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I play pokemon go everyday – Flashcards 4 terms

Michael Seabolt

4 terms

Preview

I play pokemon go everyday – Flashcards

question

cyberbully channels are

answer

cancer cancer cancer cancer

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leafyishere

answer

pyrocynical

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ricegum and

answer

keemstar

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pokemon go

answer

everyday

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Anti Virus Software Commands Computer Skills Near The Top Quick Access Toolbar Time And Date Usb Flash Drive

Word 2013 EOC Study Guide – Flashcards 140 terms

Roy Johnson

140 terms

Preview

Word 2013 EOC Study Guide – Flashcards

question

____ is the newest version of Microsoft Windows

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Windows 8

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A(n) ____ is a set of computer instructions

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computer program

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A(n) ____ consist of programs designed to make users more productive and/or assist them with personal tasks.

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app

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The Windows 8 interface begins with the ____.

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Start screen

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A ____ is a horizontal or vertical bar that appears when the contents of an area may not be visible completely on the screen.

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scroll bar

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A ____ consists of one or more keys that you press to perform tasks using the keyboard.

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keyboard shortcut

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To use an app, you must instruct the operating system to ____ the app.

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run

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Tap or click the ____ document thumbnail on the Word start screen to create a blank Word document in the Word window, as shown in the accompanying figure.

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Blank

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____ view shows the document on a mock sheet of paper in the document window.

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Print Layout

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The ____ provides convenient, one-tap or one-click access to frequently used commands.

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Quick Access Toolbar

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The ____ tab opens the Backstage view for each Office app.

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FILE

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If you want to learn more about a command, point to its button and wait for the ____ to appear.

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ScreenTip

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Pressing the ____ key while a dialog box is displayed opens a Help window.

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question

The default view in Word is ____.

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Print Layout view

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To enter a blank line into a document, press the ____ key without typing any text on the line.

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ENTER

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Press the ENTER key in all of the following circumstances ____.

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to insert a blank line into a document, to begin a new paragraph, in response to prompts in Word dialog boxes

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If a flagged word is spelled correctly, right-click it and then click ____ on the shortcut menu to instruct Word not to flag future occurrences of the same word in this document.

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Ignore All

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The ____, or typeface, defines the appearance and shape of letters, numbers, and special characters.

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font

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On most computers, the default font size in Word is ____.

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question

A(n) ____ paragraph is a paragraph that begins with a dot or other symbol.

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bulleted

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The file type ____ identifies a Word 2013 document.

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.docx

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The default color scheme is called ____.

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Office

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The small squares and circles around a selected graphic are called ____ handles.

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sizing

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When you tap or click the ____ button for a selected graphic, Word provides options for changing how a graphic is positioned with text in a document.

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Layout Options

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To see the height and width of the currently selected graphic, look in the ____ group on the Picture Tools Format tab.

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Size

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On the works cited page, list works by each author's last name, as shown in the accompanying figure, or, if the author's name is not available, by the _____.

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title of the source

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A note reference mark signals that an explanatory note exists at the bottom of the page as a(n) ____, as shown in the accompanying figure.

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footnote

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Headers and footers can include text and graphics, as well as the _____.

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current date, page number, current time

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Headers print in the top margin ____ inch from the top of every page.

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one-half

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The shortcut keys used to left-align a paragraph are ____.

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CTRL+L

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The shortcut keys used to center a paragraph are ____.

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CTRL+E

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To right-align a paragraph, use the ____ shortcut keys.

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CTRL+R

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Although you can use a dialog box to indent paragraphs, Word provides a quicker way through the ____.

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horizontal ruler

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The _____ feature automatically corrects typing, spelling, capitalization, or grammar errors as you type them.

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AutoCorrect

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If you do not want to keep a change automatically made by Word and you immediately notice the automatic correction, you can undo the change by clicking the Undo button on the ____.

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Quick Access Toolbar

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Footnote text is _____.

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single-spaced, left-aligned, and a smaller font size than the text in the research paper

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According to the MLA style, the _____ is a list of sources that are referenced directly in a research paper.

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works cited page

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Which of the following is a bibliographic source?

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map, memo, letter

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____ is the process of copying an item from the Office Clipboard into the document at the location of the insertion point.

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Pasting

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With ____ editing, Word automatically displays a Paste Options button near the pasted or moved text.

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drag-and-drop

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A(n) ____ is a book of synonyms

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thesaurus

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Business documents can include all of the following

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resumes, proposals, newsletters

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An effective business document should ____.

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have a professional appearance, convey its message concisely, and convey its message clearly

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A letterhead should contain all of the following ____.

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the complete legal name of the individual or company, telephone number, and mailing address

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Word provides a(n) ____ button, which increases the font size of selected text each time you tap or click the button.

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Increase Font Size

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The Increase Font Size button appears on the ____ tab.

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HOME

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____ is a predefined graphic.

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Clip art

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A ____ symbol is another name for a dot symbol.

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bullet

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To convert a hyperlink to regular text, right-click the hyperlink and then click ____ on the shortcut menu.

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Remove Hyperlink

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Essential business letter elements include the ____.

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date line, inside address, message, signature block

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In a business letter, type the ____ at least four blank lines below the complimentary close, allowing room for the author to sign his or her name.

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signature block

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Word, by default, places a tab stop at every ____ mark on the ruler.

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.5"

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In the ____ letter style, all components of the letter begin flush with the left margin.

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block

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In the ____ letter style, the date, complimentary close, and signature block are positioned approximately one-half inch to the right of center or at the right margin.

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modified block

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To advance rightward from one cell to the next in a table, press the ____ key.

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TAB

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To select multiple cells, rows, or columns in the table in the accompanying figure if they are not adjacent to one another, select the first cell and then hold down the ____ key while selecting the next cell, row, or column.

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CTRL

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All of the following are vertical alignment options

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Center, Top, Bottom

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The Bullets button is available on the HOME tab of the Ribbon in the ____ group.

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Paragraph

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The chapter lists all of the following types of proposal ___.

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planning, research, sales

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A(n) ____ proposal usually requests funding for a research project.

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research

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A(n) ____ proposal is a proposal that sells an idea, a product, or a service.

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sales

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A(n) ____ proposal is a proposal that offers solutions to a problem or improvements to a situation.

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planning

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Graphics you can select to reinforce the goal of your document include all of the following EXCEPT ____.

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typographs

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Click ____ in the Borders gallery to remove all borders.

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No Border

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If you do not want the border style to carry forward each time the ENTER key is pressed, you need to ____.

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clear formatting

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To save an active document with a new file name, tap or click ____ to display the Save As gallery.

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FILE on the ribbon to open the Backstage view and then tap or click the Save As tab

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Press the ____ key to delete a section break to the right of the insertion point.

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DELETE

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Press the ____ key to delete a section break to the left of the insertion point.

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BACKSPACE

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To insert a document into an open Word document, tap or click the ____.

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Object arrow on the INSERT tab

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Use the ____ button on the TABLE TOOLS LAYOUT tab to create two cells from one in a table.

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Split Cells

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Use the ____ button on the TABLE TOOLS LAYOUT tab to create a single cell that spans across several rows in a table.

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Merge Cells

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The formula for summing a column in a table is ____.

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=SUM(ABOVE)

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To create a watermark, you tap or click the ____.

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Watermark button on the DESIGN tab

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To assist with the task of creating certain types of documents, Word provides ____.

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templates

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When you select an online template, Word downloads it from the ____ website to your computer or mobile device.

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Office.com

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A(n) ____ resume groups information by skills and accomplishments.

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functional

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A(n) ____ resume is recommended by experts for an entry-level job search.

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chronological

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At a minimum, your resume should present all of the following EXCEPT ____.

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past salaries earned

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If you accidentally drag text to the wrong location, click the ____ button on the Quick Access Toolbar and try again.

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Undo

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Each time you tap or click the Increase Indent button, the paragraph is indented ____ inch.

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one-half

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A ____ is a formatted object that you can reuse in a document.

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building block

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All of the following are examples of building blocks

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footers, page numbers, text boxes

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The ____ format enables users easily to share documents with others

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PDF

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Word 2013 documents have a file type of ____.

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.docx

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The file extension for webpages is ____.

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.htm

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____ is the process of making a webpage available to others on a network.

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Publishing

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To generate form letters, you create a main document for the form letter, create or specify a data source, and then ____ the main document with the data source.

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merge

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When using Word's mail merge to create form letters, the first task is to ____.

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identify the type of main document

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Word typically provides ____ types of main documents.

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five

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Typical installations of Word support all of the following types of main documents ___.

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letters ,a directory, email messages, envelopes, and labels

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When creating form letters, you either can type the letter from scratch in a blank document window or use a letter ____.

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template

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If you enter the contents of a main document from scratch, you can compose it according to any of the following ___ styles.

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block, modified block, semi-block

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Open the ____ view and then click Options to display the Word Options dialog box.

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Backstage

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A data source often is shown as a(n) ____.

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table that consists of a series of rows and columns

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In the data source, a ____ represents a group of similar data.

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data field

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Field names ____.

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must be unique

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In a data source, fields ____.

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may be listed in any order

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All of the following are field names supplied by Word ____.

answer

Address Line 1, Zip Code, Title

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Business letters should contain all of the following ____.

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an inside address, signature block, date line

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Many business letters contain all of the following ____.

answer

an attention line, complimentary close, reference initials

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When the long edge of paper is at the top, Word is printing a document in ____ orientation.

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landscape

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When the long edge of paper is at the side, Word is printing a document in ____ orientation.

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portrait

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You can tap or click the ____ button on the Quick Access Toolbar to cancel your most recent action.

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Undo

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To change all margin settings, use the Margins button on the ____ tab.

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PAGE LAYOUT

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____ enable(s) you to create text with special effects.

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WordArt

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The button used to create WordArt is located on the ____ tab.

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INSERT

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To delete a WordArt graphic, press and hold or right-click it and then tap or click ____ on the shortcut menu.

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Cut

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When you insert a drawing object in a Word document, the default text wrapping is ____.

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Square

question

When you press the ENTER key in a bordered paragraph, Word ____.

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carries the border forward to the next paragraph

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To remedy ____ in a paragraph, you can add or rearrange words, change the column width, change the font size, and so on.

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rivers

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To create a drop cap, display the ____ tab on the menu bar and then click the Drop Cap button.

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INSERT

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You specify a column break in the ____ gallery.

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Insert Page and Section Breaks

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When inserting a new column break, Word places the break at the ____.

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location of the insertion point

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To return to a single Word window from a split window, click the ____ button on the View tab.

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Remove Split

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When an object is pasted, the item being copied is called the ____.

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source

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To balance columns, a ____ is inserted at the end of the text on a page.

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continuous section break

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____ graphics are visual representations of ideas.

answer

SmartArt

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The options for zooming pages in a document are available on the ____ tab.

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VIEW

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Which of the following is an example of collaboration?

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Merging edits from multiple users, showing edits made to a document so that others can review the edits, comparing two documents to determine the differences between them

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A ____ is an informal document that businesses use to correspond with others.

answer

memo

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Reviewers often use ____, like the ones in the accompanying figure, to communicate suggestions, tips, and other messages to the author of a document.

answer

comments

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A(n) ____, like the one in the accompanying figure, is a note inserted in a document.

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comment

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When you edit a document that has the Track Changes feature enabled, Word marks all text or graphics that you insert, delete, or modify and refers to the revisions as ____.

answer

markups

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To see how a document looked before any changes were made, click the 'Display for Review' button arrow and then click ____ on the Display for Review menu.

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Original

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You can use the ____ tab to review comments one at a time.

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REVIEW

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When you mark a document as final, this makes the document a ____ file.

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read-only

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When you copy part or all of the document created in one Office program, the item being copied is called the ____.

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object

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When you copy an object and then paste it, the object becomes part of the ____ document.

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destination

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You should be confident that a source file does not contain a(n) ____ or other potentially harmful program before you instruct Word to link the source file to the destination document.

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virus

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When you edit a(n) ____ worksheet, Excel runs and displays the Excel workbook that contains the worksheet.

answer

linked

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The intersection of a column in a row in Excel is a ____.

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cell

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Cell reference ____ refers to the cell located at the intersection of column A and row 1.

answer

question

Microsoft ____ is a legacy charting program included with previous versions of Word.

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Graph

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If you turn off ____ scrolling you can scroll through each document individually.

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synchronous

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Which of the following is a blogging service that works with Word 2013?

answer

TypePad

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____ have become an important means of worldwide communications.

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Blogs

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A blog consists of ____.

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posts

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A ____ is the unique address for a Web page.

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URL

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Among the vertical alignment options, ____ is the default.

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Top

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If you restrict a user to be unable to make any edits, you have made the document ____.

answer

read only

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Anti Virus Software Cisco Internet Intrusion Detection Systems IT Essentials: PC Hardware And Software Network Security

5.0 Network Security – Flashcards 63 terms

Josephine Mack

63 terms

Preview

5.0 Network Security – Flashcards

question

You want to install a firewall that can reject packets that are not part of an active session. Which type of firewall should you use?

answer

Circuit-level.

question

Which IDS method searches for intrusion or attack attempts by recognizing patterns or identities listed in a database?

answer

Signature-based

question

Which of the following is the most important thing to do to prevent console access to the router?

answer

Keep the router in a locked room

question

Which of the following is the best device to deploy to protect your private network from a public untrusted network?

answer

Firewall

question

Of the following security zones, which one can serve as a buffer network between a private secured network and the untrusted Internet?

answer

Intranet

question

What is the most common form of host-based IDS that employs signature or pattern matching detection methods?

answer

Anti-virus software

question

Which of the following is a security service that monitors network traffic in real time or reviews the audit logs on servers looking for security violations?

answer

IDS

question

Which of the following are performed by proxies?

answer

Block employees from accessing certain Web sites. Cache web pages.

question

You have been given a laptop to use for work. You connect the laptop to your company network, use it from home and use it while traveling. You want to protect the laptop from Internet-based attacks. Which solution should you use?

answer

Host based firewall.

question

You have used firewalls to create a demilitarized zone. You have a Web server that needs to be accessible to Internet users. The Web server must communicate with a database server for retrieving product, customer, and order information. How should you place devices on the network to best protect the servers?

answer

Put the database server on the private network. Put the Web server on the DMZ.

question

Which of the following are characteristics of a circuit-level gateway?

answer

Filters based on sessions. Stateful.

question

Your company has a connection to the Internet that allows users to access the Internet. You also have a Web server and an e-mail server that you want to make available to Internet users. You want to create a DMZ for these two servers. Which type of device should you use to create the DMZ?

answer

Network based firewall.

question

Which of the following mobile device security consideration will disable the ability to use the device after a short period of inactivity?

answer

Screen lock

question

Which of the following are NOT reasons to remote wipe a mobile device?

answer

When the device is inactive for a period of time

question

A smart phone was lost at the airport. There is no way to recover the device. Which of the following will ensure data confidentiality on the device?

answer

Remote wipe

question

Which of the following are true of a circuit proxy filter firewall?

answer

Operates at the Session Layer Verifies sequencing of session packets

question

You have just installed a packet-filtering firewall on your network. What options will you be able to set on your firewall? Select all that apply.

answer

Source address of a packet, Destination address of a packet, AND Port Number

question

When designing a firewall, what is the recommended approach for opening and closing ports?

answer

Close all ports open, only ports required by applications inside the DMZ

question

Which of the following are characteristics of a packet filtering firewall?

answer

Stateless Filters IP address and port

question

You connect your computer to a wireless network available at the local library. You find that you can access all web sites you want on the Internet except two. What might be causing the problem?

answer

A proxy server is blocking access to the web sites

question

Which of the following is a firewall function?

answer

Packet filtering

question

You provide Internet access for a local school. You want to control Internet access based on user, and prevent access to specific URLs. Which type of firewall should you install?

answer

Application level

question

You manage a small network at work. Users use workstations connected to your network. No portable computers are allowed. As part of your security plan, you would like to implement scanning of emails for all users. You want to scan the emails and prevent any emails with malicious attachments from being received by users. Your solution should minimize administration, allowing you to centrally manage the scan settings. Which solution should you use?

answer

Network based firewall

question

You have a company network that is connected to the internet. You want all users to have internet access, but need to protect your private network and users. You also need to make private network and users. You also need to make a Web server publicly available to Internet users. Which solution should use?

answer

Use firewalls to create a DMZ. Place the Web server inside the DMZ, and the private network behind the DMZ

question

You manage a network that uses a single switch. All ports within your building connect through the single switch. In the lobby of your building are three RJ-45 ports connected to the switch. You want to allow visitors to plug into these ports to gain Internet access, but they should not have access to any other devices on your private network. Employees connected throughout the rest of your building should have both private and Internet access. Which feature should you implement?

answer

VLANs

question

Which of the following best describes the concept of a virtual LAN?

answer

Devices on the same network logically grouped as if they were grouped on separate networks.

question

When configuring VLANs on a switch, what type of switch ports are members of all VLANs defined on the switch?

answer

Trunk ports

question

Your company is a small start-up company that has leased office space in a building shared by other businesses. All businesses share a common network infrastructure. A single switch connects all devices in the building to the router that provides Internet access. You would like to make sure that your computers are isolated from computers used by other companies. Which feature should you request to have implemented?

answer

VLAN

question

You manage a network that uses switches. In the lobby of your building are three RJ-45 ports connected to a switch. You want to make sure that visitors cannot plug in their computers to the free network jacks and connect to the network. However, employees who plug into those same jacks should be able to connect to the network. What feature should you configure?

answer

Port authentication

question

You want to increase the security of your network by allowing only authenticated users to be able to access network devices through a switch? Which one of the following should you implement?

answer

802.1x

question

Which of the following applications typically use 802.1x authentication?

answer

Controlling access through a switch Controlling access though a wireless access point

question

Which of the following devices can monitor a network and detect potential security attacks?

answer

IDS

question

Which of the following devices is capable of detecting and responding to security threats?

answer

IPS

question

Which of the following is a privately controlled portion of a network that is accessible to some specific external entities?

answer

Extranet

question

In which of the following situations would you most likely implement a demilitarized zone(DMZ)?

answer

You want to protect a public Web server from attack

question

Which of the following is likely to be located in a DMZ?

answer

FTP Server

question

You want to install a firewall that can reject packets that are not part of an active session. What type of firewall should you use?

answer

Circuit-level

question

What do host based intrusion detection systems often rely upon to perform their detection activities?

answer

Host system auditing capabilities

question

What actions can a typical passive IDS take when it detects an attack?

answer

The IDS logs all pertinent data about the intrusion An alert is generate and delivered via email, the console, or SNMP trap.

question

Network based intrusion detection is the most suited to detect and prevent what type of attacks?

answer

bandwidth-based denial of service attacks

question

Which of the following prevents access based on website ratings and classifications?

answer

Content filter

question

What does an IDS that uses signature recognition use for identifying attacks?

answer

Comparisons to a database of known attacks

question

You want to implement an IDS that uses rules or statistical analysis to detect attacks. What type of IDS should you deploy?

answer

Anomaly based IDS

question

Which of the following solutions would you implement to track which websites that network users are accessing?

answer

Proxy

question

Which of the following are security devices that perform stateful inspection of packet data, looking for patterns that indicate malicious code?

answer

IDS IPS

question

You would like to control internet access based on users, time of day, and web sites visited. How can you do this?

answer

Install a proxy server. Allow internet access only through the proxy server.

question

When configuring VLANs on a switch, what is used to identify VLAN membership of a device?

answer

Switch port

question

Which of the following describes how access lists can be used to improve network security.

answer

An access list filters traffic based on the IP header information such as source or destination IP address, protocol, socket numbers.

question

You manage a single subnet with three switches. The switches are connected to provide redundant paths between the switches. What feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active path between any two switches?

answer

Spanning tree

question

You manage a network that uses multiple switches. You want to provide multiple paths between switches so that if one link goes down, an alternate path is available. What feature should your switch support?

answer

Spanning tree

question

In which of the following situations would you use port security?

answer

You wanted to restrict the devices that could connect through a switch port.

question

You are the network administrator for a city library. Throughout the library are several groups of computers that provide public access to the internet. Supervision of these computers has been difficult. You've had problems with patrons bringing personal laptops into the library and disconnecting the network cable from the library computers to connect to their laptops to the internet. The library computers are in groups of four. Each group of four computers is connected to a hub that is connected to the library network through an access port on a switch. You want to restrict access to the network so only the library computers are permitted connectivity to the internet. What can you do?

answer

Configure port security on the switch

question

You run a small network for your business that has a single router connected to the internet and a single switch. You keep sensitive documents on a computer that you would like to keep isolated from other computers on the network. Other hosts on the network should not be able to communicate with this computer through the switch, but you still need to access the network through the computer. What should you use for this situation?

answer

VLAN

question

Members of the sales team use laptops to connect to the company network. While traveling, the connect their laptops to the internet through airport and hotel networks. You are concerned that these computers will pick up viruses that could spread to your private network. You would like to implement a solution that prevents the laptops from connecting to your network unless anti-virus software and the latest operating system patches have been installed. What solution should you use?

answer

NAC (Network Access Control)

question

What do you call a set of solutions that helps ensure availability for a VOIP solution?

answer

QoS (Quality of Service)

question

What is a vulnerability associated with a PBX?

answer

2600 Club - Long distance w/o paying (2600KHz)

question

You want to use an encryption protocol for encrypting internet phone calls. What protocol would you use?

answer

PGP (Pretty Good Privacy)

question

You have a company network with a single switch. All devices connect to the network through a switch. You want to control which devices will be able to connect to you network. for devices that do not have the latest OS patches, you want to prevent access to all network devices except for a special server that holds the patches that all the computer need to download. Which tow of the following components will be part of your solution?

answer

802.1x authentication Remediation servers

question

You are concerned about attacks directed at your firewall. You want to be able to identify and be notified of any attacks. In addition, you want the system to take immediate action when possible to stop or prevent the attack. Which tool should you use?

answer

IPS - Intrusion Prevention System

question

You want to create a collection of computers on your network that appear to have valuable data, but are really computers configured with fake data that could entice a potential intruder. Once the intruder connects, you want to be able to observe and gather information about the methods of the attacks that are being deployed. What should you implement?

answer

Honeynet

question

You have configured a NIDS to monitor network traffic. Which of the following describes an attack that is NOT detected by the NIDS device?

answer

False Negative

question

The presence of unapproved modems on desktop systems gives rise to the LAN being vulnerable to which of the following?

answer

War Dialing

question

Which of the following phone attacks adds unauthorized charges to a telephone bill?

answer

Cramming

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Cascading Style Sheets Mix And Match

Computer Science Final Exam – Flashcards 100 terms

Richard Lattimore

100 terms

Preview

Computer Science Final Exam – Flashcards

question

1) __________________ uses tags to link your images with others that share the same tags.

answer

Flickr

question

What are the two most common operating systems on a tablet?

answer

iOS and Android

question

What is a disadvantage to using speech recognition software?

answer

it takes time to recognize speech patterns

question

What is the time between when you press the button and the camera actually takes the picture called?

answer

Shutter lag

question

Which of the following is NOT an audio file type? a. AAC b. WMA c. MP3 d. JPG

answer

d. JPG

question

What provides the ability to automatically sync anything you purchase in iTunes on all of your registered devices?

answer

iCloud

question

You can take your digital photos to a retail store to have prints made of them if they have a....

answer

kiosk

question

What printers produce lab-quality prints of your photos

answer

dye-sublimation

question

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a dedicated e-reader? a. They can hold thousands of books b. They are expensive c. They are lightweight d. You can shop for new books on your e-reader using a wireless connection

answer

b. They are expensive

question

What would be beneficial when taking pictures of a sporting event?

answer

burst mode

question

What is the most popular video sharing service?

answer

You Tube

question

Which of the following would be the most meaningful way to tag an image of your parents? a. Landscape b. Family c. img954.jpg d. Vacation

answer

b. Family

question

__________________ allows you to sync your photos between your iPhone and your Mac.

answer

iCloud

question

Camera shake can be reduced by looking for a camera that provides __________________.

answer

image stabilization

question

One disadvantage to e-ink technology used with some e-readers is that it __________________.

answer

there is no backlight

question

__________________ photos allows you to be able to locate them more easily in the future.

answer

Tagging

question

__________________ provide the ability to carry on two-way communication with people in different states

answer

Web Cams

question

If you have a Mac, the default program for your storing and viewing your photos is __________________.

answer

iPhoto

question

When selecting a digital camera, a higher resolution results in __________________. Internet

answer

larger file size

question

The original uses of Internet were ___________and ______________.

answer

education and research

question

____________is the most commonly used Web browser.

answer

Internet Explorer

question

The National Broadband Plan, Connecting America, is working to ensure that __________________. A. all Americans have fast, affordable Internet access B. the Internet is free for everyone world-wide C. all Americans have access to the Internet, regardless of speed D. all nations have Internet access

answer

a. all Americans have fast, affordable Internet access

question

In the URL http://www.nasa.gov, http is the ______________________________________.

answer

protocol

question

The Internet was originally created as a communication system for the __________________.

answer

Department of Defense

question

Which of the following is true about cable Internet access? a. You share the cable with your neighbors. b. It is slower than dial-up. c. It is universally available d. Speeds range from 1 Kbps to 100 Kbps.

answer

a. You share the cable with your neighbors

question

__________________ is the father of the hypertext system known as the World Wide Web.

answer

Tim Berners-Lee

question

In the URL http://www.nasa.gov, NASA is the __________________.

answer

domain name

question

Which of the following is NOT a Web browser? a. Opera b. Chrome c. Safari d. Firebird

answer

d. Firebird

question

Programs that interpret HTML to display a Web page are called __________________.

answer

web browsers

question

Your __________________ can be used as a wireless access point to connect your laptop to the Internet when you are traveling

answer

smartphone

question

74.125.224.72 is an example of a (n) __________________.

answer

IP Address

question

The original Internet __________________. A. was invented by Al Gore B. was called ARPANET C. had only two nodes D. came into existence in 1990

answer

B. was called ARPANET

question

50) Which of the following is one of the purposes for the development of the Internet2? A. Social B. Commercial c. Education d. The Internet2 does not exist

answer

c. Education

question

If you are looking for information on airplanes, a credible source would be __________________. a. faa.gov b. faa.com c. airplanes.info d. wings.net

answer

a. faa.gov

question

Which of the following is an example of a URL? A. http B. gov c. http://www.nasa.gov D. NASA

answer

c. http://www.nasa.gov

question

When you are looking for a source of information for a term paper, which of the following websites would most Likely be a credible source? a. nasa.info b. nasa.net c. nasa.gov d. nasa.com

answer

c. nasa.gov

question

Which of the following would be an indication that the website discussing iPads that you are visiting is not a credible source? a. The URL is www.apple.com. b. The date the Web page was last updated is January 5, 2007. c. The article appeared in a scholar.google.com search. d. The article is from cnet.com.

answer

b. The date the Web page was last updated is January 5, 2007

question

Google released a Web browser called __________________ in 2008.

answer

Chrome

question

ARPANET, the original Internet, had only __________________ nodes.

answer

question

If you access the Internet through a browser on your smartphone, you are using a (n) __________________.

answer

micro browser

question

Which of the following could NOT become a member of the I2? a. A museum b. The military c. A hospital d. A library

answer

B. The military

question

Which of the following would be the strongest password? a. [email protected]?d b. [email protected]*rd C. password d. p22w0r6

answer

a. [email protected]?d

question

A router is a form of security because__________.

answer

it acts like a firewall

question

Which of the following cybercrimes is considered to be a form of harassment? a. Phishing b. Pharming c. Computer fraud d. Cyberbullying

answer

d.Cyberbullying

question

A __________________ can read human characteristics such as fingerprints, adding another layer of security to your computer

answer

biometric scanner

question

When you need to make changes, install hardware, or configure settings, you will need to use the __________________ Account on your computer.

answer

administrator

question

When you enter your credit card information in a website, you can ensure that the website is encrypted by looking for this

answer

https

question

When a company pays people to hack into their own system, it calls in __________________ hackers.

answer

white-hat

question

In an office AUP, which of the following might be prohibited? a. Logging in to Facebook b. Checking work email c. Viewing an associate's electronic calendar d. Purchasing business supplies online

answer

a. Logging in to Facebook

question

Spam received over instant message is called __________________.

answer

SPIM

question

Words with the same meaning. _______________

answer

Synonyms

question

The arrangement of the text and graphic elements or placeholders on a slide. _______________

answer

Layout

question

The view in which all of the slides in your presentation are displayed as thumbnails. _______________

answer

Slide sorter

question

A motion effect that occurs in Slide Show view when you move from one slide to the next during a presentation

answer

transitions

question

Text that prints at the top of a sheet of slide handouts or notes pages

answer

header

question

Text that displays at the bottom of every slide or that prints at the bottom of a sheet of slide handouts

answer

footer

question

View that displays the current slide, notes, and preview of upcoming slide to the presenter

answer

Presenter View

question

Variations of the current theme, with different accent colors

answer

Variant

question

A slide layout that contains no title or content placeholders.

answer

Blank

question

the amount of room between letters of slide text

answer

Character spacing

question

the command used to duplicate a selection

answer

copy

question

a command used to revert to font formatting associated with the original slide layout.

answer

clear all formatting

question

the mouse action necessary when Format Painter is to be used on multiple selections

answer

double click

question

a button used to turn a feature both on and off.

answer

toggle button

question

A wavy line indicating a possible spelling, grammar, or style error

answer

flagged error

question

this keyboard shortcut places the insertion point at the beginning of the document.

answer

ctrl+home

question

a font effect that displays all characters in uppercase while making any character originally Typed as an uppercase letter taller than the ones typed as lowercase characters.

answer

small caps

question

to view two pages at the same time, on the View tab, in the Zoom group, click this command

answer

multiple pages

question

the typical file extension assigned to a Word document

answer

.docx

question

to place a note on the same page as the comment or notation, use this

answer

footnote

question

this is placed in body paragraphs and points to an entry in the bibliography

answer

citation

question

Items that can be listed in any order are best presented using which of the following?

answer

bulleted list

question

the default line spacing in a long report.

answer

double

question

the vertical distance between lines in a paragraph

answer

line spacing

question

the pre-built setting that places all four margins at 1.0 inches

answer

normal

question

this type of alignment positions the text so that it is aligned with the right margin

answer

right

question

when you select a picture, you can use these to change the picture's size

answer

sizing handles

question

this command can be used to make a picture look more like a drawing or a painting.

answer

artistic effects

question

Use this key to move from one part of a table to another

answer

tab

question

how many columns are in a 3x7 table?

answer

question

An Access view that displays records in rows and fields in columns

answer

data sheet

question

a data type that stores up to 255 characters of text

answer

short text

question

A relationship in which a record in the first table can have many associated records in the second table.

answer

one-to-many

question

a command that opens the Print dialog box so that you can select a different printer or different print options

answer

question

an orientation of the printed page that makes it wider than it is tall.

answer

landscape

question

A query that displays records without changing the data in a table.

answer

select

question

in a query, criteria are added in this view

answer

design view

question

in query criteria, dates are surrounded by this character

answer

pound sign (#)

question

the data displayed in a cell.

answer

displayed value

question

an equation that performs mathematical calculations on number values

answer

formula

question

Page headers and footers can be changed in this view

answer

page layout view

question

A prewritten Excel formula

answer

function

question

a view that maximizes the number of cells visible on the screen

answer

normal

question

automatically changing the column width to accommodate the longest column entry

answer

Auto Fit

question

a chart type useful for illustrating comparisons among related numbers

answer

column chart

question

the chart type that best displays the relationship of parts to a whole

answer

pie chart

question

A worksheet that contains only a chart

answer

chart sheet

question

if a workbook contains grouped worksheets, this word will display on the title bar

answer

[Group]

question

when a formula contains operators with the same precedence level, the operators are evaluated in this order

answer

left to right

question

Changes made in a detail worksheet will automatically recalculate and display on this sheet

answer

summary

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Hardware Networking Operating Systems Parent Child Relationships Short Message Service Usb Flash Drive Virtual Machine

HardWare-Chapter 20 – Flashcards 59 terms

Trina Garrison

59 terms

Preview

HardWare-Chapter 20 – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is true of a Type 1 hypervisor?

answer

called bare-metal hypervisor

question

The Android OS is based on Linux.

answer

True

question

What can you do if you want to obtain administrator privileges to an Android device?

answer

root the device

question

What should you configure on an iOS device if you want your data erased after ten failed logon attempts?

answer

Passcode Lock

question

When moving a VM from one computer to another, be sure the files are secured with ______________ that allow access only to specific users.

answer

permissions

question

Which company acquired Android code in 2005 and has a leadership role in its development?

answer

Google

question

iOS was developed by and continues to be maintained by a consortium of companies

answer

False

question

Which component on a smart phone requires pairing with another device?

answer

Bluetooth

question

Apple is the sole distributor of iOS apps at its iTunes ________________.

answer

App Store

question

The mobile device OSs that together account for about 90% of the smart phone market are which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)

answer

Android iOS

question

Which of the following are physical buttons on the front of Android smart phones. (Choose all that apply.)

answer

Menu Go Back

question

Which of the following is a screen that uses electrodes that sense the conductive properties of skin?

answer

capacitive touch screen

question

What does jailbreaking do?

answer

give you root privileges to iOS

question

What is the accelerometer used for in mobile devices?

answer

adjusting the screen orientation

question

Which type of virtualization should you deploy to provide a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure?

answer

server-side

question

Which of the following is based on open source code?

answer

Android

question

A SIM card is used for which of the following?

answer

holding data related to your cellular carrier

question

A setting called airplane mode lowers the output power of the Wi-Fi and Bluetooth antennas allowing these networks to function, but at a reduced range.

answer

False

question

VMs running under a Type 1 hypervisor are isolated from each other.

answer

True

question

The delegation of server-side virtualization to a third party is referred to as which of the following?

answer

cloud computing

question

If you want to be able to wear gloves while using a smart phone, which screen technology will work?

answer

resistive touch screen

question

________________________ is the technology used by smart phones to send text messages.

answer

Short Message Service

question

It's usually a good idea to run several anti-malware programs at the same time on your computer.

answer

False

question

Which type of malware hides in the MBR program of a hard drive?

answer

boot sector virus

question

Which type of malware can hijack internal Windows components and often goes undetected because it is already loaded when the antivirus software loads?

answer

rootkit

question

An RFID badge is related to which type of authentication method?

answer

smart card

question

Using Group Policy, you can set security policies to help secure a workstation.

answer

True

question

One way to authenticate users on a computer is to use a small device that contains authentication information. What is this device called?

answer

smart card

question

If you want your computer to be protected by BitLocker Encryption using computer authentication, what feature must your computer have?

answer

a TPM chip on the motherboard

question

Which of the following is true about passwords.

answer

by default, accounts with a blank password cannot logon remotely

question

If you don't want to use BitLocker to protect your computer, you can still configure a power-on password using which of the following?

answer

the BIOS

question

Which of the following provides a strong magnetic field used to completely erase data on a hard drive or tape drive?

answer

degausser

question

The ______________ account is disabled by default and should be replaced by a standard account for infrequent users of your network.

answer

Guest

question

On a peer-to-peer network, authentication is the responsibility of the domain.

answer

False

question

Which command can you perform at the Windows RE command prompt to repair the OS boot record on Windows 7?

answer

bootrec /fixboot

question

To prevent spread of malware, an infected computer should be ____________ by disconnecting it from the wired or wireless network.

answer

quarantined

question

You should beware of a person attempting to use your computer after you step away from it, a term referred to as which of the following?

answer

tailgating

question

Which of the following is true about the Windows Encrypted File System?

answer

an encrypted file moved to an unencrypted folder remains encrypted

question

What keystroke should you press to get a logon window if you don't use the welcome screen?

answer

Ctrl+Alt+Delete

question

Requiring users to press Ctrl+Alt+Delete to get a logon window is more secure than the welcome screen.

answer

True

question

To keep a system secure from tailgating, users need to practice the habit of ___________ their workstation when they step away from their desks.

answer

locking

question

If you need to understand the parent-child relationships between running processes and view parent processes as they call other processes, what tool should you use?

answer

Process Explorer

question

If a computer uses both a wireless and wired connection you can control the priority order of the connections.

answer

True

question

Group Policy (gpedit.msc) is available in all versions of Windows 7

answer

False

question

Which of the following must you do to configure Windows to provide QoS for applications?

answer

enable QoS for the network connection adapter set the QoS priority level for applications

question

Which type of permission should you set to control access to files and folders by local and network users?

answer

NTFS on NTFS volumes only

question

To use Remote Desktop, the computer you access remotely can be running Windows 7 Home Premium or Windows 7 Professional

answer

False

question

A privacy filter is used for what aspect of security?

answer

screen viewing

question

Which of the following is true about the Guest account in Windows 7?

answer

it is disabled by default

question

Which are among the ways you can use BitLocker Encryption?

answer

computer authentication using TPM user authentication using a USB flash drive computer and user authentication using a PIN and TPM

question

Which of the following is NOT a function provided by iTunes for iOS devices?

answer

back up data on Apple web sites

question

What must you do before using a new iPad or iPod touch?

answer

activate it

question

On Android phones, up to four apps can be pinned to the __________ at the bottom of the screen.

answer

dock

question

Which of the following is NOT true about user accounts and groups?

answer

a user account can belong to only one group at a time

question

To map a drive from the command line use the command net ___________ drive: servershare.

answer

use

question

Which of the following is true about which folders to use to hold shared data when working with a workgroup?

answer

private data for each user should be kept in their C:Users folder

question

Which of the following are true about NTFS permissions?

answer

when a subfolder is created, it is assigned the permissions of its parent folder by default, the owner of folder has full permissions to the folder

question

You usually install an OS on a mobile device using a USB device or SD-card

answer

False

question

__________ OS by Google is based on Linux.

answer

Android

STUDY

Acceptable Use Policy Anti Virus Software Business Continuity Planning Credit Card Numbers

Mid2 Chap4 M82 – Flashcards 95 terms

August Dunbar

95 terms

Preview

Mid2 Chap4 M82 – Flashcards

question

Which of the ff. defines an acceptable use agreement?

answer

An agreement which identifies the employee's right to use company property such as Internet access and computer equipment for personal use.

question

Which of the ff. is a high-level, general statement about the role of security in the organization?

answer

Policy

question

What is the primary purpose of change control?

answer

Prevent unmanaged change

question

Which of the ff. is defined as a contract which prescribes the technical support or business parameters that a provider will bestow to its client?

answer

Service level agreement

question

HIPAA is a set of federal regulations that define security guidelines that enforce the protection of what?

answer

Privacy

question

Which of the ff. policies specifically protects PII?

answer

Privacy

question

You have recently discovered that a network attack has compromised your database server. In the process, customer credit card numbers might have been taken by an attacker. You have stopped the attack and put measures in place to prevent the same incident from occurring in the future. What else might you be legally required to do?

answer

Contact your customers to let them know of the security breach

question

You have a set of DVD-RW discs that have been used to archive files for your latest development project. You need to dispose of the discs. Which of the ff. methods should you use to best prevent extracting data from the discs?

answer

Shredding

question

What is the most effective means of improving or enforcing security in any environment?

answer

User awareness training

question

When informing an employee that they are being terminated, what is the most important activity?

answer

Disabling their network access

question

Which of the ff. is the best protection against security violations?

answer

Defense in depth

question

Which of the ff. is a recommendation to use when a specific standard or procedure does not exist?

answer

Guideline

question

What is the primary purpose of source code escrow?

answer

To obtain change rights over software after the vendor goes out of business

question

Which of the ff. best describes the concept of due care or due diligence?

answer

Reasonable precautions, based on industry best practices, are utilized and documented.

question

Who has the responsibility for the development of a security policy?

answer

Senior Management

question

When is a BCP or DRP design and development actually completed?

answer

Never

question

What is the primary goal of business continuity planning?

answer

Maintaining business operations with reduced or restricted infrastructure capabilities or resources

question

The company is implementing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) and a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). It is time for the control tests and the company would like to perform compliance testing. Which of the ff. best describes compliance testing?

answer

The testing of control procedures to see if they are working as expected and are being implemented in accordance with management policies.

question

When recovery is being performed due to disaster, which services are to be stabilized first?

answer

Mission critical

question

In business continuity planning, what is the primary focus of the scope?

answer

Business processes

question

As a BCP or DRP plan evolves over time, what is the most important task to perform when rolling out a new version of the plan?

answer

Collect and destroy all old plan copies

question

Your company has developed and implemented countermeasures for the greatest risks to their assets. However, there is still some risk left. What is the remaining risk called?

answer

Residual risk

question

Which of the ff. is "not" an accepted countermeasure to strengthen a cryptosystem?

answer

Keep the cryptosystem a secret

question

Which of the ff. is "not" a valid response to a risk discovered during a risk analysis?

answer

Denial

question

What is the average number of times that a specific risk is likely to be realized?

answer

Annualized Rate of Occurrence

question

You have conducted a risk analysis to protect a key company asset. You identify ff. values: *Asset value = 400 *Exposure factor = 75 * Annualized Rate of Occurrence =.25 What is the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)?

answer

question

To determine the value of the company assets, an anonymous survey was used to collect the opinions of all senior and mid-level managers. Which asset valuation method was used?

answer

Delphi method

question

If an organization shows sufficient due care, which burden is eliminated in the event of a security breach?

answer

Negligence

question

Purchasing insurance is what type of response to risk?

answer

Transference

question

You have conducted a risk analysis to protect a key company asset. You identify ff. values: *Asset value = 400 *Exposure factor = 75 * Annualized Rate of Occurrence =.25 What is the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?

answer

300

question

When analyzing assets, which analysis method assigns financial values to assets?

answer

Quantitative

question

When would choosing to do nothing about an identified risk be acceptable?

answer

When the cost of protecting the asset is greater than the potential loss

question

Which of the ff. statement is true regards to risk analysis? (Select two)

answer

Don't implement a countermeasure if the cost is greater than loss, Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) identifies how often in a single year the successful threat attack will occur.

question

Which of the ff. best defines Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?

answer

The total monetary loss associated with a single occurrence of a threat

question

When conducting a risk assessment, how is the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) calculated?

answer

Through historical data provided by insurance companies and crime statistics.

question

You have conducted a risk analysis to protect a key company asset. You identify ff. values: *Asset value = 400 *Exposure factor = 75 * Annualized Rate of Occurrence =.25 Countermeasure A has a cost of 320 and will protect the asset for four years. Countermeasure B has an annual cost of 85. An insurance policy to protect the asset has an annual premium of 90. What should you do?

answer

Accept the risk or find another countermeasure.

question

How can a criminal investigator ensure the integrity of a removable media device found while collecting evidence?

answer

Create a checksum using a hashing algorithm

question

After an intrusion has occurred and the intruder has been removed from the system, which of the ff. is the best next step or action to take?

answer

Back up all logs and audits regarding the incident

question

During a recent site survey, you find a rogue wireless access point on your network. Which of the ff. actions should you take first to protect your network, while still preserving evidence?

answer

Disconnect the access point from the network

question

What is the best definition of a security incident?

answer

Violation of security policy

question

You manage the network for your company. You have recently discovered information on a computer hard drive that might indicate evidence of illegal activity. You want to perform forensic activities on the disk to see what kind of information it contains. What should you do first?

answer

Make a bit-level copy of the disk

question

Which of the ff. is an important aspect of evidence gathering?

answer

Back up all log files and audit trails

question

You have discovered a computer that is connected to your network that was used for an attack. You have disconnected the computer from the network to isolate it from the network and stop the attack. What should you do next?

answer

Perform a memory dump

question

When conducting a forensic investigation, and assuming that the attack has been stopped, which of the ff. actions should you perform first?

answer

Document what's on the screen

question

When conducting a forensic investigation, which of the ff. initial actions is appropriate for preserving evidence?

answer

Document what's on the screen

question

The immediate preservation of evidence is paramount when conducting a forensic analysis. Which of the ff. actions is most likely to destroy critical evidence?

answer

Rebooting the system

question

Which of the ff. social engineering attacks are use Voice over IP (VoIP) to gain sensitive information?

answer

Vishing

question

What is the primary difference between impersonation and masquerading?

answer

One is more active, the other is more passive

question

A senior executive reports that she received a suspicious email concerning a sensitive, internal project that is behind production. The email is sent from someone she doesn't know and he is asking for immediate clarification on several of the project's details so the project can get back on schedule. What type of an attack best describes the scenario?

answer

Whaling

question

Which of the ff. is a form of attack that tricks victims into providing confidential information, such as identity information or logon credentials, through e-mails or Web sites that impersonate an online entity that the victim trusts, such as a financial institution or well-known e-commerce site?

answer

Phishing

question

How can an organization help prevent social engineering attacks? (Select two.)

answer

Educate employees on the risks and countermeasures, Publish and enforce clearly-written security polices

question

You've got just received an e-mail messages that indicates a new serious malicious code threat is ravaging across the Internet. The message contains detailed information about the threat, its source code, and the damage it can inflict. The message states that you can easily detect whether or not you have already been a victim of this threat by the presence of three files in the WindowsSystem32 folder. As a countermeasure, the message suggests that you delete these three files from your system to prevent further spread of the threat. What should your first action based on the message be?

answer

Verify the information on well-known malicious code threat management Web sites.

question

The receptionist received a phone call from an individual claiming to be a partner in a high-level project and requesting sensitive information. The individual is engaging in which type of social engineering attack?

answer

Authority

question

You have just received a generic-looking e-mail that is addressed as coming from the administrator of your company. The e-mail says that as part of a system upgrade, you are to go to a Web site and enter your username and password at a new Web site so you can manage your e-mail and spam using the new service. What should you do?

answer

Verify that the e-mail was sent by the administrator and that this new service is legitimate.

question

By definition, which type of social engineering attack uses of a fictitious scenario to persuade someone to give information for which they are not authorized?

answer

Pretexting

question

Dumpster diving is a low-tech means of gathering information that may be useful in gaining unauthorized access, or as a starting point for more advanced attacks. How can a company reduce the risk associated with dumpster diving?

answer

Establish and enforce a document destruction policy

question

Which of the ff. is a common form of social engineering attack?

answer

Hoax virus information e-mails.

question

Dictionary attacks are often more successful when performed after what reconnaissance action?

answer

Social engineering

question

What is the primary countermeasure to social engineering?

answer

Awareness

question

Which of the ff. are examples of social engineering? (Select two.)

answer

Dumpster diving, Shoulder surfing

question

Which type of social engineering attack uses peer pressure to persuade someone to help an attacker?

answer

Social validation

question

Which of the ff. defines system high mode?

answer

All systems and peripherals within a system are classified and then protected according to the level of classification assigned to the most highly classified object which resides on the system.

question

Which of the ff. terms restricts the ability of a program to read and write to memory according to its permissions or access level?

answer

Confinement

question

Which of the ff. defines layering in regards to system access control?

answer

Various tasks are divided into a hierarchical manner to provide security.

question

Which of the ff. is "not" used by the reference monitor to determine levels of access?

answer

Ring architecture

question

Which of the ff. is a representative example of an assigned level of a system that was judged through Common Criteria?

answer

EAL5

question

Which of the ff. terms describes the product that is evaluated against the security requirements in the Common Criteria (CC) evaluation system?

answer

Target of Evaluation (TOE)

question

A process performed in a controlled environment by a third-party which verifies that an IS meets a specific set of security standards before being granted the approval to operate is known as?

answer

Accreditation

question

Which of the ff. is a term used to describe a level of confidence that the evaluation methods were thorough and complete so that the security designation can be trusted?

answer

Assurance

question

Which of the ff. components of the Common Criteria (CC) evaluation system is a document written by a user or community that identifies the security requirements for a specific purpose?

answer

Protection Profile (PP)

question

Who is assigned the task of judging the security of a system or network granting it an approval to operate?

answer

Designated Approving Authority

question

Which of the ff. best describes the Security Target (ST) in the Common Criteria (CC) evaluation system?

answer

The ST is a document that describes the security properties of a security product.

question

Which is the operating mode of a system that is deployed in such a way so that it operates at a single level of classification and all users who can access the system all have the same specific clearance level as well as all of the need to know over all the data on the system?

answer

Dedicated

question

Which of the ff. development modes is a method used by programmers while writing programs that allows for optimal control over coherence, security, accuracy, and comprehensibility?

answer

Structured programming

question

What is another name for a backdoor that was left in a product by the manufacturer by accident?

answer

Maintenance hook

question

How often should change control management be implemented?

answer

Any time a production system is altered.

question

Which of the ff. is an action which must take place during the release stage of the SDLC?

answer

Venders develop and release patches in response to exploited vulnerabilities that have been discovered.

question

What is the primary purpose of imposing software life cycle management concepts?

answer

Increase the quality of software.

question

In which phase of the system life cycle is security integrated into the product?

answer

Project initiation

question

In which phase of the system life cycle is software testing performed?

answer

System Development

question

Which of the ff. is "not" part of security awareness training?

answer

Employee agreement documents.

question

The best way to initiate solid administrative control over an organization's employee is to have what element in place?

answer

Distinct job descriptions

question

As you are helping a user with a computer problem you notice that she has written her password on a note stuck to her computer monitor. You check the password policy of your company and find that the ff. settings are currently required: Minimum password length = 10 Minimum password age = 4 Maximum password age = 30 Password history = 6 Require complex password that include numbers and symbols Account lockout clipping level = 3 Which of the ff. is the best action to take to make remembering passwords easier so that she no longer has to write the password down?

answer

Implement end-user training.

question

Which of the ff. is "not" a protection against collusion?

answer

Cross training

question

Which of the ff. is "not" an element of the termination process?

answer

Dissolution of the NDA

question

What is the primary purpose of forcing employees to take mandatory one-week minimum vacations every year?

answer

To check for evidence of fraud

question

What is the primary means by which supervisors can determine whether or not employees are complying with the organization's security policy?

answer

Auditing

question

Over the last month you have noticed a significant increase in the occurrence of inappropriate activities performed by employees. What is the best first response step to take in order to improve or maintain the security level of the environment?

answer

Improve and hold new awareness sessions

question

A code of ethics provides for all but which of the ff.?

answer

Clearly defines courses of action to take when complex issue is encountered

question

Your company security policy requires separation of duties for all network security matters. Which of the ff. scenarios best describes this concept?

answer

The system administrator configures remote access privileges and the security officer reviews and activates each account

question

You have installed anti-virus software on computers at your business. Within a few days, however, you notice that one computer has a virus. When you question the user, she says she did install some software a few days ago, but it was supposed to be a file compression utility. She admits she did not scan the file before running it. What should you add to your security measures to help prevent this from happening again?

answer

User awareness training

question

Which of the ff. is a legal contract between the organization and the employee that specifies the employee is not to disclose the organization's confidential information?

answer

Non-disclosure agreement

question

Which of the ff. defines two-man control?

answer

Certain tasks should be dual-custody in nature to prevent security breach.

question

When informing an employee that they are being terminated, what is the most important activity?

answer

Disabling their network access

question

Which of the ff. are typically associated with human resource security policies? (Select two.)

answer

Termination, Background checks

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Information Systems Information Technology Networking Using The Computer

ISM 3011 Mid-Term – Flashcards 185 terms

Donna Chou

185 terms

Preview

ISM 3011 Mid-Term – Flashcards

question

Moore's Law

answer

Computing power doubles every 18 months. Because of "this" law, the cost of data communications and data storage is essentially zero

question

Future business professionals need to...

answer

Assess, evaluate, and apply emerging information technology to business

question

Abstract Reasoning

answer

The ability to make and manipulate models

question

Systems thinking

answer

The ability to model the components of the system, to connect the inputs and outputs among those components into a sensible whole that reflects the structure and dynamics of the phenomenon observed

question

Collaboration

answer

The activity of two or more people working together to achieve a common goal, result, or work product

question

Experimentation

answer

Making a reasoned analysis of an opportunity, envisioning potential solutions, evaluating those possibilities, and developing the most promising ones, consistent with the resources you have.

question

Management Information Systems (MIS)

answer

The development and use of information systems that help businesses achieve their goals and objectives

question

System

answer

a group of components that interact to achieve some purpose

question

Information system

answer

A group of components that interact to produce information

question

Five-component framework

answer

A model of the components of an information system: computer hardware, software, data procedures and people. Present in every information system

question

Hardware

answer

the computer, storage disk, keyboard and monitor

question

Software

answer

programs that run on a computer

question

Data

answer

the words, sentences and paragraphs in your report

question

Procedures

answer

The methods you use to start the program, enter your report, print it and save and back up your file

question

People

answer

The most important component

question

Computer-based information system

answer

Information systems that include computers

question

Automation

answer

Taking the work that people are doing y following procedures and moving it so that computers will do that work, following instructions in the software

question

Information

answer

Knowledge derived from data.

question

Data

answer

Recorded facts or figures

question

Characteristics of Good Information

answer

Accurate, Timely, Relevent, Just sufficient, Worth its cost

question

Accurate Information

answer

Information based on correct and complete data, and it has been processed correctly as expected

question

Timely information

answer

Produced in time for its intended use

question

Information should be __________ both to the context and to the subject

answer

Relevant

question

Information needs to be _______ for the purpose for which it is generated, but ________

answer

Sufficient; Just barely so

question

For information to be ______, an appropriate relationship must exist between the cost of information and its value

answer

Worth its cost

question

Information technology

answer

Refers to the products, methods, inventions, and standards that are used for the purpose of producing information. Pertains to the hardware, software, and data components

question

hardware

answer

consists of electronic components and related gadgetry that input, process, output, and store data according to instructions encoded in computer programs and software

question

Input hardware

answer

devices such as the keyboard, mouse, and or document scanner

question

Central Processing Unit (CPU)

answer

Processing device that selects instructions, processes them, performs arithmetic and logical comparisons and stores results of operations in memory

question

Dual-processor

answer

A computer with two CPUs

question

Quad-processor

answer

A computer with four CPUs

question

Main memory or Random Access Memory (RAM)

answer

memory that is volatile, only used for instruction in active use

question

Output hardware

answer

Consists of video displays, printers, audio speakers, overhead projectors, and other special-purpose devices

question

Storage hardware

answer

saves data and programs, Magnetic or optical disks and magnetic tape

question

Universal Serial Bus (USB)

answer

Universal Connector

question

Binary Digits (Bits)

answer

Either a 0 or 1, how computers represent data. 8 Bits to a Byte

question

Byte

answer

A combination of eight bits arranged in sequence

question

Kilobyte (K)

answer

1024 bytes

question

Megabyte (MB)

answer

1024 Kilobytes

question

Gigabyte (GB)

answer

1024 megabytes

question

Terabyte (TB)

answer

1024 Gigabytes

question

data channel/bus

answer

path where instruction from main memory is moved into the CPU

question

Operating System (OS)

answer

a program that controls the computers resources

question

memory swapping

answer

the process of removing memory and placing the just-requested program or data into the vacated space

question

32-bit

answer

type of addressing used by PCs, as of 2011. Allows for addressing of up to 4 gigabytes of main memory (4.100)

question

64 bit

answer

Processor that can utilize more than 4GB of memory

question

Volatile

answer

Contents are lost when power is off. Main memory

question

Nonvolatile

answer

Contents survive when power is off. Magnetic and optical disks

question

Client

answer

Computers used for word processing, spreadsheets, database access etc.

question

Servers

answer

computers on a network that manage resources

question

Server Farm

answer

Servers organized into a collection of servers

question

Grid

answer

A network of computers that operates as an integrated whole, and appears to be a single computer

question

Cloud computing

answer

A form of hardware, software leasing in which organizations obtain server resources from vendors that specialize in server processing

question

Instruction Set

answer

the commands that a CPU can process

question

Windows

answer

The primary personal computer operating system developed by Microsoft Corp.

question

Mac OS

answer

Apple computers operating system for the Macintosh used primarily by graphic artists and workers in the arts community

question

Unix

answer

An operating system that was developed at bell labs in the 1970s. Used by scientific and engineering communities

question

Linux

answer

Version of Unix that was developed by the open source community

question

Open source community

answer

This community is a loosely coupled group of programmers who mostly volunteer their time to contribute code to develop and maintain Linux

question

License

answer

Buying your right to use a computer program

question

Site license

answer

Flat fee payment for the right to install the product on all that company's computers or on all of the computers at a specific rate

question

Virtualization

answer

The process by which one computer hosts the appearance of many computers

question

Host operating system

answer

one operating system runs one or more operating systems as applications

question

Virtual Machines (VM)

answer

hosted operating systems

question

PC Virtualization

answer

When a personal computer, such as a desktop or portable computer, hosts several different operating systems

question

Server virtualization

answer

A server computer hosts one or more other server computers

question

Desktop virtualization

answer

A server hosts many versions of desktop operating systems

question

Application software

answer

Performs a service or function

question

Horizontal-market Application

answer

Software provides capabilities common across all organizations and industries

question

Virtual-Market application

answer

Software serves the needs of a specific industry

question

One-of-a-kind application

answer

Software developed for a specific, unique need

question

Off the shelf software

answer

software that is available on store shelves

question

off-the-shelf with alterations software

answer

allows some changes in the code to fit a business's needs. it's used for vertical aplications

question

custom-developed software

answer

created for a particular business or set of users. It's used for one-of-a-kind applications

question

Firmware

answer

computer software installed into special, read-only memory, on devices such as printers, print servers and communication devices. Can be changed and upgraded

question

Client-Server Applications

answer

Applications that require code on both the client and the server

question

Thin Client

answer

A client-server application that requires nothing more than a browser

question

Thick client

answer

An application such as Microsoft outlook that requires programs other than a browser on the user's computer

question

GNU

answer

A set of tools developed by Richard Stallman for creating a free Unix-like operating system

question

GNU general public license (GPL) agreement

answer

One of the standard license agreements for open source software

question

Source Code

answer

Computer Code as written by humans and that is understandable by humans

question

Machine code

answer

Compiled source code that is not understandable by humans and cannot be modified

question

Closed source

answer

Highly protected source code only available to trusted employees and carefully vetted contractors

question

PC mules

answer

Business professionals who carry one or more personal computers wherever they go

question

Synch

answer

The process of synchronizing data on two or more computers

question

Collaboration

answer

Occurs when two or more people work together to achieve a common goal, result, or work product

question

Critical Collaboration Drivers

answer

Communication, Content Management, Workflow control

question

Communication (two key elements)

answer

1. Communication skills and abilities of the group members 2.The Availability of effective communication systems

question

Content management

answer

Driver of collaboration effectiveness, which enables multiple users to contribute to and change documents, schedules, task lists, assignments, without one user's work interfering with another's

question

Workflow control

answer

controlling processes or procedures by which content is created, edited, used, and disposed

question

Hardware, software, data, procedures, and people

answer

Five components of collaboration information system

question

Client hardware

answer

Consists of the computers and other communication devices that users employ to participate in collaboration activities (iPhones, Blackberries)

question

Server Hardware

answer

consists of computers that are installed and operated by IT professionals that support the collaboration activities

question

Synchronous Communication

answer

Occurs when all team members meet at the same time, such as with conference calls or face-to-face meeting

question

Asynchronous Communication

answer

Occurs when team members do not meet at the same time

question

Virtual Meetings

answer

Meetings in which participants do not met in the same place and possibly not at the same time

question

Conference Call

answer

call in which several parties at different locations are on the telephone line simultaneously

question

Webinars

answer

A virtul meeting in which attendees view one of the attendees' computer screens

question

WebEx

answer

A commercial webinar product used in virtual sales presentations

question

Multiparty text chat

answer

Synchronous communication via text messages

question

SharedView

answer

Synchronous: Microsoft product for sharing a computer screen that is free

question

Videoconferencing

answer

An extension of teleconferencing that includes picture and sound

question

answer

Asynchronous form of electronic communication

question

Discussion Forum

answer

Form of asynchronous communication in which one group member posts an entry and other group members respond

question

Team Surveys

answer

A form of asynchronous communication in which one team member creates a list of questions and other team members respond

question

File server

answer

A computer used to store files

question

FTP

answer

File Transfer Protocol

question

Version management

answer

Tracking of changes to documents and providing features and functions to accommodate concurrent work

question

Google Docs

answer

A Free thin-client application for sharing documents, spreadsheets, presentations, drawings, and other types of data.

question

Windows Live SkyDrive

answer

Microsoft's answer to Google Docs. Provides the ability to store and share Office documents and other files and offers free storage

question

Office Web Apps

answer

license-free Web application versions of Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and OneNote available on SkyDrive

question

Version Control

answer

Limits the actions that can be taken by any particular user and gives control over the changes to documents to particular users

question

Libraries

answer

In version-control collaboration systems, a shared directory that allows access to various documents by means of permissions

question

Microsoft SharePoint

answer

A version control application that includes many collaboration features and functions. Integrated suite of capabilities that provides content management

question

SharePoint Site

answer

A collection of resources that are created and managed via SharePoint and accessed using HTTP. HTML, and related protocols

question

Quick launch

answer

a partial list of resources contained within the site

question

Problem

answer

A perceived difference between what is and what ought to be

question

Operational decisions

answer

Ensure that day-to-day operations are running correctly and efficiently

question

Transaction processing systems (TPS)

answer

information systems that support operational decision making

question

Managerial Decisions

answer

concern the allocation and utilization of resources

question

Strategic Decisions

answer

concern broader-scope, organizational issues. Ex: Should we start a new product line?

question

Structured decision

answer

a decision that is one for which there is an understood and accepted method for making this decision

question

Unstructured decision

answer

A decision process for which there is no agreed-on decision making method

question

Face-to-Face (F2F) meetings

answer

Meeting that require everyone to be in the same place at the same time

question

Viruses

answer

Computer programs that replicate themselves

question

Competitive Strategy

answer

An organization's response to the structure of its industry

question

Value

answer

The amount of money that a customer is willing to pay for a resource, product, or service

question

Margin

answer

The Difference between the value that an activity generates and the cost of the activity

question

Value Chain

answer

A network of value-creating activities that consists of five primary activities and four support activities

question

Primary activities

answer

Inbound logistics, operations/manufacturing, outbound logistics, sales & marketing, and customer service

question

Inbound logistics

answer

Receiving, storing and disseminating inputs to the product

question

operations/manufacturing

answer

Transforming inputs into the final product

question

Outbound logistics

answer

Collecting, storing and physically distributing the product to buyers

question

Sales & marketing

answer

inducing buyers to purchase the product and providing a means for them to do so

question

customer service

answer

assisting customer's use of the product and thus maintaining and enhancing the product's value

question

Support activities

answer

Activities in the generic value chain that contribute indirectly to the production, sale, and service of the product

question

Linkages

answer

Interactions across value activities

question

Business Process

answer

A network of activities that generate value by transforming inputs into outputs

question

Cost of business process

answer

The cost of the inputs plus the cost of activities

question

Activity

answer

A business function that receives inputs and produces outputs

question

Repository

answer

A collection of something

question

Switching Costs

answer

Strategy by which organizations can lock in customers by making it difficult or expensive for customers to switch to another product

question

Digital Divide

answer

the gap between those who have internet access and those who do not. This divide continues to deepen as those who are connected pull farther ahead of those who are not

question

Database

answer

A self-describing collection of integrated records

question

Fields (columns)

answer

Bytes that are grouped together

question

Records (Rows)

answer

Columns or fields that are grouped together

question

File (Table)

answer

A group of similar records (rows)

question

Key

answer

A Column or group of columns that identifies a unique row in a table

question

Foreign keys

answer

Columns that fulfill a role

question

Relational Databases

answer

Databases that carry their data in the form of tables and that represent relationships using foreign keys.

question

Metadata

answer

Data that describes data

question

Database Application system

answer

Applications that make database data more accessible and useful and that consists of forms, formatted reports, queries, and applications programs.

question

Database management system (DBMS)

answer

A program used to create, process and administer a database

question

DB2

answer

A popular, enterprise class DBMS product from IBM

question

Access

answer

A popular DBMS product from microsoft

question

SQL Server

answer

A popular DBMS product from microsoft

question

Oracle

answer

A popular DBMS product from Oracle Corporation

question

MySQL

answer

An open source DBMS product that is license-free for most applications

question

Structured Query Language (SQL)

answer

An international standard language for processing a database

question

Database Administration

answer

Function responsible for the more technical and operational aspects of managing organizational information

question

Database application

answer

A collection of forms, reports, queries, and application programs that process a database

question

Form

answer

Used to read, insert, modify, and delete database data

question

Report

answer

Show data in a structured context

question

Multi-User processing

answer

when two or more people use the same database, problems occur like lost-update

question

Lost-update problem

answer

A problem that exists in a database app in which two users update the same item and only one change is recorded

question

Enterprise DBMS

answer

Products that process large organizational and workgroup databases

question

Personal DBMS

answer

Products that are designed for smaller, simpler database applications

question

Data model

answer

A logical representation of database data

question

Entity-relationship data model (E-R model)

answer

A detailed logical representation of the entities, associations, and data elements for an organization or business area

question

Unified modeling Language (UML)

answer

Less popular tool for data modeling

question

Attributes

answer

Characteristics that describe entities

question

Identifier

answer

An attribute or group of attributes whose value is associated with one and only one entity instance

question

relationships

answer

entities have this to each other

question

entity relationship diagrams

answer

Data models that uses basic graphical symbols to show the organization of and relationships between data

question

Crow's Feet

answer

multiple lines between two entities

question

1:N = one-to-many relationships

answer

One department can have many advisers, but an adviser has at most one department

question

N:M or many-to-many

answer

One student can have advisors and 1 advisor can have many studnets

question

Crows-foot diagram

answer

A version of an entity-relationship diagram using crows feet

question

Maximum cardinality

answer

The maximum number of instances that an entity can be linked to the other entity in the relationship

question

Minimum cardinalities are _________

answer

minimum requirements on the number of entities

question

Normalization

answer

The process of converting a poorly structured table into two or more well-structured tables

question

What is the data integrity problem

answer

This is when we have a repeat/duplicate in data

question

Normal forms

answer

a classification of tables according to their characteristics and the kinds of problems they have

question

Data Aggregators

answer

Companies that obtain data from public and private sources and store and it in sophisticated ways

question

Information system

answer

A group of components that interact to produce information

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Identity

IS 194 Test 2 201 terms

Jose Escobar

201 terms

Preview

IS 194 Test 2

question

The easiest and least expensive way to prevent threats to system integrity is to install anti-virus software (T/F)

answer

True

question

Digital cash is legal tender that is instantly convertible into other forms of value without the intermediation of any third parties

answer

False

question

Phishing attacks rely on browser parasites

answer

False

question

The U.S. federal government has historically not been in favor of the development and export of strong encryption systems.

answer

True

question

In order to accept payments by credit card, online merchants typically must have a merchant account established with a bank or financial institution

answer

True

question

________ refers to the ability to ensure that messages and data are only available to those authorized to view them

answer

Confidentiality

question

All of the following statements about public key encryption are true except: . public key encryption uses two mathematically related digital keys. . public key encryption ensures authentication of the sender. . public key encryption does not ensure message integrity. . public key encryption is based on the idea of irreversible mathematical functions.

answer

public key encryption does not ensure message integrity.

question

Which of the following countries has been found to have engaged in cyberespionage against Google?

answer

China

question

An intrusion detection system can perform all of the following functions except:

answer

Blocking suspicious activity

question

Which of the following is not an example of a PUP? . adware . browser parasite . drive-by download . spyware

answer

Drive-by download

question

Which of the following did Dropbox implement after a series of security snafus in 2011 and 2012? a. firewall b. SSL/TLS c. two-factor authentication d. anti-virus software

answer

Two-Factor Authentication

question

Proxy servers are also known as

answer

Dual-home Systems

question

Online bill payments are believed to cost ________ to process compared to ________ for paper bills.

answer

20 to 30 cents, $3 to $7

question

All the following statements about symmetric key encryption are true except: . in symmetric key encryption, both the sender and the receiver use the same key to encrypt and decrypt a message. . the Data Encryption Standard is a symmetric key encryption system. . symmetric key encryption is computationally slower. . symmetric key encryption is a key element in digital envelopes.

answer

symmetric key encryption is computationally slower.

question

P2P payment systems are a variation on what type of payment system?

answer

stored value payment system

question

Which of the following is not an example of an access control? . firewalls . proxy servers . digital signatures . login passwords

answer

Digital signatures

question

None of the following payment systems offers immediate monetary value except: A) personal checks. B) credit cards. C) stored value/debit card. D) accumulating balance.

answer

stored value/debit card.

question

Reventon is an example of:

answer

Ransomware

question

Which of the following dimensions of e-commerce security is not provided for by encryption? . confidentiality . availability . message integrity . nonrepudiation

answer

Availability

question

Spoofing involves attempting to hide a true identity by using someone else's e-mail or IP address

answer

True

question

TLS does not guarantee server-side authentication

answer

False

question

A worm does not need to be activated by a user in order for it to replicate itself

answer

True

question

Smishing attacks exploit SMS messages

answer

True

question

Rustock is an example of which of the following?

answer

Botnet

question

An example of a privacy violation of e-commerce security is:

answer

your online purchasing history being sold to other merchants without your consent.

question

Which of the following is an example of an integrity violation of e-commerce security? A) A Web site is not actually operated by the entity the customer believes it to be. B) A merchant uses customer information in a manner not intended by the customer. C) A customer denies that he or she is the person who placed the order. D) An unauthorized person intercepts an online communication and changes its contents.

answer

. An unauthorized person intercepts an online communication and changes its contents.

question

Which of the following is the current standard used to protect Wi-Fi networks?

answer

WPA2

question

The overall rate of online credit card fraud is ________ % of all online card transactions.

answer

Less than 1%

question

All of the following are limitations of the existing online credit card payment system except: . poor security. . cost to consumers. . cost to merchant. . social equity.

answer

Cost to consumers

question

A digital certificate contains all of the following except the: . subject's private key. . subject's public key. . digital signature of the certification authority. . digital certificate serial number.

answer

Subject's private key

question

Which of the following is a set of short-range wireless technologies used to share information among devices within about 2 inches of each other?

answer

NFC

question

All of the following statements about PKI are true except . The term PKI refers to the certification authorities and digital certificate procedures that are accepted by all parties. . PKI is not effective against insiders who have a legitimate access to corporate systems including customer information. . PKI guarantees that the verifying computer of the merchant is secure. . The acronym PKI stands for public key infrastructure.

answer

. PKI guarantees that the verifying computer of the merchant is secure.

question

All of the following are factors in contributing to the increase in cybercrime except: . the ability to remotely access the Internet. . the Internet's similarity to telephone networks. . the ability to anonymously access the Internet. . the Internet is an open, vulnerable design.

answer

The Internet's similarity to telephone networks

question

Linden Dollars, created for use in Second Life, are an example of:

answer

Virtual Currency

question

. Insiders present a greater security threat to e-commerce sites than outsiders

answer

True

question

. Most of the world's spam is delivered via which of the following?

answer

Botnets

question

The research firm Cybersource estimated that online credit card fraud in the United States amounted to about ________ in 2012.

answer

$3.5 Billion

question

The Data Encryption Standard uses a(n) _____ bit key.

answer

question

Symmetric key encryption is also known as:

answer

Secret Key Encryption

question

Which dimension(s) of security is spoofing a threat to?

answer

Integrity and Authenticity

question

Software that is used to obtain private user information such as a user's keystrokes or copies of e-mail is referred to as:

answer

Spyware

question

All of the following are methods of securing channels of communication except: A) SSL. B) S-HTTP. C) VPN. D) FTP.

answer

FTP

question

Prior to the development of e-commerce, Web sites primarily delivered static content. T/F

answer

True

question

Upgrading a server from a single processor to multiple processors is an example of scaling a site horizontally. T/F

answer

True

question

Mobile Web apps are typically built using HTML5 and Java.

answer

True

question

Apache Web server software is based on Microsoft's Windows operating system.

answer

False

question

The annual maintenance cost for a Web site is likely to be as high as its development cost.

answer

True

question

4 kinds of e-commerce presence

answer

Web sites e-mail social media offline media

question

Which of the following typically includes a data flow diagram to describe the flow of information for an e-commerce site? . physical design . logical design . testing plan . co-location plan

answer

Logical design

question

A system design has two main components:

answer

a logical design and a physical design

question

All of the following are basic functionality provided by Web servers except: A) a product catalog. B) marketing software C) a shopping cart. D) credit card processing.

answer

A shopping cart

question

All of the following are simple steps for optimizing Web page content that can reduce response times except: reducing unnecessary HTML comments. Using more efficient graphics. Avoiding unnecessary links to other pages on the site. Segmenting computer servers to perform dedicated functions.

answer

- segmenting computer servers to perform dedicated functions

question

Offline media is typically used for all of the following marketing activities except: education.exposure.conversation.branding

answer

conversation

question

All of the following are methods of improving the processing architecture of a Web site except: a) separating static content from dynamic content b) optimizing ASP code c) optimizing database schema d) adding web servers

answer

Adding web servers

question

Which of the following technologies could you use to place the content of your Web site in a database so that you can then dynamically generate requests for pages? -Apache web server -proxy server -shopping cart -CMS

answer

CMS

question

Which of the following is not a main factor in determining overall demand for an e-commerce site? -static file sizes -number of items in inventory -user profiles -type of content

answer

Static File Size

question

________ verifies that the business objectives of the system as originally conceived are in fact working.

answer

Acceptance testing

question

In order from beginning to end, the major steps in the SDLC, are:

answer

systems analysis/planning; systems design; building the system; testing; implementation.

question

Which of the following is an example of a CMS?

answer

Wordpress

question

What are the two most important management challenges in building a successful e-commerce presence?

answer

-developing a clear understanding of business objectives -knowing how to choose the right technology to achieve those objectives

question

Which of the following details the actual hardware components to be used in a system?

answer

Physical Design

question

One of the most important challenges in developing an e-commerce presence is understanding that the technology must drive the business. T/F

answer

False

question

The systems development life cycle methodology is useful when creating an e-commerce Web site.

answer

True

question

Storing HTML pages in RAM rather than on a server's hard drive is an inexpensive way to fine-tune the processing architecture of a Web site. T/F

answer

True

question

All of the following are basic information requirements for a product database except: .product descriptions .stock numbers .customer ID numbers .inventory levels

answer

Customer ID number

question

Which of the following is the least expensive path to creating a mobile Internet presence?

answer

Resizing a website for mobile use

question

The term stateless refers to the fact that:

answer

the server does not have to maintain an ongoing dedicated interaction with the client computer.

question

Most of the time required to maintain an e-commerce site is spent on:

answer

general administration and making changes and enhancements to the system.

question

The cost of hardware, software, and telecommunications services needed to build a Web site have ________ over the last decade.

answer

Decreased drastically

question

Advantages of dynamic page generation include all of the following except: a) lowered menu costs b)market segmentation c) nearly cost-free price discrimination d) client-side execution of programming

answer

Client-side execution of programming

question

Which of the following is used to process certificates and private/public key information? A) HTTP B) SSL C) FTP D) data capture tools

answer

SSL

question

An e-commerce Web site that processes orders requires, at minimum, a ________ system architecture.

answer

Two-tier

question

The leading Web server software is

answer

Apache

question

All of the following are important factors in Web site optimization except: .selecting keywords and page titles .identifying market niches for your services or products .buying search engine ads .adhering to accessibility guidelines.

answer

Adhering to accessibility guidelines

question

Using prebuilt templates is typically one of the most cost-effective choices when building a Web

answer

True

question

The Web server software used does not significantly impact how a Web site's Web pages look on users':

answer

True

question

________ involves testing a site program's modules one at a time.

answer

Unit testing

question

All of the following might be part of a Web site's middle-tier layer except: .a database server .an ad server .legacy corporate applications .a mail server.

answer

Legacy corporate applications

question

The structure of a market is described in terms of:

answer

Direct competition, suppliers and substitute products

question

Which system functionality must your Web site have in order to be able to personalize or customize a product for a client? an ad server a site tracking and reporting system an inventory management system customer on-site tracking

answer

customer on-site tracking

question

The primary way a Web site is able to personalize the content presented to a visitor is through the use of:

answer

Cookies nom

question

Which of the following helps you understand the marketing effectiveness of your e-commerce site? shopping cart product database site tracking and reporting system inventory management system

answer

Site tracking and reporting system

question

Database

answer

Organized collection of logically related data; self-describing collection of integrated tables

question

File

answer

Group of records of same type

question

Record

answer

Group of related fields

question

Field

answer

Group of characters as word(s) or umber

question

Hierarchy in Database

answer

Field, Record, File, Database

question

Data

answer

Stored representations of meaningful objects and events

question

Structured Data

answer

Numbers, text, dates

question

Unstructured Data

answer

Images, video, documents

question

Information

answer

Data processed to increase knowledge in the person using the data

question

Metadata

answer

descriptions of the properties or characteristics of the data, including data types, field sizes, allowable values and data context (limit of what data can be..gpa can be 0-4 and 3 number places)

question

Context

answer

Helps us understand the data

question

Problems with traditional file environment (maintained separately by different departments)

answer

Data redundancy Data inconsistency Program-data dependence (change program requires change in data) Lack of flexibility Poor security Lack of data sharing and availability

question

Database Management System (DBMS)

answer

Interfaces between applications and physical data files Separates logical and physical views of data Solves problems of traditional file environment

question

Components of DBMS

answer

Users > Database application > SQL > DBMS > Database UASMD

question

What is the Dominant Database System?

answer

Oracle

question

SQL

answer

Sequential Query Language

question

JET (joint engine technology)

answer

Joint Engine Technology Database that is used as underlying database engine for Access

question

Components of Databases

answer

Entity Attribute Relationship

question

Entity

answer

Person, place, thing that we identify (people, cars) Can be tangible or abstract

question

Attribute

answer

Each characteristic, or quality, describing the entity (name, address, DL number)

question

Relationships

answer

Exist between entities One-to-one One-to-many Many-to-many

question

Entity Instance

answer

Occurrence of an entity (Human is entity, Spencer is instance)

question

Form

answer

Efficient way to capture data, imply entities, attributes and relationships

question

Data Definition Capability

answer

Specifies structure of database content, used to create tables and define characteristics of fields

question

Data Dictionary

answer

Automated or manual file storing definitions of data elements and their characteristics

question

Data Manipulation Language

answer

Used to add, change, delete, retrieve data from database (SQL)

question

Entity Relationship Diaram

answer

Used by database designers to document the data model and illustrate relationships between entities

question

Distributing databases

answer

Storing database in more than one place

question

Partitioned Database

answer

Separate locations store different parts of database

question

Replicated Database

answer

Central database duplicated in entirety at different locations

question

3 Key techniques Database Approach

answer

1. Data warehousing 2. Data mining (looking for relationships) 3. Tools for accessing internal databases throughout the web

question

Business Intelligence

answer

Tools for consolidating, analyzing and providing access to vast amounts of data to help users make better business decisions

question

Principle tools of business intelligence include:

answer

Software for database query and reporting Online analytical processing (OLAP) Data mining

question

Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)

answer

Supports multidimensional data analysis (each aspect of info is different dimension) and enables rapid, online answers to ad hoc queries

question

Data Mining

answer

Finds hidden patterns, relationships in large databases and infers rules to predict future behavior (discovery driven)

question

Predictive Analysis

answer

Uses data mining techniques, historical data and assumptions about future conditions to predict outcomes of events (prob customer will respond to offer)

question

Text Mining

answer

Extracts key elements from large, unstructured data sets (stored e-mails)

question

Advantages of using web for database access

answer

Ease of use of browser software Web interface requires few or no changes to database Inexpensive to add web interface to system

question

Information Policy

answer

Firm's rules, procedures, roles for sharing, managing, standardizing data

question

Data Administration

answer

Firm function responsible for specific policies and procedures to manage data

question

Data governance

answer

Policies and processes for managing availability, usability, integrity and security of enterprise data, especially as it relates to gov regulations

question

Database Administration

answer

Defining, organizing, implementing, maintaining database; performed by database design and management group

question

Before new database is in place, need to:

answer

Identify and correct faulty data Est. better routines for editing data once database in operation

question

Data Quality Audit

answer

Structured survey of the accuracy and level of completeness of the data in an info system

question

Data Cleansing

answer

Software to detect and correct data that are incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted or redundant (enforces consistency)

question

System Functionalities

answer

Types of info systems capabilities you will need to achieve your business objectives

question

Information Requirements

answer

Info elements that they system must produce in order to achier the business objectives

question

System Design Specification

answer

Description of the main components in a system and relationship to one another

question

CMS

answer

Organizes, stores and processes web site content

question

Co-location

answer

When a firm purchases or leases a web server (and has total control over its operation) but locates it in a vendor's physical facility. Vendor maintains the facility, communications lines and machinery

question

System Testing

answer

Testing site as a whole, in way typical user will use it

question

System Architecture

answer

Arrangement of software, machinery and tasks in an info system needed to achieve a specific functionality

question

Two-tier Architecture

answer

E-commerce system in which a web server responds to requests for web pages and a database server provides backend data storage

question

Multi-tier architecture

answer

Web server is linked to a middle-tier layer that includes series of application servers that perform specific tasks as well as a backend layer of existing corporate systems

question

Site management tools

answer

Verify that links on pages are still valid and also identify orphan files

question

Dynamic Page generation

answer

Contents of page are stored as objects in a database, rather than being hard coded in HTML. When user requests a web page, contents for that peg are fetched from database

question

Web application Server

answer

Software program that provide specific business functionality required of a web site

question

E-commerce merchant server software

answer

Software that provides the basic functionality needed for online sales, including catalog, order taking, shopping cart and credit card processing

question

Merchant Server Softwarer Package

answer

Offers integrated environment that provides most or all of functionality and capabilities needed to develop a sophisticated customer-centric site

question

Open Source Software

answer

Developed by community of programmers and designers and free to use and modify

question

Hardware Platform

answer

All underlying computing equipment that the system uses to achieve its functionality

question

I/O Intensive

answer

Requires input/output operations rather than heavy-duty processing power

question

Vertical Scaling

answer

Increasing processing power of individual components

question

Horizontal Scaling

answer

Employing multiple computers to share the workload

question

CGI (common gateway interface)

answer

set of standards for communication between a browser and program running on a server that allows for interaction between user and server

question

Active Server Pages

answer

Software development tool that enables programmers using Microsoft's IIS package to build dynamic pages

question

Java

answer

Programming language that allows programmers to create interactivity and active content on client computer, saving considerable load on the server

question

Java Server Pages

answer

Web page coding standard that allows developers to dynamically generate web pages in response to user requests

question

JavaScript

answer

programming language invented by Netscape that is used to control the objects on an HTML page and handle interactions with the browser

question

Widget

answer

Small, prebuilt chunk of code that executes automatically in your html web page

question

answer

A set of public statements declaring to your customers how you treat their personal info

question

Accessibility Rules

answer

Set of design objectives that ensure disabled users can effectively access your sight (handicapped)

question

Mobile Web Site

answer

Version of a regular desktop web site that is scaled down in content and navigation (most basic)

question

Responsive Web design

answer

Tools and design principles that automatically adjust the layout of a web site depending on user screen resolution

question

Mobile Web App

answer

App built to run on the mobile web browser built into a smartphone or tablet computer

question

Native App

answer

App designed specifically to operate using the mobile devices hardware and operating system

question

Integrity

answer

Ability to ensure that info being displayed on a website or transmitted or received over the Internet has not been altered in any way by an unauthorized party

question

Nonrepudiation

answer

Ability to ensure that e-commerce participants do not deny their online actions

question

Authenticity

answer

Ability to identify the identify of a person or entity with whom you are dealing on the internet

question

Confidentiality

answer

Ability to ensure that messages and data are available only to those who are authorized to view them

question

Privacy

answer

Ability to control the use of info about oneself

question

Availability

answer

Ability to ensure that an e-commerce site continues to function as intended

question

Malware

answer

Viruses, worms, ransomware, Trojan horses and bots

question

Drive-by download

answer

Malware that comes with a downloaded file that a user requests

question

Virus

answer

Computer program that has the ability to replicate itself and spread to other files

question

Worm

answer

Designed to spread from computer to computer

question

ransomware (scareware)

answer

Prevents you from accessing your computer or files and demands you pay a fine

question

Trojan horse

answer

Appears to be benign, but then does something other than expected

question

Backdoor

answer

Feature of malware that allows attacker to remotely access a comprised computer

question

Bot

answer

type of malicious code that can be covertly installed on a computer when connected to the internet, then responds to external commands sent by attacker

question

PUP (potentially unwanted program)

answer

Installs itself on computer without user's informed consent

question

Adware

answer

PUP that serves pop-up ads to your computer

question

Browser Parasite

answer

program that can monitor and change the settings of a user's browser

question

Social Engineering

answer

Type of phishing that relies on human curiosity, greed, gullibility in order to trick into taking action that will result in downloading malware

question

White Hats

answer

Good hackers who help orbs locate and fix security flaws

question

Black hats

answer

bad hackers

question

Grey hats

answer

Hackers who believe they are pursuing good by breaking in and revealing system flaws

question

Pharming

answer

Automatically redirecting a web link to an address different than the intended one, with a site masquerading as the intended desination

question

Spam (junk) web sites

answer

Link fams, promise to offer products or services, but really just collections of ads

question

DoS (denial of service)

answer

flooding web site with useless traffic to inundate and overwhelm the network

question

DDoS (distributed denial of serve)

answer

Using numerous computers to attack the target network from numerous launch points

question

Sniffer

answer

type of eavesdropping program that monitors info traveling over anetwork

question

SQL InjectionAttack

answer

takes advantage of poorly coded web app software that fails to properly validate or filter data entered by a user on a web page

question

Zero-day vulnerability

answer

software vulnerability that has been previously unreported and for which no patch yet exists

question

Encryption

answer

process of transforming plain text or data into cipher text that can't be read by anyone other than the sender and receiver

question

Key (cipher)

answer

any method for transforming plain text to cipher text

question

Symmetric Key Encryption

answer

Both sender and receiver use same key to encrypt and decrypt the message

question

Public Key Cryptography

answer

2 mathematically related digital keys are used; a public key and a private key. Private is kept secret by owner and public is widely disseminated. Both can be used to encrypt and decrypt, however once key is used to encrypt message, same key can't be used to unencrypted message

question

Hash Function

answer

Algorithm that produces a fixed-length number called a has or message digest

question

Digital Envelop

answer

Technique that uses symmetric encryption for large documents but public key encryption to encrypt and send the symmetric key

question

PKI (public key infrastructure)

answer

CAs and digital certificate procedures that are accepted by all parties

question

PGP (pretty good privacy)

answer

widely used email public key encryption software program

question

Secure negotiated session

answer

Client-server session in which URL of the requested doc, along with contents, contents of forms and cookies exchanged are encrypted

question

Firewall

answer

Hardware or software that filters communication packets and prevents some packets from entering the network based on a security policy

question

Proxy Server

answer

Software server that handles all communications originating from or vein sent to the Internet, acting as a spokesperson or bodyguard for the org

question

Security Token

answer

physical device or software that generates an identifier that can be used in addition to or in place of a password

question

CERT coordination center

answer

monitors and tracks online criminal activity reported to it by private corporations and gov agencies that seek out it is help

question

Float

answer

period of time between purchase and actual payment

question

Stored Value Payment System

answer

Account created by depositing funds into an account and from which funds are paid out or withdrawn as needed (Starbucks)

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Health Computing Medical Law And Ethics Medical Terminology Protected Health Information

HIM 115 Final Exam 228 terms

Deloris Connelly

228 terms

Preview

HIM 115 Final Exam

question

Name three ways that the Health information privacy protection has been established.

answer

Court decisions, State laws, Federal laws

question

Mary Smith has gone to her doctor to discuss her current medical condition, what is the legal term that best describes the type of communication that has occurred between Mary and her physician?

answer

Privileged communication

question

The legal term used to describe when a patient has the right to maintain control over certain personal information is referred to as:

answer

Privacy

question

What is the legal term used to define the protection of health information in a patient-provider relationship?

answer

Confidentiality

question

What is the legal term used to describe the physical and electronic protection of health information?

answer

Security

question

The \"custodian of health records\" refers to the individual within an organization who is responsible for:

answer

Authorized to certify records, supervise inspections and copying of records, and testifies to authenticity of records

question

Who owns the health record?

answer

Provider who generated the information

question

What is the term used most often to describe the individual within an organization who is responsible for protecting health information in conjunction with the court system?

answer

Custodian of Record

question

If a healthcare provider is accused of breaching the privacy and confidentiality of a patient what resource may a patient rely on to substantiate the providers responsibility for keeping health information private?

answer

Professional Code of Ethics

question

The concept of confidentiality applies to:

answer

All data and information systems, automated, paper, and verbal communications, clinical, financial, and business records

question

Law based upon judicial decision is called:

answer

Common law

question

The collection of federal statutes is found in a:

answer

Code

question

Which type of law involves the government as one of its parties?

answer

Public and criminal

question

A legislative act passed by Congress is an example of:

answer

Statutory and administrative law

question

In general, if a South Carolina law and a North Carolina law conflict, whose law is follwed?

answer

Each state follows its own law

question

Judicial decisions may be based on what type of actions\"

answer

Disputes between individuals and challenges to the contitutionality of a statute

question

If a lawsuit with the same fact pattern as a previous case is brought to the same court, the legal principle most likely to be follwed in determining this case is:

answer

Stare decisis

question

What is the name of the intermediate court in the tiered structure of the state court system in nearly every state?

answer

Appellate court

question

Appellate courts draft:

answer

Opinions

question

In the United States, both the Federal and the State court systems use the _______-tier approach.

answer

three

question

Statutory law derives from which branch of government?

answer

Legislative

question

Regulations written by a state department of health or the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services are examples of:

answer

Administrative law

question

Of the following,CMS, NIH, IHS, and HHS, which occupies the highest hierarchial position?

answer

HHS

question

The collection of federal statutory law is:

answer

United States Code

question

Diversity jurisdiction refers to the ability to bring legal action in a:

answer

Federal district court

question

Appellate courts are called _____ in the federal court system.

answer

Circuit courts

question

When a dispute is submitted to a disinterested third party and the third party settles the case, this is called:

answer

Arbitration

question

A lawsuit has been filed by John Collins, a resident of VA, against a hospital in PA alleging the wrongful disclosure of a patients confidential information. This lawsuit could be filed in what type of court?

answer

Federal district court

question

One or more advantages of arbitration over utilizing the court system to resolve a dispute is/are:

answer

Time saving, cost saving, and increased privacy

question

Which laws are synonymous terms for court decisions?

answer

Case law, common law, and judicial law

question

This type of law consists of rules and regulations issued by agencies that implement statutory law.

answer

Administrative law

question

A principle of law that serves as a guide in similar subsequent cases is called:

answer

Precedent

question

Alternate dispute resolution is an acceptable option to resolving cases via the court system for what type cases?

answer

Civial and criminal cases

question

Compensatory damages

answer

damages in which the plaintiff is compensated for losses incurred; actual damages

question

Contributory negligence

answer

an individual's conduct contributed in part to the injury that the individual suffered

question

Corporate negligence

answer

a doctrine under which hospitals may be held liable in their own right

question

Damages

answer

monetary compensation awarded by a court to an individual injured in a civil action through the wrongful act of another party

question

Intentional torts

answer

torts that involve a deliberate or intentional act

question

Joint and several liability

answer

a principle that allows each defendant in a legal action to be held responsible for the entire amount of damages that a plaintiff is awarded, regardless of the defendant's degree of fault

question

Misfeasance

answer

relating to negligence or improper performance during an otherwise correct act

question

Noneconomic damages

answer

damages that are not monetary in nature; an issue targeted by tort reforms

question

Punitive damages

answer

damages that exceed compensatory damages and serve to punish the defendant(s)

question

Res ipsa loquitur

answer

Latin for \"the thing that speaks for itself\"; an exception to the plaintiff having the burden of proof in which the facts or circumstances accompanying an injury may raise a presumption, or at least permit an interference, of negligence on the part of the defendant or some other individual who is charged with negligence and the burden of proof is shifted to the defendant

question

Respondeat superior

answer

Latin for \"let the master answer\"; the doctrine under which a hospital holds itself responsible for the actions of its employees provided those individuals were acting within the scope of their employment or at the hospital's direction at the time of the activity in question.

question

Tort

answer

a civil wrong for which the law provides a remedy in the form of a lawsuit to recover damages

question

Tort law

answer

law that involves the right of an individual, corporation, or other legal entity to recover damages for a loss caused by the defendant (tortfeasor or wrongdoer)

question

Tort reform

answer

the variety of measures intended by legislatures to overhaul the justice system; with regard to medical malpractice, such reforms are intended to diminish the number of lawsuits and large jury verdicts, stabilize the market, and ultimately reduce premiums for physicians

question

Admissibility

answer

evidence that is allowed to be admitted in a court of law

question

Authenticated evidence

answer

evidence that appears to be relevant and has been shown to have a baseline authenticity or trustworthiness

question

Circumstantial evidence

answer

evidence that is not directly from an eyewitness or participant and requires some reasoning to prove a fact

question

Demonstrative evidence

answer

actual objects, pictures, models, and other devices that are supposedly intended to clarify the facts for the judge and jury

question

Direct evidence

answer

\"real, tangible or clear evidence of a fact, happening or thing that requires no thinking or consideration to prove its existence\" (ALM Media Properties 2012)

question

Discoverability

answer

limitations on the ability of parties to discover pretrial information held by another party

question

e-Discovery

answer

pretrial legal process used to describe the methods by which parties will obtain and vie electronically stored information

question

Hearsay

answer

a written or oral statement made outside of court that is offered in court as evidence

question

Legal hold

answer

a court order that suspends the processing or destruction of paper or electronic records; also known as a preservation order, preservation notice, or litigation hold.

question

Spoliation

answer

intentional destruction, mutilation, alteration, or concealment of information relevant to a legal proceeding

question

Admissibility

answer

Evidence that is allowed to be admitted in a court of law

question

Burden of Proof

answer

The task of sufficiently proving or establishing the requisite degree of belief for each element of a case; usually belongs to a plaintiff

question

Compensatory Damages

answer

Damages in which the plaintiff is compensated for losses incurred; actual damages

question

Complaint

answer

The document that is filed with a court in order to commence a lawsuit

question

Court order

answer

A document issued by a judge that compels certain actions, such as testimony or the production of documents such as health records

question

Defendant

answer

The individual or organization that is the object of the lawsuit, and against whom a lawsuit is brought; wrongdoer

question

Discoverability

answer

Limitations on the ability of parties to discover pretrial information held by another party

question

Interrogatories

answer

Discovery devices consisting of written questions given to a party, witness, or other person who has information needed in a legal case

question

Jury

answer

The fact-finding body that hears evidence given by the parties, if they testify, and other witnesses; observes presented by both sides; hears the opening statements and closing arguments of each side; and decides facts based on the perceived credibility of the evidence, but does not decide law

question

Lay witness

answer

An individual's testifying based on his or her own observations of the situation(s) that prompted the case at hand

question

Plaintiff

answer

The individual who initiates a lawsuit to enforce either his or her rights or another's obligations

question

Procedural law

answer

The court's rules that guide a lawsuit from the time it begins through completion, whether it culminates in a trial or ends with a settlement or dismissal

question

Respondent

answer

The party against whom a petition is filed on appeal

question

Trial

answer

The stage in a lawsuit after the pretrial phase if the parties do not negotiate a settlement and the case is not dismissed

question

Voir dire

answer

The process through which a jury is selected

question

A jury does not

answer

make determination of the law

question

a defendant does not pay the damages awarded against her in a lawsuit. The court may order the seizure of a portion of her monthly wages to satisfy the judment in an action called

answer

garnishment

question

An environmental service employee of the hospital is called to the vascular surgeon floor to clean the floor where a bag of Potassium chloride was spilled. After cleaning the floor, the employee failed to place any signs advising others of a wet floor. Mrs. Jones, a hospital employee fell on the floor and injured her back. She incurred medical expenses of $560.00 and loss wages in the amt of $1000.00. She brought suit and the jury awarded her $1560.00, representing reimbursement of the medical expenses and lost wages, plus $10k for the jurors; perceived recklessness on the part of the hospital. What is the $10k amt considered?

answer

punitive damages

question

a state appellete court will hear a case dealing with an injury to a patient if the atty appealing the case can prove

answer

an error of law occurred

question

Mr. Green owon a 500K lawsuit against Dr. Blue. Dr. Blue has appealed. Upon appeal, Mr. Green is referred to as

answer

respondent

question

mr. Green owon a 500K lawsuit against Dr. Blue. Dr. Blue has appealed. Upon appeal, Dr. Blue is referred to as

answer

petitioner

question

Dr. Robert is being sued for negligence by one of his patients. Dr. roberts decides to represent himself as his own atty. Dr Roberts is

answer

acting pro se

question

the best evidence rule

answer

permits copies to be substituted in certain circumstances

question

the following type of damages has been the primary target of the tor reform legislation

answer

non economic compensatory damages

question

Gloria Kramer files a medical malpractive lawsuit against Dr. Johnson, alleging that he is committed negligence in the treatment of her diabetes. Ms. Kramer's atty insists that Dr. Johnson cannot speak about any of her medical diagnoses because of patient physician priveldge. ms. Kramer's atty

answer

is incorrect because she placed her medical condition at issue

question

From the evidentiary standpoint, indicent reports

answer

should not be placed in the patient's medical record

question

During a trial to deteremine whether Dr. Smith was liable for medical malpractice, Dr. Smith testified in his own defense. Legally, Dr. smith's testimony was

answer

direct evidence

question

relevant evidence

answer

tends to make exixtense of a fact more or less probable

question

a hospital employee destroyed medical records so that it contents- which would be damaging to the employee- could not be used at a trial. In legal terms, the employee's action constitutes

answer

spoiliation

question

Patient- provider priviledge is defined by

answer

state law

question

Describe all the players in a lawsuit

answer

judge- decision maker

question

plaintiff and defendent

answer

- parties in lawsuit

question

jury-

answer

group of people that decide verdict

question

benchtrial-

answer

decision made without a jury trial, judge decides

question

bailiff-

answer

keeps order in the court

question

court reporter-

answer

records the communication

question

attorney-

answer

knows and speaks the law on behalf of plaintiff or defendent

question

Explain the differenfce between discoverablity and admissibility

answer

discoverability is evidence that cant be necessarily used in a trial

question

admissibility-

answer

evidence that can be used in a trial, the judge feels it is acceptable

question

Distinguish differences between noneconmonic compensatory damages and punitive damages

answer

noneconomic compensatory damages do not have a monetary value

question

punitive damages

answer

go above and beyond the damages, it is there to punish the defendent for their wrong doing

question

Who has the legal right to refuse treatment?

answer

Juanita, who is 98 yrs old and of sound mind, Linda, who is 35 incompetent, and created a Living Will prior to becoming incompetent stating that she did not wish to be kept alive artificial mean.

question

Janice arrives at her physician's office for her 10:30 scheduled appointment and pays her office visit co-payment. Her physician examines her. Based on these facts, Janice's consent is

answer

implied

question

Mary is contemplating triple bypass surgery. Informed consent by her surgeon would typically contain which of the following

answer

Purpose of proposed procedure, risks assocated wth the procedure, non invasive treatment alternatives

question

Mary Little is 95 yrs old, While an inpatient at Gen. Hospital, she agrees that she doesnt want to be resuscitated if she would have a cardiopulmonary arrest. She sings a form and the physician documents it in the record. This best describes a

answer

DNR order

question

An advance directive is used to direct an individual's healthcare wishes in the event of

answer

Patient incapacitation

question

When a competent adult refuses treatment, a court may be required to balance the individual's privacy interests against

answer

The governments interest in protecting human life

question

carrying out the wishes stated in a living will applies to whch of the following patient's who is incompetent due to illness?

answer

a 40yr old man who was born with severe mental retardation

question

Emergences are an exception to the consent requirement for

answer

both adults and minors

question

The Uniform Health-Care Decisions Act ranks the next of Kin n the following order for medical decision making purposes

answer

spouse; adult child; parent ; adult sibling

question

Johnny is 12, his parents are divorced. In order for Johnny to receive medical treatment, generally

answer

one parent must consent

question

Mrs. Baker, who is a competent adult, has consulted her phys. For chronc URQ pain. Her phys. Recommends an elective cholestcystectomy. In this case, who must consent to the operative procedure?

answer

Mrs. Baker

question

the medical staff at Regency health is nationally revowned for its skill in performing cardac procedures. The nursing staff in the cardiac unit has noticed a signifcant lack of informed consents prior to performance procedures. Obtaining informed consent is the responsiblity of the

answer

Physician

question

Consent forms that allow for the performance of routine services by healthcare providers are

answer

general consents

question

in the Cruzan case, the court held that a person cannot assume end of life decisions on behalf of an incompetent person without _______ evidence that the person would refuse the continuation of life sustaining treatment.

answer

clear and convincing

question

What is the primary purpose of patient health information?

answer

patient care

question

Who is responsible for ensuring the quality of health record documentation?

answer

provider

question

Which of the following statements about the \"legal health record\" or the \"designated record set\" is incorrect?

answer

designated record set is determined by the medical staff

question

Of the following, which is the most likely to happen to the the health records of a phys. Patient when a phys. Leaves an office practice?

answer

retained by the practice

question

Once a paper health record has been converted onto microfilm, the info cannot be used as evidence. T/F

answer

False

question

The legal health record

answer

will be disclosed upon request

question

The legal health record must meet requirements as defined by the following

answer

federal regulations, state laws, accreditation body standards

question

Verbal Orders by telephone or in person are discouraged. In cases where verbal orders are necessary, which of the following is the most effective method by which the risk of miscommunication can be lessened?

answer

person receiving the order should read iit back to insure that the order is correct

question

Which of the following exemplifes an acceptable patient record entry?

answer

patient articulated pain level as a 6

question

Staff disagreements within the health record should be

answer

avoided

question

Mrs. Bolton is an angry patient who resents her phys. \"bossing her around\" refuese to take a portion of the medications that the nurses brng to her pursuant ot phys. Orders., and is verybally abusive to the patient care assistants. Of the following options, the most appropriate way ot document Mrs.Bolton;'s behavior in the medical record is

answer

non compliant and hostile toward staff

question

legally, whch of the following is the most important in determining the length of time that a hospital must retain medical records?

answer

statute of limitations

question

Integrity refers to the

answer

accuracy and completeness of information

question

A goal of E_SIGN legislation was to

answer

give electronic signatures in all business meetings

question

Auto Authentication

answer

contradicts basic authentication standards

question

Authentication methods include

answer

handwritten signature, rubber signature stamp, electronic signature

question

Changes to health record entries

answer

are acceptable in certain circumstances

question

Printing paper Documents from an HER systems

answer

creates legal challenges as to which document is the source of truth

question

Which of the following personnel should be authorizes, per hospital policy, to take a physician's verbal order for the administration of medication?

answer

nurse working on the unit where the patient is located

question

A late entry into the health record should

answer

be identified as a late entry

question

Abbreviations in the health record

answer

should have only one meaning

question

The integrity of E H R documentation is more susceptible than the paper health record to which of the following functions?

answer

cut and paste

question

Record maintenance and contect requirements are established in part by

answer

dept of health and human services, joint commission, centers for medicare and medicaid services

question

Dr. Harvey has changed a piece of data in a patient record. The info that tracks this change and enables a jury to see this change in a medical malpractice action is called

answer

metadata

question

Of the following, who has ultimate legal responsibility for the quality of care rendered in a healthcare organization?

answer

governing body

question

Although HIPAA is not the first piece of federal privacy legislation, it is more expansive than the Privacy Act of 1974, which applied privacy rules

answer

Federal agencies

question

The HIPAA privacy rule

answer

is federal common law

question

St. Joseph's Hospital has a psychiactric service on the sixth floor of the hospital. A 31 yr old male has come inot the HIM dept. and requested to see a copy of his medical record. He has told your clerk he was a patient of Dr. Schmidt, a psychiatrist, ans was on the sixth floor of St. Joseph's for th last two mths, These records are not psychotherapy notes. The best course of action for you to take , as the HIM director, is

answer

allow the patient to access his record if, after contacting the physician, his physician doesnt feel that it is harmful to the patient

question

Medical information loses PHI status and is no longer protected by the HIPAA privacy rule

answer

is de identified

question

Linda Wallace is being admitted to the hospital. She is presented with a \"Notice of Privacy Practices\" In the Notice, it is explained to her that PHI will be used and disclosed for treatment, paymt, and operations (TPO) puposes. Linda states that she doesnt want her PHI used for that purpose

answer

the hospital is not required to honor her wishes in this situation, as the notice of privacy practices is info only and the hospital must try to get written acknowledgement from Linda that she was presented with a copy of the notice of privacy practices

question

Today, Janet Kim, visited her new dentist for an appt. She was not presented with a notice of privacy practices. Is this acceptable?

answer

no, it is a violation of the HIPAA privacy rule

question

The HIPAA privacy rule

answer

both a nd b or incorrect. it doesn't apply to meidicare patients and doesnt only apply to govt operated healthcare facilities

question

The HiPAA recognized consent is a patient's agreement to

answer

use or disclosure for TPO purposes

question

An original goal of HIPAA Administrative Simplification was to standardize

answer

the electronic transmission of health data

question

The Kids' Foundation, a foundation related to Children's Hospital. Is mailing fundraising info to the familes of all patients who have been treated at Children's hospital in the last three years. Based on the facts given

answer

children hospital must have notified the patients/ patients' guardians of this disclosure in the notice of privacy practices

question

Champion Hospital retains Hall, Hall and Hall, a law firm, to perform all of its legal work, including representation during medical malpractice lawsuits. Which of the follwing statements are correct?

answer

the law firm is a business assoc. because it performs activities on behalf of the hospital and it uses or discloses individually identifiable information

question

You are a member of the hospital's health information management committee. The committee has created a HIPPA complaint Authorization Form. Which of the following items does the Privacy rules not require

answer

signature of the patient's attending physician

question

Which of the following is not an element that makes info \"PHI\" under the HIPAA Privacy rule

answer

contained within the personnel file

question

One of the medical staff committees at st vincent hospital is responsible for reviewing cases of patients readmitted within 14 days after discharge. This review of patients' medical records is

answer

treatment

question

Susan is completing her required high school community service hours by serving as a volunteer at the local hospital. Relative to the hospital, she is a

answer

business associate

question

Lane hospital has a contract with Ready Clean, a local company, to come into the hospital to pick up all of the facility's linens for offsite laundering ready clean is

answer

not a business associate because it doesnt use or disclose individually identifiable information

question

Jeremy Lykins was required to undergo a physical exam prior to becoming employed by San Fernando Hospital. Jeremy's medical information is

answer

protected by the privacy rule beaucese it is individiually identifiable

question

The designated health record set

answer

includes medical and billing records

question

The HIPAA Security rules is one of the two main parts of the Health Ins. Portability of 1996. T/F

answer

True

question

Public Interest and benefit uses and disclosures under the privacy rule

answer

sometimes requires the patient's agreement or authorization

question

One of the medical staff committees at st vincent hospital is responsible for reviewing cases of patients readmitted within 14 days after discharge. One of the four general requirements a CE must adhere to in order to be in compliance with the HIPAA security rule includes the following

answer

ensure the confidentiality, integrity and availablity of the ePHI

question

What is the primary distinctinos between the HIPAA Security Rule and the HIPAA Privacy Rule\"?

answer

both a and b the privacy rule applies ot all forms of patient's PHI, whether electronic, written, or oral. in contract, the Security rule covers only PHI that is in electronic format. and the security rule provides far more comprehensive security requirements than the privacy rule and includes a level of detail not provided in the privacy rule

question

The HIPAA Security Rules applies to which of the following covered entities?

answer

All of the above: hospital that bills medicare, physician electronic billing company, blue cross health insurance plan

question

Addressable implementation specifications in the Security Rules standards are optional: therefore, the CE does not have to show that the standard has been met. T/F

answer

False

question

The HIPAA Security Awareness and Training administrative safeguards requires all fo the following addressable implementation programs but one for an entity's workforce

answer

disaster recovery plan

question

Which of the following statements is false about the Security Officer?

answer

security officer is a required full time position under HIPAA security rule

question

Noncompliance with the HIPAA Security Rule can lead to

answer

neither A nor B. it can not lead to civil penalties up to $25,000 per person per yr or Criminal penalties up to $250,000 and 10 yrs in prison

question

The director of the Health Information Services is allowed access to the medical record tracking system when providing the proper log in and password. Under what access security mechanism is the director allowed access to the system?

answer

user based

question

An individual designated as an inpatient coder may have access to an electronic medical record in order to code the record. Under what access security mechanism is the coder allowed access to the system?

answer

role based

question

Although HIPAA is not the first piece of federal privacy legislation, it is more expansive than the Privacy Act of 1974, which applied privacy rules

answer

Federal agencies

question

The HIPAA privacy rule

answer

is federal common law

question

answer

allow the patient to access his record if, after contacting the physician, his physician doesnt feel that it is harmful to the patient

question

Medical information loses PHI status and is no longer protected by the HIPAA privacy rule

answer

is de identified

question

answer

question

Today, Janet Kim, visited her new dentist for an appt. She was not presented with a notice of privacy practices. Is this acceptable?

answer

no, it is a violation of the HIPAA privacy rule

question

The HIPAA privacy rule

answer

both a nd b or incorrect. it doesn't apply to meidicare patients and doesnt only apply to govt operated healthcare facilities

question

The HiPAA recognized consent is a patient's agreement to

answer

use or disclosure for TPO purposes

question

An original goal of HIPAA Administrative Simplification was to standardize

answer

the electronic transmission of health data

question

answer

children hospital must have notified the patients/ patients' guardians of this disclosure in the notice of privacy practices

question

answer

the law firm is a business assoc. because it performs activities on behalf of the hospital and it uses or discloses individually identifiable information

question

answer

signature of the patient's attending physician

question

Which of the following is not an element that makes info \"PHI\" under the HIPAA Privacy rule

answer

contained within the personnel file

question

One of the medical staff committees at st vincent hospital is responsible for reviewing cases of patients readmitted within 14 days after discharge. This review of patients' medical records is

answer

treatment

question

Susan is completing her required high school community service hours by serving as a volunteer at the local hospital. Relative to the hospital, she is a

answer

business associate

question

Lane hospital has a contract with Ready Clean, a local company, to come into the hospital to pick up all of the facility's linens for offsite laundering ready clean is

answer

not a business associate because it doesnt use or disclose individually identifiable information

question

Jeremy Lykins was required to undergo a physical exam prior to becoming employed by San Fernando Hospital. Jeremy's medical information is

answer

protected by the privacy rule beaucese it is individiually identifiable

question

The designated health record set

answer

includes medical and billing records

question

The HIPAA Security rules is one of the two main parts of the Health Ins. Portability of 1996. T/F

answer

True

question

Public Interest and benefit uses and disclosures under the privacy rule

answer

sometimes requires the patient's agreement or authorization

question

answer

ensure the confidentiality, integrity and availablity of the ePHI

question

What is the primary distinctinos between the HIPAA Security Rule and the HIPAA Privacy Rule\"?

answer

question

The HIPAA Security Rules applies to which of the following covered entities?

answer

All of the above: hospital that bills medicare, physician electronic billing company, blue cross health insurance plan

question

Addressable implementation specifications in the Security Rules standards are optional: therefore, the CE does not have to show that the standard has been met. T/F

answer

False

question

The HIPAA Security Awareness and Training administrative safeguards requires all fo the following addressable implementation programs but one for an entity's workforce

answer

disaster recovery plan

question

Which of the following statements is false about the Security Officer?

answer

security officer is a required full time position under HIPAA security rule

question

Noncompliance with the HIPAA Security Rule can lead to

answer

neither A nor B. it can not lead to civil penalties up to $25,000 per person per yr or Criminal penalties up to $250,000 and 10 yrs in prison

question

answer

user based

question

answer

role based

question

advance directive

answer

a legal document that specifies an individual's healthcare wishes in the event that he or she has a temp. or permanent loss of competence

question

consent

answer

a patient's acknowledgement that he or she understands a proposed intervention, including that intervention's risks; benefits, and alternatives. 2. a patient's agreement that protected health information can be disclosed; the document that provides a record of the patient's consent.

question

durable power of attorney (DPOA)

answer

a power of attorney that remains in effect even after the principal is incapacitated; can be drafted to take effect only when the principal becomes incapacitated

question

Durable power of attorney for healthcare decisions (DPOA-HCD)

answer

a legal instrument through which a principal appoints an agent to make healthcare decisions on the principal;s behalf in the event the principal becomes incapacitated

question

express consent

answer

consent that is communicated through words, regardless of whether those words are written or spoken

question

general consent

answer

a form that covers routine diagnostic procedures and medical treatment by a hospital staff as well as other activites such as release of info for treatment purposes and disposal of human tissue and body fluids

question

good samaritan law

answer

state law or statute that protects healthcare providers from liablity for not obtaining informed consent before rendering care to adults or minors at the scene of an emergency or accident

question

implied consent

answer

consent for medical treatment that is communicated through a person's conduct or some other means besides words

question

informed consent

answer

a type of consent in which the patient should have a basic understanding of which medical procedures or tests may be performed as well

question

living will

answer

a document executed by a competent adult that express that individual's wishes to limit treatment measures when specific health related diagnoses or conditions exist

question

power of attorney (POA)

answer

a legal instrument used by a principal (person) to grant legal authority to one or more agents to make certain legal and financial decisions on behalf of the principal

question

therapeutic priviledge

answer

a doctrine that has historically allowed physicians to withhold information information from patients in limited circumstances..

question

uniform heatlh care decisions act (UHCDA)

answer

a model law created in 1993 that provides that an individual may give an oral or written instruction to a healthcare provider that remains in force even after the individual loses capacity, and suggest decision making priority for that individual's surrogates.

question

authentication

answer

verification of records validation therefore it is reliable and truthfulness as evidence;also a security mechanism to validate the identity of a user in an electronic format

question

authenticity

answer

the genuineness of a record, that is what it purports to be; information is authentic if proved to be mmune from tamperng and corruption

question

completeness

answer

an element of a legally defensible record; the health record is not complete until all parts are assembled and the appropriate documents are authenticated according to medical staff bylaws

question

designated record set (DRS)

answer

a group of records maintained by or for a covered entity encompassing medical records and billing records about individuals and enrollment, payment, claims adjudication, and case or medcial management record systems maintained by or for a health plan used, in whole or in part , by or for the covered entity to make decisions about individuals

question

legal health record (LHR)

answer

the form of a health record that is the legal business record of the organization and serves as evidence in lawsuits or other legal actions; what constitutes an organizations legal health record varies depending on how the organization defines it

question

master patient index (MPI)

answer

a patient identifying directory that serves as a link to the patient record or information, facilitates patient identification, and assists in maintaining a longitudinal patient record from birth to death

question

retention

answer

a mechanism for storing records, providing for timely retrieval, and establishing the length of time that various types of records will be retained by the healthcare organization

question

statutes of limitations

answer

a statutory enactment that places time limits on certain items

question

uniform electronic transactions Act

answer

federal statute that makes electronic transactions as enforceable as paper transactions, removing barriers to electronic commerce and increasing trust associated with electronioc business transactions

question

affiliated covered entities

answer

legally separate covered entities, affliated by common ownership or control; for purpose of the Privacy Rule, these legally separate entities may refer to themselves as a single covered entity

question

covered entities

answer

persons or organizations that must comply ith the HIPPA Privacy and security rules; include healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses

question

deidentified information

answer

information from which personal characteristics have been stripped and that, as a result, neither identifies or nor provides a reasonable basis to believe it could identify an individual.

question

health information technology for economic and clinical health act (HITECH)

answer

federal legislation that was passed as a portion of the Amercan Recovery and Reinvestment act; contains changes to the HIPAA Privacy rule

question

notice of practices

answer

A statement issued by a healthcare organization that informs individuals of the uses and disclosures of patient's identifiable health information that may be made by the organization, as well as the individual's rights and the organization's legal duties with respect to that information

question

privacy act of 1974

answer

a law that requires federal agencies to safeguard personally identifiable records and provides individuals wth certain privacy rights

question

protected health information

answer

a term defined n the HIPPA privacy Rule as \"individual identfiable health information that is transmitted by electronic media, maintained in electronic medium, or transmtted or maintained in any other form or medium

question

encryption

answer

a technique used to ensure that data transferred from on location on a network to another are secure from eavesdropping or interception

question

security officer or chief security officer

answer

an individual responsible for overseeing privacy policies and procedures

question

technical safeguards

answer

security measures that are based on technology rather than on adminstration or physical security, including access control, unique user identification, automatic logoff, and encryption and decryption

question

business record

answer

a record that is made and kept in the usual course of business, at or near of the event recorded

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Hard Disk Drives Wireless Network Card

testout CH13 Flashcards 154 terms

Bernice Cooper

154 terms

Preview

testout CH13 Flashcards

question

A user has called to complain that her computer won't boot. It stops at the BIOS startup screen right after the memory has been tested and displays a 301 keyboard error. What should you do first?

answer

Verify that no keys are being pressed down during POST.

question

Your motherboard has two memory slots and supports a maximum of 8GB of RAM. After installing two 4GB modules and booting your system, you find that Windows only recognizes 3.5 GB of RAM. What should you do?

answer

Upgrade to a 64-bit version of Windows.

question

After arriving early this morning, you turn on your computer to begin your work. Instantly you see smoke and smell a strange odor coming from the computer. What should you do?

answer

Shut off the system immediately

question

What should you do (if possible) before flashing the BIOS? (Select two.)

answer

Backup CMOS settings. Connect the computer to a UPS.

question

You have just replaced the motherboard in your computer. Your computer starts, but the hard disk light does not come on while the system is booting. What should you do?

answer

Connect the hard disk LED to the motherboard.

question

You have a desktop computer that uses a 250 watt power supply. You recently added a 4-disk RAID10 array to the system and now it spontaneously shuts down. What should you do?

answer

Upgrade to a power supply that provides more watts.

question

Lately your computer is spontaneously rebooting and freezing. What is the most likely cause?

answer

Overheated CPU

question

You are testing the power supply in a PC system by measuring the voltage available on the 4-pin Molex connector. The voltage on the red wire is + 5.1 volts. What should you do?

answer

Nothing, the power supply is working normally.

question

You have an existing computer that you've been using for years. You decide to upgrade the processor. You check the motherboard documentation and purchase the fastest processor that is supported by the motherboard. When you start the computer, it beeps regularly but nothing is shown on the screen and it doesn't start. What should you do? (Select two.)

answer

Reinstall the old processor in the motherboard. Flash the BIOS.

question

To test a power supply, you want to use a multimeter to measure the voltage on a Molex hard disk drive connector. To do this, you need to turn the power supply on. Which pins on the 24-pin motherboard connector coming from the power supply can be shunted to turn the power supply on? (Select two.)

answer

Pins 16 and 17 Pins 15 and 16

question

You are in the process of configuring a new computer. The motherboard has six memory slots and supports triple channel memory. You install two memory modules. When you boot the computer, the BIOS recognizes both modules, but the memory only runs in dual channel mode. What should you do? (Select two.)

answer

1. Move the modules to the correct motherboard slots. 2. Install a third, identical memory module

question

You are testing the power supply in a PC system by measuring the voltage available on the 4-pin Molex connector. The voltage on the yellow wire is +10.1 volts. What should you do?

answer

Replace the power supply.

question

When you try to boot your computer, it hangs after POST. When you access the CMOS setup program, you see that the date is several years behind and the time is set to 12:01 am. What is the most likely problem?

answer

The CMOS battery has failed.

question

You have just finished upgrading the CPU in your desktop system. After running the system for about 15 minutes, the system spontaneously shuts down. What should you do first to troubleshoot the problem? (Select two.)

answer

1. Check the thermal shutdown threshold in the BIOS 2. Check the CPU fan power.

question

You have installed a new computer with a quad-core 64-bit processor, 6 GB of memory, and a PCie video card with 512MB of memory. After installing the operating system, you see less than 4GB of memory showing as available in Windows. What should you do?

answer

Install a 64-bit version of the operating system.

question

You have just installed several devices at once to a computer, but now the computer fails to boot properly. What should you do?

answer

Remove all of the newly added devices and install them one at a time.

question

Lately your computer is spontaneously shutting down after only a few minutes of use. What is the most likely cause? (Select two.)

answer

Cooling fans clogged with dust Overheated CPU

question

Lately you hear a clicking noise when reading or writing data from the hard disk. What is the most likely cause of the clicking?

answer

A clicking noise when reading or writing data from the hard disk is an early sign of a failing drive.

question

Due to a blackout, power is no longer coming from the wall outlet and your computer is now off. You do not have a UPS and you need to remove a disc out of the DVD drive. What is the easiest method for retrieving the disc?

answer

Push an unbent paper clip into the hole on the front of the drive.

question

You have connected a two drives to the primary IDE interface in a PC system. How could the drives be configured? (Select two options.)

answer

Set both drives to Cable Select. Set one drive to Master and the other to Slave.

question

You have a computer with a single hard disk configured as a basic disk with a single partition formatted with NTFS. The computer runs Windows 7 Enterprise. The disk has run out of space. You need to add space to the disk. You install a new hard drive and start Disk Management. Which of the following is a required task to add space to the existing volume?

answer

On the new hard disk, create a new partition without a drive letter.

question

Your desktop workstation system uses a SCSI bus to connect storage devices. The SCSI host adapter is assigned an ID of 7, the SCSI hard disk is assigned an ID of 5, the SCSI tape drive is assigned an ID of 3, and the SCSI DVD drive is assigned an ID of 0. Which device has the lowest priority on the SCSI bus.

answer

DVD drive

question

You have been asked to implement a RAID 10 solution for a video editor's desktop workstation. What is the minimum number of hard disks that can be used to configure RAID 10?

answer

question

Your computer currently runs Windows 7 Enterprise edition. You want to create a RAID 10 array using four newly installed SATA disks. When you go to Disk Management, the option to create the RAID 10 array is not available. What should you do?

answer

Install an add-on RAID controller.

question

A computer has two hard disk drives installed on the primary IDE channel. You decide to move the second hard drive to the secondary IDE channel. The secondary IDE interface will have no other devices. How should you configure the second hard drive on this channel?

answer

Master or Single

question

Which of the following drive configurations uses striping with parity for fault tolerance?

answer

Raid 5

question

You are installing the first SATA drive into a desktop computer system, but you do not have the drivers for the motherboard's integrated SATA controller. Which of the following tasks will be required in the configuration process?

answer

Set the drive type in the BIOS to IDE.

question

You have added a new 1 TB hard disk to a Windows computer. The disk is configured as a basic disk. Which of the following can be configured on this disk? (Select two.)

answer

Primary partitions Extended partitions with logical drives

question

You remove a SATA hard disk from a Windows 7 computer and put it in a system that is running Windows 98. You are unable to read the disk. What is most likely the problem

answer

Windows 98 does not support NTFS.

question

You're configuring devices on a SCSI bus. You've installed a SCSI adapter in an expansion slot. You've connected a SCSI hard disk drive (sdO) to one of the middle connectors on the internal SCSI ribbon cable. The end connector on the internal SCSI ribbon cable is connected to a SCSI DVD drive. Where should termination be enabled on this bus? (Choose two.)

answer

On the SCSI adapter. On the DVD drive.

question

You have a computer running Windows 7 Home Premium and need to access the contents of a flash drive. The flash drive has been formatted with the exFAT file system. You want to read the flash drive on your computer as quickly as possible with the least amount of effort. What should you do?

answer

Do nothing. Windows 7 can natively access exFAT file systems.

question

Which term refers to a situation where two files try to claim the same cluster on the hard disk?

answer

Cross-linked clusters

question

Which of the following utilities would you use to correct cross-linked clusters within the file system on a Windows workstation?

answer

chkdsk

question

You have just finished upgrading the 250 W power supply in your desktop computer to a 450 W power supply. Now the BIOS doesn't recognize one of the hard disk drives in the system during POST. What should you do?

answer

Make sure that the hard disk is connected to the power supply.

question

You have just finished installing a new SATA hard disk in your computer. Now your SATA DVD drive won't work. What should you do first? (Select two.)

answer

Make sure that the DVD SATA cable is connected. Make sure that the DVD power cable is connected.

question

You have physically installed a new hard disk drive in your computer and configured the disk in the BIOS using the CMOS setup program. You try to access the hard disk drive in Windows Explorer, but the drive is not displayed. Which utility will you most likely use to solve the problem?

answer

Disk Management

question

When you try to read a particular DVD·R disc that was burned in a different computer, you receive an error message. Other DVD discs work fine in your drive. Which of the following are the most likely problems?

answer

The disc is dirty or scratched.

question

You have an existing computer running Windows 7 Enterprise. You want to configure a RAID 5 array in the computer. You install three new SATA drives, then use the RAID controller integrated into the motherboard to define a RAID 5 array using them. When you boot the computer, Windows does not show the logical RAID drive you just created. What should you do?

answer

Install the drivers for the RAID controller.

question

One corner of the image on an SVGA monitor always has a more purple tint than the rest of the image. What is most likely the problem?

answer

Data cable

question

A customer complains that a recently purchased monitor no longer displays a picture. You verify that the monitor is powered on and that the video cable is securely fastened to the video port. Which of the following actions should you direct the customer to take next?

answer

Adjust the monitor's settings using controls on the monitor. Explanation of this stupid ass answer: A common problem is for a monitor's brightness or contrast control to be turned down accidentally. You should ask the customer to adjust the brightness and contrast on the monitor to see if it has any effect on the problem.

question

You have purchased an LED monitor and connected it to the DVI-I port on your computer using a DVI-D cable. You configure the screen resolution to 1440 x 900 with 24-bit color. The screen display seems to be fuzzy. What should you do to correct the problem?

answer

Change the screen resolution to the native resolution of the monitor. OBVIOUSLY the other answers: 0 Replace the DVI-D cable with a DVI-I cable. 0 Increase the color depth to 32- bit. 0 Change the screen resolution to 1600 X 1200. 0 Replace the DVI-I cable with a DVI-A cable.

question

You recently upgraded a client's older workstations from Windows XP to Windows 7. The client has called to complain that the new interface is very slow. For example, after clicking on the Start button, the Start Menu slowly appears on the screen. How can you fix this problem? (Select two options.)

answer

0 Upgrade the video board installed in the system. 0 Set the visual effects for best performance.

question

Your CRT monitor displays a thick black border around the main screen image. What should you use to fix this problem?

answer

Monitor hardware controls

question

Your monitor is displaying images using odd colors. Which of the following is a solution to this problem?

answer

Increase the color depth.

question

A customer complains that a recently-purchased plasma monitor no longer displays a picture. You verify that the monitor is powered on and that the video cable is securely fastened to the DVI-I video port. Which of the following actions should you direct the customer to take next?

answer

Adjust the monitor's settings using controls on the monitor.

question

You've just installed a new video card in a user's Windows workstation. However, when you power the system on, the screen is displayed in 16 colors at 640x480 resolution. Which of the following will resolve this problem?

answer

Download and install the latest driver from the video card manufacturer's web site.

question

When would you use the degauss feature on a CRT monitor? (Select two.)

answer

The monitor displays distorted images The monitor displays strange colors

question

You recently upgraded a client's older workstations from Windows XP to Windows 7. The client has called to complain that the interface is very slow. For example, after clicking on the Start button, the Start Menu slowly appears on the screen. How can you fix this problem without upgrading the hardware itself?

answer

Set the visual effects for best performance.

question

You're trying to access your office network with your Windows workstation from home using your organization's virtual private network (VPN). Your DSL modem has connected to your ISP, but you can't connect to your office network. You issue the ipconfig command from the command prompt and learn that your system has been assigned an IP address of 169.254.1.12. What's causing the problem?

answer

Your ISP's DHCP server isn't working

question

You are troubleshooting a network communication problem to the www.widgets.com server. Which of the following will give you the IP address of that server? (Select two.)

answer

ping www.widgets.com nslookup www.widgets.com

question

You manage a network that has multiple internal subnets. You connect a workstation to the 192.168.1.0 subnet using the default subnet mask. This workstation can communicate with some hosts on the private network, but not with other hosts. You run ipconfig /all and see the following:

answer

Incorrect default gateway

question

You have a small wireless network that uses multiple access points. The network uses WPA and broadcasts the SSID. WPA2 is not supported by the wireless access points. You want to connect a laptop computer to the wireless network. Which of the following parameters will you need to configure on the laptop? (Select two.)

answer

TKIP encryption Preshared key

question

You administer a network with Windows and Linux servers, and Windows 7 clients. A user calls and indicates that he is unable to access resources on the network. You type ipconfig on the user's computer and receive the following output: Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection : IPv4 address . Subnet Mask . Default Gateway 169 . 254 .1.17 255 . 255 . 0 . 0

answer

Unavailable DHCP server.

question

You have just connected a new computer to your network. The network uses static IP addressing. You find that the computer can communicate with hosts on the same subnet, but not with hosts on a different subnet. No other computers are having a problem. Which of the configuration values would you most likely need to change?

answer

Default gateway Check the default gateway setting on the computer. The default gateway value is used for sending packets to other subnets. If the value is incorrect, then the packets will not be sent to the correct router. In this scenario, the host can communicate with other hosts on the same subnet, meaning that the IP address and subnet mask are correctly configured. The DNS server address is likely not the problem as name resolution is not mentioned in the scenario. In addition, if name resolution were a problem, it could affect access to both local and remote hosts.

question

You have been contacted by OsCorp to recommend a wireless Internet solution. The wireless strategy must support a transmission range of 150 feet, use a frequency range of 2.4 GHz, and provide the highest possible transmission speeds. Which of the following wireless solutions would you recommend?

answer

802.11n Of the technologies listed, only the IEEE 802.11 n wireless standard addresses the desired requirements. The 802.11 a wireless standard offers maximum speeds of 54 Mbps and uses the 5 GHz frequency range. The 802.11 g wireless standard offers maximum speeds of 54 Mbps. 802.11 b uses the 2.4 GHz frequency range but supports only 11 Mbps transfer speeds.

question

Given that your Windows workstation has Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) implemented using default settings, which of the following TCP/IP addresses could be automatically assigned to the system should your DHCP server go down or become inaccessible?

answer

169.254.1.26 In the event that a DCHP server is not available, Windows workstations can use APIPA to automatically provide themselves with an IP address. The default address range used by APIPA is 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254. Of the options presented, only 169.254.1.26 falls within this range.

question

You manage a network that has multiple internal subnets. You connect a workstation to the 192.168.1.0 subnet which uses the default subnet mask. This workstation can communicate with some hosts on the private network, but not with other hosts. You run ipconfig /all and see the following: Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection : Connection- specific DNS Suffix . : mydomain . local Description . . . Broadcom network adapter Physical Address . : 00 - AA-BB-CC-74-EF DHCP Enabled . . . . . . . No Autoconfiguration Enabled . Yes IPv4 Address 192 . 168 . 1 . 102(Preferred) Subnet Mask . 255 . 255 . 0 . 0 Default Gateway : 192 . 168 . 1.1 DNS Servers . . 192 . 168 . 1 . 20 192 . 168 . 1 . 27

answer

Incorrect subnet mask In this example, the network is using a mask of 255.255.255.0 (24-bits), but the workstation is configured to use a mask of 255.255.0.0.

question

You are designing an update to your client's wireless network. The existing wireless network uses 802.11b equipment, which your client complains runs too slowly. She wants to upgrade the network to run at 150 Mbps. Due to budget constraints, your client wants to upgrade only the wireless access points in the network this year. Next year, she will upgrade the wireless network boards in her users' workstations. She has also indicated that the system must continue to function during the transition period. Which 802.11 standard will work best in this situation?

answer

802.11 n is the best choice for this client. Both 802.11 a and 802.11 g each operate at a maximum speed of 54 Mbps. 802.11a isn't compatible with 802.11 b network boards.

question

While troubleshooting a network issue, you successful ping the 127 .0.0.1 IP address. Which of the following is true?

answer

The TCP/IP protocol suite is working correctly on the local computer. The 127.0.0.1 IP address is reserved as the loopback address of the local computer. A successful ping to 127.0.0.1 indicates the TCP/IP protocol suite is working correctly on the local computer.

question

You are troubleshooting network connections on a Windows workstation and you want to view a list of connections on the computer. How can you do this? (Select two.)

answer

On the Start menu, right-click Network and select Properties. On the Start menu, click Control Panel, then click Network and Internet.

question

You have a small home network that uses 192.168.1.0 with the default subnet mask for the network address. The default gateway address is 192.168.1.254, and the router is providing DHCP on the network. The Wrk2 computer has been assigned the IP address of 192.168.1.55. Which of the following is considered the loopback address for the Wrk2 computer?

answer

127.0.0.1

question

Which of the following commands verifies that TCP/IP is working correctly on the local computer?

answer

ping 127.0.0.1

question

A user reports that he can't browse to a specific Web site on the Internet. From his computer, you find that a ping test to the Web server succeeds. A trace route test shows 17 hops to the destination Web server. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

answer

Incorrect DNS server address In this scenario, a ping test to the Web site succeeds, while accessing the Web site through the browser does not work. Users type host names in the browser to go to Web sites, and host names must be translated to IP addresses by a DNS server. Either the workstation is using the wrong address for the DNS server, the DNS server is not available, or the DNS server does not have an entry for the Web site. Because the ping and trace route tests work, you know that the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway values are correct.

question

You are designing a wireless network for a client. Your client needs the network to support a data rate of at least 54 Mbps. In addition, the client already has a wireless telephone system installed that operates 2.4 GHz. Which 802.11 standards will work best in this situation? (Select two.)

answer

802.11a 802.11n (good luck find a NEW 802.11a router... )

question

Your home network is connected to the Internet through a 512 Mbps DSL line. Your ISP provided you with a small office/home office (SOHO) router that provides four 100 Mbps Ethernet ports for your home office and one DSL port for connecting the network to the Internet. The SOHO router has a built-in DHCP server that is used to automatically configure workstations with an IP address, default gateway address, and DNS server address. However, today you are unable to access the Internet. The browser reports that it can't find the URLs you are requesting. Using the ipconfig command, you've verified that the workstation is receiving correct IP address parameters. You tried entering tracert 137 .65.1.2 at a command prompt and found that you're able to reach this server on the Internet without any issues. What is causing this problem?

answer

Your ISP's DNS server is down. Because your workstation is able to receive correct IP parameters from the built-in DHCP server, you know that the home office side of the SOHO router is working correctly. The fact that you're able to trace the route from your workstation to a server on the Internet using its IP address indicates that routing is working properly. This, coupled with the browser error message, would indicate that the most likely problem is a down or malfunctioning DNS server. You could test this hypothesis by trying to access a Web site using an IP address in the URL instead of a domain name.

question

You have a small wireless network with less than 50 client computers. You upgraded the hardware on two wireless devices so you can use a better security standard than WEP. Now you need to implement the new security standard. You need the greatest amount of security with the least amount of effort, and without replacing any of the wireless infrastructure. What should you do? (Select two.)

answer

Implement WPA2-AES Configure each client with the same key In this case, implementing WPA2 with AES and using the same pre-shared key on each client provides the greatest amount of security with the least amount of effort, and does not require the replacement of any of the wireless infrastructure. WPA2- Enterprise uses 802.1x for authentication and requires the configuration of an authentication server. WPA2 is more secure than WPA-PSK.

question

Which wireless standard has the highest data transfer rates?

answer

802.11a 802.11n Answer 802.11b 802.11g 802.11 n has the highest data transfer rates, up to (theoretically) 600 Mbps.802.11 a and g have speeds up to 54 Mbps or 108 Mbps when using channel bonding. 802.11 b has speeds up to 11 Mbps.

question

You are troubleshooting connectivity between your computer and the www.widgets.com server whose IP address is 192.168.1.1. Which of the following commands tests connectivity to the device as well as name resolution?

answer

ping www.widgets.com To test both name resolution and communication with the server, use the ping command with the host name. The first step in the ping test is to find the IP address of the specified host. Using ping with just the IP address will not test name resolution. Using nslookup only tests name resolution, it does not test communication with the end device.

question

During system startup, you see an error message that a service failed to start. You research the error and find that another service must be started first before this service can start. Which tool could you use to configure the needed service to start automatically?

answer

Services console

question

When running a program on a Windows system, you get an error message indicating that a specific file (not the .exe file) cannot be located. What should you try first to fix the problem?

answer

Check the working (Start In) directory identified by the shortcut.

question

One of the programs that launches automatically at startup is causing your Windows workstation to lock up. You have examined the Startup folder, and the problem application is not present. Which Windows utility should you use to prevent the program from starting automatically?

answer

Msconfig.exe

question

Which Windows 7 operating system startup component replaces the boot.ini file that was used by earlier versions of Windows?

answer

Boot Configuration Data Boot Configuration Data (BCD) is a database for startup configuration data on Windows Vista and Windows 7. It replaces the boot.ini file that was used by NTLDR on older versions of Windows.

question

While browsing the Internet, the Internet Explorer browser window hangs and stops responding. Which Task Manager tab would you use to end Internet Explorer? (Select two.)

answer

1. Applications 2. Processes The Applications tab lets you switch to, start, or end an application. You could also use the Processes tab to kill the process associated with the Internet Explorer application. Use either tab to stop a program that is not responding. The Performance tab shows you overall system utilization and statistics. The services tab shows a list of background services that are running on the system. The users tab shows a list of all users logged into the system.

question

Mary reports that an application's shortcut icon no longer launches the application. You check your documentation and find that you have installed a new disk drive in her computer. What should you do first so Mary can run the application?

answer

Check the shortcut properties to make sure it is pointing to the correct file location. The first thing to try would be to verify that the shortcut is pointing to the correct location. Installing a new disk drive might have modified the drive letters, thereby making the shortcut path invalid. (DONT INSTALL PROGRAMS IN WIERD PLACES??)

question

You have a compiler that compiles applications used in your business. You want to make sure that the compiler continues to run in the background, even if you open other applications. How can you adjust the amount of attention given to that application?

answer

Use Task Manager to modify the process priority.

question

On a Windows system, which Task Manager tab would you use to adjust the priority given to a specific program?

answer

Processes

question

You have a custom database application that your company has been using for several years. The application works fine on all of your Windows XP systems. You have just purchased a new Windows 7 system for one of your sales team members. You make this user a member of the Users group on the local system. You install the custom application successfully. When the sales person logs on and tries to run the application, the program splash screen loads but then seems to hang. What should you do first?

answer

Grant the user permissions to the directories and files used by the application.

question

Which of the following tools can you use to start the Print Spooler service if it is currently stopped? (Select two.)

answer

1. Net start 2. Services console

question

Which utility can be used to view when a service was stopped as well as any error messages generated by the service?

answer

Event Viewer

question

You are the administrator for your company and you have been asked to get the company accounting program installed on some new Windows 7 laptops. When you install this software on the new PCs, you discover that it will not run because User Account Control (UAC) keeps causing it to fail. Because the accounting program was designed by the company and it will not be upgraded anytime soon, you must get it to work as is with UAC. What can you do to get the application to work with UAC? (Choose the best solution.)

answer

Alter the program settings to Run this program as an administrator.

question

A Windows XP system was severely damaged after a lightning strike, and is now faillng to boot. The menu of boot options contained within the Boot.ini file is not displaying and you are convinced that the file is not being read. Which file is responsible for loading and displaying the Boot.ini options?

answer

NTLDR

question

You have a Windows Vista computer that was recently upgraded from Windows XP. One application worked fine in Windows XP, but now does not run in Windows Vista. You have checked the application vendor's web site but there is no update available. What should you try next to run the application?

answer

Run the application in compatibility mode.

question

While working on your Windows 7 system, the system encounters a critical error. For a brief second you see the Blue screen indicating the error. Before you can read the error, however, the system reboots. After rebooting and logging back on, the same thing happens again. What should you do so that you can read the error message next time it happens without the system rebooting?

answer

Reboot the system . Press F8 and disable the automatic restart feature.

question

Which of the following represent the correct boot sequence in Windows XP after the BIOS has passed control over to NTLDR?

answer

BOOT.INI, NTDETECT.COM, NTOSKRNL.EXE In Windows 2000/XP, the BIOS passes control over to NTLDR which examines the BOOT.INI file to determine the operating systems and display the startup menu. Next, the startup file including NTDETECT.COM is loaded to identify the installed hardware. Finally NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL are loaded and control is passed to NTOSKRNL.

question

What is a recovery partition?

answer

A partition created by the computer manufacturer to restore the system to its original state.

question

In which of the following situations would restoring from a backup be the best option? (Select two.)

answer

You accidentally deleted several important e-mails from Outlook and need to restore them. You need to restore several word processing files that were accidentally deleted from My Documents.

question

In which of the following situations would reverting to a System Restore point be the best option?

answer

You recently installed a new application and now the system behaves erratically.

question

When you load a partition management utility on a workstation running an OEM version of Windows 7, you notice that there is a hidden partition on the workstation's hard drive. You decide to delete it to free up space on the drive. Should you do this?

answer

No, this is the system's recovery partition.

question

In which of the following situations would restoring from a system image be the best option?

answer

You need to restore a Windows system after a hard drive failure.

question

Under which circumstances would using the Last Known Good option be most likely to correct the problem?

answer

If you made a system change and then the startup fails before the logon screen

question

A malfunctioning video driver is preventing your Windows system from starting successfully. Which startup option should you choose so you can copy an updated driver from the help desk support server?

answer

Safe Mode with Networking

question

You turn on your desktop computer. You can hear the fans start up, but the monitor remains blank. You wait a while, but it doesn't appear that anything else is happening . The hard drive activity light doesn't show activity, and you never hear the sound that plays when Windows loads up. Which of the following are the most likely cause of the problem? (Select three.)

answer

1. Processor 2. Memory 3. Video Card When a computer first boots, it checks the processor, memory, and video card. If any of these three components are faulty, the boot process will stop. Depending on the problem, you might see nothing displayed on the screen. If the hard disk is bad, the system will boot past the BIOS, but be unable to locate the operating system files. You will see a message displayed on the screen indicating this and other problems (such as a bad keyboard). The startup sequence typically does not diagnose the mouse.

question

Rodney, a user in the research department, reports that he is getting STOP errors while using his Windows 7 computer. You ask Rodney if anything has changed recently on the computer. Rodney explains that he ran the installation program for his PDA and everything worked fine until he tried to hot sync. Now any time he hot syncs, he has to reboot the computer. You need to fix Rodney's computer and prevent Rodney from using the PDA until you can install an updated driver. What should you do?

answer

Reboot the system and select Safe Mode. Disable the PDA's driver in Device Manager.

question

You want to scan your system for changed system files and automatically revert to previous versions for any file that has been altered. You want the scan to run once the next time the system boots. Which command should you use?

answer

sfc /scanonce

question

How can you keep a Windows 7 system from restarting after a critical system error occurs?

answer

Use the Disable automatic restart on system failure option on the Advanced Boot Menu

question

You have a Windows 7 system with two SATA hard drives, one used for the operating system and the other used for data. You have traced recent problems to a fault in the system motherboard. You replace the motherboard and reconnect all hardware. When you start the computer, the system shows the BIOS information screen, but then returns an error that an operating system could not be found. What should you do?

answer

Change the boot order in the BIOS.

question

Marcus was attempting to tweak his workstation's operating system when he inadvertently corrupted his system boot files. It will now no longer boot to a logon prompt. After pressing F8, which option should he choose?

answer

Repair Your Computer

question

You need to boot a Windows 7 system into Safe Mode. Which key should you press during the system boot to access the Advanced Boot Options menu?

answer

question

One day while trying to start your Windows XP computer, the system displays the following error: Windows could not start because the following file is missing or corrupt : Windows system32ntoskrnl . exe . Please re-install a copy of the above file . The problem occurs immediately after the operating system loading message. You are unable to boot into Safe Mode. Which of the following will most likely fix the problem? (Select two.)

answer

1. Boot into the recovery console and run bootcfg /rebuild 2. Boot into the recovery console and perform an automatic operating system scan and repair.

question

You're troubleshooting a computer running Windows 7. The operating system has halted and a blue screen has been displayed on the monitor with an error message. What is the first step you should take in troubleshooting the issue?

answer

Search for the error in Microsoft's knowledgebase or in a search engine on the Internet.

question

One day while trying to start your Windows 7 computer, the system displays the following error: Windows could not start because of a computer disk hardware configuration problem . Could not read from the selected boot disk . Check boot path and disk hardware . Which of the following will most likely fix the problem?

answer

Boot into the recovery environment and run the bootrec /rebuildbcd command.

question

You have booted your Windows 7 workstation into Safe Mode and enabled Boot Logging. To which log file is the boot logging information now being written?

answer

Ntbtlog.txt

question

One day while trying to start your Windows XP computer, the system displays the following error: Invalid partition table Which of the following will most likely fix the problem?

answer

Boot into the recovery console and run the fixmbr command on the boot volume.

question

You have a Windows XP Professional workstation that does not currently have the Recovery Console installed. Which command should you use to install the Recovery Console?

answer

WINNT32 /CMDCONS

question

A user in the research department, reports that he is getting STOP errors on his Windows system during startup. You ask him if anything has changed recently on the computer. He explains that he ran the installation program for his PDA just before receiving the first STOP error. He immediately rebooted and has not been able to use Windows 7 since then due to STOP errors during the boot process. You need to fix his computer. What should you do?

answer

Reboot the system. Select Last Known Good Configuration from the Advanced Startup options.

question

Christian has booted his Windows 7 workstation in Safe Mode and enabled Boot Logging. Which file would he examine to see a list of drivers loaded during the startup process?

answer

Ntbtlog.txt

question

The video driver on your Windows 7 computer is preventing the system from starting up successfully. You have already downloaded an updated driver and copied it to the computer's hard drive. Which mode should you select from the Windows Advanced Boot Options menu that would most likely allow you to start the computer to continue fixing the problem?

answer

Enable VGA Mode

question

The video driver on your Windows 7 computer is preventing the system from starting up successfully. You have already downloaded an updated driver and copied it to the computer's hard drive. Which mode should you select from the Windows Advanced Boot Options menu to ensure that the system can complete the boot process?

answer

Safe Mode

question

You have a Windows 7 computer that was recently upgraded from Windows XP. An installed application worked fine in Windows XP, but now does not run in Windows 7. You have checked the application vendor's web site but there is no update available. What should you try to run the application? (Select two options.)

answer

1. Run the application in XP Mode. 2. Run the application in compatibility mode.

question

Which of the following identify the key differences between a worm and a virus? (Select two.)

answer

1. Worms independently replicate themselves 2. A virus relies on a host for replication.

question

Which of the following are likely symptoms of malware infection? (Select two.)

answer

1. Changed file permissions 2. Renamed system files

question

Which techniques are used in a pharming attack to redirect legitimate web traffic to malicious web sites? (Select two.)

answer

1. Changing the hosts file of a user's computer 2. Exploiting DHCP servers to deliver the IP address of poisoned DNS servers

question

Several employees have forwarded you an e-mail indicating that your company's health insurance provider has just launched a new benefits management web site that all employees must start using. The employees are told in the email to click a link to access the site. Once there, they are required to provide their Social Security number. However, you have discovered that your company's insurance provider did not send this e-mail. What kind of attack just occurred?

answer

Phishing

question

While browsing the Internet, a pop-up browser window is displayed warning you that your system is infected with a virus. You are directed to click a link to scan for and remove the virus. What should you do? (Select two.)

answer

1. Update the virus definitions for your locally-installed anti-virus software. 2. Run a full system scan using the anti-virus software installed on your system.

question

A user is trying to log into Windows on her notebook computer. She enters the correct password for her user account, but the system won't let her authenticate, claiming the wrong password has been entered. What's causing the problem?

answer

She has turned Num Lock on causing numbers to be sent from the keyboard instead of letters.

question

You're attempting to diagnose a problem with a notebook computer. The user reports that it displayed a message indicating that the battery was low, then it shut down by itself even though it was plugged into a wall outlet. You've checked the AC adapter and found that the LED light is lit when plugged into a wall outlet. What should you check next? (Select two.)

answer

1. Verify that the power LED on the notebook computer is lit when plugged into the wall outlet. 2. Verify that the AC adapter produces the correct DC voltage for the notebook computer.

question

All members of the Sales team use laptop computers while traveling to connect to the Internet. Each laptop has a built-in wireless network card that supports 802.11b/g/n. You have trained each user to be able to create new wireless connections in order to connect to wireless networks in airports and at hotels. You get a call from one user stating that her wireless connection no longer works. She has checked the wireless configuration and she knows it to be correct because other sales people at the same location are able to connect. What should you do first?

answer

Have her verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position.

question

Your lobby receptionist uses a laptop computer to complete her day-to-day tasks. You are concerned about the security of her system. What should you do? (Select two.)

answer

1. Secure the laptop to the desk using a cable lock. 2. Configure the laptop with a biometric fingerprint scanner.

question

Which of the following should you do if you cannot turn a laptop off?

answer

Unplug the AC power and remove the battery

question

Your manager has been using the same laptop computer without error for four years. Suddenly, the computer will not start and run correctly. What should you do to isolate the problem?

answer

Remove the batteries and attempt to run the computer from a wall outlet

question

Your laptop carrying case is designed for a 15-inch laptop, yet you think you can squeeze your 16-inch laptop into it. Before slipping the laptop into the case, what should you do?

answer

Remove any ExpressCards from their slots

question

Six months ago, you purchased a new laptop. Since then, you have noticed that the battery life has been steadily going down. When it was new, a full charge lasted about 3 hours. Now you are lucky to get 2 hours before the battery charge level drops below 5%. What should be your first step to correct this problem?

answer

Calibrate the battery.

question

You're troubleshooting a malfunctioning notebook computer system. The user has indicated that the screen suddenly became dark and difficult to read while he was downloading a large file through his wireless network card while the system was plugged in at his desk. You've checked the system and determined that the backlight has stopped working. Which of the following could be the cause? (Choose two.)

answer

1. The inverter in the LCD assembly has malfunctioned. 2. The cold cathode fluorescent lamp has burned out and needs to be replaced.

question

A user in sales cannot get his laptop to display through a projector. He sees the screen output on the built-in LCD display, but the video is not being seen on the projector. What should you do first?

answer

Use the Fn key to redirect display to the external video port

question

You're troubleshooting a malfunctioning notebook computer system. The user has indicated that the screen is always dark and difficult to read even while the system is plugged into a wall outlet. You checked the system and determined that the backlight isn't working. Which of the following could be the cause?

answer

The LCD cutoff switch is stuck in the Off position.

question

You're troubleshooting a malfunctioning notebook computer. Nothing appears on the LCD display when the system is powered on. What is the first thing you should do?

answer

Plug in an external monitor

question

You're troubleshooting a malfunctioning LCD display on a notebook computer system. After confirming that the notebook is receiving AC power, you plug in an external monitor. The external monitor does not display the output from the notebook after pressing the Fn key to toggle the display. Which of the following could be the cause?

answer

Failed video adapter

question

You're troubleshooting a notebook system that uses a digitizer pad and stylus for user input. The user has complained that the digitizer pad registers stylus taps about 1 inch to the right of where the tap actually occurred. How can you fix this problem?

answer

Recalibrate the digitizer pad.

question

Which LCD component is used to illuminate a notebook computer's display?

answer

Backlight

question

You're troubleshooting a malfunctioning notebook computer. Nothing appears on the LCD display when the system is powered on. When you connect an external monitor to the system, the Windows desktop is displayed properly on the monitor. What could be causing this problem? (Choose two.)

answer

1. The display output has been redirected to the external monitor port using the Fn key. 2. The LCD assembly is malfunctioning.

question

You have just installed a maintenance kit in your laser printer. What should you do next?

answer

Reset the page count.

question

Which of the following paper types should not be used in inkjet printers?

answer

Very glossy paper

question

When you print from your laser printer, the paper contains faint images from previous print-outs. Which components should you check? (Select two.)

answer

1. Discharge lamp 2. Rubber scraper

question

A dot matrix printer is printing faintly after replacing the print head. What should you do?

answer

Check the gap between the printer head and the paper.

question

You replaced the print cartridge on an inkjet printer. What should you do next?

answer

Calibrate the printer.

question

You're troubleshooting an older laser printer that is creating 'accordion jams' where the paper is crumpled as it exits the printer moving into the output tray. What can you do to fix this problem?

answer

Install a maintenance kit.

question

Which of the following is a symptom of a dirty drum or roller in a laser printer?

answer

Lines or splotches repeated at regular intervals on the print job.

question

Which of the following problems is common for dot matrix printers?

answer

Paper scraps are caught in the feed mechanism.

question

For the past several days the print jobs from the inkjet printer are missing colors and leaving gaps. What should you do to resolve the problem?

answer

Use the automatic cleaning feature.

question

You are trying to print complex images on an older laser printer that uses a parallel connection to your workstation. The pages produced cut off the bottom third of each image you print. Which of the following resolutions will fix the problem?

answer

Install more memory in the laser printer.

question

Your laser printer prints a vertical black line on every page. You change the toner cartridge but the problem does not go away. What is the most likely problem?

answer

A corona wire is dirty.

question

You're conducting scheduled maintenance on a laser printer. You notice that there is a build-up of excess toner inside the interior of the printer. Which of the following is the proper way to remove It?

answer

Use an anti -static vacuum.

question

You are testing a printer you just installed, so you use the operator panel on the printer to print a test page. Later, you use the printer properties on your computer to print a test page. Instead of a normal test page, you receive several pages with garbled characters on them. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

answer

Wrong print driver.

question

You have a laser printer that has worked fine until today. Now whenever anything is printed, only blank pages come out. Which part are you most likely to replace?

answer

Transfer corona

question

After removing the printed paper from your laser printer, the toner smudges and can be wiped off in places. Which of the following is the most likely problem?

answer

Fuser rollers

question

Which of the following conditions would typically result in replacing the drum on a laser printer?

answer

Spots at regular intervals on the page

question

You have just installed a new hardware device, upgraded the driver, and installed the custom software that came with the device. Now you can't get the device to work. What should you do first?

answer

Run any diagnostic software that came with the device.

question

Greg, a graphic artist, installs a new art application on his Windows 7 computer. The application prompts Greg to install an updated video driver, which is unsigned. Greg accepts the unsigned driver and completes the installation. Greg uses the system for several days, and then reports that his display doesn't seem to refresh properly under some conditions. You want to configure Greg's computer to use the previous video driver until the manufacturer provides a signed driver, but he still needs to be able to use the application he installed . What should you do?

answer

Boot the system into Safe Mode. Open Device Manager and select the video driver. Open the driver's properties and select Roll Back Driver.

question

A user complains that his USB scanner no longer works. You check Device Manager and see the icon with a black down arrow on it. What should you do?

answer

Enable the device.

question

You have just installed a new device in your Windows computer. After installation, you can't use the device. You check in Device Manager and find an icon for the device with a yellow exclamation mark over it. What should you do?

answer

Download the latest driver from the manufacturer's Web site.

question

In which of the following situations would driver rollback be the best tool to use?

answer

You recently installed a new video driver and now the system behaves erratically.

question

A user reports that they are unable to access their Firewire drive after moving the PC from beneath the desk to the top of the desk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

answer

Card is not properly seated

question

Which system utility would you use to troubleshoot hardware devices, examine and control the resources used by specific devices, and install updated device drivers?

answer

Device Manager

question

You have just installed a new device in your Windows 7 computer using the device's installation disc and the included drivers. After installation, the system crashes when you try to use the device. What should you do?

answer

Download the latest driver from the manufacturer's Web site.

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Information Systems Using The Computer

BCIS / CH. 1 – Flashcards 52 terms

Daniel Thompson

52 terms

Preview

BCIS / CH. 1 – Flashcards

question

Moore's Law states that the number of transistors per square inch on an integrated chip doubles every ______ months.

answer

question

Because of Moore's Law, he cost of data communications & data storage is essentially zero. The growth of which of the following is a consequence of this?

answer

question

_____ is the ability to make & manipulate models.

answer

Abstract Reasoning

question

The four component skills necessary to develop strong nonroutine cognitive skills include all of the following except:

answer

computer programming skills

question

_____ refers to the ability to model system components & show how the component inputs & outputs relate to one another.

answer

systems thinking

question

Mae proposes a new social networking model to her boss. She illustrates the model on the whiteboard & describes how this could cater to a growing demand among Internet users. She also explains how their firm could profitably serve this need. Mae is exhibiting _____ skills.

answer

experimentation

question

"Is it too weird for the market?" is a question asked by someone who is probably weak in _____ skills.

answer

experimentation

question

_____ is when you create and test promising new alternatives consistent with available resources.

answer

experimentation

question

Which of the following statements about collaboration is true?

answer

The most critical skill for effective collaboration is to give & receive critical feedback

question

Making a careful & reasoned analysis of an opportunity, envisioning potential products or solutions or applications of technology, & then developing those ideas that seem to have the most promise, consistent with the resources you have is an example of _____.

answer

experimentation

question

Which of the following is not consistent with a proper exercise of experimentation?

answer

providing a corpus fund for testing all ideas generated

question

Which of the following is not part of the definition of management information systems?

answer

organizational hierarchy

question

A word processing system is an example of:

answer

software

question

Which of the following is an example of hardware?

answer

computer monitor

question

All of the following are components of an information system except:

answer

culture

question

Which of the following statements is true about information systems?

answer

an information system is an assembly of computers, programs, data, procedures, and people

question

The Windows 7 operating system is an example of the _____ component of an information system.

answer

software

question

A network router is an example of the _____ component of the information system.

answer

hardware

question

A computer security protocol for logging in is an example of the _____ component of an information system.

answer

software

question

Customer numbers & their names are examples of the ______ component of an order management information system.

answer

data

question

The music downloads from a music sharing site are an examples of _____ component of an information system.

answer

data

question

A wall calendar used to schedule a conference room's use is an example of a(n) _____.

answer

information system

question

Which of the following is a proper justification for developing an information system?

answer

to help people in a business to achieve the goals & objectives of that business

question

Which of the following is a correct picture of the development & use of information systems?

answer

as a businessperson, you should know the requirements of data & processes for the IS

question

A set of instructions for the computer is an example of the ______ component of an information system.

answer

procedure

question

A company's _____ serves as the instructions for how users may use & access the data.

answer

procedures

question

The _____ function(s) as the instructions for the hardware in an information system.

answer

procedures

question

The _____ functions as a bridge between the human side of the information system components and the computer/automation side.

answer

data

question

Which of the following statements correctly describes the five-component model of an information system?

answer

the computer is the bridge between the data on the left and the human side on the right

question

The process of _____ moves work from people to computers.

answer

automation

question

Consider a decision-making situation involving complex calculations & computations. The decision could influence profits of your firm in a big way. Considering the impact of information systems, which of the following will be the most important factor affecting the quality of the decision?

answer

your thinking process & ability to interpret information

question

Which of the following statements do not reflect effective decision making using information systems (IS)?

answer

the quality of your thinking is large part of the quality of the information system

question

Which of the following is an example of a low-tech information system?

answer

a file of email addresses & an email program

question

Drummer Inc. is a sports equipment provider with their chain outlets across three states. As part of their expansion strategy, Drummer Inc. decides to enter six more states while also revisiting its existing organizational structure. In this context, which of the following will least disruptive to the organization?

answer

developing a new roster for the newly implemented shift system

question

Which of the following would be the most disruptive to the organization while implementing an information system?

answer

changing procedures

question

Data is defined as:

answer

recorded facts or figures

question

A ticket from LA to Denver costs $212. In a decision-making scenario, this would be an example of:

answer

data

question

Information is _____ data.

answer

processed

question

It is probably harder to make changes to the _____ of an information system than to the database itself.

answer

hardware

question

Which of the following actions would cause the most amount organizational disruption?

answer

changing procedures what require people to work in different ways

question

Finding the average of individual values within a sample set is an example of obtaining ______ from _____.

answer

information; data

question

The most common definition of information is that it is:

answer

processed data

question

Which of the following statements is most likely to justify the statement - One person's information is another person's data?

answer

a student's GPA as seen by the student & instructor

question

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding development & use of information systems?

answer

all information is equally good; there is no good or bad information

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of good information?

answer

interchangeability

question

You run a chain of grocery retail outlets across the nation. Which of the following meets the requirement of better information?

answer

the store manager provides a daily sales report on regular brands with additional information on kiosk sales and promotions

question

Beulah is the operations manager for an engineering firm supplying radiator caps for automakers. She has the following four documents on her desk. Which of them will not be a source of good information for her?

answer

invite for "Media Convergence" organized by leading industrial advertisers

question

With large amounts of information available, which of the following statements correctly captures a functional principle of information management?

answer

information needs to be just barely sufficient

question

For information to be worth its cost:

answer

an appropriate relationship must exist between the cost of information & its value

question

A company's CEO receives a report of the average wages by division instead of a report listing wages of all employees. This is an example of failure of information to be _____.

answer

accurate

question

_____ refers to the products, methods, inventions, and standards that are used for the purpose of producing information.

answer

information technology

question

Which of the following is considered part of an information system but not considered information technology?

answer

procedures

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Browse The Internet Operating Systems

12.13 Security Troubleshooting – Flashcards 14 terms

Lewis Edwards

14 terms

Preview

12.13 Security Troubleshooting – Flashcards

question

Your antimalware software has detected a virus on your Windows 10 system. However, the antimalware software is unable to remove it, and when you try to delete the files, you can't because they are in use. What should you try first?

answer

Boot into Safe Mode and try removing the malware

question

A user reports that his machine will no longer boot properly. After asking several questions to determine the problem, you suspect the user unknowingly downloaded malware from the Internet, and that the malware corrupted the boot block. Based on your suspicions, what actions could you take to correct the problem? (Select two.)

answer

-Reimage the machine. -Boot from the Windows 7 installation DVD and use the Recovery Environment to run a startup repair.

question

A user reports that her machine is behaving erratically. She suspects something is wrong because lately a firewall alert keeps indicating programs are trying to access the Internet, and several files have disappeared or have been renamed. What do you suspect is causing these problems?

answer

Malware infection

question

You discover that a system on your network has been infected with a worm. What is the best way to prevent the spread of the worm to other systems while you work on removing the worm?

answer

Quarantine the computer

question

You have installed antimalware software on computers at your business. Within a few days, however, you notice that one computer has a virus. When you question the user, she says she did install some software a few days ago, but it was supposed to be a file compression utility. She admits she did not scan the file before running it. What should you add to your security measures to help prevent this from happening again?

answer

Use awareness training

question

Which of the following is the process of fixing problems detected by antivirus software so that the computer is restored to its original state?

answer

Remediation

question

While browsing the Internet, a popup browser window is displayed warning you that your system is infected with a virus. You are directed to click a link to remove the virus. What should you do? (Select two.)

answer

Run a full system scan using the antimalware software installed on your system. Update the virus definitions for your locally installed antimalware software

question

Which techniques are used in a pharming attack to redirect legitimate web traffic to malicious websites? (Select two.)

answer

Changing the hosts file of a user's computer Exploiting DHCP servers to deliver the IP address of poisoned DNS servers

question

Which of the following are likely symptoms of malware infection? (Select two.)

answer

Changed file permissions Renamed system files

question

A user reports that his machine will no longer boot properly. After asking several questions to determine the problem, you suspect the user unknowingly downloaded malware from the Internet, and that the malware has infected the system. Based on your suspicions, what actions could you take to correct the problem? (Select two.)

answer

Revert the system to a restore point created before the malware infection occurred. Use an antimalware scanner to scan for and remove the infection

question

A user within your organization received an email relating how an account containing a large sum of money has been frozen by the government of a small Middle Eastern nation. The user was offered a 25% share of this account if she would help the sender transfer it to a bank in the United States. The user responded and was instructed to wire $5,000 to the sender to facilitate the transfer. She complied, but has not heard from the sender since. What type of attack occurred in this scenario?

answer

Nigerian 419 scam

question

Which of the following describes a Man-in-the-Middle attack?

answer

An attacker intercepts communications between two network hosts by impersonating each host.

question

A router on the border of your network receives a packet with a source address that shows it originating from a client on the internal network. However, the packet was received on the router's external interface, which means it originated somewhere on the Internet. What form of attack has occurred in this scenario?

answer

Spoofing

question

The TCP/IP session state between two computers on a network is being manipulated by an attacker such that she is able to insert tampered packets into the communication stream. What type of attack has occurred in this scenario?

answer

Hijacking

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Applied Sociology Using The Internet

13.3.9 Practice exam – Flashcards 14 terms

Ben Russell

14 terms

Preview

13.3.9 Practice exam – Flashcards

question

Which of the following statements about the use of anti-virus software is correct?

answer

Anti-virus software should be configured to download updated virus definition files assoon as they become available.soon as they become

question

You have installed anti-virus software on the computers on your network. You update thedefinition and engine files, and configure the software to update those files every day. What else should you do to protect your systems from malware?(Select two.)

answer

Schedule regular full system scans. Educate users about malware.

question

An attacker sets up 100 drone computers that flood a DNS server with invalid requests. This isan example of which kind of attack?an example of which kind of attack

answer

DDoS

question

Which of the following is the best countermeasure against man-in-the middle attacks?

answer

IPsec

question

A collection of zombie computers have been setup to collect personal information. What type of malware do the zombie computers represent?

answer

Botnet

question

Which of the following describes a logic bomblogic bomb?

answer

A program that performs a malicious activity at a specific time or after a triggering event

question

Which of the following are characteristics of a rootkitrootkit? (Select two.)

answer

Hides itself from detection Requires administrator-level privileges for installation

question

Which of the following best describes spyware?

answer

It monitors the actions you take on your machine and sends the information back to itsoriginating source.

question

A relatively new employee in the data entry cubical farm was assigned a user account similar tothat of all of the other data entry employees. However, audit logs have shown that this useraccount has been used to change ACLs on several confidential files and has accessed data inaccount has been used to change This situation indicates which of the following has occurred?

answer

Privilege escalation

question

What are the most common network traffic packets captured and used in a replay attack?

answer

Authentication

question

Which of the following are denial of service attacks? (Select two.)

answer

Smurf Fraggle

question

An attacker uses an exploit to push a modified hosts file to client systems. This hosts fileredirects traffic from legitimate tax preparation sites to malicious sites to gather personal andredirects traffic from legitimate tax preparation sites to malicious sites to gather personal andfinancial information.financial information. What kind of exploit has been used in this scenario?

answer

Pharming DNS poisining

question

Users in your organization receive email messages informing them that suspicious activity hasbeen detected on their bank account. They are directed to click a link in the email to verify theirbeen detected on their bank account. They are directed to click a link in the email to verify theironline banking username and password. The URL in the link is in the .ru top-level DNS domain.online banking username and password. What kind of attack has occurred?

answer

Phishing

question

A programmer that fails to check the length of input before processing leaves his codevulnerable to what form of common attack?

answer

Buffer overflow

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Service Level Agreement Social Engineering The Environment

4.8 Employee Management – Flashcards 15 terms

Sabrina Peterson

15 terms

Preview

4.8 Employee Management – Flashcards

question

What is the primary means by which supervisors can determine whether or not employees are complying with the organization's security policy?

answer

Auditing

question

You have installed anti-virus software on computers at your business. Within a few days, however, you notice that one computer has a virus. When you question the user, she says she did install some software a few days ago, but it was supposed to be a file compression utility. She admits she did not scan before running it. What should you add to your security measures to help prevent this from happening again?

answer

User awareness training

question

When informing an employee that they are being terminated, what is the most important activity?

answer

Disabling their network access

question

Which of the following is NOT a protection against collusion?

answer

Cross training

question

What is the primary purpose of forcing employees to take a mandatory one-week minimum vacations every year?

answer

To check for evidence of fraud

question

The best way to initiate solid administrative control over an organization's employees is to have what element in place?

answer

Distinct job descriptions

question

Which of the following is NOT part of security awareness training?

answer

Employee agreement documents

question

Which of the following is a legal contract between the organization and the employee that specifies the employee is not to disclose the organization's confidential information?

answer

Non-disclosure agreement

question

Which of the following are typically associated with human resource security policies?(Select two)

answer

Background checks AND Termination

question

Which of the following defines two-man control?

answer

Certain tasks should be dual-custody in nature to prevent a security breach

question

Over the last month you have noticed a significant increase in the occurrence of inappropriate activities performed by employees. What is the best first response to take in order to improve or maintain the security level of the environment?

answer

Improve and hold new awareness sessions

question

As you are helping a user with a computer problem you notice that she has her password on a note stuck to her computer monitor. You check the password policy of your company and find that the following settings are currently required: ...Which of the following is the best action to take to make remembering passwords easier so that she no longer has to write the password down?

answer

Implement end-user training

question

Which of the following is NOT an element of the termination process?

answer

Dissolution of the NDA

question

A code of ethics provides for all but which of the following?

answer

Clearly defines courses of action to take when a complex issue is encountered

question

Your company security policy requires separation of duties for all network security matters. Which of the following scenarios best describes this concept?

answer

The system administrator configures remote access privileges and the security officer reviews and activates each account

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Business Business Management Client Server Network New Business Opportunities

Business Essentials 10th Edition -Ebert|Griffin- Chapter 14 Vocab – Flashcards 39 terms

Mya Day

39 terms

Preview

Business Essentials 10th Edition -Ebert|Griffin- Chapter 14 Vocab – Flashcards

question

Information Technology (IT)

answer

various appliances and devices for creating, storing, exchanging, and using information in diverse modes, including visual images, voice, multimedia, and business data.

question

E-Commerce

answer

Use of the internet and other electronic means for retailing and business-to-business transactions

question

Mass Customization

answer

Principle in which companies produce in large volumes, but each item features the unique options the customer prefers.

question

Internet

answer

Gigantic system of interconnected computer networks linked together by voice, electronic, and wireless technologies

question

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

answer

Communications protocol used for the WWW, in which related pieces of information on separate Web pages are connected using hyperlinks

question

World Wide Web

answer

Branch of the Internet consisting of interlinked hyper-text documents, or Web pages

question

Intranet

answer

Organization's private network of internally linked websites accessible only to employees

question

Extranet

answer

System that allows outsiders limited access to a firm's internal information network

question

Electronic Conferencing

answer

IT that allows groups of people to communicate simultaneously from various locations via e-mail, phone, or video

question

VSAT Satellite Communications

answer

network of geographically dispersed transmitter-receivers (transceivers) that send signals to and receive signals from a satellite, enhancing voice, video, and data transmissions

question

Computer Network

answer

group of two or more computers linked together by some form of cabling or by wireless technology to share data or resources, such as a printer

question

Client-Server Network

answer

common business network in which clients make requests for information or resources and servers provide the services

question

Wide Area Network (WAN)

answer

computers that are linked over long distances through telephone lines, microwave signals, or satellite communications

question

Local Area Network (LAN)

answer

computers that are linked in a small area, such as all for a firms computers within a single building

question

Wireless Wide Area Network (WWAN)

answer

network that uses airborne electronic signals instead of wires to link computers and electronic devices over long distances

question

Wi-Fi

answer

Technology using a wireless local area network

question

Wireless Local Area Network (Wireless LAN or WLAN)

answer

local area network with wireless access points for PC users

question

Super Wi-Fi Network

answer

A powerful Wi-Fo network with extensive reach and strong signals that flow freely through physical objects such as walls

question

Hardware

answer

physical components of a computer network, such as keyboards, monitors, system units, and printers

question

Software

answer

Programs that tell the computer how to function, what resources to use, how to use them, and application programs for specific activities

question

Information System (IS)

answer

System that uses IT resources to convert data into information and to collect, process, and transmit that information for use in decision making

question

Data

answer

Raw facts and figures that, by themselves, may not have much meaning

question

Information

answer

meaningful, useful interpretation of data

question

Information Systems Managers

answer

managers who are responsible for the systems used for gathering, organizing, and distributing information

question

Data warehousing

answer

the collection, storage, and retrieval of data in electronic files

question

Data Mining

answer

application of electronic technologies for searching, sifting, and reorganizing pools of data to uncover useful information

question

Knowledge Information System

answer

Information system that supports knowledge workers by providing resources to create, store, use, and transmit net knowledge for useful applications

question

Computer-Aided Design (CAD)

answer

IS with software that helps knowledge workers design products by simulating them and displaying them in three-dimentionsal graphics

question

Computer-Aided Manufacturing (CAM)

answer

IS that uses computers to design and control equipment in a manufacturing process

question

Management Information Systems (MIS)

answer

Computer system that supports managers by providing information-reports, schedules, plans, and budgets-that can be used for making decisions

question

Decision Support System (DDS)

answer

Interactive system that creates virtual business models for a particular king of decision and tests them with different data to see how they respond

question

Hacker

answer

Cybercriminal who gains unauthorized access to a computer or network, either to steal information, money, or property or to tamper wth data.

question

Identity Theft

answer

unauthorized use of personal information (such as Social Security number and address) to get loads, credit cards, or other monetary benefits by impersonating the victim

question

Intellectual Property

answer

Something produced by the intellect or mind that has commercial value

question

Spyware

answer

program unknowingly downloaded by users that monitors their computer actives, fathering email addresses, credit card numbers, and other information that it transmits to someone outside the host system

question

Spam

answer

junk e-mail sent to a mailing list or a newsgroup

question

Firewall

answer

Security system with special software or hardware devices designed to keep computers safe form hackers

question

Anti-Virus Software

answer

product that protects systems by searching incoming emails and data files for "signatures" of know viruses and virus-like characteristics

question

Encryption System

answer

software that assigns an e-mail message to a unique code number (digital fingerprint) for each computer so only that computer, not others, can open and read the message

STUDY

Anti Virus Software Business Management Click Through Rate Search Engine Marketing

Chapter 1 Information Systems – Flashcards 50 terms

Cara Robinson

50 terms

Preview

Chapter 1 Information Systems – Flashcards

question

Retail e-commerce is expected to continue growing at double-digit growth rates is 2013-2014.

answer

True

question

Over 50% of the world's population is now online

answer

False

question

E-business involves commercial transactions involving an exchange of value organizational boundaries.

answer

False

question

Ubiquity decreases cognitive energy outlays

answer

True

question

The fact that e-commerce is conducted on the basis of universal standards decreases market entry costs for merchants

answer

True

question

Price transparency refers to the ability of merchants to segment the market into groups willing to pay different prices

answer

False

question

Cost transparency refers to the ability of consumers to discover the actual costs merchants pay for products

answer

True

question

Customization involves changing a delivered product or service based upon a consumer's preferences or past purchasing behavior

answer

True

question

Web 2.0 describes a set of applications and technologies that encourage and rely on user- and consumer-generated interactivity and content

answer

True

question

Social e-commerce is the largest type of e-commerce

answer

False

question

E-commerce as we know it today would not exist without the Internet

answer

TRue

question

The emergence of entrepreneurial social and local firms is one of the hallmarks of the Consolidation period of e-commerce

answer

False

question

The Reinvention period of e-commerce is as much a sociological phenomenon as it is a technological or business phenomenon

answer

True

question

As economists had envisioned, prices of products sold on the Web are consistently lower than elsewhere, and the online marketplace is characterized by decreasing price dispersion

answer

False

question

The future of e-commerce will include an increase in regulatory activity both in the US and worldwide

answer

True

question

In 2013, roughly 123 million people in the US access the Internet via

answer

tablets

question

Major business trends in e-commerce in 2013-2014

answer

social e-commerce continues to grow, Facebook grwos to more than 1.1 billion users, social and mobile advertising begins to challenge search engine marketing, apps create a new platform for online marketing and commerce, the mobile computing platform begins to rival the PC platform, real-time advertising becomes a reality with gains in computing power and speeds.

question

Which is NOT a major trend in 2013-2014?

answer

Small business and entreprenuers are hampered by the rising cost of market entry increased presence of industry giants, cloud computing enables the creation of "big data", the eclipse of search engine marketing by the mobile advertising platform.

question

E-commerce can be defined as:

answer

The use of the Internet, the Web, and mobile apps to transact business.

question

What are unique features of e-commerce technology?

answer

Interactivity, social technology, richness, and more

question

The integration of video, audio, and text marketing messages into a single marketing message and consuming experience is:

answer

richness

question

Which is least likely to decrease a consumer's search costs?

answer

richness

question

Definition of transaction cost:

answer

cost of participating in a market

question

In 2013, the world's online population was

answer

2.5 billion

question

Network externalities are related to which of the features of e-commerce technology?

answer

universal standards

question

E-commerce technologies have changed the traditional tradeoff between the richness and reach of a marketing message. Prior to the development of the Web:

answer

the larger the audience reached, the less rich the message.

question

Which type of e-commerce is distinguished by the type of technology used in the transaction rather than by the nature of the market relationship?

answer

Mobile e-commerce

question

Which of the following is a mobile photo-sharing application?

answer

Instagram

question

Which of the following describes the basic Web policy of large firms during the Invention period?

answer

Maintain a basic, static Website.

question

The size of the B2B market in 2013 is estimated to be around:

answer

4.7 trillion.

question

Interactivity in the context of e-commerce can be described as the

answer

enabling of two-way communication between consumer and merchant.

question

In 2013 there were an estimated

answer

1 billion Internet hosts

question

All of the following can be considered a precursor to e-commerce

answer

Baxter Healthcare's remote order entry system, the French Minitel, Electronic Data Interchange. DNS IS NOT

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In the B2C arena, the French Minitel was the first truly

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large-scale digitally enabled transaction system

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E-commerce can be said to have begun in

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1995

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Business to consumer (B2C) e-commerce in the US

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has grown at double-digit rates between 2010 and 2013

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Unfair competitive advantages occur when:

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one competitor has an advantage others cannot purchase

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The early years of e-commerce are considered:

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A stunning technological success as the Internet and the Web increased from a few thousand to billions of e-commerce transactions per year.

question

Which of the following best describes the early years of e-commerce?

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They were a technological success but a mixed business success

question

The early years of e-commerce were driven by all of the following factors:

answer

a huge infusion of venture capital funds, an emphasis on quickly achieving a very high market visibility, visions of profiting from new technology. NOT DRIVEN BY AN EMPHASIS ON EXPLOITING TRADITIONAL DISTRIBUTION CHANNELS.

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Which is a characteristic of the Reinvention phase of e-commerce?

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widespread adoption of consumer mobile devices

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Which is a characteristic of the Consolidation phase of e-commerce?

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shift to a business-driven approach

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Which type of merchant has the highest share of retail online sales?

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virtual (web only)

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Retail chains account for around

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35% of online retail firm revenues

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One of the predictions for the future of e-commerce is that

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overall revenues from e-commerce will grow at an annualized rate of about 14% a year through 2017.

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Which is the top-selling online retail category?

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Computers/electronics

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Which is the top online retailer ranked by online sales?

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Amazon

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Above all, e-commerce is a

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technology-driven phenomenon

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Which business application is associated with the technological development of local area networks and client/server computing?

answer

workgroup automation (document sharing)

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Which if one of the three primary societal issues related to e-commerce?

answer

Individual privacy

STUDY

Access Control List Anti Virus Software Disaster Recovery Plan Discretionary Access Control International Organization For Standardization

CISM (Certified Information Security manager) – Vocabulary – Flashcards 461 terms

Jaxon Wilson

461 terms

Preview

CISM (Certified Information Security manager) – Vocabulary – Flashcards

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Acceptable interruption window

answer

Max time a system can be unavailable before compromising business objectives.

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Acceptable use policy

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Policy agreement between users and the organization. Defines approved range of use for access to a network or the Internet

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Access controls

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The processes, rules and deployment mechanisms that control access to information systems, resources and physical access to premises

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Access path

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Logical route an end user takes to access computerized information. Typically includes a route through the OS, telecommunications software, applications, and access controls.

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Access rights

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Permission or privileges granted to users, programs or workstations to create, change, delete or view data and files within a system, as defined by rules established by data owners and the information security policy

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Accountability

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The ability to map a given activity or event back to the responsible party

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Action plan

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A plan of the steps necessary to achieve objectives

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Ad hoc

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Arbitrary approach, no formal plan or process

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Administrative controls

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Rules, procedures and practices that deal with operational effectiveness, efficiency and adherence to regulations and management policies.

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Adware

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Any software package that automatically plays, displays or downloads advertising material to a computer after the software is installed on it or while the application is being used. In most cases, this is done without any notification to the user or without the user's consent. This software may or maynot contain spyware.

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Advance Encryption Standard (AES)

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The international encryption standard that replaced 3DES.

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Algorithm

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A finite set of step-by-step instructions for a problem-solving or computation procedure, especially one that can be implemented by a computer.

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Anomaly-Based Detection

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The process of comparing definitions of what activity is considered normal against observed events to identify significant deviations. This approach is used on some intrusion detection systems.

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Annual Loss Expectation (ALE)

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The total expected loss divided by the number of years in the forecast period yielding the average annual loss

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Alert situation

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The point in an emergency procedure when the elapsed time passes a threshold and the interruption is not resolved. The organization entering into an alert situation initiates a series of escalation steps.

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Alternate facilities

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Locations and infrastructures from which emergency or backup processes are executed, when the main premises are unavailable or destroyed. This includes other buildings, offices or data processing centers.

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Alternate process

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Automatic or manual processes designed and established to continue critical business processes from point-of-failure to return-to-normal

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Anonymous File Transfer Protocol (AFTP)*

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A method of downloading public files using the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). AFTP does not require users to identify themselves before accessing files from a particular server. In general, users enter the word "anonymous" when the host prompts for a username. Anything can be entered for the password, such as the user's e-mail address or simply the word "guest."

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Antivirus software

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An application software deployed at multiple points in an IT architecture. It is designed to detect and potentially eliminate virus code before damage is done, and repair or quarantine files that have already been infected

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Application Programming Interface (API)

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An application programming interface (API) is a source code-based specification intended to be used as an interface by software components to communicate with each other.

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Application controls

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The policies, procedures and activities designed to provide reasonable assurance that objectives relevant to a given automated solution (application) are achieved

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Application layers

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In the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) communications model, the application layer provides services for an application program to ensure that effective communication with another application program in a network is possible. The application layer is not the application that is doing the communication; it is a service layer that provides these services.

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Application service provider (ASP)

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Also known as managed service provider (MSP), it deploys, hosts and manages access to a packaged application to multiple parties from a centrally managed facility. The applications are delivered over networks on a subscription basis.

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Architecture

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Description of the fundamental underlying design of the components of the business system, or of one element of the business system (e.g., technology), the relationships among them, and the manner in which they support the organization's objectives

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Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

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ARP defines the exchanges between network interfaces connected to an Ethernet media segment in order to map an IP address to a link layer address on demand.

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Assurance

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The grounds for confidence that the set of intended security controls in an information system are effective in their application.

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Assurance Process Integration

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Integration of organizational assurance processes to achieve greater efficiencies and counter typical silo effects.

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Assymetric encryption

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A cryptographic key that may be widely published and is used to enable the operation of an asymmetric cryptography scheme. This key is mathematically linked with a corresponding private key. Typically, a public key can be used to encrypt, but not decrypt, or to validate a signature, but not to sign.

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Attack Signature

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A specific sequence of events indicative of an unauthorized access attempt. Typically a characteristic byte pattern used in malicious code or an indicator, or set of indicators that allows the identification of malicious network activities.

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Attributes

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The fundamental characteristics of something

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Audit

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Independent review and examination of records and activities to assess the adequacy of system controls, to ensure compliance with established policies and operational procedures, and to recommend necessary changes in controls, policies, or procedures

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Audit Review

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The assessment of an information system to evaluate the adequacy of implemented security controls, assure that they are functioning properly, identify vulnerabilities, and assist in implementation of new security controls where required. This assessment is conducted annually or whenever significant change has occurred and may lead to recertification of the information system.

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Audit trail

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A series of records either in hard copy or in electronic format that provide a chronological record of user activity and other events that show the details of user and system activity. Audit trails can be used to document when users log in, how long they are engaged in various activities, what they were doing, and whether any actual or attempted security violations occurred.

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Authentication

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The act of verifying the identity of an entity (e.g., a user, a system, a network node)

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Authorization

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Access privileges granted to a user, program, or process or the act of granting those privileges

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Automated Clearing House (ACH)

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ACH is an electronic network for financial transactions in the United States. ACH processes large volumes of credit and debit transactions in batches. Credit transfers include direct deposit payroll and vendor payments and ACH direct debit transfers include consumer payments on insurance premiums, mortgage loans, and other kinds of bills

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Availability

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Information that is accessible when required by the business process now and in the future

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Awareness (Information Security)

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Activities which seek to focus an individual's attention on an (information security) issue or set of issues.

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Backup center

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An alternate facility to continue IT/IS operations when the primary DP center is unavailable

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Biometrics

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To recognize the identity, or verify the claimed identity, of an applicant. Facial images, fingerprints, and iris scan samples are all examples of biometrics.

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Business intelligence (BI)*

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Refers to computer-based techniques used in identifying, extracting, and analyzing business data, such as sales revenue by products and/or departments, or by associated costs and incomes. BI technologies provide historical, current and predictive views of business operations. Common functions of business intelligence technologies are reporting, online analytical processing, analytics, data mining, process mining, complex event processing, business performance management, benchmarking, text mining and predictive analytics.

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Business impact assessment (BIA)

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An analysis of an information system's requirements, functions, and interdependencies used to characterize system contingency requirements and priorities in the event of a significant disruption.

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Baseline Security

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The minimum security controls required for safeguarding an IT system based on its identified needs for confidentiality, integrity, and/or availability protection.

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Bastion Host

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A special-purpose computer on a network specifically designed and configured to withstand attacks.

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Business continuity management (BCM)

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Planning focused on assuring continuous business processes and is a major factor in an organization's survival during and after a disruption. This is a key component of Comprehensive Emergency Management.

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Business continuity planning (BCP)

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The documentation of a predetermined set of instructions or procedures that describe how an organization's mission/business functions will be sustained during and after a significant disruption.

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Benchmarking

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A systematic approach to comparing an organization's performance against peers and competitors in an effort to learn the best ways of conducting business. Examples include benchmarking of quality, logistical efficiency and various other metrics.

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Business Impact Assessment (BIA)

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An analysis of an information system's requirements, functions, and interdependencies used to characterize system contingency requirements and priorities in the event of a significant disruption.

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Biometric

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A measurable physical characteristic or personal behavioral trait used to recognize the identity, or verify the claimed identity, of an applicant. Facial images, fingerprints, and iris scan samples are all examples.

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Bit-stream image

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Also referred to as mirror image backups, involve the backup of all areas of a computer hard disk drive or other type of storage media. Such backups exactly replicate all sectors on a given storage device including all files and ambient data storage areas.

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Bit copy

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Provides an exact image of the original and is a requirement for legally justifiable forensics

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Bit

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The smallest unit of information storage; a contraction of the term "binary digit;" one of two symbols "0" (zero) and "1" (one) - that are used to represent binary numbers.

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Blacklisting

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The process of the system invalidating a user ID based on the user's inappropriate actions. A user ID on this list cannot be used to log on to the system, even with the correct credentials. This is a positive security-relevant event. Also applies to blocks placed against IP addresses to prevent inappropriate or unauthorized use of Internet resources.

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Botnet

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A large number of compromised computers that are used to create and send spam or viruses or flood a network with messages as a denial of service attack.

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Boundary

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Physical or logical perimeter of a system

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Brute force attack

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Repeatedly trying all possible combinations of passwords or encryption keys until the correct one is found

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Business case

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Documentation of the rationale for making a business investment, used both to support a business decision on whether to proceed with the investment and as an operational tool to support management of the investment through its full economic life cycle

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Business dependency assessment

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A process of identifying resources critical to the operation of a business process

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Business impact analysis/assessment (BIA)

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Evaluating the criticality and sensitivity of information assets. An exercise that determines the impact of losing the support of any resource to an organization, establishes the escalation of that loss over time, identifies the minimum resources needed to recover, and prioritizes the recovery of processes and supporting system. This process also includes addressing: income loss, unexpected expense, legal issues (regulatory compliance or contractual), interdependent processes, and loss of public reputation or public confidence.

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Business Model for Information Security (BMIS)

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A business-oriented model for managing information security utilizing systems thinking to clarify complex relationships within an enterprise. The four elements and six dynamic interconnections form the basis of a three dimensional model that establish the boundaries of an information security program and models how the program functions and reacts to internal and external change. It also provides the context for frameworks such as COBIT.

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Byte

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A fundamental unit of computer storage; the smallest addressable unit in a computer's architecture. Usually holds one character of information and usually means eight bits.

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Capability Maturity Model (CMM)

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A qualitative approach typically using a 0 to 5 scale with each value assigned a set of attributes or characteristics to determine a relative level of competency and proficiency.

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Certificate

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A digitally signed representation of information that 1) identifies the authority issuing it, 2) identifies the subscriber, 3) identifies its valid operational period (date issued / expiration date). In the information assurance (IA) community, certificate usually implies public key certificate and can have the following types: Cross certificate, Encryption certificate and Key management.

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Cross certificate

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A certificate issued from a CA that signs the public key of another CA not within its trust hierarchy that establishes a trust relationship between the two CAs.

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Encryption certificate

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A certificate containing a public key that can encrypt or decrypt electronic messages, files, documents, or data transmissions, or establish or exchange a session key for these same purposes.

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Identity certificate

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A certificate that provides authentication of the identity claimed. Within the National Security Systems (NSS) PKI, identity certificates may be used only for authentication or may be used for both authentication and digital signatures.

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Key management

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Refers to the process of storing, protecting, and escrowing the private component of the key pair associated with the encryption certificate.

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Certificate (Certification) Authority (CA)

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In cryptography, a CA is a trusted third party that issues digital certificates. A CA attests, as the trusted provider of the public/private key pairs, to the authenticity of the owner (entity or individual) to whom a public/private key pair has been given. The process involves a CA who makes a decision to issue a certificate based on evidence or knowledge obtained in verifying the identity of the recipient. Upon verifying the identity of the recipient, the CA signs the certificate with its private key for distribution to the user, where, upon receipt, the user will decrypt the certificate with the CA's public key (e.g., commercial CAs, such as VeriSign, provide public keys on web browsers). The ideal CA is authoritative (someone the user trusts) for the name or key space it represents. CAs are characteristic of many public key infrastructure (PKI) schemes. Many commercial CAs charge for their services. Institutions and governments may have their own CAs, and there are free CAs.

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Certificate policy (CP)

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A specialized form of administrative policy tuned to electronic transactions performed during certificate management. A Certificate Policy addresses all aspects associated with the generation, production, distribution, accounting, compromise recovery, and administration of digital certificates. Indirectly, a certificate policy can also govern the transactions conducted using a communications system protected by a certificate-based security system. By controlling critical certificate extensions, such policies and associated enforcement technology can support provision of the security services required by particular applications.

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Certification Practice Statement

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A statement of the practices that a Certification Authority employs in issuing, suspending, revoking, and renewing certificates and providing access to them, in accordance with specific requirements (i.e., requirements specified in this Certificate Policy, or requirements specified in a contract for services).

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Certificate revocation list (CRL)

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A list of revoked public key certificates created and digitally signed by a Certification Authority.

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Chain of custody

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The chain of custody is a legal principle regarding the validity and integrity of evidence. It requires accountability for anything that will be used as evidence in a legal proceeding, to ensure that it can be accounted for from the time it was collected until the time it is presented in a court of law. This includes documentation as to who had access to the evidence and when, as well as the ability to identify evidence as being the exact item that was recovered or tested. Lack of control over evidence can lead to it being discredited. Chain of custody depends on the ability to verify that evidence could not have been tampered with. This is accomplished by sealing off the evidence, so it cannot be changed, and providing a documentary record of custody to prove that the evidence was, at all times, under strict control and not subject to tampering.

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Chain of Evidence

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A process and record that shows who obtained the evidence; where and when the evidence was obtained; who secured the evidence; and who had control or possession of the evidence. The "sequencing" of the chain of evidence follows this order: collection and identification; analysis; storage; preservation; presentation in court; return to owner.

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Challenge and Reply Authentication

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Prearranged procedure in which a subject requests authentication of another and the latter establishes validity with a correct reply.

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Challenge-Response Protocol

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An authentication protocol where the verifier sends the claimant a challenge (usually a random value or a nonce) that the claimant combines with a shared secret (often by hashing the challenge and secret together) to generate a response that is sent to the verifier. The verifier knows the shared secret and can independently compute the response and compare it with the response generated by the claimant. If the two are the same, the claimant is considered to have successfully authenticated himself. When the shared secret is a cryptographic key, such protocols are generally secure against eavesdroppers. When the shared secret is a password, an eavesdropper does not directly intercept the password itself, but the eavesdropper may be able to find the password with an off-line password guessing attack.

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Change management

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A controlled approach to managing the transition from a current to a desired organizational state while ensuring that critical success factors and potential risks are determined and addressed.

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Checksum

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A value that is computed by a function that is dependent on the contents of a data object and is stored or transmitted together with the object, for the purpose of detecting changes in the data.

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Cipher

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A cryptographic algorithm for encryption and decryption.

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Cipher-text

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Cipher-text is the encrypted form of the message being sent.

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Chief executive officer (CEO)

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The highest ranking individual in an organization

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Chief financial officer (CFO)

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The CFO is a fiduciary responsible for an organizations finance and accounting as well as compliance with various financial regulatory requirements.

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Chief information officer (CIO)

answer

The most senior official of the enterprise who is accountable for IT advocacy, aligning IT and business strategies, and planning, resourcing and managing the delivery of IT services, information and the deployment of associated human resources. In some cases, the CIO role has been expanded to become the chief knowledge officer (CKO) who deals in knowledge, not just information. Also see chief technology officer.

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Chief information security officer (CISO)

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The CISO is responsible for managing information risk, the information security program, and ensuring appropriate confidentiality, integrity and availability of information assets.

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Chief Operating Officer (COO)

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The COO is typically responsible for oversight and management of operations at the direction of the Chief Executive.

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Chief security officer (CSO)

answer

The CSO is typically responsible for physical security in the organization although increasingly the CISO and CSO roles are merged.

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Chief technology officer (CTO)

answer

The individual (typically a corporate officer) who focuses on technology issues in an organization.

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Classification

answer

The system or process that segregates information resources according to their sensitivity and criticality.

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Chief Risk Office (CRO)

answer

The individual, usually a corporate officer, charged with identifying and managing organizational risk.

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Cipher

answer

Series of transformations that converts plaintext to ciphertext using the Cipher Key

question

Clear Text

answer

Information that is not encrypted

question

Client-Client server

answer

Individual or process acting on behalf of an individual who makes requests of a dedicated server. The client's requests to the dedicated server can involve data transfer to, from, or through dedicated server.

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Cloud computing

answer

An approach using external services for convenient on-demand IT operations using a shared pool of configurable computing capability. Typical capabilities include infrastructure as a service (IaaS), platform as a service (PaaS) and software as a service (SaaS). (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.

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Cloud model

answer

The cloud model is composed of five essential characteristics (on-demand selfservice, ubiquitous network access, location independent resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service). It allows users to access technology-based services from the network cloud without knowledge of, expertise with, or control over the technology infrastructure that supports them and provides and four models for enterprise access (Private cloud, Community cloud, Public cloud, and Hybrid cloud)

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COBIT

answer

The international IT management framework and set of IT control objectives published by ISACA, 2007, 2005, 2000, 1998, 1996

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Cold Site

answer

Backup site that can be up and operational in a relatively short time span, such as a day or two. Provision of services, such as telephone lines and power, is taken care of, and the basic office furniture might be in place, but there is unlikely to be any computer equipment, even though the building might well have a network infrastructure and a room ready to act as a server room. In most cases, cold sites provide the physical location and basic services.

question

Common Carrier

answer

In a telecommunications context, a telecommunications company that holds itself out to the public for hire to provide communications transmission services. Note: In the United States, such companies are usually subject to regulation by federal and state regulatory commissions.

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Community of Interest (COI)

answer

A collaborative group of users who exchange information in pursuit of their shared goals, interests, missions, or business processes, and who therefore must have a shared vocabulary for the information they exchange. The group exchanges information within and between systems to include security domains.

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Compartmentalization

answer

A nonhierarchical grouping of sensitive information used to control access to data more finely than with hierarchical security classification alone.

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Compensating Security Control

answer

A management, operational, and/or technical control (i.e., safeguard or countermeasure) employed by an organization in lieu of a recommended security control in the low, moderate, or high baselines that provides equivalent or comparable protection for an information system.

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Competitive Intelligence

answer

Competitive Intelligence is espionage using legal, or at least not obviously illegal, means.

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Compromise

answer

Disclosure of information to unauthorized persons, or a violation of the security policy of a system in which unauthorized intentional or unintentional disclosure, modification, destruction, or loss of an object may have occurred.

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Computer emergency response team (CERT)

answer

A group of people integrated at the organization with clear lines of reporting and responsibilities for standby support in case of an information systems emergency. This group will act as an efficient corrective control, and should also act as a single point of contact for all incidents and issues related to information systems.

question

Computer Incident Response Team (CIRT)

answer

Group of individuals usually consisting of Security Analysts organized to develop, recommend, and coordinate immediate mitigation actions for containment, eradication, and recovery resulting from computer security incidents. Also called a Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT) or a CIRC (Computer Incident Response Center, Computer Incident Response Capability, or Cyber Incident Response Team)

question

Confidentiality

answer

The protection of sensitive or private information from unauthorized disclosure

question

Control center

answer

Hosts the recovery meetings where disaster recovery operations are managed

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Controls

answer

Any regulatory document, process, structure or technology

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Configuration Management

answer

Process of controlling modifications to hardware, firmware, software, and documentation to protect the information system against improper modification prior to, during, and after system implementation

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Controls policy

answer

A policy defining control operational and failure modes e.g. fail secure, fail open, allowed unless specifically denied, denied unless specifically permitted.

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Content Filtering

answer

The process of monitoring communications such as email and Web pages, analyzing them for suspicious content, and preventing the delivery of suspicious content to users.

question

Contingency Plan

answer

Management policy and procedures used to guide an enterprise response to a perceived loss of mission capability. The Contingency Plan is the first plan used by the enterprise risk managers to determine what happened, why, and what to do. It may point to the Continuity of Operations Plan (COOP) or Disaster Recovery Plan for major disruptions

question

Convergence

answer

The trend of combining physical and information security under one manager to increase efficiency and effectiveness

question

Continuity of operations plan (COOP)

answer

A predetermined set of instructions or procedures that describe how an organization's mission-essential functions will be sustained within 12 hours and for up to 30 days as a result of a disaster event before returning to normal operations.

question

Continuous Monitoring

answer

The process implemented to maintain a current security status for one or more information systems or for the entire suite of information systems on which the operational mission of the enterprise depends. The process includes the development of a strategy to regularly evaluate selected IA controls/metrics, Recording and evaluating IA relevant events and the effectiveness of the enterprise in dealing with those events, Recording changes to IA controls, or changes that affect IA risks, and Publishing the current security status to enable information-sharing decisions involving the enterprise.

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Corporate governance

answer

The system by which organizations are directed and controlled. Boards of directors are responsible for the governance of their organizations.

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COSO

answer

Refers to the report "Internal Control—An Integrated Framework," sponsored by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission in 1992. It provides guidance and a comprehensive framework of internal control for all organizations.

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Countermeasures

answer

Any process that directly reduces a threat or vulnerability

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Credential

answer

An object that authoritatively binds an identity (and optionally, additional attributes) to a token possessed and controlled by a person.

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Critical Infrastructure

answer

System and assets, whether physical or virtual, so vital to a country that the incapacity or destruction of such systems and assets would have a debilitating impact on security, national economic security, national public health or safety, or any combination of those matters.

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Critical success factor(s) (CSF)

answer

The issues that must be resolved or the specific steps that must be completed that are essential to the achievement of an objective

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Criticality

answer

A measure of the impact that the failure of a system to function as required will have on the organization.

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Criticality analysis

answer

An analysis to evaluate resources or business functions to identify their importance to the organization, and the impact if a function cannot be completed or a resource is not available

question

Common vulnerabilities and exposures (CVE)

answer

The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures or CVE system provides a reference-method for publicly known information-securityvulnerabilities and exposures. MITRE Corporation maintains the system, with funding from the National Cyber Security Division of the United States Department of Homeland Security.

question

Cost Benefit Analysis

answer

Cost-benefit analysis (CBA), sometimes called benefit-cost analysis (BCA), is a systematic process for calculating and comparing benefits and costs of a project, decision

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Cross-Certificate

answer

A certificate used to establish a trust relationship between two Certification Authorities.

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Critical path

answer

Critical Path Analysis (CPA) or the Critical Path Method (CPM) defines all essential tasks that must be completed in sequence as part of a project in the least possible time.

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Culture

answer

The set of shared attitudes, values, goals, and practices that characterizes an institution or organization

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Cryptographic Algorithm

answer

A well-defined computational procedure that takes variable inputs, including a cryptographic key, and produces an output

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Cryptographic Strength

answer

A measure of the expected number of operations required to defeat a cryptographic mechanism.

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Cryptography

answer

The discipline that embodies the principles, means, and methods for the transformation of data in order to hide their semantic content, prevent their unauthorized use, or prevent their undetected modification.

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Cybercops

answer

An investigator of computer-crime-related activities

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Cyclical Redundancy Check (CRC)

answer

A method to ensure data has not been altered after being sent through a communication channel

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Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

answer

In computer security, discretionary access control (DAC) is a type of access control defined by the Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria[1] "as a means of restricting access to objects based on the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong. The controls arediscretionary in the sense that a subject with a certain access permission is capable of passing that permission (perhaps indirectly) on to any other subject

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Damage evaluation

answer

The determination of the extent of damage that is necessary to provide for an estimation of the recovery time frame and the potential loss to the organization

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Data classification

answer

The assignment of a level of sensitivity to data (or information) that results in the specification of controls for each level of classification. Levels of sensitivity of data are assigned according to predefined categories as data are created, amended, enhanced, stored or transmitted. The classification level is an indication of the value or importance of the data to the organization.

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Data Custodian

answer

A Data Custodian is the entity currently using or manipulating the data, and therefore, temporarily taking responsibility for the data.

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Data Integrity

answer

The property that data has not been altered in an unauthorized manner. Data integrity covers data in storage, during processing, and while in transit.

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Data Mining

answer

Data Mining is a technique used to analyze existing information, usually with the intention of pursuing new avenues to pursue business.

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Data Owner

answer

A Data Owner is the entity having responsibility and authority for the data.

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Data Warehousing

answer

Data Warehousing is the consolidation of several previously independent databases into one location.

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Data Encryption Standard (DES)

answer

An algorithm for encoding binary data. It is a secret key cryptosystem published by the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), the predecessor of the US National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). DES and its variants has been replaced by the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

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Decrypt

answer

Generic term encompassing decode and decipher

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Data leakage

answer

Siphoning out or leaking information by dumping computer files or stealing computer reports and tapes

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Data leak protection (DLP)

answer

A suite of technologies and associated processes that locate, monitor and protect sensitive information from unauthorized disclosure

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Data normalization

answer

A structured process for organizing data into tables in a common form in such a way that it preserves the relationships among the data

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Data warehouse

answer

A generic term for a system that stores, retrieves and manages large volumes of data. Data warehouse software often includes sophisticated comparison and hashing techniques for fast searches, as well as advanced filtering.

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Decentralization

answer

The process of distributing computer processing to different locations within an organization

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Decryption

answer

Decryption is the process of transforming an encrypted message into its original plaintext.

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Decryption key

answer

A digital piece of information used to recover plaintext from the corresponding ciphertext by decryption

question

Defense in depth

answer

The practice of layering defenses to provide added protection. Defense in depth increases security by raising the effort needed in an attack. This strategy places multiple barriers between an attacker and an organization's computing and information resources.

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Degauss

answer

The application of variable levels of alternating current for the purpose of demagnetizing magnetic recording media. The process involves increasing the alternating current field gradually from zero to some maximum value and back to zero, leaving a very low residue of magnetic induction on the media. Degauss loosely means: to erase.

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Demilitarized zone (DMZ)

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A screened (firewalled) network segment that acts as a buffer zone between a trusted and untrusted network. A DMZ is typically used to house systems such as web servers that must be accessible from both internal networks and the Internet.

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Denial of service (DOS)

answer

A denial-of-service attack (DoS attack) is an attempt to make a computer or network resource unavailable to its intended users by overloading the system with requests causing it to fail.

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Disruption

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An unplanned event that causes the general system or major application to be inoperable for an unacceptable length of time (e.g., minor or extended power outage, extended unavailable network, or equipment or facility damage or destruction).

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Digital certificate

answer

An electronic credential issued by a certificate authority (CA). A digital certificate binds a user's identity to a public key. It contains a user identifier, a unique serial number, valid to-from dates, usage information, a copy of the certificate holder's public key, and a thumbprint (hash) to verify integrity. The certificate is signed by the digital signature of the certificate-issuing authority so that a recipient can verify the validity of the certificate.

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Digital code signing

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The process of digitally signing computer code to ensure its integrity

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Disaster declaration

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The communication to appropriate internal and external parties that the disaster recovery plan is being put into operation

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Disaster notification fee

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The fee the recovery site vendor charges when the customer notifies them that a disaster has occurred and the recovery site is required. The fee is implemented to discourage false disaster notifications.

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Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

answer

A set of human, physical, technical and procedural resources to recover, within a defined time and cost, an activity interrupted by an emergency or disaster

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Disaster recovery plan desk checking

answer

Typically a read-through of a disaster recovery plan without any real actions taking place. It generally involves a reading of the plan, discussion of the action items and definition of any gaps that might be identified.

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Disaster recovery plan walk-through

answer

Generally a robust test of the recovery plan requiring that some recovery activities take place and are tested. A disaster scenario is often given and the recovery teams talk through the steps they would need to take to recover. As many aspects of the plan should be tested as possible.

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Discretionary access control (DAC)

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A means of restricting access to objects based on the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong. The controls are discretionary in the sense that a subject with a certain access permission is capable of passing that permission (perhaps indirectly) on to any other subject.

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Disk mirroring

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The practice of duplicating data in separate volumes on two hard disks to make storage more fault tolerant. Mirroring provides data protection in the case of disk failure because data are constantly updated to both disks.

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Disk Imaging

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Generating a bit-for-bit copy of the original media, including free space and slack space.

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Distributed denial of service (DDOS)

answer

A denial-of-service attack (DoS attack) is an attempt to make a computer or network resource unavailable to its intended users by overloading the system with requests from multiple sources (such as a botnet) causing it to fail.

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Domain

answer

A sphere of knowledge, or a collection of facts about some program entities or a number of network points or addresses, identified by a name. On the Internet, a domain consists of a set of network addresses. In the Internet's domain name system, a domain is a name with which name server records are associated that describe sub-domains or host. In Windows NT and Windows 2000, a domain is a set of network resources (applications, printers, and so forth) for a group of users. The user need only to log in to the domain to gain access to the resources, which may be located on a number of different servers in the network.

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Domain name system (DNS)

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A hierarchical database that is distributed across the Internet that allows names to be resolved into IP addresses (and vice versa) to locate services such as web and e-mail servers

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Dual control

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A procedure that uses two or more entities (usually persons) operating in concert to protect a system resource such that no single entity acting alone can access that resource

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Due care

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The level of care expected from a reasonable person of similar competency under similar conditions

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Due diligence

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The performance of those actions that are generally regarded as prudent, responsible and necessary to conduct a thorough and objective investigation, review and/or analysis

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Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)

answer

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is a protocol for assigning dynamic IP addresses to devices on a network. With dynamic addressing, a device can have a different IP address every time it connects to the network. In some systems, the device's IP address can even change while it is still connected. DHCP also supports a mix of static and dynamic IP addresses.

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Electronic data exchange (EDI)

answer

Electronic data interchange (EDI) is the structured transmission of data between organizations by electronic means. It is used to transfer electronic documents or business data from one computer system to another computer system, i.e. from one trading partner to another trading partner without human intervention.

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Electronic funds transfer (EFT)

answer

Electronic funds transfer (EFT) is the electronic exchange or transfer of money from one account to another, either within a single financial institution or across multiple institutions, through computer-based systems

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Encryption

answer

Cryptographic transformation of data (called "plaintext") into a form (called "cipher text") that conceals the data's original meaning to prevent it from being known or used.

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Encipher

answer

Convert plain text to cipher text by means of a cryptographic system

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End-to-End Encryption

answer

Communications encryption in which data is encrypted when being passed through a network, but routing information remains visible.

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End-to-End Security

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Safeguarding information in an information system from point of origin to point of destination.

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Enterprise governance

answer

A set of responsibilities and practices exercised by the board and executive management with the goal of providing strategic direction, ensuring that objectives are achieved, ascertaining that risks are managed appropriately and verifying that the enterprise's resources are used responsibly.

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Enterprise Architecture (EA)

answer

The description of an enterprise's entire set of information systems: how they are configured, how they are integrated, how they interface to the external environment at the enterprise's boundary, how they are operated to support the enterprise mission, and how they contribute to the enterprise's overall security posture.

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Enterprise Risk Management

answer

The methods and processes used by an enterprise to manage risks to its mission and to establish the trust necessary for the enterprise to support shared missions. It involves the identification of mission dependencies on enterprise capabilities, the identification and prioritization of risks due to defined threats, the implementation of countermeasures to provide both a static risk posture and an effective dynamic response to active threats; and it assesses enterprise performance against threats and adjusts countermeasures as necessary.

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Entitlements

answer

Entitlements is the process business users manage the data that controls how policies are evaluated at runtime. They can add and delete users for applications and put those users into groups or assign them to roles. They manage sets of actions (permissions) that can be logically grouped for a particular business function. They assign those sets of actions to users or to roles defined for the application.

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Ethernet

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The most widely-installed LAN technology. Specified in a standard, IEEE 802.3, an Ethernet LAN typically uses coaxial cable or special grades of twisted pair wires. Devices are connected to the cable and compete for access.

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Event

answer

An event is an observable occurrence in a system or network.

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Exposure

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The extent of the area exposed to a viable threat creating a risk. i.e Both a viable threat and a susceptible vulnerability may exist but the risk is a function of the degree of exposure.

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External storage

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The location that contains the backup copies to be used in case recovery or restoration is required in the event of a disaster

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Extranet

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A private network that uses Web technology, permitting the sharing of portions of an enterprise's information or operations with suppliers, vendors, partners, customers, or other enterprises.

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Fail Safe

answer

Automatic protection of programs and/or processing systems when hardware or software failure is detected.

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Failover

answer

The capability to switch over automatically (typically without human intervention or warning) to a redundant or standby information system upon the failure or abnormal termination of the previously active system.

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Fall-through logic

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An optimized code based on a branch prediction that predicts which way a program will branch when an application is presented

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False Positive

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An alert that incorrectly indicates that malicious activity is occurring

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False Negative

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A lack of or incorrect alert indicating that no malicious activity is occurring

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Federal energy regulatory commission (FERC) USA

answer

The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) is the United States federal agency with jurisdiction over interstate electricity sales, wholesale electric rates, hydroelectric licensing,natural gas pricing, and oil pipeline rates. FERC also reviews and authorizes liquefied natural gas (LNG) terminals, interstate natural gas pipelines and non-federal hydropower projects

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Federal financial institutions examination council (FFIEC) USA

answer

The Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, or FFIEC, is a formal interagency body of the United States government empowered to prescribe uniform principles, standards, and report forms for the federal examination of financial institutions by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (FRB), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA), the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), MAIC Mergers & Acquisitions International Clearing and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau(CFPB) and to make recommendations to promote uniformity in the supervision of financial institutions.

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File Encryption

answer

The process of encrypting individual files on a storage medium and permitting access to the encrypted data only after proper authentication is provided.

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File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

answer

A TCP/IP protocol specifying the transfer of text or binary files across the network.

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Financial security authority (FSA) UK

answer

The Financial Services Authority is the regulator of the financial services industry in the UK.

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Firewall

answer

A system or combination of systems that enforces a boundary between two or more networks typically forming a barrier between a secure and an open environment such as the Internet

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Firmware

answer

Computer programs and data stored in hardware - typically in read-only memory (ROM) or programmable read-only memory (PROM) - such that the programs and data cannot be dynamically written or modified during execution of the programs.

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Flooding

answer

An attack that attempts to cause a failure in a system by providing more input than the system can process properly.

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Foreign corrupt practices act (FPCA)

answer

In 1998 the United States Congress and 33 other countries acted against the bribery of foreign officials, essentially government officials in an attempt to reduce corruption and money laundering through the global financial system.

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Forensic Copy

answer

An accurate bit-for-bit reproduction of the information contained on an electronic device or associated media, whose validity and integrity has been verified using an accepted algorithm.

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Forensic examination

answer

The process of collecting, assessing, classifying and documenting digital evidence to assist in the identification of an offender and the method of compromise

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Forensic Specialist

answer

A professional who locates, identifies, collects, analyzes, and examines data while preserving the integrity and maintaining a strict chain of custody of information discovered.

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Forensics

answer

The practice of gathering, retaining, and analyzing computer-related data for investigative purposes in a manner that maintains the integrity of the data.

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Full Disk Encryption (FDE)

answer

The process of encrypting all the data on the hard disk drive used to boot a computer, including the computer's operating system, and permitting access to the data only after successful authentication with the full disk encryption product

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Generally accepted information security principles (GAISP)

answer

GAISP describes eight pervasive principles and fourteen practices for information security. Each of the principles applies to each of the practices.

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Gap analysis

answer

A process used to determine the difference between and what is required to move from an existing state and the desired state.

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Guideline

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A description of a particular way of accomplishing something that is less prescriptive than a procedure

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Hardening

answer

Configuring a host's operating systems and applications to reduce the host's security weaknesses.

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Hash Function

answer

An algorithm that computes a value based on a data object thereby mapping the data object to a smaller data object.

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Help desk

answer

A service offered via telephone/Internet by an organization to its clients or employees, which provides information, assistance and troubleshooting advice regarding software, hardware or networks. A help desk is staffed by people that can either resolve the problem on their own or escalate the problem to specialized personnel. A help desk is often equipped with dedicated customer relationship management (CRM) software that logs the problems and tracks them until they are solved.

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High Availability

answer

A failover feature to ensure availability during device or component interruptions.

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Host based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)

answer

A host-based IDS monitors all or parts of the dynamic behavior and the state of a computer system.

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Honeypot

answer

A specially configured server, also known as a decoy server, designed to attract and monitor intruders in a manner such that their actions do not affect production systems

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Hot site

answer

A fully operational offsite data processing facility equipped with hardware and system software to be used in the event of a disaster

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Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)

answer

The set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a World Wide Web browser page.

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Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

answer

A communication protocol used to connect to servers on the World Wide Web. Its primary function is to establish a connection with a web server and transmit HTML, XML or other pages to the client browsers.

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HTTPS

answer

A secure form of HTTP using encryption

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Heating, ventilation and air conditioning (HVAC)

answer

The main purposes of a Heating, Ventilation, and Air-Conditioning (HVAC) system are to help maintain good indoor air quality through adequate ventilation with filtration and provide thermal protection for IT equipment

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IA Architecture

answer

A description of the structure and behavior for an enterprise's security processes, information security systems, personnel and organizational sub-units, showing their alignment with the enterprise's mission and strategic plans.

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IA Infrastructure

answer

The underlying security framework that lies beyond an enterprise's defined boundary, but supports its IA and IA-enabled products, its security posture and its risk management plan.

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ICT

answer

ICT is an acronym that stands for Information Communications Technology and is largely synonymous with IT

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Identification

answer

The process of verifying the identity of a user, process, or device, usually as a prerequisite for granting access to resources in an IT system

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Identity

answer

A unique name of an individual person or device. Since the legal names of persons are not necessarily unique, the identity of a person must include sufficient additional information to make the complete name unique

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Impact

answer

The magnitude of harm that can be expected to result from the consequences of unauthorized disclosure of information, unauthorized modification of information, unauthorized destruction of information, or loss of information or information system availability.

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Impact analysis

answer

An impact analysis is a study to prioritize the criticality of information resources for the organization based on costs (or consequences) of adverse events. In an impact analysis, threats to assets are identified and potential business losses determined for different time periods. This assessment is used to justify the extent of safeguards that are required and recovery time frames. This analysis is the basis for establishing the recovery strategy.

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Incident

answer

An adverse event in an information system or network or the threat of the occurrence of such an event

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Incident Handling

answer

An action plan for dealing with intrusions, cyber-theft, denial of service, fire, floods, and other security-related events. It is comprised of a six step process: Preparation, Identification, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, and Lessons Learned

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Incident Management Team - IMT

answer

A team of highly trained, experienced, and credentialed people that can come together and remedy unanticipated disruptive security events

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Incident Response Team -IRT

answer

The first responders to unanticipated disruptive events with the objective of containing damage, restoring services and investigating causes.

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Incident Response Plan - IRP

answer

A part of business continuity planning that addresses the nature, scope, constituency and charter of the IMT and IRT as well as notification and escalation procedures. It also defines severity and declaration criteria, triage procedures, training and deployment requirements and other significant aspects of incident response.

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Incremental Backups

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The backup of files that have been modified since the last backup. If dump levels are used, these backup's only backup files changed since last backup of a lower dump level.

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Information Assurance - IA

answer

Measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation. These measures include providing for restoration of information systems by incorporating protection, detection, and reaction capabilities. Synonymous with information security

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Information Security Governance

answer

The set of responsibilities and practices exercised by the board and executive management with the goal of providing strategic direction, ensuring that objectives are achieved, ascertaining that risks are managed appropriately and verifying that the enterprise's resources are used responsibly

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Information Security Program

answer

The overall combination of technical, operational and procedural measures, and management structures implemented to provide for the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information based on business requirements and risk analysis

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Information Security

answer

The protection of information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction in order to provide confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Synonymous with Information Assurance - IA

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Information Security Architect

answer

Individual, group, or organization responsible for ensuring that the information security requirements necessary to protect the organization's core missions and business processes are adequately addressed in all aspects of enterprise architecture including reference models, segment and solution architectures, and the resulting information systems supporting those missions and business processes.

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Integrity

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The accuracy, completeness and validity of information

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Intellectual Property

answer

Useful artistic, technical, and/or industrial information, knowledge or ideas that convey ownership and control of tangible or virtual usage and/or representation. Also known as the intangible property of value.

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Internal controls

answer

The policies, procedures, practices and organizational structures designed to provide reasonable assurance that business objectives will be achieved and undesired events will be prevented or detected and corrected

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Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

answer

The return on an investment or project is the "annualized effective compounded return rate" or "rate of return" that makes the net present value of all cash flows (both positive and negative) from a particular investment equal to zero. Commonly used to evaluate the desirability of investments or projects.

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Internet

answer

A term to describe connecting multiple separate networks together.

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Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP

answer

An Internet Standard protocol that is used to report error conditions during IP datagram processing and to exchange other information concerning the state of the IP network.

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Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

answer

A protocol that defines how a client should fetch mail from and return mail to a mail server. IMAP is intended as a replacement for or extension to the Post Office Protocol (POP). It is defined in RFC 1203 (v3) and RFC 2060 (v4).

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Internet service provider (ISP)

answer

A third party that provides individuals and organizations access to the Internet and a variety of other Internet-related services

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Interruption window

answer

The time the company can wait from the point of failure to the restoration of the minimum and critical services or applications. After this time, the progressive losses caused by the interruption are excessive for the organization.

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Intranet

answer

A computer network, especially one based on Internet technology that an organization uses for its own internal, and usually private, purposes and that is closed to outsiders.

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Intrusion detection

answer

The process of monitoring the events occurring in a computer system or network to detect signs of unauthorized access or attack

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Intrusion detection system (IDS)

answer

An IDS inspects network and host security activity to identify suspicious patterns that may indicate a network or system attack

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Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

answer

An IPS inspects network and host security activity to identify suspicious patterns that may indicate a network or system attack and then blocks it at the firewall to prevent damage to information resources.

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IP Security (IPSec)

answer

A set of protocols developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) to support the secure exchange of packets

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ISO/IEC 17799

answer

Originally released as part of the British Standard for Information Security in 1999 and then as the Code of Practice for Information Security Management in October 2000, it was elevated by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) to an international code of practice for information security management. This standard defines information's confidentiality, integrity and availability controls in a comprehensive information security management system. The latest version is ISO/IEC 17799:2005.

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ISO/IEC 2700

answer

An international standard, released in 2005 and revised in 2006, that defines a set of requirements for an information security management system. Prior its adoption by the ISO, this standard was known as BS 17799 Part 2, which was originally published in 1999.

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ISO/IEC 27002

answer

A code of practice that contains a structured list of suggested information security controls for organizations implementing an information security management system. Prior to its adoption by ISO/IEC, this standard existed as BS 77799.

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ISO/IEC 31000

answer

The purpose of ISO 31000:2009 is to provide principles and generic guidelines on risk management. ISO 31000 seeks to provide a universally recognized paradigm for practitioners and companies employing risk management processes to replace the myriad of existing standards, methodologies and paradigms that differed between industries, subject matters and regions

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ISO/IEC 15504

answer

ISO/IEC 15504 Information technology — Process assessment, also known as SPICE (Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination), is a set of technical standards documents for the computer software development process and related business management functions

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IT governance

answer

The responsibility of executives and the board of directors. Consists of the leadership, organizational structures and processes that ensure that the enterprise's IT sustains and extends the organization's strategies and objectives.

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IT steering committee

answer

An executive management-level committee that assists the executive in the delivery of the IT strategy, oversees day?to?day management of IT service delivery and IT projects and focuses on implementation aspects

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IT strategic plan

answer

A long?term plan, i.e., three? to five?year horizon, in which business and IT management cooperatively describe how IT resources will contribute to the enterprise's strategic objectives (goals)

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IT strategy committee

answer

A committee at the level of the board of directors to ensure that the board is involved in major IT matters and decisions. The committee is primarily accountable for managing the portfolios of IT?enabled investments, IT services and other IT resources. The committee is the owner of the portfolio.

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Kerberos

answer

A widely used authentication protocol developed at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). In "classic" Kerberos, users share a secret password with a Key Distribution Center (KDC). The user, Alice, who wishes to communicate with another user, Bob, authenticates to the KDC and is furnished a "ticket" by the KDC to use to authenticate with Bob. When Kerberos authentication is based on passwords, the protocol is known to be vulnerable to off-line dictionary attacks by eavesdroppers who capture the initial user-toKDC exchange.

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Key goal indicator (KGI)

answer

A measure that tells management, after the fact, whether an IT process has achieved its business requirements; usually expressed in terms of information criteria

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Key Logger

answer

A program designed to record which keys are pressed on a computer keyboard used to obtain passwords or encryption keys and thus bypass other security measures.

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Key performance indicator (KPI)

answer

A measure that determines how well the process is performing in enabling the goal to be reached. A KPI is a lead indicator of whether a goal will likely be reached, and a good indicator of capability, practices and skills. It measures an activity goal, which is an action that the process owner must take to achieve effective process performance.

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Key risk indicator (KRI)

answer

A subset of risk indicators that are highly relevant and possess a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk

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Keystroke Monitoring

answer

The process used to view or record both the keystrokes entered by a computer user and the computer's response during an interactive session. Keystroke monitoring is usually considered a special case of audit trails.

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Least Privilege

answer

Least Privilege is the principle of allowing users or applications the least amount of permissions necessary to perform their intended function.

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Likelihood of Occurrence

answer

In Information Assurance risk analysis, a weighted factor based on a subjective analysis of the probability that a given threat is capable of exploiting a given vulnerability.

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Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

answer

A software protocol for enabling anyone to locate organizations, individuals, and other resources such as files and devices in a network, whether on the public Internet or on a corporate Intranet.

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Link Encryption

answer

Link encryption encrypts all of the data along a communications path (e.g., a satellite link, telephone circuit, or T1 line). Since link encryption also encrypts routing data, communications nodes need to decrypt the data to continue routing.

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Local area network

answer

A local area network (LAN) is a computer network that interconnects computers in a limited area such as a home, school, computer laboratory, or office building using network media.[1] The defining characteristics of LANs, in contrast to wide area networks (WANs), include their usually higher data-transfer rates, smaller geographic area, and lack of a need for leased telecommunication lines

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Local Registration Authority (LRA)

answer

A Registration Authority with responsibility for a local community in a PKI-enabled environment.

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Logic Bomb

answer

A piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met.

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Media Access Control (MAC) Address

answer

A physical address; a numeric value that uniquely identifies that network device from every other device on the planet.

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Mail relay server

answer

An e-mail server that relays messages so that neither the sender nor the recipient is a local user

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Malicious Code

answer

Software (e.g., Trojan horse) that appears to perform a useful or desirable function, but actually gains unauthorized access to system resources or tricks a user into executing other malicious logic.

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Malware

answer

A generic term for a number of different types of malicious code.

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Mandatory access control (MAC)

answer

A means of restricting access to data based on varying degrees of security requirements for information contained in the objects and the corresponding security clearance of users or programs acting on their behalf.

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Man-in-the-middle Attack (MitM)

answer

An attack on the authentication protocol run in which the attacker positions himself in between the claimant and verifier so that he can intercept and alter data traveling between them.

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Masqueraders

answer

Attackers that penetrate systems by using the identity of legitimate users and their login credentials

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Maximum tolerable outages (MTO)

answer

Maximum time the organization can support processing in alternate mode

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Message Authentication Code

answer

An ANSI standard checksum that is computed using the Data Encryption Standard (DES)

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Message Digest

answer

A cryptographic checksum, typically generated for a file that can be used to detect changes to the file; Secure Hash Algorithm-1 (SHA-1) is an example of a message digest algorithm.

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Metric

answer

A measure from one or more points of reference

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Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

answer

The maximum time that the organization can support processing in the alternate mode

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Mirrored site

answer

An alternate site that contains the same information as the original. Mirror sites are set up for backup and disaster recovery as well as to balance the traffic load for numerous download requests. Such download mirrors are often placed in different locations throughout the Internet.

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Mobile site

answer

The use of a mobile/temporary facility to serve as a business resumption location. They can usually be delivered to any site and can house information technology and staff.

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Monitoring policy

answer

Rules outlining or delineating the way in which information about the use of computers, networks, applications and information is captured and interpreted.

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Multipurpose internet mail extension (MIME)

answer

A specification for formatting non-ASCII messages so that they can be sent over the Internet. Many e-mail clients now support MIME, which enables them to send and receive graphics, audio, and video files via the Internet mail system. In addition, MIME supports messages in character sets other than ASCII.

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Naming Authority

answer

An organizational entity responsible for assigning distinguished names (DNs) and for assuring that each DN is meaningful and unique within its domain.

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Need-To-Know

answer

A method of isolating information resources based on a user's need to have access to that resource in order to perform their job but no more. The terms 'need-to know" and "least privilege" express the same idea. Need-to-know is generally applied to people, while least privilege is generally applied to processes.

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Net present value (NPV)

answer

The discounted value of an investment's cash inflows minus the discounted value of its cash outflows. To be adequately profitable, an investment should have a net present value greater than zero

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Network address translation (NAT)

answer

Basic NATs are used when there is a requirement to interconnect two IP networks with incompatible addressing. However it is common to hide an entire IP address space, usually consisting of private IP addresses, behind a single IP address (or in some cases a small group of IP addresses) in another (usually public) address space. To avoid ambiguity in the handling of returned packets, a one-to-many NAT must alter higher level information such as TCP/UDP ports in outgoing communications and must maintain a translation table so that return packets can be correctly translated back

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Network based intrusion detection (NIDs)

answer

Network based intrusion detection provides broader coverage than host based approaches but functions in the same manner detecting attacks using either an anomaly based or signature based approach or both.

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Nonce

answer

A value used in security protocols that is never repeated with the same key. For example, challenges used in challenge-response authentication protocols generally must not be repeated until authentication keys are changed, or there is a possibility of a replay attack. Using a nonce as a challenge is a different requirement than a random challenge, because a nonce is not necessarily unpredictable.

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Nonintrusive monitoring

answer

The use of transported probes or traces to assemble information, track traffic and identify vulnerabilities

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Nonrepudiation

answer

The assurance that a party cannot later deny originating data; that is, it is the provision of proof of the integrity and origin of the data and can be verified by a third party. A digital signature can provide nonrepudiation.

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Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

answer

The Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD, French:Organisation de coopération et de développement économiques, OCDE) is an international economic organisation of 34 countries founded in 1961 to stimulate economic progress and world trade. It is a forum of countries committed to democracy and the market economy, providing a platform to compare policy experiences, seek answers to common problems, identify good practices, and co-ordinate domestic and international policies of its members

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Offline files

answer

Computer file storage media not physically connected to the computer; typically tapes or tape cartridges used for backup purposes

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Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

answer

A routing protocol developed for IP networks. It is based on the shortest path first or link state algorithm.

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Open Source Security Testing Methodology

answer

An open and freely available methodology and manual for security testing

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Open systems interconnection* (OSI)

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The main idea of the OSI model is that the process of communication between two end points in a telecommunication network can be divided into layers, with each layer adding its own set of special, related functions. OSI divides telecommunication into seven layers. The layers are in two groups. The upper four layers are used whenever a message passes from or to a user. The lower three layers (up to the network layer) are used when any message passes through the host computer or router. Each communicating user or program is at a computer equipped with these seven layers of function. The actual programming and hardware that furnishes these seven layers of function is usually a combination of the computer operating system, applications (such as your Web browser), TCP/IP or alternative transport and network protocols, and the software and hardware that enable you to put a signal on one of the lines attached to your computer.

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OSI Layer 1

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The physical layer...This layer conveys the bit stream through the network at the electrical and mechanical level. It provides the hardware means of sending and receiving data on a carrier.

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OSI Layer 2

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The data-link layer...This layer provides synchronization for the physical level and does bit-stuffing for strings of 1's in excess of 5. It furnishes transmission protocol knowledge and management.

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OSI Layer 3

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The network layer...This layer handles the routing of the data (sending it in the right direction to the right destination on outgoing transmissions and receiving incoming transmissions at the packet level). The network layer does routing and forwarding.

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OSI Layer 4

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The transport layer...This layer manages the end-to-end control (for example, determining whether all packets have arrived) and error-checking. It ensures complete data transfer.

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OSI Layer 5

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The session layer...This layer sets up, coordinates, and terminates conversations, exchanges, and dialogs between the applications at each end. It deals with session and connection coordination.

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OSI Layer 6

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The presentation layer...This is a layer, usually part of an operating system, that converts incoming and outgoing data from one presentation format to another (for example, from a text stream into a popup window with the newly arrived text). Sometimes called the syntax layer.

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OSI Layer 7

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The application layer...This is the layer at which communication partners are identified, quality of service is identified, user authentication and privacy are considered, and any constraints on data syntax are identified. (This layer is not the application itself, although some applications may perform application layer functions.)

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Operations Security (OPSEC)

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Systematic and proven process by which potential adversaries can be denied information about capabilities and intentions by identifying, controlling, and protecting generally unclassified evidence of the planning and execution of sensitive activities. The process involves five steps: identification of critical information, analysis of threats, analysis of vulnerabilities, assessment of risk, remediation.

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Outcome measure

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Represents the consequences of actions previously taken and is often referred to as a lag indicator. An outcome measure frequently focuses on results at the end of a time period and characterizes historical performance. Also referred to as a key goal indicator (KGI) and used to indicate whether goals have been met. Can be measured only after the fact and, therefore, is called a lag indicator.

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Packet

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A piece of a message transmitted over a packet-switching network. One of the key features of a packet is that it contains the destination address in addition to the data. In IP networks, packets are often called datagrams.

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Packet filtering

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Controlling access to a network by analyzing the attributes of the incoming and outgoing packets, and either letting them pass or denying them based on a list of rules

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Packet Sniffer

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Software that observes and records network traffic.

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Packet Switched Network

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A packet switched network is where individual packets each follow their own paths through the network from one endpoint to another.

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Partitions

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Major divisions of the total physical hard disk space.

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Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

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Password Authentication Protocol is a simple, weak authentication mechanism where a user enters the password and it is then sent across the network, usually in the clear.

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Password Cracking

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Password cracking is the process of attempting to guess passwords, given the password file information.

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Password Sniffing

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Passive wiretapping, usually on a local area network, to gain knowledge of passwords.

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Patch

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A patch is a small update released by a software manufacturer to fix bugs in existing programs.

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Patching

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Patching is the process of updating software to a different version.

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Patch Management

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The systematic notification, identification, deployment, installation, and verification of operating system and application software code revisions. These revisions are known as patches, hot fixes, and service packs.

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Passive response

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A response option in intrusion detection in which the system simply reports and records the problem detected, relying on the user to take subsequent action

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Password cracker

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A tool that tests the strength of user passwords searching for passwords that are easy to guess by repeatedly trying words from specially crafted dictionaries and often also by generating thousands (and, in some cases, even millions) of permutations of characters, numbers and symbols

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Payment card industry (PCI)

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The term is specifically used to refer to the Payment Card Industry Security Standards Council, a council originally formed by American Express, Discover Financial Services, JCB, MasterCard Worldwide and Visa International on Sept. 7, 2006, with the goal of managing the ongoing evolution of the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard. The council itself claims to be independent of the various card vendors that make up the council.

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Payment card industry data security standard (PCI-DSS)

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The PCI Council formed a body of security standards known as the PCI Data Security Standards, (PCI DSS), and these standards consist of 12 significant requirements including multiple sub-requirements which contain numerous directives against which businesses may measure their own payment card security policies, procedures and guidelines

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Penetration testing

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A live test of the effectiveness of security defenses through mimicking the actions of real-life attackers

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Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

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Information which can be used to distinguish or trace an individual's identity, such as their name, social security number, biometric records, etc., alone, or when combined with other personal or identifying information which is linked or linkable to a specific individual, such as date and place of birth, mother's maiden name, etc.

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Pharming

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This is a more sophisticated form of MITM attack. A user's session is redirected to a masquerading website. This can be achieved by corrupting a DNS server on the Internet and pointing a URL to the masquerading website's IP. Almost all users use a URL like www.worldbank.com instead of the real IP (192.86.99.140) of the website. Changing the pointers on a DNS server, the URL can be redirected to send traffic to the IP of the pseudo website. At the pseudo website, transactions can be mimicked and information like login credentials can be gathered. With this the attacker can access the real www.worldbank.com site and conduct transactions using the credentials of a valid user on that website.

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Phishing

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The use of e-mails that appear to originate from a trusted source to trick a user into entering valid credentials at a fake website. Typically the e-mail and the web site looks like they are part of a bank the user is doing business with.

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Port Scanning

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Using a program to remotely determine which ports on a system are open (e.g., whether systems allow connections through those ports).

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Plan-do-check-act (PDCA)

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PDCA (plan-do-check-act or plan-do-check-adjust) is an iterative four-step management method used in business for the control and continuous improvement of processes and products. It is also known as the Deming circle/cycle/wheel, Shewhart cycle, control circle/cycle, or plan-do-study-act (PDSA).

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Policies

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High-level statements of management intent and direction

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Port

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A hardware interface between a CPU and a peripheral device. Can also refer to a software (virtual) convention that allows remote services to connect to a host operating system in a structured manner

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Port Scan

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A port scan is a series of messages sent by someone attempting to break into a computer to learn which computer network services, each associated with a "well-known" port number, the computer provides. Port scanning, a favorite approach of computer cracker, gives the assailant an idea where to probe for weaknesses. Essentially, a port scan consists of sending a message to each port, one at a time. The kind of response received indicates whether the port is used and can therefore be probed for weakness.

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Post Office Protocol, Version 3 (POP3)

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An Internet Standard protocol by which a client workstation can dynamically access a mailbox on a server host to retrieve mail messages that the server has received and is holding for the client

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Protocol

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A formal specification for communicating; an IP address the special set of rules that end points in a telecommunication connection use when they communicate. Protocols exist at several levels in a telecommunication connection.

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Privacy

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Freedom from unauthorized intrusion or disclosure of information about individuals

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Private Key

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The secret part of an asymmetric key pair that is typically used to digitally sign or decrypt data in a PKI.

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Privileged Accounts

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Individuals who have access to set "access rights" for users on a given system. Sometimes referred to as system or network administrative accounts.

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Procedures

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A detailed description of the steps necessary to perform specific operations in conformance with applicable standards

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Proxy

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A proxy is an application that "breaks" the connection between client and server. The proxy accepts certain types of traffic entering or leaving a network and processes it and forwards it. This effectively closes the straight path between the internal and external networks making it more difficult for an attacker to obtain internal addresses and other details of the organization's internal network. Proxy servers are available for common Internet services; for example, a Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) proxy used for Web access, and a Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) proxy used for email.

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Proxy server

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A server that acts on behalf of a user. Typically proxies accept a connection from a user, make a decision as to whether or not the user or client IP address is permitted to use the proxy, perhaps perform additional authentication, and then complete a connection to a remote destination on behalf of the user.

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Proximity factors

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The distance from potential hazards, which can include flooding risk from nearby waterways, hazardous material manufacturing or storage, or other situations that may pose a risk to the operation of a recovery

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Public Key

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The public part of an asymmetric key pair that is typically used to verify signatures or encrypt data in a PKI

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Public key infrastructure (PKI)

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The framework and services that provide for the generation, production, distribution, control, accounting, and destruction of public key certificates. Components include the personnel, policies, processes, server platforms, software, and workstations used for the purpose of administering certificates and public-private key pairs, including the ability to issue, maintain, recover, and revoke public key certificates.

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Quality assurance (QA)

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A process for testing to ensure specifications are met

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Red Team

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A group of people authorized and organized to emulate a potential adversary's attack or exploitation capabilities against an enterprise's security posture. The Red Team's objective is to improve enterprise Information Assurance by demonstrating the impacts of successful attacks and by demonstrating what works for the defenders (i.e., the Blue Team) in an operational environment.

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Relying Party

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An entity that relies upon the subscriber's credentials, typically to process a transaction or grant access to information or a system typically in a PKI.

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Remediation

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The act of correcting a vulnerability or eliminating a threat. Three possible types of remediation are installing a patch, adjusting configuration settings, or uninstalling a software application.

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Reciprocal agreement

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Emergency processing agreements among two or more organizations with similar equipment or applications. Typically, participants promise to provide processing time to each other when an emergency arises.

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Recovery action

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Execution of a response or task according to a written procedure

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Recovery point objective (RPO)

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Determined based on the acceptable data loss in case of a disruption of operations. Indicates the earliest point in time to which it is acceptable to recover data. Effectively quantifies the permissible amount of data loss in case of interruption i.e. the last point of known good data

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Recovery time objective (RTO)

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The amount of time allowed for the recovery of a business function or resource after a disaster occurs

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Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID)

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A technology that provides performance improvements and fault-tolerant capabilities, via hardware or software solutions, by writing to a series of multiple disks to improve performance and save large files simultaneously

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Redundant site

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A recovery strategy involving the duplication of key information technology components, including data or other key business processes, whereby fast recovery can take place

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Registration Authority

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A trusted entity that establishes and vouches for the identity of a subscriber to a CSP i.e binds physical identity to a logical identity such as a certificate. The RA may be an integral part of a CSP, or it may be independent of a CSP, but it has a relationship to the CSP(s)

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Request for proposal (RFP)

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A request for proposal (RFP) is issued at an early stage in a procurement process, where an invitation is presented for suppliers, often through a bidding process, to submit a proposal on a specific commodity or service. The RFP process brings structure to the procurement decision and is meant to allow the risks and benefits to be identified clearly up front. The RFP may dictate to varying degrees the exact structure and format of the supplier's response. Effective RFPs typically reflect the strategy and short/long-term business objectives, providing detailed insight upon which suppliers will be able to offer a matching perspective

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Replay Attacks

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An attack that involves the capture of transmitted authentication or access control information and its subsequent retransmission with the intent of producing an unauthorized effect or gaining unauthorized access.

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Residual risk

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The remaining risk after management has implemented risk response

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Resilience

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The ability of a system or network to resist failure or to recover quickly from any disruption, usually with minimal recognizable effect

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Return on investment (ROI)

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A measure of operating performance and efficiency, computed in its simplest form by dividing net income by the total investment over the period being considered

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Return on security investment (ROSI)

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An estimate of return on security investment based on how much will be saved by reduced losses divided by the investment.

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Risk

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The combination of the probability of an event and its consequence. (ISO/IEC 73). Risk has traditionally been expressed as Threats X Vulnerabilities = Risk.

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Risk assessment

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A process used to identify and evaluate risk and potential effects. Risk assessment includes assessing the critical functions necessary for an organization to continue business operations, defining the controls in place to reduce organization exposure and evaluating the cost for such controls. Risk analysis often involves an evaluation of the probabilities of a particular event.

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Risk avoidance

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The process for systematically avoiding risk, constituting one approach to managing risk

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Risk mitigation

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The management and reduction of risk through the use of countermeasures and controls

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Risk Tolerance

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The acceptable level of deviation from acceptable risk

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Risk transfer

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The process of assigning risk to another organization, usually through the purchase of an insurance policy or outsourcing the service

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Robustness

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The extent of the ability of systems to withstand attack; system strength. The ability of an Information Assurance entity to operate correctly and reliably across a wide range of operational conditions, and to fail gracefully outside of that operational range.

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Role Based Access Control

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Role based access control assigns users to roles based on their organizational functions and determines authorization based on those roles.

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Root

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Root is the name of the administrator account in Unix systems.

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Router

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Routers interconnect logical networks by forwarding information to other networks based upon IP addresses.

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Root cause analysis

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Process of diagnosis to establish origins of events, which can be used for learning from consequences, typically of errors and problems

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Rootkit

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A rootkit is a set of software tools intended to conceal running processes, files or system data from the operating system. Rootkits have their origin in benign applications, but have been used increasingly by malware to help intruders maintain access to systems while avoiding detection. Rootkits exist for a variety of operating systems such as Microsoft Windows, Linux and Solaris. Rootkits often modify parts of the operating system or install themselves as drivers or kernel modules.

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Secret key

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A cryptographic key that is used with a secret key (symmetric) cryptographic algorithm, that is uniquely associated with one or more entities and is not made public. The same key is used to both encrypt and decrypt data. The use of the term "secret" in this context does not imply a classification level, but rather implies the need to protect the key from disclosure.

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Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)

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A hash algorithm with the property that is computationally infeasible 1) to find a message that corresponds to a given message digest, or 2) to find two different messages that produce the same message digest.

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Security Attribute

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A security-related quality of an object. Security attributes may be represented as hierarchical levels, bits in a bit map, or numbers. Compartments, caveats, and release markings are examples of security attributes.

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Security metrics

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A standard of measurement from one or more reference points used in management of security-related activities

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Security information and event management (SIEM)

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Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solutions are a combination of the formerly disparate product categories of SIM (security information management) and SEM (security event management). SIEM technology provides real-time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and applications. SIEM solutions come as software, appliances or managed services, and are also used to log security data and generate reports for compliance purposes.

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SIEM Data Aggregation

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SIEM/LM (log management) solutions aggregate data from many sources, including network, security, servers, databases, applications, providing the ability to consolidate monitored data to help avoid missing crucial events.

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SIEM Correlation

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The analysis of events for common attributes to link events together into meaningful bundles. This technology provides the ability to perform a variety of correlation techniques to integrate different sources, in order to turn data into useful information.

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SIEM Alerting

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The automated analysis of correlated events and production of alerts, to notify recipients of immediate issues.

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SIEM Dashboards

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SIEM/LM tools take event data and turn it into informational charts to assist in seeing patterns, or identifying activity that is not forming a standard pattern.

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SIEM Compliance

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SIEM applications can be employed to automate the gathering of compliance data, producing reports that adapt to existing security, governance and auditing processes.

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SIEM Retention

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SIEM/SIM solutions employ long-term storage of historical data to facilitate correlation of data over time, and to provide the retention necessary for compliance requirements.

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Security Posture

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The security status of an enterprise's networks, information, and systems based on IA resources (e.g., people, hardware, software, policies) and capabilities in place to manage the defense of the enterprise and to react as the situation changes.

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Sensitivity

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A measure of the impact that improper disclosure of information may have on an organization

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Separation of Duties

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Separation of duties is the principle of splitting privileges among multiple individuals or systems to reduce risk of fraud or other malfeasance

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Session Key

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In the context of symmetric encryption, a key that is temporary or is used for a relatively short period of time. Usually, a session key is used for a defined period of communication between two computers, such as for the duration of a single connection or transaction set, or the key is used in an application that protects relatively large amounts of data and, therefore, needs to be re-keyed frequently.

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Service delivery objective (SDO)

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Directly related to business needs, SDO is the level of services to be reached during the alternate process mode until the normal situation is restored.

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Service level agreement (SLA)

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An agreement, preferably documented, between a service provider and the customer(s)/user(s) that defines minimum performance targets for a service and how they will be measured

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Shell programming

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A shell script is a script written for the shell, or command line interpreter, of an operating system. It is often considered a simple domain-specific programming language. Typical operations performed by shell scripts include file manipulation, program execution and printing text. Usually, shell script refers to scripts written for a Unix shell, while COMMAND.COM (DOS) and cmd.exe (Windows) command line scripts are usually called batch files. Many shell script interpreters double as command line interface such as the various Unix shells, Windows PowerShell or the MS-DOS COMMAND.COM. Others, such as AppleScript, add scripting capability to computing environments lacking a command line interface. Other examples of programming languages primarily intended for shell scripting include digital command language (DCL) and job control language (JCL).

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Secure multipurpose internet mail extension (S/MIME)

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(Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions is a standard for public key encryption and signing of MIME data.

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Skimming

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The unauthorized use of a reader to read tags without the authorization or knowledge of the tag's owner or the individual in possession of the tag.

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Smart Card

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A credit card-sized card with embedded integrated circuits that can store, process, and communicate information.

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Sniffing

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The process by which data traversing a network are captured or monitored

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Social engineering

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An attack based on deceiving users or administrators at the target site into revealing confidential or sensitive information

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Specification

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An assessment object that includes document-based artifacts (e.g., policies, procedures, plans, system security requirements, functional specifications, and architectural designs) associated with an information system.

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Split knowledge /split key

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A security technique in which two or more entities separately hold data items that individually convey no knowledge of the information that results from combining the items; a condition under which two or more entities separately have key components that individually convey no knowledge of the plaintext key that will be produced when the key components are combined in the cryptographic module.

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Spoofing

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Faking the sending address of a transmission in order to gain illegal entry into a secure system

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Secure shell (SSH)

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Secure Shell (SSH) is a network protocol for secure data communication, remote shell services or command execution and other secure network services between two networked computers that it connects via a secure channel over an insecure network.

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Security steering group (SSG)

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The SSG is generally charged with incident management and response organization and oversight.

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Single sign-on (SSO)

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SSO is a process to allow access to numerous systems using one set of authentication credentials.

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Spyware

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Software that is secretly or surreptitiously installed into an information system to gather information on individuals or organizations without their knowledge; a type of malicious code.

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Structured query language (SQL)

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Structured Query Language) is a programming language designed for managing data in relational database management systems

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Standard

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An internal mandatory requirement defining allowable boundaries of people, processes and technologies or a specification approved by a recognized external standards organization, such as ISO

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Standard operation procedure (SOP)

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An SOP is a written document or instruction detailing all steps and activities of a process or procedure. ISO 9001 essentially requires the documentation of all procedures used in any manufacturing process that could affect the quality of the product or service.

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Steganography

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The art and science of communicating in a way that hides the existence of the communication. For example, a secret documentcan be hidden inside another graphic image file, audio file, or other file format.

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Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA)

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A generic name for a computerized system that is capable of gathering and processing data and applying operational controls over long distances. Typical uses include power transmission and distribution and pipeline systems. SCADA was designed for the unique communication challenges (delays, data integrity, etc.) posed by the various media that must be used, such as phone lines, microwave, and satellite. Usually shared rather than dedicated.

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Supply Chain

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A system of organizations, people, activities, information, and resources, possibly international in scope, that provides products or services to consumers

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System development life cycle (SDLC)

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The scope of activities associated with a system, encompassing the system's initiation, development and acquisition, implementation, operation and maintenance, and ultimately its disposal that instigates another system initiation.

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Symmetric Cryptography

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A branch of cryptography involving algorithms that use the same key for two different steps of the algorithm (such as encryption and decryption, or signature creation and signature verification). Symmetric cryptography is sometimes called "secret-key cryptography" (versus public-key cryptography) because the entities that share the key.

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Symmetric Key

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A cryptographic key that is used in a symmetric cryptographic algorithm. Also called a secret key based on the notion of a shared secret.

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System Owner

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Person or organization having responsibility for the development, procurement, integration, modification, operation and maintenance, and/or final disposition of an information system.

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Technical Controls

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The security controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) for an information system that are primarily implemented and executed by the information system through mechanisms contained in the hardware, software, or firmware components of the system.

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Threat

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Anything (e.g., object, substance, human) that is capable of acting against an asset in a manner that can result in harm. A potential cause of an unwanted incident. (ISO/IEC 13335)

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Threat agent

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Methods and things used to exploit a vulnerability. Examples include determination, capability, motive and resources.

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Threat analysis

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An evaluation of the type, scope and nature of events or actions that can result in adverse consequences; identification of the threats that exist against information assets and information technology. The threat analysis usually also defines the level of threat and the likelihood of it materializing.

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Threat event

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Any event where a threat element/actor acts against an asset in a manner that has the potential to directly result in harm

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Threat Assessment

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A threat assessment is the identification of types of threats that an organization might be exposed to.

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Threat Model

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A threat model is used to describe a given threat and the harm it could to do a system if it has a vulnerability.

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Threat Vector

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The method a threat uses to get to the target.

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Transport Layer Security (TLS)

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Transport Layer Security (TLS) and its predecessor, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), are cryptographic protocols that provide communication security over the Internet.[1] TLS and SSL encrypt the segments of network connections above the Transport Layer, using asymmetric cryptography for key exchange, symmetric encryption for privacy, and message authentication codes for message integrity.

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Token

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Something that the claimant possesses and controls (typically a key or password) used to authenticate the claimant's identity.

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Token-Based Access Control

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Token based access control associates a list of objects and their privileges with each user. (The opposite of list based.)

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Token-Based Devices

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A token-based device is triggered by the time of day, so every minute the password changes, requiring the user to have the token with them when they log in.

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Topology

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The geometric arrangement of a computer system. Common topologies include a bus, star, and ring. The specific physical, i.e., real, or logical, i.e., virtual, arrangement of the elements of a network. Note 1: Two networks have the same topology if the connection configuration is the same, although the networks may differ in physical interconnections, distances between nodes, transmission rates, and/or signal types.

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Total cost of ownership (TCO)

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The computation of all costs related to acquisition, deployment, training, testing, maintenance, and end of life costs.

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Transmission control protocol (TCP)

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The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is one of the core protocols of the Internet Protocol Suite. TCP is one of the two original components of the suite, complementing the Internet Protocol (IP), and therefore the entire suite is commonly referred to as TCP/IP. TCP provides reliable, ordered delivery of a stream of bytes from a program on one computer to another program on another computer. TCP is the protocol that major Internet applications such as the World Wide Web, email, remote administration and file transfer rely on

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Transmission control protocol/ internet protocol (TCP/IP)

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IP is one of the core protocols of the Internet protocol suite and combined with TCP is referred to as TCP/IP

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Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure sockets layer (SSL)

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Trojan horse

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A Trojan horse, or Trojan, is a standalone malicious program which may give full control of infected PC to another PC[1]. It may also perform typical computer virus activities. Trojan horses may make copies of themselves, steal information, or harm their host computer systems.

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Two-factor authentication

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The use of two independent mechanisms for authentication, for example, requiring a smart card and a password. Typically the combination of something you know, are or have.

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Trusted Computer System

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A system that employs sufficient hardware and software assurance measures to allow its use for processing simultaneously a range of sensitive or classified information.

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Trusted Computing Base (TCB)

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Totality of protection mechanisms within a computer system, including hardware, firmware, and software,

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Tunneling

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Technology enabling one network to send its data via another network's connections. Tunneling works by encapsulating a network protocol within packets carried by the second network.

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Unauthorized Access

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A person gains logical or physical access without permission to a network, system, application, data, or other IT resource. Any access that violates the stated security policy.

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Unauthorized Disclosure

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An event involving the exposure of information to entities not authorized access to the information.

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Uniform Resource Locator (URL)

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The global address of documents and other resources on the World Wide Web. The first part of the address indicates what protocol to use, and the second part specifies the IP address or the domain name where the resource is located. For example, http://www.pcwebopedia.com/index.html.

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Unix

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A popular multi-user, multitasking operating system developed at Bell Labs in the early 1970s. Created by just a handful of programmers, Unix was designed to be a small, flexible system used exclusively by programmers.

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User datagram protocol (UDP)

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The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is one of the core members of the Internet Protocol Suite, the set of network protocols used for the Internet. With UDP, computer applications can send messages, in this case referred to as datagrams, to other hosts on an Internet Protocol (IP) network without requiring prior communications to set up special transmission channels or data paths.

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Uninterruptable power supply (UPS)

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UPS is typically battery power converted to standard AC operating current using an inverter. It is designed to automatically supply power in the event the primary source fails.

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Validation

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The process of demonstrating that the system under consideration meets in all respects the specification of that system.

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Value at risk (VAR)

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VAR computes the probability of the maximum loss at a 95 or 99% certainty over a defined period based on historical information and exercising all the variables using Monte Carlo simulations. While primarily used in financial analysis, it has been shown to have significant potential value in generally managing risk.

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Virtual Machine (VM)

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Software that allows a single host to run one or more guest operating systems.

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Virtual private network (VPN)

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A secure private network that uses the public telecommunications infrastructure to transmit data. In contrast to a much more expensive system of owned or leased lines that can only be used by one company, VPNs are used by enterprises for both extranets and wide areas of intranets. Using encryption and authentication, a VPN encrypts all data that pass between two Internet points, maintaining privacy and security.

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Virus signature files

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The file of virus patterns that are compared with existing files to determine if they are infected with a virus or worm

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Voice over IP (VOIP)

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Voice over IP (VoIP) commonly refers to the communication protocols, technologies, methodologies, and transmission techniques involved in the delivery of voice communications and multimedia sessions over Internet Protocol (IP) networks, such as the Internet

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Vulnerability

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A weakness in the design, implementation, operation or internal controls in a process that could be exploited to violate system security

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Vulnerability analysis

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Process of identifying and classifying vulnerabilities

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Warm site

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A warm site is similar to a hot site; however, a warm site is not fully equipped with all necessary hardware needed for recovery.

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Web hosting

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The business of providing the equipment and services required to host and maintain files for one or more web sites, and provide fast Internet connections to those sites. Most hosting is "shared," which means that web sites of multiple companies are on the same server to share/reduce costs.

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Web server

answer

Using the client-server model and the World Wide Web's Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), Web server is a software program that serves web pages to users.

question

Wide area network (WAN)

answer

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a telecommunication network that covers a broad area (i.e., any network that links across metropolitan, regional, or national boundaries).

question

Wiki

answer

Web applications or similar tools that allow identifiable users to add content (as in an Internet forum) and allow anyone to edit that content collectively.

question

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

answer

A security protocol, specified in the IEEE 802.11 standard, that is designed to provide a WLAN with a level of security and privacy comparable to what is usually expected of a wired LAN. WEP is no longer considered a viable encryption mechanism due to known weaknesses.

question

Wireless Access Point (WAP)

answer

A device that acts as a conduit to connect wireless communication devices together to allow them to communicate and create a wireless network.

question

Worm

answer

A programmed network attack in which a self-replicating program does not attach itself to programs, but rather spreads independently of users' actions

question

Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)

answer

The follow on security method to WPA for wireless networks that provides stronger data protection and network access control. It provides enterprise and consumer Wi-Fi users with a high level of assurance that only authorized users can access their wireless networks. Based on the ratified IEEE 802.11i standard, WPA2 provides government grade security by implementing the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) FIPS 140-2 compliant AES encryption algorithm and 802.1X-based authentication

question

Cryptographic Hash Function

answer

A function that maps a bit string of arbitrary length to a fixed length bit string. Approved hash functions satisfy the following properties: 1. (One-way) It is computationally infeasible to find any input which maps to any pre-specified output, and 2. (Collision resistant) It is computationally infeasible to find any two distinct inputs that map to the same output.

question

Governance

answer

Process that ensures that stakeholders needs, conditions and options are evaluated to determine balanced, agreed-on enterprise objectives to be achieved. Process also monitors performance and compliance to objectives.

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Anti Virus Software IT Essentials: PC Hardware And Software

CIT Midterm Review 23 – Flashcards 5 terms

Marlon Riddle

5 terms

Preview

CIT Midterm Review 23 – Flashcards

question

Freeware

answer

software distributed free of charge via the internet where the developer retains the software rights

question

Custom

answer

software designed to meet the unique needs of an organization or business

question

Public domain

answer

software whose ownership rights are public property and which is available to anyone at no cost

question

Web apps

answer

type of software where some apps are free, some require a one time registration fee and some require a periodic subscription charge

question

Open source

answer

copyrighted software, such as Linux, that is typically distributed free of charge and can be customized

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Anti Virus Software Computer Networks Private And Public Software Viruses

CIW IBA Prep Set 2 – Flashcards 20 terms

Aiden Boyd

20 terms

Preview

CIW IBA Prep Set 2 – Flashcards

question

Which term is used to describe a password-protected, encrypted data file that verifies the identity of the sender of a message?

answer

Digital certificate

question

Which term best describes a file of programming code that provides a temporary fix to a known bug?

answer

Patch

question

Which statement best describes hash encryption?

answer

An encryption method in which numbers generated by an algorithm from a text string are used to verify the integrity of transmitted messages

question

Which statement best describes symmetric-key encryption?

answer

An encryption method in which the same key is used to encrypt and decrypt a message

question

Which statement is true regarding a virus attack on your system?

answer

Most viruses can be halted after they commence an attack and can be removed without permanent damage to your system.

question

Which term best describes a collection of software tools that provide a permanent solution to known program bugs?

answer

Update

question

Which term is used to describe the process that converts data into an unreadable form of text?

answer

Encryption

question

What do encryption applications do to render text unreadable?

answer

Scramble text using mathematical algorithms

question

Which term is used to describe a computer security program that is enabled when no keystrokes or mouse actions have occurred on the system for a specified duration?

answer

Screen saver

question

You receive a text message on your cell phone from an unknown number. The message includes an attachment. You try to call the number but you get no answer. What is the best action for you to take next?

answer

Delete the message without opening the attachment.

question

Your computer crashed, and you lost many personal and work-related files. You just got a new computer, but you are now much more concerned about viruses and other security threats. Which strategy can help you protect your computer against virus attacks?

answer

Update the definitions on your anti-virus application frequently.

question

Computer viruses can cause damage ranging from relatively minor to debilitating. You can protect your system against viruses by using commercial virus-detection software to find and defeat viruses. Because new viruses are created so rapidly, what must you do to ensure that your anti-virus software can protect you?

answer

nstall anti-virus software program updates to keep the signature profiles current.

question

Which of the following is the most common method for spreading viruses?

answer

Opening attachments

question

You have registered for an e-learning course and are ready to begin. However, when you access the e-learning course page as directed, you find that you cannot log in because the authentication window will not launch. The most likely cause of this problem is that:

answer

you have enabled pop-up blocking software in your browser.

question

Which term is used to describe a software application that is secretly placed on a user's system to gather information and relay it to outside parties, usually for advertising purposes?

answer

Spyware

question

Which of the following Internet communication practices is unethical but not illegal?

answer

Asking another user in a chatroom for personal information

question

Which of the following statements is true about Voice over IP (VoIP)?

answer

VoIP is voice information delivered in digital form as packets of data using Internet Protocol (IP).

question

Some Internet practices are illegal (they violate laws and are punishable), whereas other practices may be legal but are still unethical and should be avoided. Which of the following practices is both legal and ethical?

answer

Trying shareware for free and paying for it only after you decide to keep using it.

question

Unified communications (UC) is a business trend that seeks to:

answer

simplify and integrate all forms of communication.

question

When you sign in to your instant messaging (IM) service, your online status is advertised (or published) to the people on your contacts list. What does this scenario represent?

answer

Presencing

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Anti Virus Software Cisco Internet Operating System Secure Sockets Layer

Network Pro (Plus), Testout B.7 certification practice exam – Flashcards 91 terms

Ewan Tanner

91 terms

Preview

Network Pro (Plus), Testout B.7 certification practice exam – Flashcards

question

Members of the Sales team use laptops to connect to the company network. While traveling, they connect their laptops to the Internet through airport and hotel networks. You are concerned that these computers will pick up viruses that could spread to your private network. You would like to implement a solution that prevents the laptops from connecting to your network unless anti-virus software and the latest operating system patches have been installed. Which solution should you use? VLAN

answer

NAC

question

You provide IT support under contract for a dentist's office. The office has a limited number of wireless clients, so a simple wireless router is used to provide WiFi access. On your latest visit, you check the manufacturer's website and discover that an update has been released by the wireless router manufacturer. You decide to download and install the update. Click the option you should use in the wireless router's configuration interface to prepare the device for the update.

answer

question

A user reports that she can't connect to the Internet. After some investigation, you find that the wireless router has been misconfigured. You are responsible for managing and maintaining the wireless access point. What should you do next?

answer

Create an action plan.

question

...within your server room are failing at a rapid pace. You discover that the humidity room is at 60% and the temperature is at 80 degrees. What should do to help reduce problems?

answer

A separate SC unit in the server room

question

Your consulting firm has been hired by a small business to implement a wireless network. The company leases two office suites within a business park approximately 200 m apart, as shown below. The objectives of the implementation are as follows: • Create a secure wireless network whose signal doesn't emanate beyond each office space by implementing access points in locations A-D in each building. • Connect the wireless networks at each office together with a secure outdoor wireless link using locations E and F. Drag the antenna type from the list on the left to the appropriate location on the right. Each antenna type can be used more than once or not at all.

answer

Normal gain directional antenna aimed East Normal gain directional antenna aimed South Normal gain directional antenna aimed North Normal gain directional antenna aimed West High-gain directional parabolic antenna aimed East High-gain directional parabolic antenna aimed West

question

Your 24U rack currently houses two 4U server systems. To prevent overheating, you've installed a rack-mounted environment monitoring device within the rack. Currently, the device shows the temperature within the rack to be 70 degrees Fahrenheit (21 degrees Celsius). What should you do? Install a humidifier to increase the humidity within the server room.

answer

Nothing, the temperature within the rack is within acceptable limits.

question

Your organization recently opened a branch office. You contracted with a WAN service provider to connect the branch office network to your home office network. Recently, your CEO conducted a video conference with the employees at the branch office. The employees complained that the video was choppy and that the audio was frequently out of sync with the video. What is the most likely cause of this poor WAN performance? There is an authentication misconfiguration issue between the WAN interfaces on both ends of the link

answer

The WAN provider is throttling bandwidth on the link.

question

A user on your network has been moved to another office down the hall. After the move she calls you complaining that she has only occasional network access through her wireless connection. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the problem?

answer

The client system has moved too far away from the access point.

question

Which of the following services are available regardless of whether the telephone company network is available?

answer

Cable modem

question

You are building a new network for a small startup financial services company. Security is paramount, so each organization within the company will have its own network segment separated by a router. However, funds are limited, and you have been asked to keep costs to a minimum. You have acquired a used fiber optic switch and want to use it to create a fiber optic backbone that interconnects all of the routers. You purchased several used single mode GBIC modules on eBay that you will install in each router to allow them to connect to the switch. Both the switch and the GBIC modules use MT-RJ connectors. You connect each module to the switch with 1 meter multimode patch cables. Will this implementation work?

answer

No, you shouldn't use multimode patch cables with single mode GBIC modules.

question

You assigned the assistant network administrator to replace a defective patch cable that connected port 1 on your patch panel to one of your network switches. You noticed that it took him an unusually long time to complete this task. Once done, users almost immediately began to report that the network had gone down. Upon entering the server room, you see that the assistant administrator has configured your network rack as shown in the Exhibit. What should you do? (Choose two. Each response is a complete solution.)

answer

Enable STP on each switch. Remove the patch cable connecting the first switch to the third switch.

question

Drag the collision domain property on the left to the appropriate network device(s) on the right. Each property can be used more than once.

answer

Hub Single collision domain Switch Multiple collision domains 802.11n wireless access point Single collision domain Router Multiple collision domains Bridge Multiple collision domains Repeater Single collision domain Layer 3 switch Multiple collision domains

question

Consider the 850 nm multimode fiber optic cable shown below. How much loss can you expect between the transmitter and the receiver?

answer

-1.2 dB

question

Which of the following provides security for wireless networks?

answer

WPA

question

Which three of the following IP addresses are Class C addresses?

answer

222.55.0.0 223.16.5.0 192.15.5.55

question

You have a cable Internet connection at home. The installer had connected the router near the outside wall of your house with RG-6 cable. You move the cable router a distance of 50 meters using RG-8 cables and special connector adapters. Which condition are you most likely to experience?

answer

Echo

question

You are creating an Ethernet network for your company. The shipping department is located in a different building that is located 150 meters from the main wiring closet. You connect a single Cat6e cable to connect the wiring closet to the shipping building. Which of the following conditions are you most likely to experience?

answer

Attenuation

question

You suspect that some of your computers have been hijacked and are being used to perform denial of service attacks directed against other computers on the Internet. Which log would you check to see if this is happening?

answer

Firewall

question

You walk by the server room and notice a fire has started. What should you do first?

answer

Make sure everyone has cleared the area.

question

If maintaining confidentiality is of the utmost importance to your organization, what is the best response when an intruder is detected on your network?

answer

Disconnect the intruder.

question

You want to use CCTV to increase your physical security. You want to be able to remotely control the camera position. Which camera type should you choose?

answer

PTZ

question

You are configuring PuTTY to be used to access the CLI of a Cisco switch. Which of the following configuration values would prevent PuTTY from connecting? (Select two.)

answer

4600 baud Flow control = RTS/CTS

question

You have configured your organization's DHCP server to dynamically assign IP addresses to DHCP clients using a lease duration of four days. A user's workstation is powered on and receives addressing information from this DHCP server Monday morning at 8:00 AM. When will the client contact the DHCP server to renew the lease (by default)?

answer

Wednesday morning

question

A workstation is connected to a switch on the Gi 0/2 interface using a straight-through cable. The Ethernet interface in the workstation has been manually configured to use a 100 Mbps link speed in full-duplex mode. Which of the following are true in this scenario? (Select three.)

answer

If the link speed is 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps, half-duplex is used. The switch attempts to sense the link speed. If it can't, the slowest link speed. supported on the interface is selected. If the link speed is 1000 Mbps or faster, full-duplex is used.

question

Which of the following are used when implementing Kerberos for authentication and authorization? (Select two.)

answer

Ticket granting server Time server

question

Which of the following activities are typically associated with a penetration test? (Select two.)

answer

Running a port scanner Attempting social engineering

question

You are building network cables and attaching RJ45 connectors to each end. Which tool do you need for this task?

answer

Crimping tool

question

You manage a network with multiple subnets connected to the Internet. A user reports that she can't access the new server used in the accounting department. You check the problem and find out that her computer cannot access any server on that subnet, however the computer does access other computers on other subnets as well as the Internet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the problem?

answer

Missing route on the default gateway router

question

Which of the following network services or protocols uses TCP/IP port 22?

answer

SSH

question

You have been hired to design a wireless network for a SOHO environment. You are currently in the process of gathering network requirements from management. Which of the following questions should you ask? (Select three.)

answer

How many devices will need to be supported? Is the business expected to grow in size in the future? What type of data will be transmitted on the network?

question

Which TCP/IP utility gives you the following output?

answer

netstat -r

question

You have a network configured to use the OSPF routing protocol. Which of the following describes the state when all OSPF routers have learned about all other routes in the network?

answer

Convergence

question

What is the main difference between a worm and a virus?

answer

A worm can replicate itself, while a virus requires a host for distribution.

question

You are in the middle of a big project at work. All of your work files are on a server at the office. You want to be able to access the server desktop, open and edit files, save the files on the server, and print files to a printer connected to a computer at home. Which protocol should you use?

answer

RDP

question

You want to implement an Ethernet network at very long distances using fiber optic cables. Which standard and cable type would you choose? (Select two.)

answer

1000BaseLX Single mode fiber

question

Network signaling is a function of which layer of the OSI model?

answer

Physical layer

question

You plan to implement a new security device on your network. Which of the following policies outlines the process you should follow before implementing that device?

answer

Change management

question

You are troubleshooting a wireless connectivity issue in a small office. You determine that the 2.4GHz cordless phones used in the office are interfering with the wireless network transmissions. If the cordless phones are causing the interference, which of the following wireless standards could the network be using? (Select two.)

answer

802.11b Bluetooth

question

You manage the information systems for a large manufacturing firm. Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) devices are used on the manufacturing floor to manage your organization's automated factory equipment. The SCADA devices use embedded smart technology, allowing them to be managed using a mobile device app over an Internet connection. You are concerned about the security of these devices. What can you do to increase their security posture? (Select two.)

answer

Verify that your network's existing security infrastructure is working properly. Install the latest firmware updates from the device manufacturer.

question

A user reports that he can't connect to a specific website. You go to the user's computer and reproduce the problem. What should you do next?

answer

Identify the affected areas of the network.

question

Match the Network Access Protection (NAP) component on the left with its description on the right.

answer

• The NAP Client generates a Statement of Health (SoH) that reports the client configuration for health requirements. • A NAP Server runs the System Health Validator (SHV) • The Enforcement Server (ES) is the connection point for clients to the network. • The remediation server contain resources accessible to non-compliant computers on the limited-access network.

question

Consider the network shown in the exhibit. When you run the show interfaces command on switch1, you observe a significant number of runts on the Gi0/1 interface. What does this statistic indicate?

answer

Collisions are occurring.

question

You have two switches connected together as shown in the following diagram. How many broadcast domains are there in the network shown?

answer

There are two broadcast domains. Each VLAN is in its own broadcast domain. When connecting devices to a switch, each switch port connection is in its own collision domain.

question

Which data transmission rate is defined by the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard?

answer

11 Mbps

question

An attacker has obtained the logon credentials for a regular user on your network. Which type of security threat exists if this user account is used to perform administrative functions?

answer

Privilege escalation.

question

You manage a firewall that connects your private network to the Internet. You would like to see a record of every packet that has been rejected by the firewall in the past month. Which tool should you use?

answer

Event log

question

Which of the following is a security service that monitors network traffic in real time or reviews the audit logs on servers looking for security violations?

answer

IDS

question

While troubleshooting a problem on a Linux system, you run a utility that generates the following output: (longass example)

answer

traceroute

question

You are the network administrator for a growing business. When you were initially hired, the organization was small and only a single switch and router were required to support your users. During this time, you monitored log messages from your router and switch directly from each device's console. However, the organization has grown considerably in recent months. You now must manage 8 individual switches and three routers. It's becoming more and more difficult to monitor these devices and stay on top of issues in a timely manner. What should you do?

answer

Use syslog to implement centralized logging.

question

Which firewall implementation creates a buffer network that can be used to host email or web servers?

answer

DMZ

question

Which of the following topologies connects all devices to a trunk cable?

answer

bus

question

You are in the process of configuring an iSCSI storage area network (SAN) for your network. You want to configure a Windows Server 2012 system to connect to an iSCSI target defined on a different server system. You also need to define iSCSI security settings, including CHAP and IPsec. Which tool should you use?

answer

iSCSI Initiator

question

Which of the following best describes the Ping of Death exploit?

answer

An ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes.

question

Which of the following actions should you take to reduce the attack surface of a server?

answer

Disable unused services.

question

Which type of documentation would you consult to find the location of RJ-45 wall jacks and their endpoints in the intermediate distribution closet?

answer

wiring schematic

question

Which of the following routing protocols uses paths, rules, and policies instead of a metric for making routing decisions?

answer

BGP. BGP is an advanced distance vector protocol (also called a path vector protocol) that uses paths, rules, and policies instead of a metric for making routing decisions.

question

You manage a network with two locations: Portland and Seattle. Both locations are connected to the Internet. All computers in both locations are configured to use IPv6. You would like to implement an IPv6 solution to meet the following requirements: • Hosts in each location should be able to use IPv6 to communicate with hosts in the other location through the IPv4 Internet. • You want to use a site-to-site tunneling method instead of a host-to-host tunneling method. Which IPv6 solution should you use?

answer

6 to 4

question

Match each network enumeration technique on the left with its corresponding description on the right

answer

Identifying phone numbers with modems: War dialing Scanning for wireless access points: Wardriving Identifying operating system type and version number: Banner grabbing Identifying services that can pass through a firewall: Firewalking

question

You are moving to an area where DSL will be available in the next six months. Which method of Internet connectivity should you implement until DSL is available, if your existing connectivity needs are minimal?

answer

PSTN

question

Arrange the steps in the Change and Configuration Management process on the left in the

answer

Step 1: Identify the need for a change. Step 2: Conduct a feasibility analysis. Step 3: Define the procedure for implementing the change. Step 4: Notify affected parties of the pending change. Step 5: Implement the change. Step 6: Test the implementation. Step 7: Document the change

question

You have a website that customers use to view product information and place orders. You would like to identify the maximum number of simultaneous sessions that this server can maintain before performance is negatively impacted. Which tool should you use?

answer

load tester

question

At which of the following OSI layers does a router operate?

answer

question

Arrange the Group Policy Objects (GPOs) in the order in which they are applied

answer

First The Local Group Policy on the computer. Second GPOs linked to the domain that contains the user or computer object. Third GPOs linked to the organizational unit that contains the object.

question

Users report that the Internet is no longer accessible. You suspect that the line connecting your building to the Internet is not working properly. Which of the following allows the service provider to remotely test the local loop?

answer

Smart jack

question

Your organization recently opened a branch office. You contracted with a WAN service provider to connect the branch office network to your home office network. This morning, users at the branch office reported that they can no longer access resources on the home office network. You ran the show interfaces command on the router at the home office and had an administrative assistant run the same command on the router at the branch office. Both routers reported the following: • Interface status: Up • Protocol status: Up What is the most likely cause of this WAN issue?

answer

There is an IP address misconfiguration issue between the WAN interfaces on both ends of the link.

question

A collection of zombie computers have been setup to collect personal information. What type of malware do the zombie computers represent?

answer

Botnet

question

A user from the Sales department calls to report that he is experiencing problems connecting to the Sales file server. All users in the Sales department connect to the Sales server through a single Ethernet switch. No other users have reported problems connecting to the Sales server. Which of the following troubleshooting actions are you most likely to perform first?

answer

Replace the network card in the user's computer

question

You have implemented a network where each device provides shared files with all other devices on the network. What type of network do you have?

answer

Peer-

Anti Virus Software Flashcards, test questions and answers

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