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Walden – Flashcard 68 terms

Sara Edwards
68 terms
Preview
Walden – Flashcard
question
Because he wants to answer specific questions that they ask.
answer
Why do you think Thoreau singles out individual groups of readers as he begins his first essay?
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"What is called resignation is confirmed desperation. From the desperate city you go into the desperate country and have to console yourself with the bravery of minks and muskrats. But it is a characteristic of wisdom not to do desperate things" (6).
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What does Thoreau mean when he says that "the mass of men lead lives of quiet desperation?" Is that still true today?
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"I studied rather how to avoid the necessity of selling them" (17).
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What does Thoreau's story about the Indian basket weaver illustrate about his views on capitalism?
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"Most behave as if they believe that their prospects for life would be ruined if they should have a patch or flaw" (19).
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What does Thoreau mean by saying "I am sure there is a greater anxiety, commonly, to have fashionable, or at least clean and un patched clothes, than to have a sound conscience"?
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When someone is wealthy they usually have really nice and expensive clothes because they can afford it. But if you are poor, one tends to use their money for more important necessities such as food. Yes when people wear uniforms they are bonded and equal.
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Thoreau says it is an interesting question "how far men would retain their relative rank if they were divested of their clothes". Why do people need to tell others their rank simply by their clothes? Do ideas such as wearing uniforms help curtail some of this snobbery?
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"You could sit up as late as you pleased, and whenever you got up, go abroad without any landlord or house lord dogging you for rent" (26).
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What is Thoreau's opinion of the manner in which American people approach home ownership versus renting?
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I think Thoreau would say "If we suppose him to pay a rent instead, this is but a doubtful choice of evils" (28).
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Thoreau asks, "Would the savage be wise to exchange his wigwam for a palace on these terms?" What do you think his answer might be?
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"But a man as no more to do with the style of architecture of his house than a tortoise with that of its shell" (43).
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Why does Thoreau say, to a painter, that the most interesting dwellings are the homes of the common poor rather than the greater architectural feats?
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"I mean that they should play life, or study it merely while the community supports them at this expensive game, but earnestly live it from beginning to end" (47).
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Explain what Thoreau means by the following statement "The student who secures his coveted leisure and retirement by systematically shirking any labor necessary to man obtains but an ignoble and unprofitable leisure, defrauding himself of the experience which alone can make leisure fruitful".
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"All things considered, that is, considering the importance of a man's soul and of today not withstand the start time occupied by my experiment, nay, partly even because of its transient character, I believe that that was doing better than any farmer in Concord did that year" (51).
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Explain Thoreau's philosophy on farming as expressed in his sentence, "I believe that [I did] better than any farmer in Concord did that year".
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"I desire to speak impartially on this point, and as one not interested in the success or failure of the present economical and social arrangements" (51).
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Why did Thoreau react harshly when his young acquaintance wants to live life as he does?
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"My furniture part of which I made myself, and the rest cost me nothing of which I have not rendered on account, consisted of a bed, a desk, three chairs, and etc" (60).
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How does Thoreau obtain his furniture?
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"For more than five years I maintained myself solely by the labor of my hands, and I found, that by working about six weeks in a year, I could meet all the expenses of living. The whole of my winters, as well as most summers, I had free and clear for study" (64).
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During the previous five years, how did Thoreau support himself?
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"I have made some sacrifices to a sense of duty, and among other have sacrificed this pleasure also. However, when I have thought to indulge myself in this respect, and lay their Heaven under an obligation by maintaining certain poor persons in all respects as comfortably as I maintain myself" (67).
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How does Thoreau feel about philanthropy and why does he choose not to participate in it?
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"Every morning was a cheerful invitation to make my life of equal simplicity" (83).
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How do Thoreau's expectations of morning echo his expectations of his life in general?
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"I wanted to live deep and suck out all the marrow of life, to live so sturdily and Spartan- like as to put to rout all that was not life"(85).
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The crux of this book is explained in the following passage: "I went to the woods because I wished to live deliberately... And to see if I could not learn what it had to teach, and not, when I came to die, discover that I had not lived". Why do you think Thoreau believes that living in nature is the only way to truly "live"?
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"I looked out on the pond, it impressed me like a tarn high up on the of a mountain" (81).
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List some of the allusions from the chapter.
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"The orator yields to the inspiration of a transient occasion, and speaks to the mob before him, to those who can hear him, but the writer, whose more equable life is his occasion, and who would be distracted by the event and the crowd which inspire the orator, speaks to the intellect and heart of mankind, to all in any age who can understand him" (97).
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What according to Thoreau, is the difference between the orator and the writer?
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"I aspire to be acquainted with wise men than this our Concord soil has produced, whose names are hardly known here"(101). HE LOVES BOOKS!
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Thoreau shows a somewhat elitist attitude of intellectual snobbery in this passage when he describes how few of his fellow New Englanders read great works. From where do you think his arrogance and dismay come?
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"But it is thought Utopian to propose spending money for things which more intelligent men know to be of far more worth" (103).
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What does Thoreau regard as his utopia world, with respect to reading and books?
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"I had this advantage, at least in my mode of life, over those who were obliged to look abroad for amusement, to society and the theatre, that my life itself was become my amusement and never ceased to be novel" (106).
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What does Thoreau mean when he says he has had the advantage of a simple life over those who have had to "look abroad" for amusement?
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"The whistle of the locomotive penetrates my woods summer and winter, sounding like the scream of a hawk sailing over some farmer's yard" (109). "I see these men everyday go about their business with more or less courage and content, doing more even then they could have consciously devised" (112).
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How does Thoreau feel about the railroad?
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"I feel more like a citizen of the world at the sight of the palm- leaf which cover so many flaxen New England heads the next summer" (113).
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How does Thoreau's description of the various forest and country animals reflect his feelings about the natural world?
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"I have as it were, my own sun and moon and stars, and a little world all to myself" (123).
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How does Thoreau feel about being alone?
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"I have never felt lonesome, or in the least oppressed by a sense of solitude, but once, and that was a few weeks after I came to the woods, when for an hour, I doubted if the the near neighborhood of man was not essential to a serene and healthy life" (124).
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How do you think Thoreau's understanding of loneliness differs from the commonly understood definition?
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"Instead of one of this quack vials of a mixture dipped from Acheron and the Dead Sea, which come out of those long shallow black-schooner looking wagons which we sometimes see made to carry bottles, let me have a draught of I diluted morning air" (131).
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What does Thoreau compare to morning air?
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"Always ready for company" (133).
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What type of host does Thoreau seem to be to his guest?
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"He interested me because he was so quiet and solitary and so happy withal, a well of good humor and contentment which overflowed at his eyes" (138).
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What does Thoreau like about the Canadian woodchopper who visits him?
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"He was so simple and humble" (139). "To a stranger he appeared to know nothing of things in general, yet I saw in him a man whom I had not seen before, and I did not know whether he was as wise as Shakespeare or as simple as ignorant as a child" (140).
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What is interesting about the way the Canadian answers questions?
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"There were very curious specimens among my visitors" (142). "I found some of then to be wider then the so called overseers" (142). "I could not notice some of the peculiarities of my visitors" (144).
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How does Thoreau feel about most of his visitors?
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"They attached me to the earth, and so I got strength like Antaeus" (147).
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How does Thoreau feel about the physical labor of hoeing beans?
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"But in the course of the summer it appeared by the arrow-heads which I turned up in hoeing, that an extinct nation had anciently dwelt here and planted corn and beats ere white men came to clear the land, and so, to some extent, had exhausted the soil for this very crop" (147).
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What analogy does Thoreau make to planting his bean seeds and working hard his first summer?
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"I have thought that perhaps my body would find its way home if it's master should forsake it" (161). "It is surprising and memorable, as well as valuable experience, to be lost in the woods any time" (161).
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How does Thoreau regard getting lost in the woods?
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"Signs were hung out on all sides to allure him, some to catch him by appetite, some were fancy" (159).
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How does he feel about the advertising in the village?
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Not really. People went through there day as if nothing in the world could really hurt them
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Was personal safety a concern in Thoreau's time, as it is today?
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"All our Concord waters have two colors at least, one when viewed at a distance, and another, more proper, close at hand. The first depends more on the light, and follows the sky" (167).
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Thoreau describes the color of water in a manner which is different from most people's perception. How does he describe it?
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"Perhaps on that spring morning when Adam and Eve were driven out of Eden, Walden Pond was already in existence" (170). "Obtained a patent of heaven to be the only Walden Pond in the world" (170).
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Explain the extended metaphor Thoreau uses to describe Walden Pond.
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"Many a forenoon have I stolen away, preferring to spend thus the most valued part of the day, for I was rich, if not in money, in sunny hours and summer days, and spent them lavishly, nor do I regret that I did not waste more of them in the workshop or teacher's desk" (181).
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When Thoreau speaks of his days as a boy visiting Walden Pond, does he seem to regret his time there?
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"Many men have been likened to it, but few deserve that honor" (182). "What right had the unclean and stupid farmer, whose farm abutted on this sky water, whose shores he has ruthlessly laid bare, to give his name to it?" (184).
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Toward the end of his essay "The Ponds", Thoreau seems to become disgusted with humankind for something. What is it?
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"He worked "bogging" for a neighboring farmer, turning up a meadow with a spade or bog hoe at the rate of ten dollars an acre and the use of the land with manure for one year" (192).
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After speaking to the Irish immigrant, what does Thoreau say about the immigrant's choice of work? How many people still behave like this Irishman today?
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"Men come tamely home at night only from the next field or street, where their household echoes haunt, and their life pines because it breathes it own breath over again"(196).
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How does Thoreau compare the life of "ordinary" men to himself?
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"The governor and his council faintly remember the pond, for they went a- fishing there when they were boys, but now they are too old and dignified to go a- fishing, and so they no it more forever" (200).
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How does Thoreau describe his "higher law"?
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"They mistake who assert that the Yankee had few amusements, because he had not so many public holidays, and men and boys do not play so many games as they do in England, for here the more primitive but solitary amusements of hunting, fishing and the like have not yet given place to the former" (198).
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What is the difference between English boys and the "Yankees"?
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"The gross feeder is a man in the larva state, and there are whole nations in that condition, nations without fancy or imagination, whose vast abdomens betray them" (202). "It is reptile and sensual, and perhaps cannot be wholly expelled, like the worms which, even in life and health, occupy our bodies" (205).
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Thoreau uses a very interesting analogy of worms within a healthy person's body to describe the fallen nature of man. What does he say about the fallen nature of man?
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"He had not attended to the train of his thoughts long when he heard someone playing on a flute, and that sound harmonized with his mood" (209).
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What happens to John Farmer as he sits on his porch?
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"How now, Hermit, is it too soon?" (212).
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Which "brute neighbors" are Thoreau's subject in this essay?
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"It was the only battle which I have ever witnessed, the only battlefield I ever trod while the battle was raging, internecine war, the red republicans on the one hand, and the black imperialist on the other hand" (215).
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Of what is Thoreau speaking when he describes the battlefield? What literary term is used?
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"A phoebe soon built in my shed, and a robin for protection in a pond which grew near my house" (213). "It is remarkable how many creatures live wild and free through secret in the woods" (214).
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How does Thoreau feel about the various animals he observes in nature?
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He calls the houseguests WASPS. " I swept some of them out, but I did not trouble myself much to get rid of them, I even felt complimented by their regarding my house as desirable shelter" (226).
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What is Thoreau's view of being a house guest?
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"Should not every apartment in which men dwells be lofty enough to create some obscurity over-head, where flickering shadows may play at evening about the rafters?" (228).
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What is Thoreau's view of working men, as mentioned when he describes the art of plastering?
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"The first ice is especially interesting and perfect, being hard, dark, and transparent, and affords the best opportunity that ever offers for examining the bottom where it is shallow" (231).
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What does Thoreau's description of the ice at the bottom of the pond suggest about his personality?
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"If they made their bows of it, we make our gun-stocks of it" (236). "It is now many years that men have resorted to the forest for fuel and the materials of the arts" (236).
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Why does Thoreau say that the value of wood is more universal than gold?
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"The stove not only took up room and scented the house, but it concealed the fire, and I felt as if I had lost a companion" (239).
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Do you agree with Thoreau's statement that "you can always find a face in the fire"?
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"Within the memory of many of my townsmen the road near my house stands resounded with the the laugh and gossip of inhabitants" (241).
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Why does Thoreau spend time discussing the former inhabitants of Walden Pond?
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"He was soothed by the sympathy which my mere presence implied" (245).
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How is Thoreau's human side shown in the story of finding a man whose family cabin had been burned in a prank?
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He thought they were very interesting people and he really cared for them.
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As Thoreau finished his section on former inhabitants, what conclusion can we draw about his feelings towards the people that have lived in Walden?
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He means that a poet loves his job too much to quit. " A farmer, a hunter, a soldier, a reporter, even a philosopher may be daunted, but nothing can deter a poet, for he is actuated by pure love" (252).
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What does Thoreau mean when he says you cannot "deter a poet, for he is actuated by pure love"?
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"William Gilpin, who is so admirable in all that relates to landscapes, and usually so correct" (269).
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Does Thoreau dispute William Gilpin's theory about Loch Fyne in Scotland?
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"In the deepest part there are several acres more level than most field which is exposed to the sun, wind, and plough" (270). "The greatest depth was apparently the centre of map" (271).
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How does Thoreau figure out mathematically the point that is most likely to be the deepest in the ponds surrounding him?
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"They told me that they had some in the ice- house at Fresh pong five years old which was as good as ever" (278).
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What does Thoreau mean when he asks "Why is it that a bucket of water soon becomes putrid, but frozen remains sweet forever? It is commonly said that this is the difference between the affections and the intellect?"
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"It is a truly grotesque vegetation, whose forms and color we see imitated bronze, a sort of architectural foliage more ancient and typical than any vegetable leaves" (285).
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What is Thoreau referring to when he writes about the "grotesque vegetation"?
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"If you look closely and observe that first there pushes forward from the thawing mass a stream of softened sand with a drop-like point" (287). "It is wonderful how rapidly yet perfectly the sand organizes itself as it flows" (287).
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What are some of the examples that Thoreau gives of the everyday metamorphoses that occur on a daily basis in front of our eyes?
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"Thus if seemed that this one hillside illustrated the principle of all the operations of Nature" (288).
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What does Thoreau mean when he says that, "the Maker of this earth but patented a leaf"?
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"Our village life would stagnate (not moving) if it were not for the unexplored forests and meadows which surround it. We need the tonic of wilderness" (297). "We need to witness our own limits transgressed" (297).
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What would happen to village life if the woods around it ceased to exist?
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"It is said that Mirabeau took to highway robbery "to ascertain what degree of resolution was necessary in order to place one's self in formal opposition to the most sacred laws of society" "(302). "This was manly, as the world goes, and yet it was idle, if not desperate" (302).
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What does Thoreau say about Mirabeau's defense of highway robbery that "honor and religion have never stood in the way of a well-conditioned and a firm resolve"?
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"Let every one mind his own business, and endeavor to be what he was made" (305).
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Thoreau makes an interesting point when confronted with the opinion that ancient men were more intelligent than contemporary American men. He says that while this may be true, "a living dog is better than a dead lion". He goes on to say that people should try to be all that they can be, regardless of whether they can ever live up to the success of others who came before them. Do you agree?
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"If a man does not keep pace with his companions, perhaps it is because he hears a different drummer" (305). "However mean your life is, meet it and live it, do not shun it and call it hard names" (307).
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Thoreau makes another point: embrace your life, and do not wish you were richer, but make do with what you have. He says, "Most think they are above being supported by the town, but it oftener happens that they are not above supporting themselves by dishonest means, which should be more disreputable". Do you know any people like this? Would you agree with Thoreau on this point?
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"I was at a table where were rich food and wine in abundance and obsequious attendance, but sincerity and truth were not and I went away hungry from the inhospitable board" (309).
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What does Thoreau say about the dinner party he attends where he goes away hungry?
Business
Business Law
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Financial Accounting Standards Board
Business Education ETS 176 – Flashcards 211 terms

Jonathan Walsh
211 terms
Preview
Business Education ETS 176 – Flashcards
question
Bond
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A promise to pay a sum of money by a certain day or after a certain condition. Contracts and Loan Agreements.
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Corporate Bonds
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Bonds issued by a firm, not by a government or a municipality.
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IPO
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Initial Public Offering. A stock or bond sold by a corporation for the first time. Proceeds (money from sale) may be used to retire debts, build new plants or buy new equipment or for additional working capital.
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Debenture Bond
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Bonds that are unsecured (i.e., not backed by any collateral such as equipment).
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Equity Financing
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Funding that comes from the business owners contributing capital to buy "shares" of the company. In return for the shares of the company the contributor gains a percentage of the profit.
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Texas right-to-work law
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A person cannot be denied employment because of membership or non-membership in a labor union or other labor organization.
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Comparative Advantage
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Concept in economics that a country should specialize in producing and exporting only those goods and services which it can produce more efficiently (at lower opportunity cost) than other goods and services (which it should import).
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OSHA
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Occupational Safety and Health Administration. A government agency in the Department of Labor intended to assure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and providing training, outreach, education and assistance.
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Revenue
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The income generated from sale of goods or services, or any other use of capital or assets, associated with the main operations of an organization before any costs or expenses are deducted.
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Matching Rule
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The duty of an accountant to try to place an income transaction with an expense transaction.
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Historical Cost
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Original cost of an asset, as it is recorded in the books of a firm.
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Time Value of Money
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Price put on the time an investor or lender has to wait until the investment or loan is fully recouped. TVM is based on the concept that money received earlier is worth more than the same amount of money received later, because it can be 'employed' to earn interest over time. Computed as compound interest.
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Risk
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A probability or threat of damage, injury, liability, loss, or any other negative occurrence that is caused by external or internal vulnerabilities, and that may be avoided through preemptive action.
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Sole Proprietorship
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A type of business entity that is owned and run by one individual and in which there is no legal distinction between the owner and the business. Its equity would typically consist of a single owner's capital account.
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Partnership
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Business owned by more than one person. They pool money, skills, and other resources, and share profit and loss in accordance with terms of the partnership agreement. With its equity consisting of separate capital accounts for each partner.
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Corporation
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Owned by their stockholders (shareholders) who share in profits and losses generated through the firm's operations, and have three distinct characteristics (1) Legal existence, (2) Limited liability, and (3) Continuity of existence. The total owners' equity (i.e., "stockholders' equity") of a corporation usually consists of several amounts, generally corresponding to the owner investments in the capital stock (by shareholders) and additional amounts generated through earnings that have not been paid out to shareholders as dividends (dividends are distributions to shareholders as a return on their investment). Earnings give rise to increases in retained earnings, while dividends (and losses) cause decreases.
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Franchise
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A form of business organization in which a firm which already has a successful product or service (the franchisor) enters into a continuing contractual relationship with other businesses (franchisees) operating under the franchisor's trade name and usually with the franchisor's guidance, in exchange for a fee.
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Functions of Management
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Planning, Organizing, Leading, and Controlling
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EEOC
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The US Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. Enforces federal laws that make it illegal to discriminate against a job applicant or an employee because of the persons race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy), national origin, age, disability or genetic information.
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COBOL
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Common Business Oriented Language. Developed for programming Business Data. The oldest programming language.
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BASIC
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Beginners all-purpose Symbolic Instruction Code): Popular programming language, easy to learn.
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FORTRAN
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Formula Translation. A high-level programing language for mathematical and scientific purposes.
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JAVA
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A simple platform-independent object-oriented programming language used for writing applets that are downloaded from the World Wide Web by a client and run on the client's machine.
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AAUW
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American Association of University Women): a nationwide network that works for the advancement of equity for women and girls through advocacy, education, philanthropy, and research.
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NBEA
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National Business Education Association. Professional organization devoted exclusively to serving individuals and groups engaged in instruction, administration, research, and dissemination of information for and about business.
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Balancing
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verifying all the transactions on your account to make certain your records match the bank.
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Financial Statement
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A written report of the financial condition of a firm. Includes balance sheet, income statement, statement of changes in net worth and statement of cash flow.
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Income Statement
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A financial document that shows how much money (revenues) came in and how much money (expenses) was paid out.
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Sales
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The gross revenue generated from the sale of something less returns (cancellations) and allowances (reduction in price for discounts taken by customers).
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Gross Profit
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The amount of direct profit associated with the actual manufacturing of the item sold. Calculated as sales less the cost of goods sold.
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Fixed Assets
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Long-term or relatively permanent tangible assets such as equipment, machinery, and buildings that are used in the normal business operations and that depreciate over time.
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Owner's Equity
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Amount of money that owners would receive if they sold all of a firm's assets and paid all of its liabilities
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Footing
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The total of the debit column or credit column of an account.
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Journalizing
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The process of recording business transactions in a journal. Generally includes date, ledger account to be debited and amount, ledger account to be credited and amount, description and cross-reference to the general ledger.
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Posting
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Process of transferring debit and credit amounts from journals to the ledgers
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Ledger
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A specialized accounting book or computer program in which information from accounting journals is accumulated into specific categories and posted so that managers can find all the information about one account in the same place.
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Mutual Agency
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Right of all partners in a partnership to act as agents for the normal business operations of the partnership, and their responsibility for their partners business related (but not personal) actions.
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BPA
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Business Professionals of America. The leading career technical student organization for students pursuing careers in business management, office administration, information technology and other related career fields.
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FBLA
answer
Future Business Leaders of America. Future Business Leaders of America.
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SIEC/ISBE
answer
La Societe Internationale pour l'Enseignement Commercial/ The International Society for Business Education. A professional organization promoting education about business for students at all levels of the educational spectrum. Provide a network to promote international business education.
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ACTE
answer
Association for Career and Technical Education. National education association dedicated to the advancement of education that prepares youth and adults for careers.
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Trade Bloc
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A group of countries that work together to promote trade with one another.
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NAFTA
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North American Free Trade Agreement. An agreement to remove most barriers to trade and investment among the United States, Canada, and Mexico.
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Free Trade
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International trade, free of government interference
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Trade Barriers
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A block in international trade put in place by the government.
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Wage Rate
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Compensation workers receive in exchange for their labor per unit time - the price of labor. Usually calculated as dollars paid times hours worked. Prevailing pay scale for work performed in an occupation.
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Employment-at-will
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A common law doctrine under which either party may terminate an employment relationship at any time for any reason, unless a contract specifies otherwise.
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Administrative Law
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The body of law created by administrative agencies (in the form of rules, regulations, orders, and decisions) in order to carry out their duties and responsibilities.
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Implied Covenant
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A promise that the employer and the employee will be fair in their dealings with each other.
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Common Law
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System of law that is the same for all people, based on court decisions that have become accepted legal principles.
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Constitutional Law
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System of law that is the same for all people, based on court decisions that have become accepted legal principles.
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Legislative Law
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Law created by lawmaking bodies such as Congress and state assemblies. Also called statutory law.
question
Bait and Switch
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First, customers are "baited" by merchants' advertising products or services at a low price, but when customers visit the store, they discover that the advertised goods are not available, or the customers are pressured by sales people to consider similar, but higher priced items.
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Capital
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Wealth in the form of money or property owned by a person or business and human resources of economic value.
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Matrix Organization
answer
It is a type of organizational management in which people with similar skills are pooled for work assignments, resulting in more than one manager.
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Hierarchical Organization
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The arrangement is formed into a hierarchy. In an organization, the hierarchy usually consists of a singular/group of power at the top with subsequent levels of power beneath them.
question
Flat Organization
answer
An organizational structure with few or no levels of intervening management between staff and managers. The idea is that well-trained workers will be more productive when they are more directly involved in the decision making process, rather than closely supervised by many layers of management.
question
Which of the following actions could a new company take to obtain equity financing for growth? A. Issue corporate bonds. B. Hold an initial public offering (IPO) of stock. C. Purchase debenture bonds. D. Secure a low-interest loan from a lending institution.
answer
B. Hold an initial public offering (IPO) of stock.
question
Which of the following best exemplifies a manager who adheres to McGregor's Theory Y of management? A. Ms. Sanchez meets with her staff often and listens to their advice when making decisions. B. Ms. Doe rewards staff members who adjust to her leadership style with bonuses and special perks. C. Ms. Jones has her employees elect a coworker each month to be recognized for distinction. D. Ms. Travis organizes her office so staff members follow her rigid and detailed instructions.
answer
A. Ms. Sanchez meets with her staff often and listens to their advice when making decisions.
question
Which of the following best describes an important feature of the Texas right-to- work law? A. Employers must make reasonable accommodations for disabled employees. B. Employees are permitted to work at a unionized company without joining the union. C. Employers must pay equal wages to men and women who perform similar jobs. D. Employees are guaranteed a wage that allows them to meet their cost- of-living needs.
answer
B. Employees are permitted to work at a unionized company without joining the union.
question
Which of the following is an example of unethical business behavior? A. An automobile dealership offers a 20% discount to a delivery company purchasing several new vans. B. A medical doctor accepts samples from a pharmaceutical sales representative. C. An auto repair mechanic exaggerates the need for repairs on a customer's vehicle. D. An electronics company creates an advertisement that highlights weaknesses in a competitor's television.
answer
C. An auto repair mechanic exaggerates the need for repairs on a customer's vehicle.
question
Mark agrees to buy a used car from Eliza for $8500. In order for this business contract to be legally binding, which of the following conditions will have to be met? A. Mark must pay Eliza the full price upon taking possession of the car. B. Both parties must reside in the same state. C. The agreement must be in writing and signed by both parties. D. The transaction must take place within 90 days of the agreement.
answer
C. The agreement must be in writing and signed by both parties.
question
In which of the following situations does the Occupational Safety and Health Act protect workers from disciplinary action if they refuse to perform a job due to workplace hazards? A. The workers' concerns have been verified by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. B. The workers have been informed by fellow employees that possibly dangerous working conditions exist. C. The workers have filed a complaint with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. D. The workers believe in good faith that they are in imminent danger and have informed their employer.
answer
D. The workers believe in good faith that they are in imminent danger and have informed their employer.
question
According to the principle of comparative advantage, nations engaged in international commerce will achieve the greatest success by: A. Specializing in production activities for which their opportunity costs are lowest. B. Maximizing production of goods for which there is extensive world demand. C. Specializing in production activities, which enable them to benefit from economies of scale. D. Maximizing production of goods, which can be shipped quickly and inexpensively.
answer
A. Specializing in production activities for which their opportunity costs are lowest.
question
Which of the following is the primary advantage of using desktop publishing software instead of word processing software to produce business documents? A. Desktop publishing software enables the user to create documents that retain their formatting and graphic features on all platforms. B. Desktop publishing software allows the user to record macros that simplify difficult or repetitive operations. C. Desktop publishing software facilitates the creation of more complex page layouts containing text and graphics. D. Desktop publishing software allows the user to cut and paste graphics from one computer utility into another.
answer
C. Desktop publishing software facilitates the creation of more complex page layouts containing text and graphics.
question
Adding forms to a Web page will allow the page to: A. Collect data input by the end user. B. Display animations and real-time video. C. Appear the same across all computer platforms. D. Download and play background music.
answer
A. Collect data input by the end user.
question
A businessperson would like to produce a printed report in which business data are presented in several different graphs and a marketing strategy is proposed and described. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to complete this task? A. Producing the graphs with a photo editor and importing them into a multimedia program B. Creating the graphs with a spreadsheet program and importing them into a word processing document C. Designing the graphs with a paint- and-draw program and pasting them into a text editor D. Entering the data into a relational database and exporting the data into an object-oriented programming language
answer
B. Creating the graphs with a spreadsheet program and importing them into a word processing document
question
A high level of knowledge and skill associated with using sophisticated database management software is likely to be most important for an understanding of which of the following business systems? A. Automated accounting system B. Data encryption system C. Marketing information system D. Office automation system
answer
C. Marketing information system
question
In designing a database of customer information, a company is considering what kind of data it would like to be able to retrieve from the database. This decision is most important for determining the: A. Size of the entire database. B. Number of fields to have in the database. C. Syntax of the query language. D. Style of interface between the database and the end user.
answer
B. Number of fields to have in the database.
question
In developing a security policy for a company's computer system, which of the following steps should be taken first? A. Contacting the manufacturers of the computer system components for information about security issues B. Creating a plan of action for recovering data lost through theft, fire, or equipment failure C. Identifying critical information and assessing potential threats to the information D. Identifying the types of hardware and software that could be pur- chased to protect the system from threats
answer
C. Identifying critical information and assessing potential threats to the information
question
A high school student is enrolled in a work-based learning program in which he is involved in interpreting a company's financial reports. His accounting teacher is planning a unit in which students will be given a general ledger from a fictitious company. Which of the following class- room activities would best connect the accounting lesson to the student's work- based learning experiences? A. Transferring the balance of all temporary accounts to the capital account B. Calculating tax liabilities and completing tax liability payment coupons C. Comparing net income to revenue and comparing current assets to current liabilities D. Determining the equality of all debit and credit accounts in the general ledger
answer
C. Comparing net income to revenue and comparing current assets to current liabilities
question
Jamal is trying to decide whether or not his company needs a new, larger computer system. Which of the following would be the most appropriate first step for Jamal to take in making this decision? A. Soliciting feedback from employees about the type of system they think the company should have B. Defining the types of problems the new system would need to solve C. Determining the cost of purchasing and installing a new computer system D. Comparing the features of different types of computer systems
answer
B. Defining the types of problems the new system would need to solve
question
Which of the following best describes the primary role of the faculty advisor to a student business organization? A. To instruct students about contemporary issues in the business world. B. To guide students and help them take ownership of the organization. C. To maintain records and monitor the financial activities of the organization. D. To help participating students locate and secure part-time jobs.
answer
B. To guide students and help them take ownership of the organization.
question
Which of the following types of investments is likely to be most appropriate for an individual who has a very low tolerance for risk? A. U.S. treasury bonds B. Corporate bonds C. Mutual stock funds D. Growth company stocks
answer
A. U.S. Treasury Bonds Since U.S. treasury bonds are issued by the federal government, they are almost completely free of risk. The potential interest to be earned on treasury bonds is higher than the potential interest to be earned on a savings account from a bank, yet not as high as the potential interest to be earned on stocks or mutual funds. The main attraction to U.S. treasury bonds is that they are considered to be very low risk.
question
Which of the following is most likely to help ensure that important topics are covered in a timely fashion during a business meeting? A. Ask each participant to limit individual comments to less than five minutes. B. Use parliamentary procedures to conduct, organize, and structure the meeting. C. Invite people to the meeting that have demonstrated expertise in the topics being covered. D. Provide each participant with an agenda that is used for conducting the meeting.
answer
D. Provide each participant with an agenda that is used for conducting the meeting. Preparing a meeting agenda is important so that meeting participants will know the direction of the meeting in advance. The agenda should include topics, a schedule, the names of the participants, and resources and should be prepared early enough to give participants adequate time to prepare their thoughts on each topic. An agenda will help keep meeting participants on task.
question
EIN
answer
EIN stands for employee identification number, also called the federal tax ID number. It is the nine-digit number the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) assigns to a business. This number identifies a specific business, just like a social security number identifies a specific individual, and tells the IRS that this owner is required to file various business tax returns monthly, quarterly and annually. The business owner can obtain an EIN online at the Internal Revenue Service web site, www.irs.gov, or by mail or telephone. Before the owner can file any tax returns, the business must have an EIN.
question
The IRS requires an EIN if the business:
answer
• Has Employees • Is a corporation or a partnership • Is required to pay employment, excise, alcohol, tobacco or firearms taxes • Withholds taxes on income paid to a non-resident alien • Has a Keogh retirement plan • Involes trusts, estates, real estate, mortgage investments, non-profit farmers' cooperatives or plan administrators If a business owner is unsure whether he needs an EIN, he should consult an accountant for advice.
question
Independent Contractor
answer
A self-employed individual who performs a service for a client. The client is required to report earnings of $600 or more in one year to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), and provide the independent contractor with a 1099 by January 31st. An independent contractor works on his own time frame, uses his own equipment, hires and compensates any additional people required to complete the job, and is usually paid on a per job or per piece rate. The contractor and the client may have a contractual agreement that states each party's responsibilities.
question
When a person is classified as an independent contractor, the hiring company avoids:
answer
•Withholding federal and state income taxes. •Paying the employer's portion of Social Security and Medicare taxes. •Paying federal and state unemployment insurance premiums. •State disability insurance premiums and workers' compensation costs. •Providing any fringe benefits. •Liability for negligence or EEOC non-compliance by the contractor.
question
Sales Tax
answer
a levy placed on the retail price of merchandise and services sold to the public. The state legislature determines what merchandise and services are levied and determines the percentage of the sale price each business must collect, e.g. 8.25%. Sales taxes are collected by the comptroller's office. Cities and counties may also have sales tax requirements. They are set by the city council and elected county officials. These sales tax payments are made to the tax assessor collector's office. Depending upon the amount of money collected, sales tax is paid on a monthly, quarterly or annual basis. The business or person collecting sales tax must apply for and receive a sales tax permit from the state prior to charging and collecting sales tax.
question
Sales Tax Exemption
answer
Every jurisdiction exempts certain organizations (churches, non-profit organizations, charities) from paying sales tax. Allowable exemptions vary. Qualifying groups must apply for a sales tax exemption certificate. If the buyer claims the exemption, he must provide a copy of the sales tax exemption certificate at the time of payment.
question
Uniform Commercial Code
answer
a set of rules and provisions enacted to simplify and clarify commercial transactions, with uniform laws that govern all jurisdictions. If a transaction involves two or more states or another nation, the provisions of either may be applied as long as all the parties involved agree which code is to be used. Both buyer and seller have certain rights. When a buyer purchases an item, he receives clear title. He accepts in good faith that the seller legally owned the item and had authorization to sell it and transfer ownership. The buyer has the right to take possession according to the terms of the sale. If the buyer refuses to take delivery, fails to make the agreed- upon payment as specified in the terms of the sale, or payment is rejected (insufficient funds, buyer insolvency, etc.), the seller may: cancel the sale; stop delivery; resell the item to recover any monetary loss incurred; demand return of the title and other paperwork provided at the time of the sale.
question
Complaint
answer
a statement made in a civil action; a formal charge, made under oath, about the commission of a crime
question
Court Order
answer
a direction or command given by a court or other adjudicative body that is entered into the record but not necessarily included in the final judgment
question
Subpoena
answer
a written order issued by the court, commanding a person to give testimony
question
Testimony
answer
a spoken or written statement given under oath
question
Summons
answer
a notice instructing a person to appear in court as a defendant, juror or witness
question
Discovery
answer
when used as a legal term means "data or documents that someone involved in a legal action must disclose to another person before or during a proceeding"
question
Mediation
answer
the "attempt to bring about a peaceful settlement between disputing parties through the intervention of a neutral third party"
question
Arbitration
answer
is the legal process used by disputing parties when they "submit their differences to the judgment of an impartial person that has been appointed by mutual consent or statutory provision"
question
Budget
answer
an itemized summary of expenditures for a given period
question
Personnel Budget
answer
is based on headcount. Generally, personnel costs are 60-70% of a budget plan, so headcount must be accurate with all associated costs included.
question
Operating Budget
answer
includes all of the costs associated with running a business. Some are fixed, while some vary from month to month; all costs, however, must be budgeted. Most operating budgets are based on 2-5 years of historical data
question
Capital Budget
answer
allocates funds for large ticket items. Many items considered capital expenses are depreciated on some sort of schedule, e.g. over three, five or seven years. In some cases, the Internal Revenue Service sets the depreciation schedule.
question
Business Continuity Planning
answer
A business continuity manual is a comprehensive, realistic, easy-to-use, written document that contains all the critical information needed in the event of disruption in operations (Natural or man-made disaster). It addresses conditions before, during and after the event. For each risk, the manual outlines who and what may be affected, how long the event might last, and describes the best response, while acknowledging it is impossible to address every conceivable scenario. Lists the names, addresses and contact numbers of all key staff members, and any applicable government regulatory reporting requirements with contact names and numbers. A copy of the manual should be stored off-site.
question
Leader
answer
Qualities such as integrity, honesty, humility, commitment, passion, wisdom and sensitivity, which are present in good leaders, are part of the person's character. Leadership is more about behavior than a specific skill set. Skills such as decision-making, listening, communicating and motivating are important, but can be learned and honed on the job.
question
Jack Welch, businessman, writer and former CEO, proposed these fundamental leadership principles:
answer
•There is only one way - the straight way. •Be open to the best everyone has to offer. •Make sure the right people are in the right jobs. •Develop an informal environment. •Make sure everyone knows they count. •The true test of self-confidence is the courage to be open. •Business has to be fun. •Never underestimate the other guy. •Understand where real value is added and put the best people there. •Know when to meddle and when to let go.
question
International business ethics
answer
•A search for accepted universal values. •Comparison of business traditions in different countries and cultures. •How religious perspectives affect commerce. •Globalization and cultural imperialism. •Varying standards, e.g. child labor, living wages, etc. •Multinational groups outsourcing to take advantage of varying standards. •Conducting business with rogue governments.
question
The EIN can be obtained: A. By appointment B. By snail mail C. At City Hall D. All of the above
answer
B. By snail mail
question
Characteristics of an independent contractor include: A. Works on his employer's schedule B. Uses company equipment C. Pays his own federal and state taxes D. Receives benefits from the employer
answer
C. Pays his own federal and state taxes
question
Organizations exempt from paying sales tax include: A. Hospitals B. Non-profit groups C. Book stores D. All of the above
answer
B. Non-profit groups
question
According to the Uniform Commercial Code, when can a seller cancel a sale? A. Buyer refused delivery of the item B. After one week C. In bad weather D. Seller changes his mind
answer
A. Buyer refused delivery of the item
question
A purpose of communication is to: A. Make money B. Pass the time C. Make noise D. Give advice
answer
D. Give advice
question
Legal terms include: A. Formulate B. Correlation C. Discovery D. Insinuate
answer
C. Discovery
question
A budget determines: A. Funds availability B. Needed materials C. Interest in expanding D. All of the above
answer
A. Funds availability
question
A business continuity manual should: A. Avoid addressing conditions before an event B. Discuss every possible scenario C. Describe best responses D. List locations
answer
C. Describe best responses
question
Qualities found in a good leader include: A. Energetic B. Easy going C. Curiosity D. Sensitivity
answer
D. Sensitivity
question
International business ethics is affected by: A. Cultural traditions B. Student organizations C. Productivity D. Distance
answer
A. Cultural traditions
question
Net Exporter
answer
The value of the goods that a country exports exceeds the value of the goods that it imports. Net exporters have positive trade balances, meaning that the value of the goods that they sell to other countries exceeds the value of the goods that they buy from other countries.
question
If a government implements a tariff on imported consumer goods, it is most likely trying to:
answer
Protect its domestic consumer good from foreign competition. By increasing tariffs, the government will increase the domestic prices for foreign-made consumer goods, thus making domestically-produced products more attractive to consumers and reducing the overall level of competition in the industry.
question
The objectives or goals of financial management are to maximize: a. Sales b. Profits c. Owner's Wealth d. Total Assets
answer
c. Owner's Wealth
question
The two basic types of stocks are: a. Class A and Class B b. Class A Common and Class B Common c. Convertible and Common d. Common and Preferred
answer
d. Common and Preferred
question
If you borrow $500 for one year and agree to repay the lender $540 at the end of one year, the interest cost of borrowing is: a. 8% per year b. $40 c. neither (a) nor (b) d. both (a) and (b)
answer
b. $40
question
Using the net present value method, the decision to accept an "accept-reject" investment proposal would occur when the net present value is a. greater than or equal to zero b. less than or equal to zero c. equal to zero d. less than zero
answer
a. greater than or equal to zero
question
A short-term unsecured promissory note issued by a corporation with a high credit standing is called a a. money market mutual fund b. commercial paper c. repurchase agreement d. negotiable certificate of deposit
answer
b. commercial paper
question
The major financial assets of a firm do NOT include: a. Turnover Ratios b. Liquidity Ratios c. Accrued Ratios d. Profitability Ratios
answer
c. Accrued Ratios
question
As the interest rate goes up, the present value of a future amount will: a. go up b. go down c. remain the same d. fluctuate
answer
b. go down
question
If a firm undertakes all worthwhile projects and pays out dividends when and only when funds are available, it follows the: a. asymmetric dividend theory b. dividend signaling hypothesis c. impairment of capital theory d. residual theory of dividends
answer
d. residual theory of dividends
question
A reasonable short-term financial decision for a multinational company that expects a local foreign currency to appreciate is to: a. increase local accounts receivable and decrease local accounts payable b. increase both local inventories and local notes payable c. increase both local customers accounts receivable and local notes payable d. decrease both local notes receivable and accruals
answer
a. increase local accounts receivable and decrease local accounts payable
question
If the cash discount period is increased, the firms investment in accounts receivable due to discount takers still getting cash discounts but paying later is expected to: a. Increase b. Remain Unchanged c. Decrease d. Change, but the direction of change cannot be determined
answer
a. Increase
question
A bond that has a yield to maturity of 14% and a current yield of 8% a. sells at a premium b. sells at par c. has a coupon rate in excess of the market rate of interest d. has a coupon rate less than the market rate of interest
answer
d. has a coupon rate less than the market rate of interest
question
The manipulation of taxes and government spending by Congress for the purpose of altering real national output and employment, controlling inflation and stimulating economic growth is known as which of the following? A. Discretionary Fiscal Policy B. Balancing the Budget C. Contractionary Fiscal Policy D. Expansionary Fiscal Policy
answer
A. Discretionary Fiscal Policy
question
Of the following, which is a questioning clue word MOST likely associated with the "analysis" higher order thinking skill of Bloom's Taxonomy? A.Name B. Reconstruct C. In What Ways D. Arrange
answer
D. Arrange
question
Once a decision of the court has become final, it is said to be: A. res ipsa loquitur B. res judicata C. a directed verdict D. none of the above
answer
B. res judicata
question
Which of the following is a NOT disadvantage of the entrepreneurial specialty skill niche? A. Those in the specialty skill niche look only directly ahead at their narrow specialized field, thereby creating "tunnel vision." B. Those in the specialty skill niche in the early stages must search for the specialty skill opportunity with time to develop the skill. C. Those in the specialty skill niche are usually dependent on somebody else to bring the product or service to market. D. The specialty skill niche may become commonplace and universal.
answer
B. Those in the specialty skill niche in the early stages must search for the specialty skill opportunity with time to develop the skill.
question
Which of the following types of organization divides the units so that each has a dissimilar set of duties and responsibilities? A. territorial organization B. client-centered organization C. functional organization D. product organization
answer
C. functional organization
question
Hardware or software that prevents unauthorized users from accessing a network is known as which of the following? A. Drywall B. Information Security C. Antivirus D. Firewall
answer
D. Firewall
question
A debt instrument with 5 - 10 years to maturity is considered which of the following? A. intermediate-term B. Long-Term C. Short-Term D. Balloon Payment Loan
answer
A. intermediate-term -An intermediate-term loan is a debt instrument with 5 - 10 years to maturity. It appears as a long-term debt on the balance sheet since it matures in over one year but it matures quicker than long-term debt.
question
Which of the following is an example of a formal research method? A. Informal Survey B. Scientific Experiment C. Talk with Employer D. Interview Audience
answer
B. Scientific Experiment -Papers and reports need to be carefully researched. This can include formal and informal research. A scientific experiment is formal research. The other answers are informal research.
question
A report, such as sales report that keeps track of what an individual is doing, is which of the following types of reports? A. Operating Report B. Plan C. Personal Activity Report D. Budget
answer
C. Personal Activity Report -helps management track what individuals are doing. Sales reports are an example of this type of report. Other examples are: expense reports, conference reports and performance reviews.
question
FASB
answer
Financial Accounting Standards Board develops the rules that form the foundation of financial reporting. Private sector group.
question
LASB
answer
The International Accounting Standards board. The global counterpart to the FASB.
question
GAAP
answer
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.
question
IFRS
answer
International Financial Reporting Standards. Global generally accepted accounting principles.
question
Managerial Accounting
answer
Used for business planning, controlling, decision making. Targeted toward specific needs of management.
question
Fair Value
answer
Accounts based upon subjective Assessments of current worth.
question
Historical Cost Principle
answer
Transactions and events are measured and reported at acquisition cost.
question
CPA
answer
Certified Public Accountant
question
Assets
answer
Are the economic resources of the entity, and include such items as cash, accounts receivable (amounts owed to a firm by its customers), inventories, land, buildings, equipment, and even intangible assets like patents and other legal rights. Assets entail probable future economic benefits to the owner.
question
Liabilities
answer
are amounts owed to others relating to loans, extensions of credit, and other obligations arising in the course of business. Implicit to the notion of a liability is the idea of an "existing" obligation to pay or perform some duty.
question
Owners' Equity
answer
is the owner "interest" in the business. It is sometimes called net assets, because it is equivalent to assets minus liabilities for a particular business. Who are the "owners?" The answer to this question depends on the legal form of the entity; examples of entity types include sole proprietorships, partnerships, and corporations.
question
Revenue
answer
is the enhancement resulting from providing goods or services to customers. Revenue will contribute to income, and income is added to retained earnings. Gains.
question
Expenses
answer
Costs incurred in producing revenues. Expenses can generally be regarded as costs of doing business. Revenue is the "top line" amount corresponding to the total benefits generated from business activity. Income is the "bottom line" amount that results after deducting expenses from revenue. Losses.
question
D-i-E-A-D
answer
debits increase expenses, assets (accounts receivable), and dividends
question
C-d-E-A-D
answer
credits decrease expenses, assets (accounts receivable), and dividends
question
C-i-L-R-E
answer
Credits increase liabilities (accounts payable), revenues, and equity.
question
D-d-L-R-E
answer
Debits decrease liabilities (accounts payable), revenues, and equity.
question
Depreciation
answer
Long-lived assets like buildings and equipment will provide productive benefits to a number of periods. Thus, a portion of their cost is allocated to each period. Can be calculated using the straight-line method, where an equal amount of asset cost is assigned to each year of service life. If a $150,000 truck with a 3-year life was purchased on January 1 of Year 1, depreciation expense would be $50,000 per year ($150,000/3 = $50,000). This expense would be reported on each year's income statement. The annual entry involves a debit to Depreciation Expense and a credit to Accumulated Depreciation (rather than crediting the asset account directly):
question
Unearned Revenue
answer
Often, a business will collect monies in advance of providing goods or services. Such payments received in advance are initially recorded as a debit to Cash and a credit to unearned Revenue. Unearned revenue is reported as a liability, reflecting the company's obligation to deliver product in the future. Remember, revenue cannot be recognized in the income statement until the earnings process is complete. As goods and services are delivered, the unearned Revenue is reduced (debited) and Revenue is increased (credited). The balance sheet at the end of an accounting period would include the remaining unearned revenue for those goods and services not yet delivered.
question
Accruals
answer
Another type of adjusting journal entry pertains to the accrual of unrecorded expenses and revenues. Accruals are expenses and revenues that gradually accumulate throughout an accounting period. Accrued expenses relate to such things as salaries, interest, rent, utilities, and so forth. Accrued revenues might relate to such events as client services that are based on hours worked.
question
Economic Theories
answer
Broadly fall under two categories: microeconomics and macroeconomics.
question
Microeconomics
answer
deals with the economy at a smaller level or at a smaller scale, such as the market for a particular product (e.g., automobiles) or the behavior of an individual firm in a particular industry (e.g., decisions made by one of the Big Three in the U.S. automobile industry).
question
Contractionary Fiscal Policy
answer
is a government policy of reducing spending and raising taxes. In the language of some first courses in macroneconomics, it shifts the IS curve (investment/saving curve) to the left.
question
Discretionary Fiscal Policy
answer
Discretionary fiscal policy is the deliberate manipulation of taxes and government spending by Congress for the purpose of altering real national output and employment, controlling inflation and stimulating economic growth. It is a fiscal policy achieved through government intervention, as opposed to automatic stabilizers.
question
Expansionary Fiscal Policy
answer
A macroeconomic policy that seeks to expand the money supply to encourage economic growth or combat inflation (price increases). One form of expansionary policy is fiscal policy, which comes in the form of tax cuts, rebates and increased government spending. Expansionary policies can also come from central banks, which focus on increasing the money supply in the economy.
question
Profit Maximization Principle
answer
The firm will stop production at the level where marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
question
Marginal Revenue
answer
The revenue that the sale of an additional unit generates.
question
Marginal Cost
answer
the cost of producing an additional unit of the product under consideration.
question
Economies of Scale
answer
Economies of scale in production imply that as the level of production rises the cost per unit of product falls from the use of any plant (generally, up to a point).
question
Macroeconomics
answer
studies the behavior of the overall economy (e.g., the U.S. economy as a whole), although it sometimes also looks at economies of different regions that comprise the overall economy.
question
CPI
answer
Consumer price index, measures the average retail prices paid by consumers for goods and services typically bought by them.
question
PPI
answer
Producer Price Index, which measures the wholesale prices of items that are typically used by producers.
question
GDP
answer
Price deflator, which measures the prices of all goods and services included in the GDP.
question
Laissez-Faire
answer
Economic environment in which transactions between private parties are free from government restrictions, tariffs, and subsidies, with only enough regulations to protect property rights.
question
Interest Rate
answer
is invariably quoted in nominal terms—i.e., the rate is not adjusted for inflation. Thus, the commonly followed interest rate is actually the nominal interest rate. Nevertheless there are hundreds of nominal interest rates.
question
Wants Versus Needs
answer
Wants: Toys, Entertainment, Jewelry Need: Food, Clothing, Shelter
question
Economic Roles
answer
1. Analyze the current condition of the economy 2. Predict crisis 3. Factors that fix crisis
question
Types of Economic Resources
answer
Four types Labor, land, capital, entrepreneurial. Economic resources are the assets (things of value) which an economy (or business) may have available to supply and produce goods and services to meet the ever-changing needs and wants of individuals (in the case of a business) and society (in the case of society as a whole.).
question
Understands the role of money in the U.S. economy
answer
-The Composition of the Money Supply -The Relationship Between Interest Rates and The Quantity of Money Required and Available in Money Markets -The Operation and Role of the Federal Reserve Bank -Global Markets
question
Price Elasticity
answer
Relationship between the total amounts spent on a good in the market and the price of the good. It is the percentage change in quantity divided by the percentage change in price. If a price decrease results in larger total expenditure (and vice versa), the good is price elastic. If a price decrease results in less total expenditure (or vice versa), the good is price inelastic.
question
Procedures for Personal Financial Management
answer
-Planning a Budget -Saving Money -Reconciling Bank Statements -Planning Investments
question
Understands consumer financial issues
answer
-Making Major Buying Decisions -Comparative Shopping -Purchasing Insurance -Acquiring Personal Property
question
Consumer Credit
answer
A debt that someone incurs for the purpose of purchasing a good or service. This includes purchases made on credit cards, lines of credit and some loans.
question
Short-Term Loans
answer
made to enable people to purchase goods or services primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
question
Revolving Credit
answer
is a type of credit that does not have a fixed number of payments, in contrast to installment credit. Credit cards are an example of revolving credit used by consumers.
question
Installment Credit
answer
involves credit that is repaid by the borrower in several periodic payments.
question
Non-Installment Credit
answer
loans repaid in one lump sum.
question
Issues related to consumer credit
answer
-Costs of various forms of credit: you need to know the annual percentage rate and how the interest is being calculated. -Procedures and qualifications for obtaining credit: When a consumer makes an application for credit, the creditor must decide whether he or she is a good risk. Most creditors regularly order a credit report on an applicant rather than undertake a costly investigation on their own. Files are retained by two types of credit agencies.
question
ECOA
answer
Equal Credit Opportunity Act, prohibits credit discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age, or because you get public assistance. Creditors may ask you for most of this information in certain situations, but they may not use it when deciding whether to give you credit or when setting the terms of your credit. Not everyone who applies for credit gets it or gets the same terms: Factors like income, expenses, debts, and credit history are among the considerations lenders use to determine your creditworthiness.
question
Functional Organization
answer
The classic organizational structure where the employees are grouped hierarchically, managed through clear lines of authority, and report ultimately to one top person. By orienting people toward a special activity, functional organization concentrates competence in particularly effective ways. Units are divided so that each has a dissimilar set of duties and responsibilities. However, functional organization tends to deemphasize interdepartmental cooperation and could create boundaries between departments.
question
Product Organization
answer
Companies with multiple product lines or specific retail divisions can benefit from a product-style organizational structure. This allows the company to create a tall structure divided by product type or style. Each division has its own internal departments and operates like a mini-business.
question
Entrepreneurial Skills
answer
-Personal Skills -Communication Skills -Negotiation Skills -Leadership Skills -Sales Skills
question
Understands the changing nature of business
answer
-Technological Changes -Cultural Diversity -Global Resources -Competition
question
Applies the various functions of management
answer
-Planning -Organizing -Leading -Controlling
question
Complaint
answer
a statement made in a civil action; a formal charge, made under oath, about the commission of a crime
question
Court Order
answer
a direction or command given by a court or other adjudicative body that is entered into the record but not necessarily included in the final judgment
question
Subpoena
answer
a written order issued by the court, commanding a person to give testimony
question
Testimony
answer
a spoken or written statement given under oath
question
Summons
answer
a notice instructing a person to appear in court as a defendant, juror or witness
question
Discovery
answer
when used as a legal term means "data or documents that someone involved in a legal action must disclose to another person before or during a proceeding"
question
Mediation
answer
the "attempt to bring about a peaceful settlement between disputing parties through the intervention of a neutral third party"
question
Arbitration
answer
is the legal process used by disputing parties when they "submit their differences to the judgment of an impartial person that has been appointed by mutual consent or statutory provision"
question
Understands multicultural business opportunities and competitive factors that affect the international business environment
answer
-Social -Cultural -Political -Legal -Geographic -Economic
question
Positive work habits and skills for achieving success in the workplace:
answer
-Dependability -Professional appearance -Accuracy -Honesty -Initiative -Time management -Decision making -Problem solving -Prioritizing tasks
question
Procedures for carrying out administrative support responsibilities:
answer
-Scheduling -Meeting -Planning -Organization
question
Procedures and systems for managing information:
answer
-Document storage and retrieval -Supply inventories -Purchasing schedules -Inventory record keeping -Maintenance -Repair schedules
question
Law of Demand
answer
A microeconomic law that states that, all other factors being equal, as the price of a good or service increases, consumer demand for the good or service will decrease and vice versa.
question
Equal Employment Opportunity Act
answer
The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 (Public Law 92-261) instituted the federal Equal Employment Opportunity program, which is designed to ensure fair treatment to all segments of society without regard to race, religion, color, national origin, or sex. The goal of this law and program is to make discrimination in employment illegal.
question
Americans with Disabilities Act
answer
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) gives civil rights protections to individuals with disabilities that are like those provided to individuals on the basis of race, sex, national origin, and religion. It guarantees equal opportunity for individuals with disabilities in employment, public accommodations, transportation, State and local government services, and telecommunications.
question
Tariff
answer
A tariff is either (1) a tax on imports or exports (an international trade tariff), or (2) a list of prices for such things as rail service, bus routes, and electrical usage (electrical tariff, etc.)
question
LAN
answer
Local Area Network, is a computer network that interconnects computers in a limited area such as a home, school, computer laboratory, or office building using network media.
question
WAN
answer
Wide Area Network, spans a large geographic area, such as a state, province or country. WANs often connect multiple smaller networks, such as local area networks (LANs) or metro area networks (MANs). The world's most popular WAN is the Internet. Some segments of the Internet, like VPN-based extranets, are also WANs in themselves. Finally, many WANs are corporate or research networks that utilize leased lines.
question
The Internet
answer
is a global system of interconnected computer networks that use the standard Internet protocol suite (TCP/IP) to serve several billion users worldwide. It is a network of networks that consists of millions of private, public, academic, business, and government networks, of local to global scope, that are linked by a broad array of electronic, wireless and optical networking technologies.
question
Peer to Peer
answer
P2P, computing or networking is a distributed application architecture that partitions tasks or work loads between peers. Peers are equally privileged, equipotent participants in the application. They are said to form a peer-to-peer network of nodes.
question
Client/Server
answer
is a distributed application structure in computing that partitions tasks or workloads between the providers of a resource or service, called servers, and service requesters, called clients. Often clients and servers communicate over a computer network on separate hardware, but both client and server may reside in the same system.
question
Simple Interest
answer
Simple interest is calculated only on the beginning principal. For instance, if one were to receive 5% interest on a beginning value of $100, the first year interest would be $5. They would then continue to receive 5% interest on the original $100 amount, over five years the growth of the original investment.
question
Compound Interest
answer
interest is calculated not only on the beginning interest, but on any interest accumulated in the meantime. For instance, if one were to receive 5% compound interest on a beginning value of $100, the first year interest would be the same as simple interest on the $100, or $5. The second year, though, interest would be calculated on the beginning amount of year 2, which would be $105.
question
Annuity:
answer
Equal Annual Series of Cash Flows Year 1: $100 deposited at end of year= $100.00 Year 2: $100 × .05 = $5.00 + $100 + $100= $205.00 Year 3: $205 × .05 = $10.25 + $205 + $100= $315.25
question
Ordinary Annuity:
answer
Payments are required at the end of each period. For example, straight bonds usually pay coupon payments at the end of every six months until the bond's maturity date.
question
Annuity Due:
answer
Payments are required at the beginning of each period. Rent is an example of annuity due. You are usually required to pay rent when you first move in at the beginning of the month, and then on the first of each month thereafter.
question
Perpetuity
answer
is a cash flow without a fixed time horizon. For example, if someone were promised that they would receive a cash flow of $400 per year until they died, that would be a perpetuity. To find the present value of a perpetuity, simply take the annual return in dollars and divide it by the appropriate discount rate.
Business Management
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Fair Labor Standards Act
Human Resource Management
Human Resources Management
Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act
HR ch:4 – Flashcard 127 terms

Alexandra Robertson
127 terms
Preview
HR ch:4 – Flashcard
question
1. Because a job analysis includes information about the requirements of someone performing a job, it provides the criteria for evaluating the people who do the work. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
2. A statement of the different duties, tasks, and responsibilities of a job is known as a job specification. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
3. Job specifications describe the duties, tasks, and responsibilities performed on the job and therefore play a key role in performance appraisal. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
4. KSAOs refer to the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes required of a person performing a job. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
5. If the criteria used to hire and evaluate employees are vague and not job-related, employers are less likely to find themselves being accused of discriminating against the members of protected classes. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
6. Requiring a high school diploma, even for a laborer job, is acceptable under the law if the company has a policy that all employees must be high school graduates. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
7. Job analysis is the process of obtaining information about jobs through a process of determining what the duties, tasks, or activities of those jobs are. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
8. Common methods of analyzing jobs include interviews, questionnaires, observation, and diaries. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
9. Employee interviewing is the most accurate method of job analysis because the employee is least likely to exaggerate essential job functions. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
10. Inflating a job's responsibilities can occur unintentionally. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
11. O*Net Online, maintained by the Department of Labor, contains standardized and comprehensive job descriptions. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
12. Critical incident analysis is an organization-specific list of tasks and their descriptions that are used as a basis to identify components of a job. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
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13. The critical job tasks identified by the critical incident approach to job analysis include those important behaviors and job responsibilities performed by the jobholder that lead to job success. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
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14. Job descriptions, job specifications, and even job evaluations can now be downloaded quickly from O*NET. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
15. The task inventory analysis method was pioneered by Microsoft. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
16. Most job descriptions include a job title, a job identification section, and a job duties section. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
17. The job title is of psychological importance as well as descriptive. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
18. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, the purpose of essential functions in a job description is to help match job requirements to organizational goals. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
19. The law requires employers to be able to show that the job criteria they use to select employees for a particular position relate specifically to the duties for that job. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
20. Job specifications usually cover two areas: (1) the skill required to perform the job, and (2) the level of autonomy inherent in the position. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
21. Federal guidelines and court decisions now permit that performance requirements of a job may be based on invalid job-related criteria. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
22. Managers of businesses where employees perform many different job tasks must be concerned about writing specific job descriptions because federal guidelines and court decisions require job requirements to be based on valid job-related criteria. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
23. Job design is the process of studying and designing equipment and systems that are easy and efficient for employees to use so that their physical well-being is not compromised. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
24. Software programs, more often than not, actually hinder the job analysis process. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
25. Job enrichment can improve employee performance in cases of dissatisfaction with pay and benefits. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
26. Adding more meaningful tasks to an employee's job in an effort to make it more rewarding is an example of job enrichment. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
27. According to Oldham, skill variety is the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, which demand the use of a number of different skills and talents by the jobholder. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
28. The job characteristics model suggests that a motivated, satisfied, and productive employee is one who (1) experiences meaningful work; (2) experiences responsibility for work outcomes; and (3) has knowledge of the results of his or her work activities. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
29. In the job characteristics model, skill variety refers to the amount of freedom held by an employee to schedule work and perform its activities. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
30. In the job characteristics model, task identity refers to the degree to which a job has a substantial impact on the work of others. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
31. In the job characteristics model, feedback refers to the degree to which a job provides substantial freedom, independence, and discretion to an employee. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
32. In the job characteristics model, task identity refers to the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
33. In the job characteristics model, skill variety refers to a job entailing different activities that require the use of different skills and talents by the jobholder. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
34. According to the job characteristics model, task identity requires performing a job from beginning to end. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
35. Job enlargement is the process of adding a greater variety of tasks to a job. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
36. Empowerment encourages employees to become innovators and managers of their own work. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
37. Employee empowerment is an example of when an organization allows its employees to participate in the decisions that affect the overall strategic direction of the organization. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
38. Participation, innovation, access to information, and accountability are the four conditions that organizations must encourage to realize the benefits of empowerment. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
39. Job design objectives that emphasize industrial engineering considerations concentrate on the study of work cycles to determine how to reduce the time needed to complete the cycle. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
40. A critical aspect of industrial engineering is the establishment of time standards for a particular work cycle. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
41. Dejobbing refers to the process of structuring organizations not around jobs but around projects that are constantly changing. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
42. Ergonomics is concerned with the design of equipment to accommodate human capabilities. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
43. The job specifications section should also include interpersonal skills if a competency-based job analysis approach is used. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
44. The concept of work teams holds that employees, not managers, are in the best position to contribute to work performance. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
45. Employee empowerment refers to a situation in which workers are enthusiastic and immersed in their work to the degree that it improves the performance of their companies. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
46. Characteristics of successful teams include commitment to shared goals, open communication, shared leadership, and clear role assignments. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
47. Organizations can help prevent some of the problems a team experiences by determining how to compensate team members individually and jointly for its achievement. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
48. The major advantage of the compressed workweek involves federal laws regarding overtime. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
49. A compressed work week includes anything less than 40 hours worked per week. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
50. Employers using the compressed workweek may be required to pay overtime to employees under the Fair Labor Standards Act. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
51. The Fair Labor Standards Act requires the payment of overtime to regular workers who work more than eight hours in a day. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
52. Employees participate in flextime when they do entirely different jobs on a rotating schedule. a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
53. Job sharing is effective with employees who desire to phase into retirement. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
54. Telecommuting is effective in retaining valued employees. a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
55. A job analysis approach that utilizes an inventory of the various types of work activities that can constitute any job is known as: a. functional job analysis. b. the critical incident method. c. task inventory analysis. d. the position analysis questionnaire system.
answer
a. functional job analysis.
question
56. A job analysis method by which important job tasks are identified for job success is known as: a. functional job analysis. b. the critical incident method. c. task inventory analysis. d. the position analysis questionnaire system.
answer
b. the critical incident method.
question
57. An organization-specific list of tasks and their descriptions used as a basis to identify components of a job is known as: a. functional job analysis. b. the critical incident method. c. task inventory analysis. d. competency-based analysis.
answer
c. task inventory analysis.
question
58. A job specification is: a. a group of related activities and duties. b. a set of different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee. c. a statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required of a person to perform a job. d. a statement of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job to be performed.
answer
c. a statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required of a person to perform a job.
question
59. A statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a job is called a: a. job requirement. b. job specification. c. job position. d. job objective.
answer
b. job specification.
question
60. A job description is: a. a group of related activities and duties of a job. b. a set of different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee. c. a statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a job. d. a statement of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.
answer
d. a statement of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.
question
61. Discrepancies between the knowledge, skills, and abilities of a jobholder and the KSAOs required for the job can be remedied by: a. training. b. discipline. c. cooperation. d. corporate leadership.
answer
a. training.
question
62. _____ is the process of studying and designing equipment and systems that are easy and efficient for people to use and that ensure their physical well-being. a. Dejobbing b. Industrial engineering c. Ergonomics d. Autonomy
answer
c. Ergonomics
question
63. Job analysis is called the cornerstone of HRM because: a. the information obtained is proactive. b. it is the first job given to new HRM employees. c. the information it collects serves many HRM functions. d. it is required by the law.
answer
c. the information it collects serves many HRM functions.
question
64. The process of obtaining information about jobs by determining their duties, tasks, or activities is called: a. job design. b. job evaluation. c. job analysis. d. job search.
answer
c. job analysis.
question
65. _____ is a field of study concerned with analyzing work methods and establishing time standards. a. Ergonomics b. Functional job analysis c. Industrial engineering d. Competency-based analysis
answer
c. Industrial engineering
question
66. The American with Disabilities Act requires that job duties and responsibilities must be: a. essential job functions for job success. b. adjusted to describe the reasonable accommodations that an employer is willing to provide. c. limited to not more than twenty individual job tasks. d. written by job incumbents most familiar with the job.
answer
a. essential job functions for job success.
question
67. Under which method of analyzing jobs would you videotape jobs for later study? a. Interviews b. Questionnaires c. Observation d. Diaries
answer
c. Observation
question
68. Which of the following is NOT a method to gather job analysis information? a. Diaries b. Applications c. Questionnaires d. Observations
answer
b. Applications
question
69. Based upon the work of Hackman and Oldham, which of the following is NOT one of the five core job dimensions related to psychological states? a. Skill variety b. Task identity c. Task significance d. Task isolation
answer
d. Task isolation
question
70. Job data may be obtained in all of the following ways EXCEPT from: a. guidelines on employee selection procedures. b. interviews with jobholders. c. observations by HR personnel. d. questionnaires completed by employees and supervisors.
answer
a. guidelines on employee selection procedures.
question
71. When a job analyst doubts the accuracy of information provided by employees, he or she should obtain additional information from all of the following EXCEPT: a. the employees. b. the managers. c. job analysts from a different organization. d. individuals who perform the same job.
answer
c. job analysts from a different organization.
question
72. The degree to which carrying out the work activities required by the job results in the individual being given direct and clear information about the effectiveness of his or her performance is known as: a. task identity. b. autonomy. c. feedback. d. task variety.
answer
c. feedback.
question
73. The objective of the critical incident method of job analysis is to: a. challenge the employees with their false statements. b. provide information for job evaluation based on the critical value of the job. c. prioritize job duties and responsibilities. d. identify critical job tasks.
answer
d. identify critical job tasks.
question
74. Which popular method of job analysis was pioneered by the U.S. Air Force? a. Dynamic job analysis b. Team-based analysis c. Task inventory analysis d. Competency-based analysis
answer
c. Task inventory analysis
question
75. In a fast-moving environment where job analysis must accommodate change, many organizations may adopt a _____, where the emphasis is on characteristics of successful performers rather than standard duties. a. dynamic job analysis b. team-based analysis c. strategic analysis of jobs d. competency-based analysis
answer
d. competency-based analysis
question
76. Most job descriptions contain all of the following EXCEPT: a. the job title. b. a job identification section. c. a job duties section. d. a job evaluation section.
answer
d. a job evaluation section.
question
77. The job title: a. is of psychological importance as it provides status to the employee. b. indicates the level within the occupational hierarchy occupied by the jobholder. c. may indicate the basic duties involved in the job. d. all of these are correct.
answer
d. all of these are correct.
question
78. The section of a job description that provides information about the location of the job and the reporting relationships involved is the: a. job duties section. b. job identification section. c. job title. d. job specification.
answer
b. job identification section.
question
79. The statements in a job description covering job duties or essential job functions are usually arranged in: a. alphabetical order. b. numerical order. c. order of importance. d. sequential order.
answer
c. order of importance.
question
80. The job specification section of a job description should include: a. the skills required to perform the job. b. the location of the job. c. the person to whom the jobholder reports. d. the date of job posting.
answer
a. the skills required to perform the job.
question
81. Which of the following is NOT a problem frequently associated with job descriptions? a. They tend to broaden the scope of activities of the jobholder. b. They may be vague or poorly written. c. They include illegal specifications. d. They require frequent updating.
answer
a. They tend to broaden the scope of activities of the jobholder.
question
82. Federal guidelines and court decisions require that the specific performance requirements of a job be based on _____ job-related criteria. a. valid b. skilled c. incompetent d. competent
answer
a. valid
question
83. The degree to which the job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work, that is, doing a job from beginning to end with a visible outcome is known as: a. autonomy. b. task significance. c. skill variety. d. task identity.
answer
d. task identity.
question
84. _____ is accomplished by adding more meaningful tasks and duties to make the work more rewarding and satisfying. a. Job augmentation b. Job rotation c. Job enlargement d. Job enrichment
answer
d. Job enrichment
question
85. Any effort that makes work more rewarding or satisfying by adding more meaningful tasks to an employee's job is called: a. job enlargement. b. job augmentation. c. job enrichment. d. job rotation.
answer
c. job enrichment.
question
86. Job enrichment is touted as helping employees with: a. self-esteem and job satisfaction. b. dissatisfaction with pay. c. employment security. d. dissatisfaction with benefits.
answer
a. self-esteem and job satisfaction.
question
87. _____ is the process of adding a greater variety of tasks to a job. a. Job enrichment b. Job enlargement c. Job rotation d. Workplace expansion
answer
b. Job enlargement
question
88. According to Herzberg, managers can enrich the jobs of employees by: a. adding more responsibility to jobs. b. increasing fringe benefits. c. improving the quality of employee supervision. d. removing safety hazards.
answer
a. adding more responsibility to jobs.
question
89. According to the job characteristics model, what three psychological states of a jobholder result in motivated, satisfied, and productive employees? a. Meaningfulness of the work, task significance, and autonomy b. Meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for completion of a whole identifiable piece of work, and task significance c. Meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for outcomes, and knowledge of work results d. Meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for outcomes, and fair compensation
answer
c. Meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for outcomes, and knowledge of work results
question
90. Hackman and Oldham propose that the five characteristics in their job characteristics model lead to all of the following EXCEPT: a. work group synergy. b. improved work performance. c. internal motivation. d. lower absenteeism and turnover.
answer
a. work group synergy.
question
91. Skill variety refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of other people. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
answer
a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents.
question
92. Task identity refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of other people. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
answer
b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome.
question
93. Task significance refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of others. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
answer
c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of others.
question
94. Autonomy refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of others. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
answer
d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
question
95. Feedback refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which an individual is given direct and clear information about the effectiveness of his or her performance. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
answer
c. the degree to which an individual is given direct and clear information about the effectiveness of his or her performance.
question
96. _____ is a naturally occurring phenomenon whereby employees mold their tasks to fit their individual strengths, passions, and motives better. a. Job development b. Dejobbing c. Employee engagement d. Job crafting
answer
d. Job crafting
question
97. To achieve empowerment, organizations must encourage participation, innovation, access to information, and _____. a. accountability b. feedback c. responsibility d. training
answer
a. accountability
question
98. Analyzing the elements in a work cycle that make up a particular job activity and determining the time required to complete each element is called: a. job analysis. b. industrial engineering. c. human engineering. d. job design.
answer
b. industrial engineering.
question
99. _____ refers to the process of structuring organizations not around jobs but around projects that are constantly changing. a. Employee engagement b. Dejobbing c. Job crafting d. Ergonomics
answer
b. Dejobbing
question
100. _____ refers to a situation in which workers are enthusiastic and immersed in their work to the degree that it improves the performance of their companies. a. Dejobbing b. Job crafting c. Employee engagement d. Employee empowerment
answer
c. Employee engagement
question
101. _____ occurs when the interaction and outcome of team members is greater than the sum of their individual efforts. a. Autonomy b. Teamwork c. Ergonomics d. Synergy
answer
d. Synergy
question
102. Which of the following is NOT a synergistic team characteristic? a. Support b. Consensus c. Acceptance d. Agreement
answer
d. Agreement
question
103. _____ are groups of highly trained individuals performing a set of interdependent job tasks within a natural work unit. The team members rely on consensus-type decision-making to perform their work duties, solve problems, or deal with internal or external customers. a. Cross-functional teams b. Self-directed teams c. Project teams d. Task-force teams
answer
b. Self-directed teams
question
104. Complete training for teams should cover each of the following skills, EXCEPT: a. leadership. b. goal setting. c. conflict resolution. d. etiquette.
answer
d. etiquette.
question
105. The _____ has stringent rules requiring the payment of overtime to nonsupervisory employees who work more than forty hours a week. a. Fair Labor Standards Act b. Equal Pay Act c. Rehabilitation Act d. Taft-Hartley Act
answer
a. Fair Labor Standards Act
question
106. A compressed work week provides all of the following, EXCEPT: a. improved recruitment and retention of employees. b. better coordinated work and production schedules. c. a reduction in job satisfaction and morale. d. greater accommodation for the employee in making personal appointments.
answer
c. a reduction in job satisfaction and morale.
question
107. Telecommuting is fairly common in: a. Ohio. b. Texas. c. California. d. Maine.
answer
c. California.
question
108. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of telecommuting? a. Reduced absenteeism b. Greater overhead costs c. Increased productivity d. Reduced carbon footprint
answer
b. Greater overhead costs
question
109. What occurs when the interaction and outcome of team members is greater than the sum of their individual efforts? a. Unanimity b. Dejobbing c. Synergy d. Ergonomics
answer
c. Synergy
question
110. Team synergy is heightened when team members engage in behaviors such as support, active listening, consensus decision-making, and _____. a. unanimity b. prioritizing options c. regular meetings d. disagreements
answer
d. disagreements
question
111. A group staffed with a mix of specialists based on assignment (non-voluntary) that is formed to accomplish a specific objective is called a _____. a. self-directed team b. project team c. cross-functional team d. process-improvement team
answer
c. cross-functional team
question
112. A group of employees formed to design a new product or service is called a(n): a. self-directed team. b. project team. c. cross-functional team. d. employee rotation unit.
answer
b. project team.
question
113. A group of employees formed by management to immediately resolve a major problem and develop a long-term plan for problem resolution is called a(n): a. self-directed team. b. task force team. c. cross-functional team. d. employee rotation unit.
answer
b. task force team.
question
114. A group of experienced people from different departments appointed by management and charged with improving productivity and decreasing waste in processes that affect all departments involved is called a(n): a. self-directed team. b. process-improvement team. c. cross-functional team. d. employee rotation unit.
answer
b. process-improvement team.
question
115. _____ use advanced computer and telecommunications technology to link team members who are geographically dispersed. a. Content teams b. Whole teams c. Advanced teams d. Virtual teams
answer
d. Virtual teams
question
116. Work arrangement programs involving a work schedule that differs from normal workweek schedules of 9 to 5, five days a week, include all of the following EXCEPT: a. the compressed workweek. b. flextime. c. job sharing. d. job enrichment.
answer
d. job enrichment.
question
117. When an employee works eighty hours over nine days and takes one day off every other week, the employee's work schedule is known as a(n): a. compressed workweek. b. enriched workweek. c. flextime arrangement. d. adaptable schedule.
answer
a. compressed workweek.
question
118. Compressed workweeks are a problem because the Fair Labor Standards Act requires the payment of overtime to regular employees who work more than: a. 8 hours in a day. b. 40 hours in a week. c. five days a week. d. 10 hours in a day.
answer
b. 40 hours in a week.
question
119. Reasons for implementation of compressed workweek schedules include all of the following EXCEPT: a. coordinating production schedules. b. recruiting and retaining employees. c. avoiding paying overtime. d. balancing employee and organizational needs.
answer
c. avoiding paying overtime.
question
120. When an employee can adjust their daily starting and quitting times, provided they work a certain number of hours per day or week, their work schedule is known as: a. a compressed workweek. b. an enriched workweek. c. a flextime arrangement. d. an adaptable schedule.
answer
c. a flextime arrangement.
question
121. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of flextime schedules? a. Flextime is difficult to implement in situations where workstations must be staffed at all times. b. Flextime makes communication and control more difficult for supervisors. c. Flextime makes it difficult to recruit and retain personnel. d. Flextime leads to increased energy costs due to extended facility hours.
answer
c. Flextime makes it difficult to recruit and retain personnel.
question
122. The advantages of flextime schedules include all of the following EXCEPT: a. improved communication among employees and supervisors. b. recruiting and retaining employees. c. improving customer service. d. balancing employee and organizational needs.
answer
a. improved communication among employees and supervisors.
question
123. Employers favor job sharing since it serves to: a. reduce labor costs. b. reduce layoffs. c. reduce training costs. d. reduce employee appraisals.
answer
b. reduce layoffs.
question
124. Job sharing is suited to all of the following EXCEPT: a. people who only wish to work part-time. b. spouses with families who want to work part-time. c. people who need full-time work to satisfy all of their obligations. d. older workers who wish to phase into retirement.
answer
c. people who need full-time work to satisfy all of their obligations.
question
125. From the employer's perspective, telecommuting is advantageous for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. increased worker productivity. b. reduced carbon footprints. c. replacement of nontelecommuting employees. d. retention of valued employees.
answer
c. replacement of nontelecommuting employees.
question
126. Which of the following is an advantage of telecommuting? a. Employees develop high self-discipline while working alone at home. b. Communication within an organization improves as telecommuting is unambiguous in comparison with face-to-face communication. c. Line managers accustomed to managing by observation may find supervising distributed employees easy. d. It reduces overhead costs and office space of a company.
answer
d. It reduces overhead costs and office space of a company.
question
127. Virtual teams: a. have their problems as well as benefits. b. have never caught on in Europe. c. seem to be without problems. d. began with the invention of color TV.
answer
a. have their problems as well as benefits.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Full Time Employee
Long Term Contract
Pop Quiz: Chapter 6 (Recruiting and Labor Markets) – Flashcards 20 terms

Larry Charles
20 terms
Preview
Pop Quiz: Chapter 6 (Recruiting and Labor Markets) – Flashcards
question
Stacey, the HR manager of a bank, restricts her recruiting efforts for the post of loan officer to placing advertisements on the web site of the American Banking Association. This will allow Stacey to determine the ________ for the job of loan officer.
answer
applicant population
question
Which of the following statements is true about employees of employee leasing companies?
answer
They are supplied by contract to employers with jobs.
question
If an employer lists the designation EEO/M-F/AA/ADA in its employment advertisements, it indicates that
answer
the employer has a policy of complying with equal employment regulations.
question
A passive job seeker is one who:
answer
has a good job and is not actively looking to change jobs.
question
Exclusive use of the internet for recruiting can reduce the diversity of an employer's applicant population because:
answer
individuals from lower socioeconomic groups mostly have limited access to the Internet.
question
Peter Cullen & Associates uses a private employment agency to locate engineering staff. The company pays a fee to the employment agency every time it hires a candidate provided by the employment agency. In this scenario, Peter Cullen & Associates is using the services of:
answer
Contingency
question
Which of the following is true of internal recruitment?
answer
It can aid succession planning, future promotions, and career development.
question
The percent of applicants hired divided by the total number of applicants offered jobs is termed as:
answer
the acceptance rate
question
What can a recruiter learn from calculating the acceptance rate?
answer
Whether recruiters can "close the deal" with top candidates
question
A ________ is a comparison of the number of applicants at one stage of the recruiting process to the number at the next stage.
answer
yield ratio
question
The group of applicants that an organization had available to it when using a particular recruiting approach, such as Internet job boards, is the applicant population.
answer
True
question
Continuous efforts to recruit offer the advantage of keeping the employer in the recruiting market.
answer
True
question
Recruiting should be viewed as a type of organizational marketing and should be consistent with an organization's overall presentation of its image.
answer
True
question
Rules of the U.S. Internal Revenue Service and the U.S. Department of Labor determine which workers qualify as independent contractors.
answer
True
question
Twitter is popular among recruiters because of the absence of any character limit.
answer
False
question
Internet recruiting generates high numbers of applicants and increase work for HR staff far beyond traditional recruiting methods.
answer
True
question
An organization with a strong union has a higher probability of having less flexibility than a nonunion company in deciding who will be hired person will be placed.
answer
True
question
An automated job posting system that automatically contacts internal candidates by company e-mail is an effective method for keeping good employees from looking outside the company for advancement.
answer
True
question
Yield ratio is a measure of the quality of job applicants.
answer
False
question
Resume mining allows HR staff to use software to extract the most promising resumes from a large database.
answer
True
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Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
Protected Health Information
LCCC NUR100 EXAM 1/2 – Flashcards 186 terms

Patricia Smith
186 terms
Preview
LCCC NUR100 EXAM 1/2 – Flashcards
question
What does "I CARE" stand for?
answer
Integrity Caring Adaptability Respect Excellence
question
If you are convicted of a crime during enrollment you must:
answer
Inform the Dean of Nursing/Health Sciences Director of Nursing
question
A Nurse's Guide to the Use of Social Media and Nurse's Guide to Professional Boundaries are provided by:
answer
National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
question
LCCC's nursing program incorporates the mission/purpose/goals of:
answer
Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing (ACEN)
question
Program Goals (2)
answer
1) obtain necessary competency and ability to practice in an entry level position 2) gain knowledge to successfully pass the NCLEX-RN examination
question
LAMs
answer
Concept-based learning activity modules
question
CAI
answer
Computer assisted instruction
question
What is the cutoff for a C required to pass into the next course?
answer
78
question
Is electronic recording permitted?
answer
NO
question
How many labs can you miss before being dismissed?
answer
2
question
How can you make up labs?
answer
Must be scheduled and made up within two weeks, no clinical until lab requirements are met
question
Lab has right to refuse entry if you are:
answer
Over five minutes late or late more than once
question
A student who fails first medication dosage quiz MUST
answer
Meet with lab faculty to seek assistance
question
What score is required to pass dosage calculation quiz in 110?
answer
42/50
question
What score is required to pass dosage calculation quiz in 120?
answer
18/20
question
What score is required to pass dosage calculation quiz in 230?
answer
19/20
question
What score is required to pass dosage calculation quiz in 240?
answer
20/20
question
How many opportunities do you have to pass a skill?
answer
3
question
When will evening students take their final exams?
answer
With day students
question
When and where is clinical make up done?
answer
END of semester at designated main campus site
question
Clinical must be made up when:
answer
Student misses more than 12 hours, at a cost to the student
question
What is the uniform requirement for clinical?
answer
Scrubs, white lab coat, white socks, white shoes and LCCC ID
question
What jewelry is acceptable?
answer
Wedding band and wristwatch, one small pair of stud earrings in the ears
question
What is the piercing/tattoo policy?
answer
No body piercings, tattoos must be covered
question
What is the hair and nail policy?
answer
No artificial nails, kept short Hair must be natural color and worn off the collar
question
What must be carried at all times in clinical areas?
answer
Watch w/ second hand Bandage scissors Medium point black pen Hemostat Penlight Stethoscope
question
What can you wear when picking up an assignment?
answer
NO JEANS/SHORTS/SWEATSHIRTS/FLIPFLOPS Must wear lab coat and ID
question
When can you wear your uniform?
answer
In the clinical area only
question
When must lab coat be worn?
answer
At all times when not performing direct patient care
question
PLO
answer
Program learning objective
question
A grade of "S" indicates:
answer
Student consistently achieves the individual behavioral criteria
question
A grade of "NI" indicates:
answer
Student does not consistently achieve the individual behavior criteria and must develop a midsemester plan to improve performance
question
A grade of "NA" indcates:
answer
Student has not had the opportunity to address the behavioral criteria and must receive an "S" in the final evaluation
question
A grade of "U" indicates:
answer
Student rarely or does not achieve the individual behavior criteria or did not comply with the midsemeter plan
question
When is inclement weather an excuse for missed clinical if college is open?
answer
If school district in which student lives is closed
question
If campus is on compressed schedule, when do evening students report?
answer
At regularly scheduled time unless notified otherwise
question
How much will students be charged for copies of forms handed into health sciences office?
answer
$3.00/page
question
Concentration points to expand upon/includes powerpoint, learning activities and assignment
answer
nursing module
question
What are the 5 R's of notetaking?
answer
Record Reduce Recite Reflect Review
question
Identify a TRUE response by looking for
answer
"Should occur" and "most likely"
question
Identify a FALSE response by looking for
answer
"Except" and "does not include"
question
What guided medicine in prehistoric period?
answer
Magic, religion, superstition
question
What period marked the start or herbalism?
answer
Prehistoric
question
What early civilization was most accomplished in medical techniques?
answer
Ancient Egypt
question
What ancient civilization was the first to utilize community planning to decrease public health problems?
answer
Ancient Egypt Cleanliness/food and water use/sexual relations/exercise
question
Mosaic Code
answer
First organized method of disease control and prevention (Ancient Palestine)
question
First ancient civilization to utilize isolation technique?
answer
Ancient Palestine
question
Gods and goddesses were responsible for health and illness in what society?
answer
Ancient Greece
question
God whose staff is basis of modern day caduceus?
answer
Aesculapius
question
What do the intertwined snakes on the caduceus mean?
answer
Wisdom and immortality
question
Father of Medicine, first to attribute disease to natural causes
answer
Hippocrates
question
Ancient Indian guide to health care practices
answer
Vedas
question
What civilization developed major/minor surgery and prenatal care?
answer
Ancient India
question
What civilization opened the first public hospital? (Male nurses)
answer
Ancient India
question
Ancient Chinese medical practices based on teachings of:
answer
Confucius
question
Masculine forces
answer
Yang
question
Female forces
answer
Yin
question
What civilization opened the first military hospital in Europe?
answer
Ancient Rome
question
Male nursing orders, suits of armor with red cross?
answer
Ancient Rome
question
What period did women of nobility become nurses?
answer
Middle Ages
question
What period brought advancements in pharmacology/chemistry/medical education?
answer
Renaissance
question
In what period did nursing lose its status as a respected profession & why?
answer
Renaissance; prostitutes and drunks became nurses, no nursing education
question
Almshouses
answer
Isolated infectious diseases
question
First hospital in colonies and by who?
answer
Pennsylvania Hospital (1751), Ben Franklin
question
Most known for using sanitation to decrease death rate in Crimean War from 42% to 2%
answer
Florence Nightingale
question
Jamaican nurse who used own resources to help sick when denied right to help Flo
answer
Mary Seacole
question
Organized military hospitals during civil war
answer
Dorothea Dix
question
What was the first nursing textbook?
answer
A Manual of Nursing
question
Health statistics
answer
Florence Nightingale
question
WOC, Abolitionist, sanitary conditions
answer
Sojourner Truth
question
WOC, underground railroad
answer
Harriet Tubman
question
WOC, taught reading/writing to peers
answer
Susie King Taylor
question
Served on front lines of Civil War, American Red Cross
answer
Clara Barton
question
"Hospital Sketches", served until falling ill
answer
Louisa May Alcott
question
Henry Streer Settlement House, public health nursing
answer
Lillian Wald
question
Provides well baby care, health education, disease prevention
answer
Publis health nursing
question
What period was insulin discovered?
answer
WW1/1920s
question
Discovered penicillin
answer
Alexander Fleming
question
Frontier Nursing Service
answer
Mary Breckenridge
question
Provided old age insurance system, grants for maternal/child health, rehab for handicapped, care for crippled/blind, unemployment
answer
Social Security Act of 1935
question
Funding for education to combat nursing shortage came during
answer
WW11
question
First army nurse promoted to colonel
answer
Julie O Flikke
question
Nurse Training Act of 1943
answer
Federal funding to support nursing education
question
Mobile Army Surgical Hospitals
answer
MASH
question
Provided funds for outpatient mental health centers
answer
Community Mental Health Centers Act of 1963
question
1965- provided medical insurance to poor, using public health nurses for bulk of care
answer
Medicaid
question
1965- hospital and medical insurance for aged/permanently disabled/ESRD, home health reimbursement
answer
Medicare
question
First African American president of the ANA?
answer
Barbara Nichols
question
What education do APNs have?
answer
Nurse practitioner with BSN
question
Case management developed to deal with runaway health care costs in what decade?
answer
1980s
question
When were universal precautions mandated and why?
answer
1990s, AIDS/Hep C
question
entry level, work under RNs, technical nursing
answer
LPNs
question
Who was instrumental in developing original ADN programs?
answer
Mildred Montag
question
Mildred Montag
answer
developed original ADN program
question
5 Steps of Scientific Inquiry
answer
Hypothesis Method Data Collection Results Evaluation
question
Conceptualization of some aspect of nursing reality
answer
nursing theory
question
4 things nursing theory does
answer
Explains Describes Predicts Prescribes
question
grand theory
answer
broad in scope, describes and explains large segments of human experience
question
smaller in scope, specific population or specific situation
answer
middle range theory
question
practice theory
answer
smaller in scope, very specific population
question
change in behavior or capability not solely accounted for by growth
answer
learning
question
learning need
answer
desire to know something unknown
question
compliance
answer
desire to learn and act on learning
question
adherence
answer
commitment or attachment to regimen
question
pedagogy
answer
method of teaching children
question
androgogy
answer
method of teaching adults
question
6 functions of cognitive domain
answer
Knowing Comprehending Applying Analysis Synthesis Evaluation
question
cognitive domain
answer
thinking domain
question
affective domain
answer
feelings domain
question
psychomotor domain
answer
skill domain
question
fine and gross motor abilities
answer
psychomotor domain
question
feelings, interests, attitudes, appreciations
answer
affective domain
question
positive reinforcement, imitation, modeling
answer
behaviorism
question
cognitivism
answer
complex cognitive activity, structures and processes, developmental/individual readiness
question
humanism
answer
self-motivated, self-initiated, self-evaluated
question
system of activities intended to produce learning
answer
teaching
question
geragogy
answer
method used to teach older adults
question
motivation
answer
desire to learn
question
readiness
answer
behaviors/cues reflect the learner's motivation to learn at a specific time
question
active learning
answer
critical thinking
question
passive learning
answer
listening
question
self care is a human need, deficits require nursing action
answer
Dorothea Orem
question
nurse reacts to nonverbal/verbal expression of needs
answer
Ida Jean Orlando
question
meeting personal needs of patient with optimal environment
answer
Florence Nightingale
question
nursing is an art, nurturing care
answer
Ernestine Wiedenbach
question
rehabilitation, self treatment, self actualization
answer
Lydia E Hall
question
altruism
answer
patient welfare
question
autonomy
answer
personal freedom and right of competent people to make choices
question
ethical duty to be answerable for one's activities
answer
accountability
question
compassion and patient advocacy
answer
beneficence
question
ethical problems resulting from scientific advancement
answer
bioethics
question
ethical theory that moral rule is binding
answer
deontology
question
agreement to keep promises and commitments
answer
fidelity
question
duty to not inflict harm
answer
nonmaleficence
question
paternalism
answer
reveal or withhold patient info based on health care provider's belief about best interest of patient
question
rights of conscience
answer
civil right that allows health care providers to act according to dictates of own conscience
question
utilitarianism
answer
best decision brings greatest good for most people
question
veracity
answer
ethical duty to tell truth
question
process of adapting to a new/different culture
answer
acculturation
question
cultural absorption of minor group into main culture
answer
assimilation
question
biculturalism
answer
combining two cultures in a single region
question
enculturation
answer
adaptation to prevailing cultural patterns
question
grounded in ones own culture but having skills to work in multicultural environment
answer
transculturalism
question
unintended adverse outcome that results in death/paralysis/coma/permanent loss of function
answer
sentinel event
question
vicarious liability
answer
person/institution liable for negligent act of another (substituted liability)
question
state that allows nurses to practice within that state without an additional license
answer
compact state
question
licensure by endorsement
answer
program where nurses licensed in one state seek licensure in another without repeat exams
question
revocation of laws if not reviewed and renewed within a specific time period
answer
sunset legislation
question
4 terms of IDEA in ethical decision making
answer
Identify Determine Explore Act
question
decision made about the clients health care when client is unable to make that informed decision (durable POA)
answer
standard of best interest
question
mal ojo
answer
evil eye
question
susto
answer
fright sickness
question
bilis
answer
anger
question
empacho
answer
intestinal
question
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
answer
must be accessible for all
question
EMTALA
answer
Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor act; cannot be denied care
question
civil wrong or injury by one person/person's property
answer
tort
question
unintentional tort
answer
inadvertent unreasonable act that causes harm
question
intentional tort
answer
willful act that violates another person's rights or property
question
plaintiff
answer
victim
question
defendant
answer
the accused
question
respondeat superior
answer
employer is responsible for acts of employee
question
res ipsa loquitor
answer
injury would not have occurred without a negligent act
question
criminal negligence
answer
negligent acts of a professional that also constitute a crime
question
Good Samaritan Law
answer
protection from malpractice at the scene of an accident if care provided was WITHIN THE SCOPE OF PRACTICE
question
assault
answer
attempt or threat to touch another
question
battery
answer
actual harmful or unwarranted touch without consent
question
libel
answer
written defamation of character
question
slander
answer
oral/spoken defamation of character
question
making someone wrongfully feel that they cannot leave a place
answer
false imprisonment
question
three domains of concepts
answer
nursing healthcare system individual
question
What level of health care service is maintaining an optimum level of wellness?
answer
Primary
question
What level of health care service is health education?
answer
Primary
question
What level of health care service is diet and exercise?
answer
Primary
question
What level of health care service Are immunizations?
answer
Primary
question
What level of health care service includes risk assessments?
answer
Primary
question
What level of health care service focuses on early detection and prompt treatment?
answer
Secondary
question
What level of health care service includes screenings?
answer
Secondary
question
What level of health care service includes self exams and regular checkups?
answer
Secondary
question
What level of health care service includes growth assessments?
answer
Secondary
question
What level of health care service focuses on moving to the previous or highest level of health status?
answer
Tertiary
question
What level of health care service focuses on treatment?
answer
Tertiary
question
What level of health care service focuses on outreach programs?
answer
Tertiary
question
What level of health care service focuses on support groups?
answer
Tertiary
question
What level of health care service includes hospice?
answer
Tertiary
question
Term used to describe a situation in which all healthcare team members work together?
answer
Collaboration
Civil Rights Act Of 1964
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Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
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Introductory Sociology
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Sociology
SOC 1300 Test 1 – Flashcards 75 terms

Joan Grant
75 terms
Preview
SOC 1300 Test 1 – Flashcards
question
Which of the following questions could be used to develop a sociological study that involves both history and biography? A. During what era in U.S. history were the most constitutional amendments passed? B. Who receives higher average tips: female waitresses or male waiters? C. At approximately what age does the height of the average boy exceed the height of the average girl? D. How many electronic devices does the average adult now use every day to communicate with others? E. How does the trauma of concentration camp survivors continue to influence their grandchildren?
answer
E. How does the trauma of concentration camp survivors continue to influence their grandchildren?
question
Which of the following statements about social sciences is true? A. Each separate field of social science is focused on a specific topic or discipline. B. Sociology was the first social science, and all the other social sciences derived from it. C. Sociology developed by combining all the other social sciences into a single field of study. D. Sociology and other social sciences came about as a result of industrialization and urbanization. E. Sociology looks at families, whereas the other social sciences do not.
answer
D. Sociology and other social sciences came about as a result of industrialization and urbanization.
question
Which of the following questions could a sociologist use to design an experiment that involves both social interaction and social structures? A. Can the judiciary branch of the government influence the economic stability of the country? B. Can newborn infants "read" and respond to the facial expressions of a stranger as well as to the facial expressions of a parent? C. Do certain religions emphasize marriage more than other religions? D. How does being imprisoned affect an individual's ability to form new friendships outside of prison? E. What are common body language signals that the average person uses in conversation?
answer
D. How does being imprisoned affect an individual's ability to form new friendships outside of prison?
question
Social interactions and social structures are both ________. A. parts of a social hierarchy in society B. external forces that affect groups of people C. types of social contexts that influence people's lives D. fields of social science that developed out of sociology E. ways of describing an individual's identity
answer
C. types of social contexts that influence people's lives
question
Which of the following is an economist known for influencing the field of sociology? A. Auguste Comte B. Nancy Chodorow C. Colin Jerolmack D. John Commons E. Emile Durkheim
answer
D. John Commons
question
________ is an area of study that originated from the field of sociology. A. Geology B. Criminology C. Anthropology D. Genetics E. Psychology
answer
B. Criminology
question
Which of the following best summarizes Pat Sharkey's study of children in violent neighborhoods? A. A violent incident in a neighborhood has little to no immediate effect. B. Children are affected by a social context of violence, such as by living in a violent neighborhood. C. Children do not notice violence when violence is a common aspect of their neighborhoods. D. Children in violent neighborhoods score lower on tests whether or not violence recently occurred. E. Children raised in violent neighborhoods learn to not be affected by the violence.
answer
B. Children are affected by a social context of violence, such as by living in a violent neighborhood.
question
In the 1800s in the United States, there was an intense growth of factories and an increase in the productions of goods. This era is considered a period of ________. A. Discrimination B. Socialization C. Interactionism D. Industrialization E. Ethnocentrism
answer
D. Industrialization
question
Which of the following is an example of discrimination? A. A child is abandoned by her parents. B. A person of color is illegally stopped from voting. C. A man offers to open the door for an elderly woman. D. A female employee gets a raise after working overtime. E. A person pays a lot of money for a nice apartment.
answer
B. A person of color is illegally stopped from voting.
question
A sociologist is studying children and reading development. She researches the age children learn to read, how many books were read to them by family, the economic level of the children's families, and the proximity of libraries to the families. This sociologist is studying ________. A. How children's academic success is influenced by both their parents and by their friends B. How a family's income level can predict the IQ level of children C. How certain social factors can cause successful readers to become disengaged with learning D. How various contexts can influence a child's reading development E. How different neighborhoods have more or less sources of support for parents
answer
D. How various contexts can influence a child's reading development
question
Which of the following best explains how urbanization contributed to the development of the field of sociology in the 1800s? A. Urbanization created a larger group of wealthy people in cities that could contribute to colleges. B. Urbanization brought people close together, which caused them to discuss social issues. C. Women in cities had access to education and worked to develop sociology as a field of science. D. The government needed sociologists to provide and run urban health programs. E. People living in cities conducted their own social studies in order to change their living conditions.
answer
B. Urbanization brought people close together, which caused them to discuss social issues.
question
Which of the following correctly defines the term "discrimination"? A. An assumption made about an unknown culture B. The social norm involving two people with different social statuses C. The idea that the traits of one person represent a whole group D. The unfair treatment of people on the basis of their group membership E. Unfounded opinions about a group of people
answer
D. The unfair treatment of people on the basis of their group membership
question
Richard Arum completed a project studying 2,000 young adults and their experiences during and after college. Which of the following paraphrases the results of this study? A. Many social contexts can influence a person's experience in college and success after college. B. College students' experiences in college are primarily influenced by gender. C. Students with more debt tend to have fewer career choices after college. D. The economic level of a student entering college is the most powerful factor for determining success after college. E. College students work hard to fulfill the expectations of role models, such as professors.
answer
A. Many social contexts can influence a person's experience in college and success after college.
question
At Jordan's birthday party, Alex steals a toy from Jordan. Everyone is upset with Alex. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn based on this scenario? A. Jordan is in a higher social status than Alex. B. Alex is acting on a stereotype about Jordan. C. Alex is unfamiliar with social norms and rules. D. Alex was raised at a different income level than Jordan. E. Alex stealing a toy was a violation of social norms.
answer
E. Alex stealing a toy was a violation of social norms.
question
Which of the following is the best definition of the term "social movements"? A. When people form organizations to uphold traditions and social norms B. When workers band together to fight for worker's rights C. When people form groups through which they try to change society D. When large numbers of people move to new locations, such as urban areas E. When immigrants influence the social norms of a society
answer
C. When people form groups through which they try to change society
question
What is a social theory? A. A question formed about society B. A broad generalization about a group of people C. A movement formed by people who want to change society D. A way of gathering information about a social problem E. An overarching idea about how a society works
answer
E. An overarching idea about how a society works
question
According to sociologists, communities can influence people as they grow up. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by this idea? A. Children stay in communities as adults if the community benefited them. B. Children raised in large communities develop many roles. C. Children raised in small communities are less aware of social norms. D. Children in a community all form a social network with each other. E. Children's sense of themselves and the world are affected by their communities.
answer
E. Children's sense of themselves and the world are affected by their communities.
question
Which of the following identifies different units of analysis? A. Interviewing each individual member of a family B. Studying first graders in one school, then first graders in another school C. Interviewing individual children, then watching groups of children play D. Observing waiters and waitresses at a restaurant on different days E. Researching the number of college students in several different colleges
answer
C. Interviewing individual children, then watching groups of children play.
question
Which of the following statements about institutions is true? A. Institutions create social hierarchies in societies. B. Institutions influence groups, not individuals. C. Institutions keep people from changing their statuses. D. Institutions can influence how people think about their identity. E. Institutions are the source of new norms in society.
answer
D. Institutions can influence how people think about their identity.
question
Sociologist A is following the lives of individual children in their first year of school. Sociologist B is interviewing politicians and also analyzing data about political groups. What is different between the approaches of Sociologist A and B? A. Sociologist A is investigating individual experiences, whereas Sociologist B is not. B. Sociologist B did not use a sociological imagination to design the study, whereas Sociologist A did. C. Sociologist B is focused on the experience of individuals, whereas Sociologist A is focused on the experience of groups. D. Sociologist A is developing new research methods, whereas Sociologist B is not E. Sociologist B uses different units of analysis, whereas Sociologist A does not.
answer
E. Sociologist B uses different units of analysis, whereas Sociologist A does not.
question
In a given society, some people have a high social status and some people have a low social status. What term best describes this scenario? A. Developmental levels B. A social hierarchy C. Social interactions D. A reference group E. Social organizations
answer
B. A social hierarchy
question
A sociologist observes an individual following a social norm. Which of the following best paraphrases this scenario? A. The sociologist sees a person interact with friends, family, or loved ones. B. The sociologist sees a person responding to subtle body language in another person. C. The sociologist sees a person expressing his or her identity. D. The sociologist sees a person join with others to form a group. E. The sociologist sees a person acting in a common and appropriate way.
answer
E. The sociologist sees a person acting in a common and appropriate way.
question
Which of the following questions could be used to develop an interdisciplinary research study? A. In what climates does the most biodiversity thrive? B. What proposals would limit the national budget deficit the most in the next year? C. At what age does a man's metabolism start to slow? D. At what age does a man's metabolism start to slow? E. Do adults with alcoholism have greater rates of being raised in low-income communities?
answer
E. Do adults with alcoholism have greater rates of being raised in low-income communities?
question
A sociologist wants to study how organizations can influence individuals. Which of the following questions could the sociologist use to develop this study? A. Can companies and schools work together to develop better educational practices? B. What is the relationship between the economy and the number of schools in a country? C. Can environmental factors, such as weather and climate, be correlated to graduation rates? D. How can the quality of local elementary schools affect the way children view themselves? E. Can a new principal change the quality of the education in an elementary school?
answer
D. How can the quality of local elementary schools affect the way children view themselves?
question
Which of the following is the best definition for the term "social interaction"? A. The types of actions that occur between people and their friends and family members B. The various groups of people that an individual maintains contact with in person and online C. The way that people learn the informal and formal rules and norms of the society they live in D. How people behave with other people and change their behavior in response to other people E. A category of relationships that occurs in private spaces, such as homes and outside of work spaces.
answer
D. How people behave with other people and change their behavior in response to other people
question
When a researcher tries to use a group of participants that mirrors the characteristics of a larger population, this is called ________. A. an empirical approach B. a respondent group C. a survey D. demographic sampling E. representative sampling
answer
E. representative sampling
question
________ considers words, observations, and images to be data. A. An empirical generalization B. A research memo C. An extended case method D. Qualitative research E. Quantitative research
answer
D. Qualitative research
question
A researcher wants to conduct a cross-cultural comparison and is considering different ideas for studies. Which of the following research questions should the researcher choose to use? A. How has the economic recession affected European countries differently than the United States? B. At what age does the average person in the United States open a first savings account? C. How do people of different ages handle economic uncertainty? D. Has the American public's confidence in the U.S. economy changed in recent years? E. What policies worked to help the United States out of the Great Depression in the 1920s?
answer
A. How has the economic recession affected European countries differently than the United States?
question
A sociologist has developed a research question. The question is clear and includes both general and specific details. The researcher knows her question connects to existing sociological data, and she cares about finding an answer. What else should the researcher consider to determine whether her question is good for a study? A. If her question can support a theoretical generalization B. If she will use thick descriptions during her research C. If the answer to her question is not known D. If her question can support an empirical generalization E. If her question will support a causal inference
answer
C. If the answer to her question is not known
question
A group of sociologists completes a research project. Their data shows that children living in a poor neighborhood outside of Baltimore have higher rates of lead poisoning. Which of the following is an example of an empirical generalization that could be made from this data? A. Children in poor neighborhoods around the country are more likely to suffer lead poisoning. B. There are higher levels of lead poisoning outside of Baltimore than outside other cities. C. Children's health is more affected by poverty than adult's health. D. Poverty is clear cause of lead poisoning. E. Children are more susceptible to lead poisoning than adults.
answer
A. Children in poor neighborhoods around the country are more likely to suffer lead poisoning.
question
Which term refers to a sociological method of research that involves detailed descriptions from the point of view of the people studied? A. Extended case methods B. Ethnographic research with thick description analysis C. Descriptive analysis D. Cross-sectional research E. Fieldwork
answer
B. Ethnographic research with thick description analysis
question
A study reveals that the more hours an adult tends to work each week, the more likely the adult is to eat unhealthy food. A researcher analyzing the results notices that income is a factor. Adults who earn less tend to work more hours in order to make enough money. Also, adults who earn less tend to buy cheaper food, which is lower in quality. This is an example of a(n) ________. A. causal relationship B. spurious relationship C. dependent variable D. interpretivist approach E. thick description
answer
B. spurious relationship
question
A sociologist develops an experiment in which elementary school children are given more outdoor time to play. The sociologist predicts that more outdoor playtime will result in higher student achievement at school. This prediction is an example of a(n) ________. A. extended case method B. analysis C. inference D. hypothesis E. research plan
answer
D. hypothesis
question
A sociologist has gathered data together and plans to complete data coding. What question should this researcher most likely to ask in order to code data? A. What data does not support my hypothesis? B. Will a timeline work best to depict my data? C. What patterns or correlations do I see in my data? D. What is the correct way to cite data I've used from other researchers? E. What categories should I use to organize my data?
answer
E. What categories should I use to organize my data?
question
Researchers A and B completed a study together on a group of elderly adults. The results show that elderly adults who are more physically active have a better ability to remember details. Researcher A wants to claim that this is most likely true of elderly adults across the country. Researcher B wants to claim that physical activity is linked to memory. What is the difference between these claims? A. Researcher A wants to make a representative claim, whereas Researcher B wants to make a spurious claim. B. Researcher A wants to make a cultural claim, whereas Researcher B wants to make an empirical claim. C. Researcher A wants to make a positivist claim, whereas Researcher B wants to make an interpretivist claim D. Researcher A wants to make a theoretical generalization, whereas Researcher B wants to make an empirical generalization. E. Researcher A wants to make an empirical generalization, whereas Researcher B wants to make a theoretical generalization.
answer
E. Researcher A wants to make an empirical generalization, whereas Researcher B wants to make a theoretical generalization.
question
Theda Skocpol's work, States and Social Revolutions, is an example of ________. A. data analysis B. an extended case method C. Comparative-historical social research D. a causal inference E. spurious research
answer
C. Comparative-historical social research
question
A sociologist is going to conduct a study about college students. The sociologist knows the breakdown of college students in the United States by age, gender, and ethnicity, so the sociologist finds volunteers and forms a group of college students that have a similar breakdown. This is an example of ________. A. planning a cross-national comparison B. following the scientific method C. utilizing an entire population D. conducting an extended case study E. developing a representative sample
answer
E. developing a representative sample
question
A researcher plans to review old census reports on the population of an area in order to determine how the ethnicity of the population has changed over the past 100 years. To do so means that the researcher is ________. A. selecting a research sample B. using an interpretivist approach C. conducting historical research D. following a theoretical tradition E. operationalizing the study
answer
C. conducting historical research
question
________ are groups responsible for looking over proposed research ideas in order to determine the potential for harm on the research participants. A. Peer reviewers B. Research advisors C. Sociological associations D. Institutional review boards E. Respondents
answer
D. Institutional review boards
question
When conducting data analysis, a sociologist decides to use research memos. Why might the sociologist choose to do this? A. To portray the research from the point of view of the people who were researched B. To show any patterns or correlations in a visual way C. To complete some of the data analysis before the entire study has been completed D. To share as much data and details as possible in an organized way E. To organize the data according to type, topic, or category
answer
D. To share as much data and details as possible in an organized way
question
A sociologist is studying how, in some communities, whites discriminate against people of color. The sociologist wants to find out the motivations for people's discriminations. Which approach would be best for the sociologist to use? A. Interview a small group of white people about their experiences with discrimination B. Survey people of color about their experiences with discrimination C. Survey white people about their belief in race D. Research government records of legal policies that discriminate against people of color E. Closely observe white people discriminating against people of color
answer
E. Closely observe white people discriminating against people of color
question
What term describes when a researcher creates a specific situation or problem and then observes how volunteers participate in that specific situation or problem? A. a longitudinal study B. An experiment C. A survey D. Data analysis E. An interview
answer
B. An experiment
question
A researcher collected data about how teenagers spend money. Which of the following descriptions depicts the researcher data coding? A. The researcher determines which data is the most valid and gets rid of invalid data. B. The researcher collects all the data and presents it in the form of a paper. C. The researcher clearly writes down all details and information about all the data. D. The researcher presents some data in the form of circle charts to better show the findings. E. The researcher organizes data by what the teenagers purchased: music, food, clothes, and so on.
answer
E. The researcher organizes data by what the teenagers purchased: music, food, clothes, and so on.
question
A sociologist is conducting a study about the high hyperactivity levels in children in a certain region. The sociologist is interested in seeing if local water pollution causes hyperactivity in these children. This sociologist is ________. A. making a theoretical generalization B. using an interpretivist approach C. planning a cross-sectional study D. using a positivist approach E. utilizing historical research
answer
D. using a positivist approach
question
A sociologist interviewed a group of 50 adults about their economic levels and their views of the future and found that wealthier people tended to have more optimistic views of the future. How can other sociologists determine the reliability of this sociologist's results? A. Conduct more interviews with different adults to see if they get the same results B. Give a survey with questions about the future to the same adults Sociologist A used C. Give surveys with questions about the future to 100 random adults D. Interview 50 adults to find out their predictions of the American economy E. Interview all of the adults who participated in Sociologist A's experiment
answer
A. Conduct more interviews with different adults to see if they get the same results
question
Data collected about a group of people at one point in time is called ________. A. historical research B. sampling C. cross-sectional data D. longitudinal data E. spurious data
answer
C. cross-sectional data
question
A sociologist drafts a list of standardized questions for a study. He plans to ask the questions himself in private conversations with the volunteers. According to these details, the sociologist is planning to _______. A. do fieldwork B. use a representative sample C. ask volunteers for consent D. conduct interviews E. conduct a survey
answer
D. conduct interviews
question
A researcher conducts a study that involves gathering data about the number of children in kindergarten, the ages of children in kindergarten, the number of children in kindergarten classrooms, and more. This study illustrates ________. A. random sampling B. qualitative research C. representative sampling D. quantitative research E. theoretical generalizations
answer
D. quantitative research
question
What do reliability and validity have in common? A. They both are ways to statistically analyze a set of data. B. They both are ways to analyze the relationship between variables in an experiment. C. They both are ways to determine if a researcher followed the scientific method. D. They both are ways to predict if a researcher followed the code of ethics. E. They both are ways to assess the accuracy of a research method and the data it produces.
answer
E. They both are ways to assess the accuracy of a research method and the data it produces.
question
"During the Great Depression, my father was not always able to earn enough money to feed everyone in the family. But he needed his strength to work in the factory and earn whatever money he could, so often he would eat whatever meat or protein we had. My mother, my siblings, and I ate whatever was leftover." This is an example of ________. A. Fieldwork B. a thick description C. a longitudinal study D. an extended case method E. an ethnographic study
answer
B. a thick description
question
According to ethnomethodologists, who is most likely to interrupt more often in a conversation? A. A woman is more likely to interrupt in a conversation with a man. B. A child is more likely to interrupt in a conversation with a parent. C. A doctor is more likely to interrupt in a conversation with a patient. D. A patient is more likely to interrupt in a conversation with a doctor. E. A woman is more likely to interrupt in a conversation with a male doctor.
answer
C. A doctor is more likely to interrupt in a conversation with a patient.
question
What term do sociologists use to describe a person's sense of his or her own personality and identity? A. Role B. Generalize self C. Social position D. Personal status E. Self
answer
E. Self
question
Jasmine tells a friend a joke over the phone but immediately stops telling the joke as soon as her dad walks into the room. How would sociologists describe what happened? A. Jasmine's identity suddenly changed as soon as her dad entered the room. B. Jasmine is only seeking approval from her friend, not from her dad. C. Jasmine reveals different parts of herself to different people. D. Jasmine has a different idea of social norms from her dad E. Jasmine has received approval from her dad and so now only needs it from the friend.
answer
C. Jasmine reveals different parts of herself to different people.
question
A "looking-glass" is a mirror, so the "looking-glass self" is ________. A. how others mirror back our identity to us B. the way we look differently to different people C. how people make themselves look and act like each other D. the self we see when we look in the mirror E. the way we learn about others by looking at them
answer
A. how others mirror back our identity to us
question
According to sociologists, some people have difficulty taking context into account in social situations, and as a result, these people tend to ________. A. succeed at leading large groups of people B. be very popular C. dislike and judge people from other cultures D. have difficulty knowing when to follow formal or informal rules E. experience challenges in finding a role model
answer
D. have difficulty knowing when to follow formal or informal rules
question
Who is known to have studied how people act when laughing? A. Emanuel Schegloff B. Jack Katz C. Randall Collins D. Dierdre Boden E. Solomon Asch
answer
B. Jack Katz
question
A music company randomly hands out a few free CDs to teenagers outside of a high school. In what way could the music company be using sociological concepts? A. The music company thinks the teens with CDs will form a subculture, and all other teens will want to be part of the subculture. B. The music company knows teens often like music and expects that getting a free CD will make the teens role models. C. The music company knows teens tend to share with their friends and so expects the teens with CDs to loan those CD to others. D. The music company hopes that those teens with CDs will form a reference group and influence other teens to buy the CD. E. The music company knows the teens with CDs will act like generalized others and so owning those particular CDs will become the norm.
answer
D. The music company hopes that those teens with CDs will form a reference group and influence other teens to buy the CD.
question
Which of the following questions could an ethnomethodologist use to develop an experiment that tests methods people use during social interactions? A. How many people admit to talking to themselves when they are alone? B. When a person nods during a conversation, what is the person communicating? C. At what age do people learn that it is inappropriate to interrupt others during a conversation? D. Are there differences in the words and colloquialisms used by different generations? E. How do people develop small group subcultures when living in larger cultures?
answer
B. When a person nods during a conversation, what is the person communicating?
question
Elementary school student, parent, employee, and spouse are all examples of ________. A. different subcultures B. different social statuses C. different role sets D. different reference groups E. different deviants
answer
B. different social statuses
question
Everyone in a town loves to watch high school football, except for a small group of people. This small group of people is an example of ________. A. role models B. a subculture C. significant others D. deviants E. a reference group
answer
B. a subculture
question
A sociologist observes a person who makes a mistake in public. The person spills coffee on a stranger. What will the person most likely do next? A. The person will try to get the stranger to start laughing. B. The person will pause before saying anything to the stranger. C. The person will say "oops" or apologize. D. The person will wait until the stranger speaks first. E. The person will not look at the stranger's face.
answer
C. The person will say "oops" or apologize.
question
A sociologist observes two people screaming at each other on the street. The sociologist knows that the people are unlikely to fight physically because the people ________. A. they know that others will stop them if they fight B. are probably frightened of each other C. do not want to ever hurt another person D. do not actually feel angry with each other E. physical violence is uncommon in most cultures
answer
B. are probably frightened of each other
question
In the United States, the average person does not eat food others have thrown away. This is an example of ________. A. interactional vandalism B. a generalized other C. a social method D. a subculture E. a role conflict
answer
B. a generalized other
question
While a politician is giving a speech, a person in the audience disagrees with the politician. The person could interrupt the politician or wait to speak until the end of the speech. The person decides to wait. This is an example of the person ________. A. forming a subculture B. developing a social construction of reality C. following role sets D. becoming socialized E. being influenced by a significant other
answer
C. following role sets
question
The concept of the looking-glass self can best be described as ________. A. the way humans can contemplate their own identities and sense of self B. how we learn about our identity through others' views of us C. the process by which people learn about social norms D. the way people eventually become what others say they are E. a persistent sense of self developed when we are children
answer
B. how we learn about our identity through others' views of us
question
At a school, a small group of students tend to wear T-shirts printed with comic book characters. A large group of students tend to wear T-shirts printed with the names of sport teams. Student A is new and starts to wear T-shirts with comic book characters. Student B is also new and starts to wear T-shirts with the names of sport teams. Which of the following best explains the role of conformity in this scenario? A. Only the students wearing T-shirts with the names of sports teams are conforming. B. Student B is conforming more than Student A. C. Student A is conforming more than Student B. D. The students wearing T-shirts with comic book characters are not conforming. E. Student A and Student B are both conforming to different groups at the school.
answer
E. Student A and Student B are both conforming to different groups at the school.
question
Person A is an assistant cook at a restaurant. This person is expected to listen to instructions from the head cook, prepare food, work scheduled shifts, and more. This is an example of ________. A. a looking-glass sense of self B. a social status C. a role conflict D. a role set E. a construction of reality
answer
D. a role set
question
Sociologists have determined that prisoners kept in solitary confinement have high rates of suicide. This evidence supports the idea that ________. A. humans need close, intimate relationships to survive B. interacting with others is necessary for people's survival C. people left alone over-contemplate their flaws and mistakes D. negative feedback or no feedback from others is more powerful than positive feedback E. people are unable to independently stay motivated
answer
B. interacting with others is necessary for people's survival
question
In his 1996 study, Emanuel Schegloff observed that brief silences in conversation can indicate ________. A. the presence of role conflicts B. a person is about to give bad news C. the social status of the person about to speak D. the gender of the person about to speak E. a change in the conversation
answer
B. a person is about to give bad news
question
Which of the following best describes how people reveal their identities? A. People reveal a consistent self to others. B. People reveal their personalities from birth. C. People always reveal one self in private and a different self in public. D. We each bring at least a slightly different self to any new circumstance. E. People reveal oneself to family and friends and a different self while at work.
answer
D. We each bring at least a slightly different self to any new circumstance.
question
According to interactionism, how could a change in society cause people's identities to change? A. People conform less when society is in transition, so there are more opportunities to express themselves honestly. B. People interact with society, so a change in society influences people's identities to change. C. A change in society diminishes people's need for approval, so they can change their identity. D. There are more social statuses when societies change, so people have more options. E. A change in society allows people to express parts of themselves that have always existed.
answer
B. People interact with society, so a change in society influences people's identities to change.
question
From a very young age, a child is told that he is good at sports by his parents. As he gets older, he tries out for many different sporting teams, spends time practicing, and wins many awards. This scenario illustrates ________. A. the importance of individuals having several reference groups B. the concept of the self-fulfilling prophecy C. the effects of a role conflict on an individual D. the idea of a social construction of society E. methods people use to subtly communicate with each other
answer
B. the concept of the self-fulfilling prophecy
question
Which sociologist first used the term "self-fulfilling prophecy"? A. Georg Simmel B. Dierdre Boden C. Max Atkinson D. George Herbert Mead E. Robert Merton
answer
E. Robert Merton
question
Sociologists think that individuals have multiple reference groups. Which of the following is an example of this? A. A person asks for work advice from peers and cooking advice from family. B. A baby is taught how to walk by both his mother and father. C. A person goes to a hairdresser, and then goes to a different hairdresser a few months later. D. An elderly man goes to the doctor and then takes a prescription to the pharmacist. E. A teenager asks friends for advice on both clothes and music.
answer
A. A person asks for work advice from peers and cooking advice from family.
question
An adult woman often asks the advice of her older sister, but rarely asks the advice of her mother, father, or husband. In this scenario, who is the significant other? A. The adult woman B. The mother C. The older sister D. The father E. The husband
answer
C. The older sister
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
High Risk Behavior
Quid Pro Quo Harassment
Sexology
Social Problems
Structural Functional Approach
Symbolic Interaction Approach
chapter 7 social problems – Flashcards 28 terms

James Hopper
28 terms
Preview
chapter 7 social problems – Flashcards
question
The story of sexual activity among students at the high school in Jefferson City, Missouri, shows
answer
that about half of the sexually active students were "chained together" through a few sexual partners.
question
Which of the following refers to a viewpoint that sees a pattern of bias that treats heterosexuality as the norm, while stigmatizing anyone who differs from this norm as "queer?"
answer
heterosexism
question
The global region with the highest number of cases of HIV is
answer
sub-Saharan Africa.
question
In 1970, feminist Kate Millet argued that sex was really about power, and that as long as men viewed women as primarily sexual creatures and women accepted this definition of themselves, men would dominate women. The work of Millet and other feminists led to defining which of the following as a new social problem?
answer
sexism
question
Sociologist Dianne Herman claims that our way of life links sex and violence; therefore, she concludes that we live in what she calls
answer
a rape culture
question
Which concept refers to sexual attraction to someone of the same sex?
answer
homosexuality
question
Men and women have different reproductive organs (the genitals), which are also called
answer
primary sex characteristics
question
Pornography refers to
answer
words or images intended to cause sexual arousal.
question
Determining the extent of homosexuality in our population
answer
depends on exactly how we define the term "homosexuality."
question
Mary is John's supervisor at work. Mary makes a sexual advance toward John, requesting sexual favors from him as a condition of his employment. John is the victim of
answer
quid pro quo sexual harassment.
question
Which country recently enacted a law that targets not prostitutes, but "johns," who solicit sex?
answer
Sweden
question
In the United States, the number of new cases of AIDS has been
answer
declining.
question
Which of the following terms refers to sexual attraction to someone of the other sex?
answer
heterosexuality
question
The category of prostitutes most at risk of violence are
answer
street walkers.
question
Bill is a man who is sexually attracted only to women; therefore, we can observe that he is
answer
heterosexual
question
David, Sarah's supervisor in the workplace, invites her to dinner. Politely, Sarah tells David that she would rather not. David persists and asks her again, this time indicating that he finds her very "foxy." David implies that Sarah could be promoted if his wishes are satisfied. Sarah tells David that she does not want to go out with him. David persists, asking Sarah several times a day to go out with him and revealing his sexual attraction toward her. He implies that she may not be promoted. According to federal statutes and the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, Sarah appears to be the victim of
answer
quid pro quo harassment.
question
Which of the following statements about teenage pregnancy is true?
answer
Today, the vast majority of teenagers who become pregnant are not married.
question
Which concept refers to the absence of sexual attraction to people of either sex?
answer
asexuality
question
Which of the following is NOT a sexually transmitted disease?
answer
the flu virus
question
The first state to permit lawful same-sex marriage was
answer
Massachusetts
question
Analysis of the reasons societies have an incest taboo reflects which theoretical approach?
answer
structural-functional approach
question
During the 1970s, a conservative call for a return to traditional "family values" developed; this movement came to be called
answer
the sexual counterrevolution.
question
Prostitution, as well as soliciting the services of a prostitute, is illegal everywhere in the United States except in parts of
answer
(some parts of) Nevada.
question
The variable sexual behaviors among the Chukchee Eskimo and the Sambia show that
answer
"acceptable" sexual behavior is socially constructed.
question
Becoming a teenage mother
answer
increases the risk of poverty.
question
Unwanted comments, gestures, or physical contact of a sexual nature constitute
answer
sexual harassment.
question
Almost everyone defines pornography as a social problem
answer
when the pornography involves children.
question
Homophobia refers to
answer
hostility to people thought to be gay, lesbian, or bisexual.
Committed The Crime
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Terminally Ill Patients
Pols201 Chapter 4 Post-test – Flashcards 21 terms

Isabel Padilla
21 terms
Preview
Pols201 Chapter 4 Post-test – Flashcards
question
The exclusionary rule is illustrated by which supreme court case
answer
Mapp v. Ohio
question
The supreme court's decision in Roe v. Wade was based on the
answer
right to privacy
question
Eminent domain is the power of government to
answer
take private property for public use
question
Selective incorporation
answer
considers the provisions of the Bill of Rights one by one and selectively applies them as limits on the states through the 14th amendment
question
____ liberties place restraints on how government is supposed to act, while ____ liberties limit what government has the power to do
answer
Procedural; substantive
question
Which of the following is a component of the Lemon test?
answer
determining whether government involvement advances a particular religion
question
The free exercise clause protects
answer
the right to believe in and practice one's religion of choice
question
The supreme court ruled in Lawrence v. Texas that the right to privacy
answer
extends to gay and lesbian citizens
question
In the 2006 case of United States v. Grubbs, the supreme court ruled that
answer
police could conduct searches using such "anticipatory warrants"
question
Speech that is accompanied by conduct and that can be regulated by the government to preserve public order is called
answer
speech plus
question
Which of the following statements about the death penalty is accurate
answer
The United States is the only Western nation that still executes criminals
question
In the important 1945 case concerning eminent domain, the Supreme Court essentially ruled that
answer
the "public interest" used to justify eminent domain can mean anything a legislature wants it to mean
question
Civil liberties are
answer
limitations on gouvernent action
question
The idea of the separation of church and state is most clearly associated with the
answer
establishment clause
question
The right of the people "to keep and bear Arms" is based on
answer
participation in state miltias
question
Fighting words fall outside constitutional protection because they
answer
directly incite violence
question
Due process of law is
answer
the right of every citizen against arbitrary government action
question
Which of the following is true to the Supreme Court's treatment of student speech
answer
it has allowed conditional restrictions on student free speech depending on the content of the speech
question
The Fifth Amendment protects against
answer
double jeopardy
question
Which of the following is established by the Fifth Amendment
answer
The courts cannot hold trials for serious offenses without provisions for a grand jury
question
The most dramatic restraint imposed on the police by the Bill of Rights, which can free those people who are known to have committed the crime of which they have been accused is the
answer
exclusionary rule
Business Management
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Management
Program Evaluation And Review Technique
MGMT 307 study guide – Flashcards 84 terms

Cindy Krause
84 terms
Preview
MGMT 307 study guide – Flashcards
question
Management
answer
- A process or series of continuing and related activities - it involve reaching organizational goals - it reaches these goals by working with and through people and other organizational resources
question
Management process
answer
Involves the functions of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling in order to guide organizations toward goal accomplishment
question
planning
answer
Choosing tasks that must be performed to attain organization goals, outlining how the tasks must be performed, and indicating when they should be performed.
question
organizing
answer
Mechanism to put planning into action. Involves determining tasks and grouping the work.
question
controlling
answer
Gathering information, making comparisons, and then trying to find new ways of improving production through organizational modification
question
influencing
answer
Motivating, leading, directing, or actuating in order to increase productivity.
question
What type of work situations lend themselves to better productivity?
answer
Human-oriented work situations tend to generate higher levels of production over the long term than do task-oriented work situations.
question
organizational resources
answer
human, monetary, raw materials, and capital
question
Frederick W. Taylor
answer
-increase worker efficiency by scientifically designing jobs -every job has a best way of being performed -Father of scientific management
question
Frederick W. Taylor's test location: A. Bethlehem Steel Co. B. Bricklaying, construction business C. Hawthorne Works
answer
Bethlehem Steel Co.
question
The Gilbreth's test location: A. Bethlehem Steel Co. B. Bricklaying, construction business C. Hawthorne Works
answer
Bricklaying, construction business
question
Frank and Lillian Gilbreth
answer
-motion study -first to consider the employee as a productivity factor -establish job performance standards
question
motion study
answer
Reducing each job to the most basic movements in order to increase output and efficiency
question
How is motion analysis (motion study) used today?
answer
Used to establish job performance standards
question
Henri Fayol
answer
- pioneer of administrative theory - wrote on the elements and general principles of management
question
Fayol's 14 General Principles
answer
DAD, U, U Subordinate, Remunerate, and Centralize. SO I SEE.
question
DAD
answer
- Division of Work - Authority - Discipline
question
U, U
answer
- Unity of command - Unity of direction
question
SO
answer
- Scalar Chain - Order
question
I SEE
answer
- Initiative - Stability of tenure of personnel - Equity - Esprit de corps
question
Classical Approach to management
answer
Managers continually strive to increase organizational efficiency to increase production.
question
2 areas of classical approach
answer
- lower level management analysis - comprehensive management analysis
question
lower level management analysis
answer
- concentrates on the "one best way" to perform a task - scientific method of management
question
comprehensive analysis of management
answer
Mangers concerned with the entire range of managerial performance
question
What are the limitations of the classical approach?
answer
- does not adequately emphasize human variables. - interpersonal areas shortchanged
question
Behavioral approach to management
answer
Emphasizes increasing production through and understanding of people.
question
Hawthorne Studies
answer
- investigated the behavior and attitudes of workers
question
Hawthorne Studies: Relay Assembly Test Room
answer
Study of productivity under different working conditions to find which would maximize production.
question
Hawthorne Studies: Bank Wiring Observation
answer
Analyze social relationships in a work group using the group piecework incentive.
question
What is the importance of the Hawthorne Experiments?
answer
Helped managers to see that understanding what motivates employees is a critical part of being a manager.
question
Management Science approach to management
answer
Managers can best improve their organization by using the scientific method and mathematical techniques to solve operational problems.
question
How is the management science approach used today?
answer
Solve logistical and operational problems.
question
Four characteristics of management science applications
answer
-when analyzing a large number of variables - uses economic implications as guidelines for decision making - uses mathematical models to investigate the decision situation - use of computers
question
Contingency approach to management
answer
- what managers do in practice depends on a given set of circumstances -situational approach - if-then approach
question
System approach to management
answer
Based on general system theory
question
General system theory
answer
Integrates the knowledge of various specialized fields so that the system as a whole can be better understood.
question
system
answer
A number of parts that function interdependently to achieve a purpose
question
Management system
answer
- organizational input - organizational process - organizational output
question
Learning organization approach
answer
mangers must create an environment conducive to learning and encourage the exchange of information among all organizational managers.
question
learning environment
answer
An organization that does well in creating, acquiring, and transferring knowledge, and in modifying behavior to reflect new knowledge.
question
international management
answer
The performance of management activities across national borders
question
The primary question for firms dealing with globalization:
answer
- How to globalize - how fast to do so - how to measure global progress over time
question
Competition and international markets
answer
Competitors can best be beaten in foreign markets if companies actually produce products in those markets
question
Continum of international involvement
answer
- domestic organization - international organization - multinational organization - transnational organization
question
Multinational corporation (MNC)
answer
A company that significant operations in more than one country and is involved in doing business at the international level
question
International organizations
answer
Organizations based primarily within a single country but have continuing, meaningful international transactions in other countries.
question
Multinationalization: Stage 1
answer
Export stage
question
Multinationalization: Stage 2
answer
Establishes sales and organizations abroad
question
Multinationalization: Stage 3
answer
Foreign firms make and sell its products
question
Multinationalization: Stage 4
answer
Foreign manufacturing facilities
question
Multinationalization: Stage 5
answer
Multinationalizes management from top to bottom
question
Multinationalization: Stage 6
answer
Multinationalizes ownership of corporate stock
question
multinational organization charts
answer
Can be set up according to major business function, major products the organization sells, or geographic area in which the organization does business.
question
stages of entrepreneurship process
answer
- opportunity identification - opportunity evaluation - opportunity exploitation
question
opportunity identification: four factors
answer
- entrepreneurial alertness - information assymetry - social networks - identification of means-end relationships
question
opportunity exploitation: factors
answer
- value to customers - stakeholder support - capable management team
question
opportunity evaluation: factors
answer
- feasibility analysis - entrepreneurial risk - downside loss
question
purpose of planning
answer
- minimize risk by reducing uncertainties - increase the degree of organizational success - establish a coordinated effort inside the organization
question
Planning process: Step 1
answer
State organizational objectives
question
Planning process: Step 2
answer
List alternative ways of reaching goals
question
Planning process: Step 3
answer
Develop premises upon which each alternative is based
question
Planning process: Step 4
answer
Choose best alternative for reaching objectives
question
Planning process: Step 5
answer
Develop plans to pursue chosen alternative
question
Planning process: Step 6
answer
Put the plan into action
question
programmed decision
answer
A routine and repetitive decision, and organization typically develops specific ways to handle such decisions.
question
non-programmed decision
answer
One-shot decision with less structure
question
How to decide who has the responsibility for making organizational decisions
answer
The broader the scope of the decision, the higher the level of the manager responsible for making such decisions.
question
scope of the decision
answer
The proportion of the total management system that the system will affect.
question
Strategic planning
answer
Long-range planning that focuses on the organization as a whole
question
strategic management
answer
The process of ensuring that an organization possesses and benefits from the use of an appropriate organizational strategy.
question
Strategy Management: Step 1
answer
Environmental analysis: general, operating, internal
question
Strategy Management: Step 2
answer
Establishing organization direction: mission and objecties
question
Strategy Management: Step 3
answer
Strategy formulation
question
Strategy Management: Step 4
answer
Strategy implementation
question
Strategy Management: Step 5
answer
Strategic control
question
Management-by-objectives program (MBO)
answer
Management process based exclusively on organizational objectives
question
MBO process
answer
- review organization objectives -set worker objectives - monitor progress - evaluate performance -give rewards
question
human resource planning (HRP)
answer
The ongoing process of systematic planning to achieve optimum use of an organization's most valuable asset - its human resources.
question
HRP objective
answer
Ensure the best fit between employees and jobs, while avoiding manpower shortages or surpluses.
question
3 key elements of HR planning process
answer
- forecasting labor demand - analyzing present labor supply - balancing projected labor demand and supply.
question
planning mistakes
answer
- not establishing objectives for all important organizational area - making plans that are too risky
question
organizing mistakes
answer
- not establishing departments appropriately - establishing inappropriate spans of management
question
influencing mistakes
answer
- not taking the time to communicate properly with organizational members - being a manager but not a leader
question
controlling mistakes
answer
- not monitoring progress in carrying out plans - not establishing appropriate performance standards
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
SW TRUE FALSE – Flashcards 33 terms

Marvel Brown
33 terms
Preview
SW TRUE FALSE – Flashcards
question
Psychologists and other helping professionals work primarily in an office, while social workers often visit clients in their homes as they seek to help improve people's lives.
answer
-TRUE
question
Socialization theory suggests that racism is caused by economic factors.
answer
-FALSE
question
Most states require social work licensure or certification.
answer
-TRUE
question
Social service workers, regardless of their training, are considered to be "social workers."
answer
-FALSE
question
One of the ways that TANF differs from AFDC is that it is funded through a block grant to the states, thus limiting the number of people served in a given year.
answer
TRUE
question
The "melting pot" is a term used to describe the way groups are empowered to contribute their strengths to U.S. society.
answer
-FALSE
question
When social workers seek to fight injustice, they must look at the individual problems that a person faces.
answer
-FALSE
question
Part of becoming a social worker is making a commitment to fight for social justice.
answer
-TRUE
question
The strengths perspective focuses on teaching clients new skills in order to strengthen their lives.
answer
-FALSE
question
The ecological systems framework focuses on interactions and transitions between people and their surroundings.
answer
-TRUE
question
Social workers typically take and maintain control during their interactions with clients.
answer
-TRUE
question
Most social workers work for the government.
answer
-FALSE
question
In the late 1990s, the disparity in wealth between the rich and the poor declined dramatically in the U.S., falling to its lowest level since the Great Depression.
answer
-FALSE
question
Supplemental Security Income program (SSI), and the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families program (TANF) are examples of cash assistance programs.
answer
-TRUE
question
Social workers must learn to tolerate some ambiguity in resolving ethical conflicts.
answer
-TRUE
question
Psychologists and other helping professionals work primarily in an office, while social workers often visit clients in their homes as they seek to help improve people's lives.
answer
-TRUE
question
The feminization of poverty describes the concept that most of those working to end poverty are women.
answer
-FALSE
question
Most states require social work licensure or certification.
answer
-TRUE
question
The strengths perspective focuses on teaching clients new skills in order to strengthen their lives.
answer
-FALSE
question
Social group membership helps form our values, worldwide and attitudes.
answer
-TRUE
question
The largest segment of the population currently in poverty in the United States are the elderly.
answer
-FALSE
question
The strengths perspective focuses on teaching clients new skills in order to strengthen their lives.
answer
-FALSE
question
The ecological systems framework focuses on interactions and transitions between people and their surroundings.
answer
-TRUE
question
Social workers typically take and maintain control during their interactions with clients.
answer
-TRUE
question
Most social workers work for the government.
answer
-FALSE
question
The "trickle down" theory refers to the belief that if tax cuts are given to those at the top, there would be more money available to flow down to those at the bottom.
answer
-TRUE
question
Social workers can easily recognize situations of institutional discrimination.
answer
-FALSE
question
Social workers must learn to tolerate some ambiguity in resolving ethical conflicts.
answer
-TRUE
question
Privilege is attained simply by being a member of a dominant group.
answer
-TRUE
question
Using a set dollar value to determine who is and who is not poor in an absolute definition of poverty.
answer
-TRUE
question
Many groups, including racial minorities, lesbians and gay men are now protected under federal civil rights laws.
answer
-FALSE
question
Considering power imbalances is critical when looking for injustices.
answer
-TRUE
question
Using a relative definition of poverty would mean that there would be an equal distribution of wealth.
answer
-FALSE
Business Law
Business Management
Coal Fired Power Plants
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
Performance Appraisal Process
Strategic Management-Chapter 10 – Flashcards 110 terms

Richard Lattimore
110 terms
Preview
Strategic Management-Chapter 10 – Flashcards
question
Many people consider it unethical for a firm to be socially irresponsible.
answer
True
question
Social responsibility refers to actions an organization takes that are legally required to protect or enhance the well-being of living things.
answer
false
question
Sustainability refers to the extent that an organization's operations and actions protect, mend, and preserve rather than harm or destroy the natural environment.
answer
true
question
Good ethics is not a prerequisite for good strategic management.
answer
false
question
According to a study by the Institute of Business Ethics, companies that do not display ethical conduct consistently outperform companies that show a clear commitment to ethical conduct.
answer
false
question
Bad ethics can derail all but the best strategic plans.
answer
false
question
Business ethics can be defined as principles of conduct within organizations that guide decision making and behavior.
answer
true
question
A rising tide of consciousness about the importance of business ethics is sweeping the United States and the rest of the world.
answer
true
question
CEOs and business owners should delegate the responsibility for ensuring that high ethical principles are espoused and practiced in an organization.
answer
false
question
Some of the largest payouts for class-action legal fraud suits ever were against Enron ($7.16 billion) and WorldCom ($6.16 billion).
answer
true
question
Dumping banned or flawed products in foreign markets is considered to be an unethical business practice.
answer
true
question
Moving jobs overseas is not considered to be an unethical business practice.
answer
false
question
A new wave of ethics issues has accentuated the need for strategists to develop a clear code of business ethics.
answer
true
question
Having a code of ethics ensures ethical business behavior.
answer
false
question
Periodic ethics workshops can help sensitize people to workplace circumstances in which ethics issues may arise.
answer
true
question
Whistle-blowing refers to policies that require employees to report any unethical violations they discover or see in the firm.
answer
true
question
Most firms warn managers and employees that reporting an ethical violation by others, also known as whistle-blowing, could cause them to be discharged.
answer
false
question
Primary responsibility for ensuring ethical behavior rests with middle- and low-level managers, since they are in a position to influence many employees.
answer
false
question
More and more firms believe that ethics training and an ethics culture create strategic advantage.
answer
true
question
History has proven that the lower the trust and confidence of people in the ethics of an institution or society, the greater its economic strength.
answer
false
question
Integrating ethical decision making into the performance appraisal process is one way that firms can align ethical and strategic decision making.
answer
true
question
Monitoring departmental and corporate performance regarding ethical issues can cause firms to misalign ethical and strategic decision making.
answer
false
question
A bribe is a gift bestowed to influence a recipient's conduct.
answer
true
question
In order to be considered bribery, the gift offered must be either money or a physical item.
answer
false
question
In some foreign countries, paying bribes and kickbacks is acceptable.
answer
true
question
Avon Products is being investigated for bribery charges related to their winning the first direct-sales license awarded by China to a foreign company.
answer
true
question
A recent Wall Street Journal article reported that 80 percent of all firms sampled had no restrictions on relationships between a supervisor and a subordinate.
answer
false
question
European firms are increasingly adopting explicit, American-style sexual harassment laws.
answer
true
question
In Europe, romantic relationships at work are frowned upon, and most firms have policies prohibiting the practice.
answer
false
question
The EEOC recovers about $500 million on behalf of office romance victims.
answer
true
question
Some strategists agree with Ralph Nader, who asserts that organizations have no obligation to do any more for society than is legally required.
answer
false
question
Ralph Nader believes that big firms like ExxonMobil, which has more assets than most countries, have an obligation to help society cure its many ills.
answer
true
question
The first social responsibility of any business must be to make enough profit to cover the costs of the future because if this is not achieved, no other social responsibility can be met.
answer
true
question
Social policy concerns what responsibilities the firm has to employees, consumers, environmentalists, minorities, communities, shareholders, and other groups.
answer
true
question
After decades of debate and struggle, firms have finally definitively determined the appropriate social policies.
answer
false
question
Corporate social policy should be designed and articulated during strategy formulation.
answer
true
question
Corporate social policy should be reaffirmed or changed during strategy implementation.
answer
false
question
In 2012, GDF Suez, Marquard & Bahls, and RWE were the three most admired socially responsible companies according to Fortune magazine.
answer
true
question
In 2012, Chinese firms dominated Fortune magazine's list of the least admired companies from a social responsibility perspective.
answer
true
question
Firms should strive to engage in social activities that have no economic benefits, to avoid their being viewed as public relations ploys.
answer
False
question
Orphan drugs offer pharmaceutical companies no economic incentive for profitable development and distribution.
answer
true
question
The percentage of persons age 65 or older exceeds 20 percent in Japan, Italy, and Germany.
answer
true
question
The percentage of persons age 65 or older will reach 20 percent in the United States in 2018.
answer
false
question
Like the United States, Japan is eager to rely on large-scale immigration to bolster its workforce.
answer
false
question
Japan is providing incentives for its elderly to work until ages 65-75.
answer
true
question
Unlike the USA, Japan has no law against discrimination based on age.
answer
true
question
Companies such as Walmart are now monitoring not only the prices its vendors offer for products, but also how those products are made in terms of environmental practices, as well as safety and infrastructure soundness.
answer
true
question
While it is socially responsible to be a good steward of the natural environment, doing so will not enable a firm to gain competitive advantage.
answer
false
question
New Jersey's goal is to obtain 3 percent of its electricity from the sun and 12 percent from offshore wind by 2020.
answer
true
question
California is the nation's second-largest producer of solar energy.
answer
false
question
Sustainability reports reveal how a firm's operations impact the natural environment.
answer
true
question
Employee wellness cannot be a part of sustainability.
answer
False
question
Some ways in which firm's are working to be more environmentally responsible include using solar power and selling organic and environmentally friendly products.
answer
true
question
It has gotten easier for firms to get away with placing "green" terminology on their products and labels because there are still no legal or generally accepted definitions of terms like "organic," "green," "safe," or "earth-friendly."
answer
false
question
There is no country that favors or engages in commercial whaling today.
answer
false
question
According to the Convention on the International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES), more than 25,000 elephants are killed each year for their ivory—even though international trade in ivory has been outlawed since 1989.
answer
true
question
Workplace romance and sexual harassment are synonymous.
answer
false
question
ISO, the world's largest developer of sustainability standards, is legally authorized to enforce their standards.
answer
false
question
The ISO 14000 family of standards concerns the extent to which a firm minimizes harmful effects on the environment caused by its activities and continually monitors and improves its own environmental performance.
answer
true
question
ISO 14001 is a technical standard and as such replaces technical requirements embodied in statutes or regulations.
answer
false
question
Sustainability refers to the extent that an organization's operations and actions ________ the natural environment. A) protect B) mend C) preserve D) reflect good stewardship of E) All of the above
answer
E) All of the above
question
Business ethics, ________, and sustainability issues are interrelated and impact all areas of the comprehensive strategic-management model. A) social responsibility B) social networking C) fiscal irresponsibility D) cultural indifference E) None of the above
answer
A) social responsibility
question
Workplace romance A) is defined as unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature. B) is defined as illegal by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. C) should be strictly forbidden by organizations. D) simply happens so organizations should determine how to best manage the phenomena. E) is an intimate relationship between two employees, one of whom is not consenting.
answer
D) simply happens so organizations should determine how to best manage the phenomena.
question
Bad ethics can ________ strategic plans. A) derail all but the best B) derail even the best C) derail only poorly-intentioned D) derail only ill-conceived E) never affect
answer
B) derail even the best
question
________ are the individuals primarily responsible for ensuring that high ethical principles are espoused and practiced in an organization. A) Non-management employees B) Mid-level managers C) Shareholders D) Strategists such as CEOs and business owners E) Governmental regulatory bodies
answer
D) Strategists such as CEOs and business owners
question
Which of the following companies ranks among those against whom some of the largest payouts for class-action legal fraud suits ever were judged? A) AOL Time Warner B) Walt Disney C) Starbucks D) Herman Miller E) Edison
answer
A) AOL Time Warner
question
All of the following business actions are considered to be unethical EXCEPT A) moving jobs overseas. B) preventing environmental harm. C) overpricing. D) sexual harassment. E) insider trading.
answer
B) preventing environmental harm.
question
Which of the following business actions is considered to be unethical? A) Having satisfactory product or service safety B) Selling products in foreign markets C) Providing equal opportunities for women and minorities D) Filing expense accounts E) Misleading labeling
answer
E) Misleading labeling
question
Unethical activities that plague online commerce include all of the following EXCEPT A) inappropriate gifts. B) spreading viruses. C) identity theft. D) Internet fraud. E) hacking into company computers.
answer
A) inappropriate gifts.
question
A code of business ethics is A) sorely needed in light of a new wave of ethical issues including product safety, employee health, and sexual harassment. B) concerned with what responsibilities the firm has to employees, consumers, environmentalists, minorities, communities, and other groups. C) a report that reveals how the firm's operations impact the natural environment. D) a set of strict regulations requiring firms to conserve energy. E) a series of voluntary standards in the environmental field.
answer
A) sorely needed in light of a new wave of ethical issues including product safety, employee health, and sexual harassment.
question
Simply having a code of ethics A) will ensure ethical business behavior. B) eliminates the need for periodic ethics workshops. C) is all that is necessary to sensitize people to workplace circumstances in which ethics issues may arise. D) is insufficient to guarantee that employees behave in an ethical manner. E) secures an ethics culture in the workplace.
answer
D) is insufficient to guarantee that employees behave in an ethical manner.
question
Which of the following is NOT a way that companies can help create an ethical culture in their organization? A) Outlining ethical expectations B) Giving examples of ethical situations that commonly occur in their businesses C) Providing code-of-conduct manuals D) Creating interactive exercises that pose hypothetical ethical dilemmas E) Discouraging whistle-blowing
answer
E) Discouraging whistle-blowing
question
________ refers to policies that require employees to report any unethical violations they discover or see in the firm. A) Whistle-blowing B) Bribery C) Adultery D) Sustainability E) Stewardship
answer
A) Whistle-blowing
question
Responsibility for encouraging ethical decision making and ensuring ethical behavior in a firm lies with A) only a firm's strategists. B) only a firm's managers. C) only a firm's shareholders. D) both a firm's strategists and its managers. E) neither a firm's strategists nor its managers.
answer
D) both a firm's strategists and its managers.
question
More and more firms believe that ethics training and an ethics culture A) are socially irresponsible. B) are admirable but damage a firm's competitive positioning. C) are costly and provide no practical benefit to the company. D) create strategic advantage. E) can tarnish the reputation of a firm.
answer
D) create strategic advantage.
question
Ethics training programs should contain which of the following? A) Messages from the CEO or business owner emphasizing ethical business practices B) The development and discussion of codes of ethics C) Procedures for discussing unethical behavior D) Procedures for reporting unethical behavior E) All of the above
answer
E) All of the above
question
Firms can align ethical and strategic decision making by A) omitting ethical considerations from long-term planning. B) excluding ethical decision making from the performance appraisal process. C) discouraging whistle-blowing. D) monitoring departmental and corporate performance regarding ethical issues. E) All of the above
answer
D) monitoring departmental and corporate performance regarding ethical issues.
question
Bribery involves A) bestowing a gift to influence the recipient's conduct. B) requiring employees to report any unethical violations they discover or see in the firm. C) prohibiting love affairs between bosses and their subordinates. D) encouraging firms to play a role in curing society of its ills. E) forcing companies to take responsibility for the impact their actions have on society.
answer
A) bestowing a gift to influence the recipient's conduct.
question
The U.S. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act and a new provision in the Dodd-Frank financial regulation-law allows company employees who bring cases of financial fraud, such as bribery, to the government's attention to receive ________ percent of any sum recovered. A) less than 10 B) exactly 20 C) up to 30 D) about 40 E) at least 50
answer
C) up to 30
question
The United Kingdom's new Bribery Law A) is less stringent than the similar U.S. FCPA. B) carries a minimum 10-year prison sentence for those convicted of bribery. C) allows foreign companies doing business in the UK to bribe officials if that is their national convention. D) stipulates that failure to prevent bribery is an offense. E) All of the above
answer
D) stipulates that failure to prevent bribery is an offense.
question
According to a recent Wall Street Journal article, ________ percent of all firms sampled had no restrictions on boss-subordinate love affairs at work. A) 5 B) 13 C) 24 D) 39 E) 80
answer
A) 5
question
According to the text, the first social responsibility of any business is to A) make enough profit to cover the costs of the future, because if this is not achieved then no other social responsibility can be met. B) avoid laying off employees so as to protect the employees' livelihood, even if that decision may force the firm to liquidate. C) engage in social activities that have no economic benefits, to avoid the appearance of a public relations gimmick. D) offer courses and training in environmental management. E) None of the above
answer
A) make enough profit to cover the costs of the future, because if this is not achieved then no other social responsibility can be met.
question
Social policy can best be defined as A) the responsibilities a firm has to employees, consumers, environmentalists, minorities, communities, shareholders, and other groups. B) a document providing behavioral guidelines that cover daily activities and decisions within a firm. C) an SEC mandate to report any unethical behavior. D) the legal requirement to reveal how a firm's operations impact the natural environment. E) mandatory technical standards that result in an environmental management system.
answer
A) the responsibilities a firm has to employees, consumers, environmentalists, minorities, communities, shareholders, and other groups.
question
Which of the following was among the most admired companies for social responsibility in 2012 according to Fortune magazine? A) GDF Suez B) China Railway Group C) China Railway Construction D) China State Construction Engineering E) Kirin Holdings
answer
A) GDF Suez
question
________ was socially responsible in the wake of the earthquake and tsunami that devastated Japan in 2011; it also was able to get supplies to people who needed them following Hurricane Katrina. A) China Railway Group B) GDF Suez C) Walmart D) RWE E) Marquard & Bahls
answer
C) Walmart
question
Firms should strive to engage in social activities that A) have economic benefits. B) have no economic benefits. C) are detrimental to economic growth. D) drain financial resources. E) garner goodwill only, not profits.
answer
A) have economic benefits.
question
The percentage of persons age 65 or older exceeds 20 percent in Japan, Italy, and A) Germany. B) the USA. C) France. D) China. E) All of the above
answer
A) Germany.
question
Japan's prescription for dealing with problems associated with an aging society includes A) relying on large-scale immigration. B) providing incentives for its elderly to retire at ages 55 to 60. C) reversing the old-fashioned trend of keeping women at home. D) enacting laws against discrimination based on age. E) phasing in a shift from age 60 to age 55 as the date when a person may begin receiving a pension.
answer
C) reversing the old-fashioned trend of keeping women at home.
question
Japan is suffering from a decline in overall economic production A) due to its growing population. B) related to the declining age of its workforce. C) because of a surge in the number of its taxpaying workers. D) since worker productivity increases are not able to offset declines in number of workers. E) because more and more women are working outside the home.
answer
D) since worker productivity increases are not able to offset declines in number of workers.
question
If a firm has a bad sustainability record this will A) help a firm in the market. B) improve a firm's standing in the community. C) cause investors to closely scrutinize the firm. D) deflect the scrutiny of a firm by environmentalists. E) release the firm from governmental reporting obligations.
answer
C) cause investors to closely scrutinize the firm.
question
Which state generates the greatest number of megawatts of wind power? A) Texas B) Iowa C) California D) Minnesota E) New Jersey
answer
A) Texas
question
A document that discloses to shareholders information about a firm's labor practices, product sourcing, energy efficiency, environmental impact, and business ethics practices is known as A) a code of ethics. B) a sustainability report. C) an EMS. D) ISO 14000. E) green terminology.
answer
B) a sustainability report.
question
It is ________ for a business to provide a sustainability report annually to the public. A) good business B) irresponsible C) a decreasing trend D) unethical E) poor planning
answer
A) good business
question
Walmart encourages its employees to adopt "Personal Sustainability Projects" like weight-loss or smoking-cessation support groups, illustrating that A) employee wellness can be a part of sustainability. B) employee health issues have no business in the workplace. C) firms should crack down on employees' personal interests infringing upon business hours. D) the Global Reporting Initiative requires this of all U.S. companies. E) a company's interest in its employees should be restricted solely to their work duties.
answer
A) employee wellness can be a part of sustainability.
question
All of the following are reasons that workplace romance can be detrimental to workplace morale and productivity EXCEPT A) favoritism complaints can arise. B) personal arguments can lead to work arguments. C) whispering secrets can lead to tensions and hostilities among coworkers. D) increased quality and quantity of work can occur. E) sexual harassment charges may ensue, either by the involved female or a third party.
answer
D) increased quality and quantity of work can occur.
question
Managers and employees today must be careful not to ignore, conceal, or disregard a pollution problem or they could A) be fired. B) be demoted. C) be held indirectly responsible for their firm's pollution. D) have their firm turn on them in a quest for leniency. E) All of the above
answer
E) All of the above
question
It has become ________, since uniform standards defining environmentally responsible company actions are rapidly being incorporated into our legal landscape. A) more and more difficult for firms to make "green" claims when their actions are not substantive or even true B) increasingly easy for firms to get away with placing "green" terminology on their products without any oversight C) customary for firms to use terms like "organic," "green," or "earth-friendly" when their products don't warrant it D) more common for consumers to be cynical about corporate environmental claims E) impossible for firms to omit "green" terminology from their labels
answer
A) more and more difficult for firms to make "green" claims when their actions are not substantive or even true
question
Which is a rule from the Wall Street Journal article "The New Rules of Flirting"? A) Do not flirt within a relationship that you want to strengthen. B) Do flirt with someone you know is looking for a relationship if you are not interested in a new relationship. C) Do flirt to make your partner jealous. D) Flirting between power differences, such as boss and employee, is usually fine. E) Do not make physical contact with the person you are flirting with, unless it is within a desired relationship.
answer
E) Do not make physical contact with the person you are flirting with, unless it is within a desired relationship.
question
Alaska and oil companies contend that protections for polar bears ________. A) are not aggressive enough and must be strengthened B) are diminishing opportunities for Alaska energy development C) help push Alaskan companies to explore alternative energy sources D) are ineffective and actually have caused populations in Alaska to decrease E) are long overdue and must be enacted immediately
answer
B) are diminishing opportunities for Alaska energy development
question
What challenge facing all organizations requires managers to formulate strategies that preserve and conserve natural resources and control pollution? A) Economic B) Ecological C) Compensational D) Benchmarking E) Sociological
answer
B) Ecological
question
Special natural environment issues include all of the following EXCEPT A) ozone depletion. B) destruction of animal habitats. C) pollution control. D) spreading computer viruses. E) developing biodegradable products and packages.
answer
D) spreading computer viruses.
question
In an effort to manage ecological challenges, many companies are A) moving environmental affairs from the staff side of the organization to the line side. B) moving environmental affairs from the line side of the organization to the staff side. C) making the chief operating officer report directly to the corporate environmental group. D) omitting an environmental representative from their board of directors. E) purging environmental values from their mission statements.
answer
A) moving environmental affairs from the staff side of the organization to the line side.
question
Environmental advocacy groups now have ________ Americans as members. A) approximately 100,000 B) just under a million C) close to 5 million D) over 20 million E) almost a billion
answer
D) over 20 million
question
Preserving the environment should be a permanent part of doing business for which of the following reasons? A) Consumer demand for environmentally safe products and packages is low. B) Public opinion demanding that firms conduct business in ways that preserve the natural environment is weak. C) Federal and state environmental regulations are fairly simple and static. D) Many consumers, suppliers, distributors, and investors shun doing business with environmentally strong firms. E) More lenders are examining the environmental liabilities of businesses seeking loans.
answer
E) More lenders are examining the environmental liabilities of businesses seeking loans.
question
A proactive environmental policy is likely to lead to A) higher cleanup costs. B) conservation of energy. C) reduced customer loyalty. D) numerous liability suits. E) higher medical costs.
answer
B) conservation of energy.
question
The ________ is a network of the national standards institutes of 147 countries, one member per country. A) ISO B) EMS C) UN D) EPA E) IMF
answer
A) ISO
question
All of the following statements are true EXCEPT A) ISO is the world's largest developer of sustainability standards. B) ISO standards are widely accepted all over the world. C) ISO has legal authority to enforce its regulations' implementation. D) ISO standards are voluntary. E) ISO itself does not regulate or legislate.
answer
C) ISO has legal authority to enforce its regulations' implementation.
question
________ is a set of standards in fields such as environmental auditing, performance evaluation, and labeling, that is adopted by thousands of firms worldwide to certify to their constituencies that they are conducting business in an environmentally friendly manner. A) ISO 14001 B) EMS 14000 C) UN 5000 D) SEC 100 E) A sustainability report
answer
A) ISO 14001
question
The European Parliament in late 2012 voted with an overwhelming 566-47 margin to A) reinstate commercial whaling. B) eradicate the practice of shark finning. C) add polar bears to the list of endangered species. D) outlaw international trade in ivory. E) None of the above
answer
B) eradicate the practice of shark finning.
question
The Wall Street Journal article "America Gone Wild" A) reports an astonishing resurgence in wildlife populations in the USA. B) cites that deer-vehicle crashes in the USA cost $1.5 billion a year. C) describes damage done to U.S. infrastructure by the resurgence in wildlife. D) reveals that the total annual cost of wildlife damage in the USA exceeds $28 billion. E) All of the above
answer
E) All of the above
Business Law
Circuit Court Of Appeals
Civil Law
Class Action Lawsuits
Equal Employment Opportunities
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Flashcards About blaw chapter 29 67 terms

John Smith
67 terms
Preview
Flashcards About blaw chapter 29
question
The employment-at-will doctrine is little used today.
answer
false
question
There are no exceptions to the employment-at-will doctrine.
answer
false
question
An oral promise that an employer makes to employees regarding discharge policy may be considered part of an implied contract.
answer
true
question
Firing a worker who refuses to perform an illegal act violates public policy.
answer
true
question
Whistleblower statutes protect employers who retaliate against their employees for \"blowing the whistle.\"
answer
false
question
All employees are entitled to overtime pay.
answer
false
question
Under federal law, only KEY employees who take temporary family or medical leave are entitled to job reinstatement.
answer
false
question
Certain employers must provide their employees with up to twelve weeks of family or medical leave during any twelve-month period.
answer
true
question
Only the states set safety standards governing workplaces.
answer
false
question
To recover workers' compensation, an employee must prove that an injury was the fault of the employer.
answer
false
question
Employer who willfully violates safety regulations can be prosecuted under state criminal laws.
answer
true
question
Once an employee receives workers' compensation, he or she can maintain a suit against the employer for negligence.
answer
false
question
The basis for contributions to help pay for an employee's loss of income on retirement is the employee's annual wage base.
answer
true
question
Employers who provide pension plans for retired workers must comply with certain standards in managing the plans.
answer
true
question
All unemployed workers are eligible for unemployment compensation.
answer
false
question
Employee contributions to pension plans vest immediately.
answer
true
question
An employee can continue the health benefits provided by his or her employer for a period of time only on an INVOLUNTARY loss of employment.
answer
false
question
Most employees can continue the group health benefits provided by their employers for a limited period of time after the loss of employment.
answer
true
question
No employee has a reasonable expectation of privacy in the workplace.
answer
false
question
Generally, an employer's monitoring of electronic communications in the workplace does not violate employees' privacy rights.
answer
true
question
An employer can require an employee to take a lie-detector test when investigating losses attributable to theft.
answer
true
question
Only state law governs drug tests of private-sector employees.
answer
true
question
To recruit employees from other countries, an employer must first complete a verification process.
answer
true
question
An employer may hire an illegal immigrant if the employer files a special form.
answer
false
question
Federal labor law protects employees' right to join labor unions.
answer
true
question
An employer can refuse to bargain collectively with an elected employee representative.
answer
false
question
Federal labor law protects employees' right to strike.
answer
true
question
A closed shop is a firm that rejects union membership as a condition of employment.
answer
false
question
Requiring union membership as a condition of continued employment is legal.
answer
false
question
Employers can agree with unions not to handle, use, or deal in non-union-produced goods.
answer
false
question
Federal law governs unions' internal business procedures.
answer
true
question
Unions must allow their members to participate in union meetings.
answer
true
question
An employer may campaign among its workers against a union during a union election campaign.
answer
true
question
Non-workers do not have a right to picket an employer during a strike.
answer
false
question
An employer may not hire substitute workers to replace strikers.
answer
false
question
Myron is an employee of Nero. Either party can terminate the employment relationship at any time for any reason without liability. With respect to the employment-at-will doctrine, this is...
answer
(a) an example of the doctrine
question
Lena offers Miguel a job, representing falsely that it will be long term. In reliance, Miguel takes the job but is laid off shortly thereafter and successfully sues Lena for fraud. With respect to the employment-at-will doctrine, this is...
answer
(d) an exception based on tort theory
question
Thalia is an employee of Universal Insurance Company. Universal's employee manual states that workers will be dismissed only for good cause. With respect to the employment-at-will doctrine, this is...
answer
(b) an exception based on contract theory
question
Flem is an employee of Glo Goods, Inc. Flem reports to state officials that Glo is illegally shipping unsafe goods to unsuspecting customers. When Glo learns of Flem's report, Glo fires him. He successfully sues Glo for wrongful discharge. With respect to the employment-at-will doctrine, this is...
answer
(c) an exception based on public theory
question
Frida is an employee of Green Recycled Products Company. A state statute protects Frida from Green's retaliation if Frida reports to state officials, or others, that Green is involved in unsafe or illegal activity. With respect to the employment-at-will doctrine, this is...
answer
(c) an exception based on public theory
question
Uri is an employee of Verity Security Services. For Uri to obtain the benefits of federal wage-hour requirements, Verity must be engaged in...
answer
(d) interstate commerce
question
John is an employee of Drowsy Resort, Inc., covered by federal overtime provisions, which apply only after an employee has worked more than...
answer
(b) 40 hours a week
question
Ethan is seventeen years old. Under the Fair Labor Standards Act, Ethan cannot work...
answer
(b) in a hazardous occupation
question
Emma, Frick, Glenda, and Huey are employees of different-sized employers in different industries. A minimum wage must be paid to employees in...
answer
(b) covered industries only
question
Cafe Dining, Inc., employs one hundred workers at three locations in two states. Under federal law, Café must provide its employees, during any twelve-month period, family or medical leave of up to...
answer
(b) 12 weeks
question
Eduardo is an employee of Free-Flo Plumbing Corporation. With respect to the workplace, under federal health and safety statutes, Free-Flo has...
answer
(a) general duty to keep it safe and to meet specific standards
question
Hoppy, who works as an employee for Imperial Power Corporation, suffers an injury in an accident. Hoppy will be compensated under state workers' compensation laws...
answer
(c) only if the injury occurred ON the job
question
Over a forty-year period, Ewa worked in a variety of jobs. She was also occasionally unemployed, briefly hospitalized, and suffered a temporary disability. She retired last year. The key law on all of these subjects is...
answer
(d) the Social Security Act
question
Staffing Solutions Corporation is subject to the Social Security Act, which...
answer
(c) provides retirement, survivors, and disability insurance
question
Pam is an administrative employee of Quality Assurance Company. Social Security contributions to help pay for Pam's loss of income on retirement are made by...
answer
(b) Pam and Quality Assurance
question
Machine Operations, Inc. (MO), employs four hundred workers at three locations in three states. Workers who do not have a right to continue group health benefits provided by MO for a limited time after the loss of their jobs include those who...
answer
(a) are fired for gross misconduct.
question
Network Industries, Inc., wants to monitor its employees' electronic com-munications. To avoid liability under laws related to employee monitor¬ing, Network should discuss the monitoring with...
answer
(b) the employees
question
First National Bank may subject its employees to lie-detector tests when investigating...
answer
(b) losses attributable to theft
question
Fruits & Vegetables, Inc., employs hundreds of seasonal and permanent workers, both skilled and unskilled, in seven states. Under the Immigration Act of 1990, Fruits & Vegetables can hire illegal immigrants...
answer
(d) under no circumstances
question
David's family came to the United States from Ukraine in 1895. Eva's family came to this country from Vietnam in 1995. Fiona's family came from Mexico in 2005. Current immigration laws are based on...
answer
(c) a system of sanctions against employers who hire illegal immigrants
question
Mineral Mining Corporation is a U.S. employer. Mineral, and other U.S. employers, must perform I-9 verifications for new hires who work under the employer's direct supervision...
answer
(d) including contractors and day workers
question
Hu, Ivan, and Juana apply to work for King Meatpacking Company. These individuals' identities and eligibility to work must be verified by...
answer
(a) the employer
question
Seafood Canning Corporation keeps a file of I-9 verifications forms. To inspect this file, the appropriate government officer must obtain...
answer
(c) not a subpoena, a warrant, or the employer's consent
question
Detailed Designs Company, an architectural firm, wants to hire Eduardo, a noncitizen. A temporary work visa is most likely to be set aside for a noncitizen who is...
answer
(b) a person of extraordinary ability
question
Socrates Software Corporation wants to hire Tomas, a noncitizen. To hire Tomas, Socrates must petition...
answer
(b) the US Department of State
question
Dag is an employee of Eagle Mining Company. Under federal labor law, Dag and other employees have the right to...
answer
(a) bargain collectively with Eagle through their representatives
question
Link and Meryl are employees of Natural Resources, Inc. (NRI). When Odel, the president of NRI, learns that Link and Meryl are active in union activities, he discharges them. Link and Meryl may bring an action against NRI under...
answer
(a) federal labor law
question
Doctors Hospital Corporation employs seven thousand workers in seven locations. These employees have the right to...
answer
(c) organize
question
Service Employees International Union would like Tasty Cafés, Inc., to require union membership of its job applicants as a condition to obtaining employment. This is...
answer
(a) illegal in all states
question
Detroit Automotive Company (DAC) agrees with its employees' union not to buy any nonunion-produced component parts from other firms for use in DAC products. This is...
answer
(b) a prohibited secondary boycott
question
During a union election campaign at Skyscraper Construction Corporation, the employer can, without monitoring or regulating by the National Labor Relations Board, threaten employees with...
answer
(d) neither a layoff nor a reduction in benefits and wages
question
Pip, a clerk for a Quik Burger, Inc., restaurant goes out on strike with the other employees. After the strike, Pip must be given his job back if the strike is not deemed unlawful, there is still work at the restaurant, and the strike was...
answer
(b) an economic strike or an unfair labor practice strike
Affirmative Action Program
Business
Business Management
Economic Model Of Social Responsibility
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Let The Buyer Beware
Principles Of Marketing
Business 101 quiz 2 – Flashcards 28 terms

Isabel Padilla
28 terms
Preview
Business 101 quiz 2 – Flashcards
question
Business ethics
answer
an application of moral standards to business situations
question
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
answer
provides legal protection for employees that report corporate misconduct
question
code of ethics
answer
a guide to acceptable and ethical behavior as defined by the organization
question
consumerism
answer
all activities undertaken to protect the rights of consumers
question
whistle-blowing
answer
informing the press or government officials about unethical practices within one's organization
question
caveat emptor
answer
a latin phrase meaning "let the buyer beware"
question
minority
answer
a racial, religious, political, national, or other group regarded as different from the larger group of which its a part
question
affirmative action program
answer
a plan designed to increase the number of minority employees at all levels within an organization
question
hard-core unemployed
answer
workers with little education or vocational training and a long history of unemployment
question
pollution
answer
the contamination of water, air or land
question
the field of business ethics applies moral standards to business situations
answer
True
question
business ethics rarely involves the application of moral standards to the business activity of a normal company
answer
false
question
the economic model of social responsiblity emphasizes the effect of business decisions on society
answer
false
question
consumerism consists of all activities undertaken to protect the rights of consumers
answer
true
question
manufacturers are not required by law to inform consumers about the potential danger of using their products
answer
false
question
affirmative action plans encompass all areas of human resources management, including recruiting, hiring, training, promotion and pay.
answer
true
question
the EPA was created by the govnermnet to develeop new and improved ways to clean and imporve the environment
answer
false
question
consumers will probably pay in large part for cleaning up our environment through increased taxes and increased product costs
answer
true
question
a key step in developing and implementing a social responsibility program is the environmental audit
answer
false
question
business ethics
answer
the application of moral standrds to business situations
question
customers expect a firms products to be
answer
safe, reliable and reasonably priced
question
unethical
answer
some AIG executves were aware of the financial problems of the company was facing and yet failed to reveal this info to the public
question
bribes are
answer
unethical
question
financial factor, opportunities and morals are
answer
the three sets of factors that influence the standards of behavior in an organization
question
whistle blowing is
answer
informing the press, govnmt officials about unethical practices within one's organization
question
social responsibility
answer
Though costly, this provides tremendous benefits to society and the business.
question
management
answer
where the social responsibility of a business begins
question
the primary emphasis in the economic model of social responsibility is on
answer
firm's and community's interests
Affirmative Action Programs
Civil Rights Act Of 1964
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Human Resource Management
Management
business a changing world chapter 10 – Flashcards 34 terms

Paulina Ratliff
34 terms
Preview
business a changing world chapter 10 – Flashcards
question
human resources management
answer
all the activities involved in determining human resources needs, as well as acquiring, training, and compensating people to fill those needs
question
job analysis
answer
the determination, through observation and study, of pertinent information about a job-including specific task and necessary abilities, knowledge, and skills
question
job description
answer
a formal, written explanation of a specific job, usually including job title, tasks relationship with other jobs, physical and mental skills required, duties, responsibilities, and working conditions
question
job specification
answer
a description of the qualifications necessary for a specific job, in terms of education, experience, and personal and physical characteristics
question
recruiting
answer
forming a pool of qualified applicants from which management can select employees
question
selection
answer
the process of collecting information about applicants and using that information to make hiring decisions
question
title VII of the civil rights act
answer
prohibits discrimination in employment and created the equal employment opportunity commission
question
orientation
answer
familiarizing newly hired employees with fellow workers, company procedures, and the physical properties of the company
question
training
answer
teaching employees to do specific job tasks through either classroom development or on-the-job experience
question
development
answer
training that augments the skills and knowledge of managers and professionals
question
turnover
answer
occurs when employees quit or are fired and must be replaced by new employees
question
promotion
answer
an advancement to a higher level job with increased authority, responsibility, and pay
question
transfer
answer
a move to another job within the company at essentially the same level and wage
question
separation
answer
employment changes involving resignation, retirement, termination, or layoff
question
wage/salary survey
answer
a study that tells a company how much compensation comparable firms are paying for specific jobs that the firms have in common
question
wages
answer
financial rewards based on the number of hours the employee works or the level of output achieved
question
commission
answer
an incentive system that pays a fixed amount or a percentage of the employee's sales
question
salary
answer
a financial reward calculated on a weekly, monthly, or annual basis
question
bonuses
answer
monetary rewards offered by companies for exceptional performance as incentives to further increase productivity
question
profit sharing
answer
a form of compensation whereby a percentage of company profits is distributed to the employees whose work helped to generate them
question
benefits
answer
non financial forms of compensation provided to employees, such as pension plans, health insurance, paid vacation and holidays, and the like
question
labor unions
answer
employee organizations formed to deal with employers for achieving better pay, hours, and working conditions
question
collective bargaining
answer
the negotiation process through which management and unions reach an agreement about compensation, working hours, and working conditions for the bargaining unit
question
labor contract
answer
the formal, written document that spells out the relationship between the union and management for a specified period of time usually two or three years
question
picketing
answer
a public protest against management practices that involves union members marching and carrying anti-management signs at the employer's plant or work site
question
strikes
answer
employee walkouts; one of the most effective weapons of labor unions
question
boycott
answer
an attempt to keep people from purchasing the products of a company
question
lockout
answer
management's version of a strike, wherein a work site is closed so that employees cannot go to work
question
strikebreakers
answer
people hired by management to replace striking employees; called "scabs" by striking union members
question
conciliation
answer
a method of outside resolution of labor and management differences in which a third party is brought in to keep the two sides talking
question
mediation
answer
a method of outside resolution of labor and management differences in which the third party's role is to suggest or propose a solution to the problem
question
arbitration
answer
settlement of a labor/management dispute by a third party whose solution is legally binding and enforceable
question
diversity
answer
the participation of different ages, genders, races, ethnicities, nationalities, and abilities in the work place
question
affirmative action programs
answer
legally mandated plans that try to increase job opportunities for minority groups by analyzing the current pool of workers, identifying areas where women and minorities are underrepresented, and establishing specific hiring and promotion goals with target dates, for addressing the discrepancy
Affirmative Action Program
Business Management
Economic Model Of Social Responsibility
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Let The Buyer Beware
Principles Of Marketing
Business Practice Quiz Ch 1-3 – Flashcards 49 terms

Lewis Edwards
49 terms
Preview
Business Practice Quiz Ch 1-3 – Flashcards
question
Business Ethics
answer
The application of moral standards to business situations.
question
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
answer
Provides legal protections for employees who report corporate misconduct.
question
Code of Ethics
answer
A guide to acceptable and ethical behavior as defined by the organization.
question
Consumerism
answer
All activities undertaken to protect the rights of the consumer.
question
Whistle-blowing
answer
Informing the press or government officials about unethical practices within one's/"a" business/organization.
question
Caveat Emptor
answer
A latin phrase meaning, "let the buyer beware".
question
Minority
answer
A racial, religious, political, national, or other group regarded as different from the larger group which it is a part (of).
question
Affirmative Action Program
answer
A plan designed to increase the number of minority employees at all levels in an organization.
question
Code of Ethics
answer
A guide to acceptable and ethical behavior as defined by an organization.
question
Economic Model of Social Responsibility
answer
Model that emphasizes the effect OF business decisions ON society; Believes society is best when business is left alone and is free to produce and market profitable products that society needs.
question
National Alliance of Business (NAB)
answer
A joint business-government program that "trains" the hard-core unemployed.
question
TRUE
answer
True or False: Manufacturers ARE required by law to inform consumers of/about the potential dangers of using their products?
question
Affirmative Action Plands
answer
These type of plans "encompass" all areas of human resources managements including recruiting, hiring, training, promotion, and pay.
question
FALSE
answer
True or False: The EPA was created by the government to develop new and improved ways to clean and improve/better the environment.
question
TRUE
answer
TRUE OR FALSE: Consumers will probably pay in large part for the cleaning up of our environment through increased taxes or increased product cost/(result of increased production costs).
question
Social Audit
answer
A comprehensive report of what an organization has done and is doing with regard to scial issues that affect it.
question
Hard-core Unemployed
answer
Workers with little education or vocational training and a long history of unemployment.
question
Socioeconomic Model of Social Responsability
answer
Model that suggests business emphasizes on profits AND the effect/impact of it's business decision on society.
question
Safe, reliable, and reasonably priced.
answer
Customers expect a firm/company's product to be...
question
Management
answer
Where does social responsibility of business have to begin?
question
Financial factors, opportunity, morals.
answer
What are three sets of factors that influence the standards of behavior in an organization?
question
Social Responsability
answer
Though costly, this provides tremendous benefits to society and the business.
question
Factory System
answer
(When) Materials, machinery, and workers are assembled in one place
question
Federal Deficit
answer
When the government spends more than it receives...
question
Barter
answer
System of Exchange
question
Product Differentiation
answer
The process of distinguishing Colgate from Crest Toothpaste.
question
Productivity
answer
The average level of output per worker per hour.
question
Economics
answer
The study of how wealth is created and distributed.
question
Business
answer
An organized effort to produce and sell goods and services for a profit.
question
Capitalism
answer
A system where individuals own and operate the majority of businesses.
question
Entrepreneur
answer
A person who takes the risk and invests in a business.
question
Gross Domestic Product
answer
Value of all goods and services produced within (ONE) a country during a one-year period.
question
Demand
answer
The relationship between prices and the quantities purchased by buyers.
question
Specialization
answer
The process of separating work into distinct tasks is called...
question
Laissez-Faire
answer
What term implies/(suggests) that there shall be no government interference in the economy?
question
Inflation
answer
When the level of prices in the economy rise, it's called...
question
National Debt
answer
The total of all federal deficits.
question
TRUE
answer
TRUE OR FALSE: The equilibrium price means that the supply and demand for a product are in balance
question
Peak, Recession, Trough, and Recovery
answer
What are the four states/[levels or parts] of the Business Cycle?
question
Main Objective of Business Firms
answer
To satisfy the needs of their customers should always be the...
question
Profit
answer
The difference between a firm's sales revenues and it's expenses, is the firm's...
question
Socialism and Communism
answer
Two examples of command economies in the present day are...
question
Fiscal Policy
answer
The act of when the government influences the amount of savings and expenditures by altering the tax structures and changing the levels of government spending.
question
Recession
answer
Monetary and Fiscal Policies are used by the government to offset the effects of a...
question
Perfect Competition
answer
The Market situation in which there are many buyers and sellers of a product and no single buyer or seller is powerful enough to effect the price of that product; Balance of power amogst the buyers and sellers.
question
Perfect, Monopolistic, Oligopoly, and Monopoly
answer
The 4 different types of competition within an industry are:
question
Monetary Policies
answer
Federal Reserve decisions that determine the size of the supply of money in the nation and the level of interest rates.
question
Recession
answer
Two or more consecutive three month periods of decline in a county's GDP
question
Depression
answer
A sevree recession lasting longer than a normal/typical one (longer than 6 months).
Business Law
Business Management
Data Collection Method
Duties And Responsibilities
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Honesty And Integrity
Human Resources Manager
Management
CHAPTER 8 – Organizing the Business Enterprise – Flashcards 29 terms

Sara Graham
29 terms
Preview
CHAPTER 8 – Organizing the Business Enterprise – Flashcards
question
organizational structure
answer
*the specification of the jobs to be done within a business and how those jobs relate to one another* - every institution must develop the most appropriate structure for its own unique situation
question
organization chart
answer
a physical depiction of the company's structure showing employee titles and their relationship to one another
question
chain of command
answer
reporting relationships within a business; the flow of decision making power in a firm
question
The first step in developing the structure of any business is:
answer
specialization and departmentalization
question
specialization vs. departmentalization
answer
*specialization* - determining who will do what *departmentalization* - the process of grouping jobs into logical units; determining how people performing certain tasks can be best grouped together - these two tasks are the basic building blocks of all business organization
question
job specialization
answer
the process of *identifying the specific jobs that need to be done* and *designating the people* who will perform them
question
Advantages to job specialization (3)
answer
- individual jobs can be performed *more efficiently* - jobs are *easier to learn* - *easier to replace* people who leave the organization
question
Disadvantages to job specialization
answer
- if it is carried out too far and jobs become too narrowly defined, people get bored; derive less satisfaction from their jobs and often lose sight of how their contributions fit into the overall organization
question
profit centre
answer
a separate company unit responsible for its own costs and profits
question
decision making hierarchy
answer
- managers must explicitly define reporting relationships among positions so that everyone will know who has responsibility for various decisions and operations - goal = figure out how to structure and stabilize the organizational framework so that everyone works together to achieve common goals
question
3-step process of decision making hierarchy
answer
*1. Assigning tasks* - determining who can make decisions and specifying how they should be made *2. Performing tasks* - implementing decisions that have been made *3. Distributing authority* - determining whether the organization is to be centralized or decentralized
question
responsibility vs. authority
answer
*responsibility* - the duty to perform an assigned task *authority* - the power to make the decisions necessary to complete a task
question
delegation vs. accountability
answer
*delegation* - assignment of a task, a responsibility or authority by a manager to a subordinate *accountability* - liability of subordinates for accomplishing tasks assigned by managers
question
4 things to keep in mind when delegating
answer
1. *Decide* on the nature of the work to be done 2. *Match the job* with the skills of subordinates 3. Make sure the person chosen *understands the objectives* he/she is supposed to achieve 4. Make sure subordinates have the *time and training* necessary to do the task
question
centralized organization vs decentralized organization
answer
*centralized org.* - top managers retain most decision-making rights for themselves i.e., McDonalds *decentralized org.* - lower- and middle- are allowed to make significant decisions - purpose: make company more responsive to its environment by breaking the company into more manageable units and giving those units more autonomy
question
tall vs flat organizational structure
answer
*tall organizational structure* - an organization with relatively few layers of management - centralized org. tend to be tall *flat organizational structure* - an org. with many layers of management - decentralized org. tend to be flat
question
span of control
answer
*the number of people managed by one manager* - employees' abilities and the supervisor's managerial skills help determine whether span of control is wide or narrow
question
downsizing
answer
the planned reduction in the scope of org's activity
question
4 basic organizational structures
answer
- functional - divisional - project - international
question
functional structure
answer
various units are included in a group based on functions that need to be performed for the organization to reach its goals
question
Advantages of a Functional structure
answer
- focuses attn on the key activities that must be performed - expertise develops within each function - employees have clearly defined career paths - the structure is simple and easy to understand - it eliminates duplication of activities
question
Disadvantages of functional structure
answer
- conflicts may arise among the functional areas - no single function is responsible for overall organizational performance - employees in each functional area have a narrow view of the org - decision-making is slowed because functional areas must get approval from top management for a variety of decisions - coordinating highly specialized functions may be difficult
question
divisional structure
answer
divides the organization in division, each of which operates as a semi-autonomous unit
question
Advantages of divisional structure
answer
- it accommodates change and expansion - increases accountability - develops expertise in the various divisions - encourages training for top management
question
Disadvantages of divisional structure
answer
- activities may be duplicated across divisions - a lack of communication among divisions may occur - adding diverse divisions may blur the focus of the organization - company politics may affect the allocation of resources
question
project organization
answer
an org. that uses teams of specialists to complete specific projects - can be temporary or permanent - used extensively in Canadian firms (construction etc.); also used in other kinds of tasks including military, weapons, aerospace, and health-care delivery
question
organizational design for the 21st century (unique to modern times)
answer
- *team organization* - relies almost exclusively on project-type teams with little or no underlying functional hierarchy; allows each unit to change direction, explore new ideas, and try new methods without having to deal with a rigid bureaucratic superstructure - *virtual organization* - little or no structure; only a handful of permanent employees, a very small staff and a modest administrative facility; managers bring in temp workers, lease facilities and outsource basic support services to meet demands of situation
question
formal vs informal organization
answer
*formal* - part that can be seen and represented in a chart *informal organization* - a network of personal interactions and relationships among employees unrelated to the firm's formal authority structure
question
grapevine
answer
an informal communications network that carries gossip and other information throughout an organization
Affirmative Action Program
Clean Air Act
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Ethical Behavior In Business
Let The Buyer Beware
Flashcards on Foundations of Business Chapter 2 35 terms

Ewan Tanner
35 terms
Preview
Flashcards on Foundations of Business Chapter 2
question
ethics
answer
the study of right and wrong and of the morality of the choices individuals make
question
business ethics
answer
the application of moral standards to business situations
question
3 factors that affect the level of ethical behavior in an organization
answer
individual factors, social factors, opportunity
question
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
answer
provides sweeping new legal protection for employees who report corporate misconduct
question
code of ethics
answer
a guide to acceptable and ethical behavior as defined by the organization
question
whistle-blowing
answer
informing the press or government officials about unethical practices within one's organization
question
social responsibility
answer
the recognition that business activities have an impact on society and the consideration of that impact in business decision making
question
caveat emptor
answer
a Latin phrase meaning "let the buyer beware"
question
economic model of social responsibility
answer
the view that society will benefit most when business is left alone to produce and market profitable products that society needs
question
socioeconomic model of social responsibility
answer
the concept that business should emphasize not only profits but also the impact of its decisions on society
question
consumerism
answer
all activities undertaken to protect the rights of consumers
question
minority
answer
a racial, religious. political, national or other group regarded as different from the larger group of which it is a part and that is often singled out for unfavorable treatment
question
affirmative action program
answer
a plan designed to increase the number of minority employees at all levels within an organization
question
reverse discrimination
answer
a form of discrimination where courts rule that such quotas are unconstitutional
question
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
answer
a government agency with the power to investigate complaints of employment discrimination and the power to sue that practice it
question
hard-core unemployed
answer
workers with little education or vocational training and a long history of unemployment
question
pollution
answer
the contamination of water, air, or land through the actions of people in an industrialized industry
question
social audit
answer
a comprehensive report of what an organization has done and is doing with regard to social issues that affect it
question
Customer's expect a firm's products to be:
answer
safe, reliable, and reasonable priced
question
The field of business ethics applies moral standards to business situations. T or F
answer
true
question
Business ethics rarely includes the application of moral standards to the business activity of a normal company. T or F
answer
false
question
The economic model of social responsibility emphasizes the effect of business decisions on society. T or F
answer
false
question
Consumerism consists of all activities undertaken to protect the rights of consumers. t or F
answer
true
question
Manufacturers are NOT required by law to inform consumers about the potential dangers of using their products. T or F
answer
false
question
Affirmative-action plans encompass all areas of human resources management, including recruiting, hiring, training, promotion, and pay. T or F
answer
true
question
Hard-core unemployed workers are those with little education or vocational training. T or F
answer
true
question
The EPA was created by the government to develop new improved ways to clean and improve the environment. T or F
answer
false
question
Consumers will probably pay in large part for cleaning up our environment through increased taxes or increased product cost. T or F
answer
true
question
A key step in developing and implementing a social responsibility program is the environmental audit. T or F
answer
false
question
Some AIG executives were aware of the financial problems the company was facing and yet failed to reveal the information to the public. these actions taken by AIG executives were:
answer
unethical
question
Bribes are unethical. t or f
answer
true
question
What are three sets of factors that influence the standards of behavior in an organization?
answer
opportunity, industrial factors, social factors
question
Social responsibility is
answer
costly but provides tremendous benefits to society and the business
question
Where does social responsibility of business have to begin?
answer
management
question
Primary emphasis in the economic model of social responsibility is on
answer
production
Equal Employment Opportunity
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Health Computing
Hipaa Privacy Rule
Medicare And Medicaid
Personal Health Information
Protected Health Information
Speech Recognition Technology
Subpoena Duces Tecum
HIM final – Flashcards 790 terms

Deacon Kirby
790 terms
Preview
HIM final – Flashcards
question
The HIM department is involved in the ____ process by making the health records of patients enrolled in a research study available to external monitors and auditors.
answer
IRB
question
Two providers bill for one service provided to one patient
answer
double billing
question
List the 13 stakeholder outcomes areas listed in Healthy People 2020.
answer
question
The first professional association for health information managers was established in:
answer
1928
question
The hospital standardization program was started by ___________________________.
answer
American College of Surgeons
question
The formal approval process for academic programs in health information management is called which of the following?
answer
Accreditation
question
Which of the following is the formal process for conferring a health information management credential?
answer
Certification
question
Which of the following is a traditional HIM role?
answer
Tracking record completion
question
Which of the following functions governs the HIM profession?
answer
AHIMA House of Delegates
question
Which of the following make up a virtual network of AHIMA members?
answer
AHIMA Engage
question
Which of the following is an arm of AHIMA that promotes research in health information management?
answer
AHIMA Foundation
question
Which of the following best describes the mission of the AHIMA?
answer
Community of professionals providing support to members and strengthening the industry and profession
question
Which professional organization sponsors the CTR certification?
answer
NCRA
question
Someone who wishes to sit for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) certification should contact which organization?
answer
AAPC
question
In order to qualify for an AHIMA fellowship, what minimal educational level is needed?
answer
Master's degree
question
Which of the following qualify for CEUs?
answer
College course
question
Critique this statement: Once someone has earned the registered health information technician (RHIT) credential, it is a lifetime certification.
answer
This is incorrect as RHITs have to become recertified.
question
Which group is responsible for AHIMA's certification exams?
answer
CCHIIM
question
State College is applying for accreditation of the new HIM program. How long do they have to complete their candidacy?
answer
2 years
question
The two components of AHIMA's management structure are which of the following?
answer
Staff and volunteer
question
An RHIT who graduated from college 6 months ago is joining AHIMA for the first time. What membership is he or she qualified for?
answer
Active
question
Critique this statement: an RHIT must be at least 65 years old in order to qualify for emeritus membership.
answer
This is a true statement.
question
The requirement for an HIM professional to comply with all laws, regulations, and standards governing the practice of HIM is in the AHIMA _________.
answer
Code of Ethics
question
The accountability framework and decision rights to achieve enterprise information management is known as:
answer
Information governance
question
Prior to hospital standardization, health records were:
answer
essentially worthless
question
The number of charter members of the ARLNA was:
answer
58
question
To be recognized as a profession, which of the following did HIM need?
answer
Preliminary training
question
The emphasis on traditional practice of HIM was to ensure:
answer
complete and accurate health record
question
Who is responsible for communicating information relevant to national issues and keeping members informed of regional affairs that affect HIM?
answer
AHIMA Component state association
question
Which group brings together stakeholders to address issues related to the future of the HIM profession and education?
answer
Council for Excellence in Education
question
Which of the following activities is an information-oriented HIM function?
answer
Data manipulation
question
Which of the following is the accreditation organization for HIM programs?
answer
CAHIIM
question
Which of the following is true about the AHIMA certification program?
answer
Candidates must pass an examination before obtaining any of the credentials.
question
Which of the following classes of AHIMA membership requires that individuals have interest in HIM and will abide by the AHIMA code of ethics?
answer
Active membership
question
Which of the following entities are at the head of the AHIMA volunteer structure and hold responsibility for managing the property, affairs, and operations of AHIMA?
answer
Board of Directors
question
The accreditation program of AHIMA is concerned with which of the following?
answer
Establishing standards for the content of college programs in health information management
question
Which organization should be contacted regarding the certified healthcare documentation specialist exam?
answer
Association for Healthcare Documentation Integrity
question
Which of the following makes up a virtual network of AHIMA members who communicate via a web-based program managed by AHIMA?
answer
Engage
question
Which of the following carries out the operational tasks necessary to support the organization's mission and goals?
answer
Staff
question
Members of the AHIMA House of Delegates are:
answer
Elected by members in component state organizations
question
Who is responsible for final approval of the AHIMA Code of Ethics?
answer
AHIMA House of Delegates
question
The term used to describe controlling information is ______.
answer
Information governance
question
Which organization's goal is centered on health information technology?
answer
HIMSS
question
An RHIT is going back to earn her bachelor degree so that she can sit for the RHIA exam. What membership category is she qualified for?
answer
Active
question
A member of the AHIMA Board of Directors is which of the following?
answer
Elected
question
Which of the following is true about the AHIMA House of Delegates?
answer
They meet virtually throughout the year.
question
The AHIMA House of Delegates has power over which of the following?
answer
Amendments to AHIMA's bylaws
question
The role of the AHIMA chief executive officer is to:
answer
Manage the day-to-day operations
question
Where should new graduates begin their volunteer experience? Correct!
answer
CSA
question
Which step comes first in the accreditation process?
answer
Self-assessment
question
Sustained professional achievement is required by which of the following?
answer
Fellowship
question
AHIMA fellowship is conferred for:
answer
Life
question
Which of the following confers scholarships?
answer
AHIMA Foundation
question
Which of the following places an emphasis on treating individual patients at the level of care required by their course of treatment and extends from their primary care providers to specialists and ancillary providers?
answer
Continuum of care
question
As of 2014, what percent of the U.S. economy was represented by healthcare spending?
answer
17.5
question
What is the ideal ratio of medical generalist to specialist?
answer
40:60
question
Registered Nurses are only formally educated at the bachelor's degree.
answer
false
question
Which of the following is considered an Allied Health professional?
answer
Licensed Practical Nurses
question
Occupational Therapists are concerned with a patient's activities of daily living.
answer
true
question
Which of the following federal laws created Medicare and Medicaid?
answer
Public Law 89-97 of 1965
question
Medicare will pay the Medicaid premiums, deductibles, and coinsurance costs for some low-income Medicaid beneficiaries.
answer
false
question
What is the name of the process to determine whether medical care provided to a specific patient is necessary according to pre-established objective screening criteria at time frames specified.
answer
Utilization review
question
HITECH was a portion of which bill?
answer
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009
question
What is the name of the type of beds in a hospital that are defined by those authorized by the state?
answer
Licensed
question
To qualify as a Critical Access Hospital one of the criteria is to be located in a rural area.
answer
true
question
One of the functions of the board of directors is to approve the organization and makeup of the clinical staff.
answer
true
question
The "C" in CIO stands for:
answer
Chief
question
Health information management departments are considered which of the following?
answer
Ancillary Support Service
question
Hospital-owned group practices are considered ambulatory care organizations
answer
true
question
One group of patients that prefer treatment at urgent care centers are those whose insurance carriers treat urgent care centers preferentially when compared with physician offices.
answer
true
question
Which of the following is the fastest-growing sector to offer services for Medicare recipients?
answer
Home health
question
Rehabilitation hospitals are categorized as an acute care type of facility in treating patients.
answer
false
question
Which of the following is a main goal in treating hospice patients?
answer
Minimize the stress and trauma of death
question
Which of the following is the health profession that focuses on the eyes and related structures?
answer
Optometry
question
Public Law 89-97 of 1965 created a number of amendments to which Act?
answer
Social Security Act
question
The Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology was created as part of which Act?
answer
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act
question
Who has the primary responsibility for setting the overall direction of the hospital?
answer
Board of directors
question
The medical staff operates according to a pre-determined set of policies called ___________.
answer
Medical staff bylaws
question
Managed care organizations deliver medical care and manage all aspects of patient care by limiting providers of care, discounting payments to providers of care, or limiting access to care.
answer
true
question
Two types of practitioners can hold the degree of Doctor of Medicine. They are:
answer
Physician and Surgeon
question
Which of the following is a surgical specialty?
answer
Anesthesiology
question
Nurse Practitioners often receive advanced training at the Masters level.
answer
true
question
Which of the following professionals is not mentioned in this text as requiring licensing by all 50 states?
answer
Health Information Management
question
Physical Therapists use work and play activities to improve patient's independent functioning, enhance their development, and prevent or decrease their level of disability.
answer
false
question
The Social Security Act of 1935 had a healthcare component added by the Republican president, Franklin D. Roosevelt.
answer
false
question
With the implementation of the Affordable Care Act, U.S. states were given the opportunity to expand Medicaid, though not all have done so.
answer
true
question
Which of the following persons were intended to be supported by Medicaid in Public Law 89-97 of 1965?
answer
Single-parent families
question
The average length of stay (LOS) for acute care hospitals is:
answer
25 days or less
question
The board of directors can also be called the board of trustees.
answer
true
question
What is the name given to the privileges assigned to physicians to provide clinical services in a hospital?
answer
Clinical
question
Traditionally physicians alone determine the timely and effective interventions in response to a wide range of problems related to a patient's treatment, comfort, and safety. Who else are playing a wider role in this function?
answer
Nurses
question
Long term care patients are referred to as residents of the healthcare facility administering care.
answer
true
question
What percentage of hospitals offers emergency services?
answer
More than 90%
question
Who is appointed by the President of the United States to provide leadership and science-based recommendations about the public's health?
answer
Surgeon General of the United States
question
Skilled nursing care is defined as skilled nursing observations and:
answer
Technical procedures
question
Long term care is mainly rehabilitative and supportive rather than curative.
answer
true
question
Patients in hospice care are expected to live a maximum of ___ days.
answer
180 days
question
The difference in health insurance coverage between medical and psychiatric care is referred to as:
answer
Non-parity
question
This type of facility is more homelike and less institutional than in the past
answer
Residential Care Facilities
question
Cell-based technologies include:
answer
Stem cells for transplant
question
Name the leading federal agency charged with protecting the public health.
answer
The CDC or Centers for Disease Control
question
Which of the following is a secondary purpose of the health record?
answer
Educate medical students
question
Which of the following is an institutional user of the health record?
answer
Government policy maker
question
How do patient care managers and support staff use the data documented in the health record?
answer
Evaluate the performance of employees
question
An HIM student asked an HIM director why the hybrid record is so challenging. What is the HIM director's response?
answer
It is because we have to manage both the electronic and paper media.
question
What is the process of ensuring that a record is available for every patient seen at the healthcare facility?
answer
Reconcilliation
question
Dr. Smith dictated his report and then immediately edited it. What type of speech recognition is being used?
answer
Front-end
question
Critique this statement: Data and information mean the same thing.
answer
This is a false statement because data is raw facts and figures and information is data converted into a meaningful format.
question
Which information system will track information provided to a requester?
answer
Release of information
question
The use of the health record by a clinician to facilitate quality patient care is considered ____________.
answer
A primary purpose of the health record
question
Why is only the most current version of a document displayed?
answer
To ensure there is no confusion on the correct document
question
How do accreditation organizations use the health record?
answer
To determine whether standards are being met
question
How long should the MPI be retained?
answer
Permanently
question
Deficiencies in a health record include which of the following?
answer
Missing document
question
Critique this statement: Patient care managers are individual users of health records.
answer
This is a true statement.
question
Removing health records of patients who have not been treated at the facility for a specific period of time from the storage area to allow space for more current records is called:
answer
Purging records
question
Which type of microfilm does not allow for a unit record to be maintained?
answer
Roll microfilm
question
Which of the following is true about document imaging?
answer
Documents can be indexed
question
Which system records the location of health records removed from the filing system and documents the return of the health records?
answer
Chart tracking system
question
"Loose" reports are health record forms that:
answer
Are received by the HIM department and added to the health record after it has been processed
question
Which of the following is the most efficient filing system?
answer
Unit numbering system
question
Which of the following is the key to the identification and location of a patient's health record?
answer
MPI
question
Which of the following numbering system assigns multiple health record numbers, or, one per visit?
answer
Serial
question
In which numbering system does a patient admitted to a healthcare facility on three different occasions receive three different health record numbers but the content is filed under the most recent health record number?
answer
Serial-unit number
question
Which of the following is part of qualitative analysis review?
answer
Checking that only approved abbreviations are used
question
Which of the following is true of good forms design for paper forms?
answer
Every form should have a unique identification number
question
Which of the following best describes the most important function of the health record?
answer
Storing patient care documentation
question
Who are the primary users of the health record?
answer
Clinical professionals who provide direct patient care
question
Which of the following elements is typically found in the paper health record?
answer
Patient identification
question
Which of the following is an example of information
answer
The number of patients discharged has increased 175% over the past year.
question
How many linear filing inches can a shelving unit hold based on the following data? Shelving unit shelf width = 36 inches Number of shelves per unit = 9 shelves Average record thickness = ½ inch
answer
324
question
Which of the following assists in locating misfiles in the paper-based filing systems?
answer
Color coding
question
Which one of the following are included in a list of institutional users of the health record?
answer
Blue Cross and Blue Shield
question
The services provided by HIM departments in acute care hospitals usually include all the following except:
answer
Medical billing
question
The patient registration department assists the HIM department in what way?
answer
Assigning the health record number
question
Which one of the following is an example of virtual HIM?
answer
Employees who code from home
question
Which of the following HIM tasks is eliminated by the electronic health record system?
answer
Assembly
question
The master patient index __________________.
answer
Contains basic demographic information about the patient
question
Consider the following sequence of numbers. What filing system is being used if these numbers represent the health record numbers of three records filed together within the filing system? 36-45-99 37-45-99 38-45-99
answer
Terminal digit
question
The annual volume statistics for General Hospital are noted below. How many shelving units will be required to store this year's inpatient discharge records? Average inpatient discharges = 12,000 Average inpatient record thickness = ¾ inch SReviewing the health record for missing signatures, missing medical reports, and ensuring that all documents belong in the health record is an example of what type of analysishelving units shelf width = 36 inches Number of shelves per unit = 6
answer
42
question
Reviewing the health record for missing signatures, missing medical reports, and ensuring that all documents belong in the health record is an example of what type of analysis
answer
Quantitative
question
The coding of clinical diagnoses and healthcare procedures and services after the patient is discharged is what type of review?
answer
Retrospective
question
The release of information function requires the HIM professional to:
answer
Disclose patient identifiable information to a third party
question
Which system is best suited for a small healthcare facility such as a one-physician practice?
answer
Alphabetic filing system
question
In which of the following systems does an individual receive a unique numerical identifier at the time of first encounter with a healthcare facility and maintain that identifier for all subsequent encounters?
answer
Unit numbering system
question
A record not completed within the time frame specified in the medical staff rules and regulations is called a ____________.
answer
Delinquent record
question
Which of the following should be taken into consideration when designing a health record form?
answer
Including original and revised dates
question
Which of the following statements describes alphabetical filing?
answer
File the record alphabetically by the last name, followed by the first name, and then the middle initial.
question
Which of the following lists of names is in correct order for alphabetical filing?
answer
Smith, Carl J. Smith, Mary A. Smith, Paul M. Smith, Thomas
question
Which of the following is a micrographic method of storing health records in which each document page is placed sequentially on a long strip?
answer
Microfilm roll
question
Which of the following tools is usually used to track paper-based health records that have been removed from their permanent storage locations?
answer
Outguides
question
Which of the following filing methods is considered the most efficient?
answer
Terminal digit filing
question
Which of the following indexes is key to locating a health record?
answer
Master patient index
question
Which one of the following is in terminal digit order?
answer
Which one of the following is in terminal digit order?
question
An addendum to the health record should be dated _____.
answer
The day the addendum was created.
question
Why should the copy and paste function should not be used in the electronic health record?
answer
The content may contain outdated information
question
What committee oversees the development and approval of new forms for the health record?
answer
Health information management committee
question
What is the software that is used for voice recognition known as?
answer
Natural language processing
question
How can the healthcare facility determine which physician has the best patient outcomes?
answer
Data mining
question
Critique this statement: Version control is not an issue in the EHR.
answer
There are issues related to versions of documents, such as there must be a flag to indicate a previous version.
question
Dr. Smith wants to use a lot of free text in his EHR. What should be your response?
answer
Dr. Smith, we recommend that you use little, if any, free text in the EHR.
question
Which of the following is a secondary purpose of the health record?
answer
Support for research
question
Which of the following is a disadvantage of alphabetic filing
answer
Uneven expansion in file shelves or cabinets
question
Which of the terms below represents fixed rules that must be followed?
answer
Standard
question
Which of the following is a request from a clinical area to charge out a health record?
answer
Requisition
question
What would be the linear filing inch capacity for a shelving unit with 6 shelves, each measuring 36 inches?
answer
216 inches
question
A quantitative review of the health record for missing reports and signatures that occurs when the patient is in the hospital is referred to as a _______ review.
answer
Concurrent
question
A health record with deficiencies that is not complete within the timeframe specified in the medical staff rules and regulations is called a(n) _________ record.
answer
Delinquent
question
In which department or unit does the health record typically begin?
answer
Patient registration
question
The term used for health record moved to an inactive file area because they have not been at the healthcare facility for a predefined period of time is:
answer
Purged
question
Our transcription is performed by a company outside of our organization. What is this called?
answer
Outsourcing
question
Calculate the number of shelving units required for 35,000 linear filing inches of records if the shelving unit has 7 shelves and is 36 inches wide.
answer
139
question
Which of the following is an argument against the use of the copy and paste function in the EHR?
answer
Inability to identify the author
question
Which of the following creates a chronological report of the patient's condition and response to treatment during a hospital stay?
answer
Progress notes
question
Which health record format is most commonly used by healthcare settings as they transition to electronic records?
answer
Hybrid records
question
What is the end result of a review process that shows voluntary compliance with guidelines of an external, non-profit organization?
answer
Accreditation
question
Which part of a medical history documents the nature and duration of the symptoms that caused a patient to seek medical attention as stated in that patient's own words?
answer
Chief complaint
question
Which of the following is an example of administrative information?
answer
Patient's address
question
The federal Conditions of Participation apply to which type of healthcare organization?
answer
Organizations that treat Medicare or Medicaid patients
question
Which of the following materials is documented in an emergency care record?
answer
Time and means of the patient's arrival
question
Which of the following statements is true of the process that should be followed in making corrections in paper-based health record entries?
answer
The reason for the change should be noted
question
Which of the following types of facilities is generally governed by long-term care documentation standards?
answer
Subacute care
question
Which of the following includes names of the surgeon and assistants, date, duration, and description of the procedure and any specimens removed?
answer
Operative report
question
Which of the following is a function of the discharge summary?
answer
Ensuring the continuity of future care by providing information to healthcare providers.
question
A patient's registration forms, personal property list, RAI/MDS and care plan and discharge or transfer documentation would be found most frequently in which type of health record?
answer
Long-term care
question
Which group focuses on accreditation of rehabilitation programs and services?
answer
CARF
question
Results of a urinalysis and all blood tests performed would be found in what part of a healthcare record?
answer
Laboratory findings
question
Which of the following is clinical data?
answer
Physician orders
question
A healthcare provider organization, when defining its legal health record must ___________.
answer
Assess the legal environment, system limitations, and HIE agreements
question
Documentation standards have become more detailed and have become focused on ________.
answer
Patient care quality
question
Written or spoken permission to proceed with care is classified as ___________.
answer
Expressed consent
question
The Joint Commission places emphasis on ________________.
answer
Appropriate and standardized health record documentation
question
Which of the following electronic record technological capabilities would allow a paper-based x-ray report to be accessed?
answer
Documents imaging
question
The Subjective, Objective, Assessment Plan (SOAP) came from the:
answer
Problem-oriented health record
question
The overall goal of documentation standards is to
answer
Ensure what is documented in the health record is complete and accurately reflects the treatment provided to the patient
question
What standard does a hospital that participates in the Medicare and Medicaid programs have to comply with that hospitals who do not accept Medicare and Medicaid patients do not?
answer
Conditions of Participation
question
Which of the following is an example of an acknowledgement?
answer
Notice of privacy practices
question
The management of health information is a fundamental component of which of the following?
answer
The overall information governance model
question
What is the general name for Medicare standards impacting healthcare organizations?
answer
Conditions of Participation
question
Which of the following groups is the primary accreditation organization for facilities that treat individuals who have functional disabilities?
answer
Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities
question
When correcting erroneous information in a paper health record, which of the following is appropriate?
answer
Add the reason for the change
question
Patient history questionnaires are most often used in what setting?
answer
Ambulatory care
question
An RAI/MDS and care plan are found in records of patients in what setting?
answer
Long-term care
question
Which of the following represents the attending physician's assessment of the patient's current health status?
answer
Physical examination
question
What is the function of a consultation report?
answer
Documents opinions about the patient's condition from the perspective of a physician not previously involved in the patient's care
question
Which of the following represents documentation of the patient's current and past health status?
answer
Medical history
question
Which of the following contains the physician's findings based on an examination of the patient?
answer
Physical exam
question
Which of the following is usually a component of acute care patient records?
answer
Progress notes
question
Which of the following is true of many electronic health records?
answer
They are interoperable
question
When defining the legal health record, what must the healthcare provider do?
answer
Assess the legal environment
question
The ambulatory surgery record contains information most similar to which records?
answer
Hospital operative records
question
Which type of health record contains information about the means by which the patient arrived at the healthcare setting and documentation of care provided to stabilize the patient?
answer
Emergency care
question
Patient Account Information includes
answer
Insurance
question
Which of the following is an example of a long-term care setting?
answer
Assisted living facility
question
Which specialized type of progress note provides healthcare professionals impressions of patient problems with detailed treatment action steps?
answer
Care plan
question
In what part of the health record would the social and personal history be found?
answer
Medical history
question
The overall goal of documentation standards is to _____________.
answer
Ensure what is documented in the health record is complete and accurately reflects the treatment provided to the patient
question
Healthcare provider organizations normally do not have patients sign an acknowledgement addressing the fact that the healthcare provider organization is not responsible for the loss or damage of the patient's valuables.
answer
false
question
An accreditation organization (AO) must participate in its own CMS review in order to receive deemed status, allowing the AO to survey other healthcare providers for compliance.
answer
true
question
CMS does not require healthcare providers to inform their patients about general patient rights afforded to them
answer
false
question
The Joint Commission surveys healthcare provider organizations for clinical and operational practice compliance
answer
true
question
Auto-authentication is not in compliance with the CMS Interpretive Guidelines for Hospitals.
answer
true
question
The term ambulatory is the same as the term outpatient
answer
true
question
Nursing documentation should only be subjective.
answer
false
question
An increase of healthcare-related identity theft has had no influence on a healthcare provider organization's decision not to collect Social Security Numbers from patients.
answer
false
question
Analysis of patient registration information can promote population health management.
answer
true
question
If data aggregation is the goal of collecting the data, ______ are the best choice.
answer
Classifications
question
The SNOMED CT _________ includes the semantic tag.
answer
Fully specified name
question
The ___________ is a core component of SNOMED CT.
answer
Concept
question
___________ is a nursing terminology.
answer
Clinical Care Classification
question
Category I CPT includes which of the following?
answer
Surgery
question
A ___________ is a set of terms representing the system of concepts for the medical field.
answer
Clinical terminology
question
ICD-10-PCS is a classification of _________.
answer
Inpatient procedures
question
Which of the following developed the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders?
answer
American Psychiatric Association
question
A classification provides clinical data to ______________.
answer
Allow collection and reporting of healthcare statistics
question
The ___________ is responsible for the development and maintenance of ICD-10-CM.
answer
NCHS
question
The _________ is a system for classifying the topography and morphology of neoplasm.
answer
ICD-O-3
question
WHO defines ___________ as a reference classification.
answer
ICF
question
An accumulation of numeric or alphanumeric representations or codes for exchanging or storing information is a ___________.
answer
Code system
question
Which of the following is the standard for clinical lab test results under the Meaningful Use program?
answer
LOINC
question
HCPCS is made up of which code systems?
answer
CPT and HCPCS Level II
question
If you were looking for a code for a medication taken orally, in which system is it found?
answer
RxNorm
question
The _______ is responsible for development and maintenance of RxNorm
answer
NLM
question
One of the two major groups of LOINC content is _________.
answer
Clinical observations
question
The ___________ is responsible for the publishing and maintaining HCPCS Level II.
answer
CMS
question
The ________ originated from federal reporting requirements tied to certification criteria found in the Meaningful Use regulations.
answer
Common Clinical Data Set
question
Home health agency process and improvement outcome measures are based on data from the _____.
answer
Outcomes and Assessment Information Set
question
The standardized HEDIS data elements are collected by
answer
Acute care hospitals
question
The UHDDS's core data elements were incorporated into the ___________ prospective payment system.
answer
Acute inpatient
question
Which standard is attached to the data element smoking status contained in the Common Clinical Data Set?
answer
SNOMED CT
question
LOINC would be found in the UMLS ____________.
answer
Metathesaurus
question
What is a system of terms that follows pre-established naming conventions.
answer
Nomenclature
question
Which of the following is a clinical terminology?
answer
CPT
question
Who drives which clinical terminology, classification, and code system is selected as the standard?
answer
Government regulation
question
One of the required descriptions for a SNOMED CT concept is _________________.
answer
Preferred term
question
Category II CPT is used for _______________ .
answer
Performance measurement
question
Nursing terminologies are ________________.
answer
Used to direct patient care given by nursing staff
question
The __________ is a component of ICD-10-CM.
answer
Index to External Causes
question
Which system would be used to classify a state of disability?
answer
ICF
question
Which system includes ICD-10-CM codes to assist with meeting administrative requirements?
answer
DSM-5
question
The ___________ is a derived classification of the WHO Family of International Classifications.
answer
ICD-O-3
question
Which of the following procedure classifications include definitions?
answer
ICD-10-PCS
question
If you were coding a patient with the diagnosis of congestive heart failure, which classification would you use?
answer
ICD-10-CM
question
CPT is a terminology and also a ________________.
answer
Code system
question
Which of the following is one of the parts of the LOINC fully specified name.
answer
Sample type
question
Which chapter of HCPCS would you find drugs administered intravenously?
answer
J Codes
question
Which of the following is the standard for healthcare equipment under HIPAA?
answer
HCPCS Level II
question
Ingredient plus strength plus dose form is known as the
answer
Semantic clinical drug term type
question
The objective of RxNorm is to normalize names of generic and branded drugs and attach a _________ to that name.
answer
RxNorm concept unique identifier
question
A list of recommended data elements with uniform definitions is a _______.
answer
Data set
question
According to CMS, who is qualified to collect the OASIS data?
answer
Registered nurse
question
The Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set contains standard _______.
answer
Performance measures
question
The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set's core data elements are collected by ______.
answer
Acute care, short-term stay hospitals
question
The ___________ established the Common Clinical Data Set.
answer
ONC
question
The UMLS ___________ contains the terminology, classification and code system standards.
answer
Metathesaurus
question
The OASIS-C1 data elements originate from a _________.
answer
Medicare-certified home health agency
question
Which of the following is an example of an electronic data source in healthcare?
answer
Radiology Information System
question
Which of the following data sets was created to collect uniform data across the United States for inpatient patient stays?
answer
Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS
question
Which of the following is a collection of data that is organized in a manner to be accessed, managed, reported, and updated electronically?
answer
Database
question
Which of the following is the process of execution, implementation, and management of databases within healthcare?
answer
Database life cycle
question
A/n ___________________ is a list that provides guidance, indication, or other references of information contained in a database?
answer
Index
question
The ______________ characteristic of quality data is the data being completely free from any errors?
answer
Accuracy
question
This concept includes the process of data governance, patient identification, authorization validation, amendments and record corrections, and audit validation.
answer
Data integrity
question
Which of the following describes the capability for two or more electronic systems to communicate and exchange information electronically?
answer
Interoperability
question
The evaluation of data collected based on business needs and strategy is part of _______.
answer
Data stewardship
question
The process that focuses on the improving the quality and integrity of patient data while supporting timely coding and reimbursement is known as ________.
answer
Clinical documentation improvement
question
What does a healthcare organization create when it has a unique numbering system to identify all forms used within the organization?
answer
Form tracking system
question
What data quality characteristic is met when documenting the specific height of a patient within the health record?
answer
Precision
question
A/n ________________________ is a communication tool that during clinical documentation improvement is used to communicate between a clinical documentation improvement professional and the provider?
answer
Query
question
This document defines how records and documentation are assembled and authenticated within the hospital
answer
Medical staff bylaws
question
Which of the following is one of the principles of data stewardship as defined by the National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics (NCVHS)?
answer
Individual's rights
question
What concept refers to the process of creating management and oversight of data assets to support the organization's mission, vision, and values?
answer
Information governance
question
The process of completing an inventory of all electronic systems that create, transmit, and store health information is known as what?
answer
System characterization
question
Information is single elements that define a specific characteristic about a patient.
answer
false
question
Data modeling is the process of creating documentation to document any business decisions made on data collection and storage systems for data.
answer
true
question
Organization information management is the processes and functions created by an organization to help plan, organize, and coordinate people, processes, technology, and content to manage information systems.
answer
false
question
The term that refers to an individual's ability to analyze, assess, and reconstruct a situation to provide a solution is critical thinking.
answer
true
question
Structured data is data that is entered into a specific format that is capable of being read and analyzed without human intervention.
answer
true
question
The process of creating paper forms to serve a business need is referred to as form creation.
answer
false
question
The oversight of the definition of structure of data elements as well as the creation, storage, and transmission of data elements is referred to as data management
answer
true
question
Data field, definition, data type, and format are all common data elements in what?
answer
Data dictionary
question
A single or individual fact that represents a patient in healthcare is known as a/n ____________.
answer
Data element
question
A health information manager took the three elements, blood pressure, weight, and cholesterol to analyze for potential indicators of a heart attack. The combined data is referred to as?
answer
Information
question
The data characteristic that refers to promptly entering up-to-date information into the patient's medical record is which of the following?
answer
Timeliness
question
AHIMA has created 8 principles to help organizations create ________________ within their organization?
answer
Information governance
question
Authorship validation is one part of ___________________________?
answer
Data integrity
question
What is another term for the electronic sharing of patient data between two healthcare systems?
answer
Health information exchange
question
A patient's birth date and gender documented in the health record are examples of a data?
answer
Element
question
Which of the following data sets collect information on the provider, place of encounter, reason for encounter, problem, diagnosis, assessment, therapeutic services, preventative services, and disposition?
answer
Uniform Ambulatory Care Data Set (UACDS
question
Which of the following creates a visual process to understand the data being collected in two different systems and how it is linked to one another?
answer
Data mapping
question
What is the term that describes the data that defines and characterizes other data within an electronic system?
answer
Metadata
question
The Health Information Director is given responsibility to manage the information and access to the deficiency module, clinical coding module, and release of information module with the electronic health record. This is an example of what data strategy method?
answer
Data ownership
question
___________________________ are the information collected within a healthcare organization during the normal day to day operations that supports patient care and business operations?
answer
Information assets
question
Safeguards established to support the data is available when and where is it needed under the data quality model is called which of the following?
answer
Accessibility
question
This type of data entered into electronic systems is free text and has no specific requirements or rules for data entry.
answer
Unstructured data
question
An example of a clinical documentation improvement tool is computer-assisted coding (CAC).
answer
TRUE
question
When writing a query for clinical documentation questions, the requestor should specifically state what diagnosis they are evaluating.
answer
false
question
Interoperability is the capability of two or more systems and software applications to communicate electronically and exchange information.
answer
true
question
Data warehousing is the process of extracting information stored in structured data formats within a database.
answer
false
question
A healthcare organization must ensure that data is presented in a way that is appropriate for the purpose of the data.
answer
true
question
Hospital bylaws define the process for documentation within a health record for all members of the workforce.
answer
true
question
When documentation is unclear or needs more information in order to proper code the health record, the coder should call the provider, ask them the question, and document the answer in the health record.
answer
false
question
An example of a standard for forms development is to mandate that the title of the form appear on the top center of the page.
answer
true
question
Health Level 7
answer
creates standards to support the exchange of information
question
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
answer
Creates and develops different standards for hospital systems that need communication between bedside instruments and clinical information systems.
question
National Council for Prescription Drug Programs
answer
creates standards regarding exchanging prescription information and payment information
question
Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine
answer
creates standards for the messaging of digital images
question
Accountability
answer
create authority over the information governance process within an organization
question
Transparency
answer
create a clear and open documentation process for the information governance strategy and activities within an organization
question
Compliance
answer
create a process for ensuring that all the information meetings requirements of appropriate laws, regulations, standards and organization.
question
Retention
answer
create a process for proper preservation based on requirements from regulations accrediting organizations, and company
question
Disposition
answer
creates processes for secure and appropriate destruction of information that is no longer needed to be maintained by the organization.
question
Patient-identifiable data
answer
information such as age and date of birth
question
Aggregate data
answer
data extracted from individual patient records and combined to form information about groups of patients
question
Primary data
answer
information about the patient that is documented by the clinicians who provides services to the patient
question
Secondary data
answer
Data derived from the primary patient record.
question
Accession registry
answer
list of cases in a cancer registry arranged in the order in which the cases were entered
question
Disease index
answer
list of diseases and conditions of patients treated in a facility sequenced according to classification code number
question
Disease registry
answer
central collection of data used to improve the quality of care and measure and effectiveness of a particular aspects of healthcare delivery.
question
Population-based registry
answer
Registry that includes information from more than one facility in a geopolitical region.
question
Facility-based registry
answer
registry that includes only cases for a specific facility
question
Operation index
answer
List of the questions and procedures performed in a facility sequenced according to classification code number.
question
Physician index
answer
list of patients by physician usually arranged by physician code numbers
question
Trauma registry
answer
list of patients with severe injuries
question
Critique this statement: The Medicare Provider Analysis and Review File is made up of patient demographic data collected by acute care and skilled nursing facilities.
answer
MEDPAR is made up of claims data which does include demographic data.
question
The creation of the National Practitioner Data Bank was mandated by ___________.
answer
the Health Care Quality Improvement Act
question
The collection of information on healthcare fraud and abuse was mandated by HIPAA and resulted in the development of ____________________________.
answer
the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank
question
The Healthcare Cost and Utilization Project is a major initiative of which organization within the federal government?
answer
The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
question
An accession number is a number assigned to cases as it is entered in a cancer registry.
answer
true
question
Which of the following is an example of an external user utilizing secondary data?
answer
Federal agencies
question
Which of the following databases was developed by the National Library of Medicine?
answer
The Medical Literature, Analysis, and Retrieval System Online
question
A record is considered a primary data source when it ____________________.
answer
contains information about the patient that has been documented by the professionals who provided care to the patient
question
Secondary data sources consist of ______________.
answer
Registries
question
A Level I trauma center provides care from initial evaluation through stabilization.
answer
false
question
A Level III trauma center provides advanced trauma life support prior to the transfer of patients to a higher level trauma center.
answer
false
question
The main goal of Healthy People 2020 is to focus on promoting vaccine safety in public and private provider settings.
answer
false
question
Identify the true statement about the health record.
answer
The health record is a primary data source.
question
Secondary data is generally used ________.
answer
by external users
question
The state cancer registry desires to become accredited. Who should they contact?
answer
North American Association of Central Cancer Registries
question
Choose the correct statement regarding population registries.
answer
Population registries may or may not contain follow-up information on patients.
question
The nature of an injury and its threat to life by body system is shown by the:
answer
Abbreviated Injury Scale
question
To identify cases to be entered into the trauma registry, where should someone look?
answer
Disease index
question
Explain what the accession number 16-214 means.
answer
The year that the patient was entered in the registry is 2016 and this was the 214th patient entered in the registry during 2016
question
Issues related to the efficiency and effectiveness of the healthcare delivery system are addressed by the _____.
answer
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
question
Health information exchange is used primarily for which of the following?
answer
patient care
question
A physician has a patient with a cancer that is not responding to treatment so he looks for research being conducted on the cancer. Who developed a database that he can use to locate any existing clinical trial?
answer
National Library of Medicine
question
The content of the health record _______________.
answer
Should facilitate retrieval of data
question
The length of time health information is retained ______________.
answer
Must account for state retention laws, if they exist
question
Which type of law defines the rights and duties among people and private businesses?
answer
Private law
question
Which stage of the litigation process focuses on how strong a case the opposing party has?
answer
Discovery
question
Which document directs an individual to bring originals or copies of records to court?
answer
Subpoena duces tecum
question
Errors in the health record should be which of the following?
answer
Corrected by drawing a single line in ink through the incorrect entry
question
Congress passes laws, which are then developed by federal agencies to provide a blueprint for carrying out these laws. What do the federal agencies develop?
answer
Regulations
question
In order for Susan to be able to prove negligence, she must be able to prove injury, standard of care, breach of standard of care and which of the following?
answer
Causation
question
Jeremiah files a medical malpractice lawsuit against Dr. Watson, who performed his surgery. He names no other defendants in the lawsuit. Dr. Watson files a complaint against his assistant surgeon, Dr. Crick. By doing this, Dr. Watson has completed which legal action? Counterclaim
answer
Joinder
question
In Lindsay's lawsuit against her physical therapist, her attorney a) obtained copies of most documents that he requested such as medical records, contracts, e-mail communications, bills, and receipts. However, at trial, Lindsay was surprised to learn that b) several of these documents were not permitted to be considered by the jury as evidence. The concepts associated with a) and b) are which of the following?
answer
Discovery; admissibility
question
Elizabeth arrived at the nearest urgent care facility after being bitten by her cat, Felix. The physician examined her and gave her a tetanus shot. Based on these facts, a physician-patient relationship has _________.
answer
Been created by implied contract
question
Alex fell from a tree and was taken to the emergency room. The physician did a physical exam and diagnosed Alex with contusions. In fact, Alex suffered a punctured lung that would have been detected by a radiologic image. In this case, the physician committed which of the following?
answer
Nonfeasance
question
If a patient is not asked to sign a general consent form when entering the hospital, and later sues the hospital for contact that was offensive, harmful, or not otherwise agreed to, what cause of action has the plaintiff most likely included in his lawsuit?
answer
Battery
question
A durable power of attorney for healthcare decisions ______________.
answer
Applies when the individual is no longer competent
question
The maintenance of health records ____________________.
answer
Is governed by Medicare Conditions of Participation for organizations that treat Medicare and Medicaid patients
question
Disclosure of health information without the patient's authorization _____________.
answer
May be required by specific state statutes
question
Metadata are which of the following?
answer
Data about data
question
Stacie is writing a health record retention policy. She is taking into account the statute of limitations for malpractice and contract actions in her state. A statute of limitations refers to which of the following?
answer
The period of time in which a lawsuit must be filed
question
The Registered Health Information Technician (RHIT) credential is an example of which of the following?
answer
Certification
question
Dr. Smith is being sued by a former patient. At issue is whether the care he provided the patient was consistent with that which would be provided by an ordinary and reasonable physician treating a patient in the plaintiff's condition. The concept in question is whether _____________.
answer
Dr. Smith met the standard of care
question
Which of the following tyeps of destruction is appropriate for paper health records?
answer
Pulping
question
A child's health record should be retained for how long?
answer
The age of majority plus the statute of limitation
question
Which of the following is a true statement about the legal health record?
answer
It includes PHI stored on any medium
question
Policies that address how PHI is used inside the organization deal with which of the
answer
Use
question
What type of negligence would apply when a physician does not order the necessary test?
answer
Nonfeasance
question
Arbitration
answer
Proceeding in which disputes one submitted to a third party or a panel of experts outside the judicial trial system
question
Public law
answer
law that involves the government and its relationships with individuals or organizations
question
Private law
answer
law that involves the government and its relationships with individuals or organizations
question
Subpoena duces tecum
answer
written documents directing individual to furnish documents and other records to court
question
Implied consent
answer
permission inferred when a patient voluntary subits to healthcare treatment
question
Deposition
answer
sworn testimony usually collected before a trial
question
Authorization
answer
written permission to use or disclose patient-identifiable health information
question
Defendant
answer
individual or party who is the object of a lawsuit
question
Statute
answer
law enacted by a legislative body
question
Administrative law
answer
rules developed by administrative bodies empowered by law to regulate specific activities
question
Plaintiff
answer
Individual who brings a lawsuit
question
Breach of contract
answer
failure to meet the conditions specified under a legal agreements
question
Complaint
answer
process by which a lawsuit is initiated
question
Discovery
answer
disclosure of pertinent facts or documents to the opposing parties in a legal case
question
Medical malpractice
answer
professional liability of healthcare providers in the delivery of care to patients
question
Express contract
answer
spoken or written agreement may be given by a patient to a healthcare provider to permit treatment
question
Tort
answer
civil wrongdoing
question
Which of the following is one of the four sources of law?
answer
Judicial decision
question
District court
answer
court in the lowest tier of the federal court system
question
US Court of Appeals
answer
court with the power to overturn the final judgements of district courts
question
US Supreme Court
answer
court with the power to overturn the final judgement of federal state court of appeal
question
State appellate court
answer
court with the power to overturn the final judgements of state trial courts
question
State supreme court
answer
generally term used to describe court in the highest tier of state court systems
question
Trial court
answer
generally term used to describe court in the lowest tier of state court systems
question
The form and content of the health record are determined in part by which of the following?
answer
The needs of individual healthcare organizations
question
When a healthcare provider purposely commits a wrongful act that results in injury to a patient, the provider can be held responsible for an intentional tort.
answer
true
question
The Joint Commission sets the official record retention standards for hospitals and other healthcare facilities.
answer
false
question
Which of the following spells out the powers of the three branches of the federal government?
answer
US Constitution
question
Which of the following are laws enacted by a legislative body?
answer
statutes
question
What is the individual who brings a lawsuit called?
answer
Plaintiff
question
What is the individual who is the object of a lawsuit called?
answer
Defendant
question
Which of the following may be a basis of professional liability?
answer
Intentional tort
question
AHIMA's record retention guidelines recommend that diagnostic images such as x-rays be maintained for what length of time?
answer
At least 5 years
question
AHIMA's record retention guidelines recommend that the master patient index be maintained for what length of time?
answer
Permanently
question
AHIMA's record retention guidelines recommend that the health records of adults be maintained for what length of time?
answer
At least 10 years after the most recent encounter
question
Which of the following should be considered first when establishing health record retention policies?
answer
State retention requirements
question
The services that a physician is allowed to perform in a healthcare facility is known as which of the following?
answer
Clinical privileges
question
The physical health record is usually considered the property of which entity?
answer
The organization or provider
question
In addition to a physician's order, the do-not-resuscitate order should include which of the following?
answer
Patient consent
question
A nurse cannot practice without:
answer
Licensure
question
Amber files a medical malpractice lawsuit against Dr. Mason, who performed her surgery. She names no other defendants in the lawsuit. Dr. Mason files a complaint against Amber. By doing this, Dr. Mason has completed which legal action?
answer
Counterclaim
question
Which of the following is a true statement about the content of the legal health record?
answer
The legal health record contains metadata
question
The legal authority to make decisions is known as which of the following?
answer
Jurisdiction
question
The source of law that is created by legislative bodies is which of the following?
answer
Statute
question
Which of the following is one of the causes of action?
answer
Breach of contract
question
Who prohibits specific abbreviations from being used in the health record?
answer
Joint Commission
question
Which of the following is true of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
answer
Provides a federal floor for healthcare privacy
question
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following is a covered entity category?
answer
Healthcare clearinghouse
question
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, an impermissible use or disclosure should be presumed to be a breach unless the covered entity or business associate demonstrates that the probability the PHI has been compromised is ___________.
answer
Low
question
Under usual circumstances, a covered entity must act on a patient's request to review or copy his or her health information within what time frame?
answer
30 days
question
The HIPAA Privacy Rule requires that covered entities limit use, access, and disclosure of PHI to the least amount necessary to accomplish the intended purpose. What concept is this?
answer
Minimum necessary
question
Which of the following should be included in a covered entity's notice of privacy practices?
answer
Description with one example of disclosures made for treatment purposes
question
Which of the following is true of the notice of privacy practices?
answer
It must be posted in a prominent place
question
Which of the following statements is true?
answer
An authorization must contain an expiration date or event
question
In which of the following instances must patient authorization be obtained prior to disclosure?
answer
To the patient's attorney
question
Which of the following is true about a facility's patient directory?
answer
The covered entity must inform the individual of the information to be included in the facility directory.
question
Which of the following statements about a business associate agreement is true?
answer
It requires the business associate to make available records relating to PHI use and disclosure to the HHS.
question
How many days does a covered entity have to respond to an individual's request for access to his or her PHI when the PHI is stored off-site?
answer
60 days
question
Which of the following statements is true of the notice of privacy practices?
answer
It must be provided to every individual at the first time of contact or service with the covered entity.
question
Which of the following statements about a facility directory of patients is true?
answer
Disclosures from the directory need not be included in an accounting of disclosures.
question
In which of the following situations can PHI be disclosed without authorization, as long as there was an opportunity for the individual to agree or object?
answer
Facility directory disclosures
question
Who of the following would be considered a member of a hospital's workforce?
answer
A clerk working in the hospital's registration office
question
When would PHI loses its status?
answer
After an individual has been deceased more than 50 years
question
A covered entity may deny an individual's amendment request for which of the following reasons?
answer
If the PHI in question is not part of the designated record set
question
Which of the following is a public interest and benefit exception to the authorization requirement?
answer
Judicial and administrative proceedings
question
The breach notification requirement applies to:
answer
Unsecured PHI only
question
A subpoena should be accompanied by which of the following?
answer
Patient authorization
question
In court, hearsay is generally ____________.
answer
Non-admissible
question
The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act expanded the definition of business associates to include which of the following?
answer
Patient safety organizations
question
Critique this statement: According to HIPAA, workforce members include students.
answer
This is a true statement
question
The designated record set includes which of the following?
answer
Billing records
question
In all cases, a covered entity may deny an individual's request to restrict the use or disclosure of his or her PHI.
answer
false
question
Stricter state statutes that provide greater confidentiality of healthcare information take precedence over the provisions of the HIPAA Privacy Rule.
answer
true
question
A notice of privacy practices should include a statement explaining that individuals may complain to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services if they believe that their privacy rights have been violated.
answer
true
question
Which of the following is a covered entity under the HIPAA Privacy Rule?
answer
Pharmacy
question
What types of health records are subject to the HIPAA Privacy Rule?
answer
Health records in any format
question
What does the acronym PHI stand for?
answer
Protected health information
question
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity _______________.
answer
Can deny access to psychotherapy notes
question
In which of the following situations must a covered entity provide an appeal process for denials to requests from individuals to see their own health information?
answer
When a licensed healthcare professional has determined that access to PHI would likely endanger the life or safety of the individual
question
Which of the following statements is true in responding to requests from individuals who wish to access their PHI?
answer
A cost-based fee may be charged for making a copy of the PHI.
question
How many days does a covered entity have to respond to an individual's request for access to PHI under HIPAA rules?
answer
30 days
question
How many days does a covered entity have to respond to an individual's request for access to his or her PHI when the PHI is stored off-site?
answer
60 days
question
Which of the following provides a complete description to patients about how PHI is used in a healthcare facility?
answer
Notice of privacy practices
question
Which of the following statements is true of the notice of privacy practices?
answer
It must be provided to every individual at the first time of contact or service with the covered entity.
question
Which of the following is unsecured PHI?
answer
PHI that technology has not made unusable, unreadable, or indecipherable to an unauthorized person
question
Which of the following statements about the directory of patients maintained by a covered entity is true?
answer
Individuals must be given an opportunity to deny permission to place information about them in the directory.
question
Mary's PHI was breached by her physician office when it was disclosed in error to another patient. Which of the following breach notification statements is correct regarding the physician office's required action?
answer
It must report the breach to HHS within 60 days after the end of the calendar year in which the breach occurred
question
PHR vendors that are not part of a covered entity or business associate must report PHI breaches to
answer
The Federal Trade Commission
question
Which of the following actions by a physician requires the patient's authorization?
answer
Giving the name of an expectant mother to a baby formula manufacturer
question
HIPAA administrative requirements include which of the following?
answer
Designating a privacy officer
question
ARRA and HITECH granted which of the following the ability to bring civil actions in federal district court on behalf of residents believed to have been affected by a HIPAA violation?
answer
State attorneys general
question
A valid authorization requires which of the following?
answer
An expiration date or event
question
Which of the following situations is considered a breach of PHI?
answer
A patient's attorney is sent records not requested by that patient
question
In which of the following circumstances does the patient have an opportunity to agree or object?
answer
Whether the patient should be in the facility directory
question
Which of the following rights did HIPAA give patients?
answer
Right to request an amendment of the health record
question
Which of the following statements is true?
answer
State law preempts HIPAA
question
Data security includes protecting data availability, privacy, and ________.
answer
Integrity
question
Within the context of data security, protecting data privacy means defending or safeguarding _________.
answer
Access to information
question
The greatest threat category to electronic health information is which of the following?
answer
Humans
question
The first and most fundamental strategy for minimizing security threats is which of the following?
answer
Establish a secure organization
question
Administrative safeguards include policies and procedures that address which of the following regarding computer resources?
answer
Management
question
The individual responsible for ensuring that everyone follows the organization's data security policies and procedures is which of the following?
answer
Chief security officer
question
An employee accesses PHI on a computer system that does not relate to her job functions. What security mechanism should have been implemented to minimize this security breach?
answer
Access controls
question
A visitor to the hospital looks at the screen of the admitting clerk's computer workstation when she leaves her desk to copy some admitting documents. What security mechanism would best have minimized this security breach?
answer
Automatic logoff controls
question
A laboratory employee forgot his user ID badge at home and uses another lab employee's badge to access the computer system. What controls should have been in place to minimize this security breach?
answer
Workforce security awareness training
question
A dietary department donated its old microcomputer to a school. Some old patient data were still on the microcomputer. What controls would have minimized this security breach?
answer
Device and media controls
question
HIPAA requires that policies and procedures be maintained for a minimum of _______.
answer
Six years from date of creation or date when last in effect, whichever is later
question
A visitor walks through the computer department and picks up a CD from an employee's desk. What security controls should have been implemented to prevent this security breach?
answer
Facility access controls
question
Threats to data security are most likely to come from which of the following?
answer
Employees
question
These are automatic checks that help preserve data confidentiality and integrity.
answer
Application controls
question
An employee in the physical therapy department arrives early every morning to snoop through the EHR for potential information about neighbors and friends. What security mechanism should have been implemented that could minimize this security breach?
answer
Facility access controls
question
An employee observes an outside individual putting some computer disks in her purse. The employee does not report this security breach. What security measures should have been in place to minimize this threat?
answer
Security incident procedures
question
Locks on computer room doors illustrate a type of _________.
answer
Physical control
question
An admission coordinator consistently enters the wrong patient gender while entering data in the MPI. What security measures should be in place to minimize this security breach
answer
Edit checks
question
Which of the following statements is true regarding HIPAA security?
answer
HIPAA allows flexibility in the way an institution implements the security standards.
question
For HIPAA implementation specifications that are addressable, the covered entity _________.
answer
Must conduct a risk assessment to determine if the specification is appropriate to its environment
question
A user recently opened a file that they thought would help them with their job but it copied files to unsecure ares of the computer. What thpe of malware was activated?
answer
Trojan horse
question
Training that educates employees on the confidential nature of PHI is known as which of the following?
answer
Awareness
question
"Something you have" is demonstrated by:
answer
Token
question
Policies are which type of safeguards?
answer
Administrative
question
A hospital is looking to use something to act as a buffer between two networks. What should be recommended?
answer
Firewall
question
The primary reason that healthcare organizations develop business continuity plans is to minimize the effects of which of the following?
answer
Computer downtime
question
Critique this statement: HIPAA represents an attempt to establish best practices and standards for health information security.
answer
This is a true statement.
question
A risk analysis is useful to _________.
answer
Identify security threats
question
Which of the following is true regarding HIPAA security provisions?
answer
Covered entities must retain policies for 6 years after they are no longer used.
question
Which of the following is a technique that can be used to determine what information access privileges an employee should have?
answer
Context-based
question
The HIPAA data integrity standard requires that organizations do which of the following?
answer
Keep documented logs of system access and access attempts
question
Which of the following is required by HIPAA standards?
answer
A written contingency plan
question
Security controls built into a computer software program to protect information security and integrity are which of the following?
answer
Application controls
question
This type of control is designed to prevent damage cause by computer hackers.
answer
Network control
question
Policies and procedures that address the management of computer resources and security are which of the following?
answer
Administrative controls
question
Safeguarding system access
answer
privacy
question
Safeguarding data accuracy
answer
integrity
question
Ensuring system access when needed
answer
availability
question
Which of the following terms means that data should be complete, accurate, and consistent?
answer
Data integrity
question
What is the biggest threat to the security of healthcare data?
answer
Employees
question
What does the term access control mean?
answer
Identifying which data employees should have a right to use
question
Which of the following is a software program that tracks every access to data in the computer system?
answer
Audit trail
question
Which of the following is an organization's planned response to protect its information in the case of a natural disaster?
answer
Business continuity plan
question
Though the HIPAA Security Rule does not specify audit frequency, how often should an organization's security policies and procedures be reviewed?
answer
Once a year
question
Which of the following provide the objective and scope for the HIPAA Security Rule as a whole?
answer
General rules
question
Which of the following is an example of a physical safeguard that should be provided for in a data security program?
answer
Locking computer rooms
question
Which of the following best describes information security?
answer
The mechanisms for safeguarding information and information systems
question
A public key is part of what security measure?
answer
Digital certificates
question
Which of the following is an example of technical security?
answer
Integrity
question
Policies were recently rewritten. How long does the facility need to retain the obsolete policies?
answer
Six years
question
An audit identified that an employee accessed a patient whose name is the same as the employee. This is known as a/an _________.
answer
Trigger
question
In two computer systems the same data element is different. This is what type of issue?
answer
Data consistency
question
A radiology information system is which of the following?
answer
Source system
question
When an EHR is integrated into the daily routine of clinicians it is said to be in what stage of existence?
answer
Adoption
question
Which of the following is a fundamental change in how medicine is practiced using health IT?
answer
Clinical transformation
question
Which of the following is a program that assures there is documented approval for altering an application?
answer
Change control
question
What health information exchange is a sophisticated structure that enables both receipt of data and the ability to query an exchange for data?
answer
CONNECT
question
Infusion pumps and robotics are examples of which of the following?
answer
Smart peripherals
question
What is interoperability?
answer
The ability to share health information with other health IT systems
question
Revenue cycle management is accomplished through use of which of the following systems?
answer
Patient financial service system
question
Structured data are which of the following?
answer
Able to be processed by a computer
question
Ideally, clinical documentation in an EHR should be performed _____________.
answer
At the point of care
question
The source of drug-drug contraindication information in a computerized provider order entry system is ___________.
answer
Drug knowledge database
question
Which of the following is an example of clinical decision support?
answer
Workgroup tool
question
A standard vocabulary is used to achieve what type of interoperability?
answer
Semantic
question
A way to send secure messages over the Internet is which of the following?
answer
Virtual private network
question
In order to locate a patient via a health information exchange organization, there must be which of the following?
answer
Identity matching
question
The systems development life cycle
answer
Ensures all components for a system to achieve its value are in place
question
A form of clinical decision support that guides a user in appropriate documentation is which of the following?
answer
Template
question
What is the combination of quality and cost of healthcare?
answer
Value
question
Computerized provider order entry systems can be used to order narcotics.
answer
true
question
A clinical data repository supports sophisticated data analytics.
answer
false
question
An organization's goals that are supported by health IT can be achieved more quickly and completely if monitoring results is performed.
answer
true
question
A master patient index is used to locate where patients may have records within a health information exchange organization.
answer
false
question
Medication reconciliation is very difficult to implement and often one of the last applications within the medication management set of systems.
answer
true
question
The Logical Observations Identifiers Names and Codes (LOINC) vocabulary is used to encode laboratory orders and results
answer
true
question
A portal is the same as a personal health record.
answer
false
question
When a vendor is no longer selling or supporting a health IT product, it is said to be _________________.
answer
Sunset
question
The nationwide health information network is now called which of the following?
answer
eHealth Exchange
question
Security functionality provided in a health information exchange is collectively referred to as which of the following?
answer
Identity management
question
In a health information exchange, patients opt in or opt out of having their data exchanged via a(n)
answer
Consent directive
question
A person who is able to take advantage of all of the aids offered by health IT is referred to as which of the following?
answer
Power user
question
Which of the following is a core clinical EHR system?
answer
Results management system
question
In order for a hospital to generate a claim for reimbursement by a health plan, the EHR must have which of the following components?
answer
Charge capture
question
What does a form creation system do?
answer
Automates administrative forms processing
question
Clinical documentation systems that support clinical decision making capture data via ______________.
answer
Structured data templates
question
EHRs support evidence-based medicine, which refers to which of the following?
answer
Recommendations for care based on research
question
The standard used in e-prescribing systems to transmit a prescription to a retail pharmacy is which of the following?
answer
SCRIPT
question
Online transaction processing is conducted in which of the following?
answer
Clinical data repository
question
Semantic interoperability is achieved by using ____________.
answer
Standard vocabularies
question
In order for a physiological monitor, such as a device a patient may wear during exercise, to be connected to an EHR, there must be which of the following?
answer
Medical device integration
question
A registry is which of the following?
answer
Specialized database for a predefined set of data and its processing
question
Web service architecture does not require an interface.
answer
false
question
The ASTM International standardized the content of the continuity of care record.
answer
false
question
The system development lifecycle is repeated when monitoring reveals that the system is no longer producing the desired result.
answer
true
question
A physician champion is now referred to as a chief medical informatics officer.
answer
false
question
When almost all applications used in a hospital are acquired from the same vendor, the strategy being deployed is considered best-of-breed.
answer
false
question
A term that refers to a statistical process of data to reveal new information is which of the following?
answer
Analytics
question
Information
answer
data processed into usable form
question
Data
answer
basic facts
question
Knowledge
answer
understanding to make informed decisions
question
The Affordable Care Act is a regulation that was issued by CMS, outlining an incentive program for professionals that adopt and successfully demonstrate ________________ of certified EHR technology.
answer
Meaningful Use
question
Healthcare information is primarily for which of the following?
answer
Provider use in the management of care
question
To arrive at information, _________ are required.
answer
data
question
________ data analytics is where health information is captured, reviewed, and used to measure the quality of care provided.
answer
Clinical
question
What is the first stage of transforming raw data into meaningful analytics?
answer
Data capture
question
Which of the following may be used to capture the data for storage in a database?
answer
Natural language processing
question
Which of the following data visualization tool is used when displaying trends?
answer
Graphs
question
The _________ is a management report of process measures.
answer
Dashboard
question
Which of the following is where a nurse enters data using a tablet computer when conducting a patient assessment while at the bedside?
answer
Point-of-care charting
question
__________ is key to the knowledge discovery process.
answer
Data mining
question
The clinical data ___________ lends itself to data mining as it encompasses multiple sources of data.
answer
Warehouse
question
Which decision support systems could deliver a reminder to a physician that it is time for the patient's flu shot?
answer
Clinical
question
The _______ would be used to help find actionable insights to drive enterprise performance.
answer
Executive information system
question
A _________ generated scorecard could be used by a manager to monitor readmission rates in order to track trends and identify opportunities for improvement.
answer
Decision support system
question
The exchange of email communication between the patient and physician on a question regarding medication is an example of ____________ health informatics.
answer
Consumer
question
According to FDA guidance, a mobile app running on a smart phone to analyze and interpret EKG waveforms to detect heart function irregularities is a ___________.
answer
Medical device
question
Which access tool is used to view a subset of patient's health records after logging in to a secure online website?
answer
Patient portal
question
Which of the following is a type of electronic personal health record that allows access through a portal?
answer
Tethered
question
Connecting the PHR to the patient's legal health record protects it under the HIPAA ______.
answer
Privacy Rule
question
"Why did it happen?" is answered by _______ analytics.
answer
Diagnostic
question
Free text describing a patient's chief complaint is an example of _________.
answer
Unstructured data
question
Tracking and comparing over time the number of medical records coded per hour by individual coder to assess coder productivity is an example of a __________.
answer
Key indicator
question
Physicians correct misrecognitions at the time of dictation when _______ is used.
answer
Front-end speech recognition technology
question
___________ is a barrier to health information exchange users.
answer
State law
question
Which of the following is a benefit of HIE?
answer
Enhanced patient care coordination
question
A patient portal that allows personal health information to be uploaded for provider access is an example of _______________.
answer
Consumer-mediated exchange
question
A ________ would be used to define syntax conventions.
answer
Content and structure standard
question
The ONC's goal of advancing secure and interoperable health information requires_______.
answer
Sharing information among individuals, providers and the community
question
What happened?" is answered by _______ analytics.
answer
Descriptive
question
What is the second stage of transforming raw data into meaningful analytics?
answer
Data provisioning
question
___________ is a tool used for extracting data from a database.
answer
Data mining
question
Data from a wearable monitor, such as an exercise-tracking device, is an example of?
answer
Patient-generated health data
question
The use of a dropdown list to select a patient's diagnosis is an example of _________.
answer
Structured data
question
Sharing the contents of a PHR with providers creates an opportunity to ____________.
answer
Improve patient safety
question
The clinical data ___________ is a central database that focuses on clinical information.
answer
Repository
question
Which of the following data visualization tool is used to organize quantitative data?
answer
Tables
question
Which of the following data visualization tool is used to organize quantitative data?
answer
Scorecard
question
Tracking a _______ can help detect problems and identify opportunities for performance improvement.
answer
Key indicator
question
Editors correct misrecognitions after the physician completes dictation when _______ is used.
answer
Back-end speech recognition technology
question
___________ is a possible outcome of point-of-care charting.
answer
Unstructured or structured data
question
What role in consumer informatics is HIM filling in the following situation: Creation of policies and design workflows for accepting and managing patient-generated health information.
answer
Patient information coordinator
question
A smart phone app that analyzes and interprets blood pressure readings to detect irregularities is a _________ according to FDA guidance.
answer
Medical device
question
The problem being solved with the use of DSS is typically _______.
answer
Unstructured
question
Which system would be used to pull together operational and clinical information in order to uncover a problem with readmissions?
answer
Executive information system
question
If consumers were looking to interact and receive support from others with similar diseases via electronic means, which tool might they use?
answer
Social media
question
The eHealth Exchange is a _______________ of exchange partners.
answer
Nationwide community
question
Scheduling appointments is an example of a patient portal feature having a(n)_______.
answer
Administrative orientation
question
A _______ accepts data patients' select from external sources, which is then stored on their computer.
answer
Standalone PHR
question
When exchanging information about a patient's problem, a ________ would be used.
answer
Terminology standard
question
____________ in order to maintain patient identity data integrity.
answer
The data must be accurately entered
question
A _______ can assist a provider in obtaining a health record on a patient who is visiting from another state, resulting in more informed decisions about the care of the patient.
answer
Query-based exchange
question
All definitions of HIE mention which of the following?
answer
The capacity exists for different information systems and software applications to exchange data
question
What is the term used by the insurance industry that refers to the process of paying, denying, and adjusting claims based on patients' health insurance coverage benefits?
answer
Adjudication
question
Clinical data is used to identify an individual.
answer
false
question
________ protects a person from having to pay the full cost of healthcare.
answer
Health insurance
question
The ______ is the process of patient financial and health information moving into, through, and out of the healthcare facility.
answer
Revenue cycle
question
What is the term that is used to identify an insurance company that pays for the healthcare of covered individuals?
answer
Third party payer
question
If a patient is covered by more than one insurance plan, the process of coordination of benefits (COB) takes place.
answer
True
question
A Chargemaster is a financial management list that contains information about the organization's charges for healthcare services it provides to patients.
answer
true
question
______ is a type of incentive to improve clinical performance using the electronic health record resulting in additional reimbursement or eligibility for grants or other subsidies to support further HIT efforts.
answer
Pay-for-performance
question
______ is a specified amount of money paid to a health plan or doctor, used to cover the cost of a health plan member's healthcare services for a certain length of time.
answer
Capitation
question
Retrospective utilization review process involves review of utilization information before the patient has been discharge or the care has been completed.
answer
false
question
A type of prospective review involves ______ which is obtaining approval from a healthcare insurance company before a healthcare service is rendered.
answer
Precertification
question
What methodology involves payment that combines the professional and technical components of a procedure and disperses payments in a lump sum to be split between the physician and the healthcare facility?
answer
Global payment
question
The technical component of a service is considered the part of the service supplied by physicians, while the professional component is supplied by the hospital or freestanding surgical center.
answer
false
question
A prospective payment system is a method of reimbursement in which Medicare payment is made based on a predetermined, fixed amount.
answer
true
question
Payment method in which the third-party has implemented some provisions to control the costs of healthcare while maintaining quality care.
answer
managed care
question
A type of healthcare organization that delivers medical care and manages all aspects of the care and payment for care by limiting providers of care, discounting payment to providers of care, or limiting access to care.
answer
managed care
question
An entity that combines the provision of healthcare insurance and delivery of healthcare services, characterized by an organized healthcare delivery system to a geographic area, a set of basic and supplemental health maintenance and treatment services, voluntarily enrolled members, and predetermined fixed, periodic prepayments for members' coverage.
answer
HMO
question
A managed care contract coordinated care plan that has a network of providers that have agreed to a contractually specified reimbursement for covered benefits with the organization offering the plan.
answer
preferred provider organization ppo
question
A federally funded health program to assist with the medical care costs of American 65 years of age and older.
answer
medicare
question
Medicare prescription drug coverage
answer
medicare part d
question
A joint federal and state program that helps with medical costs for some people with low incomes.
answer
medicaid
question
Provides health coverage to eligible children through both Medicaid and individual state programs.
answer
state childrens health insurance program SCHIP
question
The federal healthcare program that provides coverage for the dependents of armed forces personnel and for retirees receiving care outside military treatment facilities.
answer
tricare
question
A federal agency within the Department of of Health and Human Services that is responsible for providing federal healthcare services to American Indians and Alaska Natives.
answer
ihs
question
Insurance that most employers in the US are required to carry and is used for employees who are injured on the job.
answer
workers compensation
question
What is a private not-for-profit organization with the mission to improve healthcare quality by accrediting, assessing and reporting on the quality of managed care plans?
answer
NCQA
question
The Health Maintenance Organization Act of 1973 made it harder for HMOs to grow and attract clients and required all employers that offered traditional health care to their employees to sign up for an HMO if they had more than 35 employees.
answer
false
question
Medicare enrollees are called ______ and must fall into a benefit category to be eligible for Medicare coverage.
answer
Beneficiaries
question
People who are enrolled in both Medicare and Medicaid known as _____.
answer
Dual eligible
question
______ includes verification that the patient is currently covered by the plan on the date of service the services being provided are covered by the plan.
answer
Eligibility
question
What is a pre-established percentage of eligible expenses after the deductible is met?
answer
Coinsurance
question
______ is a cost-sharing measure in which the policy holder pays a fixed dollar amount per service.
answer
Copayment
question
_____ means charging the patient for the remainder of the charges that were not paid by the insurance plan.
answer
Balance bill
question
Health insurance payers have a variety of reimbursement plans and contract with individual providers and employers for payment meaning the same type of service to two different patients may be paid differently depending on the type of contract or insurance each patient has.
answer
true
question
What is name of the form that details the way the payer processed the claim for payment?
answer
Explanation of benefits
question
Many Americans are covered by private insurance plans through their employer, purchased individually, or through a group, such as a professional association.
answer
true
question
Typically, insurance plans that have very high deductibles or limited covered services is called what?
answer
Private health insurance
question
Who is responsible for making payment for healthcare claims on behalf of the company?
answer
Third party administrator
question
In a network HMO the HMO contracts with a network of providers who provide multispecialty group practices
answer
true
question
In a _____ HMO the physicians are employed by the HMO. Physicians see only members of the HMO and are paid a salary by the HMO.
answer
Staff Model
question
What type of HMO model contracts with more than one physician, such as a medical group that includes physicians in multiple fields of expertise?
answer
Group Model HMO
question
______ is where uninsured, eligible Americans are able to purchase federally-regulated and subsidized health insurance.
answer
Health insurance marketplace or exchange
question
The Health Information and Accountability Act established the hospital-acquired conditions reduction program to encourage hospitals to reduce HAC's.
answer
false
question
_____ is the evaluation of medical necessity, appropriateness, and efficiency of the use of health care services, procedures, and facilities under the provisions of the applicable health benefits plan.
answer
Utilization management
question
What refers to the review that takes place prior to elective procedures or admissions?
answer
Prospective review
question
Retrospective review involves screening for medical necessity and the appropriateness or timeliness of delivery of medical care from the time of admission until discharge.
answer
false
question
_____ is a collaboration between healthcare and service providers to aid in the process of assessment, planning, facilitation, care coordination, evaluation, and advocacy to meet an individual's and family's comprehensive health needs.
answer
Case management
question
A hospital's _______ represents the average DRG relative weight for a particular hospital.
answer
Case-mix index
question
In what system are payments for services determined by the resource cost needed to provide them?
answer
RBRVS
question
The Balance Budget Act (BBA) of 1997 modified how facilities are paid for skilled nursing facility (SNF) services. SNF's are paid a comprehensive per diem under a PPS, meaning they receive a set amount for each day of service instead of being paid on itemized charges or services.
answer
True
question
Fraud is when someone intentionally executes or attempts to execute a scheme to obtain money or property of any healthcare benefit program. The key word in the definition is which of the following?
answer
Intentionally
question
Which of the following is an example of abuse?
answer
A pattern of coding errors
question
The overutilization or inappropriate utilization of services and misuse of resources, typically not a criminal or intentional act is called which of the following?
answer
waste
question
The statue that dictates that physicians cannot receive money or other benefits for referring patients to a healthcare facility is known as which of the following?
answer
Anti-Kickback Statute
question
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act was created through a joint venture between the Department of Health and Human Services and the Depart of Justice in what year?
answer
1996
question
Overpayments occur in which of the following scenarios?
answer
Payment is billed for non-covered services
question
Which governmental program has a goal to identify improper payments made on claims of healthcare services provided to Medicare beneficiaries?
answer
RAC
question
How many basic elements are included in an effective compliance program?
answer
7
question
Which of the following is the purpose of audits performed by QIOs?
answer
improving patient care
question
Audit planning includes which of the following?
answer
Establish policies, procedures, and standards of conduct
question
What is the process of extracting and translating dictated and then transcribed free-text data into ICD and CPT codes for billing and coding purposes?
answer
CAC
question
The benefits of a coding compliance plan include the following.
answer
Retention of high standard of coding
question
A complication is defined as which of the following?
answer
A medical condition that arises during an inpatient hospitalization
question
Which of the following is one of the most widely-used key indicators for a CDI program?
answer
CMI
question
Which of the following is a type of supportive documentation reflecting objective clinical indicators of a patient illness and refers to the extent of physiological decompensation or organ system loss of function?
answer
SOI
question
The coder used two separate procedure codes instead of a combination code. This practice known as which of the following?
answer
Unbundling
question
HHS has identified a healthcare facility guilty of fraud. HHS saw that the facility tried to comply but their efforts failed. What category does this fall into?
answer
Reasonable diligence
question
What practice do HIM departments use to protect themselves from RAC identifying coding and billing errors?
answer
Prebilling coding audits
question
Which of the following is one of the purposes of an audit?
answer
Improving patient care
question
What is the technology needed for computer-assisted coding?
answer
Natural language processing
question
Objective clinical indicators about the patient's illness are known as which of the following?
answer
Severity of illness
question
Choose the statement that would explain to a physician what a complication is.
answer
Complication is a medical condition that the patient has at the time of the patient's admission which affects treatment and length of stay.
question
Critique this statement: Computer-assisted coding eliminates coders.
answer
This is a false statement as coders will be needed but their role will change
question
Which of the following is a documentation issue?
answer
Copy and paste functionality
question
Dr. Smith does not understand queries. Which of the following explains it to him?
answer
A query requests additional clarifying documentation.
question
QIOs frequently conduct audits to determine if healthcare services have been provided in the appropriate setting. Which of the following is an example of the appropriate setting for healthcare services?
answer
A nursing home providing physical therapy for a post-operative hip replacement patient
question
The focus of RAC audits is patient-care focused.
answer
false
question
Before an audit can be conducted, an organization must first do which of the following?
answer
Identify the objective of the audit
question
Which of the following is an example of convenience sampling?
answer
All claims that are readily available to the auditor are audited
question
Which of the following is a good question for a supervisor of coding to ask when evaluating potential fraud or abuse risk areas in the coding area?
answer
Are the assigned codes supported by the health record documentation?
question
A study conducted by AHIMA found that credentialed coders who used a CAC were able to reduce the amount of time it took to code a record by 50%.
answer
false
question
A quantifiable measure used over time to determine whether some structure, process, or outcome in the provision of care to a patient supports high-quality performance measured against best practice criteria is the definition of which of the following?
answer
Key indicator
question
One of the most widely-used key indicators for a CDI program to use for monitoring is which of the following?
answer
CMI
question
HIM professionals are qualified to be CDI specialists.
answer
true
question
Which of the following is an example of a HAC?
answer
Catheter-associated urinary tract infection
question
A systematic comparison of the products, services, and outcomes of one organization with those of a similar organization is the definition of which of the following?
answer
Benchmarking
question
CAC used which of the following processing to review the documentation in the EHR and assign a code number?
answer
NLP
question
City Hospital submitted 175 claims where they unbundled laboratory charges. They were overpaid by $75 on each claim. What is the fine for City Hospital?
answer
$39,375
question
Fraud is when a healthcare provider or supplier performs an action that directly or indirectly results in unnecessary costs to any healthcare benefit program.
answer
false
question
The whistleblower provision of the False Claims Act is known as qui tam.
answer
true
question
This law prohibits a physician from referring patients to a business in which he or she or a member of the physician's immediate family has financial interests
answer
Stark Law
question
The Balanced Budget Act excludes healthcare organizations that are convicted for their first offense for
answer
10 years
question
The three categories that HHS uses to determine the level of effort put into fraud and abuse prevention include which of the following?
answer
Reasonable care, reasonable diligence, willful neglect
question
The Office of the Inspector General is responsible for which of the following?
answer
Monitoring Medicare and Medicaid programs
question
The Office of the Inspector General is organized into five divisions: Office of Audit Services, Office of Evaluation and Inspections, Office of Recovery, Office of Investigations, and the Office of Counsel to the Inspector General.
answer
false
question
Three different types of RAC audits include automated reviews, complex review, and annual reviews.
answer
false
question
The five levels of the appeal process include redetermination, reconsideration, administrative law judge, appeals council review, and final judicial review.
answer
true
question
Quality Improvement Organizations perform medical peer review of Medicare and Medicaid claims through a review of which of the following?
answer
Review of validity of hospital diagnosis and procedure coding data completeness
question
Meaningful Use (MU) does not provide incentives to eligible professionals, hospitals, and critical access hospitals participating in Medicare and Medicaid programs that adopt and successfully demonstrate meaningful use of certified EHR technology.
answer
false
question
Meaningful Use Stage 3 focuses on which of the following?
answer
Providers to report infectious diseases, immunizations, cancer and other reportable condition to public health officials
question
The legal term for "First do no harm" is which of the following?
answer
Nonmaleficence
question
Beneficence is an ethical principle meaning a patient has the right to choose their course of treatment.
answer
false
question
An ethical Dilemma occurs when one is faced with a choice between 2 or more situations.
answer
true
question
What is one assessing when addressing how one views language, communication style, belief systems, customs, attitudes, perception, and values?
answer
Personal cultural competence
question
A cultural audit is a strategy to define an organizations values, symbols, and routines and identify areas for improvement.
answer
true
question
What organization was established to help provide equality for minority groups, women, people with disabilities, and veterans?
answer
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
question
Ethical Principles and values have been important to the HIM profession since 1942.
answer
false
question
If a patient receives a _____________ from a healthcare organization it indicated that the patient's protected health information was involved in a data breach.
answer
Protected Health Breach Notice
question
Codes are associated with reimbursement rates and therefore, there are inherent incentives to code so the healthcare facilities will receive the lowest reimbursement dollar amount possible.
answer
false
question
_____ is the fraudulent use of an individual's identifying information in a healthcare setting.
answer
Medical identity theft
question
HIM professionals are able to assist patients with the process of finding out what happened in case of medical identity theft and help guide the patient in fixing the errors in the record.
answer
true
question
What is the committee of the organization tasked with reviewing ethics violations and determining the course of action required to remedy the violations.
answer
Ethics Committee
question
If a patient notices an unknown item in the explanation of benefits they receive from an insurance company and they do not recognize the service being paid for, the patient should_____.
answer
Contact the insurer and the provider who billed for the services to correct the information
question
Breach of healthcare ethics is the situation in which ethics are violated, whether it is intentional or accidental.
answer
true
question
Healthcare providers add documentation after care has been given
answer
retrospective
question
The minimum necessary standard for ROI
answer
need to know principle
question
The practice of using multiple codes to bill for the various individual steps in a single procedure rather than using a single code that includes all of the steps
answer
unbundling
question
The practice of assigning diagnostic or procedural codes that represent higher payment rates than the codes that reflect the documentation
answer
upcoding
question
The committee that oversees the clinical research that is conducted for healthcare, and has the responsibility over the ethical application of research
answer
international review board for the protection of human subjects IRB
question
The report that provides the foundation for ethical research
answer
Belmont report
question
Helps control the cost of healthcare by providing services at a fixed cost
answer
managed care
question
Two providers bill for one service provided to one patient
answer
double billing
question
A researcher determines what the maximum potential is for society compared to the minimum risk of harm done
answer
beneficence
question
When more information is needed, or the information needs to be clarified, in regards to coding
answer
query the physician
question
The right to determine what does or does not happen to him or her, this includes the informed consent process for human research subjects
answer
autonomy
question
What is the ability to accept and understand the beliefs and values of other people and groups?
answer
Cultural competence
question
_____ is the perceived or actual difference among people.
answer
Cultural diversity
question
The classification of people based on national origin or culture is called what?
answer
Ethnicity
question
The assumption that everyone within a certain group are the same
answer
Stereotyping
question
Pre-judging a person based on something such as age, education, or religion without reviewing all the information
answer
Prejudice
question
Prevents a person from having an impartial judgment
answer
bias
question
Legal and ethical concept that requires healthcare providers to protect health records and other personal and private information from unauthorized use or disclosure
answer
confidentiality
question
The means to control and protect access of health information and records
answer
security
question
The right of a patient to control the disclosure of protected health information
answer
privacy
question
Openness in decision making, honesty in communication and activity and ethical practices that command trust and support collaboration
answer
integritary
question
Visionary thinking, decisions responsive to membership and mission, and accountability for actions and outcomes
answer
leadership
question
Appreciation of the value of differing perspective, enjoyable experiences, courteous interaction, and celebration of achievements that advance a common cause
answer
respect
question
An abiding commitment to innovation, relevance, and continuous improvement in programs, products, and services
answer
quality
question
A professional code of ethics is adopted by an organization to guide the members in determining right and wrong conduct when performing the duties of their job.
answer
true
question
Patients trust that the information they share with their healthcare provider will be protected
answer
true
question
Healthcare consumers are increasingly concerned about security and the potential loss of privacy.
answer
true
question
Ethical obligation to the _______ include advocating change when patterns or system problems are not in the best interest of the patients and reporting violation of practice standards to the proper authorities.
answer
public
question
It is not the responsibility of an HIM professional to ensure patient documentation is accurate, timely, and created by authorized parties.
answer
false
question
Report all healthcare _________ required for external reporting purposes completely and accurately, in accordance with regulatory and documentation standards, and requirement and applicable official coding conventions, rules, and guidelines
answer
data element
question
According to the Standards of Ethical Coding, Coders apply accurate, complete and consistent coding practices for the production of high-quality healthcare data
answer
true
question
Healthcare professionals are trained in the ethical issues related to what system because staff may have access to more information than what is needed to do their job
answer
EHR
question
With an increase in medical identify theft, it is important for HIM professionals to help find and correct fraudulent information within a health record.
answer
TRUE
question
HIM professionals are not ethically obliged to give back to the HIM community by providing practice opportunities for students.
answer
false
question
To refuse to participate in or conceal unethical practices or procedures and report such practices is a principle and guidelines to what?
answer
AHIMA Code of Ethics
question
To refuse to participate in or conceal unethical practices or procedures and report such practices is a principle and guidelines to what?
answer
AHIMA Code of Ethics
Business
Business Management
Corporate Social Responsibility
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Ethics
Freshman Seminar For Business
Marketing
Using The Internet
Bus 101 CH 3 & 4 – Flashcards 68 terms

Lesly Nixon
68 terms
Preview
Bus 101 CH 3 & 4 – Flashcards
question
One example of a business opportunity created by a concern for ethics and human rights is a company that created a technology to access Internet sites that have been censored by the Chinese government.
answer
True
question
Legal compliance refers to conducting a business within the boundaries of all the legal regulations of that industry.
answer
True
question
Situational ethics encourages people to ________.
answer
make ethical decisions based upon the circumstances of a particular experience, not upon fixed laws
question
Which of the following is NOT a legal right under the Consumer Bill of Rights?
answer
the right to bear witness
question
Value-based recruiting and hiring ________.
answer
involves attracting and employing people who match the company's corporate values
question
If you are developing your own personal ethical system, which of the following would NOT be appropriate to include in your evaluation?
answer
your age
question
Companies with a strong sense of corporate social responsibility are obligated to understand the ethical standards of their suppliers.
answer
True
question
Sergeant Joseph Darby, who sent information to the U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command that sparked an investigation that eventually revealed to the public the abuses at Abu Ghraib prison in Iraq, was immediately lauded as a hero and universally celebrated for his good deeds
answer
False
question
When the wife of Mark Whitacre, who was involved in illegal activities at Archer Daniels Midland (ADM), threatened to divorce him if he did not end his involvement with the price fixing, she demonstrated an example of ________.
answer
strong personal ethics
question
According to moral relativism ________.
answer
no single view is more valid than any other
question
A company's track record of legal compliance can be used to evaluate a company's ethical conduct.
answer
True
question
Low-level employees at companies that have ongoing ethics training programs learn how to decide whether to follow the advice of their leaders.
answer
True
question
Actions like purchasing energy from wind farms and choosing suppliers that are ecologically friendly to balance out the necessary carbon dioxide produced in other stages of manufacturing are examples of how socially responsible practices can threaten the profitability of a company.
answer
False
question
Consumers have only a given company's code of ethics and mission statement to evaluate the acts of the company and its potential legal violations.
answer
False
question
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) makes sure that all investors are treated fairly and have equal access to information about companies.
answer