Distribution Flashcards, test questions and answers
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We've found 23 Distribution tests
Deviation From The Mean
Distribution
Mean And Standard Deviation
Probability
Psychometrics
CS321 final – Flashcards 62 terms

Blake Terry
62 terms
Preview
CS321 final – Flashcards
question
what is the percentile rank that is equivalent to the mean?
answer
50
question
michael enrolls in a new school. here he is provided with an id number MKs5461 (a combination of letters and numbers) His id number represents what type of measurement scale?
answer
nominal
question
Aarons teacher noticed he was having difficulties reading in all of his classes. She referred him for sp.ed services immeadiately. What model of assessment is Aaron's teacher following?
answer
historical model
question
mr. kohl teaches creative writing for fourth grade students. He collects student stories over the course of the year to demonstrate the progress his students make. At the end of the year, he creates a book for all of their short studies for them to keep. Mr. Kohl is utilizing what type of assessment?
answer
portfolio assessment
question
The Neverland School has developed a rubric for the teachers to utilize when scoring their student's final exam essays. Two separate teachers utilizing the same rubric score each essay. Using the rubric; if Mrs. Brown gives Leo's essay a 5 out of 5 and Mrs. Pink give the same essay a 2 out of 5, what is this assessment lacking?
answer
inter rater reliability
question
The school based team has decided that Arianna would benefit from a comprehensive evaluation to determine the need of additional services. The team provides a letter to the parents, fully explaining the educational activities and testing that will be conducted. The letter is written in Spanish since they speak minimal English. This is an example of what
answer
informed consent
question
Students who participated in the science fair were ranked by category and received first-, second-, and third-place ribbons. This is an example of what type of scale?
answer
ordinal
question
John's teacher, Mr. Banker, sees that John continues to have difficulty in math. Mr. Banker decides to look over John's last 5 tests and homework assignments to see if he can find a pattern of John's mistakes. Mr. Banker hopes that if he can identify the pattern, he can narrow his focus on how to help John. This is an example of
answer
error analysis
question
Claire and David are second year video media students. Throughout the year they have learned many skills in regards to video production, editing and performance. For their final project they were required to demonstrate all the skills they have learned and develop a 30 minute long video about the history of the school. What type of assessment is the media teacher utilizing?
answer
performance based assessment
question
Student Spelling Test Scores Mary 76 Allison 48 John 72 Thomas 76 Steve 52 Dylan 50
answer
mean score - 62 mode - 76 range - 28
question
Eddy's individualized reading program provides quizzes after every 3 lessons. The reading program has a set criteria for mastery. If Eddy does not show mastery of the skills introduced in these lessons, he cannot move forward in the program. He will continue to work on these skills until he is able to demonstrate mastery during the next assessment. The type of assessment being utilized here is
answer
criteria referenced assessment
question
Ella is a child with a disability, who requires a 1:1 aide for mobility and safety issues The school district informs her parents that she can attend her home elementary school. However, the district will not pay to have an aide with her. If the parents wish for Ella to attend that school, they must pay a fee for the additional services. What component of IDEA does this violate?
answer
FAPE free appropriate public education
question
Elizabeth's teacher gives a spelling test at the end of each week to determine student mastery of the words. This type of assessment is considered a
answer
curriculum based assessment
question
The focus of IDEA on including students in the general education environment is known as
answer
LRE
question
This process is used when effective, research-based interventions are not successful in the general education classroom and document what strategies and assessments are being used to support instruction.
answer
response to intervention RTI
question
Establishing inter rater reliability is especially important when test data are
answer
subjective
question
This type of assessment is often associated with NCLB and federal funding.
answer
high stakes testing
question
Practice effects may be a problem when studying the results of which of the following?
answer
test retest reliability
question
Which on of the following is NOT an example of a derived score?
answer
raw score
question
What are Z scores (standard scores)?
answer
Used to describe a score in terms of where it fits into an overall group of scores.
question
Standard deviations are broken down into 9 equal parts. These parts are called
answer
stanine
question
ABC Publishing Company is creating a new standardized test for third grade English Language Arts. Prior to distribution of the test, they administer the test to 2000 third grade students nationwide. They use these scores to assist in understanding the average performance of the students. What are these students called?
answer
norm group
question
In addition to having difficulty with academics, Matthew has difficulty with taking care of himself and how to engage In appropriate social behaviors in different environments and situations. What type of assessment should be given to Matthew?
answer
adaptive behavior scale
question
Jennifer is taking a standardized spelling test. Jennifer answers questions one through twenty correctly. She answers questions 21-25 incorrectly. The manual says that after 4 incorrect responses, you should discontinue administration of the test. What does this scenario represent
answer
ceiling
question
Mr. Hayes has just sat down to score Mary's achievement test. He has calculated all the raw scores for each domain. What must he determine in order to locate the correct norm table comparative to her same aged peers
answer
chronological age
question
Mr. Ray has concerns about the progress of one of his students. He is unsure if he should provide a full standardized assessment. What might he use first
answer
screening test
question
Mrs. Johnson needed to examine Marcus using the WRAT -4. When they sat down to conduct the assessment, Mrs. Johnson could not find the directions for administration and the norm tables. What was the testing kit missing
answer
test manual
question
Mrs. K is concerned about one of her student's progress. Avery does not appear to be making the gains that are expected of her in her second grade class within the area of reading. Mrs. K has tried many different teaching strategies but they have not been successful. Mrs. K wants to know the specific areas where Avery's breakdown is occurring. What type of test should Mrs.K administer
answer
diagnostic test
question
The WIAT iii is what type of assessment
answer
achievement test
question
What does the examiner need to determine before he can determine a students standard score
answer
raw score
question
The Blank School District administers standardized norm referenced tests twice yearly. These tests compare their students to the same aged students across the country in regard to general academics. However, Mr. Shaw teaches additional curriculum subjects. What might Mrs. Shaw administer to determine if the students were making gains in these areas as well
answer
curriculum based assessment
question
The RTI tier that utilizes intensive methods or strategies is what?
answer
Tier 3
question
Mr. Greene administered Jaime the WIAT iii. Once scored, he noticed that the numerical operations section was extremely lower than the others. What can he do to see exactly where Jaime might need help in this area
answer
conduct an error analysis
question
Using the WISC-IV, which of the following ranges would a full scale score of 117 fall
answer
high average
question
Which of the following sections is typically first in a psychoeducational report
answer
identifying data
question
A curriculum based measurement evaluates student performance against what
answer
an expected rate of progress through the year
question
Assessment for learning is called what
answer
formative assessment
question
An informal assessment should not be what
answer
static
question
When interpreting tests results, comparing a student to a peer norm group is called what?
answer
inter-individual interpretation
question
Which one is not recommended to be included in an educational report
answer
peer observation
question
Dr. Davis is performing a re evaluation on Mark. He wants to administer several tests to obtain a true reflection of Mark's abilities across all domains. What might this be called
answer
cross battery assessment
question
Mrs. McCarthy administered the WRAT 4 to Matthew on October 10, 2012. Matthew's date of birth was May 25, 2003. What is Matthew's chronological age
answer
9 years 4 months
question
This is comparing a student with his or her own performance
answer
intra-individual interpretation
question
The evaluator had administered the WIAT to Paige. During the assessment, Paige often cried and ran away from the testing table. Where in the assessment report would the evaluator note this
answer
behavioral observations
question
Assessing one's ability to function in various environments requires measuring what
answer
adaptive behavior
question
Problem solving skills and the ability to function effectively within various settings is called what
answer
intelligence
question
A standardized test commonly used to measure achievement is called what
answer
WIAT 3
question
As a result of the Test of Non Verbal Intelligence, Thomas received an overall IQ score of 82. When you present the results you would describe Thomas' performance as what
answer
low average
question
I.Q. stands for what?
answer
Intelligence Quotient
question
what is the difference between testing and assessment?
answer
Testing is one method of assessment used to evaluate student progress, outcomes and needs. Assessment includes many formal and informal methods of evaluating students. Happens every day to inform the teacher about needed interventions.
question
Educational Accountability
answer
Improving education and achievement for all students, especially for student who are culturally, linguistically, and ethnically diverse. Federal regulations require additional procedures and funding to address the disproportionate number of students from various ethnic groups who are found eligible for special education. disproportionality - When students from various ethnic or linguistically different groups are under- or overrepresented in receiving special education services. overrepresentation - When too many students are found to be eligible from a specific ethnic group
question
aptitude test
answer
test designed to measure strength talent or ability in a particular area or domain
question
Historical & Contemporary Models of Assessment
answer
Historical: Teacher noticed a student was having difficulty. Specific deficits that appear to be the cause of a student's difficulty were identified. Student was referred to a multidisciplinary team who evaluated the student. Eligibility was determined. An (IEP) was put in place for eligible students. Outcomes Increasing rates of children referred for assessment and subsequently receiving special education services. Contemporary: Emphasizes finding a solution rather than determining eligibility or finding an alternative placement. Various methods of intervention and assessment are utilized and documented before referral and evaluation for special education services. Interventions may or may not include special education services.
question
Norm-âReferenced Test
answer
Norm-âReferenced Tests performance can be compared with the typical or average performance of students of the same age or grade. can be used to determine if the student's ability or skill level is significantly above or below age or grade peers. For example, within the gifted range of intellectual ability or significant cognitive challenges.
question
Standardized Tests
answer
Have uniform procedures for administration and scoring. Allow comparison of student scores by age, grade level, local and national norms. Attempt to include material common across most classrooms.
question
item pool
answer
A large collection of test items thought to effectively represent a particular domain or content area.
question
levels of measurement in assessment
answer
ratio - absolute 0 interval - distance is meaningful ordinal - attributes can be ordered nominal - attributes are only named; weakest
question
reliability
answer
Test-âretest reliability âthe trait being measured is one that is stable over time. Equivalent forms reliability- Two forms of the same instrument are used. Items are matched for difficulty. Split-âHalf Reliability- Takes all available items on a test and divides the items in half Interrater reliability- The consistency of a test across examiners
question
formative assessment
answer
ongoing assessment that is completed during the acquisition of a skill
question
summative assessment
answer
assessment that is completed at the conclusion of an instructional period to determine the level of acquisition
question
Criterion-referenced tests and assessments
answer
Criterion-referenced tests and assessments are designed to measure student performance against a fixed set of predetermined criteria or learning standards
question
Cross-battery assessment
answer
refers to the process by which psychologists use information from multiple test batteries (i.e., various IQ tests) to help guide diagnostic decisions and to gain a fuller picture of an individual's cognitive abilities
Data
Distribution
Introductory Sociology
Measure Of Central Tendency
Prisoners And Guards
Sociology
SOCIOLOGY Ch. 1, 2, 3 – Flashcards 167 terms

Ben Powell
167 terms
Preview
SOCIOLOGY Ch. 1, 2, 3 – Flashcards
question
the term for the value that occurs most often in a series of numbers
answer
mode
question
Which research method asks subjects to respond to a series of items on a questionnaire or in an interview?
answer
the survey method
question
Which of the founding sociologists urged sociologists to understand a social setting from the point of view of the people in it?
answer
Max Weber
question
If you were to conduct sociological research that closely follows the logic of science, which research method would you MOST likely use?
answer
the experiment method
question
When did sociology become established as an academic discipline in the United States?
answer
about 1900
question
Interpretive sociology is sociology that...
answer
focuses on the meaning people attach to behavior
question
Sociologists cannot identify "laws of society" that allow us to precisely predict the behavior of an individual because
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human behavior may be patterned, but it is also spontaneous
question
If marginality encourages sociological thinking, we would expect people in which category listed below to make the most use of the sociological perspective?
answer
politicians
question
Racial discrimination in professional sports is evident today in
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the positions typically played by white and black players
question
Three campus roommates are talking about why they are in college. A sociological view of going to college highlights the effect of
answer
only class, because college students tend to come from families with above-average incomes
question
Which pioneering sociologist founded Chicago's Hull House to assist immigrants and was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize?
answer
Jane Addams
question
Identify the three sociologists who played a part in the development of sociology's structural-functional approach
answer
-Auguste Comte -Herbert Spencer -Emile Durkheim
question
The theoretical approach in sociology that assumes society is a complex system whose parts work together to promote solidarity is the
answer
structural-functional approach
question
Which term is based on a symbolic-interaction analysis of sports?
answer
Stacking
question
E. Digby Baltzell's historical study, Puritan Boston and Quaker Philadelphia, illustrates which research method?
answer
the existing sources method
question
Most of today's sociologists agree with Auguste Comte's claim that science has an important place in
answer
Sociology
question
The chapter's sociological analysis of childbearing around the world suggests that the number of children born to a woman reflects
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whether she lives in a poor or rich society
question
which example illustrates a micro-level focus?
answer
2 people on a plane
question
Lois Benjamin's investigation of racism may be criticized because
answer
question
If you read a study that draws conclusions about all of humanity based on research using only males as subjects, you would correctly point to the problem called
answer
androcentricity
question
In the United States, which gender has a high suicide rate?
answer
white males
question
Sociological research may be interesting, but
answer
it is of little use in shaping public policy, including legislation
question
studying other societies is a good way to learn
answer
about our own way of life
question
To say that a social pattern is "dysfunctional" means that
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it has more than one function for the operation of society. FALSE
question
People with lower social standing are usually more likely to
answer
see the world from a sociological perspective than people who are well off. TRUE
question
Auguste Comte was a positivist who believed that there were laws of society
answer
in the same way that there are laws of physics that describe the operation of the natural world. TRUE
question
In the US, secondary schools place students
answer
in college preparatory tracks that partially reflect the social background of their families. TRUE
question
What are 3 basic theoretical approaches
answer
-structural-functional -symbolic-interaction -social-conflict
question
using the symbolic-interaction approach, sports
answer
becomes less a system than an on-going process
question
Following the thinking of C. Wright Mills, we would expect the sociological imagination to be more widespread in a population
answer
during times of social crisis
question
Qualitative research has special appeal to investigators who favor the _________ approach.
answer
symbolic-interaction
question
A statement that explains how and why specific facts are related is called a(n)
answer
theory
question
What process involves deciding exactly what is to be measured when assigning value to a variable?
answer
Operationalizing
question
_____ is a way of understanding the world based on science.
answer
positivism
question
Herbert Spencer described human society as a complex system having much in common with
answer
the human body
question
What is an accurate criticism of the structural-functional approach?
answer
it ignores inequality
question
A small number of people that are used to represent a much larger population is called a
answer
sample group
question
sociological generalizations, unlike stereotypes, are:
answer
- not applied to all individuals in a category - based on all available facts - offered fair-mindedly with an interested in the truth
question
An apparent, although false, association between two variables that is caused by a third variable is called
answer
spurious
question
The social-conflict approach sometimes receives criticism for
answer
being openly political
question
William Foote Whyte's study of Cornerville (Street Corner Society) used which sociological research method?
answer
participant observation
question
Which of the following is a manifest function of sports?
answer
providing recreation and physical conditioning
question
In the process of measurement, reliability refers to
answer
whether repeating the measurement yields consistent results
question
Which sociological research method is MOST likely to produce quantitative data that will identify cause-and-effect relationships?
answer
existing sources is most likely
question
Comte described the earliest human societies as being at which stage of historical development?
answer
theological stage
question
A criticism of the symbolic-interaction approach is that it
answer
ignores the influence of factors such as culture, class, gender, and race
question
If you were to attend a New York Ballet performance, you would be experiencing
answer
high culture
question
The claim that U.S. culture is wrongly dominated by European, and especially English, way of life characterizes our culture as
answer
eurocentric
question
The chapter's opening story of the diversity initiative at Charles Schwab & Co. shows us that
answer
learning more about cultural diversity can help a company boost sales
question
This is true about technology
answer
Advanced technology improves life in some ways, but also threatens life in other ways.
question
Cultural change is set in motion by these 3 ways:
answer
invention discovery diffusion
question
multiculturalism
answer
a perspective recognizing the cultural diversity of the United States and promoting equality of all cultural traditions
question
a good example of cultural lag is
answer
gaining the ability to modify genetic patterns in humans before understanding the possible social consequences of doing so
question
ethnocentrism refers to:
answer
judging another culture using the standards of your own culture
question
homo sapien =
answer
"intelligent person"
question
The fact that some married men and married women are sexually unfaithful to their spouses is an example of _____ culture, while the fact that most adults say they support the idea of sexual fidelity is an example of _____ culture.
answer
real; ideal
question
Low-income countries have cultures that value
answer
survival
question
The United States is the most _______ of all countries.
answer
multicultural
question
Core values of U.S. culture
answer
are sometimes in conflict with one another
question
the term for the ways of thinking, ways of acting, and material objects that together form a people's way of life
answer
culture
question
an act of kindness, such as opening the door for an elderly man, illustrates conforming to
answer
folkways
question
Elements of social control in everyday life include:
answer
-shame -guilt -sanctions, including the response of other people
question
the spread of cultural traits from one society to another is called:
answer
diffusion
question
cultural transmission refers to the process of
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passing cultural patterns from one generation to another
question
sociologists define a symbol as
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anything that carries meaning to people who share a culture
question
the intangible world of ideas created by members of a society is referred to as
answer
nonmaterial culture
question
subculture is more at odds
answer
with dominant culture than counterculture. FALSE
question
Most of the people in the US share the value that everyone should not only have equality of opportunity
answer
but also equality in all aspects of social standing. FALSE
question
mores
answer
norms that have great moral significance
question
for at least 12,000 years
answer
humans have used culture as a strategy for survival TRUE
question
experiencing an unfamiliar culture can generate
answer
culture shock
question
The Census Bureau reports that only ten
answer
different languages are spoken in the US FALSE
question
standards that serve as broad guidelines for social living
answer
values
question
cultural change results from
answer
invention, discovery, and diffusion TRUE
question
cultural universals refer to
answer
patterns that are held by everyone in a society FALSE
question
People in the US tend to view
answer
the past as being better than the present FALSE
question
Businesses in this country can profit from recognizing the _________ ________ of the US population
answer
cultural diversity
question
values
answer
standards by which people who share culture define what is desirable, good and beautiful
question
other than English, which is the most widely-spoken language in the US?
answer
Spanish
question
__________ is an example of nonmaterial culture
answer
religion
question
about how many adults in the US speak a language other than English at home?
answer
60 Million
question
Experts have documented almost _______ languages around the world.
answer
7,000
question
__________ are rules about everyday, casual living; __________ are rules with great moral significance.
answer
mores; folkways
question
Culture acts as a constraint, limiting human freedom because
answer
much culture is habit that drives members of a society to repeat troubling patterns
question
Which theoretical approach is linked to the philosophical doctrine of materialism?
answer
the social-conflict approach
question
This is a statement that represents the emerging value in our society?
answer
"Work is important, but I want more time for leisure and personal growth."
question
subculture
answer
cultural patterns that set off a part of a society's population
question
understanding another culture on its own terms and using its own standards is called
answer
cultural relativism
question
Eating disorders are a result of how
answer
our society defines success and attractiveness among women TRUE
question
From a sociological point of view, "health" is sometimes
answer
a matter of having the same diseases as one's neighbors TRUE
question
Jonathan Kozol
answer
considers tracking as one of the "savage inequalities" of U.S. education.
question
About half of U.S. adults
answer
are now college graduates FALSE
question
Rather than creating violence, in most cases
answer
violence spills into schools from the surrounding society TRUE
question
gonorrhea and syphilis can be cured with
answer
penicillin
question
AIDS kills more people in the U.S. each year
answer
than diseases caused by cigarette smoking FALSE
question
About half of all physicians in the U.S.
answer
are women FALSE
question
most people with HIV begin to display symptoms
answer
about one month after being infected FALSE
question
In the United States, the infant mortality rate among low-income children
answer
is about the same as the rate for children of the wealthy FALSE
question
euthanasia
answer
assisting in the death of a person suffering from a terminal illness
question
Talcott Parsons
answer
claimed that society responds to illness by using the "sick role" to relieve ill people of many daily responsibilities
question
the most widespread health problem related to eating is
answer
obesity
question
an example of the advantage of cultural capital in the U.S. schooling is parents who
answer
-spend more time reading to their children -value schooling and encourage their children -encourage the development of imagination in their children
question
the greatest preventable cause of death in the U.S. is
answer
cigarette smoking
question
Assume that you support the school choice movement. What are you likely to say is the reason that U.S. public schools perform poorly?
answer
schools have no competition
question
Getting into college in Japan, compared to the United States, is more a matter of
answer
performance on achievement tests
question
Which world region is experiencing the most severe epidemic of AIDS?
answer
sub-Saharan Africa
question
There is a shortage of ________ in the U.S. which is an important medical issue.
answer
nurses
question
In _____ the government controls most of the health care.
answer
China
question
According to the World Health Organization, about how many of the world's people suffer from serious illness caused by poverty
answer
1 billion
question
Which concept refers to the practice of including people with disabilities in regular educational classes and programs?
answer
mainstreaming
question
A symbolic-interaction approach to health and medicine emphasizes
answer
the meaning people attach to health and illness
question
People over the age of twenty-five now account for about what percentage of all people in degree granting programs?
answer
40 percent
question
On which of the following continents do we find the MOST countries with high rates of illiteracy?
answer
Africa
question
Scientific medicine typically develops in
answer
industrial societies
question
magnet schools encourage
answer
students to specialize in specific areas of study
question
What is a latent function of schooling?
answer
providing child care
question
holistic medicine asserts that
answer
patients should rely on themselves-not just physicians-to ensure their health
question
The concept "socialized medicine" refers to
answer
a medical system mostly owned and operated by the government
question
_______ gradually led to dramatic improvement in human health
answer
industrialization
question
Regardless of the levels of school's funding, students who benefit from more _______ _____ would still do better
answer
cultural capital
question
The extent of schooling in a society is closely tied to its level of _______ ________
answer
economic development
question
More students graduate from high school in _____ than in the U.S.
answer
Japan
question
Heart disease and cancer are
answer
the leading killers in low income nations FALSE
question
From a social-conflict perspective, schooling in the United States transforms social privilege into
answer
personal merit
question
Social-conflict analysis claims the profit motive enhances the quality of
answer
medical care in the United States...FALSE
question
These factors have a strong link to life expectancy
answer
race gender social class
question
In 2009, men accounted for what share of all US undergraduate college students?
answer
43%
question
In poor nations around the world, about what percentage of children die before their first birthday?
answer
10%
question
What is the MOST common way people in the US pay for medical health care
answer
private insurance programs
question
The problem of functional illiteracy means that
answer
many young people leave school without having learned basic skills
question
What category of people in the US is especially likely to smoke cigarettes?
answer
divorced people
question
Comparing school performance, researcher have found that the main cause of the achievement gap between rich and poor children is
answer
differences in home environment
question
The topic of _________ _______ is of greatest interest to sociologist guided by symbolic-interaction approach?
answer
psychosomatic disorders
question
The concept of _________ is grounded not in biology but in culture. In high-income countries, this stage is extended.
answer
CHILDHOOD
question
The emotional and social turmoil of _________ results from cultural inconsistency in defining people who are not children but not yet adults. This varies by social class.
answer
ADOLESCENCE
question
___________ is the stage of life when most accomplishments take place. Although personality is now formed, it continues to change with new life experiences.
answer
ADULTHOOD
question
_____ ____ is defined as much by culture as biology. In high-income countries, it's a time of disengagement and loss of social importance.
answer
OLD AGE
question
Acceptance of ______ ___ ______ is part of socialization for the elderly. This process typically involves five stages: denial, anger, negotiation, resignation, and acceptance.
answer
DEATH and DYING
question
gerontocracy
answer
a form of social organization in which the elderly have the most wealth, power, and prestige.
question
anticipatory socialization
answer
learning that helps a person achieve a desired position
question
looking glass self
answer
Charles Horton Cooley's term for a self-image based on how we think others see us.
question
resocialization is a two part process:
answer
-breaking down inmates' existing identity -building a new self through a system of rewards and punishments
question
socialization is a matter of _______ rather than ______.
answer
nurture; nature
question
More than _________ of the world's children work, half of them full time; some do work that is dangerous to their physical or mental health.
answer
160 million
question
What does the sociological perspective show us about whom any individual chooses to marry?
answer
the operation of society guides many of our personal choices.
question
The personal value of studying sociology includes:
answer
-seeing the opportunities and constraints in our lives -the fact that it is good preparation for a number of careers --becoming more active participants in society
question
The discipline of sociology first developed in
answer
countries experiencing rapid social change
question
Which early sociologist coined the term sociology in 1838?
answer
Auguste Comte
question
Sociology's social-conflict approach draws attention to
answer
patterns of social inequality
question
Empirical evidence refers to:
answer
information we can verify with our senses
question
When trying to measure people's "social class" you would have to keep in mind that
answer
there are several ways to operationalize this variable
question
Interpretive sociology is a research orientation that
answer
focuses on the meanings people attach to behavior
question
In research using participant observation, the problem of "breaking in" to a setting is often solved with the help of a
answer
key informant
question
The critical sociology research orientation is linked most closely to which theoretical approach?
answer
social conflict approach
question
Ideas created by members of a society are part of
answer
nonmaterial culture
question
U.S culture holds a strong belief in
answer
individuality
question
Cheating on a final exam is an example of violating campus
answer
mores
question
Which of the following describes the concept of ethnocentrism?
answer
judging an unfamiliar culture using the standards of your own culture
question
In human history, the "dawn of civilization" took place with the development of
answer
agriculture
question
Kingsley-Davis's study of Anna shows that
answer
without social experience, a child never develops personality
question
Lawrence Kohlberg explored socialization by studying
answer
moral reasoning
question
Gilligan added to Kohlberg's findings by showing that
answer
girls and boys typically use different standards of deciding what is right and what is wrong
question
Why is the family so important to the socialization process?
answer
-they provide necessary care for infants and children -they give children social identity in terms of class, ethnicity and religion -parent greatly affect a child's self-concept
question
Compared to higher income parents, lower-income parents are more likely to emphasize
answer
obedience
question
In global perspective, which statement is correct about childhood?
answer
rich societies extend childhood much longer than poor societies do
question
Members od high-income societies typically define people in old age as
answer
less socially important than younger adults
question
According to Erving Goffman, the purpose of a total institution is
answer
to radically change a person's personality or behavior
Distribution
Models
Probability
ISDS Exam2 Module D – Flashcards 73 terms

Jacob Herring
73 terms
Preview
ISDS Exam2 Module D – Flashcards
question
1. Waiting-line models are useful to operations in such diverse settings as service systems, maintenance activities, and shop-floor control.
answer
True (Introduction, easy)
question
2. The two characteristics of the waiting line itself are whether its length is limited or unlimited and the discipline of the people or items in it.
answer
True (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, easy)
question
3. A waiting-line system has three parts: the size of the arrival population, the behavior of arrivals, and the statistical distribution of arrivals.
answer
False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, easy)
question
4. A copy center has five machines that serve many customers throughout the day; the waiting-line system for copy service has an infinite population while the waiting-line system for copier maintenance has a finite population
answer
True (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, easy)
question
5. In queuing problems, arrival rates are generally described by the normal probability distribution.
answer
False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)
question
6. Balk and renege are elements of queue discipline.
answer
False (Characteristics of a waiting-line problem, easy)
question
7. A hospital emergency room always follows a first-in, first-served queue discipline in the interest of fairness.
answer
False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)
question
8. In queuing problems, the term "renege" refers to the fact that some customers leave the queue before service is completed.
answer
True (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)
question
9. A waiting-line system with one waiting line and three sequential processing stages is a multichannel single-phase system.
answer
False (Characteristics of a waiting-line problem, easy)
question
10. If the service time within a queuing system is constant, the service rate can be easily described by a negative exponential distribution.
answer
False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)
question
11. The cost of waiting decreases as the service level increases.
answer
True (Queuing costs, moderate)
question
12. LIFS (last-in, first-served) is a common queue discipline, most often seen where people, not objects, form the waiting line.
answer
False (Characteristics of a waiting-line problem, moderate)
question
13. A bank office with five tellers, each with a separate line of customers, exhibits the characteristics of a multi-phase queuing system.
answer
False (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)
question
14. In the analysis of queuing models, the Poisson distribution often describes arrival rates and service times are often described by the negative exponential distribution.
answer
True (Characteristics of a waiting-line system, moderate)
question
15. The study of waiting lines calculates the cost of providing good service but does not value the cost of customers' waiting time.
answer
False (Queuing costs, moderate)
question
16. As the average service rate grows larger, the slope of the distribution of service time probabilities grows larger and larger, eventually becoming positive.
answer
False (The variety of queuing models, easy)
question
17. Four of the most widely used waiting line modelsâM/M/1 or A, M/M/S or B, M/D/1 or C, and Limited population or Dâall share three characteristics: Poisson arrivals, FIFO discipline, and exponential service times.
answer
False (The variety of queuing models, moderate)
question
18. In the M/M/1 waiting line model with an arrival rate of 2 per hour and a service rate of 6 per hour, the utilization factor for the system is approximately 0.333.
answer
True (The variety of queuing models, easy)
question
19. The greater the margin by which the arrival rate exceeds the service rate, the better the performance of the waiting line.
answer
False (The variety of queuing models, easy)
question
20. An M/M/1 model and an M/D/1 model each have an arrival rate of 1 per minute and a service rate of 3 per minute; the average queue length of the M/M/1 will be twice that of the M/D/1.
answer
True (The variety of queuing models, moderate)
question
21. A finite population waiting line model has an average service time T of 100 minutes and an average time between service requirements U of 400 minutes; the service factor X is 0.25.
answer
False (The variety of queuing models, moderate)
question
22. Study of waiting-line models helps operations managers better understand a. service systems such as bank teller stations b. maintenance activities that might repair broken machinery c. shop-floor control activities d. service systems such as amusement park rides e. all of the above
answer
e. all of the above
question
23. Which of the following is not a common queuing situation? a. grocery shoppers being served by checkout clerks b. commuters slowing or stopping at toll plazas to pay highway tolls c. machinery waiting to be repaired or maintained d. parcel delivery truck following its computer-generated route e. patients in a health clinic waiting to see one of several doctors
answer
d. parcel delivery truck following its computer-generated route
question
24. In queuing problems, which of the following probability distributions is typically used to describe the number of arrivals per unit of time? a. binomial b. normal c. Poisson d. exponential e. lognormal
answer
c. Poisson
question
25. In queuing problems, which of the following probability distributions is typically used to describe the time to perform the service? a. binomial b. normal c. Poisson d. negative exponential e. lognormal
answer
d. negative exponential
question
26. The common measures of a queuing system's performance include a. probability that the service facility will be idle, average queue length, probability that the waiting time will exceed a specified duration b. average time each customer spends in the system, probability that the service system will be idle, average time each customer spends in the queue c. average queue length, maximum time a customer may spend in the queue, the utilization factor for the system d. average time each customer spends in the system, maximum queue length, probability of a specific number of customers in the system e. none of the above
answer
b. average time each customer spends in the system, probability that the service system will be idle, average time each customer spends in the queue
question
27. The shopper who says to himself, "I've waited too long in this line. I don't really need to buy this product today," and leaves the store is an illustration of which element of arrival behavior? a. random arrival b. renege c. random departure d. balk e. none of the above
answer
b. renege
question
28. A waiting line, or queuing, system has three parts, which are a. distribution of arrival times, discipline while waiting, and distribution of service times b. arrival rate, service rate, and utilization rate c. arrival discipline, queue discipline, and service sequencing d. arrival or inputs, queue discipline or the waiting line itself, and the service facility e. sequencing policy, penalty for reneging, and expediting of arrivals
answer
d. arrival or inputs, queue discipline or the waiting line itself, and the service facility
question
29. The source population is considered to be either ________ in its size. a. finite or infinite b. fixed or variable c. known or unknown d. random or scheduled e. small or large
answer
a. finite or infinite
question
30. The potential restaurant customer who says to her husband, "The line looks too long; let's eat somewhere else," is an illustration of which element of queue discipline? a. first-in, first-out b. balk c. renege d. random departure e. none of the above
answer
b. balk
question
31. An airline ticket counter, with several agents for one line of customers, is an example of a a. single channel, single phase system b. single channel, multi-phase system c. multi-channel, single phase system d. multi-channel, multi-phase system e. none of the above
answer
c. multi-channel, single phase system
question
32. A concert hall, employing both ticket takers and ushers to seat patrons, behaves typically as a a. multi-channel, single phase system b. multi-channel, multi-phase system c. single channel, single phase system d. single channel, multi-phase system e. none of the above
answer
b. multi-channel, multi-phase system
question
33. If the food service for the university operates a cafeteria with a single serving line, that system behaves most like a a. single channel, single phase system b. single channel, multi-phase system c. multi-channel, single phase system d. multi-channel, multi-phase system e. none of the above
answer
b. single channel, multi-phase system
question
34. The sign at the bank that reads "Wait here for the first available teller" suggests the use of a _____waiting line system. a. single phase b. multi-phase c. single channel d. multi-channel e. multiple line
answer
d. multi-channel
question
35. A small hair styling salon has several operators. While customers do not have appointments, each is waiting to be served by a specific operator. This scenario provides an example of a a. multiple-channel, multi-phase, limited queue length b. single-channel, multi-phase, limited queue length c. multi-channel, limited queue length d. multiple single-channel systems, limited queue length e. none of the above
answer
d. multiple single-channel systems, limited queue length
question
36. A large discount store and supermarket has a hair styling salon on its premises. The salon has several operators. Salon customers can shop in other parts of the store until their name is called for salon service, at which time the customer will be served by the next available stylist. This scenario provides an example of a a. multiple-channel, multi-phase, unlimited queue length b. single-channel, multi-phase, limited queue length c. multi-channel, unlimited queue length d. multiple single-channel systems, limited queue length e. none of the above
answer
c. multi-channel, unlimited queue length
question
37. A university has only one technician in the repair station to care for the computers in the student labs. This system is most likely a. a single channel, limited queue system b. a single channel, limited population system c. a multi-channel, limited queue system d. a multi-channel, limited population system e. none of the above
answer
b. a single channel, limited population system
question
38. "Women and children first!" declares the captain of a sinking ship. His directive employs which of the following queue disciplines in disembarking passengers? a. priority b. random c. FIFO or FIFS d. LIFO or LIFS e. none of the above
answer
a. priority
question
39. A university has several technicians in the repair station to care for the computers in the student labs. This system is most likely a. single channel, limited queue system b. single channel, limited population system c. multi-channel, limited queue system d. multi-channel, limited population system e. none of the above
answer
d. multi-channel, limited population system
question
40. A system in which the customer receives service from only one station and then exits the system is a. a single-phase system b. a single channel system c. a multiple-channel system d. a multiple-phase system e. none of the above
answer
a. a single-phase system
question
41. In a repetitive focus factory, the number of phases found in the system might refer to a. the number of successive operations that have to be performed on a part b. the number of machines doing the same necessary operations c. the number of parts waiting to be processed d. all of the above depending on the layout e. none of the above
answer
a. the number of successive operations that have to be performed on a part
question
42. Which of the following is a measure of queue performance? a. utilization factor b. average queue length c. probability of a specific number of customers in the system d. average waiting time in the line e. all of the above
answer
e. all of the above
question
43. Which of the following is most likely to be served in a last-in, first-served (LIFS) queue discipline? a. customers checking out at a grocery store b. the in-basket on a manager's desk c. patients entering a hospital emergency room d. patrons waiting to be seated in a casual-dining restaurant e. all of the above
answer
b. the in-basket on a manager's desk
question
44. In a repetitive focus factory, the number of channels available for the processing of a certain part would likely refer to a. the number of successive operations that have to be performed on that part b. the number of machines doing the same necessary operations c. the number of parts waiting to be processed d. all of the above depending on the layout e. none of the above
answer
b. the number of machines doing the same necessary operations
question
45. A waiting line meeting the assumptions of M/M/1 has average time between arrivals of 20 minutes and services items in an average of 10 minutes each; the utilization factor is approximately a. 0.25 b. 0.33 c. 0.50 d. 0.67 e. 3.00
answer
c. 0.50
question
46. A waiting line model meeting the assumptions of M/M/1 has an arrival rate of 2 per hour and a service rate of 6 per hour; the utilization factor for the system is approximately a. 0.25 b. 0.33 c. 0.50 d. 0.67 e. 3.00
answer
b. 0.33
question
47. As the average service rate increases, the shape of the negative exponential distribution of service times a. grows steadily steeper without limit b. has an ever steeper slope that eventually turns positive c. becomes less gently curved as it moves ever closer to the graph origin d. takes on a more uniform slope over a wide range of service times e. changes in appearance from convex to concave
answer
c. becomes less gently curved as it moves ever closer to the graph origin
question
48. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a Model A or M/M/1 system? a. exponential service time pattern b. single number of channels c. single number of phases d. Poisson arrival rate pattern e. limited population size
answer
e. limited population size
question
49. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a Model B or M/M/S system? a. unlimited population size b. single channel c. single queue d. single phase e. Poisson arrival rate pattern
answer
b. single channel
question
50. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a Model C or M/D/1 system? a. single channel b. single phase c. Poisson arrival rate pattern d. exponential service time pattern e. unlimited population size
answer
d. exponential service time pattern
question
51. In the basic queuing model (M/M/1), service times are described by a. continuous probability distributions b. negative exponential probability distributions c. Poisson probability distributions d. normal probability distributions e. lognormal distributions
answer
b. negative exponential probability distributions
question
52. In the basic queuing model (M/M/1), arrival rates are distributed by a. continuous probability distributions b. normal probability distributions c. negative exponential probability distributions d. Poisson distributions e. lognormal distributions
answer
d. Poisson distributions
question
53. A single-phase waiting-line system meets the assumptions of constant service time or M/D/1. Units arrive at this system every 10 minutes on average. Service takes a constant 4 minutes. The average length of the queue Lq is a. 0.4 b. 0.133 c. 4.167 d. 4.583 e. 6
answer
b. 0.133
question
54. Which of the following is not an assumption of the M/M/1 model? a. The first customers to arrive are the first customers served. b. Each arrival comes independently of the arrival immediately before and after that arrival. c. The population from which the arrivals come is very large or infinite in size. d. Customers do not renege. e. Service times occur according to a normal curve.
answer
e. Service times occur according to a normal curve.
question
55. A single-phase waiting-line system meets the assumptions of constant service time or M/D/1. Units arrive at this system every 12 minutes on average. Service takes a constant 8 minutes. The average length of the queue Lq is approximately a. 0.67 b. 2.5 c. 4.5 d. 5.0 e. 7.5
answer
a. 0.67
question
56. A single-phase waiting-line system meets the assumptions of constant service time or M/D/1. Units arrive at this system every 12 minutes on average. Service takes a constant 8 minutes. The average number in the system Ls is approximately a. 2.25 b. 2.5 c. 3.0 d. 1.33 e. 5.0/
answer
d. 1.33
question
57. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 2 and = 3. The average number in the system is a. 2/3 b. 1 c. 1.5 d. 2 e. 6
answer
d. 2
question
58. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 3 and = 2. The average number in the system is a. -3 b. 3 c. 0.667 d. 150 percent e. growing without limit, since is larger than .
answer
e. growing without limit, since is larger than .
question
59. Students arrive randomly at the help desk of the computer lab. There is only one service agent, and the time required for inquiry varies from student to student. Arrival rates have been found to follow the Poisson distribution, and the service times follow the negative exponential distribution. The average arrival rate is 12 students per hour, and the average service rate is 20 students per hour. What is the average service time for this problem? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 5 minutes e. 20 minutes
answer
c. 3 minutes
question
60. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 10 and = 12. The average number in the system is a. 0.83 b. 2 c. 2.5 d. 5 e. 6
answer
d. 5
question
61. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 2 and = 8. The average number in the system Ls is ______ and the utilization of the system is _______. a. 3; 100 percent b. 0.33; 25 percent c. 4; 33 percent d. 6; 25 percent e. 4; 25 percent
answer
b. 0.33; 25 percent
question
62. Four of the most widely used waiting line modelsâM/M/1 or A, M/M/S or B, M/D/1 or C, and Limited population or Dâall share three characteristics, which are a. normal arrivals, FIFO discipline, and normal service times b. Poisson arrivals, FIFO discipline, and a single-service phase c. Poisson arrivals, FIFO discipline, and exponential service times d. Poisson arrivals, no queue discipline, and exponential service times e. none of these
answer
b. Poisson arrivals, FIFO discipline, and a single-service phase
question
63. A queuing model which follows the M/M/1 assumptions has = 2 and = 3. The average waiting time in the system is a. 2/3 b. 1 c. 1.5 d. 2 e. 6
answer
b. 1
question
64. Students arrive randomly at the help desk of the computer lab. There is only one service agent, and the time required for inquiry varies from student to student. Arrival rates have been found to follow the Poisson distribution, and the service times follow the negative exponential distribution. The average arrival rate is 12 students per hour, and the average service rate is 20 students per hour. What is the utilization factor? a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50% e. 60%
answer
e. 60%
question
65. A finite population waiting line model has an average service time T of 100 minutes and an average time between service requirements U of 400 minutes; the service factor X is a. 0.20 b. 0.25 c. 4 d. 5 e. 300 minutes
answer
a. 0.20
question
66. A finite population waiting line model has an average service time T of 200 minutes and an average time between service requirements U of 300 minutes; the service factor X is a. 0.20 b. 0.40 c. 0.60 d. 0.67 e. 2.5
answer
b. 0.40
question
67. Students arrive randomly at the help desk of the computer lab. There is only one service agent, and the time required for inquiry varies from student to student. Arrival rates have been found to follow the Poisson distribution, and the service times follow the negative exponential distribution. The average arrival rate is 12 students per hour, and the average service rate is 20 students per hour. A student has just entered the system. How long is she expected to stay in the system? a. 0.125 minute b. 0.9 minute c. 1.5 minutes d. 7.5 minutes e. 0.075 hour
answer
d. 7.5 minutes
question
68. Students arrive randomly at the help desk of the computer lab. There is only one service agent, and the time required for inquiry varies from student to student. Arrival rates have been found to follow the Poisson distribution, and the service times follow the negative exponential distribution. The average arrival rate is 12 students per hour, and the average service rate is 20 students per hour. How many students, on the average, will be waiting in line at any one time? a. 0.9 students b. 1.5 students c. 3 students d. 4 students e. 36 students
answer
a. 0.9 students
question
69. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/S has = 5, = 4, and M = 2. For these values, Po is approximately 0.23077 and Ls is approximately 2.05128. The average time a unit spends waiting in this system a. is approximately 0.1603 b. is approximately 0.2083 c. is approximately 0.4103 d. is approximately 0.8013 e. cannot be calculated because is larger than
answer
a. is approximately 0.1603
question
70. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/1 has = 1, = 4. For this system, Po is ______ and utilization is ________. a. 0.75; 0.25 b. 0.80; .20 c. -3; -4 d. 3; 4 e. none of these
answer
a. 0.75; 0.25
question
71. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/S has = 5, = 4, and M = 2. For these values, Po is approximately 0.23077 and Ls is approximately 2.05128. The average number of units waiting in the queue a. is approximately 0.1603 b. is approximately 0.4103 c. is approximately 0.8013 d. is approximately 1.0417 e. cannot be calculated because is larger than
answer
c. is approximately 0.8013
question
72. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/1 has = 1, = 4. For this system, the probability of more than two units in the system is approximately a. zero b. 0.015625 c. 0.0625 d. 0.25 e. 0.9375
answer
b. 0.015625
question
73. A waiting-line system that meets the assumptions of M/M/1 has = 1, = 4. For this system, the probability of fewer than two units in the system is approximately a. 0.0625 b. 0.25 c. 0.75 d. 0.9375 e. certain
answer
d. 0.9375
Civil Law
Distribution
Drug Abuse Prevention
Pharmacy
Professions
Nevada State Pharmacy Law – Flashcards 115 terms

Jaxon Wilson
115 terms
Preview
Nevada State Pharmacy Law – Flashcards
question
The state board of pharmacy consists of how many members?
answer
7
question
The state board of pharmacy members are appointed by who?
answer
govenor
question
pharmacists on the state board must have at least how many years of experience
answer
5
question
members of the state board of pharmacy are appointed for what length of terms
answer
3 years
question
how many consecutive terms can a board member serve
answer
3
question
an applicant to become a registered pharmacist must pass the MPJE with what minimum score
answer
75
question
an applicant to become a registered pharmacist must complete at least how many intern hours
answer
1500
question
application for licensure is good for how long
answer
1 year
question
a temporary license in NV if granted is good for how long
answer
6 months
question
Every registered pharmacist, intern, and technician must give written notice to the executive secretary if they move within how long
answer
10 days
question
when does a pharmacist's certificate of registration expire
answer
October 31 of odd years
question
when do intern and technician certificates of registration expire
answer
October 31 of even years
question
T/F: If a pharmacist volutarily surrenders his license due to a disciplinary matter in another state, he can practice in NV
answer
F
question
If a technician applying for NV license is coming from a state that does not offer registration an applicant must accumulate _____ experience hours in that state, ____hours in this state, and ________.
answer
1500, 350, written statement of competency from the pharmacy manager
question
A tech in training has how long to accumulate the required hours
answer
24 months
question
Under direct supervision of a pharmacist a tech may/may not, enter information into the computer system including information in a new prescription
answer
may
question
Under direct supervision of a pharmacist a tech may/may not, compound prescriptions
answer
may
question
Under direct supervision of a pharmacist a tech may/may not, take a new prescription by telephone
answer
may not
question
the legal technician to supervisor ratio is
answer
3 to 1
question
which two persons are responsible for the technician in-service training
answer
pharmacy manager and owner
question
how many hours of law training does a tech require every two year
answer
1
question
how many total hours of in-service training should a tech receive every two years
answer
12 hours
question
In order for a pharmacist to supervise a forth tech in training he must have at least how much experience in his program, but less than how much experience in practical training
answer
9 months, 240 hours
question
T/F There are circumstances in which an intern can receive payment working at the same pharmacy in which he works to receive credit for internship from his college.
answer
T
question
T/F: An intern can perform most every task that a pharmacist can to include verification of entered prescriptions
answer
F
question
If a preceptor wishes to terminate an internship must do what
answer
provide written notice with specific reasons to the school
question
Two things that a school must provide an intern are
answer
a scope of duties, a form to evaluate his internship
question
Some PAs may prescribe CS and Rx, and others can do what in addition
answer
dispense
question
A PA must pass a law exam and also_______ before practicing
answer
be registered to a supervising physician
question
A PA must notify the board in writing if he changes the location of his practice or if he changes his supervising physician within how long
answer
10 days
question
The days supply that a PA has the authority to prescribe/dispense cannot exceed
answer
356 days
question
One limitation of a PA's power to prescribe is he may not be able to
answer
order on the chart of a hospital patient
question
T/F Pharmacists and Interns must follow a written protocol by a physician in order to administer immunizations
answer
T
question
What American Heart Association certification must a pharmacist maintain in order to give immunizations
answer
BCLS
question
The dead-line for immunization CE is on which date and how often
answer
October 31, annually
question
where must controlled substances of demised patients be kept in a skilled nursing facility until destruction
answer
secured in a locked compartment
question
The form provided by the DEA to document destruction of controlled substances is
answer
DEA 41
question
In a pharmacy controlled substances must be destroyed at least how often
answer
once a year
question
How often must a pharmacy in a correctional institution register with the DEA?
answer
biennially
question
IN addition to the managing pharmacist the registration form in a medical facility must also be signed by whom
answer
chief executive officer
question
A full time pharmacist is required in a hospital with _____ beds or more, or in a correctional institution with _____ inmates or more
answer
100, 1500
question
T/F a part time consultant pharmacist can met the legal requirement for a correctional institute with 1000 inmates
answer
T
question
T/F formal written contract is not necessary between a consultant pharmacist and a medical facility.
answer
F
question
what quantity of drug may be removed by practitioners if a pharmacy is closed in a medical facility
answer
sufficient quantities for immediate therapeutic needs
question
Can a licensed nurse remove drugs from a closed pharmacy in a correctional institution
answer
yes
question
If drugs are removed from a pharmacy while the pharmacy was closed in a medical facility a pharmacist must verify the withdrawal within what time frame for a hospital and a prison
answer
hospital = 72 hours, prison = 96 hours
question
If a facility employs a pharmacist consultant withdrawals must be verified within
answer
30 days
question
A pharmacy shall maintain which records (7)
answer
1. DEA 222, 2. supplier's invoice, 3. supplier's credit memos, 4. biennial inventory, 5. DEA 106, 6. DEA 41, 6. CV register log
question
A pharmacy wishing to use a centralized system for keeping records must submit _____ to DEA via ______ ______.
answer
written notification, certified mail
question
A pharmacy must wait how long after submitting for authorization for centralized system of record keeping
answer
14 days
question
at least how often must a immediate care/skilled nursing facility destroy outdated controlled substances
answer
once a month
question
T/F: Flushing controlled substances down the toilet is an acceptable method of destruction in a skilled nursing facility
answer
T
question
Who determines the quantity of each drug to be stocked in an immediate care facility
answer
pharmacy and therapeutics commmittee
question
Quantities of stocked drugs at an intermediate care facility must not exceed how much per drug
answer
20 units
question
An employed pharmacist of a surgical center must establish policies and procedures and must evaluate their effectiveness at least how often
answer
every month
question
A consultant pharmacist must submit a written report to the Board reporting a surgical center for what (2)
answer
1. not compliant with the law, 2. a discrepancy of 5% or greater in quantity of a CS
question
A doctor working in a hospital who calls a prescription into the pharmacy for entry on a chart must sign the order within how long
answer
48 hours
question
T/F even a special bulletin issued by the board must be maintained on premises of the pharmacy for 2 years
answer
T
question
The barrier separating the public section from the pharmacy section of a store must be how tall
answer
5'
question
Under what circumstances may a repairman enter the prescription area
answer
pharmacist present at the same time
question
One exception to the requirement for pharmacies to maintain an alarm on its premises would be
answer
a 24 hour store
question
T/F Drugs purchased by a pharmacy may be drop shipped so long as thye are shipped to the pharmacy address registered with the board
answer
F
question
A person in charge of a pharmacy must notify the board withing how long after terminating a registered employee with written notice
answer
10 days
question
T/F: Law requires all pharmacy personnel to receive a meal break, but management can dictate when that break is taken
answer
T
question
T/F: Regardless to how many pharmacists are on duty he may either stay on the premises or leave for his meal period
answer
T
question
What can a pharmacy do to continue to receive prescriptions during a pharmacist's meal period (2)
answer
1. provide a secure receptacle, 2. provide an authorized receiving employee
question
Pharmacy management may require a pharmacist to stay on premises during meal periods, but not obligate them to work.
answer
T
question
T/F: A pharmacist's license includes the authority to prepare radioactive prescriptions
answer
F
question
T/F: A pharmacist may now administer influenza, shingles, and rabies vaccines to the public
answer
F
question
T/F: A pharmacy outside of Nevada providing patients with prescriptions inside of Nevada by mail order needing to make a substitution must follow provisions of Nevada law instead of the state in which the pharmacy is located
answer
F
question
The toll free required by state law to be provided with mail order prescriptions must be available no less than how many hours per week
answer
40
question
A laminar airflow hood must be certified every _____year(s), and records must be maintained every _____ year(s).
answer
1, 2
question
A pharmacy preparing ______ solutions must do so in a vertical laminar airflow hood according to NAC 639.78
answer
cytotoxic
question
A pharmacy furnishing ______ solutions must be available 24 hours a day.
answer
parenteral
question
A requirement for a practitioner to dispense is ____, and a requirement for the prescription is ______
answer
certification with the board/fee, written
question
T/F It is legal for a practitioner to investigate a patient who he suspects may abuse controlled substances
answer
T
question
T/F: A practitioner need not include the symptom on the prescription unless otherwise requested by the patient 89
answer
T
question
T/F: Controlled substances must never be given by electronic transmission/fax
answer
F
question
T/F prescriptions received by fax must contain the practitioner's signature or equivalent
answer
T
question
What is one piece of information not required by law to be on the prescription label, but is often present regardless.
answer
pharmacy phone number
question
Do not use with alcohol or nonprescribed drugs without consulting the prescribing practitioner is required by ______law, but not by _______ law. (fed/state)
answer
state, federal
question
If a doctor has a clerk call a prescription into a pharmacy and a technician takes the information, and the information was erroneous how many people are at fault?
answer
4
question
If a doctor sends a prescription for Lortab refill PRN, how many times can it legally be refilled?
answer
5
question
A controlled substance prescription cannot be refilled after how long
answer
6 months
question
A Rx for a dangerous drug will not be re-fillable after how long
answer
1 year
question
A pharmacist can furnish a sufficient supply of a controlled substance for a sufficient time for a pt. to communicate with his doctor if (2)
answer
1. cannot contact the physician, 2. treating a chronic illness is deemed necessary
question
T/F: A prescription may be rescinded by a pharmacist even after authorization is given, even if the prescription was given orally, and even if it is rescinded by a doctor other than the original prescriber who is acting in his behalf.
answer
T
question
What two things must a copy of a prescription have besides all the information appearing on the original prescription
answer
1. "Copy, not refillable -- for reference purposes only", 2. name/initial of pharmacist
question
For how many months must a pharmacy maintain a prescription on file
answer
24
question
If a practitioner has prescribed a drug by brand name, but did not specifically specify that substitutions weren't allowed, and a cheaper version of a bioequivalent generic of the same strength is available what should a pharmacist do
answer
give generic
question
What is required by law for a pharmacist to do to the patient before substituting a generic, but hardly ever done
answer
advise of intent to substitute/advise of right to refuse
question
A patient may not request brand name over generic if
answer
paid by a governmental agency
question
Are all of the following proper methods for a physician to request a brand name over a generic: oral communication to the pharmacist, handwriting "dispense as written" on the RX, and same verbiage on an electronic Rx
answer
yes
question
Generic drug prescriptions do not apply to (4)
answer
1. hospital inpatients, 2. mail order, 3. violation of health care plan 4. ineligible for 3rd party reinbursement
question
Can only pharmacists or pharmacists and interns do all of the following: take new orders, interpret Rx, interpret patient's charts, consult with a prescribing doctor.
answer
pharmacists and interns
question
T/F: A pharmacist need not counsel nor provide written form of required counseling information if the drug is to be delivered to a licensed medical facility to be administered by an RN
answer
T
question
T/F: All new prescriptions are required by law to be accompanied by counseling even if unwanted by the patient
answer
F
question
T/F: A prescribed medication can be legally delivered directly to a patient, staff of the medical facility, or dropped off with a person at the patient's residence
answer
T
question
T/F: A friend, neighbor or relative may not be compensated for picking up the prescription from a pharmacy on behalf of someone else.
answer
T
question
T/F: If a computer system is approved by the board and the practitioner transmits the prescription to the pharmacy the pt. chooses he may use it to transmit all his controlled substances
answer
F
question
A prescription for a CII drug may not be sent via fax unless (3)
answer
1. direct IV/SQ/IM administration, 2. LTCF, 3. hospice
question
How many times can an CIII-CV be transferred
answer
1
question
T/F: The state pharmacy board must be involved in the "going out of business" sell of a pharmacy.
answer
T
question
T/F: If a CII has remaining refills it may be transferred once
answer
F
question
Pharmacies receiving a transfered RX must write the word ____ on the face of the Rx, while the sending pharmacist must write the word ____ on the face of the Rx
answer
transfer, void
question
T/F: Under certain circumstances such as outstanding bills, a pharmacy can refuse tranfer out of Rxs until paid
answer
F
question
After a disaster/damage what must happpen before a pharmacy can be cleaned up
answer
board inspection
question
A doctor in charge of what two facilities can dispense amount adequate to treat patients when a pharmacy is closed
answer
1. emergency room, 2. surgical center
question
T/F If a prescription is written by a doctor in another state, and the pt. lives in a seperate state than the doctor, and it is requested to be dispensed in a manner other than directly to the pt. and to be paid for in cash a pharmacist should refuse to fill it
answer
T
question
T/F:All of the following are reasons that a pharmacist may decline to fill a prescription: unlawful, harmful, fraudulent, against his religious beliefs, not a legitimate medical purpose
answer
F
question
T/F: A pharmacist who declines to fill a Rx may either return the RX to the pt. or retain it at his discretion
answer
T
question
T/F: Part of what compounding pharmacies do is to compound drugs that are no longer available due to being removed from the market
answer
F
question
A compounding pharmacy can only sell compounded drugs to practitioners who will be administering the drug
answer
T
question
Are advanced practitioners of Nursing allowed to prescribe under collaborating physician even if the Rx is for a 365 day supply
answer
yes
question
Advanced practitioners of nursing may not prescribe controlled substances to exceed how many day's supply
answer
30
Cancer
Distribution
External Beam Radiation
Imaging
Sub Saharan Africa
Volume
Cervical Cancer: Brachytherapy Techniques – Flashcards 58 terms

Stephen Sanchez
58 terms
Preview
Cervical Cancer: Brachytherapy Techniques – Flashcards
question
Most common applicator for intracavitary brachy
answer
Fletcher-Suit intrauterine tandem and ovoids or tandem and ring
question
Proper position of flange
answer
Flush against cervical surface
question
Proper position of tandem
answer
Should bisect angle of colpostats,unrotated,midline
question
Proper position of colpostats
answer
Hi in fornices along cervix
question
Flange position represents
answer
Cervical os
question
Where are marker seeds placed
answer
1cm above position of flange
question
What positions are marker seeds
answer
2, 5, 8, 11 o'clock positions or just one for depth
question
What holds positions of tandem of ovoids
answer
Proper packing
question
Improper packing does what
answer
Increases doses to rectum/bladder but rectal shield part of nucleotron applicator may reduce the need for packing
question
Insertion techniques for intracavitary applicators
answer
US and fluoroscopic guidance
question
Advantage of Smit sleeve
answer
May facilitate applicator placement;+risk of perf
question
Point A

answer
2cm cephalad from cerv os, 2 cm lat to uterine canal We prescribe to this point
question
What does point A represent

answer
Med parametrium/lat cervix (ureter/uterine art cross)
question
Point B

answer
5 cm lat to center of pelvis at same level as point A
question
What does point B represent

answer
Obturator nodes/lat parametrium
question
Point B receives what% of Point A dose

answer
1/3 to 1/4
question
What does point C represent
answer
Pelvic sidewall dose
question
Point C receives what% of Point A dose
answer
1/5
question
Point P
answer
most lateral point of bony pelvic sidewall
question
What does point P represent
answer
Minimal dose to ext iliac nodes
question
Point H
answer
2 cm above ovoid level, 2 cm lat line bisecting ovoids
question
Significance of point H
answer
recommended rx point by ABS
question
Bladder point

answer
post surface foley on lat film/middle of foley on AP
question
Rectal point

answer
5mm behind vag [email protected] intrauterin tandem source
question
Vaginal point
answer
lat edge of ovoid on AP/mid-ovoid on lat
question
Historically point A used for
answer
Tolerance dose
question
Now point A is used for
answer
Prescription point
question
Dose for stage IB-IIA cervical CA
answer
80-85 Gy to point A (85 Gy more accepted) We use 7Gy x 4 after 45Gy/25fx but can use 6Gy x 5fx
question
Dose for more advanced stage disease
answer
85-95 Gy to point A (assuming EBRT to 50.4/28fx)
question
Problem w/ prescribing to point A
answer
empirical point (does not reflect tumor dose)
question
ICRU recommendation instead of rx to point A
answer
determine tissue volume in 60 Gy isodose sur
question
American working group developed system
answer
Prescribe to 3 separate CTVs
question
High risk CTV
answer
GTV prior to xrt + entire cervix (80-90 Gy)
question
Intermediate risk CTV
answer
Hi risk CTV + 0.5-1.5 cm margin (60 Gy)
question
Low risk CTV
answer
Tumor volume covered by ext beam
question
Onset of brachytherapy at what time point
answer
No later than week 6 Can be given during EBRT, but avoid chemo day
question
Total duration of xrt should be no more than
answer
<8 wks, as there is benefit to shortening the treatment interval - local control and survival is affected by 1% a day, (Perez, IJRBOP, 1995; Girinsky, IJROBP 1993) from RTOG 90-01
question
Tandem/ring has what dose distribution
answer
Narrow dose distribution, cover ant/post lip of cvx
question
Tandem/ovoid has what dose distribution
answer
Pear shaped, covers upper vagina
question
Tandem/cylinder has what dose distribution
answer
Narrow distribution, tx entire vagina, <5mm
question
Interstitial implant has what dose distribution
answer
Covers distal vagina >5mm
question
Mini-ovoids
answer
Unshielded This applicator was designed for the patient with a narrow vault. The medial area of the ovoid is flattened to accommodate a very small anatomy.
question
Advantage of tandem/ring
answer
Reproducible geometry; easy to insert
question
When is tandem/ring used
answer
When vaginal fornices absent/asymmetric
question
When is interstitial implant used
answer
Vag narrowing, absent fornices, vag extension
question
When is tandem/cylinder used
answer
Need interstitial implant but not available
question
Disadvantage of tandem/cylinder
answer
Lower parametrial doses,higher bladder/rectal doses
question
For deep or thick vaginal involvement consider this brachy tehcnique
answer
Interstitial
question
What kind of gauze should be used for cervical cancer brachy packing
answer
Triple-sulfate soaked gauze for LDR and KJ-Jelly for HDR
question
What should the brachy implant look like during anterior plain film evaluation:
answer
ant film: tandem bisects ovoids and tandem not rotated; phlange close to cervical marker seeds: ovoids high in fornices <1cm from marker seeds with 0.5-1cm spacing between them.
question
What should the brachy implant look like during lateral plain film evaluation:
answer
tandem bisects ovoids and is midway between sacrum and bladder, at least 3 cm from asacral promontory;, sufficient andterior and posterior packing, foley balloon firmly pulled down.
question
Dose constraint for HDR to bladder and rectum?
answer
<70% of point A dose
question
Dose constrain for LDR to bladder and rectum?
answer
limit rectal point to <70Gy and bladder point to <75Gy
question
What are the constraints for the vagina for brachy?
answer
Upper vaginal mucosa <120Gy Midvaginal mucosa <80-90G Lower vaginal mucosa <60-70Gy
question
What dose can cause fibrosis and stenosis of the vaginal canal?
answer
50+ Gy
question
What dose should the uterus be limited to ?
answer
<100Gy
question
What dose should the ureters be limited to?
answer
<75Gy
question
What dose should the femoral heads be limited to?
answer
<50Gy
AP Microeconomics
Distribution
Earned Income Tax Credit
Principles Of Economics: Macroeconomics
Principles Of Economics: Microeconomics
United States
Econ chapter 21 – Flashcards with Answers 20 terms

Elizabeth Hill
20 terms
Preview
Econ chapter 21 – Flashcards with Answers
question
In 2011, the average income for households in the United States was about:
answer
$69,821.
question
The lowest quintile of households in the income distribution receives about:
answer
3.2 percent of the total income.
question
Census data indicate that, as of 2011, the top fifth of all households receive about ________ times as much income as the bottom fifth.
answer
sixteen
question
Income mobility:
answer
is the movement of individuals and households from one income quintile to another over time.
question
Standard Census data on the distribution of income:
answer
are before taxes in that they do not account for personal income and payroll taxes.
question
Which of the following is correct?
answer
Income is a flow and wealth is a stock concept.
question
Since 1980 the difference between the earnings of college graduates and high school graduates has:
answer
increased, thereby increasing income inequality.
question
Which of the following demographic groups does not bear a disproportionate burden of poverty?
answer
Persons 65 or over.
question
The poverty rate for African Americans is:
answer
greater than for any other racial or ethnic group.
question
Which of the following is not a social insurance program?
answer
TANF (Temporary Assistance for Needy Families).
question
Social Security is financed:
answer
by payroll taxes on employees and employers.
question
Medicaid:
answer
helps finance medical expenses for those participating in the TANF and Supplemental Security Income programs.
question
Which of the following provides public assistance to those who are blind and otherwise disabled?
answer
Supplemental Security Income (SSI).
question
The earned-income tax credit:
answer
provides a cash payment to low-income working families if their tax credit exceeds their tax liability.
question
The TANF program:
answer
limits total lifetime welfare benefits to 5 years and requires able-bodied adults to work after receiving benefits for 2 years.
question
By December 2009, the recession that began in December 2007:
answer
raised the number of TANF recipients from 3.9 million to about 4.4 million.
question
For an employer biased against African Americans, the discrimination coefficient d:
answer
measures the amount an employer is willing to pay to hire a white over hiring an African-American worker.
question
The crowding model of discrimination suggests that:
answer
women and selected minorities are systematically excluded from high-paying occupations and crowded into low-paying occupations, decreasing their wages and reducing domestic output.
question
(Consider This) According to The Economist magazine, growing income inequality is less of a concern because:
answer
the poor have increasingly better access to goods and services once only available to the rich.
question
(Last Word) In 2010, the wealthiest 1 percent of U.S. households held about ____ percent of U.S. household wealth.
answer
35.
Distribution
Marketing
Principles Of Marketing
Vertical Marketing Systems – Flashcards 14 terms

Clarence Louder
14 terms
Preview
Vertical Marketing Systems – Flashcards
question
Vertical marketing systems
answer
planned channel system designed to improve distribution efficiency and cost-effectiveness by integrating various functions throughout the distribution chain
question
forward integration
answer
process through which a firm attempts to control downstream integration
question
backward integration
answer
process through which a manufacturer attempts to gain greater control over inputs in its production process, such as raw materials
question
corporate marketing systems
answer
VMS in which a single owner operates the entire marketing channel
question
administered marketing system
answer
VMS that achieves channel coordination when a dominant channel member exercises his power
question
contractual marketing system
answer
VMS that coordinates channel activities through formal agreements among participants
question
retail cooperative
answer
group of retailers that establisha shared wholesaling operation to help them compete with chains
question
franchise
answer
contractual agreement in which a wholesaler or retailer agrees to meet the operating requirements of a manufacturer or other franchiser
question
supply chain
answer
control of the activities of purchasing, processing, delivery through which raw materials are transformed into products and made available to final customers
question
upstream management
answer
controlling part of the supply chain that involves raw materials, inbound logistics, and warehouse and storage facilities
question
downstream management
answer
controlling part of the supply chain that involves finished product storage, outbound logistics, marketing and sales, and customer service
question
Radio frequency identification
answer
technology that uses a tiny chip with identification information that can be read by a scanner using radio waves from a distance
question
enterprise resource planning system
answer
software system that consolidates data from among a firm's various business units
question
third-party (contract) logistics firms
answer
company that specializes in handling logistics activities for other firms
Business Management
Distribution
Internet
Locations
Marketing
Product Design
Qualitative Research Method
MKT 327 Exam 3 – Questions – Flashcards 62 terms

Patricia Harrah
62 terms
Preview
MKT 327 Exam 3 – Questions – Flashcards
question
Which of the following is not one of the basic product decisions?
answer
Brand Awarness
question
Brand equity steps are: (1) __________ and an association with a product class or need in consumers; minds to create an identity; (2) establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers; (3) eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning; and (4) creating an intense, active, and loyal consumer-brand connection.
answer
Developing positive brand awareness
question
You are responsible for the product decision in your company. Your market analyst hae determined that the market will most respond to greater time and place utility (value). Which of the following product decisions would you focus on in order to impact these aspects of value?
answer
Customer Service
question
Which of the following product decisions has product differentiation as its purpose in part or in whole?
answer
Branding
question
Which of the following actions or objectives would be appropriate for your product in the maturity stage of the product life cycle?
answer
Consolidate value chain to maximize outlets
question
A brand name refers to _________.
answer
Any word, device (design, sound, shape, or color) or combination of these used to distinguish a seller's products or services.
question
The four steps in the sequential process of building the brand equity pyramid include: (1) developing positive brand awareness; (2) establishing a brand's meaning in the minds of consumers; (3) eliciting the proper consumer responses to a brand's identity and meaning; and (4) ________.
answer
Creating a consumer-brand connection
question
A good brand name should: (1) __________; (2) be memorable, distinctive, and positive; (3) fit the company or product image; (4) have no legal or regulatory restrictions; (5) be simple and emotion; and (6) have favorable phonetic and semantic associations in other languages.
answer
Suggest the product benefits
question
Black & Decker uses a __________ strategy to reach the do-it-yourself market with the Black & Decker brand name and the professional construction market with the DeWalt brand name.
answer
Multibranding
question
Four key challenges that package and label designers face include: (1) ________; (2) environmental concerns; (3) health, safety, and security issues; and (4) cost reduction.
answer
Connecting with customers
question
The ________ element of the marketing mix consists of communication tools, including advertising, personal selling, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing.
answer
Promotion
question
In a marketing context, the acronym IMC refers to _______.
answer
Integrated marketing communictations
question
After watching a 30-second commerial from Jared for fine jewelry, Mariah was certain the necklace she saw would look spectacular with her new formal dress. In terms of the communication process, Mariah engaged in the task of ______>
answer
Decoding
question
To communicate with consumers, a company can use one or more of five promotion alternatives. List all five promotion alternatives
answer
(1) Advertising; (2) Personal Selling; (3) Public Relations; (4) Sales Promotion; (5) Direct Marketing
question
Advertising, sales promotion, and public relations are often said to use ______ because they are used with groups of prospective buyers
answer
mass selling
question
A paid form of nonpersonal communication about an organization, product, service, or ideas by an identified sponsor is referred to as ________
answer
advertising
question
A short-term inducement of value offered to arouse interest in buying a product or service is referred to as ______
answer
sales promotion
question
The ________ includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing.
answer
promotional mix
question
Integrated marketing communications is the concept of designing marketing communications programs that coordinate all promotional activities - advertising, personal selling, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing - to provide _________
answer
a consistent message across all audiences
question
Allegra is an antihistamine. To create brand awareness, the company is offering people who request information about the product a seat cushion to use at their favorite sporting event. Its television ad shows a woman half-heartedly watching a sporting event. The voiceover asks if she is bored or congested. In the next scene, the person is having a great time and is decongested after taking Allegra. This use of the same promotional theme throughout a company's marketing campaign is an example of how marketers use _______
answer
integrated marketing communications (IMC)
question
To accomplish a successful repositioning of the brand, Taco Bell needed to inform its consumers that Taco Bell food should be thought of as an experience rather than as just fuel. in the communication process, Taco Bell would be the _______ and the consumer would be the _______.
answer
source; receiver
question
During the creative process, Taco Bell considered a number of different slogans, finally setting on Live Mas! The Live Mas! campaign reinforces Taco Bell's position as a dynamic brand whose customers enjoy experiencing the world and trying things first. Live Mas! is Taco Bell's ______ in the communication process
answer
message
question
When communicating with its target audience, Taco Bell considered each of its _______ including social media channels, packaging, point of purchase displays, and advertising. These places of contact between a firm and its customers are critical elements for building an integrated marketing communication plan.
answer
touch points
question
As part of its integrated marketing communication strategy, Taco Bell utilized commercials aired during the Super Bowl. This form of _____ has an extremely large reach and hefty price tag.
answer
advertising
question
To give consumers an incentive to try its new Doritos Locos Taco, Taco Bell gave out free samples of the new tacos to its customers. The free Doritos Locos tacos giveaway is an example of ______
answer
sales promotion
question
Taco Bell allocates its promotional budget to 70% traditional media, which includes television advertising; 20% to digital media, which includes website development; and 10% to new media channels. The fact that the message consumers receive is the same regardless of which channel delivers it reflects Taco Bell's dedication to ________.
answer
integrated marketing communications
question
Twitter, Facebook, Vine, Instagram, and Snapchat were all utilized to engage customers during the Doritos Locos Tacos introduction as part of the ______ element of the campaign.
answer
social media
question
Advertising refers to
answer
any paid form of nonpersonal communication about an organizatoin, product, service, or ideas by an identified sponsor
question
Product advertisements refer to advertisements that focus on
answer
selling a product or service
question
The three primary types of product advertisements are ______
answer
pioneering, competitive, and reminder
question
A pioneering (or informational) ad
answer
tells people what a product is, what it can do, and where it can be found
question
Which of the following elements of the communication (or promotional mix) has as its purpose within the mix the creation of a sense of urgency?
answer
sales promotion
question
The primary purpose of a competitive advertisement is to
answer
promote a specific brand's features and benefits
question
The objective of a(n) ______ is to inform a newspaper, radio station, or other medium of an idea for a story.
answer
news release
question
An advantage of online advertising such as offered through Google is that it is _______, which allows it to immediately assess its ________.
answer
measurable; effectiveness
question
Which of the following is an advantage of advertising?
answer
cost per contact
question
Advertisers want to have an understanding about the number of different people or households exposed to their advertisement. In other words, they want to know about the ad's ______
answer
reach
question
The idea of getting the right ad, at the right time, for the right user, in the moment when he or she is most interested in that topic is the key to the success of
answer
search advertising
question
As advertisers manage their interactive marketing communications (IMC) programs, they can compare the effectiveness of the various types of advertising available by calculating ______ which refers to the cost of reaching 1,000 individuals or households with the advertising message in a given medium.
answer
cost per thousand
question
Google AdWords functions much like direct response marketing because AdWords asks that customers take action by clicking on an advertisement. This response is similar to that required with ________>
answer
infomercials
question
Online advertising has the unique feature of being interactive; the use of drop-down menus, built in games, or search engines that engage viewers are excellent examples of _______
answer
rich media
question
What are the advantages of using television for advertising?
answer
It can help advertisers target a specific audience, reaches extremely large audience, uses picture, print, sound, and motion for effect.
question
What are the disadvantage of using newspapers as a medium for advertising?
answer
Short life span and poor color.
question
What is a disadvantage of outdoor advertising?
answer
No opportunity exists for lengthy advertising copy.
question
_______ are a sales promotion tool used to encourage and reward repeat purchases by acknowledging each purchase made by a consumer and offering a premium as purchases accumulate.
answer
Loyalty programs
question
______ are sales promotions that require participants to submit some kind of entry but are purely games of chance requiring no analytical or creative effort by the consumer.
answer
sweepstakes
question
______ are best defined as advertising programs by which a manufacturer pays a percentage of the retailer's local advertising expense for advertising the manufacturer's products.
answer
Cooperative advertising
question
List the 8 reasons for the failure of a new product.
answer
(1) insignificant points of difference; (2) incomplete market and product protocol before product development starts; (3) a failure to satisfy customer needs on critical factors; (4) bad timing; (5) no economical access to buyers; (6) poor product quality; (7) poor execution of the marketing mix; (8) too little market attractiveness
question
What are the two key organizational reasons for failure of a new product?
answer
(1) encountering groupthink in task and committee meetings; (2) avoiding the "NIH problem."
question
Ideally, a new product or service needs a precise protocol that identifies:
answer
(1) a well-defined target market; (2) specific customers' needs, wants, and preferences; (3) what the product will be and do to satisfy consumers
question
The ______ measure ties to the number of times an ad loads and a user might see it, but now whether the user has actually reacted to it.
answer
Cost-per-thousand
question
What does the cost-per-action measure tie loosely and most closely?
answer
Loosely: to actual sales Most Closely: the cost of a social media ad to the sales revenues the ad generates.
question
When traditional media are used in advertising communications,
answer
communications generally end with the receiver
question
What is the goal of social media?
answer
To reach active receivers, those who will become evangelists, who will send messages to their online friends and then back to the advertiser about the joys of using the brand.
question
In the context of social media, evangelists are those who
answer
send messages to friends and advertisers about the joys of using a brand
question
In classifying social media, the degree to which a person's thoughts, feelings, likes, and dislikes are made public is referred to as
answer
self-disclosure
question
What is an accurate statement of traditional and social media?
answer
It is hard to discern the expertise and credibility of many creators of social media sites (Social media sites are created by both novices and experts whereas traditional media are created by established experts.
question
Social networks are
answer
specific social media like Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn, and YouTube
question
In classifying social media, the degree of acoustic visual, and personal contact between two communication partners is referred to as ______ whereas the degree to which a person's thoughts, feelings, likes, and dislikes are made public is referred to as __________.
answer
media richness; self-disclosure
question
The three guidelines of marketing and promoting a brand using YouTube include: (1) exploit visual aspects of your message, perhaps sacrificing product messages to tell a more entertaining story; (2) create a branded channel rich in key words to improve the odds of the video showing up in user searches; and (3) ________
answer
target viewers by using YouTube's insights and analytics research to reveal the number of views, where they originate within YouTube, and what key words are driving user visits.
question
Where is UGC published?
answer
UGC is published on a publicly accessible website or a social networking site; it is not simply email.
question
Whereas traditional media build credibility through experts being influencers in a particular field, with social media a sender often simply beings to participate in the _______, hoping that the quality of the message will establish credibility with the receivers.
answer
Conversation
Distribution
Marketing
Principles Of Marketing
MKG 300 Exam 3- Chapter 11 – Flashcards 26 terms

Lucas Davies
26 terms
Preview
MKG 300 Exam 3- Chapter 11 – Flashcards
question
When planning physical distribution, the marketing manager should: A) Set the customer service level so that every customer can get the product exactly when he wants it B) Minimize the cost of distribution for a given customer service level C) Minimize the cost of transportation D) Maximize the speed of delivery E) Make use of a distribution center
answer
B) Minimize the cost of distribution for a given customer service level
question
The ______________ concept says that all transporting, storing, and product-handling activities of a business and a channel system should be thought of as part of one system which should seek to minimize the cost of distribution for a given customer service level. A) PERT B) Product-market C) Distribution center D) Physical distribution E) Marketing
answer
D) Physical distribution
question
Which of the following statements best reflects a marketing-oriented approach to physical distribution? A) "We should create a position of inventory manager and give that person authority to coordinate all physical distribution activities to minimize the firm's total inventory costs" B) "We should aim to keep our customers fully satisfied 100% of the time as this will increase our sales and give us a competitive advantage" C) "We should replace our warehouses with distribution centers to speed the flow of products and eliminate all storage" D) "We should choose the physical distribution alternative that will minimize the total cost of achieving the level of customer service our target market requires" E) All are equally "marketing-oriented"
answer
D) "We should choose the physical distribution alternative that will minimize the total cost of achieving the level of customer service our target market requires
question
Physical distribution decisions interact with which other marketing mix decisions? A) Price decisions B) Promotion decisions C) Product decisions D) All of the above E) None of the above
answer
D) All of the above
question
A supply chain: A) Is part of a broader network of relationships called a channel of distribution B) Is most effective when the objectives of the manufacturer at the beginning of the chain guide the activities of all other firms in the chain C) Requires skill in coordinating activities among different firms, and this has prompted many firms to seek help from outside experts D) Focuses on procuring materials needed for production, so its main weakness is that it ignores customer needs E) Concerns only direct relationships between producers, but a channel of distribution may involve intermediaries
answer
C) Requires skill in coordinating activities among different firms, and this has prompted many firms to seek help from outside experts
question
Electronic data interchange: A) Puts information in standardized format B) Makes inventory formation more accessible C) Is common in both domestic and international markets D) All of the above E) Both A and B
answer
D) All of the above
question
Which of the following statements about the transporting function is true? A) Among transportation modes, an advantage of air transport is its ability to handle a variety of goods B) Because transportation costs are less than 1% of costs for most products, marketing managers do not need to consider them when making strategy decisions C) Pipelines are generally one of the fastest modes of transportation D) In most countries, government plays little role in transportation E) Transporting costs can be a large part of total cost for heavy products that are low in value
answer
E) Transporting costs can be a large part of the total cost for heavy products that are low in value
question
Which of the following products would have the lowest transporting costs as a percentage of the selling price? A) Electronic equipment B) Chemicals and plastics C) Pharmaceuticals D) Sand and gravel E) Manufactured food
answer
C) Pharmaceuticals
question
More freight is carried more miles _______ than any other mode of transportation. A) By railroads B) By air C) By pipeline D) By trucks E) Over water
answer
A) By railroads
question
All of the following are advantages of using trucks except: A) Flexibility B) Fast delivery speed C) Reliability in meeting delivery schedules D) Handling a variety of goods E) Serving a limited number of locations
answer
E) Serving a limited number of locations
question
At least ______ percent of all freight shipped in the United States moves by trucks-- at least part of the way-- from producer to user. A) 20% B) 75% C) 15% D) 5% E) 10%
answer
B) 75%
question
Which of the following transportation modes is "best" at handling a variety of goods? A) Truck B) Rail C) Water D) Air E) Pipeline
answer
C) Water
question
______ as a mode of transport serves a very limited number of locations but has high dependability in meeting schedules. A) Trucks B) Railroads C) Waterways D) Airfreight E) Pipelines
answer
E) Pipelines
question
Regarding airfreight, which of the following statements is not true? A) Airfreight may reduce the total cost of distribution B) Inventory costs usually increase, since only small quantities can be shipped at a time C) Very bulky items cannot be shipped economically D) Airfreight is opening up new markets for many perishable items E) There are usually fewer problems from theft and damage with airfreight
answer
B) Inventory costs usually increase, since only small quantities can be shipped at a time
question
Inventory refers to: A) The amount of goods being stored B) Minimizing storage costs C) The amount of goods being sold D) The marketing function of holding goods E) The quality of goods being stored
answer
A) The amount of goods being stored
question
Storing: A) Is related to Place-- but has not effect on price. B) Is necessary because production does not always match consumption C) Must be performed by all members of a channel system D) Decrease the value of products E) All of the above are true statements
answer
B) Is necessary because production does not always match consumption
question
Which of the following statements in not true? A) Storing is a marketing function B) Storing allows producers and intermediaries to keep stocks at convenient locations C) Storing allows the producer to achieve economies of scale in production D) Storing is necessary when production of goods doesn't match consumption E) Storing can increase the value of goods, but does not involve costs
answer
E) Storing can increase the value of goods, but does not involve costs
question
Distribution centers: A) Are designed to facilitate the flow of products through the channel B) Are the same as public warehouses C) Are not places where regrouping activities-- such as bulk-breaking-- are performed. D) Increase storing costs E) All of the above
answer
A) Are designed to facilitate the flow of products through the channel
question
Each of the following would be most likely to help a company to increase its physical distribution service levels except: A) Increasing the availability of online status information B) Increasing accuracy in filing customer orders C) Increasing the time allocated to enter and process orders D) Decreasing the amount of damage in shipping, handling, and storage E) Decreasing the time needed to deliver product orders
answer
C) Increasing the time allocated to enter and process orders
question
A trucking company would be least likely to use global positioning data to determine which of the following? A) The exact locations of fueling stations on a route B) The frequency of rest stops on a particular route C) The names of routes that minimize fuel consumption D) The identification of route that maximize service E) The content of driver communications with customers
answer
E) The content of driver communications with customers
question
A floral delivery company uses JIT delivery systems throughout its entire distribution channel. Which of the following is most likely to be experienced by the company as a result? A) Increased product marketing costs B) Increased costs of handling floral products C) Decreased need for physical distribution (PD) coordination D) Reduced costs of storing floral inventory E) Reduced need for physical distribution (PD) quality control
answer
D) Reduced costs of storing floral inventory
question
A manufacturer having irregular need for regional storage of bicycles should use which one of the following? A) A private warehouse to be sure of adequate space B) Public warehouses to provide flexibility and low unit cost C) A distribution center D) Direct distribution E) Railroads, because they are slow and the bicycles are being stored while they're on the train
answer
B) Public warehouses to provide flexibility and low unit cost
question
The physical distribution customer service level is important because: A) It is a measure of how rapidly and dependably a firm delivers what its customers want B) It may result in lost sales if it is too low C) It may result in high costs (and thus lower profits) if it is too high D) All of these alternatives are correct
answer
D) All of these alternatives are correct
question
Berry Bros wants to ship a somewhat bulky, high-valued commodity a short-distance-- and it is seeking low-cost and extremely fast service. Berry should use: A) Airfreight B) Railroads C) Inland waterways D) Trucks E) None of these is a good answer
answer
D) Trucks
question
According to the "physical distribution concept": A) Transporting, storing, and product-handling are independent activities B) All transporting, sorting, and product-handling activities of a business and a whole channel system should be coordinated as part of one system C) Inventories should be based on production requirements D) The production department should be responsible for warehousing and shipping E) The lowest-cost distribution system is the best alternative
answer
B) All transporting, sorting, and product-handling activities of a business and a whole channel system should be coordinated as part of one system
question
Transporting costs: A) Are usually more than the value added by shipping, but the products are shipped anyway as there is no choice B) Do no vary much as a percentage of the final price of products, since big items are shipped by inexpensive means and small items are shipped by more expensive approaches C) Usually do not add much to the final cost of products which are already valuable relative to their size and weight D) Usually are not large enough to limit the target market that marketing manager can serve E) None of these alternatives is correct
answer
C) Usually do not add much to the final cost of products which are already valuable relative to their size and weight
Distribution
Entertainment
Full Line Discount
Health And Beauty Aids
Marketing
AGB – Flashcard 92 terms

Ember Wagner
92 terms
Preview
AGB – Flashcard
question
Supermarkets are self serve retailers that specialize in food and some non food products
answer
TRUE
question
A merchant wholesaler is an institution that buys goods from manufacturers and resells them to businesses, gov agencies and other wholesalers or retailers
answer
TRUE
question
As products move through the marketing channel, channel members provide specialization and division of labor, overcome discrepancies and provide contact efficiency
answer
TRUE
question
Retailing can be defined as all activities directly related to the sale of goods and services to the ultimate consumer for personal, nonbusiness use
answer
TRUE
question
The six Ps of retailing are product, place, price, promotion, personnel, planning
answer
FALSE---> PRESENTATION
question
A marketer using a profit maximization strategy will charge the highest prices the market will bear
answer
FALSE (increase customer satisfaction and cut operation costs)
question
The direct channel is used more often in consumer markets than in business-to-business markets
answer
TRUE
question
Price should not be used as a promotional tool
answer
FALSE? CH 15/18
question
The logistical functions performed by intermediaries include physically distributing, storing, sorting and financing
answer
TRUE
question
Many businesses find recessions to be an excellent time to build market share through use of price shading
answer
FALSE pg 327
question
Jones soda is positioned as the anti coke. In the earlier years, few mainstream retailers sold Jones soda. Fans had to get Jones in surf shops, tattoo parlors, bookstores, adding to the brands mystique. Jones soda used its ***** to create competitive advantage.
answer
?????
question
_____are large departmentalized self service retailers that specialize in wide assortments of food and non food items
answer
SUPERMARKETS
question
Price is best described as that
answer
which is given up in exchange to acquire a good or service
question
_____is defined as all activities directly related to the sale of goods and services to the ultimate consumer for personal and non business use or consumption.
answer
RETAILING
question
Why are marketing managers finding it more difficult to set prices in today's environment?
answer
The high rate of new product introductions has led to careful reevaluation by customers?
question
An organization is using ______ when it sets prices so that the total revenue is as large as possible relative to total cost.
answer
PROFIT MAXIMIZATION
question
Kraft Foods produces millions of packages of Chips Ahoy cookies each year, but consumers only want to purchase one package at a time. The difference between what Kraft produces and what consumers want to buy is _____
answer
DISCREPANCY OF QUANTITY
question
Two effective pricing tactics that can be used during a recession to build or hold market share are ____
answer
Value based pricing and bundling or unbundling. (pg 32)
question
A 16oz bottle of Prairie Herb vinegar sells for 4.95, and a 16oz bottle of Heinz vinegar sells for 1.05. PH vinegar is new to the market and perceived to be of higher quality and provides a unique flavor to foods used the same way as Heinz. PH vinegar is most likely using a _____
answer
a price skimming policy
question
As a short term pricing objective, ______ can be effectively used on a temporary basis to sell off excessive inventory
answer
sales maximization
question
TOMA
answer
Top Of Mind Awareness reached by being a well-known brand
question
ELP
answer
Every Day Low Prices on any given/average basket *Prices always change because they want the lowest price *More variety = higher prices *Bulk = cheaper
question
VPL
answer
value price marketing deep cuts on few items overall increase $
question
Reach
answer
Number of target consumers exposed to advertisement
question
Frequency
answer
Number of times an individual is exposed to an advertisement (more important than reach)
question
Pull Strategy
answer
Stimulates consumer demand with promotional efforts on the end of the consumer (communicate directly to consumer & "pull" through channel)
question
Push Strategy
answer
Selling to the wholesaler or retailer to carry the product "push" through the channel
question
Facing
answer
Creates the look of a perfectly stocked store
question
Impulse Buy
answer
Unplanned decision made just before the purchase
question
Shelf Talker
answer
Printed card or sign to call the buyers attention
question
Create an outline that compares strengths and weaknesses of radio, TV, Print, and Billboard advertising. Determine the combination of a $100,000 ad budget FL should spend on the product promotion. How could you use PR in this promotion?
answer
???
question
3 examples why food marketers have a method to madness of marketing properly
answer
???
question
Identify 4 stages in product lifecycle, the promotional theme for each stage and 3 distinguishing characteristics
answer
???
question
A mind that is stretched by a new experience can never go back to its old dimensions" Apply to marketing
answer
???
question
Marketing Channel Functions
answer
Transactional Functions--> contacting and promoting (potential customers), negotiating terms, assuming inventory risk Logistical Functions--> physically distributing (transportation and sorting goods), storing, sorting Facilitating Functions--> researching (gathering information about other channel members and consumers) and financing
question
Factors Affecting Channel Choice
answer
Market Factors--> target consumers (size of market too) Product Factors--> more customized = direct, more standard = intermediaries Producer Factors
question
Levels of Distribution Intensity
answer
Intensive Distribution--> max market coverage Selective Distribution Exclusive Distribution--> specialty goods
question
types of supply chain integration
answer
relationship technology and planning measurement material and service supplier internal operations customer
question
modes of transportation
answer
air rail water pipeline truck
question
AIDA (promotional mix)
answer
a model that outlines the process for achieving promotional goals in terms of stages of consumer involvement with the message attention interest desire action
question
consumer sales promotion
answer
targets the ultimate consumer market
question
trade sales promotion
answer
directed to members of the marketing channel such as retailers and wholesalers
question
goal of sales promotion
answer
immediate purchase--> short term choice
question
tools for consumer sales promotion "pull"
answer
*coupons and rebates *premiums --> extra item offered to the consumer in exchange for purchase proof (happy meal) *loyalty marketing programs--> reward loyal customers for purchases *contests/sweepstakes *sampling *point of purchase display-->promotional display set up by retailer to advertise product and create traffic *online sales promotion
question
tools for trade promotion "push"
answer
trade allowance (price reduction offer) push money training free merchandises store demonstrations conventions
question
personal selling
answer
a purchase situation involving a personal, paid-for communication between two people in attempt to influence each other (good with complex goods with small customer base) ex: jets/ michael kors
question
relationship selling
answer
builds trust loyalty win-win situation multiple time selling (continued relationship) ex: heavy machinery
question
value is based upon
answer
perceived satisfaction price paid is based on the satisfaction consumers expect to receive from a product (not utility they actually receive)
question
revenue
answer
price x quantity sold
question
Types of Pricing Objectives
answer
1. Profit Oriented 2. Sales Oriented 3. Status Quo
question
Profit Oriented P.O.
answer
Profit Maximization Satisfactory Profits Target Returns on Investments
question
Profit Maximization
answer
setting prices so that total revenue is as large as possible relative to costs --> increasing customer satisfaction/ reduce costs
question
Satisfactory Profits
answer
strive for profits that are satisfactory to stockholders (consistent with the level of risk)
question
Target Return on Investment (ROI)
answer
a percentage that puts a firm's profits into perspective by showing profits relative to investment
question
Sales Oriented P.O.
answer
based on market share or on dollar or unit sales Market Share Sales Maximization
question
Market Share
answer
a company's product sales as a percentage of total sales for that industry increasing market share is an indicator of the effectiveness of their marketing mix
question
Sales Maximization
answer
such a firm ignores profits, competition, and the marketing environment as long as sales are rising short on funds or a unforeseen future no profitability in the long run
question
Status Quo Pricing
answer
a pricing policy that maintains existing prices or meets the competition's prices ex: gas stations
question
demand
answer
the quantity of a product that will be sold in the market at various prices for a certain period
question
supply
answer
the quantity of a product that will be offered to the market by a supplier at various prices for a certain time
question
Factors that affect elasticity
answer
availability of substitutes price relative to purchasing power product durability uses rate of inflation
question
Markup Pricing
answer
the cost of buying the product from the producer, plus the amounts for profits and for expenses not otherwise accounted for
question
Keystoning
answer
the practice of marking up prices by 100%
question
profit maximization pricing
answer
a method of setting prices that occurs when marginal revenue equals marginal cost
question
Types of Pricing (Cost Determinate)
answer
Markup Pricing Profit Maximization Pricing Break-Even Pricing
question
Break-Even Pricing
answer
a method of determining what sales volume must be reached before total revenue equals total costs
question
Marketing Mix
answer
Product Price Place Promotion
question
How to set a price on a product
answer
1. Establish pricing goals 2. Estimate demand, cost, and profits 3. Choose a pricing strategy 4. Fine-Tune the base price with pricing tactics
question
Establish Pricing Goals
answer
Profit Oriented Sales Oriented Status Quo
question
Pricing Strategies
answer
Price Skimming Penetration Pricing Status Quo Pricing
question
Price Skimming
answer
used when product is perceived to have unique advantages -a pricing policy whereby a firm charges a high introductory price, often coupled with heavy promotion
question
Penetration Pricing
answer
opposite of price skimming when aiming at increasing market share price-sensitive markets high sales -a pricing policy whereby a firm charges a relatively low price for a product initially as a way to reach the market mass
question
Status Quo Pricing
answer
charging a price identical to or very close to the competition's price
question
Price Fixing
answer
an agreement between two or more firms on the price they will charge for a product ILLEGAL--> high prices to customers
question
Predatory Pricing
answer
the practice of charging a very low price for a product with the intent of driving competitors out of business or out of a market ILLEGAL
question
Base Price
answer
the general price level at which the company expects to sell the good or service
question
Value-Based Pricing
answer
setting the price at a level that seems to the customer to be a good price compared to the prices of other options
question
Pricing Products Too Low
answer
loose profits because they are met by competitors
question
FOB origin pricing
answer
requires buyer to take freight costs from shipping point
question
Single Price Tactic
answer
a price tactic that offers all goods and services at the same price (itunes)
question
Flexible Pricing
answer
a price tactic in which different prices for essentially the same merchandise bought in equal quantities ex: cars
question
Price Lining
answer
the practice of offering a product line with several items at specific price points
question
Leader Pricing
answer
a price tactic in which a product is sold near or even below cost in the hope that shoppers will buy other items once in the store
question
Bait Pricing
answer
a price tactic that tries to get consumers into a store through false or misleading price advertising and then uses high pressure selling to persuade consumers to buy expensive goods
question
Price Bundling
answer
marketing two or more products in a single package for a special price
question
Unbundling
answer
reducing the bundle of services that comes with the basic product (pay for gift wrapping)
question
Two Part Pricing
answer
a price tactic that charges two separate amounts to consumer a single good or service gym/amusement parks
question
Consumer Penalties
answer
an extra fee paid by the consumer for violating terms of purchase
question
Joint Costs
answer
costs that are shared in the manufacturing and marketing of several products in a product line
question
Pricing During Inflation
answer
Cost-Oriented Tactics Demand-Oriented Tactics
question
Cost Oriented Tactics
answer
Delayed Quotation Pricing --> a firm price is not set until the item is either finished or delivered Escalator Pricing --> final price reflect cost increases between order and delivery
question
Demand Oriented Pricing Tactics
answer
Price Shading--> the use of discounts by salespeople to increase demand for one or more products in a line
Agents And Brokers
Distribution
Marketing
Marketing Channels chapter 2 – Flashcards 20 terms

Robert May
20 terms
Preview
Marketing Channels chapter 2 – Flashcards
question
"Threetailing" is a term used to describe:
answer
The convergence of in-store, catalog, and online channels.
question
Procter & Gamble and Kellogg often face __________ average costs for distribution tasks when they attempt to perform them by themselves.
answer
High
question
Trends in retailing in the U.S. suggest:
answer
Average dollar sales per store has increased.
question
Customer support provided by merchant wholesalers to manufacturers is often referred to as:
answer
Value-added services.
question
The basic divisions of the marketing channel are:
answer
Producers and manufacturers; intermediaries; and final users.
question
Merchant wholesalers are particularly well suited for performing all of the following distribution tasks for their suppliers except:
answer
Serving as the firms' outside sales force.
question
Between 1948 and 2002 for retail establishments:
answer
Average sales increased and the number of stores decreased.
question
Virtually all retailers serve as:
answer
Selling agents for their suppliers.
question
Merchant wholesalers perform all of the following functions except:
answer
Selling merchandise to final users.
question
Agents and brokers:
answer
Do not take title to goods.
question
Retailers have been using scanner data to perform all of the following except:
answer
Pay and promotion analysis.
question
Facilitating agencies:
answer
Perform non-negotiatory functions.
question
__________ are members of the target market.
answer
Final users
question
Agents, brokers, and commission merchants generally:
answer
do not take title to products.
question
To perform distribution tasks efficiently, a firm needs all of the following except:
answer
To maintain high inventory levels.
question
In the context of the management perspective used in the text, it is appropriate to view final users as:
answer
Target markets.
question
Agents, brokers, and commission merchants' percentage of total wholesale sales in 2002 was:
answer
9% to 14%.
question
Economic concentration in terms of percentage of total wholesale sales enjoyed by most merchant wholesalers in their respective line of trade is:
answer
Relatively low.
question
A basic phenomenon in the ranks of retailers since 1948 has been:
answer
The increase of average sales per store.
question
Which statement about Gazelle is false?
answer
Distribution channels are not adequately used by Gazelle..
Distribution
Full Line Discount
Marketing
Principles Of Marketing
Private Label Brands
BUA370 Chapter 17: Retailing and Multichannel Marketing – Flashcards 11 terms

Christine Brunetti
11 terms
Preview
BUA370 Chapter 17: Retailing and Multichannel Marketing – Flashcards
question
Multichannel strategy
answer
Selling in more than one channel (e.g., stores, Internet, catalog).
question
What are the factors manufacturers should consider when developing strategies for working with retailers?
answer
1. Choosing retail partners 2. Identifying types of retailers 3. Developing a retail strategy 4. Managing a multichannel strategy
question
Considerations associated with choosing retail partners
answer
1. Channel structure; the degree to which the channel is vertically integrated. 2. Customer expectations; retailers should know consumer preferences regarding manufacturers. They should also know where their target consumers expect to find their products and those of their competitors. 3. Channel member characteristics; generally larger, sophisticated channel members are less likely to use supply chain intermediaries
question
Distribution Intensity
answer
The number of channel members to use at each level of the marketing channel. distribution intensity is commonly divided into three levels: intensive, exclusive, and selective
question
Intensive distribution
answer
A level of distribution intensity whereby a firm tries to place its products and services in as many outlets as possible.
question
Exclusive distribution
answer
Granting exclusive geographic territories to one or very few retail customers so no other retailers in the territory can sell a particular brand. This can benefit manufactures by assuring them that the most appropriate retailers represent their products.
question
Selective distribution
answer
This relies on a few selected retail customers in a territory to sell products. Like exclusive distribution, this helps a seller maintain a particular image and control the flow of merchandise into an area.
question
Retail strategy using 4 P's
answer
Product: offering assortments give customers choice. Price: price helps define the value and the service, sometimes image. Promotion: this can mean the difference between flat sales and a growing consumer base. Place: convenience is the key to success; an aspect being location.
question
What are the benefits of stores for consumers?
answer
Browsing, touching and feeling products, personal service, cash & credit payment, entertainment and social experience, immediate gratification, and risk reduction.
question
What are the benefits of internet and multichannel retailing?
answer
Deeper and broader selections, personalization in customer service and offerings, and expanded market presence.
question
Challenges of mutlichannel retailing
answer
An effective multichannel operation requires an integrated CRM system, a consistent brand image across all channels, consistent pricing in various channels, and a supply chain that efficiently delivers merchandise to multiple channels.
Distribution
Marketing
Moral And Ethical Principles
People And Institutions
Sports Marketing
Trade
DECA Marketing Cluster Exam Vocab 2016 – Flashcards 198 terms

Paula Corcoran
198 terms
Preview
DECA Marketing Cluster Exam Vocab 2016 – Flashcards
question
Account Manager
answer
Vendor representative in charge of specific customers or channel partners
question
Agent
answer
An independent company or person who resells a product or service
question
Bar Code
answer
A unique identification code on products, pallets and coupons. The code is read by an electronic scanner for receiving, ordering and inventory control purposes
question
Channel
answer
A means that a manufacturer may market and sell products to end users and consumers. A system used for extending sales beyond a company's internal resources, using partners such as resellers and retailers. Members of a channel may include: a direct sales force, resellers, distributors, retailers, agents, dealers, catalogs, or websites
question
Channel Captain
answer
A channel partner who is given a leadership role to help organize the channel and prevent conflict.
question
Channel Management
answer
A process by which a company creates formalized programs for selling and servicing customers within a specific channel
question
Channel of Distribution
answer
A specified and orgnanized network of agencies and institutions which in combination perform all the functions required to link merchandisers with end customers to accomplish the marketing task of distribution
question
Channel Partner
answer
A company who a manufacturer partners with to market and sell the manufacturer's products and/or services; might be a reseller, distributor, retailer, agent, or dealer
question
Co-Branding
answer
Going to the market with mulitple brands tied to a product or service
question
Consumer
answer
Also called a "customer", a consumer is a person or company a product/service is sold to and who will make use of the product
question
Distribution
answer
A chain of delivery from a manufacturer to a store
question
Distributor
answer
One that markets and or sells a product; typically a wholesaler or other intermediary who helps move a product from the manufacturer to a company that is authorized to sell the product on behalf of the manufacturer
question
Diversion
answer
The reselling of a product by a partner without agreement from the vendor
question
Dual Distribution
answer
Occurs when a producer is allowed to use different channels to reach the same market as long as they are not enagaging in unfair competition
question
E-Commerce
answer
The exchange of goods, information products, or services via an electronic medium such as the Internet.
question
Exclusive Dealing
answer
Forbidding an intermediary to carry a competitior's products is anticompetitive and is illegal if it blocks competitors from 10% of the market, if sales revenues are sizeable, and if the manufacturer is larger than the dealer
question
Full-Line Forcing
answer
Requiring a channel member to carry an entire product line in order to obtain any of the supplier's products, and is illegal if it does not service a legitimate business need
question
Grey Market
answer
An unofficial market in which products are bought and sold at prices lower than the authorized prices
question
Incentive Program
answer
Any program used to motivate sales or performance, or any behavior to achieve desired results usually in a specific time frame
question
Inventory Control
answer
Managing inventory to insure the proper amount is on hand and ordered so the right amount is on hand but not oversupplied
question
Inventory Shrinkage
answer
A reduction in inventory caused by theft, spoilage, damage, or an unknown reason
question
JIT
answer
"Just-in-time" is an inventory system that allows parts to arrive just as they are needed. It is used in many manufacturing plants, reduces excess inventory on hand and reduces the need for large warehouses and associated costs
question
Manufactorer
answer
The company that develops, creates, and/or manufacturers a product or who has proprietary rights to a product
question
OEM
answer
Original Equipment Manufacturer. A company that produces equipment made from components that are typcially purchased from other manufacturers
question
Partner
answer
Company which has an official recognition in a channel and provides extended sales reach to a vendor. Also known as providers, members, and middlemen
question
Performance ROI
answer
Performance Return on Investment. The numeric value of incremental revenues and profit gained by a specific trade channel program
question
Profit Margin
answer
The amount of every dollar of sales a company actually keeps as profit
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Provider
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A company that provides reach to the vendor as part of the channel. For legal reasons, some vendors prefer the term provider rather than partner
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Pull Strategy
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Promotional acts of creating interest in a specific product within a target audience who then demands the product from channel partners, causing the product to be "pulled" through the manufacturer's sales channels
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Push Strategy
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The act of "pushing" a product through a marketing channel by employing trade promotions or other activities that incent the channel to pruchase the product
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Reseller
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Independent companies which are authorized to purchase and resell a manufacturer's products
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SPIF/SPIFF
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Sales Performance Incentive Fund / Special Performance Incentive for Field Force These incentives are financial rewards used to incent the behavior and activity that will lead to specific goals and achievement or short-term sales objectives
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Stuffing
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A practice used by a vendor to inflate sales and earnings figures by delivering products to the channel ahead of schedule
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Trade Channel Program
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A manufacturer-initiated sales or marketing promotional campaign that is targeted at channel partners
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Trade Industry
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The industry of purchasing products from manufacturers for resale to the others; members include retailers, wholesalers, resellers, and agents
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Trade Promotion
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A sales or marketing promotional campaign targeted at a segment in the sales channel rather than at the end consumer
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Two-Level Channel
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Occurs when a retailer is between the producer and consumer
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Tying Arrangement
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Occurs when a channel member is required to buy additional products in order to be able to purchase a certain product. This is illegal if it promotes unfair competition
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Vendor
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A company which provides product and organizes a channel to sell it
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Wholesaler
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A member of a company's channel who purchases products from the manufacturer, holds an inventory, and then distributes products to authorized channel partners; provides cost and delivery efficiencies
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Zero-Level Channel
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A direct connection between producer and consumer
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Activity-Based Cost
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Accounting procedures that can quantify the true profitability of different activities by identifying their actual cost
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Capital Items
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Durable goods that help develop or manage the finished product
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Company-Sales Forecast
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The estimated level of sales based on a marketing plan and an assumed marketing environment
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Corporate Culture
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The shared experiences, stories, beliefs, and norms that characterize an organization
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Database Marketing
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The process of building, maintaining, and using databases for the purpose of contacting, transacting, and building customer relationships
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Demographics
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The description of outward traits that characterize a group of people, such as age, sex, nationality, marital status, education, occupation or income. Decisions on market segmentation are often based on demographic data
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Direct Marketing
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The use of consumer-direct channels to reach and deliver goods and services to customers without using a middleman
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E-Marketing
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Company efforts to inform buyers, communicate, promote, and sell its products and services over the Internet
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Fad
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A short-lived, unpredictable trend that is without social, economic, and political significance
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Focus Group
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A qualitative research technique in which a group of about eight people is invited to a neutral venue to discuss a given subject. The principle is the same as an in-depth interview, except that group dynamics help to make the discussion livelier and more wide-ranging. Qualitative groups enable the researcher to probe deeper into specific areas of interest (for example, the nature of commitment to a brand). The result adds richer texture to the understanding of broader data (for example, quantitative), which may paint general trends or observations. Also known as a group discussion
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Forecasting
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Anticipating what buyers are likely to do under a given set of conditions
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Frequency Programs
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Designed to provide rewards to customers who make purchases on a regular basis and/or in substantial amounts
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Loyalty
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A commitment to buy again a preferred product or service
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Relative Market Share
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Market share in relation to a company's largest competitor
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Risk Analysis
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A method by which possible rates of returns and their probabilities are calculated by obtaining estimates for uncertain variables affecting profitability. This type of analysis can assist businesses in making better decisions
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Average mark-up
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The sum dollar mark-up of all items sold divided by the number of items sold. This figure will reflect an average gross profit for all items sold
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Bait and Switch
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Attracting customers by advertising a sale on a certain item and then pressuring them to buy a higher-priced alternative
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Bracket Pricing
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A price schedule based on the number of cases a retailer orders. The greater the quantity ordered, the lower the price per case. Also called a volume or quantity discount
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Break-Even Point
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The point at which revenue equals total costs. After this point, a business will be making a profit
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Cash Discount
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A price reduction for customers who pay their bills on time
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Competition-Oriented Pricing
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Basing a company's prices off the prices of competitors
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Competitor-Based Pricing
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A pricing method used to set price for a product or service based on the competitor's product prices.
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Conjoint Analysis
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A market research method of exploring the relationship between percieved elements of customer value and price
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Consumer Perception
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The way in which a consumer views a product, price, company, brand, etc. Perceptions are opinions. Ex: that product is cool; those shoes are too expensive for their quality
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Cost Price
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Purchase price of a product or service
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Cost-Oriented Pricing
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Uses the cost of acquiring or producing a product and all other business expenses as a basis for the price of that product
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Customer Value
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Quantification of the perceived value of the product or service from a customer's view
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Customer Willingness
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Refers to the maximum price a customer is willing to pay for a product or service
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Demand-Oriented Pricing
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A method used when marketers try to determine what consumers are willing to pay for a product
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Discount Price
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Lowering your retail price below the normal retail price set originally
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Dynamic Pricing
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A pricing method used to set prices time-dependent. This method is most often used in the tourist industry, or reverse auction bidding
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Every Day Low Prices
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Practice in which discounts are eliminated to provide consistently low prices
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Exploit
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To take advantage of a situation in a selfish way
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Fixed Price
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When the normal retail price will not be lowered or raised for a sales promotion or for selling to an individual customer
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Flatrate Pricing
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A pricing method used to set a fixed price for consumption of a product or service over a period of time
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Keystone Margin
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When the cost of an item is doubled to set the retail price, providing a margin of 50% on retail. (This is 100% Mark-up)
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List Price
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The selling price of something as stated in a catalog or price list
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Margin Percentage
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The difference between the cost and retail price of an item ($ mark-up) as a percentage of the retail price. A $10.00 cost item at 50% margin sells for $20.00 retail
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Mark-Up
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The difference between the cost and the retail price of an item expressed in dollars and cents
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Mark-up Percentage
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The difference between the cost and retail price of an item ($ mark-up) as a percentage of the cost. A $10.00 cost item at 50% mark-up sells for $15.00 retail
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Market Share
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A percentage of total sales in a market captured by a certain company
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Markup
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The difference between the cost of a product and its selling price. The basic calculation concerning markup is: Cost + Markup = Retail Price
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Multiple Unit Pricing
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Selling items in multiples (e.g. 5 items for $1.99) to suggest a bargain and help increase sales volume
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Odd-Even Pricing
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Setting prices that all end if either odd or even numbers. Odd numbers ($.99, $7.95, $9.99) suggest the price for the product is a bargain. Even numbers ($10, $50, $100) suggest quality
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Penetration Pricing
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Setting the initial price low with the hope of saturating the market with the product and gaining market share
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Power Pricing
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A pricing method used to aggressively set high prices to maximize profit, but also take significant volume losses into account
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Predatory Pricing (Dumping)
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Selling products at such a low price, even at a loss, to increase market share and eliminate competition only to raise prices once the competitive threat has closed
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Premium Price
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An amount paid in addition to the regular market price as a result of an advantage/higher value over competitor products
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Prestige Pricing
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Setting higher than normal prices to suggest the product has prestige
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Price
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Numerical monetary value assigned to a product or service
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Price Controlling
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A part of systematic price management which main purpose is to monitor and track pricing related efforts and activities
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Price Discrimination
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The practice of selling of the same product to different buyers at different prices
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Price Elasticity
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A measure of the change in demand in response to a change in price of a product or service
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Price Fixing
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An agreement between two or more parties, generally considered to be competitors, to set, maintain, and charge a specified price for a particular product. Horizontal Price Fixing is an unlawful practice in a free market because it is can stifle innovation, artificially raise prices, create inefficiency, and possibly create a monopoly in which output is reduced and prices are raised
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Price Follower
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Competitors in the market which follow the price related actions of a price leader
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Price-Leader
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Dominant competitor in the market who initiates price related actions such as setting, increasing or cutting prices
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Price Lining
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Selling all products in a given category at certain prices. Ex: all the jeans in a clothing store may either be priced at $35, $45, or $60
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Price Segmentation
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Price segmentation (offering different prices to different market segments) increases overall revenues and profits, and it is particularly beneficial to industries that have high fixed cost structures. Obviously, price segmentation works better to the extent to which there are real customer need segments and to which you can effectively isolate those segments. As an example, imagine that your business only offers one product priced at $5. But some consumers are willing to pay up to $8. You are leaving $3 on the table for each of them. Other consumers are more price-sensitive and only willing to pay $3. You do not get any of their business. With price segmentation more revenue is generated by offering three prices -- $3, $5 and $8 - instead of just one -- $5. Prices can be segmented in the following ways: âą By time (higher hotel room rates for holidays and other peak tourist seasons) âą By location (higher prices in locations with less competition or in which less price-sensitive shoppers shop, orchestra versus balcony seats in a theater) âą By volume (volume discounts for large orders) âą By product attribute (first class vs. coach section on airplanes; solid brass vs. plastic faucets) âą By product bundling - examples: selling software in product suites vs. by the program selling e-Learning by library vs. the individual course fixed price versus a la cart menus "fully-loaded" models versus "basic" models with additional options available single admission ticket at theme parks versus charging per ride By customer segment (brand-loyal vs. price-sensitive vs. convenience-oriented or image-conscious vs. economy-oriented) Other price/value considerations âą Pricing strategy should consider these factors: (1) perceived customer value, (2) competitive response, (3) channels of distribution, (4) cost parameters and (5) congruence with the brand position âą Constantly explore new ways to uniquely add customer value to your products and services âą In creating greater customer value, always ask, "How can we make it quicker, easier, less risky, or more pleasant to do business with us?" Ask, "What could we do that would favorably surprise and delight our customers?" âą Communicate the value of services that you provide for free âą Providing value-added products and services at "no charge" is superior to price discounting as a short-term purchase incentive because it preserves the value of the brand âą Be careful to price your products and services to reward brand-loyal (versus brand-switching) behavior
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Price War
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A situation in which two or more companies tend to cut prices for competing products to retain or gain market share
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Product Bundle Pricing
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A method in which several products are offered for one sale, and is often marked at a discounted price compared to each product individually
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Profit Maximization
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The ability for a company to achieve its maximum profit
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Psychological Pricing
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Pricing techniques that change the perception of a product (e.g. it's a bargain; it's high quality)
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Quantity Discount
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A price reduction offered to customers who buy large amounts of a product
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Retail Price
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The dollar amount you set as the normal retail price
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Sales Allowance
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A type of of reduction from the list price of an item. Ex: receiving a $4,000 deduction from the sticker price for trading in an old car when buying a new car
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Seasonal Discount
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Lower-than-normal price offered as an incentive for buyers to make out-of-season purchases for goods or services
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Sherman Anti-Trust Act
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Passed in 1890, it prohibits certain business activities that the federal government believes are anticompetitive. The legislation has been used to combat monopolies
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Skimming
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Setting the initial price high in hopes of capitalizing on the high demand for a new product
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Survival Pricing
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Pricing products to cover variable costs to simply stay in business
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Target Price
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A price which a buyer or a seller wants to achieve during the negotiation process
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Trade Discount
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A price reduction offered by the seller to members in a certain trade channel. If a manufacturer does frequent business with a wholesaler, they might give them a discount on certain products
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Unit Cost
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The dollar cost for a single item
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Awareness
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The percentage of population or target market who are aware of the existence of a given brand or company. There are two types of awareness: spontaneous, which measures the percentage of people who spontaneously mention a particular brand when asked to name brands in a certain category; and prompted, which measures the percentage of people who recognize a brand from a particular category when shown a list
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Brand
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A brand is a mixture of attributes, tangible and intangible, symbolized in a trademark, which, if managed properly, creates value and influence. Value has different interpretations: from a marketing or consumer perspective it is "the promise and delivery of an experience"; from a business perspective it is "the security of future earnings"; from a legal perspective it is "a separable piece of intellectual property." Brands offer customers a means to choose and enable recognition within cluttered markets
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Brand Architecture
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How an organization structures and names the brands within its portfolio. There are three main types of brand architecture system: monolithic, where the corporate name is used on all products and services offered by the company; endorsed, where all sub-brands are linked to the corporate brand by means of either a verbal or visual endorsement; and freestanding, where the corporate brand operates merely as a holding company, and each product or service is individually branded for its target market
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Brand Association
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The feelings, beliefs and knowledge that consumers (customers) have about brands. These associations are derived as a result of experiences and must be consistent with the brand positioning and the basis of differentiation
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Brand Commitment
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The degree to which a customer is committed to a given brand in that they are likely to re-purchase/re-use in the future. The level of commitment indicates the degree to which a brand's customer franchise is protected from competitors
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Brand Earnings
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The share of a brand-owning business's cashflow that can be attributed to the brand alone
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Brand Equity
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The sum of all distinguishing qualities of a brand, drawn from all relevant stakeholders, that results in personal commitment to and demand for the brand; these differentiating thoughts and feelings make the brand valued and valuable
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Brand Essence
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The brand's promise expressed in the simplest, most single-minded terms. The most powerful brand essences are rooted in a fundamental customer need. For example: FED EX, when it has to get there
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Brand Experience
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The means by which a brand is created in the mind of a stakeholder. Some experiences are controlled such as retail environments, advertising, products/services, websites, etc. Some are uncontrolled like journalistic comment and word of mouth. Strong brands arise from consistent experiences which combine to form a clear, differentiated overall brand experience
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Brand Extension
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Leveraging the values of the brand to take the brand into new markets/sectors
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Brand Identity
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The outward expression of the brand, including its name and visual appearance. The brand's identity is its fundamental means of consumer recognition and symbolizes the brand's differentiation from competitors
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Brand Image
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The customer's net "out-take" from the brand. For users this is based on practical experience of the product or service concerned (informed impressions) and how well this meets expectations; for non-users it is based almost entirely upon uninformed impressions, attitudes and beliefs
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Brand Licensing
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The leasing by a brand owner of the use of a brand to another company. Usually a licensing fee or royalty rate will be agreed for the use of the brand
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Brand Management
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Practically this involves managing the tangible and intangible aspects of the brand. For product brands the tangibles are the product itself, the packaging, the price, etc. For service brands (see Service Brands), the tangibles are to do with the customer experience - the retail environment, interface with salespeople, overall satisfaction, etc. For product, service and corporate brands, the intangibles are the same and refer to the emotional connections derived as a result of experience, identity, communication and people. Intangibles are therefore managed via the manipulation of identity, communication and people skills
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Brand Parity
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The attribution of human personality traits (seriousness, warmth, imagination, etc.) to a brand as a way to achieve differentiation. Usually done through long-term above-the-line advertising and appropriate packaging and graphics. These traits inform brand behavior through both prepared communication/packaging, etc., and through the people who represent the brand - its employees
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Brand Personality
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The attribution of human personality traits (seriousness, warmth, imagination, etc.) to a brand as a way to achieve differentiation. Usually done through long-term above-the-line advertising and appropriate packaging and graphics. These traits inform brand behavior through both prepared communication/packaging, etc., and through the people who represent the brand - its employees
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Brand Positioning
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The distinctive position that a brand adopts in its competitive environment to ensure that individuals in its target market can tell the brand apart from others. Positioning involves the careful manipulation of every element of the marketing mix
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Brand Valuation
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The process of identifying and measuring the economic benefit - brand value - that derives from brand ownership
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Branding
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Selecting and blending tangible and intangible attributes to differentiate the product, service or corporation in an attractive, meaningful and compelling way
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Co-Branding
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The use of two or more brand names in support of a new product, service or venture
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Consumer Packaged Goods
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Describes inventory that is in such a form that is ready for sale to consumers
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Consumer Product
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Goods (consumer goods) or services (consumer services) purchased for private use or for other members of the household
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Consumer Protection Laws
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Government regulations designed and implemented to ensure fair competition and the free flow of truthful information in the marketplace
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Core Competencies
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Relates to a company's particular areas of skill and competence that best contribute to its ability to compete
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Corporate Identity
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At a minimum, is used to refer to the visual identity of a corporation (its logo, signage, etc.), but usually taken to mean an organization's presentation to its stakeholders and the means by which it differentiates itself from other organizations
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Counterfeiting
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When an organization or individual produces a product that looks like a branded product and is packaged and presented in a manner to deceive the purchaser
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Country of Origin
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The country from which a given product comes. Customers' attitudes to a product and their willingness to buy it tend to be heavily influenced by what they associate with the place where it was designed and manufactured
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Customer Characteristics
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All distinguishing, distinctive, typical or peculiar characteristics and circumstances or customers that can be used in market segmentation to tell one group of customers from another
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Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
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Tracking customer behavior for the purpose of developing marketing and relationship-building processes that bond the consumer to the brand. Developing software or systems to provide one-to-one customer service and personal contact between the company and the customer
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Customer Service
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The way in which the brand meets its customers' needs via its various different channels (for example, over the telephone or Internet in the case of remote banking, or in person in the case of retail or entertainment)
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Differential Product Advantage
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A feature of a product that is valuable to customers and is not found in other products of the same category
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Differentiation
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Creation or demonstration of unique characteristics in a company's products or brands compared to those of its competitors
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Differentiator
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Any tangible or intangible characteristic that can be used to distinguish a product or a company from other products and companies
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Diversification
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A product-market strategy that involves the development or acquisition of offerings new to the organization and/or the introduction of those offerings to the target markets not previously served by the organization
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Diversion
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When genuine product is sold to a buyer in one market/channel and then resold by the same buyer into another market/channel, without the consent or authority of the brand owner, to take advantage of a price arbitrage situation. Definition also applies to parallel trade, gray market or gray market activities
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Endorsed Brand
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Generally a product or service brand name that is supported by a masterbrand - either dominantly e.g. Nestle Kit-Kat
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FMCG
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Fast Moving Consumer Goods. An expression used to describe frequently purchased consumer items, such as foods, cleaning products and toiletries
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Freestanding Brand
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A brand name and identity used for a single product or service in a portfolio, which is unrelated to the names and identities of other products in the company's portfolio
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Goods
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A product consisting predominantly of tangible values. Almost all goods, however, have intangible values to a greater or lesser extent
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Guarantee
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Similar to a warranty, it is intended to correct a problem with a product or service and focuses on a specific aspect of that product or service
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Image
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A dynamic and profound affirmation of the nature, culture, and structure of an organization
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Intangibles
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"Intangible" - incapable of being touched. (1) Intangible assets - trademarks, copyrights, patents, design rights, proprietary expertise, databases, etc. (2) Intangible brand attributes - brand names, logos, graphics, colors, shapes and smell
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Launch
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The initial marketing of a new product in a particular market. The way in which the launch is carried out greatly affects the product's profitability throughout its lifecycle
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Market Position
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A measure of the position of a company or product on a market. Defined as market share multiplied by share of mind
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Market Segment
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A group of customers who (a) share the same needs and values, (b) can be expected to respond in much the same way to a company's offering, and (c) command enough purchasing power to be of strategic importance to the company
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Market Share
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A company's share of total sales of a given category of product on a given market. Can be expressed either in terms of volume (how many units sold) or value (the worth of units sold)
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Masterbrand
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A brand name that dominates all products or services in a range or across a business. Sometimes used with sub-brands, sometimes used with alpha or numeric signifiers
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Monolithic Brand
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A single brand name that is used to "masterbrand" all products or services in a range. Individual products are nearly always identified by alpha or numeric signifiers. Companies like Mercedes and BMW favor such systems
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Multibrand Strategy/ Multiple Branding
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Marketing of two or more mutually competing products under different brand names by the same company. The motive may be that the company wishes to create internal competition to promote efficiency, or to differentiate its offering to different market segments, or to get maximum mileage out of established brands that it has acquired. When a company has achieved a dominant market share, multibrand strategy may be its only option for increasing sales still further without sacrificing profitability. For example, Lever Brothers sells washing powders under the Persil, Omo and Surf names; Cadbury sells chocolates under the Dairy Milk, Bournville and Fruit & Nut names; Heinz sells canned convenience foods under the Baked Beans, Spaghetti Hoops and Alphabetti Spaghetti names
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Niche (Niche Market)
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A distinct segment of a market
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OEM Market
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OEM stands for Original Equipment Manufacturers. The OEM market consists of companies that use another company's product as a component in their own production. A manufacturer of ball bearings, for example, sells both to OEM customers who build the bearings into machines and to end users who need the bearings as spare parts for machines that they have bought from the OEMs. Most manufacturing companies thus have an OEM market and a replacement market. The latter is usually called the MRO market or aftermarket
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Offering
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What a company offers for sale to customers. An offering includes the product and its design, features, quality, packaging, distribution, etc., together with associated services such as financing, warranties and installation. The name and brand of the product are also part of the offering
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Packaging Design
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The design of the pack format and graphics for a product brand
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Parent Brand
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A brand that acts as an endorsement to one or more sub-brands within a range.
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Passing Off
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The name given to a legal action brought to protect the "reputation" of a particular trademark/brand/get up. In essence, the action is designed to prevent others from trading on the reputation/goodwill of an existing trademark/brand/get up. The action is only available in those countries that recognize unregistered trademark rights (for example the UK and US). In some countries, it is called "unfair competition action."
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Perceptual Mapping Graphic
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Analysis and presentation of where actual and potential customers place a product or supplier in relation to other products and suppliers. Most perceptual maps show only two dimensions at a time, for example price on one axis and quality on the other. There also are methods of graphically analyzing and presenting measurement data in three or more dimensions
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Positioning
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The process by which marketers work to create an image or identity in the minds of their target market for its product, brand, or organization
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Power Branding
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A strategy in which every product in a company's range has its own brand name which functions independently, unsupported by either the company's corporate brand or its other product brands. Power branding is a resource-intensive strategy, since each brand must be commercially promoted and legally protected. This strategy is used mainly by manufacturers of consumer goods. Lever's and Procter & Gamble's detergents are good examples of power brands
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Product
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A good or service available to consumers
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Product Brand
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A brand which is synonymous with a particular product offering, for example, Cheerios
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Product Bundling
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Occurs when two or more products are offered to a customer at a single price
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Product Life-Cycle
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A model describing the progress of a product from the inception of the idea, through the main period of sales, to its eventual decline. Introduction, growth, peak, decline are all commonly desribed stages
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Product Mix
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The variety of product lines that a company produces, or that a retailer stocks. Product mix usually refers to the length (the number of products in the product line), breadth (the number of product lines that a company offers), depth (the different varieties of product in the product line), and consistency (the relationship between products in their final destination) of product lines
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Product Opportunity
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The need or desire for a product or service that does not yet exist, noticed by a company or individual
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Product/Service Management
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A marketing function involving developing, obtaining, maintaining, and improving a product or service mix in response to market opportunities
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Rebrand
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When a brand owner revisits the brand with the purpose of updating or revising based on internal or external circumstances. Rebranding is often necessary after an M&A or if the brand has outgrown its identity/marketplace
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Relative Market Share
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Your own company's market share compared to those of your competitors. A large share confers advantages of scale in product development, manufacturing and marketing. It also puts you in a stronger position in the minds of customers, which has a positive influence on pricing
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Relaunch
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Reintroducing a product into a specific market. The term implies that the company has previously marketed the product but stopped marketing it. A relaunched product has usually undergone one or more changes. It may, for example, be technically modified, rebranded, distributed through different channels or repositioned
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Repositioning
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Communications activities to give an existing product a new position in customers' minds and so expanding or otherwise altering its potential market. Many potentially valuable products lead an obscure existence because they were launched or positioned in an inadequate manner. It is almost always possible to enhance the value of such products by repositioning them
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Rollout
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The process by which a company introduces a new product or service to different geographical markets or consumer segments
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Service
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An intangible activity performed by other people in exchange for payment. Ex: getting a manicure; or having your car washed
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Service Brand
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A product consisting predominantly of intangible values. "A service is something that you can buy and sell, but not drop on your foot" (The Economist). In this sense, a service is something that you do for somebody, or a promise that you make to them
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Share of Mind
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There are many definitions of share of mind. At its most precise, share of mind measures how often consumers think about a particular brand as a percentage of all the times they think about all the brands in its category. More loosely, share of mind can be defined simply as positive perceptions of the brand obtained by market research. Whereas market share measures the width of a company's market position, share of mind can be said to measure its depth
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Share of Voice
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The media spending of a particular brand when compared to others in its category
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Sub-Brand
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A product or service brand that had its own name and visual identity to differentiate it from the parent brand
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Tangibles
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"Tangible" - capable of being touched. (1) Tangible assets - manufacturing plant, bricks and mortar, cash, investments, etc. (2) Tangible brand attributes - the product and its packaging. (3) Tangible brand values - useful qualities of the brand known to exist through experience and knowledge
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Top-of-Mind
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What is present in the uppermost level of consciousness; the manufacturer or brand that people in market surveys name first when asked to list products in a specific category. Top-of-mind is the highest degree of share of mind. To attain that position, a company normally needs to have a large share of voice in its category
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Total Quality Management
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A management technique to improve the quality of goods and services, reduce operating costs and increase customer satisfaction
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Trademark
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Any sign capable of being represented graphically which is capable of distinguishing goods or services of one undertaking from those of another undertaking
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Trademark Infringement
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A trademark registration is infringed by the unauthorized use of the registered trademark, or of one that is confusingly similar to it, on the registered goods or services, or in certain circumstances on similar or dissimilar goods and services
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Trendsetter
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Someone or thing that breaks a traditional mold or routine and gains a following because of it. iMac is an example of trendsetting in design as now office supplies come in the familiar colors and translucent packaging of an iMac
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User Segmentation
answer
Division of potential customers into market segments according to how and for what purpose they use a product. Do they use it for cleaning their teeth or for making cakes (baking powder)?
question
Value of Brands
answer
Take a look at the list below that shows the world's top 10 brands in 2013 (as measured by value): Apple Samsng Group Google Microsoft Walmart IBM GE Amazon.com Coca-Cola Verizon Source: brandirectory.com We, as consumers, feel loyal to such brands and the mere sight of their logo has us reaching into our pockets to buy their products
question
Visual Identity
answer
What a brand looks like - including, among other things, its logo, typography, packaging and literature systems
question
Warranty
answer
A written agreement that states your product or service will work as it is advertised
Distribution
Marketing
Principles Of Marketing
Vertical Marketing System
Marketing DSM Chapter 11 – Flashcards 30 terms

James Storer
30 terms
Preview
Marketing DSM Chapter 11 – Flashcards
question
In a process called __________, companies are eliminating many traditional intermediaries because they find that they don't add enough value to the distribution channel.
answer
disintermediation (of the distribution center)
question
The advantage of using __________ is that they facilitate transactions for bulky products.
answer
drop shippers
question
Marketers use __________ for products such as chewing gum, soft drinks, and milk that consumers quickly consume and must replace frequently.
answer
intensive distribution
question
Sales agents who receive goods, primarily agricultural products, on consignment are __________.
answer
commission merchants
question
__________ is the storing of goods in anticipation of sale or transfer to another member of the distribution channel.
answer
warehousing
question
The name for the process that includes product returns, recycling and material reuse, and waste disposal
answer
reverse logististics
question
the series of activities that occurs between the time an order comes into the organization and the time a product goes out the door
answer
Order processing
question
the process of designing, managing, and improving the movement of products through the supply chain
answer
logistics
question
the mode by which products move among channel members
answer
transportation
question
a channel of distribution in which there is formal cooperation among members at the manufacturing, wholesaling, and retailing levels
answer
vertical marketing system (VMS)
question
selling a product only through a single outlet in a particular region
answer
exclusive distribution
question
a group of retailers that establishes a wholesaling operation to help them compete more effectively with the large chains
answer
retailer cooperative
question
an arrangement within a channel of distribution in which two or more firms at the same channel level work together for a common purpose
answer
horizontal marketing system
question
The number of times a firm's inventory completely cycles through during a defined time frame
answer
inventory turnover
question
a multiple-level distribution channel in which channel members work independently of one another
answer
conventional marketing system
question
a type of vertical marketing system, members remain independent but voluntarily work together because of the power of a single channel member
answer
administered VMS
question
the dependence of producers, wholesalers, and retailers on one another for success
answer
channel cooperation
question
the ability of members to influence, control, and lead the entire channel based on one or more sources of power
answer
channel power
question
the dominant firm that controls the channel
answer
channel leader (or channel captain)
question
incompatible goals, poor communication, and disagreement over roles, responsibilities, and functions among firms at different levels of the same distribution channel that may threaten a manufacturer's distribution strategy
answer
channel conflict
question
the inventory management and purchasing processes that manufacturers and resellers use to reduce inventory to very low levels and ensure that deliveries from suppliers arrive only when needed
answer
just-in-time inventory
question
the name for all the activities necessary to turn raw materials into a good or service and put it in the hands of the consumer or business customer
answer
supply chain
question
the distinct categories of intermediaries that populate a channel of distribution
answer
channel levels
question
buys products from a manufacturer and sells them to business customers
answer
industrial distributor
question
uses a number of different channels and communication methods to serve a target market
answer
hybrid marketing system
question
a fee paid in exchange for agreeing to place a manufacturer's products on a retailer's valuable shelf space
answer
slotting allowance
question
Firms that handle the flow of information from the manufacturer to the retailer or business user
answer
wholesaling intermediaries
question
channel intermediaries that are not controlled by any manufacturer but instead do business with many different manufacturers and many different customers
answer
Independent intermediaries
question
intermediaries that buy goods from manufacturers and sell to retailers and other business-to-business customers
answer
Merchant wholesalers
question
channel intermediaries that provide services in exchange for commissions but never take title to the product
answer
Merchandise agents (brokers)
Area
Distribution
Network Security
Networking
Social Security Numbers
Security Review #2 – Flashcards 60 terms

Henry Lowe
60 terms
Preview
Security Review #2 – Flashcards
question
1. On your way into the back entrance of the building at work one morning a man dressed as a plumber asks you to let him in so he can "fix the restroom." what should you do?
answer
Direct him to the front entrance and instruct him to check in with the receptionist.
question
2. Which of the following is not an example of a physical barrier access control mechanism?
answer
One time passwords.
question
3. Which of the following can be used to stop piggybacking that has been occurring at a front entrance where employees should swipe their smart cards to gain entry?
answer
Deploy a mantrap.
question
4. You want to use CCTV to increase your physical security. You want to be able to remotely control the camera position. Which camera type should you choose?
answer
PTZ.
question
5. Which of the following CCTV camera types lets you adjust the distance that the camera can see (i.e. zoom in or out)?
answer
Varifocal.
question
6. Which of the following is the most important thing to do to prevent console access to the router?
answer
Keep the router in a locked room.
question
7. You have 5 salesmen who work out of your office and who frequently leave their laptops laying on their desk in their cubicles. You are concerned that someone might walk by and take one of these laptops. Which of the following is the best protection to implement to address your concerns?
answer
Use cable locks to chain the laptops to the desks.
question
8. Which of the following fire extinguisher types is best used for electrical fires that might result when working with computer components?
answer
Class C.
question
9. You walk by the server room and notice a fire has started. What should you do first?
answer
Make sure everyone has cleared the area.
question
10. Which of the following fire extinguisher suppressant types is best used for electrical fires that might result when working with computer components?
answer
Carbon Dioxide (C02)11.)
question
11. What is the recommended humidity level for server rooms?
answer
50%.
question
12. Users are complaining that sometimes network communications are slow. You use a protocol analyzer and find that packets are being corrupted as they pass through a switch. You also notice that this only seems to happen when the elevator is running. What should you do?
answer
Install shielded cables near the elevator.
question
13. A smart phone was lost at the airport. There is no way to recover the device. Which if the following will ensure data confidentiality on the device?
answer
Remote wipe.
question
14. Which of the following are not reasons to remote wipe a mobile device?
answer
When the device is inactive for a period of time.
question
15. The presence of unapproved modems on desktop systems gives rise to the LAN being vulnerable to which of the following?
answer
War dialing.
question
16. Which Internet connectivity method sends voice phone calls using the TCP/IP protocol over digital data lines?
answer
VoIP.
question
17. Which of the following is not a reason to use subnets on a network?
answer
Combine different media type on to the same subnet.
question
18. Which of the following best describes the purpose of using subnets?
answer
Subnets divide an IP network address into multiple network addresses.
question
19. Which protocol uses traps to send notifications from network devices?
answer
SNMP
question
20. You have been using SNMP on your network for monitoring and management. You are concerned about the security of this configuration. What should you do?
answer
Implement Version 3 of SNMP.
question
21. Which of the following protocols allows hosts to exchange messages to indicate problems with packet delivery?
answer
ICMP
question
22. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is equivalent to the IPv4 loopback address of 127.0.0.1?
answer
::1
question
23. You are configuring a network firewall to allow SMTP outbound e-mail traffic, and POP3 inbound e-mail traffic. Which of the following TCP/IP ports should you open on the firewall (Select Two.)?
answer
25, 110
question
24. Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
answer
FEC0::AB:9007.
question
25. Which port number is used by SNMP?
answer
161
question
26. You want to close all ports associated with NetBIOS on your network firewalls to prevent attacks directed against NetBIOS. Which ports should you close?
answer
135,137-139.
question
27. Which of the following protocols uses port 443?
answer
HTTPS.
question
28. Which of the following ports does FTP use to establish sessions and manage traffic?
answer
20, 21
question
29. If an SMTP server is not properly and securely configured, it can be hijacked and used maliciously as a SMTP relay agent. Which of the following activity could it result in?
answer
Spam.
question
30. Which of the following is the best countermeasure against man-in-the-middle attacks?
answer
IPsec.
question
31. While using the Internet, you type the URL of one of your favorite sites in the browser. Instead of going to the correct site, however, the browser displays a completely different website. When you use the IP address of the web server, the correct site is displayed. Which type of attacks likely occurred?
answer
DNS poisoning.
question
32. Which of the following attacks tries to associate an incorrect MAC address with a known IP address?
answer
ARP poisoning.
question
33. What are the most common network traffic packets captured and used in a replay attack?
answer
Authentication
question
34. A router on the border of your network detects a packet with a source address that is from an internal client but the packet was received on the Internet-facing interface. This is an example of what form attack?
answer
Spoofing.
question
35. What is modified in the most common form of spoofing on a typical IP packet?
answer
Source address.
question
36. What of the following is a privately controlled portion of a network that is accessible to some specific external entities?
answer
Extranet.
question
37. You are implementing security at a local high school that is concerned with students accessing inappropriate material on the Internet from the library's computers. The students will use the computers to search the Internet for research paper content. The school budget is limited. Which of the following filtering option would you choose?
answer
Restrict content based on content categories.
question
38. You are the office manager of a small financial credit business. Your company handles personal, financial information for clients seeking small loans over the internet. You are aware of your obligation to secure clients records, but budget is an issue. Which item would provide the best security for this situation?
answer
All-in-one security appliance.
question
39. Which of the following is a firewall function?
answer
Packet filtering.
question
40. Which of the following are characteristics of a circuit-level gateway (Select two.)?
answer
Stateful, Filters based on sessions.
question
41. Which of the following are characteristics of a packet filtering gateway (Select two.)?
answer
Stateless, Filters IP address and port.
question
42. You want to install a firewall that can reject packets that are not part of an active session. Which type of firewall should you use?
answer
Circuit-level.
question
43. Which of the following is a valid security measure to protect e-mail from viruses?
answer
Use blockers on e-mail gateways.
question
44. Which of the following prevents access based on website ratings and classifications?
answer
Content filter.
question
45. You want to reduce collisions by creating separate collision domains and virtual LANs. Which of the following devices should you choose?
answer
Switch.
question
46. Which of the following is an advantage of using switches to create virtual LANs?
answer
Broadcast traffic travels to a subset of devices rather than to all devices on the network.
question
47. Which characteristic of a switch can improve bandwidth utilization and reduce the risk of sniffing attacks on the network?
answer
A switch filters port traffic based on MAC address.
question
48. What characteristics of hubs poses a security threat?
answer
Hubs transmit frames to all hosts on all ports.
question
49. Which of the following devices does not examine the MAC address in a frame before processing or forwarding the frame?
answer
Hub.
question
50. A relatively new employee in the data entry cubical farm was assigned a user account similar to that of all of the other data entry employees. However, audit logs have shown that this user account has been used to change ACLs on several confidential files and has accessed data in restricted areas. This situation indicates which of the following has occurred?
answer
Privilege escalation.
question
51. An attacker has obtained the logon credentials for a regular user on your network. Which type of security threat exists if this user account is used to perform administrative functions?
answer
Privilege escalation.
question
52. What is the main difference between a worm and a virus?
answer
A worm can replicate itself, while a virus requires a host for distribution.
question
53. What type of malware monitors your actions?
answer
Spyware.
question
54. A collection of zombie computers have been setup to collect personal information. What type of malware do the zombie computers represent?
answer
Botnet.
question
55. What is a program that appears to be a legitimate application, utility, game, or screensaver and that performs malicious activities surreptitiously?
answer
Trojan horse.
question
56. Which of the following actions should you take to reduce the attack surface of a server?
answer
Disable unused services.
question
57. Which of the following describes a configuration baseline?
answer
A list of common security settings that a group or all devices share.
question
58. FTPS uses which mechanism to provide security for authentication and data transfer?
answer
SSL.
question
59. You need to increase the security of your Linux system by finding and closing open ports. Which of the following commands should you use to locate open ports?
answer
nmap
question
60. What will the netstat -a command show?
answer
All listening and non-listening sockets.
Average Tax Rate
Distribution
Economics
European Central Bank
International Economics
Marginal Tax Rate
IB Economics: Equity in the distribution of income – Flashcards 12 terms

Lewis Edwards
12 terms
Preview
IB Economics: Equity in the distribution of income – Flashcards
question
Lorenz curve
answer
illustrates the degree of equality of income distribution in an economy; plots the cumulative percentage of income received by cumulative shares of the population
question
Gini coefficient
answer
= area between diagonal and Lorenz curve / entire area under diagonal
question
poverty
answer
inability to afford an adequate standard of goods/services
question
absolute poverty
answer
inability to afford a basic standard of goods/services, where this standard is absolute and unchanging
question
relative poverty
answer
inability to afford an adequate standard of goods/services, where this standard is relative and changes over time and defined as a particular percentage of society's median income
question
transfer payments
answer
payments made by the government to individuals for the purpose of redistributing income
question
proportional tax
answer
as income increases, the fraction of income paid as taxes remains constant
question
progressive tax
answer
as income increases, the fraction of income paid as taxes increases
question
regressive tax
answer
as income increases, the fraction of income paid decreases
question
average tax rate
answer
tax paid divided by total income, expressed as a percentage
question
marginal tax rate
answer
tax rate paid on additional income
question
income distribution
answer
concerned with how much of an economy's total income different groups in the population receive
Amino Acids
Analytical Chemistry
Distribution
Equilibrium
Forensic Science
Forensics
Interactions
Molecules
Forensics: Paper Chromatography 9 terms

James Hopper
9 terms
Preview
Forensics: Paper Chromatography
question
In paper chromatography, which is the mobile phase?
answer
solvent
question
In paper chromatography, which separates the components of the ink?
answer
Interactions with the filter paper slow the movements of various components of the ink differently.
question
Which describes Rf ?
answer
the ratio of the distance of a spot to the distance of the solvent front
question
Which solvent(s) ran off the paper in the time allotted?
answer
-water-alcohol mixture -water
question
Which color spots were in the dye from the red marker?
answer
-pink -red
question
Which marker had a spot or streak with an Rf value of approximately 0.67?
answer
red
question
Which was the slowest spot in the black marker's chromatogram?
answer
lightblue
question
Which chromatography solvent had the best separation while remaining on the paper in the allotted time?
answer
alcohol
question
Which marker or markers had Rf values that matched the ink in the ransom note?
answer
-red -black
Distribution
The Body
Wrist
gly 1102 topic 36 25 terms

Kevin Stewart
25 terms
Preview
gly 1102 topic 36
question
All pterosaurs' skulls have huge eye sockets.
answer
true
question
The 400-500 teeth in each jaw of Pterodaustro may have been used as a sieve for filtering out plankton scooped up into its mouth.
answer
true
question
Most endotherms bear live young.
answer
true
question
Ramphorhyncoids went extinct prior to the great extinction of dinosaurs at the end of the Cretaceous.
answer
true
question
In most pterosaurs, the scapula and coracoid are fused to form a
answer
scapulocoracoid
question
Pterosaurs have a global distribution.
answer
true
question
The pterosaurs diversified into several lineages during the Lower Triassic.
answer
false
question
Pterosaurs were the first vertebrates to develop flapping flight.
answer
true
question
All pterosaurs lacked teeth.
answer
false
question
The (blank) was a pterosaur membrane that extended from the fifth toe to the tail along the posterior edge of the leg.
answer
uropagatia
question
Only endothermic animals have developed the ability to fly.
answer
true
question
Which vertebrates were the first to be capable of powered flight?
answer
pterosaurs
question
The shape of the deltopectoral crest is used to differentiate pterosaur clades.
answer
true
question
The earliest pterosaurs are from the (blank) of Italy.
answer
Upper Triassic
question
Some Rhamphorhynchus specimens have a membranous tail vane.
answer
true
question
Which statement about pteranodons is false?
answer
They were all filter feeders. (True: They are toothless. They are the largest pterosaurs. They exhibit sexual dimorphism. They have global distribution.)
question
A decrease in abundance and diversity of pterosaurs during the Cretaceous, most probably was caused by
answer
diversification of marine birds.
question
There is no evidence that pterosaurs had body hair.
answer
false
question
Pterosaurs have a small head, relative to body size.
answer
false
question
There is no evidence of sexual dimorphism in pterosaurs.
answer
false
question
Pteranodons are among those pterosaurs exhibiting a number of anatomical differences between the sexes.
answer
true
question
The (blank) is a small membrane spanning the area between the shoulder and the wrist of pterosaurs.
answer
propatagium
question
The main wing membrane of pterosaurs is the
answer
patagium.
question
The pterosaur images in your text reveal that this South American country has a rich fossil record of these winged creatures.
answer
Brazil
question
The pterosaur humerus has a large (blank), an anterior projection for the anchoring of flight muscles.
answer
deltopectoral crest
Data
Distribution
Mean Median Mode
political science 200 midterm queens college 12 terms

Marta Browning
12 terms
Preview
political science 200 midterm queens college
question
mode
answer
The value that occurs most frequently in a given data set.
question
median
answer
Middle number
question
mean
answer
Average
question
independent variable
answer
The variable that is varied or manipulated by the researcher.
question
dependent variable
answer
It is something that depends on other factors.
question
validity
answer
accuracy of measurement
question
reliability
answer
Consistency
question
dispersion
answer
Pattern of spacing among individuals.
question
aggregate
answer
sum total; a collection of separate things mixed together
question
categorical variable
answer
A variable recorded as labels, names, or other non-numerical outcomes.
question
ordinal variable
answer
a qualitative variable that incorporates an ordered position, or ranking
question
interval variable
answer
the order matters, and the distance between data points are all equal. Ex: Temperature
Cloward And Ohlin
Criminal Justice
Distribution
Lower Class
Violence
Crim 105 final – Flashcards 45 terms

Rebecca Mallory
45 terms
Preview
Crim 105 final – Flashcards
question
According to Cohen, delinquent subcultures are rooted in all but which of the following?
answer
Acceptance of violence as normal
question
Cohen argues that ? band together to form subcultures in which they can define status in ways that seem attainable to them.
answer
Delinquent boys
question
? boys try to make the best of bad situations, according to Cohen.
answer
Corner boys
question
Which of the following does Cohens theory explain?
answer
Why must delinquents become law abiding individuals even though their position in the class structure remains relatively.
question
According to Cloward and Ohlin, which type of gang emerges in areas where conventional and illegitimate values and behavior are integrated by a close connection of illegitimate and legitimate business?
answer
Criminal gangs
question
One of the main criticisms of differential opportunity theory is that?
answer
it is class oriented
question
Who introduced the subculture of violence theory?
answer
Wolfgang and Ferracuti
question
using nationwide data collected for the Presidents Commission on the Causes and Prevention of Violence, Howard Erlanger found?
answer
No major differences in attitudes toward violence by class or gender
question
Which of the following is not one of the focal concerns identified by Miller?
answer
Self confidence
question
A lower class persons resentment of external controls, whether parents, teachers, or police, is related to what focal concern?
answer
Autonomy
question
In studying attachment to lower-class focal concerns, Cernovich found that toughness, excitement, trouble, and ? were related to self reported delinquency in all classes.
answer
Pleasure seeking
question
Stephen Cernovich concluded that it is ? rather than class that is/are associated with delinquency.
answer
Values
question
Who published the first major work on the lifestyle of female gang members in New York?
answer
Anne Campbell
question
Researchers have identified several types of suburban gangs, Which of the following is not one of these types of gangs?
answer
Drug Gangs
question
Mobilization for Youth (MOBY) was based on what theory?
answer
Opportunity
question
Which of the following would not be a focus of social control theorists?
answer
Individual modes of adaptation to environmental strains
question
The concept of social control emerged in the early 1900's in a volume by ?
answer
E.A Ross
question
According to Ross ? rather than specific laws guide what people do and universally serve to control behavior.
answer
Belief systems
question
Who has been the spokes person for the Microsociological perspective since 1969?
answer
Travis Hirschi
question
Which if the following is not a form of Hirschi's first bond, attachment?
answer
Attachment to church
question
The preoccupation with activities that promote the interests of society would be an example of which type of Hirschi's bonds?
answer
Involvement
question
? is the assent to the society's value system
answer
Belief
question
One of differences that Michael Hindelang found between his research and Hirschi's research is that there is ?
answer
No relationship between attachment to mother and peers.
question
In testing Hirschi's theory, Michael Hindelang found involvement in delinquency was positively related to ?
answer
Attachment to peers.
question
According to Matza, when a bond between a person and the law is not in place a youth may enter a state of ? where he or she exists in limbo between convention and crime.
answer
Drift
question
According to Reiss, delinquency is a result of all except the following factors?
answer
attachment to delinquent peers
question
? theory assumes that for every individual there exists a containing external structure and a protective internal structure, both of which provide defense, protection, or insulation against delinquency.
answer
Containment
question
According to Reckless, the primary containment factor is found in ?
answer
self concept
question
Who developed the notion that multiple control factors determine human behavior?
answer
Francis Ivan Nye
question
Gottfredson and Hirschi proposed a new model of personal and social control in A General Theory of Crime. Their model assumes that?
answer
offenders have little control over there own behavior and desires.
question
Labeling theorists are interested in all but which of the following?
answer
Why people commit crimes in the first place.
question
The intellectual roots of labeling theory can be traced to the work of all but which of the following theorists?
answer
Emile Durkheim
question
In the 1940's which of the following theorists formulated the basic assumptions of labeling theory?
answer
Edwin Lemert
question
The work of Howard Becker suggests that is is the ? who make the rules that define deviant behavior.
answer
Moral entrepreneurs
question
Labeling by adjudication was studied by?
answer
Richard Schwartz and Jerome Skolnick
question
Which theoretical perspective claims that a struggle for power is a basic feature of human existence?
answer
Conflict
question
The ? model of lawmaking assumes that members of society by large agree on what is right and wrong, and that law is the codification of these agreed upon social values.
answer
Consensus
question
Conflict theorists argue that ?
answer
Laws represent the interests of specific groups that have the power to get them enacted.
question
Who was the first theorists to relate conflict to criminology?
answer
George Vold
question
When Freda Adler studied the importance of non-legal factors in the decision making of juries, she found that the ? of the defendants significantly influenced their judgment.
answer
socioeconomic level
question
The leading American spokesperson for radical criminology is ?
answer
Richard Quinney
question
Carl Klockars attacks Marxists for focusing exclusively on?
answer
Class interests
question
Left realists recognize street crime as ?
answer
An inevitable outcome of social and political deprivation
question
Radical feminists view the cause of crime in women to be ?
answer
Male aggression
question
The peacemaking perspective is part of an intellectual and social movement toward ?
answer
Restorative justice
Distribution
Finance
Money
Risk
Finance Managment – Flashcards 64 terms

Ember Wagner
64 terms
Preview
Finance Managment – Flashcards
question
People who are "risk averse" usually don't invest their money in anything.
answer
False
question
Financial risk can be defined as the uncertainty around an expected outcome.
answer
True
question
Even the desire for money exhibits a declining marginal utility
answer
True
question
The correct way to find an average of a distribution of outcomes is to add up all the outcomes and divide by the number of outcomes.
answer
False
question
The expected value of a distribution is also the weighted mean.
answer
True
question
The risk of an investment is best measured by its expected return.
answer
False
question
Standard variation equals the Square root of variance
answer
True
question
In the normal distribution, approximately 68% (two-thirds) of the outcomes will fall within one standard deviation of the mean.
answer
True
question
The correlation coefficient ranges from -1.0 to +1.0.
answer
True
question
All else being equal, risk averse investors prefer wider, flatter distribution of returns around the mean.
answer
False
question
If two assets are perfectly positively correlated, we can put them together into a portfolio and completely eliminate risk.
answer
lse
question
We would expect the correlation coefficient between the number of days of sunshine and umbrella sales to be positive.
answer
True
question
) The idea of diversification is to maintain a level of return and decrease your risk.
answer
True
question
We can obtain the maximum benefits of diversification by holding approximately 25-30 assets in a portfolio.
answer
True
question
Beta measures the total risk of an investment.
answer
False, Beta measures assets systematic risk relative to market portfolio
question
Unsystematic risk can be diversified away in a portfolio.
answer
True
question
The Capital Asset Pricing Model is used to predict the required return on an investment.
answer
True
question
The best definition of "risk" is
answer
uncertainty about an outcome.
question
The "expected value" is
answer
the weighted average and mean
question
The bell curve is a graphical representation of
answer
the normal distribution.
question
A share of stock has an expected return of 12 percent and a standard deviation of 24 percent. Therefore, its coefficient of variation is
answer
2.0
question
To be "diversified" means to hold
answer
different assets to minimize risk.
question
If two assets have returns that move together perfectly, their correlation coefficient is
answer
+1.0.
question
The best reason to hold the market portfolio is it
answer
is the most efficient.
question
Beta is a measure of:
answer
systematic risk.
question
If a stock has a beta greater than 1.0, then its expected return
answer
is greater than the market portfolio.
question
The three major decisions in financial management involve investing, financing, and the payment of dividends.
answer
True
question
Financial management cannot be related to other functional areas of management such as marketing.
answer
False
question
The most common form of business organization in the United States is the sole proprietorship.
answer
True
question
Common stock is a security that has the features of both debt and equity.
answer
False, Its just equity
question
The goal of hospitality financial management is to maximize the wealth of the owners.
answer
TRUE
question
A good example of an agency relationship in a hotel is the relationship between a bartender and a server.
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False
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Maximizing revenue will always maximize the wealth of the owners.
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False
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Value is created if a project's
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incremental benefits exceed incremental costs
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Which of the following is the disadvantage of the corporate form of organization?
answer
the tax treatment of dividends
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Which of the following makes preferred stock different from common stock?
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Common stockholders can vote for the board of directors
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The three factors that determine the value of future dividends are
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size, timing, and risk.
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The goal of wealth maximization for the owners makes sense for the firm because
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if we have satisfied the owners, we have satisfied all other parties as well.
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Agency problems arise because
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people usually act in their own best interest
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You are the owner of a Comfort Inn and would like to hire a new general manager. In terms of preventing possible agency problems, what should you include in your offer?
answer
profit sharing
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Financial management is the process of classifying financial information.
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Financial management is the process of classifying financial information.
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The shareholders of a corporation have unlimited liability
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False
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The balance sheet equation is: assets + liability = owners equity
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False it is assets = liability +owners equity
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Shirking is considered an agency problem
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True
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A Subchapter S Corporation has double taxation.
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False
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With the sole proprietorship type of organization, it is easy to increase capital.
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False, It is very hard
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The income statement indicates firm performance between two balance sheet dates.
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True
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The uniform system of accounts helps managers organize the statement of cash flows.
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False
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The detail of a hotel income statement will vary depending on the needs of the user.
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True
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Cash is found in the owner's equity account.
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False
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Assets are held by the firm to generate revenues and cash flows.
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True
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The statement of cash flows has three major components.
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True Operating investion and Financing activities
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Liquidity ratios measure the amount of long-term debt held by the firm
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False Short term
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Owners would like to have a higher current ratio than lenders
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False
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A current ratio of less than 1.0 for a hospitality company is always bad
answer
False
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Which of the following is a "snapshot" of the hospitality operation?
answer
Balance sheet
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Securities held by the firm for more than are year are classified as
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Long term invenstments
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For current liabilities, "current" means
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payable within a year.
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Assets relate to revenue as liabilities relate to
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expenses.
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Over the long term, successful companies generate positive cash flows from
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operating activities.
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The impact of the Enron accounting scandal was
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ncreased investor scrutiny regarding financial statements and the audit process.
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Which of the following is a limitation of ratio analysis?
answer
Ratios indicates there is a problems but it does not indicate what is the problem
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The number of times interest earned is a
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solvency ratio.
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If current liabilities exceed current assets, then the:
answer
current ratio will be less than one
Distribution
Goods And Services
Marketing
Sports Marketing
Glencoe Entrepreneurship: Building a Business Chapter 10 Vocabulary – Flashcards 17 terms

Jay Barber
17 terms
Preview
Glencoe Entrepreneurship: Building a Business Chapter 10 Vocabulary – Flashcards
question
Marketing Plan
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A blueprint used by a business to guide its marketing activities to a desired conclusion.
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Marketing Objectives
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Goals a business wants to accomplish through its marketing efforts.
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Marketing Mix
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Made up of 5 marketing strategies you will use to reach your market.
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Brand
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Name, symbol, or design used to identify a product.
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Package
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Physical container or wrapper that holds the product.
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Label
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Part of the package used to present information.
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Product Positioning
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How consumers see your product compared to the competition's product.
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Product Mix
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All of the products a company makes or sells.
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Channel of Distribution
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The path a product takes from the producer to the final user.
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Intermediaries
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People or business that move Distribution products between producers and final users.
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Intensive Distribution
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Placement of a product in all suitable outlets.
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Selective Distribution
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Limits the number of sales outlets in a given area.
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Exclusive Distribution
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Limits the number of outlets to one per area.
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Marketing Tactics
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Activities that need to be taken to carry out the marketing plan.
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Private Brand
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Brand that is owned and initiated by a wholesaler or retailer.
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Gurantee
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An assurance of the quality of a product.
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Diversification
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Process of investing in products or businesses with which you are not currently involved.