Microbiology exam questions Essay

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1. Components of the first line of defense include all the following except
A. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.
B. nasal hairs.
C. flushing action of tears and blinking.
D. flushing action of urine.
E. phagocytic white blood cells.
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E. phagocytic white blood cells.
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2. The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
A. skin.
B. respiratory tract.
C. digestive tract.
D. urinary tract.
E. eyes.
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B. respiratory tract.
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3. The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
A. basophils.
B. eosinophils.
C. neutrophils.
D. monocytes.
E. lymphocytes.
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B. eosinophils.
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4. Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?
A. Inflammatory response
B. Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils
C. Interferon
D. T cell and B cell responses
E. Anatomical barriers in the body
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D. T cell and B cell responses
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5. Due to the way the lymph drains from lymph nodes, cell and products of immunity continually
A. enter the regular circulatory system.
B. enter the liver.
C. enter the gastrointestinal tract.
D. enter the gall bladder.
E. enter the thymus gland.
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A. enter the regular circulatory system.
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6. The key phagocytic cells of the body are the
A. neutrophils and macrophages.
B. basophils and neutrophils.
C. eosinophils and macrophages.
D. macrophages and monocytes.
E. natural killer cells.
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A. neutrophils and macrophages.
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7. The contribution of B cells is mainly in
A. inflammation.
B. humoral immunity.
C. complement activity.
D. cell mediated immunity.
E. phagocytosis.
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B. humoral immunity.
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8. Helper T cells
A. secrete antibodies.
B. function in allergic reactions.
C. directly destroy target cells.
D. suppress immune reactions.
E. activate B cells and other T cells.
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E. activate B cells and other T cells.
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9. Lymphocytes
A. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
B. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. C. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
D. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity.
E. All of the choices are correct.
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ALL
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10. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an
A. epitope.
B. hapten.
C. antigen binding site.
D. variable region.
E. None of the choices are correct.
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A. epitope.
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11. Superantigens are
A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
D. those that evoke allergic reactions.
E. None of the choices are correct.
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C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
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12. Antigen presenting cells
A. include dendritic cells.
B. include macrophages.
C. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
D. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
E. All of the choices are correct.
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ALL
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13. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
A. Neutralization
B. Opsonization
C. Complement fixation
D. Agglutination
E. Anamnestic response
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B. Opsonization
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14. Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can’t remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive immediately?
A. Natural active immunity B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial active immunity
E. None of the choices will help him.
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B or D
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15. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except
A. they require smaller doses.
B. they require fewer boosters.
C. they confer longer lasting protection.
D. they can be transmitted to other people.
E. they produce infection but not disease.
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D. they can be transmitted to other people.
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1. The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora A. before birth, in utero. B. during, and immediately after birth. C. when a child first goes to school. D. when an infant gets its first infectious disease. E. during puberty.
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b
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2. The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several other vitamins is the A. skin. B. mouth. C. large intestine. D. vagina. E. nasal passages.
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c
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3. Exotoxins are A. proteins. B. only released after a cell is damaged or lysed. C. antiphagocytic factors. D. secretions that always target nervous tissue. E. lipopolysaccharides.
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b
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4. The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is A. prodromal stage. B. convalescent stage. C. incubation period. D. period of invasion. E. All of the choices are correct.
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d
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5. The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is A. pathology. B. clinical microbiology. C. medicine. D. immunology. E. epidemiology.
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e
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6. A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is A. epidemic. B. endemic. C. pandemic. D. sporadic. E. chronic.
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b
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7. The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source.
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d
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8. An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source.
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C
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9. Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens? A. urogenital B. gastrointestinal C. respiratory D. skin E. They are all equally used as portals.
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c
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10. If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent? A. Neisseria gonorrhea B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. They are equally virulent. D. It is impossible to determine.
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b
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What are the 4 stages of an infection?
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Incubation period
Prodromal stage
Period of invasion
Convalescent Period
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What are several different ways diseases can be spread?
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Direct Contact (Droplet)
Indirect (Waterborne, airborne, fomite)
Vector (arthropods)
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What are some different causes of EID’s?
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New microbes interacting with humans
new resevoir encountered
New strains of old microbes
–drug resistant strains
–old disease in new population
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Why are nosocomial diseases often more pathogenic than normal for a microbe?
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nosocomial diseases affect immunocompromised hosts. because the defenses are low, the impact is great.
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Briefly explain how a microbe causes a disease
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A. Portal of entry (Skin)
B. Invasion
C. Penetration or evasion of host defenses (capsules and antigenic variations)
D. Damage to host cells (toxins /endo and exotoxins)
Portals of exit (generally same as entry)
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What are the 4 types of adaptive immunity
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Active
Passive
Natural
Artificial
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What are the 5 different classes of immunoglobins and what is the function of each type?
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IgG – Long term immunity; memory antibodies
IgA – Secretory antibody’ on mucous membranes
IgM- produced at first response to antigen; can serve as B cell receptor
IgD- Receptor on b-Cells for antigen recognition
IgE- Antibody of allergy; worm infections
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What are the 5 types of antibody-antigen interactions
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1. Opsonization
2. Agglunation
3. Neutralization
4. Activation of complement
5. Precipitation
6. Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity.
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What are the three types of interferons and what is their function in general?
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Alpha, Beta, Gamma.

Defenses against microbes & viruses, involved in immune regulation and intercommunication

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