most inherited breast cancers are associated with mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2

everyone has BRCA geness BRCA1 is located on chromosome 17 and is a tumor suppressor gene that inhibits tumor development when functioning normally BRCA2 located on chromosome `11 is another tumor suppressor gene More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/lewis-pg-1243-1255-breast-cancer/

Genetic tests that detect mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 oncogenes are widely available. These tests reveal a number of mutations in these genes – mutations that have been linked to familial breast cancer. Assume that a young woman in a suspected breast cancer family takes the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic tests and receives negative results. That is, she does not test positive for the mutant alleles of BRCA1 or BRCA2. Can she consider herself free of risk for breast cancer?

No, she will still have the general population risk of about 10 percent. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/gen-chap-19/

What is the BRCA1 and BRCA2 markers for

Breast cancer More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/cancer-markers/

Brca1 And Brca2 test questions and answers | Get Access To Brca1 And Brca2 Flashcards and exam tests

Q: Which statement is true about BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes? These genes were discovered in 1953. Cancerous tumors often form on these genes. People can be tested for mutations on these genes. Mutations of these genes lead to diabetes.

People can be tested for mutations on these genes. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/proteins-and-nucleic-acids/

Q: The genes BRCA1 and BRCA2 are associated with an increased risk for what type of cancer? colon breast skin brain

breast More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/quiz-15-2/

Q: A mutation in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene is associated with an increased risk for what type of cancer?

breasts More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/health-and-science-chapter-15/

Q: BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes

-located on chromosome 17 and 13 -mutation of these genes increase the rick of breast cancer More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-10-mutations-and-cancer/

Q: BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations

are incompletely penetrant More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/human-genetics-chapter-18/

Home Page Science Biology Pathology Brca1 And Brca2

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Brca1 And Brca2 Genetics Pathology

Human Genetics: Chapter 18 – Flashcards 46 terms

Charlotte Small

46 terms

Preview

Human Genetics: Chapter 18 – Flashcards

question

Genes that normally prevent cell division are

answer

tumor suppressors

question

BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations

answer

are incompletely penetrant

question

Invasive malignant tumors typically contain mutations that affect the cytoskeleton and allow the cell to move from where it is anchored

answer

true

question

A cancer stem cell can divide to give rise to

answer

tumor cells, abnormal daughter cells, normal cells, and more cancer stem cells.

question

Several genes that cause inherited forms of breast cancer have _____ in common.

answer

interference with repair of a double-strand DNA breaks

question

Sporadic cancers result from

answer

recessive or dominant mutation in a somatic cell.

question

Matthew has the inherited form of the eye cancer retinoblastoma. His disease is caused by

answer

a germinal mutation in one RB allele, then a somatic mutation in the other allele.

question

In 1971, cancer was thought to be caused by

answer

radiation, viruses, and chemical exposures.

question

Loss of tumor suppression in a cell usually results from

answer

a deletion of a tumor suppressor gene.

question

When tumor cell DNA is examined from people at different stages of the same cancer type, mutations that are common to all of them

answer

act early in the disease.

question

A breast cancer test for HER2 considers

answer

genotype

question

A way that a microRNA can cause cancer is to

answer

block translation of tumor suppressor gene transcripts.

question

A cancer's spread is called

answer

metastasis

question

Which of these are thought to have anti-cancer benefits?

answer

cruciferous vegetables such as broccoli

question

A proto-oncogene can become an oncogene when

answer

it is translocated next to a highly expressed gene.

question

Which type of study would compare the incidence of colon cancer among Japanese and Americans of Japanese descent?

answer

population

question

The oncogene that causes Burkitt's lymphoma results from

answer

A translocation that moves a proto-oncogene next to an antibody gene.

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Chronic myeloid leukemia is caused by a translocation that creates

answer

a fusion protein that deregulates the cell cycle of myeloid white blood cells.

question

People were trying to treat cancer as long ago as

answer

1600 B.C.

question

Mutations in microRNAs can explain families who have different cancers but do not have mutation for known family cancer syndrome genes because

answer

a single type of microRNA can have many targets

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Pancreatic cancer typically begins 10 to 15 years before it causes abdominal pain and by the time diagnosis usually occurs, it has usually to the point where it is lethal within two years.

answer

true

question

Research has shown that a "cocktail" of several drugs, each acting on a different cellular pathway, is the best approach to treat many cancers.

answer

true

question

The diets of 250 patients with pancreatic cancer are compared to the diets of 250 healthy individuals, over a four month period. The patients and controls are matched one for one for age, sex, and body mass index. The cancer patients tended to eat more barbecued meat, and none of them were vegetarians. The healthy group included 30 vegetarians and only four of the 250 regularly ate barbecued meat. The researchers conclude that it would be worthwhile to further test the hypothesis that compounds in charred meat cause pancreatic cancer. What type of study is this?

answer

case-control

question

The term used to describe the fact that cancer cells have lost the specializations of the cells from which they descend is

answer

dedifferentiated

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A cancer cell is injected into a healthy mouse. The mouse develops tumors. This experiment indicates that cancer is

answer

transplantable.

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Mitosis in a cancer cell can be compared to a runaway train that is racing along without signals and control points.

answer

true

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Cancer does not typically follow a Mendelian pattern of inheritance because it is usually caused by

answer

specific combinations of alleles and an environmental factor.

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The cause of p53-related cancers is

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failure to repair damaged DNA, allowing the cell to continue dividing.

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Dana Reeve, the wife of actor Christopher Reeve, died at a young age from lung cancer, although she had never smoked. Her cancer was likely caused by

answer

a germline mutation.

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In addition to activated oncogenes and inactivated tumor suppressor genes, epigenetic changes in gene expression are seen in cancer.

answer

true

question

Cancer cells

answer

divide uncontrollably and are immortal.

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The connection between stem cells and cancer is that

answer

cells may become cancerous by expressing "stemness" genes.

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Traditional cancer treatments include

answer

surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.

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In normal differentiated somatic cells, telomerase

answer

is not expressed and telomere tips erode with each division.

question

Tanisha was just diagnosed with an aggressive form of breast cancer called Her-2/neu. The cancer started because

answer

her affected breast cells have many extra receptors for epidermal growth factor, and so they receive too many signals to divide.

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All cancers reflect, at the most general level, a defect in

answer

the cell cycle.

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Types of genetic information in a cancer "atlas" include

answer

mutations, gene expression, SNPs, microRNAs, and copy number variants.

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After mutations begin a cancer, other factors that influence whether the disease proceeds include

answer

location of the cancerous cell in the tissue, and how specialized the cell is

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The first mutation typically detected in FAP colon cancer is

answer

APC

question

A recently developed cancer treatment is

answer

inhibiting angiogenesis.

question

Growth of new blood vessels in and around tumors is called

answer

angiogenesis

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A gatekeeper gene

answer

regulates apoptosis and mitosis.

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In Wilms' tumor,

answer

cells in a child's kidney divide as frequently as if they were still in a fetus.

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A(n) _______ is a type of cancer-causing gene that promotes cancer by activating cell division at an inappropriate time or place

answer

oncogene

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Cancer cells are not

answer

contact inhibited.

question

Matthew has the inherited form of the eye cancer retinoblastoma. His disease is caused by

answer

a germinal mutation in one RB allele, then a somatic mutation in the other allele.

STUDY

Amino Acids Biology Brca1 And Brca2 James Watson And Francis Crick

Proteins and Nucleic Acids – Flashcards 10 terms

Kenneth McQuaid

10 terms

Preview

Proteins and Nucleic Acids – Flashcards

question

What effect has breast cancer research had on society? People who have gene mutations have more treatment options. People now face an increased risk of breast cancer. The complete history of breast cancer is now known. Breast cancer research has no impact outside of a lab.

answer

People who have gene mutations have more treatment options.

question

Which is a function of nucleic acids? regulate cell processes provide structure transmit genetic information fight disease

answer

transmit genetic information

question

Who discovered the monomers of nucleic acids? Phoebus Levene James Watson, Francis Crick, and Rosalind Franklin Friedrich Miescher Gerardus Johannes Mulder and Jöns Jacob Berxelius

answer

Phoebus Levene

question

How many amino acids cannot be made by the body, so they must be obtained in the diet? 2 5 10 20

answer

question

Which three components are common to all amino acids? an amino group, a carboxyl group, and an R group an amino group, a phosphate group, and an R group a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base a five-carbon sugar, an amino group, and a nitrogenous base

answer

an amino group, a carboxyl group, and an R group

question

How many amino acids are found in living organisms? 2 5 10 20

answer

question

Which statement is true about BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes? These genes were discovered in 1953. Cancerous tumors often form on these genes. People can be tested for mutations on these genes. Mutations of these genes lead to diabetes.

answer

People can be tested for mutations on these genes.

question

DNA and RNA share a number of similarities, but they also differ in certain aspects of their structure. Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA but is not found in DNA? uracil adenine thymine cytosine

answer

uracil

question

Which pair of statements best describes an essential amino acid? It is an amino acid that contains peptide bonds. An example is proline. It is an amino acid that contains nitrogen. An example is aspartic acid. It is an amino acid that cannot be made by the body. It must be obtained from eating certain foods. It is an amino acid that can be produced by the body. Vitamin supplements maintain healthy levels.

answer

It is an amino acid that cannot be made by the body. It must be obtained from eating certain foods.

question

Which element is found in nucleic acids but not in proteins? carbon hydrogen nitrogen phosphorus

answer

phosphorus

STUDY

Brca1 And Brca2 Increase The Risk Of Cancer Oncology The Environmental Protection Agency United States

Chapter 12 Health/Wellness – Flashcards 50 terms

Jacob Patel

50 terms

Preview

Chapter 12 Health/Wellness – Flashcards

question

A non-cancerous mole is

answer

symmetrical

question

Uterine cancer usually occurs in the

answer

endometrium

question

A woman's risk for breast cancer is decreased by

answer

early menopause (before age 45)

question

Which factor decreases a person's risk for skin cancer?

answer

using sunscreen with an SFP of 30

question

A doctor who specializes in cancer treatment is known as

answer

an oncologist

question

To grow, a malignant tumor needs ________ and ________.

answer

oxygen; nutrients

question

Leukemia is characterized by an increase in

answer

white blood cells

question

Which form of cancer treatment uses targeted beams of ionizing energy to destroy malignant cells?

answer

radiation

question

New approaches to treating cancer focus on

answer

treating cancer as a genetic disease caused by a mutation

question

Sue is a 40-year-old female who smokes, frequently uses tanning beds, and drinks 2-3 alcoholic beverages daily. Which of the following statements best indicates her cancer risks?

answer

She has an increased risk for breast, lung, and skin cancers

question

A polyp is a

answer

benign growth in the colon or rectum

question

Cancer is localized and often treatable when it is in

answer

Stage 1

question

A factor that lowers the risk for colon cancer and rectal cancer is

answer

a diet high in fiber

question

Most skin cancer deaths are caused by

answer

malignant melanomas

question

Leukemia occurs in the

answer

bone marrow

question

Which cancer treatment might be used to allow a patient's bone marrow to withstand stronger doses of chemotherapeutic drugs?

answer

gene therapy

question

________ cancer is most common for males between the ages of 20 and 34.

answer

Testicular

question

Which controversial factor may actually lower a woman's risk for ovarian cancer but has also been implicated in increasing the risk of breast cancer?

answer

using oral contraceptives

question

Which of the following food additives is most associated with an increased risk for cancer?

answer

sodium nitrate

question

A tumor that is non-cancerous is

answer

benign

question

A factor that lowers the risk for pancreatic cancer is

answer

being female

question

Excessive alcohol consumption can increase a woman's risk of ________ cancer.

answer

breast

question

Cervical cancer is predominantly caused by

answer

human papillomavirus (HPV)

question

Carcinomas include which of the following cancers?

answer

breast

question

The two main types of lymphomas are ________ and ________.

answer

Hodgkin; non-Hodgkin

question

The most common classification of cancerous tumors is

answer

carcinomas

question

Which of the following factors has most significantly decreased lung cancer rates in men in recent years?

answer

decreased rates of smoking

question

Smoking causes ________% of all lung cancer deaths.

answer

question

Radiation exposure that causes cancer can come from

answer

sunlight

question

Which of the following lifestyle choices reduces cancer risk?

answer

limiting exposure to ultraviolet radiation

question

Prostate cancer is most common for males in which of the following age groups?

answer

over 50

question

Hepatitis, which can be transmitted through use of contaminated intravenous (IV) needles, can increase the risk of ________ cancer.

answer

liver

question

A person with which eye color has the lowest risk of skin cancer?

answer

brown

question

Relative risk is a measure of a person's probability of developing cancer

answer

while engaging in a known risk behavior

question

The Pap test is the most effective way to detect early stage ________ cancer.

answer

cervical

question

A primary disadvantage of treating cancer with radiation is

answer

it also destroys some healthy cells

question

Which of the following statements regarding prostate cancer is true?

answer

Low back pain can be a symptom of prostate cancer

question

Which of the following statements regarding melanoma is true?

answer

Melanoma is difficult to treat once it spreads

question

Which treatment for cancer is most likely to cause nausea, as a result of damage to rapidly dividing digestive-tract cells?

answer

chemotherapy

question

Which of the following statements about sarcomas is true?

answer

Sarcomas grow faster than carcinomas

question

________ follows cardiovascular disease as the second leading cause of death in the United States.

answer

Cancer

question

Obesity increases the risk of

answer

colon cancer

question

Which of the following is an internal factor that causes cancer?

answer

immunological conditions

question

Basal and squamous cell cancers are most likely to appear as which of the following?

answer

a warty bump on the face

question

The oncogenes BRCA1 and BRCA2 are associated with increased risks for ________ cancer.

answer

breast

question

A potential warning sign of cancer includes

answer

change in bladder or bowel habits

question

Stress can increase the risk of cancer primarily by

answer

weakening immunity

question

Ultraviolet (UV) rays are considered

answer

carcinogenic

question

Which racial group has the highest incidence of prostate cancer in the world?

answer

African Americans

question

Which factor is most likely to increase the risk for lung cancer?

answer

working in a uranium mine

STUDY

Brca1 And Brca2 Cancer Family History Of Breast Cancer Increase The Risk North America Oncology Risk Factors For Breast Cancer

Health and Science chapter 15 – Flashcards 20 terms

Jazzlyn Howe

20 terms

Preview

Health and Science chapter 15 – Flashcards

question

Cells that are capable of unlimited division and retain the ability to become different cell types are called

answer

stem cells

question

What determines the type of cancer a person is with which a person is diagnosed?

answer

the tissue or primary site where a cancer originates

question

A mutation in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene is associated with an increased risk for what type of cancer?

answer

breasts

question

Which of the following environments is NOT considered a risk factor for increased exposure to carcinogens?

answer

dense forest

question

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) increases the risk for all of the following conditions, EXCEPT heart disease. breast cancer. colon cancer. endometrial cancer.

answer

colon cancer

question

Colon cancer screening tests include all of the following, EXCEPT colonoscopy. colon-specific antigen test. flexible sigmoidoscopy. fecal occult blood test.

answer

colon- specific antigen test

question

All of the following are skin cancers, EXCEPT squamous cell. basal cell. sarcoma. melanoma.

answer

sarcoma

question

You should have a colonoscopy if any other type of colon cancer screening produces a positive result.

answer

true

question

Chemotherapy commonly results in harm to both cancer cells and normal cells.

answer

true

question

In the United States, the survival rate for all types of cancer combined is more than 60 percent.

answer

true

question

Kyle has a cancer of the lymph nodes or glands. What type of cancer does Kyle have

answer

lymphoma

question

Craig recently passed away from a cancer that started in his bone marrow. What type of cancer caused Craig's death?

answer

leukemia

question

The most significant risk factor for most cancers is

answer

age

question

Which of the following is NOT a source of ionizing radiation? medical x-rays radon cosmic rays UVA rays

answer

uva rays

question

The leading cause of cancer death is attributed to what type of cancer?

answer

lung

question

Risk factors for breast cancer include

answer

a family history of breasts cancer

question

The common features of a red, scaly base with a nonhealing sore describe which type of skin cancer?

answer

squamous cell

question

All of the following statements regarding cervical cancer screening are true, EXCEPT beginning at age 30, women may be screened every five years. women with weakened immune systems due to organ transplant may need to be screened more frequently women who have been treated for cervical precancer may need to be screened more frequently. women should begin cervical cancer screening when they are 25.

answer

women should begin cervical cancer screening when they are25

question

Biological cancer therapies involve the introduction of infectious agents that attack cancer cells.

answer

false

question

Exercise is directly linked to a reduction in risk of breast cancer.

answer

true

STUDY

Advanced Pathophysiology Bone Marrow Stem Cells Brca1 And Brca2 Oncology Pathophysiology Tumor Suppressor Gene

Copy Understanding Pathophysiology (Heuther) Module 7 Biology of Cancer and Tumor Spread – Flashcards 96 terms

Pedro Huang

96 terms

Preview

Copy Understanding Pathophysiology (Heuther) Module 7 Biology of Cancer and Tumor Spread – Flashcards

question

Cancer

answer

When a nurse is describing malignant tumors, which term should the nurse use?

question

are usually encapsulated

answer

Which statement indicates the nurse has a good understanding of benign tumors? Benign tumors:

question

The growth is localized to the epithelium

answer

A nurse reviews a cancer report that states the growth is carcinoma in situ (CIS). How will the nurse interpret this finding?

question

When cancer cells proliferate faster than the normal, nonmutant cells.

answer

The nurse is describing clonal expansion/proliferation. What process is the nurse discussing?

question

Metastasis

answer

An oncologist is using the TNM system to stage a patients cancer. How does the nurse interpret the M part of the system?

question

Extreme wasting and emaciation.

answer

A cancer patient is experiencing cachexia. Which typical assessment finding will the nurse observe in this patient?

question

Bleeding

answer

A patient has a decreased platelet count from cancer and the chemotherapy. Which complication should the nurse assess for in this patient?

question

a cancer cell to grow

answer

A nurse is discussing autocrine stimulation and cancer. Which information should the nurse include? Autocrine stimulation causes:

question

Activation of telomerase allows cancer cells to continue dividing.

answer

A nurse is preparing to teach about immortality in cancer cells. Which information should the nurse include?

question

Oncogenes stimulate cancer cell growth.

answer

When a nurse is defining an oncogene, which example should the nurse use?

question

Blood vessels

answer

Which of the following statements indicates the patient has a good understanding of metastasis? The most common routes of metastasis are through the lymphatic system and:

question

Cervical

answer

A patient has chronic infection by the human papilloma virus (HPV). Which cancer does the nurse monitor for in this patient?

question

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

answer

A cancer patient is having moderate pain. Which treatment will the nurse implement?

question

is given after surgery

answer

A patient is receiving adjuvant therapy. How should the nurse explain this type of therapy to the patient? This type of therapy:

question

Breast

answer

A patient has mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2. What type of cancer should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

question

Carcinoma

answer

A patient has cancer in the epithelial tissue. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

question

Sarcoma

answer

A patient has cancer of the connective tissue. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

question

Leukemia

answer

Which of the following cancers arise from bone marrow stem cells (blood forming cells) and always originate in the bone marrow?

question

Malignant tumors have a tendency to invade surrounding tissue.

answer

Which of the following information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of malignant tumors?

question

Tumor suppressor

answer

A nurse is discussing the p53 gene. What type of gene is the nurse describing?

question

causes apoptsis

answer

A nurse is asked about the function of the p53 gene. What is the nurses best response? p53

question

angiogenic factors

answer

A nurse recalls cancer cells stimulate blood vessel growth toward the tumor by releasing:

question

increased cell division

answer

If a patient experiences a cancer-causing mutations to proto-oncogenes, which response will the nurse expect?

question

Deletion of both copies of a tumor suppressor gene

answer

When a staff members asks the nurse what mutation is necessary to cause cancer with a tumor suppressor gene, how should the nurse reply?

question

Metastasis

answer

A patients ovarian cancer has traveled to the bone. What term should the nurse use to describe this finding?

question

Anemia

answer

A patient has colorectal cancer with chronic bleeding and decreased absorption of iron. Which complication is priority?

question

Stage II

answer

A patient has a tumor that has regional lymph node involvement. Which stage will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

question

cancer

answer

A nurse recalls a leading cause of death in developed worlds is:

question

Benign tumors are usually surrounded by a capsule

answer

A nurse is discussing benign tumors. Which information should the nurse include?

question

invade surrounding tissues

answer

Which statement indicates the patient understood the teaching regarding malignant tumors? Malignant tumors have a tendency to:

question

connective tissue

answer

A patient has a sarcoma. The nurse realizes sarcomas are cancers that arise from:

question

Leukemia

answer

A patient has a cancer that originated in the blood-forming cells. What diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

question

contains cancer cells that have not invaded the surrounding tissue

answer

A patients cancer report reads "Cervical carcinoma in situ". The nurse interprets this finding as the cervical carcinoma:

question

Loss of cellular differentiation

answer

A nurse is discussing cancer and anaplasia. What is the nurse describing when using the term anaplasia?

question

skull/cranium

answer

Which patient will the nurse monitor most often even though the tumor is benign? The benign tumor is located in the:

question

proto-oncogene

answer

The nurse is describing the cell, ras. What type of cell is the nurse discussing?

question

Stage III

answer

A patient has a tumor that has distant lymph node involvement but no evidence of distant metastasis to other tissues. How will this be classified on the chart?

question

expansion

answer

A nurse is describing an aggregation of cancer cells that accumulates faster than its non-mutant neighbors. Which term is the nurse discussing? Clonal:

question

decreased responsiveness to growth signals.

answer

Which of the following statement indicates the nurse needs more teaching about cancer cells? A typical characteristic of cancer cells is:

question

angiogenic factors

answer

A nurse is discussing how cancer cells obtain oxygen and nutrients. Which information should the nurse include? Cancer cells ensure adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients by releasing:

question

a normal, non-mutant gene

answer

A nurse is asked to define a proto-oncogene. Which is the nurses best response? A proto-oncogene is:

question

increased cell division

answer

If a patient experiences cancer-causing mutations of a proto-oncogene, what result does the nurse expect to occur?

question

telomerase

answer

A nurse is asked about immortality in cancer cells. How should the nurse reply? Immortality in cancer cells is obtained through the production of:

question

control production of anti-growth signals

answer

A nurse recalls the normal function of tumor suppressor genes in an individual without cancer is to:

question

Mutation of both copies of a tumor suppressor gene

answer

For the function of a tumor suppressor to be lost, which of the following mutational routes is most likely to cause cancer in a patient?

question

apoptosis

answer

A nurse is preparing to teach about gene p53. Which information should the nurse include? Normally, the tumor suppressor gene p53 induces:

question

Unregulated proliferation of cancer cells

answer

An oncologist is presenting information on the mutation of RAS. What response does the nurse expect to occur?

question

Amplification

answer

Which of the following terms should the nurse use to describe a genetic event capable of activating oncogenes?

question

Growth factors are released during the resulting inflammation.

answer

Which of the following factors predisposes a patient who has chronic inflammation to the development of cancer?

question

Translocation

answer

A nurse is describing the process of when a piece of a chromosome is moved to another chromosome. What term should the nurse use to describe this process?

question

Liver

answer

A patient has chronic active hepatitis B infection. Which type of cancer should the nurse assess for in this patient?

question

Human papilloma virus

answer

Which of the following viruses will the nurse expect to see on the lab report of a patient who has developed cervical cancer?

question

Gastric cancer

answer

A patient has a Helicobacter pylori infection. Which type of cancer should the nurse assess for in this patient?

question

caretaker

answer

A nurse is discussing the genes that maintain gene integrity. Which gene is the nurse describing?

question

the radiation source will be inserted internally into the cervix

answer

A patient is receiving brachytherapy for cervical cancer. How should the nurse explain this type of therapy?

question

a tumor-suppressor gene

answer

A nurse is discussing the retinoblastoma gene. What type of gene is the nurse describing?

question

pap test/smear

answer

What screening test can the nurse suggest to a patient who wants to detect cervical cancer early?

question

breast

answer

While a nurse is reviewing lab results, the patients BRCA1 is elevated. What type of cancer does the nurse suspect the patient has?

question

p53

answer

A nurse knows the most common tumor suppressor gene mutation that causes cancer by resisting apoptosis is in:

question

surviving in the bloodstream

answer

An oncologist is discussing the process of metastasis. Which information should the oncologist include? For metastasis to occur, tumor cells must be capable of:

question

4 or IV

answer

A patient originally had cancer in the liver and the cancer is now in the lungs. What stage will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

question

nodes

answer

An oncologist is using the TNM system to stage a cancer tumor. The nurse realizes the N will denote:

question

hormones are probably causing the signs and symptoms

answer

A patient is experiencing paraneoplastic syndrome. Which principle should guide nursing care?

question

is given after cancer surgery

answer

A patient is preparing to receive adjuvant therapy for cancer. What should the nurse tell the patient to reinforce teaching? This type of therapy:

question

angiogenesis

answer

A nurse is discussing the process of triggering new blood vessel formation in a tumor. What is the nurse describing?

question

metastsis

answer

When cancer extends to distant tissues and organs, what term should the nurse use?

question

infection

answer

A patient has metastatic cancer and is receiving chemotherapy and radiation therapy. What is the priority complication the nurse should assess for in this patient?

question

Individual-controlled analgesia

answer

A cancer patient is experiencing pain. The nurse wants the patient to be independent in managing the pain. Which technique should the nurse implement?

question

Tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-1

answer

A patient with cancer has poor muscle functioning and fatigue. Which cytokines/inflammatory mediators does the nurse suspect is causing these problems?

question

staging

answer

When an oncologist determines the size of the tumor, the degree of node involvement, and the extent of distant metastasis, what is the oncologist doing?

question

decreased cell adhesions

answer

A nurse is describing the process of metastasis. Which information should the nurse include? _________________ is necessary for metastasis to occur.

question

the release of cytokines

answer

A nurse is teaching the staff about the pathophysiology of tissue loss in cancer wasting. Which information should the nurse include? A factor that contributes to the tissue loss in cancer wasting is:

question

Red blood cell count and hemoglobin from a complete blood count

answer

A patient has colorectal cancer with chronic bleeding and iron deficiency. Which lab tests are most important for the nurse to monitor?

question

Nausea and vomiting

answer

A patient is receiving ondansetron. Which assessment finding will cause the nurse to administer this drug?

question

Fatigue

answer

While assessing a patient with cancer, which of the following is the most commonly reported symptom?

question

cancer cells residing in lymph nodes.

answer

Which statement indicates the nurse needs more instruction regarding cancer pain? Mechanisms that cause cancer pain include:

question

All of the above

answer

While assessing a patient with pain which individual response to pain should the nurse monitor?

question

Narcotics/opioids

answer

A cancer patient is complaining of pain. Which pharmacologic therapy for pain management will the nurse implement?

question

Most patients with cancer experience pain early in the disease process.

answer

Which of the following statements indicates a patient needs more teaching about cancer pain?

question

Depression

answer

Besides monitoring for diminished physical energy, what other assessment findings should the nurse assess for in a patient with cancer-related fatigue?

question

malnutrition.

answer

A patient asks what causes fatigue related to cancer and cancer therapy. How should the nurse respond? One possible cause is:

question

Cachexia

answer

A patient is experiencing the wasting syndrome associated with cancer and cancer treatment. What term should the nurse use when documenting this finding?

question

Heart murmur

answer

Which symptom will surprise the nurse when assessing a patient with cachexia?

question

Hemorrhage

answer

A patient has thrombocytopenia from the cancer and cancer treatments. Which condition should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

question

Anemia

answer

When a cancer patient has a hemoglobin of 8 mg/dL, what condition will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

question

Fatigue

answer

A nurse remembers neuromuscular dysfunction and the release of inflammatory mediators such as tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-1 are thought to be responsible for which of the following assessment findings of cancer?

question

Increased basic metabolic rate

answer

Which of the following alterations in metabolism does the nurse expect to find in people with cancer?

question

fatigue

answer

Which statement indicates the nurse needs more instruction regarding anemia and cancer? Anemia in individuals with cancer can be the result of:

question

Erythropoietin

answer

Which of the following treatments to help cancer-related or chemotherapy-related anemia should the nurse discuss with the patient?

question

Infection

answer

A patient is experiencing leukopenia from cancer and chemotherapy treatment. Which condition should the nurse assess for in this patient?

question

All rapidly dividing cells

answer

Which principle should the nurse use to guide nursing care when administering chemotherapeutic agents? Chemotherapeutic agents primarily target:

question

Ionizing radiation damages the cancer cell's DNA

answer

When a patient asks the nurse how radiation therapy provides an effective means for treating some forms of cancer, how should the nurse respond?

question

Colon

answer

A patient has a mutation in the APC gene. Which type of cancer will the nurse monitor for in this patient?

question

DNA methylation

answer

An oncologist is describing the process of gene silencing. Which process will the oncologist discuss?

question

Alopecia

answer

A patient loses hair from chemotherapy treatment. What term should the nurse use when describing this condition?

question

This will help shrink the tumor before surgery.

answer

A patient is receiving neoadjuvant therapy. What should the nurse teach this patient regarding this type of therapy?

STUDY

Brca1 And Brca2 Native American Women Nursing Oncology

Biology FINAL MATERIAL – Flashcards 37 terms

Marvel Brown

37 terms

Preview

Biology FINAL MATERIAL – Flashcards

question

risk Factors associated with a greater chance of developing cancer

answer

1.) chemical carcinogens- chemical in cigarettes, chemicals in plastics, preservatives in foods, pesticides 2.) radiation exposure- UV radiation from sun (assoc. with skin cancer), radon exposure (radioactive gas created naturally by radioactive decay of uranium in certain rocks- if house is built on top of this sediment, radon can escape rock into basement- mostly a problem in very well insulated homes during winter months due to air inside house not exchanging with outside air- radon is 2nd leading cause of lung cancer after smoking), frequent x-ray exposure (primarily technicians), radiation release from nuclear power plants, nuclear weapons 3.) viruses- can be assoc. with several diff. cancers (HPV assoc. with cervical cancer, throat cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vaginal cancer- there is a vaccine for this!), Hepatitis can cause liver cancer, also some viruses assoc. with leukemias and lymphomas, ALL viruses must insert their own DNA or RNA into nucleic acids of cells they infect in order to replicate (host cell follows those instructions to make viral proteins and other components- a few viruses also have ability to affect genes controlling cell division in the host cell- THESE ARE THE VIRUSES ASSOC. WITH CANCER) 4.) genetics- no one can inherit cancer, but we can pass on MUTATIONS in genes that put offspring at a higher risk- only 1-5% of all cancers are thought to be related to genetics but where there is a relationship it is strong- if you inherit gene assoc. with breast cancer, chance of developing it is over 80% (12.5% for average woman) 5.) immune deficiencies- immune system can recognize and kill some cancer cells when it is working BUT immune system can be suppressed due to a variety of diseases (ex: AIDS), immunosuppressive drugs (taken deliberately to suppress immune system) to avoid transplant rejection OR to treat autoimmune diseases- these diseases involve immune system attacking your own tissues/organs, also- aging gradually suppresses immune system which is why more elderly ppl are diagnosed with cancer compared to younger generation 6.) diet- high saturated fat, low fiber (assoc. with breast, colon, rectal, and prostate cancer) 7.) alcohol- heavy consumption assoc. with liver, breast, mouth, and throat cancers 8.) hormones- estrogen/testosterone... assoc. with breast, prostate, ovarian, uterine cancers- low risk assoc. with birth control pills, also risk with hormone replacement therapy 9.) sedentary lifestyle- no exercise, assoc. with breast, prostate, lung, colon, endometrial cancers

question

conventional therapies for cancer

answer

1.) surgery- usually occurs first, surgical removal of cancerous tumors, surround tissue (to see if cancer cells are leaving tumor), and nearest lymph nodes (EXCEPTIONS: tumors in difficult to reach locations such as brain, or patients already severely immune compromised- in these cases, doctors will try to shrink tumors first w/ chemo and/or radiation) 2.) chemotherapy- there are drugs designed to kill cells in process of cell division (ex: some drugs interfere with synthesize of thymine during DNA replication before cell division- not replicated properly= can't divide properly) (ex: other drugs work to stop formation of spindle apparatus during mitosis) chemo is designed to be systematic (pass thru all systems of the body thru blood stream) so, it catches obvious cancer cells near tumor as well as cells far from tumor of origin- PROBLEM: chemo is not able to tell the difference between cancer cells and healthy cells in process of cell division. so, healthy cells are killed as well... systems containing cells that divide frequently will be impacted most... these include hair follicles, digestive system (chemo often assoc. with vomiting, lack of appetite, weight loss), bone marrow (white blood cells drop... immune system crash, and red blood cells drop... exhaustion/cold, and platelets drop... excessive bleeding), reproductive system 3.) radiation therapy- also designed to kill dividing cells, HIGH dose radiation directed over a very limited area of body (region of tumor and nearest lymph nodes), rest of body is protected as much as possible (this radiation would kill patients within a few days from acute radiation poisoning if directed over whole body), kills cells because it causes so many DNA mutations so fast that proof reading enzyme cant keep up during DNA replication, so cells die... common side effects are burns... radiation also causes fatigue and may cause minor damage to organs very close to site of original tumors (ex: breast cancer radiation can cause minor damage to lungs/heart) 4.) immunotherapy- still fairly new therapy, becoming part of conventional treatments, involves stimulating immune system to attack cancer cells beyond normal response

question

exceptions to expected patterns of inheritance

answer

1.) INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE - heterozygous offspring show a phenotype which is intermediate between dominant and recessive phenotype (ex: intermediate between red and white is pink) - BLEND 2.) CODOMINANCE -both alleles are fully expressed- NO BLENDING of the two- both dominant 3.) MULTIPLE ALLELES -more than 2 choices for single- gene trait (ex: 3 alleles- blood types A, B, O- parent with type A and parent with type B can have child with type O 4.) GENE INTERACTIONS -some genes can interfere with or mask expression of other genes (ex: we all have multiple genes coding for skin color, hair color, eye color- but they all depend on one gene which codes for the production of MELANIN or pigment- if this gene is defective, no pigment is produced and offspring is ALBINO) (red eyes= albino) 5.) POLYGENIC TRAITS -these are traits controlled by more than one gene, so there is a greater range in diversity in this trait (ex: skin color- controlled by 3 different genes, homozygous recessive codes for LEAST amount of melanin produced so very fair/pale... homozygous dominant codes for GREATEST amount of melanin production so darkest skin tone... most ppl are a mix) 6.) ENVIRONMENTAL INFLUENCES -these can sometimes "over write" genetic instructions (ex: fair skin will tan with prolonged repeated sun exposure as a protective defense by skin cells- they are responding to UV rays and producing more melanin because it protects against damage from UV rays)

question

genetic disorders due to a single gene

answer

1.) X LINKED DISORDERS -these disorders are caused by recessive genes on x chromosome -FEMALES require recessive allele from BOTH PARENTS to be AFFECTED by the disease ( to have symptoms)... females have true homologous pair (xx)... a heterozygous female would be a healthy carrier -MALES have only one x, and y has different genes (so not true homologous pair)... one recessive allele cannot be "masked" by dominant allele because of y genes... so, JUST ONE recessive allele will cause son to be AFFECTED... NO healthy male carriers... typically, affected males have healthy parents but mom was a healthy carrier **BEWARE OF GENDER WHEN ANSWERING QUESTIONS... ANSWERS WILL ONLY EVER BE 50% OR 0% *** AN AFFECTED DAUGHTER WILL ALWAYS HAVE AN AFFECTED FATHER -EXAMPLES: some forms of color blindness, some forms of muscular dystrophy, some forms of hemophilia 2.) AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE DISORDERS -autosomes are all chromosomes except x & y so we ALL have homologous pairs and males and females affected equally -to be affected, offspring have to receive recessive allele from BOTH PARENTS -heterozygous offspring will be healthy carriers -most affected offspring will have healthy carrier parents (shock to have an affected child) -EXAMPLES: cystic fibrosis, albinism, some forms of deafness *higher percentages of these in populations w/ low genetic diversity (geographically isolated OR culturally/religiously isolated... ex: Amish) 3.) AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT DISORDERS - disease is due to DOMINANT allele -NO healthy carriers of either gender -both homologous dominant and heterozygous are affected -only one gene is needed to get disease -with these disorders, 2 affected parents can produce healthy offspring (but it is unlikely- 25% chance) -because there are no healthy carriers, these diseases are less common than recessive disorders --> usually they are either FATAL BUT ONLY LATER IN LIFE (after having kids) (ex: huntington's disease, early onset alzheimer's) OR ---> DISEASE ITSELF IS RELATIVELY MILD AND DOES NOT INTERFERE W/REPRODUCTION (ex: dwarfism, polydactyly- extra fingers/toes, achoo syndrome) ***EXCEPTION: progeria... not inherited but is an autosomal dominant disorder... occurs due to random mutation in the gametes in one of the parents... these ppl show rapid aging although they retain small stature... usually die of age related diseases in their teens

question

Gregor Mendel's first law of segregation

answer

during the production of eggs and sperm (gametes), the copies of each gene from homologous chromosomes separate so that each gamete receives one copy... each gamete receives a random assortment of recessive and dominant alleles for each trait (alleles= diff. versions of same gene) (ex: different alleles for eye color- different choices) *DOMINANT allele only requires 1 copy of that allele to be inherited for that trait to be PHYSICALLY EXPRESSED * RECESSIVE allele requires 2 copies (inherited from BOTH parents) in order to be PHYSICALLY EXPRESSED ** if organism receives dominant and recessive allele- ONLY DOMINANT will be physically expressed, but the organism is a carrier for recessive allele and can pass it on to offspring

question

protein synthesis

answer

this is how information passes from DNA to RNA to ribosomes to make proper proteins RECALL: 3 DNA bases correspond to a single amino acid and this code is universal for all species on Earth 2 PARTS: 1.) Transcription 2.) Translation

question

transcription steps

answer

*in eukaryotes, this occurs in nucleus and involves both DNA and RNA 1.) those portions of the DNA coding for proteins needed by that SPECIFIC CELL TYPE unzip (bases separate) 2.) RNA "reads" the DNA portion and forms complementary strand w/ the MATCHING base... RNA has 3 of DNA's bases (A, C, G), but not T (Thymine)- instead, RNA has U (Uracil) which pairs w/Adenine 3.) once DNA has been transcribed, it re-seals 4.) RNA is edited, and some "junk" regions are spliced out (our DNA contains a lot of "junk" DNA- most of it we don't know the purpose of, or even it if has one, and some we think is involved w/ gene regulation- which genes are turned on or off) 5.) RNA (once complete) leaves nucleus for cytoplasm

question

translation steps

answer

1.) mRNA heads to ribosomes where proteins are assembled 2.) first 3 letters of mRNA is the "start" codon, which cooresponds to an animo acid that starts all proteins. the tRNA molecule with the anticodon (complementary to base pairs to codon) brings first amino acid to start protein EX: anti-codon to AUG is UAC (start amino acid) 3.) after the "start" codon, a variety of different codons will be read (dozens to thousands depending on function of protein). tRNA molecule will continue to assemble protein 4.) protein synthesis continues until a "stop" codon is read... this does not correspond to an amino acid... it indicates the protein is complete and it is sent off to wherever it is needed in the cell

question

3 types of RNA

answer

1.) mRNA -messenger RNA -this RNA transcribes the DNA 2.) rRNA -ribosomal RNA -this RNA makes up the structure of the ribosomes (along with protein) 3.) tRNA -transfer RNA -this RNA brings proper amino acid to growing protein

question

what's a silent mutation and how can it happen?

answer

-with exception of "start" amino acid, all other amino acids have more than one codon that will correspond to them (range from 2-6)... this is how a base substitution mutation can correspond to same exact amino acid... this is a silent mutation -silent mutations are often not detrimental to cell, but can be under certain circumstances... amino acids have "preferred" codons (ones most frequently used to code for them)---> there are more tRNA molecules with anti-codon to this available to bring amino acid to growing protein.... THEREFORE, less common codons have fewer tRNAs w/ anti-codon available... this means protein is not assembled as quickly (may not be a problem but could be if protein is needed in a hurry/during an emergency_)

question

mutation

answer

change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA

question

2 TYPES of mutations in multi-cellular organisms

answer

1.) SOMATIC MUTATIONS -those that occur in somatic (body) cells -during mitosis -not passed on to person's children -CML (leukemia) = example 2.) GERM LINE MUTATIONS -those that occur in the cells of the germ line (the specialized cells that give rise to gametes) -passes mutation on

question

different phenotypic effects of mutations (5)

answer

1.) SILENT MUTATION -does not usually affect protein function -usually result in genetic diversity not expressed as phenotypic differences 2.) LOSS OF FUNCTION MUTATION -affects protein function -almost always recessive inheritance 3.) GAIN OF FUNCTION MUTATION -leads to a protein with an altered function -common in cancer -dominant inheritance 4.) CONDITIONAL MUTATION -affects phenotype only under certain permissive conditions and not detectable under other permissive conditions -many are temp. sensitive -rabbits---> coat color gene, dark fur only in cool environment 5.) REVERSION MUTATION -mutated 2nd time so DNA reverts to original sequence -causes phenotype to go back to wild type

question

point mutation definition and 2 kinds of base substitution

answer

*POINT MUTATION: addition or subtraction of a single nucleotide, or the substitution of one nucleotide base for another 2 KINDS OF BASE SUBSTITUTION 1.) TRANSITION -substitution of one purine for the other purine, or one pyrimidine for the other 2.) TRANSVERSION - substitution of a purine for a pyrimidine, or vice versa

question

missense mutations

answer

-base substitutions that change the genetic code such that one amino acid substitutes for another -ex: sickle-cell disease -may result in defective protein, but often no effect on protein's function -in some cases, a gain of function missense mutation occurs- TP53 gene (gained cancer causing function)

question

nonsense mutations

answer

-involves a base substitute that causes a stop codon (for translation) to form somewhere in the mRNA -results in shortened protein -ex: thalassemia mutation -usually proteins don't function

question

frame-shift mutation

answer

-one or two nucleotides may be inserted into, or deleted from, a sequence of DNA -alter the reading frame in which the 3-base codons are read during translation -usually nonfunctional proteins

question

chromosomal mutations are extensive changes in the genetic material (can be caused by severe damage to chromosomes) (4 TYPES)

answer

1.) DELETION -occurs by the removal of part of the genetic material and can happen if chromosome breaks @ 2 points and rejoins, leaving out DNA between breaks 2.) DUPLICATION -occurs by homologous chromosomes breaking at different positions and then reconnect to the wrong partners- one chromosome gets deleted and other has 2 copies 3.) INVERSION -can also result from breaking and rejoining of a chromosome and can occur if a segment of DNA becomes "flipped," so it runs it opposite direction from original orientation 4.) TRANSLOCATION -when a segment of a chromosome breaks off and becomes attached to a different chromosome

question

retroviruses and transposons can cause loss of function mutations or duplications

answer

* viruses called retroviruses can insert their genetic material into host cell's genome ---if one happens within a gene, it can cause a loss of function mutation in that gene *another form of DNA- transposon or transposable ---can insert itself into genes and cause mutations ---sequence of genomic DNA is sometimes carried along w/the transposon DNA when it moves, this results in gene DUPLICATION

question

SPONTANEOUS MUTATIONS vs. INDUCED MUTATIONS

answer

SPONTANEOUS -permanent changes in the genetic material that occur without any outside influence -ex: movement of transposons ***may occur by several mechanisms: ---the 4 nucelotide bases of DNA can have different structures, leading to mistakes during replication ---bases in DNA may change because of chemical reaction ---DNA polymerase can make errors in replication ---meiosis is not perfect INDUCED -occur when some agent from outside the cell (a mutagen) causes a permanent change in DNA ***certain chemicals & radiation can cause mutations: ---some chemicals can alter nucleotide bases ---some can add groups to the bases ---radiation damages the genetic material

question

mutagens can be natural or artificial

answer

-plants and animals make some -human made mutagens---> nitrates (used to preserve meats) -radiation can also be human made or natural (mutations in survivors of atomic bomb, UV radiation from sun affects Thymine)

question

some base pairs are more vulnerable than others to mutations

answer

-mutation "hot spots" are often located where cytosines have been methylated -thymine as product---> mismatched pair AT= mutation

question

mutations have benefits AND costs

answer

-provide genetic diversity (advantage if environment changes... BENEFIT) -gene duplication (can lead to gain of function for a gene... BENEFIT) -some can kill in early stages (COST) -some can cause uncontrolled cell division (cancer...COST)

question

2 public policy goals to reduce effects of human made and natural mutagens on humans

answer

1.) MONTREAL PROTOCOL -international environment agreement -united nations -bans chloroflurocarbons and other substances that cause depletion of ozone layer -decrease skin cancer 2.) BANS ON CIGARETTE SMOKING -cancer causing due to increased exposure of somatic cells in the lungs and throat of carinogens

question

Charles Darwin's theory of evolution -finches of the Galapagos

answer

-birds with different beaks (thick, short, thin, long) -diversity of structure of birds... thought that one species may have been taken and modified for different ends -most explanations for evolutionary change have focused on the effects of gene mutations on the structural proteins that make up organisms -break structure is affected by changes in the timing of protein production as well as he amount of protein made -realization that major evolutionary change can be the result of subtle changes in spatial, temporal, and quantitative distribution of signaling molecules (BMP4 and calmodulin) and changes in the noncoding regions of the DNA that control gene expression

question

genetic switches govern how the genetic toolkit is used

answer

-GENETIC SWITCHES control how the toolkit is used... developmental modules based on a common set of genetic instructions can evolve separately -these switches include gene prompters and the transcription factors that bind to promoters, as well as the enhancers and repressors that can modulate the interactions of transcription factors and promoters -the signals from these determine where, when, and to what extent genes are turned on and off -multiple switches control each gene, creating different expression patterns in different locations... in this way elements of the genetic toolkit can be involved in multiple developmental processes and still allow individual modules to develop and evolve independently -gene switches integrate positional informational in the developing embryo and play key roles in determining the developmental pathways of different modules EX: Drosophila---> members of insect group Diptera, which means "two wings"- that is, they have single pair of wings opposed to 2 pairs of wings---> if ubx is inactivated by mutation, a 2nd pair of wings forms.... thus some major morphological differences among groups of animals can result from relatively small changes in gene expression **segments differentiate under control of genetic swtiches -the binding of a single protein, UBX, determines whether a thoracic segment produces full wings

question

modularity allows for differences in the patterns of gene expression

answer

**because of modularity, transcription factors and other genes of the toolkit can regulate the expression of structural genes in different amounts, at different times, and in different locations

question

Types of modularity

answer

1.) HETEROMETRY ***different measure -Galapagos finches is an example: studies show that beak size and shape in these birds is influenced by the level of expression (i.e. the amount of protein produced) of two regulatory genes -the relative amounts of these proteins determines whether an individual's beak is long, thin, and narrow or short, thick, and deep 2.) HETEROCHRONY ***different time -the evolution of a giraffe's neck is an example (due to bone growth) -bone growth in mammals is the result of the proliferation of cartilage producing cells called chondrocytes -the genetic signal that stops bone growth is delayed in giraffes, so the vertebrae of their necks grows longer.. thus, the evolution of longer necks resulted from CHANGES IN THE TIMING of expression of the genes that control bone formation 3.) HETEROTOPY ***different place -spatial differences in the expression of a developmental gene -different development of feet in ducks and chickens is an example -ducks have webbed feet and chickens do not (a major difference in the adaptation of these species) -webbing is initial present in the chicken embryo but undergoes apoptosis this is stimulated by the protein BMP4 -in ducks, another protein, GREMLIN, binds to BMP4 and inhibits it, preventing apoptosis and resulting in webbed feet

question

differences in hox gene expression patterns result in major differences in body plans

answer

-vertical columns exhibit considerable variation across the groups of vertebrae -most mammals have 7 cervical vartebrae.... some have many more however -these differences result from the spatial patterns of Hox gene expression that govern the transitions from one region to another -over evolutionary time, genetic changes that expanded or contracted the expression domains of the Hox genes resulted in changes in the characteristic numbers of different vertebrae

question

mutations in developmental genes can produce major morphological changes

answer

-sometimes a major developmental change is due to an alteration in the regulatory molecule itself rather than a change in where, when, or how much it is expressed -this is called HETEROTYPY ("different type") -ex: a gene that controls the # of legs in arthropods -ex: gene responsible for kernals of domestic corn (Tga1)---when gene is inserted into kernals there are hard glumes formed over the kernals and therefore less edible kernals

question

temperature can determine sex

answer

-reptiles---> sex determined by temperature---> temp at which the eggs are incubated -temps can vary among species -red eared slider turtle= high temp makes female, low male -in animals with temperature controlled sex determination... the enzyme aromatase converts testosterone to estrogen... applying estrogen to eggs= female produced -temp can also affect growth rate and adult body size... temp can have affect on reproductive success also

question

developmental plasticity/ phenotypic plasticity

answer

the ability of an organism to modify its development in response to environmental conditions it means that a single genotype has the capacity to produce two or more different phenotypes

question

dietary information can be a predictor of future conditions

answer

-in some species with short life spans, an individual may encounter only one of several distinct but predictable seasonal environments -developmental plasticity allows such individuals to develop the phenotype that enhances their survival in the environment they will encounter as adults -ex: moth, which produces two generations each year... those that hatch in spring eat catkins... those that hatch in summer eat mature leaves... different body resemblances too (camo) -their different larval diets (the different biochemistry of the molecules in oak catkins vs. mature oak leaves) trigger developmental changes that result in two different phenotypes, each of which is camouflage in the respective environments -phenotypic plasticity results in LOWER PREDATION and INCREASED EVOLUTIONARY FITNESS

question

a variety of environmental signals influence development

answer

-one source of environmental information is sunlight, which provides predictive information about seasonal changes -many insects use day length (from sunlight) to enter or exit a period of developmental or reproductive arrest called DIAPAUSE, which enables them to better survive harsh conditions -ex: deer, elk, moose use day length to time development and dropping of antlers -ex: many organisms use day length to optimize the timing of reproductive migration (how many plants initiate flowering also) -light is an environmental signal in plant development... dim light makes plants grow tall and spindly... adaptive to reach a patch of brighter light up higher.... a plant in bright light is compact and bushy because it does not need to grow tall for light, but instead can put more energy into producing leaves

question

developmental genes and their expression constrain evolution in 2 major ways

answer

1.) nearly all evolutionary innovations are modifications of previously existing structures 2.) the basic set of regulatory genes that control development is broadly conserved, changing only slowly over the course of evolution

question

evolution usually proceeds by changing what's already there

answer

the wings of pterosaurs, birds, and bats are all modified forelimbs and are constructed from the same skeletal components... these components, however, have different forms in different groups, supporting the independent evolution of wings in each group

question

conserved developmental genes can lead to parallel evolution

answer

-the existence of highly conserved developmental genes makes it likely that similar traits will evolve repeatedly, especially among closely related species.. this process is known as PARALLEL EVOLUTION -good example: small fish, the three-spined stickleback... developmental gene Pitx1 encodes for plates and spines... gene is active in these marine fish but mutated and inactive in freshwater populations... supports parallel evolution

STUDY

Brca1 And Brca2 Highest Mortality Rate Match The Following

KNS 350 Final Exam – Flashcards 208 terms

Joel Boykin

208 terms

Preview

KNS 350 Final Exam – Flashcards

question

The authors considered the level of trauma associated with hip fractures. Which trauma level(s) were used to identify a hip fracture for this study?

answer

Low trauma Moderate trauma

question

The primary measure of PA in this study waxs expressed in what format? (mark all that apply)

answer

Types of PA MET-Hours per week

question

What table summarizes the overall risk reduction of hip fractures associated with physical activity?

answer

Table 2

question

The authors concluded that as PA increases (MET hours/week) that the risk for hip fracture decreases. They concluded that for every increase of 3 MET-hours/week that hip fracture risk would decline by how much?

answer

question

BMI, independently from PA, is associated with the risk of a hip fracture.

answer

True

question

Increasing BMI was associated with a decline in hip fracture risk. Which level of BMI was found to have this protection?

answer

30+

question

A brisk/very brisk walking pace was found to reduced the risk for hip fractures by how much?

answer

65%

question

According to the CDC, two of the most important things people can do to lower their risk of getting cancer is what? (Mark two)

answer

Avoiding tobacco use, keeping a healthy weight

question

According to the CDC, which types of cancer are projected to increase the most between 2010 and 2020? (one type for males and one type for females)

answer

Prostate cancer Breast cancer

question

Risk factors for colon cancer include which of the following? (mark all that apply)

answer

Family history Inflammatory bowel disease Age (50 years)

question

Lung, breast, and colorectal cancer rates have been decreasing steadily.

answer

true

question

According to lecture, physical activity reduces colon cancer risk by... (mark all that apply

answer

Shorter bowel transit time improved insulin sensitivity & increase glucose uptake controlled weight gain with aging enhanced immune system

question

Match the following type of cancer with the characteristics that help identify it.

answer

Carcinomas -Breast, skin, colon, & lung cancer Sarcomas -Bone, muscle, & connective tissue cancer Lymphomas -Cancer of the lymphatic system Leukemias -Blood forming cells

question

Cancer is the 2nd leading cause of death in the U.S.

answer

true

question

According to the CDC, cancer is projected to surpass heart disease as the leading cause of death in the U.S.

answer

true

question

Abnormal cells are related to the exposure to carcinogens

answer

true

question

According to the CDC, about ____ of all cancer diagnosed in women and _____ of those diagnosed in men are overweight- and obesity-related cancers.

answer

55%, 24%

question

The cancer incidence rate measures the risk to the average person of being diagnosed with cancer.

answer

true

question

Cancer is characterized as a group of related diseases characterized by uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells

answer

true

question

A women who increases her physical activity 60 minutes a week would expect to have her risk for breast cancer to decrease by how much?

answer

question

The incidence rate of breast cancer increases at a much higher pace after menopause.

answer

false

question

Strenuous physical activity during adolescence may increase the age at menopause.

answer

false

question

BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes play an important role in inhibiting abnormal cell reproduction. However, mutations of these genes increase the risk for breast cancer. The mutations occur during a women's life rather having been inherited.

answer

false

question

According to the text, cancers vary in what ways?

answer

rate of growth pattern of spread responses to different types of treatment

question

What proportion of cancer morbidity is strongly related to heredity?

answer

question

According to the text, almost half of men and over a third of women in the U.S. will develop some form of cancer during their lifetimes.

answer

true

question

Vigorous-intensity physical activity during adolescence may delay menarche and lengthen menstrual cycles which reduce the cumulative exposure to what factor below?

answer

Sex hormones

question

Which type of cancer has the highest mortality rate in both men and women?

answer

lung cancer

question

There is an inverse dose-relationship between physical activity and colon cancer.

answer

true

question

On average, how much risk reduction for breast cancer can a women acquire by being physically active?

answer

20%

question

According to the text, what percent of cancer is strongly hereditary?

answer

question

Cancers are named by their site of origin, even if they spread to another part of the body.

answer

true

question

Cancer cells often activate oncogenes which are genes that inhibit mitosis.

answer

false

question

According to lecture, the late decrease in the rates for lung cancer can be most attributed to what factor?

answer

Cigarette smoking

question

Studies show that cancer patients who remain active during the post-treatment phase have better functional capacity and quality of life.

answer

true

question

According to lecture, the lower the stage of cancer, the higher the chance of survivability.

answer

true

question

What term is used to describe when cells break away from a tumor and migrate to other sites in the body to form 'colony tumors'?

answer

Metastasize

question

Cancer is a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in high-income countries.

answer

true

question

Most studies have reported a moderately strong, inverse association between physical activity and the risk of rectal cancer.

answer

false

question

If breast cancer is diagnosed at a local stage the five-year survival rate is 98%.

answer

true

question

Being physical activity decreases a person's risk for colon cancer. Which of the biological plausible reasons that explain this reduced risk does not apply to colon cancer?

answer

Reduced exposure to sex hormones

question

The TNM Group Staging Classification allows cancer to be staged into how many stages?

answer

four

question

Telomeres result in the uncontrolled division of cells that form a tumor.

answer

false

question

Postmenopausal women, compared to premenopausal women, receive a much higher level of risk reduction associated with physical activity on breast cancer risk.

answer

true

question

According to the CDC, there are at least how many types of cancer associated with overweight and obesity?

answer

question

According to the CDC, we see that cancer death rates are decreasing

answer

true

question

Risk factors for breast cancer include which of the following? (mark all that apply)

answer

Age High SES Hormone Therapy

question

Which factor below is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer?

answer

Alcohol consumption

question

Higher levels of physical activity are associated with lower lung cancer risk, though these results may be confounded by what factor below?

answer

Smoking

question

Among high-income countries, what is the leading cause of morbidity and mortality

answer

Cancer

question

Women of higher socioeconomic status are at a higher risk for breast cancer because they are more likely to smoke cigarettes.

answer

false

question

If everyone in the U.S. got 180 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity (10 MET-hours) we would see colon cancer rates decrease significantly. These colon cancer rates could ultimately decrease by how much

answer

25%

question

Environmental factors, rather than genetic factors, are responsible for most of the variation in breast cancer rates among countries

answer

true

question

The most important physical sign of breast cancer is a painless lump in the breast

answer

true

question

The five-year survival rate for breast cancer has increased to 75%

answer

false

question

Which of the following has the highest mortality rate?

answer

Lung Cancer

question

Studies show that cancer patients who remain active during the post-treatment phase have better functional capacity and quality of life.

answer

true

question

According to lecture, increased cancer incidence in the southeast could be related to which of the following? (mark all that apply)

answer

Diet Smoking habits Physical activity Exposure to risk factors

question

According to the CDC, which types of cancer are projected to increase the most between 2010 and 2020? (one type for males and one type for females)

answer

Prostate Breast cancer

question

Carcinogens include which of the following? (Mark all that apply)

answer

Radiation Chemicals Prepared food Tobacco products

question

Mortality rates for breast cancer are higher in African-American women compared to Anglo women. These higher rates are largely due to more advanced stages of cancer at diagnosis.

answer

true

question

The term 'survival rate' for cancer is based upon being alive for how many years past the date of diagnosis?

answer

5-years

question

Which type of cancer has the highest mortality rate in both men and women?

answer

Lung cancer

question

According to lecture, 1 out of every 4 deaths is due to cancer.

answer

true

question

Low body fat among women has been associated with an increased metabolism of estradiol which increases the risk of colon cancer.

answer

false

question

Cancer epidemiology has roots in occupational medicine. Who was the first physician to practice occupational medicine and cancer epidemiology?

answer

Bernardino Ramazzini

question

The cancer death rate measures the risk to the average person of living with cancer.

answer

false

question

What screening test for colon cancer is Dr. Fitzhugh scheduled to receive because he is past 50 and has a history of polyps?

answer

Colonoscopy

question

To lower the risk for colon cancer through physical activity they have to get at least what amount below?

answer

30 minutes MVPA per day

question

Who observed that sedentary workers had elevated risks of chronic disease, including cancer, in the early 1700s and is considered the father of occupational medicine and is an early cancer epidemiologist?

answer

Bernardino Ramazzini

question

The Harvard Alumni Study cohort in examining the risk for cancer mortality found that a man needed to get how many kcal per week energy expenditure to reduce their risk?

answer

500 kcal/wk

question

A cancer that that is confined to a local area or area is known as what type of cancer?

answer

In Situ

question

Cancer is a family of related diseases that result from uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells, which usually become a tumor.

answer

true

question

The inverse dose response of physical activity on breast cancer is strongest premenopausal women.

answer

true

question

Which of the risk factors for breast cancer below is related to BRCA1 & BRCA2 mutations?

answer

Family history of breast cancer

question

According to lecture, if a person is active during the pre-treatment phase, they are more likely to maintain their immune system and maintain a more positive outlook.

answer

True

question

Which race has the highest breast cancer incidence rate?

answer

Anglo American

question

Which woman below has a decreased risk for breast cancer?

answer

A Person who doesn't drink

question

Abdominal obesity among women is the primary source of estrogen after menopause which increases breast cancer risk.

answer

true

question

A woman's breast age increases her exposure to initiators and promoters of cancer and is linked to the rate of cell divisions in breast tissue. How does physical activity impact a woman's breast age?

answer

Lowering estradiol levels

question

The term 'survival rate' for cancer is based upon being alive for how many years past the date of diagnosis?

answer

5 years

question

Match the following characteristics with the corresponding type of immunity.

answer

Innate Immunity=Rapid response, first line of defense, not selective, cellular defense Adaptive Immunity=slow response, highly selective, humoral response

question

Natural killer cells are responsible for...

answer

Killing host cells (e.g. tumor)

question

Dendritic cells are responsible for...

answer

Antigen-presenting to T-cells

question

According to lecture, it appears that heavy exercise of high volumes of exercise can increase our risk of upper respiratory infections.

answer

True

question

Some risk factors for suicidal behaviors include...

answer

female sex, parental psychopathology, unmarried

question

According to the text, the WHO has projected that depression will be second only to CVD as the world's leading cause of death and disability by the year 2020 and will be first by 2030.

answer

True

question

According to the text, the American Psychiatric association recognizes how many types of mood disorders?

answer

question

According to the text, suicide death rates are highest among elderly men.

answer

True

question

Which of the following are types of mood disorders? (mark all that apply)

answer

MARK ALL; depression, bipolar or manic depressive disorder, mood disorders due to a medical condition, substance-induced mood disorders

question

According to the text, the most comprehensive estimates of mental health problems among U.S. adults come from the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R).

answer

True

question

HIV is a retrovirus that uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to replicate DNA from its single-stranded RNA in a host cell.

answer

True

question

Which of the following are neurological symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis?

answer

MARK ALL; loss of sensitivity, muscle weakness, vision problems, fatigue

question

According to the text, a temporary suppression of the immune system after heavy exercise may provide a window of susceptibility to infection if exposure to a pathogen occurs while the number of cytotoxic cells is below normal.

answer

True

question

According to the text, it is believed that persistent inflammation is part of the pathogenesis in tumor growth but also in the development of atherosclerosis, insulin resistance, and neurodegenerative diseases of the CNS.

answer

True

question

According to the book, the acute effects of exercise on the immune system were first reported over 100 years ago.

answer

True

question

According to the text, reducing body fatness seems to be the key to reducing elevated C-reactive protein with an exercise program in people who are obese and who have elevated levels.

answer

True

question

According to the text, the number of natural killer cells increases both after a heavy exercise bout and light exercise.

answer

False

question

According to the text, regular physical activity could exert part of the protective effects against CVD, type 2 diabetes, dementia, and depression through anti-inflammatory effects.

answer

True

question

According to the book, experimental studies using men and women have shown that moderate physical activity seems to slow the growth of experimentally induced tumors.

answer

False

question

According to the text, neutrophils are are the main type of granulocytes that digest bacteria at the site of infection. They increase in number during and immediately after acute exercise.

answer

True

question

According to the text, the immune system is an integrated network of molecules, cells, tissues, and organs that defends and organism against infection by foreign substances and against mutated native cells.

answer

True

question

According to the text, most studies of physical activity and the immune response among humans have understandably been limited to description of cells in the blood.

answer

True

question

Regular physical activity can have an inflammatory effect on diseases associated with low-grade inflammation.

answer

False

question

B lymphocytes are responsible for..

answer

Identifying pathogens

question

T lymphocytes are responsible for...

answer

Helping regulate & kill infected cells.

question

According to the CDC (2010a, 2010b), suicide is the _____ leading cause of death among 25 to 34 year-olds and the _____ leading cause of death among 15 to 24 year-olds.

answer

Second, Third

question

The slope or grade of a sidewalk can impact the walking behavior of people living in close proximity to the street.

answer

False

question

Physical activity on the job contributes to overall physical activity

answer

True

question

Which intervention setting below has the greatest effect in increasing physical activity?

answer

Community

question

Related to the lifespan, when does physical activity begin to decrease for both males and females?

answer

Adolescence

question

Interventions that include behavior modification can significantly reduce dropout rates of physical activity programs.

answer

True

question

What term below best describes feelings of total failure, lost confidence, and a subsequent relapse associated with a temporary lapse or slip when trying to become physically active?

answer

Abstinence violation effect

question

The environmental factors that promote or hinder physical activity in a population include everything below with one exception. Which factor below is NOT related to the environment?

answer

Self-efficacy of a person to start a physical activity program

question

Which of the following settings is not considered a community-level setting to promote physical activity?

answer

home

question

A set of strategies designed to help keep people from returning to undesired behavior after successful behavior modification is known as what below?

answer

Relapse prevention

question

In terms of physical activity interventions, age and sex are factors that moderate the impact or success of these initiatives.

answer

true

question

On average 10% of the variation of people's physical activity is explainable by genetic traits

answer

false

question

Self-monitoring, goal setting, feedback, and decision making are central to what behavioral theory below?

answer

Cognitive-Behavior Modification

question

Which of the following personal factors influencing physical activity is considered to be positive?

answer

Enjoyment of exercise

question

The importance that a person places on their beliefs about the benefits and barriers they hold regarding physical activity is known as what below?

answer

Outcome-expectancy value

question

Despite perceived safety issues, people living in neighborhoods with sidewalks tend to be walk more.

answer

false

question

Which exercise stage of below would a person be in if they were inactive, but intending to start regular physical activity in the next six months?

answer

contemplation

question

The national objectives for promoting physical activity can be found in what document?

answer

Healthy People 2020

question

Match the following barriers to exercise to the corresponding category

answer

Psychological-->incentives Biobehavioral-->physical fitness Social-environmental-->education

question

Determine the influence (positive/negative) of the following cognitive variables on physical activity

answer

Self-efficacy-->positive Perceived barriers to exercise→ negative Knowledge of health and exercise→ neutral

question

Cognitive-behavior modification is based on the assumption that people can learn behavioral skills that help them self-regulate their behavior.

answer

true

question

Which of the following are components of relapse prevention? (Mark all that apply)

answer

Identifying situations that put a person at high risk for relapse Correcting a lifestyle imbalance in which "shoulds" outweigh "wants" Avoiding urges to relapse by blocking self dialogues and images of the benefits of not exercising

question

In which of the following regions of the U.S. is the highest prevalence of physical inactivity found?

answer

Southeastern

question

Determine the influence (positive/negative) of the following demographics on physical activity.

answer

Increase age-> negative Injury history→ unclear Gender (male)--> positive

question

According to the text, what is the average dropout rate from exercise programs across the first six to 12 months of participation?

answer

50%

question

Social cognitive variable are beliefs that are formed by social learning and reinforcement history.

answer

true

question

Promoting physical activity is unique in that we are trying decrease a negative behavior.

answer

False

question

According to the text, rates of sufficient physical activity during high school in U.S. youth have been decreasing.

answer

True

question

A Comprehensive School Physical Activity Program has five essential components. Which of the following is not one of these components?

answer

Mass media campaign

question

In an Atlanta study on the built environment, transportation, and obesity, they found that for each hour a person drive a car they were how much likely to be obese?

answer

question

Which of the following personal factors influencing physical activity is considered to be negative?

answer

overweight/obesity

question

People in rural areas of the United States tend to be more active than people living in urban areas.

answer

false

question

Which intervention setting below has the greatest effect in increasing physical activity knowledge?

answer

community

question

Which exercise stage of below is the most unstable and at the greatest risk of a relapse?

answer

action maintenance

question

People who live near exercise facilities tend to be more active.

answer

True

question

Knowledge and positive attitudes about the health outcomes of being physically active alone are not enough to guarantee that a person will start or stay with a regular physical activity program.

answer

True

question

People who value physical activity may self-select to live in highly walkable and active-friendly neighborhoods.

answer

True

question

Any factor that has been known to be related to being physically active is known as what below?

answer

Determinant

question

Interventions that use large-scale, high-intensity, high-visibility programming on TV, radio, newspapers, and other media to promote physical activity are labeled what type of intervention below?

answer

community-wide campaign

question

In terms of physical activity interventions, age and sex are factors that moderate the impact of impact or success of these initiatives.

answer

true

question

When a person says they don't have time to exercise, this excuse might reflect the following with one exception - what is that exception?

answer

low levels of self-efficacy

question

Which exercise stage of below would a person be in if they inactive and had no intention to start exercising?

answer

Precontemplation

question

People who are extrinsically motivated choose to be physically active because they enjoy it and find it personally meaningful and valuable.

answer

False

question

Behavior modification is the planned, systematic application of principles of learning to the modification of behavior.

answer

True

question

People who are intrinsically motivated choose to be physically active more out of a sense of obligation or duty to avoid feelings of guilt.

answer

False

question

Which of the following are considered external factors of perceived behavioral control? (mark all that apply)

answer

Time Obstacles

question

Self-efficacy is a belief in personal capabilities to organize and execute the courses of action required to attain a behavioral goal.

answer

true

question

Match the following stage of change with it's corresponding characteristics.

answer

Precontemplation - individuals are inactive and have no intention to start exercising Contemplation- individuals are inactive, but intend to start exercise within the next six months. Preparation- Individuals are active below criterion level but intend to become more active. Action- Individuals have engaged in regular exercise at the criterion level for less than six months. Maintenance- individuals have been exercising regularly for more than six months

question

According to the text, racial and ethnic minorities, people who have less formal education or low-income jobs, and people who live in rural areas are least physically active during their leisure time.

answer

True

question

Self-determination theory proposes that the social context shapes people's motives by reinforcing or impeding their natural drive toward developing a coherent sense of self and personally directed behaviors.

answer

True

question

Which of the following is NOT a reason people with excess body weight may limit their physical activity?

answer

It improves their bone health which increases self-efficacy

question

Physical activity is stable until age 50 at which time it begins to decline.

answer

False

question

Despite perceived safety issues, people living in neighborhoods with sidewalks tend to be more walk.

answer

false

question

What TTM stage would incorporate relapse prevention?

answer

Maintenance

question

What of the factors below that impact exercise adherence is NOT considered to be psychological?

answer

Socioeconomic status

question

Most modern communities in the United States were designed to accommodate all forms of transportation (cars, bikes, walking, etc.)

answer

false

question

Social interactions and social influences appear to be more important for exercise behavior in women than men

answer

true

question

Behavior modification is most successful when the person begins with vigorous-intensity physical activity

answer

False

question

Which of the following are considered internal factors of perceived behavioral control? (mark all that apply)

answer

Skills Willpower

question

According to the text, racial and ethnic minorities, people who have less formal education or low-income jobs, and people who live in rural areas are least physically active during their leisure time

answer

True

question

The parental modeling of physical activity can increase the odds that their children will be active as they mature T or F?

answer

True

question

Wealthy people are more likely to increase their physical activity after retirement?

answer

True

question

High-risk situations and rigid rules increase the risk of relapse back to physical inactivity?

answer

True

question

Which exercise stage of below would a person be in if they had been exercising regularly for the past six months?

answer

maintenance

question

Which of the following describe ways that self-efficacy develops? (mark all that apply)

answer

actual success being persuaded by someone emotional or perceived signs of coping ability

question

According to the theory of planned behavior, attitudes toward physical activity and social norms about physical activity influence the intention to be physically active, which is the main factor leading to physical activity.

answer

True

question

Relationships with others can have a strong impact on physical activity behavior. What term below describes how these relationships

answer

Social support

question

The Community Guide for Promoting Physical Activity produced by the Task Force on Community Preventive Services recommended with 'strong' evidence several interventions below. Which one of these below is considered to be a behavioral and social approach

answer

School-based Physical Education (PE)

question

The walkability of a neighborhood relates to it's design. Of the factors below, which is NOT related to neighborhood walkability?

answer

Temperature

question

Having home exercise equipment does not ensure that a person will be active.

answer

True

question

Health risk appraisals and fitness testing are examples of interventions that can prompt contemplation of physical activity.

answer

True

question

To promote physical activity, a person needs to find an activity they enjoy.

answer

True

question

The Theory of Planned Behavior says that a person's attitudes toward physical activity, their perceived social norms of exercise, and their perceived behavioral control directly impacts what factor below?

answer

Their intention to exercise

question

Successful behavior change requires that the behavior be cued and reinforced.

answer

True

question

Self-determination theory is complementary to self-efficacy theory and the theory of planned behavior for understanding physical activity.

answer

True

question

Access to exercise facilities specific to geography captures includes all of the factors below with one exception. What factor below is NOT related to geography and access?

answer

Exercise equipment

question

Physical activity is not a single behavior, and it requires more effort, and usually more time than any other lifestyle behavior related to health.

answer

True

question

Physical activity behavior change is complex behavior that requires multiple decisions and actions.

answer

True

question

Self-regulation of physical activity involves the following factors with one exception below - which factor is not part of self-regulation?

answer

Coping with life's pressures

question

The Self-Efficacy Theory says that a person's belief in their personal capability to exercise is developed through four factors. Which factor below is NOT a self-efficacy factor?

answer

Setting exercise goal

question

People often must make several attempts at behavior change before they experience success.

answer

True

question

Cognitive-behavior modification of physical activity is based on the assumption that people can learn behavioral skills that help them self-regulate their behavior.

answer

True

question

Married individuals who join a fitness center are more likely to demonstrate better exercise adherence than those individuals who join with their spouse.

answer

False

question

answer

Creating access to places for PA with information outreach

question

People who are intrinsically motivated choose to be active more out of a sense of obligation or due to avoid feelings of guilt.

answer

False

question

The average dropout rate for exercise programs in the first year is near what percent below?

answer

50%

question

Where does the data for Healthy People 2020 come from?

answer

The National Health Interview Survey

question

What is the source for physical activity 10-year national health objectives?

answer

Healthy People 2020

question

Which surveillance system is the primary tracking system for the current Healthy People 2020 national health objectives?

answer

NHIS

question

Americans, as a whole, consistently fail to meet the Healthy People target (50%) for participating in moderate or vigorous leisure-time PA.

answer

True

question

During lecture, we defined surveillance as "measuring the prevalence of physical activity & regularly using the same survey in a population.

answer

True

question

Surveillance is the tracking of population trends in a disease, such as physical activity, over time.

answer

False

question

Match the surveillance system with the corresponding attribute.

answer

Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System (BRFSS)- Interviews adults in each state & territory in the US National Health Interview Survey (NHIS)- Annual; 100,000 across the US; face-to-face interviews National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey- Measures PA & fitness among children, adults, & elderly; uses treadmill tests, strength test, interview Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System (YRBSS)-School-based survey for HS students National Household Travel Survey (NHTS)-Tracks trends in transportation School Health Policies & Practices Study (SHPPS)-Focuses on school policies promoting PA

question

A normally occurring change in PA among populations that could be measured by surveillance systems is known as what below?

answer

Secular trend

question

Physical activity questions used by national surveillance systems all really have one major task below. Which one?

answer

Determine the prevalence of people meeting PA guidelines

question

This surveillance system measures PA among youth in the United States.

answer

YRBSS

question

Which surveys use interviews? Telephones? Which one also assesses measured metabolic variables?

answer

Behavio ral Risk Factor Surveillance System- Telephone Interviews National Health Interview -Survey Interviews National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey- Interviews and other metabolic measures including: treadmill test, strength testing NHANES assesses measured metabolic variables because it is the only one that requires a physical examination including cardiovascular fitness evaluation and musculoskeletal fitness test

question

The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines highlight what?

answer

Recommendations of PA that provide substantial health benefits

question

The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans provide science-based guidance to help Americans aged 6 and older improve their health through appropriate physical activity.

answer

True

question

The 2008 PA Guidelines are based on a lifestyles approach which means they focus on ...

answer

All of the above

question

The 1998 ACSM and 2008 Federal PA Guidelines for Americans differ on in how people progress in intensity, with the 2008 guidelines emphasizing moderate-intensity.

answer

True

question

What are the fundamental physical activity guidelines?

answer

Aerobic: 150 min/week of moderate intensity exercise 75 min/week of vigorous intensity exercise Extensive Health Benefits: 300 min/week of moderate intensity 150 min/week of vigorous intensity exercise Muscle Strengthening: All Major muscle groups should be worked out 2+ days a week Children and adolescents: 1 Hr or More of PA/day ( most should be moderate to vigorous aerobic PA) 1Hr or More of Muscle/bone strengthening PA 3days/week Elderly People: Balance + all requirements of Children Intensity should be relative to their PA level of fitness

STUDY

Brca1 And Brca2 Inflammatory Breast Cancer Oncology Primary Risk Factors Risk Factors For Breast Cancer

Breast Cancer-Questions from book – Flashcards 10 terms

Henry Lowe

10 terms

Preview

Breast Cancer-Questions from book – Flashcards

question

The pathologic stageing system for breast cancer incorporates: I. Lymph Nodes Status II. Tumor Extent III. Distant Metastasis A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III

answer

D. I, II, and III

question

The most common presenting symptom of early-stage breast cancer is: A. nipple discharge B. pain C. palpable mass D. ulceration

answer

C. Palpable Mass

question

Which of the following is proper advice for a patient recieving radiation treatment to the breast? I. Do not wear restrictive clothing II. Avoid using commerical deodorant III. avoid sun exposure to the skin of the treated area A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III

answer

D. I, II, and III

question

TD 5/5 refers to: A. minimal tolerance dose B. maximum tolerance dose C. tumor dose of 5 Gy in 5 days D. tumor dose of 5 cGy in 5 days

answer

A. minimal tolerance dose

question

The TD 5/5 for the spinal cord delivered through standard fractionation is: A. 1500 cGy B. 3000 cGy C. 4500 cGy D. 6000 cGy

answer

C. 4500 cGy

question

Which of the following is NOT currently a standard technique for breast surgery? A. radical mastectomy B. modified radical mastectomy C. lumpectomy D. Tylectomy

answer

A. Radical Mastectomy

question

Chemotherapy for breast cancer may consist of: I. drug therapy II. endocrine therapy III. immunotherapy A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III

answer

A. I and II

question

In treating a breast cancer patient via tangential fields plus an electron field boost, the usual total dose to the tumor bed delivered through a standard fractionation schedule is: A. 4000 to 4600 cGy B. 5000 to 5600 cGy C. 6000 to 6600 cGy D. 7000 to 7600 cGy

answer

C. 6000 to 6600 cGy

question

The technique that may be used to adequately irradiate the internal mammary lymph nodes on a patient with left breast cancer and simultaneously deliver the least cardiac dose is: A. anterior photon field, 50 Gy in 5 weeks B. anterior photon-electron fields, equally weighted, 50 Gy in 5 weeks C. wide tangential fields, extending 5 cm across midline, 50 Gy in 5 weeks D. anterior electron field, 50 Gy in 5 weeks

answer

B. Anterior photon-electron fields, equally weighted, 50 Gy in 5 weeks

question

The skin usually reacts in a pattern that is dose dependent. Which of the following would you expect to see first for radiation administered using a standard fractionation schedule? A. dry desquamation B. erythema C. moist desquamation D. radiation pneumonitis

answer

B. erythema

STUDY

Brca1 And Brca2 Digital Rectal Exam Oncology

Pharmacotherapy 6- Colorectal Cancer – Flashcards 65 terms

Joan Grant

65 terms

Preview

Pharmacotherapy 6- Colorectal Cancer – Flashcards

question

--What is the 2nd leading cause of cancer death in the US?

answer

Colorectal cancer

question

--What are the risk factors of colorectal cancer?

answer

Age - >50 y/o; Genetic factors - Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC); Pre-existing conditions - IBD, neoplastic colorectal polyps; Family hx; Diet - low fiber, excess fat, excess calories, EtOH, smoking

question

--What components of a diet can decrease risk of colorectal cancer?

answer

High fiber intake, calcium and vitamin D, NSAIDs, ASA, COX-2 inhibitors

question

--What is the proposed mechanism for fiber supplementation in colorectal cancer prevention?

answer

Decrease fecal bile acids, decrease transit time, binds to fecal mutagens, dilutes fecal material

question

--What is the proposed mechanism for dietary fat reduction in colorectal cancer prevention?

answer

Decreases fecal bile acids, reduces consumption of heterocyclic amines & other carcinogens produced through meal preparation and processing

question

--What is the proposed mechanism for calcium supplementation in colorectal cancer prevention?

answer

Direct binding to bile & fatty acids, inhibits epithelial cell proliferation

question

--What is the proposed mechanism for COX inhibition in colorectal cancer prevention?

answer

Decreases COX-2 mediated free radical formation, may inhibit growth factor synthesis in response to tumor promoters

question

--What are our screening options for colorectal cancer?

answer

Fecal occult blood test (FOBT), Fecal immunochemical test (FIT), Flex sigmoidoscopy (FSIG, q5 years) *Colonoscopy* (q10 years)

question

--When should we begin screening for colorectal cancer in someone with family history?

answer

At age 35-40

question

--When should we begin screening for colorectal cancer in someone with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?

answer

At age 10-12

question

--When should we begin screening for colorectal cancer in someone with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)?

answer

At age 30

question

--At what age do we typically begin screening for colorectal cancer?

answer

At age 50

question

--What is the most important independent prognostic factor for survival and disease recurrence?

answer

Stage of cancer at diagnosis

question

--What are the s/sx a/w colorectal cancer in addition to hx & PE?

answer

Change in bowel habits, blood in stool, weight loss unplanned, anorexia/GI pain

question

--In general, what are our tx options for colorectal cancer?

answer

Surgery, radiation, chemotx, targeted molecular tx

question

--In general, what can influence our treatment modality for colorectal cancer?

answer

Age, co-morbidities, performance status

question

--When are we using surgery during colorectal cancer?

answer

Stage I & II, localized dz - for curative intent Stage III & IV - generally palliative/debulking to dec bleeding, obstruction, improve quality of life

question

--When are we using radiation during colorectal cancer?**

answer

*Well established for rectal cancer, no definitive role in colon cancer*; Neoadjuvant use in rectal CA improves regional control of dz; Radiation is best with chemotx in rectal cancer; Used for palliation for pain & control of bleeding in colon cancer

question

--Overall, what is tx for local dz, stage I and II colorectal CA?

answer

Generally surgery alone, careful surveillance w/ discretionary freq screening; Question about the role of adjuvant chemotherapy in stage II --High risk patients/more aggressive cases

question

--What is one of the backbones for treatment of colorectal cancer?

answer

A 5-FU (fluoropyrimidine) based regimen is the std of care

question

--Overall, what is tx for locally advanced, Stage III colorectal cancer?

answer

Surgery Adjuvant chemotherapy - 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) based regimens in standard of care

question

--Overall, what is tx for advanced dz, stage IV colorectal cancer?

answer

Chemotherapy Perhaps add'l radiation or surgery to improve palliative care

question

--What are our chemotherapy regimens in colorectal CA?

answer

FOLFOX, FOLFIRI, CapeOx, bevacizumab, cetuximab, panitumumab

question

--What are our options for neoadjuvant chemotherapy in colorectal CA?

answer

FOLFOX +/- bevacizumab FOLFIRI CapeOx

question

--What agents are part of FOLFOX regimen?

answer

5-FU, leucovorin, and oxaliplatin

question

--What is the scheduling and administration of our mFOLFOX-6 regimen?

answer

On Day 1: 5-FU bolus, leucovorin, and oxaliplatin Then, after bolus of 5-FU we hang a bag of 5-FU and infuse over 46 hours.

question

--FOLFOX is generally given outpatient or inpatient?

answer

Outpatient after day 1 as these patients can go home with a pump

question

--5-FU should be avoided if T.bili is:

answer

>5 mg/dL

question

--What parameters would warrant contacting a provider regarding use of a FOLFOX regimen for colorectal cancer?

answer

If ANC <1.5, PLT 5, CrCl <30

question

--How should we admin hematopoietic growth factor support for FOLFOX or FOLFIRI pts?

answer

If pts counts are continually dropping and interfering with admin of regimen, but we aren't giving these factors upfront like we would with something like an AC regimen

question

--What are the toxicities a/w FOLFOX regimen?

answer

Peripheral neuropathy (d/2 oxaliplatin, avoid cold exposure/objects during & ~48 hrs s/p admin); Hypersensitivity (d/2 oxaliplatin, won't premedicate); Diarrhea (d/2 5-FU); Mucositis (d/2 5-FU)

question

--When are we usually seeing hypersens rxn w/ oxaliplatin as part of FOLFOX admin?

answer

Around 6th dose; May rechallenge with low dose and direct observation

question

--What level of ematogenicity is a/w the FOLFOX regimen? Regimen for premedication?

answer

Moderate ematogenicity Day 1 = 5-HT3 antagonist + dexamethasone +/- lorazepam PRN Day 2-3 = +/- 5-HT3 antagonist and +/- lorazepam PRN

question

--How can we manage diarrhea d/2 5-FU in FOLFOX admin?

answer

Reduce dose or delay, give loperamide, IV hydrate and electrolyte replacement

question

--How can we manage mucositis d/2 5-FU in FOLFOX regimen admin?

answer

Opioids, IV hydration, nutritional support; may remove bolus 5-FU and keep the infusion

question

--Oxaliplatin is only compatible with what administration fluid?

answer

D5W

question

--What component of FOLFOX has had shortages and how can we handle?

answer

leucovorin Use levo-leucovorin or use lower doses +/- 5-FU increases

question

--What two regimens are interchangeable for colorectal cancer?

answer

FOLFOX and CapeOx

question

--What drugs are part of CapeOx regimen for colorectal cancer?

answer

oxaliplatin and capecitabine

question

--How is CapeOx admin?

answer

Day 1: oxaliplatin Day 1-14: capecitabine PO BID

question

--Patient was an IVDA and now being tx for colorectal cancer with chemotherapy, would you use FOLFOX or CapeOx?

answer

Don't want to send them home with that IV port that will be available if we choose FOLFOX, so CapeOx would be the better option and protect patient's safety.

question

--How are we renally adjusting for CapeOx regimen?

answer

CrCl 30-50 ml/min: 25% dose reduction CrCl <30 ml/min: use is contraindicated

question

--What kind of antiemetic tx are we using with CapeOx regimen?

answer

Day 1: 5-HT3 antagonist + dexamethasone +/- lorazepam PRN prior to oxaliplatin Day 1-14: Prochlorperazine or promethazine PO PRN

question

--What are the ADRs of CapeOx regimen?

answer

Hand-foot syndrome (d/2 capecitabine, varying grades of regional pain/blistering) Diarrhea (dose-limiting tox, ~55% of pts)

question

--What are some drug interactions with CapeOx regimen?

answer

D/2 capecitabine being a strong 2C9 inhibitor we affect *warfarin* (monitor INR) and *phenytoin* (monitor levels)

question

--What pt instructions should be given about admin of CapeOx?

answer

Take with water within 30 minutes after a meal Take approximately 12 hours apart

question

--What is the scheduling and administration of our FOLFIRI regimen?

answer

On Day 1: 5-FU bolus, leucovorin, and irinotecan Then, after bolus of 5-FU we hang a bag of 5-FU and infuse over 46 hours.

question

--What agents are part of FOLFIRI regimen?

answer

5-FU, leucovorin, and irinotecan

question

--Which agent in FOLFIRI req hepatic monitoring and concerns? Why?

answer

irinotecan Irinotecan and metabolite (SN-38) higher in patients with liver metastases and hepatic dysfunction

question

--What antiemetic regimen would we use for FOLFIRI?

answer

Moderately emetogenic regimen Day 1 = 5-HT3 antagonist + dexamethasone +/- aprepitant +/- lorazepam PRN Day 2-3 = +/- 5-HT3 antagonist +/- dexamethasone +/-lorazepam PRN

question

--What are the ADRs of FOLFIRI regimen?

answer

Mucositis (d/2 5-FU, removal of bolus with high grades); Diarrhea (d/2 5-FU and irinotecan, usually giving atropine for early onset/prevention)

question

--What agent are we usually giving for late diarrhea (>24 h after dose)?

answer

loperamide

question

--What agent are we usually giving for early diarrhea?

answer

atropine

question

--How can we admin bevacizumab?

answer

Usually give with 5-FU Standard administration --1st dose over 90 minutes, 2nd dose over 60 minutes, subsequent doses over 30 minutes Rapid infusion bevacizumab --5 mg/kg IV over 10 minutes; 10 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes; 15 mg/kg IV over 30 minutes

question

--What are some black box warnings with bevacizumab?

answer

GI perforation, hemorrhage, wound dehiscence (can affect healing w/in 28 days of surgery or an invasive line placement, etc)

question

--What toxicities can we see w/ bevacizumab?

answer

HTN (max 140/90 to admin, if uncontrolled then temp d/c, in crisis d/c); Proteinuria/nephrotic syndrome (req urine protein eval every admin); Thromboembolism

question

--Which drug is most appropriate when pt has KRAS *wild-type* colorectal CA?**

answer

cetuximab (must be wild-type!!)

question

--What is the MoA of cetuximab?

answer

Chimeric monoclonal antibody Directed against EGFR & inhibits downstream signaling pathways

question

--What are the toxicities/black box with cetuximab?

answer

Infusion-related hypersensitivity (pre-med with diphenhydramine/etc); Cardiopulm arrest (very rare, but serious); Acneform rash (↑ correlates with survival/response however, tx w/ Abx/CSs); Hypomagnesemia (common)

question

--What is the MoA of panitumumab?

answer

Fully human monoclonal antibody Directed against EGFR & inhibits downstream signaling pathways

question

--How often are we admin panitumumab?

answer

q2weeks

question

--What genetic factors would indicate use of panitumumab?

answer

KRAS & NRAS *wild-type* gene only!!

question

--What are the toxicities/black box of panitumumab?

answer

Infusion-related hypersensitivity; Dermatologic toxicity (reported in majority of pts, severe in ~12%); Diarrhea (incidence dec w/ combo tx); Electrolyte depletion (calcium and magnesium); Pulmonary fibrosis (rare, perm d/c if lung abnormalities develop)

question

--What is the significance of BRAF mutation in colorectal cancer?

answer

Data indicates it is a strong prognostic indicator - those with this mutation do worse

question

--When are we using bevacizumab?

answer

With fluoropyrimidine-based chemotherapy as initial therapy for metastatic disease. It is considered standard of care and provides a survival benefit as compared with combination chemotherapy alone

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Brca1 And Brca2 Computed Axial Tomography Oncology

Biology Chapter 18: Cancer – Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation – Flashcards 68 terms

Patsy Brent

68 terms

Preview

Biology Chapter 18: Cancer – Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation – Flashcards

question

100 types, all cancers are diseases of cells division and differentiation

answer

introduction

question

have regulatory mechanisms that maintain an appropriate rate of cell division, internal "clock", hormones, inhibitory signals from nearby cells, remain in one location throughout their lifespan

answer

normal cells

question

substantial increase in the rate of cell divisions

answer

hyperplasia

question

also known as neoplasm, a discrete mass of cells resulting from hyperplasia

answer

tumor

question

noncancerous, remain in one location, single, well defined mass, may be surrounded by connective tissue, often can be readily removed surgically

answer

benign tumors

question

presence of cells of an abnormal type within a tissue; cells exhibit abnormal change in cell structure, considered a precancerous state

answer

dysplasia

question

when its cells completely lose their organization, structure, and regulatory control

answer

when is a tumor defined as cancer?

question

when a tumor remains in one place it's referred to as carcinoma in situ

answer

in situ cancer

question

tumor invades normal tissue and compromises organ function, tumor may undergo metastasis, spread of cancer to another organ or body region, secondary, malignant tumors at other locations may develop

answer

malignant tumor

question

2 things must happen: 1. cell must divide uncontrollably ignoring inhibitory signals, with an unlimited lifespan 2. cells must undergo physical changes that allow them to break away from surrounding cells These changes usually are from cell gene mutations from carcinogens

answer

cancer development

question

normal regulatory genes that control normal cell growth, differentiation, cell division and/or adhesion

answer

proto-oncogenes

question

mutated or damaged proto-oncogenes, may cause cells to grow and divide more quickly than normal, may result in a cell failing to respond to inhibitory signals

answer

oncogenes

question

also known as gate keeper genes, regulatory genes that repress cell growth and division, and favor differentiation and adhesion, may be turned off, damaged, or mutated in cancers (ex: p53 gene mutations in cervical, colon, lung, skin, bladder, and breast tumors)

answer

tumor suppressor genes

question

also know as care taker genes, involved in DNA repair during replication, may be mutated themselves and not function (BRCA-1 and BRCA-2)

answer

mutator genes

question

cancer develops only when multiple oncogenes are present and tumor suppressor genes are lost

answer

multigene basis of cancer

question

single most important factor in development of cancer, the longer we live, the more likely we are to be diagnosed for cancer

answer

age

question

some genes may be inherited that increase susceptibility to cancer

answer

genetic predisposition

question

process of transforming a normal cell into a cancer cell

answer

carcinogenesis

question

any substance or physical factor that causes cancer

answer

carcinogen

question

causes cervical cancer

answer

human papillomavirus (HPV)

question

liver cancer

answer

hep B and C viruses

question

kaposi's sarcoma

answer

human herpes virus (HHV-8) and HIV

question

hodgkin's disease

answer

epstein-barr virus

question

stomach cancer

answer

heliobacter pylori

question

asbestos, benzene, some pesticides, dyes

answer

chemical carcinogenesis

question

responsible for 30% of all cancer deaths

answer

tobacco (chemical carcinogen)

question

ultraviolet radiation (sun exposure) causes skin cancer, causes more than 80% of all skin cancers

answer

radiation carcinogenesis

question

involved with approx. 30% of cancers, red meat, alc, salt, aflatoxin present in raw peanut butter, type II diabetics have a much higher risk of dying of cancer

answer

diet and obesity

question

increased risk of cancer of colon, rectum, prostate

answer

red meat, saturated animal fat

question

increased risk of breast, rectal, colon and liver cancer

answer

alcohol

question

associated with stomach cancer

answer

salt consumption

question

free radicals produced by metabolism may damage DNA, antioxidants (vitamins A,C, and E) may neutralize free radicals, antioxidant containing foods: blueberries, spinach, tomatoes

answer

internal factors that cause cancer

question

immune system normal defends body against cancers, may not be recognized as "self" and could be destroyed, anything that suppresses the immune system may make an individual more susceptible to cancer

answer

immune system and cancer

question

x-rays, PET, and MRI, computed axial tomography (CAT) ex: mammogram

answer

tumor imaging

question

uses sound waves to form an image

answer

sonography

question

3D image of metabolic activity

answer

PET (positron emission tomography) scan

question

bursts of magnetic fields to produce images

answer

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

question

identify mutated genes such as BRCA-1 and 2, privacy and treatment issues

answer

genetic testing

question

looking for cancer markers, prostate specific antigen (PSA) is elevated in prostate cancer, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is elevated in colon cancer, alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is elevated in liver, testicular, and ovarian cancers

answer

enzyme tests

question

surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy, often a combo of two or more of these treatments is used

answer

conventional cancer treatmenst

question

has improved with better imaging techniques

answer

surgery

question

targets the tumor but sometimes damages healthy cells

answer

radiation

question

use of cytotoxic drugs to destroy cancer cells, side effects: nausea, hair loss, anemia, often kills normal cells as well, especially ones that are fast growing

answer

chemotherapy

question

magnet is placed at the tumor, tiny magnetic beads coated with chemotherapy drugs are injected and pulled to the tumor

answer

magnetism

question

uses light-sensitive drugs that are taken up by cancer cells and laster, which activate the toxicity of the drug

answer

photodynamic therapy

question

promotes immune response, development of antibodies that specifically recognize cancer cells, tagging antibodies with radioactive molecules or chemotherapeutic drugs, vaccines (ex: gardasil), antibodies to prevent immune cell shut down (anti CTLA-4)

answer

immunotherapy

question

starving cancer cells essentially, anti-angiogenic drugs prevent or stop the development of blood vessels into the tumor, so the cells "starve" to death

answer

inhibiting angiogenesis

question

target oncogenes or their protein products, restore or repair expression of tumor suppressor genes

answer

molecular treatments

question

lung cancer, cancer of colon and rectum, breast cancer, prostate cancer, leukemia, lymphoma, urinary bladder cancer, kidney cancer, skin cancer, cancer of the uterus

answer

10 deadliest cancers

question

smoking is the #2 cancer in incidence in both men and women but is the #1 cancer killer of both men and women, early symptoms are nonspecific, persistent coughing, bronchitis, recurrent pneumonia, voice change, treated by surgery often combined with radiation and chemo.

answer

lung cancer

question

#3 cancer in incidence in men and women, tests can detect them early, blood in stool, rectal bleeding, risk factors: sedentary lifestyle, obesity, smoking, fam history, low-fiber diet, a diet high in red meat and saturated fats, starts as polyps which gradually become malignant, treated by polyp removal, surgical removal and chemo

answer

cancer of colon and rectum

question

examining interior of colon with flexible fiber-optic scope

answer

colonoscopy

question

#1 cancer in women, early detection is crucial for survival, mammogram uses a low dose x-ray for detection, detection of a lump on self breast exam or physician breast exam, risk factors include genetics (BRCA-1 and 2), age, early onset of menstruation and late menopause, obesity after menopause, oral contraceptives, hormone replacement after menopause

answer

breast cancer

question

#1 cancer in incidence in men, most common after age of 50, biggest risk factor is advancing age, symptoms include urination difficulties, blood in urine, pain in pelvic area, diagnosed by digital rectal exam, blood test for PSA, biopsy, treated by surgery, radiation therapy, and hormones

answer

prostate cancer

question

cancer of immature white blood cells in bone marrow, risk factors include down syndrome, exposure to ionizing radiation, benzene, infection with HTLV-1 virus, childhood and adult forms, nonspecific symptoms, diagnosed by blood tests and bone marrow biopsies, treated with extensive chemotherapy or chemo and bone marrow transplant

answer

leukemia

question

cancer of lymphoid tissues, hodgkins and non-hodgkins lymphoma, symptoms include enlarged lymph nodes, intermittent fever, itching, weight loss, night sweats, risk factors include altered immune functions, transplant recipients, HIV, occupational exposure to herbicides, treated by radiation, chemo, bone marrow transplant

answer

lymphoma

question

surgery is often successful if done early, symptoms include blood in the urine, risk factors include smoking, urban living, exposure to arsenic in water supply, occupational exposure to leather, dye, rubber, diagnosis by microscopic exam of urine for cancer cells and cystoscopy, treated by surgery with chemotherapy

answer

urinary bladder cancer

question

direct exam of bladder wall with cystoscope (thin flexible tube with lens)

answer

cystoscopy

question

usually detected during exam for renal-related disease, risk factors include genetics, smoking, exposure to certain toxic chemicals, age, gender (female), diagnosed by CT scan or ultrasound, treated by surgical removal of kidney

answer

kidney cancer

question

look for changes in your skin, 3 major types, basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma

answer

skin cancer

question

involves basal cells in base layer of epithelium, rarely metastasizes but should be removed

answer

basal cell carcinoma

question

involves epithelial cells, may metastasize slowly

answer

squamous cell carcinoma

question

deadliest, but least common of skin cancers, cancer of the melanocytes, metastasizes quickly

answer

melanoma

question

observe moles and skin lesions for A = asymmetry (2 halves of the affected area don't match) B = border (border is irregular in shape) C = color (varies or is black) D = diameter (greater than 6mm or size of a pea) E = evolving (any change in a mole)

answer

ABCDE of melanoma

question

unusual uterine bleeding is major symptom, uterine and cervical cancer, treated by surgery, chemo, radiation, or hormones

answer

cancer of the uterus

question

involves the endometrium, abnormal bleeding, risk factors include early period, late menopause, not having children, estrogen use after menopause

answer

uterine cancer

question

caused by HPV, detected by pap test, prevented by gardasil or cervarix vaccines

answer

cervical cancer

question

know family history, know body (self-exams), get regular medical screenings, avoid direct sunlight 10am to 4pm, sunlamps, and tanning salons, watch diet and weight, don't smoke, drink alc in moderation (if at all), stay informed

answer

prevention of cancer

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Brca1 And Brca2 Breast Cancer Estrogen Replacement Therapy Nursing Oncology

HPD Exam 2 (Cardio, breast, abd, peripheral vascular, male/female genitalia) – Flashcards 94 terms

Richard Lattimore

94 terms

Preview

HPD Exam 2 (Cardio, breast, abd, peripheral vascular, male/female genitalia) – Flashcards

question

What is the number one risk factor for breast cancer?

answer

Age

question

HPV Vaccination

answer

Males age 11-12 thru 21 y/o. HPV responsible for genital warts, anal cancer, penile cancer, HPV in women

question

Know different types of breast masses (4 types)

answer

Fibroadenoma -smooth, rubbery, round, mobile, nontender Cyst - soft to firm, round, mobile, tender Fibrocystic changes - nodular, ropelike Cancer - irregular, firm, mobile OR fixed to surrounding tissue

question

What are the recommendations for breast self exam?

answer

USPSTF recommends against self breast examination

question

Know the tail of Spence

answer

female breast is divided into 4 quadrants based on horizontal and vertical line passing thru the nipple; 5th area above upper outer quadrant is tail of spence

question

What are the different shapes, sizes, types of speculum?

answer

Plastic or metal, small, med, or large Pedersen is flat and narrow Graves is wider and curved

question

Which speculum is used for sexually active women that are nonparous?

answer

Medium pedersen is most comfortable

question

Which speculum is used for small introitus (virgen or elderly)?

answer

Narrow bladed Pedersen

question

Which speculum is used for parous women or women with vaginal prolapses?

answer

Graves speculum

question

What are the symptoms of STI? Which STI lacks symptoms?

answer

-Chlamydia: often asymptomatic or subtle in females; white penile discharge -Gonorrhea: yellow penile discharge; rash -Syphilis: penile ulcers(chancre) -Herpes: genital ulcers; cold sores

question

Inguinal hernias

answer

-Inspect both sides of groin to compare; -Palpate anterior inferior margin of scrotum, more upward toward external ring, invaginating scrotal skin behind peripubic fat; Follow spermaticord up toward inginal ligament, hook laterally to internal interior ring, ask pt to cough, palpate for mass as it moves against tip of index finger

question

Scrotal Hernia

answer

will be mass into scrotum (large, painful, or pulsatile)

question

Femoral hernia

answer

place fingers on anterior thigh in region of femoral canal, ask pt to cough or strain, note swelling/tenderness

question

Breast self exam advice

answer

BSE is best timed 5-7 days after menses, when hormonal stimulation of breast tissue is low

question

How to perform female breast exam? (proper techniques)

answer

-Systemic up-and-down search pattern, varying palpation pressure and a circular motion with the fingerpads; Best time to check 5-7 days after menstrual period -Inspection: fully expose chest looking for skin changes, symmetry, contours, retraction. -4 views to use (arm at side - skin, size and symmetry, contour, nipple; arms overhead - bringing out dimpling or retraction; hands on hips; leaning forward) PALPATION - patient should be supine, palpate from clavicle to bra line, mid-sternum to posterior axillary line and then the tail of spence. Pads of hands, vertical strip pattern, take your time (3min/breast), small concentric circles applying light, medium, and deep pressure at each point. Lateral examination, patient places same side hand over head. BREAST TISSUE - consistency varies, notably at lower ridge, irregular but symmetry, note NODULES location, size, shape, consistency, circumscribed, tenderness, mobility. NIPPLE - palpate & compress areola, note discharge (color, consistency, quantity of discharge).

question

Male breast exam

answer

Inspection - nipple and areola Palpation - areola and breast tissue for nodules, not in fatty deposition or normal disc or enlarged > 2 cm Examine in sitting position (preferred) or supine Repeat left and right. Abnormal is > 2 cm matted together, fixed, firm/hard

question

Mammography recommendations (USPSTF)

answer

50-74 y/os biennially (every 2 years); 75 y/os, insufficient evidence to recommend

question

Mammography recommendations (American Cancer Society)

answer

40-45 y/o-optional annual screening; 45-54 y/o-annual screening; >/= 55 y/o-biennial screening; continue screening if good health and life expectancy is >/= 10 y/o's

question

Mammography recommendations (American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists)

answer

>/= 40 y/o-annually

question

USPSTF Recommendations for Chlamydia screening

answer

young women under 24 y/o

question

USPSTF Grade A Recommendation for screening for HIV

answer

Screen 15-65 y/o and pregnant women

question

American Cancer Society Recommendation for Testicular Cancer

answer

Recommend this should be a part of the general physical exam; No recommendation for self exam

question

Assessing possible peritonitis

answer

Positive cough test, guarding, rigidity, rebound tenderness, and percussion tenderness. Start with one finger then hand -Rovsings sign!

question

Right lymphatic duct

answer

drains fluid from right side of head, neck, thorax, and right upper limb into R internal jugular and right subclavian veins

question

Thoracic duct

answer

collects from rest of body and empties into the junction of left internal jugular and left subclavian veins. All filtered thru interspersed LN's

question

Guidelines for Colorectal screening; USPSTF recommendation

answer

Guidelines recommend against screening with fecal occult blood testing following a digital rectal exam until age 75 y/o; USPSTF: screening for persons 50-75 y/o. Several methods DCBE (double contrast barium enema), CT screening

question

Cervical cancer screening guidelines

answer

Start at age 21, do about every 3 years, stop at age 65

question

Classification of Pap smear cytology: Bethesda System

answer

-Epithelial cell abnormalities: precancerous and cancerous lesions such as: squamous cells, including atypical squamous cells (ACS), which may be of undetermined significance (ACS-US); Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL), including mild dysplasia; high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL), including moderate/severe dysplasia with features suspicious for invasion; and invasive squamous cell carcinoma -Grandular cells: including atypical endocervical cells or atypical endometrial cells, specified or not otherwise specified (NOS); atypical endocervical cells or atypical grandular cells, favor neoplasia; endocervical adenocarcinoma in situ; and adenocarcinoma

question

Ovarian Cancer: RFs and Screening

answer

5th leading cause of cancer-related death for women 2/3's of women affected > 55y/o Most diagnosed late - metastatic disease No effective screening tests 3 symptoms merit attention - Abdominal distention, abdominal bloating, urinary frequency. Problematic due to similar sx's for other dz USPSTF recommend against screening RF = family hx and presence of BRCA1 & BRCA2 gene mutation, first degree relative with breast or ovarian CA, obesity, nulliparity, HRT

question

USPSTF recommendation on STI counseling

answer

Recommends intensive behavioral counseling for all sexually active adolescents and for adults who are at increased risk for STI

question

Where is the pap smear collected from?

answer

Squamocolumnar junction of cervix

question

Dysphagia

answer

difficulty swallowing

question

Odynophagia

answer

painful swallowing

question

Visceral pain

answer

occurs in hollow abdominal organs, or when solid organ capsules stretched, can be difficult to localize. Ischemia also stimulates fibers. Gnawing, burning, cramping, or aching. May cause systemic response-sweating/pallor/nausea/vomiting

question

Parietal pain

answer

originates from parietal peritoneum-peritonitis. Steady, aching, more severe than Visceral, localized over structure, aggravated by movement, coughing. Want to stay still

question

Colorectal cancer

answer

3rd leading cause of death; Lifetime risk 5%

question

Colorectal cancer RFs

answer

age, adenomatous polyps, FHx, chronic inflammatory disease, red meat, tobacco use, excessive EtOH, obesity

question

Referred pain

answer

pain felt in a part of the body other than its actual source

question

Which hepatitis is worse? Why?

answer

Hepatitis C; No immunizations and can lead to liver cancer

question

Addictions

answer

increasingly viewed as chronic relapsing behavioral disorders with substance induced alterations of brain neurotransmitters resulting in tolerance, physical dependence, sensitization, craving, and relapse

question

Urinary tract symptoms

answer

difficulty urinating, frequency, nocturia, urine volume/odor/color, dysuria, leaking or loss, strength or stream, straining, hesitation

question

Lithotomy position

answer

Drape pt appropriately and then assist her into the lithotomy position; Place one heel then another in the stirrups; Ask her to slide all the way down the examining table until her buttocks extends slightly beyond the edge; -Urethra is anterior to vagina which is anterior to rectum

question

Know terms gravida and para; Ex)G2F1L1A1

answer

Gravida=total number of pregnancies; Para=outcomes of pregnancies (full term, premature, abortion, living) Ex) G2F1L1A1=2 pregnancies, 1 full term and living, 1 abortion

question

Male Anatomy A)Glans C)Corpus cavernosum D)Corpus spongiosum E)Urethral meatus F)Scrotum G)Epididymis H)Testis K)Seminal vesicle L)Ejaculatory duct M)Prostate N)Bladder O)Spermatic cord

answer

question

Testicular Self-Examination (TSE) recommendations (USPSTF and ACS)

answer

USPSTF and American Cancer Society have not recommended routine TSE

question

Male genitalia examination: Best way to palpate

answer

Btwn thumb and fingers, note induration or tenderness

question

What age group of men are at most risk for testicular cancer?

answer

Men 15-34 y/o

question

What organs are in Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)?

answer

Liver, gallbladder, pylorus of stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, and head of pancreas

question

What organs are in Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)?

answer

Spleen, splenic flexure of colon, stomach, body and tail of pancreas, and transverse colon

question

What organs are in LLQ?

answer

Sigmoid colon, descending colon, left ovary

question

What organs are in RLQ?

answer

Cecum, appendix, ascending colon, right ovary

question

Common or Concerning symptoms: Cardiac

answer

CP, palpitations, SOB, orthopnea(worse when supine), postural nocturnal dyspnea(sudden orthopnea while sleeping), edema, syncope -(always ask pt baseline activity/exercise)

question

Know S1 and S2 sounds; How to palpate?

answer

S1 is btwn diastole and systole (AV valves close); can feel on carotid artery during upstroke S2 is btwn systole and diastole (SL valves close)

question

Pansystolic/Holosystolic murmur

answer

Starts with S1 and stops at S2 w/o a gap

question

Midsystolic murmur

answer

Begin after S1 and stops before S2, brief gaps are audible btwn the murmur and heart sound

question

Late systolic murmur

answer

usually starts mid or late systole and persists up to S2

question

Early diastolic murmur

answer

starts immediately after S2 w/o a gap, then fades into silence before S1

question

Mid Diastolic murmur

answer

starts a short time after S2, may fade away or merge into late diastolic murmur

question

Late diastolic (presystolic) murmur

answer

question

Continuous murmur

answer

Some congenital and clinical conditions produce continuous murmur

question

Crescendo, Decrescendo, Crescendo decrescendo, plateau murmurs

answer

C: grows louder D: grows softer CD:rise and fall Plateau:same intensity thruout

question

In male breast exam, what is most concerning?

answer

Asymmetry

question

Breast cancer prevelance in women

answer

Breast cancer in up to 11% of women; 1-8 women; 80% of cases occur after 50 y/o; leading cause of cancer death in women

question

Modifable RFs for Breast Cancer

answer

breastfeeding < 1 yr., postmenopausal obesity, use of HRT, cigarette smoking, alcohol ingestion, physical inactivity, contraception type.

question

Grading of murmurs

answer

Grade 1 - very faint, heard only after listener has "tuned in"; may not be heard in all positions Grade 2 - quiet, but heard immediately after placing the stethoscope on the chest Grade 3 - moderately loud Grade 4 - loud, with palpable thrill Grade 5 - Very loud, with thrill. May be heard with the stethoscope is partly off the chest Grade 6 - very loud, with thrill. May be heard with stethoscope entirely off the chest

question

Where to auscultate aortic, pulmonic, tricuspid, mitral/apex valves

answer

Aortic: Rt 2nd ICS Pulmonic: Lt 2nd ICS Tricuspid: Lower Lt sternal border, 4th ICS Mitral/Apex: Lt 5th ICS, medial to midclavicular line

question

When to use diaphragm and bell for unique sounds

answer

Diaphragm=high pitch sounds (aortic regurgitation, S1, S2, murmurs) Bell=low pitch sounds (mitral stenosis, bruits)

question

Cardiovascular risk factors

answer

family hx, cigarette smoking, poor diet, physical inactivity, obesity, HTN, dyslipidemia, DM, pulse/high HR

question

Screening for cardiovascular risk factors

answer

Begin routine screening at 20 y/o for individuals with RFs for CVD

question

Criteria for DM

answer

Any one of the following: 1)HbA1c of 6.5% or higher 2)Fasting blood glucose of 126 mg/dL or higher 3)2 hour plasma glucose level of 200 mg/dL 4)Random plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or higher with symptoms of hyperglycemia

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Abnormal pulse: Paradoxical pulse

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Greater than normal drop in systolic BP during inspiration. Can check with cuff at systolic level (normal variant is 3-4 mmHg) if higher then be suspect and check closely

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Abnormal pulse: Carotid artery thrills and bruits

answer

detection of vibrations or thrills (cat purring) during palpation. Bruits can be detected thru auscultation of the carotid arteries- murmur like turbulent sound (Best if pt stops breathing for 15 seconds, listen with diaphragm and repeat with bell. Place at upper end of thyroid cartilage below angle of jaw)

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Special population at risk for CVD

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-Women and African Americans -Women's leading cause of death is CVD -AA men and women show marked ethnic disparities against white pops in US -Smokers

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What is JVP

answer

Jugular Venous Pressure: reflects right arterial pressure (central venous pressure) and right ventricular end diastolic pressure JVP is estimated from right internal jugular vein; We see a wave prior to S1 when right atrium contracts and again during sytole when blood enters from the vena cava(Pt should be around 30 degrees elevated, supine)

question

Two cardiac maneuvers and what you are listening for during cardiac exam

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Left lateral decubitus: use bell at PMI to listen for mitral stenosis Aortic regurgitation: pt leans fwd, use diaphragm, exhale fully, stop breathing, left sternal border and apex

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Peripheral vascular- grading of pulse

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3+ = bounding pulse 2+ = brisk, expected, normal 1+ = diminished, weaker than expected 0 = absent, unable to palpate

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Peripheral artery disease

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-stenotic, occlusive and aneurysmal disease of abdominal aorta/mesenteric/renal branches, and arteries of lower extremities -Pain can arise from skin, musculoskeletal or nervous system -Note skin changes to lower extremities and report of claudication symptoms (with activity) -Risk of death from MI/stroke triples in adults with PAD -ABI(ankle-brachial index) can be used to diagnose PAD

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Warning signs/symptoms of PAD

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-Fatigue, aching, numbness or pain that limits walking or exertion in the legs; if present, identify the location. Ask also about erectile dysfunction -Any poor healing or nonhealing wounds of the legs or feet -Any pain present when at rest in the lower leg or foot and changes when standing or supine -Abdominal pain after meals and associated "food fear" and weight loss -Any first-degree relatives with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

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PAD RFs

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> 65 y/o > 50 y/o with hx of diabetes or smoking Leg symptoms with exertion Nonhealing wounds

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What is edema? What is pitting edema?

answer

accumulation of excessive fluid in extra vascular interstitial space; pitting= Pressing thumb firmly for 2 seconds over the: dorsum of each foot and behind each medial malleolus and over the shins Pitting - a depression caused pressure from your thumb

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Venous tenderness or cords in calf

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can accompany DVT

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Anatomy of groin

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ALLEN TEST BUERGER TEST VERICOSE VEINS VENOUS VALVES

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ALLEN TEST - compares patency of ulnar & radial arteries BUERGER TEST - looks for arterial insufficiency by looking at postural color changes. VERICOSE VEINS - test for mapping by compression VENOUS VALVES - trendelenberg test

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Know the artery layers and its unique qualities

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Intima - single continuous lining of endothelial cells with remarkable metabolic properties (innermost) Media - smooth muscle cells, dilate and constrict to accommodate BP and flow Adventitia - connective tissue with nerve fibers and vasa vasorum (outermost) Atherosclerosis (not a layer) - chronic inflammatory disease initiated by injury to vascular endothelial cells, promoting atheroma plaque formation and vascular lesions of hypertension

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Layers of the veins

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Intima - nonthrombogenic Media - rings of elastic tissue and smooth muscle Externa - connective tissue Leg veins have weaker structures - susceptible to irregular dilation, compression, ulceration, and tumor invasion

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PAD etiology

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Approximately 8 million ppl or 6-12% of pop (>40 y/o) affected; Silent in nearly 50%; Risk of death from MI/CVA triples in adults with PAD

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Definitions of different uterine bleeding

answer

Menarche—age at onset of menses Dysmenorrhea—pain with menses, often with bearing down, aching, or cramping sensation in the lower abdomen or pelvis Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)—a cluster of emotional, behavioral, and physical symptoms occurring 5 days before menses for three consecutive cycles Amenorrhea—absence of menses Abnormal uterine bleeding—bleeding between menses; includes infrequent, excessive, prolonged, or postmenopausal bleeding Menopause—absence of menses for 12 consecutive months, usually occurring between ages 48 and 55 years Postmenopausal bleeding—bleeding occurring 6 months or more after cessation of menses

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Abnormal Bleeding patterns: Polymenorrhea Oligomenorrhea Menorrhagia Metrorrhagia Postcoital bleeding

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Polymenorrhea - less than 21-day intervals between menses Oligomenorrhea - infrequent bleeding Menorrhagia - excessive flow Metrorrhagia - or intermenstrual bleeding Postcoital bleeding-bleeding after sex

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Male exam: What do the structures feel like?

answer

Epididymis-light pressure, feels cordlike and minimally nodular Spermatic cord/vas deferens-feels stiff and tubular Prostate-rubbery and nontender with no evidence of fixity in surrounding tissue

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Risk factors for testicular cancer

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-most common solid cancer of young men btwn ages 15-34 -history of carcinoma in the contralateral testicle, mumps, orchitis, inguinal hernia, hydrocele as child, positive family hx

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Know clock on women exam

answer

-think of woman's breast as the face of a clock starting at 12 noon and moving towards 1 o'clock. Continue around the entire circle until you reach 12 noon again. We can use clock to determine locations of masses, nodes, lumps, etc. Also don't forget tail of spence!

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Cardiac output

answer

the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute CO=HRxSV Normally 5-6 liters/min at rest

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What is important to remember when taking a sexual health history

answer

be sure to maintain a neutral, nonjudgmental tone so that your patients feel safe and trust you with their concerns

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Most prevelant HPV types

answer

HPV 16 and 18 (70%)

STUDY

Biology Brca1 And Brca2 Pathology Red Green Color Blindness

Genetics 5 – Cancer Genetics – Flashcards 60 terms

Tiffany Hanchett

60 terms

Preview

Genetics 5 – Cancer Genetics – Flashcards

question

3 Types of Cancer Genes

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1.) Oncogenes 2.) Tumor Suppressor Genes 3.) DNA Repair/Cell Cycle Genes

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Cancer

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Cancer is a disease of the genome. There are 3 different types of genes that are important in the development of cancer: oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes and DNA repair/cell cycle genes. - All "cancer" genes have a function in the normal cell. It is only after activation or inactivation by mutation that the gene promotes development of cancer.

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Cancer: Inherited vs Somatic Mutations

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Both can be important *Somatic mutations*: ast majority of genetic mutations that cause cancer occur in somatic cells and are not inherited *Inherited mutations*: produce families with a high incidence of specific cancers. - However, many of the genes in which mutations cause familial cancer syndromes are also mutated somatically in tumors from non-familial cases!

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Retrovirus Lifecycle

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1.) Retroviruses contain a single RNA strand, copied into DNA by virus-encoded reverse transcriptase (RT) 2.) DNA then integrates into host genome, where it is transcribed by cellular RNA polymerases 3.) Some of the RNA is translated into host proteins, of which there are 3 major genes encoding polypeptides: - *pol - the RT* (which also has integrase activity) - *gag* - forming the *retroviral core* - *env* - the *envelope protein* responsible for host tropism ("Polly Gags with Envy of your Retro style") 4.) The proteins and RNA then assemble into virus particles Sometimes an adjacent gene from host genome is transduced into viral genome; RT tends to mutate these host genes when it gets picked up

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Weinberg Transformation Assay

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Found that the same genes that could be oncogenic in animal retroviruses had also undergone mutation in human tumors. Cancer cells cultured in vitro demonstrate a "transformed" phenotype, exhibiting malignant properties e.g. lack of growth inhibition. Normal cells can also undergo cellular transformation in vitro; clones of cells behaving as such will demonstrate foci in which they pile up on one another - Weinberg extracted DNA from human tumor and "transfected" it into mouse fibroblasts. He found that human gene from the tumor responsible for the focus-forming activity in mouse cells was a mutated version of a gene, Ras, first identified in a retrovirus causing sarcoma in rats Established that it was the oncogenes, rather than any cellular response to the virus, that was leading to cancer

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Proto-Oncogene

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Genes whose normal function is to promote cell growth and proliferation -Proto-oncogenes become oncogenes when mutated or amplified, allowing for unregulated cell growth and differentiation ("Oncogenes call for an On-core/encore")

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Oncogene

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Oncogenes are *dominant*: mutation of only one copy is required to begin the process toward tumor progression. Oncogenes may be activated by any one of several mutational mechanism: - Gene amplification - Activating point mutations - Chromosome rearrangements resulting in upregulation of gene expression - Hypomethylation of the promoter, again allowing increased gene expression *Germline mutations in proto-oncogenes are rare*. Mutations in RET can cause MEN2.

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Some Oncogenes

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A number of oncogenes are now known. Their viral and mutated cellular versions are strongly associated with cancer. (For the viral versions, it is animal cancer, not cancer in humans.) - Src - ErbB - ErbA - Ras - Sis - Fos - Jun - Myc

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Activation of Proto-Oncogenes by Mutations

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*Point Mutation* - RAS missense mutation - Codon 12 or 61 *Translocations* - 9:22 CML Ph chromosomes: Bcr-Abl fusion Protein - 8:14 Burkitt Lymphoma; C-MYC translocated to IgH promoter *Gene Amplification*: - Breast Cancer HER2

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Gain of Function Mutations in RET Proto-Oncogene Cause Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2 (MEN2)

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Proto-oncogenes rarely undergo germline mutation and consequently do not cause heritable cancer syndromes - there are some rare exceptions *RET proto-oncogene*: Germline, heritable RET mutations cause multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2), which predisposes to medullary thyroid carcinoma, parathyroid tumors, and pheochromocytoma

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MEN1

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MEN1, by contrast, is a hereditary syndrome predisposing to a different spectrum of tumors (pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreatic islet) and is caused by mutations in a different gene (a tumor suppressor gene, MENIN).

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Summary of Oncogenes (lecture summary)

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- Identified as transforming genes of retroviruses. - An *activated* form of a cellular gene (*proto-oncogene*). - *Dominant* at cellular level, means only one allele need be mutated. - Mutations are *somatic and never inherited* (an exception being RET). - Retroviruses cause cancer in animals, but not a significant cause of cancer in humans. - Distinct from DNA tumor viruses (i.e. Human Papilloma Virus), in that the transforming oncogene lacks a cellular ortholog, whereas DNA tumor viruses usually have evolved an oncogene entirely of their own (usually called a "T-antigen").

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Tumor Suppressor Genes

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Normal function of tumor suppressor genes is usually to regulate cell division and cell growth, thereby preventing tumor formation - Mutations in tumor suppressor genes are *inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion*. However, the *development of a tumor requires a 2nd (recessive) hit in the cell that goes on to become a tumor* - Mutations in tumor suppressor genes are *loss of function mutations*, as opposed to mutation in *proto-oncogenes, which are gain-of-function mutations*.

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Tumor Suppressor Genes: Examples

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Rb, BRCA1, BRCA2, p53, NF1, APC Germline mutations cause susceptibility to specific cancers depending on which gene is mutated

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Loss of Heterozygosity (LOH)

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Refers to "loss" of the normal allele once the first one is mutated - originally coined because of the observation that one allele was truly lost (by deletion, for example), leaving only the mutant copy. - Today, we know that the 2nd hit does not have to be deletion, but can be a loss-of-function mutation in the 2nd copy, hypermethylation, etc.

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Retinoblastoma (Rb) - Review Sheet

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Prototypic tumor suppressor gene; led to the "Two-Hit Hypothesis" - early-onset RB tends to be bilateral and have a family history (~40% of cases) - remaining 60% of cases were later onset, unilateral and w/out a family history In *familial cases, the first hit is already present in every single cell* - therefore only one acquired hit (in ANY cell) is required for development of disease. If there is no inherited "first hit", then a given cell must acquire the first hit and then the second hit.

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Two-Hit Hypothesis

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Requirement that both copies of a tumor suppressor gene must be inactivated in order for disease to occur - In familial cases, the first hit is already present in every single cell - therefore only one acquired hit (in ANY cell) is required for development of disease. - If there is no inherited "first hit", then a given cell must acquire the first hit and then the second hit.

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Retinoblastoma - Lecture

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A predominately *pediatric* form of cancer - Retinoblastoma arises from fetal retinoblasts that normally differentiate into post-mitotic retinal photoreceptor cells and neurons and can actually be congenital in onset (i.e. a cancer occurring even at birth)

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Leukocoria

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Seen in *Retinoblastoma* If there's an opacity, such as a tumor or a cataract, blocking the return of light somewhere between the reflective surface of the retina and the cornea, it will show up as the absence of the "red reflex"—leukocoria

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Retionoblastoma - Associated Tumors

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Other tumors associated w/ hereditary retinoblastoma, including: - tumors of the pineal gland of the brain (so-called "trilateral" retinoblastoma) - osteosarcoma of bone In hereditary cases, there can frequently be more than one primary tumor per eye. Orbital irradiation is a form of therapy for the treatment of ocular retinoblastoma. There are case reports where stray radiation induced periorbital osteosarcomas in patients with retinoblastoma.

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Hereditary vs. Sporadic Retinoblastoma

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If *bilateral*, then proportion of *affected offspring ≈ 50% (autosomal dominant* inheritance) ⇒ *HEREDITARY* If *unilateral*, a family history is found in only ≈ 15-20%. So most unilateral tumors are *SPORADIC* 2 Hits for Unilateral Cases & 1 Hit for Bilateral Cases

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RB Gene and Its Protein

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~40% of all cases of retinoblastoma have germline inheritance of RB mutations - DNA-binding *transcriptional repressor* - Interacts with other cell cycle regulators - Regulated by phosphorylation - Somatically mutated in other types of cancer (breast, prostate, CML) that are not associated with retinoblastoma

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Rb: How come a family history is still found in a minority of unilateral cases?

answer

The probability of a second hit occurring is not certain, because it's still a random event, so there are some patients with germline mutations (as known by family history in parents and children or via genetic testing of non-tumor 'constitutional' tissues, such as blood) who only develop one tumor or sometimes escape cancer altogether. *Most familial forms of cancer caused by mutations in tumor suppressor genes therefore do not have complete penetrance*.

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Rb: Fairly often the case is bilateral and there is a family history in children of the cases; however the parents are not affected. Why?

answer

*80% of germline cases are new ("de novo") mutations*. This is not surprising. There is *reduced genetic "fitness" because the disease can be lethal*. It is reasonable to expect the incidence of a genetic disease to be constant over time. Consequently, the mutant alleles that are lost because the individuals who have them do not reproduce should be compensated for by new mutations.

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RB - the *Prototypical "Tumor Suppressor (TS) Gene"*

answer

1.) *TS genes are inherited with autosomal dominant genetics* but *act recessively at the cellular level* 2.) In familial cases, the first hit is inherited and the second hit is somatic. In sporadic cases where the same TS gene is involved, both hits are somatic. 3.) Consequently, cancer is much more likely with hereditary predisposition, and these are its hallmarks: - Earlier age of onset - Multiple primaries (i.e. bilateral involvement). 4.) TS genes are often somatically mutated in many types of cancer, even those that are not encountered in individuals with germline mutations in the gene (i.e. RB mutations in breast cancer, prostate cancer, and CML—which are not associated with hereditary retinoblastoma).

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p53

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Protein is called p53, human gene is TP53 (chrom 17p13) Identified as a target of SV40 T-antigen - SV40 is a DNA tumor virus in animals, probably not harmful to humans; discovered as a contaminant in polio vaccine - SV40 T-antigen "transforms" cells by binding and inactivating p53 "Guardian of the Genome" - *p53 detects DNA damage and either temporarily halts cell cycle so that DNA repair can proceed or initiates apoptotic cell death* ("*P*53 *P*uts a stop to the cell") In addition to its effects on cell growth, *loss of p53 leads to somatic chromosomal abnormalities*

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Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

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Very rare cancer predisposition syndrome in which individuals are at high risk for many types of cancer - Caused by germline mutations in *TP53 or CHK2* ("you might want to sToP and CHecK to see if you have too (frau)Many tumors") - Autosomal dominant inheritance with dependence on somatic 2nd hit. Multiple malignancies: - Breast cancer - Sarcoma - Brain tumors - Leukemia - Adrenocortical carcinoma - Other tumors. Incidence 2×10-5 (rare). Genetic heterogeneity - mutations in *CHK2* cause similar phenotype. CHK2 regulates p53 action.

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Neurofibromatosis (NF1)

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Autosomal Domonant; Incidence 3×10-4 (not uncommon) - Benign neurofibroma, occasional malignant neurofibrosarcoma, schwanoma, glioma, pheochromocytoma, and certain types of leukemia - "café-au-lait" skin lesions; axillary/inguinal freckling - NF1 encodes neurofibromin (17q11), a GAP (GTPase-activating protein) that down-regulates RAS.

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Why are the lesions of NF1 punctate? - In other words, how come the skin is not uniformly dark (as opposed to discrete "macules") and why are the neurofibromas scattered in their distribution?

answer

The punctate nature of the lesions (café-au-lait spots and neurofibromas) are visual evidence of the two-hit hypothesis. Loss of function of one allele of NF1 ("haploinsufficiency") appears to have no effect on the cell. It is only when there is bi-allelic loss of both copies of NF1 (the germline loss plus the acquired, somatic second-hit) that cell growth is disturbed in a way that promotes tumorigenesis. Whether the cell without NF1 activity develops into a café-au-lait spot versus a neurofibroma or another type of tumor probably depends upon both the cell of origin that received the second mutation and additional somatic mutations occurring in other genes that also further contribute to tumor growth and oncogenesis.

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Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

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Autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the APC gene - Accounts for ~1% of all cases of colon cancer *APC (5q21)* cytoplasmic protein that interacts with *β-catenin in Wnt signaling* pathway - First hit is germline. Second hit is somatic. - Loss of APC causes *adenoma formation*, then additional mutations (RAS, TP53, SMAD4) transform into full-blown *malignancy* - APC also mutated in sporadic colon adenocarcinoma

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Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP): Clinical Features and Treatment

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Clinical: Polyps begin forming in first decade of life and pts usually have thousands of polyps by late teenage or early adult years Treatment: Prophylactic colectomy in early adult years to avoid inevitable development of adenocarcinoma is the only effective treatment

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I1307K mutation (KNOW)

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present in ~7% of the Ashkenazi Jewish population, increases risk of developing colon cancer but does not cause FAP

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Gardner Syndrome (Extra-Colonic Manifestations of FAP)

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Even in the era of diagnostic sequencing of the genome, the physical exam remains important. What was at one time called "Gardner Syndrome" represents some of the extra-colonic manifestation of FAP.

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DNA Repair Genes

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2 types of DNA repair genes that are important in the development of cancer: - genes involved directly in *DNA repair* - genes involved in *sensing DNA damage and halting the cell cycle* so that repair can occur

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Autosomal recessive disorders involving DNA repair gene

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- Ataxia Telangiectasia - Fanconi Anemia - Xeroderma Pigmentosum

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Autosomal Dominant disorders involving DNA repair gene

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Heriditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)

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DNA Mismatch Repair Genes

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Highly conserved from E. coli through yeast to humans. - Somatic mutations of mismatch repair genes appears important in sporadic cases, because genomic instability of repeated sequences is also noted in many non-familial cases. - A mutation in a DNA repair gene could lead to a *cascade of mutations in many other genes (due to inability to repair mutations)*, including tumor suppressor and proto-oncogenes.

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Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC, aka "Lynch Syndrome")

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Predisposition/susceptibility to *numerous cancers, esp of the colon, as well as other GI tract cancers, endometrial cancer and ovarian cancer* - *Autosomal Dominant* - Accounts for ~3-5% of all colon cancer - Tumors exhibit *"microsatellite instability,"* a phenomenon due to *defective mismatch repair* - Genomic instability of repeated sequences had been noted in tumors from pts in HNPCC families. Pattern of instability reminiscent of phenotype in yeast with deficiency in DNA mismatch repair.

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Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC, aka "Lynch Syndrome"): Immunohistochemistry (On Review Sheet!)

answer

Immunohistochemistry of the tumor can help direct genetic testing in a pt suspected to have HNPCC - That is, *antibody staining for MLH1, MSH2*, etc. may reveal that *one of the proteins is absent (no staining)* - This is likely because there have been 2 hits - the first germline and the second somatic - and this would be the first gene to test.

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Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC, aka "Lynch Syndrome"): POLYPS (lecture)

answer

A confusing aspect of the name is that it is called "nonpolyposis". Nevertheless, the colon cancers typically do start as benign adenomatous polyps, and individuals with Lynch syndrome probably do have more than their fare share of colon polyps. (And, consequently, endoscopic surveillance screening is hugely important for Lynch syndrome, as removing polyps before they have had a chance to mature into a malignant tumor greatly reduces cancer.) Rather, here, the "nonpolyposis" designation is meant to distinguish Lynch syndrome from FAP, where polyps are found by the boatload.

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Somatic Instability in Lynch Syndrome: Microsatellite Instability (Lecture)

answer

Analysis of repetitive DNA sequences (so-called "microsatellite" sequences, containing di-, tri-, or tetra- repeats) upon gel electrophoresis. - The markers themselves showed that they had undergone *heterogeneous mutations leading to gain and loss of a small integral number of repeats * - These patterns were reminiscent of what was known from certain mutants of E. coli that were defective in DNA "mismatch" repair, and the investigators working on this disorder consequently examined the human orthologs of those genes as candidates - Evaluating for microsatellite instability in tumor samples still retains diagnostic utility, as it *can indicate that the individual may have Lynch syndrome and that screening for tumors at other locations may be necessary*

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Mismatch Repair Genes in HNPCC (Lecture)

answer

- MSH2 - MSH6 - MLH1 - PMS2 (MySHitty PMS Makes me Lynch Him)

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Schematic of DNA Damage Recognized by the Mismatch Repair (MMR) Pathway

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The protein products of the different genes responsible for Lynch syndrome work together in a complex that recognizes and repairs DNA base mismatches.

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Different types of cancer can occur in different people from the same family with Lynch Syndrome - Why?

answer

First of all, even though we are talking about Lynch syndrome as an example of a DNA repair deficiency syndrome (the third type of cancer gene in our categorization scheme) it can also be thought of as a tumor suppressor gene syndrome. That is, *both copies of the DNA mismatch repair gene* (whether it be MLH1, MSH2, or one of the other genes that can cause Lynch syndrome) *must become mutated* (the first hit inherited through the germline and the second hit occurring somatically). These genes are expressed in many tissues and contribute to DNA repair in many tissues. In and of themselves, the *mutations in the mismatch repair genes are not oncogenic, but rather they lead to subsequent somatic mutations in other tumor suppressor or proto-oncogenes that have a direct role in regulating cell growth.*

question

Fanconi Anemia (not on disease list!)

answer

A genetically heterogeneous disorder, w/ at least 13 known genes including BRCA2. The disorder is characterized by short stature, radial ray defects, developmental delay and pigmentation defects. Affected pts also have increased risk of leukemia and solid tumors. - Autosomal Recessive (or rarely sex-linked recessive disorder) - Short stature, radial ray limb defects, abnormal pigmentation, developmental delay. - Bone marrow failure. - Increased risk of leukemia and solid tumors (developing at an average age of 23yo).

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Chromosomal Breakage in Fanconi Anemia

answer

*Breakage Study*: Diagnosis rests on the formation of chromosomal aberrations in cultured cells after treatment with a DNA interstrand crosslinking agent.

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Characteristics of the 13 Genes in Fanconi's Anemia (Lecture)

answer

Extreme locus heterogeneity - 12 of the genes are autosomal 1 is on the *X-chromosome*: it is a recessive disorder and is inherited w/ either, most commonly, autosomal recessive or, much less often, sex-linked recessive transmission, respectively - In general, there are no "compound heterozygotes", in that both alleles must be from the same gene - It does not follow a tumor suppressor 2-hit paradigm. (recessive disorder and both alleles mutated in germline (when autosomal recessive)!) Nevertheless, there are still multiple secondary hits in other genes that become mutated consequent to loss of DNA repair activity from the Fanconi DNA repair complex.

question

Fanconi's Anemia and BRCA2

answer

"One of the genes responsible for Fanconia anemia, when you have it in the homozygous state if you are a heterozygous carrier for it you have inherited breast and ovarian cancer syndrom (BRCA2/FANCD1)"

question

Ubquitination

answer

Post-translational modification of protein in which a small polypeptide is ligated to proteins, typically in a oligomeric form, and typically marks them for degradation in the proteasome.

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The DNA-Repair Pathway in Fanconi's Anemia

answer

All the different FA gene products participate in a common pathway involved in the *recognition and repair of DNA damage*. - An important event in this pathway is the mono-ubiquitination of BRCA2 (FANCD2). - A new clinical test for diagnosis of FA, which complements karyotypes assessing for chromosomal damage in response to DNA interstrand cross-linking agents, is based on *absent mono-ubiquitination of BRCA2*.

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Hereditary Breast-Ovarian Cancer Syndrome

answer

AD inheritance of either *breast and/or ovarian* cancer in the *same or different individuals* in a family. - Breast/ovarian cancer tend to *occur earlier* and often *recur* or are *bilateral* (as with other TS gene syndromes). - Also associated with *male breast cancer, prostate cancer, and pancreatic cancer*. - Mixture of ancestral and "private" alleles ~2% of *Ashkenazi Jews* heterozygous for 3 ancestral alleles (2 for BRCA1 and 1 for BRCA2).

question

Hereditary Breast-Ovarian Cancer Syndrome: Genes

answer

2 Genes: BRCA1 and BRCA2, both involved in *DNA repair*. - For the most part, follows 2-hit paradigm and BRCA1 and BRCA2 behave as TS genes. - Lifetime penetrance for breast cancer is ~80%, for ovarian cancer ~25-50%.

question

BRCA2: Homozygous vs Heterozygous

answer

*Heterozygous BRCA2 mutations*: causes *autosomal dominant hereditary breast-ovarian cancer syndrome* (which is also caused by mutations in BRCA1). *Homozygous BRCA2 mutations*: cause *Fanconi anemia*! The same mutant BRCA2 alleles can cause either hereditary breast-ovarian cancer syndrome or Fanconi anemia depending upon whether they are present or heterozygously, respectively.

question

Next-Generation DNA Sequencing Gene Panels

answer

Many genes are associated w/a variety of inherited cancer predisposition syndromes; some primarily associated w/ a specific type of cancer, others more generally predisposed to cancer in tissues throughout the body. Some disorders have additional features, not obviously connected to cancer predisposition (e.g., macrocephaly in Cowden syndrome due to PTEN mutations). - Increasingly, genetic testing employs *large, multigene panels that use 'next-generation' DNA sequencing technologies to rapidly screen large numbers of genes*. One such panel known as the 'BROCA' panel

question

Common Variants

answer

Several distinguishing features: - common in the general population - as a rule, tend to not be as harmful - 'penetrance' is low - In contrast, genuine 'Mendelian' mutations tend to be highly penetrant. Common variants are often outside of a coding region of a gene, where they may influence gene expression.

question

Common Variants and Cancer Risk

answer

Common Variants Also Contribute to Cancer Predisposition: - Some 'common' variants are also associated w/ cancer risk, in this case, an intronic regulatory polymorphism in the RAD51B DNA repair gene, for which I happen to be homozygous.

question

What's the difference between cancer predisposition resulting from a so-called common variant and a Mendelian-form of cancer?

answer

Have several distinguishing features. First of all, they are common in the general population, whereas what we think of as single-gene mutations responsible for cancer predisposition tend to be rare and unique to a family (or else somewhat more common in a particular population due to a 'founder effect'). - Common variants, as a rule, tend to not be as harmful, and their 'penetrance' is low. Perhaps if they were, they would be selected against and might not rise to such a high level in the population. And under other circumstances, they may have even been beneficial, contributing to their selection within a population. - In contrast, genuine 'Mendelian' mutations tend to be highly penetrant. Common variants are often outside of a coding region of a gene, where they may influence gene expression. - In contrast, the mutations responsible for highly-penetrant single-gene disorders tend to be within coding sequences and have major effects disrupting the function of an encoded protein. Because common variants have low penetrance, it may not be obvious that they run in a family, whereas a highly penetrant, autosomal-dominant cancer predisposition syndrome is more likely to show the signature multigenerational pattern of inheritance. Because of the difference in penetrance, different approaches to gene discovery are required. For highly penetrant single-gene disorders, it is possible to track inheritance within a family based on phenotype and thereby identify the causative gene via genetic linkage (in the past) or genomic/exomic sequencing (modern era). In contrast, for common variants, a population level approach, employing genetic association (i.e., GWAS (genome-wide association study)) is usually required.

question

Are common variants inherited in a Mendelian fashion?

answer

Yes, of course, the rules of Mendelian inheritance apply to all nuclear genes.

question

A patient comes to you with questions regarding a 23andMe testing result for a common variant; what are some things to keep in mind?

answer

In sum, take it with a grain of salt. First of all, many GWAS variants have not been validated in confirmatory studies, suggesting that they could represent publication bias (though 23andMe does a reasonably good job of indicating how robust the data are). Second, variants identified through association studies are highly population dependent, because the common variant arises on a particular ancestral haplotype (extended chromosomal region from a common ancestor). Consequently, the particular variant is not necessarily causal by itself, but may merely just 'tag' a haplotype containing other variants that by themselves, or collectively, influence disease risk. As a result, *different populations will have different haplotypes* (and different linked variants) associated with this variant. *GWAS results tend only to be applicable to the same population in which the study was performed*. They are particularly *difficult to interpret in people who have multiracial ancestry*. In most cases, the disease risk conferred by a common variant is much less than is the case for a mutation in a highly-penetrant gene responsible for a Mendelian cancer predisposition syndrome. Finally, *common variants tend to act additively*, and it is the sum of these weakly acting risk factors that influence disease predisposition. So a single higher risk variant may be counter-balanced by a combination of lower-risk variants. And, depending upon the strength of their effects, not all of these risks may have yet been discovered.

question

Xeroderma Pigmentosum (not on disease list!)

answer

Also genetically heterogeneous - Characterized by extreme sun sensitivity and high risk of developing skin cancer - The DNA repair defect in XP results in an inability to repair UV-induced thymine dimers by the excision repair pathway.

STUDY

Anatomy Brca1 And Brca2 Breast Self Examination Ethnic Minority Groups Family History Of Breast Cancer Human Anatomy And Physiology 1 Masters And Johnson Sexology

Human Sexuality Chapter 3 – Flashcards 104 terms

Marguerite Castillo

104 terms

Preview

Human Sexuality Chapter 3 – Flashcards

question

Sex Organ

answer

The Clitoris. Woman are the only ones that possess a sex organ that is solely devoted to pleasurable sensations.

question

Pudenda / Vulva

answer

The external sexual structures of the female.

question

Vulva / Pudenda

answer

The external sexual structures of the female.

question

Mons Veneris

answer

A mound of fatty tissue that covers the joint of the pubic bones in the front of the body, below the abdomen and above the clitoris. It also cushions a woman's body during sexual intercourse.

question

Labia Majora

answer

Large folds of skin that run downward from the mons along the sides of the vulva. It shields the inner female genitals.

question

Lavia Minora

answer

Hairless, light-colored membranes, located between the labia majora. They surround the urethral and vaginal openings. When stimulated, they darken and swell, engorging with blood.

question

Clitoris

answer

A female sex organ consisting of a shaft and glans located above the urethral opening. It is extremely sensitive to sexual sensations.

question

Corpora Cavernosa

answer

Masses of spongy tissue in the clitoral shaft that become engorged with blood and stiffen in response to sexual stimulation.

question

Prepuce

answer

The fold of skin covering the glans of the clitoris. (or penis) Also called "hood".

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Homologous

answer

Similar in structure; developing from the same embryonic tissue. The clitoris and penis are similar because they are developed from the same embryonic tissue.

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Analogous

answer

Similar in function

question

Clitoridectomy

answer

Surgical removal of the clitoris. This is a common in Muslims in the Near East and Africa, It is considered a "rite of passage" to womanhood.

question

Vestibule

answer

The area in the labia minora that contains the openings to the vagina and the urethra.

question

Clitoral Glans

answer

A smooth, round knob or lump of tissue above the urethral opening. It is highly sensitive to the touch because of the rich supply of nerve endings.

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Koran

answer

Islamic Bible ( no support for Clitoral Mutilation found in the Koran)

question

Excision

answer

A more radical form of clitoridectomy. It is the removal of the clitoris along with the labia minora and labia majora. Only a tiny opening is left to allow passage of urine and menstrual discharge. The sewing together of the vulva is intended to ensure chastity until marriage. After marriage the opening is enlarges to permit intercourse.

question

Urethral Opening

answer

The opening through which urine passes from the female's body. It is connected to the bladder by a short tube called urethra. The urethral opening, urethra and bladder are unrelated to the reproductive system.

question

Urinary Tract

answer

Includes the urethra, bladder and kidneys.

question

Cystitis

answer

An inflammation of the urinary bladder. Symptoms include: burning and frequent urination, pus or bloody discharge and discomfort about the pubic bone. If left untreated it can lead to kidney infection.

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Urinary Urgency

answer

Frequent urination

question

Honeymoon Cystitis

answer

Caused by the tugging on the bladder and urethral wall that occurs during vaginal intercourse. It may occur after having sex for the first time or after not having sex for awhile.

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Introitus

answer

The vaginal opening

question

Hymen

answer

A fold of tissue across the vaginal opening that is usually present at birth and remains at least partly intact until a woman engages in sex. (Coitus) Also named "maidenhead". Only found in female horses and humans. Doesn't serve a biological function.

question

Hymenoplasty

answer

Muslim woman in Europe have this operation prior to marriage. It restores the hymen to provide the illusion of virginity on their wedding night.

question

Parous

answer

Means passed through

question

Imperforate

answer

Thick tissue that is closed. Some women with have to have surgery if menstrual discharge starts to build up because of this.

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Perineum

answer

the skin and underlying tissue that lies between the vaginal opening and the anus.

question

Episiotomy

answer

A routine perineal incision made during labor to help facilitate childbirth.

question

Crura

answer

Anatomical structures wing-shaped,leg-like structures that attach the clitoris to the pubic bone. It contains corpora cavernosa which engorge with blood and stiffen during sex.

question

Vestibular Bulbs

answer

Cavernous structures that extend downward along the sides of the introitus and swell during sexual arousal. Swells the vulva and lengthening the vagina.

question

Bartholin's Glands

answer

Glands that lie just inside the minor lips and secrete fluid just before orgasm.

question

Internal Sex Organs

answer

Innermost parts of the vagina, cervix, the uterus and two ovaries, each connected to the uterus by a fallopian tube.

question

Vagina

answer

The tubular female sex organ that contains the penis during sexual intercourse and through which a baby is born. Usually 3-5 inches at rest.

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Douche

answer

Application of a jet of liquid to the vagina as a rinse.

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Vaginitis

answer

Vaginal inflammation.

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Cervix

answer

The lower end of the uterus.

question

answer

The opening in the middle if the cervix.

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Pap Test

answer

A test of a sample of cervical cells that screens for cervical cancer and other abnormalities.

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Radiotherapy

answer

Treatment of a disease by X-rays or by emissions from a radioactive substance.

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Uterus / Womb

answer

The hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ in which a fertilized ovum implants and develops until birth.

question

Fundus

answer

The uppermost part of the uterus.

question

Endometrium

answer

Th innermost layer of the uterus,

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Endometriosis

answer

A condition caused by the growth of endometial tissue in the abdominal cavity or elsewhere outside the uterus and characterized by menstrual pain.

question

Myometrium

answer

The middle, well-muscled layer of the uterus. It endows the uterus with flexibility and strength and creates the powerful contractions the propel a fetus outward during labor.

question

Perimetrium

answer

The outer layer of the uterus. Provides and external cover.

question

Fallopian Tubes

answer

Tubes that extend from the upper uterus toward the ovaries and conduct ova to the uterus. Are about 4 inches in length and extend from the upper end of the uterus toward to ovaries.

question

Ectopic Pregnancy

answer

A pregnancy in which the fertilized ovum implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. They can eventually burst fallopian tubes, causing hemorrhaging and death. These pregnancies are terminated before the tube ruptures.

question

Endometrial Cancer

answer

Cancer of the endometrial lining. Symptoms are abnormal uterine staining or bleeding, especially after menopause. Surgery is the most common treatment.

question

Isthmus

answer

The part of the fallopian tubes that is closest to the uterus, which broadens into the ampulla as it approaches the ovary.

question

Infundibulum

answer

The outer part of the fallopian tubes. Fertilization usually occurs here within a couple of inches of the ovaries.

question

Fimbriae

answer

The fallopian tube fringelike projections that extend toward, but is are not attached to the Ovary.

question

Cilia

answer

Hairlike projections that line the fallopian that help propel ova through the tube at about 1 inch per day.

question

Tubal Ligation

answer

A form of sterilization where the fallopian tubes are tied off so that ova cannot pass through the or become fertilized.

question

Ectopic Pregnancy Signs

answer

Missed menstrual period Abdominal pain Irregular bleeding

question

Ovaries

answer

Almond shaped organs that produce ova and the female sex hormones estrogen and progesterone. They are each about 1 1/2 inches long.

question

Estrogen

answer

Generic term for several female sex hormones or synthetic compounds that promote the development of female sex charactristics and regulate the menstrual cycle. (Estradiol, estriol amd estrone.) Helps older women maintain cognitive functioning and psychological well being.

question

Progesterone

answer

A steroid hormone secreted by the corpus luteum or prepared synthetically that stimulates the developement of the endometrium (uterine lining) to prepare for pregnancy and is involved in regulation of the menstrual cycle.

question

Ova

answer

A female is born with all the ova she will ever have (about million), they are in an immature form. Of these, about 400,000 survive into puberty each of which are contained in the ovary with a follicle. From puberty to menopause only 400 or so ripened ova, typically 1 per month will be released by their follicles for possible fertilization.

question

Follicles

answer

A capsule within an ovary that contains an ovum.

question

Ovarian Cancer

answer

Cancer of the ovaries. It is the 4th killer of woman. Woman most at risk are those with blood relatives who had it or breast cancer, especially a first degree relative like a mother or sister or daughter. Other risk factors are high body weight and having never given birth. Pap smears DO NOT reveal ovarian cancer, just cervical cancer. 40 and over should be checked.

question

Hysterectomy

answer

Surgical removal of the uterus. This surgery is often done between 35 and 45 yrs of age. It is the 2nd most common surgery for women. (C sections are first)

question

Complete Hysterectomy

answer

Surgical removal of the ovaries, fallopian tubes, cervix and uterus. Usually done to keep cancer from spreading throughout the reproductive system.

question

Partial Hysterectomy

answer

Surgical removal of the uterus but NOT the ovaries and fallopian tubes. A woman will continue to ovulate and produce adequate quantities of female sex hormones.

question

Pelvic Examination

answer

This test is recommended for women under 35 once a year and over 35

question

Secondary Sex Characteristics

answer

Traits that distinguish the sexes from one another but are not directly involved in reproduction. Breast are an example of secondary sex characteristics.

question

Pap Smears

answer

Detects cervical cancer. A pap smears is performed by the doctor by holding open the vaginal walls with a speculum so the sample of the cells may be scraped from the cervix with a wooden spatula.

question

Mammary Glands

answer

Milk secreting glands found in the breast. Each breast contains 15-20 clusters. Each gland opens at the nipple through it own duct.

question

Breast

answer

The amount of fatty tissue, NOT the amount of glandular tissue that largely determines the size of the breast.

question

Areola

answer

The dark ring on the breast that encircles the nipple. This ring darkens during pregnancy and stay darker after. The glands in the areola secretes an oil to help lubricate the nipple during breast feeding.

question

Nipple

answer

Found in the center of the areola. It contains smooth muscle fibers that erect the nipple when they contract.

question

Milk Ducts

answer

Conduct milk from the mammary glands through the nipples.

question

Mastectomy

answer

Surgical removal of the entire breast. This is done if the tumor is aggressive, meaning how rapidly it has grown.

question

Lumpectomy

answer

Surgical removal of a lump from the breast.

question

BRCA1 & BRCA2

answer

Genetic mutations found in the blood that are connected with the early onset of breast cancer.

question

Mammography

answer

A special type of Xray test that detects cancerous lumps in the breast.

question

Breast Cancer

answer

It isn't the cancer in the breast that kills, but it is the cancer that spreads to vital organs. Breast cancer is rare in women under 25. Most times it develops in women over the age of 50. 1 in every 229 is found in women 30-39 years of age. The probability that a woman will be diagnosed with breast cancer at some time is about 1 in 7 to 8. (13.2%)

question

Key Risk Factors of Breast Cancer

answer

Prolonged exposure to estrogen. Menstruation before the age of 14, late menopause (after 55), delay in childbearing (after 30) and never giving birth. Fat is connected with higher levels of estrogen production. Exercise would be helpful because it reduces the amount of fatty tissue in the body.

question

Estrogen-Receptor Negative Tumors

answer

Tumors that develop rapidly even in the absence of estrogen. These tumors are aggressive and a major factor in the higher mortality rate for African American women.

question

Cysts

answer

Sac-like structures filled with fluid or diseased material.

question

Benign

answer

Do little or no harm

question

Fibroadenoma

answer

A benign fibrous tumor

question

Malignant

answer

Lethal; causing or likely to cause death.

question

Metastasized

answer

Cancer cells that have splintered off to form colonies elsewhere in the body.

question

Tamoxifen

answer

A drug that locks into the estrogen receptors of breast cancer cells, thereby blocking estrogen's stimulation of the cells to grow and proliferate. This drug can cause uterine cancer and have other side effects.

question

Raloxifene

answer

A drug that helps reduce the risk of breast cancer without the side effects that tamoxifen.

question

Clinical Breast Examines (CBE)

answer

American Cancer Society recommends having a CBE every 3 year for women between 20 & 39 years of age and annually after that.

question

Menstruation

answer

The cyclical bleeding that stems from the shedding of the uterine lining. Average cycle is 28 days. The cycle is regulated by the hormones estrogen and progesterone and can be divided into 4 phases.

question

Ovulation

answer

The release of an ovum from an ovary.

question

Proliferative Phase

answer

The first phase of a menstruation cycle, it follows menstruation. Estrogen levels increase causing the ripening of the ova. The wall of the uterus thickens to prepare for pregnancy.

question

Ovulatory Phase

answer

The second phase of the menstrual cycle. Estrogen reaches peak blood levels and ovulation occurs. Normally 1 ovum reaches maturity and is release by the ovary.

question

Corpus Luteum

answer

The follicle that has released an ovum and then produces copious amounts of progesterone and estrogen during the luteal phase of a woman's cycle.

question

Endocrine Gland

answer

A ductless gland that releases its secretions directly into the bloodstream.

question

Menarche

answer

The first menstrual period

question

Hypothalamus

answer

A structure near the center of the brain that is involved in regulating body temperature, motivation and emotion.

question

Pituitary Gland

answer

The gland that secretes growth hormones, prolactin, oxytocin and others.

question

Hormone

answer

A substance secreted by an endocrine gland that regulates various body functions.

question

Testes

answer

The male gonads

question

Testosterone

answer

The male sex hormone that fosters the development of make sex characteristics and is connected with the sex drive.

question

Prolactin

answer

A pituitary hormone that stimulates the production of milk/

question

Oxytocin

answer

A pituitary hormone that stimulates uterine contractions in labor and the ejection of milk during nursing.

question

Gonadotropins

answer

Pituitary hormones that stimulate the gonads.

question

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

answer

A gonadotropin that stimulates development of follicles in the ovaries.

question

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

answer

A gonadotropin that helps regulate the menstrual cycle by triggering ovulation.

question

Anovulatory

answer

Means without ovulation

STUDY

Brca1 And Brca2 Breast Self Examination Oncology

PATHOLOGY_WEEK_3 – Flashcards 93 terms

Steven Ramirez

93 terms

Preview

PATHOLOGY_WEEK_3 – Flashcards

question

What is the 2nd leading cause of death? 23%

answer

Cancer

question

What are the 3 leading causes of male cancer incidence?

answer

1. prostate 2. lung and bronchus 3. colon and rectum

question

What are the 3 leading causes of female cancer incidence?

answer

1. breast 2. lung and bronchus 3. colon and rectum

question

Define: Neoplasia

answer

"New Growth"

question

Define: Tumor

answer

Swelling or Mass

question

What is 'cancer' in latin?

answer

"Crab" -grabs on and won't let go

question

"-oma" is the suffix denoting what?

answer

a benign tumor

question

Define: carcinoma

answer

A malignant tumor arising from an epithelial cell

question

Define: sarcoma

answer

A malignant tumor arising from a stromal or mesenchymal tissue (soft tissue) -MESODERMALLY DERIVED

question

Define: lymphoma

answer

A malignant tumor arising from lymphoid tissue

question

Define: Leukemia

answer

A malignant WBC tumor arising in the bone marrow

question

What is desmoplasia?

answer

A fibrous tissue response to a tumor

question

What is an adenoma?

answer

A benign epithelial neoplasm composed of glandular tissue

question

What is a papilloma?

answer

A benign epithelial neoplasm that has 'finger like projections'

question

What is a polyp?

answer

A mucosal elevation which may have a stalk i.e. wart = skin polyp

question

What is a teratoma?

answer

Neoplasm made up of tissues from more than one germ cell layer -Ovary & Testes

question

What is a choristoma?

answer

An ectopic rest of normal tissue in an abnormal place -thyroid tissue in ovary or testes

question

What is a hamartoma?

answer

A malformation of tissue in an organ which is indigenous to that organ i.e. lung

question

What is an abnormal mass that grows in an uncontrolled and uncoordinated manor?

answer

neoplasia

question

What is a benign tumor?

answer

characterized by slow local expansie growth

question

What is a malignant tumor?

answer

More aggressive than a benign tumor. -autonomous proliferation of cell that acts like a parasite -outcompete the host for nutrients -capable of spreading

question

What are monoclonic tumors?

answer

1 single cell that turns into a tumor

question

What are polyclonic tumors?

answer

Many cells mutating into a tumor

question

What is ALWAYS seen in cancer?

answer

DNA mutation

question

What is a 'normal' cell cycle

answer

Balance between cell growth and cell loss

question

5 phases of cell replication

answer

G1: interphase -cell is committed to divide G0: Prolonged interphase when cell is NOT committed to divide S: DNA replication G2: period between DNA replication and mitosis M: mitotic phase

question

What are the 5 steps of evolution of a cancer?

answer

1. normal cell 2. malignant transformation -"mutation" 3. local growth of tumor cells 4. local incasion 5. distant metasteses

question

Malignant transformation of a tumor

answer

May be congenital or acquired -For a malignant transformation to occur usually 2 or more mutations are required

question

What does the DNA mutation alter in a normal cell?

answer

uncoordinated cell proliferation

question

Protooncogenes

answer

Increase in # of cells -normal genes that regulate cell growth and differentiation - skin, GI, etc. -constantly producted *Can mutate into an oncogene

question

Oncogene

answer

Factors associated with gene expression -Genes that cause a malignant transformation of a cell -cause inappropriate cellular proliferation -growth promotion

question

Anti-Oncogenes

answer

Decrease in cell production Tumor suppressor genes! -Inhibit cell growth -Associated w/ programmed cell death -If a mutation occurs in an anti-oncogene: regulation can be inactivated -->increase in production of cells

question

Apoptosis

answer

Programmed cell death

question

After how many 'doublings' of a cell, can the tumor become detected

answer

30 1 gm

question

After ___#_____ doublings, the tumor is 1000gm

answer

question

Tumor Heterogenaety

answer

Many different kinds of mutation Many capabilities of a tumor -allows tumor to evolve and survive in host!! BAD

question

The original cell or 'clone' after 30 doublings has the opportunity to undergo additional mutations resulting in multiple __________

answer

Subclones

question

TRUE/FALSE Each subclone has the same biologic behavior

answer

FALSE

question

TRUE/FALSE Subclones can develop abilities to secrete growth factors, invasive potential and resistance to chemo

answer

TRUE

question

Why does early detection have an impact on cancer progression?

answer

The earlier the detection: the fewer the subclones, the greater the likelihood of successful treatment

question

What are the 3 requirements for a growing tumor?

answer

1. Vascular supply -within 1-2mm of a blood vessel 2. Tumors can produce angiogenesis factors that stimulate capillary proliferation 3. Hormonal stimulation and growth factors

question

TRUE/FALSE Tumors can produce their own growth factors

answer

TRUE Autocrine or paracrine

question

What are some mechanisms of invasion and metastasis?

answer

transformation clonal expansion and diversification adhesion and invasion of basement membrane migration through Extracellular matrix (collagen) Vascular invasion tumor embolus adhesion to endothelium through basement membrane growth at new site

question

Why have grading and staging systems been developed?

answer

Establish 'standards or benchmarks' for cancers

question

What can provide prognostic indicators as to the behavior of cancers and assist in determining best course of treatment?

answer

Grading and staging system

question

"the level of differentiation" of cancer

answer

GRADING -scoring how aggressive

question

"Extent of spread of tumor"

answer

STAGING -local invasion, size, lymph nodes, metastasis

question

What grading system do you use for the prostate?

answer

Gleason grading

question

What grading system do you use for melanomas?

answer

Clarks system: breslow system

question

Grading system for endometrial cancers?

answer

FIGO system

question

What grading system would you use for bladder cancers?

answer

Grade I-III

question

AJCC staging categories

answer

TNM T1-T4 : size of primary tumor N1-N3 : degree of node involvement M0-M1 : presence of distant metastasis

question

How does cancer actually kill you?

answer

Take over of cellular function -->organ failure

question

How do clinical symptoms of neoplasia usually present?

answer

Compromise of primary organ or involvement or compression of surrounding tissue

question

Bone marrow neoplasia complications

answer

Involvement by leukemia or metastasis reduces hematopoeisis and leads to anemia, infectious and abnormal bleeding -not producing RBC/WBC in that bone i.e. prostrate and breast cancer

question

Lung Cancer neoplasia complications

answer

Either primary or metastasis -compromise oxygen exchange and obstruction airways and blood flow leading to coughing infections and hypoxia -Increase fluid, decreased exchange of gas

question

Bone Lesion complications

answer

Primary or metastatic can cause pathologic fractures

question

Liver neoplasia complications

answer

Function is compromised when hepatic parenchyma is destroyed by a growing tumor

question

Colon neoplasia complications

answer

Colon cancer can cause and obstruction, perforation or blood loss

question

Cachexia

answer

Metaboloic disorder -wasting of the body due to lack of nutrition and shifted metabolic demands

question

Neurologic symptoms of neoplasia

answer

Pain when involving or compressing surrounding nerves -loss of function -headache (intracranial tumor)

question

Epithelial neoplasia nomenclature

answer

squamous papilloma v. squamous cell carcinoma Adenoma v. adenocarcinoma Transitional cell papilloma v. papillary transitional cell carcinoma

question

Mesenchymal/soft tissue neoplasia Nomenclature

answer

Lipoma v liposarcoma leiomyoma v leiomyosarcoma lymphangioma v lymphangiosarcoma

question

Teratoma/mixed tumor nomenclature

answer

Mature teratoma (dermoid cyst) v. Immature teratoma (malignant) Pleomorphic adenoma v. malignant mixed tumor

question

What are the 2 types of malignant WBC neoplasms

answer

Leukemia and lymphoma

question

What are the 4 types of leukemia?

answer

1. AML -acute myelogenous leukemia 2. ALL -acute lymphocytic leukemia 3. CLL -Crhonic lymphocytic leukemia 4. CML -chronic myelogenous leukemia

question

What are the 2 categories of lymphomas?

answer

Hodgkins lymphomas Non-Hodgkins lymphomas

question

4 Types of hodgkins lymphomas

answer

1 nodular sclerosing 2. lymphocyte predominantly 3. lymphocyte depleted 4. mixed cellularity

question

Describe benign neoplasia

answer

Local growth/slow Well circumscribed & encapsulated Good plane of dissection (easily dissected) Follows a benign course -problems: compression of surrounding tissue Can become malignant

question

Describe malignant neoplasia

answer

Grows by invading & destroying surrounding normal tissue Growth is rapid Poorly defined borders -harder to take out Sometimes encapsulated Capable of spreading beyond primary site & growth @ secondary site Follows an aggresive and deadly course

question

Malignant lesion

answer

Tumor has NOT invaded basement layer Carcinoma in situe (CIS) Primary (where it starts) Secondary (where it ends)

question

How does cancer spread?

answer

Direct spread of local structures/organs Lymphatic spread Hematogenous spread

question

How does a malignant lesion spread 'directly'?

answer

1.Tumors arising in peritonea cavity -seeing of peritoneeal surfaces by malignant cell 'dropping off' the source 2. pleural cavity common place for direct seeding fo tumors -i.e. ovary and surrounding tissue

question

How does a malignant lesion spread through lymphatic system?

answer

Lymph nodes commonly involved in carcinoma -Primary drainage site of organ

question

Why are lymph nodes the 1st thing to be involved in cancer spread?

answer

Primary drainage site of organ

question

Breast cancer's spreading through lymphatic system

answer

Arise in upper/lateral quadrant: axillary nodes Medial quadrants: infra/supra clavicular nodes

question

Prostate involved lymph nodes

answer

Pelvic or inguinal lymph nodes

question

Lung lymph node involvement

answer

Perihilar and mediastinal lymph nodes

question

Head and neck cancer lymph node involvement

answer

Radial neck nodes

question

Malignant lesions hematogenous spread

answer

Venous system **anything accepting venous blood can be metastized -liver and lungs are common Arterial system **distal to the heart, has to go by heart and lungs -important to ID vascular or lymphatic structures around lesion

question

Clinical test for neoplasia?

answer

Tumor markers palpable lesions obstruction in colon neurologic symptoms imaging studies cytogenic abnormalities biopsy abnormal PAP

question

PSA tests for what kind of cancer?

answer

Prostate

question

How are metastatic tumors named?

answer

After the original site

question

What % of carcinomas are epithelial based?

answer

80-90%

question

How does cancer spread?

answer

Direct contact, through blood (hematogenous) or lymph...

question

Grading system for endometrial cancers?

answer

question

"Extent of spread of tumor"

answer

question

TRUE/FALSE Subclones can develop abilities to secrete growth factors, invasive potential and resistance to chemo

answer

TRUE

question

After how many 'doublings' of a cell, can the tumor become detected

answer

30 1 gm

question

What is ALWAYS seen in cancer?

answer

DNA mutation

question

What is a hamartoma?

answer

question

What is an adenoma?

answer

Neoplasm of glandular tissue. cancer of small and large bowels

question

What is the 2nd leading cause of death? 23%

answer

Cancer

STUDY

Alcohol And Drug Abuse Brca1 And Brca2 Physical Fitness

physical activity and health midterm – Flashcards 79 terms

Chad Lipe

79 terms

Preview

physical activity and health midterm – Flashcards

question

According to BRFSS from 2001 to 2005, which of the following is true? a. Slightly less than half of Americans engaged in regular physical activity in 2005. b. There was no increase in prevalence of physical activity in Hispanic males. c. Hispanics and non-Hispanic blacks were the least active than whites and other racial groups. d. all

answer

d. all

question

The first report on physical activity and health was released by __________ which confirmed that lack of physical activity is a major health risk in the United States. a. President of the United States b. surgeon general c. Secretary of Health and Human Services

answer

b. surgeon general

question

According to BRFSS from 2001 to 2005, which of the following is true? a. Participation in regular physical activity increased both in women and men. b. Increase in participation in regular physical activity was higher in women than men. c. White men was the only group that met the target (>50%) of regular physical activity objective in 2010 Healthy People. d. all

answer

d. all

question

Physical activity has four domains: active transportation, household/gardening activity, occupational activities and leisure-time activity true false

answer

true

question

According to the 2010 National Youth Physical Activity and Nutrition Study a.Male students and students in lower grades had lower rates of meeting the objective for aerobic and muscle-strengthening activities. b. Female students, students in upper grades, and students with obesity had lower rates of meeting the objective for aerobic and muscle-strengthening activities.

answer

b. Female students, students in upper grades, and students with obesity had lower rates of meeting the objective for aerobic and muscle-strengthening activities.

question

Based on self report, it is estimated that approximately two in three Americans are physical active and approximately one in three Americans are physical inactive in 2007, according 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans true false

answer

true

question

According to the 2010 National Youth Physical Activity and Nutrition Study, which of the following is true? a. about one in 10 high school students met Healthy People 2020 objective for aerobic physical activity b. about one in two high school students met Healthy People 2020 objective for muscle-strengthening exercise c. about one in 10 high school students met both Healthy People 2020 objectives for aerobic physical activity and muscle-strengthening exercise d. all e. a) and c)

answer

d. all

question

According to the 2010 National Youth Physical Activity and Nutrition Study a. Black high school students were more likely to meet Healthy People 2020 objective for muscle-strengthening exercise than white, non-Hispanic and Hispanic students. b. All male high school students met the target for muscle strengthening activities in Healthy People 2020. c. White, non-Hispanic high school students were more likely to meet both Healthy People 2020 objectives for aerobic physical activity and muscle-strengthening exercise than black and Hispanic students.

answer

c. White, non-Hispanic high school students were more likely to meet both Healthy People 2020 objectives for aerobic physical activity and muscle-strengthening exercise than black and Hispanic students.

question

What is estimated energy expenditure of a 100-kg person running 15 km/hour (intensity=9 MET) for one hour? a. 9 MET x 1 h x 15 kg/h=135 kcal b.9 MET x 1 h x 100 kg=900 kcal c. 15 km/h x 100 kg=1500 kcal

answer

b. 9 MET x 1 h x 100 kg=900 kcal

question

In "Barbara Ainsworth on the ACSM American Fitness Index", 1. Dr. Anisworth discussed how to use the American Fitness Index 2. Dr. Anisworth discussed the history of the development of the American Fitness Index. 3. Dr. Anisworth discussed how San Antonio can improve its resident's fitness level.

answer

1. Dr. Anisworth discussed how to use the American Fitness Index

question

During moderate intensity activities, which energy system supplies energy to support muscle contractions? a. The oxidative system b. The glycolytic system

answer

a. The oxidative system

question

Increased efficiency in cardiovascular system can be seen in decreases in heart rate and blood pressure during subminimum or moderate intensity exercise. true false

answer

true

question

Which of the following is true with detraining (or no exercise)? a. Significant drop in VO2 max in 2 weeks b. Complete loss of gains in VO2max in 2-8 months c. 50% loss of strengthen in 12 months d. a. and b. e. all of the above

answer

e. all of the above

question

When doing a moderate physical activity, which of the following will occur? a. Increase in number of muscle fibers b. Increase in absolute VO2max c. Increase in blood pressure and cardiac output d. Decrease in heart rate and blood flow in capillaries

answer

c. Increase in blood pressure and cardiac output

question

Cyndi wants to do an activity 3 times a week and 10 minutes each time that will get her 180 MET-minutes (3 times a week x 10 minutes x ______ = ≥180 MET-minutes). Which of the following activity meets her need? a. High intensity activity, like rope jumping b. Low intensity activity, like sitting quietly c. Moderate intensity activity, like brisk walking

answer

a. High intensity activity, like rope jumping

question

If you stop exercising your muscles turn into fat. true false

answer

false

question

Crunches or sit ups will reduce fat around the waist; Leg lifts will reduce the size of the thighs. true false

answer

false

question

The principle of progression Principle of adaptation The specificity principle

answer

The principle of progression- a gradual and systematic increase of the workload over a period of time will result in improvements in fitness without risk of injury Principle of adaptation- the body's ability to adjust to increased or decreased physical demands The specificity principle- placing physiological stress on a certain body part or system of the body primarily develops that part or system.

question

In the video "Racial Health Disparities", the news media was criticized for attributing poor health and diseases to a. social environmental behaviors b. individual behaviors c. genetics

answer

b. individual behaviors

question

Which of the following is not a category that is used to describe health disparities? a. Race/ethnicity b. Gender c. Geographical location of residence d. Age groups e. Genotype

answer

e. Genotype

question

Which of the following are the correlates of physical activity in youth? a. Family/parent support and overweight status b. Access to activity friendly environments and crime and traffic problem in minority communities c. Poor quality of exercise and recreation facilities d. No PE in school and enjoyment and confidence in sports e. all of the above

answer

e. all of the above

question

The correlates of physical activity _________ across subpopulation groups. a. are exactly the same b. are similar c. are different

answer

c. are different

question

Which of the following is not a factor that Influence and contribute to disparities in physical activity? a. Quality to interstate highways b. Cultural beliefs and values c. Unequal access to resources d. A person's gender

answer

a. quality of interstate highways

question

Targeting social influences, such as encouraging walking with family/friends, or joining an exercise group, should be one area of focus in physical activity promotion because ______________. a. Social support has consistently predicted participation in many studies. b. Climate such as hot weather has more influence on physical activity participation. c. Lack of environmental support is not related to physical inactivity.

answer

a. Social support has consistently predicted participation in many studies.

question

Climate, distance to travel to exercise facilities, safety are __________ correlates that influence participation in physical activity a. Individual b. Environmental c. Social-cultural

answer

b. Environmental

question

The __________ approach focuses on "built" and social-cultural environment to promote physical activity by targeting, access, safety, policy, and cultural values and norms. a. Lifestyle b. Environmental c. Individual d. Planned exercise

answer

b. Environmental

question

Why an approach that only focuses on individual lifestyle and behavior change to promote physical activity is problematic? a. It leads to victim blaming b. It ignores the limitation of an individual's control over his/her environment c. It fails to recognize multiple levels of influences on physical activity behavior d. All of the above

answer

d. all of the above

question

What are the health determinants of health outcomes in Healthy People 2012? a. Quality of life, longer lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death. b. Health disparities and leading health indicators c. Biology and genetics, individual behavior, social environment, physical environment, and health services

answer

c. Biology and genetics, individual behavior, social environment, physical environment, and health services

question

The evidence on an inverse relationship between the volume of physical activity and cardiovascular healthy is not very clear. true false

answer

false

question

Vigorous physical activity has similar health benefits on all-cause mortality as moderate physical activity. true false

answer

true

question

The evidence is strong that the volume of physical activity is associated with lower rate of CAD, CHD, and stroke. true false

answer

true

question

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of vigorous physical activity on CAD mortality? a. Improvements in HDL cholesterol b. Increased risk for sudden cardiac attack c. Improves body composition and glucose tolerance, and insulin sensitivity d. Lower blood pressure e. Enhanced cardiac mechanical functions

answer

b. Increased risk for sudden cardiac attack

question

Which of the following risk factors for CVD can be reduced by regular physical activity? a. Hypertension b. High triglycerides and cholesterol c. Stress d. a. and b. e. All of the above

answer

e. All of the above

question

Regular physical activity can reduce the risk for CVD by approximately ___. a. 10-15% b. 30% c. 40-50%

answer

b. 30%

question

Research from Dr. Morris, Dr. Paffenbarger and their colleagues contributed to our understanding of importance of physical activity in public health. Which of the following is NOT a finding from their early work? a. Accumulation of exercise 10 minutes or longer of moderate intensity has health benefits. b. Vigorous physical activity can lead to 1/3 reduction in risk for CVD and all-cause death c. Physical activity has no health benefit in individuals who are smoker or obese. d. "Some exercise is better than none, while more is better than some."

answer

c. Physical activity has no health benefit in individuals who are smoker or obese.

question

Significant health benefits can be achieved whenever sedentary individuals start exercise. true false

answer

true

question

_______________________ are predictors of CAD. a. Increased cardiac output, decreased blood flow, reduced blood pressure, and increased coronary circulation b. No sport history, no leisure time PA, obesity, smoking, and older age c. Smoking, obesity, family history of CAD, and hypertension

answer

c. Smoking, obesity, family history of CAD, and hypertension

question

Which of the following is true? a. Children should not be allowed to engage in resistance training if they are emotionally and physically matured. b. Weight-bearing endurance and resistance exercises are unsafe and increase risk for injury in older adults. c. Resistance training is safe for youth if performed with an intensity of < 60% of 1-repetition maximum.

answer

c. Resistance training is safe for youth if performed with an intensity of < 60% of 1-repetition maximum.

question

Improved insulin sensitivity is the result of increase in muscle mass and reduction in fat mass true false

answer

true

question

Which of the following is not a mechanism that has hypothesized to explain the association between physical activity and cancer. a. Improved immune system b. Reduction in blood pressure c. Reduced exposure to sex and growth hormones d. Reduction in obesity e. Reduced exposure to growth factors

answer

b.Reduction in blood pressure

question

What are Public health recommendations for cancer prevention based on the Workshop on Physical Activity and Cancer Prevention convened in March 2000 by Cancer Care Ontario (Table 3)? a. 150 minutes of vigorous aerobic and resistance exercise per week b. 150 minutes of moderate physical activity per week c.more than 150 minutes of moderate and vigorous physical activity per week

answer

c.more than 150 minutes of moderate and vigorous physical activity per week

question

Which is not a finding between physical activity and obesity and related disorders? a. Negative health consequences of obesity and poor fitness start early during childhood for those who do not have adequate exercise and nutrition. b. Vigorous physical activity leads to lower body fat and higher fitness than moderate physical activity in youth. c.Fitness has a weak influence on health outcomes in youths. d. Visceral fat is more harmful to health than subcutaneous fat.

answer

c.Fitness has a weak influence on health outcomes in youths.

question

There is strong evidence that increased physical activity leads to increase in resting energy expenditure which contributes to weight control and weight loss in adults. true false

answer

false

question

Moderate physical activity is more effective for prevention of weight gain than vigorous physical activity true false

answer

true

question

What do we know about the relationships between physical activity and prevention of type 2 diabetes? a. Only vigorous physical activity can improve insulin sensitivity and prevent type 2 diabetes. b. 150 minutes of moderate and vigorous physical activity along with dietary changes can prevent type 2 diabetes. c. There is weak evidence that physical activity alone can prevent type 2 diabetes.

answer

b. 150 minutes of moderate and vigorous physical activity along with dietary changes can prevent type 2 diabetes.

question

The amount of physical activity for prevention of weight gain is ____ the amount of physical activity for prevention of weight regain after initial weight loss. a. Similar to b. Higher c. lower

answer

b. higher

question

Which of the following is NOT a component of the three major components of energy expenditure? a. Daily physical activity b. Resting energy expenditure c. Thermic effect of food digestion d. Bone density

answer

d. bone density

question

What have been learned from animal studies that helped to develop physical activites for human bone health a. Mechanical force should be variable and dynamic loading b. There needs to have deformation of bone from higher loading force c. Benefits increase with multiple, short daily bouts of mechanical loading physical activities d. All of the above

answer

d. all of the above

question

Which is a generally accepted strategy to prevent bone fracture? a. Maximize the gain in BMD in the first three decades of life b. Minimize the decline in BMD after the age of 40 c. All of the above

answer

c. all of the above

question

What are the effects of physical activity on mental health in healthy youth and adults? a. Improved mood and higher self-esteem and self-confidence b. Lower levels of stress and anxiety c. Improved cognitive functions in children and older adults d. Improved academic performance in children e. a. and b. f. All of the above

answer

c. Improved cognitive functions in children and older adults or f. all of the above ??

question

There is strong evidence that a. Physical activity has no effect on anxiety disorders. b. Physical activity is an effective treatment for depression. c. Non-aerobic activity is more effective on treating anxiety disorders than aerobic activities. d. Flexibility and balancing exercises are more effective on reducing depression than aerobic activities.

answer

b. Physical activity is an effective treatment for depression.

question

Effect size in risk reduction for depression from engaging in physical activity is about a. 20-30% b. 5% c. 60%

answer

a. 20-30%

question

There is strong evidence regarding who should see a physician or have a medical examination before increasing the amount or intensity of physical activity they perform? a. True b. Insufficient evidence c. False

answer

c. false

question

The current evidence is ___________ women engaging in physical activity during pregnancy and the postpartum period. a. Inconclusive on the benefits of b. Supportive of c. Against

answer

b. Supportive of

question

Effect size in risk reduction for falls from engaging in physical activity is about a. 5% b. 30% c. 60%

answer

b. 30%

question

The amount of physical activity that is necessary for weight loss in adults is approximately equivalent to ______. a. walking about 60 minutes every day at 4 miles per hour, or jogging 30 minutes every day at 6 miles per hour. b. walking at 4 miles per hour for 150 minutes per week or jogging at 6 miles per hour for 75 minutes per week. c. walking about 45 minutes every day at 4 miles per hour, or jogging 22 minutes every day at 6 miles per hour.

answer

a. walking about 60 minutes every day at 4 miles per hour, or jogging 30 minutes every day at 6 miles per hour.

question

_______ can reduce risk of falls in older adults who are at risk for falls. a. Balance training b. Muscle-strengthening exercises c. Aerobic exercise d. Flexibility e. a. and b. f. All of the above

answer

e. a and b

question

Self-efficacy, motivation, and enjoyment are ______________ factors that influence participation in physical activity. a. Micro-level b. Macro-level

answer

a. Micro-level

question

The ________ approach focuses on common activities, such as brisk walking, climbing stairs, housework, yard work, and recreational physical activity. a. Lifestyle b. Planned exercise c. Environmental d. Individual

answer

A. lifestyle

question

A health disparity is _______. a. a significant difference in the overall rate of disease incidence, prevalence, morbidity, mortality, or survival rates in a population group. b. a disproportional burden of disease, morbidity, mortality, or survival rates in a particular population group c. the result of unequal distribution of racial minorities living in different regions of the United States. d. a. and b. e. All of above

answer

d. a and b

question

Which of the following are the correlates of physical activity in adults? a. Age, gender, race/ethnicity, and socioeconomic status, and early childhood sport experience/prior level of fitness b. Cultural/ethnic values and norms and self-presentation and religious affiliation c. Lack of access and childcare and social support from family, friends and peers d. All of the above

answer

d. All of the above

question

Which of the following is an unavoidable factor that Influence and contribute to disparities in physical activity? a. Systematic discriminations b. Unequal access to resources c. Biological process/genetics d. Education

answer

c. Biological process/genetics

question

Regular physical activity can reduce symptoms of ______________. a. Depression b. Anxiety c. Depression and anxiety

answer

c. Depression and anxiety

question

The evidence is strong that the volume of physical activity is associated with lower rate of CAD, CHD, and stroke. true false

answer

true

question

Health benefits of regular physical activity in children and adolescents are less known but different to those reported in adults. true false

answer

false

question

According to Harvard Alumni Study, a. Uniform sizes were larger in active than inactive individuals. b. Independent of smoking, hypertension, and obesity, vigorous and moderate physical activity can lower. risks for all-cause mortality c. Only vigorous physical activity lowered risk for CAD.

answer

b. Independent of smoking, hypertension, and obesity, vigorous and moderate physical activity can lower risks for all-cause mortality

question

There is clear evidence that regular physical activity can reduce risk for __________. a. Breast and colon cancers b. Pancreatic and prostate cancers c. Lung cancer

answer

a. Breast and colon cancers

question

Experimental studies showed that lifestyle intervention that included an exercise program can reduce the risk of developing diabetes around ____%. a. 15-20% b. 50-60% c. 80-90%

answer

b. 50-60%

question

Weight loss can be achieved with a. Improved insulin sensitivity from resistance training b. approximately 4,000 steps of brisk walking daily without diet c. Reduction in intake of calcium

answer

b. approximately 4,000 steps of brisk walking daily without diet

question

What is the mechanism that explains the effects/benefits of physical activity on bone (i.e. increase in bone mineral density)? a. Bone deformation from mechanical loading from ground reactions and muscle contractions of large muscles lead to the increase and maintanence of bone density. b. Improved immune system from 150 minutes of moderate to vigorous aerobic exercises per week c. Increased cardiac output from 150 minutes (600 MET minutes) of moderate to vigorous aerobic exercises per week d. All of the above

answer

a. Bone deformation from mechanical loading from ground reactions and muscle contractions of large muscles lead to the increase and maintenance of bone density.

question

We still do not have enough evidence to recommend the minimum ____ that is needed to reduce the risk of a chronic disease. a. volumn of physical activity (i.e. total MET-minutes per week) b. duration of increased physical activity (i.e. how many months) c. intensity of physical activity (i.e. light, moderate or vigorous)

answer

b. duration of increased physical activity (i.e. how many months)

question

Why is physical activity a preference strategy for improving bone health? a. It increases bone mass and strength and reduces the risk of falling in older populations b. It prevents the loss of bone mass in postmenopausal women and old men. c. All of the above

answer

a. It increases bone mass and strength and reduces the risk of falling in older populations

question

For people who are physically inactive or unfit, current science supports the concept that some activity is better than none. a. Insufficient evidence b. False c. True

answer

c. True

question

In general there is evidence that physical activity can be accumulated throughout the day for some health and fitness outcomes. a. True b. Insufficient evidence c. False

answer

a. True

question

One MET is the energy expenditure needed to _______ for an average adult. a.site and work on a computer b.site and make a phone call c.rest or site quietly d.put on clothe

answer

c. rest or site quietly

question

answer

true

question

According to U.S. Surgeon General, doing 30 minutes of __________ intensity aerobic activity in the 3.0- to 6.0-MET range will lead to meangingful health benefits. a. vigorous b. moderate c.light and moderate

answer

b. moderate

question

Physical activity is a leading healthy indicator in ____. a. National Youth Physical Activity and Nutrition Survey b. Surgeon General's report on physical activity and health c. in Healthy People 2020

answer

c. in Healthy People 2020

question

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism that explains the favorable effect of regular physical activity has on glucose homeostasis and in the prevention of diabetes? a. Structural changes in skeletal muscle, such as muscle fiber size b. Biochemical changes in skeletal muscle, i.e. glucose regulation c. Systemic influences of physical activity in body composition, hypertension, and lipid profile that reduce risk for cardiovascular diseases and cancer in diabetic individuals

answer

c. Systemic influences of physical activity in body composition, hypertension, and lipid profile that reduce risk for cardiovascular diseases and cancer in diabetic individuals

STUDY

Biology Biotechnology Brca1 And Brca2 Human Genome Project

Genetically Modified Foods 19 terms

Ruth Blanco

19 terms

Preview

Genetically Modified Foods

question

How do we broadly define biotechnology?

answer

Use of living organisms to provide products for humanity

question

What are some traditional vs. modern examples of biotechnology?

answer

Yeast, yogurt, cheese, beer, bread, penicillin, animal/plant breeding, etc.

question

Can you typically grow a whole plant from a single cell? What is this called?

answer

Yes, totipotency

question

How many plant species constitute the world's major crops?

answer

question

How many plants sustain >50% daily plant calories for humans? What are these crops?

answer

3 (rice, corn, wheat)

question

Why is it useful to modify the natural tomato ripening process in order to ship them?

answer

Longer shelf life

question

What is the source of the gene in tomato that delays ripening?

answer

Fish gene

question

How is golden rice different from other rice?

answer

It contains increased levels of beta-carotene

question

What is a transgenic plant? How are genes moved from 1 species to another?

answer

Gene transfer using recombinant DNA (usually outside sexual compatibility); a.k.a. GMO or GEO

question

What is plasmid DNA? How is it used to transfer genes?

answer

Gene is inserted into plasmid DNA & becomes part of that DNA

question

Can you make glow in the dark tobacco?

answer

Yes

question

List 8 crops that have been genetically engineered. What are 4 of the most common in the US? What are the most common traits?

answer

1) Canola, corn, cotton, flax, papaya, potatoes, soybeans, squash, sugar beets, tomatoes 2) Soybeans, corn, cotton, canola 3) Herbicide tolerance and/or insect/pest resistance

question

What is Bt corn? Does the toxin itself occur naturally?

answer

1) Proteins from this bacteria bind to the gut of insect larva & kill them 2) No

question

What is roundup ready corn? How does it work? Why is it useful? Are other crops roundup ready?

answer

1) Corn w/ alternative enzyme that makes them resistant to roundup 2) Herbicide resistance 3) Roundup ready soybeans

question

What is golden rice? Why might it be important in developing countries? What deficiency might it help with?

answer

1) Rice seeds genetically modified to contain higher levels of beta-carotene 2) Good way to get this nutrient to those who lack it 3) Vitamin A Deficiency

question

What are some other genetically engineered crops in the making?

answer

Low lignin trees that don't produce flowers (great for paper production), roundup ready turf grass (for the perfect lawn), nitrogen fixing crops, crops low in saturated fat, new flower colors, etc.

question

How can you ensure that you are not eating a genetically engineered product?

answer

Buy organic! :)

question

What are some potential downsides to genetically engineered crops?

answer

1) Transfer of trans-genes to other organisms 2) Toxicity to humans (food allergies) 3) Effects on non-target organisms (e.g. monarchs) 4) Corporate control 5) Unintended reduction of nutrition 6) Pest resistance 7) Ethics

question

What are some potential benefits to genetically engineered crops?

answer

1) Increase production & decrease yield loss 2) Germ plasm library 3) Convergence of breeding/biotechnology 4) Precision farming (field mapping)

STUDY

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