Which of the following is NOT true of the 2010 Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act?

Its cost-saving and fraud detection features generated bipartisan support in Congress. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/pls101-ch16-social-policy/

When the 2010 Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act is fully implemented, it will also

set the prices (reimbursement rates) for more than 7,000 different medical procedures. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/econ-exam-3-moodle-questions/

When the 2010 Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act is fully implemented, it will

require all Americans to purchase health care insurance from either a private or government source. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/econ-exam-3-moodle-questions/

How many people were uninsured prior to the affordable care act

50 Million More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/healthcare-management-exam-1/

Under the Affordable Care Act, which of the following services is least likely to involve cost sharing? a. Pediatric care b. Preventive services c. Emergency services d. Hospitalization e. Prescription drugs

b. preventative services More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/healthcare-final-3-finance-and-workforce/

The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 does all of the following EXCEPT

Individual tax deduction for premiums paid. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/federal-government-chapter-13-review/

What is the goal of the patient protection and affordable care act?

The goal of the PPACA (obama 2010) is to provide affordable health insurance coverage and to improve access to primary care. and lower costs. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/community-and-public-health-nursing-review-test-1/

What is the patient protection and affordable care act (PPACA or ACA)?

changes implemented between 2010 and 2020 to make healthcare affordable for all Americans More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/quality-improvement/

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chapter 5; pols 1100; we the people – Flashcards 24 terms

Karlie Mack

24 terms

Preview

chapter 5; pols 1100; we the people – Flashcards

question

A key requirement of an effective ____ is that it is representative.

answer

public-opinion sample

question

A push poll might include a question with the following wording:

answer

Do you think it was appropriate for President Bush to lie to start a war with Iraq?

question

As opposed to a value or belief, an attitude represents

answer

a person's specific preference on a particular issue.

question

Big government is ____________ considered a core U.S. value.

answer

not

question

Equality of opportunity is a

answer

basic political value held by most Americans.

question

How did the media affect the Bush Administration's decision to go to war in Iraq in 2003?

answer

It helped to increase the public popularity of the preparations for war.

question

If you prefer smaller government, you are probably a

answer

conservative.

question

In contemporary politics being liberal has come to imply supporting

answer

social reform.

question

Political and voting differences between men and women are known as the ____ gap.

answer

gender

question

Political socialization is the process through which

answer

political beliefs and values are formed.

question

Selection bias occurs when a sample ____ some opinions.

answer

overrepresents or underrepresents

question

The bandwagon effect has been particularly problematic in

answer

the presidential nomination process.

question

The most important agent of socialization early in life is

answer

family

question

The size of the overall population under study is ____ in determining the reliability of a poll.

answer

not important

question

Until recently, the classification of "moderate" would have applied to

answer

most Americans.

question

What argument does Nicholas Carr make in his best-selling book on the Internet's effect on political knowledge and participation?

answer

The Internet reduces depth of thought and analysis regarding political knowledge.

question

What is the state of political knowledge among Americans?

answer

low

question

What kinds of questions are particularly problematic in relation to the social desirability effect?

answer

questions about race or gender

question

When a pollster asks a loaded question to shape a respondent's opinion, it is known as a

answer

push poll

question

Which of the following best describes the characteristics of a "scientific" poll?

answer

representative sample from a sufficiently large population with no selection bias

question

Which of the following is one of the two major ways that low levels of political knowledge can shape American democracy?

answer

Political power can more easily be manipulated by political elites, the media, and wealthy special interests.

question

Which of the following is true of political polarization in the United States?

answer

Party polarization may actually reduce levels of political knowledge.

question

Which of the following is true of the effect of political party membership or loyalty on political orientation?

answer

Partisans tend to rely on party leaders and the media for cues on the appropriate positions to take on major political issues.

question

Which of the following views would a conservative be more likely to hold than a liberal?

answer

concern about law and order

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kins 2504 final chapter 12 – Flashcards 50 terms

Kelly Fisher

50 terms

Preview

kins 2504 final chapter 12 – Flashcards

question

_______ follows cardiovascular disease as the second leading cause of death in the United States.

answer

cancer

question

Which of the following lifestyle choices reduces cancer risk?

answer

limiting exposure to ultraviolet radiation

question

A tumor that is non-cancerous is

answer

bengin

question

The most common classification of cancerous tumors is

answer

carcinomas

question

To grow, a malignant tumor needs ________ and ________.

answer

oxygen and nutrients

question

Carcinomas include which of the following cancers?

answer

breast

question

Which of the following statements about sarcomas is true?

answer

sarcomas grow faster than carcinomas

question

The two main types of lymphomas are ________ and ________.

answer

hodgkin; non-hodgkin

question

Leukemia occurs in the

answer

bone marrow

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Leukemia is characterized by an increase in

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white blood cells

question

Which of the following is an internal factor that causes cancer?

answer

immunological conditions

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Cancer is localized and often treatable when it is in

answer

stage 1

question

Smoking causes ________% of all lung cancer deaths.

answer

question

A doctor who specializes in cancer treatment is known as

answer

oncologist

question

Most skin cancer deaths are caused by

answer

malignant melanomas

question

Which of the following statements regarding melanoma is true?

answer

melanoma is difficult to treat once it spreads

question

A person with which eye color has the lowest risk of skin cancer?

answer

brown

question

Which factor decreases a person's risk for skin cancer?

answer

using sunscreen with an sfp of 30

question

Basal and squamous cell cancers are most likely to appear as which of the following?

answer

a warty bump on face

question

A non-cancerous mole is

answer

symmetrical

question

ue is a 40-year-old female who smokes, frequently uses tanning beds, and drinks 2-3 alcoholic beverages daily. Which of the following statements best indicates her cancer risks

answer

breast, lung, and skin cancer

question

The oncogenes BRCA1 and BRCA2 are associated with increased risks for ________ cancer.

answer

breast

question

Excessive alcohol consumption can increase a woman's risk of ________ cancer.

answer

breast

question

Which of the following factors has most significantly decreased lung cancer rates in men in recent years?

answer

decreased rates of smoking

question

Which controversial factor may actually lower a woman's risk for ovarian cancer but has also been implicated in increasing the risk of breast cancer?

answer

using oral contraceptives

question

The Pap test is the most effective way to detect early stage ________ cancer.

answer

cervical

question

Uterine cancer usually occurs in the

answer

endometrium

question

Prostate cancer is most common for males in which of the following age groups?

answer

over 50

question

Which of the following statements regarding prostate cancer is true?

answer

low back pain can be a symptom of prostate cancer

question

______ cancer is most common for males between the ages of 20 and 34.

answer

testicular

question

A factor that lowers the risk for colon cancer and rectal cancer is

answer

diet high in fiber

question

A polyp is a

answer

benign growth in the colon or rectum

question

A factor that lowers the risk for pancreatic cancer is

answer

being female

question

Obesity increases the risk of

answer

colon cancer

question

Relative risk is a measure of a person's probability of developing cancer

answer

while engaging in a known risk behavior

question

A potential warning sign of cancer includes

answer

change in bladder or bowel habits

question

Hepatitis, which can be transmitted through use of contaminated intravenous (IV) needles, can increase the risk of ________ cancer.

answer

liver

question

Which of the following food additives is most associated with an increased risk for cancer?

answer

sodium nitrate

question

Stress can increase the risk of cancer primarily by

answer

weakening immunity

question

A woman's risk for breast cancer is decreased by

answer

early menopause

question

Ultraviolet (UV) rays are considered

answer

carcinogenic

question

Cervical cancer is predominantly caused by

answer

HPV

question

Radiation exposure that causes cancer can come from

answer

sunlight

question

Which factor is most likely to increase the risk for lung cancer?

answer

working in a uranium mine

question

Which racial group has the highest incidence of prostate cancer in the world?

answer

african americans

question

A primary disadvantage of treating cancer with radiation is

answer

it also destroys some healthy cells

question

New approaches to treating cancer focus on

answer

reating cancer as a genetic disease caused by a mutation.

question

Which form of cancer treatment uses targeted beams of ionizing energy to destroy malignant cells?

answer

radiation

question

Which treatment for cancer is most likely to cause nausea, as a result of damage to rapidly dividing digestive-tract cells?

answer

chemotherapy

question

Which cancer treatment might be used to allow a patient's bone marrow to withstand stronger doses of chemotherapeutic drugs?

answer

gene therapy

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Affordable Care Act Closed Circuit Television False Claims Act Health Care Plans Health Care Practitioner Managed Care Plans Patient Centered Medical Home Primary Care Physician

Chapter 3 Review Answers – Flashcards 32 terms

Joan Grant

32 terms

Preview

Chapter 3 Review Answers – Flashcards

question

Licensure

answer

Involves a mandatory credentialing process established by law, usually at the state level. Required of all physicians, dentists, and nurses in every state.

question

Certification

answer

Involves a voluntary credentialing process, usually national in scope, most often sponsored by a private sector group.

question

Registration

answer

Involves simply paying a fee. Consists simply of an entry in an official record.

question

Accreditation

answer

A process that implies that health care facilities or HMOs have met certain standards.

question

Which of the following is mandatory for certain health professionals to practice in their field?

answer

Licensure

question

Licensure to practice medicine is done by

answer

each individual state

question

Which of the following statements best defines accreditation?

answer

It is a process for officially authorizing health care education programs, facilities, and managed care plans

question

Which of the following best defines the osteopathic approach to medicine?

answer

Emphasizes the musculoskeletal system of the body and the correction of joint and tissue problems

question

Allopathic medicine means, literally,

answer

"Different suffering"

question

Which of the following is an example of a tertiary care setting?

answer

An endoscopic center

question

Which of the following is an explanation for the increasing number of medical specialists?

answer

Loss of prestige for generalists

question

A physician fails to meet continuing education requirements. He or she is guilty of

answer

Unprofessional conduct

question

Which of the following is not a purpose of medical practice acts?

answer

To be sure physicians are adequately compensated for their services

question

Each state's medical practice acts also provide for the establishment of

answer

Medical boards

question

Laws vary from state to state, but unprofessional conduct for medical professionals usually includes

answer

Physical abuse of a patient, inadequate record keeping, and failure to meet continuing education requirements

question

Physicians' actions generally classified as fraud include

answer

Falsifying medical diplomas and other credentials, falsifying medical exports, and promising a patient "secret cures" or other special ways to cure an ailment

question

The sole authority granted to the federal government in the licensing of physicians is

answer

the permit issued by the Drug Enforcement Administration for controlled substances

question

Physicians today practice primarily

answer

in group practices

question

When two or more physicians practice together, with a written agreement specifying the rights, obligations, and responsibilities of each partner, what is the arrangement called?

answer

A partnership

question

What is an advantage to forming a professional corporation to practice medicine?

answer

The incorporators and owners have limited liability in lawsuits

question

Which of the following best defines a managed care health plan?

answer

A corporation that pays for and delivers care to subscribers

question

What is a copayment?

answer

A set amount that each patient pays for each office visit

question

Under this type of plan, insured patients must designate a primary care physician (PCP).

answer

Gatekeeper or primary care plan

question

When physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers contract with one or more HMOs or directly with employers to provide care, what is it called?

answer

A physician-hospital organization

question

Under this type of plan, a patient may see providers outside the plan, but the patient pays a higher portion of the fees.

answer

Preferred provider plan

question

The National Practitioner Data Bank

answer

is accessible only to hospitals and health care plans

question

The Patients' Bill of Rights

answer

has still not become law

question

What recent federal law provides for the establishment of state-run insurance exchanges?

answer

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

question

Which of the following is not a stated goal of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act?

answer

Ensure that every person has health insurance

question

Which of the following statements best defines telemedicine?

answer

It is medicine that is practiced via telephone, closed-circuit television, fax machine, or Internet

question

Cybermedicine involves

answer

direct online contact between physicians and patients

question

E-health refers to

answer

increasing use of the Internet for consumer health information

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Affordable Care Act Beliefs And Values Community Health Nursing Private Health Insurance Public Health

Health care delivery – Flashcards 10 terms

Henry Lowe

10 terms

Preview

Health care delivery – Flashcards

question

a job description for a physician would be to:

answer

A and C

question

a doctor of osteopathic medicine believes in:

answer

preventive and holistic medicine

question

you have decided to go to medical school. will you become a primary care physician or will you become a specialist? what are the major medical care distinctions between these two majors?

answer

PCP: first contact/portal to the HCS, focuses on the person as a whole, health promotion/disease prevention,counseling, follow up, acute and chronic illnesses.

question

in the US we have an imbalance of specialty care and primary care. explain this phenomenon.

answer

demographics-inner city to suburbs, development of medical technology, higher reimbursement for specialists, more predictable work hours, higher prestige among colleagues, geographic maldistribution, aggregate physician over supply

question

a specialist must:

answer

A and B

question

the health care subdivision of the US economy continues to grow because:

answer

both A and B

question

studies have shown that NPP services can:

answer

both A and B

question

true or false? most MD's are specialists and most DO's are generalists.

answer

true

question

true or false? NPP practice in many areas in which physicians practice; however NPP's do not have a medical degree.

answer

true

question

which answer does not describe a negative consequence of specialty maldistribution?

answer

more predictable hours and higher prestige for specialists

STUDY

Acute Care Hospitals Adverse Drug Events Affordable Care Act Brand Name Drug Disease Prevention And Health Promotion End Stage Renal Disease National Patient Safety Goals Private Health Insurance Public Health

Health Policy 2 – Flashcards 137 terms

Henry Lowe

137 terms

Preview

Health Policy 2 – Flashcards

question

Nation's three largest health professions

answer

Nurses Physicians Pharmacists

question

In the United States, approximately 873,000 physicians are professionally active

answer

1/3 of the physicians are in primary care 2/3 of the physicians are in non-primary care fields

question

Primary activity for physicians that have completed residency:

answer

90% patient care

question

Licensing

answer

Licensing of all types of healthcare professionals is a state jurisdiction

question

1st Medical School in the United States

answer

University of Pennsylvania 1765

question

Early Medical Training Could be achieved through an apprenticeship or going to a medical school

answer

Modern Era: Medical Training In 1893, John Hopkins University's School of Medicine started a new era of medical education Implemented many features that are still a standard in medical education

question

John Hopkins University's School of Medicine

answer

Implemented standards for medical education: 4 year course of study at the graduate school level Competitive selection of students Emphasis on the scientific paradigm of clinical and laboratory science Close link between a medical schools and medical center hospital Cultivation of academically renowned faculty

question

Flexner report **********

answer

Extremely influential More than 30 medical schools closed Academic standards for medical schools became more stringent Only schools meeting the standards of the Licensing Council on Medical education (LCME) were allowed to award MD degrees LCME private agency operating under the authority of medical professional organizations LCME-accredited schools became known as allopathic medical schools

question

Osteopathy

answer

Alternative medical tradition Carries the rank of physician Developed by Andrew Still (1890s) Emphasizes medical manipulation of the body as a therapeutic maneuver Schools of osteopathy award DO degrees and have their own accrediting organization Most state licensing boards grant physicians with MD and DO degrees equivalent scopes of practice and prescription authority

question

MD versus DO

answer

2010 Allopathic (MD) schools had 16,838 graduates while osteopathic (DO) schools had 3,3631

question

Postdoctoral Education: MD

answer

At least one formal year of education after medical school is required for licensure in most states 1st year of post-doctoral training referred to as an internship with subsequent years referred to as residency Residency training: 3 years - generalist field (i.e. family medicine) 4 to 5 years - specialty training (i.e. surgery & ob-gyn) Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) accredits allopathic (MD) residency training programs

question

Board Certification

answer

American Board of Medical Specialties Once physicians have completed their residency training at one of the ACGME training programs they must pass a test to achieve certification Certification is not required for state licensure

question

Financing Medical Education

answer

Who pays for the cost of medical education in the United States? Approximately ½ of U.S. medical schools are public state institutions State tax revenues help subsidize medical school education U.S. Federal Government: Plays a minor role in financing medical school education Major source of funding to support residency training

question

Financing Medical Education for MD Medicare

answer

Allocates "graduate medical education" funding to hospitals that support residency programs Amounts to $9.5 billion annually Includes direct education payments for resident stipends and faculty salaries a education and indirect education payments to defray other costs associated with a teaching hospital

question

Financing Medical Education For MD Medicaid

answer

Contributes another $3 billion annually to residency education

question

Physician Assistants (PA)

answer

Originated in the United States in 1965 Duke University established the 1st physician assistant (PA) program Work in close collaboration with a physician PAs usually work in the primary care field Training Usually 20 to 36 months About 136 accredited PA schools, 70% award a master's degree, required applicants to have a bachelor's degree Licensing State boards Pas must work under the "delegated authority" of a physician Scope of Practice PA's scope of practice is about 80% of the scope of work of a primary care physician

question

Registered Nurses (RN)

answer

Represent the largest portion of the healthcare workers in the United States Approximately 80% of the RNs are actively employed in nursing jobs 62% of nurses work in hospitals (primary employment setting) 25% work in ambulatory care or community-based setting 5% in long-term facilities Licensing Exam Administered by National Council of State Boards of Nursing Non-profit organization composed of representatives from each of the state boards of nursing

question

Registered Nurse - Education

answer

Historically Nurses received their education in vocational programs administered by hospitals These programs awarded diplomas Over time nursing education shifted into academic institutions: Associate degree programs Baccalaureate degree programs

question

2008 Active nurses

answer

20% - Received their basic nursing training in diploma programs 45% - Associate degree programs 24% Baccalaureate degree programs Call for Nursing Education Transformation Nursing leaders calling to move all nursing education to the baccalaureate level Studies find that patient have better outcomes when hospitals are staffed by baccalaureate prepared nurses

question

American Association of Colleges of Nursing ****go through the link for 9 essentials will be on test.

answer

The Essentials of a Baccalaureate Education Published in 2008 http://www.aacn.nche.edu/education-resources/BaccEssentials08.pdf Contains 9 "Essentials" Liberal Education Basic Organizational & Systems Leadership Scholarship for EBP Information Management Healthcare Policy Interprofessional Communication & Collaboration for Improving patient Outcomes Clinical Prevention & Population Health Professionalism and Professional Values Baccalaureate Generalist Nursing Practice

question

Enrollment in Nursing Schools Cyclical pattern

answer

Correspond to perception of surpluses and shortages in the labor market for RNs Graduation rates Twice as many nurses graduate with an Associate degree than from a BSN program NCLEX Number of U.S. educated nurses taking the exam increased by 50% from 1990 to 1995

question

Physician versus Nursing Education

answer

Training Unlike physicians, international nursing school graduates do not have to undergo training in the United States to become eligible for licensure International nursing school graduates may sit for licensure Once they pass the NCLEX, they may apply for a visa to work as a nurse U.S. known as the largest importer of nurses 1/3 of internationally educated nurses come from the Philippines

question

Nurse Practitioners (NPs)

answer

8% of RNs in the U.S. have completed advanced practice education Advanced practice nurses include: Clinical nurse specialists Nurse anesthetists Clinical nurse midwives Nurse practitioners Nurse Practitioners Approximately 140,000 active nurse practitioners Largest group of advanced practice nurses

question

NP's program is how long?

answer

Typically 2-year master's degree program Education emphasizes: Primary care Prevention Health promotion Scope of practice 50% to 60% work in primary care settings Enrollment Doubled between 1992 to 1997 Graduates have decreased in recent years

question

NP Licensing & Regulation

answer

Less uniformed across states than for physicians, physician assistants and registered nurses Most states require a Master's degree but some accept less training Scope of practice per state varies Most states require NPs to work with a physician 11 states permit NPs to practice with complete independence from a physician 10 states require physicians to directly supervise NPs Work In primary care settings, NPs perform approximately 80% of the tasks performed by physicians

question

Pharmacists

answer

3rd largest health care profession 2010 Approximately 250,000 pharmacists actively practicing 2004 All pharmacy programs required to extend training by 1 to 2 years and award Doctorate of Pharmacy degrees Work environment Approximately 60% work in retail pharmacies Hospitals second largest employers

question

Social Workers

answer

Training Assessment skills Diagnostic impressions Psychosocial support to patient and families Assist patients with navigation of healthcare system Education Minimum bachelor's degree Most work positions require a master's degree in social work plus state licensure Licensed clinical social workers (LCSWs) Must have a minimum of a master's degree plus 2 years of academic and practical experience in the filed

question

Supply, Demand, & Need

answer

Supply between 1975 to 2005: Registered nurses doubled Physician increased by 75% Pharmacists increased by 50% Perceptions Surplus versus shortages Reduction of enrollment in nursing schools Intensity of work Changes in hospital care created the need for more highly trained RNs. Increased vacancy rates Demand for RNs increased wages

question

Physician Supply & Patient Outcomes

answer

Low supply of physicians is associated with higher mortality Once physician supply is evened, there is little further survival benefit Medicare Beneficiaries residing in areas with high physician supply do not report better access to physicians or higher satisfaction with care and do not receive better quality of care

question

Gender & Health Professions

answer

Physicians & Pharmacists Mostly males Pharmacists: Demographics (Women) 13% (1970) More than half (2010) 61% in pharmacy school (2010) Physicians: Demographics (Women) 8% women (1970) More than 30% (2010) 47% of medical students (2010) Nurses Mostly females 10% of the workforce were men (2008)

question

Gender & Health professions

answer

Women On the average work fewer hours per week More likely to work part-time Female physicians attract more female patients Female physicians deliver more preventive services than male physicians Female physicians appear to communicate differently with their patients More likely to discuss lifestyle and social concerns To give more information and explanations Involve patients in medical decision-making

question

Minorities & Health professions

answer

United States a nation of growing racial and ethnic diversity 2010 U.S. Census: African Americans, Latinos, Native Americans make-up 1/3 of the population Health professions Fail to reflect U.S. racial and ethnic diversity Diversity in Healthcare Workforce 10% pharmacists 9% physicians 8% physician assistants 10% nurses

question

Increasing Minority Representation in healthcare

answer

Nursing schools Minority enrollment in BSN programs Increased from 12.2% (1991) to 18.1% (2005) Medical schools Increased from 1991(12.2%) to 1997 (15.5%) Decreased to 15.5% (2005) Pharmacy Little net increase from 1990 to 2010 Policy concern Minorities communities experience poorer health and access to health care compared to non-Latino whites

question

Minority Healthcare Professionals

answer

More likely to practice to: Serve in underserved communities Serve disadvantaged patients Uninsured Medicaid Research Minority healthcare professionals and minority populations Patients with limited English proficiency have better patient outcomes and experiences when healthcare services are provided by minority professionals Reduction in medication errors

question

Healthcare & Patient Outcomes

answer

United States Each year, millions of patients receive care at hospitals, private medical offices and outpatient clinics Some patients receive excellent care; others are not so fortunate Institute of Medicine's report To Err is Human: Building a Safer Healthcare System (1999) http://www.iom.edu/~/media/Files/Report%20Files/1999/To-Err-is-Human/To%20Err%20is%20Human%201999%20%20report%20brief.pdf An estimated 44,000 to 98,000 patients die each year in hospitals due to preventable medical errors

question

Institute of Medicine Medical errors

answer

Can be defined as "the failure of a planned action to be completed as intended or the use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim" (Institute of Medicine [IOM], 1999). Examples of medical errors include: Adverse drug events Improper infusions Pressure ulcers Suicides Restraint-related injuries or death Mistaken patient identities Falls

question

Medical Error & Nursing

answer

Statistics on Medical Malpractice Payouts & Lawsuits Medical Malpractice Payouts Dollars in payouts: $3.6 billion (3.4 percent less than in 2011) Total payouts for medical malpractice: 12,142 (one every 43 minutes) Payouts resulting from judgments: 5 percent Payouts resulting from settlements: 93 percent

question

Top 5 States for Medical Malpractice Payouts

answer

New York - $763,088,250 Pennsylvania - $316, 167,500 California - $222,926,200 New Jersey - $206,668,250 Florida - $203,671,100

question

According to the Institute of Medicine (1999):

answer

Variety of factors contribute to medical errors Fragmented health care delivery system Lack of access to complete information Failure to investigate broken system Current lack of quality and safety in U.S. healthcare system violates healthcare's mandate of "Do No Harm." Medical errors do not result from "one bad apple" rather they are caused by bad processes, systems, and conditions that lead people to make mistakes or fail to prevent mistakes

question

Strategies for Improvement

answer

Institute of Medicine (1999) recommends: Establishing a national focus "Center for Patient Safety." Developing a national public mandatory reporting system and encouraging organizations and practitioners to report voluntary. Setting and raising performance standards and expectations for patient safety. Implementing safety systems in healthcare organizations to ensure a "culture of safety."

question

Patient Outcomes

answer

In addition to medical errors that lead to patient deaths, inappropriate patient care has also led to negative patient outcomes. An estimated 57,000 people died for not receiving appropriate care for high blood pressure or elevated cholesterol

question

High-Quality Care

answer

What is high-quality healthcare? Helps healthy people stay healthy Cures acute illnesses Allows chronically ill patients to live as long as possible Components of high-quality healthcare include: Access to care Adequate scientific knowledge Competent health care providers Separation of financial and clinical decisions Organization of healthcare institutions to maximize quality

question

High-Quality Care: Components

answer

Access to Care People must have access to care. People with reduced access to care have poor health outcomes than those with access to care. Adequate Scientific Knowledge Physicians must have a body of knowledge at their disposal that distinguishes between effective and ineffective care. Competent Healthcare Providers All healthcare providers must have the skills to diagnose problems and to choose the appropriate treatments. Incompetent healthcare providers result in poor quality care and poor patient outcomes.

question

Medical Negligence & Patient Outcomes

answer

Medical Negligence Defined as "failure to meet the standard of practice of an average qualified physician practicing in the same specialty" (Bodenheimer & Grumbach, 2012). Harvard study 28% of medical injuries were due to negligence Most common injuries were: Drug reactions (19%) Wound infections (14%) Failure to diagnose a condition (8%) Can negligence be equated with incompetence?

question

Money & Quality of Care Impact of financial consideration on the quantity of medical care

answer

Fee-for-service versus capitation Fee-for-service encourages providers to perform more services Capitation payments rewards providers who perform less medical services Most surgeons in the United States are compensated via fee-for-service Bunker (1970) study found that the U.S. performed twice as many surgical procedures as Great Britain. Bunker speculated that the number was due to the way physicians in the U.S. (fee-for-service) were paid versus Great Britain (salary). Thus many of the surgical procedures in the U.S. may be unnecessary

question

Commercialization of Medicine

answer

The introduction of technology and the increase of physician business ventures. In Florida, 40% of practicing physicians owned services to which they referred their patients to. In Florida, physicians owned or partially owned services include: 93% of diagnostic imaging facilities 76% of ambulatory surgery centers 60% of clinical laboratories

question

Impact of medical services on patient outcomes

answer

According to Bodenheimer and Grumbach (2012), "The quantity and quality of medical care are inextricably interrelated. Too much or too little can be injurious."

question

How a healthcare facility or system is organized strongly impacts patient outcomes.

answer

Example: hospitals with more RNs have lower surgical complication rates and lower mortality rates (Bodenheimer & Grumbach, 1999). Quality of care also improves with experience.

question

Crossing the Quality Chasm (2001) Six Core Dimensions of Quality

answer

Safe Avoiding injuries to patients from care that is suppose to help them Effective Providing services based on scientific knowledge and refraining from services that are not likely to produce a benefit Patient-centered Providing care that is respectful of and responsive to the patient Timely Reducing delays that can be harmful to patient Efficient Avoiding waste of equipment, supplies, ideas & energy Equitable Providing the same quality of care to everyone

question

Improving Quality

answer

Continuous quality improvement model (CQI) Shifts the focus from "one bad apple" to one that "seeks to enhance the clinical performance of all systems of care, not just the outliers with fragrant poor quality of care"

question

Joint Commission & Patient Safety

answer

2014 Hospital National Patient Safety Goals The goal is to improve patient safety The Patient Safety Goals include: http://www.jointcommission.org/assets/1/6/2014_HAP_NPSG_E.pdf Identify patients correctly*** Improve staff communication*** Use medicines safely Use alarms safely Prevent infection Identify patient safety risks Prevent mistakes in surgery

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The Role of Licensure, Accreditation & Peer Review

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Licensing Pros All healthcare providers go through training and special licensing exams to ensure they have at least a basic level of knowledge and competence. Cons Not all healthcare providers that pass their licensing exams are competent. No re-examination This may point to a failure in the educational and licensing systems. Another reason may be that the healthcare provider was competent at the time of licensure but with the passage of time their skills have deteriorated. "Don't use it, you lose it" The role of CEUs Hospital competencies

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Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)

answer

Project began in 2005 Funded by the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation Overall goal "To address the challenge of preparing future nurses with the knowledge, skills, and attitudes (KSAs) necessary to continuously improve the quality and safety of the healthcare system in which they work" (Quality and Safety Education for Nurses, 2012). Website: http://qsen.org/

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QSEN: Pre-Licensure KSAS

answer

Using the Institute of Medicine's competencies, the QSEN faculty developed a list of pre-licensure knowledge, skills and attitudes future nurses need to acquire before graduating: Patient-Centered Care Teamwork and Collaboration Evidenced-Based Practice (EBP) Quality Improvement (QI) Safety Informatics

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The Role of Licensure, Accreditation & Peer Review

answer

Certification agencies Require periodic re-examinations to maintain active specialty certification Peer Reviews Traditional approach to quality assurance Evaluation conducted by healthcare providers on fellow peers to determine appropriateness and quality of services Joint Commission requires hospital medical staff to set-up peer review committees for the purpose of maintaining quality of care in their facilities. Joint Commission can terminate hospitals from the Medicare program

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What is the Joint Commission?

answer

An independent, not-for-profit organization, that accredits and certifies more than 20,500 health care organizations and programs in the United States Mission To continuously improve health care for the public, in collaboration with other stakeholders, by evaluating health care organizations and inspiring them to excel in providing safe and effective care of the highest quality and value.

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Performance Measurement Core Measures

answer

Core Measures Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) Heart Failure (HF) Pneumonia (PN) Pregnancy and Related Conditions (PR) Childrens' Asthma Care (CAC) Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP) Hospital-Based Inpatient Psychiatric Services (HBIPS) Hospital Outpatient Department (OP) Stroke (STK) Venous Thromboembolism (VTE

question

What is a core measure?

answer

Per the Joint Commission, all health care organizations, regardless of what vendor they use, are implementing the measures in the same standardized way, and therefore, these data are comparable across vendors. The Joint Commission calculates national comparison group data based on the hospital-level data submitted by our listed measurement system vendors on behalf of our accredited hospitals.

question

Joint Commission: Accountability Measure List

answer

Go to http://www.jointcommission.org/assets/1/18/2013_Accountability_Measures.pdf to read full list Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) AMI-1 Aspirin at Arrival AMI-2 Aspirin Prescribed at Discharge AMI-3 ACEI or ARB for LVSD AMI-5 1Beta-Blocker Prescribed at Discharge AMI-7a Fibrinolytic Therapy Received Within 30 Minutes of Hospital Arrival AMI-8a Primary Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) Received Within 90 Minutes of Hospital Arrival AMI-10 Statin Prescribed at Discharge

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Clinical Practice Guidelines Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality also known as AHRQ

answer

Established by U.S. Congress in 1989 Goal is to improve quality of care by developing practice guidelines. Practice guidelines are produced by a panel of experts that make specific recommendations to physicians on how to treat clinical conditions such as diabetes. More than 2000 guidelines exist To access "National Guideline Clearinghouse" got to http://www.guideline.gov/

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Clinical Practice Guidelines

answer

Practice guidelines can assist but do not replace clinical judgment and are not always appropriate. They can be useful when used in computer systems to remind physicians what services should be included in certain diagnoses. Example CPOE or Computerized Physician Order Entry

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Measuring Practice Patterns

answer

Central to the continuous quality improvement (CQI) model is the need for regular monitoring of healthcare providers. Two basic types of indicators used to evaluate clinical performance: Process measures Outcomes measures

question

Clinical Performance Indicators

answer

Process measures Refer to types of services delivered by caregivers Example: Prescribing aspirin to patients with coronary heart disease Turning immobile patients in hospital beds to prevent bed sores To be considered a valid indicator of quality, must show that process influence patient outcomes Outcomes measures Include death, symptoms, mental health, physical functioning, and related aspects of health status. Maybe impacted by severity of illness and other patient characteristics and not just quality of care. Must be risk adjusted More challenging to use outcomes measures to evaluate quality than process measures

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Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

answer

CQI involves the identification of concrete problems AND the formation of interdisciplinary teams to gather data and propose and implement solutions to the problems. The Institute for Healthcare improvement (IHI) has led efforts to spread CQI by sponsoring collaboratives. Collaboratives are 10 to 12 month programs were teams from various organizations work with each other and IHI faculty to rapidly test and implement changes that lead to lasting improvement

question

Electronic Medical Records (EMRs)

answer

Improve care Can create list of patients Generate reminders for physicians and patients Reduce medical errors due to drug prescriptions Computer programs can alert physicians about inappropriate medication doses or medication allergies Have not proven to significantly improve quality

question

Public Reporting of Quality

answer

Release of quality of care measures to the public Commonly referred to as "report cards" Goal is to empower healthcare consumers to select higher quality providers and institutions by providing information to them.

question

New York State Department of Health

answer

Report Cards Initiated in 1990 Data released by the New York State of Department of Health indicated: Patients did not switch from hospitals with high-mortality to low-mortality In 4 years, overall risk-adjusted coronary artery bypass mortality dropped by 41%

question

Pay for Reporting

answer

Medicare program Initiated reporting for hospitals in 2003 Program called the Hospital Quality Initiative It is voluntary Non-participating hospitals receive a reduction in their Medicare payments Since program started some measures have improved Measures included: Heart attack Heart failure Pneumonia The public can access the hospital reports at www.hospitalcompare.hhs.gov

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Pay for Performance (P4P)

answer

Goes beyond reporting Physicians or hospitals receive more money if their quality measures exceed certain benchmarks or if their measures improve from year to year (Bodenheimer & Grumbach, 2012). Examples: Integrated Healthcare Association (IHA)

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Integrated Healthcare Association

answer

One of the largest pay for performance programs Set of uniform performance measures Consists of 7 health plans, 221 physician organizations involving 35,000 physicians and 10 million patients In 2010, health plans paid $49 million to physicians in performance-based bonuses. IHA program unique All major health plan collaborated in choosing measures Most physicians in California belong to a large medical group pr independent practice association

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Critics of pay for performance argue:

answer

That P4P programs could encourage physicians and hospitals to avoid high-risk patients. Another issue with P4P is that many patients see many physicians for different types of problems making it impossible to determine which physician should get the bonus. Examples: Cardiologist, Endocrinologist, Nephrologists, etc) P4P could increase disparities in quality by rewarding physicians and hospitals that care for higher-income patients and have more resources than institutions that care for vulnerable populations and are resource-poor

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Malpractice Reform Goals of malpractice system:

answer

To financially compensate people who in the course of seeking medical care have suffered medial injuries To prevent physicians and other healthcare personnel from negligently causing harm to their patients Harvard Medical Practice study Only 2% of patients who suffer adverse events caused by medical negligence file malpractice claims

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Malpractice Reform

answer

As many of 40% of malpractice claims do not involve true medical errors 25% of these inappropriate claims result in patient receiving monetary compensation "Malpractice system is burdened with expensive, unfounded litigation that harass physicians who have done nothing wrong while failing to discipline or educate most physicians that commit actual medical negligence and to compensate most true victims

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Malpractice Reform Options

answer

Tort reform Placing limits on malpractice awards to paid patients Alternative dispute resolution Substituting mediation and arbitration for jury trials Use of practice guidelines Improving the ability to determine whether a physician was negligent No-fault reform Providing compensation to patients suffering medical injury regardless of whether the injury is due to negligence Enterprise liability Making institutions responsible for compensating medical injuries on a no-fault basis, thereby creating incentives for institutions to improve quality of care provided

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U.S. Healthcare System

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U.S. Healthcare System is a 2.5 trillion dollar system. Four important players: purchasers, Insurers, Providers and suppliers

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U.S. Healthcare System (purchasers)

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Include: individuals, employers, & government Purchasers supply the funds. They include individual consumers, businesses that pay for health insurance for their employees, government public programs (Medicare and Medicaid).

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U.S. Healthcare System (Insurers)

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Insurers receive money from the purchasers (individuals and businesses) and reimburse the providers when the policyholders require medical care. Some insurers are the same as purchasers (ie. Medicare and Medicaid programs).

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U.S. Healthcare System (Providers)

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Include: hospitals, nursing homes, home care agencies, physicians, pharmacies, etc. In the past purchasers viewed the expenses of the insurers, providers, and suppliers as an investment into better healthcare. Today there is a conflict- the purchasers want the healthcare industry (insurers, suppliers and providers) to reduce spending and the suppliers want to increase the amount spent on healthcare

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U.S. Healthcare System (Suppliers)

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Medical & pharmaceutical suppliers, computer equipment ing this time period, independent hospitals and small private physician offices populated the U.S. health delivery system Some large institutions combined hospital and physician care. Examples: Kaiser-Permanente system & Mayo Clinic A defining feature of the healthcare industry at this time was an alliance between insurers and providers. The provider-Insurer pact was created when Blue Cross and Blue Shields formed an alliance. At the time, Blue Cross was formed by the American Hospital Association and Blue Shield was run by the state medical societies affiliated with the American Medical Association.

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1945-1970: The Provider-Insurer Pact

answer

Health care inflated at a rapid rate since reimbursement rules were formulated by physicians, hospitals, and Blue Shield Medicare and Medicaid programs (enacted in 1965) had the same reimbursement provisions as private patients during this period.

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1945-1970: The Provider-Insurer Pact Results:

answer

The development of many independent hospitals and many small private practices Many private insurers Providers tended to dominate the insurers Purchasers had little power Reimbursement for providers was generous

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Purchaser disinterest was due to a

answer

healthy economy since U.S. businesses controlled domestic and foreign markets. Labor unions had generous wages and benefits. Business could afford these costs since the economic growth was robust and profits were high. In addition there was a tax subsidy for health insurance since payments for employees health were tax-deductable business expenses. No "brakes" on cost for a system that equated proliferation of biomedical breakthroughs with health improvements in people's lives.

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1970s - Tensions Develop

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Conflict between providers and insurers Purchasers (especially government) concerned about costs of health care In early 1970s, the U.S. fell from it position of postwar economic dominance. Western Europe and Japan start to gain ground in the world markets. U.S. industrial production dropped from 60% in the 1950s to 30% in 1980. Insurers begin to question generous reimbursements to providers

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1970s - Tensions Develop Result:

answer

Federal government established a network of health planning agencies to slow growth of hospitals. Peer and Utilization reviews were established to monitor appropriateness of MD services under Medicare and the glut of unused hospital beds and reduce length of stay. State governments started to regulate hospital construction and hospital rate regulation. Insurers demanded that services be provided at lower costs. Blue Cross legally separated from the American Hospital Association in 1972.

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1980s: Revolt of the Purchasers

answer

Late 1980s produced a severe shock: employer-sponsored health plans increased Many large corporations started to self-insured Purchasers (businesses now joining government) very concerned about health costs - cutting into their profits Reduction in heath costs through: Medicare DRGs (1983) Fee schedules HMOs (Managed care plans become dominant) Selective contracting by purchasers and insurers

question

Businesses profits are adversely affected since

answer

the percentage of total payroll spent on employee health benefits almost doubled from 5% (1976) to 9.7% (1988). 40% of businesses have employer-sponsored health benefits (self-insured plans). With the troubled economy, rising health costs, and self-insurance plans, big businesses got into the center of the health policy debate! Businesses advocate for managed care (especially HMOs) as a cost-control device. The shift from fee-for-service to capitated reimbursement which transfers health expenditure risk from the purchaser and insurer to providers.

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1990s: The Breakup of the Provider-Insurer Pact

answer

Selective contracting tended to disorganize rather than organize medical care patterns MDs were forced to admit patients from one HMO to one hospital and those from another HMO to a different hospital. Labs and other contracted specialties were sometimes across town. With selective contracting, insurers and purchasers start to have more input into reimbursement rates. Independent hospitals begin to merge into hospital systems.

question

HMOs lost enrollees if their premiums were too high

answer

HMOs lost enrollees if their premiums were too high. Providers who demanded high payments from HMOs were cut out and therefore lost patients. Large integrated health networks (HMOs)are formed and compete with private insurance, Medicare, or Medicaid Large physician groups develop Insurance companies dominate manage care markets For-profit hospitals increase in importance

question

Insurers gain power over providers Period of purchaser dominance (especially employers) in healthcare

answer

Government stops Medicare inflation through the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (expenditures actually declined) HMO enrollees expand from 40 million in 1990 to 80 million in 1999

question

The New Millennium: Provider Power Reemerges

answer

Consolidation in the Health Care Market (Insurers, MDs, Hospitals) Growing Power of Specialists and Specialty for profit service centers Increasing Physician-Hospital tensions (MDs taking business away) For profit- a threat to traditional professionalism and community service ( economic motivation clash with the professional commitment to patient welfare.)

question

The Provider Counter-Revolution

answer

HMOs enrollments dropped from 32% to 19% of insured employees. Instead, PPO (preferred provider organization) enrollment grew from 30% to 60% of insured employees. Hospitals consolidate into hospital "systems" and demand more money from insurers. Physicians balked at tight managed care contracts Negotiation between health care providers and insurers became hostile

question

Consolidation in the Health Care Market

answer

Intense competition stimulated consolidation among insurers and providers to improve bargaining power Large HMOs bought smaller ones In most states, three (Wellpoint, United Healthcare & Aetna)large insurance companies dominated more than 60% of the market

question

Providers also consolidated

answer

By 2001, 65% of hospitals were members of multi-hospital systems or networks Hospital prices often rose after consolidation Specialists increasingly joined single-specialty groups Private primary care and specialty practices were being acquired by hospital systems to increase their market clout

question

Consolidation went hand-in-hand with organizations converting from non-profit to for-profit status

answer

For -profit hospitals provide less charity care, treat fewer Medicaid patients, lower quality, and higher administrative costs due to being investor owned. Non-profit community hospitals are competing too- these hospitals are creating "specialty service lines" to attract specialist physicians and well-insured patients:

question

Pharmaceutical Industry Comes Under Criticism

answer

Rising tensions among purchaser, insurers and providers spilled over to healthcare's major supplier: the pharmaceutical industry 1988 Prescription drugs accounted for 5.5% of national health expenditures At the time, 71% of drug costs were paid by individuals Private insurance companies only covered 18% The growing costs of drugs and the elderly became a major national issue Because of its unaffordable prices and high profits

question

In the U.S., drug companies are very profitable

answer

Earning net profits after taxes close to 20% of revenues compared with 5% for all Fortune 500 firms Pharmaceutical companies argues that their high drug prices are justified due to the cost of research and development of new drugs Unlike many other nations, the U.S. does not regulate drug prices as a result of drug industry lobbying A 2003, Medicare law forbids the government from regulating drug prices

question

Drug companies developing new brand name drugs enjoy a 20-year patent

answer

During this time period, no other company can produce the same drug Once the patent expires, generic drug manufacturers can compete by selling the same product at lower prices 2009 Drug companies spent $7 billion on sales representative to visit physicians to persuade them to use brand name medications and not generic equivalents

question

Nursing and Policy

answer

Policy and politics are the ways and means that nurses can use to influence the quality, safety, and accessibility of patient care. Nurses need to be key change agents since nursing is concerned with health issues that are subject to frequent policy changes at all levels. Therefore every action and decision that influences health and the health system should be important to nurses. Understanding the policymaking process permits nurses to determine when and how to intervene to shape a policy to benefit a patient.

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Policy Making and Nursing

answer

Policy making is a complex, multidimensional, dynamic process; ....it encompasses the choices that a society or organization makes regarding its goals and priorities and the ways it allocates its resources to attain those goals. Politics simply means the process of influencing the allocation of scarce resources ($). Politics is often associated with "conflicting values". Nurses can improve the health of people by developing influence in four interconnected spheres: the workplace, government, professional organizations, and community

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Types of Policy

answer

Public Policy- Social Policy- Health Policy- Institutional Policies- Organizational Policies-

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Public Policy-

answer

formed by governmental bodies (ie. Legislation passed by Congress such as the ACA).

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Social Policy-

answer

pertains to policy decisions that promote welfare of the public (ie. A local age limit ordinance).

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Institutional Policies-

answer

those that govern workplaces such as hospitals. Magnet hospitals have nurses involved in decision making policies at all levels of the institution.

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Organizational Policies-

answer

positions taken by organizations such as the ANA, or NLN.

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Health Policy-

answer

decisions made to promote the health of individual citizens (ie. gov't paid smoking cessation program)

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Advocacy

answer

the act of pleading are arguing in favor of something such as a policy or interest active support of an idea.

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Beneficence

answer

Is the obligation to care for patients to the best of one's ability

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Nonmaleficence

answer

Is the duty of healthcare providers "to do no harm"

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Autonomy

answer

Is the right of a person to choose and follow his or her own plan of life and action

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Justice

answer

Treating everyone in a fair manner

question

What is rationing?

answer

General view • Rationing is limitation of medical care such that not all care expected to be beneficial is provided to all patients. • Example: Lack of intensive care beds

question

Rationing within One Health Program: The Oregon Health Plan

answer

WORKED Rationing within one health program • 1994 (Bodenheimer & Grumbach, 2012) • Oregon added 100,000 poor uninsured to its Medicaid program • To control costs, a prioritized list of services was created • List based on how much improvement in quantity and quality of life the treatment was likely to produce • Final list contained 745 treatment pairs • State of Oregon paid for items above line 574 on the list • Condition below 574 were not covered • In addition, the state legislature of Oregon, decided what services would be covered • 2004 • Plan enrollees dropped out of the program • Rate of uninsured climbed from 11% to 17%

question

The Oregon Health Plan Pros:

answer

• Plan more than a rationing proposal • Chief feature was to extend health care coverage • This aspect of the plan promotes justice • Attempt to prioritize medical care based on effectiveness • If rationing is needed this is a reasonable method to eliminate services

question

The Oregon Health Plan Cons:

answer

• Some features may be viewed as negatively impacting distributive justice • 1996 • 12% of beneficiaries denied services because they were below the priority list line • Of those denied, 78% stated their health worsened • Medical services were rationed for individuals in this plan but not anyone else

question

American Nurses Association's Social Policy Statement

answer

Nursing is the protection, promotion, and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering through diagnosis and treatment of human response and advocacy in the care of individuals, families, communities and populations

question

• Attempts to legislate national health insurance

answer

1912-1919 American Association for Labor legislation (first one) 1946-1949 Wagner-Murray-Dingell bill supported by president Truman 1963-1965 Medicare and Medicaid passed as first step toward national health insurance 1970-1974 Kennedy and Nixon proposal 1991-1994 Variety of proposals introduced, including president Clinton's plan 2009-2010 Patient Protection and Affordable Care ACT signed into law by President Obama

question

• The Pluralistic Reform Model: The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010

answer

• Passed ACA w/o any republican vote • Obama signed the most significant health legislation (March 23.2010) since Medicare/Aid in 1965 • "Socialized medicine" and "government takeover of health care" • Financing model of ACA- Individual and employer mandates for private insurance and an expansion of the publicly financed Medicaid program • Resembled Mitt Romney's Massachusetts Health Plan of 2006

question

• You need to know 4 numbers from affordable care act. When ACHA came into effect.

answer

1. Individual mandate: all US citizens and legal residents to have insurance coverage • Meeting federally determined "essential benefits" standard • Consequences of not purchasing insurance or don't qualify for public programs will pay tax penalty (2016) • Must pay 2.5% of their income 2. Employer mandate: employers with 50 or more employees face a financial penalty if their employees are not enrolled in an employer-sponsored health plan meeting the essential benefit standard • Any of their employees apply for federal subsidies for individually purchased insurance 3. Medicaid eligibility expansion: required to be low income and a "categorical" eligibility requirement (being a child or an adult with permanent disability) • ACA eliminated the categorical eligibility requirement and required that all states made all US citizens and legal residents below the 133% Federal Poverty Level eligible for their Medicaid program 4. Insurance market regulation: new rules on private insurance • Allow adults up to 26 yrs. old to be dependents under their parent's health insurance • Eliminates caps on total insurance benefits payouts • Prohibits denial of coverage based on pre-existing conditions • Limits the extent of experience rating to a max ratio of 3-1 between a plan's highest and lowest premium charge for same benefit package (came up with a formula)

question

• The Pharmaceutical Industry Comes Under Criticism

answer

• Increase cost of pharmaceuticals for the elderly ---major national issue • Was becoming public enemy #1 due to unaffordable prices and high profits • High drug prices are due to its expenditures on research and development of new drugs • U.S Gov't does not impose regulated prices on drugs... result of drug industry lobbying • Medicare prescription drug coverage law passed in 2003 forbid gov't to regulate drug prices • Drug industry—largest contributor within health industry • Companies developing new brand name drug enjoy patent for 20 yrs. from date it was filed and no other company can produce the same drug • Once patent is expired, generic drug manufacturers can compete by selling same product at lower prices • Some drug companies waged legal battled to delay patent expirations on their brand name products or paid generic drug companies not to make a generic • Persuade physicians and patients to use brand names • FDA sent letters to drug manufacturers citing advertising violations (minimizing S/E and exaggerating benefits) • Physician-industry relationship cause them to prescribe the most expensive and whose safety has not been evaluated adequately • Most trials to determine efficacy of prescription drugs funded by drug's manufacturer • In 2006, 18 relatively new drugs removed from market because of serious S/E (hid them from FDA) or FDA ignored evidence • More use of generic and brand name drug companies are starting to produce generics • Generic industry booming to fewer and larger companies

question

Which are the three major health insurance on the market????

answer

In most states, three (WellPoint, United Healthcare & Aetna) large insurance companies dominated more than 60% of the market

question

• Who Provides Long-Term Care?

answer

• Families • Medicare • Medicaid • Private Long-term Care Insurance

question

Activities requiring assistance in long-term care

answer

• ADL's basic human function- Feeding, dressing, bathing or showering, getting to the toilet, getting in an out of a chair or bed, Dealing with incontinence • ADL's to maintain independence-doing housework, laundry, preparing meals, shop, using transportation, Managing finances • Making and keeping appointments, taking meds, telephoning

question

• Private Long-Term Care Insurance-

answer

The elderly is the largest market for private insurance, must be dependent for three ADL's to receive home health care. Yet many that have fewer than 3 ADL's may need long-term care. And their insurance may pay nothing. Usually, have large deductibles pay fixed daily fee then reimbursing actual charges. Insurance pays 150 a day, nursing home charges 220 a day and the patient pays 70 dollars out of pocket.

question

• Medicare Long-Term Coverage

answer

• Medicare • Does not cover assistance with ADLs that are considered custodial services • Medicare only covers or pays for only "skilled care" • Examples of skilled care include: • Registered nurses in a hospital facility, nursing home, or home care services • RNs provide a wide variety of services: • Changing wound dressings, taking blood pressures, assessing heart and lung sounds, reviewing patient compliance with medications and providing patient education (diabetes, hypertension and heart failure). • Usually covers services after an "acute" hospitalization • Does not cover care for "chronic conditions"

question

• Individual or Population -

answer

The medical model seeks to identify high-risk individuals and offer them individual protection often by counseling on such topics as smoking cessation and low fat diet. The public health approach seeks to reduce disease in the population as a whole, using such methods as mass education campaigns to counter drinking and driving, and taxation of tobacco to drive up prices. Labeling of foods to indicate fat and cholesterol content

question

• What is Prevention?

answer

• Primary prevention- anti-smoking campaign • Seeks to avoid disease and injury • Examples: Immunization • Secondary prevention • Refers to early detention of disease and intervention to stop the condition from progressing • Examples: Pap smears & Mammograms

question

Pay for Reporting WHEN IT STARTED WHAT IT IS NO REPORTING= NO PAY

answer

• Medicare program o Initiated reporting for hospitals in 2003 o Program called the Hospital Quality Initiative o It is voluntary o Non-participating hospitals receive a reduction in their Medicare payments o Since program started some measures have improved • Measures included: • Heart attack • Heart failure • Pneumonia • Surgical care and other measures have been added o Physician Quality Reporting system in 2007--- physician who report certain quality measures may receive 2% increase in Medicare fees o Physician(s) reports are not made public

question

Continuous Quality Improvement

answer

• CQI involves the identification of concrete problems AND the formation of interdisciplinary teams to gather data and propose and implement solutions to the problems. • The Institute for Healthcare improvement (IHI) has led efforts to spread CQI by sponsoring collaborative. • Collaborative are 10 to 12 month programs were teams from various organizations work with each other and IHI faculty to rapidly test and implement changes that lead to lasting improvement (Institute of Healthcare Improvement, 2009

question

Proposals for Improving Quality

answer

• Institute of Medicine (1999) recommends: • Establishing a national focus "Center for Patient Safety." • Developing a national public mandatory reporting system and encouraging organizations and practitioners to report voluntary. • Setting and raising performance standards and expectations for patient safety. • Implementing safety systems in healthcare organizations to ensure a "culture of safety."

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Institute of Medicine's To Err is Human

answer

REPORT 1999 THE WAY WE SEE HEALTH CARE AND HOW IT MANAGES IT SELF. 98,000 DIE DUE TO ERRORS • Medical errors • Can be defined as "the failure of a planned action to be completed as intended or the use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim" (Institute of Medicine [IOM], 1999). • Examples of medical errors include: • Adverse drug events • Improper infusions • Pressure ulcers • Suicides • Restraint-related injuries or death • Mistaken patient identities • Falls • Adequate Access to Care -

question

• Computerized Information Systems

answer

HEALTH CARE • Electronic Medical Records (EMRs) • Improve care • Can create list of patients • Generate reminders for physicians and patients • Reduce medical errors due to drug prescriptions • Computer programs can alert physicians about inappropriate medication doses or medication allergies • Have not proven to significantly improve quality

question

• Traditional Quality Assurance: Licensure, Accreditation, and Peer Review -ENSURE

answer

• Certification agencies • Require periodic re-examinations to maintain active specialty certification • Peer Reviews • Traditional approach to quality assurance • Evaluation conducted by healthcare providers on fellow peers to determine appropriateness and quality of services • Joint Commission requires hospital medical staff to set-up peer review committees for the purpose of maintaining quality of care in their facilities. • Joint Commission can terminate hospitals from the Medicare program if it finds that the hospital's quality is deficient. •

question

• Regulatory Strategies

answer

• In a nation with tax-financed health insurance, government regulation of taxes serves as a control over public expenditures for health care. Most evident when certain tax funds are earmarked for health insurance (German health insurance plans or Medicare part A) tax hikes will anchor inflation on health care.

question

• Categories of Cost Controls

answer

• Financing controls Regulatory limits on taxes or premiums Competitive Reimbursement Controls Price controls Regulatory Competitive Utilization controls Aggregate units of payment, capitation, diagnosis-related groups Global budgets Patient cost sharing Utilization management Supply limits Mixed controls.

question

• Utilization Management

answer

MRI-VERY EXPENSIVE CONTROL COST THROUGH DR. PREAUTHORIZATION. Utilization management involves the surveillance of and intervention in the clinical activities of physicians for the purpose of controlling costs. • Seeks to influence physician behavior. • The mechanism is simple and direct: denial of payment for services it deems unnecessary. • UM has been criticized as a process of micro-management of clinical decisions that intrudes into the physician-patient relationship. A few case studies on UM have shown some short-term reduction in hospitalization rates and surgery BUT there is little evidence that this approach yields substantial savings • UM appears to be a "painless" form of cost control because it selectively reduces inappropriate or unnecessary care

question

Patient Cost Sharing-

answer

Occurs at the point of purchase Examples: deductibles, copayments, and uncovered services as part of the reimbursement transaction. This method makes patients pay a share of costs at the "point of receiving health care services". The primary intent: to discourage patient demand for services. When patients have to pay a greater amount of out of pocket expenses, it tends to discourage them. Rand experiment: Evaluated the influence of cost-sharing on appropriateness of care and health outcomes ◦ Individuals were randomly assigned to health insurance plans with varying degrees of cost sharing ◦ Individuals with cost-sharing plans versus individuals with no cost-sharing plans Made about 1/3 fewer visits Hospitalized 1/3 less often ◦ Cost sharing did not reduce medically inappropriate use of services selectively but equally discouraged use of appropriate and inappropriate services Low income patients received less preventive services and had poorer HTN control than those without cost sharing Patients are less likely to purchase needed medications under cost-sharing policies (i.e. Medicare part D's "donut hole") leading to worst control of chronic diseases. This study suggest that cost sharing, which attempts to restrict health care use by influencing patient behavior, is not a painless form of cost control. This study suggest patient cost-sharing is "not painless"

question

Pay for reporting benefits High-quality care components • What is high-quality healthcare?

answer

• o Helps healthy people stay healthy o Cures acute illnesses o Allows chronically ill patients to live as long as possible

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Disease Prevention And Health Promotion Hill Burton Act Insurance Public Health United States

CHS 13 – Flashcard 30 terms

Mary Browning

30 terms

Preview

CHS 13 – Flashcard

question

A negotiated set amount that a patient pays for certain services is a:

answer

copayment

question

An example of an allied health care professional is a:

answer

nurse

question

A written agreement between a private insurance company and an individual or group of individuals to pay for certain health care costs during a certain time period in return for regular, periodic payments is a health insurance:

answer

policy

question

In the third-party payment system, the patient is the

answer

first party

question

In the third-party payment system, the provider is the

answer

second party

question

Managed care is a system of health care delivery that focuses on

answer

all of the above

question

Medicare is available to those:

answer

with certain disabilities

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Restorative care is a component of:

answer

long-term practice

question

The amount of expenses that the beneficiary must incur before the insurance company begins to pay for covered services is the:

answer

deductible

question

The government insurance program that specifically targets low-income children who are ineligible for other insurance coverage is:

answer

CHIP

question

The part of Medicare that is prescription drug coverage is:

answer

PART D

question

The part of Medicare that is the hospital insurance portion is:

answer

PART A

question

The type of health care practice that incorporates interventions aimed at disease prevention and health promotion is:

answer

population-based public health practice

question

The type of managed care that buys fixed-rate health services from providers and sells them to consumers is:

answer

PPO'S

question

Those lacking the financial ability to pay for their own medical care are referred to as:

answer

medically indigent

question

True or False? A clinic is a facility in which two or more physicians practice as a group.

answer

question

True or False? Chiropractors are the most often used nonallopathic providers.

answer

question

True or False? Health care delivery in the United States is very similar to other developed countries.

answer

question

True or False? Health care workers who have the specialized education and legal authority to treat any health problem or disease are independent providers.

answer

question

True or False? Laboratory technicians are considered to be allied health care professionals.

answer

question

True or False? Nurses are an example of limited care providers.

answer

question

True or False? Of employed registered nurses, the largest majority work in offices of physicians.

answer

question

True or False? Public hospitals are often found in small, rural communities.

answer

question

True or False? Self-care has been used historically in America, and is still used today.

answer

question

True or False? The Hill-Burton Act provided substantial funds for medical education.

answer

question

True or False? The internship year is the second year of a medical residency program.

answer

question

True or False? The Joint Commission is the predominant organization responsible for accrediting health care facilities.

answer

question

True or False? The largest amount of all health care workers today are employed in nursing/residential facilities.

answer

question

True or False? The major determinants of access to health care in the United States are insurance coverage and the generosity of that coverage.

answer

question

True or False? The spectrum of health care delivery refers to the various types of care.

answer

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Iraq And Afghanistan Progressive Era Public Policy Regulate Interstate Commerce Violent Crime Rate

Texas GOVT 2306 Chapter Eleven – Flashcards 24 terms

Pedro Huang

24 terms

Preview

Texas GOVT 2306 Chapter Eleven – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is a step in the policy-making cycle?

answer

policy evaluation

question

In some cases, the policy implementation stage of the policy cycle is

answer

skipped altogether because the new policy is symbolic.

question

Which state was rated the most liberal in the SPI policy liberalism ranking in 2006?

answer

New York

question

Compared to the other states, where did Texas fall in the SPI policy liberalism ranking in 2006?

answer

46th

question

In lieu of purchasing workers' compensation insurance, employers in Texas

answer

don't have to do anything, unless an injured employee files a civil law suit.

question

Starting with the 2011-2012 school year, students are taking the ________ exam at the end of the course in the ninth, tenth, and eleventh grades.

answer

State of Texas Assessment of Academic Readiness

question

Bilingual education in Texas dates back to the early twentieth century, when ________ in Texas wanted to teach their native language(s) in the schools.

answer

Germans

question

The result of tuition "deregulation" in 2003 was

answer

a near doubling of tuition rates between 2003 and 2011.

question

Why are most degrees in Texas state universities limited to 120 hours?

answer

to save the state money

question

If a student takes more than the allowed hours (as set by the legislature) to complete his or her degree, the student

answer

must pay the out-of-state tuition rate.

question

The ________ was established by the Texas Constitution of 1876 to support the University of Texas and Texas A&M University systems.

answer

Permanent University Fund

question

Which of the following ended affirmative action practices at the University of Texas law school?

answer

the Hopwood decision

question

What state has the lowest incarceration rate?

answer

Maine

question

In Texas an initial permit to carry a concealed firearm costs about ________.

answer

$260

question

When does Texas allow the public funding of abortions? cases of rape cases of incest when the life of the mother is endangered

answer

All these answers are correct.

question

What rationale did some legislators use when they opposed Governor Rick Perry's executive order requiring all Texas schoolgirls to be vaccinated against the human papillomavirus?

answer

The young women would become more promiscuous.

question

Based on the 1981 U.S. Supreme Court decision in ________, all states are required to provide K-12 education for undocumented immigrants and their children.

answer

Plyler v. Doe

question

An acre is 43,560 square feet. For purposes of allocating water rights, water is measured in "acre feet". How many cubic feet of water are there in two acre feet?

answer

87,120

question

The Texas Veterans Leadership Program, established in 2008 under the Texas Workforce Commission, focuses on

answer

veterans of the Iraq and Afghanistan wars.

question

Texas's approach to regulation of which of the following policies is considered less friendly to business?

answer

professional licensing regulations

question

Who pays the largest part of the cost of K-12 education in Texas?

answer

local districts

question

According to estimates of the Kaiser Commission on Medicaid and the Uninsured and Urban Institute, Texas spent approximately ________ per Medicaid enrollee in fiscal year 2009.

answer

$9,000

question

When the incarceration rate is adjusted for the violent crime rate, Texas's "residuals" rank

answer

is above the national average.

question

In 2003 the U.S. Supreme Court found that antisodomy laws were unconstitutional in the case of

answer

Lawrence v. Texas.

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Iraq And Afghanistan Public Policy Violent Crime Rate

2306 Chapter 11 – Flashcards 53 terms

Michael Seabolt

53 terms

Preview

2306 Chapter 11 – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is a step in the policy-making cycle?

answer

D. policy evaluation

question

Which of the following steps in the policy-making cycle occurs first?

answer

C. agenda setting

question

Which of the following steps in the policy-making cycle occurs last?

answer

D. policy evaluation

question

In some cases, the policy implementation stage of the policy cycle is

answer

A. skipped altogether because the new policy is symbolic.

question

Which state was rated the most liberal in the SPI policy liberalism ranking in 2006?

answer

A. New York

question

Compared to the other states, where did Texas fall in the SPI policy liberalism ranking in 2006?

answer

A. 46th

question

State governments regulate all of the following, EXCEPT

answer

A. using Army troops to patrol the border.

question

In lieu of purchasing workers' compensation insurance, employers in Texas

answer

C. don't have to do anything, unless an injured employee files a civil law suit.

question

Texas's approach to regulation of which of the following policies is considered less friendly to business?

answer

B. professional licensing regulations

question

Compared to other states, Texas's per capita welfare spending is

answer

A. well below average.

question

Under the Affordable Care Act

answer

B. insurance companies cannot deny coverage to people with preexisting conditions.

question

How do Texans sign up for the Affordable Care Act?

answer

C. through the federally run exchange

question

Prior to the implementation of the Affordable Care Act, the percentage of Texans who did not have health insurance

answer

A. was the highest in the nation.

question

Who pays the largest part of the cost of K-12 education in Texas?

answer

D. local districts

question

Who pays the second-largest part of the cost of K-12 education in Texas?

answer

B. the state government

question

Starting with the 2011-2012 school year, students are taking the ________ exam to assess their academic progress.

answer

A. State of Texas Assessment of Academic Readiness

question

Bilingual education in Texas dates back to the early twentieth century, when ________ in Texas wanted to teach their native language(s) in the schools.

answer

C. Germans

question

The result of tuition "deregulation" in 2003 was

answer

B. a near doubling of tuition rates between 2003 and 2011.

question

Why are most degrees in Texas state universities limited to 120 hours?

answer

B. to save the state money

question

If a student takes more than the allowed hours (as set by the legislature) to complete his or her degree, the student

answer

A. must pay the out-of-state tuition rate

question

The ________ was established by the Texas Constitution of 1876 to support the University of Texas and Texas A&M University systems.

answer

A. Permanent University Fund

question

Which of the following ended affirmative action practices at the University of Texas

answer

B. the Hopwood decision

question

A state law mandates that the top __ percent of the graduating class of a high school be admitted to state colleges and universities.

answer

C. 10

question

What state has the lowest incarceration rate?

answer

D. Maine

question

When the incarceration rate is adjusted for the violent crime rate, Texas's "residuals" rank

answer

C. is above the national average.

question

In Texas an initial permit to carry a concealed firearm costs about ________.

answer

D. $260

question

In 2003 the U.S. Supreme Court found that antisodomy laws were unconstitutional in the case of

answer

C. Lawrence v. Texas.

question

When does Texas allow the public funding of abortions?

answer

A. cases of rape B. cases of incest C. when the life of the mother is endangered D. All of these answers are correct.

question

What rationale did some legislators use when they opposed Governor Rick Perry's executive order requiring all Texas schoolgirls to be vaccinated against the human papillomavirus?

answer

A. The young women would become more promiscuous.

question

Based on the 1981 U.S. Supreme Court decision in ________, all states are required to provide K-12 education for undocumented immigrants and their children.

answer

D. Plyler v. Doe

question

An acre is 43,560 square feet. For purposes of allocating water rights, water is measured in "acre feet." How many cubic feet of water are there in two acre feet?

answer

C. 87,120

question

Groundwater in Texas

answer

C. is owned by the person who owns the land above it.

question

The Texas Veterans Leadership Program, established in 2008 under the Texas Workforce Commission, focuses on

answer

A. veterans of the Iraq and Afghanistan wars.

question

Which of the following is the last step in James Anderson's policy cycle?

answer

policy evaluation

question

Which of the following stages of the policy cycle is often skipped for measures like state bans on gay marriage?

answer

policy implementation

question

Which of the following shows where the State Policy Index policy liberalization index ranks Texas?

answer

among the five most conservative states

question

In which of the following categories is Texas relatively less friendly to business?

answer

occupational and professional licensing

question

The failed legislative "Robin Hood Plan" was designed to do which of the following?

answer

end the funding disparity among school districts in Texas

question

Which of the following major changes did the Texas legislature make to higher education policy in 2003?

answer

It introduced "deregulated" tuition for state universities.

question

Texas's Higher Education Assistance Fund (HEAF) was created to support which of the following?

answer

universities not helped by the Permanent University Fund

question

Which of the following is a restriction that Texas places on abortions performed in the state?

answer

requiring waiting periods before performing abortions

question

For which of the following reasons is water use over the next 50 years in Texas projected to grow at only about one-quarter the rate of population growth?

answer

Livestock and irrigation uses are expected to decline.

question

Which of the following did the Hazlewood Act do for veterans in the state of Texas?

answer

It provided for exemptions from tuition and fees for higher education in Texas.

question

A policy liberalism index measures which of the following?

answer

how liberal or conservative a state is on some state policies

question

Which of the following factors is NOT among political scientist Virginia Gray's policy liberalism index?

answer

religious service attendance

question

During the period from 2008-2012, approximately what percentage of the Texas population was composed of foreign-born persons?

answer

16 percent

question

Which of the following is a consequence of Texas's relatively low land-use regulation?

answer

a high supply of housing

question

Which of the following options is chosen by most wealthy Texas school districts when they reach the capped per-student property tax wealth level?

answer

They give the excess income to the state for redistribution to other school districts.

question

The Hopwood decision mandated which of the following?

answer

an end to the practice of affirmative action in Texas schools

question

Which of the following summarizes the decision in the 2003 Supreme Court case of Lawrence v. Texas?

answer

Antisodomy laws were ruled unconstitutional.

question

Which of the following statements about immigration policy in Texas is correct?

answer

The process for becoming a legal permanent resident (LPR) differs depending on whether the individual is outside or inside the U.S. at the time of application

question

The Texas Veterans Leadership Program concentrates exclusively on veterans meeting which of the following criteria?

answer

veterans of the Iraq and Afghanistan wars

question

The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that local governments may use eminent domain to transfer private property to other private parties under which of the following conditions?

answer

The government must envision a public benefit from doing so.

STUDY

1980s And 1990s Affordable Care Act AP Government Equal Protection Clause Public Policy State Department Of Education Texas Supreme Court

GOVT 2306 Chap 12 – Flashcards 40 terms

Brandon Ruffin

40 terms

Preview

GOVT 2306 Chap 12 – Flashcards

question

A program related to Medicaid is the __________, which provides coverage for children in families with incomes too high to qualify for Medicaid.

answer

Children's Health Insurance Program

question

About how much is Texas's water consumption projected to increase by over the next 50 years?

answer

about 80 percent

question

According to the "law of capture,"

answer

the first person to "capture" water or oil by pumping it from the ground owns that water or oil.

question

According to the authors of the textbook, what is the single most important issue confronting policy makers with Medicaid in Texas?

answer

cost

question

After the 1996 Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) program was passed, the number of people on welfare declined and the number of people moving from welfare to employment increased. New questions, however, are arising today because

answer

these improvements were made under a booming economy in the 1990s and the labor market has since tightened

question

Which of the following was NOT one of the standardized tests used in Texas schools to assess student learning?

answer

Texas Learning Evaluation and Assessment Program (T-LEAP)

question

In 2005, the Texas Supreme Court declared that the school system was being financed by an unconstitutional state property tax. What did the legislature do to remedy the situation? .

answer

It cut property taxes by a third and replaced lost revenues with money raised statewide by an expanded business tax and a new $1-per-pack tax on cigarettes

question

Where does the majority of water used in Texas come from?

answer

aquifers

question

In 2012, a Gallup survey found that for the fourth consecutive year, Texas led the nation in the percentage of its population that lacked health care insurance. What percentage of Texans did not have health insurance?

answer

27.6 percent

question

When policy makers seek solutions to problems that are merely satisfactory, but may not be efficient or the best option available, they are exhibiting

answer

bounded rationality.

question

In Texas today, a majority of Medicaid recipients were

answer

children.

question

What was the main consequence of the Water Rights Adjudication Act?

answer

The ability of the state to control and manage surface water was greatly increased.

question

Managed care programs in Texas Medicaid have become an essential part of

answer

cost containment measures.

question

Today, what is Texas's primary water-planning and -financing agency?

answer

Texas Water Development Board

question

The "individual mandate" within the Affordable Care Act states that

answer

individuals must obtain health insurance or pay a penalty.

question

There are multiple stages in the policy-making process. Which of the following is NOT one of these stages?

answer

policy testing

question

In the Supreme Court case of Brown v. Board of Education, schools districts were ordered to desegregate their school systems "with all deliberate speed." In Texas,

answer

school districts eventually complied in the 1960s, but de facto segregation remained a problem.

question

The result of the education reforms instituted in the 1980s and 1990s has been

answer

mixed results; while dropout rates and scores on the state's standardized states have improved, measures such as spending on education, high school graduation rates, and average SAT scores remain below the national average.

question

Public education in Texas was mostly a local affair until 1949, when the state legislature passed the

answer

Gilmer-Aikin Laws

question

The Texas legislature established the Select Committee on Public Education (SCOPE) in 1983 in order to decide how to

answer

evaluate public education in Texas and pay for raises for teachers.

question

After the Affordable Care Act encouraged states to expand their Medicaid programs, with financial support from the federal government, Governor Perry announced that

answer

Texas would not participate in this Medicaid expansion.

question

After the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families program was passed, the number of people on welfare

answer

declined.

question

Desegregation of Texas schools

answer

occurred in the 1960s, though de facto segregation, especially in urban areas with large minority populations, remained a problem.

question

During the ___________ stage of making public policy, strategies for dealing with specifically defined problems are created.

answer

policy formulation

question

Education reforms instituted in the 1980s and 1990s

answer

have been mixed, with improvements in dropout rates and scores on the state's assessment text, but below-national-average performance in graduation rates and Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) scores.

question

In the case of Edgewood ISD v. Kirby, the Texas Supreme Court ruled that

answer

glaring disparities in the funding system for rich and poor school districts violated the Texas constitution.

question

Medicaid expenses in Texas

answer

are increasing and threaten to overwhelm the state budget.

question

People who advocate greater use of vouchers and charter schools argue that these would give

answer

parents greater flexibility and choice regarding their children's education, particularly where public schools had been performing poorly.

question

The "no pass, no play" rule, which keeps students who fail a course from participating in extracurricular activities such as sports, was implemented

answer

in the 1980s, at the recommendation of the State Committee on Public Education (SCOPE), chaired by businessman Ross Perot.

question

The Children's Health Insurance Program

answer

provides coverage for children in families with incomes too high to qualify for Medicaid.

question

The act that merged various water-rights doctrines into a unified water permit system, expanding the ability of the state to control and manage surface water, was the

answer

Water Rights Adjudication Act.

question

The federal block grant program for welfare was

answer

created in the 1990s and called the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) program.

question

The percentage of Texas residents with health insurance is

answer

lower than in any other state

question

The political impact of the Texas Supreme Court's ruling in Edgewood ISD v. Kirby

answer

created a political firestorm that swept through Texas politics throughout the early 1990s

question

The poverty rate for children under 18 in Texas is __________, while it is __________ in the United States as a whole.

answer

24.8 percent; 20.8 percent

question

Water consumption is expected to __________ over the next half-century; existing water supplies are expected to __________.

answer

increase by 82 percent; decrease by 10 percent

question

What effect has economic growth in Texas had on the state's poverty rates?

answer

surprisingly little

question

When we talk about __________ in the context of public policy, we mean that we have clearly identified goals, and we seek to meet those goals in the most efficient manner possible.

answer

rationality

question

Which sector in Texas uses the most water?

answer

irrigation

question

While a majority of the Medicaid population is __________, a majority of the funds are spent on __________.

answer

children; the elderly and people with disabilities disabled

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Private Health Insurance Public School System Social Policy

poli sci test 3 review questions – Flashcards 61 terms

Tony Foust

61 terms

Preview

poli sci test 3 review questions – Flashcards

question

Ch 14 Which of the following is not among the reasons that the authors list as to why education is important to the state?

answer

Schools allow government to counteract the antisocial values in certain communities.

question

The Gilmer-Akin Act of _______ created the modern public school system in Texas.

answer

1949

question

Which of the following is not true about the State Board of Education?

answer

...

question

In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court demand that public schools were not to be segregated based on race?

answer

Brown v. Board of Education

question

On average, Texas school districts get the greatest amount of revenue from which source?

answer

Local governments

question

The "Robin Hood" school finance plan came as the result of which court ruling?

answer

Edgewood ISD v. Kirby

question

Each of the following has established methods of holding educators accountable except

answer

The Texas Engineering Extension Service (TEEX).

question

The No Child Left Behind Act

answer

is the federal education act requiring schools to institute mandatory testing.

question

Which of the following has not been a legislative act or judicial ruling impacting education policy in Texas?

answer

Marbury v. Madison

question

The Permanent University Fund (PUF) was established to help fund

answer

the University of Texas System

question

The Texas Higher Education Coordinating Board (THECB) is made up of _______ members who are _________.

answer

nine; appointed by the governor

question

Hopwood v Texas adressed

answer

university admissions taking into consideration race-based criteria.

question

The authors cite each of the following as a major issue in the discussion of accountability in higher education except

answer

...

question

Which of the following accurately describes poverty levels in the state of Texas?

answer

Texas has three of the nation's top five counties of 250,000 or more people with the highest rates of poverty.

question

Each of the following is a condition for receiving funds through Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) except

answer

completing the next higher level of education.

question

The Lone Star Card is associated with which of the following social programs?

answer

The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)

question

At the time of the passage of the Affordable Care Act (ACA), what was the state of health insurance in Texas?

answer

Texas led the nation in the number of uninsured residents.

question

What is required of Texas by the passage of the Affordable Care Act (ACA)?

answer

To create a state health insurance marketplace or, if it does not do so, face the federal government creating one for it

question

Where Medicare benefits _______, Medicaid benefits _______

answer

are received by those who have paid into the program; are received by low-income elderly and disabled people regardless of ability to pay

question

Which describes the State Children's Health Insurance Program (SCHIP) accurately?

answer

It targets families who make too much to be on Medicaid but lack private health insurance.

question

Ch. 4 Standing committees contribute to the power of the chambers of the Texas Legislature by

answer

giving the legislature a place to kill undesirable legislation.

question

The standing committees of the Texas Legislature engage in oversight of the executive branch

answer

to assure that procedures, standards, and regulations developed by the agencies follow legislative intent.

question

The importance of having a blocking bill at the top of the calendar in the Texas Senate is that

answer

it allows the Senate to choose the order in which it will take up bills on the calendar.

question

If you attended a session of the Texas Legislature while floor votes were being taken, you might be misled as to what is happening by

answer

the use of ghost votes and closed riders.

question

f the party caucuses gain power in the Texas Legislature, the result might be

answer

an increase in the influence of the governor over the legislature.

question

The story of the "killer bees" illustrates

answer

the problem created for the Texas Senate by the requirement of a two-thirds majority to pass most bills.

question

All of the following are tactics that the minority may use to defeat a bill on the floor of the Texas Legislature except?

answer

putting a hold on the bill

question

All of the following statements concerning the governor's veto power are true except

answer

if the governor does not sign a bill within twenty days when it is passed at the end of a session, the bill dies.

question

To end a filibuster in the Texas Senate, a _________ vote is necessary.

answer

majority

question

Where in the legislative process do most bills "die?"

answer

Immediately after introduction

question

A committee created to reconcile the differences in the Texas Senate and Texas House versions of a bill is a(an) ______________ committee.

answer

conference

question

What proportion of a legislative chamber must be present to fulfill the quorum requirement?

answer

Two-thirds

question

Which of the following is a mechanism in the Texas House to allow representatives to "run out the clock" on a bill waiting to be debated?

answer

Chubbing

question

Who chooses the chairs of the Texas Senate's committees?

answer

The lieutenant governor

question

Which type of committee is charged with research or oversight to be completed in between sessions?

answer

Interim

question

Which of the following contemporary legislative realities is the most consistent with the framers' desire for a citizen legislature?

answer

Members are paid a low base pay

question

What is the purpose of an emergency clause of proposed legislation?

answer

It makes the bill take effect immediately upon passage.

question

Which of the following will most likely be given the highest priority of consideration in the Texas House of Representatives?

answer

Major state bills

question

Power in the Texas Legislature is

answer

most heavily concentrated in the offices of Speaker of the House and president of the Senate.

question

All of the following statements concerning the president of the Texas Senate and the Speaker of the Texas House are true except

answer

both are elected by the membership of their legislative body.

question

All of the following statements concerning organization in the Texas Legislature are true except

answer

the party caucuses are increasingly unimportant organizations for structuring behavior in the legislature.

question

Ch 13 Which of the following accurately describes the agenda setting step in the policymaking process?

answer

Policymakers prioritize the various problems facing the state.

question

Which of the following accurately describes the policy implementation step in the policymaking process?

answer

State agencies follow up on the actions of elected officials, and bureaucratic agencies develop rules and

question

Which of the following accurately describes the policy adoption step in the policymaking process?

answer

Policymakers take formal governmental administrative action.

question

The authors list three types of policies at the beginning of Chapter 13. Which of the following is a type of policy mentioned?

answer

Redistributive policy

question

The state general sales tax is?

answer

8.25 percent

question

The taxation approach of the Texas Legislature regarding highways and toll roads is to?

answer

increase the number of toll roads but not increase the tax revenue for highways.

question

The authors note several different types of taxes. Which of the following describes the sin tax?

answer

Taxes on activities such as cigarettes and gambling

question

The authors note several different types of taxes. Which of the following describes the severance tax?

answer

A tax on the extraction of natural resources

question

Which of the following is not a tax levied on Texans by their state?

answer

The income tax

question

Which of the following characteristic is accurate regarding regressive taxation?

answer

Texas takes a regressive approach to taxation due to the reliance on the sales tax.

question

Which of the following do the authors cite as an example of a regressive form of taxation?

answer

The sales tax

question

Texas relies on other sources of revenue than taxes. Which of the following is accurate regarding these other sources of revenue?

answer

Grants from the federal government make up around 40 percent of the state's revenue

question

The authors describe Texas as a "pay-as-you-go" state. What does the phrase "pay as you go" mean?

answer

The Texas Constitution requires a balanced budget, thus limiting debt

question

A bill cannot be considered passed by the legislature unless the ___________ has authorized that the amount to be spent by the bill is available.

answer

comptroller

question

What is the primary source of Texas's "Rainy Day Fund?"

answer

Oil and gas taxes

question

Although unpopular among many groups, why does the lottery remain a revenue source for Texas?

answer

The revenue lost from eliminating the lottery would mean spending cuts or raising other taxes

question

Whereas redistributive policy _________, distributive policy ____________.

answer

intentionally moves benefits from one group to another; does not intentionally target one specific group of society

question

Subsidies are incentives designed to _______ the production or purchase of certain goods

answer

stimulate

question

Which of the following describe sin taxes?

answer

Taxes on products and activities that legislators would like to discourage

question

The state's largest source of investment income is?

answer

income from the Permanent School Fund

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Earned Income Tax Credit

tx gov quiz # 5 – Flashcards 67 terms

Tony Foust

67 terms

Preview

tx gov quiz # 5 – Flashcards

question

ACA

answer

Affordable Care Act (Obama Care), Health care insurance plan to provide healthcare to every American. If you don't pay for health care you get in trouble and have power to take the money

question

AFDC

answer

Aid to families with dependent children, federal and state program financed for families with children below the poverty level finally replace 1996 with TANF (Temporary assistance for needy families)

question

CHIP

answer

Children Health insurance Program, medical care program for children with families with income too high to qualify for Medicaid

question

Equal Protection Clause

answer

provision in the 14th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution guaranteeing citizens the "equal protection of the laws"; this clause has been the basis for the civil rights of African Americans, women and other groups

question

Gilmer-Alkins Laws

answer

education reform legislation passed in 1949 that supplemented local funding of education with public monies, raised teachers' salaries, mandated a min length for the school year, and provided for more state supervision of public education

question

Great Recession

answer

was a period of general economic decline observed in world markets beginning around the end of the first decade of the 21st century.

question

Budget Fix

answer

a budget that does not change or flex when sales or some other activity increases or decreases. A fixed budget is also referred to as a static budget.

question

Medicaid

answer

a federal and state program financing medical services to low-income people

question

New Deal

answer

President Franklin Delano Roosevelt's 1930s programs to stimulate the national economy and provide relief to victims of the Great Depression

question

RVAA

answer

Religious Viewpoints Anti-Discrimination Act, state law passed in 2007 to force public schools into taking steps at protecting the free expression of religious views from discrimination

question

Robin Hood Plan

answer

The Robin Hood plan was a media nickname given to legislation enacted by the U.S. state of Texas in 1993 to provide court-mandated equitable school financing for all school districts in the state.

question

School Choice

answer

a term or label given to a wide array of programs offering students and their family's alternatives to publicly provided schools, to which students are generally assigned by the location of their family residence.

question

Sonogram Law

answer

Texas, for instance, requires that a woman seeking an abortion receive a sonogram from the doctor who will be performing the procedure at least 24 hours before the abortion. During the sonogram, the doctor is required to display sonogram images and make the heartbeat audible to the patient.

question

SSI

answer

Supplemental Security Income, passed 1972, provides assistance to low income elderly and disabled individuals

question

TANF

answer

Temporary Assistance for Needy Families, a welfare program passed in 1996 to provide temporary assistance to families with needy children; replacing the AFDC program, TANF sought to make poor families self-sufficient and to give states greater flexibility in setting benefit levels, eligibility requirements, and other program details

question

TAKS

answer

Texas Assessment of Knowledge and Skills

question

Edgewood v. Kirby

answer

In 1968, Demetrio Rodriguez and other parents of Mexican American students in the Edgewood Independent School District of San Antonio, Texas, filed a class action suit in U.S. District Court challenging Texas' public school finance system. Under the Texas system, the state appropriated funds to provide each child with a minimum education. Each local school district then enriched that basic education with funds derived from locally levied ad valorem property taxes. Since the value of taxable property and the number of school-aged children varied greatly among the state's many school districts, significant interdistrict disparities existed in available enrichment revenues, per-pupil expenditures, and tax rates.

question

NFIB v. Sebelius (person in charge)

answer

National Federation of Independent Business challenged the constitutionality of the ACA. NIFB argued it was not constitutional because it orders citizens to buy things they don't want. Outcome the yes the government does have the power to order them to buy it because they call it a "tax"

question

Roe V. Wade

answer

is a landmark decision by the United States Supreme Court on the issue of abortion. It was decided simultaneously with a companion case, Doe v. Bolton. The Court ruled 7-2 that a right to privacy under the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment extended to a woman's decision to have an abortion, but that this right must be balanced against the state's two legitimate interests in regulating abortions: protecting women's health and protecting the potentiality of human life.[1]

question

San Antonio v. Rodriguez

answer

was a landmark case involving the constitutionality of using property taxes to fund public schools. At the heart of the case lay the question of the equitable funding of public schools. Lawyers for Rodriguez and seven other children in the poor Edgewood independent school district in the San Antonio area argued that the current system financing public schools in Texas was unfair///was a case in which the Supreme Court of the United States held the San Antonio Independent School District's financing system, based on local property taxes, was not an unconstitutional violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's equal protection clause. The majority opinion, reversing the District Court, stated the appellees did not sufficiently prove that education is a fundamental right, that textually existed within the U.S. Constitution, and could thereby (through the 14th Amendment to the Constitution), be applied to the several States. The Court also found the financing system was not subject to strict scrutiny.

question

481/504

answer

481 Reading SAT score in 2o01, Math SAT score is 504

question

80.6%

answer

High School graduate in rate in Texas in 2009

question

36th

answer

Is the national ranking for graduation rate

question

>3.4M

answer

# of people enrolled in Medicaid in Texas in 2010

question

80K to 325K

answer

# of kids on welfare goes between these two (1967-1973) LBJ launched his "great society"

question

3.6M

answer

# of Texans participating in food stamp Program (SNAP) Supplemental nutrition Assistance program

question

28K to 500K

answer

People on CHIP from 2000 to 2009

question

answer

federal budget that gets consumed by Medicaid and CHIP

question

60%

answer

Share of water usage from Texas that is taken from irrigation

question

82%

answer

By 2060 the population of Texas is expected to increase by 82%

question

$9,816, $32.5M

answer

Amount of residential tuition for University of Texas, Non state tuition

question

answer

# of community college Districts in Texas

question

Fiscal Year

answer

Budget Year to follow for Texas gov. Sept 1st-August 31st of the following year. United States: October 1st-Sept 30th of the following year

question

Sales Tax

answer

a tax on sales or on the receipts from sales

question

Franchise Tax

answer

Business Tax that companies pay

question

Severance Tax

answer

Taxes that is imposed on the removal of non-renewable resources

question

Excise Tax

answer

Tax on Consumption of use

question

Sin Tax

answer

Tax that depends on state you are in (Ex: in Nevada=gambling)

question

Part-Mutuel Wagering

answer

question

TRS

answer

Teachers Retirement System

question

PSF

answer

Permanent School Fund, fund that created in 1854 that provides monies for primary and secondary schools

question

PUF

answer

Permanent University Fund, funs established in 1876 and funded from the proceeds from land owned by the state; monies go to various universities in the University of Texas and Texas A&M systems

question

General (Revenue) Fund

answer

the state's primary operating fund

question

Rainy

answer

also known as economic stabilization fund it was established by constitutional amendment in 1988 to provide funds for the state during times of financial stress

question

Recession

answer

a period of temporary economic decline during which trade and industrial activity are reduced, generally identified by a fall in GDP in two successive quarters.

question

Tax Incidence

answer

tax incidence or tax burden is the analysis of the effect of a particular tax on the distribution of economic welfare. Tax incidence is said to "fall" upon the group that ultimately bears the burden of, or ultimately has to pay, the tax.

question

Progressive Tax

answer

Tax on income where the more you make the higher % of the rate of Taxation you will be charged (the more you make, the more they take)

question

Regressive Tax

answer

Regardless of how much you make the tax rate is the same

question

Ability-to-pay

answer

An economic principle stating that the amount of tax an individual pays should be dependent on the level of burden the tax will create relative to the wealth of the individual.

question

Tax Elasticity

answer

The sensitivity of changes in a quantity with respect to changes in another quantity.

question

Biennium

answer

a specified period of two years.

question

FED. Grants

answer

are economic aid issued by the United States government out of the general federal revenue. A federal grant is an award of financial assistance from a federal agency to a recipient to carry out a public purpose of support or stimulation authorized by a law of the United States.

question

Medicare

answer

is the federal health insurance program for people who are 65 or older, certain younger people with disabilities, and people with End-Stage Renal Disease

question

SCHIP

answer

State Children's Health Insurance Plan

question

Matching Funds REQ

answer

are funds that are set to be paid in equal amount to funds available from other sources. Matching fund payments usually arise in situations of charity or public good.

question

Dedicated HWY. Fund

answer

a transportation fund in the United States which receives money from a federal fuel tax of 18.4 cents per gallon on gasoline and 24.4 cents per gallon of diesel fuel and related excise taxes

question

Performance-based Budgeting

answer

A budget that reflects the input of resources and the output of services for each unit of an organization. This type of budget is commonly used by the government to show the link between the funds provided to the public and the outcome of these services.

question

LBB

answer

Legislative Budget Board

question

Appropriation Bill

answer

authorization by the legislature to a government agency or body to spend up to a particular amount of money

question

Budget Depict

answer

amount of red ink in a single budget year

question

Debt

answer

accumulation of all debt

question

Dedicated Funds

answer

means a fund in the State Treasury, or a separate account or fund in the General Fund in the State Treasury, that by law is dedicated, appropriated or set aside for a limited object or purpose, but "dedicated fund" does not include a revolving fund or a trust fund.

question

Conf. Committee

answer

a committee of the United States Congress appointed by the House of Representatives and Senate to resolve disagreements on a particular bill. A conference committee is usually composed of senior Members of the standing committees of each House that originally considered the legislation.

question

Line-item Veto

answer

the power of a president, governor, or other elected executive to reject individual provisions of a bill

question

Sunset Review

answer

is an evaluation of the need for the continued existence of a program or an agency. It allows for an assessment of the effectiveness and performance of the program or agency.

question

VMT Tax

answer

Vehicles Miles traveled Tax (state taxing you for the amount of miles you travel

question

CPA

answer

A Certified Public Accountant (CPA) is an accounting professional who has passed the Uniform CPA examination and has also met additional state certification and experience requirements.

STUDY

Advise And Consent Affordable Care Act AP Government Laissez Faire Capitalism National Security Agency Otto Von Bismarck Political Culture Political Participation

We The People: Chapter 1 – Flashcards 29 terms

Carol Rushing

29 terms

Preview

We The People: Chapter 1 – Flashcards

question

Americans are ___ supportive of income redistribution than Europeans.

answer

less

question

Government ran by a few people is called

answer

oligarchy

question

The gambling industry in your state wants to change the state constitution to allow gambling. It organizes a campaign through voter signatures and puts its proposal directly on the ballot. This is called a(n)

answer

ballot referendum

question

Realistically, the United States did not become a full practicing democracy until

answer

1960s.

question

The majority of Americans believe that "government is run by a few big interests" and that government officials "don't care what people think." The term used to describe this would be

answer

low efficacy

question

A system of government that recognizes no formal limits on its power is

answer

totalitarian

question

The formal institutions that rule a people are called its

answer

government

question

Student council example of

answer

representative democracy

question

In nineteenth-century Prussia, Otto von Bismarck introduced social reforms to aid the lower class because he

answer

offset growing power of middle class.

question

What kind of government do we have?

answer

republic

question

The bourgeoisie of western Europe wanted to

answer

promote participation for middle class.

question

According to Harold Lasswell, politics is

answer

who gets what, when they get it, and how.

question

To the greeks a citizen was anyone who was

answer

knowledgable of whats going on in community and participates

question

Today the average member of Congress represents approximately how many people?

answer

650000

question

In recent years, more and more Americans are learning about government from

answer

late night comedians

question

The belief that citizens can affect government is called political

answer

efficacy

question

In a democracy, sovereignty is vested in

answer

the people

question

The U.S. definition of liberty refers to

answer

personal and economic freedom

question

Trust in government in the United States

answer

declined in last 50 years

question

The policy of democratization is an attempt by the U.S. government to

answer

encourage foreign nations to adapt democratic policies

question

Laissez-faire capitalism has been limited by

answer

public opinion, support capitalism

question

The United States' core political values are

answer

liberty, equality, democracy

question

Some states allow ballot referenda or popular initiatives, which are forms of

answer

direct democracy

question

Throughout U.S. history, Americans have

answer

suspicions of strong government.

question

Informed and active membership in a political community is the basis for ____

answer

citizenship

question

Americans today are ____likely to think that they can influence what the government does.

answer

less

question

Political participation can take many forms: ____

answer

vote, group activities, and even direct action, such as violent opposition or civil disobedience.

question

____ is the theory that all interests are and should be free to compete for influence in the government.

answer

Pluralism

question

In the 17th century, two important changes began to take place in the governance of some Western nations: ?

answer

governments acknowledged formal limits on their power & began to give citizens a formal voice in politics through the vote.

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Change The Subject Emphasize The Importance Of Self Fulfilling Prophecy

Public Speaking Final Review – Flashcards 100 terms

Kevin Stewart

100 terms

Preview

Public Speaking Final Review – Flashcards

question

Reasoned persuasion emphasizes

answer

the responsible use of evidence and proofs.

question

_____ circumvents the ethical burden or persuasive justification by over-relying on baseless appeals.

answer

Manipulative persuasion

question

The fact that effective public speaking almost always impresses audiences best reflects what form of credibility discussed in your text?

answer

emerging

question

What kind of reasoning is best reflected by comparing the current "war on drugs" to the prohibition of alcohol during the early twentieth century?

answer

analogical

question

When Julie argues that we should not listen to Jerome's ideas for immigration reform because, "He's just a right-wing idiot!" she is probably guilty of what persuasive fallacy?

answer

ad hominem

question

What kind of fallacy are we guilty of when we misstate opposing views in a manner that makes them easier to discredit?

answer

straw man

question

What type of fallacy occurs when we change the subject or simply ignore the issue at hand?

answer

red herring

question

Before an audience opposed to health care reform, Jane praises President Obama for supporting health care reform without arguing for or defending its merits. Given her audience, she is likely guilty of which of the following fallacies?

answer

begging the question

question

Reasoned persuasion relies most heavily on which form of proof?

answer

logos

question

What fallacy has been employed when speakers make persuasive claims that simply do not follow their reasoning and evidence?

answer

non sequitur

question

Which type of proof is most associated with invoking traditional narratives and values?

answer

mythos

question

What kind of reasoning is best reflected by the statement, "War is always wrong. Therefore, I opposed the war in Iraq."

answer

deductive

question

By syllogism, we mean

answer

a deductive argument that reasons from shared principles.

question

What kind of reasoning works primarily from observation?

answer

inductive

question

What form of proof is invoked when you cite your own expert credentials?

answer

ethos

question

What kind of reasoning is most reflected by signs carried by Civil Rights activists declaring "I Am a Man"?

answer

definition of central concepts

question

Proof by _____ is especially useful for moving audiences to action.

answer

pathos

question

What form of persuasive evidence is used when opponents of the Affordable Care Act (a.k.a., "Obamacare") cite prominent supporters of the act acknowledging problems with its implementation?

answer

reluctant witness

question

All of the following are guidelines for the ethical use of persuasive evidence except

answer

do not use evidence just to support your position.

question

All of the following are advice for ethical argumentation except

answer

do not argue a position when there are opposing views.

question

All of the following are types of persuasive speaking except

answer

speeches addressing the meaning of formal occasions.

question

What kind of persuasive speech would you present in support of a disputed tax cut?

answer

a speech advocating action or policy

question

What kind of speech would you present to persuade listeners that Oswald acted alone when he assassinated President Kennedy?

answer

a speech addressing disputed facts

question

Which stage in the persuasive process is most associated with consciousness raising?

answer

awareness

question

Emotional appeals are especially important in what stage of the persuasive process?

answer

enactment

question

The motivated sequence speech design includes all of the following parts except

answer

engage opposing views.

question

A co-active approach to persuasion is most useful for

answer

engaging reluctant audiences.

question

What stage of the persuasive process is concerned with making the effects of persuasion lasting?

answer

integration

question

Speakers should consider all of the following concerns of ethical persuasion except

answer

am I committing a self-fulfilling prophecy?

question

Your text offers all of the following strategies for uniting divided audiences except

answer

- invoking shared values and traditions. - invoking shared problems and challenges. - providing a concrete first step that listeners can take towards shared action. - ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

A speech encouraging students to recycle would most likely follow what persuasive speech design?

answer

problem-solution

question

Your text offers all of the following advice for removing barriers to commitment among undecided listeners except

answer

- provided needed information in the minds of listeners. - emphasize the importance of your message by reaffirming shared values. - strengthen your credibility by reasoning constructively and citing reputable sources. - ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

A _____ approach to persuasion engages generic questions a thoughtful audience will likely ask before agreeing to a change in policy or procedure.

answer

stock issues

question

Addressing a group of concerned Christians in support of pornography, Bill argues that "religious fanaticism is a threat to freedom." Not surprisingly, his audience members come away more opposed to pornography than ever. Bill has just experienced what persuasive phenomenon?

answer

a boomerang effect

question

Engaging and refuting opposing positions before audiences that already agree with us in order to make them more resistant to later counter-persuasion is referred to as

answer

inoculation

question

What is a delayed reaction to persuasion called?

answer

sleeper effect

question

Your text discusses which of the following strategies for moving audiences from agreement to action?

answer

- demonstrate the need for audience involvement - use emotional appeals to involve your audience - provide specific instruction for getting involved - ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

How can you best avoid the great expectation fallacy?

answer

set modest goals for persuading your audience

question

When addressing reluctant audiences, persuasive speakers should

answer

- start with areas of agreement. - emphasize explanation over argument. - make a multisided presentation. - ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

Persuasive speaking differs from informative speaking in all of the following ways except

answer

emotional appeals are less appropriate.

question

Which activity occupies the greatest amount of the time we spend communicating in the workplace?

answer

listening

question

Good note taking requires that you

answer

- come prepared with paper and pen or pencil. - avoid trying to write down everything you hear. - review, correct, and complete notes the day taken - ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

What form of listening is particularly important to protect us from the designs of dishonest speakers?

answer

critical

question

Developing your listening skills should make you a better speaker in which of the following ways?

answer

- developing an appreciation for differing speaking techniques - you will develop a sense of audience sensitivity - becoming a more thoughtful consumer of ideas and information - ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

What form of listening ascribes meaning to audible sounds?

answer

comprehensive

question

All of the following should be considered when evaluating speeches except

answer

legality.

question

Critical listening emphasizes all of the following except

answer

did the speaker mean well?

question

Speakers who talk too rapidly or too slowly may contribute to which barrier to effective listening?

answer

inattention

question

If you are listening to a lecture about Cherokee native Americans and it reminds you of driving your Jeep Cherokee in the mud, you have succumbed to what barrier to effective listening?

answer

chance association of words

question

What should you not do when taking notes during class?

answer

try to write down everything you hear

question

Thinking about the date you have after class represents what form of listening barrier?

answer

personal concerns

question

Getting up and closing a window or door because you are having trouble hearing would be one way to handle what sort of problem?

answer

physical noise

question

Trigger words invoke which of the following reaction(s) in listeners?

answer

emotional

question

Jeff believes the Federal government needs to cut spending, yet he refuses to consider a proposal to cut spending because it is supported by members of the "other party." What barrier to effective listening does Jeff's behavior reflect?

answer

personal bias

question

The following are the guidelines for providing speakers with constructive criticism except

answer

provide speakers a realistic assessment of limitations.

question

A speech critique should balance

answer

critical and constructive skills.

question

What is the first step in overcoming a bias?

answer

recognizing you have one

question

What is the characteristic of evidence that directly relates to the issues being discussed?

answer

relevant

question

Which of the following critical standards of effective evidence use would be violated if a speaker used examples of juvenile crime in Europe to argue that American kids are out of control?

answer

representative

question

All of the following are criteria for evaluating the ethical qualities of a speech except

answer

does the speech avoid taking controversial positions?

question

All of the following are criteria for choosing good speech topics except

answer

it should be entertaining

question

What is the problem with trying to give a five minute presentation on the ecology?

answer

The topic is not manageable.

question

What does the speaker do in the discovery phase of selecting a topic?

answer

identify general topic areas

question

What approach to exploring topics focuses on basic journalistic questions such as what? why? when? how? where? and who?

answer

topic analysis

question

What approach to developing topic ideas explores "habitual" paths of thought such as people, places, ideas, values, and problems?

answer

interest charts

question

What does the speaker do during the refinement phase of topic selection?

answer

-articulate a specific purpose statement -articulate a thesis statement -focus your specific topic - ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

What should you refrain from in the initial stage of brainstorming?

answer

critiquing

question

A speaker's _____ purpose might be to inform, to persuade, or to celebrate.

answer

general

question

What does the specific purpose of a speech represent?

answer

the response desired from the audience

question

What are we trying to change when we practice mind mapping?

answer

our habitual patterns of thinking.

question

Which would make the best specific purpose statement for persuading an audience to donate money to Habitat for Humanity?

answer

To persuade my audience to donate money to Habitat for Humanity.

question

For ethical reasons, you are advised to avoid all of the following topics except

answer

-anything that might promote hurtful or dangerous behavior. -any topics upon which you cannot possibly speak with responsible knowledge. -anything that might promote illegal activities. - ALL OF THE ABOVE SHOULD BE AVOIDED

question

The specific purpose statement, "I want my audience to dig the 60s" would probably fall into what trap of poor topic selection?

answer

triviality

question

The specific purpose statement, "I want my audience to support federal action to combat greenhouse pollution, and a new program to promote recycling in our area" would probably fall into what trap of poor topic selection?

answer

double-focus

question

When you scan newspapers, the Internet, and magazines to try and get ideas for your speech, what are you using?

answer

media and Internet prompts

question

What is wrong with the thesis statement, "What's wrong with politics"?

answer

It is obscure and lacking in focus.

question

What is the general purpose of a speech to inform?

answer

share knowledge

question

What is the general purpose of a speech to persuade?

answer

influence beliefs and actions

question

Sometimes speakers forget that their audience doesn't know as much about the topic as the speaker does. In doing so, what trap have they fallen into?

answer

technicality

question

What is the flaw in the following specific purpose, "To inform my audience about New York City?"

answer

too general

question

Presentation aids should be used

answer

to emphasize the most important ideas and information in your speeches.

question

Handouts can be useful

answer

for presenting complex ideas or lots of statistical information.

question

All of the following are true about using people as visual aids except

answer

they should plan something themselves to contribute.

question

When possible, what should the speaker do when using an object as a presentation aid?

answer

keep the object out of sight until it is time to use it

question

What are graphics?

answer

visual representations of information

question

What is important to remember when using graphics during a speech?

answer

Graphics must be instantly clear.

question

All of the following are benefits of using presentation aids except

answer

they make audience interaction less important.

question

What type of map is best to use in a presentation?

answer

simple and uncluttered

question

Lisa needs a visual aid to illustrate how her university allocates its budget. What would be her most likely choice?

answer

pie graph

question

Pablo needs a visual aid for comparing the income rates of men and women in his hometown over the past decade. Which of the following would likely prove his best choice?

answer

a comparative line graph illustrating the relative growth of the income rates of men and women

question

What type of graph is best for displaying comparisons and contrasts?

answer

bar graph

question

What would be the best choice of a presentation aid for illustrating the hierarchy of the U.S. military?

answer

flow chart

question

Which of the following would be best for a speech on the four benefits of using presentation aids in a speech?

answer

a textual graph with a bulleted list of the four benefits

question

When using a handout with a brief presentation, it is best to

answer

distribute it after making your presentation.

question

What is the minimal size recommended for posters for most classroom presentations?

answer

14 x 17 inches

question

When preparing and using presentation aids, speakers should always

answer

-alert audiences to visual images that have been altered to convey a point. -cite sources of important information presented. -consider whether charts and graphs distort the meaning of important information. -ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

A monochromatic color scheme

answer

uses variations of a single color.

question

All of the following are potential drawbacks of using presentation aids except

answer

-they often put you at the mercy of technology working. -poorly integrated aids tend to distract listeners and speakers. -poorly planned aids can hurt your ethos as a speaker. -ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

When using presentation aids, speakers should always

answer

-use them when practicing their presentations. -be prepared to speak without them if necessary. -be careful not to speak to or read from them. -ALL OF THE ABOVE

question

What are some potential problems of using video during presentations?

answer

-They often upstage short presentations. -Longer clips may distract attention from your central message. -They require skillful editing to look professional. -ALL OF THE ABOVE

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Amicus Curiae Brief Politics of the United States

ch 15 – Assignment Writing – Flashcards 20 terms

Deloris Connelly

20 terms

Preview

ch 15 – Assignment Writing – Flashcards

question

Justices appointed by presidents Ronald Reagan, George H. W. Bush, and George W. Bush have moved the Court in a more ____ direction on issues, including affirmative action and abortion.

answer

conservative

question

In ____ cases, the government is always the plaintiff.

answer

criminal

question

In what kind of case does the plaintiff charge that it has suffered because of another's violation of a specific agreement between the two?

answer

contract

question

Stare decisis is a Latin phrase that means

answer

let the decision stand.

question

Federal court jurisdiction extends to

answer

federal statutes, treaties, and the U.S. Constitution.

question

A negotiated agreement in a criminal case in which a defendant agrees to tell the court that he or she is guilty in return for the state's agreement to reduce the severity of the criminal charge or prison sentence the defendant is facing is known as a

answer

plea bargain.

question

What is the term for a court's sphere of power and authority?

answer

jurisdiction

question

Which federal judges are appointed for life?

answer

All Article III judges are appointed for life.

question

Known as the Great Writ, ____ is guaranteed by the Constitution and can be suspended only in cases of rebellion or invasion.

answer

habeas corpus

question

The Constitution gives the Supreme Court ____ jurisdiction in cases involving foreign ambassadors and issues in which a state is a party.

answer

original

question

Each _____ court exercises _____ jurisdiction over cases heard by the district courts within its region.

answer

circuit; appellate

question

U.S. district court decisions are made by

answer

a single federal judge.

question

Opinion assignment when he or she is in the majority is an important power of the ____.

answer

chief justice

question

Because the Supreme Court has so much influence over American law and politics, virtually all presidents have made an effort to select justices who ____.

answer

share their political philosophies

question

What is the name for the practice whereby the president, before formally nominating a person for a federal judgeship, seeks the indication that senators from the candidate's own state support the nomination?

answer

senatorial courtesy

question

Judicial review was established in the case of ____

answer

Marbury v. Madison.

question

Why does the solicitor general have such a strong influence on the Supreme Court?

answer

The solicitor general screens most cases being appealed by agencies of the federal government and only lets some cases advance.

question

Justices who disagree with the majority decision of the Court may choose to publicize the character of their disagreement in the form of a

answer

dissenting opinion.

question

Today, ____ seem to view the courts as useful instruments through which to pursue their goals.

answer

Americans of all political persuasions

question

Which of the following cases involved the right to privacy?

answer

Griswold v. Connecticut

STUDY

Abnormal Psychology Affordable Care Act Positive Psychology Psychology

Abnormal Psych CH. 1 and 2 – Flashcards 129 terms

Tony Foust

129 terms

Preview

Abnormal Psych CH. 1 and 2 – Flashcards

question

If a person wants a career focused on deleting, assessing, and treating abnormal patterns of functioning, that person should look into becoming a...

answer

Clinical Practititioner

question

The history, values, institutions, habits, skills, technology, and arts of a society make up that society's...

answer

Culture

question

Which depressed person would be the LEAST likely to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, because of specific circumstances...

answer

Someone whose community was destroyed by a tornado

question

George hears voices that others do not but is not distressed by them. This illustrates that:

answer

Distress does not have to be present for a person's behavior to be considered abnormal

question

An individual has a 9-to-5 job. However, this person seldom gets up early enough to be at work on time and expresses great distress over this behavior. This individuals behavior would be considered abnormal b/c..

answer

Dysfunctional

question

Which person would NOT be considered abnormal, despite the fact that the person's behavior is dysfunctional?

answer

Someone who goes on a hunger strike to protest social injustice

question

A person who is suicidal and can see no reason for living BEST fits which definition of abnormality?

answer

Danger

question

Research shows that danger to self or others is found in...

answer

Some cases of abnormal functioning

question

According to Thomas Szasz's views, the deviations that some call mental illness are really...

answer

Problems in Living

question

College students who drink so much that it interferes with their lives, health, and academic careers are often not diagnosed as engaging in abnormal behavior because...

answer

Drinking is considered to be a part of college culture

question

Lady Gaga and other eccentrics are usually not considered to be experiencing a mental illness because..

answer

They freely choose and enjoy their behavior

question

Studies show that eccentrics are more likely than those with mental disorders to say:

answer

I'm different and I like it

question

One who sees abnormality as a problem in living usually refers to those seeking help with problems in living such as...

answer

Clients

question

Which "new diagnosis" would someone experiencing overwhelming concern about the security of travel on planes and subways MOST likely receive?

answer

Terrorism Terror

question

The use of exorcism in early societies suggests a belief that abnormal behavior was caused by...

answer

Evil Spirits

question

A person being treated by a shaman would MOST likely be undergoing...

answer

An Exorcism

question

Hippocrates' contribution to the development of understanding mental illness was the view that such conditions were the result of...

answer

Natural Causes

question

Hippocrates attempted to treat mental disorders by...

answer

Correction underlying physical pathology

question

The Ancient Greeks might find that a flash mob is MOST similar to...

answer

Mass Madness

question

Which statement is NOT a reason that demonology dominated vies of abnormality in Europe in the Middle Ages?

answer

The culture rejected religious beliefs

question

Tarantism and lycanthropy are examples of...

answer

Mass maddness

question

Those MOST often in charge of treating abnormality in the Middle Ages in Europe were...

answer

Clergy

question

Johann Weyer considered to be the founder of modern study of psychopathology, was a physician in the...

answer

1500s

question

In the early asylums, treatment for mental illness began with the intention to provide...

answer

Harsh Treatment

question

What is the distinction of Bethlehem Hospital, founded in London in 1547

answer

Popularly called "Bedlam", it came to represent deplorable conditions for patients

question

The basis for moral treatment of asylum patients was the belief that...

answer

Mental illness should be treated humanely and with respect

question

The American school teacher who lobbied state legislatures for laws to mandate humane treatment of people with mental disorders was..

answer

Dorothea Dix

question

Which was NOT a factor in the decline in the use of moral treatment and the rise in the use of custodial care in mental hospitals at the end of the twentieth century?

answer

The total lack of success of moral treatment

question

One factor that contributed to the decline of moral therapy was...

answer

It did not work for everyone

question

The fact that some people in the advanced stages of AIDS experience neurological damage that results in the psychological abnormality supports what type of perspective about abnormal psychological functioning...

answer

Somatogenic

question

The finding that syphilis causes general paresis is important because it supports the idea that

answer

Organic factors can cause mental illness

question

Which of statement LEAST supports the somatogenic view of abnormal behavior?

answer

Hypnotism has helped people give up smoking

question

Which item is NOT associated with hypnotism?

answer

The somatogenic perspective

question

The somatogenic treatment for mental illness that seems to have been MOST successful was the use of..

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Various medications

question

Fredrich Anton Mesmer became famous (or infamous) for his work with patient suffering from bodily problems with no physical basis. His patients' disorders are termed...

answer

Hysterical

question

If a person's primary symptom were excessive worry, the psychotropic drug for that person would be an...

answer

Antianxiety Medication

question

Bernheim and Liebault use hypnotic suggestion to induce hysterical disorders in "normal" people providing support for which perspective of abnormality...

answer

Psychogenic

question

Acquiring insight about unconscious psychological processes is a feature of...

answer

Psychoanalysis

question

Psychoanalysis, as Freud developed it, was a form of what we now would call...

answer

Outpatient Therapy

question

Surveys have found that 43 percent of people today believe that mental illness is called by...

answer

Something people bring on themselves

question

Which BEST reflects the impact of deinstitutionalization?

answer

Not so well; many people with severe disturbances are in jail or on the street

question

Drugs designed to decrease extremely confused and distorted thinking are termed

answer

Antipsychotic

question

Dave is confused and usually thinks that he is an ancient king. If his psychiatrist ordered medication, it would MOST likely be a(n)...

answer

Antipsychotic Drug

question

The number of patients hospitalized in mental hospitals in the United States today is MOST similar to the number hospitalized in...

answer

1990

question

In the United States today, one is MOST likely to find a severely ill mental patient..

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On the street or in jail

question

Which statement is BEST reflects the current care for people with less severe disturbances...

answer

Private insurance companies are likely to cover outpatient treatment

question

Researchers have shown that in a typical year in the United States, nearly 1 in ____ adults receive clinical treatment

answer

question

According to surveys , about what proportion of adults in the United States receive psychological therapy in a typical year...

answer

1 in 6

question

A significant change in the type of care offered now compared to the time Freud was practicing that...

answer

People are more likely to receive treatment for "problems in living"

question

Which pair of words BEST describes the current emphasis in mental health

answer

Prevention and positive psychology

question

Efforts to help people develop personally meaningful activities and healthy relationships are a part of...

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The clinical practice of positive psychology

question

If a university had a program designed to help students achieve their full potential physically, educationally spiritually that program would have elements MOST similar to...

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Positive psychology programs

question

A person receiving multicultural therapy could expect all of these effects EXCEPT

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A focus on healthy feelings and actions rather than on problems

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What the #%*$!!! Is going on? The insurance company says I have to stop my anger management program now!" The client who says this is MOST likely voicing concern about a:

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Managed Care Problems

question

Which sequence is correct in terms of prominence of mental health treatments in the United States during the twentieth century and beyond?

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Psychoanalytic, Biological, Cognitive, Sociocultural

question

After medical school, a psychiatrist recieves three to four years of training in the treatment of abnormal functioning; this training is called a(n)

answer

Residency

question

Which statement is true about the participation of women in the mental health professions?

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The profession with the highest percentage of women is counseing

question

A person who works in a mental hospital analyzing various treatment protocols to see how multicultural factor impact success rates is MOST likely a...

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Clinical Researcher

question

Which statement is the MOST accurate conclusion about the current state of abnormal psychology in the United States?

answer

There is no single definition of abnormality, no one theoretical understanding of the causes of mental illness, and no single best treatment

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One who studies the history of the feild of abnormal psychology MOST likely would compare our current understanding of abnormal behavior to a book that...

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Is in the process of being written

question

A general understanding of the underlying nature, causes, and treatments of abnormal behavior is called...

answer

Nomothetic

question

Clinical researchers are usually concerned with a(n) _______ understanding of abnormality, while practitioners focus on a(n) ______ understanding

answer

Nomothetic, Idiographic

question

The clinical practitioner would be more likely than the clinical researcher to rely on which method of investigation?

answer

Case study with a single participant

question

A case study of a patient includes history, tests, and interviews with associates. A clear picture us constructed of this individual so her behavior is understood. This approach is...

answer

Idiographic

question

Which is NOT considered a research method?

answer

A treatment plan for the inividual

question

The idea that children from single-parent families show more depression than those from two-parent families is a(n)

answer

Hypothesis

question

The controversy regarding research with animals centers on...

answer

The rights of animals versus their usefulness in understanding human problems

question

A psychologist does a study of an individual involving a history, tests, and interviews of associates. A clear picture is constructed of this individual so her behavior is better understood. This study is...

answer

Case Study

question

Case studies are useful for...

answer

Learning a great deal about a particular patient

question

Which is NOT a way that case studies are useful?

answer

Determining general laws of behavior

question

Internal validity reflects how well a study...

answer

Rules out the effects of all variables except those being studied

question

The ability to generalize results from a study of certain individuals to other individuals not studied is called...

answer

External Validity

question

A psychologist studies memory techniques in adult volunteers and learns how to facilitate memory and then applies the results to a new class of students in a psychology course. This demonstrates faith in...

answer

The external validity of the study

question

If a study's findings generalize beyond the immediate study to other persons and situations, then the study has

answer

External Validity

question

A researcher is considering whether to gather online data from Facebook users without informing the users that their data are being used. In terms of research ethics, which question is the MOST relevant?

answer

Are Facebook postings considered "public behavior"?

question

"The heavier you are, the more food you are likely to eat". If true, this statement expresses...

answer

A positive correlation

question

If you were to graph the relationship between the numbers of negative life events experienced in the last month and people's perception of stress, you would probably find a(n):

answer

Upward-Sloping line (to the right)

question

In correlational research, external validity is established when...

answer

The sample is representative of the larger population

question

Which correlation coefficient is of the highest magnitude?

answer

-.81

question

If the correlation between severity of depression and age is -0.5, it means that...

answer

There is no consistent relationship between age and severity of depression

question

A student says, "Quick! I have to take a test in two minutes. I need help remembering what kind of correlation coefficient shows a weak relationship between two variables". Which will help the student?

answer

A correlation coefficient close to zero

question

Which correlation is MOST likely to be statistically significant?

answer

-.80, based on a sample of 100 people

question

A researcher finds a strong positive correlation between ratings of life stress and symptoms of depression. Therefore, the researcher may be confident that..

answer

Life stress and depression are related

question

A correlational study of college employees shows a strong positive correlation between self-reported stress levels and days of work missed for illness, allowing the researcher to conclude that...

answer

The researcher can make a fairly accurate prediction of days a person will miss for illness if the persons stress level is known

question

The correlational method and the experimental method and the experimental method are similar in that...

answer

Both have external validity

question

Which results are MOST likely from an epidemiological study?

answer

The rate of suicide is higher in Ireland than in the US

question

The incidence of HIV+ results on campus tells you...

answer

The number of new HIV+ cases measured in a time period

question

Studies that determine the incidence and prevalence of a disorder in a particular population are called...

answer

Epidemiological Studies

question

There were 10 new cases of schizophrenia in a small town in the Midwest this week. This observation refers to the ____ of schizophrenia in this small population.

answer

Incidence

question

The prevalence rate for a disorder will ___ the incidence rate.

answer

Always be the same of higher than

question

The finding that in the US. women have higher rates of anxiety and depression than men is MOST likely due to ____ research.

answer

Epidemiological

question

Imagine that a longitudinal study found that children raised by people with schizophrenia are more likely to commit crimes later. This result tells us that...

answer

Children of people with schizophrenia are at higher risk of criminal behavior

question

Which is an aspect of the experimental approach?

answer

The manipulation of a variable by the researcher

question

In a scientific experiment. the variable manipulated or controlled by the experimenter is called the...

answer

Independent Variable

question

A researcher randomly divides young women suffering from anorexia into two groups. Participants in Group A receive psychotherapy and drug treatments; Participants in Group B receive attention (but no therapy) and a "sugar pill". The researcher then compares participants in the two groups on relief of anorexia symptoms. One important criticism of the preceding research is that it is a...

answer

Placebo Effect

question

A study included 60 ppl suffering from an ordinary headache. Twenty received aspirin, 20 received a sugar pill that looked like aspirin, and 20 got nothing at all. In 65 percent of the aspirin group, the headache disappeared. In the other two groups the "cure" rates were 35 and 5 percent, respectively. Other than the drug condition, the participants were treated identically. This study:

answer

Is an experimental study

question

A researcher ed an experiment to study the causes of aggression in children. Half the children ate a sugared cereal; the remaining half ate cornflakes. The researcher then recorded the number of aggressive acts displayed by the children in a one-hour play period after breakfast. In this experiment:

answer

The type of cereal is the independent variable, and the number of aggressive responses is the dependent variable

question

Dr. Tim required half of a group of healthy volunteers to study a reading passage for 1 hour. The other half of the participants studied for 15 minutes. Dr. Tim then administered a test of participants' memory of details from the passage. What was the dependent variable?

answer

The results of the memory test

question

Students were given a sensation-seeking test and then divided into two groups, depending on their score. A researcher observed how many times students in each group got out of their seats 2 hours. The dependent variable is;

answer

Number of times getting out of one's seat

question

A research study on a group of children with autism will compare treatment delivered by parents at home to treatment delivered by teachers at school. If the study finds that the treatment delivered at school is more effective, which item is the BEST example of a confounding variable?

answer

Differences between the parents and teachers

question

On hundred psychiatric patients were randomly assigned to one of two groups. One group received a new drug in pill form. The other group was given identical-looking placebo pills. A panel of psychiatrists, who did not know which pill each participant received, evaluated all participants for level of agitation. What could be a potential confound in this study?

answer

Having the drug group be inpatients and the placebo group be outpatients

question

#42 is too long.

answer

question

As a general rule, if the sample is large, the difference between the groups is large, and the range of score within a group is small, then...

answer

Control Group

question

One hundred psychiatric patients were randomly assigned to one of two groups. One group received a new drug in pill form. The other group was given identical-looking placebo pills. A panel of psychiatrists, who did not know which pill each participant received, evaluated all participants for level of agitation. What is the control group?

answer

The ones who got the placebo

question

The BEST way to select a random sample of 10 students from a class would be to...

answer

Write each student's name on a piece of paper, put the papers in a pile, close eyes, and pick 10 papers

question

To accomplish random assignment, one could assign participants to groups by...

answer

Flipping a coin to determine group assignment

question

Russ wants to be a good participant. He knows that his professor is an environmentalist, so his answers on the survey reflect a pro-environment position. This an example of:

answer

Subject Bias

question

A researcher's expectations about a study can affect its outcome. The type of research design used specifically to address this problem is a(n):

answer

Blind design

question

The Rosenthal effect:

answer

Should be avoided by using a blind design

question

A therapist believes so strongly in her approach that she finds improvement even when non exists. Which design would prevent this problem?

answer

Double Blind

question

The function of the double blind design is to guard against

answer

Participant and experimenter expectancies

question

To study some differences, a researcher selected a group of 10 men and 10 women and treated all participants exactly the same. Each participant was given a test of psychological function. This study is an example of a(n)...

answer

Quasi-Experimental Study

question

Which would MOST appropriately be studied using a quasi-experimental design?

answer

The effects of parents with schizophrenia on children's adjustment

question

If researchers using matched control subjects find that abused children are sadder than non abused children, those researchers show that...

answer

Abuse is probably what is causing the difference in sadness between these two groups

question

Which would be LEAST appropriately studied using a natural experiment?

answer

The effects of premarital abstinence on later sexual funcitioning

question

"Why do we do natural experiments?" asks a student. "After all, each disaster that causes a natural experiment is unique." A good answer would be, "Using natural experiments, researchers have learned quite a lot about...

answer

Stress disorders

question

Which item is in an analogue study?

answer

Studying the effects of stress in nonhumans

question

To justify analogue experiments with animals, researchers must...

answer

Balance the suffering of the animals with the knowledge to be gained

question

Seligman's study in which he created learned helplessness in the lab is an example of a(n) ______ study

answer

Analogue

question

In single-subject experimental designs, the participant is observed and measured before the manipulation of an independent variable. This initial observation period is called the:

answer

Baseline Period

question

In an ABAB reversal design study, a researcher is measuring level of depression with and without the addition of an exercise program. What is the second "B" in the study?

answer

Exercise

question

A student says, "The problem with single-subject experiments is that there is no control group, so you don't know if the treatment is effective." The BEST reply is...

answer

"If you use a reversal design, then participants serves as their own controls"

question

Which statement is true about case studies and single-subject designs?

answer

Single-subject designs have more internal validity

question

The MOST accurate summary of what has happened in the United States in the last 50 year to protect the rights of human research participants would be that..

answer

There has been important progress, but concerns remain

question

Which statement is the MOST appropriate conclusion about new drug studies, placebo studies, symptom-exacerbation studies, and medication-withdrawal studies?

answer

The studies have led to calls for greater safe-gaurds for patiens

question

A recent study informed consent forms showed that...

answer

Many research participants don't understand them

question

Which statement is FALSE regarding the obstacles that clinical scientists face in studying psychological disorder?

answer

Humans have unusually stable (unchanging) moods and behavior

question

When more than one research method produces similar results, researchers...

answer

Can have more confidence in the results

question

Once a study in abnormal psychology finds significant results, researchers...

answer

Must ask a number of questions about the details of the study

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Affordable Care Act Foods People With Disabilities Seasons

3263- Restaurant Management – Flashcards 132 terms

Judith Simpson

132 terms

Preview

3263- Restaurant Management – Flashcards

question

What is the busiest time for restaurants?

answer

Weekends

question

A restaurant with a million dollar sales volume per year can generate how much in profit before taxes?

answer

$150,000 - $200,000

question

A fully equipped, 100 seat restaurant, costs how much per seat?

answer

$6,000 - $10,000

question

The highest original investment comes from?

answer

The building

question

The highest overall risk comes from?

answer

The building

question

How many jobs does the NRA predict will be added to the restaurant industry by 2020?

answer

1.3 million

question

What is a franchise?

answer

A branded product that the owner sells and markets under a contract

question

What restaurant is credited to be the first franchise?

answer

Howard Johnson's

question

What did Boulanger believe was the cure to all illness?

answer

Soup

question

What did restaurant owners say helped most in "getting where you are today?"

answer

Hard work

question

Which refers to the restaurant where food, drink, and service are usually leisurely and expensive?

answer

Fine dining

question

What are the responsibilities of a franchisee?

answer

Hiring employees and operating the store

question

What concept has the most sales of all segment ratings?

answer

Burgers

question

What are economic factors that differentiate fine dining from the average restaurant?

answer

Meal prices, rent, and labor costs

question

What ethnic restaurant is the largest category?

answer

Italian

question

What should theme restaurants be located near?

answer

Tourist attractions

question

What are the benefits of economic of scale?

answer

Reduce food, labor, and overhead costs

question

Where is pizza native to?

answer

Naples

question

Which of the following is not a part of the franchisee setup?

answer

Paying the payroll

question

Which of the following is not an advantage of independent restaurants?

answer

Greater advertising clout

question

A restaurant concept is devised to interest a certain group of people called a?

answer

Target market

question

Which of the following would be considered a knockout criterion?

answer

Located behind two buildings

question

A restaurant has two potential values?

answer

Real estate value and value as a profit generator

question

Surveys show that X% of all table service customers arrive in pairs?

answer

40% - 50%

question

Which of the following is not part of the planning process of concept development?

answer

Who will train the staff

question

In drawing up a restaurant mission statement, the following features should be explicit?

answer

Market served, kind of food served, ethical standards

question

Luxury/table service require X sq. ft. per seat while cafeterias need just X?

answer

15-20 & 10-12

question

A concept is strengthened if it immediately establishes a X that is vivid and remembered?

answer

Ambiance/identity

question

Which of the following is incorrect: Don't open a restaurant unless?

answer

You love to cook and your friends love your food

question

The magazine Restaurant Business publishes an annual restaurant growth index, the purpose is to list?

answer

The best/worst places to open a restaurant in the US

question

The difference between the sales price and cost of an item is?

answer

Contribution margin

question

What is not a consideration in menu planning?

answer

Capabilities of the servers

question

Which menu separates similar entrees?

answer

Dinner-house

question

What should be front and center in the restaurant business?

answer

question

Generally, there should be X amount of entrees?

answer

question

Consistency in food prep is achieved by?

answer

Standardizing recipes and cooking procedures

question

To ensure ingredients are available, fresh, and priced right, restaurant operators should?

answer

Take advantage of seasons when items are at their lowest price and best quality, use ups and downs in food prices and overcome them by seasonal or daily menus, and use frozen foods when fresh foods are not available

question

Two main menu pricing strategies?

answer

Using a comparative approach of price and multiply by the ratio necessary to achieve a food cost percentage

question

Prime cost is?

answer

Food and labor

question

Prime costs should be X% of sales?

answer

55% - 60%

question

Costs associated with turnover?

answer

Recruitment costs and replacement costs

question

Some rules for restaurant success are?

answer

To have a simple but delicious menu, to hire wait staff with great personality, and restaurant location/parking

question

Kitchen flood are usually covered in?

answer

Sealed concrete and tile

question

Food is prepared individually vacuum packed, and refrigerated for future use. This is known as the X method?

answer

Sous vide

question

X determines the equipment?

answer

question

The overall object of restaurant layout planning is to?

answer

Minimize the number of steps taken by waitstaff and kitchen staff

question

Because some restaurants go out of business, used equipment is X available from restaurant dealers?

answer

Almost always

question

The X is simply a tank holding heated water in which hot foods in pots are placed to keep food warm?

answer

Bain marie

question

If your restaurant operates with a profit margin of around 5% you'll need about X worth of sales to earn $450?

answer

$9,000

question

Restaurant equipment has a life expectancy of?

answer

10 years

question

After being purchased, restaurant equipment drops X% in value?

answer

80%

question

Which of the following is not a category of kitchen equipment?

answer

Selling the food

question

Define ergonomics?

answer

Reduce staff fatigue and discomfort

question

What is the biggest energy use in the common kitchen?

answer

Traditional range/convection oven

question

Which of the following is not a practical use for a microwave?

answer

Braising

question

A X is a nonprofit institution that is able to provide restaurant food and supplies at a lower cost than profit-oriented purveyors?

answer

Co-op

question

The amount of food to be purchased can be built into the purchasing system based on?

answer

Past records

question

The points that indicate more food should be ordered are called?

answer

Reorder points

question

Written standards for food that are based on a forecast of sales are called?

answer

Food specifications

question

In the usual restaurant, who decides on product specification and selects purveyors?

answer

Manager, in consult with the chef

question

Temperatures when receiving fresh/frozen meat should be?

answer

40*F/0*F

question

X are the most expensive items served in most restaurants?

answer

Meat

question

Which grade is used for the best meat product available?

answer

Prime

question

The purchasing cycle consists of?

answer

Product specification, par stock and reorder points, supplier selection, order placement, receiving, storing, and issuing

question

The length of time an item can be stored without appreciable loss in quality or weight is called its?

answer

Shelf life

question

The first step in putting together a purchasing system is to determine the?

answer

Food standards

question

The X grade of meat is popular in supermarkets?

answer

Select

question

Which of the following represents a sustainable practice when purchasing food?

answer

Purchasing beef and pork raised in pastures vs. confined in enclosed spaces

question

Food cost percentage should be calculated?

answer

Monthly

question

The formula for food cost percent is?

answer

(Cost / sales) x 100

question

The normal pouring cost for beer is?

answer

25%

question

The beverage pouring cost is X of beverage sales?

answer

23% - 25%

question

What does the product mix show?

answer

How many items were sold

question

What are the categories of payroll and related costs?

answer

Variable and fixed costs

question

In full-service restaurants, the largest variable is?

answer

Labor costs

question

A daily flash report shows?

answer

Daily sales

question

The cost of food sold divided by food revenue is?

answer

Food cost percentage

question

What is the wine pouring cost?

answer

26% - 30%

question

Profit makes up X% of total revenue?

answer

3%- 9%

question

What is the first thing restaurant managers do?

answer

Forecast to see how many guests are expected

question

According to the text, job specifications?

answer

Identify the qualifications and skills needed to perform the job

question

The US Department of Labor, Wage, & Hour Division deals with?

answer

Sex and age

question

At age X teenagers may legally work at any job?

answer

question

Which approach to task and job analysis must be used in new restaurants because there are no existing employees to analyze?

answer

Top-down

question

Which can be converted into job instructions?

answer

Task analysis

question

A chef is responsible for X% of food costs?

answer

95%

question

Minors of what age cannot work before 7am or after 7pm on school days?

answer

14 & 15

question

Only about X of all restaurants employ anyone with the title of chef?

answer

1/3

question

The most effective way to check an employees reference is to follow up by?

answer

Phone

question

A job X lists the education and technical/conceptual skills a person needs to satisfactorily perform the requirements of the job?

answer

Specification

question

Today there are X people with disabilities in the US?

answer

43 million

question

When an organizational chart is said to be flat, that means?

answer

They have fewer levels

question

Which of the following questions are not allowed during an interview?

answer

How old are you

question

The X model views restaurant managers as coaches, they are engaged in informal training much of the time?

answer

Manager as coach

question

The word manage implies?

answer

Purpose and mobilization or resources for given goals

question

Employee X programs deal with perspectives, attitudes and feelings about the restaurant, the job, the customers and the boss?

answer

Development

question

Which does the behavior modification theory urge?

answer

An immediate reward for desired behavior

question

Which training mat hod allows the learning to be absorbed and avoids fatigue?

answer

Spaced training

question

Behavioral scientists urge that?

answer

Specific behavior emphasized rather than general praise

question

According to experts, an employer who is irritated and unhappy with an employee's behavior should?

answer

Tell the employee about it

question

Using part-time employees can be a drawback except that?

answer

Employers do not have to pay for benefits

question

Much of labor turnover occurs within the first few X of employment?

answer

Weeks

question

Experience has shown that the most practical and immediately beneficial way of training restaurant employees is the X method?

answer

Hands on

question

What is the first goal for an orientation program?

answer

Explain the company history, philosophy, mission, goals and objectives

question

Psychologists tell us that inserting constructive criticism between two X softens the criticism while at the same time working the criticism?

answer

Favorable comments

question

When a guest is seated, the number one rule for a server is?

answer

Greet the guest within one minute

question

Many licensed usual and upscale restaurant have beverage sales of X of total sales?

answer

25% - 30%

question

By definition, an upscale general retail license authorities the sale of?

answer

All types of alcoholic beverages namely, beer wine and distilled spirits—for consumption on the premises

question

Red wine gains its color during which process?

answer

Fermentation

question

The typical restaurants percentage cost for wine is?

answer

30%

question

When developing a wine list, the selected varietals of white wine could include all but which of the following?

answer

Pinot noir

question

Beverage sales yield X as food sales?

answer

More profit

question

Over the years, experience has shown that?

answer

Red wine is best served with beef, lamb, game or duck

question

Which statements is not true?

answer

Dram Shop Laws make it possible for servers to sue intoxicated guests for any accidents

question

Under third party liability?

answer

The servers are responsible for any accusations

question

In the food and beverage industry it is estimated that X of employees will steal regardless of the control in place?

answer

25%

question

Grapes for making wine are harvested in the X, after they have been tested for maturity?

answer

Fall

question

Most restaurants use the back bar to add atmosphere by displaying the?

answer

Premium brand liquors

question

The margin of profit on a fountain drink is?

answer

85%

question

X assumes that customers change and that they want new menu items, new atmosphere, and sometimes new service?

answer

Marketing

question

In the marketing plan, goals need to be set for the 4 P's, which are ?

answer

Product, price, place, promotion

question

The most atmospheric restaurants are those with a?

answer

Theme

question

The location of the restaurant is generally to be of X importance?

answer

Major

question

The "S" in SWOT analysis stands for?

answer

Strengths

question

Which are 3 typical market segments?

answer

Geographic, demographic, behavior

question

When analyzing the competition it makes sense to do a X which shows how your restaurant compares to its competition?

answer

Comparison benefit mix

question

When combined, prime costs should not go above X of sales?

answer

60%

question

Which conveys to the customer the best face or image of the restaurant, what people like most about it, or how it stands out from the competition?

answer

Positioning

question

Marketing efforts are most needed during?

answer

Low periods

question

Which are the types of demographic?

answer

Age, sex, family life cycle, income, occupation, education, religion and race

question

The Affordable Care Act schedules to go into effect in?

answer

January 2014, 50 people

question

Which partnership have complete liability, but full management rights?

answer

General partnership

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Fair Debt Collection Insurance Medical/Clerical Assisting Small Claims Court

IHMO CH. 10 Multiple Choice – Flashcards 59 terms

Pat Coker

59 terms

Preview

IHMO CH. 10 Multiple Choice – Flashcards

question

Cash flow is the

answer

ongoing availability of cash i the medical practice

question

When insurance carriers do not pay claims i a timely manner, what effect does this have on the medical practice?

answer

decreased cash flow

question

What does the insurance billing specialist need to monitor to be able to evaluate the effectiveness of the collection process

answer

Accounts receivable

question

The average amount of accounts receivable should be ..... times the charges for one month of services

answer

1.5 to 2

question

Accounts that are 90 days or older should not exceed ..... of the total accounts receivable

answer

15% TO 18%

question

What should be done to inform a new patient of office fees and payment policies

answer

Send a patient information brochure, send a confirmation letter, and discuss fees and policies at the time of the initial contact (all)

question

The patient is likely to be the most cooperative in furnishing details necessary for a complete registration process

answer

before any services are provided

question

The reason for a fee reduction must be documented in the patients

answer

medical record

question

Professional courtesy means

answer

making no charge to anyone, patient or insurance company, for medical care.

question

When collecting fees, your goal should always be to

answer

collect the full amount

question

A medical practice has a policy of billing only for charges in excess of $50. When the medical assistant requests a $45 payment for the office visit, the patient states, just bill me. How should the medical assistant respond?

answer

State the office policy and ask for the full fee

question

The most common method of payment in the medical office is

answer

personal check

question

When the physicians office receives notice that a check was not honored, the first thing to do is to

answer

call the bank or the patient

question

Accounts receivable are usually aged in time periods of

answer

30, 60, 90 and 120 days

question

Messages included on statements to promote payment are called

answer

dun messages

question

What is the type of billing system in which practice management software is used

answer

Computer billing

question

Employment of a billing service is called

answer

outsourcing

question

The first statement should be.....of service

answer

presented at the time

question

The first telephone call to the patient to try to collect on an account should be made

answer

after there is no response from the third statement

question

What is a card called that permits bank customers to make cashless purchases from funds on deposit without incurring revolving finance charges for credit?

answer

debit card

question

How many installments (excluding a down payment) must a payment plan have to require full written disclosure

answer

four or more

question

Patient accounts that are 90 days or older should not exceed what percent of the total office accounts receivable

answer

15% to !8%

question

What is the name of federal act that prohibits discrimination in all areas of granting credit

answer

Equal Credit Opportunity Act

question

What is the name of the act designed to address the collection practices of third party debt collectors and attorneys who regularly collect debts for others

answer

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

question

All collection calls should be placed after ..... am and before .....pm

answer

8; 9

question

Which group of accounts would a collector target when he or she begins making telephone calls

answer

60-90 day accounts

question

In making collection telephone calls to a group of accounts, how should the accounts be organized to determine where to begin

answer

Organize the accounts according to amounts owed and start with the largest

question

A plan in which employees can choose their own working hours from within a broad range of hours approved by management is called

answer

flex time

question

When writing a collection letter

answer

use a friendly tone and ask why payment has not been made

question

If an insurance company seems to be ignoring all efforts to trace a claim, send a copy of the

answer

history of the account

question

Netback is a term used to describe

answer

a collection agency's performance

question

The part of the legal system that allows laypeople to settle a legal matter without use of an attorney is

answer

small claims

question

In a bankruptcy case, most medical bills are considered

answer

unsecured debt

question

Which type of bankruptcy is considered wage earners bankruptcy

answer

Chapter 13

question

The word ..... comes from a Latin word that means to believe or to trust

answer

credit

question

The unpaid balance due from patients for services that have been rendered is called

answer

accounts receivable

question

the relationship of the amount of money owed to a physician and the amount of money collected on the physicians accounts receivable is called the

answer

collection ratio

question

The patient information sheet is also known as the

answer

Patient registration information form

question

The patient registration form should be updated at least every

answer

6 months

question

All discounted fees need to be noted on the patient

answer

financial accounting record

question

Assets or debts that have been determined to be uncollectible and are therefore taken off (debited) the accounting books as a loss are called

answer

write off or courtesy adjustment

question

The amount due listed on the patients financial accounting record is also referred to as the account

answer

balance

question

In the endorsement on the back of the payment check does not match the name on the front, there may be a case of

answer

forgery

question

The procedure of systematically arranging the accounts receivable by age from the date of service is called

answer

age analysis

question

The statement, This bill is now 30 days past due. Please remit payment, is called a

answer

dun message

question

An outside party who takes over the task of preparing and mailing statements is known as a

answer

billing service

question

The term ..... is used when accounts are billed at spaced intervals during the month

answer

cycle billing

question

the Truth in Lending Consumer Credit Cost Disclosure requires businesses to disclose all ..... and ..... costs related to granting credit

answer

direct and indirect

question

A formal regulation or law setting time limits on legal action is know as a

answer

statute of limitations

question

The maximum time during which legal collection suit may be rendered against a debtor is referred to as an

answer

statute of limitations

question

According to the FDCPA do not contact a third party more than ..... unless requested to do so by the party or the response was erroneous or incomplete

answer

once

question

the collection abbreviation TTA means

answer

turned to agency

question

The collection abbreviation OOT means

answer

out of town

question

When dealing with managed care contracts, do not sign contracts that use the ..... clause because this is a way for one party to shift financial responsibilities to another party

answer

hold harmless

question

Patients accounts turned over to a collection agency should have a ..... sent by certified mail

answer

letter of withdrawal

question

In filing a claim in small claims court the physicians office is referred to as the .....

answer

plaintiff

question

A patient who owes a balance on his or her account and moves but leaves no forwarding address is called a

answer

skip

question

In dealing with an estate claim, a call to the ..... can be made periodically to check on the status of the estate

answer

executor

question

A ..... is a claim on the property of another as security for debt

answer

lien

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Linguistics Media New York Times

Chapter 7 Post Test 22 terms

Carmen Dawson

22 terms

Preview

Chapter 7 Post Test

question

Universities, think tanks, nonprofit organizations, and private foundations are providing more political analyses and information as ____________________ have cut their budgets and resources.

answer

traditional news organizations

question

____________ journalism caters to specialized interests of news consumers

answer

Niche

question

A classic example of a media leak is

answer

the \"Pentagon Papers,\" published by the New York Times and the Washington Post.

question

According to the textbook, the media's adversarial posture toward government may

answer

decrease levels of political participation

question

The FCC's fairness doctrine

answer

is no longer being enforced.

question

The media have a bias in favor of

answer

whoever will provide the largest audience.

question

The Telecommunications Act of 1996 was an attempt to do all of the following except

answer

tighten federal restrictions of media ownership

question

When the delivery of news was dominated by only three networks and a handful of national papers, it tended to be _______________ than it is today

answer

more moderate

question

Which of the following is noted by the book's authors as a reason for the recent decline in the American public's trust of the press?

answer

media concentration

question

_______________________ are two popular news aggregators that serve a large number of readers by synthesizing coverage from a variety of sources.

answer

Google News and the Huffington Post

question

Both Facebook and Twitter have contributed to political mobilization and information sharing by creating ________________ where groups of like-minded individuals, or individuals with shared interests, can easily share information.

answer

virtual social networks

question

Even though newspapers are not the primary news source for most Americans, why could they still be considered important?

answer

They are still influential among the political elite

question

____________ are the ultimate beneficiaries of free and active media.

answer

People

question

Howard Stern was fined millions of dollars by the FCC because of his

answer

use of obscenity and profanity on the air.

question

Online media, by representing a wider range of political views than traditional news sources, have created a

answer

more democratic press

question

WikiLeaks published confidential government documents that showed that the ______________ government and press concealed news, including war crimes against civilians and the use of torture by American forces.

answer

American

question

If an idea lacks or loses media appeal, its chance of its resulting in new programs or policies is

answer

decreased

question

The noted benefits of _______________ include a diversity of viewpoints, up to the moment information, and a depth of available information.

answer

online news

question

The Obama administration's labeling of its health care initiative Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, thus defining it as a matter of compassionate responsibility and good economic sense, is an example of

answer

framing.

question

Citizen journalism is a distinguishing feature of ___________ more interactive and participatory.

answer

digital media, which are

question

It is estimated that more than ____________ of Americans have a television set.

answer

95 percent

question

Social media sites such as Facebook and Twitter have

answer

accelerated the importance of digital politics by alerting readers to breaking news before the mainstream media do.

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Allied Health Professionals High Deductible Health Plan National Labor Relations Board Nursing Prospective Payment System Sherman Anti Trust Act Tactical Plans

HSA EXAM 2 – Flashcards 100 terms

Carol Rushing

100 terms

Preview

HSA EXAM 2 – Flashcards

question

groups of providers come together and take responsibility for delivering care to a defined patient population.

answer

Accountable Care Organizations (ACOs) are built on the premise that:

question

when health care organizations bill for services but receives no payments.

answer

Bad debt in health care finance is defined as:

question

Center for Medicare and Medicaid Innovation.

answer

CMI is an acronym that stands for:

question

Land Acquisition Facility construction acquisition renovation routine capital equipment used in clinical areas, information technology infrastructure and upgrades acquisition of staff physicians

answer

Capital budgets may include all of the following:

question

state/federal laws

answer

Charge setting is controlled by:

question

Community service, the not-for-profit organization provides care who is unable to pay.

answer

Charity care is:

question

Inventory, cash on hand, account receivable, and other such items that can be converted into cash in LESS than one year.

answer

Current assets may include:

question

investors or others who have an interest in making a profit from the services provided

answer

For-profit health care organizations are usually owned by:

question

Working to increase the revenues and decrease the cost of the organization.

answer

Health care financial management involves:

question

have a negative financial impact on their facilities.

answer

In the wake of health care reform, most health care executives believe that the new reform policies will:

question

merit-based program or focused on quality, value and accountability

answer

Physician reimbursement through Medicare will eventually be:

question

current assets and liabilities

answer

Primary sources of working capital include all of the following:

question

state/federal law and regulations, the joint commission, antitrust, profit-oriented pricing.

answer

Setting prices in health care organizations involves consideration of all the following:

question

skilled nursing facilities, home health agencies, outpatient hospitals, and clinics.

answer

The Balanced Budget Act of 1997 implemented cost controls for Medicare expenditures in all of the following health care sectors:

question

RVRBS

answer

The Medicare prospective payment system for reimbursing hospitals utilizes:

question

Admission, evaluation, diagnosis, treatment, and management.

answer

All of the following are examples of family practice core privileges for care of infants and children, adolescents, and adults for most illnesses, disorders, and injuries:

question

include APN'S such as NP'S, CNS, Nurse anesthetists, Nurse midwives, and PA's ( Answer on test is "Except EMT" )

answer

All of the following are midlevel practitioners:

question

get a minimum level of training and pass a competency evaluation or receive state certification.

answer

Home Health Aides who work for agencies reimbursed by Medicare and Medicaid must:

question

poor teamwork and interpersonal conflict which can result in poor patient outcomes.

answer

Physician resistance to acknowledge nurses as colleagues can lead to:

question

feel overworked, underpaid, and disrespected by co-workers and managers.

answer

Nurses quit jobs when they:

question

3-10 years

answer

Residency training lasts from ______ depending on the specialty

question

medical device manufacturers and group purchasing organizations to report any payments and transfers of value to physicians. or teaching hospitals as well as any ownership of investment interest physicians or immediate family members have in a company

answer

The Sunshine Act requires:

question

registered nurses.

answer

The largest category of health care workers is:

question

job autonomy, fairness of pay, opportunities for promotion, relationships with co-workers and supervisors, level of job burnout, overall job satisfaction.

answer

Which of the following items should be on a work life analysis?

question

False

answer

True or False: There are no shortages of allied health professionals

question

Attitudes, behavior, and experience.

answer

Behavioral-based interviews are helpful to the hiring organization in understanding a candidate's:

question

staff engagement, staff acquisition and development, staff front line empowerment, leadership alignment and development

answer

Best practices of high-performing organizations include all of the following focal areas:

question

increasing competition among HSOs

answer

Human resources decisions need to be strategic because of:

question

positive motivational effect which leads to higher performance.

answer

Incentive compensation is believed to have what effect on employee performance?

question

protecting employee rights and ensures nondiscrimination.

answer

Major federal law affecting human resources primarily addresses:

question

needs and better manage their human resources.

answer

Predictive analytics or Human Resource Analytics are used by Human Resources managers to identify:

question

benefits are more important than compensation.

answer

Recent information from the literature concerning employee perceptions suggests that:

question

union organization and collective bargaining.

answer

The National Labor Relations Board provides guidance for HR in addressing:

question

Understaffed, lower levels of staff satisfaction, higher rates of staff turnover and an increase human resources costs

answer

The low supply of some health care workers (e.g nurses) has led to which of the following impacts on HSOs?

question

Contribution to recruitment, training and development for staff, as well as staff satisfaction and retention staff training

answer

Which of the following is a typical measure used by senior management to directly assess performance of HR efforts?

question

10 key features: Not defined, Unique, non-enumerable and non-immediate solutions, good/bad solutions, symptom of another problem, planner has no right to be wrong, and discrepancy can be explained in numerous ways.

answer

A wicked problem DOES have which of the following features

question

6 Strategies: Worked with more information, debated facts; developed multiple alternatives to enrich the level of debate; shared commonly agreed upon goals; injected humour into decision process; maintained a balanced power structure; and, 6th--, --resolved issues without forcing consensus

answer

Eisenhardt, Kahwajy & Bourgeois (1997) found that teams with minimal interpersonal conflict DO INVOLVE:

question

they CAN improve communication, establish goals, and delineate responsibilities (pg 387)

answer

Guidelines for teamwork cannot:

question

Have the knowledge, skills, and disposition to do the job at hand

answer

One of the critical questions to ask when assessing a potential team member is:

question

forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

answer

Teams go through the following stages, in the following order:

question

improved communication, increased productivity, increased job satisfaction and decreased nursing turnover.

answer

To convince higher-level management that teamwork is worth the effort, one SHOULD point to:

question

the agency for health care research and quality (AHRQ), a team system designed for healthcare professionals that is evidenced based and intended to improve communication and teamwork skills

answer

TeamSTEPPS is

question

Improved coordination of care. More efficient use of health care services. Increased job satisfaction among team members. Higher patient satisfaction.

answer

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of effective health care teams?

question

Correct: Address specific organizational needs,ie.service excellence, environmental sustainability,green initiatives and clinical services marketing ◦Carry out performance improvement activities/service enhancements

answer

Which of the following is correct about Cross Functional Teams (CFTs)? (question will ask what is NOT correct)

question

d.none of the above.

answer

Which of the following is NOT correct about emotions? a.Emotions are communicated in nanoseconds. b.Women and people in helping professions are more sensitive to emotions. c.Emotions are contagious. d.None of the above.

question

All of the above.

answer

A hospital can demonstrate inclusivity by community engagement through:

question

All of the above? Greater access for the underserved.

answer

Benefits of a diverse health care workforce include

question

Lack of transport to healthcare providers, inability to obtain convenient appointment times and lengthy waiting room times reduce the likelihood of a person successfully making and keeping their healthcare appointment.

answer

Health disparities have been identified based on the following criteria:

question

Culturally effective care, cultural conditioning, cultural sensitivity, cultural humility, cultural excellence training.

answer

Select all the terms that can be used interchangeably with cultural competency

question

Complex, integrated and overlapping social structures and economic systems

answer

Social determinants that contribute to health disparities include

question

Having a 9-5 schedule and not being able to attend doctor's appts.

answer

Structural barriers may impede patient care and increase disparities; for example

question

effective, equitable, understandable, and respectful quality care and services that are responsive to diverse cultural health beliefs and practices, preferred languages, health literacy, and other communication needs.

answer

The National Standards on Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services provide for

question

False

answer

True or False: Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States

question

True

answer

True or False : Health disparities represent significant differences between one population and another.

question

illness and injury (Substance abuse, infant mortality, birth defects, asthma, cancer, diabetes, store, heart disease, sexual diseases, mental disease.

answer

Vulnerable populations are more exposed to risks from:

question

False

answer

True or False : There is one specific destination or goal for health care organization to achieve in terms of cultural competence

question

False

answer

True or False : The health care workforce matches the U.S. population in terms of diversity

question

Criminal Law

answer

A wrong against society as a whole, even if a particular individual is harmed, is considered a violation of which type of law?

question

Civil law

answer

Contract violations are generally considered to be part of which type of law?

question

b. Malice

answer

49.For a health provider's action to be considered negligent, which of the following factors is NOT necessary? A. Causation B. Malice C. Injury or damages D. Duty toward the harmed party E. Breach of duty

question

"do no harm" or at least don't make it worse.

answer

Nonmaleficence is a concept that states that you should

question

is a law that requires healthcare organizations to inform patients of their rights as they pertain to their ability to determine their own health care

answer

The Patient Self - Determination Act-

question

False

answer

True or False : Any Willing Provider laws seek to enable patients to see whichever providers they want

question

True

answer

True or False : Administrative agencies dictate many of the ways in which health care workers and organizations must function

question

False

answer

True or False: Ethics does nothing to help form the laws and legal system of the U.S.

question

True

answer

True or False : Generally speaking, laws govern the relationships between private individuals and organizations and between both of these and the government

question

HIPPA, EMTALA, Fiduciary Duty.

answer

What are some of the ways in which health care organizations protect the rights of their patients?

question

False

answer

True or False : Patient advocates play a role in the navigating the health care system whether an individual is sick or no

question

the negligence or carelessness of a professional person; it can be either civil (tort) concern or a criminal one, depending on whether it involved "reckless disregard" for the safety of another (criminal) or simple carelessness (civil). "Malpractice is a professional's improper or immoral conduct in the performance of duties, done either intentionally or through carelessness or ignorance.

answer

Which of the following is not part of the definition of the health care malpractice?

question

Fiduciary duty, Using competent providers, Providing appropriate care, and Balancing cost-containment with good quality care

answer

Which of the following are obligations of a managed care organization to its patients?

question

Providers billing for services that were not provided or did not meet medical necessity criteria (false claims), submitting duplicate bills, upcoding services to receive higher reimbursement, and receiving kickbacks for referrals

answer

Examples of health care fraud and abuse include

question

Medicare Fund

answer

HEAT is the President's newest tool against

question

CMS

answer

Safe Harbor regulations were put in place by

question

1. written policies, 2. designation of compliance officer, 3. training and education, 4. effective lines of communication throughout the org, 5. enforcement procedures, 6. procedures for effective internal monitoring and auditing, 7. procedures for corrective action

answer

Seven essential elements of an effective compliance program include

question

Operation Restore

answer

The investigative and enforcement authority to deal with fraud and abuse violations was granted to the Department of Health and Human Services ( DHHS) through

question

False

answer

49.True or False : A successful compliance plan requires buy - in from upper management

question

False

answer

True or False : Fraud is an improper act that is unintentional and inconsistent with standard practices

question

False

answer

True or False: As of 2015, Medicare RAC's are returning more money than Medicaid Fraud Control Units

question

False

answer

True or False : The Sherman Antitrust Act prohibits mergers and acquisitions that lessen competition

question

Violations of this act are a felony and may include punishment of up to 5 years in prison and/or fines up to $25,000, imposes a requirement to disclose overpayment to the government regardless of the intent at the time the claim was submitted

answer

Violations of the Criminal Disclosure Provision of the Social Security Act include which of the following penalties?

question

Dumping a patient on another hospital because they are very sick

answer

Violations of the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act ( EMTALA) include all of the following, EXCEPT...

question

False

answer

True or False: The Stark 1 laws apply to both Medicare and Medicaid

question

False

answer

49.True or False: The health reform act that was passed in March 2010 will end health care fraud and abuse once and for all

question

is an inadvertent slip, lapse, or mistake

answer

Human Error

question

outbound: U.S. patients traveling to other countries for medical care. Inbound: foreign patients traveling to the U.S. for medical care and Intrabound: U.S. patients traveling domestically for medical care.

answer

Medical Tourism includes

question

False

answer

True or False : Bioterrorism was created for military uses in the 1980s

question

False

answer

True or False : If a person has been exposed to Ebola, has no fever, and travels on an airplane, he can transmit the disease to other passengers

question

True

answer

True or False : One - Third of woman killed in the U.S. workplaces were killed by a current or former intimate partner

question

False

answer

True or False : Vaccines have only been around since the 1950s

question

False

answer

True or False : There are no assurances of quality if you go for medical care in a country other than the United States

question

example of stalking includes unwanted phone calls, texts, letters, emails, social media posts, following or spying on the victim, showing up at places without a legitimate reason, waiting at places for the victim, leaving unwanted items, presents or flowers; posting information or spreading rumors about the victim

answer

Which of the following is NOT an example of stalking

question

overt actions such as verbal outburst and physical threats, as well as passive activities such as refusing to perform assigned task or quietly exhibiting uncooperative attitudes during routine activities

answer

Disruptive behaviors include

question

is required for physicians, nurses and others to practice and demonstrate competency to perform a scope of practice.

answer

Licensure

question

Poor teamwork, Interpersonal Conflict, Poor Communication, Poor patient outcomes

answer

Physician resistance to acknowledge nurses as colleagues can lead to

question

Higher level of organizational performance

answer

Incentive compensation is believed to have what effect on employee performance ?

question

A type of incentive compensation program where all staff share in receiving additional compensation in the form of a bonus as a result of meeting annual performance targets

answer

Gainsharing or goal- sharing programs

question

Serve as a recruitment tool for HSOs, focus primarily on filling middle-level manager positions

answer

Leadership Development Programs in HSOs

question

Organizational performance is based on individuals

answer

The perspective that HSO employees should be viewed as a strategic asset means

question

Improve interaction increases trust organizations that empower their employees promote employee satisfaction

answer

Frequent, positive organizational communication does (question asks NOT)

question

telemedicine and telecommuting

answer

Virtual teams are being used for:

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Business Law Constitutional Law Taxing And Spending

Blaw 5.2 Chapters 5.2 & 5.3 Homework Flashcards 16 terms

Kaiya Hebert

16 terms

Preview

Blaw 5.2 Chapters 5.2 & 5.3 Homework Flashcards

question

Article 1, section 8 is a critically important part of the Constitution because

answer

it lists the types of statutes that congress is allowed to pass

question

Which of the following are three of the Framers' main goals in creating the Commerce Clause?

answer

Create a unified voice for regulating commercial relations with foreign governments, stop the states from imposing harmful taxes and regulations, bring coordination and fairness to trade among the states

question

To be considered a part of "interstate commerce" a good must physically travel from one state to another.

answer

False

question

In National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius, the Supreme Court held:

answer

The federal government does not have the power to order people to buy health insurance. The federal government has the power to impose a tax on those without health insurance.

question

The individual mandate of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act was upheld under the

answer

taxing and spending clause

question

The dormant Commerce Clause holds that a state statute that discriminates against interstate commerce is almost always unconstitutional.

answer

True

question

Which of the following are the two prerequisites for a state law to be valid under the Supremacy Clause?

answer

Congress does not intend to dominate the issue, and there is no conflicting FEDERAL law

question

Which of the following are three of the President's key areas of power?

answer

Foreign policy, appointments, legislation

question

In Kennedy v. Louisiana Justice Kennedy's decision relied heavily on

answer

Evolving standards of decency

question

From the 1950s to the 1970s, the Supreme Court exercised considerable judicial restraint, and was reluctant to decide social issues on constitutional grounds.

answer

false

question

__________ refers to the Court's willingness to become involved in major issues and to decide cases on _____ grounds. ________ is the opposite: an attitude that courts should leave lawmaking to ______ and _________ a law only when it unquestionably violates the constitution.

answer

Judicial activism. Constitutional. Judicial restraint. legislators. nullify

question

Marbury v Madison

answer

established judicial review

question

Miranda v Arizona

answer

began a major reappraisal of the states police powers, and the rights of criminal suspects

question

Kennedy v Lousiana

answer

struck down as unconstitutional a state statute that permitted the death penalty for a defendant convicted of rape

question

Roe v Wade

answer

established certain rights to abortion

question

Brown v Board of Education

answer

ordered an end to racial segregation in public schools

STUDY

Affordable Care Act Insurance Medical Law And Ethics Medical Terminology

ch. 3 and 4 medical insurance – Flashcards 59 terms

Millie Miller

59 terms

Preview

ch. 3 and 4 medical insurance – Flashcards

question

The insurance industry is among the world's largest businesses

answer

Which statement is correct regarding the insurance industry

question

civil law

answer

most legal issues of private health insurance claims fall under

question

when the physician accepts the patient and agrees to treat the patient

answer

when does the physician/patient contract begin

question

implied

answer

most physician/patient contracts are

question

physician and the patient

answer

When a patient carries private medical insurance, the contract for treatment exists between the

question

younger than the age of 18 who lives independently

answer

an emancipated minor is a person

question

physician and the insurance company

answer

the contract in a workers compensation case exists between the

question

subscriber, member, policy holder

answer

in health insurance, the insured is also known as the

question

individual enrollee or organization protected

answer

the insured is always the

question

noncancelable

answer

A policy in which the insurer cannot increase premium rates and must renew the policy until the insured reaches the age specified in the contract is a _______ policy.

question

prevent duplication or overlapping of payments for the same medical expense.

answer

the reason for a coordination of benefits statement in a health insurance policy is to

question

coordination of benefits

answer

Mr. Talili has two medical insurance policies. to prevent duplication of payment for the same medical expense, the policies include a ______ statement.

question

court system

answer

in cases of divorce, the decision as to which parent should be responsible for payment of the child's services should be made by the

question

the health plan of the person whose birthday (month and day) falls earlier in the calendar year will pay first

answer

if a child has health insurance coverage from two parents, according to the birthday law

question

plan of the person who has coverage longer is the primary payer

answer

according to the birthday law if both the mother and the father have the same birthday, the

question

preexisting

answer

conditions that existed and were treated before the health insurance policy was issued are called

question

waiver

answer

an attachment to an insurance policy that excludes certain illnesses or disabilities that would otherwise be covered is referred to as a

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preauthorization

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what is the correct term used to determine if a procedure is covered and medically necessary

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conversion

answer

mrs. thompsett leaves her place of employment. she is eligible to transfer her medical insurance coverage from a group to an individual contract this is known as _____ privilege

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benefits would be increased

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why would conversion from a group policy to an individual policy be advantageous

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extend group health insurance coverage for 18 months

answer

mr. Ott was laid off from his job. he is protected by consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act (COBRA), which requires his employer to

question

answer

What is the minimum number of employees a company must have to meet the criteria of the COBRA for continued medical benefits if an employee is laid off from a company

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HIPAA

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the act created to protect workers and their families so that they can get and maintain health insurance if they change or lose their jobs is called the

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foundation for medical care

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an organization of physicians, sponsored by a state or local medical association, concerned with the development and delivery of medical services and the cost of health care is known as a

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competitive medical plan (CMP)

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a type of managed care organization created by the 1982 tax equity and fiscal responsibility act (TEFRA) that allows for enrollment of medicare beneficiaries into managed care plans is to a

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maternal and child health programs (MCHP)

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a state and federal program for children who are younger than 21 years of age and have special health care needs is

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patient registration form

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A patient intake sheet is also called a

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patient information form

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The first document obtained in the initial patient visit is a

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the transfer of ones legal right to collect an amount payable under an insurance contract

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assignment of benefits is

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patient service slip

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an encounter form may also be known as a

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superbill

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the source document for insurance claim data is the

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day sheet

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a daily record sheet used to record daily business transactions is called a

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more than 10

answer

under HIPAA guidelines, physicians must send all claims electronically if they have _____ full-time employees

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follow-up of insurance claims

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an insurance claims register facilitates

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be sent a monthly statement indicating the insurance company has been billed

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when the physicians services have been submitted to the patients insurance company by the physicians office, the patient should

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a medical capitation plan in which treatment is delivered via a clinic or independent physician that provides a number of basic medical services for a fixed capitation payment per month

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independent practice association (IPA)

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a program sponsored jointly by federal and state governments for medically indigent persons, aged individuals who meet certain financial requirements, and the disabled

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medicaid

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insurance that covers off the job injury or sickness and is paid by deductions from a persons paycheck

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state disability or unemployment compensation disability (UCD)

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government sponsored program that provides hospital and medical services for dependents of active duty uniform service members, military retirees and their families, and survivors of uniformed services

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tricare

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a contract that insures a person against on the job injury or illness

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workers compensation insurance

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provides coverage for spouses and children of veterans with total, permanent, service connected disabilities or for the surviving spouses and children of veterans who died as a result of service connected disabilities

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CHAMPVA

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an organization that provides a wide range of comprehensive health care services for a specified group at a fixed periodic payment

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health maintenance organization (HMO)

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a form of health insurance that provides periodic payments to replace income when the insured is unable to work as a result of illness, injury, or disease

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disability income insurance

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the hospital insurance system and supplementary medical insurance for those older than 65 years of age, created by the 1965 Amendments to the social security act

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medicare

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renders a service to a patient

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treating or performing physician

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directs selection, preparation, and administration of tests, medication, or treatment

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ordering physician

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legally responsible for the care and treatment given to a patient

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attending physician

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gives an opinion regarding a specific problem that is requested by another doctor

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consulting physician

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sends the patient for tests or treatment or to another physician for consultation

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referring physician

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oversees care of patients in managed care plans and refers patients to see specialists when needed

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primary care physician

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responsible for training and supervising medical students

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teaching physician

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clinical nurse specialist or licensed social worker who treats a patient for a specific medical problem and uses the results of a diagnostic test in managing a patients medical problem

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non physician practitioner

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performs one or more ears of training in a specialty area while working at a hospital (medical center)

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resident physician

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right lower quadrant

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RLQ

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discharge

answer

question

within normal limits

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WNL

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rule out

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R/O

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upper respiratory infection

answer

URI

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with

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C (line on top)

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Affordable Care Act Disease Prevention And Health Promotion Insurance

Community Health Final – Flashcards 51 terms

Amari Finch

51 terms

Preview

Community Health Final – Flashcards

question

in the third-party payment system, the patient is the

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first party

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in the third-party payment system, the provider is the

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second party

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managed care is a system of health care delivery that focuses on

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all of the above

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the type of health care practice that incorporates interventions aimed at disease prevention and health promotion is

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population-based public health practice

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restorative care is a component of

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long-term practice

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an example of an allied health care professional is a

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dietician

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a written agreement between a private insurance company and an individual or group of individuals to pay for certain health care costs during a certain time period in return for regular, periodic payments is a health insurance

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policy

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a negotiated set amount that a patient pays for certain services is a

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copayment

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the amount of expenses that the beneficiary must incur before the insurance company begins to pay for covered services is the

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deductible

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the part of medicare that is the hospital insurance portion is

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part A

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the part of medicare that is prescription drug coverage is

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part D

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the government insurance program that specifically targets low-income children who are ineligible for other insurance coverage is

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CHIP

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the type of managed care that buys fixed-rate health services from providers and sells them to consumers is

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PPOs

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tobacco smoke inhaled and exhaled by the smoker is referred to as

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mainstream smoke

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the practice of establishing and maintaining healthy or hygienic conditions in the environment is

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sanitation

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porous, water-saturated layers of underground bedrock, sand, and gravel that can yield economically significant amounts of water are referred to as

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aquifers

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the average US resident uses an average of how much water each day?

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80-100 gallons

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the substance that remains after humans have used water for domestic or commercial purposes is

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wastewater

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the level of wastewater treatment where sludge is formed and removed is

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primary wastewater treatment

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the level of wastewater treatment that involves filtration through sand and carbon filters is

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tertiary wastewater

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the federal law aimed at ensuring that all ricers are swimmable and fishable and that limits the discharge of pollutants in US waters to zero is the

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Clean Water Act

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leading factors contributing to food borne disease outbreaks are

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all of the above

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most municipal solid waste comes from

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paper **

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the most desirable form of integrated waste management is

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source reduction

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liquid created when water mixes with wastes and removes soluble constituents from the percolation is

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leachates

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those at great risk of lead poisoning are

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young children

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a process in which energy is emitted in particle waves is

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radiation

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causes for most water borne diseases are

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parasites (then, bacteria)

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causes for most food borne illnesses are

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viruses (then, bacteria)

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any behavior that would increase the probability of an injury occurring is an

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unsafe act

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an injury causing any restriction of normal activity beyond the day of the injury's occurrence is a

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disabling injury

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in the US, the leading type of unintentional injury death is due to

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motor vehicle crashes **

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the second leading cause of unintentional injury death in the US is

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poisonings

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in terms of unintentional injuries, (injuries from) falls disproportionately affect

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elders

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the place where the most unintentional injuries occur is

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the home

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the place where the most unintentional injury deaths occur is

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the road/highway **

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the single most important factor in intentional and unintentional injuries is

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alcohol **

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the unintentional injury prevention approach that involves seeking justice for injuries through the courts is

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litigation

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the group(s) more vulnerable to violence is/are

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all of the above

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the failure of a parent or guardian to care for or otherwise provide the necessary subsistence for a child is

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child neglect

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most poisonings occur in

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the home

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an example of injury prevention through regulation is

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setting speed limits

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the first state to pass a child labor law was

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massachusetts

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the first state to pass worker's comp laws was

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maryland

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a research body located in the CDC responsible for developing and recommending occupational safety and health standards is

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the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

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the leading cause of fatal work-related injuries is

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highway incidents

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the age group with the highest workplace fatality rate is

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65 and over

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installing better security systems at entrances and exits is an example of what kind of prevention strategy for workplace violation?

answer

environmental designs

question

having procedures for opening and closing a workplace is an example of what kind of prevention strategy for workplace violence?

answer

administrative controls

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acute or chronic lung disease caused by the inhalation of cotton, flax, or hemp dusts, also known as brown lung disease is

answer

byssinosis

question

worksite programs that include screenings and interventions designed to change employees health behaviors and reduce risks are

answer

worksite health promotion programs

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