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IB Psychology – Flashcards 16 terms

Lewis Edwards

16 terms

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IB Psychology – Flashcards

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What is Conformity?

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Conformity is the term used for the convergence of individual's thoughts, feelings, and behaviour towards a group's norms, and this can be the result of real or imagined pressure.

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Informational Social Influence

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Informational social influence is based on our desire to be right. We look to others whom we believe to be correct, to give us information about how to behave, particularly in novel or ambiguous situations. Sherif's (1935) study of the emergence of group norms demonstrated that people will use each other as a source of information when a situation is unclear.

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Normative Social Influence

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Normative social influence is based on our desire to be accepted and liked. We conform because we think that others will approve of and accept us. Asch's (1951) study is a good example of normative social influences.

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Sherif (1935) - Aims

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Aim: Sherif (1935) conducted an experiment with the aim of demonstrating that people conform to group norms when they are put in an ambiguous situation.

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Sherif (1935) - Method

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Sherif used a lab experiment to study conformity. He used the autokinetic effect - this is where a small spot of light (projected onto a screen) in a dark room will appear to more, even though it is still (i.e. it is a visual illusion. It was discovered that when participants were individually tested their estimates on how far the light moved varied considerably (e.g. from 20cm to 80cm). The participants were then tested in groups of three. Sherif manipulated the composition of the group by putting together two people whose estimate of the light movement when alone was very similar, and one person whose estimate was very different. Each person in the group had to say aloud how far they thought the light had moved.

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Sherif (1935) - Results

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Sherif found that over numerous estimates (trials) of the movement of light, the group converged to a common estimate. The person whose estimate of movement was greatly different to the other two in the group conformed to the view of the other two. Sherif said that this showed that people would always tend to conform. Rather than make individual judgements they tend to come to a group agreement.

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Sherif (1935) - Conclusion

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The results show that when in an ambiguous situation (such as the autokinetic effect) a person will look to others (who know more/better) for guidance (i.e. adopt the group norm). They want to do the right thing but may lack the appropriate information. Observing others can provide this information.

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Sherif (1935) - Evaluation

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A weakness of this study is that it only measures conformity in a very ambiguous situation. It was almost inevitable that people would conform as the answer is so unclear (and in fact there isn't really a correct answer unless you know it is an illusion). It can also be argued that Sherif failed to actually measure conformity to group norms because when the participants were placed in groups, there were only three people; not justifiably big enough to be a 'group'.

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Asch (1951)

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Asch had noted the research carried out earlier by Sherif and wanted to set up a situation in which there was a clear, right answer to a simple task - the judgement of line length. Asch wished to see if people would conform when a clearly wrong answer was systematically given by other group members. This experiment examined conformity by looking at majority influence.

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Asch (1951) - Aims

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Asch wished to access what would happen when people were confronted with a majority who were plainly wrong in their judgements, to see if they would change their own views to conform to the majority. Majority influence takes place when a person changes their attitudes, beliefs or actions in order to fit in with a larger group. An everyday example of this would be following a fashion trend you don't like or saying that you had enjoyed a film that everyone else had when in reality you didn't.

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Asch (1951) - Method

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Asch tested 123 American male college students who worked in groups between seven and nine in size. In each trial only one real (naïve) participant was tested - the others were actually confederates working for the experimenter, acting in a pre-arranged way. In each trial the members of the group were shown two cards, one with a single 'reference line' and a second with three comparison lines, one of which was the same length as the reference line. Confederates gave the wrong answer on 13 out of 18 trials. The genuine participant was alwaus the last but one to answer.

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Asch (1951) - Results

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Participants went along with the wrong answer given by the majority on nearly 37% of the critical trials. 76% of the participants conformed on at least one critical trial. After the experiment, Asch asked participants to explain their conformity, most said they had conformed in order to avoid criticism and social disapproval. 25% of participants never conformed, which illustrates the importance of individual differences). 5% of participants conformed on each trial. The average conformity rate on the critical trials was 37%.

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Asch (1951) - Conclusion

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Because the answers on the critical trials were obviously (objectively) incorrect, Asch's study shows the impact that a majority can have on an individual. However, the majority doesn't have the same impact on every individual. In fact, Asch was interested in the social and personal conditions that help individuals resist group pressure.

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Asch (1951) - Evaluation

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Asch's study took place in the USA in the 1950's, an era known for conformity to social norms. Perrin and Spencer (1981) suggested that the Asch effect was a "child of its time". They carried out an exact replication of the original Asch experiment using engineering, mathematics and chemistry students as subjects. The results were clear cut: on only one out of 396 trials did an observer join the erroneous majority. They argue that a cultural change has taken place in the value placed on conformity and obedience and in the position of students. In America in the 1950s, students were unobstructive members of society whereas now they occupy a free questioning role.

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Asch (1951) - Evaluation

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One one level it can be claimed that Asch's research was useful because it showed how individuals can conform when subject to majority influence (even when they privately do not agree). However, Moscovici et al (1972) questioned whether Asch actually measured majority influence. They argued that the numerical majority (the confederates) actually represent an unorthodox, unconventional (minority influence) viewpoint when giving the incorrect answer; the numerical minority (the naïve participant) represents the conventional (majority) 'truth'. A way of interpreting Asch's results is to say that the unconventional, minority viewpoint (the confederates' purposely incorrect answers on the critical trials) held sway over the conventional, majority view (the 'obvious', objectively correct answer) a third of the time (the overall conformity rate).

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Asch (1951) - Evaluation

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Smith and Bond analysed conformity studies carried out between 1952 and 1994 that had used the same (or similar) procedures as Asch's original study. This resulted in total of 133 studies carried out in 17 countries. Some countries such as the US and UK were classified as individualistic and others, such as Japan and Fiji, collectivist. The results showed that collectivist countries tended to show higher levels of conformity than individualist countries. However, it can also be questioned whether the testing procedure is applicable to other cultures. The whole process of being 'tested' and asked questions by an experimenter may not make sense in some cultures (particularly those without a formal education system).

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Psychology – Chapter 16 (Social psychology) – Flashcards 26 terms

Ben Russell

26 terms

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Psychology – Chapter 16 (Social psychology) – Flashcards

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Social psychology

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The scientific study of how individuals behave, think, and feel in social situations

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Culture

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An ongoing pattern of life, characterizing a society at a given point in history

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Social roles

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Expected behavior patterns associated with particular social positions (such as daughter, worker, student)

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Ascribed roles

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Assigned to a person or are not under personal control: male or female, son, adolescent, inmate

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Achieved roles

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Voluntarily attained by special effort: spouse, teacher, scientist, bandleader, criminal

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Role conflict

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Trying to occupy two or more roles that make conflicting demands on behavior

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Group structure

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The network of roles, communication pathways, and power in a group

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Group cohesiveness

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The degree of attraction among group members or their commitment to remaining in the group

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In-group

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A group with which a person identifies. Example: nationality, ethnicity, age, education, religion, income, political values, gender, sexual orientation, etc.

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Out-group

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A group with which a person does not identify. (prejudice towards other groups)

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Status

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An individual's position in a social structure, especially with respect to power, privilege, or importance

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Norm

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A widely accepted (but often unspoken) standard of conduct for appropriate behavior

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Attribution

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The process of making inferences about the cause of one's own behavior, and that of others

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Situational demands

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Unstated expectations that define desirable or appropriate behavior in various settings and social situations

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Self-handicapping

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Arranging to perform under conditions that usually impair performance, so as to have an excuse for a poor showing

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Fundamental attribution error

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The tendency to attribute the behavior of others to internal causes while attributing one's own behavior to external causes (situations and circumstances)

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Cognitive dissonance

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An uncomfortable clash between self-image, thoughts, beliefs, attitudes, or perceptions and one's behavior

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Persuasion

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A deliberate attempt to change attitudes or beliefs with information and arguments

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Conformity

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Bringing one's behavior into agreement or harmony with norms or with the behavior of others in a group

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Compliance

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Bending to the requests of a person who has little or no authority or other form of social power

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Obedience

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Conformity to the demands of an authority

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Social loafing

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The tendency of people to work less hard when part of a group than when they are solely responsible for their work

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Social facilitation

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The tendency to perform better when in the presence of others

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Coercion

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Being forced to change your beliefs or you behavior against your will

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Brainwashing

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Engineered or forced attitude change involving a captive audience

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Cult

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A group that professes great devotion to some person and follows that person almost without question; cult members are typically victimized by their leaders in various ways

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FINAL psychology – Flashcards 116 terms

Kenneth McQuaid

116 terms

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FINAL psychology – Flashcards

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_____________ is a tendency to believe that people generally get what they deserve. A) Just-World Phenomenon B) Fundamental attribution error C) Self-servicing bias D) Situational

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Just world phenomenon

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The fact that husbands and wives both report doing more than 50% of the household chores is an example of _____. A) self-handicapping B) the fundamental attribution error C) the self-attribution error D) the self-serving bias

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The self- serving bias

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The results of a cross-sectional marketing study to determine how age affects people's beliefs about family purchases and financial planning were criticized on the grounds that the data was influenced by cohort effects. This means that _____. A) some of the subjects belonged to ethnic minorities B) the subjects were self-selected by their friends and neighbors C) the older groups of subjects lived during the depression D) only 63% of the questionnaires were returned

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The older groups of subjects lived during the depression

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From implantation through the 8th week, the major body organs and systems develop during this period. This period of pregnancy is called: A) Embryonic B) Fetal C) Zygotic D) Germinal

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Embryonic

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The first motor movements a newborn exhibits are limited to _____. A) bowel movements B) "mewling and puking" C) fine motor movements D) reflexes

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Reflexes

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Which of the following sensory systems is MOST poorly developed at birth? A) Taste B) Smell C) Vision D) Touch

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Vision

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_____ is the psychological development that occurs during the period between childhood and adulthood A) Egocentricism B) Identity C) Autonomy D) Adolescence

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Adolescence

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Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding menopause? A) It is the cessation of menstruation. B) It occurs between the ages of 45 and 55. C) It is the result of decreases in estrogen production. D) It is strongly associated with severe mood swings, depression, and loss of sexual interest.

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It is strongly associated with severe mood swings, depression, and loss of sexual interest.

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Mental speed declines with age, and general information processing and much of memory are largely ___________ by the aging process. A) affected B) unaffected C) reduced D) slowed

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Unaffected

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The Hayflick limit refers to the _____. A) maximum human life span B) amount of damage the human heart can sustain C) genetically controlled maximum number of cell divisions D) maximum number of times a given immune cell can perform its function

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Genetically controlled maximum number of cell division

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Accommodation occurs when new information _____. A) is used "as is" B) fits into an existing schema C) results in adjusting old or creating new schemas D) is taken in and used

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Results in adjusting old or creating new schemas

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The four stages of Piaget's cognitive development model are _____. A) assimilation, accommodation, adaptation, and association B) sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, and formal C) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational D) sensorimotor, precognitive, operational, and abstract operational

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Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational

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When five-month old Jessica learns that mommy continues to exist even when she is quietly resting in another room, Jessica has developed _____. A) sensory permanence B) perceptual constancy C) perceptual permanence D) object permanence

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Object permanence

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The ability to think abstractly or hypothetically occurs in Piaget's _____ stage. A) egocentric B) post-operational C) formal operational D) concrete operational

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Formal operational

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Extreme forms of self-consciousness and concerns for physical appearance are common in adolescents, who tend to exhibit the early formal operational characteristic called _____. A) the personal fable B) adolescent operations C) the imaginary audience D) the egocentric fable

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The imaginary audience

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_____ is a strong affectionate bond with special others that endures over time. A) Bonding B) Attachment C) Love D) Intimacy

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Attachment

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Eric is demanding and disobedient, has no respect for the property or rights of others, and is impulsive, immature, and out of control. According to Baumrind, it is MOST likely that his parents are engaged in _____ parenting. A) abusive B) authoritarian C) authoritative D) permissive

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Permissive

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The major detrimental difference between individualistic and collectivist cultures is _____. A) the order of stages of moral development B) the order of stages of psychosocial development C) the resolution of the initiative vs. guilt stage of psychosocial development D) which needs and goals are emphasized

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Which needs and goals are emphasized

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Five-year-old Tyler believes "bad things are what you get punished for." Tyler is at Kohlberg's _____ level of morality. A) concrete B) preconventional C) postconventional D) punishment oriented

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Preconventional

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Calvin would like to wear baggy, torn jeans and a nose ring, but he is concerned that others will disapprove. Calvin is at Kohlberg's _____ level of morality. A) conformity B) approval seeking C) conventional D) preconventional

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Conventional

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Someone who burns his country's flag just because the law says he can is reasoning at the _____ stage of moral development; whereas someone who burns his country's flag because he believes that his country has lost its legitimacy is reasoning at the _____ stage. A) punishment and obedience; individual principle B) individual principle; individual principle C) law and order; social contract D) individual principle; instrumental-exchange

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Law and order; social contract

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Which of the following is NOT one of Thomas and Chess's temperament styles? A) An easy child who is happy, relaxed, agreeable, adjusts readily B) A difficult child who is moody, easily frustrated, tense, over-reactive C) A child who is slow-to-warm-up, shy and withdrawn D) A child with colic who cries inconsolably for several hours

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A child with colic who cries inconsolably for several hours

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The belief that adult personality reflects how an individual has met or resolved the challenges and crises that occur in eight stages of development is the definition of _____. A) Erikson's psychosocial stages of development B) Freud's psychosexual stages of development C) Thomas and Chess's theory of temperament development D) Kohlberg's model of moral development

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Erikson's psychosocial stage of development

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Chelsea is a toddler who has authoritarian parents. Her parents do not allow her to make any decisions on her own. As a result, Chelsea may have difficulty resolving the _____ developmental stage. A) autonomy versus shame and doubt B) trust versus mistrust C) initiative versus guilt D) industry versus inferiority

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Autonomy versus shame and doubt

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In Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, the establishment of a sense of self and a role in society is dependent upon successfully resolving which of the following challenges? A) generativity vs. stagnation B) ego integrity vs. despair C) identity vs. role confusion D) intimacy vs. isolation

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Identity vs. role confusion

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Erikson's identity crisis refers to _____. A) parents telling their adolescents to be someone they aren't B) peers convincing adolescents to behave against parental morals C) the inner conflict related to serious soul-searching D) amnesia about one's identity in a time of crisis

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The inner conflict related to serious soul- searching

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Forty-year-old Carl is very proud that he has the fastest car on the road and the finest house on the block, but feels lonely and isolated when he goes home to his family. Carl is likely to be in Erikson's _____ stage of development. A) ego integrity vs. despair B) generativity vs. stagnation C) intimacy vs. isolation D) identity vs. role confusion

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Generativity vs. stagnation

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Which needs and goals are emphasized

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_____ has consistently been found to be a key factor in successful marriages. A) Realistic expectations B) The ability to fight for equity C) Satisfying sexual activity D) Emotional stability

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Realistic expectations

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What is the most common reason for girls dropping out of high school? A) Abuse B) Drug use C) Pregnancy D) Poverty

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Pregnancy

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Research shows that depression and poverty are among the consequences suffered by _____. A) children of alcoholics B) teenage mothers C) males who use drugs in high school D) young people who do not go to college

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Teenage mothers

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A child who can adapt effectively in the face of threats is demonstrating _____. A) rapid recovery B) resiliency C) flexibility D) adaptability

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resiliency

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The _____ theory of aging suggests that adjustment to retirement is fostered by mutual withdrawal between the elderly and society. A) disengagement B) withdrawal C) activity D) death-preparation

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Disengagement

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Research on aging in the United States indicates that elderly women have more _____ than elderly men. A) sexual partners B) patience C) friends D) income

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friends

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Lionel recently lost his wife and is experiencing guilt, anger, and resentment. Occasionally, he has vivid dreams that she is still alive, and sometimes even sees her waiting for him on the front porch swing when he comes home from work. It is MOST likely that Lionel is in the _____ stage of grieving. A) numbness B) disorganization and despair C) yearning D) bargaining

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Yearning

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With regard to sexuality, _____ is the set of beliefs, values, and norms that subtly encourage male sexuality and discourage female sexuality. A) the double standard B) androsexism C) paternalism D) the book called The Rules

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The double standard

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Eva Marie has learned that society expects girls to play with dolls rather than trucks. This means she understands her _____. A) sexual orientation B) gender schema C) gender role D) gender

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Gender role

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Bradford wears female clothing because it is sexually arousing. Billy wears female clothing because he believes he is female and wants others to perceive him this way. Bradford is an example of _____, whereas Billy is an example of _____. A) transsexualism; cross-dressing B) a female impersonator; someone "going in drag" C) transvestitism; transsexualism D) transvestitism; cross-dressing

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Transvestitism; transsexualism

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The case of "Bruce/Brenda" best demonstrated that _____. A) circumcision is a dangerous operation B) sex-reassignment should never be done C) gender identity has more to do with environment than with biological anatomy D) biology plays a role in gender identity formation

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Biology plays a role in gender identity formation

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Which of the following groups of people generally have higher self-esteem, are more socially competent and motivated to achieve, and exhibit better overall mental health? Those who score _____. A) high on either masculinity or androgyny B) high on both masculinity and femininity C) low on both masculinity and femininity D) high on either femininity or androgyny

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High on either masculinity or androgyny

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Who were three major contributors to today's knowledge about sexuality? A) Ellis, Kinsey, and Masters and Johnson B) Dr. Ruth, Dr. Laura, and Howard Stern C) Bart Simpson, Beavis, and Butthead D) Hugh Hefner, Larry Flynt, and Ken Starr

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Ellis, Kinsey, and Masters and johnson

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Masters and Johnson researched the _____ aspects of human sexuality. A) physiological B) cultural C) genetic D) psychological

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Physiological

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Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle? A) Excitement ◊ orgasm ◊ plateau ◊ resolution B) Plateau ◊ excitement ◊ orgasm ◊ climax C) Arousal ◊ excitement ◊ plateau ◊ orgasm D) Excitement ◊ plateau ◊ orgasm ◊ resolution

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Excitement, plateau, orgasm, reolution

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A homosexual orientation appears to be the result of _____. A) seduction during childhood or adolescence by an older homosexual B) a family background that includes a dominant mother and a passive, detached father C) a hormonal imbalance D) genetics and biology playing a dominant role

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Genetics and biology playing a dominant role

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Telling derogatory jokes about homosexuality and/or avoiding any behavior that might be interpreted as "homosexual" may be examples of _____. A) heterosexism B) erotophobia C) sexual prejudice D) homoerotica

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Sexual prejudice

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Dyspareunia is defined in your textbook as _____. A) a lack of interest in sex B) painful intercourse C) a lack of orgasmic capability D) an unusually excessive interest in sex

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Painful intercourse

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The _____ branch of the nervous system is dominant during sexual arousal, whereas the _____ branch is dominant during orgasm and ejaculation. A) parasympathetic; sympathetic B) autonomic; somatic C) central; peripheral D) cerebral; spinal

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Parasympathetic; sympathetic

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This is a drug used to treat erectile problems. A) Alcohol B) Venus Flytrap C) Viagra D) Valium

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Viagra

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AIDS stands for _____. A) Active Immune Disorder and Symptoms B) Automatic Immunological Distress Syndrome C) Auto-Immune Deficiency Syndrome D) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

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Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

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_____ refers to one's biological state of being male or female. A) Gender identity B) Sex C) Gender role D) Gender

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Sex

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In recent times, the case for instincts in humans has been supported by _____. A) incentive theorists B) behaviorists C) sociobiologists D) psychoanalysts

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sociobiologists

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Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched? A) Drive-reduction theory: external stimuli B) Incentive theory: external stimuli C) Cognitive theory: attributions and expectancies D) Maslow: hierarchy of needs

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Drive reduction theory: external stimuli

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Gaston and Page got married on a high bridge and started their honeymoon with a bungee-jump from the bridge. Which type of motive BEST explains their behavior? A) The achievement motive B) The drive reduction motive C) The arousal motive D) The need for self-actualization

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The arousal motive

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According to your textbook, the MOST important cure for test anxiety is _____. A) advance preparation and hard work B) deep breathing C) meditation D) an aerobic workout

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Advanced preparation and hard work

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According to the cognitive theory of motivation, which of the following students is MOST likely to study hard for their next psychology exam? A) Sasha believes she earned an "A" on this exam because the questions were easy. B) Endora believes she is a witch and can get whatever she wants by waving her arms and casting a spell. C) Martino believes he can bring his "C" up to an "A" or "B" next time. D) Clemy believes he studied as hard as he could for this exam, is very discouraged that he only got a "D.".

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Martino believes he can bring his C up to an A or B next time

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Hunger, arousal, and achievement are three basic _____. A) emotions B) feelings C) responses D) motives

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Motives

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_____ is a feeling of fullness that has an effect on the perception of hunger. A) Insatiety B) Protrudation C) Satiety D) Grandiosity

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satiety

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Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa? A) Bone fractures, osteoporosis, amenorrhea, and loss of brain tissue B) Very few of its victims will die C) Loss of teeth, severe throat and stomach damage D) Nearly 90% of its victims will die

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Bone fractures, osteoporosis, amenorrhea, and loss of brain tissue

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The three components of emotion are _____. A) cognitive, physiological, and behavioral B) perceiving, thinking, and acting C) positive, negative, and neutral D) active/passive, positive/negative, direct/indirect

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Cognitive, physiological, and behavioral

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This theory that you perceive an event, you body reacts, and then you interpret the bodily changes as a specific emotion. A) Cannon-Bard B) James-Lange C) Facial feedback D) Schachter's two-factor

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James-Lange

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According to the facial feedback hypothesis, expressing an emotion should ______. A) diminish it B) change it C) intensify it D) have no impact on it

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Intensify it

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Complex emotions like jealousy, embarrassment, or love are BEST explained by _____. A) the Cannon-Bard theory B) the James-Lange theory C) Schachter's two-factor theory D) the facial feedback hypothesis

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Scachter's two- factor theory

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Extrinsic rewards tend to decrease enjoyment of an activity because they _____. A) are secondary rather than primary reinforcers B) are negative rather than positive reinforcers C) change our explanation for engaging in an activity D) provide inadequate justification for most activities

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Change our explanation for engaging in an activity

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Besides fear, anger, joy, and happiness, which of the following emotions have been found by all cross-cultural researchers in this field? A) Sign of pleasure or displeasure B) Shame and guilt C) Interest and anticipation D) Shame/guilt and interest/anticipation

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Sign of pleasure or displeasure

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What percent of women in western industrialized countries show signs of an eating disorder? A) 15 B) 25 C) 40 D) 50

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Windigo psychosis, a disorder characterized by delusions and cannibalistic impulses, and is only found in Indian tribes in Canada, is an example of a _____ mental disorder. A) culture-bound B) culturally universal C) functional D) organic

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Culture bond

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According to your text, the BEST definition of factor analysis is _____. A) an objective measure of personality traits or factors B) a statistical procedure used to determine the most basic units contained in a large array of data C) the theory of personality that uses a variety of factors in analyzing character traits D) a projective measure of personality traits or factors

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A statistical procedure used to determine the most basic units contained in a large array of data

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Radford is emotionally unstable, insecure, anxious, and moody; Quinn is calm, even-tempered, easygoing, and relaxed. According to the Five-Factor model, it is likely that Radford scores _____; and Quinn scores _____. A) low on agreeableness; low on conscientiousness B) low on adaptability; high on adaptability C) high on neuroticism; low on neuroticism D) high on introversion; low on eagerness

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High on neuroticism; low on neuroticism

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Compared to _____ theories that describe personality, _____ theories attempt to explain personality. A) behavior; trait B) psychoanalytic; humanistic C) humanistic; behavior D) trait; psychoanalytic

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Trait; psychoanalytic

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According to Freud, the three mental structures that form personality are the _____. A) unconscious, preconscious, and conscious B) oral, anal, and phallic C) Oedipus, Electra, and sexual/aggressive D) id, ego, and superego

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Id, ego and superego

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The _____ operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification. The _____ operates on the reality principle, and the _____ contains the conscience and ego-ideal, which provide moral guidance for the ego. A) psyche; ego; id B) id; ego; superego C) conscious; preconscious; unconscious D) oral stage; anal stage; phallic stage

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id; ego ; superego

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The first and most basic defense mechanism, which blocks unacceptable impulses from coming into awareness, is called _____. A) regression B) oppression C) repression D) denial

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repression

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Dr. X is sexually attracted to her newest client. Rather than having sex with him, she makes passionate love to her husband that night. This is an example of the defense mechanism called _____. A) displacement B) projection C) sublimation D) regression

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displacement

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Gisele is in the process of developing successful relationships with her same-sex peers and refining her female gender role. She is also working on her intellectual skills. According to Freud, Gisele is in the _____ stage of development. A) industry vs. inferiority B) concrete operational C) latency D) conventional

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latency

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Conan constantly wants to be near his mother, receiving her affectionate touching and kissing. He wants nothing to do with his father, and actively stands between his parents to keep them from hugging each other. According to Freudian theory, it is likely that Conan is _____. A) developing a neurosis B) developing homosexual tendencies C) in the middle of the Oedipus complex D) being overindulged by his mother and underindulged by his father

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In the middle of the Oedipus complex

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Which of the following is NOT associated with Adler's individual psychology? A) will-to-power B) inferiority C) social interest D) self-efficacy

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self- efficacy

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Which of the following personality theorists contributed the concept of power envy? A) Freud B) Jung C) Adler D) Horney

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horney

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If you took the _____ approach to personality, you would emphasize internal experiences, like feelings and thoughts, and the basic worth of the individual. A) humanistic B) psychodynamic C) personalistic D) motivational

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Humanistic

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Rogers thought that _____ is necessary for a child's uniqueness and positive self-concept to unfold naturally. A) permissive parenting B) a challenging environment C) unconditional positive regard D) a friendly neighborhood

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unconditional positive regard

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Wilson took this psychology course once before and failed. However, he refuses to give up, and believes that he can earn a "C" or better this time even though he still has to work part-time. It is likely that Wilson _____. A) suffers from delusions of grandeur B) has a high locus of control C) has high self-efficacy D) is engaged in reciprocal determinism

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Has high self efficiency

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Criticisms of the social-cognitive approach to personality include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) It ignores the contribution of emotion on personality. B) It overlooks the developmental component of personality. C) It does not meet the standards for scientific research. D) It ignores the role of the unconscious in determining personality

answer

It does not meet the standards for scientific research

question

The _____ approach represents a blending of several theories of personality. A) unification B) association C) biopsychosocial D) phenomenological

answer

Biopsychosocial

question

The MMPI-2 is an example of a(n) _____ personality test. A) unreliable B) invalid C) objective D) subjective

answer

Objective

question

The idea that a person will "project" his inner thoughts, feelings and conflicts onto an ambiguous stimulus is the basis for the _____ methods of personality assessment. A) subjective B) observational C) projectional D) projective

answer

projective

question

Two important criteria for evaluating the usefulness of tests used to assess personality are _____. A) concurrence and prediction B) reliability and validity C) consistency and correlation D) diagnosis and prognosis

answer

reliability and validity

question

In psychoanalysis, free association refers to _____. A) unproductive sessions for which the client is not charged B) a thought process which has no underlying cause or motivation C) reporting whatever comes to mind without monitoring its contents D) purposefully bizarre and disconnected associations

answer

reporting whatever comes to mind without monitoring its contents

question

The displacement of thoughts, feelings, fears, wishes, and conflicts from past relationships onto new relationships is called _____. A) transference B) countertransference C) projection D) displacement

answer

transference

question

Casey believes it is useless to keep writing because she has received so many manuscript rejections, and only one screenplay acceptance. Beck would consider Casey's depression to be due to her use of _____. A) overgeneralization B) all-or-nothing thinking C) selective perception D) magnification

answer

Selective perception

question

Critics suggest that Beck and Ellis ignore, deny, or minimize the importance of _____ on patient's behaviors. A) unconscious dynamics, emotion, and prior experiences B) thoughts and beliefs C) rationality D) irrationality

answer

Uncouncious dynamics, emotion, and prior experiences

question

In Rogerian therapy, the _____ is responsible for discovering maladaptive patterns. A) therapist B) analyst C) family D) client

answer

Client

question

This is listening with total attention by reflecting, paraphrasing, and clarifying. A) Speaker-centered listening B) Speaker-focused listening C) Unconditional positive listening D) Active listening

answer

Active listening

question

_____ treats the family as a unit, and members work together to solve problems. A) Aversion therapy B) Encounter groups C) Self-help groups D) Family therapy

answer

Family therapy

question

Eudoxie covers her husband's alcohol-related absences by lying to his boss. A behavior therapist is MOST likely to say that Eudoxie's problem is _____. A) her marriage B) best treated by attending Alanon meetings C) her husband's alcohol-related behavior D) lying to her husband's boss

answer

Lying to her husbands boss

question

This is a gradual process of extinguishing a learned fear-response by associating a hierarchy of fear-evoking stimuli with deep relaxation. A) Hierarchical training B) Systematic desensitization C) Aversion conditioning D) The relaxation response

answer

Systemic desensitization

question

Which of the following is NOT a type of antidepressant drug? A) Tricyclics B) MAO (monoamine oxidase) inhibitors C) SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) D) Lithium

answer

Lithium

question

In a lobotomy, a neurosurgeon would sever the pathways between the frontal lobe and the _____. A) parietal lobe B) cerebellum C) thalamus and hypothalamus D) limbic system

answer

Thalamus and hypothalamus

question

This is the use of a magnetic coil to create a magnetic field and deliver controlled electrical currents to precise areas of the brain. A) rTMS or repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation B) MRI or magnetic resonance imaging C) PMS or periodic magnetic stimulation D) cECT or controlled electroconvulsive therapy

answer

RTMS or repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation

question

A _____ has usually had four years of graduate school and one or more supervised internships; a _____ is a medical doctor who has completed a one-year internship and a three-year supervised residency in the biological and therapeutic treatment of mental disorders. A) licensed clinical social worker; psychologist B) psychologist; licensed clinical psychologist C) psychologist; psychiatrist D) counselor; psychologist

answer

Psychologist; psychiatrist

question

The effectiveness of therapy can BEST be determined by _____. A) self-report from patients regarding progress B) therapist assessment of progress C) meta-analysis of prior research D) family and friend surveys

answer

Meta-analysis of prior research

question

Cross-cultural research suggests that cognitive dissonance may be a result of placing a high value on _____. A) independence and individualism B) connection with others C) appraisal by others D) honesty and integrity

answer

Independence and individualism

question

Charlton says that " handguns should be registered, and owners should be required to keep a trigger lock on them,". This is an example of which component of Charlton's attitude about guns? A) Affective B) Cognitive C) Behavioral D) Emotional

answer

cognitive

question

In the classic dissonance experiment, which group had more attitude change? A) The group that was paid $1 B) The group that was paid $20 C) The control group D) There was no difference in attitude change between the two groups

answer

The group that was paid 1 dollar

question

Prejudice is _____; discrimination is _____. A) a behavior; a belief B) unethical; illegal C) an attitude; a behavior D) innate; learned

answer

an attitude; a behavior

question

Which of the following principles of social psychology may have made it easier for American soldiers to kill Vietnamese civilians in the 1970s? A) Outgroup homogeneity B) Ingroup favoritism C) Homeostatic similarity D) Reciprocal dislike

answer

Outgroup homogeneity

question

According to Monica Moore's research regarding female flirting, which of the following is INCORRECT? A) Flirting may be the single most important thing a woman can do to increase her attractiveness. B) Men appear to welcome clear signals of female interest. C) Signaling interest usually means a woman is also interested in having sex with a man. D) Touch usually signals a higher level of flirting.

answer

Signaling interest usually means a woman is also interested in having sex with a man

question

Need _____ is the tendency to be attracted to people whose qualities we admire but personally lack. A) dissimilarity B) differential C) heterogeneity D) complementarity

answer

complementarity

question

Two problems with romantic love are that it _____. A) lasts too long and uses up too much energy B) is based on mystery and fantasy C) lacks compassion and real attraction D) is immature and rare after early adulthood

answer

Is based on mystery and fantasy

question

The two MAJOR kinds of social influence are _____. A) low-ball and foot-in-the-door B) persuasion and agreement C) agreement and disagreement D) conformity and obedience

answer

conformity and obedience

question

With regard to the norm for personal space, which of the following persons is MOST likely to break the U.S. norm by standing too close to an American adult? A) A Scandinavian tourist B) An American teenager C) A Mediterranean guest D) A violent prisoner

answer

A Mediterranean guest

question

Compared to Milgram's original study, when did obedience INCREASE? A) When orders were given by an ordinary person B) When the teacher chose the shock level C) When the teacher watched two others disobey D) When the teacher read a list of words while another delivers the shock

answer

when the teacher read a list of words while another delivers the shock

question

The set of normative expectations connected with particular social positions is your text's definition of a _____. A) normative reference B) reference group norm C) role D) responsibility

answer

role

question

A group's movement toward either riskier or more conservative behavior, depending on members' initial dominant tendency is called _____. A) a risky shift B) a cognitive reversal C) group polarization D) groupthinking

answer

group polarization

question

In groups of two or more people, this is the tendency to assume that someone else will take action. A) The problem of assumption B) The social loafing phenomenon C) Faulty interpretation D) Diffusion of responsibility

answer

diffusion of responsibility

question

A social influence technique in which a first, small request is used as a set-up for later requests is known as _____. A) the low-ball technique B) the foot-in-the-door technique C) the infiltration technique D) ingratiation

answer

The foot- in the door technique

question

In most cultures, the most important attribute in a potential husband is _____. A) reproductive capability B) physical attractiveness C) economic resources and social status D) youth and aggression

answer

economic resources and social status

question

A cultural rule of behavior that prescribes what is acceptable or acceptable in a given situation is called a _____. A) norm B) motivator C) behavioral determinant D) meta-rule

answer

norm

STUDY

Avoid Eye Contact Foundations Of Professional Nursing Group Psychology Internal Locus Of Control Internal Working Model Methods And Techniques Nursing Nursing-LPN Positive Self Regard

Yalom’s Group Therapy Techniques – Flashcards 30 terms

Kenneth McQuaid

30 terms

Preview

Yalom’s Group Therapy Techniques – Flashcards

question

Universality

answer

feeling of having problems similar to others, not alone

question

Altruism

answer

helping and supporting others

question

Instillation of hope

answer

encouragement that recovery is possible

question

Guidance

answer

nurturing support & assistance

question

Imparting information

answer

teaching about problem and recovery

question

Developing social skills

answer

learning new ways to walk about feelings, observations and concerns

question

Interpersonal learning

answer

finding out about themselves & others from the group

question

Cohesion

answer

feeling of belonging to the group, valuing the group

question

Catharsis

answer

release of emotional tension

question

Existential factors

answer

life & death are realities

question

Imitative behavior

answer

modeling another's manners & recovery skills

question

Corrective recapitulation of family of origin issues

answer

identifying & changing the dysfunctional patterns or roles one played in their primary family

question

Problem solving groups

answer

deal with problems that could possibly have been solved through individual effort; but the group adds diverse resources, error safeguards and motivation

question

Education groups

answer

designed to advance learning; demographically similar members with different ability levels

question

Experimental groups

answer

simply being part of the group will be good for its members, screening is almost always recommended

question

T-groups

answer

emphasizing feedback, problem solving and decision making; aim to improve organizational relationship skills by focusing on the group process

question

Personal growth and encounter groups

answer

typically meeting for a set time, these groups encourage risk taking for personal growth and development

question

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing

answer

Group Development Stages

question

Forming

answer

team meets and learns about the opportunities and challenges, and then agrees on goals and begins to tackle the tasks

question

Storming

answer

participants form opinions about the character and integrity of other participants and feel compelled to voice these opinions

question

Norming

answer

Resolved disagreements and personality clashes result in greater intimacy, and a spirit of co-operation emerges

question

Performing

answer

with group norms and roles established, group members focus on achieving common goals, often reaching an unexpectedly high level of success

question

The Monopolist

answer

person who seems compelled to chatter on incessantly

question

The Silent Client

answer

rarely benefits significantly from the group; rarely speaks, if ever

question

The Boring client

answer

group member who is massively inhibited, who lacks spontaneity, who never takes risks

question

The Help-Rejecting Complainer

answer

implicitly or explicitly request help from the group by presenting problems and then rejects the help offered

question

The Psychotic or Bipolar Client

answer

client who began as a functioning member of the group who develops psychosis

question

The Schizoid Client

answer

the distant client who avoids interactions with others and group processing

question

The Borderline Client

answer

instable moods in groups; critcalyl suicidal; temper; very impulsive

question

The Narcissistic Client

answer

group member that believes they are so special and that everyone is envious of them

STUDY

Connection With Others Emphasize The Importance Emphasize The Importance Of First Hand Experience Group Psychology Internal Working Model Mental And Physical Positive Self Regard Problem Solving Therapy

Lecture 8 : Group, Family, & Couples Therapy : GROUP THERAPY – Flashcards 47 terms

Joseph Fraser

47 terms

Preview

Lecture 8 : Group, Family, & Couples Therapy : GROUP THERAPY – Flashcards

question

The model of group therapy that has been designed to provide clients with a "corrective emotional experience"

answer

Yalom's Interpersonal Group Therapy

question

Which of the following are NOT amongst Yalom's curative factors of group therapy?

answer

Providing directive advice

question

Group Therapy themes

answer

Maladjustment related to interpersonal relationships

question

Group therapy rationale

answer

Treatment in a social context Support Cost-effective

question

Closed group therapy

answer

The group has the same participants from start to finish. The same people begin and end the group together

question

Open group therapy

answer

Members may join or leave at any time so there are potentially different members throughout.

question

Characteristics of group therapies

answer

Can be open or closed Short-term vs. Ongoing Professionally led vs. peer support Group therapy vs. Support group

question

Professionally led vs. peer support group therapies

answer

Professional training in the leader vs. one of the group members leading the group.

question

Group therapy vs. support group

answer

Group therapy more structured process and deeper changes sought. Support group- provision of emotional support to the group members.

question

Group Therapies can be...

answer

Support groups Education/specific treatment groups Psychoanalytic Gestalt groups Behavior Therapy

question

Support groups

answer

Provide a psychosocial network and offer opportunities for problem-sharing, usually for patients with chronic mental and physical illness for whom a more exploratory dynamic form of therapy would not be indicated.

question

Education/specific treatment groups

answer

Psycho-educational group provides information/education to the group members. E.g. what is involved in bereavement. Treatment group - deeper goals for change E.g. Facilitate the bereavement process

question

Psychoanalytic Group Therapies

answer

Group therapy with specific psychoanalytic goals such as: -making the unconscious conscious, -working through conflicts. -group members as reconstructed family and transference issues.

question

Gestalt Group Therapy

answer

Assisting group members in experiencing life in the moment, linking thoughts feelings and behaviors. Focus is on one group member at a time. "hot seat" asked to experience their feelings & behavior. (or "lose their mind" and find their senses. *At times also use role playing, dreams, and dialogues between patients.

question

In what type of group therapies are other group members are observers who are called upon to make comments about the individual in the hot seat?

answer

Gestalt therapy

question

Effectiveness of Gestalt therapy

answer

Lack of research to support effectiveness generalizing beyond the group setting.

question

Behavior Group Therapy

answer

Group therapy with behavioral goals such as: -modeling new behaviors -practicing new behaviors - reinforcing appropriate positive behaviors (and ignoring unwanted behaviors). Therapist plays a very active directive role. (providing lessons, skills training , & homework assignments.

question

Effectiveness of Behaviour Group Therapy

answer

Research supports efficacy of BT and CBT groups for treatment of depression, pain, anxiety & other problems.

question

Assertiveness in behaviour therapy

answer

Practicing assertive behavior in a group setting is the treatment of choice.

question

Encounter Groups - a.k.a. personal growth, T-groups, human potential groups etc.

answer

Popularized in 1960s 8-20 members Short (hours or days) Value interpersonal honesty, exploration, confrontation, emotional expression, and self-disclosure.

question

What is the goal in personal growth groups/encounter groups?

answer

Personal growth. Some types of experience or specific change

question

T-groups / Training Groups

answer

A form of group psychotherapy where participants themselves (typically, between eight and 15 people) learn about themselves (and about small group processes in general) through their interaction with each other. They use feedback, problem solving, and role play to gain insights into themselves, others, and groups through face-to-face interactions.

question

The Human Potential Movement (HPM)

answer

Arose out of the milieu of the 1960s and formed around the concept of cultivating extraordinary potential that its advocates believed to lie largely untapped in all people. The movement took as its premise the belief that through the development of "human potential", humans can experience an exceptional quality of life filled with happiness, creativity, and fulfillment. Those who begin to unleash this assumed potential often find themselves directing their actions within society towards assisting others to release their potential

question

What kind of encounter group has its roots in humanism?

answer

The Human Potential Movement (HPM)

question

(Lieberman, Yalom, and Miles, 1973) Study on Therapy Groups found that groups were very successful in targeting their goals. The emotional activation in clients as well as executive functioning changed over the group. What were the leader variables they found?

answer

Emotional activation of clients, executive functioning, caring, and meaning attribution

question

Pros of Internet Groups

answer

Anonymous Allows people greater access, especially in cases of disability or geographic factors Flexible and convenient

question

Cons of Internet Groups

answer

Technology lacks reliability and privacy protection, Stories or people may be fictionalized

question

Number of members - __-___ is the ideal size of a group

answer

8-12

question

Role of leader in humanistic groups

answer

validate group members, genuineness, positive unconditional regard

question

Role of leader in psychoanalytic groups

answer

Assist group members in bringing the unconsciosu into consciousness.

question

Psychoanalytically Oriented Therapy Group

answer

The group is the vehicle through which the individual can express and eventually understand unconscious processes & develop better awareness & adjustment. Focus is still on free association, transference, interpretation of resistance, & working through.

question

Why is psychoanalytic Group therapy more effective than individual psychoanalysis?

answer

Observing how others communicate. Lean on other group members. Receive and give help

question

Psychodrama (Moreno, 1946)

answer

Role play with therapist & auxiliary egos (i.e. other group members) This acting brings about catharsis and increased insight & self-understanding. Research supports effectiveness (but small sample)

question

Psychoanalytic Oriented Group: Transactional analytic (Berne, 1961)

answer

3 chief ego states: Child Ego State, parent Ego State, and Adult Ego State. The goal of the Ego States is to have an Adult Ego State. *All of these are part of the ego and have their origin in childhood.

question

Other Models of Psychodynamic Group Therapy

answer

*- All models influenced by Freudian Psychodynamic therapy. 1. Interpersonal group psychotherapy 2. tavistock model 3. group analytic model

question

Object Relations Therapy

answer

To provide the client with a corrective emotional experience

question

Interpersonal Group Therapy (Yalom)

answer

Group members collectively encouraged to allow adult thoughts & feelings to modify earlier traumatic experiences.

question

Yalom's) concept of the social microcosm suggests that group members learn their ____________ styles by interacting with other group members.

answer

interpersonal

question

Interpersonal Group Therapy 9 Curative aspects (Yalom)

answer

Group cohesiveness Instilling hope Universality - knowing you're not alone Altruism Interpersonal learning Imitative behaviour Corrective re-processing of primary family Catharsis Education / Imparting information

question

In the Tavistock Model (Bion, 1961, the group operates at 2 levels:

answer

1. "Work group" 2. "Basic assumptions group"

question

The Tavistock Model : Work group

answer

Attempting to meet complete group tasks in an orderly fashion

question

The Tavistock Model : Basic Assumptions Group

answer

(i.e. primitive defense responses to anxiety generated by being in a group). - Dependency - someone else (usually group leader) has the power, ability, knowledge to satisfy their needs - Fight or Flight - behave as if some external threat - Pairing - 2 members long intense discussion

question

The analysts function in the Tavistock model

answer

Analyst (opaque) - "outside of the group" not interacting with individual members.

question

Group Analysis Model (Foulkes, 1948)

answer

Group function: Primary impulse is to communicate

question

Effectiveness of Group Therapy

answer

More effective than no treatment

question

Toseland & Siporin (1986) reviewed 74 studies on the Effectiveness of Group Therapy

answer

75% as effective as individual therapy and 25% more effective than individual therapy

question

Important considerations on the effectiveness of Group Therapy

answer

Patient selection - presenting problem, personality, primary defence mechanisms. Need to consider the group cohesion

STUDY

Connection With Others Group Psychology Interact With Others Internal Working Model Mental Health Past And Present Positive Self Regard

Attachment Theory, Schema Therapy, Jung’s Theory, Alder’s Theory, and Horney’s Theory (EXAM 2) – Flashcards 56 terms

Tiffany Hanchett

56 terms

Preview

Attachment Theory, Schema Therapy, Jung’s Theory, Alder’s Theory, and Horney’s Theory (EXAM 2) – Flashcards

question

Freud's view of therapy

answer

a corrective experience - chance to change previous experiences

question

Attachment Theory

answer

-importance of early experiences -focus on role of experiences w/ caregivers -building of emotional control (Freud focused on bodily function control) -huge research base

question

Infant Attachment

answer

-experiences caregivers and forms mental models of experience -influence later behavior -primate development (Harlow-cloth covered wire mothers, Suomi- peer raising as model for insecure attachment)

question

Warm, responsive caregiving leads to...

answer

secure attachment

question

Inconsistent/absent/dismissive caregiving leads to....

answer

insecure attachment or avoidant behavior

question

Research: Strange Situation - Mary Ainsworth

answer

- 20 min session w/ child. parent, stranger in unfamiliar environment -child explore environment? -reacts to leave/return of caregiver? -interaction w/ stranger? Interpretation of results: anxious/avoidant: seems not to value caregiver, not bothered, mask for anxiety -- rebuffed by caregiver for attachment behavior- communication of needs no influence on caregiver Anxious/ambivalent: clingy, difficult to comfort on return, has learned that parent might not always be there trying to hook them in, poor soothing Correlates w/ adulthood behaviors

question

Childhood attachment

answer

-secure base from which to explore -Circle of Security (Dr. Marvin) -secure and insecure attachments -adds components of earned secure: ability to reach secure state through "corrective attachment experiences" w/ therapist, etc. -add ideas of emotional control

question

Adult attachment

answer

-secure and insecure attachment -Mary Main's Adult Attachment Interview

question

Mary Main's Adult Attachment Interview

answer

-ask about memories of experiences w/ important adults when a child -person gives overall impressions then supporting details -coherence b/w impressions and details and amount of details -doesn't matter positive or negative memories -important how person processed experiences and makes sense/relates them -secure, preoccupied, dismissive, unresolved

question

States of Mind regarding adult attachment

answer

-secure: exhibits a coherent valuing of attachment, freedom to evaluate past/current relationships -insecure: restricted ability to evaluate current/past relationships, overgeneralizing negative experiences -disorganized: lack of resolution over significant loss, lack of coherence

question

Schema Therapy

answer

-focus on relationship b/w current behavior and previous experiences -difficulties in childhood lead to maladaptive behaviors in adulthood (not usually aware of this) -therapist points out situations triggering problematic behavior based on schema

question

Schemas

answer

-current events trigger schema causing person to act in way that might have been adaptive at younger age but not adaptive now -activated under certain conditions: promotes intense affect, bodily sensations, self-defeating actions or inclinations -relate to earlier unmet needs

question

Different Schemas

answer

abandonment, mistrust/abuse (everyone going to use me for their own purposes), emotional deprivation (no one I can count on emotionally), defectiveness/shame, self-sacrifice, emotional inhibition, social isolation, unrelenting standards

question

Process of Schema Therapy

answer

-therapist identifies prominent schemas -identifies unmet needs -identifies when client has active schema (use corrective experience to meet need aka. limit setting)

question

Carl Jung vs. Freud

answer

-shared interest in unconscious -thought Freud condescending and caused rift -Jung focused on relationships and seeing harmony not always about conflict

question

2 kinds of unconscious

answer

1. personal: thoughts, memories, experiences that are momentarily not being thought about and or repressed because too emotionally difficult 2. collective: transpersonal in nature, collection of wisdom, passed on

question

motivational nature of personality

answer

seek balance among aspects of individual's personality

question

nature of unconscious

answer

storehouse of personal memories/info from past generations

question

dynamics of personality

answer

separate development and balanced integration among various elements of personality through reciprocal exchange of psychic energy

question

Jung's structural view of mind

answer

look at slide 21 in ppt classes 6 and 7

question

Regions of mind

answer

-conscious ego: center of conscious awareness of internal/external experiences and processes -personal unconscious: storehouse of repressed, emotionally threatening memories and complexes -complex: emotionally charged concept -prospective function: help person process future info/experiences (dreaming about what might happen in next few days) -compensatory function: help balance conscious and unconscious aspects of personality (shy person dreaming about being life of party) -collective unconscious: storehouse of knowledge/experiences from past generations and archetypes

question

archetypes

answer

universal ideas passed from generations due to continued usefulness -persona: predisposition to conform to social norms -animus: masculine aspects of females -anima: feminine aspects of males -shadow: primitive aspects of personality -self: motivating force seeking to achieve unity and harmony b/w aspects

question

Purpose

answer

flow of psychic energy to seek balanced expression among elements of personality

question

Principle of opposites

answer

each action involving shift of psychic energy in one element of personality will flow to element w/ less energy

question

principle of equivalence

answer

psychic energy taken from one element of personality system is found elsewhere

question

principle of entropy

answer

excessive psychic energy in one element of personality will flow to element w/ less energy

question

Classic application

answer

word association test

question

contemporary application

answer

identification of personality types

question

Identification of two major personality types

answer

1. extroverted attitude: investment of psychic energy into events/objects outside of individual 2. introverted attitude- investment of psychic energy reflected in more internal/personal events

question

Functions of Personality

answer

how individuals understand their environment -sensation: through senses -thinking: through ideas and intellect -feeling: through affective responses -intuition: through sense of internal judgment

question

8 Jungian types

answer

1. extrovert/sensation: seeks new sensory experiences 2. extrovert/thinking: response based on logic and intellect 3. extravert/feeling: influenced by mood of enviro 4. extravert/intuition: reacts based on degree of personal interest 5. introvert/sensation: extreme internal responses 6. introvert/thinking: philosophical and theoretical responses 7. introvert/feeling: internalizes thoughts and feeling 8.introvert/intuition: seeks personal meaning in experiences

question

Jung's strengths

answer

-richness of ideas -expanded view of personality (lifelong personality development) -methodological impact

question

Jung's limitations

answer

-difficulty of testing concepts (abstract) -limited acceptance (reference to other subjects)

question

Alder's Individual Psych

answer

-social nature of motivation -motivational components of personality

question

social nature of motivation

answer

desire to serve interest of group over personal interests = driving force of personality

question

motivational components

answer

-organ inferiority: physical limitations -inferiority feelings: self-perceived weakness and limitations -compensation: actions to overcome inferiority feelings -striving for superiority: go beyond compensation to reach full potential -social interest: considering needs of others when developing full potential -style of life: develop one's full potential -creative self: interprets information for maximizing full potential

question

dynamics of development

answer

style of social interaction and expression of social interest developed

question

childhood and adolescence

answer

acquisition of social skills as basis for learning to interact successfully w/ others

question

parent-child interactions

answer

child's early interactions w/ parents serve to influence personality style/expression of social interest

question

birth-order

answer

influence personality style/expression of social interest

question

nature of parent-child interaction

answer

-pampered child: overprotective parenting style resulting in adulthood characterized by low social interest by placing one's needs above others -rejected child: parenting style associated with rejection and neglect resulting in a personality style in adulthood characterized by low social interest and a lack of trust in and social participation with others

question

birth-order positions

answer

-first: caring for later-born siblings leads to high social interest in adulthood -second: motivated to surpass older siblings leads to high social interest to help others in adulthood -youngest: older siblings serve as models for striving superiority in adulthood -only child: spending considerable time with adults without competition from other siblings leads to high levels of intellectual ability

question

Alder's personality assessment

answer

-Social Interest Scale: objective self-report, measures extent individuals possess personal characteristics reflective of social interest -Behavioral Correlates: high SIS scores = liked by and helpful toward others -Attitudinal Correlates: high SIS scores = personal optimism and interpersonal equality/harmony

question

Alder's strengths

answer

-impact on contemporary psych -the optimist (individuals motivated by need to help others)

question

Alder's limitations

answer

-less systematic theorizing (simplistic) -limited empirical investigations

question

Horney's motivational nature of personality

answer

establishment of sense of social security in cultural context -motivational components: sources of awareness of lack od social security -basic hostility: children feel toward parent when they fail to create secure environment -basic anxiety: sense of uneasiness children experience when in threatening environment

question

neurotic trends

answer

set of irrational beliefs/desires to achieve social security -neuroticism: highly anxious, pessimistic thinking, avoid problems -morbid dependency: highly insecure, overly conform to expectations of others to get affection

question

3 strategies for achieving social security

answer

1. moving towards people: cooperation to obtain affection from others 2. moving against people: aggression to obtain power over others 3. moving away from people: social and emotional withdrawal from others

question

healthy use of strategies

answer

flexibility and variation as defined by nature of situation

question

maladaptive use of strategies

answer

rigidity in use of single strategy regardless of nature of situation

question

Horney's Feminine Psych

answer

-feelings of hostility for same-sec parent based on perceived threat to child's sense of safety as well as source of competition -womb envy emphasized admiration by males for superiority of women b/c birth

question

Coping strategies of diabetics (Horney)

answer

-self effacement: moving towards people, dependency on others to control their diabetes -need for mastery: moving against, tendency to take personal control of their diabetes -resignation: moving away, become extremely regimented in personal treatment of diabetes to isolate themselves

question

CAD personality assessment

answer

self report w/ 3 subscales to measure basic Horneyan interpersonal coping styles 1.compliant subscale: moving towards others 2.aggressive subscale: moving against others 3.detached subscale: moving away from others

question

HCTI personality assessment

answer

self report w/ 3 subscales to measure basic Horneyan interpersonal coping styles 1.compliance scale: moving toward, tendency to help or have concern for others or desire for approval 2.aggression scale: moving against, emotional control and desire to be powerful 3.detachment scale: moving away, desire for social isolation and self sufficiency

question

Horney's strengths

answer

-reinterpretation of female personality -emphasis on contribution of culture

question

Horney's limitation

answer

-generated limited empirical research

STUDY

Acute Infectious Disease Case Fatality Rate Frame Of Reference Fundamentals Of Epidemiology Group Psychology Positive Test Result Public Health

Determinants of Disease – Flashcards 79 terms

Darren Farr

79 terms

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Determinants of Disease – Flashcards

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system

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the assembly of factors connected with each other in some form of coherent relationship; all working towards the same or common goal

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An epidemiologic study must begin with

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1. the various states of health (or disease) 2. the transition from one state to the other (dynamism) 3. the determinants that affect the system under study 4. the relationships amongst the variables as these interact to affect the outcome of the specific condition under study

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determinant

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any factor, which when altered can affect the frequency with which the disease can occur in a population or any characteristic which affect the health of the population

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Determinants of disease can be divided into:

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1. primary determinants 2. secondary determinants 3. intrinsic determinants 4. extrinsic determinants

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Primary determinants

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factors whose variations exert a major effect in inducing disease; frequently are necessary causes ex: distemper virus, rinderpest virus

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Secondary determinants

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correspond to predisposing, enabling and reinforcing factors

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Intrinsic determinants

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aka. endogenous genetically governed factors ex: host, agent, vectors

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Extrinsic determinants

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aka. exogenous environmental influences, which alter the frequency of disease occurrence

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A critical premise of epidemiology:

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disease and other health events do not occur randomly in a population, but are more likely to occur in some members of the population than others because of risk factors that may not be distributed randomly in the population

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Important use of epidemiology

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to identify the factors that place some members at greater risk than others

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Determinants of disease include:

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1. Both the etiologic agents directly responsible for disease and other factors that facilitate exposure, multiplication, and spread in the population =agent, host, and environmental factors

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Epidemiologic triad or triangle

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traditional model for infectious disease; consists of an external agent, a susceptible host, and an environment that brings the host and agent together -disease results from the interaction b/w the agent and the susceptible host in an environment that supports transmission of the agent from a source to that host -Agent, host and environmental factors interrelate in a variety of complex ways to produce disease -proven inadequate for cardiovascular disease, cancer, and other diseases that appear to have multiple contributing causes without a single necessary one

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Agent

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an infectious microorganism or pathogen: a virus, bacterium, parasite, or other microbe -must be present for disese to occur; however, presence of that agent alone is not always sufficient to cause disease -can also include chemical and physical causes of disease /injury

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Pathogenicity

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ability to cause disease

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Host

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the humans/animals who can get the disese -risk (intrinsic) factors can influence an individual's exposure, susceptibility, or response to a causative agent -exposure is often influenced by behaviors such as sexual practices, hygiene, and other personal choices choices as well as by age and sex -susceptibility and response to an agent are influenced by factors such as genetic composition, nutritional and immunologic status, anatomic structure, presence of disease or medications, and psychological makeup

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Environment

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extrinsic factors that affect the agent and the opportunity for exposure

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Environmental Factors

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1. physical factors = geology and climate 2. biologic factors = insects that transmit the agent 3. socioeconomic factors = crowding, sanitation, and the availability of health services

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Component causes & causal pies

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-an individual factor that contributes to cause disease is shown as a piece of a pie -after all the pieces of a pie fall into place, the pie is complete and disease occurs -a disease may have more than one sufficient cause, with each sufficient cause being composed of several component causes that may or may not overlap

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Component causes

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individual factors; may include intrinsic host factors as well as the agent and the environmental factors of the agent-host-environment triad -a single component cause is rarely a sufficient cause by itself

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Sufficient cause

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the complete pie, which might be considered a causal pathway

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Necessary cause

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a component that appears in every pie or pathway, because without it, disease does not occur

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Note to self

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an agent that is usually harmless in healthy persons may cause devastating disease under different conditions

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Note to self

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a particular disease may result from a variety of different sufficient causes or pathways

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Note to self

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public health action does not depend on the identification of every component cause

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Note to self

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disease prevention can be accomplished by blocking any single component of a sufficient cause, at least through that pathway

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Host Factors

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- the type of events that an agent can trigger in a host including manifested lesions and clinical analysis of data by "host" may use inherent characterisiitcs of the host, biologic characteristics (immune status), activities (occupation, leisure activities, use of meds/tobacco/drugs) most disease -most diseases can be associated with identified segment of a population or the population at risk

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INTRINSIC HOST FACTORS

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genetically governed factors

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Species

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certain diseases involve a wide range of species, but the outcome is different -the variation in susceptibility and response to disease agents is due to efficacy of immune mechanism, which can be general or specific, and availability of receptor cells

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Ethnic and racial groups

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differences in racial, ethnic, or other group variables may reflect differences in susceptibility or exposure, or differences in other factors that influence the risk of disease, such as socioeconomicstatus and access to health care

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Age

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the occurrence of many disease shows a distinct association with age: bacterial and viral disease are more fatal in young than in adults, either because of an absence of acquired immunity or because of low non-immunological host resistance; rickettsial and protozoan diseases induce milder responses in young compared to adults -if immunity is long-lasting and all ages are susceptible, a disease often occurs in ages of first exposure; endemic diseases generally affect the young part of the population at risk -normal age factors also affect the occurrence of the disease

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Sex

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males have higher rates of illness and death than do females for many diseases - may be due to genetic, hormonal, anatomic, or other inherent differences b/w the sexes -these differences affect susceptibility or physiologic responses -ex: mastitis, milk fever, caliculi

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Hormonal

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-bitches are more likely to develop diabetes -premenopausal women have a lower risk of heart disease than men of the same age

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Occupational or different levels of exposure

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-D. immitis (mosquito-borne) is more common in male dogs (go hunting) -differences in lung cancer rates among men and women

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EXTRINSIC FACTORS

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the husbandry system can influence the host, which in turn alter the pattern of disease occurrence in the population ex: fatigue, overwork, exhaustion deplete defense mechanism of the host and alter the nature of disease occurrence

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Socioeconomic status

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made up of many variables such as occupation, family income, educational achievement or census track, living conditions, and social standing -these variables do measure socioeconomic status precisely -the frequency of many adverse health conditions increases with decreasing socioeconomic status -these patterns may reflect more harmful exposures, lower resistance, and less access to health care -a few adverse health conditions occur more frequently among persons of higher socioeconomic status

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ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS

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-can have effect on agents, hosts, and their interaction -generally extrinsic determinants of disease occurrence -can be physical (climate, shelter, soil, and geography) or biological (man, vector, plants, and free-living animals)

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Climate

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Macroclimate - comprises the normal components of weather to which animals are exposed-rainfall, temperature, solar radiation, humidity, and wind -may also affect the stability of the agent, since the development of the agent is governed by the environment -may affect the transmission of diseases

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Temperature

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may be a primary determinant of hypothermia in newborns, may be a stressor, predisposing to disease causing agents

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Microclimate

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a climate that occurs in a small defined space where the host, agent and vector are surviving -it is part and parcel of the macroclimate

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Shelter

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a climatological sheath that would buffer the effect of macroclimate on the host -it can either have a positive or negative influence on disease occurrence -it can prevent sunstroke, wind and rainfall -unhygienic condition and increased density will favor the occurrence of disease -it can limit the distribution of disease (photosensitivity) -negative influences are often the result of intensification (mastitis)

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Soil

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-it can affect the vegetation in which the animals live -it can be a cause of disease indirectly (nutritional deficiency) -it can contravene the survivability of the agent (oocytes, spores, anthrax spores, eggs) -organic constituents like feces of birds and animals increase the risk of fungal infection in appropriate environment

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Biological Factors

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-vectors, wild animals (reservoir of infection) -man may create means by which disease causing agents are spread, perpetuate or survive -intensification (contact transmitted diseases are favored) -new diseases can be introduced by visitors/vehicles (also zoonotics like TB and salmonellosis) -can reduce incidence of disease through chemotherapy, chemoprophylaxis, quarantine, movement control and vaccination

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Note to self

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-analyzing data by place can identify communities at increased risk of disease - even if the data cannot reveal why these people have an increased risk, it can help generate hypotheses to test with additional studies

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Causes of disease can be

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1. internal (certain disturbances within the host 2. external (introduced from outside)

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External causes

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agents introduced from outside can be of living or non-living nature

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Non-living agents

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1. chemical 2. physical 3. nutritional 4. physiological 5. genetic 6. psychic 7. social -these are often not contagious, but simultaneous exposure to the suspected cause, may at times, cause mass problems

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Living agents

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-range from virus to bacteria to protozoa and to arthropods - with the infectious diseases, entry of the agent is a must, although the mere presence of the infectious agents does not necessarily lead to the disease state: if there is a disease, there should be an agent

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EPIDEMIOLOGIC ROLE OF INFECTIOUS AGENTS IN THE DEVELOPMENT OF DISEASE STATES

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...

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Infectivity

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-a measure of an agent's ability to penetrate, multiply and produce some detectable changes in a host -can be expressed qualitatively or quantatively by ID50 -after infection, there may or may not be disease, which governed by host, agent, vector and their interaction

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Pathogenicity and Virulence

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-measure the ability to transfer infection to disease states

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Pathogenicity

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a measure of an agent's ability to produce clinical disease once it has infected a host

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Virulence

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-the disease producing power of an organism -a measure of the severity of a disease once the disease is produced -quantified by LD50 -can be manipulated in such a way that it is either attenuated or enhanced: passage of disease agents in sensitive animals enhances the virulence whereas passage in less sensitive animals attenuates the virulence -physical agents (heat) and chemical agents (formalin, phenol) all can attenuate the virulence

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Aggressiveness

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-measured by penetrability (ability of the agent to penetrate the host tissue) -this is governed by microbial enzymes (hyaluronidase in Streptococcus and Staphylococcus and collagenase in Clostridium perfringens) and reproducibility (ability of the agent to replicate in the host tissue) -reproducibility is governed by agent's inherent ability, physical, chemical and biological envrionment in the host (e.g. ascaris lays a number of eggs within limited time)

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Invasiveness

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-ability of the agent to fight against defense mechanism of the host -usually effected by the formation of capsule and production of aggressins -capsule is protective against phagocytic activity -aggressins inhibit phagocytosis

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Toxigenicity

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a measure of disease-causing agent's ability to release toxins (endotoxins or exotoxins) which can destroy tissue cells

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Immunogenicity

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ability of the agent to produce a detectable antibody response in a host

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Plurality

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shows antigenic differences of the same species of the aetiological agents (FMD, AHS) -one needs to typify agents prevalent in that particular locality

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Adaptability

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antibiotic resistance factors

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Transmissibility

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a measure of ability of the agent to be transferred from one host to the other -usually the means for the agents survival

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Strability

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aka. Tenacity, Vitality -the duration for which the organism can remain infective outside the host -certain agents are labile (Rinderpest virus) -others are resistant (FMD virus) -secretions and excretions of the body facilitate the survival of the agents by prohibiting direct exposure to external environment

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Tissue Tropism

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signifies the affinity of the agents to certain tissues: -Panthropic (eg.Rinderpest and canine distemper virus) = do not have fixed residing sites -Organothropic (eg. enterothropic, neurothropic, pneumthropic) = have certain tissues to which they have affinity -this is related to biological activity (nutrition) of the agent

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Natural History

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the progression of a disease process in an individual over time, in the absence of treatment

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NATURAL HISTORY OF DISEASE TIMELINE

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1. Stage of Susceptibility -APPROPRIATE EXPOSURE TO OR ACCUMULATION OF FACTORS SUFFICIENT FOR THE DISEASE PROCESS TO BEGIN IN A SUSCEPTIBLE HOST

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NATURAL HISTORY OF DISEASE TIMELINE

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2. Stage of Subclinical Disease -After the disease process has been triggered, pathological changes then occur without the individual being aware of them -extends from the time of exposure to onset of disease symptoms = incubation period = infectious diseases =latency period = chronic diseases -during this stage, disease is said to be asymptomatic (no symptoms) or inapparent

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NATURAL HISTORY OF DISEASE TIMELINE

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3. Stage of Clinical Disease -onset of symptoms -this is when most diagnoses are made

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NATURAL HISTORY OF DISEASE TIMELINE

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4. Stage of Recovery, Disability or Death -Ultimately the disease process ends in one of these 3

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spectrum of disease

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-in some people, the disease process may result in illness that ranges from mild to severe or fatal -many additional cases may be too early to diagnose or may never progress to the clinical stage -unfortunately, persons with inapparent or undiagnosed infections may nonetheless by able to transmit infection to others

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Carriers

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persons who are infectious but have subclinical disease -persons with incubating disease or inapparent infection -persons who appear to have recovered from their clinical illness but remain infectious (eg. chronic carriers of Hepatitis B virus, or persons who never exhibited symptoms) -more likely to unwittingly spread infection than are people with obvious illness

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AGENT-HOST INTERACTION

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Agents can either cause infection or cause disease -there are many factors involved: 1.host resistance 2. Pathogenicity or virulence of the agent 3. Predisposing/Stress factors

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Host resistance

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a physical or immunological state of the animal is a governing factor -prior infection with TB, brucellosis, listeriosis, makes the animal more susceptible to some other infections

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Pathogenicity or virulence of the agent

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as agents pass in sensitive animals, the pathogenicity increases

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Predisposing/Stress factors

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-an environmental impact -an exposed host will acquire per-acute diseases from highly explosive agents -a decisive factor for the agent's survival where there would be no transmission -the agent increases its survival by increasing its infectivity and decreasing pathogenicity as well as through shorter generation intervals -those agents causing a chronic disease in animals have high infectivity and lower pathogenicity -there are certain agents for which death of the host is determinant, where their transmission is enhanced by flesh eating animals in order to perpetuate their cycle

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Note to self

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Host agent relationship is not a natural phenomenon and hence disease process does not occur randomly in a population

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Note to self

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the agent always tries to overcome host defense mechanism

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Note to self

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Disease causing agents are continuously evolving because they have short generation intervals and try to overcome defense ability of the host by antigenic variation and creation of a carrier state

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Antigenic variation

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biological situations where an agent evades the host defense by changing its antigenic characteristics -usually as a result of mutation or genetic recombination of the outer proteins -natural selection procedure is an important factor in antigenic variation

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Carrier

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any animal that sheds an infectious agent without demonstrating frank clinical signs -an inapparently or sub-clinically infected animal may be a carrier, and may shed the agent either continuously or intermittenly

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Incubatory carriers

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excrete the agent during the disease's incubation period (Rabies)

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Convalescent carriers

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shed the agent when they are recovering (FMD)

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Combo with "Educational Psych 3-4" and 1 other – Flashcards 161 terms

Edwin Holland

161 terms

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Combo with "Educational Psych 3-4" and 1 other – Flashcards

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The emphasis in Erikson's stage theory is on

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the formation of a personal identity.

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Children experiencing the Eriksonian conflict of trust vs. mistrust are also in what Piagetian stage?

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Sensorimotor

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What does a conflict such as initiative vs. guilt represent in Erikson's theory?

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A developmental crisis

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Sally is in the stage Erikson calls initiative vs. guilt. Her parents supervise her closely and direct all her activities. The danger is that Sally may

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have difficulty trusting her own judgement.

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Children who experience autonomy are likely to become more

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self-reliant

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The way that children resolve the autonomy vs. shame and doubt crisis influences their later sense of

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confidence in their own ablitities

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The school and the neighborhood first become highly important influences during what Eriksonian stage?

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Industry vs. inferiority

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As with most developmental crises, the resolution of the identity crisis

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may be an extended process

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Seventeen-year-old Carl has considered several career options and has developed a firm career goal. Carl is experiencing identity

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achievement

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June's mother always wanted to be an actress and started leading June in that direction at around age two. Now June sees herself as an actress and nothing else. In which of Erikson's stages is June?

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Identity foreclosure

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Dependence on peers, parents, and others begins to change to independence during what identity status?

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Moratorium

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Which one of Erikson's crises would you be LEAST likely to encounter in a K-12 classroom?

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Integrity vs. despair

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The difference between self-concept and self-esteem is that

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self-concept is a cognitive structure while self-esteem is an affective reaction

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The development of children's self-concept evolves by means of

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constant self-evaluation in many different situations.

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The implication of the "Big Fish, Little Pond" idea is that

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children in "average" schools may feel better about their own abilities than those in "high-ability" schools.

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Research suggests that the relationship between self-esteem and success in school is a

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positive relationship

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Programs designed to increase students' self-esteem such as "Student of the Month" have

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had little effect on increasing self-esteem

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Woolfolk has suggested that self-esteem is probably increased the most by

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demonstrating competence in valued knowledge domains

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As children develop perspective-taking abilities, there is a gradual movement toward a state of

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morality of cooperation

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What is the important base for moral reasoning in both women and men, according to relevant research?

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Concern for caring and justice

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(T/F) The practice of labeling exceptional students is clearly detrimental and should be discontinued.

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false

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(T/F) A student can be both gifted and learning disabled

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true

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The major difference between a disability and a handicap is that a disability is an inability to do something specific, such as being unable to hear or to walk, while a handicap

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is a disadvantage in certain situations.

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Which one of the following statements is TRUE about intelligence?

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It is theorized to be a collection of abilities by many psychologists.

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According to the work of Cattell and Horn (1963, 1988), there are two types of intelligence

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fluid and crystalized

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A teacher who knows how to effectively use cooperative learning in his or her classroom is demonstrating

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crystalized intelligence

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What psychologist developed the concept of mental age?

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Binet

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Most psychologists today believe that intelligence is influenced

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about equally by heredity and environment

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Terman's classic study found that children who are gifted tend to be

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larger and stronger as adults than their peers

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Research indicates that gifted students who were popular in school were

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less likely to maintain serious intellectual interests as adults.

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Inclusion, as it relates to special education, means that students will

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participate in the typical subject-matter lessons in the school's regular classrooms.

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What is the largest category of students with disabilities?

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students with an emotional handicap

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Hyperactivity can be most accurately described as a

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variable set of conditions with differing sets of causes.

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In treating hyperactivity, the medication that seems to work best is

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stimulants

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Attention Deficit Disorder refers to a condition that

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affects an individual's ability to focus on tasks and/or be patient

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Which one of the following situations is considered a language difference rather than a language disorder?

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speaking in a strong dialect

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The trend today in educating students with mental retardation involves giving greater emphasis to what type of skill(s)?

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Self-help and domestic

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A student is having a generalized epileptic seizure. Your first response as the teacher should be to

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move hard objects away from the student.

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What type of approach to understanding language seems best for students with hearing impairments?

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a combination of speech and manual reading methods

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All of the following student conditions are covered under Section 504 EXCEPT

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poverty

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Almost every definition of mental retardation includes the idea that individuals with mental retardation

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cannot adapt adequately to their environment

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Students often complain about Debbie. Debbie is always speaking very loudly even when circumstances do not call for such behavior. What type of problem is she demonstrating?

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voicing

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conditioned stimulus will trigger a conditioned response.

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A neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus that brings about an unconditioned response. Through repeated pairings of the neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus, the a)neutral stimulus will come to be ignored. b)conditioned stimulus will trigger a conditioned response. c)unconditioned response becomes its own stimulus. d)unconditioned response will become extinct.

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response cost.

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Each time Robert fails to do his homework, five points are deducted from his total course points. The procedure being used by the teacher is a)negative reinforcement. b)presentation punishment. c)response cost. d)satiation

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Make sure that the last response to a stimulus is the correct response.

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Which of the following is a practical implication of contiguity theory? a)Use intermittent reinforcement instead of continuous reinforcement. b)Make sure that the last response to a stimulus is the correct response. c)Use continuous reinforcement rather than intermittent reinforcement. d)Avoid the use of punishment whenever humanly possible.

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increases or decreases the frequency of the behavior that it follows.

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A consequence is defined by Skinner as a reinforcer or a punisher depending on whether it a)is designed to promote desirable behavior or suppress undesirable behavior. b)is pleasurable or uncomfortable for the subject receiving the consequence. c)occurs antecedent to or as a consequence of the behavior. d)increases or decreases the frequency of the behavior that it follows.

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praise-and-ignore techniques.

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During the first few days of class, Mr. Brackman noticed some isolated instances of minor misbehavior such as talking out of turn. His initial approach to dealing with this should probably be to use a)praise-and-ignore techniques. b)shaping c)response cost. d)prompting and cueing.

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varied in price so that all students may be rewarded.

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Rewards to be purchased with earned tokens should be

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classical conditioning.

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During music class Lisa enthusiastically sings aloud with her class, but the teacher comments, "Lisa, please...you sound like an owl in a torture chamber." Lisa turns bright red. The next week she feels ill when it is time to go to music class again. Feeling anxiety at the prospect of going to music class is an example of

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in a contiguous relationship.

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In classical conditioning, the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus must be a)dependent upon reward. b)in a contiguous relationship. c)in a noncontiguous relationship. d)equivalent stimuli.

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Variable-ratio

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Slot machines that pay off after an indeterminate number of uses illustrate what schedule of reinforcement? a)Fixed-interval b)Fixed-ratio c)Variable-interval d)Variable-ratio

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Continuous

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Yancey turns on the water faucet to get a drink. What schedule of reinforcement typically prevails? a)Continuous b)Fixed-interval c)Variable-interval d)Variable-ratio

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salivation to the can opener.

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In an experiment, an electric can opener is used to open a can, and no salivation by the subject is detected. After a number of pairings between the can opener's operation and food, any time the can opener is used, the subject salivates. The conditioned response in this study is the

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may be both a positive and a negative influence.

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Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of peer pressure in applying group consequences? Peer pressure a)can be effectively monitored by the teacher. should be eliminated as much as possible.b) c)has little effect on most misbehavior. d)may be both a positive and a negative influence.

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operant conditioning; classical conditioning

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B. F. Skinner is to ________, as Ivan Pavlov is to ________.

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Variable-ratio

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Mr. Saunders hates sending in his income tax forms each year and constantly worries that his return will be the "one" selected for auditing. Therefore, he completes the forms carefully and honestly in order to avoid a possible penalty, but he continues to worry about being audited. What reinforcement schedule is most likely to be involved?

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extinction.

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Ray's temper tantrums have finally driven his mother to her "wits' end." Ray's mother resolves that she will ignore the tantrums no matter what. This plan is an example of

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Describes the sequence of skills leading to a goal.

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Which one of the following is a major advantage of task analysis? a)Reduces the need for expository presentations. b)Describes the sequence of skills leading to a goal. c)Allows for creativity in student responses. d)Requires only minimal time to use.

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focusing on the consequences of voluntary behavior.

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Operant conditioning differs from classical conditioning by a)focusing on animal behavior to a much greater extent than on human behavior. b)dealing primarily with reflexive types of responses. c)treating learners as passive rather then active agents. d)focusing on the consequences of voluntary behavior.

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insight

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Greg ponders over a math problem. He looks, frowns, and several minutes pass as he continues to study and shuffle his papers. All at once, he smiles, picks up his pencil, and writes down the correct answer. The suddenness of Greg's solution best exemplifies a)insight b)transfer c)problem representation. d)functional fixedness.

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Social cognitive theory

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Which one of the following theories places the greatest emphasis on presenting models so that students can learn from observing others complete a task? a-Social cognitive theory b-Constructivist theoretical perspectives c-Expectancy-value theory d-Behavioral theory

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Direct instruction on the aspects of self-regulated learning

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Mr. Jacoby is very effective at encouraging his students to become self-regulated learners because he includes the following in his teaching: a-Opportunities for students to develop their creative abilities b-Minimal feedback so that his students can evaluate their own work c-Direct instruction on the aspects of self-regulated learning d-Cooperative learning activities

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There appears to be direct relationship between self-efficacy and self-esteem.

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The following statement is true about the relation between self-efficacy and self-esteem. a-There is a strong relationship between self-efficacy and self-esteem only for non-academic tasks. There is no relationship between self-efficacy and self-esteem for academic tasks. b-There appears to be direct relationship between self-efficacy and self-esteem. c-There is a strong positive correlation between self-efficacy and self-esteem. As self-efficacy increases, self-esteem increases. d-There is a strong negative correlation between self-efficacy and self-esteem. As self-efficacy increases, self-esteem decreases.

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Analyzing the task, setting goals, devising plans, enacting strategies

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What are the steps involved in self-regulated learning? a-Self-efficacy, strategy use, volition b-Teaching, practice, goal-setting, reflective task analysis c-Modeling, reflection, self-evaluation, devising plans d-Analyzing the task, setting goals, devising plans, enacting strategies

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Humanistic

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The concept of self-determination is an important influence in what view of motivation? a-Humanistic b-Behavioral c-Social learning d-Cognitive

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Deficiency

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In Maslow's hierarchy, self-esteem is considered to be what type of need? a-Self-actualization b-Deficiency c-Being d-Proficiency

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Performance

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An entity view of ability is consistent with what type of goals? a-Extrinsic b-Work-avoidance c-Performance d-Intrinsic

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locus of causality.

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A student's reason for acting is called a-locus of causality. b-intrinsic motivation. c-extrinsic motivation. d-self-determined.

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Mastery-oriented

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As need for achievement increases in spite of fear of failure, what type of student will be motivated to learn? a-Failure-accepting b-Socially-oriented c-Failure-avoiding d-Mastery-oriented

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Negative

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From the pioneering work of Yerkes and Dodson (1905) to present-day research results, what is the correlation between virtually every aspect of achievement and a wide variety of anxiety measures? a-Zero b-Negative c-Moderately positive d-Positive

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desire to gain reinforcers for their behavior.

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According to behavioral theory of motivation, students are motivated primarily by a(n) a-inherent need to understand what they are learning. b-desire for gaining fulfillment for their accomplishments. c-desire to gain reinforcers for their behavior. d-need for social recognition and status.

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feedback and goal acceptance.

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Individuals are naturally motivated to learn by a-seductive details. b-anxiety c-feedback and goal acceptance. d-performance goals.

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focus on their failures and not seek assistance.

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Students who demonstrate "learned helplessness" are likely to a-find ways to attribute their failures to others. b-focus on their failures and not seek assistance.

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internal, stable, and uncontrollable.

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Harry is apathetic and certain that he is not able to do the work. He makes poor marks in school and is not inclined to seek help. According to attribution theory, Harry is typical of students who attribute their failures to causes that are a-internal, stable, and controllable. b-external, unstable, and uncontrollable. c-internal, stable, and controllable. d-internal, stable, and uncontrollable.

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failure-avoiding

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Sally sets unrealistically high goals for herself but is unsure about her abilities. Woolfolk would be likely to label Sally as a-mastery-oriented. b-failure-avoiding.

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good self-control abilities

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In addition to academic learning skills, self-regulated learners have

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Ask families to keep records of the students self evaluation of progress

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Woolfolk suggests the following strategy for teachers in an effort to involve parents in supporting self-regulation within their child

question

Solving problems interdependently rather than asking for help

answer

Which one of the following is NOT an essential component of emotional self-regulation

question

triarchic reciprocal casuality

answer

In Bandura's social cognitive learning theory, the interaction among personal factors, environmental events, and behaviors is called

question

I am usually good in math, so I will do well in this class

answer

Which one of the following quotes is an example of high self-efficacy

question

Try harder when students have learning difficulties

answer

Erin is a fifth grade teacher who has a high degree of efficacy in teaching. Consequently, Erin will most likely

question

receive rewards or other reinforcements based on the quality of their performance

answer

Research on self-efficacy and achievement suggests that school achievement is improved and self-efficacy is increased when students

question

Mental health

answer

John is a student who is giving you a hard time. He has a low IQ, experiences developmental delay, and physical illness. These are risk factors for

question

chronic failure of a parent's ability to provide or take care of a child

answer

Child neglect is defined as

question

any possession of offensive materials

answer

According to the Safe Schools Act, it is the mandated reporter's responsibility to report the following to their principal EXCEPT

question

Because it is the law in most states, the amount of time you spend with your students, and you can observe changes in students' behavior over time

answer

As a teacher, you are able to effectively report child abuse and are mandated to do so

question

Lack of attention in the classroom

answer

Which one of these is NOT an indicator that a student suffers from mental health issues

question

has to legally report any signs of abuse or report even if they only hear of abuse

answer

As a mandated reporter, a teacher

question

Physical development, social-emotional development, and cognitive development

answer

What affects mental health?

question

more problems than adults who had close friends when they were children

answer

Adults who were rejected as children tend to have

question

Authoritarian

answer

Sandra loves her daughter very much, but she believes parents should be very strict in their expectations of their child's behavior. Sandra's parenting style is described as

question

encounter problems with resolutions of later crises

answer

According to Erikson, if a child fails to resolve a crisis at an early stage, the child is apt to

question

An aggressive three year old

answer

Based on recent studies, which of the following children is likely to have the greatest difficulty with assessing the intention of others

question

become more aggressive

answer

Research has shown that students who watch others behaving aggressively

question

observable actions

answer

Behavioral theories of learning emphasize

question

Peer pressure may be both a positive and a negative influence

answer

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of peer pressure in applying group consequences?

question

negative reinforcement

answer

Removing an aversive stimulus to increase the frequency of a behavior exemplifies

question

punishment decreases the behavior while negative reinforcement increases it

answer

The essential difference between negative reinforcement and punishment is that

question

an effective reinforcer for JIM

answer

During math lessons, Ms. Olson continually observed Jim reading stories from his Enlgish anthology. She has probably found

question

A preferred activty is a reinforcer for a less-preferred activity

answer

The Premack Principle states that

question

Believed people learn through experiences and doing things that result in consequences (enactive) and through watching others (observational). Incentives affect performance. Performance isn't an indication of learning.

answer

What was Bandura's challenge to behavioral learning?

question

social cognitive

answer

recent years, Bandura focused on cognitive factors such as self-perceptions, expectations, and beliefs, so his theory is now called a ____________________________________ theory.

question

positive

answer

According to Albert Bandura's social cognitive theory, what is the effect of peers on self-regulation and motivation?

question

personal factors

answer

According to Bandura, expectations are part of which one of the elements that comprise reciprocal causality

question

mastery experiences-own direct experiences. success raises efficacy beliefs, failure lowers

answer

According to Bandura's theory of self-efficacy, where does the most important and influential source of self-efficacy information come from?

question

receiving rewards promotes reinforcement relationship btwn self-eff and achievement holds even when abilitys taken into account

answer

What does research on self-efficacy and achievement suggest regarding school achievement and improved self-efficacy?

question

triarchich reciprocal causality

answer

In social cognitive theory, the interaction of forces that influence learning is called __________________________________________.

question

social learning theory

answer

What did Bandura's early work on behavioral conceptions of learning on

question

key element of soc cog theory. dvlpt level of observer (attention and memory strategeys) more likely to immitate others who seem competent models seen as similar are more readily repeated

answer

What do we know about learning by observing others?

question

human agency

answer

The notion that students that students have the capacity to exercise influences over their life events and coordinate their own learning, motivation, and emotions is referred to as _____________________________________________.

question

mastery experiences

answer

One of the best ways teachers can increase a student's sense of self-efficacy for a task is to ensure they have __________________________________________.

question

vicarious experiences

answer

you watch another teacher successfully teach students how to design a web page and you say to yourself "if he can do it, I can do it", you are relying on _______________________ as a source of self-efficacy information.

question

Attention, retention, production, motivation.

answer

Which one of the following in the correct sequence of phases for Bandura's model of observational learning?

question

bring Lionel back into class participation in small steps.

answer

Lionel was humiliated when he forgot his lines in a play. Now he refuses to take part in any function of the speech class. Based on the behavioral principles discussed by Woolfolk, the best strategy for Lionel's teacher would be to

question

Describe the sequence of skills leading to a goal.

answer

Which one of the following is a major advantage of task analysis?

question

Sheryl generates a list of solutions for the recycling problem.

answer

Which one of the following people illustrates the best example of creative behavior?

question

value and care about learning

answer

One of the conditions for using good learning strategies is that students must

question

In addition to beliefs and self-perceptions, expectations play a key role in Bandura's social cognitive theory.

answer

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the role of expectations in social cognitive theory?

question

regulation

answer

Suzie keeps reminding her friend Bob to repeat the score before he serves the tennis ball. Suzie is engaging in a form of shared

question

an effective way to learning new knowledge and skills.

answer

Learning by observing others is:

question

modeling how to set specific goals.

answer

Mr. Snow, the math teacher, asks parents to facilitate their child's self-regulation by

question

self-efficacy for math

answer

A student who successfully converts a fraction to a decimal yells out "I did it.. I can do it" is demonstrating a strong sense of

question

the individual reflecting upon what has been learned and thinking about his or her performance.

answer

Zimmerman's model of self-regulated learning ends the cycle with

question

incomplete

answer

Bandura suggested that the main limitation of behavioral views of learning is that these views are

question

Deficiency

answer

In Maslow's hierarchy, self-esteem is considered to be what type of need?

question

Not interested in the subject

answer

Externally imposed reward systems seem particularly appropriate for students who are

question

zero if either expectation to succeed or the perceived value of a goal is zero

answer

An "expectancy X value" theory would predict that motivation would necessarily be

question

internal, stable, and controllable

answer

As Jim looks at his report card, he remarks to Judy, "I got the B because I really didn't work hard in Mr. Wendell's Calculus class. According to Weiner, Jim is attributing the cause of his grade to causes that are

question

Performance

answer

An entity view of ability is consistent to what type of goals?

question

Mastery Oriented

answer

As need for achievement increases in spite of fear or failure, what type of student will be motivated to learn?

question

Focus on their failures and not seek assistance

answer

Students who demonstrate "learned helplessness" are likely to

question

Expectation of failure

answer

What type of belief do failure- accepting students have?

question

Internal

answer

Pat believes that the reason for her success in reading is effort she puts into it. Pat is reflecting what type of locus of control?

question

self-efficacy

answer

Ms. Jackson perception of her capabilities to effectively deal with a particular task is her sense of

question

Solving problems independently rather than asking for help when needed

answer

Which one of the following is NOT an essential component of emotional self-regulation?

question

At the beginning of each session, students should set new goals based on their previous math performance

answer

Which one of the following teaching approaches does Lynn Fuch (2003) recommend for incorporating self-regulated learning strategies into math-problem solving?

question

can serve as important models and facilitate student learning

answer

According to Albert Bandura's social cognitive theory, peers

question

get defensive

answer

When failure does occur, self-regulated learners are LESS likely to

question

may be an extended process

answer

As with most developmental crises, the resolution of the identity crisis

question

There are major differences between boys and girls in all subject areas

answer

A recent study that followed 761 middle-class students from first grade through high school discovered the following about diversity and self-esteem:

question

doubts about his ability

answer

Whenever Matt appears to be having difficulty in completing his science laboratory work, Ms. Butterfield quickly offers to help him and encourages him to continue working. According to Graham (1991), Ms. Butterfield's behavior is likely to result in Matt developing

question

attention being diverted from the learning task to a preoccupation with one's feelings.

answer

As reported by Woolfolk, the debilitating effects of anxiety are viewed to be due to

question

Negative

answer

From the pioneering work of Yerkes and Dodson (1905) to present-day research results, what is the correlation between virtually every aspect of achievement and a wide variety of anxiety measures?

question

An inner state that arouses, directs, and maintains a person's behavior

answer

Which one of the following statements is the most accurate definition of motivation?

question

intrinsic

answer

Being interested in a task because the activity is enjoyable is what type of motivation?

question

"Accomplishing this should make me better prepared for Biology 101."

answer

Which one of the following quotes exemplifies a learning or mastery goal?

question

emotions

answer

Learning and information processing are influenced by reasoning and problem solving as well as by

question

internal causes

answer

Pride or shame for one's own actions is likely to be felt most strongly by those who attribute their actions to

question

"I am usually good at math, so I will do well in this class."

answer

Which one of the following quotes is an example of high self-efficacy?

question

using a reinforcer before a low-frequency behavior.

answer

Ms. Johnson's sixth graders complained about diagramming sentences, and they were able convince her to show a movie first. Ms. Johnson made the common error of

question

Michael decides that he has no chance of passing the seventh grade or getting out of school.

answer

Which one of the following students BEST illustrates the concept of learned helplessness as an explanation for failure by low socioeconomic status children?

question

culture

answer

The rules and traditions that guide the behavior of a group comprise its

question

Reciprocal Causality

answer

In Bandura's social cognitive learning, the interaction among personal factors,and environmental events is called

question

Receive rewards or other reinforcements based on quality of their performances

answer

Research on self efficacy and achievement suggests that school achievement is improved and self efficacy is increased when students

question

Intrinsic

answer

On Sunday afternoon, Rick spent a couple of hours picking up discarded bottles and can for a picturesque section of the wildlife refuge,, even though there is no pay. Ricks motivation is

question

Extrinsic

answer

Ms. Riley tells the class, "If we have a good lesson on fractions, I will credit each of you with a bonus point." She is trying to stimulate what type of motivation?

question

Intrinsic Needs

answer

In most humanistic theories, motivation is based on

question

Humanistic

answer

The concept of self determination is an important influence in what view of motivation

question

People frequently attend to needs in different orders

answer

Maslow hierarchy of needs has been criticized because

question

Affective way of learning knew knowledge

answer

Learning by observing others is

question

A lack of effort

answer

Sara attributes failures to internal causes. Consiquently she is likely to blame her poor mark in science on her

STUDY

Group Psychology Linguistics Psychology

Primal Leadership – Flashcards 38 terms

Trina Garrison

38 terms

Preview

Primal Leadership – Flashcards

question

What are the two most important things a leader does?

answer

Drive the collective emotions in a positive direction, and clear the toxic emotions in the atmosphere

question

Emotional Intelligence

answer

How leaders handle themselves and their relationships.

question

Climate

answer

How people feel about working at a company; And 50-70% of how people experience climate can be traced back to the actions of one person: the leader.

question

dissonance leaders:

answer

out of touch with people's feelings, they drive a group into a downward spiral from frustration to resentment to rage.

question

resonance leaders:

answer

attuned to people's feelings, they can identify with them and then move people in a positive emotional direction. When resonance is triggered, you can see it in people's eyes: they light up, and the people are engaged.

question

There are four key areas of emotional intelligence

answer

Personal competence:: self-awareness, and self-management, Social competence:: social awareness, and relationship management

question

Social awareness,

answer

empathy; being attuned to how others feel in the moment, a leader can say what's appropriate

question

Resonance

answer

leaders drive emotions positive, bringing out the best; Latin word resonare, to resound; synchronous vibration i.e. when two people are on the same wavelength emotionally; the more resonant people are with each other, the less static are their interactions; resonance minimizes the noise in the system.

question

Dissonance

answer

describes an unpleasant, harsh sound; when leaders spawn negative emotions undermining the emotional foundations that let people shine; stress hormones released during a toxic workday continue to swirl through the body many hours later.

question

Open Loop (interpersonal limbic regulation system)

answer

our emotional centers--Open to receive outside response—it allows people to come to one another's emotional rescue

question

Open Loop affects

answer

a. ICU patients show comforting presence of another person lowers blood pressure; slows secretion of fatty acids that block arteries b. One person transmits signals that can alter hormone levels, cardiovascular function, sleep rhythms, and even immune function inside the body of another

question

Mirroring affects

answer

Work teams across diverse industries, members who sat in meetings together ended up sharing moods—either good or bad—within two hours

question

Laughter affects

answer

instantly interlocks limbic systems; has the shortest distance between two people because it

question

Mood Impacts Results

answer

while mild anxiety (such as over a looming deadline) can focus attention and energy, prolonged distress can sabotage a leader's relationships and also hamper work performance by diminishing the brain's ability to process information and respond effectively; Distress makes people less emotionally intelligent by eroding mental abilities

question

Brains prefrontal area

answer

receives and analyzes information from all parts of the brain and then makes a decision about what to do. It can veto an emotional response.

question

Self-awareness

answer

is foundational for others; Self-aware leaders know how their feelings affect them and their performance. • Emotional self-awareness • Accurate self-assessment • Self-confidence • A sense of what matters most • Intuition

question

Self-Management

answer

• Emotional self-control (tunes resonance to positive range) • Transparency • Adaptability • Achievement • Initiative • Optimism

question

Social Awareness

answer

• Empathy • Organizational awareness • Service

question

Relationship Management

answer

• Inspirational leadership • Influence • Developing others • Change catalyst • Conflict management • Building bonds • Teamwork and collaboration

question

Leadership styles

answer

• Visionary • Coaching • Affiliative • Democratic • Pacesetting • Commanding VCADPC

question

Visionary leaders

answer

articulate where a group is going, but not how it will get there, setting people free to innovate, experiment, and take calculated risks.

question

Coaching Leader

answer

focuses on personal development rather than on accomplishing tasks.

question

Affiliative Leader

answer

tends to value people and their feelings, putting less emphasis on accomplishing tasks and goals, and more on employee's emotional needs. They strive to keep people happy, create harmony

question

Democratic Leader

answer

gets everyone involved in making decisions. A democratic approach works best when the leader is uncertain about what direction to take and needs ideas from able employees. The downside is that, if over-relied upon, no progress is made— just endless discussions that don't reach consensus. At its best, employees "buy in" to decisions because they had a part in making them.

question

Pacesetting Leader

answer

holds and exemplifies high standards for performance. He's obsessive about doing things better and faster, and asks the same of everyone. He tends to be so focused on his goals that he can appear to not care about the people he relies on to achieve those goals. When applied poorly, the pacesetting approach leaves employees feeling pushed and used, causing morale to plummet, and sometimes productivity as well.

question

Commanding Style.

answer

With a motto of "Do it because I say so," such leaders demand immediate compliance with orders, but don't bother explaining the reasons behind them. These leaders exercise tight control of any situation, require immediate obedience, and any feedback tends to focus on what people did wrong rather than what they did well. This style tends to be the least effective in most situations.

question

Steps to sustaining new leadership style

answer

1. Ideal self - who do I want to be? 2. Real self - who am I? a.What are my strengths? b.What are my gaps (weaknesses)? 3. Plan of action: Building on my strengths while reducing my gaps 4. Practicing new leadership: experimenting with new behavior 5. You need others- to identify your ideal self, your real self, to discover your strengths and gaps, to develop an agenda for the future, and to experiment and practice

question

The most emotionally intelligent leaders actively seek out two kinds of feedback:

answer

1. Negative Feedback. 2. 360 degree feedback

question

self-directed learning:

answer

intentionally developing an aspect of who you are or who you want to be.

question

The key ingredient that makes success possible is

answer

having supportive people involved in the process. Cultivating special relationships, whose sole purpose is to help you along your path, is crucial to continuing development.

question

Leadership of group--first task

answer

is to help the group identify its own ground rules and norms— what are the unspoken rules that govern how the group operates?

question

Leadership of group - self awareness

answer

to monitor the emotional tone of the team and to help its members recognize any underlying dissonance. Getting people to have an honest conversation about what is working and what is not is a critical first step to creating a more resonant team.

question

A pragmatist leader

answer

Ranks high in self-management; use pacesetting style over a democratic, coaching, or affiliative style; Sacrifice the few for the many

question

A humanistic leader

answer

Styles that emphasize interaction with others, such as democratic, affiliative, or coaching

question

Vital lies

answer

soothing mistruths people let themselves believe rather than face the more disturbing realities beneath; self-delusion

question

CEO disease

answer

not having a clear picture of leadership effectiveness because subordinates refuse to give you the truthful feedback; being unaware

question

leadership :strengths"

answer

lie at the intersection of where your real self matches your ideal

question

leadership "gaps"

answer

where reality fails to meet your ideal for yourself as a leader

STUDY

AP Psychology Group Psychology Informational Social Influence Introductory Psychology Psychology Social Psychology

Social Psychology ALL TERMS List – Flashcards 50 terms

Daniel Thompson

50 terms

Preview

Social Psychology ALL TERMS List – Flashcards

question

Informational Social Influence

answer

influence resulting from one's willingness to accept other's opinions about reality

question

Normative Social Influence

answer

influence resulting from a person's desire to gain approval or avoid disapproval

question

Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM)

answer

a theoretical model that posits two channels by which persuasive appeals lead to attitude change: a central route and a peripheral route

question

Reciprocity

answer

idea that if you do something for someone, they owe you something in return

question

Scapegoat Theory

answer

the theory that prejudice offers an outlet for anger by providing someone to blame

question

Ethnocentrism

answer

belief in the superiority of one's own ethnic group

question

Altruism

answer

the quality of unselfish concern for the welfare of others

question

Social Group

answer

a collection of people who interact with one another and have a certain feeling of unity

question

Norms

answer

rules and expectations by which a society guides the behavior of its members

question

Roles

answer

the different positions in the group, each with its own set of norms

question

Latane & Darley Study

answer

When white smoke comes in, you are much less likely to respond if there are passive confederates. Proves pluralistic ignorance- assume nothing is wrong because others seem unconcerned

question

Sherif Study

answer

children in a summer camp were divided into two groups on an arbitrary basis and made to engage in competition with each other. This engendered intergroup hostility and dislike, which was found to be greatly reduced when a task requiring the two groups to cooperate (on superordinate goals) was introduced.

question

Rosenthal & Jacobson Study

answer

aimed to test the existence of the Pygmalion Effect in schools. Found that those students randomly assigned to the "bloomer" group made larger gains at the end of the year than the "average" students.

question

Zimbardo Study

answer

This social psychologist studied how people behave when they are asked to play roles, in particular as prison guards or prisoners.

question

Out-Group Homogeneity

answer

tendency to view all individuals outside our group as highly similar

question

In-Group Bias

answer

tendency to favor individuals within our group over those from outside our group

question

Dispositional Factors

answer

Personal factors of the individual being the main explanation for their behaviour

question

Situational Factors

answer

environmental stimuli that affect a person's behavior.

question

Superordinate Goals

answer

shared goals that override differences among people and require their cooperation

question

Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis

answer

Theory arguing that aggression is the natural reaction to frustration.

question

Attribution Theory

answer

the theory that we tend to give a casual explanation for someone's behavior, often by crediting either the situation or the person's disposition

question

Actor-Observer Bias

answer

The tendency to attribute other people's behavior to internal causes while attributing our own behavior (especially errors and failures) to external causes.

question

Central Route of Persuasion

answer

the speaker uses facts, figures, and other information to enable listeners to carefully process information and think about their opinions; attitudes changed tend to be more stable

question

Peripheral Route of Persuasion

answer

superficial factors (supermodels and celebrities) used as distractors, leading to less stable change in attitudes.

question

Instrumental Aggression

answer

Aggression as a means to some goal other than causing pain

question

Hostile Aggression

answer

Aggression stemming from feelings of anger and aimed at inflicting pain

question

False-Consensus Effect

answer

the tendency to overestimate the extent to which others share our beliefs and behaviors

question

Milgram Study

answer

the study of people to see the tendency to obey authority figures; how far people would go into violence, even though it violates values and ethics, such as commands to harm an innocent stranger

question

Asch Study

answer

Participants were asked to select the line closest in line to length X. When cohorts gave obviously wrong answers, more than 1/3 of the subjects conformed and agreed with the incorrect choices. Depends on group size: 7 is optimal.

question

Festinger Study

answer

paid people $1 to lie, $20 to lie, and nothing to lie. Those who experienced the most pleasure were the $1 liars. The experimenters concluded that human beings, when asked to lie without being given sufficient justification, will convince themselves that the lie they are asked to tell is the truth.

question

Stereotypes

answer

generalized beliefs about what members of an identifiable group are like that operate as schemas when perceiving members of those groups

question

Prejudice

answer

a negative attitude formed toward an individual or group without sufficient experience with the person or group

question

Discrimination

answer

unjustifiable negative behavior toward a group or its members

question

Just-World Phenomenon

answer

the tendency of people to believe the world is just and that people therefore get what they deserve and deserve what they get

question

Conformity

answer

adjusting one's behavior or thinking to coincide with a group standard

question

Compliance

answer

an act of doing as another wishes or yielding to a request or command; a tendency to yield to others

question

Foot-In-The-Door

answer

term describes a phenomenon in which people who agree to a small request are more likely to later agree to a larger request

question

Cognitive Dissonance

answer

an uncomfortable mental state due to conflicts between attitudes or between attitudes and behavior

question

Bystander Effect

answer

the tendency to not offer help when needed if others are present who do not offer help

question

Door-In-The-Face

answer

a request is made of someone that will be surely turned down, only to be followed by a lesser, or less demanding request.

question

Social Loafing

answer

the tendency for people in a group to exert less effort when pooling their efforts toward attaining a common goal than when individually accountable

question

Deindividuation

answer

the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity

question

Social Facilitation

answer

improved performance of tasks in the presence of others; occurs with simple or well-learned tasks but not with tasks that are difficult or not yet mastered

question

Group Polarization

answer

the enhancement of a group's prevailing attitudes through discussion within the group

question

Groupthink

answer

the mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for harmony in a decision-making group overrides a realistic appraisal of alternatives

question

Diffusion of Responsibility

answer

reduction in sense of responsibility often felt by individuals in a group; may be responsible for the bystander effect

question

Fundamental Attribution Error

answer

the tendency for observers, when analyzing another's behavior, to underestimate the impact of the situation and to overestimate the impact of personal disposition

question

Self-Serving Bias

answer

he tendency to assign oneself credit for successes but to blame failures on external forces

question

Self-Fulfilling Prophecy

answer

an expectation that causes you to act in ways that make that expectation come true.

question

Mere Exposure Effect

answer

the phenomenon that repeated exposure to novel stimuli increases liking of them

STUDY

Group Psychology

social psychology chapter 8, 9, and 10 – Flashcards 71 terms

Elizabeth Hill

71 terms

Preview

social psychology chapter 8, 9, and 10 – Flashcards

question

what is a group?

answer

2 or more people who interact and influence one another

question

collective influences (3 examples)

answer

Social Facilitation, social loafing, deindividuation

question

3 examples of social influences

answer

Group polarization, group think, minority influences

question

Social facilitation

answer

(original meaning) tendency of people to perform simple or well learned tasks better when other are present. (current meaning) strengthening of dominant responses in the presence of others (running faster with someone else than being w yourself

question

Social loafing

answer

tendency for people to exert less effort when they pool their efforts toward a common goal than when they are individually accountable `

question

Deindividuation

answer

loss of self awareness and evaluation apprehension occurs in group situations that fosters responsiveness to group norms

question

anonymity

answer

nobody knows you

question

arousing & distracting activities

answer

there a self reinforcing pleasure in acting impulsively while observing others doing likewise

question

diminished self awareness

answer

a group experiences that diminish self consciousness tend to disconnect behavior from attitudes

question

self awareness

answer

opposite of deindividuation

question

group polarization

answer

group discussion often strengthens members initial indignation

question

explaining polarization ( 2 theories)

answer

informational influences and normative influences

question

informational influences

answer

influence that result from accepting evidence about reality

question

normative influence

answer

influenced based on a person's desire to be accepted or admired by others

question

pluralistic ignorance

answer

a false impression of what most people are thinking or feeling or how they are responding

question

group thinking

answer

when a group becomes so cohesive that it tends to override realistic appraisal of alternative causes of action

question

two symptoms lead group members to over estimate their groups might and right

answer

1. an illusion of invulnerability 2. unquestionable belief in the groups morality

question

group members also become close minded

answer

3. rationalization- Groups discount challenges by collectively justifying their decision

question

4. sterotyped view of opponent

answer

participant in these group thank tanks consider their enemies too evil to negotiate with or too weak and unintelligent to defend themselves against the planed initiative

question

5. conformity pressure

answer

Group members rebuffed those who raised doubts about the groups assumptions and plans at times not by argument but by personal sarcasm

question

6.self censorship

answer

to avoid uncomfortable disagreements members misheld or discounted their misgivings

question

7. illusion of unanimity

answer

self censorship and pressured not to puncture the consensus creates an illusion of unanimity

question

8. mind guards

answer

some members protect the group from information that would call into question the effectiveness or morality of its decisions.

question

preventing group think

answer

1. be impartial 2. encourage critical evaluation 3. occasionally subdivide the group, then reunited to air differences 4. welcome critiques from outside experts and associates 5. before implementing, called a "second chance" meeting to air way lingering doubts. (two minds are greater than one!)

question

3 ways to enhannce group brainstorming

answer

1. combine group & solitary brainstorming 2. have group members interact by writing 3. incorporate electric brainstorming

question

group problem solving

answer

when group members freely combine their creative ideas and varied insights.

question

3 things that determine minority influences

answer

1. consistency 2. self-confidence 3. defections from the majority

question

leadership (3 types)

answer

1. task leadership 2. social leadership 3. transformation leadership

question

task leadership

answer

a directive style goal oriented challenging goals

question

social leadership

answer

building teamwork, mediating conflicts and being supportive

question

transformational leadership

answer

motivates others to identify with and commit themselves to the groups mission: charismatic

question

prejudice

answer

a preconceived negative judgement of a group and its individual members it is an attitude

question

sterotype

answer

a belief about the personal attributes of a group of people

question

discrimination

answer

a negative behavior

question

prejudice

answer

is a negative attitude

question

recism

answer

an individual a prejudicial attitudes and discrimination behavior toward people of a given race

question

sexism

answer

same as racism but except toward people of a given sex.

question

implicit

answer

automatic may linger, change as new habits are formed.

question

explicit

answer

conscious, may change with education

question

displaced aggression

answer

when the cause of our frustration is intimidating or unknown, we often redirect our hostility

question

the social identity theory

answer

we categorize, we identify, we compare

question

ingroup bias

answer

tendency to favor your own group

question

status is relative

answer

to perceive ourselves as having status; we need people below U.S.if your status is secure we have less need to feel superior

question

what does motivation to avoid prejudice do to people?

answer

lead people to modify their thought and actions aware of gap between how they should feel and how they do feel, self conscious people will feel quit and try to inhibit their prejudicial response

question

what are the cognitive sources of prejudice?

answer

1. pressed for time 2. preoccupied 3.tired 4. emotionally aroused 5. too young to appreciate diversity

question

today many people live in a "just world phenomenon"

answer

the tendency of people to believe that the world is just and that people therefore get what they deserve and deserve what they get

question

consequences of prejudice?

answer

1. self perpetuating prejudgments 2. discrimination impact: self-fulfilling prophecy 3. stereotype threat 4. do stereotype bias judgement of individuals

question

aggression

answer

(hurting others) physical or verbal behavior intended to hurt someone.

question

2 types of aggression among animals

answer

social aggression silent aggression

question

social aggression

answer

display of rage

question

silent aggression

answer

predator stalks

question

In humans:

answer

1. hostile aggression 2.instrumental aggression

question

Hostile aggression

answer

comes from anger/ the goal is to injure (murders)

question

instrumental aggression

answer

the goal is to injure but only as a means to some other end

question

terrorism

answer

a strategic tool used during conflict

question

wars

answer

are instrumental aggression

question

3 theories of aggression

answer

1. biological influences 2. frustration 3. learned behavior

question

1. biological

answer

A) abnormal brains: can contribute to abnormally aggressive behavior such as murders and death row inmates B) Genetic influence- 3 year old who exhibits little conscientiousness & little self-control is more vulnerable to substance abuse & arrest by age 30-32 C) alcohol- unleashes aggression when people are provoked

question

testosterone

answer

levels tend to be higher among prisoners convicted of planned and unplanned violent crime than off nonviolent crimes

question

2. frustration

answer

the blocking of goal directed behavior

question

examples of frustration

answer

A) frustration aggression theory- frustration triggers a readiness to be aggressive B) Displacement- (Example: starts anger from dad to mom to kids and continuous down to everybody c) relative deprivation

question

aggression cues

answer

A) the sign of a weapon B) aggression against women

question

examples of aggression cues

answer

tv, internet, and video games.

question

some influences on aggression

answer

aversive, arousal, the media, group context

question

aversive

answer

incidents/ pain, uncomfortable heat, an attack or overwhelming

question

arousal

answer

risk towards love to get a "rush" ( skydiving)

question

the media

answer

tv, internet, video games

question

group context

answer

the bigger the group the more aggressive. assariot begins aggressive acts often tend to spread rapidly

question

aggression be reduced?

answer

1. reduced aversive stimulation 2. rewarding & modeling nonaggression 3. eliciting reactions incompatible with aggression

question

ways to reduce aggression

answer

1.do NOT plant false, unreachable expectations in people's minds 2. rewards & reinforce cooperation & non aggressive behavior and ignore aggressive behavior 3. prevent aggression before it happens teach non aggressive conflict resolution strategies 4. teach problems: solving skills, emotion control strategies and conflict resolution technique 5. reduce tv watching and video game play

question

teach problems

answer

solving, skills, emotion control strategies, and conflict resolution techniques.

STUDY

Group Psychology Nominal Group Technique Organizational Behavior Social Identity Theory

Management 340 Final Exam – Flashcards 102 terms

Ruth Blanco

102 terms

Preview

Management 340 Final Exam – Flashcards

question

Groups

answer

Two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent, who have come together to achieve particular objectives.

question

Formal groups

answer

Those groups defined by the organization's structure.

question

Informal groups

answer

Alliances that are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

question

What characteristics make a social identity important to a person?

answer

1) Similarity 2) Distinctiveness 3) Status 4) Uncertainty reduction

question

The 5 stages of group development:

answer

1) Forming 2) Storming 3) Norming 4) Performing 5) Adjourning.

question

Forming stage

answer

The first stage in group development, characterized by much uncertainty and negative emotion.

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Storming stage

answer

The second stage in group development, characterized by intragroup conflict, resistance, and questioning leadership.

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Norming stage

answer

The third stage in group development, characterized by close relationships, cohesiveness, and agreement.

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Performing stage

answer

The fourth stage in group development, during which the group is fully functional.

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Adjourning stage

answer

The final stage in group development, characterized by concern with wrapping up activities rather than task performance.

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Role perception

answer

An individual's view of how he or she is supposed to act in a given situation.

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Role expectations

answer

How others believe a person should act in a given situation.

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Role conflict

answer

A situation in which an individual is confronted by divergent role expectations.

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Norms

answer

Acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group's members.

question

4 types of norms:

answer

1) Performance norms 2) Appearance norms 3) Social Arrangement norms 4) Resource Allocation norms

question

Group size

answer

Smaller groups are faster at completing tasks than larger ones. Larger groups are better at gaining input, while smaller groups are better doing something with input.

question

Social loafing

answer

The tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than alone.

question

Ways to reduce social loafing:

answer

1) Make individual contributions identifiable. 2) Make individuals feel that they are making valuable contributions to the group. 3) Remind employees why they were chosen for the team. 4) Keep the group as small as possible. 5) A "deviant" on the team can be a good thing.

question

Cohesiveness

answer

The degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group.

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Diversity in a group

answer

The degree to which members of the group are similar to, or different from, one another.

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Group diversity cons

answer

Diversity can lead to more group conflict due to a difference in values and opinions. Diversity can be bad for groups unless managed effectively.

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Strengths of group decision making

answer

1) Groups generate more complete information. 2) Groups lead to increased acceptance of a solution; members are more likely to support and encourage others to accept it.

question

Weaknesses of group decision making

answer

1) Decision making is time consuming. 2) There are conformity pressures. 3) Group discussion can be dominated by one or a few members. 4) Suffer from ambiguous responsibility.

question

Groupthink

answer

Describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

question

Groupshift

answer

A change between a group's decision and an individual decision that a member within the group would make; the shift can be toward either conservatism or greater risk but it generally is toward a more extreme version of the group's original position.

question

Interacting groups

answer

The most common type of group in which members interact with each other face to face.

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Brainstorming

answer

Encourages any and all alternatives while withholding any criticism of those alternatives.

question

Nominal group technique

answer

A group decision making method in which individual members meet face to face to pool their judgments in a systematic, but independent fashion.

question

Work team

answer

An interdependent, intact social system that has one or more tasks to perform, and operates within an organizational context.

question

What determines a successful work team?

answer

1) Quality / Quantity / Timeliness 2) The ability to work together again 3) Personal growth and well-being

question

Why do work teams fail?

answer

1) Inappropriate use of teams. 2) Lack of support from organizational leaders. 3) Lack of good information. 4) Lack of team member skills.

question

The functions of Communication

answer

1) Emotional expression 2) Information 3) Control 4) Motivation

question

Emotional expression

answer

Provides a release for the emotional expression of feelings and for fulfillment of social needs.

question

Information

answer

Communication facilitates decision-making. It provides information by transmitting the data to identify and evaluate optional choices.

question

Control

answer

Organizations have authority to make employees follow formal guidelines. Informational communication also controls behavior. When groups tease or harass a member who produces too much, they are informally communicating with, and controlling, the member's behavior.

question

Motivation

answer

Clarifies to employees what is to be done, how well they are doing, and what can be done to improve performance.

question

Formal communication channel

answer

Established by an organization to transmit messages related to the professional activities of members.

question

Informal communication channel

answer

Created spontaneously and that emerge as responses to individual choices.

question

Downward communication

answer

Flows from one level to a lower level. Purpose is to assign goals, provide instructions, communicate policies and procedures, and provide feedback. It must explain the reasons why a decision was made. It has a one-way nature.

question

Upward communication

answer

Flows to a higher level. It provides feedback to higher-ups, informs them of progress, and relays current problems.

question

How to engage in effective upward communication

answer

1) Try to reduce distractions. 2) Communicate in headlines, not paragraphs. 3) Prepare an agenda.

question

Lateral communication

answer

When communication takes place among members of the same work group, among members of work groups at the same level, among managers at the same level, or among any horizontally equivalent personnel, horizontal communications are often necessary to save time and facilitate coordination.

question

Oral communication

answer

Speeches, formal one-on-one and group discussions, and informal rumor mill or grapevine. Advantages are speed and feedback. A disadvantage arises when the message must be passed through a number of people, creating distortion.

question

Written communication

answer

Memos, letter, e-mail, faxes, periodicals, and bulletin boards. Advantages include that they are tangible and verifiable. Disadvantages are that it is time-consuming, lack of feedback, and there is no guarantee of receipt.

question

Nonverbal communication

answer

Body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give in words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver.

question

Drawbacks to e-mailing

answer

1) Misinterpreting the message. 2) Communicating the negative messages. 3) Time-consuming. 4) Limited expression of emotions. 5) Privacy concerns.

question

Leadership

answer

The ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals. (Not all leaders are managers, nor are all managers leaders)

question

Trait theories of leadership

answer

Theories that consider personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from nonleaders.

question

Emotional intelligence (EI)

answer

Advocates argue that without EI, a person can have outstanding training, a highly analytical mind, a compelling vision, and an endless supply of terrific ideas, but still not make a great leader. A core component of EI is empathy.

question

Initiating structure

answer

The extent to which a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and those of subordinates in the search for goal attainment.

question

Consideration

answer

The extent to which a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings.

question

Fiedler contingency model

answer

Proposes that effective group performance depends on the proper match between the leader's style and the degree to which the situation gives the leader control. Fiedler believes that leadership is fixed.

question

Task oriented leader

answer

Wants high performance and accomplishment of all tasks. Getting the job done is first priority.

question

Relationship oriented

answer

Wants to be liked by and to get along well with subordinates. Getting the job done is second priority.

question

Least Preferred Co-worker (LPC) scale

answer

High LPC leaders = relationship oriented Low LPC leaders = task oriented

question

Situational Leadership theory

answer

Situational leadership is a contingency theory that focuses on the followers. Successful leadership is achieved by selecting the right leadership style, which is contingent on the level of the followers' readiness.

question

Charismatic leadership theory

answer

States that followers make attributions of heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors.

question

Transformational leaders

answer

Leaders who inspire followers to transcend their own self-interests and who are capable of having a profound and extraordinary effect on followers.

question

Organizational structure

answer

How job tasks are formally divided, grouped and coordinated.

question

Work specialization

answer

The degree to which tasks in an organization are subdivided into separate jobs.

question

Departmentalization

answer

Grouping jobs together so common tasks can be coordinated.

question

Departmentalization categories

answer

1) By functions performed. 2) By type of product or service the organization produces. 3) By geography or territory. 4) By process differences. 5) By type of customer.

question

Chain of command

answer

The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest and clarifies who reports to whom.

question

Authority

answer

The rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect them to be obeyed.

question

Unity of command

answer

Helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority. A person should have one and only one superior to whom he or she is directly responsible.

question

Span of control

answer

The number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively direct. The wider the span of control, the more efficient the organization.

question

Centralization

answer

The degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. Top managers make the decisions and lower level managers carry out their duties.

question

Decentralization

answer

Decision making is made by the managers closest to the action. A decentralized organization can act more quickly to solve problems, more people provide input into decisions, and employees are less likely to feel alienated from those who make decisions that affect their work lives.

question

Formulation

answer

The degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized.

question

High formalization

answer

The employee has little freedom in making their own decisions. The greater the standardization, the less input the employee has into how the job is done.

question

Low formalization

answer

Job behaviors are relatively unprogrammed, employees have a great deal of freedom to exercise discretion in their work.

question

Bureaucracy is characterized by

answer

1) Highly routine operating tasks. 2) Very formalized rules and regulations. 3) Functional departments. 4) Centralized authority. 5) Narrow spans of control. 6) Chain of command.

question

Matrix structure

answer

An organization structure that creates dual lines of authority and combines functional and product departmentalization.

question

Product departmentalization

answer

Provides clear responsibility for all activities related to a product, but with duplication of activities and costs in order to facilitate coordination.

question

Boundaryless organization

answer

Seeks to eliminate the chain of command, have limitless spans of control, and replace departments with empowered teams. It uses cross-hierarchical teams, participative decision-making practices, and 360 degree performance appraisals.

question

Virtual organization

answer

A small, core organization that outsources major business functions.

question

Mechanist model

answer

Formal, controlling Centralized decision making Clearly defined tasks Rules and regulations

question

Organic model

answer

Dynamic, flexible Empowered teams Continuous improvement Norms and values

question

Initial selection

answer

Used for preliminary rough cuts to decide whether an applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job.

question

Most useful methods of initial selection

answer

1) Applications 2) Background checks

question

Substantive selection

answer

The second step to selecting an employee.

question

The most useful methods of substantive selection

answer

1) Written tests 2) Performance-simulation tests 3) Work sample tests 4) Interviews 5) Situational judgment tests

question

Assessment centers

answer

A set of performance-simulation tests designed to evaluate a candidate's managerial potential.

question

Written tests

answer

Written test have been around for a long time. Written tests are tests of intelligence, aptitude, ability, interest, and integrity. Good for jobs that require cognitive complexity.

question

Performance-simulation tests

answer

Performance-simulation tests have higher face validity and their popularity has increased.

question

Work sampling tests

answer

Hands-on simulations of part or all of the job that must be performed by applicants.

question

Situational judgment tests

answer

To reduce the costs of job simulations, many organizations have started to use situational judgment tests, which ask applicants how they would perform in a variety of job situations and compare their answers to those of high-performing employees.

question

Interviews

answer

The most frequently used method. The candidate who performs poorly in the employment interview is likely to be cut, regardless of his/her experince, test scores, or letters of recommendation, and vice versa.

question

Purposes of performance evaluations

answer

1) Human resource decisions 2) Evaluations identify training and development needs 3) Pinpoint employee skills and competencies needing development 4) Criterion for selection and development 5) Provide feedback to employees 6) Evaluation is supposed to facilitate fairness

question

Methods of performance evaluation

answer

1) Written essays 2) Critical incidents 3) Graphic ratings scales 4) Behaviorally anchored rating scales 5) Forced comparisons

question

Reasons to eliminate performance reviews

answer

Evaluators can unconsciously give positive leniency to certain employees, give negative leniency to others, or allow the assessment of one characteristic to unduly influence the assessment of others.

question

Forces that act as stimulants to change and contrast planned and unplanned change

answer

1) Nature of the workforce 2) Technology 3) Economic Shocks 4) Competition 5) Social trends 6) World politics

question

Planned change

answer

Change activities that are intentional and goal oriented.

question

Two goals of planned change

answer

1) Improve the organization to adapt to changes in its environment. 2) Change employee behavior.

question

Change Management (CM)

answer

A planned approach to transitioning the people of an organization through a business transformation.

question

Essential elements of CM

answer

1) Preparing for change 2) Managing change 3) Reinforcing change

question

Ways to overcome resistance to change

answer

1) Education and communication 2) Participation 3) Building support and commitment 4) Develop positive relationships 5) Implementing changes fairly 6) Manipulation and cooperation 7) Selecting people who accept change 8) Coercion

question

Good things that result from resistance

answer

1) Indicates engagement 2) Forces the team to validate assumptions 3) Early indicator of feasibility issue 4) Resistance = inquisitiveness

question

Lewin's three-step model

answer

Unfreezing the status quo, Movement to a desired state, and Refreezing the new change to make it permanent.

question

Kotter's 8 step plan

answer

1) Establish a sense of urgency by creating a compelling reason for why change is needed. 2) Form a coalition with enough power to lead the change. 3) Create a new vision. 4) Communicate the vision to the organization. 5) Empower others to act on the vision. 6) Plan for, create, and reward short-term "wins" that move the organization forward. 7) Consolidate improvements, reassess changes, and make adjustments. 8) Reinforce the changes.

question

Action Research

answer

Action research is a change process based on the systematic collection of data and then selection of a change action based on what the analyzed data indicates. Benefits of Action research is an increased focus on problems, and a reduction to resistance to change.

question

5 steps of Action Research

answer

1) Diagnosis 2) Analysis 3) Feedback 4) Action 5) Evaluation

STUDY

Business Management Cost Benefit Analysis Cross Functional Team Group Decision Making Group Psychology Group Theory Potential For Conflict

BUS 200 – Test 1 (Chapters 1-6) – Flashcards 100 terms

Lisa Currey

100 terms

Preview

BUS 200 – Test 1 (Chapters 1-6) – Flashcards

question

Groups of people who work together to achieve a set of goals are called a(n): (Chapt. 1)

answer

Organization

question

The people within an organization who are responsible for supervising the organization's use of its resources are known as: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Managers

question

The measure of how well (or how productively) an organization uses its resources to achieve a goal is known as: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Efficiency

question

The measure of the "appropriateness" of the goals selected by management for the organization and the degree to which the organization accomplishes these goals is known as: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Effectiveness

question

In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions? (Chapt. 1)

answer

Planning, Organizing, Leading, Controlling

question

When managers motivate and assist workers to achieve organizational goals, this is an important aspect of: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Leading

question

The top management of an organization must devote more time to ________________ than lower level managers do. (Chapt. 1)

answer

Planning and Organizing

question

When an organization gives broader responsibilities for decision-making to first line supervisors, this is called: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Empowerment

question

The ability the analyze and diagnose a problem situation and distinguished between cause and effect called: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Conceptual Skill

question

The ability to understand, lead, and control the behavior of other workers is called: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Human Skill

question

Who founded the early study of management thought that became known as scientific management? (Chapt. 1)

answer

F.W. Taylor

question

The power to hold workers accountable for their actions and to make decisions about the use of organizational resources is known as: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Authority

question

Early "time-and-motion" studies were an important park of the work of: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Taylor

question

The "chain of command" which describes the reporting relationships of managers from the top to the bottom of the organization is known as: (Chapt. 1)

answer

The Line of Authority

question

The relationship studies that experimented with different levels of lighting and its impact on worker performance and fatigue are known as: (Chapt. 1)

answer

The Hawthorne Studies

question

Who proposed "Authority should go with knowledge....whether it is up the line or down?" (Chapt. 1)

answer

Follett

question

One of the main implications of the Hawthorne a Studies was that: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Workers' feelings and thoughts can effect performance

question

Managers who accept the assumptions of Theory X: (Chapt. 1)

answer

All of the above

question

Managers who accept Theory Y: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Create a work setting that encourages commitment

question

If a manager feels that his or her responsibility is to create a work setting in which subordinates consider their work to be satisfying, this manager is acting consistently with the principles of: (Chapt. 1)

answer

Theory Y

question

Managers who tend to be sociable, outgoing, and friendly, are frequently referred to as: (Chapt. 2)

answer

Extroverts

question

Managers who score low on extroversion are frequently referred to as: (Chapt. 2)

answer

Introverts

question

The tendency of a manager to get along well with other workers is known as: (Chapt. 2)

answer

Agreeableness

question

Managers who believe that they are largely responsible for their own fate are said to be high in: (Chapt. 2)

answer

Internal Locus of Control

question

According to McClelland, the extent to which a manager has a strong desire to challenging tasks and to meet personal standards of excellence is known as: (Chapt. 2)

answer

The Need of Achievement

question

According to McClelland, the extent to which a manager has a strong desire to control and to influence others is known as: (Chapt. 2)

answer

The Need for Power

question

All of the following are examples of instrumental values EXCEPT: (Chap. 2)

answer

Inner Harmony

question

A manager who is self-reliant and self-sufficient is expressing which type of instrumental value? (Chap. 2)

answer

Independence

question

The collection of feelings and beliefs that a manager has about his or her current job is referred to as: (Chap. 2)

answer

Job Satisfaction

question

An intense, relatively short-lived feeling is called a(n): (Chap. 2)

answer

Emotion

question

People who are high on extroversion are especially likely to experience ________________. (Chap. 2)

answer

Positive Moods

question

People in negative moods tend to: (Chap. 2)

answer

Be more accurate in judgements

question

The ability of a manager to understand and to manage his or her own emotions and the emotions of others is known as that manager's: (Chap. 2)

answer

Emotional Intelligence

question

Emotional intelligence may help managers perform interpersonal roles such as: (Chap. 2)

answer

Liaison

question

Recent theorizing and research suggest that managers' emotional intelligence may be especially important in: (Chap. 2)

answer

Increasing Employee Creativity

question

An organization's culture is most like its: (Chap. 2)

answer

Personality

question

Attraction-selection-attrition processes are most evident in: (Chap. 2)

answer

Small Firms

question

Which of these characteristics of managers shape organizational culture? (Chap. 2)

answer

All of the above

question

Managers maintain and transmit culture through all but one of the following. Which one? (Chap. 2)

answer

Technology

question

Rites of ________________ are determined how individuals enter, advance within, or leave the organization. (Chap. 2)

answer

Passage

question

The moral principles and beliefs about what is "right" and "wrong" are known as: (Chap. 3)

answer

Ethics

question

An ethical dilemma is a situation in which a person has to decide if she should act in a way that ________________, even though doing so may ________________. (Chap. 3)

answer

Is the "right" thing to do; go against her own self-interest

question

________________ are thoughts and feelings that tell people what is right or wrong. (Chap. 3)

answer

Moral Scruples

question

Which of the following is a skateholder for an organization? (Chap. 3)

answer

All of the above

question

Which of the following is NOT a skateholder? (Chap. 3)

answer

All of the above are skateholders

question

________________ are often regarded as the most critical skateholder group. (Chap. 3)

answer

Customers

question

Under the ________________ rule, an ethical decision is the one that best maintains people's fundamental privileges. (Chap. 3)

answer

Moral Rights

question

A managerial decision that would be reasonable and acceptable to a typical skateholder in the organization is called a(n): (Chap. 3)

answer

Ethical Decision

question

A person's confidence and faith in another person's goodwill is called: (Chap. 3)

answer

Trust

question

Ethical behavior is NOT: (Chap. 3)

answer

Reduce a company's performance

question

The esteem of high repute that individuals or organizations gain when they behave ethically is called: (Chap. 3)

answer

Reputation

question

Standards that govern how members of a society should deal with one another in matters involving issues such as fairness, justice, poverty, an individual rights are called: (Chap. 3)

answer

Social Ethics

question

The guiding practices and beliefs through which a particular firm and its managers view their responsibilities to skateholders are called: (Chap. 3)

answer

Organizational Ethics

question

An important source of organizational ethic is: (Chap. 3)

answer

Both C and D

question

Which of the following is an important part of diversity? (Chap. 3)

answer

All of these

question

An "invisible barrier" that prevents women and minorities from being promoted to top management is called a(n): (Chap. 3)

answer

Glass Ceiling

question

What rule states that an ethical decision should produce the greatest good for the greatest number of people? (Chap. 3)

answer

Utilitarian Rule

question

Once society passes a law about how to behave, the behavior in question moves from the ________________sphere to the ________________. (Chap. 3)

answer

Ethic; legal

question

To help create and maintain an ethical organization, manager should: (Chap. 3)

answer

All of the above

question

A person responsible for communicating and teaching ethical standard is called a(n): (Chap. 3)

answer

Ethics Ombudsman

question

All of the following are examples of the task environment of the organization EXCEPT: (Chap. 4)

answer

Sociocultural Forces

question

All of the following are examples of the general environment organization EXCEPT: (Chap. 4)

answer

Distributors

question

Organizations that supply another organization with the raw materials that it needs to produce goods are known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

Suppliers

question

Organizations the help other organizations to sell their goods to customers are known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

Distributors

question

Typically, when new competitors enter an industry, competition ________________ while prices ________________. (Chap. 4)

answer

Increases; Decreases

question

The cost advantages that are associated with large organization are known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

Economics of Scale

question

The preference of a customer for the products of a particular organization is known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

Brand Loyalty

question

Which of the following is an economic force in the environment? (Chap. 4)

answer

All of the above

question

The combination of equipment and skills which managers use in the production and distribution of good is known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

Technology

question

The collection of values that a society considers important and the norms of behavior that are approved by the society are known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

The National Culture

question

The outcomes of the changes in the laws of a society are known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

Political and Legal Forces

question

Which of the following is an example of a political and legal force in the environment? (Chap. 4)

answer

All of the above

question

Which of the following changes is an example of a global force in the environment? (Chap. 4)

answer

All of the above

question

A tax that government imposes on goods imported into the country is known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

A tariff

question

The values, norms, beliefs, laws, and customs that unite the citizens of a country are known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

The National Culture

question

In a society, the customs for correct dress and social manners are known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

Folkways

question

Norms that are central to the functioning of a society are known as: (Chap. 4)

answer

question

If a society believes that self-expression is important to the people in that society, then the society is said to value: (Chap. 4)

answer

Individualism

question

While the Japanese culture typically values ________________, the U.S. culture typically values ________________. (Chap. 4)

answer

Collectivism; Individualism

question

A society that highly value persistence in attempting to achieve goals is said to have: (Chap. 4)

answer

Long-term Orientation

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The process by which managers respond to opportunities and threats facing their organization by analyzing options and taking actions is known as: (Chap. 5)

answer

Decision-Making

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Managers make decision when they are involved in which managerial function? (Chap. 5)

answer

All of the above

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Decisions that have been made many times in the past and for which managers have rules and guidelines as to how to make similar decisions in the future are known as: (Chap. 5)

answer

Programmed Decisions

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Nonroutine decisions made in response to novel situations in business are known as: (Chap. 5)

answer

Non-programmed Decisions

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A manager's ability to make a good decision based on past experience and "a gut feeling" is known as: (Chap. 5)

answer

An intuitive decision

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In the classical model of decision-making, the most appropriate decision given the likely future consequences to the organization is known as: (Chap. 5)

answer

The optimum decision

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All of the following are important aspects of the administrative model of decision making EXCEPT: (Chap. 5)

answer

Brainstorming

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When managers know the possible outcomes of a decision and can assign probabilities to each of these outcomes in terms of their likelihood of occurrence in the future, this is known as: (Chap. 5)

answer

Risk

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An organization introduces a new product unlike any previously on the market, for which it cannot estimate the probability of success. This condition is called: (Chap. 5)

answer

Uncertainty

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When the meaning of the information available to a manager is unclear and can be interpreted in several ways, the information: (Chap. 5)

answer

Ambiguous

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When the information available to a manager is incomplete because the manager must make a decision quickly, this is known as: (Chap. 5)

answer

A Time Constraint

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A manager considers a limited sample of the potential alternative solutions for a problem a don selects one that is acceptable instead of attempting to select the optimum solution. This type of decision is called: (Chap. 5)

answer

Satisficing

question

A manager who assumes responsibility for providing the leadership needed to develop a new product and bring it to the marketplace is called a(n): (Chap. 5)

answer

Product Champion

question

Decisions that are made in unusual, no recurring situations are called ________________ decisions. (Chap. 5)

answer

Non-programmed

question

A decision-making technique in which group members write down ideas, read suggestions to the group, discuss and rank alternatives is called: (Chap. 5)

answer

Nominal Group Technique

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Managers who take responsibility within their own company for developing new products are called: (Chap. 5)

answer

Intrapreneurs

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The tendency to have a loss of productivity due to the unstructured nature of brainstorming. (Chap. 5)

answer

Production Blocking

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Members of a group strive so hard to agree on an important decision that they ignore information that is counter to the evidence supporting the point-of-view that they are considering adopting. This is known as: (Chap. 5)

answer

Group Think

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A member of a group challenges the decision toward which the group considers carefully all of the unacceptable possible outcomes of the alternative that they group is considering. This is known as: (Chap. 5)

answer

Devil's Advocacy

question

A group of managers meet face-to-face and generates and debates a wide variety of alternatives from which to make a decision. This is called: (Chap. 5)

answer

Brainstorming

STUDY

Business Management Cost Benefit Analysis Group Decision Making Group Psychology Management

Kinicki & Williams, Principles of Management, Chapter 1-3, test 1 – Flashcards 91 terms

Joseph Fraser

91 terms

Preview

Kinicki & Williams, Principles of Management, Chapter 1-3, test 1 – Flashcards

question

organization

answer

group of people working together to achieve a specific purpose

question

7 challenges of managers

answer

managing for: 1. competitive advantage 2. diversity 3. globalization 4. information technology 5. ethical standards 6. sustainability 7. personal happiness and goals

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how to gain competitive advantage

answer

being responsive to customers, innovation, quality, efficiency

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e-business

answer

speeds up decision making, conflict and stress causes changes in org. structure, jobs, goal setting, and knowledge management

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4 principal functions of managers

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PLOC: planning, organizing, leading, controlling

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planning

answer

set goals and decide how to achieve them

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organizing

answer

arrange tasks, people and resources to accomplish work

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leading

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motivate, direct, and influence people to work hard to achieve org's goals

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controlling

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monitor performance, compare to goals, correct things if needed

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top managers

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long term decisions about direction of org. establish objectives, policies, and strategies

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middle managers

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carry out the policies and plans of top managers supervise and coordinate activities of first-lin managers

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first-line managers

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short term operating decisions direct daily tasks of non-managers

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functional manager

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responsible for only one organizational activity

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general manager

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responsible for several organizational activities

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Mitzberg's useful findings

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1.managers rely more on oral that written communication 2.long hours w/ intense pace 3.work is fragmented, brief, and various 4. 3 types of managerial roles

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interpersonal roles and examples

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interacting with people in and out of their work unit figurehead, leader, liaison

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figurehead

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manager acting as representative of the firm, symbolic

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liaison

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manager acting as a link between one unit and another

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informational roles and examples

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receive and communicate info monitor, disseminator, spokesperson

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monitor

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collecting info on behalf of organization

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disseminator

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sharing information with subordinates

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spokesperson

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speaking on behalf of the organization

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decisional roles and examples

answer

us info to make decisions to solve problems or take advantage of opportunities entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, negotiator

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entrepreneur

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establish new things, bring forth fresh ideas, taking risk to make an empire

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resource allocator

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make decisions about where/what/when to use resources on

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negotiators

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deal with problems when two parties are at odds with one another, negotiate in order to find compromise

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necessity entrepreneurs

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forced to start a business in order to make a living

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opportunity entrepreneurs

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create their business based on a burning desire

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technical skills - what level manager needs this most?

answer

job-specific knowledge needed to perform in specialized field - first-line

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conceptual skills - what level manager needs this most?

answer

analytical thinking, understanding how the part of the organization work together as a whole - top

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human skills - what level manager needs this most?

answer

ability to cooperate with others to get things done - middle

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most valued traits in managers

answer

ability to motivate and engage people ability to communicate global work experience high energy

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evidence based management

answer

using evidence and research to help in decision making

question

scientific management

answer

applies the scientific method to place emphasis on increasing productivity or getting more out of people

question

Frederick Taylor and the Gilbreths

answer

pioneers the scientific management approach

question

principles of scientific management

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1. study each part of task 2.select workers with right abilities 3.train workers and give incentives 4. use principles to plan work method

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administrative management

answer

focuses on rules/guidelines for managing a total organization

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Fayol & Weber

answer

pioneers of administrative management

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bureaucracy

answer

organization that is run by a set of rules to outline how things get done

question

5 positive Bureaucratic features

answer

1.heirarchy of authority - bosses 2.rules and procedures - everyone follows 3.division of labor - aware of who is in charge of what tasks 4.impersonality - all people w/ same title held to same expectations 5.careers based on merit - promoted based on skills and performance

question

downside of scientific and administrative management

answer

very mechanistic - people treated/viewed as machines not humans

question

behavioral viewpoint

answer

recognizes that human have needs, and those needs can be used to motivate employees in the org.

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Munsterberg, Follett & Mayo

answer

pioneers of behavioral viewpoint

question

principles of behavioralism

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1. pair people with best jobs for them 2. give people the conditions they need to do best work 3. influence employees to follow management's wants 4. org's should be communities 5. manager/worker communication and compromise 6.give workers a sense of control over their work

question

Hawthorne effect

answer

employees work harder if they are given attention and think their welfare matters to managers

question

Maslow

answer

1. involved in the behaviorism approach 2. hierarchy of needs 3. lower level needs have to be fulfilled before higher can be achieved

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hierarchy of needs in relation to management

answer

managers can provide opportunities, incentives, to help satisfy their needs through their job tasks

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McGregor

answer

can up with theory x and y - not actually theory...more like approaches

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theory x

answer

assumption that people don't want to work

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theory y

answer

assumption that people do want to work

question

self-fulfilling prophecy

answer

if you have the idea and assumption that people are going to behave a certain way, they usually conform to that expectation of manager

question

behavioral science (organizational behavior)

answer

use research, develop theories about behavior that can be practical tools for managers

question

quantitative viewpoints

answer

application of mathematical techniques to solve management problems

question

management science

answer

use math models to help decision making/strategy planning

question

operations management

answer

using math to aid in the decision making about manufacturing

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systems approach

answer

reviewing organization as a system and as a collection of system

question

4 parts of system

answer

inputs, transformational processes, outputs, feedback

question

open systems vs closed systems

answer

open - interactive w/ its environment close - limited interaction w/ environment

question

contingency viewpoint

answer

emphasis on choosing the appropriate managerial approach

question

quality control

answer

strategize to minimize errors by managing each stage of production

question

quality

answer

ability of a product/service to totally meet customer needs

question

Total quality management

answer

TQM- complex, comprehensive process, continuous quality improvement

question

TQM principles

answer

continuous improvement get all employees involved listen/learn from customers and employees accurate standards to id/eliminate probs

question

learning organization

answer

actively handles and spreads knowledge within org. and modify behavior to reflect new knowledge

question

build a learning org

answer

1. commit to learning 2. generate ideas with impact 3. disseminate ideas within org

question

stakeholders

answer

ppl/groups whose interests are affected by org's activities can be internal/external -have enforceable claim in the org

question

internal stakeholders

answer

have stake in org and are in org....employees, owners and board

question

stockholders

answer

the owners of firms who put in the capital

question

board of directors

answer

oversees managers to make sure the stockholders interests are being acted upon

question

external stakeholders: 2 types

answer

the task environment and general environment

question

task environment

answer

customers, competitors, suppliers, distributors, strategic allies, government regulators, special interest groups, unions & associations, local communities, financial institutions, mass media

question

special interest groups

answer

groups that try to influence specific issues: PETA

question

general environment

answer

forces/developments that impact all firms - international forces, economic forces, technological forces, sociocultural forces, demographic forces, political-legal forces

question

ethical dilemma

answer

decision between beneficial/illegal or unethical options

question

ethics

answer

standard of right and wrong

question

values

answer

deeply held personal beliefs and attitudes that influence behavior

question

4 approaches to ethical dilemma

answer

utilitarian, individual, moral-rights, justice

question

utilitarian approach to ethics

answer

goal is doing the greatest good for the greatest amount of people/maximize total happiness

question

individual approach to ethics

answer

goal is the best long term decision for individual - can lead to everyones' self interest

question

moral-rights

answer

guided by respect for human rights

question

justice

answer

guided by respect for impartial standards....everyone equal and everything fair

question

SOX

answer

established requirements for proper financial record keeping for public companies...penalties defined as well

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Kohlberg's theories

answer

cognitive moral development

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level 1 of Kohlberg's theory

answer

preconventional - follows rules to avoid getting in trouble

question

level 2 of Kohlberg's theory

answer

conventional - follows expectations of others...trying to please others

question

level 3 of Kohlberg's theory

answer

postconventional - guided by internal values

question

how to promote ethics(4)

answer

creating strong ethical climate in the workplace screening prospective employees have ethic codes and training program-rules that everyone is aware of and obey reward ethical behavior! protect whistleblowers

question

social responsibility

answer

corporations are expected to do more than make a profit, benefit the society as well as org.

question

4 levels of social responsibility

answer

economic, legal, ethic, philanthropic

question

2 types of social responsibility

answer

sustainability- green consciousness philanthropy- charitable giving

question

corporate governance

answer

-comes from the board of directors -meant to protect the interests of the owners and stakeholders

STUDY

AP Psychology Group Psychology Psychology Stanford Prison Experiment

Group Behaviors 23 terms

Mary Browning

23 terms

Preview

Group Behaviors

question

Based on the concept of groupthink, what is the most likely response of Ralph's group to the new member's proposal?

answer

Ralph and his group will quickly reject the old method.

question

Which of the following situations reflect the effects of deindividuation?

answer

Harry, who is normally reserved and formal, painted his face and body with his college team colors at the football game last Saturday.

question

Groupthink tends to stimulate rational discussion within groups.

answer

False

question

In Milgram's obedience studies, most people gave the most extreme shocks even though they thought the shocks would be deadly.

answer

True

question

Solomon Asch showed that most people will reject and resist the efforts of an otherwise unanimously agreed group.

answer

False

question

The Stanford prison experiment was terminated early due to pyschological abuse suffered by the prisoners at the hands of the guards.

answer

True

question

Which of the following researchers conducted the Stanford prison experiment in order to test the effects of social roles on behavior?

answer

Phillip Zimbardo

question

Which of the following psychological effects of groups likely led to John's uninhibited behavior?

answer

deindividuation

question

According to Solomon Asch's and other research results concerning conformity, all of the following increases an individual's tendency to conform except __________.

answer

if one is feeling secure and competent

question

Which of the following researchers conducted conformity studies in order to test the effects of group pressure on one's behavior?

answer

Solomon Asch

question

Which of the following situations reflect the effects of deindividuation?

answer

Harry, who is normally reserved and formal, painted his face and body with his college team colors at the football game last Saturday.

question

A social trap is a situation in which individuals __________.

answer

choose self-interested behavior over beneficial cooperation

question

Tendency to attribute faults of one group to another group in opposition is __________.

answer

mirror-image perceptions

question

Which of the following is a reason that groups are likely to enter into a conflict?

answer

The groups are competing for resources.

question

How did the two groups at Robbers Cave enter into conflict?

answer

The two groups were pitted against each other to compete for prizes and resources.

question

Based on your knowledge of social traps, what is the most likely outcome of the above scenario?

answer

The fishermen will begin to fish more often, depleting the local fish supply.

question

Many types of conflict are caused by __________.

answer

scarcity of available resources

question

An effective way to eliminate the dangers of social traps is to pass legislation that makes the selfish advantage of social traps less desirable.

answer

True

question

Mirror-image perceptions tend to create feelings of respect between parties in conflict.

answer

False

question

All of the following are probable ways to de-escalate conflict between groups except ___________.

answer

reducing all communication after conflict occurs

question

Superordinate goals are only practical in experiments, not in real life.

answer

False

question

If people are aware of the dangers of social traps, they are more likely to cooperate with each other.

answer

True

question

When attempting to overcome a conflict, it is a good idea to listen to the most extreme opinions that reflect little change of compromise.

answer

True

STUDY

Group Psychology Introductory Sociology Rules And Regulations Sociology

SOC 101: Chapter 5 39 terms

Jason Westley

39 terms

Preview

SOC 101: Chapter 5

question

Aggregate

answer

A collection of people who share a physical location but do not have lasting social relations (page 124)

question

Anomie

answer

\"Normlessness\"; term used to describe the alienation and loss of purpose that result from weaker social bonds and an increased pace of change (page 128)

question

Authority

answer

The legitimate right to wield power (page 141)

question

Bureaucracy

answer

A type of secondary group designed to perform tasks efficiently, characterized by specialization, technical competence, hierarchy, rules and regulations, impersonality, and formal written communication (page 144)

question

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