the alimentary organs of digestion?

answer

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestines, large intestines

question

What is the function of peritoneum tissue? Mesentary? What do the terms intraperitoneal and retropertinal refer to?

answer

Peritoneum protects organs and allows them to flow over and around each other without friction - it contains a small amount of serous fluid inside the peritoneum cavity. Mesentary refers to the thin double layered peritoneum that surrounds the intestines it usually is rich with nerves and blood vessels. intraperitoneal refers to organs that reside within the peritoneum. retropertinal refers to organs that reside just outside the peritoneum.

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What are the two layers and their functions of the enteric nervous system?

answer

- Submucosal nerve plexus - imbeded in the submucosa - innervates the smooth muscle layer Myenteric Nerve Plexus - Between layers of muscularis - motor innervates the muscularis layers secretomotor innervation of mucosa

question

What enzymes are important in carbohydrate digestion? Where do they originate? Where are they secreted?

answer

Salivary Amylase (orginates from salivary glands in the oral cavity), pancreatic amylase (from the pancreas into duodenum), and brush boarder enzymes (from the vili lining intestinal walls in small intestine).

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How are carbohydrates absorbed?

answer

most are contransported in with Na+ into epithelial cells and than diffused into blood capillaries via facilitated diffusion Some monosaccharides simply diffuse straight into capillaries via facilitated diffusion

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What are the basic steps to chemical digestion of carbohydrates?

answer

Salivary amylase begins breaking down carbs in the oral cavity; this continues until the amylase is deactivated by gastric acid Once in the duodenum, pancreatic amylase and brush boarder enzymes continue to degrade carbohydrates into monsaccharides

question

What enzymes are used to break down proteins?

answer

Pepsin (which starts out as Pepsinogen), Pancreatic Proteases, brush boarder enzymes

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What are the basic steps to chemical digestion of proteins?

answer

Digestion begins in the stomach as pepsinogen is released by chief cells in the stomach; when the pepsinogen mixes with the acidic stomach environment it forms pepsin. Pepsin is deactivated by the alkaline environment of the duodenum so pancreatic enzymes and brush boarder enzymes come in to continue to degrade proteins

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How are proteins absorbed?

answer

Via cotransport with Na+ ions, and than into the capillaries via facilitated diffusion

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What enzymes are involved in lipid absorption?

answer

Pancreatic Lipases

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Describe the process of lipid absorption?

answer

Lipids began digestion in the duodenum where they mix with bile salts and lecithin forming small clusters called micelles The lipids are than degraded by pancreatic lipases where the resulting fatty acids are than released to diffuse into epithelial cells The fatty acids are than coupled with proteins forming chylomicrons The chylomicrons then enter lacteals via endocytosis and are dumped into the blood via the thoracic duct

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What is the significance of the circular folds of the mucosa and submucosa of the small intestine?

answer

They aid in the spiraling of chyme through the small intestine.

question

What are the four phases of respiration? Provide a quick explination of each.

answer

- Pulmonary ventilation; also known as breathing in which air is moved into and out of the lungs. - External Respiration; Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide are exchanged between the lungs and the blood. - Transport; Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide travel within the blood. - Internal Respiration; Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide exchange between systemic blood vessels and tissues

question

Distinguish between Respiratory Zone Strunctures and Conducting Zone structures.

answer

Respiratory Zone structures include all the sites of gas exchange; respiratory bonchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli. Conducting Zone Structures inclide all other respiratorry structures.

question

Briefly describe the functions of the nose and paranasal sinus.

answer

Nose; airway for breathing, moistens and warms air, filters and cleans inspired air, serves as a resonating chamber for speech, and houses olfactory receptors. Paranasal Sinuses; lightens weight of skull, helps to warm and moisten air, protects structures within the head from rapid temperature changes in the nasal cavity.

question

What are the basic functions of the larynx? How does it structure support these functions.

answer

The larynx is a structure that connects to the hyoid bone and opens into the laryngopharynx; its involved in breathing, sound production, prevention of air escaping during stressful activity, and protecting the trachea against food aspiration Sound production - the larynx houses the vocal folds which are instrumental in production. Breathing - The larynx helps to seal off the esophagus during breathing preventing air from escaping into the esophagus. Food Aspiration - the closing of the larynx helps keep food out of the tracea. Air escape - works as spchinter to prevent air from flowing out

question

List the cartiledge associated with the trachea and bronchi.

answer

Trachea - Lined with circular cartiledge rings that help to keep the passage way open; also contains the carina at the point where the trachea splits into two the bronchi - involved heavily in coughing.

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