Evan is writing a scholarship essay about responsible money management. What is true?

When borrowing you’re spending future income More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/personal-finance-credit-basics/

If medical management is not effective for BPH what is the surgical intervention that can be performed?

Transurethral resection of the prostate, or TURP. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/case-5-benign-prostatic-hyperplasia/

What is a common but sometimes fatal mistake in cardiac arrest management?

Prolonged interruptions in chest compressions. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/acls-and-ekg/

What is one reason that a hotel owner might consider hiring a hotel management company?

Improved overall management of the hotel More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/hft-2254/

What is purpose of applying the Adult Learning Cycle in time management?

It helps people create a plan to meet their goals. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/sls-exam-2/

What is the most common reason managers fail after being promoted to management

Poor team work with subordinates and peers More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/busi-342-test-3/

What is the primary purpose of imposing software life cycle management concepts?

Increase the quality of software More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/4-7-software-development/

What is the three stage model of crisis management that provides the foundation?

1) precrisis 2)crisis event 3) post crisis More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/crisis-communication-exam-1/

What is true about hotel management companies? a. they do not hire managers b. they generally manage hotels for a fee c. they must be owned by a franchisor d. they must be owned by a franchisee

b. they generally manage hotels for a fee More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/lodging-quiz-2/

When developing a plan car for a pain management for the cancer patient, achievement of what is the priority outcome?

Pain relief that is acceptable to the patient More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch-29-pain-management-in-cancer-patients/

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Integrated Change Control Management

DSST: Technical Writing – Flashcards 105 terms

Jacob Patel

105 terms

Preview

DSST: Technical Writing – Flashcards

question

Progress reports

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keeps the reader informed about activities, problems, and progress related to a large projec

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Informational reports

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focuses on providing straightforward information

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Analytical reports

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evaluates information, draw conclusions, and make recommendations.

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Formal reports

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typically lengthy, require extensive research, and involve multiple writers.

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Informal reports

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lack extensive planning or research, and they often take the form of a memorandum.

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Feasibility Report

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help executives determine if an idea or a plan is both practical or possible

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Laboratory Report

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Relays information gathered from an investigation of from laboratory testing

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Memorandum

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the primary method of communication for many organizations, which organizes information by either directly or indirectly

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Direct pattern

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Presents the main idea of the memo first and follows up with the details

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Indirect pattern

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Presents the detail of the memo first and follows up with the main points

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Inquiry Letters

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Written to ask about a product, service, or procedure

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Claim letters

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Written to express disappointment with a product or service and to request a refund, replacement, or apology

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Job application letters

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written to accompany a rèsumè when seeking an internship or employment

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Resume

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serves as an important tool for illustrating qualification to potential employment

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user manuals

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written for both skilled or unskilled users of product

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tutorials

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written as a self study guide for the users of a product

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training manuals

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major teaching tool in vocational jobs, used to train people in a procedure or skill

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operator's manuals

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written for trained operators of construction, computer, or manufacturing equipment for use on the job

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service manuals

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written for repair technicians, contain troubleshooting charts for diagnosing problems

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instructions

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steps that are required to compete a specific task who never performed a certain task

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procedures

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instructions that act as guidelines for people familiar with a task

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process description

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describes how something works and breaks down a process into steps or parts

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Internal proposal

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submitted to personnel within an organization

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external proposal

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submitted to clients or potential customers

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short proposal

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included an intro, body, and conclusion

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long proposal

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divided into front matter, body, and back matter

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Routine internal proposal

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used in organizations for minor spending requests

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formal internal proposal

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used when requesting large amount of money

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solicited proposal

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external proposal written in response to a request for proposals (RFP) or an invitation for bids (IFB)

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unsolicited proposal

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external proposal written and submitted without request

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sales proposal

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external proposal that may be short or long depending on size of potential sale

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grant proposal

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external proposal written to request funding for a project or study

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closing summary

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included either at the beginning of the conclusion or at the end of the body that reviews main points and findings

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informative abstract

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included before full report that summarizes the version of request

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descriptive abstract

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included on the title page that summarizes in a few sentences the scope and purpose of the document

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abstract

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a summary of a written document that enables readers to determine whether to read an entire article

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executive summary

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consolidates the principle points of a report or proposal

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summary

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a conclusion that represents the main points of the document

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interpretation

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a conclusion that coincides with findings presented in the document

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recommendations

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a conclusion that agrees with the purpose, evidence, and interpretation of the document

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parenthetical definition

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uses a synonym or clarifying phase to explain meaning of an unfamiliar word

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sentence definition

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used for complex terms or when terms have multiple meanings

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expanded definitions

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used when extensive details Ae required about an item

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Table of Context

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shows what is contained in a document and on what page information can be located

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glossary

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an alphabetical listing of definition

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appendix

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serves the purpose of clarifying information presented in the text body

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Justification

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margins justified on the left are easier to read

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headings

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indicate organizational structure and help readers find information

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lists

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useful in presenting steps, materials, and recommendations

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headers and footers

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often includes section topic, date, page number, and title of document

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columns

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single-column for larger typeface double-column for smaller typefaces

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colors

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useful in highlighting sections of a document to draw attention

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white space

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blank space between paragraphs and sections visually helps readers know when one idea or section is beginning or ending

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Table graphs

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data organized for easy comparison

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bar graphs

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translate numbers into shapes or colors; show comparison

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line graphs

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shows trends and changes over time, cost, size, rates, and other variables

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pie charts

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show parts of a whole

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gantt charts

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show how the phases of a project relate to each other

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pictograms

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uses images or icons to represent quantities; useful for non-experts to grasp ideas

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flowcharts

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show steps in progress

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schematic diagrams

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shows how components of a principle, process, or system function together

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drawing

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show real or imaginary objects; highlight specific parts and show how parts fit together

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spatial

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describes the physical appearance of an object or area beginning at one point and ending at another

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chronological

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follows sequence of events

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sequential

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used for writing step-by-step instructions

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cause-and-effect

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begins with either the cause or the effect

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emphatic

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emphasizes important information, reasons, or examples

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comparison

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used when writing on subject that is similar to another

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Adjustment letters

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a written response to a complaint and tells a costumer or client what the organization intends to do about the complaint.

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Ampersands

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Sales brochures

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created specifically to sell a company's products and services

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Informational brochures

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created to inform and to educate the reader

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Collaborative writing

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two or more writers work together to produce a single document for which they share responsibility and division-making authority.

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Cover letter

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accompanies a document, an electrical file, or other material. It provides a permanent record for both the writer and the reader.

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Formal definitions

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a form of classification

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Informal definition

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explains a term by giving a more familiar word or phrase

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Circular definition

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restates the term to be defined and therefore fail to clarify it

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Abridged dictionaries

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contains words commonly used in schools and offices

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Unabridged dictionaries

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provides complete and authoritative linguistic information

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ESL dictionaries

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(English-as-a-second-language) are more helpful to the nonnative speaker than are regular English dictionaries

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Subject dictionaries

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define terms used in a particular field

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Direct address

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refers to a sentence or phrase in which the person being spoken or written to is explicitly named

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Ellipses

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the omission of words from quoted material (...)

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Colloquial English

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spoken English or writing that uses words and expressions common to casual conversation

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Dialect English

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a social or regional variety of the language that is comprehensible to people of that social group or region but may be incomprehensible to outsiders

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Localism

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a regional wording or phrasing

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Slang

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an informal vocabulary composed of figures of speech and colorful words used In extravagant ways

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Environmental impact statement

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(EISs) documents that describe the anticipated environmental effects of large-scale construction projects

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Euphemism

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an inoffensive substitute for a word or phrase that could be offensive

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Idioms

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a group of words that has a special meaning apart from its literal meaning.

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Investigative reports

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offers a precise analysis of a workplace problem or an issue in response to a request or need for information

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Jargon

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a highly specialized slang that is unique to an occupation or a professional group.

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Inquiry

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To seek information by asking a question

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Non Sequiturs

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a statement that does not logically follow a previous statement

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Malapropism

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a word that sounds similar to the one intended but is wrong in context

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Minutes

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keeps official records for organization or committee meetings

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Organizational newsletter

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sent to employees, clients, or members of an association to keep informed about issues regarding their company or group

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Subscription newsletter

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designed to attract and build a readership interested about a specific product or servic

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Progress report

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provides information to decision-makers about the status of a project

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Activity report

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provides information to managers about the status of ongoing projects

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Questionnaires

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a series of questions on a particular topic sent out to a number of people

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Direct quotation

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a word-for-word copy of the text of an original source

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Indirect quotation

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a paraphrased version of an original text

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Primary research

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a gathering of raw data from such sources as firsthand experience, interviews, direct observation, surveys and questionnaires.

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Secondary research

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a gathering of information that has been previously analyzed, evaluated, or otherwise organized into accessible form

STUDY

Business Management Data Collection Method Human Resource Management Human Resource Planning Management Tasks And Responsibilities

hr2 – Flashcard 64 terms

Jacob Patel

64 terms

Preview

hr2 – Flashcard

question

1. For any human resource department to be effective, it must first have a clear understanding of A. the jobs found throughout the organization B. the size of the organization C. the customer base D. the technology involved E. the legal environment the firm operates within

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2. The definition of a job is A. a position held by one person B. whatever work is assigned on a particular day C. the physical work space occupied D. a group of related activities and duties E. the same as instructions given by the immediate manager

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3. The definition of a job is such that a job may be held by A. no more than one person B. one or more people so long as they are in different departments C. one or more people so long as they are in the same department D. any number of people regardless of location E. part-time employees only

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4. The collection of tasks and responsibilities performed by one person is called a A. job B. position C. duty D. chore E. job summary

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5. A business has one supervisor and six workers; the workers have identical tasks and responsibilities. Therefore there exists A. seven jobs B. six jobs and one position C. two jobs and seven positions D. seven jobs and two positions E. seven jobs and one position

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6. Major human resource activities that rely on job analysis information include all the following except A. determination of training needs B. job design/redesign C. fair compensation policies D. setting of realistic performance standards E. maintenance of the organization's physical infrastructure

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7. Job analysis allows human resource specialists to A. determine proper colour schemes for various departments B. justify their existence C. help protect the organization from charges of discrimination D. avoid detailed job descriptions E. avoid legal requirements

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8. There are __________ phases in the job analysis process. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6

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9. Phase 1 of the job analysis process includes all the following except A. preparation for job analysis B. collection of job analysis information C. uses of job analysis information D. familiarization with the organization and jobs E. identification of jobs to be analyzed

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10. In the first phase of job analysis, one activity a human resource specialist must do is A. become familiar with the organization and its jobs B. determine sources of information C. design collection methods D. collect job analysis information E. design job descriptions

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11. Job analysis information is used for all the following except A. writing job descriptions B. determining profit margins C. designing performance standards D. job design E. assessing job specifications

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12. In identifying jobs to be analyzed, likely targets often include the following, except A. jobs that are crucial to organizational success B. jobs that may preclude members of equity target groups C. jobs that are difficult to learn or perform D. jobs where there is continuous hiring E. jobs involving computers

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13. The Vancouver Fire Department was found to be in violation of the Human Rights Act by having a minimum height requirement for applicants. This could likely have been avoided by A. simply re-writing the job description B. avoiding taking the matter to the Human Rights Commission C. a proper job analysis process D. appealing to city officials E. keeping the requirements secret

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14. The collection phase of job analysis includes A. determination of the uses of job analysis information B. identification of jobs to be analyzed C. determination of the source(s) of job data D. familiarization with organizational mission E. design of job descriptions and specifications

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15. Using existing job descriptions and specifications as the source of data for a job analysis is an example of which type of source of job data? A. human B. non-human C. traditional D. specific E. dynamic

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16. Human sources of organizational job data could include all the following except A. managers at other similar businesses B. job incumbents C. supervisors D. customers E. subordinates

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17. Non-human sources of job analysis data could include all the following except A. existing job descriptions B. safety manuals C. internet research D. equipment design blueprints E. interviews with employees and supervisors

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18. Most job analysis checklists will attempt to measure all of the following items except A. duties and responsibilities B. total wages or salary received C. performance standards D. working conditions E. safety hazards

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19. Standardized questionnaires to collect job information measure the following A. compensation levels B. workstation design C. absenteeism D. performance-related information E. previous job incumbents

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20. The technique where incumbents provide examples of behaviours required to do a job effectively, and the way to do it is considered a(n) A. Functional Job Analysis B. Occupational Information Network C. Position Analysis Questionnaire D. Critical Incident Method E. Fleishman's Job Analysis System

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21. Which job analysis method focuses on cognitive, psychomotor, physical, and sensory abilities and is relatively new? A. Functional Job Analysis B. Occupational Information Network C. Position Analysis Questionnaire D. Critical Incident Method E. Fleishman's Job Analysis System

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22. Which job analysis method asks reviewers to determine the degree to which 194 different task elements are present in a specific job? A. Functional Job Analysis B. Occupational Information Network C. Position Analysis Questionnaire D. Critical Incident Method E. Fleishman's Job Analysis System

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23. In choosing a data collection method for job analysis information, the best way is A. interviewing B. observation C. (mailed) questionnaire D. employee log E. there is no one best way

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24. Interviews are an effective way to collect job information for all of the following reasons except A. interviewers can explain unclear questions B. they are quick and cost effective C. answers can be clarified D. job holders and supervisors provide input E. the process can provide accuracy

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25. Generally speaking, the use of employee logs as a collection method for job analysis information would likely be most useful when the goal is to look at A. job selection procedures B. training procedures C. specific tasks and activities D. compensation policies E. discipline policies

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26. When knowledge about jobs and their requirements are collected by a human resource department, it is called A. job previewing B. job analysis C. job detail D. job research E. job standards setting

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27. The key parts of a job description have sections which include A. human characteristics, working conditions, performance standards, and tasks B. job identity, reporting relationships, salary, and holidays C. job responsibilities, job working conditions, performance standards, and compensation D. job summary, reporting relationships, compensation, and tasks E. job identity, job summary, job duties, and job working conditions

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28. The job identity section on a job description would typically include the following except A. job title B. job summary C. job location D. job grade E. job status

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29. The two major job attributes that are used as classification criteria by the National Occupational Classification (NOC) are A. skill level and skill type B. industry and occupational mobility C. industry and skill type D. education required and level of computerization E. skill level and geographic location

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30. The federal government created an occupational classification which uses the variables of skill level and types of job. It is known as A. DOT B. NOC C. www.workopolis.com D. Position Analysis Questionnaire E. Functional Job Analysis

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31. A brief concise overview on a job description that tells what a job is, how it is done, and why, is called the A. job identity B. job responsibilities and duties C. job analysis D. job summary E. job design

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32. The working conditions section on a job description could include all of the following except A. hours of work B. safety hazards C. health hazards D. travel requirements E. salary range

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33. One good means of checking the accuracy of job descriptions is to have them checked by A. (selected) jobholders B. the job supervisor(s) C. an impartial committee from outside the job area D. job holders and supervisors E. other human resource specialists

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34. A job specification describes A. what a job does B. where the job fits specifically within the organization C. job demands and human characteristics required by them D. specific job behaviours required by company policies E. salary and benefits

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35. A job specification is best illustrated by which of the following A. "job reports to data entry supervisor" B. "job requires adherence to specific company regulations" C. "job requires lifting 20kg bags in wet, noisy environment" D. "job deals solely with retail customers" E. "job may involve shift work"

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36. A competency is a skill or ability associated with high A. salary B. job performance C. job design D. job description E. job analysis

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37. A competency model used in job design, can be developed for all of the following except A. teams B. work units C. specific jobs D. key skills and abilities E. individuals

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38. Designing proper job performance standards is another application of A. job analysis B. job summary C. job identity D. job location E. job specification

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39. Proper job performance standards can do all the following, with the likely exception of A. challenging and motivating employees B. maintaining high performance levels C. allowing managers to monitor and controlling work performance D. reducing morale E. contributing to employee satisfaction

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40. Without measurable job performance standards A. performance standards are relatively worthless B. management is more effective C. performance will remain at a constant high level D. morale will increase among the best workers E. workers can be in a strike position

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41. When actual performance strays from the performance standards for a job, one likely corrective action may be A. changes to the standards B. having another person measure performance C. dismissal D. changing the job title E. changing jobs from full-time to part-time

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42. Job performance standards may be obtained from all the following except A. job analysis information B. work measurement C. benchmarking D. external applicant pool E. industry standards

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43. Competencies are used for all of the following except A. performance management B. compensation C. exit interviews D. career development E. training

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44. Internal job analysis information can produce valid job performance standards under all the below conditions except A. when performance is quantified B. when tasks are complex and specialized C. when performance is easily measured D. when performance standards are understood by workers and supervisors E. when performance requires little interpretation

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45. When job analysts focus on developing broader skills rather than performing specific duties they are using a A. reactive system B. competency matrix C. job redesign portfolio D. structured systematic appraisal E. total organization systems approach

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46. In the last fifty years many jobs have been redesigned, often due to A. global competition B. global competition and complex technology C. increasing worker expectations D. global competition, complex technology, and increasing worker expectations E. increasing worker expectations and global competition

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47. All of the below are key job design considerations except A. ergonomic B. employee C. financial D. environmental E. organizational

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48. Organizational considerations of job design include A. efficiency and work flow B. task variety C. feedback D. task identity E. task significance

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49. One of the organizational considerations involved in job design is A. variety B. work flow C. task significance D. feedback E. task identity

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50. Efficiency is a(n) A. organizational consideration of job design B. ergonomic consideration of job design C. employee consideration of job design D. environmental (societal) consideration of job design E. considered the same as task identity for job analysis purposes

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51. The physical relationship between the worker and the work is a(n) A. organizational consideration of job design B. ergonomic consideration of job design C. employee consideration of job design D. environmental consideration of job design E. functional consideration of job design

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52. Among the key employee considerations in job design are all the following except A. task efficiency B. autonomy C. task identity D. variety E. task significance

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53. Employee considerations of job design do not include A. work flow B. task significance C. autonomy D. variety E. feedback

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54. Jobs that give workers autonomy tend to increase an employee's A. self esteem and job performance B. salary and vacation allotment C. seniority level and self esteem D. productivity and apathy E. dissatisfaction and complaints

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55. Task identity is A. an ergonomic consideration of job design B. an organizational consideration of job design C. an employee consideration of job design D. an environmental consideration of job design E. both an ergonomic and an environmental consideration of job design

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56. To increase the quality of work life in specialized jobs, HR departments will implement A. job rotation, job enlargement, or job enrichment programs B. job enlargement, autonomy, and job rotation programs C. feedback, variety, and task identity D. ergonomic studies, job rotation, and work teams E. job enrichment, work teams, and employee suggestions programs

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57. Task significance is a(n) A. organizational consideration of job design B. ergonomic consideration of job design C. employee consideration of job design D. environmental consideration of job design E. legal consideration of job design

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58. Job rotation is a(n) A. organizational consideration of job design B. environmental consideration of job design C. employee consideration of job design D. ergonomic consideration of job design E. financial consideration of job design ``

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59. Moving employees between different jobs is called A. job enrichment B. job enlargement C. job design D. job rotation E. team building

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60. When jobs are expanded by increasing the number of related tasks an employee does, it is an example of A. job rotation B. job enrichment C. job analysis D. job specifications E. job enlargement

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61. When job design increases a worker's responsibility and control over a job, this is an example of A. job enlargement B. job enrichment C. team work D. job analysis E. job performance standards

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62. Environmental considerations of job design include A. job enrichment B. social expectations C. work flow D. feedback E. ergonomic controls

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63. Work practices are an A. employee consideration of job design B. ergonomic consideration of job design C. organizational consideration of job design D. environmental consideration of job design E. legal consideration of job design

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64. The text suggests that accurate and timely job descriptions are becoming increasingly difficult to produce for a variety of reasons including all the following except A. global competition B. changing worker profile C. fast technological obsolescence D. rapid increase in knowledge requirements E. lack of task identity, variety, and significance

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STUDY

Clean Drinking Water Interact With Others Management Project Management Project Team Members Subject Matter Experts

study guid project management – Flashcards 46 terms

Shelby Arnold

46 terms

Preview

study guid project management – Flashcards

question

A ________ is a temporary endeavor that has definite beginning and ending dates, and it results in a unique product, service, or result

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project

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A ________ is a group of related projects that are managed together using coordinated processes and techniques

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program

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________is the first step in the pre-project setup

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Identifying the project

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________is the second step in the pre-project setup

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Validate the project

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________is the third step in the pre-project setup

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write the project charter

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________is the fourth step in the pre-project setup

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obtain approval for the charter

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Validating the project involves two steps ________ and ________

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preparing the business case and identifying and analyzing the project stakeholders

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The business case typically documents

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the reasons the project came into existence

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seven needs or demands for bringing about a project

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Market demand Strategic opportunity/business need Customer request Technology advance Legal requirement Ecological impact Social need

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The two primary categories of decision models are ________ and

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benefit measurement methods and constrained-optimization models

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Four common benefit measurement methods are

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cost-benefit analysis scoring model payback period economic model

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Economic model includes

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discounted cash flow net present value internal rate of return

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discounted cash flow technique compares

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the value of the future worth of the project's expected cash flows to today's dollars.

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If NPV is ________ zero, you should accept the project

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greater than

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the discount rate when the present value of the cash inflows equals the original investment

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Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

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is conducted at the conclusion of the project. The primary purpose is to collect and document lessons learned

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post-project review

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involves gathering and centralizing project documents, performing a post-project review, and writing the final project close report

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The Administrative Closure process

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the process of completing and settling the terms of the contract and documenting acceptance

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Close Procurements

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the process of determining the resources you'll need for the project, including human, equipment, and material resources

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Resource Planning

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project scope management plan should contain:

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The process you'll use to prepare the project scope statement A process for creating the work breakdown structure (WBS) A definition of how the deliverables will be verified for accuracy and the process used for accepting deliverables A description of the process for controlling scope change requests, including the procedure for requesting changes and how to obtain a change request form

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scope change process needs the following:

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change request form. Information required on a scope change request includes a description of the change, the reason for the change, what the impact is if the change is not implemented, and the originator of the request analysis of the impact of the request on the scope, budget, schedule, and quality of the project approval process to accept or reject requests communication plan to keep stakeholders informed of the status of requests method to incorporate approved changes into the project plan

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a number, and it's used to sum and track the costs, schedule, and resources associated with the WBS elements

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code of accounts identifier

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This is where the WBS levels and work component descriptions are documented

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WBS dictionary

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the process of identifying dependency relationships between project activities and sequencing them in proper order

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activity sequencing

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the process of identifying those risks that have the greatest possibility of occurring and the greatest impact to the project if they do occur

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Risk analysis

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the process of determining and documenting the potential risks that could occur on your project

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Risk Identification

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the process of reviewing the risk analysis and determining what, if any, action should be taken to reduce negative impacts and take advantage of opportunities as a result of a risk event occurring

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Risk Response Planning

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the final, approved documented plan that you'll use throughout the remainder of the project to measure project progress and, ultimately, project success

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project management plan

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involves monitoring the status of the project scope, monitoring changes to the project scope, and monitoring work results to ensure that they match expected outcomes

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scope control

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consists of the scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary

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scope baseline

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involves stakeholders formally accepting completed deliverables and obtaining sign-off indicating the deliverables are satisfactory and meet stakeholders' expectations

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Scope Verification

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involves determining the status of the project schedule, determining whether changes have occurred or should occur, and influencing and managing schedule changes

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Schedule Control

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any change made to the project schedule as part of the ongoing work involved with managing the project

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schedule update

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the process of implementing the risk response plan, tracking and monitoring identified risks, and identifying and responding to new risks as they occur

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Risk Monitoring and Control

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like the twitch that precedes a sneeze

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Risk triggers

question

an example of a simple report that uses indicators like red-yellow-green to show the status of each area of the project at a glance.

answer

Dashboards

question

the total expected cost for the project

answer

cost baseline

question

precedence diagramming method (PDM)

answer

uses boxes to represent the project activities and arrows to connect the boxes and show the dependencies

question

Parametric estimatin

answer

quantitatively based estimating method that multiplies the quantity of work by the rate

question

average of the most likely estimate, the optimistic estimate, and the pessimistic estimate for the activity

answer

Three-point estimates

question

uses what's called expected value (or the weighted average). Expected value is calculated using the three-point estimates for Activity Duration and then finding the weighted average of those estimates.

answer

Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

question

The formula to calculate expected value is as follows:

answer

(optimistic + pessimistic + (4 × most likely)) / 6

question

determined by subtracting the early start from the late start or the early finish from the late finish for each activity

answer

float

question

probably one of the most commonly used methods to display the project schedule. They can show milestones, deliverables, sub deliverables, or all the activities of the project, if needed.easy to read and can show the activity sequences, start and end dates, resource assignment, dependencies, and critical path.

answer

gantt chart

question

the final, approved version of the project schedule that includes the baseline start and finish dates and resource assignments, signed off by stakeholders

answer

schedule baseline

question

According to PMI, project managers should spend as much as 90 percent of their time

answer

communicating

STUDY

Accounting Compliance With Laws And Regulations Due Professional Care Finance Financial Accounting Introductory Auditing Management

Quickbooks Ch. 2 – Managing Expenses – Flashcards 60 terms

William Jordan

60 terms

Preview

Quickbooks Ch. 2 – Managing Expenses – Flashcards

question

Purchase orders

answer

Non posting transactions, some vendors require to process orders (Webster sports)

question

Vendors are the

answer

people and companies you purchase products and services from. Phone company, office supply store, SUB CONTRACTOR, sales tax agencies

question

To set up new vendor, click

answer

Vendors on the home page, then click new vendor or in my shortcuts, click vendor

question

Quick Add

answer

Add a new vendor without entering other info about that vendor, can go back later to edit it

question

What do you do if a vendor is also a customer

answer

Must create both a vendor record and customer record. Name must be different for both

question

Explain the payment terms 1% 10 Net 30

answer

Bill due in total in 30 days. If pay within ten days, receive 1% discount.

question

Setting a vendor balance when creating New vendor

answer

Not recommended to use Opening Balance field in the New Vendor window, enter each unpaid Bill separately for better tracking

question

Vendor types

answer

Quickbooks allows you to classify vendors into common types, then can create report to see how much spent on each type

question

Tax ID field is where you enter

answer

Social Security Number for individual or Federal Employer Identification Number for a company

question

Custom fields

answer

Can be used to track more info about vendors, click Additional Information Tab to define custom fields

question

Class Field

answer

Can track income and expenses by business unit, department, store location, profit center or other meaningful category. Create separate reports for different classes

question

To turn on class tracking

answer

Edit Menu > Preferences > Accounting Preferences > Company Preferences Tab > Check the Use Class Tracking box

question

Which report shows income and expenses for each class?

answer

Profit and Loss by Class

question

When entering bill and vendor not found, use ______ to add vendor to list

answer

quick add

question

How can you attach an electronic copy of a document to transactions

answer

Click Attach File button in the transaction window

question

To write check, click

answer

Write check in the Home page Banking section

question

To print the check later, turn on the

answer

Print Later checkbox.

question

To use the check register, click

answer

"Use Register" on the Banking Menu or "Check Register" on the Home Page Banking Section

question

For each credit card the company uses to pay bills, set up a

answer

separate credit card account

question

When you record credit card charges, use the

answer

Enter Credit Card Charges Window; use the Enter Bills window to record and pay credit card bills

question

To View the Unpaid Bills Detail report, select

answer

Reports > Vendors & Payables > Unpaid Bill Detail

question

A/P Aging Summary

answer

Summarizes ages of unpaid bills, how much owed to each vendor, breaks down total owed for current billing period and previous billing period, (billing period 30, 60, 90, 120 days.)

question

To pay bills, click

answer

Vendors menu > Pay bills or click Pay bills not he home page

question

To print checks at another time, select the

answer

Print later checkbox in the write checks window

question

Do you have to print checks one by one?

answer

No, you can tell QB to queen up checks you recorded and bill payments you set up to pay by check, and print them in one big batch.

question

To print checks, choose

answer

File menu > Print Forms > checks

question

Check Number

answer

Quickbooks will attempt to automatically fill in the first check number available, if it doesn't match, type it in manually

question

What can you use instead of manually signing checks

answer

Upload a graphic file of the signature using the signature button in the print checks window

question

How do you Void a check in the register?

answer

Use to Go to bottom to find the check in the check register window, select the check to void, right click bill payment or select the shortcut menu, choose Void Bill select

question

When check is voided, the payment amount is ____ and QB adds a checkmark to the _____________ and fills in the memo field with ____________

answer

0.00; checkmark to the cleared cell; void

question

What does the checkmark mean on check

answer

It means the check is reconciled to the bank

question

All voided checks must be listed in the register so that

answer

there are no gaps in check number sequence

question

Voiding a bill payment

answer

will make the bill payable again

question

If you mess up on a check before printing, you can

answer

delete the check

question

If you mess up on a check after printing, you should

answer

void the check

question

Voiding a bill payment will make it

answer

payable again

question

Vendor credits are

answer

credits that a vendor gives you to lower the cost on a bill

question

Recording a vendor credit takes place in the

answer

Enter bills form, then select credit option at the top

question

The Vendor Balance Summary Report shows

answer

how much you owe to each vendor as of the report date you select

question

To examine each accounts payable transaction, use the

answer

Vendor Balance Detail

question

Transaction list by vendor displays

answer

all transactions for each vendor including checks, credit card charges, and credit accounts payable transactions.

question

To print a vendor report, click

answer

Reports menu > Vendors and payable > Choose the report

question

You can display vendor center by: a. Clicking vendors not he home page b. Clicking vendor center in the icon bar c. On the vendor menu, choosing vendor center d. All of the above

answer

question

You can add a vendor in the vendor center by: a. Right clicking within vendors tab and choosing new vendor b. In the vendor center icon bar, clicking new vendor and then choosing new vendor C. In the vendor center icon bar, clicking new vendor and then choosing add multiple vendors D. Pressing Ctrl + N E. All of the above

answer

question

You can pay vendors by: a. Recoding transactions in the check register b. Using write checks to record and print a check without using accounts payable c. Using Enter Bills to record a transaction using Accounts Payable and then using Pay Bills to pay open Bills D. All of the above

answer

question

Which statement is true: A. When you pay a bill, QUIckbooks records the payment in the bank account (or credit card account) and the Accounts Payable account. B. Bill payments increase the balance in your bank account and the Accounts Payable account C. You apply discounts when you enter a bill D. You must use items to fill out a bill

answer

question

Which Quickbooks feature allows you to categorize income and expenses that span different customers, vendors, accounts and time periods? A. Job B. Class tracking C. Customer Types D. Vendor Types E. Job Types

answer

question

Cash Vendor

answer

A vendor who you would typically pay write away, Write Checks as payment Method.

question

Credit Vendor

answer

A vendor who would bill you and you would enter that bill and say the bill. Payment involves Purchase Order, Enter Bills, Pay Bills.

question

Job Costing

answer

tacks expenses for each customer or job, P&L shows income separately for each job

question

3 Ways to pay vendors

answer

Manually write check and record transaction in checking account register; Electronic Fund Transfer and Debit card payments also recorded in register. Use write checks window to write and print checks when no account payable. Use Enter Bills to record accounts payable and Pay bill to pay bill

question

To create a transaction with multiple accounts affected, use the

answer

Splits button at the bottom of the register

question

3 Printer Forms are

answer

Voucher (One check), Standard (Multiple check per page), Wallet (Check with Receipt attached)

question

To pay credit card bill, use the

answer

Write Checks and code the check to the credit card account

question

Vendor list shows the

answer

Vendor name, current balance owed

question

If haven't used a vendor for long time, can make it inactive. Will quickbooks retain info associated with that vendor

answer

Yes but QB hides the vendor from the vendor lists and from vendor drop down lists

question

If want to track expense for each customer or job

answer

Link each expense with the customer or job to which it applies

question

To add subcontractors, add them as

answer

Vendors, when selecting type, choose additional info and click the sub contractor check box.

question

What should you not do to pay a bill in QB

answer

Do not write a check

question

If paying by debit card,

answer

In the check number, put "debit"

STUDY

Affirmative Action Policies Benefits And Costs Economics Full Time Staff Increasing The Size Management Minimize The Impact School Psychology

Week 5 modular research and plagiarism- en 1150 – Flashcards 27 terms

Alicia Bennett

27 terms

Preview

Week 5 modular research and plagiarism- en 1150 – Flashcards

question

Information from universities, government or non -government programs are considered:

answer

Credible

question

When searching the UMA lirn database, what is the best key - term to search by?

answer

Subject or topic

question

This type of source consists of numerous email addresses that make up a mailing list of people interested in a particular topic.

answer

Listserv

question

Materials officially published by a known company offer or entity are referred to as?

answer

Secondary resources

question

These are sources that are considered reliable, accurate and trustworthy.

answer

Credible resource

question

The collection of information directly from the source is considered what type of resource?

answer

Primary

question

This is a publication that comes out regularly.

answer

Periodical

question

This type of source can be found at an URL address.

answer

Internet resource

question

Interviews, observations, and surveys are all examples of what type of resource?

answer

Primary

question

True/false anything found on the internet is credible.

answer

False

question

How is in - text citation formatted?

answer

( author's last name, year of publication)

question

Placing these at the end of a paraphrased statement or quotation is one way to avoid plagiarism.

answer

In-text citation

question

This is a restatement of a text or passage Riverton. Surrounded by quotations.

answer

Quoting

question

This is a restatement of a text or passage in your own words.

answer

Paraphrasing

question

True or false. The in - text citation is a shortened version of the full - text citations.

answer

True

question

Copying and pasting entire piece of work from someone else is an example of what level of plagiarism?

answer

Complete plagiarism

question

True or false. If I reference information from the course textbook but put it in my own words, I do not need to provide citation.

answer

False

question

Using a large number of information from a source and replacing only a few words is an example of what level of plagiarism?

answer

Partial plagiarism

question

Including information from one source but setting another is an example of what level of plagiarism?

answer

Partial plagiarism

question

Including a citation but forgetting to include quotation is an example of what level of plagiarism?

answer

Minimum plagiarism

question

This occurs when an author of a paper using someone else's words and ideas in his or her writing without giving credit to the original author or of the ideas.

answer

Plagiarism

question

This is made up of a group of people who discuss a common interest by posting their responses to a common address for everyone to read.

answer

Newsgroup

question

Which of the following is not an academic vendors that can be searched within the UMA LIRN database?

answer

Wikipedia

question

This is a periodical often times written by professional writers that may or may not have expertise in the subject and contains secondary discussions of events.

answer

Magazine

question

Text books, articles, websites and blogs are all examples of what type of resource?

answer

Secondary

question

True or false. One should proceed with caution when referencing information from Wikipedia.

answer

True

question

answer

STUDY

Business Communications Business Management Costs And Risks Associated Human Resource Management International Marketing Less Than One Year Management Wholly Owned Subsidiary

psych 1 – Flashcard 57 terms

Cara Robinson

57 terms

Preview

psych 1 – Flashcard

question

the disadvantages to this approach are time and money

answer

cross-sectional studies

question

worked with children on evaluatinf prejudice and stereotypes

answer

kenneth and mamie clark

question

sought better treatment for the mentally ill

answer

phillipe pinel

question

founded the apa

answer

g stanley hall

question

according to the theory of the 4 humors, if you had an excess of phelgm you were

answer

lethagic

question

led pioneering work on adolescent development

answer

leta hollongsworth

question

wrote the book "the animal mind"

answer

margaret washburn

question

created phrenology

answer

joseph gall

question

a concern with reasoning processes that contribute to effecfive problem solving is most characteristics od the

answer

cognitive perspective

question

aristotle is to___, as plato is to ___

answer

nurture, nature

question

the process of replication is most likely ro be facilitated by

answer

operational defintions

question

the behaivoral percpective is most likely to emphasize the importance of

answer

learning

question

the biopsychological approach provides an understandinf of social-cultural influences intergrated within the larger framework of

answer

multiplw levels of analysis

question

known as the most enthusiastic philosopher about modern empiricism

answer

aristotle

question

one technique the SQ3R study method emphazises the importance of

answer

reviewing material

question

developed functinalism

answer

James

question

the disadvantages to this approach are time and money

answer

cross-sectional studies

question

worked with children on evaluatinf prejudice and stereotypes

answer

kenneth and mamie clark

question

sought better treatment for the mentally ill

answer

phillipe pinel

question

founded the apa

answer

g stanley hall

question

according to the theory of the 4 humors, if you had an excess of phelgm you were

answer

lethagic

question

led pioneering work on adolescent development

answer

leta hollongsworth

question

wrote the book "the animal mind"

answer

margaret washburn

question

created phrenology

answer

joseph gall

question

a concern with reasoning processes that contribute to effecfive problem solving is most characteristics od the

answer

cognitive perspective

question

aristotle is to___, as plato is to ___

answer

nurture, nature

question

the process of replication is most likely ro be facilitated by

answer

operational defintions

question

the behaivoral percpective is most likely to emphasize the importance of

answer

learning

question

the biopsychological approach provides an understandinf of social-cultural influences intergrated within the larger framework of

answer

multiplw levels of analysis

question

known as the most enthusiastic philosopher about modern empiricism

answer

aristotle

question

one technique the SQ3R study method emphazises the importance of

answer

reviewing material

question

developed functinalism

answer

James

question

neuroscience

answer

how the body and brain enables emotion

question

evolutionary

answer

how the natural selection of traits premotes the perpetuation of ones genes

question

behavior genetics

answer

how much our genes and our environments influence our individual differences

question

psychodynamic

answer

how behavior springs from uncontinuous drives and conflicts

question

behavioral

answer

how we learn observable responses

question

cognitive

answer

how we encode, process, store, and retrieve information

question

social cultural

answer

how behavior and thinking vary a cross situations and cultures

question

empiricism

answer

the view that knowledge originates in experience, and that science should rely on observation and experimentation

question

structuralism

answer

an early school of psych that used introspection to explore the elemental structure of humans mind

question

functionalism

answer

a school of psych that focused on how mental and behavioral processes function

question

human psychology

answer

historically significant perceptive that emphasizes the growth potential of healthy people

question

levels of analysis

answer

the differening complimentary views, from biological to psychological to social cultural

question

basic research

answer

pure science that aims to increase the scientific knowledge basis

question

applied research

answer

scientific study that aims to solve practical problems

question

counseling psychology

answer

a branch of psych that assists people with problems living in and in achieving a greater wellbeing

question

clinical psychology

answer

a branch of psychology that studies, assists, and treats people with psychological disorders

question

psychiatry

answer

a branch of medicine dealing with psychological disorders

question

critical thinkinf

answer

thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions

question

theory

answer

an explanation using integrated set of principles that organizes observations and predicts behaviors

question

hypothesis

answer

a testable prediction

question

operational def

answer

a statement of the procedures used to define research variables

question

replication

answer

repeating the essence of a research study with different participants

question

false consensus affect

answer

the tendency to overestimate the extent to which others share our beliefs

question

experimental condition

answer

the condition of an experiment that exposes participants of treatment

question

statistical significance

answer

a statistical statement of how likely it is that an obtained result occurred by chance

STUDY

Business Management Health Care Workers Long Term Plans Management Problem Solving Method Set Realistic Goals Time Management Skills

Airman Leadership School – Flashcards 133 terms

Lewis Gardner

133 terms

Preview

Airman Leadership School – Flashcards

question

Define time management.

answer

Effectively using your time by setting goals and objectives.

question

What are the three time management plans?

answer

ABC Priority Method, Pareto Principle, Covey Time Management Matrix

question

Describe the ABC Priority Method of time management.

answer

Make a to-do list, prioritize all tasks as A, B or C, perform all A items first, B items next and C items last.

question

Describe the Pareto Principle of time management.

answer

20% of items give 80% of the results. List tasks and focus 80% of time and effort on the 20% of work that is most important.

question

Describe the Covey Time Management Matrix.

answer

Place each task in one of four quadrants - Q1: Quadrant of Reaction, Q2: Quadrant of Quality, Q3: Quadrant of Deception, Q4: Quadrant of Waste. Focus on Q1 and 2, avoid Q3 and 4.

question

What two steps are essential to Any time management plan?

answer

Make a to-do list, prioritize tasks

question

List several time management tools.

answer

Calendars, organizers, personal planners, PDAs, smartphones

question

What types of items should be delegated?

answer

Priority "C" tasks, priority items that are urgent but not difficult

question

How can you take command of the telephone?

answer

Don't depend solely on messages left, no more telephone tag, call scheduling, work with others, voice-mail and answering machines

question

Identify 2 examples of the early use of air power.

answer

Air Machines, Aeroplane No. 1, Military ballooning

question

Identify the 4 operations the USAF has participated in since 1990.

answer

Desert Storm, Provide Relief/ Restore Hope, Allied Force, Enduring Freedom

question

List 2 Air Force Medal of Honor recipients.

answer

SSgt Henry Erwin, A1C William Pitsenbarger, SSgt Maynard H. Smith, TSgt Forrest Vosler, SSgt Archibald Mathies, A1C John L. Levitow, CMSgt Richard Etchberger

question

What Air Force Manual (AFM) or Air Force Instruction (AFI) governs Dress and Appearance?

answer

AFI 36-2903

question

How do Dress and Appearance support Air Force culture?

answer

Provide standardization and teamwork

question

How far back does the origin of Dress and Appearance standards date?

answer

1775, when General George Washington commanded the Continental Army

question

Why is it important for military members to show respect for the Flag?

answer

It honors our military heritage and shows an appreciation for freedom.

question

What Air Force Manual (AFM) or Air Force Instruction (AFI) governs Drill and Ceremonies?

answer

AFM 36-2203

question

Air Force culture supports military professional by:

answer

Helping you appreciate the need for authority, discipline, and the importance of following orders promptly and precisely. Helping you develop desirable qualities like professionalism, commitment, dedication and leadership/followership. Promoting a stronger military orientation.

question

Define wellness.

answer

A complete advancement towards treating the mind, body, and spirit as a whole. A condition resulting from incorporating a system of individual programs into your life.

question

List the four dimensions of wellness.

answer

Social, Spiritual, Emotional, Physical

question

Describe the Social dimension of wellness.

answer

It deals with your network of friends and personal relationships with those you care about

question

Describe the Spiritual dimension of wellness

answer

It is that within us which motivates us in life and gives us strength and resiliency

question

Describe the Emotional dimension of wellness

answer

It refers to building an awareness of accepting your feelings and moods

question

Describe the Physical dimension of wellness.

answer

It refers to weight control, a balanced and healthy diet, appearance, self image and exercise

question

Explain why being totally fit impacts mission accomplishment.

answer

Having a well rounded perspective of fitness socially, spiritually, emotionally and physically increases your ability to influence and lead your subordinates.

question

Describe the purpose of the Air Force Fitness Program.

answer

To motivate all members to participate in a year-round physical conditioning program that emphasizes total fitness to include proper aerobic conditioning, strength/flexibility training and healthy eating

question

List 5 key players of the Air Force Fitness Program.

answer

Fitness Assessment Cell (FAC), Unit Fitness Program Manager (UFPM), Immediate Supervisor, Physical Training Leader, Individual

question

Define the Fitness Improvement Program.

answer

A unit-based of fitness center-based program that all members receiving an "unsatisfactory" fitness score are required to attend.

question

Define the Healthy Living Program.

answer

A program that target nutritional and exercise behavior changes to improve the members' health and fitness

question

List the factors of proper weight management.

answer

Aerobic Fitness, Muscular Fitness, Flexibility, Body Composition

question

List the four basic eating rules.

answer

Eat small frequent meals, Eat every 3 - 4 hours, Eat as soon as possible after exercise, Consume a variety of foods

question

Give an example of how not eating frequently throughout the day may affect you.

answer

Slow metabolism, Overeating, Reduce physical performance, Reduce mental performance

question

Give an example of a behavior not recommended to achieve optimal fitness.

answer

Weighing yourself daily, Using diuretics or laxatives, Spending an excessive amount of time in saunas, Participating in extremely low calorie diets

question

Define stress.

answer

Any circumstance (stressor) that places special physical and/or psychological demands on an organism leading to physiological, psychological and behavioral outcomes. If these demands persist over time, long-term or chronic undesirable outcomes or strains may result.

question

What is the difference between eustress and distress?

answer

Eustress - the positive consequences of stress, Distress - the negative consequences of stress

question

List the subcategories of organizational stressors.

answer

Job, role conflicts, environmental, interpersonal, leadership, organizational structure, change

question

List the major types of extra-organizational stressors. Give examples of each.

answer

Family problems - child care issues, health problems, Marital issues - separation, divorce, arguments, Financial issues - debt, second job

question

What are the 4 stress reaction/condition types?

answer

Physiological/Physical, Psychological, Behavioral, Cognitive

question

List 3 ways to intervene and adapt to combat and operational stress to prevent PTSD.

answer

Accept the fact of being in the military and prepare for the worst, Understand that fear is normal, Try to prevent fear so intense that it controls you (training to survive), Communicate feelings and thoughts with others, Reduce continuous exposure to the trauma, Seek professional help immediately

question

Describe Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD).

answer

A disorder diagnosed by psychologists/psychiatrists; diagnosed for people who have experienced a traumatic event in or out of combat and have problems coping and causes significant organizational, extra-organizational, rational, relationship and interpersonal disturbances that causes depression.

question

List the three behaviors associated with suicide.

answer

Completed suicide, Suicidal gesture, Suicide attempt

question

List ways a supervisor can keep suicide prevention a continuous process within the workcenter.

answer

Keeping open communication with the subordinate and family, Ensuring new members and family attend budgeting, parenting, and/or stress courses, Making unannounced visits to shift workers, Addressing the topic in performance feedback sessions, Addressing the topic at Commander's Call, Making frequent face-to-face contact with subordinates, Bonding with Airmen through workcenter activities

question

List three ways an attempted or completed suicide affects the workcenter and family.

answer

Causing copy cat attempts, Division within the workcenter, Lower morale, If suicide was completed in the workcenter, people may be afraid to go in the same area, People may accept blame for not noticing the warning signs, Family may need professional counseling or financial aid

question

What are the actual impacts of going to Mental Health for assistance?

answer

The majority of those people who self-refer have a positive career outcome, The individual may be rehabilitated and returned back to normal routines, Assistance can also be provided to the family; help them with any problems related to their family member's health

question

Name additional referrals you could use to provide assistance in stressful situations.

answer

Leadership, First Sergeant, Commander, Mental Health Services, Chaplain

question

Identify the purpose of AFI 36-2618, The Enlisted Force Structure.

answer

To provide an enlisted force structure that best meets mission requirements; provide a common, stable career structure for all enlisted personnel, and provide all Airman the opportunity for professional growth.

question

Describe the expectations of the Junior Enlisted Airman Tier of AFI 36-2618

answer

Adapt to the requirements of the military profession, Achieve technical proficiency, Grow into becoming a highly effective member of the USAF, As a SrA; begin to exercise limited supervision and leadership, Prepare for increased responsibilities and continue to broaden technical skills.

question

Describe the expectations of the NCO Tier of AFI 36-2618

answer

Become expert hands-on technicians, Serve as supervisors, ensure team members work together, Train and develop Airmen, Develop leadership skills, Accept all tasks and missions assigned and be held accountable by supervisors, Accept responsibility for what your workcenter does or fails to do, Fulfill your individual duties and Ensure you team and unit are successful.

question

Define the expectations of responsibilities at the tactical level.

answer

Perfect primary occupational skills and develop knowledge of USA institutional competencies, Complete PME, Earn 5- and 7-skill levels, Complete the CCAF degree, Strive to become the best technician and team member possible, Train others and Serve as a first line supervisor and section leader.

question

What is the Wingman concept?

answer

The wingman responsibility challenges you to take care of other Airmen. Being a good wingman means you share a bond with other Airmen. It also means that you can be counted on to support other members in all situations both on- and off-duty.

question

What are some of the ways you can demonstrate effective followership?

answer

By enthusiastically supporting, explaining and promoting leaders' decisions. By developing innovative ways to improve processes and provide suggestions up the chain of command that will directly contribute to unit and mission success.

question

In what ways will you be expected to demonstrate leadership as an NCO?

answer

Accepting and executing all duties, instructions, responsibilities and lawful orders in a timely and efficient manner, Leading and developing subordinates, Exercising effective followership in mission accomplishment, Placing the requirements of your official duties and responsibilities ahead of your personal desires, Issuing lawful orders appropriate for the completion of your assigned tasks and Detecting and correcting conduct and behavior that may place you or others at risk.

question

As an NCO, what are your general responsibilities in regards to pre-deployment?

answer

Meet all pre-deployment requirements and ensure you educate and assist your subordinates with deployment preparation actions. To correct and counsel subordinates who do not meet deployment readiness standards.

question

Define ethics.

answer

A principle of right or good behavior, a system of moral principles or values, a study of moral philosophy, or the rules and standards of conduct governing the members of a profession.

question

What are some principles we value as military professionals?

answer

Honesty, honor, integrity, service before self, discipline

question

What are some things expected of our daily conduct as military professionals?

answer

Don't lie, cheat or steal, Follow the rules, Adhere to the standards, Always do your best work, Always conduct yourself professionally, Don't discriminate, Treat people with respect, Be open and honest.

question

What resources or methods can you use to guide your ethical conduct and your subordinates do the same?

answer

AFIs, The USAF core values, the UCMJ, Know the expected standards of conduct, Mentoring, Proper leadership

question

If you fail to conduct yourself in an ethical manner, there are sure to be consequences. Give examples.

answer

Bringing shame upon one's self, one's unit, one's service and one's country. Setting a bad example for others, Facing corrective actions for breeches of discipline; leading to discharge, It could compromise one's credibility with one's superiors, subordinates, nation, etc., Workcenter disruption.

question

Considering the traits described in the text, why is integrity important?

answer

It helps our subordinates, coworkers and supervisors trust what we say and do, It builds trust and trust is the foundation of all good relationships and teams, Showing it creates public trust for our decisions on defending our nation.

question

How could you do, or do you, demonstrate Service Before Self in your daily actions?

answer

By demonstrating a willingness to be worldwide available and ready, by working long hours when necessary, By being prepared for deployments and performing any duties necessary to accomplish the mission. As supervisors, we need to be willing to modify our own leave schedules so our subordinates can take their leave and by ensuring your family and your subordinates' families are prepared for our absences from home.

question

What is the difference between the two categories of operations excellence: internal and external?

answer

Internal - How we do business in the USAF, External - The way we treat the world around us, like environmental issues

question

List the ten guidelines of being a good follower.

answer

Know your abilities and seek self-improvement, Being technically proficient assures we have the knowledge, skills and abilities to complete the mission, Obey orders and initiate appropriate actions in the absence of orders, Develop a sense of responsibility and take responsibility for your actions, Make sound and timely decisions and recommendations, Live and set the example for others, Be familiar with your leaders and their jobs; anticipate their requirements, Keep your leaders informed, Preserve your ethics, morality and integrity when performing every task, Be a team player.

question

List and define the followership traits known as CILI.

answer

Competence to accomplish assigned tasks is a must for a good follower, Integrity for a follower means basically the same as it does for a leader; be honest, Loyalty supports and enhances effectiveness of leaders through faithfulness, obedience and respectfulness, Initiative can be described as motivation, determination, perseverance and risk-taking.

question

List and define each of the 6 leadership traits known as SLICED.

answer

Selflessness is sacrificing personal wants and needs for the greater cause which reflects the core values of service before self, Loyalty supports and enhances the effectiveness of leaders through faithfulness, obedience and respectfulness, Integrity for a leader means basically the same as it does for a follower, be honest, Commitment is complete devotion to duty; total dedication to the USAF, the unit and our comrades, Energy is the enthusiasm and motivation to take the initiative, Decisiveness is a willingness to make decisions, act on them and accept responsibility for the decisions.

question

Define leadership.

answer

The act of influencing and directing people to accomplish the mission with the ability to inspire confidence and support from the people who are needed to achieve organizational goals by accepting authority and responsibility creating an environment where people want to go do the job.

question

Define followership.

answer

The capacity to follow a leader by being competent at doing their jobs and committed to mission accomplishment.

question

Define unit effectiveness.

answer

Meeting unit goals with less cost and maximizing personnel participation.

question

True or False; To become an effective leader, you must always keep in mind two fundamental concepts: the mission and the people.

answer

True

question

Describe the dynamics between leaders and followers.

answer

It is extremely important to unit effectiveness. A positive relationship between supervisors and subordinates creates an environment of mutual respect and cooperation that allows for effective and efficient mission accomplishment. In simple terms, before you can lead, you must learn to follow. When you become a leader you have an understanding of what your followers expect of you as a leader. It's important that you know how your followers perceive you, that way you know what is going right or wrong and you can make the necessary steps to improve overall effectiveness and efficiency. Your goal is to be an effective leader that brings success to your unit.

question

List and define 3 types of personal power.

answer

Referent power - the personal charisma or likeability characteristics (trust, confidence, etc.), Expert power - his/her special knowledge or skills related to the job, Information power - his/her perceived access to important data and useful information like reenlistment information and promotion statistics.

question

How does effective leadership and followership impact unit effectiveness?

answer

As a leader, to promote unit effectiveness, you must embrace the leadership traits and influential skills that foster trust, teamwork and constant improvement. In order to achieve mission success, effective leadership and effective followership are required. The USAF needs followers who are actively involved, when followers actively contribute, they take personal pride in the art of followership and they value the purpose of leader-follower dynamics. This achieves a higher level of mission accomplishment.

question

What is considered drug abuse?

answer

Using "street" drugs; misuse of prescription or over-the-counter drugs inhaling glue and aerosol products; spice and mood altering substances and the ingestion of hemp seed oil or products made with hemp seed oil.

question

List some of the drugs (both legal and illegal) abused in today's USAF.

answer

Illegal use of prescription drugs, Marijuana, Spice, Steroids, MDMA or Ecstasy, Cocaine, Methamphetamine and Alcohol

question

What types of issues could Marijuana abuse cause?

answer

Problems with memory, learning, perception, thinking and problem solving. Smoking Marijuana also increases your risk for heart attack. The use of Marijuana is also linked to depression, anxiety and personal disturbances.

question

What types of issues could Spice abuse cause?

answer

Similar reactions to that of natural cannabis.

question

What types of issues could Anabolic Steroid abuse cause?

answer

Liver tumors and cancer, jaundice, fluid retention, high blood pressure, increases in LDL (bad cholesterol) and decreases in HDL (good cholesterol). Other side effects include kidney tumors, severe acne and trembling. In addition there are some gender-specific side effects.

question

What types of issues could Ecstasy abuse cause?

answer

It can interfere with the body's ability to regulate temperature and cause hyperthermia, liver, kidney psychological effects, cardiovascular failure and even death. Individuals experience increases in heart rate and blood pressure, muscle tension, involuntary teeth clenching, nausea, blurred vision, faintness and chills or sweating.

question

What types of issues could Cocaine abuse cause?

answer

A decreased appetite and many chronic users can become malnourished. Different means of taking cocaine can produce different adverse effects. Regularly snorting cocaine causes nosebleeds, problems with swallowing, hoarseness and a chronically runny nose. Ingesting cocaine can cause severe bowel gangrene. People who inject cocaine often experience severe allergic reactions and are at increased risk for contracting HIV.

question

What types of issues could Methamphetamine abuse cause?

answer

Confusion, tremors, convulsions, anxiety, paranoia, aggressiveness, hyperthermia, convulsions, heart attack or stroke and can result in death. The central nervous system actions that result from taking even small amounts of "meth" include increased wakefulness, increased physical activity, decreased appetite, increased respiration, hyperthermia and euphoria. Other effects include irritability and insomnia.

question

What types of issues could Alcohol abuse cause?

answer

Drinking small amounts of alcohol can impair judgment, coordination and reaction time. Heavy drinking over time can cause certain cancers, liver cirrhosis, immune system disorders and brain damage. Excessive drinking may lead to alcohol poisoning and even death.

question

Why has the USAF established a policy on substance abuse?

answer

Established policy provides a standard for all to adhere to, helps individuals to supervise more effectively and is a useful management tool. It is important to educate individuals that disciplinary action can be taken for violations and deter substance abuse before it happens.

question

Why is it important for you to know about the drugs described in the text?

answer

In order to lead effectively, you must stay informed and understand the challenges drugs present to individuals, understanding how they're used and the impact drugs make on a squadron. Understanding drug lingo will help you recognize when people might be using drugs. Ignoring the problem won't make it go away so continue to talk to people about current trends surrounding our installation.

question

What types of issues could illegal drug and alcohol abuse cause?

answer

Illegal drugs cause a decline in morale. They disrupt teamwork and synergy because they present discipline problems and the loss of work hours through illness or resolution appointments. Many abusers face legal issues, administrative actions can be taken by their supervisors and possible dishonorable discharge.

question

What is the focus of the USAF policy on Equal Opportunity and Treatment (EOT)?

answer

To conduct its affairs free from unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment. It provides equal opportunity and treatment for all members irrespective of their race, color, religion, or national origin, along with age and handicapping conditions in the case of civilian employees.

question

What is the difference between Equal Opportunity and Treatment (EOT) and Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO)?

answer

EOT - equal treatment of military members, EEO - civilian employment, provides equal opportunity for all applicants and employees regardless of their race, color, religion, age, sex, national origin, or handicapping condition.

question

How do the USAF Equal Opportunity (EO) policies positively impact workcenter effectiveness?

answer

They set acceptable boundaries for operating as military professionals. They help us focus on the job we're given and allows us to prevent and correct human relations issues as they arise. Fair treatment raises morale; high morale equals better productivity.

question

What are some different ways unlawful discrimination can take place?

answer

Personal discrimination - Individuals acting out against another person or group of people, Systemic discrimination - Organizational policies which act against an individual or group of people.

question

Why is personal discrimination considered unlawful?

answer

Because an individual is taking action to deprive a person or group of people a right based on their color, national origin, race, religion or sex. It can also deny an individual the opportunity to advance.

question

What are some examples of dissident/protest activities that fall under the purview of AFI 51-903, Dissident and Protest Activities?

answer

KKK, Aryan Nations/Skin Heads, Black Panthers and other activities that include active participation in organizations that encourage supremacist causes. Another example is attending a "No Blood For Oil" demonstration.

question

Define sexual assault.

answer

A criminal act/ punishable under the UCMJ. Offenses of a sexual nature, committed without lawful consent of the victim. It is different from sexual harassment because it is a crime.

question

How does sexual assault impact the workcenter?

answer

It creates anger within the workcenter, strained interpersonal relationships, communication problems, lower morale and lower productivity.

question

Why do victims of sexual assault or attempted sexual assault not seek help?

answer

Because of fear of being blamed by their leaders, peers and others, fear of reprisal, fear of sanction from perceived misconduct, fear of not being believed, it's embarrassing, lack of trust in the system, lack of knowledge of what to do, lack of awareness about the resources to help.

question

What is your role, as a supervisor, in managing human relations?

answer

Preventing, Identifying and Correcting Equal Opportunity problems.

question

What are some ways you might become aware of possible unlawful discrimination issues?

answer

Through observing and/or listening to people's interactions, subordinate complaints and from information received from your superiors.

question

How could you correct negative human relations issues?

answer

Getting both sides of the story and always taking some kind of action, Counseling individuals' for unacceptable behavior and ordering subordinates to stop any unlawful discriminatory acts. After implementing a solution, monitor the environment for compliance, document (MFR, LOC, LOR, etc.) and then report the issue if unresolved between individuals. Apply corrective actions/recommend punishment, ensure the complainant or witness don't suffer any retaliatory actions, change reporting official if necessary, rearrange shifts, remove someone from a position and, depending on the severity of the situation, refer problems up the chain of command or to the EO office.

question

Name two differences between a professional relationship and an unprofessional relationship.

answer

Professional relationships - help to contribute to the effectiveness of the USAF, help build professional relationships to enhance morale, discipline and operational effectiveness, preserve respect for authority and accomplish the mission. Unprofessional relationships - detract from the authority of superiors or result in, or reasonably create the appearance of favoritism, misuse of office or position or the abandonment of organizational goals for personal interests.

question

Define fraternization.

answer

A personal relationship between an officer and enlisted member that violates the customary bounds of acceptable behavior in the USAF and prejudices good order and discipline, discredits the armed services, or operates to the personal disgrace or dishonor of the officer involved.

question

Name at least 3 individual responsibilities involved in maintaining a personal relationship.

answer

Always "walk the talk" and be aware of how circumstances can change relationships. Always be aware of how perceptions impact work performance. As both a supervisor and leader, you should adopt USAF policy as your own personal guide and talk about it in the workplace. Have workcenter get-togethers and talk about it and build proper relationships. If you feel someone is initiating an unprofessional and inappropriate relationship with you, then confront them and remind them of their responsibility to keep the relationship strictly professional. Avoid situations that are unprofessional and if it persists report to the chain of command.

question

Describe two roles that supervisors perform in preventing unprofessional relationships.

answer

Training is an important prevention technique. Always set the standards during initial performance feedback and provide periodic workcenter briefings. Use negative examples as workcenter briefing opportunities. You must do this to maintain respect for authority and keep a professional environment. Balance supervisor and subordinate relationships by establishing good communication with subordinates and explain responsibilities. Provide a professional environment by maintaining professional relations, but don't let friendship outweigh responsibility for the mission. AS a supervisor, you have a moral obligation to posses a "service before self" attitude and follow the rules to which you made a commitment.

question

Define diversity.

answer

The fact or quality of being diverse: difference. Unlike in kind: distinct, varied; a point of respect in which things differ; variety.

question

Define the differences between primary and secondary dimensions of diversity. Give examples of each.

answer

Primary dimensions - Age, race, language, gender, physical qualities, ethnicity, cultural background, disability, sexual orientation. -Differences that are inborn and/or exert an important impact on our early socialization and an ongoing impact throughout our lives; difficult or impossible to change. Secondary dimensions - Educational level, job function, socio-economic status, personality profile, marital status, family responsibilities, religious beliefs, geographic location. -Differences that we acquire, discard and/or modify throughout our lives; easier or possible to change.

question

Identify factors that create diversity.

answer

Languages, customs, religions, moralities, race, ethnicity. - Anything that makes people different from one another. - Any characteristic associated with an individual.

question

List 5 barriers to diversity.

answer

Prejudice, Stereotyping, Unlawful Discrimination, Collusion, Ethnocentrism.

question

Describe prejudice.

answer

An adverse opinion or judgement formed beforehand or without full knowledge or complete examination of the facts. It is also a preconceived idea, preference, or bias. People aren't born prejudiced; they're influenced or taught by other to wrongfully pre-judge another individual or group.

question

Describe stereotyping.

answer

The belief that all people in a group are the same.

question

Describe Unlawful Discrimination.

answer

All written or verbal communications that degrade individuals on the basis of race, color, national origin, religion, or sex that are not otherwise authorized by law or regulation.

question

Describe Collusion.

answer

A secret agreement between two or more persons for a fraudulent or deceitful purpose. The working definition is to cooperate with others, intentionally or unintentionally, to reinforce stereotypical attitudes, prevailing behavior, and norms. There are basically three ways that people collude: silence, denial, and active participation.

question

Describe Ethnocentrism.

answer

The belief that one's own culture (or ethnic group) is superior to all others and is the standard by which all other cultures should be measured. It's the inability to put aside one's own cultural attitudes and imagine the world from the perspective of a different group.

question

Define and describe 3 types of collusion.

answer

Silence - The practice of neither supporting nor defending the right of others to be fully included in the workplace. It permits negative behavior to go unchallenged. Denial - a passive approach that simply ignores any evidence of negative behavior. It's similar to putting your head in the sand and pretending, despite evidence to the contrary, the problem doesn't exist. Active Participation - Involves actions that overtly work to prevent to inclusion of others. Promotes negative stereotypes, other forms of unfair judgements and disrespectful behavior.

question

Provide examples of how barriers to diversity affects workcenter performance.

answer

One of the most important factors in turning diversity into a strength is a respect for different cultures and for people from vastly differing backgrounds. Workcenters that respect and treat Airmen as individuals are likely to succeed better than workcenters that tend to look at individuals differently based on stereotypes.

question

Provide examples of how Prejudice affects workcenter performance.

answer

It causes suspicion, rejection, alienation, isolation, violence, abuse and bullying.

question

Provide examples of how Stereotyping affects workcenter performance.

answer

It can be damaging to self-image, self-esteem, lead to mistaken beliefs about people, lead to discrimination, lead to serious interpersonal differences, erode morale, negatively impact group dynamics and negatively impact a leader's influence.

question

Provide examples of how Unlawful Discrimination affects workcenter performance.

answer

It erodes morale, makes some feel uncomfortable, causes and anxiety.

question

Provide examples of how Collusion affects workcenter performance.

answer

It can cause serious harm in the workplace. It can be damaging to self-image, self-esteem, lead to mistaken beliefs about people, lead to discrimination, lead to serious interpersonal differences, erode morale, negatively impact group dynamics and negatively impact a leader's influence.

question

Provide examples of how Ethnocentrism affects workcenter performance.

answer

It is especially dangerous in a nation-security context because it can distort strategic thinking and result in assumptions that the adversary will behave exactly as one might behave.

question

Provide examples of skills to manage diversity.

answer

Recognize individual awareness if values and beliefs. Recognize awareness the values and beliefs of others. Assist individuals in recognized differences. Help individuals to discover similarities. Encourage Airmen to move on to the work at hand.

question

Define RESPECT as related to addressing diversity issues.

answer

Resolve conflict at the lowest level. Explore options. Sensitize yourself. Promote positive human relations. Eliminate unacceptable behaviors. Consider the needs of the unit. Take a stand.

question

Provide an example of Resolve conflict at the lowest level.

answer

If someone offends you, let them know right away.

question

Provide an example of Explore options.

answer

Try to work out agreements. However, if you can't resolve them on your own, use the chain of command if necessary.

question

Provide an example of Sensitize yourself.

answer

Empathize and be in tune with your subordinate's diversity issues.

question

Provide an example of Promote positive human relations.

answer

Model positive behavior and let USAF core values model your behavior.

question

Provide an example of Eliminate unacceptable behaviors.

answer

The USAF views any conduct that results in discrimination or prejudice as offensive and illegal. There is a zero tolerance policy: any acts of violence, harassment or threats to anyone based on diversity won't be tolerated.

question

Provide an example of Consider the needs of the unit.

answer

Teamwork is key to success in everything we do. The relationships you build will aid in the mission.

question

Provide an example of Take a stand.

answer

Uphold DoD and USAF policies against discrimination.

question

Describe the importance of cultural awareness in relation to the Air Force Mission.

answer

Without training in cultural awareness, we quickly label "wrong" to the behavior of those who do things differently. We fail to realize that individuals from other cultures are so important to our future and the USAF mission.

question

Describe the importance of religious diversity in relation to the Air Force Mission.

answer

We're sworn to defend the Constitution because it provides for the free exercise of religion, and to deny Airmen of this right is inappropriate. If we don't respect the rights of our Airmen, what does that say about us? Religion is such a personal issue especially for our deployed Airmen who are in harm's way and their faith is one of their sustaining forces. Airmen operating globally must appreciate the differences between a secular worldview and a religion-centric worldview.

question

Describe the importance of foreign language skills in relation to the Air Force Mission.

answer

Language has become a greater point of emphasis in the past several years as the military has had to manage with a shortage of people who speak languages such as Arabic and Pashto, the language spoken in much of Afghanistan. When we can communicate, we can build friendships that lead to building trust, something that's critical to successful operations. In a crisis situation, it can help reduce misunderstandings that can lead to embarrassing situations and help expedite accomplishment of critical operations.

question

Describe the importance of regional awareness.

answer

Regional awareness and familiarity includes learning about the culture and religions particular to a place. An Airman's success in their ability to do their job properly and operate in a foreign country depends on their knowledge of the cultural reality there. The Air Force and success of the mission needs Airmen who can influence the outcomes of US, allied, and coalition operations anywhere in the world.

question

Identify skills required to develop regional awareness.

answer

Airmen need language and regional training in PME. This goal will help ensure Airmen are ready to deploy and operate with people of other cultures in any region of the world. Among the objectives of the culture and language initiative are (1) develop cultural knowledge and skills to support deployments across the globe; (2) develop specialized regional expertise to optimize air, space, and cyberspace capabilities in support of theater operations anywhere in the world.

question

Give an example why cultural sensitivity is important in relation to the Air Force mission.

answer

To win hearts and minds of those from other nations. To gain support of those from other nations. To build friendships. To build trust and respect with those from other nations.

question

Provide examples of how cultural awareness, religious diversity, and foreign language skills influence mission success.

answer

When we can communicate, we can build friendships that lead to building trust, something that's critical to successful operations and can help expedite the accomplishment of important operations.

question

How do diversity skills relate to the Enlisted Force Structure?

answer

You must always exhibit a whole-hearted respect toward your fellow Airmen and the people of other nations with whom we operate. You must ensure the efforts and innovations of all Airmen are welcomed and appreciated. In so doing, you let the world know the Air Force understands and respects their diverse cultures and religions. As the Air Force transforms, so must you as both a leader and follower. Finally, remember under enemy fire, the race, religion, sex, or geographic origin of the Airman fighting next to us is irrelevant!

question

How do diversity skills relate to USAF Core Values?

answer

Regardless of religious preferences, Airmen share a common Air Force heritage in the oaths we take, core values we embrace, and mission we undertake to protect our nation. Integrity demands we respect others and that we live up to our oaths. Service Before Self demands respect for the Constitution, our Air Force, and each other as well as an understanding that in the military our service begins with a commitment to our responsibilities, not only our rights. Finally, Airmen share a commitment to a climate in which individuals of diverse beliefs form an effective team that is essential to achieving Excellence in All We Do.

STUDY

Business Management Fair Debt Collection Federal Minimum Wage Finance Long Term Goals Management Personal Finance

Personal Finance Study Guide Final Exam – Flashcards 49 terms

Owen Clarke

49 terms

Preview

Personal Finance Study Guide Final Exam – Flashcards

question

Financial Institution

answer

is a process of setting goals, developing a plan to achieve them, and putting the paln into action.

question

Debit card

answer

A card, issued by a financial institution, that allows people to withdraw money or to pay for purchases from their checking or savings accounts. In addition, the card allows access to an automatic teller machine for other purposes; also known as a cash card.

question

Credit card

answer

Some types of cards can be used just about anywhere, some only at a specific place. no payoff deadline. monthly minimum payments vary, based on the balance. usually has the highest rate of these four types of credit.

question

Interest

answer

is the amount you pay to use someone else's money.

question

Three variables that affect saving

answer

saving account, checking account, and trust fund

question

Credit

answer

someone is willing to loan you money.

question

Taxes

answer

Federal Income Taxes, the fee to support federal programs; State Income Taxes, the fee to support state programs;

question

Social Security

answer

helps pay for disabled, elderly, and orphaned minors.

question

Deductions

answer

taxes on your money

question

Gross annual income

answer

the money you earn before deductions

question

Net annual income

answer

the money you have after deductions

question

Gross monthly income

answer

the money you earn before deductions

question

Net monthly income

answer

the money you have after deductions

question

Budget

answer

it is a plan for managing money for a given period of time.

question

Fixed expenses

answer

the same amount every time

question

Variable expenses

answer

can change

question

Wants

answer

Things that are not necessary for survival

question

Needs

answer

Things that are essential to life

question

Short Term

answer

is a short term goal or payment. (1) year

question

Long Term

answer

is the length of time you have to pay off the loan. (3 to 5) Years

question

Intermediate Term

answer

is a mid term goal or payment. (1 to 3) Years

question

Income

answer

the money you receive,

question

W-2 Form

answer

keep copies of all teh forms you receive , as well as tax documents for any checking, savings, and investment accounts.

question

W-4 Form

answer

for you fill out when you start your job. you have some control over how much taxes you have to pay. the lower number of allowances the higher the taxes. you can change this form when ever you want.

question

P.Y.F. (Pay Yourself First)

answer

Pay Yourself First. helps to meet a long term financal goal.

question

Payroll Deductions

answer

a list of employees and the payments due to each employee for a specific period of time.

question

Time value of money

answer

long time means more interest. short means less money.

question

Compounding

answer

the process in which interest is earned on both the principal-the amount that was deposited-and any previously earned interest.

question

Diversification

answer

the preocess of spreading one's assets amoung several different types of investments to lessen risk.

question

Investments

answer

The ability to buy or sell an investment quickly without substantially affecting its value.

question

Rate of return

answer

The percentage of increase in the value of your savings from earned interest.

question

Rule of 72

answer

Mathematicians say that you can see how long it will take you to double your money simply by dividing 72 by the interest rate.

question

Stock

answer

a process in which the shares of stock owned by existing stockholders are divided into a larger number of shares.

question

Savings account

answer

holds money and adds interest to your money.

question

Fair Debt Collection Act

answer

Its purposes are to eliminate abusive practices in the collection of consumer debts, to promote fair debt collection and to provide consumers with an avenue for disputing and obtaining validation of debt information in order to ensure the information's accuracy.

question

Truth In Lending Act

answer

designed to protect consumers in credit transactions, by requiring clear disclosure of key terms of the lending arrangement and all costs.

question

Credit rating

answer

is a number that reflects your creditworthiness.

question

Identity Theft

answer

occurs when someone uses your name. Social Security number, credit card number, or other personal information without your permission. It is a very serious crime.

question

Online Banking

answer

means you can view your savings and checking account activity, transfer money between accounts, and even pay bills with just a few clicks of the mouse.

question

Types of insurance

answer

in law and economics, is a form of risk management primarily used to hedge against the risk of a contingent loss. Insurance is defined as the equitable transfer of the risk of a loss, from one entity to another, in exchange for a premium, and can be thought of a guaranteed small loss to prevent a large, possibly devastating loss.

question

Claim

answer

Request for payment from an insurance company to cover a financial loss

question

Conditions

answer

terms to agree to in order

question

Coverage limit

answer

the maximum amount an insurance company will pay if you file a claim.

question

Insurance Policy

answer

protection against possible financial loss

question

Premium

answer

a fee paid by a policy holder to an insurer

question

Risk

answer

the chance of loss or injury

question

Assets

answer

Any items of value that people own, including cash, property, personal possessions, and investments.

question

Entrepreneur

answer

an individual who follows his or her dreams by assuming the risk of starting a new business.

question

Annual Fee

answer

is a yearly charge you pay the privilege of using credit.

STUDY

Business Management Educational Technology Management Project Life Cycle Project Management Institute

CompTIA Project+ (Exam PK0-003) – Flashcards 338 terms

Briley Leonard

338 terms

Preview

CompTIA Project+ (Exam PK0-003) – Flashcards

question

(PMBOK) Project Management Body of Knowledge

answer

the Project Management Institute (PMI) publishes this project management guide.

question

(PMO) project management office

answer

interorganizational office that manage projects and programs.

question

project

answer

brings about a unique product, service, or result and has definite beginning and ending dates.

question

operations

answer

work that is ongoing and repetitive.

question

program

answer

a group of related projects that are managed together using coordinated processes and techniques.

question

project management

answer

the application of skills, knowledge, and management tools and techniques to fulfill the project requirements.

question

project manager

answer

leads the project team and oversees all the work required to complete the project goals to the satisfaction of the stakeholders.

question

functional organization

answer

classic organizational structure with hierarchical reporting structures.

question

matrix organization

answer

organizational structure where employees report to one functional manager and at least one project manager.

question

strong matrix

answer

matrix organization type that emphasizes project work over functional duties.

question

weak matrix

answer

matrix organization type that emphasizes functional work over project work.

question

balanced matrix

answer

matrix organization type that shares equal emphasis between projects and functional work.

question

project-based organization

answer

organizational structure focused on projects.

question

collocated

answer

team members work together at the same physical location.

question

business case

answer

formal justification for a project.

question

validating the project

answer

involves preparing the business case and identifying and analyzing the project stakeholders.

question

feasibility study

answer

determines whether the project is a viable project, the probability of project success, and the viability of the product of the project.

question

stakeholders

answer

anyone who has a vested interest in the project.

question

project sponsor

answer

authorizes the project to begin and is someone who has the ability to assign funds and resources to the project.

question

decision model

answer

formal method of project selection that helps managers make the best use of limited budgets and human resources; uses benefit measurement methods and constrained optimization models.

question

benefit measurement method

answer

type of decision model that compares the benefits obtained from a variety of new project requests by evaluating them using the same criteria and comparing the results.

question

cost-benefit analysis

answer

benefit measurement method that compares the cost to produce the product or service to the financial gain.

question

scoring model

answer

benefit measurement methods that uses a predefined list of weighted and scored criteria against which each project is ranked.

question

payback period

answer

length of time it takes a company to recover the initial cost of producing the product or service of the project.

question

economic model

answer

series of financial calculations, also known as cash flow techniques, which provide data on the overall financials of the project.

question

(DCF) discounted cash flow

answer

compares the value of the future cash flows of the project to today's dollars.

question

(NPV) net present value

answer

similar to discounted cash flows, but total present value of the cash flows is deducted from the initial investment.

question

(IRR) internal rate of return

answer

discount rate when the present value of the cash inflows equals the original investment.

question

constrained optimization models

answer

decision models using complex principles of statistics and other mathematical concepts to assess a proposed project.

question

expert judgment

answer

decision making that relies on the knowledge of those with expertise on the requested subject matter.

question

general management skills or soft skills

answer

skills that include leadership, communication, problem solving, negotiation, organization, and time management.

question

identify the project, validate the project, prepare project charter

answer

three requirements to complete pre-project setup.

question

project life cycle

answer

grouping of project phases in a sequential order from the beginning of the project to the close.

question

deliverable or critical success factor

answer

an output or result that must be completed and approved before moving to the next phase of the project.

question

initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing

answer

five process groups that define project management.

question

initiation

answer

formal authorization for the project to begin.

question

initiating

answer

process group that includes all activities that lead up to the final authorization to begin a project, starting with the original project request.

question

project charter

answer

primary output of the initiating process.

question

planning

answer

process group where project plans are developed that will be used throughout the project to direct, monitor, and control work results.

question

project plan

answer

primary output of the planning process.

question

executing

answer

process group where the work of the project is performed.

question

monitoring and controlling

answer

process group where activities are performed to analyze the progress of the project and determine whether there are variances from the project plan.

question

closing

answer

process group that documents the final delivery and acceptance of the project.

question

product description or high-level requirements

answer

explains the major characteristics of a product and describes the relationship between the business need and the product.

question

business requirements

answer

requirements that describe how the business objectives of the project will be met.

question

functional requirements

answer

defines what the product of the project will do by focusing on how the end user will interact with the product.

question

technical requirements or nonfunctional requirements

answer

product characteristics needed for the product to perform the functional requirements.

question

(RFP) request for proposal

answer

document that is sent out to potential vendors requesting them to provide a proposal on a product or service.

question

(SOW) statement of work

answer

a description of what product or service the vendor will provide and is generally included as part of a contract.

question

project champion

answer

person who fully understands, believes in, and espouses the benefits of the project to the organization.

question

project team members

answer

experts who will be performing the work associated with the project.

question

customer or client

answer

recipient of the product or service created by the project.

question

end user

answer

person who directly uses the product produced as a result of an IT project.

question

(COTS) commercial off-the-shelf

answer

a software application that is purchased from a reseller, vendor, or manufacturer.

question

enterprise

answer

the complete array of business units within an organization.

question

project charter

answer

provides formal approval for the project to begin and authorizes the project manager to apply resources, signed by project sponsor.

question

milestones

answer

major events in a project that are used to measure progress.

question

constraints

answer

anything that either restricts or dictates the actions of the project team.

question

assumptions

answer

events, actions, concepts, or ideas you believe to be true.

question

triple constraint

answer

time, budget, and quality.

question

risks

answer

pose either opportunities or threats to the project.

question

project charter

answer

contains problem statement, deliverables, milestones, costs, assumptions, constraints, risks, stakeholders, and project description.

question

decomposition

answer

process of breaking project deliverables down into smaller, manageable components of work so that work packages can be planned and estimated.

question

fast tracking

answer

starting the next phase of the project before the prior phase is completed in order to shorten the project schedule.

question

functional manager

answer

provides the employees performing the work of the project.

question

project scope

answer

includes all the components that make up the product or service of the project and the results the project intends to produce.

question

scope management plan

answer

describes how the project team will define project scope, verify the work of the project, and manage and control scope.

question

scope statement

answer

provides a common understanding of the project by documenting the project objectives and deliverables.

question

scope statement

answer

includes a product description, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints.

question

work breakdown structure

answer

breaks the project deliverables down into smaller components from which you can estimate task durations, assign resources, and estimate costs.

question

project kick-off meeting

answer

premier meeting that includes sponsor, key project team members, and key stakeholders to discuss the project charter.

question

scope creep

answer

minor changes or small additions that are made to the project outside of a formal scope change process.

question

scope planning

answer

the process of defining the scope management plan, the scope statement, and the WBS and WBS dictionary.

question

acceptance criteria or success criteria

answer

the process and the criteria that will be used to determine whether the deliverables are acceptable and satisfactory.

question

(KPIs) key performance indicators

answer

helps determine whether the project is on track and progressing as planned.

question

exclusions from scope

answer

anything that isn't included as a deliverable or work of the project, documented to prevent misunderstandings.

question

order of magnitude estimate

answer

high-level estimate of the time and cost of a project based on the actual cost and duration of a similar project.

question

scope statement

answer

approval on this document should be required before any project work is undertaken.

question

(WBS) work breakdown structure

answer

a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines all the work of the project.

question

(WBS) work breakdown structure

answer

the basis for estimating activity duration, assigning resources to activities, estimating work effort, and creating a budget.

question

work package level

answer

the lowest WBS level where resources, time, and cost estimates are determined.

question

code of accounts

answer

numeric identifiers usually associated with the corporation's chart of accounts, which are used to track costs by category.

question

WBS dictionary

answer

where the WBS levels and work component descriptions are documented including code of account identifiers, responsible party, estimates, criteria for acceptance, etc.

question

activity definition

answer

taking the work packages from the WBS and breaking them down into assignable tasks.

question

activity list

answer

a list of all activities required to complete the work of the project that also includes an identifier code and the WBS code it's associated with.

question

activity sequencing

answer

the process of identifying dependency relationships between project activities and sequencing them in proper order.

question

dependencies

answer

relationships between activities.

question

mandatory dependency

answer

dependency defined by the type of work being performed, and one activity is dependent on another activity.

question

discretionary dependency

answer

dependency defined by process or procedure, and may include best-practice techniques.

question

external dependency

answer

type of dependency where a relationship between a project task and a factor outside the project, such as weather conditions, drives the scheduling of that task.

question

predecessor

answer

a task on the network diagram that occurs before another task.

question

successor

answer

a task on the network diagram that occurs after another task.

question

finish-to-start, start-to-start, start-to-finish, and finish-to-finish

answer

name the four types of logical relationships.

question

finish-to-start

answer

in this logical relationship, the successor activity cannot begin until the predecessor activity has completed.

question

start-to-finish

answer

in this logical relationship, the predecessor activity must start before the successor activity can finish.

question

finish-to-finish

answer

in this logical relationship, the predecessor activity must finish before the successor activity finishes.

question

start-to-start

answer

in this logical relationship, the predecessor activity depends on starting before the successive activity can start.

question

network diagram

answer

depicts the project activities and the interrelationships among these activities.

question

(PDM) precedence diagramming method

answer

common network diagram that uses boxes to represent the project activities and arrows to connect the boxes and show the dependencies.

question

(ADM) arrow diagramming method

answer

network diagram that uses arrows representing project activities, and nodes as the connecting points between the activities.

question

(CDM) conditional diagramming method

answer

network diagram used to show activities that loop or repeat throughout the project, or show activities not in sequential order.

question

activity duration

answer

the process of estimating the time to complete each item on the activity list.

question

expert judgment, analogous or top-down estimating, parametric, three-point, and PERT

answer

name five of the most common methods for estimating activity duration.

question

analogous estimating or top-down estimating

answer

estimate model based on similar activities from a previous project.

question

expert judgment

answer

estimate model that relies on people most familiar with the work to create the estimate.

question

parametric estimate

answer

estimate model that is a quantitatively based, multiplying the quantity of work by the rate.

question

three-point estimate

answer

estimate model that is an average of the most likely estimate, the optimistic estimate, and the pessimistic estimate.

question

(optimistic + pessimistic + most likely) / 3

answer

a three-point estimate is calculated using this formula.

question

(PERT) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

answer

activity duration estimate that is similar to a three-point estimate, but uses a weighted average or "expected value."

question

(optimistic + pessimistic + (4 * most likely)) / 6

answer

a PERT estimate is calculated using this formula.

question

schedule development

answer

involves establishing a start date and a finish date for each of the project activities.

question

(CPM) critical path method

answer

schedule development method that determines a single early and late start date, early and late finish date, and the float for each activity on the project.

question

(CP) critical path

answer

the longest full path through the project.

question

float time or slack time

answer

amount of time the early start of a task may be delayed without delaying the finish date of the project.

question

critical path activities

answer

activities with zero float are considered this.

question

forward pass

answer

process of working from the left to the right of a network diagram in order to calculate early start and early finish dates for each activity.

question

backward pass

answer

calculating late start and late finish dates by starting at the end of a network diagram and working back through each path until reaching the start of the network diagram.

question

float time or slack time

answer

calculated by subtracting the early start from the late start or the early finish from the late finish for each activity.

question

duration compression

answer

use of techniques such as fast-tracking or crashing to shorten the planned duration of a project or to resolve schedule slippage.

question

crashing

answer

a schedule compression technique that adds resources to the project to reduce the time it takes to complete the project.

question

fast tracking

answer

a schedule compression technique performing two tasks in parallel that were previously scheduled to start sequentially.

question

milestone chart

answer

tracks the scheduled dates and actual completion dates for the major milestones.

question

Gantt charts

answer

charts that typically display tasks using a horizontal bar chart format across a timeline.

question

milestone charts or Gantt charts

answer

name the two most common ways project schedules are displayed.

question

schedule baseline

answer

the final approved version of the project schedule that includes start and finish dates, and will be used throughout the project to monitor progress.

question

communications planning

answer

the process of identifying what people or groups need to receive information regarding your project, what information each group needs, and how the information will be distributed.

question

90 percent

answer

how much time project managers should spend communicating.

question

sender-message-receiver model or the basic communication model

answer

how all communication exchange occurs, no matter what format it takes.

question

network communication model

answer

shows the lines of communication that exist between any number of project participants.

question

n (n - 1) / 2

answer

formula for calculating lines of communication, where "n" is used to represent the number of participants.

question

informal communications

answer

include phone calls and emails to and from team members, conversations in the hallway, and impromptu meetings.

question

formal communications

answer

include project kickoff meetings, team status meetings, written status reports, team building sessions, or other planned sessions.

question

project stakeholders

answer

typically includes the project sponsor, functional managers, customers, and end users.

question

stakeholder engagement plan

answer

helps identify key messages to convey to each stakeholder during project communications.

question

resource planning

answer

determines what resources are needed for the project, including human, equipment, and material.

question

human resources

answer

the people who have the experience and skills needed to complete project activities.

question

equipment

answer

resources such as servers, specialized test equipment, or additional PCs that are required for a project.

question

materials

answer

a catchall category of project resources that includes software, utilities, project supplies, or other consumable goods.

question

resource requirements document

answer

contains a description of each of the resources needed, for each of the work packages on the WBS.

question

resource pool description

answer

a listing of all the job titles within a company or department with a brief description of the job; may also list the number of people currently employed in each job title.

question

(RAM) resource assignment matrix

answer

a resource chart that defines the WBS identifier, the resource type needed for the WBS element, and the quantity of resources needed for the task.

question

RACI chart

answer

type of RAM that describes the resources needed for a task and their role for that task using the following descriptors: responsible, accountable, consult, or inform.

question

human resources planning

answer

involves defining team member roles and responsibilities, establishing an appropriate structure for team reporting, acquiring the right team members, and bringing them on the project as needed for the appropriate length of time.

question

organizational planning and staff acquisition

answer

the two components of human resources planning.

question

organizational planning

answer

process of addressing factors that may impact how to manage a project team, defining roles and responsibilities for project team members, identifying how the project team will be organized, and documenting a staffing management plan.

question

labor-union agreements, organizational structure, and economic conditions

answer

name three potential constraints when performing human resources planning.

question

environmental factors

answer

these organizational planning factors include elements such as personnel policies, location and logistics of personnel, technical factors, and interpersonal factors.

question

roles and responsibilities document

answer

document that lists each group or individual team member on the project and their responsibilities.

question

project organization chart

answer

chart that provides a snapshot of who is working on the project, and also shows the reporting structure.

question

staffing management plan

answer

documents when and how human resources will be added to and released from the project team and what they will be working on while they are part of the team.

question

staffing management plan

answer

the "blueprint" needed to manage the human resources assigned to a project.

question

staff acquisition

answer

process where team members (or organizations) who will work on the project are chosen, possibly negotiating with functional managers.

question

procurement planning

answer

the process of identifying the goods and services required for a project that will be purchased from outside the organization.

question

make-or-buy analysis

answer

determines the cost effectiveness of producing goods or services in-house versus procuring them from outside the organization.

question

indirect costs

answer

costs associated with overhead, management, and ongoing maintenance costs

question

direct costs

answer

costs that are directly attributed to the project, such as costs needed to produce a resource.

question

staff augmentation

answer

procuring contract workers if no internal resources are available for a time-critical project or if internal resources do not have the required skill sets.

question

(SOW) statement of work

answer

vendors use this detailed document to determine whether they are capable of producing the deliverables and to determine their interest in bidding on project work.

question

solicitation planning

answer

the process of identifying the requirements of the product and identifying potential sources.

question

solicitation

answer

obtaining responses from vendors to complete the project work as documented in the SOW.

question

bidder conference

answer

a meeting held by the buyer with potential vendors during the procurement process to allow vendors to ask questions and get clarification on the project.

question

request for information

answer

RFI [solicitation terminology].

question

request for proposal

answer

RFP [solicitation terminology].

question

request for quotation

answer

RFQ [solicitation terminology].

question

request for bid or invitation for bid

answer

RFB or IFB [solicitation terminology].

question

procurement planning

answer

involves using make-or-buy analysis, SOW preparation, vendor solicitation, and vendor selection criteria.

question

contract

answer

legally binding document that describes the work that will be performed, how the work will be compensated, and any penalties for noncompliance.

question

fixed-price, cost-reimbursable, and time and materials

answer

name the three types of contracts.

question

fixed-price contract

answer

states a fixed fee or price for the goods or services provided.

question

cost-reimbursable contract

answer

reimburses the seller for all the allowable costs associated with producing the goods or services outlined.

question

time and materials contract

answer

type of contract where the buyer and the seller agree on a unit rate such as an hourly rate; the total cost is unknown and will depend on the amount of time spent.

question

cost estimating

answer

the process of estimating what you will spend on all your project resources.

question

cost estimates

answer

input for developing the project budget.

question

top-down estimating or analogous estimating

answer

estimating technique that uses actual durations from similar activities on a previous project; relies on expert judgment or historical data.

question

parametric estimate

answer

mathematical model to compute costs, and it most often uses the quantity of work multiplied by the rate.

question

bottom-up estimate

answer

this model assigns a cost estimate to each work package on the project.

question

work effort or person-hour estimate

answer

total time it takes for a person to complete a task if they did nothing else from the time they started until the task was complete.

question

cost budgeting

answer

the process of aggregating all the cost estimates and establishing a cost baseline for the project.

question

cost baseline

answer

the total approved expected cost for the project used throughout the project to measure the overall cost performance.

question

project budget

answer

used to track the actual expenses incurred against the estimates.

question

project budget

answer

usually broken down by specific cost categories that are defined by the accounting department.

question

contingency reserve

answer

discretionary reserve set aside and dedicated to the project to be used to cover unforeseen issues not identified during planning.

question

management reserve

answer

discretionary reserve set aside by upper management to be used to cover future situations that can't be predicted.

question

quality planning

answer

the process of identifying quality standards that are applicable to a project and determining how the project will meet these standards.

question

cost of quality

answer

total cost of all the work required to assure a project meets quality standards including cost of nonconformance, rework, and quality assessments.

question

cost-benefit analysis

answer

quality planning tool used to consider the trade-offs of the cost of quality

question

benchmarking

answer

quality planning tool used that uses similar activities as a means of comparison.

question

flowcharting

answer

quality planning tool that often uses a diagram and checkpoints to assess the quality of a particular activity before the next step is started.

question

prevention, appraisal, and failure

answer

name three types of costs associated with quality.

question

prevention costs

answer

quality cost of keeping defects out of the hands of the customers including quality planning, training, design review, contractor or supplier costs, and any testing.

question

appraisal costs

answer

quality cost of activities performed to examine product or processes and confirm that quality requirements are being met including inspection, testing, and formal quality audits.

question

failure costs or cost of poor quality

answer

quality cost of activities required if the product fails.

question

internal failure costs

answer

quality costs resulting when customer requirements are not met, but the product is still in the control of the organization.

question

external failure costs

answer

quality costs resulting when a product has reached the customer and they determine it doesn't meet their requirements.

question

quality management plan

answer

documents how the project team will carry out the quality policy; is the basis for quality control when in project execution.

question

quality metric

answer

a standard of measurement that specifically defines what will be measured and how it will be measured.

question

quality checklist

answer

a quality tool that lists a series of steps that must be taken to complete an activity or process.

question

exit criteria

answer

criteria that must be met at the completion of a milestone or project.

question

risk

answer

a potential future event that can have either negative or positive impacts on the project.

question

risk planning

answer

concerns how the areas of uncertainty in a project are managed.

question

risk identification, risk analysis, and risk response

answer

name the three components of risk planning.

question

risk identification

answer

the process of determining and documenting the potential risks that could occur on a project.

question

risk list or risk register

answer

includes an identification number, risk name, risk description, and risk owner.

question

risk owner

answer

person in a project who monitors a risk probability and is responsible for implementing the risk response if needed.

question

risk analysis

answer

process of identifying risks that have the greatest possibility of occurring and the greatest impact to a project if they do occur.

question

qualitative risk analysis

answer

a subjective approach to determine the likelihood that a risk will actually occur and the impact to the project if it does occur.

question

quantitative risk analysis

answer

complex mathematical approach to numerically identify and focus on risks that are the most critical to the success of a project.

question

risk probability

answer

the likelihood that a risk event will occur, expressed as a number from 0.0 to 1.0.

question

risk impact

answer

the amount of damage (or opportunity) a risk poses to the project if it occurs.

question

probability and impact matrix

answer

chart used to help calculate a final risk score for different risks, determined by multiplying the probability by the impact score.

question

risk response planning

answer

process that describes how to reduce threats and take advantage of opportunities, documents the plan for negative and positive risk events, and assigns owners to each risk.

question

avoiding, transferring, mitigating, and accepting

answer

name four strategies for responding to negative risks.

question

exploiting, sharing, and enhancing

answer

name three strategies for responding to positive risk opportunities.

question

avoiding

answer

act of evading a risk altogether or eliminating the cause of the risk event.

question

transferring

answer

act of moving the liability of a risk to a third party.

question

mitigating

answer

act of reducing the impact or the probability of a risk.

question

accepting

answer

act of affirming the consequences of a risk.

question

exploiting

answer

searching for opportunities to take advantage of positive impacts.

question

sharing

answer

assigning a risk to a third party who is best able to execute on an opportunity.

question

enhancing

answer

monitoring the probability or impact of a risk event to assure benefits are realized.

question

contingency planning

answer

planning alternatives to deal with risks should they occur.

question

risk triggers

answer

sign or a precursor signaling that a risk event is about to occur.

question

project management plan

answer

final approved documented plan used to execute a project and measure project progress and success.

question

project management plan

answer

includes scope statement, project schedule, communications plan, resource plan, procurement plan, project budget, quality management plan, and the risk management plan.

question

transition plan

answer

describes how the final product or service of a project will be turned over to an organization.

question

cost-benefit analysis, benchmarking, flowcharting, and cost of quality

answer

name four quality planning tools and techniques.

question

ownership, transition dates, training, extended support, and warranties

answer

name five components of a transition plan.

question

forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning

answer

name the series of development stages for a group or team.

question

forming

answer

the beginning stage of team development, when members are introduced and told the objectives of the project.

question

storming

answer

stage of team development where members contend for position and control.

question

norming

answer

stage of team development where members begin to deal with project problems instead of people problems.

question

performing

answer

stage of team development where members are productive and efficient.

question

adjourning

answer

stage of team development that occurs after work has been completed and the team is dissolved.

question

team building

answer

processes involved in getting diverse groups of people to work together efficiently and effectively.

question

conflict

answer

the incompatibility of goals.

question

competing resource demands, varying work styles, and conflicting expert judgment

answer

name three common causes of conflict.

question

smoothing, forcing, compromise, confronting or problem solving, avoiding, and negotiating

answer

name six techniques used in managing conflict.

question

smoothing

answer

a temporary conflict management technique where areas of agreement are emphasized over areas of difference; a lose-lose result.

question

forcing

answer

conflict management technique where one person enacts a solution on another party; a win-lose result.

question

compromise

answer

conflict management technique where each of the parties involved in the conflict give up something to reach a solution; a null-null result.

question

confronting or problem solving

answer

conflict management technique that proposes one right solution to a problem exists and that the facts will bear out that solution; a win-win result.

question

avoiding or withdrawal

answer

conflict management technique where one party in the conflict withdraws and refuses further debate; a lose-lose result.

question

negotiating

answer

conflict management technique usually involving a third party who arbitrates and helps all parties reach an agreement.

question

confronting or problem solving

answer

the most effective conflict resolution technique often employed by a project manager producing a win-win result.

question

project kickoff meeting

answer

a time to formally introduce project team members, review goals and the deliverables for the project, discuss roles and responsibilities, and to review stakeholder expectations.

question

organizational governance

answer

recognizes the importance of regulations, laws, and other standards or internal processes that may impact the project.

question

organizational governance

answer

includes standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase gate approval.

question

phase gate approval

answer

involves formally reviewing the project at specific points to determine whether the project should proceed.

question

change control systems

answer

documented procedures that describe how the deliverables of a project are controlled, changed, and approved; also describe the documentation required to request and track the changes and updates the project plan.

question

integrated change control system

answer

system that manages change requests, determines the global impacts of a change, and updates all impacted portions of the project plan when a change is made.

question

scope control

answer

involves monitoring the status of project scope, monitoring changes to the project scope, and monitoring work results to ensure that they match expected outcomes.

question

schedule control

answer

entails determining that a change to the schedule is needed, taking the appropriate action to deal with the schedule change, and updating the schedule based on changes in other areas of the project plan.

question

risk control

answer

implements the risk prevention strategies or contingency plans developed in the risk response plan, monitors the results of preventative actions, and assesses new risks to the project.

question

factors that may cause change

answer

these include stakeholder requests, team member recommendations, vendor issues, risks, project constraints, etc.

question

corrective actions

answer

change request actions that bring the work of a project into alignment with the project plan.

question

preventive actions

answer

change request actions implemented to help reduce the probability of a negative risk event.

question

defect repairs

answer

change request to either correct or replace components that are substandard or are malfunctioning.

question

(CCB) change control board

answer

board responsible for reviewing and approving, denying, or delaying change requests.

question

scope, schedule, cost, and quality

answer

name the four primary targets of change control.

question

infrastructure changes

answer

the element of a project that will remain permanently after the project is completed.

question

scope change

answer

any modification to the agreed-upon WBS.

question

scope baseline

answer

consists of the scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary.

question

scope verification

answer

process that concerns formally accepting the deliverables of the project and obtaining sign-off that they're complete.

question

project schedule and product scope

answer

changes to project scope always require changes to these as well.

question

schedule update

answer

any change that is made to the project schedule as part of the ongoing work involved with managing a project.

question

revision

answer

an update to the approved start or end date of the schedule baseline, typically a result of approved scope changes.

question

rebaselining

answer

setting a new project baseline because of substantial changes to the schedule or the budget.

question

residual risks

answer

risks that are left over from a risk occurrence itself or left over after the risk responses have been planned.

question

secondary risks

answer

risks that occur as a result of the original risk event or as a direct result of implementing a risk response.

question

reporting performance

answer

process where the collection of baseline data occurs and is documented and reported.

question

dashboards

answer

type of performance report that uses indicators like red-yellow-green to show the status of each area of the project at a glance.

question

change management process

answer

includes change request forms, change request log, analysis of changes, CCB, communication with stakeholders, and updating the affected project planning documents.

question

quality control

answer

involves monitoring project deliverables against the project requirements and the quality baseline to ensure that the project is delivering according to plan.

question

cost control

answer

involves monitoring the expenses of a project and assures costs stay in alignment with the performance baseline.

question

variance analysis, trend analysis, and earned value

answer

name three tools used to monitor and report project performance regarding costs, schedule, and estimated completion times.

question

managing stakeholder expectations

answer

concerns satisfying the communication needs of the stakeholders.

question

inspection

answer

a quality control technique that includes examining, measuring, or testing work results.

question

costs associated with inspection

answer

these factors include rework, labor costs, material costs, and potential loss of customers.

question

tolerable results

answer

measurements that fall within a specified range.

question

attribute sampling

answer

inspection technique that determines whether a sample is conforming or nonconforming to the requirements.

question

prevention

answer

quality control tool and technique that keeps errors from reaching the customer.

question

unit testing

answer

involves testing sections of code as they're written to verify they operate properly.

question

module testing

answer

involves testing discreet units or sections of programming code.

question

system testing

answer

involves testing fully integrated product for functionality, and ensures customer will receive what they expect.

question

(UAT) user acceptance testing

answer

testing involving end users of a system, ensuring that the system meets the requirements laid out in the scope statement.

question

Pareto diagram

answer

diagram used to rank the importance of a problem based on its frequency of occurrence over time.

question

control chart

answer

type of graph showing the variance of several samples of the same process over time based on a mean, an upper control limit, and a lower control limit.

question

trend analysis

answer

a mathematical technique that can be used to predict future defects based on historical results.

question

run charts

answer

type of chart used to show variations in the process over time or to show trends (such as improvements or the lack of improvements) in the process.

question

Ishikawa diagram, cause-and-effect diagram, or fishbone diagram

answer

type of diagram that shows the relationship between the effects of problems and their causes.

question

common causes of variances

answer

variances that come about as a result of circumstances that are common to the process you're performing and are easily controlled at the operational level.

question

random, known or predictable, and variances that are always present in the process

answer

name the three types of variances that make up the common causes of variances.

question

rework

answer

any action that is taken as a result of quality activities to correct a defect.

question

acceptance

answer

decision to tolerate the defects that are found as a result of the quality testing.

question

(EVM) earned value measurement

answer

a tool and technique of the cost control process that compares what you're received or produced as of the measurement date to what you've spent; requires planned value, actual cost, and earned value.

question

(EVM) earned value measurement

answer

the most often used performance measurement method.

question

(PV) planned value or budgeted cost of work scheduled (BCWS)

answer

cost of work that's been budgeted for an activity during a certain time period.

question

(AC) actual cost or actual cost of work performed (ACWP)

answer

cost to complete a component of work in a given time period including direct and indirect costs.

question

(EV) earned value or budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP)

answer

value of the work completed to date as it compares to the budgeted amount for the work component.

question

cost variance

answer

difference between a task's value at the measurement date and its actual cost.

question

CV = EV - AC

answer

cost variance formula.

question

(SV) schedule variance

answer

difference between a task's progress as compared to its estimated progress represented in terms of cost.

question

SV = EV - PV

answer

schedule variance formula.

question

efficiency indicators

answer

term for CV and SV when used to compare the performance of all the projects in a portfolio.

question

(CPI) cost performance index

answer

measures the value of the work completed at the measurement date against actual cost; the most critical of all EVM measurements; acts as an efficiency rating.

question

CPI = EV / AC

answer

cost performance index formula.

question

(SPI) schedule performance index

answer

measures the progress to date against the progress that was planned; acts as an efficiency rating.

question

SPI = EV / PV

answer

schedule performance index formula.

question

(EAC) estimate at completion

answer

a forecast of the total cost of the project based on both current project performance and the remaining work.

question

EAC = AC + ETC

answer

estimate at completion formula.

question

(BAC) budget at completion

answer

the total amount of the project budget for a work package, control account, or schedule activity, or for the project.

question

(ETC) estimate to complete

answer

the cost estimate for the remaining project work, as provided by the project team members.

question

(TCPI) to-complete performance index

answer

the projected performance level that must be achieved in the remaining work of the project in order to satisfy financial or schedule goals; numbers greater than one mean that efficiency must increase.

question

TCPI = (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)

answer

to-complete performance index formula.

question

variance analysis

answer

the comparison of planned project results with actual project results.

question

(VAC) variance at completion

answer

calculates the difference between the budget at completion and the estimate at completion.

question

VAC = BAC - EAC

answer

variance at completion formula.

question

project reports

answer

includes the project status reports and minutes from project meetings, lessons learned, closure reports, and other documents from all the processes throughout the project.

question

project presentations

answer

involves presenting project information to the stakeholders and other appropriate parties when necessary.

question

project records

answer

include memos, correspondence, and other documents concerning the project.

question

lessons learned

answer

information gathered throughout the project (and again at the end of a project phase or the end of the project) that documents the successes and failures of the project.

question

distribute information process

answer

practice concerned with making sure project information is available to stakeholders at the right time and in the appropriate format; uses the communication management plan.

question

managing stakeholder expectations process

answer

involves communicating, resolving issues, improving project performance by implementing change requests, and managing concerns.

question

close project or phase and close procurements

answer

the two processes involved in the closing process group.

question

addition, starvation, integration, and extinction

answer

name the four formal types of project endings.

question

addition

answer

a type of project ending that occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations.

question

starvation

answer

a type of project ending where resources are cut off from the project.

question

integration

answer

a type of project ending where the resources of the project are reassigned or redeployed to other projects or other activities within the organization.

question

extinction

answer

a type of project ending that occurs when the project is completed and accepted by the stakeholders.

question

obtaining formal written sign-off and acceptance

answer

primary focus of the closing process group.

question

formal acceptance

answer

includes distributing notice of the acceptance of the project results to the stakeholders.

question

close procurements

answer

the process of completing and settling the terms of the contract and documenting acceptance.

question

product verification

answer

occurs in the close procurements process and determines whether the work of the contract is acceptable and satisfactory.

question

administrative closure

answer

involves gathering and disseminating information to formalize project closure, primarily lessons learned and the notice of acceptance.

question

post-project review

answer

conducted at the end of the project to document lessons learned.

question

post-mortem analysis

answer

performed when a project is canceled or ends prematurely, describes the reasons for cancellation or failure and documents the deliverables that were completed.

question

project close report

answer

report distributed to the stakeholders and includes the project's goal, the statement of acceptance, a summary of costs and schedule data, and lessons learned data.

question

steps involved in closing a project or phase

answer

includes obtaining sign-off, transferring the product, releasing project resources, closing out contracts, administrative closure, documenting historical data, conducting post-mortem analysis, and conducting post-project reviews.

STUDY

Goods And Services Management Operations Management

ISDS ch1 – Flashcard 45 terms

Jamie Hutchinson

45 terms

Preview

ISDS ch1 – Flashcard

question

At Hard Rock Café, tasks that reflect operations or operations management include: a. designing meals b. testing meals (recipes) c. analyzing meals for the cost of ingredients d. preparing employee schedules e. all of the above

answer

question

An operations task performed at Hard Rock Café is a. borrowing funds to build a new restaurant b. advertising changes in the restaurant menu c. calculating restaurant profit and loss d. preparing employee schedules e. all of the above

answer

question

Operations management is applicable a. mostly to the service sector b. to services exclusively c. mostly to the manufacturing sector d. to all firms, whether manufacturing and service e. to the manufacturing sector exclusively

answer

question

Which of the following are the primary functions of all organizations? a. operations, marketing, and human resources b. marketing, human resources, and finance/accounting c. sales, quality control, and operations d. marketing, operations, and finance/accounting e. research and development, finance/accounting, and purchasing

answer

question

Budgeting, paying the bills, and collection of funds are activities associated with the a. management function b. control function c. finance/accounting function d. production/operations function e. staffing function

answer

question

Which of the following would not be an operations function in a fast-food restaurant? a. advertising and promotion b. designing the layout of the facility c. maintaining equipment d. making hamburgers and fries e. purchasing ingredients

answer

question

The marketing function's main concern is with a. producing goods or providing services b. procuring materials, supplies, and equipment c. building and maintaining a positive image d. generating the demand for the organization's products or services e. securing monetary resources

answer

question

Reasons to study Operations Management include a. studying why people organize themselves for free enterprise b. knowing how goods and services are consumed c. understanding what human resource managers do d. learning about a costly part of the enterprise e. all of the above

answer

question

Reasons to study Operations Management include learning about a. why people organize themselves for productive enterprise b. how goods and services are produced c. what operations managers do d. a costly part of the enterprise e. all of the above

answer

question

The five elements in the management process are a. plan, direct, update, lead, and supervise b. accounting/finance, marketing, operations, and management c. organize, plan, control, staff, and manage d. plan, organize, staff, lead, and control e. plan, lead, organize, manage, and control

answer

question

Illiteracy and poor diets have been known to cost countries up to what percent of their productivity? a. 2% b. 5% c. 10% d. 20% e. 50%

answer

question

Which of the following is not an element of the management process? a. controlling b. leading c. planning d. pricing e. staffing

answer

question

An operations manager is not likely to be involved in a. the design of goods and services to satisfy customers' wants and needs b. the quality of goods and services to satisfy customers' wants and needs c. the identification of customers' wants and needs d. work scheduling to meet the due dates promised to customers e. maintenance schedules

answer

question

All of the following decisions fall within the scope of operations management except for a. financial analysis b. design of goods and processes c. location of facilities d. managing quality e. All of the above fall within the scope of operations management.

answer

question

The Ten Critical Decisions of Operations Management include a. Layout strategy b. Maintenance c. Process and capacity design d. Managing quality e. all of the above

answer

question

Which of the following is not one of The Ten Critical Decisions of Operations Management? a. Layout strategy b. Maintenance c. Process and capacity design d. Mass customization e. Supply chain management

answer

question

The Ten Critical Decisions of Operations Management include a. Finance/accounting b. Advertising c. Process and capacity design d. Pricing e. all of the above

answer

question

Walter Shewhart is listed among the important people of operations management because of his contributions to a. assembly line production b. measuring the productivity in the service sector c. just-in-time inventory methods d. statistical quality control e. all of the above

answer

question

Walter Shewhart, in the _____, provided the foundations for ______ in operations management. a. 1920s; statistical sampling b. United Kingdom; mass production c. U.S. Army; logistics d. nineteenth century; interchangeable parts e. none of the above

answer

question

Eli Whitney, in the _____, provided the foundations for ______ in operations management. a. 1920s; statistical sampling b. United Kingdom; mass production c. U.S. Army; logistics d. nineteenth century; interchangeable parts e. none of the above

answer

question

The person most responsible for popularizing interchangeable parts in manufacturing was a. Frederick Winslow Taylor b. Henry Ford c. Eli Whitney d. Whitney Houston e. Lillian Gilbreth

answer

question

The "Father of Scientific Management" is a. Henry Ford b. Frederick W. Taylor c. W. Edwards Deming d. Frank Gilbreth e. just a figure of speech, not a reference to a person

answer

question

Henry Ford is noted for his contributions to a. standardization of parts b. statistical quality control c. assembly line operations d. scientific management e. time and motion studies

answer

question

Who among the following is associated with contributions to quality control in operations management? a. Charles Babbage b. Henry Ford c. Frank Gilbreth d. W. Edwards Deming e. Henri Fayol

answer

question

The field of operations management is shaped by advances in which of the following fields? a. chemistry and physics b. industrial engineering and management science c. biology and anatomy d. information technology e. all of the above

answer

question

Which of the following statements is true? a. Almost all services and almost all goods are a mixture of a service and a tangible product. b. A pure good has no tangible product component. c. A pure service has only a tangible product component. d. There is no such thing as a pure good. e. None of the above is a true statement.

answer

question

Which of the following statements is true? a. The person most responsible for initiating use of interchangeable parts in manufacturing was Eli Whitney. b. The origins of management by exception are generally credited to Frederick W. Taylor. c. The person most responsible for initiating use of interchangeable parts in manufacturing was Walter Shewhart. d. The origins of the scientific management movement are generally credited to Henry Ford. e. The person most responsible for initiating use of interchangeable parts in manufacturing was Henry Ford.

answer

question

The service industry makes up approximately what percentage of all jobs in the United States? a. 12% b. 40% c. 66% d. 79% e. 90%

answer

question

Typical differences between goods and services do not include a. cost per unit b. ability to inventory items c. timing of production and consumption d. customer interaction e. knowledge content

answer

question

Which is not true regarding differences between goods and services? a. Services are generally produced and consumed simultaneously; tangible goods are not. b. Services tend to be more knowledge-based than products. c. Services tend to have a more inconsistent product definition than goods. d. Goods tend to have higher customer interaction than services. e. None of the above is true.

answer

question

Which of the following is not a typical attribute of goods? a. output can be inventoried b. often easy to automate c. aspects of quality difficult to measure d. output can be resold e. production and consumption are separate

answer

question

Which of the following services is least likely to be unique, i.e., customized to a particular individual's needs? a. dental care b. hairdressing c. legal services d. elementary education e. computer consulting

answer

question

Which of the following is not a typical service attribute? a. intangible product b. easy to store c. customer interaction is high d. simultaneous production and consumption e. difficult to resell

answer

question

Which of the following statements concerning growth of services is true? a. Services now constitute the largest economic sector in postindustrial societies. b. The number of people employed in manufacturing has more or less held steady since 1950. c. Each manufacturing employee now produces about 20 times more than in 1950 d. All of the above are true. e. None of the above is true.

answer

question

Current trends in operations management include all of the following except a. just-in-time performance b. rapid product development c. mass customization d. empowered employees e. All of the above are current trends.

answer

question

Which of the following is not a current trend in operations management? a. just-in-time performance b. global focus c. supply chain partnering d. mass customization e. All of the above are current trends.

answer

question

One new trend in operations management is a. global focus b. mass customization c. empowered employees d. rapid product development e. All of the above are new trends in operations management.

answer

question

Which of the following statements about trends in operations management is false? a. Job specialization is giving way to empowered employees. b. Local or national focus is giving way to global focus. c. Environmentally-sensitive production is giving way to low-cost focus. d. Rapid product development is partly the result of shorter product cycles. e. All of the above statements are true.

answer

question

A foundry produces circular utility access hatches (manhole covers). If 120 covers are produced in a 10-hour shift, the productivity of the line is a. 1.2 covers/hr b. 2 covers/hr c. 12 covers/hr d. 1200 covers/hr e. none of the above

answer

question

A foundry produces circular utility access hatches (manhole covers). Currently, 120 covers are produced in a 10-hour shift. If labor productivity can be increased by 20%, it would then be a. 14.4 covers/hr b. 24 covers/hr c. 240 valves/hr d. 1200 covers/hr e. none of the above

answer

question

Gibson Valves produces cast bronze valves on an assembly line. If 1600 valves are produced in an 8-hour shift, the productivity of the line is a. 2 valves/hr b. 40 valves/hr c. 80 valves/hr d. 200 valves/hr e. 1600 valves/hr

answer

question

Gibson Valves produces cast bronze valves on an assembly line, currently producing 1600 valves each 8-hour shift. If the productivity is increased by 10%, it would then be a. 180 valves/hr b. 200 valves/hr c. 220 valves/hr d. 880 valves/hr e. 1760 valves/hr

answer

question

Gibson Valves produces cast bronze valves on an assembly line, currently producing 1600 valves per shift. If the production is increased to 2000 valves per shift, labor productivity will increase by a. 10% b. 20% c. 25% d. 40% e. 50%

answer

question

The Dulac Box plant produces 500 cypress packing boxes in two 10-hour shifts. What is the productivity of the plant? a. 25 boxes/hr b. 50 boxes/hr c. 5000 boxes/hr d. none of the above e. not enough data to determine productivity

answer

question

The Dulac Box plant works two 8-hour shifts each day. In the past, 500 cypress packing boxes were produced by the end of each day. The use of new technology has enabled them to increase productivity by 30%. Productivity is now approximately a. 32.5 boxes/hr b. 40.6 boxes/hr c. 62.5 boxes/hr d. 81.25 boxes/hr e. 300 boxes/hr

answer

STUDY

Australia Business Management Conflict Management Financial Management Group Decision Making Internal Locus Of Control Management Myers Briggs Type Indicator Research Evidence Suggests That

MGMT 310 Final – Flashcards 100 terms

Livia Baldwin

100 terms

Preview

MGMT 310 Final – Flashcards

question

Individuals have the tendency to expend less effort when working collectively than when working individually. Which of the following concepts relates most closely to this behavior?

answer

social loafing

question

A low-to-moderate level of task conflict consistently has a positive effect on group performance. What is the reason for this?

answer

It stimulates discussion of ideas that help groups be more innovative

question

Behavior patterns expected of someone occupying a given position in a social unit is called a ________.

answer

role

question

Asch's experiment, which used lines of varying lengths to test group behavior, has shown the existence of ________.

answer

workplace conformity

question

Research on conformity suggests that ________.

answer

conformity is a culture-bound behavior

question

Which of the following is true about social loafing?

answer

It is common in cultures that are dominated by self-interest

question

A social network structure refers to ________.

answer

the informal connections among individuals within groups

question

In which stage of group development does the group focus its attention on wrapping up activities instead of task performance?

answer

adjourning

question

The acceptable standards or expectations that are shared by a group's members are referred to as ________.

answer

norms

question

Leadership is very important to effective teams. In most cases, effective team leaders act as ________.

answer

facilitators

question

Which of the following is a benefit of global teams

answer

Global teams usually have a greater diversity of ideas.

question

An organization brings together members from various departments such as marketing, accounting, human resources, and finance to form a team. This is an example of a ________ team.

answer

cross-functional

question

The ________ stage of the group development process is one in which close relationships develop and the group becomes cohesive.

answer

norming

question

Which of the following countries is most likely to assign status based on accomplishments rather than on titles and family history?

answer

Australia

question

In comparison to large groups, small groups ________.

answer

are faster at completing tasks

question

________ conflict relates to the content and goals of the work.

answer

Task

question

________ interact primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member do his or her job more efficiently and effectively.

answer

Work groups

question

Which of the following suggestions will help reduce the effect of social loafing in groups?

answer

clearly identify individual responsibilities

question

Which of the following stages in group development involves defining the group's structure and leadership?

answer

forming

question

An incentive system which appropriately recognizes team activities is an example of which of the following characteristics of effective teams?

answer

internal support

question

The influence of models depends on how well an individual remembers the model's behavior. This refers to the individual's ________.

answer

retention process

question

________ is the tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors such as ability or effort while putting the blame for personal failure on external factors such as luck

answer

Self-serving bias

question

Which component of attitude is reflected in the sentence "This is the best way to reach the place"?

answer

cognitive

question

A manager makes decisions very quickly and requires little information for making the decisions. Which of the following is a likely reason for this?

answer

The manager is high in risk-taking.

question

A person who believes that what happens to him is due to luck or chance is said to have a(n) ________.

answer

external locus of control

question

Which of the following is true for organizational citizenship behavior (OCB)?

answer

OCB is discretionary behavior which promotes the effective functioning of the organization.

question

In the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), "sensing" personality types are those who ________.

answer

have a high need for closure and show patience with routine details

question

________ is a personality trait that measures an individual's ability to adjust his or her behavior according to external situational factors.

answer

Self-monitoring

question

According to research, employees who have a high internal locus of control ________.

answer

exhibit more satisfaction with their jobs than externals

question

The study of group behavior includes the study of ________.

answer

norms, roles, and leadership

question

By using ________, we form a general impression about a person based on only a single characteristic, such as intelligence or appearance.

answer

the halo effect

question

Which of the following is true of a person who believes that "the ends justify the means"?

answer

He is likely to be high in Machiavellianism.

question

When someone chooses to act in a certain way, she is demonstrating the ________ component of her attitude.

answer

behavioral

question

The degree to which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization is the employee's ________.

answer

organizational commitment

question

The regular use of ________ can alert managers to potential problems and employees' intentions early enough to do something about them.

answer

attitude surveys

question

If you believe that you control your own destiny, which of the following personality traits are you likely to possess?

answer

internal locus of control

question

Which of the following is associated with the study of individuals?

answer

perception

question

________ behavior is voluntary or learned behavior.

answer

Operant

question

Individual behavior in organizations inlcudes ________.

answer

attitudes, learning, and motivation

question

Which of the following is true for Gen Y workers?

answer

They are knowledgeable and willing workers, but do not compromise on their personal lives.

question

The ________ communication system within an organization permits employees to satisfy their need for social interaction with their peers.

answer

informal

question

George prepares a memorandum explaining the objectives of a newly created work team that he is expected to manage, and makes sure it reaches each team member. He is involved in ________.

answer

organizational communication

question

Which of the following describes the number of different messages that can be transmitted using a particular method of communication?

answer

breadth potential

question

________ communication keeps managers aware of how employees feel about their jobs, their coworkers, and the organization in general.

answer

Upward

question

An organization's grapevine works as ________.

answer

a filter and a feedback mechanism for managers

question

CISCO's Unified Personal Communicator allows fast and easy access to voice, video, instant messaging, web conferencing, voicemail, and presence capabilities through a single, multimedia interface on your PC or Mac. Which of the following aspects of communication problems does this personal communicator address?

answer

time-space constraint

question

Because rumors that flow along the grapevine can never be eliminated entirely, managers can minimize the negative consequences of rumors by ________.

answer

communicating openly and honestly with employees

question

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using IT in organizational communication?

answer

psychological costs

question

In a ________ communication network, all communication passes through a clearly identifiable leader to the others in a team and upward from team members to the leader.

answer

wheel

question

Which of the following management styles will most likely encourage upward communication?

answer

participative

question

In which of the following cases has communication occurred?

answer

Ana tells her manager that she needs a new computer, but he says that the company can't afford it.

question

lec is hired as a senior analyst at Tech Research Institute and is assigned to a project with four other researchers. He soon realizes that two of his team mates do not see eye-to-eye on many issues. Far from being solved, the situation escalates over the next couple of months. This bothers Alec a great deal because he is expected to coordinate his work with them. He decides to speak to his manager about the problem and seek his advise. In this example, communication is being used ________.

answer

to control

question

Jargon is ________.

answer

specialized terminology that members of a group use to communicate among themselves

question

When an organization has an interest in increasing the efficiency and speed of communication between managers at different levels and in different departments, then ________.

answer

diagonal communication should be used

question

When a manager asks an employee to complete a task, he or she is using ________ communication.

answer

formal

question

Which of the following is true for active listeners?

answer

They should not interrupt the speaker, but should feel free to ask questions about the topic.

question

Which of the following methods of communication should be used when the sender requires quick and accurate feedback?

answer

face-to-face

question

In the all-channel network, communication flows ________.

answer

freely among all members of a formal work team

question

Though IT has improved organizational communications in recent years, ________ remains a major concern.

answer

security

question

Which of the following is true of nonverbal communication?

answer

It carries greater impact than verbal communication.

question

________ refers to the degree of control employees have over their work.

answer

Job depth

question

In the context of Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, when a company has a space where employees can meet during breaks and catch up with each other, the company is taking care of the employees' ________ needs.

answer

social

question

________ refers to the vertical expansion of a job by adding planning and evaluating responsibilities.

answer

Job enrichment

question

________ theory says that behavior is a function of its consequences.

answer

Reinforcement

question

Which of the following are the three needs identified in the three-needs theory of motivation?

answer

need for achievement, need for power, need for affiliation

question

According to the three-needs theory, the need for ________ is the desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships.

answer

affiliation

question

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following is a motivator?

answer

responsibility

question

"In jobs today, employees rely more and more on those around them for information, advice, and assistance." Which of the following approaches to job design best reflects this statement?

answer

the relational perspective of work design

question

In the job characteristics model, ________ refers to the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work.

answer

task identity

question

Frederick Herzberg's two-factor theory proposes that ________.

answer

extrinsic factors are associated with job dissatisfaction

question

In the expectancy theory, ________ is the degree to which the individual believes that performing at a particular level is instrumental in attaining the desired outcome

answer

performance-reward linkage

question

________ and his associates proposed the three-needs theory.

answer

David McClelland

question

Jacob is Project Manager at a large software services company. In a bid to maximize his team's productivity, Jacob decides to follow the goal-setting theory. In line with the principles of the theory, he sets specific, difficult goals for all of his team members and ensures that they understand and accept the new standards. Which of the following facts, if true would support Jacob's strategy?

answer

Jacob's company operates exclusively in the United States and has a policy of hiring from the local communities to ensure sensitivity to customer needs.

question

According to the JCM, which three job characteristics are crucial to an employee experiencing meaningfulness of his or her work?

answer

skill variety, task identity, and task significance

question

McGregor's Theory Y assumes that employees ________.

answer

enjoy work

question

In the context of Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, when a company names an "Employee of the Month" and "Employee of the Quarter", the company is addressing employees' ________ needs.

answer

esteem

question

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, when an employer provides his employees health insurance, he is taking care of their ________ needs.

answer

safety

question

answer

Jacob's team handles development projects that are critical to the company and is comprised largely of carefully selected high-achievers who excel at their work.

question

The hierarchy of needs theory of motivation was proposed by ________, a psychologist who proposed that within every person is a hierarchy of five needs.

answer

Abraham Maslow

question

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, ________ needs are predominantly satisfied externally while ________ needs are satisfied internally.

answer

safety; self-actualization

question

When a young child emulates a professional sports star's behavior, what kind of power does the star have over the child?

answer

referent

question

Tim Waverly heads the financial analysis team at ABC Corp. and has done so for the last eight years. In all his years as a manager, he has come to realize one aspect about leading people-a supportive leadership style brings out the best in people and in work. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken Tim's argument that a supportive leadership style is highly effective

answer

Tim's subordinates are unclear about their roles within the team.

question

According to the Ohio State studies, the ________ dimension of leader behavior is defined as the extent to which a leader has job relationships characterized by mutual trust and respect for group members' ideas and feelings.

answer

consideration

question

This managerial grid used the behavioral dimensions "concern for people" and ________ and evaluated a leader's use of these behaviors, ranking them on a scale from 1 (low) to 9 (high).

answer

"concern for production"

question

One general conclusion that surfaces from leadership research is that ________.

answer

effective leaders do not use any single style

question

When Alan Jackman got promoted as the head of the sales team at Mac Software Inc., he chose three of his closest friends in the team to form the core sales group with him. Which of the following predictions would be consistent with the LMX theory?

answer

There will be a higher turnover among team members who are not a part of the core group.

question

Which of the following describes the leadership style in which a leader tends to centralize authority, dictate work methods, make unilateral decisions, and limit employee participation?

answer

autocratic style

question

At Falcons Inc., Jeremy is the head of the marketing department. However, he is not in the habit of deciding everything on his own. He involves his team in the decision-making process as much as possible. He believes in communicating clearly and is always ready to help his team to get the best out of them. Jeremy's leadership style will be classified as which of the following?

answer

participating

question

Max considers himself to be a democratic leader-he involves his subordinates in decision making, delegates authority, and encourages participation. However, his employees do not feel empowered at all. Which of the following, if true, could explain the apparent discrepancy above?

answer

They feel that his decisions are actually premeditated although he parades them as the result of group consensus.

question

Theodore Roosevelt once said "The best executive is the one who has sense enough to pick good men to do what he wants done, and self-restraint to keep from meddling with them while they do it." Which of the following, if true, would be consistent with this approach?

answer

The subordinates are experienced and independent.

question

According to the Ohio State studies, which of the following dimensions of leader behavior refers to the extent to which a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and the roles of group members in the search for goal attainment?

answer

initiating structure

question

Which of the following leadership styles describes a leader who provides both directive and supportive behavior?

answer

selling

question

The ________ model proposed that effective group performance depended upon the proper match between the leader's style of interacting with his or her followers and the degree to which the situation allowed the leader to control and influence.

answer

Fiedler contingency

question

According to the path-goal theory, a manager who consults with subordinates and uses their suggestions exhibits what type of leadership behavior?

answer

participative

question

Research by Fiedler uncovered three contingency dimensions that define the key ________.

answer

situational factors for determining leader effectiveness

question

The University of Iowa studies discussed all of the following leadership styles except ________.

answer

accommodating

question

________ leadership is the ability to create and articulate a realistic, credible, and attractive vision of the future for an organization that improves on the present.

answer

Visionary

question

The ________ theory is a contingency theory that focuses on followers' readiness.

answer

situational leadership

question

All of the following are sources of leader power EXCEPT ________.

answer

status

question

Your firm's attorney has ________ power when giving legal advice.

answer

expert

STUDY

Business Management First Line Managers Get Things Done Information Technology Management Planning And Controlling Systems Theory

MGT 3370 Test #1 – Flashcards 156 terms

Jazzlyn Sampson

156 terms

Preview

MGT 3370 Test #1 – Flashcards

question

Burger King decided to add breakfast to its hours of operation in order to increase its customers. This was an attempt to improve the organization's:

answer

Effectiveness

question

Laura runs a sales and expense report at the end of each work day? Which management function is she performing?

answer

Controlling

question

John wants his salespeople to use Salesforce.com to improve their sales? Which challenge is he trying to manage?

answer

Information Technology

question

Donielle supervises the food assembly line workers. What type of manager is she?

answer

First-line manager

question

CEO, Gary Kelly sets the direction and strategy for Southwest Airlines. What type of managerial role is he performing?

answer

Interpersonal

question

George is developing a new employee schedule for his lawncare service due to the increase in business during the summer. While doing this, George is involved in organizing.

answer

True

question

Tom, a restaurant general manager, carefully watches his restaurant costs by reusing some items that in the past were immediately thrown away. Tom is an example of a(n) _____ manager.

answer

Efficient

question

New York Times columnist Thomas Friedman noted that globalization has leveled the competitive playing fields between industrial and emerging-market countries. This phenomenon proposes that ____.

answer

The world is flat

question

Robert is a district manager who oversees several store managers in a national chain of restaurants. Robert reports directly to the vice president of stores and marketing, a member of top management. Robert is a middle manager.

answer

True

question

Don works diligently to accomplish the company goals in an efficient and effective manner, utilizing his employees through planning, organizing, leading, and controlling company resources. Don is ___.

answer

Managing

question

Greg, a supervisor, is known by his managers to be sharp in his decisions and has a good track record of meeting his goals. Greg is a(n) ____ manager.

answer

Effective

question

To help maintain a competitive advantage, the emphasis for most companies is on _____.

answer

Production efficiency

question

At ABC Manufacturing, employees work together to achieve the company goals and purposes. This describes ___.

answer

An organization

question

The owners of a local restaurant routinely try to develop new menu items and seek better ways of helping their customers; this is an example of ___.

answer

Innovation

question

ABC Manufacturing employs some of the top professionals in its field, and because of their skills and experience, ABC is highly efficient and outperforms its competitors. ABC Manufacturing has a(n) ____ over its competition.

answer

Competitive Advantage

question

When building a new residential development or mall, a national real estate organization typically does not remove many trees, basing its decision on the belief that natural resources are limited, and we need to not compromise the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. This management philosophy is known as ___.

answer

Sustainability

question

When Paul, a new restaurant owner, is determining which products to offer on his menu, he is involved in the management function of planning.

answer

True

question

A national sales organization has implemented a sets of training courses on its intranet, with a link that allows employees to find and share answers to questions that arise with customers. A system that allows the sharing of knowledge and information throughout an organization is known as ___.

answer

Knowledge Management

question

The vice president of human resources for a national electronics retailer is meeting with employees of several stores to present information to workers that their stores are closing and how the company will help employees in the future. This task is part of a(n) _______ role.

answer

Disseminator

question

Greg, a supervisor, is known by his managers to be sharp in his decisions and has a good track record of meeting his goals; Greg is a(n) ____ manager.

answer

Effective

question

Being a manager can be one of the greatest avenues to a meaningful life, particularly if the manager ____.

answer

Is working within a supportive or interesting organizational culture

question

Sally has a high-paying management position with a Fortune 500 company, but she is tired of working for corporate America. So Sally has decided to start a business, and she knows she will be successful as an entrepreneur because entrepreneurs typically ___.

answer

have a high need for achievement

question

Elizabeth is a chef and the kitchen manager in an upscale restaurant. She is very knowledgeable in both the culinary and restaurant management fields. Because of these skills, Elizabeth can be considered a(n) ____ worker.

answer

Knowledge

question

An entrepreneur is best described as ___.

answer

Someone who takes risks to try to create a new enterprise

question

Management scholar Henry Mintzberg found that in their workday, managers ____.

answer

Have work that is characterized by fragmentation, brevity, and variety

question

Becoming a manager offers ___.

answer

Many rewards apart from money and status

question

At ABC Manufacturing, employees work together to achieve the company goals and purposes. This describes ___.

answer

An organization

question

Those who study management will understand how to ___.

answer

Relate to their managers and deal with organizations from the outside

question

Donna, the office manager, spends a large part of her day working closely with those whom she supervises to successfully accomplish the many tasks she is responsible for. She also works well with other departments to get things done. Donna is exhibiting which type of managerial skill?

answer

Human

question

Managers are classified into the four levels of ____.

answer

Top, middle, first-line managers, team leaders

question

Maria, the public relations manager of a local library, is meeting with the news media regarding a new reading program for children. Maria is performing the _______ role.

answer

Spokesperson

question

The principal functions of management are ___.

answer

Planning, organizing, leading, controlling

question

Using state-of-the-art computer software and hardware to help people work better together is known as ____.

answer

Collaborative computing

question

With production today, companies emphasize _____.

answer

Efficiency

question

Deshawn started a new type of business that provides new and unique services that did not exist before his efforts. This is an example of a(n) ____.

answer

Entrepreneur

question

Samuel, a marketing manager, recently attended a management workshop where he learned of Mihaly Csikzentmihalyi's view that the ideal state that many people seek is ___.

answer

An emotional zone somewhere between boredom and anxiety

question

When Dave, a restaurant owner, had his seafood business destroyed by Hurricane Katrina, he believed that he was in control of his own destiny and made a decision to rebuild the company. Dave is an individual with a(n) ____.

answer

Internal locus of control

question

One way to think of management is ___.

answer

The art of getting things done through people

question

Today nearly one in six American workers is _____.

answer

Foreign-born

question

As a store manager, Liandra has to play the role of negotiator, such as purchasing products at a fair price for her company. As she handles this responsibility, Liandra is playing the ____ role.

answer

Decisional

question

According to management scholar Henry Mintzberg, managers play three roles:

answer

Interpersonal, Informational, Decisional

question

Felix pays a lot of attention to the environment outside his company, staying alert for long-run opportunities and problems and devising strategies for dealing with them. Felix is a(n) ____ level manager.

answer

Upper

question

Sofia, a restaurant manager, has been observing and analyzing the work process of each task because she would like to increase the productivity of employees in the restaurant. This is an example of ____ management.

answer

Scientific

question

Abraham Maslow's listing of physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization needs, and his belief that some of these needs must be satisfied before others, was proposed in his _________.

answer

Hierarchy of human needs

question

The classical management viewpoint emphasized ____.

answer

Ways to manage work more efficiently

question

When more efficient workers earn higher wages, this is known as a _____ pay structure.

answer

Differential rate

question

Managers in a plumbing company have been having problems with employees starting cliques. To develop more of a team culture, the CEO suggested utilizing Mary Parker Follett's belief: companies should _____.

answer

Operate as a community, with employees working in harmony

question

Tom, a production manager, believes that some of his workers are unhappy with their job, so they are not working as hard as they could be. This reduction in effort is also known as ____.

answer

Soldiering

question

The Johnsons decided to beautify their home by investing in landscaping. While doing this, they dealt with employees from various departments of the landscaping company, including a sales representative, a designer, the individuals who oversaw and did the work, the office and billing personnel, and also the maintenance personnel. Using the systems perspective, the people required to provide the landscaping services are considered ______.

answer

Inputs

question

The father of industrial psychology is ____.

answer

Hugo Munsterberg

question

Within her company, Maria utilizes a management style that varies according to the individual and environmental situation, with a strategy for minimizing errors by managing each stage of production. She has also set up a system with inputs, outputs, transformation processes, and feedback. Maria's management perspective is best described as _____.

answer

Contemporary

question

Ann is the owner of a family-owned grocery store. The culture and belief of Ann and the previous owners, her grandfather and father, is to hire good people you believe in and then trust them with responsibility so that they grow into valuable employees. Ann and the previous owners are an example of ___ managers.

answer

Theory Y

question

The systems viewpoint sees organizations as entities made up of interrelated parts known as ____.

answer

Inputs, outputs, transformation processes, feedback

question

Abraham Maslow proposed the ____.

answer

Hierarchy of human needs

question

To better meet corporate goals this year, Donna, a CEO, is encouraging her managers to focus on the major functions of management, which include ______.

answer

Planning, organizing, leading, controlling

question

The management approach that emphasized ways to manage work more efficiently is the ___ viewpoint.

answer

Classical

question

The Jones family had a fire that destroyed their home. Various departments of a restoration company, from the initial cleanup crew to the assistance with the Jones family moving back in, worked together to achieve this goal. This is an example of a(n) ____.

answer

System

question

Joseph Juran defined quality as "fitness for use," which meant that ____.

answer

A product or service should satisfy a customer's real needs

question

Amy is a package delivery service manager. She is interested in implementing the management philosophy pioneered by Frederick W. Taylor and Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, which scientifically studies work methods to improve the productivity of individual workers, known as ____.

answer

Scientific Management

question

Thomas has been studying Hugo Munsterberg's suggestions, and like Munsterberg, Thomas believes that psychologists can contribute to industry by _____.

answer

Devising management strategies to influence employees to follow management's interests

question

Susan, a movie theater manager, has observed that as workers feel some company policies are not fair, the employees have not been working as hard as in the past. This reduction in effort is known as ____.

answer

Soldiering

question

A large production company has been utilizing the Hawthorne effect in its 12 international factories, and it has seen great success from implementing the Hawthorne principles that propose that ____.

answer

Giving more attention to employees increases worker productivity, if they think managers care about them

question

The historical perspective includes three viewpoints: _______.

answer

Classical, behavioral, quantitative

question

Gary Hamel suggests we need to look at management as a process and then make improvements and innovation ____.

answer

Ongoing and systematic

question

The new chief information officer of a national pizza chain is using mathematical tools to aid in product ordering and scheduling decisions; this is an example of _____.

answer

Management Science

question

Dominique, an executive chef in a large hotel, recently attended a training conference sponsored by several top professionals in his field, where he learned numerous ways his restaurant and hotel can better serve customers. Dominique is excited that management asked him to present this information to the hotel staff so the restaurant and hotel can make needed improvements. Dominique's hotel is a(n) _____ organization.

answer

Learning

question

The father of scientific management is _____.

answer

Fredrick Taylor

question

The field of behavioral science includes _____.

answer

Psychology, sociology, anthropology, economics

question

Hugo Munsterberg was known as ____.

answer

The father of industrial psychology

question

The belief that quality stemmed from "constancy of purpose," and that managers should stress teamwork, be helpful rather than simply give orders, and make employees feel comfortable about asking questions was proposed by _____.

answer

W. Edwards Deming

question

The classical viewpoint of management emphasized ways to ___.

answer

Manage work more efficiently

question

Operations management focuses on managing the production and delivery of an organization's products or services _____.

answer

More effectively

question

While discussing approaches to boost organization productivity, Rene, the president of an auto manufacturer, was interested in a rational approach that through the application of scientific methods, time and motion studies, and job specialization found it is possible to increase productivity. This is the essence of the ____ viewpoint.

answer

Classical

question

Maslow's hierarchy of human needs included ______.

answer

Physiological, safety, love, esteem, self-actualization

question

When Cheyanne, the manager, was discussing a difficult competitive problem with the owner, she asked, "What management approach do you think will work best in this situation?" Asking this question to determine a solution is utilizing ____.

answer

The contingency viewpoint

question

Olivia, the general manager of a bowling center, believes in her workers and that they are responsible and capable employees, so that they can be trusted when given responsibility. Olivia is an example of a(n) ___ manager.

answer

Theory Y

question

The contemporary perspective consists of three viewpoints: ____.

answer

Systems, contingency, quality management

question

The board of directors, employees, and owners are the organization's ___.

answer

Internal stakeholders

question

The notion that corporations are expected to go above and beyond following the law and making a profit to help society known is ____.

answer

Corporate social responsibility

question

To save money, Paul, the owner of a struggling restaurant produce supplier, has been considering reducing the amount of produce in some cases delivered to busy restaurants, knowing the customers will probably never notice. This decision is an example of an ethical dilemma.

answer

True

question

The macroenvironment, which includes sociocultural, demographic, political-legal and international forces, cannot easily be controlled by organizations.

answer

True

question

Dawn, a young single mother, found a wallet with a large amount of money inside. In the past she has always tried to return the cash to the owner, knowing it is the right thing to do. However, with tough times, she has decided to keep the cash. She told a friend, "I don't normally do this, but we really need the money. So I really have to do it this one time." The most likely explanation for Dawn's behavior is _____.

answer

Motivated blindness

question

Having some clients who are less knowledgeable about investing and seem to be more trusting of their firm, the management of a financial advising organization has decided to use cash from newer investors to pay off older ones. The actions of management are an example of ____.

answer

A Ponzi Scheme

question

The triple bottom line represents ______, also known as the ____.

answer

People, planet, and profit; 3 Ps

question

Ethics are _____.

answer

Standards of right and wrong that influence behavior

question

A distributor is a person or an organization that helps another company sell its goods and services to customers. Distributors are considered external stakeholders.

answer

True

question

While setting up their corporation, Ming and Jie implement a system of governing their organization so that the interests of corporate owners and other stakeholders are protected. This is an example of a _____.

answer

Corporate

question

An organization's external stakeholders include ____.

answer

customers, competitors, suppliers, distributors, strategic allies, employee associations, local communities, financial institutions, government regulators, special-interest groups, and the mass media

question

The system of governing a company so that the interests of corporate owners and other stakeholders are protected is known as corporate governance.

answer

True

question

An ethical dilemma is a situation ____.

answer

In which you have to decide whether to pursue a course of action that may benefit you or your organization but is unethical or even illegal

question

Paul and Anna Jones are wealthy entrepreneurs who are very interested in helping children who have been abused. Their goal is to donate a percentage of their company profits to helping these children. The Jones's actions are an example of _____.

answer

Philanthropy

question

Patsy, a nurse, has decided to start a home health care service to assist with the medical, meal preparation, and light housecleaning needs of older adults. To grow her business, Patsy is focusing her marketing efforts on the older adult population; as she does this, she is involved with the _____ environment.

answer

General

question

Americans driving less and young people having less interest in cars are examples of trends in society known as ____ forces.

answer

Sociocultural

question

Greg, the president of an IT company, purchased a large number of shares of company stock before the news of a new revolutionary computer processor was made public that will cause company profits to increase considerably. This action by Greg could be considered an example of _____.

answer

Insider Trading

question

For organizations' board of directors, and in particular, their oversight of the CEO, the biggest complaint appears to be _____.

answer

The independence of the directors

question

The employees of Mom's Pizza, a local pizza restaurant, feel that the owners and managers really try to follow the ethical policies outlined in their company's code of ethics. Pete, a cook, said that "Just today, Joe, our manager, called our supplier to let them know we received an extra case of tomatoes that we did not pay for. And they do this type of thing almost every day." Mom's Pizza maintains a(n) _____.

answer

Ethical climate

question

An organization's internal stakeholders consist of ___.

answer

Board of directors, employees, and owners

question

New developments in methods for transforming resources into goods or services are _____ forces.

answer

Technological

question

Marie and Marti are partners who solely own M and M Florist. As owners, they can ____.

answer

Claim an organization as their legal property

question

Joe, owner of ABC Electronics, just discovered that his trusted friend Paul, his accountant for over 30 years, has been mishandling the company books and stealing from the company bank account. Joe must decide whether to publicly ignore his friend's actions and avoid bad publicity for the firm, an example of ____.

answer

An ethical dilemma

question

Every Saturday Mrs. Jones and hundreds of other shoppers visit ABC Market, a grocery store, to buy food for their home or business. These shoppers are _____ to ABC.

answer

Customers

question

Ole McDonald, a successful farm equipment supply company in the Midwest, joined with A-Plus Supply, a national hardware and home retailer, so Ole McDonald can open stores in other regions and A-Plus can now offer a high-quality product in the farm community. This is an example of a ___ relationship.

answer

Strategic allies

question

The mass media is considered part of an organization's _____.

answer

Task environment

question

With recent reports of identity theft, Mr. Jones, the CEO of a construction company, is concerned about his employees' privacy, and because of recent accidents on the job, he is also worried about the safety of his workers. Mr. Jones's concerns with privacy and health and safety are outlined in the _____ approach to deciding ethical dilemmas.

answer

Moral rights

question

Don has managed several restaurants for over 50 years and is close to retirement. With his maturity, his decisions are sound, based on solid, proven values. Don tends to be an independent thinker who focuses on empowering his employees. Don manages at Kohlberg's ______ level of personal moral development.

answer

Post conventional

question

When individuals who want to start a new venture obtain many small amounts of money from many people, this type of financing is called ____.

answer

Crowdfunding

question

Phillip said to a dear friend, "I am fed up with my company's continual disregard for human life and the environment. They just continue to secretly dispose of hazardous chemicals into a nearby stream. I don't know how they get away with it! I am going to tell somebody today." Phillip's decision to tell somebody about his company's actions is an example of a(n) ______.

answer

Whistle-blower

question

As the CEO of a company that produces products for schools, Hannah feels that her company needs to not only produce a profit but also do things that benefits society. This type of company attitude is an example of ____.

answer

Social responsibility

question

Corporate governance is the system ____.

answer

Of governing a company so that the interests of corporate owners and other stakeholders are protected

question

Regulatory agencies that establish ground rules under which organizations may operate are known as ____.

answer

Government regulators

question

After more than 100 years in business, Don, the president of a successful family-owned company, wants to give back to the people of the community for the many years of success that they have given to my father and me. He decides to donate a significant portion of profits to a charity every year. What Don's company is doing is an example of ___.

answer

Corporate social responsibility

question

Local livestock farmers could allow the runoff of manure nutrients into a stream that feeds a local lake because this helps farmers in the short term. However, farmers will act ethically in the short run to avoid harming others in the long run because this is also in the farmer's best long-term interests; this is reflected by the _____ approach to deciding ethical dilemmas.

answer

Individual

question

The justice approach to deciding ethical dilemmas is guided by _____.

answer

Respect for impartial standards of fairness and equity

question

The relatively permanent and deeply held underlying beliefs and attitudes that help determine a person's behavior are known as ____.

answer

Values

question

Sustainability is economic development that ____.

answer

Meets present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs

question

Mr. Jones, a wealthy businessman who made his fortune in the oil industry, understands the importance of a college education, so he has given over $10 million over the last several years to colleges and universities. This is an example of _____.

answer

Philanthropy

question

Franchising allows restaurants internationally to pay a fee plus a percentage of the profits in return for using a company's name and assistance with management, marketing, and the training of managers and nonmanagement employees.

answer

True

question

Best Builders, a home builder in the U.S., makes use of many suppliers to provide quality products in the homes it builds, such as a roofer in the same city and Belize International in Guatemala, which provides some of the highest-quality cabinets available. This use of outside suppliers to help the contractor build homes for customers is known as ____.

answer

Outsourcing

question

Steve, a recent college graduate in computer programming, is interested in several positions with global companies because he knows that working in other countries exhibits ____ to potential employers according to management recruiters.

answer

Independence, resourcefulness, and entrepreneurship

question

The trend of the world economy toward becoming a more interdependent system is known as ____.

answer

Globalization

question

Maquiladoras are manufacturing plants allowed to operate in Mexico with special privileges in return for employing Mexican citizens.

answer

True

question

The shared set of beliefs, values, knowledge, and patterns of behavior common to its people is a nation's _____.

answer

Culture

question

Alan, a retired doctor, is interested in starting a nonprofit organization that will include doctors and other medical professionals who travel to low income areas in the United States and internationally to assist with medical needs and open hospitals. Alan's organization is an example of a multinational organization.

answer

True

question

Dave's Furniture in South Carolina produces high-quality furniture and ships its products to customers in over 40 countries. This is an example of ____.

answer

Exporting

question

The United States has prohibited the import of products from Iran due to the political situation in that nation. This ban is an example of a(n) ____.

answer

Embargo

question

Luis, the owner of a shoe factory in Panama, is unhappy due to a tax that the U.S. government has implemented on shoes exported there to protect U.S. shoe companies. This is an example of a tariff.

answer

True

question

A multinational corporation is a(n) ____.

answer

Business form with operations in several countries

question

The global village refers to the "shrinking" of time and space as air travel and the electronic media have made it easier for people worldwide to communicate with one another.

answer

True

question

Dave and his wife are expecting their first child this week, but Dave had to attend a very important meeting in Mexico City. While in Mexico, Dave was able to check his phone for text messages every hour, and as soon as his wife went into labor, he was able to return home in less than six hours. This "shrinking" of time and space with air travel and electronic media is known as ____.

answer

The global village

question

International Fabric buys products for its customers from over 30 countries. The retailer is an example of a company that ____.

answer

Imports

question

Managers who believe that their native country, culture, language, and behavior are superior to all others are ____ managers.

answer

Ethnocentric

question

NAFTA and CAFTA are ____.

answer

Major trading blocs

question

The IMF has ____.

answer

Helped support some weaker European countries during the recent financial crisis

question

Dominique owns an international grocery store where customers can purchase products from other countries. Dominique's store is an example of a company that ____.

answer

Imports

question

Technology Experts is a U.S. company that specializes in IT research. It has formed a joint venture with Processor Inc., a Canadian organization that has a reputation of producing quality PCs, to market laptops in China, sharing the risks and rewards of starting the new enterprise together. This is an example of a(n) ___.

answer

Strategic Alliance

question

Licensing is when a company ____.

answer

Allows a foreign company to pay it a fee to make or distribute the first company's product or service

question

Maria, the vice president of sales for an international organization, believes that employees in her foreign offices understand best how to handle the personnel and practices in their offices. So when the corporate HR manager approached Maria about scolding Robert, the Paris manager, for not doings things according to corporate policy, Maria backed Robert and said, "I believe that the home office should leave Robert alone because he best understands the local culture." Maria is an example of a(n) ___ manager.

answer

Polycentric

question

Last week Paul, CEO of Quality Furniture in South Carolina, traveled to Europe to visit customers. While overseas, Paul checked his e-mail daily and visited his company's website to show to customers. After visiting the last customer Friday morning, Paul was able to return to the corporate office to meet with his board of directors that night. This "shrinking" of time and space with air travel and electronic media defines ____.

answer

The global village

question

Tom, who owns a successful business with two locations and a few international clients, was approached by a large organization about dramatically expanding his company. Tom later told his wife that he is happy with his success, but he wants to stay small because if he decides to add new products, small companies ____.

answer

Can get started more easily and maneuver faster

question

In a low-context culture ____.

answer

Shared meanings are primarily derived from written and spoken words

question

Shoes International is a global nonprofit organization that works with schools and various companies to donate shoes to children in poverty throughout the world. Shoes International is an example of a ____.

answer

Multi national organization

question

When communicating across cultures, the best option regarding language use is _____.

answer

Learn the local language

question

Ethnocentric managers believe that their native country, culture, language, and behavior _____.

answer

Are superior to all others

question

Globalization is the trend ___.

answer

Of the world economy toward becoming a more interdependent system

question

Susan, from Iowa, arrived in Saudi Arabia and immediately noticed that the way Saudi men treat women is vastly different than how men in the U.S. treat women. Susan was feeling uncomfortable because she was experiencing ___.

answer

Culture Shock

question

Don's Carpet installed carpet at no cost for City Office Supply, in exchange for $1,000 of office supplies. This is an example of ____.

answer

Counter trading

question

The WTO was formed to ____.

answer

Monitor and enforce trade agreements

question

While traveling in France, Jim and his wife, both Americans, were concerned about how much they can afford to spend in Europe because sometimes the U.S. dollar will buy more goods and sometimes it will buy less, based on changing economic conditions. This change in the values of currencies and how they fluctuate in relation to each other is known as the ____ rate.

answer

Exchange

question

Don, who owns an investment firm with customers worldwide, has witnessed how dangerous global economic interdependency can be. During a lunch meeting he mentioned to a customer, "I certainly have seen two negative effects for the United States of global economic interdependency: ___."

answer

Vast surplus funds from global investments flowing into the United States and loss of well-paying jobs

question

Roberto, the vice president of marketing, is talking to Francis, a sales manager in a foreign office, about several local situations that Francis's reps are facing in their territory. Roberto tells Francis that he believes there are differences and similarities between home and foreign personnel and practices, and that Francis should use whatever techniques are most effective. Trey is an example of a(n) ____ manager.

answer

Geocentric

question

As part of becoming a world citizen, Joe, who is from Michigan and who is transferring to the Paris office, is trying to do things to ___.

answer

Think local and keep a global focus

question

Tom and his fiancé Susan decided to have their wedding on a beach in Acapulco, Mexico. Some services for the wedding, such as the limousine and the catering services, were local. Throughout the weekend of the wedding, the couple found that workers and things for their wedding arrived late. In response, the Mexican workers remarked, "Ustedes tiene que ser flexibles," which in English means, you have to be flexible with time. This attitude regarding time is considered _____.

answer

Polychromic Time

question

Sometimes a country's laws forbid foreigners from ownership within their nation, and the only way an American company can have a presence in that foreign country is with a(n) ___.

answer

Joint Venture

question

Prior to 1990, the United States imposed a tax on automobiles imported from Mexico. This type of tax is a(n) _____.

answer

Tariff

question

A tax on automobiles imported into the United States that raises prices on imported vehicles to make the price of cars produced here more competitive is a(n) ______; a tax on all oil imported into the United States, which is implemented to raise money for the American government, is known as a(n) ____.

answer

Protective tariff; revenue tariff

question

Donald enjoys the excitement and challenge of forming a firm in Europe that is totally owned and controlled by his company because he knows that although the investment will be substantial, it could result in a large return. This type of organization is an example of a ____.

answer

Wholly-owned subsidiary

STUDY

Business Management Cross Functional Teams Line And Staff Organization Management

Career Planning: Being an Effective Co-worker – Flashcards 8 terms

William Jordan

8 terms

Preview

Career Planning: Being an Effective Co-worker – Flashcards

question

In order for team members to communicate effectively, they need the discipline to _______.

answer

Listen first and speak second

question

If you are able to avoid offending people, you have ______.

answer

tact

question

Making a promise to deliver a product and making sure it happens no matter what shows ______.

answer

Responsibility

question

Benjamin tells James at a company meeting that James has an unimportant job and still can't do it correctly. Benjamin is being ______.

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Arrogant

question

Imagine you are trying to improve your self confidence. You have set yourself up to make a speech to a convention in three weeks, even though the thought of doing it terrifies you. What is your best course of action?

answer

Practice until you feel you can do it

question

A good communicator will focus on speaking and ______.

answer

Listening

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While Ken appreciates that as a result of his communication-based self improvement plan he will be a better person, he knows that the greatest benefit will be to ______.

answer

Become a more effective worker

question

If Yolanda wishes to understand her coworkers more deeply, she should study their ______.

answer

Body language

STUDY

Change Management Process General Accounting Office Management

SPHR/PHR Study Guide – Flashcards 43 terms

Ray Collins

43 terms

Preview

SPHR/PHR Study Guide – Flashcards

question

The amount it would cost to replace an asset at current prices. It would include recruiting, hiring and training a totally new work force.

answer

Replacement Cost

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Also known as explicit costs. Any concrete costs that can be identified in the past, present or future

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Outlay Cost

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The measure of how well assets are being used to produce revenue.

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Turnover Efficiency

question

If a company wants to promote employees to higher level positions from within , the best method of recruitment is to all for job bidding or self nomination.

answer

Self Nomination

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When an employee is not meeting performance expectations, the supervisor should review with the employee intermittently before the final timeline to work with him/her on meeting his/her objectives. The objectives should be specific, realistic and a timeline should be identified. Additionally, reviewing performance expectations intermittently will reduce discriminatory action.

answer

Performance Expectations

question

measurement and assessment, retention interventions and selection procedures and followup tactics. The biggest component to employee retention management is getting the right people in an organization. In addition, continual measurements and assessment are essential. Transparency and free flow of communication channels is also an essential step for maintaining strong employer-employee relationships.

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Three Components of Retention Management

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1. To establish a good working relation with the seller 2. To obtain a reasonable and fair price for the contract.

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Primary Objective of a contract negotiation

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Identifies a time period after the defined end of an incentive pay plan.

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Sunset Clause

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Represents employee incentives linked to an individual's continued employment with an organization so that key performers have strong incentives to stay with the organization due to significant losses if they were to leave.

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Golden Handcuffs

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When important employees demand an increase in pay because they know they are invaluable to the organization due to their level of expertise or skill set.

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Expert Power

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Recognition and rewards are used to promote team performance and reinforce desired behaviors. To be effective, recognition and rewards should be based on activities under a persons control and clear criteria for rewards should be established. Improves team cohesiveness.

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Recognition and Rewards

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Undermines/ Limits team cohesiveness due to limited number of project team members being recognized for their work.

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Zero Sum Rewards

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Line managers are primarily responsible for managing human resources/ employees. However, human resource professionals provide special expertise and tools that assist line managers in managing their direct report employees.

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Line Managers

question

All measure reliability. Reliability is the ability of an instrument to measure consistency with relative absence of error.

answer

Test/Retests, Internal Consistency, Parallel Forms

question

Business unit strategy is concerned more with how a business competes successfully in a particular market. It is concerned with making strategic decisions about choice of products, meeting needs of the customers, gaining advantage over competitors, exploiting or creating new opportunities.

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Unit Strategy

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Corporate strategy is concerned with the overall purpose and scope of the business to meet stakeholder expectations. It is often explicitly stated in the corporate mission.

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Corporate Strategy

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Functional strategy emphasizes short and medium term plans and is limited to the domain of each department's functional responsibility.

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Functional Strategy

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Represents the overall goal of an organization that all business activities and processes should contribute toward achieving. It is explicitly stated in the vision statement.

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Corporate Vision

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Enables the participants to practice the newly learned skills. A structured exercise would be most effective method of improving the effectiveness. For example the time it takes to ring up customers at a cash register.

answer

Structured Exercise

question

An employee who knowingly falsifies the reason for termination with another employer ( Misconduct being the reason for termination) should be fired immediately when the new employer finds out. Even if details are unknown prior to dismissal. If such an action has been done once, then it is likely that the employee can falsify the information again.

answer

Application Falsification and Ramifications

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Group incentive programs where gains realized from group endeavors are shared with the group.

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Gainsharing

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Individual incentive plan where individuals are compensated for piecework.

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Piece Rate Plan

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Organization wide incentive programs that allow employees the right to reap direct benefits from profitability of the organization.

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Profit Sharing Plans

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Individual incentive plans that base compensation on a percentage of sales.

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Commissions

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Central Tendency is the tendency to centralize performance appraisal scores around a small range, regardless of actual performance.

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Central Tendency and Job Performance

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Allow time for directors to receive feedback from their employees directly, specifically those employees that are two levels below them.

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Skip Level Interviews

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Believe that leadership styles should correspond to the maturity of the employees.

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Situational Theories

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Believe that leadership can be learned. Individuals can learn the necessary behaviors to be effective leaders.

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Behavioral Theories

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Trait Theories believe that leaders are born not made. According to this theory, some of the characteristics that are highly correlated with leadership are intelligence, self confidence, self initiation.

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Trait Theories

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Contingency Theories believe that leadership is contingent upon certain factors. For example effective leadership is dependent upon the interaction between leadership style and situational favorableness.

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Contingency Theories

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Questionnaires are the best job analysis method for quick response rate and gathering of large number of jobs. It is cost effective and timely.

answer

Questionnaires

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If a company is not concerned about cost and time, an interview will be another job analysis method that can be used.

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Interviews

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IS an employee involvement strategy which requires organizational commitment at all levels of the organization, especially management for it to be effective.

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Participative Management

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Is a management approach that focuses on motivating employees by appealing to their own self interest through either the promise of reward or the threat of discipline for the accomplishments of tasks and good worker relationships.

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Transactional Leadership Theory

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Severance pay is a kind of direct compensation that is both taxable and a direct form of compensation.

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Severance Pay

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HR Audit can be used appropriately to determine whether the employee handbook is in compliance with current government regulations.

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Appropriate Use of HR Audit

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Measures the extent to which objectives are identified.

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Effectiveness

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Efficiency occurs when an individual is able to perform well or achieve results without wasted energy, resources, effect, time or money.

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Efficiency

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Management by Objectives is a performance appraisal format. It appraises the performance of an individual based on the individuals meeting goals/objectives established for them within a certain time frame.

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Management by Objectives

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Provides a general framework for defining, implementing and sustaining business strategies at all levels and throughout the organization by linking that strategy to each individual employees performance measurement system.

answer

Balance Scorecard

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Is the best research design for evaluating a training program. It is used when it is suspected that, in taking a test more than once, earlier tests have an effect on later tests, for example by learning or priming effects. There, In addition to the basic pretest/post test design, there are three additional tests, one without the treatment, one with the pretest and one without both pretest and treatment.

answer

Solomon Four Group Design

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Before an organization can establish a plan and time line, or communicate the overall change plan/ new objectives, or implement and evaluate the change, an organization must discuss alternative plans that will address its need for change and establish a final plan.

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Steps in the Change Management Process

question

An aptitude test is a standardized test designed to measure the ability of a person to develop skills or acquire knowledge. Therefore, it best predicts future training performance, not current knowledge or skill level.

answer

Aptitude Test

STUDY

Management

Introduction to Engineering and Design EOC Study Guide – Flashcards 126 terms

Sean Hill

126 terms

Preview

Introduction to Engineering and Design EOC Study Guide – Flashcards

question

Invention

answer

a new product, system, or process that has never existed before, created by study and experimentation.

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Innovation

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An improvement of an existing technological product, system, or method of doing something.

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Brainstorm

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A group technique for solving problems, generating ideas, stimulating creative thinking, etc. by unrestrained spontaneous participation in discussion.

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Constraint

answer

A limit to a design process. Constraints may be such things as appearance, funding, space, materials and human capabilities. A limitation or restriction.

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Design

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An iterative decision-making process that produces plans by which resources are converted into products or systems that meet human needs and wants or solve problems. A plan of drawing produced to show the look and functino or workings of something before it is built or made. A decorative pattern.

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Design Brief

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A written plan that identifies a problem to be solved, its criteria, and its constraints. the design brief is used to encourage thinking of all aspects of a problem before attempting a solution.

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Design Statement

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A part of a design brief that challenges the designer, describes what a design solution should do without describing how to solve the problem, and identifies the degree to which the soultion must be executed.

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Engineering Notebook

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An engineering notebook is a book in which an engineer will formally document, in chronological order, all of his/her work that is associated with a specific design project.

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Prototype

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A full-scale working model used to test a design concept by making actual observations and necessary adjustments.

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Research

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The systematic study of materials and sources in order to establish facts and reach new conclusions.

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Tonal Shading

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The representation of light and shade on a sketch or map.

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Center Line

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A line which defines the center of arcs, circles, or symmetrical parts.

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Extension Line

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Line which represents where a dimension starts and stops.

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Dimension Line

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A line which represents distance.

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Object Line

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A heavy solid line used on a drawing to represent the outline of an object.

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Construction

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Line lightly drawn lines to guide drawing other lines and shapes.

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Hidden Line

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A line type the represents and edge that is not directly visible.

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Orthographic Projection

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A method of representing three-dimensional objects on a plane having only length and breadth. Also referred to as Right Angle Projection.

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Leader Line

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Line which indicates dimensions of arcs, circles and detail.

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Cabinet Pictorial

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Oblique pictorial where depth is represented as half scaled compared to the height and width scale.

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Cavalier Pictorial

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Oblique pictorial where height, width, and depth are represented at full scale.

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Pictorial Sketch

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A sketch that shows an object's height, width and depth in a single view.

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Isometric Sketch

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A form of pictorial sketch in which all three drawing axes form equal angles of 120 degrees with the plane of projection.

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Perspective Sketch

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A form of pictorial sketch in which vanishing points are used to provide the depth and distortion that is seen with the human eye.

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Multi-View Drawing

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A drawing which contains views of an object projected onto tow or more othographic planes.

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Oblique Sketch

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A form of pictorial in which an object is represented as true width and height, but the depth can be any size and drawn at any angle.

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Technical Working Drawing

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A drawing that is used to show the material, size and shape of a product for manufacturing purposes.

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Accuracy

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The degree of closeness of measurements to the actual or accepted value.

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Precision

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The degree to which repeated measurements show the same result.

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Histogram

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A graph of vertical bars representing the frequency distribution of a set of data.

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Statistics

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Collection of methods for planning experiments, obtaining data, organizing, summarizing, presenting, analyzing, interpreting and drawing conclusions based on data.

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Standard Deviation

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Measure of the spread of data values.

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Normal Distribution

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A function that represents the distribution of variables as a symmetrical bell-shaped graph.

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Mode

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The value that occurs most frequently in a given data set.

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Range

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Diference between the largest and smallest values that occur in a set of data.

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Median

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A measure of center in a set of numerical data.

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Significant Digits

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The digits in a decmial number that carry meaning contributing to the precision or accuracy of the quantity.

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Central Tendency

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The center of a distribution: mean, median or mode.

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Calipers

answer

A measuring instrument having two adjustable jaws typically used to measure distance or thickness.

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Model

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A visual, mathematical,or three-dimensional representation in detail of an object or design, often smaller than the original.

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Annotate

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To add explanatory notes to a drawing.

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Component

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A part or element of a larger whole.

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Physical Model

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A physical representation of an object. Prototypes and appearance models are physical models.

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Scale Model

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An enlarged or reduced representation of an object that is usually intended for study purposes.

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Geometric Constraint

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Constant, non-numerical relationships between the parts of a geometric figure. Examples include parallelism, perpendicularity, and concentricity.

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Solid Modeling

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A type of 3D CAD modeling that represents the volume of an object, not just its lines and surfaces.

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Mathematical Modeling

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The process of choosing and using appropriate mathematics and statistics to analyze empirical situations, to understand them better and to improve decisions.

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Working Drawings

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Drawing that convey all of the information needed to manufacture and assemble a design.

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Acute Triangle

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A triangle that contains only angles that are less than 90 degrees.

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Center of Gravity

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A 3D point where the total weight of the body may be considered to be concentrated.

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Centroid

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3D point defining the geometric center of a solid.

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Tangent

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A straight or curved line that intersects a circle or arc at one point only.

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Circumscribe

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A triangle located round a polygon such as a circle. To draw a figure around another, touching it at points but not cutting it.

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Principal Axes

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The lines of intersection created from three mutually perpendicular planes, with the three planes' point of intersection at the centroid of the part.

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Density

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The measures of mass density is a measure of mass per volume.

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Volume

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The amount of three-dimensional space occupied by an object or enclosed within a container.

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Inscribe

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To draw a figure within another so that their boundaries touch but do not intersect.

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Obtuse Triangle

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A triangle with one angle that is greater than 90 degrees.

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Fillet

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A curve formed at the interior intersection between two or more surfaces.

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Right Triangle

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A triangle that has a 90 degree angle.

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Asymmetry

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Symmetry in which both halves of a composition are not identical. Also referred to as informal balance.

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Symmetry

answer

The correspondence in size, shape, and relative position of parts on opposite sides of a median line or about central axis. Also referred to as formal balance.

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Proportion

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The relationship of one thing to another in size, amount, etc. Size or weight relationships among structures or among elements in a single structure.

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Balance

answer

A condition in which different elements are equal or in the correct proportions. There are three types of visual balance: symmetry, asymmetry, and radial.

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Form

answer

Having the three dimensions of length, width, and depth. Also referred to as a solid. The organization, placement, or relationship of basic elements, as volumes or voids in a sculpture, so as to produce a coherent image.

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Color

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The property possessed by an object of producing different sensations on the eye as a result of the way it reflects or emits light.

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Rhythm

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A regularly recurring sequence of events or actions.

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Graphic Design

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The art of combining text and pictures in advertisements, magazines, books, etc.

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Contrast

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The state of being noticeable different from something else when put or considered together.

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Texture

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The feel, appearance, or consistency of a surface, substance or fabric.

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Pattern

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A repeated decorative design.

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Radial Symmetry

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Symmetry about a central axis.

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Value

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The lightness or darkness of a color in relation to a scale ranging from white to black.

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Reverse Engineering

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The process of taking something apart and analyzing its workings in detail.

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Shape

answer

The two-dimensional contour that characterizes an object or area, in contrast to three-dimensional form.

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Emphasis

answer

Special importance, value, or prominence given to something.

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Technical Reports

answer

Communicate technical information and conclusions about projects to customers, managers, legal authority figures, and other engineers.

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Aligned Dimension

answer

A system of dimensioning which requires all numerals, figures, and notes to be aligned with the dimension lines so that they may be read from the bottom (for horizontal dimensions) and from the right side (for vertical dimensions).

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Baseline Dimensioning System

answer

Dimensioning in which all dimensions are placed from a datum and not from feature to feature.

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Chain Dimensioning

answer

Also known as point-to-point dimensioning where dimensions are established from one point to the next.

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Limit Dimensions

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The largest and smallest possible boundaries to which a feature may be made as related to the tolerance of the dimension.

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Location Dimension

answer

A location dimension that defines the relationship of features of an object.

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Reference Dimension

answer

A dimension, usually without a tolerance, used for information purposes. A reference is a repeat of a given dimension or established from other values shown on a drawing. Reference dimensions are enclosed in ( ) on the drawing.

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Datum Dimensioning

answer

A dimensioning system where each dimension originates from a common surface, plane, or axis. Also known as baseline dimensioning.

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Unidirectional Dimension

answer

A tolerance in which variation is permitted in both directions from the specified dimension.

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Tolerance

answer

The acceptable amount of dimensional variation that will still allow an object to function correctly.

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Nominal Size

answer

The designation of the size established for a commercial product.

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Bilateral Tolerance

answer

A tolerance in which variation is permitted in both directions form the specified dimension.

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Allowance

answer

The tightest possible fit between two mating parts.

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Clearance Fit

answer

Limits the size of mating parts so that a clearance always results when mating parts are assembled.

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Interference

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The amount of overlap that one part has with another when assembled.

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American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

answer

A private, non-profit organization that coordinates the development and use of a voluntary consensus standards in the U.S.

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Technical Writing

answer

A type of expository writing that is used to convey information for technical or business purposes.

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American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME)

answer

A professional engineering organization that is known for setting codes and standards for mechanical devices in the U.S.

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Parts List

answer

A list of materials or parts specified for a project. Also referred to as a bill of materials or BOM

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International Organization for Standardization (IOS)

answer

This is a worldwide organization that creates engineering standards.

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Decision Matrix

answer

A tool used to compare design solutions against one another, using specific criteria.

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Market Research

answer

The activity of gathering information about consumers' needs and preferences.

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Auxiliary View

answer

A view that is used to show features that is located on an inclined surface in true size and shape.

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Section Lines

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Thin lines used in a section view to indicate where the cutting place line has cut through material.

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Broken-Out Section

answer

A section of an object broken away to reveal an interior feature for a sectional drawing.

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Working Drawings

answer

Drawings that convey all of the information needed to manufacture and assemble a design.

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Full Section

answer

A sectional drawing based on a cutting place line that extends completely through an object.

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Detail View

answer

A view that is used to show a magnified view of features that are too small to adequately specify in another view.

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Part Drawing

answer

A drawing that contains all the information for making one part of the design.

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Half Section

answer

A sectional drawing based on a cutting plane line that cuts through one-quarter of an object. A half section reveals half of the interior and half of the exterior.

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Section View

answer

Used to show "inside" details not apparent on the exterior of the part.

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Cutting Plane Line

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A line drawn on a view where a cut was made in order to define the location of the imaginary section plane.

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Blind Hole

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A hole that does not go completely through the work piece.

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Taper

answer

Gradual diminution of width or thickness in an elongated object.

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Counter Bore

answer

A cylindrical recess around a hole, usually to receive a bolt head or nut.

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Tapped Holes

answer

Has internal threads.

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Countersink

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A conical-shaped recess around a hole, often used to receive a tapered screw.

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Phantom Line

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A line used to show the alternate positions of an object or matching part without interfering with the main drawing.

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Exploded Assembly

answer

An assembly drawing in which parts are moved out of position along an axis so that each individual part is visible.

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Ratio

answer

The quantitative relation between two amounts showing the number of times one value contains or is contained within the other.

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Rib

answer

A relatively thin flat member acting as a brace support. Also called a web.

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Numeric Constraint

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A number value or algebraic equation that is used to control the size of location of a geometric figure.

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Parameter

answer

A property of a system whose value determines how the system will behave.

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Parametric Modeling

answer

A CAD modeling method that uses parameters to define the size and geometry of features and to create relationships between features. Changing a parameter value updates all related features of the model at once.

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Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

answer

The U.S. federal agency with a mission to protect human health and the environment.

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Ergonomics

answer

The study of workplace equipment design or how to arrange and design devices, machines, or work-space so that people and things interact safely and most efficiently.

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Virtual Team

answer

A group of people that rely primarily or exclusively on electronic forms of communication to work together in accomplishing goals.

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Occupation Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

answer

A government organization whose mission is to assure the safety and health of America's workers by setting and enforcing standards; providing training; outreach, and education; establishing partnerships; and encouraging continual improvement in workplace safety and health.

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Ethics

answer

The moral principles governing or influencing conduct.

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Norms

answer

Principles of right action, binding upon the members of a group and serving to guide, control, or regulate proper and acceptable behavior.

STUDY

Management

Quiz prob’s – Flashcards 21 terms

Tommy Mason

21 terms

Preview

Quiz prob’s – Flashcards

question

Fayol's principle that employees should be rewarded for their work with appropriate salary and benefits is called:

answer

remuneration of personnel

question

Which type of manager (Mcgregor) has the characteristics: workers are lazy, dislike responsibility, and are not very bright.

answer

Theory X

question

Illumination Studies: Productivity ________ in all conditions

answer

increased

question

Which is NOT a prototype management style discussed by Blake and Mouton: Country Club; Team; Benevolent- Authoritative; Impoverished

answer

Benevolent authoritative

question

In order to deal with the variety of challenges posed by a complex environment, a system must incorporate: ________ _______

answer

requisite variety

question

Systems theory originated with the study of: _______

answer

biology

question

(True/False) Ouchi's theory Z suggests that American organizations should transform themselves to the more effective Japanese organizations.

answer

false

question

(True/False) Mcgregor's theory describes the proper way to design work in order to meet the needs of employees.

answer

false

question

Components of ______ and _____ "strong cultures"Values, Heroes, rites/rituals, and the cultural network

answer

Dale and Kennedy

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One flaw of the _______ cultural approach: Viewing the culture as a "_____" that an org "HAS"

answer

prescriptive thing

question

What field did the cultural approach derive from

answer

Anthropology

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_______ __________ theory considers that the role of communication, such as stories and jokes, is to create a feeling of group identity.

answer

Symbolic Convergence

question

Fayol's principle that proposes that the org will be most effective when central management has control over decision making and employees.

answer

centralization

question

In the role routinization phase: which has high levels of trust and support?

answer

in group

question

Knowledge management systems: one of _____ is a type of knowledge that is based on information, whats been documented etc.

answer

explicit

question

Highest level of maslow's hierarchy?

answer

self actualization

question

This model proposes that by participating in org decisions that it will satisfy higher order needs

answer

Affective

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Theory that employees need to be micromanaged like machines

answer

theory x

question

Peters and Waterman, and Deal and Kennedy's conceptualizations of culture are P__________

answer

Prescriptive

question

Critical approaches have their philosophical roots in the work of _____ ______ (name)

answer

Karl Marx

question

The theory of concertive control includes 3 concepts: ________, _______, and identification.

answer

control discipline

STUDY

Area Of Operations Care And Concern Ethical Decision Making Major League Baseball Management Marketing Procedural Due Process Sport Management Sports Marketing

Sports Management Mid-Term – Flashcards 132 terms

Jennifer Hawkins

132 terms

Preview

Sports Management Mid-Term – Flashcards

question

Trained sport management professionals have managed the sport business world since the emergence of professional sports in the country

answer

False

question

_____ involves employees or members of the organization in the actual decision making process.

answer

Participative decision making

question

All of the following are key skills necessary to succeed in the marketing department of a professional sports team except:

answer

in-game team strategy

question

Sport managers in today's sport organizations need to be aware of ever-changing management thoughts and ideas, to learn from theses theories, and to incorporate what works best within their organizations.

answer

True

question

Organizational behavior is also characterized as "one best way" to perform a job.

answer

False

question

The controllable variables the company puts together to satisfy a target group are referred to as the:

answer

marketing mix

question

All of the following have contributed to the increasing importance of developing and cultivating a positive image EXCEPT:

answer

David Beckham signing with the LA Galaxy

question

What university had the first sport management academic program?

answer

Ohio University

question

According to Kotler (2003), the marketer's job boils down to one action:

answer

creating demand

question

Sport marketers should be just as focused on innovations in the world of traditional marketing as they are on trends within their particular sport.

answer

True

question

The practice of binding a professional baseball player to his ballclub was called:

answer

reservation system

question

What sport organization did Walter O'Malley work for?

answer

formal and informal

question

The role of managers can be challenging as they try to assess the needs of their employees and utilize appropriate skills to meet the needs of the employees, all the while also getting the job done.

answer

True

question

The design of new sports stadiums indicates that marketers believe that the "place" aspect of the marketing mix is becoming increasingly more important to sports fans.

answer

True

question

Customer retention activities demonstrating care and concern for the customer following a purchase is considered by marketers as:

answer

aftermarketing

question

Recent trends in sport organization business practices have led American sports fans to become increasingly trustworthy of team owners.

answer

False

question

The jockey club concept originated in which nation?

answer

England

question

Participant decision making involves employees or members of the organization in the actual decision making process.

answer

True

question

The group of consumers to whom a product is marketed is the:

answer

target market

question

Two of the earlier phases used in the development of management theory are:

answer

scientific management and human relations movement

question

The underrepresentation of women, minorities, and people with disabilities in the sport industry is an important issue for sport managers who value _____ in the workplace.

answer

diversity

question

The sport marketer is able to control their product in a manner similar to a traditional marketer.

answer

false

question

Why did thoroughbred racing in the early United States fail to gain popularity?

answer

Lack of aristocratic tradition

question

What baseball industry professional was involved with the initial discussions of developing sport management as an academic field?

answer

Walter O'Malley

question

The ability to motivate employees to strive to achieve organizational goals and objectives as well as their personal goals and objectives is an art form.

answer

true

question

The manager determines what types of jobs need to be performed and who will be responsible for doing these jobs during the _____ function.

answer

organizing

question

The _____ movement is significant in that it changed management thinking to focus on the behavior of people and the human components in the workplace rather than on the scientific approach to performing a task.

answer

human relations

question

Fred Corcoran made his contribution to the sport industry by developing professional tennis tournaments.

answer

False

question

Motivating employees on a daily basis is a constant challenge to any sport manager.

answer

true

question

Sports marketing includes the marketing of: _____________, __________, and ____________:

answer

products, services, and entities

question

Roone Arledge's influence upon sports broadcasting included all of the following except:

answer

significant progressions in the way that sport marketers research the demands of the fan.

question

Sport management structures evolve in response to:

answer

broad social change

question

The process which involves assigning responsibility and accountability for results to employees and which is found in the "action" part of the management process is:

answer

delegation

question

Mark McCormack's sports marketing agency, IMG, began through a relationship with players of this sport:

answer

golf

question

Which of the following is NOT a common element used to define management?

answer

Values, policy, and strategy

question

Tournaments today are often created by marketing agencies or broadcast media rather than by player associations.

answer

true

question

All of the following are examples of a demographic trait or characteristic except:

answer

activities

question

While at a sporting event it is common for a sponsor company to offer free merchandise in exchange for filling out personal information, such as name, address, and demographics, on a specialized index card. This is an example of:

answer

database marketing

question

_____ is a continuous process that involves establishing organizational mission statements, goals, objectives, tactics, roles, and evaluation.

answer

planning

question

Customer demand is more predictable in the marketing of traditional products.

answer

true

question

____ is defined in this course as a management theory focusing on the behavior and motivations of people in the workplace.

answer

Human relations movement

question

Every sport manager needs to understand the basics of being a(n) _____ in the twenty-first century.

answer

manager

question

What two themes run through this chapter's examination of sport organizations?

answer

honesty and inclusion

question

_____________________ has the aim of building mutually satisfying long-term relations with key parties—customers, suppliers, distributors—in order to earn and retain their business (Kotler 2003).

answer

Relationship marketing

question

Which of the following is not a sport management structure?

answer

Municipality

question

_____ refers to the ability of workers to identify and acknowledge emotions when they occur, and instead of having an immediate emotional response, to take a step back, allowing rational thought to influence their actions.

answer

Emotional intelligence

question

Sports marketers define _______________ as the personal commitment and emotional involvement customers have with a sport organization.

answer

fan identification

question

All of the following are functions of promotion except:

answer

pricing research

question

The first company to capitalize on the term official with regard to a professional sport product was:

answer

Spalding

question

Sport managers must master their _____ in order to be successful.

answer

communication skills

question

Which of the following is NOT a step in the classic model of decision making?

answer

Managing technology

question

Thoroughbred racing quickly became the most popular professional sport in the colonial United States.

answer

false

question

_____ employees on a daily basis is a constant challenge to any sport manager.

answer

motivating

question

The position description of the Assistant Athletic Director for Marketing may include all of the following except:

answer

managing the facilities

question

Management is all about finding the best way to work with the employees to get the job done.

answer

true

question

Organizing involves setting a course of action for the sport organization.

answer

false

question

The number of sport management academic programs has declined within the last 10 years.

answer

false

question

Functional areas of management that have been used to explain and prepare managers for the various activities they get involved in include:

answer

planning, organizing, leading, and evaluating

question

On a large scale, major corporations have not changed the way they view athlete endorsement contracts based on events in recent history.

answer

false

question

Bill Veeck believed and operated under the philosophy that fans came to the ballpark to:

answer

be entertained

question

The potential for future embarrassment is a major concern in the thought process of corporations deciding whether to use athlete endorsers.

answer

true

question

Identifying subgroups of the overall marketplace based on factors such as age or income level is considered:

answer

segmentation

question

The earliest evolutionary change in sports broadcasting from factual reporting to sports entertainment was seen within:

answer

ABC's Monday Night Football broadcast

question

The Cincinnati Reds were the first professional baseball team.

answer

true

question

The emphasis on product extensions and the development of team sport promotional strategy can be attributed to:

answer

Bill Veeck

question

The proper steps involved in recruiting and selecting the right person for getting the job done include:

answer

advertising the position, reviewing completed applications, choosing qualified people for the interview process, checking references, and selecting the "best fit" person for the job

question

All of the following companies had early roles (early 1900s) in exploiting our country's interest in sport through sponsorship except:

answer

nike

question

Behaviors and preferences like an individual's beliefs, opinions, lifestyles, and habits are considered by marketers to be:

answer

photographic characteristics

question

The club structure still exists as a modern sport management structure.

answer

true

question

What other sports developed management structures similar to jockey clubs?

answer

cricket and boxing

question

Keeping the financial scope of the sport industry in mind, it is important to note that sport managers need to be able to organize and work with _____, the most important asset in their organization.

answer

people

question

The first organized group of professional baseball players was known as the:

answer

National Association of Professional Baseball Players

question

When a team raises ticket prices significantly after a winning season, it represents an action consistent with the principles of relationship marketing.

answer

false

question

The sport industry in the United States is growing at an incredible rate.

answer

true

question

Who founded the National League?

answer

Willliam Hulbert

question

Because a sport marketer has very little control over their core product it has led entrepreneurs like Bill Veeck to focus on:

answer

product extensions

question

Sport management originated in thoroughbred racing in the form of:

answer

jockey clubs

question

Sport managers must perform in a number of functional areas and execute various activities in fulfilling the demands of their jobs.

answer

true

question

What was the first sport to use sport management principles in the United States?

answer

harness racing

question

Current management theory stresses the concepts of employee involvement, employee empowerment, and _____.

answer

managers' concern with the human component of employees

question

The reserve system limited player movement and kept salaries low in the National League.

answer

true

question

Loyalty to sport clubs was developed by:

answer

memberships

question

The function of the management process that requires the manager to take on a leadership role and manage any differences or changes that may take place within the organization is:

answer

leading

question

Sport managers need to learn, understand, and respect the differences in language, culture, etiquette, management, and communication styles when working in the international sport marketplace.

answer

true

question

_____ refers to the encouragement of employees to use their initiative and make decisions within their area of operations.

answer

empowerment

question

_____ involves measuring and ensuring progress toward organizational objectives.

answer

evaluating

question

Sponsorship within the sports world is a new phenomenon, introduced during the 1970's.

answer

false

question

Managing technology, being familiar with it, and using it to one's advantage, is not something every manager should strive to achieve.

answer

false

question

Relationship marketing occurs when sports organizations view their customers as increasingly valued stakeholders.

answer

true

question

The purposes of sport marketing research include all of the following except:

answer

allowing fans direct input into team personnel decisions

question

By turning a parking garage in proximity to the 1996 Atlanta Olympic Village into a mini-Nike Town, Nike was engaged in:

answer

ambush marketing

question

Which of the following is NOT a practice that can raise the level of employee motivation?

answer

Select alternatives

question

The modern Olympic Games in 1896 were held in which city?

answer

athens

question

Female coaches whose salaries are not equal to those of their male counterparts have filed ___________ lawsuits.

answer

Equal Pay Act

question

____ are generally accepted so broadly within a community that they are considered self-evident and largely go unquestioned.

answer

moral values

question

When organizations borrow, they are legally obligated to pay back _____, plus ______.

answer

the principal, interest

question

Vicarious liability is:

answer

a tort that allows a plaintiff to sue a superior for the negligent acts of a subordinate.

question

What area of law has left an indelible mark on the structure and nature of labor relations in professional sport leagues?

answer

antitrust law

question

To be effective, discipline must meet which of the following criteria?

answer

meaningful and enforceable

question

_____, like ethics, is concerned with values guiding behavior.

answer

morality

question

One of the biggest distinctions between moral decision making and other ethical decisions is:

answer

the extensive ramification of immoral choices

question

In spectator sports, stadium construction projects are often financed with _____.

answer

bonds

question

_____ are the fundamental baseline values dictating appropriate behavior within a society.

answer

morals

question

An athlete challenging a drug test on the grounds that it is an unreasonable search and seizure would attempt to prove to a court that:

answer

taking the athlete's urine or blood may constitute a seizure and the testing may constitute a search

question

Leagues such as the NFL, NBA, and MLB all maintain "credit facilities" because:

answer

the leagues can borrow less expensively than can individual teams

question

_____ is the systematic study of values guiding our decision making.

answer

ethics

question

What is the term given to the amount of their own money owners have invested in the firm?

answer

equity

question

Sport law was first documented as a formally recognized specialty:

answer

in 1972 when Boston College Law School's Professor Robert Berry offered a course entitled Regulation of the Professional Sport Industry

question

Which financial statement measures the financial performance of an organization over a specified time period, usually a year?

answer

income statement

question

The U.S. Supreme Court case, PGA Tour Inc. v. Casey Martin (2001) invovled a challenge to PGA Tour rules under what statute?

answer

Americans with Disabilities Act

question

All of the following are examples of "financial" mechanisms for altering competitive balance EXCEPT:

answer

reverse-order draft

question

Which statement concerning the tradeoff between financing through debt or equity is true?

answer

Generally, financing with debt carries more risk than equity

question

Why do economists suggest that revenue sharing, in and of itself, will do little to improve competitive balance?

answer

Teams receiving revenue-sharing transfers may have little incentive to use the money to increase payroll, simply choosing to retain the transfer as added profit.

question

Sport managers need to be aware of the _____ and _____ in the sport workplace.

answer

morality, ethics

question

In sport, an example of a(n) _____ is that all athletes give an honest effort whenever they compete.

answer

moral principle

question

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act protects employees from discrimination on:

answer

the basis of age for anyone of any age, except certain public safety personnel and top-level managers

question

The process of making a correct and fair decision is called _____.

answer

ethical reasoning

question

Where revenue sharing may be effective as a tool to improve competitive balance is when it is used in conjunction with a ________.

answer

hard salary cap

question

Academic discussions of morality often start with a discussion of _____ versus _____.

answer

absolutism, relativism

question

In a basic sense, the financial success of an organization is ultimately dependent on:

answer

profits

question

______ is/are anything that an organization owns that can be used to generate future revenues.

answer

assets

question

If an athlete is asked why he or she strives to win, a common response would be:

answer

"because that's what sports are about."

question

_____ argues that what is moral depends on the situation.

answer

relativism

question

An _____ is a practical conflict involving more or less equally compelling values or social obligations.

answer

ethical dilemma

question

Another recommendation from the ethical decision-making model is to consult an organization's _____.

answer

codes of conduct

question

_____ is similar to the regular decision-making process in business situations in that there is a given structure to follow when making an ethical decision.

answer

ethical decision making

question

The concept of _______ is probably the best single measure of an industry's impact.

answer

aggregate market value of firms in industry

question

_____ is essential in scientific research, but in sport "faking out" an opponent is seen as an acceptable strategy and a way to gain advantage.

answer

honesty

question

The philosophy behind a "hard" salary cap is to:

answer

constrain all franchises to spend the same amount on payroll

question

_____ argues that moral precepts are universal; that is, applicable to all circumstances.

answer

absolutism

question

The law used to protect against ambush marketing is:

answer

the lanham act

question

The Sport Broadcasting Act of 1961 does what?

answer

Exempts the major professional sports leagues' national television deals from antitrust liability in pooling their television rights as a league.

STUDY

Cross Functional Team Higher Order Needs Lower Order Needs Management Organizational Psychology Situational Leadership Theory Three Times Daily

WGU – OBC1 – Flashcards 51 terms

Gracie Stone

51 terms

Preview

WGU – OBC1 – Flashcards

question

How can a manager build employee trust?

answer

Provide specific job loss and change information.

question

A change vision must be developed and clearly conveyed to all members of the firm. What aspect of the change vision should management communicate to employees?

answer

How the employees will be affected by the change.

question

What are the four types of strategic change?

answer

Structural, Cost Cutting, Process, and Cultural

question

What level of political action has broad long-term strategic impact?

answer

Network

question

Surprise and fear of the unknown are reasons people resist change. How might this reaction manifest itself through employee behavior?

answer

They create rumors to fill the void created by lack of official announcements.

question

What two recommendations should a manager consider in implementing an organizational change?

answer

Ensure the organization is ready and involve mid-level managers.

question

Which of the following is a key factor in communicating change vision to employees?

answer

Provide employees the opportunity to discuss proposed changes.

question

What skills does a manager need to successfully implement change?

answer

Communicates clearly, motivates through participation, and delegates key duties.

question

Which phase of change is characterized by reorientation towards a new situation?

answer

Refreezing

question

A company is in the unfreezing phase of change. What should communication from manager to employee focus on?

answer

Helping the employee become dissatisfied with the status quo.

question

A manger develops a strategy for empowering others to remove barriers and encouraging risk-taking and creative problem solving. Which phase of change is the manger trying to support?

answer

Reengineering

question

What factor results in greater resistance to change in some cultures than in others?

answer

Ethnocentrism

question

How does innovation benefit an organization?

answer

Enhances the firm's ability to remain competitive.

question

How does the use of a flat structure encourage innovation?

answer

Collaboration and creativity promote innovation.

question

Why would a celebrating failure strategy be appropriate for encouraging innovation when a previous innovation failed?

answer

Employees and management learn from failures.

question

What is an important characteristic of effective strategic objectives?

answer

Are measurable

question

Which of the following strategic objectives demonstrates cross-cultural awareness?

answer

Increase sales by satisfying the needs of diverse customers.

question

What is the difference between core competencies and distinctive competencies?

answer

Core competencies are measured relative to internal activities, while distinctive competencies are measured relative to competitors.

question

Which statement about the strategic planning sequence is correct?

answer

Setting objectives precedes crafting strategies.

question

Which statement about objectives within a strategic planning context is correct?

answer

The results for a short-term objective can be identical to the results for the related long-term objective.

question

What is a component of an action plan?

answer

Evaluating alternatives.

question

A manager established short- and long-term targets for the organization. Which step in the development and implementation of the action plan did the manager complete?

answer

Setting objectives

question

Which set of public information sources would a manager use to establish and maintain a competitive advantage?

answer

Company history and financial reports required by the Securities and Exchange Commission, company Website, product information, and market trends.

question

Which counter-intelligence technique is ethically acceptable?

answer

Reviewing competitors' court records

question

Firms gather competitive intelligence (CI) in order to better understand and anticipate their competitors' future plan. The focus of competitive intelligence is information consisting of a firm's future objectives, current strategies, assumptions, and capabilities. What type of information that can be used by competitors can be protected?

answer

Current operations for the organization

question

What does a business-level strategy describe?

answer

How to compete in individual product markets.

question

What type of organizational culture strategy would assume significant debt to accomplish its goals?

answer

Risk-taking

question

What influence does organizational structure have on strategy implementation?

answer

Provides financial reliability or Provides flexibility to reallocate resources

question

What does a properly designed organizational control system do?

answer

Provides insights regarding behaviors that enhance the firm's performance

question

For what purpose can interdependent business managers within a firm's portfolio use strategic control?

answer

To make their division more independent.

question

What is an appropriate use for output controls?

answer

Controlling activity in the warehouse

question

What trait has recent research strongly linked to greater work motivation?

answer

Internal locus of control

question

Which of the following has recent research indicated as having a strong negative correlation with job satisfaction?

answer

Perceived stress

question

Which of the following could have a negative impact on clear communication?

answer

Social perception

question

A large business in an industry known for unethical practices is considering whether to start an ethics training program. A group of genuinely honest company executives is meeting to discuss the subject. The following are comments made by each of the executives. Which executive's statement would improve the probability of ethical business behavior?

answer

"We should start the training because my beliefs about corporate culture are different than others in our industry."

question

Which of the following would tend to promote tolerance for diversity at a company?

answer

Offer diversity training to current employees and mentoring programs to new employees.

question

What has recent research indicated characterizes an entrepreneurial (constructive) organizational culture?

answer

Increased collaboration and teamwork.

question

What kind of organizational structure encourages cross-functional teams that focus on customer satisfaction?

answer

Horizontal

question

What is a result of using the job characteristics model?

answer

Reduced absenteeism

question

What is an expected outcome of using the job characteristics model?

answer

Identification of job goals for alignment with job quality standards

question

Which managerial practice aimed at improving diversity would likely result in litigation?

answer

-Hiring that targets minorities

question

What theory would give a manager a framework for determining how to convince an employee to choose a particular course of action?

answer

Vroom's Expectancy Theory

question

In what maintenance role does a person encourage all group members to participate?

answer

Gatekeeper

question

In what stage of group development do group members determine where they fit in the power structure?

answer

Storming

question

What leadership style should managers use during the first and second stages of group development?

answer

Directive Structured

question

There are various types of power, each of which will elicit compliance but may or may not elicit commitment. Some types of power, while eliciting compliance, may have negative ramifications. What type of power will elicit compliance without producing commitment or negative ramifications?

answer

Legitimate

question

What characteristics are associated with the aftermath phase of the conflict process?

answer

Either understanding between the conflicting groups or individuals improves, or hostility between them continues.

question

Tensions between two divisions of a company are creating the potential for reduced productivity. Both divisions are critical to the company's operation and both are led by vice presidents with a solid track record for profits. Executive managers want to resolve the conflict before productivity begins to slip. What conflict resolution style should the executive managers use to solve this problem?

answer

Compromising

question

What main characteristics of functional conflict sets it apart from dysfunctional conflict?

answer

It encourages positive feelings in employees.

question

Employees in a team environment are trying to decide what method to use for a new manufacturing process. During their discussion of the latest proposed method, a very strong "devil's advocate" emerges to attack the proposal. What type of conflict does this scenario portray?

answer

Functional

question

Conflict Resolution Styles

answer

Avoiding Accommodating (Giving In) Win/Lose (Classic) Problem Solving (Collaboration) Compromising

STUDY

AP Biology Biology Business Management Cell Biology Less Than One Year Management Plant And Animal Cells Principles Of Management

Unit 6: Protein Synthesis Study Guide KEY – Flashcards 30 terms

Brooke Sharp

30 terms

Preview

Unit 6: Protein Synthesis Study Guide KEY – Flashcards

question

1. Why is the nucleus called the control center of the cell?

answer

It manages all of the cell's activities= it "tells" the cell what to do

question

2. What are the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA?

answer

DNA: double stranded, DEOXYRIBOSE sugar, 4 bases (A,T,C,G) RNA: single stranded, RIBOSE sugar, 4 bases (URACIL not T, A, C, G)

question

3. What is a gene?

answer

a section of DNA that codes for a protein that determines a particular trait

question

4. What is a genome? .

answer

the complete set of DNA

question

5. What is DNA called the "blueprint of life"?

answer

It contains instructions for building an organism. It stores the GENETIC CODE for PROTEIN synthesis.

question

6. What is the structure of the DNA molecule?

answer

DOUBLE HELIX of many nucleotides; Backbone contains sugars and phosphates, while the rungs contain the base pairs.

question

7. What are the three components of a nucleotide?

answer

SUGAR, PHOSPHATE, BASE

question

8. What type of bond holds the two sides of the DNA ladder together?

answer

Hydrogen bonds

question

9. What two scientists were credited with the discovery of the DNA structure?

answer

James Watson & Francis Crick

question

10. What happens in the process of DNA replication? Where does it occur? .

answer

Copy of DNA is made in the NUCLEUS: DNA double helix unzips → Copy made from original strand by pairing up the bases → New DNA molecule formed

question

11. What are the two purposes for DNA replication?

answer

Cell Division & Cell Repair

question

12. How is DNA replication a semi-conservative process? .

answer

For each copy of DNA, it is "½ old" & "½ new". Half of the original DNA molecule is saved, or conserved in each new molecule of DNA.

question

13. What is the replicated strand of DNA? CGA TGC CAA GTT

answer

GCT ACG GTT CAA

question

14. What is the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology?

answer

DNA → RNA → protein >the major steps in the transfer of genetic information, from transcription of DNA to RNA to translation of the RNA to protein

question

15. What are the TWO stages in protein synthesis and where does each occur?

answer

1. TRANSCRIPTION → NUCLEUS 2. TRANSLATION → IN CYTOPLASM AT RIBOSOMES

question

16. Why does the DNA sequence that codes for a protein need to be copied onto RNA?

answer

DNA is too big to leave the nucleus. A copy of the gene is made onto mRNA since it is small and can leave the nucleus through the pore.

question

17. What are the steps of transcription? Where does it occur? .

answer

This occurs in the nucleus. ∙DNA partially unzips to expose gene sequence ∙G,U,A,C bases pair up with bases on template DNA ∙mRNA leaves nucleus through pore

question

18. What molecule is made during transcription?

answer

mRNA

question

19 (HONORS 3) What are the steps of translation?

answer

∙Ribosome binds to mRNA at START CODON ∙Codon from mRNA and anticodon from tRNA line up ∙Amino acid gets added to the elongating polypeptide chain ∙Ribosome continues reading until it hits the STOP CODON on the mRNA, then it releases the protein and the mRNA

question

20. How do the three kinds of RNA differ? mRNA, rRNA and tRNA

answer

∙mRNA carries genetic code from DNA to ribosomes ∙rRNA directs translation of mRNA; part of the ribosome ∙tRNA transfers amino acids to the ribosomes where proteins are synthesized THEY ALL MEET AT THE RIBOSOMES TO PARTICIPATE IN PROTEIN SYNTHESIS.

question

21. What are the similarities and differences between codons and anticodons? .

answer

BOTH consist of *3* bases. CODONS are only found on mRNA ONLY 1 ANTICODON is found on a single tRNA; correct amino acid is released when it matches to codon on mRNA

question

22. Every codon on a mRNA codes for _____ amino acid.

answer

Every codon on a mRNA codes for *1* amino acid.

question

23. What is a polypeptide chain of amino acids?

answer

PROTEIN

question

24. What type of bond holds the amino acids together in a protein?

answer

PEPTIDE BONDS

question

25a. For the DNA sequence, GAC CTA AGG TGC, that codes for a protein: What is the transcribed mRNA strand? .

answer

CUG GAU UCC ACG

question

25 b. For the DNA sequence, GAC CTA AGG TGC: What is the sequence of anticodons on the tRNA? .

answer

GAC CUA AGG UGC

question

25 c. For the DNA sequence, GAC CTA AGG TGC: How many amino acids will this protein have?

answer

4 Every CODON codes for 1 Amino Acid. Since there are 4 codons, the protein will have 4 amino acids. Every CODON is made up of 3 bases.

question

HONORS 1. During DNA replication, what enzymes play a key role and what do they do?

answer

HELICASE unwinds helix DNA POLYMERASE adds new nucleotides by matching bases, proofreads new strand DNA LIGASE seals up fragments

question

HONORS 2. What are exons and introns?

answer

EXONS CODE FOR AMINO ACIDS INTRONS DO NOT CONTAIN CODE BOTH found on RNA after transcription occurs. During splicing, introns are removed before mRNA leaves nucleus

question

HONORS 4. How does the ribosome know when to start and stop translation?

answer

During translation, when the ribosome reads the mRNA it begins protein elongation at the INITIATOR (start) CODON. When the ribosome reads the mRNA and it hits the TERMINATOR (Stop) CODON, the protein is complete and translation stops.

STUDY

Ford Motor Company Goods And Services Improve The Work Environment Management Operations Management Product Life Cycle

ISDS 3115 Chapter 1-2 – Flashcards 66 terms

Evie Nicholson

66 terms

Preview

ISDS 3115 Chapter 1-2 – Flashcards

question

Which of the following tasks would NOT typically represent an operations management activity at hard rock cafe?

answer

filing a tax return

question

The creation of goods and services is referred to as?

answer

production

question

Which of the following is not considered to be one of the three primary functions that all organizations perform?

answer

research and development

question

Three primary functions:

answer

-marketing -production/operations -finance/accounting

question

Which of the following is NOT an operations activity?

answer

sales

question

A global network of organizations and activities that supply a firm with goods and services is referred to as:

answer

supply chain

question

Competition in the 21st century is no longer between companies; it is between:

answer

supply chains

question

A large percentage of the revenue of most firms is spent on which function?

answer

operations

question

Which of these is NOT one of the basic function of the management process?

answer

Inspecting

question

Functions of the management process:

answer

-planning -organizing -staffing -leading -controlling

question

Which of the following OM decisions determines how a good or service is produced and commits management to specific technology, human resources, and capital investment?

answer

process and capacity design

question

The father of scientific management is:

answer

frederick w taylor

question

The person who believed that management must do more to improve the work environment and process so that quality can be improved was:

answer

w edwards deming

question

The economic activities that typically provide an intangible product are referred to as:

answer

services

question

Which of the following organizations does NOT belong to the serve sector?

answer

ford motor company

question

Productivity increases when:

answer

inputs decrease while outputs remain the same

question

What is the goal for mass customization?

answer

the goal is to produce customized products, whenever and wherever needed.

question

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a stakeholder?

answer

competitors

question

Which of the following is not one of the factors that fosters specialization and worldwide supply chains?

answer

marketing

question

Which of the following does NOT contribute to OM?

answer

Unsystematic processing of data

question

Which of the following trends is NOT part of the exciting OM challenges currently facing operation managers?

answer

local focus

question

In general, the supply chain starts with:

answer

the provider of basic raw materials

question

Which appears to provide the best opportunity for increase in productivity?

answer

management

question

The person who introduced standardized, interchangeable parts was

answer

eli whitney

question

Which of the following activities at a commercial bank is NOT an operations activity?

answer

auditing

question

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of services?

answer

standardized product

question

Which of these is NOT one of the 10 strategic OM decisions?

answer

marketing

question

Which of the following best defines scheduling?

answer

Determines and implements intermediate - and short term schedules that effectively and efficiently utilize both personnel and facilities while meeting customer demands.

question

Which operations function at a manufacturing facility strives for the efficient use of machine, space, and personnel?

answer

industrial engineering

question

Which of the following is an example of a "hidden" production function?

answer

transplanting a liver.

question

Which of the following is not one of the four reasons we study OM?

answer

We want to understand what marketing managers do.

question

The stated purpose of NAFTA is to:

answer

phase out all trade and tariff barriers among Canada, Mexico, and the US

question

Which of the following is NOT a reason why domestic business operations decide to change to some form inter nation operation?

answer

attract and retain local talent

question

A strategy is:

answer

an action plan to achieve a mission

question

Which of the following is the purpose or rationale for an organizations existence?

answer

mission

question

A correct example of differentiation and its explanation:

answer

Starbucks as it provides the special atmosphere and aroma of fresh coffee

question

A correct example of cost leadership and its explanation:

answer

walmart, it has the low overhead and huge buying power to pressure its suppliers into concessions.

question

Choose the correct example of response and its explanation:

answer

Johnson electric, as it competes on speed-speed in design, production, and delivery.

question

Competing on differentiation is:

answer

concerned with uniqueness

question

Which of the following does not represent competing on response?

answer

Based on providing unqueness

question

Which of the following is not one of the 10 strategic OM decisions listed in the text?

answer

financing/accounting

question

Which of the following is NOT an OM strategy/issue during the growth stage of the product life cycle?

answer

reduce capacity

question

SWOT analysis refers to:

answer

strengths, oppurtunities, weaknesses, and threats

question

Which of these is not an advantage of outsourcing?

answer

potential creation of future competition

question

An international business is a firm that

answer

engages in international trade or environment

question

Which of the following inter nation operations strategies uses decentralized authority with substantial autonomy at each business?

answer

multidomestic

question

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the mission?

answer

Each functional area within the firm may develop its own strategy but not its own supporting mission

question

The creation of a unique advantage over competitors is referred as:

answer

competitive advantage

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the three strategic approaches to competitive advantage?

answer

innovation

question

A method managers use to evaluate the resources at their disposal and manage or alter them to achieve competitive advantage is referred to as:

answer

resources view

question

Which of the following is not an om stratedy/issue during the introduction stage of the product life cycle?

answer

long production runs

question

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding globalization and globalization strategies?

answer

Globilization strategies could simplify the operations manager's job.

question

Which of the following inter nation operation strategies involves a high degree of centralization?

answer

global

question

What is a graphical link of competitive advantage, KSFs, and supporting activities?

answer

activity map

question

Competing on cost is

answer

achieiving maximum value as perceived by the customer

question

Which of their is NOT a disadvantage of outsourcing?

answer

decrease logistics and inventory costs

question

Operation management is applicable:

answer

to all firms, whether manufacturing or service.

question

The 10 strategic operations management decisions include:

answer

-process and capacity design -managing quality -layout strategy -maintenance

question

Current challenges in OM include:

answer

-ethics -global focus -environmentally sensitive production -rapid product development -mass customization -empowered employees -supply chain partnering -just in time performance

question

The total of all outputs produced by the reansformation produces divided by the total of the inputs is:

answer

multi-factor productivity

question

Which of the following statements regarding the Dreamliner 787 is true?

answer

-the new aircraft incorporates a wide range of aerospace technologies -the new aircraft engine from not one, but two manufacturers -boeiing has found partners in over a dozen countries -boeing will add only 20 or 30 percent to the aircrafts value

question

Which of the following statements about organization missions is FALSE?

answer

They are formulated rafter strategies are known.

question

The ability of an organization to produce goods or services that have some uniqueness in their characteristics is:

answer

competing on differentiation

question

Which of the following OM strategy/issues should a firm with a product in the maturity stage of its life cycle be the least concerned with at the present time?

answer

`increase capacity

question

10 OM decisions:

answer

Product Quality Process Location Layout Human resource Supply chain Inventory Scheduling Maintenance

question

forecasting steps:

answer

1) determine the use of the forecast 2) select the items to be forecasted 3) determine the time horizon on the forecast 4) select the forecasting models 5) gather the data needed to make the forecast 6) select the forecasting models 7) Validate and implement the results

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Business And Management Business Management External Locus Of Control Internal Locus Of Control Management Organizational Psychology

BUS 200 Principles of Management Ch 1 – Flashcards 20 terms

Brooke Sharp

20 terms

Preview

BUS 200 Principles of Management Ch 1 – Flashcards

question

Groups of people who work together to achieve a set of goals are called a(n):

answer

Organization

question

The people within an organization who are responsible for supervising the organizations use of its resources are known as:

answer

Managers

question

The measure of how well (or how productively) an organization uses its resources to achieve a goal is known as:

answer

Efficiency

question

The measure of the "appropriateness" of the goals selected be management for the organization and the degree to which the organization accomplishes these goals is known as:

answer

Effectiveness

question

In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions?

answer

Planning, Organizing, Leading, Controlling

question

When managers motivate and assist workers to achieve organizational goals, this is an important aspect of:

answer

Leading

question

The top management of an organization must devote more time to ______________ than lower level managers do.

answer

Planning and Organizing

question

When an organization gives broader responsibilities for decision-making to first-line supervisors, this is called:

answer

Empowerment

question

The ability to analyze and diagnose a problem situation and distinguish between cause and effect is called:

answer

Conceptual Skill

question

The ability to understand, lead, and control the behavior of other workers is called:

answer

Human Skill

question

Who founded the early study of management thought that became known as scientific management?

answer

F. W. Taylor

question

The power to hold workers accountable for their actions and to make decisions about the use of organizational resources is known as:

answer

Authority

question

Early "time-and-motion" studies were an important part of the work of"

answer

Taylor

question

The "chain of command" which describes the reporting relationships of managers from the top to the bottom of the organization is known as:

answer

The Line of Authority

question

The research studies that experimented with different levels of lighting and its impact on worker performance and fatigue are known as:

answer

The Hawthorne Studies

question

Who proposed ,"Authority should go with knowledge...whether it is up the line or down?"

answer

Follett

question

One of the main implications of the Hawthorne studies was that:

answer

worker's feelings and thought can effect performance

question

all of the above

answer

Managers who accept the assumptions of Theory X:

question

create a work setting that encourages commitment

answer

Managers who accept Theory Y:

question

If a manager feels that his or her responsibility is to create a work setting in which subordinates consider their work to be satisfying, this manager is acting consistently with the principles of:

answer

Theory Y

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Business Management Management

Flashcards About MGT 101 Exam 1 70 terms

Will Walter

70 terms

Preview

Flashcards About MGT 101 Exam 1

question

Groups of people who work together to achieve a set of goals are called a(n): A) role set B) society C) organization D) global organization E) competitive advantage

answer

C) organization

question

ABC Company sets a target of doubling its sales every year. This sales target is known as: A) an efficiency target B) a strategy C) a role D) a goal E) a technical skill

answer

D) a goal

question

The measure of how well (or how productively) an organization uses its resources to achieve a goal is known as: A) effectiveness B) role C) efficiency D) strategy E) organizing

answer

C) efficiency

question

The measure of the "appropriateness" of the goals selected by management for the organization and the degree to which the organization accomplishes these goals is known as: A) efficiency B) strategy C) effectiveness D) conceptual skill E) restructuring

answer

C) effectiveness

question

The Registrar's Office at Whassamatta University scheduled the work hours of its staff so that some work 7-4 and others work 9-6, in order to better serve the students. This was an attempt to improve the organization's: A) effectiveness B) planning C) leading strategy D) efficiency E) none of the above

answer

A) effectiveness

question

Managers who choose the "right" organizational goals and have the skills to use the organization's resources are: A) efficient B) effective C) strategic D) conceptual E) technical

answer

B) effective

question

The people within an organization who are responsible for supervising the organization's use of its resources are known as: A) managers B) efficiency experts C) effectiveness experts D) strategists E) restructurers

answer

A) managers

question

In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions? A) organizing, planning, controlling, leading B) organizing, leading, planning, controlling C) planning, organizing, leading, controlling D) planning, organizing, controlling, leading E) leading, organizing, planning, controlling

answer

C) planning, organizing, leading, controlling

question

The process that managers use to select "appropriate" goals for the organization is called: A) organizing B) leading C) planning D) controlling E) demonstrating

answer

C) planning

question

The process that managers use to design a structure of working relationships that allows managers to work together to achieve organizational goals is called: A) planning B) leading C) demonstrating D) controlling E) organizing

answer

E) organizing

question

A formal system of reporting relationships that coordinates workers so that they work together to attempt to achieve organizational goals is called: A) a leading strategy B) a controlling strategy C) an organizational structure D) a low-cost strategy E) an efficiency strategy

answer

C) an organizational structure

question

Effective leadership depends on the use of: A) power and influence B) authority and giving orders C) physical resources D) structure E) policies and procedures

answer

A) power and influence

question

When managers motivate and assist workers to achieve organizational goals, this is an important aspect of: A) planning B) leading C) demonstrating D) controlling E) organizing

answer

B) leading

question

When managers attempt to determine how well the organization is accomplishing its goals, this is an important aspect of: A) leading B) planning C) organizing D) demonstrating E) controlling

answer

E) controlling

question

A manager who trains and mentors subordinates to assist them to achieve their full potential within the organization is acting primarily within which function?A) organizing B) leading C) demonstrating D) controlling E) planning

answer

B) leading

question

Dell found that by putting effective control systems in place, it was able to: A) reduce costs B) expand internationally C) move into new markets D) insure ethical behavior E) increase diversity

answer

A) reduce costs

question

The set of job responsibilities that a manager is expected to perform because of his position within the organization is called: A) a plan B) restructuring C) a role D) an efficiency strategy E) none of the above

answer

C) a role

question

A manager is deciding which program or programs to initiate. He is acting as a(n): A) entrepreneur B) negotiator C) monitor D) liaison E) resource allocator

answer

A) entrepreneur

question

A manager who cuts the ribbon at the opening ceremony of the company's new plant is performing the _______ role for the organization. A) liaison B) monitor C) resource allocator D) negotiator

answer

E) figurehead

question

The CEO of Chrysler Corp. goes on TV to explain what the company is doing to avoid future problems like the ones created by a recent recall of its minivans. This CEO is acting in which type of role? A) liaison B) figurehead C) leader D) disseminator E) spokesperson

answer

E) spokesperson

question

Another name for supervisors is: A) first-line managers B) middle managers C) top managers D) interim managers E) all of the above

answer

A) first-line managers

question

The top management of an organization must devote more time to ________________ than lower level managers do. A) planning and organizing B) leading C) controlling D) vision E) motivation

answer

A) planning and organizing

question

The ability to analyze and diagnose a problem situation and distinguish between cause and effect is a: A) human skill B) negotiating skill C) technical skill D) conceptual skill E) none of the above

answer

D) conceptual skill

question

The ability of a worker in the accounting department to prepare the organization's balance sheet is an example of a ________ skill. A) conceptual B) first-line C) human D) technical E) none of the above

answer

D) technical

question

The top management team of ABC, Inc., facing financial problems, decides to reduce the number of middle managers by 10 percent in order to cut costs. This is an example of: A) innovation B) restructuring C) strategy D) empowerment E) a self-managed team

answer

B) restructuring

question

TWA allows the agent-in-charge at the gate to decide whether to give out a "free ticket" to some passengers when a flight is overbooked. This is an example of: A) innovation B) restructuring C) TQM D) empowerment E) outsourcing

answer

D) empowerment

question

Wal-Mart built distribution warehouses so that it can supply products to its stores within a 200-mile radius almost daily. We say that Wal-Mart has achieved: A) empowerment B) a competitive advantage C) increased quality D) increased innovation E) none of the above

answer

B) a competitive advantage

question

The process of creating new products that customers want to purchase is called: A) responsiveness B) TQM C) quality D) innovation E) restructuring

answer

D) innovation

question

Who founded the early study of management thought which became known as scientific management? A) Elton Mayo B) Frank Gilbreth C) Max Weber D) Henri Fayol E) F.W. Taylor

answer

E) F.W. Taylor

question

The power to hold workers accountable for their actions and to make decisions about the use of organizational resources is known as: A) Power B) Job specialization C) Authority D) Behavioral management E) The Hawthorne effect

answer

C) Authority

question

Formal, written instructions which specify what workers should do on the job under different conditions are known as: A) Rules B) Norms C) Informal organizational understandings D) Standard operating procedures E) Bureaucratic control

answer

A) Rules

question

Specific written instructions as to how a worker should perform an aspect of his or her work task are known as: A) Norms B) Standard operating procedures C) Job specialization D) Unity of command E) Centralization

answer

B) Standard operating procedures

question

Unwritten, informal codes of conduct which prescribe how workers should act in specific work situations are known as: A) Rules B) Standard operating procedures C) The chain of command D) Norms E) Contingency theory

answer

D) Norms

question

When a factory has a standard practice that each machine operator should leave his or her work station in a clean condition and ready for the next shift of workers, this is an example of: A) An SOP B) Bureaucracy C) Job specialization D) A rule E) Equity

answer

D) A rule

question

Mamma Mia's Ristorante has an informal practice in which all the servers try to help each other out if they are not busy with customers. This practice is called: A) Job specialization B) A rule C) Unity of direction D) A norm E) An open system

answer

D) A norm

question

"Informal authority" can result from: A) Technical knowledge B) Moral character C) Job expertise D) The ability to lead E) All of the above

answer

E) All of the above

question

The idea that every worker should receive orders from only one superior is called: A) Line of authority B) Unity of command C) Centralization D) Equity E) Initiative

answer

B) Unity of command

question

The "chain of command" which describes the reporting relationships of managers from the top to the bottom of the organization is known as: A) The line of authority B) Discipline C) Unity of direction D) Unity of command E) Initiative

answer

A) The line of authority

question

When authority is concentrated at the top of the organizational chart instead of being distributed throughout the management hierarchy, we say that __________ has occurred. A) Decentralization B) A bureaucracy C) Centralization D) Scientific management E) Job specialization

answer

C) Centralization

question

If the CEO has a long-range strategic plan for the organization and the Marketing department has its own five-year strategic plan, but these plans are not coordinated, this is a violation of Fayol's principle of: A) Order B) Discipline C) Unity of command D) Unity of direction E) Stability of tenure of personnel

answer

D) Unity of direction

question

"Organizational charts" are a representation of which of Fayol's principles of management? A) Equity B) Discipline C) Order D) Initiative E) Stability of tenure of personnel

answer

C) Order

question

The ability of workers to act on their own, without supervision by a manager, is known as: A) Discipline B) Unity of command C) Initiative D) Order E) The Hawthorne effect

answer

C) Initiative

question

Obedience to a manager's request, along with other signs of respect for the manager's authority, is most consistent with Fayol's principle of: A) Order B) Discipline C) Esprit de corps D) The chain of command E) Unity of comman

answer

B) Discipline

question

The idea that "managers should encourage employees to be innovative and creative in their work" is an example of Fayol's principle of: A) Unity of command B) Initiative C) Line of authority D) Centralization E) Equity

answer

B) Initiative

question

If an organization has a profit-sharing plan in which top executives are able to purchase the company's stock at a discount whenever the organization has a highly profitable year, this organization is acting consistently with Fayol's principle of: A) Unity of command B) Discipline C) Line of authority D) Unity of direction E) Remuneration of personnel

answer

E) Remuneration of personnel

question

The idea that workers should be aware of how their behavior affects the performance of the organization as a whole is most consistent with Fayol's principle of: A) Equity B) Subordination of individual interests to the common interest C) Remuneration of personnel D) Unity of direction E) Stability of tenure of personnel

answer

B) Subordination of individual interests to the common interest

question

When a manager and his or her subordinates share feelings of comradeship and devotion to a common cause, they are expressing Fayol's principle of: A) Unity of command B) Order C) Discipline D) Esprit de corps E) Laissez-faire

answer

D) Esprit de corps

question

The research studies which experimented with different levels of lighting and its impact on worker performance and fatigue are known as: A) The Fayol studies B) The Taylor studies C) The Hawthorne studies D) The Katz studies E) The Weber studies

answer

C) The Hawthorne studies

question

One of the main implications of the Hawthorne Studies was that: A) Illumination affects workers' productivity B) Illumination effects workers' satisfaction C) Workers' feelings and thoughts can affect performance D) A group will perform at a level lower than its members working individually E) Management is unnecessary

answer

C) Workers' feelings and thoughts can affect performance

question

The system of rules of behavior that emerge as a group of workers get to know one another by working together is known as: A) An informal organization B) A code of conduct C) Scientific management D) A formal organization E) None of the above

answer

A) An informal organization

question

The study of the factors that have an impact on how workers respond to one another within organizations is known as: A) The Hawthorne studies B) Organizational behavior C) Unity of command D) Scientific management E) Organic structure

answer

B) Organizational behavior

question

If a manager feels that his major job responsibility is "to counteract the natural tendencies of subordinates to avoid working hard," this manager is acting consistently with the principles of: A) Contingency theory B) Theory X C) Theory Y D) Theory Z E) Management science theory

answer

B) Theory X

question

If a manager feels that her responsibility is to create a work setting in which her subordinates consider their work to be satisfying, she is acting consistently with the principles of: A) Theory X B) Theory Y C) Contingency theory D) Management science theory E) Scientific management theory

answer

B) Theory Y

question

The management theory that focuses on the use of rigorous, quantitative techniques that are intended to assist managers to make the best use of organizational resources is called: A) Contingency theory B) Management science theory C) Administrative management theory D) Behavioral management theory E) Human relations theory

answer

B) Management science theory

question

The aspect of management theory that analyzes production systems to increase efficiency is: A) Contingency management B) TQM C) Operations management D) Scientific management E) Human relations management

answer

C) Operations management

question

The stage of a system during which the organization obtains resources such as raw materials and labor in order to produce goods is known as: A) The conversion stage B) The behavioral stage C) The output stage D) The open stage E) The input stage

answer

E) The input stage

question

The stage of a system during which the organization transforms raw materials into finished goods outputs such as automobiles or French fries is known as: A) The input stage B) The behavioral stage C) The open stage D) The conversion stage E) The output stage

answer

D) The conversion stage

question

The idea that the effectiveness of organizational structure and control systems depends on what outside forces it is facing is called: A) Behavioral management B) Contingency management C) Quantitative management D) Administrative management E) Human relations management

answer

B) Contingency management

question

The concept that: "There is no one best way to manage" is a fundamental premise in: A) Scientific management theory B) Administrative management theory C) Contingency theory D) Behavioral management theory E) The human relations movement

answer

C) Contingency theory

question

ABC Company's external environment is changing rapidly and it responds by decentralizing decisions to lower-level managers so that the organization can react faster. ABC is said to be organized under: A) A mechanistic structure B) A centralization structure C) A behavioral management structure D) A human relations structure E) An organic structure

answer

E) An organic structure

question

The tendency of a person to feel good about himself and the rest of the world is known as: A) Conscientiousness B) Openness to experience C) The internal locus of control D) Extroversion E) The external locus of control

answer

D) Extroversion

question

People who score low on extroversion are frequently referred to as: A) Extroverts B) High in external locus of control C) Low in self-esteem D) Introverts E) None of the above

answer

D) Introverts

question

The tendency of a person to feel bad emotions and to be critical of herself and others is called: A) Disagreeableness B) Conscientiousness C) Negative affectivity D) Negative valence E) An internal locus of control

answer

C) Negative affectivity

question

The tendency of a person to get along well with other workers is known as: A) Positive affectivity B) Agreeableness C) Conscientiousness D) Teamwork E) Inclusion

answer

B) Agreeableness

question

The tendency of a person to be careful and persevering in work-related tasks is known as: A) Conscientiousness B) Internal locus of control C) Perfectionism D) Agreeableness E) Positive valence

answer

A) Conscientiousness

question

Managers who believe that they are largely responsible for their own fate are said to be high in: A) External locus of control. B) Conscientiousness. C) Negative affectivity. D) Internal locus of control. E) Openness to experience.

answer

D) Internal locus of control.

question

People who believe that forces outside of their control are largely responsible for what happens to them are said to be high in: A) Openness to experience B) Negative affectivity C) Internal locus of control D) External locus of control E) Need for power

answer

D) External locus of control

question

The degree to which a people feel good about themselves and their capabilities is known as: A) Self-concept B) Agreeableness C) Optimism D) Self-esteem E) Positive

answer

D) Self-esteem

question

According to McClelland, the extent to which a person is concerned with being liked and having others get along well with one another is called: A) The need for power B) The need for self-esteem C) The need for conscientiousness D) The need for achievement E) The need for affiliation

answer

E) The need for affiliation

question

According to McClelland, the extent to which a person has a strong desire to control and to influence others is known as: A) The need for affiliation B) The need for self-esteem C) The need for power D) The need for conscientiousness E) The need for achievement

answer

C) The need for power

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