Cell Mediated Immunity Flashcards, test questions and answers
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We've found 7 Cell Mediated Immunity tests
Cell Mediated Immunity
Day Care Center
Medical/Clerical Assisting
Personal Protective Equipment
MA Chapter 26 & 29 – Flashcards 79 terms
79 terms
Preview
MA Chapter 26 & 29 – Flashcards
question
Relapse in the disappearance of the clinical symptoms for disease.
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False
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A germicide is an agent that destroys pathogenic microorganisms.
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True
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An antiseptic is an agent that can be used on the skin to inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
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True
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Employees must provide their own alternative to latex gloves if they show signs of latex anaphylaxis.
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False
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Employees most provide employers with hepatitis B immunization free of charge within 10 days of the start of employment.
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True
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Hands do not have to be washed if the healthcare worker conscientiously uses gloves during all possible times of exposure.
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False
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The main function of carbohydrate is to repair and build tissues.
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False
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Dietary fiber is the portion of the plant that con not be digested.
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True
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Adipose tissue is stored as excess carbohydrate calories.
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True
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Olive and canola oils are examples of saturated fats.
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False
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Food sources of fats include avocados and coconut oils.
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False
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Complex carbohydrates include fruit and milk products.
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True
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HDLs are the destructive forms of cholesterol that form atherosclerotic plaques on arterial walls.
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False
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Experts recommend an LDL level of less than 100 mg/dl.
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True
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Vegans must eat a combination of completed proteins to meet their nutritional needs.
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False
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Individuals should drink a minimum of six glasses of water a day to maintain optimum health.
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False
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The grain group of foods is the largest section of the Food Guide Pyramid.
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True
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It is recommended that individuals consume a minimum of three servings of fat a day.
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False
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The BMI compares the patients weight with standardized height and weight charts.
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False
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Death rates are significantly higher for patients with BMIs between 19 and 22.
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False
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A clear liquid diet includes milk, custards, and creamed soups.
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False
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A mechanical soft diet is typically used after oral surgery.
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True
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Low-fiber diets are recommended for patients with diverticulosis.
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True
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The American Cancer Society recommends a low-fiber diet.
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False
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The glycemic index rates foods on how quickly they affect blood glucose levels.
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True
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Food labels must include the total amount of fat in the food and also the percentage of saturated fat in the product.
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True
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A food that claims to be sodium free must have no salt in the product.
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False
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Fat has 6 calories per gram.
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False
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The number of calories and the fat content in a serving size of a particular food are important criteria for patients to understand.
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True
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Obesity affects more than 50% of Americans.
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True
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What action do viruses take when enter the body's cell.
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incorporate into the cells reproductive material
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Which of the following scenarios is the only situation in which recapping a needle is considered an appropriate procedure.
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after withdrawing medication from a vial
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Which of the following is not a major area that must be covered in the medical facility's Exposure Control Plan by OSHA.
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specific steps for providing effective patient treatment
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What are the two important factors in performing an effective hand wash.
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friction and running warm water
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The process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments is called.
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sanitization
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The most important step in achieving hand asepsis is.
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removing jewelry
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The method that completely destroys microorganisms is.
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sterilization
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While a blood specimen is being prepared for laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the spill.
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cover the spill with paper towels, pour 10% bleach solution on the towels, wait 15 minutes, wipe up the spill while wearing gloves, and discard the paper towels in an infectious waste container
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Blunt needles, needleless systems, and resheathing syringes are examples of.
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engineering controls
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On the basis of your understanding of the chain of infection, what would be the most effective method for controlling the spread of conjunctivitis in a daycare center.
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wash hands thoroughly each time a symptomatic child is contacted
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A bacterial spore.
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is a resistant bacterial reproductive cell that can become active and cause disease
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Inflammation mediators that are released at the site of cellular damage perform which of the following functions.
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increase blood flow to the site and increased the permeability of blood vessel walls
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Cell-mediated immunity.
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causes destruction of pathogens at the site of infection
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Relapse and remission are seen frequently in what types of infection.
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latent infections
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Viral infections.
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are treated with a focus on palliative care
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Rosa was assisting with pediatric immunization when she received an accidental needlestick. What is the first thing Rosa should do.
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thoroughly wash the needlestick site
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What should not be done when sanitizing an instrument.
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separate sharp and blunt instruments
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For disinfection to be effective, what must the medical assistant do.
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soak instrument in a closed container
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Which of the following major carbohydrates is found in milk.
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lactose
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A patient scheduled to undergo stool collection for occult blood should be instructed to avoid intake of which of the following.
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red meat
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Protein can be found in.
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meats and nuts
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A patient with high cholesterol should be instructed to avoid intake of which of the following.
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red meat
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Vitamin C can be found in.
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citrus
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Beta-carotene can be found in.
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raw vegetables
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Calcium and vitamin D can be found in.
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dairy products
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Fiber can be found in.
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raw vegetables
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Which is not an antioxidant.
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vitamin K
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Which is not a fat soluble.
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vitamin C
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Which nutrient has 9 kcal/g.
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fat
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Which eating disorder involves bingeing and purging.
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bulimia
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Which eating disorder is characterized by self-starvation.
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anorexia nervosa
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Which health condition is related to stress.
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headaches, hypertension, and diarrhea
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Which is not a health screening.
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MRI
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________ is a skin eruption that results in hives.
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urticaria
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A(n) _____ is a foreign substance that results in the production of a specific antibody.
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antigen
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________ is a yeast-like fungus that typically affects the vaginal and oral mucosa.
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candidiasis
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A(n) _______ agent is a medication that relieves patient symptoms but does not cure a disease.
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palliative
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A(n)________ is an insect or tick that transmits the causative organisms of a disease.
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vector
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Fungal infections are also called _______ infections.
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mycotic
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________ are surface bacteria that are introduced by contaminated objects or by exposure to microorganisms that can be destroyed if managed properly.
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transient bacteria
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Obesity is defined as more than ___ % above the recommended body weight.
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20
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A patient with symptoms of ______ feels dizzy and has difficulty with normal balance.
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vertigo
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The level of patient dehydration can be determined with a simple skin ______ test that involves grasping the skin on the posterior surface of the hand between the fingers and releasing it.
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turgor
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According to OSHA regulations, under which of the following circumstances is recapping needles allowed.
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when recapping an unused needle
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For which of the following is a medical assistant required to wear a mask while taking the patient's medical history.
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rheumatic fever
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Which of the following is the recommended method for disposal of needles in a puncture-proof container.
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keeping the needle intact
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The CDC does not recommend standard precautions for which of the following body fluids if the fluid does not contain visible blood.
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urine
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Which of the following procedures is appropriate blood and other potentially infectious materials for transport.
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placing the materials in a leak proof container during collection
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Gloves, gowns, and goggles are examples of.
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personal protective equipment
Anatomy
Cell Mediated Immunity
Medical Terminology
Med Term ch 14 – Lymphatic and immune systems – Flashcards 78 terms
78 terms
Preview
Med Term ch 14 – Lymphatic and immune systems – Flashcards
question
Adaptive immunity
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ability to recognize and remember specific antigens and mount an attack on them - B cells and T cells
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adenoids
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mass of lymphatic tissue in the nasopharynx
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antibody
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protein produced by B cells to destroy antigens
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antigen
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substance that the body recognizes as foreign; evokes an immune response
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axillary nodes
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lymph nodes in the armpit (underarm)
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B cell
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lymphocyte that matures into a plasma cell to secrete antibodies
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cell mediated immunity
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T cells that respond to antigens and destroy them- type of adaptive immunity
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cervical nodes
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lymph nodes in the neck region
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complement system
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proteins in the blood that help antibodies kill their target
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cytokines
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proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells to aid in antigen destruction - interferons and interleukins
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cytotoxic T cell
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lymphocyte that directly kills antigens
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dendritic cell
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antigen-presenting cell - shows T and B cells what to attack
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helper T cell
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lymphocyte that aids B cells and stimulates T cells
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humoral immunity
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B cells produce antibodies after exposure to specific antigens - type of adaptive immunity
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immunity
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body's ability to resist foreign organisms and toxins that damage tissues and organs - natural immunity and adaptive immunity
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immunoglobins
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antibodies such as IgA, IgE, IgG, IgM, IgD - secreted by plasma cells (mature B cells) in response to the presence of an antigen
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immunotherapy
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use of immune cells, antibodies, or vaccines to treat or prevent disease
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inguinal nodes
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lymph nodes in the groin area
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interferons
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proteins (cytokines) secreted by T cells and other cells to aid and regulate the immune response
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interleukins
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proteins (cytokines) that stimulate the growth of B and T lymphocytes
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interstitial fluid
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fluid in the spaces between cells - becomes lymph when enters lymph capillaries
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lymph
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thin, watery fluid found within lymphatic vessels and collected from tissues throughout the body
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lymph capillaries
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tiniest lymphatic vessels
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lymphoid organs
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lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus gland
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lymph node
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collection of stationary solid lymphatic tissue along lymph vessels; contains cells (lymphocytes and macrophages) that fight infection
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lymph vessel
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carrier of lymph throughout the body; lymphatic vessels empty lymph into veins in the upper part of the chest
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macrophage
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large phagocyte found in lymph nodes and other tissues of the body
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mediastinal nodes
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lymph nodes in the area between the lungs in the thoracic (chest) cavity
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mesenteric nodes
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lymph nodes in the mesentery (intestinal region)
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monoclonal antibody
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antibody produce din a laboratory to attack antigens and to destroy cells; useful in immunotherapy
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natural immunity
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protection that an individual is born with to fight infection such as neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, and NK cells - not antigen specific and doesn't elicit memory
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paraaortic nodes
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lymph nodes near the aorta in the lumbar (waist) area of the body
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plasma cell
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lymphocyte that secretes antibodies - matures from B cells
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right lymphatic duct
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lymphatic vessel in the chest that drains lymph from the upper right part of the body - empties lymph into a large vein in the neck
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spleen
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organ in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen that destroys worn-out red blood cells, activates lymphocytes, and stores blood
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suppressor T cell
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lymphocyte that inhibits the activity of B and T cells
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T cell / T lymphocyte
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lymphocyte that acts directly on antigens to destroy them or produce chemicals (cytokines) such as interferons and interleukins that are toxic to antigens
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tolerance
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ability of T cells to recognize and accept the body's own antigens as "self" or friendly - once established, the immune system will not react against the body
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thoracic duct
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large lymphatic vessel that drains lymph from the lower and left side of thee body (head, neck, arm, and chest) - empties lymph into large veins in the neck
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thymus gland
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lymphoid organ in the mediastinum that conditions T cells to react to foreign cells and aids in the immune response
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tonsils
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masses of lymphatic tissue in the back of the oropharynx
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toxin
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poison; protein produced by certain bacteria, animals, or plants
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vaccination
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exposure of an individual to a foreign protein (antigen) that provokes an immune response - response will destroy any cell that possesses the antigen on its surface and will protect against infection
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vaccine
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weakened or killed microorganisms, toxins, or other proteins given to induce immunity to infection or disease
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immun/o
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protection
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lymph/o
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lymph
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lymphaden/o
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lymph node (gland)
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splen/o
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spleen
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thym/o
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thymus gland
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tox/o
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poison
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ana-
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again, anew
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inter-
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between
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acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDs)
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group of clinical signs and symptoms associated with suppression of the immune system and marked by opportunistic infections, secondary neoplasms, and neurologic problems
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kaposi sarcoma
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cancer arising from the lining cells of capillaries that produces dark purplish skin nodules
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lymphoma
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cancer of lymph nodes
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wasting syndrome
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marked by weight loss and decrease in muscular strength, appetite, and mental activity, also may occur with AIDs
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allergy
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abnormal hypersensitivity acquired by exposure to an antigen
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lymphoma
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malignant tumor of lymph nodes and lymph tissues
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Hodgkin disease
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malignant tumor of lymphoid tissue in the spleen and lymph nodes
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multiple myeloma
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malignant tumor of bone marrow cells
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thymoma
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malignant tumor of the thymus gland
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allergen
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substance capable of causing a specific hypersensitivity reaction in the body - type of antigen
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anaphylaxis
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exaggerated or unusual hypersensitivity to foreign protein or other substance
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atopy
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hypersensitive or allergic state involving an inherited predisposition
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CD4+ cells
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helper T cells that carry the CD4 protein antigen on their surface
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Hodgkin disease
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malignant tumor of lymphoid tissue in spleen and lymph nodes
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HIV
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virus (retrovirus) that causes AIDs
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kaposi sarcoma
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malignant lesion associated with AIDs; arises from the lining of capillaries and appears as red, purple, brown, or black skin nodules
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non-Hodgkin lymphomas
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group of malignant tumors involving lymphoid tissue
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opportunistic infections
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infectious diseases associated with AIDs; occur because HIV infection lowers the body's resistance and allows infection by bacteria and parasites that normally are easily contained
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protease inhibitor
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drug that treats AIDS by blocking the production of protease, a proteolytic enzyme that helps create new viral pieces for HIV
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reverse transcriptase inhibitor (RTI)
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drug that treats AIDS by blocking reverse transcriptase, an enzyme needed to make copies of HIV
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wasting syndrome
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weight loss, decrease in muscular strength, appetite, and mental activity; associated with AIDS
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CD4+ cell count
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measures the number of CD4+ T cells (helper T cells) in the bloodstream of patients with AIDS
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ELISA
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screening test to detect anti-HIV antibodies in the bloodstream
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immunoelectrophoresis
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test that separates immunoglobins
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viral load test
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measurement of the amount of AIDS virus (HIV) in the bloodstream
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computed tomography (CT) scan
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x-ray imaging produces cross-sectional and other views of anatomic structures
Cell Mediated Immunity
Human Anatomy And Physiology 1
Immunology
Natural Killer Cells
Self From Non Self
Intro to human disease (midterm prep) – Flashcards 30 terms
30 terms
Preview
Intro to human disease (midterm prep) – Flashcards
question
The immune system protects the body by distinguishing _____
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Self from non-self
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Leukocytes that can engulf and destroy pathogens are known as _____
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Phagocytes
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Adaptive immunity includes two separate but overlapping arms called _____.
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cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity
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_____ provide defense against extracellular antigens like bacterial toxins and bacterial cells.
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Antibodies
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_____ provide defense against viruses, abnormal cells, and other intercellular pathogens.
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Cell-mediated immunity
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_____ refers to a visual examination of the external surface of the body, its movements, and posture for abnormalities or evidence of disease.
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Inspection
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_____, producing sounds by tapping on specific areas of the body with fingers, hands, or small instruments, allows evaluation of the size, consistency, and borders of the body organs, and the presence or absence of fluid in body areas.
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Percussion
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_____ uses computers and x-rays to create three-dimensional images of internal structures.
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Computed tomography
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_____ analyzes the interaction of low-frequency sound waves with tissues to create moving images of internal organs
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Ultrasound
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______ uses radioactive materials to create contrast in the body and help form images of the structure and function of organs.
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Nuclear medicine
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A pathogen is a _____.
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disease-causing microorganism
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The word _____ is derived from Greek words that mean "to cause suffering"
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Pathogen
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Infectious diseases transmitted directly by human contact are said to be _____.
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Contagious or communicable
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Tracking the _____ of a disease is tracking the number of new cases of a disease in a population.
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Incidence
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When a disease always occurs at low levels in a population, it is said to be _____.
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Endemic
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People who harbor an infectious agent but do not have signs or symptoms are known as _____.
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Carriers
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_____ transmission describes transmission of an infectious disease from a reservoir to a susceptible human.
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Horizontal
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_____ transmission of an infectious disease occurs when an individual is infected by contact with the reservoir.
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Direct horizontal
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_____ transmission of an infectious disease occurs when a pathogen can withstand the environment outside of its host for a long period of time before infecting another individual.
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Indirect transmission
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Intravenous drug users who share needles can transmit infectious diseases like hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV via _____ contact.
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Indirect
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Cancer is the _____ most common cause of death in the United States.
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second
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Benign tumors are _____, and remain localized.
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Not life threatening, grow slowly
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Benign tumors have a _____.
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smooth surface and are symmetrical
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Malignant tumors have a _____-like appearance and an irregular surface.
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crab
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Malignant tumors _____.
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are not encapsulated, making excision more difficult
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An osteosarcoma is a malignant tumor of _____.
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Bone
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The most important risk factor for cancer is _____.
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Growing older
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Cigarette smoking causes about _____ of all cancer deaths in the United States.
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30%
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The _____ increases the risk for cancers of the cervix, penis, vagina, anus, and vulva.
answer
Human papillomavirus
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Uncontrolled cell division is the result of _____ in genes that play a role in cell division.
answer
Mutations
Anatomy
Cell Mediated Immunity
Chapter 14 Medical Term – Flashcards 46 terms
46 terms
Preview
Chapter 14 Medical Term – Flashcards
question
Slight increased in number of lymphocytes
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lymphocytosis
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Lymphocytes that transform into plasma cells and secret antibodies
answer
B Cells
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Inflammation of the tonsils
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tonsillitis*
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Malignant tumor of lymph nodes
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Hodgkin disease
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Immune response in which B cells transform into plasma cells and secrete antibodies
answer
humoral immunity
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Introduction of altered antigens to produce an immune response
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vaccination*
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Inguinal, axillary, mediastinal, cervical
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Lymph nodes are concentrated in those areas
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Computerized x-ray imagining in the transverse plane
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CT Scan
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Protozoal (paracytic) infection associated with AIDS that may cause pneumonitis, hepatitis, and encephalitis
answer
toxoplasmosis
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Helper of suppressor cells are types of
answer
T Cells
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Spleen
answer
abdominal organ that filters erythrocytes and activates lymphocytes
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Mediastinal T Cell producer
answer
thymus
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Toxic
answer
pertaining to poison
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Immune response in which T cells destroy antigens
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cell mediated immunity
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Formation of lymph
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lymphopoiesis*
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Formation of lymph
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lymphopoiesis
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examples of immunoglobins
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IgA, IgG, IgE
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Cytotoxic cells
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T cell lymphocytes
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HIV
answer
the virus that causes AIDs
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Lymphocytes contained in the thymus gland that act on antigens
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T cells
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Masses of lymph tissue in the nasopharynx
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adenoids*
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Produces lymphocytes and monocytes and all other blood cells
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bone marrow
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tonsils
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oropharyngeal lymph tissue
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Atopy
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a hypersensitivity or allergic state
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Proteins that stimulate grown of T-Cells
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Interleukins*
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Lymphocytes, monocytes, phagocytes, antibodies
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components of the immune system
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Cancer arising from the lining cells of capillaries, producing purplish skin nodules
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Kaposi sarcoma
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Fluid in the spaces between cells
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Interstitial fluid*
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Interstitial fluid
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found in the spaces between cells and becomes lymph when it enters the lymph capillaries
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Adenoids
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Nasopharyngeal lymph tissue
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Viral infection causing blisters on the skin of lips, nose, or genitals
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herpes simplex
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Fungal infection associated with AIDS involving brain and meaning lungs and skin
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cryptococcus
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Thymus gland*
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organ in the chest that produces t-cells
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Interferons and interleukins are best described as
answer
antiviral proteins produced by T-cell lymphcytes
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Major lung infection with fever, cough, chest pain, and sputum (treated with septra/bactim
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Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
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Collection of fluid in the tissue
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lymphedema*
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Spell Allergy
answer
allergy
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Spell anaphylaxis
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anaphylaxis
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spell axillary nodes
answer
axillary nodes
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spell immunoglobulin
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immunoglobulin
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spell inguinal nodes
answer
inguinal nodes
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spell lymph
answer
spell lymph
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spell lymphocytopenia
answer
lymphocytopenia
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spell macrophage
answer
macrophage
question
spell splenectomy
answer
splenectomy
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spell Hodgkin disease
answer
Hodgkin disease
Cell Mediated Immunity
Microbiology
Rna Dependent Rna Polymerase
Virology
Micro Final (-) RNA Viruses – Flashcards 127 terms
127 terms
Preview
Micro Final (-) RNA Viruses – Flashcards
question
| What does positive strand mean? |
answer
| Viral genome functions as mRNA |
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| What does negative strand mean? |
answer
| Negative RNA genome is a TEMPLATE for mRNA |
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| What is the structure of Rhabdoviruses |
answer
| Rhabdo= ROD in Greek- these are BULLET-SHAPED viruses, with a Negative Sense RNA strand, ENVELOPED, helical |
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| What virus is BULLET SHAPED? |
answer
| Rhabdoviruses |
question
| How does one typically get rabies? |
answer
| Bite of a rabid animal; inoculation of intact mucous membranes; aerosolization (though bites are most common) |
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| How does rabies promote its own spread? |
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| Hypersalivation with heaps of virus in the saliva combined with PROMOTING AGGRESSIVE BEHAVIOR |
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| Where does rabies spread to in the body? |
answer
| Directly to peripheral nerves by binding the nicotinic Ach Receptor OR indirectly into the muscle at the site of inoculation |
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| How does the rabies virus travel? |
answer
| RETROGRADE AXOPLASMIC TRANSPORT to dorsal root ganglion and spinal cord |
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| What virus travels via RETROGRADE AXOPLASMIC TRANSPORT? |
answer
| Rabies |
question
| Where does the rabies virus go after brain infection? |
answer
| Highly innervated sites like skin, salivary glands, retina, cornea, nasal mucosa- FATAL |
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| What is the principle vector of rabies worldwide? What are the minor animal vectors? |
answer
| DOGS; raccoons, skunks, bats, foxes |
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| What are the classic neurological symptoms of rabies? |
answer
| Hydrophobia, seizures, disorientation, hallucination, paralysis, confusion, delerium |
question
| What virus causes HYDROPHOBIA? |
answer
| Rabies |
question
| What is the laboratory presentation of rabies on microscopy? |
answer
| NEGRI BODIES- cytoplasmic inclusions where viral assembly occurs |
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| Infection from what virus will cause NEGRI BODIES on microscopy? |
answer
| Rabies |
question
| What is the course of treatment if rabies infection is suspected? |
answer
| 1 dose of human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) 5 doses of rabies vaccine |
question
| What are the characteristics of filoviridae? |
answer
| Filamentous, ENVELOPED, Negative Sense RNA Virus- helical nucleocapsid endemic in Africa -Ebola and Marburg |
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| What are the main sites of tissue damage in Ebola, and what is the end result of the infection? |
answer
| Parenchyma of liver, spleen, LN and lungs -WIDESPREAD HEMORRHAGE THAT CAUSES EDEMA AND SHOCK |
question
| How is Ebola transmitted? |
answer
| Airborne to animals; direct contact with blood and other secretions |
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| What are some "fascinating facts" about Marburg Virus? |
answer
| Exposure to African Green Monkeys imported for research and to prepare polio vaccine |
question
| What are the characteristics of bunyaviridae? |
answer
| Segmented, ENVELOPED, Negative Sense RNA Viruses- helical -Hanta, Nairo, Phlebo, Bunya ZOONOTIC |
question
| How is Hantavirus spread? |
answer
| Rodent born |
question
| What is the vector for most Bunyaviridae? |
answer
| Mosquitos- can cause encephalitis |
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| Because bunyaviruses are injected directly into blood via mosquitos, how does this effect their pathogenesis? |
answer
| Primary viremia which spreads to target organs including CNS, liver, kidney, and vascular endothelium |
question
| What are the neural and CNS complications of bunyavirus infection? |
answer
| Neuronal or glial cell damage, cerebral edema leading to encephalitis |
question
| What is the hallmark symptom of Hantavirus infection? |
answer
| MASSIVE PULMONARY EDEMA (Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrom HPS) |
question
| What virus causes MASSIVE PULMONARY EDEMA? |
answer
| Hantavirus |
question
| What are the clinical symptoms of Hantavirus infection? |
answer
| Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (massive pulmonary edema); hemorrhagic tissue destruction and lethal complications; FUNCTIONAL IMPAIRMENT OF VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM; significant leg cramping and pain |
question
| What virus causes FUNCTIONAL IMPAIRMENT OF VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM? |
answer
| Hantavirus |
question
| What is the vector for bunyaviruses and where do they breed? |
answer
| Aedes; water treeholes and discarded trees |
question
| How are humans infected by Hantavirus? |
answer
| Close contact with rodents or droppings |
question
| What are the symptoms of Hantavirus? |
answer
| Non-specific presentation with short febrile prodrome lasting 3-5 days -fever, myalgia, headache, chills, dizziness, non-productive cough, nausea, vomiting SHORTNESS OF BREATH, TACHYPNEA, TACHYCARDIA |
question
| What are the symptoms of progressed Hantavirus? |
answer
| Cardiopulmonary phase- hospitalization is necessary, often with ventilator, to manage TACHYPNEA and TACHYCARDIA |
question
| What are the 4 Arenaviridae, and what do they cause? |
answer
| LCMV- Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus Lassa, Junin, and Machupo all cause Hemorrhagic Fever |
question
| What is the structure of the Reoviruses? |
answer
| DOUBLE-STRANDED NAKED RNA- reovirus, rotavirus, Colorado Tick Fever Virus |
question
| How is rotavirus transmitted, and what does it cause? |
answer
| Fecal-oral; gastroenteritis without blood or pus |
question
| How is reovirus transmitted, and what does it cause? |
answer
| Fecal-oral AND respiratory; common cold, gastroenteritis |
question
| How is Colorado Tick Fever Virus spread, and what does it cause? |
answer
| Ticks- virus infects erythroid precursors; Flu-like illness, biphasic fever, conjunctivitis, possible rash |
question
| What virus causes BIPHASIC FEVER and CONJUNCTIVITIS? |
answer
| Colorado Tick Fever Virus |
question
| What are the 3 viruses in the orthomyxoviridae family? |
answer
| INFLUENZA A, B, and C |
question
| Which influenza virus can be found in animals and humans, and which can be found only in humans? |
answer
| INFLUENZA A- ANIMALS AND HUMANS (Shift can only happen in A) INFLUENZA B- ONLY HUMANS |
question
| Which influenza virus can undergo SHIFT? |
answer
| Influenza A |
question
| What type of viral change causes EPIDEMICS in influenza? |
answer
| Antigenic DRIFT |
question
| What type of viral change causes PANDEMICS in influenza? |
answer
| Antigenic SHIFT |
question
| What is the structure of the orthomyxoviridae? |
answer
| Negative Stranded ENVELOPED RNA viruses- 8 SEGMENT Genome |
question
| What is Hemagglutinin (HA)? |
answer
| On the influenza viral envelope- responsible for entry of virus into cells -BINDS TO N-ACETYLNEURAMIC ACID (SIALIC ACID) ON THE CELL SURFACE |
question
| What part of influenza binds to sialic acid on the host cell surface? |
answer
| Hemagglutinin (HA) |
question
| What virus has hemagglutinin and what does it bind to? |
answer
| Influenza; Sialic Acid |
question
| What is Neuraminidase (NA)? |
answer
| On the influenza viral envelope- liquifies mucous in the respiratory tract to allow the virus easy access to epithelial cells -REMOVES SIALIC ACID from proteins in virus and infected cells |
question
| What part of the influenza virus does the new class of flu drugs block the function of? |
answer
| Neuraminidase- prevents ACCESS |
question
| What do the nomenclature designations of H and N stand for? |
answer
| Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase |
question
| How many antigenically different flu vaccines are included in the main flu vaccine? |
answer
| 3 |
question
| What is antigenic shift? |
answer
| The sudden replacement of one flu subtype that has been around for decades with a brand new subtype- -always involves the HA subtype, but only sometimes the NA subtype |
question
| What flu subtype is ALWAYS involved in antigenic SHIFT? |
answer
| HA |
question
| How does antigenic shift occur? |
answer
| Only in Type A influenza virus (because they infect animals as well as humans); REASSORTMENT OF VIRAL RNA SEGMENTS WHEN THERE IS COINFECTION WITH 2 DIFFERENT INFLUENZA SUBTYPES (must have all 8 genome segments together) |
question
| What is it called when cells are coinfected with two different influenza subtypes and the RNA segments are reassorted to make a new virus? |
answer
| ANTIGENIC SHIFT |
question
| What must happen to the viral genome in antigenic shift? |
answer
| ALL 8 PIECES OF THE GENOME MUST BE ASSEMEBLED (FROM 2 DIFFERENT SOURCES) |
question
| What is antigenic drift and what types of influenza viruses can use it? |
answer
| Mutations in RNA; both types A and B can drift -small changes in the amino acid sequence of HA and NA |
question
| What is the term for small changes in the amino acid sequence of HA and NA in influenza? |
answer
| Antigenic Drift |
question
| What does antigenic drift allow for in a population? |
answer
| Drift in HA allows the virus to circumvent existing immunity in a segment of the population each year |
question
| How many antigenic sites on HA are recognized by antibodies, and what happens to these sites during antigenic drift? |
answer
| 4 sites; gradual AA sequence changes occur to allow the virus to avoid antibody recognition |
question
| What is the consequence of destruction of ciliated epithelium in viral infections? |
answer
| Like Influenza- the cilia don't work, so stuff doesn't get cleared as well, and it creates a chain reaction with secondary BACTERIAL INFECTIONS |
question
| How is the influenza virus spread? |
answer
| Respiratory Droplets |
question
| What cells are infected by influenza virus? |
answer
| Ciliated columnar epithelium |
question
| How does influenza enter ciliated epithelium? |
answer
| HA binds to sialic acid receptors and the virus is phagocytized |
question
| What is the effect of M2 protein in influenza infection? |
answer
| The endosome pH drops to 5.5 because the M2 protein acts as an ion channel in the virus envelope; nucleocapsids are released into the cytoplasm |
question
| What viral infection is characterized by ABRUPT ONSET of fever? |
answer
| Influenza |
question
| What is the progression of symptoms in influenza infection? |
answer
| Abrupt onset of fever; Headache (severe RETROORBITAL pain), myalgia, sore throat, and non-productive cough; 4th day- respiratory symptoms predominate (pharyngitis, laryngitis, and tracheobronchitis); Cough and malaise may last 1-2 weeks after other symptoms TOTAL DURATION= ABOUT 1 WEEK |
question
| What causes the systemic symptoms in influenza infection? |
answer
| Cell damage initiates acute inflammatory response, and systemic symptoms are due to the release of inflammatory mediators |
question
| In what setting is influenza diagnosis particularly important? |
answer
| Nursing homes |
question
| What do rapid influenza tests not differentiate? |
answer
| Between influenza A and B |
question
| What should not be given to children or adolescents as a treatment for the flu? |
answer
| Aspirin: can cause Reye's syndrome- similar to chicken pox |
question
| What antiviral treatments are used against the flu in severe cases? |
answer
| Amantadine and Rimantadine: specific activity against TYPE A viruses- they interfere with viral uncoding -can be used prophylactically, and are best given within 48 hours |
question
| How do Neurominidase Inhibitors work? |
answer
| Inhibit influenza A and B neurominidase- the drugs are ANALOGS OF SIALIC ACID, so they block the active site of Neuraminidase -Prevent viral infection of uninfected cells TAMIFLU and RELENZA -most effective in the first few days |
question
| What type of vaccine is available for influenza? |
answer
| Inactivated (killed) or live attenuated- usually given in the late fall before the flu season starts -Both Type A and Type B vaccines are given concomitantly |
question
| What two subtypes of Type A influenza are still circulating currently? |
answer
| H3N2 and H1N1- both are included in vaccine |
question
| What is picked each year for the trivalent vaccine? |
answer
| One H3N2, one H1N1, and one type B strain -chosen as the strains most likely to be prevalent in the upcoming winter |
question
| What is special about the Paramyxoviridae (measles, etc.) in terms of their action on cells? |
answer
| The can induce cell to cell fusion forming a SYNCYTIA- giant, multinucleated cells |
question
| What Negative Sense RNA viral family causes cells to form SYNCYTIA? |
answer
| Paramyxoviridae, like measles, parainfluenza, RSV FUSION PROTEIN IN THE ENVELOPE |
question
| Name four viruses in the paramyxoviridae family: |
answer
| Measles, parainfluenza, mumps, and RSV |
question
| What virus causes measles, and what are its symptoms? |
answer
| Morbillivirus; rash, high fever, cough, conjunctivitis, coryza (symptoms of a head cold) |
question
| What is the pathogenesis of measles? |
answer
| Cell fusion, formation of giant cells- virus passes directly from cell to cell and escapes antibody recognition |
question
| How is measles transmitted? |
answer
| Respiratory droplets |
question
| Where does measles replicate, and where does it spread? |
answer
| Respiratory tract; spreads to lymphatics and causes viremia |
question
| What are some possible sites of infection due to measles? |
answer
| Conjunctiva, respiratory tract, urinary tract, small blood vessels, lymphatics, and CNS |
question
| What is the sneaky thing about the spread of measles? |
answer
| It can be spread in respiratory secretions before AND after the onset of symptoms. |
question
| What virus can be spread in respiratory secretions both before AND after the onset of symptoms? |
answer
| Measles |
question
| What is the difference in timeframe between German Measles and regular Measles? |
answer
| German Measles= RUBELLA= 3 days Measles Measles= RUBEOLA= Full Week |
question
| What is roseola? |
answer
| Caused by Herpes 6- FEVER GOES AWAY, THEN RASH APPEARS |
question
| What are the 3C's of measles? |
answer
| Cough, conjunctivitis, and coryza (runny nose) |
question
| What are Koplick spots, and in what viral infection do they occur? |
answer
| Look like small grains of sand that appear on buccal mucosa, conjunctiva, or vagina- Associated with MEASLES |
question
| What is the relationship between Koplick Spots and the rash in measles? |
answer
| Spots appear before the rash |
question
| What characterizes the rash in measles? |
answer
| 12-24 hours after the appearance of Koplick spots, the measles rash begins BELOW THE EARS and spreads all over the body MACULOPAPULAR RASH -FEVER IS HIGHEST ON THE DAY OF THE RASH |
question
| Where does the measles rash start? |
answer
| Below the ears, spreads to entire body |
question
| What virus causes a maculopapular rash that starts BELOW THE EARS, and the presence of which marks the day that the fever is highest and patient is sickest? |
answer
| Measles |
question
| What causes 60% of measles deaths, and what other virus can cause this? |
answer
| Giant Cell Pneumonia- also caused by chickenpox |
question
| What characterizes atypical measles? |
answer
| Occurs in people that have by vaccinated by inactivated vaccine and have insufficient protection- -ILLNESS BEGINS ABRUPTLY AND IS MORE INTENSE THAN PRIMARY MEASLES |
question
| What is Subacute Sclerosing Pan Encephalitis (SSPE) and what virus causes it? |
answer
| -Extremely serious neurological sequelae of measles-RARE -defective measles virus in the brain acts as a slow virus- it can replicate and spread from cell to cell, but is not released -changes in behavior, muscle jerks, blindness |
question
| What is the diagnostic test for Subacute Sclerosing Pan Encephalitis? |
answer
| High levels of measles Ab in blood and CSF |
question
| How is measles diagnosed? |
answer
| Usually clinical presentation- difficult to isolate and grow, but can be found in secretions, blood, urine, and brain tissue -can LOOK FOR GIANT CELLS -immunofluorescence -Virus-specific IgM when rash is present |
question
| What are the symptoms of paramyxovirus parainfluenzae? |
answer
| Mild, cold-like symptoms, but can cause serious upper respiratory tract disease CAN CAUSE CROUP |
question
| What virus can cause CROUP, and what is it? |
answer
| Parainfluenzae (paramyxovirus); SEAL BARKING COUGH |
question
| What virus causes a SEAL BARKING COUGH? |
answer
| Parainfluenza- this is called Croup |
question
| What is the diagnostic for parainfluenza? |
answer
| Isolated from nasal washings and respiratory secretions- SYNCYTIA can be observed by IF Hemadsorption and hemagglutination |
question
| What virus causes acute, benign parotitis? |
answer
| Mumps |
question
| What virus causes painful swelling of the salivary glands? |
answer
| Mumps |
question
| What is acute benign parotitis? |
answer
| Painful swelling of the salivary glands, as in MUMPS |
question
| What type of infection is mumps, and to what cells does it initially spread? |
answer
| Lytic; upper respiratory tract epithelium |
question
| Where in the body does mumps spread? |
answer
| Via viremia to testes, ovary, pancreas, thyroid, and CNS in 50% of cases |
question
| What virus causes orchitis and sterility? |
answer
| Mumps |
question
| What are the reproductive consequences of mumps in males? |
answer
| Orchitis and sterility |
question
| How is mumps spread? |
answer
| Respiratory droplets- usually in younger people |
question
| What are the clinical symptoms of mumps? |
answer
| BILATERAL parotitis; sudden onset low grade fever, headache, malaise Oral exam reveals redness and swelling of OSTIUM OF STENSON's DUCT |
question
| What virus causes redness and swelling of the ostium of Stenson's duct? |
answer
| Mumps |
question
| What are the potential complications of mumps? |
answer
| CNS involvement (50%); pancreatitis; deafness; orchitis-sterility; death |
question
| How is mumps diagnosed? |
answer
| Virus can be recovered from saliva, urine, pharynx, and CSF -can grow in culture and look for MULTINUCLEATED CELLS -4x increase in specific IgM -Hemagglutination inhibition, ELISA, IF |
question
| What is the most frequent cause of fatal respiratory tract infections in infants and young childrean? |
answer
| Pneumovirus: Respiratory Syncytial Virus |
question
| What should you immediately think of in a case with an INFANT THAT HAS VIRAL PNEUMONIA? |
answer
| Respiratory Syncytial Virus |
question
| What does RSV cause in adults? |
answer
| A cold |
question
| Describe the pathogenesis of Respiratory Syncytial Virus: |
answer
| Upper Respiratory Tract Syncytia Direct viral invasion of respiratory epithelium NECROSIS OF BRONCHI AND BRONCHIOLES LEADING TO MUCUS PLUGS AND FIBRIN which can block airway |
question
| What virus leads to mucus plugs and fibrin that can block the airway? |
answer
| RSV |
question
| In what season does RSV almost always occur? |
answer
| Winter |
question
| How is RSV transmitted? |
answer
| On the hands by fomites, and by respiratory routes; Shed in respiratory secretions for days |
question
| What are the symptoms of RSV? |
answer
| Ranging from common cold to pneumonia RUNNY NOSE Some cases can progress to LRT and cause bronchiolitis in infants; low grade fever, tachypnea, tachycardia and wheezing |
question
| What RESPIRATORY virus causes a VERY SERIOUSLY RUNNY RUNNY NOSE? |
answer
| RSV |
question
| How is RSV diagnosed? |
answer
| Rapid tests |
question
| How is RSV treated? |
answer
| Supportive care, oxygen, IV fluids Ribavirin- can be administered as an inhalant Synagis- Monoclonal Ab against F protein |
Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis
Cell Mediated Immunity
Microbiology
Mycology
Negative Pressure Room
Pharmacology
Southwestern United States
Protozoa – Microbiology Test Questions – Flashcards 63 terms
63 terms
Preview
Protozoa – Microbiology Test Questions – Flashcards
question
| Pneumocystis carinii ID methods |
answer
| PCP test on sputum (formalin) sample, histology stain |
question
| Pneumocystis carinii Diagnosis |
answer
| fungi characteristics |
question
| Pneumocystis carinii special characteristics |
answer
| causes fulminant lung infections in AIDS patients, fungi, Sporozoa subclass Coccidia |
question
| Isospora belli ID methods |
answer
| MAF + with stool sample |
question
| Isospora belli diagnosis |
answer
| 2 sporocysts in oocysts, each sporocyst contains four sporozoites |
question
| Isospora belli special characteristics |
answer
| : intestinal parasite, nonpathogenic (usually), Sporozoa subclass Coccidia |
question
| Microsporidia (Encephalitozoon sp., Enterocytozoon sp., and Microsporidium sp.) ID methods |
answer
| PCR to ID, trichrome stain on stool |
question
| Microsporidia (Encephalitozoon sp., Enterocytozoon sp., and Microsporidium sp.) diagnosis |
answer
| 1-2 uM, tiny |
question
| Microsporidia (Encephalitozoon sp., Enterocytozoon sp., and Microsporidium sp.) special characteristics |
answer
| can infect tissue, Sporozoa subclass Coccidia |
question
| Cryptosporidium parvum ID Methods |
answer
| MAF+, EIA (with Giardia) |
question
| Cryptosporidium parvum diagnosis |
answer
| 4 sporozoites free |
question
| Cryptosporidium parvum special characteristics |
answer
| AIDs, Sporozoa subclass Coccidia |
question
| Giardia lamblia ID Methods |
answer
| trichrome stain, Rapid EIA (with crypto) |
question
| Giardia lamblia diagnosis |
answer
| cyst: 4 nuclei without flagella, dominant and protective stage troph: looks like eyes with 4 flagella, 2 nuclei, and trophs are larger they are reproducing and feeding (active), nucleus contains karisome |
question
| Giardia lamblia special characteristics |
answer
| fatty diarrhea, suction disk that adheres to intestine and blocks absorption, transmitted via F/O route by contaminated water, 1 of the most common intestinal parasite, flagella |
question
| Trichomonas vaginalis ID methods |
answer
| urethra swab, urine, vaginal swab for wet prep |
question
| Trichomonas vaginalis diagnosis |
answer
| no cyst stage, nucleus undulating membrane, flagella and motile |
question
| Trichomonas vaginalis special characteristics |
answer
| can be seen in urine, STD, flagella |
question
| Balantidium Coli ID methods |
answer
| concentrated wet prep with iodine, not seen on trichrome |
question
| Balantidium Coli diagnosis |
answer
| cyst, cilia and macronucleus on troph |
question
| Balantidium Coli special characteristics |
answer
| normal flora can be pathogenic and cause dysentery, cyst from contaminated water, ciliate |
question
| Entamoeba histolytica ID methods |
answer
| trichrome smear from stool, PVA tube |
question
| Entamoeba histolytica diagnosis |
answer
| trophozoite with ingested rbcs, pseudopods for motility, 15-20 uM, beaded chromatin, 1-4 nuclei in cyst, vacuole, and chromatid bodies |
question
| Entamoeba histolytica special characteristics |
answer
| pathogenic can cause bloody diarrhea, intestinal amoeba |
question
| Entamoeba hartmanii ID methods |
answer
| trichrome stain |
question
| Entamoeba hartmanii diagnosis |
answer
| no rbcs, smaller 8-10 uM, 1 nucleus, solid dense chromatin |
question
| Entamoeba hartmanii special characteristics |
answer
| nonpathogenic, intestinal amoeba |
question
| Entamoeba coli ID methods |
answer
| trichrome |
question
| Entamoeba coli diagnosis |
answer
| bigger 20-25 uM, 1 nucleus in troph, 1-8 nuclei in cyst, karisome is off to the side, karisome is inside nucleus, condensed chromatin |
question
| Entamoeba coli special characteristics |
answer
| nonpathogenic, intestinal amoeba |
question
| Endolimax nana ID methods |
answer
| trichrome |
question
| Endolimax nana diagnosis |
answer
| cysts are larger than trophs; trophs are 6-12 uM and has 1 nucleus, 1-4 nuclei in cysts, karisome clumped and irregular, no chromatin, fine cytoplasm |
question
| Endolimax nana special characteristics |
answer
| intestinal amoeba |
question
| Iodamoeba butschlii ID methods |
answer
| Trichrome, direct with iodine |
question
| Iodamoeba butschlii diagnosis |
answer
| : large glycogen vacuole (stains with iodine), 8-10uM, vacuole pushed nucleus to the side, 1 nucleus in both cyst and troph, no chromatin |
question
| Iodamoeba butschlii special characteristics |
answer
| vacuole stains with iodine, intestinal amoeba |
question
| Blastocystis hominis ID methods |
answer
| trichrome |
question
| Blastocystis hominis diagnosis |
answer
| large vacuole is the central body pushed nucleus to periphery, 6-40uM variation in size, 4 nuclei in cyst |
question
| Blastocystis hominis special characteristics |
answer
| vacuole is 90% of organism, variation in size, intestinal amoeba |
question
| Acanthamoeba spp ID methods |
answer
| : grow in culture (?), eye scraping, wet prep with LM |
question
| Acanthamoeba spp diagnosis |
answer
| brain abscess |
question
| Acanthamoeba spp special characteristics |
answer
| infect contacts cleaned in water (not solution), keratitis, tissue amoeba |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Acanthomba in brain tissue |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Acanthoamoba in corneal scrapping |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Balantidium Coli |
question
| [image] |
answer
| B. coli troph |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Blastocystis hominis |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Crytospordium paruvum |
question
| [image] |
answer
| E. nana |
question
| [image] |
answer
| E. hartmarni |
question
| [image] |
answer
| E. histolytica cyst |
question
| [image] |
answer
| E. histolytica troph |
question
| [image] |
answer
| G. lamblia cyst |
question
| [image] |
answer
| G. Lamblia trichrome |
question
| [image] |
answer
| G. lamblia troph |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Iodamoeba butshlii iodine |
question
| [image] |
answer
| iodamoeba butshlii trichrome |
question
| [image] |
answer
| isopora belli |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Microsporidia |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Naegleria fowleri |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Pneumocystitis carinii |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Trichomonas vaginalis troph |
question
| [image] |
answer
| Trichomonas vaginalis wet mount |
Cell Mediated Immunity
Medicine
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
WEX 3B – Microbiology – Flashcards 97 terms
97 terms
Preview
WEX 3B – Microbiology – Flashcards
question
| Why is it necessary for RBs to reorganize into EBs before they are released from the host cell? |
answer
| EBs are the extracellular form; RBs will not survive outside the host cell |
question
| How do we culture for Chlamydia trachomatis? |
answer
| Centrifugation enhances endocytosis into monolayer of cells, usually mouse fibroblasts (McCoy cells) then incubate 48-72 hrs at 35*C |
question
| What is the life cycle of the genus Chlamydia? |
answer
| 1) Within 8 hrs of endocytosis, EB converts to RB 2) RB reproduces by binary fission 3) 18-24 hrs, RB reorganize to EB 4) Cycle complete 24-40 hrs after endocytosis |
question
| What species of Chlamydia is zoonosis that causes cold or flu like upper respiratory illness? |
answer
| Chlamydia psittaci |
question
| What species of Chlamydia causes diseases of the eye and most frequent STD? |
answer
| Chlamydia trachomatis |
question
| What species of Chlamydia is an etiologic agent of walking pneumonia and brochitis? |
answer
| Chlamydia pneumoniae |
question
| What are 3 specimen sources for laboratory testing for Chlamydia? |
answer
| 1. Ocular and genital tract 2. Bubo pus (LGV) 3. Sputum and throat washings |
question
| What are 4 detection methods for Chlamydia? |
answer
| 1. Fluorescent Antibody Technique (FA) 2. Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA) 3. Nucleic Acid Amplification 4. Nucleic Acid Probes |
question
| What is the purpose of darkfield microscopy? |
answer
| To permit observation of live, moving spirochetes that are unstained |
question
| What are some of the general characteristics of the Genus Borrelia? |
answer
| 1. Loosely coiled spirochete 2. Gram-negative type cell wall 3. Wright's or Giemsa stain 4. Not easily or reliably cultured |
question
| What does Borrelia recurrentis cause and how is it transmitted? |
answer
| Causes epidemic louse-borne relapsing fever in humans, transmitted by lice from a smashed or scratched contaminate into the bite site |
question
| What does Borrelia spp. causes and how is it transmitted? |
answer
| Causes endemic tick-borne relapsing fever in humans transmitted by various species of soft-shelled ticks of the Genus Ornithodoros |
question
| Describe the lesion that is seen in the initial phase of Lyme disease. |
answer
| Skin lesion is called erythema chronicum migrans, a flat reddened area near the bite site that slowly expands with central clearing |
question
| What are some of the general characteristics of the genus Leptospira? |
answer
| 1. Tightly coiled, thin, flexible spirochete 2. Resembles a "Shepherd's hook" 3. Gram-negative type of cell wall 4. Cultivated in protein-rich, semi-solid media (below surface of medium) 5. Primarily associated with occupational exposure |
question
| Briefly describe the epidemiology for leptospirosis. |
answer
| Organism carried by rodents in their urine, spread by direct exposure to infected animal urine or contaminated soil or water |
question
| Briefly describe the mode of infection for leptospirosis. |
answer
| Ingestion of contaminated water or food or through mucous membranes of the eye, mouth, genitals, or through abraded skin |
question
| How can Leptospira biflexa be differentiated from other Leptospira spp? |
answer
| Leptospira biflexa's ability to grow at 13*C |
question
| What are some of the general characteristics of the Genus Treponema? |
answer
| 1. Moderately tightly coiled 2. Gram-negative type cell 3. Not culturable on laboratory media |
question
| Give a brief description of the medical importance and epidemiology of Treponema pertenue. |
answer
| Medical importance - infectious tropical skin disease Epidemiology - non-venereal disease transmitted by direct contact |
question
| Give a brief description of the medical importance and epidemiology of Treponema carateum. |
answer
| Medical importance - contagious skin disease prevalent in tropical America Epidemiology - non-venereal infection transmitted by direct contact |
question
| What are the modes of infection for syphilis? |
answer
| Acquired - contact with chancre or lesion Congenital - infant is born with the disease (can cross the placenta) |
question
| What are the clinical features for the primary stage of syphilus? |
answer
| 1. Chancre (usually heals spontaneously) 2. Enlarged lymph glands |
question
| What is the method of diagnosis of syphilis during the primary stage? |
answer
| 1. Darkfield microscopic examination 2. Serological test (about 80% of untreated cases) |
question
| What are the clinical features for the secondary stage of syphilis? |
answer
| 1. Secondary mucocutaneous rash 2. Fever 3. Malaise (feeling ill) 4. Alopecia (hair falls out) |
question
| What are the methods of diagnosis during the secondary stage of syphilis? |
answer
| 1. Clinical features 2. Examination of rash scrapings 3. Serological tests |
question
| What are the clinical features for the latent stage of syphilis? |
answer
| NONE |
question
| What are the methods of diagnosis during the latent stage of syphilis? |
answer
| NONE |
question
| What is the clinical significance of syphilis testing? |
answer
| 1. Control of venereal disease 2. Prevention or detection of congenital syphilis 3. Routine screening 4. Treatment will reduce non-treponemal test titers |
question
| What are the contents of the "antigen ampoule" of the RPR test and what purpose do they serve? |
answer
| 1. Cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol (CLC) complex (antigen) 2. Charcoal carbon particles (indicator) 3. Choline chloride (deactivation of complement that may interfere with test) |
question
| What kind of needle is used to dispense the antigen in the RPR test and how many drops should it be calibrated to deliver? |
answer
| Blunt 20-gauge needle calibrated to deliver 60 drops of antigen per mL |
question
| The rotator should be calibrated to how many rpms for the RPR test? |
answer
| 100 rpms |
question
| How are both the specimen and antigen dispensed onto the 18 mm circle when performing the RPR test? |
answer
| One "free falling" drop |
question
| How long should the test card of an RPR test rotate? |
answer
| 8 mins (at 100 rpm) |
question
| True/False? The RPR test is a "non-specific" or "non-treponemal" test used to detect the presence of reagin in a patient's serum or plasma. |
answer
| True |
question
| True/False? Results for the RPR test are reported as either positive or negative. |
answer
| False. RPR test results are reported as either Reactive or Non-reactive |
question
| True/False? The Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test (FTA-ABS) is a "specific" or "treponemal" test used to confirm a reactive RPR test. |
answer
| True |
question
| What is the definition of "antigen"? |
answer
| A "foreign" substance that induces an immune response and reacts with antibodies or T-cell receptors. |
question
| What is Indirect FA used for? |
answer
| To detect the presence of a specific antibody to serum following exposure to a microorganism. |
question
| ELISA concept is similar to FA, but uses an ____________ instead of a fluorochrome. |
answer
| enzyme utilizing substrate |
question
| Give one example of a membrane-bound EIA. |
answer
| Home pregnancy tests |
question
| True/False? Thermus aquaticus is heat labile. |
answer
| False. Thermus aquaticus' Taq polymerase's optimal temperature is 72*C but can be stable at 94*C |
question
| C-reactive protein is aptly named because it reacts with the C-polysaccharide of what bacteria? |
answer
| Streptococcus pneumoniae |
question
| In antigen-antibody testing, a __________________ test results when a cloudy line of reacted material appears in the area of the agar where an optimal ratio of antigen to antibody exists. |
answer
| Precipitin ring |
question
| The counter-immune electrophoresis, precipitin ring, and Ouchterlony diffusion tests are examples of antigen-antibody technology that use _____________________ reactions. |
answer
| Precipitation |
question
| This test detects antibodies against relatively large cellular antigens. |
answer
| Direct agglutination |
question
| This test detects antibodies against soluble antigens adsorbed onto large particles such as RBCs or latex beads. |
answer
| Indirect agglutination |
question
| These reactions are Antigen-Antibody reactions in which harmful effects of baterial toxins or a virus are blocked by specific antibodies found in the patient's serum. |
answer
| Neutralization reactions |
question
| These are fluorescent dyes that are attached to specific antibodies for detection. |
answer
| Fluorescent antibody. |
question
| Name 2 fluorochromes used to label antibody for fluorescent microscopy. |
answer
| 1. Auramine 2. Rhodamine |
question
| Name 2 fluorochromes that are not antibody related and explain how they produce the fluorescence needed for fluorescent microscopy. |
answer
| 1. Acridine orange - binds directly to nucleic acid 2. Calcofluor white - binds to the polysaccaride in the fungal cell wall |
question
| In _________________ FA testing the antibody is supplied by the patient serum |
answer
| Indirect |
question
| In _________________ FA testing the antibody to the antigen is tagged with a fluorochrome. |
answer
| Direct |
question
| In _________________ FA testing the fluorochrome is labeled to a specific antiserum. |
answer
| Indirect |
question
| What is the principle of the ELISA test? |
answer
| An automated spectrophotometer reads the color change in the reaction which results from the enzyme utilizing substrate |
question
| How is color developed in the ELISA test? |
answer
| By the reaction which results from the enzyme utilizing substrate |
question
| In direct ELISA testing, the microtiter plate suppplied by the test kit has the ___________ adsorbed to the wells. |
answer
| antibodies |
question
| In direct ELISA testing, the conjugate contains what two essential parts? |
answer
| 1. Enzyme 2. Antibody |
question
| In indirect ELISA testing, the microtiter plate supplied by the test kit has the ___________________ adsorbed to the wells. |
answer
| antigen |
question
| The first step in DNA replication is to temporarily ___________ the double strand forming two moving fork replication sites. |
answer
| unzips |
question
| ___________________ molecules move along each fork formed in the second step of DNA replication adding complimentary bases. |
answer
| Polymerase |
question
| Define Denaturation. |
answer
| The process of disrupting the double helix to yield two molecules of single stranded DNA. |
question
| Define Annealing. |
answer
| Lowering the temperature slowly allows the strands (of DNA) to reassociate into the double helix with the proper base pairing |
question
| Define Hybridization. |
answer
| Annealing two strands derived from different types of sources. |
question
| The principle behind ______________ is to use known fragments of DNA to detect complimentary sequences of DNA in an unknown specimen. |
answer
| Nucleic Acid Probes |
question
| What is the temperature used to denature? |
answer
| 94*C |
question
| What is the temperature used to anneal? |
answer
| 50*C |
question
| What is the temperature used to extend? |
answer
| 72*C |
question
| What is the template/target for the probes or primers related to polymerase chain reaction technology? |
answer
| Specimen DNA |
question
| What reapeatedly heats and cools the sample in polymerase chain reaction technology? |
answer
| Thermocycler |
question
| What extends specific primers into a complementary strand of DNA in polymerase chain reaction technology? |
answer
| Thermus aquaticus polymerase |
question
| True/False? C-reactive protein is a non-specific antigen-like substance supplied by test kits that use latex agglutination testing to detect the presence of IgG immunoglobulins produced by the patient during an inflammatory response. |
answer
| False. It detects C-Reactive Protein, an amino acid composition similar to that of IgG |
question
| What are 3 general shapes of animal viruses? |
answer
| 1. Helical - rod-like 2. Icosahedral - ball-like 3. Complex |
question
| Why are viruses considered to be "obligate intracellular parasites"? |
answer
| Viruses replicate only in living cells and cannot replicate outside of a host cell. The host cell must provide the energy, synthetic machinery, precursors, enzymes, and ribosomes for the synthesis of viral protiens and nucleic acids |
question
| What is the correct sequence of steps in the virus lytic replication cycle? |
answer
| 1. Attachment 2. Penetration and Uncoating 3. Eclipse or Synthesis Phase 4. Assembly/maturation 5. Release |
question
| What is the correct sequence of steps in the virus lysogenic cycle? |
answer
| 1. Viral DNA is incorporated into the host DNA immediately upon entering the cell 2. Genes coded by the prophage are transcribed and replicated as if they were normal host DNA 3. Upon certain stimuli, the prophage/provirus is removed from the host DNA |
question
| What are the characteristics of the acute phase of a virus infection? |
answer
| 1. Virus is detectable 2. IgM may be detectable 3. IgG is usually not detectable |
question
| What are the visual effects or abnormalities seen in cells that are infected by a virus (Cytopathic effects)? |
answer
| 1. Inclusion body 2. Giant cells |
question
| How many days after onset of symptoms should serum samples for acute and convalescent phases be collected? |
answer
| Acute - 7 days after onset of symptoms Convalescent - 14-30 days after onset of symptoms |
question
| How long may a serum specimen for virology testing be stored at 4*C - 6*C? |
answer
| Up to several weeks |
question
| True/False? Virus specimens for virus isolation and growth are usually processed and inoculated onto cell cultures |
answer
| True |
question
| Which hepatitis viruses are transmitted fecal-oral? |
answer
| Hepatitis A virus |
question
| Which herpes family member causes recurring oral or genital lesions? |
answer
| Herpes simplex viruses 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2) |
question
| Which herpes family member causes chicken pox and herpes zoster? |
answer
| Varicella zoster virus (VZV) |
question
| Which respiratory virus causes a disease in infants and young children and requires isolation of the patient? |
answer
| Paramyxoviridae family, genus pneumovirus |
question
| What virus family are Influenza viruses type A, B and C members of? |
answer
| Orthomyxoviridae |
question
| Which respiratory virus has caused outbreaks of Adult Respiratory Disease in military recruits? |
answer
| Adenoviridae family, genus Mastadenovirus |
question
| What type of immune cells does HIV infect? |
answer
| CD4 (T-Cell) lymphocyte |
question
| Although the Picornaviruses are best known for mild diseases such as the common cold, what is the most serious disease a member may cause? |
answer
| Poliomyelitis |
question
| Which family includes the virus which causes rabies? |
answer
| Rhabdoviridae |
question
| Are live virus vaccines "attenuated" or "inactivated" viruses? |
answer
| Attenuated |
question
| What aspect of viral growth do most of the currently prescribed antiviral drugs affect? |
answer
| Inhibits viral activities within the host cells, but with minimal harmful side effects to the host. |
question
| What direct preparation is used a CSF specimen? |
answer
| India Ink |
question
| What are the three macroscopic morphologies used mold culture? |
answer
| Texture, Color and Reverse |
question
| What is the causative agent of Black piedra? |
answer
| Piedraia hortae |
question
| Which thermally dimorphic fungal pathogens causes "rose handlers' disease"? |
answer
| Sporothrix schenckii |
question
| Name the three genera causin chromoblastomycosis. |
answer
| Phialophora, Cladosporium, Fonsecaea |
question
| Blastomyces dermatitidis is the etiological agent of what disease process? |
answer
| North American Blastomycosis |
