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Microbiology chapter 14 HW, Concepts, Terms (Study Mode) – Flashcards 98 terms
98 terms
Preview
Microbiology chapter 14 HW, Concepts, Terms (Study Mode) – Flashcards
question
In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction? a. mutualism b. parasitism c. commensalism d. pathogenesis
answer
a. mutualism
question
An axenic environment is on that a. exists in the human mouth b. contains only one species c. exists in the human colon d. both a and c
answer
b. contains only one species
question
Which of the following is false concerning microbial contaminants? a. Contaminants may become opportunistic pathogens b. Most microbial contaminants will eventually cause harm c. contaminants may be part of the transient microbiota d. contaminants may be introduced by a mosquito bite
answer
b. most microbial contaminants will eventually cause harm
question
The most frequent portal of entry for pathogens is a. the respiratory tract b. the skin c. the conjunctiva d. a cut or wound
answer
a. the respiratory tract
question
The process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells is a. infection b. contamination c. disease d. adhesion
answer
d. adhesion
question
Which of the following are most likely to cause disease? a. opportunistic pathogens in a weakened host b. pathogens lacking the enzyme kinase c. pathogens lacking the enzyme collagenase d. highly virulent organisms
answer
d. highly virulent organisms
question
The nature of bacterial capsules a. causes widespread blood clotting b. allows phagocytes to readily engulf these bacteria c. affects the virulence of these bacteria d. has no effect on the virulence of bacteria
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c. affects the virulence of these bacteria
question
When pathogenic bacterial cells lose the ability to make adhesions, they typically a. become avirulent b. produce endotoxin c. absorb endotoxin d. increase in virulence
answer
a. become avirulent
question
A disease in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active is termed a(n) a. sub acute disease b. acute disease c. chronic disease d. latent disease
answer
d. latent disease
question
Which of the following statements is the best definition of a pandemic disease? a. it normally occurs in given geographic area b. it is a disease that occurs more frequently than usual for a geographical area or group of people c. it occurs infrequently at no predictable time scattered over a large area or population d. it is an epidemic that occurs more than one continent at the same time
answer
d. It is an epidemic that occurs on more than once continent at the same time.
question
Which of the following types of epidemiologists is more like a detective? a. a descriptive epidemiologist b. an analytical epidemiologist c. an experimental epidemiologist d. a reserve epidemiologist
answer
an analytical epidemiologist
question
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases? a. incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence b. incubation, decline, prodromal period, illness, convalescence c. prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline, convalescence d. convalescence, prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline
answer
a. incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
question
Consider the following case. An animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector? a. animal b. virus c. mosquito d. person
answer
c. mosquito
question
A patient contracted athlete's foot after long-term use of a medication. His physician explained that the malady was directly related to the medication. Such infections are termed a. nosocomial infections b. exogenous infections c. iatrogenic infections d. endogenous infections
answer
d. endogenous infections
question
Which of the following phrases described a contagious disease? a. a disease arising from fomites b. a disease that is easily passed from host to host in aerosols c. a disease that arises from opportunistic, normal microbiota d. both a and b
answer
b. a disease that is easily passed from host to host in aerosols
question
A microbe that causes disease is called __________
answer
pathogen
question
Infections that may go unnoticed due to the absence of symptoms are called __________ infections.
answer
asymptomatic or subclinical
question
The study of the cause of disease is __________
answer
etiology
question
The study of where and when diseases occur and how they are transmitted within populations is __________
answer
epidemiology
question
Diseases that are naturally spread from their usual animal hosts to humans are called __________
answer
zoonoses
question
Nonliving reservoirs of disease, such as a toothbrush, drinking glass and needle, are called __________
answer
fomites
question
__________ infections are those acquired by patients or staff while in health care facilities.
answer
nosocomial
question
The total number of cases of a disease in a given area is its __________.
answer
prevalence
question
An animal that carries a pathogen and also serves as host for the pathogen is a __________ vector.
answer
biological
question
Endotoxin, also known as __________, is part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.
answer
lipid-A
question
What are the three types of symbiotic relationships?
answer
Mutualism, Commensalism, and Parasitism
question
Mutualism
answer
type of symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit from the relationship Example: Trichonympha (protozoan) in Termite intestines; and Vitamin-synthesizing bacteria in the human colon
question
Commensalism
answer
type of symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits from the relationship and the other neither benefits nor is harmed Example: Staphylococcus epidermidis
question
Parasitism
answer
type of symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits from the relationship (parasite) and the other is harmed (host). Example: Pathogenic organisms in the body
question
Three Conditions that provide opportunities for Pathogens.
answer
Immune Suppression, Reduction in Microbial Antagonism, and introduction of Normal Microbiota into an unusual site in the body
question
What are the three major types of portals of entry into the body?
answer
skin, mucous membranes, placenta a fourth is when the 3 are circumvented and entry is gained directly into the tissue by puncture or surgery.
question
List the four steps of Koch's postulates:
answer
1) Pathogen is found in every case of the disease 2) Pathogen can be isolated and grown in pure culture 3) Introduction of culture into a new host causes the same disease 4) Original pathogen is re-isolated from the new host
question
List the 4 exceptions to Koch's Postulates
answer
1.Some pathogens have NEVER been grown on artificial media 2.Some disease conditions(pneumonia, meningitis) have more than one pathogens that cause it 3.Some pathogens can cause more than one disease Ex: Staphylococcus. aureus Strp. pyogens mycobacterium tuberculosis
question
stages of infectious diseases 1.incubation period 2.prodromal period 3.period of illness 4.period of decline 5.period of convalescence
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1 incubation: time between infection, signs and symptoms 2 prodromal: mild symptoms 3 Illness: Severe symptoms 4 Decline: normal signs and symptoms 5 Convalescence: returns to its predeceased state healing
question
What are the 3 modes of infectious disease transmission?
answer
1) Contact transmission - direct, formite, droplet 2) Vehicle Transmission - airborne, waterborne, fecal oral, foodborne, bodily fluids 3) Vector Transmission - Biological, Mechanical
question
describe the parenteral route of infection
answer
Punctures, injections, bites, cuts, wounds, surgery, and splitting due to swelling or drying can all establish parenteral routes. (Blood, biting arthropods, needles/syringes)
question
Define transient microbiota Define Resident (Normal) Microbiota
answer
microorganisms that may be present for several days, weeks, or months and then disappear (contaminants) resident microbes (normal flora) those microbes normally found in or on the human body, and which under normal conditions do not cause infection or disease
question
Define infection Define Morbidity
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the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic MO the incidence of specific notifiable diseases
question
Iatrogenic infections Healthcare Associated Diseases (HAIs)
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induced by treatment or medical procedures acquired by a healthcare environment
question
The growth of Staphylococcus aureus on human skin is an example of _____. commensalism antagonism mutualism parasitism
answer
commensalism
question
M protein, produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, is an example of a(n) _____. extracellular enzyme antiphagocytic chemical toxoid antitoxin
answer
antiphagocytic chemical
question
A human might contract a zoonosis from which of the following? A used tissue A dirty plate A cat A medical procedure
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A cat
question
A Gram-negative infection could be more serious due to the presence of which of the following in the Gram-negative cell wall? Teichoic acid Exotoxin Phospholipids Endotoxin
answer
endotoxin. (Lipid A, also known as endotoxin, is the most dangerous part of the Gram-negative bacterial cell wall.)
question
Biological vectors of diseases affecting humans are typically which of the following? Biting arthropods Food crops Livestock Household pets
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biting arthropods. (Biting arthropods such as fleas, ticks, and mosquitoes are the primary biological vectors of diseases affecting humans.)
question
In the zoonoses infection of Hantavirus, which causes Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS), which of the following is the animal reservoir? Deer Deer mice Dogs Monkeys
answer
Deer mice
question
The genus Clostridium is associated with which of the following diseases? Botulism and tetanus Leprosy and tuberculosis Tetanus and anthrax Gonorrhea and leprosy
answer
Botulism and tetanus
question
Which of the following is regarded as a part of the body's normal microbiota? Bacillus anthracis Mycobacterium tuberculosis Staphylococcus epidermidis Streptococcus pyogenes
answer
Staphylococcus epidermidis
question
Nosocomial infections can be contracted in which of the following settings? A shopping mall A hospital A school A military base
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A hospital Nosocomial infections are infections acquired by patients or health care workers
question
Pasteurization of milk is designed to kill which of the following? Endospores Pathogenic microbes Parasitic worms All microbes
answer
Pathogenic microbes
question
What is meant by the term normal microbiota? The microbes that grow from an inoculum Naturally occurring pathogens Microbes associated with a certain area of the body Drugs that can be used against most microbial infections
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Microbes associated with a certain area of the body
question
Which of the following would NOT be considered a communicable disease? Tuberculosis Herpes Tetanus Flu
answer
Tetanus
question
Portals of exit are completely different from portals of entry associated only with biological vectors the same as portals of entry essentially the same as portals of entry
answer
the same as portals of entry
question
John Snow contributed which of the following ideas to the science of microbiology? The study of the occurrence and spread of diseases in human populations The use of chemical substances to control microbial infections The study of the chemical reactions occurring in cells The use of special stains to help identify bacterial cells
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The study of the occurrence and spread of diseases in human populations
question
Etiology is the study of the chemical reactions that occur inside cells the causes of disease the body's defense mechanisms the use of chemicals to cure diseases
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the causes of disease
question
The fact that Neisseria gonorrhoeae produces fimbriae means that one would expect this bacterium to __________. attach to body cells or tissues exhibit chemotaxis kill cells and tissues invade immune cells
answer
attach to body cells or tissues
question
The term __________ refers to the mere presence of microbes in the body. aseptic contamination infection sterilization
answer
contamination
question
The competition for space and nutrients that occurs between different populations of microbes is known as __________. selective toxicity resistance microbial antagonism synergism
answer
microbial antagonism
question
The capsule of a bacterial cell __________. provides it with nutrients protects it from destruction by the immune system enhances its binary fission allows it to move from one place to another
answer
protects it from destruction by the immune system
question
Why are Koch's postulates an important aspect of the germ theory of disease? They show how a disease can be transmitted from one individual to another. They are a way to demonstrate how an infection can be cured. They can be used to prove that a particular microbe causes a disease. They are a way to quickly isolate bacteria
answer
They can be used to prove that a particular microbe causes a disease. (Koch's postulates provided significant support for the germ theory of disease because they were the first means of demonstrating the pathogenic nature of a bacterial isolate.)
question
Which portal of entry is associated with premature births Placenta Skin Mucous membrane Parenteral
answer
Placenta
question
All of the following encourage the development of opportunistic pathogens except __________. immune suppression in the host invasion of an unusual body site by the normal microbiot exposure to a nonliving reservoir changes in the host's normal microbiota
answer
exposure to a nonliving reservoir
question
The growth of Staphylococcus aureus on human skin is an example of commensalism parasitism mutualism antagonism
answer
commensalism
question
A(n) __________ disease is one present at birth. hereditary immunological congenital endocrine
answer
congenital
question
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a pathogen? A parasite that kills its host A microbe that causes disease in humans A parasite that causes disease A virus that harms its host
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A parasite that causes disease
question
Which of the following is associated with vector transmission? Houseflies Droplet nuclei Fomites Kissing
answer
Houseflies
question
Which of the following affects the function of cells lining the gastrointestinal tract? Endotoxin Coagulase Enterotoxin Staphylokinase
answer
Enterotoxin
question
Which of the following types of bacterial toxins can be produced by BOTH Gram-positive AND Gram-negative bacteria? Both exotoxin and endotoxin Only exotoxin Neither exotoxin nor endotoxin Only endotoxin
answer
Only exotoxin Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, secrete exotoxins that are central to their pathogenicity in that they destroy host cells or interfere with host metabolism.
question
All of the following are examples of non-communicable diseases except influenza acne tooth decay tetanus
answer
influenza
question
Creation of __________ is an important component of airborne-transmitted diseases. adhesions fimbriae biofilms aerosols
answer
aerosols Aerosols may contain pathogens either on dust or inside droplets.
question
A(n) __________ is a group of signs and symptoms that characterize a particular disease. symptom sign syndrome pathogen
answer
syndrome
question
Which of the following might be a source of a zoonosis? Fomites Aerosols Animals Improperly-cooked food
answer
Animals
question
A disease that develops rapidly and lasts a short time is called a(n) __________ disease. subacute acute chronic latent
answer
acute
question
Most of the members of the resident microbiota are classified as commensals pathogens parasites mutualistic
answer
commensals
question
Why do many pathogens prefer the mucous membranes over the skin as a portal of entry? Mucous membranes are generally thinner than the skin. Mucous membranes provide better attachment molecules because they are dry. Mucous membranes are not as contaminated as the skin. Cells of mucous membranes are dead cells.
answer
Mucous membranes are generally thinner than the skin.
question
Another term for an asymptomatic infection is a(n) __________ infection. avirulent chronic acute subclinical
answer
subclinical
question
The number of new cases of a disease in a given population during a given period of time is called __________. incidence virulence prevalence morbidity
answer
incidence
question
Which of the following would be classified as a sign of a disease? chills nausea headache diarrhea
answer
diarrhea
question
Which of the following is the most severe stage of an infectious disease? Incubation period Decline Illness Prodromal period
answer
Illness
question
In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction? Commensalism Pathogenesis Mutualism Parasitism
answer
Mutualism
question
An axenic environment is one that __________. exists in the human colon Both a and c is free from any microbes, contains only one species exists in the human mouth
answer
is free from any microbes * contains only one species
question
When pathogenic bacterial cells lose the ability to make adhesions, they typically __________. become avirulent increase in virulence absorb endotoxin produce endotoxin
answer
become avirulent
question
An infection caused by surgery or by the use of devices such as catheters is called a(n) __________ infection. exogenous endogenous endemic iatrogenic
answer
iatrogenic
question
The nature of bacterial capsules __________. causes widespread blood clotting allows phagocytes to readily engulf these bacteria has no effect on the virulence of bacteria affects the virulence of these bacteria
answer
affects the virulence of these bacteria
question
Which of the following phrases describes a contagious disease A disease that arises from opportunistic, normal microbiota A disease that is easily passed from host to host in aerosol A disease that is easily passed from host to host in aerosols and a disease arising from fomites A disease arising from fomites
answer
A disease that is easily passed from host to host in aerosol
question
Which of the following are most likely to cause disease Highly virulent organisms Pathogens lacking the enzyme collagenase Opportunistic pathogens in a weakened host Pathogens lacking the enzyme kinase
answer
Highly virulent organisms
question
Which of the following is FALSE concerning microbial contaminants? contaminants may become opportunistic pathogens most microbial contaminants will eventually cause harm contaminants may be a part of the transient microbiota contaminants may be introduced by a mosquito bite
answer
most microbial contaminants will eventually cause harm
question
Koch's postulates are an important part of which of the following? Analytical and descriptive epidemiology Descriptive epidemiology Experimental epidemiology Analytical epidemiology
answer
question
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases? incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence incubation, decline, prodromal period, illness, convalescence prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline, convalescence convalescence, prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline
answer
incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
question
Which of the following statements is the best definition of a pandemic disease? it normally occurs in a given geographic area it is a disease that occurs more frequently than usual for a geographical area or group of people it occurs infrequently at no predictable time scattered over a large area or population it is an epidemic that occurs on more than one continent at the same time
answer
it is an epidemic that occurs on more than one continent at the same time
question
Which of the following is NOT an activity associated with public health agencies in their work to limit disease transmission? Screening of health care workers for latent infections Enforcement of standards in the preservation of foods Monitoring sewage treatment and water supplies Proper inspection of meats
answer
Screening of health care workers for latent infections
question
Which of the following types of epidemiologists is most like a detective? a descriptive epidemiologist an analytical epidemiologist an experimental epidemiologist a reservoir epidemiologist
answer
an analytical epidemiologist
question
Consider the following case. An animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector? Mosquito Animal Person Virus
answer
Mosquito
question
Which of the following virulence factors helps a bacteria establish colonies in a host? Adhesins Lipid A Collagenase Mucinase
answer
Adhesins
question
A disease that occurs more frequently than expected for a given population would be considered __________. pandemic endemic sporadic epidemic
answer
epidemic
question
A disease in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active is termed a(n) __________. chronic disease subacute disease Latent disease acute disease
answer
Latent disease
question
The most frequent portal of entry for pathogens is __________. the respiratory tract the conjunctiva a cut or wound the skin
answer
the respiratory tract
question
The process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells is contamination disease adhesion infection
answer
adhesion
question
A patient contracted athlete's foot after long-term use of a medication. His physician explained that the malady was directly related to the medication. Such infections are termed nosocomial infections exogenous infections iatrogenic infections endogenous infections
answer
endogenous infections
Coughing Up Blood
Gram Negative Bacteria
Sputum – Flashcard 20 terms
20 terms
Preview
Sputum – Flashcard
question
hemoptysis
answer
blood or blood streaked sputum- massive greater than or equal to 300mL- causes; lung cancer, tb, trauma, pulmonary embolism, infection
question
Factors that impair mucociliary transport system
answer
dehydration cigarette smoking high FiO2 general anesthetics parasympatholytics (atropine) impaired cough (weakness,anatomy disorders, neuromuscular disorders)
question
Gross observation of sputum
answer
small = 1/4 cup/day
question
sputum color
answer
clear = (normal) mucoid = ( white/grey - chronic bronchitis) yellow = (pus, infection, large # of WBC) green = ( infection, old retained secretion, gram neg. bacteria, bronchiectasis) brown = (old blood) rust = ( pneumococcal pneumonia) black/grey = ( inhaled coal dust or smoke inhalation) red = (fresh blood, tumor, TB, bleeding, Klebsiella pneumonia) Pink=- Occurs with pulmonary edema
question
sputum consistency
answer
watery thick thin solid/plugs tenacious (sticky)
question
sputum odor
answer
foul = (anaerobic infection) sweet = ( bacterial of psuedomonas)
question
sputum susceptibility testing (sensitivity)
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act of exposing cultured organisms to variety of antimicrobial drugs to find which drugs kill the bacteria. (zones of inhibition)
question
Fetid
answer
foul-smelling; putrid
question
Normal Sputum
answer
CLEAR AND WHITE
question
Abnormal Sputum
answer
changes in the amount, color, and consistency provide info about progression of disease & effectiveness of therapy Mucoid- sputum that is clear and thick Mucopurulent- Containing mucus and pus Purulent-containing pus frothy-foamy Hemoptysis-coughing up blood
question
clear/ translucent
answer
normal if thin
question
white/ gray
answer
asthma, chronic bronchitis
question
yellow
answer
infection- WBC's present
question
green
answer
gram negative bacteria
question
green and foul smelling
answer
pseudomonas
question
brown/ dark red
answer
old blood
question
bright red
answer
new blood
question
pink and frothy
answer
pulmonary edema
question
purulent
answer
thick, colored, sticky, may contain pus cells
question
Mucoid
answer
thick, clear- airway diseases
Gram Negative Bacteria
Gram Negative Cell Walls
Gram Negative Cells
Inhibit Cell Wall Synthesis
Microbiology
Type Iii Secretion System
Microbiology First Aid – Flashcards 61 terms
61 terms
Preview
Microbiology First Aid – Flashcards
question
| Unique to gram positive organisms |
answer
| Lipoteichoic acid and Cell wall |
question
| Unique to gram negative organisms |
answer
| Endotoxin/LPS |
question
| Gram Positve Cocci |
answer
| Streph/Staph |
question
| Gram postive bacillus (rods) |
answer
| Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Bacillus |
question
| Gram positive branching filaments |
answer
| Antinomyces, Nocardia |
question
| No cell wall |
answer
| Mycoplasma |
question
| Gram negative coccus |
answer
| Neisseria |
question
| Gram negative bacillus |
answer
| Enterics, haemophilus, legionella, bordetella, brucella, pasteurella, bartonella, gardernella |
question
| Pleomorphic gram negatives |
answer
| rickettsiae, chlamydiae |
question
| Spiral gram negatives |
answer
| leptospria, borrelia, treponema |
question
| Mycoplasma contain: |
answer
| Sterols with no cell wall |
question
| Mycobacteria contains: |
answer
| Mycolic acid with high lipid content |
question
| What five bugs do not stain well with Gram staining? (These rascals may microscopically lack color) |
answer
| Trepnema, Rickettsia (intracellular), mycobacteria (needs acid fast stain), Mycoplasma (no cell wall), Legionella (intracellular), Chlamydia (intracellular and lacks muramic acid) |
question
| Stain with giemsa |
answer
| Borellia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, Chlamydia |
question
| Stains with PAS |
answer
| Tropheryma whippelii (stains due to glycogen and mps) |
question
| Ziehl-Neelsen |
answer
| Acid fast organisms |
question
| Which organisms are acid fast? |
answer
| Mycobacterium and nocardia (weak) |
question
| Silver stain |
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| Legionella |
question
| Indian Ink |
answer
| Cryptococcus neoformans |
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| H Influenza culture special |
answer
| Chocolate Agar with factors X and V |
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| N. gonorrhoeae culture special |
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| Thayer-Martin agar or VPN (vanco,polymyxin,nystatin) |
question
| Bortella pertussis special culture |
answer
| Bordet-Gengou agar |
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| C. Diptheria cultured on |
answer
| Telluright agar, Loffler's media |
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| M. pneumonia culture on |
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| Eaton's Agar |
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| Legionella culture on |
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| Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cystein and iron |
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| Fungi cultured on |
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| Sabouraud's agar |
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| Obligate Aerobes |
answer
| Nocardia, P.aeruginosa, Myco tb, and bacillus (Nagging pests must breath) |
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| Obligate anaerobes |
answer
| Clostridium, bacteroides, actinomyces Cant breath Air |
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| Obligate intracellular bugs |
answer
| Rickettsia, Chlamydia Stay inside when its Really Cold |
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| Facultative intracellular |
answer
| Salmonella, neisseria, brucella, mycobacterium, listeria, francisella, legionella, yersina pestis Some nasty bugs may live FacultativeLY |
question
| Inactivate EF2 leading to no protein synthesis |
answer
| Corynebacterium diphtheriae (Diptheria toxin) and Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Exotoxin A) |
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| Inactivate 60s ribosome by cleaving rRNA |
answer
| Sigella and Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli |
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| Over activates cAMP leading to Cl- and H20 loss into the gut |
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| LT- Heat Liable toxin of Enterotoxigenic E. Coli |
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| Overactivates cGMP leading to decreased reaborbtion of NACL and H20 in the gut |
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| ST- Heat Stable toxin of enterotoxigenic E. Coli |
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| Yersinia enterocolitica exotoxin |
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| ST-Heat stable Toxin- leads to dysentery |
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| Bacillus anthracis exotoxin leading to black eschar on skin |
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| Edema factor- elevates cAMP |
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| Vibro cholerae exotoxin |
answer
| Over-activates G(stim) protein leading to excessive cAMP production: Cholerae Toxin |
question
| Bortella pertussis toxin |
answer
| overactivates adenylate cyclase by blocking G(inhib) and blocking phagocytosis |
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| Clostridium tetani: Tetanospasmin |
answer
| prevents release of GABA and Glycine |
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| Clostridium botulinum: Botulinum toxin |
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| Blocks the release of Ach at musculoskeletal junction leading to paralysis |
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| Clostridium perfringens: Alpha toxin |
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| degrades tissue and cell membranes |
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| Strep. pyogens: Streptolysin O |
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| Protein degrades cell membrane by introducing holes |
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| Streptococcus pyogens: Exotonin A |
answer
| Brings MHCII and TCR close to increase IFN-gamma and IL-2 leading to shock |
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| S. aureus: TSST1 |
answer
| fever, rash, shock |
question
| Exfoliative toxin |
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| Ritter's Syndrome babies |
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| Enterotoxin of s. aureus |
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| food poisoning |
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| Where do you find endotoxins |
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| Gram negative outer membranes |
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| IL-1 leads to |
answer
| fever |
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| TNF leads to |
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| fever, hemorrhagic tissue necrosis |
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| NO leads to: |
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| hypotension and shock |
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| C3a activation causes |
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| Hypotension and edema |
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| C5a activation |
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| neutrophil chemotaxis |
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| Activation of Hageman factor |
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| DIC |
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| Novobincin Resistant |
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| Staph Saprophyticus |
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| Novobincin Sensitive |
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| Staph Epidermis |
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| Optochin Sensitive |
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| Strep. Pneumoniae |
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| Optochin resistant |
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| Strep. Viridans |
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| Bactracin Resistant |
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| Streph agalactiae |
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| Bactracin Sensititve |
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| Strep. Pyogens |
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| Green Rings on blood agar |
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| Alpha hemolysis (streptococcus pneumoniae and viridans streptococci: both catalase negative) |
question
| Clear hemolysis on blood agar: Beta hemolysis |
answer
| S.Aureus, S. pyogens, S. agalactiae, listeria monocytogenes |
Gram Negative Bacteria
Miscellaneous
Penicillin Binding Proteins
Antibiotics Answers – Flashcards 84 terms
84 terms
Preview
Antibiotics Answers – Flashcards
question
| Streptococcus |
answer
| penicllins except for enterococcus which needs penicillin + aminoglycoside |
question
| S. aureus (not MRSA) |
answer
| nafcillin/oxacillin, cephalosporin, tetracyclines (minocycline), clindamycin, moxifloxacin |
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| MRSA outpatient |
answer
| clindamycin, minocycline, TMP-SMX, (only outpatient when limited to skin and well-drained) |
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| Severe MRSA: nonVISA |
answer
| vancomycin, daptomycin |
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| Severe MRSA: VISA |
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| televancin and linezolid |
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| How does the new cephalosporin, ceftaroline work against MRSA? |
answer
| binds MRSA mecA gene product PBB2a |
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| S. epidermidis |
answer
| oxacillin resistant!!! treat with vancomycin |
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| S. lugdenensis |
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| vancomycin (remove device) |
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| S. Saprophyticus |
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| TMP-SMX and flouroquinolones |
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| B. Cereus |
answer
| nonGI infections=> vancomycin, clindamycin, gentamicin and ciprofloxacin |
question
| Listeri monocytogenes |
answer
| ampicillin and erythromycin |
question
| Corynebacterium diphtheria |
answer
| penicillin or erythromycin |
question
| Nocardia asteroides |
answer
| sulfa drugs; if severe, use amikacin + beta lactams |
question
| Borrelia Burgdorferi |
answer
| Beta lactams, tetracyclines, erythromycin |
question
| Borrelia recurrentis |
answer
| low dose to prevent Jarisch Herxheimmer rxn |
question
| Leptospira interogans |
answer
| doxycycline, penicillin, flouroquinolones |
question
| Ricketsia Ricketsii |
answer
| tetracycline, chloramphenicol, flouroquinolones |
question
| Ricketsia prowazekii |
answer
| tetracycline and chloramphenicol |
question
| Coxiella burnetii |
answer
| tetracycline, tetracycline with rifampin, or TMP-SMX |
question
| Bartonella henselae |
answer
| normal patient= supportive immunocompromised= erythromycin and doxycycline |
question
| Erlichia chafeensis, ehrlichia ewingii and anaplasma phagocytophilum |
answer
| tetracycline or chloramphenicol |
question
| Pasturella multocida |
answer
| beta lactams |
question
| Bacillus anthracis |
answer
| ciprofloxacin or doxycycline (raxibacumab) |
question
| Yersinias Pestis |
answer
| streptomycin and tetracycline |
question
| Franisella tularensis |
answer
| streptomycin or gentamycin |
question
| TB |
answer
| rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol |
question
| TB prophylaxis |
answer
| isoniazid |
question
| Leprosy |
answer
| rifampin, dapsone, clofazimine |
question
| 2nd line leprosy |
answer
| mino, ofloxacin, clarithromycin |
question
| Atypical mycobacterium (how long do you treat?) |
answer
| azithromycin, clarithromycin, cirpo, 8-24 months tx |
question
| Neisseria Gonorrhea |
answer
| cefixime and ceftriazone |
question
| Neisseria Meningitidis |
answer
| rifampin, cipro, parenteral ceftriazone |
question
| H. influenzae prophylaxis |
answer
| rifampn prophylaxis |
question
| B. pertussis |
answer
| erythromycin, tetracycline and chloramphenicol |
question
| V. cholerae |
answer
| supportive (tetracycline might reduce severity/length) |
question
| V. Parahemolyticus |
answer
| rehydration and antibiotics |
question
| V. vulnificans |
answer
| tetracyclines, flouroquinolones |
question
| campylobacter jejuni |
answer
| erythromycin |
question
| helicobacter jejuni |
answer
| amoxicillin, tetracycline, metronidazole, bismuth salts PPI |
question
| legionella |
answer
| macrolides (azithro/clarithro), or flouroquinolones |
question
| Most travelers diarrhea= |
answer
| azithro, cipro, rifaximin |
question
| ETEC tx |
answer
| flouroquinolones, rifaximin, azithromycin, peptobismol |
question
| EHEC tx |
answer
| withhold antibiotics |
question
| EPEC |
answer
| rehydration |
question
| Shigella |
answer
| rehydration, ciprofloxacin, flouroquinolones |
question
| EIEC |
answer
| flouroquinolones, rifaximin, azithromycin, peptobismol |
question
| EAggEC |
answer
| flouroquinolone, firaximin, azithromycin, peptobismol |
question
| Salmonella |
answer
| cirpo for severe cases, peptobismol, |
question
| Typhoid fever |
answer
| cipro, azithro, ceftriaxone |
question
| Ecoli cystitis |
answer
| 3 day antibiotic- TMP, cipro |
question
| How do you treat bacteroides infection? |
answer
| very resistant! (to things like beta lactams, aminoglycosides, erythromycin and tetracycline) |
question
| F. necrophorum |
answer
| beta lactams, metronidazole, clindamycin, 3rd generation cephalosporin |
question
| Tetanus |
answer
| penicillin historically but metronidazole is currently recomended |
question
| Tx for infant botulism |
answer
| babyBIG |
question
| What are the antibiotics that can cause C. Diff psuedomembranous colitis? |
answer
| clinda, quinolones, cephalosporins |
question
| C. diff pseudomembranous colitis |
answer
| metronidazole (vanc if severe) can use probiotics (Sacharomyces boulardii) |
question
| C. perfringens |
answer
| debridement/remove tissue and massive doses of penicillin and BS cephalosporins, hyperbaric O2 chamber (slows bacterial growht, toxin production and oxidizes theta toxin) |
question
| P. aeruginosa |
answer
| extended spectrum beta lactam (piperacillin, ticercillin) + aminoglycoside (tobramycin), p. aeruginosa has a beta lactamase |
question
| How do you treat a patient with a bacterial infection of the cornea? |
answer
| cipro for psuedomonas but not staph; gatifloxacin and moxifloxacin for psuedomonas and staph |
question
| P. aeruginosa if resistant to all conventional treatment= |
answer
| colistin |
question
| Burkholderia pseudomallei |
answer
| extended spectrum beta lactam (pipercillin, ticercillin) + aminoglycoside (tobramycin) |
question
| B. cepacia |
answer
| extended spectrum beta lactam (pipercillin, ticercillin), + aminoglycoside (tobramycin) |
question
| aeromonas hydrophilia |
answer
| treat diarrhea with bactrim, other infections with flouroquinolones |
question
| How do you treat chlamydia strains A-K ocular or genital infections? |
answer
| azithromycin or doxycycline (Erythromycin for pregnant women) |
question
| Lymphogranuloma venereum |
answer
| doxycycline |
question
| Neonatal chylamydia conjunctivitis |
answer
| erythromycin |
question
| Neonatal chlamydia pneumonia |
answer
| erythromycin |
question
| Psitacosis |
answer
| doxycycline, azithromycin and clarithromycin |
question
| Chlamydia Pneumoniae |
answer
| doxycycline, azithromycin and clarithromycin |
question
| Mycoplasma Pneumoniae |
answer
| azithromycin |
question
| M. Hominis |
answer
| resistant to erythromycins so tx with tetracyclines (except resistant to doxy) |
question
| Ureaplasma Urealiticum |
answer
| macrolides and tetracycline |
question
| M. genitalium |
answer
| azithromycin 5 day regimen |
question
| resistant M genitalium |
answer
| moxifloxacin |
question
| How do you treat syphilis? |
answer
| penicillin (tetracycline if allergy) |
question
| Gonoccocus tx (from clinical lecture) |
answer
| 400mg oral X 1 dose cefixime or 125 mg IM X 1 dose of deeftriazone, + 1 g oral 1 dose azithromycin |
question
| NGU treatment |
answer
| either azithromycin 1 gram oral dose once or doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily x 7 days |
question
| How do you treat muccopurulent cervicitis? |
answer
| azithromycin and cefixime |
question
| PID |
answer
| ceftriazone 250 mg IM x 1 dose or another 3rd generation cephalosporin+ doxycycline 100 mg 2 x a day x 14 days +/- metronidazole 500 mg 2 x a day x 14 days |
question
| Bacterial vaginosis |
answer
| metronidazole 500mg orally 2 x a day x 1 week OR clindamycin cream vaginally or metronidazole gel |
question
| Yeast vaginitis |
answer
| topical antifungals or fluconazole 150 mg orally x 1 dose |
question
| Trichomonas vaginalis |
answer
| 2 gram single dose of metronidazole or tinidazole |
question
| Chancroid |
answer
| azithromycin and ceftriazone |
question
| Syphilis tx (with units) |
answer
| benzathine penicillin 2.4 million units IM x 1 dose if allergic, doxycycline 100mg 2x a day x 14 days |
Gram Negative Bacteria
Microbiology
Bacteriology – Flashcards 113 terms
113 terms
Preview
Bacteriology – Flashcards
question
| Phenolic compounds |
answer
| affect lipid-rich plasma membranes, so the cell leaks its contents (especially useful against mycobacteria) |
question
| Phenol coefficient |
answer
| ratio of antimicrobial activity compared to pure phenol. smaller means more active |
question
| alcohols |
answer
| denatures proteins and dissolves lipids which disrupts membranes |
question
| quaternary ammonium compounds |
answer
| decreases surface tension and thereby attacks plasma membranes |
question
| ethylene oxide |
answer
| replaces protein functional groups with alkyl groups |
question
| aldehydes |
answer
| cross link functional groups of proteins |
question
| iodine |
answer
| halogen. interacts with amino acids and proteins |
question
| chlorine |
answer
| halogen. oxidizing agent. damages cellular enzymes |
question
| ozone |
answer
| oxidizing agent. used for drinking water |
question
| hydrogen peroxide |
answer
| oxidizing agent. used by cells to kill bacteria |
question
| Silver, Mercury, Copper |
answer
| combine with sulfhydryl groups to denature proteins. very sensitive to organic matter. |
question
| penicillin |
answer
| cell wall synthesis inhibitor. has many derivatives |
question
| cephalosporins |
answer
| cell wall synthesis inhibitor. 4 generations |
question
| vancomycin |
answer
| active against Gram + bacteria. Useful for MRSA and clostridium defficile |
question
| aminoglycosides |
answer
| inhibits protein synthesis by insertion of incorrect amino acid |
question
| tetracyclines |
answer
| inhibit protein synthesis by blocking A site during translation |
question
| macrolides |
answer
| inhibit protein synthesis by inbiting peptidyl transferase and ribosome translocation (50S) |
question
| chloramphenicol |
answer
| inhibits protein synthesis by inhibitng peptidyl transferase |
question
| sulfonamides |
answer
| developed from pigments. inhibits folate synthesis by inhibiting dyhydropterate synthase |
question
| trimethoprim |
answer
| inhibits folate synthesis by inhibiting folate reductase enzyme |
question
| Fluoroquinolones |
answer
| inhibit DNA replication by binding to DNA gyrase. example is ciproflaxin |
question
| innate microbial resistance |
answer
| microbe lacks the drug target |
question
| acquired microbial resistance |
answer
| microbe has undergone a change that compensates for the presence of the drug |
question
| O antigen |
answer
| endotoxin/LPS |
question
| K antigen |
answer
| capsule/glycocalyx |
question
| H antigen |
answer
| flagella |
question
| MacConkey Agar |
answer
| contains bile salts and crystal violet so only Enterobacteriaceae can grow on it. contains lactose to differentiate lactose fermenters |
question
| MacConkey Agar |
answer
| contains bile salts and crystal violet so only Enterobacteriaceae can grow on it. contains lactose to differentiate lactose fermenters |
question
| Hektoen Enteric Agar |
answer
| contains bile salts and iron to detect H2S producing bacteria |
question
| enterotoxigenic E coli (ETEC) |
answer
| traveler's diarhea; labile toxin and stabile toxin; treat with fluoroquinolones plus loperamide |
question
| enteropathogenic E coli (EPEC) |
answer
| infant diarrhea; plasmid encoded adherence factor causes effacement of microvilli; treat with antibiotics |
question
| enteroaggregative E coli (EAEC) |
answer
| persistent diarrhea in undeveloped countries; stacked brick arrangement; treat with fluoroquinolones |
question
| Enterohemorhagic E coli (EHEC) |
answer
| O157:H7 most common strain in US; shiga-like toxin; blood in diarrhea; hemolytic uremia caused by damage to kidneys; treat with supportive care |
question
| enteroinvasive E coli (EIEC) |
answer
| similar to shigallosis; plasmid encoded invasion genes |
question
| Enteric Fever (Typhoid Fever) |
answer
| caused by Salmonella enterica. malaise, headache,rose spots on trunk; bacteria colonizes M cells and then disseminates in blood stream |
question
| Shigella |
answer
| Bacillary Dysentery; severe diarrhea containing mucus and blood in feces; pinpoint hemorrhages in cecum; treat with fluid replacement and antibiotics |
question
| Yersinia |
answer
| The Plague; zoonotic (urban and sylvatic cycles); spread by fleas; coagulase makes fibrin clot where bacteria can replicate; treat with streptomycin |
question
| Klebsiella pneumoniae |
answer
| currant jelly sputum; lung necrosis and abscess; lobar pneumonia; associated with alcoholism; multiple drug resistant |
question
| Klebsiella oxytoca |
answer
| colonizes colon and urinary tract; type1 pilli play a role in adherence to uroepithelium; multiple drug resistant |
question
| Proteus mirabilis |
answer
| strong urease reaction; swarming motility |
question
| Vibrio cholera |
answer
| GI disease or wound infections; oxidase positive (to differentiate from Enterobacteriaceae); serotyped by O antigens; A/B toxin causes tremendous water loss; rice water stool; hypovolemic shock |
question
| Campylobacter |
answer
| enteritis/food poisoning; inflammatory diarrhea and pus resulting from prostaglandin function; Guillian Barre Syndrom is a possible complication; get it from poultry or unpasturized milk; microaerophilic and capnophilic |
question
| Helicobacter pylori |
answer
| gastic ulcers and gastric cancers; mucinase to penetrate mucous; urease to protect against gastric acidity; oxidative stress resistance; cytotoxin; treat with amoxicillin and clarithromycin |
question
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
answer
| mostly opportunistic; exotoxin A (ADP ribosyl transferase); Phospholipase C damages membranes; Pyocyanin (blue green pus); Porin makes membranes impermeable to antimicrobials |
question
| Francisella tularensis |
answer
| glandular fever, rabbit fever, tick fever; requires cystein for growth; 10 organisms can cause infection; bioterorrism agent |
question
| Brucella |
answer
| abortions and reproductive diseases in livestock; undulant fever, mediteranean fever, malta fever; prefers erythritol over glucose |
question
| Haemophils influenzae |
answer
| respiratory or systemic infection; type b capsule; capnophilic; requires X factor and V factor; grows on chocolate agar; IgA protease assists in mucosal colonization |
question
| Bordella pertusssis |
answer
| whooping cough; catarrhal stage (URT infection), paroxysmal stage (LRT infection), and convalescent stage (neurologic damage); A/B toxin |
question
| Neisseria gonorrhea |
answer
| mucous membrane urogenital disease; penicillin resistant and no vaccine; grows on Modified Thayer Agar; oxidase positive |
question
| oxidase test |
answer
| assay for cytochrome c oxidase. purple = positive |
question
| Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome |
answer
| thinning of cervical mucosa allowing bacteria from vagina into uterus and oviducts; associated with gonorrhea |
question
| Neisseria meningitidis |
answer
| mild pharyngitis and mild fever; disseminate; petechial erupton on skin (vasculitic purpura); at blood brain barrier, pilli and endotoxins cause inflammation resulting in entry to CNS; color does not fade when pressed by glass |
question
| Moraxella catarrhalis |
answer
| bronchitis and bronchopneumonia; diplococci; normal flora of URT; penicillin resistant |
question
| Bartonella henselae |
answer
| cat scratch fever/cellulitis and lymphadenopathy |
question
| Burkholderia |
answer
| opportunisitc pathogen of moist environment; B. cepacia (pulmonary infections in cystic fibrosis); B. pseudomallei (pulmonary infection and abscess formation); B. mallei (Glanders) |
question
| Staphylococus aureus |
answer
| gold; catalase positive; beta-hemolytic; irregular clusters |
question
| Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome |
answer
| Ritter disease (cutaneous blister caused by toxin with no bactera in blister) or Bullous Impetigo (bulb contains bacteria so is communicable) |
question
| Staph Food Poisoning |
answer
| salted meats; custard pastries; heat stablic toxin |
question
| Toxic Shock Syndrome |
answer
| caused by Staph aureas; tampons; systemic; aerobic atmosphere and neutral pH required; purpura fulminans |
question
| Staph Cutaneous infection |
answer
| pyogenic; Imetigo; mascule then pustule, rupture and crusting; MRSA |
question
| Staph pneumonia |
answer
| aspiration pneumonia from oral secretions; may cause empyema |
question
| Staphylococcus epidermis |
answer
| opportunistic; coagulase negative; non-hemolytic; cutaneous flora; polysaccharide slime for adherence; associated with prosthetic valves |
question
| Staphylococcus saprophyticus |
answer
| UTI in newly sexually active women |
question
| Streptococci |
answer
| cocci in chains; categorized by surface carbohydrates or by hemolysis type; catalase negative |
question
| Strep pyogenes |
answer
| Group A; pharyngitis, scarlet fever, pyoderma(impetigo); erysipelous and cellulitis, necrotizing faciitis; rheumatic fever; acute glomerularnephritis |
question
| Scarlet Fever |
answer
| strep throat with toxin production; sandpaper rash; strawberry tongue |
question
| necrotizing faciitis |
answer
| flesh-eating bacteria; involves fascia and overlying fat; destroys muscles |
question
| rheumatic fever |
answer
| after an untreated case of strep throat; damages heart muscle and valves; mitral stenosis; M protein |
question
| Strep agalactiae |
answer
| Group B; vaginal and oral flora; colonization predisposes newborns to respiratory infections, septicemia, and meningitis; early onset (respiratory distress highly fatal) and late onset (meningitis and neurologic damage);. CAMP-positive; hippurate hydrolysis-positive |
question
| Strep pneumoniae |
answer
| non-groupable; blood-tinged rusty sputum; COPD and alcoholism are risk factors; alpha hemolytic (green); Quellung reaction positive; Optochin and bile sensitive; vaccinate infants and elderly |
question
| Viridans Endocarditis |
answer
| damaged heart; poor oral hygeine or root canal; bind fibronectin |
question
| Viridans Streptococci |
answer
| mostly alpha hemolytic; optochin and bile resistant; normal flora of oropharynx, GU and GI tracts |
question
| Streptococcusmutans |
answer
| dental plaque; secretes exopolysaccharides; forms a biofilm; acid eats thru enamel and bacteria invade |
question
| Streptococcus bovis |
answer
| intestinal tract; colon cancer allows it to translocate to blood stream |
question
| Enterococci |
answer
| normal flora; nosocomial infections; catalaste negative; PYR positive; gamma hemolysis; bile esculin positive; resistant to high salt |
question
| Bacillus anthracis |
answer
| anthrax; large "box car" rods; zoonotic from ruminants; capsule polypeptide poly-D-glutamic acid; tripartite exotoxin |
question
| cutaneous anthrax |
answer
| from contact with infected animals. resolves spontaneously. lesion turns into vesicle filled with blood or clear fluid. dead cells result in necrosis (black eschar) with erythematous raised margin |
question
| Gastrointestinal anthrax |
answer
| ingestion of spores in meat. internal lesions |
question
| Inhalation anthrax |
answer
| wool sorter's disease; inhalation of spores; alveolar macrophages released in blood stream causes systemic infection with high morbidity |
question
| Tripartide exotoxin |
answer
| protective antigen (PA) mediates entry into cells; lethal factor (LF) kills cells; Edema factor (EF) calmodulin activated adenylyl cyclase |
question
| Bacillus cereus |
answer
| lacks plasmids that encode virulence; causes gastroenteritis; fried rice; heat-stable enterotoxin causes emetic form; heat-labile enterotoxin causes diarrhea form; Phospholipase C (lecithinase) |
question
| Clostridium perfringens |
answer
| soft tissue infections; long rectangular rods; cytolytic toxins; enterotoxin; neuraminidase, collagenase, and proteases; 2 zones of hemolysis on blood agar; alpha toxin test |
question
| Cellulitis |
answer
| gas and necrosis in skin |
question
| Faciitis |
answer
| suppuratie myositis. pus in planes |
question
| Myonecrosis |
answer
| gas gangrene |
question
| Alpha toxin test |
answer
| on yolk agar, lecthinase causes precipitate |
question
| Clostridium botulinum |
answer
| 7 types based on neurotoxin production; food born by consumption of toxin in food; infants get it by consumption of spores in honey; canned food; prevents acetylcholine release resulting in flaccid muscle paralysis |
question
| Clostridium tetani |
answer
| lock jaw; prominent terminal spores; blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters resulting in continuous muscle contraction; from deep lacerated wounds with low oxygen |
question
| Clostridium difficile |
answer
| pseurdomembranous colitis; antibiotics kill normal flora which normally keeps this in check; Toxin A mediates damages mucosa of large bowel; Toxin B hyaluronidase-mediated breakdown of colonic epithelium |
question
| Mycobacteria |
answer
| aerobic, acid fast rods; waxy lipids in cell wall provide chemical resistance; Killed by UV filtered by HEPA; Untreated HIV patients with TB |
question
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
answer
| inhalation into alveoli; pulmonary infection; resolution or walled off in granuloma; granuloma can break down later in life; caseous necrosis; blood-tinged sputum; Lowenstein-Jensen medium |
question
| Mycobacterium leprae |
answer
| leprosy/Hansen's disease; unculturable obligate intracellular pathogen; lepromatous form and tuberculoid form |
question
| Mycobacterium avium |
answer
| Johne's Disease; chronic diarrhea in cattle; immunocompromised |
question
| Nocardia asteroides |
answer
| aerobic; filamentous; branching rods; contracted by inhalation of dust; similar to TB; treat with sulfonamides |
question
| Cornybacterium diptheriae |
answer
| Irregular, club shaped; sore throat with pseudomembrane; virulence is through A/B toxin; "bull neck" cervical edema; Elek test |
question
| Listeria monocytogenes |
answer
| psychrophile; catalase positive; tumbling motility; food-born pathogen; soft cheeses and undercooked meat; pregnant women and transplant patients at greater risk |
question
| Rickettsia ricketsii |
answer
| Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever; vector is hard tick Dermacentor; Maculopapular rash progresses to purpural rash and shock. treat with doxycycline |
question
| Ricksettia prowazekii |
answer
| Typhus; body louse is vector; Recrudescent is gradual onset - Brill-Zinsser disease; Sporadic typhus from flying squirrels |
question
| Ehrlichia chaffeensis |
answer
| white tailed deer; transmitted by lone star ticks; replicate in phagocytes |
question
| Coxiella burnetii |
answer
| multiply in phagosomes; livestock reservoir; antigenic variation (phase I antigen infections, phase II antigen not); Q-fever |
question
| Chlamydiaceae |
answer
| intracellular; lack ATP and peptidoglycan; elementary body is infections, reticulate body is metabolically active |
question
| Chlamydia trachomatis |
answer
| most common bacterial STD; grows in non-ciliated epithelial cells of GU tract, respiratory tract, and conjuctiva |
question
| Trachoma |
answer
| rough eye, Egyptian opthalmia; sensation of granules in the eye |
question
| Mycoplasma/Ureaplasma |
answer
| smallest free living bacteria; no cell walls; cell membranes contain sterols; fried egg appearance |
question
| Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
answer
| walking pneumonia; binds respiratory epithelium via P1 adhesin; inhibits cilia; superantigen |
question
| Spirochetes |
answer
| helical shape with axial filament; 2 cell membranes with LPS-like substance; does not stain with Giemsa or Gram |
question
| Treponema pallidum |
answer
| Syphilis; microaerophilic |
question
| Primary Syphilis |
answer
| chancre at site of inoculation; pailess; contagious |
question
| Secondary Syphilis |
answer
| Flu-like symptoms; maculopapular rash all over; hair loss; wart-like condylomata lata |
question
| Tertiary Syphilis |
answer
| Granulomatous lesions of bone, skin, etc. Aortitis; CNS inflammation; blindness |
question
| Borelia burgdorferi |
answer
| Lyme Disease; erythema migrans; virulence due to formatio of immune complexes; mice and deer; tick vector |
question
| Borrelia recurrentis |
answer
| Relapsing Fever; louse and tick vectors |
question
| Leptospira interrogans |
answer
| hooked ends; aerobes; transmissio in animal urine or infected water; flu-like symptoms |
Bacteria
Gram Negative Bacteria
Gram Positive Cocci
Ch 11 – Microbiology – Flashcards 53 terms
53 terms
Preview
Ch 11 – Microbiology – Flashcards
question
| nonproteobacteria Gram negative |
answer
| -photosynthetic gram - bacteria -cyanobacteria |
question
| cyanobacteria |
answer
| -blue green pigmentation -photosynthesis -many can fix nitrogen to ammonium in heterocysts (cells impermeable to O2) -some adjust buoyancy using gas vacuoles -eukaryotic chloroplasts evolved from them |
question
| Gram positive bacteria |
answer
| -aerobes, facultative, and anaerobes -2 phyla -Firmicutes (low GC) -Actinobacteria (high GC) |
question
| Firmicutes characteristics |
answer
| -low GC -spore forming bacteria -medically relevant bacteria -bacteria important in the industry |
question
| Firmicutes types |
answer
| -Clostridium -Bacillus -Staphlococcus -Lactobacillus -Streptococcus -Enterococcus -Listeria -Mycoplasma |
question
| Clostridium |
answer
| -rod shaped obligate anaerobes -forms spores that distort the cell |
question
| C. botulinum |
answer
| -botulism -1 micro gram of uncooked bean could be fatal -boiling denatures -botox also |
question
| C. tetani |
answer
| -causes tetnus -spores get in body through wounds, blocks neurotransmitter -spasms |
question
| C. perfringens |
answer
| -responsible for gas gangrene and foodborne diarrhea |
question
| C. difficile |
answer
| -human intestinal normal flora -causes diarrhea and other intestinal disease when competing bacteria are wiped out by anitbiotics |
question
| Bacillus |
answer
| -facultative anaerobes that form endospores -ubiquitous |
question
| B. anthracis |
answer
| -anthrax -only bacterium with a protein capsule -produces toxin |
question
| B. cereus |
answer
| -causes foodborne illness -produces toxin |
question
| B. thuringiensis |
answer
| -biocontrol against a variety of insect pests -crystal is toxic to insect -pH activates in intestine, swells, and lysis |
question
| Staphlococcus |
answer
| -facultative anaerobes -grow well in high osmotic pressure and low moisture -natural inhabitants of nose and skin |
question
| S. aureus |
answer
| -common cause of food poisoning -infects surgical wounds -toxin responsible for toxin shock syndrome -quickly develops resistance (MRSA) |
question
| S. epidermidis |
answer
| natural inhabitant of the skin |
question
| Lactobacillus |
answer
| -facultative anaerobes -convert lactose to lactic acid -present in human vaginal and gastrointestinal tract -some used for yogurt, cheese, sauerkraut, pickles, beer, wine |
question
| L. casei and L. brevis |
answer
| -most common beer spoilage organisms |
question
| streptococcus |
answer
| -part of normal flora of mouth, skin, intestine, and upper respiratory tract |
question
| S pyogenes |
answer
| -strep throat -endocartitis (heart inflammation) -necrotizing faciititis (flesh eating disease) -beta hemolytic |
question
| S. pneumoniae |
answer
| -meningitis |
question
| S. mutans |
answer
| dental caries (tooth decay) |
question
| S. agalactiae |
answer
| neonatal sepsis(blood infection) beta hemolytic |
question
| S. thermophilus |
answer
| -some cheeses and yogurts |
question
| beta hemolytic streptococci |
answer
| -produce hemolysin to lyse RBC |
question
| non beta hemolytic streptococci |
answer
| -gamma-no color -alpha- green (H2O2) |
question
| Enterococcus |
answer
| -found in gastrointestinal tract, vagina and oral cavity -large numbers in human stool -leading cause of nosocomial(hospital) infections |
question
| E. faecalis and E. faecium |
answer
| -infections of surgical wounds and urinary tract |
question
| Listeria |
answer
| -contaminate food especially dairy |
question
| L. monocytogenes |
answer
| -cryophile (likes cold) -can survive in phagocytic cells -can cause still birth or damage to fetus |
question
| Mycoplasma |
answer
| -smallest organism that can independently grow on a cell free medium -only prokaryotes that lack cell wall and contain sterols -highly pleomorphic -chronic diseases -fibromyalgia syndrome, gulf war syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis |
question
| Actinobacteria |
answer
| -high GC -include pleomorphic -important pathogens -filamentous bacteria |
question
| Types of Actinobacteria (9) |
answer
| -Mycobacterium -Corynebacterium -Propionibacterium -Actinomyces -Streptomyces |
question
| mycobacterium |
answer
| -do not retain crystal violet -acid fast G+ (no outer membrane) -thick cell wall of mycolic acids -very slow growth |
question
| M. tuberculosis |
answer
| -tuberculosis |
question
| M. leprae |
answer
| leprosy |
question
| Corynebacterium |
answer
| C. diphteriae causes diphteria |
question
| Propionibacterium |
answer
| -swiss cheese and acne |
question
| P. freudenreichii |
answer
| swiss cheese |
question
| Actinomyces |
answer
| -thermophiles found in throat and mouth of humans -can form branched filamaents -number of enzymes that degrade plant organic material -many are opportunistic pathogens of humans in oral cavity -can cause abcesses in mouth, lung, intestine -farmers lung |
question
| streptomyces |
answer
| -very abundant in soil -reproduce through asexual spores -distinct earthy odor from production of geosmin -produce many commercial antibiotics |
question
| Planctomycetes |
answer
| -Gram negative -aquatic -budding -no peptidoglycan -Gemmata obscuriglobus has a double membrane around its DNA |
question
| Chlamidiae |
answer
| -small coccoid bacteria -no peptidoglycan in cell wall -obligate intracellular paracites of vertebrates unable to make own ATP -unique pattern of replication -most common STD -4 million in US each yr -humans are only natural host -leading causes of female infertility |
question
| C. trachomatis |
answer
| -major infectious cause of human eye (may lead to blindness – trachoma) and genital disease |
question
| Spirochetes |
answer
| -coiled -move by axial filaments -many found in human oral cavity -some found on protazoa in termites |
question
| Spirochete types |
answer
| -Treponema -Borrelia -Leptospira |
question
| Treponema |
answer
| -Many pathogens -T. pallidum causes syphilis (sexual contact or through placenta) |
question
| Borrelia |
answer
| lyme disease (tick/lice) |
question
| Leptospira |
answer
| -excreted in the urine of dogs,rates, swine -part of domestic cats and dogs vaccination |
question
| Bacteriodetes types |
answer
| -Bacteroides -Prevotella |
question
| -Bacteroides |
answer
| -anaerobes -human intestine -gingival crevice and deep tissue infections |
question
| Prevotella |
answer
| -periodontal and tooth problems |
Biology
Gram Negative Bacteria
Gram Positive Bacteria
Horizontal Gene Transfer
Lateral Gene Transfer
Microbiology
Systematics
Chapter 4 – Microbiology – Flashcards 84 terms
84 terms
Preview
Chapter 4 – Microbiology – Flashcards
question
| bacteria |
answer
| a category of prokaryotes with peptidoglycan in their call walls |
question
| flagella and axial filaments |
answer
| two appendages that provide motility in bacteria (prokaryotes) |
question
| fimbriae - pili |
answer
| two appendages that provide attachment in bacteria (prokaryotes) |
question
| filament, hook, basal body |
answer
| three distinct parts of the prokaryotic flagella |
question
| polar arrangment |
answer
| arrangment in which flagella are attached at one or both ends of the cell |
question
| chemotaxis |
answer
| the process in which bacteria move in response to chemical signals |
question
| runs |
answer
| when a flagellum rotates counterclockwise, the cell swims in a smooth linear direction called ______ |
question
| tumbles |
answer
| when a cells counterclockwise rotation is reversed, the cell will move by _____ |
question
| spirochetes |
answer
| corkscrew shaped bacteria that move by means of periplasmic flagella or axial filaments |
question
| periplasmic flagella - axial filaments - cell wall - cell membrane |
answer
| spirochets move in a wriggly motion using _______ or ________ which is enclosed in the space between their ____ and their _____ |
question
| fimbrae |
answer
| small, bristlelike fibers sprouting off the surface of many bacterial cells |
question
| protien |
answer
| most fimbrae are composed of ______ |
question
| pilus |
answer
| an elongated, rigid tubular structure made of pilin |
question
| pilin |
answer
| a special protein that composes the pilus |
question
| gram-negative |
answer
| true pili have only been found on _____ bacteria |
question
| conjugation |
answer
| a "mating" process between cells which involves a partial transfer of DNA from on cell to another |
question
| true |
answer
| T or F - gram-negative bacteria can only conjugate with other gram-negative bacteria |
question
| biofilm |
answer
| a living layer of bacteria |
question
| glycocalyx |
answer
| a coating of repeated polysaccharide units, protein, or both |
question
| glycocalyx |
answer
| protects the cell and sometimes helps it adhere to surfaces |
question
| slime layer |
answer
| glycocalyx that functions to protect them from water and nutrient loss |
question
| capsule |
answer
| coating that increases the pathogenicity of bacter by protecting it from phagocytes |
question
| glycocalyces |
answer
| some ______ are responsible for the formation of biofilms |
question
| cell envelope |
answer
| chemically complex enternal covering that lies outside of the cytoplasm |
question
| 2 - 3 |
answer
| the cell envelope of gram positive bacteria has ___ layers and gram negative has ___ layers |
question
| gram positive |
answer
| type of bacteria that contains the tightly bound acidic polysaccharides teichic acid and lipoteichoic acid |
question
| teichoic acid |
answer
| a polymer of ribitol or glycerol and phosphate embedded in the peptidoglycan sheath of gram-positive bacteria |
question
| lipoteichoic acid |
answer
| acid in gram positive bacteria that is similar in structure to teichoic acid but attached to lipds |
question
| maintenance and enlargement |
answer
| the acidic polysaccharides in gram positive bacteria function for ____ and _____ of the cell wall |
question
| periplasmic space |
answer
| area that surrounds that peptidoglycan in gram negative bacteria |
question
| lipids |
answer
| mycobacteria and nocardia stain gram positive and contain peptidoglycan, but most of their cell wall is composed of _____ |
question
| archea |
answer
| ____ are a prokaryote whose cell wall is composed of polysaccharides or protien, not peptidoglycan |
question
| mycoplasmas |
answer
| bacteria that naturally lack a cell wall |
question
| sterols - lysis |
answer
| the mycoplasmas cell membrane is stabalized by _____, not a cell wall, and is resistant to ______ |
question
| L form |
answer
| when a cell loses its cell wall, it is in its _____ |
question
| protoplast |
answer
| when gram positive bacteria loses its cell wall from chemicals or pennicilin, it becomes a ______ |
question
| spheroplast |
answer
| when gram negative bacteria loses its cell wall, it still has its outermembrane and is called a ______ |
question
| lipopolysaccharides |
answer
| the outer membrane of bacteria contains _____, which is what makes gram negative bacteria dangerous |
question
| sterols |
answer
| rigid lipids that stabilize and reinforce the cell membranes of mycoplasmas |
question
| hydrocarbons |
answer
| the cell membranes of archae contain _____ rather than fatty acids |
question
| cell membrane |
answer
| site where energy reactions, nutrient processing, and synthesis takes place in bacteria (prokaryotes) |
question
| cell membrane |
answer
| since prokaryotes lack mitochondria, most enzymes of respiration and ATP synthsis take place in the ______ |
question
| T |
answer
| T or F - Gram negative bacteria are often more difficult to kill than gram positive bacteria |
question
| bacterial chromosome |
answer
| single stranded circular DNA |
question
| nucleoid |
answer
| area of bacteria where the chromosomes migrate |
question
| RNA and protein |
answer
| ribosomes are made of ____ and _____ |
question
| ribosomal RNA |
answer
| chemically, a ribosome is composed of _____ ___ and protein |
question
| 70S |
answer
| the prokaryotic ribosome has an overall rating of ____ |
question
| 80S |
answer
| Eukaryotic ribosomes have an overall rating of _____ |
question
| inclusion bodies |
answer
| bacteria can store excess nutrients in ______ |
question
| granules |
answer
| inclusion bodies that contain crystals of inorganic compounds that are not membrane bound |
question
| metachromatic granules |
answer
| polyphosphate granules that are a source of building blocks for nucleic acids and ATP- - stain red or purple in the presence of methylene blue dye |
question
| magnetosomes |
answer
| iron oxide particles that have magnetic properties |
question
| actin |
answer
| the cytoskelaton of bacteria is composed of _____ |
question
| endospores |
answer
| dormant bodies produced by some bacteria |
question
| vegetative cell endospore |
answer
| two-phase lifecycle of spore producing bacteria |
question
| sporulation |
answer
| occcurs when the vegetative bacterial cell is acted on by environmental conditions to form a spore |
question
| sporangium |
answer
| process in which vegetative cell is deprived of nutrients, it receives the signal to begin forming a spore |
question
| 6-8 hours |
answer
| in most spore forming bacteria, it takes _____ for the spore to form |
question
| calcium - dipicolinic acid - water |
answer
| the heat resistance of spores has been linked to their high content of ____ and ______ because it removes ____ from the cell |
question
| coccus |
answer
| a spherical or ball-shaped bacterium |
question
| bacillus |
answer
| a cylindrical bacterium |
question
| coccobacillus |
answer
| when a rod is short and plump, it is called a _____ |
question
| vibrio |
answer
| a gentle curved coccobacillus |
question
| pleomorphism |
answer
| phenomenon in which cells of the same species vary in shape and size |
question
| diplococci |
answer
| term for 2 cocci |
question
| tetrads |
answer
| groups of 4 cocci |
question
| staph |
answer
| irregular clusters of cocci |
question
| strep |
answer
| chains of cocci |
question
| sarcina |
answer
| cubical pack of 8 cocci |
question
| palisades |
answer
| arrangement when bacilli are partially connected or hinged |
question
| bergey's manual |
answer
| the definitive published source for bacterial classification |
question
| pheotypic |
answer
| the shape, cultural behavior, and biochemical reactions of a bacteria are their ____ traits |
question
| facultative |
answer
| _____ bacteria may or may not use oxygen |
question
| cyanobacteria |
answer
| bacteria that contains thylakoids and was formerly called blue-green algae |
question
| thylakoids |
answer
| cyanobacteria contain extensive internal membranes called ______ |
question
| chlorophyl - gas |
answer
| thylakoids contain granules of ______ for energy and ____ to allow them to float |
question
| green and purple sulfur |
answer
| bacteria that has bacteriochlorophyll to undergo photosynthesis |
question
| ribosomal RNA |
answer
| archea and eukaryotes share a number of ____ ____ sequences that are not found in bacteria |
question
| methanogens |
answer
| archaec cell that can convert CO2 and H2 into methane gas |
question
| halophiles |
answer
| archeac cells that life in very high salt concentrations and may tint water red (the "red sea") |
question
| psychrophilic |
answer
| archea adapted to grow at very cold temperatures |
question
| hyperthermophilic |
answer
| archea adapted to grow at very high temperatures |
question
| plasmid |
answer
| a small piece of DNA, seperate from the main chromosome, that carries genetic information and is transfered during conjugation |
Biology
Gram Negative Bacteria
Gram Positive Bacteria
Microbiology
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
micro lecture – Flashcards 166 terms
166 terms
Preview
micro lecture – Flashcards
question
| Describe proteobacteria |
answer
| prokaryotes--> peptidoglycan rRNA signature--> domain bacteria--> gram negative --> proteobacteria |
question
| describe characteristics of proteobacteria |
answer
| gram negative chemoheterotrophic largest taxonomic group 30% of all classified bacteria split into alpha, beta, gamma, delta, epsilon |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, what organisms it infects, and why is it medically important of Wolbachia pipentis |
answer
| phylum: alpha-proteobacteria gram reaction: Disease caused: infects insects and other animals What organisms does it infect: can affect the pathogenicity of many filarial worms why is it medically important: can be transmitted horizontally or vertically in eggs |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, where does it liveRICKETTSIA |
answer
| phylum: alpha-proteaobacteria gram reaction: disease caused: spotted fevers Where does it live: |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, shape and what is PIDNEISSERIA GONORRHEA |
answer
| Phylum: beta-probacteria gram reaction: disease caused: shape: PID: |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused,pigment, shape, how would you contract, where does it livePSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA |
answer
| Phylum: gamma-proteobacteria Gram reaction: Disease caused: Pigment: flourescent green Shape: How would you contract: Where does it live? |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, shape, how would you contract it, symptoms VIBRIO CHOLERAE |
answer
| Phylum: gamma-proteobacteria Gram reaction: Disease cause: Shape: Contract: found in coastal waters Symptoms: dirrhea |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, shape, what is an indicator organismE. COLI |
answer
| Phylum:gamma-proteobacteria |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, shape, and what is a serovarSALMONELLA TYPHIMURIUM |
answer
| Phylum: gamma proteobacteria Gram reaction: Disease caused: typhoid fever Shape: What is a serovar: antibodies |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, where do they live in the bodyHELICOBACTER PYLORI |
answer
| Phylum: epsilon- proteobacteria Gram reaction: Disease caused: peptic ulcers, stomache cancer Where do they live in the body: |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, where do they live in the bodyCHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS |
answer
| Phylum: non-proteobacteria Gram reaction: gram negative Disease caused: most common STD Where do they live in the body? |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, forms what? oxygen requirement? how is the disease transmittedCLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICLE |
answer
| Phylum: Firmicutes Gram reaction: gram positive Forms what: endospores Oxygen requirement: obligate anaerobes How is disease transmitted? |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, shape, pigment produced, where do they love in the bodySTAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS |
answer
| Phylum: Firmicutes Gram Reaction: gram positive Disease caused: Shape: cocci Pigment produced: yellow where do they live in the body? |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, shape STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENES |
answer
| Phylum: firmicutes gram reaction: gram positive Diseases caused: Scarlet fever, necrotizing fasciitis, strep throat Shape: chains |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused,frequently causes what type of infections, can live wearENTEROCOCCUS FAECALIS |
answer
| frequently causes: nosocomial infections Can live wear: GI tract, vagina, oral cavity,hands, bedding, fecal aerosol |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE |
answer
| Phylum: firmicutes Gram reaction: gram positive Disease caused: walking pnumoniae |
question
| what is the phylum, gram reaction, disease caused, PROPIONIBACTERIA ACNES |
answer
| Phylum: actinobacteria Gram reaction: gram positive Disease caused: acne |
question
| What are the 4 types of gamma-proteobacteria? |
answer
| -Pseudomonadales -Legionellales -vibrionales -enterobacteriales |
question
| What are the 2 types of deltaproteobacteria? |
answer
| -bdellovibrio -myxococcales |
question
| What are myxospores? what social adaptations do they have? |
answer
| some cells within the fruiting body develop into dormant myxospores that are enclosed within walled structures called sporangia - when sporangia releases the myxospores which can resist desiccation and nutrient deprivation for a decade or more - when nutrients are again plentiful, the myxospores germinate and become vegitative cells |
question
| What are the 2 types of Enterobacterials |
answer
| -e.coli -salmonella |
question
| What are characteristics of Pseudomonas? |
answer
| -oppurtunistic pathogens -polar flagella |
question
| What are characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa? |
answer
| -responsible for 10% of all hosp. infections -naturally resistant to antibiotics -forms biofilms -ear pericing infections |
question
| what are characteristics of Legionella |
answer
| - found in streams, warm water pipes -ex the leigonellas breakout in casino in vegas |
question
| what are characteristics of Vibrionales |
answer
| -found in coastal water -a lot of diarrhea |
question
| What are characteristics of Enterobacteriales? |
answer
| -peritrichous flagella -faculatative anaerobic -inhabit intestinal tract |
question
| what is the most complex life cycle? |
answer
| delta proteobacteria |
question
| what are characteristics of Bdellovibrio |
answer
| -prey on other bacteria -gram neg |
question
| what are characteristics of myxococcales? |
answer
| -cells aggregate to form myxospores -has social motility, cell differentiation, specialization, cell to cell communication, and coordination |
question
| what are characteristics of Firmicutes |
answer
| gram positive, LOW g+c |
question
| what are characteristics of Clostridiales? |
answer
| endospore producing, obligate anerobes |
question
| What is a characteristic of Bacillales? |
answer
| endospore producing rods |
question
| FUNGI: what is the Kingdom- nutritional type- multicellularity- food acquistion mechanism- characteristic features |
answer
| kingdom- fungi nutritional type- multicellularity- mostly multicellular food aquistion mechanism- chemoheterotrophic characteristic- decompose dead organisms, help plants absorb water and minerals, produce antibiotics |
question
| PROTOZOA: what is the Kingdom- nutritional type- multicellularity- food acquistion mechanism- characteristic features |
answer
| what is the Kingdom-protista nutritional type- multicellularity- food acquistion mechanism-chemoheterotrophic, obtain nutrients by phagocityzing characteristic features- requires moist environments |
question
| HELMINTHS: what is the Kingdom- nutritional type- multicellularity- food acquistion mechanism- characteristic features |
answer
| what is the Kingdom-animilia nutritional type- multicellularity-all multicellular food acquistion mechanism-chemoheterotrophic characteristic features |
question
| Compare and contrast bacterial endospores to fungal spores |
answer
question
| compare and contrast fungal asexual spores and asexual reproduction to sexual spores and sexual reproduction |
answer
question
| Describe how fungi are classified |
answer
question
| discuss fungal nutritional adaptations and basic characteristics |
answer
question
| thallus |
answer
| body of fungus or olga |
question
| saprobe |
answer
| fungus that absorbs nutrients from dead organisms |
question
| hyphae |
answer
| long, branched, tubular filaments in the thalli of molds |
question
| Mycelium |
answer
| tangled mass of hyphae |
question
| Dimorphic fungi |
answer
| having 2 forms; they both have yeast like and mold like thalli |
question
| asexual spores |
answer
question
| zygospore |
answer
| haploid spores formed from the surviving nuclei within zygosporangia |
question
| ascospore |
answer
| haploid germinating structure of ascomycetes |
question
| basidiospore |
answer
question
| coencytic |
answer
| multinucleate cell resulting from repeated mitosis but postponed or absent cytokenisis |
question
| septate |
answer
| characterized by the presence of cross walls |
question
| telemorphic fungi |
answer
question
| medically important phyla: zygomycota |
answer
| division of fungi including coenocytic molds called zygomycetes, most are saprobes |
question
| medically important phyla:Ascomycota |
answer
| division of fungi characterized by the formation of haploid ascospores within sacs called asci -Sac fungi, septate, telemorphic fungi, condiospores, aspergillus |
question
| medically important phyla: Dueteromycota |
answer
| informal grouping of fungi having no known sexual stage -asexual, rRNA sequencing, subcutaneous mycosis, systemic, cutaneos |
question
| medically important phyla: Basidomycota |
answer
| division of fungi characterized by production of basidospores and basidicarps -club fungi, septate, basidiospores and sometimes conidiospores |
question
| Fungal diseases: systemic mycoses |
answer
| deep within the body |
question
| Fungal diseases: subcutaneous mycoses |
answer
| beneath the skin |
question
| Fungal diseases: cutaneous mycoses |
answer
| affect hair, skin, nails |
question
| Fungal diseases: Superficial mycoses |
answer
| localized, hair shafts |
question
| Fungal diseases: oppurtunistic mycoses |
answer
| caused by normal microbiota or environmental fungi |
question
| How does polyenes work |
answer
question
| how does azoles work |
answer
question
| how does allyamines work |
answer
question
| how does griseofuylin work |
answer
question
| Protozoa: cycts |
answer
question
| Protozoa: trophozoite |
answer
question
| Protozoa: fission |
answer
question
| Protozoa: definitive vs. intermediate hosts |
answer
question
| PRO medically important phyla: parabalsa |
answer
| no mitochondria, fermentation to get energy in glycolisis, Trichomonas vaginalis |
question
| PRO medically important phyla: diplomonadida |
answer
| no mitochondria, golgi bodies, peroxisomes, EX: giardia lambia, most commonly detected |
question
| PRO medically important phyla: amoebozoa |
answer
| moved by pseudopods, 1 in 10 show symptoms, loose stools, Acanthomoeba can cause corneal infections |
question
| PRO medically important phyla: apicomplexa (3) |
answer
| non motile plasmodium- malaria transmitted by anapheles mosq. cryptospordium- difficult to filter as protozoa are small taxoplasma gondii- 50-60% of world is infected |
question
| PRO medically important phyla: euglenozoa |
answer
| move by flagella, hemoflagellates, trypanosoma spp: sleepings sickness, chagas disease |
question
| TRICHOMONAS VAGINALIS: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| humans only hosts, intense itching, pain during urination, creamy white frothy discharge |
question
| GIARDIA LAMBLIA: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| symptoms: nausea, cramping, flatulence, foul smelling diarrhea, may cont to shed cysts for years |
question
| ACANTHAMOEBA:transmission, symptoms |
answer
| tap water |
question
| CRYPTOSPORIDIUM: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| transmission via contaminated water nausea and diarrhea |
question
| TOXOPLASMA GONDII :transmission, symptoms |
answer
| cat litter or by eating undercooked meat no symptoms for healthy people but dangerous to fetus |
question
| PLASMODIUM: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| anapheles mosquito fever chills headache weakness fatigue anemia |
question
| TRYPANOSOMA SP chagas disease: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| triatomia bugs |
question
| name several characteristics of helminthes |
answer
| kingdom:animilia -chemoheterotrophic -all are multicellular -reduced digestive system, nervous system, locomotion -complexed reproduction |
question
| 2 phyla of helminthes |
answer
| 1) platyehelminthes ( flatworms) 2)nebratoda (roundworms) |
question
| define monoecious (HELMINTHES) |
answer
| hermaphrodites, male and female reprod. system in 1 animal |
question
| define dioecious (HELMINTHES) |
answer
| seperate male and female organisms |
question
| Clonorchis sinensis: transmission, symptoms |
answer
question
| Enterobius vermicularis: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| worm infestation perianal itching, many are asymptomatic |
question
| Trichinella: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| undercooked meat disease cant be cured just focus on treating symptoms |
question
| Ascaris: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| food contaminated with fecal matter hemmhorage, malnutrition, abcsesses |
question
| Necator and Acylclostoma: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| larvae enter body by penetrating skin damage to small intestine |
question
| Wuchereria: transmission, symptoms |
answer
| altered lymphatic system and enlarging of body parts (pain and disabilities) |
question
| Compare and contrast mechanical VS bioligocal transmission of insect borne diseases |
answer
| anthropods as vector: -mechanical transmission -biological transmission -microbe multiplies in vector *definitive host- microbes sexual reproduction in vector |
question
| list several arguments for and against the description of viruses as living organisms |
answer
| FOR: -they can multiply -can mutate -can cause infection and disease -contain genetic material AGAINST: - dont have both DNA and RNA in same virus particles -cannot carry out any metabolic pathway -neither grow nor respond to the env. -no plasma membrane -no ribosomes -***not composed of cells |
question
| Compare characteristics of typical bacteria to viruses: intracellular parasite |
answer
| bacteria: no viruses:yes |
question
| Compare characteristics of typical bacteria to viruses: Plasma membrane |
answer
| Bacteria: yes Viruses: no |
question
| Compare characteristics of typical bacteria to viruses: Binary fission |
answer
| Bacteria:yes viruses:no |
question
| Compare characteristics of typical bacteria to viruses:pass through filters |
answer
| bacteria: no viruses: yes |
question
| Compare characteristics of typical bacteria to viruses:DNA and RNA |
answer
| bacteria: yes viruses: no |
question
| Compare characteristics of typical bacteria to viruses:Ribosomes |
answer
| bacteria: yes viruses: no |
question
| Compare characteristics of typical bacteria to viruses:Antibotic sensitivity |
answer
| bacteria:yes viruses: no |
question
| Compare characteristics of typical bacteria to viruses:interferon sensitivity |
answer
| bacteria: not sensitive viruses: yes sensitive |
question
| what is meant by host range |
answer
| most viruses infect only paticular hosts cells -due to affinity of viral surface proteins for proteins on host cell -may be so specific they only infect a particular kind of cell in a particular host |
question
| why can you recover from a cold but its more difficult to recover from polio? |
answer
| cold viruses infects epithelial tissue which is easily fixed when damaged polio causes paralysis which infects nueral tissue which is hard to repair |
question
| how do bacteriophages get nucleotides and amino acids if they dont have any metabolic enzymes |
answer
| they attach to host cell and use host cell metabolism like enzymes and nucleotides to build their dna or rna |
question
| taxonomy of viruses:family name ends in: |
answer
| viridae, ex: Herpesviridae |
question
| taxonomy of viruses: genus name ends in: |
answer
| virus, ex: Herpesvirus (italisized) |
question
| viral species: |
answer
| a group of viruses sharing same genetic info. and ecological niche ex: human herpes viris |
question
| viral sub species: |
answer
| designated by a # ex:HHV-1 |
question
| viral replication is dependent on: |
answer
| hosts organelles and enzymes |
question
| Lyctic cycle: replication cycle usually results in |
answer
| death and lysis of host cell |
question
| Stages of lytic cycle: (5) |
answer
| 1)attachment 2)entry 3)synthesis 4) assembly 5)release |
question
| what is a phage? |
answer
| a virus that infects bacteria |
question
| Lytic: during synthesis, 2 things happen: |
answer
| 1) make new DNA 2) vDNA---transcription--->vmRNA---translation--->vProtein (protein syntesis) THIS RESULTS IN THE DEATH OF CELL |
question
| In a plaque, how do you know when dead bacteria have lysed? |
answer
| clearing |
question
| Lysogeny: infected host cells grow and reproduce... |
answer
| normally for GENERATIONS before they lyse |
question
| Lysogeny: temperate phages- |
answer
| prophage= inactive phages |
question
| Lysogenic conversion results when? |
answer
| phages carry genes that alter phenotype of a bacterium |
question
| Main difference between LYTIC and LYSOGENICFROM TEST : what is the def of lysogeny |
answer
| Lytic results in immediate death of cell, lysogenic might not die right away or soon |
question
| What is induction and what phage cycle does it occur in? |
answer
| stage 5 of lysogenic cyle where it pops out due to STRESS |
question
| What are the stages of replication of animal viruses? |
answer
| attachment: virus attaches to cell membrane penetration: by endocytosis or fusion uncoating: by viral or host enzymes biosynthesis: production of nucleic acid and proteins maturation: nucleic acid and capsid proteins assemble release: by BUDDING (enveloped viruses) |
question
| Attachment and penetration: have _____ spikes or other attachment molecules can penetrate by____ or fusion |
answer
| chemical attraction animal viruses dont have tails -has glycoprotein spikes -can penetrate by pinocytosis |
question
| Uncoating: seperation of virus particle from___ |
answer
| its protein coat |
question
| Synthesis of animal viruses: requires different strategy depending on ________ dna viruses often enter the ____ rna viruses often repliacte in ___ |
answer
| -req. different strategy dependent on nucleic acid -often enter the nucleus -replicate in cytoplasm |
question
| describe the replication of DNA virus |
answer
| 1) virion attaches to host cell 2)virus enters cell and DNA is uncoated 3)a portion of viral DNA is transcribed, producing mRNA that encodes "early" viral proteins 4) viral DNA is replicated, and some viral proteins are made 5)late traslation: capsid proteins are synthesized 6) virions mature 7)virions released |
question
| A positive sense acts directly as.. and a negative strand is... FROM TEST: what is a + strand |
answer
| mRNA negative used as template for rna for + |
question
| uncoating is unique to |
answer
| animal viruses, its not in phages |
question
| a negative strand is |
answer
| a template that must 1st make a positive strand to act as mrna |
question
| Role of viruses in cancer: animal genes dictate that some cells can no longer _______ or are prevented from_____ |
answer
| - no longer divide or prevented from unlimited division |
question
| Role of viruses in cancer: genes for cell division are..... |
answer
| turned off or genes inhibition division are turned on |
question
| Role of viruses in cancer: Neopasia Metastis: |
answer
| unctrollable cell division, a mass of these cells is called a tumor -travels in lymphatic system |
question
| Environmental factors that contribute to cancer and activation of oncogenes: |
answer
| UV light radiation carcinogens viruses cause 25% of human cancers |
question
| ex of specific viruses known to cause cancer |
answer
| burkitts lymphoma hodgkins disease kaposis sarcoma cervial cancer |
question
| How can an RNa virus cause cancer if it doesnt have DNA to insert into a cells genes |
answer
| reversse transcription will make copy of dna from rna |
question
| Lifecycle of latent animal viruses: what is latency |
answer
| when animal viruses remain dormant in host cells until effected by stress, may be prolonged for years -some never pop out of chromosome but just replicate inside chromo. |
question
| what are Prionshow is it transmitted what are diseases caused by it and what is prion replication |
answer
| PROteinaceuous INfectious particle -transmitted by injestion, transplant -sheep scrapie, mad cow disease |
question
| Growing viruses: virus must be grown in ____ animal viruses may be grown in ____ |
answer
| living cells -living animals or in embryonated eggs |
question
| Papiloma virus- HPV transmitted, symptoms |
answer
| wart |
question
| hepatitis B virus- transmitted and symptom |
answer
| blood |
question
| hepatitis A-transmitted and symptom |
answer
| injestion; shed in feces |
question
| The LD50 of botulinum toxin is .03 ng/kg; the ld50 of salmonella toxin is 12 mg/kg. which is the more potent toxin? |
answer
| botulism |
question
| diptheria toxins |
answer
| inhibits protein synthesis |
question
| botulism |
answer
| binds to neurons and inhibits actylchloine relase |
question
| tetanus |
answer
| blocks muscle relaxation pathway causes unctrollable contractioin |
question
| vibrio enterotoxin |
answer
| causes release of ions to insestinal lumen creating HYPERTONIC |
question
| infection |
answer
| invasion of host by pathogen |
question
| etiology |
answer
| study of the cause of disease |
question
| disease/morbidity |
answer
| infection that results in a change in health |
question
| syndrome |
answer
| symptoms AND signs charatcerize a disease |
question
| ld50 |
answer
| amount of substance required to kill 50% of the test population |
question
| sporadic |
answer
| a disease that occurs in single and sporadic cases |
question
| viremia |
answer
| virus enters bloodstream |
question
| toxemia |
answer
| presence of toxins inblood |
question
| sepsis |
answer
| severe blood infection |
question
| bacteremia |
answer
| presence of bacteria in blood |
question
| septicemia |
answer
| presence of pathogenic disease in blood stream |
question
| micorbial antagonism |
answer
| prevention of colonization of microbes |
question
| resident microbiata |
answer
| present on skin, not harmful |
question
| subacute disease |
answer
| how long a diseasae has been present |
question
| incubation period |
answer
| time elapsed between exposure and symptoms |
question
| subclinical disease |
answer
| under drs radar |
question
| prodormal period |
answer
| he time during which a disease process has begun but is not yet clinically manifest. |
question
| case reporting |
answer
| detailed report of signs symptoms and follow up |
question
| Bacterial source for exotoxin |
answer
| EXO- gram + |
question
| toxicity for exotoxin |
answer
| low ld50 |
question
| does exotoxin produce fever |
answer
| no |
question
| reprsentative exotoxin: |
answer
| vibro enterotoxin |
question
| ON TEST: polio is most similar to |
answer
| Hepatitis A? |
Gram Negative Bacteria
Microbiology
Nursing
Sexually Transmitted Infections
Urinary Tract Infections
Micro Spring 2013 Block I – Flashcards 331 terms
331 terms
Preview
Micro Spring 2013 Block I – Flashcards
question
| What pathogen is responsible for the majority of UTIs? |
answer
| E. coli |
question
| What can increase the risk of ascending infection of UTIs? |
answer
| Use of a diaphragm and use of spermicides which increase vaginal colonization and adherence of E. coli and colonization of vagina with uropathogens |
question
| What is cystitis? |
answer
| Infection of the bladder wall |
question
| What are the symptoms of Cystitis? |
answer
| Frequency, urgency to urinate, dysuria, suprapubic tenderness, malodorous urine, bacteria and WBCs are common in urine |
question
| What is pyelonephritis? |
answer
| An infection of the kidney and renal pelvis, most commonly following a bladder infection |
question
| What is present in the urine in cases of pyelonephritis? |
answer
| WBCs, cellular casts, bacteria, and protein |
question
| What is glomerulonephritis? |
answer
| Inflammation of the glomeruli in the nephrons |
question
| How is glomerulonephritis detected? |
answer
| Glomerular capillary network becomes leaky allowing plasma protein and blood cells to be excreted in the urine |
question
| Acute prostatitis is often an extension of what? |
answer
| Bladder or urethra infection and often follows urethral instrumentation such as catheterization |
question
| What are pathogenicity islands? |
answer
| Genes for these virulence factors are linked together as multigene segments. Encodes for virulence protiens which are components of finbriae, pili, and outermembrane proteins |
question
| What determines anatomical location of infection? |
answer
| Adhesive properties of virulence factors |
question
| Pathogenicity islands are absent in what? |
answer
| Normal, fecal coliforms |
question
| Pathogenicity islands are similar to plasmids in that they're what? |
answer
| Mobile |
question
| Describe the appearance of E. coli |
answer
| Gram-negative rods |
question
| What is the pathogenicity of E. coli? |
answer
| Adhere to mucosa via pili, causes tissue damage, endotoxin (LPS) causes inflammation |
question
| How is E. coli treated? |
answer
| Penicillin or ciprofloxacin |
question
| What is the function of the P-pilli for E. coli? |
answer
| allows bacteria to bind to P blood group antigens on urinary tract cells, especially kidneys |
question
| What is the function of Type I pilli for E. coli? |
answer
| allows bacteria to bind to bladder, epithelium, and glycoproteins in various cells |
question
| What is the function of the K1 antigen for E. coli? |
answer
| Impedes phagocytosis |
question
| Describe the appearance of Proteus vulgaris and mirabilis |
answer
| Gram-negative rods |
question
| What are the characteristics of Prtoeus vulgaris and mirabilis? |
answer
| Opportunistic, transmitted via catheters, uerase positive and HIGHLY MOTILE, can swarm across agar |
question
| What is the second most common cause of UTIs behind E. coli? |
answer
| Proteus |
question
| What is critical to the virulence of Proteus? |
answer
| Swarming ability |
question
| How does Proteus precipitate the formation of calculi? |
answer
| Urease activity raises pH |
question
| What anti-swarming agent can be used to inhibit the expression of virulence factors in Proteus? |
answer
| Para-nitrophenyl glycerol (PNPG) |
question
| What is used to treat Proteus causing UTIs? |
answer
| Broad spectrum penicillins and cephalosporins |
question
| Proteus shows resistance to what drugs? |
answer
| Nitrofurantoin and tetracycline |
question
| Describe the appearance of Stpahylococcus saprophyticus |
answer
| Gram positive cocci |
question
| What are the characteristics of Staphylococcus saprophyticus? |
answer
| Nitrate and coagulase NEGATIVE Catalase POSITIVE Novobiocin RESISTANT Nonhemolytic --> gamma-hemolysis |
question
| Enterococcus faecalis can cause what types of maladies? |
answer
| Endocarditis, cystitis, wound infections |
question
| Enterococcus faecalis is grown on what media? |
answer
| Blood agar (gamma hemolysis) and Bile-esculin agar (causes black discoloration) |
question
| How is Enterococcus faecalis trated? |
answer
| Amoxicillin, Ampicillin, Vancomycin |
question
| Describe the appearance of Klebsiella |
answer
| Gram negative rods, non-motile, forms large MUCOID colonies |
question
| What protects Klebsiella from phagocytosis? |
answer
| K antigen |
question
| What is used to treat Klebsiella infections? |
answer
| Cephalosporins |
question
| What can increase the risk of Candida infections? |
answer
| Broad-spectrum antibiotics, pregnancy, diabetes, AIDS, surgery, indwelling catheters |
question
| What most often causes a Candida infection |
answer
| Use of antibiotics that kill normal flora allow for infection |
question
| What is used to treat Candida infections? |
answer
| Topical nystatin or clotrimazole |
question
| What is necessary for Candida virulence? |
answer
| Germ tube formation which is induced by D-glucose and a pH of 7-8 |
question
| What is th emost common site of nosocomial infections? |
answer
| Catheter associated UTIs |
question
| The isolation of what pathogens would imply acquisition from an exogenous source due to their absence in normal GI flora? |
answer
| Serratia marcescens and Pseudomonas cepacia |
question
| The majority of catheter associated UTIs are due to what? |
answer
| Endogenous bowel flora |
question
| What might lead to precipitation of phosphatic salts, stone formation and eventual blockage due to growth on catheters? |
answer
| Microorganisms such as Proteus mirabilis |
question
| A UTI caused by Schistosoma haematobium can lead to what? |
answer
| Renal failure due to obstructive uropathy, pyelonephritis, bladder carcinoma, may vacilitate the spread of STDs due to causative lesions |
question
| How do you diagnose Schistosoma haematobium? |
answer
| Identify and speciate eggs in the urine over a 24hr urine collection. Watch for hasting at room temp if necessary |
question
| How do you treat Schistosoma haematobium? |
answer
| Antihelmintics --> Praziquantel |
question
| Dark brown to red urine suggests the possible presence of what? |
answer
| Porphyrins |
question
| Black-brown urine suggests the presence of what? |
answer
| Melanins |
question
| What is used to detect nitrites in urine? |
answer
| Griess' Reaction |
question
| What do nitrites in urine indicate? |
answer
| Bacteriuria, though not all bacteria convert nitrate to nitrite, mostly gram-negatives |
question
| The presence of leukocytes in urine indicates what? |
answer
| Leykocyte esterase activity in WBCs |
question
| Blood in the urine indicates what? |
answer
| Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin |
question
| How does yeast present in urine? |
answer
| Does not come up in lab testing, requires microscopic evaluation |
question
| Hyaline casts in urine indicate what? |
answer
| Capillary membrane damage with proteinuria |
question
| Most UTIs are treated with what? |
answer
| Amoxicillin (TMP-SX) and levaquin (fluoroquinolone) |
question
| How are UTI's caused by chlamydia and mycoplasma treated? |
answer
| Tetracycline or doxycycline |
question
| Nonsecreters are at higher risk for UTIs. How is secretion genetically determined? |
answer
| Presence of secretor gene (Se) is inherited independent of ABO and H genes responsible for A, B, and H antigens that are secreted. However, the H-gene is a necessary precursor for ABO, so all seretors will have the H gene |
question
| Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by what? |
answer
| IgE --> allergy, anaphylaxix, asthma, an immune response releases vasoactive and spasmogenic substances that act on vessels and smooth muscles |
question
| Type II hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by what? |
answer
| Antibodies, promotes cell phagocytosis or lysis and cellular injury by inducing inflammation |
question
| What are the classic examples of Type II hypersensitivity? |
answer
| Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and Goodpasture's syndrome |
question
| How is Goodpasture's diagnosed? |
answer
| Antibody targeting non-collagenous domain of type IV collagen |
question
| Type II hypersensitivity reactions always present in what way? |
answer
| Always localized, antigen is always fixed or bound to either cell, tissue, or ECM |
question
| Type III hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by what? |
answer
| Immune response, antigen is NOT fixed, binds antibodies and induces inflammation, recruites leukocytes, is almost NEVER localized |
question
| What is the only type III hypersensitivity reaction that is localized? |
answer
| Arthus reaction (Tetanus reaction) |
question
| Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by what? |
answer
| Cell-mediated immune disorder via sensitized T-lymphocutes, Th1 lymphocytes/CD4, etc. Ex. contact dermatitis, MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, type I diabetes, transplant rejection, tuberculosis |
question
| What are the 3 criteria of autoimmune dissorders? |
answer
| Presence of autoimmune reaction Evidence that it is not secondary to tissue damage The absence of another well defined cause of the disease |
question
| What is the dominant genetic factor that affects susceptibility to autoimmune disease/ |
answer
| HLA |
question
| Reactive arthritis is associated with what gene? |
answer
| HLA-B27 |
question
| What is central tolerance? |
answer
| Development of tolerance to self-antigens when encountered in PRIMARY sites of maturation such as lymphoid organs |
question
| What is the function of AIRE (autoimmune regulator gene) in central tolerance? |
answer
| Encodes a transcription factor that normally induces hundreds of genes in the cells of peripheral tissues as well as the thymus which are recognized by T lymphocytes that then undergo NEGATIVE SELECTION, leaving only T-cells that do not recognize the self proteins |
question
| A defective AIRE gene gives rise to what? |
answer
| Inherited autoimmune polyglandular disease (APD) or autoimmune polyendocrinopathy-candidiasis-ectodermal dystrophy (APECED) |
question
| What is peripheral tolerance? |
answer
| Development of tolerance when mature lymphocytes encounte rself-antigens in peripheral tissues |
question
| What is anergy? |
answer
| Prolonged or irreversible functional inactivation of lymphocytes that encounter antigens in the periphery under specific conditions. A component of peripheral tolerance |
question
| What is required for anergy? |
answer
| In absence of a second signal (CD28/B7) OR Inhibitory signal mediated via CTLA4/B7 interaction |
question
| Where do regulatory T cells develop? |
answer
| In the thymus or in the periphery via recognition of self-antigens |
question
| What mediates the development of regulatory T cells? |
answer
| IL-10 or TGF-beta secretion |
question
| What gene is required for the development of regulatory T cells? |
answer
| Foxp3 gene |
question
| A mutation in the Foxp3 gene causes what |
answer
| IPEX = immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked |
question
| How do regulatory T cells suppress autoreactive T cells? |
answer
| They recognize autoantigens presented in the context of MHC-II molecules |
question
| What facilitates clonal deletion in peripheral tolerance? |
answer
| Fas/GasL interaction expressed by activated T cells that recognize self antigens, leads to apoptosis |
question
| Mutation of the Fas gene results in what? |
answer
| ALPS = autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome |
question
| What are the characteristics of ALPs? |
answer
| Lacks Fas molecules, cannot control size of lymphocyte population or remove autoimmune cells, secondary lymphoid organs cell and autoimmune reactions occur |
question
| What are immune privileged sites? |
answer
| Tissues wher eantigens are hidden from the immune system due to lack of communication with blood and lymph. e.g. testes, eye, brain |
question
| How does sympathetic opthalmia occur? |
answer
| Trauma to one eye results in release of intraocular protein antigens which are carried to lymph nodes and activate T cells. Effector T cells return and attack antigen in both eyes |
question
| When immature B lymphocytes interact strongly wit self-antigens in the bone marrow, B cells are deleted via what process? |
answer
| Clonal deletion induces apoptosis |
question
| What is clonal anergy? |
answer
| Autoreactive B cells in lymph nodes fail to receive T cell help or enter primary lymphoid follicles, are trapped in T cell zone and undergo apoptosis. When the migrate to periphery, they remain anergic, encounter T cell specific their autoantigens, and activates Fas/FasL to induce apoptosis |
question
| As a rule, autoimmune diseases are never caused by what immunoglobulin complex? |
answer
| IgE |
question
| The formation and deposition of soluble immune complexes in autoimmune disease corresponds to what type of hypersensitivity? |
answer
| Type III |
question
| What causes complement activation leading to autoimmune hemolytic anemia? |
answer
| IgG and IgM abs binding to components of erythrocyte surfaces |
question
| What are the 3 different means of RBC destruction in autoimmune hemolytic anemia following IgG/IgM binding induced complement activation? |
answer
| FcR+ cells in the spleen inducing phagocytosis Complement activation and CR1+ cells in the spleen inducing phagocytosis Complement activation and intravascylar hemolysis |
question
| An uncommon autoimmune disease characterized by the presence of circulating autoantibodies targeting non-collagenous domains of the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen is known as what? |
answer
| Goodpasture Syndrome |
question
| The autoantibody targeting the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen seen in Goodpasture Syndrome intiates inflammatory destruction of what? |
answer
| Basement membranes in renal glomeruli and lung alveoli |
question
| How do you diagnose Goodpasture's syndrome? |
answer
| Linear IgG deposition on glomerular basement membranes and alveolar membranes detected by immmunofluorescence and the presence of anti-basememt membrane antibodies in the serum |
question
| Both Goodpasture's and SLE autoantibodies show up on immunoflourescence. How are they distinguished? |
answer
| GPS is smooth, linear while SLE is lumpy/bumpy |
question
| How is Goodpasture's treated? |
answer
| Primarily via **plasmapheresis. Also can prescribe *prednisone for immunosuppression of new Ab formation |
question
| An autoimmune blistering disease that results from a loss of normal intracellular attachment integrity is known as what? |
answer
| Pemphigus |
question
| What is the most common typ eof pemphigus? |
answer
| Pemphigus vulgaris |
question
| How does pemphigus present? |
answer
| Initialy as oral ulcers that progresses to skin involvement. Primary superficial vesicles and bullae that rupture easily and leave shallow erosions covered with crust |
question
| What is the main complication of pemphigus? |
answer
| Secondary bacterial infection and EXTREME loss of fluid** |
question
| Which strain of pemphigus is wart-like and presents on the axilla, groin, and flexure surfaces? |
answer
| Pemphigus vegetans |
question
| Which strain of pemphigus is benign and shows up on the scalp, face, chest, and back with a lack of bullae due to fragility? |
answer
| Pemphigus foliaceus |
question
| Which strain of pemphigus is less severe and involves the malar area in lupus-like fashion? |
answer
| Pemphigus erythematous |
question
| Pemphigus involves acantholysis which is the loss of attachment of what? |
answer
| Attachment between keratinocytes due to deposition of Abs against desmosomes** |
question
| Pemphigus foliaceus deposits Abs that react with what? |
answer
| Desmoglein-1 present in the superficial layers of the epidermis |
question
| Pemphigus vulgaris, the most common cause of pemphigus, deposits Abs that react with what? |
answer
| Desmoglein-3** present in deeper layers of the epidermis |
question
| Rheumatic fever is a complication of what? |
answer
| Infection by Streptococcal pharyngitis or Streptococcal pyogenes |
question
| What is the Jone's criteria of diagnosis? |
answer
| 2 major or 1 major + 2 minor criteria to confirm rheumatic fever |
question
| What are the major Jone's criteria? |
answer
| Carditis, arthritis, chorea, subcutaneous nodules, arythema marginatum |
question
| What are the minor Jone's criteria? |
answer
| Fever, joint pain, evidence of electrical changes in the heart |
question
| How do you treat Rheymatic fever? |
answer
| 10 day course of penicillin |
question
| Rheumatic fever most commonly damages which valves? |
answer
| Mitral (most common), aortic (2nd most common) |
question
| A hyperthyroid state due to an autoimmune abs acting as agonists on TSH receptors is known as what? |
answer
| Grave's disease |
question
| Grave's disease is biased towards which thyroid response? |
answer
| TH2 |
question
| Graves disease commonly has what secondary manifestation? |
answer
| Hypertension |
question
| Grave's disease is associated with what disease? |
answer
| HLA-B6 and HLA-DR3 |
question
| Most patients with Grave's disease have what antibody in their plasma? |
answer
| TSH:receptor ab |
question
| What are the symptoms of Grave's disease? |
answer
| Heat intolerance, nervouseness, irritability, weight loss, BULGING EYES, pretibial myxedema, tremor, enlarged thyroid |
question
| What causes exophthalmous bulging eyes in Grave's disease? |
answer
| Increased volume of retro-orbital connective tissue and extraocular muscle due to proteoglycan and HA accumulation |
question
| Graves disease shows what labs? |
answer
| Inc T3 and T4, dec TSH, increased TSH-r Ab and ANA levels w/o evidence of SLE |
question
| How do you treat Grave's disease? |
answer
| Propranolol (symptomatic), Methimazole and Propylthiouracil (thyourea drugs) or thyroidectomy/ablation |
question
| What disease is characterized as an autoimmune reaction against thyroid cells causing thyroid destruction and a hypothyroid condition? |
answer
| Hashimoto's Thyroiditis |
question
| Hashimoto's Thyroiditis is notable in among thyroid disorders in that it is what? |
answer
| Most common thyroid disorder in the US |
question
| How does Hashimoto's Thyroioditis usually occur? |
answer
| Infection or non-specific inflammation causes IGN-gamma to induce HLA II, a normally absent molecule, to be expressed on thyroid cells. Specific T cells induce an autoimmune response |
question
| What are the symptoms of Hashimoto's Thyroiditis? |
answer
| Enlarged thyroid, depression, fatigue, dry mouth, dry eyes, thyroid antibodies |
question
| What thyroid antibodies can be seen in Hashimoto's thyroiditis? |
answer
| Antithyroid peroxidase** (90%) Antithyroidglobulin** (40%) |
question
| How is Hashimoto's thyroiditis treated? |
answer
| Synthetic thyroid |
question
| Myasthenia Gravis is characterized by what? |
answer
| Blockade of AcH receptor by autoantibodies resulting in progressive muscle weakness |
question
| What are the symptoms of myasthenia gravis? |
answer
| Dropy eyelids and double vision progressing to muscle weakness in the face to the trunk and extremities with possible breathing difficulty |
question
| How is myasthenia gravis diagnosed? |
answer
| AcH ab detection and edrophonium test |
question
| Type III hypersensitivity (immune-complex) is most often associated with what diseases? |
answer
| SLE and Hepatitis |
question
| What is characteristic of SLE? |
answer
| Autoimmune response directed at autoantigens present in almost every cell in the body, has characteristic IgG abs which initiate inflammation, tissue destruction, and the release of soluble immune complexes |
question
| How does SLE present? |
answer
| Butterfly shaped skin rash on face resembling a "wolf's head" due to deposition of immune complexes, may be provoked by sunlight |
question
| What are the 2 most common symptoms of SLE? |
answer
| Glomerulonephritis and arthritis |
question
| How does SLE cause glomerulonephritis? |
answer
| Hypercellularity due to proliferation of mesengial cells and endothelial cells in response to antigen-ab complex deposition |
question
| How is SLE diagnosed? |
answer
| 40-60% have anti-DNA ab, 95% ANA-ab but this is NONSPECIFIC, 20-30% have anti-Sm (smith antigen), typically have HIGH IgG and LOW C3/C4 |
question
| What drugs can induce SLE-like responses? |
answer
| Hydrallazin, Procainamide, D-peniccillamine, Isoniazid |
question
| How does intermolecular epitope spreading of SLE occur? |
answer
| Q-specific T-cell recognizes same epitope present by MHC-II on all 3 types of B cells (P, Q, R). The reverse with B cells and P, Q, R T-cells canalso occur, helps recognize same epitope on different antigens |
question
| How is SLE treated? |
answer
| High dose of Prednisone |
question
| How is Chronic Discoid SLE different from classic SLE? |
answer
| Mimics skin manifestations by systemic manifestations are rare, anti-DNA ab is rarely present |
question
| Skin biopsy shows deposition of what in pt with chronic discoid SLE? |
answer
| IgG and C3 at dermoepidermal junction (same as classic SLE) |
question
| How is subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus differentiated from discoid lupus erythematosus? |
answer
| Rashes are widespread, superficial, nonscarring, has mild systemic symptoms consistent with SLE, strong association with Abs to SS-A antigen with HLA-DR3 genotype |
question
| Drug induced lupus has an extremely high frequency of what antibody? |
answer
| Anti-histone antibody |
question
| Drug induced lupus is associated with what gene? |
answer
| HLA-DR4 allele |
question
| What bacteria can cause acute glomerulonephritis? |
answer
| A complication of S. pyogenes infection |
question
| Which types of S. pyogenes is nephrogenic? |
answer
| GAS type 12, 3, and 1***** Identification done based on M protein typing |
question
| What characterizes Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)? |
answer
| Necrotizing inflammation of the walls of small/medium sized arteries (NO VEINS) |
question
| Polyarteritis Nodosa is most likely associated with what diseases? |
answer
| HepB and CMV |
question
| How is Polyarteritis Nodosa distinguished from Wegener's? |
answer
| Wegener's involves the lungs, PAN does not |
question
| What are the important type IV hypersensitivity/autoimmunity (T-cell mediated) diseases? |
answer
| Type I diabetes, rheumatoid arthrytis, myltiple sclerosis, celiac disease |
question
| What is the cause of Type I diabetes? |
answer
| Insulin an dglutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) act as an antigen for T cell responses (type IV hypersensitivity) |
question
| What viral pathogen may possibly increase the risk of type I diabetes? |
answer
| Rubella |
question
| How is type I diabetes treated? |
answer
| Daily insulin injection |
question
| What is the cause of multiple sclerosis? |
answer
| Autoimmune response against the myelin sheath of nerve cells causes demyelination of neuronal tissues in the white matter of the CNS (type IV hypersensitivity), causes sclerotic plaques |
question
| What are the causative antigens for multiple sclerosis? |
answer
| All found in the myelin sheath: Myelin basic protein Proteolipid protein Myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein |
question
| Multiple sclerosis is associated with what gene? |
answer
| HLADR2 |
question
| How is multiple sclerosis treated? |
answer
| Initially with immunosuppressive drugs (corticosteroids) and injections of IFN-beta to prevent disease progression. Later more aggressive immunosuppressives such as cyclophosphamides are added alongside corticosteroids |
question
| What is the cause of rheumatoid arthritis? |
answer
| A chronic systemic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause that principally attacks joints via inflammatory synovitis, causing permanent damage and ankylosis (bone fusion). A type IV hypersensitivity reaction |
question
| What is rheumatoid factor? |
answer
| Antiimmunoglobulin antibodies that are produced against the Fc portion of human IgG. Not diagnostic, though prevalent in rheumatoid arthritis |
question
| What is the classical presentation of patietns with rheymatoid arthritis? |
answer
| Affects proximal inter-phalangeal joints with polyarthritic fusiform swelling, is SYMMETRICAL, affects all hand and feet joints in chronic advanced stage |
question
| What is the pathological hallmark of Rheumatoid arthritis? |
answer
| Pannus formation: a mass of synovial stroma consisting of inflammatory cells growing over articular cartilage that causes bone and joint destruction |
question
| What are the major agents involved in pannus formation seen in rheumatoid arthritis? |
answer
| Cytokines IL-1 and TNF-alpha produced by macrophages and activated T cells induce inflammation |
question
| What activates osteoclasts and promotes bone destruction in rheumatoid arthritis? |
answer
| Activated T cells and synovial fibroblasts producing RANKL, contributes to pannus formation |
question
| What are rheumatoid nodules? |
answer
| Formations on the extensor surface of bone that are loosely affixed to underlying boney surface |
question
| How is rheumatoid arthritis diagnosed? |
answer
| 4 out of 7 criteria: Morning stiffness Arthritis in 3+ joint areas Arhtritis in typical hand joints Symmetric arthritis Rheumatoid nodules Serum rh factor Typical radiographic changes |
question
| How is rheumatoid arthritis treated? |
answer
| Anti-inflammatory drugs, immunosuppression, antibodies against TNF-alpha, and physiotherapy |
question
| What causes celiac disease? |
answer
| Specific lesions of small intestines due to abnormal immune responses to gluten protein present in wheat (type IV hypersensitivity) |
question
| What genes are associated with celiac disease? |
answer
| HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 |
question
| T cells in celiac disease have receptors directed against what? |
answer
| Tissue transglutaminase complexes and proline-rich 33 amino-acid fragments, causes inflammation |
question
| All patients with celiac disease have autoantibodies specific for what? |
answer
| Tissue transglutaminase Many also have anti-gliadin antibodies |
question
| What are the symptoms of celiac disease? |
answer
| Diarrhea, flatulence, weight loss, fatigue, malnutrition, some skin manifestations are possible, adults become anemic and depressive, prone to intestinal cancer, children fail to thrive |
question
| How is celiac disease treated? |
answer
| Gluten free diet |
question
| What is the classic characteristic of Sjogrens syndrome |
answer
| Dry eyes and dry mouth |
question
| What causes Sjogrens Syndrome? |
answer
| Lymphocitic infiltration of T cells and fibrosis of the lacrimal and salivary glands (type IV hypersensitivity reaction) |
question
| What autoantibodies are present in Sjogrens? |
answer
| Rh factor, ANAs, SS-A, and SS-B (not diagnostic, all are also present in SLE) |
question
| What are the symptoms of Sjogrens? |
answer
| Blurred vision, burning, itching, and accumulation of ocular secretions, cerostomia causes difficulty swallowing, reduced taste, enlarged parotid gland, dry mucosa, peripheral neuropathy |
question
| How is Sjogrens treated? |
answer
| Symptomatic care, supportive care, artificial tears, sipping water, cholinesterase inhibitors and Ach derivatives may improve xerostomia |
question
| White lesions unlike oral candiasis that cannot be removed by rubbing are what? |
answer
| Leukoplakia |
question
| Leukoplakia with an erythematous component is known as what? |
answer
| Erththroplakia |
question
| Lacy leukoplakia that may be erosive which requires a biopsy for diagnosis is known as what? |
answer
| Oral lichen planus |
question
| Leukoplakia that eventually invades into the tongue mass is known as what? |
answer
| Oral cancer |
question
| What causes leukoplakias? |
answer
| Chronic irritations from tobacco, dentures, excessive alcohol |
question
| The majority of erythroplasias are either what? |
answer
| Dysplasia or carcinoma |
question
| How is oral lichen planus treated? |
answer
| Corticosteroids, Cyclosporines, Retinoids |
question
| What are some predisposing conditions for oral candidiasis? |
answer
| Oral dentures, chronic debilitating disease, diabetes melitus, chronic anemia, chemotherapy, immunosuppression |
question
| How is Candida albicans diagnosed? |
answer
| Spore, non-septate hyphae, pseudo phyphae, and germ tube identification |
question
| How is Candida albicans treated? |
answer
| Locally via nystatin mouth rinse and systemically with fluconazole or itraconazole if fluconazole resistant |
question
| What is glossitis? |
answer
| Inflammation of the tongue with loss of filiform papillae leading to a red, smooth surfaced tongue |
question
| Glossitis is usually secondary to what? |
answer
| Nutritional deficiency, drug reaction to ACE inhibitors, dehydration, irritants, autoimmune reactions such as Sjogrens or psoriasis |
question
| Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (ANUG or Trench Mouth) is found among whom? |
answer
| Young individuals under stressful conditions caused by mixed bacterial infections |
question
| What are the characteristics of ANUG/Trench mouth? |
answer
| Painful gingival inflammation and necrosis, bleeding, halitosis, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy |
question
| Synergistic infections between what types of pathogens is typical of ANUG/Trench mouth? |
answer
| Spirochetes and anaerobic bacteria such as Fusobacterium |
question
| What causes ANUG/trench mouth? |
answer
| Stress, malnutrition, or immunodeficiency. Not contagious |
question
| Fusobacterium pathogenesis is mediated by what? |
answer
| LPS |
question
| How is ANUG/trench mouth treated? |
answer
| Clinamycin and 3rd gen Cephalosporin |
question
| Aphthous ulcers/cancer sores/ulcerative stomatitis is caused by what? |
answer
| Uncertain, though association with HHV6 is suggested |
question
| Where are cancer sores found? |
answer
| Non-karatinized mucosa, buccal and labial mucosa, NOT on gingiva or palate |
question
| What do cancer sores look like? |
answer
| Painful ulcers with irregular margin and yellow-grey fibrinoid center surrounded by red halo** |
question
| Cancer sores occur in relation to what? |
answer
| Stress |
question
| How are Aphthous ulcers/cancer sores/ulcerative stomatitis treated? |
answer
| Nonspecific, topical corticosteroids, oral prednisolone, thalidomide if recurrent in HIV patients** |
question
| What is noma, aka cancrum oris? |
answer
| Severe gangrenous stomatitis progressing beyond the mucus membrane to involve soft tissue, skin, and ocasionaly bone |
question
| What types of patients exhibit noma (cancrum oris) |
answer
| Severely debilitates patietns and people with poor oral hygiene, immunocompromised, malnourished, sometimes precipitated by measles |
question
| What are the etiologic agents of noma/cancrum oris? |
answer
| Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and P. aeruginosa |
question
| What are the 3 clinical forms of oral herpes simplex? |
answer
| Recurrent small blisters on the lips (aka herpes labialis, most common type) Generalized oral infections (aka herpetic stomatitis) Small ulcers found on the palatal mucosa |
question
| What causes hand foot mouth disease in children under age 6? |
answer
| Coxsackie virus type A16 |
question
| How do you treat herpetic stomatitis? |
answer
| Acyclovir |
question
| What causes pharyngitis? |
answer
| An infection of the pharyngeal mucosa, most often viral (though bacterial is possible as well) |
question
| Which viruses are most likely to case pharyngitis? |
answer
| Rhinovirus, coronavirus, adenovirus, influenza, and EBV |
question
| What findings suggest a viral cause of pharyngitis? |
answer
| Mild pharyngeal symptoms with rhinorrhea, exudative pharyngitis, vesicular lesions and ulcers, conjunctival congestion, generalized rashes |
question
| What symptoms indicate a streptococcal infection behind pharyngitis? |
answer
| Fever, tender anterior cervical adenopathy, LACK OF COUGH, phayngeotonsillar exudate (3 or more to be likely) |
question
| Sreptococcus pharyngitis has what morphology? |
answer
| Gram positive oval cells growing in CHAINS, non-motile, lactic acid fermetator |
question
| Streptococcus pharyngitis grows best on what medium? |
answer
| Enriched blood agar |
question
| The virulence of Streptococcus pyogenes is mediated by what? |
answer
| Cell wall components, primarily M12 protein |
question
| What test can you use to quickly verify a strep infection? |
answer
| Rapid strep test or GAS rapid antigen detection test (RADT) These are solid phase ELISA tests |
question
| How is Streptococcus pharyngitis treated? |
answer
| Penicillin is first line, amoxicillin plus clavulanate to avoid failure with penicillin, erythromycin and second gen cephalosporin if penicillin sensitive |
question
| What causes diptheria? |
answer
| Corynebacterium diphtheriae |
question
| What is the morphology of C. diphtheria? |
answer
| Gram positive rod, non motile, exhibits CHINESE LETTER PATTERN, catalase positive |
question
| What is the most characteristic feature of diphtheria? |
answer
| Greyish-white membrane on the tonsiles that adheres to the underlying tonsils and is not easily removed, is made up of clotted blood and epithelial cells of host mucus membrane |
question
| The exotoxins of C. diphtheria are also found in what other pathogen? |
answer
| Pseudomonas |
question
| How is diphtheria diagnosed? |
answer
| Clinical diagnosis Definitive diagnosis via culturing on Tinsdale and Tellurite agar |
question
| How is Diphtheria treated? |
answer
| Diphtheria toxin anti-serum alongside penicillin or erythromycin. High mortality even with treatment |
question
| Describe the pathogenesis of Rhinoviruses |
answer
| Infects respiratory epithelium, causing them to lose their ciliary motion and slough off, injury causes inflammation, inducing acute symptoms. Inflammation eventually contains the infection |
question
| How is rihnovirus treated? |
answer
| Pleconaril is in trials, usually self limiting |
question
| Describe the morphology of adenovirus |
answer
| Non enveloped double stranded DNA virus that can remain infectious in environments for long periods but is easily inactivated by heat, chlorine, and disinfectants |
question
| What are the symptoms of adenoviral pharyngitis? |
answer
| Fever, runny nose, grey-white pus on pharynx and tonsils, enlarged cervical lymph nodes, conjunctivitis, and diarrhea |
question
| What symptom is present in adenoviral pharyngitis that is absent in the common cold? |
answer
| Enlarged cervical lymph nodes |
question
| How is adenovirus diagnosed? |
answer
| Lung biopsy and serologic testing |
question
| How is adenovirus treated? |
answer
| Self limiting |
question
| Describe the morphology of coronavirus |
answer
| Enveloped RNA virus with petal or club shaped spikes projecting from its surface giving it the appearance of a crown of thorns |
question
| What are the 3 types of human coronavirus? |
answer
| Etiologic agent for the common cold Enteric infections in the intestines Agent of severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) |
question
| What is essential for the diagnosis of pharyngitis? |
answer
| Pharyngeal pain and pain on swallowing (odynophagia) |
question
| When should a lateral neck X-ray be performed when suspecting pharyngitis? |
answer
| If pt has stridor or respiratory compromise to rule out laryngeal obstructions |
question
| What are the characteristics of Kawasaki's disease? |
answer
| Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome most commonly affecting asian children younger than 5 |
question
| What are the disease characteristics of Kawasaki's disease |
answer
| Fever and four of the following for at least 5 days: Mucous membrane changes (injected pharynx, erythema, or strawberry tongue) Peripheral extremity changes (edema, desquamination, erythema, induration) A polymorphous rash Cervical lymphadenopathy Bilateral nonexudative conjunctivitis |
question
| When do you intervene with warfarin in cases of kawasaki's disease? |
answer
| If an aneurysm larger than 8mm in diameter occurs |
question
| What are the possible complications of bacterial pharyngitis? |
answer
| Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscesses, jugular vein thrombosis, rheymatic heart disease, post-streptococcal GN, acute airway obstruction, myocarditis, neuritis |
question
| What are some possible viral pharyngitis? |
answer
| Secondary bacterial infection |
question
| A peritonsillar or retrotonsillar abscess indicates what type of infection? Characteristics? |
answer
| Bacterial, usually as a complication of tonsillitis Tonsils should be ASYMMETRICAL, common ABOVE 5yo There is a danger of rupture and aspiration pneumonia |
question
| A retropharyngial or lateral pharyngeal abscess arises due to what? |
answer
| A complication of bacterial pharyngitis or accidental perforation of the pharyngeal wall by a foreign body, characterized by pain, inability to swallow, phonation change, and extended neck w/widened space Can rupture --> aspiration pneumonia, also osteomyelitis or acute mediastinitis Seen UNDER 5yo |
question
| What kind of x-ray finding do you see in a retropharyngeal/lateral pharyngeal abscess? |
answer
| Widening of space between cervical spine and posterior pharyngeal wall |
question
| What is first line in treatment of pharyngitis in children? |
answer
| Oral penicillin or amoxicillin in |
question
| What 2nd and 3rd line in treatment of pharyngitis in children? |
answer
| Erythromycin, if penicillin allergic giv clarithromycin, azithromycin, or an oral cephalosporin |
question
| What are the symptoms of rhinnitis? |
answer
| **Headache** Nasal congestion, post-nasal drainage (clear), Watery rhinorrhea, Sneezing Scratchy throat, pharyngotonsilar irritation (from drainage), General malaise |
question
| Why do sinus infections occur? |
answer
| When blockage occurs due to upper respiratory infection or viral rhinitis, the bacteria cannot be removed and are able to grow in numbers and cause an infection |
question
| The change from rhinitis to sinusitis is marked by what? |
answer
| Change from clear and watery to mucoid (yelow/green) rhinorrhea, marks the growth of the first aerobic bacteria |
question
| How often are cases of bacterial sinusitis polymicrobial? |
answer
| 1/3 |
question
| What fungal pathogens are possible (rare) causes of sinusitis? |
answer
| Candida spp. Aspergillus spp. Mucor spp. Rhizopus spp. Absidia spp |
question
| What are the symptoms of acute sinusitis? |
answer
| Usually of bacterial origin (aerobes anaerobes) More dental pain Children rarely complain of headache or facial pain Nasal discharge, congestion, facial pressure, postnasal drip, fever, cough, fatigue, ear pressure |
question
| How is sinusitis linked to smoking? |
answer
| H. influenza growth is stimulated by nicotine, thereby exacerbating infection in smokers |
question
| What are risk factors for sinusitis? |
answer
| Allergic rhinitis, Nasal trauma (including deviated septum), Immune compromised/diabetic, Smoking, Swimming/barotrauma, Nasal polyps, Cocaine abuse |
question
| How might Pseudomonas aeruginosa give someone sinusitis in a hospital setting? |
answer
| Common as a nosocomial infection from nasal tubes or catheters |
question
| What pathogen most commonly infects nasal passage hair follicles during a sinus infection? |
answer
| Staphylococcus aureus |
question
| What is the potential complication of fungal sinusitis? |
answer
| If invasive, will spread into CNS and eyes |
question
| Which strains of fungi that cause sinusitis are invasive? |
answer
| ? Rhizopus spp., Mucor spp., Absidia spp. |
question
| What is the most common complication of bacterial sinusitis? |
answer
| Preorbital swelling |
question
| What are some less common complications of bacterial sinusitis? |
answer
| Orbital cellulitis Subperiosteal abscess Orbital abscess Frontal and maxillary osteomyelitis Subdural abscess Cavernous sinus thrombosis Meningitis Brain abscess |
question
| How is sinusitis diagnosed? |
answer
| Clinical diagnosis. Cultures and x-rays are useless. MRI and CTscans may be useful in chronic or rare cases. Only clear useful diagnostic is transilumination |
question
| How do viral and bacterial cases of sinusitis differ? |
answer
| Fungal infections may affect only one sinus. Poor response to nasal decongestants (bacterial). |
question
| What are the two sites of ear infection? |
answer
| Otitis externa and Otitis media |
question
| How are ear infections contracted? |
answer
| Individual is exposed to environment that inhibits or removes cerumen and may also contain pathogens |
question
| What causes ear infections? |
answer
| 98% of cases are bacterial Pseudomonas aeruginosa (20-60%) Staphylococcus aureus (10-70%) Often polymicrobial |
question
| What is the hallmark sign of acute otitis externa ("swimmer's ear")? |
answer
| Tenderness of the tragus (when pushed), pinna (when pulled up and back), or both |
question
| What are the symptoms of otitis externa ("swimmer's ear")? |
answer
| Otalgia (70%), Itching (60%), fullness (22%), hearing loss (32%) |
question
| What was furunculosis? |
answer
| Infected hair follicle in outer third of ear canal, most commonly due to Staph aureus |
question
| What is otomycosis? |
answer
| Fungal infection of the ear canal, aka "tropical ear" Common in humid or tropical environments Causes: Aspergillus (60-90%), Candida spp. (10-40%) |
question
| What are the symptoms of otomycosis? |
answer
| Pruritis and thickened otorrhea (black, green, white) |
question
| How do you distinguish otitis externa from otitis media? |
answer
| Pneumatic otoscopy should show good tympanic membrane motion in AOE and absent or limited mobility in AOM Yellow/green = acute otitis media |
question
| What is malignant Otitis Externa? |
answer
| A complication of acute otitis externa seen in elderly, diabetics, or immune compromised Spreads to posterior cranial bone (osteomyelitis), soft tissue, middle ear, inner ear, and potentially the brai |
question
| What is the most common cause of malignant Otitis Externa? |
answer
| 90% Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
question
| How is malignant otitis externa diagnosed? |
answer
| Raised ESR, and abnormal CT/MRI (bone erosion) are diagnostic. Facial nerve paralysis may be an early symptom |
question
| How does an acute otitis media infection progress? |
answer
| Infection may spread from pharynx to middle ear (URT infection) Abrupt onset otalgia, irritability, otorrhea, or fever Infection is treated or pressure from bacterial growth bursts tympanic membrane |
question
| Acute otitis media must be differentiated from what? |
answer
| Otitis media with a clear effusion, a non-infectious condition of the middle ear |
question
| When is the peak first incidence of acute otitis media? |
answer
| 6-9 months |
question
| What are some risk factors for acute otitis media? |
answer
| Bottle fed, Smoking parents, Attending daycare, Male |
question
| How is acute otitis media diagnosed? |
answer
| Rapid onset (48 hours*) Presence of middle ear effusion Signs and symptoms of middle ear inflammation |
question
| What is Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media? |
answer
| Chronic inflammation of the middle ear and mastoid mucosa in which the tympanic membrane is NOT intact and discharge (otorrhea) is present |
question
| What causes Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media? |
answer
| Untreated acute ototis media |
question
| What causes Cholesteatoma? |
answer
| Prolonged eustachian tube dysfunction, leading to negative pressure that draws the upper flaccid portion of the TM inward. This creates a squamous epithlemium lined sac. When the opening becomes blocked/clogged this can lead to chronic infection |
question
| Cholesteatoma usually leads to what complication? |
answer
| Bone erosion |
question
| How is Cholesteatoma diagnosed? |
answer
| Physical examination reveals an epitympanic retraction pocket or perforation that exudes keratin debris |
question
| What is a complication of cholesteatoma? |
answer
| Osteomyelitis/ Mastoiditis Meningitis Brain Abscess Dural Sinus Thrombosis (DST) Otitic Hydrocephalus Otitis Externa (most common) |
question
| What is Labyrinthitis? |
answer
| Acute onset of continuous, usually severe vertigo lasting several days to weeks, along with hearing loss and tinnitus Cause is unknown but frequently follows upper respiratory tract infections |
question
| What are some ear problems associated with multiple sclerosis? |
answer
| Episodic vertigo and chronic imbalance. Hearing loss is usually unilateral with rapid onset that may abate spontaneously |
question
| What causes "honeymoon cystitis"? |
answer
| Staphylococcus saprophyticus |
question
| Which HLA genes are associated with Addison’s disease, Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis? |
answer
| HLA-DR3 |
question
| A patient presents with complaint of coughing up of blood and blood in urine. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this autoimmune disease pathology? |
answer
| Antibody deposition on both glomerular and alveolar basement membrane |
question
| You order a CBC on a patient suspected to have urinary schistosomiasis. What should you be checking for? |
answer
| eosinophilia |
question
| The main reason Escherichia coli is the most common cause of UTIs is that it is what? |
answer
| an enteric bacterium |
question
| What are the effects of urease activity by proteus mirabilis? |
answer
| Hydrolyzes urea, produces ammonia and carbon dioxide, raises pH precipitating the formation of calculi stones |
question
| Enterococcus faecalis is strongly associated with what bacterial infection? |
answer
| Endocarditis |
question
| Enterococcus faecalis is grown on what? |
answer
| Blood agar Bile-esculin agar (black discoloration) |
question
| Enterococcus faecalis acquires 25% of its genome through what means? |
answer
| Lateral gene transfer between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus Pathogenicity island located on genome produce toxin that forms holes in cell wall and allow for adherence |
question
| Enterococcus faecalis has high antibiotic resistance due to what? |
answer
| Ability to acquire mobile gene elements |
question
| How is Enterococcus faecalis treated? |
answer
| Amoxicillin Ampicillin Vancomycin |
question
| UTI caused by Salmonella sp. is suspicion for what? |
answer
| Urinary schistosomiasis |
question
| What are the statistics associated with recurrent UTIs? |
answer
| 20% of women who contract a UTI will suffer another Of these women, 30% will suffer additional UTIs |
question
| What causes Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis? |
answer
| Infection of the damaged valves by normal flora of mouth (Streptococcus viridans) and skin (Staphylococcus epidermidis) |
question
| Graves Disease is associated with what genes? |
answer
| HLA-B8 and HLA-DR3 |
question
| Thickening of basement membrane in SLE is due to what? |
answer
| Immune-complex deposition on the basement membrane The clinical correlate is proteinurea and microscopic hematuria |
question
| The most common causes of death from SLE are what? |
answer
| Renal failure and intercurrent infections |
question
| Does P-ANCA or C-ANCA present in polyarteritis nodosa? |
answer
| P-ANCA |
question
| In 90% of MS patients, the sclerotic plaque contain plasma cells that secrete what? |
answer
| Oligoclonal IgG into the CSF |
question
| Rheumatoid arthritis is most often associated with what gene? |
answer
| HLA-DRB1 |
question
| Patients with Sjogren syndrome have an approximately 40-fold increased risk of developing what? |
answer
| Lymphoid malignancies |
question
| Some patients with limited scleroderma develop a combination of symptoms referred to as CREST which stands for what? |
answer
| Calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, & Telangiectasia |
question
| Reiters syndrome (reactive arthritis) is a clinical tetrad of what symptoms? |
answer
| Urethritis Conjunctivitis (or less commonly uveitis) Mucocutaneou lesions Septic arthritis |
question
| Reiters syndrome usually develops following what kind of infection? |
answer
| Dysenteric infection (with Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, or Campylobacter) or a sexually transmitted infection (with Chlamydia trachomatis, or perhaps Ureaplasma urealyticum) |
question
| What is the clinical presentation of Reiters (reactive arthritis)? |
answer
| The arthritis is asymmetric and involves the major weight bearing joints fever, weight loss The mucocutaneous lesion include balanitis, stomatitis, keratoderma blennorhagicum Most of the symptoms but arthritis subsides within weeks |
question
| How is Reiter's treated? |
answer
| Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the main drugs used Tetracycline in reactive arthritis with C. trachomatis reduce the duration of symptoms Sulfasalazine and anti-TNF agents are tried in patients refractory to NSAID and tetracycline |
question
| What are the most common forms of amyloid protein? |
answer
| AL (amyloid light chain): is derived from plasma cells and contains immunoglobulin light chain AA (amyloid-associated): is a unique non-immunoglobulin protein synstesized by the liver Ab amyloid: found in the cerebral lesion of Alzheimer disease |
question
| How do you differentiate Group A from Group B Strep? |
answer
| Group A strep is bacitracin sensitive |
question
| What is the pathological hallmark of Kawasaki’s Disease? |
answer
| IgA plasma cell infiltration in the visceral organs, lungs, and coronary arteries |
question
| What can be given for influenza post-exposure prophylaxis |
answer
| Amantidine |
question
| What causes Acute Laryngitis? |
answer
| Infection of the larynx that results in an inflammatory reaction Most often viral but can also be bacterial |
question
| Lateral X-rays help exclude what when diagnosing acute laryngitis? |
answer
| Acute bacterial epiglottitis Bacterial tracheitis |
question
| What should be performed when hoarseness persists longer than 2 weeks with acute laryngitis? |
answer
| Direct laryngoscopy |
question
| What causes Croup (Acute Laryngotracheitis)? |
answer
| Subglottic inflammation and edema caused by a viral or bacterial infection of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi |
question
| What is the most common cause of upper respiratory tract obstructionin children between the ages of 6 months to 6 years |
answer
| Croup (Acute Laryngotracheitis) |
question
| What is the most common cause of croup in children? |
answer
| Parainfluenza virus type I and II Influenza A or B RSV |
question
| What is the most common cause of croup in adults? |
answer
| HSV Influenza A or B |
question
| What are the signs and symptoms of croup? |
answer
| Hoarsness of voice Brassy cough Stridor, Fever, Rhinorrhea Ronchi, crepitations or wheezing Diminished breath sound |
question
| Imaging shows what in patients with croup? |
answer
| Narrowing of the air column |
question
| How is Croup treated? |
answer
| Cool air humidification Racemic epinephrine Dexamethasone Intubation may be required if medical management fails Antibacterial if bacterial |
question
| What is Acute Epiglottitis? |
answer
| Respiratory emergency acute inflammation and edema of the epiglottis and can cause upper airway obstruction More common among children between 2-6 years of age Bacterial only |
question
| What causes acute epiglottitis? |
answer
| H. Influenzae type b S. Aureus S. Pneumoniae S. pyogenes |
question
| What are the symptoms of acute epiglottitis? |
answer
| Short, rapidly progressing febrile illness Sore throat (esp. in adults) Dysphagia Shortness of breath Anxious looking and appears toxic Forward leaning with neck extended posture Drooling and muffled voice May have a stridor |
question
| What can aid in rapid diagnosis of acute epiglottitis? |
answer
| Serum latex agglutination test for Hi type b |
question
| What imaging sign do you see in acute epiglottitis? |
answer
| Thumb sign |
question
| Hemophilus influenzae grows best on what? |
answer
| Chocolate agar media Requires hematin (X factor) and NAD (nicotine adenamide diphosphate, V factor) for growth |
question
| Describe the pathogenesis of Hemophilus influenzae |
answer
| Pili and other adhesins bind to epithelial cells Grows between the respiratory epithelial cells The capsule inhibits opsonization and phagocytosis Endotoxin is locally toxic, but does not cause endotoxemia No exotoxins |
question
| Coccobacillus growing on chocholate agar but not on blood agar strongly suggest what? |
answer
| Hemophilus |
question
| What kind of prophylaxis is available for Acute epiglottitis and pneumonia? |
answer
| Rifampin Infants are protected by maternal antibody up to 6 months of age Antibody response to Hib PRP is poor in children less than 18 months of age |
Gram Negative Bacteria
Parasitology
Sexual Reproduction
Pathogenicity Test Questions – Flashcards 87 terms
87 terms
Preview
Pathogenicity Test Questions – Flashcards
question
| parasitic organism |
answer
| a symbiont that harms or lives at the expense of its host |
question
| what are the two types of parasites |
answer
| 1. ectoparasite - lives on the host 2. endoparasite- lives within the host |
question
| what are the four types of hosts |
answer
| 1. final host 2. intermediate host 3. transfer host 4. reservior host |
question
| final host |
answer
| host on ( or in) which parasite either gains sexual maturity or reproduces |
question
| intermediate host |
answer
| serves as a temporary but essential enviroment for some stages of parasites development |
question
| transfer host |
answer
| is not necessary for development but serves as a vehicle to the final host |
question
| reservior host |
answer
| nonhuman organism infected with a parasite that can also infect humans |
question
| infection |
answer
| growth and multiplication of parasite on or within host |
question
| infectious disease |
answer
| disease resulting from infection |
question
| pathogen |
answer
| a parasite organism that causes infectious disease |
question
| pathogenicity |
answer
| the ability for a pathogen to cause disease |
question
| the outcome of a host-pathogen relationship depends on |
answer
| the number of pathogen organisms present virulence of pathogen host's defense or degree or resistance |
question
| virulence |
answer
| measures the degree or intensity of pathogenicity |
question
| 3 things virulence depends on |
answer
| 1. infectivity- the ability to establish a focal poitn of infection 2. invasivness- abuility to spread to adjecent cells or other tissue 3. pathogenic potential - the degree to which pathogens can cause damage to host the major aspect is toxgenicity ( the ability to prodeuce toxins) |
question
| lethal dose 50 (LD50) |
answer
| the number of pathogens that will kill 50% of an experimental group of hosts |
question
| infectious dose 50 (ID50) |
answer
| number of pathogens that will infect 50% of an experimental group of host |
question
| a successful basterial pathogen must be 7 things |
answer
| 1. maintain a reservior - place to live before and after infection 2. be transported to host 3. adhere to, coloinze, and or/ invade host 4. multiply or complete life cycle on or in hsot 5. initially evade host defenses 6. damage host 7. leave host ( return to reservior or enter new host |
question
| all bacterial pathogens must have at least one reservior? |
answer
| true |
question
| for human pathogens what are three reserviors |
answer
| other humans animals enviroment |
question
| what are two types of contact between hosts |
answer
| direct contact- coughing, sneezing, body contact indirect contact- vehicles ( soil, air, water,food), vectors ( living organisms that transmit pathogens), fomites ( inanimate objects that harbor and tranmit pathogens) |
question
| attachment of a parasite to a host is mediated by special molecules or structures called |
answer
| adhesins or ligands which help bind to the receptors of the host cells |
question
| common adhesins or ligands that help the parasite bind to the receptors of the host are |
answer
| fimbriae or pili, glycocalyx or capsule, slime layer, M protein, techoic and liotechoic acids |
question
| what is colonization |
answer
| establishment of a site of microbial reproduction on or within host |
question
| colonization depends on |
answer
| ability of the pathogen to compete |
question
| is the result of colonization necessarily tissue invasion and or damage? |
answer
| no |
question
| what can the invasion of the bacterial pathogen be |
answer
| can be active penetration of hosts mucous membrane or epithelium via lytic substance that alter host tissue |
question
| in what three steps does the invasion os a bacterial pathogen accomplish penetration |
answer
| 1. attack the ground substance and basement membranes of integuments and intestinial lining 2. degrade protein-carbohydrate complexes between cells 3. disrupt the cell surface |
question
| passive penetration of invasion of the bacterial pathogen can be |
answer
| skin or mucous lesions, insect bites, damage by other organism, wounds or abrasions, phagocytosis, endocytosis |
question
| once below mucous membrane bacterium can spread into deeper tissue |
answer
| true |
question
| when bacterium spreads into deeper tissue what might result |
answer
| may involve production or specific products and or enzymes that promote spreading may enter small terminal lymphatic capillaries once the circulatory system is reached the pathogen has access throughout the host. |
question
| when does the pathogen have access throughout the host? |
answer
| once the pathogen has reached the circulatory system |
question
| when does growth and multiplication of the pathogen occur |
answer
| once the pathogen finds the appropriate enviroment within the host |
question
| do some pathogens actively grow in the blood plasma? |
answer
| yes |
question
| bacteremia |
answer
| presences of viable bacteria in blood |
question
| septicemia |
answer
| presence of bacteria or of their toxins in the bloodstream |
question
| the pathogen must leave the cell is it is going to be perpetuated |
answer
| true |
question
| the pathogen leaves the hoat and either moves to -- or to -- |
answer
| another host or into a reservior |
question
| most pathogenic bacteria leave by passive mechanisms for example |
answer
| feces, droplets, saliva,desquamated cells |
question
| virulence factors |
answer
| products or structural components that contribute to virulence or pathogenicity |
question
| example of virulence factors |
answer
| adhesins, capsules, lytic subastances, products promoting spread |
question
| often enviromental factors control expression of virulence factors |
answer
| true |
question
| 3 examples of regulation of virulence factors which are coontroled often by enviromental factors |
answer
| 1. gene for diptheria toxin regulated by iron 2. expression of virulence genes increased by body temperature 3. expression of cholera toxin regulated by PH, temperature osmolarity and available amino acids |
question
| intoxications |
answer
| disease that results from entry of a specific preformed toxin into host |
question
| toxin |
answer
| a substance that alters the normal metabolism of host cells with negative effects on the host |
question
| towins of bacteria are two types |
answer
| exotoxins and endotoxins |
question
| exotoxins |
answer
| soluble, heat liable proteins that are usually released into the surrounding as the bacteria grow |
question
| endotoxins |
answer
| the LPS of the gram negative bacteria |
question
| exotoxins are specialized by specific bacteria ( often with plasmid or prophage containing toxic genes) |
answer
| yes |
question
| are exotixins heat liable proteins which are inactivated at 60-80 degrees celcius? |
answer
| yes |
question
| what are among the most lethal substances known |
answer
| exotins |
question
| exotoxins are not associated with a specific disease and have no specific mechanism of action |
answer
| false they are associated with a specific disease and have a specific mechanism of action |
question
| highly immunogenic ( antitoxin antibodies are formed for endotoxins or exotoxins? |
answer
| exotoxins |
question
| are endotoxons or exotoxins easily inactivated by chemicals? |
answer
| exotoxins, |
question
| formaldehyde and iodine form immunogenic toxiod are examples of chemicals which inactivate endo or exo toxins? |
answer
| exotoxins |
question
| AB exotoxins are composed of two subunits |
answer
| A subunit- responsible for toxic affect B subunit - binds to the target cell |
question
| examples of AB exotoxins entry |
answer
| diptheria toxin |
question
| can AB toxins be specific host site exotoxins? |
answer
| yes |
question
| spcific host site exotoxins may include |
answer
| neurotoxins enterotoxins cytotoxins AB toxins |
question
| neurotoxins |
answer
| usually ingested as preformed toxins target nerve tissue |
question
| enterotoxins |
answer
| target intestinal mucosa elicit profuse fluid secretion |
question
| cytotoxins |
answer
| specific toxic action on cells/tissues of specific organs |
question
| membrane disrupting exotoxins |
answer
| lyses the cell by disrupting the integrity of the membrane they produce pore forming exotoxins which bind to the cholesterol portion of the membrane and insert itself in the membrane |
question
| phospholipases are a type of --- that do what --- |
answer
| are a type of membrane disrupting exotoxins that remove charged heads of phospholipids and destabilizes the membrane |
question
| leukocidins |
answer
| a type of pore forming exotoxin that kills phagocytic leukocytes |
question
| hemolysins |
answer
| are a type of pore-forming exotoxin that kills erythrocytes, leukocytes and many other cells |
question
| streptolysin O |
answer
| a type of hemolysin that is oxygen sensative |
question
| streptolysin S |
answer
| a type of hemolysin that is oxygen stable |
question
| superantigens |
answer
| nonspecifically stimulate T-cells, and cause a massive release of cytokines |
question
| what do superantigens result in |
answer
| systematic toxicity in host and supression of specific immune response |
question
| what are two prime examples of superanitgens |
answer
| 1. staphylococcal enterotoxins that cause food poisioning and the toxin that causes toxic shock syndrome |
question
| with endotoxins what is the toxic portion of the LPS |
answer
| the lipid A, not a singel macromolecular structure seems to be a complex array of lipid residues |
question
| is endotoxins heat stable |
answer
| yes |
question
| when are endotoxins toxic? |
answer
| only at high doses |
question
| are endotoxins highlt immunogenic? |
answer
| no weakly |
question
| endotoxins are usually capable of producing general systematic effect like |
answer
| fever shock blood coagulation weakness diarea inflamation intestinal hemmorage fibrinolysis |
question
| endotoxins bring about effect indirectly by interacting with host molecules and cell activating host systems |
answer
| true |
question
| when endotoxins interact with macrophages they release |
answer
| endogenous pyrogen |
question
| when endotoxins bind to the LPS binding protein they release |
answer
| cytokines |
question
| exotoxins are ---- whereas endotoxins are |
answer
| proteins.. lipopolysaccharides |
question
| endotoxins are released when |
answer
| gram-negative bacteria die and their cell walls undergoe lysis |
question
| what three things on the envasion of a bacteria help the bacteria stay away from the comliment system |
answer
| capsules, lengthened O-chanin, serum restance |
question
| what is serum resistance |
answer
| modifies lipoolingosacharides interfere with formation of membrane attack system |
question
| what is the compliment system |
answer
| The complement system helps or “complements” the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear pathogens from an organism |
question
| what helps bacteria resist phagosytosis of the host cell |
answer
| 1.capsules 2.specialized surface proteins -that block adherence of phagocyctes of bacterium 3.production of leukocidins 4. proteases production- that cleave compliment factor C5a (phagocyte chemoattractant) |
question
| how do bacteria pathognes survive inside phagocytic cells? |
answer
| escape from phagosome before fusion with lysosome prevents fusion of lysosome with phagosome resistance to toxic products of phagolysosome |
question
| how do bacteria pathogens invade the immune responce |
answer
| capsules, genetic variation of surface antigens production of IgA proteases production of proteins that interfere with antibody-mediated opsonization ( the process of targeting an antigen) |
question
| exotoxins are ---- whereas endotoxins are |
answer
| proteins.. lipopolysaccharides |
Bacteria
Chickenpox And Shingles
Gram Negative Bacteria
Infectious Disease
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Signs And Symptoms
WEX 3A – Microbiology – Flashcards 84 terms
84 terms
Preview
WEX 3A – Microbiology – Flashcards
question
| Describe the differences in symptoms between Pontiac fever and Legionnaire's disease. |
answer
| Pontiac fever is an influenza-like illness without pneumonia and Legionnaire's disease is a severe pneumonia |
question
| Which species of Nocardia typically causes chronic pulmonary disease? |
answer
| Nocardia asteroides |
question
| Which species of Rickettsiae causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? |
answer
| Rickettsiae rickettsii |
question
| Which organism causes urethritis? |
answer
| Ureaplasma (Mycoplasma) urealyticum |
question
| Eating raw or poorly cooked meat from what kind of animal can transmit Francisella tularensis? |
answer
| Rabbit |
question
| What is the common name of the disease caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis and Spirillum minus? |
answer
| Rate bite fever |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Legionella pneumophilia? |
answer
| Pontiac fever |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Ehrlichia spp.? |
answer
| HME/HGE/Sennetsu fever |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii? |
answer
| Rocky Mountain spotted fever |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae? |
answer
| Primary atypical pneumonia |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Nocardia asteroides? |
answer
| TB-like pulmonary disease or actinomycotic mycetoma |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Rickettsia akari? |
answer
| Rickettsialpox |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Bartonella quintana? |
answer
| Trench fever |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Francisella tularensis? |
answer
| Rabbit fever |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Ureaplasma urealyticum? |
answer
| Non-gonococcal/chlamydial urethritis |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Rickettsia prowazekii? |
answer
| Epidemic typhus Brill-Zinsser disease |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Coxiella burnetii? |
answer
| Q fever |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi? |
answer
| Scrub typhus |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Rickettsia typhi? |
answer
| Endemic typhus Murine typus |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Brucella spp.? |
answer
| Malta fever |
question
| What disease/condition is caused by Streptobacillus/Spirillum? |
answer
| Rat bite fever |
question
| What is the animal host for Rickettsiae akari? |
answer
| House mouse |
question
| What is the animal host for Rickettsiae prowazekii? |
answer
| Flying squirrel |
question
| What is the animal host for Brucella melitensis? |
answer
| Goat |
question
| What is the animal host for Brucella abortus? |
answer
| Cattle |
question
| What is the animal host for Brucella suis? |
answer
| Swine |
question
| What is the animal host for Brucella canis? |
answer
| Canine |
question
| What is the animal host for Brucella ovis? |
answer
| Sheep |
question
| What is the animal host for Francisella tularensis? |
answer
| Rabbit |
question
| What is the animal host for Streptobacillus moniliformis? |
answer
| Rat |
question
| What is the animal host for Bartonella henselae? |
answer
| Cat |
question
| What is the vector for Rickettsia prowazekii? |
answer
| Human Body Louse |
question
| What is the vector for Rickettsia typhi? |
answer
| Fleas |
question
| What is the vector for Rickettsia rickettsii? |
answer
| Ixodid ticks |
question
| What is the vector for Rickettsia akari? |
answer
| Mites |
question
| What is the vector for Orientia tsutsugamushi? |
answer
| Chiggers |
question
| What is the vector for Coxiella burnetii? |
answer
| Ixodid ticks |
question
| What is the vector for Bartonella quintana? |
answer
| Body Louse |
question
| What is the vector for Ehrilichia chaffeensis? |
answer
| Lone star tick |
question
| What is the vector for Human Granulocytic Ehrlichia? |
answer
| Deer tick |
question
| What is the vector for Ehrlichia sennetsu? |
answer
| Presumed tick |
question
| What are health care associated infections? |
answer
| Infections that occur within a hospital or hospital like setting |
question
| Name two sources of the infecting agent. |
answer
| Exogenous Endogenous |
question
| What types of patient care problems account for the majority of health care associated infections? |
answer
| Problems in patient care practices e.g. improper handwashing, surgical preparation, and laundering procedures |
question
| How are infection control practices enforced? |
answer
| Through the Joint Commission on the Accrediation of Healthcare Organizations |
question
| Define healthcare associated infection. |
answer
| Infections that occur within a hospital or hospital like setting |
question
| Identify the three major "links" in the chain for healthcare associated infections. |
answer
| Agent - the infection itself Transmission - the mode of infection Host- the codition of host prior to infection |
question
| What is an antigen? |
answer
| A specific "foreign" substance, which stimulates an immune response |
question
| What is an antibody? |
answer
| Composed of glycoprotein produced in response to specific antigen stimulation |
question
| What is an epitope? |
answer
| the specific part of the immunogen that specifies the antibody to be produced |
question
| Where are the different types of MHC molecules found? |
answer
| On the surface of tissue and blood cells that identifies a specific individual |
question
| What is an Antigen Presenting Cell? |
answer
| A cell that processes an antigen in a way that antigenic determinants are presented on the cell surface in concert with class II MHC molecules for interaction with appropriate T-cell receptors |
question
| Define chemotaxis |
answer
| A chemical attraction of phagocytic cells to the site of antigenic stimulation |
question
| Define complement |
answer
| A complex series of serum proteins, which interact in a cascade fashion to enhance certain antigen-antibody reactions |
question
| What is the difference between constitutive and induced response? |
answer
| Constitutive response is A nonspecific response which is continuously expressed without any regulation. Induced response is a specific response to a "foreign" substance |
question
| What cells are involved in the cell mediated immunity system? |
answer
| Antigen-Presenting-Cells T-lymphocytes Natural Killer cells |
question
| Which cells are involved in the humoral immune system? |
answer
| Helper T-lymphocytes B-lymphocytes |
question
| Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta? |
answer
| IgG |
question
| Which immunoglobulin is the largest molecule? |
answer
| IgM |
question
| Which immunoglobulins activate complement? |
answer
| IgG |
question
| Which immunoglobulin is produced in the greatest concentration? |
answer
| IgG |
question
| Which immunoglobulin is the major immunoglobulin of allergic reactions? |
answer
| IgE |
question
| Which immunoglobulin is produced first in sequence from plasma cells? |
answer
| IgM |
question
| Which immunoglobulin provides major protection during primary response...secondary response? |
answer
| IgM...IgG |
question
| List three types of disorders of the immune system |
answer
| Immunodeficiency diseases Autoimmune disorders Hypersensitivity |
question
| List examples of Type I IgE mediated hypersensitivity |
answer
| Systemic anaphylaxis Hay fever Asthma Hives Food allergies Exzema |
question
| List examples of Type III immune complex mediated hypersensitivity |
answer
| Systemic lupus erythematosus Rheumatoid arthritis Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis |
question
| What are the three types of infection caused by fungi? |
answer
| Superficial/Cutaneous Subcutaneous Systemic |
question
| What is another term for yeasts? |
answer
| Blastoconidia |
question
| When reading a 10% KOH prep, what do you look for? |
answer
| Fungal elements |
question
| If processing is delayed on a sputum specimen, what, if anything, should be done until processing occurs? |
answer
| Refrigerate |
question
| What polymer is a major component of the fungal cell wall? |
answer
| N-acetyl glucosamine |
question
| True/False Fungi contain chlorophyll |
answer
| FALSE |
question
| Describe the basic characteristics of yeast. |
answer
| Oval or spherical, single cells that rarely form filaments |
question
| What environmental condition allows a dimorph to grow as either a yeast or mold? |
answer
| Temperature |
question
| What are the phyla of the Kingdom Fungi? |
answer
| Phylum Zygomycota Phylum Ascomycota Phylum Basidiomycota Phylum Fungi Imperfecti |
question
| What is a conidium? |
answer
| An asexual reproductive unit |
question
| What are 4 routine media for fungi? |
answer
| Sabourand Dextrose Agar (SDA) Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA) with antibiotics (Mycosel) Brain Heart Infusion Agar (BHIA) Inhibitory Mold Agar (IMA) |
question
| What are the typical temperature requirements for culturing fungi and how rapidly do they grow? |
answer
| Room Temperature Rapid growers - Less than one week Slow growers - 1-6 weeks |
question
| Which cell type of fungi? |
answer
| Eucaryotic |
question
| What are two special media used for fungal growth and the purpose of each. |
answer
| Potato Dextrose Agar (PDA) - enhances sporulation and pigment production Corn Meal Agar - starvation media used for microscopic observation of chlamydospore production in yeasts |
question
| What is another term for yeast cells? |
answer
| Blastoconidia |
question
| What are five reagents and stains used for fungal identification? |
answer
| 1) KOH with Glycerol 2) Calcofluor modification of the KOH mount 3) Lactophenol Cotton Blue 4) India ink 5) Methenamine silver nitrate stain |
question
| What are 8 specimen sources for fungal infections? |
answer
| 1) Abscess 2) Blood Culture 3) Sputum 4) CSF 5) Urine 6) Biopsy 7) Skin and nails 8) Hair |
