A condition in which members of society have differing amounts of wealth, prestige, or power is referred to as Select one: a. social inequality. b. applied sociology. c. pure sociology. d. social psychology.

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Applied Sociology theory

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CIS.Chapters 5-8: Storage Device, the Banking Industry for Check Processing, Kinds of Ports – Flashcards 120 terms

Ray Collins

120 terms

Preview

CIS.Chapters 5-8: Storage Device, the Banking Industry for Check Processing, Kinds of Ports – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is any event that could cause a loss of or damage to computer hardware, software, data, information, or processing capability ? digital security risk information liability technical terrorism network compromise

answer

digital security risk

question

Which of the following is someone who uses the Internet or network to destroy or damage computers for political reasons? hacker script kiddie cyberextortionist cyberterrorist

answer

cyberterrorist

question

Computer viruses, worms, Trojan horses, and rootkits are classified as which of the following? malware untrusted sources threats cybermails

answer

malware

question

Which of the following is a technique intruders use to make their network or Internet transmission appear legitimate to a victim computer or network? rebuking spoofing transmitting victimizing

answer

spoofing

question

Which of the following is not a security product developer? Adobe AVG McAfee Symantec

answer

adobe

question

Into which of the following kinds of ports do external fingerprint readers plug? parallel MIDI USB serial

answer

USB

question

Which kind of license is a legal agreement that permits users to install the software on multiple computers, usually at a volume discount? network distributed site multipurpose

answer

site

question

Which of the following terms refers to making a copy of a file? restoring backing up encrypting deciphering

answer

backing up

question

In the case of system failure or the discovery of corrupted files, what do users do to the backed-up files when they bring the files to their original location on a computer? They reset the files. The index the files. They restore the files. They resource the files.

answer

they restore the files

question

Which of the following copies all of the files in a computer? full backup incremental backup differential backup selective backup

answer

full backup

question

Which of the following gives authors and artists the exclusive rights to duplicate, publish, and sell their materials? intellectual property deed content license access right copyright

answer

question

An IT code of conduct is a written guideline that helps determine whether a specific computer action is which of the following? practical permissible acceptable ethical

answer

ethical

question

Which of the following is a scam in which a perpetrator sends an official looking email that attempts to obtain a user's personal and financial information? spam spit phishing spyware

answer

phishing

question

Which of the following terms refers to someone who uses the Internet or network to destroy or damage computers for political reasons? script kiddie cracker cyberextortionist cyberterrorist

answer

cyberterrorist

question

What is the general term for programs that act without a user's knowledge and deliberately alter the computer's operations? malware cybersoft evilapp viralware

answer

malware

question

The term back door, as it refers to computer crime, is _____________.

answer

a program or set of instructions that allows users to bypass security controls when accessing a program, computer, or network

question

The term, PIN, is an acronym for which of the following? personal identification number private Internet notification possessed information number personal information network

answer

personal identification number

question

What is an EULA intended to do? a.license software for individual use b. outline computer activities for which the computer and network may or may not be used c. contract with an outside organization to provide security and recovery services for a network d. establish a network of computers, such as a homegroup

answer

license software for individual use

question

What term is used to describe the process of restricting access to certain material on the web? content filtering information monitoring data mining social profiling

answer

content filtering

question

Any illegal act involving a computer generally is referred to as a computer crime.

answer

true

question

A cyberextortionist uses the Internet or network to destroy or damage computers for political reasons

answer

false

question

Both Windows and Mac operating systems include firewall capabilities.

answer

true

question

Many organizations and businesses have strict written policies governing the installation and use of software and enforce their rules by checking networked or online computers periodically to ensure that all software is licensed properly.

answer

true

question

Your browsing history is a list of all websites you have visited over a period of time.

answer

true

question

HIPAA protects individuals against the wrongful disclosure of their health information.

answer

true

question

Which of the following terms means in a location separate from the computer site? off-scope off-shore off-line off-site

answer

off-site

question

With a three-generation backup policy, the grandparent is which of the following? most recent copy of the file second oldest copy of the file oldest copy of the file original file

answer

the oldest copy of the file

question

Websites use which of the following to keep track of items in a user's shopping cart? session cookie zombie adware shopping bot

answer

session cookie

question

The term CAPTCHA is _____________.

answer

a series of distorted characters that a user is required to enter correctly to continue using a website

question

Cybercrime laws are consistent between states and countries, making it easy to reach a consensus as to what is illegal

answer

false

question

Which kind of tablet typically does not include a physical keyboard and puts the case behind the display? slate convertible console integrated

answer

slate

question

Which of the following is the main circuit board of the system unit? control board system board master board index board

answer

system board

question

Which of the following interprets and carries out the basic instructions that operate a computer? control unit binary device CPU compressor

answer

CPU

question

Which of the following processors is a single chip with two or more separate processor cores? parallel compressed multi-core binary

answer

multi-core

question

Which of the following is measured by the number of ticks per second? temporal rate system rate processor speed clock speed

answer

clock speed

question

One gigahertz (GHz) equals how many ticks of the system clock per second? one thousand one million one billion one trillion

answer

one billion

question

Which of the following is the most common type of volatile memory? ROM Flash memory CMOS RAM

answer

RAM

question

What is the process of copying items from RAM to a storage device? pipelining synchronization restating saving

answer

saving

question

Which of the following is a kind of ROM chip that contains permanently written data, instructions, or information that is recorded when the chip is manufactured? L1 cache Flash memory firmware microcode

answer

firmware

question

Which of the following determines the number of bits that the computer can transmit at one time? bus diameter bus width bus circumference bus interpolation

answer

bus width

question

Which of the following is the component of the system unit that converts the wall outlet AC power into the DC power a computer requires? power surge power supply energy spotter electricity changer

answer

power supply

question

When your friend opened the case containing the electronic components of his computer, he saw the main circuit board for the computer. What is this circuit board called? motherboard control board electronic circuit primary board command board

answer

motherboard

question

What are the four steps in the machine cycle? arith calc, comp, storing, pipelining decoding, fetching, executing, controll storing, executing, registering, cycling executing, fetching, storing, decoding

answer

executing, fetching, storing, decoding

question

Which of the following are the two leading manufacturers of personal computer processor chips? Intel and Quad Xeon and Intel AMD and Xeon Intel and AMD

answer

intel and AMD

question

What numbering system uses only the numbers 0 and 1? octo system binary system 8-bit system ASCII system

answer

binary system

question

When 8 bits are grouped together as a unit, how many individual characters can these 8 bits represent? 8 100 256 844

answer

256

question

If you see eight numbers such as 01000101 grouped together and you are told these numbers represent the letter E, what is this combination of numbers called? American Symbolic Code a coding scheme multicode symbolic codecs

answer

a coding scheme

question

When your friend turns off her computer, what kind of memory loses its contents? partial static L1 ROM dig fixd mem installd on memory mod volatile

answer

volatile

question

What does CMOS, which provides high speeds and consumes little power, stand for? cache memory on silicon circuit method-off-synched classic measured online semiconductor complementary metal-oxide semiconductor

answer

complementary metal-oxide semiconductor

question

What component converts the AC power in a wall plug to the DC power required by a computer? electrical alternator power supply AC/DC flip-flop power switch power surge & adaptation coordinator

answer

power supply

question

Multi-core processor speed performance increases are especially noticeable when users are running multiple programs simultaneously.

answer

true

question

Data needed by programs and applications enters memory from either an input device or a storage device.

answer

true

question

In the machine cycle, executing is the process of carrying out commands.

answer

true

question

A heat sink is a small ceramic or metal component with fins on its surface that absorbs and disperses heat produced by electrical components such as a processor.

answer

true

question

A petabyte is equal to approximately 1 billion bytes.

answer

false

question

L1 cache is built directly into a processor chip and usually has a very small capacity.

answer

true

question

L2 cache is slightly faster than L1 cache but has a much smaller capacity.

answer

false

question

Manufacturers and other retailers usually list a computer's memory in terms of its access time.

answer

false

question

The batteries in mobile computers and devices typically are rechargeable lithium-ion batteries.

answer

true

question

A blocked vent can prohibit heat from escaping, which ultimately can cause the computer or mobile device to overheat

answer

true

question

Which of the following kinds of keyboard has a design that reduces the chance of wrist and hand injuries? basal enhanced strength-building ergonomic

answer

ergonomics

question

In a graphical user interface, which of the following is a small symbol on the screen whose location and shape changes as a user moves a pointing device? index keypad pointer keystroke

answer

pointer

question

What kind of mouse is a battery-powered mouse that sometimes uses Bluetooth technology to pair with the device? light optical wireless radio

answer

wireless

question

What term refers to the process of entering input by speaking into a microphone? voice matter voice input voice output voice outreach

answer

voice input

question

Many scanners include a certain kind of software, which can read and convert text documents into electronic files. What is that kind of software DCR ECR OCR SCR

answer

OCR

question

Retail and grocery stores use which kind of bar code?

answer

UPC (Universal Product Code)

question

Which of the following is used almost exclusively by the banking industry for check processing? MICR OCR MIDI OCM

answer

MICR

question

An important measure of LCD monitors is the time in milliseconds (ms) that it takes to turn a pixel on or off. What is this called? contrast time pixel time pitch time response time

answer

response time

question

Which of the following is the most advanced form of digital television?

answer

HDTV

question

Which of the following are NOT commonly used nonimpact printers? ink-jet printers and photo printers laser printers and thermal printers mobile printer label & postage printers line printers and dot-matrix printers

answer

line printers and dot-matrix printers

question

Which kind of printer forms characters and graphics on a piece of paper without actually striking the paper?nonimpact dot matrix shuttle-matrix line

answer

nonimpact

question

Which of the following is a disadvantage of an all-in-one printer? a. it requires more space than having a separate printer, scanner, copy machine, and fax machine b. it is significantly more expensive than purchasing a printer, scanner, copy machine, and fax machine separately c. if the device breaks down, users lose all four functions d. all of the above

answer

if the device breaks down, users lose all four functions

question

When a user types data on a keyboard, what is occurring?

answer

The user is using an input device to enter input into the memory of the computer

question

If your instructor advises you to use the keys at the top of your keyboard that are identified by the letter F and then a number to perform certain activities, what kind of keys is she advising you to use? facilitating keys function keys feature keys finger keys

answer

function keys

question

Who created the mouse that is used on millions of computers today? Steve Wozniak Albert Keys Susan Nimura Douglas Engelbart

answer

Douglas Engelbart

question

What method is used to read a bar code?

answer

A bar code reader uses laser beams to read bar codes.

question

Which industry almost exclusively uses MICR? banking retail automobile manufacturing air transportation

answer

banking

question

Several factors that affect the quality of an LCD monitor or LCD screen, including the specific resolution for which they are geared. How is this resolution described? the default resolution the ideal resolution the native resolution the active resolution

answer

the native resolution

question

The quality of an LCD monitor or LCD screen depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT true about the factors that affect LCD display quality? a.Resolution is no. of horizontal vertical pixels in a display device. b.The response time is the time in milliseconds it takes to turn a pixel on or off. c.Dot pitch is the distance in millimeters between pixels on a display device. d.A lower resolution makes screen items appear smaller.

answer

A lower resolution makes screen items appear smaller.

question

How is printer resolution measured? points per inch pixels per inch dots per inch strikes per inch

answer

dots per inch

question

Your roommate is a graphic artist. She buys a large-format printer that creates photo-realistic-quality color prints. What printer technology does her printer use? plotter printer impact printer ink-jet printer dye-sublimation

answer

ink-jet printer

question

Today's joysticks, wheels, gamepads, and motion-sensing game controllers include a technology that sends resistance to the device in response to actions of the user. What is this technology called? front feedback front format force format force feedback

answer

force feedback

question

As a user moves a mouse, the pointer on the screen also moves.

answer

true

question

Touchpads are found most often on desktop computers.

answer

false

question

Voice input is part of a larger category of input called video input.

answer

false

question

Computers process information (output) into data (input).

answer

false

question

With an ink-jet printer, a higher dpi means the drops of ink are larger.

answer

false

question

Impact printers are noisy because a mechanism strikes against an inked ribbon that physically contacts the paper.

answer

true

question

Nonimpact printers are ideal for printing multipart forms because they can print through layers of paper.

answer

false

question

Visually impaired users can change screen settings, such as increasing the size or changing the color of text to make words easier to read.

answer

true

question

Which of the following devices is the computer hardware that records and/or retrieves items to and from a flash drive or external hard drive, for example? concatenation indexed resolved storage

answer

storage

question

The inflexible, circular platters on which kind of disks use magnetic particles to store data, instructions, and information? hard digital optical indexed

answer

hard

question

Which of the following is the mechanism that reads and writes items in the drive as it barely touches the disk's recording surface? read/write head disc index input vector platter notch

answer

read/write head

question

Which of the following is true of SSDs compared to traditional hard disks? SSDs have lower storage capacities. SSDs generate more heat. SSDs have faster transfer rates. SSDs have a shorter life.

answer

SSDs have faster transfer rates.

question

What kind of storage is an Internet service that provides storage to computer or mobile users? encrypted shared cloud net

answer

cloud

question

A DVD-ROM uses all of the following to achieve a higher storage capacity than a CD-ROM EXCEPT ____. a.making the disc denser by packing the pits closer together b.using two layers of pits c.making the disc double-sided c.making the disc single-session

answer

making the disc single-session

question

Which of the following interfaces sends several bits at once? parallel serial SATA SAS

answer

parallel

question

Which of the following kinds of interfaces sends data one bit at a time? parallel serial EIDE SCSI

answer

serial

question

Which of the following is true of tape?

answer

It is no longer used as a primary method of storage but is used most often for long-term storage and backup.

question

Items on a storage medium remain intact even when power is removed from the computer. What term describes this characteristic? nonversatile nonvolatile nonviolate nonviolent

answer

nonvolatile

question

Which of the following storage devices typically has the fastest transfer rate? RAM hard disk memory card optical disc

answer

RAM

question

Which of the following statements is not true about hard drives?

answer

A hard disk that is mounted inside the system unit is sometimes called a permadisk.

question

What is the usual rate of speed for the platters in a hard disk? 2,000 to 4,000 rpm 5,400 to 15,000 rpm 12,000 to 25,000 rpm 24,500 to 36,000 rpm

answer

5,400 to 15,000 rpm

question

Which of the following disc types can be written onto, but not erased? CD-X CD-ROM CD-RW CD-R

answer

CD-R

question

You want a form of backup that copies all program and data files. Which of the following will you use? archival backup differential backup selective backup partial backup

answer

archival backup

question

What does NAS stand for? network access server normal access space network attached storage normal attached space

answer

network attached storage

question

Reading is the process of transferring data, instructions, and information from memory to a storage medium.

answer

false

question

Writing is the process of transferring data, instructions, and information from a storage medium into memory.

answer

false

question

A screen display is considered nonvolatile because its contents disappear when power is removed.

answer

false

question

The greater the disk cache, the slower the hard disk.

answer

false

question

Laptops with solid-state drives usually have a higher storage capacity than laptops with a traditional hard disk.

answer

false

question

Manufacturers claim that a properly cared for CD or DVD will last 5 years, but could last up to 250 years.

answer

false

question

The process of writing on an optical disc is called burning.

answer

true

question

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act provides a myriad of financial reporting requirements and guidelines for public companies.

answer

true

question

Which of the following is made of aluminum, glass, or ceramic and is coated with an alloy material that allows items to be recorded magnetically on its surface? sector read/write head vector platter

answer

platter

question

Some computers improve hard disk access time by using which of the following, which consists of memory chips that store frequently accessed items? warehouse disk cache base home

answer

disk cache

question

Which of the following kinds of backup is another name for a full backup? differential incremental selective archival

answer

archival

question

What term refers to the amount of time it takes a storage device to locate an item on a storage medium? access time capacity time recall time transfer time

answer

access time

question

Disconnecting a USB flash drive while it is in use may cause damage to the files stored on the device.

answer

true

question

All computers can support multiple internal hard drives.

answer

false

STUDY

Applied Sociology Credit Card Numbers Electronic Communications Privacy Act Fraud And Abuse Act Public Key Encryption Skills And Knowledge

Cosc 1301 Quiz 5 – Flashcards 62 terms

Patrick Thompson

62 terms

Preview

Cosc 1301 Quiz 5 – Flashcards

question

What term is used to describe the process of restricting access to certain material on the web?

answer

Content filtering

question

In your encryption algorithm, you removed every third letter. Which algorithm did you use?

answer

Compaction

question

The term, PIN, is an acronym for which of the following?

answer

Personal Identification Number

question

To read encrypted data, the recipient must decipher it into a readable form. What is the term for this process?

answer

Decryption

question

How long can digital certificates be valid?

answer

Two-years

question

A perpetrator is using a botnet. Which of the following is the least likely use of his botnet?

answer

authoring ActiveX scripts

question

Which of the following terms is used to describe a set of steps that can convert readable plaintext into unreadable ciphertext?

answer

an encryption algorithm

question

Which of the following terms refers to a written list of guidelines that might include rules that prevent employees from using software illegally or using computers to steal?

answer

an IT code of conduct

question

HIPAA protects individuals against the wrongful disclosure of their health information

answer

True

question

Secure sites typically use digital certificates along with security protocols.

answer

True

question

Which of the following refers to unique and original works such as ideas, inventions, writings, art, processes, company and product names, and logos?

answer

question

Which of the following is someone who demands payment in order to stop an attack on an organization's technology infrastructure?

answer

cyberextortionist

question

Which of the following are used to record, save, an then execute a set of keystrokes and instructions repeatedly?

answer

Macros

question

You have encountered a technology that is effective in blocking computer-generated attempts to access a website because it is generally easy for humans to recognize distorted characters. What is this technology?

answer

CAPTCHA

question

How much do fingerprint readers typically cost?

answer

less than $100

question

Online shopping sites generally use a session cookie to keep track of items in a user's shopping cart as shown in the accompanying figure.

answer

True

question

Which term is used to describe software used by cybercriminals?

answer

Crimeware

question

What is the general term for programs that act without a user's knowledge and deliberately alter the computer's operations?

answer

malware

question

What term is used to describe the discovery, collection, and analysis of evidence found on computers and networks?

answer

digital forensics

question

Which of the following statements is not true about Internet and network attacks?

answer

Information kept on an organization's premises has a higher security risk than information transmitted over networks.

question

Computer viruses, worms, Trojan horses, and rootkits are classified as which of the following?

answer

malware

question

The term, botnet, means _____________.

answer

a group of compromised computers connected to a network that attacks other networks

question

Users can purchase a software program that selectively blocks cookies like the kind shown in the accompanying figure.

answer

True

question

Which of the following does a new federal laboratory use in its high security areas?

answer

Iris recognition system

question

In your encryption algorithm, you swapped adjacent characters. Which algorithm did you use?

answer

transposition

question

The ECPA protects consumers from disclosure of their personal financial information and requires institutions to alert customers of information disclosure policies.

answer

false

question

Which of the following terms is used to describe a file a computer creates that records successful and unsuccessful access attempts?

answer

an audit trail

question

Which of the following terms is used to describe a scam in which a website includes a button, image or link that contains a malicious program?

answer

clickjacking

question

Which of the following does your daughter's daycare use to verify the identity of parents who pick up their children?

answer

hand geometry system

question

Programmers often build trapdoors into programs during system development.

answer

false

question

Which of the following does your college use to verify your identity?

answer

hand geometry system

question

Which of the following copies all of the files in a computer?

answer

full backup

question

If a company does not have a formal email policy, it can read email messages without employee notification.

answer

true

question

Which of the following refers to the right of individuals and companies to deny or restrict the collection and use of information about them?

answer

information privacy

question

Which of the following is someone who uses the Internet or network to destroy or damage computers for political reasons?

answer

cyberterrorist

question

An IT code of conduct is a written guideline that helps determine whether a specific computer action is which of the following?

answer

ethical

question

Personal computers, display devices, and printers should comply with guidelines of which of the following programs?

answer

energy star

question

Many websites, like that in the accompanying figure, require a user to enter a private combination of characters associated with a user name that allows access to certain computer resources. What is the term for this combination of characters?

answer

passwords

question

Perpetrators of back doors trick their victims into interacting with phony websites.

answer

false

question

Which of the following is not a possessed object?

answer

question

Which of the following terms refers to someone who uses the Internet or network to destroy or damage computers for political reasons?

answer

cyberterrorist

question

Cybercrime laws are consistent between states and countries, making it easy to reach a consensus as to what is illegal.

answer

false

question

Online shopping sites generally use a session cookie to keep track of items in a user's shopping cart as shown in the accompanying figure.

answer

true

question

Which of the following is a duplicate of a file, program, or disk that can be used if the original is lost, damaged, or destroyed?

answer

backup

question

Into which of the following kinds of ports do external fingerprint readers plug?

answer

USB

question

What happens during a DDoS attack?

answer

A zombie army is used to attack computers or computer networks.

question

The Privacy Act forbids federal agencies from allowing information to be used for a reason other than that for which it was collected.

answer

true

question

One way to reduce electrical waste is for organizations to consolidate servers by user concatenation.

answer

false

question

If you are nervous, a signature might not match the one on file in a signature verification system.

answer

true

question

Any device that connects to the Internet is susceptible to mobile malware.

answer

true

question

Which of the following does your company use to track your time and attendance?

answer

hand geometry system

question

COPPA protects minors from inappropriate content when accessing the Internet in schools and libraries.

answer

false

question

Which of the following categories are the rights to which creators are entitled for their work?

answer

intellectual property

question

It is illegal for employers to use software programs that monitor employees.

answer

false

question

Which of the following terms refers to making a copy of a file?

answer

backing up

question

Which of the following can be used to create a software registration number, sometimes illegally?

answer

keygen

question

Many businesses use which of the following to limit employees' web access?

answer

content filtering

question

The term firewall is _____________.

answer

hardware and/or software that protects a network's resources from intrusion

question

Which of the following replaces each character in the plaintext with a different letter by shifting the alphabet a certain number of positions?

answer

Caesar cipher

question

When a waiter at a restaurant steals credit card numbers to make fraudulent purchases, this is called _____________.

answer

information theft

question

Which of the following statements is not a safeguard against the failure of hardware?

answer

device-tracking apps

question

Which of the following kinds of certificate is a notice that guarantees a user or website is legitimate?

answer

digital

STUDY

Applied Sociology Domain Name System Project Management Software Secure Socket Layer Service Level Agreement Systems Development Life Cycle

Information Security – Chapter 1 – Flashcards 29 terms

Tyree Bender

29 terms

Preview

Information Security – Chapter 1 – Flashcards

question

computer security

answer

used to refer to the need to secure the physical location of computer technology from outside threats but later came to represent all actions taken to preserve computer systems from losses (ex. protecting information)

question

when did the need for computer security first arise?

answer

World War II, when the first mainframe computers were developed and used to aid computations for communication code breaking

question

ARPANET

answer

developed by Dr. Larry Roberts in 1968; evolved into the Internet

question

Robert M. Metcalfe

answer

one of the creators of Ethernet who identified problems with ARPANET security in 1973

question

Rand Report R-609

answer

a document that attempted to define the multiple controls and mechanisms necessary for protecting a computerized data processing system; the results of task force assembled under ARPA in 1967; considered as the paper that started the study of computer security

question

the scope of computer security expanded into:

answer

securing the data, limiting random and unauthorized access to that data, involving personnel from multiple levels of the organization in information security

question

MULTICS

answer

first operating system to integrate security into its core function; implemented multiple security levels and passowrds

question

UNIX

answer

1969; primarily for text processing; did not require the same level of security as MULTICS

question

Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986; Computer Security Act of 1987

answer

legislation passed in the mid 1980's that formalized the recognition of computer security as a critical issue for federal information systems

question

security

answer

protection from adversaries

question

information security

answer

the protection of information and its critical elements, including the systems and hardware that use, store, and transmit the information

question

network security

answer

the protection of voice and data networking components, connections, and content; a subset of communications security

question

CIA triangle

answer

confidentiality, integrity, and availability; was the standard for computer security in both industry and government but is now seen as no longer adequate

question

botnet

answer

"robot network"; example of an indirect attack in which a hacker compromises a system and uses it to attack other systems

question

exposure

answer

when a vulnerability is known to an attacker

question

McCumber Cube

answer

a graphical representation of the architectural approach widely used in computer and information security

question

information system

answer

the entire set of software, hardware, data, people, procedures, and networks that enable the use of information resources in the organization; 1. people 2. procedures 3. technology

question

software

answer

one of the most difficult IS components to secure; includes applications, operating systems, and assorted command utilities; often the target of accidental or intentional attacks

question

bottom-up approach

answer

a method of establishing security policies that begins as a grassroots effort in which systems administrators attempt to improve the security of their systems

question

top-down approach

answer

a method of establishing security policies that is initiated by upper management

question

security systems development life cycle (SecSDLC)

answer

a method for the design and implementation of security systems based on the systems development life cycle

question

systems development life cycle (SDLC)

answer

a method fro the design and implementation of an information system; the SDLC contains different phases depending on the methodology deployed but generally the phases address the investigation, analysis, design, implementation, and maintenance of an information system

question

waterfall model

answer

investigation-->analysis-->logical design-->physical design-->implementation-->maintenance and change

question

software assurance (SA)

answer

a methodological approach to the development of software that seeks to build security into the development life cycle rather than address it at later stages; attempts to intentionally create software free of vulnerabilities and provide effective, efficient software that users can deploy with confidence

question

chief information officer (CIO)

answer

an executive-level position that oversees the organization's computing technology and strives to create efficiency in the processing and access of the organization's information

question

chief information security officer (CISO)

answer

typically considered the top information security officer in an organization; usually not an executive-level position, and frequently the person in this role reports to the CEO

question

data custodians

answer

people who are responsible for the storage, maintenance, and protection of information

question

data owners

answer

people who own the information and thus determine the level of classification for their data and approve its access authorization

question

data users

answer

people who work with the information to perform their daily jobs and support the mission of the organization

STUDY

Applied Sociology Bricks And Mortar Brute Force Attack Discretionary Access Control Gramm Leach Bliley Act Personal Digital Assistants

NT2580 – Flashcard 60 terms

Lesly Lloyd

60 terms

Preview

NT2580 – Flashcard

question

Gram-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

answer

Requires all types of financial institution to protect customer's private financial information.

question

Health insurance portability and accountability

answer

Requires health care organizations to secure patient information, and organizations must adhere to the minimum necessary rule.

question

Sarbanes-Oxley act (SOX)

answer

requires publicly traded companies to submit accurate and reliable financial reporting.

question

Children's internet protection act (CIPA)

answer

requires public schools and public libraries to use the internet safety policy to prevent children's access to inappropriate matter on the internet.

question

Payment card industry data security standard

answer

standard that handles transactions involving payment cards, and requires to build and maintain security,implement strong access controls, and test + monitor networks.

question

Family educational rights and privacy act (FERPA)

answer

Protect the private information of students and their records.

question

confidentiality

answer

means guarding information from everyone except those with rights.Protecting private data is the process of ensuring data confidentiality.

question

Data classification standards

answer

To provide a consistent and detailed definition for how an organization should handle different types of data,software, and hardware.

question

U.S federal data classification

answer

Top secret, secret, and confidential.

question

Security gap

answer

The difference between the security controls you have in place and all the controls you need to address all the vulnerabilities is called a security gap.

question

Gap analysis

answer

identify the applicable elements of the security policy,assembling policy,standard,procedure, and guideline documents.

question

Black-hat attacker

answer

Tries to break IT security for the challenge and to prove technical prowess.

question

White-hat hacker

answer

is an information security or network professional who uses various penetration tools to uncover vulnerabilities so that can be fixed.

question

Gray-hat attacker

answer

Is a hacker with average abilities who may one day become a black-hat or white-hat attacker.

question

Access control

answer

Are methods used to restrict and allow access to certain computers,etc...

question

The four parts of access controls

answer

Authorization,identification,authentication, and accountability.

question

Authorization

answer

who is approved for access and what,exactly can they use.

question

Identification

answer

Who is the user,workstation, and services identified.

question

Authentication

answer

How to verify identities,something you know,have, and something unique.

question

Accountability

answer

Process of associating actions with users for latter reporting and research.

question

Physical access control

answer

Access to buildings,parking lots, and protected areas.

question

Logical access controls

answer

Access to a computer system or a network. Username,password,token,smart card, etc...

question

Discretionary Access controls (DAC) (Unix/Linux)

answer

the owner of the resource decides who gets in, and changes permission as needed. The owner can give that owner can give that job to others.

question

Mandatory Access controls (MAC) (SELinux)

answer

Permissions to enter a system is kept by the owner. It cannot be given to someone else.(makes MAC tronger than DAC)

question

Non-discretionary access control

answer

closely monitored by the security administrator , not the system admin.

question

Ruled-based access control

answer

A list of rules, maintained by the data owner, determines which users have access to objects.

question

Bell-La Padula model (access control model)

answer

Focuses on the confidentiality of the data and the control of access to classified information.

question

Bilba integrity model

answer

fixes a weakness in the Bell-la padula model, which addresses only the confidentiality of the data.

question

Clark & Wilson integrity model

answer

Focuses on what happens when users allowed into a system try to do things they are not allowed to do.

question

Brewer & Nash integrity model

answer

Based on mathematical theory published in 1989 to ensure competition. It is used to apply dynamically changing access permissions.

question

Security program addresses these directives

answer

Standards, procedures,baselines, and guidelines.

question

Limiting access

answer

the idea that users should be granted only the levels of permissions they need in order to perform their duties.

question

configuration control

answer

Is the management of baseline settings for a system device.

question

Change control

answer

is the management of changes to configuration. it ensures that any changes to a production system are tested,documented, and approved.

question

SLC (system life cycle) and SDLC (system development life cycle

answer

describe the entire change and maintenance process for applications and system hardware.

question

tools and techniques for security monitoring

answer

baselines,alarms,closed circuitTV,andsystems that spot irregular behavior.

question

Black-box testing

answer

Uses test methods that aren't based directly on knowledge of a programs design.

question

White-box testing

answer

is based on the knowledge of the applications design and source code.

question

gray-box testing

answer

lies somewhere between black and white box testing.

question

Risk mitigation

answer

uses various controls to mitigate or reduce risk. (anti-virus software)

question

Risk assignment

answer

allows the organization to transfer risk to another entity. (insurance)

question

Risk acceptance

answer

the organization has decided to accept the risk. ( the cost of reducing it is higher than the loss)

question

Asset value (AV)

answer

Value of the asset

question

Exposure factor (EF)

answer

percentage of asset value that will be lost

question

annualized rate of occurance (ARO)

answer

How many times the is is expected to occur

question

annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

answer

This is calculated by ,multiplying SLE by the ARO.

question

Business continuity plan BCP

answer

Helps keep critical business processes running in a disaster.

question

Disaster recovery plan

answer

helps recover the infrastructure necessary for normal business operations.

question

Risk avoidance

answer

deciding not to take the risk

question

Business impact analysis (BIA)

answer

determines the extent of the impact that a particular incident would have on business operations over time.

question

Cryptography

answer

encoding data so that it can only be decoded by specific individuals.

question

Cipher algorithm

answer

Shifts each letter in the english alphabet

question

Symmetric key cipher

answer

the key is send out of band letters

question

Asymmetric key cipher

answer

use private and public keys.

question

border firewall

answer

they separate the protected network from the internet

question

screened subnets or DMZ firewall

answer

the dmz is a semiprivate network used to hosts services that the public can access.

question

worms

answer

they propagate through the network service

question

Trojan horses

answer

know as the backdoor

question

logic bombs

answer

executes a malicious function of some kind when it detects certwin conditions.

question

choke points

answer

firewalls,routers,IDSs,IPSs

STUDY

Applied Sociology Computer Security and Reliability Public Key Cryptography Public Key Encryption Sender And Receiver

Computer Network Security – Flashcards 65 terms

Jonathan Walsh

65 terms

Preview

Computer Network Security – Flashcards

question

Verifying that users are who they say they are and that each input arriving at the system came from a trusted source is

answer

Authentic

question

A _______________ attack involves trying every possible key until an intelligible translation of the ciphertext is obtained.

answer

Brute Force

question

If both parties use only one key over a secure encrypted channel, such a system is referred to as:

answer

Symmetric Encryption

question

Considering all other parameters equal, larger block sizes mean greater security for block ciphers.

answer

question

T/F A digital signature can guarantee the source but not the integrity of the message

answer

False

question

X.509 defines the format for public-key certificates

answer

True

question

Communication between end systems is encrypted using a

answer

Session Key

question

What is an IPS

answer

An IPS blocks traffic

question

Find the determinant mod of (A B) (C D)

answer

(A*D) - (B*C)

question

What is the formula for finding the ciphertext C in rsa

answer

M^e Mod n

question

What is the formula for finding the plaintext P in rsa

answer

C^d Mod n

question

What is the formula for finding d

answer

de = 1 mod phi(n)

question

T/F The most important development from the work on public Key encryption is the digital signature

answer

True

question

The digital signature is formed by

answer

taking the hash of the message and encrypting the message with the creators private key

question

X.509 is based on the use of

answer

Public Key cryptography and digital signatures

question

What does TLS entail

answer

Transport Layer Security provides communications security over a computer network

question

What does SSL entail

answer

Secure Socket Layer is the standard security technology for establishing an encrypted link between a web server and a browser

question

Master key is

answer

Shared by the key distribution center and an end system or user and is used to encrypt the session key

question

A nonce is

answer

A unique identifier, it needs to be hard to guess, such as a random number

question

What is a passive threat

answer

Eavesdropping on, or monitoring transmissions

question

What is an active security threat

answer

Modification, deletion, unauthorized access

question

What are the four means of authenticating a user's identity

answer

Something the individual knows, possesses, is, does

question

What are two common techniques used to protect a password file?

answer

Restrict access to the password file, Force users to select passwords that are difficult to guess.

question

What is DAC

answer

Discretionary access control controls access based on identity.

question

What is MAC

answer

Mandatory access control controls access based on comparing security labels

question

What is a honeypot?

answer

Honeypots are decoy systems that are designed to lure a potential attacker away from critical systems.

question

What are typical phases of operation of a virus or worm?

answer

A dormant phase, a propagation phase, a triggering phase, and an execution phase

question

Define a denial of service (DOS) attack

answer

A denial of service attack is an action that prevents or impairs the network, system, or application

question

Define a DDoS attack

answer

A Distributed Denial of Service attack uses multiple attacking systems, often using compromised user workstations or PCs

question

What is an application-level gateway

answer

Also known as a proxy server, acts as a relay of application-level traffic

question

Define Buffer Overflow

answer

A buffer overflow results from adding more information to a programs buffer than it was designed to hold

question

What is a hello in a rail fence cipher

answer

hlo el

question

What are the two ways to break a cipher

answer

Brute force, Cryptanalysis

question

What are the 4 steps in AES

answer

Add round key, Substitute bytes, shift rows, Mix columns

question

How is the hash value of a message encrypted?

answer

with a users private key

question

What does EAP stand for

answer

Extensible authentication Protocol

question

What is a stateful firewall

answer

watches traffic from end to end, it keeps track of the state of network connections, it knows if packets are fragmented

question

What mechanisms can a virus use to conceal itself

answer

encryption, stealth, polymorphism, metamorphism

question

What metrics are useful for profile based intrusion detection

answer

Solution counter, gauge, interval timer, resource utilization

question

What are the two basic functions used in encryption algorithms

answer

Permutation and substitution

question

what are the three broad categories of applications of public key cryptosystems

answer

Encryption/decryption, Digital signature, Key exchange

question

What is a trap-door one-way function

answer

easy to calculate in one direction but unfeasible to calculate the other direction

question

What is a MAC algorithm

answer

A message authentication code uses a secret key to calculate a code used for authentication

question

What is salt

answer

salt is combined with the password at the input to the one-way encryption routine which results in a hash value

question

List three design goals for a firewall

answer

All traffic must pass through the firewall, only authorized traffic is allowed to pass, the firewall is immune to penetration

question

What is a weakness of a packet filtering firewall

answer

they don't examine upper layer data

question

Why is it useful to have host-based firewalls

answer

Filtering rules can be tailored to the host environment, protection is provided independent of topology

question

What is a DMZ network and what types of systems would you expect to find on such networks

answer

Between internal and external firewalls are one or more networked devices in a region referred to as a demilitarized zone

question

What are three broad mechanisms that malware can use to propagate

answer

Infections of existing content, exploit of software vulnerabilities, social engineering attacks

question

What is the difference between machine-executable and macro viruses?

answer

machine executable infect executable program files, macro viruses infect files with macro or scripting code

question

What services are provided by the SSL Record Protocol

answer

Confidentiality, Message Integrity

question

What steps are involved in the SSL record protocol transmission

answer

Fragmentation, compression, add MAC, encrypt, append ssl record header

question

For what applications is SSH useful

answer

Providing a secure remote logon facility to replace TELNET

question

What is NAC

answer

Network Access control, managing access to a network

question

What is EAPOL

answer

EAP over LAN operates at the network layers and makes use of IEEE 802 LAN

question

What is the function of IEEE 802.1X

answer

To provide access control functions for LANs

question

What is a key distribution center

answer

a system is authorized to transmit temporary session keys to principals.

question

What is a public key certificate

answer

It contains a public key and other information, is created by a certificate authority and is given to the participant with the matching private key

question

How is an X.509 certificate revoked

answer

The owner of a public-key can issue a certificate revocation list that revokes one or more certificates

question

What types of attacks are addressed by message authentication

answer

Masquerade, content modification, sequence modification, timing modification

question

Why is it important to study the feistel cipher

answer

Most symmetric block encryption algorithms in current use

question

Explain the avalance effect

answer

a property of any encryption algorithm such that a small change in either plaintext or key produces a significant change in the ciphertext

question

What is the OSI security architecture

answer

a framework that provides a systematic way of defining the requirement for security and characterizing the approaches to satisfying those requirements.

question

What are the three key security objectives as per OSI

answer

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

question

List the categories of security services

answer

Authentication, access control, data confidentiality, data integrity

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Applied Sociology Internet Intrusion Detection System Personal Information Social Networking Sites Social Security Numbers Virtual Private Network

I play pokemon go everyday – Flashcards 4 terms

Michael Seabolt

4 terms

Preview

I play pokemon go everyday – Flashcards

question

cyberbully channels are

answer

cancer cancer cancer cancer

question

leafyishere

answer

pyrocynical

question

ricegum and

answer

keemstar

question

pokemon go

answer

everyday

STUDY

Affirmative Action Program Applied Sociology Government Intervention In The Economy Human Relations Approach Introductory Sociology Sociology Special Interest Groups

Sociology Answer Key-Exam#5 – Flashcards 50 terms

Daphne Armenta

50 terms

Preview

Sociology Answer Key-Exam#5 – Flashcards

question

. The social institution that relies on a recognized set of procedures for implementing and achieving the goals of a group is called a (an) A. action committee. B. interest group. C. elite group. D. political system.

answer

D.Political System

question

Like other social institutions, economic and political systems are considered A. latent functions. B. cultural universals. C. culturally relative. D. interest groups.

answer

B.Cultural Universals

question

. Which term was used by Max Weber to refer to the ability to exercise one's will over others? A. legitimacy B. politics C. influence D. power

answer

D.power

question

After hearing a presentation of facts he had not heard before, a man changes his position on the issue of immigrant refugees being granted asylum in the U.S. This would be an example of A. force. B. authority. C. legitimacy. D. influence.

answer

D.influence

question

Which of the following terms refers to power that has been institutionalized and is recognized by the people over whom it is exercised? A. influence B. authority C. legitimacy D. political efficacy

answer

B. authority

question

Which of the following created a classification system of authority that distinguishes between traditional, rational-legal, and charismatic authority? A. Michael Harrington B. Émile Durkheim C. Karl Marx D. Max Weber

answer

D. Max Weber

question

7. Traditional authority refers to A. legitimate power conferred by custom and accepted practice. B. power made legitimate by a leader's exceptional personal or emotional appeal to his or her followers. C. power made legitimate by law. D. none of these

answer

A. legitimate power conferred by custom and accepted practice.

question

In a society based on rational-legal authority, leaders derive their authority from A. custom and accepted practice. B. their exceptional personal or emotional appeal. C. the written rules and regulations of the political system. D. threats to use coercion to impose their will on others.

answer

C. the written rules and regulations of the political system.

question

Gandhi, Martin Luther King, Jr., Adolf Hitler, and Joan of Arc were all leaders who used their respective power to press for changes in accepted social behavior. Their respective power came from what kind of authority? A. egalitarian authority B. charismatic authority C. traditional authority D. rational-legal authority

answer

B. charismatic authority

question

Which form of government is lead by a single member of a royal family? A. democracy B. dictatorship C. oligarchy D. monarchy

answer

D. monarchy

question

What term for government do we use to refer to a small group of individuals who rule? A. parliamentary B. dictatorship C. oligarchy D. representative democracy

answer

C. oligarchy

question

In which type of government does a single person hold all power? A. parliamentary B. dictatorship C. oligarchy D. representative democracy

answer

B.dictatorship

question

The United States utilizes which type of government? A. parliamentary B. plutocracy C. oligarchy D. representative democracy

answer

D. representative democracy

question

14. How do sociologists define the concept of peace? A. the absence of war B. a stasis of communal life C. proactive effort to develop cooperative relations among nations D. the absence of war AND proactive effort to develop cooperative relations among nations

answer

D. the absence of war AND proactive effort to develop cooperative relations among nations

question

Which model of power relations suggests that society is ruled by a small group of individuals who share a common set of political and economic interests? A. pluralist model B. elite model C. functionalist model D. interactionist model

answer

B.elite model

question

The pluralist model of power relations in the U.S. suggests that A. power is concentrated in the hands of a small group of military, corporate, and political leaders. B. power is held by many competing groups which have access to government, so that no single group is dominant. C. power is held by a group of charismatic leaders. D. power is concentrated in the hands of a small group of military, corporate, and political leaders AND held by a group of charismatic leaders.

answer

B. power is held by many competing groups which have access to government, so that no single group is dominant.

question

17. A society such as France or Italy that has an economy based on the production of goods in factories through mechanization would be an example of a (an) _______________ society. A. agrarian B. industrial C. postindustrial D. horticultural

answer

B. industrial

question

What are the two basic types of economic systems that distinguish contemporary societies? A. capitalism and communism B. capitalism and socialism C. socialism and communism D. capitalism and democracy

answer

B. capitalism and socialism

question

Capitalism is an economic system in which A. the means of production are largely in private hands, and the main incentive for economic activity is the accumulation of profits. B. all property is communally owned and no social distinctions are made on the basis of people's ability to produce. C. the means of production and distribution are collectively owned. D. none of these

answer

A. the means of production are largely in private hands, and the main incentive for economic activity is the accumulation of profits.

question

Laissez-faire is a form of A. socialism under which people compete freely with minimal government intervention in the economy. B. communism under which people compete freely with minimal government intervention in the economy. C. totalitarianism under which people compete freely with minimal government intervention in the economy. D. capitalism under which people compete freely with minimal government intervention in the economy.

answer

D. capitalism under which people compete freely with minimal government intervention in the economy.

question

Socialism is defined as A. an economic system under which all property is communally owned and no social distinctions are made on the basis of people's ability to produce. B. an economic system in which the means of production are largely in private hands and the main incentive for economic activity is the accumulation of profits. C. an economic system under which the means of production and distribution are collectively owned. D. none of these

answer

C. an economic system under which the means of production and distribution are collectively owned.

question

The U.S. has considered a national health care system that would guarantee medical coverage to all citizens as a basic human right. The government's involvement in providing health care for all citizens is characteristic of which type of economic system? A. communism B. socialism C. laissez-faire capitalism D. contemporary capitalism

answer

B. socialism

question

Communism is an economic system in which A. the means of production are largely in private hands, and the main incentive for economic activity is the accumulation of profits. B. all property is communally owned and no social distinctions are made on the basis of people's ability to produce. C. the means of production and distribution are collectively owned. D. none of these

answer

B. all property is communally owned and no social distinctions are made on the basis of people's ability to produce.

question

Transfers of money, goods, or services that take place but are not reported to the government are referred to as A. socialist sanctions. B. communism. C. an informal economy. D. capitalistic profits.

answer

C. an informal economy.

question

Reductions taken in a company's workforce as part of deindustrialization are called A. deindustrialization. B. downsizing. C. anomie. D. alienation.

answer

B.downsizing.

question

The term microfinancing refers to A. lending small sums of money to the poor so that they can work their way out of poverty. B. welfare handouts for poor people in developing countries. C. welfare handouts for poor people in industrial countries. D. pyramid schemes.

answer

A. lending small sums of money to the poor so that they can work their way out of poverty.

question

Feminist theorists are particularly interested in microfinancing because: A. The majority of these loans go to men. B. The majority of these loans go to women. C. The majority of the loans have a high interest rate. D. The majority of these loans go to sex traffickers.

answer

B. The majority of these loans go to women.

question

Which sociological perspective would be most likely to view affirmative action as a legislative attempt to reduce inequality embedded in the social structure by increasing the opportunities of groups that have been deprived in the past? A. functionalist perspective B. conflict perspective C. interactionist perspective D. none of these

answer

B. conflict perspective

question

Which sociological perspective would be most interested in studying how the introduction of an affirmative action program in a factory creates labels and stereotypes within a workplace and affects the relationships among employees? A. functionalist perspective B. conflict perspective C. interactionist perspective D. none of these

answer

C. interactionist perspective

question

Your textbook refers to "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity" as A. euphoria. B. health. C. happiness. D. well-being.

answer

B. health.

question

The concept of the sick role is associated with which perspective? A. functionalist perspective B. conflict perspective C. interactionist perspective D. global perspective

answer

A. functionalist perspective

question

In examining health, illness, and medicine as a social institution, which sociological perspective generally focuses on microlevel study of the roles played by healthcare professionals and patients? A. functionalist perspective B. conflict perspective C. interactionist perspective D. global perspective

answer

C. interactionist perspective

question

The medicalization of society refers to A. the growing role of medicine as a major institution of social control. B. the dominance of hospitals by boards of directors with medical backgrounds. C. the election of medical specialists to high offices in government. D. all of these

answer

A. the growing role of medicine as a major institution of social control.

question

Social epidemiology is defined as the A. total number of cases of a specific disorder that exist at a given time. B. total number of communicable diseases that exist at a given time. C. study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population. D. total number of cases of infant deaths for a given population during a specific period of time.

answer

C. study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population.

question

Mortality rates are the A. incidence of diseases in a given population. B. number of new cases of a specific disorder occurring within a given population during a stated period of time. C. incidence of death in a given population. D. total number of cases of a specific disorder that exist at a given time.

answer

C. incidence of death in a given population.

question

Which sociological perspective(s) would be most likely to argue that policymakers have been slow to respond to the AIDS crisis because those in high-risk groups, such as gay men and IV drug users, are comparatively powerless politically? A. functionalist perspective B. conflict and feminist perspectives C. interactionist perspective D. global perspective

answer

B. conflict and feminist perspectives

question

In comparison with men, women have lower rates of A. employment in dangerous occupations. B. cigarette smoking. C. consumption of alcohol. D. all of these

answer

D. all of these

question

Which type of medicine refers to therapies in which the health care practitioner considers the person's physical, mental, emotional, and spiritual characteristics? A. traditional B. ayurveda C. holistic D. homeopathy

answer

C. holistic

question

Which area of study is concerned with the interrelationships among people in their spatial setting and physical environment? A. human relations approach B. human ecology C. activity theory D. humanism

answer

B. human ecology

question

Erin Brockovich, a movie that features Julia Roberts, examines a true life event that revolves around environmental pollution in a working-class community by a major utility corporation that was apparently unconcerned about the long-term effects of the pollution on community residents. This movie illustrates which sociological concept? A. environmental racism B. environmental justice C. demographic transition D. demographic intransigence

answer

B. environmental justice

question

Which perspective would place a priority on the fact that many major environmental organizations accept funding from oil companies and chemical giants and as a result emphasize limited reform rather than profound structural change? A. functionalist B. conflict C. interactionist D. feminist

answer

B. conflict

question

Social change is defined as A. a theory that holds that society is moving in a specific direction. B. a view of society as tending toward instability. C. significant alteration over time in behavior patterns and culture, including norms and values. D. a view that society is moving in several different directions at the same time.

answer

C. significant alteration over time in behavior patterns and culture, including norms and values.

question

Which term is used by sociologists to refer to organized collective activities aimed at bringing about fundamental changes in existing society? A. social movements B. social groups C. power movements D. pressure groups

answer

A. social movements

question

Auguste Comte saw societies as moving forward in their thinking from A. mythology to scientific method. B. scientific method to mythology. C. mythology to religion. D. monarchy to democracy.

answer

A. mythology to scientific method.

question

Émile Durkheim contended that societies progressed from A. simple to sophisticated. B. non-cultured to cultured. C. simple to complex. D. nonliterate to literate.

answer

C. simple to complex.

question

Talcott Parsons viewed society as naturally being in a state of A. anarchy. B. goal displacement. C. equilibrium. D. relative deprivation.

answer

C. equilibrium.

question

Which sociological perspective criticizes the functionalist approach to social change for disregarding the crucial significance of change that is needed to correct social injustices and inequalities? A. functionalist perspective B. conflict perspective C. interactionist perspective D. dialectical perspective

answer

B. conflict perspective

question

Various religious groups and their followers are very upset about scientific advances in reproductive technology, such as birth control pills, abortion pills, in-vitro fertilization, and genetic engineering. This conflict between religious values and new scientific concepts illustrates A. material culture. B. nonmaterial culture. C. culture lag. D. cultural adaptation.

answer

C. culture lag.

question

The laptop computer, wireless telephones, pagers, and laser eye surgery are all examples of A. technology. B. resources. C. cyberspace. D. adaptive upgrading.

answer

A. technology.

question

. Rebellious craft workers in nineteenth-century England who destroyed new factory machinery as part of their resistance to the new industrial revolution were known as A. Shakers. B. Luddites. C. Amish. D. Rappites.

answer

B. Luddites.

STUDY

Applied Sociology Introductory Sociology Sociology Theory And Research

Sociology Chapters 1-5 Key Terms – Flashcards 160 terms

Pat Coker

160 terms

Preview

Sociology Chapters 1-5 Key Terms – Flashcards

question

Sociological Perspective

answer

stresses that people's social experiences - the groups to which they belong and their experiences within these groups - underlie their behavior.

question

Society

answer

A group of people who share a culture and a territory.

question

Social Location

answer

The corners in life that people occupy because of where they are located in a society.

question

Scientific Method

answer

The use of objective, systematic observations to test theories.

question

Positivism

answer

Applying the scientific method to the social world is called

question

Auguste Comte

answer

He suggested we apply the scientific method to the social world. Founder of sociology. Believed people should interfere with society.

question

Sociology

answer

The study of society.

question

Herbert Spencer

answer

He said societies are evolving and we should not interfere. 2nd founder of sociology. Coined "survival of the fittest" and his ideas are called social darwinism.

question

Karl Marx

answer

Believed people should interfere with society, as did Comte. Believed in class conflict as the engine of human history.

question

Class Conflict

answer

A belief that society is made up of the bourgeoisie and the proletariat who are constantly at odds with one another. One of the theoretical perspectives of sociology

question

Bourgeosie

answer

Capitalists who own the capital, land, factories, and machines in class conflict theory.

question

Proletariat

answer

The exploited workers in class conflict theory.

question

Emile Durkheim

answer

First academic appointment in sociology - goal to recognize sociology as a separate discipline.

question

Social Integration

answer

Emile Durkheim's idea, the degree to which people are tied to their social group: he found that people who have weaker social ties are more likely to commit suicide.

question

Max Weber

answer

One of the three major sociologists. Believed religious change brought about capitalism. Protestant work ethic.

question

Jane Addams

answer

Combined the role of sociologist with that of social reformer. Was wealthy, but worked with the poor.

question

W.E.B. Du Bois

answer

First African American to earn a doctorate at Harvard. Studied relationship between African Americans and whites.

question

Applied Sociology

answer

Applying sociology to the real world.

question

Public Sociology

answer

Harnessing the sociological perspective for the benefit of the public.

question

Symbolic Interactionism

answer

One of the three major sociological theoretical perspectives. Symbols, things to which we attach meaning, are the key to understanding how we view the world and communicate with one another.

question

Functional Analysis

answer

One of the three major sociological theoretical perspectives. The central idea is that society is a whole unit, made up of interrelated parts that work together. How units function within a broader spectrum of society.

question

Conflict Theory

answer

One of the three major sociological theoretical perspectives. This theory stresses that society is composed of groups that are competing with one another for scare resources. The surface might show cooperation, but scratch that surface and you will find a struggle for power.

question

Macro level

answer

Functionalists and conflict theorists focus on this level. That is, they examine large-scale patterns in society.

question

Micro level

answer

Social interaction as well as nonverbal interaction - what people do when they are in one anothers' presences. Symbolic interactionists focus on this level.

question

Hypothesis

answer

A statement of what you expect to find according to predictions that are based on a theory.

question

Variables

answer

Factors that vary or change.

question

Operational definitions

answer

Clear, precise ways to measure variables.

question

Research method

answer

The means by which you collect your data.

question

Reliability

answer

Means that if other researchers were to use your operational definitions, their findings will be consistant with yours.

question

Validity

answer

Your operational definitions must measure what they are intended to measure in order to have...

question

Stratified random sample

answer

A random sample from a certain subgroup.

question

Respondents

answer

People who answer your questions.

question

Rapport

answer

A feeling of trust between a participant and a researcher.

question

Case Study

answer

Focuses on a single event, situation or even individual.

question

Secondary Analysis

answer

Researchers analyze data that others have collected.

question

Experiments

answer

Used for determining cause and effect.

question

Experimental group

answer

The group that receives the variable.

question

Control Group

answer

Group that does not receive the variable.

question

Independent Variable

answer

X, something that causes the change in something else.

question

Dependent Variable

answer

Y, the variable that receives the effect caused by X.

question

Values

answer

Beliefs about what is good or desirable or good in life and the way the world ought to be.

question

Value free

answer

Sociology should be this (with regards to beliefs)

question

Objectivity

answer

Value neutrality

question

Culture

answer

The language, beliefs, values, norms, and behaviors, and even material objects that are passed from one generation to the next.

question

Material Culture

answer

Such things as jewelry, buildings, weapons, machines, and even eating utensils, hairstyles, and clothing.

question

Nonmaterial Culture

answer

A group's way of thinking - beliefs, values, and other assumptions about the world and it's common patterns of behaviors.

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Ethnocentrism

answer

A tendency to use our own group's ways of doing things as a yardstick for judging others.

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Cultural Relativism

answer

We can try to understand a culture in it's own terms.

question

Symbolic Culture

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Another name for nonmaterial culture since it's central component is the set of symbols that people use.

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Symbol

answer

Something to which people attach meaning.

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Gestures

answer

Movements of the body to communicate with others.

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Language

answer

Symbols can be confined in an infinite way for the purpose of communicating abstract thought is.

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Sapir-Whorf hypothesis

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Our language directs our consciousness, and hence our perception of objects and events. (you perceive people how you classify them.)

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Norms

answer

Those expectations or rules of behavior that develop out of a group's value.

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Sanctions

answer

People's reactions when someone follows or breaks a rule.

question

Positive Sanction

answer

Approval for following a norm.

question

Negative Sanction

answer

Disapproval for breaking a norm.

question

Folkways

answer

Norms that are not strictly enforced.

question

answer

Core values that, if broken, are taken vary seriously. (Stealing, Rape, Murder)

question

Taboo

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Norm so strongly ingrained that even the thought of its violation is greeted with revulsion. (Cannibalism and incest) Have severe sanctions.

question

Counterculture

answer

When the values and norms of a subculture do not blend in with mainstream society.

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Pluralistic Society

answer

A society made up of many groups.

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Value Cluster

answer

Not all values are independent units. Some cluster together to form a larger whole. (success = hard work, education, material conform, etc)

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Value Contradictions

answer

When the ideal values do not match the realistic values of a society.

question

Technology

answer

Another name for tools

question

Cultural lag

answer

When one part of a culture lags behind the other. Coined by William Ogburn. Usually Material culture changes first and Nonmaterial culture lags behind. (Laws change before values)

question

Cultural diffusion

answer

Groups who adopt things they find desirable.

question

Cultural leveling

answer

A process in which cultures become more and more similar to one another.

question

Social Environment

answer

How much of our characteristics come from "nuture," or our...

question

Feral Children

answer

Wild children.

question

Society Makes us Human

answer

Babies do not naturally develop into social adults...

question

Socialization

answer

What sociologists have in mind when they say "Society makes us human"

question

Charles Horton Cooley

answer

He came up with the looking-glass self. Our sense of self develops from interaction with others. Although the self concept begins in childhood, its development is an ongoing, lifelong process. (We imagine how owe appear to others' around us, we interpret others' reactions, and we develop a self concept.)

question

George Herbert Mead

answer

He came up with role taking. As we play with others, we learn to take the role of the other. (Play is important to development of self.) Happens through Imitation (3-), Play (3-6), Team Games (6). I and the me. We are not like robots. Our I is active and creative.

question

Significant others

answer

Mead. Individuals who significantly influence our lives.

question

Generalized Other

answer

Mead. Our perception of how others in general think of us.

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Sensorimotor Stage

answer

Piaget (From birth to about age 2) Understanding is limited to direct contact. We aren't able to "think." We do not know our bodies are separate from the environment. (We haven't discovered we have toes)

question

Preoperational stage

answer

Piaget (From age 2 to 7) We develop the ability to use symbols. However, we do not understand concepts such as sized, speed, or causation. We don't really understand what numbers mean, although we are learning to count. We don't have the ability to take the role of the other.

question

Concrete operational stage

answer

Piaget (From age 7 to 12) Our reasoning abilities remain conrete. We can understand numbers, size, causation, and speed, and we can take the role of the other. We cannot talk about truth, honesty, etc in abstract ways. We need concrete examples.

question

Formal Operational Stage.

answer

Piaget (From age 12+) Not everyone reaches this stage. We are now capable of abstract thinking. We can talk about concepts, come to conclusions based on general principles, and use rules to solve abstract problems. Critical thinking skills.

question

Ego

answer

Balancing force between the id and society which suppresses it. (Freud)

question

answer

Inborn drives that cause us to seek self-gratification (Freud).

question

Superego

answer

Conscience. (Freud) Demands of society/culture within us. Morality.

question

Paul Ekman

answer

He concluded that everyone experiences six basic emotions around the globe. Anger, disgust, fear, happiness, sadness, and surprise.

question

Gender socialization

answer

Learning the gender map. We are nudged in different directions in life based on our gender. By adulthood, we think and act like our gender.

question

Peer Group

answer

Individuals of roughly the same age who are linked by common interests.

question

Gender roles

answer

the behaviors and attitudes considered appropriate for our sex.

question

Agents of socialization

answer

Individuals and groups that influence our orientations to life- our self-concept, emotions, attitudes, and behavior.

question

Anticipatory Socialization

answer

Learning to play a role before entering it. Mental rehearsal for some future activity.

question

Resocialization

answer

Learning new norms, values, attitudes, and behaviors to match a new situation in life.

question

Degradation ceremony

answer

A person entering a total institution is greeted with this. It's an attempt to remake the self by stripping away the individual's current identity and stamping a new one in its place.

question

Life course

answer

The stages throughout life. Childhood (to age 12), Adolescences (13-17), Transitional adulthood (18-29), Middle years (age 30-65), Early middle years (ages 30-49), Later Middle years (age 50-65), The older years (65+), Transitional and later older years.

question

Social Class

answer

Large numbers of people who have similar amounts of income and education and who work at jobs that are roughly comparable in prestige make up a social class.

question

Status

answer

A position someone occupies. This may have much or little prestige. You can occupy multiple statuses.

question

Status set

answer

All the statuses or positions that a person occupies.

question

Ascribed Status

answer

Involuntary. You do not ask for it or choose it. It is given to you at birth - race, sex, and social class of your parents.

question

Achieved status

answer

Voluntary. You become a student, friend, spouse, lawyer, as a result of your effort. Or a lack of effort you drop out of school, etc.

question

Status Symbols

answer

Signs that identify a status. A wedding ring is an example.

question

Master Status

answer

This cuts across all other statuses. Whatever you do, people will perceive you as this. An example is gender or a convict.

question

Status inconsistency

answer

Contradicting or mismatched statuses. For example, a 14 year old college student.

question

Roles

answer

Behaviors, obligations, and privileges attached to a status. What is expected.

question

Groups

answer

Consists of people who interact with one another and who feel that the values, interests, and norms they have i common are important. The _ to which we belong are powerful forces in our lives.

question

Social Institutions

answer

The standard or usual ways that a society meets its basic needs. (Family, religion, education, the economy, medicine, politics, law, science, and the military.)

question

Hunting and gathering societies

answer

These societies have few social divisions and little inequality. Usually have a shaman, who is thought to influence spiritual forces.

question

Pastoral societies

answer

These societies are based on pasturing of animals. Nomadic and developed in society with little rainfall (couldn't do agriculture)

question

Horticulural societies

answer

These societies are based on cultivation of plants by the use of hand tools. Could develop permanent settlements since they didn't have to move around for food.

question

Agricultural societies

answer

In these societies, people developed cities and what is popularly known as culture. Activities such as philosophy, art, music, literature, and architecture.

question

Industrial revolution

answer

Began in great Britain in 1765. Surplus of everything in this new industrial society, also a surplus of inequality.

question

Postindustrial society

answer

In his type of society, technology centering around the microchip is transforming our lives. The main components are information and service. Few people produce anything.

question

Biotech society

answer

Futuristic society in which the economy will center on applying and altering genetic structures to produce everything. (may be an essay Q on societies so review)

question

Mechanical solidarity

answer

People who perform similar tasks develop a shared consciousness. (Durkheim)

question

Division of labor

answer

As societies get larger, they develop different kinds of work, a specialized...

question

Organic solidarity

answer

When people depend on one another for the specific work that each person contributes to the whole group. (Durkheim)

question

Gemeinschaft

answer

Describes village life where everyone knows everyone else. (Ferdinand Tonnies)

question

Gesellschaft

answer

"impersonal association" Few jobs in family business. People no longer have an intimate connection to family and friends. (Ferdinand tTonnies)

question

Intimate distance

answer

18 inches from our body. (Hall, north americans)

question

Personal distance

answer

18 inches to 4 feed. Friends/acquaintance. (Hall, north americans)

question

Social distance

answer

4 to 12 feet. Impersonal or formal relationships. I.e. Job interviews. (Hall, north americans)

question

Public distance

answer

12 feet. Seperates dignitaries and public speakers from generall public. (Hall, north americans)

question

Body Language

answer

The ways people use their bodies to give messages to others.

question

Dramaturgy

answer

Social life is like a drama or a stage play: Birth ushers us onto the stage of everyday life, and our socialization consists of learning to perform on that stage. Coined by Erving Goffman.

question

Microsociology

answer

Examines narrower slices of social life. Focuses on face-to-face interaction. Symbolic interactions use this type of sociology.

question

Impression management

answer

Goffman called the efforts to maintain the impressions other receive of us as...

question

Role Performance

answer

The particular emphasos or interpretation that we give a role, our "style," is known as...

question

Role conflict

answer

When what is expected of us in one role conflicts with what is expected of us in another. Confluct between roles.

question

Role Strain

answer

Conflict within a role. The same status contains imcompatible roles.

question

Ethnomethodology

answer

The study of how people use commonsense understandings to make sense of life and their surroundings (based on how they were raised).

question

Background assumptions

answer

Your ideas about the way life is supposed to be and the way things out to work. (doctor giving you a haircut breaks these)

question

Thomas Theorem

answer

The definition of the situation. (germs exist in america, may not "exist" elsewhere in other people's minds). "If people define situations as real, they are real in their consequences."

question

Social construction of reality

answer

It is not the reality of something that impresses itself on us, but society that impresses the reality of something on us. (germs for example)

question

Groups

answer

People who think of themselves as belonging together and who interact with one another, are the essence of life in society.

question

Aggregate

answer

Consists of people who temporarily share the same physical space but do not see themselves as belonging together.

question

Category

answer

A simple statistic. It consists of people who share similar characteristics, but don't think of themselves as belonging together and they don't interact with one another.

question

Primary groups

answer

Our first groups, the family, which gives us our basic orientation to life. Later, friends whom we find more intimacy and expanded sense of belonging.

question

Secondary Groups

answer

Larger, more anonymous, more formal, and more impersonal. Worker, student, manager, etc. These tend to break down into primary groups.

question

The iron law of oligarchy

answer

Robert Michels coined this term. It refers to how organizations come to be dominated by a small, self-perpetuating elite.

question

in-groups

answer

Groups to which we feel loyalty.

question

Out-groups

answer

Groups to which we feel antagonism.

question

Reference groups

answer

The groups we refer to when we evaluate ourselves.

question

Social Network

answer

Refers to the people who are linked to one another. It includes your family, friends, acquaintances, people at work and school, and even friends of friends.

question

Clique

answer

The clusters within a group, or its internal factions.

question

Bureaucracies

answer

Organizations which have clear levels, with assignments flowing downward and accountability flowing upward; a division of labor; well written rules; written communications and records; impersonality and replaceability.

question

The rationalization of society

answer

Weber predicted that bureaucracies, with their rules and emphasis on results, would increasingly dominate our lives. This is called...

question

Goal displacement

answer

An aspect of bureaucracies. Even after an organization achieves its goal and no longer has a reason to continue, continue it does with a new goal.

question

Alienation

answer

Workers are cut off from the finished product of their labor. Happens in bureaucracies.

question

Peter Principle

answer

Each employee is promoted to his or her level of incompetence. People are promoted until they are at a level in which they can no longer handle the responsibility. Not exactly true...

question

Corporate culture

answer

The stereotypes that are self-fulfilled. (Person A cannot do this because.... so by not promoting them, they do not perform well, feeding the stereotype.)

question

Group dynamics

answer

How groups influence us and how we affect groups.

question

Small group

answer

A group with few enough members that each one can interact directly with one another.

question

Dyad

answer

Smallest possible group contains 2 people.

question

Triad

answer

Group containing 3 people.

question

Coalitions

answer

In triads, which are unstable somewhat, some group members align themselves against the others to form these.

question

Leaders

answer

These people influence the behaviors, opinions, or attitudes of others. Even a group of friends have these.

question

Instrumental leader

answer

A task oriented leader. Tries to keep the group moving toward its goals.

question

Expressive leader

answer

A socioemotional leader, is not recognized as a leader. Offers sympathy etc to boost group morale.

question

Leadership Styles

answer

Ways of expressing yourself as a leader.

question

Authoritarian leader

answer

A leader who gives orders.

question

Democratic leader

answer

A leader who tries to gain a consensus. (best type apparently)

question

Laissez-Faire leader

answer

A leader who is highly permissive.

question

Groupthink

answer

The collective tunnel vision that group members sometimes develop. As they begin to think alike, they become convinced that there is only one "right" view-point and a single course of action to follow. They take any suggestion of alternatives as a sign of disloyalty.

STUDY

Applied Sociology Big Data Credit Card Numbers Social Engineering United States Username And Password

Security Quiz – Flashcards 20 terms

Steven Colyer

20 terms

Preview

Security Quiz – Flashcards

question

In a practice called ____, someone may manipulate people into performing actions or divulging confidential information on the Internet.

answer

social engineering

question

An item such as a smart card is an example of the ____ form of authentication.

answer

something you have

question

All of the following are examples of malware EXCEPT ____.

answer

updates

question

A company called ____ provides digital certifications for web transactions.

answer

VeriSign

question

A company may hire a ____ hacker to learn about vulnerabilities in its system.

answer

white-hat

question

An Internet-based crime is referred to as a(n) ____ crime.

answer

cyber

question

A(n) ____ certificate confirms your credentials when conducting business or other transactions on the web.

answer

SSL

question

An important function of a firewall is to protect all the ____ of a network or computer from undesirable data.

answer

ports

question

When using a public Wi-Fi network, when is it safe to send private information over the network?

answer

never

question

To protect your wireless devices and the information they hold, you should set up encryption such as ____.

answer

WPA2

question

Twitter is a ____ site.

answer

microblogging

question

In a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack, the services of a(n) ____ can be halted.

answer

Internet server

question

Which of the following is one realistic way to promote Internet security?

answer

Select strong passwords and change them regularly.

question

You can protect yourself from identity theft by using ____ when transmitting information over network connections.

answer

encryption

question

A ____ computer is remotely controlled by a hacker to damage or corrupt a computer resource.

answer

zombie

question

Receiving a fraudulent email that closely resembles a legitimate website, such as one from your bank, is known as a(n) ____ attack.

answer

phishing

question

Of the following, ____ contains the most information about citizens of the United States.

answer

LexisNexis

question

A(n) ____ lifestyle involves ridding oneself of all concerns about privacy.

answer

transparent

question

An individual who illegally downloads copyright-protected software is referred to as a ____.

answer

pirate

question

In the United States, the fundamental law that specifies what kinds of information the government can keep about its citizens and the rights of citizens to know what's kept about them is the ____.

answer

Privacy Act of 1974

STUDY

Applied Sociology Big Data Credit Card Numbers Internet Network Security Social Engineering United States Username And Password

MISY6 – Flashcard 35 terms

Pat Coker

35 terms

Preview

MISY6 – Flashcard

question

An internet-based crime is referred to as a ____ crime.

answer

cyber

question

An individual who illegally downloads copyrighted-protected software is referred to as a ____.

answer

pirate

question

information security is implemented at the individual machine level, the computer network level, and the ____ level.

answer

internet

question

A common form of authentication is a ____.

answer

password

question

an item such as a smart card is an example of the _____ form of authentication

answer

something you have

question

the Mac computer employs the ____ system to encrypt its file data.

answer

FileVault

question

through the use of ____, data is secured when it is stored and transported over a network.

answer

encryption

question

a popular encryption method used to protect data that travels over a network is ____ .

answer

WPA

question

a ____ is commonly packaged with a new computer system.

answer

rescue disk

question

businesses prefer to use technology known as ____ to create an exact copy of their files for backup.

answer

RAID

question

____ permissions provide registered users with access to the files they need, while restricting access to private resources.

answer

user

question

the job of the ____ administrator is to control who has access to various network resources such as files and folders.

answer

network

question

you enter the wrong GPS position for the start point on a trip you are about to take: this is an example of ____.

answer

a data entry error

question

People's mistakes can lead t problems with ____ of computer systems and information.

answer

security,accuracy,reliability

question

businesses are working to control information ____ by not allowing employees to store important data on their laptop computers.

answer

theft

question

stolen information can be used by all of the following EXCEPT ____ .

answer

government agencies to garnish wages

question

corporate network administrators have the right to do all of the following EXCEPT ____ .

answer

install a web cam in an employee's home

question

when starting a new job, you may need to sign a ____ that defines acceptable and unacceptable uses of computer and network resources.

answer

network usage policy

question

to protect your wireless devices and the information they hold, you should set up your ____ to only connect to the SSIDs of your computers.

answer

router

question

in a Wi-Fi network, ____ can be configured to help protect your security.

answer

access points

question

which of the following is NOT a realistic way to ensure Internet security?

answer

Avoid client/server networks

question

a company may hire a ____ hacker to learn about vulnerabilities in its system.

answer

white-hat

question

in a practice called ____ ,someone may manipulate people into performing actions of divulging confidential information on the Internet.

answer

social engineering

question

an important function of a firewall is to protect all the ____ of a network or computer from undesirable data.

answer

ports

question

a ____ ma be used to censor data that may bot be dangerous but may be undesirable.

answer

firewall

question

a ____ allows hackers to gain access to important code or information in a software program.

answer

security hole

question

software companies rely on ____ to "fix" problems in their programs related to bugs and flaws.

answer

updates

question

criminals collect items such as credit card numbers without the knowledge of the user through the use of ____ .

answer

spyware

question

a ____ computer is remotely controlled by a hacker to damage or corrupt a computer resource.

answer

zombie

question

all of the following help keep your information secure EXCEPT ____ .

answer

accessing P2P networks

question

all fo the following are examples of malware EXCEPT ____ .

answer

updates

question

in a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack, the services of a ____ can be halted.

answer

Internet server

question

The ____ was established to secure and monitor security risks to the U.S. networks and the internet.

answer

US-CERT

question

you can protect yourself from identity theft by using ____ when transmitting information over the network connections.

answer

encryption

question

Sites such as eBay are a popular target for ____ .

answer

Internet fraud

STUDY

Applied Sociology Civil War Includes Things Like

Kin ch 3 – Flashcard 22 terms

Pedro Huang

22 terms

Preview

Kin ch 3 – Flashcard

question

Members of this association offer recreation programs for the general public.

answer

National Intramural-Recreational Sports Association

question

Exercise scientists in clinical settings are committed to helping people of all ages learn more about the importance of physical activity to their health and well-being.

answer

true

question

Members of this association certify aerobics instructors and personal trainers.

answer

American Council on Exercise

question

Professional organizations publish journals to disseminate research findings and information that can enhance the learning of individuals in the field.

answer

true

question

Physical therapy requires an understanding of the anatomical and physiological bases of human movement.

answer

true

question

Members of this association organize college recreational programs.

answer

National Intramural-Recreational Sports Association

question

Physical therapy is the treatment of physical injury or dysfunction using therapeutic exercises and modalities with the goal of restoring normal function.

answer

true

question

The greatest challenge facing a personal trainer is designing a safe and effective program.

answer

false

question

School teachers who also coach are paid approximately half of their salaries for teaching and half of their salaries for coaching.

answer

false

question

All high school coaches must have degrees in physical education.

answer

false

question

A student must have completed an entry-level athletic training program accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education and pass the Board of Certification exam in order to become certified as an athletic trainer.

answer

true

question

The best academic preparation for a student majoring in sport management includes management foundations, sports applications, and an internship or work experience within the field.

answer

true

question

Which association establishes professional standards for the prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation of sports injuries?

answer

National Athletic Trainers' Association

question

Practitioners are only interested in the application of knowledge, while disciplinarians are only interested in the creation of new knowledge.

answer

false

question

Members of this association oversee interscholastic sports.

answer

National Federation of State High School Associations

question

Licensure requirements for physical education teachers are the same throughout the United States.

answer

false

question

What would be the most typical undergraduate major for someone who wishes to become a strength training and conditioning coach?

answer

Exercise science

question

School physical education programs are financed well and a priority in schools because of their unique contributions to the education of the whole child.

answer

false

question

Specialists in nutrition promote scientific inquiry and the application of research findings to the prevention and treatment of chronic diseases and specific medical conditions.

answer

false

question

Members of this association facilitate research associated with physical activity, athletic training, and exercise physiology.

answer

American College of Sports Medicine

question

Illustrations of professional involvement would be joining a professional organization, reading its journals, and attending its conferences.

answer

true

question

Which of the following criteria is not essential for a field of study or work to be classified as a profession?

answer

Professionals must hold graduate degrees

STUDY

Applied Sociology Cisco Conducting Cyber Security Management Flags Network Security Search The Internet Sender And Receiver Wireless Network

Security 5.3.8 5.4.5 5.5.5 5.6.5 5.7.8 5.8.5 5.9.4 – Flashcards 96 terms

Rebecca Mallory

96 terms

Preview

Security 5.3.8 5.4.5 5.5.5 5.6.5 5.7.8 5.8.5 5.9.4 – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is the main difference between a DOS attack and a DDoS attack?

answer

The DDoS attack uses zombie computers.

question

Which of the following are denial of service attacks? (Select two.)

answer

Fraggle Smurf

question

Which attack form either exploits a software flaw or floods a system with traffic in order to prevent legitimate activities or transactions from occurring?

answer

Denial of service attack

question

As the victim of a Smurf attack, what protection measure is the most effective during the attack?

answer

Communicate with your upstream provider

question

You suspect that an Xmas tree attack is occurring on a system. Which of the following could result if you do not stop the attack? (Select two.)

answer

The system will be unavailable to respond to legitimate requests. The threat agent will obtain information about open ports on the system.

question

You need to enumerate the devices on your network and display the network's configuration details. Which of the following utilities should you use?

answer

nmap

question

An attacker is conducting passive reconnaissance on a targeted company. Which of the following could he be doing?

answer

Browsing the organization's website

question

Which type of active scan turns off all flags in a TCP header?

answer

Null

question

Which of the following denial of service (DOS) attacks uses ICMP packets and is only successful if the victim has less bandwidth than the attacker?

answer

Ping flood

question

In which of the following denial of service (DoS) attacks does the victim's system rebuild invalid UDP packets, causing the system to crash or reboot?

answer

Teardrop

question

A SYN packet is received by a server. The SYN packet has the exact same address for both the sender and receiver addresses, which is the address of the server. This is an example of what type of attack?

answer

Land attack

question

Which of the following is a form of denial of service attack that uses spoofed ICMP packets to flood a victim with echo requests using a bounce/amplification network?

answer

Smurf

question

A SYN attack or SYN flood exploits or alters which element of the TCP three-way handshake?

answer

ACK

question

When a SYN flood is altered so that the SYN packets are spoofed in order to define the source and destination address as a single victim IP address, the attack is now called what?

answer

Land attack

question

Which of the following best describes the ping of death?

answer

An ICMP packet that is larger than 65,536 bytes

question

Which of the following is the best countermeasure against man-in-the-middle attacks?

answer

IPsec

question

What is modified in the most common form of spoofing on a typical IP packet?

answer

Source address

question

Which type of activity changes or falsifies information in order to mislead or re-direct traffic?

answer

Spoofing

question

Which of the following describes a man-in-the-middle attack?

answer

A false server intercepts communications from a client by impersonating the intended server.

question

Capturing packets as they travel from one host to another with the intent of altering the contents of the packets is a form of which attack type?

answer

Man-in-the-middle attack

question

When the TCP/IP session state is manipulated so that a third party is able to insert alternate packets into the communication stream, what type of attack has occurred?

answer

Hijacking

question

What is the goal of a TCP/IP hijacking attack?

answer

Executing commands or accessing resources on a system the attacker does not otherwise have authorization to access.

question

Which of the following is not a protection against session hijacking?

answer

DHCP reservations

question

Which of the following is the most effective protection against IP packet spoofing on a private network?

answer

Ingress and egress filters

question

While using the internet, you type the URL of one of your favorite sites in the browser. Instead of going to the correct site, however, the browser displays a completely different website. When you use the IP address of the web server, the correct site is displayed. Which type of attack has likely occurred?

answer

DNS poisoning

question

Which of the following attacks tries to associate an incorrect MAC address with a known IP address?

answer

ARP poisoning

question

What are the most common network traffic packets captured and used in a replay attack?

answer

Authentication

question

When a malicious user captures authentication traffic and replays it against the network later, what is the security problem you are most concerned about?

answer

An unauthorized user gaining access to sensitive resources

question

A router on the border of your network detects a packet with a source address that is from an internal client, but the packet was received on the internet-facing interface. This is an example of what form of attack?

answer

Spoofing

question

An attacker uses an exploit to push a modified hosts file to client systems. This hosts file redirects traffic from legitimate tax preparation sites to malicious sites to gather personal and financial information. What kind of exploit has been used in this scenario? (Choose two. Both responses are different names for the same exploit.)

answer

Pharming DNS poisoning

question

Which of the following is a privately controlled portion of a network that is accessible to some specific external entities?

answer

Extranet

question

You are the office manager of a small financial credit business. Your company handles personal financial information for clients seeking small loans over the internet. You are aware of your obligation to secure clients records. Budget is an issue for your company. Which item would provide the best security for this situation?

answer

All-in-one security appliance

question

You are implementing security at a local high school that is concerned with students accessing inappropriate material on the internet from the library's computers. The students Will use the computers to search the internet for research paper content. The school budget is limited. Which content filtering option would you choose?

answer

Restrict content based on content categories

question

Match the application-aware network device on the right with the appropriate description on the left. Each description may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

answer

Application-aware proxy: - Improves application performance Application-aware firewall: - Enforces security rules based on the application that is generating network traffic instead of the traditional port and protocol Application-aware IDS: - Analyzes network packets to detect malicious payloads targeted at application-layer services

question

Members of the sales team use laptops to connect to the company network. While traveling, they connect their laptops to the internet through airport and hotel networks. You are concerned that these computers will pick up viruses that could spread to your private network. You would like to implement a solution that prevents the laptops from connecting to your network unless anti-virus software and the latest operating system patches are installed. Which solution should you use?

answer

NAC

question

You have a company network that is connected to the internet. You want all users to have internet access, but you need to protect your private network and users. You also need to make a web server publicly available to internet users. Which solution should you use?

answer

Use firewalls to create a DMZ. Place the web server inside the DMZ and the private network behind the DMZ.

question

You have used firewalls to create a demilitarized zone. You have a web server that needs to be accessible to internet users. The web server must communicate with a database server for retrieving product, customer, and order information. How should you place devices on the network to best protect the servers? (Select two.)

answer

Put the database server on the private network. Put the web server inside the DMZ.

question

Of the following security zones, which one can serve as a buffer network between a private secured network and the untrusted internet?

answer

DMZ

question

Which of the following is likely to be located in a DMZ?

answer

FTP Server

question

In which of the following situations would you most likely implement a demilitarized zone (DMZ)?

answer

You want to protect a public web server from attack.

question

Which of the following terms describes a network device that is exposed to attacks and has been hardened against those attacks?

answer

Bastion or sacrificial host

question

Your company has a connection to the internet that allows users to access the internet. You also have a web server and an email server that you want to make available to internet users. You want to create a DMZ for these two servers. Which type of device should you use to create the DMZ?

answer

Network-based firewall

question

Which of the following is a firewall function?

answer

Packet filtering

question

You manage a small network at work. Users use workstations connected to your network No portable computers are allowed. As part of your security plan, you would like to implement scanning of e-mails for all users. You want to scan the e- mails and prevent any e-mails with malicious attachments from being received by users. Your solution should minimize administration, allowing you to centrally manage the scan settings. Which solution should you use?

answer

Network based firewall

question

Which of the following are characteristics of a circuit-level gateway? (Select two.)

answer

Stateful Filters based on sessions

question

Which of the following are characteristics of a packet filtering firewall? (Select two.)

answer

Stateless Filters IP address and port

question

You want to install a firewall that can reject packets that are not part of an active session. Which type of firewall should you use?

answer

Circuit-level

question

You provide internet access for a local school. You want to control Internet access based on user, and prevent access to specific URLs. Which type of firewall should you install?

answer

Application level

question

Which of the following is the best device to deploy to protect your private network from a public untrusted network?

answer

Firewall

question

You have been given laptop to use for work. You connect the laptop to your company network, use it from home, and use it while traveling. You want to protect the laptop from Internet-based attacks. Which solution should you use?

answer

Host based firewall

question

Which of the following are true of a circuit proxy filter firewall? (Select two.)

answer

Verifies sequencing of session packets. Operates at the Session layer.

question

You would like to control Internet access based on users, time of day, and websites visited. How can you do this?

answer

Install a proxy server. Allow Internet access only through the proxy server.

question

Which of the following does a router acting as a firewall use to control which packets are forwarded or dropped?

answer

ACL

question

Which of the following describes how access lists can be used to improve network security?

answer

An access list filters traffic based on the IP header information such as source or destination IP address, protocol, or socket numbers.

question

When designing a firewall, what is the recommended approach for opening and closing ports?

answer

Close all ports; open only ports required by applications inside the DMZ.

question

Which of the following firewall types can be a proxy between servers and clients? (Select two.)

answer

Application layer firewall Circuit proxy filtering firewall

question

You have a small network at home that is connected to the internet. On your home network, you have a server with the IP address of 192.168.55. lgg/16. You have a Single public address that IS shared by all hosts on your private network. You want to configure the sewer as a web server and allow internet hosts to contact the server to browse a personal website. What should use to allow access?

answer

Static NAT

question

You are the administrator for a small company that implements NAT to access the internet. However, you recently acquired five servers that must be accessible from outside your network. Your ISP has provided you With five additional registered IP addresses to support these new servers, but you don't want the public to access these servers directly. You want to place these servers behind your firewall on the Inside network, yet still allow them to be accessible to the public from the outside. Which method of NAT translation should you implement for these servers?

answer

Static

question

You want to connect your small company network to the internet. Your ISP provides with a single IP address that is to be shared between all hosts on your private network. You do not want external hosts to be able to initiate connection to internal hosts. What type of address translation (NAT) should you implement?

answer

Dynamic

question

Which of the following is not one of the IP address ranges defined in RFC 1918 that are commonly used behind a NAT server?

answer

169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255

question

Which of the following networking devices or services prevents the use of IPSec in most cases?

answer

NAT

question

Which of the following is not a benefit of NAT?

answer

Improving the throughput rate of traffic

question

A group of salesmen would like to access your private network through the internet while they are traveling. You want to control access to the private network through a single server. Which solution should you implement?

answer

VPN concentrator

question

A VPN is primarily used for what purpose?

answer

Support secured communications over an untrusted network

question

Which VPN protocol typically employs IPSec as its data encryption mechanism?

answer

L2TP

question

Which statement best describes IPSec when used in tunnel mode?

answer

The entire data packet, including headers, is encapsulated

question

Which IPSec subprotocol provides data encryption?

answer

ESP

question

Which is the best countermeasure for someone attempting to view your network traffic?

answer

VPN

question

PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) is quickly becoming obsolete because of which VPN protocol?

answer

L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)

question

What is the primary use of tunneling?

answer

Supporting private traffic through a public communication medium

question

In addition to Authentication Header (AH), IPSec is comprised of what other service?

answer

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

question

A salesperson in your organization spends most of her time traveling between customer sites. After a customer visit, she must complete various managerial tasks, such as updating your organization's order database. Because she rarely comes back to your home office, she usually accesses the network from her notebook computer using Wi-Fi access provided by hotels, restaurants, and airports. Many of these locations provide unencrypted public Wi-Fi access, and you are concerned that sensitive data could be exposed. To remedy this situation, you decide to configure her notebook to use a VPN when accessing the home network over an open wireless connection. Which key steps should you take when implementing this configuration? (Select two.)

answer

Configure the browser to send HTTPS requests through the VPN connection Configure the VPN connection to use IPSec

question

Which of the following is a valid security measure to protect email from viruses?

answer

Use blockers on email gateways

question

Which of the following prevents access based on website ratings and classifications?

answer

Content Filter

question

Drag the web threat protection method on the left to the correct definition on the right.

answer

Prevents users from visiting malicious [Web threat filtering] Prevents outside attempts to access confidential information [Anti-phishing software] Identifies and disposes of infected content [Virus blockers] Prevents unwanted email from reaching your network [Gateway email spam blockers] Prevents users from visiting restricted websites [URL content filtering]

question

You are investigating the use of website and URL content filtering to prevent users from visiting certain websites. Which benefits are the result of implementing this technology in your organization? (Choose two.)

answer

An increase in bandwidth availability Enforcement of the organization's internet usage policy

question

Which of the following are functions of gateway email spam blockers? (Select two.)

answer

Filters messages containing specific content Blocks email from specific senders

question

You have a company network with a single switch. All devices connect to the network through the switch. You want to control which devices are able to connect to your rän.'ork. For devices that do not have the latest operating system patches, you want to prevent access to all network devices except for a special server that holds the patches that the computers need to download. Which of the following components will be part of your solution? (Select two.)

answer

Remediation servers 802.1x authentication

question

Which step is required to configure a NAP on a Remote Desktop (RD) gateway server?

answer

Edit the properties for the server and select *Request clients to send a statement of health*

question

In a NAP system, which is the function of the System Health Validator?

answer

Compare the statement of health submitted by the client to the health requirements

question

How does IPSec NAP enforcement differ from other NAP enforcement methods?

answer

Clients must be issued a valid certificate before a connection to the private network is allowed

question

Your organization's security policy requires you to restrict network access to allow only clients that have their firewall enabled. Which of the following is a collection of components that would allow you to meet this requirement?

answer

Network access protection

question

Which of the following specifications identify security that can be added to wireless networks? (Select two.)

answer

802.1x 802.11i

question

Which of the following wireless security methods uses a common shared key configured on the wireless access point and all wireless clients?

answer

WEP, WPA Personal, and WPA2 Personal

question

Which of the following offers the weakest form of encryption for an 802.11 wireless network?

answer

WEP

question

What encryption method is used by WPA for wireless networks?

answer

TKIP

question

Which of the following features are supplied by WPA2 on a wireless network?

answer

Encryption

question

You need to configure a wireless network. You want to use WPA2 Enterprise. Which of the following components will be part of your design? (Select two.)

answer

802.1x AES encryption

question

You need to configure the wireless network card to connect to your network at work. The connection should use a user name and password for authentication with AES encryption. What should you do?

answer

Configure the connection to use WPA2-Enterprise.

question

Match the wireless networking security standard on the left to its associated characteristics on the right. Each standard can be used more than once.

answer

Short initialization vector makes key vulnerable. [WEP] Uses AES for encryption. [WPA2] Uses RC4 for encryption. [WEP] Uses TKIP for encryption. [WPA] Uses CBC-MAC for data integrity. [WPA2] Uses CCMP for key rotation. [WPA2]

question

Which of the following are typically used for encrypting data on a wireless network? (Select two.)

answer

AES TKIP

question

You want to connect a laptop computer running Windows to a wireless network. The wireless network uses multiple access points and WPA2-Personal. You want to use the strongest authentication and encryption possible. SSID broadcast has been disabled. What should you do?

answer

Configure the connection with a pre-shared key and AES encryption.

question

Which of the following is used on a wireless network to identify the network name?

answer

SSID

question

Which of the following are true about Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)? (Select two.)

answer

WPA2 uses AES for encryption and CBC-MAC for data integrity. Upgrading from a network using WEP typically requires installing new hardware.

question

WiMAX is an implementation of which IEEE committee?

answer

802.16

question

You have a small wireless network that uses multiple access points. The network uses WPA and broadcasts the SSID. WPA2 is not supported by the wireless access points. You want to connect a laptop computer to the wireless network. Which of the following parameters will you need to configure on the laptop? (Select two.)

answer

Pre-shared key TKIP encryption

STUDY

AP Comparative Government And Politics Applied Sociology Introductory Sociology Social Conflict Theory Sociology

Social Problem Test Three (Final Study Guide) – Flashcards 50 terms

Viola Marenco

50 terms

Preview

Social Problem Test Three (Final Study Guide) – Flashcards

question

The formal organization that directs the political life of a society is

answer

Government

question

The social institution that organizes the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services is

answer

the economy

question

Capitalism is an economic system in which natural resources and the means of producing goods and services are

answer

privately owned

question

Which type of economic system places natural resources and the means of producing goods and services under collective ownership?

answer

socialism

question

Which type of economic system has government working closely with large, privately owned companies?

answer

state capitalism

question

In the United States, about what percentage of the gross domestic product comes from the privately owned sector of the economy?

answer

82 Percent

question

Which concept refers to a political system in which power is exercised by the people as a whole?

answer

democracy

question

The domination of an entire market by a single company is referred to as

answer

a monopoly

question

Which concept refers to the efforts of special-interest groups and their representatives to influence government officials?

answer

lobbying

question

The Nineteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution extended the vote to

answer

women

question

In the 2012 presidential election,

answer

women were slightly more likely to vote than men were.

question

Which of the following categories of people face legal barriers to voting?

answer

convicted felons

question

Each year, about how many U.S. workers suffer a work-related illness or injury?

answer

1 million

question

The most recent technological change to the U.S. economy was

answer

the Information Revolution

question

In the tertiary sector of the economy, most people in the labor force do what type of work?

answer

service work

question

Which term refers to the expansion of economic activity around the world with little regard for national borders?

answer

globalization

question

In 1970, the federal government created OSHA to oversee and regulate

answer

workplace health and safety

question

According to Karl Marx, alienation in the workplace results from

answer

powerlessness

question

Which term refers to shaping work in terms of the principles of efficiency, predictability, uniformity, and automation?

answer

McDonaldization

question

Which term refers to bias built into the operation of the economy, education, and other social institutions?

answer

institutional discrimination

question

Many states have "right to work" laws which, among other things,

answer

limit the power of unions to require membership as a condition of hiring

question

Which term refers to a barrier—often involving institutional discrimination—that prevents women and other minorities from moving up in the workplace?

answer

glass ceiling

question

What organizations seek to improve wages and working conditions through various strategies, including collective bargaining and strikes?

answer

labor unions

question

Telecommuting has what major disadvantage for workers?

answer

It blurs the line between home and work

question

Which term refers to one or two parents and their children?

answer

nuclear family

question

Which of the following terms refers to parents and children, plus grandparents, aunts, uncles, and cousins, who often live close to one another and operate as a family unit?

answer

extended family

question

Families are built around a lawful relationship, usually involving economic cooperation, sexual activity, and childbearing. What is this relationship called?

answer

marriage

question

In the United States, about what share of people between twenty-five and forty-four years of age cohabit at some point?

answer

half

question

In 2012, the average number of children born to the typical U.S. woman over her lifetime was about

answer

1.9

question

In 2013, the typical age at first marriage for a woman was

answer

26.6 years old

question

What percentage of African American children are born to a single mother?

answer

72 percent

question

William Julius Wilson claims that the major cause of poverty among African American families is

answer

a lack of available jobs

question

In the United States, most people who receive public assistance are

answer

white

question

About what share of today's marriages will end in divorce, separation, or dissolution within twenty years?

answer

half

question

Under "no-fault" divorce laws

answer

couples declare that their marriage is over due to irreconcilable differences

question

Of the children who are awarded court-ordered child support, about what percentage receive partial payments or no payments at all?

answer

57 percent

question

Most blended families manage to cope with the challenges, but research shows that blended families carry an increased risk of

answer

physical and sexual abuse of children

question

Prenuptial agreements may be a good idea because

answer

there is a significant chance that the marriage will eventually end in divorce

question

Which term refers to the social institution by which society transmits knowledge to its members?

answer

education

question

A major reason that schooling is limited in poor societies of the world is that

answer

parents need their children to work to provide food and income

question

The ability to read and write is referred to as

answer

literacy

question

In the United States, what percentage of the population aged twenty-five to sixty-four has a four-year college or university degree?

answer

32 percent

question

By which year had every state enacted a law requiring children to attend school?

answer

1918

question

About what percentage of U.S. adults now complete high school?

answer

88 percent

question

On the Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT), for all racial and ethnic categories of people, a higher rate of poverty is linked to

answer

lower performance on the test

question

Research shows that the quality of the school matters to student performance, but what matters even more?

answer

the student's home environment

question

About 30 million men and women in the United States do not read, write, or do basic arithmetic well enough to carry out daily responsibilities. This situation is the problem of

answer

functional illiteracy

question

In 1954, which decision by the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that racially segregated schools violated the Constitution, striking down the "separate but equal" standard that dated back to 1896?

answer

Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka

question

Which term refers to lifetime experiences and opportunities that enhance a student's ability to learn and succeed?

answer

cultural capital

question

What percentage of undergraduates enrolled in U.S. colleges are women?

answer

57 percent

STUDY

Applied Sociology World Geography

Geography: Europe – Flashcards 160 terms

Misty Porter

160 terms

Preview

Geography: Europe – Flashcards

question

European Debt Crisis- what does it mean, how did happen

answer

all economies are tied together, and meaning the failure of the euro; because of unbalanced fiscal policy

question

What's a good fiscal policy?

answer

making citizens pay taxes and prevent borrowing/ spending (in the example of Europe= to remove trade barriers)

question

6 facts about the European Debt Crisis

answer

1. Fastest way to rebuild after WW2 was to remove trade barriers 2. Maastricht Treaty led to European Union 3. Gave control to European Central Bank 4. Countries could borrow more because if they couldn't pay the big countries would step in 5. Put in austerity measures to cut government spending 6. Must be a political organization to cut spending/ raise taxes

question

Define monetary and fiscal policy.

answer

Monetary policy controls how much money is in the economy, and fiscal policy is how much the government collects in taxes

question

How are the areas of Europe separated, and how do the cultures stay separate?

answer

By geographical features (mountains, water, island), helps cultures stay homogenous

question

Is Europe a continent and a distinct landmass?

answer

Yes; no (actually an appendage/sub-continent of Eurasia)

question

Europe is a culture region made up of the countries of Eurasia lying west of _____,_______,__,__,______________

answer

Turkey, Russia, Belarus, Ukraine, and Moldova (the political divide)

question

Traditional physical dividing line between Europe/Asia drawn from= _______ down to the Caucasus

answer

Ural Mountains (so technically Russia/Turkey/Ukraine/etc. are part of Europe)

question

Ural divides Europe/Asia continents ______ while the Baltic states divide it ______

answer

geologically; politically

question

What are 2 chokepoints of Europe?

answer

Turkey's 2 parts on Europe/Asia; Gibraltar of UK

question

True/False. Politically, Europe is much bigger than it is physically.

answer

False; other way around

question

What is the main part consisting of UK, France, Germany, or the countries with most people/ importance in economics/ politics in Europe called?

answer

European Core

question

Besides the Core, name the other 3 parts of Europe

answer

Northern, Southern, and Eastern Europe (the Periphery)

question

Eastern Europe is politically _____ because of the breakup of socialist _______

answer

unstable; Yugoslavia

question

Is Europe smaller or bigger than the US?

answer

smaller (half size of the US's lower 48)

question

True/False. Europe contains one of the world's great clusters of human population.

answer

True (total population 532 million in 2007)

question

True/False. 1 out of every 7 people in world is European.

answer

False; 13

question

How does the population density go in Europe?

answer

Varies widely; lots of people per square mile in Netherlands vs. little in Iceland

question

Name the 4 countries that alone comprise half of Europe's population, and that dominate the economy.

answer

1. Germany 2. France (same as UK number) 3. United Kingdom 4. Italy

question

The greatest population densities are found in the ________________ near historical sources of coal and hydroelectric power

answer

2 belts of industrialization and urbanization

question

The industrial belts go approximately

answer

North-South from the UK to Italy; East-West from from UK to Poland

question

Difference between Eurozone, EU, and Schengenland.

answer

Eurozone= 19 countries currently using the euro as its currency; center of the EMU (european economic and monetary union) EU= most important of Europe's supranational organizations, has 38 countries and began as the Common Market (or European Economic Community) Schengenland= a situation in which there would be no passport/ visa/ control issues at any internal frontiers of member countries (The Eurozone is mostly about currency, whereas European Union is a social cause, trade, and free movement of people, goods and services.)

question

True/False. These belts contain large cities and produce less goods and services than the rest of Europe combined.

answer

False; more (goods/services)

question

Since it produces the most food, the industrial belts are a __________

answer

breadbasket

question

Name 3 other areas on Earth that resemble Europe's urban-industrial belts.

answer

Eastern North America (Bowash), Japan, and China

question

True/False. Europe's population is the same.

answer

False; declining

question

True/ False. Europe's population peaked in 1984.

answer

False; 1997

question

Name the 2 levels of demographic transition Europe went through.

answer

1st level (more babies needed for agriculture, more death from disease) and to 4th/going into 5th (population decreasing)

question

Nickname that show's that Europe's population is declining

answer

Birth Dearth

question

"Birth Dearth" shows that the birth rates are __

answer

low

question

Why are the birth rates in Europe low?

answer

Employed and educated women choosing not to devote time and money necessary to raise children (P.S No European country maintaining its population through births--birth rate is under death rate!)

question

The fertility rate in Europe is _____ population replacement level.

answer

below

question

Europe's population is ____ faster than all other world regions

answer

aging

question

The low birth rates in Europe means that there is not enough people which is ____ for the economy.

answer

bad (less people than jobs, etc.)

question

Why are the low birth rates ironic? And what does this mean?

answer

Catholicism religion (cherishes babies); religion is decreasing (Catholic church is losing its hold on Europe)

question

Name the 2 strategies Europe has implemented to raise the birth rates.

answer

1. Cash incentives ("baby bounties") to parents who have multiple children 2. Offering welfare benefits to immigrants

question

Where do most of the immigrants come from?

answer

North Africa

question

If birth rates remain at their current low level, the European Union will have a shortfall of 20 million _____ by 2030; the EU would need _______ migrants per year to prevent this

answer

workers; 3 million

question

Government used to not want to impose harsh measures on restricting migration, but now that's changing. Why?

answer

Immigrants increasingly viewed as a financial burden on society, and unraveling the social safety net of the welfare state.

question

What does "Immigrants threatening to unravel the social safety net of the European welfare state" mean?

answer

Immigrants using up all of the welfare money, European countries worried about their country becoming bankrupt and not being able to use welfare for own citizens

question

True/ False. The immigrants are living outside mainstream European society instead of becoming integrated within it.

answer

True

question

The expectation from Europe was to have outsiders ______, but that's not happening.

answer

assimilate

question

With immigrants, there is what kind of phobia?

answer

Islamophobia

question

True/False. Immigration Statistics: 500,000 people enter EU legally each year; 1.8 million people more people enter the EU illegally each year

answer

False; switch numbers

question

The main physical characteristic of Europe, that accounts for mountains, islands, etc., is its ____ ____

answer

irregular shape

question

Other physical characteristics of Europe include (3)

answer

high latitude, temperate climate, and jagged coastal outline (good for natural harbors)

question

What physical characteristics of Europe offers protection for shipping? (2)

answer

estuaries (semi-enclosed/brackish, tidal mouths of rivers) and harbors

question

Much of Europe's history has focused on __borne trade, __fisheries, and __ power (1 word)

answer

sea

question

Much of Europe lies ____ of conterminous U.S resulting in ___ ___ days and __ ___ days

answer

north; long, summer; short, winter

question

Europe has mild climates, despite its _____ _____

answer

high latitude

question

The Warm Ocean Currents of Europe include the (2)

answer

Gulf Stream; North Atlantic Drift

question

What is the North Atlantic Drift?

answer

Area in the North Atlantic Ocean where warm water of the Gulf Stream and cold water from the Arctic Ocean mix

question

What is the North Atlantic Drift good for? (hint: swordfish)

answer

fishing

question

Why does Britain have so much rain?

answer

Westerly winds go across North Atlantic Drift, which is warmed by the Gulf Stream

question

Europe has _____ Winds

answer

Westerly

question

Name the 3 characteristics of the Westerlies.

answer

1. Winter winds absorb heat from ocean and transport to land 2. In the summer, the ocean is cooler than land, so the winds have a cooling effect 3. Winds bring abundant moisture (average annual precipitation in European lowlands is 20-40 inches)

question

True/False. Average annual precipitation in European lowlands is 20-40 inches.

answer

True

question

Europe's topographic features are very _____, and have been enriched by human associations of an eventful ____

answer

diverse; history

question

The greater part of Europe's cultivated land, extending from the French-Spanish border far into Russia is the

answer

North European Plain

question

The North European Plain is the most _____

answer

populated

question

Underlain by deposits of coal, iron ore, and other minerals important in the region's industrial development= ________

answer

North European Plain

question

The North European Plain has people-wanted what 3 items, also making it a _____

answer

food, water, minerals (!); breadbasket

question

____ of the North European Plain, the region is ___ and _________, with notable peaks including Mount Blanc (French- Italian border) and the iconic Swiss Matterhorn

answer

South; hilly, mountainous

question

True/False. Swiss Matterhorn is in the North European Plain.

answer

False; south of it

question

___ created favorable sites for hydroelectric installations in Europe.

answer

Glaciation

question

Glacial deposition left fertile deposits on most of the _________ that are productively farmed today, meaning ___ ___

answer

North European Plain; good soil

question

North European Plain carves earth for water, but it has _____, so it makes it running water, allowing for _________

answer

elevation; hydroelectricity

question

Despite its relatively small size, Europe has remarkable _______&____ diversity

answer

climatic, biotic

question

Name the climates of Europe.

answer

1. Marine West Coast 2. Humid Continental Short-Summer (Cold) 3. Humid Continental Long-Summer (Warm) 4. Mediterranean 5. Subarctic and Tundra (northern) 6. Undifferentiated Highland

question

Why is there marine west coast climate in Europe?

answer

Winds flow along the North Atlantic Drift

question

Uses of rivers systems: (4)

answer

transport (rivers still make it possible to move cargo at low cost), water supply, electricity generation, and recreation

question

Dutch developed the ___ ____ for canals

answer

pound lock

question

The ____ and ____ traverse many countries and are important arteries for the flow of goods )2 important rivers)

answer

Rhine; Danube

question

Important Seaports ___ a lot of ___ for the EU

answer

move; goods

question

Name the 4 important seaports of the EU

answer

1. London on the Thames (estuary) 2. Antwerp on the Scheldt (especially) 3. Rotterdam in the delta of the Rhine (especially) 4. Hamburg on the Elbe

question

Europe is a region marked by extraordinary cultural diversity (t/f); many countries into a relatively large land area however, so richness cannot be experienced through a brief train ride through Europe (t/f)

answer

true; false

question

Euurope emerged from prehistory as homeland of many different peoples; great expansion of ____ and ____ peoples/ languages

answer

Greek; Celtic

question

Name the major language families, and the languages in each (3)

answer

1. Romance (the big languages):Italian, French, Spanish & Portuguese 2. Germanic: German, English, Dutch, Danish & Swedish 3. Slavic: Russian, Polish, Czech, Slovak & Serbian

question

Romance language family evolved from ____

answer

Latin

question

Europe's religious roots were with the dominance of _____

answer

Christianity (Embraced by Emperor Constantine in the 4th Century)

question

What is Europe's largest religious group (280 million followers), and where is its' center?

answer

Roman Catholic Church; Vatican City

question

What religious group developed in Constantinople during Middle Ages as rival to Rome?

answer

Eastern Orthodox Church

question

Sects emerging from ___ reformation in the 16th century

answer

Protestant

question

Protestant religion has what: (3 parts)

answer

1. Church of England (Henry the 8th made for Protestants; however in the UK, Ireland is still very Catholic) 2.Calvinism 3. Lutheran Protestantism

question

Europe has become increasingly ____ (referring to its religion)

answer

secularized

question

What does being secularized mean?

answer

You don't have a religion (but you still believe in something; less religious)

question

____ is fastest growing religion in Europe

answer

Islam

question

Islam is growing faster on where, and why

answer

On 2 industrialized belts; immigrants needing jobs from North Africa

question

How many Jews in Europe, after Holocaust/ emigration to Israel, are left today?

answer

one million

question

The __ ___ was an important global trade route, connecting China and Venice.

answer

Silk Road

question

What 2 main things were shipped on the Silk Road?

answer

spices and textiles

question

The balance of of world affairs started shifting to Europe with the beginning of the __ _ _______ in the 15th century

answer

Age of Discovery

question

The process of exploration and discovery began with _____ expeditions down the west coast of _____.

answer

Portuguese; Africa

question

Explorers were the ______ of a global European invasion that would bring the missionaries, soldiers, traders, settlers, and administrators

answer

vanguards

question

What are vanguards?

answer

soldiers sent in front of an army

question

What was important in reshaping the world's biogeography?

answer

The Columbian Exchange

question

What was the Columbian Exchange?

answer

the transfer of plants and animals from one place to another following Europe's conquest of the Americas

question

Europe had significant material and cultural riches, which the colonial system built on to make it the world's wealthiest region for centuries. How did it become that way?

answer

They conquered anywhere they could get rich in.

question

Achievements in shipbuilding, navigation, and the manufacture and handling of weapons gave Europe decided advantages; true/false

answer

True

question

Foundations of modern science primarily came out of Asia; true/false

answer

False; Europe

question

1st world region to evolve from an ___ to an ___ society

answer

agricultural; industrial

question

The ______ Revolution began in Europe, specially in ____ ___

answer

Industrial; Great Britain

question

True/ False. By 1800, European cities created about 90% of world's manufacturing output

answer

False; 1900

question

True/ False. In 20th century, Europe's preeminence in world trade and industry diminished to about 45% of the world's manufacturing output.

answer

False; 25% (only a quarter)

question

Why did Europe's industry manufacturing output diminish so much? Name all 5 reasons.

answer

1.Warfare (World Wars) 2. Rising nationalism (1 country vs. another country) 3. Rising economic and political stature of US and USSR 4. A major shift in global manufacturing patterns 5. Dependence on outside sources of energy

question

Explain the major shift in global manufacturing patterns away from Europe.

answer

Happening now; making things where labor is cheaper

question

_____ Europe is wealthier than ____ Europe

answer

Western; Eastern

question

Trend dates to at last the 1870s when per capita incomes in the west were twice those in the east; After World War II, eastern European countries were in effect colonized by the Soviet Union; what is this describing?

answer

how Western Europe is wealthier than Eastern

question

Eastern countries served as ____ states that gave up human and material resources to service the motherland; what does the underlined term mean?

answer

vassal; refers to itself as independent but not really

question

What is the hope for Eastern Europe?

answer

Dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991, and admission of eastern European countries to the EU

question

Iron Curtain was divided part between ___ Europe from ___ Europe

answer

Free; Communist

question

What was the original foundation of and is still very important of Europe's economy?

answer

agriculture

question

What were some agricultural advances after about 1500? (4; first 2 more important )

answer

1. Introduction of new crops, such as the potato (Columbian Exchange) 2. New systems of crop rotation (Fertile soil) 3. Scientific advancements 4. Industrial cities provided growing markets for farmers

question

Farmers protected through tariffs or direct ____

answer

subsides

question

The subsides/tariffs that protect the farmers artificially ___ _ ____

answer

inflate the market

question

_____ is an important part of the European food economy

answer

Fishing

question

Name 2 characteristics of fishing in the economy.

answer

1.Control of fishing grounds as commercial/ political objective 2. Overfishing of cod

question

Europe's Post industrial Economy is a shift from big industries toward what?

answer

economy based on services and production of high-tech goods

question

Europe's shift from big industries to smaller causes what problem?

answer

unemployment (these industries do not employ as many people as the old manufacturing sector)

question

Many European nations fit the model of _____ state

answer

welfare

question

Welfare state means that the ____ provides a lot of _____

answer

government; services

question

How does the government get the money to use for resources to provide services to citizens?

answer

high taxation rates

question

The EU has what major problem?

answer

Nationalism

question

EU headquartered in

answer

Brussels, Belgium

question

EU is important of Europe's _____ organizations

answer

supranational

question

EU began as the European Economic Community, also known as ____ ___ in 1957

answer

Common Market,

question

Beginning countries of EU were (6)

answer

France, West Germany, Italy, Belgium, Luxembourg, Netherlands

question

True/ False. EU was initially designed to secure the benefits of large-scale production by pooling resources and markets of its members.

answer

True!

question

What were the first things the EU did? (if goal was to improve economies/ markets)

answer

1. Tariffs eliminated on goods moving between member states 2. Restrictions on the movement of labor and capital between member states were eased 3. Monopolies that restricted competition were discouraged 4. Common set of external tariffs established to regulate imports

question

True/ False. European Union was always the name of the organization.

answer

False; acquired in 1993

question

By 1996, 9 more members had joined the EU; true/ false

answer

true

question

How many countries currently in the EU?

answer

question

What single European Union currency was launched in _____?

answer

the euro; 1999

question

Euro was launched as centerpiece of= (name, and abbreviation)

answer

European Economic and Monetary Union; EMU

question

Who decides interest rates and other critical decisions of most of Europe?

answer

European Central Bank

question

What are some of the believed advantages of a common currency? (for the euro specifically)

answer

Lower transaction costs, more certainty for investors, enhanced competition, more consistent pricing, restrain public spending/ reduce debt/ tame inflation

question

Currently __ countries using the euro as its currency

answer

question

Why are some countries not using the euro as its currency?

answer

Nationalism

question

Europe's Big Bang comprised of what?

answer

10 eastern european nations joining the EU (2004) (Poland, Hungary, etc.), which created a Mega-Europe (450 million people and an economy worth $10 trillion)

question

Most outstanding differences between the old/new EU members?

answer

Their economies; old EU having 95% of continent's wealth (embracing the less wealthy)

question

True/False. After the big bang countries joined, the EU's average wealth per person rose by 13%.

answer

False; it fell

question

How are Europe's geopolitical issues?

answer

Their situation has changed more profoundly and violently in the past 100 years than any other world region.

question

Why is Europe's geopolitical issues so bad?

answer

2 world wars (lots of devastation; I and II), and then followed by the Cold War

question

What happened post-war Europe?

answer

European Union created, largest post-war supranational organization (federation similar to US_

question

The European Union member countries are united _____ the authority of any _____ national government and planned/ controlled by a ____ of ____

answer

beyond; single; group; nations

question

After the Cold War, what was formed?

answer

NATO (west European nations and US; a military alliance) and Warsaw Pact (Soviet Union/eastern satellites)

question

Cold War ended with what?

answer

collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991

question

Once the Cold War ended, the __ ____ was dissolved, ____ arsenals of the respective alliances were reduced and plans made to turn the path of the Iron Curtain into the European ________, a mosaic of national ____ and other protected areas

answer

Warsaw Pact; nuclear; Greenbelt; parks

question

NATO ____ today with a membership of 28 countries

answer

remains

question

What is Schengenland?

answer

EU would like to have a situation in which there are no (passport, visa, or other) control issues at any internal (land, sea, and airport) frontiers of its member countries

question

What Agreement seeks this integration for Schengenland?

answer

Schengen

question

Schengen Agreement allows for the __ ________ of people between nations that signed the agreement; member states exercise common visa, asylum, and other _____ at their external borders

answer

free circulation; policies

question

Why are truly open borders probably still far in the future? Name the 3 problems.

answer

1. Anti-immigrant fears 2. Cheap eastern labor 3. Terrorists

question

Differences between Europeans and Americans= -Concept of ____ ___ -Provision of and spending on ____ ______ -Taxes on ___ -Views on U.S "____ ______" (e.g., Hollywood films) -Allowance of questions of ______ into political debates -Acceptance of ___ ____ (outlawed in EU countries) Differences on the ____ front

answer

social justice; public education; gasoline; cultural industries; spirituality; death penalty; geopolitical

question

Countries of the European Core

answer

Great Britain, Ireland, France, Germany, smaller nations in British Isles, and Benelux

question

West central portions of European mainland=

answer

Benelux

question

Benelux=

answer

Belgium, Netherlands, Luxembourg

question

What is the European Periphery made up of?

answer

Northern, Southern, and Eastern Europe

question

Properties of the European Core= -Densest, most ___ _____ -Most prosperous ____ -Lowest ________ -Most productive ______ -Most conservative ______ -Greatest _________ ___ ______ and railroads -Highest levels of crowding, congestion, and ____

answer

urbanized population; economy; unemployment; agriculture; politics; concentration of highways; pollution

question

The European Core is 1 of only 4 world regions classified as a

answer

major cluster of continuous settlement

STUDY

Applied Sociology Interact With Others Internet Service Providers Likes And Dislikes Social Networking Site Using The Internet

CS 345 Module 4 – Flashcards 95 terms

Jill Lopez

95 terms

Preview

CS 345 Module 4 – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is true about online virtual worlds?

answer

Offensive behavior online can be mediated by administrators.

question

_____ built a virtual world model of its Salt Lake refinery for training new operators.

answer

Chevron

question

If the product fails to meet the terms of its written guarantee, the buyer or lessee can sue for _____.

answer

breach of warranty

question

The _____ is a term used to describe the gulf between those who do and those who don't have access to modern information and communications technology.

answer

digital divide

question

_____ typically involves the use of social networks to communicate and promote the benefits of products and services.

answer

Social network advertising

question

Organizations direct advertisements toward those members of a social network who would likely find a product most appealing by _____.

answer

using the information in their user profiles

question

Software suppliers frequently write _____ to attempt to limit their liability in the event of nonperformance.

answer

warranties

question

U.S. Representative _____ was forced to resign in 2011 after admitting he sent sexually explicit photos of himself to several women using social networks including Facebook and Twitter.

answer

Anthony Weiner

question

The contents of _____ are for informational purposes only and not intended to be substitutes for professional medical advice, diagnosis, or treatment.

answer

medical information Web sites

question

The National Center for Victims of Crime advises victims to _____.

answer

send the stalker a written notice that their contact is unwanted and that further contact should cease

question

The medical information Web sites are intended to be _____.

answer

sources of reliable and objective information on medical-related topics

question

The _____ is a low-cost laptop introduced by Intel and Lenovo designed for use in kindergarten through high school classrooms in developing countries.

answer

Classmate+

question

_____ can be oral, written, or inferred from the seller's conduct.

answer

Express warranties

question

______ is the country in Europe with the highest Internet penetration.

answer

Monaco

question

Which of the following is true of strategies for engineering quality software?

answer

The first release of any software rarely meets all its users' expectations.

question

Recent survey results show that _____ of teenagers have experienced cyberbullying in their lifetime.

answer

as many as 25 percent

question

The safety engineer uses a logging and monitoring system to track _____ from a project's start to its finish.

answer

hazards

question

One approach to quality assurance is to test the code for a completed unit of software by actually entering test data and comparing the results with the expected results in a process called _____.

answer

dynamic testing

question

Some industry observers identify the increasing use of _____ as an important first step in bridging the digital divide in many countries.

answer

cell phones

question

_____ are defined as a set of interrelated components that include hardware, software, databases, networks, people, and procedures that collect data, process it, and disseminate the output.

answer

Business information systems

question

The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act is intended to increase the use of health information technology by _____.

answer

saving the government $10 billion through improvements in the quality of care, care coordination,reductions in medical errors, and duplicate care

question

The _____ federal law protects children against online stalking by making it a federal crime to communicate with any person with the intent to solicit or entice a child into unlawful sexual activity.

answer

18 U.S.G. 2425

question

An advantage of teleworking is that_____.

answer

Business operations can be continued even in the event of disaster

question

The country with the lowest Internet penetration in Asia is _____.

answer

Myanmar

question

The PricewaterhouseCoopers LLP Health Research Institute estimated that a 500-bed hospital could receive _____ in HITECH incentives to purchase, deploy, and maintain an EHR system.

answer

$6.1 million

question

In the context of Capability Maturity Model Integration, process is ad hoc and chaotic; organization tends to overcommit and processes are often abandoned during times of crisis in the _____ maturity level.

answer

initial

question

_____ involves acquiring data, sound, images, and video from a patient and then transmitting everything to a medical specialist for later evaluation.

answer

Store-and-forward telemedicine

question

_____ enable patients to use the Internet to compare the quality, safety, and cost information on hospitals nationwide.

answer

Medical information Web sites

question

The medical information Web sites are indented to be ______.

answer

Software quality assurance

question

_____ requires the presence of patients and healthcare providers at different sites at the same time and often involves a videoconference link between the two sites.

answer

Live telemedicine

question

MySpace purged _____ sex offenders from its site over a period of two years.

answer

90,000

question

One common use of wireless technology in the healthcare field is to _____.

answer

provide a means to access and update EHRs

question

The full name of the E-rate program is______.

answer

Schools and Libraries Program of the Universal Service Fund

question

Products, such as statements of requirements, flowcharts, and user documentation, are known as _____.

answer

deliverables

question

Which of the following is true of the International Organization for Standardization?

answer

It is a worldwide federation of national standards bodies from 161 countries.

question

Remote monitoring is also known as____.

answer

Home monitoring

question

All of these technology failures constitutes a failure of a saftey critical system except:

answer

The Milliennium Bug (2000)

question

The Bureau of Labor Statistics tracks U.S. productivity on a(n) _____ basis.

answer

Quarterly

question

Unless organizations _____ social networks, their customers are left to resolve their issues and questions on their own, often in ways that are not ideal.

answer

Monitor

question

It can take ______ for IT investment to result in a significant increase in productivity.

answer

Five to seven years

question

Which of the following is true of software testing?

answer

Static testing involves software programs called static analyzers which are run against new code.

question

_____ is threating behavior or unwanted advances directed at an adult using the Internet or other forms of online and electronic communications.

answer

Cyberstalking

question

Oil companies are increasingly relying on _____ to connect a nurse or EMT on an oil platform to emergency physicians at a major medical center.

answer

live telemedicine

question

The popularity of social networking is increasing most rapidly _____.

answer

over all ages

question

Which of the following is true of strategies for engineering quality software?

answer

The first release of any software rarely meets all its users' expectations.

question

Employers can legally reject a job applicant based on the contents of the individual's social networking profile as long as the company is not violating federal or state ______ laws.

answer

Discrimination

question

In one lawsuit in the early ____, a financial institution became insolvent because defects in a purchased software application caused errors in several of its systems.

answer

1990s

question

A social networking Web site _____.

answer

can be used for nonbusiness purposes

question

The _____ is a term used to describe the gulf between those who do and those who don't have access to modern information and communications technology.

answer

digital divide

question

Hotmail created what is recognized by many as the most successful _____ campaigns ever when it first launched its service in 1996.

answer

viral marketing

question

_____ is the possibility of an undesirable event occurring times the probability that the event would go undetected times the magnitude of the event's consequence's if it does happen.

answer

Risk

question

Compared to personal computers, cell phones _____.

answer

Come with an extended battery life

question

_____ created its own social networking Web site, IdeaStorm, as a means for its millions of customers around the world to talk about new products, services, or improvements they would like.

answer

Dell

question

The _____ is a small, inexpensive computer with either 256 MB or 512 MB of RAM, a 700 MHz processor, one or two USB ports, and an Ethernet port—but no case and no monitor.

answer

Raspberry Pi

question

_____ is a work arrangement in which an employee works away from the office.

answer

Telecommuting

question

Which safety critical system failures resulted in 5 incorrect reportings of missle firings?

answer

Soviet Early Warning System Failure (1983)

question

Which of the following factors has increased the prevalence of telework?

answer

Highly trained workers demanding flexible work arrangements

question

A complex system used in IT is a redundant array of independent disks (RAID), which is commonly used in _____ for file servers.

answer

high-volume data storage

question

Software quality is defined as the degree to which a software product meets:

answer

the needs of its users.

question

When school authorities do get involved in an effort to discipline students for cyberbullying, they are sometimes sued for violating the student's right to free speech, especially if the activity _____.

answer

occurred off school premises

question

_____ is common in airplane and spacecraft control systems.

answer

Triple version programming

question

_____ helps physicians keep tabs on patients prone to life-threatening health crises.

answer

Remote monitoring

question

The _____ regards it as a federal crime to enter a social networking site in violation of the terms of service.

answer

Department of Justice

question

_____ is an important technique used to develop ISO 9001-compliant quality systems.

answer

Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)

question

_____ means that the defendant is held responsible for injuring another person, regardless of negligence or intent.

answer

Strict liability

question

A majority if social shopping Web sites generate revenue through.

answer

Retailer advertising

question

One of the fundamental ways in which companies can try directly to increase productivity is by _____.

answer

consolidating operations to better leverage economies of scale

question

The primary reason someone "friends" a brand on Facebook is to _____.

answer

to access exclusive deals or offers

question

About _____ of materiel is being uploaded to youtube every minute making it difficult to review all materiel submitted for posting.

answer

100 hours

question

A(n) _____ is a representation of a virtual world visitor.

answer

Avatar

question

In the context of development of safety critical systems, if an undesirable event has one percent probability of occurring, a 25 percent chance of going undetected, and a potential cost of

answer

$2500

question

_____ typically involves the use of social networks to communicate and promote the benefits of products and services.

answer

Social network advertising

question

The _____ program in Nepal started in 2008 as a small pilot project in two schools.

answer

OLPC

question

The _____ is a low-cost computer that runs a Linux- based operating system and comes with a suite of 300 or so learning applications called sugar.

answer

OLPC XO-4

question

Most social networking Web sites have terms of use agreement that states the Web site has the right to____.

answer

Delete material that violates the site's policies

question

_____ is a social networking site where entrepreneurs and small-business people collaborate to help each other succeed.

answer

Biznik

question

_____ refers to methods within the development cycle that guarantee reliable operation of the product.

answer

Software quality assurance

question

After an organization decides to adopt _____, it must conduct an assessment of its software development practices to determine where they fit in the capability model.

answer

CMMI-DEV

question

_____ is a social shopping Web site that implemented a reward system for members in which they are paid a commission each time another shopper acts on their recommendations to purchase a specific item.

answer

Stuffpit

question

It is difficult to quantify how much the use of IT has contributed to worker productivity because _____.

answer

many other factors influence worker productivity rates besides IT

question

A saftey critical system is one whose failure may cause all of the following except:

answer

Financial Hardship

question

An electronic health record includes _____.

answer

a patient's immunization records

question

While using social networks as part of the hiring process, employers can _____.

answer

look at the profiles of potential candidates

question

In the context of the Capability Maturity Model Integration maturity levels, the percentage of organizations at the managed maturity level is _____.

answer

22.1

question

Organizations direct advertisements towards those members of a social network who would likely find a product most appealing by _____.

answer

Using the information in their user profiles

question

When sued for _____, a software supplier is not held responsible for every product defect that causes customer or third-party loss.

answer

Negligence

question

A type of business system is the _____, which is used to develop accurate forecasts of customer demand, recommend stocks and bonds for an investment portfolio.

answer

decision support system

question

A _____ is a standard, proven work process that enables those involved to make controlled and orderly progress in developing high-quality software.

answer

software development methodology

question

The _____ standard serves many industries and organizations as a guide to quality products, services, and management.

answer

ISO 9001

question

In 2006, _____ introduced a low-cost laptop called the Classmate PC.

answer

Intel

question

_____ is the most popular social network destination worldwide.

answer

Facebook

question

_____ involves viewing the software unit as a device that has expected input and output behaviors but whose internal workings are unknown.

answer

Black-box testing

question

Process-control computers enable the process to be monitored for variations from operating standards and to eliminate product defects before they affect product _____.

answer

quality

question

_____ involves placing banner ads on a social networking Web site.

answer

Direct advertising

question

N-version programming is an approach to minimizing the impact of software errors by independently implementing the same set of user requirements _____ times, where N could be 2, 3, 4, or more.

answer

STUDY

AP Comparative Government And Politics Applied Sociology Comparative Politics Law And Order Political Science United States Us Constitution

GPI Ch 2 – Flashcard 31 terms

Kenneth McQuaid

31 terms

Preview

GPI Ch 2 – Flashcard

question

an organization that maintains a monopoly of violence over a territory

answer

Political scientists, based on the work of Max Weber, define the state as:

question

states to carry out actions or policies independent of outside actors or internal rivals.

answer

Sovereignty is defined as the ability of:

question

the basic rules and norms of politics

answer

Regimes are defined as:

question

the leadership in charge of running the state.

answer

Government can be defined as

question

country

answer

The shorthand term for the combination of regime, state, and government is:

question

domesticated agriculture and sedentary living

answer

The first emergence of human specialization into inequality is tied to

question

pre-state societies were very violent.

answer

Recent research suggests that the rise of political organizations came about because:

question

Europe

answer

Where did the modern state first emerge?

question

legitimate

answer

An institution that is recognized and accepted as right and proper is seen as:

question

traditional, charismatic, and rational legal.

answer

Which of the following are named in the text as a basic form of political legitimacy?

question

habits and customs

answer

Traditional legitimacy rests on

question

territorial divisions are not very important within a country

answer

A unitary state can be defined as a system wherein

question

significant powers are devolved to regional bodies.

answer

Federalism can be defined as a system wherein:

question

autonomy; capacity

answer

State power is often analyzed in terms of _______ and ________.

question

high capacity but low autonomy

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The United States is often seen as having

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wield power independent of the public

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State autonomy can be defined as the ability to

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protection racket

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The state is often compared in many ways to a:

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sovereignty

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The army and police both are part of a country's

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written and unwritten elements

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Regimes are comprised of both

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governments

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Which of the following is seen as weakly institutionalized?

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The past few centuries

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States have been the dominant for of political organization for how long?

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developed through coercion or consensus

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One major debate on the origins of political organization deals with whether early political groups

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The collapse of the Roman Empire

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The emergence of the modern state is closely tied to what specific event?

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constant warfare during the dark ages

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The development of the modern state in Europe was encouraged by

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greater religious commitment to democracy

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In comparison to earlier forms of poltical organization, states often enjoyed all of the following advantages EXCEPT

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rational legitimacy

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Modern states are built primarily on what form of legitimacy

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traditional legitimacy

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The text suggests that the difficulty in amending the US Constitution is evidence of the power of

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send power down to the local level

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Devolution is a process by which states

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failed

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A state with an extremely low level of autonomy and capacity is known as a ________ state

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fulfill basic tasks

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Strong states:

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ability to wield power in order to carry out basic tasks.

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State Capacity can be defined as the

STUDY

Applied Sociology Introductory Sociology Mothers Against Drunk Driving Sociology

SOCIOLOGY CHAPTER 14 Capitalism and Economy – Flashcards 39 terms

Carmen Dawson

39 terms

Preview

SOCIOLOGY CHAPTER 14 Capitalism and Economy – Flashcards

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The CREATIVE CLASS is a category of workers in multiple occupations and industries united by the fact that creativity is central to their productive work. It is in high demand by companies and, as an extension, by cities and towns, which go to great efforts to attract them.

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Define the CREATIVE CLASS and describe its impact on the job market and on cities and towns that want to attract members of this new class.

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American workers are more productive than ever, yet job insecurity is high. As a result, many people are working longer hours, especially people at higher income levels, in order to prove loyalty or achieve marginal benefits.

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Explain the relationship between job insecurity and hours worked as it plays out in the American workforce.

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THE FEUDAL SYSTEM, which preceded capitalism in Europe, began to change as early as the fifteenth century with the ENCLOSURE MOVEMENT, which forced people off what had been public land and sent them looking for work in cities.

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Describe the various factors that contributed to the demise of FEUDALISM and laid the foundation for industrial capitalism.

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Beginning in the eighteenth century, NEW FARMING TECHNOLOGIES led to an agricultural revolution that helped increase the population and the value of land, and INNOVATIONS IN MANUFACTURING AND TRANSPORTATION TECHNOLOGY CREATED a demand for this larger labor pool to fill new jobs. Also connected to industrialization was the transition from barter to the use of a legal currency to buy and sell goods and from agreements between individuals to contracts between corporations. ***New farming technologies during the agricultural revolution lowered the amount of labor needed per acre, which resulted in a surplus of peasant labor. This was one of several factors that led to the development of capitalism (p. 540).

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Explain the importance of monetization, the corporation, and limited liability to the ***DEVELOPMENT OF CAPITALISM.

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ADAM SMITH argued that: -Competition, helps maintain a cohesive society. ***The idea that competition, not conflict, helps maintain social cohesion was put forward by Adam Smith. -Specialization increases productivity and innovation. _ The use of money, as opposed to barter, makes trading more efficient. ***Adam Smith proposed that specialization, as well as the use of money instead of barter, led to greater efficiency, which produces greater wealth. In this case, you should strive for more efficient exchanges (p. 542).***The idea that competition, not conflict, helps maintain social cohesion was put forward by Adam Smith.

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Summarize ADAM SMITH'S ARGUMENTS about the role of self-interest, competition, specialization, trade, and monetization in maintaining a cohesive society.

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GEORG SIMMEL -Saw the evolution of monetary payment systems—from piecework payment to wage labor to salaried work—as a force to depersonalize exchange. -Moreover, he felt this was a positive change that helped create separate public and private spheres and gave workers more freedom to enjoy the private, or leisure, sphere. **Under a salary system, workers are paid for the sum total of their services rather than for direct service. As Georg Simmel noted, it differs from a civil service salary, in which payment is not tied to the productive value of the worker but rather to the appropriate standard of living based on experience and credentials (p. 544).

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Summarize GEORG SIMMEL'S view that the evolution of monetary payment systems from piecework payment to a yearly salary has ultimately given workers more freedom.

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KARL MARX argued that capitalism created alienation in workers— -Alienation from the products they produced. -Alienation from the production process. -Alienation from one another. -Alienation from themselves and their creative tendencies. ***Marx predicted both that capitalism would ultimately destroy itself and that the working class would rise against the capitalist class, leading to a period first of socialism and then communism. ***As you will learn, alienation is a condition in which people are dominated by forces of their own creation that then confront them as alien powers. Karl Marx argued that workers in a capitalist economy are alienated from the product they produce because the production process is apportioned among several people.

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Describe the four forms of alienation that exist in the capitalist system, according to KARL MARX, and how Marx predicted that capitalism would ultimately be transformed.

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MAX WEBER -linked the rise of capitalism to technology and ideas, specifically ideas and beliefs connected to the Protestant Reformation. -Weber ultimately saw capitalism in a negative light, not because he thought it caused alienation as Marx did, but because he thought people became obsessed with working and making money that they could never enjoy. ***Max Weber believed that IDEAS generate social change. For example, he theorized that the Protestant Reformation created the necessary social conditions for capitalism by instilling a doctrine of predestination (p. 548).

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Explain how MAX WEBER'S NEGATIVE view of capitalism differed from Karl Marx's.

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The FORD MOTOR COMPANY'S idea of the family wage was based on a very limited definition of family. ***It favored married men with children over single men or married men without children, and it reinforced the notion that women should not work. ***The family wage impelled women to stay married, even if their marriages were unhappy or oppressive. Today, the gender bias built into the family wage persists (p. 551).

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Explain the significance of HENRY FORD'S FAMILY WAGE and how it is connected to gender inequality.

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-The fact that women have often been paid less than men has served to deter them from seeing work as a lifelong choice. -The wage structure was one factor that made women see marriage as the only way to have -financial security -Studies show that working mothers are less depressed and have higher self-esteem than mothers who do not work, yet they are also more likely to feel tired and anxious and to have higher divorce rates.

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Explain how UNEQUAL PAY has adversely AFFECTED WOMEN'S LIFE CHOICES.

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Compared to people in many other industrialized countries and some developing countries, Americans work longer hours and have fewer vacation benefits and less generous family-leave policies. Which suggests that work is central in the lives of Americans.

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Compare work hours, vacation benefits, and FAMILY LEAVE POLICIES in the United States with other industrialized countries.

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While more American companies are offering family-friendly policies such as flextime and "flexspace," employees are not necessarily taking advantage of them in great numbers.

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Describe proposed theories for why Americans don't always take advantage of family-friendly policies offered in the workplace.

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While GLOBALIZATION is not a new phenomenon, the current period of globalization has a number of new elements, and it has clearly demarcated the division between the world's rich and poor. The question is whether globalization can truly be a force to close that gap or if it serves only to widen it. *** In this era of globalization, trade agreements are multilateral. This means that they are the result of negotiations among multiple players and that they enforce rights, impose sanctions, or encourage business at a regional or worldwide level. You will learn more about globalization in the chapter.

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Define GLOBALIZATION and understand how the current period of globalization differs from previous ones.

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A CORPORATION is a juristic person—an entity that has all the legal rights, duties, and responsibilities of a person—although their primary goal is the pursuit of profit.

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Describe THE ROLE OF CORPORATIONS in the world economy and the legal connection between the corporation and the idea of an individual.

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The overriding objective of corporations is to make profits for their shareholders, and in order to do this they must find ways to beat the competition. Sometimes these efforts lead corporations to cross the line of legality or at least to come close to crossing it.

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Explain the different ways that CORPORATIONS TRY TO BEAT THEIR COMPETITION.

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There is constant tension for corporations in terms of pressures to be profitable and pressures to be environmentally responsible, which can add to overall costs..

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Describe the tension that exists between environmental policies and corporate goals for profitability.

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Employees also exert pressure on corporations, in the form of asking for better wages, benefits, and working conditions, all of which add to a corporation's costs and make it less profitable. But not providing these things may also have a negative cost in terms of loss of workers, strikes, or lower productivity.

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Explain how consumers can influence a company's labor policies.

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***Unionization rates have declined in the United States since the 1950s. But, according to several studies, workers today want to be part of a union more than ever (p. 565). ***One key concern about unionization is MANAGEMENT HOSTILITY TOWARD COLLECTIVE ACTION, which could result in tense working conditions. Another concern involves job loss, especially with the increasing ability for companies to move over seas (p. 567).

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Describe possible explanations for declining UNION MEMBERSHIP IN THE UNITED STATES.

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There has been a lot of concern in the United States about job loss due to offshoring (when a company moves operations overseas to cut costs) and due to the presence of illegal immigrants, who are often paid less than a U.S. citizen would be. Some people argue that illegal immigrants have an important role in the economy, not taking jobs from Americans but rather doing jobs that Americans won't do. Others argue that illegal immigrants are ultimately a drain on social services and should be deported with no option for getting legal working papers or citizenship.

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Describe some of the tensions and paradoxes that exist in debates over immigration policy in the United States.

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***CAPITALISM

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***Economic system in which: - property and goods are primarily owned privately; - investments are determined by private decisions; - and prices, production, and the distribution of goods are determined primarily by competition in an unfettered marketplace.

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***FEUDALISM

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Precapitalist economic system characterized by the presence of lords, vassals, serfs, and fiefs. ***Before capitalism in Europe, the dominant economic system was feudalism. Feudalism was characterized by lords who owned the land, vassals who managed the land and offered military protection, and serfs who worked the land (p. 539).

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AGRICULTURAL REVOLUTION

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The period around 1700 marked by the introduction of new farming technologies that increased food output in farm production.

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CORPORATION

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A legal entity unto itself that has a legal personhood distinct from that of its members, namely, its owners and shareholders.

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ALIENATION

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A condition in which people are dominated by forces of their own creation that then confront them as alien powers; according to Marx, the basic state of being in a capitalist society.

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***SOCIALISM

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An economic system in which most or all the needs of the population are met through nonmarket methods of distribution.

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COMMUNISM

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A political ideology of a classless society in which the means of production are shared through state ownership and in which rewards are tied not to productivity but to need.

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FAMILY WAGE

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A wage paid to male workers sufficient to support a dependent wife and children.

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SERVICE SECTOR

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*** is a section of the economy that involves providing intangible services (p. 557). EXAMPLE: CLEANING SOMEONES HOME

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***CHAMPAGNE- GLASS DISTRIBUTION

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***The unequal, global distribution of income, so named for its shape.

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MONOPOLY

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The form of business that occurs when one seller of a good or service dominates the market to the exclusion of others, potentially leading to zero competition.

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OLIGOPOLY

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The condition when a handful of firms effectively control a particular market.

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OFFSHORING

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A business decision to move all or part of a company's operations abroad to minimize costs.

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UNION

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An organization of workers designed to facilitate collective bargaining with employers.

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UNION BUSTING

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a company's assault on its workers' union with the hope of dissolving it.

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***LIMITED LIABILITY

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is a form of ownership that creates a division between the individual shareholder or executive and the business entity. It is a legal way to protect investors (p. 541).

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***NITSAN CHOREV

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*** According to _______ _________, cheap labor often gives developing countries an advantage. Thus, these countries tend to resist trade negotiations that include agreements that protect labor (p. 560).

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***POLITICAL ARBITRAGE

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***Is the use of insider political knowledge to earn profits (p. 563).

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MILTON FRIEDMAN

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***________ ________ said, "There is one and only one social responsibility of business—to use its resources and engage in activities designed to increase its profits so long as it stays within the rules of the game, which is to say, engages in open and free competition without deception or fraud" (Friedman, 1970) (p. 562).

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DECLINED, MORE

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Unionization rates in the United States have ________ over the past 60 years, and recent studies show that ________ workers are interested in being part of a collective bargaining agreement.

STUDY

Applied Sociology Central And Eastern Europe Collective Decision Making Comparative Politics Countries In Europe First Past The Post Politics of the United States Social Welfare Policy

Politics in Europe revision – Flashcards 17 terms

Jason Westley

17 terms

Preview

Politics in Europe revision – Flashcards

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- Europe: not only continent, but an idea and identity - Changing economically, demographically and sociologically helps structure cleavages - Cleavages: splits or divisions in a society that give rise to conflicts that may well be expressed in political form, often via the formation of opposing parties representing people on either side of the split Globalisation: - Contested term - Popular definitions agree that it is a process of worldwide interconnectedness, whether it be political, economic, technological, etc. People into empires: - Ethnicities scattered: Germanics, Greeks, Slavs, Celts, etc. - Athens, power in Europe, until wars and domination by Alexander the Great. Then controlled by the Romans, who imposed Latin and transportation of people (North Africa and Middle East) - Destruction of western part of Roman Empire by Franks, Visogoths and Vandals. - Roman Catholic Church took power under the Pope, and established the Holy Roman Empire under Charlemagne. Empires into nations: - Holy Roman Empire: Loose empire, divided when Vikings settled in Northern France and produced William of Normandy - Feudal system established as territories were dominated by different groups - Increased wealth, Christian Crusades in the Holy Land took place as well as exploration of new continents - Protestantism develops, but certain regions resist it (Spain + Portugal) - Rivalry between England and Spain, but Spain is defeated and the empire declines Nation into states: - Religious rivalry not only at international level but also intranational - Example of Hungary, fighting Islamic influence from Ottoman Empire, and Habsburg intervention to establish Roman Catholicism - These struggles led to the Thirty Years' War (1618-1648) - Scandinavian countries in armed conflict with kings and princes of central and western Europe - France emerged as a centralised state with bureaucracy and a military maintained to fight wars. - Countries copied this model, and balance of power was achieved - Emergence of republic-monarchies, French revolution 1789 - Emergence of Napoleon, centralised nation and aggressive military campaign - Defeated by Prussia and Britain in Russia and in Waterloo in Belgium - Emergence of nationalism and liberalism, unification of Italy and Germany Balance of power: Equilibrium existing between states when resources are sufficiently evenly distributed to ensure that no single state can dominate the others States into blocs: - Germany overseas expansion, European alliances emerged and led to WWI - Russian revolution and pulled out of the war - Germany and Austria-Hungary starved into signing armistice - Europe literally redrawn - Emergence of new states - Success of fascist dictators - Nazi-Soviet pact and start of WW2 - American involvement in 1941 after Pearl Harbour - Japanese surrender through nuclear means - Soviet presence in Europe after WW2 - USA became anti-communist and economic and military involvement in Europe - Division of Germany - Threat of communism, US efforts to secure a peaceful western Europe led to ECSC and eventually the EEC. Now the European Union - Improved relations between east and west, anticolonialism - Nevertheless, liberalism and freedom not granted by Soviet Union Fascism in Europe: Characterised by its opposition to communism, though often with anti-minority aspects The new Europe: - Collapse of the Soviet Union after Gorbachev and his glasnost and perestroika policies - Overthrow of communist dictatorship, fall of Berlin Wall -. Yeltsin attempt to hold on to Russian regional power but could not - Baltic states joined the EU and NATO - Europe now more united

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European Politics (Bale - Chapter 1) 1/2

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Europe's economy - rich in variation: - Natural resources are plentiful in Europe - Self sufficient in agriculture, but in north, dairy and meat predominate, in south, citrus, olives and grapes predominate, and in the east, the more cereal and other arable crops there are - German economy is biggest in Europe, largest GDP. Economy size correlated with population? - GDP per capita, better estimate, shows the lower living standards in eastern Europe - Former communist countries took time to join EU Regions: - German example, very wealthy and very poor regions - Wealth of regions previously correlated with industrialisation, but economy is now more service centred Postindustrialism?: - Most wealthy European states can be labelled postindustrial: service sector thrives - 69% of EU population employed in services - Lest we forget that most service jobs are low-status and low-paid. Transition: - Eastern Europe not yet postindustrial. - Still industrial, and regions focusing on primary sector are at a disadvantage - Though advancements have been made, transition of economies of post-communist Europe will not be overnight. - Most have chosen privatisation of state sectors, and some have taken other strategies, such as with currency - Still issues with unemployment - Slovenia, part of Yugoslav state, best economy of former communist countries. First to join Eurozone. Globalisation and/or Europeanisation?: - Lot of pessimistic claims that Europe is doomed to lose jobs to NIC's - But the evidence shows that unlike the US, this isn+t the case National and patterned variation: - Europeanisation does not mean uniformity - History matters in economics - Most economies in Europe are mixed economies - Economies are grouped as 'liberal', 'coordinated' or 'hybrids' - Also variation in welfare states - Social democratic: Extensive high quality services open to all irrespective of income, transfer payments to those too old or unable to work (Scandinavia) - Liberal: Basic services, many available only via means testing, limited transfer payments, safety net for the poor (UK) - Conservative, corporatist: Insurance based welfare schemes, many of which are administered by unions and employers, traditional family structures - It is possible to switch welfare states or get a hybrid Whatever happened to 'the classless society'?: - Some European countries still divided into classes, though these are different in every country - Manual working class the biggest in Europe - Growth of the middle class has not been accompanied by greater equality in wages, as often shift to service sectors are low paid - Classless society not arrived yet - Gender gap has been closed a great deal, but education still influences class - Correlation between richness and equality of a country Women - working but not yet winning?: - Influence of religion upon involvement of women in workforce - In Scandinavia, better conditions, but only when government becomes involved. Otherwise not - Influence of patterns of work: part time? - Attempts to achieve cultural change through politics: more women in cabinets In theory if not in practice - religion in Europe: - Religion still influential in some aspects of society, i.e: abortion laws - Yet, more secularisation in Europe Composition and identity: multi-ethnic, multi-national - and European?: - Individual self-identification now includes some sort of national or ethnic element - Multiple identities also present - Some nations feel more 'European' than others - Emergence of mass European identity? Overall: - Keep in mind differences between European nations while exploring Europe

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European Politics (Bale - Chapter 1) 2/2

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Introduction: Why member states matter: - Three agendas of studying European integration - First phase, dominated by international relations theories, neo-functionalism and intergovernmentalism. Largely ignored the state - Second phase, understanding the EU as a political system, use of comparative politics and understanding the EU as a polity (governance turn) - Third phase, 1990's onwards, focus on the state, intertwined with IR debates and political science - What is meant by 'member state'?: All political actors and institutions within a member state, not simply national governments - How and why do member states matter to understanding the EU?: They are key players in decision making and in the architecture of the EU. Local governments also matter in implementing EU policy. - How do member states matter in the real world of the EU?: First, the state of the European Union is interactive with the union in solutions. Second, in terms of territoriality, the state represents legitimacy, democracy and identity. The EU has made the state more permeable. Softer boundaries as well as para-public agencies. Third, member states are key players in the politics of the EU. Territorial-based interests projected upwards. Fourth, the EU is a relevant force in domestic politics. - Dynamic interaction of member states and the EU is important in a number of specific ways: National government and other actors devise ways of making effective inputs and EU business into the political process at the supranational level. EU created changing opportunity structures, though these can be limiting at times. Should the logic of political action in Brussels prevail, or that of the state? Are the EU institutions the agents of national governments? Intergovernmentalism: the member state at the centre of EU bargaining - Hoffman: - EU is seen as venture in cooperation among states, which are rational actors - Due to influence of greater economic interdependence, the EU is a form of 'international regime' - Doesn't weaken traditional state, but strengthens it. - Creation of a regime doesn't lead to the creation of others by spillover effect. - Then, Milward: - Member states don't renounce part of their sovereignty in creating common EU institutions - Revival of intergovernmentalism, Garrett: - European integration is for each state to maximise gains. - Liberal intergovernmentalism, Moravcsik: - The state is a rational actor in Europe - Power in the EU is the result of bargaining among states - Liberal theory explains the formation of national preferences - Criticisms: First, focusing on national governments neglects the internal diversity. Second, in assuming that only large states exercise power, the decision making process is simplified. Third, they see institutions as puppets of member states, though these institutions are able to express their own ideas and interests. Lastly, interests not only advanced through governments. Institutionalism and member state-EU relations: - Institutions are more than the reflections of underlying social forces - Institutions do more than produce a neutral arena for political interaction - Three variants: - Rational choice Institutionalism: Application of liberal intergovernmentalism to institutions. Institutions as agents to reduce the transaction costs in the functioning - Sociological institutionalism: Sociology of institutions. Did they depart from the interests of nations to its individual interests? Issues of identity and culture. - Historical institutionalism: Alert of the role in time, politics seen as a path dependent process with unforeseen consequences and critical situations, Institutions should be considered as structures capable of integrating experiences and norms over the course of time. - All offer insights into the way in which member states interact with the EU - Emergence of federal analysis Governance approaches and member state-EU relations: - Governance - Exploration of policy networks - Plurality - Relationships between European integration and democracy Towards a domestic politics of the EU?: - More light on the member states, underexplored research area. - Impossible to understand EU politics without considering the domestic politics. - Need to keep in mind of the variations of the 27 states - EU's impact on member states Analysing Europeanisation: - Europeanisation: impact of integration upon member states - Also, three propositions: - It strengthens the state (Moravcisk) - It creates a new multi-level politics (Sandholtz) - EU has transformed governance (Kohler-Koch) - These are 'precursors to the literature' of Europeanisation Origins: - Attributed to greater integration in the 1980's (Single European Act) - Enhanced by Maastricht - Enlargements of the EU (member states) Usages: - 5 Areas of Europeanisation: (Olsen) - Changes in external boundaries - Developing institutions at the European level - Central penetration of national systems of governance - Exporting forms of political organisation - Political unification project - Focus: Consequences of integration - Featherstone: Comparing and contrasting understandings of Europeanisation - Flockhart: Historical sociology of the process - Classification of impact of Europeanisation: three fold - Polity: institutions and patterns of governance - Policy - Politics: parties, public opinion, identity, etc. Concept: - One needs to make it clear how Europeanisation is used - European integration: concerned with political and policy development at the supranational level - Europeanisation: concerned with the consequences of this process for member states as well as non member states who are targets of EU policy - Definition remains contested - Significance of discourse - In France, Europeanisation seen as force resisting globalisation, and in the UK, seen as a force facilitating it Theory: - No theory of Europeanisation - Different schools affect the study of Europeanisation, i.e: neo-functionalism, new institutionalism - Each theory places more emphasis on different actors. New institutionalism places emphasis on institutions for example Methodological issues: - Clashes about methodology have led to increased attention to research design - Research design should test whether Europeanisation can be identified as the cause of domestic change - Differing models are due to varying research traditions Directionality: - Europeanisation: Circular rather than undirectional because of the bottom up nature of EU - Horizontal vs vertical? - Horizontal: transfer of concepts and policies between member states under circumstances where the EU has not played a legislative role - Vertical: EU's effect on public policy to impact on structures of governance - Research agenda reaching end of the road because pace of integration has slackened and enlargement has become a less important topic

answer

The European Union and its Member states (Bulmer & Lequesne - Overview)

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Introduction: - The system of government in any modern democracy has: legislature, executive, judiciary and head of state - Legislature enacts laws - Executive runs the country - Judiciary adjudicates disputes between individuals and other legal entities - Head of state in charge - Executive is ultimate source of political power and decision-making capacity in modern democracies - Other organs of government, create system of checks and balances on the executive Separation or fusion of powers?: - Most important difference between constitutions: separation or fusion of powers between legislature and executive - This is owed to the distinction between presidential and parliamentary government systems Separation of powers regimes: - In separation of powers regimes there is a clear separation between legislature and the executive - Chief executive in this regime typically elected by the people and called a president - President elects cabinet of people responsible for particular policy areas and government depts. - Executive cannot dismiss the legislative and vice versa. - H/e, the legislature has not direct power to force the executive to do anything - Example: US - Senate approves members of cabinet Fusion of powers regimes: - Parliamentary governments: executive is constitutionally responsive to the legislature - Executive must retain the confidence of the legislature - Executive must resign if it loses a legislative motion of no confidence - Executive not directly elected by the people but indirectly by an elected parliament - Parliaments can also dismiss prime minister and cabinet - Also in power of prime minister to dismiss the legislature and force new legislative elections Splitting the difference? 'Semi-presidentialism': - President directly elected by the people who has exclusive right to nominate prime minister - May also dissolve the national assembly to call new elections - However, also a prime minister and cabinet with full responsibility for government policy, and who must maintain support in a directly elected legislature. - Legislature can dismiss the prime minister - No one can dismiss the president - Possible dispute between president and prime minister if from different parties Parliamentary government in modern Europe - Cycle: - One starts with an incumbent government, and one then asks if an election is legally required of PM seeks dissolution? If yes, dissolution of legislature and fresh elections. If no, incumbent government stays. If a majority of legislators do indeed still prefer the incumbent government, then the cycle repeats. But if a majority of legislators now want alternative executive, then they have constitutional authority to remove the incumbent and install preferred alternative. Other possibility is that the legislature is dissolved and there is an election for a new legislature The prime minister: chief executive: - Chief executive or head of government in modern European democracies: Prime ministers, thought in Austria and Germany, chancellors - Head of one of the main legislative parties. - Controls both the legislature and executive - In Britain: One party wins an overall majority of seats, Prime Minister is leader of the single party that controls the legislature, and at the same time, is also chief executive of the country. Chief executive, ability to control a legislative majority and party leader all under one person. Only real threat: within the party. - If a newly elected legislative isn't controlled by prime minister, then prime minister has lost the election. - If citizens want to change their chief executive, they do so by voting in legislative elections - Prime minister has formal power to hire and fire cabinet ministers - Legal right to dissolve the legislature and call an early election - Access to information about every branch of government - Methods of disposal: - First: legislative election, opposition can push prime minister to early election - Second: Change in majority coalition of legislators that keeps the government in office (vote of no confidence) - Third: from inside the party, loss of leadership - Overall: although primeministers can be powerful, their positions can be snatched from them suddenly The cabinet: - Prime minister and the cabinet: the government of the country - Cabinet comprises a set of ministers - Each minister has two roles: - Individual head of a government department - Member of cabinet that makes or approves important political decisions as a collective entity. - Cabinet member generally in charge of a government department. They have individual ministerial responsibility - H/e, most refuse to resign in response to problems in their dept., only resign in major catastrophes. - Collective cabinet responsibility - when cabinet makes a decision all are collectively responsible. - Cabinet confidentiality - might undermine the cabinet as a whole - No vetos in cabinet, but a minister can threaten to resign if a decision is made - Realistic way in which a fully specific and implementable policy proposal can be put to the cabinet for decision is for this to be developed within one or more government departments - Minister of dept. presents the proposal - Ministers may have little knowledge about other ministers' depts. Junior ministers: - Not members of the cabinet - Appointed to head subsections of the major depts of state - Appointed by prime ministers The head of state: - The president. Different roles depending on country - Often few constitutional powers - Some weaker than others. Strongest in France - Mostly weak constitutional role Monarchs: - Countries without president has monarchs as heads of state - Ceremonial role, but may vary between countries.

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Representative Government in Modern Europe (Gallagher - Chapter 2)

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Parliaments and governments: - How much power to parliaments have in relations to governments? Wrong question in Europe. - Government elected by parliament and can be ousted from office by it. Parliament wields power through the government that it has elected - Significance of the party - When talking about parliament we are talking about interaction of a small number of political party groups - MPs directed by party - Parliament dominated by party groups - Any constraints imposed by parliament on government come not from a monolithic body but from one of possible sources: - One, rules that allow opposition to block or defeat government plans - Second, political cultural constraints that inhibit the government from railroading its proposals through in the face of strong objections from the opposition - Third, government might not have majority support in parliament in the first place - Government may receive only conditional support from its own MPs - King: Suggested that parliament could be better analysed in terms of a number of modes in which key players interact: - Interparty mode: relations between different actors in parliament and government are determined by their affiliations - Crossparty mode: ministers and MPs combine to interact on the basis of cross-party interests - Non-party mode: government and parliament interact without regard to party. (Corresponds to the traditional model that sees parliament and government as separate) - Lijphart: Two categories of democratic regime. Westminster majoritarian model vs consensus model - Majoritarian system: government of the day has an assured majority among MPs and can rely on getting all of its legislation through virtually unscathed. Cabinet dictatorship. Role of opposition to criticise the government rather than to influence it. - Consensus model: Finding broad consensus in parliament if possible rather than on merely imposing the will of the parliamentary majority. Cabinets tend to have a genuine give and take relationship with parliament. - Problems with using variations in parliamentary rules to explain variations in power: On paper, the rules may imply that a parliament wields much more power than it actually does, and that it is questionable how far differences in rules can explain anything - Therefore: in Lijphart's majoritarian model, all relationships between gvts and parliaments take place in the interparty mode. In consensus model, greater non-party or cross-party mode. The roles of parliaments: 1. Appointing and dismissing governments: Votes of no confidence 2. Parliaments and law-making: in parliamentary systems, governments can expect to see the great majority of their proposals accepted by parliament. Mostly initiated by government. Great variation in all European parliaments. - In parliaments in majoritarian systems, the government tends to control the parliamentary agenda, whereas in consensual systems the agenda is decided either by agreement among the party groups or by the president of parliament after consultation with the party groups. - In consensual parliaments the most important work is done in committees, whereas in parliaments in majoritarian systems the floor of the chamber is the main arena - In consensual parliaments, bills typically go to committees before they are debated by the full parliaments 3. Parliaments and law-making in majoritarian countries: Government dominated parliaments. Greece, Britain, France and Ireland. Example of Britain, party not in power gets more power than those in other countries. Seek to criticise. Interparty mode. 4. Parliaments and law-making in consensus countries: Austria, Germany, Scandinavia. negotiation and compromise. Cross party mode. Example of Scandinavia, government little power in determining the agenda. 5. Parliaments and oversight of government: All parliaments see themselves as having the role of overseeing the work of the government. Use of 'question time', extracting information from the government. Interpelaation. Question time but with debate. Use of committees set up to monitor government depts. These committees can be strong when they are small and numerous. If they are big, interest groups seek to colonise them. Parliaments and parties: - Problem with assessing arguments about the dominations of parliament by political parties or by government is that it is difficult to try to measure the power of any parliament - PPG unity means that the leaders of these parties are far more important people, politically, than the typical rank and file member of parliament - Most MPs forced to vote along party lines, and most do so out of loyalty - People vote for parties rather than for candidates, and MPs see themselves as members of their party's parliamentary groups. Voters vote for parties: - In Europe, not voting for candidates but parties - When people vote, they are helping to choose a government - Party ticket voting - Size of politician's personal vote is much less in Europe because the fate of European candidates is determined way more by national political forces - Incumbent candidates have much less of a built in advantage in Europe than they do in United States - If criticism of particular individuals of the party, they generally lose their seats - Party labels are valuable commodities in Europe Parliamentarians and party discipline: - Sometimes punishments for not voting along party lines - Extreme cases: expulsion from party - Keeps party discipline Parliamentarians and constituency representation: - MPs: Constituency representation. Promote and defend the interests of their geographical constituency - Constituency work takes up a lot of time of MPs, about half of time in Britain, and much lower in Poland - Electoral system determines this - In some countries, it is not required, not incentives given - Also determined by political culture European parliaments: one chamber or two?: - Main argument for bicameralism: second chamber can act as a check on the possibility of an overbearing majority in the lower house, and that it may be able to discuss policy proposals in a more reflective manner than the highly politicised lower house, applying sober second thoughts and drawing on non party technical expertise. - Main argument against: if the second chamber agrees with the first it is superfluous, and if it does not it is pernicious - Bicameralism is in decline - Can be conservative: effect is to protect the status quo - Depends by how much bargaining power each house possesses - Impact depends on the composition and the power of a second chamber - Mostly indirect election, left wing not as strong as right wing in upper chambers - Direct election in Poland, where it plays a significant role - Parliaments elsewhere: only one chamber - Upper house less power than the lower house, except in Italy, Belgium and Romania

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Representative Government in Modern Europe (Gallagher - Chapter 3)

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Introduction: - Elections: central to representative government in Europe. Significance both symbolic and practical. Practical: formation of governments Symbolic: legitimises a country's political system in the eyes of its citizens - Variation across Europe in the precise set of electoral laws that determines how the votes that are cast are transformed into seats in the legislature - Electoral system can affect the nature of its party system, socio-demographic composition of the legislature, and likelihood that governments will be formed by a coalition of parties rather than just a single party - Referendums: used to obtain voters' decision on a specific issue Who votes?: - Universal adult franchise - Changing definitions of adulthood: Some countries from 16 to 20 - Qualifications needed to be an election candidate are the same as those for being a voter - Electoral register contains the names of all who are entitled to vote - Voter turn out higher in Europe than in the United States - Some countries it is compulsory - However, since 1970's, turnout has been decreasing When do people vote?: - In most countries: maximum period between elections, but not a minimum - Prime ministers have the power to recommend the dissolution of parliament to a head of state - France: presidential elections every 5 years - Also elections for local councils - Elections of European parliament - Voter fatigue? Types of electoral system: - Electoral systems: mechanisms that turn the votes cast by people on election day into seats to be occupied by deputies in the parliament. These structure the choices that the voters can make and converts these choices into a legislature - Most use proportional representation - No two European countries have electoral systems that are identical - Decided by political actors - Generally, systems have stayed the same, but changed in a few countries (i.e: Greece and Italy) - Majoritarian vs proportional representation systems. - PR systems: put more emphasis on the concept of proportionality, the numerical accuracy with which the votes cast for parties are translated into seats won in parliament. I.e: 25% of votes equals 25% of seats - Majoritarian systems: aim to not achieve high proportionality, but by prioritising other criteria they accept a certain level of disproportionality as inevitable Plurality and majority systems: - Only two European countries do not use an electoral system that has at least an element of PR, UK and France - UK: Country divided into constituencies, one of which has an MP in the House of Commons - Single member plurality/first past the post: MP with most votes wins - Merit of simplicity for voters: responsibility for interests of the constituency lie with MP - Critics of FPTP: 1. Person can be elected despite only getting 40% of total votes 2. Strategic voting 3. If used for national elections, might be unrepresentative - When a party has the will to change an electoral system it does not have the power and vice versa - Alternative vote: the single transferable vote in single-member constituencies. Voters rank candidates in order of presence - AV is a majority system, as opposed to plurality system, because the counting process continues until one candidate has a majority - Plural voting system: Only allowed to vote for a single candidate and the candidate with the most votes wins - Majority: multiple candidate until one candidate has a majority over all other remaining candidates. - No country in Europe uses AV to elect parliament. Though, in France, deputies are returned from single member constituencies, but there is provision for two rounds of voting - Two round double ballot system has one advantage over British one: gives supporters of losing first round candidates a chance to switch their second round vote to one of the serious contenders - Disadvantage, considers first round support rather than broad support Proportional representation: - Key to PR system: multi-member constituency. Seats are allocated to parties within each constituency in broad proportion to the votes each party receives. The larger the district magniture, the more proportional national election result List PR systems: - Each party presents a list of candidates in each constituency - Seats shared out among the parties in proportion to the votes they win, in accordance with a predetermined formula - Charateristics: 1. Electoral formulae: Most common is D'Hondt method and Sainte-Laguë method. Some methods favour larger parties and vice versa 2. District magnitude and higher tiers: Seat allocation method: just one factor determining proportionality. Another is district magnitude. The larger the district the more proportional it'll be. Higher tier seats in place to award parties to compensate them for any shortfall in the seats they won in the constituencies to increase proportionality Mixed systems: - MPs can be elected by two different routes - Voter has two votes, one to choose a local constituency MP and the other to choose a party list - Two types of link between the systems: 1. Compensatory mixed systems, the list seats are awarded to parties to ensure that their overall seat total is proportional to their list votes 2. Parallel, where the list seats are shared out purely on the basis of list votes - Mixed systems: best of both worlds: Citizens have individual MP but the list ensure that the relationship between seats and votes is much closer than it would be under a non-PR system. - Though, mixed systems have statistically significant lower levels of accountability, government effectiveness, control of corruption, representation of women in parliament and voter turnout Thresholds: - Prevents smaller parties from gaining seat - Threshold also set at constituency elections Which candidates get the list seats?: - In some countries: order of candidates drawn up by the party organisation is a fixed ranking that the voters cannot alter (non-preferential, closed or blocked lists). Decided within the party to be placed on top of the list. - In others: No default order, the voters decide. These are open or unblocked lists. Intra party electoral competition - Closed lists: Italy, Portugal, Germany - Open lists: Finland, Luxembourg, Poland - Trend: towards preference votes The single transferable vote: - Aims to give PR to the shades of opinion within the constituency - Voters: cast a vote by ranking as many as they wish of the candidates - Droop Quota - Any candidate that equals or exceeds Droop quota is declared elected - If not sufficient candidates, the votes are distributed and transferred to the other candidates in proportion to the next preferences marked for them - Advantages: gives voters opportunity to convey reveal preferences, voters not constrained by party lines, voters control the way their votes are used, opportunity to express opinion as to the direction their party should take, ensures that voters can vote sincerely - Criticisms: Weakens internal unity of parties, can be only realistically used in countries with small constituencies, facilitates the election of independent candidates Why electoral systems matter: - Pr vs plurality systems Proportionality: - Greater under PR than plurality systems - Especially those with large district magnitude - Threshold may create disproportionality The number of parties: - Duverger: - Single member plurality system favours a two party system, double ballot majority tends to produce multipartism with alliances, and PR leads to the formation of many independent parties - SMP associated with a two party system because of both mechanical and psychological effects - Mechanical: smaller parties with support spread across the country do not reap a proportional reward in seats for their share of the votes - Psychological: voters are aware of the mechanical effect: vote for significant parties, or candidate - Electoral systems: do play a major part, not a deterministic one, but in influencing the shape of party systems - Duvergers law: plurality-rule elections (such as first past the post) structured within single-member districts tend to favor a two-party system and that "the double ballot majority system and proportional representation tend to favor multipartism". Coalition or single party government?: - Argument against PR: Difficulty of forming a government - Single party governments are much more likely under majoritarian electoral systems - Coalitions more common in PR Policy outputs -Voters' preferences are better represented in parliaments by PR systems - Electoral systems can have an impact on many aspects of public policy - Consensus democracy/PR: kinder and gentler when it comes to welfare spending, protection of the environment, etc. and better in macroeconomic performance and control of violence The backgrounds of parliamentarians: - PR facilitates the election of women because of the multi-member constituencies - In single member constituency: reluctant in selecting a representative of an ethnic, religious or linguistic minority.

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Representative Government in Modern Europe (Gallagher - Chapter 11)

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Introduction: - Executive is responsible to the legislature, and governments are not chosen by the people - People vote to choose a parliament - Political reality: elections are much more about choosing governments than they are about choosing a set of people to legislate - Real prize that is won or lost at parliamentary elections is a place in the government - Legislative coalitions needed to provide majority support for any government Parliamentary votes of confidence and no confidence: - If such a vote is carried, the government is deemed dismissed if it does not resign voluntarity - Constitutional convention that a government will in fact resign if defeated in a no confidence vote. - In many countries, failure of government's annual finance bill or budget, is the same as losing a vote of no confidence - Main form of legislative control over the executive is to throw the entire executive out on its ear. But not always need for such measures Investiture requirements: - In some countries: incoming government must win an explicit formal legislative investiture vote before it can take office - Important, as absence of this makes it easier to form minority governments - Sometimes majority for specific issues Formateurs: the role of the head of state: - Typical that the head of state charges constitutional authority to government. - Swearing in function, known as a formateur - In some countries, the initiative in government formation lies with the outgoing government The status quo and 'caretaker' governments: - Always a legally incumbent government in place - Once a government has been defeated or resigned, the incumbent gvt. remains in office to run the country as a care administration - Powers of caretaker governments depend on country. Some have full power, some have have contrained powers. Agreeing a joint programme of government: - Two concerns in government formation negotiations: 1. Who will hold the various cabinet positions 2. Joint policy programme for the government, particularly important for coalitions - Resolving policy differences. Must come to an agreement Choosing a set of cabinet ministers: - Choosing government involves choosing the senior politicians who will hold cabinet portfolios - Must be accepted to parliament - Coalitions:each party leader nominates ministers. They may also veto an occasional controversial nomination by another party leader - Ministers chosen for their loyalty to the party or their ability to represent varying strands of party opinion - Political skills considered over administrative - Mostly former MPs, though in some countries this does not hold Government formation: - The typical European election does not definitively settle the matter of who forms the government - When government formations immediately followed an election, the incumbent cabinet and prime minister went back into office in fully one third of cases, and when government formation was taking place without election, incumbent prime minister and parties almost never returned to office - Election results: can lead to predictable changes of coalition government - Final say in government formation lies with elected politicians, not voters Getting into office: - Fame and status accompanied by the title - Interest in influencing public policy Office seeking politicians and 'minimal winning' governments: - Assumption: politicians only want the extrinsic benefits of being in office. - Minimal winning cabinets carry no passangers, they include only parties whose seats are essential to maintain the government's parliamentary majority - Exclusion of parties whose votes have no significance for parliamentary majority - Opposite: oversized or surplus majority government Policy-oriented politicians and ideology compact governments: - Another assumption: if politicians only want intrinsic benefits (i.e: change public policy), then minimal connected winning cabinets: comprising parties that are adjacent to each other in policy terms and cannot lose a party off either 'end' without losing their majority Minority governments: - Minority governments have majority opposition in parliament - Strøm: minority governments should be seen as a normal and democratic outcome - Can stay in power if opposition is divided Surplus majority governments: - Grand coalitions: common unifying goal: surplus majority - Determined by constitution - Carrying passengers in cabinet coalitions - Establishing an oversized government: allows for defections. Types of government in modern Europe: - Minimal winning coalition and surplus majority coalition most common in Europe

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Representative Government in Modern Europe (Gallagher - Chapter 12)

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What are parties, and what are they for? - Description: - Represent socially or culturally significant interests at the same time as aggregating their sometimes contradictory preferences - Recruiting, selecting, socialising and providing material and ideological support to candidates and elected politicians who will do the representing, often at both national and sub-national level - Structuring an array of choices available to voters at parliamentary and local elections, which by their very presence, they render competitive - Facilitate the formation of governments that produce coordinated and coherent policy responses to perceived and real problems - Mediating between millions of citizens and a state that otherwise might act exclusively in the interest of those it employs and those whose economic clout could give them a disproportionate say in its direction - However, in characteristics above, the less formal functions aren't covered, such as 'jobs for the boys' - Political parties: organisations that, for the most part, recruit candidates to contest elections in the hope that they can participate in government, or at leash push it in the direction of its own ideas that reflect socio-economic interests and/or moral values of those who support them Organisation: - May impact ideology, flexibility and dynamics of the party - Ideology may also impact organisation - Accounts of modern party: in the hands of leaders determined not to allow their more zealous supporters to scupper their electoral chances by remaining true to whatever cause the party was set up to promote or defend - Organise through common sense: logical hierarchy - Presidentialisation of parties: the parties play little more than na supporting role to the celebrity politicians who are their leaders - However, we're way off from that situation, parties existed for a long time, can replace the 'face' quickly - Green parties also show the opposite: They're open parties, allow for discussion with members - Ideology: guide to understanding the distribution of power within different parties - Also parliamentary system and candidate selection - Practices of party The evolution of political party organisation: - Cadre parties: controlled by an elite small group consisting of parliamentarians and local notables, who rallied members who were expected to contribute funds and campaign - Mass parties: branch structure in which members could hope to contribute to policy - Catch-all-parties: attempt to catch the 'floating voter' and interest group backing. Focus on pragmatism rather than ideology - Cartel parties: balance of power that might be captured by activist members - Anti-system: reaction to the collusive consensus Party systems and party families: - Most political scientists employ a dual approach to classifying party systems (Giovanni Sartori) - Equal weight to the degree of 'fragmentation' and the ideological distance between them ('polarisation') - Fragmentation: number of parties present in the system - Polarisation: ideological difference between them - Can be plotted on graph - Comparing countries - UK: few parties and little distance between parties (moderate two-partyism') - Germany, Sweden, Poland Spain: difference between parties little, but more of them (moderate multipartyism) - France, Netherlands, Italy: lots of parties and big difference between them (polarised multipartyism) - Another method of classifying party systems (Peter Mair) - Most systems fall into moderate multipartyism - Measure of competition for government - Can be open or closed - Closed: 1. alternation in governments tends to be that all the parties in office lose power after an election 2. Combinations of parties that form governments are familiar rather than innovative 3. Narrow range of mainstream parties tend to govern - Open: - More opaque, fluid, innovative, inclusive and less predictable - In closed system, competition will be more 'centriperal' (more in the centre) than 'centrifugal' (toward the extreme) - More of a supplement rather than replace the Sartori style schema - How did party systems come to be? Political scientists argue that they are rooted in social conflicts which they call cleavages - Cleavages: splits or divisions in a society that give rise to conflicts that may well be expressed in political form, often via the formation of opposing parties representing people on either side of the split - Theses: they helped structure or even freeze Europe's party system - Some have developed since, and some have declined or halted - Extent of relevance of a cleavage helped to determine which parties were present, as well as which were stronger or weaker - Extent to which existing parties were able to adapt in order to mobilise on that cleavage -Not all countries will have been affected by all cleavages, so not all party groups present - Evolution of cleavages: - 1800: Land-industry, owner-worker - 1900: Urban-rural, centre-periphery, church-state, revolution-gradualism, democracy-totalitarianism - 1950: materialism-postmaterialism, multiculturalism-homogeneity - With these cleavages, came different groups: - 1800 Libs, cons, socialists/social-democrats - 1900: Agrarian, regionalists, christian democrats, communists, fascists - 1950: Greens, far right - Party competition now into two dimensions, left-right and authoritarian-libertarian: emergence of GALTAN - GALTAN: Green/Alternative/Libertarian and Traditionalism/Authority/Nationalism - Thus, relationship between cleavages and parties can be used to predict the number of parties in a system - Lijphart formula: minimum number of parties = number of issue dimensions + 1 - However, does not always hold exactly. One must ignore the very small parties - Should political scientists group parties together? - Generalisations are useful, but memberships of the family does not always involve direct lineage - Looking at individual families: Socialist and social democratic parties: - Emerged from owner-worker cleavage - Agitation of not merely political rights but economy and society - Allied with trade union - State ownership of key industries and utilities, progressive taxation Conservative parties: - defence of the socio-economic privileges of the traditional mainly landed, hierarchy against the rising liberal middle class - Universal suffrage - State intervention should be limited largely to policing law and order and providing for the defence of the realm - Most successful in countries that has two main parties and in countries with absence of a traditionally more centrist Christian democracy Christian democratic parties: - Christian democratic parties were markedly more positive about state and trade union involvement than some of their conservative counterparts - Since WW2, catch all parties, less focus on religion - More neoliberal economic policies Liberal parties: - Commerce and professions - legal, property, religious, and political rights of the individual - Split two ways: - Neo liberalism: prioritises a commitment to the free market and opposition to state interference in the economy as well as matters of morality - Social liberalism: sympathetic toward government intervention in the economy and welfare policy Green parties: - Against unsustainability and exploitative nature of growth oriented economic development - Post materialist: quality of life rather than standard of living - Anti militarism and anti discrimination - Better ties with developing world - Social justice and liberal tolerance of alternative life styles - Not so popular in environment conscious parties - Virtually non existent in central and Eastern Europe Far-right parties: - Nationalist, conservative and militaristic responses to communist revolution in Russia and economic difficulties - Populism, low tax and low interference, and conservative social values - Eurosceptic Communist and Left Parties - dissatisfaction with gradualism of social democracy - Can be achieved rapidly through revolution - Stress 'new politics', anti discriminations, aid to the developing world, environmental awareness, antimilitarism Regional and ethnic parties: - Independence, important role in sub national and sometimes national coalition governments - Numerous in Spain Agrarian and Centre parties - generous welfare, agricultural support and environmental conservation - Small producers don't want to be sold to multinationals and the European union The bases of party systems - social and institutional; luck and skill: - Though historical cleavages structure present day party systems, doesn't mean parties don't develop away from their original intentions - Can become flexible - Strength of parties not determined by social conflicts, but also by man made constitutional arrangements, 'institutionalists' - Electoral system - Plurality system may make it easier for regionalist parties - Constituency size also affects this - Party systems are the product of both institutional arrangements and social forces - How institutionalised the system is may also affects party systems - Institutionalised: how predictable, stable and legitimate the party system is Party system change?: - Europanisation of party systems from west to east and north to south might be a two way process - Fragmentation caused by two things: 1. Electoral volatility: when voters switch their votes between parties from one election to another 2. Dealignment: the way in which people's political preferences seem to be becoming less related to their location on one or other side of certain key cleavages - Electoral volatility in less establishied democracies (Eastern Europe) - Switching of votes: more parties - Depends on factors such as how long the country has been democratic - Green, far right and regionalist parties on way to becoming old parties. Not flash parties at all. - Party systems thawing? Could be: - Increase in structural change: migration, occupation and family patterns, and changes in institution - Overstating the changes of party systems - Not at a pace where we should be worrying about a dissolution of party systems Are parties in decline?: YES: Losing members, less party identity - Fewer people bothered to vote - Can't survive without state subsidies - People getting more involved with pressure groups than parties NO: never had as many members as one may think, loss of party is not bad things - turnout for elections can still increase - state funding of parties varies considerably - Pressure groups push only their point of view on others, while parties try to make things more balanced The Europeanisation of parties and party systems?: - EU provides parties to persuade and learn from other parties, but also exposes party to issues of ideology and organisation - Representatives of national parties elected to the European Parliament need to work together, which they do by forming party groups - Transnational activity could lead to coordinated campaigning at EP elections - Regionalisation - Yet, political cycles in EU countries not yet synchronised - Though not completely unaffected by European integration - Parties not bandwagoners, they can also build them

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European Politics (Bale - Chapter 5)

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Introduction: - Forming coalitions with right wing parties not a sure way to stem their success - Populism: Use of appeals to the people or claim to represent general interests versus the interests of a specific group (opportunism). Also use of us versus them, juxtaposing identity and common interests. Also use negativity in political communication - Populism, not political ideology, a style of politics that is intricately related to particular political ideologies Right-wing populism in Europe: - FN in France, anti-Semetic elements - Support from middle classes, small businessmen and farmers - Under Marine, de-demonization of the party - Less antisemitism, more anti-immigrant, islamophobic position - Protection of the French people against globalisation - Anti EU - FPÖ in Austria, programmatic flexibility - Strong under Haider, appeal to working class, anti-immigrat, anti-Muslim - Strong under Strache too - PiS in Poland - Protection of Polish people and catholicism - Fidesz in Hungary - illiberal authoritarianism - New constitution and restricted freedom of the media - Flexible - Interventionist economic policies - anti EU and immigrant - UKIP in the UK, exit of the EU - AfD in Germany, anti-immigration, anti-islam, anti-media - Euro-skepticism Shared in common: - Issues: political, economic and cultural, such as immigration - Support: middle class, small business - working class now also being mobilised - More fluid in Eastern Europe as less established party systems - Strategies: stark generalisations, strict distinctions, emotional appeals and exaggerations, foster fear and anger, free media attention

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The Rise of Right-Wing Populism in Europe and the United States (Thomas Greven)

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Introduction: - Parties in Europe matter, 'unthinkable in terms of the parties' What do parties do? - Present in and at the core of politics in all European countries - Crucial functions: 1. Structure the political world 2. Recruit and socialise the political elite 3. Linkage between rulers and ruled between civil society and the state 4. Aggregate interests, unlike interest groups Basic party organisation: - Basic organisational elements are very similar - Members of parties belong to a local unit - Branches or units send candidates to annual conference, which elect most members of the party's national executive, which runs the party organisation between conferences - Other main element in the party is the parliamentary party or caucus comprising the party's elected deputies - Some parties: fractionalised, number of clearly defined groups, jostle for power and position - Competition within the party: over purity of ideology Who becomes a party member?: - To become member: annual fee and pledge - Expected to attend regular local branch meetings - Party members: only a minority of party supporters as a whole - Most parties claim to have more members than they really have - Number of delegates sent to annual conference can depend on how many members it has, so the larger it claims to be, the more delegates it can send - Only a small fraction of those who vote or a party are committed to joining it - And only a minority of this minority can be considered active - Bolstering membership: social clubs? - Membership figures: declining across western Europe, except Greece and Spain - Why? - Three main motives for joining or leaving: 1. Material: desire to gain some tangible reward 2. Solidary: desire for social contact and a sense of comradeship in a common enterprise 3. Purposive: desire to advance certain policy goals - In Eastern Europe, also low membership: distrust from communist times - Weak links with civil society - Parties can be short-lived, come and go rapidly - Party members not entirely socially representative of party voters: women and young people underrepresented, members usually retired - Parties have become less firmly implanted in society than previously The activities of party members: - Mostly active at election time, important role in campaigning at the grassroots level - Putting up posters, party stalls, handing leaflets - Otherwise, not that active: some attend branch meetings regularly to discuss ways of expanding the organisation at the local level, or to decide their stance on issues due to arise at the next annual conference - Observations: people only excited when talking about who will become the next constituency organisation chairperson - Previously, belonging to parties was a way of life - Own newspaper, branch offices over Germany were centres of social activity, ran health service - Golden age of mass and active party membership is yet another golden age that perhaps never really existed - Though, members not redundant: important in giving these parties a character Power within parties: - Internal affairs of parties: continuous process of accommodation and mutual adjustment - Party remains together because a balance of power is respected and no one element tries to achieve complete control - Elements of party organisation, leader, MPs, rank and file members and so on, may jostle for position, but rarely open warfare as most have same political outlook - Areas of struggle within the party: - Party manifesto and programme, election of party leader and selection of the parliamentary candidates, sources of party finance The changing shape of European parties: - From cadre parties to cartel parties The future of European parties: - Whether it'll survive or not: party in the electorate: parties' implantation in civil society - Party in public office: those working as representatives - Party in central office: headquarters and central slogans - Outlook, parties will continue to exist and so will their members - Vital to organs of representation in European politics

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Representative Government in Modern Europe (Gallagher - Chapter 10)

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The Social Bases of Party Support: - Why study elections: How political attitudes influence behaviour - Window into the minds of the citizens - Reflects the changing patterns of citizen politics - Most make decisions during campaign and issues of the day - Policy-centered debates or reliance on habitual loyalties? Economic issues or cultural issues? The Social Group Model of Voting: - Social attachments as important influences on voting choice - They represent the distinct social interests - Partisanship studies: class, religion, residence - Class and religion: indicates values and political beliefs - Social characteristics: reflect political cues to which a voter is exposed - Social groups: orient voters to political issues and providing information about politics - These act as shortcuts to political decisions Social Class and the Vote: - Class politics: Old politics: conflict between the haves and the have nots - Issues they face in reaching economic and material goals - Though, class conflicts still relevant, the 1 percent versus the 99 percent - Social class: in terms of occupation - Classified based on their relationship to means of production, such as bourgeoisie and proletariat - However, now there's new middle class and white-collar workers too - New middle class: important addition, lacks a clear position in traditional dichotomy, focused on New Politics issues - Each of these social classes have voting preferences - Nowadays, the new middle class is now the largest group of voters and more important, has ambiguous partisan preferences - Alford index of class voting, in decline due to less class voting - New frameworks for class voting, only of modest value Why Is Class Voting Decreasing?: - Butler and Stokes: group-based voting as a two-step process: voters linked to a social group, and then the group is linked to a political party - Narrowing in the life conditions of social classes can also weaken the connection between individuals and their respective classes - Embourgeoisement and proletarianization of both working and middle class - Social and occupational mobility may also weaken the link between individuals and traditional social classes - Another explanation is changing relationship between class groups and the political parties - Why it's important: signals a change in the nature of political conflict, signals a change of how voters reach decisions, social modernisation implies that the long term decline in class voting should continue Religion and the Vote: - Religious identity shapes values and political positions - Religious cleavage, political issues often linked to religious values (abortion, homosexual rights, and moral standards) - Varied composition of religions in countries: hard to study - Catholics, generally support right - Protestants, generally support left - Varies per country - Jewish Americans: democrats - Influence of religiosity and church attendance - Austria most influenced by church attendance and voting - Cleavages vary around Europe - Catholic nations of Europe, less church attendance - Fundamentalism: increase of religious cues - Religious cleavages have decreased - Denominational differences may have narrowed slightly in some of these cases, but has not decreased as much as class voting Other Social Group Differences: - Regional interests can shape party choice - Urban/rural residence often reflects different life conditions, albeit this factor is not as influential - Gender differences, women supporting the Left - Race and ethnicity as possible cleavages - Hispanics and Afro-American vote mostly democratic - Sociological factors: weak and declining influence on voting choice New Politics and the Vote: - Post material cleavage may produce a new partisan alignment - Environmental protection, gender equality, multiculturalism - Attracts the young, new middle class, better educated, nonreligious - Materialists prefer the right, and postmaterialists the left - However, data not as available as other social characteristics and vote - Growing impact on voting choice - However, this doesn't mean that more people will vote left - Old politics cleavages will remain as major influence on voting for some time The Transformation of Social Cleavages: - Changes in social conditions: Social changes have occurred in all advanced industrial democracies - Previously, working and middle class cleavage was more important - Social modernisation weakened class alignments - Secularisation is decreasing the influence of religion on voting behaviour - Partisan realignment, shift in the group basis of party coalitions - Post material values cannot be identified the same way that class, religion or region can - Now defined by identities with fixed social groups to issue/value cleavages that are based on communities of like minded people - Issue group cleavages rather than social group cleavages

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Citizen politics (Dalton - Chapter 8)

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Partisanship and Voting: - Opinions and attitudes of voters as pivotal factors in their voting choices - Opinions and attitudes of voters as pivotal factors in their voting choices A Sociopsychological Model of Voting: - Development of voting models to include psychological factors, such as issues and attitudes as influences on voting choice - Explains the limits of sociological group based approach - Model combining both sociological and psychological influences - Funnel of causality - At the wide mouth of the funnel, socioeconomic conditions that generate the basic conflicts of interests within society: economic structure, social divisions, regional alignments (structure party system) - These then influence group loyalties and basic value orientations, attitudes that influence political behaviour - Then group identities and values shape the political attitudes (party attachment, issue opinions and candidate images) - Also events of the campaign, media reports, campaign activity, etc. influence issue opinions and candidate images - Very useful model, factors on the left of the figure are distant from the voting decision, and the factors on the right are more proximate - Wide end of the funnel, broad social conditions, political factors towards the voting decision - Factors on left are conditions of society, factors on right are considerations made by the individual voter - Model successfully predicts voting choices - Predicts how we think about elections and how researchers analyse the voting process Partisan Attitudes: - Loyalties strongly influenced many of the specific political beliefs and behaviours of the citizenry - Party identification/partisanship - Not as common in Europe, though more independents in the uS The Learning of Partisanship: - Children learn party loyalty before they understand what the party labels stand for - Parents play a central role in socialisation of these values - Exposed to political cues - More party identity as you get older - PID most stable political attitudes across nations - Central element in an individual's belief system and a basis of political identity - Formed early in life and may condition later life learning The Impact of Partisanship: - Parties make politics used friendly - Party label: information shortcut - Party ties mobilise people to become politically active, encourages them to become active in political process to support his/her side - Party identification: affects voting choices: means that a voter has a predisposition to support his or her preferred party - Also close relationship between PID and voting in parliamentary elections - Partisanship is the ultimate heuristic as: 1. Creates basis of political identity 2. Provides cues for evaluating political events, candidates, and issues 3. Mobilises participation in campaigns and election turnout 4. Provides cues on voting preferences 5. Stabilises voting patterns for the individual and the party system Partisan Dealignment: - Party seems to be eroding - Deeper party loyaties are weakening - Negativity toward parties as political institutions - Public confidence in political parties lower - Public isn't developing party attachments The Consequences of Dealignment: - Decreased partisan-centered voting - Increased number of parties competing in parliamentary elections - Rise in split-ticket voting - Declining turnout - Change in how the public reaches its voting choices Causes of Dealignment: - Poor performance of parties - Poor performance: greater dealignment, though not that much - People's expectations about parties have changed - Declining function of parties as institutions: less support for them - Party leaders has some loss of control over some processes of the party - Changes in mass media: provide the information that parties used to provide Cognitive Mobilization and Apartisans: - Cognitive Mobilization thesis: accepts the importance of partisanship, but because the public's cognitive sophistication is growing, more people can deal with the complexities of politics without reliance on cues of heuristics - Focus on postmaterial values, moving away from parties - Growth of independents: concentrated among a distinct group of citizens: young, educated and adherents of postmaterial values - Some people orient themselves to politics based on their partisan attachments, some through cognitive mobilisation - Orient themselves to politics on their own - Thus: four types of citizens - Apolitical independents: neither attached to political party nor cognitively mobilised - Ritual partisans: mobilised primarily by parties - Cognitive partisans: mobilised by parties and cognitively - Apartisans: new independents, high levels of political involvement and sophistication, though they remain unattached to any political party - Cognitive mobilisation: transforming the characteristics of partisans

answer

Citizen politics (Dalton - Chapter 9)

question

The Consensus Model of Democracy - Majoritarian interpretation of democracy: Government by the majority of people - Majorities should govern and minorities should oppose - Opposed by the consensus model of democracy - Lewis: All those affected by a decision should have the chance to participate in making that decision either directly or through chosen representatives -Winning parties may make all the governmental decisions and losers may criticise but not govern, the two meanings are incompatible - Majoritarians respond: Majorities and minorities can alternate in government - And: homogenous society: major parties are usually not very far apart in their policy outlooks because they stay close to the political centre - Government for the people rather than by the people - In less homogeneous societies: this would be undemocratic - In deeply divided societies, majority rule: majority dictatorship - Consensus model, explained in terms of ten elements in sharp contrast to majoritarian system - Consensus: shares, disperses, and restrains power in a variety of ways 1. Executive power-sharing in broad coalition cabinets: - Westminster: executive power in one party cabinets - Consensus: all or most of the important parties share executive power 2. Executive-legislative balance of power: - Consensus: separation of powers, more balanced cabinet-parliament relationship, give and take - Westminister: Dominant cabinet, dependent on the confidence of the legislature, executive dominates legislature 3. Multiparty system: - Consensus: More parties, due to plural societies, divided along several lines of cleavage (religion, class and language) - Westminster: Dual party system 4. Proportional representation: - Consensus: present in consensus, explains multiparty systems - Divide the parliamentary seats among the parties in proportion to the votes received - Westminster: overrepresents large parties, underrepresents small parties, majoritarian and disproportional electoral system 5. Interest group corporatism: - Consensus: liberal corporatism, tripartile concertation, few and large interest groups, peak associations - Westminster: pluralist 6. Federal and decentralised government: - Consensus: central government + regional governments = decentralisation - Federal - Westminster: Centralised and unitary government 7. Strong bicameralism: - Consensus: bicameralism: representation of minority, upper house elected on a different basis than the lower house, and has real power - Strong bicameralism - Westminster: Unicameralism 8. Constitutional rigidity: - Consensus: Rigid and difficult to amend - Westminster: Flexible, easily amended 9. Judicial review: - Consensus: Constitutional court - Westminster: Parliamentary sovereignty 10. Central bank: - Consensus: Independent of executive - Westminster: Dependent on executive

answer

Patterns of Democracy (Lijphart - Chapter 3)

question

Where Is the Power?: - Parliamentary government - Executive powers linked to legislative powers - Executive elected by legislature - Leader of the party likely to serve as country's next executive/Prime Minister - Majoritarian - At least a majority of members of the lower house must at all times support the government - Two party system, though emergence of Liberal Democratic Party - If majority of MPs decide they no longer want current government to continue in office: remove government by a vote of no confidence or defeating a major government legislative proposal - Remaining PM requires continual support of Parliament - Government decisions must be made collectively and be supported by the entire cabinet - Collective responsibility - Allows executive to govern - If executive cannot command the acquiescence of the legislature it will cease to be the executive British Parliamentary Government: - Role of the opposition: oppose the government, present constructive alternatives - Exception of this: wars - Parliamentary government: party government - Parliament: institution in itself, but also arena where political parties clash - British parliamentary government: sovereign - No legal limitations on the powers of Parliament, and no means by which a citizen can challenge an act of Parliament as unconstitutional - Though, limitations on the discretion of Parliament through membership of EU - Its actions are law The Monarch: - The UK is constitutional monarchy, in which powers of the monarch are constrained by both law and convention - Royal assent is needed for legislation to become law - If there is no clear winner of who becomes PM, monarch may be able to choose one - Empowered to dissolve parliament if perhaps the government did not resign and call for elections after a vote of no confidence or if it lost on a major issue, though they could also refuse to do so - Must be unifying force when everything else in political system is centrifugal, divisive and adversarial - Monarch representative of the nation as a whole The Prime Minister: - The prime minister is head of the government of the day and its chief executive office - Role of prime minister becoming presidential: due to parliamentary campaigns have become directed toward electing a particular prime minister rather than a party (increased through Thatcher), staffing and organisation of the office (special assistants in departments), appointment of special advisors - Prime minister is the leader of the majority party in the House of Commons. Party selects potential prime minister - Prime minster is political leader within the House of Commons - Expected to win verbal jousts and lead parliamentary debates - Substantial powers: relationships between the monarch and Parliament are channeled through the Prime Minister - PM serves as chief political adviser to the monarch, especially on major issues such as the dissolution of parliament. Meet on a weekly basis. - While in office: considerable personal power over policy and the activities of the cabinet. In position to enforce his or her views over nominal equals - Leader of opposition also able to wield influence and power, must propose alternatives to government programs Cabinet: - Cabinet composed of the individuals who meet with the prime minster as a collectivity called the cabinet and who make collective policy decisions - Government: is more encompassing, including all ministers regardless of their seniority or degree of responsibility - Cabinet technically a committee of the government elected by prime minister. It is responsible to parliament, and cabinet members generally rise and fall as a unit - Distinction between secretaries of state and ministers is rather vague: Each tends to head a dept. of Government - Junior ministers are attached to a dept. to provide political and policy assistance in the management of the dept. - Minister: remains a member of the legislature and an active representative of a constituency and must fulfil various positions and responsibilities simultaneously, i.e: policies, cabinet meetings, must appear in Parliament, serve their constituents in the districts from which they were elected - Cabinet supported by Cabinet office Parliament: - Serious questions arisen about the real effective powers of Parliament - As executive grows, parliament less capable of exercising control over policies Members of Parliament: - Average MP represents 90,000 people - Few advantages - Some have sponsoring organisations - Corruption -> limiting of sponsors Organisation: - Both the house of Commons and the House of lords are involved in making policy, but Commons is crucial to forming govts. and setting public budget - House of lords is composed of the lords spiritual and the lords temporal - Lords temporal comprise hereditary and life peers - Lords spiritual: represents Church of England - HoL may not relay money bills longer than one month - Any legislation passed by the HoC in two successive sessions of Parliament goes into effect without approval from HoL - HoC: evolved over centuries and still reflects medieval roots - Arranged as two opposing ranks of benches - Informal debate, heckling - Partisan body and national institutions: Ideas of cabinet government and collective responsibility are closely allied with ideas of party government - MPs sometimes allowed to vote against party lines if interests go against their constituencies - Speaker of the House, impartial figure dressed in the style of the eighteenth century - Elected from the membership of the Commons for being someone who can be elected unanimously rather than produced by a partisan confrontation - May remain in office as long as he or she wishes, seat rarely contested. Votes only in cases of ties, though he traditionally votes to keep status quo - Decides which amendments to legislation will be debated - Smaller commissions below HoC, some special committees regarding legislation affecting i.e: Scotland - Other committees for monitoring and oversight - Parliament threatened as institution as it has had difficulty maintaining independent powers in the face of the growing powers of PM and cabinet. Most important weapons are in hands of the executive Local Government: - Not independent set of institutions with its own constitutional base of authority such as that found for states or provinces in a federal system - Local government: creation and the creature of the central government - Differs through Scotland, England and Wales - Large number of voters per councillor: loss of local democracy Quasi-Governmental Sector: - Semi-private semi-public enterprises such as the NHS, some independence from government

answer

Politics in Europe (Carman - Chapter 1.2)

question

Who Has the Power?: Political parties: - Catchall parties - Labour, Conservatives, Liberal Democrats The Party and Electoral Systems - Two and one half party system - Increasing citizens per seat Voting and Elections: - Elections for House of Commons: national - Parties control selection of candidates Partisan Choice by Voters: - Determined by Social class, patterns of residence, demography, issues

answer

Politics in Europe (Carman - Chapter 1.3)

question

- 24 June 2016 - 51.9% leave - British pound dropped to new 31 year low - David Cameron resigned - Not surprising: UK most Eurosceptic electorate, Conservatives opposed to EU, EU referendums unpredictable, Anti-establishment (fears of immigration) - Unique event - Referendum came about as the culmination of decades of internal division in the British Conservative party - To avoid voters to move to UKIP, conservatives pledged to hold a referendum - Government failed to win over voters with new settlement for Britain in the EU, though it was confident it could win the referendum - Boris Johnson: Out (cons.) - David Cameron: In (cons.) - Jeremy Corbyn: In (Labour) - Most of the campaign: remain - Though: Fluctuation in the last month of the campaign, where polls indicated Leave majority - Economy vs Immigration - In: economic stability - Out: authority, control, immigration - Beginning of the campaign: Economy - Towards the end of campaign: Immigration - Lack of trust on David Cameron - Value and belief approach: overall feelings towards EU - Second-order theory approach: show dissatisfaction towards government - Three main approaches to explaining variation in support for and opposition to European integration: 'utilitarian', 'identity', 'cue-taking' - Utilitarian: Since EU trade liberalisation favours citizens with higher levels of human capital and income, such individuals will be more supportive of the EU - Winners: more supportive - Left behind: less supportive - Identity also explains vote: territorial identity expect to vote out but multiple identities expected to vote in. - Citizens rely on 'cues' and proxis when forming opinions about the EU - Four set of factors shapes vote choices: socioeconomic factors, geographical identities, feelings about the domestic political establishment, and policy attitudes. - Socioeconomic factors: the better educated, young, and well-off are less likely to vote Leave compared to those 'left behind'. Big impact on education as indicator for vote - Geographical identities: European identity powerful predictor of Remain vote. British identity: opposite - Feelings about the domestic political establishment: Labour party voters more in favour of Remain, UKIP most likely to be Brexiteers, Scottish National Party more likely to remain - Policy attitudes: Issues mobilised in the campaign, such as economy and immigration, are highly correlated with vote choice. Those who felt immigration should be lowered voted Leave - Calls of referendums by populist Eurosceptic parties in countries post Brexit vote - In most countries: Support for the EU - Though, some divides in certain parties

answer

The Brexit Vote (Hobolt)

question

Policymaking Institutions: - At national level: Bundestag (federal parliament), lower house of parliament (Bundesrat) and executive (federal government - chancellor and cabinet) - 16 states constitute republic, they all have direct influence on national policy making through the Bundesrat. - Federal Constitutional Court: judicial review (important actor in policy process) - President: ceremonial head, above partisan political struggle - Some of German power controlled through EU institutions, i.e: European Court of Justice and European central bank The Federal Parliament (Bundestag): - Federal Parliament - Centre of policymaking - Legislative assembly - Elected every four years - Directly elected by the people Responsibilities: Legislation, election and control of gvt., supervision of bureaucracy and military, selection of judges of F.C. Court - Under Bismark, little power - Powers expanded under the Weimar republic (chancellor and cabinet directly responsible to it) - After WW2, parliament status and control grown - Responsibility for electing and controlling the government - Once government is elected, the government selects the federal chancellor - Controlled by: ability to request appearance of any cabinet or state official and similar to British style 'Question Hour' - Fraktionen - Seats distributed proportionally according to party strength - Most bills reported out in order to be amended or revised - When government discovers a bill is in trouble, bill is usually withdrawn for further study before a vote The Federal Council (Bundesrat): - Federal council - Interests of the states in the national policymaking process - 69 members drawn from sixteen states - Each state entitled to three to six members - 1969, Bundesrat no longer a ''watchdog'' over Bundestag - As a result: ''divided government'' (majority in Bundestag but not in Bundesrat) - I.e: 1969 to 1982 CDU/CSU union blocked most of proposals involving divorce, abortion, etc - 1991 onwards, SPD now became opposition party- progress on policies - But after 1999, Government had divided once more - State leaders can quickly go against party if it affects their region - Bundesrat veto can be overridden by majority two-thirds in Bundestag The Chancellor and the Cabinet - Chief executive of the Federal Republic is the chancellor - Less powerful than the US president, yet a chancellor has more authority and is more difficult to remove than a PM in British model. - President was previously powerful, but Basic Law framers sought to avoid a repetition of this problem by concentrating executive authority in the chancellor - Power of the chancellor: constitution, party system and precedents established by the first chancellor - Chancellor responsible for determining the main guidelines of the government's policies, so they're above ministers - Qualifications of members play role in selection - Constructive vote of no confidence: allows a parliament to withdraw confidence from a head of government only if there is a positive majority for a prospective successor. Vote of confidence: enables chancellors to strengthen their position by stabilising the governing majority. If he/she loses though, new elections can be triggered/resignation is possible 'Chancellor Democracy' - Term given to bureaucracy Konrad Adenauer (first chancellor) introduced to his government. - Parliamentary system with a strong, quasi-presidential executive. From Adenauer to Kiesinger - Adenauer chancellorship: economic miracle, integration of refugees, membership in the European Community, alliance with the US - Use powers to his fullest extent: He led. Little consultation. - Showed Germans that liberal republic could be efficient - Replaced by Erhard after his terms; he was dropped after Federal Republic suffered economic recession, replaced by Kiesinger - Kiesinger: Grand Coalition government with the SPD. Failed to get enough votes, passed from the national scene The First Social Democratic Chancellors: Brandt and Schmidt - Willy Brandt: new foreign policy (reconciliation with Germany's eastern neighbours, Ostpolitik). Treaties with Soviet Union and other Communist states - Began Détente - Image that Germany had overcome totalitarianism - Schmidt: economist - Came in time of Arab oil embarge of 1973, but he managed to control inflation and unemployment. Continued Ostpolitik on a lower scale. - Failed to appease left aspects of his own party - Unable to avoid worldwide recession of second oil price shock in 1979 - Replaced by Kohl in 1982 after losing majority Helmut Kohl - Intervention of East German elections in 1990 - Success of Alliance for Germany - Five step plan of integration for East Germany - December 1990 election in all of Germany, first free vote in all of Germany since 1932 - Liked more by Easterners: promise of economic prosperity - Four straight elections won - higher taxes in an attempt to improve East, recession in economy: lost majority in 1997 Gerard Schröder - First Chancellor of the 'Berlin Republic' - 1998-2005 - Incumbent government replaced - SPD and Green party coalition - Tax reform in 2000 - Couldn't help unemployment growth, by 2005 1 million unemployed - Credited for taking independent stance towards USA Angela Merkel: Chancellor for 'Hard Times'? - CDU/CSU coalition with SPD would only be possible with their own chancellor as head. - Merkel prevailed - Promised cuts in social programs, tax subsidies, increase value added tax -Economic recovery, reduce debt - Had to mediate to appease coalition - Job creation, health care reform and stability of European monetary system moved up on her agenda as her ratings dropped Formal Policymaking Procedures - Most legislation drafted in the ministries of the national gvt and submitted to the parliament for action - State governments and both houses of parliament can also submit legislative proposals - administrative regulations and legal ordinances do not require parliament consent, but if they affect states, they must be approved by the Bundesrat -Before a bill is submitted to parliament, is is approved by cabinet (government), then passed to Bundesrat, and the Bundestag considers it as well - After approval by Bundestag, the bill goes back to Bundesrat for a second reading The Judiciary (Germany) - Local, regional and state courts - Court systems specialising in labour, administration, tax, etc - German legal codes - The judge only administers and applies the codes, fitting the cases - Judge is neutral administrator of the codes - Inquisitorial system - Conventional/conservative values Justice in East Germany - After unification, many East German judges dismissed - Different conventions The Federal Constitutional Court - Independent of any justice ministry - Decisions on controversial political cases - Criticised for becoming too political

answer

Politics in Europe (Carman - Chapter 3.2)

STUDY

Applied Sociology Operating System Personal Information Playing The Game Social Networking Sites Windows

christian leadership Memes – Flashcards 30 terms

Lisa Currey

30 terms

Preview

christian leadership Memes – Flashcards

question

Be what you are and do what you want regardless

answer

red

question

life has meaning direction and purpose with predetermined outcomes

answer

blue

question

seek peace with inner self and explore with others the inner dimensions of community

answer

green

question

live fully and responsibly as what you are and learn to become

answer

yellow

question

experience the wholeness of existence through mind and spirit

answer

turquoise

question

differences can be integrated to interdependent natural flows

answer

yellow

question

forms survival bands to perpetuate life

answer

biege

question

what is the Gamma Trap barrier?

answer

a state of anger hopelessness and revolution

question

when this meme confronts the gamma trap barrier it will sink into righteous crusade, sponsor inquisitions and witch-hunts, and demonize the enemy while defying the true patriots

answer

blue

question

when this meme confronts the barrier of the gamma trap it will decend into a rigid holier-than-thou, politically correct stance, arrogantly questioning everybody else motives

answer

green

question

when this meme confronts the gamma trap it will evaluate the scene and depart or not after analysis of whether the cards are stacked against positive action

answer

Yellow

question

Spiritual bonds will will people and organizations together across space and time

answer

turquoise (bonds and organizations always T)

question

people enjoy doing that work which fits who they are naturally

answer

yellow *everybody has the right to be who they are-keeps things moving naturally!

question

people long to get along at be accepted by their peers as friends

answer

green

question

work must be meaningful to the overall health of all life

answer

turquoise

question

workers will put up with a lot so long as their basic needs are met

answer

red

question

higher authority rules by rightful compliance not by force or might

answer

blue

question

here and now success is evidence of rewards to come in the future

answer

blue

question

learning and understanding motivates people

answer

yellow

question

people must be shown their duty and learn by being punished for failures

answer

blue

question

Adhere to traditional ways or customs without change or disrespect

answer

purple

question

people must be dominated by stronger force to keep their lusts in check

answer

red

question

people have different competencies and capacities and most are okay

answer

yellow

question

workers are cogs in the system fulfilling rolls they're destined to do

answer

blue

question

organizations are responsible for the impact of their activities

answer

organizations= turquoise

question

people want free access to information tools and materials

answer

yellow

question

workers owe their organization loyalty bc it provides for their well being

answer

blue

question

workers owe their lives and soul to the paternal organization

answer

purple

question

in a good organization our primary concern is our role in the living system

answer

turquoise

question

loyalty earns job secures now and garnets future rewards

answer

blue

STUDY

Applied Sociology Cross Site Scripting IT Essentials: PC Hardware And Software Social Engineering Social Networking Site Social Security Card Software Virtual Private Network

Nonspecific Host Defenses – Flashcards 56 terms

Charles Clay

56 terms

Preview

Nonspecific Host Defenses – Flashcards

question

What must be compromised if bugs were to enter?

answer

skin and mucous membranes

question

What line of defense is specific?

answer

third ( first and second are nonspecific )

question

TF Nonspecific will attack with the same intensity every time it attacks

answer

question

What are the nonspecific host defense mechanisms? 6

answer

mechanical/physical barriers, chemical factors, microbial antagonism by normal flora, fever, inflammatory response, phagocytic white blood cells

question

What is the first line of defense?

answer

skin and mucous membranes

question

What are the chemical factors of skin and mucous membranes?

answer

dryness, acidity, fatty acids, perspiration, and mucous

question

What do you find in mucous membranes?

answer

tons of antibacterials (lysozyme, lactoferrin, lactoperoxidases

question

what are all the "first line of defense"

answer

skin and mucous membranes, respiratory system, digestive system, GI tract, microbial antagonism

question

What structures in the respiratory system help it to be a first line of defense

answer

hair, mucous membranes, sinuses, cilia, phagocytes, lysozymes

question

What helps the stomach be a first line of defense? 4 things

answer

digestive enzymes, acidity of stomach, alkalinity of intestines, bile

question

What helps the GI trat be a first line of defense

answer

flushing by urine, acidity of vagina

question

What does microbial antagonism do?

answer

prevents the colonization of new arrivals

question

What does microbial antagonism create?

answer

competition for colonization sites

question

What produces bateriocins?

answer

microbial antagonism

question

Define second line of defense (still nonspecific immunity)

answer

cellular, chemical responses

question

What can be a symptom of the second line of defense?

answer

fever

question

When are interferons produced? and what are they

answer

second line of defense, they are a class of molecules that all tissue can produce for defense

question

When is the complement system activated?

answer

second line of defense

question

When does inflammation occur?

answer

second line of defense

question

When do phagocytes undergo chemotaxis?

answer

second line of defense

question

When does phagocytosis occur?

answer

second line of defense

question

What synthesizes transferrin?

answer

the liver

question

What stores and delivers iron to cells?

answer

transferrin

question

What hold iron hostage and deprives pathogen of it?

answer

transferrin

question

What stimulates fever?

answer

pyrogens

question

What stimulates activity of WBCs

answer

pyrogens ( or fever )

question

What reduces plasma iron?

answer

pyrogens ( or fever )

question

What is interleukin-1

answer

chemical messengers that coordinates immune response that tells there is a problem

question

What slows down and kills pathogens?

answer

fever

question

What causes the achey feeling when you're sick?

answer

interferons

question

Define interferons

answer

small, antiviral proteins (made in response to a viral cell)

question

What produces interferons?

answer

virus-infected cells

question

What two things do interferons prevent?

answer

virus replication in non-infected cells and the spread of the virus

question

What is the complement system?

answer

a group of ~30 proteins in blood plasma that complements specific activity of the immune system

question

What is the complement cascade?

answer

The interaction of the 30 proteins occurs in a stepwise manner

question

What are the major consequences of the complement system?

answer

initiation and amplification of inflammation, attraction of phagocytes to sites where they are needed, activation of leukocytes, lysis of bacteria and other foreign cells, increaesd phagocytosis by phagocytic cells

question

Where do you find acute phase proteins

answer

in plasma

question

What do acute phase proteins do?

answer

enhance resistance to infection. They increase in response to infection, inflammation, tissue damage

question

What do acute phase proteins promote?

answer

tissue repair

question

What is C-reactive protein

answer

It helps to intensify the preparation process

question

What do cytokines do?

answer

help to coordinate the response of the immune system

question

Define cytokines

answer

chemical messengers released from many types of cells

question

What allows cells to communicate?

answer

cytokines

question

What causes some type of response in the cell sensing the it?

answer

cytokines

question

What is inflammation?

answer

response to local injury, irritation, microbial invasion, or bacterial toxins

question

What are the three major events of inflammation?

answer

increase in capillary diameter, increased permeability of capillaries, egress of leukocytes

question

What helps to keep infection localized

answer

inflammation

question

What prevents the spread of microbial invaders?

answer

inflammation

question

What neutralizes toxins?

answer

inflammation

question

what aids in tissue repair

answer

inflammaion

question

What is phagocytosis?

answer

surrounding and ingesting foreign material

question

What are the 3 granulocytes?

answer

neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

question

What are macrophages

answer

Really agressive, they do better than PMNs.

question

What are the 4 steps to phagocytosis?

answer

chemotaxis, attachment, ingestion, digestion

question

Leukocidin

answer

will kill off phagocytes

question

What are the 5 ways to avoid phagocytosis?

answer

capsules, leukocidin, waxes in cell walls, inactivate phagolysosome, prevent fusion of lysosome and phagosome

STUDY

Applied Sociology Media Term

C 9 – Flashcard 74 terms

Claire Scott

74 terms

Preview

C 9 – Flashcard

question

1) Web. 2.0 is a loose collection of information technologies and applications.

answer

True

question

2) Web 2.0 sites are primarily online places to visit.

answer

False

question

3) A tag is the way a developer describes a piece of information.

answer

False

question

4) Geo-tagging refers to tagging information on tour sites.

answer

False

question

5) A wiki is a collection of blogs.

answer

False

question

6) Companies monitor blogs for mention of their products.

answer

True

question

7) One can trust the content of blogs.

answer

False

question

8) Web 2.0 media sites allow people to share digital media.

answer

True

question

9) You must be a Web site developer in order to create a mashup.

answer

False

question

10) Buying a book online at Amazon is an example of social commerce.

answer

False

question

11) When using social commerce, the user has to leave the social network page in order to purchase a product.

answer

False

question

12) Businesses do not use social commerce for new products.

answer

False

question

13) Generating revenue from social networking sites is easy to do.

answer

False

question

14) Word of mouth marketing can be achieved using social shopping.

answer

True

question

15) Craigslist is an example of a shopping community.

answer

False

question

16) Viral marketing is an example of social advertising

answer

True

question

17) Social ads are placed in paid-for media space on social networking Web sites.

answer

True

question

18) Social apps are online apps that promote social interaction

answer

True

question

19) Ads cannot appear as YouTube videos.

answer

False

question

20) Communication marketing is using social media sites to get feedback.

answer

False

question

21) Social networks are helping marketing professionals understand who their customers are.

answer

True

question

22) People making online posts know that they are providing market research data.

answer

False

question

23) Social computing increases the need for customer service.

answer

False

question

24) Social computing empowers customers to act.

answer

True

question

25) Human Resources departments only use social computing for external tasks.

answer

False

question

26) More and more organizations are using social media for training sessions.

answer

True

question

27) Recruiters only use social computing to find people who are unemployed.

answer

False

question

28) Social computing sites are not utilized by passive job seekers.

answer

False

question

29) With Web 1.0 sites, users _________________, whereas with Web 2.0 sites, users _________________. a) Use HTML, use CCS b) Passively receive information, participate with the site. c) Use wired connections, use wireless connections. d) Have to know the address of the site, can use search engines to find a site e) Did not have to login to find information, have to login in to find information.

answer

b) Passively receive information, participate with the site.

question

30) You sign up for an RSS feed from CNN.com. Which of the following would you expect to happen? a) When you sign up, you will need to download print templates. b) You won't be able to search RSS content. c) You will be able to choose only one topic area. d) You will be notified of updates in the content areas you selected. e) You will get content sent to you via e-mail.

answer

d) You will be notified of updates in the content areas you selected.

question

31) Which of the following is not an example of Web 2.0 applications? a) Blogs b) Wikis c) Netcasting d) Crowdsourcing e) AJAX

answer

e) AJAX

question

32) Many companies are using ________ to capture updated product features and specifications. a) Blogs b) Netcasts c) RSS feeds d) Tags e) Wikis

answer

e) Wikis

question

33) Which of the following statements concerning blogging is false? a) Anyone can blog. b) A reader can believe all of the details in a blog. c) A company can maintain an internal blog site. d) Blogging can be used in marketing. e) Tweets are replacing blogging.

answer

b) A reader can believe all of the details in a blog.

question

34) You just started to work on a project with three other people. You realize that everyone has their own notes, which makes it hard for you to keep track of what has been done and what still needs to be done. Which of the following applications would you suggest the team use? a) Blogs b) Netcasts c) RSS feeds d) Tags e) Wikis

answer

e) Wikis

question

35) The comments of consumers in the blogosphere concerning a company's products are called ____________________. a) Free advertising b) Consumer-generated media. c) Consumer-generated PR d) Rumors e) Reliable feedback

answer

b) Consumer-generated media.

question

36) The reliability of the content in Wikipedia, the online encyclopedia, is questionable because a) All of the administrators are volunteers. b) No author has to identify himself or herself. c) The content is updated all the time. d) It is difficult to test the authenticity of the content due to the fact that anyone can contribute content. e) All of the above are reasons why the content is questionable.

answer

d) It is difficult to test the authenticity of the content due to the fact that anyone can contribute content.

question

37) A Web site that combines content from other Web sites to form new content is called a(n) ______. a) Social network b) Aggregator c) Blog d) E-commerce site e) Mashup

answer

e) Mashup

question

38) Which of the following is not a social networking site? a) Facebook b) YouTube c) Flickr d) Wikipedia e) LinkedIn

answer

d) Wikipedia

question

39) LinkedIn is a _______________________ social networking site that makes money from advertising and services. a) Training b) College c) Business-oriented d) Video-upload e) Blogging

answer

c) Business-oriented

question

40) Which type of social network allows users to edit and contribute content posted to a particular site? A) A Wiki B) B Blog C) RSS D) Mashup

answer

A) A Wiki

question

41) A business that wants to create a forum allowing employees to interact with coworkers would benefit from utilizing__________. A) RSS B) Mashups C) Enterprise Social Networks D) Microblogs

answer

C) Enterprise Social Networks

question

42) Building relationships, anticipating needs, and providing special deals for the community's members is a function of which category of Web 2.0 applications? a) Social networking b) Aggregators c) Blogs d) Crowdsourcing e) Social commerce

answer

e) Social commerce

question

43) Which of the following is an advantage of social commerce over traditional e-commerce? a) Loyalty b) The ability to predict buying habits based on real-time data c) Processing speed d) Crowdsourcing e) Reduced expenses

answer

b) The ability to predict buying habits based on real-time data

question

44) Which of the following is a true statement about the impact of social computing on a business? a) There is a high cost to using viral marketing b) It is difficult to gain information about customers c) A small minority of individuals contribute the majority of feedback and can provide skewed data d) Social computing does not allow for rapid feedback from customers.

answer

c) A small minority of individuals contribute the majority of feedback and can provide skewed data

question

45) Which of the following is not an example of social commerce? A) Wendy offers gift cards to online users for funniest response to various challenges. B) Pepsi Co. sends live notifications to customers when they are close to a store that sells their products. C) Disney allows people to book tickets on Facebook without leaving the site. D) Best Buy has a Web site which can be used to purchase products for pick up in a store. E) Zappo's uses Twitter to send customers coupons when they mention a Zappo's product.

answer

D) Best Buy has a Web site which can be used to purchase products for pick up in a store.

question

46) Which of the following is a risk of social computing? A) The content posted will not be found with a search engine. B) Employees will be willing to participate. C) Employees will maintain company privacy. D) Ignoring negative posts is easy to do. E) Consumer-generated content is not edited or filtered

answer

E) Consumer-generated content is not edited or filtered

question

47) Which of the following is true about social commerce? A) Social commerce only benefits customers. B) Social commerce only benefits businesses. C) Businesses can easily learn about customers' experiences. D) Social commerce is only concerned with the selling process. E) New products are never tested via social commerce.

answer

C) Businesses can easily learn about customers' experiences.

question

48) Which of the following is not an example of social shopping? A) Group shopping B) Going to Amazon.com to buy a book C) Shopping communities and clubs D) Social marketplaces E) Peer-to-peer shopping models

answer

B) Going to Amazon.com to buy a book

question

49) Groupon is an example of ________________ A) Shopping communities and clubs B) Social marketplace C) Group shopping D) Peer-to-peer shopping E) Collaborative consumption

answer

C) Group shopping

question

50) Which of the following ratings/reviews do companies routinely pay for? a) customer reviews b) expert ratings c) sponsored reviews d) none of the choices are correct

answer

c) sponsored reviews

question

51) Ratings, reviews, and recommendations A) Are always provided by businesses on their Web site. B) Are posted by experts. C) Are posted without compensation. D) Are an aspect of social shopping. E) Are not beneficial to the business

answer

D) Are an aspect of social shopping.

question

52) Social marketplaces act as online ______________ that harness the power of social networks for introducing, buying, and selling products and services. A) intermediaries B) shopping carts C) communities D) collaborative consumption E) mashup

answer

A) intermediaries

question

53) Which of the following is a type of collaborative consumption? A) Buying a new book from Amazon B) Craigslist C) Renting a car from Hertz or Avis D) Buying a e-textbook from your bookstore

answer

B) Craigslist

question

54) Which of the following social shopping methods contributes to environmental sustainability? A) Group shopping B) Peer-to-peer shopping C) Shopping clubs D) Social marketplaces

answer

B) Peer-to-peer shopping

question

55) Which of the following tools are not used by marketing professionals to compile market research? A) Blogs B) Wikis C) Online forums D) Social networking sites E) RSS

answer

E) RSS

question

56) The monitoring, collection, and analysis of socially generated data is called A) Social networking B) Social commerce C) Social intelligence D) Social advertising E) Social capital

answer

C) Social intelligence

question

57) All of the following are used to provide online market research except A) Reviews B) Recommendations C) Voting D) Emails E) Blogs

answer

D) Emails

question

58) Which of the following is false about social advertising? A) Social network sites have turned to advertising as a way to make revenue. B) Viral marketing is effective with social netwoirking C) Social advertising removes peer pressure from the buying decision. D) Social advertisements are placed in paid-for media space by companies. E) Social apps support social interactions and are managed by a company to promote its brand.

answer

C) Social advertising removes peer pressure from the buying decision.

question

59) Using social computing tools to do market research A) Is only done by consumers B) Is only done by businesses C) Is expensive D) Can foster closer customer relationships E) Uses only data provided to the business.

answer

D) Can foster closer customer relationships

question

60) Conversational marketing can take place in which of the following forums? A) Blogs B) Wikis C) Online forums D) Social networking sites E) All of the above

answer

E) All of the above

question

61) The monitoring, collection, and analysis of socially generated data, and the resultant strategic decisions are combined in a process known as_________. A) social commerce B) social intelligence C) social capital D) social networking

answer

B) social intelligence

question

62) Which of the following is true about the impact of social computing on customer service? A) It's harder for customers to be heard by a company. B) Businesses can take their time responding to social media posts. C) Customers themselves can be used to reduce problems. D) Businesses will only get negative comments on social media posts.

answer

C) Customers themselves can be used to reduce problems.

question

63) Social computing has allowed customers A) To be advocates and influencers. B) To continue to have to be passive with their interactions with companies C) To be forced to interact more often with customer service. D) To be restricted to only posting positive feedback about products.

answer

A) To be advocates and influencers.

question

64) One of the problems that HR departments have with using social computing to recruit is a) all candidates seek them out b) they only receive qualified applications c) they receive many more applications than they can process. d) social sites each have their own special niche e) they cannot be used for internal tasks.

answer

c) they receive many more applications than they can process.

question

65) HR departments use social computing applications to assist them in which of the following activities: A) Recruiting B) Training C) Regrouping teams D) Managing downsizing E) All of the above

answer

E) All of the above

question

66) Refer to IT's About Business 9.1 - Tiger Tans and Gifts: Which of the following is true about Lisa's use of Facebook to grow her business? a) Lisa had to build her own Web site b) Lisa does not do online selling via Facebook. c) Lisa only posts on her page when she has a new product. d) Lisa is using crowdsourcing to get new product designs.

answer

b) Lisa does not do online selling via Facebook.

question

67) Refer to IT's About Business 9.1 - Tiger Tans and Gifts: Lisa Kelling is able to use her business's Facebook page to do the following: a) Create an online presence for her business b) Provide information (e.g., location and times) about her business c) Let customers place orders online d) Post pictures of new product designs

answer

c) Let customers place orders online

question

68) Refer to IT's About Business 9.3 - Pinterest: Pinterest is: a) a site that allows users to explore through information shared by friends. b) in direct competition with Facebook. c) a shareable online bulletin board. d) making money

answer

c) a shareable online bulletin board.

question

69) Refer to IT's About Business 9.4: Twitter can only be used to get across messages for your own organization /product?

answer

False

question

70) Refer to IT's About Business 9.5 - Buying a Vehicle Takes Work: Cars.com integrates different types of data from different sources and presents it to customers. Which of the following is false about its Web 2.0 efforts? a) Cars.com earns revenue from online classified ads. b) Users need to join Cars.com in order to obtain pricing quotes from dealerships. c) Their site offers user-generated content from customers. d) The company has mobile apps. e) Cars.com uses Facebook and Twitter to increase its visibility.

answer

b) Users need to join Cars.com in order to obtain pricing quotes from dealerships.

question

71) Refer to IT's About Business 9.6 - So You Want to Find a Job: Which of the following is a benefit of searching for a job online? a) It's easy to find potential positions online. b) Software filters are as effective as human reviews. c) There are only a few hundred resumes for each posted position d) There are only a few sites to review. e) Social networking can help personalize the search.

answer

e) Social networking can help personalize the search.

question

72) YouTube does not earn direct revenue from a) Text and Video Advertising b) Promoted videos c) Branded Channels d) Television Movie Studios e) YouTube earns direct revenue from all the above

answer

e) YouTube earns direct revenue from all the above

question

73) Refer to Opening Case #1 - Facebook Commerce: Which of the following is true about Facebook commerce? a) Shoppers can make purchases without leaving Facebook. b Only traditional retailers can have Facebook stores. c) Facebook credits can only be purchased through Facebook. d) Facebook charges businesses to set up a storefront.

answer

a) Shoppers can make purchases without leaving Facebook.

question

74) Refer to Closing Case - Can Anyone Succeed with Local, Online Advertising? The main challenge for Yelp's profitability is a) Lack of customer participation b) Lack of paying clients c) Competition from Google and Facebook d) (a) and (b) only

answer

c) Competition from Google and Facebook

STUDY

Applied Sociology Credit Card Numbers Intrusion Detection Systems Networks Secure Sockets Layer Social Security Numbers Virtual Private Network

Eric Hatch ISYS Test 2 – Flashcards 115 terms

Claire Scott

115 terms

Preview

Eric Hatch ISYS Test 2 – Flashcards

question

___is the process of capturing and recording network traffic.

answer

Sniffing

question

A ____ is an inexperienced, usually young hacker who uses programs that others have developed to attack computer and network systems.

answer

Script Kiddie

question

____ are hackers who specialize in unauthorized penetration of information systems.

answer

Black Hats

question

____ are computer security experts who specialize in penetration testing and other testing methods to ensure that a company's information systems are secure.

answer

White Hats

question

____ means that a system must prevent disclosing information to anyone who is not authorized to access it.

answer

Confidentiality

question

____ refers to the accuracy of information resources within an organization.

answer

Integrity

question

____ means that computers and networks are operating and authorized users can access the information they need.

answer

Availability

question

Level 1 security involves ____.

answer

Front-End servers

question

Level 2 security involves ____.

answer

Back-end systems

question

Level 3 security involves ____.

answer

Corporate networks

question

Which of the following is considered an intentional threat?

answer

Social Engineering

question

A ____ travels from computer to computer in a network, but it does not usually erase data.

answer

Worm

question

A logic bomb is a type of ____.

answer

Trojan Program

question

A ____ is a programming routine built into a system by its designer or programmer.

answer

Backdoor

question

A ____ attack floods a network or server with service requests to prevent legitimate users' access to the system.

answer

Denial-of-Service

question

A ____ attack typically targets Internet servers.

answer

Denial-of-Service

question

____ take advantage of the human element of security systems.

answer

Social Engineering Attacks

question

____ security measures use a physiological element to enhance security measures.

answer

Biometric

question

Which of the following is a biometric security measure?

answer

Signature Analysis

question

Which of the following is a nonbiometric security measure?

answer

Firewalls

question

A(n) ____ is software that acts as an intermediary between two systems.

answer

Proxy server

question

____ are usually placed in front of a firewall and can identify attack signatures and trace patterns.

answer

Intrusion detection systems

question

Which of the following is a physical security measure?

answer

Electronic trackers

question

Which of the following is a type of access control?

answer

Passwords

question

A(n) ____ is often used so remote users have a secure connection to the organization's network.

answer

Virtual private network

question

Typically, an organization leases the media used for a VPN on a(n) ____ basis.

answer

as-needed

question

Data encryption transforms data into a scrambled form called ____.

answer

Ciphertext

question

____ is a commonly used encryption protocol that manages transmission security on the Internet.

answer

Secure Sockets Layer

question

____ ensures data security and integrity over public networks, such as the Internet.

answer

Transport Layer Security

question

____ encryption uses a public key known to everyone and a private key known only to the recipient.

answer

Asymmetric

question

In ____ encryption, the same key is used to encrypt and decrypt the message.

answer

Symmetric

question

Many organizations now follow the ____ model to form teams that can handle network intrusions and attacks quickly and effectively.

answer

CERT

question

The main function of the ____ model is to provide information on security incidents, including information systems' vulnerabilities, viruses, and malicious programs.

answer

CIRC

question

____ outlines procedures for keeping an organization operational in the event of a natural disaster or network attack.

answer

Business continuity planning

question

A ____ plan lists the tasks that must be performed to restore damaged data and equipment.

answer

Disaster recovery

question

The amount of data that can be transferred from one point to another in one second is called ____.

answer

Bandwidth

question

In _____ data transmission, multiple pieces of data are sent simultaneously.

answer

Broadband

question

____ cables are thick cables that can be used for both data and voice transmissions.

answer

Coaxial

question

____ cables are glass tubes surrounded by concentric layers of glass, called "cladding," to form a light path through wire cables.

answer

Fiber-optic

question

____ media operate on line-of-sight.

answer

Terrestrial microwave

question

In ____ processing, each department has its own computer for performing processing tasks.

answer

Decentralized

question

The ____ layer of the OSI model serves as the window through which applications access network services.

answer

Application

question

The _____ layer of the OSI model formats message packets.

answer

Presentation

question

The ____ layer of the OSI model generates the receiver's address and ensures the integrity of messages by making sure packets are delivered without error, in sequence, and with no loss or duplication.

answer

Transport

question

The ____ layer of the OSI model specifies the electrical connections between computers and the transmission medium, and is primarily concerned with transmitting binary data, or bits over a communication network

answer

Data Link

question

Another name for a network interface card is a(n) ____.

answer

Adapter Card

question

LANs are used most often to ____.

answer

intergate services, such as e-mail and file sharing

question

A network ____ represents a network's physical layout.

answer

Topology

question

In a bus topology, ____ are used at each end of the cable to absorb the signal.

answer

Terminators

question

A hierarchical topology is also called a ____ topology.

answer

Tree

question

Traditional mainframe networks use a ____ topology.

answer

Hierarchical

question

A ____ is a hardware device that allows several nodes to share one communication channel.

answer

Multiplexer

question

The ____ topology is costly and difficult to maintain and expand.

answer

Mesh

question

The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) operates at the OSI model's ____ layer.

answer

Transport

question

The process of deciding which path the data takes on a network is called ____.

answer

Routing

question

A routing table lists ____.

answer

nodes on a network

question

A ____ router can build tables that identify addresses on each network.

answer

Dynamic

question

What is the first step in client/server communication?

answer

The user creates a query

question

____ scaling refers to adding more workstations (clients).

answer

Horizontal

question

The most common n-tier architecture involves ____ tiers.

answer

Three

question

A ____ network is a network operating on a radio frequency (RF), consisting of radio cells, each served by a fixed transmitter.

answer

Mobile

question

____ is using a cellular phone outside of a carrier's limited service area.

answer

Surfing

question

In the context of the technologies developed to improve the efficiency and quality of digital communications, ____ divide(s) each channel into six time slots.

answer

Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

question

Within the ____ technique for wireless security, a user's computer and the AP use a master key to negotiate for a key that will be used for a session.

answer

Wi-Fi Protected Access 2

question

In data communication, ____ refers to integrating voice, video, and data so that multimedia information can be used for decision making.

answer

Convergence

question

The Internet started in ____.

answer

1969

question

Documents that include embedded references to audio, text, images, video, and other documents are called ____.

answer

Hypermedia

question

A(n) ____ is the address of a document or site on the Internet.

answer

URL

question

The ____ denotes the type of organization or country the address specifies.

answer

TLD

question

In the URL, http://www.csub.edu/~hbidgoli/books.html, ____ represents the name of the directory in which files are stored.

answer

~hbidgoli

question

Symmetric DSL usually has an upstream rate of ____ Mbps.

answer

1.5

question

Microsoft Internet Explorer (IE), Mozilla Firefox, Google Chrome, Apple Safari, and Opera are examples of ____.

answer

URLs

question

Google.com, Bing.com, and Ask.com are examples of ____.

answer

Search engines

question

Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mails?

answer

SMTP

question

Which of the following protocols is used for retrieving messages?

answer

POP

question

____ are usually formed for people to exchange opinions and ideas on a specific topic, usually of a technical or scholarly nature.

answer

Discussion groups

question

Which of the following protocols is used for Internet telephony?

answer

VolP

question

____ is also called a corporate portal.

answer

An intranet

question

Which of the following is true of the Internet?

answer

It has less security measures than an intranet.

question

The Federal Express Tracking System allows customers to enter a package's tracking number and locate any package still in the system as well as prepare and print shipping forms, get tracking numbers, and schedule pickups. Federal Express is an example of a(n) ____.

answer

Extranet

question

A(n) ____ is a journal or newsletter that is updated frequently and intended for the general public.

answer

Blog

question

A(n) ____ is a type of Web site that allows users to add, delete, and sometimes modify content.

answer

Wiki

question

____ are Web sites that allow users to connect with friends, family, and colleagues online as well as meet people with similar interests or hobbies.

answer

Social Networking sites

question

A(n) ____ is an electronic audio file that is posted on the Web for users to download to their mobile devices or computers.

answer

Podcast

question

The Internet2 (I2) project started in ____.

answer

1987

question

Another term that is use interchangeably with e-commerce is ____.

answer

e-business

question

____ introduced the value chain concept.

answer

Michael Porter

question

____ is a supporting activity in the value chain.

answer

Technological development

question

E-commerce fulfills the product information activity using ____.

answer

Web Sites

question

"____" means all market participants can trade at the same price.

answer

Price Transparency

question

Using the ____ model transfers the old retail model to the e-commerce world by using the medium of the Internet.

answer

Merchant

question

Using the ____ model brings sellers and buyers together on the Web and collects commissions on transactions between these parties.

answer

Brokerage

question

E-commerce sites that use the ____ model collect information on consumers and businesses and then sell this information to other companies for marketing purposes.

answer

Informediary

question

E-commerce sites that use the _____ model collect data on consumers and businesses and then sell this data to other companies for marketing purposes.

answer

informediary

question

____ is a pure-play company.

answer

Amazon.com

question

____ is a major player in B2B e-commerce.

answer

Walmart

question

____ is a site that facilitates C2C e-commerce.

answer

eBay

question

Crisis response is an example of a ____ e-government application.

answer

government-to-government

question

E-training for government officials is an example of a ____ application.

answer

government-to-employee

question

E-procurement is an example of the ____ B2B e-commerce model.

answer

seller-side marketplace

question

The main objective of ____ is to prevent purchases from suppliers that are not on the approved list of sellers and eliminate the processing costs of purchases.

answer

e-procurement

question

A ____ generates revenue from the fees charged for matching buyers and sellers.

answer

third-party exchange market-places

question

A ____ market concentrates on a specific function or business process and automates this function or process for different industries.

answer

Horizontal

question

Mobile commerce (m-commerce) is based on the ____ protocol.

answer

wireless application

question

____ refers to money or scrip that is exchanged only electronically.

answer

Electronic payment

question

____ usually works with a smart card.

answer

e-cash

question

An ____ is available for most handheld devices that stores personal and financial information, such as credit card numbers, passwords, and PINs.

answer

e-wallet

question

____ is a popular on-line payment system used on many on-line auction sites.

answer

PayPal

question

Which term describes one user viewing one ad?

answer

Ad impression

question

_____ display ads appear on top of a browser window, blocking the user's view.

answer

Pop-up

question

Which of the following terms is computed by dividing the number of clicks an ad gets by the total impressions bought?

answer

Click-through rate (CTR)

question

____ is an application of artificial intelligence that can be used for Web marketing.

answer

Intelligent agents

question

With ____ technology, information is sent to users based on their previous inquiries, interests, or specifications.

answer

Push

question

____ is a method for improving the volume or quality of traffic to a Web site.

answer

Search engine optimization

question

A Web page displayed when the user first visits the site is called _____.

answer

Splash screen

STUDY

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