What did the Civil Rights act of 1991 protect against?

Discrimination More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/smc-business-101-final-exam-review/

the civil rights act of 1991 permits the court to award____to mistreated employees

compensatory damages, prison sentences, and punitive damages More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/medical-law-and-ethics/

The Civil Rights Act of 1991 amended the original act, and ________.

gave employees the right to have a trial by jury in discrimination cases More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-4-practice-quiz-test-answers/

what is the civil rights act of 1991

upholds and strengthens the civil rights act of 1964 under which an employee has the right to make a claim for discrimination against their employer; the EEOC then investigates the claim, and makes a decision and if discrimination is found to have occurred, depending on the charge, the employee could receive back pay, be reinstated, or awarded a promotion; the civil rights act of 1991 takes possible actions by the employee farther, by allowing for jury trials and increased monetary awards for employees More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/change-management-in-him-57794/

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1964 Civil Rights Act Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Criminal Justice Criminal Law New York City

Policing 2 – Flashcards 70 terms

Patsy Brent

70 terms

Preview

Policing 2 – Flashcards

question

The first African American police officer was appointed in what city? a. chicago b. new york c. new orleans d. miami

answer

new orleans

question

which of the following was not one of the duties relegated to early female police officers? a. issuing parking tickets b. guarding female prisoners c. performing routine clerical tasks d. patrolling

answer

patrolling

question

In 1910, ____ appointed the nations first "officially designated" policewoman a. dallas b. new york c. los ángeles d. chicago

answer

los ángeles

question

In 1910, the nations first "officially designated policewoman was: a. alice stebbins wells b. nora jean wilson c. hazel l davis d. ruth smith

answer

Alice stebbins wells

question

the most prevalent form of discrimination has been a. separate job titles b. disparate recruiting c. de facto discrimination d. standard discrimination

answer

de facto discrimination

question

according to your text, which racial group despite efforts is poorly represented in law enforcement a. american indian b. pacific islander c. asian d. hispanics

answer

asian

question

the supreme court case that established the concept that hiring requirements must be job-related was: a. brown v. board of education of Topeka b. brown v. mississippi c. griggs v. duke power company d. U.S. v. paradise

answer

griggs v. duke power company

question

the concept that employers must take active steps to ensure equal employment opportunities and to redress the past discrimination is called: a. reverse discrimination b. adverse impact c. affirmative action d. de facto opportunity

answer

affirmative action

question

all are issues women face in the law enforcement workplace except a. pregnancy b. dating c. family issues d. drug use

answer

drug use

question

the academic studies of women on patrol indicate that a. women can perform patrol duties as well as men can b. women perform in a less satisfactory manner than men on patrol c. women perform as well as men on patrol but only when teamed with a male partner d. the majority of women do not want to work patrol

answer

women can perform patrol duties as well as men can

question

______ of sworn personnel in local police departments are African American a. 11.9% b. 20.7% c. 5.2% d. 18.9%

answer

11.9%

question

____ of sworn personnel in local police departments are women a. 11.9% b. 15.3% c. 3.9% d. 21.2%

answer

11.9%

question

____ of sworn personnel in local police departments are Hispanic a. 19.5% b. 22.7% c. 10.3% d. 1.8%

answer

10.3%

question

Until the 1970s, why was it presumed that women were not capable of performing the same type of patrol duty as men? a. because of their gender and size b. because they could not testify in court c. because they were not good drivers d. because they would side with women in domestic disputes

answer

because of their gender and size

question

the simultaneous expectation by white officers that African American officers will give members of their own race better treatment, but that African American officers will also receive hostility from the African American community because they are perceived as traitors to their race is known as a. double marginality b. de facto discrimination c. adverse impact d. reverse discrimination

answer

double marginality

question

all are changes that African Americans face in the workplace except a. tokenism b. equal pay c. acceptance d. harassment

answer

equal pay

question

Which of the following is not one of the three traditional ways we do police work in the United States? a. retroactive investigation of past crimes by detectives b. routine random patrol c. proactive investigations d. rapid response to calls by citizens to 911

answer

proactive investigations

question

It has commonly been believed in police administration that random routine patrol creates a sense of a. semi presence b. omnipresence c. nonpresence d. none of the above

answer

omnipresence

question

the kansas study occurred in the a. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1950s

answer

1970s

question

the kansas city study indicated that adding or removing police random routine patrol a. caused crime to increase b. caused crime to decrease c. had no effect on crime d. eliminated crime altogether

answer

had no effect on crime

question

which is not a special operations unit according to your text a. SWAT b. K-9 c. emergency service units d. traffic

answer

traffic

question

which of the following is not one of the basic components of response time? a. time between the crime and the call to the police b. time retired for the police to process the call c. travel time from receipt of the call by the patrol car to arrival at the scene d. time it takes for the perpetrator to flee the scene

answer

time it takes for the perpetrator to flee the scene

question

___ is the most expensive part of a police departments budget a. fuel cost b. equipment c. personnel d. liability insurance

answer

personnel

question

most departments utilize a. take home car programs b. personally owned vehicles (POVs) c. fleet vehicles d. liability insurance

answer

fleet vehicles

question

agencies that cover a large geographical area, such as sheriff's departments and state patrols, utilize: a. take home car programs b. personally owned vehicles (POVs) c. fleet vehicles d. pre owned vehicles

answer

take home car programs

question

the most important and visible part of police work to the public is/are a. detective operations b. public appearances by the police chief c. patrol d. crime prevention

answer

patrol

question

which is not an innovative way to address responding to community problems and 911 calls according to your text a. directed patrol b. split-force patrol c. C.O.P.S d. differential response

answer

C.O.P.S

question

in an experiment, the group that is not acted upon, and where nothing is changed, is called a. the control group b. the experimental group c. the change agent d. the free group

answer

the control group

question

directed patrol units are often interrupted by calls for service. this can affect the performance assignments. what is a solution to this problem? a. routine patrol b. task force patrol c. split force patrol d. there is no solution to the problem

answer

split force patrol

question

differential response to calls for service is a policy that abandons the traditional practice of responding to all calls for service, in differential response, responses to citizens' calls to 911 for service are matched to the ____ of the calls a. importance or severity b. location c. numerical order d. time of day

answer

importance or severity

question

which item below is not a new tactical approach to crime control according to your text a. alternative vehicle deployment b. decoy vehicles c. aggressive patrol d. all are new tactical approaches

answer

all are new tactical approaches

question

______ models give the police answers as to where and when to assign officers a. parol pattern b. patrol allocation c. patrol simulation d. patrol direction

answer

patrol allocation

question

this system allows police departments to call citizens in the entire jurisdiction or limit it to a particular neighborhood where something is occurring a. reverse 911 b. 311 c. 911 d. reverse 311

answer

reverse 911

question

the evidence seems to suggest that proactive, aggressive police strategies are _______ in reducing crime, at least in target areas a. indifferent b. not effective c. effective d. showing mixed results

answer

effective

question

the greek philosopher who wrote the classic Nicomachean Ethics was a. aristotle b. plato c. socrates d. onassis

answer

Aristotle

question

which of the following is an example of the ethical standards established to determine how police officers should act a. organizational value systems or codes of ethics designed to educate and guide the behavior of those who work within an organization b. the law enforcement code of ethics c. an oath of office d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

which of the following is an example of the standards governing police ethics a. U.S. constitution b. bill of rights c. case law as determined by appellate courts and the U.S. supreme court d. all of the above

answer

All of the above

question

noble cause corruption is also known as a. dirty harry syndrome b. blue line crossing c. blue corruption d. meat eating

answer

dirty harry syndrome

question

the 1931 national commission on law observance and enforcement was more popularly known as the a. kerner commission b. volmer commission c. wickersham commission d. kefauver commission

answer

wickersham commission

question

according to the authors definition of police corruption, which of the following would be an example of police corruption a. a police officer receives $15 from a driver for not giving her/him a summons for speeding b. a police officer receives sexual favors from a diver for not giving him/her a summons for speeding c. an off duty police officer escorts a drug dealer as he delivers illegal drugs to customers. he receives $100 a delivery d. all of the above

answer

All of the above

question

which of the following is not a reason for police corruption as listed in your text a. individual officer explanations b. the police subculture c. social structure explanations d. all are reasons for corruption

answer

All are reasons for corruption

question

some studies indicate that domestic violence may be _____ in police families when compared to the general public a. more prevalent b. less prevalent c. the same d. none of these

answer

more prevalent

question

"the excessive or unreasonable use of force in dealing with citizens, suspects, and offenders" is the definition: a. police misconduct b. police violence c. police mistreatment d. police brutality

answer

police misconduct

question

which of the following is not an argument in favor of citizen review a. it would improve public trust in law enforcement b. it would ensure that justice is done and actual misconduct is punished c. it would make police officers more aggressive in enforcing the law d. it would provide an independent evaluation of citizen complaints

answer

it would make police officers more aggressive in enforcing the law

question

the knapp commission was a(n) a. international commission b. federal commission c. state commission d. local commission

answer

local commission

question

police officers who participate in the more passive types of police corruption are referred to as a. meat eaters b. grass eaters c. dirt eaters d. tree huggers

answer

grass eaters

question

officers who participate in more aggressive types of corruption by seeking out and taking advantage of opportunities of corruption are called a. meat eaters b. grass eaters c. dirt eaters d. tree eaters

answer

meat eaters

question

which is not a type of office corruption according to the author a. a. taking bribes b. taking gratuities c. theft or burglary d. choosing not to arrest an individual who they know

answer

choosing not to arrest an individual who they know

question

any police initiated activity that relies on a person's race or ethnic background rather than on behavior as a basis for identifying that individual as being involved in criminal activity is called a. noble cause policing b. situational stereotype policing c. racial profiling d. dispositional policing

answer

racial profiling

question

Which is not a type of liability officers and departments need to be aware of a. civil liability b. administrative liability c. criminal liability d. all are liabilities to the officer and department

answer

all are liabilities to the officer and department

question

_____ means that a police officer may be sued in civil court for improper behavior, using such civil law concepts as negligence and torts a. criminal liability b. civil liability c. administrative liability d. strict liability

answer

civil liability

question

rules and regulations established by their department to govern the conduct of its officers a. criminal liability b. civil liability c. administrative liability d. strict liability

answer

administrative liability

question

prior to the rand study, it was common for police departments to have policies and procedures in place that emphasized a. the proactive investigation of future crime by detectives b. follow up investigations of past crimes by patrol officers c. the retroactive investigation of past crimes by detectives d. cold case detectives

answer

the retroactive investigation of past crime by detectives

question

according the ______ model, the investigation of almost all felonies and some misdemeanors was the sole responsibility of the detective division a. decoy investigation b. blending investigation c. proactive investigation d. retroactive investigation

answer

retroactive investigations

question

along with training of new detectives, many departments use this method to assist in the training of new detectives a. cross training b. mentoring c. simulations d. MCI

answer

mentoring

question

the single most important determinant of whether or not a case will be solved is the information the victim supplies to the a.detective b. immediately responding patrol officer c. dispatcher d. supervisor

answer

immediately responding patrol officer

question

detectives in a decentralized squad are considered a. specialists b. generalists c. to be in field training d. felony only detectives

answer

generalists

question

detectives in a centralized squad are considered a. specialists b. generalists c. to be in field training d. felony only detectives

answer

specialists

question

the idea that detective work is glamorous, exciting, and dangerous, as it is depicted in the movies and on television, is called a. détective mystique b. detective role c. detective model d. detective initiative

answer

détective mystique

question

the national advisory commission on criminal justice standards and goals recommended that detectives should only be assigned to preliminary investigations of a. felonies b. crimes of violence c. very serious crimes and crimes requiring complex preliminary investigations d. all of the above

answer

very serious crimes and crimes requiring complex preliminary investigations

question

the national advisory commission on criminal justice standards and goals recommended that _______ should conduct preliminary investigations of most crimes a. detectives b. supervisors c. non sworn personnel d. patrol officers

answer

patrol officers

question

which of the following is a solvability factor in the managing criminal investigations program? a. is there a witness? b. is a suspect named or known? c. will the complainant cooperate? d. All of the above

answer

all of the above

question

with agency collects and maintains a database of clandestine laboratories a. FBI b. ATF c. DEA d. CIA

answer

DEA

question

programs concentrating investigative resources on career criminals are called a. targeting programs b. proactive programs c. repeat offender programs d. anti career criminal programs

answer

repeat offender programs

question

in a case enhancement program a. a detective debriefs a suspect to obtain further information b. detectives assist the arresting officer in preparing a case for court c. a detective engages in liaison with the district attorney d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

the vast majority of all arrests are made a. at the scene of the crime b. within 48 hours c. within 2 weeks d. within one month

answer

At the scene of the crime

question

elements of sting operations include all but the following a. undercover officer(s) b. targeted group c. opportunity to commit a crime d. all are elements of a sting operation

answer

all are elements of a sting operation

question

Marvin Wolfgang discovered that most predatory street crime in the United States is committed by a. only a few criminals b. convicted felons c. sex offenders d. individuals under the influence of drugs

answer

only a few criminals

question

Decoy operations are most effective in detecting and arresting all of the following except a. robbers b. purse snatchers c. persons committing larcenies from autos d. murderers

answer

murderers

question

undercover operations target all of the following crimes except a. robbery b. DUI c. burglary d. selling stolen goods

answer

DUI

STUDY

Abnormal Psychology AP Psychology Business Management Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Cognitive Ability Test Meets The Requirements Organizational Psychology Psychometrics

PHP: Final Exam – Flashcards 89 terms

Elizabeth Hill

89 terms

Preview

PHP: Final Exam – Flashcards

question

Used as a standard to compare different applicants' intellectual abilities and thus predict whether they would be successful in medical training

answer

What did the old version of the MCAT measure?

question

Also provides more substantial information about the applicant's ability to manage the issues they will encounter in medical school

answer

What does the new version of the MCAT measure?

question

Biological and biochemical foundations of living systems, chemical and physical foundations of biological systems, psychological social and biological foundations of behavior and critical analysis and reasoning skills

answer

What are the four sections on the MCAT?

question

Biology, chemistry (general and organic), biochemistry, physics, sociology and psychology

answer

What classes are recommended to take before the MCAT?

question

Calculus/statistics

answer

What classes are not necessary but very helpful to take before the MCAT?

question

When you are getting consistently acceptable scores on practice tests

answer

How do you know you're ready to take the MCAT?

question

From January to September

answer

When is the MCAT offered?

question

Spring of 3rd (junior) year

answer

When is the MCAT typically taken for the first time?

question

As many times as you want, but more than 3 is not recommended

answer

How many times can you take the MCAT?

question

All of your past scores

answer

What MCAT score(s) do schools see?

question

500 or better

answer

What MCAT score do you need to be competitive?

question

Take advantage of undergraduate course work

answer

What is the best way to study for the MCAT?

question

Focusing too much on biology (it's only 1/4)

answer

What common mistake do people make when studying for the MCAT?

question

Critical reasoning and reading skills

answer

What other skills are important for taking the MCAT?

question

No specific major is considered "the best"

answer

What is the best major for applying to medical school?

question

So they know more about you than simply your grade in their course

answer

Why is it important to make a conscious effort to engage with professors you want to write a recommendation or evaluation letter?

question

Those in the science department

answer

Who are the best professors for writing a recommendation or evaluation letter?

question

Research, office hours, asking insightful questions, do well on test, dress well and be genuine

answer

What are some good ways to connect with professors?

question

It gives the admissions people more information specific to that school's mission and programs as well as more demographic information

answer

Why do some schools have a secondary application?

question

Individual professors/academic mentors or put together by a pre-health office as a packet with a cover letter

answer

Who may letters of recommendation or evaluation be from?

question

Must be a conservative/professional photo and don't crop others out of a photo, make sure it is a single shot

answer

What are some guidelines for an application photo?

question

Only things after high school; list relevant activities such as health care exposure, community service, research, leadership role and employment

answer

What should be included on an activities summary?

question

Why medicine? What is your motivation?

answer

What questions should be answered in the personal statement (essay)?

question

TMDSAS, AMCAS and AACOMAS

answer

What are the three application systems for medical school?

question

Texas Medical and Dental School Application Service; the application for all public medical schools in Texas; the only Texas school that doesn't use this is Baylor College of Medicine

answer

What is the TMDSAS?

question

American Medical College Application Service; the application for all MD programs outside of Texas; Baylor College of Medicine uses this

answer

What is the AMCAS?

question

American Association of Colleges of Osteopathic Medicine Application Service; used specifically for DOs

answer

What is the AACOMAS?

question

The last step in the application process

answer

What is the medical school interview considered?

question

A whole day; tour of the facility, student panel, presentation about the school and the interview itself

answer

What is the typical format of a medical school interview?

question

Men: well fitted suit of simply colors like navy, black or grey and a tie; Women: well fitted (but not too tight) pant suit or skirt suit, no plunging necklines, plain colors as listed for men, professional closed toed shoes that are easy to walk in, simple hair make up and jewelry

answer

What is considered professional attire appropriate for a medical school interview?

question

Panal interview (several people at once), one-on-one interview, multiple mini interview (several short separate interviews with different people about different topics/situations)

answer

What are the different formats for a medical school interview?

question

Closed file interview (the interviewer has limited information about the applicant; typically do not know GPA or MCAT score), blind interview (interviewer knows nothing about the applicant except maybe their undergraduate institution), open file interview (interviewer has all parts of the applicants' application)

answer

What are the three types of interviews for each of the three formats?

question

PhD/MD/DO faculty, community physicians, administrators or medical students

answer

Who may an interview be conducted by?

question

ERAS (Electronic Residency Application Service)

answer

What are residency applications submitted through?

question

Residency Directors submit their rank lists to them; the organization then matches based on applicant and director rankings

answer

What does the National Residency Match Program (NRMP) do?

question

The third Friday of March

answer

When is the national residency match day for MD students?

question

SOAP (Supplemental Offer and Acceptance Program)

answer

What do students do if they are not matched with any residency program?

question

Ophthalmology, neurology and military

answer

What programs do not participate in "match day" for residency?

question

AOA

answer

What do DO programs use for residency?

question

At the end of preclinical education

answer

When is Step 1 of USMLE or COMPLEX taken?

question

During the 4th year

answer

When is Step 2 of USMLE or COMPLEX taken?

question

2 parts: clinical knowledge and clinical skills

answer

What is Step 2 of USMLE or COMPLEX composed of?

question

Ability to apply medical knowledge and understanding of clinical science

answer

How is clinical knowledge assessed?

question

Mastery of clinical skills in a standardized patient setting

answer

How is clinical science assessed?

question

2 parts: preclinical and clinical

answer

How is the medical school curriculum broken up?

question

Organ system blocks, topic/subject blocks or case based learning

answer

How are the first 2 years or 18 months of medical school organized?

question

Family medicine, internal medicine, surgery, psychiatry, pediatrics and obstetrics and gynecology (others often included: emergency medicine, radiology, anesthesiology)

answer

What are the 6 main rotations in the second 2-2.5 years of medical school?

question

Do the 6 clinical rotations consecutively and then do electives at the end

answer

What is the traditional structure for clinical years?

question

A "shelf exam"

answer

What follows each rotation?

question

Review symptoms and treatment plans and research unknown diseases and treatments that come up

answer

What are students expected to study during clinical rotations?

question

Faculty who know you particularly well, someone with specific ties to the program, only people who will highly recommend you

answer

Who should write recommendation letters for applying for residency?

question

MSPE (medical student performance evaluation), a compilation of the applicant's clinical evaluations, used to compare the applicant to peers

answer

What is the dean's letter?

question

Why this specialty?

answer

What question should the personal statement for residency answer?

question

A running record of things the student has done

answer

What is a curriculum vitae (CV)?

question

Rotations specific to residency applied for and step grades

answer

What is most importantly consider in residency admissions?

question

The system of medicine which treats diseases by the use of remedies which produce effects different from those produced by the diseases under treatment

answer

What is allopathic medicine?

question

The philosophy of holistic medicine focused on treating illnesses within the context of the whole cody; systems of the body were interrelated and impacted one another supporting the idea to treat lines within a broader context and to focus on preventative care

answer

What is osteopathic medicine?

question

Osteopathic Manipulative Medicine (OMM) -- a set of manual manipulation techniques involving the musculoskeletal system

answer

What do DOs learn that MDs do not?

question

Single accreditation system for graduate medical education (GME)

answer

What matches both MD and Do programs for residency?

question

Master of public health, master of science, master of science in clinical and translational science, master of business administration, master of science education for health care professionals, other masters

answer

What types of master's degrees are commonly pursued with an MD?

question

3 to 6 years

answer

How many years does a Doctoral degree in Philosophy add to an MD?

question

2 years

answer

How many years does a Doctoral degree of Jurisprudence add to an MD?

question

1 to 2 years

answer

How many years does a master's degree add to an MD?

question

Hospital vs. clinic, private practice vs. non-private practice and academic vs. non-academic

answer

What are the types of medical practices?

question

Students look for something that they can fully know and feel comfortable practicing, negative perception or stereotype and misconception of primary care training, contrast in compensation between primary care and subspecialties

answer

Why is there a shortage of general practitioners?

question

Conducted in a controlled lab environment, academic fields of biology chemistry and biochemistry

answer

What is bench research in medicine?

question

Biological or chemical processes are applied to a physiological/living system, plant animal cellular or human physiology, confined to a controlled laboratory setting using animals or plants

answer

What is translational research in medicine?

question

Discovering/measuring the effectiveness of new treatments drugs and protocols, conducted in a clinical or hospital setting, outcomes in patient care, ethical issues

answer

What is clinical research in medicine?

question

Academic field, concerned with prevalence of disease overall health outcomes and the general health of a specific population

answer

What is research in public health?

question

Procedure/surgical, non-procedure/clinical or mixed

answer

What are the types of residency programs?

question

Rotations within chosen speciality and some outside

answer

What do first year residents usually have?

question

A resident will take on a leadership role

answer

What is expected during the second year of residency?

question

Research/lunch education sessions/journal club/presentations

answer

What may be some additional requirements in residency?

question

USMLE Step 3 or COMPLEX, in-service, jurisprudence, board exam

answer

What tests are taken during residency?

question

Traditionally a period of sub-specialty training that follows residency or another fellowship

answer

What is a fellowship program?

question

1, 2 or 3 years

answer

How long are fellowship programs?

question

Autonomy, responsibilities of running the practice

answer

What are the pros/cons of single or small group practice?

question

Professional practice administrator, financial stability, favorable terms with insurance, loss of autonomy

answer

What are the pros/cons of large group practice?

question

Cannot employ physicians (Non-profit healthcare corporation)

answer

What are the pros/cons of hospitals?

question

Lower income, opportunity to teach

answer

What are pros/cons of academic medicine?

question

Based upon the RVU system

answer

How is employed physician compensation usually negotiated?

question

Based upon CPT (current procedural terminology) codes

answer

How are physicians reimbursed?

question

Intent to limit physician self-referral and outlaw many financial relationships between hospitals and physicians

answer

What are Stark laws?

question

PPOs (preferred provider organizations) and HMOs (health maintenance organizations)

answer

What are the two major forms of managed care?

question

Preferred provider organizations are insurable products that combine physicians, hospitals and other providers to provide care at a discounted rate

answer

What are PPOs?

question

Health maintenance organizations are insurance entities that typically have a "gatekeeper" primary care physician and drastically limit patient choice of physicians and hospitals, compensate physicians by either discounted fee for service or capitation

answer

What are HMOs?

question

All of the providers for an episode of care are paid a single lump sum and its is up to the providers to determine how the money will be split up

answer

What does bundled payment mean?

question

Accountable care organization, integrated health entities that provide care for a minimum of 5,000 Medicare patients and ultimately will be at risk for the financial aspects of their care

answer

What is an ACO?

question

Pharmaceutical industry, medical device manufactures (technology) and physician compensation

answer

Why does the U.S. spend an enormous amount on healthcare?

STUDY

Advanced Practice Nurse Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Policies And Procedures Policy And Procedures Quid Pro Quo Sexual Harassment Rules And Regulations

Legs 2 – Flashcard 164 terms

Suzette Hendon

164 terms

Preview

Legs 2 – Flashcard

question

in given situations, the nature and degree of reasonable care expected of people providing care may differ depending upon which factor?

answer

the individual's status as a professional

question

Standards of care exist for a number of reasons. what is their most basic purpose?

answer

to protect & safeguard the public as a whole

question

The hospital nursing group establishing standards of care for a newly organized patient care unit is looking for external sources for these standards. Where should these nurses look?

answer

Professional journals and nursing textbooks

question

The hospital nursing group establishing standards of care for a newly organized patient care unit is looking for internal sources for these standards. Where should these nurses look?

answer

Hospital policy and procedures manuals

question

The hospital nursing group has reviewed external standards of care to establish standards of care for a newly organized patient care unit. These external sources serve to set which level of standard of care?

answer

National

question

Which situation supports the charge of malpractice against a professional nurse?

answer

A failure on the part of the nurse to exercise reasonable and prudent care in treating a patient

question

What does the court consider in determining the nurse's legal liability for standards of care?

answer

Professional education, experience, and specific conduct

question

What is the single most critical factor in determining whether a particular nurse acted with reasonable care in a given situation?

answer

How the nurse's conduct compares to that of nurses with similar background and experience

question

The state board of nursing has brought action against a nurse's license based upon violation of a regulation. What is true about this scenario?

answer

These rules and regulations have the force of law.

question

A lawsuit is brought against a nurse in a rural hospital. The nurse replies that the standard of care for rural nurses is different from that for nurses working in large urban facilities. Is this a defensible position?

answer

No, nurses in rural settings must meet the same standards as those practicing in large urban areas.

question

The nurse holds national certification as a wound care specialist and works in a small, rural hospital. What standard of skill and care applies to this nurse's practice?

answer

It should be the same as that of an average nurse who also holds national wound care certification.

question

Which scenario reflects the "two schools of thought" doctrine?

answer

Nurses on one unit vary in their choice of ways to deliver quality care.

question

The hospital policy and procedure manual states that medications should be charted immediately after administration. The nurse routinely charts the medications as they are being prepared for administration. What does this practice reflect?

answer

A violation of hospital policy and procedure

question

The survivors of a patient who unexpectedly died in a hospital brought suit for wrongful death against the hospital and two nurses. Review of the hospital's pertinent policy and procedures found them to be current. Review of the medical record revealed that policy and procedures were followed by the nurses. What is the likely outcome of this suit?

answer

Find for the nurses, since they followed hospital policy and procedures.

question

How can health care best ensure that all of its practitioners meet current standards of care?

answer

Create clearly written, easily updated policy and procedure manuals.

question

A nurse is leaving the parking lot at the hospital and carelessly runs over a patient who was just discharged. Ironically, the nurse had been assigned to care for that patient that day. If the patient sues this nurse, which statement is true?

answer

The nurse can be held liable for negligence but not malpractice.

question

Punitive damages of one million dollars were awarded to the family of a patient who died following a nursing medication error. What is true of these punitive damages?

answer

These damages are awarded to set an example to other nurses.

question

Why is proving proximate harm cause important in the outcome of a professional negligence suit?

answer

It determines how far the liability extends for consequences following negligent actions.

question

The registered nurse who works in the obstetrics department is walking by the emergency department waiting room when a person cries out, "Help me, my mother is not breathing." Does this nurse have a duty to assist?

answer

Yes, the general duty of care exists to help in times of crisis or imminent harm.

question

The court is establishing liability in a case in which several actions caused the plaintiff's injury. Which test of causation would be most useful in this case?

answer

Substantial factor test

question

A plaintiff's attorney decides to use the doctrine of res ipsa loquitor in a case against the urologist who perforated a patient's urethra during a cystoscopy. What must the plaintiff prove? Select all possible correct answers.

answer

-This complication does not generally occur unless someone provided negligent care -The plaintiff had no control over the development of the perforation.

question

A defendant invokes the locality rule as justification for a lower standard of patient care. How does the locality rule support this claim?

answer

The locality rule holds the professional to a standard of care in a given geographic area, rather than the national standard of care.

question

How should the nurse proceed when caring for a suit-prone patient?

answer

Give the same compassionate, competent care that all patients receive

question

Which scenario is a quasi-intentional tort rather than an intentional tort?

answer

The physician accuses the nurse of incompetence in front of the patient's family.

question

Upon entering a patient's room to complete discharge instructions the nurse discovers the patient in tears. The business office has stated that the patient cannot leave until someone pays a portion of the hospital bill. What should the nurse do?

answer

Continue preparations for discharge, comforting the patient as much as possible.

question

Which action could result in the nurse being charged with conversion of property?

answer

Removing the patient's car keys against his or her will

question

An out-of-state caller becomes irate when the nurse cannot provide information over the telephone about a hospitalized friend. The caller says, "If you know what is good for you, you had better tell me." Has a civil assault occurred?

answer

No, the caller is out of state and cannot reach the nurse.

question

Which common practice puts the nurse at liability for invasion of patient privacy?

answer

The nurse gives information about the patient to telephone callers who inquire about the patient.

question

The health care facility has sponsored a continuing education offering on emergency management of pandemic influenza. At lunch, a nurse is overheard saying, "I'm not going to take care of anyone that might have that flu." What is true of this statement?

answer

This statement is a breach of the Code of Ethics for Nurses

question

After 3 years of uneventful employment, the nurse made a medication error that resulted in patient injury. What hospital response to this event is ethical?

answer

The hospital was supportive and assistive as the nurse coped with this event.

question

The nurse has been sued for defamation after charting that the patient is a prostitute. What is the nurse's best defense in this case?

answer

Prove that the statement is true.

question

A patient refused to ambulate postoperatively and subsequently developed bilateral pneumonia, causing his hospital stay to be lengthened. After discharge, the patient filed a lawsuit claiming his primary nurse was negligent in allowing him to develop pneumonia. What is the nurse's best defense in this case?

answer

The patient's conduct contributed to his complications.

question

A patient, injured at work, was seen by the factory occupational nurse. The nurse treated the wound and instructed the patient to get a tetanus antitoxin injection at the county health department. The patient failed to follow instructions, developed tetanus, and subsequently filed a suit against the nurse. What is the most likely result of the ensuing trial?

answer

The nurse is not liable for damages, because the nurse has a right to expect that instructions will be followed.

question

When a patient became confused and dangerous to himself and others in the setting, restraints were applied, and the patient was confined to bed. What is the nurse's best defense for applying restraints?

answer

Self-defense

question

A patient became confused and used a pocket knife to threaten others. The nurse confiscated the knife. What is the nurse's best defense for this action?

answer

Necessity

question

In caring for a 6-year-old who entered the emergency center for treatment of a broken arm, the nurse noted that the child had multiple bruises on his trunk and legs. When questioned, the child said his father hit him and broke his arm so that the child would remember to be good. What should the nurse do?

answer

Report the incident immediately to the nursing supervisor or physician so that the incident will be reported to the proper authorities.

question

Which scenario demonstrates apparent consent?

answer

Showing by his or her conduct that he or she agrees to the treatment

question

A lawsuit is being tried in a state that recognizes pure comparative negligence. If the plaintiff is found to have partial fault in the occurrence, can damages be recovered?

answer

Yes, even if the plaintiff is 99% at fault

question

The cardiac telemetry unit nurses repeatedly cautioned a patient not to leave the floor because input from telemetry monitors is limited to that area. The patient went to the cafeteria and suffered a fatal dysrhythmia. What is the nurses' best defense in the negligence lawsuit brought for the patient's survivors?

answer

Assumption of risk

question

The 8-year-old child developed a seizure disorder that may be related to a medication error that occurred 3 years ago. What is true of the statue of limitations in this case?

answer

Depending upon the state, the statute of limitations might not begin to be calculated until the child reaches the age of majority.

question

The nurse comes upon a motor vehicle accident with injury and stops to help. What should be the nurse's first action?

answer

Ask for permission to help.

question

A week after stopping to assist at an injury accident, the nurse receives a check for $100 from the patient's family as a thank-you for the care provided. What is the best description of the effect this gift has on the nurse's protection under the Good Samaritan law?

answer

This gift may change the nurse's care to fee-for-service, changing Good Samaritan protection.

question

The plaintiff was injured by a defective intravenous catheter. In order to win a product liability case, what must the plaintiff prove first?

answer

The intravenous catheter was sold to him.

question

In which case would the manufacturer of a drug designated as unavoidably unsafe be held liable for injuries to a patient receiving the drug?

answer

If the physician was not warned of risks by the manufacturer

question

The defendant has successfully defended against a product liability cause of action. Can the plaintiff still prove the defendant was negligent?

answer

Yes, the defendant could have used the product in a negligent manner.

question

What is the main purpose of documentation in the medical record?

answer

It is used to communicate patient condition to the health care team.

question

The patient has just been admitted to the intensive cardiac care unit. Who should assess and document the patient's nursing needs?

answer

A registered nurse

question

Hospital policy states that a registered nurse must cosign all charts that licensed practical nurses complete. What is the effect of this policy on the registered nurse?

answer

It places the RN in the position of endorsing and authenticating the entries made in the charts cosigned

question

A patient requests that records of her hospitalization for treatment of an infection following an abortion be destroyed. What is the likely outcome of this request?

answer

The record will be sealed.

question

The patient demands to see the actual medical record of a hospitalization that occurred one year ago. How should the hospital handle this request?

answer

Have the patient come to the hospital to review the original record.

question

Which statement best explains the importance of electronic medical record use?

answer

Patient care is improved.

question

The laboratory notifies the nursing unit that a substantial amount of test data was mistakenly recorded on the wrong patient's medical record two days ago. Who has the authority to alter the patient's record?

answer

Only administrative staff or the patient's primary physician

question

A patient incident occurred on the nursing unit. What should the nurse caring for the patient do in regard to the incident report?

answer

Include only the facts and the nurse's observations in the incident report.

question

What is the major problem associated with charting by exception?

answer

It may not provide enough information to support trending of the patient's condition.

question

The parents of a 17-year-old who is receiving substance abuse treatment have asked the provider for information about their child. What is the correct action by the health care provider?

answer

Only release information if the patient has signed consent to do so.

question

The nursing student began a case study paper by writing, " J.P., a 65-year-old Asian male, was admitted to the intensive care unit at Southwest Hospital." What is the significance of this statement?

answer

It violates Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act regulations.

question

When President Clinton signed the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act in 1996, many provisions concerning confidentiality of medical records became law. What were other provisions of this act? Choose all that apply.

answer

-An antifraud and abuse program -Streamlining of transfer of patient information between insurers and providers

question

The patient brings suit against a health care provider. How does this action affect the confidentiality of the patient's medical record?

answer

The record becomes discoverable by all parties to the suit.

question

A nurse is preparing information to be distributed at a national conference on AIDS. What should be included regarding mandatory disclosure of AIDS status?

answer

All AIDS cases must be reported to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention or to the state health department.

question

Which ethical principle supports the argument that all newborns should be screened for HIV?

answer

Beneficence

question

In a professional liability insurance policy which person or group is considered the policyholder?

answer

The nurse who purchases the policy

question

What elements does the insurance company that offers professional liability insurance verify under the exclusion portion of the policy? Choose all correct answers

answer

-Nature of the insured's work -Licensure of the insured

question

The nurse is reviewing a professional liability policy for the time period the policy is in effect. Under which section of the policy should this nurse look?

answer

Declarations

question

Under a claims-made insurance policy, for which claim is the nurse protected?

answer

Claims that are filed for incidents during the active period of the policy

question

In which situation is an occurrence-based policy most beneficial to the nurse?

answer

A nurse who had insurance coverage during 20 years of practice, but is now retired and no longer has an active policy

question

Which type of insurance is generally the most preferable for the most nurses?

answer

Occurrence-based

question

The limits of liability on an insurance policy are $1,000,000 for each claim, $4,000,000 aggregate. A nurse is charged in a serious situation in which five separate lawsuits have been filed. What is the most the insurance company will likely pay in this situation?

answer

$1,000,000

question

The nurse believes that her need for individual malpractice insurance is decreased because she practices in a small-town home health agency. What is true about this situation?

answer

Home health care is an area in which the risk of lawsuit is higher than in many other practice areas.

question

A nurse has missed 10 days of work while involved as a defendant in a malpractice lawsuit. Must the hospital where this nurse is employed and that was also named in the suit pay the nurse for those days?

answer

Not necessarily, it depends upon the hospital's insurance policy and what it covers.

question

The hospital-employed nurse volunteered to assist with physical examinations for athletes at the local high school. How does this situation affect the nurse's malpractice insurance?

answer

The nurse is very likely not covered by any malpractice insurance.

question

As a part of a malpractice case, the hospital has decided to bring an indemnity claim against a nurse. What is the implication to the nurse?

answer

The nurse will have to pay monetary damages to the hospital if the hospital wins the claim.

question

A nurse is named in a lawsuit and has no professional malpractice insurance coverage. What is true of this situation?

answer

The nurse can be held personally responsible for all damages assessed.

question

How has the present legal environment affected the frequency with which nurses are named in suits for malpractice?

answer

Frequency is greater than 15 years ago.

question

Which option reflects one of the more convincing arguments for the nurse having individual malpractice insurance?

answer

Defending against a lawsuit is costly in today's society.

question

Nurses who work on a medical unit do not have personal professional liability coverage. In the event of a lawsuit, which options are true? Choose all that are correct.

answer

-They can be covered under the employer's insurance policy. -They need to contact their own attorneys. -They may be refused coverage under the employer's insurance policy.

question

From where does the state's power to license nurses derive?

answer

Police power within the state

question

Which type of licensure protects the title "nurse" as well as professional actions associated with nursing?

answer

Mandatory

question

What is the basic purpose of the state board of nursing?

answer

To establish a means of protecting the public at large

question

A physician reported a case of possible nursing negligence to the state board of nursing. What action will be taken by the board?

answer

The complaint will be screened and an investigation initiated if appropriate.

question

The hospital nurse supervisor has concerns that a staff nurse is no longer capable of competent patient care because of alcohol use. Repeated counseling sessions with the nurse have not changed the behaviors that are of concern. What action should be taken by the supervisor?

answer

Report the concerns to the state board of nursing.

question

The nurse is searching for the legal guide to the practice of registered nurse. Which document should the nurse review?

answer

State Nurse Practice Act

question

A nursing student reports that her grandmother served as a nurse in World War II. At the end of the war, her grandmother was licensed as a nurse, even though she never graduated from nursing school. Which type of exemption from licensure does this reflect?

answer

Grandfather clause

question

Which situation is probable grounds for disciplinary action against a nurse's license?

answer

The nurse made a false statement on the licensure application.

question

A growing body of research supports linkages between the educational status of nurses and which outcomes? Select all that are discussed in the textbook.

answer

-Lower patient mortality rates -Fewer adverse outcomes

question

The patient tells the nurse that the physician mentioned deep tissue massage as treatment for rheumatoid arthritis. As a part of the subsequent conversation, the nurse demonstrates techniques and encourages the patient to begin a regimen immediately. What is true regarding this situation?

answer

This nurse may be guilty of practicing massage without a license.

question

The home health nurse discovers that a homebound cancer patient is using marijuana to control nausea from chemotherapy. What advice should the nurse give this patient?

answer

Under certain circumstances, patients can claim exemption from the law against possession of marijuana.

question

What is the most important driving force behind the movement for multistate licensure?

answer

Advancing technologies, especially telehealth and telephone triage

question

The nurse holds original licensure in a compact state and has practice privileges in two remote states. Should practice concerns arise with this nurse, what is the status of the nurse's license?

answer

Only the state in which the nurse holds licensure can act to suspend or revoke that license.

question

The patient decides to discontinue standard medical treatment for diabetes mellitus and to rely on diet and herbal medications for blood sugar control. Which statement, made by the nurse, is most appropriate?

answer

Why did you decide to make this change?

question

The nurse has a strong religious conviction against elective sterilization procedures. When seeking employment, how should the nurse handle this belief?

answer

Be up front and discuss the issue during the employment interview.

question

Which factor was primary in driving the establishment of the advanced nurse practitioner role?

answer

The physician shortage of the late 1960s

question

Which advanced nurse practitioner role is authorized by nurse practice acts, medical practice acts, and allied health laws?

answer

Nurse midwife

question

What are care components common in the independent practice of a certified nurse midwife? Choose all that apply.

answer

-Normal newborns -PAP smears -Physical examinations -Family planning counseling

question

Hospital management has identified quality of care issues that center around coordination of multidisciplinary services. Which classification of advanced practice nurse would be the best choice to help address these issues?

answer

Clinical nurse leader

question

Clinical nurse specialists in hospital settings are more likely to be sued for malpractice than staff nurses for which reason?

answer

They assume greater legal liability by virtue of their specialty credentials.

question

The advanced nurse practitioner wishes to obtain admitting privileges at an area hospital. To whom should this nurse apply for these privileges?

answer

The individual hospital

question

A nursing student's grandmother relates a time in the 1920s when medications were selected based upon the recommendation of a nurse who lived in the neighborhood. How is this possible?

answer

Prior to 1938, most medications were over-the-counter and nurses were instrumental in their choice.

question

The patient requires a controlled substance for the treatment of pain. What is true of the advanced nurse practitioner's role in independently prescribing this medication?

answer

Some states allow advanced nurse practitioners to prescribe controlled substances.

question

The advanced practice nurse would like to move to a large metropolitan area. How will this move impact the advanced practice nurse's practice?

answer

The expanding role of the advanced nurse practitioner has increased the number of lawsuits filed.

question

The advanced nurse practitioner is routinely addressed as "doctor" by clinic patients. What is the best way for the nurse to handle this mistake?

answer

Be certain patients are aware that the nurse is not a physician.

question

Fein v. Permanente Medical Group is important as the case defined the standard of care for the advanced practice nurse. How was that standard of care defined?

answer

The advanced nurse practitioner standard of care

question

The medical staff of a hospital express concern that advanced nurse practitioners are in direct competition with them for patients. The physicians advise hospital management that they will stop admitting patients if admitting privileges are granted to the ANPs. Which type of laws might be useful to help the ANPs obtain hospital admittance privileges?

answer

Antitrust laws

question

Which option reflects a change that may occur in the roles of advanced practice nurses?

answer

Development of a new category to include clinical nurse specialists and advanced nurse practitioners

question

The advanced nurse practitioner believes that he should spend as much time with each patient as the patient desires. Does this practice raise ethical challenges?

answer

Yes, if this practice makes other patients wait past their own appointment times.

question

How does the doctrine of respondeat superior alter the liability of the nurse for negligent conduct?

answer

It makes the nurse liable to the employer.

question

In an effort to attract clinic physicians, the hospital has agreed to provide a nurse to work in the physician's office. The nurse will work under the direction and supervision of the physician whose clinic is housed with the hospital building. Which doctrine most closely describes the conditions in which this nurse is working?

answer

Borrowed servant

question

The hospital has outsourced housekeeping services to an independent contractor. A patient, who was injured in a fall on wet flooring, brings suit against the company. Does the hospital also hold liability?

answer

Perhaps, secondary to the doctrine of ostensible authority.

question

The hospital acts to revoke the clinical privileges of a physician who has repeatedly refused to respond to emergency calls from nursing staff. Under which doctrine is this action advisable?

answer

Corporate liability

question

The hospital has been sued for the actions of a nurse employee. The hospital proves that the nurse was not providing care within the scope of employment as a nurse. Can the hospital still hold liability in this case?

answer

Yes, if the plaintiff can prove the nurse was incompetent and that the hospital was aware of the incompetence.

question

Which legal doctrine cannot apply to a nurse's practice as a private duty nurse?

answer

Respondeat superior

question

Which nurse would be most likely to be protected under the Age Discrimination Employment Act of 1967?

answer

A 45-year-old nurse who was fired after complaining about a new policy

question

The plaintiff was awarded monetary damages from the hospital in a suit resulting from a nurse's negligence. Under which principle is it possible for the hospital to sue the nurse to recover the amount of the damages?

answer

Indemnification

question

The female nurse works in a nursing home where many of the patients are military service veterans. She discovers that a male nurse with whom she works makes $2.80 per hour more than she makes. In which situation could this be legal under affirmative action?

answer

The male nurse's yearly evaluations are better than the female nurse's.

question

A nurse was granted twelve weeks' leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act for care of an adult son. At the conclusion of the twelve weeks the nurse does not want to return to work. Under which situation might the leave be extended?

answer

If the son is a member of the National Guard

question

The nurse cited "intolerable working conditions" as the reason for resignation. In order to claim constructive discharge, what must the nurse prove?

answer

The employer deliberately created the work condition to force the nurse to resign.

question

A patient who is well known to be violent arrives by ambulance at the Emergency Department for care of a laceration. What action should be taken?

answer

Use a buddy system when providing care.

question

A nurse calls the newspaper and reports that circumstances surrounding several deaths in the local hospital are suspicious and that a cover-up is in action. The subsequent article identifies the nurse by name and the nurse is fired. Is the nurse protected under the whistleblower law?

answer

No, the allegations should have been made to the appropriate authorities.

question

The nurse says, "I'm not spending my money and my time off to go to continuing education." How should this statement be interpreted in relation to the duty owed the employer?

answer

As unreasonable. Staying current is a duty the nurse owes to the employer.

question

The nurse and immediate supervisor have a personal conflict. The supervisor warns the nurse that the hospital is an employment-at-will institution. What does that indicate?

answer

The nurse can be dismissed at any time, without cause.

question

What was the major impetus for more stringent delegation and supervision rules and regulations as they are applied today?

answer

A major nursing shortage

question

The charge nurse has delegated a task to another staff member. Who assumes accountability for the task?

answer

The charge nurse

question

Which option reflects assignment in nursing?

answer

The charge nurse divides the patient load into one team for each staff nurse who works the shift.

question

The nurse is searching for information about nurses' responsibility and accountability for appropriate delegation of tasks. Where should this nurse look for this information? Choose all that apply.

answer

-ANA Code for Nurses -ANA Nursing Scope and Standards of Practice -State nurse practice acts -Nursing rules and regulations as promulgated by the state

question

The registered nurse has delegated the task of ambulating a patient who has a history of unexpected falls to two nursing assistants. The patient appears to ambulate without assistance, but must be ambulated with two assistants in case of another unexpected fall. What is the most important aspect of delegating this task?

answer

The aides understand the importance of walking with the patient.

question

Which scenario best reflects direct supervision of a nursing assistant?

answer

The nurse and the nursing assistant work together to provide care to a team of six patients.

question

Which scenario best reflects indirect supervision of a nursing assistant?

answer

The nurse is easily contactable by pager but is not present in the care environment.

question

The preceptor nurse delegates a complex nursing procedure to a newly licensed nurse. The new nurse makes an error, which results in the patient's death. Does the preceptor hold any liability in this case?

answer

No, since the new nurse has a license, all liability is retained by the new nurse.

question

The charge nurse is aware that some staff nurses routinely "short-cut" assessment activities for long-term patients. In case of a negative patient outcome related to this practice, does the charge nurse hold any liability?

answer

Yes, the charge nurse has a duty to ensure staff competency.

question

A patient who requires vasoactive intravenous medications was just admitted. Which person should the charge nurse ask to measure this patient's vital signs?

answer

The registered nurse who has worked on this unit for 8 months

question

The unit is extremely busy when the physician orders that a urinary catheter be inserted in a patient. The patient's assigned nurse is new, has seen the procedure done, but has never done it independently. How should the charge nurse handle this situation?

answer

The charge nurse should assist the new nurse with the procedure.

question

A nurse has delegated the task of ambulating a patient to two nursing assistants. Despite the patient's appearance, assistance of two people is needed for safe ambulation. The nurse discovers the patient being ambulated by only one aide. What should be the nurse's first action?

answer

Assist the aide in completion of the ambulation.

question

The nurse has recently assumed the position of chief nurse in a long-term care facility with a record of poor patient care. How should this nurse approach the issue of effective discipline regarding patient care activities?

answer

Establish a formal discipline plan to be used when standards of care are not followed.

question

Unlicensed personnel are not licensed by the state in their own right. Why is it that these persons can perform delegated tasks?

answer

They work under the auspices and licensure of the institution, not the professional nurse.

question

The hospital has recently eliminated all nursing assistant positions and has replaced them with unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide patient care. How should the professional nursing staff work with these new employees?

answer

Continue to delegate and supervise them as they did with the nursing assistants.

question

Discrimination against which group of persons necessitated the Americans with Disabilities Act?

answer

Those living with HIV/AIDS

question

In passing the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, Congress attempted to combine disability with which other legal concept?

answer

Equality

question

Which impairments are covered by the Americans with Disabilities Act?

answer

Either physical or mental impairments

question

The employee has requested the employer provide a reasonable accommodation. What does this request entail?

answer

Needed and realistic modifications in the workplace

question

Which scenario meets the Civil Rights Act of 1991 definition of quid pro quo sexual harassment?

answer

Submission to, or rejection of, sexual conduct as a basis for employment decisions

question

Which person qualifies under the Americans with Disabilities Act?

answer

A person who is a recovering alcoholic

question

Which scenario meets the Civil Rights Act of 1991 definition of hostile environment sexual harassment?

answer

Submission to sexual innuendos, remarks, and physical acts that alter the conditions of the employee's employment, creating an abusive workplace

question

The nurse is concerned about the potential of sexual harassment in her workplace. Which standard should this nurse investigate before making a decision about whether an activity is sexual harassment or not?

answer

Reasonable woman standard for hostile work environment sexual harassment

question

Which situation meets the criteria of sexual favoritism or preferential treatment?

answer

A nurse is awarded a position after having an affair with a supervisor.

question

A nurse who has an obvious physical disability applies for a staff nurse position. Which question, asked by the nurse recruiter, is legal?

answer

"Are you able to fulfill the requirements of this job?"

question

The nurse manager requests that a job applicant who has a physical disability receive a medical examination prior to assignment to a work station. Is this examination legal?

answer

Only if all other applicants for similar positions are subjected to the same examination

question

The nurse applies to a faith-based hospital. Another applicant who is of the same faith supported by the hospital is hired instead. Is this seen as discrimination under ADA?

answer

No, employers may offer preference to individuals of the same religion

question

Which person best meets the criteria as a "member of a protected class" in a quid pro quo sexual harassment lawsuit?

answer

A staff nurse as compared to his or her supervisor

question

An employee has requested special accommodations secondary to a disability. The hospital refuses, citing undue hardship. What must be present for that refusal to be upheld?

answer

The accommodation would be very difficult to implement

question

The nurse who has worked at a hospital for five years suffers a disability secondary to a work-related accident and requests accommodation. Does the nurse's new position have to provide the same salary as the old position?

answer

No, but the nurse's seniority should be considered in salary negotiations.

question

What is the nurse's legal duty with regard to implementing a physician's order?

answer

The nurse should follow the order unless the nurse has reason to believe that the patient could come to harm if the order is followed.

question

The differences between medicine and nursing are becoming increasingly difficult to identify. Which options are reasons for the movement of these two professions toward each other? Choose all that are correct.

answer

-Advent of specialty care units -Advancement of nursing skills -Changes in cultural climate -Increased focus on psychosocial components of care

question

What is the principal reason that a higher standard of care may be required for safeguarding mentally ill persons?

answer

Mentally ill persons cannot fully appreciate their exposure to potential harm.

question

Hostile or angry patients present unique nursing challenges from a legal perspective. Which option reflects a basic intervention that a nurse can take with a hostile or angry patient?

answer

Spend additional time with the patient, showing that he or she is important.

question

Which option reflects a general criterion for restraining a patient?

answer

The patient's immediate ability to harm self or others

question

A confused patient frequently calls out for "help" throughout the shift. When nursing staff respond to the call, the patient is unable to explain what is needed. What action should be taken by the nurse?

answer

Continue to respond and attempt to reorient the patient.

question

The patient requests that one bed siderail be fully up for use in assisting with turning. Is this considered a restraint?

answer

No, the bedrail in this case is being used as an assistive device, not a restraint.

question

The physician makes a calculation error that leads to the patient receiving a serious medication error. This error was overlooked by the pharmacist and the nurse who administered the dose as ordered. What is true of the liability in this case?

answer

It is shared by all three of these professionals.

question

Which options reflect what the nurse should consider prior to administering medication? Choose all that are correct.

answer

-Correct, common dosage for this patient -Action of the medication -Signs of untoward reaction to the medication

question

Which option reflects the nurse's duty regarding use of equipment?

answer

The nurse is required to select the proper equipment and to use it correctly.

question

The nurse suspects that a patient's death was related to faulty monitoring equipment. What is the nurse's duty to report?

answer

The nurse must notify hospital risk management.

question

Which option reflects the nurse's duty to prevent patient falls?

answer

The nurse has a duty to assess the patient for risk for falls.

question

Which option reflects the nurse's primary obligation to the patient?

answer

To exercise nursing judgment and intervene on behalf of the patient

question

Which person would be the best choice as an interpreter for a non-English-speaking patient?

answer

A hospital-provided interpreter

question

The physician, in telling the nurse to follow an order, states, "If anything happens, I'll take full responsibility." What effect would the physician's statement have in a subsequent lawsuit for malpractice?

answer

It does not alter the nurse's personal accountability at all.

STUDY

Business Management Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Diversity In The Workplace Ethics Principles Of Management Quid Pro Quo Sexual Harassment

Ch 3 MGMT – Flashcard 43 terms

Robert Carter

43 terms

Preview

Ch 3 MGMT – Flashcard

question

An ethical dilemma is a situation in which a person has to decide if he/she should act in a way that:

answer

is "right", eventhough doing so may go against their own self-interest.

question

_____ are thoughts and feelings that tell people what is right or wrong.

answer

Moral scruples

question

Which of the following statement is true

answer

Neither ethics nor laws are fixed principles

question

It was ethical and legal to acquire and possess slaves in ancient Rome and Greece. Today however, slavery is considered both unethical and illegal. This implies that:

answer

neither laws nor ethics are fixed principles

question

Which of the following is usually NOT considered to be a stakeholder of an organization?

answer

Government

question

Stockholders are interested in the way a company operates because they:

answer

want to maximize the return on their investment

question

The stakeholder group with the most responsibility for deciding the goals of the organization are:

answer

managers

question

Issues concerning this group of stackholder, one of which is product quality specifications, are governed by the terms of the legal contracts

answer

Supplies and distributors

question

_____ are often regarded as the most critical stakeholder group

answer

Customers

question

Which of the following is NOT an ethical rule to analyze the effect of business decisions on stakeholders?

answer

Existentialism

question

The utilitarian rule states that an ethical decision

answer

produces the greatest good for the greatest number of people.

question

According to which of the following rule, an ethical decision is the one that best maintains people's fundamental privileges?

answer

Moral Rights

question

The Moral Rights model of ethics:

answer

seeks to protect the privileges of people affected

question

According to which of the following rules, an ethical decision is one that distributes rewards and harm in a fair way?

answer

Justice

question

Under the practical rule, an ethical decision is one that a manager has no hesitation or reluctance about communicating to people outside the company because:

answer

. a typical person in the society would consider the decision acceptable

question

The practical rule states that an ethical decision:

answer

is one that can be communicated with no reluctance.

question

Under the practical rule, answering "yes" to all of the following questions would make the decision ethical EXCEPT:

answer

Will anyone find out I made the decision?

question

One managerial implication of the justice model is that managers should base their decisions on:

answer

whatever promotes a fair distribution of outcomes to stakeholders.

question

A person's confidence and faith in another person's goodwill is called:

answer

. trust

question

Which of the following can be defined as the esteem or high repute that individuals or organizations gain when they behave ethically?

answer

Reputation

question

Which of the following emanates from unwritten attitudes, values, and norms that influence how people interact with each other

answer

Societal ethics

question

Which of the following results due to differences in personalities, values, and attitudes?

answer

Individual ethics

question

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a source of individual ethics?

answer

Bosses

question

Which of the following refers to the invisible barriers that prevent minorities and women from being promoted to top corporate positions?

answer

. Glass ceiling

question

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act became a law in the:

answer

1964

question

Which of the following includes paternity leaves

answer

Family and Medical Leave Act

question

Which federal law prohibits discrimination based on sexual orientation?

answer

No federal law prohibits discrimination based on sexual orientation.

question

Samantha, who runs her own small business, treats all her employees, customers, and suppliers fairly, regardless of their age, gender, or ethnicity. Which of the following roles

answer

Leader

question

A manager who is effectively managing diversity in the disseminator role would

answer

communicate to employees about diversity policies.

question

A manager who is effectively managing diversity in the liaison role would

answer

help diverse individuals to coordinate their efforts

question

Justin, a Human Resources Manager for XYZ Company, commits 20% of this year's budget to develop a new program for bringing minority interns into the company. Which of the following roles is Justin performing?

answer

Entrepreneur

question

A top manager giving a speech to employees about the importance of diversity is acting as a:

answer

figurehead.

question

Taking quick action to correct inequalities and curtailing discriminatory behavior would come under which of the following roles?

answer

Disturbance handler

question

Terry is an HR manager in an FMCG company. He works with his suppliers as well has the labor unions to support and encourage the effective management of diversity. What role is Terry performing?

answer

Negotiator

question

When a manager asks a subordinate for sexual favors in return for a promotion, what type of sexual harassment has occurred

answer

Quid pro quo

question

Gia works in a software firm as a programming officer. During her appraisal, Ben, the floor manager, asks sexual favors from Gia in return for her promotion and pay raise. Which form of sexual harassment has occurred?

answer

. Quid pro quo

question

If a female manager tells a male subordinate that he is in line for a pay raise but that he will get that pay raise only if he becomes sexually involved with her, this manager is exhibiting:

answer

quid pro quo sexual harassment

question

When managers are faced with a work environment that they find personally offensive because of their gender, which of the following has occurred?

answer

A hostile work environment

question

A female subordinate is offended by posters in her supervisor's office that are degrading to women. She avoids going into the office, even when she has a work-related question. Her supervisor has exhibited:

answer

a hostile work environment

question

A male manager stands smiling as a worker from another unit makes a remark to his female subordinate about her appearance which she considers to be sexually demeaning. This male manager has exhibited:

answer

a hostile work environment

question

If two male managers exchange a lewd sexual joke in the presence of a female manager, these male managers have exhibited:

answer

. a hostile work environment

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended steps to eliminate sexual harassment?

answer

. Fire all sexual harassers regardless of the nature or size of the offense

question

Which of the following is NOT a part of developing and clearly communicating a sexual harassment policy endorsed by top management

answer

Ensure that alleged harassers are fairly treated

STUDY

Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Clear And Present Danger Clear And Present Danger Test Initiative And Referendum Live Below The Poverty Line Political Science Politics of the United States State And Local Governments

Chapter 4 Government and Politics – Flashcards 28 terms

Jay Barber

28 terms

Preview

Chapter 4 Government and Politics – Flashcards

question

1. (p. 108) The individual freedoms in the Bill of Rights were extended by the Fourteenth Amendment to include protection from deprivation of due process rights by A. actions of the president. B. the actions of individuals. C. actions of the federal government. D. actions of state and local governments. E. actions of the U.S. military.

answer

D. actions of state and local governments.

question

2. (p. 105) The term civil liberties refers to specific individual rights that A. apply in civil cases but not in criminal cases. B. apply in civil cases but not in military ones. C. are constitutionally protected from infringement by government. D. are constitutionally protected from infringement by individuals. E. are not covered by the First Amendment.

answer

C. are constitutionally protected from infringement by government.

question

3. (p. 106) The individual right that is widely regarded as the most basic of individual rights is A. the right to an attorney. B. freedom of expression. C. the right to a jury trial. D. the right to an adequate education. E. protection against illegal searches and seizures.

answer

B. freedom of expression.

question

4. (p. 113) Justice Holmes's "clear and present danger" test holds that government can A. restrict speech that threatens national security. B. restrict any speech of an inflammatory nature. C. imprison political dissidents during time of war without following normal procedures. D. engage in prior restraint of the press whenever national security is at issue. E. restrict speech that is disrespectful to specific classes of citizens.

answer

A. restrict speech that threatens national security.

question

5. (p. 106) Like all other rights, the right of free expression is A. spelled out in precise terms in the Bill of Rights. B. not absolute. C. fully respected by public officials. D. protected from action by federal officials but not state officials. E. None of these answers is correct.

answer

B. not absolute.

question

10. (p. 109) The inclusion of certain provisions of the Bill of Rights in the Fourteenth Amendment, so that these rights are protected from infringements by the state governments, is called A. the preferred position doctrine. B. procedural change. C. selective incorporation. D. the absorption doctrine. E. prior restraint.

answer

C. selective incorporation.

question

12. (p. 118) Which of the following is correct with regard to obscenity and the law? A. Obscenity is not protected by the First Amendment. B. Obscenity is never unlawful. C. Child pornography is protected by the First Amendment. D. Obscenity has been easy for courts to define with precision. E. Obscenity is protected under the Ninth Amendment.

answer

A. Obscenity is not protected by the First Amendment.

question

13. (p. 120) The establishment clause prohibits government from A. establishing exceptions to the Bill of Rights. B. establishing exceptions to the Fourteenth Amendment. C. favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion. D. interfering with freedom of assembly. E. interfering with the right to bear arms.

answer

C. favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion.

question

15. (p. 120) According to the Supreme Court, prayer in public schools violates A. the free exercise clause. B. the establishment clause. C. the exclusionary rule. D. procedural due process. E. the clear and present danger test.

answer

B. the establishment clause.

question

17. (p. 133) The exclusionary rule states that A. federal law cannot be applied in state courts. B. the laws of one state court cannot be applied in the courts of another state. C. after seven years, the statute of limitations applies, except in murder cases. D. evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court. E. state law cannot be applied in federal courts.

answer

D. evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court.

question

21. (p. 124) The Supreme Court has reasoned that a right of privacy is provided by A. the Civil Rights Act of 1964. B. the Ninth Amendment, which says that people's rights are not limited to those enumerated in the Constitution. C. the Tenth Amendment, which reserves to the people and the states those powers not granted to the federal government. D. the implication of said right by the freedoms in the Bill of Rights. E. the Civil Rights Act of 1991.

answer

D. the implication of said right by the freedoms in the Bill of Rights.

question

22. (p. 124) The right to privacy was instrumental in which decision? A. Roe v. Wade B. Mapp v. Ohio C. Schenck v. United States D. Miranda v. Arizona E. New York Times Co. v. United States

answer

A. Roe v. Wade

question

23. (p. 125) In Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992), the justices A. ruled that states are free to adopt abortion laws of their choosing. B. reaffirmed the essential aspects of Roe v. Wade. C. invoked the Ninth Amendment for the first time in an abortion decision. D. invalidated the right to an abortion in the early months of pregnancy. E. None of these answers is correct.

answer

B. reaffirmed the essential aspects of Roe v. Wade.

question

27. (p. 104) The Fourth Amendment protects Americans from A. any search conducted without a warrant. B. unreasonable searches. C. unreasonable searches conducted only by federal officers. D. all searches conducted by state officers. E. searches conducted only by local officers.

answer

B. unreasonable searches.

question

29. (p. 142) Which of the following, relative to the others, is typically more protective of individual rights? A. the U.S. Congress B. the general public C. public opinion D. the presidency E. the judiciary

answer

E. the judiciary

question

33. (p. 116) In the Johnson flag-burning case, the Supreme Court ruled that A. flag burning is an imminent danger to public safety. B. flag burning is not symbolic speech. C. flag burning, although offensive, cannot be prohibited. D. flag burning can be prohibited by the national government but not by the states. E. flag burning could be banned by Congress.

answer

C. flag burning, although offensive, cannot be prohibited.

question

36. (p. 131) "You have the right to remain silent....Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law....You have the right to an attorney". This is called the A. preferred position doctrine. B. clear and present danger test. C. Miranda warning. D. fairness doctrine. E. None of these answers is correct.

answer

C. Miranda warning.

question

41. (p. 106) Which constitutional amendment protects the individual against self-incrimination? A. First B. Second C. Fourth D. Fifth E. Ninth

answer

D. Fifth

question

43. (p. 133) Since the 1980s, the Supreme Court has addressed the exclusionary rule by A. expanding its application to virtually all criminal cases both at the state and federal levels. B. determining that the rule was unconstitutional, in that it weakened the effectiveness of the police in maintaining an orderly society. C. expanding its application to federal cases only. D. expanding its application to state cases only. E. None of these answers is correct.

answer

E. None of these answers is correct.

question

44. (p. 106) The right to counsel is guaranteed by the ________ Amendment. A. First B. Fifth C. Sixth D. Ninth E. Tenth

answer

C. Sixth

question

46. (p. 108) Which of the following amendments contains a due process clause? A. First B. Tenth C. Third D. Fourteenth E. Twenty-first

answer

D. Fourteenth

question

47. (p. 115) The Supreme Court A. has ruled that even forms of symbolic speech considered to be dangerous to the public are protected. B. ruled during the Vietnam war that the burning of draft registration cards was a protected form of symbolic speech. C. has reduced its protections of symbolic speech dramatically, and recently has ruled against flag burning as a form of protected symbolic speech. D. has protected symbolic speech much more substantially than it has protected verbal speech. E. has generally protected symbolic speech, though less substantially than it has protected verbal speech.

answer

E. has generally protected symbolic speech, though less substantially than it has protected verbal speech.

question

48. (p. 110-111) How did the Supreme Court's position on the rights of the accused in state courts change in the 1960s? A. The Supreme Court began to allow states greater freedom to interpret the rights of the accused. B. The Supreme Court began to dramatically reduce federal power to force the states to make special accommodations for the rights of accused minorities. C. The Supreme Court began to protect the rights of the accused from action by the states. D. The Supreme Court position did not change noticeably. E. The Supreme Court ceased to enforce the practice of selective incorporation.

answer

C. The Supreme Court began to protect the rights of the accused from action by the states.

question

50. (p. 128) In the Constitution, procedural due process is protected by the A. Fourth Amendment. B. Fifth Amendment. C. Sixth Amendment. D. Eighth Amendment. E. All these answers are correct.

answer

E. All these answers are correct.

question

51. (p. 113) If a person yells "fire" in a crowded theater when there is no fire, and people are hurt in the ensuing panic, that individual abused his/her freedom of speech according to the doctrine of A. malice. B. clear and present danger. C. unlawful assembly. D. privacy. E. prior restraint.

answer

B. clear and present danger.

question

52. (p. 131) When can police legally begin their interrogation of a suspect? A. immediately upon arrest B. after the suspect has been warned that his or her words can be used as evidence C. only after the suspect has met with an attorney D. after the suspect has been arrested and is in the custody of the police E. after the suspect has been formally charged with a specific crime

answer

B. after the suspect has been warned that his or her words can be used as evidence

question

54. (p. 136) Roughly a third of all U.S. executions in the past quarter-century have taken place in A. Vermont. B. South Carolina. C. Texas. D. Alabama. E. California.

answer

C. Texas.

question

56. (p. 141) The USA Patriot Act A. grants the government new powers of surveillance. B. relaxed restrictions on the sharing of intelligence surveillance information with criminal investigators. C. gives intelligence agencies the authority to share crime-related information with law enforcement agencies. D. was enacted in response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001. E. All these answers are correct.

answer

E. All these answers are correct.

STUDY

Business Management Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Host Country Nationals Management Mergers And Acquisitions Sexual Harassment In The Workplace Strategic Planning Process

HR Test #1 – Flashcards 60 terms

Daniel Thompson

60 terms

Preview

HR Test #1 – Flashcards

question

Ken, a Brand manager at Media Labs LLC., is formulating a strategic plan for his organization. He has identified the organizational mission and formulated a SWOT analysis of the business. Which of the following is most likely to be Ken's next step in the strategic planning process?

answer

Establish goals and objectives

question

The affirmative action program is reviewed by

answer

The Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs

question

Which of the following advertisements for recruitment is most likely to be considered illegal

answer

Young store executives

question

Which of the following is a factor of the internal environment in an organization

answer

Quality of talent

question

Which of the following is true of the administrative role of human resource departments

answer

It focuses on record keeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation

question

Mark and HR Manager, is responsible for the HR planning process in his organization. He has reviewed the organization's strategic plans. Which of the following is most likely to be Mark's next step in the planning process?

answer

Assess external and internal workfroce

question

Which of the following is a criticism of the use of criminal background checks and credit reports in the selection process?

answer

It often results in a disparate impact of minority applicants

question

Which of the following is a part of the strategy and planning function of human resource management

answer

Human resource retention

question

Which of the following statements is true of the functions of human resource management

answer

It refers to a design of formal systems in an organization to manage human talents for accomplishing organization goals

question

Average tenure of employees is classified as a _____ metric of Human Resource

answer

Retention and quality

question

During mergers and acquisitions, the workforce must be optimized _____

answer

Post integration

question

Bob, a human resources executive at Axis Inc., is moving from an operational role in the human resources department to a strategic role. Which of the following best describes Bob's change of role?

answer

Moving from serving as a "champion" of employee concerns to helping define the strategy to manage human capital

question

Which of the following is typically the first step in the HR planning process?

answer

Review organization's environmental analysis/strategic plans

question

Which of the following is recommendation of the Organization for Economic Cooperation?

answer

It has recommended that global multinational firm establish and implement stricter ethical standards to aid business development

question

Which of the following is true of executive orders 11246, 11375, and 11478?

answer

They require federal contractors to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minoritites, and handicapped invididuals

question

Which of the following is not cover under the Americans with Disabilities Act?

answer

State government employees

question

Under which of the following circumstances is a difference in pay between men and women permitted by the Equal Pay Act of 1963?

answer

Difference in performance

question

Which of the following is true about a Human resource Information System?

answer

It is a software that did payroll, keep track of employees, and ran reports fro human resource managers with support from IT

question

The ______ passed in 1973 required that federal contractors take affirmative actions to employ disabled workers

answer

Rehabilitation Act

question

Which of the following scenarios is considered illegal according to the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

answer

Segregating employees on the basis of their gender

question

Equal employment opportunity is a broad-reaching concept that essentially requires employers to make:

answer

Status-blind employment decisions

question

During mergers and acquisitions, risk must be assessed ______

answer

Before making the deal

question

Which of the following is an advantage of using a contingent workforce?

answer

Lower cost

question

Which of the following is a major reason for development of the pay equity idea?

answer

The continuing gap between the earning of women and men

question

Which of the following is best classified as a regiocentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?

answer

Key Position are filled by individuals from the same geographic area as the subsidiary

question

An _____ is a citizen of one country who is working in that country and employed by an organization headquartered in a second country

answer

Host-country national

question

Which of the following is specialized human resource organization?

answer

WorldatWork Association

question

An _____ refers to the judgmental method of HR forecasting that requires experts to meet face to face

answer

Nominal group

question

Which of the following is best classified as a geocentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?

answer

An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality

question

The _________ requires employers to verify the employment status of all employees, while not discrimination because of national origin or ethic background

answer

Immigration Reform and Control Act

question

Which of the following statements is true of quid pro quo harassment?

answer

A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment if he or she promotes an employee in return of sexual favors

question

Which of the following is the function of I-9 audit?

answer

Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations

question

Which of the following is the difference between a Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS) and Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)?

answer

Saas allows self-service, while an HRIS requires support from IT

question

Joe, a U.S. citizen, works in Mexico for an organization headquartered in the United Kingdom. Which of the following best describes Joe?

answer

He is a third-country national

question

Josh, a human resource manager, used to handle employee recruitment and compensation for his organization. After a promotion, he was responsible for handling employee recruitment, compensation, and benefits. Which of the following is true of Josh?

answer

Both the roles played by Josh are generalist roles

question

Which of the following best defines HR analytics?

answer

An evidence-based approach to making Hr decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models

question

In the balanced scorecard framework, which of the following factors would considered most important to ensure that the organization is meeting customer expectations?

answer

Customer satisfaction

question

Which of the following is an HR activity to be performed post integration in mergers and acquisitions?

answer

Identifying and establishing new culture

question

The Americans with Disabilities Act is enforced by the _____

answer

Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

question

Which of the following is a part of the process of aligning human resource activities?

answer

Training, developing, and evaluating employees

question

Which of the following is a part of the staffing function of human resource management?

answer

Recruiting

question

Which of the following is true of retaliation in workplaces?

answer

Employees are prohibited from retaliating against individuals who file discrimination charges

question

Which of the following is true of PeopleSoft?

answer

It is a software that allowed human resources to run its own support and make changes without help from IT

question

Preventing workers from injuring themselves at the workplace is a ______

answer

Business necessity

question

According to the _____ employees are required to notify their employers of military service obligations

answer

Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act

question

The _____ prohibits discrimination in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment against all individuals of age 40 or older working for employers having 20 or more workers

answer

Age Discrimination in Employment Act

question

Which of the following is true of the common challenges for global human resource?

answer

Emerging market opportunities expose companies to unfamiliar risks that may be difficult to analyze

question

Sara, a human resource manager at Comp Inc., is moving from an administrative role in the human resource department to an operational role. Which of the following is best describes Sara's change of role?

answer

Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a "champion" of employee concerns

question

In the context of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the biggest concerns are linked to

answer

Executive compensation

question

Which of the following is true of the consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act?

answer

Displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 18 months for themselves, and up to 36 months for their dependents, if they pay the premiums themselves

question

Which of the following is true of phased retirement?

answer

Employees' workloads and pay levels are reduced

question

_____ refers to the judgmental method of HR forecasting that relies on general guidelines applied to a specific situation within the organization

answer

Rule of thumb

question

Which of the following is true of the Older Workers Benefit Protection Act?

answer

The act requires employers to disclose the ages of both terminated and retained employees in layoff situations

question

In the balanced scorecard framework, operational effectiveness is classified under ______

answer

Internal business process

question

In the balanced score card framework, utilization of capital is classified under _____

answer

Financial measures

question

Affirmative action means that employer takes proactive measures to:

answer

Increase the number of women and minorities in the workfroce

question

Jane, a citizen of the country of Aria, works in the country of Polia for an organization headquartered in Aria. Which of the following best describes Jane?

answer

She is an expatriate

question

Which of the following is a difference between a Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS) and PeopleSoft?

answer

An HRIS was run on support from IT people while PeopleSoft did not require any support from IT.

question

Which of the following statements is true about the Equal Pay Act of 1963?

answer

It requires employers to give similar wages rates for similar work without regard to gender

question

Which of the following is the function of compliance audits?

answer

Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement

STUDY

Business Management Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Cross Functional Team Multi Domestic Strategy Problems And Opportunities

Mag 350 – Flashcard 50 terms

Sonia Kelly

50 terms

Preview

Mag 350 – Flashcard

question

A simplistic belief about another person that is based on that person's gender, age, or race is known as:

answer

Stereotype

question

Michael was faced with a serious ethical dilemma. He chose a solution that created the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Which ethical rule was Michael using?

answer

Utilitarian

question

The esteem or high repute that individuals or organizations gain when they behave ethically is called:

answer

Reputation

question

The practical rule states that an ethical decision is one that:

answer

Can be communicated with no reluctance

question

The president at Protector's Insurance takes pride in the fact that his organization strives to behave legally and ethically, but makes no attempts at going above and beyond what is legally required. What approach to social responsibility is the organization taking?

answer

Accommodative

question

The process by which experienced members of the organization provide guidance and advice to newer members is called:

answer

Mentoring

question

The process through which selection, organization, and interpretation of experiences occurs is called:

answer

Perception

question

The standards that govern how members of a profession should conduct themselves are called:

answer

Occupational ethics

question

The tendency of a manager to focus her attention on subordinates who are "very different" from the manager is known as:

answer

The salience effect

question

The tendency to perceive individuals differently based on their position or job is called:

answer

The social status effect

question

Tucker is in the process of hiring a new manager for his newly expanded store in a neighboring community. As he reviews the credentials of all the applicants, he pays special attention to individuals that exhibit similar characteristics to himself. Tucker is exhibiting:

answer

The similar-to-me effect

question

Under the ____________ rule, an ethical decision is the one that best maintains people's fundamental privileges.

answer

Moral rights

question

When a manager asks a subordinate for sexual favors in return for a promotion, what type of sexual harassment has occurred?

answer

Quid pro quo

question

When a manager knowingly and willingly denies a subordinate an opportunity for promotion within the organization because that subordinate is "different from" the manager, what has occurred?

answer

Overt discrimination

question

When faced with an ethical dilemma as a manager, Joe tries to reflect back on his upbringing to decide between right and wrong. Joe is reflecting on:

answer

Individual ethics

question

Whenever Lisa goes to the warehouse to pick up timesheets, she is confronted with whistles and lewd comments, both of which make her uncomfortable. What type of sexual harassment has occurred?

answer

Hostile work environment

question

Which is NOT a characteristic of a company that pursues a proactive approach to social responsibility?

answer

Do just what the law dictates

question

Which of the approaches to social responsibility is the least socially responsible?

answer

Obstructionist

question

Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder for an organization?

answer

Competition

question

Which of the following statements about schemas is true?

answer

Schemas can be functional and useful

question

A system which takes resources from its external environment and converts them into goods that are then sent back into that environment is known as:

answer

An open system

question

According to McClelland, the extent to which a person has a strong desire to control and to influence others is known as:

answer

The need for power

question

According to McClelland, the extent to which a person has a strong desire to do challenging tasks and to meet personal standards of excellence is known as:

answer

The need for achievement

question

An intense, relatively short-lived feeling is called a(n):

answer

Emotion

question

An organization's culture is most like its:

answer

Personality

question

Dwight strives to create a work setting that provides his employees a source of job satisfaction. Dwight's actions are consistent with the principles of:

answer

Theory Y

question

Managers who believe that they are largely responsible for their own fate are said to be high in:

answer

Internal locus of control.

question

One of the attributes that make Paul an excellent manager is his ability to understand the emotions of his subordinates coupled with his ability to manage his own emotions. Paul has a high level of:

answer

Emotional intelligence

question

The "ASA" framework stands for:

answer

Attraction - selection - attrition

question

The aspect of management theory that analyzes production systems to increase efficiency is:

answer

Operations management

question

The collection of feelings and beliefs that a person has about her current job is referred to as:

answer

Job satisfaction

question

The collection of forces that exist beyond the organization's physical boundaries but which affect the manager's ability to obtain and to use resources is known as:

answer

The organizational environment

question

The idea that the effectiveness of organizational structure and control systems depends on what outside forces it is facing is called:

answer

Contingency theory

question

The management theory that focuses on the use of rigorous, quantitative techniques that are intended to assist managers to make the best use of organizational resources is called:

answer

Management science theory

question

The power to hold workers accountable for their actions and to make decisions about the use of organizational resources is known as:

answer

Authority

question

The process by which newcomers to an organization learn the values and norms is:

answer

Socialization

question

The tendency of a person to be careful and persevering in work-related tasks is known as:

answer

Conscientiousness

question

What is the process by which a division of labor occurs as different workers specialize in tasks?

answer

Job specialization

question

What principle specifies that an employee should report to only one superior?

answer

Unity of command

question

When authority is concentrated at the top of the organizational chart instead of being distributed throughout the management hierarchy, we say that __________ has occurred.

answer

Centralization

question

A national culture concerned with maintaining personal stability or happiness and living for the present has a(n):

answer

Short-term orientation

question

A tax that a government imposes on goods imported into the country is known as:

answer

A tariff

question

All of the following are examples of the task environment of the organization EXCEPT:

answer

Sociocultural forces

question

Factors that make it costly for an organization to enter an industry as a new competitor are known as:

answer

Barriers to entry

question

The United States tends to have an admiration for personal success, a strong belief in individual rights, and high regard for individual entrepreneurs. The United States values:

answer

Individualism

question

The combination of equipment and skills which managers use in the production and distribution of goods is(are) known as:

answer

Technology

question

The cost advantages that are associated with large organizations are known as:

answer

Economies of scale

question

The preference of a customer for the products of a particular organization is known as:

answer

Brand loyalty

question

The result of globalization is that nations and peoples become increasingly ______ because the same forces affect them in similar ways.

answer

Interdependent

question

When workers in a society become wealthy and pass their wealth to their children, thereby increasing the gap between the rich and the poor in that society, the society is said to have:

answer

High power distance

STUDY

1964 Civil Rights Act Business Management Civil Law Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Equal Employment Opportunity Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act

HR Case Laws 29 terms

Darryl Wooten

29 terms

Preview

HR Case Laws

question

Griggs v. Duke Power

answer

Case that recognized adverse impact discrimination. In this Supreme Court case the issue was a company policy that required employees to have a high school diploma and to pass two tests in order to be promoted from the labor department to higher levels in the company.

question

McDonnell Douglas Corp. v. Green

answer

Case that established the criteria for disparate treatment discrimination. (Described on p. 6, Unit 2)

question

Albemarle Paper v. Moody

answer

In this case, the major issues were the plant's seniority system, its program of employment testing, and backpay. Now, companies need to establish evidence that tests used are related to the job. (1975)

question

Washington v. Davis

answer

In this case, the Supreme Court affirmed the legality of valid tests, even if they disqualify a larger percent of one ethnic group. A large percent of black applicants were disqualified from a police training program because of low test scores on the Civil Service exam.

question

Regents of University of California v. Bakke

answer

In this case, the Supreme Court ordered a medical school to accept a white male applicant who had higher entrance test scores than some of the minorities. Reverse discrimination not allowed; race can be used in section decisions; affirmative action programs permissible when prior discrimination established.

question

United Steelworkers v. Webber

answer

Supreme Court ruled against a white male who was trying to get into a training program. The training program had been designed to help the company achieve its affirmative action goals. The affirmative action plan did not violate Title VII since it included voluntary quotas.

question

Johnson v. Transportation Agency

answer

Supreme Court ruled that the county was justified in giving a job to a woman who scored two points less on an exam than a man; county had an affirmative action plan that was flexible, temporary, and designed to correct the imbalance of white ales in the workforce.

question

School Board of Nassau v. Arline

answer

Court ruled that persons with contagious diseases could be covered by the Rehabilitation Act. (described on p. 30, Unit 2)

question

City of Richmond v. J. A. Croson Company

answer

Supreme Court ruled that the rigid numerical quota system was unconstitutional; city had not laid proper groundwork and had not identified or documented discrimination.

question

St. Mary's Honor Center v. Hicks

answer

Supreme Court ruling that Title VII plaintiffs must show that discrimination was the real reason for an employer's action.

question

Taxman v. Board of Education of Piscataway

answer

District court held that a school board could not use racial diversity as an "educational goal" or as a justification for an affirmative action plan granting racial preferences in layoffs where there was no evidence of past bias against racial minorities.

question

Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Service, Inc.

answer

Ruled that same-gender harassment is actionable under Title VII.

question

Grutter v. Bollinger and Gratz v. Bollinger

answer

Supreme Court ruled that the diversity of a student body is a compelling state interest that can justify the use of race in university admissions as long as the admissions policy is "narrowly tailored" to achieve this goal; University of Michigan did not make this showing for its undergraduate program, but the law school admissions program satisfied this standard.

question

General Dynamic Land Systems, Inc., v. Cline

answer

Supreme Court ruled that the federal age discrimination law does not protect younger workers-even if they are over 40- from workplace decisions that favor older workers.

question

Smith v. Jackson Mississippi

answer

Supreme Court held that, like Title VII, the ADEA (Age Discrimination in Employment Act) authorizes recovery on a disparate impact theory.

question

Ricci v. DeStefano

answer

Supreme Court Held that employers may violate Title VII when they engage in race-conscious decision making to address adverse impact- unless they can demonstrate a "strong basis in evidence" that, had they not taken action, they would have been liable under a disparate impact theory.

question

Ash v. Tyson Foods Inc.

answer

In this case, the Supreme Court had made it easier to prove racial discrimination by concluding that use of the word "boy" might show racial animus in the context of the tone of voice, inflection and historical usage.

question

Burlington Northern & Santa Fe Railway Co. v. White

answer

The court decided that the removal of an employee from operating a forklift and her suspension constituted unlawful retaliation after she made a claim of gender discrimination.

question

Fullilove v. Klutznick

answer

Court upholds Congress' decision to set aside a portion of public works fund for minority businesses.

question

Hardison v. Trans World Airlines

answer

In this case, an employee claimed that the company did not satisfactorily accommodate his need to observe a Saturday Sabbath. The court concluded that it had made reasonable efforts to accommodate the employee. (p. 9, Unit 2)

question

Local 28 v. EEOC

answer

In this case, the court upheld that a federal court properly set a goal of 29 % minority membership in a Sheet Metal Workers local and made the union pay for training.

question

Local 93 v. City of Cleveland

answer

Court approves a plan of promotions for firefighters using a 1:1 ration to increase the number of minorities in upper-level jobs.

question

O'Conner v. Consolidated Coin Caterers Corporation

answer

In this case, a fifty-six-year-old plaintiff was replaced by a "younger" forty-year-old. (p. 24, Unit 2)

question

Wilkinson v. Times Mirror Corportation

answer

A California Court of Appeals upheld a testing program for applicants that include certain elements. (p. 131, Unit 2)

question

Wygant v. Jackson Board of Education

answer

Court ruled that the Constitution bars from laying off white teachers with more seniority than black teachers who remain at work.

question

Adarand Constructors, Inc. v. Pena

answer

Court rules that awarding a bid to a minority contractor over a lower-bidding non-minority contractor is illegal, unless such a decision is designed to correct a manifest imbalance from prior discrimination.

question

Kolstad v. American Dental Association

answer

Ruled that the availability of punitive damages depends on the motive of the discriminator rather than the nature of the conduct.

question

Leonel v. American Airlines

answer

Case in which Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit held that to issue a "real" employment offer under the ADA, an employer must have completed all nonmedical components of the application process or be able to demonstrate that it could not reasonably have done so before issuing the offer

question

Ledbetter v. Goodyear Tire & Rubber Co.

answer

Supreme Court decision that held that the 180-day time limit for filing a charge under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act started after the alleged unlawful employment action and did not restart upon receipt of each successive paycheck; was overruled by an Act in 2009.

STUDY

Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Equal Pay Act Of 1963 Occupational Safety And Health

Chapter 2 Assignment – Flashcards 50 terms

Pedro Huang

50 terms

Preview

Chapter 2 Assignment – Flashcards

question

All of the following groups are specifically identified by federal equal employment opportunity laws EXCEPT ________. obese persons women people with disabilities people over age 40

answer

obese persons

question

On average, women with a college degree earn less money than men with a college degree. This is an example of: social responsibility sexual harassment sexism whistle-blowing

answer

sexism

question

Companies that adhere to high ethical standards ________. always make lower profits often make better investments in the long run often make poorer investments in the long run always make higher profits

answer

often make better investments in the long run

question

A company removes a profitable product from the market because it may be dangerous. This company is demonstrating ________. ethical behavior green marketing conflict of interest social welfare

answer

ethical behavior

question

Business ethics begins with ________. the government a firm's investors a firm's customers the individual employee

answer

the individual employee

question

Which of the following statements best justifies why a company should act in an ethical manner? Acting ethically always maximizes profits in the short run. Acting ethically will help a company to prosper in the long run. The right thing to do is always the least expensive alternative. The government will take action if a firm fails to act ethically.

answer

Acting ethically will help a company to prosper in the long run.

question

________ are responsible for conducting employee training programs that help spot potential fraud and abuse within a firm. Human Resource managers Department supervisors Social behaviorists Ethics compliance officers

answer

Ethics compliance officers

question

Which of the following is not a minimum requirement for ethics compliance programs? consistent improvement high-level personnel responsible for compliance government regulation consistent enforcement

answer

consistent improvement

question

Which of the following is not an example of unethical or illegal acts in the workplace? misreporting time on the job Internet abuse whistle-blowing safety violations

answer

whistle-blowing

question

When an individual moves beyond his or her own needs and desires and takes the needs of society into consideration when making decisions, in which stage of ethical development is this individual? conventional traditional preconventional postconventional

answer

postconventional

question

Linda does not make personal long-distance phone calls at work because it will cost her employer money. Which stage of ethical development is Linda in? traditional conventional postconventional preconventional

answer

conventional

question

Jeffrey Wigand, a former executive of Brown & Williamson who exposed his company's practice of intentionally manipulating the effect of nicotine in cigarettes on the CBS news program 60 Minutes, had moved beyond self-interest and company duty to which stage of individual ethics? conflict of interest preconventional postconventional conventional

answer

postconventional

question

Tanisha is a diabetes educator at a local clinic. Recently, she was offered a lavish trip by a sales representative who has been pushing the clinic to use his company's diabetes supplies. Tanisha declined the gift. Which ethical challenge did she face? cultural consequences whistle-blowing honesty and integrity conflict of interest

answer

conflict of interest

question

During a meeting with government regulators, Nicole voluntarily points out a potential problem with a new product her company is testing. Nicole has shown ________. truthfulness honesty loyalty integrity

answer

integrity

question

Embellishing your résumé shows a lack of ______ and ______. honesty and loyalty integrity and loyalty competence and loyalty honesty and integrity

answer

honesty and integrity

question

Your supervisor asks you to conceal information from outside auditors examining the company's financial records. What is your ethical challenge? You have no ethical challenge honesty and integrity conflict of interest loyalty versus truth

answer

loyalty versus truth

question

___________ requires that firms in the private sector provide procedures for anonymous reporting of accusations of fraud. Sarbanes-Oxley Act Consumer Rights Act Americans with Disabilities Act Title VII

answer

Sarbanes-Oxley Act

question

A formal statement that defines how the organization expects and requires employees to resolve ethical questions is ________. social responsibility statement an organizational culture a code of conduct an ethical environmental statement

answer

a code of conduct

question

Online simulation training such as the Ethics Challenge can help to improve ethical ________. reasoning awareness leadership action

answer

reasoning

question

Macrohard, Inc. provides support for employees faced with ethical dilemmas. An ethics officer is available in the Human Resources office or through an employee hotline. This is an example of ethical ________. awareness action reasoning whistle-blowing

answer

action

question

After meeting with employees, a manager realizes she has set performance goals unrealistically high for her department's employees. If she makes employee performance goals more realistic, what will likely happen to the department's ethical climate? Not enough information is provided to determine the effect. It will deteriorate. It will stay about the same. It will improve.

answer

It will improve.

question

Ethical __________ charges each employee personally to uphold the company's core values and be willing to base their actions on them. leadership action awareness reasoning

answer

leadership

question

Jack Welch, former CEO of General Electric, is respected in business circles for focusing his company on the welfare of its customers and investors, and for ensuring GE would thrive in the long run. This type of environment is an example of ethical ________. reasoning awareness leadership action

answer

leadership

question

Businesses exercise social responsibility for all of the following reasons EXCEPT ________. profits are guaranteed the company's image is enhanced stakeholders expect it management believes it is the ethical course of action

answer

profits are guaranteed

question

When Target donates 5 percent of its federally taxable income to nonprofit groups, the company is highlighting its ________. social audit code of conduct business ethics social responsibility

answer

social responsibility

question

In addition to financial assessments, Dominic has arranged for his company to conduct a(n) ________ to evaluate activities that relate to social issues, such as employment practices, environmental protection, and philanthropy. code of conduct social audit social responsibility inventory EEOC evaluation

answer

social audit

question

The Wright Tire Co. uses a company-wide team of employees to identify company activities related to social issues, report on how the firm is responding to those issues, and evaluate how effectively the firm has met those issues. The Wright Tire team is conducting a(n) ________. environmental impact audit government-mandated audit internal accounting audit social audit

answer

social audit

question

The ____________ of a coffee-growing company include its employees, customers, suppliers, and the community members where the company is located. social audit stakeholders social responsibility corporate philanthropy

answer

stakeholders

question

Timberland Company allows its employees to take paid six-month sabbatical leaves to work for nonprofit organizations. This is an example of ____________. whistle-blowing green marketing consumerism corporate philanthropy

answer

corporate philanthropy

question

All of the following are examples of corporate philanthropy EXCEPT ________. paying local property taxes sponsoring a Red Cross blood drive supporting the local public radio station giving employees release time to participate in volunteer activities

answer

paying local property taxes

question

During the Olympics, several Nike ads were aired that demonstrated the company's sponsorship of various events. Nike was using ________ to align their marketing efforts with charitable giving. ethical awareness business ethics cause-related marketing social responsibility

answer

cause-related marketing

question

Consumer Rights include all of the following EXCEPT the right to ________. be informed boycott be heard choose

answer

boycott

question

According to ________ standards, when a drug company purchases a television ad, the company is required to describe potential side effects of the drug, or at least provide a phone number or Web site address for additional information. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Consumer Compliance Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

answer

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

question

The doctrine of "the right to be heard" would be best reflected by ________. disclosure of true annual interest rates on revolving charge accounts product safety disclosure of sodium content on labels of processed foods a firm establishing a consumer appeals board

answer

a firm establishing a consumer appeals board

question

All of the following are current social issues related to business's responsibilities to employees EXCEPT ________. discrimination against workers under 40 years of age discrimination against workers over 40 years of age sexual harassment quality of life issues

answer

discrimination against workers under 40 years of age

question

Matt was diagnosed with a serious illness that requires aggressive treatment. Because his company employs 50 or more people, it must allow Matt up to 12 weeks unpaid time off in one year, as granted by the ________. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission Family and Medical Leave Act Occupational Safety and Health Administration Vocational Rehabilitation Act

answer

Family and Medical Leave Act

question

________ refers to adhering to deeply held ethical standards in business situations. Commitment Conscientiousness Leadership Integrity

answer

Integrity

question

A firm's ability to behave ethically depends upon the ethical values of the firm's employees. all of these answer choices are correct. the ethical values of the firm's executives. a climate within the organization that promotes ethical conduct.

answer

all of these answer choices are correct.

question

Businesses must first rely on ________to maintain an ethical organization. individual employees customer complaints policies legislation

answer

individual employees

question

Business ethics are shaped by the company's code of ethics. the company's upper management. all of these answer choices are correct. the ethical climate in the organization.

answer

all of these answer choices are correct.

question

People who are aware of and respond to their duty to others have achieved: The preconventional stage of ethical development The postconventional stage of ethical development The conventional stage of ethical development None of these answer choices

answer

The conventional stage of ethical development

question

Identify how many employees who took the National Business Ethics Survey witnessed an act of misconduct in their company within the past year. More than one-half of employees More than three-fourths of employees More than two-thirds of employees Less than one-third of employees

answer

More than one-half of employees

question

In the highest level of ethical and moral behavior, the individual is able to move beyond mere self-interest and duty and take the larger needs of society into account as well. This stage of ethical development is the: Preconventional stage Metaethical stage Conventional stage Postconventional stage

answer

Postconventional stage

question

Which of the following would NOT be considered an appropriate response when asked for donations at work? Decline if you simply cannot afford it at this time. Always give the suggested donation amount or the amount that coworkers at your employment level are giving. If you aren't sure about the organization, ask for more information before writing a check. Offer to pool your resources with coworkers in order to make a larger single donation.

answer

Always give the suggested donation amount or the amount that coworkers at your employment level are giving.

question

Lucent Technologies requires employees to participate in a Web-based compliance and business ethics training program. This type of program primarily serves which level of ethics development? ethical reasoning ethical awareness ethical leadership ethical action

answer

ethical reasoning

question

The consumer rights first outlined by President Kennedy in 1962 include: All of these answer choices are correct. The right to be safe. The right to be informed. The right to choose.

answer

All of these answer choices are correct.

question

In the country-regionplaceU.S. economy, the social responsibility of a firm is evaluated: On the basis of the firm's contribution to economic growth and employment opportunities By consumers who may patronize or avoid a firm based on its behavior By outside groups who create and monitor standards of corporate performance All of these answer choices are correct By the firm itself doing a social audit

answer

All of these answer choices are correct

question

Business responsibilities to the general public include: Dealing with public health issues. All of these answer choices are correct. Developing a quality workforce. Protecting the environment.

answer

All of these answer choices are correct.

question

In September 1982, seven people died in the Chicago area after swallowing Tylenol capsules that had been tainted with cyanide, replaced in their packaging, and put on store shelves for sale. Johnson & Johnson maintained that the tampering could not have been foreseen, and was therefore not its fault, but still recalled all Tylenol capsules and canceled advertising at a pre-tax loss estimated at $100 million. It also developed a capsule-shaped tablet that would be more difficult to tamper with. In doing this, Johnson & Johnson admitted product liability. raised awareness of the dangers of using Tylenol. avoided accepting responsibility and therefore acted unethically. handled the situation in a socially responsible way.

answer

handled the situation in a socially responsible way.

question

Companies are required to publish their codes of ethics and inform the public of any changes to them because of the Ethics Compliance Act. a lawsuit filed by the Fair Factories Clearinghouse. the Public Agenda and the Kettering Foundation study. the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

answer

the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

STUDY

Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Criminal Justice Major Life Activities

Management Ch 13 – Flashcards 63 terms

Alicia Bennett

63 terms

Preview

Management Ch 13 – Flashcards

question

The Civil Rights Act, Title VII prohibits discrimination of employees who are above 40 years of age

answer

False

question

The first phase of the human resource management process involves ________.

answer

human resource planning, In which of the following traditional training methods are employees made to work at different jobs in a particular area in order to get exposure to a variety of tasks?ruitment and decruitment, and selection

question

Which of the following is true of the government legislations related to human resource management in different countries?

answer

In Australia, gender opportunities for women lag behind those in the United States.

question

Recruitment is the process of ________.

answer

locating, identifying, and attracting capable applicants

question

The two types of orientations are ________.

answer

work unit orientation and organization orientation

question

Which of the following Acts prohibits discrimination on the basis of physical or mental disabilities?

answer

Vocational Rehabilitation Act

question

The ________ method utilizes feedback from supervisors, employees, and coworkers

answer

360-degree appraisal

question

A new employee goes through two types of orientation: work unit orientation and procedural orientation.

answer

False

question

Recruitment is defined as the process of screening job applicants to determine who is best qualified for the job

answer

False

question

The final three activities of the human resource management process ensure ________.

answer

that the organization retains competent and high-performing employees

question

Which of the following training methods involves employees participating in role playing, simulations, or other face-to-face types of training?

answer

experiential exercises

question

Job descriptions focus on the job, while job specifications focus on the person

answer

True

question

Which of the following is a technology-based training method?

answer

videoconferencing/teleconferencing

question

A labor union is an organization that represents workers and seeks to protect their interests

answer

True

question

________ as a source of recruitment is limited to entry-level positions

answer

College recruiting

question

Elizabeth was hired as a customer care executive, along with five others, by a telecommunication provider during a period when they were extremely short-staffed. However, her employers soon realized that she was impatient, easily irritated, and lacked motivation. They even began to receive complaints about her behavior from angry customers. In hiring Elizabeth, her employers were guilty of a(n) ________.

answer

accept error

question

In which of the following traditional training methods do employees work with an experienced worker who provides information, support, and encouragement?

answer

mentoring and coaching

question

A ________ includes both positive and negative aspects about the job and the company

answer

realistic job preview

question

A written statement that explains the job content, environment, and conditions of employment is called a ________.

answer

job description

question

Managers begin human resource planning by ________.

answer

inventorying current employees

question

Written essay and critical incident are performance appraisal methods

answer

True

question

The first three activities of the human resource management process involves ________.

answer

identifying and selecting competent employees

question

________ is an Internet-based learning where employees participate in multimedia simulations or other interactive modules.

answer

E-learning

question

Application forms ________.

answer

are most useful for gathering information

question

________ is the process of introducing a new employee to his job and the organization.

answer

Orientation

question

Steve believes that achieving competitive success in business today requires that managers must understand employee requirements and institute processes that motivate them. He introduces in-house technical training programs for employees, as well as a provision to reimburse the tuition fees for employees who take up courses that benefit both the employee and the organization. Steve is using ________ to motivate and retain employees.

answer

high-performance work practices

question

In her next meeting with the senior management, Jane suggests that they should ignore the openings created by voluntary resignations and not hire any more people now. This would avoid much of the pain associated with workforce reduction in future. This implies that Jane favors ________.

answer

attrition

question

An organization that wants to have high-performance work practices should discourage self-managed teams and decentralized decision making

answer

False

question

The ________ method utilizes feedback from supervisors, employees, and coworkers.

answer

360-degree appraisal

question

In his report, Wade described the strengths and weaknesses of each of his subordinates. He made a note of their past performances and the potential they displayed. He even provided suggestions for their improvements. Wade is using the ________ method of conducting a performance appraisal.

answer

written essay

question

Which of the following is an example of a high-performance work practice?

answer

self-managed teams

question

Which of the following Acts gives employees the legal right to examine personnel files and letters of reference?

answer

Privacy Act

question

________ is an example of a high-performance work practice

answer

Increasing employee access to information

question

Jane checks with the different departments and tries to get an idea of employee productivity at different levels. In consultation with the various managers, she makes a list of the relatively less productive employees who have not been up to the mark despite training and mentoring. They decide to terminate their employment contracts for the time being. She meets with each and every one of them to clarify the position and explain that this may not be a permanent situation, while encouraging them to look for positions elsewhere. How is Jane trying to reduce the size of the workforce here?

answer

Layoffs

question

The process by which managers ensure that they have the right number and kinds of capable people in the right places and at the right times is known as ________.

answer

Human Resource Planning

question

Variable pay systems reward employees for the job skills and competencies they can demonstrate

answer

False

question

Errors made by getting rid of candidates who would have performed successfully on the job are known as ________.

answer

Reject Errors

question

Giving negative information about the organization to prospective candidates is not a good idea because it puts the company in bad light.

answer

False

question

Steve believes that one of the reasons for the high turnover is that job roles are very poorly defined, creating confusion in the minds of the employees as to what is expected of them. However, even after undertaking a thorough job analysis and clearly defining the behaviors necessary to perform them, Steve finds that employee motivation and turnover is not sufficiently reduced. Which of the following, if true, could explain this apparent discrepancy?

answer

The higher level employees repeatedly overemphasize the company's positive points while interviewing candidates

question

Which of the following statements is true of the four generations that are working side-by-side today?

answer

The oldest, most experienced workers account for 6% of the workforce

question

In which of the following traditional training methods are employees made to work at different jobs in a particular area in order to get exposure to a variety of tasks?

answer

training by job rotation

question

________ involves predicting which applicants will be successful if hired

answer

Selection

question

There are only two ways of controlling labor supply through decruitment: firing and early retirements.

answer

False

question

Which of the following is most likely to be included in family-friendly benefits provided by organizations?

answer

time off for school functions

question

________ are groups of nominated or elected employees who must be consulted when management makes decisions involving personnel.

answer

Work Councils

question

Job rotation allows employees to work at different jobs in a particular area, thereby giving them exposure to a variety of tasks

answer

True

question

People who prefer integration are more likely to respond positively to options such as flextime and part-time hours.

answer

False

question

One disadvantage of employee referrals as a source of job candidates is that it generates unqualified candidates

answer

False

question

Six months into Wade's tenure as sales manager, he hosts his first regional sales meeting. During the course of the meeting, Wade meets individually with his employees and shows them a chart of their sales numbers for each month compared to their budgeted quota for the year to date. Additionally, Wade and each employee set mutually agreed-upon budget goals for the remaining six months of the fiscal year. Wade is utilizing the ________ method of performance appraisal.

answer

MBO

question

Which of the following methods of performance appraisal allows the evaluator to focus on vital behaviors that separate effective work performance from ineffective work performance?

answer

critical incident

question

Which of the following Acts requires continued health coverage following termination of an employee?

answer

Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act

question

Larry is an HR manager with Merlin Infosystems. He is in charge of recruitment for entry-level positions in the company. He is of the view that job interviews should provide a realistic job preview. Which of the following is Larry likely to do during job interviews?

answer

intimating the employee about possible overtime

question

In which of the following traditional training methods are employees made to work at different jobs in a particular area in order to get exposure to a variety of tasks?

answer

training by job rotation

question

Which of the following is a type of general training provided by organizations?

answer

Customer Service

question

Human resource planning entails two steps: assessing current human resource assessment and meeting future human resource needs.

answer

True

question

Which of the following performance appraisal methods is a combination of elements from the critical incident method and the graphic rating scale method?

answer

behaviorally anchored rating scale

question

The two most common forms of representative participation are

answer

work councils and board representatives

question

Assessment centers are best if they are used to select ________.

answer

senior management

question

Summer day camps and job sharing are types of family-friendly benefits that organizations are offering today

answer

True

question

Another option that Jane feels can be considered is to ask some employees to share jobs or perform their jobs on a part-time basis. If the company does this, it would be ________

answer

reducing the workweeks

question

Steve, a human resources manager, wants to let potential candidates know about the minimum qualifications that they should possess in order to successfully perform the jobs they have applied for. What should he do?

answer

He should frame a job specification.

question

People who prefer segmentation are more likely to be satisfied and committed to their jobs when offered options such as ________

answer

job sharing

question

The burden to prove that selection devices used by managers to differentiate applicants are validly related to job performance is on managers

answer

True

STUDY

Business Fundamentals Business Management Civil Rights Act Of 1991 Full Time Employment Part Time Employees Profit Sharing Plans

Understanding Business Chapter 11 – Flashcards 27 terms

Jonathan Walsh

27 terms

Preview

Understanding Business Chapter 11 – Flashcards

question

Human Resource Management (HRM)

answer

The process of determining human resource needs and then recruiting, selecting, developing, motivating, evaluating, compensating and scheduling employees to achieve organizational goals.

question

Affirmative Action

answer

Employment activities designed to "right past wrongs" by increasing opportunities for minorities and women.

question

Reverse Discrimination

answer

Discrimination against whites or males in hiring or promoting.

question

Job Analysis

answer

A study of what employees do who hold various job titles.

question

Job Description

answer

A summary of the objectives of the job, the type of work to be done, the responsibilities and duties, the working conditions and the relationship of the job to other functions.

question

Job Specifications

answer

A written summary of the minimal qualifications required of workers to do a particular job.

question

Recruitment

answer

The set of activities used to obtain a sufficient number of the right employees at the right time.

question

Selection

answer

The process of gathering information and deciding who should be hired, under legal guidelines, to serve the best interests of the individual and the organization.

question

Contingent Workers

answer

Employees that Include part-time workers, temporary workers, seasonal workers, independent contractors, interns, and co-op students.

question

Training and Development

answer

All attempts to improve productivity by increasing an employee's ability to perform. Training focuses on short-term skills, development on long-term abilities.

question

Orientation

answer

The activity that introduces new employees to the organization; to fellow employees; to their immediate supervisors; and to the policies, practices, and objectives of the firm.

question

On-The-Job-Training

answer

Training at the workplace that lets the employee learn by doing or by watching others for a while and then imitating them.

question

Apprentice Programs

answer

Training programs during which a learner works alongside an experienced employee to master the skills and procedures of a craft.

question

Off-The-Job-Training

answer

Internal or external training programs away from the workplace that develop any of a variety of skills or foster personal development.

question

Online Training

answer

Training programs in which employees complete classes via the Internet.

question

Vestibule Training

answer

Training done in schools where employees are taught on equipment similar to that used on the job.

question

Job Simulation

answer

The use of equipment that duplicates job conditions and tasks so trainees can learn skills before attempting them on the job.

question

Management Development

answer

The process of training and educating employees to become good managers and then monitoring the progress of their managerial skills over time.

question

Networking

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The process of establishing and maintaining contacts with key managers in and outside the organization and using those contacts to weave strong relationships that serve as informal development systems.

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Mentor

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An experienced employee who supervises, coaches and guides lower-level employees by introducing them to the right people and generally being their organizational sponsor.

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Performance Appraisal

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An evaluation that measures employee performance against established standards in order to make decisions about promotions, compensation, training or termination.

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Fringe Benefits

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Benefits such as sick leave pay, vacation pay, pension plans, and health plans that represent additional compensation beyond base wages.

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Cafeteria-Style Fringe Benefits

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Fringe benefits plan that allows employees to choose the benefits they want up to a certain dollar amount.

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Flextime Plan

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Work schedule that gives employees some freedom to choose when to work, as long as they work the required number of hours.

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Core Time

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In a flextime plan, the period when all employees are expected to be at their job stations.

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Compressed Workweek

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Work schedule that allows an employee to work a full number of hours per week but in fewer days.

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Job Sharing

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An arrangement whereby two part-time employees share one full-time job.

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