41. When using the binomial distribution to approximate a normal distribution, what is the

value of the continuity correction factor? A) 1.00 B) 0.50 C) 100 D) 1.96 Answer: B More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch7-t/

46. For a standard normal distribution, what is the probability that z is greater than 1.75?

A) 0.0401 B) 0.0459 C) 0.4599 D) 0.9599 Answer: A More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch7-t/

7. What is the distribution of values taken by a statistic in all possible samples of the same size from the same population called

The sampling distribution of the statistic More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ap-stats-midterm/

College freshman study mean of 7.2 hr and SD of 5.3 What is the shape of the sampling distribution of mean x for samples of 55 randomly selected freshman?

N= 55 55 is greater than 30 sample is approx normal More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ap-statistics-ch-7/

Suppose X is the number of cars that a family owns, and that X has the following probability distribution. X 0 1 2 P(x) .05 .39 .56 What is the chance that family owns more than one car?

a. 0.95 b. 0.56 c. 0.39 d. 0.05 More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/carmen-homework-7/

A nurse is caring for a client with a fractured arm. As part of hair care, what should the nurse do to increase circulation and distribution of sebum in the client’s hair?

Brush the client’s hair slowly. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/prep-u-chapter-23/

What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture distribution layer?

aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ccna2-6-0-chapter-4/

What is a disadvantage of using manufacturers’ agents in the distribution of business products?

They are often reluctant to spend time following up sales and to provide market information to sellers. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/mkt-exam-3-questions/

What is the primary way in which we determine the mass distribution of a spiral galaxy?

We construct its rotation curve by measuring Doppler shifts from gas clouds at different distances from the galaxy’s center More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/astronomy-chapter-16-study-quizzes-31919/

When a distribution is mound-shaped symmetrical, what is the general relationship among the values of the mean, median, and mode?

The mean, median, and mode are approximately equal. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/math-125q-quiz-1/

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CS321 final – Flashcards 62 terms

Blake Terry

62 terms

Preview

CS321 final – Flashcards

question

what is the percentile rank that is equivalent to the mean?

answer

question

michael enrolls in a new school. here he is provided with an id number MKs5461 (a combination of letters and numbers) His id number represents what type of measurement scale?

answer

nominal

question

Aarons teacher noticed he was having difficulties reading in all of his classes. She referred him for sp.ed services immeadiately. What model of assessment is Aaron's teacher following?

answer

historical model

question

mr. kohl teaches creative writing for fourth grade students. He collects student stories over the course of the year to demonstrate the progress his students make. At the end of the year, he creates a book for all of their short studies for them to keep. Mr. Kohl is utilizing what type of assessment?

answer

portfolio assessment

question

The Neverland School has developed a rubric for the teachers to utilize when scoring their student's final exam essays. Two separate teachers utilizing the same rubric score each essay. Using the rubric; if Mrs. Brown gives Leo's essay a 5 out of 5 and Mrs. Pink give the same essay a 2 out of 5, what is this assessment lacking?

answer

inter rater reliability

question

The school based team has decided that Arianna would benefit from a comprehensive evaluation to determine the need of additional services. The team provides a letter to the parents, fully explaining the educational activities and testing that will be conducted. The letter is written in Spanish since they speak minimal English. This is an example of what

answer

informed consent

question

Students who participated in the science fair were ranked by category and received first-, second-, and third-place ribbons. This is an example of what type of scale?

answer

ordinal

question

John's teacher, Mr. Banker, sees that John continues to have difficulty in math. Mr. Banker decides to look over John's last 5 tests and homework assignments to see if he can find a pattern of John's mistakes. Mr. Banker hopes that if he can identify the pattern, he can narrow his focus on how to help John. This is an example of

answer

error analysis

question

Claire and David are second year video media students. Throughout the year they have learned many skills in regards to video production, editing and performance. For their final project they were required to demonstrate all the skills they have learned and develop a 30 minute long video about the history of the school. What type of assessment is the media teacher utilizing?

answer

performance based assessment

question

Student Spelling Test Scores Mary 76 Allison 48 John 72 Thomas 76 Steve 52 Dylan 50

answer

mean score - 62 mode - 76 range - 28

question

Eddy's individualized reading program provides quizzes after every 3 lessons. The reading program has a set criteria for mastery. If Eddy does not show mastery of the skills introduced in these lessons, he cannot move forward in the program. He will continue to work on these skills until he is able to demonstrate mastery during the next assessment. The type of assessment being utilized here is

answer

criteria referenced assessment

question

Ella is a child with a disability, who requires a 1:1 aide for mobility and safety issues The school district informs her parents that she can attend her home elementary school. However, the district will not pay to have an aide with her. If the parents wish for Ella to attend that school, they must pay a fee for the additional services. What component of IDEA does this violate?

answer

FAPE free appropriate public education

question

Elizabeth's teacher gives a spelling test at the end of each week to determine student mastery of the words. This type of assessment is considered a

answer

curriculum based assessment

question

The focus of IDEA on including students in the general education environment is known as

answer

LRE

question

This process is used when effective, research-based interventions are not successful in the general education classroom and document what strategies and assessments are being used to support instruction.

answer

response to intervention RTI

question

Establishing inter rater reliability is especially important when test data are

answer

subjective

question

This type of assessment is often associated with NCLB and federal funding.

answer

high stakes testing

question

Practice effects may be a problem when studying the results of which of the following?

answer

test retest reliability

question

Which on of the following is NOT an example of a derived score?

answer

raw score

question

What are Z scores (standard scores)?

answer

Used to describe a score in terms of where it fits into an overall group of scores.

question

Standard deviations are broken down into 9 equal parts. These parts are called

answer

stanine

question

ABC Publishing Company is creating a new standardized test for third grade English Language Arts. Prior to distribution of the test, they administer the test to 2000 third grade students nationwide. They use these scores to assist in understanding the average performance of the students. What are these students called?

answer

norm group

question

In addition to having difficulty with academics, Matthew has difficulty with taking care of himself and how to engage In appropriate social behaviors in different environments and situations. What type of assessment should be given to Matthew?

answer

adaptive behavior scale

question

Jennifer is taking a standardized spelling test. Jennifer answers questions one through twenty correctly. She answers questions 21-25 incorrectly. The manual says that after 4 incorrect responses, you should discontinue administration of the test. What does this scenario represent

answer

ceiling

question

Mr. Hayes has just sat down to score Mary's achievement test. He has calculated all the raw scores for each domain. What must he determine in order to locate the correct norm table comparative to her same aged peers

answer

chronological age

question

Mr. Ray has concerns about the progress of one of his students. He is unsure if he should provide a full standardized assessment. What might he use first

answer

screening test

question

Mrs. Johnson needed to examine Marcus using the WRAT -4. When they sat down to conduct the assessment, Mrs. Johnson could not find the directions for administration and the norm tables. What was the testing kit missing

answer

test manual

question

Mrs. K is concerned about one of her student's progress. Avery does not appear to be making the gains that are expected of her in her second grade class within the area of reading. Mrs. K has tried many different teaching strategies but they have not been successful. Mrs. K wants to know the specific areas where Avery's breakdown is occurring. What type of test should Mrs.K administer

answer

diagnostic test

question

The WIAT iii is what type of assessment

answer

achievement test

question

What does the examiner need to determine before he can determine a students standard score

answer

raw score

question

The Blank School District administers standardized norm referenced tests twice yearly. These tests compare their students to the same aged students across the country in regard to general academics. However, Mr. Shaw teaches additional curriculum subjects. What might Mrs. Shaw administer to determine if the students were making gains in these areas as well

answer

curriculum based assessment

question

The RTI tier that utilizes intensive methods or strategies is what?

answer

Tier 3

question

Mr. Greene administered Jaime the WIAT iii. Once scored, he noticed that the numerical operations section was extremely lower than the others. What can he do to see exactly where Jaime might need help in this area

answer

conduct an error analysis

question

Using the WISC-IV, which of the following ranges would a full scale score of 117 fall

answer

high average

question

Which of the following sections is typically first in a psychoeducational report

answer

identifying data

question

A curriculum based measurement evaluates student performance against what

answer

an expected rate of progress through the year

question

Assessment for learning is called what

answer

formative assessment

question

An informal assessment should not be what

answer

static

question

When interpreting tests results, comparing a student to a peer norm group is called what?

answer

inter-individual interpretation

question

Which one is not recommended to be included in an educational report

answer

peer observation

question

Dr. Davis is performing a re evaluation on Mark. He wants to administer several tests to obtain a true reflection of Mark's abilities across all domains. What might this be called

answer

cross battery assessment

question

Mrs. McCarthy administered the WRAT 4 to Matthew on October 10, 2012. Matthew's date of birth was May 25, 2003. What is Matthew's chronological age

answer

9 years 4 months

question

This is comparing a student with his or her own performance

answer

intra-individual interpretation

question

The evaluator had administered the WIAT to Paige. During the assessment, Paige often cried and ran away from the testing table. Where in the assessment report would the evaluator note this

answer

behavioral observations

question

Assessing one's ability to function in various environments requires measuring what

answer

adaptive behavior

question

Problem solving skills and the ability to function effectively within various settings is called what

answer

intelligence

question

A standardized test commonly used to measure achievement is called what

answer

WIAT 3

question

As a result of the Test of Non Verbal Intelligence, Thomas received an overall IQ score of 82. When you present the results you would describe Thomas' performance as what

answer

low average

question

I.Q. stands for what?

answer

Intelligence Quotient

question

what is the difference between testing and assessment?

answer

Testing is one method of assessment used to evaluate student progress, outcomes and needs. Assessment includes many formal and informal methods of evaluating students. Happens every day to inform the teacher about needed interventions.

question

Educational Accountability

answer

Improving education and achievement for all students, especially for student who are culturally, linguistically, and ethnically diverse. Federal regulations require additional procedures and funding to address the disproportionate number of students from various ethnic groups who are found eligible for special education. disproportionality - When students from various ethnic or linguistically different groups are under- or overrepresented in receiving special education services. overrepresentation - When too many students are found to be eligible from a specific ethnic group

question

aptitude test

answer

test designed to measure strength talent or ability in a particular area or domain

question

Historical & Contemporary Models of Assessment

answer

Historical: Teacher noticed a student was having difficulty. Specific deficits that appear to be the cause of a student's difficulty were identified. Student was referred to a multidisciplinary team who evaluated the student. Eligibility was determined. An (IEP) was put in place for eligible students. Outcomes Increasing rates of children referred for assessment and subsequently receiving special education services. Contemporary: Emphasizes finding a solution rather than determining eligibility or finding an alternative placement. Various methods of intervention and assessment are utilized and documented before referral and evaluation for special education services. Interventions may or may not include special education services.

question

Norm-‐Referenced Test

answer

Norm-‐Referenced Tests performance can be compared with the typical or average performance of students of the same age or grade. can be used to determine if the student's ability or skill level is significantly above or below age or grade peers. For example, within the gifted range of intellectual ability or significant cognitive challenges.

question

Standardized Tests

answer

Have uniform procedures for administration and scoring. Allow comparison of student scores by age, grade level, local and national norms. Attempt to include material common across most classrooms.

question

item pool

answer

A large collection of test items thought to effectively represent a particular domain or content area.

question

levels of measurement in assessment

answer

ratio - absolute 0 interval - distance is meaningful ordinal - attributes can be ordered nominal - attributes are only named; weakest

question

reliability

answer

Test-‐retest reliability —the trait being measured is one that is stable over time. Equivalent forms reliability- Two forms of the same instrument are used. Items are matched for difficulty. Split-‐Half Reliability- Takes all available items on a test and divides the items in half Interrater reliability- The consistency of a test across examiners

question

formative assessment

answer

ongoing assessment that is completed during the acquisition of a skill

question

summative assessment

answer

assessment that is completed at the conclusion of an instructional period to determine the level of acquisition

question

Criterion-referenced tests and assessments

answer

Criterion-referenced tests and assessments are designed to measure student performance against a fixed set of predetermined criteria or learning standards

question

Cross-battery assessment

answer

refers to the process by which psychologists use information from multiple test batteries (i.e., various IQ tests) to help guide diagnostic decisions and to gain a fuller picture of an individual's cognitive abilities

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Data Distribution Introductory Sociology Measure Of Central Tendency Prisoners And Guards Sociology

SOCIOLOGY Ch. 1, 2, 3 – Flashcards 167 terms

Ben Powell

167 terms

Preview

SOCIOLOGY Ch. 1, 2, 3 – Flashcards

question

the term for the value that occurs most often in a series of numbers

answer

mode

question

Which research method asks subjects to respond to a series of items on a questionnaire or in an interview?

answer

the survey method

question

Which of the founding sociologists urged sociologists to understand a social setting from the point of view of the people in it?

answer

Max Weber

question

If you were to conduct sociological research that closely follows the logic of science, which research method would you MOST likely use?

answer

the experiment method

question

When did sociology become established as an academic discipline in the United States?

answer

about 1900

question

Interpretive sociology is sociology that...

answer

focuses on the meaning people attach to behavior

question

Sociologists cannot identify "laws of society" that allow us to precisely predict the behavior of an individual because

answer

human behavior may be patterned, but it is also spontaneous

question

If marginality encourages sociological thinking, we would expect people in which category listed below to make the most use of the sociological perspective?

answer

politicians

question

Racial discrimination in professional sports is evident today in

answer

the positions typically played by white and black players

question

Three campus roommates are talking about why they are in college. A sociological view of going to college highlights the effect of

answer

only class, because college students tend to come from families with above-average incomes

question

Which pioneering sociologist founded Chicago's Hull House to assist immigrants and was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize?

answer

Jane Addams

question

Identify the three sociologists who played a part in the development of sociology's structural-functional approach

answer

-Auguste Comte -Herbert Spencer -Emile Durkheim

question

The theoretical approach in sociology that assumes society is a complex system whose parts work together to promote solidarity is the

answer

structural-functional approach

question

Which term is based on a symbolic-interaction analysis of sports?

answer

Stacking

question

E. Digby Baltzell's historical study, Puritan Boston and Quaker Philadelphia, illustrates which research method?

answer

the existing sources method

question

Most of today's sociologists agree with Auguste Comte's claim that science has an important place in

answer

Sociology

question

The chapter's sociological analysis of childbearing around the world suggests that the number of children born to a woman reflects

answer

whether she lives in a poor or rich society

question

which example illustrates a micro-level focus?

answer

2 people on a plane

question

Lois Benjamin's investigation of racism may be criticized because

answer

question

If you read a study that draws conclusions about all of humanity based on research using only males as subjects, you would correctly point to the problem called

answer

androcentricity

question

In the United States, which gender has a high suicide rate?

answer

white males

question

Sociological research may be interesting, but

answer

it is of little use in shaping public policy, including legislation

question

studying other societies is a good way to learn

answer

about our own way of life

question

To say that a social pattern is "dysfunctional" means that

answer

it has more than one function for the operation of society. FALSE

question

People with lower social standing are usually more likely to

answer

see the world from a sociological perspective than people who are well off. TRUE

question

Auguste Comte was a positivist who believed that there were laws of society

answer

in the same way that there are laws of physics that describe the operation of the natural world. TRUE

question

In the US, secondary schools place students

answer

in college preparatory tracks that partially reflect the social background of their families. TRUE

question

What are 3 basic theoretical approaches

answer

-structural-functional -symbolic-interaction -social-conflict

question

using the symbolic-interaction approach, sports

answer

becomes less a system than an on-going process

question

Following the thinking of C. Wright Mills, we would expect the sociological imagination to be more widespread in a population

answer

during times of social crisis

question

Qualitative research has special appeal to investigators who favor the _________ approach.

answer

symbolic-interaction

question

A statement that explains how and why specific facts are related is called a(n)

answer

theory

question

What process involves deciding exactly what is to be measured when assigning value to a variable?

answer

Operationalizing

question

_____ is a way of understanding the world based on science.

answer

positivism

question

Herbert Spencer described human society as a complex system having much in common with

answer

the human body

question

What is an accurate criticism of the structural-functional approach?

answer

it ignores inequality

question

A small number of people that are used to represent a much larger population is called a

answer

sample group

question

sociological generalizations, unlike stereotypes, are:

answer

- not applied to all individuals in a category - based on all available facts - offered fair-mindedly with an interested in the truth

question

An apparent, although false, association between two variables that is caused by a third variable is called

answer

spurious

question

The social-conflict approach sometimes receives criticism for

answer

being openly political

question

William Foote Whyte's study of Cornerville (Street Corner Society) used which sociological research method?

answer

participant observation

question

Which of the following is a manifest function of sports?

answer

providing recreation and physical conditioning

question

In the process of measurement, reliability refers to

answer

whether repeating the measurement yields consistent results

question

Which sociological research method is MOST likely to produce quantitative data that will identify cause-and-effect relationships?

answer

existing sources is most likely

question

Comte described the earliest human societies as being at which stage of historical development?

answer

theological stage

question

A criticism of the symbolic-interaction approach is that it

answer

ignores the influence of factors such as culture, class, gender, and race

question

If you were to attend a New York Ballet performance, you would be experiencing

answer

high culture

question

The claim that U.S. culture is wrongly dominated by European, and especially English, way of life characterizes our culture as

answer

eurocentric

question

The chapter's opening story of the diversity initiative at Charles Schwab & Co. shows us that

answer

learning more about cultural diversity can help a company boost sales

question

This is true about technology

answer

Advanced technology improves life in some ways, but also threatens life in other ways.

question

Cultural change is set in motion by these 3 ways:

answer

invention discovery diffusion

question

multiculturalism

answer

a perspective recognizing the cultural diversity of the United States and promoting equality of all cultural traditions

question

a good example of cultural lag is

answer

gaining the ability to modify genetic patterns in humans before understanding the possible social consequences of doing so

question

ethnocentrism refers to:

answer

judging another culture using the standards of your own culture

question

homo sapien =

answer

"intelligent person"

question

The fact that some married men and married women are sexually unfaithful to their spouses is an example of _____ culture, while the fact that most adults say they support the idea of sexual fidelity is an example of _____ culture.

answer

real; ideal

question

Low-income countries have cultures that value

answer

survival

question

The United States is the most _______ of all countries.

answer

multicultural

question

Core values of U.S. culture

answer

are sometimes in conflict with one another

question

the term for the ways of thinking, ways of acting, and material objects that together form a people's way of life

answer

culture

question

an act of kindness, such as opening the door for an elderly man, illustrates conforming to

answer

folkways

question

Elements of social control in everyday life include:

answer

-shame -guilt -sanctions, including the response of other people

question

the spread of cultural traits from one society to another is called:

answer

diffusion

question

cultural transmission refers to the process of

answer

passing cultural patterns from one generation to another

question

sociologists define a symbol as

answer

anything that carries meaning to people who share a culture

question

the intangible world of ideas created by members of a society is referred to as

answer

nonmaterial culture

question

subculture is more at odds

answer

with dominant culture than counterculture. FALSE

question

Most of the people in the US share the value that everyone should not only have equality of opportunity

answer

but also equality in all aspects of social standing. FALSE

question

answer

norms that have great moral significance

question

for at least 12,000 years

answer

humans have used culture as a strategy for survival TRUE

question

experiencing an unfamiliar culture can generate

answer

culture shock

question

The Census Bureau reports that only ten

answer

different languages are spoken in the US FALSE

question

standards that serve as broad guidelines for social living

answer

values

question

cultural change results from

answer

invention, discovery, and diffusion TRUE

question

cultural universals refer to

answer

patterns that are held by everyone in a society FALSE

question

People in the US tend to view

answer

the past as being better than the present FALSE

question

Businesses in this country can profit from recognizing the _________ ________ of the US population

answer

cultural diversity

question

values

answer

standards by which people who share culture define what is desirable, good and beautiful

question

other than English, which is the most widely-spoken language in the US?

answer

Spanish

question

__________ is an example of nonmaterial culture

answer

religion

question

about how many adults in the US speak a language other than English at home?

answer

60 Million

question

Experts have documented almost _______ languages around the world.

answer

7,000

question

__________ are rules about everyday, casual living; __________ are rules with great moral significance.

answer

mores; folkways

question

Culture acts as a constraint, limiting human freedom because

answer

much culture is habit that drives members of a society to repeat troubling patterns

question

Which theoretical approach is linked to the philosophical doctrine of materialism?

answer

the social-conflict approach

question

This is a statement that represents the emerging value in our society?

answer

"Work is important, but I want more time for leisure and personal growth."

question

subculture

answer

cultural patterns that set off a part of a society's population

question

understanding another culture on its own terms and using its own standards is called

answer

cultural relativism

question

Eating disorders are a result of how

answer

our society defines success and attractiveness among women TRUE

question

From a sociological point of view, "health" is sometimes

answer

a matter of having the same diseases as one's neighbors TRUE

question

Jonathan Kozol

answer

considers tracking as one of the "savage inequalities" of U.S. education.

question

About half of U.S. adults

answer

are now college graduates FALSE

question

Rather than creating violence, in most cases

answer

violence spills into schools from the surrounding society TRUE

question

gonorrhea and syphilis can be cured with

answer

penicillin

question

AIDS kills more people in the U.S. each year

answer

than diseases caused by cigarette smoking FALSE

question

About half of all physicians in the U.S.

answer

are women FALSE

question

most people with HIV begin to display symptoms

answer

about one month after being infected FALSE

question

In the United States, the infant mortality rate among low-income children

answer

is about the same as the rate for children of the wealthy FALSE

question

euthanasia

answer

assisting in the death of a person suffering from a terminal illness

question

Talcott Parsons

answer

claimed that society responds to illness by using the "sick role" to relieve ill people of many daily responsibilities

question

the most widespread health problem related to eating is

answer

obesity

question

an example of the advantage of cultural capital in the U.S. schooling is parents who

answer

-spend more time reading to their children -value schooling and encourage their children -encourage the development of imagination in their children

question

the greatest preventable cause of death in the U.S. is

answer

cigarette smoking

question

Assume that you support the school choice movement. What are you likely to say is the reason that U.S. public schools perform poorly?

answer

schools have no competition

question

Getting into college in Japan, compared to the United States, is more a matter of

answer

performance on achievement tests

question

Which world region is experiencing the most severe epidemic of AIDS?

answer

sub-Saharan Africa

question

There is a shortage of ________ in the U.S. which is an important medical issue.

answer

nurses

question

In _____ the government controls most of the health care.

answer

China

question

According to the World Health Organization, about how many of the world's people suffer from serious illness caused by poverty

answer

1 billion

question

Which concept refers to the practice of including people with disabilities in regular educational classes and programs?

answer

mainstreaming

question

A symbolic-interaction approach to health and medicine emphasizes

answer

the meaning people attach to health and illness

question

People over the age of twenty-five now account for about what percentage of all people in degree granting programs?

answer

40 percent

question

On which of the following continents do we find the MOST countries with high rates of illiteracy?

answer

Africa

question

Scientific medicine typically develops in

answer

industrial societies

question

magnet schools encourage

answer

students to specialize in specific areas of study

question

What is a latent function of schooling?

answer

providing child care

question

holistic medicine asserts that

answer

patients should rely on themselves-not just physicians-to ensure their health

question

The concept "socialized medicine" refers to

answer

a medical system mostly owned and operated by the government

question

_______ gradually led to dramatic improvement in human health

answer

industrialization

question

Regardless of the levels of school's funding, students who benefit from more _______ _____ would still do better

answer

cultural capital

question

The extent of schooling in a society is closely tied to its level of _______ ________

answer

economic development

question

More students graduate from high school in _____ than in the U.S.

answer

Japan

question

Heart disease and cancer are

answer

the leading killers in low income nations FALSE

question

From a social-conflict perspective, schooling in the United States transforms social privilege into

answer

personal merit

question

Social-conflict analysis claims the profit motive enhances the quality of

answer

medical care in the United States...FALSE

question

These factors have a strong link to life expectancy

answer

race gender social class

question

In 2009, men accounted for what share of all US undergraduate college students?

answer

43%

question

In poor nations around the world, about what percentage of children die before their first birthday?

answer

10%

question

What is the MOST common way people in the US pay for medical health care

answer

private insurance programs

question

The problem of functional illiteracy means that

answer

many young people leave school without having learned basic skills

question

What category of people in the US is especially likely to smoke cigarettes?

answer

divorced people

question

Comparing school performance, researcher have found that the main cause of the achievement gap between rich and poor children is

answer

differences in home environment

question

The topic of _________ _______ is of greatest interest to sociologist guided by symbolic-interaction approach?

answer

psychosomatic disorders

question

The concept of _________ is grounded not in biology but in culture. In high-income countries, this stage is extended.

answer

CHILDHOOD

question

The emotional and social turmoil of _________ results from cultural inconsistency in defining people who are not children but not yet adults. This varies by social class.

answer

ADOLESCENCE

question

___________ is the stage of life when most accomplishments take place. Although personality is now formed, it continues to change with new life experiences.

answer

ADULTHOOD

question

_____ ____ is defined as much by culture as biology. In high-income countries, it's a time of disengagement and loss of social importance.

answer

OLD AGE

question

Acceptance of ______ ___ ______ is part of socialization for the elderly. This process typically involves five stages: denial, anger, negotiation, resignation, and acceptance.

answer

DEATH and DYING

question

gerontocracy

answer

a form of social organization in which the elderly have the most wealth, power, and prestige.

question

anticipatory socialization

answer

learning that helps a person achieve a desired position

question

looking glass self

answer

Charles Horton Cooley's term for a self-image based on how we think others see us.

question

resocialization is a two part process:

answer

-breaking down inmates' existing identity -building a new self through a system of rewards and punishments

question

socialization is a matter of _______ rather than ______.

answer

nurture; nature

question

More than _________ of the world's children work, half of them full time; some do work that is dangerous to their physical or mental health.

answer

160 million

question

What does the sociological perspective show us about whom any individual chooses to marry?

answer

the operation of society guides many of our personal choices.

question

The personal value of studying sociology includes:

answer

-seeing the opportunities and constraints in our lives -the fact that it is good preparation for a number of careers --becoming more active participants in society

question

The discipline of sociology first developed in

answer

countries experiencing rapid social change

question

Which early sociologist coined the term sociology in 1838?

answer

Auguste Comte

question

Sociology's social-conflict approach draws attention to

answer

patterns of social inequality

question

Empirical evidence refers to:

answer

information we can verify with our senses

question

When trying to measure people's "social class" you would have to keep in mind that

answer

there are several ways to operationalize this variable

question

Interpretive sociology is a research orientation that

answer

focuses on the meanings people attach to behavior

question

In research using participant observation, the problem of "breaking in" to a setting is often solved with the help of a

answer

key informant

question

The critical sociology research orientation is linked most closely to which theoretical approach?

answer

social conflict approach

question

Ideas created by members of a society are part of

answer

nonmaterial culture

question

U.S culture holds a strong belief in

answer

individuality

question

Cheating on a final exam is an example of violating campus

answer

question

Which of the following describes the concept of ethnocentrism?

answer

judging an unfamiliar culture using the standards of your own culture

question

In human history, the "dawn of civilization" took place with the development of

answer

agriculture

question

Kingsley-Davis's study of Anna shows that

answer

without social experience, a child never develops personality

question

Lawrence Kohlberg explored socialization by studying

answer

moral reasoning

question

Gilligan added to Kohlberg's findings by showing that

answer

girls and boys typically use different standards of deciding what is right and what is wrong

question

Why is the family so important to the socialization process?

answer

-they provide necessary care for infants and children -they give children social identity in terms of class, ethnicity and religion -parent greatly affect a child's self-concept

question

Compared to higher income parents, lower-income parents are more likely to emphasize

answer

obedience

question

In global perspective, which statement is correct about childhood?

answer

rich societies extend childhood much longer than poor societies do

question

Members od high-income societies typically define people in old age as

answer

less socially important than younger adults

question

According to Erving Goffman, the purpose of a total institution is

answer

to radically change a person's personality or behavior

STUDY

Distribution Models Probability

ISDS Exam2 Module D – Flashcards 73 terms

Jacob Herring

73 terms

Preview

ISDS Exam2 Module D – Flashcards

question

1. Waiting-line models are useful to operations in such diverse settings as service systems, maintenance activities, and shop-floor control.

answer

True (Introduction, easy)

question

2. The two characteristics of the waiting line itself are whether its length is limited or unlimited and the discipline of the people or items in it.

answer

True (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, easy)

question

3. A waiting-line system has three parts: the size of the arrival population, the behavior of arrivals, and the statistical distribution of arrivals.

answer

False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, easy)

question

4. A copy center has five machines that serve many customers throughout the day; the waiting-line system for copy service has an infinite population while the waiting-line system for copier maintenance has a finite population

answer

True (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, easy)

question

5. In queuing problems, arrival rates are generally described by the normal probability distribution.

answer

False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)

question

6. Balk and renege are elements of queue discipline.

answer

False (Characteristics of a waiting-line problem, easy)

question

7. A hospital emergency room always follows a first-in, first-served queue discipline in the interest of fairness.

answer

False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)

question

8. In queuing problems, the term "renege" refers to the fact that some customers leave the queue before service is completed.

answer

True (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)

question

9. A waiting-line system with one waiting line and three sequential processing stages is a multichannel single-phase system.

answer

False (Characteristics of a waiting-line problem, easy)

question

10. If the service time within a queuing system is constant, the service rate can be easily described by a negative exponential distribution.

answer

False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)

question

11. The cost of waiting decreases as the service level increases.

answer

True (Queuing costs, moderate)

question

12. LIFS (last-in, first-served) is a common queue discipline, most often seen where people, not objects, form the waiting line.

answer

False (Characteristics of a waiting-line problem, moderate)

question

13. A bank office with five tellers, each with a separate line of customers, exhibits the characteristics of a multi-phase queuing system.

answer

False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)

question

14. In the analysis of queuing models, the Poisson distribution often describes arrival rates and service times are often described by the negative exponential distribution.

answer

True (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)

question

15. The study of waiting lines calculates the cost of providing good service but does not value the cost of customers' waiting time.

answer

False (Queuing costs, moderate)

question

16. As the average service rate grows larger, the slope of the distribution of service time probabilities grows larger and larger, eventually becoming positive.

answer

False (The variety of queuing models, easy)

question

17. Four of the most widely used waiting line models—M/M/1 or A, M/M/S or B, M/D/1 or C, and Limited population or D—all share three characteristics: Poisson arrivals, FIFO discipline, and exponential service times.

answer

False (The variety of queuing models, moderate)

question

18. In the M/M/1 waiting line model with an arrival rate of 2 per hour and a service rate of 6 per hour, the utilization factor for the system is approximately 0.333.

answer

True (The variety of queuing models, easy)

question

19. The greater the margin by which the arrival rate exceeds the service rate, the better the performance of the waiting line.

answer

False (The variety of queuing models, easy)

question

20. An M/M/1 model and an M/D/1 model each have an arrival rate of 1 per minute and a service rate of 3 per minute; the average queue length of the M/M/1 will be twice that of the M/D/1.

answer

True (The variety of queuing models, moderate)

question

21. A finite population waiting line model has an average service time T of 100 minutes and an average time between service requirements U of 400 minutes; the service factor X is 0.25.

answer

False (The variety of queuing models, moderate)

question

22. Study of waiting-line models helps operations managers better understand a. service systems such as bank teller stations b. maintenance activities that might repair broken machinery c. shop-floor control activities d. service systems such as amusement park rides e. all of the above

answer

e. all of the above

question

23. Which of the following is not a common queuing situation? a. grocery shoppers being served by checkout clerks b. commuters slowing or stopping at toll plazas to pay highway tolls c. machinery waiting to be repaired or maintained d. parcel delivery truck following its computer-generated route e. patients in a health clinic waiting to see one of several doctors

answer

d. parcel delivery truck following its computer-generated route

question

24. In queuing problems, which of the following probability distributions is typically used to describe the number of arrivals per unit of time? a. binomial b. normal c. Poisson d. exponential e. lognormal

answer

c. Poisson

question

25. In queuing problems, which of the following probability distributions is typically used to describe the time to perform the service? a. binomial b. normal c. Poisson d. negative exponential e. lognormal

answer

d. negative exponential

question

26. The common measures of a queuing system's performance include a. probability that the service facility will be idle, average queue length, probability that the waiting time will exceed a specified duration b. average time each customer spends in the system, probability that the service system will be idle, average time each customer spends in the queue c. average queue length, maximum time a customer may spend in the queue, the utilization factor for the system d. average time each customer spends in the system, maximum queue length, probability of a specific number of customers in the system e. none of the above

answer

b. average time each customer spends in the system, probability that the service system will be idle, average time each customer spends in the queue

question

27. The shopper who says to himself, "I've waited too long in this line. I don't really need to buy this product today," and leaves the store is an illustration of which element of arrival behavior? a. random arrival b. renege c. random departure d. balk e. none of the above

answer

b. renege

question

28. A waiting line, or queuing, system has three parts, which are a. distribution of arrival times, discipline while waiting, and distribution of service times b. arrival rate, service rate, and utilization rate c. arrival discipline, queue discipline, and service sequencing d. arrival or inputs, queue discipline or the waiting line itself, and the service facility e. sequencing policy, penalty for reneging, and expediting of arrivals

answer

d. arrival or inputs, queue discipline or the waiting line itself, and the service facility

question

29. The source population is considered to be either ________ in its size. a. finite or infinite b. fixed or variable c. known or unknown d. random or scheduled e. small or large

answer

a. finite or infinite

question

30. The potential restaurant customer who says to her husband, "The line looks too long; let's eat somewhere else," is an illustration of which element of queue discipline? a. first-in, first-out b. balk c. renege d. random departure e. none of the above

answer

b. balk

question

31. An airline ticket counter, with several agents for one line of customers, is an example of a a. single channel, single phase system b. single channel, multi-phase system c. multi-channel, single phase system d. multi-channel, multi-phase system e. none of the above

answer

c. multi-channel, single phase system

question

32. A concert hall, employing both ticket takers and ushers to seat patrons, behaves typically as a a. multi-channel, single phase system b. multi-channel, multi-phase system c. single channel, single phase system d. single channel, multi-phase system e. none of the above

answer

b. multi-channel, multi-phase system

question

33. If the food service for the university operates a cafeteria with a single serving line, that system behaves most like a a. single channel, single phase system b. single channel, multi-phase system c. multi-channel, single phase system d. multi-channel, multi-phase system e. none of the above

answer

b. single channel, multi-phase system

question

34. The sign at the bank that reads "Wait here for the first available teller" suggests the use of a _____waiting line system. a. single phase b. multi-phase c. single channel d. multi-channel e. multiple line

answer

d. multi-channel

question

35. A small hair styling salon has several operators. While customers do not have appointments, each is waiting to be served by a specific operator. This scenario provides an example of a a. multiple-channel, multi-phase, limited queue length b. single-channel, multi-phase, limited queue length c. multi-channel, limited queue length d. multiple single-channel systems, limited queue length e. none of the above

answer

d. multiple single-channel systems, limited queue length

question

36. A large discount store and supermarket has a hair styling salon on its premises. The salon has several operators. Salon customers can shop in other parts of the store until their name is called for salon service, at which time the customer will be served by the next available stylist. This scenario provides an example of a a. multiple-channel, multi-phase, unlimited queue length b. single-channel, multi-phase, limited queue length c. multi-channel, unlimited queue length d. multiple single-channel systems, limited queue length e. none of the above

answer

c. multi-channel, unlimited queue length

question

37. A university has only one technician in the repair station to care for the computers in the student labs. This system is most likely a. a single channel, limited queue system b. a single channel, limited population system c. a multi-channel, limited queue system d. a multi-channel, limited population system e. none of the above

answer

b. a single channel, limited population system

question

38. "Women and children first!" declares the captain of a sinking ship. His directive employs which of the following queue disciplines in disembarking passengers? a. priority b. random c. FIFO or FIFS d. LIFO or LIFS e. none of the above

answer

a. priority

question

39. A university has several technicians in the repair station to care for the computers in the student labs. This system is most likely a. single channel, limited queue system b. single channel, limited population system c. multi-channel, limited queue system d. multi-channel, limited population system e. none of the above

answer

d. multi-channel, limited population system

question

40. A system in which the customer receives service from only one station and then exits the system is a. a single-phase system b. a single channel system c. a multiple-channel system d. a multiple-phase system e. none of the above

answer

a. a single-phase system

question

41. In a repetitive focus factory, the number of phases found in the system might refer to a. the number of successive operations that have to be performed on a part b. the number of machines doing the same necessary operations c. the number of parts waiting to be processed d. all of the above depending on the layout e. none of the above

answer

a. the number of successive operations that have to be performed on a part

question

42. Which of the following is a measure of queue performance? a. utilization factor b. average queue length c. probability of a specific number of customers in the system d. average waiting time in the line e. all of the above

answer

e. all of the above

question

43. Which of the following is most likely to be served in a last-in, first-served (LIFS) queue discipline? a. customers checking out at a grocery store b. the in-basket on a manager's desk c. patients entering a hospital emergency room d. patrons waiting to be seated in a casual-dining restaurant e. all of the above

answer

b. the in-basket on a manager's desk

question

44. In a repetitive focus factory, the number of channels available for the processing of a certain part would likely refer to a. the number of successive operations that have to be performed on that part b. the number of machines doing the same necessary operations c. the number of parts waiting to be processed d. all of the above depending on the layout e. none of the above

answer

b. the number of machines doing the same necessary operations

question

45. A waiting line meeting the assumptions of M/M/1 has average time between arrivals of 20 minutes and services items in an average of 10 minutes each; the utilization factor is approximately a. 0.25 b. 0.33 c. 0.50 d. 0.67 e. 3.00

answer

c. 0.50

question

46. A waiting line model meeting the assumptions of M/M/1 has an arrival rate of 2 per hour and a service rate of 6 per hour; the utilization factor for the system is approximately a. 0.25 b. 0.33 c. 0.50 d. 0.67 e. 3.00

answer

b. 0.33

question

47. As the average service rate increases, the shape of the negative exponential distribution of service times a. grows steadily steeper without limit b. has an ever steeper slope that eventually turns positive c. becomes less gently curved as it moves ever closer to the graph origin d. takes on a more uniform slope over a wide range of service times e. changes in appearance from convex to concave

answer

c. becomes less gently curved as it moves ever closer to the graph origin

question

48. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a Model A or M/M/1 system? a. exponential service time pattern b. single number of channels c. single number of phases d. Poisson arrival rate pattern e. limited population size

answer

e. limited population size

question

49. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a Model B or M/M/S system? a. unlimited population size b. single channel c. single queue d. single phase e. Poisson arrival rate pattern

answer

b. single channel

question

50. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a Model C or M/D/1 system? a. single channel b. single phase c. Poisson arrival rate pattern d. exponential service time pattern e. unlimited population size

answer

d. exponential service time pattern

question

51. In the basic queuing model (M/M/1), service times are described by a. continuous probability distributions b. negative exponential probability distributions c. Poisson probability distributions d. normal probability distributions e. lognormal distributions

answer

b. negative exponential probability distributions

question

52. In the basic queuing model (M/M/1), arrival rates are distributed by a. continuous probability distributions b. normal probability distributions c. negative exponential probability distributions d. Poisson distributions e. lognormal distributions

answer

d. Poisson distributions

question

53. A single-phase waiting-line system meets the assumptions of constant service time or M/D/1. Units arrive at this system every 10 minutes on average. Service takes a constant 4 minutes. The average length of the queue Lq is a. 0.4 b. 0.133 c. 4.167 d. 4.583 e. 6

answer

b. 0.133

question

54. Which of the following is not an assumption of the M/M/1 model? a. The first customers to arrive are the first customers served. b. Each arrival comes independently of the arrival immediately before and after that arrival. c. The population from which the arrivals come is very large or infinite in size. d. Customers do not renege. e. Service times occur according to a normal curve.

answer

e. Service times occur according to a normal curve.

question

55. A single-phase waiting-line system meets the assumptions of constant service time or M/D/1. Units arrive at this system every 12 minutes on average. Service takes a constant 8 minutes. The average length of the queue Lq is approximately a. 0.67 b. 2.5 c. 4.5 d. 5.0 e. 7.5

answer

a. 0.67

question

56. A single-phase waiting-line system meets the assumptions of constant service time or M/D/1. Units arrive at this system every 12 minutes on average. Service takes a constant 8 minutes. The average number in the system Ls is approximately a. 2.25 b. 2.5 c. 3.0 d. 1.33 e. 5.0/

answer

d. 1.33

question

57. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 2 and = 3. The average number in the system is a. 2/3 b. 1 c. 1.5 d. 2 e. 6

answer

d. 2

question

58. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 3 and = 2. The average number in the system is a. -3 b. 3 c. 0.667 d. 150 percent e. growing without limit, since is larger than .

answer

e. growing without limit, since is larger than .

question

59. Students arrive randomly at the help desk of the computer lab. There is only one service agent, and the time required for inquiry varies from student to student. Arrival rates have been found to follow the Poisson distribution, and the service times follow the negative exponential distribution. The average arrival rate is 12 students per hour, and the average service rate is 20 students per hour. What is the average service time for this problem? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 5 minutes e. 20 minutes

answer

c. 3 minutes

question

60. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 10 and = 12. The average number in the system is a. 0.83 b. 2 c. 2.5 d. 5 e. 6

answer

d. 5

question

61. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 2 and = 8. The average number in the system Ls is ______ and the utilization of the system is _______. a. 3; 100 percent b. 0.33; 25 percent c. 4; 33 percent d. 6; 25 percent e. 4; 25 percent

answer

b. 0.33; 25 percent

question

62. Four of the most widely used waiting line models—M/M/1 or A, M/M/S or B, M/D/1 or C, and Limited population or D—all share three characteristics, which are a. normal arrivals, FIFO discipline, and normal service times b. Poisson arrivals, FIFO discipline, and a single-service phase c. Poisson arrivals, FIFO discipline, and exponential service times d. Poisson arrivals, no queue discipline, and exponential service times e. none of these

answer

b. Poisson arrivals, FIFO discipline, and a single-service phase

question

63. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 2 and = 3. The average waiting time in the system is a. 2/3 b. 1 c. 1.5 d. 2 e. 6

answer

b. 1

question

64. Students arrive randomly at the help desk of the computer lab. There is only one service agent, and the time required for inquiry varies from student to student. Arrival rates have been found to follow the Poisson distribution, and the service times follow the negative exponential distribution. The average arrival rate is 12 students per hour, and the average service rate is 20 students per hour. What is the utilization factor? a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50% e. 60%

answer

e. 60%

question

65. A finite population waiting line model has an average service time T of 100 minutes and an average time between service requirements U of 400 minutes; the service factor X is a. 0.20 b. 0.25 c. 4 d. 5 e. 300 minutes

answer

a. 0.20

question

66. A finite population waiting line model has an average service time T of 200 minutes and an average time between service requirements U of 300 minutes; the service factor X is a. 0.20 b. 0.40 c. 0.60 d. 0.67 e. 2.5

answer

b. 0.40

question

67. Students arrive randomly at the help desk of the computer lab. There is only one service agent, and the time required for inquiry varies from student to student. Arrival rates have been found to follow the Poisson distribution, and the service times follow the negative exponential distribution. The average arrival rate is 12 students per hour, and the average service rate is 20 students per hour. A student has just entered the system. How long is she expected to stay in the system? a. 0.125 minute b. 0.9 minute c. 1.5 minutes d. 7.5 minutes e. 0.075 hour

answer

d. 7.5 minutes

question

68. Students arrive randomly at the help desk of the computer lab. There is only one service agent, and the time required for inquiry varies from student to student. Arrival rates have been found to follow the Poisson distribution, and the service times follow the negative exponential distribution. The average arrival rate is 12 students per hour, and the average service rate is 20 students per hour. How many students, on the average, will be waiting in line at any one time? a. 0.9 students b. 1.5 students c. 3 students d. 4 students e. 36 students

answer

a. 0.9 students

question

69. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/S has = 5, = 4, and M = 2. For these values, Po is approximately 0.23077 and Ls is approximately 2.05128. The average time a unit spends waiting in this system a. is approximately 0.1603 b. is approximately 0.2083 c. is approximately 0.4103 d. is approximately 0.8013 e. cannot be calculated because is larger than

answer

a. is approximately 0.1603

question

70. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/1 has = 1, = 4. For this system, Po is ______ and utilization is ________. a. 0.75; 0.25 b. 0.80; .20 c. -3; -4 d. 3; 4 e. none of these

answer

a. 0.75; 0.25

question

71. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/S has = 5, = 4, and M = 2. For these values, Po is approximately 0.23077 and Ls is approximately 2.05128. The average number of units waiting in the queue a. is approximately 0.1603 b. is approximately 0.4103 c. is approximately 0.8013 d. is approximately 1.0417 e. cannot be calculated because is larger than

answer

c. is approximately 0.8013

question

72. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/1 has = 1, = 4. For this system, the probability of more than two units in the system is approximately a. zero b. 0.015625 c. 0.0625 d. 0.25 e. 0.9375

answer

b. 0.015625

question

73. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/1 has = 1, = 4. For this system, the probability of fewer than two units in the system is approximately a. 0.0625 b. 0.25 c. 0.75 d. 0.9375 e. certain

answer

d. 0.9375

STUDY

Civil Law Distribution Drug Abuse Prevention Pharmacy Professions

Nevada State Pharmacy Law – Flashcards 115 terms

Jaxon Wilson

115 terms

Preview

Nevada State Pharmacy Law – Flashcards

question

The state board of pharmacy consists of how many members?

answer

question

The state board of pharmacy members are appointed by who?

answer

govenor

question

pharmacists on the state board must have at least how many years of experience

answer

question

members of the state board of pharmacy are appointed for what length of terms

answer

3 years

question

how many consecutive terms can a board member serve

answer

question

an applicant to become a registered pharmacist must pass the MPJE with what minimum score

answer

question

an applicant to become a registered pharmacist must complete at least how many intern hours

answer

1500

question

application for licensure is good for how long

answer

1 year

question

a temporary license in NV if granted is good for how long

answer

6 months

question

Every registered pharmacist, intern, and technician must give written notice to the executive secretary if they move within how long

answer

10 days

question

when does a pharmacist's certificate of registration expire

answer

October 31 of odd years

question

when do intern and technician certificates of registration expire

answer

October 31 of even years

question

T/F: If a pharmacist volutarily surrenders his license due to a disciplinary matter in another state, he can practice in NV

answer

question

If a technician applying for NV license is coming from a state that does not offer registration an applicant must accumulate _____ experience hours in that state, ____hours in this state, and ________.

answer

1500, 350, written statement of competency from the pharmacy manager

question

A tech in training has how long to accumulate the required hours

answer

24 months

question

Under direct supervision of a pharmacist a tech may/may not, enter information into the computer system including information in a new prescription

answer

may

question

Under direct supervision of a pharmacist a tech may/may not, compound prescriptions

answer

may

question

Under direct supervision of a pharmacist a tech may/may not, take a new prescription by telephone

answer

may not

question

the legal technician to supervisor ratio is

answer

3 to 1

question

which two persons are responsible for the technician in-service training

answer

pharmacy manager and owner

question

how many hours of law training does a tech require every two year

answer

question

how many total hours of in-service training should a tech receive every two years

answer

12 hours

question

In order for a pharmacist to supervise a forth tech in training he must have at least how much experience in his program, but less than how much experience in practical training

answer

9 months, 240 hours

question

T/F There are circumstances in which an intern can receive payment working at the same pharmacy in which he works to receive credit for internship from his college.

answer

question

T/F: An intern can perform most every task that a pharmacist can to include verification of entered prescriptions

answer

question

If a preceptor wishes to terminate an internship must do what

answer

provide written notice with specific reasons to the school

question

Two things that a school must provide an intern are

answer

a scope of duties, a form to evaluate his internship

question

Some PAs may prescribe CS and Rx, and others can do what in addition

answer

dispense

question

A PA must pass a law exam and also_______ before practicing

answer

be registered to a supervising physician

question

A PA must notify the board in writing if he changes the location of his practice or if he changes his supervising physician within how long

answer

10 days

question

The days supply that a PA has the authority to prescribe/dispense cannot exceed

answer

356 days

question

One limitation of a PA's power to prescribe is he may not be able to

answer

order on the chart of a hospital patient

question

T/F Pharmacists and Interns must follow a written protocol by a physician in order to administer immunizations

answer

question

What American Heart Association certification must a pharmacist maintain in order to give immunizations

answer

BCLS

question

The dead-line for immunization CE is on which date and how often

answer

October 31, annually

question

where must controlled substances of demised patients be kept in a skilled nursing facility until destruction

answer

secured in a locked compartment

question

The form provided by the DEA to document destruction of controlled substances is

answer

DEA 41

question

In a pharmacy controlled substances must be destroyed at least how often

answer

once a year

question

How often must a pharmacy in a correctional institution register with the DEA?

answer

biennially

question

IN addition to the managing pharmacist the registration form in a medical facility must also be signed by whom

answer

chief executive officer

question

A full time pharmacist is required in a hospital with _____ beds or more, or in a correctional institution with _____ inmates or more

answer

100, 1500

question

T/F a part time consultant pharmacist can met the legal requirement for a correctional institute with 1000 inmates

answer

question

T/F formal written contract is not necessary between a consultant pharmacist and a medical facility.

answer

question

what quantity of drug may be removed by practitioners if a pharmacy is closed in a medical facility

answer

sufficient quantities for immediate therapeutic needs

question

Can a licensed nurse remove drugs from a closed pharmacy in a correctional institution

answer

yes

question

If drugs are removed from a pharmacy while the pharmacy was closed in a medical facility a pharmacist must verify the withdrawal within what time frame for a hospital and a prison

answer

hospital = 72 hours, prison = 96 hours

question

If a facility employs a pharmacist consultant withdrawals must be verified within

answer

30 days

question

A pharmacy shall maintain which records (7)

answer

1. DEA 222, 2. supplier's invoice, 3. supplier's credit memos, 4. biennial inventory, 5. DEA 106, 6. DEA 41, 6. CV register log

question

A pharmacy wishing to use a centralized system for keeping records must submit _____ to DEA via ______ ______.

answer

written notification, certified mail

question

A pharmacy must wait how long after submitting for authorization for centralized system of record keeping

answer

14 days

question

at least how often must a immediate care/skilled nursing facility destroy outdated controlled substances

answer

once a month

question

T/F: Flushing controlled substances down the toilet is an acceptable method of destruction in a skilled nursing facility

answer

question

Who determines the quantity of each drug to be stocked in an immediate care facility

answer

pharmacy and therapeutics commmittee

question

Quantities of stocked drugs at an intermediate care facility must not exceed how much per drug

answer

20 units

question

An employed pharmacist of a surgical center must establish policies and procedures and must evaluate their effectiveness at least how often

answer

every month

question

A consultant pharmacist must submit a written report to the Board reporting a surgical center for what (2)

answer

1. not compliant with the law, 2. a discrepancy of 5% or greater in quantity of a CS

question

A doctor working in a hospital who calls a prescription into the pharmacy for entry on a chart must sign the order within how long

answer

48 hours

question

T/F even a special bulletin issued by the board must be maintained on premises of the pharmacy for 2 years

answer

question

The barrier separating the public section from the pharmacy section of a store must be how tall

answer

question

Under what circumstances may a repairman enter the prescription area

answer

pharmacist present at the same time

question

One exception to the requirement for pharmacies to maintain an alarm on its premises would be

answer

a 24 hour store

question

T/F Drugs purchased by a pharmacy may be drop shipped so long as thye are shipped to the pharmacy address registered with the board

answer

question

A person in charge of a pharmacy must notify the board withing how long after terminating a registered employee with written notice

answer

10 days

question

T/F: Law requires all pharmacy personnel to receive a meal break, but management can dictate when that break is taken

answer

question

T/F: Regardless to how many pharmacists are on duty he may either stay on the premises or leave for his meal period

answer

question

What can a pharmacy do to continue to receive prescriptions during a pharmacist's meal period (2)

answer

1. provide a secure receptacle, 2. provide an authorized receiving employee

question

Pharmacy management may require a pharmacist to stay on premises during meal periods, but not obligate them to work.

answer

question

T/F: A pharmacist's license includes the authority to prepare radioactive prescriptions

answer

question

T/F: A pharmacist may now administer influenza, shingles, and rabies vaccines to the public

answer

question

T/F: A pharmacy outside of Nevada providing patients with prescriptions inside of Nevada by mail order needing to make a substitution must follow provisions of Nevada law instead of the state in which the pharmacy is located

answer

question

The toll free required by state law to be provided with mail order prescriptions must be available no less than how many hours per week

answer

question

A laminar airflow hood must be certified every _____year(s), and records must be maintained every _____ year(s).

answer

1, 2

question

A pharmacy preparing ______ solutions must do so in a vertical laminar airflow hood according to NAC 639.78

answer

cytotoxic

question

A pharmacy furnishing ______ solutions must be available 24 hours a day.

answer

parenteral

question

A requirement for a practitioner to dispense is ____, and a requirement for the prescription is ______

answer

certification with the board/fee, written

question

T/F It is legal for a practitioner to investigate a patient who he suspects may abuse controlled substances

answer

question

T/F: A practitioner need not include the symptom on the prescription unless otherwise requested by the patient 89

answer

question

T/F: Controlled substances must never be given by electronic transmission/fax

answer

question

T/F prescriptions received by fax must contain the practitioner's signature or equivalent

answer

question

What is one piece of information not required by law to be on the prescription label, but is often present regardless.

answer

pharmacy phone number

question

Do not use with alcohol or nonprescribed drugs without consulting the prescribing practitioner is required by ______law, but not by _______ law. (fed/state)

answer

state, federal

question

If a doctor has a clerk call a prescription into a pharmacy and a technician takes the information, and the information was erroneous how many people are at fault?

answer

question

If a doctor sends a prescription for Lortab refill PRN, how many times can it legally be refilled?

answer

question

A controlled substance prescription cannot be refilled after how long

answer

6 months

question

A Rx for a dangerous drug will not be re-fillable after how long

answer

1 year

question

A pharmacist can furnish a sufficient supply of a controlled substance for a sufficient time for a pt. to communicate with his doctor if (2)

answer

1. cannot contact the physician, 2. treating a chronic illness is deemed necessary

question

T/F: A prescription may be rescinded by a pharmacist even after authorization is given, even if the prescription was given orally, and even if it is rescinded by a doctor other than the original prescriber who is acting in his behalf.

answer

question

What two things must a copy of a prescription have besides all the information appearing on the original prescription

answer

1. "Copy, not refillable -- for reference purposes only", 2. name/initial of pharmacist

question

For how many months must a pharmacy maintain a prescription on file

answer

question

If a practitioner has prescribed a drug by brand name, but did not specifically specify that substitutions weren't allowed, and a cheaper version of a bioequivalent generic of the same strength is available what should a pharmacist do

answer

give generic

question

What is required by law for a pharmacist to do to the patient before substituting a generic, but hardly ever done

answer

advise of intent to substitute/advise of right to refuse

question

A patient may not request brand name over generic if

answer

paid by a governmental agency

question

Are all of the following proper methods for a physician to request a brand name over a generic: oral communication to the pharmacist, handwriting "dispense as written" on the RX, and same verbiage on an electronic Rx

answer

yes

question

Generic drug prescriptions do not apply to (4)

answer

1. hospital inpatients, 2. mail order, 3. violation of health care plan 4. ineligible for 3rd party reinbursement

question

Can only pharmacists or pharmacists and interns do all of the following: take new orders, interpret Rx, interpret patient's charts, consult with a prescribing doctor.

answer

pharmacists and interns

question

T/F: A pharmacist need not counsel nor provide written form of required counseling information if the drug is to be delivered to a licensed medical facility to be administered by an RN

answer

question

T/F: All new prescriptions are required by law to be accompanied by counseling even if unwanted by the patient

answer

question

T/F: A prescribed medication can be legally delivered directly to a patient, staff of the medical facility, or dropped off with a person at the patient's residence

answer

question

T/F: A friend, neighbor or relative may not be compensated for picking up the prescription from a pharmacy on behalf of someone else.

answer

question

T/F: If a computer system is approved by the board and the practitioner transmits the prescription to the pharmacy the pt. chooses he may use it to transmit all his controlled substances

answer

question

A prescription for a CII drug may not be sent via fax unless (3)

answer

1. direct IV/SQ/IM administration, 2. LTCF, 3. hospice

question

How many times can an CIII-CV be transferred

answer

question

T/F: The state pharmacy board must be involved in the "going out of business" sell of a pharmacy.

answer

question

T/F: If a CII has remaining refills it may be transferred once

answer

question

Pharmacies receiving a transfered RX must write the word ____ on the face of the Rx, while the sending pharmacist must write the word ____ on the face of the Rx

answer

transfer, void

question

T/F: Under certain circumstances such as outstanding bills, a pharmacy can refuse tranfer out of Rxs until paid

answer

question

After a disaster/damage what must happpen before a pharmacy can be cleaned up

answer

board inspection

question

A doctor in charge of what two facilities can dispense amount adequate to treat patients when a pharmacy is closed

answer

1. emergency room, 2. surgical center

question

T/F If a prescription is written by a doctor in another state, and the pt. lives in a seperate state than the doctor, and it is requested to be dispensed in a manner other than directly to the pt. and to be paid for in cash a pharmacist should refuse to fill it

answer

question

T/F:All of the following are reasons that a pharmacist may decline to fill a prescription: unlawful, harmful, fraudulent, against his religious beliefs, not a legitimate medical purpose

answer

question

T/F: A pharmacist who declines to fill a Rx may either return the RX to the pt. or retain it at his discretion

answer

question

T/F: Part of what compounding pharmacies do is to compound drugs that are no longer available due to being removed from the market

answer

question

A compounding pharmacy can only sell compounded drugs to practitioners who will be administering the drug

answer

question

Are advanced practitioners of Nursing allowed to prescribe under collaborating physician even if the Rx is for a 365 day supply

answer

yes

question

Advanced practitioners of nursing may not prescribe controlled substances to exceed how many day's supply

answer

STUDY

Cancer Distribution External Beam Radiation Imaging Sub Saharan Africa Volume

Cervical Cancer: Brachytherapy Techniques – Flashcards 58 terms

Stephen Sanchez

58 terms

Preview

Cervical Cancer: Brachytherapy Techniques – Flashcards

question

Most common applicator for intracavitary brachy

answer

Fletcher-Suit intrauterine tandem and ovoids or tandem and ring

question

Proper position of flange

answer

Flush against cervical surface

question

Proper position of tandem

answer

Should bisect angle of colpostats,unrotated,midline

question

Proper position of colpostats

answer

Hi in fornices along cervix

question

Flange position represents

answer

Cervical os

question

Where are marker seeds placed

answer

1cm above position of flange

question

What positions are marker seeds

answer

2, 5, 8, 11 o'clock positions or just one for depth

question

What holds positions of tandem of ovoids

answer

Proper packing

question

Improper packing does what

answer

Increases doses to rectum/bladder but rectal shield part of nucleotron applicator may reduce the need for packing

question

Insertion techniques for intracavitary applicators

answer

US and fluoroscopic guidance

question

Advantage of Smit sleeve

answer

May facilitate applicator placement;+risk of perf

question

Point A

answer

2cm cephalad from cerv os, 2 cm lat to uterine canal We prescribe to this point

question

What does point A represent

answer

Med parametrium/lat cervix (ureter/uterine art cross)

question

Point B

answer

5 cm lat to center of pelvis at same level as point A

question

What does point B represent

answer

Obturator nodes/lat parametrium

question

Point B receives what% of Point A dose

answer

1/3 to 1/4

question

What does point C represent

answer

Pelvic sidewall dose

question

Point C receives what% of Point A dose

answer

1/5

question

Point P

answer

most lateral point of bony pelvic sidewall

question

What does point P represent

answer

Minimal dose to ext iliac nodes

question

Point H

answer

2 cm above ovoid level, 2 cm lat line bisecting ovoids

question

Significance of point H

answer

recommended rx point by ABS

question

Bladder point

answer

post surface foley on lat film/middle of foley on AP

question

Rectal point

answer

5mm behind vag [email protected] intrauterin tandem source

question

Vaginal point

answer

lat edge of ovoid on AP/mid-ovoid on lat

question

Historically point A used for

answer

Tolerance dose

question

Now point A is used for

answer

Prescription point

question

Dose for stage IB-IIA cervical CA

answer

80-85 Gy to point A (85 Gy more accepted) We use 7Gy x 4 after 45Gy/25fx but can use 6Gy x 5fx

question

Dose for more advanced stage disease

answer

85-95 Gy to point A (assuming EBRT to 50.4/28fx)

question

Problem w/ prescribing to point A

answer

empirical point (does not reflect tumor dose)

question

ICRU recommendation instead of rx to point A

answer

determine tissue volume in 60 Gy isodose sur

question

American working group developed system

answer

Prescribe to 3 separate CTVs

question

High risk CTV

answer

GTV prior to xrt + entire cervix (80-90 Gy)

question

Intermediate risk CTV

answer

Hi risk CTV + 0.5-1.5 cm margin (60 Gy)

question

Low risk CTV

answer

Tumor volume covered by ext beam

question

Onset of brachytherapy at what time point

answer

No later than week 6 Can be given during EBRT, but avoid chemo day

question

Total duration of xrt should be no more than

answer

<8 wks, as there is benefit to shortening the treatment interval - local control and survival is affected by 1% a day, (Perez, IJRBOP, 1995; Girinsky, IJROBP 1993) from RTOG 90-01

question

Tandem/ring has what dose distribution

answer

Narrow dose distribution, cover ant/post lip of cvx

question

Tandem/ovoid has what dose distribution

answer

Pear shaped, covers upper vagina

question

Tandem/cylinder has what dose distribution

answer

Narrow distribution, tx entire vagina, <5mm

question

Interstitial implant has what dose distribution

answer

Covers distal vagina >5mm

question

Mini-ovoids

answer

Unshielded This applicator was designed for the patient with a narrow vault. The medial area of the ovoid is flattened to accommodate a very small anatomy.

question

Advantage of tandem/ring

answer

Reproducible geometry; easy to insert

question

When is tandem/ring used

answer

When vaginal fornices absent/asymmetric

question

When is interstitial implant used

answer

Vag narrowing, absent fornices, vag extension

question

When is tandem/cylinder used

answer

Need interstitial implant but not available

question

Disadvantage of tandem/cylinder

answer

Lower parametrial doses,higher bladder/rectal doses

question

For deep or thick vaginal involvement consider this brachy tehcnique

answer

Interstitial

question

What kind of gauze should be used for cervical cancer brachy packing

answer

Triple-sulfate soaked gauze for LDR and KJ-Jelly for HDR

question

What should the brachy implant look like during anterior plain film evaluation:

answer

ant film: tandem bisects ovoids and tandem not rotated; phlange close to cervical marker seeds: ovoids high in fornices <1cm from marker seeds with 0.5-1cm spacing between them.

question

What should the brachy implant look like during lateral plain film evaluation:

answer

tandem bisects ovoids and is midway between sacrum and bladder, at least 3 cm from asacral promontory;, sufficient andterior and posterior packing, foley balloon firmly pulled down.

question

Dose constraint for HDR to bladder and rectum?

answer

<70% of point A dose

question

Dose constrain for LDR to bladder and rectum?

answer

limit rectal point to <70Gy and bladder point to <75Gy

question

What are the constraints for the vagina for brachy?

answer

Upper vaginal mucosa <120Gy Midvaginal mucosa <80-90G Lower vaginal mucosa <60-70Gy

question

What dose can cause fibrosis and stenosis of the vaginal canal?

answer

50+ Gy

question

What dose should the uterus be limited to ?

answer

<100Gy

question

What dose should the ureters be limited to?

answer

<75Gy

question

What dose should the femoral heads be limited to?

answer

<50Gy

STUDY

AP Microeconomics Distribution Earned Income Tax Credit Principles Of Economics: Macroeconomics Principles Of Economics: Microeconomics United States

Econ chapter 21 – Flashcards with Answers 20 terms

Elizabeth Hill

20 terms

Preview

Econ chapter 21 – Flashcards with Answers

question

In 2011, the average income for households in the United States was about:

answer

$69,821.

question

The lowest quintile of households in the income distribution receives about:

answer

3.2 percent of the total income.

question

Census data indicate that, as of 2011, the top fifth of all households receive about ________ times as much income as the bottom fifth.

answer

sixteen

question

Income mobility:

answer

is the movement of individuals and households from one income quintile to another over time.

question

Standard Census data on the distribution of income:

answer

are before taxes in that they do not account for personal income and payroll taxes.

question

Which of the following is correct?

answer

Income is a flow and wealth is a stock concept.

question

Since 1980 the difference between the earnings of college graduates and high school graduates has:

answer

increased, thereby increasing income inequality.

question

Which of the following demographic groups does not bear a disproportionate burden of poverty?

answer

Persons 65 or over.

question

The poverty rate for African Americans is:

answer

greater than for any other racial or ethnic group.

question

Which of the following is not a social insurance program?

answer

TANF (Temporary Assistance for Needy Families).

question

Social Security is financed:

answer

by payroll taxes on employees and employers.

question

Medicaid:

answer

helps finance medical expenses for those participating in the TANF and Supplemental Security Income programs.

question

Which of the following provides public assistance to those who are blind and otherwise disabled?

answer

Supplemental Security Income (SSI).

question

The earned-income tax credit:

answer

provides a cash payment to low-income working families if their tax credit exceeds their tax liability.

question

The TANF program:

answer

limits total lifetime welfare benefits to 5 years and requires able-bodied adults to work after receiving benefits for 2 years.

question

By December 2009, the recession that began in December 2007:

answer

raised the number of TANF recipients from 3.9 million to about 4.4 million.

question

For an employer biased against African Americans, the discrimination coefficient d:

answer

measures the amount an employer is willing to pay to hire a white over hiring an African-American worker.

question

The crowding model of discrimination suggests that:

answer

women and selected minorities are systematically excluded from high-paying occupations and crowded into low-paying occupations, decreasing their wages and reducing domestic output.

question

(Consider This) According to The Economist magazine, growing income inequality is less of a concern because:

answer

the poor have increasingly better access to goods and services once only available to the rich.

question

(Last Word) In 2010, the wealthiest 1 percent of U.S. households held about ____ percent of U.S. household wealth.

answer

35.

STUDY

Distribution Marketing Principles Of Marketing

Vertical Marketing Systems – Flashcards 14 terms

Clarence Louder

14 terms

Preview

Vertical Marketing Systems – Flashcards

question

Vertical marketing systems

answer

planned channel system designed to improve distribution efficiency and cost-effectiveness by integrating various functions throughout the distribution chain

question

forward integration

answer

process through which a firm attempts to control downstream integration

question

backward integration

answer

process through which a manufacturer attempts to gain greater control over inputs in its production process, such as raw materials

question

corporate marketing systems

answer

VMS in which a single owner operates the entire marketing channel

question

administered marketing system

answer

VMS that achieves channel coordination when a dominant channel member exercises his power

question

contractual marketing system

answer

VMS that coordinates channel activities through formal agreements among participants

question

retail cooperative

answer

group of retailers that establisha shared wholesaling operation to help them compete with chains

question

franchise

answer

contractual agreement in which a wholesaler or retailer agrees to meet the operating requirements of a manufacturer or other franchiser

question

supply chain

answer

control of the activities of purchasing, processing, delivery through which raw materials are transformed into products and made available to final customers

question

upstream management

answer

controlling part of the supply chain that involves raw materials, inbound logistics, and warehouse and storage facilities

question

downstream management

answer

controlling part of the supply chain that involves finished product storage, outbound logistics, marketing and sales, and customer service

question

Radio frequency identification

answer

technology that uses a tiny chip with identification information that can be read by a scanner using radio waves from a distance

question

enterprise resource planning system

answer

software system that consolidates data from among a firm's various business units

question

third-party (contract) logistics firms

answer

company that specializes in handling logistics activities for other firms

STUDY

Business Management Distribution Internet Locations Marketing Product Design Qualitative Research Method

MKT 327 Exam 3 – Questions – Flashcards 62 terms

Patricia Harrah

62 terms

Preview

MKT 327 Exam 3 – Questions – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is not one of the basic product decisions?

answer

Brand Awarness

question

Brand equity steps are: (1) __________ and an association with a product class or need in consumers; minds to create an identity; (2) establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers; (3) eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning; and (4) creating an intense, active, and loyal consumer-brand connection.

answer

Developing positive brand awareness

question

You are responsible for the product decision in your company. Your market analyst hae determined that the market will most respond to greater time and place utility (value). Which of the following product decisions would you focus on in order to impact these aspects of value?

answer

Customer Service

question

Which of the following product decisions has product differentiation as its purpose in part or in whole?

answer

Branding

question

Which of the following actions or objectives would be appropriate for your product in the maturity stage of the product life cycle?

answer

Consolidate value chain to maximize outlets

question

A brand name refers to _________.

answer

Any word, device (design, sound, shape, or color) or combination of these used to distinguish a seller's products or services.

question

The four steps in the sequential process of building the brand equity pyramid include: (1) developing positive brand awareness; (2) establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers; (3) eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning; and (4) ________.

answer

Creating a consumer-brand connection

question

A good brand name should: (1) __________; (2) be memorable, distinctive, and positive; (3) fit the company or product image; (4) have no legal or regulatory restrictions; (5) be simple and emotion; and (6) have favorable phonetic and semantic associations in other languages.

answer

Suggest the product benefits

question

Black & Decker uses a __________ strategy to reach the do-it-yourself market with the Black & Decker brand name and the professional construction market with the DeWalt brand name.

answer

Multibranding

question

Four key challenges that package and label designers face include: (1) ________; (2) environmental concerns; (3) health, safety, and security issues; and (4) cost reduction.

answer

Connecting with customers

question

The ________ element of the marketing mix consists of communication tools, including advertising, personal selling, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing.

answer

Promotion

question

In a marketing context, the acronym IMC refers to _______.

answer

Integrated marketing communictations

question

After watching a 30-second commerial from Jared for fine jewelry, Mariah was certain the necklace she saw would look spectacular with her new formal dress. In terms of the communication process, Mariah engaged in the task of ______>

answer

Decoding

question

To communicate with consumers, a company can use one or more of five promotion alternatives. List all five promotion alternatives

answer

(1) Advertising; (2) Personal Selling; (3) Public Relations; (4) Sales Promotion; (5) Direct Marketing

question

Advertising, sales promotion, and public relations are often said to use ______ because they are used with groups of prospective buyers

answer

mass selling

question

A paid form of nonpersonal communication about an organization, product, service, or ideas by an identified sponsor is referred to as ________

answer

advertising

question

A short-term inducement of value offered to arouse interest in buying a product or service is referred to as ______

answer

sales promotion

question

The ________ includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing.

answer

promotional mix

question

Integrated marketing communications is the concept of designing marketing communications programs that coordinate all promotional activities - advertising, personal selling, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing - to provide _________

answer

a consistent message across all audiences

question

Allegra is an antihistamine. To create brand awareness, the company is offering people who request information about the product a seat cushion to use at their favorite sporting event. Its television ad shows a woman half-heartedly watching a sporting event. The voiceover asks if she is bored or congested. In the next scene, the person is having a great time and is decongested after taking Allegra. This use of the same promotional theme throughout a company's marketing campaign is an example of how marketers use _______

answer

integrated marketing communications (IMC)

question

To accomplish a successful repositioning of the brand, Taco Bell needed to inform its consumers that Taco Bell food should be thought of as an experience rather than as just fuel. in the communication process, Taco Bell would be the _______ and the consumer would be the _______.

answer

source; receiver

question

During the creative process, Taco Bell considered a number of different slogans, finally setting on Live Mas! The Live Mas! campaign reinforces Taco Bell's position as a dynamic brand whose customers enjoy experiencing the world and trying things first. Live Mas! is Taco Bell's ______ in the communication process

answer

message

question

When communicating with its target audience, Taco Bell considered each of its _______ including social media channels, packaging, point of purchase displays, and advertising. These places of contact between a firm and its customers are critical elements for building an integrated marketing communication plan.

answer

touch points

question

As part of its integrated marketing communication strategy, Taco Bell utilized commercials aired during the Super Bowl. This form of _____ has an extremely large reach and hefty price tag.

answer

advertising

question

To give consumers an incentive to try its new Doritos Locos Taco, Taco Bell gave out free samples of the new tacos to its customers. The free Doritos Locos tacos giveaway is an example of ______

answer

sales promotion

question

Taco Bell allocates its promotional budget to 70% traditional media, which includes television advertising; 20% to digital media, which includes website development; and 10% to new media channels. The fact that the message consumers receive is the same regardless of which channel delivers it reflects Taco Bell's dedication to ________.

answer

integrated marketing communications

question

Twitter, Facebook, Vine, Instagram, and Snapchat were all utilized to engage customers during the Doritos Locos Tacos introduction as part of the ______ element of the campaign.

answer

social media

question

Advertising refers to

answer

any paid form of nonpersonal communication about an organizatoin, product, service, or ideas by an identified sponsor

question

Product advertisements refer to advertisements that focus on

answer

selling a product or service

question

The three primary types of product advertisements are ______

answer

pioneering, competitive, and reminder

question

A pioneering (or informational) ad

answer

tells people what a product is, what it can do, and where it can be found

question

Which of the following elements of the communication (or promotional mix) has as its purpose within the mix the creation of a sense of urgency?

answer

sales promotion

question

The primary purpose of a competitive advertisement is to

answer

promote a specific brand's features and benefits

question

The objective of a(n) ______ is to inform a newspaper, radio station, or other medium of an idea for a story.

answer

news release

question

An advantage of online advertising such as offered through Google is that it is _______, which allows it to immediately assess its ________.

answer

measurable; effectiveness

question

Which of the following is an advantage of advertising?

answer

cost per contact

question

Advertisers want to have an understanding about the number of different people or households exposed to their advertisement. In other words, they want to know about the ad's ______

answer

reach

question

The idea of getting the right ad, at the right time, for the right user, in the moment when he or she is most interested in that topic is the key to the success of

answer

search advertising

question

As advertisers manage their interactive marketing communications (IMC) programs, they can compare the effectiveness of the various types of advertising available by calculating ______ which refers to the cost of reaching 1,000 individuals or households with the advertising message in a given medium.

answer

cost per thousand

question

Google AdWords functions much like direct response marketing because AdWords asks that customers take action by clicking on an advertisement. This response is similar to that required with ________>

answer

infomercials

question

Online advertising has the unique feature of being interactive; the use of drop-down menus, built in games, or search engines that engage viewers are excellent examples of _______

answer

rich media

question

What are the advantages of using television for advertising?

answer

It can help advertisers target a specific audience, reaches extremely large audience, uses picture, print, sound, and motion for effect.

question

What are the disadvantage of using newspapers as a medium for advertising?

answer

Short life span and poor color.

question

What is a disadvantage of outdoor advertising?

answer

No opportunity exists for lengthy advertising copy.

question

_______ are a sales promotion tool used to encourage and reward repeat purchases by acknowledging each purchase made by a consumer and offering a premium as purchases accumulate.

answer

Loyalty programs

question

______ are sales promotions that require participants to submit some kind of entry but are purely games of chance requiring no analytical or creative effort by the consumer.

answer

sweepstakes

question

______ are best defined as advertising programs by which a manufacturer pays a percentage of the retailer's local advertising expense for advertising the manufacturer's products.

answer

Cooperative advertising

question

List the 8 reasons for the failure of a new product.

answer

(1) insignificant points of difference; (2) incomplete market and product protocol before product development starts; (3) a failure to satisfy customer needs on critical factors; (4) bad timing; (5) no economical access to buyers; (6) poor product quality; (7) poor execution of the marketing mix; (8) too little market attractiveness

question

What are the two key organizational reasons for failure of a new product?

answer

(1) encountering groupthink in task and committee meetings; (2) avoiding the "NIH problem."

question

Ideally, a new product or service needs a precise protocol that identifies:

answer

(1) a well-defined target market; (2) specific customers' needs, wants, and preferences; (3) what the product will be and do to satisfy consumers

question

The ______ measure ties to the number of times an ad loads and a user might see it, but now whether the user has actually reacted to it.

answer

Cost-per-thousand

question

What does the cost-per-action measure tie loosely and most closely?

answer

Loosely: to actual sales Most Closely: the cost of a social media ad to the sales revenues the ad generates.

question

When traditional media are used in advertising communications,

answer

communications generally end with the receiver

question

What is the goal of social media?

answer

To reach active receivers, those who will become evangelists, who will send messages to their online friends and then back to the advertiser about the joys of using the brand.

question

In the context of social media, evangelists are those who

answer

send messages to friends and advertisers about the joys of using a brand

question

In classifying social media, the degree to which a person's thoughts, feelings, likes, and dislikes are made public is referred to as

answer

self-disclosure

question

What is an accurate statement of traditional and social media?

answer

It is hard to discern the expertise and credibility of many creators of social media sites (Social media sites are created by both novices and experts whereas traditional media are created by established experts.

question

Social networks are

answer

specific social media like Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn, and YouTube

question

In classifying social media, the degree of acoustic visual, and personal contact between two communication partners is referred to as ______ whereas the degree to which a person's thoughts, feelings, likes, and dislikes are made public is referred to as __________.

answer

media richness; self-disclosure

question

The three guidelines of marketing and promoting a brand using YouTube include: (1) exploit visual aspects of your message, perhaps sacrificing product messages to tell a more entertaining story; (2) create a branded channel rich in key words to improve the odds of the video showing up in user searches; and (3) ________

answer

target viewers by using YouTube's insights and analytics research to reveal the number of views, where they originate within YouTube, and what key words are driving user visits.

question

Where is UGC published?

answer

UGC is published on a publicly accessible website or a social networking site; it is not simply email.

question

Whereas traditional media build credibility through experts being influencers in a particular field, with social media a sender often simply beings to participate in the _______, hoping that the quality of the message will establish credibility with the receivers.

answer

Conversation

STUDY

Distribution Marketing Principles Of Marketing

MKG 300 Exam 3- Chapter 11 – Flashcards 26 terms

Lucas Davies

26 terms

Preview

MKG 300 Exam 3- Chapter 11 – Flashcards

question

When planning physical distribution, the marketing manager should: A) Set the customer service level so that every customer can get the product exactly when he wants it B) Minimize the cost of distribution for a given customer service level C) Minimize the cost of transportation D) Maximize the speed of delivery E) Make use of a distribution center

answer

B) Minimize the cost of distribution for a given customer service level

question

The ______________ concept says that all transporting, storing, and product-handling activities of a business and a channel system should be thought of as part of one system which should seek to minimize the cost of distribution for a given customer service level. A) PERT B) Product-market C) Distribution center D) Physical distribution E) Marketing

answer

D) Physical distribution

question

Which of the following statements best reflects a marketing-oriented approach to physical distribution? A) "We should create a position of inventory manager and give that person authority to coordinate all physical distribution activities to minimize the firm's total inventory costs" B) "We should aim to keep our customers fully satisfied 100% of the time as this will increase our sales and give us a competitive advantage" C) "We should replace our warehouses with distribution centers to speed the flow of products and eliminate all storage" D) "We should choose the physical distribution alternative that will minimize the total cost of achieving the level of customer service our target market requires" E) All are equally "marketing-oriented"

answer

D) "We should choose the physical distribution alternative that will minimize the total cost of achieving the level of customer service our target market requires

question

Physical distribution decisions interact with which other marketing mix decisions? A) Price decisions B) Promotion decisions C) Product decisions D) All of the above E) None of the above

answer

D) All of the above

question

A supply chain: A) Is part of a broader network of relationships called a channel of distribution B) Is most effective when the objectives of the manufacturer at the beginning of the chain guide the activities of all other firms in the chain C) Requires skill in coordinating activities among different firms, and this has prompted many firms to seek help from outside experts D) Focuses on procuring materials needed for production, so its main weakness is that it ignores customer needs E) Concerns only direct relationships between producers, but a channel of distribution may involve intermediaries

answer

C) Requires skill in coordinating activities among different firms, and this has prompted many firms to seek help from outside experts

question

Electronic data interchange: A) Puts information in standardized format B) Makes inventory formation more accessible C) Is common in both domestic and international markets D) All of the above E) Both A and B

answer

D) All of the above

question

Which of the following statements about the transporting function is true? A) Among transportation modes, an advantage of air transport is its ability to handle a variety of goods B) Because transportation costs are less than 1% of costs for most products, marketing managers do not need to consider them when making strategy decisions C) Pipelines are generally one of the fastest modes of transportation D) In most countries, government plays little role in transportation E) Transporting costs can be a large part of total cost for heavy products that are low in value

answer

E) Transporting costs can be a large part of the total cost for heavy products that are low in value

question

Which of the following products would have the lowest transporting costs as a percentage of the selling price? A) Electronic equipment B) Chemicals and plastics C) Pharmaceuticals D) Sand and gravel E) Manufactured food

answer

C) Pharmaceuticals

question

More freight is carried more miles _______ than any other mode of transportation. A) By railroads B) By air C) By pipeline D) By trucks E) Over water

answer

A) By railroads

question

All of the following are advantages of using trucks except: A) Flexibility B) Fast delivery speed C) Reliability in meeting delivery schedules D) Handling a variety of goods E) Serving a limited number of locations

answer

E) Serving a limited number of locations

question

At least ______ percent of all freight shipped in the United States moves by trucks-- at least part of the way-- from producer to user. A) 20% B) 75% C) 15% D) 5% E) 10%

answer

B) 75%

question

Which of the following transportation modes is "best" at handling a variety of goods? A) Truck B) Rail C) Water D) Air E) Pipeline

answer

C) Water

question

______ as a mode of transport serves a very limited number of locations but has high dependability in meeting schedules. A) Trucks B) Railroads C) Waterways D) Airfreight E) Pipelines

answer

E) Pipelines

question

Regarding airfreight, which of the following statements is not true? A) Airfreight may reduce the total cost of distribution B) Inventory costs usually increase, since only small quantities can be shipped at a time C) Very bulky items cannot be shipped economically D) Airfreight is opening up new markets for many perishable items E) There are usually fewer problems from theft and damage with airfreight

answer

B) Inventory costs usually increase, since only small quantities can be shipped at a time

question

Inventory refers to: A) The amount of goods being stored B) Minimizing storage costs C) The amount of goods being sold D) The marketing function of holding goods E) The quality of goods being stored

answer

A) The amount of goods being stored

question

Storing: A) Is related to Place-- but has not effect on price. B) Is necessary because production does not always match consumption C) Must be performed by all members of a channel system D) Decrease the value of products E) All of the above are true statements

answer

B) Is necessary because production does not always match consumption

question

Which of the following statements in not true? A) Storing is a marketing function B) Storing allows producers and intermediaries to keep stocks at convenient locations C) Storing allows the producer to achieve economies of scale in production D) Storing is necessary when production of goods doesn't match consumption E) Storing can increase the value of goods, but does not involve costs

answer

E) Storing can increase the value of goods, but does not involve costs

question

Distribution centers: A) Are designed to facilitate the flow of products through the channel B) Are the same as public warehouses C) Are not places where regrouping activities-- such as bulk-breaking-- are performed. D) Increase storing costs E) All of the above

answer

A) Are designed to facilitate the flow of products through the channel

question

Each of the following would be most likely to help a company to increase its physical distribution service levels except: A) Increasing the availability of online status information B) Increasing accuracy in filing customer orders C) Increasing the time allocated to enter and process orders D) Decreasing the amount of damage in shipping, handling, and storage E) Decreasing the time needed to deliver product orders

answer

C) Increasing the time allocated to enter and process orders

question

A trucking company would be least likely to use global positioning data to determine which of the following? A) The exact locations of fueling stations on a route B) The frequency of rest stops on a particular route C) The names of routes that minimize fuel consumption D) The identification of route that maximize service E) The content of driver communications with customers

answer

E) The content of driver communications with customers

question

A floral delivery company uses JIT delivery systems throughout its entire distribution channel. Which of the following is most likely to be experienced by the company as a result? A) Increased product marketing costs B) Increased costs of handling floral products C) Decreased need for physical distribution (PD) coordination D) Reduced costs of storing floral inventory E) Reduced need for physical distribution (PD) quality control

answer

D) Reduced costs of storing floral inventory

question

A manufacturer having irregular need for regional storage of bicycles should use which one of the following? A) A private warehouse to be sure of adequate space B) Public warehouses to provide flexibility and low unit cost C) A distribution center D) Direct distribution E) Railroads, because they are slow and the bicycles are being stored while they're on the train

answer

B) Public warehouses to provide flexibility and low unit cost

question

The physical distribution customer service level is important because: A) It is a measure of how rapidly and dependably a firm delivers what its customers want B) It may result in lost sales if it is too low C) It may result in high costs (and thus lower profits) if it is too high D) All of these alternatives are correct

answer

D) All of these alternatives are correct

question

Berry Bros wants to ship a somewhat bulky, high-valued commodity a short-distance-- and it is seeking low-cost and extremely fast service. Berry should use: A) Airfreight B) Railroads C) Inland waterways D) Trucks E) None of these is a good answer

answer

D) Trucks

question

According to the "physical distribution concept": A) Transporting, storing, and product-handling are independent activities B) All transporting, sorting, and product-handling activities of a business and a whole channel system should be coordinated as part of one system C) Inventories should be based on production requirements D) The production department should be responsible for warehousing and shipping E) The lowest-cost distribution system is the best alternative

answer

B) All transporting, sorting, and product-handling activities of a business and a whole channel system should be coordinated as part of one system

question

Transporting costs: A) Are usually more than the value added by shipping, but the products are shipped anyway as there is no choice B) Do no vary much as a percentage of the final price of products, since big items are shipped by inexpensive means and small items are shipped by more expensive approaches C) Usually do not add much to the final cost of products which are already valuable relative to their size and weight D) Usually are not large enough to limit the target market that marketing manager can serve E) None of these alternatives is correct

answer

C) Usually do not add much to the final cost of products which are already valuable relative to their size and weight

STUDY

Distribution Entertainment Full Line Discount Health And Beauty Aids Marketing

AGB – Flashcard 92 terms

Ember Wagner

92 terms

Preview

AGB – Flashcard

question

Supermarkets are self serve retailers that specialize in food and some non food products

answer

TRUE

question

A merchant wholesaler is an institution that buys goods from manufacturers and resells them to businesses, gov agencies and other wholesalers or retailers

answer

TRUE

question

As products move through the marketing channel, channel members provide specialization and division of labor, overcome discrepancies and provide contact efficiency

answer

TRUE

question

Retailing can be defined as all activities directly related to the sale of goods and services to the ultimate consumer for personal, nonbusiness use

answer

TRUE

question

The six Ps of retailing are product, place, price, promotion, personnel, planning

answer

FALSE---> PRESENTATION

question

A marketer using a profit maximization strategy will charge the highest prices the market will bear

answer

FALSE (increase customer satisfaction and cut operation costs)

question

The direct channel is used more often in consumer markets than in business-to-business markets

answer

TRUE

question

Price should not be used as a promotional tool

answer

FALSE? CH 15/18

question

The logistical functions performed by intermediaries include physically distributing, storing, sorting and financing

answer

TRUE

question

Many businesses find recessions to be an excellent time to build market share through use of price shading

answer

FALSE pg 327

question

Jones soda is positioned as the anti coke. In the earlier years, few mainstream retailers sold Jones soda. Fans had to get Jones in surf shops, tattoo parlors, bookstores, adding to the brands mystique. Jones soda used its ***** to create competitive advantage.

answer

?????

question

_____are large departmentalized self service retailers that specialize in wide assortments of food and non food items

answer

SUPERMARKETS

question

Price is best described as that

answer

which is given up in exchange to acquire a good or service

question

_____is defined as all activities directly related to the sale of goods and services to the ultimate consumer for personal and non business use or consumption.

answer

RETAILING

question

Why are marketing managers finding it more difficult to set prices in today's environment?

answer

The high rate of new product introductions has led to careful reevaluation by customers?

question

An organization is using ______ when it sets prices so that the total revenue is as large as possible relative to total cost.

answer

PROFIT MAXIMIZATION

question

Kraft Foods produces millions of packages of Chips Ahoy cookies each year, but consumers only want to purchase one package at a time. The difference between what Kraft produces and what consumers want to buy is _____

answer

DISCREPANCY OF QUANTITY

question

Two effective pricing tactics that can be used during a recession to build or hold market share are ____

answer

Value based pricing and bundling or unbundling. (pg 32)

question

A 16oz bottle of Prairie Herb vinegar sells for 4.95, and a 16oz bottle of Heinz vinegar sells for 1.05. PH vinegar is new to the market and perceived to be of higher quality and provides a unique flavor to foods used the same way as Heinz. PH vinegar is most likely using a _____

answer

a price skimming policy

question

As a short term pricing objective, ______ can be effectively used on a temporary basis to sell off excessive inventory

answer

sales maximization

question

TOMA

answer

Top Of Mind Awareness reached by being a well-known brand

question

ELP

answer

Every Day Low Prices on any given/average basket *Prices always change because they want the lowest price *More variety = higher prices *Bulk = cheaper

question

VPL

answer

value price marketing deep cuts on few items overall increase $

question

Reach

answer

Number of target consumers exposed to advertisement

question

Frequency

answer

Number of times an individual is exposed to an advertisement (more important than reach)

question

Pull Strategy

answer

Stimulates consumer demand with promotional efforts on the end of the consumer (communicate directly to consumer & "pull" through channel)

question

Push Strategy

answer

Selling to the wholesaler or retailer to carry the product "push" through the channel

question

Facing

answer

Creates the look of a perfectly stocked store

question

Impulse Buy

answer

Unplanned decision made just before the purchase

question

Shelf Talker

answer

Printed card or sign to call the buyers attention

question

Create an outline that compares strengths and weaknesses of radio, TV, Print, and Billboard advertising. Determine the combination of a $100,000 ad budget FL should spend on the product promotion. How could you use PR in this promotion?

answer

???

question

3 examples why food marketers have a method to madness of marketing properly

answer

???

question

Identify 4 stages in product lifecycle, the promotional theme for each stage and 3 distinguishing characteristics

answer

???

question

A mind that is stretched by a new experience can never go back to its old dimensions" Apply to marketing

answer

???

question

Marketing Channel Functions

answer

Transactional Functions--> contacting and promoting (potential customers), negotiating terms, assuming inventory risk Logistical Functions--> physically distributing (transportation and sorting goods), storing, sorting Facilitating Functions--> researching (gathering information about other channel members and consumers) and financing

question

Factors Affecting Channel Choice

answer

Market Factors--> target consumers (size of market too) Product Factors--> more customized = direct, more standard = intermediaries Producer Factors

question

Levels of Distribution Intensity

answer

Intensive Distribution--> max market coverage Selective Distribution Exclusive Distribution--> specialty goods

question

types of supply chain integration

answer

relationship technology and planning measurement material and service supplier internal operations customer

question

modes of transportation

answer

air rail water pipeline truck

question

AIDA (promotional mix)

answer

a model that outlines the process for achieving promotional goals in terms of stages of consumer involvement with the message attention interest desire action

question

consumer sales promotion

answer

targets the ultimate consumer market

question

trade sales promotion

answer

directed to members of the marketing channel such as retailers and wholesalers

question

goal of sales promotion

answer

immediate purchase--> short term choice

question

tools for consumer sales promotion "pull"

answer

*coupons and rebates *premiums --> extra item offered to the consumer in exchange for purchase proof (happy meal) *loyalty marketing programs--> reward loyal customers for purchases *contests/sweepstakes *sampling *point of purchase display-->promotional display set up by retailer to advertise product and create traffic *online sales promotion

question

tools for trade promotion "push"

answer

trade allowance (price reduction offer) push money training free merchandises store demonstrations conventions

question

personal selling

answer

a purchase situation involving a personal, paid-for communication between two people in attempt to influence each other (good with complex goods with small customer base) ex: jets/ michael kors

question

relationship selling

answer

builds trust loyalty win-win situation multiple time selling (continued relationship) ex: heavy machinery

question

value is based upon

answer

perceived satisfaction price paid is based on the satisfaction consumers expect to receive from a product (not utility they actually receive)

question

revenue

answer

price x quantity sold

question

Types of Pricing Objectives

answer

1. Profit Oriented 2. Sales Oriented 3. Status Quo

question

Profit Oriented P.O.

answer

Profit Maximization Satisfactory Profits Target Returns on Investments

question

Profit Maximization

answer

setting prices so that total revenue is as large as possible relative to costs --> increasing customer satisfaction/ reduce costs

question

Satisfactory Profits

answer

strive for profits that are satisfactory to stockholders (consistent with the level of risk)

question

Target Return on Investment (ROI)

answer

a percentage that puts a firm's profits into perspective by showing profits relative to investment

question

Sales Oriented P.O.

answer

based on market share or on dollar or unit sales Market Share Sales Maximization

question

Market Share

answer

a company's product sales as a percentage of total sales for that industry increasing market share is an indicator of the effectiveness of their marketing mix

question

Sales Maximization

answer

such a firm ignores profits, competition, and the marketing environment as long as sales are rising short on funds or a unforeseen future no profitability in the long run

question

Status Quo Pricing

answer

a pricing policy that maintains existing prices or meets the competition's prices ex: gas stations

question

demand

answer

the quantity of a product that will be sold in the market at various prices for a certain period

question

supply

answer

the quantity of a product that will be offered to the market by a supplier at various prices for a certain time

question

Factors that affect elasticity

answer

availability of substitutes price relative to purchasing power product durability uses rate of inflation

question

Markup Pricing

answer

the cost of buying the product from the producer, plus the amounts for profits and for expenses not otherwise accounted for

question

Keystoning

answer

the practice of marking up prices by 100%

question

profit maximization pricing

answer

a method of setting prices that occurs when marginal revenue equals marginal cost

question

Types of Pricing (Cost Determinate)

answer

Markup Pricing Profit Maximization Pricing Break-Even Pricing

question

Break-Even Pricing

answer

a method of determining what sales volume must be reached before total revenue equals total costs

question

Marketing Mix

answer

Product Price Place Promotion

question

How to set a price on a product

answer

1. Establish pricing goals 2. Estimate demand, cost, and profits 3. Choose a pricing strategy 4. Fine-Tune the base price with pricing tactics

question

Establish Pricing Goals

answer

Profit Oriented Sales Oriented Status Quo

question

Pricing Strategies

answer

Price Skimming Penetration Pricing Status Quo Pricing

question

Price Skimming

answer

used when product is perceived to have unique advantages -a pricing policy whereby a firm charges a high introductory price, often coupled with heavy promotion

question

Penetration Pricing

answer

opposite of price skimming when aiming at increasing market share price-sensitive markets high sales -a pricing policy whereby a firm charges a relatively low price for a product initially as a way to reach the market mass

question

Status Quo Pricing

answer

charging a price identical to or very close to the competition's price

question

Price Fixing

answer

an agreement between two or more firms on the price they will charge for a product ILLEGAL--> high prices to customers

question

Predatory Pricing

answer

the practice of charging a very low price for a product with the intent of driving competitors out of business or out of a market ILLEGAL

question

Base Price

answer

the general price level at which the company expects to sell the good or service

question

Value-Based Pricing

answer

setting the price at a level that seems to the customer to be a good price compared to the prices of other options

question

Pricing Products Too Low

answer

loose profits because they are met by competitors

question

FOB origin pricing

answer

requires buyer to take freight costs from shipping point

question

Single Price Tactic

answer

a price tactic that offers all goods and services at the same price (itunes)

question

Flexible Pricing

answer

a price tactic in which different prices for essentially the same merchandise bought in equal quantities ex: cars

question

Price Lining

answer

the practice of offering a product line with several items at specific price points

question

Leader Pricing

answer

a price tactic in which a product is sold near or even below cost in the hope that shoppers will buy other items once in the store

question

Bait Pricing

answer

a price tactic that tries to get consumers into a store through false or misleading price advertising and then uses high pressure selling to persuade consumers to buy expensive goods

question

Price Bundling

answer

marketing two or more products in a single package for a special price

question

Unbundling

answer

reducing the bundle of services that comes with the basic product (pay for gift wrapping)

question

Two Part Pricing

answer

a price tactic that charges two separate amounts to consumer a single good or service gym/amusement parks

question

Consumer Penalties

answer

an extra fee paid by the consumer for violating terms of purchase

question

Joint Costs

answer

costs that are shared in the manufacturing and marketing of several products in a product line

question

Pricing During Inflation

answer

Cost-Oriented Tactics Demand-Oriented Tactics

question

Cost Oriented Tactics

answer

Delayed Quotation Pricing --> a firm price is not set until the item is either finished or delivered Escalator Pricing --> final price reflect cost increases between order and delivery

question

Demand Oriented Pricing Tactics

answer

Price Shading--> the use of discounts by salespeople to increase demand for one or more products in a line

STUDY

Agents And Brokers Distribution Marketing

Marketing Channels chapter 2 – Flashcards 20 terms

Robert May

20 terms

Preview

Marketing Channels chapter 2 – Flashcards

question

"Threetailing" is a term used to describe:

answer

The convergence of in-store, catalog, and online channels.

question

Procter & Gamble and Kellogg often face __________ average costs for distribution tasks when they attempt to perform them by themselves.

answer

High

question

Trends in retailing in the U.S. suggest:

answer

Average dollar sales per store has increased.

question

Customer support provided by merchant wholesalers to manufacturers is often referred to as:

answer

Value-added services.

question

The basic divisions of the marketing channel are:

answer

Producers and manufacturers; intermediaries; and final users.

question

Merchant wholesalers are particularly well suited for performing all of the following distribution tasks for their suppliers except:

answer

Serving as the firms' outside sales force.

question

Between 1948 and 2002 for retail establishments:

answer

Average sales increased and the number of stores decreased.

question

Virtually all retailers serve as:

answer

Selling agents for their suppliers.

question

Merchant wholesalers perform all of the following functions except:

answer

Selling merchandise to final users.

question

Agents and brokers:

answer

Do not take title to goods.

question

Retailers have been using scanner data to perform all of the following except:

answer

Pay and promotion analysis.

question

Facilitating agencies:

answer

Perform non-negotiatory functions.

question

__________ are members of the target market.

answer

Final users

question

Agents, brokers, and commission merchants generally:

answer

do not take title to products.

question

To perform distribution tasks efficiently, a firm needs all of the following except:

answer

To maintain high inventory levels.

question

In the context of the management perspective used in the text, it is appropriate to view final users as:

answer

Target markets.

question

Agents, brokers, and commission merchants' percentage of total wholesale sales in 2002 was:

answer

9% to 14%.

question

Economic concentration in terms of percentage of total wholesale sales enjoyed by most merchant wholesalers in their respective line of trade is:

answer

Relatively low.

question

A basic phenomenon in the ranks of retailers since 1948 has been:

answer

The increase of average sales per store.

question

Which statement about Gazelle is false?

answer

Distribution channels are not adequately used by Gazelle..

STUDY

Distribution Full Line Discount Marketing Principles Of Marketing Private Label Brands

BUA370 Chapter 17: Retailing and Multichannel Marketing – Flashcards 11 terms

Christine Brunetti

11 terms

Preview

BUA370 Chapter 17: Retailing and Multichannel Marketing – Flashcards

question

Multichannel strategy

answer

Selling in more than one channel (e.g., stores, Internet, catalog).

question

What are the factors manufacturers should consider when developing strategies for working with retailers?

answer

1. Choosing retail partners 2. Identifying types of retailers 3. Developing a retail strategy 4. Managing a multichannel strategy

question

Considerations associated with choosing retail partners

answer

1. Channel structure; the degree to which the channel is vertically integrated. 2. Customer expectations; retailers should know consumer preferences regarding manufacturers. They should also know where their target consumers expect to find their products and those of their competitors. 3. Channel member characteristics; generally larger, sophisticated channel members are less likely to use supply chain intermediaries

question

Distribution Intensity

answer

The number of channel members to use at each level of the marketing channel. distribution intensity is commonly divided into three levels: intensive, exclusive, and selective

question

Intensive distribution

answer

A level of distribution intensity whereby a firm tries to place its products and services in as many outlets as possible.

question

Exclusive distribution

answer

Granting exclusive geographic territories to one or very few retail customers so no other retailers in the territory can sell a particular brand. This can benefit manufactures by assuring them that the most appropriate retailers represent their products.

question

Selective distribution

answer

This relies on a few selected retail customers in a territory to sell products. Like exclusive distribution, this helps a seller maintain a particular image and control the flow of merchandise into an area.

question

Retail strategy using 4 P's

answer

Product: offering assortments give customers choice. Price: price helps define the value and the service, sometimes image. Promotion: this can mean the difference between flat sales and a growing consumer base. Place: convenience is the key to success; an aspect being location.

question

What are the benefits of stores for consumers?

answer

Browsing, touching and feeling products, personal service, cash & credit payment, entertainment and social experience, immediate gratification, and risk reduction.

question

What are the benefits of internet and multichannel retailing?

answer

Deeper and broader selections, personalization in customer service and offerings, and expanded market presence.

question

Challenges of mutlichannel retailing

answer

An effective multichannel operation requires an integrated CRM system, a consistent brand image across all channels, consistent pricing in various channels, and a supply chain that efficiently delivers merchandise to multiple channels.

STUDY

Distribution Marketing Moral And Ethical Principles People And Institutions Sports Marketing Trade

DECA Marketing Cluster Exam Vocab 2016 – Flashcards 198 terms

Paula Corcoran

198 terms

Preview

DECA Marketing Cluster Exam Vocab 2016 – Flashcards

question

Account Manager

answer

Vendor representative in charge of specific customers or channel partners

question

Agent

answer

An independent company or person who resells a product or service

question

Bar Code

answer

A unique identification code on products, pallets and coupons. The code is read by an electronic scanner for receiving, ordering and inventory control purposes

question

Channel

answer

A means that a manufacturer may market and sell products to end users and consumers. A system used for extending sales beyond a company's internal resources, using partners such as resellers and retailers. Members of a channel may include: a direct sales force, resellers, distributors, retailers, agents, dealers, catalogs, or websites

question

Channel Captain

answer

A channel partner who is given a leadership role to help organize the channel and prevent conflict.

question

Channel Management

answer

A process by which a company creates formalized programs for selling and servicing customers within a specific channel

question

Channel of Distribution

answer

A specified and orgnanized network of agencies and institutions which in combination perform all the functions required to link merchandisers with end customers to accomplish the marketing task of distribution

question

Channel Partner

answer

A company who a manufacturer partners with to market and sell the manufacturer's products and/or services; might be a reseller, distributor, retailer, agent, or dealer

question

Co-Branding

answer

Going to the market with mulitple brands tied to a product or service

question

Consumer

answer

Also called a "customer", a consumer is a person or company a product/service is sold to and who will make use of the product

question

Distribution

answer

A chain of delivery from a manufacturer to a store

question

Distributor

answer

One that markets and or sells a product; typically a wholesaler or other intermediary who helps move a product from the manufacturer to a company that is authorized to sell the product on behalf of the manufacturer

question

Diversion

answer

The reselling of a product by a partner without agreement from the vendor

question

Dual Distribution

answer

Occurs when a producer is allowed to use different channels to reach the same market as long as they are not enagaging in unfair competition

question

E-Commerce

answer

The exchange of goods, information products, or services via an electronic medium such as the Internet.

question

Exclusive Dealing

answer

Forbidding an intermediary to carry a competitior's products is anticompetitive and is illegal if it blocks competitors from 10% of the market, if sales revenues are sizeable, and if the manufacturer is larger than the dealer

question

Full-Line Forcing

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Requiring a channel member to carry an entire product line in order to obtain any of the supplier's products, and is illegal if it does not service a legitimate business need

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Grey Market

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An unofficial market in which products are bought and sold at prices lower than the authorized prices

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Incentive Program

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Any program used to motivate sales or performance, or any behavior to achieve desired results usually in a specific time frame

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Inventory Control

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Managing inventory to insure the proper amount is on hand and ordered so the right amount is on hand but not oversupplied

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Inventory Shrinkage

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A reduction in inventory caused by theft, spoilage, damage, or an unknown reason

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JIT

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"Just-in-time" is an inventory system that allows parts to arrive just as they are needed. It is used in many manufacturing plants, reduces excess inventory on hand and reduces the need for large warehouses and associated costs

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Manufactorer

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The company that develops, creates, and/or manufacturers a product or who has proprietary rights to a product

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OEM

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Original Equipment Manufacturer. A company that produces equipment made from components that are typcially purchased from other manufacturers

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Partner

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Company which has an official recognition in a channel and provides extended sales reach to a vendor. Also known as providers, members, and middlemen

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Performance ROI

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Performance Return on Investment. The numeric value of incremental revenues and profit gained by a specific trade channel program

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Profit Margin

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The amount of every dollar of sales a company actually keeps as profit

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Provider

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A company that provides reach to the vendor as part of the channel. For legal reasons, some vendors prefer the term provider rather than partner

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Pull Strategy

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Promotional acts of creating interest in a specific product within a target audience who then demands the product from channel partners, causing the product to be "pulled" through the manufacturer's sales channels

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Push Strategy

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The act of "pushing" a product through a marketing channel by employing trade promotions or other activities that incent the channel to pruchase the product

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Reseller

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Independent companies which are authorized to purchase and resell a manufacturer's products

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SPIF/SPIFF

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Sales Performance Incentive Fund / Special Performance Incentive for Field Force These incentives are financial rewards used to incent the behavior and activity that will lead to specific goals and achievement or short-term sales objectives

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Stuffing

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A practice used by a vendor to inflate sales and earnings figures by delivering products to the channel ahead of schedule

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Trade Channel Program

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A manufacturer-initiated sales or marketing promotional campaign that is targeted at channel partners

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Trade Industry

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The industry of purchasing products from manufacturers for resale to the others; members include retailers, wholesalers, resellers, and agents

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Trade Promotion

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A sales or marketing promotional campaign targeted at a segment in the sales channel rather than at the end consumer

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Two-Level Channel

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Occurs when a retailer is between the producer and consumer

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Tying Arrangement

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Occurs when a channel member is required to buy additional products in order to be able to purchase a certain product. This is illegal if it promotes unfair competition

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Vendor

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A company which provides product and organizes a channel to sell it

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Wholesaler

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A member of a company's channel who purchases products from the manufacturer, holds an inventory, and then distributes products to authorized channel partners; provides cost and delivery efficiencies

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Zero-Level Channel

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A direct connection between producer and consumer

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Activity-Based Cost

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Accounting procedures that can quantify the true profitability of different activities by identifying their actual cost

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Capital Items

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Durable goods that help develop or manage the finished product

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Company-Sales Forecast

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The estimated level of sales based on a marketing plan and an assumed marketing environment

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Corporate Culture

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The shared experiences, stories, beliefs, and norms that characterize an organization

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Database Marketing

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The process of building, maintaining, and using databases for the purpose of contacting, transacting, and building customer relationships

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Demographics

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The description of outward traits that characterize a group of people, such as age, sex, nationality, marital status, education, occupation or income. Decisions on market segmentation are often based on demographic data

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Direct Marketing

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The use of consumer-direct channels to reach and deliver goods and services to customers without using a middleman

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E-Marketing

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Company efforts to inform buyers, communicate, promote, and sell its products and services over the Internet

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Fad

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A short-lived, unpredictable trend that is without social, economic, and political significance

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Focus Group

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A qualitative research technique in which a group of about eight people is invited to a neutral venue to discuss a given subject. The principle is the same as an in-depth interview, except that group dynamics help to make the discussion livelier and more wide-ranging. Qualitative groups enable the researcher to probe deeper into specific areas of interest (for example, the nature of commitment to a brand). The result adds richer texture to the understanding of broader data (for example, quantitative), which may paint general trends or observations. Also known as a group discussion

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Forecasting

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Anticipating what buyers are likely to do under a given set of conditions

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Frequency Programs

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Designed to provide rewards to customers who make purchases on a regular basis and/or in substantial amounts

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Loyalty

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A commitment to buy again a preferred product or service

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Relative Market Share

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Market share in relation to a company's largest competitor

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Risk Analysis

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A method by which possible rates of returns and their probabilities are calculated by obtaining estimates for uncertain variables affecting profitability. This type of analysis can assist businesses in making better decisions

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Average mark-up

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The sum dollar mark-up of all items sold divided by the number of items sold. This figure will reflect an average gross profit for all items sold

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Bait and Switch

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Attracting customers by advertising a sale on a certain item and then pressuring them to buy a higher-priced alternative

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Bracket Pricing

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A price schedule based on the number of cases a retailer orders. The greater the quantity ordered, the lower the price per case. Also called a volume or quantity discount

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Break-Even Point

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The point at which revenue equals total costs. After this point, a business will be making a profit

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Cash Discount

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A price reduction for customers who pay their bills on time

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Competition-Oriented Pricing

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Basing a company's prices off the prices of competitors

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Competitor-Based Pricing

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A pricing method used to set price for a product or service based on the competitor's product prices.

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Conjoint Analysis

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A market research method of exploring the relationship between percieved elements of customer value and price

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Consumer Perception

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The way in which a consumer views a product, price, company, brand, etc. Perceptions are opinions. Ex: that product is cool; those shoes are too expensive for their quality

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Cost Price

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Purchase price of a product or service

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Cost-Oriented Pricing

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Uses the cost of acquiring or producing a product and all other business expenses as a basis for the price of that product

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Customer Value

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Quantification of the perceived value of the product or service from a customer's view

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Customer Willingness

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Refers to the maximum price a customer is willing to pay for a product or service

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Demand-Oriented Pricing

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A method used when marketers try to determine what consumers are willing to pay for a product

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Discount Price

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Lowering your retail price below the normal retail price set originally

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Dynamic Pricing

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A pricing method used to set prices time-dependent. This method is most often used in the tourist industry, or reverse auction bidding

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Every Day Low Prices

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Practice in which discounts are eliminated to provide consistently low prices

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Exploit

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To take advantage of a situation in a selfish way

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Fixed Price

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When the normal retail price will not be lowered or raised for a sales promotion or for selling to an individual customer

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Flatrate Pricing

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A pricing method used to set a fixed price for consumption of a product or service over a period of time

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Keystone Margin

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When the cost of an item is doubled to set the retail price, providing a margin of 50% on retail. (This is 100% Mark-up)

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List Price

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The selling price of something as stated in a catalog or price list

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Margin Percentage

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The difference between the cost and retail price of an item ($ mark-up) as a percentage of the retail price. A $10.00 cost item at 50% margin sells for $20.00 retail

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Mark-Up

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The difference between the cost and the retail price of an item expressed in dollars and cents

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Mark-up Percentage

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The difference between the cost and retail price of an item ($ mark-up) as a percentage of the cost. A $10.00 cost item at 50% mark-up sells for $15.00 retail

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Market Share

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A percentage of total sales in a market captured by a certain company

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Markup

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The difference between the cost of a product and its selling price. The basic calculation concerning markup is: Cost + Markup = Retail Price

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Multiple Unit Pricing

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Selling items in multiples (e.g. 5 items for $1.99) to suggest a bargain and help increase sales volume

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Odd-Even Pricing

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Setting prices that all end if either odd or even numbers. Odd numbers ($.99, $7.95, $9.99) suggest the price for the product is a bargain. Even numbers ($10, $50, $100) suggest quality

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Penetration Pricing

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Setting the initial price low with the hope of saturating the market with the product and gaining market share

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Power Pricing

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A pricing method used to aggressively set high prices to maximize profit, but also take significant volume losses into account

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Predatory Pricing (Dumping)

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Selling products at such a low price, even at a loss, to increase market share and eliminate competition only to raise prices once the competitive threat has closed

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Premium Price

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An amount paid in addition to the regular market price as a result of an advantage/higher value over competitor products

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Prestige Pricing

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Setting higher than normal prices to suggest the product has prestige

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Price

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Numerical monetary value assigned to a product or service

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Price Controlling

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A part of systematic price management which main purpose is to monitor and track pricing related efforts and activities

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Price Discrimination

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The practice of selling of the same product to different buyers at different prices

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Price Elasticity

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A measure of the change in demand in response to a change in price of a product or service

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Price Fixing

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An agreement between two or more parties, generally considered to be competitors, to set, maintain, and charge a specified price for a particular product. Horizontal Price Fixing is an unlawful practice in a free market because it is can stifle innovation, artificially raise prices, create inefficiency, and possibly create a monopoly in which output is reduced and prices are raised

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Price Follower

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Competitors in the market which follow the price related actions of a price leader

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Price-Leader

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Dominant competitor in the market who initiates price related actions such as setting, increasing or cutting prices

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Price Lining

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Selling all products in a given category at certain prices. Ex: all the jeans in a clothing store may either be priced at $35, $45, or $60

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Price Segmentation

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Price segmentation (offering different prices to different market segments) increases overall revenues and profits, and it is particularly beneficial to industries that have high fixed cost structures. Obviously, price segmentation works better to the extent to which there are real customer need segments and to which you can effectively isolate those segments. As an example, imagine that your business only offers one product priced at $5. But some consumers are willing to pay up to $8. You are leaving $3 on the table for each of them. Other consumers are more price-sensitive and only willing to pay $3. You do not get any of their business. With price segmentation more revenue is generated by offering three prices -- $3, $5 and $8 - instead of just one -- $5. Prices can be segmented in the following ways: • By time (higher hotel room rates for holidays and other peak tourist seasons) • By location (higher prices in locations with less competition or in which less price-sensitive shoppers shop, orchestra versus balcony seats in a theater) • By volume (volume discounts for large orders) • By product attribute (first class vs. coach section on airplanes; solid brass vs. plastic faucets) • By product bundling - examples: selling software in product suites vs. by the program selling e-Learning by library vs. the individual course fixed price versus a la cart menus "fully-loaded" models versus "basic" models with additional options available single admission ticket at theme parks versus charging per ride By customer segment (brand-loyal vs. price-sensitive vs. convenience-oriented or image-conscious vs. economy-oriented) Other price/value considerations • Pricing strategy should consider these factors: (1) perceived customer value, (2) competitive response, (3) channels of distribution, (4) cost parameters and (5) congruence with the brand position • Constantly explore new ways to uniquely add customer value to your products and services • In creating greater customer value, always ask, "How can we make it quicker, easier, less risky, or more pleasant to do business with us?" Ask, "What could we do that would favorably surprise and delight our customers?" • Communicate the value of services that you provide for free • Providing value-added products and services at "no charge" is superior to price discounting as a short-term purchase incentive because it preserves the value of the brand • Be careful to price your products and services to reward brand-loyal (versus brand-switching) behavior

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Price War

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A situation in which two or more companies tend to cut prices for competing products to retain or gain market share

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Product Bundle Pricing

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A method in which several products are offered for one sale, and is often marked at a discounted price compared to each product individually

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Profit Maximization

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The ability for a company to achieve its maximum profit

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Psychological Pricing

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Pricing techniques that change the perception of a product (e.g. it's a bargain; it's high quality)

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Quantity Discount

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A price reduction offered to customers who buy large amounts of a product

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Retail Price

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The dollar amount you set as the normal retail price

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Sales Allowance

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A type of of reduction from the list price of an item. Ex: receiving a $4,000 deduction from the sticker price for trading in an old car when buying a new car

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Seasonal Discount

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Lower-than-normal price offered as an incentive for buyers to make out-of-season purchases for goods or services

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Sherman Anti-Trust Act

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Passed in 1890, it prohibits certain business activities that the federal government believes are anticompetitive. The legislation has been used to combat monopolies

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Skimming

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Setting the initial price high in hopes of capitalizing on the high demand for a new product

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Survival Pricing

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Pricing products to cover variable costs to simply stay in business

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Target Price

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A price which a buyer or a seller wants to achieve during the negotiation process

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Trade Discount

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A price reduction offered by the seller to members in a certain trade channel. If a manufacturer does frequent business with a wholesaler, they might give them a discount on certain products

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Unit Cost

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The dollar cost for a single item

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Awareness

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The percentage of population or target market who are aware of the existence of a given brand or company. There are two types of awareness: spontaneous, which measures the percentage of people who spontaneously mention a particular brand when asked to name brands in a certain category; and prompted, which measures the percentage of people who recognize a brand from a particular category when shown a list

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Brand

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A brand is a mixture of attributes, tangible and intangible, symbolized in a trademark, which, if managed properly, creates value and influence. Value has different interpretations: from a marketing or consumer perspective it is "the promise and delivery of an experience"; from a business perspective it is "the security of future earnings"; from a legal perspective it is "a separable piece of intellectual property." Brands offer customers a means to choose and enable recognition within cluttered markets

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Brand Architecture

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How an organization structures and names the brands within its portfolio. There are three main types of brand architecture system: monolithic, where the corporate name is used on all products and services offered by the company; endorsed, where all sub-brands are linked to the corporate brand by means of either a verbal or visual endorsement; and freestanding, where the corporate brand operates merely as a holding company, and each product or service is individually branded for its target market

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Brand Association

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The feelings, beliefs and knowledge that consumers (customers) have about brands. These associations are derived as a result of experiences and must be consistent with the brand positioning and the basis of differentiation

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Brand Commitment

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The degree to which a customer is committed to a given brand in that they are likely to re-purchase/re-use in the future. The level of commitment indicates the degree to which a brand's customer franchise is protected from competitors

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Brand Earnings

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The share of a brand-owning business's cashflow that can be attributed to the brand alone

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Brand Equity

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The sum of all distinguishing qualities of a brand, drawn from all relevant stakeholders, that results in personal commitment to and demand for the brand; these differentiating thoughts and feelings make the brand valued and valuable

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Brand Essence

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The brand's promise expressed in the simplest, most single-minded terms. The most powerful brand essences are rooted in a fundamental customer need. For example: FED EX, when it has to get there

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Brand Experience

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The means by which a brand is created in the mind of a stakeholder. Some experiences are controlled such as retail environments, advertising, products/services, websites, etc. Some are uncontrolled like journalistic comment and word of mouth. Strong brands arise from consistent experiences which combine to form a clear, differentiated overall brand experience

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Brand Extension

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Leveraging the values of the brand to take the brand into new markets/sectors

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Brand Identity

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The outward expression of the brand, including its name and visual appearance. The brand's identity is its fundamental means of consumer recognition and symbolizes the brand's differentiation from competitors

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Brand Image

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The customer's net "out-take" from the brand. For users this is based on practical experience of the product or service concerned (informed impressions) and how well this meets expectations; for non-users it is based almost entirely upon uninformed impressions, attitudes and beliefs

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Brand Licensing

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The leasing by a brand owner of the use of a brand to another company. Usually a licensing fee or royalty rate will be agreed for the use of the brand

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Brand Management

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Practically this involves managing the tangible and intangible aspects of the brand. For product brands the tangibles are the product itself, the packaging, the price, etc. For service brands (see Service Brands), the tangibles are to do with the customer experience - the retail environment, interface with salespeople, overall satisfaction, etc. For product, service and corporate brands, the intangibles are the same and refer to the emotional connections derived as a result of experience, identity, communication and people. Intangibles are therefore managed via the manipulation of identity, communication and people skills

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Brand Parity

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The attribution of human personality traits (seriousness, warmth, imagination, etc.) to a brand as a way to achieve differentiation. Usually done through long-term above-the-line advertising and appropriate packaging and graphics. These traits inform brand behavior through both prepared communication/packaging, etc., and through the people who represent the brand - its employees

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Brand Personality

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Brand Positioning

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The distinctive position that a brand adopts in its competitive environment to ensure that individuals in its target market can tell the brand apart from others. Positioning involves the careful manipulation of every element of the marketing mix

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Brand Valuation

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The process of identifying and measuring the economic benefit - brand value - that derives from brand ownership

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Branding

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Selecting and blending tangible and intangible attributes to differentiate the product, service or corporation in an attractive, meaningful and compelling way

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Co-Branding

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The use of two or more brand names in support of a new product, service or venture

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Consumer Packaged Goods

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Describes inventory that is in such a form that is ready for sale to consumers

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Consumer Product

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Goods (consumer goods) or services (consumer services) purchased for private use or for other members of the household

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Consumer Protection Laws

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Government regulations designed and implemented to ensure fair competition and the free flow of truthful information in the marketplace

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Core Competencies

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Relates to a company's particular areas of skill and competence that best contribute to its ability to compete

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Corporate Identity

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At a minimum, is used to refer to the visual identity of a corporation (its logo, signage, etc.), but usually taken to mean an organization's presentation to its stakeholders and the means by which it differentiates itself from other organizations

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Counterfeiting

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When an organization or individual produces a product that looks like a branded product and is packaged and presented in a manner to deceive the purchaser

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Country of Origin

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The country from which a given product comes. Customers' attitudes to a product and their willingness to buy it tend to be heavily influenced by what they associate with the place where it was designed and manufactured

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Customer Characteristics

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All distinguishing, distinctive, typical or peculiar characteristics and circumstances or customers that can be used in market segmentation to tell one group of customers from another

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Customer Relationship Management (CRM)

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Tracking customer behavior for the purpose of developing marketing and relationship-building processes that bond the consumer to the brand. Developing software or systems to provide one-to-one customer service and personal contact between the company and the customer

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Customer Service

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The way in which the brand meets its customers' needs via its various different channels (for example, over the telephone or Internet in the case of remote banking, or in person in the case of retail or entertainment)

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Differential Product Advantage

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A feature of a product that is valuable to customers and is not found in other products of the same category

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Differentiation

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Creation or demonstration of unique characteristics in a company's products or brands compared to those of its competitors

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Differentiator

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Any tangible or intangible characteristic that can be used to distinguish a product or a company from other products and companies

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Diversification

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A product-market strategy that involves the development or acquisition of offerings new to the organization and/or the introduction of those offerings to the target markets not previously served by the organization

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Diversion

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When genuine product is sold to a buyer in one market/channel and then resold by the same buyer into another market/channel, without the consent or authority of the brand owner, to take advantage of a price arbitrage situation. Definition also applies to parallel trade, gray market or gray market activities

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Endorsed Brand

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Generally a product or service brand name that is supported by a masterbrand - either dominantly e.g. Nestle Kit-Kat

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FMCG

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Fast Moving Consumer Goods. An expression used to describe frequently purchased consumer items, such as foods, cleaning products and toiletries

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Freestanding Brand

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A brand name and identity used for a single product or service in a portfolio, which is unrelated to the names and identities of other products in the company's portfolio

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Goods

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A product consisting predominantly of tangible values. Almost all goods, however, have intangible values to a greater or lesser extent

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Guarantee

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Similar to a warranty, it is intended to correct a problem with a product or service and focuses on a specific aspect of that product or service

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Image

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A dynamic and profound affirmation of the nature, culture, and structure of an organization

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Intangibles

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"Intangible" - incapable of being touched. (1) Intangible assets - trademarks, copyrights, patents, design rights, proprietary expertise, databases, etc. (2) Intangible brand attributes - brand names, logos, graphics, colors, shapes and smell

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Launch

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The initial marketing of a new product in a particular market. The way in which the launch is carried out greatly affects the product's profitability throughout its lifecycle

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Market Position

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A measure of the position of a company or product on a market. Defined as market share multiplied by share of mind

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Market Segment

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A group of customers who (a) share the same needs and values, (b) can be expected to respond in much the same way to a company's offering, and (c) command enough purchasing power to be of strategic importance to the company

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Market Share

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A company's share of total sales of a given category of product on a given market. Can be expressed either in terms of volume (how many units sold) or value (the worth of units sold)

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Masterbrand

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A brand name that dominates all products or services in a range or across a business. Sometimes used with sub-brands, sometimes used with alpha or numeric signifiers

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Monolithic Brand

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A single brand name that is used to "masterbrand" all products or services in a range. Individual products are nearly always identified by alpha or numeric signifiers. Companies like Mercedes and BMW favor such systems

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Multibrand Strategy/ Multiple Branding

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Marketing of two or more mutually competing products under different brand names by the same company. The motive may be that the company wishes to create internal competition to promote efficiency, or to differentiate its offering to different market segments, or to get maximum mileage out of established brands that it has acquired. When a company has achieved a dominant market share, multibrand strategy may be its only option for increasing sales still further without sacrificing profitability. For example, Lever Brothers sells washing powders under the Persil, Omo and Surf names; Cadbury sells chocolates under the Dairy Milk, Bournville and Fruit & Nut names; Heinz sells canned convenience foods under the Baked Beans, Spaghetti Hoops and Alphabetti Spaghetti names

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Niche (Niche Market)

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A distinct segment of a market

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OEM Market

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OEM stands for Original Equipment Manufacturers. The OEM market consists of companies that use another company's product as a component in their own production. A manufacturer of ball bearings, for example, sells both to OEM customers who build the bearings into machines and to end users who need the bearings as spare parts for machines that they have bought from the OEMs. Most manufacturing companies thus have an OEM market and a replacement market. The latter is usually called the MRO market or aftermarket

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Offering

answer

What a company offers for sale to customers. An offering includes the product and its design, features, quality, packaging, distribution, etc., together with associated services such as financing, warranties and installation. The name and brand of the product are also part of the offering

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Packaging Design

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The design of the pack format and graphics for a product brand

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Parent Brand

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A brand that acts as an endorsement to one or more sub-brands within a range.

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Passing Off

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The name given to a legal action brought to protect the "reputation" of a particular trademark/brand/get up. In essence, the action is designed to prevent others from trading on the reputation/goodwill of an existing trademark/brand/get up. The action is only available in those countries that recognize unregistered trademark rights (for example the UK and US). In some countries, it is called "unfair competition action."

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Perceptual Mapping Graphic

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Analysis and presentation of where actual and potential customers place a product or supplier in relation to other products and suppliers. Most perceptual maps show only two dimensions at a time, for example price on one axis and quality on the other. There also are methods of graphically analyzing and presenting measurement data in three or more dimensions

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Positioning

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The process by which marketers work to create an image or identity in the minds of their target market for its product, brand, or organization

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Power Branding

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A strategy in which every product in a company's range has its own brand name which functions independently, unsupported by either the company's corporate brand or its other product brands. Power branding is a resource-intensive strategy, since each brand must be commercially promoted and legally protected. This strategy is used mainly by manufacturers of consumer goods. Lever's and Procter & Gamble's detergents are good examples of power brands

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Product

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A good or service available to consumers

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Product Brand

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A brand which is synonymous with a particular product offering, for example, Cheerios

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Product Bundling

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Occurs when two or more products are offered to a customer at a single price

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Product Life-Cycle

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A model describing the progress of a product from the inception of the idea, through the main period of sales, to its eventual decline. Introduction, growth, peak, decline are all commonly desribed stages

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Product Mix

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The variety of product lines that a company produces, or that a retailer stocks. Product mix usually refers to the length (the number of products in the product line), breadth (the number of product lines that a company offers), depth (the different varieties of product in the product line), and consistency (the relationship between products in their final destination) of product lines

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Product Opportunity

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The need or desire for a product or service that does not yet exist, noticed by a company or individual

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Product/Service Management

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A marketing function involving developing, obtaining, maintaining, and improving a product or service mix in response to market opportunities

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Rebrand

answer

When a brand owner revisits the brand with the purpose of updating or revising based on internal or external circumstances. Rebranding is often necessary after an M&A or if the brand has outgrown its identity/marketplace

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Relative Market Share

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Your own company's market share compared to those of your competitors. A large share confers advantages of scale in product development, manufacturing and marketing. It also puts you in a stronger position in the minds of customers, which has a positive influence on pricing

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Relaunch

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Reintroducing a product into a specific market. The term implies that the company has previously marketed the product but stopped marketing it. A relaunched product has usually undergone one or more changes. It may, for example, be technically modified, rebranded, distributed through different channels or repositioned

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Repositioning

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Communications activities to give an existing product a new position in customers' minds and so expanding or otherwise altering its potential market. Many potentially valuable products lead an obscure existence because they were launched or positioned in an inadequate manner. It is almost always possible to enhance the value of such products by repositioning them

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Rollout

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The process by which a company introduces a new product or service to different geographical markets or consumer segments

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Service

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An intangible activity performed by other people in exchange for payment. Ex: getting a manicure; or having your car washed

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Service Brand

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A product consisting predominantly of intangible values. "A service is something that you can buy and sell, but not drop on your foot" (The Economist). In this sense, a service is something that you do for somebody, or a promise that you make to them

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Share of Mind

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There are many definitions of share of mind. At its most precise, share of mind measures how often consumers think about a particular brand as a percentage of all the times they think about all the brands in its category. More loosely, share of mind can be defined simply as positive perceptions of the brand obtained by market research. Whereas market share measures the width of a company's market position, share of mind can be said to measure its depth

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Share of Voice

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The media spending of a particular brand when compared to others in its category

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Sub-Brand

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A product or service brand that had its own name and visual identity to differentiate it from the parent brand

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Tangibles

answer

"Tangible" - capable of being touched. (1) Tangible assets - manufacturing plant, bricks and mortar, cash, investments, etc. (2) Tangible brand attributes - the product and its packaging. (3) Tangible brand values - useful qualities of the brand known to exist through experience and knowledge

question

Top-of-Mind

answer

What is present in the uppermost level of consciousness; the manufacturer or brand that people in market surveys name first when asked to list products in a specific category. Top-of-mind is the highest degree of share of mind. To attain that position, a company normally needs to have a large share of voice in its category

question

Total Quality Management

answer

A management technique to improve the quality of goods and services, reduce operating costs and increase customer satisfaction

question

Trademark

answer

Any sign capable of being represented graphically which is capable of distinguishing goods or services of one undertaking from those of another undertaking

question

Trademark Infringement

answer

A trademark registration is infringed by the unauthorized use of the registered trademark, or of one that is confusingly similar to it, on the registered goods or services, or in certain circumstances on similar or dissimilar goods and services

question

Trendsetter

answer

Someone or thing that breaks a traditional mold or routine and gains a following because of it. iMac is an example of trendsetting in design as now office supplies come in the familiar colors and translucent packaging of an iMac

question

User Segmentation

answer

Division of potential customers into market segments according to how and for what purpose they use a product. Do they use it for cleaning their teeth or for making cakes (baking powder)?

question

Value of Brands

answer

Take a look at the list below that shows the world's top 10 brands in 2013 (as measured by value): Apple Samsng Group Google Microsoft Walmart IBM GE Amazon.com Coca-Cola Verizon Source: brandirectory.com We, as consumers, feel loyal to such brands and the mere sight of their logo has us reaching into our pockets to buy their products

question

Visual Identity

answer

What a brand looks like - including, among other things, its logo, typography, packaging and literature systems

question

Warranty

answer

A written agreement that states your product or service will work as it is advertised

STUDY

Distribution Marketing Principles Of Marketing Vertical Marketing System

Marketing DSM Chapter 11 – Flashcards 30 terms

James Storer

30 terms

Preview

Marketing DSM Chapter 11 – Flashcards

question

In a process called __________, companies are eliminating many traditional intermediaries because they find that they don't add enough value to the distribution channel.

answer

disintermediation (of the distribution center)

question

The advantage of using __________ is that they facilitate transactions for bulky products.

answer

drop shippers

question

Marketers use __________ for products such as chewing gum, soft drinks, and milk that consumers quickly consume and must replace frequently.

answer

intensive distribution

question

Sales agents who receive goods, primarily agricultural products, on consignment are __________.

answer

commission merchants

question

__________ is the storing of goods in anticipation of sale or transfer to another member of the distribution channel.

answer

warehousing

question

The name for the process that includes product returns, recycling and material reuse, and waste disposal

answer

reverse logististics

question

the series of activities that occurs between the time an order comes into the organization and the time a product goes out the door

answer

Order processing

question

the process of designing, managing, and improving the movement of products through the supply chain

answer

logistics

question

the mode by which products move among channel members

answer

transportation

question

a channel of distribution in which there is formal cooperation among members at the manufacturing, wholesaling, and retailing levels

answer

vertical marketing system (VMS)

question

selling a product only through a single outlet in a particular region

answer

exclusive distribution

question

a group of retailers that establishes a wholesaling operation to help them compete more effectively with the large chains

answer

retailer cooperative

question

an arrangement within a channel of distribution in which two or more firms at the same channel level work together for a common purpose

answer

horizontal marketing system

question

The number of times a firm's inventory completely cycles through during a defined time frame

answer

inventory turnover

question

a multiple-level distribution channel in which channel members work independently of one another

answer

conventional marketing system

question

a type of vertical marketing system, members remain independent but voluntarily work together because of the power of a single channel member

answer

administered VMS

question

the dependence of producers, wholesalers, and retailers on one another for success

answer

channel cooperation

question

the ability of members to influence, control, and lead the entire channel based on one or more sources of power

answer

channel power

question

the dominant firm that controls the channel

answer

channel leader (or channel captain)

question

incompatible goals, poor communication, and disagreement over roles, responsibilities, and functions among firms at different levels of the same distribution channel that may threaten a manufacturer's distribution strategy

answer

channel conflict

question

the inventory management and purchasing processes that manufacturers and resellers use to reduce inventory to very low levels and ensure that deliveries from suppliers arrive only when needed

answer

just-in-time inventory

question

the name for all the activities necessary to turn raw materials into a good or service and put it in the hands of the consumer or business customer

answer

supply chain

question

the distinct categories of intermediaries that populate a channel of distribution

answer

channel levels

question

buys products from a manufacturer and sells them to business customers

answer

industrial distributor

question

uses a number of different channels and communication methods to serve a target market

answer

hybrid marketing system

question

a fee paid in exchange for agreeing to place a manufacturer's products on a retailer's valuable shelf space

answer

slotting allowance

question

Firms that handle the flow of information from the manufacturer to the retailer or business user

answer

wholesaling intermediaries

question

channel intermediaries that are not controlled by any manufacturer but instead do business with many different manufacturers and many different customers

answer

Independent intermediaries

question

intermediaries that buy goods from manufacturers and sell to retailers and other business-to-business customers

answer

Merchant wholesalers

question

channel intermediaries that provide services in exchange for commissions but never take title to the product

answer

Merchandise agents (brokers)

STUDY

Area Distribution Network Security Networking Social Security Numbers

Security Review #2 – Flashcards 60 terms

Henry Lowe

60 terms

Preview

Security Review #2 – Flashcards

question

1. On your way into the back entrance of the building at work one morning a man dressed as a plumber asks you to let him in so he can "fix the restroom." what should you do?

answer

Direct him to the front entrance and instruct him to check in with the receptionist.

question

2. Which of the following is not an example of a physical barrier access control mechanism?

answer

One time passwords.

question

3. Which of the following can be used to stop piggybacking that has been occurring at a front entrance where employees should swipe their smart cards to gain entry?

answer

Deploy a mantrap.

question

4. You want to use CCTV to increase your physical security. You want to be able to remotely control the camera position. Which camera type should you choose?

answer

PTZ.

question

5. Which of the following CCTV camera types lets you adjust the distance that the camera can see (i.e. zoom in or out)?

answer

Varifocal.

question

6. Which of the following is the most important thing to do to prevent console access to the router?

answer

Keep the router in a locked room.

question

7. You have 5 salesmen who work out of your office and who frequently leave their laptops laying on their desk in their cubicles. You are concerned that someone might walk by and take one of these laptops. Which of the following is the best protection to implement to address your concerns?

answer

Use cable locks to chain the laptops to the desks.

question

8. Which of the following fire extinguisher types is best used for electrical fires that might result when working with computer components?

answer

Class C.

question

9. You walk by the server room and notice a fire has started. What should you do first?

answer

Make sure everyone has cleared the area.

question

10. Which of the following fire extinguisher suppressant types is best used for electrical fires that might result when working with computer components?

answer

Carbon Dioxide (C02)11.)

question

11. What is the recommended humidity level for server rooms?

answer

50%.

question

12. Users are complaining that sometimes network communications are slow. You use a protocol analyzer and find that packets are being corrupted as they pass through a switch. You also notice that this only seems to happen when the elevator is running. What should you do?

answer

Install shielded cables near the elevator.

question

13. A smart phone was lost at the airport. There is no way to recover the device. Which if the following will ensure data confidentiality on the device?

answer

Remote wipe.

question

14. Which of the following are not reasons to remote wipe a mobile device?

answer

When the device is inactive for a period of time.

question

15. The presence of unapproved modems on desktop systems gives rise to the LAN being vulnerable to which of the following?

answer

War dialing.

question

16. Which Internet connectivity method sends voice phone calls using the TCP/IP protocol over digital data lines?

answer

VoIP.

question

17. Which of the following is not a reason to use subnets on a network?

answer

Combine different media type on to the same subnet.

question

18. Which of the following best describes the purpose of using subnets?

answer

Subnets divide an IP network address into multiple network addresses.

question

19. Which protocol uses traps to send notifications from network devices?

answer

SNMP

question

20. You have been using SNMP on your network for monitoring and management. You are concerned about the security of this configuration. What should you do?

answer

Implement Version 3 of SNMP.

question

21. Which of the following protocols allows hosts to exchange messages to indicate problems with packet delivery?

answer

ICMP

question

22. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is equivalent to the IPv4 loopback address of 127.0.0.1?

answer

::1

question

23. You are configuring a network firewall to allow SMTP outbound e-mail traffic, and POP3 inbound e-mail traffic. Which of the following TCP/IP ports should you open on the firewall (Select Two.)?

answer

25, 110

question

24. Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?

answer

FEC0::AB:9007.

question

25. Which port number is used by SNMP?

answer

161

question

26. You want to close all ports associated with NetBIOS on your network firewalls to prevent attacks directed against NetBIOS. Which ports should you close?

answer

135,137-139.

question

27. Which of the following protocols uses port 443?

answer

HTTPS.

question

28. Which of the following ports does FTP use to establish sessions and manage traffic?

answer

20, 21

question

29. If an SMTP server is not properly and securely configured, it can be hijacked and used maliciously as a SMTP relay agent. Which of the following activity could it result in?

answer

Spam.

question

30. Which of the following is the best countermeasure against man-in-the-middle attacks?

answer

IPsec.

question

31. While using the Internet, you type the URL of one of your favorite sites in the browser. Instead of going to the correct site, however, the browser displays a completely different website. When you use the IP address of the web server, the correct site is displayed. Which type of attacks likely occurred?

answer

DNS poisoning.

question

32. Which of the following attacks tries to associate an incorrect MAC address with a known IP address?

answer

ARP poisoning.

question

33. What are the most common network traffic packets captured and used in a replay attack?

answer

Authentication

question

34. A router on the border of your network detects a packet with a source address that is from an internal client but the packet was received on the Internet-facing interface. This is an example of what form attack?

answer

Spoofing.

question

35. What is modified in the most common form of spoofing on a typical IP packet?

answer

Source address.

question

36. What of the following is a privately controlled portion of a network that is accessible to some specific external entities?

answer

Extranet.

question

37. You are implementing security at a local high school that is concerned with students accessing inappropriate material on the Internet from the library's computers. The students will use the computers to search the Internet for research paper content. The school budget is limited. Which of the following filtering option would you choose?

answer

Restrict content based on content categories.

question

38. You are the office manager of a small financial credit business. Your company handles personal, financial information for clients seeking small loans over the internet. You are aware of your obligation to secure clients records, but budget is an issue. Which item would provide the best security for this situation?

answer

All-in-one security appliance.

question

39. Which of the following is a firewall function?

answer

Packet filtering.

question

40. Which of the following are characteristics of a circuit-level gateway (Select two.)?

answer

Stateful, Filters based on sessions.

question

41. Which of the following are characteristics of a packet filtering gateway (Select two.)?

answer

Stateless, Filters IP address and port.

question

42. You want to install a firewall that can reject packets that are not part of an active session. Which type of firewall should you use?

answer

Circuit-level.

question

43. Which of the following is a valid security measure to protect e-mail from viruses?

answer

Use blockers on e-mail gateways.

question

44. Which of the following prevents access based on website ratings and classifications?

answer

Content filter.

question

45. You want to reduce collisions by creating separate collision domains and virtual LANs. Which of the following devices should you choose?

answer

Switch.

question

46. Which of the following is an advantage of using switches to create virtual LANs?

answer

Broadcast traffic travels to a subset of devices rather than to all devices on the network.

question

47. Which characteristic of a switch can improve bandwidth utilization and reduce the risk of sniffing attacks on the network?

answer

A switch filters port traffic based on MAC address.

question

48. What characteristics of hubs poses a security threat?

answer

Hubs transmit frames to all hosts on all ports.

question

49. Which of the following devices does not examine the MAC address in a frame before processing or forwarding the frame?

answer

Hub.

question

50. A relatively new employee in the data entry cubical farm was assigned a user account similar to that of all of the other data entry employees. However, audit logs have shown that this user account has been used to change ACLs on several confidential files and has accessed data in restricted areas. This situation indicates which of the following has occurred?

answer

Privilege escalation.

question

51. An attacker has obtained the logon credentials for a regular user on your network. Which type of security threat exists if this user account is used to perform administrative functions?

answer

Privilege escalation.

question

52. What is the main difference between a worm and a virus?

answer

A worm can replicate itself, while a virus requires a host for distribution.

question

53. What type of malware monitors your actions?

answer

Spyware.

question

54. A collection of zombie computers have been setup to collect personal information. What type of malware do the zombie computers represent?

answer

Botnet.

question

55. What is a program that appears to be a legitimate application, utility, game, or screensaver and that performs malicious activities surreptitiously?

answer

Trojan horse.

question

56. Which of the following actions should you take to reduce the attack surface of a server?

answer

Disable unused services.

question

57. Which of the following describes a configuration baseline?

answer

A list of common security settings that a group or all devices share.

question

58. FTPS uses which mechanism to provide security for authentication and data transfer?

answer

SSL.

question

59. You need to increase the security of your Linux system by finding and closing open ports. Which of the following commands should you use to locate open ports?

answer

nmap

question

60. What will the netstat -a command show?

answer

All listening and non-listening sockets.

STUDY

Average Tax Rate Distribution Economics European Central Bank International Economics Marginal Tax Rate

IB Economics: Equity in the distribution of income – Flashcards 12 terms

Lewis Edwards

12 terms

Preview

IB Economics: Equity in the distribution of income – Flashcards

question

Lorenz curve

answer

illustrates the degree of equality of income distribution in an economy; plots the cumulative percentage of income received by cumulative shares of the population

question

Gini coefficient

answer

= area between diagonal and Lorenz curve / entire area under diagonal

question

poverty

answer

inability to afford an adequate standard of goods/services

question

absolute poverty

answer

inability to afford a basic standard of goods/services, where this standard is absolute and unchanging

question

relative poverty

answer

inability to afford an adequate standard of goods/services, where this standard is relative and changes over time and defined as a particular percentage of society's median income

question

transfer payments

answer

payments made by the government to individuals for the purpose of redistributing income

question

proportional tax

answer

as income increases, the fraction of income paid as taxes remains constant

question

progressive tax

answer

as income increases, the fraction of income paid as taxes increases

question

regressive tax

answer

as income increases, the fraction of income paid decreases

question

average tax rate

answer

tax paid divided by total income, expressed as a percentage

question

marginal tax rate

answer

tax rate paid on additional income

question

income distribution

answer

concerned with how much of an economy's total income different groups in the population receive

STUDY

Amino Acids Analytical Chemistry Distribution Equilibrium Forensic Science Forensics Interactions Molecules

Forensics: Paper Chromatography 9 terms

James Hopper

9 terms

Preview

Forensics: Paper Chromatography

question

In paper chromatography, which is the mobile phase?

answer

solvent

question

In paper chromatography, which separates the components of the ink?

answer

Interactions with the filter paper slow the movements of various components of the ink differently.

question

Which describes Rf ?

answer

the ratio of the distance of a spot to the distance of the solvent front

question

Which solvent(s) ran off the paper in the time allotted?

answer

-water-alcohol mixture -water

question

Which color spots were in the dye from the red marker?

answer

-pink -red

question

Which marker had a spot or streak with an Rf value of approximately 0.67?

answer

red

question

Which was the slowest spot in the black marker's chromatogram?

answer

lightblue

question

Which chromatography solvent had the best separation while remaining on the paper in the allotted time?

answer

alcohol

question

Which marker or markers had Rf values that matched the ink in the ransom note?

answer

-red -black

STUDY

Distribution The Body Wrist

gly 1102 topic 36 25 terms

Kevin Stewart

25 terms

Preview

gly 1102 topic 36

question

All pterosaurs' skulls have huge eye sockets.

answer

true

question

The 400-500 teeth in each jaw of Pterodaustro may have been used as a sieve for filtering out plankton scooped up into its mouth.

answer

true

question

Most endotherms bear live young.

answer

true

question

Ramphorhyncoids went extinct prior to the great extinction of dinosaurs at the end of the Cretaceous.

answer

true

question

In most pterosaurs, the scapula and coracoid are fused to form a

answer

scapulocoracoid

question

Pterosaurs have a global distribution.

answer

true

question

The pterosaurs diversified into several lineages during the Lower Triassic.

answer

false

question

Pterosaurs were the first vertebrates to develop flapping flight.

answer

true

question

All pterosaurs lacked teeth.

answer

false

question

The (blank) was a pterosaur membrane that extended from the fifth toe to the tail along the posterior edge of the leg.

answer

uropagatia

question

Only endothermic animals have developed the ability to fly.

answer

true

question

Which vertebrates were the first to be capable of powered flight?

answer

pterosaurs

question

The shape of the deltopectoral crest is used to differentiate pterosaur clades.

answer

true

question

The earliest pterosaurs are from the (blank) of Italy.

answer

Upper Triassic

question

Some Rhamphorhynchus specimens have a membranous tail vane.

answer

true

question

Which statement about pteranodons is false?

answer

They were all filter feeders. (True: They are toothless. They are the largest pterosaurs. They exhibit sexual dimorphism. They have global distribution.)

question

A decrease in abundance and diversity of pterosaurs during the Cretaceous, most probably was caused by

answer

diversification of marine birds.

question

There is no evidence that pterosaurs had body hair.

answer

false

question

Pterosaurs have a small head, relative to body size.

answer

false

question

There is no evidence of sexual dimorphism in pterosaurs.

answer

false

question

Pteranodons are among those pterosaurs exhibiting a number of anatomical differences between the sexes.

answer

true

question

The (blank) is a small membrane spanning the area between the shoulder and the wrist of pterosaurs.

answer

propatagium

question

The main wing membrane of pterosaurs is the

answer

patagium.

question

The pterosaur images in your text reveal that this South American country has a rich fossil record of these winged creatures.

answer

Brazil

question

The pterosaur humerus has a large (blank), an anterior projection for the anchoring of flight muscles.

answer

deltopectoral crest

STUDY

Data Distribution Mean Median Mode

political science 200 midterm queens college 12 terms

Marta Browning

12 terms

Preview

political science 200 midterm queens college

question

mode

answer

The value that occurs most frequently in a given data set.

question

median

answer

Middle number

question

mean

answer

Average

question

independent variable

answer

The variable that is varied or manipulated by the researcher.

question

dependent variable

answer

It is something that depends on other factors.

question

validity

answer

accuracy of measurement

question

reliability

answer

Consistency

question

dispersion

answer

Pattern of spacing among individuals.

question

aggregate

answer

sum total; a collection of separate things mixed together

question

categorical variable

answer

A variable recorded as labels, names, or other non-numerical outcomes.

question

ordinal variable

answer

a qualitative variable that incorporates an ordered position, or ranking

question

interval variable

answer

the order matters, and the distance between data points are all equal. Ex: Temperature

STUDY

Cloward And Ohlin Criminal Justice Distribution Lower Class Violence

Crim 105 final – Flashcards 45 terms

Rebecca Mallory

45 terms

Preview

Crim 105 final – Flashcards

question

According to Cohen, delinquent subcultures are rooted in all but which of the following?

answer

Acceptance of violence as normal

question

Cohen argues that ? band together to form subcultures in which they can define status in ways that seem attainable to them.

answer

Delinquent boys

question

? boys try to make the best of bad situations, according to Cohen.

answer

Corner boys

question

Which of the following does Cohens theory explain?

answer

Why must delinquents become law abiding individuals even though their position in the class structure remains relatively.

question

According to Cloward and Ohlin, which type of gang emerges in areas where conventional and illegitimate values and behavior are integrated by a close connection of illegitimate and legitimate business?

answer

Criminal gangs

question

One of the main criticisms of differential opportunity theory is that?

answer

it is class oriented

question

Who introduced the subculture of violence theory?

answer

Wolfgang and Ferracuti

question

using nationwide data collected for the Presidents Commission on the Causes and Prevention of Violence, Howard Erlanger found?

answer

No major differences in attitudes toward violence by class or gender

question

Which of the following is not one of the focal concerns identified by Miller?

answer

Self confidence

question

A lower class persons resentment of external controls, whether parents, teachers, or police, is related to what focal concern?

answer

Autonomy

question

In studying attachment to lower-class focal concerns, Cernovich found that toughness, excitement, trouble, and ? were related to self reported delinquency in all classes.

answer

Pleasure seeking

question

Stephen Cernovich concluded that it is ? rather than class that is/are associated with delinquency.

answer

Values

question

Who published the first major work on the lifestyle of female gang members in New York?

answer

Anne Campbell

question

Researchers have identified several types of suburban gangs, Which of the following is not one of these types of gangs?

answer

Drug Gangs

question

Mobilization for Youth (MOBY) was based on what theory?

answer

Opportunity

question

Which of the following would not be a focus of social control theorists?

answer

Individual modes of adaptation to environmental strains

question

The concept of social control emerged in the early 1900's in a volume by ?

answer

E.A Ross

question

According to Ross ? rather than specific laws guide what people do and universally serve to control behavior.

answer

Belief systems

question

Who has been the spokes person for the Microsociological perspective since 1969?

answer

Travis Hirschi

question

Which if the following is not a form of Hirschi's first bond, attachment?

answer

Attachment to church

question

The preoccupation with activities that promote the interests of society would be an example of which type of Hirschi's bonds?

answer

Involvement

question

? is the assent to the society's value system

answer

Belief

question

One of differences that Michael Hindelang found between his research and Hirschi's research is that there is ?

answer

No relationship between attachment to mother and peers.

question

In testing Hirschi's theory, Michael Hindelang found involvement in delinquency was positively related to ?

answer

Attachment to peers.

question

According to Matza, when a bond between a person and the law is not in place a youth may enter a state of ? where he or she exists in limbo between convention and crime.

answer

Drift

question

According to Reiss, delinquency is a result of all except the following factors?

answer

attachment to delinquent peers

question

? theory assumes that for every individual there exists a containing external structure and a protective internal structure, both of which provide defense, protection, or insulation against delinquency.

answer

Containment

question

According to Reckless, the primary containment factor is found in ?

answer

self concept

question

Who developed the notion that multiple control factors determine human behavior?

answer

Francis Ivan Nye

question

Gottfredson and Hirschi proposed a new model of personal and social control in A General Theory of Crime. Their model assumes that?

answer

offenders have little control over there own behavior and desires.

question

Labeling theorists are interested in all but which of the following?

answer

Why people commit crimes in the first place.

question

The intellectual roots of labeling theory can be traced to the work of all but which of the following theorists?

answer

Emile Durkheim

question

In the 1940's which of the following theorists formulated the basic assumptions of labeling theory?

answer

Edwin Lemert

question

The work of Howard Becker suggests that is is the ? who make the rules that define deviant behavior.

answer

Moral entrepreneurs

question

Labeling by adjudication was studied by?

answer

Richard Schwartz and Jerome Skolnick

question

Which theoretical perspective claims that a struggle for power is a basic feature of human existence?

answer

Conflict

question

The ? model of lawmaking assumes that members of society by large agree on what is right and wrong, and that law is the codification of these agreed upon social values.

answer

Consensus

question

Conflict theorists argue that ?

answer

Laws represent the interests of specific groups that have the power to get them enacted.

question

Who was the first theorists to relate conflict to criminology?

answer

George Vold

question

When Freda Adler studied the importance of non-legal factors in the decision making of juries, she found that the ? of the defendants significantly influenced their judgment.

answer

socioeconomic level

question

The leading American spokesperson for radical criminology is ?

answer

Richard Quinney

question

Carl Klockars attacks Marxists for focusing exclusively on?

answer

Class interests

question

Left realists recognize street crime as ?

answer

An inevitable outcome of social and political deprivation

question

Radical feminists view the cause of crime in women to be ?

answer

Male aggression

question

The peacemaking perspective is part of an intellectual and social movement toward ?

answer

Restorative justice

STUDY

Distribution Finance Money Risk

Finance Managment – Flashcards 64 terms

Ember Wagner

64 terms

Preview

Finance Managment – Flashcards

question

People who are "risk averse" usually don't invest their money in anything.

answer

False

question

Financial risk can be defined as the uncertainty around an expected outcome.

answer

True

question

Even the desire for money exhibits a declining marginal utility

answer

True

question

The correct way to find an average of a distribution of outcomes is to add up all the outcomes and divide by the number of outcomes.

answer

False

question

The expected value of a distribution is also the weighted mean.

answer

True

question

The risk of an investment is best measured by its expected return.

answer

False

question

Standard variation equals the Square root of variance

answer

True

question

In the normal distribution, approximately 68% (two-thirds) of the outcomes will fall within one standard deviation of the mean.

answer

True

question

The correlation coefficient ranges from -1.0 to +1.0.

answer

True

question

All else being equal, risk averse investors prefer wider, flatter distribution of returns around the mean.

answer

False

question

If two assets are perfectly positively correlated, we can put them together into a portfolio and completely eliminate risk.

answer

lse

question

We would expect the correlation coefficient between the number of days of sunshine and umbrella sales to be positive.

answer

True

question

) The idea of diversification is to maintain a level of return and decrease your risk.

answer

True

question

We can obtain the maximum benefits of diversification by holding approximately 25-30 assets in a portfolio.

answer

True

question

Beta measures the total risk of an investment.

answer

False, Beta measures assets systematic risk relative to market portfolio

question

Unsystematic risk can be diversified away in a portfolio.

answer

True

question

The Capital Asset Pricing Model is used to predict the required return on an investment.

answer

True

question

The best definition of "risk" is

answer

uncertainty about an outcome.

question

The "expected value" is

answer

the weighted average and mean

question

The bell curve is a graphical representation of

answer

the normal distribution.

question

A share of stock has an expected return of 12 percent and a standard deviation of 24 percent. Therefore, its coefficient of variation is

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2.0

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To be "diversified" means to hold

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different assets to minimize risk.

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If two assets have returns that move together perfectly, their correlation coefficient is

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+1.0.

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The best reason to hold the market portfolio is it

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is the most efficient.

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Beta is a measure of:

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systematic risk.

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If a stock has a beta greater than 1.0, then its expected return

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is greater than the market portfolio.

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The three major decisions in financial management involve investing, financing, and the payment of dividends.

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True

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Financial management cannot be related to other functional areas of management such as marketing.

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False

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The most common form of business organization in the United States is the sole proprietorship.

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True

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Common stock is a security that has the features of both debt and equity.

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False, Its just equity

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The goal of hospitality financial management is to maximize the wealth of the owners.

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TRUE

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A good example of an agency relationship in a hotel is the relationship between a bartender and a server.

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False

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Maximizing revenue will always maximize the wealth of the owners.

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False

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Value is created if a project's

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incremental benefits exceed incremental costs

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Which of the following is the disadvantage of the corporate form of organization?

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the tax treatment of dividends

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Which of the following makes preferred stock different from common stock?

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Common stockholders can vote for the board of directors

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The three factors that determine the value of future dividends are

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size, timing, and risk.

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The goal of wealth maximization for the owners makes sense for the firm because

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if we have satisfied the owners, we have satisfied all other parties as well.

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Agency problems arise because

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people usually act in their own best interest

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You are the owner of a Comfort Inn and would like to hire a new general manager. In terms of preventing possible agency problems, what should you include in your offer?

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profit sharing

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Financial management is the process of classifying financial information.

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Financial management is the process of classifying financial information.

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The shareholders of a corporation have unlimited liability

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False

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The balance sheet equation is: assets + liability = owners equity

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False it is assets = liability +owners equity

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Shirking is considered an agency problem

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True

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A Subchapter S Corporation has double taxation.

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False

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With the sole proprietorship type of organization, it is easy to increase capital.

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False, It is very hard

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The income statement indicates firm performance between two balance sheet dates.

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True

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The uniform system of accounts helps managers organize the statement of cash flows.

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False

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The detail of a hotel income statement will vary depending on the needs of the user.

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True

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Cash is found in the owner's equity account.

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False

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Assets are held by the firm to generate revenues and cash flows.

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True

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The statement of cash flows has three major components.

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True Operating investion and Financing activities

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Liquidity ratios measure the amount of long-term debt held by the firm

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False Short term

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Owners would like to have a higher current ratio than lenders

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False

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A current ratio of less than 1.0 for a hospitality company is always bad

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False

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Which of the following is a "snapshot" of the hospitality operation?

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Balance sheet

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Securities held by the firm for more than are year are classified as

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Long term invenstments

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For current liabilities, "current" means

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payable within a year.

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Assets relate to revenue as liabilities relate to

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expenses.

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Over the long term, successful companies generate positive cash flows from

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operating activities.

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The impact of the Enron accounting scandal was

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ncreased investor scrutiny regarding financial statements and the audit process.

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Which of the following is a limitation of ratio analysis?

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Ratios indicates there is a problems but it does not indicate what is the problem

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The number of times interest earned is a

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solvency ratio.

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If current liabilities exceed current assets, then the:

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current ratio will be less than one

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Distribution Goods And Services Marketing Sports Marketing

Glencoe Entrepreneurship: Building a Business Chapter 10 Vocabulary – Flashcards 17 terms

Jay Barber

17 terms

Preview

Glencoe Entrepreneurship: Building a Business Chapter 10 Vocabulary – Flashcards

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Marketing Plan

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A blueprint used by a business to guide its marketing activities to a desired conclusion.

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Marketing Objectives

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Goals a business wants to accomplish through its marketing efforts.

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Marketing Mix

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Made up of 5 marketing strategies you will use to reach your market.

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Brand

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Name, symbol, or design used to identify a product.

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Package

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Physical container or wrapper that holds the product.

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Label

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Part of the package used to present information.

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Product Positioning

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How consumers see your product compared to the competition's product.

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Product Mix

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All of the products a company makes or sells.

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Channel of Distribution

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The path a product takes from the producer to the final user.

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Intermediaries

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People or business that move Distribution products between producers and final users.

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Intensive Distribution

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Placement of a product in all suitable outlets.

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Selective Distribution

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Limits the number of sales outlets in a given area.

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Exclusive Distribution

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Limits the number of outlets to one per area.

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Marketing Tactics

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Activities that need to be taken to carry out the marketing plan.

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Private Brand

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Brand that is owned and initiated by a wholesaler or retailer.

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Gurantee

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An assurance of the quality of a product.

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Diversification

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Process of investing in products or businesses with which you are not currently involved.

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