Cell Mediated Immunity Flashcards, test questions and answers
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We've found 7 Cell Mediated Immunity tests
Cell Mediated Immunity
Day Care Center
Medical/Clerical Assisting
Personal Protective Equipment
MA Chapter 26 & 29 – Flashcards 79 terms

Marie Florence
79 terms
Preview
MA Chapter 26 & 29 – Flashcards
question
Relapse in the disappearance of the clinical symptoms for disease.
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False
question
A germicide is an agent that destroys pathogenic microorganisms.
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True
question
An antiseptic is an agent that can be used on the skin to inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
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True
question
Employees must provide their own alternative to latex gloves if they show signs of latex anaphylaxis.
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False
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Employees most provide employers with hepatitis B immunization free of charge within 10 days of the start of employment.
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True
question
Hands do not have to be washed if the healthcare worker conscientiously uses gloves during all possible times of exposure.
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False
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The main function of carbohydrate is to repair and build tissues.
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False
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Dietary fiber is the portion of the plant that con not be digested.
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True
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Adipose tissue is stored as excess carbohydrate calories.
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True
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Olive and canola oils are examples of saturated fats.
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False
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Food sources of fats include avocados and coconut oils.
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False
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Complex carbohydrates include fruit and milk products.
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True
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HDLs are the destructive forms of cholesterol that form atherosclerotic plaques on arterial walls.
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False
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Experts recommend an LDL level of less than 100 mg/dl.
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True
question
Vegans must eat a combination of completed proteins to meet their nutritional needs.
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False
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Individuals should drink a minimum of six glasses of water a day to maintain optimum health.
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False
question
The grain group of foods is the largest section of the Food Guide Pyramid.
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True
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It is recommended that individuals consume a minimum of three servings of fat a day.
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False
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The BMI compares the patients weight with standardized height and weight charts.
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False
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Death rates are significantly higher for patients with BMIs between 19 and 22.
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False
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A clear liquid diet includes milk, custards, and creamed soups.
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False
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A mechanical soft diet is typically used after oral surgery.
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True
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Low-fiber diets are recommended for patients with diverticulosis.
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True
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The American Cancer Society recommends a low-fiber diet.
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False
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The glycemic index rates foods on how quickly they affect blood glucose levels.
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True
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Food labels must include the total amount of fat in the food and also the percentage of saturated fat in the product.
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True
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A food that claims to be sodium free must have no salt in the product.
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False
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Fat has 6 calories per gram.
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False
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The number of calories and the fat content in a serving size of a particular food are important criteria for patients to understand.
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True
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Obesity affects more than 50% of Americans.
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True
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What action do viruses take when enter the body's cell.
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incorporate into the cells reproductive material
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Which of the following scenarios is the only situation in which recapping a needle is considered an appropriate procedure.
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after withdrawing medication from a vial
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Which of the following is not a major area that must be covered in the medical facility's Exposure Control Plan by OSHA.
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specific steps for providing effective patient treatment
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What are the two important factors in performing an effective hand wash.
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friction and running warm water
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The process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments is called.
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sanitization
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The most important step in achieving hand asepsis is.
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removing jewelry
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The method that completely destroys microorganisms is.
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sterilization
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While a blood specimen is being prepared for laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the spill.
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cover the spill with paper towels, pour 10% bleach solution on the towels, wait 15 minutes, wipe up the spill while wearing gloves, and discard the paper towels in an infectious waste container
question
Blunt needles, needleless systems, and resheathing syringes are examples of.
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engineering controls
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On the basis of your understanding of the chain of infection, what would be the most effective method for controlling the spread of conjunctivitis in a daycare center.
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wash hands thoroughly each time a symptomatic child is contacted
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A bacterial spore.
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is a resistant bacterial reproductive cell that can become active and cause disease
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Inflammation mediators that are released at the site of cellular damage perform which of the following functions.
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increase blood flow to the site and increased the permeability of blood vessel walls
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Cell-mediated immunity.
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causes destruction of pathogens at the site of infection
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Relapse and remission are seen frequently in what types of infection.
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latent infections
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Viral infections.
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are treated with a focus on palliative care
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Rosa was assisting with pediatric immunization when she received an accidental needlestick. What is the first thing Rosa should do.
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thoroughly wash the needlestick site
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What should not be done when sanitizing an instrument.
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separate sharp and blunt instruments
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For disinfection to be effective, what must the medical assistant do.
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soak instrument in a closed container
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Which of the following major carbohydrates is found in milk.
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lactose
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A patient scheduled to undergo stool collection for occult blood should be instructed to avoid intake of which of the following.
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red meat
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Protein can be found in.
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meats and nuts
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A patient with high cholesterol should be instructed to avoid intake of which of the following.
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red meat
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Vitamin C can be found in.
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citrus
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Beta-carotene can be found in.
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raw vegetables
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Calcium and vitamin D can be found in.
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dairy products
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Fiber can be found in.
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raw vegetables
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Which is not an antioxidant.
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vitamin K
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Which is not a fat soluble.
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vitamin C
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Which nutrient has 9 kcal/g.
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fat
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Which eating disorder involves bingeing and purging.
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bulimia
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Which eating disorder is characterized by self-starvation.
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anorexia nervosa
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Which health condition is related to stress.
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headaches, hypertension, and diarrhea
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Which is not a health screening.
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MRI
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________ is a skin eruption that results in hives.
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urticaria
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A(n) _____ is a foreign substance that results in the production of a specific antibody.
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antigen
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________ is a yeast-like fungus that typically affects the vaginal and oral mucosa.
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candidiasis
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A(n) _______ agent is a medication that relieves patient symptoms but does not cure a disease.
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palliative
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A(n)________ is an insect or tick that transmits the causative organisms of a disease.
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vector
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Fungal infections are also called _______ infections.
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mycotic
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________ are surface bacteria that are introduced by contaminated objects or by exposure to microorganisms that can be destroyed if managed properly.
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transient bacteria
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Obesity is defined as more than ___ % above the recommended body weight.
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20
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A patient with symptoms of ______ feels dizzy and has difficulty with normal balance.
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vertigo
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The level of patient dehydration can be determined with a simple skin ______ test that involves grasping the skin on the posterior surface of the hand between the fingers and releasing it.
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turgor
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According to OSHA regulations, under which of the following circumstances is recapping needles allowed.
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when recapping an unused needle
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For which of the following is a medical assistant required to wear a mask while taking the patient's medical history.
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rheumatic fever
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Which of the following is the recommended method for disposal of needles in a puncture-proof container.
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keeping the needle intact
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The CDC does not recommend standard precautions for which of the following body fluids if the fluid does not contain visible blood.
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urine
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Which of the following procedures is appropriate blood and other potentially infectious materials for transport.
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placing the materials in a leak proof container during collection
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Gloves, gowns, and goggles are examples of.
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personal protective equipment
Anatomy
Cell Mediated Immunity
Medical Terminology
Med Term ch 14 – Lymphatic and immune systems – Flashcards 78 terms

Kenneth Wheeler
78 terms
Preview
Med Term ch 14 – Lymphatic and immune systems – Flashcards
question
Adaptive immunity
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ability to recognize and remember specific antigens and mount an attack on them - B cells and T cells
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adenoids
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mass of lymphatic tissue in the nasopharynx
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antibody
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protein produced by B cells to destroy antigens
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antigen
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substance that the body recognizes as foreign; evokes an immune response
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axillary nodes
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lymph nodes in the armpit (underarm)
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B cell
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lymphocyte that matures into a plasma cell to secrete antibodies
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cell mediated immunity
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T cells that respond to antigens and destroy them- type of adaptive immunity
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cervical nodes
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lymph nodes in the neck region
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complement system
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proteins in the blood that help antibodies kill their target
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cytokines
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proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells to aid in antigen destruction - interferons and interleukins
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cytotoxic T cell
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lymphocyte that directly kills antigens
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dendritic cell
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antigen-presenting cell - shows T and B cells what to attack
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helper T cell
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lymphocyte that aids B cells and stimulates T cells
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humoral immunity
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B cells produce antibodies after exposure to specific antigens - type of adaptive immunity
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immunity
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body's ability to resist foreign organisms and toxins that damage tissues and organs - natural immunity and adaptive immunity
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immunoglobins
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antibodies such as IgA, IgE, IgG, IgM, IgD - secreted by plasma cells (mature B cells) in response to the presence of an antigen
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immunotherapy
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use of immune cells, antibodies, or vaccines to treat or prevent disease
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inguinal nodes
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lymph nodes in the groin area
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interferons
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proteins (cytokines) secreted by T cells and other cells to aid and regulate the immune response
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interleukins
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proteins (cytokines) that stimulate the growth of B and T lymphocytes
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interstitial fluid
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fluid in the spaces between cells - becomes lymph when enters lymph capillaries
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lymph
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thin, watery fluid found within lymphatic vessels and collected from tissues throughout the body
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lymph capillaries
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tiniest lymphatic vessels
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lymphoid organs
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lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus gland
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lymph node
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collection of stationary solid lymphatic tissue along lymph vessels; contains cells (lymphocytes and macrophages) that fight infection
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lymph vessel
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carrier of lymph throughout the body; lymphatic vessels empty lymph into veins in the upper part of the chest
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macrophage
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large phagocyte found in lymph nodes and other tissues of the body
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mediastinal nodes
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lymph nodes in the area between the lungs in the thoracic (chest) cavity
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mesenteric nodes
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lymph nodes in the mesentery (intestinal region)
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monoclonal antibody
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antibody produce din a laboratory to attack antigens and to destroy cells; useful in immunotherapy
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natural immunity
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protection that an individual is born with to fight infection such as neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, and NK cells - not antigen specific and doesn't elicit memory
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paraaortic nodes
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lymph nodes near the aorta in the lumbar (waist) area of the body
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plasma cell
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lymphocyte that secretes antibodies - matures from B cells
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right lymphatic duct
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lymphatic vessel in the chest that drains lymph from the upper right part of the body - empties lymph into a large vein in the neck
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spleen
answer
organ in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen that destroys worn-out red blood cells, activates lymphocytes, and stores blood
question
suppressor T cell
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lymphocyte that inhibits the activity of B and T cells
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T cell / T lymphocyte
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lymphocyte that acts directly on antigens to destroy them or produce chemicals (cytokines) such as interferons and interleukins that are toxic to antigens
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tolerance
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ability of T cells to recognize and accept the body's own antigens as "self" or friendly - once established, the immune system will not react against the body
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thoracic duct
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large lymphatic vessel that drains lymph from the lower and left side of thee body (head, neck, arm, and chest) - empties lymph into large veins in the neck
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thymus gland
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lymphoid organ in the mediastinum that conditions T cells to react to foreign cells and aids in the immune response
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tonsils
answer
masses of lymphatic tissue in the back of the oropharynx
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toxin
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poison; protein produced by certain bacteria, animals, or plants
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vaccination
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exposure of an individual to a foreign protein (antigen) that provokes an immune response - response will destroy any cell that possesses the antigen on its surface and will protect against infection
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vaccine
answer
weakened or killed microorganisms, toxins, or other proteins given to induce immunity to infection or disease
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immun/o
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protection
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lymph/o
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lymph
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lymphaden/o
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lymph node (gland)
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splen/o
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spleen
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thym/o
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thymus gland
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tox/o
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poison
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ana-
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again, anew
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inter-
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between
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acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDs)
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group of clinical signs and symptoms associated with suppression of the immune system and marked by opportunistic infections, secondary neoplasms, and neurologic problems
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kaposi sarcoma
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cancer arising from the lining cells of capillaries that produces dark purplish skin nodules
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lymphoma
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cancer of lymph nodes
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wasting syndrome
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marked by weight loss and decrease in muscular strength, appetite, and mental activity, also may occur with AIDs
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allergy
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abnormal hypersensitivity acquired by exposure to an antigen
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lymphoma
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malignant tumor of lymph nodes and lymph tissues
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Hodgkin disease
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malignant tumor of lymphoid tissue in the spleen and lymph nodes
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multiple myeloma
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malignant tumor of bone marrow cells
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thymoma
answer
malignant tumor of the thymus gland
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allergen
answer
substance capable of causing a specific hypersensitivity reaction in the body - type of antigen
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anaphylaxis
answer
exaggerated or unusual hypersensitivity to foreign protein or other substance
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atopy
answer
hypersensitive or allergic state involving an inherited predisposition
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CD4+ cells
answer
helper T cells that carry the CD4 protein antigen on their surface
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Hodgkin disease
answer
malignant tumor of lymphoid tissue in spleen and lymph nodes
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HIV
answer
virus (retrovirus) that causes AIDs
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kaposi sarcoma
answer
malignant lesion associated with AIDs; arises from the lining of capillaries and appears as red, purple, brown, or black skin nodules
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non-Hodgkin lymphomas
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group of malignant tumors involving lymphoid tissue
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opportunistic infections
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infectious diseases associated with AIDs; occur because HIV infection lowers the body's resistance and allows infection by bacteria and parasites that normally are easily contained
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protease inhibitor
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drug that treats AIDS by blocking the production of protease, a proteolytic enzyme that helps create new viral pieces for HIV
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reverse transcriptase inhibitor (RTI)
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drug that treats AIDS by blocking reverse transcriptase, an enzyme needed to make copies of HIV
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wasting syndrome
answer
weight loss, decrease in muscular strength, appetite, and mental activity; associated with AIDS
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CD4+ cell count
answer
measures the number of CD4+ T cells (helper T cells) in the bloodstream of patients with AIDS
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ELISA
answer
screening test to detect anti-HIV antibodies in the bloodstream
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immunoelectrophoresis
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test that separates immunoglobins
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viral load test
answer
measurement of the amount of AIDS virus (HIV) in the bloodstream
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computed tomography (CT) scan
answer
x-ray imaging produces cross-sectional and other views of anatomic structures
Cell Mediated Immunity
Human Anatomy And Physiology 1
Immunology
Natural Killer Cells
Self From Non Self
Intro to human disease (midterm prep) – Flashcards 30 terms

Stephanie Landry
30 terms
Preview
Intro to human disease (midterm prep) – Flashcards
question
The immune system protects the body by distinguishing _____
answer
Self from non-self
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Leukocytes that can engulf and destroy pathogens are known as _____
answer
Phagocytes
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Adaptive immunity includes two separate but overlapping arms called _____.
answer
cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity
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_____ provide defense against extracellular antigens like bacterial toxins and bacterial cells.
answer
Antibodies
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_____ provide defense against viruses, abnormal cells, and other intercellular pathogens.
answer
Cell-mediated immunity
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_____ refers to a visual examination of the external surface of the body, its movements, and posture for abnormalities or evidence of disease.
answer
Inspection
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_____, producing sounds by tapping on specific areas of the body with fingers, hands, or small instruments, allows evaluation of the size, consistency, and borders of the body organs, and the presence or absence of fluid in body areas.
answer
Percussion
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_____ uses computers and x-rays to create three-dimensional images of internal structures.
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Computed tomography
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_____ analyzes the interaction of low-frequency sound waves with tissues to create moving images of internal organs
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Ultrasound
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______ uses radioactive materials to create contrast in the body and help form images of the structure and function of organs.
answer
Nuclear medicine
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A pathogen is a _____.
answer
disease-causing microorganism
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The word _____ is derived from Greek words that mean "to cause suffering"
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Pathogen
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Infectious diseases transmitted directly by human contact are said to be _____.
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Contagious or communicable
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Tracking the _____ of a disease is tracking the number of new cases of a disease in a population.
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Incidence
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When a disease always occurs at low levels in a population, it is said to be _____.
answer
Endemic
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People who harbor an infectious agent but do not have signs or symptoms are known as _____.
answer
Carriers
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_____ transmission describes transmission of an infectious disease from a reservoir to a susceptible human.
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Horizontal
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_____ transmission of an infectious disease occurs when an individual is infected by contact with the reservoir.
answer
Direct horizontal
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_____ transmission of an infectious disease occurs when a pathogen can withstand the environment outside of its host for a long period of time before infecting another individual.
answer
Indirect transmission
question
Intravenous drug users who share needles can transmit infectious diseases like hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV via _____ contact.
answer
Indirect
question
Cancer is the _____ most common cause of death in the United States.
answer
second
question
Benign tumors are _____, and remain localized.
answer
Not life threatening, grow slowly
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Benign tumors have a _____.
answer
smooth surface and are symmetrical
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Malignant tumors have a _____-like appearance and an irregular surface.
answer
crab
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Malignant tumors _____.
answer
are not encapsulated, making excision more difficult
question
An osteosarcoma is a malignant tumor of _____.
answer
Bone
question
The most important risk factor for cancer is _____.
answer
Growing older
question
Cigarette smoking causes about _____ of all cancer deaths in the United States.
answer
30%
question
The _____ increases the risk for cancers of the cervix, penis, vagina, anus, and vulva.
answer
Human papillomavirus
question
Uncontrolled cell division is the result of _____ in genes that play a role in cell division.
answer
Mutations
Anatomy
Cell Mediated Immunity
Chapter 14 Medical Term – Flashcards 46 terms

Candace Young
46 terms
Preview
Chapter 14 Medical Term – Flashcards
question
Slight increased in number of lymphocytes
answer
lymphocytosis
question
Lymphocytes that transform into plasma cells and secret antibodies
answer
B Cells
question
Inflammation of the tonsils
answer
tonsillitis*
question
Malignant tumor of lymph nodes
answer
Hodgkin disease
question
Immune response in which B cells transform into plasma cells and secrete antibodies
answer
humoral immunity
question
Introduction of altered antigens to produce an immune response
answer
vaccination*
question
Inguinal, axillary, mediastinal, cervical
answer
Lymph nodes are concentrated in those areas
question
Computerized x-ray imagining in the transverse plane
answer
CT Scan
question
Protozoal (paracytic) infection associated with AIDS that may cause pneumonitis, hepatitis, and encephalitis
answer
toxoplasmosis
question
Helper of suppressor cells are types of
answer
T Cells
question
Spleen
answer
abdominal organ that filters erythrocytes and activates lymphocytes
question
Mediastinal T Cell producer
answer
thymus
question
Toxic
answer
pertaining to poison
question
Immune response in which T cells destroy antigens
answer
cell mediated immunity
question
Formation of lymph
answer
lymphopoiesis*
question
Formation of lymph
answer
lymphopoiesis
question
examples of immunoglobins
answer
IgA, IgG, IgE
question
Cytotoxic cells
answer
T cell lymphocytes
question
HIV
answer
the virus that causes AIDs
question
Lymphocytes contained in the thymus gland that act on antigens
answer
T cells
question
Masses of lymph tissue in the nasopharynx
answer
adenoids*
question
Produces lymphocytes and monocytes and all other blood cells
answer
bone marrow
question
tonsils
answer
oropharyngeal lymph tissue
question
Atopy
answer
a hypersensitivity or allergic state
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Proteins that stimulate grown of T-Cells
answer
Interleukins*
question
Lymphocytes, monocytes, phagocytes, antibodies
answer
components of the immune system
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Cancer arising from the lining cells of capillaries, producing purplish skin nodules
answer
Kaposi sarcoma
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Fluid in the spaces between cells
answer
Interstitial fluid*
question
Interstitial fluid
answer
found in the spaces between cells and becomes lymph when it enters the lymph capillaries
question
Adenoids
answer
Nasopharyngeal lymph tissue
question
Viral infection causing blisters on the skin of lips, nose, or genitals
answer
herpes simplex
question
Fungal infection associated with AIDS involving brain and meaning lungs and skin
answer
cryptococcus
question
Thymus gland*
answer
organ in the chest that produces t-cells
question
Interferons and interleukins are best described as
answer
antiviral proteins produced by T-cell lymphcytes
question
Major lung infection with fever, cough, chest pain, and sputum (treated with septra/bactim
answer
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
question
Collection of fluid in the tissue
answer
lymphedema*
question
Spell Allergy
answer
allergy
question
Spell anaphylaxis
answer
anaphylaxis
question
spell axillary nodes
answer
axillary nodes
question
spell immunoglobulin
answer
immunoglobulin
question
spell inguinal nodes
answer
inguinal nodes
question
spell lymph
answer
spell lymph
question
spell lymphocytopenia
answer
lymphocytopenia
question
spell macrophage
answer
macrophage
question
spell splenectomy
answer
splenectomy
question
spell Hodgkin disease
answer
Hodgkin disease
Cell Mediated Immunity
Microbiology
Rna Dependent Rna Polymerase
Virology
Micro Final (-) RNA Viruses – Flashcards 127 terms

John Smith
127 terms
Preview
Micro Final (-) RNA Viruses – Flashcards
question
What does positive strand mean? |
answer
Viral genome functions as mRNA |
question
What does negative strand mean? |
answer
Negative RNA genome is a TEMPLATE for mRNA |
question
What is the structure of Rhabdoviruses |
answer
Rhabdo= ROD in Greek- these are BULLET-SHAPED viruses, with a Negative Sense RNA strand, ENVELOPED, helical |
question
What virus is BULLET SHAPED? |
answer
Rhabdoviruses |
question
How does one typically get rabies? |
answer
Bite of a rabid animal; inoculation of intact mucous membranes; aerosolization (though bites are most common) |
question
How does rabies promote its own spread? |
answer
Hypersalivation with heaps of virus in the saliva combined with PROMOTING AGGRESSIVE BEHAVIOR |
question
Where does rabies spread to in the body? |
answer
Directly to peripheral nerves by binding the nicotinic Ach Receptor OR indirectly into the muscle at the site of inoculation |
question
How does the rabies virus travel? |
answer
RETROGRADE AXOPLASMIC TRANSPORT to dorsal root ganglion and spinal cord |
question
What virus travels via RETROGRADE AXOPLASMIC TRANSPORT? |
answer
Rabies |
question
Where does the rabies virus go after brain infection? |
answer
Highly innervated sites like skin, salivary glands, retina, cornea, nasal mucosa- FATAL |
question
What is the principle vector of rabies worldwide? What are the minor animal vectors? |
answer
DOGS; raccoons, skunks, bats, foxes |
question
What are the classic neurological symptoms of rabies? |
answer
Hydrophobia, seizures, disorientation, hallucination, paralysis, confusion, delerium |
question
What virus causes HYDROPHOBIA? |
answer
Rabies |
question
What is the laboratory presentation of rabies on microscopy? |
answer
NEGRI BODIES- cytoplasmic inclusions where viral assembly occurs |
question
Infection from what virus will cause NEGRI BODIES on microscopy? |
answer
Rabies |
question
What is the course of treatment if rabies infection is suspected? |
answer
1 dose of human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) 5 doses of rabies vaccine |
question
What are the characteristics of filoviridae? |
answer
Filamentous, ENVELOPED, Negative Sense RNA Virus- helical nucleocapsid endemic in Africa -Ebola and Marburg |
question
What are the main sites of tissue damage in Ebola, and what is the end result of the infection? |
answer
Parenchyma of liver, spleen, LN and lungs -WIDESPREAD HEMORRHAGE THAT CAUSES EDEMA AND SHOCK |
question
How is Ebola transmitted? |
answer
Airborne to animals; direct contact with blood and other secretions |
question
What are some "fascinating facts" about Marburg Virus? |
answer
Exposure to African Green Monkeys imported for research and to prepare polio vaccine |
question
What are the characteristics of bunyaviridae? |
answer
Segmented, ENVELOPED, Negative Sense RNA Viruses- helical -Hanta, Nairo, Phlebo, Bunya ZOONOTIC |
question
How is Hantavirus spread? |
answer
Rodent born |
question
What is the vector for most Bunyaviridae? |
answer
Mosquitos- can cause encephalitis |
question
Because bunyaviruses are injected directly into blood via mosquitos, how does this effect their pathogenesis? |
answer
Primary viremia which spreads to target organs including CNS, liver, kidney, and vascular endothelium |
question
What are the neural and CNS complications of bunyavirus infection? |
answer
Neuronal or glial cell damage, cerebral edema leading to encephalitis |
question
What is the hallmark symptom of Hantavirus infection? |
answer
MASSIVE PULMONARY EDEMA (Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrom HPS) |
question
What virus causes MASSIVE PULMONARY EDEMA? |
answer
Hantavirus |
question
What are the clinical symptoms of Hantavirus infection? |
answer
Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (massive pulmonary edema); hemorrhagic tissue destruction and lethal complications; FUNCTIONAL IMPAIRMENT OF VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM; significant leg cramping and pain |
question
What virus causes FUNCTIONAL IMPAIRMENT OF VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM? |
answer
Hantavirus |
question
What is the vector for bunyaviruses and where do they breed? |
answer
Aedes; water treeholes and discarded trees |
question
How are humans infected by Hantavirus? |
answer
Close contact with rodents or droppings |
question
What are the symptoms of Hantavirus? |
answer
Non-specific presentation with short febrile prodrome lasting 3-5 days -fever, myalgia, headache, chills, dizziness, non-productive cough, nausea, vomiting SHORTNESS OF BREATH, TACHYPNEA, TACHYCARDIA |
question
What are the symptoms of progressed Hantavirus? |
answer
Cardiopulmonary phase- hospitalization is necessary, often with ventilator, to manage TACHYPNEA and TACHYCARDIA |
question
What are the 4 Arenaviridae, and what do they cause? |
answer
LCMV- Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus Lassa, Junin, and Machupo all cause Hemorrhagic Fever |
question
What is the structure of the Reoviruses? |
answer
DOUBLE-STRANDED NAKED RNA- reovirus, rotavirus, Colorado Tick Fever Virus |
question
How is rotavirus transmitted, and what does it cause? |
answer
Fecal-oral; gastroenteritis without blood or pus |
question
How is reovirus transmitted, and what does it cause? |
answer
Fecal-oral AND respiratory; common cold, gastroenteritis |
question
How is Colorado Tick Fever Virus spread, and what does it cause? |
answer
Ticks- virus infects erythroid precursors; Flu-like illness, biphasic fever, conjunctivitis, possible rash |
question
What virus causes BIPHASIC FEVER and CONJUNCTIVITIS? |
answer
Colorado Tick Fever Virus |
question
What are the 3 viruses in the orthomyxoviridae family? |
answer
INFLUENZA A, B, and C |
question
Which influenza virus can be found in animals and humans, and which can be found only in humans? |
answer
INFLUENZA A- ANIMALS AND HUMANS (Shift can only happen in A) INFLUENZA B- ONLY HUMANS |
question
Which influenza virus can undergo SHIFT? |
answer
Influenza A |
question
What type of viral change causes EPIDEMICS in influenza? |
answer
Antigenic DRIFT |
question
What type of viral change causes PANDEMICS in influenza? |
answer
Antigenic SHIFT |
question
What is the structure of the orthomyxoviridae? |
answer
Negative Stranded ENVELOPED RNA viruses- 8 SEGMENT Genome |
question
What is Hemagglutinin (HA)? |
answer
On the influenza viral envelope- responsible for entry of virus into cells -BINDS TO N-ACETYLNEURAMIC ACID (SIALIC ACID) ON THE CELL SURFACE |
question
What part of influenza binds to sialic acid on the host cell surface? |
answer
Hemagglutinin (HA) |
question
What virus has hemagglutinin and what does it bind to? |
answer
Influenza; Sialic Acid |
question
What is Neuraminidase (NA)? |
answer
On the influenza viral envelope- liquifies mucous in the respiratory tract to allow the virus easy access to epithelial cells -REMOVES SIALIC ACID from proteins in virus and infected cells |
question
What part of the influenza virus does the new class of flu drugs block the function of? |
answer
Neuraminidase- prevents ACCESS |
question
What do the nomenclature designations of H and N stand for? |
answer
Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase |
question
How many antigenically different flu vaccines are included in the main flu vaccine? |
answer
3 |
question
What is antigenic shift? |
answer
The sudden replacement of one flu subtype that has been around for decades with a brand new subtype- -always involves the HA subtype, but only sometimes the NA subtype |
question
What flu subtype is ALWAYS involved in antigenic SHIFT? |
answer
HA |
question
How does antigenic shift occur? |
answer
Only in Type A influenza virus (because they infect animals as well as humans); REASSORTMENT OF VIRAL RNA SEGMENTS WHEN THERE IS COINFECTION WITH 2 DIFFERENT INFLUENZA SUBTYPES (must have all 8 genome segments together) |
question
What is it called when cells are coinfected with two different influenza subtypes and the RNA segments are reassorted to make a new virus? |
answer
ANTIGENIC SHIFT |
question
What must happen to the viral genome in antigenic shift? |
answer
ALL 8 PIECES OF THE GENOME MUST BE ASSEMEBLED (FROM 2 DIFFERENT SOURCES) |
question
What is antigenic drift and what types of influenza viruses can use it? |
answer
Mutations in RNA; both types A and B can drift -small changes in the amino acid sequence of HA and NA |
question
What is the term for small changes in the amino acid sequence of HA and NA in influenza? |
answer
Antigenic Drift |
question
What does antigenic drift allow for in a population? |
answer
Drift in HA allows the virus to circumvent existing immunity in a segment of the population each year |
question
How many antigenic sites on HA are recognized by antibodies, and what happens to these sites during antigenic drift? |
answer
4 sites; gradual AA sequence changes occur to allow the virus to avoid antibody recognition |
question
What is the consequence of destruction of ciliated epithelium in viral infections? |
answer
Like Influenza- the cilia don't work, so stuff doesn't get cleared as well, and it creates a chain reaction with secondary BACTERIAL INFECTIONS |
question
How is the influenza virus spread? |
answer
Respiratory Droplets |
question
What cells are infected by influenza virus? |
answer
Ciliated columnar epithelium |
question
How does influenza enter ciliated epithelium? |
answer
HA binds to sialic acid receptors and the virus is phagocytized |
question
What is the effect of M2 protein in influenza infection? |
answer
The endosome pH drops to 5.5 because the M2 protein acts as an ion channel in the virus envelope; nucleocapsids are released into the cytoplasm |
question
What viral infection is characterized by ABRUPT ONSET of fever? |
answer
Influenza |
question
What is the progression of symptoms in influenza infection? |
answer
Abrupt onset of fever; Headache (severe RETROORBITAL pain), myalgia, sore throat, and non-productive cough; 4th day- respiratory symptoms predominate (pharyngitis, laryngitis, and tracheobronchitis); Cough and malaise may last 1-2 weeks after other symptoms TOTAL DURATION= ABOUT 1 WEEK |
question
What causes the systemic symptoms in influenza infection? |
answer
Cell damage initiates acute inflammatory response, and systemic symptoms are due to the release of inflammatory mediators |
question
In what setting is influenza diagnosis particularly important? |
answer
Nursing homes |
question
What do rapid influenza tests not differentiate? |
answer
Between influenza A and B |
question
What should not be given to children or adolescents as a treatment for the flu? |
answer
Aspirin: can cause Reye's syndrome- similar to chicken pox |
question
What antiviral treatments are used against the flu in severe cases? |
answer
Amantadine and Rimantadine: specific activity against TYPE A viruses- they interfere with viral uncoding -can be used prophylactically, and are best given within 48 hours |
question
How do Neurominidase Inhibitors work? |
answer
Inhibit influenza A and B neurominidase- the drugs are ANALOGS OF SIALIC ACID, so they block the active site of Neuraminidase -Prevent viral infection of uninfected cells TAMIFLU and RELENZA -most effective in the first few days |
question
What type of vaccine is available for influenza? |
answer
Inactivated (killed) or live attenuated- usually given in the late fall before the flu season starts -Both Type A and Type B vaccines are given concomitantly |
question
What two subtypes of Type A influenza are still circulating currently? |
answer
H3N2 and H1N1- both are included in vaccine |
question
What is picked each year for the trivalent vaccine? |
answer
One H3N2, one H1N1, and one type B strain -chosen as the strains most likely to be prevalent in the upcoming winter |
question
What is special about the Paramyxoviridae (measles, etc.) in terms of their action on cells? |
answer
The can induce cell to cell fusion forming a SYNCYTIA- giant, multinucleated cells |
question
What Negative Sense RNA viral family causes cells to form SYNCYTIA? |
answer
Paramyxoviridae, like measles, parainfluenza, RSV FUSION PROTEIN IN THE ENVELOPE |
question
Name four viruses in the paramyxoviridae family: |
answer
Measles, parainfluenza, mumps, and RSV |
question
What virus causes measles, and what are its symptoms? |
answer
Morbillivirus; rash, high fever, cough, conjunctivitis, coryza (symptoms of a head cold) |
question
What is the pathogenesis of measles? |
answer
Cell fusion, formation of giant cells- virus passes directly from cell to cell and escapes antibody recognition |
question
How is measles transmitted? |
answer
Respiratory droplets |
question
Where does measles replicate, and where does it spread? |
answer
Respiratory tract; spreads to lymphatics and causes viremia |
question
What are some possible sites of infection due to measles? |
answer
Conjunctiva, respiratory tract, urinary tract, small blood vessels, lymphatics, and CNS |
question
What is the sneaky thing about the spread of measles? |
answer
It can be spread in respiratory secretions before AND after the onset of symptoms. |
question
What virus can be spread in respiratory secretions both before AND after the onset of symptoms? |
answer
Measles |
question
What is the difference in timeframe between German Measles and regular Measles? |
answer
German Measles= RUBELLA= 3 days Measles Measles= RUBEOLA= Full Week |
question
What is roseola? |
answer
Caused by Herpes 6- FEVER GOES AWAY, THEN RASH APPEARS |
question
What are the 3C's of measles? |
answer
Cough, conjunctivitis, and coryza (runny nose) |
question
What are Koplick spots, and in what viral infection do they occur? |
answer
Look like small grains of sand that appear on buccal mucosa, conjunctiva, or vagina- Associated with MEASLES |
question
What is the relationship between Koplick Spots and the rash in measles? |
answer
Spots appear before the rash |
question
What characterizes the rash in measles? |
answer
12-24 hours after the appearance of Koplick spots, the measles rash begins BELOW THE EARS and spreads all over the body MACULOPAPULAR RASH -FEVER IS HIGHEST ON THE DAY OF THE RASH |
question
Where does the measles rash start? |
answer
Below the ears, spreads to entire body |
question
What virus causes a maculopapular rash that starts BELOW THE EARS, and the presence of which marks the day that the fever is highest and patient is sickest? |
answer
Measles |
question
What causes 60% of measles deaths, and what other virus can cause this? |
answer
Giant Cell Pneumonia- also caused by chickenpox |
question
What characterizes atypical measles? |
answer
Occurs in people that have by vaccinated by inactivated vaccine and have insufficient protection- -ILLNESS BEGINS ABRUPTLY AND IS MORE INTENSE THAN PRIMARY MEASLES |
question
What is Subacute Sclerosing Pan Encephalitis (SSPE) and what virus causes it? |
answer
-Extremely serious neurological sequelae of measles-RARE -defective measles virus in the brain acts as a slow virus- it can replicate and spread from cell to cell, but is not released -changes in behavior, muscle jerks, blindness |
question
What is the diagnostic test for Subacute Sclerosing Pan Encephalitis? |
answer
High levels of measles Ab in blood and CSF |
question
How is measles diagnosed? |
answer
Usually clinical presentation- difficult to isolate and grow, but can be found in secretions, blood, urine, and brain tissue -can LOOK FOR GIANT CELLS -immunofluorescence -Virus-specific IgM when rash is present |
question
What are the symptoms of paramyxovirus parainfluenzae? |
answer
Mild, cold-like symptoms, but can cause serious upper respiratory tract disease CAN CAUSE CROUP |
question
What virus can cause CROUP, and what is it? |
answer
Parainfluenzae (paramyxovirus); SEAL BARKING COUGH |
question
What virus causes a SEAL BARKING COUGH? |
answer
Parainfluenza- this is called Croup |
question
What is the diagnostic for parainfluenza? |
answer
Isolated from nasal washings and respiratory secretions- SYNCYTIA can be observed by IF Hemadsorption and hemagglutination |
question
What virus causes acute, benign parotitis? |
answer
Mumps |
question
What virus causes painful swelling of the salivary glands? |
answer
Mumps |
question
What is acute benign parotitis? |
answer
Painful swelling of the salivary glands, as in MUMPS |
question
What type of infection is mumps, and to what cells does it initially spread? |
answer
Lytic; upper respiratory tract epithelium |
question
Where in the body does mumps spread? |
answer
Via viremia to testes, ovary, pancreas, thyroid, and CNS in 50% of cases |
question
What virus causes orchitis and sterility? |
answer
Mumps |
question
What are the reproductive consequences of mumps in males? |
answer
Orchitis and sterility |
question
How is mumps spread? |
answer
Respiratory droplets- usually in younger people |
question
What are the clinical symptoms of mumps? |
answer
BILATERAL parotitis; sudden onset low grade fever, headache, malaise Oral exam reveals redness and swelling of OSTIUM OF STENSON's DUCT |
question
What virus causes redness and swelling of the ostium of Stenson's duct? |
answer
Mumps |
question
What are the potential complications of mumps? |
answer
CNS involvement (50%); pancreatitis; deafness; orchitis-sterility; death |
question
How is mumps diagnosed? |
answer
Virus can be recovered from saliva, urine, pharynx, and CSF -can grow in culture and look for MULTINUCLEATED CELLS -4x increase in specific IgM -Hemagglutination inhibition, ELISA, IF |
question
What is the most frequent cause of fatal respiratory tract infections in infants and young childrean? |
answer
Pneumovirus: Respiratory Syncytial Virus |
question
What should you immediately think of in a case with an INFANT THAT HAS VIRAL PNEUMONIA? |
answer
Respiratory Syncytial Virus |
question
What does RSV cause in adults? |
answer
A cold |
question
Describe the pathogenesis of Respiratory Syncytial Virus: |
answer
Upper Respiratory Tract Syncytia Direct viral invasion of respiratory epithelium NECROSIS OF BRONCHI AND BRONCHIOLES LEADING TO MUCUS PLUGS AND FIBRIN which can block airway |
question
What virus leads to mucus plugs and fibrin that can block the airway? |
answer
RSV |
question
In what season does RSV almost always occur? |
answer
Winter |
question
How is RSV transmitted? |
answer
On the hands by fomites, and by respiratory routes; Shed in respiratory secretions for days |
question
What are the symptoms of RSV? |
answer
Ranging from common cold to pneumonia RUNNY NOSE Some cases can progress to LRT and cause bronchiolitis in infants; low grade fever, tachypnea, tachycardia and wheezing |
question
What RESPIRATORY virus causes a VERY SERIOUSLY RUNNY RUNNY NOSE? |
answer
RSV |
question
How is RSV diagnosed? |
answer
Rapid tests |
question
How is RSV treated? |
answer
Supportive care, oxygen, IV fluids Ribavirin- can be administered as an inhalant Synagis- Monoclonal Ab against F protein |
Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis
Cell Mediated Immunity
Microbiology
Mycology
Negative Pressure Room
Pharmacology
Southwestern United States
Protozoa – Microbiology Test Questions – Flashcards 63 terms

Ruth Jones
63 terms
Preview
Protozoa – Microbiology Test Questions – Flashcards
question
Pneumocystis carinii ID methods |
answer
PCP test on sputum (formalin) sample, histology stain |
question
Pneumocystis carinii Diagnosis |
answer
fungi characteristics |
question
Pneumocystis carinii special characteristics |
answer
causes fulminant lung infections in AIDS patients, fungi, Sporozoa subclass Coccidia |
question
Isospora belli ID methods |
answer
MAF + with stool sample |
question
Isospora belli diagnosis |
answer
2 sporocysts in oocysts, each sporocyst contains four sporozoites |
question
Isospora belli special characteristics |
answer
: intestinal parasite, nonpathogenic (usually), Sporozoa subclass Coccidia |
question
Microsporidia (Encephalitozoon sp., Enterocytozoon sp., and Microsporidium sp.) ID methods |
answer
PCR to ID, trichrome stain on stool |
question
Microsporidia (Encephalitozoon sp., Enterocytozoon sp., and Microsporidium sp.) diagnosis |
answer
1-2 uM, tiny |
question
Microsporidia (Encephalitozoon sp., Enterocytozoon sp., and Microsporidium sp.) special characteristics |
answer
can infect tissue, Sporozoa subclass Coccidia |
question
Cryptosporidium parvum ID Methods |
answer
MAF+, EIA (with Giardia) |
question
Cryptosporidium parvum diagnosis |
answer
4 sporozoites free |
question
Cryptosporidium parvum special characteristics |
answer
AIDs, Sporozoa subclass Coccidia |
question
Giardia lamblia ID Methods |
answer
trichrome stain, Rapid EIA (with crypto) |
question
Giardia lamblia diagnosis |
answer
cyst: 4 nuclei without flagella, dominant and protective stage troph: looks like eyes with 4 flagella, 2 nuclei, and trophs are larger they are reproducing and feeding (active), nucleus contains karisome |
question
Giardia lamblia special characteristics |
answer
fatty diarrhea, suction disk that adheres to intestine and blocks absorption, transmitted via F/O route by contaminated water, 1 of the most common intestinal parasite, flagella |
question
Trichomonas vaginalis ID methods |
answer
urethra swab, urine, vaginal swab for wet prep |
question
Trichomonas vaginalis diagnosis |
answer
no cyst stage, nucleus undulating membrane, flagella and motile |
question
Trichomonas vaginalis special characteristics |
answer
can be seen in urine, STD, flagella |
question
Balantidium Coli ID methods |
answer
concentrated wet prep with iodine, not seen on trichrome |
question
Balantidium Coli diagnosis |
answer
cyst, cilia and macronucleus on troph |
question
Balantidium Coli special characteristics |
answer
normal flora can be pathogenic and cause dysentery, cyst from contaminated water, ciliate |
question
Entamoeba histolytica ID methods |
answer
trichrome smear from stool, PVA tube |
question
Entamoeba histolytica diagnosis |
answer
trophozoite with ingested rbcs, pseudopods for motility, 15-20 uM, beaded chromatin, 1-4 nuclei in cyst, vacuole, and chromatid bodies |
question
Entamoeba histolytica special characteristics |
answer
pathogenic can cause bloody diarrhea, intestinal amoeba |
question
Entamoeba hartmanii ID methods |
answer
trichrome stain |
question
Entamoeba hartmanii diagnosis |
answer
no rbcs, smaller 8-10 uM, 1 nucleus, solid dense chromatin |
question
Entamoeba hartmanii special characteristics |
answer
nonpathogenic, intestinal amoeba |
question
Entamoeba coli ID methods |
answer
trichrome |
question
Entamoeba coli diagnosis |
answer
bigger 20-25 uM, 1 nucleus in troph, 1-8 nuclei in cyst, karisome is off to the side, karisome is inside nucleus, condensed chromatin |
question
Entamoeba coli special characteristics |
answer
nonpathogenic, intestinal amoeba |
question
Endolimax nana ID methods |
answer
trichrome |
question
Endolimax nana diagnosis |
answer
cysts are larger than trophs; trophs are 6-12 uM and has 1 nucleus, 1-4 nuclei in cysts, karisome clumped and irregular, no chromatin, fine cytoplasm |
question
Endolimax nana special characteristics |
answer
intestinal amoeba |
question
Iodamoeba butschlii ID methods |
answer
Trichrome, direct with iodine |
question
Iodamoeba butschlii diagnosis |
answer
: large glycogen vacuole (stains with iodine), 8-10uM, vacuole pushed nucleus to the side, 1 nucleus in both cyst and troph, no chromatin |
question
Iodamoeba butschlii special characteristics |
answer
vacuole stains with iodine, intestinal amoeba |
question
Blastocystis hominis ID methods |
answer
trichrome |
question
Blastocystis hominis diagnosis |
answer
large vacuole is the central body pushed nucleus to periphery, 6-40uM variation in size, 4 nuclei in cyst |
question
Blastocystis hominis special characteristics |
answer
vacuole is 90% of organism, variation in size, intestinal amoeba |
question
Acanthamoeba spp ID methods |
answer
: grow in culture (?), eye scraping, wet prep with LM |
question
Acanthamoeba spp diagnosis |
answer
brain abscess |
question
Acanthamoeba spp special characteristics |
answer
infect contacts cleaned in water (not solution), keratitis, tissue amoeba |
question
[image] |
answer
Acanthomba in brain tissue |
question
[image] |
answer
Acanthoamoba in corneal scrapping |
question
[image] |
answer
Balantidium Coli |
question
[image] |
answer
B. coli troph |
question
[image] |
answer
Blastocystis hominis |
question
[image] |
answer
Crytospordium paruvum |
question
[image] |
answer
E. nana |
question
[image] |
answer
E. hartmarni |
question
[image] |
answer
E. histolytica cyst |
question
[image] |
answer
E. histolytica troph |
question
[image] |
answer
G. lamblia cyst |
question
[image] |
answer
G. Lamblia trichrome |
question
[image] |
answer
G. lamblia troph |
question
[image] |
answer
Iodamoeba butshlii iodine |
question
[image] |
answer
iodamoeba butshlii trichrome |
question
[image] |
answer
isopora belli |
question
[image] |
answer
Microsporidia |
question
[image] |
answer
Naegleria fowleri |
question
[image] |
answer
Pneumocystitis carinii |
question
[image] |
answer
Trichomonas vaginalis troph |
question
[image] |
answer
Trichomonas vaginalis wet mount |
Cell Mediated Immunity
Medicine
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
WEX 3B – Microbiology – Flashcards 97 terms

Keisha White
97 terms
Preview
WEX 3B – Microbiology – Flashcards
question
Why is it necessary for RBs to reorganize into EBs before they are released from the host cell? |
answer
EBs are the extracellular form; RBs will not survive outside the host cell |
question
How do we culture for Chlamydia trachomatis? |
answer
Centrifugation enhances endocytosis into monolayer of cells, usually mouse fibroblasts (McCoy cells) then incubate 48-72 hrs at 35*C |
question
What is the life cycle of the genus Chlamydia? |
answer
1) Within 8 hrs of endocytosis, EB converts to RB 2) RB reproduces by binary fission 3) 18-24 hrs, RB reorganize to EB 4) Cycle complete 24-40 hrs after endocytosis |
question
What species of Chlamydia is zoonosis that causes cold or flu like upper respiratory illness? |
answer
Chlamydia psittaci |
question
What species of Chlamydia causes diseases of the eye and most frequent STD? |
answer
Chlamydia trachomatis |
question
What species of Chlamydia is an etiologic agent of walking pneumonia and brochitis? |
answer
Chlamydia pneumoniae |
question
What are 3 specimen sources for laboratory testing for Chlamydia? |
answer
1. Ocular and genital tract 2. Bubo pus (LGV) 3. Sputum and throat washings |
question
What are 4 detection methods for Chlamydia? |
answer
1. Fluorescent Antibody Technique (FA) 2. Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA) 3. Nucleic Acid Amplification 4. Nucleic Acid Probes |
question
What is the purpose of darkfield microscopy? |
answer
To permit observation of live, moving spirochetes that are unstained |
question
What are some of the general characteristics of the Genus Borrelia? |
answer
1. Loosely coiled spirochete 2. Gram-negative type cell wall 3. Wright's or Giemsa stain 4. Not easily or reliably cultured |
question
What does Borrelia recurrentis cause and how is it transmitted? |
answer
Causes epidemic louse-borne relapsing fever in humans, transmitted by lice from a smashed or scratched contaminate into the bite site |
question
What does Borrelia spp. causes and how is it transmitted? |
answer
Causes endemic tick-borne relapsing fever in humans transmitted by various species of soft-shelled ticks of the Genus Ornithodoros |
question
Describe the lesion that is seen in the initial phase of Lyme disease. |
answer
Skin lesion is called erythema chronicum migrans, a flat reddened area near the bite site that slowly expands with central clearing |
question
What are some of the general characteristics of the genus Leptospira? |
answer
1. Tightly coiled, thin, flexible spirochete 2. Resembles a "Shepherd's hook" 3. Gram-negative type of cell wall 4. Cultivated in protein-rich, semi-solid media (below surface of medium) 5. Primarily associated with occupational exposure |
question
Briefly describe the epidemiology for leptospirosis. |
answer
Organism carried by rodents in their urine, spread by direct exposure to infected animal urine or contaminated soil or water |
question
Briefly describe the mode of infection for leptospirosis. |
answer
Ingestion of contaminated water or food or through mucous membranes of the eye, mouth, genitals, or through abraded skin |
question
How can Leptospira biflexa be differentiated from other Leptospira spp? |
answer
Leptospira biflexa's ability to grow at 13*C |
question
What are some of the general characteristics of the Genus Treponema? |
answer
1. Moderately tightly coiled 2. Gram-negative type cell 3. Not culturable on laboratory media |
question
Give a brief description of the medical importance and epidemiology of Treponema pertenue. |
answer
Medical importance - infectious tropical skin disease Epidemiology - non-venereal disease transmitted by direct contact |
question
Give a brief description of the medical importance and epidemiology of Treponema carateum. |
answer
Medical importance - contagious skin disease prevalent in tropical America Epidemiology - non-venereal infection transmitted by direct contact |
question
What are the modes of infection for syphilis? |
answer
Acquired - contact with chancre or lesion Congenital - infant is born with the disease (can cross the placenta) |
question
What are the clinical features for the primary stage of syphilus? |
answer
1. Chancre (usually heals spontaneously) 2. Enlarged lymph glands |
question
What is the method of diagnosis of syphilis during the primary stage? |
answer
1. Darkfield microscopic examination 2. Serological test (about 80% of untreated cases) |
question
What are the clinical features for the secondary stage of syphilis? |
answer
1. Secondary mucocutaneous rash 2. Fever 3. Malaise (feeling ill) 4. Alopecia (hair falls out) |
question
What are the methods of diagnosis during the secondary stage of syphilis? |
answer
1. Clinical features 2. Examination of rash scrapings 3. Serological tests |
question
What are the clinical features for the latent stage of syphilis? |
answer
NONE |
question
What are the methods of diagnosis during the latent stage of syphilis? |
answer
NONE |
question
What is the clinical significance of syphilis testing? |
answer
1. Control of venereal disease 2. Prevention or detection of congenital syphilis 3. Routine screening 4. Treatment will reduce non-treponemal test titers |
question
What are the contents of the "antigen ampoule" of the RPR test and what purpose do they serve? |
answer
1. Cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol (CLC) complex (antigen) 2. Charcoal carbon particles (indicator) 3. Choline chloride (deactivation of complement that may interfere with test) |
question
What kind of needle is used to dispense the antigen in the RPR test and how many drops should it be calibrated to deliver? |
answer
Blunt 20-gauge needle calibrated to deliver 60 drops of antigen per mL |
question
The rotator should be calibrated to how many rpms for the RPR test? |
answer
100 rpms |
question
How are both the specimen and antigen dispensed onto the 18 mm circle when performing the RPR test? |
answer
One "free falling" drop |
question
How long should the test card of an RPR test rotate? |
answer
8 mins (at 100 rpm) |
question
True/False? The RPR test is a "non-specific" or "non-treponemal" test used to detect the presence of reagin in a patient's serum or plasma. |
answer
True |
question
True/False? Results for the RPR test are reported as either positive or negative. |
answer
False. RPR test results are reported as either Reactive or Non-reactive |
question
True/False? The Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test (FTA-ABS) is a "specific" or "treponemal" test used to confirm a reactive RPR test. |
answer
True |
question
What is the definition of "antigen"? |
answer
A "foreign" substance that induces an immune response and reacts with antibodies or T-cell receptors. |
question
What is Indirect FA used for? |
answer
To detect the presence of a specific antibody to serum following exposure to a microorganism. |
question
ELISA concept is similar to FA, but uses an ____________ instead of a fluorochrome. |
answer
enzyme utilizing substrate |
question
Give one example of a membrane-bound EIA. |
answer
Home pregnancy tests |
question
True/False? Thermus aquaticus is heat labile. |
answer
False. Thermus aquaticus' Taq polymerase's optimal temperature is 72*C but can be stable at 94*C |
question
C-reactive protein is aptly named because it reacts with the C-polysaccharide of what bacteria? |
answer
Streptococcus pneumoniae |
question
In antigen-antibody testing, a __________________ test results when a cloudy line of reacted material appears in the area of the agar where an optimal ratio of antigen to antibody exists. |
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Precipitin ring |
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The counter-immune electrophoresis, precipitin ring, and Ouchterlony diffusion tests are examples of antigen-antibody technology that use _____________________ reactions. |
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Precipitation |
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This test detects antibodies against relatively large cellular antigens. |
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Direct agglutination |
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This test detects antibodies against soluble antigens adsorbed onto large particles such as RBCs or latex beads. |
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Indirect agglutination |
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These reactions are Antigen-Antibody reactions in which harmful effects of baterial toxins or a virus are blocked by specific antibodies found in the patient's serum. |
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Neutralization reactions |
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These are fluorescent dyes that are attached to specific antibodies for detection. |
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Fluorescent antibody. |
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Name 2 fluorochromes used to label antibody for fluorescent microscopy. |
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1. Auramine 2. Rhodamine |
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Name 2 fluorochromes that are not antibody related and explain how they produce the fluorescence needed for fluorescent microscopy. |
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1. Acridine orange - binds directly to nucleic acid 2. Calcofluor white - binds to the polysaccaride in the fungal cell wall |
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In _________________ FA testing the antibody is supplied by the patient serum |
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Indirect |
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In _________________ FA testing the antibody to the antigen is tagged with a fluorochrome. |
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Direct |
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In _________________ FA testing the fluorochrome is labeled to a specific antiserum. |
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Indirect |
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What is the principle of the ELISA test? |
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An automated spectrophotometer reads the color change in the reaction which results from the enzyme utilizing substrate |
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How is color developed in the ELISA test? |
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By the reaction which results from the enzyme utilizing substrate |
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In direct ELISA testing, the microtiter plate suppplied by the test kit has the ___________ adsorbed to the wells. |
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antibodies |
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In direct ELISA testing, the conjugate contains what two essential parts? |
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1. Enzyme 2. Antibody |
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In indirect ELISA testing, the microtiter plate supplied by the test kit has the ___________________ adsorbed to the wells. |
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antigen |
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The first step in DNA replication is to temporarily ___________ the double strand forming two moving fork replication sites. |
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unzips |
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___________________ molecules move along each fork formed in the second step of DNA replication adding complimentary bases. |
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Polymerase |
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Define Denaturation. |
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The process of disrupting the double helix to yield two molecules of single stranded DNA. |
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Define Annealing. |
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Lowering the temperature slowly allows the strands (of DNA) to reassociate into the double helix with the proper base pairing |
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Define Hybridization. |
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Annealing two strands derived from different types of sources. |
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The principle behind ______________ is to use known fragments of DNA to detect complimentary sequences of DNA in an unknown specimen. |
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Nucleic Acid Probes |
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What is the temperature used to denature? |
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94*C |
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What is the temperature used to anneal? |
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50*C |
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What is the temperature used to extend? |
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72*C |
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What is the template/target for the probes or primers related to polymerase chain reaction technology? |
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Specimen DNA |
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What reapeatedly heats and cools the sample in polymerase chain reaction technology? |
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Thermocycler |
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What extends specific primers into a complementary strand of DNA in polymerase chain reaction technology? |
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Thermus aquaticus polymerase |
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True/False? C-reactive protein is a non-specific antigen-like substance supplied by test kits that use latex agglutination testing to detect the presence of IgG immunoglobulins produced by the patient during an inflammatory response. |
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False. It detects C-Reactive Protein, an amino acid composition similar to that of IgG |
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What are 3 general shapes of animal viruses? |
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1. Helical - rod-like 2. Icosahedral - ball-like 3. Complex |
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Why are viruses considered to be "obligate intracellular parasites"? |
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Viruses replicate only in living cells and cannot replicate outside of a host cell. The host cell must provide the energy, synthetic machinery, precursors, enzymes, and ribosomes for the synthesis of viral protiens and nucleic acids |
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What is the correct sequence of steps in the virus lytic replication cycle? |
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1. Attachment 2. Penetration and Uncoating 3. Eclipse or Synthesis Phase 4. Assembly/maturation 5. Release |
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What is the correct sequence of steps in the virus lysogenic cycle? |
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1. Viral DNA is incorporated into the host DNA immediately upon entering the cell 2. Genes coded by the prophage are transcribed and replicated as if they were normal host DNA 3. Upon certain stimuli, the prophage/provirus is removed from the host DNA |
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What are the characteristics of the acute phase of a virus infection? |
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1. Virus is detectable 2. IgM may be detectable 3. IgG is usually not detectable |
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What are the visual effects or abnormalities seen in cells that are infected by a virus (Cytopathic effects)? |
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1. Inclusion body 2. Giant cells |
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How many days after onset of symptoms should serum samples for acute and convalescent phases be collected? |
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Acute - 7 days after onset of symptoms Convalescent - 14-30 days after onset of symptoms |
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How long may a serum specimen for virology testing be stored at 4*C - 6*C? |
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Up to several weeks |
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True/False? Virus specimens for virus isolation and growth are usually processed and inoculated onto cell cultures |
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True |
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Which hepatitis viruses are transmitted fecal-oral? |
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Hepatitis A virus |
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Which herpes family member causes recurring oral or genital lesions? |
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Herpes simplex viruses 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2) |
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Which herpes family member causes chicken pox and herpes zoster? |
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Varicella zoster virus (VZV) |
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Which respiratory virus causes a disease in infants and young children and requires isolation of the patient? |
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Paramyxoviridae family, genus pneumovirus |
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What virus family are Influenza viruses type A, B and C members of? |
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Orthomyxoviridae |
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Which respiratory virus has caused outbreaks of Adult Respiratory Disease in military recruits? |
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Adenoviridae family, genus Mastadenovirus |
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What type of immune cells does HIV infect? |
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CD4 (T-Cell) lymphocyte |
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Although the Picornaviruses are best known for mild diseases such as the common cold, what is the most serious disease a member may cause? |
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Poliomyelitis |
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Which family includes the virus which causes rabies? |
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Rhabdoviridae |
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Are live virus vaccines "attenuated" or "inactivated" viruses? |
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Attenuated |
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What aspect of viral growth do most of the currently prescribed antiviral drugs affect? |
answer
Inhibits viral activities within the host cells, but with minimal harmful side effects to the host. |
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What direct preparation is used a CSF specimen? |
answer
India Ink |
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What are the three macroscopic morphologies used mold culture? |
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Texture, Color and Reverse |
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What is the causative agent of Black piedra? |
answer
Piedraia hortae |
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Which thermally dimorphic fungal pathogens causes "rose handlers' disease"? |
answer
Sporothrix schenckii |
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Name the three genera causin chromoblastomycosis. |
answer
Phialophora, Cladosporium, Fonsecaea |
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Blastomyces dermatitidis is the etiological agent of what disease process? |
answer
North American Blastomycosis |