Citric Acid Cycle Flashcards, test questions and answers
Discover flashcards, test exam answers, and assignments to help you learn more about Citric Acid Cycle and other subjects. Don’t miss the chance to use them for more effective college education. Use our database of questions and answers on Citric Acid Cycle and get quick solutions for your test.
We've found 5 Citric Acid Cycle tests
AP Biology
Biology
Cell Biology
Citric Acid Cycle
Pulmonary ventilation – Flashcards 154 terms

Adam Howard
154 terms
Preview
Pulmonary ventilation – Flashcards
question
Most ATP production: requires O2, produces CO2 as waste called?
answer
cellular respiration
question
The respiratory and cardiovascular systems cooperate to provide O2, remove CO2 to accomplish this, 4 processes must occur collectively called?
answer
respiration
question
Air is moved in and out of the lungs so gases are continuously refreshed is called?
answer
pulmonary ventilation (breathing)
question
- O2 diffuses from the alveoli to the blood (O2 loading) - CO2 diffuses from the blood to the alveoli (CO2 unloading)
answer
external respiration
question
- O2 is transported from the lungs to the tissue cells - CO2 is transported from tissue cells to the lungs
answer
gas transport
question
- cardiovascular system accomplishes this transport
answer
gas transport
question
- O2 diffuses from the blood to the tissue cells (O2 unloading) - CO2 diffuses from tissue cells to blood (CO2 loading)
answer
internal respiration
question
Four Processes of Respiration they are?
answer
1. pulmonary ventilation (breathing) 2. external respiration 3. gas transport 4. internal respiration
question
- functionally, the system consists of two zones they are?
answer
1. the respiratory zone 2. the conducting zone
question
- the actual site of gas exchange
answer
the respiratory zone
question
- composed of: - the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts & alveoli - all microscopic structures
answer
the respiratory zone
question
all other respiratory passageways is called?
answer
the conducting zone
question
- provides rigid conduits for air to reach gas exchange sites is?
answer
the conducting zone
question
cleanses, warms and humidifies incoming air this is?
answer
the conducting zone
question
Each lung is: surrounded by pleurae and connected to the mediastinum by vascular and bronchial attachments: - called the ?
answer
lung root
question
The anterior, lateral and posterior lung surfaces lie in close contact w the ribs: - form the?
answer
costal surface
question
The lungs - concave inferior surface:
answer
base
question
Blood Supply to the Lungs 2 circulations:
answer
- pulmonary and - bronchial
question
Systemic venous blood that is to be oxygenated in the lungs is delivered by?
answer
pulmonary arteries
question
- lie anterior to the main bronchi this is?
answer
pulmonary arteries
question
- and branch profusely along w bronchi this is?
answer
pulmonary arteries
question
- pulmonary arteries finally feed into:
answer
- pulmonary capillary networks
question
- surrounding the alveoli is?
answer
- pulmonary capillary networks
question
- convey freshly oxygenated blood to the heart this is?
answer
- pulmonary veins;
question
The pulmonary circuit is a what type of circulation?
answer
low-pressure, high-volume circulation
question
- lung capillary endothelium is an ideal place for NZs that act on blood such as?
answer
ACE NZs that inactivate prostaglandins
question
Provide oxygenated systemic blood to lung tissue is?
answer
- bronchial arteries
question
Arise from the aorta enter lungs at the hilum run along branching bronchi
answer
- bronchial arteries
question
- provide a high-pressure, low-volume supply - of oxygenated blood to all lung tissues - except alveoli
answer
- bronchial arteries
question
- there are multiple anastomoses between the two circulations - and most venous blood returns to the heart via?
answer
pulmonary veins
question
Innervation of the Lungs - innervated by both branches of?
answer
- ANS - visceral sensory
question
Innervation of the Lungs - Nerve fibers enter each lung through the?
answer
pulmonary plexus on lung root
question
- run along bronchial tubes and blood vessels
answer
pulmonary plexus on lung root
question
Alveoli The walls are composed primarily of (90%): a single layer of squamous epi cells called?
answer
type I alveolar cells
question
Account for most of our lung volume
answer
Alveoli
question
Provide a huge surface area for gas exchange
answer
Alveoli
question
type I alveolar cells surrounded by a ?
answer
flimsy basement membrane
question
Alveoli External surfaces covered w a cobweb of?
answer
pulmonary capillaries
question
The Respiratory Membrane is made up of the?
answer
capillary and alveolar walls
question
Two simple squamous cells w a very thin membrane between them blood flowing by on one side: air on the other this is?
answer
The Respiratory Membrane
question
Scattered among the type I alveolar cells are?
answer
Cuboidal type II alveolar cells
question
Cuboidal type II alveolar cells (10%) these cells secrete?
answer
surfactant
question
- 3 other significant alveolar features they are?
answer
1. they are surrounded by fine elastic fibers 2. open alveolar pores connect adjacent alveoli 3. alveolar macrophages crawl freely
question
Allow equalization of air pressure and provide alternate air routes to alveoli whose bronchi have collapsed in disease this is?
answer
alveolar pores
question
Old dead ones are swept up and away by cilia to pharynx this is?
answer
alveolar macrophages
question
The Pleurae - form a thin, double-layered serosa
answer
- parietal pleura - visceral pleura
question
- covers thoracic wall and superior face of the diaphragm - continues around the heart and between the lungs
answer
- parietal pleura
question
- forming the lateral walls of mediastinal enclosure - snugly enclosing the lung root
answer
- parietal pleura
question
- covers the external lung surface - dipping into and lining its fissures
answer
- visceral pleura
question
pleurae produce?
answer
pleural fluid
question
fills the slit-like pleural cavity between them is?
answer
pleural fluid:
question
- the suction of excess pleural fluid into lymphatics - maintains a slight suction between?
answer
pleural layers
question
contributes to adherence to the thoracic wall this is?
answer
Lung Lymphatic Drainage
question
- inflammation of pleura
answer
Pleurisy
question
Pleurisy- often results from?
answer
pneumonia
question
Pleura become rough, resulting in friction as pleurisy progresses, pleurae may produce?
answer
excessive amounts of fluid
question
- relieves pain but hinders breathing
answer
Pleurisy
question
- general term for fluid accumulation in pleural cavity:
answer
- pleural effusion
question
- other fluids that may leak into pleural cavity include:
answer
blood blood filtrate
question
Pleural Effusion - blood from?
answer
leaked from damaged vessels
question
Pleural Effusion - blood filtrate from?
answer
From lung capillaries with left side congestive heart failure
question
Mechanics of Breathing: Pulmonary Ventilation consists of 2 phases:
answer
- inspiration: - expiration:
question
- inspiration & expiration: - these are mechanical processes that depend upon?
answer
- volume changes in the thoracic cavity
question
Gases always expand to?
answer
fill their container
question
Volume changes lead to?
answer
pressure changes
question
Pressure changes lead to the?
answer
flow of gases
question
- gives the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas
answer
Boyles Law
question
Boyles Law
answer
- gives the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas
question
Boyles Law at a constant temperature what occurs?
answer
- the pressure of a gas varies inversely w volume
question
Boyles Law mathematically stated as?
answer
question
Boyle's Law - gases always fill their container thus in a large container gas molecules will be?
answer
Far apart and the pressure will be low
question
Boyle's Law - if the volume of the container is reduced gas molecules will be?
answer
Forced closer together and the pressure will rise
question
respiratory pressures are always described relative to?
answer
- atmospheric pressure (Patm)
question
- atmospheric pressure (Patm) is described as?
answer
- the pressure exerted by the air surrounding the body - at sea level = 760 mmHg = 1 atm
question
- a negative respiratory pressure indicates:
answer
- the pressure is lower than atmospheric
question
- 4 mmHg =
answer
756 mmHg
question
- 756 mm Hg is know as what in that region?
answer
"absolute pressure"
question
A positive respiratory pressure is what compared to atmospheric?
answer
- is higher than atmospheric
question
Zero respiratory pressure is what to atmospheric?
answer
Equal to atmospheric
question
- is the pressure in the alveoli - it rises and falls with breathing
answer
Alveolar (Intrapulmonary) Pressure (Pa)
question
Alveolar (Intrapulmonary) Pressure (Pa) At the end of respiration, w the glottis open? what is the aveolar pressure?
answer
- alveolar pressure is zero (equal to atmospheric)
question
As are all pressures in the respiratory tree to cause air to flow into alveoli during inspiration: - alveolar pressure must?
answer
fall to below atmospheric (below 0)
question
- pressure in the pleural cavity is?
answer
Pleural (Intrapleural) Pressure (Pip)
question
Pleural (Intrapleural) Pressure (Pip) fluctuates with breathing but pleural pressure is always?
answer
~ 4 mmHg less than alveolar
question
Pleural is always negative relative to?
answer
alveolar (very important that it's always negative)
question
What causes the negative intrapleural pressure?
answer
syphoning of fluid from the pleural cavity by the lymphatics
question
The collapse tendency of the lungs is about how many mmHg?
answer
4 mmHg
question
The pleural pressure must be at least as negative to?
answer
keep the lungs expanded
question
- 2 forces tend to make the lungs collapse
answer
1. natural elasticity of the lungs 2. the surface tension of the alveolar fluid
question
1. natural elasticity of the lungs - tendency to recoil: always assume?
answer
smallest size possible
question
2. the surface tension of the alveolar fluid Molecules of fluid lining alveoli attract each other this produces surface tension that do what?
answer
constantly acts to draw alveoli to smallest size
question
Lung Collapsing Forces are Opposed by?
answer
-Natural elasticity of the chest wall - a force that tends to pull thorax outward - And enlarge the lungs
question
There are opposing forces that exist in the thorax. The net result is a?
answer
negative pleural pressure (Pip)
question
The negative pleural pressure is very important because it?
answer
holds the lungs to the thoracic wall
question
Any condition that equalizes Pip w Pa causes?
answer
immediate lung collapse
question
Atelectasis AKA?
answer
Alveolar Collapse
question
Atelectasis: Alveolar Collapse occurs when?
answer
- bronchiole becomes plugged -chest wound -rupture of the visceral pleura
question
Atelectasis: Alveolar Collapse What happens with alveoli?
answer
the associated alveoli absorb all their air and collapse
question
the difference between alveolar and pleural pressures
answer
Transpulmonary Pressure
question
transpulmonary pressure forumla is?
answer
Pa - Pip
question
what keeps air spaces open (it keeps the lungs from collapsing) at the end of a normal expiration:
answer
transpulmonary pressure
question
Transpulmonary Pressure - 0 - (- 4 mmHg) =
answer
4 mmHg
question
The size of the transpulmonary pressure determines the?
answer
size of the lungs at any time
question
the greater the transpulmonary pressure the
answer
larger the lungs
question
Back to Pulmonary Ventilation: Inspiration The inspiratory muscles contract to cause?
answer
enlarging the thorax
question
The diaphragm contracts moving how? and doing what?
answer
Inferiorly Increasing the height of thorax
question
- external intercostals contract causing?
answer
- lifting ribs increasing diameter of thorax
question
Back to Pulmonary Ventilation: Inspiration - this increases the thoracic volume by?
answer
500mL
question
Expansion of the thorax during inspiration causes?
answer
- stretches the lungs and alveolar volume increases
question
Expansion of the thorax during inspiration stretches the lungs and alveolar volume increases so what happens with alveolar pressure?
answer
alveolar pressure drops - about 1mmHg below atmospheric
question
Anytime alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric what happens with air?
answer
- air rushes into the lungs along its pressure gradient
question
Pleural Pressure during Inspiration - at the beginning of inspiration pleural pressure is what mmHg?
answer
~ - 5 mmHg
question
Pleural Pressure during Inspiration - Then during inspiration expansion of the chest pulls outward on the lungs and creates?
answer
more negative pressure: ~ - 7 mmHg
question
Pleural Pressure during Inspiration - inspiration ends when:
answer
- alveolar pressure equals atmospheric Pa = Patm (or 0 mmHg)
question
During forced inspiration: as in vigorous exercise, some COPDs accessory muscles will do what?
answer
further ↑ thoracic volume
question
Accessory muscles further ↑ thoracic volume are?
answer
- scalenes -sternocleidomastoid -pectoralis minor (any muscle that elevates the rib cage)
question
In healthy: quiet expiration is a passive process - that depends on?
answer
lung elasticity
question
Inspiratory muscles relax - the rib cage does what? and the lungs?
answer
descends lungs recoil
question
Expiration - both thoracic and pulmonary volumes decrease this will?
answer
compresses alveoli: - so Pa rises to about 1mmHg above atm
question
Whenever alveolar pressure exceeds atmospheric (Pa > Patm) the pressure gradient does what?
answer
forces gases out of the lungs
question
- forced expiration is an active process they do what?
answer
- contract abdominals: - internal intercostals:
question
- forced expiration - contract abdominals causes what movement?
answer
- increases intra-abdominal pressure - forcing abdominal organs superiorly
question
- forced expiration - internal intercostals do what movement?
answer
- depress the rib cage
question
Forced expiration - contract abdominals: - internal intercostals: - both do what to thoracic volume?
answer
decrease thoracic volume
question
Physical Factors Influencing Pulmonary Ventilation - inspiratory muscles consume NRG to?
answer
expand the thorax
question
Physical Factors Influencing Pulmonary Ventilation NRG must also be expended to overcome other factors that hinder pulmonary ventilation - such as?
answer
1. airway resistance 2. alveolar surface tension 3. lung compliance
question
Airway Resistance the relationship between?
answer
gas flow (F) pressure (P) resistance (R)
question
Airway Resistance equation is?
answer
- F = ΔP/ R
question
The amount of gas flowing into and out of the alveoli is directly proportional to the? or the?
answer
-change in pressure -the pressure gradient between the atmosphere and the alveoli
question
Usually, small changes in the pressure gradient produce?
answer
large changes in volume of air flow (F)
question
the average pressure gradient during normal quiet breathing is how many mmHg?
answer
2mmHg or less
question
The average pressure gradient during normal quiet breathing is ~ 2mmHg or less and that is sufficient to move how many mL of air with each breath?
answer
500 ml of air with each breath
question
gas flow varies inversely with
answer
resistance
question
Gas flow decreases as resistance does what?
answer
increases
question
Airway resistance is usually insignificant because of what issues?
answer
1. airway diameters are huge relative to the low viscosity of air 2. as airways get smaller, there are more branches
question
Airway resistance is usually insignificant because: 1. airway diameters are huge relative to the low viscosity of air 2. as airways get smaller, there are more branches - so the total cross-sectional area is what size?
answer
huge
question
At any gas-liquid boundary molecules of liquid are more strongly attracted to each other than to what?
answer
gas
question
At any gas-liquid boundary molecules of liquid are more strongly attracted to each other than to the gas This unequal attraction produces a state of tension at the liquid surface called?
answer
surface tension
question
draws liquid molecules closer together (contracts them)
answer
Surface tension
question
Water is composed of highly polar molecules and has a very high surface tension. As the major component of the film coating alveolar walls it is always acting to?
answer
reduce alveoli to their smallest size
question
If fluid was pure water, alveoli would collapse between breaths but surfactant (produced by Type II alveolar cells) causes what?
answer
- decreases cohesiveness of water molecules - reduces surface tension of the alveolar fluid
question
Surfactant - Decreases cohesiveness of water molecules - Reduces surface tension of the alveolar fluid This causes?
answer
Less NRG is needed to expand the lungs and discourage alveolar collapse
question
- Fetal lungs don't produce adequate surfactant - until when?
answer
last two months of development
question
- Babies born before that are unable to keep alveoli inflated between breaths - treatment is?
answer
- spray surfactant into airways - use devices that maintain positive airway pressure
question
A measure of the change in lung volume that occurs with a change in transpulmonary pressure this is known as?
answer
Lung Compliance
question
distensibility of the lungs AKA?
answer
Lung Compliance
question
So the more a lung expands for a given rise in transpulmonary pressure how is the compliance?
answer
- the greater its compliance
question
The higher the compliance the easier it is to?
answer
expand the lungs
question
Lung Compliance is determined by 2 factors:
answer
1. distensibility of the lung tissue (generally high if healthy) 2. alveolar surface tension (surfactant keeps this ↓)
question
Healthy lungs tend to have what kind of compliance?
answer
high compliance
question
Any decrease in the natural resilience of the lung what is the compliance status?
answer
diminishes compliance
question
Chronic inflammation or infections causes?
answer
fibrosis (scar tissue to replace normal tissue) decreased surfactant secretion
question
decreased surfactant secretion fibrosis What happens with compliance?
answer
-lower lung compliance -more NRG is needed to breathe
question
Factors that reduce thoracic compliance hinder lung expansion such as what?
answer
deformities of thorax ossified costal cartilages
AP Biology
Biology
Cell Biology
Citric Acid Cycle
Biology 6-8 – Flashcards 103 terms

Richard Molina
103 terms
Preview
Biology 6-8 – Flashcards
question
The outputs of photosynthesis
answer
glucose and oxygen
question
main function of a photosynthetic pigment molecule is
answer
absorb light energy
question
stages of the Calvin cycle
answer
fixation of carbon dioxide, reduction of carbon dioxide, regeneration of RuBP
question
two major chemical units for photosynthesis are
answer
carbon dioxide and water
question
solar energy is converted into the chemical energy of a carbohydrate molecule during
answer
the process of photosynthesis
question
structure that carries out photosynthesis in plant cells
answer
chloroplast
question
fluid filled interior of a chloroplast is
answer
stroma
question
the Calvin cycle reactions occur in the
answer
stroma of the chloroplast
question
Photosystems I & II consist of?
answer
electron acceptor, chlorophyll molecules, carotenoid molecules
question
the color that a pigment molecule appears is the portion of visible light that it
answer
reflects
question
flattened sacs within the storm that are sometimes arranged in stacks called grana
answer
thylakoids
question
in a C4 plant, the Calvin cycle occurs only in the
answer
mesophyll cells
question
reduction is the process by which a molecule
answer
gains a hydrogen atom
question
reaction involving oxidation and reduction at the same time is referred to as
answer
redox reaction
question
when a molecule loses an electron during a chemical reaction its called
answer
oxidation
question
a molecule of RuBP is attached to a molecule of carbon dioxide during?
answer
carbon dioxide fixation
question
the passage of electrons along a series of membrane-bound carrier molecules from a higher to lower energy level is called
answer
electron transport chain
question
when the chlorophyll at the reaction center of photosystem II loses its electrons, these are replace by electrons from:
answer
splitting water
question
produced in the light reaction of photosynthesis is
answer
ATP and NADPH
question
in C4 plants, chloroplasts are located in
answer
bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells
question
the electron lost from the photosystem I is replaced by an electron from
answer
photosystem II
question
coenzymes
answer
non-protein helpers that assist enzymes that carry out oxidation during cellular respiration
question
glycolysis
answer
occurs in the cytoplasm outside the mitochondria, is the breakdown of glucose to two molecules of pyruvate. two ATP are gained
question
citric acid cycle
answer
takes place in the matrix of mitochondria. able to produce 2 ATP per glucose molecules.
question
electron transport chain
answer
a series of electron carriers in the cristae of mitochondria. energy is released and captured as the electrons move from a higher energy to a lower energy state. This energy will be used for the production of ATP.
question
fermentation
answer
anaerobic breakdown of glucose, resulting in the production of two ATP per glucose, ensures that ATP is available for cellular processes.
question
inputs of cellular respiration
answer
oxygen and glucose
question
the preparatory steps, citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain occur inside
answer
mitochondria
question
lactic acid fermentation order
answer
2 ATP are invested, NADH is produced, lactic acid is produced, NADH gives up electrons and hydrogen to another molecule, pyruvate is produced, 4 ATP are produced for a net gain of 2 ATP.
question
which is produced during the citric acid cycle
answer
NADH and FADH2
question
glycolysis
answer
4 ATP (2 as a net gain)
question
citric acid cycle
answer
2 ATP
question
Electron transport chain
answer
34 ATP
question
where does the citric acid cycle occur?
answer
matrix of the mitochondria
question
what are the reactants for cellular respiration?
answer
oxygen and glucose
question
fermentation produces?
answer
lactate
question
the phase of cellular respiration that takes place outside the mitochondrion, does not require the presence of oxygen, and produces two ATP molecules called?
answer
glycolysis
question
for each molecule of glucose, glycolysis produces
answer
the same number of ATP as the citric acid cycle
question
the enzyme ATP synthase is located on the cristae of the mitochondrion's
answer
inner membrane
question
in the electron transport chain cellular respiration, electrons are passed from one molecule to the next. As the electrons move down the chain their energy levels change from
answer
high energy level to lower energy level.
question
fats and oils are processed before they enter cellular respiration and are broken down into
answer
glycerol and fatty acids
question
the outputs from the citric acid cycle are
answer
NADH, CO2, ATP, FADH2
question
what occurs during the energy-investment step of glycolysis?
answer
ATP is broken down to ADP
question
in an animal and human cell, the end result of fermentation is
answer
lactic acid
question
oxidation removes what from a molecule?
answer
hydrogen ions
question
the inter membrane space is found between?
answer
the outer and inner membranes of the mitochondrion
question
the amount of oxygen needed to metabolize lactate is?
answer
oxygen deficit
question
steps of glycolysis
answer
energy-harvesting step and energy-investment step
question
during periods of cell division, DNA and its associated proteins are wrapped and packaged into a short, warlike structure called
answer
chromosome
question
repeating sequence of events in eukaryotes that involves cell growth and cell division and includes the stages G1, S, G2, and mitosis is called
answer
cell cycle
question
two types of molecules that make up chromatin are
answer
proteins and DNA
question
when proto-oncogenes mutate, they become cancer-causing genes called
answer
oncogenes
question
genes that code for proteins that promote the cell cycle and inhibit apoptosis are
answer
proto-oncogenes
question
which phase ends in the formation of 2 daughter cells?
answer
mitosis
question
characteristics that are common to cancer cells
answer
form tumors, do not undergo apoptosis, lack of differentiation, abnormal nuclei
question
the process of asexual reproduction known as binary fission occurs in what group of organisms?
answer
bacteria
question
the mitotic phase during which daughter chromosomes are present at opposite poles and nuclear envelopes reform is?
answer
Telophase
question
the process by which a cancer travels through the blood and lymphatic vessels and then invades new tissues is?
answer
metastasis
question
the attachment point of two chromatids
answer
centromere
question
external signals received at a cell's plasma membrane that promote cell division
answer
growth factors
question
the components of a nucleosome are
answer
histones and DNA
question
what happens during the G2 checkpoint?
answer
verification that DNA has replicated
question
DNA replication occurs during the part of interphase called
answer
S phase
question
in animal cells, cytokinesis starts with the formation of a
answer
cleavage furrow
question
what happens during cell growth or interphase?
answer
replication of DNA and duplication
question
the mitotic phase during which the nuclear envelope disappears, the chromosomes begin to condense, become visible, and appear scattered in the cytoplasm
answer
prophase
question
a mass of cells that have lost all restraint in division and are piled on top of one another is
answer
a tumor
question
collection of fibers that pulls sister chromatids apart during mitosis
answer
spindle
question
the divider across a plant cell that marks the location for a new cell walls and plasma membranes
answer
cell plate
question
angiogenesis
answer
formation of new blood vessels promoted by secretions from cancer cells
question
the process whereby a portion of DNA breaks off one chromosome and reattaches to another chromosome is
answer
translocation
question
during G2 phase what occurs?
answer
proteins required for microtubules are acquired and synthesized
question
the phenomenon that prevents cells from dividing and overflowing is called?
answer
contact inhibition
question
what is located at the tips of chromosomes and shorten with each cell division?
answer
telomeres
question
internal signals that trigger cell growth
answer
cyclins and kinases
question
carcinogenesis
answer
development of cancer
question
telomeres can be rebuilt via the action of the enzyme
answer
telomerase
question
external signals received at a cell's plasma membrane that promote cell division
answer
growth factors
question
area of a cell midway between the poles, where spindle fibers overlap is called
answer
spindle equator
question
primary microtubule organizing center in a cell
answer
centrosome
question
RB gene is a
answer
tumor suppressor gene
question
Identify the cellular structures where photosynthesis occurs and list their functions
answer
chloroplasts - organelles that carry on photosynthesis stroma - a fluid filled area that the membrane surrounds; involved in the synthesis of carbohydrates during photosynthesis. thylakoids - flattened sac within a granum whose membrane contains chlorophyll and where the light reactions of photosynthesis occur grana - stack of chlorophyll-containing thylakoids in a chloroplast. chlorophyll - green pigment that absorbs solar energy.
question
Recognize what is meant by the terms reduction and oxidation.
answer
Reduction - when a molecule gains electrons and hydrogen ions. Oxidation - when a molecule gives up electrons and hydrogen ions.
question
Describe the function of photosynthetic pigments.
answer
absorb energy from the sun
question
Explain the flow of electrons in the light reactions.
answer
the light reactions capture the sun's energy and store it in the form of a hydrogen ion gradient; used to produce ATP molecules and NADPH. both photosystems receive protons. Energy is passed from one pigment into a pair of chlorophyll molecules, called reaction center. PS II - splits water; sends energized electrons, received from the reaction center down an electron transport chain. electron transport chain - establishes an energy; a series of carriers pass electrons from to the other releasing energy stored in the form of a hydrogen ion; later ATP is produced. PS I - produces NADPH; when the PS I pigment complex absorbs solar energy electrons leave it reaction and are captured. NADP+ becomes NADPH.
question
Explain how ATP and NADPH are generated in the light reactions of photosynthesis.
answer
ATP Production - water is split, H+ remain in the thylakoid space; electrons move from the carrier down the electron transport chain; electrons give up energy; more H+ in the thylakoid space; H+ flow down the gradient, and energy is released; this causes the enzyme ATP synthase to change its shape and produce ATP. NADPH Production - NADP+ is a coenzyme that accepts electrons, becoming NADPH. NADP+ receives electrons at the electron pathway in the thylakoid membrane and then picks up a hydrogen ion to become NADPH.
question
Summarize the three stages of the Calvin cycle and describe the major event that occurs during each stage.
answer
Fixation of carbon dioxide - CO2 from the atmosphere is attached to RuBP and the result is is two 3 carbon molecules. Reduction of Carbon dioxide - NADPH and ATP supply needed electrons. Electrons are added from NADPH and carbon dioxide is reduced to form G3P - a carb. Regeneration of RuBP - 5 molecules of G3P are used to re-form 3 molecules of RuBP, (which are needed to begin the next cycle) some of the ATP production by the light reactions is used.
question
Summarize how the output of the Calvin cycle is used to make other carbohydrates.
answer
question
Describe both the advantages and disadvantages of C4 photosynthesis over C3 photosynthesis.
answer
when weather is moderate C3 plants have the advantage, but when the weather becomes hot and dry C4 plants have their chance to take over.
question
Compare and contrast the leaf structure of a C3 plant with that of a C4 plant.
answer
C3 plant - mesophyll cells are arranged in rows and contain chloroplasts. C4 plant - mesophyll cells are arranged in rings around bundle sheath cells. both have chloroplasts.
question
Explain CAM photosynthesis and describe the conditions under which plants can use it.
answer
desert environments at night; CAM plants use C3 molecules to fix CO2 forming C4 molecules; next day CO2 is released and enters the Calvin Cycle within the same cells. Carbon fixation - at night Calvin cycle - during the day
question
cellular respiration
answer
metabolic reaction that uses the energy from carbohydrates, fatty acid, or amino acid breakdown to produce ATP molecules.
question
Explain the role of glycolysis in a cell.
answer
takes place outside the mitochondria, within the cytoplasm of the cell; glucose is broken down to two molecules of pyruvate. Glycolysis is divided into the energy-investment step, when some ATP is used to begin the reactions and the energy-harvesting steps.
question
Give examples of products made by fermenting yeast and bacteria.
answer
alcohol and bread
question
Recognize how alternate metabolic pathways allow proteins and fats to be used for ATP production.
answer
glycerol and fatty acids from fats and amino acids from proteins can undergo cellular respiration by entering glycolysis and/or the citric acid. also provide substrates for the synthesis of fats and proteins.
question
Summarize the purpose of cellular reproduction
answer
it replaces worn ourn-out or damaged tissue new red blood cells, skin cells, cells that line your respiratory and digestive tract. helps repair injuries, helps reproduction of certain organisms necessary for the production of both new cells and new organisms.
question
Understand the relationship of sister chromatids to chromosomes.
answer
question
Summarize the events in each phase of mitosis.
answer
the duplicated nuclear contents of the parent cell are distributed equally to the daughter cells. the daughter nuclei are identical to the parent cell and to each other - they all have to same number and kinds of chromosomes. the sister chromatids separate and are now called daughter chromosomes. Interphase - eukaryotic cell duplicates the contents of the cytoplasm and DNA replicates in the nucleus. Prophase - the chromosomes are condensing, spindle begins to assemble between the separating chromosomes, nucleolus disappears, spindle fibers attach to the chromosomes. Metaphase - the chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator midway between the spindle poles. Anaphase - sister chromatids separate and become daughter chromosomes. Telophase/Cytokinesis - the spindle disappears as new nuclear envelopes form around the daughter chromosomes.
question
Describe the process of apoptosis
answer
programmed cell death. Allows an organism to control cell death. the cell rounds up and loses contact with its neighbors.
question
Explain the role of telomerase in stem cells and cancer cells.
answer
telomerase can rebuild telomeres. the gene codes for telomerase is turned on in cancer cells. The telomeres do not shorten and cells divide over and over again.
question
Identify the relationship between certain genes and cancer.
answer
BRCA1 - breast cancer RB gene - eye tumor - retinoblastoma. RET gene - thyroid cancer
question
Describe the characteristics of cancer cells.
answer
lack differentiation - lose specialization, abnormal nuclei - nuclei is enlarged and contain abnormal number of chromosomes. do not undergo apoptosis - cells do not respond normally to signals form tumors - lose all restraint; pile on top of each other and grow multiple layers undergo metastasis and promote angiogenesis - cells from a malignant tumor may travel through the blood or lymph to start new tumors elsewhere in the body. Angiogenesis - formation of new blood vessels.
question
Describe the factors that reduce the risk of cancer.
answer
avoid smoking, sunbathing, and excessive alcohol consumption. weight loss follow dietary guidelines
Biochemistry
Citric Acid Cycle
Organic Chemistry
Organic Chemistry 1
Module 4: Practice Quizzes and Module Quiz (Ch 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21) – Flashcards 96 terms

Anthony Richie
96 terms
Preview
Module 4: Practice Quizzes and Module Quiz (Ch 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21) – Flashcards
question
A suspension of yeast cells is being grown under anaerobic conditions such that glucose is degraded to ethanol and carbon dioxide. If one wishes to follow this process by monitoring the release of 14CO2, at which positions in the glucose molecule would the 14C label need to be incorporated?
answer
carbons 3 and 4
question
If an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase is added to the above suspension, the cells rapidly die because
answer
the NAD+ needed to keep glycolysis going is not being recycled so the entire process is shut down and no ATP is produced. Correct. The inability to regenerate NAD+ for the glyceraldehyde-3-phoshate dehydrogenase reaction will bring glycolysis to a halt.
question
When glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate oxidatively converted to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate in the presence of phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase, what is reduced?
answer
NAD+ Correct. NAD+ is the electron sink for glycolysis. When an intermediate is oxidized, NAD+ is reduced to NADH.
question
The mechanism of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase does NOT involve
answer
phosphorylation of the substrate using ATP. Correct. Phosphorylation of the substrate occurs but not at the expense of ATP.
question
Although glucose is the major sugar degraded by the glycolytic pathway, other sugars such as galactose and fructose are also derived from food. These sugars
answer
are metabolized by the glycolytic pathway by conversion to intermediates in the pathway. Correct. Both galactose and fructose enter the glycolytic pathway by conversion to intermediates in the pathway. Fructose is converted to fructose 1-phosphate and then to glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone phosphate. Glyceraldehyde is converted to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. Thus, two glycolytic intermediates are produced from fructose. Galactose undergoes four conversions to produce glucose 6-phosphate, a glycolysis intermediate.
question
The three major regulatory enzymes in the glycolytic pathway are
answer
hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase. Correct. These three allosteric enzymes serve key regulatory roles in glycolysis.
question
Well into exercise, the ratio of ATP/AMP in muscle cells decreases. What effect does this ratio reduction have on the activity of phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase?
answer
Both enzymes are increased in activity due to lack of allosteric binding of ATP. Correct. If the energy charge falls, glycolysis is stimulated and both phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase will increase in activity.
question
The processes of gluconeogenesis and glycolysis are said to be reciprocally regulated. This means that
answer
molecules that inhibit (or activate) one process often have the opposite effect on the other. Correct. The idea behind reciprocal control is that a molecule that affects a degradation pathway will affect a synthetic pathway in an opposite manner.
question
In glycolysis, the isomerization of glucose to fructose is necessary because
answer
it is needed to ensure that equal 3-carbon units can be made. Correct. The creation of equal 3-carbon units allows the same enzymatic machinery to use both of the molecules from glucose after it is split, such that a separate glycolytic pathway is unnecessary.
question
Why might a cancer cell show a preference for glycolysis, even in the presence of oxygen?
answer
Tumor cells can readily form a low oxygen environment as they grow. Correct. Rapid growth of tumor cells often creates hypoxic conditions in the interior of a tumor, favoring tumor cells that utilize glycolysis and can survive under those conditions.
question
In actively contracting skeletal muscle tissue, the major way in which glucose is metabolized is via
answer
lactic acid fermentation. Correct. Because the rate of glycolysis exceeds that of the citric acid cycle, most glucose is converted to lactate in actively contracting muscle tissue.
question
Enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but differ in amino acid sequence are called
answer
isozymes. Correct. The muscle and heart forms of lactate dehydrogenase are examples of isozymes.
question
The process of glycolysis results in the formation of two high-energy phosphate bonds (in the form of ATP). How many high-energy phosphate bonds are consumed during the process of gluconeogenesis using pyruvate as a starting material?
answer
6 Correct. Four ATP and two GTP are needed to produce glucose from pyruvate.
question
What product of contracting muscle tissue is used by the liver as starting material for gluconeogenesis?
answer
lactate Correct. Lactate is transported by the blood stream to the liver where it serves as a starting material for the production of glucose.
question
While glycolysis can occur in most cells, the major site of gluconeogenesis is limited to two tissues. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
answer
muscle Correct. Although lactate from muscle tissue can be used as a starting material for the synthesis of glucose, gluconeogenesis does not occur in muscle tissue.
question
Type 2 diabetes is a disease characterized by overproduction of glucose by the liver and its underutilization by other organs. Which of the following is NOT a cause of diabetes?
answer
the generation of enzymes in the blood that rapidly degrade insulin after release from the pancreas Correct. Neither type of diabetes involves rapid degradation of insulin in the bloodstream.
question
The generation of glucose from glucose 6-phosphate occurs in which membrane-bound organelle(s)?
answer
endoplasmic reticulum
question
Which of the following statements is true of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate but not of fructose 6-phosphate?
answer
It contains two phosphate groups.
question
If both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis were simultaneously operating at the same rate, which of the following statements would be TRUE?
answer
Two ATP and two GTP molecules would be consumed per reaction cycle. AND Hypoglycemia would eventually occur unless food was consumed.
question
Type 2 diabetes is most commonly diagnosed _____ in life and involves _____.
answer
later; insulin resistance
question
If energy levels are low in a cell, the concentration of _____ will be high and _____ will be turned on.
answer
AMP; glycolysis
question
Red blood cells generate all ATP through glycolysis because they lack:
answer
mitochondria
question
Which of the following situations or phrases most accurately describes the citric acid cycle?
answer
"All roads lead to Rome." Correct. In many ways, the citric acid cycle can be considered as the centerpiece of cellular metabolism, with a variety of catabolic and anabolic pathways leading to and from it.
question
In the reaction catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, the two carbons constituting the acetyl group are
answer
transferred to the lipoamide by an earlier intermediate in the process. Correct. The two carbons are first attached to thiamine pyrophosphate and then transferred to the lipoamide.
question
Which of the following is NOT a product of the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
answer
pyruvate Correct.
question
Which of the following is NOT a coenzyme necessary in the function of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
answer
ubiquinone Correct.
question
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex falls within which size range?
answer
4-10 million daltons
question
The core of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is made up of eight catalytic _____ that make up the _____ component.
answer
trimers; E2
question
Beriberi is a disease caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?
answer
vitamin B1 (thiamine)
question
Some symptoms of beriberi include:
answer
both muscle weakness and distorted skin sensation.
question
Entry to the citric acid cycle involves the generation of acetyl CoA. The enzyme that catalyzes the production of acetyl CoA is _____. This enzyme is negatively regulated by _____ in a high-energy charge situation.
answer
pyruvate dehydrogenase; NADH
question
The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is regulated by:
answer
phosphorylation. allosteric interactions. covalent modifications. *All of the above
question
Which enzyme of the citric acid cycle most closely resembles the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in terms of its structure, organization, and the reaction it performs?
answer
α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Correct. The α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase enzyme is structurally and functionally homologous to the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
question
Although the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is subject to allosteric control, especially inhibition by reaction products, the main regulatory process controlling the enzyme's activity in eukaryotes is
answer
phosphorylation by ATP that turns off the complex and dephosphorylation that turns it on. Correct. High levels of ATP are indicative of a situation in which no further ATP is needed and thus the enzyme is turned off by phosphorylation.
question
In going from acetyl-CoA to succinate, two carbons have entered the cycle and two have been released as CO2. Why is the cycle not considered as complete at this point?
answer
The oxaloacetate used to initiate the cycle must be regenerated. Correct. One must replace what one used to start the cycle (oxaloacetate) in order to keep it going.
question
Assuming that pyruvate was labeled with radioactive 14C in its middle (keto) carbon, where would the radiolabel appear after one turn of the citric acid cycle?
answer
equally divided between the two carboxyl groups of oxaloacetate Correct. The "randomization" of label between the two carboxyl groups results from the reaction catalyzed by fumarase.
question
In the reaction catalyzed by succinyl-CoA synthetase
answer
a succinylphosphate transfers its phosphate to a histidyl residue. Correct. The succinylphosphate generated in the first step of the reaction transfers its phosphate to a histidine in the next step.
question
Of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle, which is not a freely soluble enzyme?
answer
succinate dehydrogenase Correct. Succinate dehydrogenase in associated with the inner mitochondrial membrane with one of its products (FADH2) directly entering the electron transport chain.
question
The purpose of anaplerotic reactions is
answer
to replenish the citric acid cycle if it becomes depleted of intermediates by biosynthetic demands. Correct. One must have some oxaloacetate present in order to start the cycle. If it is depleted, it must be replenished before the cycle can operate.
question
Although the glyoxylate cycle is not present in animals, many plants and animals can use this modified form of the citric acid cycle. The glyoxylate cycle is beneficial in that
answer
it allows the organisms which possess it to grow on acetate. Correct. The ability to use alternate carbon sources provides a metabolic versatility.
question
A person suffering from beriberi (deficiency of vitamin B1) lacks the ability to readily produce
answer
succinyl CoA. Correct. TPP is derived from vitamin B1, and is a necessary cofactor in the α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase enzyme complex needed to catalyze the production of succinyl CoA.
question
Glucose derived from citric acid cycle molecules must do so via
answer
oxaloacetate. Correct. Oxaloacetate can be shuttled into glucose via the gluconeogenesis pathway.
question
Oxygen is not used at any point in the citric acid cycle. However, the cycle will not work without oxygen because
answer
oxygen is needed to regenerate electron carriers. Correct. In the same way that fermentation regenerates the electron carriers needed for glycolysis, oxygen is needed to serve as the final electron acceptor that will allow a molecule like NADH to return to NAD+.
question
In order for an electron transfer reaction to be energetically spontaneous, which of the following must be TRUE?
answer
The change in reduction potential, ΔEo, must be positive. Correct. A positive value for ΔEo will give a negative value for ΔGo.
question
Which of the following is not a mobile or diffusible electron carrier in the mitochondrial electron transport chain?
answer
FAD Correct. FAD is a component of complex II or succinate dehydrogenase. It feeds electrons directly into the electron transport chain.
question
Of the electron transfer complexes associated with the inner mitochondrial membrane, which is not involved in generation of a proton gradient?
answer
succinate-Q reductase (complex II) Correct. The passage of electrons through complex II does not contribute to the proton gradient.
question
What is the source of electrons at complex II (succinate-Q-reductase)?
answer
FADH2 from the citric acid cycle Correct. FADH2 is generated in the citric acid cycle (in the succinate dehydrogenase-catalyzed conversion of succinate to fumarate) and it enters the electron transport chain at complex II (succinate-Q-reductase).
question
Which of the following describes the direction of proton movement relative to electron transfer and phosphorylation?
answer
Electron transfer pumps protons out of the matrix. As the protons reenter through the ATP synthase, ATP is produced in the matrix. Correct. All directions are correct with respect to both electron transfer and phosphorylation.
question
For a given reduced/oxidized molecular pair (X-/X), a negative reducing potential suggests that the
answer
X has a lower affinity for electrons than H2 does. Correct. The predominance of the reduced hydrogen gas implies that the electron has a higher affinity for the reference standard hydrogen, making the value negative.
question
Consider a substance that can exist in an oxidized form X and a reduced form X-. Such a pair is called a(n):
answer
redox couple
question
Which of the following statements points to the endosymbiotic event yielding intercellular mitochondria?
answer
Mitochondria contain their circular DNA. Mitochondria have a double membrane. Mitochondria contain specific transcription and translation machinery. *All of the above
question
Which of the following proteins involved in the respiratory chain exists as a monomer?
answer
cytochrome c
question
Which of the following may be due to free-radical injury?
answer
emphysema Parkinson disease Duchenne muscular dystrophy *All of the above
question
Which of the following is NOT a part of the Mitchell chemiosmotic hypothesis?
answer
High-energy phosphorylated intermediates that serve as phosphate donors to ADP are generated as a result of electron-transfer reactions. Correct. High energy phosphorylated intermediates are not a part of Mitchell's chemiosmotic hypothesis.
question
Proton flow through the ATP synthase enzyme
answer
results in the release of ATP from its tightly bound state in the active site. Correct. Although readily produced in the active site, ATP is only released when protons flow through the enzyme.
question
The process of glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. The electrons from the NADH generated during glycolysis
answer
may enter the electron transport chain either at the level of NADH or FADH2, depending on the shuttle system used to transport them into the mitochondria. Correct. The glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle allows electrons from cytoplasmic NADH to enter the mitochondrial electron transport chain at the level of FADH2 and the malate-aspartate shuttle at the level of NADH.
question
The uncoupler dinitrophenol (DNP) prevents ATP synthesis while allowing electron transport to proceed because
answer
DNP is capable of transporting protons across the membrane, dissipating the proton gradient. Correct. DNP effectively "short circuits" the proton motive force such that it is dissipated before it can be used to drive ATP production.
question
The presence of uncoupling proteins allows _____ energy from the mitochondrial electron transport chain to be used for ATP synthesis and ______ for the production of heat.
answer
less; more Correct. Regulated uncoupling can balance the needs of the organism for ATP and heat.
question
The path taken by electrons to water from NADH generated during the citric acid cycle will NOT pass though
answer
FAD. Correct. FAD is only used for transport of NADH electrons (in some cases) from outside the mitochondria, not ones generated within the mitochondria in the citric acid cycle. NADH from the citric acid cycle also does not pass though the FAD found in Complex II of the electron transport chain.
question
The energy generation of ATP using ATP synthase can be thought of the reverse reaction of what chemical reaction?
answer
ATP hydrolysis and proton movement against a gradient Correct. ATP synthase in reverse involves the favorable ATP hydrolysis that can drive the unfavorable pumping of protons against a gradient.
question
Like other molecular motors, the rotation of a bacterial flagellar apparatus requires a source of energy. What is used to provide energy for this type of molecular motor?
answer
proton gradient across membrane Correct. The proton gradient across the plasma membrane provides the source of energy driving flagellar motion.
question
Peter Mitchell proposed the _____ hypothesis that describes how _____ and _____ are coupled.
answer
chemiosmotic; electron transport; ATP synthesis
question
The regulation of the rate of oxidative phosphorylation by the ADP level is called _____ control.
answer
acceptor
question
Glucose is the most stable hexose because the hydroxyl groups are all in the _____ position.
answer
equatorial *This will be counted wrong, but it is correct. P283 in book. Mentioned to Prof.
question
The key regulatory enzyme for glycolysis is _____.
answer
phosphofructokinase
question
_____ are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of a phosphoryl group from ATP to an acceptor.
answer
Kinases
question
The first irreversible enzymatic reaction unique to a metabolic pathway is called the _____ step.
answer
committed
question
_____ mediate the thermodynamically downhill movement of glucose across plasma membranes.
answer
Glucose transporters
question
What two 3-carbon molecules are generated by the cleavage of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate?
answer
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
question
What are the primary metabolic fates of pyruvate?
answer
ethanol lactate acetyl CoA *All the above.
question
The process of forming glucose from amino acids is called _____.
answer
gluconeogenesis
question
Some amino acids are converted to glucose via conversion to pyruvate and _____.
answer
oxaloacetate
question
The enzyme that carboxylates pyruvate is _____.
answer
*Didn't get correct. Not sure.
question
ATP in the reaction catalyzed by PEPCK is use to fix _____ to biotin
answer
carbon dioxide
question
The first step in gluconeogenesis is the _____ of pyruvate to form oxaloacetate.
answer
carboxylation
question
E1 of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex requires the coenzyme _____ for proper activity.
answer
Answer should be TPP but not accepted.
question
High-energy charge, which results in increasing concentration of NADH, _____ the activity of PDH.
answer
inhibits
question
The citric acid cycle is also known as the:
answer
Krebs cycle and the tricarboxylic acid cycle.
question
Pyruvate is decarboxylated by which subunit of the PDH?
answer
E1
question
What are the steps involved (in order) in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA?
answer
decarboxylation, oxidation, transfer to CoA
question
Pyruvate dehydrogenase is _____ when ATP/ADP ratios are high.
answer
inhibited
question
Carbons from carbohydrate enter the citric acid cycle in the form of _____.
answer
acetyl CoA
question
In the citric acid cycle, the _____ is produced by a substrate-level phosphorylation.
answer
GTP *CAREFUL! This is tricky. In glycolysis it is ATP!
question
In general, the citric acid cycle is inhibited under _____ (high, low) energy conditions.
answer
high
question
What molecule initiates the citric acid cycle by reacting with oxaloacetate?
answer
acetyl CoA
question
The direct movement of substrates from one enzyme to the next is called:
answer
substrate channeling.
question
Formation of citrate from acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate is a(n) _____ reaction.
answer
condensation
question
A strong oxidizing agent has a tendency to _____ (accept, donate) electrons.
answer
accept
question
Another name for coenzyme Q is _____.
answer
ubiquinone
question
ytochrome _____ is the only water-soluble cytochrome of the electron-transport chain.
answer
c
question
The transfer of a single electron to O2 forms the reactive _____ ion.
answer
superoxide
question
_____ is an enzyme that scavenges H2O2 and converts it to molecular oxygen and water.
answer
Catalase
question
_____ are the result of uncontrolled electron transfer to oxygen.
answer
Oxygen radicals
question
Electron flow down the electron-transport chain leads to the:
answer
transport of protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane from inside the matrix to the intermembrane space.
question
Which of the following does NOT pump protons? Complex I Complex II Complex III Complex IV
answer
Complex II
question
What is a cytochrome?
answer
a protein that transfers electrons, and that also contains a heme prosthetic group
Biochemistry
Citric Acid Cycle
Long Chain Fatty Acids
Chapter 10 Nutrients Involved in Antioxidant Function and Vision – Flashcards 60 terms

Candace Young
60 terms
Preview
Chapter 10 Nutrients Involved in Antioxidant Function and Vision – Flashcards
question
The following are cofactors
answer
selenium, copper, iron, zinc, and manganese
question
The following factors can cause free radical formation
answer
pollution, tobacco, smoke, overexposure to the sun
question
Atoms with unpaired electrons are called
answer
free radicals
question
carotenosis is a condition causing yellow or orange pigments in the skin. It is caused by consuming too much of
answer
deep green and dark yellow fruits and vegetables
question
To increase their absorption of iron, a person with low iron stores may benefit from consuming iron sources along with foods rich in vitamin...
answer
C
question
One serious consequence of a vitamin A deficiency is.
answer
xerophthalmia
question
is the heart disorder caused by a selenium deficiency
answer
Keshan disease
question
is a disease associated with a deficiency of Vitamin C.
answer
scurvy
question
.is the cooking method most likely to decrease the Vitamin C content of vitamin C-rich foods such as fresh fruits and vegetables
answer
Boiling
question
The following foods contain the highest amount of selenium
answer
halibut
question
The following is a poor source of vitamin E
answer
Milk
question
The following is a major symptom of vitamin C deficiency
answer
tissue hemorrhage
question
The following is not a key function of Vitamin A.
answer
enhancing absorption of iron
question
The following plays the primary role in the body's physiological functions
answer
retinol
question
The following foods has the highest beta-carotene content.
answer
Pumpkin
question
The following nutrients does not have a Recommended Daily Allowance
answer
beta-carotene
question
is the tocopherol compound that is the most potent form of vitamin E
answer
alpha
question
Smokers needs much more vitamin C per day above the Recommended Daily Allowance for non-smokers
answer
35 mg/day
question
Night blindness can result from a deficiency of which nutrient.
answer
Vitamin A
question
What are oxidation and free radicals?
answer
Oxidation is When fruit is cut, it opens up cells; enzymes in fruit now have access to oxygen in air; browning results. Free Radicals are Unstable atom with an unpaired electron becomes charged
question
When do free radicals become a problem in the body? And what are some of the conditions that can be a result of damaged cells by free radicals?
answer
When they Scavenge the body to grab or donate electrons causing cell damage and Overproduction of free radicals can damage healthy cells. Conditions from damaged cells are Stroke ; Cancer ; Alzheimer's ; Heart Disease ; Rheumatoid arthritis ; and Cataracts
question
What dietary factors contribute to cancer?
answer
Salty Foods, excess calorie intake and obesity, Avoid sugary drinks and Limit consumption of energy dense foods
question
What dietary factors inhibit cancer?
answer
Antioxidants and phytochemicals, Vitamin C and E help prevent formation of nitrosamines (carcinogen) in GI tract, and Fruit and vegetable intake reduces risk of nearly all types of cancer
question
What percentage of all cancer deaths could be prevented if everyone followed the American Cancer Society's recommendation to quit smoking?
answer
33%
question
To reduce the risk of skin cancer, one should limit sunlight exposure to no more than __________ minutes between 10 AM and 4 PM.
answer
20
question
Which of the following is linked to cervical cancer?
answer
HPV
question
Which of the following cooking methods will likely destroy the MOST vitamin C in food?
answer
Boiling
question
Vitamin A is
answer
essential to sight, cell differentiation, and protection of LDL proteins from oxidation
question
During which phase do cancerous cells metastasize?
answer
progression
question
What type of cancer has the highest mortality rate?
answer
lung cancer
question
Vitamin C enhances _____ absorption
answer
Iron
question
Which of the following is a substance that promotes oxidation and cell damage?
answer
Prooxidant
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding free radicals?
answer
FALSE:Our body has no mechanism to combat free radicals; TRUE: Exposure to pollution increases free radical production; Free radicals are formed as a by-product of healthy metabolism; Many diseases, such as cancer and heart disease, are linked to free radical damage
question
To what does Retinol Activity Equivalents (RAE) refer?
answer
how much vitamin A is available after it has been converted from beta-carotene
question
Why are dark green vegetables such as kale and spinach good sources of vitamin A?
answer
They contain abundant beta-carotene, a precursor of retinol
question
Research has shown a consistent and strong link between taking beta-carotene supplements and a reduced risk of developing cancer
answer
False
question
A free radical is highly unstable because it has unpaired electrons in its outermost shell.
answer
True
question
The deficiency disease associated with vitamin C is
answer
Scurvy
question
Cooking meat at high temperatures can result in the formation of
answer
Heterocyclic amines
question
An example of an action that decreases cancer risk is _________.
answer
eating a variety of brightly colored vegetables
question
Which water-soluble vitamin can regenerate vitamin E after it has been oxidized?
answer
Vitamin C
question
The doctor has recently told Julie that she is anemic. Which of the following should Julie consume with her iron supplement to increase its absorption?
answer
a glass of orange juice
question
Vitamin C is excreted easily because it is
answer
Water Soluble
question
Which of the following is NOT a major type of cancer treatment?
answer
FALSE: catheterization TRUE: radiation, surgery, chemotherapy
question
T/F Free radicals are a normal by-product of our body functions.
answer
T. Free radicals are highly unstable atoms that can destabilize neighboring atoms or molecules and harm our cells; however, they are produced as a normal by-product of human physiology
question
T/F Taking large doses of vitamin C supplements reduces our risk of suffering from the common cold
answer
F. Overall, the research on vitamin C and colds does not show strong evidence that taking vitamin C supplements reduces our risk of suffering from the common cold
question
T/F Eating carrots promotes good vision.
answer
T. Carrots are an excellent source of beta-carotene, a precursor for vitamin A, which helps maintain good visions
question
Oxidation is best described as a process in which a. radiation causes a mutation in a cell's DNA b. an atom loses an electron c. an element loses an atom of oxygen d. a compounded loses a molecule of water
answer
an atom loses an electron
question
Which of the following disorders is linked to the production of free radicals a. cardiovascular disease b. carotenosis c. ulcers d. all of the above
answer
cardiovascular disease
question
Which of the following function as a cofactor in antioxidant enzyme systems a. iron b. zinc c. copper d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
Which of the following is a role of both vitamin E and vitamin C? a. both vitamins spare vitamin A b. both vitamins donate electrons to free radicals c. both vitamins are critical cofactors in antioxidant enzyme systems d. all of the above are true
answer
both vitamins donate electrons to free radicals
question
Which of the following is a function of vitamin C a. promotes the differentiation of epithelial cells, such as skin cells and mucus producing lining cells b. prevents the rupturing of blood cells in erythrocyte hemolysis c. promotes the synthesis of collagen in connective tissues in skin, bone, and other organs d. improves the absorption of vitamin A if dietary vitamin
answer
promotes the synthesis of collagen in connective tissues in skin, bone, and other organs
question
Which of the following statements about beta-carotene is true? a. beta-carotene is a water soluble form of vitamin A b. beta-carotene is a provitamin A carotenoid c. the RDA for beta-carotene is twelve times the RDA for vitamin A d. None of the above is true
answer
beta-carotene is a provitamin A carotenoid
question
The light-sensitive pigment rhodopsin a. is composed of retinol and a lipid called opsin b. is found in the cone cells of the retina c. contains vitamin A in the form of retinal d. both a and b are true
answer
contains vitamin A in the form of retinal
question
Taking daily doses of three to four time the rda of which of the following nutrients may cause death? a. vitamin A b. vitamin C c. vitamin E d. selenium
answer
vitamin A
question
T/F Free radical formation can occur as a result of normal cellular metabolism.
answer
T
question
T/F Pregnant women are advised to consume plenty of beef liver.
answer
F. Beef liver is very high in preformed vitamin A which can build to toxic levels very quickly and cause birth defects and spontaneous abortions. As a result, pregnant women are advised to avoid eating liver on a daily or even weekly basis.
question
Tocopherol is the biologically active form of vitamin E in our body
answer
True
question
Vitamin C helps regenerate vitamin A
answer
False. Vitamin C helps regenerate vitamin E
question
Reliable food sources of selenium include beef liver, pork, and seafood.
answer
True
AP Environmental Science
Carbon Dioxide Co2
Cell Biology
Citric Acid Cycle
First Law Of Thermodynamics
Second Law Of Thermodynamics
Principles of Chemistry III: Nutrition and Metabolism – Flashcards 69 terms

Mike Bryan
69 terms
Preview
Principles of Chemistry III: Nutrition and Metabolism – Flashcards
question
Conservation of Energy means: |
answer
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can, however, be transformed from one form to another. |
question
Energy is defined as: |
answer
the ability to do work. |
question
Work is defined as: |
answer
a force applied multiplied by the distance moved. |
question
Kinetic Energy is: |
answer
Energy in motion/Energy of motion |
question
Potential Energy is: |
answer
Energy that has the potential to do work, such as a rock at the top of a hill. |
question
What are some forms of energy? |
answer
Heat, mechanical, sound, chemical, electrical, etc. |
question
How is electrical energy used in the body? |
answer
The transmission of nerve impulses and the contraction of muscles requires electrical energy |
question
How is chemical energy used in the body? |
answer
The breakdown of ATP and the chemical bonds in food provide energy |
question
What are some examples of mechanical energy in the body? |
answer
The heart pumping, the churning of the stomach, walking, etc. |
question
What is an example of sound energy in the body? |
answer
Hearing |
question
How is heat energy used in the body? |
answer
The maintenance of body temperature, a fever, shivering. |
question
What are the SI units for energy? |
answer
Joules (J), kilojoules (kJ), Calories (c) |
question
What is a calorie of energy defined as? |
answer
The amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of 1g of water by 1 degree. |
question
What is the difference between an energy calorie and a dietary calorie? |
answer
A dietary calorie is equal to 1,000 energy calories. |
question
What is the energy value for 1g of protein? |
answer
4 calories, or 17 kJ |
question
What is the energy value for 1g of carbohydrate? |
answer
4 calories, or 16 kJ |
question
What is the energy value for 1g of fat? |
answer
9 calories or 37 kJ |
question
A ________ is the chemical composition in food that is used by the body to provide energy and to promote growth, and to repair and maintain cells. |
answer
nutrient |
question
What are the six types of nutrients per your book? |
answer
Protein, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water |
question
Why is it important to have a balanced diet of all six types of nutrients? |
answer
Each nutrient provides something unique to the body that the other nutrients cannot provide. |
question
What does ADP stand for? Is it considered high or low energy? |
answer
Adenosine DiPhosphate - it is considered low energy |
question
What does ATP stand for? Is it considered high or low energy? |
answer
Adenosine TriPhosphate - it is considered high energy |
question
Is energy stored in the body as ATP or ADP? |
answer
ATP; it is higher in energy. |
question
In each of our cells, glucose is broken down (oxidized-reacted with oxygen) by a complex set of multi-step processes. Why? What does this produce? |
answer
To produce energy in the form of ATP |
question
We know that the main product of glucose oxidation is ATP. What are the other two byproducts? |
answer
Water and Carbon Dioxide |
question
The chemical reaction for the oxidation of glucose into ATP and its byproducts, which should be memorized is as follows: 1 C6H12O6 + O2 6 H2O + 6 CO2 + __ ATP. |
answer
38 ATP are produced. One molecule of Glucose and one molecule of Oxygen react together to form six molecules of water, six molecules of carbon dioxide, and 38 molecules of ATP. This is known as the overall reaction equation. |
question
By Le Chatelier’s Principle, more glucose and/or oxygen will favor the glucose oxidation reaction by moving to the right as will a ________ in a cells’ levels of water, carbon dioxide and/or energy (ATP). |
answer
decrease |
question
Our bodies DIRECTLY utilize available _______ in our blood and thus our cells FIRST towards producing ATP |
answer
glucose |
question
If insufficient levels of blood glucose are available for required body energy, additional energy reserves are called forth and utilized (broken down for energy) in a complex but understandable order with the ultimate intent of PROTECTING OUR BRAINS by allowing the rest of the body to degrade to feed the brain tissue/organ. What are the second, third, and fourth additional energy reserves? |
answer
2. Glycogen breakdown 3. Lipid breakdown 4. Protein breakdown |
question
What is glycolysis? |
answer
Breaking down of glucose – Lysis of glucose |
question
What is gluconeogenesis? |
answer
Formation of glucose from other molecules |
question
What is glycogenolysis? |
answer
Breakdown of glycogen. |
question
What is glycogenesis? |
answer
Formation of glycogen |
question
_____________ are used directly (broken down for energy) in the classical glycolysis process |
answer
Carbohydrates |
question
If blood glucose levels dip too low, which hormones are releases? |
answer
Cortisol, Glucagon, and Epinephrine |
question
What do Cortisol, Glucagon, and Epinephrine do in response to low blood glucose? |
answer
They work to break poly-saccharide glycogen down into the mono-saccharide glucose |
question
How does insulin affect blood glucose levels? |
answer
Insulin causes glucose to be absorbed from the blood into muscular and adipose (fat) tissue, causing the body to store fat rather than use it for energy. This results in lowered blood glucose levels. |
question
We know that glucose and glycogen levels exist in an equilibrium within the body. When the blood glucose levels dip too low, what role does glycogen play? |
answer
Glycogen is the second energy reserve. When blood glucose levels dip too low, glycogen stored in the liver and skeletal muscle is used to create energy for the body. |
question
The bodies most concentrated form of energy storage is: |
answer
Lipids |
question
Lipids break down to form two things, what are they? |
answer
Fatty Acids and glycerol. |
question
One type of lipid metabolism product is known as a fatty acid. This eventually leads to which part of the Krebs cycle? |
answer
Acetyl-Coenzyme A (Acetyl-CoA) |
question
One type of lipid metabolism product is called glycogen. What is glycogen used for? |
answer
It is used to feed into the glycolysis cycle directly |
question
A C18 fatty acid yields ___ ATP molecules and a C16 one ___ ATP molecules. |
answer
146, 129 |
question
Lipid-based energy is used in every cell of the body but the _____ tissue which uses glucose directly |
answer
brain |
question
_______ __________ occurs when muscle tissue, proteins, are broken down for energy. This only usually occurs when the majority of the lipid reserves in the body are depleted such as cases of severe starvation |
answer
Protein Metabolism |
question
Amino acids are not/are normally stored in the body for energy |
answer
are not |
question
If protein metabolism is needed, the amine is removed from each amino acid molecule and sent to the _____ for disposal as ____ and the remainder of the molecule is oxidized as if it were a carbohydrate as part of the Kreb cycle |
answer
urine, urea |
question
Protein metabolism mostly provide a small/large amount of energy per amino acid molecule. This is reserved for emergency cases of energy needs only |
answer
small |
question
For optimal health, we need a specific amount [concentration] of glucose in the blood that is homeostatically-controlled in or around __ - ___ mg/dL, as measured before which meal? |
answer
70-100, breakfast |
question
If this number gets as high as ___ - ___mg/dL after a meal there is not a whole lot of room for concern |
answer
130 - 140 |
question
Blood glucose levels below about 60-65mg/dL |
answer
hypoglycemia |
question
Blood glucose levels above about 180-200 mg/dL |
answer
hyperglycemia |
question
What are some symptoms of hypoglycemia? |
answer
hunger, shakiness, racing of the heart then loss of mental function and unconsciousness |
question
Which disease is characterized by an inability to control blood glucose levels? |
answer
Diabetes |
question
_______ feeds infection, chronic inflammation, and promotes the formation of blood clots which is why 80% of diabetes patients die from cardiovascular disease |
answer
glucose |
question
As many as __% of the over-40 crowd in the West possess blood sugar imbalance that is the forerunner of type 2-diabetes (dysglycemia) |
answer
50% |
question
Approximately what percentage of the population has diabetes? |
answer
7.8% |
question
Diabetes is the ___ leading cause of death nationally – over 233,000 deaths per year |
answer
7th |
question
This disease is a leading cause of adult blindness, lower-limb amputation, kidney disease, and nerve damage. |
answer
diabetes |
question
Normally, our glucose concentration in our blood is controlled by a set of hormones. Which hormone lowers blood sugar levels, and which 3 work together to raise blood sugar levels? |
answer
– Insulin lowers blood sugar – Glucagon, Cortisol, and adrenalin raise blood sugar |
question
When we eat, the simple carbohydrates like glucose are absorbed in our intestines and enter our bloodstream. __________ ____ _____ pump out insulin to stash away this extra glucose in our muscles for instant energy or in fat cells where it is stored. |
answer
Pancreatic Beta Cells |
question
This organ is one of the main places for the storage and release of glucose: |
answer
Liver |
question
One factor that is highly correlated with diabetes is obesity. Approximately what percentage of people with diabetes are overweight? |
answer
about 80% |
question
What are the two main causes of type 2 diabetes? |
answer
Poor diet and lack of exercise |
question
What does BMI stand for? |
answer
Body Mass Index |
question
A BMI of less than 18.5 is considered to be: |
answer
underweight |
question
A BMI between 18.5 and 25 is considered to be: |
answer
normal |
question
A BMI between 25 and 30 is considered to be: |
answer
over weight |
question
A BMI of 30 or greater is considered to be: |
answer
obese |