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Q: Tortillas and poetry. They go hand in hand. Books nourish the spirit, bread nourishes our bodies. Our distinct cultures nourish each one of us, and as we know more and more about the art and literature of the different cultures, we become freer and freer. . . . I don’t know anyone who doesn’t like to sample different ethnic foods, the breads of many many groups; just as many of us enjoy sampling books from different areas of the world. I travel to foreign countries, and I know more about myself as I learn more about my fellow human beings. Censorship imposes itself in my path of knowledge, and that activity can be justified by no one. Which phrase from the excerpt uses formal English?

“that activity can be justified by no one” More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/choosing-language-2/

Q: Tortillas and poetry. They go hand in hand. Books nourish the spirit, bread nourishes our bodies. Our distinct cultures nourish each one of us, and as we know more and more about the art and literature of the different cultures, we become freer and freer. . . . I don’t know anyone who doesn’t like to sample different ethnic foods, the breads of many many groups; just as many of us enjoy sampling books from different areas of the world. I travel to foreign countries, and I know more about myself as I learn more about my fellow human beings. Censorship imposes itself in my path of knowledge, and that activity can be justified by no one. Which of these changes would make this excerpt more argumentative?

including words that address logic and reason More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/choosing-language-2/

Q: Tortillas and poetry. They go hand in hand. Books nourish the spirit, bread nourishes our bodies. Our distinct cultures nourish each one of us, and as we know more and more about the art and literature of the different cultures, we become freer and freer. . . . I don’t know anyone who doesn’t like to sample different ethnic foods, the breads of many many groups; just as many of us enjoy sampling books from different areas of the world. I travel to foreign countries, and I know more about myself as I learn more about my fellow human beings. Censorship imposes itself in my path of knowledge, and that activity can be justified by no one. Which choice best describes the purpose of this text?

to persuade readers to oppose the censorship of literature More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/choosing-language-2/

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Socialolgy – Flashcards 100 terms

Kieran Carr

100 terms

Preview

Socialolgy – Flashcards

question

The process by which people act and react in relation to others ia called

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social interaction

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Which of the following concepts defines who and what we are in relations to others?

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role set

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Sociologists use which of the following concepts to refer to the behavior people expect of someone who holds a particular status?

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role

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Tanya is an excellent artist and enjoys her work, but feels she cannot devote enough time to her family. She is experiencing

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role strain

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Which of the following is involved when a plant supervisor wishes to be a good friend and hang out with the workers, but must also keep a personal distance to remain objective in order to asses the workers performance?

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role conflict

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Flirting is a way of seeing if someone if interested in you without risking rejection, From this perspective flirting insists

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the social construction of reality

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Which of the following is likely to play a part in the reality we construct through social interaction?

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all of the above

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The concept "presentation of self" refers to

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efforts to create impressions in the minds of others

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The careful observer can notice clues that someone is being deceptive. People give off these clues because

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nonverbal communication is hard for most people to control

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Smiling and making polite remarks to people we do not like is an example of

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idealizing a personal performance

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Women often take the family name of the man they marry. In sociological terms, this is an example of how language can be used to convey

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power over others

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The english language often treats as___ whatever has greater value, greater power, or greater significance

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masculine

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Looking at humor from a structural-functional viewpoint, jokes

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all of the above

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From a social-conflict point of view, jokes

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all of the above

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Which of the following best describes a "well-told" joke

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The unconvential social defintion of a reality given at first, followed by the conventional definition of the reality

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Arlie Hochschild's research shows that many companies

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try to regulate and control both the behavior and emotions of employees

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Which of the following are documented as emotions found all over world

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happiness sadness, anger and fear

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In terms of dramaturgical analysis, helping another person to "save face" or avoid, embarrassment is called

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tact

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Personal space is refers to

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the surrounding area inwhich an individual makes some claim of privacy

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The power relationship between physician an patient is immediately evident when the patient enters the doctor's office because

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the patient must wait until a gatekeeper admits them to see the doctor in the office's "back region"

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What do sociologists call two of more people who identify with an interact with one another

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social group

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Imagine you are watching several dozen passengers in an airport gate area waiting to board a plane. these people are an example of

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crowd

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The assembled students at a college graduation ceremony are a

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secondary group

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Which of the following is the best example of a primary group

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carpenters gathering at a worksite

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Which of the following is the best example of a secondary group

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a family sharing a meal with their neighbors

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You are part of a task force with a group leader who has a distant relationship with group members and who is concerned with getting the job done. which typ of leader is he

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Instrumental leadership

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In your group the leader is skillful at using humor to reduce tension and to lighten serious moments. which typ of leader is he

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expressive leader

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Which leadership style takes charge of making decisions and makes sure people do what they are told

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authoritarian

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Jordan is a leader who tends to downplay her position and power, allowing the group to function more or less on its own. which type of leader is she

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laissez-faire

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Which of the following illustrates the operation of "groupthink"

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a group seeks consenus and discourages members from speaking freely, resulting in the group making a poor decision

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Jake is a member of the bulldogs soccer team. his team's main rival is the tiges. members of the bulldogs put down the tigers all the time. the tigers represent

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an outgroup

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If you were a prisoner, a maximum security prison would be which of the following types of organization from your point of view

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a coercive organization

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From the point of view of parents, what type of organization is a school's parent teacher association (PTA)

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a normative organization

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The emergency room clerk who keeps a bleeding patient waitign while filling out extensive paperwork is a classic example of

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bureaucratic alienation

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Which of the following is evidence of the "mcdonldizaion of society"

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the spread of local food movement

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As bureaucracy and computer technology have spread throughout U.S society, privacy

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has no legal protection at all

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Looking at the list below, all but one of the traits is correctly linked to mcdonaldization. which is not one of the principles of mcdonaldization

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creativity

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What leadership traits have been discribed as making up a "female advantage"

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all of the above

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In his "iron law of oligarchy" robert michaels stated that bureaucracy always means

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the few rule the many

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What is robert mertons term for focusing so much on roles and regulations that the organization cannot accomplish its goals

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bureaucratic ritualism

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Ravi was born into a caste system in a small village in sri lanka. he can expect to

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maintain the same social standing as his parents

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A college professor who has advanced degrees, modeate salary an little power can be describe as having

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high status consistency

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The belief that social inequality is fair because social position reflects personal talent and effort is an ideology that is

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most widely found in classless societies

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A fair criticism of the davis moore thesis is the fact that

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it is not so easy to assess the social importance of various jobs

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following karl marxs analysis, we would expect to find alienation among which category of people

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the working people, or proletariat

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Olga works as a regional manager for a small corpation. which of the following categories correctly describes her work

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white collar

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to impress her friends, laura wears an expensive dress to a party. a sociologist might suggest she is engaging in

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conspicuous consumption

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being in the upper-upper class is usually the result of ___ being in the lower upper class is more a matter of

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birth;achievement

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In general, people in the __ tend to be less tolerant of homos

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upper-upper class

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Gena and her husband mark are married and have a low social position. we could expect them

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to engage in somewhat different, gender based everyday activities

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globalization of the economy has especially hurt which catergory of the US population

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factory workers

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in 20008 ___ people were consumed by the government as having income below the official poverty line

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39.8 million

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In terms of absolute numbers, most poor people in the united states are

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white

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Sociologist william julius wilson suggests the cause of poverty lies in

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too few available jobs

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the 1996 welfare reform in the US

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greatly reduced the welfare rolls but did little to change the poverty rate

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Conservative people supporting the welfare argue that the (pre1996) system

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was creating welfare depenency

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Liberal critics of the welfare reform argued that

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few families who turn to welfare are truly needy

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The lastest data show that welfare reform has

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cut the number of households receiving welfare by about half

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Read the following statements about social mobility in the US. which statement is correct

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the global economy has increased the number of high-paying, industrial jobs avaiable in this country

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which of the following factors tends to raise your social standing

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marry and stay married

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the concept of gender refers to

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the personal trait an social positions that members of a society attach to being female and male

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Margaret mead's research on gender in three societies supports the conclusion that

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societies may define both "masculine" and "feminine" differently

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Based on george murocks global study of gender, we should conclude that

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most societies do not assign work to one sex or another

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Drawing on janet lers observations of children at play, which of the following would you conclude was true

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boys favor games with clear winners and losers

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Which of the following is an important exception to male domination of the US workplace

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women are now the majority of countrys college and university

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In which of the following nations do women have the greatest political power relative to men

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united states

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sexual harassment is an important social issue because

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half of the working women report receiving unwanted sexual attention

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intersection theory focuses on

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the interplay of race class and gender often leading to multiple disadvantages

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If you could en violence against women in one setting, which of the following would reduce this type of violence the most

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the home

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which of the following statements is the best reason to view women as a minority in the US

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at every level, women have less income wealth education and power than men do

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Which of the following concepts refers to an invisiable, yet real barrier that prevents many women from rising beyond middle-management positons

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glass ceiling

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Which factor accounts for the largest share of difference in the earnings of working women and men in the US

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differences in the education

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The concept "comparable worth" refers to the idea that

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women should receive the same pay as men for work that is equally important

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which of the following statments about gender and housework is correct

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among employed people, married or not, with or without children women do most of the housework

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pinkcolla work refers to what type of job

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administrative support

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which of the following factors has been a cause of the rising share of women in the US paid labor force during the last century

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the rising divorce rate

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the "beauty myth" refrs to the idea that

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women learn to measure their personal importance in terms of physical appearance

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What share of today's US women are working for income

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30 percent

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in the US, the costs of sexism for men include

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engaging in many high-risk behaviors

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which of the following concepts refers to attitudes and activities that a society links to people of each sex

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gender roles

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A family leaves russia and takes up residence in the US, WHERE THEy gradually lose their russian cultural traditions. they have modified their

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ethnicity

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read the following statements about minorities, which statemnt is not correct

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all people in a minority category are socially disadvantaged

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You would be expressing "Sterotype" if you

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stated an exaggerated description and applied it to everyone in the some category

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recent research on social distance among US college students shows that

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students are more accepting of minorities than they were decades ago

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Based on the scapegoat theory, you would conclude that prejudice is caused by

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frustration among people who are themselves disadvantaged

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Thomas sowell studied the intelligence (IQ) scores of categories of people and conclude that

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cultural patterns explain much IQ variation

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Which of the following represents a culture theory of prejudice

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Emory bogardus research on social distance

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Institutional prejudice and discrimation refers to the fact that

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bias is built into the operation of societys institutions

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the idea that prejudice and discrimination form a vicious circle leads to the conclusion that

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prejudice is more common than actual discrimination

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which of the following situations is not an example of institutional discimination

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a mother wants her child to stay away from schoolmates of a different race

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Assimilation refers to the pattern by which

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minorities gradually adopt patterns of the dominant culture

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the matsui family came to the US thirty years ago. they now speak english at home and the children date non-japanese students at college. this family's story is closet to which of the following concepts

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assimilation

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the killing of people in the darfur region of africa is a recent example of

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genocide

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The rate of small business ownership is high among the asian ameicans. this pattern reflects

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cultural values including achievement and self-reliance

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what gunnar myrdal called the american dilemma was

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the denial of basic rights by a so-called "democratic society" to african americans

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The hispanic population of the US is

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mainly concentrated in the southwest

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read the following statements about arabs and muslims. which statement is not correct

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arab and muslim means the samething

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most immigrants to the US today come from

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latin american and asia

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douglas massy and nancy denton documented which of the following patterns in US inner cities

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hypersegregation

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multiculturalists oppose the goal of assimilation because

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this suggests that minorities are the ones who need to do all the changing

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Epidemiology Exam 1 – Chapter 1 – Flashcards 59 terms

Daniel Hardy

59 terms

Preview

Epidemiology Exam 1 – Chapter 1 – Flashcards

question

Aspects of health

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physical, mental, social, emotional, spiritual, environmental

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public health

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the science/art of promoting health and extending life on an aggregate level

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population

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refers to a collection of individuals who share one or more personal or observational characteristics from which data may be collected and evaluated

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Three core functions of public health

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assessing and monitoring the health of communities and populations at risk to identify health problems and priorities; formulating public policies designed to solve identified local and national health problems and priorities; ensuring that ALL populations have access to appropriate and cost-effective care, including health promotion and disease prevention services, and evaluating the effectiveness of that care

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epidemiology

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the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations and the application of this study to control of health problems

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study

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implies sound methods of scientific investigation

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distribution

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refers to the frequency and pattern of a health-related state or event

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frequency

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number of occurrences of a health-related state or event; relationship of that number to the size of the population

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pattern

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involves presenting the distribution by person, place, and time characteristics

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determinant

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the causes and other factors that influence the occurrence of disease and other health-related events; may be physical stresses, chemicals, biological, or psychosocial

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exposures

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pertain either to contact with a disease-causing factor or to the amount of the factor that impinges upon a group or individuals

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morbidity

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illness due to a specific disease or health condition

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mortality

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death

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disease

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an interruption, cessation, disorder of body functions, systems, or organs (ex. cholera, cancer, influenza)

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event

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something that takes place (ex. vehicular collisions, workplace injuries, drug overdose, suicide)

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behavior

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manner of conducting oneself (ex. physical activity, diet, safety precautions)

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condition

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an existing circumstance (ex. unhealthy state, state of fitness)

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clinical focus

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health of the individual; treating and caring for the patient; treating the patient based on scientific knowledge, experience, and judgement

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epidemiological focus

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collective health of the people in a population of interest; identifying the source or exposure that caused an adverse health outcome, the number of persons exposed, the potential for further spread, and interventions to prevent additional cases or recurrences; using descriptive and analytic epidemiologic methods to provide info that will ultimately help determine appropriate public health action to control and prevent the public health problem

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epidemic

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the occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness, specific health-related behavior, or other health-related events clearly in excess of normal expectancy

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endemic

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the habitual presence of a disease within a given geographic area or the usual occurrence of a given disease within such an area

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common source epidemic

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tend to result in more cases occurring more rapidly and soon than host-to-host epidemics; identifying and removing exposure typically causes the epidemic to rapidly decrease (ex. botulism)

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propagated epidemic

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arise from infections being transmitted from one infected person to another; transmission can be through direct or indirect routes; host-to-host epidemics rise and fall more slowly than common source epidemics (ex. influenza)

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mixed epidemics

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occurs when a common source epidemic is followed by person-to-person contact and the disease is spread as a propagated outbreak (ex. Shigellosis)

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pandemic

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an epidemic occurring worldwide, or over a very wide area, crossing international boundaries, and usually affecting a large number of people (ex. HIV, Spanish influenza)

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Objectives of epidemiology

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identify the etiology (health related event) of a disease and relevant risk factors; determine the extent of the disease found in the community; study the natural history and prognosis of the disease - define the baseline; evaluate both existing and newly developed preventative and therapeutic measures and modes of health care delivery; provide the foundation for developing public policy relating to environmental problems, genetic issues, and other considerations regarding disease prevention and health promotion

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case definition

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a standard set of criteria; assures that cases are consistently diagnosed, regardless of where or when they were identified and who diagnosed the case

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quantification

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refers to counting the cases of illness or other heath outcomes; denotes the use of statistics to describe the occurrences of health outcomes and measure their association with exposures; suspected, probable, or confirmed

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prepathogenesis

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time period before the disease agent has interacted with a host

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pathogenesis

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after the agent has interacted with a host

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three types of disease prevention

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primary (before the disease occurs, general health promotion and specific prevention against disease, immunization), secondary (during progression of disease, activities that limit the progression of disease, programs for cancer screening), and tertiary (during the later stages of the disease, programs for restoring the patient's optimal functioning, physical therapy)

question

descriptive epidemiology

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refers to epidemiologic studies concerned with characterizing the amount and distribution of health and disease within a population. The 4 W's (what, who, where, when), aim to delineate the patterns and manner in which disease occurs in populations, focused on development of hypothesis

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analytic epidemiology

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examines causal hypotheses regarding the association between exposures and health conditions. (the 5th W: why/how)

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natural experiments

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naturally occurring circumstances in which subsets of the population have different levels of exposure to a supposed causal factor in a situation resembling an actual experiment, where human subjects would be randomly allocated to groups. take form of laws/policy or other events (bombing, Chernobyl, E coli outbreak)

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types of observational studies

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cohort, case-control, cross sectional, ecological

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cohort

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investigator records whether each study participant is exposed or not then tracks the participants to see if they develop the disease of interest (takes lots of time and money)

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case-control

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investigators start by enrolling a group of people with a disease, then enrolls a group of people without the disease and compares previous exposures between the 2 groups

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cross sectional

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a sample of persons from a population is enrolled and their exposures and health outcomes are measured simultaneously (tends to assess the presence of the health outcome without regard to duration. like a snapshot)

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ecological

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units of analysis are populations or groups rather than individuals (usually countries)

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experimental studies

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investigator determines through a controlled process, the exposure for each individual or community then tracks over time to detect the effects of the exposure

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clinical trial

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usually to do with pharmaceuticals and diseases that don't have many other options for treatment

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community trial

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example: fluoridated water

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goals of the contributors in the history of epidemiology

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to understand and explain illness, injury, and death from observational scientific perspective; to provide information for the prevention and control of health-related states and events in the population

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key events in history of epidemiology

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bubonic plague epidemics, development of toxicology and biostatistics, development of smallpox vaccine/eradication of smallpox, 1918 influenza pandemic, identification of smoking as cause of cancer

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uses of epidemiology

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historical, community health, health services, risk assessment, disease causality

question

historical use of epidemiology

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documents the patterns, types, and causes of morbidity and mortality over time; note decline in infection disease mortality

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epidemiologic transition

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describes a shift in the patterns of morbidity and mortality from causes related primarily to infections and communicable diseases to causes associated with chronic, degenerative diseases

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demographic transition

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the epidemiologic coincides with the demographic transition, which is a shift from high birth rates and death rates found in agrarian societies to much lower birth and death rates in developed countries

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community health

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the condition of the people; to measure the true dimensions and distribution of ill-health in terms of incidence, prevalence, disability, and mortality; to set health problems in perspective and define their relative importance; to identify groups needing special attention

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operations research

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a type of study of the placement of health services in a community and the optimum utilization of such services

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disease management

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method of reducing healthcare costs by providing integrated care for chronic conditions

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risk

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the probability that an event will occur

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risk factor

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an exposure that is associated with a disease, morbidity, mortality, or adverse health outcome

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risk assessment

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methodology used to provide quantitative measurements of risk to health

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disease causality

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to search for causes of health and disease by computing the experience of groups defined by their composition, inheritance, and experience; their behavior and environments

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ethics

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norms for conduct that distinguish between acceptable and unacceptable behavior

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importance of adhering to ethical norms

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promotes the aims of research; promotes values that are essential to collaborative work; researchers held accountable to the public; builds public support; promotes other important moral and social values

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U.S. Public Health Service Syphilis Study at Tuskegee

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ethical violation; syphilis investigation from 1932 to 1972; purpose was to "record the natural history of syphilis in hopes of justifying treatment programs for blacks"; despite discovery of penicillin, men were never offered treatment; class action law suit filed in 1973

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Ethics Guidelines for Epidemiology

answer

developed by the American College for Epidemiology (ACE); include minimizing risks and protecting the welfare of research subjects, obtaining the informed consent of participants, submitting proposed studies for ethical review, maintaining public trust, and meeting obligations to communities

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Flashcards on Personal health final 359 terms

Elizabeth Hill

359 terms

Preview

Flashcards on Personal health final

question

The intellectual dimension of health can be explained as the ability to

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question and evaluate information.

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Pondering the "why" questions is known as __________ thinking.

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critical

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The Hispanic nonwhite population of the United States showed growth of __________ percent over the last decade.

answer

question

To assess the impact of behavior on health, it is important to understand what a health __________ is and how to interpret it.

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risk

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he measure of the chance that a person receiving an exposure will develop a condition compared to the chance that a non-exposed person will develop the same condition is called

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relative risk

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The annual death rate from lung cancer among non-smokers is __________ deaths per 100,000 people.

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2.5

question

Since 1900, infant mortality in the United States has decreased __________ percent.

answer

question

An infectious disease is a medical condition typically resulting from an organism known as a

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Pathogen

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National estimates indicate that about __________ percent of instances of disease and premature death are the result of unhealthy lifestyles.

answer

question

The number-one cause of mortality in the United States is

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tobacco use

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Psychologists have developed __________ to explain individual behavior change and better understand people's health habits.

answer

health behavior theories

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Which of the following theories states that the interactions among an individual, the environment, and behavior are complex and provides a framework for understanding them?

answer

social cognitive theory

question

The stages of change model was initially developed in order to understand

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smoking cessation programs.

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Many Americans are aware of important health issues but are not able to translate their knowledge into healthy lifestyle behaviors.

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True

question

The basis for leading a moral and ethical life is rooted in emotional health.

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False

question

The different dimensions of health exist as separate elements.

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False

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Many health issues, including stress, mental health, nutrition, drug use, and disease, are strongly related to culture.

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True

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Much like reference books and refereed journal articles, Internet postings undergo evaluation by experts.

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False

question

The likelihood of miscommunication when dealing with medical or health issues is small.

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False

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Health risk is the concept that relates specific health-compromising factors to an increased likelihood of developing diseases.

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True

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People tend to be more afraid of natural risks than man-made risks.

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False

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Attitudes, beliefs, and values regarding our personal health are shaped by our personalities.

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False

question

A patient who is treated by a specialist for a health problem is receiving __________ care.

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Secondary

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Factors such as medical litigation, the aging population, and treatment for the uninsured __________ the cost of health care.

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Increase

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The main distinction between medical doctors and osteopaths is that osteopathic medicine places special emphasis on the body's __________ system, preventive medicine, and holistic care.

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musculoskeletal

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A person who holds either an M.D. or an D.O. degree is primarily referred to as a(n)

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physician.

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Which of the following are common courses taken during the first two years of medical school?

answer

biochemistry and medical ethics

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After medical school, most physicians receive further training during a residency in

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a major hospital or medical center.

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What degree is awarded by most dental schools?

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Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.)

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What is the name for a dental professional who specializes in treating the gums and the bones supporting the teeth?

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periodontist

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An optometrist typically has an education of __________ years after his or her undergraduate degree.

answer

question

Which health care profession uses methods including behavior therapy, group therapy, biofeedback, and cognitive retraining?

answer

clinical psychologist

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Which of the following terms specifically refers to practices used at the same time as, but not necessarily in conjunction with, conventional medical practices?

answer

complementary medicine

question

For how many years has traditional Chinese medicine been practiced in China?

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3,000

question

Homeopathy was developed over __________ years ago in Europe by Samuel Hahnemann, a German physician.

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200

question

Chiropractic adjustment-manipulating the patient's joints, particularly the spine

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is used to reduce pain and restore joint function.

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Low-cost or free care to treat routine medical problems or conduct preventive screening is widely available throughout the United States.

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False

question

Dental school is typically six academic years.

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False

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A clinical psychologist holds a Ph.D. or Psy.D. in clinical psychology and provides psycho-socio-behavioral therapies to help people adjust to or overcome emotional problems or mental illnesses.

answer

True

question

A registered nurse is a graduate of a nursing school who has passed the licensing exam for the R.N. credential.

answer

True

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Homeopathy is based on the "law of similars."

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True

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Meditation is one of the newest and most widely practiced mind-body therapies.

answer

False

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All natural products (biology based therapies) are classified as dietary supplements and go through a rigorous drug approval process by the FDA before the go to market.

answer

False

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Integrative medicine is the blending or combining of aspects of Western medicine with those of complementary and alternative medicine.

answer

True

question

Integrative medicine is based on the Western view of patient care and the promotion of optimal health.

answer

False

question

Two recommended online resources designed to assist in interpreting signs and symptoms are the __________ online and the Family Physicians website.

answer

Merck Manual

question

Arguably, the finest concise book on medical self-care is

answer

Take Care of Yourself: The Completed Illustrated Guide to Medical Self-Care.

question

Which of the following pain relievers is NOT an NSAID?

answer

acetaminophen

question

According to a recent estimate by the Institute of Medicine, three out of ten American adults take __________ different medications in any given week.

answer

five or more.

question

A CBC (complete blood count) is a routine test that provides information about

answer

white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.

question

What is an MRI primarily used to evaluate?

answer

soft tissue structures around the bones

question

The more complex your illness or disease, the more likely it is for your doctor to

answer

refer you to a specialist for an expert opinion.

question

A preexisting condition is an example of

answer

exclusion.

question

What is the most common term for an insurance company?

answer

the insurance carrier

question

What is the term for the money the subscriber pays to hold a health insurance policy?

answer

premium

question

Many insurance plans have a deductible, which is

answer

the amount of money a subscriber must pay for medical services before the insurance company will start paying.

question

he two basic types of private health insurance plans in the United States are managed care and

answer

fee for service.

question

What type of HMO includes a free-standing facility owned by the HMO where all the doctors and clinical professionals are salaried employees?

answer

Staff model

question

What is federal health insurance for the elderly called?

answer

Medicare

question

Americans whose income is below the poverty line may receive coverage through __________, a program funded jointly by the federal and state governments.

answer

Medicaid

question

Despite spending the most of any country in the world on health care, the US ranks __________ in life expectancy.

answer

28th

question

The PPACA was passed in 2010 to

answer

increase the number of Americans who have health insurance.

question

According to the key facts of the Affordable Care Act, in 2010 employees paid __________ on average to insure a family of four.

answer

3,997

question

Which of the following is a benefit of preventive care?

answer

It is less costly.

question

Our personal actions, including those related to __________, are the most important steps to preventive health care.

answer

exercising

question

Changing a health behavior is challenging, particularly because social conditioning and environmental design often

answer

favor health-compromising behaviors.

question

Which of the following factors is most important in determining health?

answer

lifestyle

question

A prescription drug can be sold by a store owner when authorized by a written prescription from a medical practitioner.

answer

False

question

The common brand name for acetaminophen is Advil.

answer

False

question

Although individual responses vary widely, decongestants may cause drowsiness and antihistamines may cause insomnia.

answer

False

question

Part of medical self-care includes knowing when to bypass primary care providers and go straight to specialists.

answer

False

question

Advance directives are documents (such as a living will and power of attorney) that specify the type of medical care you want if you are too sick to express your wishes.

answer

True

question

If you feel uncertain about a recommendation for a major surgical or medical treatment, you should not seek a second opinion unless your doctor agrees.

answer

False

question

Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs) are groups of health care providers and hospitals who negotiate plans with health care agencies.

answer

False

question

Preventive care has received little emphasis in the past, because most medical systems are designed to treat and cure illness, not prevent it.

answer

True

question

The organic compounds that are divided into two types, simple and complex, are called

answer

carbohydrates

question

Fiber is the indigestible part of __________ foods.

answer

plant-based

question

Which of the following is one of the best sources of soluble fiber?

answer

oats

question

What is the best way to increase your fiber intake?

answer

Eat a variety of whole grains, vegetables, legumes, and fruits.

question

What are trans fats?

answer

unsaturated fats that are partially hydrogenated

question

Which of these is the substance found in certain vitamins that helps protect the body cells from damage?

answer

antioxidants

question

What are the Dietary Guidelines for Americans designed to help people do?

answer

choose diets that meet nutrient requirements

question

In an effort to make it easier for people to make better food choices, the USDA recently developed

answer

ChooseMyPlate.

question

The CDC reports that obesity rates doubled among American adults during what time period?

answer

1980 through 2010

question

What is the approximate BMI range for healthy weight?

answer

18.5-25

question

In relation to fat distribution, research has shown that __________ fat may be more dangerous for long-term health than other fat locations.

answer

abdominal

question

Which is the most widespread eating disorder?

answer

bulimia

question

If we wish to change a behavior, the likelihood of success is much better if we

answer

take the time to develop a plan.

question

Successful long-term maintenance of weight loss is defined as losing at least __________% of your body weight and keeping it off for at least a year.

answer

question

A nutrient is a substance found in food that the body uses to grow, maintain, and repair itself.

answer

True

question

The way we eat has changed over the last century in part because of refrigeration and modern appliances.

answer

True

question

Nutrition is about understanding why we like the foods we do.

answer

False

question

The six nutrient classes are carbohydrates, fats, protein, vitamins, minerals, and calories.

answer

False

question

One measure for checking hydration is to weigh yourself every day to ensure that you have consumed enough fluids to restore water weight.

answer

True

question

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans provide information on calorie balance, weight management, physical activity, and general nutrition.

answer

True

question

Due to the wide range of food preferences and choices, learning to eat healthier and maintain good eating habits has become easier over the years.

answer

False

question

The "Nutrition Facts" panel on food labels is specially designed for each individual product so that consumers can easily understand key information.

answer

True

question

Steroids are substances added to the diet that contain primarily vitamins, minerals, and botanicals.

answer

False

question

Diseases of inactivity, such as osteoporosis and heart disease, can begin to take effect as early as which decades of life?

answer

second and third

question

Structured physical activity that is focused on improving or maintaining physical capacity is referred to as

answer

exercise

question

Musculoskeletal fitness increases bone density, muscle mass, and joint health and lowers the risk of __________.

answer

osteoporosis

question

Which of the following lowers the risk of dying prematurely, especially from heart disease and stroke?

answer

cardiorespiratory fitness

question

Anaerobic metabolism can supply energy for how long?

answer

about 30 seconds

question

Where in the body is ATP stored?

answer

muscles

question

The highest amount of oxygen the body can consume during exhaustive exercise is known as __________ capacity.

answer

aerobic

question

Cardiac output is the rate of blood flow in __________ per minute.

answer

liters

question

Exercise training is based on which four principles?

answer

overload, reversibility, specificity, and individual differences

question

Training toward a goal is the idea of which principle?

answer

specificity

question

When is the best time to take a resting heart rate?

answer

after waking in the morning

question

Which of the following are the three components of muscular fitness?

answer

muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility

question

The ability of a muscle to sustain a contraction over an extended period is called muscular

answer

endurance

question

Flexibility is the functional range of motion of a

answer

joint

question

What is the goal of resistance training?

answer

to develop muscular strength and endurance

question

The three overlapping spheres of the physical activity continuum represent __________ activity.

answer

low, moderate, and high

question

The thermic effect of food refers to the energy associated with

answer

digestion.

question

Almost all confirmed cases of sudden death in young athletes are a result of cardiac abnormalities, heat stress, or

answer

drug or supplement use.

question

College fitness centers that are well equipped, have a knowledgeable staff, are open long hours, and provide a wide variety of activities

answer

are typically supported through mandatory fees paid with tuition.

question

Changing our exercise habits often starts with good intentions but gets poor results because it

answer

is voluntary and time-consuming and requires effort.

question

A body mass index (BMI) of __________ or higher is associated with discontinuing exercise.

answer

question

Established exercise behavior repeated over months and years becomes

answer

a lifelong habit.

question

Levels of anxiety, stress, and depression can be lowered by participation in exercise.

answer

true

question

Physical activity tends to decline in the college setting, as considerable time is spent in sedentary behaviors.

answer

True

question

The most important part of physical activity or exercise is repetition.

answer

False

question

Aerobic metabolism refers to the production of energy using oxygen.

answer

True

question

Veins carry oxygen-rich blood back through the heart to the lungs, where it is exchanged for carbon dioxide.

answer

False

question

Endurance is improved by the enhanced ability of the muscles to use fats as fuels, sparing muscle carbohydrate stores.

answer

True

question

In contrast to training for cardiorespiratory fitness, the options for improving or maintaining muscular fitness are more limited.

answer

True

question

Exercising alone is a good strategy for establishing physical activity as a permanent habit.

answer

False

question

About __________ million people in the United States have diabetes.

answer

question

Diabetes is a defect in the transfer of __________ from the bloodstream into the cells.

answer

Glucose

question

What organ produces insulin?

answer

pancreas

question

More than __________ percent of people with diabetes have type 2.

answer

question

In response to insulin resistance, the pancreas initially

answer

produces more insulin

question

Type 2 diabetes usually develops in people older than

answer

question

Complications from diabetes primarily results in damage to which part of the eye?

answer

retina

question

About __________ percent of adults with diagnosed diabetes take both oral medications and insulin.

answer

question

Which of the following terms means low blood glucose levels?

answer

hypoglycemia

question

All of the following are used to treat hypoglycemia EXCEPT

answer

coffee

question

__________ are produced as a byproduct when fat is broken down as a source of energy when glucose is not readily available.

answer

Ketones

question

Treating metabolic syndrome reduces the risk of developing all of the following EXCEPT

answer

colon cancer

question

Reducing blood pressure, glucose levels, and __________ helps treat metabolic syndrome.

answer

LDL cholesterol

question

One in ten Americans born in 2000 will develop diabetes.

answer

False

question

Among people who have diabetes, 1 out of 4 is undiagnosed.

answer

True

question

Glucagon lowers the level of glucose in the blood stream.

answer

False

question

Insulin deficiency and insulin resistance can cause diabetes.

answer

True

question

Glucose is a complex carbohydrate that is sometimes used by the body as an energy source.

answer

False

question

Diet modification is used in the treatment of gestational diabetes.

answer

True

question

Pre-diabetes is a type of diabetes.

answer

False

question

Treating diabetes successfully means maintaining the proper balance between glucose and insulin.

answer

True

question

Hypoglycemia means blood glucose levels are too high.

answer

False

question

Opium is produced from what type of flower?

answer

Poppy

question

What is the category of depressants normally used to induce sedation and sleep?

answer

sedative-hypnotic drugs

question

Which of the following terms refers to the recreational use of inhalants?

answer

Huffing

question

Cocaine is found in the leaves of the coca plant, which grows in parts of

answer

South America

question

n recent years, a dangerous and highly addictive form of amphetamine, called __________, has become a serious problem.

answer

methamphetamine

question

What is the concentrated form of marijuana that is usually smoked in small, square blocks?

answer

hashish

question

The long-term effects of using marijuana include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

increased mental capacity.

question

After the mid-1980s, it was discovered that Ecstasy destroys neurons that produce

answer

serotonin

question

Common designer drugs are typically __________ analogues.

answer

amphetamine

question

What is the most basic drug test used as part of the urine screen?

answer

immunoassay

question

Drugs can be administered orally, transdermally, rectally, parenterally, and via inhalation.

answer

True

question

Schedule III drugs have common uses in medical treatment.

answer

True

question

Nicotine is a naturally occurring depressant found in tobacco.

answer

False

question

There has been no documentation of physiological damage among LSD users.

answer

True

question

When PCP users get hurt, the drug's anesthetic properties prevent them from feeling pain.

answer

True

question

The effects of salvia begin about 30 minutes after entering the blood.

answer

False

question

Drug testing is not usually very accurate.

answer

False

question

In the United States, more resources are allocated to law enforcement than to drug treatment.

answer

True

question

Where does fertilization of an ovum and a sperm cell occur?

answer

fallopian tube

question

Common premenstrual syndrome symptoms include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

blisters.

question

Menopause occurs when

answer

the ovaries stop releasing ova

question

What male reproductive organ transports both urine and semen?

answer

urethra

question

What is the absence of menstruation called?

answer

amenorrhea

question

Side effects of birth control pills include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

blindness.

question

The vaginal ring is inserted in the vagina for __________ week(s).

answer

three

question

Which is the most common type of barrier contraception?

answer

condom

question

__________ involve(s) placing a thin tube into each fallopian tube, resulting in the formation of scar tissue, which prevents movement of both egg and sperm.

answer

Sterilization implants

question

The "morning after" pill does which of the following?

answer

prevents pregnancy

question

Sexual pain, or pain during or after intercourse, is known as

answer

dyspareunia.

question

A person's sense of being male or female is called

answer

gender identity.

question

Approximately what percentage of Americans marry at least once in their lives?

answer

74%

question

The key to resolving conflict is

answer

communication

question

The vagina is part of the external female reproductive system.

answer

False

question

A fetus weighs about 1-2 pounds at the end of the first trimester.

answer

False

question

The placenta allows unborn babies to obtain oxygen and nutrients and exchange waste products with their mother.

answer

True

question

Both men and women experience the refractory period during the resolution phase of sexual response.

answer

False

question

People choose their sexual orientation.

answer

False

question

Good communication helps resolve conflicts in relationships.

answer

True

question

The word "stress" is typically used to describe depleted energy and a decline in function, but the correct term for such negative stress is actually

answer

distress

question

Which type of stress is regular or predictable but intermittent?

answer

episodic

question

During the __________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the body's physiological processes attempt to adapt to the stressor and regain homeostasis.

answer

resistance

question

The interruption of breathing during sleep is known as

answer

sleep apnea

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the most common health-related problems associated with chronic stress?

answer

osteoporosis

question

Which behavior type is characterized by competitiveness and hostility?

answer

type A

question

Which of the following has three aspects: anger, aggression, and cynicism?

answer

hostility

question

Women tend to display an alternative stress response known as the __________ response.

answer

tend-and-befriend

question

The planned efficient use of one's time is called

answer

time management.

question

Which of the following is NOT a step in effective time management?

answer

simplifying activities

question

You should organize your activities into four distinct categories, the first being

answer

urgent and important.

question

The psychological concept that describes people's beliefs about the underlying causes of events in their lives is known as

answer

locus of control

question

Those with __________ control orientation believe that the outcome of a situation is based on events outside their personal control.

answer

external

question

A major difference between attribution styles is that people with a(n) __________ locus of personal control know how to act to get their desired outcomes.

answer

internal

question

Which of the following involves adopting a passive attitude toward one's thoughts as they come and go?

answer

meditation

question

Physical Activity simulates the actions of

answer

Fight or flight response

question

An example of a high-stress job is one in which you have a responsibility for how things turn out and are in a position to control those things.

answer

False

question

The fight-or-flight response is a logical means of dealing with long-term emotional stress.

answer

False

question

The status syndrome, a recent concept in public health, refers to the effect of social position on a person's quality of life and longevity beyond that accounted for by education and income.

answer

True

question

For increasing numbers of students today, the college years are carefree, joyful times.

answer

False

question

As the role of brain chemicals called __________ became better understood, new drugs were developed to help in the treatment of mental illness.

answer

neurotransmitters

question

What is the name of the chemical messengers in the body that influence neurotransmitters in the brain?

answer

hormones

question

A common way we respond to unmet needs is to protect or defend our ego, our conscious state of how we perceive our self. This response is called a

answer

defense mechanism.

question

Steps to prevent suicide may include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

acting shocked to scare the person to get help

question

A condition characterized by repetition of the same act over and over is

answer

obsessive-compulsive disorder

question

A schizophrenic who experiences delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized behavior but lacks other specific symptoms is classified as which of the following types?

answer

undifferentiated

question

Anti-anxiety medications, such as Valium and Xanax, are what type of drug?

answer

minor tranquilizers

question

Which type of psychotherapy subjects the client to unpleasant stimuli after the client displays undesirable behavior?

answer

aversive conditioning

question

Which type of therapy uses role playing and confrontation?

answer

gestalt

question

Frustration is a normal response to unmet needs.

answer

true

question

Use of defense mechanisms is not normal.

answer

False

question

Lack of control in life is among the factors that contribute to eating disorders.

answer

True

question

Bipolar disorder is also known as known as manic-depressive illness.

answer

True

question

Long lasting depression doesn't usually cause personal, professional and relationship problems.

answer

False

question

A person with paranoid personality disorder anticipates being abused by other people.

answer

True

question

Psychotherapy and biomedical therapy are two approaches used to treat mental disorders. In most instances, a combination of psychotherapy and biomedical therapy is used.

answer

True

question

Systematic desensitization therapy employs relaxation and visualization.

answer

True

question

Coronary heart disease and stroke account for __________ percent of all cardiovascular deaths.

answer

question

All of the following are types of cardiovascular disease EXCEPT

answer

edema

question

Atherosclerosis involves a buildup of the following deposits EXCEPT

answer

vitamins

question

What is the term for the bursting of an arterial wall in the heart?

answer

heart attack

question

What is the term for the build-up of patchy deposits inside arteries?

answer

plaque

question

What is the term for the condition in which the blood supply to the myocardium is partially or completely blocked?

answer

coronary heart disease

question

hat type of stroke is the most common?

answer

ischemic

question

Cerebrovascular accident is the medical term for

answer

stroke.

question

What is the purpose of an automated external defibrillator (AED)?

answer

to restore a regular heart rhythm to people in cardiac arrest

question

Which of the following statements about the Framingham study is NOT true?

answer

It concluded that the most influential risk factor for cardiovascular disease is genetics.

question

The following are all modifiable risk factors for heart disease EXCEPT

answer

heredity

question

In a blood pressure reading, the bottom number is the __________ pressure.

answer

diastolic

question

What is the normal systolic blood pressure range?

answer

<120 mm of Hg

question

Individuals with uncontrolled hypertension have the risk of all the following health problems EXCEPT

answer

appendicitis.

question

What is the term for abnormally elevated total cholesterol as measured from a blood sample?

answer

hypercholesterolemia

question

All of the following contribute to elevated cholesterol values EXCEPT

answer

infertility.

question

Fasting lipoprotein profile measures all of the following EXCEPT

answer

total calories.

question

What is another term for abnormal blood lipids?

answer

dyslipidemia

question

What is the surgical procedure in which a balloon-tipped catheter is inserted into a diseased, narrowed coronary artery and then inflated?

answer

coronary angioplasty

question

A carotid endarterectomy works to restore adequate blood flow to the

answer

brain

question

When was the first human heart transplant performed?

answer

1967

question

Coronary heart disease is one of the most common types of cardiovascular diseases.

answer

True

question

Individuals experiencing a possible stroke can drive themselves to the hospital.

answer

False

question

The most common form of diabetes is type I.

answer

False

question

Moderate alcohol consumption has been shown to reduce coronary heart disease risk by elevating HDL cholesterol.

answer

True

question

How many new cases of cancer are diagnosed annually in the US?

answer

1,596,670

question

Possession of a __________ sequence linked with cancer means specific cells are more likely to grow abnormally.

answer

gene

question

Which of the following is used to describe the largest and most invasive cancer?

answer

question

Which notation means metastases are present?

answer

question

What is the most common symptom of breast cancer?

answer

a lump

question

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for lung cancer?

answer

cigarette smoking

question

Which cancer is the third most common among men and women in the United States?

answer

colon

question

Which of these is a test for colon cancer detection?

answer

colonoscopy

question

Which type of cancer is the most commonly diagnosed among men?

answer

Prostate

question

Which population is at the greatest risk of developing prostate cancer?

answer

African-American

question

Which of the following is NOT a type of skin cancer?

answer

hepatocellular carcinoma

question

The chief risk factor for malignant melanoma is

answer

exposure to the sun

question

Early detection for malignant melanoma uses the __________ screening.

answer

A,B,C,D

question

Chemo is short for

answer

chemotherapy.

question

The Human Genome Project has determined that a person who carries a marker for a certain type of cancer will inevitably develop that cancer.

answer

False

question

Exposure to ultraviolet light from the sun is related to skin cancer.

answer

True

question

A man thought to have colon cancer may have high levels of PSA in his blood.

answer

False

question

Staging is used to determine the invasiveness of a cancer.

answer

True

question

Lumpectomy is the removal of the affected breast.

answer

False

question

Mastectomy is the removal of the affected breast.

answer

True

question

Malignant melanoma is the most dangerous form of skin cancer.

answer

True

question

Exposure to tanning beds before age 35 decreases melanoma risk.

answer

False

question

Sunburns help protect against skin cancer.

answer

False

question

Chemotherapy can cause nausea, weakness, and suppress the immune system.

answer

True

question

Laetrile has been shown to be an effective treatment for cancer.

answer

False

question

Which of the following is another name for white blood cells?

answer

leukocytes

question

B cells __________ pathogens.

answer

detect

question

Which of the following is the most common streptococcal infection?

answer

strep throat

question

Symptoms of bacterial meningitis include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

hair loss

question

Which type of influenza is the most widespread?

answer

question

The proteins H and N in H1N1 are

answer

hemagglutinin & neuraminidase

question

People infected with Influenza A have these symptoms EXCEPT

answer

upset stomach

question

Hepatitis B&C are contracted through all of the following EXCEPT

answer

eating food prepared by someone infected

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the universal precautions for hepatitis B and C?

answer

rinsing food before preparation

question

Which of the following is NOT true of chlamydia?

answer

Symptoms appear with 24 to 48 hours of exposure.

question

Untreated gonorrhea in women can lead to

answer

pelvic inflammatory disease.

question

During incubation, a person experiences early symptoms of the disease but may not realize yet that he or she is sick.

answer

False

question

Most people realize they are sick at the prodromal stage.

answer

False

question

White blood cells are known as antigens.

answer

False

question

Passive immunity is long-lasting.

answer

False

question

Living in close contact with a large number of people decreases one's risk of contracting bacterial meningitis.

answer

False

question

The common cold is caused by a single, specialized virus.

answer

False

question

Frequent hand washing is effective in preventing the common cold.

answer

True

question

Another name for mononucleosis is the "kissing disease."

answer

True

question

Medications available for herpes 1 only reduce the severity of symptoms.

answer

True

question

Symptoms of gonorrhea appear sooner than do those of chlamydia.

answer

True

question

The Gardasil vaccine protects against human papilloma virus.

answer

True

question

Abstinence is the most effective preventive method against sexually transmitted diseases.

answer

True

question

The majority of HIV cases in the U.S. today are caused by medical errors.

answer

False

question

One out of __________ college students say they have missed classes, fallen behind in courses, or done poorly on schoolwork because of drinking.

answer

four

question

The DEA considers Schedule __________ drugs to be those with the highest potential for abuse and dependency.

answer

question

Cough medicines with codeine are examples of Schedule __________ drugs.

answer

question

Alcohol quickly absorbs into the bloodstream, where it moves on to affect all of the following systems EXCEPT the

answer

reproductive system.

question

Blood alcohol concentrations (BAC) of _________ will cause euphoria, a feeling of well-being, lower inhibitions, minor impairment of reasoning and memory, and intensified emotions in most people.

answer

0.04-0.06

question

For an average-size man, blood alcohol level (BAL) rises about __________ per drink per hour.

answer

0.025

question

Driving under the influence (DUI) is defined as driving with a __________ BAL or above.

answer

0.08

question

By age 18, the typical American has seen or heard more than __________ alcohol advertisements on television and radio and in print.

answer

100,000

question

In recent years, a dangerous and highly addictive form of amphetamine, called __________, has become a serious problem.

answer

methamphetamine

question

Psilocybin is a hallucinogenic drug found in a type of

answer

mushroom.

question

Ketamine is sometimes referred to as

answer

Special K

question

What are the most commonly prescribed minor tranquilizers?

answer

benzodiazepines

question

The date rape drug gamma-hydroxybutyrate, or GHB, was originally developed as a(n)

answer

dissociative anesthetic.

question

A common designer drug is __________ which increases heart rate and respiration and distorts perception.

answer

Ecstasy

question

The typical window of time in which a person's urine sample will test positive after use of most illegal drugs is __________ hours.

answer

24-48

question

Transdermal administration occurs when a drug diffuses into the bloodstream through the skin.

answer

True

question

For an average-size woman, blood alcohol level (BAL) rises about 0.020 per drink per hour.

answer

False

question

In most states, being convicted of a DUI or DWI is a minor offense.

answer

False

question

The legal drinking age is 21 in all states but Alaska.

answer

False

question

Hallucinogens are powerful drugs known for inducing delusions.

answer

False

question

Marijuana smoke contains high levels of carbon monoxide.

answer

True

question

Fentanyl is a depressant that is more powerful than morphine.

answer

False

question

Club drugs have short-term effects.

answer

False

question

If a person tests positive for drugs, a confirmation test is given.

answer

True

question

What connects the uterus to the vagina?

answer

Cervix

question

How many hours can an ovum survive in a fallopian tube?

answer

48-72

question

Which of the following is a common symptom of menopause?

answer

loss of libido

question

What occurs when a fertilized egg implants somewhere other than the uterus?

answer

ectopic pregnancy

question

What condition of pregnancy is characterized by high blood pressure, edema, dizziness, vision problems, and stomach pain?

answer

preeclampsia

question

Which of the following forms of contraception provides the most effective protection from STDs?

answer

male latex condom

question

Which of the following is an example of the barrier method of contraception?

answer

sponge

question

Which of the following is a barrier method in which a small plastic or copper structure is inserted in the uterus?

answer

IUD

question

Which of the following is a natural contraception method?

answer

withdrawal

question

Another term used for miscarriage is

answer

spontaneous abortion.

question

According to a CDC survey, what percentage of people between 15 and 17 years old reported having sexual intercourse for the first time?

answer

40%

question

Problems associated with sexual desire, sexual arousal, orgasm, and sexually related pain are referred to as

answer

sexual dysfunction.

question

Which of the following is one of the most important elements of a healthy relationship?

answer

respect

question

Which of the following is unequal in an unhealthy relationship?

answer

power

question

The sponge is a hormonal method of birth control.

answer

false

question

A vasectomy prevents the production of sperm.

answer

False

question

Gay men and Lesbians are often the targets of prejudice and discrimination.

answer

True

question

Something that disrupts homeostasis is known as a

answer

stressor.

question

Positive stress, or __________, is created by stressors that motivate and result in improved performance.

answer

eustress

question

A form of stress that is prolonged and continuous is referred to as

answer

chronic

question

What tool is used to quantify the amount of stress a person has, and the related increase in risk of stress-related illness?

answer

Social Readjustment Rating Scale

question

The need for __________ is as basic as the need for food and water.

answer

sleep

question

An individual with a __________ personality is relaxed and contemplative.

answer

type B

question

Which of the following is the primary characteristic that puts people at risk for heart disease and other stress-related health problems?

answer

hostility

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the three key aspects to successful stress management?

answer

cultivating eustress and avoiding distress

question

Stressors disrupt a person's natural state of balance, or homeostasis.

answer

True

question

How we see our personal level of control over the world can have a major effect on our response to stress.

answer

True

question

We gauge __________ by assessing factors such as how fulfilling people's relationships are and their self-esteem, among others.

answer

Mental health

question

Which defense mechanism is characterized by frustration that is expressed through attacking another target?

answer

Displacement

question

Which of the following is NOT a personal or social problem related to mental health?

answer

Chronic disease

question

Which type of suicide refers to taking one's life to advance a cause or ideal?

answer

Altruistic

question

Fears of specific events, objects, or situations are symptomatic of which of the following?

answer

phobia

question

Which of the following is a long-term disorder that is less severe than major depression?

answer

dysthymia

question

Which type of therapy emphasizes free will to gain insight and self-understanding?

answer

existential

question

Motivation is forceful behavior with the intent to dominate.

answer

False

question

Psychotherapy can only be performed by a psychologist or psychiatrist.

answer

False

STUDY

Authors Church Commerce And Industry European History Fellow Human Beings Marriage

Chapter 8: The Byzantine Empire and Emerging Europe – Flashcards 12 terms

Jason Westley

12 terms

Preview

Chapter 8: The Byzantine Empire and Emerging Europe – Flashcards

question

Significance of scriptorium

answer

A writing room in a monastery where monks copied works of early Christianity and works of Latin classical authors

question

Germanic Law

answer

•personal -wergild (money for a man) -ordeals (divine intervention to see if a man was guilty)

question

Significance of Gregory I

answer

•St. Gregory the Great •A strong pope -strengthened power of papacy and the Roman Catholic Church -created Papal States -used monastic movement to convert the non-Christian peoples of Germanic Europe

question

Conversion of King Clovis

answer

•A military leader who established the Franks kingdom -1st Germanic ruler to convert to Christianity -his wife converted -he only converted because of victory in battle -conversion won him the support of Roman Catholic Church

question

Rome's language

answer

Mainly Latin, but also Greek

question

Diocletian's changes

answer

-enlarged the political and military reforms enlarged the civil service and army -set a price edict that set wage and price in all empire, currency lost value -reforms based on control and coercion

question

Significance of Edict of Milan

answer

Document written by Constantine that proclaimed official tolerance of Christianity

question

Collapse of Roman empire

answer

476 = end of western Roman emperor -Christianity weakened military virtues -traditional values declined as non-Italians gained prominence -lead poisoning -plague wiped out 1/10 of populations -rome failed to technologically advance due to slavery -rome could not create a workable political system

question

Christianity and Roman Empire

answer

Christianity grew because of Jesus, Romans persecuted Christians but then the Edict of Milan made Christianity allowed, then it was made the official religion, many emperors Christian, organized under pope, Christian empires prospered

question

Eastern Roman Empire's culture

answer

•Ruled under Justinian led to Byzantine empire -a Greek and Christian state -political and church state

question

Significance of the Body of Civil Laws

answer

simplification of Roman laws, last writing of the time written in Latin

question

Body of Civil Laws

answer

-Justinian wanted to simplify legal materials -Justinian wrote this codification of Roman Law which became the basis of imperial law in the Eastern Roman Empire -Last writing of the time written in Latin -Became the basis of most of Europe's legal system

STUDY

Art And Literature Denotative Meaning Of A Word English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade) Fellow Human Beings

Flashcards and Answers – Choosing Language 34 terms

Judith Simpson

34 terms

Preview

Flashcards and Answers – Choosing Language

question

What type of language should be used in a critical analysis essay?

answer

formal

question

Whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its foundation on such principles and organizing its powers in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness. In this excerpt, certain words are capitalized to

answer

highlight the supremacy of certain concepts.

question

Tortillas and poetry. They go hand in hand. Books nourish the spirit, bread nourishes our bodies. Our distinct cultures nourish each one of us, and as we know more and more about the art and literature of the different cultures, we become freer and freer. . . . I don't know anyone who doesn't like to sample different ethnic foods, the breads of many many groups; just as many of us enjoy sampling books from different areas of the world. I travel to foreign countries, and I know more about myself as I learn more about my fellow human beings. Censorship imposes itself in my path of knowledge, and that activity can be justified by no one. Which of these changes would make this excerpt more argumentative?

answer

including words that address logic and reason

question

answer

to persuade readers to oppose the censorship of literature

question

In the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson talks about independence through his use of big words and fancy argument skills. Which is the best revision to the sentence?

answer

In the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson uses his command of the English language to make a powerful argument for American independence.

question

Go where you may, search where you will, roam through all the monarchies and despotisms of the Old World, travel through South America, search out every abuse, and when you have found the last, lay your facts by the side of the everyday practices of this nation, and you will say with me, that, for revolting barbarity and shameless hypocrisy, America reigns without a rival. What is one way that Douglass achieves his purpose of persuading the reader to see his point of view?

answer

by repeating the word "you" to directly relate to the reader

question

Which choice best defines a word's connotative meaning?

answer

the feeling and association that the word evokes

question

Thomas Paine was an English American __________ who wrote pamphlets that influenced many people and were instrumental in starting the American Revolution. He skillfully communicated the ideas of the Revolution to everyone, from farmers to intellectuals. If the purpose of this paragraph is to inform, which word best fits in the blank?

answer

activist

question

answer

"that activity can be justified by no one"

question

Britain, with an army to enforce her tyranny, has declared that she has a right (not only to TAX) but "to BIND us in ALL CASES WHATSOEVER," and if being bound in that manner, is not slavery, then is there not such a thing as slavery upon earth. . . . . . . Neither have I so much of the infidel in me, as to suppose that He has relinquished the government of the world, and given us up to the care of devils; and as I do not, I cannot see on what grounds the king of Britain can look up to heaven for help against us: a common murderer, a highwayman, or a house-breaker, has as good a pretence as he. What is the denotation of the word "bound" in this excerpt?

answer

trapped

question

Which phrase best defines the denotative meaning of a word?

answer

the literal meaning of the word

question

Britain, with an army to enforce her tyranny, has declared that she has a right (not only to TAX) but "to BIND us in ALL CASES WHATSOEVER," and if being bound in that manner, is not slavery, then is there not such a thing as slavery upon earth. . . . . . . Neither have I so much of the infidel in me, as to suppose that He has relinquished the government of the world, and given us up to the care of devils; and as I do not, I cannot see on what grounds the king of Britain can look up to heaven for help against us: a common murderer, a highwayman, or a house-breaker, has as good a pretence as he. The words "slavery," "devils," and "murderer" evoke a sense of

answer

anger and injustice.

question

I know this for a fact, because when I was growing up, my mother's "limited" English limited my perception of her. I was ashamed of her English. I believed that her English reflected the quality of what she had to say. That is, because she expressed them imperfectly her thoughts were imperfect. Which phrase from this excerpt best helps the reader identify the author's purpose?

answer

NOT! "my mother's 'limited' English"

question

The largest of the linen tents, erected at the campsite to protect the team of conservationists from the relentless African sun, housed the leader of the expedition, Dr. Aidan Hamilton. His round spectacles framed his slender face and complimented his gray hair as he sat outside his tent, mapping the day's journey. Julissa is most likely writing with the purpose of

answer

describing in an observational manner.

question

Monica relocated into a new apartment last weekend. She had countless boxes to pack and could not possibly attempt to transport the furniture herself. She is hiring movers to help her with the heaviest items. Monica's furniture was loaded into a truck and moved to her new apartment. She was there to instruct the movers where to put everything. Luckily, all the furniture made it to the location in one piece! Which best explains the inconsistency in writing used in this paragraph?

answer

It does not maintain appropriate verb tense.

question

Texting is an increasingly popular means of communication with students at Mystic Falls High School. Students text their friends to make plans, ask questions, and share information. However, texting can also be distracting. It takes students' attention away from the primary purpose of school: learning. What is the tone of the article?

answer

critical

question

From Polaris a line of small stars curves toward the handle of the Dipper, meeting the upper one of a pair of the third magnitude. This pair, with another farther on and parallel to it, form the 'Little Dipper,' Polaris being the end of its handle. The group is Ursa Minor. Opposite the handle of the great Dipper, and at about the same distance from Polaris, are five rather bright stars forming a flattened letter W. They are the principal stars of Cassiopeia. What strategy does the author use in his choice of language to convey his message?

answer

facts and statements

question

The pines are widely distributed throughout the Northern Hemisphere, and include about 80 distinct species with over 600 varieties. The species enumerated here are especially common in the eastern part of the United States, growing either native in the forest or under cultivation in the parks. The pines form a very important class of timber trees, and produce beautiful effects when planted in groups in the parks. Which strategy does the author use in his choice of language to convey his message?

answer

facts and statements

question

As the trumpet blared a jarring noise, everyone quickly covered their ears! Using the context clues, what is the meaning of the underlined word?

answer

shrill

question

The mission of the Blanche Anti-Bullying Organization is to promote integrity, self-esteem, and respect for all people; therefore, as we pursue our mission, we the founders do respectfully promise to uphold these values for ourselves and all of our participating members. What is the tone of the passage?

answer

sincere

question

Since the budget for the groundbreaking elephant-behavior-studies program has been cut—just as it was beginning to make progress—wildlife conservationists and their supporters are asking that people from all over the world promote the program by encouraging local agencies and community members to donate time and funds to secure the future of the amazingly gentle and intelligent African elephant species. Darryl is most likely writing with the purpose of

answer

persuading and influencing others.

question

Maria excels in gymnastics and tumbling. She has the commitment and dedication it takes to be successful in a demanding sport. The balance beam is my favorite event to watch because it requires a great deal of focus. Maria will continue training in the hopes of landing a spot on the competitive team. Which best explains the inconsistency in writing used in this paragraph?

answer

It does not maintain a single point of view.

question

The investors could not handle the ups and downs so they removed their funds from the fluctuating market. Using the context clues, what is the meaning of the underlined word?

answer

to vary in level or value

question

Read the excerpt from Rudolfo Anaya's essay "Take the Tortillas Out of Your Poetry." Tortillas and poetry. They go hand in hand. Books nourish the spirit, bread nourishes our bodies. Our distinct cultures nourish each one of us, and as we know more and more about the art and literature of the different cultures, we become freer and freer. . . . I don't know anyone who doesn't like to sample different ethnic foods, the breads of many many groups; just as many of us enjoy sampling books from different areas of the world. I travel to foreign countries, and I know more about myself as I learn more about my fellow human beings. Censorship imposes itself in my path of knowledge, and that activity can be justified by no one. Which choice best describes the purpose of this text?

answer

to persuade readers to oppose the censorship of literature

question

Read the paragraph from a student's critical analysis essay. In the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson talks about independence through his use of big words and fancy argument skills. First, Jefferson states his thesis, which makes it seem important that the colonists get independence. Next, Jefferson gives evidence against the king of England and how he mistreats the American colonies. Finally, Jefferson suggests that colonists should stop paying taxes and fight, which is the obvious answer to the colonists' problems. What is the best way for the student to revise the essay?

answer

The student should replace informal language with formal language.

question

Read the excerpt from Amy Tan's essay "Mother Tongue." I know this for a fact, because when I was growing up, my mother's "limited" English limited my perception of her. I was ashamed of her English. I believed that her English reflected the quality of what she had to say. That is, because she expressed them imperfectly her thoughts were imperfect. Which phrase from this excerpt best helps the reader identify the author's purpose?

answer

"I know this for a fact"

question

answer

"that activity can be justified by no one"

question

Read the excerpt from Frederick Douglass's speech "What to the Slave Is the Fourth of July?" Go where you may, search where you will, roam through all the monarchies and despotisms of the Old World, travel through South America, search out every abuse, and when you have found the last, lay your facts by the side of the everyday practices of this nation, and you will say with me, that, for revolting barbarity and shameless hypocrisy, America reigns without a rival. Which of the following best describes Douglass's word choice in this excerpt?

answer

NOT: lighthearted

question

answer

NOT: "limited my perception"

question

answer

NOT: "just as many of us enjoy sampling books from different areas"

question

answer

to inform readers based on Tan's childhood experience

question

What type of language should be used in a critical analysis essay?

answer

formal

question

Read the excerpt from Frederick Douglass's speech "What to the Slave Is the Fourth of July?" Go where you may, search where you will, roam through all the monarchies and despotisms of the Old World, travel through South America, search out every abuse, and when you have found the last, lay your facts by the side of the everyday practices of this nation, and you will say with me, that, for revolting barbarity and shameless hypocrisy, America reigns without a rival. To support his purpose, Douglass includes words such as

answer

abuse, barbarity,shameless

question

I know this for a fact, because when I was growing up, my mother's "limited" English limited my perception of her. I was ashamed of her English. I believed that her English reflected the quality of what she had to say. That is, because she expressed them imperfectly her thoughts were imperfect. Which word best describes Tan's language in this excerpt?

answer

conversational

STUDY

AP English Language And Composition Behavioral Economics Capital Asset Pricing Model Fellow Human Beings John Maynard Keynes

Behavioral Economics Final Exam – Flashcards 135 terms

Sonia Kelly

135 terms

Preview

Behavioral Economics Final Exam – Flashcards

question

1. What influence does economics have on political decisions?

answer

Some politicians use economic opinions to push their agenda, and forget to leave personal preference out of it.

question

2. What does the abbreviation SEM mean?

answer

Standard Economic Model

question

3. Who is Homo Economicus?

answer

Economic Man

question

4. What are the four main characteristics of the SEM that we have studied this semester?

answer

a. Unbounded rationality b. Unbounded willpower c. Unbounded selfishness

question

5. What does the term "physics envy" mean when related to economics?

answer

Refers to the fact that economists try too hard to make a social science fit into formulas of mathematical certainty.

question

6. What did we learn about the predictability of new ideas come along that challenge old ideas?

answer

a. German philosopher Arthur Schopenhauer said, "In history... revolutionary ideas come along at uncertain points in time, and almost without exception radical ideas will be challenged by those who have a stake in the status quo. Three stages occur: a. First, it is ridiculed. b. Second, it is violently opposed. c. Third, it is accepted as being self-evident."

question

7. What was Max Planck's famous quote about progress in science related to believers in old theories?

answer

a. Sometimes people have to die off for new theories to be accepted. b. "A new scientific truth does not triumph by convincing its opponents and making them see the light, but rather because its opponents eventually die, and a new generation grows up that is familiar with it."

question

8. What was George Box's quote about the usefulness of theories?

answer

He said in 1979: "All theoretical models are wrong, but some are useful." What Box meant was that natural processes are sometimes so complicated that they defy easy solutions and maybe even complex modeling. Theoretical models, therefore, have to simplify the actual situation to make it solvable. But if the model is too simple, it loses both its predictive ability and its sense of being realistic.

question

9. What are the two books that Adam Smith is famous for writing? How do they differ from each other in how the expect to behave? How have they been interpreted by the neoclassical and behavioral sides of economics?

answer

a. The Wealth of Nations, Theory of Moral Sentiments b. The Wealth of Nations is embraced by Neoclassicist b. They ignored the moral Sentiments because it said the opposite that Wealth of Nations Says

question

10. Who originally created economic General Equilibrium Theory?

answer

Leon Walrus, he said that the interaction of demand and supply will result in an overall general equilibrium.

question

11. Who was Milton Friedman?

answer

a. Led neoclassic econ revolution, b. University of Chicago, c. He said, "Models can only be simplifications of actual events, because events are too complicated to explain with models..."

question

12. How did removing psychological influences from human behavior allow neoclassicals to provide detailed equations representing human behavior?

answer

Even though the SEM principles may be unrealistic or flawed, the theory could still be used if it makes accurate predictions, since agents could behave "as if" they knew the rules even if they didn't. This is known as the methodological view.

question

13. Is neoclassical economics more concerned about the motivation of the individual or the behavior of the group?

answer

Neocons are more concerned with the behavior of the group.

question

14. In what time period did neoclassical economics start becoming the mainstream idea in economic theory?

answer

1950s

question

15. What did we learn about the expected behavior of Economic Man when compared to true sociopaths?

answer

a. Both have very similar characteristics, both believe similar to the following: b. Economic Man is selfish and wants to maximize his own utility (satisfaction) c. All decisions are tradeoffs between outcomes, so there isn't any ultimately correct answer d. Decisions should be made without a societal consideration of right or wrong e. Decisions should be made without a sense of fairness to other parties f. Decisions are not based on how they might affect others

question

16. According to some neoclassical economists, it's okay with people behaving "as if" they understood the mathematical theory behind their actions, even if tests indicate they did not understand or apply the theory. What is the term for this "as if" view?

answer

Methodological view: feeling that it didn't matter if economic theories had any psychological plausibility or necessarily made any sense. The only thing that mattered was if the theories made good predictions (that is, if people behaved "as if" the theories were true).

question

17. Know how to calculate Expected Utility values, given two or more utility values and the percentage chance of each actually occurring, based on the standard way of statistically indicating the choices.

answer

question

18. What is the way that classical economists believe you incentivize people to give correct answers?

answer

Financial Incentives

question

19. What are several characteristics that a good theory should have?

answer

a. A theory should make good sense b. It should be testable c. Results should be repeatable and remain valid d. A good theory should explain past behavior and make valid predictions for the future

question

20. What are some differences related to how economic and psychological experiments are conducted?

answer

a. Neither side can agree on how to do experiments b. Econs use financial incentives, no trickery or confederates, and are concerned with revealed preferences and are more concerned with group behavior c. Psychologists are concerned with motivation, often use deception and lies, and are more interested in individual reaction

question

21. What is the difference between risk and uncertainty, when related to economic theory?

answer

a. Risk means something may go wrong, but you have an idea of the chances of the outcome. b. Uncertainty means you have no historical information to use when processing a situation.

question

22. What did the Stanley Milgram experiment tell us?

answer

a. This was the experiment in which those participating were continually shocking a person in another room for answering questions wrong. b. It told us that most members of the Nazi party were more likely obeying authority when committing atrocities, rather than being personally evil and enjoying torturing fellow human beings.

question

23. The example of the Dirty Harry movie was used to illustrate decision-making under what kind of stress?

answer

Under risk and uncertainty

question

24. What is Gary Becker's idea regarding deciding to commit crimes?

answer

Model of Rational Crime: Becker said criminals commit crimes because they expect the benefits to outweigh the consequences. If people didn't commit crimes, it was because the system offered sufficient deterrents (such as a high certainty of getting caught).

question

25. Know how to calculate expected utility or expected value, given the values and the percentage chance of it occurring.

answer

question

26. Who were the two psychologists who originated Prospect Theory?

answer

a. Daniel Kahneman & Amos Tversky: b. Fathers of Behavioral Economics c. 1979 paper Prospect Theory, started Behavioral Econ revolution d. They split as collaborators because people gave Kahneman more credit

question

27. What are some of the differences between behavioral Prospect Theory and neoclassical Expected Utility Theory (both theories are concerned with how people behave under risk and uncertainty).

answer

a. Prospect Theory: people have bounded rationality, use rules of thumb, biases, loss aversion, anchoring and framing, favor the present over the future and don't understand actual probabilities of events occurring. b. Neoclassic economics: people always make unemotional decisions to maximize their utility or satisfaction (ex: Becker's rational crime model)

question

28. What does BE tell us regarding the difference in perception of real people when feeling the losses vs. gains?

answer

Losses are perceived to be much worse than gains are. Wealth initially does not matter.

question

29. What is the definition we used for "rationality"?

answer

For our purposes in economics, rationality means that reason leads to consistent choices.

question

30. What are the three characteristics of gut feelings? When should they be trusted?

answer

a. Judgement appears quickly in the conscious mind. b. Underlying reasons are not known c. The hunch is strong enough to act on

question

31. What are the characteristics of bounded rationality?

answer

a. People don't have perfect information b. They don't have the ability to make perfect decisions even with perfect information.

question

32. What are heuristics? How do people use heuristics?

answer

a. Short cuts, or rules of thumb. b. They use them to make everyday decisions, because we don't have time to think deeply about everything.

question

33. What does the term "animal spirits" mean?

answer

John Maynard Keynes' term for "people don't always act rational, they respond emotionally to everything."

question

34. What does cognitive dissonance mean?

answer

People can't accept new information that conflicts with our deepest beliefs.

question

35. What two events did we discuss related to cognitive dissonance?

answer

a. Panama Canal: France constructed Suez Canal, and immediately thought they could build the Panama Canal as well. This is an example of recency bias. (As well as the failure to recognize sunk cost.) b. McMartin Preschool

question

36. How is criminal justice effected by cognitive dissonance?

answer

a. Criminal investigators have been known to set their mind on a trial outcome because of a hunch, and even when the trial is recounted and proved wrong they hold onto the original analysis. b. Ex: Numerous men were pegged with rape of woman in NYC. After many years in jail, another inmate confessed to the crime. c. His DNA matched that found on the victim. The original prosecutors and detectives denied this outcome, displaying cognitive dissonance.

question

37. What does framing mean?

answer

a. Contextual presentation of information, which is a way to influence decision-making. b. A coffee company has a $20 coffee maker and a $65 coffee maker. Not many of the $65 models are currently selling, so the company comes out with a third model which is $120. c. They know the most expensive model will most likely not sell more, but now they have framed the customer's mind to think the $65 model is not such a bad deal.

question

38. What is an anchor? How is it used to set values?

answer

Arbitrary starting points, may be in terms of numbers, that become reference points and affect our future decision.

question

39. The book, The Adventures of Tom Sawyer, represented what behavioral concept with regard to getting others to whitewash the fence?

answer

Framing work as pleasure

question

40. How did the classic "Asian Disease Problem" presentation indicate both framing and innumeracy problems?

answer

People chose the options which most displayed a more positive outcome mentally, even though all of the options really gave the same outcome.

question

41. What is the tyranny of choice? Is more choice always better?

answer

a. It is when people have so many choices they can't make a decision. b. No, more choice in a behavioral's POV is worse.

question

42. What is the difference between maximizers and satisficers?

answer

a. Maximizers will see another choice other than the one they picked and be upset for a long time because they didn't make the best choice. b. Satisficers: they're always ok with their choices, ok with imperfect choices, live longer and are happier.

question

43. What did we learn about the on-line dating results?

answer

Maximizers are bad at online dating, because there are too many choices and they never stop searching for the perfect person.

question

44. Do people contribute to retirement plans the way they should? What are some techniques to encourage better outcomes?

answer

People have to make their own decisions about retirement because most companies no longer offer them a plan. (Elaborate more)

question

45. What did we learn about the default Swedish Social Security investment fund?

answer

People were put into a retirement plan by default, which had a better outcome because they didn't have to make a decision unless they wanted to. Although most didn't deviate from the plan which they were originally placed in.

question

46. What was the original need behind researching the mathematics of risk?

answer

a. The initial interest in the calculation of risk was driven by a desire to understand the mathematics behind games of chance. b. i.e. Gambling

question

47. Can risk be eliminated or only controlled?

answer

Only controlled

question

48. What is a preference reversal?

answer

a. A change in the relative frequency by which one option is favored over another in behavioral experiments. b. Preference reversals contradict the predictions of rational choice.

question

49. What is an information cascade?

answer

a. Occurs when a person observes the actions of others and then - despite possible contradictions in his/her own private information signals - engages in the same acts.

question

50. What is the endowment effect?

answer

a. The human desire to hold on to what we already have, even when a superior alternative is presented to us. b. "My Stuff Is Stuff And Your Stuff Is Crap"

question

51. What is the difference between WTA and WTP? How does the endowment effect affect which value tends to be greater than the other?

answer

a. Willingness to Pay: the maximum amount an individual is willing to sacrifice to procure a good or avoid something undesirable. b. Willingness to Accept: the minimum amount of money that а person is willing to accept to abandon a good or to put up with something negative, such as pollution. c. The endowment effect causes the WTP to lower, because value other's good less. It causes WTA to rise, as we value our own goods more than we should.

question

52. What is innumeracy? Why is skill in using numbers important for the Standard Economic Model to work?

answer

a. The inability to correctly identify the relationship between numbers; that is, mathematical concepts and methods used to solve problems seems too difficult to understand. b. People make poor choices because they don't understand the mathematical alternatives. c. Neoclassic econ is wrapped around numbers.

question

53. What is the prosecutor's fallacy and how did it impact the O.J. Simpson trial? How are conditional probabilities different from probabilities?

answer

a. The probability of a match is mistaken for the probability of not guilty if there is a match. Simpson's defense team was able to quash the statistics related to spousal abuse because they were deemed prejudicial to their case. b. Conditional probabilities are those that depends on something else taking place.

question

54. Are test results automatically as accurate as they claim? Under what conditions might they overestimate the likelihood of having a condition?

answer

question

55. How is Bayes Theorem used to improve estimates?

answer

a. Businesses constantly update information so they can refine their estimates of how to build products and offer services. b. Thus, old information or techniques are replaced with new and better ones or information.

question

56. What is Bayes Search Theorem?

answer

People use a formula called the Bayes Search Theorem to update old information when new information comes along.

question

57. What is Benford's Law? How is it used to detect accounting fraud?

answer

a. This relates to the fact that digits in many real situations are distributed in a predictable, non-uniform way. b. That is, it turns out that the first digit won't be completely random; instead, its chance of appearing instead follows a logarithmic progression.

question

58. How does the human tendency to see patterns affect out perception of random events?

answer

a. People are hardwired to see patterns, and they will create them when they don't exist. b. People believe in conspiracy theories for this reason.

question

59. What is the gambler's fallacy?

answer

a. Something that hasn't occurred yet is about to. b. Three cards in a row have been red, then surely the next will be black c. i.e. Roulette Wheel

question

60. What is the hot hand fallacy?

answer

a. Believed by most people in sports, trends will continue. b. Shooting well in basketball "means you're going to continue to do well on a streak." c. People actually perform at their earned level of ability.

question

61. What is sunk cost? What is the sunk cost fallacy?

answer

a. Two characteristics: 1. Cost that has already been incurred 2. It can't be recovered b. Sunk Cost Fallacy: when people try to get their money back, but it's almost always near impossible.

question

62. What was the general idea behind our study of The Count of Monte Cristo?

answer

Revenge is not the solution, it is a lost cause to waste money and energy to get back at people.

question

63. What is the difference between the dictator and the ultimatum game?

answer

a. The dictator is given a sum of money and then has the opportunity to share it with someone else. Logically, the dictator should keep all of the money because there is no cost from hoarding the prize and the receiver can make no claim on the assets. However, in most cases, the dictator will share some of the value with the second person, often in the range of 30-40% of the original gift. b. In the Ultimatum Game the person with the initial funds may still choose to share or not, but the second person is empowered to accept or reject the offer; if she rejects, neither one gets anything.

question

64. What is the difference in expectations in neoclassical economics vs. real people related to whether more wealth (or GDP) leads to more happiness? What is the income level in the U.S. at which happiness tends to level off?

answer

a. Neoclassic Econ believes that more goods and services are always better b. More GDP should result in more satisfaction c. Real happiness tends to peak once basic needs are satisfied, "money isn't everything" d. $75,000 is the peak amount with which a salary has an effect on happiness.

question

65. How do people who win the lottery often wind up?

answer

a. Most people often lose all money in a year to a year and a half. b. Many are worse off financially than before winning the money.

question

66. What did we learn about Scrooge and Cratchit in A Christmas Carol regarding how a classical economic evaluation of the story might change our opinion of good and bad behavior?

answer

a. Scrooge was following simple economic practices. b. Scrooge was actually being logical about the way he ran his business.

question

67. What are the three characteristics of altruism? Is altruism rational?

answer

a. Altruism is a behavior that confers a benefit to others but requires a cost to the giver, who receives no material benefit from it. b. No, not in an economic sense.

question

68. What do neoclassical economists mean when they talk about "impure altruism"?

answer

a. People only give to charity for social rewards or influence

question

69. What is a bias? Know the definitions of the following common biases to know:

answer

a. Biases: mental shortcuts that don't take much preparation. b. Availability: A rule of thumb that allows people to estimate the probability of an occurrence. c. Cognitive dissonance: A process where a person can't accept new information that conflicts with their deepest beliefs. d. Confirmation: selective perception that emphasizes inputs that conform to our beliefs and simultaneous rejection or devaluation of inputs that contradict our basic beliefs, or paradigms. e. Durability: People tend to overestimate the duration of their reactions, both for positive and negative events. This bias is often related to the purchase of durable goods that people pay significant sums for and expect to function well for a long time. f. Hindsight: The tendency to falsely believe that an outcome was predicated successfully from the beginning. People tend to believe that they previously knew, or could have predicted, the outcome of future events all along. g. Illusion of control: Tendency to believe that outcomes can be influenced when in fact they cannot. This bias relates to superstitions, especially prevalent among athletes. h. Left-digit: This bias arises out of innumeracy, inattention or using shortcuts to evaluate numerical information. The first, or left, digit is viewed as the one with the most significant importance and those to the right are discounted. i. Loss aversion: Psychologically, the possibility of a loss is mentally weighed as more damaging than the same magnitude of gain. Loss aversion is roughly twice as powerful of a motivator as the a gain of an equal amount is. j. Overconfidence: People have an unwarranted faith in their own reasoning, judgment or cognitive ability. Likewise, people tend to rate themselves as better than the population mean; for example, almost everyone rates themselves as an average or above average driver. k. Recency: A predisposition to recall and emphasize recent events and observations (see also durability bias). People assign additional weight to recent behavior, and assume this trend will continue for some time to come. l. Regret aversion: People may refuse to make decisions because they are concerned that in hindsight they will regret their decision. m. Status quo: This bias predisposes people facing a number of choices to select whatever option ratifies or extends the existing condition. People tend to value what they already have or are already experiencing more than an alternative that might provide real gains in enjoyment, functionality or investment return.

question

70. Know some related examples of overconfidence biases, including dieting plans, health club memberships, credit card interest plays, auction behavior, diagnosing heart attacks, etc. (included in the essay).

answer

question

71. What is the "winner's curse"? Which behavioral economist is associated with this term? What are some examples of the winner's curse?

answer

a. People tend to overbid for things b. Richard Thaler c. Vermeer Paintings

question

72. What is regression to the mean?

answer

A return to the average.

question

73. What did we learn about biases and the example of the Vermeer forgery?

answer

Europe's most famous painter. People faked his art pieces, or "re-discovered" new versions.

question

74. What did we learn about cognitive dissonance and the Able Archer story?

answer

The Russians thought the US was running a real attack on them and almost launched real missiles at the USA.

question

75. What is mental accounting? Does mental accounting help or hurt real people in the budgeting process?

answer

a. All assets are supposed to be fungible, although, people put money in mental buckets and think they're different.

question

76. What are fungible assets?

answer

a. This means the assets have interchangeability with other individual goods or assets of the same type. b. Ex: Some people view money in a checking account and a savings account as different funds. c. In reality they own all of the money, and any account could be used to purchase the same things.

question

77.What is Life Cycle Theory? How does it predict people will behave when spending over their lifetime?

answer

a. The life cycle hypothesis: states people should maintain the highest smooth consumption path possible. b. It predicts that people will assume their salary over time, and try to smooth the overall life's worth out evenly over their entire life. c. Plans such as Christmas Clubs and automatic increases in retirement savings from increasing salary levels are effective because they remove the potentially irrational decision to spend the money today. d. People spend too much money today.

question

78. What is the Behavioral Life Cycle Theory? How is it different from Life Cycle Theory?

answer

a. The behavioral life-cycle hypothesis: says that people treat parts of their wealth as non-fungible and noninterchangeable due to mental accounting for current income/assets vs. future income. b. That is, the marginal propensity to consume varies depending on where the income comes from. c. The behavioral version of life cycle theory says instead that people categorize wealth in three areas: 1) Current income, 2) Current assets, 3) Future income. The propensity to consume is greatest for current income and the least for future income.

question

79. What is "intertemporal choice"?

answer

a. An individual's current decisions affect what options become available in the future. b.Theoretically, by not consuming today, consumption levels could increase significantly in the future, and vice versa. c. Ex: Savings, retirement account, etc.

question

80. What is the difference between exponential and hyperbolic discounting? Which one do real people use?

answer

a. Hyperbolic Discounting refers to the tendency for people to increasingly choose a smaller-sooner reward over a larger-later reward. b. When offered a larger reward in exchange for waiting a set amount of time, people act less impulsively (i.e., choose to wait) as the rewards happen further in the future. c. Exponential Discounting: the amount people discount a future reward depends only on the length of the wait and a discount rate that is constant across different wait times. d. To illustrate, many people prefer $100 now to $110 in a day, but very few people prefer $100 in 30 days to $110 in 31 days. e. People use Hyperbolic Discounting

question

81. What is the primary factor that real people consider when evaluating future values?

answer

a. Time, people don't really care about interest rates.

question

82. What does Darwin's Theory of Evolution say about natural selection?

answer

a. Our current behavior is determined by how our brain gradually changing in response to natural selection.

question

83. What is phrenology? Is it accurate at predicting behavior?

answer

a. The idea that the brain dictates the scull size. b. It is not accurate at predicting behavior.

question

84. Know the major parts of the brain, including a general idea of what each area does

answer

brains range in size from about 2.7 pounds to 4.4 pounds

question

85. How does a neuron work?

answer

Accounts of 10% of brain's mass

question

86. What is the "sending" part of the neuron that extends to connect to other neurons? What is the "receiving" part of the neuron called that connects to other neurons? What is the gap between neuronal connections called?

answer

question

87. What is a kluge and how can that process be used to describe evolutionary changes?

answer

in engineering, a clumsy or inelegant solution that works nonetheless b. sometimes random evolutionary changes or adaptations actually worked.

question

88. What is a biological arms race?

answer

constantly improving species that are able to adapt and survive

question

89. Are we good at multitasking? Why or why not?

answer

No. Almost all people are also hardwired to do one thing at a time well, and if we try multitasking, it results in less and less attention paid to each task, contrary to popular belief that all tasks can be accomplished with equal quality.

question

90. What is the difference between the System 1 and the System 2? How do they affect how we respond to inputs? Which one of the systems is running in the background? Which one of the systems is used to make rational decisions?

answer

a. System 1: immediate response system, react and don't think about it. i. Running in the background b. System 2: Thinking brain, we rarely use this system because it is costly i. Used to make rational decisions

question

91. Can reason be separated from emotion?

answer

The current thinking, then, is that emotions and logic are linked together due to biology and can't be separated from one another, regarding of what neoclassical economists want to believe.

question

92. What is the primary process that is memory formed? What are the advantages and disadvantages of this design?

answer

question

93. Is memory consistently reliable and accurate?

answer

a. Memories are biased, not accurate at all. Memories are changed while recalling them.

question

94. Who originated the "peak-end rule"? What does the theory say?

answer

a. Kahneman b. We remember an experience based on two things: 1. The peak of the experience 2. How it ended

question

95. What type of diagnostic machine is used to measure blood flow in the brain? How is that helpful when studying people's reactions?

answer

fMRI fMRI machines can directly measure, in general, where in the brain increased activity is taking place, and at what levels of intensity, so that the researcher does not have to rely on personal reports by the subject.

question

96. Is fairness integral to the understanding of economics? How does classical economic theory feel about fairness?

answer

a. Economists can rationally look at certain situations and see what happened.

question

97. Do efficient markets create moral outcomes?

answer

question

98. What is "economic Darwinism"?

answer

Free Market Capitalism, a form of Social Darwinism predicated on the ability to obtain capital, wherein companies and corporations compete in a Darwinian market that favors whatever is best for business.

question

99. What is synergy? Do company mergers that rely in synergy usually succeed?

answer

the interaction or cooperation of two or more organizations, substances, or other agents to produce a combined effect greater than the sum of their separate effects. No, companies who have nothing in common, who join together, rarely do much better than they were alone.

question

100. What did the Ford Foundation do to change the course of business education in the U.S.?

answer

a. Ford said business education sucked b. Said business education needed more math, econ and finance

question

101. What did the example of the trolley problems tell you regarding real human behavior?

answer

question

102. What generally happened with the 1841 sinking of the William Brown?

answer

The ship hit an iceberg and sank at night. There were only enough lifeboats for 1/3 of the people on board. THe captain and crew sailed away in a life boat, while some crew members were left behind to help the survivors. They threw men over board and were tried when they were rescued.

question

103. Do people often have an incentive to cheat? How do we feel about cheating, in terms of small thefts vs. large thefts?

answer

a. Mental threshold on what is ok to take home i. A pad of paper vs stealing a company car

question

104. Does maximizing profit conflict with ethical business practices?

answer

a. Yes, economics says we shouldn't care if a company is ethical

question

105. How did the drug company we studied get into trouble?

answer

question

106. What is Libor? Why is it important? What did we learn about the Libor scandal?

answer

London Inter-Bank Offered Rate. Libor was created in the 1980s by the banks to be used as a benchmark for setting other rates.

question

107. What is a "benefit corporation"?

answer

a. Only profit matters

question

108. Under what two conditions do crowds of people tend to give the average correct answer?

answer

a. If the crowd is diverse enough b. If crowd is not manipulated

question

109. What is "groupthink"? Is the outcome likely good or bad? What are some examples of bad outcomes with groupthink?

answer

a. Decisions are the opposite of true diverse crowds

question

110. Which economist is known for creating the Efficient Frontier?

answer

Harry Markowitz

question

111. Who created the CAPM model? What does it say?

answer

William F. Sharpe. Capital Asset Pricing Model CAPM divides total risk into two parts: 1)Systemic risk, i.e., the risk of the overall market, and 2)Non-systemic, or security, risk, which is the risk posed by buying a particular stock.

question

119. What is a black swan? Does standard statistical theory take this into account?

answer

a. Something completely unexpected that is destined to happen anyway b. Related to randomness issue c. Term cam up with right before crisis in 2008

question

120. What is value at risk (VaR)? Who uses this and is it accurate? What are the three things that go into determining Var's estimate of risk?

answer

a. Banks use this to measure what is going wrong i. The future will be like the recent past ii. Risk is supposed to follow a standard Bell curve Measure of potential risk in the system.

question

112. Who is Eugene Fama? What hypothesis is he known for, and what are the three conditions of informational efficiency?

answer

Father of Finance. Efficient Market hypothesis a. He said, past information is included in the prices of things traded on the open market

question

113. What is the mathematical reality of how professional investors will compare to market returns?

answer

Professional investors do not typically do better than the market itself.

question

121. What is the difference between a speculator and an investor?

answer

Speculator: a person who invests in stocks, property, or other ventures in the hope of making a profit, but he doesn't have much evidence or knowledge in his stake. Investor: a person or organization that puts money into financial schemes, property, etc. with the expectation of achieving a profit.

question

122. Who said, "There is no sure and easy path to the riches of Wall Street or anywhere else?"

answer

Benjamin Graham

question

114. Who was Sun Tzu and what famous book did he write?

answer

a. He was a Chinese general who produced the classic work, The Art of War, during the Chinese feudal period. b. Art of War

question

115. Are Sun Tzu's principles applicable to business behavior?

answer

Yes. 1) Capture your market without destroying it 2) Avoid your competitor's strength, and attack their weakness 3) Use foreknowledge & deception to maximize the power of business intelligence. 4) Use speed and preparation to swiftly overcome the competition. 5) Use alliances and strategic control points in the industry to "shape" your opponents and make them conform to your will. 6) Develop your character as a leader to maximize the potential of your employees.

question

123. Who was Ben Graham? What were his guiding principles regarding investing the stocks and bonds?

answer

question

124. Who is Warren Buffett, and what was his relationship to Ben Graham? What company does Buffett run? What has made him a successful investor?

answer

question

116. What is the Law of Large Numbers?

answer

question

117. What is the difference between WTA and WTP? What typically happens with transactions involving items that a person already has?

answer

question

125. Know some of the following stock market anomalies and what they mean:

answer

a. January Effect. b. Dogs of the Dow. c. Daily or weekly patterns. d. Data mining. e. Momentum investing. f. Contrarian investing

question

126. In an average year, does active investing beat out index investing? Why or why not might that happen?

answer

question

118. What is regret aversion?

answer

question

127. What is alpha? Do professional investors believe in alpha?

answer

question

128. Why is it hard for investors to beat the average return of the market?

answer

question

129. Does beating the market's return for one year guarantee that you will beat the market return next year? Why or why not?

answer

question

130. What is arbitrage? How can it be used to make markets efficient?

answer

question

131. Who was the originator of the Financial Instability Hypothesis and what did it say? Did the predicted instability happen during his lifetime?

answer

a. Minsky b. When times are good, banks get sloppy in their lending, i. Three Types of Buyers 1. Speculative Buyers 2. Clumsy Buyers

question

132. When Russia defaulted on its sovereign (country) bonds in 1998, what was this event called?

answer

question

133. What did Kindleberger say was the typical progress of bubbles (four steps)?

answer

question

134. Do central bankers believe in efficient markets? Do central bankers intervene during financial crises?

answer

question

135. Know some basic information about the following bubbles and crashes:

answer

a. Tulipmania: Scarcity leads to production, which then leads to no scarcity b. South Sea Bubble: Greater Fool Theory: run by a crook, his interest was in stealing as much as possible. Company supposedly traded with different parts of the world. Was a fake c. Mississippi Scheme: Paper without assets is worthless, use paper money to pay for public debts. Worked well for a time, because gold and silver backed paper, then country printed too much paper money. Run on bank and the whole system failed. d. Panic of 1907: i. No Central Bank ii. No Deposit Insurance 1. JP Morgan helped bring the country out of this e. Crash of 1987: Financial drop with no particular cause, accelerated by computer and fear. Had no defineable cause f. Long Term Capital Management: guys betting on bonds that ended up failing. Their theory was that markets will always be efficient. Smart guys aren't always right, marklets are not always efficient. g. Dot Com Bubble: All of the internet businesses were supposedly good. Flimsy business plans will blow up companies.

STUDY

English Fellow Human Beings Gawain And The Green Knight Literature

Sir Gawain & The Green Knight study guide 71 terms

Elizabeth Hill

71 terms

Preview

Sir Gawain & The Green Knight study guide

question

What genre is Sir Gawain?

answer

Medieval English/ verse romance

question

When was the text of Sir Gawain composed?

answer

Mid to late fourteenth century

question

Who wrote Sir Gawain?

answer

An anonymous author

question

What is this anonymous author often called and why?

answer

\"The Pearl Poet\", because of the poem \"Pearl\" at the end of Sir Gawain

question

What archetype is Sir Gawain?

answer

Arthurian legend

question

Sir Gawain is an example of...?

answer

An alliterative verse, epic poetry, etc.

question

What was the general audience of Sir Gawain?

answer

The \"leisure class\" that arose and did not have to fight, etc.

question

What is the role of a romantic hero?

answer

To search for adventure, fight for an idea, etc.

question

What is chivalry?

answer

The well-defined codes of behavior from medieval times

question

Where did chivalry come from?

answer

The Christian ideas of morality

question

What is the \"Green\" knight symbolic of?

answer

The \"Green Man\" who was a pagan symbol of nature: was not especially bad or especially good -- represents King Arthur & his men's battle between good and evil

question

What is Gawain's shield like?

answer

Red with a golden pentangle on it

question

What does the pentangle represent?

answer

Gawain's \"five fifths\"

question

For what purpose did the author place King Arthur in line with leaders of ancient civilazations?

answer

To show how well-respected King Arthur was, how he was known as the greatest king in medieval times, to show how he was an important leader of medieval times, etc.

question

Why is Sir Gawain and the Green Knight said to be written in alliterative verse?

answer

Because of the meter of the verses and how words in sentences will start with the same letter

question

What does Arthur challenge the Green Knight to do? Why, do you think?

answer

First he asks him to sit down and join them to tell the story; this shows his politeness and chivalry. Later he challenges him to a fight with his men; this shows his faith and honor he has in his court

question

What is the Knight's reaction to this challenge?

answer

First he refuses the offer to sit down, then he refuses to fight Arthur's men and instead play a game

question

How does Sir Gawain rationalize his request of Arthur that he be the one to accept the Knight's challenge? What qualities does he thus show?

answer

Gawain rationalizes his request to complete the Green Knight's challenge by reciting the rules of the game to show he actually wants to do it and isn't being rash. This shows the qualities of courage and strength, and also thinking things through.

question

What bargain does the Green Knight strike with Gawain?

answer

That Gawain will have to report to him in a years time to be murdered

question

Describe the reaction of the gathered crowd to the spectacle that enfolds before Arthur.

answer

The crowd is shocked into silence most of the time, but at other times are most likely scared or gasping

question

Why did the lords and ladies have \"sorrow\" for Gawain? Why did they \"make mirth\" for his sake?

answer

They felt bad for Gawain because they knew he would soon be riding off to his death, they felt they had to \"make mirth\" (become happy) to cheer him up

question

Why do you think the Gawain poet aggrandizes Gawain by describing his equipment and clothing in such extravagant and hyperbolic detail?

answer

The poet did this to emphasize on the strength and courage of Gawain who was sacrificing his life, and making him seem almost \"super-human\" to be more of a hero

question

What might the significance of the birds that are embroidered on Gawain's suit be?

answer

The significance of these birds are most likely to go with the symbolism of the color green, and nature: peace, fertility, rebirth, and how Gawain is bringing peace to his kingdom

question

What are Gawain's \"five virtues\"?

answer

1. to be faultless in his five senses; 2. never to fail in his five fingers; 3. to be faithful to the five wounds that Christ received on the cross; 4. to be strengthened by the five joys that the Virgin Mary had in Jesus (the Annunciation, Nativity, Resurrection, Ascension, and Assumption); 5. and to possess brotherly love, courtesy, piety, and chastity.

question

Summarize the attitude of Gawain's kinsmen to the King who allowed his knight to dual with a Green Knight \"for empty pride\", \"caught in a cavil [conspiracy] in a Christmas game\"?

answer

The people treated Gawain like a celebrity being on King Arthur's court

question

What do you think is the dramatic significance of the fact that the townspeople are unable to give Gawain directions to the Green Chapel of the Green Knight?

answer

This shows how many people actually go to the Green Chapel, and how distant, remote, mysterious and \"unreal\" it actually is

question

Gawain is praised more extravagantly by those who await his appearance for dinner than by any who knew him at the Round Table, earlier in the epic. Why, do you think, he seems to have grown in the poet's—and reader's—eyes?

answer

After taking on such a courageous challenge, Gawain has become the hero of the story and the reader's and writer treats him with more respect

question

For what reason do Gawain and his host sit together, \"soberly\"?

answer

They sit together \"soberly\" as they both know it is the last time they will be together before Gawain goes off to the Green Knight

question

Speculate on the symbolic significance of the two ladies—one old and weathered, the other \"fresh as the first snow\"?

answer

They could represent two halves of Gawain's life; how once so recently he was young, and new and had a whole life ahead of him; and the old one represents how he knows his life is coming to an end and how the burden is taking it's toll on him

question

Why, do you think, Gawain feigns sleep when the \"lady\" appears at his bedside?

answer

He pretends to be asleep to avoid contact with her as she is a married woman

question

What is the \"truce\" that the lady proposes to Gawain?

answer

She offers him an extra kiss every night instead of staying alone with him --> then gives him green girdle on last day

question

Why is it said that Gawain decides to keep the girdle the lady had given him? Is such a reason truly chivalric?

answer

It is not considered chivalric as it was done from giving in to temptations

question

What were the three animals that were hunted on each day?

answer

Deer, boar, and fox

question

What does the green girdle do?

answer

Protects the wearer from any harm

question

Who is Gringolet?

answer

Gawain's horse

question

What does Gawain ask from Christ as he leaves the castle?

answer

To bless it and keep it from harm, and wishing joy on the host and the host's wife

question

What does the guide say to Gawain?

answer

That no one survives an encounter with the Green Knight, and if Gawain turned around he would not say anything

question

What does Gawain say to the guide?

answer

He refuses his offer as he doesn't want to be a coward

question

Describe the Green Chapel

answer

It is on a mound-like crevice, like a cave

question

What happens the first time the Green Knight goes to strike Gawain?

answer

Gawain flinches and the Green Knight mocks him

question

What happens the second time the Green Knight goes to strike Gawain?

answer

Gawain doesn't flinch, but the Green Knight stops the blade and praises him

question

What happens the third time the Green Knight goes to strike Gawain?

answer

He comes down hard on Gawain's neck and leaves a small cut

question

What does Gawain do after he survives the Green Knight?

answer

Challenges him to a fight

question

What is the view on woman?

answer

There is a passage where Gawain talks about the deceitfulness of women and how they brought down many historical figures

question

Who is the Green Knight revealed to be?

answer

Bertilak de Hautdesert, a servant

question

What does the court of Camelot offer to do to cheer up Gawain?

answer

Wear green girdles in honor of him

question

What is the New Year's feast interrupted by?

answer

a knight on horseback

question

Describe the knight.

answer

gigantic and green from head to toe

question

What does the knight carry?

answer

a bough of holly and an ax

question

What does the text say about the color green?

answer

It is a magic color

question

What does the knight suggest?

answer

that one of the knights deal him a blow with the ax and that he will return the favor, dealing the knight an equal blow, in a year and a day

question

What does Gawain say about himself?

answer

he is the least brave and least intelligent of the company and that the only worthy thing about him is that he is of Arthur's blood

question

How does Gawain make his speech?

answer

out of extreme modesty

question

What did the knight do when Gawain chopped his head off?

answer

he did not falter or fall; rather he sprang up, grabbed his head and held it up for all to see; then he climbed back on his horse, still holding the head up

question

What must Gawain do?

answer

find the knight in a year and a day at the Green Chapel and submit to a blow like that received by the Green Knight

question

What would happen to Gawain if he went through with the deal?

answer

he would be killed

question

What happened regarding Gawain and the green scarf?

answer

He did not give the lord the green scarf despite the promise that he made to the lord to exchange whatever the two had gained during each day

question

What does Gawain keep the scarf as a symbol of?

answer

his covetousness

question

Who sent the green knight and why?

answer

Morgan le Fay sent the Green Knight to test the Knights of the Round Table to see if their reputation for chivalry was deserved and to try to kill Guenevere from fright

question

What does the Green Knight claim regarding the Knights of the Round Table?

answer

he claims he seeks no contest and calls the knights \"beardless children\"

question

What does the Green Knight warn Gawain of?

answer

if the agreement is not kept, Gawain shall be known all over the world as a coward

question

What do Gawain's actions reveal?

answer

the knight's moral code values courage and despises covetousness

question

Why does Gawain want to remember his meeting with the Knight?

answer

so he will behave more virtuously in the future

question

What are the magical and supernatural elements in the story?

answer

the knight is green, he continues to live although his head is cut off, and the lord Gawain encounters is really the knight

question

What do these magical elements add to the story?

answer

they add to the romance and to the challenge

question

Why does Gawain judge himself harshly?

answer

he had lived up to most of his ideals and he seemed to have learned from his mistake

question

Were others willing to forgive him?

answer

yes

question

What does the Green Knight demonstrate in his challenge?

answer

bravery and courage

question

What does the Green Knight demonstrate toward Gawain?

answer

courtesy and gentleness

question

How does the Green Knight not uphold the virtue of faith and honesty?

answer

he fails to tell Gawain who he really is

question

a belt worn over the shoulder and chest to support a sword

answer

baldric

STUDY

Fellow Human Beings Maintaining Social Order Sellers And Buyers

World History NCFE Review – Flashcards 80 terms

Claire Scott

80 terms

Preview

World History NCFE Review – Flashcards

question

civilization

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territory in which people have developed organization

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5 aspects of civilization

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records, institutions, technology, specialization, advanced cities

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cultural diffusion

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process during which ideas, beliefs or goods spread from one group of people to another

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mummification

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process of embalming the dead to prevent decaying, utilized in Ancient egypt

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Harappa

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major city in Indus River Valley, known for both its city planning and its plumbing system

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Fertile Crescent

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area of land characterized by rich farmland in SW Asia, considered to be the "cradle of civilization"

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polytheism

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religion with more than one deity or god

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Hammurabi's Code

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first written code of laws given by Babylonians after conquering Mesopotamia

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theocracy

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form of government based on religious power or appointment from a deity, leader = divine figure

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pharaoh

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ruler of Egypt who had absolute power and was considered to be a god himself

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Mesopotamia

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first known civilization, developed the wheel and cuneiform, established on the Tigris an Euphrates Rivers

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Indo-Europeans

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Group of people who migrated suddenly from the steppes into Europe, India, Africa and SW Asia

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Hittites

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An Indo-European people group who settled in Anatolia but eventually migrated and forced Egypt to sign a peace treaty

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Indo-Aryans

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Group f people who existed on the Indian subcontinent, possibly emerged from the Indo-Europeans, had caste system

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Vedas

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collections of sacred writings produced by the Aryans, became the sacred text of Hinduism

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Karma

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the concept that actions and deeds cause the cycle of cause and effect ( good actions vs. bad actions -> impact on one's life)

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Enlightenment

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state of perfect wisdom, aspired to by both Hindus and Buddhists

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Caste System

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strict social structure that determines much of one's life, established at birth

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Buddhism

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religion based on Dharma (teachings of Siddhartha), the Eightfold path and the four noble truths

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Hinduism

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religion based on the Vedas, believes in reincarnation based on karma until one reaches enlightenment, like caste system

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Reincarnation

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belief that people's spirits continue to be reborn into the world until enlightenment or nirvana is achieved

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Filial piety

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devotion to one's family, as emphasized by the Chinese philosophy of Confucianism

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Islam

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Abrahamic faith that points to Muhammad as the final prophet, requires followers to commit to its Five Pillars

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Christianity

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teaches that humans are inherently evil, but that Jesus paid the penalty and offers eternal life through a relationship with him

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Nirvana

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state of release from pain and suffering, ends the cycle of reincarnation

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Four Noble Truths

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the essence of Buddha's teachings identify the truth of suffering, cause of suffering, end of suffering, and path to end suffering

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Trojan War

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A 10-year war fought in which the Mycenaean army attacked the city of Troy

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Homer

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the author of the Illiad and the Odyssey, and I revered as the greatest of ancient Greek poets

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Persian War

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a series of wars fought between the Persian Empire and the Greeks

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Phalanx

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a military formation of foot soldiers armed with spears and shields

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Peloponnesian War

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a war in which Athens and its allies were defeated by Sparta and its allies

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Macedonia

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a region located to the north of Greece, birthplace of Alexander the Great

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Hellenistic

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a combination of Roman, Hellenistic and Greek cultures prominent within the empire of Alexander the Great, a blend of cultures formed during Alexander the Great's rule of Greece and the surrounding territories

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Philosopher

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a thinker who uses logic and reason to investigate the nature of the universe, human society and morality

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Alexander the Great

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leader who conquered Greece, Egypt and Persian and was known for his ability to rule with tolerance

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Darius III

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Persian king who fled from Alexander's army multiple times, his family was captured by Alexander yet protected

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Consul

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one of the two elected officials in the Roman Republic who was in control of the army and government

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Punic Wars

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a series of three wars between Rome and Carthage, significant because it asserted the strength of a young Rome

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Pax Romana

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a 200-year period of peace within the borders of the Roman Empire, began with the rule of Augustus

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Plebeian

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a member of Roman society who was a common farmer, artisan, or merchant; majority of the population

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Augustus

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formally known as Octavian, consolidated power after the death of Marc Antony and called himself the "exalted one"

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Patrician

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a member of Roman society who was part of the wealthy, privileged upper class

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Republic

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form of government in which power rests with the citizens to vote for their leaders/representatives

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Triumvirate

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a group of three leaders who shared control of the Roman government (1st - Caesar, 2nd Augustus and Marc Antony)

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Hannibal

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Carthaginian leader who took his troops (with elephants) north to attack Rome

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Constantine

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Roman emperor who converted to Christianity and ended the persecution with the Edict of Milan

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Diocletian

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Roman emperor, known for limiting personal freedoms (especially toward Christians) and dividing the empire

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Atilla

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a powerful Hun chieftain credited with attacking and causing the eventual collapse of the Roman Empire

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Aqueduct

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a pipe line or channel built to carry water to populated areas, the Romans utilized this for extensive empire

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Constantinople

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capital of the Easter Roman Empire (and later the Byzantines), named for the emperor who built it

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Qur'an

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holy text of Islam

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Shari'a

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Islamic body of law to regulate life of Muslims, based on Sunna and Qur'an

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Umayyads

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Islamic caliphates after period of civil war, Shi'a/Sunni split occurs as a result

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Hajj

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Pilgrimage to Mecca, performed as a duty by Muslims

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Mosque

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Islamic place of worship

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House of Wisdom

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located in Baghdad, center of advancement and education during Islamic Golden Age

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Chandra Gupta II

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Indian emperor, secured borders, increased trade and ushered in the Golden Age

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Muhammad

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the last prophet of Allah who became a political and military leader of the Muslims

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Allah

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Islamic deity

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Ka'abah

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large cube structure in Mecca to which Muslims pray regularly

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Sahara

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largest desert in the world, located in Africa

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Sunni

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Branch of Islam whose members believe that Muslim rulers should follow the Sunna

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Ezana

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Aksum king who conquered territory and converted to Christianity

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Caliph

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Supreme religious and political leader in Muslim government

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Shi'a

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branch of Islam whose members believe that only descendants of Muhammad are rightful rulers

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Abbasids

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Islamic caliphates, overthrew Umayyads, experienced Golden Age

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Gupta Empire

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India's second empire, experienced Golden Age of India

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Islam

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Religion based on Muhammad's teachings of the Five Pillars as directed by Allah

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Kingdom of Aksum

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Early African kingdom, became large international trading center until Islamic invaders

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Asoka

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Mauryan emperor converted to Buddhism, became non-violent & tolerant of other religions

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Persians

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Cyrus the Great (use of satraps), Darius the Great (Royal Road)

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New Kingdom

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Egyptian golden age, Akhenaten, Tutankhamen, Ramses II

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Harrapans

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Indus River valley, indoor plumbing mysterious disappearance

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Qin Dynasty

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Commissioned the Great Wall of China, burning of books, legalism

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Assyrians

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Extremely militaristic, conquered Phoenicians, conquered by Persians

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Han Dynasty

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Utilized the Silk Road, Empress Lu, Wang Mang

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Olmec and Zapotec

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Early Mexico structured city-center at Monte Alban

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Hittites

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Chariots, iron weapons, peace treaty with Egypt

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Chavin, Nazca, Moche

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Early Peru, mysterious lines that form images on the ground

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Phoenecians

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Phonetic alphabet, purple dye, use of Carthage as a commercial shipping colony

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