The 1964 Civil Rights Act led to the establishment of the

Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/soc-310-final-exam/

The landmark 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination in public accommodations and publicly owned facilities on the basis of

all of these More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/soc-310-final-exam/

One reason that many women remained in low-skill, low-prestige, and low-paying occupations was that they a. were not allowed to seek advancement. b. had not yet obtained executive experience. c. did not have the same educational levels as men. d. were not protected as workers by the 1964 Civil Rights Act. e. bore more of the burdens of parenthood than men.

e. bore more of the burdens of parenthood than men. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/apush-ch-41/

The 1964 Civil Rights Act made it illegal for corporate managers to make decisions based on all of the following EXCEPT a. gender. b. age. c. religion. d. race. e. national origin.

b. age. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/mgt-3320-exam-1/

The 1964 civil rights act made it illegal for corporate managers to make decisions based on all of the following except a. gender b. age c. religion d. race e. national origin

b More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/management-3320/

1964 Civil Rights Act test questions and answers | Get Access To 1964 Civil Rights Act Flashcards and exam tests

Q: Which title of the 1964 civil rights actprohibits discrimination in presonnel practices based on race, color, ethnicity, age, and disabilities that can be reasonably accomodated?

VII More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/american-federal-government-chapter-14/

Q: The 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibited all of the following, except

racial discrimination in housing rental or sale. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-25-study-give-me-liberty-all-study-questionschronological/

Q: 1964 Civil Rights Act –

Law intended to end discrimination based on race, color, religion, or national origin. Guarantees equal voting rights. Prohibits segregation or discrimination in places of public accommodation. Bans discrimination by trade unions, schools, or employers involved in interstate commerce or do business with federal government. Calls for desegregation of public schools. Assures nondiscrimination in distribution of funds under federally assisted programs. Created Equal Employment Opportunity Commission to enforced law. Eliminated remaining restrictions on African-American voting. Generally considered most important US law on civil rights since Reconstruction. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/apush-terms-unit-10/

Home Page Social Science Political Science Politics of the United States 1964 Civil Rights Act

We've found 27 1964 Civil Rights Act tests

1964 Civil Rights Act Across The Country AP Government Politics of the United States Supreme Court United States Government-Comprehensive

government chapter 12 review – Flashcards 25 terms

Sabrina Peterson

25 terms

Preview

government chapter 12 review – Flashcards

question

The vast majority of cases heard by the Supreme Court reach the Court

answer

as appeals from lower court decisions

question

This is an order from the Court to send up the records on a case for review

answer

writ of certiorari

question

This is a written statement setting forth the legal arguments

answer

brief

question

One or more justices who agree with the majority's conclusions about a case, but do so for different reasons write a(n)

answer

concurring opinion

question

This is NOT a way the Supreme Court determines policy

answer

passing laws

question

This comprises the largest block of the Court's cases

answer

civil liberties

question

This is NOT a limit on the Court's cases

answer

congressional jurisdiction

question

This person assigns the writing of opinions to the justices

answer

chief justices

question

The president's most important influences over the Court is the power to

answer

appoint justices with Senate consent

question

The number of justices on the Court is set by

answer

Congress

question

The Court may reverse its earlier decision because of

answer

changes in American society

question

Supreme Court written decisions

answer

opinions

question

main route to the Supreme Court

answer

writ of certiorari

question

unsigned statement of Court's decision

answer

per curiam opinion

question

friend of the court

answer

amicus curiae

question

appointed by the president

answer

solicitor general

question

Marybury v. Madison

answer

judicial review

question

stare decisis

answer

let the decision stand

question

model

answer

precedent

question

unchallenged ruling on a law or action

answer

advisory opinion

question

foundation for deciding cases

answer

law

question

coalitions of justices

answer

voting blocs

question

swing vote

answer

deciding vote

question

the Senate's control over the Court

answer

confirmation power

question

shape decisions the Court makes

answer

Congress and the president

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Educational Technology Problems In The World Social Construction Of Gender

Preview Staff – Flashcards 106 terms

Noah Thomson

106 terms

Preview

Preview Staff – Flashcards

question

We need placement exams at the University of Florida because everyone is coming in with _______ _________, evens the_______ _____, helps you figure out where a student should _____ ___ ____

answer

different backgrounds, playing field, start at UF

question

_____________ is designed to be an assessment of preparedness for courses specific to UF. But, it is imperative to remember that it is only a _________ of success and not a guarantee.

answer

Placement, predictor

question

Name 5 ways in which we evaluate placement at UF.

answer

Placement exams, Incoming credit, ACT/SAT, High school background, relevant life experiences

question

Name 3 Placement exams used at UF

answer

ALEKS, SAT 2, WebCAPE

question

Name 4 possible forms of Incoming credit a student can bring in.

answer

AP, IB, AICE, DE

question

Some placement is ____________

answer

subjective

question

Name 4 areas that require placement at UF

answer

English, Foreign Language, Math, Chemistry

question

Name the course code for the course that is a GE-C (3 credits) and is a pre-req for all other GE-C courses.

answer

ENC1101

question

_________ _______ supersedes University specific placement exams

answer

Incoming credit

question

Students highest verbal score on the ACT and SAT will be at the ____ of their Preview Prep sheet

answer

top

question

When would you recommend a student take ENC1101?

answer

First year, preferably fall

question

Do I earn credit for ENC1101 if I have a high enough VERBAL SCORE on the ACT to place out of the class? Placing out _____ ____ ______ earning credit

answer

No, does not equal

question

Name two GE-C courses that are not freshmen friendly

answer

ENC3254, GEB3213

question

Will all Writing courses count towards the GE-C requirement?

answer

question

All GE-C courses will give a student ______ words

answer

6000

question

Name two languages offered at UF that are a three semester sequence.

answer

Latin, American Sign Language

question

Which spanish course is recommended for students with NO prior Spanish background?

answer

SPN1130

question

Which spanish course is recommended for students with 2+ years of Spanish background (take ______ to determine placement)?

answer

SPN1131, WebCAPE

question

Which spanish course is recommended for students who bring in incoming credit?

answer

SPN2200

question

Which french course is recommended for students with NO prior French background?

answer

FRE1130

question

Which French course is recommended for students with 2+ years of french background (must take SAT 2 to confirm if student has ____+ years)?

answer

FRE1134, 3

question

Which French course is recommended for students who bring in incoming credit?

answer

FRE2220

question

___ Foreign Language placement is necessary if the student must begin at the introduction of the sequence.

answer

question

Which French course is recommended for students who have taken FRE1131 or equivalent through dual enrollment?

answer

FRE1131

question

Which foreign language offers two different sequences to offer proficiency?

answer

German

question

The German sequence beginning with ________ is a regular book-based two-semester sequence; best for students who perform and learn at their best in the TRADITIONAL learning classroom

answer

GER1130

question

The German sequence beginning with _________ is best for self-starters, disciplined enough to study on a daily basis, and who are comfortable working in an online learning environment; called "________ German"

answer

GER1125, Discover

question

Placement for foreign language is applicable to any student who wants to take a language at UF AND has _______ ________ in _____ language

answer

previous background, that

question

Exam covers French, Latin, German; register on ISIS, PROCTORED exam taken during first week of classes, at preview students will register based on high school level

answer

SAT 2

question

Predicts starting point for Spanish, specifically; can be taken prior to preview; NOT PROCTORED - cannot meet proficiency for language requirement

answer

WebCAPE

question

Define Foreign Language proficiency.

answer

You comprehend the introductory sequence of the language

question

T/F: Foreign language proficiency does NOT mean you have to take a certain number of credits (10) or a certain number of classes (2)

answer

question

A student usually takes a foreign language class his/her first term if they plan on pursuing a _____/_____ in that language, wants to ______ ___ language skills, wants to meet _______ requirement with a language studied in ____ _____, likes studying _________

answer

major, minor, build up, proficiency, high school, languages

question

_____ ______ discourage students from taking a language because it is a 5 credit class

answer

DO NOT

question

Name the three course math sequence for Business major

answer

MAC1105, MAC 1140, MAC2233

question

________ does NOT require MAC 1114

answer

MAC2233

question

Name the four course math sequence for all students who will need MAC3211

answer

MAC1105, MAC1140, MAC1114, MAC2311

question

Name the alternate two course math sequence for all students who will need MAC2311

answer

MAC1147, MAC2311

question

This exam is for math and chemistry placement; 20-60 minute exam taken on ISIS under placement

answer

ALEKS

question

The ALEKS exam cannot be taken while at _______

answer

Preview

question

The ALEKS can be taken _____ times (only once every ___ hours)

answer

multiple, 24

question

How much does it cost to take the ALEKS exam?

answer

question

The ALEKS exam is required for students who want to take _______ and _________

answer

MAC2311, MAC2233

question

IB Math ______ is NOT an effective placement tool, must use IB _________

answer

Studies, Mathematics

question

________ incoming credit can supersede ALEKS score

answer

Confirmed

question

We can take predictions for mathematics for _________ or higher

answer

MAC2312

question

We cannot use predictions for mathematics for the following courses: _______, ______

answer

MAC2233, MAC2311

question

_________ is not a course students need to retake for Pre-health

answer

MAC2311

question

Basic Chemsitry Concepts and Applications (3 credits); typical to be taken for nursing majors, non pre-health students for General Education credit (P + B)

answer

CHM1030

question

What is the course code for the Accelerated Chemistry Review course?

answer

CHM2047

question

CHM______ is only offered in the Fall, not the Spring

answer

2095

question

Introduction to chemistry; covers first six chapters of CHM2045 over an entire semester

answer

CHM1025

question

Students should only take __________ during Summer B, if they plan to take MAC2311 or higher in the Fall

answer

CHM1025

question

T/F: Online CHM1025 section is open to anyone, while the live section is departmentally controlled

answer

question

Students must have either completed MAC_____ ________ CHM2047 OR are registered for MAC_____ (or higher) to take concurrently with CHM2047; preferably they have taken AP Calculus

answer

1147, 2311

question

Credit will be awarded only _____ for the same course (this applies to credit by examination, DE, transient credit or UF credit)

answer

ONCE

question

___ course credit takes precedence over all other forms of credit for the same course

answer

question

No difference between _____-levle and ______-levle examinations in terms of how UF evaluates the credit (IB) - does not change the credit hours the student gained

answer

higher, standard

question

AICE

answer

Advance International Certificate of Education

question

answer

International Baccalaureate

question

Passing score for AICE exams is ___-___; the score you earn does ____ determine how many classes/credits you will be awarded

answer

A, E, NOT

question

AICE exams have an ___ level (2 years of study) or an ____ level (1 year of study)

answer

A, AS

question

College Level Examination Program (CLEP) - passing score of ___ or higher; higher score does not give the student more credits/classes in most circumstances, except with foreign languages (french, german, spanish)

answer

question

May count ___ hours maximum of credit by exam toward degree

answer

question

Credit by exam yields a "__" on transcript, which does NOT factor into GPA

answer

question

A higher score on a credit by exam does not always mean that you will earn more ______ _____

answer

credit hours

question

A passing score in credit by exam will _______ give you credit at UF

answer

always

question

Any course code that starts with a ____ do not have equivalencies at UF; Does not count towards _____-__ requirements and _______ requirement

answer

zero, gen ed, writing

question

Name four classes we will NOT accept predictions for, must have hard evidence - confirmed scores

answer

MAC2233, MAC2311, CHM2045, CHM2095

question

The state of Florida follows the _______ ______ _________ system: Equivalency awarded for courses with the same prefix and last three digits of the course number

answer

common course numbering

question

For Out-Of-State or Private Universities in Florida courses are reviewed for general elective credit by the _______ office and are given a prefix, along with "____" course number

answer

admissions, 0000

question

Evaluating courses applies to ____-__-______ DE coursework, Florida ________ Universities, Classes taken at an SUS or FL Community College but does not have ________ course prefix/number here

answer

out of state, private, matching

question

When evaluating DE courses that are not part of the common course numbering, refer to their ______ to get GEN-ED requirement

answer

college

question

When evaluating DE courses, the student wants to determine equivalency, refer to _________ that offers the course

answer

department

question

To have the course equal a specific class at UF refer to _________ that offers the equivalent class (MAC 0000 = MAC 2311? - go to mathematics department)

answer

department

question

_____ ___________ will impact Overall GPA and/or Tracking GPA

answer

Dual Enrollment

question

Students can bring in up to ___ hours of dual enrollment credit to count towards their degree, may petition college to count more than that

answer

question

It is strongly encouraged for students who earn below a ___ in a ______ DE course to retake that class at UF

answer

B, prerequisite

question

Courses may fulfill multiple _______, but _____ only counts once

answer

requirements, credit

question

Name 5 components of building a schedule.

answer

Major Interests, Gen-ed requirements, Writing and Math Requirement, College Requirements, Electives

question

A grade of "__" or better is required for Gen-eds

answer

question

Which two Gen-Ed areas are always paired with another Gen-ed

answer

N, D

question

Students should not take gen-eds their first term "____ ___ ____ _____ ___ ___ ____ ____"

answer

just to get them out of the way

question

Taking ______-____ does not necessarily help you explore majors

answer

gen eds

question

Okay for students to take Gen-ed courses in areas they have already __________

answer

completed

question

50% of HUM2305 is "_________" readings or experiences

answer

gateway

question

50% of HUM2305 is "_________" readings or experiences, determined by each instructor so each course has its own unique twist

answer

pillar

question

HUM2305 is required for all students, except those who have an ____ ________

answer

AA degree

question

T/F: HUM2305 is a GE-H, but NOT a words course

answer

question

The Writing Requirement is also called _______ _____; requirement of the state of Florida; must earn a ___ or better AND a passing grade on the "writing" portion of the course; requires a minimum of _________ words

answer

Gordon Rule, C, 24000

question

All incoming freshmen must complete 9 hours of coursework during the summer terms; can be taken at any SUS institution or through UF approved Summer Study Abroad Program

answer

Summer Term Enrollment Requirement

question

Students are exempt from the Summer Term Enrollment Requirement if they bring in ____+ hours of _____ ________ from any accredited institution before they officially begin taking classes at UF; AA degree ____ required

answer

60, dual enrollment, NOT

question

Give students timely information about the courses they need to take and the GPA required for their declared major, to monitor minimum progress and determine a student's "fit" within a given major; to help students graduate promply

answer

Universal Tracking

question

Courses required to show skill and progress in major

answer

Critical Tracking Courses

question

Calculations only include critical tracking courses, but will include ALL attempts from all institutions (GPA)

answer

Tracking GPA

question

Only Fall and Spring semesters are considered "____________ _____" (except for IA)

answer

Tracking Terms

question

Breakdown of UF from BIG to SMALL

answer

University, Colleges, Schools, Departments, Majors, Tracks

question

Name 4 majors that require the student to be declared in order for those courses to be accessible for students.

answer

Architecture, fine arts, Business, Engineering

question

Specializing in more than one field, earning Bachelors degree in two separate majors in the SAME COLLEGE AND DEGREE TYPE (BS, BA)

answer

Double Major

question

Specializing in more than one field, earning Bachelors degree in two separate majors in the SAME COLLEGE AND DIFFERENT DEGREE TYPE (BS, BA) OR DIFFERENT COLLEGES

answer

Dual Degree

question

Cannot earn a ______ major in some Colleges due to ______________ in coursework

answer

double, similarities

question

Minor is ___________ and shows up on ______

answer

formalized, transcript

question

"Minor in training" - more of a state of mind

answer

Certificate

question

Which Exploratory track is based solely in the College of Engineering?

answer

Exploring Engineering Studies

question

Name the three Exploratory tracks house in the College of Liberal Arts and Sciences

answer

Humanities and Letters, Social and Behavioral Sciences, Sciences and Engineering

question

When do students OFFICIALLY declare their major?

answer

Preview

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act 1965 Voting Rights Act Equal Rights For Women Letter From Birmingham Jail Little Rock Central High School National Collegiate Athletic Association

Literary Specialists – Flashcards 130 terms

Livia Baldwin

130 terms

Preview

Literary Specialists – Flashcards

question

What movement did Buckley lead throughout his life, particularly during the 60s and 70s?

answer

The conservative movement

question

Why was Buckley considered the leader of his movement?

answer

He was the one conservative voice that could be heard through the liberal media at this time of change in the US

question

What types of books did Buckley read?

answer

Conservative, nonfiction, political books and fictional mystery novels about CIA spies and international affairs

question

What background did Buckley come from?

answer

Irish Catholic family, very wealthy

question

What religion and type of government did Buckley think should the US government be based upon?

answer

Catholicism and democracy, specifically free market capitalism

question

Where did David Foster Wallace get his idea for The Broom of The System?

answer

A girlfriend told him she would rather be a fictional character than a real person, he wondered why

question

What is post-modernism? (David Foster Wallace)

answer

The focus on individual reality and reality is different for everyone

question

What did David Foster Wallace major in?

answer

Philosophy and English

question

What mental disorder is David Foster Wallace suffer from?

answer

Severe depression

question

What novel was Wallace working on at the time of his death?

answer

The Pale King (never finished, but it was published posthumously)

question

Where was Laurie Halse Anderson born?

answer

Potsdam, NY

question

What challenge did Laurie Halse Anderson overcome as a young child?

answer

Needed extra reading support and speech therapy

question

What did Laurie Halse Anderson do when she was 16?

answer

Lived in Denmark as an exchange student

question

What is Laurie Halse Anderson's most famous book?

answer

...

question

What are 3 themes prominent in her works?

answer

Rape, family dysfunctions, body issues

question

How did Jean Weber's life at Vassar influence her writing?

answer

Many works were set at all-women's prep schools and her stories reflected her experiences with her friends at Vassar College

question

How did Jean Webster show her feminist side in her writings?

answer

Most of her protagonists were strong female characters. She always encouraged women to get an education through her stories

question

Which book of Jean Webster was nothing like the others?

answer

Four-Pools Mystery

question

What social issues did Jean Webster address in her writing?

answer

Feminism/women's role in the workforce, economic status, slavery, care for children, divorce

question

What was the literary device Jean Webster used in all her writing?

answer

Humor

question

Which book did John Irving originally write while he attended the Iowa Writer's Workshop?

answer

Setting Free the Bears

question

What literary technique does John Irving often use?

answer

Telling a story, within a story

question

Which animal often makes symbolic, often physical, appearances in John Irvin's novels?

answer

A bear

question

How did being sexually abused in John Irving's childhood influence his writing?

answer

Many characters he wrote about suffered from sexual abuse as well

question

Which novel did John Irving receive the most praise for and what were the major themes of this novel?

answer

"The World According to Garp," with themes such as death, gender role, and sexuality were prominent

question

What kind of people did Eudora Welty write about?

answer

Normal people who were not usually protagonists such as hitch-hikers, deaf people, and beauticians. She gave voice to the voiceless.

question

What makes Eudora Welty stand out from other writers?

answer

Crisp imagery, wry preciseness

question

What are some of the main themes of Eudora Welty's works?

answer

The South, time, and the journey

question

How did Welty incorporate gardening into her works?

answer

She loved to garden and wrote about nature in her works, especially names of flowers

question

Why does John Green write Young Adult literature?

answer

Teenagers are doing many important things for the first time in their lives. He believes they should be treated like intelligent people since they are so open to philosophical ideas.

question

What is John Green's philosophy on reading?

answer

"Books belong to their readers," meaning that readers should be allowed to read books without having to worry about any other deeper meaning that isn't personally meaningful to them

question

Which of John Green's novels is the most heavily based on his high school career?

answer

"Looking for Alaska"

question

How did John Green's time as a chaplain and his friendship with Ester Earl influence his writing?

answer

He began to write about his experiences. Meeting Esther gave him a new perspective on what it was like to be a dying teenager

question

Why is it important to imagine people complexly? (John Green)

answer

This allows you to feel greater empathy towards them. Knowing that they have hopes, dreams, and fears just like you do can help you to work better with them.

question

How did the space race influence Isaac Asimov's writing?

answer

It aided his obsession with space, space travel, and other planets

question

How did the atomic bombs dropped in Japan influence Isaac Asimov's writing?

answer

It gave him a way to show the fall of the Earth. A common theme was that the Earth and been destroyed in a nuclear war.

question

What is psychohistory? What role does it play in Isaac Asimov's stories?

answer

The belief that the future of a certain group of people can be predicted by looking at their past. It plays a role in "Foundation Trilogy" where they use it to prevent the collapse of a civilization

question

What are the three laws of robotics? (Isaac Asimov)

answer

1) A robot may not injure a human or allow a human to be harmed through inaction 2) A robot must obey orders given to it unless they conflict with the fire law 3) A robot must protect its own existence unless it conflicts with the first two laws

question

What role did religion play in Isaac Asimov's writing?

answer

Religion because it reflected Asimov's personal beliefs that the ideas of the human were more important than the ideals of a God

question

How did Robert Ludlum's job in the Marine Corps affect his writing?

answer

His job exposed him to war and life outside his sheltered life in the US. All he ever wrote about had to do with war and espionage/international affairs

question

How did Robert Ludlum's jobs in theater, acting, and producing affect his writing?

answer

He always knew the exact image he wanted to portray, so this really came out in the excess description of his novels

question

What is Robert Ludlum's most popular series, and what did it get made into?

answer

The Bourne Series, movies

question

What are some common themes shown throughout Ludlum's novels?

answer

Excessive description, relatable characters, Cold War, corrupt government

question

What are two reasons that Robert Ludlum might have written unders pseudonyms?

answer

Keep suspense going even outside the novel Incorporate his children somewhere in his writing

question

What was Ernest Hemingway's style based off of?

answer

The style he learned at his first job for the newspaper, Kansas City Star

question

What event caused Ernest Hemingway to be mentally unstable throughout his life and probably lead to his own death?

answer

His father committing suicide

question

What were some major themes in Ernest Hemingway's novels?

answer

Love, war, wilderness, and loss

question

What time period was Ernest Hemingway a part of?

answer

The lost generation

question

How was Ernest Hemingway influenced by Gertrude Stein and F. Scott Fitzgerald?

answer

They shaped his writing especially Gertrude who became somewhat of an editor and she completely changed his writing style

question

What tragic event did Stephen King witness as a child and does not seem to remember?

answer

His friend getting hit by a train while they were outside playing

question

What book did Stephen King throw away?

answer

Carrie

question

What are three common themes seen throughout Stephen King's works?

answer

Childhood innocence, strong women, the supernatural

question

Why did Stephen King write under a pseudonym for a short period of time?

answer

So he could prove that his fame was real and it wasn't by chance that he got published

question

What 3 kind of books is Stephen King known for?

answer

Fantasy, horror, and science fiction

question

Which two schools did Fitzgerald attend before went to Princeton?

answer

St. Paul Academy and Newman School

question

Which one of Fitzgerald's novels' was an instant success and lead him to his celebrity status?

answer

"This Side of Paradise"

question

Where did F. Scott Fitzgerald move for a change of scenery and ended up being where he wrote the Great Gatsby?

answer

France

question

Who did F. Scott Fitzgerald befriend in France that he had very different opinions than him?

answer

Ernest Hemingway

question

What was Zelda, Fitzgerald's wife, diagnosed with?

answer

Schizophrenia

question

What was Jack London's most famous novel and why?

answer

"The Call of the Wild," because it was an adventure story about a dog which was unique for that time period

question

What are some jobs Jack London did other than being a writer?

answer

Gold prospector, seaman, hobo, rancher

question

What was the Wolf House? (Jack London)

answer

His dream house that burned down and he never was able to live in it or rebuild it

question

How many works did Jack London write in his lifetime?

answer

Hundreds of short stories, over 50 novels, and some essays/plays

question

How many words did Jack London write in a day, how many a week?

answer

1000 words/day, 6 days/week

question

How does Toni Morrison's background affect her writing?

answer

She knew a lot about African American roots and expressed this in her writing by creating plots, settings, and characters

question

Name something about Toni Morrison's writing that is seen repeatedly throughout most of her books

answer

Themes, characterization, african american heritage

question

How do Toni Morrison's stories usually end?

answer

Usually there is no clear ending, it open to interpretation

question

What is one major theme in the novel "The Bluest Eye" by Toni Morrison?

answer

Standard of beauty, innocence, abuse

question

Toni Morrison was very versatile in the types of literature that she wrote. Which was her most popular?

answer

Novels

question

Did did Truman Capote suffer with his whole life?

answer

Abandonment issues

question

Who was a childhood friend of Truman Capote that is also a famous author?

answer

Harper Lee

question

What novel by Truman Capote was semi-autobiographical and why?

answer

"Other Voices, Other Rooms" because it displayed homosexuality (he was homosexual) and childhood experiences

question

What is Truman Capote's most popular novel?

answer

"In Cold Blood"

question

What are two literary devices Capote used in his writing?

answer

Imagery, poetic prose, symbolism, similies

question

What generation of literature does J.D. Salinger fit into?

answer

He's a link between other writers of WWII, the lost generation, and the Beat Generation

question

What are 3 examples of J.D. Salinger's themes?

answer

Loss of innocence, insincerity of adults, need for balance

question

How did WWII affect J.D. Salinger's life?

answer

After WWII, he went into a much darker place and his writing was more sarcastic

question

What makes J.D. Salinger's characters so realistic?

answer

Dialoge and indirect characterization

question

How is religion relevant to J.D. Salinger's work and life?

answer

He experienced new religions and wrote about the the Glass family doing the same

question

What does J.D. Salinger's taste in women say about his view on childhood innocence?

answer

He was obsessed with innocence

question

What occupation did both of Thomas Perry's parents have?

answer

Public school teachers

question

What were Thomas Perry's majors in college?

answer

English and American literature

question

What were a few jobs that Thomas Perry had?

answer

Commercial fisherman, factory laborer, weapons mechanic

question

Which one of his books did he receive the Edgar Allan Poe Award for?

answer

"The Butcher's Boy"

question

What does Thomas Perry incorporate in all of his works?

answer

Precise detail

question

Why are the settings in Barbara Kingsolver's novels extremely accurate?

answer

She only writes about places she has lived in or been to such as the setting in "The Bean Tree"

question

What did Barbara Kingsolver's father do to influence her writing?

answer

He moved their family to different places to offer his services in less-fortunate countries. This really opened up her eyes to different cultures in the world

question

What is a common theme seen in Barbara Kingsolver's writing?

answer

Different social and political issues in society today

question

What did Barbara Kingsolver study in college and recieve her master's degree in?

answer

Biology

question

What award did Barbara Kingsolver establish in the late 1900's?

answer

The Bellwether Prize

question

What was the title of the first poem Dorothy Parker sold to Vanity Fair?

answer

"Any Porch"

question

Dorothy Parker's writing was most noted for her what?

answer

Wit

question

What group of writers was Dorothy Parker a member of?

answer

The Algonquin Round Table

question

Why was Dorothy Parker fired from Vanity Fair?

answer

In one of her criticisms she gave an actress a bad review and her husband was an advertiser for the magazine

question

What subject matter does Dorothy Parker's poem "Resume" deal with?

answer

Suicide

question

What is Jack Kerouac main theme?

answer

Traveling

question

Why did Jack Kerouac drop out of Columbia?

answer

He fought with his coach, got kicked off the football team, and lost his scholarship

question

Who influenced Jack Kerouac when writing "On the Road"?

answer

Neal Cassiy

question

What is Jack Kerouac's writing style?

answer

Spontaneous prose

question

What was a major outcome of being famous for Jack Kerouac?

answer

He became an alcoholic

question

At what magazine did Sylvia Plath do an internship?

answer

Mademoiselle

question

Which of Sylvia Plath's works is autobiographical?

answer

"The Bell Jar"

question

What are 3 major themes in Sylvia Plath's works?

answer

Death, darkness, isolation

question

Which poet did Sylvia Plath end up marrying?

answer

Ted Hughes

question

Almost all of Sylvia Plath's works were published _______.

answer

Posthumously

question

Like his father, Raymond Chandler struggled with______

answer

Alcoholism

question

What Raymond Chandler lacked in plot, he made up for in ______

answer

Imagery

question

How is Phillip Marlowe different than other detectives in fiction novels?

answer

He was sexually, racially, politically, and environmentally aware

question

Raymond Chandler made his money by writing _______

answer

Screenplays

question

Raymond Chandler is considered the father of ____ fiction

answer

Hard-boiled detective

question

Why did Robert Frost move to England for 3 years?

answer

To get published

question

What poem from Robert Frost was read at JFK's inauguration?

answer

"The Gift Outright"

question

What is the sound of sense? (Robert Frost)

answer

Making words go beyond their meaning to something deeper and more personal to the individual

question

What 2 collections of poems by Robert Frost were published in England?

answer

"A Boy's Will" and "North of Boston"

question

Who gave Robert Frost his first farm in New Hampshire?

answer

His grandfather

question

What was the most important educational factor of Ambrose Bierce's childhood?

answer

His fathers library

question

What was Ambrose Bierce's first short story?

answer

"The Haunted Valley"

question

Why did Ambrose Bierce accept the job at the Examier?

answer

Minimal editorial intrusion

question

What was Bierce considered the master of and why?

answer

Macabre because his stories either centered on death or instilled a sense of terror in the reader

question

What are some techniques/themes used in "One of the Missing" by Ambrose Bierce?

answer

Strving to prove confidence, psychological mind play, death, terror, time

question

What is Hinton's greatest strength in her writing?

answer

Characterization

question

Does Hinton write using experiences from her own life or does she fictionalize everything in her novels?

answer

She uses her own life experiences

question

What are some common themes found throughout Hinton's novels?

answer

Absent parents, gang violence, loyalty, friendship, coming of age

question

How did Hinton change the young adult genre?

answer

She wrote about what was actually happening in the lives of teenagers

question

What awards has Hinton received for her writing?

answer

New York Times "best novel" for the outsiders, and Oklahoma writing hall of fame

question

What is the full name of the disease that killed Flannery O'Connor?

answer

Systematic Lupus Erythematosus

question

What did Flannery do at age six to get recorded?

answer

Trained a chicken to walk backwards

question

What did Flannery major in in college?

answer

Sociology and English

question

What does the peacock symbolize in Flannery's works?

answer

Immortality and spiritual ranking

question

What pope blessed Flannery when she was in Rome?

answer

Pope Pius XII

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Central High School History of the Americas Mark The End Of Twenty Fourth Amendment United States History-Other Voter Registration Drives

Chapter 29 Test: Civil Rights Movement – Flashcards 50 terms

Matilda Campbell

50 terms

Preview

Chapter 29 Test: Civil Rights Movement – Flashcards

question

Poll tax

answer

Citizens had to pay tax in order to vote. Tax equaled several days work. Kept African Americans from voting.

question

Literacy tests

answer

You had to pass reading tests that had a lot of questions and you only had a little time to complete the entire test and get everything correct. Unfair tests that kept African Americans from voting.

question

Ku Klux Klan (KKK)

answer

A group formed because they wanted to restore Democratic control of the South and to keep former slaves powerless.

question

Civil disobedience

answer

The refusal to obey with certain laws or to pay taxes and fines.

question

Brown v. Board of Education

answer

African Americans who sued to end segregation in public schools. The Brown decision was limited to public schools but many people hoped that it would eventually end segregation in other public facilities.

question

Emmett Till

answer

His crisis sparked the beginning of the civil rights movement. He was killed because he was black and white people saw him whistling to a white women.

question

Montgomery Bus Boycott

answer

African Americans stopped riding the buses because they wanted to end segregated buses and they knew that buses were mostly filled with African Americans. Made MLK more popular. Started because Rosa Parks was arrested and people were mad.

question

Martin L. King Jr.

answer

Became famous during the Montgomery Bus Boycott. He led the Civil Rights Movement and helped African Americans gain the right to vote. An activist and is president of the SCLC. His message to people was nonviolent protest, he supported it.

question

Birmingham Demonstrations

answer

African Americans wanted to integrate public facilities and gain better jobs and housing. Children's march occurred. People saw police brutality against children which allowed the change of rights.

question

Selma and Bloody Sunday

answer

MLK and SCLC organized voter-registration drives, including protest march.

question

Voting Rights Act

answer

Banned literacy tests and other laws that kept blacks from registering to vote. Federal officials had to register voters and African Americans registered to vote increased.

question

Thurgood Marshall

answer

The NAACP counsel who led the attorneys who challenged the segregation laws in the courts.

question

Great Society

answer

Programs to help the disenfranchised, poor, elderly, and women and promoted education. Created by Johnson to help those in need.

question

Cesar Chavez

answer

He was a migrant worker (travels from place to place in search of work) who fought for his rights. He started a union for farm workers but not recognized by owners. Organized a strike and boycott for workers.

question

Grandfather clause

answer

As long as your grandfather voted before 1867, you could vote. Helped white males who couldn't pay poll taxes and pass literacy tests. Blacks weren't citizens before 1866.

question

Jim Crow laws

answer

Laws that were designed to segregate white and black people in private or public facilities.

question

SCLC

answer

Southern Christian Leadership Conference. A group that coordinated civil rights protests across the South. President is MLK.

question

Sit-in Movement

answer

Four African American students sat at a lunch counter and ordered coffee but the waitress refused to serve them because they were African American so they began to sit there all day every day starting a sit-in.

question

Little Rock Nine

answer

Nine African American students enrolled at Central High School but their were too many segregationists.

question

Civil rights

answer

Personal rights or freedoms that all citizens have which are required by law.

question

Nonviolent protest

answer

Demonstration without violence to advance a political or social cause. Usually seen as civil disobedience.

question

Rosa Parks

answer

She was arrested for not giving up her spot on a bus to a white man.

question

March on Washington

answer

250,000 people marched from Birmingham to the Lincoln Memorial in Washington to build support for civil rights legislation. MLK said his famous I have a Dream speech.United many groups and President Kennedy promised support.

question

Freedom Summer

answer

A voter-organization drive for Southern blacks created by SNCC. They wanted African Americans in politics. They want to vote white people into office that will make a difference in the rights.

question

Malcolm X

answer

A person who rejected the separatist ideas of the Nation of Islam. After Mecca he started to modify his feelings about working with whites (he wants to work with any race). He was assassinated by members from Nation of Islam.

question

Children's March

answer

Adults were threatened to lose their jobs if they marched so they sent their kids to march instead.

question

Nation of Islam

answer

A branch of Islam founded in the U.S. and urged African Americans to separate from whites. They wanted blacks to be separated from whites.

question

Twenty-Fourth Amendment

answer

Ended poll taxes. Gave the right for citizens to vote.

question

Plessy v. Ferguson

answer

A case in which the Supreme Court ruled that separation of the races in public accommodations was legal.

question

Sharecropping

answer

A system in which landowners gave farm workers land, seed, and tools in return for a part of the crops they raised.

question

SNCC

answer

Student Nonviolent Coordinating Commitee. Civil rights leader saw the success of sit-ins and created this organization to encourage young people to do it to.

question

Segregation

answer

The separation or isolate whites and blacks in housing, schooling, and other ways of life.

question

Integration

answer

The process of uniting of bringing together blacks and whites.

question

Boycott

answer

A form of protest to avoid from dealing with or buying products from a particular group, organization, or country.

question

President Dwight Eisenhower

answer

The president during the Cold War.

question

Sit-in

answer

A form of protest were people occupy a place and refuse to move until their demands are met.

question

Freedom Rides

answer

A protest against segregation on interstate busing in the South.

question

Civil Rights Act of 1964

answer

Banned segregation in public places and created Equal Employment Opportunity Commission to prevent job discrimination.

question

Civil Rights Act of 1968

answer

It prohibited or banned discrimination in housing.

question

President Lyndon Johnson

answer

President during the Civil Rights Movement. Signed the Civil Rights Act.

question

Eugene "Bull" Connor

answer

The Birmingham Public Safety commissioner used violence at the Children's March and Birmingham Marches to stop protests.

question

What were the major effects of Reconstruction on African Americans after the Civil War?

answer

Poll tax, literacy tests, and grandfather clause was created to be able to register to vote. Unfair to African Americans.

question

Why did civil rights leaders choose to fight segregation in education first?

answer

Because they wanted to have equal education which can give them an opportunity to go into politics.

question

*What was the impact or message taken from Emmett Till's death and trial? (ESSAY QUESTION)

answer

If change was going to happen people to try and make it happen. It sparked the Civil Rights Movement.

question

What was the ruling in the Emmett Till case and what happened to the killers?

answer

The killers were not guilty because they couldn't identify the body. But after the killers told their story to a magazine company.

question

*What were three goals of the civil rights movement? (ESSAY QUESTION)

answer

1. End segregation and equality for all people. 2. Ability to vote freely. 3. Gain protection from violence and harassment

question

Why were voting rights important to the civil rights movement?

answer

So that African Americans could vote for whites who supported equality.

question

*What were the nonviolent protest tactics used to make the civil rights movement effective? (ESSAY QUESTION)

answer

Legal cases, boycott, sit-ins, freedom rides, marches, and speeches.

question

Describe what happened to protesters during the civil rights movement.

answer

They were sent to prison.

question

Name other groups that fought for their rights after being inspired by the civil rights movement.

answer

Mexican Americans, Hispanic Americans, and Women.

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act American With Disabilities Act Drug And Alcohol Abuse Major Life Activities Major Life Activity People With Disabilities State And Local Governments

AP Government, Chapter 3: Study Guide – Flashcards 38 terms

Roman Peck

38 terms

Preview

AP Government, Chapter 3: Study Guide – Flashcards

question

Americans with Disabilities Act (1990)

answer

Mandate passed by Congress Prohibits discrimination in employment, public services and accommodations, and telecommunications against those with disabilities

question

Article IV(4)

answer

Addresses states Full faith and credit - all states must respect the acts, records, and judicial proceedings of other states Privileges and immunities - all citizens of all states are entitled to the same privileges/immunities Extradition - no person suspected of a crime in one state may escape to another to escape prosecution Creation of new states Governing territories - Congress has the power to make laws regarding territories, prejudice of claims is prohibited Protection of states - guarantees republican form of gov. and protection against invasion and domestic violence

question

Articles of Confederation

answer

United States' first Constitution; weak

question

Block Grants

answer

Grants which are given out on a formula basis by Congress to be used by states for a general purpose Health Income Security Education Transportation

question

Categorical Grants

answer

Grants which are issued by Congress to a state for a specific purpose Project Grants - money only to those who apply; competition Formula Grants - money to all eligible, based on a fixed formula (Medicaid and food stamps)

question

Civil Rights Act of 1964

answer

Mandate Outlawed discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex or natural origin Ended unequal application of voter registration requirements Ended racial segregation in schools, the workplace and public accommodations

question

Clean Air Act (1990)

answer

Mandate Revised from 1970 and 1977 Establishes air quality standards for common and widespread pollutants States are required to adopt plans and control emissions that drift across state lines Calls for power plants/factories to use best available technology

question

Commerce Clause

answer

AIS8C1-17 Gives Congress power to regulate commerce with foreign nations, states and indian tribes Broad interpretation of Commerce Example: Congress makes law (GFSA of 1990) and supreme court struck down law (Judicial Review) b/c it does not pertain to interstate commerce

question

Congressional Powers

answer

AIS8 taxes (AIS8C1) borrowing regulation of commerce (AIS8C3) naturalization and bankruptcy money (coining and regulation of value) counterfeiting (punishment) post office patent and copyrights create courts punish piracies declare war create army and navy call the militia govern District of Columbia "necessary and proper" clause (Elastic Clause) weights and measures

question

Conditions of Aid

answer

Strings (must do to get money) the strings are attached to the grants

question

Devolution

answer

the handing of federal responsibilities to lower levels of gov.

question

Elastic Clause

answer

AIS8C18 "To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer thereof."

question

Federalism

answer

Definition: The division of powers at different levels

question

Advantages:

answer

Prevents tyranny Separates powers of both the state and national governments Increases Citizen Involvement Resolves Conflicts easier Innovation of Laws and Policies based upon state and national needs Closer to States' and Citizens' needs

question

Disadvantages:

answer

Could not resolve the slavery on national level (state issue) Can have unequal laws in states (not all under one law on an issue) States do not have to enforce all national laws if fought in court to not enforce it Competing of states (reduce benefits to reduce welfare costs)

question

State-Centered Federalism (1787-1860)

answer

States were most important; solved most policy questions and provided most public services Anti-Federalism

question

Dual Federalism (1868-1913)

answer

National and state powers - clearly distinguished; functioned separately

question

Cooperative Federalism (1913-1964)

answer

National, state and local governments work together exercising common policy responsibilities Income Tax WWI and WWII Great Depression (New Deal - FDR)

question

Centralized Federalism (1964-1980)

answer

National gov. assume primary responsibility for national goals and directs state/local gov. activity through conditions attached to: national standards conditional grants unfunded mandates premptions

question

State gov.'s act upon national gov.'s decrees

answer

Civil Rights Poverty Programs Environmental Protection

question

New Federalism (1980-1990's)

answer

National government provides the means and state government acts State gov.s have more flexibility to make policies/administer programs Block Grants Revenue Sharing Devolution of Power Attempt to return power to state governments

question

Contemporary Issues

answer

same-sex marriage & marijuana use

question

Role & Powers of national government

answer

Separation of powers into separate entities with checks and balances

question

Role & Powers of state governments:

answer

Same as NG, with limits on NG and the reserved powers, state constitutions

question

Gibbons v. Ogden (1824)

answer

Gives more power to the states Commerce Trade: Buying and selling Broad interpretation: Provides more regulate Marrow interpretation: Provides less regulate National Government w/a broad view of commerce

question

Grants-in-Aid

answer

Money given by the national government to the states

question

Mandates

answer

Strong (must do), terms set by the national government that states must meet whether or not they accept federal grants

question

Funded

answer

Mandate where the national government gives money to the state to fund the mandate

question

Unfunded

answer

Telling you what to do but you have to pay for that

question

McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)

answer

Bank v. Tax Necessary and Proper Clause (Elastic) used to have Congress make a national bank Supremacy Clause Congress gains some power while states are more limited

question

Necessary and Proper Clause

answer

Aka Elastic Clause Allows Congress to pass all laws "necessary and proper" to its duties, and which has permitted Congress to exercise powers not specifically given to it (enumerated) by the Constitution

question

Reserved Powers

answer

Powers given to the state government alone

question

Selective Incorporations

answer

The process whereby the Court has applied many parts of the Bill of Rights to the states case by case of how the Bill of rights applies to the states by the 14th amendment (slow to have national gov. gain power; Barron v. Baltimore, 1833)

question

Strict v. Loose Interpretation of the Constitution

answer

Strict: Using what is explicitly stated in the Constitution to make laws or bills Loose: Using the Constitution as a guideline to make changes as long as the action is specifically outlawed by the Constitution

question

Supremacy Clause

answer

The Constitution, federal statutes and treaties are the "Law of the Land" (Laws the national government make are the supreme authority)

question

Tenth Amendment

answer

Reserved Powers, powers given exclusively to the states by the Constitution

question

Voting Rights Act of 1965

answer

Mandate by the National Government to regulate the state and local governments for everyone (African- Americans specifically) having the opportunity to exercise their right to vote (15th Amendment)

question

Welfare Reform Act of 1996

answer

Aka Personal Responsibility & Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act Changes Aid for Families and Dependent Children to Temporary Aid for Needy Families (A.F.D.C. ⇨ T.A.N.F.) Conversion to block grant program States given the power & money to run their own welfare program... with Federal guidelines (states decide the How to's)

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Abnormal Psychology Equal Employment Opportunities Family And Medical Leave Act Gender Role Stereotypes Hiring And Firing Infant Mortality Rates Psychology

Psychology of Sport Test 1 – Flashcards 162 terms

Alexander Barker

162 terms

Preview

Psychology of Sport Test 1 – Flashcards

question

1. Which of the following are sport psychology organizations? a. Association for the Advancement of Applied Sport Psychology b. North American Society for Sport Psychology and Physical Activity c. American Sport Psychology Association d. All of the above e. A and b

answer

A and B -Association for the Advancement of Applied Sport Psychology -North American Society for Sport Psychology and Physical Activity

question

2. The least reliable method of obtaining knowledge is a. Introspection b. Intuition c. Shared experience d. Single case study e. Systematic observation

answer

Intuition

question

3. Educational sport psychologists usually have years of training in a. Psychology b. Education c. Sport and exercise science d. Sociology e. Educational psychology

answer

Sport and exercise science

question

4. Which of the following explain(s) the sport psychology research-to-practice gap? a. Few applied forums to disseminate research to practitioners b. Emphasis on basic laboratory research in the 1960s and 1970s c. Emphasis on the field experiments in the 1980s d. All of the above e. A and b

answer

A and B -Few applied forums to disseminate research to practitioners -Emphasis on basic laboratory research in the 1960s and 1970s

question

5. Knowledge gained through experience working in exercise and sport science field situations is called a. Empirical knowledge b. Professional practice knowledge c. Scientific knowledge d. Professional knowledge e. Theoretical knowledge

answer

Professional Practice Knowledge

question

6. Credit for much of the development of sport psychology internationally goes to ________ the first president of the International Society for Sport Psychology a. Franklin Henry b. Dietmar Klein c. Yuri Hanin d. Ferruccio Antonelli e. Gershon Tanenbarum

answer

Ferruccio Antonelli

question

7. The major strength of scientifically derived knowledge is its a. Validity b. Reliability c. Importance d. Impact on society e. None of the above

answer

Reliability

question

8. Zajonc's social facilitation theory predicts that a. Performance on well-learned tasks is facilitated by an audience b. Performance on novel tasks is facilitated by an audience c. Performance on a well-learned task is hindered by an audience d. Performance is not affected by an audience e. Performance is improved on both novel and well-learned tasks in front of an audience

answer

Performance on well-learned tasks is facilitated by an audience

question

9. Which of the following are sport and exercise psychology journals? a. Journal of Applied Sport Psychology b. The Sport Psychologist c. Journal of Sport and Exercise Psychology d. All of the above e. A and C

answer

All of the Above -Journal of Applied Sport Psychology -The Sport Psychologist -Journal of Sport and Exercise Psychology

question

10. The major difference between how a practitioner and a researcher (using the scientific method) would investigate a problem is that the researcher's approach would be more a. Systematic b. Controlled c. Empirical d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

All of the Above -Systematic -Controlled -Empirical

question

11. Which of the following is NOT a method of knowing? a. Single case study b. Shared public experience c. Introspection d. Rationalism e. Systematic observation

answer

Rationalism

question

12. Sport and exercise psychology is first and foremost a a. Science b. Art c. Applied field of study d. Laboratory-based field of study e. None of the above

answer

Science

question

13. The strength of professional practice knowledge is its a. Holistic nature b. Innovative contribution c. Scientific validity and reliability d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

A and B -Holistic nature -Innovative contribution

question

14. Which successful coach is noted for adopting a sport science approach in his coaching? a. "Doc" Counsilman b. Robert Rotella c. Jim Thorpe d. Casey Stengel

answer

"Doc" Counsilman

question

15. The ultimate goal of science is a. Prediction b. Description c. Explanation d. Control e. Theory

answer

Theory

question

16. Coleman Griffith worked with all of the following famous coaches and athletes except a. Red Grange b. Knute Rockne c. Dizzy Dean d. Babe Ruth

answer

Babe Ruth

question

17. Which of the following will the field of sport and exercise psychology face in the future? a. Unqualified people doing consulting in sport psychology b. Few full-time positions in sport psychology involving consulting with athletes c. The need for physical education and exercise specialists to receive sport and exercise psychology information d. All of the above e. A and C

answer

All of the Above -Unqualified people doing consulting in sport psychology -Few full-time positions in sport psychology involving consulting with athletes -The need for physical education and exercise specialists to receive sport and exercise psychology information

question

18. The father of American sport psychology is a. Coleman Griffith b. Rainer Martens c. Dan Landers d. Dan Gould e. Robert Singer

answer

Coleman Griffith

question

19. Which of the following events did not occur during period 5? a. Journal of Sport Psychology was established b. The Olympic committee hired the first full-time sport psychologist c. The journal The Sport Psychologist was established d. Sport psychologists started licensure standards e. APA Division 47 was formed

answer

Sport psychologists started licensure standards

question

20. The most reliable method of obtaining knowledge is a. Introspection b. A single case study c. Systematic observation d. Scientific method e. Shared experiences

answer

Scientific method

question

21. Actively applying knowledge of sport and exercise psychology requires a. Keeping up-to-date on your scientific knowledge base b. Holding realistic expectations concerning the strengths and limitations of scientific principles c. Applying scientific principles in your professional practice setting d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

All of the Above -Keeping up-to-date on your scientific knowledge base -Holding realistic expectations concerning the strengths and limitations of scientific principles -Applying scientific principles in your professional practice setting

question

22. Sport psychology specialists have three roles. These include a. Teaching, research, and consulting b. Teaching, administration, and consulting c. Research, administration, and teaching d. Teaching, intervention, and research e. Intervention, teaching, and consulting

answer

Teaching, research, and consulting

question

23. Scientifically derived knowledge has some limitations, including that it a. Is reductionistic b. Is very fast to evolve c. Tends to be conservative d. All of the above e. A and C

answer

A and C -is reductionistic -tends to be conservative

question

24. Which of the following statements is (are) true? a. Sport psychology focuses on the concerns of the elite athlete b. Sport psychology focuses on the competitive sport of young athletes c. Sport psychology is actually concerned with both sport and exercise settings d. Sport psychology focuses on recreational athletes e. None of the above

answer

Sport psychology is actually concerned with both sport and exercise settings

question

25. Behavior is determined by the interaction of the environment and personal makeup of the performer. This idea is an example of a a. Cognitive-behavioral orientation b. Behavioral orientation c. Cognitive-affective orientation d. Social-psychological orientation e. Cognitive-environmental orientation

answer

Social-psychological orientation

question

26. Which of the following events did NOT occur in period 6 (2000-present)? a. Psychology of Sport and Exercise journal is published in Europe b. Division 47 of the American Psychological Association focuses on sport psychology as a specialized competency area c. Association for the Advancement of Applied Sport Psychology is established d. A and C e. B and C

answer

Association for the Advancement of Applied Sport Psychology is established

question

27. Which of the following researchers was NOT prominent during period 1 (1895-1920)? a. EW Scripture b. GT Patrick c. Norman Triplett d. R Cummins e. Ed McAuley

answer

Ed McAuley

question

28. Which professional sport psychology association is responsible for developing standards for certification of individuals working in applied sport psychology settings? a. North American Society for the Psychology of Sport and Physical Activity b. International Society of Sport Psychology c. Association of Applied Sport Psychology d. American Psychological Association Division 47 e. Applied Sport Psychology Society

answer

Association of Applied Sport Psychology

question

29. Research by Landers and his colleagues, using biofeedback techniques to train elite marksmen to shoot between heartbeats, is a good example of a a. Cognitive-behavioral orientation b. Cognitive-affective orientation c. Behavioral orientation d. Psychophysiological orientation e. Physiological-environmental orientation

answer

Psychophysiological orientation

question

30. Which of the following is NOT a general ethical principle outlined by the American Psychological Association? a. Social responsibility b. Integrity c. Professional and scientific responsibility d. Individualization e. Competence

answer

Individualization

question

31. In the fifth period, sport psychology experienced a tremendous growth in a. Theoretical development b. Applied research c. Professional service d. A and B e. B and C

answer

B and C -applied research -professional service

question

32. Which type of question would NOT fall under the category of "what effect do psychological factors have on an individual's performance? a. Does self-confidence influence a child's ability to learn to swim? b. How does anxiety affect a tennis player's service accuracy? c. Does running reduce one's anxiety and depression? d. How does punishment influence an individual's motivation to continue participation in sport? e. How does concentration affect performance in fine motor tasks?

answer

Does running reduce one's anxiety and depression?

question

33. Test anxiety is an example of a a. Trait measure b. State measure c. Situational-specific trait measure d. Situational-specific state measure

answer

Situational-specific trait measure

question

34. Which of the following statements about exercise and personality is (are) true? a. There is a positive relationship between exercise and self-concept b. Exercise has consistently been related to changes from Type A behavior to Type B behavior c. Exercise participation is most strongly related to social self-concept d. A and B e. A and C

answer

There is a positive relationship between exercise and self-concept

question

35. To better understand personality, you should a. Be a good communicator b. Be an informed consumer c. Use lots of personality tests with athletes d. Be a good observer e. Consider both personality traits and states

answer

Consider both personality traits and states

question

36. The research criticizing Morgan's mental health model and implications of the "iceberg profile" has argued that a. The iceberg profile accounts for only a very small percentage of athlete's performance variation b. The iceberg profile only differentiates athletes from nonathletes and does not differentiate between athletes of different ability levels c. The Profile of Mood States (POMS) is not a reliable test d. A and B e. A and C

answer

A and B -The iceberg profile accounts for only a very small percentage of athlete's performance variation -The iceberg profile only differentiates athletes from nonathletes and does not differentiate between athletes of different ability levels

question

37. Morgan developed the _________ model to help explain the relationship between personality-mood states and athletic success a. Normative b. Mental health c. Psychological skills d. Psychopathology

answer

Mental health

question

Which is NOT an example of situational-specific sport inventory? a. Sport Competition Anxiety Test b. Group Environment Questionnaire c. Profile of Mood States d. Trait-State Confidence Inventory e. Competitive State Anxiety Inventory

answer

Profile of Mood States

question

39. Based on psychological data only, Morgan was successful in predicting ______ out of 16 rowers who eventually made the US heavyweight rowing team a. 5 b. 12 c. 10 d. 14 e. 7

answer

question

40. Recently the "big five" model of personality has become widely accepted. Which of the following is not one of the five personality factors in the model? a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Neuroticism d. Extraversion e. Depression

answer

Depression

question

41. When administering tests to athletes, which of the following guidelines should be followed? a. Explain to athletes why the tests are being given b. Tell athletes what the tests measure c. Provide specific feedback concerning test results d. All of the above

answer

All of the above -Explain to athletes why the tests are being given -Tell athletes what the tests measure -Provide specific feedback concerning test results

question

42. Which of the following is (are) NOT a question(s) that a researcher using the interactionalist approach would ask? a. Will anxious athletes perform better than less anxious athletes in situations that are not stressful? b. Will extroverts perform better than introverts in a team situation? c. Will highly motivated people choose to participate in competitive situations? d. Will kids with high self-esteem prefer competitive sport situations to a greater degree than kids low on self-esteem?

answer

Will highly motivated people choose to participate in competitive situations?

question

43. The research investigating the personality profiles of athletes and nonathletes has found that a. No specific personality profile distinguishes athletes from nonathletes b. Athletes have higher levels of anxiety than nonathletes c. Athletes are more introverted than nonathletes d. Athletes have higher levels of self-esteem than nonathletes

answer

No specific personality profile distinguishes athletes from nonathletes

question

44. A weakness in the psychodynamic approach is its a. Sole focus on internal determinants of behavior b. Lack of attention to the social environment c. Sole focus on external determinants of behavior d. A and B e. B and C

answer

A and B -sole focus on internal determinants of behavior -lack of attention to the social environment

question

45. The situational approach to personality assumes that a. Individuals behave differently across situations b. Individuals behave similarly across situations c. If the situation is strong, the effect of personality traits would be minimal d. A and B e. A and C

answer

A and C -individuals behave differently across situations -if the situation is strong, the effect of personality traits would be minimal

question

46. Showing a person a picture of an athlete arguing with an official and then asking the person to write about what is happening is an example of a. Objective testing b. Projective testing c. Multidimensional personality assessment d. Unidimensional personality assessment e. Psychological state-trait inventory

answer

Projective testing

question

47. Research in the general psychological literature indicates that nature (ex: genetics) generally accounts for approximately what percentage of behavior? a. 10-20% b. 20-30% c. 30-40% d. 50-60% e. 80-90%

answer

50-60%

question

48. Which of the following is (are) true? a. Successful female athletes differ in personality from female nonathletes b. Male and female elite athletes have similar personality profiles c. Female athletes are more aggressive and independent than female nonathletes d. All of the above

answer

All of the above -successful female athletes differ in personality from female nonathletes -male and female elite athletes have similar personality profiles -female athletes are more aggressive and independent than female nonathletes

question

49. Which of the following is (are) important when administering psychological inventories? a. Knowledge of testing principles and measurement error b. Sensitivity to one's own limitations c. Whether to use tests for team selections d. All of the above

answer

All of the above -knowledge of testing principles and measurement error -sensitivity to one's own limitations -whether to use tests for team selections

question

50. Which of the following is NOT a level in Hollander's model of personality structure? a. Childhood experiences b. Psychological core c. Typical responses d. Role-related behavior e. A and B

answer

Childhood experiences

question

51. The interactional approach assumes that a. Situational and personal variables are co-determinants of behavior b. Personality interacts with the psychological core to determine behavior c. Highly aggressive people, for example, will usually react in an aggressive manner when placed in an aggressive situation d. A and C e. A and B

answer

A and C -situational and personal variables are co-determinants of behavior -highly aggressive people, for example, will usually react in an aggressive manner when placed in an aggressive situation

question

52. Eysenck and Eysenck argue that personality can be understood by focusing on which of the following traits? a. Neuroticism-stability b. Introversion-extroversion c. Relaxation-anxiety d. A and B e. All of the above

answer

Neuroticism-stability

question

53. The most superficial and therefore most easily changed part of a personality structure is its a. Psychological core b. Role-related behavior c. Typical responses d. Belief system

answer

Role-related behavior

question

54. Recently, the psychodynamic approach has been applied to sport by Swedish sport psychologist Erwin Apitzsch. This new approach came from his work with athletes focusing on a. The superego b. Defense mechanisms c. Ego development d. Early childhood experiences e. Id-superego conflicts

answer

Defense mechanisms

question

55. Taking an intra-individual approach to psychological testing means that a. Individuals are compared against population norms b. Individuals are compared against how they usually score on a particular psychological inventory c. Individuals are compared to norms for their age and gender d. Individuals are compared based on objective and subjective assessments

answer

Individuals are compared against how they usually score on a particular psychological inventory

question

56. The trait approach to personality assumes that a. People behave differently in different situations b. People behave similarly in different situations c. Personality does not change much over time d. A and C e. B and C

answer

B and C -people behave similarly in different situations -personality does not change much over time

question

57. Which of the following is not a subscale from the Athletic Coping Skills Inventory? a. Concentration b. Coachability c. Goal setting d. Imagery e. Freedom from worry

answer

Imagery

question

58. In the iceberg profile developed by Morgan, which of the following psychological characteristics that successful athletes display is typically above the mean of the population? a. Anxiety b. Anger c. Fatigue d. Vigor e. Confusion

answer

Vigor

question

59. Approximately how many articles have been published on sport personality in the professional sport psychology literature? a. 100 b. 300 c. 1000 d. 2000 e. 5000

answer

1000

question

60. Which of the following is (are) true? a. Participation in competitive sport procedures changes in personality structure b. Compared with nonathletes, individual-sport athletes are less anxious and more dependent c. Compared with nonathletes, team-sport athletes are more introverted and independent d. A and B e. B and C

answer

Compared with nonathletes, individual-sport athletes are less anxious and more dependent

question

61. According to results from in-depth interviews with Olympic athletes, medalists exhibited which of the following mental strategies? a. More positive self-talk b. More extensive mental preparation c. Better preparedness for unforeseen negative events d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

All of the above -more positive self-talk -more extensive mental preparation -better preparedness for unforeseen negative events

question

62. Researchers have recently used the Athletic Coping Skills Inventory (ACSI) to investigate the relationship between coping skills and performance. Results have indicated that a. Good psychological coping skills help athletes get the most out of their ability b. Good psychological coping skills are associated with continued involvement in professional baseball c. The ACSO is a good tool to use for team selection d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

A and B -good psychological coping skills help athletes get the most out of their ability -good psychological coping skills are associated with continued involvement in professional baseball

question

63. Recent research has been critical of some of the findings concerning the relationship between mood states and performance. Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline for using mood profiling with elite athletes? a. Use it as a monitor of training load b. Use it as a monitor of the acclimatization process c. Use it as a predictor of team success d. Use it as a monitor of emotional response to injury e. Use it for identification of overtrained athletes

answer

Use it as a predictor of team success

question

64. Trait anxiety refers to ___________ anxiety, whereas state anxiety refers to ________ anxiety a. General; momentary b. Momentary; general c. Competitive; noncompetitive d. Noncompetitive; competitive

answer

General; momentary

question

65. Which of the following is NOT a major reason for initially joining an exercise program? a. Weight loss b. Fitness c. Health factors d. Affiliation e. To feel better

answer

Affiliation

question

66. Internal and external attributions are linked to a. Emotional reactions b. Cognitions c. Expectations d. Behavioral intent e. Self-talk

answer

Emotional reactions

question

67. The most difficult but most important component of structuring sport and exercise environments to meet an athlete's or exerciser's needs is a. Individualizing your coaching and teaching b. Finding rigorous training environments c. Deciding on what motivational strategy to use d. Balancing extrinsic and intrinsic motivation

answer

Individualizing your coaching and teaching

question

68. Competence motivation theory was based on the research of developmental psychologist a. Tara Scanlan b. Susan Harter c. Thelma Horn d. Glyn Roberts e. Albert Bandura

answer

Susan Harter

question

69. Which of the following statements is (are) true? a. Mastery goals should be instead of outcome goals b. Feedback to student athletes should emphasize attributing their success to high ability and high effort c. Lack of effort, rather lack of ability, attributions should be emphasized following failure d. All of the above

answer

All of the above -Mastery goals should be instead of outcome goals -feedback to student athletes should emphasize attributing their success to high ability and high effort -lack of effort, rather lack of ability, attributions should be emphasized following failure

question

70. Which of the following is (are) true concerning need achievement theory? a. High achievers have high motivation to avoid success and low motivation to avoid failure b. High achievers enjoy evaluating their abilities c. Low achievers often become preoccupied with thoughts of failure d. All of the above e. A and C

answer

High achiever enjoy evaluating their abilities

question

71. A task goal orientation will usually lead to which of the following? a. Persistence in the face of failure b. Selecting difficult tasks or opponents c. A strong work ethic d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

All of the above -persistence in the face of failure -selecting difficult tasks or opponents -a strong work ethic

question

72. Attribution theory focuses on a. How individuals explain their success and failure b. How groups explain their personality attributes c. How individuals explain their personality attributes d. How individuals explain their personal biases e. None of the above

answer

How individuals explain their success and failure

question

73. What is critical in affecting the performance and behavior of sport and exercise participants is a. Motivation b. Physiology c. Biomechanics d. Sociological factors e. All of the above

answer

All of the above -Motivation -Physiology -Biomechanics -Sociological factors

question

74. In a general sense, motivation can be defined as a. The intensity and direction of one's effort b. The direction and width of one's effort c. The intensity of one's effort d. The direction of one's effort e. None of the above

answer

The intensity and direction of one's effort

question

75. What are the two primary situational considerations in need achievement theory? a. Probability of success; motive to achieve success b. Probability of success; incentive value of success c. Resultant achievement motivation; probability of success d. Incentive value of success; pride or shame e. Pride or shame; probability of success

answer

Probability of success; incentive value of success

question

76. Personal motivation usually is the result of a. Personal factors b. Situational factors c. A combination of personal and situation factors d. The previous history of success or failure e. None of the above

answer

A combination of personal and situation factors

question

77. To understand students', athletes', and exercisers' motives for involvement, one should a. Observe participants to see what they like and do not like about the activity b. Talk to others who know the athletes and exercisers c. Periodically ask the participants to list their reasons for participation d. All of the above

answer

All of the above -observe participants to see what they like and do not like about the activity -talk to others who know the athletes and exercisers -periodically ask the participants to list their reasons for participation

question

78. Sport-specific form of achievement motivation is called a. Competitiveness b. Confidence c. Mental preparation d. Mental toughness e. None of the above

answer

Competitiveness

question

79. Which type of motivational climate is associated with the most adaptive motivational changes? a. Mastery b. Performance c. Outcome d. Decision making e. Attributional

answer

Mastery

question

80. Attribute retraining generally focuses on changing a. Low-ability attributions b. High-effort attributions c. High-ability attributions d. Task difficulty attributions e. Luck attributions

answer

low-ability attributions

question

81. Which is the most widely endorsed view of motivation taken by sport psychologists? a. Trait b. Situation c. Interactionalistic d. Individualist e. None of the above

answer

Interactionalistic

question

82. Which of the following is NOT a general orientation to motivation? a. Trait b. Situation c. Individualistic d. Interactionalist e. None of the above

answer

Individualistic

question

83. The interactionalist view of motivation argues that motivation is an interaction of which two factors? a. Trait and situation b. Trait and individualistic c. Situation and individualistic d. Trait and personal e. Personal and individualistic

answer

Trait and situation

question

84. A disposition to strive for satisfaction when making comparisons with a standard of excellence in the presence of evaluative others" is the definition of which of the following? a. Achievement motivation in sport or competitiveness b. Self-esteem c. Self-confidence d. Self-concept e. None of the above

answer

Achievement motivation in sport or competitiveness

question

85. Defining motivation in a variety of ways is disadvantageous because a. The precise topics of motivation are seldom identified b. Practitioners often do not recognize how specific motivational strategies interact and influence one another c. Intrinsic motivation is confused with extrinsic motivation d. A and B e. A and C

answer

A and B -the precise topics of motivation are seldom identified -practitioners often do not recognize how specific motivational strategies interact and influence one another

question

86. For high achievers, which situation provides the MOST incentive for engaging in achievement behavior? a. 50% chance of success b. 25% chance of success c. 75% chance of success d. 60% chance of success e. 10% chance of success

answer

50% chance of success

question

87. In the competence motivation, model _______ and _______ influence perceived competence, which in turn influences affect and motivation. a. Feedback; attributions b. Feedback; motivational orientations c. Motivational orientations; attributions d. Motivational climate; self-esteem e. Perceived control; feedback

answer

Feedback; motivational orientations

question

88. An athlete is more motivated when playing against competition that is better than she is than when she plays better than the competition. This is an example of which approach to motivation? a. Trait b. Situation c. Interactionalist d. Individualistic e. None of the above

answer

Situation

question

89. Which of the following is (are) true? a. Mastery goals should be used instead of outcome goals b. Feedback to student athletes should emphasize attributing their success to high ability and high effort c. Lack of effort, rather than lack of ability, attributions should be emphasized following fatigue d. All of the above

answer

All of the above -mastery goals should be used instead of outcome goals -feedback to student athletes should emphasize attributing their success to high ability and high effort -lack of effort, rather than lack of ability, attributions should be emphasized following fatigue

question

90. For low achievers, which situation provides the LEAST incentive for engaging in achievement behaviors? a. 50% chance of success b. 25% chance of success c. 75% chance of success d. 60% chance of success e. 10% chance of success

answer

50% chance of success

question

91. A study by Sorrentino and Sheppard on motivation of swimmers found that a. Approval-oriented swimmers demonstrated faster times in the group than in the individual situation b. Approval-oriented swimmers demonstrated fast times in the individual situation than in the group situation c. Rejection-oriented swimmers swam faster in individual than in relay situations d. A and C e. B and C

answer

A and C -Approval-oriented swimmers demonstrated faster times in the group than in the individual situation -Rejection oriented swimmers swam faster in individual than in relay situations

question

92. Which of the following is NOT an attributional category? a. Stability b. Causality c. Control d. Persistence

answer

Persistence

question

93. Bill is always concerned with comparing his ability to others' and winning. Bill thus has a. Mastery goal orientation b. Task goal orientation c. Attributional goal orientation d. Outcome goal orientation e. Achievement goal orientation

answer

Outcome goal orientation

question

94. "Self-competition" refers to __________, whereas performance is socially evaluative situations refers to ___________ a. Competition, achievement motivation b. Competition, social facilitation c. Achievement motivation, competition d. Achievement motivation, social facilitation e. Competition, ego involvement

answer

Achievement motivation; competition

question

95. Which of the following is NOT a stage of development in competitiveness and achievement motivation? a. Autonomous competence b. Integrated c. Social comparison d. Perceived competence

answer

Perceived competence

question

96. As used in sport psychology literature, motivation can refer to a. An internal personality characteristic b. An external influence c. Consequence of an explanation for behavior d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

All of the above -internal personality characteristic -external influence -consequence of an explanation for behavior

question

97. An effective technique to use to change undesirable participant motives is a. Behavior modification b. Cognitive intervention c. Rational emotive therapy d. Cognitive restructuring e. Self-monitoring

answer

behavior modification

question

98. Ability is considered a(n) __________ and ___________ attribute a. Stable; external b. Stable; internal c. Unstable; internal d. Unstable; external e. Controllable; unstable

answer

Stable; internal

question

99. Stable attributions are linked to a. Affect b. Cognitions c. Expectations of future state or failure d. Emotions e. None of the above

answer

Expectations of future state or failure

question

100. Which of the following is NOT one of the major motives for participating in sport and exercise? a. Having fun b. Being with friends c. Improving skills d. Pleasing parents e. Developing fitness

answer

Pleasing parents

question

101. The overriding characteristic of individuals' exhibiting learned helpless behavior is a. Attributing success to effort b. Feeling their actions have no impact on desired outcomes c. Attributing failure to bad luck d. Feeling they are in control of their actions e. None of the above

answer

Feeling their actions have no impact on desired outcomes

question

102. According to catastrophe theory, to recover from a catastrophe the athlete must a. Completely relax physically b. Control worries through cognitive restructuring c. Reactivate in a controlled manner d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

All of the above -completely relax physically -control worries through cognitive restructuring -reactivate in a controlled manner

question

103. A substantial imbalance between demand and response capability under conditions in which failure has important consequence refers to a. Arousal b. Sensational pressure c. Stress d. State anxiety e. Trait anxiety

answer

Stress

question

104. Which of the following is (are) true? a. Increased anxiety is always debilitating to performance b. Athletes who perceive their anxiety as facilitating rather than harming their performances exhibit higher levels of performance c. The intensity of anxiety is more important than its direction d. A and B e. B and C

answer

Athletes who perceive their anxiety as facilitating rather than harming their performances exhibit higher levels of performance

question

105. The linear relationship between arousal and performance suggests that a. As arousal increases, performance decreases b. As arousal decreases, performance decreases c. As arousal increases, performance increases d. As arousal decreases, performance increases e. Arousal performance increases to an optimal level, and beyond this, performance decreases

answer

As arousal increases, performance increases

question

106. Which of the following is NOT symptomatic of heightened state anxiety? a. Profuse sweating b. Slowed breathing c. Increased muscle tension d. Inability to concentrate e. Sleeping difficulties

answer

Slowed breathing

question

107. A moment-to-moment change in one's perceived physiological activation is referred to as a. Cognitive state anxiety b. Somatic state anxiety c. Activation d. Trait anxiety e. Stress

answer

Somatic state anxiety

question

108. The importance placed on an event and the uncertainty that surrounds the actions of that event are sources of a. State anxiety b. Trait anxiety c. Arousal d. Personal stress e. Situational stress

answer

Situational stress

question

109. In Hanin's work on individualized zones of optimal functioning, he argues that for best performance to occur an athlete needs a. An optimal level of state anxiety b. An optimal level of trait anxiety c. An optimal level of state anxiety and other emotions d. An optimal level of arousal e. An optimal level of physiological arousal

answer

An optimal level of state anxiety and other emotions

question

110. Arousal refers to the a. Direction of motivation b. Intensity of motivation c. Frequency of motivated behavior d. Interaction of cognition and emotions e. A and D

answer

Intensity of motivation

question

111. The inverted U-hypothesis predicts that a. As arousal increases, performance decreases b. Arousal can be either too high or too low c. Top performance occurs at a moderate level of arousal d. A and C e. B and C

answer

B and C -arousal can be either too high or too low -top performance occurs at a moderate level of arousal

question

112. Hanin's zones of optimal functioning approach suggests that a. Each individual has a specific optimal level of efficiency b. Performance is best when arousal is moderate c. Performance is best when arousal is high d. The zone of optimal functioning is the same for all individuals e. None of the above

answer

Each individual has a specific optimal level of efficiency

question

113. There is a direct relationship between one's level of a. Cognitive anxiety and somatic anxiety b. Trait anxiety and state anxiety c. Arousal and stress d. A and C e. B and C

answer

Trait anxiety and state anxiety

question

114. The physiological response and decision making occur in which stage of the stress process? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

answer

Stage 3

question

115. Which personality disposition(s) is (are) related to change in state anxiety? a. Trait anxiety b. Social physique anxiety c. Self-esteem d. All of the above e. A and C

answer

All of the above -Trait anxiety -Social physique anxiety -Self-esteem

question

116. Athletes lower in self-esteem are more likely to experience a. Low confidence and high state anxiety b. Low confidence and low state anxiety c. Low confidence and low trait anxiety d. High confidence and high state anxiety e. Low confidence and low arousal

answer

Low confidence and high state anxiety

question

117. A "catastrophe" occurs, according to catastrophe theory, with a. High state and trait anxiety b. High cognitive and somatic anxiety c. High cognitive anxiety and high physiological arousal d. High somatic anxiety and low physiological anxiety e. None of the above

answer

High cognitive anxiety and high physiological arousal

question

118. Which of the following is NOT a physical manifestation of excess state anxiety? a. Feeling threatened b. Muscle tension c. Attentional problems d. A and C e. B and C

answer

Feeling threatened

question

119. Appropriate guidelines for applying arousal and anxiety knowledge include a. Recognizing the signs of increased arousal and anxiety b. Recognizing how personal and situational factors influence arousal and performance c. Tailoring coaching and instructional practices to individuals d. All of the above e. A and C

answer

All of the above -recognizing the signs of increased arousal and anxiety -recognizing how personal and situational factors influence arousal and performance -tailoring coaching and instructional practices to individuals

question

120. The quarterback needs to shift his attentional focus from surveying the field for receivers to delivery of a pass. This shift would be from a. Broad-external to broad-internal b. Broad-external to broad-external c. Broad-external to narrow-external d. Broad-external to narrow-internal e. Narrow-external to broad-external

answer

Broad-external to narrow-external

question

121. Multidimensional anxiety theory predicts a. A negative relationship between cognitive anxiety and performance b. An inverted-U relationship between somatic anxiety and performance c. An inverted-U relationship between cognitive anxiety and performance d. A and C e. A and B

answer

A and B -a negative relationship between cognitive anxiety and performance -an inverted U relationship between somatic anxiety and performance

question

122. The relationship between arousal and performance depends on one's interpretation of the arousal level. This is the basic approach of a. Catastrophe theory b. Drive theory c. Reversal theory d. Inverted-U hypothesis e. Zones of optimal functioning

answer

Reversal theory

question

123. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the home-court advantage? a. It is greatest in baseball and football b. Between 1924 and 1982, the home team in the baseball World Series won 77% of the time when there was a seventh game c. Between 1984 and 1994 in the National Basketball Association, the home team won 47% of the time when there was a seventh game during the play-offs d. A and B e. None of the above

answer

None of the above

question

124. Which theory predicts a linear relationship between arousal and performance? a. Catastrophe theory b. Drive theory c. Inverted theory d. Zones of optimal functioning e. Reversal theory

answer

Drive theory

question

125. A highly trait-anxious athlete (compared to a less trait-anxious athlete) would perceive competition as a. More threatening and less anxiety producing b. Less threatening and less anxiety producing c. More threatening and more anxiety producing d. Less threatening and more anxiety producing e. None of the above

answer

More threatening and more anxiety producing

question

126. One's general level of anxiety that stays relatively stable over time refers to a. Trait anxiety b. State anxiety c. Cognitive anxiety d. Somatic anxiety e. Arousal

answer

Trait anxiety

question

127. The results of Weinberg and Hurt's (1976) study on college students with high and low trait anxiety demonstrated that a. Increased muscle soreness contributed to inferior performance b. Increased muscle tension contributed to inferior performance c. Increased coordination difficulties contributed to inferior performance d. A and C e. B and C

answer

B and C -increased muscle tension contributed to inferior performance -increased coordination difficulties contributed to inferior performance

question

128. Team sports of basketball and football are examples of which of the following classification of games? a. Competitive means—competitive ends b. Cooperative means—competitive ends c. Individual means—individual ends d. Cooperative means—cooperative ends e. Cooperative means—individual ends

answer

Cooperative means--competitive ends

question

129. In Kelley and Stahelski's study using the prisoner's dilemma game, they found that a. Competitors drew cooperators into competition b. Cooperators drew competitors into cooperation c. Cooperators cooperated and competitors competed d. A and C e. B and C

answer

Competitors drew cooperators into competition

question

130. Which of the following is (are) characteristics of cooperative games? a. They require little equipment or money b. They emphasize participation by all players c. Players learn from mistakes rather than hide from them d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

All of the above -They require little equipment or money -They emphasize participation by all players -Players learn from mistakes rather than hide from them

question

131. Coakley defines competition as a. Situation in which rewards are distributed equally among the participants b. Social process that occurs when rewards are distributed on the basis of comparative performance c. Situation in which the goals of the participants are mutually interdependent d. B and C e. None of the above

answer

Social process that occurs when rewards are distributed on the basis of comparative performance

question

132. In the field experiments conducted by Sherif and Sherif, the experimenters first a. Created strong group identity b. Created hostility among the groups c. Created cooperation among the counselors d. Created competition among the counselors

answer

Created strong group identity

question

133. In his study of the effects of a 14-week program of cooperative games, Orlick found that a. Kids exposed to cooperative games engaged in three times as much cooperative behavior during free play as did kids in the control group b. Games played by the control group tended to emphasize individualistic concerns c. Kids exposed to cooperative games had higher self-esteem at the end of the program than kids in the control group d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

A and B -kids exposed to cooperative games engaged in three times as much cooperative behavior during free play as did kids in the control group -games played by the control group tended to emphasize individualistic concerns

question

134. One athlete looks forward to competition while another dreads the upcoming event. This is an example of a. The objective competitive situation b. The subjective competitive situation c. Response d. Consequences

answer

The subjective competitive situation

question

135. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE? a. Boys play competitive games more frequently than girls b. Boys' games are more aggressive and involve greater risk-taking than do girls' games c. Girls play games in predominantly male groups often more often than boys play games in predominantly female groups d. None of the above e. A and C

answer

None of the above

question

136. The key part of Marten's definition of competition is a. Social comparison b. Observational learning c. Objective outcome d. Positive reinforcement e. None of the above

answer

Social comparison

question

137. In relation to the subjective competitive situation (stage 2), which of the following is (are) true? a. Males score higher than females on win orientation b. Females score higher than males on goal orientation c. Athletes score higher than nonathletes in competitive orientation d. All of the above e. A and B

answer

All of the above -Males score higher than females on win orientation -Females score higher than males on goal orientation -Athletes score higher than nonathletes in competitive orientation

question

____________ is physical activity that is planned, structured, and repetitive. a. Physical fitness b. Exercise c. Leisure activity d. Sport

answer

Exercise

question

Teaching, consulting, and research are the 3 roles of a Sport Psychology Practitioner a. True b. False

answer

True

question

The independent variable(s) in a study examining the effects of imagery on stress would be? a. None of the answers b. Stress c. Imagery d. Both stress and imagery

answer

Imagery

question

Cognitive-behavioral orientation states that behavior is determined by: a. Underlying psychophysiological processes of the brain b. Both environment and thoughts c. Social environment and the personal makeup of the individual

answer

Both environment and thoughts

question

Zajonc's social facilitation theory predicts that performance: a. On well-learned tasks is facilitated by an audience b. On well-learned tasks is hindered by an audience c. Is not affected by an audience d. On novel tasks is facilitated by an audience

answer

On well-learned tasks is facilitated by an audience

question

________ is (are) the way we learn to adjust to the environment a. Psychological core b. Role-related behavior c. Typical responses d. Belief systems

answer

Typical responses

question

An intra-individual approach to psychological testing means that individuals are compared: a. To population norms b. With how they usually score on a psychological inventory c. To norms for their age and gender d. Based on objective and subjective assessments

answer

With how they usually score on a psychological inventory

question

Aggressive people acting aggressively in an aggressive situation is an example of: a. The psychodynamic approach b. The interactional approach c. The trait approach d. The situational approach

answer

The interactional approach

question

The part of personality structure is the least stable and is heavily influenced by the situation a. Psychological core b. Typical responses c. Role-related behavior d. None of the above

answer

Role-related behavior

question

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for the use of mood profiling with elite athletes? a. Use it to monitor training load b. Use it to monitor the acclimatization process c. Use it as a predictor of team success d. Use it for identification of overtrained athletes

answer

Use it as a predictor of team success

question

Achievement motivation can best be viewed as: a. A situational factor b. A personality factor c. An attributional factor d. An unstable factor

answer

A personality factor

question

Stable attributions are linked to: a. Affect b. Cognition c. Expectations of future success or failure d. Physiological manifestations

answer

Expectations of future success or failure

question

According to Ewing and Seefeldt (1996), which is NOT a motive cited for youth sport participation? a. Having fun b. Being with friends c. Experiencing excitement d. All are cited motives

answer

All are cited motives -Having fun -Being with friends -Experiencing excitement

question

In terms of emotional factors, high achievers focus on _________, whereas low achievers focus on __________ a. Elation; depression b. Fun; depression c. Pride; depression d. Pride; shame

answer

Pride; shame

question

Need achievement theory is best at predicting situations where there is a _________ chance of success a. High (>75%) b. Low (<25%) c. Moderate (50%) d. None of the above

answer

Moderate (50%)

question

According to the catastrophe model, a catastrophe occurs with: a. High state and high trait anxiety b. High cognitive anxiety and high physiological arousal c. High physiological and high somatic anxiety d. High somatic anxiety and low physiological arousal

answer

High cognitive anxiety and high physiological arousal

question

Which is NOT a main factor in the stress response? a. Environmental demands b. Behavioral consequences c. Perceptions of demand d. All are main factors

answer

All are main factors -Environmental demands -Behavioral consequences -Perceptions of demand

question

State anxiety would be harder to manipulate in an experiment compared to trait anxiety a. True b. False

answer

False

question

Which state is true? a. Athletes generally interpret anxiety as more facilitating b. A mix of positive emotions appear to enhance performance c. Personal and situational factors affect anxiety interpretation d. All of the above are true

answer

All of the above are true -Athletes generally interpret anxiety as more facilitating -A mix of positive emotions appear to enhance performance -Personal and situational factors affect anxiety interpretation

question

What is the main difference between the inverted U hypothesis and the Individualized Zones of Optimal Functioning (IZOF)? a. Optimal anxiety is viewed as a bandwidth in IZOF b. Optimal arousal occurs at the midpoint in the Inverted U c. IZOF takes into account cognitive factors d. Both A and B e. None of the above

answer

Both A and B -optimal anxiety is viewed as a bandwidth in IZOF -optimal arousal occurs at the midpoint in the Inverted U

question

Characteristic(s) of cooperative games include: a. They require little equipment or money b. They emphasize increased participation by the best players c. Players learn from mistakes rather than hide from them d. Both A and C

answer

Both A and C -They require little equipment or money -Players learn from mistakes rather than hide from them

question

Objective competitive situations, subjective competitive situations, responses, and consequences make up the process of: a. Stress b. Competition c. Punishment d. Training

answer

Competition

question

In general, research indicates that athletes are less successful than non-athletes a. True b. False

answer

False

question

The Sport Orientations Questionnaire (SOQ) consists of all of the following except a. Competitiveness b. Win orientation c. Motivation d. Goal orientation

answer

Motivation

question

Which of the following statements is true? a. Boys play competitive games more frequently than girls b. Boy's games are less aggressive than girls' games c. Girls play in male groups more often than boys d. Both A and C

answer

Both A and C -Boys play competitive games more frequently than girls -Girls play in male groups more often than boys

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Criminal Justice Criminal Law New York City

Policing 2 – Flashcards 70 terms

Patsy Brent

70 terms

Preview

Policing 2 – Flashcards

question

The first African American police officer was appointed in what city? a. chicago b. new york c. new orleans d. miami

answer

new orleans

question

which of the following was not one of the duties relegated to early female police officers? a. issuing parking tickets b. guarding female prisoners c. performing routine clerical tasks d. patrolling

answer

patrolling

question

In 1910, ____ appointed the nations first "officially designated" policewoman a. dallas b. new york c. los ángeles d. chicago

answer

los ángeles

question

In 1910, the nations first "officially designated policewoman was: a. alice stebbins wells b. nora jean wilson c. hazel l davis d. ruth smith

answer

Alice stebbins wells

question

the most prevalent form of discrimination has been a. separate job titles b. disparate recruiting c. de facto discrimination d. standard discrimination

answer

de facto discrimination

question

according to your text, which racial group despite efforts is poorly represented in law enforcement a. american indian b. pacific islander c. asian d. hispanics

answer

asian

question

the supreme court case that established the concept that hiring requirements must be job-related was: a. brown v. board of education of Topeka b. brown v. mississippi c. griggs v. duke power company d. U.S. v. paradise

answer

griggs v. duke power company

question

the concept that employers must take active steps to ensure equal employment opportunities and to redress the past discrimination is called: a. reverse discrimination b. adverse impact c. affirmative action d. de facto opportunity

answer

affirmative action

question

all are issues women face in the law enforcement workplace except a. pregnancy b. dating c. family issues d. drug use

answer

drug use

question

the academic studies of women on patrol indicate that a. women can perform patrol duties as well as men can b. women perform in a less satisfactory manner than men on patrol c. women perform as well as men on patrol but only when teamed with a male partner d. the majority of women do not want to work patrol

answer

women can perform patrol duties as well as men can

question

______ of sworn personnel in local police departments are African American a. 11.9% b. 20.7% c. 5.2% d. 18.9%

answer

11.9%

question

____ of sworn personnel in local police departments are women a. 11.9% b. 15.3% c. 3.9% d. 21.2%

answer

11.9%

question

____ of sworn personnel in local police departments are Hispanic a. 19.5% b. 22.7% c. 10.3% d. 1.8%

answer

10.3%

question

Until the 1970s, why was it presumed that women were not capable of performing the same type of patrol duty as men? a. because of their gender and size b. because they could not testify in court c. because they were not good drivers d. because they would side with women in domestic disputes

answer

because of their gender and size

question

the simultaneous expectation by white officers that African American officers will give members of their own race better treatment, but that African American officers will also receive hostility from the African American community because they are perceived as traitors to their race is known as a. double marginality b. de facto discrimination c. adverse impact d. reverse discrimination

answer

double marginality

question

all are changes that African Americans face in the workplace except a. tokenism b. equal pay c. acceptance d. harassment

answer

equal pay

question

Which of the following is not one of the three traditional ways we do police work in the United States? a. retroactive investigation of past crimes by detectives b. routine random patrol c. proactive investigations d. rapid response to calls by citizens to 911

answer

proactive investigations

question

It has commonly been believed in police administration that random routine patrol creates a sense of a. semi presence b. omnipresence c. nonpresence d. none of the above

answer

omnipresence

question

the kansas study occurred in the a. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1950s

answer

1970s

question

the kansas city study indicated that adding or removing police random routine patrol a. caused crime to increase b. caused crime to decrease c. had no effect on crime d. eliminated crime altogether

answer

had no effect on crime

question

which is not a special operations unit according to your text a. SWAT b. K-9 c. emergency service units d. traffic

answer

traffic

question

which of the following is not one of the basic components of response time? a. time between the crime and the call to the police b. time retired for the police to process the call c. travel time from receipt of the call by the patrol car to arrival at the scene d. time it takes for the perpetrator to flee the scene

answer

time it takes for the perpetrator to flee the scene

question

___ is the most expensive part of a police departments budget a. fuel cost b. equipment c. personnel d. liability insurance

answer

personnel

question

most departments utilize a. take home car programs b. personally owned vehicles (POVs) c. fleet vehicles d. liability insurance

answer

fleet vehicles

question

agencies that cover a large geographical area, such as sheriff's departments and state patrols, utilize: a. take home car programs b. personally owned vehicles (POVs) c. fleet vehicles d. pre owned vehicles

answer

take home car programs

question

the most important and visible part of police work to the public is/are a. detective operations b. public appearances by the police chief c. patrol d. crime prevention

answer

patrol

question

which is not an innovative way to address responding to community problems and 911 calls according to your text a. directed patrol b. split-force patrol c. C.O.P.S d. differential response

answer

C.O.P.S

question

in an experiment, the group that is not acted upon, and where nothing is changed, is called a. the control group b. the experimental group c. the change agent d. the free group

answer

the control group

question

directed patrol units are often interrupted by calls for service. this can affect the performance assignments. what is a solution to this problem? a. routine patrol b. task force patrol c. split force patrol d. there is no solution to the problem

answer

split force patrol

question

differential response to calls for service is a policy that abandons the traditional practice of responding to all calls for service, in differential response, responses to citizens' calls to 911 for service are matched to the ____ of the calls a. importance or severity b. location c. numerical order d. time of day

answer

importance or severity

question

which item below is not a new tactical approach to crime control according to your text a. alternative vehicle deployment b. decoy vehicles c. aggressive patrol d. all are new tactical approaches

answer

all are new tactical approaches

question

______ models give the police answers as to where and when to assign officers a. parol pattern b. patrol allocation c. patrol simulation d. patrol direction

answer

patrol allocation

question

this system allows police departments to call citizens in the entire jurisdiction or limit it to a particular neighborhood where something is occurring a. reverse 911 b. 311 c. 911 d. reverse 311

answer

reverse 911

question

the evidence seems to suggest that proactive, aggressive police strategies are _______ in reducing crime, at least in target areas a. indifferent b. not effective c. effective d. showing mixed results

answer

effective

question

the greek philosopher who wrote the classic Nicomachean Ethics was a. aristotle b. plato c. socrates d. onassis

answer

Aristotle

question

which of the following is an example of the ethical standards established to determine how police officers should act a. organizational value systems or codes of ethics designed to educate and guide the behavior of those who work within an organization b. the law enforcement code of ethics c. an oath of office d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

which of the following is an example of the standards governing police ethics a. U.S. constitution b. bill of rights c. case law as determined by appellate courts and the U.S. supreme court d. all of the above

answer

All of the above

question

noble cause corruption is also known as a. dirty harry syndrome b. blue line crossing c. blue corruption d. meat eating

answer

dirty harry syndrome

question

the 1931 national commission on law observance and enforcement was more popularly known as the a. kerner commission b. volmer commission c. wickersham commission d. kefauver commission

answer

wickersham commission

question

according to the authors definition of police corruption, which of the following would be an example of police corruption a. a police officer receives $15 from a driver for not giving her/him a summons for speeding b. a police officer receives sexual favors from a diver for not giving him/her a summons for speeding c. an off duty police officer escorts a drug dealer as he delivers illegal drugs to customers. he receives $100 a delivery d. all of the above

answer

All of the above

question

which of the following is not a reason for police corruption as listed in your text a. individual officer explanations b. the police subculture c. social structure explanations d. all are reasons for corruption

answer

All are reasons for corruption

question

some studies indicate that domestic violence may be _____ in police families when compared to the general public a. more prevalent b. less prevalent c. the same d. none of these

answer

more prevalent

question

"the excessive or unreasonable use of force in dealing with citizens, suspects, and offenders" is the definition: a. police misconduct b. police violence c. police mistreatment d. police brutality

answer

police misconduct

question

which of the following is not an argument in favor of citizen review a. it would improve public trust in law enforcement b. it would ensure that justice is done and actual misconduct is punished c. it would make police officers more aggressive in enforcing the law d. it would provide an independent evaluation of citizen complaints

answer

it would make police officers more aggressive in enforcing the law

question

the knapp commission was a(n) a. international commission b. federal commission c. state commission d. local commission

answer

local commission

question

police officers who participate in the more passive types of police corruption are referred to as a. meat eaters b. grass eaters c. dirt eaters d. tree huggers

answer

grass eaters

question

officers who participate in more aggressive types of corruption by seeking out and taking advantage of opportunities of corruption are called a. meat eaters b. grass eaters c. dirt eaters d. tree eaters

answer

meat eaters

question

which is not a type of office corruption according to the author a. a. taking bribes b. taking gratuities c. theft or burglary d. choosing not to arrest an individual who they know

answer

choosing not to arrest an individual who they know

question

any police initiated activity that relies on a person's race or ethnic background rather than on behavior as a basis for identifying that individual as being involved in criminal activity is called a. noble cause policing b. situational stereotype policing c. racial profiling d. dispositional policing

answer

racial profiling

question

Which is not a type of liability officers and departments need to be aware of a. civil liability b. administrative liability c. criminal liability d. all are liabilities to the officer and department

answer

all are liabilities to the officer and department

question

_____ means that a police officer may be sued in civil court for improper behavior, using such civil law concepts as negligence and torts a. criminal liability b. civil liability c. administrative liability d. strict liability

answer

civil liability

question

rules and regulations established by their department to govern the conduct of its officers a. criminal liability b. civil liability c. administrative liability d. strict liability

answer

administrative liability

question

prior to the rand study, it was common for police departments to have policies and procedures in place that emphasized a. the proactive investigation of future crime by detectives b. follow up investigations of past crimes by patrol officers c. the retroactive investigation of past crimes by detectives d. cold case detectives

answer

the retroactive investigation of past crime by detectives

question

according the ______ model, the investigation of almost all felonies and some misdemeanors was the sole responsibility of the detective division a. decoy investigation b. blending investigation c. proactive investigation d. retroactive investigation

answer

retroactive investigations

question

along with training of new detectives, many departments use this method to assist in the training of new detectives a. cross training b. mentoring c. simulations d. MCI

answer

mentoring

question

the single most important determinant of whether or not a case will be solved is the information the victim supplies to the a.detective b. immediately responding patrol officer c. dispatcher d. supervisor

answer

immediately responding patrol officer

question

detectives in a decentralized squad are considered a. specialists b. generalists c. to be in field training d. felony only detectives

answer

generalists

question

detectives in a centralized squad are considered a. specialists b. generalists c. to be in field training d. felony only detectives

answer

specialists

question

the idea that detective work is glamorous, exciting, and dangerous, as it is depicted in the movies and on television, is called a. détective mystique b. detective role c. detective model d. detective initiative

answer

détective mystique

question

the national advisory commission on criminal justice standards and goals recommended that detectives should only be assigned to preliminary investigations of a. felonies b. crimes of violence c. very serious crimes and crimes requiring complex preliminary investigations d. all of the above

answer

very serious crimes and crimes requiring complex preliminary investigations

question

the national advisory commission on criminal justice standards and goals recommended that _______ should conduct preliminary investigations of most crimes a. detectives b. supervisors c. non sworn personnel d. patrol officers

answer

patrol officers

question

which of the following is a solvability factor in the managing criminal investigations program? a. is there a witness? b. is a suspect named or known? c. will the complainant cooperate? d. All of the above

answer

all of the above

question

with agency collects and maintains a database of clandestine laboratories a. FBI b. ATF c. DEA d. CIA

answer

DEA

question

programs concentrating investigative resources on career criminals are called a. targeting programs b. proactive programs c. repeat offender programs d. anti career criminal programs

answer

repeat offender programs

question

in a case enhancement program a. a detective debriefs a suspect to obtain further information b. detectives assist the arresting officer in preparing a case for court c. a detective engages in liaison with the district attorney d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

the vast majority of all arrests are made a. at the scene of the crime b. within 48 hours c. within 2 weeks d. within one month

answer

At the scene of the crime

question

elements of sting operations include all but the following a. undercover officer(s) b. targeted group c. opportunity to commit a crime d. all are elements of a sting operation

answer

all are elements of a sting operation

question

Marvin Wolfgang discovered that most predatory street crime in the United States is committed by a. only a few criminals b. convicted felons c. sex offenders d. individuals under the influence of drugs

answer

only a few criminals

question

Decoy operations are most effective in detecting and arresting all of the following except a. robbers b. purse snatchers c. persons committing larcenies from autos d. murderers

answer

murderers

question

undercover operations target all of the following crimes except a. robbery b. DUI c. burglary d. selling stolen goods

answer

DUI

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Applied Philosophy Asking A Question Common School Movement Great Recession Of 2008 Quid Pro Quo Sexual Harassment

EDUC Final – Flashcards 149 terms

Deloris Connelly

149 terms

Preview

EDUC Final – Flashcards

question

In early colonial times, education was aimed at

answer

saving souls through religious instruction.

question

The Old Deluder Satan Law of 1647 required that

answer

Massachusetts provide education for young people

question

In many colonies, the masters of apprentices

answer

were required to teach their students reading, writing, and vocational skills.

question

Nathan was a young man receiving an education during the colonial period. Because the emphasis in his family was business, he was enrolled in private schools that helped prepare him for the world of commerce. His friend Jonathan was attending a night school that would teach him navigation, since one day he hoped to operate his own trading ship. Based on the description above, Nathan and Jonathan most likely attended school in the

answer

middle colonies.

question

When Benjamin Franklin founded the Franklin Academy, he intended for it to

answer

provide men and women a well-rounded curriculum where students had the freedom to choose some of their courses.

question

The McGuffey Readers were noteworthy in the history of American education because they were the first

answer

textbooks in America that were written for different grade levels

question

According to Lawrence Cremin, by the time of the Civil War the education in the United States was characterized by the

answer

acceptance and widespread adoption of the common schools movement.

question

The expansion of secondary schools in the United States was greatly aided by

answer

legal findings that secondary schools could be supported by taxpayer funds

question

When the Progressive Education Association released their Eight-Year Study, they reported that students who graduated from progressive schools

answer

were able to think more clearly and objectively.

question

In the early part of the twentieth century, when men made the decision to enter into teaching, they

answer

. often moved into school administration as rapidly as possible.

question

Marianne is an elementary teacher who believes strongly in the benefits that progressivism has for her students. As a progressive teacher she

answer

tends to look at education holistically in order to make sure that her students are healthy, happy, and productive members of American democratic life.

question

Which of the following best describes the "gendered" nature of teaching in the U.S.?

answer

Males and females have both been considered "unnatural" for choosing a career in teaching

question

The Land Ordinance Act of 1785 and the Northwest Ordinance of 1787 were important because they represented

answer

early attempts by the federal government to influence education.

question

Constitutionally, the controversies surrounding the role of the federal government in education can be traced to the

answer

Tenth Amendment.

question

Aaron was a young man in his early twenties. He had just come home from the Korean War and hoped to go to college at his state university in order to become an engineer. Which of the following federal acts would help Aaron to do this?

answer

Servicemen's Readjustment Act

question

Which of the following provided funds for teacher training and program development in vocational education at the high school level?

answer

Smith-Hughes Act

question

Which of the following best describes the influence of the federal government on education

answer

Although the Constitution prescribes no clear role for the federal government in education, federal influence is strong and growing

question

Among the impacts of the Supreme Court holding in Plessy v. Ferguson was

answer

the reinforcement of the idea that de jure segregation was acceptable

question

During the 1960s and 1970s, the Supreme Court

answer

was a factor in getting schools to provide a range of options to eliminate de facto segregation in schools

question

Which of the following statements about Title IX is NOT true

answer

Title IX has eliminated most sexist behaviors from schools

question

Policies regarding the number of Chinese immigrating to the United States changed, reversing immigration quotas and naturalization laws, due to the

answer

installation of a Communist government on the Chinese mainland

question

Emma Hart Willard made an important contribution to education when

answer

established one of the earliest teacher training programs in U.S. history

question

Discrimination against Asian Americans has taken the following forms EXCEPT

answer

compulsory ignorance laws

question

Which of the following statements is true?

answer

Most Arab Americans living in the U.S. are Christian

question

Opposition to females pursuing university education stemmed from the argument that

answer

the rigor of advanced university studies would endanger females' health—particularly in terms of reproduction

question

Helena believes that her main goal as a teacher is to transfer the knowledge and values that her students will need to do well when they graduate and move into society. She strives to have her students learn to be academically proficient and to instill her students with values such as respect, diligence, and practicality. Based on what you have learned, Helena would rely on

answer

teacher-centered philosophies

question

An essentialist would argue that essentialism

answer

is an effective way to help develop a common culture among Americans

question

As a teacher, Richard wants his students to develop rational thought and think rigorously. He feels that he should prepare his brightest students for future leadership and responsibility, and he wants to prepare his other students to be good at whatever jobs they do after graduation. For his college-bound students, he urges them to choose liberal arts schools that allow students to pursue truth, beauty, and wisdom as opposed to "simply getting a piece of paper that leads to a job." Based on what you have learned, Richard's views represent

answer

perennialism.

question

Progressivism's foremost educational advocate was

answer

John Dewey

question

Which of the following books would NOT be on the list of "Great Books" favored by perennialists

answer

The Bluest Eye (Tony Morrison)

question

John Dewey founded a famous experimental school to test his ideas. That school was

answer

the Laboratory School

question

Jeanne has a very simple principle when it comes to his job: To see if an idea has merit, test it. If it works, then it has the potential to be a good idea. Jeanne appears to embrace

answer

pragmatism

question

If you were to walk into a progressivist classroom, you would find teachers

answer

acting as facilitators for their students.

question

Social reconstructionists

answer

split with progressivists over the slow pace of change in schools

question

Unlike existentialists, ________ believe that free will is an illusion and that human nature is shaped by the environment

answer

behaviorists

question

The use of a system of positive reinforcement to encourage desired behavior is based on

answer

behaviorism.

question

When schools use education as a means to sort students so that those judged to be the most gifted are helped to rise to the highest levels of society while the less fortunate are allowed sink to society's lower levels, they are engaging in

answer

social Darwinism.

question

Which of the following educators might have said, "I believe in praxis: When students take action that is based on sound theory and actions, they have the potential to change the world for the better"?

answer

Paulo Freire

question

The Socratic method involves

answer

questioning the student to draw out answers.

question

Critics of the idea that teachers can or should blend philosophies argue that

answer

blending philosophies will result in students learning less.

question

The idea of eternal "forms" underlying all existence comes from

answer

. Plato.

question

Which of the following educators channeled his frustrations regarding his own difficulties with school into the founding of Summerhill, an existentialist school where students decide what and when to learn

answer

A. S. Neill

question

A look at today's science curriculum in most U.S. schools shows an emphasis on

answer

materialism

question

A teacher at your school believes children should be made to reason deductively; another teacher favors lots of hands-on learning activities. These teachers appear to hold different views of

answer

epistemology.

question

If Barbara teaches according to the tenets of behaviorism, she

answer

. believes that controlling the environment is the key to getting students to learn.

question

Aesthetics examines

answer

the nature of beauty.

question

The perennialist classroom teacher would have no concern with

answer

computer technology

question

Ethnocentrism is

answer

the tendency to view one's own culture as superior.

question

A key aspect of teaching in a constructivist classroom is

answer

understanding each student's prior knowledge and understanding

question

Western models of education vary from other parts of the world in that

answer

Western societies value credentials, such as certification and degrees

question

The city council of Anytown faced difficult decisions when it met to discuss the new budget for the upcoming fiscal year. The school district requested more funds with which to operate the schools, but property values remained low and the hospital authority, the police, and the sanitation program also needed more money to fund their operations at current levels. Anytown is suffering from municipal

answer

Overburdened

question

Marian Wright Edelman is important because she founded the

answer

Children defense fund

question

Reformers who used the courts as a means to redistribute school funds between affluent and less affluent districts were called

answer

Robin Hood reformers

question

Which of the following was NOT a result of San Antonio v. Rodriguez

answer

The Court called for congressional intervention to change funding inequities in education.

question

What was the importance ofEdgewood v. Kirby?

answer

A state supreme court found that gross differences in per-pupil expenditures violated the state constitution

question

Which court case led to the advent of Robin Hood reformers

answer

Serranio vs Priest

question

The state with perhaps the purest example of educational adequacy is

answer

Maryland

question

State constitutions guarantee the right to an "adequate education," expressed as all of the following EXCEPT

answer

Uniform state wide test scores

question

Anytown, Anystate has been hard hit by the great recession of 2008. Which of the following actions would the school board be LEAST likely to take to adjust to the current economic climate

answer

increase the millage rate in order to raise more funds

question

Americans tolerate inequities in school funding because

answer

they feel that more money does not necessarily equal better school performance.

question

In the last fifty years or so, state funding for schools

answer

Has increased dramatically

question

When the federal government awards Eisenhower funds to assist teachers in math and sciences with their instruction, they are providing a

answer

Categorical grant

question

The number of school districts in the nation has been

answer

Decreasing

question

At the end of her school lunch, Sue always looked forward to the cookies that the cafeteria sold. One day she was surprised to see her cookie iced in the shape of a famous athletic apparel brand. What Sue experienced was a type of

answer

Gurella marketing

question

One of the problems with marketing toward children is

answer

It saps creativity from children

question

The school superintendent

answer

is the most powerful education officer in the district.

question

When school principals are forced to prioritize the upkeep of their schools, which are they likely to place first?

answer

placing sound baffles in the halls and commons areas to reduce unwanted noise

question

A "call for accountability" in schools means that people want

answer

evidence that increased financial support results in educational progress.

question

Demographically, school boards are

answer

Especially resistant to diversity

question

The chief state school officer manages

answer

implementation of the policies of the board of education.

question

Which entity is most likely to conduct educational research and development?

answer

State department of education

question

A retired teacher runs for the school board in an at-large election. Most likely, this candidate will act as

answer

a trustee representative

question

The influence of the business community in America's schools can best be characterized as

answer

Extensive and growing

question

School boards are often criticized for

answer

ealing with too limited a range of issues

question

According to Donald McCarty and Charles Ramsey, authors of The School Managers: Power and Conflict in American Public Education, a school board in a community dominated by a few powerful figures will seek out a superintendent who

answer

Has a functionary style

question

Molly is a recent college graduate who is interviewing for a job at the same elementary school where she was a student. Which of the following questions would be appropriate for the principal to ask Molly during the course of a job interview?

answer

"What made you decide to major in early childhood education in college?

question

Cases such as Goss v. Lopez that deal with the proper procedures involving the disciplining and suspension of students would fall under the

answer

14th amendment

question

When a teacher's private life is called into question by the courts, a governing principle that determines whether or not the teacher may be dismissed is ofte

answer

whether there is substantial disruption of the educational process.

question

Generally courts have ruled that teachers may be fired for which of the following?

answer

. using profanity towards students

question

ssa was a senior at Local High School (LHS). Although she was an honor student, Alyssa had a mischievous streak that frequently landed her in the principal's office. In order to get into the college that she wanted, she needed a recommendation letter from her counselor, Mr. Todd. On the day that she went to see him to ask for the letter, he told her to close the door. "Ever since you came here as a freshman, I've had my eye on you. It's amazing just how pretty you've become. I'll be glad to discuss your letter over dinner at my apartment, around eight tonight. Be sure to wear something really pretty. And let's keep our little date to ourselves. After all, we wouldn't want something to happen to that letter, would we"? Based on the dialogue, Alyssa is experiencing

answer

quid pro quo sexual harassment

question

In cases involving teachers' expectations regarding academic freedom, which of the following tend NOT to be considered by the courts?

answer

whether the teachers have sufficient mastery of the subject matter to teach the material in question

question

Paul Pratfall was a young teacher who meant well, but could be easily led off task—especially when it came to afternoon hall duty. When the school dismissal bell rang, Paul's job was to make sure that the children walked safely and in an orderly manner from the classrooms on his hall to the waiting school buses just beyond the front entrance. During Friday's duty, one of Paul's colleagues called out to him. "Hey, Paulie, come in here and check out the article in the paper about the big game tonight. You gotta see it!" At first, Paul hesitated, since he was on duty. Then, he went into his friend's classroom to read the article. After all, he figured that he would only be a minute or two. Paul had just begun to read the article when he heard a loud crash and an anguished cry. He and his colleague ran into the hall to find little Jeannie lying on the floor with her leg obviously broken. Based on this scenario, Paul would most likely be guilty of

answer

nonfeasance

question

School teachers who participate in strikes are

answer

prohibited from doing so in over half of states, but in practice they are rarely prosecuted

question

A teacher's right to freedom of speech regarding matters of public concern is protected due to the holding in

answer

Pickering v. Board of Education.

question

Andy was teaching a unit on Tennyson in his British Literature class when, quite by chance, he came across an essay about the poet that would really "bring the man to life." He made copies of the essay and distributed them to the students. Based on the information presented here, did Andy violate copyright laws?

answer

yes, because the fair use policy is intended for single copies only, not classroom sets of copies

question

Morris Dees and his Southern Poverty Law Center are involved with issues dealing with

answer

civil rights law and equality

question

The Buckley Amendment ensures the rights of ________ to access educational records.

answer

Parents and guardian

question

A child who is expelled for bringing nail clippers to school is probably feeling the consequence of

answer

a zero-tolerance policy

question

Which of the following examples of teacher speech would most likely be considered a "matter of public concern"?

answer

"I was reading some of the environmental data on the site where our new school is being built. It sits right next to an Environmental Protection Agency chemical clean-up zone. I think people need to know about this."

question

A teacher who suspects a child is the victim of child abuse

answer

d. has both an ethical responsibility and a legal responsibility to report the suspected abuse.

question

Which of the following statements regarding zero-tolerance policies is true?

answer

. There is link between the juvenile justice system and those who have been disciplined under zero-tolerance policies.

question

Which of the following cases best demonstrates the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the "separation of church and state"?

answer

: A student decides to start a Christian club that will meet on school grounds, and is given permission by the school administration, which also offers space on school grounds for nonreligious clubs or groups to meet.

question

According to the Fourteenth Amendment, which of the following must occur if a school administrator intends to suspend a student?

answer

The student must have the chance to tell his or her side of the story.

question

Which of the following examples of student expression would be protected under the First Amendment?

answer

. A student protesting the war in Afghanistan wears a black armband to his classes and refuses to speak during the course of the day.

question

Which of the following is an argument used to support character education programs

answer

. The core attributes of moral individuals should be reinforced in the school curriculum and culture

question

The Supreme Court Case Franklin v. Gwinnett County Public Schools is important because it

answer

extended the reach of Title IX so that students could sue schools for monetary damages if they were sexually harassed

question

Regarding search and seizure, the courts have held that

answer

schools must have reasonable suspicion to execute a search on school grounds

question

A new principal is concerned with the rash of cheating and plagiarizing that is occurring in his school. He wants to enact a policy that will reduce such incidences. Which of the following actions might be the most effective?

answer

Teachers will review research and writing skills at the beginning of each term in every class where a paper, presentation, or project will be assigned.

question

Why have many courts rejected educational malpractice lawsuits?

answer

They charge that many factors affect learning and the school system cannot be solely to blame for failure to learn

question

Gina is a middle grades teacher who has a student named Joey. She has noticed that Joey comes to school wearing the same clothes each day: a t-shirt, shorts, and flip-flops. He wears this outfit even on days when it is very cold outside. Recently, Joey seems to be more withdrawn, largely ignoring his friends and Gina, too. Based on Gina's observations, she should

answer

c. file a report with her principal or counselor immediately, since Joey could be suffering from abuse or neglect

question

In Alice's classroom, the great majority of her students do well academically. When she is asked about why she feels she is such a successful teacher, she says that she structures her instruction so that her students can do well either working with her directly on their own. She says that her students often do even better working on their own than with her! Alice's classroom best exemplifies

answer

academic learning time.

question

During classroom discussions, Juan never started a question by naming a student. He always asked a question, and then identified the student he wanted to answer the question. According to Kounin, this is an example of

answer

Group altering

question

Students were often very distracted in Agnes's classroom. Whenever they seemed to engage in an activity, she would just seem to say or do something totally random that had nothing to do with the lesson assigned. For example, during a review game for the test the following day, just when the students were getting into the activity, she blurted out, "Does anyone know who we are playing this Friday night"? Well, of course, the interruption stopped the game while all the students answered her question. Agnes's behavior would best fit the phenomenon of

answer

Thrust

question

In order to promote more efficient use of classroom time, classroom rules should be

answer

Few and fair

question

You have just been assigned to teach a class that has several management problems. A good strategy to reduce or eliminate these problems would be to

answer

Establish routines to provide and sense of stability

question

Bella feels that her students deserve a safe, orderly classroom in which they can learn. She lets her students know her rules and the consequences for breaking those rules. When students do misbehave, she enforces her consequences quickly, fairly, and with minimal disruption to the class. Bella is a practitioner of

answer

Assertive discipline

question

In order for classroom rules to be effective, they must

answer

Tied to strong consequences

question

By beginning a lesson with a riddle or an anecdote, a teacher is trying to establish

answer

Motivation

question

The student who is typically asked the most questions by the teacher is the

answer

White male

question

In order to help manage student anger and aggression, Irina frequently includes as part of her instruction activities that are collaborative and allow her students to express their ideas and opinions. Irina's approach best reflects learning

answer

Community

question

Lower-order questions

answer

Can be answered through memory and recal

question

Lower-order questions occur in

answer

Knowledge and comprehensive stages of blooms taxonomy

question

Higher-order questions are most effectively used during

answer

. a discussion of student opinions.

question

A teacher asks a student to grade her own research paper—and to justify her grade. Identify the level of this task on Bloom's taxonomy.

answer

Evaluation

question

The amount of time a teacher typically waits to call on a student after asking a question is

answer

One second or less

question

Which of the following statements does NOT reflect the pedagogical cycle?

answer

"Class, you are now going to engage in an individual activity about the battle of Gettysburg."

question

When a teacher breaks down (or "chunks") information, he is engaged in

answer

Clarification

question

For students, the problem with an "okay classroom" is that it

answer

. does not provide adequate feedback and can lead to confusion

question

The most frequent teacher reaction is

answer

Acceptance

question

Statements such as "Great job" or "Well done" are

answer

ineffective forms of praise because they are generic.

question

Direct teaching is

answer

teacher presentation of new material, followed by student practice and feedback

question

As a new teacher, you are considering using cooperative learning. One research finding supporting your decision is that

answer

students have greater motivation to learn.

question

Larry Cuban is critical of the technological revolution in the classroom because

answer

teachers have difficulty using technology efficiently.

question

Mastery learning is based on the premise that

answer

. all students can learn—if given the right tools and the opportunity to work at their own pace.

question

After having attended a workshop on problem-based learning, you decide to try it out. You realize that a key teacher role in this approach is to

answer

Identify activities that fuel a students interest

question

Your school principal, parents, and faculty are concerned with declining student achievement. You are asked to serve on a committee intended to reverse that trend and increase student achievement, and so you review the research. Based on the research, which of the following four plans is most likely to improve academic performance over the long run?

answer

Focus on recruiting teachers to the faculty who have had a strong teacher education preparation and training

question

In order to stem the exodus of new teachers from the field, more school districts are implementing

answer

: more mentoring programs for new teachers.

question

Induction programs tend to

answer

. last at least one year, and often longer.

question

The movement toward peer review reflects

answer

the movement toward greater teacher professionalism and autonomy

question

Jean is a new teacher at the end of her second year. When she meets with her principal to discuss her performance for the year and her assignment for the following school year, the principal will probably rely on Jean's

answer

Evaluate observations

question

Critics argue that teacher observations are ineffective because

answer

an unrealistic number of teachers are given satisfactory observations

question

ll of her life, Nadia had been told by the teachers in her family, "If you go into teaching, don't smile until Christmas." Nadia figured her relatives knew what they were talking about, so she opted to be stern and run a quiet, highly managed class. If Nadia adopts such an approach, she will

answer

isk having the students "revolt" later in the year

question

Suggested strategies for creating learning communities include all the following EXCEPT

answer

consolidating smaller schools into larger ones to achieve a "critical mass" of learners in a school.

question

Daniel Pink, in his book A Whole New Mind: Why Right-Brainers Will Rule the Future, argues that

answer

American schools should focus less on skills that we are no longer competitive in, such as science, math, and technology.

question

One of the major incentives for teachers to engage in professional development activities is that the more professional development teachers engage in

answer

The geater their salary will be

question

According to researchers, problems arise with professional development when

answer

It is brief and sparatic

question

An effective career ladder for teachers would include

answer

ncreases in salary and status based on increased responsibility.

question

The most effective professional development programs

answer

tie teaching skills to subject content.

question

All of the following arguments are used by opponents of teachers' unions EXCEPT that

answer

. unions have inappropriately close relationships with state and local departments of education.

question

A group of teachers at a local middle school were concerned about how students who did not speak English as their first language were struggling in their reading classes. In response, the teachers decided to develop the "Read from the Heart" program and implement it in their classes. They would pre- and post-test the students to see if the program helped the students' reading proficiency. Based on the description above, these teachers were engaged in

answer

collaborative action research

question

Teachers in industrialized European nations

answer

have, on average, four to five times more time for professional development and collaboration on instructional issues than American teachers

question

Which of the following statements accurately describes the nature of hiring of teachers and administrators and support staff?

answer

The number of American administrators and nonteaching support staff has more than doubled over the past three decades.

question

The NEA and AFT

answer

continue to be very important organizations, which collectively count nine out of ten teachers as their member

question

One of the major shifts in the general working environment that is also impacting teaching is the

answer

increasing influence of psychic rewards as a source of motivation.

question

Recently, some states such as Wisconsin have become notable for

answer

stripping teachers of their collective bargaining rights.

question

According to Pink, if America is to remain competitive economically, schools must teach our students

answer

become less focused on specialization.

question

The authors recommend that the behavioral management style for new teachers should

answer

mimic the philosophy and climate of the school being taught in, based on its norms.

question

When teachers initially enter the classroom environment, their primary focus tends to be

answer

Survival

question

School districts get the best return on their investment in terms of academic achievement when they invest in

answer

teachers' professional growth.

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Applied Philosophy

EDUC1010 Chapter 4 – Flashcards 17 terms

Brad Bledsoe

17 terms

Preview

EDUC1010 Chapter 4 – Flashcards

question

Tracking

answer

A system that molds educational and career paths of children at a very early age

question

John Goodland

answer

found that teachers vary considerably in how efficiency they use time

question

Two thirds of classroom time is talk and

answer

two thirds of that time teachers are doing the talking

question

affective student needs

answer

often overlooked when focus is on standards, testing and competition.

question

In Life in the Classrooms

answer

Phillip Jackson characterizes school life as busy teachers working with students often forced to delay or deny their needs

question

In many schools about 2/3 of the students from the upper social classes but

answer

less than 15% from the lower classes were in the college preparatory program.

question

Phillip Jackson called Teachers because they direct the flow of classroom interaction.

answer

gatekeepers

question

Low teacher expectations and unchallenging courses may encourage

answer

student passivity and boredom

question

Gender Wall

answer

Describes communication and friendship patterns of peer groups in elementary classrooms.

question

When people remember their school experoences, they are most likely to recall

answer

issues concerning the social status system

question

a characteristic of adolescent culture in school is

answer

that they are preoccupation with physical attractiveness and peer popularity

question

Phillip Jackson characterizes school life as

answer

busy teachers working with students often forced to delay or deny their needs

question

McKinney-Vento Act

answer

Schools cannot discriminate against a home child or deny them access to school activity

question

Raphaela Best's study

answer

Revealed that the boys are rejected from the dominant peer group exhibit social, emotional, and academic problems.

question

Research indicates that because of non-instructional demands (discipline problems, attendance, etc.)

answer

Teachers lose about 25% of instructional time

question

McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act

answer

provides the homeless with food, literacy training, and other services.

question

Jennie Oakes' Keeping Track

answer

offered a scathing indictment of racial influence on tracking

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act History of Africa Paul Laurence Dunbar

Clements Middle School Black History Bowl Facts and Trivia – Flashcards 208 terms

Keisha White

208 terms

Preview

Clements Middle School Black History Bowl Facts and Trivia – Flashcards

question

On January 3, 1964, who did Time magazine name as the first African American "Man of the Year"?

answer

Martin Luther King. Jr.

question

What was the name of the first newspaper published by John B. Russwurm in 1827, written by and for African Americans?

answer

Freedom's Journal

question

What magazine is called "The Magazine of Today's Black Woman"?

answer

Essence

question

What was Malcolm X's birth name?

answer

Malcolm Little

question

What famous African American is a reporter on the CBS television program "60 Minutes"?

answer

Ed Bradley

question

Shirley Ann Jackson, the first black woman to earn a Ph.D. from MIT, mastered what subject?

answer

Physics

question

What organization helps fund over 40 African American colleges?

answer

U.N.C.F.

question

Who was the first African American woman to win the Pulitzer Prize for poetry?

answer

Gwendolyn Brooks

question

Who was the first African American to win the "Mr. America" title?

answer

Chris Dickerson

question

Who was the first African American lawyer to be admitted to the bar?

answer

Macon B. Allen

question

Who is Mary Ann Shadd Cary?

answer

Black newspaperwoman

question

What famous boxer was born with the name Cassius Clay?

answer

Muhammad Ali

question

What African American artist, art historian, and writer was best known for his collages?

answer

Romare Bearden

question

(True or False) Booker T. Washington was never a slave.

answer

False

question

Who helped form the American Moral Reform Society, which helped blacks acquire farm land and aided runaway slaves in their escape to Canada?

answer

William S. Whipper

question

What is the name of the monthly publication that is published by the NAACP?

answer

The Crisis

question

What was the name of the first magazine published by John H. Johnson?

answer

Negro Digest

question

Who was the first American-born black man to be ordained a Roman Catholic priest?

answer

Father Tolton

question

Levi Coffin's mid westem operation, which helped slaves to escape, became known as the Underground Railroad's:

answer

Grand Central Station

question

In the early 1920s a new movement arose called the Harlem Renaissance. This movement was recognized for:

answer

Literary and artistic achievement

question

"Black Nationalism" was revived in the movement of:

answer

Marcus Garvey

question

What is the name of the nation's first Black college?

answer

Cheyney University

question

Kwanzaa is observed from:

answer

December 26 to January 1

question

Who was the founder of the African Methodist Episcopal Church?

answer

Richard Allen

question

What is the name of the first Black Greek fraternity?

answer

Alpha Phi Alpha

question

President Lincoln issued the Emancipation Proclamation in what year?

answer

1863

question

What was Sojourner Truth's name when she was a slave?

answer

Isabella Baumfree

question

In what city is the Crispus Attucks Monument located?

answer

Boston

question

What was the significance of Daisy Bates and the "Little Rock Nine"?

answer

Fought for school desegregation

question

James Fanner advocated civil rights through what organization?

answer

Congress of Racial Equality

question

John Lewis participated in the civil rights movement through what organization?

answer

Student Nonviolent Coordinating Committee

question

Whitney Young advocated civil rights reform through what organization?

answer

National Urban League

question

Cassius M. Clay was born on October 14, 1810, and is best remembered for being what?

answer

Emancipationist

question

Who was the first African American chosen as "Miss America"?

answer

Vanessa Williams

question

What is the name of the Harlem club where many famous African American entertainers began their careers?

answer

Cotton Club

question

Who was the first African American to receive a degree from Harvard?

answer

Richard Greener

question

Who was both president of the United Negro College Fund and chief executive officer of the National Urban League?

answer

Vernon Jordan, Jr.

question

Who was the first African American female judge in the United States?

answer

Jane Matilda Bolin

question

What was the name of the first African American radio network?

answer

National Negro Network

question

What do many historians call the period immediately following the Civil War?

answer

Reconstruction Era

question

Who was the first African American female lawyer to practice before the Supreme Court?

answer

Violette M. Anderson

question

Who said, "Every race and every nation should be judged by the best it has been able to produce, not by the worst."?

answer

James Weldon Johnson

question

Who was the first African American to win a medal in the Winter Olympics?

answer

Debi Thomas

question

Who published the first African American women's newspaper in the U.S.?

answer

Josephine Ruffin

question

What African American cartoonist became famous for the cartoon "Cuties"?

answer

E. Simms Campbell

question

Who represented a bill to Congress in 1968 that would enable African Americans to control education, business, and social services within their communities.

answer

Roy Innis

question

Who was the interpreter for the Seminole Indians who requested a guarantee that his people would not be returned to slavery upon leaving the Indian sanctuary?

answer

Abraham

question

Dorothy Height was the president of what organization?

answer

National Council of Negro Women

question

What African American designed homes for celebrities such as Cary Grant and Frank Sinatra?

answer

Paul Williams

question

Who became the first African American member of the fraternal society called the Masons?

answer

Prince Hall

question

What African is known as "Father of the Blues"?

answer

W.C. Handy

question

Who served on the board of directors of the NAACP for 36 years?

answer

Carl J. Murphy

question

Who was the first African American to attend the U.S. Naval Academy?

answer

Henry Conyers

question

Who was the first African American woman doctor?

answer

Rebecca Lee Crumpler

question

Who was the first African American Catholic archbishop?

answer

Eugene A. Marino

question

Who was the famous African American newspaper writer in early 1900s?

answer

Ida B. Wells-Barnett

question

Who was the first African American cowboy admitted to the National Rodeo Hall of Fame?

answer

Bill Pickett

question

What black woman founded the National Trade and Professional School for Women and Girls?

answer

Nannie Helen Burroughs

question

What famous singer hosts the annual Parade of Stars in order to raise money for the United Negro College Fund?

answer

Lou Rawls

question

What black physician was referred to as "the principal historian of the Negro in medicine" in 1970?

answer

W. Montague Cobb

question

Who started the Gold Medal Awards, later named for him, which recognized the highest or noblest achievement by an African American?

answer

Joel E. Spingarn

question

Who was known at the "Dean of the Negro Newspapermen"?

answer

T. Thomas Fortune

question

What national organization was founded on President Lincoln's birthday?

answer

NAACP

question

Who was the founder of the National Negro Business League?

answer

Booker T. Washington

question

Who became a Justice of the Supreme Court of Pennsylvania in 1972?

answer

Robert N.C. Nix, Jr.

question

In what year did the "Greensboro Four" stage their first sit-in?

answer

1960

question

Who provided the voice for Darth Vader in the movie Star Wars?

answer

James Earl Jones

question

What is the name of the first African American woman to give the keynote address at a national political convention?

answer

Barbara Jordan

question

Who won the French Legion of Honor award for her work in entertaining the World War II allies?

answer

Josephine Baker

question

Who was the first black president of the school board in Atlanta?

answer

Benjamin Elijah Mays

question

What African American artist created the Peanut Man character for Planters' Peanuts?

answer

Elmer Stoner

question

Who was the first African American woman to be elected to the 20th Century Club of Boston?

answer

Charlotte Hawkins Brown

question

In 1972, who became the first woman candidate for president of the United States?

answer

Shirley Chisholm

question

Who was the only accredited African American war correspondent in World War I?

answer

Ralph Waldo Tyler

question

In what year did Joe Louis enter the Boxing Hall of Fame?

answer

1954

question

Who is regarded as the first important African American painter?

answer

Horace Pippin

question

Who was the most well-known African American movie producer in the 1920s?

answer

Oscar Micheaux

question

Who was known as the "Black Daniel Webster"?

answer

Samuel Ward

question

Who was the first African American jockey to win the Kentucky Derby?

answer

Oliver Lewis

question

Who advised presidents Grover Cleveland, William McKinley, and Theodore Roosevelt?

answer

Booker T. Washington

question

Who was responsible for stating Black History Week?

answer

Carter G. Woodson

question

Who organized the Congress of Racial Equality (CORE)?

answer

James Farmer

question

Who organized the National Skills Bank in order to improve job opportunities for African Americans?

answer

Whitney Young, Jr.

question

Who was the first African American to win an elective office?

answer

John Mercer Langston

question

Who won a Grammy Award in 1992 for "Unforgettable," a musical tribute to her late father?

answer

Natalie Cole

question

What famous Olympic champion was standing at Senator Robert Kennedy's side when Kennedy was fatally shot by Sirhan Sirhan?

answer

Rafer Johnson

question

In 1897, an organization called the American Negro Academy started under whose leadership?

answer

Alexander Crummell

question

Who visited the White House frequently during the Civil War, trying to convince Abraham Lincoln to free the slaves?

answer

Daniel Alexander Payne

question

Martin Luther King, Jr., adopted the strategy of nonviolence from what world figure?

answer

Mohandas Gandhi

question

Who was the first African American to graduate from West Point Military Academy and to later become an adviser to the U.S. Government?

answer

Henry Flipper

question

James Forman wrote what document that demanded $500 million to be collected from white churches and synagogues for payment of injustices suffered by African Americans?

answer

The Black Manifesto

question

Who became the first African American to hold the rank of major during the Civil War?

answer

Martin Delany

question

What actor appeared in To Kill a Mockingbird and Heavens Above?

answer

Brock Peters

question

Who received her pilot's license in 1922, making her the first African American woman aviator?

answer

Bessie Coleman

question

Oliver Cromwell was a well-known freedom fighter in what war?

answer

American Revolution

question

In 1866, Fisk University was founded in what city?

answer

Nashville

question

What sorority was founded in 1913 at Howard University?

answer

Delta Sigma Theta

question

In what year was Martin Luther King, Jr., born?

answer

1929

question

Who was the first African American to appear on the cover of Life magazine?

answer

Billy Eckstine

question

Roscoe Robinson, Jr., served as a general in what branch of the military?

answer

Army

question

During Paul Robeson's appearance in Emperor Jones, he was asked to whistle but did what instead?

answer

Sang

question

Who lost her teaching job due to a lawsuit she filed against a railroad for forcing her to give up her seat in a car marked "Whites 0nly"?

answer

Ida B. Wells-Barnett

question

Who became the first woman bishop in the Episcopal Church?

answer

Barbara Clementine Harris

question

Gwendolyn Brooks, Paul Laurence Dunbar, Nikki Giovanni, Countee Cullen, and Langston Hughes became famous as:

answer

Poets

question

President Jimmy Carter honored the 761st Tank Battalion, an all-black unit, for fighting in what war?

answer

World War II

question

Who was recognized as the "First Lady of Civil Rights"?

answer

Fannie Lou Hamer

question

Who was a reporter for the New York Post and was regarded as journalism's "Father of Minorities"?

answer

Ted Poston

question

What famous African American is a political activist and comedian?

answer

Dick Gregory

question

In what year did Marian Anderson debut as the first African American singer at the Metropolitan Opera?

answer

1955

question

Who was the first African American to achieve the rank of colonel in the U.S. Army?

answer

Charles Young

question

What was the name of Gwendolyn Brook's second volume of verse that was published in 1949?

answer

Annie Allen

question

William H. Carney received the Congressional Medal of Honor for his participation in what war?

answer

Spanish-American War

question

During what war did PFC William Thompson receive his Congressional Medal of Honor?

answer

Korean War

question

Who was the first African American to receive the Congressional Medal of Honor?

answer

William Carney

question

Who was the second black woman to be crowned "Miss America"?

answer

Suzette Charles

question

Who wrote From Slavery to Freedom, a comprehensive book on the history of African Americans?

answer

John Hope Franklin

question

Ralph Bunche became the first African American to win what prestigious award?

answer

Nobel Peace Prize

question

President Richard Nixon presented the Presidential Medal of Freedom in 1969 to what great musician?

answer

Duke Ellington

question

For what type of music was Bob Marley famous?

answer

Reggae

question

Who owns a publishing company, a cosmetic line, and a TV showcase?

answer

John H. Johnson

question

What is the name of Oprah Winfrey's TV production company?

answer

Harpo

question

What educator introduced a unique approach to teaching inner-city children?

answer

Mana Collins

question

What is Wally Amos famous for?

answer

Chocolate chip cookies

question

In what city was the first National Negro Convention?

answer

Philadelphia

question

From what university did James Meredith graduate?

answer

University of Mississippi

question

What African country has the largest population?

answer

Nigeria

question

What influential congressman became executive director of the United Negro College Fund?

answer

William H. Gray III

question

What is the name of the memorial center of which Coretta Scott King is chairwoman and chief executive officer?

answer

Martin Luther King, Jr., Center for Nonviolent Social Change

question

What religious organization helped to establish the Underground Railroad?

answer

The Quakers

question

What was Bill Pickett's nickname?

answer

Dusty Demon

question

Who invented "bulldogging," a form of steer wrestling in rodeo events?

answer

Bill Pickett

question

Dorie Miller responded quickly during what attack, making him the first American hero of World War II?

answer

Attack on Pearl Harbor

question

What occupation do Iman, Beverly Johnson, and Naomi Campbell have in common?

answer

Fashion model

question

Shirley Chisholm was the first African American woman elected to:

answer

The House of Representatives

question

Dakar, Lagos, and Nairobi are major cities in:

answer

Africa

question

Black History Month is celebrated during what month?

answer

February

question

Gabriel Prosser, Denmark Vesey, and Nat Turner helped plan and lead three of the most famous:

answer

Slave revolts

question

During the 1960s, what erupted in Philadelphia, Chicago, and other major cities due to the turbulent social and political climate?

answer

Riots

question

Bill Cosby created what cartoon character(s)?

answer

Fat Albert

question

What ancient statue in Egypt has the head of a human and the body or a lion?

answer

Sphinx

question

The flag representing the black struggle for freedom is comprised of what three colors?

answer

Red, black, and green

question

August Jackson created what well-known dessert?

answer

Ice cream

question

What was the name of the network of hiding places, which helped slaves escape to freedom?

answer

Underground Railroad

question

The term "jumping the broom" refers to what?

answer

Wedding ceremony

question

What award-winning Broadway play depicted a black family moving into a white neighborhood?

answer

A Raisin in the Sun

question

n what movie did Oprah Winfrey portray a woman who helped others living in a tenement?

answer

The Women of Brewster Place

question

What famous cowboy was involved in gun battles with bandits and Indians and earned the nickname "Deadwood Dick" for his expert marksmanship?

answer

Nat Love

question

George Olden was the first African American to design what U.S. product?

answer

A Stamp

question

What was Madam C. J. Walker's real name?

answer

Sara Breedlove Walker

question

What slogan called for recognition of the cultural achievements of African Americans?

answer

Black Is Beautiful

question

In 1960, what did four African American students do at a "Whites Only" lunch counter to protest discrimination?

answer

Staged a sit-in

question

What was established to promote excellence in Black education?

answer

UNCF

question

The congressional Black Caucus was organized for the primary purpose of:

answer

Increasing political power

question

Who wrote the adventure story The Three Musketeers?

answer

Alexandre Dumas

question

What did many associate with the term "Jim Crow"?

answer

Racial segregation

question

What amendment to the Constitution states "Slavery shall not exist in any part of the U.S."?

answer

13th

question

Stokely Carmichael (Kwame Toure') popularized the slogan:

answer

"Black Power"

question

Music historians refer to what type of music as the first African American music?

answer

Spirituals

question

CORE, SCLC, and NAACP share what common goal?

answer

Equal rights for African Americans

question

Who sparked the Montgomery boycott of 1955 when she refused to give up her seat on the bus?

answer

Rosa Parks

question

Who wrote the song "Lift Every Voice and Sing"?

answer

James Weldon Johnson

question

What is the name of the colorful fabric worn by African royalty?

answer

Kente cloth

question

What Harlem theater is a showcase for African American talent?

answer

The Apollo

question

What militant group embodies the term "Black Power"?

answer

Black Panther Party

question

What New York library houses rare collections of African American culture?

answer

The Schomburg Center

question

Kwanzaa describes what African celebration?

answer

Fall harvest

question

What book, written by Alice Walker, is a controversial story about a woman's struggle?

answer

The Color Purple

question

What music is regarded by many as a form of street poetry?

answer

Rap

question

Who made the song "Johnny B. Goode" popular?

answer

Chuck Berry

question

Who wrote and directed Daughters of the Dust, the first feature-length film by an African American woman in a national distribution?

answer

Julie Dash

question

"Peculiar Institution" was a term that referred to:

answer

Slavery

question

What is meant by "de facto segregation"?

answer

Exists in fact, but not required by law

question

What test was given to potential black voters to determine whether they understood the U.S. Constitution and could read?

answer

Literacy Test

question

What agency administered by the Union Army helped to protect the rights of former slaves?

answer

Freedmen's Bureau

question

What real-life person did Halle Berry portray in the TV miniseries "Queen"?

answer

Alex Haley's paternal grandmother

question

Kunta Kinte was one of the characters in what Alex Haley book?

answer

Roots

question

What congressional law is listed as Federal Public Law 98-144?

answer

Martin Luther King, Jr., Day

question

In what motion picture did Bill "Bojangles" Robinson teach Shirley Temple the famous Stair Dance?

answer

The Little Colonel

question

Equal Employment Opportunity, Public Accommodation, Desegregation of Public Facilities, Desegregation of Public Education, and Voting Rights are key provisions of what?

answer

Civil Rights Act of 1964

question

What is the stage name of female rapper Dana Owens?

answer

Queen Latifah

question

In 1970, Joseph L. Searles became the first African American member of the:

answer

New York Stock Exchange

question

What is the nickname of Antoine Domino?

answer

Fats

question

Who became the first African American woman to head a federal agency?

answer

Mary McLeod Bethune

question

The Bible called her "The Queen of Sheba." What was this African queen called by her people?

answer

Makeda

question

Who was the first African American manager of a major league baseball team?

answer

Frank Robinson

question

Who is the author of Before the Mayflower?

answer

Lerone Benett, Jr.

question

Robert S. Abbott supported the great migration to northern cities through what forum?

answer

Chicago Defender, as editor and publisher

question

Who started the anti-lynching crusade in America?

answer

Ida B. Wells-Barnett

question

Who is Debbye Turner?

answer

Former "Miss America"

question

Who is often called "The Father of the Civil Rights Movement"?

answer

Frederick Douglass

question

What civil rights leader was co-founder of the NAACP and the Pan-African Movement?

answer

W.E.B. Du Bois

question

How many African Americans received the Congressional Medal of Honor during the Civil War?

answer

question

In 1862, Great Britain and the United States signed a treaty to:

answer

Reduce slave trade in Africa

question

What is the name of the California Hotel designed by Paul Williams?

answer

Beverly Wilshire Hotel

question

Who financed and built the "Emancipation Statue" in Washington, D.C.'s Lincoln Park in 1879?

answer

Former slaves

question

What was the "Little Rock Nine"?

answer

Nine black students who integrated a high school

question

What was the first southern city to integrate all of its public facilities?

answer

San Antonio, Texas

question

Where did the "sit-in" movement begin?

answer

Woolworth's, Greensboro, North Carolina

question

The Benue River in West Africa runs into what other river?

answer

Niger

question

For what were George Washington and Sabrien Bates remembered?

answer

Cowboys who rode with Billy the kid

question

James Bland wrote "Oh, Dem Golden Slippers," which is the theme song for what group?

answer

The Mummers

question

Freed black men and women often put what at the end of their names?

answer

F.M.C. or F.W.C. (Free Men Colored/Free Women Colored)

question

Who was the first African American to refuse to pay taxes because he was denied the right to vote?

answer

Paul Cuffe

question

How many African Americans lost their lives in the Vietnam War?

answer

5,681

question

Martin Luther King, Jr., Day is celebrated on:

answer

The third Monday in January

question

Shirley Chisholm was elected to the House of Representatives to represent what state?

answer

New York

question

What did Booker T. Washington emphasize?

answer

Education, work, and economic development

question

What was the name of the jazz musician who stirred emotions with his saxophone?

answer

John Coltrane

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Introductory Sociology Sociology

Soc Midterm 2 – Flashcards 69 terms

August Dunbar

69 terms

Preview

Soc Midterm 2 – Flashcards

question

affirmative action

answer

positive action to improve employment or education for omen or members of minority groups

question

apartheid

answer

policy of racial segregation and political and economic discrimination against non-european groups in south africa

question

between school effects

answer

inequalities among children who go to different schools

question

capitalist economic system

answer

a type of modern economic system in which people and organizations invest capital and the production of goods and services to make a profit

question

comparable worth policies

answer

adjust pay so that people who work in predominantly female occupations are not penalized for conflict over control in organizations

question

consumer society

answer

a society whose inhabitants think of themselves more as consumers than as producers

question

craft workers

answer

employees who combine an intense pride in their work with a broad knowledge of tools, materials and processes as well as manual skills acquired by long training

question

cultural capital

answer

a concept referring to cultural qualities that are prized in the educational system as well as society overall

question

denaturalization

answer

the process by which something assumed to be normal, universal and accepted is challenged or modified and thus no longer seems obvious or natural

question

discrimination

answer

behaviors based on cultural beliefs that stigmatize members of a minority group

question

disenchantment

answer

a process in which previously religious concepts, values and ideals become detached from their religious roots

question

division of labor

answer

the specialization of tasks required to produce goods

question

emotional labor

answer

management of feeling to create a publicly observable facial and bodily display

question

ethnicity

answer

group distinctiveness based on a common territory, history, and tradition

question

ethnocentrism

answer

an attitude based on a belief in the cultural superiority of one's own ethnic group above all others

question

exploitation

answer

the manipulation of one person or group by another for the latter's own benefit and profit.

question

family relations

answer

property relations within a family

question

generational property

answer

rights regarding children

question

erotic property

answer

rights over human bodies

question

household rights

answer

rights over goods help or owned by the family

question

fordism

answer

a manufacturing system based on mass production and consumption of cheap standardized goods

question

post-fordism

answer

involves more flexible production and labor arrangements

question

free agent

answer

an individual who does not seek jobs but rather is on the lookout for projects, new knowledge and info, and connectedness through the internet

question

gender

answer

a term that refers to cultural ideas, norms, and values that construct images and expectations of females and males particularly in terms of behavior and appearance

question

gendered division of labor

answer

the differing ways that work and responsibility are divided up in the family between husband and wife

question

gender gap

answer

the difference between men's and women's labor force participation

question

gender schemas

answer

tacit assumptions about men and women that unconsciously shape people's perceptions of other gender socialization

question

gender typing

answer

predominately female occupations usually that have lower status and pay

question

genocide

answer

the systematic murder of a group of people

question

industrial economy

answer

an economy characterized by the employment of large numbers of workers in the mass production of manufacturing goods

question

de-industrialization

answer

systematic disinvestment in a nation's manufacturing infrastructure

question

jim crow

answer

laws that enforced racial segregation in the US

question

life chance

answer

the opportunities for sharing in material or cultural goods during life

question

marriage squeeze

answer

the restricted supply of available partners that results when a women chooses to delay marriage

question

middle america

answer

the one big middle class that man americans identify themselves as part of

question

nativism

answer

the ethnocentric attitude of a native born population toward immigrants

question

new age religion

answer

an umbrella term that covers a mix of beliefs, practices, and ways of life all of which share the element of self spirituality

question

nuclear family

answer

a form of family organization typically consisting of a husband, wife and children who are their offspring

question

extended family

answer

a form of family organization that combines several generations and a variety of different kinship relations, as when grandparents, aunts or uncles live together with a tradition nuclear family

question

occupational sex segregation

answer

the concentration of men and women into different types of occupations with different status and prestige

question

outsourcing

answer

the process by which corporations send work to offsite contractors in order to avoid paying high wages or providing benefits

question

Patriarchal

answer

organization of the family around father tule with male dominance, superiority and power

question

political opportunity system

answer

consistent but not necessarily formal or permanent dimensions of the political environment that provide incentives for collective action by affecting people's expectations for success or failure

question

privatization

answer

the process by which people make the transition from identifying as part of a class or group to thinking of themselves as individuals (consumers)

question

prestige

answer

the esteem, honor, or deference assigned to one's social position

question

professionals

answer

workers characterized by control of a large body of abstract, formal knowledge

question

protestant ethic

answer

the belief that worldly successes stemming from individual responsibility and a compulsion to save and invest are a sign of God's favor

question

race

answer

biologically speaking, an arbitrary classification assigned on the basis of genetic characteristics

question

racism

answer

behavior based on the belief that a group is inferior because of inherited physical differences that are inherently connected with behavioral differences

question

religious economies model

answer

the theory that religion thrives—even in modern societies—when religious organizations compete freely for followers (also known as the rational choice theory of religion

question

religion

answer

a substantively defined a system of beliefs and practices that has a particular kind of content usually a god or supernatural force

question

rites

answer

rules that prescribe to how people must conduct themselves with sacred things

question

sacred

answer

refers to things set apart and forbidden

question

scientific management

answer

(also known as Taylorism)- there was one best way to perform every task, and that this way could be discovered by observing workers and then developing a more efficient means of accomplishing their work

question

second shift

answer

women continue to bear the main responsibility for domestic tasks (the "second shift"), despite the fact that more women are working in paid employment outside the home (the "first shift") than ever before

question

secularization

answer

the declining significance of religion in social institutions, culture, and individual experience

question

service economy

answer

an economy devoted to supplying service such as information processing, teaching, nursing, advertising, marketing, or food

question

sex

answer

biological differences between men and women

question

social closure

answer

occurs when a group monopolizes resources and excludes others from having access to them

question

social mobility

answer

the ability of individuals or groups to change their social position or status, either for better or for worse, within a social hierarchy

question

social stratification

answer

the hierarchical ranking of people on the basis of social difference—specifically with regard to their access to desirable resources, with life chances and their social influence

question

step family

answer

a family in which at least one partner has children from a previous marriage, living in the home or nearby

question

stereotype

answer

a neutral tern, referring to fixed cognitive preconceptions that are necessary for understanding modern society

question

transformation of marriage

answer

a term that refers to postmodern efforts to denaturalize marriage and redefine the nature of the marriage contract

question

craft unionism

answer

limits union membership to skilled workers engaged in a particular craft

question

industrial unionism

answer

combines all workers, skilled and unskilled, who are employed in a particular industry

question

social movement unionism

answer

links improvements in wages and working conditions to organizing other workers and promoting economic equality in society

question

within school effects

answer

refers to differences among students in the same school, e.g., differences between students in honors and remedial classes

question

victorian love revolution

answer

the change in marriages from economically and property based to love and compassion based

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act 1965 Voting Rights Act 1968 Presidential Election Racial Discrimination In Housing Taft Hartley Act Of 1947

Chapter 25 – study give me liberty all study questions/chronological – Flashcards 92 terms

Tony Foust

92 terms

Preview

Chapter 25 – study give me liberty all study questions/chronological – Flashcards

question

In August 1961, the Berlin Wall was erected

answer

by the Soviet Union so that peoples from Eastern Bloc countries could not flee to West Berlin.

question

The 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibited all of the following, except

answer

racial discrimination in housing rental or sale.

question

The gelatinous form of gasoline that burns the skin of anyone exposed to it, which was dropped by American airplanes on enemy positions during the Vietnam War, was called

answer

napalm.

question

In The Conscience of a Conservative, Barry Goldwater argued for all of the following, except

answer

support for the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

question

What was the principal concern of John F. Kennedy's presidency?

answer

the vigorous conduct of the Cold War

question

What was the name for the 1965 immigration law that abandoned the national origins quota system, and established racially neutral criteria for immigration?

answer

Hart-Cellar Act

question

What was the April 1961 CIA-led invasion of Cuba to topple Fidel Castro that proved to be a total failure when, of the invading force of 1,400, 1,100 were captured and more than 100 killed?

answer

Bay of Pigs

question

Who was the marine biologist whose book, Silent Spring, spelled out how the insecticide DDT kills birds and other animals and causes sickness among humans, and who launched the modern environmental movement?

answer

Rachel Carson

question

Which was not part of President Johnson's 1965-1967 "Great Society"?

answer

the overturned Taft-Hartley Act of 1947

question

Which was not a goal of the August 28, 1963 March on Washington?

answer

an end to the use of the Grandfather Clause restricting suffrage

question

Which was not an event in the civil rights movement of 1963?

answer

James Meredith, a black student, entered the University of Mississippi.

question

The organization that launched the Freedom Rides, by which integrated groups traveled by bus into the deep South to test compliance with court orders banning segregation on interstate buses and trains was called the

answer

Congress of Racial Equality (CORE).

question

What made the New Left new?

answer

It called for a democracy of citizen participation.

question

What was the first gay rights organization in the United States, founded in 1951 by Harry Hay?

answer

the Mattachine Society

question

What was the organization created by the Kennedy administration to aid the economic and educational progress of developing countries?

answer

the Peace Corps

question

Which of the following was not a central purpose of President Johnson's Great Society program?

answer

establishing a federally guaranteed annual income for every family

question

A leading motto of the Women's Liberation movement was

answer

"the personal is political."

question

Who was the leader of the United Farm Workers (UFW)—as much a movement for civil rights as a campaign for economic betterment—who, beginning in 1965, led nonviolent protests, including fasts, marches, and a national boycott of California grapes?

answer

Cesar Chavez

question

Which of the following was not one of the climactic moments of 1968?

answer

the Berkeley Free Speech Movement

question

Which was the organization that crafted The Port Huron Statement, criticized corporations, unions, and the military-industrial complex, and proclaimed "a democracy of individual participation"?

answer

Students for a Democratic Society (SDS)

question

The 1964 voter registration drive in Mississippi in which hundreds of white college students from the North participated was known as

answer

Freedom Summer.

question

The Student Non-Violent Coordinating Committee's goals included

answer

replacing the culture of segregation with a "beloved community" of racial justice.

question

The 1967 United States Supreme Court decision that declared unconstitutional the laws in sixteen states that prohibited interracial marriage was

answer

Loving v. Virginia.

question

The 1968 Kerner Report blamed the widespread inner-city riots—occurring across the country from Harlem to Watts—on

answer

segregation, poverty, and "white racism."

question

The organization demanding greater Indian tribal self-government and the restoration of economic resources guaranteed in treaties, founded in 1968, was called

answer

the American Indian Movement.

question

Which of the following was not a target of the conservative "backlash" of the late Sixties?

answer

the growing power and militancy of organized labor

question

What was the title of the 1963 book by Betty Friedan that took as its theme the emptiness of consumer culture, and painted the suburban home as a "comfortable concentration camp" for women?

answer

The Feminine Mystique

question

Which of the following series of events is listed in proper sequence?

answer

Betty Friedan's The Feminine Mystique; founding of National Organization for Women; Sisterhood is Powerful; Roe v. Wade

question

The United States Supreme Court ruling that an individual in police custody must be informed of the right to remain silent was

answer

Miranda v. Arizona.

question

The organizer of the Student Non-Violent Coordinating Committee (SNCC) in April 1960 was

answer

Ella Baker.

question

Which of the following was not a common theme of the antiwar movement

answer

Communism is preferable to democracy, so why fight it?

question

Which was not embraced by the "Black Power" movement of the mid-1960s?

answer

expansion of interracial coalition-building in SNCC and CORE

question

At the peak of the Vietnam war, the number of American troops in Vietnam was approximately

answer

500,000.

question

Who was the leading African American known for his fiery oratory, insistence that blacks control the political and economic resources of their communities, and who was assassinated by members of the Nation of Islam after he formed his own Organization of Afro-American Unity?

answer

Malcolm X

question

The Twenty-Fourth Amendment to the Constitution is the 1965 law that allowed federal officials to register voters.

answer

question

Following a 1969 police raid on the Stonewall Bar, a gathering place for homosexuals in New York City's Greenwich Village, five days of rioting occurred and a militant gay rights movement was born.

answer

question

The Vietnam War was the longest war in American history and the only war that the United States has lost.

answer

question

While serving a nine-day jail term in 1963 for violating a ban on demonstrations, Martin Luther King, Jr., wrote his eloquent plea for racial justice, Letter from a Birmingham Jail.

answer

question

The Free Speech movement was initiated at the University of Minnesota in 1964.

answer

question

In Griswold v. Connecticut, the Supreme Court struck down all laws discriminating against homosexuals as a violation of the right to privacy

answer

question

With the sit-ins, college students stepped onto the stage of American history as a leading force for social change.

answer

question

President Lyndon Johnson's Great Society's War on Poverty required poor people to play a leading part in designing and implementing local policies.

answer

question

President Kennedy entered office determined to rid American foreign policy of its Cold War assumptions.

answer

question

In a single week in June 1963, more than 15,000 people were arrested in 186 cities across the United States in civil rights demonstrations

answer

question

President Lyndon Johnson grew up in one of the wealthiest sections of United States—the central Texas Hill country.

answer

question

By the end of 1960, some 70,000 demonstrators had taken part in sit-ins across the nation; the tactic had its 1960s origins in the initiative of four students from North Carolina Agricultural and Technical State University who, on February 1, 1960, sat down at a lunch counter in the local Woolworth's department store and asked to be served.

answer

question

The War on Poverty guaranteed an annual income to all Americans, created jobs for the unemployed, promoted unionization, and made it more difficult for businesses to shift production overseas.

answer

question

President Kennedy's policy toward Latin America, the Alliance for Progress, failed because the money, as distributed, enriched military regimes and local elites.

answer

question

In June 1964, three young voting rights activists were murdered in Mississippi—James Chaney, Andrew Goodman, and Michael Schwerner

answer

question

According to defenders of the Vietnam War, American military withdrawal would encourage the spread of communism elsewhere around the world.

answer

question

Johnson's Great Society failed to reduce poverty in America to any significant degree.

answer

question

By 1968, the United States had more than a half million troops stationed in Vietnam.

answer

question

The centerpiece of President Lyndon Johnson's Great Society was the endeavor to eradicate poverty.

answer

question

In the weeks following passage of the 1965 Voting Rights Act, a joyful calm, mixed with a great celebratory jubilee that included parades, barbecues, and church prayer meetings characterized the principal response of inner city African Americans to the new law.

answer

question

In the "counterculture" of the 1960s there was, for the first time in American history, a rejection of respectable norms of clothing, language, and sexual behavior.

answer

question

The Greensboro lunch counter sit-in marked the first appearance of college students at the forefront of social protest in America

answer

question

As president of the United States, Lyndon B. Johnson never forgot the poor Mexican and white children he had taught in a Texas school in the early 1930s.

answer

question

"Black Power" was a highly precise idea that asserted that only through revolutionary struggle for self-determination could black Americans achieve their rightful ends.

answer

question

Richard Nixon won the 1968 presidential election by the largest landslide in American history.

answer

question

The Civil Rights Bill and program of domestic liberalism launched by President Lyndon B. Johnson were far less ambitious than President Kennedy's initiatives on these matters.

answer

question

Although the media came to derisively label radical feminists "bra burners," no bras were ever actually burned.

answer

question

A key slogan of the Students for a Democratic Society was "participatory democracy."

answer

question

President Johnson entered office determined to see a substantial civil rights bill passed by Congress.

answer

question

In his August 1963 speech on the steps of the Lincoln Memorial delivered to 250,000 black and white Americans, Martin Luther King, Jr., declared: "I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up and live out the true meaning of its creed: 'we hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal. '"

answer

question

Greensboro, N.C., sit in

answer

1960

question

Young Americans for Freedom founded

answer

1960

question

Bay of Pigs

answer

1961

question

Freedom Rides

answer

1961

question

Berlin Wall constructed

answer

1961

question

Port Huron Statement

answer

1962

question

University of Mississippi desegregated

answer

1962

question

Rachel Carson's Silent Spring

answer

1962

question

Cuban Missile Crisis

answer

1962

question

Betty Friedan's The Feminine Mystique

answer

1963

question

King's "Letter from Birmingham Jail"

answer

1963

question

March on Washington

answer

1963

question

Kennedy assassinated

answer

1963

question

Freedom Summer

answer

1964

question

Civil Rights Act passed

answer

1964

question

Gulf of Tonkin resolution

answer

1964

question

Great Society

answer

1965-1967

question

Voting Rights Act

answer

1965

question

Watts uprising

answer

1965

question

Hart-Celler Act

answer

1965

question

National Organization for Women organized

answer

1966

question

Tet offensive

answer

1968

question

Martin Luther King Jr. assassinated

answer

1968

question

American Indian movement founded

answer

1968

question

Richard Nixon elected

answer

1968

question

Police raid on Stonewall Inn

answer

1969

question

Woodstock festival

answer

1969

question

Roe v. Wade

answer

1970

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act AP Government AP United States Government And Politics Politics of the United States

AP Government Unit 5 Vocab – Flashcards 60 terms

Marie Florence

60 terms

Preview

AP Government Unit 5 Vocab – Flashcards

question

Adversial System

answer

A two-sided court structure in which lawyers on both sides of a case attempt to prove their argument over their opponent's version of the case.

question

Amicus Curiae

answer

Latin for "friend of the court," referring to an interested group or person who shares relevant information about a case to help the court reach a decision.

question

Appellate Jurisdiction

answer

The authority of a court to hear appeals from lower courts and change or uphold the decision.

question

Attitudinalist Approach

answer

A way of understanding decisions of the Supreme Court based on the political ideologies of the justices.

question

Cert Pool

answer

A system initiated in the Supreme Court in the 1970s in which law clerks screen cases that come to the Supreme Court and recommend to the justices which cases should be heard.

question

Class Action Lawsuit

answer

A case brought by a group of individuals on behalf of themselves and others in the general public who are in similar circumstances.

question

Collusion

answer

Agreement between litigants on the desired outcome of a case, causing a federal court to decline to hear the case. More generally, collusion can refer to any kind of conspiracy or complicity.

question

Common Law

answer

Law based on the precedent of previous court rulings rather than on legislation. It is used in all federal courts and forty-nine of the fifty state courts.

question

Defendant

answer

The person or party against whom a case is brought.

question

Docket

answer

The official schedule of cases in a court of law.

question

Judicial Activism

answer

The idea that the Supreme Court should assert its interpretation of the law even if it overrules the elected executive and legislative branches of government.

question

Judicial Restraint

answer

The idea that the Supreme Court should defer to the democratically elected executive and legislative branches of government rather than contradicting existing laws.

question

Judicial Review

answer

The Supreme Court's power to strike down a law or executive branch action that it finds unconstitutional.

question

Briefs

answer

Written documents prepared by both parties in a case, and sometimes by outside groups, presenting their arguments in court.

question

Judiciary Act of 1789

answer

The law in which Congress laid out the organization of the federal judiciary. the law refined and clarified federal court jurisdiction and set the original number of justices at six. It also created the Office of the Attorney General and established the lower federal courts.

question

Mootness

answer

The irrelevance of a case by the time it is received by a federal court, causing the court to decline to hear the case.

question

Oral Arguments

answer

Spoken presentations made in person by the lawyers of each party to a judge or appellate court outlining the legal reasons why their side should prevail.

question

Original intent

answer

The theory that justices should surmise the intentions of the Founders when the language of the Constitution is unclear.

question

Original jurisdiction

answer

The authority of a court to handle a case first, as in the Supreme Court's authority to initially hear disputes between two states. However, original jurisdiction for the Supreme Court is not exclusive; it may assign such a case to a lower court.

question

Plaintiff

answer

The person or party who brings a case to court.

question

Stare Decisis

answer

The policy of courts to abide by/adhere to principles established by decisions in earlier cases.

question

Ripeness

answer

A criterion that federal courts use to decide whether a case is ready to be heard. A case's ripeness is based on whether its central issue or controversy has actually taken place.

question

Senatorial Courtesy

answer

A norm in the nomination of district court judges in which the President consults with his party's senator from the relevant state in choosing the nominee.

question

Solicitor General

answer

A presidential appointee in the Department of Justic who conducts all litigation on behalf of the federal government before the Supreme Court and supervises litigation in the federal appellate courts.

question

Standing

answer

Legitimate justification for bringing a civil case to court.

question

Strict construction

answer

A way of interpreting the Constitution based on its language alone.

question

Writ of Certiorari

answer

The most common way for a case to reach the Supreme Court, in which at least four of the nine justices agree to hear a case that has reached them via an appeal from the losing party in a lower court's ruling.

question

Writ of Mandamus

answer

Orders issued by a higher court to a lower court, government official, or government agency to perfom acts required by law.

question

Civil Liberties

answer

Basic political freedoms that protect citizens from governmental abuses of power.

question

Civil War Amendments

answer

The 13th, 14th, and 15th Amendments to the Constitution, which abolished slavery and granted civil liberties and voting rights to freed slaves after the Civil War.

question

Clear and Present Danger Test

answer

Established in Schenk vs. United States, this test allows the government to restrict certain types of speech deemed dangerous.

question

Commercial Speech

answer

Public expression with the aim of making a profit. It has recevied greater protection under the 1st Amendment in recent years but remains less protected than political speech.

question

Direct Incitement Test

answer

Established in Brandenberg vs. Ohio, this test protects threatening speech under the 1st Amendment unless that speech aims to and is likely to cause imminent "lawless action."

question

Double Jeopardy

answer

Being tried twice for the same crime. This is prevented by the 5th Amendment.

question

Due Process Clause

answer

Part of the 14th Amendment that forbids states from denying "life, liberty, or property" to any person without due process of law. (A nearly identical clause in the 5th Amendment applies only to the national government).

question

Due Process rights

answer

The idea that laws and legal proceedings must be fair. The Constitution guarantees that the government cannot take away a person's "life, liberty, or property, without due process of law." Other specific due process rights are found in the 4th, 5th, 6th, and 8th Amendments, such as protection from self-incrimination and freedom from illegal searches.

question

Establishment Clause

answer

Part of the 1st Amendment that states "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religions," which has been interpreted to mean that Congress cannot sponser or favor any religion.

question

Exclusionary Rule

answer

The principle that illegally or unconstitutionally acquired evidence cannot be used in a criminal trial.

question

Fighting words

answer

Forms of expression that "by their very utterance" can incite violence. These can be regulated by the government but are often difficult to define.

question

Free Exercise Clause

answer

Part of the 1st Amendment that states Congress cannot prohibit or interfere with the practice of religion.

question

Gag order

answer

An aspect of prior restraint that allows the government to prohibit the media from publishing anything related to an ongoing trial.

question

Hate speech

answer

Expression that is offensive or abusive, particularly in terms or race, gender, or sexual orientation. It is currently protected under the 1st Amendment.

question

Lemon Test

answer

Established in Lemon vs. Kurtzman, the Supreme Court uses this test to determine whether a practice violates the 1st Amendment's establishment clause.

question

Libel

answer

Written false statements that damage a person's reputation. Such statements can be regulated by the government but are often difficult to distinguish from permissible speech.

question

Miller Test

answer

Established in Miller vs. California, the Supreme Court uses this three-part test to determine whether speech meets the criteria for obscenity. If so, it can be restricted by the government.

question

Miranda Rights

answer

The list of civil liberties described in the 5th Amendment that must be read to a suspect before anything the suspect says can be used in a trial.

question

Prior Restraint

answer

A limit on freedom of the press that allows the government to prohibit the media from publishing certain materials.

question

Selective incorporation

answer

The process through which the civil liberties granted in the Bill of Rights were applied to the states on a case-by-case basis through the 14th Amendment.

question

Slander

answer

Spoken false statements that damage a person's reputation. Such statements can be regulated by the government but are often difficult to distinguish from permissible speech.

question

Symbolic Speech

answer

Nonverbal expression, such as the use of signs or symbols. It benefits from many of the same constitutional protections of verbal speech.

question

Civil Rights

answer

Rights that guarantee individuals freedom from discrimination. These rights are generally grounded in the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment and more specifically laid out in laws passed by Congress, such as the 1964 Civil Rights Act.

question

De facto

answer

Relating to actions or circumstances that occur outside the law or "by fact," such as the segregation of schools that resulted from housing patterns and other factors rather than from laws.

question

De jure

answer

Relating to actions or circumstances that occur "by law," such as the legally enforced segregation of schools in the American South before the 1960s.

question

Disenfranchised

answer

To have been denied the ability to exercise a right, such as the right to vote.

question

Intermediate Scrutiny Test

answer

The middle level of scrutiny the courts use when determining whether unequal treatment is justified by the effect of a law; this is the standard used for gender-based discrimination cases and for many cases based on sexual orientation.

question

Protectionism

answer

The idea under which some people have tried to rationalize discriminatory policies by claiming that some groups, like women or African Americans, should be denied certain rights for their own safety or well-being.

question

Reasonable basis test

answer

The use of evidence to suggest that differences in the behavior of two groups can rationalize unequal treatment of these groups, such as charging sixteen- to twenty-one-year-olds higher prices for auto insurance than people over twenty-one because younger people have higher accident rates.

question

Separate but equal

answer

The idea that racial sergregation was acceptable as long as the separate facilities were of equal quality, supported by Plessy vs. Ferguson and struck down by Brown vs. Board of Education.

question

Strict Scrutiny Test

answer

The highest level of scrutiny the courts use when determining whether unequal treatment is justified by the effect of a law. It is applied in all cases involving race. Laws rarely pass the strict scrutiny standard; a law that discriminates based on race must be shown to serve some "compelling state interest" in order to be upheld.

question

Substantive Due Process "Doctrine"

answer

One interpretation of the due process clause of the 14th Amendment; in this view the Supreme Court has the power to overturn laws that infringe on individual liberties.

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act AP Economics Fair Credit Reporting Act Management Principles Of Economics: Macroeconomics Protected Health Information Social Engineering

Macroeconomics Chapter 15 Answers – Flashcards 37 terms

Carol Rushing

37 terms

Preview

Macroeconomics Chapter 15 Answers – Flashcards

question

Money

answer

The set of assets that people use regularly to buy G +S. (Medium of exchange)

question

Wealth

answer

Total accumulation of all assets

question

What happens without money?

answer

Barter; Money helps specialization, efficiency and economic growth

question

Medium of Exchange

answer

an item buyers give to sellers when they want to purchase g + s.

question

Unit of account

answer

the yardstick people use to post prices and record debts

question

Store of value

answer

an item people can use to transfer purchasing power from the present to the future Money take all three forms

question

Form of deferred payment

answer

A property of an item that makes it desirable for use as a means of settling future debt.

question

Credit cards

answer

Not assets but liabilities and thus are not counted as money

question

Liquidity

answer

How easily an asset can be turned into a medium of exchange

question

Transaction approach

answer

Method of measuring the money supply by looking at money as a medium of exchange

question

answer

Transaction Deposits + currency

question

Commodity Money

answer

takes the form of a commodity with intrinsic value Ex: gold coins, cigs in POW camps

question

Fiat Money

answer

money without intrinsic value, used as money because of gov't decree EX: US dollar

question

Fiduciary Monetary System

answer

A system in which currency is issued by the government and its value rests on the public's confidence that it can be exchanged for g + s

question

Liquidity Approach

answer

A method of measuring the money supply by looking at money as a temporary store of value

question

answer

M1 + savings + small time deposits + mutual funds

question

Financial Markets

answer

Institutions through which savers can directly provide the funds to borrowers

question

Asymmetric information

answer

Information possessed by the borrowers in a financial transaction but not by the other

question

Adverse selection

answer

The likelihood that borrowers may use their borrowed funds for riskier projects

question

Moral hazard

answer

The possibility that a borrower might engage in riskier behavior after a loan has been obtained

question

Large scale and lower management costs

answer

People can pool funds in an intermediary, reducing individual costs

question

Federal Reserve

answer

Central bank is the regulator of the commercial banks -Established in 1913 by Woodrow Wilson

question

Board of governors

answer

-6 members appointed for 14 year terms -Janet Yellen appointed Jan 2014. -7 board members

question

12 Regional Banks

answer

-issue currency -clear checks -overseeing of banks

question

Federal Open Market Committee

answer

meet every 6 weeks to vote on monetary policy

question

Central Bank

answer

an institution that oversees + regulates the banking system, and influence the money supply

question

Roles of Fed

answer

...

question

Monetary Policy

answer

the setting of the money supply by policy makers to influence AD + thus RGDP

question

Banker to Banks

answer

Fed holds reserves for other banks

question

Lends money

answer

The fed sometimes lends money to banks during difficult financial times

question

Two Mandates of the Fed

answer

1. Keep inflation low 2. Keep unemployment low

question

Is fed apart of the government?

answer

The fed is an autonomous institution meaning that they can make policy without presidential or congressional approval.

question

Required reserves

answer

R; reserve X deposits

question

Excess Reserves

answer

Total reserves-required reserves

question

Reserve ratio

answer

RR; Reserves/ deposits X 100

question

Money Multiplier

answer

A number that, when multiplied by a change in reserves in the banking system, yields the resulting change in the money supply. Formula= max potential change in ms / change in reserves

question

FDIC

answer

instituted in 1933, in order to reduce bank runs -any deposits currently below $250,000 will be insured by the gov't if the bank goes bankrupt.

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act American With Disabilities Act Business Law Civil Rights Act Of 1964 Hostile Work Environment Verbal And Written

Change Management in HIM – Flashcards 50 terms

David Dunn

50 terms

Preview

Change Management in HIM – Flashcards

question

what is the Age Discrimination in Employment Act

answer

Legislation that prohibits discrimination on the basis of age against individuals age 40 or older

question

what is the American with disabilities act (ADA)

answer

passed in 1990 and amended in 2008 with passage of the Americans with disabilities act amendment act (ADAAA) this legislation prohibits job discrimination against people with disabilities

question

what is arbitration

answer

a proceeding in which disputes are submitted to a third party or a panel of experts and the arbitrator makes the final decision

question

what is civil rights act of 1964

answer

an anti-discrimination law that prohibits employment discrimination because of race, color, religion, sex or national origin

question

what is the civil rights act of 1991

answer

upholds and strengthens the civil rights act of 1964 under which an employee has the right to make a claim for discrimination against their employer; the EEOC then investigates the claim, and makes a decision and if discrimination is found to have occurred, depending on the charge, the employee could receive back pay, be reinstated, or awarded a promotion; the civil rights act of 1991 takes possible actions by the employee farther, by allowing for jury trials and increased monetary awards for employees

question

what is compensatory damages

answer

financial reward that cover the actual financial loss of the employee; compensatory damages could cover repayment for lost time off work, or payment for medical bills

question

what is COBRA

answer

Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act - legislation that offers continuing health insurance coverage for qualifying employees that have lost healthcare coverage

question

what is EEOC

answer

Equal Employment Opportunity Commission - a federal agency with the authority to investigate discrimination claims, render decisions, and file lawsuits if necessary; the EEOC works to prevent discrimination through training and education on employment laws

question

what is FMLA

answer

Family medical leave act- legislation that allows employees to take unpaid time off work for specific family and medical reasons

question

what is job sharing

answer

a work schedule in which two or more individuals share the tasks of one full time or one full time equivalent position

question

what is mediation

answer

both sides of the claim sit down with a neutral third party and reach an agreement; the mediator does not decide the issue, but rather helps both sides come to a solution together

question

what is OCR

answer

Office of civil rights- an agency of the department of health and human services that is responsible for enforcing civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination on the basis of race, color, national origin, disability,, age, sex, and religion by healthcare and human services entities over which OCR has jurisdiction, such as state and local social and health services agencies, and hospitals, clinics, nursing homes, or other entities receiving federal financial assistance from HHS

question

what is sexual harassment

answer

unwelcome sexual advances, request for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature

question

what is ADKAR model

answer

a change management model that is utilized to assess individual change management issues; five building blocks- awareness, desire, knowledge, ability and reinforcement in regards to the change imitative- are necessary components for individuals to understand in order to participate in change

question

what is bridge transition model

answer

developed by William bridges and published in his 1991 book managing transitions this model provides a guide for how individuals experience change by transitioning through different phases

question

what are the different phases in the bridge transition model

answer

stage 1 - ending, losing, and letting go stage 2- the neutral zone stage 3 the new beginning

question

what is a change agent

answer

the individual or group that undertakes the task of initiating and managing change in an organization

question

what is change management

answer

the formal process of introducing change (becoming different) getting in adopted and diffusing it throughout the organization

question

what is the john kotter's change management model

answer

an eight step process that management needs to perform in order to transform an organization through change

question

what is the 8 steps in the john kotter's change management model

answer

1. establish a sense of urgency for change 2. form a coalition 3. develop a vision and strategy 4. communicate the change vision 5. eliminate the resistance to change 6. generate short term wins 7. consolidate wins to create more change 8. adopt the change

question

what is the kurt lewins 3 stage change management model

answer

model that provides practical guidance for change initiatives

question

what are the 3 stages in the kurt lewins change management model

answer

unfreezing, changing or transitioning, freezing

question

what is laggards

answer

individuals who resist change; they are bound by tradition and are very skeptical of change

question

what is negotiation

answer

a formal discussion between people who are trying to reach an agreement

question

who founded the 5 stages of grief

answer

elisabeth kubler-ross

question

what are the 5 phases of grief

answer

denial anger bargaining depression acceptance

question

what is refreezing

answer

lewins last stage of change in which the new behaviors are reinforced to become as stable and institutionalized as the previous status quo behaviors

question

what is senges theory of change

answer

theory that outlines disciplines that contribute toward a learning organization: personal mastery, mental models, building shared vision, and team learning

question

what is unfreezing

answer

the first stage of lewins change process in which people are presented with disconcerting information to motivate them to change

question

what is PAQ

answer

position analysis questionnaire - a structured job analysis instrument used to measure job characteristics and relate them to human characteristics within 5 categories

question

what are the 5 categories within PAQ

answer

information input mental processing work output relationships with others job context

question

what is a job description

answer

a detailed list of a jobs duties reporting relationships working conditions and responsibilities

question

what is a job analysis

answer

a structured approach utilized to identify the uniqure job tasks performed within each job

question

what is strategic planning

answer

the process in which the leadership of a healthcare organization develops the organizations overall mission vision and goals to help guide the direction of the organization as a business entity

question

what are the fair standards labor act (FLSA)

answer

more commonly known as the wage and hour law, this federal law is the basis for many stage wage and hour laws, the intent of the FLSA is to determine minimum wage and overtime pay rules as well as definition of work week

question

what is HIPAA

answer

the federal legislation enacted to provide continuity of health coverage control fraud and abuse in healthcare reduce healthcare cost and guarantee the security and privacy of health information ; limits exclusions for pre-existing medical conditions, prohibits discrimination against employees and dependents based on health status, guarantees availability of health insurance to small employers and guarantees renew ability of insurance to all employees regardless of size, requires covered entities to transmit healthcare claims in a specific format and to develop, implement, and comply with the standards of the privacy rule

question

what is bloom taxonomy

answer

created in 1956 under the leadership of educational psychologist Dr Benjamin Bloom in order to promote higher forms of thinking in education, such as analyzing and evaluating concepts, processes, procedures, and principles, rather than just remembering facts

question

what is performance improvement plan (PIP)

answer

initiated whenever an individuals job performance is substandard or the employee violates a departmental or healthcare organizational policy, the PIP is a strategic road map for the employee to utilize to achieve more positive results within his or her job

question

what is recruitment

answer

the process of finding, soliciting, and attracting employees

question

what is O*net

answer

The Occupational Information Network (O*NET) is a free online database that contains hundreds of occupational definitions to help students, job seekers, businesses and workforce development professionals to understand today's world of work in the United States.

question

following a strategic planning retreat, the university hospital board of trustees wrote this " university hospital exists to bring quality healthcare to the surrounding community and region and to educate future healthcare providers" this is an example of what kind of statement

answer

mission

question

the HIM department at memorial hospital will install CAC next month. meetings were held with all coders so they had input into the process and could address any concerns. HIM managers are working together to ensure the process is as smooth as possible. this is an example of what kind of change

answer

planned

question

Emily, one of the coders at memorial hospital has refused to attend any meetings on the CAC project and when the other coders bring up the topic she quickly changes the subject saying she is sure it will never happen. Emily demonstrates what step in the grief process

answer

denial

question

university hospital made the decision to allow coders to code remotely form home. as preparations are made some of the coders who were originally in favor of the idea are now reluctant to leave their workstations this change phase is called

answer

unfreezing

question

during remote coding implementation at university hospital the problem of how to keep a sense of community among the coders surfaced. The coders decided to create a group for themselves on a popular social media website to keep in touch. this change phase is called

answer

transition

question

what behavior is an early indicator of resistance to change that an employee might exhibit when presented with a new project

answer

missing planning meetings to determine the implementation schedule for the new project

question

dr jones is the first physician in the practice to adopt the e prescribing application. he says he likes to try out new technologies and to be a role model for other physicians. dr jones is at what step i the innovation adoption life cycle.

answer

early adopter

question

caroline is an evening shift manager in the HIM department. when employees are arguing among themselves she often delays intervening in the hopes that they will work out their problems and she will not have to get involved. caroline exhibits which conflicts style

answer

avoiding

question

jacob is the assistant department head in the HIM department. when the director offers her opinion on how to handle a disciplinary problem, jacob usually acts on her advice even if he disagrees with it. jacob exhibits which conflict style

answer

accommodating

question

what would require a critical conversation

answer

placing daniel on probation due to continuing problems with decreasing coding productivity and coding accuracy

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Cope With Problems John Stuart Mill Zero Sum Game

Conflict Resolution and Negotiation – Flashcards 159 terms

Daniel Hardy

159 terms

Preview

Conflict Resolution and Negotiation – Flashcards

question

Deontological Outlook

answer

my decision/behavior is based on "right is right" no matter what

question

Teleological Outlook

answer

my decision/actions based on consequences of actions, decisions based on outcomes

question

Negotiation

answer

process that helps 2 or more people work together to achieve goals and solve problems. Goal to be reached

question

Negotiation happens because

answer

Share or divide a limited resource Create something new that niether party could attain on his or her own Resolve a problem or dispsute between parties

question

You can negotiation anything. True or False

answer

True

question

Bargaining and negotiation are the same thing. true or false

answer

false

question

Bargaining

answer

competitive, win-lose situation

question

Negotiation

answer

tryng to get a win win situation and interdependence takes place

question

Characteristics of Negotiation

answer

typically 2 or more conflict present parties think they can get a better deal by accepting what the other side offers Parties accept a give and take process

question

Parties should search for an agreement rather than

answer

fighting openly breaking off contract permanetly capitulate take their dispute to a third party

question

Successful negotiation involves

answer

management of tangibles (price or terms of agreement) Resolution of tangibles (the underlying psychological motivations such as winning losing or saving face)

question

We need interdependence in negotiation true or false

answer

true. having interlocking goals. Having interdependent goals doesnt mean that everyone wants or needs the same thing.

question

What characterizes an interdependent relationship?

answer

A mix of convergent and conflicting goals. Shapes processes and outcomes. depends heavily on alternatives to work together. Desirability to work together is better outcomes

question

Zero-sum (or distributive)

answer

one winner

question

Non zero sum (or integrative)

answer

mutual gains situation

question

BATNA stands for what

answer

Best Alternatives to a Negotiated Agreement

question

Concession

answer

agrees to make a change in his/her position. Ends up Restricting the range of options. The bargaining range is further constrained.

question

Dilemas in Mutual Adjustment

answer

Dilemma of Honesty- concern about how much of the truth to tell the other party. could potentially lose power you have. Dilemma of Trust- concern about how much should negotiators believe what the other party tells them. Trust but verify

question

Why do people hate to negotiate?

answer

past experiences where they didn't realize they were negotiating until too late or did not properly prepare. The winner loser mentality- zero sum game. Fixed Pie Assumption

question

Conflict

answer

sharp disagreement or opposition, perceived divergence of interest

question

Intrapersonal (intrapsychic) conflict

answer

conflict that occurs within an individual

question

Interpersonal

answer

conflict between individuals

question

Intragroup conflict

answer

conflict in a team/group

question

Intergroup conflict

answer

conflict between organizations, ethnic groups, fueding families. MOST COMPLEX

question

Dsyfunctions with conflict

answer

emotions misperceptions and bias competitive decreased communication blurred issues rigid commitments magnified differences, minimized similarities escalation of conflict

question

Functions of Conflict

answer

Make members more aware and able to cope with problems. Promises organizational change and adaptation. Strengthens relationships and heightens morale. Promotes awareness of self and others. Enhances personal development. Can be stimulating and fun.

question

Fixed Pie Assumption

answer

belief every negotiation is a win lose transaction. Size of resource is fixed.

question

"Skilled negotiators" spends as much as three times as much time as average negotiations and anticipate common ground issues. True or False. and said by whom?

answer

True. Rackham.

question

We should avoid what? (Rackham said skilled negotiators do this)

answer

Irratators. Words or phrases that fail to persuade but success in causing irratation.

question

Skilled negotiators ask how many more questions than average negotiators?

answer

Twice as many. and open ended questions.

question

Do skilled negotiators share their feelings, perceptions, emotions, ect with other side?

answer

Yes. They share internal information

question

5 Traits of Successful Negotiator

answer

Genuine Flexible Ethical Active Listener Curious

question

Win-Lose

answer

an outcome of negotiation where one person gets what they want and the other person recieves nothing or very little

question

Dual Concern Model

answer

a two dimensional model that plots conflict handling styles as a function of level of concern for own outcomes and interests as a function of the concern for the other outcome and interests. Accomodating is appropriate when using dual concern model when concern for other outcomes is high and the concern for our own outcomes is low.

question

Avoiding

answer

a conflict handing style where individual is uncomfortable with conflict and avoids confrontation altogether. This style only makes sense if the issue is unimportant to both negotiators. Avoiding conflict rarely makes it go away.

question

Competing

answer

a conflict handling style where the negotiator looks out for his or her own interests and care little about the relationship with the other person. Competitors like to win and they do well in one time negotiations but less so when there are multiple issues and the relationship with the other is important.

question

Accomodation

answer

a conflict handing style where the individual give in to the other. This is not an effective style in a one time negotiation. however if there is an ongoing relationship between the two negotiators once can and should accomodate the other if the issue is relatively unimportant and the relationship matters a lot.

question

Problem Solving/Collaboration

answer

this style works best when negotatiors care a lot about their own interests and they value the relationship with the other negotiator. This strategy works well if there are multiple strategies to be negotiated and negotiators have different preferences/priorities over the issue.

question

Social Motives

answer

reveal ones preferences for distributions of resources between oneself and another person. The three primary social motivations studied are cooperation, competition, and individualism.

question

Assumptions

answer

are often made about individuals based on stereotypes or other imperfect imformation. In negotiation it is important to check your assumptions before assuming they are true.

question

Role of Assumptions

answer

Stereotypes- beliefs about a group or culture that are based on generalization knowelge that are assumed to be true about an individual from that group or culture. and self fulfilling prophecy- a situation where you assume something is true or an individual (like they are competitive) and you treate them in a way that is consistent with that assumtoion and by doing so you bring that very behavior you assumed. Treats assumptions like hypothesis to be tested.

question

Competitors

answer

Low concern for other side, high concern for my outcomes. Win lose

question

Avoiders

answer

retreat, low concer for our outcomes, silence, doing nothing

question

Accomodating

answer

low concern for out outcomes, high concern for others

question

Problem Solving

answer

high concern for both sides

question

Compromising

answer

moderate effort for both outcomes

question

Three social motives

answer

competitve, individualist, cooperaitve (pro social)

question

Determinants of Strategy

answer

Goals Resources Relationships Trust Goals > Strategy > Planning Can be intangible and procedural

question

Direct efforts

answer

concrete, specific, no limits, not wishes, often like to other parties goals

question

Indirect efforts

answer

forging an ongoing relationship

question

Strategy

answer

overall planto achieve ones goals

question

Tactics

answer

short term adaptive moves designed to enact or pursue broad strategies Subordinate to strategy Driven by strategy

question

What is the action component of strategy

answer

tactics

question

How many of your efforts should be in planning and in negotiation

answer

80% in planning, 20 % in negotiation

question

Where is the barganining range

answer

between opening offer and ensuing counteroffer

question

Bargaining Mix

answer

list of problems

question

Resistance Point

answer

minimum willing to take

question

What is the most critical and important activity in negotiation?

answer

Planning

question

3 three to remember with negotiation

answer

Practice makes permanent Never say yes to first offer Reflection huge part of negotiation

question

Vice Technique

answer

puts pressure on other person, "You'll have to do better than that", Never say yes to first offer (buyers or seller remorse)

question

Distrbutive Bargaining

answer

simple buyer/seller negotiation (ex, flea market)

question

First Assumption(fixed pie or zero sum assumption)

answer

fixed amount of resources to be divided

question

Second Assumption

answer

interests of the parties are diametrically opposed

question

Third Assumption

answer

most likely to occur when negotiators are negotiating over a single issue

question

Fourth Assumption

answer

negotiators may be willing to engage in hardball tactics.

question

Claiming Value

answer

the amount of the resources being negotiated that is claimed by the negotiator. Negotiators who focus on claiming value are looking to claim as much as possible for themselves.

question

Single Issue Negotiators

answer

a negotiation wherethere is one issue being negotiated like the price of a car. Resource being negotiated must be divided or distributed in some way

question

Hard Ball or Contentious tactics

answer

negotiator may use to claim as much value for themsleves as possible. used to undermine, fool, or confuse the other person

question

Highball/Lowball

answer

negotiator makes a first offer that is extremely high or low in hopes of convincing the other negotiator that their own goals are unachievable

question

Flinching

answer

acting with suprise or shock and suprise when recieving the first offer

question

Intimidation

answer

seeks to undermine the other negotiators confidence, often by providing false or debious information

question

Bogey

answer

negotiator pretends somethig or some issue is important to him but it is not. Often employed so that the negotiator can the "concede" on the issue and get something of value in return.

question

Nibble

answer

nibble away an agreement that has already been struck. After selling a big ticket item at a reducted price the other negotiator may then try to get extras, which brings price back up what they would have originally paid

question

Chicken

answer

forces other person to show his or her hand. See who "moves" first (two cars driving fast at each other who will move out the way first) Ex.2 nuclear arms race,

question

Good cop/Bad cop

answer

one take the hardline and put extreme pressue and the other side come sin and makes a concession.

question

Reference Points

answer

serve as benchmarks for a negotiator to assess how well they are doing in a negotiation. Could be goal for negotiation, another the bottom lime or what one can get elsewhere ro what someone else recieved

question

AL (aspiration level)

answer

a high target the negotiator sets for himself

question

Reservation Price

answer

represents your bottom line. Least you are willing to accept as a seller and most you are willing to spend as a buyer. RP should be some level OVER your BATNA. Do not change RP once starting negotiation

question

Objective

answer

all reference points should be based on objective criteria not on BATNA. but what you can get elsewhere.

question

Bargaining zone

answer

between the two initial offers of the buyer and seller. distance between the two negotiators opening offer

question

Zone of Potential

answer

Defined by the reservation zones of the buyer and seller. If the buyers RP is more than the sellers RP there is a positive bargianing zone.

question

When concessions are getting smaller and smaller assume what

answer

The reference point is getting closer and closer

question

Norm of Reciprocity

answer

nearly universal norm which says if you do something nice for me I must do something nice for you.

question

Fairness norm

answer

many norms of fairness. most commonly used are equity equality, and need.

question

Integrative negotiation

answer

a negotiation parties attempt to integrate their interests. to do so parties must be willing to share their interest and be able to prioritize the issues to be negotiated so they can concede on low priority issues in order to cliam more value.

question

Principaled negotiation

answer

a term used by Fisher and Ury in "getting to yes", which advocated deciding issues based on their merits rather than haggling. This type of negotiation is soft on the people and hard on the issues

question

Mutual gains bargaining

answer

another term for integrative negotiation that is often used is collective bargining. This focus os on both parties doing the best they can in negotiation.

question

Integrative negotiation, principaled negotiation, and mutual gains bargaining are all forms of win win negotations. true or false

answer

true

question

Distributive

answer

single issue, one time interaction, positions, do nost share info, hardball, claiming value

question

Integrative

answer

multiple issues, expect multiple interactions, interests, share info about needs and interests,build trust, creating and claiming value

question

Positions

answer

stand taken, like " I must have a salary of 100,000" Positional barging can lead to impasses if a negotiator will not move from his or her position

question

Interests

answer

underlying reasons for the position a negotiator takes.

question

Positons are singular interests are multiple true or false

answer

true

question

Compatible issues

answer

multiple issues and the tendancy to think that both parties want different thingsbut there might be comptabible issues

question

Bundling issues

answer

put like issues togeether and offer as a package. For example, benefits retirement and vacation days together

question

Creating Value

answer

expanding the pie when parties make tradeoffs among issues

question

Multiattribute ultility analysis

answer

a process of weighting issues in a negotiation (weights must add to 1) and then assigning them a numeric vlallue to the options within each issue. this process forces a negotiatior to priotize the issues and allow go quanitify the issues/options and helping see tradeoffs.

question

MESO

answer

Multiple Equivalent Stimultaneous Offer, can bundle some issues and offer two bundles simulataneously that are equal value to him/her. This signals a willlingness to be flexible during negotiation and where tradeoffs can be.

question

How to be a success integrative negotiatior

answer

Know yourself and interests Know other person take on their perspectives gather info ask questions develop reciprocity and share info and interest. find commonalities, free flow of information Think negotiation historically think distributive issues, integrative issues and comparible issues. be patient

question

Lowest point youll pay is the Aspiration point, highest point will be your reservation point, in middle is target point. Setlement range in between 2 target points. Seller will be asking AP. More BATNA the btter. If not a good BATNA walk away

answer

question

Why do we not accept the opening offer?

answer

Buyer and sellers remorse You can get more

question

The role of concessions what happens without them

answer

there is either capitulation or deadlock,

question

How to close the deal

answer

provide MESOs, assume the close, split the difference, exploding offer (tight window offer wont be around anymore), deal sweeteners. Exploding offer can be beaten by a conditional offer

question

Responding to Hardball

answer

Ignore them, discuss them, respond in kind, co-opt the other party before they use the tactic, confront them about the tactic they are using.

question

Maximum Plausible Position

answer

Ask for more than you expect

question

Other good strategies

answer

play reluctant buyer or seller. concentrate on issues not personalities, use a vice, Blanket- overwhelm you with information, Puppy Dog Technique- Take it home, pressure to not bring it back Feel felt found- understand how you feel, i felt the same way, until i found out Escalation Reverse Escalation, today is 4,000 tomorrow is 5,000

question

Best time to buy a car

answer

raining on a sunday, last day of the month

question

Goal is a mutual understanding not an agreement true or false

answer

true

question

Reciprocal concessions

answer

if we can do this for you what can you do for us

question

Implement and follow up after an integrative negotiation. define the problem in a way that is mutually acceptable to both sides. depersonalize the problem.

answer

question

Substantive

answer

relate to key issues ($)

question

Process-

answer

how we settle dispute (fair, process)

question

Relationship

answer

- one or both parties value their relationship

question

Interest

answer

doing what is right fair acceptable

question

Key is to ask WHY. To yourself and other person. Why are we doing this? true or false

answer

true

question

Pyramid Model

answer

Level 1: Agreement: exceeds both parties RP and BATNA Level 2: Superior Agreement: crate additional value for both parties or or one Level 3: Pareto Optimal- max value for both parties

question

Cohen says we are all negotiatiors true or false

answer

true

question

Cohen's Core Points

answer

Negotiating is a game.A game is where you care...but not that much. This attitude is the key to attaining the perspective that enables you to see patterns andinterconnection, to take risks, to convey power, and to be willing to walk away. You want to see negotiations as mind over matter. If you don't mind, it don't matter. Negotiating is interactive.Because negotiating is interactive, you do not have to be trapped by the way the other side frames the issue. If someone says to you "Take it or leave it, do you want A or B?", realize that you can always suggest C, D, E, or J. Expanding the alternatives will help you find a solution which is acceptable to both sides.When interacting with people, if you have respect for the dignity of an individual, if you don't talk down to people, you can make things happen in all of your negotiable relationships. In fact, dumb is sometimes better than smart, inarticulate is sometimes better than articulate. Negotiating is a process.Negotiating is a three-phased, on-going process. It begins before you think it begins and ends after you think it's over.

question

Pre-bargaining Lead Time

answer

he goal of this phase is to get and give as much information as possible while creating a cooperative atmosphere for the actual bargaining.What information do you want to obtain during Phase I?What information do you want to give during Phase I?What can you do to create a cooperative atmosphere for bargaining?

question

The Bargaining Crucible

answer

Phase II consists of explicit consideration of specific proposals. You engage in focused give-and-take leading to convergence or divergence.The most critical aspect of this phase is the deadline. You will find that concessions occur in proximity to the deadline. What can you do to turn the other side's deadline to your advantage?

question

Post Deadline Aftermath

answer

Endings are beginnings. If you are involved in deal that did not close, now is the time to say to the other side "Now that it's over, where did I go wrong? What should I have done to make this deal?" Quite often you will find that the other side, believing that in fact the negotiations are over, will tell you exactly what you need to know in order to revive and close the deal.

question

Artful Negotiating Three Part Framework

answer

Style supersedes substance; how you say something is more importantthan what you say. Start negotiations amicably and move to a competitive stance only if necessary. Use the investment principle to your advantage. The more time the other side invests in negotiating, the more anxious they are to close the deal.

question

Integrative negotiation is best described as a process by which both negotiators are equally satisfied by the outcome of their negotiation and both negotiators claimed equal value in their negotiated agreement. T or F

answer

False

question

Unlike a distributive bargaining situation, in integrative negotiations failing to share information actually disadvantages a negotiator. T or F

answer

True

question

Integrative negotiation is about integrating the interests of both parties involved in the negotiation or dispute. True False

answer

True

question

Integrative negotiation, principled negotiation, and mutual gains bargaining are not all considered forms of win-win negotiations.

answer

False

question

When considering positions and interests, there is only one way to fulfill a position, but there are multiple ways to satisfy the underlying interests.

answer

True

question

When considering tactics, the same ones are used in integrative negotiating and distributive bargaining.

answer

False

question

Creating value is often called "expanding the pie"

answer

True

question

MESO stands for Multiple Equivalent Simultaneous Options.

answer

False

question

A multi-attribute utility analysis is a way for a negotiator to prioritize the issues and allows the negotiator to quantify the issues and option.

answer

True

question

When there are multiple issues in a negotiation it is not a good idea to bundle like issues together.

answer

False

question

The best way to respond to someone who uses the hardball tactic of highball/lowball is to counter with your own your own extreme first offer.

answer

False

question

Distributive bargaining is what most naïve negotiators think of when they think of negotiation.

answer

True

question

Negotiators who focus on claiming value are looking to claim as much as possible for themselves.

answer

True

question

Distributive bargaining is less likely to occur when the resource to be divided is fixed, there is only one issue, the relationship is short, and negotiator's positions are diametrically opposed.

answer

False

question

An aspiration level is the lowest amount you would be willing to take.

answer

False

question

A reservation price can be considered the same thing as an aspiration level.

answer

False

question

ZOPA stands for zone of possible agreement.

answer

True

question

Assumptions about the other party should be tested early in the negotiation process.

answer

True

question

Most people do not have a preferred conflict handling style.

answer

False

question

The two axes of the Dual Concerns Model are assertive and unassertive.

answer

False

question

Avoiding, as a conflict handling style, is never an appropriate strategy.

answer

False

question

Competing makes sense when the situation is viewed as a zero-sum game.

answer

True

question

Over time, experienced negotiators gain a level of comfort with several different styles of negotiating.

answer

True

question

According to the text, the Dual Concerns Model is based on the work of Pruitt.

answer

True

question

Accommodation may be the only effective strategy when you are negotiating over a single issue and the negotiators' positions are diametrically opposed.

answer

False

question

The research on social motives has shown that one's social orientation can affect negotiation strategy and outcomes.

answer

True

question

Because every person brings their own personality or disposition to their negotiation or conflict handling styles, we do not have to learn to deal with those who are different from us.

answer

False

question

As a general rule, and according to the nine-year study of "skilled" negotiators conducted by Rackham, "skilled" negotiators prefer using competitive negotiations strategies compared to the cooperative negotiations strategies favored by less skilled negotiators.

answer

False

question

An important part of planning for a negotiation involves considering the negotiation style that best fits the specific negotiation situation.

answer

True

question

A key finding of the Rackham study about the traits of effective negotiators is that effective negotiators use distributive strategies and hardball tactics or irritators far more often than "average" negotiators.

answer

False

question

People who carry a fixed pie assumption with them into negotiations miss out on opportunities for both negotiators to win.

answer

True

question

Few people say they hate negotiating because of past experiences when they did not properly prepare for a negotiation.

answer

False

question

Some people fail to anticipate that a situation will require negotiation skills until it's too late to change course.

answer

True

question

A fixed pie assumption is when both parties want the same thing and only one can have it.

answer

False

question

Effective negotiators understand that negotiation is a problem-solving activity that requires the active participation of both negotiators in order for a deal to be reached.

answer

True

question

The authors identified an exhaustive list of five traits of effective negotiators.

answer

False

question

It is usually fairly easy, in a negotiation, to identify what you want and what the other person may want.

answer

False

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Family And Medical Leave Act

Chapter 4 Wireless LAN – Flashcards 79 terms

Marie Florence

79 terms

Preview

Chapter 4 Wireless LAN – Flashcards

question

whats some benefits to wireless LAN

answer

flexibility, reduced cost, productivity, and grows and adapts.

question

What are 3 wireless network types

answer

wireless personal-area network, Wireless local area network, and wireless wide area network.

question

what are characteristics of WPAN?

answer

range few feet bluetooth or wifi direct

question

what are characteristics of WLAN?

answer

few hundred feet. home or office.

question

what are characteristics of WWAN

answer

range of miles, metropolitan area network, cellular, intercity links (microwave relays)

question

ways devices connect to wireless networks

answer

bluetooth(100m) and wifi (wireless fidelity)

question

types of radiowaves

answer

Ultra High Frequency, Super High Frequency and, Extremely High Frequency.

question

what are characteristics of UHF?

answer

Wlan 2.4, microwaves, bluetooth, cellular broadband, and UHF television.

question

what are characteristics of SHF?

answer

WLAN 5.0 satellite communication.microwave communication, and radio astronomy.

question

what are characteristics of EHF?

answer

WiGig, Radar landing system and, radio astronomy.

question

What are some wifi standards with the number

answer

802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, 802.11ad, 802.11ac

question

what are characteristics of 802.11

answer

2 Mbs 2.4 GHz

question

what are characteristics of 802.11a?

answer

54 Mbs 5.0 GHz short distance.

question

what are characteristics of 802.11b?

answer

11Mbs 2.4 GHz farther distance than 11a

question

what are characteristics of 802.11g

answer

54 Mbs 2.4 GHz

question

what are characteristics of 802.11n

answer

600 Mbs 2.4 and 5.0

question

what are characteristics of 802.11ac?

answer

1.3 Gbs 5.0 GHz

question

what are characteristics of 802.11ad

answer

7 Gigs 2.4 GHz, 5.0 GHz , 60 GHz.

question

What are three organizations that influence WLAN

answer

ITU-R, IEEE, and WI-Fi Alliance.

question

what are characteristics of wi-fi alliance?

answer

The wi-fi alliance is a non-profit which promtes the growth and acceptance of WLANs. certifies wifi product compatibility like wifi miracast, passpoint, and wifi direct.

question

whats the difference between Ethernet and WLAN

answer

Ethernet Collision detection and regulation by countries authorities. WLAN Radio Frequency which is collision avoidance (takes turns)no boundaries, less privacy there's interference.

question

What are wireless requirements for end devices?

answer

same frequency, radio receiver, AP, radio transmiter, and wireless nic

question

How does a wireless router advertise?

answer

by sending beacons

question

What is a Wireless autonomous AP

answer

connects devices wirelessly to the internet.

question

requirements for a cluster ap

answer

clustering mode enabled, same name, connected on the same segment, and same (RF)

question

What is cisco's cloud based ap that pushes updates to other APs.

answer

Cisco Meraki

question

What are requirements for Cisco Meraki?

answer

Cisco MR cloud managed wireless APs, Meraki cloud controller and web based dashboard remote config and diagnostics.

question

Cisco Unified network requires

answer

lightweight AP and Wireless Controller

question

What are the types of wireless antennas?

answer

OMnidirectional (open office areas) ,Directional wifi antennas focus strength in one direction, Yagi (long distance in one direction.)Mimo allows more bandwidth upto 4 antennas

question

main wireless topology modes

answer

Adhoc and infrastructure

question

what is adhoc

answer

two devices connected wirelessly with bluetooth or wifi direct. Peer to peer Basic Service area and a Independent Basic service set

question

what is Infrastructure mode

answer

wireless clients connect to AP thats connect to a network through Distribution system.(Ethernet)

question

What is a extended Service set or ESS?

answer

when one BSA isn't enough to cover the network So more than one BSA is connected creating a wider area coverage that is connected through a distribution system.

question

what is a BSA

answer

Basic Service area is the area covered by a wireless device.

question

what is in a header of a 802.11 frame?

answer

1. Frame control 2. Duration 3.add1 (receiving) 4.add2 (sending) 5. add 3 (MAC of destination Default gateway) 6.sequence control (number of frame) 7.add 4 (for ad hoc)

question

what is the payload section for in a 802.11 frame?

answer

contains data for transmission

question

what is FCS in the 802.11 frame?

answer

frame check sequence layer 2 error control

question

what is in the frame control field of a 802.11 frame

answer

1. protocol version 2. frame type and sub type (control, data, or management) 3. ToDS and fromDS 4.more fragments (indicates if more is to follow this) 5.retry 6.power management (sending device in psaving mode) 7.more data (if receiving device is in psaving mode indicates more frames to send) 8. security (what security features are being used) 9. reserve (all data frames must be received in that order)

question

whats a maintenance frame 802.11

answer

finding, authenticating, and associating with an AP.

question

what is a control frame

answer

facilitate in the exchange of data frames between wireless clients.

question

what is a Data Frame

answer

Used to carry the payload information such as web pages and files.

question

what is the order of data transmiting>

answer

1.request to send 2. Clear to send. 3. Ack if the client doesn't receive an acknowledgement then it will resend the data

question

what are some CSMA/CA characteristics

answer

half duplex so the client takes turns sending and hearing. it is also impossible to detect collision this system also relies on DCF a client only sends if the channel is clear.

question

What are management frames?

answer

1. Discover AP 2. Authenticate with AP (password) 3. Associate with AP (communicate)

question

What is the common configureable wireless parameters

answer

network mode, SSID, Channel Settings, Security mode, Encryption,and Password.

question

What are 2 Discovering APs modes?

answer

Passive and Active.

question

What is passive mode on an AP?

answer

AP advertises its SSID with broadcast beacons

question

what is active mode on a AP?

answer

end users must know the SSID and password to get on the network

question

What are the Authentication types on wireless LAN?

answer

Open authentication and shared key authentication.

question

What are the steps to connect to a Shared key Authentication on wireless lan?

answer

1. Wireless client sends authenticaiton frame to AP 2. AP sends challenge text (password) 3.client sends password 4. AP decrypts the password 5. If the text matches the password then the AP continues to the association stage. 6. link is established.

question

What are the different types of frequency channel saturation?

answer

DSSS Direction Sequence spread spectum crafted noice, (FHSS) frequency hopping spread spectum channel hopping, Orthogonal frequency Division Multiplex (OFDM) subchannels without interfering

question

What channels are used for WLAN 2.4 in america

answer

nonoverlapping 1,6,11

question

Wlans are susceptible to what threats?

answer

wireless intruders, rogue APs, DoS attacks, and Interception of data.

question

Dos attacks on a WLAN?

answer

improperly configured devices (accidentally by admin or purposely by hacker) , malicious user interfering with network(wants to stop all traffic), accidental interference (baby monitors)

question

What are 2 common types of management frame attacks?

answer

Spoofed disconnect attack or CTS flood.

question

What is an attack where the attacker sends a disassoicate attack?

answer

Spoffed disconnect attack which all users are disconnected and the users try to reconnect at the same time and back and forth which causes a DoS

question

What is a type of attack where the attacker floods the BSS with CTS.

answer

CTS flood and all wireless PCs are stalled till the attacker stops the attack

question

What is prevention method for management frame attacks for cisco?

answer

Ciscos management frame protection which protects against frame and device spoofing. in

question

What is prevention method for management frame attacks for IEEE?

answer

802.11W management frame protection standard addresses the problem of manipulating management frames. 802.11i specifies security mechanisms for wireless networks

question

What are the two different types of rogue APs?

answer

AP connected to corperate network and capture clients mac data then Raptue and disguise so the network believes it's the client and allows the attacker retrieve resources.

question

How can you protect a network from a rogue ap attack?

answer

monitoring software to monitor the radio spectum (expensive)

question

What's a way man in the middle hacker gain resources in wireless?

answer

By installing an AP and labeling it the same SSID as a close internet source and attacker steals user information.

question

what is a solution to man in the middle small and large business in Wireless?

answer

small business secure network and monitor. While large enterprise WLAN an Intrusion Protection Service(IPS) and monitor APs.

question

what are two early implementations of security features in WLAN that wasn't so helpful?

answer

SSID clocking and MAC address filtering.

question

what is the security feature that disables SSID Beacon and client's cant see AP.

answer

SSID clocking

question

What is the WLAN security feature that allows admin to allow or deny clients?

answer

MAC address filtering

question

What is the way to make your network more secure beyond SSID clocking and MAC address filtering?

answer

Encrypting the wireless network with shared key.

question

What is the strongest authentication format strongest to weakest?

answer

WPA2 - AES WPA - TKIP WEP- CRC

question

What is TKIP?

answer

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol which encrypts at layer 2 with TKIP. Also pushes out (MIC) a message Integrity Check to see if the message has been tampered with.

question

What is AES?

answer

Advanced Encryption Standard strongest encryption which has a counter cipher mode with block chainning message authentication code protocol. CCMP allows host to recognize if message is encrypted (if some bits are unencrypted then its been tampered with)

question

what are the two main types of authentication a home user?

answer

simple WPA and WPA2

question

what is WPA

answer

personal- PSK pre shared key

question

what is WPA2 and what is it used for

answer

Enterprise level which is very secure. (EAP) Extensible Authication Protection which negoates a secure privat key and this type of authentication requires remote authentication and dials in user service Radius (login and password)

question

What are nessary fields for AES at enterprise level?

answer

Radius Server IP, Radius Pork Number and Shared key (AP)

question

What to consider changing on a new router?

answer

DHCP settings, SSID name, WLAN security Management access (admin password)

question

What are some troubleshoot approaches?

answer

bottom-up layer one up. top- bottom start at top layer and go down. Divide and conquer ping lower layers and uppers.

question

What do you do if a wireless client isn't connecting?

answer

ipconfig, verify the end device can connect through a wired connection, check security and encryption settings to match router, then if that doesn't work reload drivers for client.

question

What should you consider if a device has a low connection?

answer

distance from AP, interference and, channel settings.

question

How to fix a network that's slow?

answer

upgrade your wireless clients to a faster 802.11 device or split the wireless traffic 2.4 and 5.0 GHZ // Which 2.4 doesn't worry about speed while 5 does. also 5 is less effected by interference.

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Civil Law Rational Basis Test

the last book in the universe – Flashcards 75 terms

Alicia Bennett

75 terms

Preview

the last book in the universe – Flashcards

question