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Kresser Institute Week 6 Gut: Stool Testing Essay Example

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Published: July 3, 2018

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1. DNA/PCR polymerase chain reaction-based technique 2. high-complexity stool culture 3.proteomic-based mass spectronomy

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The 3 methods of stool testing are:

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DNA/PCR technique

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The method of stool testing that is limited and not very rel

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evant to functional medicine today is:

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stool culturing

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The current gold standard of stool testing is:

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14 days

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The length of time stool samples are usually viable for is:

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MALDI-TOF

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Proteomic-based mass spectronomy is also known as:

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1,240 bacteria and fungal organisms

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The number of microorganisms MALDI-TOF can identify is:

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False

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True or false: MALDI-TOF is not accurate or reproducible:

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1. Doctor's Data Comprehensive Stool Analysis and Parasitology 2. BioHealth 401H

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The 2 stool tests that Chris recommends is:

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fecal-oral transmission, and could signal the presence of parasites

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The presence of Entamoeba coli can indicate:

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a false negative

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Which is worse in stool testing, a false negative or a false positive?

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1. expected beneficial flora 2. commensal (imbalanced) flora 3. dysbiotic flora

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The 3 categories of flora on a comprehensive stool test are:

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1. NG or no growth 2. 1+ 3. 2+ 4. 3+ 5. 4+

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The 5 levels of on the scale of flora growth are:

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insufficiency dysbiosis

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Lack of certain expected flora is known as:

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1. joint pain 2. ankylosing spondylitis 3. reactive arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis 4. irritable bowel syndrome and other gut issues

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4 conditions associated with Klebsiella are:

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HLA-B27 test

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When you see a positive result for Klebsiella, especially in someone with joint pain, you should run the:

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theory is, the body makes antibodies to Klebsiella, but then it also attacks HLA-B27 in a phenomenon known as molecular

mimicry

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How does Klebsiella cause ankylosing spondylitis?

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a low starch diet

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What diet can limit the growth of Klebsiella and joint pain?

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patients with dysbiosis

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Aeromonas is more likely to cause disease in:

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Citrobacter freundii

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30% of all opportunistic infections are caused by:

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normally sterile tissues in the body

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Citrobacter freundii causes infections in:

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1. low stomach acid 2. ulcers 3. increasing risk of gastric cancer

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3 things H. Pylori is associated with are:

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50%

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The % of people globally that have H. Pylori is:

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allergies and asthma

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Children with H. Pylori have a lower incidence of:

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1. blood test (not recommended because it can't distinguish between previous exposure and current exposure) 2. stool antigen test (recommended)

3. breath test (accurate for post-treatment follow-up testing, but it does require an entirely separate kit)

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3 ways to test for H. Pylori are:

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Metabolic Solutions

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H. Pylori breath test kits for patients can be obtained through:

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Breath-Tek

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In office H. Pylori breath test can be obtained through:

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T-reg cells

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Up-regulation of which cells likely explains the lower rates of allergy and asthma in children with H. Pylori:

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not to treat

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The treatment recommendation for children with H. Pylori is:

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unclear

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The treatment recommendation for young adults under 30 with H. Pylori is:

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treat, but don't completely eradicate

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The treatment recommendation for adults over 30 with H. Pylori is:

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1. increase in esophageal cancer 2. GERD 3. obesity

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3 negative outcomes to eradicating H. Pylori in adults are:

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decrease the likelihood of gastric cancer

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The main reason to treat H. Pylori in adults is:

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61-94%

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eradication rates for conventional treatment for H. Pylori are:

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1. damage the intestinal lining and provoke inflammation 2. compete for adhesion sites with beneficial bacteria 3. puncturing the gut lining and make it permeable 4. secrete substances with SigA, or SigA protease activity that can break down secretory IgA

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4 known issues with fungal overgrowth of the gut are:

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1. none 2. rare 3. few 4. moderate 5. many

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class="flashcard__a_text">The 5 levels of microscopic yeast findings are:

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none or rare

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Normal microscopic findings for yeast are:

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false

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True or false: Only test for parasites if there are GI symptoms:

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Blastocystis hominis

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The most common parasite is:

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1. decreased levels of beneficial bacteria 2. inflammation 3. reactive arthritis and joint pain 4. IBS and other GI symptoms 5. fatigue 6. urticaria and skin rash 7. brain fog 8. iron deficiency anemia (Mnemonic: DIRIFUBI)

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8 things associated with Blastocystis hominis are:

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1. gut health 2. the type of blasto 3. the presence of proteases in sub-types

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3 things that determine whether Blasto is pathogenic are:

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it's believed to be transmitted between human hosts inside of helminth eggs or larvae, particularly those of pinworm

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Dientamoeba Fragilis is often found with pinworm because:

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1. abdominal pain 2. bloating 3. diarrhea 4. fatigue 5. weight loss 6. loss of appetite

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6 symptoms that are associated with D. Fragilis are:

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pinworm

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If you find D. Fragilis, test for:

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Badbugs.org

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The website with information on Blasto and D. Fragilis is:

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Blasto

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Endolimax nana can co-occur with what other parasite?

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Parasitology Center Inc. in Arizona

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Another good lab for parasites is:

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1. ocular or eye pathologies like choroiditis and retinal hemorrhage 2. arthritis, particularly reactive arthritis, which is an autoimmune form, but also inflammatory 3. osteoarthritis 4. allergies, including food allergies, particularly cow's milk, due to disruption of gut barrier function, and urticaria 5. muscular complications like myopathy 6. nutritional deficiencies, malabsorption, failure to thrive, and stunted growth 7. chronic fatigue syndrome 8. impaired cognitive function 9. functional GI disorders like IBS and functional dyspepsia

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Giardia can cause the following 9 symptoms:

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false

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True or false: When treating for parasites, after eradication, the treatment is over:

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Cryptosporidium parvum

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The leading cause of waterborne disease among humans in the US is:

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class="flashcard__q">Charcot-Leyden crystals

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The crystal that can be found in stool with parasitic infections are:

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eosinophils

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Charcot-Leyden crystals are breakdown products of:

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true

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True or false: Charcot-Leyden crystals are found in other conditions, not just parasitic infections:

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low fecal elastin

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A specific marker for pancreatic function (and it's highly specific for small intestinal disease) is:

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1. chronic pancreatitis 2. cystic

fibrosis 3. pancreatic tumors 4. diabetes mellitus 5. gall bladder problems 6. SIBO

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6 pathologies associated with low fecal elastin are:

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1. gastric surgery 2. pancreatic disease 3. biliary obstruction 4. liver disease 5. intestinal permeability

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A positive fat stain may indicate the 5 following things:

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1. hypochlorhydria 2. poor digestive enzymes

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Muscle fibers and vegetable fibers can indicate:

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carbohydrate malabsorption

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a risk factor for SIBO but also an effect of SIBO is:

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lactoferrin, calprotectin, and lysozyme

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3 markers of gut inflammation on the Doctor's Data Stool Panel are:

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200

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In active IBD, colitis, or cancer, calprotectin levels are above:

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between 50 and 200

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With chronic inflammation, NSAID use, inactive IBD, or perhaps a gut infection, calprotectin levels are:

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run an inflammatory bowel disease expanded antibody panel with LabCorp. This is test number 162045, and it assesses new antibody markers that are quite sensitive and specific for IBD

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When you see calprotectin above 200 or lactoferrin above

50, you can:

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lactoferrin

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A specific indicator of inflammatory bowel disease, when it's significantly elevated is:

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lysozyme

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A generalized marker of inflammation in the gut related to intestinal granulocytes is:

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fungal overgrowth, dysbiotic bacteria, and parasites

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Lysozyme of 600-2000 indicate:

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chronic inflammatory bowel disease like Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, and also other noninflammatory bowel disease, gastrointestinal disorders with diarrhea

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Lysozyme of over 2000 indicate:

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large intestine

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Lysozyme is specific to the:

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bacterial and parasite infections or gut inflammation

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WBC's and mucus can indicate:

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1. regulate the balance of beneficial bacteria 2. prevent colonization by pathogens 3. promote recognition and tolerance of commensal organisms 4. maintain gastrointestinal barrier function 5. promote the formation of healthy biofilms in the gut

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5 roles secretory IgA play are to:

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several months

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The length of time secretory IgA to normalize after treatment is:

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quantitative immunoglobulin panel that measures total levels of IgG, IgE, IgA, and IgM

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If a patient has very low levels of secretory IgA, it could indicate a genetic abnormality. The test to run to rule this out is the:

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1. decreased inflammation 2. increased T-regulatory cell production differentiation, which helps balance and regulate the immune system 3. stimulating the growth and repair of enterocytes, which are the cells lining the GI tract

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3 benefits from short chain fatty acid production are:

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Bifidobacteria and Lactobacilli

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The bacteria that produce butyrate are:

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low short chain fatty acids due to poor fiber intake

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High PH is an indication of:

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fungal overgrowth or infections

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low PH can be a sign of:

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