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Affordable Care Act
Best Selling Book
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Random Digit Dialing
chapter 5; pols 1100; we the people – Flashcards 24 terms

Karlie Mack
24 terms
Preview
chapter 5; pols 1100; we the people – Flashcards
question
A key requirement of an effective ____ is that it is representative.
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public-opinion sample
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A push poll might include a question with the following wording:
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Do you think it was appropriate for President Bush to lie to start a war with Iraq?
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As opposed to a value or belief, an attitude represents
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a person's specific preference on a particular issue.
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Big government is ____________ considered a core U.S. value.
answer
not
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Equality of opportunity is a
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basic political value held by most Americans.
question
How did the media affect the Bush Administration's decision to go to war in Iraq in 2003?
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It helped to increase the public popularity of the preparations for war.
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If you prefer smaller government, you are probably a
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conservative.
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In contemporary politics being liberal has come to imply supporting
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social reform.
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Political and voting differences between men and women are known as the ____ gap.
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gender
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Political socialization is the process through which
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political beliefs and values are formed.
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Selection bias occurs when a sample ____ some opinions.
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overrepresents or underrepresents
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The bandwagon effect has been particularly problematic in
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the presidential nomination process.
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The most important agent of socialization early in life is
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family
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The size of the overall population under study is ____ in determining the reliability of a poll.
answer
not important
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Until recently, the classification of "moderate" would have applied to
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most Americans.
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What argument does Nicholas Carr make in his best-selling book on the Internet's effect on political knowledge and participation?
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The Internet reduces depth of thought and analysis regarding political knowledge.
question
What is the state of political knowledge among Americans?
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low
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What kinds of questions are particularly problematic in relation to the social desirability effect?
answer
questions about race or gender
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When a pollster asks a loaded question to shape a respondent's opinion, it is known as a
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push poll
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Which of the following best describes the characteristics of a "scientific" poll?
answer
representative sample from a sufficiently large population with no selection bias
question
Which of the following is one of the two major ways that low levels of political knowledge can shape American democracy?
answer
Political power can more easily be manipulated by political elites, the media, and wealthy special interests.
question
Which of the following is true of political polarization in the United States?
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Party polarization may actually reduce levels of political knowledge.
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Which of the following is true of the effect of political party membership or loyalty on political orientation?
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Partisans tend to rely on party leaders and the media for cues on the appropriate positions to take on major political issues.
question
Which of the following views would a conservative be more likely to hold than a liberal?
answer
concern about law and order
Affordable Care Act
Death And Disease
High Risk Behavior
Increase The Risk
Increase The Risk Of Cancer
Low Back Pain
Oncology
Physical Activity Pyramid
Sexually Transmitted Infection
Treatment For Cancer
kins 2504 final chapter 12 – Flashcards 50 terms

Kelly Fisher
50 terms
Preview
kins 2504 final chapter 12 – Flashcards
question
_______ follows cardiovascular disease as the second leading cause of death in the United States.
answer
cancer
question
Which of the following lifestyle choices reduces cancer risk?
answer
limiting exposure to ultraviolet radiation
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A tumor that is non-cancerous is
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bengin
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The most common classification of cancerous tumors is
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carcinomas
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To grow, a malignant tumor needs ________ and ________.
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oxygen and nutrients
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Carcinomas include which of the following cancers?
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breast
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Which of the following statements about sarcomas is true?
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sarcomas grow faster than carcinomas
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The two main types of lymphomas are ________ and ________.
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hodgkin; non-hodgkin
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Leukemia occurs in the
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bone marrow
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Leukemia is characterized by an increase in
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white blood cells
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Which of the following is an internal factor that causes cancer?
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immunological conditions
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Cancer is localized and often treatable when it is in
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stage 1
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Smoking causes ________% of all lung cancer deaths.
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87
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A doctor who specializes in cancer treatment is known as
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oncologist
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Most skin cancer deaths are caused by
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malignant melanomas
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Which of the following statements regarding melanoma is true?
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melanoma is difficult to treat once it spreads
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A person with which eye color has the lowest risk of skin cancer?
answer
brown
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Which factor decreases a person's risk for skin cancer?
answer
using sunscreen with an sfp of 30
question
Basal and squamous cell cancers are most likely to appear as which of the following?
answer
a warty bump on face
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A non-cancerous mole is
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symmetrical
question
ue is a 40-year-old female who smokes, frequently uses tanning beds, and drinks 2-3 alcoholic beverages daily. Which of the following statements best indicates her cancer risks
answer
breast, lung, and skin cancer
question
The oncogenes BRCA1 and BRCA2 are associated with increased risks for ________ cancer.
answer
breast
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Excessive alcohol consumption can increase a woman's risk of ________ cancer.
answer
breast
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Which of the following factors has most significantly decreased lung cancer rates in men in recent years?
answer
decreased rates of smoking
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Which controversial factor may actually lower a woman's risk for ovarian cancer but has also been implicated in increasing the risk of breast cancer?
answer
using oral contraceptives
question
The Pap test is the most effective way to detect early stage ________ cancer.
answer
cervical
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Uterine cancer usually occurs in the
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endometrium
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Prostate cancer is most common for males in which of the following age groups?
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over 50
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Which of the following statements regarding prostate cancer is true?
answer
low back pain can be a symptom of prostate cancer
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______ cancer is most common for males between the ages of 20 and 34.
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testicular
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A factor that lowers the risk for colon cancer and rectal cancer is
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diet high in fiber
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A polyp is a
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benign growth in the colon or rectum
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A factor that lowers the risk for pancreatic cancer is
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being female
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Obesity increases the risk of
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colon cancer
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Relative risk is a measure of a person's probability of developing cancer
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while engaging in a known risk behavior
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A potential warning sign of cancer includes
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change in bladder or bowel habits
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Hepatitis, which can be transmitted through use of contaminated intravenous (IV) needles, can increase the risk of ________ cancer.
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liver
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Which of the following food additives is most associated with an increased risk for cancer?
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sodium nitrate
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Stress can increase the risk of cancer primarily by
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weakening immunity
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A woman's risk for breast cancer is decreased by
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early menopause
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Ultraviolet (UV) rays are considered
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carcinogenic
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Cervical cancer is predominantly caused by
answer
HPV
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Radiation exposure that causes cancer can come from
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sunlight
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Which factor is most likely to increase the risk for lung cancer?
answer
working in a uranium mine
question
Which racial group has the highest incidence of prostate cancer in the world?
answer
african americans
question
A primary disadvantage of treating cancer with radiation is
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it also destroys some healthy cells
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New approaches to treating cancer focus on
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reating cancer as a genetic disease caused by a mutation.
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Which form of cancer treatment uses targeted beams of ionizing energy to destroy malignant cells?
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radiation
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Which treatment for cancer is most likely to cause nausea, as a result of damage to rapidly dividing digestive-tract cells?
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chemotherapy
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Which cancer treatment might be used to allow a patient's bone marrow to withstand stronger doses of chemotherapeutic drugs?
answer
gene therapy
Affordable Care Act
Closed Circuit Television
False Claims Act
Health Care Plans
Health Care Practitioner
Managed Care Plans
Patient Centered Medical Home
Primary Care Physician
Chapter 3 Review Answers – Flashcards 32 terms

Joan Grant
32 terms
Preview
Chapter 3 Review Answers – Flashcards
question
Licensure
answer
Involves a mandatory credentialing process established by law, usually at the state level. Required of all physicians, dentists, and nurses in every state.
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Certification
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Involves a voluntary credentialing process, usually national in scope, most often sponsored by a private sector group.
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Registration
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Involves simply paying a fee. Consists simply of an entry in an official record.
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Accreditation
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A process that implies that health care facilities or HMOs have met certain standards.
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Which of the following is mandatory for certain health professionals to practice in their field?
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Licensure
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Licensure to practice medicine is done by
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each individual state
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Which of the following statements best defines accreditation?
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It is a process for officially authorizing health care education programs, facilities, and managed care plans
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Which of the following best defines the osteopathic approach to medicine?
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Emphasizes the musculoskeletal system of the body and the correction of joint and tissue problems
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Allopathic medicine means, literally,
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"Different suffering"
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Which of the following is an example of a tertiary care setting?
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An endoscopic center
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Which of the following is an explanation for the increasing number of medical specialists?
answer
Loss of prestige for generalists
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A physician fails to meet continuing education requirements. He or she is guilty of
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Unprofessional conduct
question
Which of the following is not a purpose of medical practice acts?
answer
To be sure physicians are adequately compensated for their services
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Each state's medical practice acts also provide for the establishment of
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Medical boards
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Laws vary from state to state, but unprofessional conduct for medical professionals usually includes
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Physical abuse of a patient, inadequate record keeping, and failure to meet continuing education requirements
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Physicians' actions generally classified as fraud include
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Falsifying medical diplomas and other credentials, falsifying medical exports, and promising a patient "secret cures" or other special ways to cure an ailment
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The sole authority granted to the federal government in the licensing of physicians is
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the permit issued by the Drug Enforcement Administration for controlled substances
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Physicians today practice primarily
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in group practices
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When two or more physicians practice together, with a written agreement specifying the rights, obligations, and responsibilities of each partner, what is the arrangement called?
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A partnership
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What is an advantage to forming a professional corporation to practice medicine?
answer
The incorporators and owners have limited liability in lawsuits
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Which of the following best defines a managed care health plan?
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A corporation that pays for and delivers care to subscribers
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What is a copayment?
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A set amount that each patient pays for each office visit
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Under this type of plan, insured patients must designate a primary care physician (PCP).
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Gatekeeper or primary care plan
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When physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers contract with one or more HMOs or directly with employers to provide care, what is it called?
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A physician-hospital organization
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Under this type of plan, a patient may see providers outside the plan, but the patient pays a higher portion of the fees.
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Preferred provider plan
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The National Practitioner Data Bank
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is accessible only to hospitals and health care plans
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The Patients' Bill of Rights
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has still not become law
question
What recent federal law provides for the establishment of state-run insurance exchanges?
answer
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
question
Which of the following is not a stated goal of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act?
answer
Ensure that every person has health insurance
question
Which of the following statements best defines telemedicine?
answer
It is medicine that is practiced via telephone, closed-circuit television, fax machine, or Internet
question
Cybermedicine involves
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direct online contact between physicians and patients
question
E-health refers to
answer
increasing use of the Internet for consumer health information
Affordable Care Act
Beliefs And Values
Community Health
Nursing
Private Health Insurance
Public Health
Health care delivery – Flashcards 10 terms

Henry Lowe
10 terms
Preview
Health care delivery – Flashcards
question
a job description for a physician would be to:
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A and C
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a doctor of osteopathic medicine believes in:
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preventive and holistic medicine
question
you have decided to go to medical school. will you become a primary care physician or will you become a specialist? what are the major medical care distinctions between these two majors?
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PCP: first contact/portal to the HCS, focuses on the person as a whole, health promotion/disease prevention,counseling, follow up, acute and chronic illnesses.
question
in the US we have an imbalance of specialty care and primary care. explain this phenomenon.
answer
demographics-inner city to suburbs, development of medical technology, higher reimbursement for specialists, more predictable work hours, higher prestige among colleagues, geographic maldistribution, aggregate physician over supply
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a specialist must:
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A and B
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the health care subdivision of the US economy continues to grow because:
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both A and B
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studies have shown that NPP services can:
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both A and B
question
true or false? most MD's are specialists and most DO's are generalists.
answer
true
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true or false? NPP practice in many areas in which physicians practice; however NPP's do not have a medical degree.
answer
true
question
which answer does not describe a negative consequence of specialty maldistribution?
answer
more predictable hours and higher prestige for specialists
Acute Care Hospitals
Adverse Drug Events
Affordable Care Act
Brand Name Drug
Disease Prevention And Health Promotion
End Stage Renal Disease
National Patient Safety Goals
Private Health Insurance
Public Health
Health Policy 2 – Flashcards 137 terms

Henry Lowe
137 terms
Preview
Health Policy 2 – Flashcards
question
Nation's three largest health professions
answer
Nurses Physicians Pharmacists
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In the United States, approximately 873,000 physicians are professionally active
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1/3 of the physicians are in primary care 2/3 of the physicians are in non-primary care fields
question
Primary activity for physicians that have completed residency:
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90% patient care
question
Licensing
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Licensing of all types of healthcare professionals is a state jurisdiction
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1st Medical School in the United States
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University of Pennsylvania 1765
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Early Medical Training Could be achieved through an apprenticeship or going to a medical school
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Modern Era: Medical Training In 1893, John Hopkins University's School of Medicine started a new era of medical education Implemented many features that are still a standard in medical education
question
John Hopkins University's School of Medicine
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Implemented standards for medical education: 4 year course of study at the graduate school level Competitive selection of students Emphasis on the scientific paradigm of clinical and laboratory science Close link between a medical schools and medical center hospital Cultivation of academically renowned faculty
question
Flexner report **********
answer
Extremely influential More than 30 medical schools closed Academic standards for medical schools became more stringent Only schools meeting the standards of the Licensing Council on Medical education (LCME) were allowed to award MD degrees LCME private agency operating under the authority of medical professional organizations LCME-accredited schools became known as allopathic medical schools
question
Osteopathy
answer
Alternative medical tradition Carries the rank of physician Developed by Andrew Still (1890s) Emphasizes medical manipulation of the body as a therapeutic maneuver Schools of osteopathy award DO degrees and have their own accrediting organization Most state licensing boards grant physicians with MD and DO degrees equivalent scopes of practice and prescription authority
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MD versus DO
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2010 Allopathic (MD) schools had 16,838 graduates while osteopathic (DO) schools had 3,3631
question
Postdoctoral Education: MD
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At least one formal year of education after medical school is required for licensure in most states 1st year of post-doctoral training referred to as an internship with subsequent years referred to as residency Residency training: 3 years - generalist field (i.e. family medicine) 4 to 5 years - specialty training (i.e. surgery & ob-gyn) Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) accredits allopathic (MD) residency training programs
question
Board Certification
answer
American Board of Medical Specialties Once physicians have completed their residency training at one of the ACGME training programs they must pass a test to achieve certification Certification is not required for state licensure
question
Financing Medical Education
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Who pays for the cost of medical education in the United States? Approximately ½ of U.S. medical schools are public state institutions State tax revenues help subsidize medical school education U.S. Federal Government: Plays a minor role in financing medical school education Major source of funding to support residency training
question
Financing Medical Education for MD Medicare
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Allocates "graduate medical education" funding to hospitals that support residency programs Amounts to $9.5 billion annually Includes direct education payments for resident stipends and faculty salaries a education and indirect education payments to defray other costs associated with a teaching hospital
question
Financing Medical Education For MD Medicaid
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Contributes another $3 billion annually to residency education
question
Physician Assistants (PA)
answer
Originated in the United States in 1965 Duke University established the 1st physician assistant (PA) program Work in close collaboration with a physician PAs usually work in the primary care field Training Usually 20 to 36 months About 136 accredited PA schools, 70% award a master's degree, required applicants to have a bachelor's degree Licensing State boards Pas must work under the "delegated authority" of a physician Scope of Practice PA's scope of practice is about 80% of the scope of work of a primary care physician
question
Registered Nurses (RN)
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Represent the largest portion of the healthcare workers in the United States Approximately 80% of the RNs are actively employed in nursing jobs 62% of nurses work in hospitals (primary employment setting) 25% work in ambulatory care or community-based setting 5% in long-term facilities Licensing Exam Administered by National Council of State Boards of Nursing Non-profit organization composed of representatives from each of the state boards of nursing
question
Registered Nurse - Education
answer
Historically Nurses received their education in vocational programs administered by hospitals These programs awarded diplomas Over time nursing education shifted into academic institutions: Associate degree programs Baccalaureate degree programs
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2008 Active nurses
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20% - Received their basic nursing training in diploma programs 45% - Associate degree programs 24% Baccalaureate degree programs Call for Nursing Education Transformation Nursing leaders calling to move all nursing education to the baccalaureate level Studies find that patient have better outcomes when hospitals are staffed by baccalaureate prepared nurses
question
American Association of Colleges of Nursing ****go through the link for 9 essentials will be on test.
answer
The Essentials of a Baccalaureate Education Published in 2008 http://www.aacn.nche.edu/education-resources/BaccEssentials08.pdf Contains 9 "Essentials" Liberal Education Basic Organizational & Systems Leadership Scholarship for EBP Information Management Healthcare Policy Interprofessional Communication & Collaboration for Improving patient Outcomes Clinical Prevention & Population Health Professionalism and Professional Values Baccalaureate Generalist Nursing Practice
question
Enrollment in Nursing Schools Cyclical pattern
answer
Correspond to perception of surpluses and shortages in the labor market for RNs Graduation rates Twice as many nurses graduate with an Associate degree than from a BSN program NCLEX Number of U.S. educated nurses taking the exam increased by 50% from 1990 to 1995
question
Physician versus Nursing Education
answer
Training Unlike physicians, international nursing school graduates do not have to undergo training in the United States to become eligible for licensure International nursing school graduates may sit for licensure Once they pass the NCLEX, they may apply for a visa to work as a nurse U.S. known as the largest importer of nurses 1/3 of internationally educated nurses come from the Philippines
question
Nurse Practitioners (NPs)
answer
8% of RNs in the U.S. have completed advanced practice education Advanced practice nurses include: Clinical nurse specialists Nurse anesthetists Clinical nurse midwives Nurse practitioners Nurse Practitioners Approximately 140,000 active nurse practitioners Largest group of advanced practice nurses
question
NP's program is how long?
answer
Typically 2-year master's degree program Education emphasizes: Primary care Prevention Health promotion Scope of practice 50% to 60% work in primary care settings Enrollment Doubled between 1992 to 1997 Graduates have decreased in recent years
question
NP Licensing & Regulation
answer
Less uniformed across states than for physicians, physician assistants and registered nurses Most states require a Master's degree but some accept less training Scope of practice per state varies Most states require NPs to work with a physician 11 states permit NPs to practice with complete independence from a physician 10 states require physicians to directly supervise NPs Work In primary care settings, NPs perform approximately 80% of the tasks performed by physicians
question
Pharmacists
answer
3rd largest health care profession 2010 Approximately 250,000 pharmacists actively practicing 2004 All pharmacy programs required to extend training by 1 to 2 years and award Doctorate of Pharmacy degrees Work environment Approximately 60% work in retail pharmacies Hospitals second largest employers
question
Social Workers
answer
Training Assessment skills Diagnostic impressions Psychosocial support to patient and families Assist patients with navigation of healthcare system Education Minimum bachelor's degree Most work positions require a master's degree in social work plus state licensure Licensed clinical social workers (LCSWs) Must have a minimum of a master's degree plus 2 years of academic and practical experience in the filed
question
Supply, Demand, & Need
answer
Supply between 1975 to 2005: Registered nurses doubled Physician increased by 75% Pharmacists increased by 50% Perceptions Surplus versus shortages Reduction of enrollment in nursing schools Intensity of work Changes in hospital care created the need for more highly trained RNs. Increased vacancy rates Demand for RNs increased wages
question
Physician Supply & Patient Outcomes
answer
Low supply of physicians is associated with higher mortality Once physician supply is evened, there is little further survival benefit Medicare Beneficiaries residing in areas with high physician supply do not report better access to physicians or higher satisfaction with care and do not receive better quality of care
question
Gender & Health Professions
answer
Physicians & Pharmacists Mostly males Pharmacists: Demographics (Women) 13% (1970) More than half (2010) 61% in pharmacy school (2010) Physicians: Demographics (Women) 8% women (1970) More than 30% (2010) 47% of medical students (2010) Nurses Mostly females 10% of the workforce were men (2008)
question
Gender & Health professions
answer
Women On the average work fewer hours per week More likely to work part-time Female physicians attract more female patients Female physicians deliver more preventive services than male physicians Female physicians appear to communicate differently with their patients More likely to discuss lifestyle and social concerns To give more information and explanations Involve patients in medical decision-making
question
Minorities & Health professions
answer
United States a nation of growing racial and ethnic diversity 2010 U.S. Census: African Americans, Latinos, Native Americans make-up 1/3 of the population Health professions Fail to reflect U.S. racial and ethnic diversity Diversity in Healthcare Workforce 10% pharmacists 9% physicians 8% physician assistants 10% nurses
question
Increasing Minority Representation in healthcare
answer
Nursing schools Minority enrollment in BSN programs Increased from 12.2% (1991) to 18.1% (2005) Medical schools Increased from 1991(12.2%) to 1997 (15.5%) Decreased to 15.5% (2005) Pharmacy Little net increase from 1990 to 2010 Policy concern Minorities communities experience poorer health and access to health care compared to non-Latino whites
question
Minority Healthcare Professionals
answer
More likely to practice to: Serve in underserved communities Serve disadvantaged patients Uninsured Medicaid Research Minority healthcare professionals and minority populations Patients with limited English proficiency have better patient outcomes and experiences when healthcare services are provided by minority professionals Reduction in medication errors
question
Healthcare & Patient Outcomes
answer
United States Each year, millions of patients receive care at hospitals, private medical offices and outpatient clinics Some patients receive excellent care; others are not so fortunate Institute of Medicine's report To Err is Human: Building a Safer Healthcare System (1999) http://www.iom.edu/~/media/Files/Report%20Files/1999/To-Err-is-Human/To%20Err%20is%20Human%201999%20%20report%20brief.pdf An estimated 44,000 to 98,000 patients die each year in hospitals due to preventable medical errors
question
Institute of Medicine Medical errors
answer
Can be defined as "the failure of a planned action to be completed as intended or the use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim" (Institute of Medicine [IOM], 1999). Examples of medical errors include: Adverse drug events Improper infusions Pressure ulcers Suicides Restraint-related injuries or death Mistaken patient identities Falls
question
Medical Error & Nursing
answer
Statistics on Medical Malpractice Payouts & Lawsuits Medical Malpractice Payouts Dollars in payouts: $3.6 billion (3.4 percent less than in 2011) Total payouts for medical malpractice: 12,142 (one every 43 minutes) Payouts resulting from judgments: 5 percent Payouts resulting from settlements: 93 percent
question
Top 5 States for Medical Malpractice Payouts
answer
New York - $763,088,250 Pennsylvania - $316, 167,500 California - $222,926,200 New Jersey - $206,668,250 Florida - $203,671,100
question
According to the Institute of Medicine (1999):
answer
Variety of factors contribute to medical errors Fragmented health care delivery system Lack of access to complete information Failure to investigate broken system Current lack of quality and safety in U.S. healthcare system violates healthcare's mandate of "Do No Harm." Medical errors do not result from "one bad apple" rather they are caused by bad processes, systems, and conditions that lead people to make mistakes or fail to prevent mistakes
question
Strategies for Improvement
answer
Institute of Medicine (1999) recommends: Establishing a national focus "Center for Patient Safety." Developing a national public mandatory reporting system and encouraging organizations and practitioners to report voluntary. Setting and raising performance standards and expectations for patient safety. Implementing safety systems in healthcare organizations to ensure a "culture of safety."
question
Patient Outcomes
answer
In addition to medical errors that lead to patient deaths, inappropriate patient care has also led to negative patient outcomes. An estimated 57,000 people died for not receiving appropriate care for high blood pressure or elevated cholesterol
question
High-Quality Care
answer
What is high-quality healthcare? Helps healthy people stay healthy Cures acute illnesses Allows chronically ill patients to live as long as possible Components of high-quality healthcare include: Access to care Adequate scientific knowledge Competent health care providers Separation of financial and clinical decisions Organization of healthcare institutions to maximize quality
question
High-Quality Care: Components
answer
Access to Care People must have access to care. People with reduced access to care have poor health outcomes than those with access to care. Adequate Scientific Knowledge Physicians must have a body of knowledge at their disposal that distinguishes between effective and ineffective care. Competent Healthcare Providers All healthcare providers must have the skills to diagnose problems and to choose the appropriate treatments. Incompetent healthcare providers result in poor quality care and poor patient outcomes.
question
Medical Negligence & Patient Outcomes
answer
Medical Negligence Defined as "failure to meet the standard of practice of an average qualified physician practicing in the same specialty" (Bodenheimer & Grumbach, 2012). Harvard study 28% of medical injuries were due to negligence Most common injuries were: Drug reactions (19%) Wound infections (14%) Failure to diagnose a condition (8%) Can negligence be equated with incompetence?
question
Money & Quality of Care Impact of financial consideration on the quantity of medical care
answer
Fee-for-service versus capitation Fee-for-service encourages providers to perform more services Capitation payments rewards providers who perform less medical services Most surgeons in the United States are compensated via fee-for-service Bunker (1970) study found that the U.S. performed twice as many surgical procedures as Great Britain. Bunker speculated that the number was due to the way physicians in the U.S. (fee-for-service) were paid versus Great Britain (salary). Thus many of the surgical procedures in the U.S. may be unnecessary
question
Commercialization of Medicine
answer
The introduction of technology and the increase of physician business ventures. In Florida, 40% of practicing physicians owned services to which they referred their patients to. In Florida, physicians owned or partially owned services include: 93% of diagnostic imaging facilities 76% of ambulatory surgery centers 60% of clinical laboratories
question
Impact of medical services on patient outcomes
answer
According to Bodenheimer and Grumbach (2012), "The quantity and quality of medical care are inextricably interrelated. Too much or too little can be injurious."
question
How a healthcare facility or system is organized strongly impacts patient outcomes.
answer
Example: hospitals with more RNs have lower surgical complication rates and lower mortality rates (Bodenheimer & Grumbach, 1999). Quality of care also improves with experience.
question
Crossing the Quality Chasm (2001) Six Core Dimensions of Quality
answer
Safe Avoiding injuries to patients from care that is suppose to help them Effective Providing services based on scientific knowledge and refraining from services that are not likely to produce a benefit Patient-centered Providing care that is respectful of and responsive to the patient Timely Reducing delays that can be harmful to patient Efficient Avoiding waste of equipment, supplies, ideas & energy Equitable Providing the same quality of care to everyone
question
Improving Quality
answer
Continuous quality improvement model (CQI) Shifts the focus from "one bad apple" to one that "seeks to enhance the clinical performance of all systems of care, not just the outliers with fragrant poor quality of care"
question
Joint Commission & Patient Safety
answer
2014 Hospital National Patient Safety Goals The goal is to improve patient safety The Patient Safety Goals include: http://www.jointcommission.org/assets/1/6/2014_HAP_NPSG_E.pdf Identify patients correctly*** Improve staff communication*** Use medicines safely Use alarms safely Prevent infection Identify patient safety risks Prevent mistakes in surgery
question
The Role of Licensure, Accreditation & Peer Review
answer
Licensing Pros All healthcare providers go through training and special licensing exams to ensure they have at least a basic level of knowledge and competence. Cons Not all healthcare providers that pass their licensing exams are competent. No re-examination This may point to a failure in the educational and licensing systems. Another reason may be that the healthcare provider was competent at the time of licensure but with the passage of time their skills have deteriorated. "Don't use it, you lose it" The role of CEUs Hospital competencies
question
Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)
answer
Project began in 2005 Funded by the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation Overall goal "To address the challenge of preparing future nurses with the knowledge, skills, and attitudes (KSAs) necessary to continuously improve the quality and safety of the healthcare system in which they work" (Quality and Safety Education for Nurses, 2012). Website: http://qsen.org/
question
QSEN: Pre-Licensure KSAS
answer
Using the Institute of Medicine's competencies, the QSEN faculty developed a list of pre-licensure knowledge, skills and attitudes future nurses need to acquire before graduating: Patient-Centered Care Teamwork and Collaboration Evidenced-Based Practice (EBP) Quality Improvement (QI) Safety Informatics
question
The Role of Licensure, Accreditation & Peer Review
answer
Certification agencies Require periodic re-examinations to maintain active specialty certification Peer Reviews Traditional approach to quality assurance Evaluation conducted by healthcare providers on fellow peers to determine appropriateness and quality of services Joint Commission requires hospital medical staff to set-up peer review committees for the purpose of maintaining quality of care in their facilities. Joint Commission can terminate hospitals from the Medicare program
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What is the Joint Commission?
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An independent, not-for-profit organization, that accredits and certifies more than 20,500 health care organizations and programs in the United States Mission To continuously improve health care for the public, in collaboration with other stakeholders, by evaluating health care organizations and inspiring them to excel in providing safe and effective care of the highest quality and value.
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Performance Measurement Core Measures
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Core Measures Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) Heart Failure (HF) Pneumonia (PN) Pregnancy and Related Conditions (PR) Childrens' Asthma Care (CAC) Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP) Hospital-Based Inpatient Psychiatric Services (HBIPS) Hospital Outpatient Department (OP) Stroke (STK) Venous Thromboembolism (VTE
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What is a core measure?
answer
Per the Joint Commission, all health care organizations, regardless of what vendor they use, are implementing the measures in the same standardized way, and therefore, these data are comparable across vendors. The Joint Commission calculates national comparison group data based on the hospital-level data submitted by our listed measurement system vendors on behalf of our accredited hospitals.
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Joint Commission: Accountability Measure List
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Go to http://www.jointcommission.org/assets/1/18/2013_Accountability_Measures.pdf to read full list Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) AMI-1 Aspirin at Arrival AMI-2 Aspirin Prescribed at Discharge AMI-3 ACEI or ARB for LVSD AMI-5 1Beta-Blocker Prescribed at Discharge AMI-7a Fibrinolytic Therapy Received Within 30 Minutes of Hospital Arrival AMI-8a Primary Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) Received Within 90 Minutes of Hospital Arrival AMI-10 Statin Prescribed at Discharge
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Clinical Practice Guidelines Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality also known as AHRQ
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Established by U.S. Congress in 1989 Goal is to improve quality of care by developing practice guidelines. Practice guidelines are produced by a panel of experts that make specific recommendations to physicians on how to treat clinical conditions such as diabetes. More than 2000 guidelines exist To access "National Guideline Clearinghouse" got to http://www.guideline.gov/
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Clinical Practice Guidelines
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Practice guidelines can assist but do not replace clinical judgment and are not always appropriate. They can be useful when used in computer systems to remind physicians what services should be included in certain diagnoses. Example CPOE or Computerized Physician Order Entry
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Measuring Practice Patterns
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Central to the continuous quality improvement (CQI) model is the need for regular monitoring of healthcare providers. Two basic types of indicators used to evaluate clinical performance: Process measures Outcomes measures
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Clinical Performance Indicators
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Process measures Refer to types of services delivered by caregivers Example: Prescribing aspirin to patients with coronary heart disease Turning immobile patients in hospital beds to prevent bed sores To be considered a valid indicator of quality, must show that process influence patient outcomes Outcomes measures Include death, symptoms, mental health, physical functioning, and related aspects of health status. Maybe impacted by severity of illness and other patient characteristics and not just quality of care. Must be risk adjusted More challenging to use outcomes measures to evaluate quality than process measures
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Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)
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CQI involves the identification of concrete problems AND the formation of interdisciplinary teams to gather data and propose and implement solutions to the problems. The Institute for Healthcare improvement (IHI) has led efforts to spread CQI by sponsoring collaboratives. Collaboratives are 10 to 12 month programs were teams from various organizations work with each other and IHI faculty to rapidly test and implement changes that lead to lasting improvement
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Electronic Medical Records (EMRs)
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Improve care Can create list of patients Generate reminders for physicians and patients Reduce medical errors due to drug prescriptions Computer programs can alert physicians about inappropriate medication doses or medication allergies Have not proven to significantly improve quality
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Public Reporting of Quality
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Release of quality of care measures to the public Commonly referred to as "report cards" Goal is to empower healthcare consumers to select higher quality providers and institutions by providing information to them.
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New York State Department of Health
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Report Cards Initiated in 1990 Data released by the New York State of Department of Health indicated: Patients did not switch from hospitals with high-mortality to low-mortality In 4 years, overall risk-adjusted coronary artery bypass mortality dropped by 41%
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Pay for Reporting
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Medicare program Initiated reporting for hospitals in 2003 Program called the Hospital Quality Initiative It is voluntary Non-participating hospitals receive a reduction in their Medicare payments Since program started some measures have improved Measures included: Heart attack Heart failure Pneumonia The public can access the hospital reports at www.hospitalcompare.hhs.gov
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Pay for Performance (P4P)
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Goes beyond reporting Physicians or hospitals receive more money if their quality measures exceed certain benchmarks or if their measures improve from year to year (Bodenheimer & Grumbach, 2012). Examples: Integrated Healthcare Association (IHA)
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Integrated Healthcare Association
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One of the largest pay for performance programs Set of uniform performance measures Consists of 7 health plans, 221 physician organizations involving 35,000 physicians and 10 million patients In 2010, health plans paid $49 million to physicians in performance-based bonuses. IHA program unique All major health plan collaborated in choosing measures Most physicians in California belong to a large medical group pr independent practice association
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Critics of pay for performance argue:
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That P4P programs could encourage physicians and hospitals to avoid high-risk patients. Another issue with P4P is that many patients see many physicians for different types of problems making it impossible to determine which physician should get the bonus. Examples: Cardiologist, Endocrinologist, Nephrologists, etc) P4P could increase disparities in quality by rewarding physicians and hospitals that care for higher-income patients and have more resources than institutions that care for vulnerable populations and are resource-poor
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Malpractice Reform Goals of malpractice system:
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To financially compensate people who in the course of seeking medical care have suffered medial injuries To prevent physicians and other healthcare personnel from negligently causing harm to their patients Harvard Medical Practice study Only 2% of patients who suffer adverse events caused by medical negligence file malpractice claims
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Malpractice Reform
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As many of 40% of malpractice claims do not involve true medical errors 25% of these inappropriate claims result in patient receiving monetary compensation "Malpractice system is burdened with expensive, unfounded litigation that harass physicians who have done nothing wrong while failing to discipline or educate most physicians that commit actual medical negligence and to compensate most true victims
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Malpractice Reform Options
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Tort reform Placing limits on malpractice awards to paid patients Alternative dispute resolution Substituting mediation and arbitration for jury trials Use of practice guidelines Improving the ability to determine whether a physician was negligent No-fault reform Providing compensation to patients suffering medical injury regardless of whether the injury is due to negligence Enterprise liability Making institutions responsible for compensating medical injuries on a no-fault basis, thereby creating incentives for institutions to improve quality of care provided
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U.S. Healthcare System
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U.S. Healthcare System is a 2.5 trillion dollar system. Four important players: purchasers, Insurers, Providers and suppliers
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U.S. Healthcare System (purchasers)
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Include: individuals, employers, & government Purchasers supply the funds. They include individual consumers, businesses that pay for health insurance for their employees, government public programs (Medicare and Medicaid).
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U.S. Healthcare System (Insurers)
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Insurers receive money from the purchasers (individuals and businesses) and reimburse the providers when the policyholders require medical care. Some insurers are the same as purchasers (ie. Medicare and Medicaid programs).
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U.S. Healthcare System (Providers)
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Include: hospitals, nursing homes, home care agencies, physicians, pharmacies, etc. In the past purchasers viewed the expenses of the insurers, providers, and suppliers as an investment into better healthcare. Today there is a conflict- the purchasers want the healthcare industry (insurers, suppliers and providers) to reduce spending and the suppliers want to increase the amount spent on healthcare
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U.S. Healthcare System (Suppliers)
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Medical & pharmaceutical suppliers, computer equipment ing this time period, independent hospitals and small private physician offices populated the U.S. health delivery system Some large institutions combined hospital and physician care. Examples: Kaiser-Permanente system & Mayo Clinic A defining feature of the healthcare industry at this time was an alliance between insurers and providers. The provider-Insurer pact was created when Blue Cross and Blue Shields formed an alliance. At the time, Blue Cross was formed by the American Hospital Association and Blue Shield was run by the state medical societies affiliated with the American Medical Association.
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1945-1970: The Provider-Insurer Pact
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Health care inflated at a rapid rate since reimbursement rules were formulated by physicians, hospitals, and Blue Shield Medicare and Medicaid programs (enacted in 1965) had the same reimbursement provisions as private patients during this period.
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1945-1970: The Provider-Insurer Pact Results:
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The development of many independent hospitals and many small private practices Many private insurers Providers tended to dominate the insurers Purchasers had little power Reimbursement for providers was generous
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Purchaser disinterest was due to a
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healthy economy since U.S. businesses controlled domestic and foreign markets. Labor unions had generous wages and benefits. Business could afford these costs since the economic growth was robust and profits were high. In addition there was a tax subsidy for health insurance since payments for employees health were tax-deductable business expenses. No "brakes" on cost for a system that equated proliferation of biomedical breakthroughs with health improvements in people's lives.
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1970s - Tensions Develop
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Conflict between providers and insurers Purchasers (especially government) concerned about costs of health care In early 1970s, the U.S. fell from it position of postwar economic dominance. Western Europe and Japan start to gain ground in the world markets. U.S. industrial production dropped from 60% in the 1950s to 30% in 1980. Insurers begin to question generous reimbursements to providers
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1970s - Tensions Develop Result:
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Federal government established a network of health planning agencies to slow growth of hospitals. Peer and Utilization reviews were established to monitor appropriateness of MD services under Medicare and the glut of unused hospital beds and reduce length of stay. State governments started to regulate hospital construction and hospital rate regulation. Insurers demanded that services be provided at lower costs. Blue Cross legally separated from the American Hospital Association in 1972.
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1980s: Revolt of the Purchasers
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Late 1980s produced a severe shock: employer-sponsored health plans increased Many large corporations started to self-insured Purchasers (businesses now joining government) very concerned about health costs - cutting into their profits Reduction in heath costs through: Medicare DRGs (1983) Fee schedules HMOs (Managed care plans become dominant) Selective contracting by purchasers and insurers
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Businesses profits are adversely affected since
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the percentage of total payroll spent on employee health benefits almost doubled from 5% (1976) to 9.7% (1988). 40% of businesses have employer-sponsored health benefits (self-insured plans). With the troubled economy, rising health costs, and self-insurance plans, big businesses got into the center of the health policy debate! Businesses advocate for managed care (especially HMOs) as a cost-control device. The shift from fee-for-service to capitated reimbursement which transfers health expenditure risk from the purchaser and insurer to providers.
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1990s: The Breakup of the Provider-Insurer Pact
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Selective contracting tended to disorganize rather than organize medical care patterns MDs were forced to admit patients from one HMO to one hospital and those from another HMO to a different hospital. Labs and other contracted specialties were sometimes across town. With selective contracting, insurers and purchasers start to have more input into reimbursement rates. Independent hospitals begin to merge into hospital systems.
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HMOs lost enrollees if their premiums were too high
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HMOs lost enrollees if their premiums were too high. Providers who demanded high payments from HMOs were cut out and therefore lost patients. Large integrated health networks (HMOs)are formed and compete with private insurance, Medicare, or Medicaid Large physician groups develop Insurance companies dominate manage care markets For-profit hospitals increase in importance
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Insurers gain power over providers Period of purchaser dominance (especially employers) in healthcare
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Government stops Medicare inflation through the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (expenditures actually declined) HMO enrollees expand from 40 million in 1990 to 80 million in 1999
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The New Millennium: Provider Power Reemerges
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Consolidation in the Health Care Market (Insurers, MDs, Hospitals) Growing Power of Specialists and Specialty for profit service centers Increasing Physician-Hospital tensions (MDs taking business away) For profit- a threat to traditional professionalism and community service ( economic motivation clash with the professional commitment to patient welfare.)
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The Provider Counter-Revolution
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HMOs enrollments dropped from 32% to 19% of insured employees. Instead, PPO (preferred provider organization) enrollment grew from 30% to 60% of insured employees. Hospitals consolidate into hospital "systems" and demand more money from insurers. Physicians balked at tight managed care contracts Negotiation between health care providers and insurers became hostile
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Consolidation in the Health Care Market
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Intense competition stimulated consolidation among insurers and providers to improve bargaining power Large HMOs bought smaller ones In most states, three (Wellpoint, United Healthcare & Aetna)large insurance companies dominated more than 60% of the market
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Providers also consolidated
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By 2001, 65% of hospitals were members of multi-hospital systems or networks Hospital prices often rose after consolidation Specialists increasingly joined single-specialty groups Private primary care and specialty practices were being acquired by hospital systems to increase their market clout
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Consolidation went hand-in-hand with organizations converting from non-profit to for-profit status
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For -profit hospitals provide less charity care, treat fewer Medicaid patients, lower quality, and higher administrative costs due to being investor owned. Non-profit community hospitals are competing too- these hospitals are creating "specialty service lines" to attract specialist physicians and well-insured patients:
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Pharmaceutical Industry Comes Under Criticism
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Rising tensions among purchaser, insurers and providers spilled over to healthcare's major supplier: the pharmaceutical industry 1988 Prescription drugs accounted for 5.5% of national health expenditures At the time, 71% of drug costs were paid by individuals Private insurance companies only covered 18% The growing costs of drugs and the elderly became a major national issue Because of its unaffordable prices and high profits
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In the U.S., drug companies are very profitable
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Earning net profits after taxes close to 20% of revenues compared with 5% for all Fortune 500 firms Pharmaceutical companies argues that their high drug prices are justified due to the cost of research and development of new drugs Unlike many other nations, the U.S. does not regulate drug prices as a result of drug industry lobbying A 2003, Medicare law forbids the government from regulating drug prices
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Drug companies developing new brand name drugs enjoy a 20-year patent
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During this time period, no other company can produce the same drug Once the patent expires, generic drug manufacturers can compete by selling the same product at lower prices 2009 Drug companies spent $7 billion on sales representative to visit physicians to persuade them to use brand name medications and not generic equivalents
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Nursing and Policy
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Policy and politics are the ways and means that nurses can use to influence the quality, safety, and accessibility of patient care. Nurses need to be key change agents since nursing is concerned with health issues that are subject to frequent policy changes at all levels. Therefore every action and decision that influences health and the health system should be important to nurses. Understanding the policymaking process permits nurses to determine when and how to intervene to shape a policy to benefit a patient.
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Policy Making and Nursing
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Policy making is a complex, multidimensional, dynamic process; ....it encompasses the choices that a society or organization makes regarding its goals and priorities and the ways it allocates its resources to attain those goals. Politics simply means the process of influencing the allocation of scarce resources ($). Politics is often associated with "conflicting values". Nurses can improve the health of people by developing influence in four interconnected spheres: the workplace, government, professional organizations, and community
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Types of Policy
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Public Policy- Social Policy- Health Policy- Institutional Policies- Organizational Policies-
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Public Policy-
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formed by governmental bodies (ie. Legislation passed by Congress such as the ACA).
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Social Policy-
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pertains to policy decisions that promote welfare of the public (ie. A local age limit ordinance).
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Institutional Policies-
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those that govern workplaces such as hospitals. Magnet hospitals have nurses involved in decision making policies at all levels of the institution.
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Organizational Policies-
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positions taken by organizations such as the ANA, or NLN.
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Health Policy-
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decisions made to promote the health of individual citizens (ie. gov't paid smoking cessation program)
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Advocacy
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the act of pleading are arguing in favor of something such as a policy or interest active support of an idea.
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Beneficence
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Is the obligation to care for patients to the best of one's ability
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Nonmaleficence
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Is the duty of healthcare providers "to do no harm"
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Autonomy
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Is the right of a person to choose and follow his or her own plan of life and action
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Justice
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Treating everyone in a fair manner
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What is rationing?
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General view • Rationing is limitation of medical care such that not all care expected to be beneficial is provided to all patients. • Example: Lack of intensive care beds
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Rationing within One Health Program: The Oregon Health Plan
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WORKED Rationing within one health program • 1994 (Bodenheimer & Grumbach, 2012) • Oregon added 100,000 poor uninsured to its Medicaid program • To control costs, a prioritized list of services was created • List based on how much improvement in quantity and quality of life the treatment was likely to produce • Final list contained 745 treatment pairs • State of Oregon paid for items above line 574 on the list • Condition below 574 were not covered • In addition, the state legislature of Oregon, decided what services would be covered • 2004 • Plan enrollees dropped out of the program • Rate of uninsured climbed from 11% to 17%
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The Oregon Health Plan Pros:
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• Plan more than a rationing proposal • Chief feature was to extend health care coverage • This aspect of the plan promotes justice • Attempt to prioritize medical care based on effectiveness • If rationing is needed this is a reasonable method to eliminate services
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The Oregon Health Plan Cons:
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• Some features may be viewed as negatively impacting distributive justice • 1996 • 12% of beneficiaries denied services because they were below the priority list line • Of those denied, 78% stated their health worsened • Medical services were rationed for individuals in this plan but not anyone else
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American Nurses Association's Social Policy Statement
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Nursing is the protection, promotion, and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering through diagnosis and treatment of human response and advocacy in the care of individuals, families, communities and populations
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• Attempts to legislate national health insurance
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1912-1919 American Association for Labor legislation (first one) 1946-1949 Wagner-Murray-Dingell bill supported by president Truman 1963-1965 Medicare and Medicaid passed as first step toward national health insurance 1970-1974 Kennedy and Nixon proposal 1991-1994 Variety of proposals introduced, including president Clinton's plan 2009-2010 Patient Protection and Affordable Care ACT signed into law by President Obama
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• The Pluralistic Reform Model: The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010
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• Passed ACA w/o any republican vote • Obama signed the most significant health legislation (March 23.2010) since Medicare/Aid in 1965 • "Socialized medicine" and "government takeover of health care" • Financing model of ACA- Individual and employer mandates for private insurance and an expansion of the publicly financed Medicaid program • Resembled Mitt Romney's Massachusetts Health Plan of 2006
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• You need to know 4 numbers from affordable care act. When ACHA came into effect.
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1. Individual mandate: all US citizens and legal residents to have insurance coverage • Meeting federally determined "essential benefits" standard • Consequences of not purchasing insurance or don't qualify for public programs will pay tax penalty (2016) • Must pay 2.5% of their income 2. Employer mandate: employers with 50 or more employees face a financial penalty if their employees are not enrolled in an employer-sponsored health plan meeting the essential benefit standard • Any of their employees apply for federal subsidies for individually purchased insurance 3. Medicaid eligibility expansion: required to be low income and a "categorical" eligibility requirement (being a child or an adult with permanent disability) • ACA eliminated the categorical eligibility requirement and required that all states made all US citizens and legal residents below the 133% Federal Poverty Level eligible for their Medicaid program 4. Insurance market regulation: new rules on private insurance • Allow adults up to 26 yrs. old to be dependents under their parent's health insurance • Eliminates caps on total insurance benefits payouts • Prohibits denial of coverage based on pre-existing conditions • Limits the extent of experience rating to a max ratio of 3-1 between a plan's highest and lowest premium charge for same benefit package (came up with a formula)
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• The Pharmaceutical Industry Comes Under Criticism
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• Increase cost of pharmaceuticals for the elderly ---major national issue • Was becoming public enemy #1 due to unaffordable prices and high profits • High drug prices are due to its expenditures on research and development of new drugs • U.S Gov't does not impose regulated prices on drugs... result of drug industry lobbying • Medicare prescription drug coverage law passed in 2003 forbid gov't to regulate drug prices • Drug industry—largest contributor within health industry • Companies developing new brand name drug enjoy patent for 20 yrs. from date it was filed and no other company can produce the same drug • Once patent is expired, generic drug manufacturers can compete by selling same product at lower prices • Some drug companies waged legal battled to delay patent expirations on their brand name products or paid generic drug companies not to make a generic • Persuade physicians and patients to use brand names • FDA sent letters to drug manufacturers citing advertising violations (minimizing S/E and exaggerating benefits) • Physician-industry relationship cause them to prescribe the most expensive and whose safety has not been evaluated adequately • Most trials to determine efficacy of prescription drugs funded by drug's manufacturer • In 2006, 18 relatively new drugs removed from market because of serious S/E (hid them from FDA) or FDA ignored evidence • More use of generic and brand name drug companies are starting to produce generics • Generic industry booming to fewer and larger companies
question
Which are the three major health insurance on the market????
answer
In most states, three (WellPoint, United Healthcare & Aetna) large insurance companies dominated more than 60% of the market
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• Who Provides Long-Term Care?
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• Families • Medicare • Medicaid • Private Long-term Care Insurance
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Activities requiring assistance in long-term care
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• ADL's basic human function- Feeding, dressing, bathing or showering, getting to the toilet, getting in an out of a chair or bed, Dealing with incontinence • ADL's to maintain independence-doing housework, laundry, preparing meals, shop, using transportation, Managing finances • Making and keeping appointments, taking meds, telephoning
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• Private Long-Term Care Insurance-
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The elderly is the largest market for private insurance, must be dependent for three ADL's to receive home health care. Yet many that have fewer than 3 ADL's may need long-term care. And their insurance may pay nothing. Usually, have large deductibles pay fixed daily fee then reimbursing actual charges. Insurance pays 150 a day, nursing home charges 220 a day and the patient pays 70 dollars out of pocket.
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• Medicare Long-Term Coverage
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• Medicare • Does not cover assistance with ADLs that are considered custodial services • Medicare only covers or pays for only "skilled care" • Examples of skilled care include: • Registered nurses in a hospital facility, nursing home, or home care services • RNs provide a wide variety of services: • Changing wound dressings, taking blood pressures, assessing heart and lung sounds, reviewing patient compliance with medications and providing patient education (diabetes, hypertension and heart failure). • Usually covers services after an "acute" hospitalization • Does not cover care for "chronic conditions"
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• Individual or Population -
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The medical model seeks to identify high-risk individuals and offer them individual protection often by counseling on such topics as smoking cessation and low fat diet. The public health approach seeks to reduce disease in the population as a whole, using such methods as mass education campaigns to counter drinking and driving, and taxation of tobacco to drive up prices. Labeling of foods to indicate fat and cholesterol content
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• What is Prevention?
answer
• Primary prevention- anti-smoking campaign • Seeks to avoid disease and injury • Examples: Immunization • Secondary prevention • Refers to early detention of disease and intervention to stop the condition from progressing • Examples: Pap smears & Mammograms
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Pay for Reporting WHEN IT STARTED WHAT IT IS NO REPORTING= NO PAY
answer
• Medicare program o Initiated reporting for hospitals in 2003 o Program called the Hospital Quality Initiative o It is voluntary o Non-participating hospitals receive a reduction in their Medicare payments o Since program started some measures have improved • Measures included: • Heart attack • Heart failure • Pneumonia • Surgical care and other measures have been added o Physician Quality Reporting system in 2007--- physician who report certain quality measures may receive 2% increase in Medicare fees o Physician(s) reports are not made public
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Continuous Quality Improvement
answer
• CQI involves the identification of concrete problems AND the formation of interdisciplinary teams to gather data and propose and implement solutions to the problems. • The Institute for Healthcare improvement (IHI) has led efforts to spread CQI by sponsoring collaborative. • Collaborative are 10 to 12 month programs were teams from various organizations work with each other and IHI faculty to rapidly test and implement changes that lead to lasting improvement (Institute of Healthcare Improvement, 2009
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Proposals for Improving Quality
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• Institute of Medicine (1999) recommends: • Establishing a national focus "Center for Patient Safety." • Developing a national public mandatory reporting system and encouraging organizations and practitioners to report voluntary. • Setting and raising performance standards and expectations for patient safety. • Implementing safety systems in healthcare organizations to ensure a "culture of safety."
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Institute of Medicine's To Err is Human
answer
REPORT 1999 THE WAY WE SEE HEALTH CARE AND HOW IT MANAGES IT SELF. 98,000 DIE DUE TO ERRORS • Medical errors • Can be defined as "the failure of a planned action to be completed as intended or the use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim" (Institute of Medicine [IOM], 1999). • Examples of medical errors include: • Adverse drug events • Improper infusions • Pressure ulcers • Suicides • Restraint-related injuries or death • Mistaken patient identities • Falls • Adequate Access to Care -
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• Computerized Information Systems
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HEALTH CARE • Electronic Medical Records (EMRs) • Improve care • Can create list of patients • Generate reminders for physicians and patients • Reduce medical errors due to drug prescriptions • Computer programs can alert physicians about inappropriate medication doses or medication allergies • Have not proven to significantly improve quality
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• Traditional Quality Assurance: Licensure, Accreditation, and Peer Review -ENSURE
answer
• Certification agencies • Require periodic re-examinations to maintain active specialty certification • Peer Reviews • Traditional approach to quality assurance • Evaluation conducted by healthcare providers on fellow peers to determine appropriateness and quality of services • Joint Commission requires hospital medical staff to set-up peer review committees for the purpose of maintaining quality of care in their facilities. • Joint Commission can terminate hospitals from the Medicare program if it finds that the hospital's quality is deficient. •
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• Regulatory Strategies
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• In a nation with tax-financed health insurance, government regulation of taxes serves as a control over public expenditures for health care. Most evident when certain tax funds are earmarked for health insurance (German health insurance plans or Medicare part A) tax hikes will anchor inflation on health care.
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• Categories of Cost Controls
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• Financing controls Regulatory limits on taxes or premiums Competitive Reimbursement Controls Price controls Regulatory Competitive Utilization controls Aggregate units of payment, capitation, diagnosis-related groups Global budgets Patient cost sharing Utilization management Supply limits Mixed controls.
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• Utilization Management
answer
MRI-VERY EXPENSIVE CONTROL COST THROUGH DR. PREAUTHORIZATION. Utilization management involves the surveillance of and intervention in the clinical activities of physicians for the purpose of controlling costs. • Seeks to influence physician behavior. • The mechanism is simple and direct: denial of payment for services it deems unnecessary. • UM has been criticized as a process of micro-management of clinical decisions that intrudes into the physician-patient relationship. A few case studies on UM have shown some short-term reduction in hospitalization rates and surgery BUT there is little evidence that this approach yields substantial savings • UM appears to be a "painless" form of cost control because it selectively reduces inappropriate or unnecessary care
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Patient Cost Sharing-
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Occurs at the point of purchase Examples: deductibles, copayments, and uncovered services as part of the reimbursement transaction. This method makes patients pay a share of costs at the "point of receiving health care services". The primary intent: to discourage patient demand for services. When patients have to pay a greater amount of out of pocket expenses, it tends to discourage them. Rand experiment: Evaluated the influence of cost-sharing on appropriateness of care and health outcomes â—¦ Individuals were randomly assigned to health insurance plans with varying degrees of cost sharing â—¦ Individuals with cost-sharing plans versus individuals with no cost-sharing plans Made about 1/3 fewer visits Hospitalized 1/3 less often â—¦ Cost sharing did not reduce medically inappropriate use of services selectively but equally discouraged use of appropriate and inappropriate services Low income patients received less preventive services and had poorer HTN control than those without cost sharing Patients are less likely to purchase needed medications under cost-sharing policies (i.e. Medicare part D's "donut hole") leading to worst control of chronic diseases. This study suggest that cost sharing, which attempts to restrict health care use by influencing patient behavior, is not a painless form of cost control. This study suggest patient cost-sharing is "not painless"
question
Pay for reporting benefits High-quality care components • What is high-quality healthcare?
answer
• o Helps healthy people stay healthy o Cures acute illnesses o Allows chronically ill patients to live as long as possible
Affordable Care Act
Disease Prevention And Health Promotion
Hill Burton Act
Insurance
Public Health
United States
CHS 13 – Flashcard 30 terms

Mary Browning
30 terms
Preview
CHS 13 – Flashcard
question
A negotiated set amount that a patient pays for certain services is a:
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copayment
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An example of an allied health care professional is a:
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nurse
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A written agreement between a private insurance company and an individual or group of individuals to pay for certain health care costs during a certain time period in return for regular, periodic payments is a health insurance:
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policy
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In the third-party payment system, the patient is the
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first party
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In the third-party payment system, the provider is the
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second party
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Managed care is a system of health care delivery that focuses on
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all of the above
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Medicare is available to those:
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with certain disabilities
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Restorative care is a component of:
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long-term practice
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The amount of expenses that the beneficiary must incur before the insurance company begins to pay for covered services is the:
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deductible
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The government insurance program that specifically targets low-income children who are ineligible for other insurance coverage is:
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CHIP
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The part of Medicare that is prescription drug coverage is:
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PART D
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The part of Medicare that is the hospital insurance portion is:
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PART A
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The type of health care practice that incorporates interventions aimed at disease prevention and health promotion is:
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population-based public health practice
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The type of managed care that buys fixed-rate health services from providers and sells them to consumers is:
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PPO'S
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Those lacking the financial ability to pay for their own medical care are referred to as:
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medically indigent
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True or False? A clinic is a facility in which two or more physicians practice as a group.
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T
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True or False? Chiropractors are the most often used nonallopathic providers.
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T
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True or False? Health care delivery in the United States is very similar to other developed countries.
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F
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True or False? Health care workers who have the specialized education and legal authority to treat any health problem or disease are independent providers.
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T
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True or False? Laboratory technicians are considered to be allied health care professionals.
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T
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True or False? Nurses are an example of limited care providers.
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F
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True or False? Of employed registered nurses, the largest majority work in offices of physicians.
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F
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True or False? Public hospitals are often found in small, rural communities.
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F
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True or False? Self-care has been used historically in America, and is still used today.
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T
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True or False? The Hill-Burton Act provided substantial funds for medical education.
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F
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True or False? The internship year is the second year of a medical residency program.
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F
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True or False? The Joint Commission is the predominant organization responsible for accrediting health care facilities.
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T
question
True or False? The largest amount of all health care workers today are employed in nursing/residential facilities.
answer
F
question
True or False? The major determinants of access to health care in the United States are insurance coverage and the generosity of that coverage.
answer
T
question
True or False? The spectrum of health care delivery refers to the various types of care.
answer
T
Affordable Care Act
Iraq And Afghanistan
Progressive Era
Public Policy
Regulate Interstate Commerce
Violent Crime Rate
Texas GOVT 2306 Chapter Eleven – Flashcards 24 terms

Pedro Huang
24 terms
Preview
Texas GOVT 2306 Chapter Eleven – Flashcards
question
Which of the following is a step in the policy-making cycle?
answer
policy evaluation
question
In some cases, the policy implementation stage of the policy cycle is
answer
skipped altogether because the new policy is symbolic.
question
Which state was rated the most liberal in the SPI policy liberalism ranking in 2006?
answer
New York
question
Compared to the other states, where did Texas fall in the SPI policy liberalism ranking in 2006?
answer
46th
question
In lieu of purchasing workers' compensation insurance, employers in Texas
answer
don't have to do anything, unless an injured employee files a civil law suit.
question
Starting with the 2011-2012 school year, students are taking the ________ exam at the end of the course in the ninth, tenth, and eleventh grades.
answer
State of Texas Assessment of Academic Readiness
question
Bilingual education in Texas dates back to the early twentieth century, when ________ in Texas wanted to teach their native language(s) in the schools.
answer
Germans
question
The result of tuition "deregulation" in 2003 was
answer
a near doubling of tuition rates between 2003 and 2011.
question
Why are most degrees in Texas state universities limited to 120 hours?
answer
to save the state money
question
If a student takes more than the allowed hours (as set by the legislature) to complete his or her degree, the student
answer
must pay the out-of-state tuition rate.
question
The ________ was established by the Texas Constitution of 1876 to support the University of Texas and Texas A&M University systems.
answer
Permanent University Fund
question
Which of the following ended affirmative action practices at the University of Texas law school?
answer
the Hopwood decision
question
What state has the lowest incarceration rate?
answer
Maine
question
In Texas an initial permit to carry a concealed firearm costs about ________.
answer
$260
question
When does Texas allow the public funding of abortions? cases of rape cases of incest when the life of the mother is endangered
answer
All these answers are correct.
question
What rationale did some legislators use when they opposed Governor Rick Perry's executive order requiring all Texas schoolgirls to be vaccinated against the human papillomavirus?
answer
The young women would become more promiscuous.
question
Based on the 1981 U.S. Supreme Court decision in ________, all states are required to provide K-12 education for undocumented immigrants and their children.
answer
Plyler v. Doe
question
An acre is 43,560 square feet. For purposes of allocating water rights, water is measured in "acre feet". How many cubic feet of water are there in two acre feet?
answer
87,120
question
The Texas Veterans Leadership Program, established in 2008 under the Texas Workforce Commission, focuses on
answer
veterans of the Iraq and Afghanistan wars.
question
Texas's approach to regulation of which of the following policies is considered less friendly to business?
answer
professional licensing regulations
question
Who pays the largest part of the cost of K-12 education in Texas?
answer
local districts
question
According to estimates of the Kaiser Commission on Medicaid and the Uninsured and Urban Institute, Texas spent approximately ________ per Medicaid enrollee in fiscal year 2009.
answer
$9,000
question
When the incarceration rate is adjusted for the violent crime rate, Texas's "residuals" rank
answer
is above the national average.
question
In 2003 the U.S. Supreme Court found that antisodomy laws were unconstitutional in the case of
answer
Lawrence v. Texas.
Affordable Care Act
Iraq And Afghanistan
Public Policy
Violent Crime Rate
2306 Chapter 11 – Flashcards 53 terms

Michael Seabolt
53 terms
Preview
2306 Chapter 11 – Flashcards
question
Which of the following is a step in the policy-making cycle?
answer
D. policy evaluation
question
Which of the following steps in the policy-making cycle occurs first?
answer
C. agenda setting
question
Which of the following steps in the policy-making cycle occurs last?
answer
D. policy evaluation
question
In some cases, the policy implementation stage of the policy cycle is
answer
A. skipped altogether because the new policy is symbolic.
question
Which state was rated the most liberal in the SPI policy liberalism ranking in 2006?
answer
A. New York
question
Compared to the other states, where did Texas fall in the SPI policy liberalism ranking in 2006?
answer
A. 46th
question
State governments regulate all of the following, EXCEPT
answer
A. using Army troops to patrol the border.
question
In lieu of purchasing workers' compensation insurance, employers in Texas
answer
C. don't have to do anything, unless an injured employee files a civil law suit.
question
Texas's approach to regulation of which of the following policies is considered less friendly to business?
answer
B. professional licensing regulations
question
Compared to other states, Texas's per capita welfare spending is
answer
A. well below average.
question
Under the Affordable Care Act
answer
B. insurance companies cannot deny coverage to people with preexisting conditions.
question
How do Texans sign up for the Affordable Care Act?
answer
C. through the federally run exchange
question
Prior to the implementation of the Affordable Care Act, the percentage of Texans who did not have health insurance
answer
A. was the highest in the nation.
question
Who pays the largest part of the cost of K-12 education in Texas?
answer
D. local districts
question
Who pays the second-largest part of the cost of K-12 education in Texas?
answer
B. the state government
question
Starting with the 2011-2012 school year, students are taking the ________ exam to assess their academic progress.
answer
A. State of Texas Assessment of Academic Readiness
question
Bilingual education in Texas dates back to the early twentieth century, when ________ in Texas wanted to teach their native language(s) in the schools.
answer
C. Germans
question
The result of tuition "deregulation" in 2003 was
answer
B. a near doubling of tuition rates between 2003 and 2011.
question
Why are most degrees in Texas state universities limited to 120 hours?
answer
B. to save the state money
question
If a student takes more than the allowed hours (as set by the legislature) to complete his or her degree, the student
answer
A. must pay the out-of-state tuition rate
question
The ________ was established by the Texas Constitution of 1876 to support the University of Texas and Texas A&M University systems.
answer
A. Permanent University Fund
question
Which of the following ended affirmative action practices at the University of Texas
answer
B. the Hopwood decision
question
A state law mandates that the top __ percent of the graduating class of a high school be admitted to state colleges and universities.
answer
C. 10
question
What state has the lowest incarceration rate?
answer
D. Maine
question
When the incarceration rate is adjusted for the violent crime rate, Texas's "residuals" rank
answer
C. is above the national average.
question
In Texas an initial permit to carry a concealed firearm costs about ________.
answer
D. $260
question
In 2003 the U.S. Supreme Court found that antisodomy laws were unconstitutional in the case of
answer
C. Lawrence v. Texas.
question
When does Texas allow the public funding of abortions?
answer
A. cases of rape B. cases of incest C. when the life of the mother is endangered D. All of these answers are correct.
question
What rationale did some legislators use when they opposed Governor Rick Perry's executive order requiring all Texas schoolgirls to be vaccinated against the human papillomavirus?
answer
A. The young women would become more promiscuous.
question
Based on the 1981 U.S. Supreme Court decision in ________, all states are required to provide K-12 education for undocumented immigrants and their children.
answer
D. Plyler v. Doe
question
An acre is 43,560 square feet. For purposes of allocating water rights, water is measured in "acre feet." How many cubic feet of water are there in two acre feet?
answer
C. 87,120
question
Groundwater in Texas
answer
C. is owned by the person who owns the land above it.
question
The Texas Veterans Leadership Program, established in 2008 under the Texas Workforce Commission, focuses on
answer
A. veterans of the Iraq and Afghanistan wars.
question
Which of the following is the last step in James Anderson's policy cycle?
answer
policy evaluation
question
Which of the following stages of the policy cycle is often skipped for measures like state bans on gay marriage?
answer
policy implementation
question
Which of the following shows where the State Policy Index policy liberalization index ranks Texas?
answer
among the five most conservative states
question
In which of the following categories is Texas relatively less friendly to business?
answer
occupational and professional licensing
question
The failed legislative "Robin Hood Plan" was designed to do which of the following?
answer
end the funding disparity among school districts in Texas
question
Which of the following major changes did the Texas legislature make to higher education policy in 2003?
answer
It introduced "deregulated" tuition for state universities.
question
Texas's Higher Education Assistance Fund (HEAF) was created to support which of the following?
answer
universities not helped by the Permanent University Fund
question
Which of the following is a restriction that Texas places on abortions performed in the state?
answer
requiring waiting periods before performing abortions
question
For which of the following reasons is water use over the next 50 years in Texas projected to grow at only about one-quarter the rate of population growth?
answer
Livestock and irrigation uses are expected to decline.
question
Which of the following did the Hazlewood Act do for veterans in the state of Texas?
answer
It provided for exemptions from tuition and fees for higher education in Texas.
question
A policy liberalism index measures which of the following?
answer
how liberal or conservative a state is on some state policies
question
Which of the following factors is NOT among political scientist Virginia Gray's policy liberalism index?
answer
religious service attendance
question
During the period from 2008-2012, approximately what percentage of the Texas population was composed of foreign-born persons?
answer
16 percent
question
Which of the following is a consequence of Texas's relatively low land-use regulation?
answer
a high supply of housing
question
Which of the following options is chosen by most wealthy Texas school districts when they reach the capped per-student property tax wealth level?
answer
They give the excess income to the state for redistribution to other school districts.
question
The Hopwood decision mandated which of the following?
answer
an end to the practice of affirmative action in Texas schools
question
Which of the following summarizes the decision in the 2003 Supreme Court case of Lawrence v. Texas?
answer
Antisodomy laws were ruled unconstitutional.
question
Which of the following statements about immigration policy in Texas is correct?
answer
The process for becoming a legal permanent resident (LPR) differs depending on whether the individual is outside or inside the U.S. at the time of application
question
The Texas Veterans Leadership Program concentrates exclusively on veterans meeting which of the following criteria?
answer
veterans of the Iraq and Afghanistan wars
question
The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that local governments may use eminent domain to transfer private property to other private parties under which of the following conditions?
answer
The government must envision a public benefit from doing so.
1980s And 1990s
Affordable Care Act
AP Government
Equal Protection Clause
Public Policy
State Department Of Education
Texas Supreme Court
GOVT 2306 Chap 12 – Flashcards 40 terms

Brandon Ruffin
40 terms
Preview
GOVT 2306 Chap 12 – Flashcards
question
A program related to Medicaid is the __________, which provides coverage for children in families with incomes too high to qualify for Medicaid.
answer
Children's Health Insurance Program
question
About how much is Texas's water consumption projected to increase by over the next 50 years?
answer
about 80 percent
question
According to the "law of capture,"
answer
the first person to "capture" water or oil by pumping it from the ground owns that water or oil.
question
According to the authors of the textbook, what is the single most important issue confronting policy makers with Medicaid in Texas?
answer
cost
question
After the 1996 Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) program was passed, the number of people on welfare declined and the number of people moving from welfare to employment increased. New questions, however, are arising today because
answer
these improvements were made under a booming economy in the 1990s and the labor market has since tightened
question
Which of the following was NOT one of the standardized tests used in Texas schools to assess student learning?
answer
Texas Learning Evaluation and Assessment Program (T-LEAP)
question
In 2005, the Texas Supreme Court declared that the school system was being financed by an unconstitutional state property tax. What did the legislature do to remedy the situation? .
answer
It cut property taxes by a third and replaced lost revenues with money raised statewide by an expanded business tax and a new $1-per-pack tax on cigarettes
question
Where does the majority of water used in Texas come from?
answer
aquifers
question
In 2012, a Gallup survey found that for the fourth consecutive year, Texas led the nation in the percentage of its population that lacked health care insurance. What percentage of Texans did not have health insurance?
answer
27.6 percent
question
When policy makers seek solutions to problems that are merely satisfactory, but may not be efficient or the best option available, they are exhibiting
answer
bounded rationality.
question
In Texas today, a majority of Medicaid recipients were
answer
children.
question
What was the main consequence of the Water Rights Adjudication Act?
answer
The ability of the state to control and manage surface water was greatly increased.
question
Managed care programs in Texas Medicaid have become an essential part of
answer
cost containment measures.
question
Today, what is Texas's primary water-planning and -financing agency?
answer
Texas Water Development Board
question
The "individual mandate" within the Affordable Care Act states that
answer
individuals must obtain health insurance or pay a penalty.
question
There are multiple stages in the policy-making process. Which of the following is NOT one of these stages?
answer
policy testing
question
In the Supreme Court case of Brown v. Board of Education, schools districts were ordered to desegregate their school systems "with all deliberate speed." In Texas,
answer
school districts eventually complied in the 1960s, but de facto segregation remained a problem.
question
The result of the education reforms instituted in the 1980s and 1990s has been
answer
mixed results; while dropout rates and scores on the state's standardized states have improved, measures such as spending on education, high school graduation rates, and average SAT scores remain below the national average.
question
Public education in Texas was mostly a local affair until 1949, when the state legislature passed the
answer
Gilmer-Aikin Laws
question
The Texas legislature established the Select Committee on Public Education (SCOPE) in 1983 in order to decide how to
answer
evaluate public education in Texas and pay for raises for teachers.
question
After the Affordable Care Act encouraged states to expand their Medicaid programs, with financial support from the federal government, Governor Perry announced that
answer
Texas would not participate in this Medicaid expansion.
question
After the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families program was passed, the number of people on welfare
answer
declined.
question
Desegregation of Texas schools
answer
occurred in the 1960s, though de facto segregation, especially in urban areas with large minority populations, remained a problem.
question
During the ___________ stage of making public policy, strategies for dealing with specifically defined problems are created.
answer
policy formulation
question
Education reforms instituted in the 1980s and 1990s
answer
have been mixed, with improvements in dropout rates and scores on the state's assessment text, but below-national-average performance in graduation rates and Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) scores.
question
In the case of Edgewood ISD v. Kirby, the Texas Supreme Court ruled that
answer
glaring disparities in the funding system for rich and poor school districts violated the Texas constitution.
question
Medicaid expenses in Texas
answer
are increasing and threaten to overwhelm the state budget.
question
People who advocate greater use of vouchers and charter schools argue that these would give
answer
parents greater flexibility and choice regarding their children's education, particularly where public schools had been performing poorly.
question
The "no pass, no play" rule, which keeps students who fail a course from participating in extracurricular activities such as sports, was implemented
answer
in the 1980s, at the recommendation of the State Committee on Public Education (SCOPE), chaired by businessman Ross Perot.
question
The Children's Health Insurance Program
answer
provides coverage for children in families with incomes too high to qualify for Medicaid.
question
The act that merged various water-rights doctrines into a unified water permit system, expanding the ability of the state to control and manage surface water, was the
answer
Water Rights Adjudication Act.
question
The federal block grant program for welfare was
answer
created in the 1990s and called the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) program.
question
The percentage of Texas residents with health insurance is
answer
lower than in any other state
question
The political impact of the Texas Supreme Court's ruling in Edgewood ISD v. Kirby
answer
created a political firestorm that swept through Texas politics throughout the early 1990s
question
The poverty rate for children under 18 in Texas is __________, while it is __________ in the United States as a whole.
answer
24.8 percent; 20.8 percent
question
Water consumption is expected to __________ over the next half-century; existing water supplies are expected to __________.
answer
increase by 82 percent; decrease by 10 percent
question
What effect has economic growth in Texas had on the state's poverty rates?
answer
surprisingly little
question
When we talk about __________ in the context of public policy, we mean that we have clearly identified goals, and we seek to meet those goals in the most efficient manner possible.
answer
rationality
question
Which sector in Texas uses the most water?
answer
irrigation
question
While a majority of the Medicaid population is __________, a majority of the funds are spent on __________.
answer
children; the elderly and people with disabilities disabled
Affordable Care Act
Private Health Insurance
Public School System
Social Policy
poli sci test 3 review questions – Flashcards 61 terms

Tony Foust
61 terms
Preview
poli sci test 3 review questions – Flashcards
question
Ch 14 Which of the following is not among the reasons that the authors list as to why education is important to the state?
answer
Schools allow government to counteract the antisocial values in certain communities.
question
The Gilmer-Akin Act of _______ created the modern public school system in Texas.
answer
1949
question
Which of the following is not true about the State Board of Education?
answer
...
question
In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court demand that public schools were not to be segregated based on race?
answer
Brown v. Board of Education
question
On average, Texas school districts get the greatest amount of revenue from which source?
answer
Local governments
question
The "Robin Hood" school finance plan came as the result of which court ruling?
answer
Edgewood ISD v. Kirby
question
Each of the following has established methods of holding educators accountable except
answer
The Texas Engineering Extension Service (TEEX).
question
The No Child Left Behind Act
answer
is the federal education act requiring schools to institute mandatory testing.
question
Which of the following has not been a legislative act or judicial ruling impacting education policy in Texas?
answer
Marbury v. Madison
question
The Permanent University Fund (PUF) was established to help fund
answer
the University of Texas System
question
The Texas Higher Education Coordinating Board (THECB) is made up of _______ members who are _________.
answer
nine; appointed by the governor
question
Hopwood v Texas adressed
answer
university admissions taking into consideration race-based criteria.
question
The authors cite each of the following as a major issue in the discussion of accountability in higher education except
answer
...
question
Which of the following accurately describes poverty levels in the state of Texas?
answer
Texas has three of the nation's top five counties of 250,000 or more people with the highest rates of poverty.
question
Each of the following is a condition for receiving funds through Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) except
answer
completing the next higher level of education.
question
The Lone Star Card is associated with which of the following social programs?
answer
The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)
question
At the time of the passage of the Affordable Care Act (ACA), what was the state of health insurance in Texas?
answer
Texas led the nation in the number of uninsured residents.
question
What is required of Texas by the passage of the Affordable Care Act (ACA)?
answer
To create a state health insurance marketplace or, if it does not do so, face the federal government creating one for it
question
Where Medicare benefits _______, Medicaid benefits _______
answer
are received by those who have paid into the program; are received by low-income elderly and disabled people regardless of ability to pay
question
Which describes the State Children's Health Insurance Program (SCHIP) accurately?
answer
It targets families who make too much to be on Medicaid but lack private health insurance.
question
Ch. 4 Standing committees contribute to the power of the chambers of the Texas Legislature by
answer
giving the legislature a place to kill undesirable legislation.
question
The standing committees of the Texas Legislature engage in oversight of the executive branch
answer
to assure that procedures, standards, and regulations developed by the agencies follow legislative intent.
question
The importance of having a blocking bill at the top of the calendar in the Texas Senate is that
answer
it allows the Senate to choose the order in which it will take up bills on the calendar.
question
If you attended a session of the Texas Legislature while floor votes were being taken, you might be misled as to what is happening by
answer
the use of ghost votes and closed riders.
question
f the party caucuses gain power in the Texas Legislature, the result might be
answer
an increase in the influence of the governor over the legislature.
question
The story of the "killer bees" illustrates
answer
the problem created for the Texas Senate by the requirement of a two-thirds majority to pass most bills.
question
All of the following are tactics that the minority may use to defeat a bill on the floor of the Texas Legislature except?
answer
putting a hold on the bill
question
All of the following statements concerning the governor's veto power are true except
answer
if the governor does not sign a bill within twenty days when it is passed at the end of a session, the bill dies.
question
To end a filibuster in the Texas Senate, a _________ vote is necessary.
answer
majority
question
Where in the legislative process do most bills "die?"
answer
Immediately after introduction
question
A committee created to reconcile the differences in the Texas Senate and Texas House versions of a bill is a(an) ______________ committee.
answer
conference
question
What proportion of a legislative chamber must be present to fulfill the quorum requirement?
answer
Two-thirds
question
Which of the following is a mechanism in the Texas House to allow representatives to "run out the clock" on a bill waiting to be debated?
answer
Chubbing
question
Who chooses the chairs of the Texas Senate's committees?
answer
The lieutenant governor
question
Which type of committee is charged with research or oversight to be completed in between sessions?
answer
Interim
question
Which of the following contemporary legislative realities is the most consistent with the framers' desire for a citizen legislature?
answer
Members are paid a low base pay
question
What is the purpose of an emergency clause of proposed legislation?
answer
It makes the bill take effect immediately upon passage.
question
Which of the following will most likely be given the highest priority of consideration in the Texas House of Representatives?
answer
Major state bills
question
Power in the Texas Legislature is
answer
most heavily concentrated in the offices of Speaker of the House and president of the Senate.
question
All of the following statements concerning the president of the Texas Senate and the Speaker of the Texas House are true except
answer
both are elected by the membership of their legislative body.
question
All of the following statements concerning organization in the Texas Legislature are true except
answer
the party caucuses are increasingly unimportant organizations for structuring behavior in the legislature.
question
Ch 13 Which of the following accurately describes the agenda setting step in the policymaking process?
answer
Policymakers prioritize the various problems facing the state.
question
Which of the following accurately describes the policy implementation step in the policymaking process?
answer
State agencies follow up on the actions of elected officials, and bureaucratic agencies develop rules and
question
Which of the following accurately describes the policy adoption step in the policymaking process?
answer
Policymakers take formal governmental administrative action.
question
The authors list three types of policies at the beginning of Chapter 13. Which of the following is a type of policy mentioned?
answer
Redistributive policy
question
The state general sales tax is?
answer
8.25 percent
question
The taxation approach of the Texas Legislature regarding highways and toll roads is to?
answer
increase the number of toll roads but not increase the tax revenue for highways.
question
The authors note several different types of taxes. Which of the following describes the sin tax?
answer
Taxes on activities such as cigarettes and gambling
question
The authors note several different types of taxes. Which of the following describes the severance tax?
answer
A tax on the extraction of natural resources
question
Which of the following is not a tax levied on Texans by their state?
answer
The income tax
question
Which of the following characteristic is accurate regarding regressive taxation?
answer
Texas takes a regressive approach to taxation due to the reliance on the sales tax.
question
Which of the following do the authors cite as an example of a regressive form of taxation?
answer
The sales tax
question
Texas relies on other sources of revenue than taxes. Which of the following is accurate regarding these other sources of revenue?
answer
Grants from the federal government make up around 40 percent of the state's revenue
question
The authors describe Texas as a "pay-as-you-go" state. What does the phrase "pay as you go" mean?
answer
The Texas Constitution requires a balanced budget, thus limiting debt
question
A bill cannot be considered passed by the legislature unless the ___________ has authorized that the amount to be spent by the bill is available.
answer
comptroller
question
What is the primary source of Texas's "Rainy Day Fund?"
answer
Oil and gas taxes
question
Although unpopular among many groups, why does the lottery remain a revenue source for Texas?
answer
The revenue lost from eliminating the lottery would mean spending cuts or raising other taxes
question
Whereas redistributive policy _________, distributive policy ____________.
answer
intentionally moves benefits from one group to another; does not intentionally target one specific group of society
question
Subsidies are incentives designed to _______ the production or purchase of certain goods
answer
stimulate
question
Which of the following describe sin taxes?
answer
Taxes on products and activities that legislators would like to discourage
question
The state's largest source of investment income is?
answer
income from the Permanent School Fund
Affordable Care Act
Earned Income Tax Credit
tx gov quiz # 5 – Flashcards 67 terms

Tony Foust
67 terms
Preview
tx gov quiz # 5 – Flashcards
question
ACA
answer
Affordable Care Act (Obama Care), Health care insurance plan to provide healthcare to every American. If you don't pay for health care you get in trouble and have power to take the money
question
AFDC
answer
Aid to families with dependent children, federal and state program financed for families with children below the poverty level finally replace 1996 with TANF (Temporary assistance for needy families)
question
CHIP
answer
Children Health insurance Program, medical care program for children with families with income too high to qualify for Medicaid
question
Equal Protection Clause
answer
provision in the 14th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution guaranteeing citizens the "equal protection of the laws"; this clause has been the basis for the civil rights of African Americans, women and other groups
question
Gilmer-Alkins Laws
answer
education reform legislation passed in 1949 that supplemented local funding of education with public monies, raised teachers' salaries, mandated a min length for the school year, and provided for more state supervision of public education
question
Great Recession
answer
was a period of general economic decline observed in world markets beginning around the end of the first decade of the 21st century.
question
Budget Fix
answer
a budget that does not change or flex when sales or some other activity increases or decreases. A fixed budget is also referred to as a static budget.
question
Medicaid
answer
a federal and state program financing medical services to low-income people
question
New Deal
answer
President Franklin Delano Roosevelt's 1930s programs to stimulate the national economy and provide relief to victims of the Great Depression
question
RVAA
answer
Religious Viewpoints Anti-Discrimination Act, state law passed in 2007 to force public schools into taking steps at protecting the free expression of religious views from discrimination
question
Robin Hood Plan
answer
The Robin Hood plan was a media nickname given to legislation enacted by the U.S. state of Texas in 1993 to provide court-mandated equitable school financing for all school districts in the state.
question
School Choice
answer
a term or label given to a wide array of programs offering students and their family's alternatives to publicly provided schools, to which students are generally assigned by the location of their family residence.
question
Sonogram Law
answer
Texas, for instance, requires that a woman seeking an abortion receive a sonogram from the doctor who will be performing the procedure at least 24 hours before the abortion. During the sonogram, the doctor is required to display sonogram images and make the heartbeat audible to the patient.
question
SSI
answer
Supplemental Security Income, passed 1972, provides assistance to low income elderly and disabled individuals
question
TANF
answer
Temporary Assistance for Needy Families, a welfare program passed in 1996 to provide temporary assistance to families with needy children; replacing the AFDC program, TANF sought to make poor families self-sufficient and to give states greater flexibility in setting benefit levels, eligibility requirements, and other program details
question
TAKS
answer
Texas Assessment of Knowledge and Skills
question
Edgewood v. Kirby
answer
In 1968, Demetrio Rodriguez and other parents of Mexican American students in the Edgewood Independent School District of San Antonio, Texas, filed a class action suit in U.S. District Court challenging Texas' public school finance system. Under the Texas system, the state appropriated funds to provide each child with a minimum education. Each local school district then enriched that basic education with funds derived from locally levied ad valorem property taxes. Since the value of taxable property and the number of school-aged children varied greatly among the state's many school districts, significant interdistrict disparities existed in available enrichment revenues, per-pupil expenditures, and tax rates.
question
NFIB v. Sebelius (person in charge)
answer
National Federation of Independent Business challenged the constitutionality of the ACA. NIFB argued it was not constitutional because it orders citizens to buy things they don't want. Outcome the yes the government does have the power to order them to buy it because they call it a "tax"
question
Roe V. Wade
answer
is a landmark decision by the United States Supreme Court on the issue of abortion. It was decided simultaneously with a companion case, Doe v. Bolton. The Court ruled 7-2 that a right to privacy under the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment extended to a woman's decision to have an abortion, but that this right must be balanced against the state's two legitimate interests in regulating abortions: protecting women's health and protecting the potentiality of human life.[1]
question
San Antonio v. Rodriguez
answer
was a landmark case involving the constitutionality of using property taxes to fund public schools. At the heart of the case lay the question of the equitable funding of public schools. Lawyers for Rodriguez and seven other children in the poor Edgewood independent school district in the San Antonio area argued that the current system financing public schools in Texas was unfair///was a case in which the Supreme Court of the United States held the San Antonio Independent School District's financing system, based on local property taxes, was not an unconstitutional violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's equal protection clause. The majority opinion, reversing the District Court, stated the appellees did not sufficiently prove that education is a fundamental right, that textually existed within the U.S. Constitution, and could thereby (through the 14th Amendment to the Constitution), be applied to the several States. The Court also found the financing system was not subject to strict scrutiny.
question
481/504
answer
481 Reading SAT score in 2o01, Math SAT score is 504
question
80.6%
answer
High School graduate in rate in Texas in 2009
question
36th
answer
Is the national ranking for graduation rate
question
>3.4M
answer
# of people enrolled in Medicaid in Texas in 2010
question
80K to 325K
answer
# of kids on welfare goes between these two (1967-1973) LBJ launched his "great society"
question
3.6M
answer
# of Texans participating in food stamp Program (SNAP) Supplemental nutrition Assistance program
question
28K to 500K
answer
People on CHIP from 2000 to 2009
question
7%
answer
federal budget that gets consumed by Medicaid and CHIP
question
60%
answer
Share of water usage from Texas that is taken from irrigation
question
82%
answer
By 2060 the population of Texas is expected to increase by 82%
question
$9,816, $32.5M
answer
Amount of residential tuition for University of Texas, Non state tuition
question
50
answer
# of community college Districts in Texas
question
Fiscal Year
answer
Budget Year to follow for Texas gov. Sept 1st-August 31st of the following year. United States: October 1st-Sept 30th of the following year
question
Sales Tax
answer
a tax on sales or on the receipts from sales
question
Franchise Tax
answer
Business Tax that companies pay
question
Severance Tax
answer
Taxes that is imposed on the removal of non-renewable resources
question
Excise Tax
answer
Tax on Consumption of use
question
Sin Tax
answer
Tax that depends on state you are in (Ex: in Nevada=gambling)
question
Part-Mutuel Wagering
answer
question
TRS
answer
Teachers Retirement System
question
PSF
answer
Permanent School Fund, fund that created in 1854 that provides monies for primary and secondary schools
question
PUF
answer
Permanent University Fund, funs established in 1876 and funded from the proceeds from land owned by the state; monies go to various universities in the University of Texas and Texas A&M systems
question
General (Revenue) Fund
answer
the state's primary operating fund
question
Rainy
answer
also known as economic stabilization fund it was established by constitutional amendment in 1988 to provide funds for the state during times of financial stress
question
Recession
answer
a period of temporary economic decline during which trade and industrial activity are reduced, generally identified by a fall in GDP in two successive quarters.
question
Tax Incidence
answer
tax incidence or tax burden is the analysis of the effect of a particular tax on the distribution of economic welfare. Tax incidence is said to "fall" upon the group that ultimately bears the burden of, or ultimately has to pay, the tax.
question
Progressive Tax
answer
Tax on income where the more you make the higher % of the rate of Taxation you will be charged (the more you make, the more they take)
question
Regressive Tax
answer
Regardless of how much you make the tax rate is the same
question
Ability-to-pay
answer
An economic principle stating that the amount of tax an individual pays should be dependent on the level of burden the tax will create relative to the wealth of the individual.
question
Tax Elasticity
answer
The sensitivity of changes in a quantity with respect to changes in another quantity.
question
Biennium
answer
a specified period of two years.
question
FED. Grants
answer
are economic aid issued by the United States government out of the general federal revenue. A federal grant is an award of financial assistance from a federal agency to a recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States.
question
Medicare
answer
is the federal health insurance program for people who are 65 or older, certain younger people with disabilities, and people with End-Stage Renal Disease
question
SCHIP
answer
State Children's Health Insurance Plan
question
Matching Funds REQ
answer
are funds that are set to be paid in equal amount to funds available from other sources. Matching fund payments usually arise in situations of charity or public good.
question
Dedicated HWY. Fund
answer
a transportation fund in the United States which receives money from a federal fuel tax of 18.4 cents per gallon on gasoline and 24.4 cents per gallon of diesel fuel and related excise taxes
question
Performance-based Budgeting
answer
A budget that reflects the input of resources and the output of services for each unit of an organization. This type of budget is commonly used by the government to show the link between the funds provided to the public and the outcome of these services.
question
LBB
answer
Legislative Budget Board
question
Appropriation Bill
answer
authorization by the legislature to a government agency or body to spend up to a particular amount of money
question
Budget Depict
answer
amount of red ink in a single budget year
question
Debt
answer
accumulation of all debt
question
Dedicated Funds
answer
means a fund in the State Treasury, or a separate account or fund in the General Fund in the State Treasury, that by law is dedicated, appropriated or set aside for a limited object or purpose, but "dedicated fund" does not include a revolving fund or a trust fund.
question
Conf. Committee
answer
a committee of the United States Congress appointed by the House of Representatives and Senate to resolve disagreements on a particular bill. A conference committee is usually composed of senior Members of the standing committees of each House that originally considered the legislation.
question
Line-item Veto
answer
the power of a president, governor, or other elected executive to reject individual provisions of a bill
question
Sunset Review
answer
is an evaluation of the need for the continued existence of a program or an agency. It allows for an assessment of the effectiveness and performance of the program or agency.
question
VMT Tax
answer
Vehicles Miles traveled Tax (state taxing you for the amount of miles you travel
question
CPA
answer
A Certified Public Accountant (CPA) is an accounting professional who has passed the Uniform CPA examination and has also met additional state certification and experience requirements.
Advise And Consent
Affordable Care Act
AP Government
Laissez Faire Capitalism
National Security Agency
Otto Von Bismarck
Political Culture
Political Participation
We The People: Chapter 1 – Flashcards 29 terms

Carol Rushing
29 terms
Preview
We The People: Chapter 1 – Flashcards
question
Americans are ___ supportive of income redistribution than Europeans.
answer
less
question
Government ran by a few people is called
answer
oligarchy
question
The gambling industry in your state wants to change the state constitution to allow gambling. It organizes a campaign through voter signatures and puts its proposal directly on the ballot. This is called a(n)
answer
ballot referendum
question
Realistically, the United States did not become a full practicing democracy until
answer
1960s.
question
The majority of Americans believe that "government is run by a few big interests" and that government officials "don't care what people think." The term used to describe this would be
answer
low efficacy
question
A system of government that recognizes no formal limits on its power is
answer
totalitarian
question
The formal institutions that rule a people are called its
answer
government
question
Student council example of
answer
representative democracy
question
In nineteenth-century Prussia, Otto von Bismarck introduced social reforms to aid the lower class because he
answer
offset growing power of middle class.
question
What kind of government do we have?
answer
republic
question
The bourgeoisie of western Europe wanted to
answer
promote participation for middle class.
question
According to Harold Lasswell, politics is
answer
who gets what, when they get it, and how.
question
To the greeks a citizen was anyone who was
answer
knowledgable of whats going on in community and participates
question
Today the average member of Congress represents approximately how many people?
answer
650000
question
In recent years, more and more Americans are learning about government from
answer
late night comedians
question
The belief that citizens can affect government is called political
answer
efficacy
question
In a democracy, sovereignty is vested in
answer
the people
question
The U.S. definition of liberty refers to
answer
personal and economic freedom
question
Trust in government in the United States
answer
declined in last 50 years
question
The policy of democratization is an attempt by the U.S. government to
answer
encourage foreign nations to adapt democratic policies
question
Laissez-faire capitalism has been limited by
answer
public opinion, support capitalism
question
The United States' core political values are
answer
liberty, equality, democracy
question
Some states allow ballot referenda or popular initiatives, which are forms of
answer
direct democracy
question
Throughout U.S. history, Americans have
answer
suspicions of strong government.
question
Informed and active membership in a political community is the basis for ____
answer
citizenship
question
Americans today are ____likely to think that they can influence what the government does.
answer
less
question
Political participation can take many forms: ____
answer
vote, group activities, and even direct action, such as violent opposition or civil disobedience.
question
____ is the theory that all interests are and should be free to compete for influence in the government.
answer
Pluralism
question
In the 17th century, two important changes began to take place in the governance of some Western nations: ?
answer
governments acknowledged formal limits on their power & began to give citizens a formal voice in politics through the vote.
Affordable Care Act
Change The Subject
Emphasize The Importance Of
Self Fulfilling Prophecy
Public Speaking Final Review – Flashcards 100 terms

Kevin Stewart
100 terms
Preview
Public Speaking Final Review – Flashcards
question
Reasoned persuasion emphasizes
answer
the responsible use of evidence and proofs.
question
_____ circumvents the ethical burden or persuasive justification by over-relying on baseless appeals.
answer
Manipulative persuasion
question
The fact that effective public speaking almost always impresses audiences best reflects what form of credibility discussed in your text?
answer
emerging
question
What kind of reasoning is best reflected by comparing the current "war on drugs" to the prohibition of alcohol during the early twentieth century?
answer
analogical
question
When Julie argues that we should not listen to Jerome's ideas for immigration reform because, "He's just a right-wing idiot!" she is probably guilty of what persuasive fallacy?
answer
ad hominem
question
What kind of fallacy are we guilty of when we misstate opposing views in a manner that makes them easier to discredit?
answer
straw man
question
What type of fallacy occurs when we change the subject or simply ignore the issue at hand?
answer
red herring
question
Before an audience opposed to health care reform, Jane praises President Obama for supporting health care reform without arguing for or defending its merits. Given her audience, she is likely guilty of which of the following fallacies?
answer
begging the question
question
Reasoned persuasion relies most heavily on which form of proof?
answer
logos
question
What fallacy has been employed when speakers make persuasive claims that simply do not follow their reasoning and evidence?
answer
non sequitur
question
Which type of proof is most associated with invoking traditional narratives and values?
answer
mythos
question
What kind of reasoning is best reflected by the statement, "War is always wrong. Therefore, I opposed the war in Iraq."
answer
deductive
question
By syllogism, we mean
answer
a deductive argument that reasons from shared principles.
question
What kind of reasoning works primarily from observation?
answer
inductive
question
What form of proof is invoked when you cite your own expert credentials?
answer
ethos
question
What kind of reasoning is most reflected by signs carried by Civil Rights activists declaring "I Am a Man"?
answer
definition of central concepts
question
Proof by _____ is especially useful for moving audiences to action.
answer
pathos
question
What form of persuasive evidence is used when opponents of the Affordable Care Act (a.k.a., "Obamacare") cite prominent supporters of the act acknowledging problems with its implementation?
answer
reluctant witness
question
All of the following are guidelines for the ethical use of persuasive evidence except
answer
do not use evidence just to support your position.
question
All of the following are advice for ethical argumentation except
answer
do not argue a position when there are opposing views.
question
All of the following are types of persuasive speaking except
answer
speeches addressing the meaning of formal occasions.
question
What kind of persuasive speech would you present in support of a disputed tax cut?
answer
a speech advocating action or policy
question
What kind of speech would you present to persuade listeners that Oswald acted alone when he assassinated President Kennedy?
answer
a speech addressing disputed facts
question
Which stage in the persuasive process is most associated with consciousness raising?
answer
awareness
question
Emotional appeals are especially important in what stage of the persuasive process?
answer
enactment
question
The motivated sequence speech design includes all of the following parts except
answer
engage opposing views.
question
A co-active approach to persuasion is most useful for
answer
engaging reluctant audiences.
question
What stage of the persuasive process is concerned with making the effects of persuasion lasting?
answer
integration
question
Speakers should consider all of the following concerns of ethical persuasion except
answer
am I committing a self-fulfilling prophecy?
question
Your text offers all of the following strategies for uniting divided audiences except
answer
- invoking shared values and traditions. - invoking shared problems and challenges. - providing a concrete first step that listeners can take towards shared action. - ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
A speech encouraging students to recycle would most likely follow what persuasive speech design?
answer
problem-solution
question
Your text offers all of the following advice for removing barriers to commitment among undecided listeners except
answer
- provided needed information in the minds of listeners. - emphasize the importance of your message by reaffirming shared values. - strengthen your credibility by reasoning constructively and citing reputable sources. - ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
A _____ approach to persuasion engages generic questions a thoughtful audience will likely ask before agreeing to a change in policy or procedure.
answer
stock issues
question
Addressing a group of concerned Christians in support of pornography, Bill argues that "religious fanaticism is a threat to freedom." Not surprisingly, his audience members come away more opposed to pornography than ever. Bill has just experienced what persuasive phenomenon?
answer
a boomerang effect
question
Engaging and refuting opposing positions before audiences that already agree with us in order to make them more resistant to later counter-persuasion is referred to as
answer
inoculation
question
What is a delayed reaction to persuasion called?
answer
sleeper effect
question
Your text discusses which of the following strategies for moving audiences from agreement to action?
answer
- demonstrate the need for audience involvement - use emotional appeals to involve your audience - provide specific instruction for getting involved - ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
How can you best avoid the great expectation fallacy?
answer
set modest goals for persuading your audience
question
When addressing reluctant audiences, persuasive speakers should
answer
- start with areas of agreement. - emphasize explanation over argument. - make a multisided presentation. - ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
Persuasive speaking differs from informative speaking in all of the following ways except
answer
emotional appeals are less appropriate.
question
Which activity occupies the greatest amount of the time we spend communicating in the workplace?
answer
listening
question
Good note taking requires that you
answer
- come prepared with paper and pen or pencil. - avoid trying to write down everything you hear. - review, correct, and complete notes the day taken - ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
What form of listening is particularly important to protect us from the designs of dishonest speakers?
answer
critical
question
Developing your listening skills should make you a better speaker in which of the following ways?
answer
- developing an appreciation for differing speaking techniques - you will develop a sense of audience sensitivity - becoming a more thoughtful consumer of ideas and information - ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
What form of listening ascribes meaning to audible sounds?
answer
comprehensive
question
All of the following should be considered when evaluating speeches except
answer
legality.
question
Critical listening emphasizes all of the following except
answer
did the speaker mean well?
question
Speakers who talk too rapidly or too slowly may contribute to which barrier to effective listening?
answer
inattention
question
If you are listening to a lecture about Cherokee native Americans and it reminds you of driving your Jeep Cherokee in the mud, you have succumbed to what barrier to effective listening?
answer
chance association of words
question
What should you not do when taking notes during class?
answer
try to write down everything you hear
question
Thinking about the date you have after class represents what form of listening barrier?
answer
personal concerns
question
Getting up and closing a window or door because you are having trouble hearing would be one way to handle what sort of problem?
answer
physical noise
question
Trigger words invoke which of the following reaction(s) in listeners?
answer
emotional
question
Jeff believes the Federal government needs to cut spending, yet he refuses to consider a proposal to cut spending because it is supported by members of the "other party." What barrier to effective listening does Jeff's behavior reflect?
answer
personal bias
question
The following are the guidelines for providing speakers with constructive criticism except
answer
provide speakers a realistic assessment of limitations.
question
A speech critique should balance
answer
critical and constructive skills.
question
What is the first step in overcoming a bias?
answer
recognizing you have one
question
What is the characteristic of evidence that directly relates to the issues being discussed?
answer
relevant
question
Which of the following critical standards of effective evidence use would be violated if a speaker used examples of juvenile crime in Europe to argue that American kids are out of control?
answer
representative
question
All of the following are criteria for evaluating the ethical qualities of a speech except
answer
does the speech avoid taking controversial positions?
question
All of the following are criteria for choosing good speech topics except
answer
it should be entertaining
question
What is the problem with trying to give a five minute presentation on the ecology?
answer
The topic is not manageable.
question
What does the speaker do in the discovery phase of selecting a topic?
answer
identify general topic areas
question
What approach to exploring topics focuses on basic journalistic questions such as what? why? when? how? where? and who?
answer
topic analysis
question
What approach to developing topic ideas explores "habitual" paths of thought such as people, places, ideas, values, and problems?
answer
interest charts
question
What does the speaker do during the refinement phase of topic selection?
answer
-articulate a specific purpose statement -articulate a thesis statement -focus your specific topic - ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
What should you refrain from in the initial stage of brainstorming?
answer
critiquing
question
A speaker's _____ purpose might be to inform, to persuade, or to celebrate.
answer
general
question
What does the specific purpose of a speech represent?
answer
the response desired from the audience
question
What are we trying to change when we practice mind mapping?
answer
our habitual patterns of thinking.
question
Which would make the best specific purpose statement for persuading an audience to donate money to Habitat for Humanity?
answer
To persuade my audience to donate money to Habitat for Humanity.
question
For ethical reasons, you are advised to avoid all of the following topics except
answer
-anything that might promote hurtful or dangerous behavior. -any topics upon which you cannot possibly speak with responsible knowledge. -anything that might promote illegal activities. - ALL OF THE ABOVE SHOULD BE AVOIDED
question
The specific purpose statement, "I want my audience to dig the 60s" would probably fall into what trap of poor topic selection?
answer
triviality
question
The specific purpose statement, "I want my audience to support federal action to combat greenhouse pollution, and a new program to promote recycling in our area" would probably fall into what trap of poor topic selection?
answer
double-focus
question
When you scan newspapers, the Internet, and magazines to try and get ideas for your speech, what are you using?
answer
media and Internet prompts
question
What is wrong with the thesis statement, "What's wrong with politics"?
answer
It is obscure and lacking in focus.
question
What is the general purpose of a speech to inform?
answer
share knowledge
question
What is the general purpose of a speech to persuade?
answer
influence beliefs and actions
question
Sometimes speakers forget that their audience doesn't know as much about the topic as the speaker does. In doing so, what trap have they fallen into?
answer
technicality
question
What is the flaw in the following specific purpose, "To inform my audience about New York City?"
answer
too general
question
Presentation aids should be used
answer
to emphasize the most important ideas and information in your speeches.
question
Handouts can be useful
answer
for presenting complex ideas or lots of statistical information.
question
All of the following are true about using people as visual aids except
answer
they should plan something themselves to contribute.
question
When possible, what should the speaker do when using an object as a presentation aid?
answer
keep the object out of sight until it is time to use it
question
What are graphics?
answer
visual representations of information
question
What is important to remember when using graphics during a speech?
answer
Graphics must be instantly clear.
question
All of the following are benefits of using presentation aids except
answer
they make audience interaction less important.
question
What type of map is best to use in a presentation?
answer
simple and uncluttered
question
Lisa needs a visual aid to illustrate how her university allocates its budget. What would be her most likely choice?
answer
pie graph
question
Pablo needs a visual aid for comparing the income rates of men and women in his hometown over the past decade. Which of the following would likely prove his best choice?
answer
a comparative line graph illustrating the relative growth of the income rates of men and women
question
What type of graph is best for displaying comparisons and contrasts?
answer
bar graph
question
What would be the best choice of a presentation aid for illustrating the hierarchy of the U.S. military?
answer
flow chart
question
Which of the following would be best for a speech on the four benefits of using presentation aids in a speech?
answer
a textual graph with a bulleted list of the four benefits
question
When using a handout with a brief presentation, it is best to
answer
distribute it after making your presentation.
question
What is the minimal size recommended for posters for most classroom presentations?
answer
14 x 17 inches
question
When preparing and using presentation aids, speakers should always
answer
-alert audiences to visual images that have been altered to convey a point. -cite sources of important information presented. -consider whether charts and graphs distort the meaning of important information. -ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
A monochromatic color scheme
answer
uses variations of a single color.
question
All of the following are potential drawbacks of using presentation aids except
answer
-they often put you at the mercy of technology working. -poorly integrated aids tend to distract listeners and speakers. -poorly planned aids can hurt your ethos as a speaker. -ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
When using presentation aids, speakers should always
answer
-use them when practicing their presentations. -be prepared to speak without them if necessary. -be careful not to speak to or read from them. -ALL OF THE ABOVE
question
What are some potential problems of using video during presentations?
answer
-They often upstage short presentations. -Longer clips may distract attention from your central message. -They require skillful editing to look professional. -ALL OF THE ABOVE
Affordable Care Act
Amicus Curiae Brief
Politics of the United States
ch 15 – Assignment Writing – Flashcards 20 terms

Deloris Connelly
20 terms
Preview
ch 15 – Assignment Writing – Flashcards
question
Justices appointed by presidents Ronald Reagan, George H. W. Bush, and George W. Bush have moved the Court in a more ____ direction on issues, including affirmative action and abortion.
answer
conservative
question
In ____ cases, the government is always the plaintiff.
answer
criminal
question
In what kind of case does the plaintiff charge that it has suffered because of another's violation of a specific agreement between the two?
answer
contract
question
Stare decisis is a Latin phrase that means
answer
let the decision stand.
question
Federal court jurisdiction extends to
answer
federal statutes, treaties, and the U.S. Constitution.
question
A negotiated agreement in a criminal case in which a defendant agrees to tell the court that he or she is guilty in return for the state's agreement to reduce the severity of the criminal charge or prison sentence the defendant is facing is known as a
answer
plea bargain.
question
What is the term for a court's sphere of power and authority?
answer
jurisdiction
question
Which federal judges are appointed for life?
answer
All Article III judges are appointed for life.
question
Known as the Great Writ, ____ is guaranteed by the Constitution and can be suspended only in cases of rebellion or invasion.
answer
habeas corpus
question
The Constitution gives the Supreme Court ____ jurisdiction in cases involving foreign ambassadors and issues in which a state is a party.
answer
original
question
Each _____ court exercises _____ jurisdiction over cases heard by the district courts within its region.
answer
circuit; appellate
question
U.S. district court decisions are made by
answer
a single federal judge.
question
Opinion assignment when he or she is in the majority is an important power of the ____.
answer
chief justice
question
Because the Supreme Court has so much influence over American law and politics, virtually all presidents have made an effort to select justices who ____.
answer
share their political philosophies
question
What is the name for the practice whereby the president, before formally nominating a person for a federal judgeship, seeks the indication that senators from the candidate's own state support the nomination?
answer
senatorial courtesy
question
Judicial review was established in the case of ____
answer
Marbury v. Madison.
question
Why does the solicitor general have such a strong influence on the Supreme Court?
answer
The solicitor general screens most cases being appealed by agencies of the federal government and only lets some cases advance.
question
Justices who disagree with the majority decision of the Court may choose to publicize the character of their disagreement in the form of a
answer
dissenting opinion.
question
Today, ____ seem to view the courts as useful instruments through which to pursue their goals.
answer
Americans of all political persuasions
question
Which of the following cases involved the right to privacy?
answer
Griswold v. Connecticut
Abnormal Psychology
Affordable Care Act
Positive Psychology
Psychology
Abnormal Psych CH. 1 and 2 – Flashcards 129 terms

Tony Foust
129 terms
Preview
Abnormal Psych CH. 1 and 2 – Flashcards
question
If a person wants a career focused on deleting, assessing, and treating abnormal patterns of functioning, that person should look into becoming a...
answer
Clinical Practititioner
question
The history, values, institutions, habits, skills, technology, and arts of a society make up that society's...
answer
Culture
question
Which depressed person would be the LEAST likely to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, because of specific circumstances...
answer
Someone whose community was destroyed by a tornado
question
George hears voices that others do not but is not distressed by them. This illustrates that:
answer
Distress does not have to be present for a person's behavior to be considered abnormal
question
An individual has a 9-to-5 job. However, this person seldom gets up early enough to be at work on time and expresses great distress over this behavior. This individuals behavior would be considered abnormal b/c..
answer
Dysfunctional
question
Which person would NOT be considered abnormal, despite the fact that the person's behavior is dysfunctional?
answer
Someone who goes on a hunger strike to protest social injustice
question
A person who is suicidal and can see no reason for living BEST fits which definition of abnormality?
answer
Danger
question
Research shows that danger to self or others is found in...
answer
Some cases of abnormal functioning
question
According to Thomas Szasz's views, the deviations that some call mental illness are really...
answer
Problems in Living
question
College students who drink so much that it interferes with their lives, health, and academic careers are often not diagnosed as engaging in abnormal behavior because...
answer
Drinking is considered to be a part of college culture
question
Lady Gaga and other eccentrics are usually not considered to be experiencing a mental illness because..
answer
They freely choose and enjoy their behavior
question
Studies show that eccentrics are more likely than those with mental disorders to say:
answer
I'm different and I like it
question
One who sees abnormality as a problem in living usually refers to those seeking help with problems in living such as...
answer
Clients
question
Which "new diagnosis" would someone experiencing overwhelming concern about the security of travel on planes and subways MOST likely receive?
answer
Terrorism Terror
question
The use of exorcism in early societies suggests a belief that abnormal behavior was caused by...
answer
Evil Spirits
question
A person being treated by a shaman would MOST likely be undergoing...
answer
An Exorcism
question
Hippocrates' contribution to the development of understanding mental illness was the view that such conditions were the result of...
answer
Natural Causes
question
Hippocrates attempted to treat mental disorders by...
answer
Correction underlying physical pathology
question
The Ancient Greeks might find that a flash mob is MOST similar to...
answer
Mass Madness
question
Which statement is NOT a reason that demonology dominated vies of abnormality in Europe in the Middle Ages?
answer
The culture rejected religious beliefs
question
Tarantism and lycanthropy are examples of...
answer
Mass maddness
question
Those MOST often in charge of treating abnormality in the Middle Ages in Europe were...
answer
Clergy
question
Johann Weyer considered to be the founder of modern study of psychopathology, was a physician in the...
answer
1500s
question
In the early asylums, treatment for mental illness began with the intention to provide...
answer
Harsh Treatment
question
What is the distinction of Bethlehem Hospital, founded in London in 1547
answer
Popularly called "Bedlam", it came to represent deplorable conditions for patients
question
The basis for moral treatment of asylum patients was the belief that...
answer
Mental illness should be treated humanely and with respect
question
The American school teacher who lobbied state legislatures for laws to mandate humane treatment of people with mental disorders was..
answer
Dorothea Dix
question
Which was NOT a factor in the decline in the use of moral treatment and the rise in the use of custodial care in mental hospitals at the end of the twentieth century?
answer
The total lack of success of moral treatment
question
One factor that contributed to the decline of moral therapy was...
answer
It did not work for everyone
question
The fact that some people in the advanced stages of AIDS experience neurological damage that results in the psychological abnormality supports what type of perspective about abnormal psychological functioning...
answer
Somatogenic
question
The finding that syphilis causes general paresis is important because it supports the idea that
answer
Organic factors can cause mental illness
question
Which of statement LEAST supports the somatogenic view of abnormal behavior?
answer
Hypnotism has helped people give up smoking
question
Which item is NOT associated with hypnotism?
answer
The somatogenic perspective
question
The somatogenic treatment for mental illness that seems to have been MOST successful was the use of..
answer
Various medications
question
Fredrich Anton Mesmer became famous (or infamous) for his work with patient suffering from bodily problems with no physical basis. His patients' disorders are termed...
answer
Hysterical
question
If a person's primary symptom were excessive worry, the psychotropic drug for that person would be an...
answer
Antianxiety Medication
question
Bernheim and Liebault use hypnotic suggestion to induce hysterical disorders in "normal" people providing support for which perspective of abnormality...
answer
Psychogenic
question
Acquiring insight about unconscious psychological processes is a feature of...
answer
Psychoanalysis
question
Psychoanalysis, as Freud developed it, was a form of what we now would call...
answer
Outpatient Therapy
question
Surveys have found that 43 percent of people today believe that mental illness is called by...
answer
Something people bring on themselves
question
Which BEST reflects the impact of deinstitutionalization?
answer
Not so well; many people with severe disturbances are in jail or on the street
question
Drugs designed to decrease extremely confused and distorted thinking are termed
answer
Antipsychotic
question
Dave is confused and usually thinks that he is an ancient king. If his psychiatrist ordered medication, it would MOST likely be a(n)...
answer
Antipsychotic Drug
question
The number of patients hospitalized in mental hospitals in the United States today is MOST similar to the number hospitalized in...
answer
1990
question
In the United States today, one is MOST likely to find a severely ill mental patient..
answer
On the street or in jail
question
Which statement is BEST reflects the current care for people with less severe disturbances...
answer
Private insurance companies are likely to cover outpatient treatment
question
Researchers have shown that in a typical year in the United States, nearly 1 in ____ adults receive clinical treatment
answer
6
question
According to surveys , about what proportion of adults in the United States receive psychological therapy in a typical year...
answer
1 in 6
question
A significant change in the type of care offered now compared to the time Freud was practicing that...
answer
People are more likely to receive treatment for "problems in living"
question
Which pair of words BEST describes the current emphasis in mental health
answer
Prevention and positive psychology
question
Efforts to help people develop personally meaningful activities and healthy relationships are a part of...
answer
The clinical practice of positive psychology
question
If a university had a program designed to help students achieve their full potential physically, educationally spiritually that program would have elements MOST similar to...
answer
Positive psychology programs
question
A person receiving multicultural therapy could expect all of these effects EXCEPT
answer
A focus on healthy feelings and actions rather than on problems
question
What the #%*$!!! Is going on? The insurance company says I have to stop my anger management program now!" The client who says this is MOST likely voicing concern about a:
answer
Managed Care Problems
question
Which sequence is correct in terms of prominence of mental health treatments in the United States during the twentieth century and beyond?
answer
Psychoanalytic, Biological, Cognitive, Sociocultural
question
After medical school, a psychiatrist recieves three to four years of training in the treatment of abnormal functioning; this training is called a(n)
answer
Residency
question
Which statement is true about the participation of women in the mental health professions?
answer
The profession with the highest percentage of women is counseing
question
A person who works in a mental hospital analyzing various treatment protocols to see how multicultural factor impact success rates is MOST likely a...
answer
Clinical Researcher
question
Which statement is the MOST accurate conclusion about the current state of abnormal psychology in the United States?
answer
There is no single definition of abnormality, no one theoretical understanding of the causes of mental illness, and no single best treatment
question
One who studies the history of the feild of abnormal psychology MOST likely would compare our current understanding of abnormal behavior to a book that...
answer
Is in the process of being written
question
A general understanding of the underlying nature, causes, and treatments of abnormal behavior is called...
answer
Nomothetic
question
Clinical researchers are usually concerned with a(n) _______ understanding of abnormality, while practitioners focus on a(n) ______ understanding
answer
Nomothetic, Idiographic
question
The clinical practitioner would be more likely than the clinical researcher to rely on which method of investigation?
answer
Case study with a single participant
question
A case study of a patient includes history, tests, and interviews with associates. A clear picture us constructed of this individual so her behavior is understood. This approach is...
answer
Idiographic
question
Which is NOT considered a research method?
answer
A treatment plan for the inividual
question
The idea that children from single-parent families show more depression than those from two-parent families is a(n)
answer
Hypothesis
question
The controversy regarding research with animals centers on...
answer
The rights of animals versus their usefulness in understanding human problems
question
A psychologist does a study of an individual involving a history, tests, and interviews of associates. A clear picture is constructed of this individual so her behavior is better understood. This study is...
answer
Case Study
question
Case studies are useful for...
answer
Learning a great deal about a particular patient
question
Which is NOT a way that case studies are useful?
answer
Determining general laws of behavior
question
Internal validity reflects how well a study...
answer
Rules out the effects of all variables except those being studied
question
The ability to generalize results from a study of certain individuals to other individuals not studied is called...
answer
External Validity
question
A psychologist studies memory techniques in adult volunteers and learns how to facilitate memory and then applies the results to a new class of students in a psychology course. This demonstrates faith in...
answer
The external validity of the study
question
If a study's findings generalize beyond the immediate study to other persons and situations, then the study has
answer
External Validity
question
A researcher is considering whether to gather online data from Facebook users without informing the users that their data are being used. In terms of research ethics, which question is the MOST relevant?
answer
Are Facebook postings considered "public behavior"?
question
"The heavier you are, the more food you are likely to eat". If true, this statement expresses...
answer
A positive correlation
question
If you were to graph the relationship between the numbers of negative life events experienced in the last month and people's perception of stress, you would probably find a(n):
answer
Upward-Sloping line (to the right)
question
In correlational research, external validity is established when...
answer
The sample is representative of the larger population
question
Which correlation coefficient is of the highest magnitude?
answer
-.81
question
If the correlation between severity of depression and age is -0.5, it means that...
answer
There is no consistent relationship between age and severity of depression
question
A student says, "Quick! I have to take a test in two minutes. I need help remembering what kind of correlation coefficient shows a weak relationship between two variables". Which will help the student?
answer
A correlation coefficient close to zero
question
Which correlation is MOST likely to be statistically significant?
answer
-.80, based on a sample of 100 people
question
A researcher finds a strong positive correlation between ratings of life stress and symptoms of depression. Therefore, the researcher may be confident that..
answer
Life stress and depression are related
question
A correlational study of college employees shows a strong positive correlation between self-reported stress levels and days of work missed for illness, allowing the researcher to conclude that...
answer
The researcher can make a fairly accurate prediction of days a person will miss for illness if the persons stress level is known
question
The correlational method and the experimental method and the experimental method are similar in that...
answer
Both have external validity
question
Which results are MOST likely from an epidemiological study?
answer
The rate of suicide is higher in Ireland than in the US
question
The incidence of HIV+ results on campus tells you...
answer
The number of new HIV+ cases measured in a time period
question
Studies that determine the incidence and prevalence of a disorder in a particular population are called...
answer
Epidemiological Studies
question
There were 10 new cases of schizophrenia in a small town in the Midwest this week. This observation refers to the ____ of schizophrenia in this small population.
answer
Incidence
question
The prevalence rate for a disorder will ___ the incidence rate.
answer
Always be the same of higher than
question
The finding that in the US. women have higher rates of anxiety and depression than men is MOST likely due to ____ research.
answer
Epidemiological
question
Imagine that a longitudinal study found that children raised by people with schizophrenia are more likely to commit crimes later. This result tells us that...
answer
Children of people with schizophrenia are at higher risk of criminal behavior
question
Which is an aspect of the experimental approach?
answer
The manipulation of a variable by the researcher
question
In a scientific experiment. the variable manipulated or controlled by the experimenter is called the...
answer
Independent Variable
question
A researcher randomly divides young women suffering from anorexia into two groups. Participants in Group A receive psychotherapy and drug treatments; Participants in Group B receive attention (but no therapy) and a "sugar pill". The researcher then compares participants in the two groups on relief of anorexia symptoms. One important criticism of the preceding research is that it is a...
answer
Placebo Effect
question
A study included 60 ppl suffering from an ordinary headache. Twenty received aspirin, 20 received a sugar pill that looked like aspirin, and 20 got nothing at all. In 65 percent of the aspirin group, the headache disappeared. In the other two groups the "cure" rates were 35 and 5 percent, respectively. Other than the drug condition, the participants were treated identically. This study:
answer
Is an experimental study
question
A researcher ed an experiment to study the causes of aggression in children. Half the children ate a sugared cereal; the remaining half ate cornflakes. The researcher then recorded the number of aggressive acts displayed by the children in a one-hour play period after breakfast. In this experiment:
answer
The type of cereal is the independent variable, and the number of aggressive responses is the dependent variable
question
Dr. Tim required half of a group of healthy volunteers to study a reading passage for 1 hour. The other half of the participants studied for 15 minutes. Dr. Tim then administered a test of participants' memory of details from the passage. What was the dependent variable?
answer
The results of the memory test
question
Students were given a sensation-seeking test and then divided into two groups, depending on their score. A researcher observed how many times students in each group got out of their seats 2 hours. The dependent variable is;
answer
Number of times getting out of one's seat
question
A research study on a group of children with autism will compare treatment delivered by parents at home to treatment delivered by teachers at school. If the study finds that the treatment delivered at school is more effective, which item is the BEST example of a confounding variable?
answer
Differences between the parents and teachers
question
On hundred psychiatric patients were randomly assigned to one of two groups. One group received a new drug in pill form. The other group was given identical-looking placebo pills. A panel of psychiatrists, who did not know which pill each participant received, evaluated all participants for level of agitation. What could be a potential confound in this study?
answer
Having the drug group be inpatients and the placebo group be outpatients
question
#42 is too long.
answer
A
question
As a general rule, if the sample is large, the difference between the groups is large, and the range of score within a group is small, then...
answer
Control Group
question
One hundred psychiatric patients were randomly assigned to one of two groups. One group received a new drug in pill form. The other group was given identical-looking placebo pills. A panel of psychiatrists, who did not know which pill each participant received, evaluated all participants for level of agitation. What is the control group?
answer
The ones who got the placebo
question
The BEST way to select a random sample of 10 students from a class would be to...
answer
Write each student's name on a piece of paper, put the papers in a pile, close eyes, and pick 10 papers
question
To accomplish random assignment, one could assign participants to groups by...
answer
Flipping a coin to determine group assignment
question
Russ wants to be a good participant. He knows that his professor is an environmentalist, so his answers on the survey reflect a pro-environment position. This an example of:
answer
Subject Bias
question
A researcher's expectations about a study can affect its outcome. The type of research design used specifically to address this problem is a(n):
answer
Blind design
question
The Rosenthal effect:
answer
Should be avoided by using a blind design
question
A therapist believes so strongly in her approach that she finds improvement even when non exists. Which design would prevent this problem?
answer
Double Blind
question
The function of the double blind design is to guard against
answer
Participant and experimenter expectancies
question
To study some differences, a researcher selected a group of 10 men and 10 women and treated all participants exactly the same. Each participant was given a test of psychological function. This study is an example of a(n)...
answer
Quasi-Experimental Study
question
Which would MOST appropriately be studied using a quasi-experimental design?
answer
The effects of parents with schizophrenia on children's adjustment
question
If researchers using matched control subjects find that abused children are sadder than non abused children, those researchers show that...
answer
Abuse is probably what is causing the difference in sadness between these two groups
question
Which would be LEAST appropriately studied using a natural experiment?
answer
The effects of premarital abstinence on later sexual funcitioning
question
"Why do we do natural experiments?" asks a student. "After all, each disaster that causes a natural experiment is unique." A good answer would be, "Using natural experiments, researchers have learned quite a lot about...
answer
Stress disorders
question
Which item is in an analogue study?
answer
Studying the effects of stress in nonhumans
question
To justify analogue experiments with animals, researchers must...
answer
Balance the suffering of the animals with the knowledge to be gained
question
Seligman's study in which he created learned helplessness in the lab is an example of a(n) ______ study
answer
Analogue
question
In single-subject experimental designs, the participant is observed and measured before the manipulation of an independent variable. This initial observation period is called the:
answer
Baseline Period
question
In an ABAB reversal design study, a researcher is measuring level of depression with and without the addition of an exercise program. What is the second "B" in the study?
answer
Exercise
question
A student says, "The problem with single-subject experiments is that there is no control group, so you don't know if the treatment is effective." The BEST reply is...
answer
"If you use a reversal design, then participants serves as their own controls"
question
Which statement is true about case studies and single-subject designs?
answer
Single-subject designs have more internal validity
question
The MOST accurate summary of what has happened in the United States in the last 50 year to protect the rights of human research participants would be that..
answer
There has been important progress, but concerns remain
question
Which statement is the MOST appropriate conclusion about new drug studies, placebo studies, symptom-exacerbation studies, and medication-withdrawal studies?
answer
The studies have led to calls for greater safe-gaurds for patiens
question
A recent study informed consent forms showed that...
answer
Many research participants don't understand them
question
Which statement is FALSE regarding the obstacles that clinical scientists face in studying psychological disorder?
answer
Humans have unusually stable (unchanging) moods and behavior
question
When more than one research method produces similar results, researchers...
answer
Can have more confidence in the results
question
Once a study in abnormal psychology finds significant results, researchers...
answer
Must ask a number of questions about the details of the study
Affordable Care Act
Foods
People With Disabilities
Seasons
3263- Restaurant Management – Flashcards 132 terms

Judith Simpson
132 terms
Preview
3263- Restaurant Management – Flashcards
question
What is the busiest time for restaurants?
answer
Weekends
question
A restaurant with a million dollar sales volume per year can generate how much in profit before taxes?
answer
$150,000 - $200,000
question
A fully equipped, 100 seat restaurant, costs how much per seat?
answer
$6,000 - $10,000
question
The highest original investment comes from?
answer
The building
question
The highest overall risk comes from?
answer
The building
question
How many jobs does the NRA predict will be added to the restaurant industry by 2020?
answer
1.3 million
question
What is a franchise?
answer
A branded product that the owner sells and markets under a contract
question
What restaurant is credited to be the first franchise?
answer
Howard Johnson's
question
What did Boulanger believe was the cure to all illness?
answer
Soup
question
What did restaurant owners say helped most in "getting where you are today?"
answer
Hard work
question
Which refers to the restaurant where food, drink, and service are usually leisurely and expensive?
answer
Fine dining
question
What are the responsibilities of a franchisee?
answer
Hiring employees and operating the store
question
What concept has the most sales of all segment ratings?
answer
Burgers
question
What are economic factors that differentiate fine dining from the average restaurant?
answer
Meal prices, rent, and labor costs
question
What ethnic restaurant is the largest category?
answer
Italian
question
What should theme restaurants be located near?
answer
Tourist attractions
question
What are the benefits of economic of scale?
answer
Reduce food, labor, and overhead costs
question
Where is pizza native to?
answer
Naples
question
Which of the following is not a part of the franchisee setup?
answer
Paying the payroll
question
Which of the following is not an advantage of independent restaurants?
answer
Greater advertising clout
question
A restaurant concept is devised to interest a certain group of people called a?
answer
Target market
question
Which of the following would be considered a knockout criterion?
answer
Located behind two buildings
question
A restaurant has two potential values?
answer
Real estate value and value as a profit generator
question
Surveys show that X% of all table service customers arrive in pairs?
answer
40% - 50%
question
Which of the following is not part of the planning process of concept development?
answer
Who will train the staff
question
In drawing up a restaurant mission statement, the following features should be explicit?
answer
Market served, kind of food served, ethical standards
question
Luxury/table service require X sq. ft. per seat while cafeterias need just X?
answer
15-20 & 10-12
question
A concept is strengthened if it immediately establishes a X that is vivid and remembered?
answer
Ambiance/identity
question
Which of the following is incorrect: Don't open a restaurant unless?
answer
You love to cook and your friends love your food
question
The magazine Restaurant Business publishes an annual restaurant growth index, the purpose is to list?
answer
The best/worst places to open a restaurant in the US
question
The difference between the sales price and cost of an item is?
answer
Contribution margin
question
What is not a consideration in menu planning?
answer
Capabilities of the servers
question
Which menu separates similar entrees?
answer
Dinner-house
question
What should be front and center in the restaurant business?
answer
Menu
question
Generally, there should be X amount of entrees?
answer
8
question
Consistency in food prep is achieved by?
answer
Standardizing recipes and cooking procedures
question
To ensure ingredients are available, fresh, and priced right, restaurant operators should?
answer
Take advantage of seasons when items are at their lowest price and best quality, use ups and downs in food prices and overcome them by seasonal or daily menus, and use frozen foods when fresh foods are not available
question
Two main menu pricing strategies?
answer
Using a comparative approach of price and multiply by the ratio necessary to achieve a food cost percentage
question
Prime cost is?
answer
Food and labor
question
Prime costs should be X% of sales?
answer
55% - 60%
question
Costs associated with turnover?
answer
Recruitment costs and replacement costs
question
Some rules for restaurant success are?
answer
To have a simple but delicious menu, to hire wait staff with great personality, and restaurant location/parking
question
Kitchen flood are usually covered in?
answer
Sealed concrete and tile
question
Food is prepared individually vacuum packed, and refrigerated for future use. This is known as the X method?
answer
Sous vide
question
X determines the equipment?
answer
Menu
question
The overall object of restaurant layout planning is to?
answer
Minimize the number of steps taken by waitstaff and kitchen staff
question
Because some restaurants go out of business, used equipment is X available from restaurant dealers?
answer
Almost always
question
The X is simply a tank holding heated water in which hot foods in pots are placed to keep food warm?
answer
Bain marie
question
If your restaurant operates with a profit margin of around 5% you'll need about X worth of sales to earn $450?
answer
$9,000
question
Restaurant equipment has a life expectancy of?
answer
10 years
question
After being purchased, restaurant equipment drops X% in value?
answer
80%
question
Which of the following is not a category of kitchen equipment?
answer
Selling the food
question
Define ergonomics?
answer
Reduce staff fatigue and discomfort
question
What is the biggest energy use in the common kitchen?
answer
Traditional range/convection oven
question
Which of the following is not a practical use for a microwave?
answer
Braising
question
A X is a nonprofit institution that is able to provide restaurant food and supplies at a lower cost than profit-oriented purveyors?
answer
Co-op
question
The amount of food to be purchased can be built into the purchasing system based on?
answer
Past records
question
The points that indicate more food should be ordered are called?
answer
Reorder points
question
Written standards for food that are based on a forecast of sales are called?
answer
Food specifications
question
In the usual restaurant, who decides on product specification and selects purveyors?
answer
Manager, in consult with the chef
question
Temperatures when receiving fresh/frozen meat should be?
answer
40*F/0*F
question
X are the most expensive items served in most restaurants?
answer
Meat
question
Which grade is used for the best meat product available?
answer
Prime
question
The purchasing cycle consists of?
answer
Product specification, par stock and reorder points, supplier selection, order placement, receiving, storing, and issuing
question
The length of time an item can be stored without appreciable loss in quality or weight is called its?
answer
Shelf life
question
The first step in putting together a purchasing system is to determine the?
answer
Food standards
question
The X grade of meat is popular in supermarkets?
answer
Select
question
Which of the following represents a sustainable practice when purchasing food?
answer
Purchasing beef and pork raised in pastures vs. confined in enclosed spaces
question
Food cost percentage should be calculated?
answer
Monthly
question
The formula for food cost percent is?
answer
(Cost / sales) x 100
question
The normal pouring cost for beer is?
answer
25%
question
The beverage pouring cost is X of beverage sales?
answer
23% - 25%
question
What does the product mix show?
answer
How many items were sold
question
What are the categories of payroll and related costs?
answer
Variable and fixed costs
question
In full-service restaurants, the largest variable is?
answer
Labor costs
question
A daily flash report shows?
answer
Daily sales
question
The cost of food sold divided by food revenue is?
answer
Food cost percentage
question
What is the wine pouring cost?
answer
26% - 30%
question
Profit makes up X% of total revenue?
answer
3%- 9%
question
What is the first thing restaurant managers do?
answer
Forecast to see how many guests are expected
question
According to the text, job specifications?
answer
Identify the qualifications and skills needed to perform the job
question
The US Department of Labor, Wage, & Hour Division deals with?
answer
Sex and age
question
At age X teenagers may legally work at any job?
answer
18
question
Which approach to task and job analysis must be used in new restaurants because there are no existing employees to analyze?
answer
Top-down
question
Which can be converted into job instructions?
answer
Task analysis
question
A chef is responsible for X% of food costs?
answer
95%
question
Minors of what age cannot work before 7am or after 7pm on school days?
answer
14 & 15
question
Only about X of all restaurants employ anyone with the title of chef?
answer
1/3
question
The most effective way to check an employees reference is to follow up by?
answer
Phone
question
A job X lists the education and technical/conceptual skills a person needs to satisfactorily perform the requirements of the job?
answer
Specification
question
Today there are X people with disabilities in the US?
answer
43 million
question
When an organizational chart is said to be flat, that means?
answer
They have fewer levels
question
Which of the following questions are not allowed during an interview?
answer
How old are you
question
The X model views restaurant managers as coaches, they are engaged in informal training much of the time?
answer
Manager as coach
question
The word manage implies?
answer
Purpose and mobilization or resources for given goals
question
Employee X programs deal with perspectives, attitudes and feelings about the restaurant, the job, the customers and the boss?
answer
Development
question
Which does the behavior modification theory urge?
answer
An immediate reward for desired behavior
question
Which training mat hod allows the learning to be absorbed and avoids fatigue?
answer
Spaced training
question
Behavioral scientists urge that?
answer
Specific behavior emphasized rather than general praise
question
According to experts, an employer who is irritated and unhappy with an employee's behavior should?
answer
Tell the employee about it
question
Using part-time employees can be a drawback except that?
answer
Employers do not have to pay for benefits
question
Much of labor turnover occurs within the first few X of employment?
answer
Weeks
question
Experience has shown that the most practical and immediately beneficial way of training restaurant employees is the X method?
answer
Hands on
question
What is the first goal for an orientation program?
answer
Explain the company history, philosophy, mission, goals and objectives
question
Psychologists tell us that inserting constructive criticism between two X softens the criticism while at the same time working the criticism?
answer
Favorable comments
question
When a guest is seated, the number one rule for a server is?
answer
Greet the guest within one minute
question
Many licensed usual and upscale restaurant have beverage sales of X of total sales?
answer
25% - 30%
question
By definition, an upscale general retail license authorities the sale of?
answer
All types of alcoholic beverages namely, beer wine and distilled spirits—for consumption on the premises
question
Red wine gains its color during which process?
answer
Fermentation
question
The typical restaurants percentage cost for wine is?
answer
30%
question
When developing a wine list, the selected varietals of white wine could include all but which of the following?
answer
Pinot noir
question
Beverage sales yield X as food sales?
answer
More profit
question
Over the years, experience has shown that?
answer
Red wine is best served with beef, lamb, game or duck
question
Which statements is not true?
answer
Dram Shop Laws make it possible for servers to sue intoxicated guests for any accidents
question
Under third party liability?
answer
The servers are responsible for any accusations
question
In the food and beverage industry it is estimated that X of employees will steal regardless of the control in place?
answer
25%
question
Grapes for making wine are harvested in the X, after they have been tested for maturity?
answer
Fall
question
Most restaurants use the back bar to add atmosphere by displaying the?
answer
Premium brand liquors
question
The margin of profit on a fountain drink is?
answer
85%
question
X assumes that customers change and that they want new menu items, new atmosphere, and sometimes new service?
answer
Marketing
question
In the marketing plan, goals need to be set for the 4 P's, which are ?
answer
Product, price, place, promotion
question
The most atmospheric restaurants are those with a?
answer
Theme
question
The location of the restaurant is generally to be of X importance?
answer
Major
question
The "S" in SWOT analysis stands for?
answer
Strengths
question
Which are 3 typical market segments?
answer
Geographic, demographic, behavior
question
When analyzing the competition it makes sense to do a X which shows how your restaurant compares to its competition?
answer
Comparison benefit mix
question
When combined, prime costs should not go above X of sales?
answer
60%
question
Which conveys to the customer the best face or image of the restaurant, what people like most about it, or how it stands out from the competition?
answer
Positioning
question
Marketing efforts are most needed during?
answer
Low periods
question
Which are the types of demographic?
answer
Age, sex, family life cycle, income, occupation, education, religion and race
question
The Affordable Care Act schedules to go into effect in?
answer
January 2014, 50 people
question
Which partnership have complete liability, but full management rights?
answer
General partnership
Affordable Care Act
Fair Debt Collection
Insurance
Medical/Clerical Assisting
Small Claims Court
IHMO CH. 10 Multiple Choice – Flashcards 59 terms

Pat Coker
59 terms
Preview
IHMO CH. 10 Multiple Choice – Flashcards
question
Cash flow is the
answer
ongoing availability of cash i the medical practice
question
When insurance carriers do not pay claims i a timely manner, what effect does this have on the medical practice?
answer
decreased cash flow
question
What does the insurance billing specialist need to monitor to be able to evaluate the effectiveness of the collection process
answer
Accounts receivable
question
The average amount of accounts receivable should be ..... times the charges for one month of services
answer
1.5 to 2
question
Accounts that are 90 days or older should not exceed ..... of the total accounts receivable
answer
15% TO 18%
question
What should be done to inform a new patient of office fees and payment policies
answer
Send a patient information brochure, send a confirmation letter, and discuss fees and policies at the time of the initial contact (all)
question
The patient is likely to be the most cooperative in furnishing details necessary for a complete registration process
answer
before any services are provided
question
The reason for a fee reduction must be documented in the patients
answer
medical record
question
Professional courtesy means
answer
making no charge to anyone, patient or insurance company, for medical care.
question
When collecting fees, your goal should always be to
answer
collect the full amount
question
A medical practice has a policy of billing only for charges in excess of $50. When the medical assistant requests a $45 payment for the office visit, the patient states, just bill me. How should the medical assistant respond?
answer
State the office policy and ask for the full fee
question
The most common method of payment in the medical office is
answer
personal check
question
When the physicians office receives notice that a check was not honored, the first thing to do is to
answer
call the bank or the patient
question
Accounts receivable are usually aged in time periods of
answer
30, 60, 90 and 120 days
question
Messages included on statements to promote payment are called
answer
dun messages
question
What is the type of billing system in which practice management software is used
answer
Computer billing
question
Employment of a billing service is called
answer
outsourcing
question
The first statement should be.....of service
answer
presented at the time
question
The first telephone call to the patient to try to collect on an account should be made
answer
after there is no response from the third statement
question
What is a card called that permits bank customers to make cashless purchases from funds on deposit without incurring revolving finance charges for credit?
answer
debit card
question
How many installments (excluding a down payment) must a payment plan have to require full written disclosure
answer
four or more
question
Patient accounts that are 90 days or older should not exceed what percent of the total office accounts receivable
answer
15% to !8%
question
What is the name of federal act that prohibits discrimination in all areas of granting credit
answer
Equal Credit Opportunity Act
question
What is the name of the act designed to address the collection practices of third party debt collectors and attorneys who regularly collect debts for others
answer
Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
question
All collection calls should be placed after ..... am and before .....pm
answer
8; 9
question
Which group of accounts would a collector target when he or she begins making telephone calls
answer
60-90 day accounts
question
In making collection telephone calls to a group of accounts, how should the accounts be organized to determine where to begin
answer
Organize the accounts according to amounts owed and start with the largest
question
A plan in which employees can choose their own working hours from within a broad range of hours approved by management is called
answer
flex time
question
When writing a collection letter
answer
use a friendly tone and ask why payment has not been made
question
If an insurance company seems to be ignoring all efforts to trace a claim, send a copy of the
answer
history of the account
question
Netback is a term used to describe
answer
a collection agency's performance
question
The part of the legal system that allows laypeople to settle a legal matter without use of an attorney is
answer
small claims
question
In a bankruptcy case, most medical bills are considered
answer
unsecured debt
question
Which type of bankruptcy is considered wage earners bankruptcy
answer
Chapter 13
question
The word ..... comes from a Latin word that means to believe or to trust
answer
credit
question
The unpaid balance due from patients for services that have been rendered is called
answer
accounts receivable
question
the relationship of the amount of money owed to a physician and the amount of money collected on the physicians accounts receivable is called the
answer
collection ratio
question
The patient information sheet is also known as the
answer
Patient registration information form
question
The patient registration form should be updated at least every
answer
6 months
question
All discounted fees need to be noted on the patient
answer
financial accounting record
question
Assets or debts that have been determined to be uncollectible and are therefore taken off (debited) the accounting books as a loss are called
answer
write off or courtesy adjustment
question
The amount due listed on the patients financial accounting record is also referred to as the account
answer
balance
question
In the endorsement on the back of the payment check does not match the name on the front, there may be a case of
answer
forgery
question
The procedure of systematically arranging the accounts receivable by age from the date of service is called
answer
age analysis
question
The statement, This bill is now 30 days past due. Please remit payment, is called a
answer
dun message
question
An outside party who takes over the task of preparing and mailing statements is known as a
answer
billing service
question
The term ..... is used when accounts are billed at spaced intervals during the month
answer
cycle billing
question
the Truth in Lending Consumer Credit Cost Disclosure requires businesses to disclose all ..... and ..... costs related to granting credit
answer
direct and indirect
question
A formal regulation or law setting time limits on legal action is know as a
answer
statute of limitations
question
The maximum time during which legal collection suit may be rendered against a debtor is referred to as an
answer
statute of limitations
question
According to the FDCPA do not contact a third party more than ..... unless requested to do so by the party or the response was erroneous or incomplete
answer
once
question
the collection abbreviation TTA means
answer
turned to agency
question
The collection abbreviation OOT means
answer
out of town
question
When dealing with managed care contracts, do not sign contracts that use the ..... clause because this is a way for one party to shift financial responsibilities to another party
answer
hold harmless
question
Patients accounts turned over to a collection agency should have a ..... sent by certified mail
answer
letter of withdrawal
question
In filing a claim in small claims court the physicians office is referred to as the .....
answer
plaintiff
question
A patient who owes a balance on his or her account and moves but leaves no forwarding address is called a
answer
skip
question
In dealing with an estate claim, a call to the ..... can be made periodically to check on the status of the estate
answer
executor
question
A ..... is a claim on the property of another as security for debt
answer
lien
Affordable Care Act
Linguistics
Media
New York Times
Chapter 7 Post Test 22 terms

Carmen Dawson
22 terms
Preview
Chapter 7 Post Test
question
Universities, think tanks, nonprofit organizations, and private foundations are providing more political analyses and information as ____________________ have cut their budgets and resources.
answer
traditional news organizations
question
____________ journalism caters to specialized interests of news consumers
answer
Niche
question
A classic example of a media leak is
answer
the \"Pentagon Papers,\" published by the New York Times and the Washington Post.
question
According to the textbook, the media's adversarial posture toward government may
answer
decrease levels of political participation
question
The FCC's fairness doctrine
answer
is no longer being enforced.
question
The media have a bias in favor of
answer
whoever will provide the largest audience.
question
The Telecommunications Act of 1996 was an attempt to do all of the following except
answer
tighten federal restrictions of media ownership
question
When the delivery of news was dominated by only three networks and a handful of national papers, it tended to be _______________ than it is today
answer
more moderate
question
Which of the following is noted by the book's authors as a reason for the recent decline in the American public's trust of the press?
answer
media concentration
question
_______________________ are two popular news aggregators that serve a large number of readers by synthesizing coverage from a variety of sources.
answer
Google News and the Huffington Post
question
Both Facebook and Twitter have contributed to political mobilization and information sharing by creating ________________ where groups of like-minded individuals, or individuals with shared interests, can easily share information.
answer
virtual social networks
question
Even though newspapers are not the primary news source for most Americans, why could they still be considered important?
answer
They are still influential among the political elite
question
____________ are the ultimate beneficiaries of free and active media.
answer
People
question
Howard Stern was fined millions of dollars by the FCC because of his
answer
use of obscenity and profanity on the air.
question
Online media, by representing a wider range of political views than traditional news sources, have created a
answer
more democratic press
question
WikiLeaks published confidential government documents that showed that the ______________ government and press concealed news, including war crimes against civilians and the use of torture by American forces.
answer
American
question
If an idea lacks or loses media appeal, its chance of its resulting in new programs or policies is
answer
decreased
question
The noted benefits of _______________ include a diversity of viewpoints, up to the moment information, and a depth of available information.
answer
online news
question
The Obama administration's labeling of its health care initiative Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, thus defining it as a matter of compassionate responsibility and good economic sense, is an example of
answer
framing.
question
Citizen journalism is a distinguishing feature of ___________ more interactive and participatory.
answer
digital media, which are
question
It is estimated that more than ____________ of Americans have a television set.
answer
95 percent
question
Social media sites such as Facebook and Twitter have
answer
accelerated the importance of digital politics by alerting readers to breaking news before the mainstream media do.
Affordable Care Act
Allied Health Professionals
High Deductible Health Plan
National Labor Relations Board
Nursing
Prospective Payment System
Sherman Anti Trust Act
Tactical Plans
HSA EXAM 2 – Flashcards 100 terms

Carol Rushing
100 terms
Preview
HSA EXAM 2 – Flashcards
question
groups of providers come together and take responsibility for delivering care to a defined patient population.
answer
Accountable Care Organizations (ACOs) are built on the premise that:
question
when health care organizations bill for services but receives no payments.
answer
Bad debt in health care finance is defined as:
question
Center for Medicare and Medicaid Innovation.
answer
CMI is an acronym that stands for:
question
Land Acquisition Facility construction acquisition renovation routine capital equipment used in clinical areas, information technology infrastructure and upgrades acquisition of staff physicians
answer
Capital budgets may include all of the following:
question
state/federal laws
answer
Charge setting is controlled by:
question
Community service, the not-for-profit organization provides care who is unable to pay.
answer
Charity care is:
question
Inventory, cash on hand, account receivable, and other such items that can be converted into cash in LESS than one year.
answer
Current assets may include:
question
investors or others who have an interest in making a profit from the services provided
answer
For-profit health care organizations are usually owned by:
question
Working to increase the revenues and decrease the cost of the organization.
answer
Health care financial management involves:
question
have a negative financial impact on their facilities.
answer
In the wake of health care reform, most health care executives believe that the new reform policies will:
question
merit-based program or focused on quality, value and accountability
answer
Physician reimbursement through Medicare will eventually be:
question
current assets and liabilities
answer
Primary sources of working capital include all of the following:
question
state/federal law and regulations, the joint commission, antitrust, profit-oriented pricing.
answer
Setting prices in health care organizations involves consideration of all the following:
question
skilled nursing facilities, home health agencies, outpatient hospitals, and clinics.
answer
The Balanced Budget Act of 1997 implemented cost controls for Medicare expenditures in all of the following health care sectors:
question
RVRBS
answer
The Medicare prospective payment system for reimbursing hospitals utilizes:
question
Admission, evaluation, diagnosis, treatment, and management.
answer
All of the following are examples of family practice core privileges for care of infants and children, adolescents, and adults for most illnesses, disorders, and injuries:
question
include APN'S such as NP'S, CNS, Nurse anesthetists, Nurse midwives, and PA's ( Answer on test is "Except EMT" )
answer
All of the following are midlevel practitioners:
question
get a minimum level of training and pass a competency evaluation or receive state certification.
answer
Home Health Aides who work for agencies reimbursed by Medicare and Medicaid must:
question
poor teamwork and interpersonal conflict which can result in poor patient outcomes.
answer
Physician resistance to acknowledge nurses as colleagues can lead to:
question
feel overworked, underpaid, and disrespected by co-workers and managers.
answer
Nurses quit jobs when they:
question
3-10 years
answer
Residency training lasts from ______ depending on the specialty
question
medical device manufacturers and group purchasing organizations to report any payments and transfers of value to physicians. or teaching hospitals as well as any ownership of investment interest physicians or immediate family members have in a company
answer
The Sunshine Act requires:
question
registered nurses.
answer
The largest category of health care workers is:
question
job autonomy, fairness of pay, opportunities for promotion, relationships with co-workers and supervisors, level of job burnout, overall job satisfaction.
answer
Which of the following items should be on a work life analysis?
question
False
answer
True or False: There are no shortages of allied health professionals
question
Attitudes, behavior, and experience.
answer
Behavioral-based interviews are helpful to the hiring organization in understanding a candidate's:
question
staff engagement, staff acquisition and development, staff front line empowerment, leadership alignment and development
answer
Best practices of high-performing organizations include all of the following focal areas:
question
increasing competition among HSOs
answer
Human resources decisions need to be strategic because of:
question
positive motivational effect which leads to higher performance.
answer
Incentive compensation is believed to have what effect on employee performance?
question
protecting employee rights and ensures nondiscrimination.
answer
Major federal law affecting human resources primarily addresses:
question
needs and better manage their human resources.
answer
Predictive analytics or Human Resource Analytics are used by Human Resources managers to identify:
question
benefits are more important than compensation.
answer
Recent information from the literature concerning employee perceptions suggests that:
question
union organization and collective bargaining.
answer
The National Labor Relations Board provides guidance for HR in addressing:
question
Understaffed, lower levels of staff satisfaction, higher rates of staff turnover and an increase human resources costs
answer
The low supply of some health care workers (e.g nurses) has led to which of the following impacts on HSOs?
question
Contribution to recruitment, training and development for staff, as well as staff satisfaction and retention staff training
answer
Which of the following is a typical measure used by senior management to directly assess performance of HR efforts?
question
10 key features: Not defined, Unique, non-enumerable and non-immediate solutions, good/bad solutions, symptom of another problem, planner has no right to be wrong, and discrepancy can be explained in numerous ways.
answer
A wicked problem DOES have which of the following features
question
6 Strategies: Worked with more information, debated facts; developed multiple alternatives to enrich the level of debate; shared commonly agreed upon goals; injected humour into decision process; maintained a balanced power structure; and, 6th--, --resolved issues without forcing consensus
answer
Eisenhardt, Kahwajy & Bourgeois (1997) found that teams with minimal interpersonal conflict DO INVOLVE:
question
they CAN improve communication, establish goals, and delineate responsibilities (pg 387)
answer
Guidelines for teamwork cannot:
question
Have the knowledge, skills, and disposition to do the job at hand
answer
One of the critical questions to ask when assessing a potential team member is:
question
forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
answer
Teams go through the following stages, in the following order:
question
improved communication, increased productivity, increased job satisfaction and decreased nursing turnover.
answer
To convince higher-level management that teamwork is worth the effort, one SHOULD point to:
question
the agency for health care research and quality (AHRQ), a team system designed for healthcare professionals that is evidenced based and intended to improve communication and teamwork skills
answer
TeamSTEPPS is
question
Improved coordination of care. More efficient use of health care services. Increased job satisfaction among team members. Higher patient satisfaction.
answer
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of effective health care teams?
question
Correct: Address specific organizational needs,ie.service excellence, environmental sustainability,green initiatives and clinical services marketing â—¦Carry out performance improvement activities/service enhancements
answer
Which of the following is correct about Cross Functional Teams (CFTs)? (question will ask what is NOT correct)
question
d.none of the above.
answer
Which of the following is NOT correct about emotions? a.Emotions are communicated in nanoseconds. b.Women and people in helping professions are more sensitive to emotions. c.Emotions are contagious. d.None of the above.
question
All of the above.
answer
A hospital can demonstrate inclusivity by community engagement through:
question
All of the above? Greater access for the underserved.
answer
Benefits of a diverse health care workforce include
question
Lack of transport to healthcare providers, inability to obtain convenient appointment times and lengthy waiting room times reduce the likelihood of a person successfully making and keeping their healthcare appointment.
answer
Health disparities have been identified based on the following criteria:
question
Culturally effective care, cultural conditioning, cultural sensitivity, cultural humility, cultural excellence training.
answer
Select all the terms that can be used interchangeably with cultural competency
question
Complex, integrated and overlapping social structures and economic systems
answer
Social determinants that contribute to health disparities include
question
Having a 9-5 schedule and not being able to attend doctor's appts.
answer
Structural barriers may impede patient care and increase disparities; for example
question
effective, equitable, understandable, and respectful quality care and services that are responsive to diverse cultural health beliefs and practices, preferred languages, health literacy, and other communication needs.
answer
The National Standards on Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services provide for
question
False
answer
True or False: Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States
question
True
answer
True or False : Health disparities represent significant differences between one population and another.
question
illness and injury (Substance abuse, infant mortality, birth defects, asthma, cancer, diabetes, store, heart disease, sexual diseases, mental disease.
answer
Vulnerable populations are more exposed to risks from:
question
False
answer
True or False : There is one specific destination or goal for health care organization to achieve in terms of cultural competence
question
False
answer
True or False : The health care workforce matches the U.S. population in terms of diversity
question
Criminal Law
answer
A wrong against society as a whole, even if a particular individual is harmed, is considered a violation of which type of law?
question
Civil law
answer
Contract violations are generally considered to be part of which type of law?
question
b. Malice
answer
49.For a health provider's action to be considered negligent, which of the following factors is NOT necessary? A. Causation B. Malice C. Injury or damages D. Duty toward the harmed party E. Breach of duty
question
"do no harm" or at least don't make it worse.
answer
Nonmaleficence is a concept that states that you should
question
is a law that requires healthcare organizations to inform patients of their rights as they pertain to their ability to determine their own health care
answer
The Patient Self - Determination Act-
question
False
answer
True or False : Any Willing Provider laws seek to enable patients to see whichever providers they want
question
True
answer
True or False : Administrative agencies dictate many of the ways in which health care workers and organizations must function
question
False
answer
True or False: Ethics does nothing to help form the laws and legal system of the U.S.
question
True
answer
True or False : Generally speaking, laws govern the relationships between private individuals and organizations and between both of these and the government
question
HIPPA, EMTALA, Fiduciary Duty.
answer
What are some of the ways in which health care organizations protect the rights of their patients?
question
False
answer
True or False : Patient advocates play a role in the navigating the health care system whether an individual is sick or no
question
the negligence or carelessness of a professional person; it can be either civil (tort) concern or a criminal one, depending on whether it involved "reckless disregard" for the safety of another (criminal) or simple carelessness (civil). "Malpractice is a professional's improper or immoral conduct in the performance of duties, done either intentionally or through carelessness or ignorance.
answer
Which of the following is not part of the definition of the health care malpractice?
question
Fiduciary duty, Using competent providers, Providing appropriate care, and Balancing cost-containment with good quality care
answer
Which of the following are obligations of a managed care organization to its patients?
question
Providers billing for services that were not provided or did not meet medical necessity criteria (false claims), submitting duplicate bills, upcoding services to receive higher reimbursement, and receiving kickbacks for referrals
answer
Examples of health care fraud and abuse include
question
Medicare Fund
answer
HEAT is the President's newest tool against
question
CMS
answer
Safe Harbor regulations were put in place by
question
1. written policies, 2. designation of compliance officer, 3. training and education, 4. effective lines of communication throughout the org, 5. enforcement procedures, 6. procedures for effective internal monitoring and auditing, 7. procedures for corrective action
answer
Seven essential elements of an effective compliance program include
question
Operation Restore
answer
The investigative and enforcement authority to deal with fraud and abuse violations was granted to the Department of Health and Human Services ( DHHS) through
question
False
answer
49.True or False : A successful compliance plan requires buy - in from upper management
question
False
answer
True or False : Fraud is an improper act that is unintentional and inconsistent with standard practices
question
False
answer
True or False: As of 2015, Medicare RAC's are returning more money than Medicaid Fraud Control Units
question
False
answer
True or False : The Sherman Antitrust Act prohibits mergers and acquisitions that lessen competition
question
Violations of this act are a felony and may include punishment of up to 5 years in prison and/or fines up to $25,000, imposes a requirement to disclose overpayment to the government regardless of the intent at the time the claim was submitted
answer
Violations of the Criminal Disclosure Provision of the Social Security Act include which of the following penalties?
question
Dumping a patient on another hospital because they are very sick
answer
Violations of the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act ( EMTALA) include all of the following, EXCEPT...
question
False
answer
True or False: The Stark 1 laws apply to both Medicare and Medicaid
question
False
answer
49.True or False: The health reform act that was passed in March 2010 will end health care fraud and abuse once and for all
question
is an inadvertent slip, lapse, or mistake
answer
Human Error
question
outbound: U.S. patients traveling to other countries for medical care. Inbound: foreign patients traveling to the U.S. for medical care and Intrabound: U.S. patients traveling domestically for medical care.
answer
Medical Tourism includes
question
False
answer
True or False : Bioterrorism was created for military uses in the 1980s
question
False
answer
True or False : If a person has been exposed to Ebola, has no fever, and travels on an airplane, he can transmit the disease to other passengers
question
True
answer
True or False : One - Third of woman killed in the U.S. workplaces were killed by a current or former intimate partner
question
False
answer
True or False : Vaccines have only been around since the 1950s
question
False
answer
True or False : There are no assurances of quality if you go for medical care in a country other than the United States
question
example of stalking includes unwanted phone calls, texts, letters, emails, social media posts, following or spying on the victim, showing up at places without a legitimate reason, waiting at places for the victim, leaving unwanted items, presents or flowers; posting information or spreading rumors about the victim
answer
Which of the following is NOT an example of stalking
question
overt actions such as verbal outburst and physical threats, as well as passive activities such as refusing to perform assigned task or quietly exhibiting uncooperative attitudes during routine activities
answer
Disruptive behaviors include
question
is required for physicians, nurses and others to practice and demonstrate competency to perform a scope of practice.
answer
Licensure
question
Poor teamwork, Interpersonal Conflict, Poor Communication, Poor patient outcomes
answer
Physician resistance to acknowledge nurses as colleagues can lead to
question
Higher level of organizational performance
answer
Incentive compensation is believed to have what effect on employee performance ?
question
A type of incentive compensation program where all staff share in receiving additional compensation in the form of a bonus as a result of meeting annual performance targets
answer
Gainsharing or goal- sharing programs
question
Serve as a recruitment tool for HSOs, focus primarily on filling middle-level manager positions
answer
Leadership Development Programs in HSOs
question
Organizational performance is based on individuals
answer
The perspective that HSO employees should be viewed as a strategic asset means
question
Improve interaction increases trust organizations that empower their employees promote employee satisfaction
answer
Frequent, positive organizational communication does (question asks NOT)
question
telemedicine and telecommuting
answer
Virtual teams are being used for:
Affordable Care Act
Business Law
Constitutional Law
Taxing And Spending
Blaw 5.2 Chapters 5.2 & 5.3 Homework Flashcards 16 terms

Kaiya Hebert
16 terms
Preview
Blaw 5.2 Chapters 5.2 & 5.3 Homework Flashcards
question
Article 1, section 8 is a critically important part of the Constitution because
answer
it lists the types of statutes that congress is allowed to pass
question
Which of the following are three of the Framers' main goals in creating the Commerce Clause?
answer
Create a unified voice for regulating commercial relations with foreign governments, stop the states from imposing harmful taxes and regulations, bring coordination and fairness to trade among the states
question
To be considered a part of "interstate commerce" a good must physically travel from one state to another.
answer
False
question
In National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius, the Supreme Court held:
answer
The federal government does not have the power to order people to buy health insurance. The federal government has the power to impose a tax on those without health insurance.
question
The individual mandate of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act was upheld under the
answer
taxing and spending clause
question
The dormant Commerce Clause holds that a state statute that discriminates against interstate commerce is almost always unconstitutional.
answer
True
question
Which of the following are the two prerequisites for a state law to be valid under the Supremacy Clause?
answer
Congress does not intend to dominate the issue, and there is no conflicting FEDERAL law
question
Which of the following are three of the President's key areas of power?
answer
Foreign policy, appointments, legislation
question
In Kennedy v. Louisiana Justice Kennedy's decision relied heavily on
answer
Evolving standards of decency
question
From the 1950s to the 1970s, the Supreme Court exercised considerable judicial restraint, and was reluctant to decide social issues on constitutional grounds.
answer
false
question
__________ refers to the Court's willingness to become involved in major issues and to decide cases on _____ grounds. ________ is the opposite: an attitude that courts should leave lawmaking to ______ and _________ a law only when it unquestionably violates the constitution.
answer
Judicial activism. Constitutional. Judicial restraint. legislators. nullify
question
Marbury v Madison
answer
established judicial review
question
Miranda v Arizona
answer
began a major reappraisal of the states police powers, and the rights of criminal suspects
question
Kennedy v Lousiana
answer
struck down as unconstitutional a state statute that permitted the death penalty for a defendant convicted of rape
question
Roe v Wade
answer
established certain rights to abortion
question
Brown v Board of Education
answer
ordered an end to racial segregation in public schools
Affordable Care Act
Insurance
Medical Law And Ethics
Medical Terminology
ch. 3 and 4 medical insurance – Flashcards 59 terms

Millie Miller
59 terms
Preview
ch. 3 and 4 medical insurance – Flashcards
question
The insurance industry is among the world's largest businesses
answer
Which statement is correct regarding the insurance industry
question
civil law
answer
most legal issues of private health insurance claims fall under
question
when the physician accepts the patient and agrees to treat the patient
answer
when does the physician/patient contract begin
question
implied
answer
most physician/patient contracts are
question
physician and the patient
answer
When a patient carries private medical insurance, the contract for treatment exists between the
question
younger than the age of 18 who lives independently
answer
an emancipated minor is a person
question
physician and the insurance company
answer
the contract in a workers compensation case exists between the
question
subscriber, member, policy holder
answer
in health insurance, the insured is also known as the
question
individual enrollee or organization protected
answer
the insured is always the
question
noncancelable
answer
A policy in which the insurer cannot increase premium rates and must renew the policy until the insured reaches the age specified in the contract is a _______ policy.
question
prevent duplication or overlapping of payments for the same medical expense.
answer
the reason for a coordination of benefits statement in a health insurance policy is to
question
coordination of benefits
answer
Mr. Talili has two medical insurance policies. to prevent duplication of payment for the same medical expense, the policies include a ______ statement.
question
court system
answer
in cases of divorce, the decision as to which parent should be responsible for payment of the child's services should be made by the
question
the health plan of the person whose birthday (month and day) falls earlier in the calendar year will pay first
answer
if a child has health insurance coverage from two parents, according to the birthday law
question
plan of the person who has coverage longer is the primary payer
answer
according to the birthday law if both the mother and the father have the same birthday, the
question
preexisting
answer
conditions that existed and were treated before the health insurance policy was issued are called
question
waiver
answer
an attachment to an insurance policy that excludes certain illnesses or disabilities that would otherwise be covered is referred to as a
question
preauthorization
answer
what is the correct term used to determine if a procedure is covered and medically necessary
question
conversion
answer
mrs. thompsett leaves her place of employment. she is eligible to transfer her medical insurance coverage from a group to an individual contract this is known as _____ privilege
question
benefits would be increased
answer
why would conversion from a group policy to an individual policy be advantageous
question
extend group health insurance coverage for 18 months
answer
mr. Ott was laid off from his job. he is protected by consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act (COBRA), which requires his employer to
question
20
answer
What is the minimum number of employees a company must have to meet the criteria of the COBRA for continued medical benefits if an employee is laid off from a company
question
HIPAA
answer
the act created to protect workers and their families so that they can get and maintain health insurance if they change or lose their jobs is called the
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foundation for medical care
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an organization of physicians, sponsored by a state or local medical association, concerned with the development and delivery of medical services and the cost of health care is known as a
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competitive medical plan (CMP)
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a type of managed care organization created by the 1982 tax equity and fiscal responsibility act (TEFRA) that allows for enrollment of medicare beneficiaries into managed care plans is to a
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maternal and child health programs (MCHP)
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a state and federal program for children who are younger than 21 years of age and have special health care needs is
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patient registration form
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A patient intake sheet is also called a
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patient information form
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The first document obtained in the initial patient visit is a
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the transfer of ones legal right to collect an amount payable under an insurance contract
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assignment of benefits is
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patient service slip
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an encounter form may also be known as a
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superbill
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the source document for insurance claim data is the
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day sheet
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a daily record sheet used to record daily business transactions is called a
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more than 10
answer
under HIPAA guidelines, physicians must send all claims electronically if they have _____ full-time employees
question
follow-up of insurance claims
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an insurance claims register facilitates
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be sent a monthly statement indicating the insurance company has been billed
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when the physicians services have been submitted to the patients insurance company by the physicians office, the patient should
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a medical capitation plan in which treatment is delivered via a clinic or independent physician that provides a number of basic medical services for a fixed capitation payment per month
answer
independent practice association (IPA)
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a program sponsored jointly by federal and state governments for medically indigent persons, aged individuals who meet certain financial requirements, and the disabled
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medicaid
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insurance that covers off the job injury or sickness and is paid by deductions from a persons paycheck
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state disability or unemployment compensation disability (UCD)
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government sponsored program that provides hospital and medical services for dependents of active duty uniform service members, military retirees and their families, and survivors of uniformed services
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tricare
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a contract that insures a person against on the job injury or illness
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workers compensation insurance
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provides coverage for spouses and children of veterans with total, permanent, service connected disabilities or for the surviving spouses and children of veterans who died as a result of service connected disabilities
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CHAMPVA
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an organization that provides a wide range of comprehensive health care services for a specified group at a fixed periodic payment
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health maintenance organization (HMO)
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a form of health insurance that provides periodic payments to replace income when the insured is unable to work as a result of illness, injury, or disease
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disability income insurance
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the hospital insurance system and supplementary medical insurance for those older than 65 years of age, created by the 1965 Amendments to the social security act
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medicare
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renders a service to a patient
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treating or performing physician
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directs selection, preparation, and administration of tests, medication, or treatment
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ordering physician
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legally responsible for the care and treatment given to a patient
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attending physician
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gives an opinion regarding a specific problem that is requested by another doctor
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consulting physician
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sends the patient for tests or treatment or to another physician for consultation
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referring physician
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oversees care of patients in managed care plans and refers patients to see specialists when needed
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primary care physician
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responsible for training and supervising medical students
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teaching physician
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clinical nurse specialist or licensed social worker who treats a patient for a specific medical problem and uses the results of a diagnostic test in managing a patients medical problem
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non physician practitioner
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performs one or more ears of training in a specialty area while working at a hospital (medical center)
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resident physician
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right lower quadrant
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RLQ
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discharge
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DC
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within normal limits
answer
WNL
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rule out
answer
R/O
question
upper respiratory infection
answer
URI
question
with
answer
C (line on top)
Affordable Care Act
Disease Prevention And Health Promotion
Insurance
Community Health Final – Flashcards 51 terms

Amari Finch
51 terms
Preview
Community Health Final – Flashcards
question
in the third-party payment system, the patient is the
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first party
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in the third-party payment system, the provider is the
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second party
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managed care is a system of health care delivery that focuses on
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all of the above
question
the type of health care practice that incorporates interventions aimed at disease prevention and health promotion is
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population-based public health practice
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restorative care is a component of
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long-term practice
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an example of an allied health care professional is a
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dietician
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a written agreement between a private insurance company and an individual or group of individuals to pay for certain health care costs during a certain time period in return for regular, periodic payments is a health insurance
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policy
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a negotiated set amount that a patient pays for certain services is a
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copayment
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the amount of expenses that the beneficiary must incur before the insurance company begins to pay for covered services is the
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deductible
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the part of medicare that is the hospital insurance portion is
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part A
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the part of medicare that is prescription drug coverage is
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part D
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the government insurance program that specifically targets low-income children who are ineligible for other insurance coverage is
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CHIP
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the type of managed care that buys fixed-rate health services from providers and sells them to consumers is
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PPOs
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tobacco smoke inhaled and exhaled by the smoker is referred to as
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mainstream smoke
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the practice of establishing and maintaining healthy or hygienic conditions in the environment is
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sanitation
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porous, water-saturated layers of underground bedrock, sand, and gravel that can yield economically significant amounts of water are referred to as
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aquifers
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the average US resident uses an average of how much water each day?
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80-100 gallons
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the substance that remains after humans have used water for domestic or commercial purposes is
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wastewater
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the level of wastewater treatment where sludge is formed and removed is
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primary wastewater treatment
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the level of wastewater treatment that involves filtration through sand and carbon filters is
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tertiary wastewater
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the federal law aimed at ensuring that all ricers are swimmable and fishable and that limits the discharge of pollutants in US waters to zero is the
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Clean Water Act
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leading factors contributing to food borne disease outbreaks are
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all of the above
question
most municipal solid waste comes from
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paper **
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the most desirable form of integrated waste management is
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source reduction
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liquid created when water mixes with wastes and removes soluble constituents from the percolation is
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leachates
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those at great risk of lead poisoning are
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young children
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a process in which energy is emitted in particle waves is
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radiation
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causes for most water borne diseases are
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parasites (then, bacteria)
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causes for most food borne illnesses are
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viruses (then, bacteria)
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any behavior that would increase the probability of an injury occurring is an
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unsafe act
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an injury causing any restriction of normal activity beyond the day of the injury's occurrence is a
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disabling injury
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in the US, the leading type of unintentional injury death is due to
answer
motor vehicle crashes **
question
the second leading cause of unintentional injury death in the US is
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poisonings
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in terms of unintentional injuries, (injuries from) falls disproportionately affect
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elders
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the place where the most unintentional injuries occur is
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the home
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the place where the most unintentional injury deaths occur is
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the road/highway **
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the single most important factor in intentional and unintentional injuries is
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alcohol **
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the unintentional injury prevention approach that involves seeking justice for injuries through the courts is
answer
litigation
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the group(s) more vulnerable to violence is/are
answer
all of the above
question
the failure of a parent or guardian to care for or otherwise provide the necessary subsistence for a child is
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child neglect
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most poisonings occur in
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the home
question
an example of injury prevention through regulation is
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setting speed limits
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the first state to pass a child labor law was
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massachusetts
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the first state to pass worker's comp laws was
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maryland
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a research body located in the CDC responsible for developing and recommending occupational safety and health standards is
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the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
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the leading cause of fatal work-related injuries is
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highway incidents
question
the age group with the highest workplace fatality rate is
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65 and over
question
installing better security systems at entrances and exits is an example of what kind of prevention strategy for workplace violation?
answer
environmental designs
question
having procedures for opening and closing a workplace is an example of what kind of prevention strategy for workplace violence?
answer
administrative controls
question
acute or chronic lung disease caused by the inhalation of cotton, flax, or hemp dusts, also known as brown lung disease is
answer
byssinosis
question
worksite programs that include screenings and interventions designed to change employees health behaviors and reduce risks are
answer
worksite health promotion programs