Which of the following do Neo-Piagetians argue should have more emphasis in cognitive developmental theory?

attention, memory, and strategy More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-6-cognitive-development-approaches/

A nurse is assessing a 9-month-old infant for potential developmental delay. Which of the following observations should the nurse expect to find to support this condition?

Inability to sit without support More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ati-nursing-care-of-children-1/

A nurse is assessing a 9-month-old infant during a well-child visit. Which of the following findings indicates that the infant has a developmental delay?

Inability to vocalize vowel sounds More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ati-nursing-care-of-children-1-2/

what process do implantation, organogensis, developmental involution and metamorphosis have in common

apoptosis in physiologic circumstances More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/apoptosis-22732/

Which of the following questions would NOT be used by a cognitive developmental researcher?

What portion of the brain governs mood? More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/feldman-1-6/

Developmental psychologists would describe Jennifer as an “emotion-dismissing” parent to her son. Which of the following types of behavior is Jennifer MOST likely to engage in?

b. She ignores her child when he cries. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-8-socioemotional-development-in-early-childhood-2/

Psychological disorders are considered developmental disorders when there is a:

significant dysfunction during childhood More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/essay-abnormal-psychology-lesson-17-speedback-important-concepts-self-check/

A disorder in which a child shows a developmentally inappropriate lack of attention and an excess of impulsivity is known as:

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/criminology-ch-4-6/

Which one of the following components is part of the most recent American Association of Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities (AAIDD) definition of Intellectual dabilities?

significiate limitations in Intellectual functioning More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch3-4/

What is the difference between a scheme and an operation in cognitive developmental theory?

an operation is a mental manipulation of related schemes More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/newman-chapter-2/

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Developmental Hands And Feet

Developmental Quizzes 1-6 – Flashcards 61 terms

Andrew Hubbs

61 terms

Preview

Developmental Quizzes 1-6 – Flashcards

question

The correct choice of developmental sequences that appear in appropriate developmental order:

answer

Supine play with hands and feet, rolling onto belly, side-lying play, combat crawling

question

Development of postural control is dependent upon the interaction of the baby's body, task and environment.

answer

True

question

Reciprocal crawling is the highest form of hands and knees mobility.

answer

True

question

In prone, as the weight shifts cephalic, this allows for more increased freedom of upper extremity use.

answer

False

question

The following three sensory systems contribute to a child's awareness of orientation in space:

answer

Visual, somatosensory, vestibular

question

When a baby is in supine as a newborn, the following is NOT true:

answer

Baby is able to track faces across room

question

Leah has low muscle tone. You, as her OT, are trying to build her muscle strength in her trunk and gain better proximal control of her shoulder girdle. You decide to put her in a position that promotes weight bearing on one extended arm and through the pelvis to allow the non-weight bearing hand to play easily. She can finally do this because her trunk and shoulder girdle are able to move freely from each other. What is the position?

answer

Side-lying propped position playing with toys with free arm

question

Annie is excited that Taylor, her 3.5 month old baby is rolling! She is convinced that the Taylor knows what she is doing and is safe on a bed unattended as long as there are no toys around her. You are a pediatric OT, but also her friend, how do you handle this situation?

answer

Warn Annie that this type of rolling is most likely incidental rolling and probably due to an ATNR or a weight shift, and that keeping Taylor on a bed unsupervised is dangerous.

question

Brooke is an 8 month old infant who is trying to reach for a toy that is inside a closed container. Her mom provides her the support to open container giving Brooke hand over hand assistance to retrieve the toy. According to Vygotsky, the parent is providing support and assistance so that the infant can achieve this goal. Vygotsky terms this support or guidance as

answer

Scaffolding by caregiver

question

Using dynamic systems theory, children demonstrate stages of learning that define how they learn and what actions they exhibit at different stages. The child initially experiments and is highly inconsistent in his actions. What sequence reflects the stages of motor learning to acquire a new skill?

answer

Exploratory activity, perceptual learning, skill achievement

question

Using Dr. Vaughn's the "Tree of Development" analogy at what level should the OT evaluation begin and, although not ideal; at what level do many therapists often begin their evaluation?

answer

Roots; branches

question

A voluntary active movement pattern that works in the opposite movement of the reflex will help integrate the primitive reflex.

answer

True

question

___________is/are involuntary movements that, when inhibited allow for voluntary movement.

answer

Reflexes

question

What is/are the first active movement pattern(s) to develop in infancy?

answer

Extension

question

An O.T received a referral for a third grade student with handwriting difficulty. When observing the student in class, looking up to copy the homework assignments from the board and then looking down to copy the assignments in their notebook on their desk, the O.T. noticed challenges such as: difficulty maintaining desk posture (frequently laid upper body extended down on desk while seated), messy handwriting, very tight pencil grasp. These difficulties may be attributed to non integration of which primitive reflex?

answer

Symmetrical Tonic Neck reflex

question

Reflexes develop in which developmental progression?

answer

Caudal to cephalo

question

According to Konicarova and Bob (2012), results of their study support the hypothesis that the neuropsychiatric disorder (ADHD) is associated with which primitive reflexes not being integrated in school-aged children?

answer

Moro reflex and the Galant reflex

question

A child exhibiting difficulty with balls handling skills (catching/throwing) in gym class and on the playground will frequently drop the ball and/or get hit by the ball when the ball is not thrown directly to their midline. The OT will likely test for integration of which primitive reflex which may be persisting and interfering with this functional activity?

answer

Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex

question

Faulty movement patterns still influenced by reflexive movement provides a poor foundation for posture, stability, and mobility.

answer

True

question

Which primitive reflex did Dr. Vaughn describe as the only primitive reflex to involve all sensory systems and non-integration may contribute to increased cortisol levels and resultant high levels of stress/high anxiety and decreased immunological function?

answer

Moro reflex

question

Ezequiel is a two year old boy who loves playing with cars. He is zipping around his family room holding a wood block and going "Zoom -zoom" and laughing as he is crashing two cars together. His mother and sister are in the room watching a show together. What type of thinking is he demonstrating?

answer

Imaginary/representational thinking

question

Which activity is NOT considered play?

answer

Parent directed goals for organized activity

question

Victoria is a 12 month old girl referred to EI for her poor mobility skills. The TEAM performed their transdisciplinary evaluation and found her eligible for services. The OT was called in, given the results of the evaluation and asked to go see the baby to initiate services and initiate OT. Upon arrival, Victoria was sitting on the floor, flapping the pages of menu, holding it up to the light and tapping her fingers on the menu while rocking back and forth in a seated position. When toys were given to her, she threw them aside with a swipe of her hand, not even attempting to pick them up. She made no eye contact with the OT as well when toys were given to her. This raised a red-flag to the OT that this baby is going to need a lot more than stability and mobility training, but social play as well! What type of Parten's social play is Victoria displaying?

answer

Unoccupied behavior

question

Victoria is now 5 years old and is enrolled in the autism program in school. She participates in supervised play groups. Her favorite play group is a rough and tumble type of set up in the adaptive gym area of camp. She loves to watch the kids slide up and down the slide and laughs and claps for them. She is gravitationally insecure so she does not like slides or swings. She does like to run around the area when the kids are swinging. Pick the best answer as to what type of social play pattern she is displaying.

answer

Onlooker behavior

question

Children learn to play best by: choose one

answer

Self-guided exploration

question

Which play is predominant in infancy?

answer

Sensorimotor play

question

Which characteristics is NOT part of the definition of play?

answer

Externally motivated

question

Executive functioning and self-regulation can be seen in the following age(s):

answer

-Infancy as young as 6 months old -3 year olds -6 year olds -Twelve year olds

question

What statement best describes playfulness?

answer

It refers to a person's approach toward play

question

You are treating a 4 year old boy with poor strength and endurance. You play a game of building a tower using large boxes filled with bean bags. You allow the child to take breaks but decrease the time for breaks each week. How are you using play in this treatment session?

answer

Tool to increase strength and endurance

question

In adolescence, there is a connection between hormones, stress and:

answer

Substance abuse Depression Anxiety disorders Emotional disorders

question

Why should occupational therapists working with teens with disabilities be receptive to discussions about sex?

answer

Teens with disabilities are more likely to experience sexual abuse

question

What is the term for how one views his or her physical self?

answer

Body image

question

Which group of adolescents is more likely to demonstrate lower self-esteem and poor self-concept associated with body image and engage in more risky behaviors?

answer

Early maturing girls

question

Which statement best describes the psychosocial development of late adolescents?

answer

Strengthen relationships with parents.

question

Which parenting style would be most helpful for successful adolescent development?

answer

Authoritative

question

Which of the following behaviors are indicative of a teen with negative self-esteem?

answer

Makes self-deprecating comments, makes excuses

question

According to the text, which statement best describes the role of the occupational therapist working with an adolescent with disabilities?

answer

Help provide opportunities for teens to engage in typical adolescent experiences, make their own choices, and engage in social relationships.

question

Possibly linked to hormonal changes, adolescent girls are more prone to eating disorders with sharing family meals cited as a practice to reduce that risk.

answer

True

question

At what age does the average child copy a triangle and print their own name?

answer

5-6 years

question

At what age do children demonstrate adult speed in writing?

answer

Ninth grade

question

What area of handwriting readiness can games such as obstacle courses and the "hokey-pokey" promote?

answer

Right-left discrimination

question

What are the advantages of cursive writing?

answer

It allows for faster and more automatic writing.

question

Erica is eating her cheerios and hides a cheerio in the palm of her hand. Which in-hand manipulation did Erica use?

answer

Translation

question

A teacher in the toddler (18-24 months) classroom of a local daycare center asked you, the occupational therapy consultant, for advice on cutting activities for one of her activity centers. What do you recommend?

answer

Filling the sand and water table with scraps of paper and scissors for students to practice snipping, Rolling out green "snakes" with playdough and snipping the rolls into small pieces with scissors.

question

To prevent future handwriting difficulties (dysgraphia), the article by Zobel-Lachiusa & Pierce, 2011, discusses the value of early introduction of manuscript writing, before the age of five years, for elementary-aged children.

answer

False

question

What is the optimal position of upper extremities for successful scissors use?

answer

Wrist in 40-45 degrees of extension, forearm in midposition, thumb holding paper pointed up, thumb holding scissors pointed up, radial fingers used to open/close scissors, ulnar fingers remain flexed and still.

question

Kenny is a 6 year old entering kindergarten. He was transferred to his current school with an IEP stating, "Kenny will be able to write his name independently by October 2014." It is the beginning of the school year and you notice Kenny cannot even imitate a +, square or circle. At this point in time, what concepts should Kenny be working on in therapy?

answer

Trace and then learn to imitate forms such as +,O,/, X

question

Which grasp patterns do not require thumb opposition?

answer

Lateral pinch, Hook grasp, Power grasp

question

Tyra is a 14-year-old girl who lives with her two older brothers (16 and 18) and parents. She receives special education services including services within the general education class and some pull out services. Recently, Tyra has expressed anger and irritability, snapping frequently at peers. However, some days she presents as a pleasant and giddy teen. What is the most likely cause of this behavior?

answer

Changing moods are typical of adolescence.

question

In adolescence, there is a connection between hormones, stress and:

answer

Substance abuse Depression Anxiety disorders Emotional disorders Any of the above

question

The visual system is completely developed at birth

answer

False

question

A kindergarten-aged student should be able to exhibit which visual skill(s)?

answer

-Follow a moving object 8-12" away with eyes -move eyes separately from head -track objects with eyes in horizontal, vertical, oblique and circular planes

question

Newborns most prefer to gaze at

answer

Human faces

question

A result of the sequence of visual perceptual development, letters that involve oblique or diagonal lines such as A,X,Y, K, should be taught for handwriting at around what age?

answer

6-7 years

question

A nine year old fourth grade student is observed reversing letters b,d,p,q, this is most due to difficulties with:

answer

Visual discrimination

question

Which of the following is a required performance skill/pattern for successful dressing?

answer

Cognitive skills, sensory-perceptual skills

question

Which of the following is false regarding toileting?

answer

Supervision is required if the child is capable of participating in self-catherization

question

Which of the following parental body mechanics are NOT recommended when bathing a child?

answer

Hunch over the child

question

Verbal cues, shadowing, two finger assist, and hand over hand cues are five by parents or therapists to help children with learning a new skill. The hierarchy of cues is often given using the fewest cues necessary and fades out to promote independence

answer

True

question

Effra is a 5 year old boy has a diagnosis of severe CP, is totally dependent on an adult for positioning and often displays abnormal reflexes. He has extreme extensor tone when being moved in space or when his head tips backwards. In order to help decrease the amount of extension in his trunk, what can the ot suggest when educations staff and/or parents on changing effra?

answer

Encourage parents or staff to use a privacy screen when changing/dressing effra. & Use a wedge or elevate the head with a pillow or support to help decrease extensor tone

STUDY

Articulation Developmental Final Consonant Deletion Linguistics Training Weak Syllable Deletion

Comps Artic – Flashcards 164 terms

Brad Bledsoe

164 terms

Preview

Comps Artic – Flashcards

question

Three approaches to articulation therapy.

answer

Traditional, behavioral and linguistic-based

question

This approach focuses on production of one or two phonemes at a time, until correct production is achieved.

answer

Traditional.

question

Techniques of traditional approach (9).

answer

Phonetic placement (before 1939), moto-kinesthetic, group method, integral stimulation, servotheory approach, sensory motor approach, discrimination approach, nonsense approach, stimulus approach.

question

Phonetic placement approach.

answer

Difficult to transfer skills learned to conversational speech. They also used their hands to manipulate the articulators (gross!)

question

Moto-kinesthetic approach approach,

answer

Sounds are taught as part of specified stimulus syllable, word, phrase or sentence. Client lies down. Used today with Cerebral Palsy

question

Group method approach.

answer

Emphasized client as a whole person with many behaviors, of which speech is only one. Think of it like AA (group therapy). This is often used in schools. Depends on warm, accepting atmosphere.

question

Integral stimulation approach.

answer

Involves many sources of feedback (esp. auditory and visual). Stress is put on the successful production of the first carefully chosen sounds. Takes into account frequency of phonemes.

question

Servotheory approach.

answer

Stresses need for client to discriminate the error sound and the correct target. Two stages. One, client learns to discriminate. Two, client produces sound in different words until production is consistent (even in spontaneous conversation).

question

Sensory-motor approach.

answer

Very systematic approach, uses coarticulatory effects in context of assessment and treatment. Developed McDonald Deep Test of Articulation. Syllable is the unit on which the approach is structured (ex, using back vowels with /k, g/ phonemes, and not paring /r/ with /o/ because it rounds the /r/, making it like /wo/.

question

Discrimination approach.

answer

Discrimination is key. When child can discriminate between error and target in sentences, production begins. Clinician uses toys and child must use correct name. Correct articulation is rewarded.

question

Nonsense approach.

answer

Goal is to use learned, target sounds not only in deliberate way, but also in spontaneous conversational speech. After child has mastered, they must use target in nonsense materials (CV, VCV, VC syllables and conversations).

question

Stimulus approach

answer

By Charles Van Riper (Father of articulation therapy). Focuses on the single misarticulated target sound. Four major steps (sensory perceptual training, production training for sound establishment, production training for sound stabilization, transfer and carry-over).

question

Four (five) major steps of Charles Van Riper's stimulus approach.

answer

1. Sensory-perceptual training or ear training (identification, isolation, stimulation and discrimination). 2. Production training for sound establishment. 3. Production training for sound stabilization. 4. Transfer and carry-over (5. Maintenance)

question

In stimulus approach (step 3), levels of sound stabilization production.

answer

A. Isolation B. Nonsense syllables C. Words D. Phrases E. Sentences F. Conversation

question

Behavioral approach application to articulation therapy.

answer

1.Baseline (present client's behavior) 2. Target behavior (desired behavior) 3. Cues & prompts (stimuli designed to evoke desired behavior from client). 4. Consequences (stimuli presented following a response, incl. positive reinforcement)

question

Fixed ratio vs. variable ratio

answer

Fixed ratio involves an immediate reward for every successful production. Variable ratio means more sporadically rewarded (variable ratio schedule: 18 correct/6 reinforcers= 3 VR schedule)

question

Linguistic-based approaches (2 major approaches)

answer

1. Distinctive Feature Approach: Child needs to learn the adult rule system. Teaching individual sounds does not help this rule. (Very time consuming) 2. Phonological Process Approach: End goal is improved communication

question

Three guiding principles for selection of process for remediation (in phonological approach of linguistic-based approaches).

answer

1. Select processes that interfere most with intelligibility. 2. Select less stable processes. 3. Select processes that are most common in young children. What is the etiology of cerebral palsy? ~~damage or malformation of the brain. Pre-, peri-, or post-natally

question

What are the associated problems of cerebral palsy?

answer

Physical, psychological, learning. E.g., sucking, swallowing, chewing, seizures, learning, visual and emotional problems.

question

What are the speech characteristics of cerebral palsy?

answer

developmental dysarthria. Respiratation, phonation, resonance.

question

What is the assessment of cerebral palsy?

answer

Pre-speech assessment scale. Non-speech acts necessary for normal artic development: Head control with neck stability Coordinated pattern of respiration & phonation w/ development of abdominal muscles Variety of feeding experiences Babbling practice

question

What is the remediation for cerebral palsy?

answer

Early neurodevelopmental team intervention: therapeutic physical handling, a variety of feeding experiences, successful experiences of normal motor acts

question

What is cleft palate?

answer

structural anomaly that can affect the tissues, muscles, & bony processes of lip, alveolar process, hard palate, soft palate, and uvula during the embryonic development. Failure of structures to unite/ fuse.

question

What is the etiology of cleft palate?

answer

uncertain, but may be due to trauma, malnutrition, drugs, viral infections; possible genetic predisposition

question

What are the speech characteristics of cleft palate?

answer

Resonance: hypernasality is a common problem Articulation: related to the severity of the cleft condition Decreased intraoral pressure: glottal stop, pharyngeal fricative, etc. Dental & occlusal abnormalities Hearing Loss: conductive, fluctuating Other: functional articulation problems Phonation: weak, breathy voice w/ tendency for vocal abuse

question

What is the assessment of cleft palate?

answer

team. Orofacial examination; Speech evaluation; Hearing; Language.

question

What is the remediation and prognosis of cleft palate?

answer

Sx or prosthetic management; Resonance; Phonation

question

What are the traditional methods for obtaining speech samples?

answer

-Screening Tests are used to identify persons who need intervention; preschoolers, etc. For school-age children and adults these are brief and simple. For preschoolers screening may be more complex; kids may not respond, etc. Criteria are norm-based. -Picture Inventories: motivating, easy, methodical, keep on task , identify -Other tests: lists of sentences, pictures. Consider: client's age, time available, purpose (diagnosis or remediation planning), need for a score, clinician preference. -Recording responses: as distortion, substitution and omission. May want to impose severity scales on these distinctions. +, -, ✔✗Consistency is necessary.

question

What is meant by stimulability, what is the purpose of testing for stimulability and how is it done?

answer

-Tested with exaggerated, visible, vivid stimuli. Indicates readiness to move toward normal speech, indicating option to delay intervention; high stimulability (75%). -This testing has examined how well an individual imitates, in one or more phonetic contexts, sounds that were produced in error during testing. -Has been used to 1) to determine whether a sound is likely to be acquired w/out intervention, 2) to determine the level and/or type of production at which instruction might begin and 3) to predict the occurrence and nature of generalization.

question

What is the purpose of an orofacial examination?

answer

-identify any structural, oral-motor or sensory deviations that might explain the presenting speech disorder. - problem should be treated with speech therapy or requires further surgery or other physical management.

question

What are the components of the orofacial examination?

answer

-Facial Characteristics General expression, appearance, coloration, symmetry, size, shape -Dentition Overall health, structural deviations, dental appliances, supernumerary teeth -Palatal & Pharyngeal Areas: -Structure Hard palate: clefts, fistulas, coloration (blue-ish sub mucous cleft). Soft: clefts, scar tissue, size, shape, symmetry, coloration. Lateral and posterior pharyngeal walls: same, nasopharyngoscopy, etc. Function: movement, reflex, nasal air emission, nasal resonance =Tongue: Structure Appearance, size, presence of growths or lesions, position at rest, symmetry, tremor, lingual frenum. Function: movement, rate, mobility, strength, range.

question

What information do we obtain by comparing performance to age norms?

answer

1. Vowels before consonants; Cs: 18 mos.: /p,m,h,n,w,b/, 24 mos.: /k,g,d,t,ng/, 30 mos.: /f,j/, 3 yrs.: /r,l,s/, 42 mos.: /sh,ch,z/, 4 yrs.: /dg,v/, 4;6 yrs.: /th/, number of errors. Intelligibility. Effect on communication. 2. Criterion-referenced testing: test items are selected from a teaching model that is determined from the goals of a teaching program. Performance is compared to a pre-set criterion (performance goal).

question

What is the purpose of Contextual Testing?

answer

-Influence of surrounding phones on a particular phone. -For highly stimulable children context may be unimportant. -Most frequently used for making treatment decisions such as choosing sounds or sound patterns to work on in therapy or identifying a particular phonetic context that facilitates accurate sound production.

question

What is the reason for Testing Auditory Discrimination?

answer

-The ability to distinguish between speech sounds. Theory: people with functional misarticulations have problems in discrimination between speech sounds. Evidence: this relationship seems to hold until age 8-9 years, after which there is no relationship.

question

What are the characteristics of the optimal speech sample?

answer

Should 1) reflect the child's production in actual situations, 2) reveal inconsistencies and consistent patterns, 3) contain the full set of (English) phonemes.

question

How may an optimal speech sample be obtained?

answer

It may be obtained in 3 ways: in the form of continuous speech in response to pictures, modeled continuous speech after a story (told in 6 parts- D&B) and spontaneous picture naming.

question

What are some of the issues with speech samples?

answer

-Imitated productions may not reflect spontaneous productions -Single word productions may not reflect conversational productions -A single phoneme may not be produced the same way in all contexts- coarticulation -May need to resort to structured samples if the child is unintelligible

question

What are the 5 criteria that any phono/artic analysis should satisfy?

answer

Describe the speaker's patterns Identify the ways these patterns differ from normal usage Determine the consequences of these patterns on communication Provide information useful for goal selection and treatment planning Provide a basis for assessing changes during treatment

question

How do the following 2 approaches assess sound production between distinctive feature and phonological processand what is their theoretical basis?

answer

3. Distinctive Feature Approaches 1. Groups sounds into classes according to the common features that define them 2. If the child's errors can be shown to share a set of features it is hypothesized that the child has difficulty with sounds that share those features 3. Distinctive features include: front/back, labial/non labial, sonorant/ non sonorant, stop/continuant, sibilant/non sibilant, voiced/ voiceless 4. By establishing those features it is assued that all sounds that share them will be corrected 4. Phonological Process Analysis 1. Simplify groups of sounds and eliminate sound contrasts. 2. Children exhibit PPs (or natural processes) on their way to adult articulation.

question

If you were to design your own Analysis Procedure what steps should you be sure to include?

answer

-Transcribe the sample phonetically -Analyze the syllable structures -Analyze substitutions and omissions (and distortions) -Examine the data for an inventory of the existing phonemes -Examine the substitutions and omissions for phonological processes -Analyze the child's phoneme preference

question

What factors will influence your choice of an Analysis Procedures?

answer

-Use both single words and conversational speech for assessment -No 1 procedure provides all the information necessary to select therapy targets -Most standardized tests provide - roughly - equivalent information -When choosing an instrument, consider: the time required to complete a test -The number of processes you need to evaluate -The type of sample to can be obtained -The intelligibility of the child's speech -The child's interests in proposed activity

question

What are 2 general types of PP (with examples)?

answer

-Whole word processes (earlier stages of phonological development): 1. Unstressed syllable deletion (ramon -> mon) 2. consonant harmony (duck guck) 3. assimilatory 4. reduplication, 5. cluster simplification -Segment-change processes 6. liquid gliding (lake wake) 7. velar fronting

question

What is an example of unstressed syllable deletion?

answer

(ramon -> mon)

question

What is an example of final consonant deletion?

answer

(because -> pi'ka)

question

What is an example of reduplication?

answer

(sesame stree -> si:si)

question

What is an example of consonant harmony?

answer

(duck -> guck) Cs sound alike

question

What is an example of consonant cluster simplification?

answer

(cracker -> kaek)

question

What is an example of syllable deletion?

answer

(butterfly -> bafai)

question

What is an example of consonant deletion?

answer

word initial ("Ruthie" ruti -> uti)

question

What is an example of consonant deletion?

answer

work final (peach -> pi)

question

What is an example of consonant deletion?

answer

word medial (mommy -> mãi)

question

What is an example of reduplication?

answer

(kitten -> kiki) may serve to retain syllable count

question

What is an example of consonant harmony?

answer

full (tiger -> gaiger) partial (sound becomes similar but not identical soup -> foup)

question

What is an example of consonant Cluster Simplification?

answer

(bread -> bed)

question

What is an example of velar fronting?

answer

(cow: kau -> tau) the only one that affects stops and the first to be outgrown

question

What is an example of stopping?

answer

(sea -> ti)

question

What is an example of liquid gliding?

answer

(lake -> wake)

question

What do we know about the accuracy of C production in 2 yr. olds?

answer

-Mean % of correct Cs was 70 (based on Shriberg and Kwiatkowski, 82) (43-91%) -Generally, greater inventories equals greater production accuracy -2yrs olds mainly attempt Cs in their productive range -Phonetic and phonological abilities may develop in parallel

question

What steps are involved in children's word recognition, according to current research and theory?

answer

Sensory input: bottom-up, phonetic information Contextual constraints: top-down, cognitive and L experience

question

Regarding speech production in the school-age child, what are the major accomplishments in terms of temporal coordination of speech production?

answer

2 and 4 yr. old children speak slower than adults, but maintain proportional relationships between segments. Final and stressed sylls tend to be longer than non-final and unstressed sylls. Timing control mechanism- more mature than the neuromuscular control mechanism at 2, 4 yrs. Verbal short term memory and speech rate increases were correlated in children Word-initial clusters may be represented perceptually, productively, or in execution, as one segment combining features of both elements of the cluster (swim -> fim) may start w/a timing-dominant system and then replace it w/an articulation-dominant system

question

What is the influence of literacy on phonological reorganization?

answer

-Knowledge of vowel alternations education &/or learning the orthographic system of a L bring to conscious attn. phonological change rules -Influence of spelling on perception and production: alphabetic or orthographic image combines w/other word info and is stored in the mental lexicon -Differences in lexical organization: children ~ attend more to rhythm, word endings; C-harmony; prefer open sylls, difference between unstressed sylls; later = literacy; derivational affixes

question

What is the influence from the peer group on phonological reorganization?

answer

Can change the child's parental influenced dialect almost completely in later years

question

What is the purpose of care at the 4 stages of artic & phon devel.?

answer

-Stage 1, birth-12 mos.: Care: facilitate practice of vocal skills -Stage 2, 12-24 mos.: Care: facilitate acquisition of sounds and syllables in specific words (a lexical approach; expressive vocab devel helps the acquisition of the rules of speech and lang) -Stage 3, 2-5 yrs.: Care: facilitate the elimination of errors affecting sound classes -Stage 4, 5+ yrs.: Care: facilitate the elimination of errors affecting late acquired consonants, consonant clusters and unstressed sylls in more difficult multisyllabic words

question

What are the 4 major Characteristics of Artic and Phon Disorders?

answer

5. Speech is not due to organic disorders (physical damage to the speech mech., sensory problems, CNS or PNS disorders) 6. Speech is similar to that of typically developing children 7. Speech is not due to dialect 8. Speech is considered disordered either by the client and/or members of their community

question

How are Artic Disorders different from Phon Disorders?

answer

-An articulation disorder involves problems making sounds. Sounds can be substituted, left off, added, changed, etc. -A phonological disorder involves patterns of sound errors, like fronting, backing, etc.

question

Differentiate between the organic and non organic etiologies of artic disorders?

answer

Organic as an identifiable cause; the second is though of no obvious cause and are known as functional articulation disorders in the 70s.

question

What is apraxia of speech in adulthood?

answer

A motor disorder of speech programming; it is controversial. It is a sensorimotor speech disorder; an impairment of the central motor programming for voluntary production of phonemes and the sequencing of muscle movements for the production of words.

question

What are the etiologies of apraxia of speech?

answer

Brain damage due to stroke, trauma, tumors or infection (most likely Broca's area)

question

What are the speech characteristics of apraxia of speech in adulthood?

answer

Articulatory struggle Errors increase with increasing complexity: vowels are easier, consonants are harder and of those, fricatives, affricates and other consonant clusters are the hardest. Errors increase with increasing word length Errors are inconsistent and variable Errors may be anticipatory (hostital) or perseveratory (hospipal) Greater difficulty w/consonants than vowels Greater difficulty w/ initial consonants than final Automatic speech and speaking with familiar listeners may be problem free Visual cues help Errors of transition (st-reet: may be accounted for by cluster simplification)

question

What are the associated problems with apraxia of speech?

answer

oral apraxia, oral-sensory perceptual deficit, aphasia, physical, social and emotional problems

question

What are the assessment procedures of apraxia of speech?

answer

oral assessment, lip, jaw and tongue function. Verbal assessment includes: vowel production, fricatives, affricates and consonant clusters in words repetition of single consonants in a syllable with a neutral vowel (/p/) repetition of multisyllabic sequences (pataka), words (snowflake), and words of increasing length by addition of morphemes (seem, seeming, seemingly) repetition of sentences and picture descriptions frics, affs, cons clus, repetition of sentences & picture descriptions

question

What is developmental apraxia of speech?

answer

not universally accepted. With it there is often 1. a high incidence of oral apraxia, 2. Imitation is effortful and "groping", 3. Unusual substitutions and distortions, 4. Greater difficulty with multisyllabic than monosyllabic words, 5. A number of soft neurological signs, 6. Higher level language difficulties.

question

What is the assessment for apraxia of speech?

answer

thorough articulation test, pataka.

question

What is dysarthria?

answer

disorders of phonation, articulation, resonation and prosody, due to weakness, paresis, incoordination and /or muscle tone abnormalities.

question

What are the speech characteristics of dysarthria?

answer

Flaccid, Spastic, Ataxic, Hypokinetic, Hyperkinetic, Mixed.

question

What is the etiology of dysarthria?

answer

CNS involvement

question

What is the assessment of dysarthria?

answer

Structural and Functional integrity: speech function, orofacial examination, gross motor function including signs of tremor and atrophy: smoothness, range, strength and duration, rate, coordination

question

What is cerebral palsy?

answer

Developmental disability involving lack of motor control; presented most commonly as spasticity or increased muscle tone

question

When is it necessary to look beyond Standard Assessment Procedures?

answer

-Idiosyncratic error patterns are not rare in children. When unusual errors appear, a detailed analysis may show a definite pattern -Examples: vowel height affected use of C (/d/ before high V, /g/ before low V), syllable structure affected error appearance (errors in unstressed syllables) -Assessment strategies should be based on thorough understanding of principles and procedures as well as client needs

question

For what purposes should you use the Assessment Results?

answer

-Interpretation of the results -Making predictions regarding results of intervention. Those are based on stimulability, auditory discrimination and severity of articulation problem. The severity of articulation errors depends on the number and types of errors exhibited -Linguistic complexity may promote articulation errors in some children. Phonological complexity and syntactic complexity may interact showing deficits in both areas. -It is, therefore, necessary to evaluate the language abilities of children with articulation errors

question

What is Shriberg & Kwiatkowski's procedures for classifying severity?

answer

Tape a continuous speech sample. Repeat utterances for later analysis Calculate % of consonants correct from the tape Score the 6 suprasegmentals (loudness, quality, phrasing, stress, rate, pitch) on a 3-point scale Use % of consonants correct as the major factor, but also include age and suprasegmentals in your assessment.

question

What are the principles of the Segment Approach in goal selection?

answer

-Early development sounds vs. later developing sounds -Sounds that the child can produce as substitute, but does not use correctly 1. 20-40% correct production on deep test 2. Correct production is facilitating context 3. The child has the sound in one word position 4. The child can produce the sound in a less phonetically complex context -Sounds for which the child is stimulable (has the ability to imitate). -Sounds that will markedly increase intelligibility 5. Frequently occurring sounds and sounds necessary to make a lexical contrast -Sounds that are important to the child -Sounds that are physiologically easier in a given word position (like frics in initial position)

question

What are the principles of the Feature Approach in goal selection?

answer

Can work on one or more sounds Use above segmental considerations to select key sounds Later developing sounds Distinctive feature theory groups sounds into classes according to the common features that define them (see CNS: 2). If the child's errors can be shown to share a (set of) feature(s) (e.g., +voiced, +continuant), it is hypothesized that the child has difficulty with sounds that share those features. By establishing those features, it is assumed that all sounds that share them will be corrected.

question

What are the considerations for targeting a feature or a sound class?

answer

Sounds that develop a missing feature Sounds that involve earlier acquired features Sounds that will promote generalization of a feature

question

What are the principles of the Phonological Process Approach to goal selection?

answer

The aim is to eliminate the process Selection of sounds I Can work on one or more sounds simultaneously II Select specific key sounds based on the above considerations

question

What are the considerations for selecting which processes to target?

answer

Processes that are normally eliminated early Processes that affect earlier developing sounds Processes that are likely to result in early success Optimal or inconsistent processes Position and context specific processes Processes affecting sounds w/in the child's phonetic inventory Processes affecting sounds for which the child is stimulable. Hodson: select a stimulable sound (as an exemplar of the sound class affected by that process) when targeting processes Process that interfere most with intelligibility Processes that lead to homonymy Processes that affect multiple sounds Processes that are idiosyncratic and unusual

question

How is Contextual Analysis used in goal selection?

answer

-It can identify sounds that don't need to be taught because they exit in the child's inventory in some context. It is used as a measure of consistency of misarticulations. -When contexts can be found in which a sound is produced correctly, they can be used as starting points for therapy. The correct context is used to facilitate production and generalization to other contexts. -The rationale is that it takes less time to correct an inconsistently misarticulate sound (the less stable the error, the easier to correct it). Alternately, some say that it is easier to focus on a stable error pattern.

question

What is involved in the process of goal selection based on Productive Phonological Knowledge?

answer

-Determine the type of knowledge for each sound -Rank knowledge for each sound on a continuum from most to least known -Select sound based on least phonological knowledge -The rationale is that treatment should help the child develop a new skill that is needed and can be used for more than one sound

question

How is Productive Phonological Knowledge determined (3 parameters)?

answer

1. Breadth of the distribution of sounds (phonetic, phonemic and morphemic inventory by word positions and minimal pairs) i) The Phonetic Inventory (includes all the sounds that the child produces, including sounds produced correctly and sounds used as substitutes) ii) The Phonemic Inventory (includes only sounds that are used contrastively by the child. You can test for this by using minimal pairs) 2. The Distribution of sounds in the phonemic inventory (analyze the distribution by word position and morpheme. The word position distribution examines whether a phoneme, like a sound used contrastively, is used in all vs. some word positions. The distribution of a morpheme examines whether a sound is used contrastively in all vs. some target morphemes). 3. Use of phonological rule types: (static) phonotactic rules and (dynamic) allophonic rules 4. Nature of the child's lexical representations (approximation to the adult form)

question

What is the difference between the Most Knowledge and Least Knowledge Approach?

answer

-Most Knowledge: select the new sound so that it shares features w/and is most similar to sounds that the child already produces, like a cognate. -new sound will be acquired w/out great frustration - Limitation is that treatment must proceed in small increments; that is time consuming for the client with multiple misarticulations. -Least Knowledge: select the sound for which the child seems to have the least amount of phonological knowledge. - "automatic" correction of non-targeted error sounds

question

List the Syllable Structure Processes?

answer

Final Consonant Deletion Unstressed Syllable Deletion Cluster Reduction Reduplication Epenthesis Metathesis Coalescence

question

List the Substitution Process: Place, Manner, Voicing?

answer

9. Place 1. Fronting 2. Backing 3. Glottal Replacement 10. Manner 1. Stopping 2. Gliding 3. Vocalization 4. Affrication 5. Deaffrication 6. Denasalization 11. Voicing 1. Prevocalic Voicing 2. Final Consonant Deletion

question

Which are the assimilation (harmony) processes?

answer

-Place Assimilation -Manner Assimilations

question

What is the summary analysis of speech samples?

answer

Comparison to norms Phonetic inventory (list all sounds the child makes, in all positions) Phonetic accuracy Consistency of errors Syllable structure Feature analysis Phonological process analysis Phoneme preferences Intelligibility Severity Stimulability

question

Define "dialect" and provide its characteristics?

answer

-Mutually intelligible forms of a language -Associated with a particular region, social class or ethnic group -Registers depend on participants, setting, topic -Dialect density: the extent to which speakers use the available features in a dialect -Dialects are systematic, with rule governed phonological, semantic, syntactic, pragmatic and proxemics systems

question

Differentiate between the artic/phonological disorders and speech differences?

answer

-To assess L1 only, L2 only, or L1 and L2 we need to 3. Sample the adult speakers of the child's linguistic community 4. Obtain information from interpreter/support personnel 5. Become thoroughly familiar with features of the dialects and language 6. Role of SLP: assess in English and consider the services of an interpreter/translator, bilingual consultant or aide.

question

Describe the impact of the phonological system of one language (native of L1) on that of a second language (L2). Address this in terms of: page 345 in text?

answer

Sounds that exist in both languages 7. AAE and GAE children often exhibit similar phonological patterns with different frequency use Sounds that exist in L1 but not in L2 8. Postvocalic "r" was used for the Spanish flap Sounds that exist in L2 but not in L1 9. Russian influenced English speakers pronounced palatalized consonants in their English Phonotatic rules 10. Sounds that only occur word finally etc nj is only word final sound recognized by Hmong speakers 11. Specific phonemes and allophones in inventories of 2 languages aren't the same. 12. Example: the alveo-palatal affricate found in English is not in the inventory of Cantonese. A native Cantonese-speaking person acquiring English might substitute [ts] for the alveo-palatal affricate because [ts] exists in the inventory of Cantonese and is close to the place of articulation of the English affricate. 13. May have different places of articulation ie [d] is dental in English but alveolar in Spanish Morphophonemic rules 14. The lack of one-to-one correspondence between grapheme and phoneme in English may influence pronunciation. The grapheme "s" in English is pronounced as [s] in basin and another way in the word measure, causing a speaker of Spanish influenced English to pronounce both as [s] Stress, intonation, prosody Also to consider, even if this is not phonology: syntax and sentence structure

question

How does the phonological development of children acquiring AAE compare to the phonological development of children acquiring GAE?

answer

- Optional features include: Word-final cluster reduction (test→tεs) Deletion of /r/ (professor→pəfεsə, throw →θo) Deletion of /l/ in word-final abutting consonants (help) f/th substitution in intervocalic (also v/eth), and word-final position Stopping of word-initial th/eth (the→də) b/v & d/z substitution before syllabic nasals (seven→ sεbən) Metathesis (ask→aks) Suprasegmental phenomena: 1st syll stress, more level and falling final intonation contours - similar phonological patterns with different frequency and use ~ 4-5 years a qualitative difference was present - those with speech delay had more stop errors, fricative and affricate errors in all positions. -AA children with without speech delays had devoicing of final d, sonorant and /r/ related errors.

question

What do you know about the acquisition of tones compared to the acquisition of sound segments in typically developing children learning tonal languages?

answer

-For East Asian Languages tones are semantic differenced indicated by pitch. -Mastery at 8 months before segment -For children learning Mandarin tone was acquired first, followed by syllable final Cs and Vs and finally syllable initial Cs. -High, falling: earlier & easier than rising, contour -Substitution errors existed in the 2, 3-word stages

question

What is known about the Phonological development of typically developing bilingual children?

answer

-more errors, more unusual errors and lower overall intelligibility -influence is bi-directional -Phonemes and allophones may not be the same -Differences in the distribution of sounds (phonotactics) -Cs may have different places of articulation in L1 from L2 (Spanish [d] is interdental, English is alveolar) -Phonological rules may be different -How and when pronunciation is acquired may influence L1 or L2

question

How does Coarticulation affect speed "segments"? Provide an example of a coarticulatory effect?

answer

A single word may not be pronounced the same in all contexts. This is less likely in the single word stage. It can affect it by palatalization, saying mish you instead of miss you. Or by final consonant devoicing, saying leaf instead of leave. Using the /f/ sound instead of the /v/ sound. Dropping the fundamental frequency. Also through voicing of a sound, saying absurd with a /z/ sound rather than absurd with a /s/ sound.

question

What is phonology, and of what is a language's phonology comprised?

answer

-Phonology is the science of speech sounds and patterns. -Each language has its own sound pattern, which is: 15. The set of sounds used in it 16. The acceptable arrangement of those sounds to form words (phonotactics) 17. The various processes by which sounds are added, deleted, or modified

question

When examining the levels of organization of speech, what parameters should be considered?

answer

12. Syllable integrity- can they produce variety of syllables? 13. Phonemic composition- what phonemes go into the syllables? 14. Phonemic properties- have no fricatives at all? 15. Segmental features 16. Articulatory sequence- what sounds can they put together? 17. Acoustic sequence- what sounds can they put together? 18. Suprasegmentals (prosody) 19. Paralinguistic information (emotion and attitude)- problems with this means something else; additional problems

question

Compared to adult speech, how is children's speech acoustically different?

answer

More variable in duration and precision Different with respect to coartiuclatory patterns (later in anticipatory coarticulation; later in children) Slower, differs in variability, ie the duration of individual segments varies more than for adults because they are well less controlled and there are differences in patterns of coarticualtion, more mature speakers show increase anticipation in producing a phonetic sequence.

question

What is the overall sequence of acquisition of speech sounds?

answer

Birth to 10-12 months: cry, gesture, babble, sound play 12-18 months: small vocabulary ~ 50 words 18 months- 4 years: most of the sounds, combined into morphemes, words 4-7 years: phonetic inventory is completed, complex words are formed 7-12 years: refinements, morphophonemic rules, derivations, may relate to reading acquisition 12-16 years: metalinguistic skills, essential for spelling In the book: Phase 1- laying the foundations for speech (birth-1 yr.) Phase 2- Transitioning from words to speech (1-2 yrs.) Phase 3- The growth of the inventory (2-5 yrs.) Phase 4- Mastery of speech and literacy (5+ yrs.)

question

With respect to speech perception, what are the main problems faced by infants?

answer

-Pitch, fricatives /s-z/, f-th, multisyllables are difficult for them because of high F. -Fricatives are usually among the last elements to be attained. -Linguistic perception= auditory perception & identification of contrasts btwn sounds, and also -representation & access for recognition of sound patterns. -Research with young children: cognitive capacities (attn) & consistent behavioral responses are limited before age 2-3. -Full vs. partial linguistic perception: changing internal representations of sounds for many years, from partially to fully correct (eg f-th confusions).

question

What is the role of prosody in speech perception by infants (1990s views)?

answer

-It facilitates identification of units; clauses (by 6 months), phrasal units (by 9 months). -After 6 months, infants begin to attend to segmental patterns as well as speech melody.

question

What cognitive aspects are involved in learning to speak?

answer

-Learning to produce a variety of vocal sounds -Matching adult sound patterns to own productions -Associating certain adult sound patterns with situations (situation-bound word use) -Understanding that sound pattern production can be used to share attention or for requests, etc. (get -attention and direct it to something you like) -Use adult words to communicate in novel settings (referential and symbolic use of words)

question

In what ways is the infant vocal tract different from the adult vocal tract?

answer

-Shorter vocal tract, pharyngeal cavity, tongue mass forward in oral cavity; gradual slope (no L) or pharyngeal channel; high larynx (C shaped); epiglottis close to velopharynx.

question

What are Oller's Stages of speech production?

answer

1. Phonation stage (0-1 month) VF vibration 2. Goo/cooing stage (2-3 months) control of voicing (loud/soft, on/off) 3. Expansion stage (4-6 months) squealing, growling, yelling, raspberries (bilabial trills), fully resonant nuclei, marginal babbling. Triangle of owles, aiu 4. Canonical (reduplicated) babbling (6-8 months) true C and fully resonant nucleus. CV sequence -Stops and nasals (or nasalized stops) + V (max contrast -Accomplishments indicate the infant's advances in motor control, visual-auditory perception integration of CV sequences and global imitation of adult vocalization -Deaf children do not produce canonical babbling within the first year (differentiates the children) 5. Variegated babbling (9-15 months) -Systematic, continuous and self directed exploration -Universal production patterns: language specific differences in production noted at 10 months.

question

What prosodic developments are seen in early vocal production in infants?

answer

-Failing pitch (F0) is the natural result of a decline in sub glottal pressure and of relaxation in vf tension. -Jargon: variegated babbling with adult like pitch shifts and rhythm.

question

What are the main stages of the Transition Period from Babbling to Speech?

answer

1. Relating sound patterns to meaning: 5-11 mos. 2. Perception in the transition period: entry into the native language: by 11 mos. babies recognize familiar words 3. Protowords: grunts as precursors of word production: consistent vocal forms and gesture -14-16 mos.: function is to share focus of attention or to request

question

What are the prosodic characteristics of speech in the first years of life?

answer

-Prosodic organization begins ~18 mos. -Children tend to omit syllables preceding the stressed syllable, but rarely the stressed or the final syllable -After ~50 words children exhibit the prosody of their L1.

question

How do infants systematize and reorganize their speech production patterns from the word level to the segmental level?

answer

-Easiest targets are whole words rather than segments -Production of a segment may vary rather than segments -Word shapes are holistically similar to adult shapes -Work forms may be interrelated, favoring a template -After 50 words a systematization of phonological representations begins; overregulation, "regression"

question

What is known about the interaction of perception and production in infants?

answer

- Linguistic perception=auditory perception and identification of contrasts between sounds. Also representation and access for recognition of sound patterns. Behavioral responses are limited before age 2-3. -Full vs. partial linguistic perception: changing internal representations of sounds for many years from partially to fully correct.

question

What makes use of PPs convenient for analyzing children's speech production patterns?

answer

-PP of a child may be not only "production" rules, but rather they may reflect perception or interpretation rules (like errors in the child's internal representation of speech sounds) -A descriptive convenience rather than a reflection of the child's mental activity -Error Pattern (Phonological Processes) Identification: a systematic sound change that affects 1. a class of sounds, 2. a particular sequence of sounds, or 3. the syllable structure of words 4. Provides a description of the child's overall phonological system 5. Potential for facilitating treatment efficiency 6. Various tests exist (Khan & Lewis, 1986, 2002, Hodson, 2003, etc.); analysis of spontaneous speech samples can also supply the necessary information What is Therapy/Intervention ? ~~An intensive stimulation designed to facilitate development or to effect a change: Direct/Indirect

question

define treatment?

answer

teaching, training, any type of remedial or rehabilitative work, and all attempts at helping people by changing their behaviors or teaching new skill.

question

What are the overall aims of intervention ?

answer

Eliminate/change the underlying problem. Change the disorder for better communication. Teach compensatory strategies that one can function better with. Modify the environment or the contexts in which the child has to function.

question

How do you change the disorder ?

answer

Induction intervention determines whether the outcome is reached. Facilitation accelerates the rate of intervention but the outcome is not change. Maintenance preserves a behavior that would otherwise decrease or disappear.

question

In general, what is the content of most kinds of therapy ?

answer

Selecting goals( functional aims), Strategies for selecting specific goals (Remedial, Developmental, Hierarchical), Goal attack strategies (vertical, horizontal, cycles), Number of treatment targets (deep 1-2, wide 3-4, cycles), Treatment context (Drill w/external, Drill play, Structured play, Play), Treatment Procedures((Instrumental: leading to change, Elicitation: provide opportunities to try and practice the target, Criterion: Criteria that is used to assess progress and change)

question

Why is monitoring treatment progress important ?

answer

establishes data on the progress of the client from the baseline and describes the methods that work or don't work.

question

How do you monitor progress ?

answer

by % consonants correct, % intelligibility, rating skills during communication, and Probe for generalizations.

question

What are issues to pay attention to when monitoring ?

answer

Some issues to pay attention to are criterion and starting level (Isolation, syllable, word)

question

What is the Pragmatic Approach to treatment of articulatory and phonological disorders and what is its premise ?

answer

It is a procedure that treats APD in a social and communicative context. The premise is communication centered instruction.

question

What additional facts (to traditional methods) are present in Diagnosis of Communication Centered Articulation Therapy ?

answer

Case history: communicative responses the child has the opportunity to use, Assessment: the degree of success in daily communication, total comm. System analysis Concurrent Diagnostic Teaching Exit evaluation: done in their environment and teach parents and teaches to evaluate child's artic accuracy

question

What is included in the concurrent diagnostic teaching ?

answer

The adjustment of teaching objective and procedures suggest by information from current diagnosis.

question

What additional facts (to traditional methods) are present in Instructional Procedures of Communication Centered Articulation Therapy ?

answer

Lesson plan for group or individual: communicative competence, speech production, various categories instead of just production related. Activities including rehearsals of concepts, language forms, and function to be used speech sounds, kinds of comm. Interchange) and activities. Home instruction

question

What is speech perception training ?

answer

It is the training of differentiations and identifying specific sounds through auditory perception and production.

question

What are the possible five levels of articulation breakdown and the corresponding functions they affect ?

answer

APPAA Auditory input - sound discrimination Phonological system - rules of the system Phonetic system - link the system to phonetic specificaitons Articulatory programming - plan the motor acts Articulatory execution - execute the motor movements for sound production

question

What are the guidelines for selection of contrastive items in testing auditory discrimination ?

answer

Items should be relevant to the sounds the child has difficulty with Minimal pairs items should contain the child's specific errors in the contexts that are misarticulated Specific auditory discrimination tests can be designed for each child Performance on auditory discrimination tests of children w/moderate and severe articulation errors is lower than that of children w/out artic problems.

question

What are some of the reasons that no correlation has been found between auditory discrimination & articulatory performance in some studies ?

answer

Inadequate sampling of auditory contrasts leads to paired contrasts that do not consider the child's artic error type and that leads to developmental constraints.

question

How would you determine if a child's problem reflects difficulty learning the phonological rules of the language vs. difficulty discriminating sounds ?

answer

Use context free sentences in which both target & error sounds are appropriate (rake, wake) and ask child to choose by pointing to one set of pictures (phonological performance test) See if the child can detect mispronounced words. If he does not we infer that these sounds are not contrastive for

question

How would you determine if a child's problem reflects difficulty learning the phonological rules of the language vs. difficulty with the phonetic system ?

answer

phonological performance test, but has difficulty between a target sound and the error form-phonetic level. no standardized test to diagnose.

question

What is the basic question learning theory attempts to answer ?

answer

How organisms learn and how we can control and predict behavior ?456 Behavior appears to be controlled by its consequences that increase or decrease probability of occurrence. Learning a new behavior involves successive approximations to the behavior. Performing the behavior in the appropriate circumstances.

question

What are the steps to identifying a target behavior ?

answer

Select a target behavior Describe that behavior in objective and measurable steps Get baselines specify the type of behavior that is expected after tx.

question

What are antecedent events ?

answer

Stimuli that evoke responses that includes cues and prompts

question

What are the Types of antecedent events ?

answer

Auditory stimuli: spoken instructions and models Visual stimuli: visual models, cues, diagrams, demonstrations Kinesthetic stimuli: manipulation of the child's speech mechanism

question

What are consequent events and what is their role in learning ?

answer

It is a stimuli presented after a response. Increasing behavior rate

question

What is positive reinforcement ?

answer

immediately follows a response and increases the behavior above the level of the baseline. `

question

What constitutes a reinforcer ?

answer

Is a necessary tool for effectiveness Must be able to be controlled by the clinician Should not wear out or have undesirable side effects.

question

How do you increase the probability that a behavior will recur ?

answer

The ultimate goal is for self reinforcement. The child will be able to gradually given control of the reinforcement procedures, so that they self-reinforce. The frequency with which a reinforcer is presented

question

What is the best type of frequency for a reinforcer ?

answer

Variable ratio is the best: interval schedles generate lower response rates

question

How would you decrease the probability that a behavior will recur ?

answer

Extinction response rate decreases when reinforcement is removed Time out a period during which interaction with the child is limited and opportunities for obtaining reinforcements are eliminated. Punishment a stimulus presented immediately after a response & results in decreasing the frequency of occurrence of the behavior. Response cost a reinforcer is removed following an undesired response.

question

When should you ignore unsuccessful productions in articulation therapy ?

answer

Ignoring unsuccessful attempts initially in order to establish a positive attitude toward artic training for the child.

question

What are behavioral probes ?

answer

Periodic tallying of the behavior (at the end of the session)

question

What is Van Riper's (1939) taxonomy ?

answer

client must be aware of the problem, must then learn discrimination skills, production of the target in isolation, syllables, words in initial position, final & then medial position, phrases, polysyllabic words and clusters, sentences & finally spontaneous speech.

question

What are the usual parts of instructional objectives ?

answer

Do statement exact description of what the client is expected to do Condition statement specifies when the behavior is to occur. Accuracy statement %, ratio, deadline Terminal objective, short range behavior state at the time of dismissal

question

What is the usefulness of analyzing a task into its constituent components ?

answer

The task must be analyzed in its constituent components, which will then be addressed in tx in order. (van ripper)

question

What is meant by "management of consequent events" ?

answer

Initially every correct response in reinforced. Later the reinforcement schedule is adjusted (usually variable ratio).

question

What is the function of criterion tests ?

answer

Also called Behavioral probes, are used frequently to show progress (3 - 30 items).

question

What is involved in transfer and maintenance of behavior ?

answer

Stimulus generalization same response to all stimuli w/common features Phonemic contexts learning s generalizes z Situational contexts Tx should be similar to stimuli seen in other situations to maximize chances of generalization. (Playground, classroom...)

question

What are five of the elements that a therapy approach must contain in order to be considered a behavior modification approach ?

answer

Establish a baseline prior to Tx Target is identifiable as correct/incorrect Reinforcement schedule specified ID series of tasks; easier to harder must be identified The exit behavior specified: performance on a final criterion test

question

What are some of the golden rules of behavior modification ?

answer

Immediacy instant of a reward is important Attention provide as a reward, careful about what you give attention to Selective Reward reward only the target behavior Small steps toward desired behavior, reward each step Imitation relevant cues

question

What are the main steps of the traditional approach to treatment of articulation and phonological disorders ?

answer

Sensory perceptual training Identification/Stimulation/Discrimination Production training Sound establishment Context/Phonetic placement/Sound approximation Production training Syllables/Words/Phrases/Sentences/Conversation Transfer and carryover the skills in clinic, used in conversation Maintenance

question

What is the rationale of the systematic multiple phoneme approach to treatment of APD ?

answer

Maintains the traditional steps of tx somewhat differently. Auditory discrimination begins after production is well established. At that point the client self-monitors. (May be time-saving.) Each step is outlined (behaviorally), criteria for mastery are given, record keeping is a must. WWA (whole word accuracy) in conversational speech is assessed (% correct words)

question

What is the rationale of the sensory motor approach to production training ?

answer

The syllable is the primary unit of articulation & coarticulatory effects are taken into account. Starts with the correct production of error phones in various coarticulatory contexts.

question

For whom are Linguistically Based Intervention Approaches best suited ?

answer

Children with severe articulation Disorders.

question

What are some of the general considerations in treating Phonological Disorders ?

answer

Linguistic approaches to Tx are based on the assumption that the child needs to learn the phonological rules of his language. Children w/severe phonological disorders also have problems learning other rules of language (syntactic, semantic, pragmatic).

question

Children with severe articulation disorders may have reduced speech because ?

answer

a. nobody understands them anyway, b. they are embarrassed about the way they sound, or c. there is an underlying language delay (so there is no FCD rather the kid has not mastered pasts, possessives, plurals, and 3rd person singular morphemes). Reasons to use the linguistic approach are designed to help the child learn the system. Phonemes are targeted in groups or by classes in a multi-phonemic approach.

question

What kinds of children may not be good candidates for the multi-phonemic approaches ?

answer

Children who exhibit only a couple of errors Children whose articulation disorder is secondary to an organic disorder (however, patterns of misarticulations may exist in these children and the multi-phonemic approaches can be useful) Children whose errors form no discernible pattern.

question

Distinctive feature approach ?

answer

features at the world level since features cannot be separated from the word Once the child learns the feature that will generalize to all other phonemes that carry the feature. Choose features that will help the child the most

question

What is the Process of elimination approach ?

answer

also works at the word level and wants to choose the goals that will help the child the most however, problem is rule-learning, the problem is phonemic (not phonetic, so tx is done at the word level). Intelligibility is scores and considered in the way therapy is given.

question

What are some of the issues concerning generalization (assumptions, types, theoretical implications) ?

answer

Generalization may not be complete and consistent, so training several exemplars of a feature or contrast may be necessary. Generalization training should start early in tx: give the child limited experience with other phonemes in the same class.

question

Regarding remediation strategies, what are the 3 goals that Ingram (1976) proposes ?

answer

Elimination of instability in the child's speech productions. Elimination of homonyms (words should have different forms). Establishment of contrasts within the child's system.

STUDY

Developmental

Chapter 9 Developmental – Flashcards 66 terms

Kenneth Wheeler

66 terms

Preview

Chapter 9 Developmental – Flashcards

question

9-198. The majority of old people are unable to adapt to change.

answer

False

question

9-1. Which of the following is considered an expert who studies aging? a) Genealogist b) Gerontologist c) Oncologist d) Endocrinologist

answer

question

9-4. Which of the following groups have some health problems and difficulties with daily activities? a) Young old b) Middle old c) Old old d) Oldest old

answer

question

9-5. Which of the following is the definition of "young old"? a) Some health problems and difficulties with daily living activities b) Healthy and active c) Frail and in need of care d) Senior citizen

answer

question

9-6. Which of the following is the definition of "old old"? a) Some health problems and difficulties with daily living activities b) Healthy and active c) Frail and in need of care d) Geriatric

answer

question

9-7. Which of the following is the definition of "oldest old"? a) Some health problems and difficulties with daily living activities b) Healthy and active c) Frail and in need of care d) Senior citizen

answer

question

9-8. Sophia is a 98-year-old woman who still lives independently, has no major illnesses, and is able to take daily walks to the local grocery store. Which of the following best describes Sophia's functional age? a) Oldest old b) Old old c) Young old d) Geriatric

answer

question

9-9. Deron is a 68-year-old man who smoked most of his life and is now battling asthma. He struggles to complete some of his daily activities; otherwise, he is able to live an independent, full life. Which of the following best describes Deron's functional age? a) Oldest old b) Old old c) Young old d) Geriatric

answer

question

9-10. Wilma is a 75-year-old woman who has chronic pulmonary disease and osteoporosis, and she recently suffered a stroke. She now needs quite a bit of assistance on a daily basis. Which of the following best describes Wilma's functional age? a) Oldest old b) Old old c) Young old d) Geriatric

answer

question

9-11. According to the terminology used by demographers, people between the ages of 65 and 74 years are called __________. a) old old b) young old c) geriatric d) oldest old

answer

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9-12. According to the terminology used by demographers, people between the ages of 75 and 84 years are called __________. a) old old b) young old c) geriatric d) oldest old

answer

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9-13. According to the terminology used by demographers, people above 85 years of age are called __________. a) old old b) young old c) geriatric d) oldest old

answer

question

9-59. Alzheimer's patients comprise approximately _______ of the people living in nursing homes. a) 1/4 b) 2/3 c) 2/5 d) 1/3

answer

question

9-135. Frederick is living in a specialized living environment where all residents are of retirement age and in need of some level of care. The specific needs, however, differ from one resident to the next. Frederick probably lives in a(n) __________. a) adult day care b) skilled nursing facility c) assisted-living facility d) continuing care community

answer

question

9-136. Grace's care needs have increased since her husband's death. She has moved into an independent housing unit that is supported by medical providers as needed. Grace is living in a(n) __________. a) adult day care facility b) assisted-living facility c) skilled nursing facility d) support facility

answer

question

9-138. Amad does not need continued care. However, he does receive care during the day in the form of meals and occasional nursing care. What type of facility does Amad attend? a) drop-in facility b) skilled nursing c) assisted living d) adult day care

answer

question

9-139. What type of facility provides extensive care for those with chronic illnesses or who are recovering from a temporary medical condition? a) skilled nursing b) adult day care c) assisted living d) independent living

answer

question

9-140. Renee is 67 years old and is in the hospital because she broke her hip. She will need extensive physical therapy for two months. Which of the following is the proper facility to provide care for her? a) adult day care b) skilled nursing c) assisted living d) extended care

answer

question

9-141. What percentage of people age 75 to 84 live in nursing homes? a) 1.4 percent b) 3.0 percent c) 4.4 percent d) 7.0 percent

answer

question

9-68. Which of the theories promotes the view that the cells of the body can only duplicate a certain number of times, and that the genetic instructions for running the body can be read only a certain number of times before they become illegible? a) Wear and tear theories b) Genetic programming theories of aging c) Life expectancy theories d) Inevitable death theories

answer

question

9-18. Aging that involves universal and irreversible changes that, due to genetic programming, occur as people get older is called __________. a) inward aging b) secondary aging c) outward aging d) primary aging

answer

question

9-72. The wear and tear theories of aging argue that the body constantly manufactures energy and creates ___________, which eventually reach such high levels that they impair the body's normal functioning. a) byproducts b) radiations c) diseases d) toxins

answer

question

9-73. Which theories of aging argue that the body's constant manufacturing of energy creates byproducts that combine with various toxins and eventually reach such high levels that they impair the body's ability to function normally? a) Life expectancy theories b) Genetic programming theories of aging c) Wear and tear theories d) Inevitable death theories

answer

question

9-65. The theories that the mechanical functions of the body simply decay with age are called the __________. a) wear and tear theories b) inevitable death theories c) life expectancy theories d) genetic programming theories of aging

answer

question

9-64. Theories that suggest that our body's DNA genetic code contains a built-in time limit for the reproduction of human cells are called the __________. a) wear and tear theories b) inevitable death theories c) life expectancy theories d) genetic programming theories of aging

answer

question

9-67. Which of the theories promotes the idea that a long life after the reproductive years is unnecessary for the survival of the species? a) Wear and tear theories b) Genetic programming theories of aging c) Life expectancy theories d) Inevitable death theories

answer

question

9-75. What is the term for the average age of death for members of a population? a) Life span b) Life expectancy c) Peer group expectancy d) Active duration

answer

question

9-142. Tony has been in a nursing home for one year. He has become apathetic, indifferent, and does not care about himself. From which of the following is Tony suffering? a) Disengagement b) Disenfranchisement c) Institutionalism d) Neurodementia

answer

question

9-247. Institutionalism is believed to be caused, at least partially, by learned helplessness.

answer

true

question

9-248. Helplessness brought about by institutionalism does not have serious consequences.

answer

false

question

9-143. Learned helplessness is a belief that __________. a) being helpless leads to wellness b) being helpless leads to despair c) one must help oneself to receive help d) one has no control over one's environment

answer

question

9-84. Memories that are related to specific life experiences, such as recalling the events of a vacation, are called __________ memories. a) life b) episodic c) semantic d) visual

answer

question

9-85. Memories that are related to general facts, such as the names of the capitals of states or addition facts, are called __________ memories. a) factual b) episodic c) semantic d) visual

answer

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9-86. Memories that are related to unconscious information, such as how to ride a bike or write one's name, are called __________ memories. a) factual b) episodic c) semantic d) implicit

answer

question

9-87. Which type of memory capacity changes during old age, and shows a more pronounced decline around age 70? a) Long-term memory b) Implicit memory c) Short-term memory d) Episodic memory

answer

question

9-88. Short-term memory slips gradually until __________, when the decline becomes more pronounced. a) middle age b) age 70 c) age 80 d) age 90

answer

question

9-89. When an elderly person demonstrates difficulty with multi-step verbal information that is presented quickly, the person is exhibiting problems with __________ memory. a) episodic b) long-term c) implicit d) short-term

answer

question

9-90. Memories from one's own life are called __________ memories. a) visual b) implicit c) autobiographical d) explicit

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question

9-79. The relationship between environmental factors and intellectual skills suggests that with the proper stimulation, practice, and motivation, older people can maintain their mental abilities. This illustrates the concept of __________. a) learning b) plasticity c) life experience d) intellectual functioning

answer

question

9-80. Plasticity in cognitive skills in the elderly depends on __________. a) innate skills b) degeneration of the senses c) proper stimulation d) demotivation

answer

question

9-48. What is the term for a progressive brain disorder that produces loss of memory and confusion and, in many cases, death? a) Dementia b) Alzheimer's disease c) Drug intoxication d) A stroke

answer

question

9-51. Muriel is an 86-year-old woman who tries to function independently but has suffered for several years with forgetfulness, especially with recent memories. She has trouble recalling the names of her best friends when they call on the phone, and she worries that she may have a form of dementia called __________. a) Alzheimer's disease b) Huntington's disease c) schizophrenia d) Parkinson's disease

answer

question

9-52. In the final stage of Alzheimer's disease, people __________. a) lose olfactory buds b) have trouble recalling particular words during conversation c) demonstrate unusual forgetfulness d) lose voluntary control of their muscles and are bedridden

answer

question

9-54. One theory of how __________ occurs is that the production of beta amyloid precursor proteins goes awry and clumps of inflammatory and deterioration-causing cells are produced. a) Huntington's disease b) Alzheimer's disease c) schizophrenia d) Parkinson's disease

answer

question

9-154. Which of the following stages of retirement means that retirees engage in a variety of activities, such as travel, that were less possible while they were still working full time? a) Disenchantment b) Reorientation c) Retirement routine d) Honeymoon

answer

question

9-155. Which of the following stages of retirement means that retirees feel that retirement is not all that they thought it would be, and they may miss the stimulation of a job or find that it's difficult to keep busy? a) Disenchantment b) Reorientation c) Retirement routine d) Honeymoon

answer

question

9-156. Which of the following stages of retirement means that retirees reconsider their options and become engaged in new, more fulfilling activities? a) Disenchantment b) Reorientation c) Retirement routine d) Termination

answer

question

9-157. Which of the following stages of retirement means that retirees come to grips with the realities of retirement and feel fulfilled with the new phase of life? a) Disenchantment b) Reorientation c) Retirement routine d) Honeymoon

answer

question

9-254. The majority of people who are still married in late adulthood report that they are satisfied with their marriages.

answer

true

question

9-105. Mollie has been retired for 10 years and is 71 years old. She is having a conversation with her daughter, discussing plans to do different things with each of her grandchildren. According to Robert Peck, Mollie is in what developmental stage? a) Ego integrity versus despair b) Ego transcendence versus ego preoccupation c) Body transcendence versus body preoccupation d) Redefinition of self versus preoccupation with work role

answer

question

9-107. In Peck's body transcendence versus body preoccupation stage, what may ultimately be affected in the developmental process? a) Emotions b) Personality c) Cognition d) Ability to learn

answer

question

9-108. In Peck's developmental stages, body transcendence refers to __________. a) moving beyond psychological limitations b) moving beyond physical changes c) having order in one's life d) congruence between mind and body

answer

question

9-109. Last year, Greta's knee injury caused her to drop out of her bowling league, but at 90 years old, she still enjoys life and is involved in many activities. Greta is successful at which of Peck's developmental stages? a) Redefinition of self versus preoccupation with work role b) Ego transcendence versus ego preoccupation c) Body transcendence versus body preoccupation d) Integrity versus despair

answer

question

9-110. Which of the following psychologists suggests that personality development in elderly people is occupied by three major developmental tasks or challenges? a) Bernice Neugarten b) Daniel Levinson c) Robert Peck d) Erik Erikson

answer

question

9-99. Which of the following theorists examined personality in the ego integrity versus despair stage of psychosocial development? a) Robert Peck b) Daniel Levinson c) Erik Erikson d) Bernice Neugarten

answer

question

9-113. What is the focus of Daniel Levinson's theory of adult development? a) Reaffirming personality change throughout the course of life from birth to death b) Preparing for death c) Achieving ego transcendence d) The process of personality change associated with aging

answer

question

9-114. According to Daniel Levinson, at which of the following ages might a person be entering into late adulthood by passing through a transition stage? a) 54 b) 63 c) 70 d) 75

answer

question

9-115. Daniel Levinson discusses a transition stage people pass through when entering late adulthood; in this transition stage, they realize that they are __________. a) virile b) old c) competent d) ego vested

answer

question

9-116. Which of the following areas was the focus of Bernice Neugarten's work? a) How emotions affect the aging process b) Different ways people cope with aging c) Cognitive processes in aging d) Social deterrents to the aging process

answer

question

9-117. Jorge cannot accept that he is getting older and experiences despair. According to Bernice Neugarten, what is his personality type? a) Passive-dependent b) Defended c) Disintegrated and disorganized d) Integrated

answer

question

9-118. Camille is becoming extremely fearful of becoming ill as she ages, and constantly makes preparations for the help that she thinks she will need. According to Bernice Neugarten, Camille is a(n) __________. a) integrated personality b) defended personality c) disintegrated and disorganized personality d) passive-dependent personality

answer

question

9-119. According to Bernice Neugarten, people who attempt to stop the aging process by acting young, exercising, and participating in youthful activities are a(n) __________. a) defended personality b) integrated personality c) passive-dependent personality d) disintegrated and disorganized personality

answer

question

9-25. During a geriatrics conference, discussion was focused on age-related changes to brain size and cognitive functioning. Which of the following summaries is most accurate for this discussion? a) The brain will remain the same size, and cognitive function can remain the same if the person keeps active. b) Brain structure and cognition will decline slightly. c) Brain structure will be drastically reduced, and cognitive functioning will decrease. d) The brain becomes smaller and lighter with age, and brain cells begin to decline.

answer

question

9-23. Osteoporosis affects what percentage of women over 60? a) 10 percent b) .5 percent c) 25 percent d) 50 percent

answer

question

9-213. Hearing loss in the elderly can hasten cognitive decline.

answer

true

question

9-41. Which of the following is a leading cause of death in elderly people? a) Heart disease b) Arthritis c) Alzheimer's disease d) Depression

answer

STUDY

Developmental Developmental Psychology Grammar Humans Introductory Psychology Psychology

Psychology Chapter 3 Test Questions – Flashcards 39 terms

Bettina Hugo

39 terms

Preview

Psychology Chapter 3 Test Questions – Flashcards

question

The type of speech used by young children in which words are left out but the meaning can still be understood

answer

telegraphic speech

question

The branch of psychology that studies changes that occur as humans mature

answer

developmental psychology

question

An infant's reflex that results from someone or something touching his or her hand

answer

grasping reflex

question

The growth of a human from infancy to adulthood that is naturally programmed to occur

answer

maturation

question

An infant's reflex that causes his or her head to turn toward the source of touching that occurs near his or her mouth

answer

rooting reflex

question

What reflexes is a infant born with?

answer

Grasping reflex and rooting reflex

question

In what period of life do humans change the fastest and learn the most?

answer

early childhood

question

What do developmental psychologists study

answer

how individuals change physically, socially, emotionally, morally, and intellectually

question

What are the 2 views of how behavior develops?

answer

biological and environmental

question

What innate capacities do newborns have?

answer

see, hear, and smell

question

How do psychologists measure the capabilities of newborns?

answer

measuring behaviors

question

What processes occur during the first years of life that enable a child to expand his or her skills?

answer

grasping objects, crawling

question

Why should parents not waste time trying to coach an infant to learn new skills before he or she is ready?

answer

they have a programmed growth

question

What perceptual abilities do newborns and infants have?

answer

they are not afraid and like to look at human faces and patterns

question

What are the two primary components of language development?

answer

language and thought

question

What two factors are involved in intellectual development?

answer

Quantitative Changes (growth in the amount of info) and Qualitative Changes (Diff in the manner of thinking)

question

When an object or event does not fit into our preexisting schemas, what two options do we have?

answer

We can assimilate the information by fitting it into our new schemas or we can accommodate.

question

How do infants treat objects that they cannot see?

answer

Infants treat objects that they cannot see as though they do not exist.

question

When does this treatment change?

answer

During the later part of the child's first year, he or she recognizes object permanence. This is accompanied by the realization that objects and people exist independently of the child.During the later part of the child's first year, he or she recognizes object permanence. This is accompanied by the realization that objects and people exist independently of the child. During the later part of the child's first year, he or she recognizes object permanence. This is accompanied by the realization that objects and people exist independently of the child.

question

How are object permanence and representative thought related?

answer

Representational thought is described as the ability to picture things in one's mind.A child achieves object permanence, he cannot engage in representational thought.

question

At what age do children begin to understand the principle of conservation?

answer

Children understand the principle of conservation between the ages of 5 and 7.

question

What are the 4 stages of cognitive development identified by Jean Piaget?

answer

Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, and formal operations.

question

Who discovered that some animals become attached to their mothers by a process called imprinting?

answer

Konrad Lorenz

question

Why is attachment important?

answer

Appears to be a survival mechanism that is critical to development. It allows the human or animal to form a bond with the person or animal who will be responsible for teaching basic life skills and providing emotional security.

question

What did Harry Harlow conclude from his study of monkeys?

answer

Harlow said that the need for attachment is a need for contact comfort more than a need for food.

question

What 2 types of anxiety are common to infants during the attachment period?

answer

Separation of anxiety and stranger anxiety are common.

question

Adolescents are encouraged to participate in decision making in what type of families?

answer

authoritative

question

According to Sigmund Freud, infants associate erotic pleasure with the mouth during what stage?

answer

oral stage

question

When infants try on adult roles during play, what are they engaged in ?

answer

role taking

question

Freud's theory asserts that during what stage does an individual's sexual satisfaction depends on giving pleasure as well as receiving it.

answer

genital stage

question

In what type of family do parents control, shape, and evaluate the behavior of children and adolescents using a set code of conduct.

answer

authoritarian

question

According to Freud, children associate erotic pleasure with the elimination process during what stage?

answer

anal stage

question

The process of learning the rules of behavior for a culture is called what?

answer

socialization

question

Children and adolescents have the final say in what type of family?

answer

democratic family

question

During what stage did Freud believe that children associate erotic pleasure with their genitals.

answer

genital stage

question

Freud claimed that at about 5 or 6 a child pushes aside sexual desires in order to explore the world and learn new skills in what stage?

answer

sublimation stage

question

How does identification help with socialization?

answer

Identification teaches morals and culture.

question

Why does sublimation help with role taking?

answer

Sublimation helps with role taking because it redirects the sexual impulses into learning important tasks. Sublimation helps with role taking because it redirects the sexual impulses into learning important tasks.

question

developmental psychology

answer

the study of how people change and grow throughout lifespan

STUDY

Business Management Developmental Leader Member Relations Leaders Leadership Linguistics Path Goal Theory Productivity And Efficiency Rules And Regulations

Leadership Chapter 14 Test Questions – Flashcards 63 terms

Henry Smith

63 terms

Preview

Leadership Chapter 14 Test Questions – Flashcards

question

__is the process of influencing others to achieve group or organizational goals

answer

leadership

question

which of the following is a major concern of managers (as opposed to leaders)?

answer

maintaining the status quo

question

One of the criticisms of the television industry is the networks' desire to maintain ratings by thinking in terms of next week's programming. The networks are also more concerned with how to get high program ratings quickly. This criticism assumes?

answer

The television industry has a shortage of effective leadership

question

Which of the following is a major concern of leaders (as opposed to managers)?

answer

inspiring and motivating others

question

Ford Motor Company has always attracted and nurtured capable managers, but it has failed to do the same for leaders. Ford is embarking on a sweeping attempt to mass-manufacture leaders. It wants to build an army of "warrior-entrepreneurs." Ford's "warrior-entrepreneurs" will be expected to?

answer

-take a long-term perspective -inspire and motivate employees to embrace change -realize that results are more important than processes -be architects rather than builders

question

companies whose executives do not try to motivate employees to create long term solutions to the problems facing the companies are most likely ?

answer

are more than likely managers rather than leaders

question

When Jack Welch, former Chairman of General Electric, a Fortune 5 company, assumed the role of CEO, he immediately began to make drastic changes in the company's structure and product lines. He envisioned a bloated, inefficient General Electric becoming an efficient, profitable organization over time. He inspired and motivated his employees to change. Jack Welch __

answer

would be characterized as a leader

question

relatively stable characteristics such as abilities, psychological motives, or consistent patterns of behavior, form the basis for the __ of leadership.

answer

trait theory

question

According to an article from CIO Magazine, "Leadership grows from courage and integrity." From this opening statement, you know the article will discuss leadership from the

answer

trait theory viewpoint

question

The "great person" theory is another name for the ___ theory of leadership.

answer

trait

question

which of the following traits refers to high levels of effort and is characterized by achievement, motivation, ambition, energy, tenacity, and initiative?

answer

Drive

question

which of the following traits refers to the extent to which leaders are truthful with others?

answer

Honesty

question

Oftentimes when an individual is running for a local political office, he or she makes lots of promises. When the individual wins the election and assumes office, he or she is often unable to carry through on political promises, an inability which leads to a perceived problem with

answer

integrity

question

leaders who possess the trait of __ are more decisive and assertive and more likely to gain others confidence.

answer

self confidence

question

which of the following traits refers to the tendency of leaders to remain even tempered and consistent in their outlook and the way they treat others even when things go wrong?

answer

emotional stability

question

research at 3 universities has confirmed that two basic leader behaviors, __and ___ are central to successful leadership

answer

initiating structure, consideration

question

which of the following is another term for considerate leadership behavior?

answer

employee-centered leadership / concern for people

question

Walter Reed Army Institute of Research has made a study of how important it is for military leaders to be friendly with and to show concern for their troops. Its research shows that a leadership behavior high in____ positively influences soldiers and their ability to adapt to stressful environments

answer

consideration

question

Doris Cunningham, CEO of Members Choice Federal Credit Union in West Virginia, believes keeping staff excited about the business they're in is one of a leader's primary roles. She believes a spirit of enthusiasm must start at the top. This indicates that Cunningham is high in

answer

consideration

question

United Fruit Company is the owner of the Chiquita brand of bananas. United Fruit emphasized how the fruit was to be picked and packed for transportation and shows no concern for the workers. United Fruit can be considered using___ type of managing

answer

initiating structure

question

Recently, a newly appointed CEO of a major corporation began by firing the entire management committee. A few months later, this same executive, fired two of his hand-picked senior executives. From this information, it is obvious that this executive was more concerned about his employees' ___ than their job satisfaction

answer

job performance

question

Which of the following is another term for initiating structure leadership behavior?

answer

concern for production

question

research shows that while initiating structure impacts primarily on___ consideration impacts primarily on__

answer

Job performance, job satisfaction

question

Which of the following statements about the two basic leader behaviors that are central to successful leadership is true?

answer

these behaviors are referred to as initiating structure and consideration

question

which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?

answer

none of these

question

Bill Belichick is the coach of the New England Patriots football team. As a successful coach, he has to schedule structured practices, emphasize careful planning, and assign tasks. He also has to show the players that he genuinely cares about them as people. According to the Blake and Mouton grid, Belichick's leadership style would be characterized as ___

answer

team management

question

which of the following is an example of a situational theory of leadership?

answer

Fiedler's contingency theory

question

In fielder's contingency theory, the term__ refers to the degree to which leaders are able to hire, fire, reward, and punish workers.

answer

position power

question

In fielder's contingency theory, the term__ refers to the degree to which a particular situation either permits or denies a leader the chance to influence the behavior of group members.

answer

situational favorableness

question

Some employees called former General Electric, CEO Jack Welch, "Bloody Jack" because his restructuring efforts eliminated numerous jobs and product lines without thought about how individual employees were impacted. Mr. Welch was viewed as "the hatchet man," and the source of the firings. Under Fiedler's contingency theory, someone acting like Mr. Welch would be viewed as having __

answer

strong position power

question

which of the following approaches to implementing Fiedler's contingency theory in the workplace has proven effective?

answer

accurately measuring and matching leaders to situations

question

According to which of the following leadership model occurs when leaders make it clear how followers can achieve organizational goals, take care of problems that prevent followers from achieving goals, and then find more and varied rewards to motivate followers who achieve those goals, these leaders are demonstrating?

answer

the path-goal theory

question

which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of leadership?

answer

Charismatic

question

According to the path-goal theory of leadership, what type of leadership is being practiced that involves letting employees know precisely what is expected of them, giving them specific guidelines for performing tasks, scheduling work, setting standards of performance, and making sure that people follow standard rules and regulations.

answer

directive leadership

question

According to the path-goal theory of leadership, what leadership style involves being friendly and approachable to employees, showing concern for them and their welfare, treating them as equals, and creating a friendly climate.

answer

supportive leadership

question

Under the leadership of Michael Eisner, The Walt Disney Company developed an "executivecentric, Eisner centric culture"—whatever Eisner wanted to happen, he made happen. In terms of the pathgoal theory, Eisner used a(n)__ leadership style to improve Disney's profitability

answer

Directive

question

according to the path-goal theory of leadership, ___ involves consulting employees for their suggestions and input before making decisions.

answer

participative leadership

question

in the path-goal theory of leadership, subordinate satisfaction and subordinate performance would be examples of

answer

outcomes

question

which of the following is an example of an environmental contingency in path-goal theory?

answer

task structure / the formal authority system

question

The founder and CEO of a medical products distributor, establishes ambitious goals for his employees and is confident that they will be able to achieve these goals. In terms of the path-goal theory, this founder and CEO is exhibiting a(n) __ type of leadership

answer

achievement-oriented

question

the normative decision theory_

answer

helps managers determine how much employee participation should be used in decision making

question

To save a company from bankruptcy, its CEO told its employees that he would eliminate 53 percent of the company's mechanics and reduce the compensation of the remaining mechanics by 26 percent. In terms of the normative decision theory, Steenland

answer

made autocratic decisions

question

In many organizations, sales managers develop companywide sales forecasts by asking members of the sales force to decide how much growth they anticipate in their individual sales territories. Sales managers then take the input from the individual salespeople and create the companywide sales forecasts based on this information. In the normative decision model, this would be an example of a(n) __ decision- making style

answer

consultative

question

which of the following is an example of a rule used within normative decision theory to increase decision quality?

answer

the goal congruence rule

question

which of the following leadership theories uses a decision tree to determine the appropriate level of participation by subordinates in decision making?

answer

Vroom- yetton-jago's normative decsion model

question

__is the ability to anticipate, envision, maintain flexibility, and work with others to initiate change that will create a positive future for the organization.

answer

strategic leadership

question

__ is leadership that creates a positive image of the future that motivates organizational members and provides direction for future planning and goal setting.

answer

visionary leadership

question

the two types of visionary leadership are__

answer

charismatic leadership and transformational leadership

question

The author of The Science of Good and Evil describes his meeting with the founders of Google in the book. He described them as visionary leaders, which means their primary goal for being in business is to__

answer

create a positive image of the future

question

two kinds of charismatic leaders are referred to as__

answer

ethical charismatics and unethical charismatics

question

__refers to the behavioral tendencies and personal characteristics of leaders that create an exceptionally strong relationship between them and their followers.

answer

charismatic leadership

question

charismatic leaders generally__

answer

articulate a vision bases on strongly held values

question

transformational leaders__

answer

-help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision are accurately described by all of these

question

which of the following is NOT a component of transformational leadership?

answer

supportive influence

question

transactional leaders__

answer

reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior

question

As CEO of UPS, Michael Eskew transformed the company from a package delivery service to a logistics expert so it could serve as a traffic manager for corporate America. As a transformational manager, Eskew_

answer

used intellectual stimulation to encourage his employees to take innovative approaches to problem solving

question

Transformational leaders that pay special attention to followers' individual needs by creating learning opportunities, accepting and tolerating individual differences, encouraging two-way communication, and practice being a good listener describes the component of transformational leadership known as __

answer

individualized consideration

question

transactional leaders often__

answer

rely too heavily on discipline or threats to bring performance up to standards

question

transformational leadership

answer

__is a leadership that generates awareness and acceptance of a group's purpose and mission and gets employees to see beyond their own needs and self-interest for the good of the group

question

which of the following is a rule used within normative decision theory to increase employee acceptance and commitment to decisions?

answer

the commitment requirement rule

question

__is an organization's set of procedures, rules, and policies.

answer

formal authority system

question

according to the Blake/Mouton leadership grid, __ leadership style occurs when leader gives thoughtful attention to the needs of people providing them with friendly and comfortable environment but don't really pay much attention to production or performance

answer

country club

question

which of the following statements about leaders and managers is true?

answer

organizations need both leaders and managers

STUDY

Cleft Lip And Palate Developmental Developmental Biology Microbiology

Test Questions on final – Microbiology – Flashcards 69 terms

William Jordan

69 terms

Preview

Test Questions on final – Microbiology – Flashcards

question

Teratogen

answer

an agent that induces birth defects during embryonic development. Rubella and CMV.

question

Viroid

answer

Infection particles smaller than a virus. no capsid. single specific RNA. cause plant diseases.

question

Prion

answer

Proteinaceous infections particles. cause creuttzfeldt-jakob disease and kuru in humans. causes BSE in cows (mad cow disease)

question

Virus families are given a name comprised of a Latin root followed by -viridae

answer

question

Picornaviridae

answer

"small" "rna" "virus"

divided into 2 major groups: enteroviruses and rhinoviruses

question

polioviruses

answer

affinity for nervous tissue
transmitted in nose and throat discharges and in feces
subclinical -- no symptoms (95% of people affected never have symptoms)
4-6% -- nonparalytic poliomyelitis -- fever, stiffness or pain in the neck muscles
two types of vaccines: sabin - oral (100% effective) and salk -- 3 inner muscular infections (70-90% effective)

question

hepatities A virus

answer

mode of transmission is fecal-oral spread.
most cases result from close institutional contact, unhygienic food handling, shellfish, etc
affects liver
jaundice appears for 1-3 weeks.
recover is 2-6 weeks

question

hepatitis E virus

answer

mode of transmission is fecal-oral spread
disease similar to HAV, but pregnant women have high mortality rate
no vaccine

question

foot and mouth disease virus

answer

communicable disease of cloven hoofed animals (esp. cattle)
transmitted from cow to man and man to cow

question

rhinoviruses

answer

cause the common cold
spread by droplets, by discharges from the nose and throat, or freshly contaminated fomites (door handles, desks, etc)
confers immunity for that virus but there are 100 types.

question

paramyeoviridae: rubella (german measles)

answer

if occurs during pregnancy, causes severe fetal abnormalities
vaccination - MMR at 15 months of age

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paramyeoviridae: hep C (flaviviridae)

answer

transmitted by infection of contaminated blood or body fluids

question

paramyxoviridae: parainfluenzae virus

answer

causes croup, bronchiolitis, pneumonia

question

mumps virus

answer

painful swelling of the parotid glands, although the salivary glands, testes, ovaries, and pancreas may be involved. in adults can manifest as orchitis.
epidemics are prevalent during winter months in schools and military personnel.
vaccine - MMR at 15 months age

question

morbillivirus (red measles)

answer

causes measles -- most common acute communicable disease affecting children.
vaccine: MMR at 15 months age

question

pneumovirus: respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

answer

major cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants less than 1 year old

question

rhabdoviridae: rabies virus

answer

transmission occurs through infected animal bite
dogs, cats, bats, skunks
symptoms: severe headache, fever, depression and excitement

question

orthomyxoviridae: influenzae virus

answer

the flu
characterized by nasal discharge, headache, muscle pains, sore throat
synthetic drug, amantadine, can prevent and help cure influenza cause by A strains.

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reoviridae: rotavirus

answer

intestinal viruses (gross diapers)

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retroviridae: retroviruses

answer

enveloped, single-stranded RNA viruses with reverse transcriptase that converts the RNA into double stranded DNA.
oncogenic (cancer causing)

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human immunodeficiency virus (HIV types 1 and 2)

answer

causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
HIV antibody positive state w/ some combo of infections, fever, weight loss, neoplasms, diarrhea, brain dysfunction
HIV originated in Africa
high mortality rate
in blood, semen, vaginal secretions
initial infections create flulike illness: virus becomes latent, brings levels of T helper cells down & invades brain
after incubation period of 2-15 yrs, infections occur including pneumocystis carini pneuymonia, serious diseases by protozoa, fungi, mycobacteria, and viruses
treatment: AZT

question

HTLV I

answer

human t lymphocyte virus I -- causes adult T cell leukemia or mycosis fungoides
fatal cancer

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HTLV II

answer

causes hairy cell leukemia
high mortality rate

question

herpesviridae

answer

universal property of herpesviridae is latency.
remains in host cells, usually neorons, for long periods of time but can still replicate

question

herpes simplex type 1

answer

causes fever blisters and cold sores
treatment -- acylorvir (zovirax)

question

herpes simplex type 2

answer

after the lesion disappears, the vorus remains latent. recurrent genital herpes is frequent.
treatment: zovirax

question

varicella-zoster

answer

causes chicken pox.
causes shingles

question

cystomegalovirus (CMV)

answer

leading cause of birth defects.
occurs in AIDS patients and transplant recipients

question

epstein barr virus

answer

causes infections mononucleosis
causes burkett's lymphoma in African children

question

poxviridae: orthppoxvirus

answer

smallpox

question

papovaviridae

answer

papillomaviruses: cause warts. genital warts. wart morphology ranges from tiny, flat, inconspicuous bumps to giant, branching cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata.
vaccination: gardasil. age 9-24

question

parvoviridae: parvovirus

answer

can surivive in soil for up to 2 years. causes fatal gastroenteritis in pups
in humans: rash that resembles a slapped cheek.

question

Hepatities B

answer

transmitted by transfusion of blood or blood products, syringes, saliva & sex
causes chronic liver disease
vaccine available

question

Hepatitis D

answer

transmitted parenteral (host must be coinfected w/ hep B)
Hep B vaccine is effective because coinfection is required.

question

primary syphilis

answer

open lesion/ sore that is painless. (chancre)
appear on genitalia 80% of time
heals after 3-6 weeks
diagnosed w/ darkfield microscopy
treatment: penicillin

question

treponema pallidum

answer

causative agent of syphilis.
cannot be cultured in lab.
humans are natural host and source.

question

secondary syphilis

answer

red or brown rash that breaks out on all skin surfaces
the MS department of health uses the rapid plasma reagin test for rapid detection of syphilis.
treatment: penicillin

question

latent syphilis

answer

bacteremia caused by treponema pallidum.
can last up to 20 years.
can cause blindness.

question

tertiary syphilis

answer

very severe complications
can result in cardiovascular syphilis, which can rupture aorta.
can move to brain (neurosyphilis)

question

congenital syphilis

answer

can pass from pregnant woman into placenta and be carried through fetal tissues.
can lead to spontaneous miscarriage or stillbirth.
children often have CNS problems.

question

leptospira interrogans

answer

most often acquired when organism comes into contact through abrasions and mucous membranes
can be found in the environment, esp. in water cnotamited fomthe urine and tissues of infected animals.

question

thallus or colony (mold)

answer

aerial mycelium + vegetative mycelium

question

aerial mycelium

answer

grow above agar surface.
reproductive.

question

vegetative mycelium

answer

grow below agar surface.

question

hypha

answer

singular. branches growing off of mycelium

question

mold

answer

reproduce by spores

question

septum

answer

division in hypha.

question

yeasts

answer

reproduce by budding

question

blastospore

answer

simple budding forms in which daughter cell is abstricted from mother cell

question

chlamidospores

answer

thick walled spores produced by rounding up & enlargement of terminal cells of hyphae.
round spore forms on end and breaks off.

question

arthrospores

answer

resulting from simple fragmentation of the mycelium in cylindrical or cask shaped thick walled spores
all the mycelia fragmitize.
lots of septae throughout.
whole spore breaks apart

question

colony of mold
colony of yeast

answer

mycelial cottony mass
resemble bacterial colonies

question

conidia-spore

answer

microconidia: small spore
macroconidia: large spore

question

primary routes of entrance for agents of fungal disease

answer

#1: respiratory
#2: cutaneous (skin)

question

endothrix

answer

dermatophyte invades hair shaft

question

ectothrix

answer

dermatophyte invades outisde hair

question

superficial

answer

just below skin

question

subcutaneous

answer

completely below skin

question

systemic

answer

throughout the body

question

tinea capitis

answer

ringworm of the scalp

question

tinea pedis

answer

foot (athletes foot)

question

tinea corporis

answer

body

question

tinea barbae

answer

beard

question

tinea cruris

answer

jock itch

question

onchomycosis

answer

nail infection

question

microsproum audouinii

answer

epidemic ringworm of the scalp in school age children.
transmits from man to man

question

microspourum canis (canine)

answer

causes tinea capitis and corporis with an erythemic (red) lesion.
pups and kitties

question

trichophyton mentagrophytes

answer

athlete's foot (jock itch)

question

tinea versicolor

answer

skin disease
superficial brownish scaly areas on light skinned persons
lighter areas on dark skin
causative agent: malasseziofurfur

STUDY

Birth And Death Chronic Health Conditions Developmental Mental Health Nursing

Lit Midterm – Candide Notes – Flashcards 83 terms

Jazzlyn Howe

83 terms

Preview

Lit Midterm – Candide Notes – Flashcards

question

Chronic Grieving cont...

answer

For exam purposes, you should know that chronic grief is suffered by about one-third of those who lose a loved one. It involves continuing high levels of distress that extend over several years, or in fact, may never be reduced. This pattern is sometimes seen in older people who had intense, very close marriages, and is also more typically seen in parents who have a child precede them in death. Surviving the death of a child has now become the highest stress item on a revision to the Holmes and Rahe scale that we examined two weeks ago (our textbook did not have the revised information, by the way.)

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STUDY

Cognitive Developmental Developmental Psychology

THEORY 1 – Flashcards 110 terms

Jason Westley

110 terms

Preview

THEORY 1 – Flashcards

question

an area of study devoted to understanding constancy and change from conception through adolescence

answer

child development

question

all changes we experience through the life span

answer

developmental science

question

GOAL is to describe and identify those factors that influence the consistencies and changes in young ppl during the 1st 2 decades of life.

answer

CD is a part of DS,

question

when a new system is created (schools) questioins arise about the best method

answer

In what ways are questions about child development applied and stimulated by social pressures?

question

physical, cognitive, emotional& social

answer

What are Berk's domains of development?

question

each is influenced and influences the others.

answer

What does it mean to say that the domains are not distinct, but "combine in an integrated, holistic fashion

question

nine month period, most rapid time of change

answer

prenatal period of developmentlconception to birth

question

motor ,intellect, perceptual capacities. language , first steps

answer

infancy to toddler period of development; birth to 2 yrs;

question

;longer leaner body, refined skills, more self sufficient,make beleive morality , peer ties

answer

early childhood period of development 2-6

question

learning of wider world and new responsibilities ,improved athletic abilities, games with rules, logical thought processes, reading etc better understandings

answer

middle childhoodperiod of development :6-11

question

transition into adulthood, puberty, sexual maturity, defing personal goals and values

answer

adolescence period of development 11-18

question

late 19th century and early 20

answer

When did scientific research on child development begin ?

question

orderly , integrated set of statements that describes , explains and predicts behavior

answer

theory

question

they provide organizing frameworks for our observations of children. serve as a sound basis for practical action.

answer

What are the two reasons why theories are vital tools to child development research ?

question

scientific verification

answer

What is the key way that theories differ from opinion or belief

question

it has constant support ,contradicting etc.

answer

why would it be inappropriate to say that a child development theory was "just" a theory and not more correct than personal belief or opinion?

question

Is the course of development continuous or discontinuous? (2) Does one course of development characterize all children, or are there many possible courses? (3) Are genetic or environmental factors more important in influencing development?

answer

What are the 3 Basic Issues in child development on which most theories take a position ?

question

a process that consists of gradually adding more of the same types of skills that were there to begin with

answer

What does it mean to say that development is "continuous"?

question

STAIRS; a process in which new ways of understanding and responding to the world emerge at specific times.

answer

What does it mean to say that it is "discontinuous"?

question

children everywhere follow the same sequence of development.

answer

What does it mean for a theory to say there is one course of development?

question

or unique combinations of genetic and environmental circumstances that can result in different paths of change.

answer

What are "contexts"?

question

contemporary theorists regard the contexts that shape development as many-layered and complex

answer

Why would an awareness of contexts make theorists more likely to advocate many courses of development?

question

nature, we mean inborn biological givens

answer

nature-nurture controversy

question

nature- trying to change them would be of little value. vs. early experience they can change

answer

How do theories' positions on nature/nurture inform us of their attitude towards stability vs. change ?

question

the ability to adapt effectively in the face of threats to development

answer

resilience

question

a child with a rough background making the positive

answer

What might resilience look like?

question

-1.personsal characteristics-biologically endowed characteristics can reduce exposure to risk or lead to experiences that compensate for early stressful events. -2.warm parental relationship-A close relationship with at least one parent who provides warmth, appropriately high expectations, monitoring of the child's activities, and an organized home environment fosters resilience. -3.community resources and opportunity-good schools, convenient and affordable health care and social services, libraries, and recreation centers— 4.social support outside fam-The most consistent asset of resilient children is a strong bond to a competent, caring adult, who need not be a parent.

answer

4 broad factors that contribute to resilience?

question

sensitive to children's physical limitations and psychological needs. manuals offering advice on many aspects of child care,Laws recognized that children needed protection.

answer

Medieval Times;6th-15th centuries

question

Puritan doctrine, children were born evil and stubborn and had to be civilized, restrictive child-rearing practices , gradually adopted a moderate balance between severity and permissiveness

answer

The Reformation;16th century

question

new philosophies of reason and emphasized ideals of human dignity and respect. Conceptions of childhood were more humane than those of centuries past.

answer

The Enlightenment;17th cent-20

question

Darwin-natural selection; hall & gesell normative-maturational;BINET& Simon-mental testing-first successful intelligence test

answer

The Scientific Revolution

question

Continuous;tabula rasa

answer

Locke's approach to child development ?

question

Locke's philosophy characterizes children as doing little to influence their own destiny, which is written on "blank slates" by others.

answer

Where does Locke fall on the 3 Basic Issues in child development?

question

All contemporary theories view children as active, purposeful beings who make sense of their world and contribute substantially to their own development.

answer

What aspects of Locke's perspective are supported by modern research? ? What aspects have been rejected?

question

DIscontinuos ,determining their own destinies.

answer

How did Rousseau view children?

question

Discontinuous , single unified course mapped out by nature.

answer

Where does Rousseau fall on the 3 Basic Issues in child development?

question

naturally endowed with a sense of right and wrong and with an innate plan for orderly, healthy growth.

answer

noble savages(rousseau)

question

a genetically determined, naturally unfolding course of growth.

answer

maturation(rousseau)

question

Darwin

answer

From what was the scientific study of child development born

question

normative approach, in which measures of behavior are taken on large numbers of individuals, and age-related averages are computed to represent typical development

answer

normative approach

question

individual differences

answer

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale sparked an interest in which component of DAP discussed in class?

question

children move through a series of stages in which they confront conflicts between biological drives and social expectations. The way these conflicts are resolved determines the person's ability to learn, to get along with others, and to cope with anxiety.

answer

psychoanalytic perspective

question

how parents mange their childs sexual and aggressive drives in the first few years is crucial for healthy personality developmental.

answer

Freud's psychosexual theory

question

1.ID-Basic biological needs and desires. 2.EGO-conscious, rational, ,early infancy 3.SUPER-EGO- 3-6 conscience, insist that children conform to values of society

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According to Freud, there are 3 parts of the personality.

question

-manage their child's sexual and aggressive drives in the first few years is crucial for healthy personality development.

answer

Freud's psychosexual stages

question

new ego directs the baby's sucking activities toward breast or bottle. If oral needs are not met appropriately, the individual may develop such habits as thumb sucking, fingernail biting, and pencil chewing in childhood and overeating and smoking later in life.

answer

Oral-birth-1,

question

Young toddlers and preschoolers enjoy holding and releasing urine and feces. Toilet training becomes a major issue between parent and child. If parents insist that children be trained before they are ready or make too few demands, conflicts about anal control may appear in the form of extreme orderliness and cleanliness or messiness and disorder

answer

Anal 1-3

question

Id impulses transfer to the genitals, and the child finds pleasure in genital stimulation. Freud's Oedipus conflict for boys and Electra conflict for girls arise, and young children feel a sexual desire for the other-sex parent. To avoid punishment, they give up this desire and, instead, adopt the same-sex parent's characteristics and values. As a result, the superego is formed. The relations between id, ego, and superego established at this time determine the individual's basic personality

answer

Phallic 3-6 years

question

Sexual instincts die down, and the superego develops further. The child acquires new social values from adults outside the family and from play with same-sex peers.

answer

Latency 6-11years

question

Puberty causes the sexual impulses of the phallic stage to reappear. If development has been successful during earlier stages, it leads to mature sexuality, marriage, and the birth and rearing of children.

answer

Genital Adolescence

question

first to stress the influence of the early parent -child relationship

answer

Freud's theory made what major contribution to the study of child development ?

question

1.overemphasized the influence of sexual feelings in development. 2.because it was based on the problems of sexually repressed, well-to-do adults, it did not apply in cultures differing from nineteenth-century Victorian society. 3. had not studied children directly

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For what 3 reasons was Freud's theory criticized?

question

the ego does not just mediate between id impulses and superego demands. It is also a positive force in development.

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Erikson's psychosocial theory

question

Erikson added three adult stages. He was one of the first to recognize the lifespan nature of development.

answer

In what ways did Erikson add to Freud's theories and make unique contributions to the study of child development

question

From warm, responsive care, infants gain a sense of trust, or mistrust (Oral) confidence, that the world is good. Mistrust occurs when infants have to wait too long for comfort and are handled harshly.

answer

ErikPS -Basic trust versus Birth-1 year

question

Using new mental and motor skills, children want to choose and shame and doubt (Anal) decide for themselves. Autonomy is fostered when parents permit reasonable free choice and do not force or shame the child.

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ErikPS -Autonomy versus 1-3 years

question

Through make-believe play, children experiment with the kind of person they can (Phallic) become. Initiative—a sense of ambition and responsibility—develops when parents support their child's new sense of purpose. The danger is that parents will demand too much self-control, which leads to overcontrol, meaning too much guilt.

answer

ErikPS -Initiative versus guilt 3-6 years

question

years At school, children develop the capacity to work and cooperate with others. Inferiority inferiority (Latency) develops when negative experiences at home, at school, or with peers lead to feelings of incompetence.

answer

ErikPS - Industry versus 6-11

question

The adolescent tries to answer the question, Who am I, and what is my place in confusion (Genital) society? Self-chosen values and vocational goals lead to a lasting personal identity. The negative outcome is confusion about future adult roles.

answer

ErikPS -Identity versus identity Adolescence

question

Young people work on establishing intimate ties to others. Because of earlier disisolation adulthood appointments, some individuals cannot form close relationships and remain isolated.

answer

ErikPS - Intimacy versus Emerging

question

Generativity means giving to the next generation through child rearing, caring for stagnation other people, or productive work. The person who fails in these ways feels an absence of meaningful accomplishment.

answer

ErikPS -Generativity versus Adulthood

question

Old age In this final stage, individuals reflect on the kind of person they have been. Integrity results from feeling that life was worth livingas it happened. Old people who are dissatisfied with their lives fear death

answer

ErikPS -Integrity versus despair

question

directly observable events—stimuli and responses—are the appropriate focus of study

answer

behaviorism

question

The most influential, devised by Canadian-born psychologist Albert Bandura, emphasized modeling, otherwise known as imitation or observational learning, as a powerful source of development.

answer

social learning theory

question

baby who claps her hands after her mother does so, the child who angrily hits a playmate in the same way that he has been punished at home, and the teenager who wears the same clothes and hairstyle as her friends at school are all displaying observational learning

answer

modeling/imitation/observational learning

question

Social interaction

answer

social learning theory is associated themost with which developmental domain ?

question

From watching others engage in self-praise and self-blame and through feedback about the worth of their own actions, children develop personal standards for behavior and a sense of self-efficacy—the belief that their own abilities and characteristics will help them succeed.

answer

personal standards and the sense of self-efficacy and their influence on development

question

observations of relationships b/w behavior and environmental events, followed by systematic changes in those events based on procedures of conditioning and modeling. the goal is to eliminate undesirable behaviors and increase desirable responses.

answer

Applied behavior analysis

question

many theorists believe that behaviorism and social learning theory do not provide a complete account of development. They argue that these approaches offer too narrow a view of important environmental influences. neglecting children's contributions to their own development.

answer

How is Bandura different from other behaviorists ? Why are behaviorist and social learning theories criticized

question

children actively construct knowledge as they manipulate and explore their world.

answer

Piaget's cognitive-developmental theory

question

Piaget's ideas and methods of studying children were very much at odds with behaviorism, which dominated North American psychology during the middle of the twentieth century

answer

Why did it take American researchers so long to adopt Piaget's ideas ?

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he body are adapted to fit with the environment, so structures of the mind develop to better fit with, or represent, the external world.

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adaptation

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balance, between internal structures and information they encounter in their everyday worlds

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equilibrium

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encouraged the development of educational philosophies and programs that emphasize discovery learning and direct contact with the environmen, convinced the field that children are active learners whose minds consist of rich structures of knowledge.

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Piaget's major contributions to the field ?

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underestimated the competencies of infants and preschoolers. Piagetian problems can be improved with training—findings that call into question Piaget's assumption that discovery learning rather than adult teaching is the best way to foster development . nt pays insufficient attention to social and cultural influences— and the resulting wide variation in thinking that exists among children of the same age.

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limitations of his theory

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Infants "think" by acting on the world with their eyes, ears, hands, and mouth. As a result, they invent ways of solving sensorimotor problems, such as pulling a lever to hear the sound of a music box, finding hidden toys, and putting objects in and taking them out of containers.

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Sensorimotor Birth-2 years

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Preschool children use symbols to represent their earlier sensorimotor discoveries. Development of language and make-believe play takes place. However, thinking lacks the logic of the two remaining stages.

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Preoperational 2-7 years

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Children's reasoning becomes logical. School-age children understand operational that a certain amount of lemonade or play dough remains the same even after its appearance changes. They also organize objects into hierarchies of classes and sub classes. However, thinking falls short of adult intelligence. It is not yet abstract.

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Concrete 7-11 years

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The capacity for abstraction permits adolescents to reason with operational older symbols that do not refer to objects in the real world, as in advanced mathematics. They can also think of all possible outcomes in a scientific problem, not just the most obvious ones.

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Formal 11 years and

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the human mind might also be viewed as a symbol-manipulating system through which information flows

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information processing theory

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happens more gradually , continuous no stages..

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How does information processing compare with Piaget ?

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commitment to careful, rigorous research methods, its findings have led to teaching interventions that help children solve problems in more advanced ways.

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What are the strengths and weaknesses of information processing?

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to study the relationship between changes in the brain and the developing childs cognitive processing and behavior patterns

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developmental cognitive nueroscience

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devoted to studying the relationship b/w changes in the brain and emotional and social development

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Developmental social nuero

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is concerned with the adaptive, or survival, value of behavior and its evolutionary history.observed behavior patterns that promote survival.

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ethology

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observed behavior patterns that promote survival., happens in critical period to keep babies close to their mother

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imprinting

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a time that is optimal for certain capacities to emerge and in which the individual is especially responsive to environmental influences

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sensitive period

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Sensitive period are less well defined than those of a critical period. Development can occur later, but it is harder to induce.

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How is a sensitive period different from a critical period?

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seeks to understand the adaptive value of species-wide cognitive, emotional, and social competencies as those competencies change with age

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evolutionary developmental psychology

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focuses on how culture—the values, beliefs, customs, and skills of a social group—is transmitted to the next generation.

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Vygotsky's sociocultural theory

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takes cultural and social contexts into mind depends on assistance from adults

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How does Vygotsky's theory compare with Piaget's

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led him to neglect the biological side of development, less emphasis than other theorists on children's capacity to shape their own development.

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the contributions and criticisms of Vygotstky's theory ?

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views the child as developing within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment.

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Bronfenbrenner's ecological systems theory?

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adults affect children's behavior, but children's biologically and socially influenced characteristics—their physical attributes, personalities, and capacities—also affect adults' behavior.

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Explain what Bronfenbrenner means by saying that relationships are bidirectional?

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which consists of activities and interaction patterns in the child's immediate surroundings.

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Microsystem

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encompasses connections between microsystems, such as home, school, neighborhood, and child-care center.

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Mesosystem, -,

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is made up of social settings that do not contain children but nevertheless affect their experiences in immediate settings. Ts parents' workplaces, their religious institutions, a

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Exosystem, -

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consists of cultural values, laws, customs, and resources.

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Macrosystem-

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Changes in life events can be imposed on the child. Alternatively, they can arise from within the child, since as children get older they select, modify, and create many of their own settings and experiences.

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Chronosystem

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the birth of a sibling, the beginning of school, or parents' divorce, modify existing relationships between children and their environment, producing new conditions that affect development.

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Examples of the chronosystem

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the child's mind, body, and physical and social worlds form an integrated system that guides mastery of new skills. The system is dynamic, or constantly in motion. A change in any part of it—from brain growth to physical and social surroundings—disrupts the current organism-environment relationship. When this happens, the child actively reorganizes her behavior so that the components of the system work together again but in a more complex, effective way.

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dynamic systems perspective

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Continuous

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Chronosystem's view on 3 Basic Issues in Development?

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discontinuous; one course; nature and nurture

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PSychoanalytic perspective

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continuous; many possible courses;nurture

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behaviorism and social learning theory

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Discon;1 course; nature and nurture

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Piagets cog dev theory

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contin;1 course;nature and nurture

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info processing

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CONTI&dis; 1 course; nature and nurture

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ethology and evolutionary dev psych

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Contin&discon;many courses;nature and nurture

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vygotsky sociocult theory

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many courses;nature and nurture

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ecological systems theory

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con;dis;many courses; nature and nurture

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dynamic systems perspective

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