What is Neuropsychopharmacology?

Behavior, mood, and cognitive processes derived from brain function -Most neuropsychopharmacology is based on behavior More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/psy-133-lecture-6-methods-of-research-in-psychopharmacology/

What is one disadvantage of psychopharmacology?

it is only unsuitable for long term success meaning patients have to take the drug indefinitely. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-15-treatments/

What is psychopharmacology?

the use of medications that effect the brain or body. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-15-treatments/

A student asks the pharmacology instructor to explain the action of anticholinergic agents. What would be the instructor’s best response?

They act to block the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/prepu-chapter-47-drug-therapy-for-parkinsons-disease-and-anticholinergics/

Psychopharmacology involves the study of how

drugs affect mind and behavior. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/psychology-exam-3-quiz-11-modules-54-56/

A nurse is caring for an older patient with decreased kidney functioning, and is aware the patient may have difficulty excreting drugs. The nurse is demonstrating which aspect of pharmacology?

Pharmacokinetics Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a drug in order for a drug action to occur. It includes the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs from the body. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/pharm-test-1/

The most important person in the study of pharmacology—the person who should be considered when medications are used therapeutically—is the

patient More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/pharmt1-43870/

A classmate of a nursing student asked why she had to take a pharmacology course. The nursing student replied:

“Pharmacology is the study of medicines and how they work” More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapters-12-from-pharmacology-study-guide-qa/

Match the nursing action with the seven aspects of drug therapy. The rights of drug administration couple with the knowledge of pharmacology:

B. Dosage and Administration. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-2-application-of-pharmacology-in-nursing-practice-study-guide/

Pharmacology test questions and answers | Get Access To Pharmacology Flashcards and exam tests

Q: What is the study of the physiochemical properties of drugs and how they influence the body called? A) Pharmacokinetics B) Pharmacotherapeutics C) Pharmacodynamics D) Pharmacology

C) Pharmacodynamics More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/pharmacology-105-exam-1/

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Pharmacology

Pharmacology Ch 1-10 Test Questions – Flashcards 89 terms

Brooke Sharp

89 terms

Preview

Pharmacology Ch 1-10 Test Questions – Flashcards

question

The overuse or misuse of drugs is considered drug

answer

abuse

question

The physician must have permission from the FDA to dispose of any outdated medications.

answer

False

question

The formulary for medications approved by the

answer

question

In the United States, who initiates the process of medical care?

answer

patient

question

The FDA is a division of the

answer

Department of Health and Human Services

question

Prescription pads make wonderful notepads and paper for ordering blood tests and x-rays.

answer

False

question

The physician must keep which of the following records when using drugs found on the DEA list of schedules medications

answer

all of the above

question

To administer a drug means to

answer

give that medication

question

The act that allows drug manufactures to find uses in rare medical conditions for medications previously found to be dangerous is the

answer

Orphan Drug Act of 1993

question

What government agency or agencies control prescription or legend medications?

answer

a and c

question

All of the following are true about pharmacotherapeutics EXCEPT drugs are used to

answer

always produce the desired effects

question

Which of the following statements are true aout medications?

answer

1, 2, 3

question

Factors concerning drugs absorption that are important in patient teaching are

answer

a and b

question

Adverse reactions should be charted in

answer

a and c

question

Metabolism is

answer

all of the above

question

A drug half-life is the time the body takes to metabolize half of the available drug.

answer

True

question

Component(s) of medication include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

inactive medicinal ingredient

question

Drug interactions may occur in the form of ___ interactions.

answer

a, b, and c

question

Anaphylaxis is a possible allergic response with any medication and may be fatal.

answer

True

question

Drug distribution is affect by

answer

all of the above

question

Emulsions are a combination of oils and water that remain in a permanently combined state.

answer

False

question

A drug that is used "off label"

answer

means the drug has never been approved by the FDA for the "off label" use

question

Use of a heating pad with a liniment is usually contraindicated

answer

True

question

Dispersions are medications with drug particles throughout the liquid.

answer

True

question

Enteric-coated tablets require all but which of the following?

answer

crushing of the tablet for ease of administration

question

The name allowed that is owned by the manufacturer includes all of the following EXCEPT the

answer

generic name

question

Topical preparations include medications used in the eye and ear, as well as on the skin.

answer

True

question

The drug form(s) that are manufactured for dissolving in the mouth are

answer

a and d

question

"Off label" use of medications means the indications for use do not appear on the medication label.

answer

False

question

Which of the following is NOT recognize as a general grouping of routes of administer of medications?

answer

transdermally

question

The price of medications may be a source of noncompliance, especially with older adults.

answer

True

question

By the age of 8 months, the liver and kidneys have matured sufficiently to metabolize drugs at the adult level.

answer

False

question

When medications are prescribed from different medication classes, polypharmacy is no problem.

answer

False

question

Geriatric patients may have unexpected reactions to medications because of

answer

a, b, and c

question

Inability to read prescription labels may lead to life-threatening situations.

answer

True

question

Chronologic age is well correlated to the development of organ systems in children.

answer

False

question

OTC medications are safe for use during pregnancy and lactation.

answer

False

question

Responses to medications vary by all of the following EXCEPT

answer

drug samples

question

Which of the following is least likely to be considered when prescribing medications for infants and small children?

answer

environmental factors

question

Routine adult doses of medications are based on all of the following EXCEPT

answer

BSA

question

Interpret the following order. ibuprofen 600 mg qid pc and hs prn muscle spasms

answer

ibuprofen 600 mg by mouth four times a day after means and at bedtime as needed for muscle spasms

question

When documenting prescription refills, which of the following is not important?

answer

The health care provider is the only person who can approve a refill request

question

Which of the following is not true?

answer

The medication order should include the patient's name and address.

question

Which of the following is necessary when administering medications?

answer

a, b, and c

question

Prescriptions may be written and signed on

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following is not true?

answer

The physician is solely responsible for the administration of an ordered medication, whether this is a verbal order, a prescription, or a written order in the office.

question

Only standard abbreviations should be used when writing a prescription.

answer

True

question

Interpret the following order. Lasix 20 mg tab i qd @ 9A and again at 3P edema

answer

Lasix 20 mg one tablet each day at 9 in the morning and again at 3 in the afternoon if needed for edema

question

When documenting orders to the medical record, which of the following should be included?

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following is not true?

answer

A verbal order may be documented at a later date, as long as the medication have been given when ordered.

question

Which of the following measurements is most likely not used for the measurements of medications?

answer

gallon

question

4 c = ____ oz

answer

question

Which of the following is not a unit of measure in the apothecary system?

answer

gram

question

The metric system uses

answer

a and b only

question

In which measurement system is 12 ounces equal to 1 pound?

answer

none of the above

question

All measurement systems write the Arabic numbers first EXCEPT

answer

apothecary

question

The majority of the world uses which measurement system?

answer

metric

question

Premature babies that are extremely small are often weighed in

answer

grams

question

A 1-liter bad of IV solution would contain how many cubic centimeters of fluid?

answer

1000 cc

question

The volume measurements studied in this chapter include

answer

liter

question

The metric quantity for one quart is

answer

100 mL

question

The metric quantity of 480 cc is usually rounded to

answer

500 cc

question

The correct solution to 5 fluid ounces = ____ mL is

answer

150

question

5 ft = ____ cm

answer

150

question

A reasonable circumference for a newborn baby's head would be ____ cm.

answer

question

In the clinic, immunizations are given only on Monday between 0715 and 1115. Which statement best describes these hours?

answer

Monday mornings only

question

The most correct notation for a comfortable room temperature would be ___ F

answer

76.4

question

Zithromax oral suspensions is available in dropper form. When it is properly mixed, there are 200 mg per 5 mL. how many milligrams are taken if the patient took 2 teaspoons of the properly mixed suspension?

answer

400

question

The time 2017 can be identified as

answer

8:17 pm

question

One meter would be approximately equivalent to ____ in.

answer

question

Order Biaxin 750 mg. Available: Biaxin 250 mg tablets. Dose to be give: _____

answer

3 tab

question

If a medication is available in 5-mg tablets and an order call for 10 mg, which proportion is correct?

answer

5 mg : 1 tab :: 10 mg : x tab

question

Order Pravachol 30 mg. Available: Pravachol 10 mg tablets. Dose to be given: ____

answer

3 tab

question

A medication is ordered as 6-mg tablets. Available is a 4-mg tablet. The number of tablets to be given is

answer

1 1/2

question

All of the following are nonparenteral medications EXCEPT

answer

IV solutions

question

Most nonpareteral medications are prescribed in the _____ system.

answer

metric

question

Order Tegretol 0.2 g. Available: Tegretol 100 mg/tab. Does to be give: _____

answer

2 tab

question

Using the proportional method, solve for x in this ratio: 2 : x :: 4 : 2

answer

question

If a reconstructed medication is 200 mg/5 mL, how many mg would be 15 mL be (of the same solution)?

answer

600

question

Order Phenobarbital 30 mg. Available: gr 1/4. Dose to be give: ____

answer

question

An order has been written for an allied health professional to administer 10 mg of a medication intramuscularly. Available: 10 mg/0.5 mL. Amount of drug tobe drawn is _____ cc.

answer

0.5

question

Order heparin sodium 600 units SC stat. Available: heparin sodium 1000 units/mL. Does to be given: _____

answer

0.6 mL

question

The physician orders 400,000 units of a medication to be given subcutaneously. Available: 250,000 units/mL. Amount of drug to be drawn is

answer

1.6 cc

question

You have been asked by the physician to administer 100,000 units of a medication. Available: 200,000 units/mL. Amount of drug to be drawn is

answer

0.5 mL

question

Order Kantrex 125 mg IM. Available: Kantrex 500 mg/mL. Does to be given:_____

answer

0.25 mL

question

The physician orders 500 mg of a medication to be give intramuscularly. Available: 1000 mg/2 mL. Amount of drug to be drawn is ____ cc.

answer

question

Order cleocin phosphate 0.25 g IM. Available: cleocin phosphate 150 mg/mL. Dose to be given:_____

answer

1.7 mL

question

A physican orders 0.2 mg of a medication to be given subcutaneously. Available: 0.4 mg/mL. Amount of drug to be drawn is

answer

0.5 mL

question

The physician has ordered 75 mg of a medication to be given intramuscularly. Available: 50 mg/mL. Amount of drug to be drawn is ____ cc.

answer

1.5

STUDY

Advise The Client Foundations Of Professional Nursing Mini Mental Status Exam Nursing Pharmacology

NCLEX Style Questions from Mental Health – Flashcards 47 terms

Tilly Wilkinson

47 terms

Preview

NCLEX Style Questions from Mental Health – Flashcards

question

A long-term alcoholic arrives in ED. The healthcare provider orders 1mg Ativan PO. What is the expected effect of this medication on this client? a. decreased effect d/t cross-tolerance b. increased effect d/t cross-tolerance c. decreased effect d/t cross-dependence d. increased effect d/t cross-dependence

answer

a. decreased effect d/t cross-tolerance.

question

A patient comes to the ED with the following symptoms: respirations 8, pulse 108, nausea and vomiting, anxiety and muscle tightness and tremor. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms? a. amphetamine withdrawal b. barbituate withdrawal c. barbituate intoxication d. amphetamine intoxication

answer

b. barbiturate withdrawal

question

Is alcoholism a disease?

answer

Yes! The term disease broadly refers to any condition that impairs normal function, and is therefore associated with dysfunction of normal homeostasis

question

What type of assessment tool do you use for those who suffer from substance abuse?

answer

CAGE Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking? Have people ever annoyed you by criticizing your drinking? Have you ever felt bad or guilty about your drinking? Have you ever had a drink first thing in the morning to steady your nerves or get rid of a hangover (Eye-opener)?

question

If a patient comes to you, with their hands shaking, and asks for more ativan. What do you do?

answer

Assess the patient first and then have them see the doctor. Patient may be developing an addiction to Ativan and is trying to manipulate you into giving more. Must tell them, you can have your ativan at this time..... and that's it.

question

What is the treatment for Alcohol Withdrawal?

answer

• General hospital care if needed • Follow hospital protocols- safety is # 1 priority • Provide sitter if needed per your assessment (Money is not a concern on NCLEX) • Monitor VS frequently (psychomotor agitation) • Seizure precautions • Point out reality: inform patient hallucinations are part of withdrawal (not permanent, it is part of the withdrawal process) • Adjust room lighting to prevent shadows = cause illusions, which then cause hallucinations NCLEX • Monitor intake and output • Do NOT restrain (better to do a 1-1 due to risk of seizures (safety # 1)

question

Why should you adjust lighting in a room for an alcoholic who is going through withdrawal?

answer

Because shadows cause illusions and illusions cause hallucinations

question

In the development of a therapeutic relationship with a new admission with the diagnosis of post self-inflicted GSW to the head. Which of the following is the priority to the nurse? a. Assess your feelings toward this client. b. Assess the client's level of suicidality. c. Assess the client's support systems. d. Assess the client's plan for suicide.

answer

a. Assess your feelings toward the client.

question

A sixteen year-old Asian client requests an outside provider giver her a coining treatment. What is the RN's best response? a. Respect cultural beliefs and allow the treatment. b. Respect the cultural beliefs, but do not allow the treatment in the hospital. c. Educate the family on Western medicine. d. Encourage the client to try accepted practices.

answer

b. Respect the cultural beliefs, but do not allow the treatment in the hospital.

question

A terminal CA client states to the nurse, "I wish my family would stop hoping for a cure. I know I am going to die and I wish they would stop." The nurse's best response is: a. "We can't control our family's feelings." b. "It sounds as though you are feeling angry your family is still hoping for a cure." c. "I can tell you are in acceptance." d. "I will tell the team to arrange a family meeting."

answer

b. "It sounds as though you are feeling angry your family is still hoping for a cure."

question

A client on the psychiatric unit states, "I feel like a bird." The best response for the nurse to make is: a. "You are a patient not a bird." b. "Birds can fly, can you?" c. "That must be distressing for you, you don't look different to me." d. "What you say indicates to me the reason you are in the hospital."

answer

c. "That must be distressing for you, you don't look different to me."

question

List the following diagnosis on its appropriate axis: Moderate legal problems COPD Antisocial personality disorder 20 Paranoid schizophrenia

answer

Axis I: paranoid schizophrenia Axis II: Antisocial personality disorder Axis III: COPD Axis IV: Moderate legal problems Axis V: 20

question

The group leader states, "We are not along in the daily problems we encounter." this statement reflects which curative factor? a. Altruism b. Imitative behavior c. Universality d. Imparting of information

answer

c. Universality

question

Nurse Jones decides to respect a family wishes and not tell a client of his terminal status because it would bring the most happiness to the most people. Which ethical theory would support her action? a. utilitarianism b. Christina ethics c. Kantianism d. ethical egoism

answer

a. utilitarianism

question

Jimmy is restless and pacing. The nurse states, "If you don't be still, I'm going to put you in restraints." Which legal action might this nurse be charged with? a. defamation of character b. battery c. breach of confidentiality d. assault

answer

d. assault

question

A client comes to the nurse with the following symptoms: anger with periods of threatening the nurse, fear that he is going to be killed at the hospital and that he is unable to do anything about the situation. What level of anxiety is this client experiencing? a. severe b. mild c. panic d. moderate

answer

c. panic

question

The nurse is working with a client who is fearful of flying. Which defense is the client using? a. denial b. rationalization c. projection d. displacement

answer

d. displacement

question

Which client is most at risk for the development of PTSD? a. rescued client trapped under a collapsed roof of a building. b. client who witnessed friend die next to him after explosion. c. mother of a deceased victim in the explosion. d. best friend of a victim who saw the explosion on TV

answer

a. rescued client trapped under a collapsed roof of a building. (He didn't know if he was going to die or not)

question

A man who is getting married suddenly cannot walk. What is this man's most likely diagnosis? a. somatization disorder b. phobia disorder c. conversion disorder d. post traumatic stress disorder

answer

c. conversion disorder

question

A client with pain disorder had a pm for pain 1 hour ago, his next dose is not due for 3 hours. He is now at the nursing station demanding pain medication. What is the nurse's best action? a. call the healthcare provider b. advise the client to go to his room c. assess the client and advise him his medication will be given in 3 hours

answer

c. assess the client and advise him his medication will be given in 3 hours

question

A 40 y/o male client has just been advised he is HIV positive. He asks the nurse, "why did this have to happen to me?" What feeling may this client be experiencing? a. anger b. denial c. guilt d. depression What is the nurse's best response based on the assessment of the client's feelings?

answer

c. guilt If you lay the ground work for acceptance, it goes smoothly

question

The RN must inform a family member his mother has just died. When informed of this news, the 35 year old son smiles and states he is going to the vending machine to buy some candy. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to make at this time? a. allow him to go and sort out his feelings b. repeat, "I just told you your mother died, how do you feel about this?" c. how the healthcare provider meet with the son d. ask him if he would like time alone with his mother

answer

b. repeat, "I just told you your mother died, how do you feel about this?" He might be in shock. Ask how he feels about the situation.

question

A client is diagnosed with Major Depression. What is the most important part of the mental status exam to assess? a. judgement b. mood c. insight d. behavior

answer

b. mood

question

What activity is most appropriate for a client diagnosed with Major Depression? a. group therapy b. one on one baking activity with the nurse c. game of chess with the nurse d. coloring activity with the nurse

answer

b. one on one baking activity with the nurse (helps get anger out, like kneading dough) Coloring is for schizophranic

question

A client comes into the hospital with the following complaints: Her husband is filing for divorce, her 14 year old daughter us refusing to attend school and isolates, she may be in danger of losing her job and her dog has just died. What is your first question to this client? What type of intervention is most appropriate?

answer

1. "What bothers you the most?' 2. Give the client a sense of control, structure/program

question

A client is scheduled for ECT. What family teaching should the RN focus on? a. education on the importance of airway maintenance. b. education on the client's memory loss c. education on the use of brevital as a anesthesia d. education on the purpose of ECT

answer

b. education on the client's memory loss Education on the purpose of ECT (ALREADY SCHEDULED!!!)

question

Which client is most at risk for committing suicide? a. mother who's son just died b. elderly, single male with CA c. Teenager who broke up with his girlfriend d. married business man with alcoholism

answer

b. elderly, single man with CA

question

The ED calls the nurse and states a suicidal client needs a bed on her unit. Hospital policy states suicidal clients must have a room with locked windows. The only room with locked windows is occupied by a post-op client who has been in pain all day and is now finally sleeping. What is the nurse's best action? a. move the post-op patient and put the suicidal client in the room with locked windows b. advise the ED you cannot accept the client until the morning c. accept the suicidal client and place on a 1-1 in another room until morning

answer

a. move the post-op patient and put the suicidal client in the room with locked windows

question

What is a good lunch for a manic client? a. ribs with mashed potatoes b. Peanut butter sandwich and a carton of milk c. pizza, cake, and ice cream d. Cheese burger and fries

answer

b. Peanut butter sandwich and a carton of milk

question

A male client is coming down from a manic period. He states, "I feel bad about cheating on my wife." What is the nurse's best respnse? a. "You can't help it. It's part of your illness." b. "Let's discuss your feelings with your wife." c. "Hypersexuality is part of your illness. Let's discuss early signs of a manic episode."

answer

c. "Hypersexuality is part of your illness. Let's discuss early signs of a manic episode."

question

What activity is most appropriate for a bipolar client? a. a game of twister b. a football game with other clients c. riding on the stationary bike d. coloring activity with the nurse

answer

c. riding on the stationary bike

question

The RN is speaking on the phone with the healthcare provider. A client with the diagnosis of Antisocial PD approaches the RN and demands to speak with her immediately. How should the RN respond? a. put down the phone and assess the client's needs b. ask another nurse to assess the client c. Advise the client you will speak with him when you are finished with the call d. Set a strict verbal limit on the client's behavior

answer

c. Advise the client you will speak with him when you are finished with the call

question

Which characteristics should a nurse expect to observe in an individual experiencing borderline personality disorder? Select all that apply. a. erratic emotions, including anger and depression b. a preference for being alone c. chronic feelings of emptiness or boredom d. Impulsive and unpredictable behavior

answer

a. erratic emotions, including anger and depression c. chronic feelings of emptiness or boredom d. Impulsive and unpredictable behavior

question

What is a good activity for a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia? a. hide and seek b. allow the client to initiate the activity c. coloring in a coloring book d. video game with the nurse

answer

b. allow the client to initiate the activity

question

A family bring in a non-responsive client. The family reports the client is catatonic due to schizophrenia, has a history of diabetes, seizures, COPD. What is the nurse's initial actions? a. begin seizure precautions b. ask the family how long the client has been unresponsive c. check the client's blood sugar d. attach a pulse ox to the client

answer

c. check the client's blood sugar

question

A client asks the nurse if he hear the devil talking. What is the nurse's best response? a. "No I do not hear the devil." b. "You are safe. The devil is not here." c. "Let's go to a quiet place." d. "Even though the voice seems real to you. I do not hear the voice speaking."

answer

d. "Even though the voice seems real to you. I do not hear the voice speaking."

question

Which of the below symptoms are positive signs of schizophrenia? Select all that apply. a. visual hallucinations b. making up words c. withdrawal d. agitation e. introducing unrelated topics

answer

a. visual hallucinations b. making up words d. agitation e. introducing unrelated topics

question

Which of the following are negative symptoms of schizophrenia? Select all that apply. a. Loose associations b. Religious delusions c. Woman laughs when told of a death of friend d. Man lives in his own fantasy world e. Body part of client stuck in one position d. Lack of motivation to get up

answer

c. Woman laughs when told of a death of friend d. Man lives in his own fantasy world e. Body part of client stuck in one position d. Lack of motivation to get up

question

A client is starring at the wall and laughing. What is the first action of the nurse? a. tell the client there is nothing funny on the wall b. ask the client what he is experiencing c. distract the client by asking him to play a game with the nurse d. ask the client if he is feeling anxious

answer

b. ask the client what he is experiencing

question

A schizophrenic client begins to masturbate in the day room. What is the nurse's initial action? a. tell the other clients to leave the day room for a few minutes. b. tell the client this behavior is inappropriate c. ask the client if he is feeling anxious d. ask the client if he needs privacy and escort him to his room

answer

d. ask the client if he needs privacy and escort him to his room "inappropriate" they may not understand what inappropriate is or means.

question

The RN on the adolescent mental health unit has just been informed a male with a diagnosis of conduct disorder is to be admitted to the unit. What is the RN's first priority when this client arrives? a. advise him of the consequences of acting out on the unit. b. review the unit rules with the client. c. read the client his mental health rights. d. educate him on the unit activities and program.

answer

b. review the unit rules with the client.

question

A female comes into the ED and reports she has just been raped. What is the nurse's first priority? a. encourage the client to ventilate her feelings b. instruct her to remove her clothes carefully and place them in a paper bad c. obtain a description of the perpetrator d. stabilize her medical injuries

answer

b. instruct her to remove her clothes carefully and place them in a paper bad (Must do this before being able to assess and stabilize her medical injuries

question

What teaching by the nurse is most important prior to the discharge of an abused or domestic violence victim? a. how to use verbal deescalation b. maintaining a calm attitude c. What is the plan if it happens again d. support groups in the community

answer

c. What is the plan if it happens again

question

Which of the following is a good activity for a demented client? a. doing a crossword puzzle with the nurse b. writing down feelings in a journal c. looking at pictures of her family from the past and discussing d. reading a simple book with large print

answer

c. looking at pictures of her family from the past and discussing

question

List the components of the mini-mental status exam. Select all that apply. a. memory b. orientation c. draw an object d. complete a sentence e. follow a written direction f. perform a calculation

answer

a. memory b. orientation c. draw an object d. complete a sentence e. follow a written direction f. perform a calculation

question

The nurse asks the client the following. "What does this mean,'don't cry over spilled milk.'" a. memory b. recall c. concrete thinking d. comprehension

answer

c. concrete thinking

question

A confused elderly client who arrived to the ED without paperwork refuses to have an NG placed. The healthcare provider insists on the procedure. What is the nurse's best action? a. check for an advanced directive b. check for a durable power of attorney c. advise the healthcare provider privately this action would be a form of abuse d. call the nursing house supervisor e. obtain permission from the family

answer

c. advise the healthcare provider privately this action would be a form of abuse

STUDY

Foundations Of Professional Nursing Goals And Expected Outcomes Nursing Pharmacology Red Blood Cell Count

Breathing Patterns Case Study – Flashcards 26 terms

Jennifer Hawkins

26 terms

Preview

Breathing Patterns Case Study – Flashcards

question

Nurse assesses Josh's vitals signs. His respirations are rapid and shallow. What is the best technique for the nurse to use to assess josh's respirations accurately?

answer

Put place hand

question

How should the nurse describe josh's respiratory battern

answer

Tachy

question

To determine the need for the application of the nasal cannula, which assessment is most important for the nurse to preform?

answer

Measure O2 sat

question

in assessing josh's breath sounds, the nurse should ask him to perform which action?

answer

Breathe deeply through the mouth

question

to measure cap refil

answer

compress josh's nailbed

question

when using the spring-tension finger clip, josh asks if it will hurt. Which response is best?

answer

The clip feels like squeezing your finger with your other hand

question

Josh's o2sat is 88% with a cap refill at 1 sec. Breath sounds are absent in the base and coarse bilaterally through the rest of the lung fields. The nurse applies the nasal cannula and admins o2 at 2 L/minuet. When applying the nasal cannula, it is most important for the nurse to provide which instructions?

answer

Remind client and family that 02 is combustable

question

which nursing diagnosis is most relevant to josh's current status?

answer

impaired gas exchange

question

Which assessment finding further supports diagnosis

answer

restlessness and fatigue

question

after determining the priority nursing diagnosis, what step should the nurse take next in developing the plan of care?

answer

establish goals and expected outcomes

question

Which outcome statement should the nurse use for Josh's plan of care?

answer

The client's o2 sat will be >95% on room air.

question

to achieve the desired outcome, the nurse has initiated the prescribed o2 therapy. After applying the nasal cannula, the nurse plants to attach a disposable sensor pad to measure the 02 sat continuously. Which action should the nurse implement prior to applying the sensor?

answer

Determine if josh has a latex allergy

question

after receiving 02 for a short while, josh is must less dyspneic. The nurse notes the o2sat reading is 97% Fifteen min later, o2 sat alarm indicates that the reading has changed to 80% What immediate actions's should the nurse implement (select all that apply)

answer

reposition the finger clip and obtain another reading Assess josh for signs and symptoms of respiratory distress. encourage josh to begin coughing and deep breathing.

question

After the nurse repositions the finger clip, the oxygen saturation reading returns to 97% despite the normal reading, josh's mom appears worried and states, "josh has never been sick. I am so scared." To encourage the mother to share more about her feelings, how should the nurse respond?

answer

It sounds like this has been a very fighting experience for you

question

After further conversation with josh's mom, the nurse needs to leave the room to assess another client. Which action be the nurse demonstrates the use of trust in the nurse-client relationship?

answer

returning to the room at the time promised

question

Upon returning to the room, the nurse assesses josh's cough Which documentation reflects subjective data?

answer

CLient reports that he is coughing alot

question

which documentation best reflects the nurse's objective assessment

answer

Frequent deep cough producing small amounts of pale yellow sputum

question

Upon further observation, the nurse describes josh sputum as tenacious To what does this refer?

answer

Consistency

question

Since, Josh has a productive cough, the provider requests that the sputum specimen be obtained and sent to the lab for culture and sensitivity. In assisting josh to obtain a sputum specimen, what action should the nurse take?

answer

Instruct Josh to cough deeply from the chest and spit into the specimen cup

question

The patient care tech is planning to transport the sputum specimen to the lab Which instructions should the nurse provide?

answer

place the cup in a bio hazard bag

question

The provider determines that josh has a respiratory tract infection and prescribes an oral anti-biotic and an oral liquid cough syrup. Josh's mom gets the meds from the pharm and shows them to the nurse. The script for the antibiotic reads "take 2 pills for the first dose, followed by 1 pill every 12 hours. " The mother asks the nurse if this seems right. How should the nurse respond?

answer

A large first dose allows the medication to start working faster.

question

The cough syrup is labeled as an antitussive. The nurse explain that this medication should have what effect?

answer

reduce the frequency of the cough

question

the medication label states "take 2 tspn ever 4 hours as needed. The nurse gives josh some med cups and teaches him and his mother how to put the meds into the cup. To what level should the meds be poured?

answer

10 mls

question

Josh and his mother return to the providers office 1 week later, after josh has completed the course of antibiotic therapy. In assessing josh's breath sounds, where should the nurse listen first?

answer

lung apices

question

the nurse auscultates vesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields. What action should the nurse take?

answer

Record the presence of the clear breath sounds

question

which serum lab value confirms the resolution of josh's infection?

answer

WBC count 6,000 /mm3

STUDY

Nursing Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Psychopharmacology: Chapter 1 – Flashcards 93 terms

Elizabeth Bates

93 terms

Preview

Psychopharmacology: Chapter 1 – Flashcards

question

pharmacology

answer

study of the actions of drugs and their effects on living organisms

question

neuropharmacology

answer

area of pharmacology specializing in drug-induced changes to the function of cells in the nervous system

question

psychopharmacology

answer

area of pharmacology specializing in drug-induced changes in mood, thinking

question

neuropsychopharmacology

answer

area of pharmacology focusing on chemical substances that interact with the nervous system to alter behavior, emotions, and cognition

question

drug action

answer

specific molecular changes associated with a drug binding to a particular target site or receptor

question

drug effects

answer

alterations in physiological or psychological functions associated with a specific drug

question

therapeutic effect

answer

desired physical or behavioral change associated with a particular drug

question

side effect

answer

undesired physical or behavioral change associated with a particular drug

question

specific drug effects

answer

physical or behavioral changes associated with biochemical interactions of a drug with the target site

question

nonspecific drug effects

answer

physical or behavioral changes not associated with the chemical activity of the drug-receptor interaction but with certain unique characteristics of the individual such as present mood or expectations of drug effects (based on certain unique characteristics of the individual)

question

bioavailability

answer

concentration of drug present in the blood that is free to bind to specific target sites

question

pharmacokinetic

answer

factors that contribute to bioavailability: the administration, absorption, distribution, binding, inactivation, and excretion of a drug

question

enteral

answer

drug administration by oral or rectal routes (GI tract)

question

parenteral

answer

methods of drug administration that do not use the gastrointestinal system, such as intravenous, inhalation, intramuscular, transdermal, etc

question

oral administration (PO)

answer

method that involves administration of a drug through the mouth

question

absorption

answer

movement of a drug from the site of administration to the circulatory system

question

first pass metabolism

answer

phenomenon in which the liver metabolizes some of a drug before it can circulate through the body, particularly when the drug has been taken orally

question

rectal administration

answer

drug delivery method, such as suppository, used to deliver drugs via the lower intestine.

question

intravenous (IV)

answer

method that involves administration of a drug directly into the bloodstream by means of a vein.

question

intramuscular (IM)

answer

method that involves administration of a drug into a muscle

question

intraperitoneal (IP)

answer

injection technique that is the most common route of administration for small laboratory animals. The drug is injected through the abdominal wall into the peritoneal cavity - the space that surrounds the abdominal organs

question

subcutaneous (SC)

answer

method that involves injection of a drug just below the skin.

question

inhalation

answer

method that involves administration of a drug through the lungs

question

topical

answer

method that involves administration of a drug through a mucous membrane such as the oral cavity, nasal mucosa, or vagina.

question

intranasal administration

answer

topical administration of a drug into the nasal mucosa

question

transdermal

answer

method that involves administration of a drug through the skin

question

epidural

answer

method that involves administration of a drug into the cerebrospinal fluid surrounding the spinal cord. by-passes the blood brain barrier

question

intracranial

answer

method that involves administration of a drug into the brain tissue

question

intracerebroventricular

answer

method that involves administration of a drug into the brain tissue

question

infusion pump

answer

drug delivery via an implanted pump (subcutaneous) that delivers regular, constant doses to the body or into the cerebral ventricles

question

gene therapy

answer

application of DNA that encodes a specific protein to increase or block expression of the gene product to correct a clinical condition

question

viral vectors

answer

use of a virus as a delivery system (called a vector) to carry a gene into the nuclei of target cells to alter protein synthesis

question

psychoactive drugs

answer

those drugs that have an effect on thinking, mood, or behavior

question

phospholipids

answer

lipid molecules that are major constituents of the cell membrane. they are composed of a polar head and two lipid tails

question

passive diffusion

answer

movement of lipid-soluble materials across a biological barrier without assistance based on its concentration gradient, from higher to lower concentration.

question

concentration gradient

answer

difference in the amount of concentration of a substance on each side of a biological barrier, such as the cell membrane

question

partition coefficient

answer

an experimentally-derived measure of a drug's lipid solubility used to predict its relative rate of movement across cell membranes

question

ionization

answer

process involving the dissociation of an electrically neutral molecule into charged particles (ions)1

question

cerebrospinal fluid

answer

fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning that protects against trauma.

question

intercellular clefts

answer

small gaps between adjacent cells

question

fenestrations

answer

large pores in endothelial cells allowing rapid exchange between blood vessels and tissue

question

pinocytotic vesicles

answer

types of vesicles that envelop and transport large molecules across the capillary wall.

question

tight junctions

answer

connection between cells characterized by a fusing of adjoining cell memebranes

question

astrocytes

answer

star-shaped cells of the nerve tissue that have numerous extensions and that modulate the chemical environment around neurons, metabolically assist neurons, and provide phagocytosis for cellular debris

question

area postrema

answer

area in the medulla of the brain stem that is not isolated from chemicals in the blood. it is responsible for inducing a vomiting response when a toxic substance is present in the blood

question

median eminence

answer

area in the hypothalamus that is not isolated from chemicals in the blood and where hypothalamic-releasing hormones are secreted for transport to the anterior pituitary gland

question

xenobiotics

answer

chemicals that are foreign to the living organism

question

teratogens

answer

any agent including a virus, drug, or radiation that induces abnormal fetal development, causing birth defects

question

drug depots

answer

inactive sites where drugs accumulate. there is no biological effect from drugs binding at these sites, nor can they be metabolized

question

depot binding

answer

type of drug interaction involving binding to an inactive site, such as to proteins in the plasma, to bone, or to fat

question

first order kinetics

answer

term used to describe exponential elimination of drugs from the bloodstream

question

half life

answer

time required to remove half of the drug from the blood. It is referred to as t1/2

question

steady state plasma level

answer

the desired blood concentration of drug achieved when the absorption/distribution phase is equal to the metabolism/excretion phase

question

zero order kinetics

answer

term used to describe a constant rate of drug removal from the body, regardless of drug concentration in the blood

question

biotransformation

answer

inactivation of a drug through a chemical change, usually by metabolic processes in the liver

question

CYP450

answer

class of liver enzymes, in the microsomal enzyme group, responsible for both phase 1 and phase 2 biotransformation of psychoactive drugs.

question

enzyme induction

answer

increase in liver drug-metabolizing enzymes associated with repeated drug use

question

enzyme inhibition

answer

reduction in liver enzyme activity associated with a specific drug

question

drug competition

answer

interaction between two drugs that share a metabolic system and compete for the same metabolic enzymes. bioavailability of one or both increases

question

genetic polymorphisms

answer

genetic variations in a population resulting in multiple forms of a particular protein

question

therapeutic drug monitoring

answer

taking multiple blood samples to directly measure plasma levels of a drug after administration, to identify the optimum dosage for maximum therapeutic potential and minimal side effects

question

pharmacodynamics

answer

study of physiological and biochemical interactions of a drug with the target tissue responsible for the drug's effects

question

receptor

answer

protein located on the surface of or within cells that bind to specific ligands to initiate biological changes within the cell

question

ligand

answer

molecule that selectively binds to a receptor

question

receptor agonists

answer

a neurochemical or drug that can bind to a particular receptor protein and alter the shape of the receptor to initiate a cellular response

question

affinity

answer

attraction between a molecule and a receptor

question

efficacy

answer

the extent to which a ligand-receptor binding initiates a biological action

question

receptor antagonists

answer

a molecule that interacts with a receptor protein and produces no cellular effect after binding, and also prevents an "active" ligand from binding

question

partial agonists

answer

drugs that bind to a receptor but have low efficacy, producing weaker biological effects than a full agonist. Hence they act as agonists at some receptors and antagonists at others, depending on the regional concentration of full agonist.

question

inverse agonists

answer

substance that activates a receptor but produces the opposite effect of a typical agonists at that receptor

question

up regulation

answer

increase in the number of receptors, which may be a consequence of denervation or of chronic antagonist treatment

question

down regulation

answer

decrease in the number of receptors, which may be a consequence of chronic agonist treatment

question

receptor subtypes

answer

group of receptors that respond to the same neurotransmitter but that differ from each other to varying degrees with respect to their structure, signaling mechanisms, and pharmacology

question

dose response curve

answer

graph used to display the amount of biological change in relation to a given drug dose

question

potency

answer

measure of the amount of drug necessary to produce a specific response

question

therapeutic index

answer

the relationship between the drug dose that results in a toxic response compared to the dose required for the desired biological response. It is represented by the equation TI = TD50/ED50

question

competitive antagonists

answer

drugs that bind to a receptor but has little or no efficacy. when it competes with an agonist for receptor sites, it reduces the effect of the agonist

question

noncompetetive antagonist

answer

drug that reduces the effect of an agonist, but does not compete at the receptor site. the drug may bind to an inactive portion of the receptor, disturb the cell membrane around the receptor, or interrupt the intercellular processes initiated by the agonist-receptor association

question

physiological antagonism

answer

drug interaction characterized by two drugs reducing each other's effectiveness in the body

question

additive effects

answer

drug interactions characterized by the collective sum of the two individual drug effects

question

potentiation

answer

drug interaction characterized by an increase in effectiveness greater than the collective sum of the individual drugs

question

tolerance

answer

decreased response to a drug as a direct result of repeated drug exposure

question

cross tolerance

answer

tolerance to a specific drug can reduce the effectiveness of a another drug in the same class

question

acute tolerance

answer

rapid tolerance formed during a single administration of a drug, as is the case with alcohol

question

drug disposition tolerance

answer

metabolic tolerance. type of tolerance to a drug that is characterized by a reduces amount of drug available at the target tissue, often as a result of more-rapid drug metabolism.

question

pharmacodynamic tolerance

answer

type of tolerance formed by changes in nerve cell functions in response to the continued presence of a drug

question

behavioral tolerance

answer

the reduced effectiveness of a drug administered chronically that involves learning: either operant or classical conditioning

question

classical conditioning

answer

repeated pairing of a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus. Eventually the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits a (conditioned) response that is similar to the original unconditioned response

question

operant conditioning

answer

type of learning in which animals learn to respond to obtain rewards and avoid punishment

question

state-dependent learning

answer

condition characterized by better performance of a particular task that was learned in a drugged state in the same drugged state, rather than in a nondrugged state. Tasks learned in a nondrugged state are likewise performed better in a nondrugged state.

question

sensitization

answer

enhanced response to a particular drug after repeated drug exposure

question

pharmacogenetics

answer

the study of the genetic basis for variability in drug response among individuals

question

microsomal enzymes

answer

enzymes in liver cells responsible for metabolizing exogenous substances such as drugs

STUDY

Dermatology High Blood Glucose Levels Pharmacology

PTCB EXAM- STUDY GUIDE – Practice Exam – Flashcards 423 terms

Patrick Marsh

423 terms

Preview

PTCB EXAM- STUDY GUIDE – Practice Exam – Flashcards

question

Side Effect Of Steroidal Meds

answer

Bruising Moon Face Weight Gain

question

Cephalexin

answer

Keflex

question

Amoxcillin clavulanate

answer

Augmentin

question

Bacteriostatic

answer

prevents the growth of bacteria, but does not kill bacteria

question

Clozapine

answer

is an antipsychotic agent

question

Antoconvulsant agent

answer

Carbamazepine Clonazepam Phenytoin

question

Forms of Estradiol

answer

Climara Estrace Estraderm

question

Premarin

answer

contains conjugated estrogens

question

CMS

answer

sets regulations regarding standards for resident care as a result of OBRA 87

question

Pseudoephedrine

answer

is contraindicated for an individual with hyper tension

question

Amantadine ( Symmetrel)

answer

used as influenza A treatment

question

Acyclovir ( Zovirax)

answer

used to treat genital herpes

question

cidofovir(Vistide)

answer

is used to treat cytomegalvirus

question

Vidarabine (Vira A)

answer

opthalamic agent

question

Diuretics

answer

have a tendency to remove potassium from body

question

DUE

answer

is mandated under OBRA 90

question

0.96 liters or 1 liter

answer

1 qt

question

The maximum #of different Sched II drugsallowed on a form 222 is

answer

question

USP DI, Volume II

answer

provides info to assist the pharmacist in counseling patients

question

Drug Facts & comparisons

answer

provide info on brand, generic, orphanand investigational meds It also provides drug monograms and drug identifications and calculations

question

USP DI, Volume I

answer

provides info for labeled and unlabeled use of meds

question

USP DI Volume III

answer

contains state and federal requirements of meds

question

Cocaine is a sched II drug

answer

MAOIs and SSRIs must not be taken together

question

Digoxin Lanoxin

answer

is a cardiac glycoside

question

diltiazem

answer

cortiazem

question

verapamil

answer

Isoptin

question

nifedipine

answer

Procardia

question

Chemotherapy products

answer

should be prepared in a horizontal flow hood

question

What type of ointment base is hydrous lanolin?

answer

Water/oil emulsion base

question

fluvastatin

answer

LEscol

question

pravastatin

answer

Pravachol

question

simvastatin

answer

Mevacor

question

Drugs used to treat COPD

answer

Albuterol Ipratropium bromide Salmeterol

question

Guaifensin

answer

is an expectorant

question

THE CMS

answer

replaced HCFA

question

For whom is trazodone contraindicated?

answer

For young men

question

Aseptic technique

answer

is used in the preparation of intraveneous products

question

Synergistic effect

answer

When two or more drugs combine to previde a response that is greater than the sum of two individual drugs

question

Cascara Sagrada

answer

herbal product used as laxative

question

Inventory

answer

merchandise available for sale

question

Home infusion therapies include

answer

Pain management chemotherapy Antiinfective agents

question

In what multiples of whaat # should tablets or capsules be counted with a spatula?

answer

question

1 gr

answer

65 mg

question

APAP

answer

possesses analgesic and antipyretic activity

question

Zyban

answer

smoking cessation aid

question

disulfiram

answer

will produce an adverse effectif alcohol is consumed during course of therapy

question

horizontal

answer

front to back

question

DAW code 2

answer

should be used if the physician authorizes the use of a generic drug but the patient request the brand name drug

question

Avandia

answer

rosiglitazone

question

pioglitazone

answer

Actos

question

glimepiride

answer

Amaryl

question

laminar flow hoods

answer

should be cleaned at the beginning of every shift

question

TJC

answer

establishes standards of care for hospitals and long term care facilities

question

Capoten

answer

is a beta blocker

question

Avapro, Cozaar and Diovan

answer

are angiotensin II agonists

question

Pharmokinetics

answer

the study of drugs within the body, absorption , distribution, metabolism, excretion

question

Pharmocology

answer

the study of how drugs work( mechanism of action)

question

DEA Form 222

answer

is valid 60 days after being written

question

Heparin i

answer

is available only as injectable solution

question

Beta Blockers

answer

will not interact with oral contraceptives

question

Subcutaneous injections should have angle of insertion

answer

45 degrees

question

Intradermal injections

answer

should have 10- 15 degree angle

question

Intramuscular injections should have

answer

90 degree angle

question

Class A balance

answer

is used to weigh quantities less than 120 mg

question

Counter balances

answer

can weigh up to 5 kg

question

Sublingual tablets

answer

bypass digestive system

question

Alkylating agents, antimetabolites, and hormones

answer

are agents used as antineoplastics

question

Used to treat gastrointestinal problems

answer

Antacids H receptor antagonist Proton Pump inhibitors

question

Econazole ( Spectazole)

answer

is an antifungal agent

question

dextromethorphan

answer

Non opoid cough suppressant

question

Benzonatate

answer

Tessalon Perles- should not be chewed

question

Retrovir

answer

Zidovudine

question

Spansules

answer

contain small pellets or beads

question

Auralgan

answer

is used to treat swimmers ear

question

Used to treat Vertigo

answer

Antivert Dramamine Transderm scop

question

itis

answer

inflammation

question

malacia

answer

softening

question

pathy

answer

disease

question

Albuterol

answer

an oral inhalation agent to relieve bronchospasms that should be shaken before used

question

chondr

answer

cartilage

question

myel

answer

bone morrow

question

Medicare

answer

largest single medical benefits program in the US

question

Ipecac

answer

an emetic that enduces vomiting

question

Emetrol ondansetron promethazine

answer

are antiemetics

question

Antidote for an excess of warfarin

answer

Phytonadione ( Vitamin k)

question

cefuroxine (Cefin)

answer

is a second generation cephalosporin

question

Fillers

answer

are used to increase the physical size of a tablet

question

Inscription

answer

medication being prescribed to the patient

question

Signa

answer

directions to the patient

question

Oral routes of administration undergo

answer

first pass effect

question

fibromyalgia

answer

pain of the muscles

question

capsules

answer

can be prepared by punch method

question

Epilepsy

answer

disease of the nerves

question

Taking both nitrotest and sildenafil

answer

will result in hypotension

question

Hard rubber spatula

answer

used in handling iodine

question

Dipentum

answer

osalazine

question

Rowasa

answer

can be either suppository or enema

question

Asacol

answer

is a tablet

question

Pentase

answer

is a capsule

question

Depakote

answer

divalproex

question

gabapentin

answer

Neurontin

question

primidone

answer

Mysoline

question

valproic acid

answer

Depakene

question

Laminar flow hoods

answer

reduce the risk of contaminating when preparing IV admixtures

question

Dept Of Labor

answer

oversees OSHA

question

PDR

answer

is published yearly

question

DSHEA 1994

answer

classified herbal productsas dietary supplements rather than medications

question

A chemo spill kit

answer

is essential in handling cytotoxic durg spills

question

Metformin tablets

answer

must be placed in child resistant containers

question

PSA

answer

prostate specific antigen

question

DEA Form 41

answer

to destroy controlled substances

question

resperidone

answer

psychosis

question

imipramine

answer

Tofranil

question

sildenafil citrate

answer

erectile dysfunction

question

fluticasone propronate

answer

asthma

question

PSA

answer

prostate specific antigen

question

ketek

answer

telithromycin

question

tolterodine

answer

urinary incontinence

question

desogestrel/ethinyl estradiol

answer

Mircette

question

Prilosec

answer

omeprazole

question

Ginseng

answer

increase energy, decrease stress

question

levoflaxin

answer

bacterial infection

question

Accutane

answer

isoretinoin

question

Lotensin

answer

benazepril

question

insulin lispro

answer

humalog

question

ibandronate

answer

osteoporosis

question

valsartan

answer

hypertension

question

valproate

answer

epilepsy

question

cortaid

answer

hydrocortisone

question

Effexor XR

answer

VENLAFAXINE

question

Toporol XL

answer

metaprolol

question

alprazolam

answer

Xanax

question

Dyazide or Maxzide

answer

may cause photosensitivity

question

Lorabid

answer

macrolide antibiotic

question

Keflex, Suprax, Vantin

answer

cephalosporin

question

Colchicine

answer

is used in the treatment of gout

question

NSAIDS

answer

celecoxib Ibuprofen oxaprozin

question

insulin syringes do not come in sizes greater tan

answer

1 cc

question

Phenazopyridine (pyridium)

answer

my discolor urine orange

question

NPTA

answer

founded run and promoted by pharmacy techs

question

OBRA 90 mandated

answer

DUE

question

Itraconazole

answer

uses pulse dosing

question

Diuretic

answer

reduces total pheriperal resistance in treatment of hypertension

question

auxilliary label

answer

strip label

question

2 methods of pharmacy claims submission to third party payer?

answer

Electronic and hard copy

question

Folic acid

answer

is necessary in the production of red blood cells

question

Generically equivalent drugs

answer

Chemically identical in strength, concentration dosage form and route of admnistration

question

Cardura

answer

NSAIDS

question

Estrace Fentanyl Nitroglycerin

answer

avaiilable as transdermal patch

question

Protamine SUlfate

answer

antidote for heparin

question

how long are schedule II drug records kept for

answer

7 years

question

How long are all other records kept for

answer

2 years

question

how many control schedules are there

answer

question

Schedule 1

answer

Each drug has a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the U.S

question

Schedule 2

answer

Has a high potential for abuse and may lead to physical or psychological dependence but also has a currently accepted medical use in the u.s. EX: Amphetamines,opium,cocaine, methadone

question

Schedule 3

answer

drugs potential for abuse is less than those in 1 and 2 and there is currently accepted medical use in U.S but abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence. EX: anabolic steroids, and various compounds containing limited quantities of narcotic substances such as codeine

question

Schedule 4

answer

Has a low potential for abuse relative to schedule 3 drugs and there is currently accepted medical use in the U.S but abuse may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence EX: Phenobarbital, the sedative chloral hydrate, and the anesthetic methohexital

question

Schedule 5

answer

low potential for abuse relative to schedule 4 drugs. compounds contaning limited amounts of a narcotic such as codeine

question

Where are Schedule 2 drugs usually kept

answer

Generally stored in a locked, tamper-proof narcotics cabinate

question

What is DEA Form 222

answer

Used to order C-I and C-II substances

question

What is DEA Form 106

answer

report of theft or loss of controlled substances

question

What is MedWatch

answer

FDA maintained which encourages health care professionals to report adverse effects that occur from the use of and approved drug or other medical products

question

Adverse effect

answer

an unintended side effect of a medication that is negative in some way injurious to a patients health

question

recall

answer

the action taken to remove a drug from the market and have it returned to the manufacturer

question

how many classes of recalls are there and what is the most serious

answer

3 classes and class 1

question

Class 1 recall

answer

where there is a strong likelihood that the product will cause serious adverse effects or death

question

Class 2 recall

answer

the product may cause temporary but reversible adverse effects, or in which there is little likelihood of serious adverse effects

question

Class 3 recall

answer

Where a product is not likely to cause adverse effects

question

What is JCAHO

answer

an independent non-profit organization that establishes standards and monitors compliance for nearly twenty thousand health care programs in the U.S

question

Before a drug can be marketed

answer

It must be shown through testing that it is safe and effective for its intended use.

question

where dose digitalis come from and what is is most commonly used to treat

answer

The foxglove plant and treating heart disease

question

What is the Human Genome project

answer

an attempt to map the entire DNA sequence in the human genome.

question

Pharmacology

answer

The study of drugs-their properties, uses, application, and effects

question

Pharmacognosy

answer

the study of physical, chemical, biochemical, and biological properties of drugs as well as the search for new drugs from natural sources

question

pharmacopeia

answer

an authoritative listing of drugs and issues relating to their use

question

pharmaceutical

answer

of or about drugs; also, a drug product.

question

hormones

answer

chemical produced by the body that regulate body functions and proceses

question

1970 controlled substance act(CSA)

answer

The CSA classifies five levels of drugs (controlled substances) that have potential for abuse and therefore restricts their distribution

question

1970 poison prevention packaging act

answer

requires child-proof packaging on all controlled and most prescription drugs

question

1938 Food, Drug and cosmetic (FDC) Act

answer

in response to the fatal poisoning of 107 people. This comprehensive law requires new drug be shown to be safe before marketing

question

1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment

answer

This law defines what drugs require a prescription by a licensed practitioner and require the legend on its label

question

Legend drug

answer

any drug which requires a prescription and either of these "legends" on the label: "Caution Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription," or "Rx only"

question

How many testing phases are there in humans

answer

question

Phase 1

answer

20-100 patients, time:several months, purpose:mainly safety

question

Phase 2

answer

up to several hundred patients, time:several months to two years, purpose:short-term safety but mainly effectiveness

question

Phase 3

answer

several hundred to several thousand patients, time: one to four years, purpose:safety, dosage, and effectiveness

question

How long is a drug patent in effect for

answer

17 years from the date of the drugs discovery (Book) or 20 years from date patent filed (Packet)

question

Hatch-Waxman Act of 1984

answer

To provide up to five year extensions of patent protection to the paten holders to make up for time lost while products went through the FDA approval process

question

Pharmaceutical equivalent

answer

drug products that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients in the same dosage form

question

therapeutic equivalent

answer

pharmaceutical equivalents that produce the same effects in patients

question

product labeling

answer

important associated information that is not on the label of a drug product itself, but is provided with the product in the form of an insert, brochure, or other document

question

Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act

answer

sets daily and monthly restrictions (3.6 grams per day and 7.5 grams per month)

question

What dose Each Set of NDC Numbers indicate

answer

First Set: Manufacturer Second set: Indicates the medication, its strength, and dosage form Third Set: indicated package size

question

minimum requirements on prescription labels for most drugs

answer

name and address of dispenser, prescription serial number, date of prescription or filing, expiration date, name of prescriber

question

Systolic phase

answer

the blood pressure as the heart is pumping blood into the cardiovascular system

question

diastolic phase

answer

the blood pressure after the heart has completed a pumping stroke

question

Alveoli

answer

a part of the lungs where gases are exchanged between blood and the air

question

nephron

answer

the functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing wastes from the blood and producing urine

question

extemporaneous compounding

answer

the on-demand preparation of a drug product according to a physicians prescription, formula, or recipe

question

local effect

answer

when drug activity is at the site of administration

question

systemic effect

answer

when a drug is introduced into the venous (circulatory) system and carried to the site of activity

question

enteral route

answer

refers to anything involving the alimentary tract i.e. from the mouth to the tectum

question

What are the 4 enteral routes of administration

answer

oral, sublingual, buccal, and rectal

question

parental administration

answer

refers to any sites of administration that are outside of or beside the alimentary tract

question

what are the 7 routes of parenteral administration

answer

intraocular, intranasal, inhalation, intravenous, intramuscular, intradermal, and dermal

question

disintegration

answer

the breaking apart of a tablet into smaller pieces

question

dissolution

answer

when the smaller pieces of a disintegrated tablet dissole in solution

question

Solutions

answer

a clear liquid made up of one or more ingredients dissolved in a solvent

question

solvent

answer

a liquid that can dissolve another substance to form a solution

question

emulsions

answer

mixture of two liquids that do not mix with each other in which one liquid is dispersed through the other by using a stabilizer called an emulsifier

question

Suspensions

answer

are formulations in which the drug dose not completely dissolve in the solvent

question

Sterile

answer

a sterile condition is one which is free of all microorganisms, both harmful and harmless

question

Buffer system

answer

ingredients in a formulation designed to control pH

question

diluent

answer

a solvent that dissolves a freeze dried powder or dilutes a solution

question

biocompatibility

answer

not irritating: does not promote infection or abscess

question

percutaneous absorption

answer

the absorption of drugs through the skin, often a systemic effect

question

Vaginal dosage forms

answer

(e.g. suppositories, tablets, solutions) most often used for local effect. however long term systemic effects can be achieved with IUD

question

Dermal Formulations

answer

vary from gels and lotions aerosols, ointments, and pastes. Transdermal patches are also common dosage form

question

Inhalation dosage forms

answer

deliver drugs to the lungs. MDI aerosols, dry powder inhalers, and nebulizers are common devises used to administer drugs through this route

question

Intranasal administration

answer

of some drugs produce blood concentrations similar to where the drug is intravenously administered

question

intradermal administration

answer

used for diagnostics, desensitization, and immunization

question

Subcutaneous route

answer

can be used for both short term and long term therapies. insulin is the most important drug routinely administered by this route

question

Intramuscular injections

answer

generally result in lower but longer lasting blood concentrations than with intravenous administration

question

aseptic techniques

answer

techniques or methods that maintain the sterile condition of products

question

pyrogens

answer

Chemicals produced by microorganisms that can cause pyretic(fever) reactions in patients

question

osmotic pressure

answer

a characteristic of a solution determined by the number of dissolved particles in it

question

isotonic

answer

when a solution has an osmolarity equivalent to that of blood

question

hypertonic

answer

solution has greater osmolarity than blood

question

hypotonic

answer

when a solution has a lesser osmolarity than blood

question

Large Volume Parental Solutions (LVP)

answer

are intravenous solutions packaged in containers holding 100ml or more

question

what are common uses of LVP solutions without aditives

answer

include correction of electrolyte and fluid balance disturbances, nutrition, and vehicles for a administering other drugs

question

Compound sterile preparation

answer

a compounded sterile parenteral dosage form that will be parenterally administered

question

Chapter

answer

provides guidelines for the development and implication of essential policies and procedures for the safe preparation of CSPs

question

Small volume parental solutions (SVP)

answer

are usually packaged products that are either directly administered to a patient or added to another parenteral formulation

question

additive

answer

a drug that is added to a parenteral solution

question

admixture

answer

the resulting solution when a drug is added to a parenteral solution

question

ready-to-mix

answer

a specially designed mini bag where a drug is put into the SVP just prior to administration.

question

Total parenteral nutrition solution (TPN)

answer

complex solutions with two base solutions (amino acids and dextrose) and additional micro-nutrients

question

Total nutrient admixture solution (TNA)

answer

a TPN solution that contains intravenous fat emulsion

question

Peritoneal dialysis solution

answer

a solution placed in and emptied from the peritoneal cavity to remove toxic substances

question

irrigation solution

answer

large volume splash solutions used during surgical or urologic procedures to bathe and moisten body tissue

question

osmosis

answer

the action in which a drug in a higher concentration solution passes through a permeable membrane to a lower concentration solution

question

dialysis

answer

movement of particles in a solution through permeable membranes

question

what are the parts of a needle

answer

hub, shaft, bevel, and lumen

question

hub

answer

the part of the needle that attaches to the syringe

question

shaft

answer

the stem of the needle that provides the overall length of the needle

question

bevel

answer

an angled surface at the tip of a needle

question

gauge

answer

a measurement with needles: the higher the gauge, the smaller the lumen

question

lumen

answer

the hollow center of a needle

question

depth filter

answer

a filter that can filter solutions being drawn into or expelled from a syringe but not both ways in the same precedure

question

membrane filter

answer

a filter that filters solution as the solution is expelled from the syringe

question

final filter

answer

a filter placed immediately before a solution enters a patients vein

question

flow rate

answer

the rate at which the solution is administered to the patient

question

piggybacks

answer

small volume solutions connected to an LVP

question

heparin lock

answer

an administration device used when a primary LVP solution is not available

question

USP/NF

answer

regulations require that every parenteral compounding facility to have a quality assurance program

question

Chapter

answer

regulations from USP/NF pertaining to the nonsterile compounding of formulations

question

Chapter

answer

regulations from USP/NF pertaining to the sterile compounding of formulations

question

formulation record

answer

formulas and procedures for what should happen when a formulation is compounded

question

compounding record

answer

a record of what actually happened when the formulation was compounded

question

expiration date

answer

required on commercially manufactured products and are determined after extensive study of products stability

question

Beyond-use dates

answer

used for compounded preparations only

question

What is the minimum weighable quantity a Class A balance can have

answer

120mg

question

What is the maximum weighable quantity a Class A balance can have

answer

60grams

question

aliquot

answer

a portion of a mixture

question

calibrate

answer

to set mark or check the graduations of a measuring devise

question

sensitivity

answer

the amount of weight that will move the balance pointer one division mark on the marker plate

question

what side should the material to be weighed be on

answer

the left pan

question

what side should the weights be placed on

answer

the right pan

question

what is the preferred pipet for compounding

answer

calibrated pipet

question

geometric dilution

answer

a technique for mixing two powders of unequal quantity

question

levigation

answer

triturating a powder drug with a solvent in which it is insoluble to reduce its particle size

question

flocculating agent

answer

electrolytes used in the preparation of suspensions to form particles that can be easily redispersed

question

thickening agent

answer

an ingredient used in the preparation of suspensions to increase the viscosity of the liquid

question

immiscible

answer

cannot be mixed

question

emulsifier

answer

a stabilizing agent in emulsions

question

water-in-oil emulsion

answer

an emulsion in which water is dispersed through an oil base

question

oil-in-water emulsion

answer

an emulsion in which oil is dispersed through a water base

question

hydrophilic emulsifier

answer

a stabilizing agent for water based dispersion mediums

question

lipophilic emulsifier

answer

a stabilizing agent for oil based dispersion mediums

question

what is the continental method

answer

one of the methods for preparing emulsions. also known as the Dry Gum Method

question

Primary Emulsion

answer

the initial emulsion to which ingredients are added to create the final product

question

Compression molding

answer

a method of making suppositories in which the ingredients are compressed in a mold

question

fusion molding

answer

a suppository preparation method in which the active ingredients are dispersed or dissolved in a melted suppository base

question

what is the objective of Drug Therapy

answer

to deliver the right drug in the right concentration to the right site of action, and at the right time to produce the desired effect

question

site of action

answer

the location where and administered drug produces and effect

question

receptor

answer

the cellular material located at the site of action that interacts with the drug

question

selective (action)

answer

the characteristic of a drug that makes its action specific to certain receptors and tissues

question

agonists

answer

drugs that activate receptors to accelerate or slow normal cellular function

question

antagonists

answer

drugs that bind with receptors but do not activate them. they block receptor action by preventing other drugs or substances from activating them

question

biopharmaceutics

answer

the study of the factors associated with drug products and physiological processes and the resulting systemic concentrations of drugs

question

minimum effective concentration (MEC)

answer

the blood concentration needed for a drug to produce a response

question

onset of action

answer

the time MEC is reached and the response occurs

question

therapeutic window

answer

a drugs blood concentration range between its MEC and MTC

question

minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

answer

the upper limit of the therapeutic window. Drug concentrations above the MTC increase the risk of undesired effects

question

duration of action

answer

the time drug concentration is above the MEC

question

What dose ADME stand for

answer

absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion

question

Half-life

answer

the amount of time it takes for the blood concentration of a drug to decline one-half an initial value

question

disposition

answer

a term sometimes used to refer to all of the ADME processes together

question

elimination

answer

the processes of metabolism and excretion

question

unionized drugs

answer

are more lipid soluble and penetrate biological membranes more easily than ionized drugs

question

ionized drugs

answer

associate with water molecules, creating larger particles with reduced penetrating capability

question

passive diffusion

answer

the movement of drugs from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration

question

active transport

answer

the movement of drugs from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration

question

absorption

answer

the movement of a drug from the dosage formulation to the blood

question

gastric emptying time

answer

the time a drug will stay in the stomach before it is emptied into the small intestine

question

protein binding

answer

the attachment of a drug molecule to a plasma or tissue protein, effectively making the drug inactive but also keeping it within the body

question

metabolite

answer

the substance resulting from the bodies transformation of an administered drug

question

enzyme

answer

a complex protein that catalyzes chemical reactions

question

enzyme induction

answer

the increase in hepatic enzyme activity that results in greater metabolism of drugs

question

enzyme inhibition

answer

the decrease in hepatic enzyme activity that results in reduced metabolism of drugs

question

enterohepatic cycling

answer

the transfer of drugs and their metabolites from the liver to the bile in the gallbladder then into the intestine and then back into circulation

question

first-pass metabolism

answer

the substance degradation of an orally administered drug caused by enzyme metabolism in the liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation

question

pharmaceutical equivalent

answer

drug products that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredient in the same dosage form

question

pharmaceutical alternative

answer

drug products that contain the same ACTIVE INGREDIENTS but not necessarily in the same salt form, amount, or dosage form

question

therapeutic equivalent

answer

pharmaceutical equivalents that produce the same effects in patients

question

bioavailability

answer

the relative amount of an administered dose that reaches the general circulation and the rate at which this occurs

question

bioequivalency

answer

the comparison of bioavailability btwn two dosage forms

question

pharmacogenetics

answer

a field of study which defines the hereditary basis of individual distribution metabolism and excretion

question

adverse drug reaction

answer

an unintended side effect of a medication that is negative or in some way injurous to a patients health

question

idiosyncrasy

answer

an unexpected reaction the first time a drug is taken generally due to genetic causes

question

complexation

answer

when two different molecules associate or attach to each other

question

displacement

answer

a drug that is bound to a plasma protein is removed when another drug of greater binding potential binds to the same protein

question

additive effects

answer

the summation in effect when two drugs with similar pharmacological actions are taken

question

synergism

answer

when two drugs with similar pharmacological actions produce greater effects than the sum of individual effects

question

potentiation

answer

when one drug with no inherent activity of its own increases the activity of another drug that produces an effect

question

primary literature

answer

original reports of clinical and other types of research projects and studies

question

secondary literature

answer

general reference works based upon primary literature sources

question

tertiary literature

answer

condensed works based on primary literature such as textbooks,monographs,etc

question

Drug Facts and Comparisons

answer

used to compare medications in the same therapeutic class

question

Martindale, The Complete Drug Reference

answer

Used to research foreign drugs

question

AHFS Drug Information

answer

Used when investigating off label medication indications

question

Handbook on Injectable Drugs

answer

includes info on preparation, storage, administration, compatibility, and drug stability of injectable drugs

question

Red Book

answer

provides the latest pricing information, including nationally recognized AWP's and suggested retail prices for OTC products

question

Orange Book

answer

the common name for the FDA's Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence

question

In the Orange Book what dose Code A stand for

answer

are considered equivalent

question

In the Orange Book what dose Code B stand for

answer

Documented as nonequivalent

question

American Drug Index

answer

Use this reference to find trade and generic names

question

Merk Index

answer

Use when information on chemical attributes of drugs is needed

question

Physicians Desk Reference

answer

the info is similar the pharmaceutical manufactures drug package inserts since manufactures prepare the essential drug info found in the PDR

question

How often is Remington published

answer

every 5 years

question

formulary

answer

a list of medications approved for use

question

open formulary

answer

a system that allows a pharmacy to use an prescribed medications

question

closed formulary

answer

a limited list of approved medications

question

therapeutic equivalent

answer

pharmaceutical equivalents that produce the same effects in patients

question

perpetual inventory

answer

a system that maintains a continuous record of every item in inventory so that it always shows the current amount of stock on hand

question

point of sale system

answer

an inventory system in which the item is deducted from inventory as it is sold or dispensed

question

reorder points

answer

minimum and maximum stock levels which determine when a reorder is placed and for how much

question

what is Backer Cells and example of

answer

an automated counting/filling device

question

what is Parata RDS

answer

robotic dispensing machine

question

what is Homerus and example of

answer

a centralized robotic unit dose dispensing device

question

Automated dispensing system

answer

a system in which medications are dispensed upon confirmation of an order communicated from a centralized computer system at their point-of-use

question

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

answer

OSHA required notices on hazardous substances which provide hazard handling clean-up, and first aid info

question

unit-dose packaging

answer

a package containing a single dose of a medication

question

what should the temperature of refrigeration usually be

answer

40-42 F

question

Room Temperature

answer

59-86 F

question

What dose each Unit-dose package contain

answer

name of the drug, strength, and the expiration date

question

Pharmacy benefit managers

answer

companies that administer drug benefit programs

question

online adjudication

answer

the resolution of prescription coverage through the communication of the pharmacy computer with the third party computer

question

co-insurance

answer

an agreement for cost-sharing btwn the insurer and the insured

question

co-pay

answer

the portion of the price of medication that the patient is required to pay

question

maximum allowable cost(MAC)

answer

the maximum price per tablet an insurer or PBM will pay for the given product

question

dual co-pay

answer

co-pays that have two prices: one for generic and one for brand medications

question

deductible

answer

a set amount that must be paid by the patient for each benefit period before the insurer will cover additional expences

question

prescription drug benefit cards

answer

cards that contain third party billing information for prescription drug purchases

question

tier

answer

categories of medications that are covered by third party plans

question

HMOs

answer

a network of providers for which costs are covered inside but not outside the network

question

POSs

answer

a network of providers where the patients primary care physician must be a member and costs outside the network may be partially reimbursed

question

PPOs

answer

a network of providers where costs outside the network may be partially reimbursed and the patients primary care physician need not be a member

question

patient assistance programs

answer

manufacturer sponsored prescription drug programs for the needy

question

Medicare Part A

answer

basically covers inpatient hospital expenses for patients who meet certain conditions

question

Medicare Part B

answer

Basically covers Drs services as well as some other medical services not covered by part A

question

Universal claim form

answer

a standard claim form accepted by many insurers

question

CMS-1500

answer

The standard form used by health care providers such as physicians to bill for services

question

CMS-10114 form

answer

The standard form used by health care providers to apply for a National Ptovider Identifier

question

Medication Therapy Management Services

answer

services provided to some medicare beneficiaries who are enrolled in Medicare Part D and who are taking multiple medications or have certain diseases

question

Prescription Drug Plans

answer

third party programs from Medicare Part D

question

Independent Pharmacies

answer

individually owned local pharmacies

question

chain pharmacies

answer

regional or national pharmacy chains such as CVS

question

Mass Merchandiser Pharmacies

answer

regional or national mass merchandise chains such as target

question

mark-up

answer

the difference btwn the retailers purchase price and their sale price

question

unit price

answer

the price of a unit of medication such as one ounce of a liquid cold remedy

question

in-patient pharmacy

answer

a pharmacy located in a hospital which services only those patients in the hospital and its ancillary areas

question

pharmacy satellite

answer

a branch of the in-patient pharmacy responsible for preparing dispensing and monitoring medication for specific patient areas

question

Central pharmacy

answer

the main in-patient pharmacy in a hospital that has pharmacy satellites it is the place where most of the hospitals medications are prepared and stored

question

outpatient pharmacy

answer

a pharmacy attached to a hospital which services patients who have left the hospital or who are visiting doctors in a hospital outpatient clinic

question

batching

answer

preparation of large quantities of unit-dose oral solutions/suspensions or small volume parenterals for future use

question

bulk compounding log

answer

a record of medications that are compounded in the pharmacy for non-specific patients. information must include a list of all the ingredients amounts used manufacturer lot numbers and expiration dates of each specific ingredient

question

reconstitute

answer

addition of water or other diluent to commercially made drug bottles or vials in order to make a solution or suspension from a pre-made powder form of the drug. this may include oral or parental products

question

extemporaneous compounds

answer

medications which must e prepared following a specific recipe or formula usually because they are not available commercially

question

unit dose

answer

a package containing the amount of a drug required for one dose

question

intravenous piggyback

answer

a small volume parenteral that will be added into or "piggybacked" into a large volume Parenteral

question

blocker

answer

another term for an antagonist drug because antagonists block the action of neurotransmitters

question

mimetic

answer

another term for agonist because agonists imitate or mimic the action of the neurotransmitter

question

anthelmintics

answer

drugs that destroy worms

question

protease inhibitor

answer

an antiviral used for HIV and Hepatitis C that blocks the enzyme responsible for viral replication

question

Beta blockers

answer

drugs that reduce the oxygen demands of the heart muscle -olol

question

Calcium channel blockers

answer

drugs that relax the heart by reducing heart conduction -pine

question

Diuretics

answer

decrease blood pressure by decreasing blood volume

question

Ace Inhibitors

answer

relax blood vessels -pril -sartan

question

Vasodilators

answer

relax and expand the blood vessels

question

Antianginals

answer

used to treat cardiac related chest pain resulting from ischemic heart disease

question

Antiarrhythmics

answer

used to treat irregular heart rhythms

question

Anthyperlipidemics

answer

used to lower high levels of cholesterol that can lead to blocked blood vessels

question

Antihypertensives

answer

used to reduce a sustained elevation in blood pressure

question

Thrombolytics

answer

dissolve blood clots

question

Anticoagulants

answer

prevent formation of blood clots

question

Vasopressors

answer

act to increase blood pressure

question

dissociation

answer

when a compound breaks down and separates into smaller components

question

electrolytes

answer

a substance that in solution forms ions that conduct an electrical current

question

extracellular fluid

answer

the fluid outside the bodys individual cells found in plasma and tissue fluid

question

Antiemetics

answer

Treat nausea and vomiting

question

hematopoietics

answer

drugs used to treat anemia

question

hemostatic drugs

answer

drugs the prevent excessive bleeding

question

topical hemostatics

answer

drugs used for minor bleeding when sutures are not apporpiate

question

gout

answer

a painful inflammatory condition in which excess uric acid accumulates in the joints

question

rheumatoid arthritis

answer

a chronic and often progressive inflammatory condition with symptoms that include swelling feelings of warmth and joint pain

question

osteoarthritis

answer

a disorder characterized by weight-bearing bone deterioration decreasing range of motion pain and deformity

question

uricosuric drugs

answer

drugs used to treat gout that increase the elimination of uric acid

question

What dose the first set of NDC numbers indicate?

answer

Manufacturer

question

What dose the Second set of NDC numbers indicate?

answer

The medication, its strength, and dosage form

question

What dose the third set of NDC numbers Indicate?

answer

Package size

question

How much NaCL dose normal saline contain?

answer

0.9%

STUDY

Medical Terminology Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Chapter 21 – Pharmacology – Flashcards 109 terms

Jacob Herring

109 terms

Preview

Chapter 21 – Pharmacology – Flashcards

question

Study of the interaction of drugs and subcellular entities such as enzymes and DNA is called

answer

Molecular pharmacology

question

Finding proper antidotes to the harmful effects of drugs is part of the specialty of

answer

Toxicology

question

Which of the following is a drug generic name

answer

Ampicillin

question

Which agency holds the legal responsibility for deciding whether a drug may be distributed and sold

answer

FDA ( Food and Drug Administration)

question

The combination of two drugs can cause an effect that is greater than the sum of the individual effects

answer

Synergism

question

Insertion of suppositories are

answer

Rectal adminstration

question

Drugs are swallowed and absorbed through the intestinal tract

answer

Oral

question

Drugs are injected through a syringe into a muscle, vein or body cavity

answer

Parenteral administration

question

Aerosols are administered in this way

answer

Inhalation

question

Drugs are applied on the skin

answer

Topical

question

What is anaphylaxis

answer

A type of hypersensitivity reaction

question

Drugs that block release of a substance that causes allergic reactions are called

answer

Antihistamines

question

Morphine

answer

Analgesic drug

question

Beta-blocker

answer

Cardiovascular drug

question

Heparin

answer

Anticoagulant drug

question

Estrogen

answer

Endocrine drug

question

Amphetamine and caffiene

answer

Stimulant drug

question

What is the effect of a diuretic

answer

Lowers blood pressure by promoting fluid excretion from the kidney

question

Penicillin is an example of which type of drug

answer

Antibiotic

question

A drug that works against fever is

answer

Antipyretic

question

Drugs that control anxiety and severe disturbances of behavior

answer

Tranquilizers

question

Drugs that relax without necessarily producing sleep

answer

Sedatives

question

Drugs used to relieve pain, induce sleep and suppress cough

answer

Analgesic

question

Drugs that produce loss of sensation throughout the entire body

answer

Anesthetics

question

Drugs to treat epilepsy

answer

Anticonvulsants

question

Agent that excites and promotes activity

answer

Stimulant

question

Drug that promotes vomiting

answer

Emetic

question

Drug that relieves chest pain

answer

Antianginal

question

Hypersensitivity reaction

answer

Anaphylaxis

question

Drug that is given by injection

answer

Parenteral

question

Legal, non-commercial name for a drug

answer

Generic

question

Harmful effects of a drug

answer

Toxicity

question

Drug that relieves pain

answer

Analgesic

question

Drugs that are applied locally on the skin

answer

Topical

question

Drug that restores heart to a regular cycle

answer

Antiarrhythmic

question

Unexpected effect produced in a sensitive individual, but not seen in most patients

answer

Idiosyncrasy

question

Agent given to counteract an unwanted effect of a drug

answer

Antidote

question

Harmful effects of a drug

answer

Toxicity

question

Drug action in which the combination of two drugs causes an effect that is greater than the sum of the individual effects of each drug alone

answer

Synergism

question

Central nervous system (CNS) stimulant

answer

Amphetamine

question

Drug that relieves constipation

answer

Cathartic

question

Drug that stops the action of epinephrine at sites on receptors of heart muscle cells

answer

Beta-blocker

question

Drug that lowers body temperature

answer

Antipyretic

question

Antibiotic substance

answer

Erythromycin

question

Pertaining to the delivery of a drug within the membranes lining the spinal cord

answer

Intrathecal

question

Factor in the patients condition that prevents the use of a drug or treatment

answer

Contraindication

question

Drug that acts as a sedative

answer

Benzodiazapine

question

Pertaining to killing microorgansms

answer

Bactericidal

question

Drug that prevents abnormal brain activity

answer

Anticonvulsant

question

Drug that opens airways

answer

Bronchodilator

question

Particles of drug suspended in air

answer

Aerosol

question

Tube for introducing or withdrawing fluids

answer

Syringe

question

Drug that prevents vomiting and nausea

answer

Antinauseant

question

Pertaining to giving a drug by injection into the skin. muscles or veins

answer

Parenteral

question

Drug that blocks the action of histamine and helps prevent symptoms of allergy

answer

Antihistamine

question

Anthistamine

answer

Relieves allergic symptoms

question

Analgesic

answer

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)

question

Stimulant

answer

Caffeine or amphetamines

question

Sedative

answer

Phenothiazines

question

Tranquilizer

answer

Barbiturate

question

Antidiabetic

answer

Insulin

question

Antibiotic

answer

Penicillin or erythromycin

question

Drug that widens blood vessels

answer

Vasodilator

question

Drug that reduces blood pressure

answer

Antihypertensive

question

Drug that strengthens the force and efficiency of the heartbeat

answer

Digoxin

question

Drugs the narrows blood vessels

answer

Vasoconstrictor

question

Drug that prevents chest pain due to ischemia

answer

Antianginal

question

Drug that reduces lipids in blood

answer

Cholesterol lowering drug

question

Drug that promotes excretion of urine, lowering blood pressure

answer

Diuretic

question

Anticonvulsant

answer

Epilepsy

question

Antocoagulant

answer

Thrombosis

question

Antacid

answer

Epigastric discomfort

question

Antibiotic

answer

Bacterial pneumonia

question

Tranquilizer

answer

Severe behavior disturbances and anxiety

question

Analgesic

answer

Myalgia

question

Digoxin

answer

Congestive heart failure

question

Antihistamine

answer

Anaphylaxis

question

Antihypertensive

answer

High blood pressure

question

Progestins

answer

Abnormal uterine bleeding due to hormonal imbalance

question

Amphetamine

answer

Central nervous system stimulant

question

Antiemetic

answer

Agent that acts against vomiting

question

Diuretic

answer

Agent that lowers blood pressure by increasing the release of urine

question

Narcotic

answer

Habit forming drug that produces sleep and stupr

question

Hypodermic

answer

Pertaining to under the skin

question

Erythromycin

answer

Antibiotic

question

Laxative

answer

Drug that relieves constipation

question

Analgesic

answer

Drug that relieves pain

question

Toxicity

answer

Harmful effects of drugs

question

Additive action

answer

Combination of two similar drugs is equal to the sum of the effects of each

question

Commercial name for a drug; trademark or trade name

answer

Brand name

question

Exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction to a previously encountered drug or foreign protein

answer

Anaphylaxis

question

Physical and psychological dependence on and craving for a drug

answer

Addiction

question

Particle of a drug suspended in air

answer

Aerosol

question

Chemical formula for a drug

answer

Chemical name

question

Factor in patient's condition that prevents the use of a particular drug or treatment

answer

Contraindication

question

Legal, noncommercial name for a drug

answer

Generic name

question

Combination of two drugs give less than an additive effect

answer

Antagonistic action

question

Agent given to counteract an unwanted effect of a drug

answer

Antidote

question

Drug action on which the combination of two similar drugs is equal to the sum of the effects of each

answer

Additive action

question

Study of new drug synthesis; relationship between chemical structure and biological effect

answer

Medicinal chemistry

question

Condition caused by treatment given by physicians or medical personnel

answer

Iatrogenic

question

Drugs are given by mouth

answer

Oral administration

question

Administration of drugs in gaseous or vapor form through the nose or mouth

answer

Inhalation

question

Drugs are given by injection into the skin, muscles or veins

answer

Parenteral administration

question

Study of interaction of drugs and their target molecules, enzymes or cell surface receptors

answer

Molecular pharmacology

question

Location for preparing and dispensing drugs

answer

Pharmacy

question

Specialist in preparing and dispensing drugs

answer

Pharmacist

question

Study of the effects and strength of a drug within the body

answer

Pharmacodynamics

question

Drugs are inserted through the anus into the rectum

answer

Rectal administration

STUDY

Coronary Artery Bypass Graft Pharmacology

Premature Infant Case Study – Flashcards 18 terms

Gracie Stone

18 terms

Preview

Premature Infant Case Study – Flashcards

question

betamethasome

answer

Increases fetal lung maturity less than 34 weeks gestation. Classification is a corticosteroid - antiinflammatory and immunosupressant - given 12-24 hrs before delivery. Given to prevent RDS.

question

Premature Newborn preparing for resuscitation

answer

This is critical in preparing for a preterm birth. At 30 weeks, premature fetal lung immaturity, poor development of pulmonary vasculature and possible delayed closure of the ductus arteriosis related to hypoxia are critical factors related to the development of Neonatal Respiratory Distress.

question

Radiant Warmer

answer

Open bed with overhead heating source to warm the baby. So the baby will not lose more heat during the drying process post bathing.

question

Why is the premature neonate having trouble breathing?

answer

Lack of surfactant needed to keep aveoli open.

question

Repiratory Acidosis

answer

if the cause of the pH is below 7.35 from repiratory its called Respiratory Acidosis

question

Respiratory Alkalosis

answer

Always due to hyperventilation

question

decrease of CO2

answer

respiratory alkalosis

question

increase of CO2

answer

Respiratory acidois

question

Consistent finding of a 30 week gestational premature infant.

answer

Pinna of the ears is flexible and folds forward easily.

question

Patent ductus arteriosis

answer

Acyanotic (left to right shunt). Ascultated Pulmonary crackles would be an expected finding. Upper left sternal border is where you want to auscultate.

question

Indomethacin

answer

Agent used for closure of patent ductus arteriosus.

question

Epogen

answer

is a human recombinant erythropoieitin that stimulates erythroieesis and subsequently increases hematocrit and hemoglobin.

question

Do not bend the premature infants legs

answer

when changing the diapers.

question

NEC risk factors

answer

Delayed gastiric emptying will result in increased gastric residual. One of the first S/S of malabsorption and feeding intolerance.

question

Inserting a tube for oral gastric feedings

answer

measure the tubing from the ear to the xyphoid process

question

Gavage feedings

answer

Some infants need this. This involves passing a feeding tube through the nose or mouth, down the esophagus, and into the stomach. Initiates vagal stimulation which causes bradycardia . Pausing the feedings usually decreases the vagal nerve stimulation and the HR will return to normal.

question

Primary administration of caffiene

answer

A decrease in Apneic events.

question

Premature babies often tire

answer

and stop nursing before they get enough.

STUDY

Gram Positive Bacteria Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

RMA CH 19 – Flashcard 25 terms

Ewan Knight

25 terms

Preview

RMA CH 19 – Flashcard

question

Cefazoline is a type of

answer

Cephalosporin

question

Codeine is an example of what kind of drug?

answer

narcotic analgesic

question

Which of the following is a sedative?

answer

Barbiturate

question

Amantadine is classified as

answer

antiviral

question

Which route is involved in administering a drug by placing it under the patient's tongue and leaving it there until it is dissolved?

answer

sublingual route

question

Pentobarbital is a type of

answer

barbiturate

question

In the Physician's Desk Reference, the index of brand names and generic names for drugs is found in which section?

answer

pink

question

A controlled drug inventory must be completed at least every

answer

2 years

question

A drug that induces birth defects is known as a(n)

answer

teratogen

question

A chemical substance that interferes with the development of bacterial organisms is

answer

antibiotic

question

Estrogen is often prescribed to treat

answer

osteoporosis

question

Which of the following is not a bacteriostatic antibiotic?

answer

penicillin

question

The formula that explains the composition of the drug is known as its

answer

chemical name

question

Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical uses are classified in Schedule

answer

question

The amount of time required for 50% of a drug to be eliminated from the body is called

answer

half-life

question

Heroin is an example of a drug from which schedule?

answer

Schedule I

question

Cytomel is a type of

answer

Thyroid agent

question

What drug is prescribed for the treatment of manic episodes?

answer

lithium

question

The combined effect of two drugs that is less than the effect of either drug taken alone is called

answer

antagonism

question

The study of natural drugs is called

answer

pharmacognosy

question

Which part of a prescription contains the patient's name address, date, and the symbol for Rx?

answer

superscription

question

Which of the following is a main use of rifampin?

answer

both treatment of tuberculosis and prevention of meningococci outbreaks

question

A medical assistant might e required to collect information about a patient's

answer

alcohol and recreational drug use allergies herbal medicines all of these

question

Which of the following is not an adrenergic drug?

answer

neostigmine

question

A solution of water, sugar, and a drug is called

answer

a syrup

STUDY

Nursing Pharmacology Surgery White Blood Cell Count

Care Case Study (1)-Perioperative Care – Flashcards 28 terms

Kieran Carr

28 terms

Preview

Care Case Study (1)-Perioperative Care – Flashcards

question

The nurse begins the preoperative assessment by taking vital signs. Which vital sign requires follow up by the nurse?

answer

BP 160/88-it's elevated (and requires further action by nurse)

question

Nurse reviews meds taken by pt. Pt states she is taking 2: hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril), a diuretic, and warfarin (Coumadin), an anticoagulant, every day for more than a year. What nursing action is most important?

answer

Explain the need to withhold warfarin prior to surgery (anticoagulants increase risk for bleeding during surgery and postoperative period, so nurse must explain the need to withhold.

question

The nurse then reviews pt's preoperative lab test results drawn earlier in the week? What serum lab value requires follow-up by nurse?

answer

WBC of 14,000/mm^3- normal is 5-10,000/mm^3 increase can indicate onset of infection (C/I to surgery)-notify surgeon of abnormal lab value

question

Nurse talks with pt about what to expect the day of surgery and during immediate postop period. The nurse provides instructions regarding cough/deep breathing through mouth and exhale forcefully through pursed lips. What action should nurse implement?

answer

demonstrate deep breathing and coughing technique again (Pt demonstrated incorrect technique)

question

When the nurse begins teaching about benefits of early mobilization following surgery, pt states, "oh, I know if I stayin bed very long I will get bedsores." How should nurse respond?

answer

Bedsores are one of many problems that can occur from prolonged bedrest-others--thrombus formation, constipation, atelectasis

question

Nurse discusses postop pain management with pt and explains use of patient-controlled analgesia pump (PCA). Pt expresses fear that she might accidentally overdose herself, since she will be sleepy after surgery. How should nurse respond?

answer

The pump has a control device that prevents you from taking too much medicine

question

While discussing postop pain management strategies with pt, nurse observes pt begins to cry. What action should nurse take?

answer

quietly sit with pt-offering presence --caring therapeutic response,

question

After pt stops crying, she states, "My father was in so much pain before he died. Talking about pain brings back so many memories." How should nurse respond?

answer

it sounds like you went through a difficult time when your father died

question

Next week, pt arrives at surgery center 3hrs before scheduled surgery. Which question is most important for nurse to ask pt during admission interview?

answer

"Have you had anything to eat/drink since midnight?" -ensure NPO for prescribed length of time before surgery critical to prevent vomiting/aspiration during surgery

question

After completing admission interview, the nurse reviews pt's med record and notes surgical consent form is filled out but is not signed by client. What action should nurse take?

answer

Ask pt if she has received sufficient info to sign consent form-Nurse may witness client's signature if nurse determines that the client has been sufficiently informed of the necessary info

question

The nurse observes the word "yes" has been marked on pt's left hip, and word "no" on her right hip. What action should nurse implement?

answer

Confirm that the left hip is the site of scheduled surgery

question

Pt is transferred to stretcher and taken to the operating room. Nurse assists pt off stretcher and onto OR table. After gen. anesthesia is induced, the nurse positions pt for surgery. Which Nursing diagnosis has highest priority at this time?

answer

Risk for perioperative-positioning injury--during surgery client may remain in one position for prolonged period. Nurse ensure protect from injury secondary to inappropriate positioning

question

Once OR team has assembled in room, the circulating nurse calls for a time out. What action should the nurse take during time out?

answer

Review the scheduled procedure, site & client

question

Surgery is successfully completed w/o complications. Following surgery pt is admitted to PACU. The operative report indicates that pt had a left hip preplacement under gen anesthesia. The intial nursing assessment reveals pt is not responding to verbal stimuli. Vital 97.6F, P 88, R14, BP 130/70. What action should nurse implement first

answer

Position client on side-during immediate post anesthesia, unconscious should be positioned on side to maintain open airway and promote drainage of secretions

question

While assessing pt, nurse observes surgical dressing on left hip, with no visible drainage. How should the nurse document this finding?

answer

left hip dressing clean, dry, and intact--document is concise but thorough, provide a clear picture of the assessed data

question

Pt arrives on unit, IV is wide open. Her prescription 0.9% Normal Saline (75mL/hour alternating with ringer's solution (lactated) at 75mL/hour. An infusion pump not immediately available, so nurse notes that the infusion tubing has a drop factor of 10drops/mL and resets the IV. At what rate should the IV infuse?

answer

13 drops/minute

question

While nurse begins assessing pt, another nurse finds infusion pump and prepares a prescribed "now" dose of IV abx. Prescription is 2g cegazolin (Ancef), which arrives from the pharmacy diluted 100mL of normal saline and is to be administered over 30 minutes

answer

200

question

The nurse continues the postop assessment. What action should nurse take to assess for atelectasis?

answer

Auscultate client's breath sounds-condition in which the alveoli collapse. Dull or absent sounds.

question

Nurse determines pt's bowel sounds are hypoactive. What action should nurse implement in response to this finding?

answer

Document the assessment finding in the chart-expected

question

During postop assessment, the nurse observes pt's surgical site. The left hip dressing has a moderate amount of sanguineous drainage. What action(s) should nurse implement?

answer

-observe linens under hip-nurse should inspect below surgical site for add'l drainage - mark the amount of drainage on dressing-for later comparison

question

The nurse observes that the Hemovac drain is full of sanguineous drainage. What action should nurse implement first?

answer

empty the drain and measure the amount of drainage-nurse should first empty the drain and measure, then compress drain to reestablish suction. Documentation of the findings and notification of the surgeon can then be done

question

Nurse notifies surgeon of wound drainage-what lab data is important for nurse to report to surgeon

answer

Hgb & Hct (nurse reports the amount of drainage--> check for excessive blood loss. Surgeon needs to know info r/t blood volume)

question

Based on lab data, HCP prescribes 2U of packed RBC as soon as possible. Once 1st unit of packed RBC ready, the nurse obtains from blood bank. When the nurse enters pt's room to begin the transfusion, the UAP is giving pt a partial bath. What action should nurse take

answer

Hang transfusion of packed cells while UAP continues to complete the client's personal care (transfuse of blood is higher priority-remainder of care can be delayed)

question

Pt is currently receiving Lactated Ringer's solution IV at 75mL/hr. In transfusing 250mL unit of packed RBC, what action should nurse implement?

answer

Stop IV solution and transfuse packed cells at 125 mL/hr via tubing connected to a bag of saline solution--packed RBC compatible with normal saline. The blood should be connected using special y-tubing and admin w/in 1 1/2 -2 hrs, no longer than 4 hours

question

Nurse assisting pt to bedside commode on the second postop day. Pt states "I've never had to depend on anyone before. I like to take care of myself. I feel helpless." In response, nurse plans care for pt based on identification of which nursing diagnosis?

answer

Situational low self-esteem

question

Nurse teaches pt safe transfer techniques and consults with the physical therapist to begin ambulation activities as soon as possible. What is the rationale for the inclusion of these actions in pt plan of care?

answer

Increased mobility will promote an improved sense of control

question

After pt ambulates with PT, nurse prepares to change surgical dressing. While obtaining supplies the nurse reviews sterile procedure to be followed. At what step in the procedure should the nurse don sterile gloves?

answer

Before cleansing hip incision.

question

While cleansing incision, nurse observes that the staples are intact, but a 2cm gap has opened at bottom of the incision. How should the nurse document this finding?

answer

Small area of dehiscence at bottom of incision (unintentional opening in a surgical wound prior to healing)

STUDY

Intelligence Nursing Nursing-LPN Pharmacology

ATI achieve : STUDY SKILLS – Flashcards 18 terms

Kael Dunlap

18 terms

Preview

ATI achieve : STUDY SKILLS – Flashcards

question

the best time to study is in the morning

answer

FALSE

question

most appropriate hands on strategy for a REFLECTIVE learner

answer

taking time to THINK about your notes

question

What multi intelligence's best describes a statistician ?

answer

logical intelligence

question

The organization of your notes is related to how well you remember what you have read.

answer

TRUE

question

Kolb's model categorizes learners based on how they take in and process info.

answer

TRUE

question

Mnemonic devices can help with memorization

answer

TRUE

question

Kolb's model divides people into either reflective or active learners

answer

TRUE

question

It is important to study under conditions similar to this in which you will be tested.

answer

TRUE

question

Auditory learners will benefit most from graphic organizers.

answer

FALSE

question

It is preferable to study in a warm room, rather than in a cool room.

answer

FASLE

question

It is best to try and memorize a list of terms in one session as opposed to over multi days

answer

FALSE

question

Which if the following multi intelligence's best describes an artist?

answer

VISUAL intelligence

question

It is better to study with distractions because the real world is full of distractions

answer

FALSE

question

VISUAL learners often prefer to learn from a textbook

answer

TRUE

question

Which of the following multi intelligences best describes an athlete ?

answer

KINESTHETIC intelligence

question

Highlighting and writing in a textbook makes it more difficult to remember the reading material because there is so much extra writing in the book

answer

FALSE

question

It is a poor use of time to try to connect the material you are currently reading about in an assignment to info you have already learned

answer

FALSE

question

Which of the following hands-on strategies are most important for an INTUITIVE learner ?

answer

checking you work

STUDY

Health Assessment Nausea And Vomiting Nursing Pharmacology

Hesi: Abdominal Assessment – Flashcards 12 terms

Patrick Marsh

12 terms

Preview

Hesi: Abdominal Assessment – Flashcards

question

antiemetic

answer

- drug that is effective against vomiting and nausea e.g. for motion sickness and side effects of opioid analgesics/general anaesthetics

question

emesis

answer

vomit

question

when providing oral care for someone who just threw up you should check for?

answer

excessive dryness of mucous membranes to check for signs of fluid volume deficit

question

flatulence

answer

Excess formation of gases in the stomach or intestine.

question

Prior to client positioning for the abdominal exam what should the nurse do

answer

encourage the client to empty their bladder to promote relaxation

question

pulsations of abdominal aorta can be found in....not found in...

answer

found in persons with small or average build, not often visible in heavy individuals

question

striae is the result of

answer

change in skin pigmentation the occurs following stretching of elastic fibers of skin on abdomen

question

cause of striae can be

answer

ascites, change in BMI

question

ascites

answer

fluid collection in peritoneal cavity

question

normal bowel sounds

answer

8-20 sounds per minutes

question

borborygmus

answer

hyperactive frequency of bowel sounds

question

are vascular sounds normally heard?

answer

STUDY

AP English Language And Composition Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Pharmacology 106- Chapter 2 – Flashcards 93 terms

Mya Day

93 terms

Preview

Pharmacology 106- Chapter 2 – Flashcards

question

Addictive effects

answer

Drung interactions in which the effect of a combination of two or more drugs with similar actions is equivalent to the sum of the individual effects of the same drugs given alone.

question

Adverse Drug Event

answer

Any undesirable occurance related to administering or failing to administer a prescribed medication.

question

Adverse Drug Reaction

answer

Any unexpected , unintended, undesired, or excessive response to a medication given at therapeutic dosages.

question

Adverse Effects

answer

A general term for any undesirable effects that are a direct response to one or more drugs.

question

Agonist

answer

A drug that binds to and stimulates the activity of one or more receptors in the body.

question

Allergic Reaction

answer

An immunologic hypersensitivity reaction resulting from unusual sensitivity of a patient to a particular medication.

question

Antagonist

answer

A drug that binds to and inhibits the activity of one or more receptors in the body.

question

Antagonistic Effects

answer

drug interactions in which the effect of a combination of two or more drugs is less than the sum of the individual effects of the same drugs given alone.

question

Bioavailibility

answer

A measure of the extent of drug absorbtion for a given drug and route.

question

Biotransformation

answer

One or more biochemical reactions involving a parent drug. Occurs mainly in the liver and produces a metabolite that is either inactive or active.

question

Blood-brain Barrier

answer

The barrier system that restricts the passage of various chemicals and microscopic entities between the bloodstream and the central nervous system. Still allows for the passage of essential substances.

question

Chemical Name

answer

The name that describes the chemical composition and molecular structure of a drug.

question

Contraindication

answer

Any condition, especially one related to a disease state or patient characteristic, including current or recent drug therapy, that renders a particular form of treatment proper and undesireable.

question

Cytochrome P-450

answer

The general name for a large class of enzymes that play a significant role in drug metabolism and drug interactions.

question

Dependence

answer

A state in which there is a compulsive or chronic need for a drug.

question

Dissolution

answer

The process by which solid forms of drugs disintegrate in the GI tract and become soluble before being absorbed into the circulation.

question

Drug

answer

Any chemical that affects the physiologic process of a living organism.

question

Drug Actions

answer

The processes involved in the interaction between a drug and body cells.

question

Drug Classification

answer

A method of grouping drugs.

question

Drug Effects

answer

The physiologic reactions of the body to a drug.

question

Drug-induced teratogenesis

answer

The development of congenital anomolies or effects in the developing fetus caused by toxic effects in drugs.

question

Drug Interaction

answer

Alteration in the pharmacologic or phramacokinetic activity of given drug caused by the presence of one or more additional drugs.

question

Duration of Action

answer

The legnth of time the concentration of a drug in the blood or tissues is sufficent to elicit a response.

question

Enzymes

answer

Protien molecules that catalyze one or more of a variety of biochemical reactions, including those related to the body's physiologic processes as well as those related to drug metabolism.

question

First-pass Effect

answer

The initial metabolism in the liver of a drug absorbed from the GI tract before the drug reaches systemic circulation through the bloodstream.

question

Generic Name

answer

The name given to a drug by the United States Adopted Names Council. Also called the nonproprietary name.

question

Glucose-6-phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency

answer

A hereditary condition in which red blood cells break down when the body is exposed to certian drugs.

question

Half-life

answer

In pharmokinetics, the time required for half of an administered dose of drug to be eliminated by the body, or 50%

question

Idiosyncratic Reaction

answer

An abnormal and unexpected response to a medication , other than an allergic reaction, that is peculiar to an individual patient.

question

Incompatibility

answer

The characteristic that causes two parenteral drugs or solutions to undergo a reaction when mixed or given together that results in the chemical deterioration of at least one of the drugs.

question

Intraarterial

answer

Within an artery

question

Intraarticular

answer

Within a joint.

question

Intrathecal

answer

Within a sheath.

question

Medication Error

answer

Any preventable, adverse drug event involving innapropriate medication use by a patient, or healthcare professional.

question

Medication Use Process

answer

The prescribing, dispensing, and administering of medications and the monitoring of their effects.

question

Metabolite

answer

A chemical form of the drug that is the product of one or more biochemical reactions involving the parent drug.

question

Onset of Action

answer

The time required for a drug to elicit a therepeutic response after dosing.

question

Parent Drug

answer

The chemical form of a drug that is administered before it is metabolized by the body's biochemical reactions into its active and inactive metabolites.

question

Peak Effect

answer

The time required for a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response in the body.

question

Peak Level

answer

The maximum concentration of a drug in the body after administration, usually measured in the blood sample for therepeutic blood monitoring.

question

Pharmaceutics

answer

The science of preparing and dispensing drugs, including dosages and design.

question

Pharmacodynamics

answer

The study of biochemical and physiologic interactions of drugs at their sites of activity.

question

Pharmacoeconomics

answer

The study of economic factors impacting the cost of drug therapy.

question

Pharmacogenomics

answer

The study of the influence of genetic fators on drug response, including the nature of genteic aberrations that result in the absence, overabundance, or insufficiency of drug-metabolizing enzymes.

question

Pharmacognosy

answer

The study of drugs that are obtained from natural plant and animal resources.

question

Pharmacokinetics

answer

The study of what happens to a drug from the time it is put into the body until the parent drug and all metabolites have left the body.

question

Pharmacology

answer

The broadest term for the study or science of drugs.

question

Pharmacotherapeutics

answer

The treatment of pathologic conditions through the use of drugs.

question

Prodrug

answer

An inactive drug dosage form that is converted to an active metabolite by various biochemical reactions once it is inside the body.

question

Receptor

answer

A molecular structure within or on the outer surface of a cell.

question

Steady State

answer

The physiologic state in which the amount of drug abosrbed with each dose.

question

Substrates

answer

Substances on which an enzyme acts.

question

Synergistic Effects

answer

Drug interactions in which the effect of a combination of two or more drugs with similar actions is greater than the sum of the individual effects of the same drugs given alone.

question

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

answer

The process of measuring drug levels to identify a patient's drug exposure and to allow adjustment of dosages with goals of maximizing therapeutic effects and minimizing toxicity.

question

Therapeutic Effect

answer

The desired or intended effect of a particualr medication.

question

Therapeutic Index

answer

The ratio between the toxic and therapeutic concentrations of a drug.

question

Tolerance

answer

Reduced response to a drug after prolonged use.

question

Toxic

answer

The quality of being poisonous

question

Toxicity

answer

The condition of producing adverse bodily effects due to poisonous qualities.

question

Toxicology

answer

The study of poisons, including toxic drug drug effects, and applicable treatments.

question

Trade Name

answer

The commercial name given to a drug product by its manufacturer.

question

Trough Level

answer

The lowest concentration of drug reached in the body after it falls from its peak level, usually measured in a blood sample for therapeutic drug monitoring.

question

Pharmacology encompasses a variety of differenct topics including....

answer

absorbtion Biochemical effects Biotransformation Distribution Drug history Drug origin Excretion Mechanisms of action Physical and chemical properties Physical effects Drug receptor mechanisms Therapeutic effects Toxic effects

question

What three names will a drug acuire throughout the process of its development?

answer

Chemical name, generic name, and trade name

question

Drugs can be classified by thier....

answer

Structure and therapeutic use

question

Drug absorbtion fastest to slowest

answer

Oral dissentigration, buccal tablets Liquids and syrups Suspension solutions Powders Capsules Tablets Coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets

question

Sublingual or buccal route

answer

Under the tongue or oral mucosa

question

Enteral route

answer

The drug is absorbed through the mucosa into systemic circulation.

question

Parenteral Route

answer

Fastest route that a drug can be absorbed. Injection.

question

Topical Route

answer

Application of medications on various body surfaces ie; skin, eyes, ears, nose

question

Transdermal route

answer

Through adhesive patches.

question

Inhaled Route

answer

Delivered into the lungs as micrometer-sized drug particles.

question

The primary organ responsible for elimination is the....

answer

Kidney

question

Acute Therapy

answer

More intensive drug treatment in the acutely ill or critically ill.

question

Maintenace Therapy

answer

Prevents progression of a disease or condition.

question

Supplemental Therapy

answer

Or replacement therapy supplies the body with a substance needed to maintain normal function.

question

Palliative Therapy

answer

To make the patient as comfortable as possible.

question

Supportive Therapy

answer

Maintains the integrity of body functions while the patient is recovering from illness or trauma.

question

Prophylactic Therapy

answer

Prevent illness or other undesirable outcomes.

question

Empiric Therapy

answer

Based on clinical probabilities. It involves drug administration when a certain pathological condition has an uncertain but high likeliness of occurrence.

question

What is the study of the physiochemical properties of drugs and how they influence the body called? A.Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacotherapeutics C. Pharmacodynamics E. Pharmacology

answer

Pharmacodynamics -- In simpler terms, pharmacodynamics is the study of what drugs do to the body

question

Pharmacokinetics involves the study of.... A. physiologic interactions of drugs. B. distribution rates among various body compartments. C. interactions between various drugs. E. adverse reactions to medications.

answer

distribution rates among various body compartments. -- Pharmacokinetics involves the study of how the drug moves through the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

question

What is an alternate name for biotransformation of a drug? A. Absorption B. Dilution C. Excretion D. Metabolism

answer

Metabolism -- Metabolism connotes a breakdown of a product. Biotransformation is actually a more accurate term because some drugs are actually changed into an active form in the liver in contrast to being broken down for excretion.

question

A drug given by which route is altered by the first-pass effect? A.Sublingual B. Subcutaneous C. Oral D. Intravenous

answer

Oral -- Medications absorbed in the stomach and small intestine travel through the portal system and are metabolized by the liver before they reach the general circulation.

question

Drug half-life is defined as the amount of time required for 50% of a drug to A. be absorbed by the body. B. exert a response. C. be eliminated by the body. D. reach a therapeutic level

answer

be eliminated by the body. -- In pharmacokinetics, the time required for half of an administered dose of drug to be eliminated by the body, or the time it takes for the blood level of a drug to be reduced by 50%, is the drug's half-life (also called elimination half-life).

question

Which action, when performed by the nurse, will increase the absorption of a medication administered intramuscularly? A. Applying cold packs to the injection site B. Lowering the extremity below the level of the heart C. Administering the medication via the Z-track method E. Massaging the site after injection

answer

Massaging the site after injection -- Massaging the site increases circulation to the area and thus increases absorption, but this should not be performed after all IM injections; it is drug specific. See the recommendations on specific drugs.

question

Highly protein-bound drugs ...... A. increase the risk of drug-drug interactions. B. typically provide a short duration of action. C. must be administered with 8 ounces of water. D. have a decreased effect in patients with a low albumin level.

answer

increase the risk of drug-drug interactions. -- When administering two medications that are highly protein bound, the medications can compete for binding sites on plasma proteins. This competition results in either less of both or less of one of the drugs binding to the proteins, thus increasing the risk of toxicity.

question

To achieve the most rapid onset of action, the health care provider will prescribe the medication to be administered by which route? A. Subcutaneously B. Intravenously C. Intramuscularly D. Intrathecally

answer

Intravenously -- When a drug is administered intravenously, it does not need to be absorbed because it is placed directly into general circulation.

question

Patients with renal failure would most likely have problems with drug A. excretion. B. absorption. C. metabolism. D. distribution.

answer

excretion -- The kidneys are responsible for the majority of drug excretion.

question

What is the ratio between a drug's therapeutic effects and toxic effects called? A. Tolerance B. Cumulative effect C. Therapeutic index D. Affinity

answer

Therapeutic index -- The ratio of a drug's therapeutic benefits to its toxic effects is referred to as the drug's therapeutic index.

question

When a patient asks the nurse why a lower dose of intravenous pain medication is being given than the previous oral dose, what knowledge will the nurse draw on to respond to the patient? A. Medications given intravenously are not affected by the first-pass effect. B. Medications given orally bypass the portal circulatory system. C. A large percentage of an intravenously administered drug is metabolized into inactive metabolites in the liver. D. Drugs administered intravenously enter the portal system prior to systemic distribution.

answer

Medications given intravenously are not affected by the first-pass effect. -- When drugs with a high first-pass effect are administered orally, a large amount of drug may be metabolized before it reaches the systemic circulation. The same drug given intravenously will bypass the liver. This prevents the first-pass effect from taking place, and therefore more of the drug reaches the circulation. Parenteral doses of drugs with a high first-pass effect are much smaller than oral doses, yet they produce the same pharmacologic response.

question

The nurse understands that drugs exert their actions on the body by (Select all that apply.) interacting with receptors. making the cell perform a new function. inhibiting the action of a specific enzyme. altering metabolic chemical processes.

answer

interacting with receptors. inhibiting the action of a specific enzyme. altering metabolic chemical processes.

question

The nurse needs to be aware that which factors will affect the absorption of orally administered medications? (Select all that apply.) Presence of food in the stomach pH of the stomach Patient position upon intake of medication Form of drug preparation Time of day

answer

Presence of food in the stomach pH of the stomach Form of drug preparation Time of day -- Various factors affecting the rate of drug absorption include the administration route of the drug, presence of food or fluids administered with the drug, dosage formulation, status of the absorptive surface, rate of blood flow to the small intestine, acidity of the stomach, and status of gastrointestinal motility. Time of day would affect the acidity of the stomach and would therefore affect the rate of drug absorption.

STUDY

Beta Adrenergic Blocker Call For Help Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Medical Terminology – Chapter 21 – Flashcards 93 terms

Kaitlynn Baldwin

93 terms

Preview

Medical Terminology – Chapter 21 – Flashcards

question

ACE inhibitor

answer

Drug that lowers blood pressure (antihypertensive).

question

Addition

answer

Physical and psychologic dependence on and craving for a drug.

question

Additive action

answer

Combination of two similar drugs is equal to the sum of the effects of each.

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Aerosol

answer

Particles of drug suspended in air.

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Amphetamine

answer

Central nervous system stimulant.

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Analgesic

answer

Drug that relieves pain.

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Anaphylaxis

answer

Exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction to a previously encountered drug or to a foreign protein (antigen).

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Androgen

answer

Male hormone.

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Anesthesia

answer

Absence of nervous feeling or sensation.

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Anesthetic

answer

Drug that reduces or eliminates nervous sensation.

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Angiotensin II receptor

answer

Drug that lowers blood pressure by preventing angiotensin antagonist from acting on receptors in blood vessels.

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Antacid

answer

Drug that works against acid in the stomach.

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Antagonistic action

answer

Combination of two drugs gives less than the sum of the effects of each together.

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Antiandrogen

answer

Drug that slows the uptake of androgens or interferes with their effect in tissues.

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Antiarrhythmic

answer

Drug that treats abnormal heart rhythms.

question

Antibiotic

answer

Chemical substance that has the ability to inhibit or destroy foreign organisms in the body.

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Anticoagulant

answer

Drug that prevents blood clotting.

question

Anticonvulsant

answer

Drug that prevents convulsions and seizures.

question

Antidepressant

answer

Drug that relieves symptoms of depression.

question

Antidiabetic

answer

Drug given to prevent or treat diabetes mellitus.

question

Antidiarrheal

answer

Drug that prevents diarrhea.

question

Antidote

answer

Agent given to counteract an unwanted effect of a drug.

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Antiemetic

answer

Drug that prevents nausea and vomiting.

question

Antihistamine

answer

Drug that blocks the action of histamine and helps prevent symptoms of allergy.

question

Antinauseant

answer

Drug that relieves nausea and vomiting; antiemetic.

question

Antiplatelet

answer

Drug that reduces the tendency of platelets to stick together and form a clot.

question

Antipruritic

answer

Drug that acts against itching (pruritus).

question

Antipyretic

answer

Drug that lowers fever.

question

Antiulcer

answer

Drug that inhibits the secretion of acid by cells lining the stomach.

question

Antiviral

answer

Drug that acts against viruses such as the herpes virus and HIV.

question

Aromatase inhibitor

answer

Drug that reduces estrogen in the blood by blocking the enzyme, aromatase.

question

Bactericidal

answer

Pertaining to killing bacteria.

question

Bacteriostatic

answer

Pertaining to inhibiting bacterial growth.

question

Beta-blocker

answer

Blocks the action of epinephrine (adrenaline) on the heart and blood vessels and thus lowers blood pressure.

question

Bronchodilator

answer

Agent that dilates (widens) blood vessels and relieves bronchospasm.

question

Bisphosphonate

answer

Drug that prevents bone loss in osteoporosis and osteopenia.

question

Brand name

answer

Commercial name for a drug; trade or trademark name.

question

Caffeine

answer

Central nervous system stimulant.

question

Calcium channel blocker

answer

Drug that stops entrance of calcium into muscle of the heart and blood vessels. This lowers blood pressure and restores normal heart rhythm.

question

Cardiovascular drug

answer

Pertaining to the heart and blood vessels. Cardiovascular drugs act on the heart and blood vessels; ACE inhibitors, diuretics, beta-blockers, statins.

question

Cathartic

answer

Drug that relieves constipation.

question

Chemical name

answer

Chemical formula for a drug.

question

Chemotherapy

answer

Treatment with drugs.

question

Contraindication

answer

Factor in a patient's condition that prevents the use of a particular drug or treatment.

question

Controlled substances

answer

Drugs that produce tolerance and dependence and have potential for abuse or addiction.

question

Diuretic

answer

Drug that promotes or increases the production of urine (diuresis).

question

Emetic

answer

Drug that promotes vomiting.

question

Endocrine drug

answer

Pertaining to internal secretion. An endocrine drug is a hormone or hormone-like drug; androgens, estrogens, glucocorticoids.

question

Erythromycin

answer

Antibiotic that is extracted from a red (erythr/o) mold (-mycin).

question

Estrogen

answer

Female hormone that promotes secondary sex characteristics and supports reproductive tissues.

question

Gastrointestinal drug

answer

Pertaining to the stomach and intestinal tract (intestines). Gastrointestinal drugs include antiulcer, antidiarrheal, and antacid medications.

question

Generic name

answer

Legal, noncommercial name for a drug.

question

Glucocorticoid

answer

Hormone from the adrenal cortex that raises blood sugar and reduces tissue inflammation.

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Hypnotic

answer

Drug that promotes sleep or a trance-like state (hypnosis).

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Hypodermic

answer

Pertaining to under the skin.

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Iatrogenic

answer

Pertaining to a condition that is produced (-genic) by a physician or treatment (iatr/o).

question

Idiosyncrasy

answer

Unexpected effect produced in a particularly sensitive individual, but not seen in most patients.

question

Inhalation

answer

Administration of drugs in gaseous or vapor form through the nose or mouth.

question

Intrathecal

answer

Pertaining to within the meninges or membranes surrounding the spinal cord. Drugs may be administered intrathecally.

question

Laxative

answer

Weak cathartic; promotes movement of feces through the colon.

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Medicinal chemistry

answer

Study of new drug synthesis and the relationship between the chemical structure of a drug and its biologic effect.

question

Molecular pharmacology

answer

Study of the interaction of drugs and their target molecules, enzymes, or cell surface receptors.

question

Narcotic

answer

Habit-forming drug that relieves pain by producing stupor and insensibility; morphine and opium.

question

Oral administration

answer

Drugs that are given by mouth.

question

Parenteral administration

answer

Drugs or nourishment are given intravenously (within a vein) and other than through the intestinal tract.

question

Pharmacist

answer

Specialist in preparing and dispensing drug.

question

Pharmacy

answer

Location for preparing and dispensing drugs; study of preparing and dispensing drugs.

question

Pharmacodynamics

answer

Study of the effects and strength of a drug within the body.

question

Pharmacokinetics

answer

Calculation of drug concentration in tissues and body fluids over a period of time.

question

Pharmacologist

answer

Specialist in the study of the properties, uses, and actions of drugs.

question

Pharmacology

answer

Study of the properties, uses and actions of drugs.

question

Progestin

answer

Hormone that stimulates the uterine lining during pregnancy and is used in treatment of abnormal uterine bleeding and hormone replacement therapy.

question

Purgative

answer

Drug that relieves constipation and is a strong cathartic.

question

Receptor

answer

Target substance with which a drug interacts in the body.

question

Rectal administration

answer

Drugs are inserted through the anus into the rectum.

question

Respiratory drug

answer

Treats asthma, emphysema, and infections that affect breathing; bronchodilators are respiratory drugs.

question

Sedative

answer

Mild sleep inducing agent that relaxes a patient without necessarily producing sleep.

question

Side effect

answer

Adverse effect that routinely results from the use of a drug.

question

Stimulant

answer

Drug that excites and promotes activity.

question

Subcutaneous

answer

Pertaining to under the skin.

question

Sublingual

answer

Pertaining to under the tongue.

question

Synergism

answer

Drug action in which the combination of two drugs causes an effect that is greater than the sum of the individual effects of each drug.

question

Synergistic

answer

Pertaining to synergism.

question

Syringe

answer

Instrument for introducing or withdrawing fluids from the body.

question

Thyroid hormone

answer

Secretion from the thyroid gland that stimulates cellular metabolism.

question

Tolerance

answer

Drug action in which larger and larger doses must be given to achieve a desired effect.

question

Topical application

answer

Drugs are applied locally on the skin or mucous membranes of the body; ointments, lotions, and creams are examples.

question

Toxicity

answer

Harmful effect of a drug.

question

Toxicology

answer

Branch of pharmacology that studies harmful chemicals and their effects on the body.

question

Tranquilizer

answer

Drug that controls anxiety and severe disturbances of behavior.

question

Transport

answer

Movement of a drug across a cell membrane into body cells.

question

Vasodilator

answer

Drug that widens blood vessels.

question

Vitamin

answer

Substance found in foods and essential in small quantities for growth and good health.

STUDY

First Pass Effect Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Evolve- PHARM CH 2 – Flashcards 13 terms

Julie Noel

13 terms

Preview

Evolve- PHARM CH 2 – Flashcards

question

What is the study of physiochemical properties of drugs and how they influence the body called

answer

pharmacodynamics

question

Pharmacokinetics involves the study of

answer

distribution rates among various body compartments

question

What is an alternate name for biotransformation of a drug

answer

metabolism

question

A drug given by which route will be altered by the first-pass effect

answer

oral

question

Drug half-life is defined as the amount of time required for 50% of the drug to

answer

be eliminated by the body

question

Which action, when performed by the nurse, will increase the absorption of a medication administered intramuscularly

answer

massaging the site after injection

question

Highly protein bound drugs

answer

increase the risk of drug-drug interactions

question

To achieve the most rapid onset of action, the health care provider will prescribe the medication to be administered by which route

answer

intravenously

question

Patients with renal failure would most likely have problems with drug

answer

excretion

question

What is the ratio between a drug's therapeutic effects and toxic effects called

answer

therapeutic index

question

When a patient asks the nurse why a lower dose of intravenous pain medication is being given than the previous oral dose, what knowledge will the nurse draw on to respond to the patient

answer

medications given intravenously are not affected by the first-pass effect

question

The nurse understands that drugs exert their actions on the body by

answer

interacting with receptors, inhibiting the action of specific enzymes, and altering metabolic chemical processes

question

The nurse needs to be aware that which factors will affect the absorption of orally administered medications

answer

presence of food in the stomach, pH of the stomach, form of drug preparation, and time of day

STUDY

Anatomy Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Florida Paramedic State Test – Flashcards 152 terms

Chloe Barnes

152 terms

Preview

Florida Paramedic State Test – Flashcards

question

Sympathetic Nervous System

answer

Nor-epinephrine, controled from lower thoracic and lumbar Beta 1 is cardiac Beta 2 is respiratory ie; bronchodilation

question

Parasympathetic Nervous System

answer

Acetylcholine released by Vagus nerve Controls sludge Constricted pupils

question

Metabolic acidosis

answer

Cardiac or Respiratory arrest, aspirin overdose. Treatment: ventilate with oxygen and sodium bicarb

question

Metabolic Alkalosis

answer

too much bicarb, let it wear off

question

Respiratory Acidosis

answer

hypercarbia, respiratory distress. Treatment: Increase ventilation with a BVM. treat underlying causes. tube Patient if needed.

question

Respiratory Alkalosis

answer

Hyperventilation, some head injuries, response to DKA, Hyperglycemia, ventilating patient too fast. Blown off too much CO2

question

Inadequate perfusion

answer

Epinephrine release, restlessness, lowered LOC, Cold and clammy, dilated pupils, blood pressure will be hypotensive, HR is up, RR is up

question

Hypovolemia

answer

-Cause: Blood or Fluid loss -Sign:Tachycardia, Tachypnea, diaphoresis, restless, thirst, narrow pulse pressure, dilated pupils. -Treatment: stop bleeding, adequate ventilation and oxygenation, maintain temp, 1 liter or 20 mL/kg

question

Neurogenic shock

answer

-Cause: Spinal injury (vasodilation without catecholamine release) -Signs: Paralysis, hypo-tension, normal or bradycardia heart rate, possible diaphragm breathing -Management: stabilize, C-Spine, use Dopamine for vasoconstriction

question

Cardiogenic Shock

answer

-Cause: Decrease in force of cardiac constriction (inotropic) -Signs:Tachycardia, Tachypnea, Diaphoresis, narrow pulse pressure, possibly pulmonary edema -Treatment: stabilize, fluid generally restricted due to pulmonary edema, Dopamine to increase cardiac contraction (Force and Rate)

question

Anaphylactic Shock

answer

-Cause: Reaction -Signs: Tachycardia, Tachypnea, red flushed skin, hives, cool, clammy wheezing, hypo-tension -treatment: stabilize, administer vasso, Epinephrine SQ or IM for shock.

question

Obstructive shock

answer

tension Pneumo, cardiac tapanade, trauma

question

pounds to Kilograms

answer

1 pound equals 2.2 kilograms

question

Upper Airway

answer

ends at vocal cords

question

JVD

answer

Tension Pneumothorax, Cardiac Tamponade, Right Sided Heart failure, traumatic asphyxia.

question

Hypoxemia

answer

low oxygen in blood; hypercarbia - Increased CO in blood

question

Medulla

answer

Respiratory center of brain

question

Failed attempt of intubation

answer

Use LMA or Dual lumen

question

Cricothyrotomy

answer

Ineffective breathing with clenched teeth, laryngospasms, facial trauma, and inability to ventilate by other means

question

Oxygen devices

answer

-cannula less than 40% -simple mask 40 to 60% -NRM greater than 90% -BVM with oxygen 90 - 100%

question

CO2 levels

answer

-normal is 35 - 45 -if its high ventilate faster -cardiac arrest patients will be low because of inadequate profusion Acidosis is patients not breathing enough will be higher than 45mmHg Alkalosis is patient breathing too much will be below 35mmhg

question

wheezing

answer

narrowing of small airways due to edema continuous, coarse, whistling sound expiration

question

Rales or crackles

answer

fluid in small airways clicking, rattling, or crackling noises that may be made by one or both lungs of a human with a respiratory disease during inhalation

question

Rhonchi

answer

Mucus in the large airways

question

Kussmaul respiration's

answer

is a deep and labored breathing pattern often associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or renal failure. It is hyperventilation, which reduces carbon dioxide in the blood due to increased rate or depth of respiration.

question

Cheyne-Stokes respiration's

answer

progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary stop in breathing. Increased Cranial Pressure

question

Biots respiration's

answer

quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Increase Cranial Pressure.

question

Pupils

answer

Dilated - Cerebral hypoxia, cocaine, epinephrine, amphetamines Small - Narcotics or Organophosphate unequal - brain injury

question

Cullen's signs

answer

ecchymosis around umbilicus, bleeding in abdominal cavity

question

Murphy's sign

answer

Right upper quadrant pain due to gallbladder

question

Kehr's sign

answer

shoulder pain due to blood under diaphragm

question

Grey Turner's sign

answer

ecchymosis in flank, bleeding from kidney

question

Decorticate

answer

Flexed arms and extended legs

question

Decerebrate (worse)

answer

extended legs and outstretched arms

question

Vitals

answer

Adult 60 to 100 Heart Rate 12 to 20 Respiration child 65 to 110 Heart Rate 18 to 30 Respiration newborn 140 to 160 Heart Rate 40 to 60 Respiration

question

Shock

answer

1st - 15%, BP is maintained by vaso-constriction, tachy 2nd - 15 to 25%, Cardiac output not maintained, tachycardia, increased respiration 3rd - 25 to 35%, classic signs, tachycardia, increased respiration, decreased BP altered mental status, cool and pale skin 4th - Hypotension, lethargic, irreversible.

question

Burns

answer

-first degree - Partial thickness, red, pain, no blisters -second degree - Partial thickness, pain, redness, blisters. -third degree - Full thickness, dry, white, yellow, black, painless

question

Carbon Monoxide

answer

Headache, Confusion, Cherry red lips, cyanotic with false Oxygen reading.

question

meninges order

answer

Dura mater , arachnoid , Pia Mater

question

Brain

answer

Cerebrum - Grey Matter, personality, judgement, sight cerebellum - Balance, coordination, and muscle tone Stem - Mid-brain, Pons, medulla, Blood pressure, Heart Rate, breathing, consciousness

question

Hypothalamus

answer

Temperature regulation, Hormones

question

Peripheral Nervous System

answer

Afferent - sensory nerves (ascending) Body to brain Efferent - Motor (descending) Brain to Body

question

Cerebral Injuries

answer

Sub-Dural Hematoma - below dura mater, but above pia mater (slower bleed) venous Epidural Hematoma or hemorrhage - Above dura -between dura and skull- arterial, middle meningeal artery, unconscious, then conscious, then unconscious (lucid interval)

question

Cushing's Response

answer

High Blood pressure, Low Heart Rate, Irregular Respiration, Cheyne-Stokes

question

Increased Cranial Pressure

answer

consider ventilating 20 to 24 times per minute, Mannitol (osmotic diuretic) ET tube may increase pressure

question

Alpha vs. Beta

answer

Alpha constricts Beta dilates

question

12 Lead ECG

answer

2, 3, AvF - Inferior Wall 1, AvL, V5, V6 - Lateral Wall V1, V2 - Septal V3, V4 - Anterior

question

the 6 P's or trauma

answer

Pulselessness, parethesia , paralysis, pallor, pain, and Pressure

question

Cardiac Tamponade

answer

Hypotension occurs because of decreased stroke volume, jugular-venous distension due to impaired venous return to the heart, and muffled heart sounds due to fluid inside the pericardium. These combination of symptoms are known as Beck's Triad

question

Pulse-less Paradox

answer

Narrowing pulse pressure

question

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

answer

Rely on hypoxic drive Bronchodilators

question

Emphysema

answer

Pink puffer, pursed lips, barrel chest, active expiration

question

Chronic Bronchitis

answer

Blue bloater, coughing, mucus, overweight, cyanotic, Rhonchi

question

Asthma

answer

Wheezing, silent chest Albuterol, Beta 2 antagonist , Epi

question

Rule of 9's

answer

Adult: Head and Neck 9%, Chest and Abdomen 18%, Butt and Back 18%, each Arm 9%, each Leg 18%, and Genitalia 1%. Pediatric: Head and Neck 18%, Front Trunk 18%, Back Trunk 18%,Chest, each Arm 9%, each Leg 14%.

question

Glasgow Coma Scale

answer

Eyes - 4 opens, 3 to voice, 2 to pain, 1 doesn't open verbal - 5 Oriented, 4 confused, 3 inappropriate, 2 incomplete, 1 none Motor - 6 obeys, 5 localizes pain, 4 withdraws, 3 flexion, 2 extension, 1 none

question

H's and T's

answer

Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hyper or hypokalemia, Hypoglycemia, Hypothermia Toxins, Tamponade (cardiac),Tension pneumothorax, Thrombosis (coronary and pulmonary), and Trauma.

question

First-degree heart block

answer

PR interval is lengthened beyond 0.20 seconds

question

Second Degree Type One (Mobitz I or Wenckebach)

answer

progressive prolongation of the PR interval until the QRS drops off essentially restarting the rhythm

question

Second Degree Type Two (Mobitz II)

answer

Non-conducted P waves, P Waves not followed by a QRS complex

question

Third-degree (complete heart block)

answer

SA node in the atrium does not propagate to the ventricles No apparent relationship with P waves and QRS complex.

question

Epinephrine

answer

Asthma, Allergies, asystole, PEA, V-Fib, V-Tach Asthma and Allergic Reaction 1:1,000 SQ/IM .3 - .5 mg (or mL) Anaphylaxis (Hypo-tension) 1:10,000 IV .3 - .5 mg (or mL) Asystole 1:10,000 IV 1 mg 0.01 mg/kg pediatric dose Alpha and Beta stimulator; Bronchodilator Positive inotropic and chronotropic

question

Atropine

answer

Symptomatic bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning .5 mg IV push every 3 - 5 minutes, max 3 mg 2 - 5 mg for organophosphate .02 mg/kg Pediatric Dose Parasympathetic Blocker, PVC's, or hypo-tension with bradycardia

question

Amiodarone

answer

Antidysrhythmic 300 mg IV for V-Fib, 150 mg over 10 minutes for stable tachycardia contraindications - bradycardia, hypo-tension Blocks sodium and calcium channels

question

Adenosine

answer

SVT, Atrial Tachycardia, PSVT, slows conduction throught the SA and AV node 6 mg then 12 mg

question

Lidocaine

answer

PVC's, V-Tach, V-Fib, wide complex tachycardia 1 - 1.5 mg/kg IV bolus 1 mg/kg pediatric dose reduce by 50% when over 70 or liver disease

question

Cardizem

answer

A-Fib or A-Flutter Calcium Channel Blocker do not give if patient is on beta blockers

question

Calcium Chloride

answer

Calcium Channel overdose, hypocalcaemia, hyperkalemia, Mag sulfate overdose

question

Magnesium Sulfate

answer

Torsades de Pointes 1 - 2 grams for cardiac arrest 2 - 4 IV for Eclampsia

question

Sodium Bicarbonate

answer

Severe acidosis with respiratory problems 1 mEq/kg repeat in 10 minutes at .5 mEq/kg

question

Nitroglycerin

answer

Chest pain and Pulmonary Edema .4 mg sub-lingual vasodilator, decreases workload of heart, contraindication Hypotensio

question

Morphine Sulfate

answer

-Chest Pain during STEMI -not reduces by 3 doses of Nitro- -2 - 5 mg IV may be repeated -decreases pre-load and after-load, decreases venous return, CNS depression. -dont use with head injury, hypo-tension, and undiagnosed abdominal pain.

question

Lasix - Furosemide

answer

-Pulmonary Edema, CHF, Hypertension -20 to 40 mg IV slowly, up to 100 mg -Vasodilation within 5 minutes, Diuretic within 15 minutes

question

Digitalis

answer

-CHF or A-Fib -positive inotropic, negative chronotropic -electro-therapy can exacerbate

question

Aspirin

answer

-Anti-coagulant -160 - 325 mg -signs of overdose: Ringing in ears, tachycardia, metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis

question

Dopamine

answer

-Cardiogenic and Neurogenic shock -IV drip usually 800 mg in a 500 mL in D5W - 1 to 2 units per kg dopamine effect, vasodilation - 2 to 10 units per kg beta effect increase rate & force - 10 to 20 units per kg alpha effect

question

Albuterol

answer

- asthma, COPD, Bronchospasm - 2.5 mg in 2 - 3mL saline - 1.5 pediatric dose - Beta 2 stimulator

question

Dextrose 50 %

answer

- hypoglycemia & Alcoholism with coma - 50 mL which is 25 grams slow IV - with Alcoholism also give Thiamine 100 mg IM or IV - check BGL - Dont give with brain bleeds

question

Benadryl / Diphenhydramine

answer

- allergic reaction & anaphylaxis - 25 to 50 mg IV or IM - antihistamine

question

Narcan / Naloxone

answer

- Narcotic overdose and coma of unknown origin - 0.4 to 2 mg IV or IM - used for Morphine, Methadone, Codeine

question

Umbilical Cord

answer

2 arteries / 1 vein

question

Stages of Labor

answer

- first stage - start of labor till the complete dilation - second stage - dilation until the delivery - third stage - delivery until delivery of placenta

question

Prolapsed Cord

answer

- Mother in knee to chest - prevent pressure on cord, don't push back on chord

question

Post par-tum hemorrhage

answer

- over 500 mL in 24 hours - massage fundus - tell mother to breast feed

question

First Trimester Complication

answer

- abortion - lower abdominal pain, cramps, bleeding - Ectopic - one sided lower abdominal pain, spotting, shock, possible syncope

question

Third Trimester Complication

answer

- Abruptio Placenta - tearing away of placenta, bright red blood associated with trauma with pain - Placenta Previa - completely or partially covering cervix, no pain - Toxemia

question

Sub-Arachnoid Bleed

answer

Sudden onset of severe, explosive headache, unconscious

question

Space Occupying lesion

answer

Tumor, blood Increased Cranial Pressure

question

AEIOU-TIPS

answer

Alcohol, Endocrine, Electrolytes, Encephalopathy,Insulin, Opiate, Uremia, Trauma, Intracranial, Poisoning, Seizure

question

Pituitary

answer

In the brain oxytocin

question

Adrenal

answer

Superior portion of kidney epinephrine and nor-epinephrine Disorders Addison's disease, adrenal gland failure Cushing's disease, over production of adrenal hormone

question

Thyroid Disorders

answer

Graves Disease- Hyperthyroidism, weight loss, heat intolerance, agitation, tachycardia

question

Upper GI hemorrhage

answer

Black tarry stools, vomiting blood or coffee ground colored. may be an ulcer

question

Lower GI Bleed

answer

bright red bloody stool

question

Appendicitis

answer

Right Lower Quadrant pain, no appetite, low fever unless ruptured, constipation

question

Kidney Stone

answer

severe flank pain, hemauria, sweating, pale

question

Renal Failure

answer

Fluid overload or Hypovolemia Before dialysis = hyperkalemia, Tall peaked T waves Post dialysis = hypo-everything, electrolyte imbalance complications of dialysis is air embolism, disequilibrium

question

Tricyclic Antidepressant

answer

Mellaril, Tofranil, Elavil, amytriptyline treat with sodium bicarb

question

Aspirin Overdose

answer

Hyperventilation, tachycardia, fever, sweating, ringing of the ears metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis

question

Heat Emergencies

answer

Heat cramps = cramps, sodium and water loss Heat exhaustion = Tachycardia, dizzy, headache, weak, pale, hypo-tension Heat Stroke = temperature 105 to 106, unable to regulate heat, hot and dry, lowered level of consciousness

question

Hypothermia

answer

90 to 86 degrees = mild hypothermia = 1 round of meds 86 degrees or lower = No meds, only defib if V-Tach warmed IV fluid

question

Meningitis

answer

fever, stiff neck, headache, backache, bulging fontanels with infants.

question

Hepatitis

answer

Fever, right upper quadrant pain, no appetite, jaundice, dark urine, clay colored stool Hepatitis A is viral Hepatitis B is blood-borne

question

tuberculosis

answer

night sweats, cough, weight loss, hemoptysis or bloody sputum. Common in HIV patients

question

Infants

answer

Toe to Head

question

Triage Colors

answer

Red = Emergency Yellow = Delayed Green = Minimal Treatment Black = Dead or Mortal Injury

question

HAZ-MAT

answer

Red = Fire Hazard Blue = Health Hazard Yellow = Reactivity White = Special Instructions 0 to 4 scale with 4 being the highest risk

question

Ambulance Types

answer

Type 1 = Truck with Modular based with pass through Type 2 = Van Type 3 = Van chassis with modular back with pass through

question

FDA

answer

Controlled Substance Act of 1970 Schedule drugs are addictive Schedule 1 has no medical use Schedule 2 has medical use

question

Right Upper Quadrant

answer

Liver Gallbladder Stomach

question

Right Lower Quadrant

answer

Appendix Ovary and Tube Bladder / if distended

question

Left Upper Quadrant

answer

Spleen Liver Stomach Pancreas

question

Left Lower Quadrant

answer

Ovary and Tube

question

Micro-drip

answer

60 drops per Milliliter

question

Macro-drip

answer

10 drops per milliliter

question

Traumatic Asphyxia

answer

Caused by crushing injury to abdomen and lower chest signs are bulging eyes and tongue along with cyanoisis and JVD

question

Syphilis

answer

Chancre and tabes dorsalis

question

Gonorrhea

answer

women may be asymptomatic, men may have burning while urination

question

Spread by droplets

answer

Measles, mumps, rubella, and chicken pox

question

Psychiatric patients

answer

rule out metabolic causes such as drugs, alcohol, seizures, and hypoglycemia open ended questions keep eye contact

question

psychotic vs neurotic

answer

psychotic not in touch with reality

question

Length of Pregnancy

answer

40 weeks or 280 days

question

Stages of Development in Pregnancy

answer

Pre-embryonic 1 to 14 days Embryonic 15 days to 8 weeks Fetal 8 weeks to delivery

question

Hypertensive syndrome aka Preeclampsia

answer

Preeclampsia is before seizure, eclampsia is after seizure S & S Hypertension, Protein in urine, swelling, epigastric pain, and hyper reflexes Mag sulfate, is seizing continues give Valium

question

Febrile Seizures

answer

Under age of 6 cool but dont allow shivering meningitis

question

Pediatric Drug Doses

answer

Atropine .02 milligrams per kilogram Lidocaine 1 milligrams per kilogram Valium .2 milligrams per kilogram Charcoal 1 gram per kilogram Albuterol .15 milligrams per kilogram

question

Signs of Pediatric shock

answer

Compensated: mottled, pale, weak pulse, tachycardia, BP may be normal slow cap refill De-compensated: Hypotension, low urine output, low BP, lowered LOC

question

When the body's blood glucose level falls

answer

the pancreas secretes glucagon, which stimulates the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.

question

Highest tidal volume

answer

pocket mask

question

Curved Blade aka Macintosh

answer

goes in the vallecula

question

Position to check for JVD

answer

Semi-Folwlers

question

QRS

answer

Ventricular Polarization

question

Blood leaves the lung and goes to

answer

Left Atrium

question

Burns

answer

Plasma shifts to interstitial space

question

Elderly Patient

answer

output more than input aka electrolyte imbalance

question

Nasogastric tube

answer

gets in way of of seal or intubation

question

Left-sided failure

answer

Common signs are tachypnea and increased work of breathing. Rales or crackles, heard initially in the lung bases, and when severe, throughout the lung fields suggest pulmonary edema. Cyanosis which suggests hypoxemia is a sign of extremely severe pulmonary edema.

question

Right-sided failure

answer

Ascites, JVD, Swelling of feet and ankles, and Shortness of breath

question

Avulsions

answer

most blood loss

question

Inotrope

answer

is Contraction

question

Chronotrope

answer

is Rate

question

Dromotropic

answer

is Rhythm

question

C1 and C2

answer

No breathing

question

C4, C5, and C6

answer

intercostal muscles, difficulty breathing, uses diaphragm and accessory muscles. quadriplegic

question

answer

nipple line, still breathing

question

T10

answer

umbilicus

question

pH 7.35 to 7.45

answer

amount of hydrogen ions in the blood Above 7.45 is Alkalosis, Below 7.35 is acidosis

question

PaCO2 35 to 45

answer

Respiratory components Partial Pressure of Carbon Dioxide

question

PaO2 or Blood Oxygen

answer

80 to 100 below 80% is hypoxia

question

Bicarb or HCO3, 22 - 26

answer

Metabolic Component low bicarb is metabolic acidosis

question

Arterial Blood Gases

answer

respiratory acidosis = increase ventilation respiratory alkalosis = decrease ventilation metabolic acidosis = Bicarb, check O2 and ventilation metabolic alkalosis = discontinue Bicarb

question

Beta

answer

Increase cardiac output, heart rate in the SA node via a chronotropic effect, atrial cardiac muscle contractility with inotropic effect, contractility and automaticity of ventricular cardiac muscle bronchodilation

STUDY

Civil Law Dea Form 222 Nursing Occupational Safety And Health Administration Pharmacology Pharmacy Assisting

CCBMA 2015 – Flashcards 477 terms

Alexander Rose

477 terms

Preview

CCBMA 2015 – Flashcards

question

Narcotic prescriptions are regulated by which agency

answer

Drug enforcement administration

question

Carcinoma

answer

Cancerous tumor

question

A medical assistant discusses a a patient by name at lunch with others in the building the MA could be charged with

answer

Invasion of privacy

question

Cardialgia

answer

Heart pain

question

A method mediating disputes between a patient in a physician is called

answer

Arbitration

question

Phlebitis

answer

Inflammation of the vein

question

Patient rights include this principle

answer

Confidentiality

question

Pathology

answer

Study of disease

question

A false statement harmful to another person's character is called

answer

Slander

question

Subcutaneous tissue

answer

Beneath the skin

question

A person under legal age who is self-supporting and living apart from parents is called

answer

Emancipated minor

question

Removal of the stomach

answer

Gastrectomy

question

This document is required in order to provide medical records

answer

Record release

question

Hyperopia

answer

Farsightedness

question

Failure to perform professional care is called

answer

Negligence

question

Elevated temperature

answer

Hyperpyrexia

question

State log requires that physicians always report this condition

answer

Abuse

question

CHF

answer

Congestive heart failure

question

Billing and insurance company for false charges is considered

answer

Fraud

question

Neuritis

answer

Inflammation of the nerve

question

Carefully documented the patient's care will help prevent professional

answer

Liability

question

Informed consent must be given by the patient before they

answer

are given anesthesia for a minor surgery

question

The patient's medical record belongs to the

answer

Physician

question

answer

Before meals

question

Written instructions are the best way to be sure patient understand directions

answer

True

question

Stat

answer

Immediately

question

One way to be sure a patient understands instructions would be to have the patient repeat them

answer

True

question

Pertaining to the back

answer

dorsal

question

In communications responding maybe verbal and nonverbal

answer

True

question

Proximal

answer

Nearest to point of origin

question

Patients should be informed of the office payment policy only after several visits

answer

False

question

Largest bone in the body

answer

Femur

question

Many offices use this visual aids to inform patients about their medical care

answer

True

question

Food is absorbed into the body in the

answer

Small intestines

question

Written prescriptions must be signed by the physician

answer

True

question

In abnormal condition of the pancreas

answer

Diabetes

question

Verbal explanation of a procedure do not help the patients remain calm

answer

False

question

The transfer of gases in the respiratory system takes place in the

answer

Alveoli

question

A patient on a soft diet should avoid rough foods such as ground meat

answer

True

question

The aorta is the largest

answer

Artery

question

A patient could have milk on a clear liquid diet

answer

False

question

Pacemaker of the heart

answer

S A node

question

Patients with certain allergies may have a reaction with routine immunizations

answer

True

question

The main organ of the urinary system is

answer

Kidneys

question

Postoperative wound care instructions may include dressing changes

answer

True

question

Endometriosis is an abnormal condition of the female

answer

Reproductive system

question

Physically impaired patients may require an attendant when seen in the office

answer

True

question

Three tiny bones in the middle of the year are called the

answer

Ossicles

question

Guide dogs are allowed to accompany their blind person to a physician office

answer

True

question

HCPCS are codes developed to identify

answer

Services supplies not in CPT - 4

question

The USDA food guide is often used when explaining healthy eating habits

answer

True

question

Necessary traits for the medical assistants include

answer

Empathy

question

The best fluid to ingest during and after physical exertion is water

answer

True

question

Body language is an example of

answer

Nonverbal communication

question

The cycle the chain of infection explains how

answer

Pathogens transmit disease from person to person

question

In California the medical assistant may administer which of the following procedures

answer

Intramuscular injections

question

The sheets that contain information about chemicals, lists hazards, precaution and manufacture information are called

answer

MSDS files

question

By law in California all medical assistance shall receive training in

answer

Infection control

question

Personal protective equipment includes

answer

Gowns, face shields, gloves

question

When one state accepted another State's license for a Dr., it is

answer

Reciprocity

question

A tympanic thermometer is an electric thermometer that is used for temperatures taken

answer

In the ear

question

The two main types of law or

answer

Civil and criminal

question

Visual acuity measures a person's site at specific distance

answer

Snellen chart

question

When the physician has explained a procedure, the risks and whether there are alternatives to the patient, this is called

answer

Informed consent

question

Three instruments used in basic physical exams are

answer

Reflex hammer, tuning fork, stethoscope

question

Arbitration is

answer

Mediating a dispute

question

The term menstruation refers to

answer

Body measurements

question

Misfeasance, malfeasance And malpractice are form of

answer

Negligence

question

Patient education is important because it

answer

Helps patients understand situations/need for changes

question

Physicians in California required by law to report

answer

Abuse

question

The ROS (review of systems) is part of the medical history and is generally take him by the

answer

Physician

question

A housekeeper is a job classification which has

answer

Occupational exposure

question

When interviewing a patient to obtain their medical history the first step would be to ensure

answer

Privacy in a separate room

question

Under Cal-OSHA and exposure control plan must include

answer

Recordkeeping of occupational injuries

question

In the Lithhotomy position The patient would be draped with a

answer

Diagonal drape

question

Reportable diseases and conditions include

answer

Gonorrhea

question

A percussion hammer is used to check for

answer

Reflex action

question

The medical record can be released when

answer

There was a sign release

question

The test that is used to assess a patient's lung function is

answer

Spirometer

question

Under the controlled substance act schedule II drugs

answer

I written on special RX blanks

question

Electro cardiography is used as a diagnostic tool to detect

answer

Heart dysfunction

question

When instructing a specific procedure to a patient it is most important that the medical assistant

answer

Show the patient what to do

question

When laboratory procedures are performed in a medical office they must be a strict

answer

CLIA/OSHA standards

question

When giving the patient instructions for a 24 hour urine collection he should

answer

Provide a collection container with written orders

question

The urine specimen that is most concentrated is the

answer

First morning

question

Follow-up instructions for wound care would include

answer

How to recognize complications

question

The most common site for capillary puncture in adult is the

answer

Middle finger

question

Special diets may be needed for patients with

answer

Emphysema

question

Records for dispensing/administration of controlled drugs must be kept for a minimum of

answer

Two years

question

Hemoccult instruction would include

answer

Correct dietary modifications

question

The label on a drug must be read how many times before administrated

answer

Three

question

When a patient has a hearing impairment you should

answer

Face the patient directly when speaking

question

In advantage of using parental administration of medication is

answer

Faster rate of absorption

question

Patient from a different culture may need

answer

Translated procedure

question

A 25 gauge needle with 3/8 length is used for a

answer

Intradermal injection

question

Patient sign in sheet used in a medical practice should only contain

answer

Patients first name as a sign in

question

The basic ABCs for resuscitation are

answer

Airway, breathing, circulation

question

A medical practice may call patients by first name as long as they

answer

Have permission to call them by first name

question

A severe allergic reaction caused by hypersensitivity to a substance is called

answer

Anaphylactic shock

question

Patients of a medical practice must have acknowledgment of their privacy in

answer

Written signature and initials on notice

question

answer

Chief complaint

question

answer

After meals

question

CHF

answer

Congestive heart failure

question

answer

At bedtime

question

answer

History

question

RLQ

answer

Right lower quadrant

question

answer

Intermuscular

question

q.i.d.

answer

Four Times a day

question

LMP

answer

Last menstrual period

question

gtt

answer

Drop

question

I&D

answer

Incision and drainage

question

answer

Right Eye

question

hct

answer

hematocit

question

answer

diagnosis

question

answer

Treatment

question

LUQ

answer

Left upper quadrant

question

STAT

answer

Immediately

question

answer

By mouth

question

SOB

answer

Shortness of breath

question

Low blood pressure

answer

Hypotension

question

Scar tissue

answer

Cicatrix

question

Enlargement of the kidney

answer

Nephromegaly

question

Gallstones

answer

choleithiasis

question

Beaneath the skin

answer

Subcutaneous

question

Upper jaw

answer

Maxilla

question

Endocrine System disease

answer

Goiter

question

Vomiting blood

answer

Hematemesis

question

Smallest blood vessel

answer

Capillary

question

Kneecap

answer

Patella

question

Inflammation of the nerve

answer

Neuritis

question

Heart attack

answer

Myocardial infraction

question

Blood in the urine

answer

Hematuria

question

Large tongue

answer

Macroglossia

question

Fainting

answer

Syncope

question

X-ray study of the bladder

answer

Cystogram

question

Slow heartbeat

answer

Bradycardia

question

Membrane covering the lungs

answer

Pleura

question

Loss of calcium in the bones

answer

Osteoporosis

question

Severe itching

answer

Pruritis

question

Situated in front or in the forward part

answer

question

Remote farther from the point of origin

answer

Distal

question

Nearest closer to the point of origin

answer

Proximal

question

Situated toward the outer part

answer

Peripheral

question

Situated below are directed downward

answer

Interior

question

Straightening motion that increases the angle between adjoining bones

answer

Extension

question

Movement toward the midline

answer

adduction

question

Situated near the surface

answer

Superficial

question

Pertaining to the belly

answer

Ventral

question

Away from the midline pertaining to the side

answer

Lateral

question

Pertaining to the back

answer

Dorsal

question

Pertaining to the middle

answer

Medial

question

Situated above are directed upward

answer

Superior

question

Referring to the soul of the foot

answer

Plantar

question

Bending motion that decreases the angle between adjoining bones

answer

Flexion

question

Laying facedown and flat

answer

Prone

question

The lungs are found in the _____cavity

answer

Thoracic

question

Laying flat on the back

answer

Supine

question

Toward the tail

answer

Caudal

question

The liver is found in the____cavity

answer

Abdominal

question

When two people communicate both persons will alternate roles as sender and receiver as a speak responses and clarification

answer

True

question

Shaking your head in a negative way can't jeopardize your communication with the patient

answer

True

question

A medical assistant may need to enter a patient's personal space to deliver care to a patient

answer

True

question

Explanation do not help ease patients Anxiety about what will happen

answer

False

question

The use of touch can be therapeutic for some patients

answer

True

question

Being touched by a stranger can be an uncomfortable or even a negative experience

answer

True

question

Many patients perceive touch in a medical setting as a prelude to something unpleasant such as injections

answer

True

question

You do not need to give your full attention to the patient to actively listen

answer

False

question

Occasionally a patient's verbal message may seem to conflict with the nonverbal message

answer

True

question

A medical assistant will typically be responsible for gathering initial patient information

answer

True

question

A patient's interview does not include a review of past or current medical history

answer

False

question

Paraphrasing means to restate using your own words what you have heard

answer

True

question

Reflecting means repeating back what you have heard

answer

True

question

Miscommunication can happen because the message may have been unclear or inappropriate to the situation

answer

True

question

The way a patient perceives situations is not influenced by their culture and social our religious background

answer

False

question

A physician may instruct a medical assistant to give medications by injection

answer

True

question

A medical assistance are permitted to start intervenous therapy

answer

False

question

Medical assistance may assist with minor surgery

answer

True

question

If the physician is present on the site in medical assistant may apply bandages

answer

True

question

A medical assistant may administer a narcotic injection

answer

True

question

California law allows a medical assistant to draw blood in the clinical setting if they have complete a proper training

answer

True

question

If directed a medical assistant me insert urinary catheter

answer

False

question

Medical assistant are allowed to Interpret laboratory results

answer

False

question

Ear lavage may be performed by a medical assistant if the physician is on site

answer

True

question

Vital signs may be taken by a medical assistant

answer

True

question

Medical assistance may remove orthopedic cast

answer

True

question

Injecting college in our Botox is within the medical assistance scope of practice

answer

False

question

Medical assistance are allowed to inject anesthetics

answer

False

question

Medication may be given orally by medical assistants

answer

True

question

A medical assistant is permitted to use a laser

answer

False

question

Medical assistance may call themselves the office nurse

answer

False

question

recommending a course of treatment for a patient is within the scope of practice

answer

False

question

If directed a medical assistant can apply and orthopedics splint

answer

False

question

A medical assistant can remove superficial sutures

answer

True

question

Medical assistance may perform fingerstick's

answer

True

question

A physician retires without notifying his patients the physician and could be charged with

answer

Abandonment

question

The disposal of medical infectious waste is controlled by

answer

Cal OSHA regulations

question

a physician describe the procedure risk and alternative treatment to a patient this is called

answer

Informed consent

question

A medical assistant who performs a procedure ordered by the physican employer is protected under what principle

answer

Respondeat superior

question

A medical assistant can be required to appear in court with this document

answer

Subpoena

question

When responding to an office emergency

answer

Remain calm and follow office protocol

question

cysto

answer

bladder

question

The patient agrees to receive a flu shot this is an

answer

Consent

question

The use of in a AED is for patients who are

answer

Cardiac arrest

question

Stenosis

answer

Narrowing

question

The best method of preventing transmission of disease is

answer

Handwashing

question

excision of the stomach

answer

Gastrectomy

question

The artery normally used for taking a pulse reading is the

answer

Radial

question

The abbreviation for two times a day

answer

b.i.d

question

An instrument used to examine the ears

answer

Otoscope

question

Correct spelling

answer

Pharyngitis

question

Social history includes

answer

Marital status

question

Communication with patients can be improved by

answer

Providing privacy

question

Which of the following occurs as a urine specimen remains on the counter for a long time

answer

Bacteria multiply

question

A trained medical assistant is able to

answer

Assist with minor surgery

question

A Holter monitor measures heart

answer

Rhythm

question

A patient's photo was made public without her permission this is called

answer

Invasion of privacy

question

The nerve most apt to be affected during an injection in the buttocks is the

answer

Sciatic

question

Patient instruction sheet are used to

answer

Prevent misunderstanding

question

an injection into fatty tissue lining immediately under the skin is called

answer

Subcutaneous

question

The best time to perform a breast exam

answer

Monthly

question

The first and most important role to remember in an emergency is

answer

Stay calm

question

hyper-

answer

Increased

question

Medical assistance are expected to make decisions in medical office emergencies based on their

answer

Medical knowledge

question

nephro-

answer

Kidney

question

A surface free of contaminated instruments

answer

Sterile field

question

auto-

answer

Self

question

Gloves, mask and gowns are known as

answer

Personal protective equipment

question

osteo-

answer

Bone

question

Washing instruments to remove debris

answer

Sanitization

question

dys-

answer

Painful

question

Absence of bacteria

answer

Asepsis

question

litho-

answer

Stone

question

An organism that produces disease

answer

Pathogen

question

brady-

answer

Slow

question

Molds and yeast or types of

answer

Fungi

question

chole-

answer

Gallbladder

question

Instruments touched by ungloved hands are

answer

Contaminated

question

macro-

answer

Large

question

Destruction of all micro organisms

answer

Sterilization

question

Gastro

answer

Stomach

question

Hinged instrument should be__ when sterilized

answer

Open

question

Artho

answer

Joint

question

A sterile pack containing scissors, thumb forceps and gauze squares is called a

answer

Suture removal pack

question

tacky-

answer

Fast

question

The term for removal of contaminated materials from a wound is

answer

Debridement

question

thoraco-

answer

Chest

question

Scrubbing the surgical site in a circular motion from the center to the edge

answer

Surgical prep

question

Hypo

answer

Decreased

question

Removing fluid or gas is by suction is called

answer

Aspiration

question

Mammo

answer

Breast

question

Flushing out a wound or cavity with the solution is called

answer

Irrigation

question

veno-

answer

Vein

question

A sterile surface contain sterile items

answer

Surgical tray

question

hepato-

answer

Liver

question

S/s, s/b and b/b describe surgical

answer

Scissors

question

hemo-

answer

Blood

question

Instruments used to clamp off blood vessels are called

answer

Hemostats

question

ophthalmo-

answer

Eye

question

It's Sterile covering placed over a wound is called a

answer

Dressing

question

trans-

answer

Through / across

question

Instruments such as fiber optic scopes are soaked in chemicals in a procedure called

answer

Cold sterilization

question

-oma

answer

Tumor

question

Pulse located at the Elbow

answer

Brachial

question

-algia

answer

Pain

question

Pulse located at the knee

answer

Popliteal

question

-ectomy

answer

Surgical opening

question

Pulse located at the thumb side of the wrist

answer

Radial

question

-itis

answer

Inflammation

question

Pulse Located at the side of the neck

answer

Carotid

question

-ology

answer

Study

question

Pulse located in the middle of the groin

answer

femoral

question

-emia

answer

Blood Condition

question

The highest reading a blood pressure is called

answer

Systolic

question

-tomy

answer

Incision

question

Blood pressure measured while patient is lying, sitting and standing

answer

Orthostatic

question

-osis

answer

Abnormal condition

question

An instrument used to test reflexes

answer

Percussion hammer

question

-megaly

answer

Enlargement

question

An instrument used to open a bloody orifices for viewing

answer

Speculum

question

-graphy

answer

X-ray exam

question

An instrument used to examine the eye

answer

Ophthalmoscope

question

-phasia

answer

speech

question

In instrument used to examine the ear

answer

Otoscope

question

-scopy

answer

Examination

question

In instrument used to examine the rectum and colon

answer

Sigmoidoscope

question

-gram

answer

Record

question

Irregular heart rhythm

answer

Arrhythmia

question

-ptosis

answer

Falling /drooping

question

Rapid pulse

answer

Tachycardia

question

-plagia

answer

Paralysis

question

Having no symptoms

answer

Asymptomatic

question

-desis

answer

Bind/Tie

question

Slow pulse

answer

Bradycardia

question

-phagia

answer

Swallowing

question

Marital status is considered

answer

Social history

question

-ostomy

answer

Surgical opening

question

The patient's own words determine the

answer

Chief complaint

question

-pathy

answer

Disease

question

Family history is considered

answer

Subjective

question

answer

Once daily

question

Important procedures for protecting hard disk information

answer

Back up

question

The term used for starting the computer

answer

Boot

question

Flashing line showing where data can be entered

answer

Cursor

question

The most common device for data input

answer

Keyboard

question

Wordprocessing allows the user to quickly move or delete blocks of

answer

Text

question

A convenient feature use one proofreading a document

answer

Spellcheck

question

Large group of files use for information retrieval

answer

Database

question

A medical office should have a security policy to protect

answer

Patient information

question

Computerized patient accounts simplifying monthly statements and

answer

Insurance billing

question

This list can be easily prepared with computerize scheduling

answer

Daily appointments

question

A computer field contains a piece of

answer

Information

question

Software program that quickly calculates numbers

answer

Spreadsheet

question

Rearrangement of information in the database is called

answer

Sorting

question

Setting margins and tabs for a letter is called

answer

Formatting

question

Progress notes are usually filled in what order

answer

chronological

question

The medical record belongs to the

answer

physician

question

The document stating patient agrees to a procedure

answer

Consent

question

A method which speeds the filing process

answer

Color coding

question

The term for removing an active records from the files

answer

Purging

question

Chart notations require the date

answer

Information and initials

question

Material which should never be used to correct medical records

answer

White out

question

Person who can legally sign a release of medical records

answer

Patient or guardian

question

A system of organizing information in a medical record

answer

SOAP

question

Patient chart are usually filed in which order

answer

Alphabetical

question

Each page of medical records should include

answer

Patients name and date

question

Information in the medical record is

answer

Private and confidential

question

Records for patients currently receiving treatment are in the

answer

Active files

question

Records for minor patients are usually kept until

answer

The patient is 21

question

Chart notes should be completed

answer

Daily

question

E HR system automatically assign a patient

answer

MRN

question

A patient must find this document to obtain past records

answer

Record release form

question

The fund for small office purchase

answer

Petty cash

question

A term for overpayment on an account

answer

Credit

question

Monthly fee for bank accounts

answer

Service charge

question

Pre-printed statements listing codes for basic office charges

answer

Encounter form

question

Entering charges and payments to a patient's account

answer

Posting

question

List of unpaid accounts by date of service

answer

Aging analysis

question

Another term for charge

answer

Debt

question

Correction to a patient's account

answer

Adjustments

question

Placing the practice name and account number on the back of the check

answer

Endorsing

question

Total of bills owed by the practice

answer

Accounts Payable

question

Total of all patients accounts

answer

Accounts Receivable

question

Never accept payment from a patient who has been turned over to a

answer

Collection agency

question

Portion of the bill patient is required to pay each year

answer

Deductible

question

Cancellation of an Unpaid debt

answer

Wright off

question

Amount patient must pay for each visit

answer

Copayment

question

Federal insurance program for elderly person or person with permanent disability

answer

Medicare

question

Term for an insurance claim for Medicare and Medi-Cal patient

answer

Crossover

question

Type of insurance for work-related injuries

answer

Worker's Compensation

question

Insurance claims which have a greater chance for rejection

answer

Paper claims

question

Addition to a procedure code which indicates special circumstances

answer

Modifier

question

A policy which supplements Medicare coverage

answer

Medigap

question

Insurance coverage for military dependents

answer

Tricare/CHAMPUS

question

Universal claim form is called

answer

1500

question

Insurance claim without incomplete information will be

answer

Rejected

question

Monthly fee a provider is paid for each patient

answer

Capitation

question

Insurance company statement of how a claim is settled

answer

Explanation of benefits

question

Billing for services the physician did not perform

answer

Fraud

question

A procedure code followed by the modifier-99 indicates

answer

Multiple modifiers

question

Electronic claims can be processed through a

answer

Clearinghouse

question

Term for an insurance firm that has been filled out correctly

answer

clean claim

question

Patient addresses and billing information should be updated

answer

At Each visit

question

Insurance claims require the patient to sign _____to release information

answer

Authorization

question

An assignment of benefits form allows the insurance company to

answer

Pay the provider

question

Federal law protecting privacy of health insurance information

answer

HIPAA

question

Antitussive of medication are used to control

answer

Coughing

question

Most ample contain how many doses

answer

One

question

Medication given p.o. is administered

answer

orally

question

In injection into fatty tissue lane immediately under the skin is called

answer

subcutaneous

question

The proper way to express 1/2 cc is

answer

0.5cc

question

What is The preferred site for a tuberculin skin test

answer

anterior forearm

question

It's up to subcutaneous injection is given at an angle of

answer

45 to 90 degrees

question

The most used deep adult intramuscular injection site is

answer

Dorsal gluteal

question

When administering a subcutaneous injection the amount of the dose should not exceed

answer

2cc

question

When choosing a needle syringe unit you should keep in mind the patent

answer

Age and size

question

The gauge of a needle is determined by the diameter of its

answer

Lumen

question

Drugs and DM ER coded using

answer

HCPCS

question

The physicians physical examination is considered

answer

objective

question

Physical, chemical and microscope examination

answer

Urinalysis

question

A chemical substance that prevents clotting of blood in a blood specimen

answer

Heparin

question

A Vacutainer that contains no anticoagulant has a stopper colored by

answer

Red

question

Material that presents a risk of possible infection

answer

Biological hazard

question

The usual site for capillary testing

answer

Fingertip

question

Urine specimen obtained by the patient simply urinating in a cup is called

answer

Random catch

question

Patient is instructed to cleanse the urethra with an antiseptic toilet

answer

Clean catch

question

Legal method of documenting lab testing process security

answer

Chain of custody

question

A sterile swab would be used for

answer

Wound culture

question

The intensity of color in a urine specimen indicates

answer

Concentration

question

Instruments used to prepare your for microscopic examination

answer

Centrifuge

question

Improper handling of lab specimens can result in

answer

Contamination

question

The standard EKG consist of _____ leads

answer

question

Simple laboratory test with a high degree of accuracy

answer

Waived test

question

Quality control in the laboratory answers as the _____ of results

answer

Accuracy

question

Stool specimens are tested for

answer

Occult blood

question

A machine use for testing Lung capacity

answer

Spirometer

question

Tuberculosis can be diagnosed from a

answer

Sputum specimen

question

Patient begins urinating in the toilet and catches the remainder in a cup

answer

Mid stream catch

question

All procedures during a medical emergency must be

answer

Documented

question

The first technique to use to control bleeding is

answer

Direct pressure

question

Poorly reacting pupils might indicate a severe

answer

Head injury

question

A piece of emergency equipment used to return proper heart rhythm

answer

Defibrillator/AED

question

The first thing a medical assistant should do an emergency situation

answer

Assess the situation

question

Equipment prepared in advance for emergency use is called

answer

Crash cart

question

A basic CPR is to clear the

answer

Airway

question

The lack of a pulse is one way to identify

answer

Cardiac arrest

question

A straight fracture across the bone shaft is called

answer

Transverse

question

A week and rapid pulse is a sign of

answer

Shock

question

A severe involuntary contraction of muscles is called a

answer

Seizure

question

In overdose of insulin would cause the patient to go into

answer

Diabetic shock

question

Nitroglycerin if ordered for chest pain. It will be in administered

answer

Under the tongue

question

Formation of blisters following a burn can be treated with

answer

Coldwater

question

In emergency Tray would include

answer

Epinephrine

question

To establish an airway, the patient would be placed

answer

On the back

question

Symptoms of heart attack include pain in the chest

answer

Jaw our arm

question

The procedure use for a choking person

answer

Abdominal thrust

question

A broken bone wedged into another bone is called a_____ fracture

answer

Impacted

question

A patient who is having a seizure should never be

answer

Restrained

question

For messages sources in the medical office are

answer

Answering service, voicemail, email, fax machine

question

The reception area should have

answer

Comfortable and durable furniture

question

A patient should be room at arrival if they have the following

answer

Influenza

question

When taking a telephone message, you should have a list of

answer

Questions concerning a patient's condition

question

One setting up a daily matrix for appointment scheduling, leave daily time slots open for

answer

Acutely ill patients

question

Three ways to remind patients of their appointments are

answer

Appointment cards, mail cards, telephone

question

In a modified block letter format, each paragraph is

answer

Indented five spaces

question

Registered mail is used when you are sending

answer

A priority mail package that is valuable

question

Email is now used to

answer

Send work related messages

question

Computers are used in the medical office for

answer

Insurance, filing, inpatient billing

question

Proper medical record entries are necessary as they are used for

answer

Legal documentation

question

Terminal digit filing uses groups of numbers read

answer

From right to left

question

The day sheet is a

answer

Daily record of charges and payments

question

Examples of accounts payable would be

answer

Rent, utilities, payroll

question

A cashiers check is a special check sold to a customer by

answer

Financial institutions

question

Federal regulations require that a sign be posted in the office to inform patients of

answer

Their right as a patient

question

One of the most common ways of collecting overdue accounts is

answer

Phoning a patient to let them know if payment is due

question

The list of charges for a medical practice is called a

answer

Fee schedule

question

Common methods for determining insurance payments are

answer

Capitation, UCR, RVS

question

When a patient has dual insurance plans working together to determine payment that is called

answer

Coordination of benefits

question

A group of physicians who had a contract to provide services to subscribers of a plan for a set fee or part of a

answer

PPO

question

Medicare claims are processed by regional insurance companies called

answer

Fiscal intermediaries

question

The form that the patient signs to give the physician permission to disclose health information and insurance carrier is called

answer

Release of information

question

When using I CD - 9 coding, E - codes provide a supplemental classification for

answer

Circumstances/conditions as cause of injury/adverse effects

question

In additional code composed of a hyphen plus two digit is called a

answer

Modifier

question

When preparing envelopes, one should use

answer

Capital letters in block form at

question

Telephone calls should be answered no later then

answer

Third ring

question

A patient fails to keep an appointment. The medical assistant should make a note on the

answer

Patient's chart

question

A computer back up is used to

answer

Copy hard drive information

question

CPT codes are used to identify

answer

Medical procedure

question

ICD codes are used to identify

answer

Medical diagnosis

question

Patient insurance cards should be reviewed

answer

At each visit

question

In HMO is an example of ____ healthcare

answer

Managed

question

A good tool for reminding staff uncertain things need to be done is called

answer

Tickler file

question

Information maybe sent rapidly by using a

answer

Fax machine

question

The purpose of arranging a series of printed pages is called

answer

Collating

question

The most important part of preparing correspondence

answer

Proofreading

question

A daily log should be kept of all

answer

Incoming telephone calls

question

Incoming mail should be sorted and

answer

Date stamped

question

The preferred way to send valuable items by mail

answer

Registered mail

question

Termination of care letters should be sent by

answer

Certified mail return receipt

question

System for leaving messages which can be retrieved later

answer

Voicemail

question

Canceled appointment should be noted in the

answer

Patient's chart

question

A method of maximizing appointment time

answer

Wave scheduling

question

The appointment schedule can be used as a

answer

Legal record

question

A useful telephone service for a physician with two offices

answer

Call forwarding

question

On a multi line telephone, the line is usewill be indicated by

answer

Steady light

question

To best utilize the appointment schedule, set aside time for

answer

Call Backs

question

an important way to make the patient feel comfortable

answer

Warm greeting

question

Missed appointments can be reduced by

answer

Calls to confirm appointments

question

Patients should be notified of any

answer

Unusual delays

question

Having access to the patient's chart is necessary when

answer

Scheduling procedures

question

First come first serve method. of appointment scheduling

answer

Open hours

question

Stating names within another patient's hearing could be a

answer

Breach of confidentiality

question

The physical equipment of a computer is called

answer

Hardware

question

Computer hardware with permanent memory

answer

Hard disk

question

A portable memory storage device is called

answer

USB drive

question

Computer scheduling allows quick access to

answer

Open appointments

question

No office should download information from the Internet without a

answer

Antivirus program

question

A method of controlling access to confidential patient information

answer

Password

STUDY

End Stage Renal Disease First Pass Effect Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Pharmacology 105 Exam #1 – Flashcards 12 terms

Rae Jordan

12 terms

Preview

Pharmacology 105 Exam #1 – Flashcards

question

What is the study of the physiochemical properties of drugs and how they influence the body called? A) Pharmacokinetics B) Pharmacotherapeutics C) Pharmacodynamics D) Pharmacology

answer

C) Pharmacodynamics

question

Pharmacokinetics involves the study of A) physiologic interactions of drugs. B) distribution rates among various body compartments. C) interactions between various drugs. D) adverse reactions to medications.

answer

B) distribution rates among various body compartments

question

How can drugs exert their action on the body? (Select all that apply.) A) By interacting with receptors B) By making the cell perform a new function C) By inhibiting the action of a specific enzyme D) By altering metabolic chemical processes

answer

A, C, and D)

question

What is an alternate name for biotransformation of a drug? A) Absorption B) Dilution C) Excretion D) Metabolism

answer

D) Metabolism

question

A drug given by which route is altered by the first-pass effect? A) Sublingual B) Subcutaneous C) Oral D) Intravenous

answer

C) Oral

question

Drug half-life is defined as the amount of time required for 50% of a drug to A) be absorbed by the body. B) exert a response. C) be eliminated by the body. D) reach a therapeutic level.

answer

C) be eliminated by the body

question

Which action will increase the absorption of a medication administered intramuscularly? A) Applying cold packs to the injection site B) Lowering the extremity below the level of the heart C) Administering the medication via the Z-track method D) Massaging the site after injection

answer

D) massaging the site after injection

question

Highly protein-bound drugs A) increase the risk of drug-drug interactions. B) typically provide a short duration of action. C) must be administered with 8 ounces of water. D) have a decreased effect in patients with a low albumin level.

answer

A) increase the risk of drug-drug interactions

question

To achieve the most rapid onset of action, by which route will the health care provider administer the medication? A) Subcutaneously B) Intravenously C) Intramuscularly D) Intrathecally

answer

B) Intravenously

question

Patients with renal failure would most likely have problems with drug A) excretion. B) absorption. C) metabolism. D) distribution.

answer

A) excretion

question

What is the ratio between a drug's therapeutic effects and toxic effects called? A) Tolerance B) Cumulative effect C) Therapeutic index D) Affinity

answer

C) therapeutic index

question

Which factors will affect the absorption of orally administered medications? (Select all that apply.) A) Presence of food in the stomach B) pH of the stomach C) Patient position upon intake of medication D) Form of drug preparation E) Time of day

answer

A, B, D, E,

STUDY

Development And Marketing Food And Drug Administration Nursing Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Pharmaceutical Terminolgy for Study guide – Flashcards 81 terms

Michael Seabolt

81 terms

Preview

Pharmaceutical Terminolgy for Study guide – Flashcards

question

Active ingredient

answer

is the chemical in a medication that is known or believed to have a therapeutic effect.

question

Adverse reaction

answer

denotes an unwanted or unexpected side effect or reaction to a medication; it may also result from an interaction among two or more medications.

question

Aerosol

answer

is a medication dosage form that uses a gaseous substance consisting of fine liquid or solid particles.

question

Allergic reaction

answer

denotes a sensitivity to a specific substance that is absorbed through the skin, inhaled into the lungs, swallowed, or injected.

question

Allergy

answer

is a sensitivity of the immune system to a chemical or drug; an allergy causes symptoms ranging from rashes to more sever symptoms such as irregular breathing.

question

Amphetamines

answer

are substances that are frequently abused as stimulant medications; they can be used to treat the medical conditions of narcolepsy and eating disorders.

question

Analgesic

answer

refers to a substance used to relieve acute or chronic pain.

question

Anaphylactic shock

answer

is a hypersensitivity reaction to a substance.

question

Antacid

answer

is a substance that relieves high acid levels in the gastric (stomach) area.

question

Antianxiety

answer

describes substances that reduce or relieve anxiety.

question

Antibiotic

answer

is a substance used to kill or stop the growth of bacteria in the body.

question

Anticoagulant

answer

refers to a substance that stops blood clotting (AKA blood thinner).

question

Antidepressant

answer

is a substance that helps to maintain proper hormone balance levels to decrease depressive moods.

question

Antihistamine

answer

refers to a substance that stops the effects of histamine release, which causes sneezing, watery eyes, and congestion.

question

Antiviral

answer

refers to drugs that fight viral infections in the body.

question

Auxiliary labels

answer

are placed on the medication package to provide information and instructions for use.

question

Beta-blockers

answer

are substances used in the treatment of hypertension, angina, arrhythmia, and cardiomyopathy; they may also be used to minimize the possibility of sudden death after a heart attack.

question

Blood sugar level

answer

is the measure of glucose (sugar) level in the bloodstream.

question

Brand name

answer

is the proprietary name of a drug exclusive to a manufacturer for selling and distributing purposes.

question

Calcium-channel blockers

answer

are substances used to treat and reduce hypertension (high blood pressure) and disorders that affect the blood supply to the heart; also used in the treatment of irregular heartbeat.

question

Capsule

answer

is a solid dosage form of a medication; usually made of gelatin, which surrounds and holds fine particles of a solid or liquid.

question

Chewable tablets

answer

are meant to be chewed instead of swallowed whole.

question

Chronic

answer

refers to a disease or illness that has a long duration (e.g., lifetime)

question

Compound

answer

refers to a substance made from a combination of two or more substances.

question

Contagious

answer

refers to the time period when an infectious person can transmit a disease to another person through direct or indirect contact.

question

Controlled release medication

answer

are released and metabolized over a period of time in the body.

question

Controlled substance

answer

refers to a drug with a high potential for abuse; manufacturing and distribution of these substances are regulated by the federal government to limit abuse and harm.

question

Cream

answer

is a dosage form of a medication that is a semisolid preparation, usually applied externally to soothe, lubricate, and protect.

question

Cure

answer

is the effective treatment of a disease or illness leading to elimination of all symptoms.

question

Decongestant

answer

refers to a substance that shrinks the mucous membranes that produce congestion.

question

Diuretic

answer

is a substance that increases the water output in the kidneys; reduces water retention in the body.

question

Dopamine

answer

is a neurotransmitter associated with the regulation of movement, emotions, pain, and pleasure.

question

Drops

answer

are a liquid dosage form of medication; they are usually placed in the eye or ear.

question

Electrolytes

answer

are salts that the body requires in its fluids; they are essential in nerve, muscle, and heart functions.

question

Emulsion

answer

is a liquid dosage form of a mixture of two products that normally do not mix together.

question

Enema

answer

is the process by which a medicated fluid is injected into the rectum.

question

Estrogens

answer

are hormones produced in the ovaries; they are responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sex characteristics.

question

Expectorants

answer

are substances that remove mucus from the upper respiratory system.

question

Formulary

answer

refers to a list of preferred medications that insurance plans allow their members to get at a lower out-of-pocket expense.

question

Glucagon

answer

is a hormone produced in the pancreas that causes the automatic release of glucose.

question

Glucose

answer

is sugar found in the bloodstream; it is the primary energy source for bodily functions.

question

Half-life

answer

defines the amount of time it takes for half of a substance to be broken down in the body and excreted.

question

Histamine (H2) blockers

answer

reduce acid secretion by preventing histamine from reaching the H2 receptors.

question

Immediate-release medications

answer

are available to the body and metabolized immediately following administration.

question

Immunosuppressant

answer

refers to substance that are used to prevent the body from rejecting an organ transplant (also known as anti-rejection drugs).

question

Inhalation

answer

is the administration of a medication directly into the lungs via the mouth or nose.

question

Insulin

answer

is a hormone secreted by the pancreas that helps the body to digest sugars and starches; manufactured insulin is used when the patient's pancreas does not produce enough on its own.

question

Intradermal

answer

denotes the administration of a medication by injection into the skin.

question

Intramuscular

answer

refers to the administration of a medication within or into the muscle.

question

Intravenous

answer

refers to the administration of a medication within or into a vein.

question

Laxative

answer

is a substance that increases defecation.

question

Local

answer

refers to a small area or single part of the body (e.g.,local anesthetic)

question

Lotion

answer

is a liquid dosage form that contains a powdered substance in a suspension; used externally to soothe, cool, dry, and protect.

question

Migraines

answer

are severe headaches caused by extreme changes in the blood vessels in the brain.

question

Muscle relaxants

answer

are used to treat involuntary, painful contraction of muscles by slowing the passage of nerve signals that cause pain in the muscles.

question

Narrow therapeutic range

answer

is the bioequivalence range of a brand-name drug and its generic counterpart where very small changes in dosage level could result in toxicity.

question

Ointment

answer

is a semisolid (mixture of a solid and a liquid) dosage form that is applied externally to deliver medication, lubricate, and protect.

question

Ophthalmic

answer

refers to administration of a medication through the eye.

question

Opiate

answer

is a drug derived from the opium poppy, such as morphine and codeine.

question

Oral

answer

refers to the administration of a medication into the mouth.

question

Otic

answer

denotes the administration of a medication into the ear.

question

Parenteral

answer

denotes the administration of medication by any route other than oral; administration by injection.

question

Patch

answer

is a dosage form in which the medication is delivered through a solid application applied to the skin and absorbed into the bloodstream.

question

Placebo

answer

is a pill-like preparation that contains no active chemical ingredients; usually given for its psychological effects (also known as a sugar pill).

question

Progestins

answer

are female reproductive hormones; they cause menstruation as they trigger the shedding of the uterine lining.

question

Proton pump inhibitors

answer

are substances that reduce gastric acid buildup by blocking the release of protons in the stomach.

question

Psychotherapeutic drugs

answer

are substances used to relieve they symptoms of mental and psychiatric illnesses, such as depression, psychosis, and anxiety.

question

Psychotropic

answer

denotes a substance that affects a person's ability to distinguish the real from the imaginary.

question

Rectally

answer

refers to administration of a solid or liquid medication given through the rectum.

question

Sedatives

answer

relieve anxiety and tension, calm, and relax the patient.

question

Side effects

answer

are predicted, unwanted reactions to a substance or combination of substances.

question

Sterilize

answer

means to cleanse (objects, wounds, burns, and so on) of microorganisms such as bacteria.

question

Subcutaneous

answer

refers to the administration of a medication given under the skin.

question

Sublingual tablet

answer

is a tablet that is dissolved under the tongue instead of being swallowed whole.

question

Suppository

answer

denotes administration through the vagina or rectum of a solid medication.

question

Suspension

answer

is a liquid form in which the solid particles are not completely dissolved.

question

Syrup

answer

is a liquid dosage for that consists of water and sugar mixed with the medication.

question

Tablet

answer

is a solid dosage form in which the ingredients are compacted into a small, formed shape.

question

Topical

answer

refers to a substance used externally for relief of swelling, itching, or infection.

question

Transdermal

answer

refers to administration of a medication through the skin (e.g.,the skin).

question

Vasodilator

answer

is a substance that causes the blood vessels to widen.

STUDY

Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

NR 302 Respiratory Case Study – Flashcards 17 terms

Marie Florence

17 terms

Preview

NR 302 Respiratory Case Study – Flashcards

question

Pt Summary

answer

70 yr African American male. Comes to EC with SOB. Using albuterol inhaler q4 but it is not helping. Has trouble sleeping or doing any activities because of SOB

question

What are possible causes of the SOB?

answer

Asthma, pneumonia, COPD exacerbation, heart failure, pleural effusion

question

What type of assessment is most appropriate?

answer

A focused assessment because this is nonemergent. Check the patients use of accessory muscles, respiratory rate, pulse ox, auscultate the lungs, check capillary refill

question

What questions would you ask?

answer

-OLDCART & ICE - Did/do you smoke? - What medications are you taking? - Do COPD meds help with breathing? - Past medical history -Have you had a flu/pneumonia vaccine -Have you been in contact recently with someone who has a URI? -Have you been tested for TB? -Can you walk up a flight of stairs without getting SOB? -Any pain, anxiety, or stress? -Current/previous occupation -Any activity intolerance?

question

What should be included in the physical assessment?

answer

-Inspection, percussion, palpitation, auscultation -Breath sounds -Chest expansion -Use of accessory muscles -Skin color, finger nails -Quality of breathing -Mucous membranes -Breathing positions (tripod) -Vitals signs -Peripheral edema

question

What diagnostic studies might be ordered?

answer

-Chest x-ray -ABG -EKG -CBC -BMP -Sputum culture

question

To promote the release of surfactant, the RN encourages the patient to

answer

take deep breaths

question

A pt with a respiratory conditions asks "how does air get into my lungs?". The RN bases her answer on her knowledge that air moves into the lungs because of

answer

decrease in intrathoracic pressure relative to pressure at the airway

question

The nurse can best determine adequate arterial oxygenation of the blood by assessing

answer

arterial oxygen tension

question

When teaching a pt about the most important respiratory defense mechanism distal to the respiratory bronchioles, which topic would the RN discuss?

answer

alveolar macrophages

question

A student nurse asks the RN what can be measured by ABGs. The RN tells the student that the ABG can measure

answer

acid base balance, oxygenation status, acidity of blood, and bicarbonate in arterial blood

question

To detect early signs or symptoms of inadequate oxygenation, the RN would examine the pt for

answer

apprehension and restlessness

question

During the respiratory assessment of the older adult, the RN would expect to find

answer

increased residual volume and increased anteroposterior chest diameter

question

When assessing activity-exercise patterns related to respiratory health, the RN inquires about

answer

dyspnea during rest or exercise

question

When auscultating the chest of an older patient in respiratory distress, it is best to

answer

begin listening at the lung bases

question

Which assessment finding of the respiratory system does the nurse interpret as abnormal?

answer

bronchial breath sounds in the lower lung fields

question

The RN is preparing the patient for a diagnostic procedure to remove pleural fluids to analysis. The RN would prepare the patient for which test?

answer

Thoracentesis

STUDY

Nursing Pharmacology

Case study – Psychosis – Flashcards 12 terms

Jill Lopez

12 terms

Preview

Case study – Psychosis – Flashcards

question

1. Explain the pathophysiology of psychosis

answer

Psychosi occur when there is an imbalance of dopamine and acetylcholine. When there is excess in dopamine.

question

2. What are the key concerns and support needed regarding Alex?

answer

-Alex has false belief that he was the Messiah. He became violent and was pushing the support worker. Support needed Medication, Counseling, advocay, social network

question

3. What would make you suspect the Alex was experiencing psychotic episode?

answer

a. When he mentioned that he is the messiah, which is his own beliefs as a sign of having delusion of grandeur. b. While using the computer when he mentioned that he needs to have in contact with his followers he has a sensation that he was being touched by his followers (tactile hallucination). While in the computer he may have seen his followers (visual hallucination).

question

4. What strengths can you identify from Alex's story?

answer

a. He knows that he has done wrong. b. He communicates well c. He is open and honest to his feelings d. Computer literate

question

5. What challenges might there be to staff in supporting him?

answer

a. Violent act during psychotic episode b. AWOL - absence without leave c. Agitated reaction d. Use of computer

question

6. How will you include the recovery principles in your practice when working with Alex?

answer

a. Develop a professional relationship that builds trust b. Form a therapuetic communication - use respectful / appropriate language c. Stay calm/ listen to support him. d. Maintain a positive, strengths based attitude e. Follow the LEAP principles f. Use WRAP planning (Wellness, Recovery, Assessment, Planning)

question

7. What nursing interventions might be helpful to consider when discussing care planning with Alex?

answer

a. Observation b. Review of his medication c. Identify what triggers his delusion like for example stress, or if it is the side effect of the medication. d. Engage with Alex e. Work with the his goals f. Monitor mental state and risk status g. Monitor effects and side effects of mediation

question

8. How might the information regarding Alex's strengths be used when planning care for Alex?

answer

a. When he realised that he has done something wrong, it could be a positive indication that he is willing to work with the nurse towards his recovery. This strength could be helpful to start WRAP. b. Because he is intelligent with computers, this could be used for his planning, to read information about his illness, medication. c. Because he is a good communicator and shows leadership, this could be an advantage for nursing education. Example assigning him to educate his peers about schizophrenia.

question

After a week, Alex medication was changed from Risperidone 4mg daily to Olanzapine 20mg daily. 1. What classifications does these medications fall into?

answer

Risperidone & Olanzapine 20mg - Atypical antipsychotic medicine.

question

2. Explain the pharmacodynamics of these medications.

answer

Atypical antipsychotic medicines. Blocks the dopamine 2 and serotonin 5HT receptors preventing the dopamine and serotonin neurotransmitsers to activate in the post synaptic nueron. Blocking the serotonin relieves negative symptoms and blocking the D2 relieves positive symptoms.

question

3. What are the most common side effects and the adverse effects this group of medication?

answer

Constipation, akathisia, parkinsonism, dizziness, fatigue

question

4. Alex complains of being constipated on his medication. What nursing interventions could you suggest to relieve his constipation?

answer

a. Recommend high fibre diet b. Increase fluid intake c. Encourage regular exercise d. If above will not work then document and ask doctor to prescribe laxative. Nurse will not give laxative to patient not unless prescribed by physician

STUDY

Blood Supply To The Heart High Fiber Diet Nursing Pharmacology

Health Ch 12 – Flashcards 40 terms

Jason Westley

40 terms

Preview

Health Ch 12 – Flashcards

question

A blood pressure reading of 130/86 would be classified as stage 2 hypertension. prehypertension. stage 1 hypertension. normal.

answer

prehypertension.

question

Which of the following factors contributes to about 30 percent of all cancer deaths? radiation family history alcohol use tobacco use

answer

tobacco use

question

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of melanoma? occurs most commonly on the face bleeds easily appears at the site of a preexisting mole invades surrounding tissue

answer

occurs most commonly on the face

question

Smoking is responsible for what percentage of lung cancer? 20 percent 35 percent 65 percent 90 percent

answer

90 percent

question

The most common cause of cancer death in the United States is lung cancer. breast cancer. colon and rectal cancer. prostate cancer.

answer

lung cancer.

question

Exercise alters blood fat levels by raising LDL levels. lowering HDL levels. raising HDL levels. lowering LDL levels.

answer

raising HDL levels.

question

The small blood vessels that deliver blood to and pick blood up from tissues are vascules. capillaries. arterioles. venules.

answer

capillaries

question

Which of the following is associated with metabolic syndrome? insulin resistance low triglycerides high HDL low blood pressure

answer

insulin resistance

question

The infection that puts women at risk for cervical cancer is strep throat. pneumonia. hepatitis. HPV.

answer

HPV.

question

Symptoms of a heart attack include headache. difficulty breathing. sore throat. low back pain.

answer

difficulty breathing

question

Lung cancer is difficult to cure at any stage. caused only by cigarette smoking. considered a sarcoma. easily detectable in early stages.

answer

difficult to cure at any stage.

question

A malignant tumor is different from a benign tumor in that a malignant tumor is capable of invading surrounding structures. less of a threat to the patient. enclosed in a membrane. dangerous only if it interferes with bodily functions.

answer

capable of invading surrounding structures.

question

Transient ischemic attacks produce permanent paralysis. are also known as "mini strokes." can be cured with bed rest. usually occur after a major stroke.

answer

are also known as "mini strokes."

question

hich of the following is a treatment for heart disease? angina pectoris electrocardiogram balloon angioplasty angiogram

answer

balloon angioplasty

question

Naturally occurring substances found in plant foods that help prevent chronic diseases are nitrosamines. anticarcinogens. phytochemicals. free radicals.

answer

phytochemicals

question

Which of the following does NOT raise triglyceride levels? excess body fat a low carbohydrate diet cigarette smoking physical inactivity

answer

a low carbohydrate diet

question

Risk factors for oral cancer include cigarette and cigar smoking. excess alcohol consumption. use of spit tobacco. all of these.

answer

all of these.

question

Lymphoma is cancer of the lymph nodes, part of the body's infection-fighting system. connective and fibrous tissues. blood-forming cells. gastrointestinal tract.

answer

infection-fighting system

question

Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in males. the second leading cause of cancer death in men. All of these choices are correct. influenced by diet and lifestyle.

answer

All of these choices are correct.

question

Damage to the heart muscle because of lack of blood supply is called ischemia. cardiac arrest. angina pectoris. myocardial infarction.

answer

myocardial infarction.

question

Ovarian cancers are usually found at an early stage. are detectable with Pap tests. are relatively rare but have a high death rate. decrease in incidence with age.

answer

are relatively rare but have a high death rate.

question

A wandering clot that causes a stroke is called a(n) embolus. thrombosis. hemorrhage. vascular accident.

answer

embolus.

question

Atherosclerosis probably contributes to hypertension by causing arteries to become narrower. affecting sodium balance in the body. influencing cholesterol levels. dilating arteries.

answer

causing arteries to become narrower

question

The most dangerous form of skin cancer is squamous cell carcinoma. dysplasia. basal cell carcinoma. melanoma.

answer

melanoma.

question

The portion of the circulatory system governed by the right side of the heart is ______ circulation. pulmonary cerebral systemic extremity

answer

pulmonary

question

The most common form of cancer in women is ____________ cancer; the most common cause of cancer death in women is ____________. breast; ovarian lung; colon and rectal cervical; colon breast; lung

answer

breast; lung

question

Which one of the following is a good source of phytochemicals? halibut broccoli lean portion of beef nonfat milk

answer

broccoli

question

Scraping cells from the cervix for examination to screen for cancerous changes is called curetting. a Pap test. an endometrial smear. a PSA test.

answer

a Pap test.

question

he large artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and distributes it to the rest of the body is called the pulmonary vein. pulmonary artery. aorta. vena cava.

answer

aorta.

question

What do obesity and alcohol use have in common that increases breast cancer risk? They raise LDL cholesterol. They increase estrogen levels in the blood. They slow the rate of cell growth. They increase glucose levels in the blood.

answer

They increase estrogen levels in the blood

question

Which of the following combinations would place someone at greatest risk for cardiovascular disease? low HDL and low LDL high HDL and high LDL high HDL and low LDL low HDL and high LDL

answer

low HDL and high LDL

question

A woman is more likely to develop breast cancer if she is obese. her diet is low in fat. her diet is high in vegetables. she had her first child before age 30.

answer

she is obese.

question

A test that measures the electrical activity of the heart is called a(n) echocardiogram. coronary arteriogram. electrocardiogram. electroencephalogram.

answer

electrocardiogram.

question

When a coronary artery becomes blocked, the result is arrhythmia. an obstructive embolism. a heart attack. angina.

answer

a heart attack.

question

When a patient who has been previously diagnosed with cancer no longer has symptoms or other evidence of that cancer, the patient is said to have metastasis. be in remission. be in an immune state. have a benign tumor.

answer

be in remission.

question

When the heart contracts, during the ______ phase, blood pressure increases; when the heart relaxes, during the ______ phase, blood pressure decreases. systole; diastole diastole; systole systemic; pulmonary pulmonary; systemic

answer

systole; diastole

question

A test that uses a computer to construct a picture of the brain using X ray images is an MRI scan. a CT scan. an angiogram. radionuclide imaging.

answer

a CT scan.

question

The two upper chambers of the heart in which blood collects before passing to the lower chambers are called diastoles. atria. ventricles. valves.

answer

atria.

question

All of the following groups are likely to experience a heart attack without chest pain EXCEPT people with diabetes. ethnic minorities. men. older adults.

answer

men.

question

Techniques for early detection of prostate cancer include a digital rectal exam and a CAT scan. surgery. a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. ultrasound of the bladder and urethra.

answer

a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test.

STUDY

Mast Cells And Basophils Nursing Nursing-LPN Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Pharm Ch 37 Respiratory drugs – Flashcards 32 terms

Linda Lynch

32 terms

Preview

Pharm Ch 37 Respiratory drugs – Flashcards

question

COPD

answer

Asthma, Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis; diseases of lower respiratory tract; all include obstruction of airways

question

Asthma - Bronchial Asthma

answer

Recurrent & reversible shortness of breath; occurs when airways narrow from bronchospasms, inflammation or edema of bronchial mucosa, production of thick mucus; the aveolar ducts reman open but airflow is obstructed; SYMPTOMS: wheezing, difficulty breathing

question

Asthma

answer

- Intrinsic - occuring in patients with no specific cause or history of allergies - Extrinisc - occuring in patients exposed to an allergin - Exercise induced - Drug induced body sees the drug as a foreign substance / antigen and attacks

question

Asthma Status asthmaticus

answer

prolonged asthma attack that doesn't respond to typical drug therapy, may last several minutes to hours, is a medical EMERGENCY

question

Chronic Bronchitis

answer

Continuous inflammation and low-grade infection of the bronchi; excessive mucus & pathologic chg in bronchial structures; often occurs as result of prolonged exposure to bronchial irritants (excessive smoking)

question

Emphysema

answer

Air spaces enlarge as result of destruction of alveolar walls; caused by proteolytic enzymes released from leukocytes in ersponse to alveolar inflammation; surface area where gas exchange takes place is reduced and effective respiration is impaired

question

Bronchodilators

answer

Relax bronchial smooth muscle, dilate bronchi and bronchioles that are narrowed from disease processes; 3 classes: beta-adrenergic agonists, anticholinergics, xanthine derivatives

question

Bronchodilators - Beta Adrenergic Agonists

answer

Dialate the airways; USED FOR relief of bronchospasm related to asthma, COPD; used in prevention of acute asthma attacks, hypotension and shock, produce uterine relaxation to prevent premature labor - SHORT-ACTING BETA AGONIST (SABA) inhalers; used for acute asthma attacks; quickly reduce airway constriction & restore normal airflow; agonists/stimulators of adrenergic receptors in SNS (sympathomimetics); albuterol (Ventolin), levalburterol (Xopenex), pirbuterol (Maxair), terbutaline (Brethine), metaproterenol (Alupent) - LONG-ACTING BETA AGONIST (LABA) inhalers; for prevention; arformoterol (Brovana), formoterol (Foradil, Performist), salmeterol (Serevent) -NONSELECTIVE ADRENERGICS stimulate all receptors: alpha1, beta1 (cardiac) and beta2 (respiratory) EPINEPHRINE -NONSELECTIVE BETA ADRENERGICS stimulate both beta1 and beta2 receptors; metaproterenol (Alupent); -SELECTIVE BETA2 DRUGS stimulate only beta2 respiratory receptors ALBUTEROL; ACTIVATION OF BETA2 receptors activate CAMP, which relaxes smooth muscle in airway resulting in bronchial dilation and increased airflow; -ADVERSE EFFECTS insomnia, anorexia, headache, tremor, cardiac stimulation, hyper/hypotension, angina

question

Anticholinergics

answer

Slow prolonged action USED TO PREVENT bronchoconstriction, NOT USED FOR ACUTE ASTHMA; prevents acetylcholine (ACh) from causing constriction & narrowing of airways by binding to ACh receptors; -ADVERSE EFFECTS dry mouth/throat, nasal congestion, heart palpitations, GI distress, headache, cough, anxiety - be careful peanut allergy; ipratropium bromide (Atrovent), tiotropium (Spiriva)

question

Xanthine Derivatives

answer

-USED for dilation of airways in mild to moderate asthmas, chronic bronchitis, emphysema; adjunct drug for treatment of COPD, NOT USED FREQUENTLY because of potention for drug interactions - Increase levels of CAMP by inhibiting phosphodiesterase (PDE) from breaking CAMP down; causes smooth muscle relaxation, bronchodilation, increased airflow, relief of bronchospasm; CNS stimulation; cause cardiovascular stimulation: increased force of contraction & heart rate, increased cardiac output & blood flow to kidneys (diuretic effect); plant alkaloids caffein, theobromine, theophylline (bronchodilator), synthetics: aminophylline, dyphilline; -ADVERSE EFFECTS nausea, anorexia, GI reflux, tachycardia & dysrhythmias, increased urination, hyperglycemia -CONTRAINDICATED in history of PUD or GI disorders; be cautious in cases of cardiac disease; -INTERACTIONS cimetidine, oral contraceptives, antibiotics, flu vaccine; interacts with charcoal broiled, high protein, and low carb foods, can reduce xanthines blood levels -AVOID CIGARETTE SMOKING it enhances xanthine metabolism

question

LTRAs

answer

-nonbronchodilating, limited action to the lungs; prevent smooth muscle contraction of airways, decrease mucus; WORK by preventing leukotrienes from attaching and causing cough, wheezing, SOB; PREVENT ASTHMA SYMPTOMS (cough, wheezing, SOB) for profilactic longterm treatment; NOT USED FOR ACUTE ASTHMA; montelukast, singulair also approved to treat allergic rhinitis, zileuton, zafirlukast; ADVERSE EFFECTS HEADACHE, nausea, dizzi, diarrhea, LIVER FUNCTION

question

Corticosteroids

answer

-antiinflammatory, prevent release of leukocytes that cause bronchoconstriction; also increase response to betaadrenergics and commonly used as adjuct with them; -USED FOR chronic asthma NOT ACUTE ASTHMA; oral and inhaled forms; may take several weeks before full effects are seen; -INHALED FORMS REDUCE systemic effects such as weight gain, affect on glucose -Oral forms cause oral fungus infection -ADVERSE EFFECTS pharyngeal irritation, cough, dry mouth, oral fungus infections, systemic effects rare because low doses used for inhalation therapy; -MUST BE taken off gradually to prevent death from Addisonian crisis; also can suppress bone growth in children prednisone, beclomethasone dipropionate (Beclovent), budesonide (Pulmicort Turbuhaler), dexamethasone sodium phosphate (Decadron), flunisolide (Aerobid), Fluticasone (Flonase), triamcinolone (Azmacort), ciclesonide (Omnaris)

question

Phosphodiesterase-4 Inhibitor

answer

roflumilast (Daliresp); USED to prevent cough and excess mucus from worsening COPD symptoms; ADVERSE nausea, headache, insomnia, weight loss, psychiatric symptoms

question

Monoclonial Antibody Antiaasthmatic

answer

omalizumab (Xolair); selectively binds to immunoglobulin IgE, limiting release of mediators of allergic response; given by injection only, can produce anaphylaxis; closely monitor for hypersensitivity

question

TEACHING

answer

-avoid exposure to allergens, smoking, stress, air polutants; adequate fluid intake; comply w/medical treatment; avoid excessive fatigue, heat, extremes in temperature, caffeine; get prompt treatment for flu / illness; get vaccinated against pneumonia and flu; take bronchodilators exactly as prescribed, know how to use the inhalers and MDI's -make sure patients report any symptoms of insomnia, jitteriness, restlessness, palpitations, chest pain

question

NOTES

answer

-albuterol can lose it's beta2 specific actions at larger doses or if used too often, causing beta1 receptors to be stimulated instead causing nausea, anxiety, palpitations, tremors, increased heart rate PATIENTS MUST REPORT THESE SYMPTOMS -Xanthines are contraindicated in history of PUD or GI disorders; be cautious in cases of cardiac disease; -LTRA's constantly assess liver function, before beginning therapy and throughout; gargle and rinse mouth with lukewarm water after taking to prevent oral fungal infections -USE BRONCHODILATORS FIRST to allow bronchodilation before admin of corticosteroids -patients should monitor their disease with a peak flow meter -encourage use of spacer to insure successful inhalations and keep all inhalers and nebulizer equipment clean!

question

z Which medication will the nurse teach a patient with asthma to use when experiencing an acute asthma attack? A) albuterol (Ventolin) B) salmeterol (Serevent) C) theophylline (Theo-Dur) D) montelukast (Singulair)

answer

Correct answer: A Albuterol (Ventolin) is a short-acting bronchodilator (SABA). Patients must be taught to use the SABAs as rescue treatment. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting bronchodilator. Because the LABAs have a longer onset of action, they must never be used for acute treatment . Because of their relatively slow onset of action, xanthines such as theophylline (Theo-Dur) are more often used for the prevention of asthmatic symptoms than for the relief of acute asthma attacks. Montelukast (Singulair) is an LTRA and is used primarily for oral prophylaxis and long-term treatment of asthma.

question

z A patient with chronic bronchitis calls the office for a refill of his albuterol inhaler. He just had the prescription filled 2 weeks ago, but he says it is empty. When asked, he tells the nurse, "I use it whenever I need it, but now when I use it I feel so sick. I've been needing to use it more often." What is the most appropriate action by the nurse? A) RN should confirm the pharmacy location for the needed refill. B) RN should ask the patient to come to the office for an evaluation of his respiratory status. C) RN should tell the patient not to use this drug too often. D) RN should consult the prescriber for a different inhaler prescription.

answer

Correct answer: B Rationale: While it is true that the patient should be reminded about the correct use of this inhaler, it is evident that he has used it too often and that his respiratory status should be evaluated to see if an adjustment in the prescription should be made.

question

z A patient is prescribed two different types of inhaled medications for treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). After administering the first medication, how long should the nurse wait to administer the second medication? A) One minute B) Five minutes C) Ten minutes D) Fifteen minutes

answer

Correct answer: B If a second puff of the same drug is ordered, instruct the patient to wait 1 to 2 minutes between puffs. If a second type of inhaled drug is ordered, instruct the patient wait 2 to 5 minutes between the medications or to take as prescribed. Bronchodilators are usually administered first.

question

z The nurse is providing teaching to a group of individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) at a community center. Which statement by one of the attendees indicates that further teaching is needed? A) "If I develop a puffy face, I will stop taking methylprednisolone (Medrol) immediately." B) "I will inform my prescriber of any weight gain of 2 pounds or more in 24 hours or 5 pounds or more in 1 week." C) "I use omalizumab (Xolair) to control my asthma but not for an acute asthma attack." D) "When taking theophylline (Theo-Dur), I will advise my prescriber if I experience epigastric pain."

answer

Correct answer: A Patients should be taught to not stop systemic corticosteroids abruptly. The patient should be educated about the possibility of Addisonian crisis, which may occur if a systemic corticosteroid is abruptly discontinued. These drugs require weaning prior to discontinuation of the medication.

question

z One of the attendees expresses concern regarding her granddaughter's asthma. The attendee tells the nurse that she is afraid that she will not know which of her granddaughter's medications to give first in case of an asthma attack. Which medication should the nurse inform the attendee to administer first for an acute asthma attack? A) ipratropium (Atrovent) B) albuterol (Proventil) C) budesonide (Pulmicort Turbuhaler) D) montelukast (Singulair)

answer

Correct answer: B Albuterol (Proventil) is a short-acting beta2 agonist indicated for treatment of acute asthma attacks. All others listed are for long-term or profilactic treatment.

question

z One of the attendees tells the nurse that he has asthma and is being treated with a short-acting inhaled beta2 agonist. The nurse identifies this treatment as which step of the stepwise therapy for the treatment of asthma? A) Step 1 B) Step 2 C) Step 3 D) Step 4

answer

Correct answer: A Step 1 includes use of a short-acting inhaled beta2 agonist as needed.

question

z A patient who has a history of asthma is experiencing an acute episode of shortness of breath and needs to take a medication for immediate relief. The nurse will choose which medication that is appropriate for this situation? A) A beta agonist, such as albuterol B) An leukotriene receptor antagonist, such as montelukast C) A corticosteroid, such as fluticasone D) An anticholinergic, such as ipratropium

answer

question

z After a nebulizer treatment with the beta agonist albuterol, the patient complains of feeling a little "shaky," with slight tremors of the hands. The patient's heart rate is 98 beats/min, increased from the pretreatment rate of 88 beats/min. The nurse knows that this reaction is an A) expected adverse effect of the medication. B) allergic reaction to the medication. C) indication that he has received an overdose of the medication. D) idiosyncratic reaction to the medication.

answer

question

z A patient has been receiving an aminophylline (xanthine derivative) infusion for 24 hours. The nurse will assess for which adverse effect when assessing the patient during the infusion? A) CNS depression B) Sinus tachycardia C) Increased appetite D) Temporary urinary retention

answer

question

z During a teaching session for a patient who will be receiving a new prescription for the LTRA montelukast (Singulair), the nurse will tell the patient that the drug has which therapeutic effect? A) Improves the respiratory drive B) Loosens and removes thickened secretions C) Reduces inflammation in the airway D) Stimulates immediate bronchodilation

answer

question

z After the patient takes a dose of an inhaled corticosteroid, such as fluticasone (Flovent), what is the most important action the patient needs to do next? A) Hold the breath for 60 seconds. B) Rinse out the mouth with water. C) Follow the corticosteroid with a bronchodilator inhaler, if ordered. D) Repeat the dose in 15 minutes if the patient feels short of breath.

answer

question

z The nurse is teaching a patient about the inhaler Advair (salmeterol/fluticasone). Which statements by the patient indicate a correct understanding of this medication? Select all that apply. A) "I will rinse my mouth with water after each dose." B) "I need to use this inhaler whenever I feel short of breath, but not less than 4 hours between doses." C) "This medication is taken twice a day, every 12 hours." D) "I can take this inhaler if I get short of breath while exercising." E) "I will call my doctor if I notice white patches inside my mouth."

answer

A, C, E

question

z A patient has been given an MDI of albuterol and is instructed to take two puffs three times a day, with doses 6 hours apart. The inhaler contains 200 actuations, but does not have a dose counter. Calculate how many days the inhaler will deliver this ordered dose.

answer

33 days (6 puffs per day divided into 200 puffs)

question

z A patient is taking a xanthine derivative and asks the nurse about drinking coffee with the medication. What is the nurse's best answer?

answer

Consumption of anything containing caffeine increases or exacerbates the (CNS) stimulation associated with the xanthine-derived medications. Overstimulation of the CNS may have a severe impact on the patient and could be life threatening. In addition, these products may cause increased HR. These products should be avoided while on the xanthine derivative. This is especially important for pts with history of cardiac problems, such as angina or sinus tachycardia/other rapid-rate dysrhythmias.

question

z A patient was prescribed an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist (LRTA) 1 month ago. At today's follow-up appointment, he tells the nurse, "I don't think this pill works. I took it when I was short of breath, but it did not help." What is the priority when the nurse answers this patient's concerns?

answer

A patient has to understand that LRTAs are used for prophylaxis in asthmatic attacks when taken on a long-term basis. They are not used to treat acute attacks. Tell patient the medication must be taken regularly for best effects, even if the symptoms improve and the patient is feeling better. In addition, it takes several weeks for full therapeutic effects to occur. In addition, the nurse needs to review with the patient which medications are indicated for acute asthma attacks.

question

z A 13-year-old is taken to the school clinic because he started to have an asthma attack while running outside in the cold air. The school nurse has two metered-dose inhalers on file for him: fluticasone and albuterol. Which inhaler is the priority at this time?

answer

The appropriate inhaler is the albuterol inhaler because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid and is used for prevention of asthma attacks, but it does not cause bronchodilation. It is not appropriate for use as a rescue inhaler.

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