Childhood And Adolescence Flashcards, test questions and answers

the sex structures that develop during puberty are categorized as

people who are intersexual

the process by which people learn their culture's preferences and expectations for male and female behavior is called

people whose sense of gender identity does not match their external appearance are known as

in terms of the view of gender-role development in the United states, most scientists agree that our culture is _____, especially where women are concerned

which theory of gender-role development places a heavy emphasis on the use of mental patterns?

according to researcher alfed kinsey, sexual orientation is best described as

in kinsey's original data, approximately _____ of women reported being predominantly homosexual while as many as ______ of men reported the same

which of the following was a criticism of kinsey's research?

robert drivers theory of parental investment states that a _____ desire to engage in sex at an early age results from ____

the savic et al. 2005 study found that homosexual men responded to a pheromone in the same way as

what is a major cause of organic sexual dysfunction?

surveys suggest that about _____ percent of women and ______ percent of men have at least one sexual dysfunction

hpv is the cause of _______ in both men and women

which of the following ways can the human immunodeficiency virus be passed along to another person?

John B. Watson would have expressed the greatest disapproval of attempts to scientifically study whether:

To get you to increase the frequency of your daily exercise, operant behavior specialists are most likely to recommend that you:

The occurrence of spontaneous recovery suggests that during extinction:

Watching the night sky for shooting stars is likely to be reinforced on a ________ schedule.

We are especially likely to vicariously experience the reinforcing outcomes of those we perceive as:

Alex learned to babysit and care for young children effectively by observing the many ways his mother carefully nurtured his own younger siblings. This best illustrates the value of observational learning for promoting:

Megan fails to see any connection between how hard she works and the size of her annual pay raises. Consequently, she no longer puts much effort into her job, even though she really wants a big raise. This best illustrates the importance of ________ in the operant conditioning of work habits.

Just after they taste a sweet liquid, mice are injected with a drug that produces an immune response. Later, the taste of the sweet liquid by itself triggers an immune response. This best illustrates:

Behaviorism was the view that psychology should scientifically study behavior without reference to:

Positive punishment is the introduction of a(n) ________ stimulus following a behavior and negative punishment is the withdrawal of a(n) ________ stimulus following a behavior.

If a sea slug on repeated occasions receives an electric shock just after being squirted with water, its protective withdrawal response to a squirt of water grows stronger. This best illustrates:

An organism learns associations between events it does not control during the process of:

The tendency to engage in behaviors that we observe others being rewarded for performing best illustrates the influence of:

A real estate agent showed Gavin several pictures of lakeshore property while they were eating a delicious, mouth-watering meal. Later, when Gavin was given a tour of the property, he drooled with delight. For Gavin, the lakeshore property was a:

Asking potential partners for a date is most likely to be reinforced on a ________ schedule.

Helpful and constructive actions best illustrate:

To assess whether Mrs. Webster had suffered a brain injury, researchers conditioned her to blink in response to a sound that signaled the delivery of a puff of air directed toward her face. In this application of classical conditioning, the sound was a:

A type of learning in which behavior is diminished if followed by a punisher is called:

After a scary biking accident, Alex extinguished his conditioned fear of bikes by cycling on a safe biking trail every day for a week. The reappearance of his previously extinguished fear when he rode a bike on the same trail two weeks later best illustrates:

The pioneering researcher of observational learning was:

Recognizing that one of your friends is feeling angry and that another friend is feeling sad illustrates an ability known as:

A dog salivates to the sound of a tone because the tone has regularly been associated with the delivery of food. In this case, the tone is called a(n):

Mr. Schneider frequently tells his children that it is important to wash their hands before meals, but he rarely does so himself. Experiments suggest that his children will learn to:

Pavlov's research on classical conditioning was important because:

so many different species of animals, including humans, can be classically conditioned.

The idea that any perceivable neutral stimulus can serve as a CS was challenged by:

The first experimental studies of associative learning were conducted by:

Research on memory construction indicates that memories of past experiences are likely to be

Varsity basketball players can recall the positions of the players after a 4-second glance at a basketball play. This ability is best explained in terms of:

Research on young children's false eyewitness recollections has indicated that

The inability to remember whose face appears on a five-dollar bill is mostly likely due to a failure in

Recalling the stunning visual images of a Broadway musical and holding them in working memory would most clearly require activation of the:

Incest survivors who lack conscious memories of their sexual abuse may be told they are repressing the memory. This explanation for their lack of memories of abuse emphasizes

Ebbinghaus' use of nonsense syllables to study memory led to the discovery that:

Encoding a written word semantically rather than on the basis of the word's written appearance illustrates a distinction between:

Which memory test would most effectively reveal that Mr. Quintano, at age 55, still remembers many of his high school classmates?

Following a brain injury from a brutal knife attack, Mike is unable to consciously recall or recognize what a knife is. But he still shows a conditioned fear response to the sight of a knife. His conditioned reaction best indicates that he retains a(n) ________ memory.

Dramatic experiences that can trigger flashbulb memories are most likely to remain bright and clear in our conscious memories because they:

The effortful processing of information:

Research on the storage of memory indicates that:

Recall of what you have learned is often improved when your physical surroundings at the time of retrieval and encoding are the same. This best illustrates

A loss of an encoded memory as a result of a gradual fading of the physical memory trace best illustrates

Chickadees and other birds who store food in hundreds of places cannot remember the food storage locations months later if their ________ has been removed.

Highly durable memories can often be retrieved from ________ memory into ________ memory.

Incest survivors who lack conscious memories of their sexual abuse may be told they are repressing the memory. This explanation for their lack of memories of abuse emphasizes

The finding that people who sleep after learning a list of nonsense syllables forget less than people who stay awake provides evidence that forgetting may involve

Implicit memory is to explicit memory as ________ is to ________.

Which test of memory typically provides the fewest retrieval cues?

Karl Lashley trained rats to solve a maze and then removed pieces of their cortexes. He observed that storage of their maze memory:

We are unable to consciously attend to most of the sights and sounds that are continually bombarding us. This fact most clearly contributes to

Sigmund Freud emphasized that the forgetting of painful experiences is caused by a process that involves

After being asked to remember three consonants, participants in a study by Peterson and Peterson counted aloud backward by threes to prevent:

Cortex areas surrounding the hippocampus and supporting the processing and storing of explicit memories are located in the:

Research on memory construction indicates that memories of past experiences are likely to be

Research by Kandel and Schwartz on sea slugs indicates that memory formation is associated with the:

Using the mnemonic ROY G. BIV to remember the colors of the rainbow in the order of wavelength illustrates the use of:

When Sperling visually displayed three rows of three letters each for only one-twentieth of a second, research participants:

The ability to retain more information after sleep and to be a creative problem solver has been found to be most closely associated with a large ________ memory capacity.

When children are interviewed about their recollections of possible sexual abuse, their reports are especially credible if

Recalling an old password and holding it in working memory would be most likely to activate the:

After he was spanked on several occasions for spilling his milk at a restaurant, Colin became afraid to go to the restaurant. In this case, spanking was a(n) ________ for Colin's fear.

Dogs conditioned to salivate to stimulation of the thigh also begin to salivate when stimulated on other body parts. This best illustrates:

Five-year-old Trevor is emotionally disturbed and refuses to communicate with anyone. To get him to speak, his teacher initially gives him candy for any utterance, then only for a clearly spoken word, and finally only for a complete sentence. The teacher is using the method of:

The views of learning advanced by Ivan Pavlov and John B. Watson underestimated the importance of:

B. F. Skinner believed that teaching machines could promote effective learning because they allow for both:

Paul and Michael sell magazine subscriptions by telephone. Paul is paid $1.00 for every five calls he makes, while Michael is paid $1.00 for every subscription he sells, regardless of the number of calls he makes. Paul's telephoning is reinforced on a ________ schedule, whereas Michael's is reinforced on a ________ schedule.

A psychologist who emphasizes cognitive processes would be likely to suggest that classical conditioning depends on:

Desensitization and imitation are two factors that contribute to:

The way slot machines reward gamblers with money best illustrates:

An animal trainer is teaching a miniature poodle to balance on a ball. Initially, he gives the poodle a treat for approaching the ball, then only for placing its front paws on the ball, and finally only for climbing on the ball. The trainer is using the method of:

Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned verbal information. Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned visual designs.

Encoding a written word semantically rather than on the basis of the word's written appearance illustrates a distinction between:

After hearing a list of items, peoples' immediate recall of the items is more likely to show a(n) ________ effect than is their later recall of the items.

Recalling information and holding it in working memory requires that many brain regions send input to your:

During her psychology test, Kelsey could not remember the meaning of the term mnemonics. Surprisingly, however, she accurately remembered that the term appeared on the first line of a right-hand page in her textbook. Her memory of this incidental information is best explained in terms of

After recovering from a stroke, Farina was able to learn how to hit a tennis ball. She is unable, however, to learn and remember the name of the rehabilitation therapist who has been working with her each day to develop her tennis swing. Farina is most likely to have suffered damage to her

Among contemporary memory researchers, increasing numbers think that ________ rarely, if ever, occurs.

When asked how they felt 10 years ago regarding marijuana issues, people recalled attitudes closer to their current views than to those they actually reported a decade earlier. This best illustrates

A good night's sleep improves recall of the previous day's events by facilitating the transfer of memories from the:

hippocampus to the cerebral cortex.

Tim, a third-grader, learns the sentence "George Eats Old Gray Rats and Paints Houses Yellow" to help him remember the spelling of "geography." Tim is using:

Damage to the hippocampus would most likely interfere with a person's ability to learn:

1. As sociologists see it, what part does biology play in the development of human personality?

2. What is the importance of socialization in early childhood?

3. The text presents evidence that social isolation of young people results in permanent loss of ____________________.

4. How might socially isolated children, such as Anna, respond when presented with a toy such as a doll house?

5. The cases of isolated children described in the reading lead to what conclusion?

6. What of the following statements is most correct?

7. What can we learn from the Harlows' rhesus monkey studies?

8. What did Gilligan think was the biggest flaw in Kohlberg's development theory?

9. What part does Mead say role playing has in the development of the self?

10. According to Erik Erikson, after stealing a snack, a child in the preschool stage is now capable of ___________.

11. What term did Freud use to refer to a person's conscious efforts to balance pleasure seeking with the demands of society?

12. In the United States, about what share of households have at least one television?

13. Why might a teenager looking to join a new social group start listening to a new type of music?

14. Philippe Ariès claimed that the idea of childhood extending until about the early teens is actually ________.

15. Which of the following is a distinctive contribution of school to the socialization process?

16. What is the main cause of the pattern we describe as the turbulence of teenage years in the United States?

17. What effect will the increasing older population have on U.S. society?

18. What is the first step of resocialization in a total institution such as prison?

19. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the complete adjustment to one's approaching death involves which of the following?

20. Which stage of life discussed in the text spans the year from about forty to sixty-five when people come to realize that their life circumstances are pretty well set?

Which of the following statement is TRUE?

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Children who have higher BMIs, hypertension, and glucose intolerance have?

What are some contributors to children being overweight?

The most prevalent chronic illness in childhood is

The severity of approximately 88 percent of bicycling injuries can be reduced dramatically by

Which of the following statements about illness in middle childhood is TRUE?

Children in Piaget's concrete operational stage show increased skill in all of the following areas EXCEPT

The following abilities of school-age children are true EXCEPT?

During middle childhood, ____ medical conditions are common and ____ medical conditions are rare

Because of danger associated with their use, which of the following does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend that parents never buy for their children or allow their children to use

A child is told that Bob is older than Sally, and sally is older than Fred. When asked, "Who is older, Bob or Fred?" the child replies, Bob. This child is demonstrating _____ ability

The following abilities of school-age children are true EXCEPT

Susan is given a list of names of students from her school to remember. To help her remember them, Susan arranges the names according to whether they are in the first, second, or third grade, and according to gender. Susan is using the technique of _____ to aid her memory

Intelligence tests used in middle childhood are

The rules by which words are organized into phrases and sentences are called

Congress adopted an act to improve educational accountability, parental options, and local flexibility. This act is called

In about one-third of cases of mental retardation, the cause is

Which of the following statements about mental retardation is FALSE?

A developmental reading disorder in which reading achievement is substantially below the expected level predicted by IQ or age is

Under current federal law, when possible, children with disabilities must be educated

Improvements in information processing may help explain how children find their way to and from school because they demonstrate the following abilities EXCEPT

The skills involved in developing metacognition include all of the following strategies EXCEPT

The ability to arrange objects according to some dimension, such as largest to smallest is called

Homeschooling is legal in ___ of the 50 united states

Monica, who is 8, describes herself as very good at math and science, but average in reading and art. She also says that she is god at basketball but a terrible baseball player. According to the neo-piagetian view of self-concept development, Monica is using

The major contributor to self-esteem is

Erikson's developmental crisis of middle childhood (from 6-12 years) is?

According to the test, school-age children exposed to parental discord and poor parenting display all EXCEPT

Parents can help children develop coregulation by

A child who is aggressive, starts fights, is hostile, and is disobedient is displaying ____ behaviors

Parents who continue to use physical punishment after age 10 tend to have children who

Mark is 7 years old and has cohabitating biological parents and has demonstrated emotional, behavioral, and academic outcomes due to all the following factors EXCEPT

Currently, what percentage of children live in single-parent homes?

Children choose peers that are closest to themselves in

Children of ____ parents tend to be more popular than those whose parents use other styles

During the school years, aggression declines and changes from overt aggression to

Children who have experienced parental divorce do better if they

As children approach adolescence, how well parents _____ may be more important than whether a mother works outside the home

Prosocial children tend to

In addition to the usual issues of of parenthood, adoptive parents also typically have to deal with all of the following EXCEPT

All of the following determine sibling roles and relationships in non-industrialized societies EXCEPT

Brad knows that he sometimes loses his temper and gets angry at his friends. What aspect of self-definition is he developing?

Negative influences of peer groups include all of the following EXCEPT

Children whose tendency is to see other children as trying to hurt them and then strike out in retaliation are showing?

The process that leads to sexual maturity is

Reasearch suggest that the pubertal process takes about ____ in both sexes

At what age would you expect an average American girl to begin puberty?

Which of the following is true about the adolescent growth spurt?

Most teenagers are more concerned about their ____ than any other aspect of their development

Physical exercise affect both physical and mental health by doing all of the following EXCEPT?

Sleep deprivation can have what effects?

The unhealthy diets of many adolescents place them at risk for all of the following EXCEPT

Overweight teenagers are at heightened risk for

Adolescents who have bulimia

Treatment for anorexia and bulimia may include

The leading cause of death among U.S. teenagers, accounting for two of three deaths of 16 to 19 year olds is

Factors that have been found to reduce the risk of suicidal behavior in today's youth include

As adolescents move into the stage of formal operations, they are able to make moral judgements and plan for future. This means they are thinking

According to the text, Piaget's theory considers all of the following EXEPT

Information-processing researchers have identify two categories of measurable change in adolescent cognition. These categories are

Ron has internalized the moral standards of his parents and grandparents. He is concerned with being considered a good son and maintaining the social order. According to Kohlberg, Ron is in the stage of the

According to Gilligan, the moral reasoning of male focuses on ____, whereas the moral reasoning of females is concerned with ____ .

The most important factor that determines whether or not a student will finish high school is

Which of the following statements about gender as a factor in occupational choice is true?

Identity includes

The desirable outcome of the crisis of adolescence, according to Erikson, is being able to

Diane is 13 years old and is pondering her own talents, interests, and need, as well as her place in society. According to Erikson, this struggle represents the crisis of

Betty is 18 years old. For the past five years she has been very committed to working with a group of her friends as a volunteer at a local hospital. She has also diligently studied the piano during this time. According to Erikson, Betty is developing the virtue of

As a child, it is important to learn to trust one's parents; in adolescence a person learns fidelity, which is often defined as

James Marcia identifies four identity states or statuses, according to the presence or absence of

Ashley that abortion is wrong because her parents, friends, and church say so. She has never really thought about the issue but has simply accepted this view as her own. According to Marcia, what is her identity status?

According to Marcia's model, adolescents who experience crisis with no commitment are in the _____ status of identity development

Recent research has indicated that gender differences in identity formation of adolescence

Cultural socialization refers to ____ that teach children about their racial or ethnic heritage, promote cultural traditions, and promote ethics and racial pride

A sexually transmitted disease characterized by extreme fatigue, diarrhea, and weight loss is

Of the 4.1 million new HIV infections each year about ____ are in young people 15-24

Conflict between teenagers and their families and society is

____ is the search for autonomy and differentiation

In a survey of where teenagers spend their time, subjects reported that they were happiest when they were

Virginia is not too happy with many of the decisions that her parents make regarding her life, but she has a good relationship with her parents and follows their lead. Virginia is likely too develop

Adolescents living with their continuously married parents tend to have ____ behavioral problems than do adolescents living in single-parent homes

Adolescents begin to rely on friends more than parents for their

The following are predictors of early juvenile delinquency EXCEPT

According to Erikson, cliquishness and intolerance of differences in adolescence are

1. What would be a normal body weight after one year for a healthy infant with a birthweight of 8 lbs? answer: 24 lbs 2. What is the typical weight gain (lbs) of an infant between the first and second year of life? answer: 10 3. What organ in the infant uses more than half of the day's total energy intake? answer: Brain 4. What is the relative weight of an infant brain compared to an adult's brain? answer: Six times as much 5. The recommended amounts of vitamins and minerals for infants are based on the answer: average amounts ingested by thriving infants breastfed by well-nourished mothers. 6. For optimal breast-feeding benefits, it is recommended that the infant be encouraged to suckle on the first breast offered answer: until he stops actively suckling. 7. What is the chief protein in human breast milk? answer: Alpha-lactalbumin 8. What is thought to be the primary function of the oligosaccharides in breast milk? answer: Protection from infections in the infant 9. What is colostrum? answer: A milk-like substance secreted right after delivery 10. Which of the following is a feature of infant development and nutrition? answer: Breast-fed infants obtain iron-binding proteins that inhibit bacterial infections. 11. Which of the following is associated with bifidus factors? answer: Increased bacterial growth 12. What factor in breast milk binds iron and prevents it from supporting the growth of the infant's intestinal bacteria? answer: Lactoferrin 13. What is lactadherin? answer: A breast milk protein that inactivates a GI virus that causes diarrhea 14. Compared with cow's milk, breast milk contains answer: less protein and calcium. 15. To gradually replace breast milk with infant formula or other foods appropriate to an infant's diet is to answer: wean 16. Which of the following formulas is available for infants with lactose intolerance? a. Egg b. Soy c. Barley d. Powdered cow's milk e. Goat's milk ANS: B 17. Which of the following is a common source of lead poisoning in infants? a. Maternal passage of lead to fetus b. Baby bottles made from lead crystal c. Contaminated water used to make infant formula d. Preparation of infant formula in galvanized containers e. Environmental contamination from leaded gasoline ANS: C 18. What is the most realistic advice for reducing lead exposure from the tap water used to prepare infant formula? a. Because the lead in hot water pipes settles out overnight, draw the water from this source first. b. Whenever possible, boil the water to vaporize the lead and thus decrease the amount remaining in the water. c. Because the first water drawn from the tap each day is highest in lead, let the water run a few minutes before using it. d. To inhibit lead absorption, add a small amount of citrus juice to the water to provide citric acid to complex with the lead. e. Filtering the water through a clean coffee filter will typically remove the majority of lead contamination. ANS: C 19. Goat's milk is inappropriate for infants due to its low content of a. iron. b. folate. c. protein. d. calcium. e. vitamin D. ANS: B 20. Which of the following defines nursing bottle tooth decay? a. Caries development resulting from frequent use of non-sterile bottles and nipples. b. Bacterial attack of teeth due to severe tooth misalignment from sucking on oversized bottle nipples. c. Marked tooth decay of an infant due to prolonged exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle. d. Tooth decay resulting from constant exposure to food due to inability of the infant to swallow normally. e. Tooth decay resulting from the rubbing of the nipple against the teeth and consequent thinning of enamel. ANS: C 21. Which of the following feeding practices is recommended for preterm infants? a. They should be fed exclusively on breast milk. b. They should be fed on breast milk enriched in a 1 to 1 ratio with cow's milk. c. They should be fed preterm breast milk, occasionally fortified with specific nutrients. d. They should be fed only on special formulas because the nutrient content of breast milk is too low. e. They should be fed raw cow's milk fortified with infant vitamins. ANS: C 22. Of the following cereals, which is most likely to result in an allergic reaction upon first feeding? a. Oat b. Rice c. Corn d. Wheat e. Barley ANS: D 23. Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants? a. Two weeks b. Two months c. Five months d. Nine months e. One year ANS: C 24. At what age does the normal infant first develop the ability to swallow nonliquid food? a. 1 to 2 months b. 2 to 4 months c. 4 to 6 months d. 6 to 9 months e. 9 to 12 months ANS: C 25. Why should new foods be introduced to an infant one at a time? a. It prevents overfeeding. b. Any allergic reactions can be detected. c. Immunological protection hasn't been developed. d. The swallowing reflex is not under voluntary control. e. It reduces risk of upset stomach. ANS: B 26. What should be the first cereal introduced to the infant? a. Oat b. Corn c. Rice d. Wheat e. Barley ANS: C 27. Which of the following nutrients need to be supplied first by solid foods in a baby's diet? a. Vitamin C and iron b. Vitamin A and zinc c. Vitamin B12 and fluoride d. Vitamin E and magnesium e. Sodium and manganese ANS: A 28. Infants fed honey or corn syrup are at increased risk for a. protein malnutrition. b. botulism. c. osteopenia. d. type 1 diabetes. e. lead poisoning. ANS: B 29. Young children who drink more than 2 to 3 1/2 cups of milk a day are most likely at increased risk for deficiency of a. iron. b. folate. c. vitamin A. d. vitamin C. e. vitamin D. ANS: A 30. Which of the following is true regarding energy metabolism of the preschool child? a. Food intake is remarkably similar from meal to meal. b. Overweight individuals have appetites similar to normal-weight individuals. c. Energy needs per kg body weight increase from 1 year of age to 5 years of age. d. A 1 year old who needs 800 kcal/day would require only about 1600 kcal at 6 years of age. e. An active 10 year-old requires about 3200 kcal/day. ANS: D 31. Approximately how many kcal per day does an average 6 year old need to obtain? a. 400 b. 800 c. 1600 d. 2400 e. 3200 ANS: C 32. Children should spend no more than ____ hours per day watching television, playing electronic games, and using the computer (except for homework) a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 3 to 4 d. 4 to 5 e. 5 to 6 ANS: A 33. Which of the following is a characteristic of fat in the diet of children? a. The recommended daily fat intake up to age 12 is age plus 20 g. b. There is an RDA for total fat for children beginning at 3 years of age. c. Low-fat diets usually provide sufficient amounts of the micronutrients. d. Fat intakes below 30% of total energy do not impair growth provided that total energy intake is adequate. e. Children between 4 and 18 years of age should get at least 50% of their energy from fat. ANS: D 34. Which of the following is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency among U.S. and Canadian children? a. Iron b. Protein c. Calcium d. Vitamin C e. Vitamin A ANS: A 35. Which of the following is a feature of nutrition in childhood? a. Very few children take nutrient supplements of any kind. b. Total energy requirements are higher for a typical 3 year old than a 12 year old. c. Iron-deficiency anemia in children is prevalent in Canada but not the United States due to fortification. d. Children who fail to consume vitamin D-fortified foods should receive a daily supplement of 10 micrograms. e. Vegetarian and vegan diets are unsafe for children. ANS: D 36. Which of the following was a finding of the Feeding Infants and Toddlers Study? a. Most toddlers but not infants consumed insufficient intakes of sodium. b. The most popular food among these population groups was baked potatoes. c. Most infants but not toddlers demonstrated food intake patterns consistent with MyPlate recommendations. d. About one-fourth of the infants and toddlers failed to consume even one serving of fruits or vegetables daily. e. Less than 10% of young preschoolers consumed nutrient-poor, energy-dense beverages, desserts, and snack foods each day. ANS: D 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of hunger and behavior in children? a. Children who fail to eat breakfast typically become hyperactive after eating lunch. b. The nutrient deficit arising from skipping a breakfast is usually made up over the following 2 days. c. Children who eat nutritious breakfasts are absent from school less often than their friends who do not. d. Although breakfast-skippers show reduced attention spans, their scores on intelligence tests remain unaffected. e. While hunger can have short-term effects, there is little evidence for long-term effects. ANS: C 38. Which of the following is characteristic of children who regularly eat breakfast or skip breakfast? a. Breakfast-skippers actually show lower scores on IQ tests than those who eat breakfast. b. Attention spans are similar but a significant number of breakfast-skippers show hyperglycemia. c. Breakfast-skippers initially show decreased mental performance but with time they adapt and show almost identical achievements. d. Breakfast-skippers who change to eating breakfast show a temporary improvement in mental concentration but also a moderate degree of hypoglycemia. e. Children who skip breakfast and often quite thin and malnourished. ANS: A 39. Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency in children? a. It affects brain function before anemia sets in. b. It rarely develops in those with high intakes of milk. c. It is the primary factor in tension-fatigue syndrome. d. Mild deficiency enhances mental performance by lowering physical activity level, thereby leading to increased attention span. e. Children who had iron deficiency as infants recover completely when iron levels are normalized. ANS: A 40. Which of the following is a characteristic of lead exposure and health? a. Absorption of lead is higher on an empty stomach. b. Lead toxicity is most prevalent in children around the time of puberty. c. Lead-induced anemia is similar to the anemia of vitamin B12 deficiency. d. The symptoms of lead toxicity can be reversed by adding iron to the diet. e. Lead exposure is extremely rare in the U.S.. ANS: A 41. What percentage of young school aged children exhibit hyperactivity? a. 5% b. 7% c. 9% d. 11% e. 13% ANS: D 42. What is thought to account, in part, for the rise in the prevalence of peanut allergy? a. Excess sodium consumed as part of the peanuts. b. Roasting peanuts at very high temperatures makes them more allergenic. c. Impaired digestion/absorption resulting from elevated leptin and adiponectin levels. d. Increased inflammation of the immune system due to altered ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids. e. Hyperstimulation of the immune system by multiple vaccines. ANS: B 43. A child who develops antibodies to a certain food is said to have a a. food allergy. b. food intolerance. c. specific inducible episode. d. transient immune suppression. e. histamine inhibition response. ANS: A 44. Which of the following is a characteristic of a food allergy? a. It always elicits symptoms in the person. b. It always involves the production of antibodies. c. It always shows up immediately after exposure to the allergic food. d. It is elicited from very small, simple molecules as well as large, complex molecules. e. It is less severe than an intolerance. ANS: B 45. Which of the following foods are most often the cause of anaphylactic shock? a. Eggs, peanuts, and milk b. Bananas, juice, and cola c. Apples, noodles, and rice d. Pears, oatmeal, and chocolate e. Barley, corn, and quinoa ANS: A 46. What food is responsible for the most life-threatening allergic reactions in people? a. Eggs b. Peanuts c. Shellfish d. Cow's milk e. Soy ANS: B . 47. A life-threatening whole-body allergic reaction is known as a. anaphylactic shock. b. hyperhistamine response. c. hyporespiratory syndrome. d. wheezing food intolerance. e. immunoresponsive allergy. ANS: A 48. A child known to be allergic to peanuts who begins to show signs such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the tongue, and severe abdominal discomfort is most likely in immediate need of a life-saving injection of a. cortisone. b. serotonin. c. epinephrine. d. acetylcholine. e. histamine. ANS: C 49. A child with a true allergy to milk is actually allergic to the milk's a. casein. b. lactose. c. medium-chain fats. d. bovine growth hormone. e. contamination with antibiotics. ANS: A 50. If a child is allergic to soy, which of the following should be avoided? a. Milk b. Diglycerides c. Peanut butter d. Textured vegetable protein e. Seitan ANS: D 51. Approximately what percentage of U.S. children between 2 and 19 years of age are overweight? a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 32 e. 48 ANS: D 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of obesity in childhood? a. The typical obese child does not learn food behaviors from his family. b. A nonobese child of nonobese parents has a less than 10% chance of becoming obese in adulthood. c. An obese adolescent with one obese parent has virtually a 100% chance of becoming obese in adulthood. d. The typical obese child today has approximately the same energy intake as did children 30 years ago. e. Obese children should be put on restrictive diets to reduce their weight as quickly as possible. ANS: B 53. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, what is the recommended maximum number of hours/day of television viewing for a child under 2 years of age? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. 5 ANS: A 54. What population group consumes the most soft drinks each day at school? a. Teenage boys b. Teenage girls c. 10 to 12 year-old boys d. 10 to 12 year-old girls e. 8 to 10 year-old boys and girls ANS: A 55. The typical can of soft drink contains the equivalent of how many teaspoons of sugar? a. 1 b. 3 c. 7 d. 10 e. 16 ANS: D 56. To help improve a child's BMI, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends limiting television and video time for children older than 2 years to how many hours per day? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 ANS: B 57. What is the leading cause of high blood pressure in children? a. Obesity b. High sodium intake c. Insufficient calcium intake d. Insufficient potassium intake e. Excess vitamin E intake ANS: A 58. Which of the following is a feature of nutrition and behavior in children? a. Hyperactivity responds favorably to a low-sugar diet. b. The adverse effects from caffeine first appear only after drinking 6 cans of cola in one day. c. Television commercials featuring snack foods have been found to affect children's food preferences. d. Because most children are sensitive to the stimulating effects of caffeine, they are able to control their intake of cola beverages. e. Research indicates a strong relationship between food dyes and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. ANS: C 59. Which of the following is an effective strategy for dealing with obesity in a child? a. Encourage the individual to eat quickly and then leave the table. b. Institute new eating habits such as teaching the individual to clean the food plate. c. Engage the individual in at least 1 hour per day of moderate to vigorous physical activity. d. Take control and strongly encourage the individual to lose weight by limiting food intake and exercising vigorously. e. Behavior modification programs that reward healthy choices and punish unhealthy choices. ANS: C 60. Who is best able to manage the growth and weight gain of overweight children? a. School nurse b. Parents/caregivers c. Health-care professional d. School physical education instructor e. Peers ANS: C 61. Even in preschoolers whose habits are being established, existing dietary attitudes are relatively resistant to change. How should wise parents react? a. Be patient and persistent. b. Impose their own eating habits on the children. c. Wait until the children start school to initiate changes. d. Exert continuous pressure to initiate good food habits. e. Punish inappropriate eating behavior. ANS: A 62. If a child is reluctant to try a new food, it is best to a. send the child to his/her room. b. withhold dessert until all food on the plate is eaten. c. quietly remove it and present it again at another time. d. encourage other family members to coax the child to eat it. e. ignore the child until he or she eats it. ANS: C 63. When children are allowed to eat freely from a variety of foods, they usually select foods that are high in a. iron. b. fiber. c. sugar. d. protein. e. fat. ANS: C 64. What minimum fraction of the RDA for key nutrients for children 10-12 years of age should be provided by public school lunches? a. 1/8 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 e. 2/3 ANS: C 65. One factor that has limited the success of the School Breakfast Program is that a. the cost is prohibitive. b. the meals are not nutritious. c. children simply do not participate in it. d. fewer than 10% of the nation's schools participate in it. e. many pediatricians oppose it. ANS: C 66. Which of the following is a characteristic of the adolescent period? a. Obesity occurs more often in African-American females. b. Appetite for red meat increases in females to meet iron needs. c. More nutrient-dense foods are needed by males because of their faster development. d. The risk for calcium insufficiency is greatest in males due to their high intake of soft drinks. e. The adolescent growth spurt begins around age 12 for females and 10 for males. ANS: A 67. Girls younger than the age of 14 who have started to menstruate, need additional ____ milligrams of iron per day. a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 2.5 e. 3 ANS: D 68. Which of the following is a feature of beverage intake in adolescents? a. Juice intake is spread throughout the day. b. Milk intake occurs primarily between meals. c. Males typically drink less milk than females. d. Four standard colas a day provides enough caffeine to alter behavior. e. Soft drinks are typically consumed in addition to milk, not instead of it. ANS: D 69. Approximately what fraction of an average teenager's daily energy intake is derived from snacks? a. 1/4 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 3/4 ANS: A 70. About how many meals each week are eaten outside the home by adolescents? a. 3 b. 7 c. 10 d. 14 e. 18 ANS: B COMPLETION 1. After the age of ____________________ years, children can be transitioned to fat-free milk if care is taken to avoid excessive restriction of dietary fat. ANS: 2; two 2. No single nutrient is more essential to growth than ____________________. ANS: protein 3. The component of breast milk that inhibits the development of inflammatory bowel disease and supports a healthy epithelial barrier is ____________________. ANS: transforming growth factor-beta 4. ____________________ in breast milk help to establish and maintain growth of desired bacteria in gastrointestinal tract and inhibit pathogen attachment to the intestinal mucosa. ANS: Oligosaccharides 5. Honey should never be fed to infants because of the risk of ____________________. ANS: botulism 6. Limited research suggests that food additives such as ____________________ preservative may exacerbate hyperactive symptoms such as inattention and impulsivity in some children. ANS: sodium benzoate 7. A true ____________________ occurs when fractions of a food protein or other large molecule are absorbed into the blood and elicit an immunologic response. ANS: food allergy 8. Adverse reactions to foods that do not involve the immune system are called ___________________. ANS: food intolerances 9. ____________________, the over-the-counter version of orlistat, should not be given to anyone younger than age 18. ANS: Alli 10. ____________________ is a craving to consume nonfood items. ANS: Pica

1. Approximately what fraction of the U.S. population is at least 65 years old? a. 1/100 b. 1/30 c. 1/10 d. 1/8 e. 1/3 ANS: D 2. What is the fastest-growing age group in the United States? a. 21-34 years b. 35-49 years c. 50-64 d. 65-84 years e. Over 85 years ANS: D 3. What is the life expectancy of black males and females in the United States? a. 72 (males), 78 years (females) b. 78 (males), 85 years (females) c. 81 (males), 86 years (females) d. 85 (males), 89 years (females) e. 90 (males), 93 years (females) ANS: A 4. What was the average life expectancy of a person born in the year 1900? a. 47 years b. 55 years c. 61 years d. 68 years e. 71 years ANS: A 5. What is the life expectancy of white males and females in the United States? a. 62 (males), 68 years (females) b. 77 (males), 81 years (females) c. 82 (males), 86 years (females) d. 87 (males), 90 years (females) e. 89 (males), 93 years (females) ANS: B 6. Approximately how many years is the maximum human life span? a. 75 b. 100 c. 115 d. 130 e. 145 ANS: D 7. Once a woman reaches the age of 75 years, about how many more years of survival would be expected? a. 9 b. 11 c. 13 d. 15 e. 17 ANS: C 8. Longevity is defined as a. long duration of life. b. a person's age in years from date of birth. c. maximum number of years of life attainable by a species. d. average number of years lived by people in a given society. e. the years of life left for someone who has attained a given age. ANS: A 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of the response to stress? a. Men often follow a pattern of "tend-and-befriend" b. Women usually engage in the "fight-or-flight" response c. Older men and women tend to lose their ability to adapt to stress d. Common psychological stressors in older people include alcohol abuse and smoking e. The physiologic responses triggered by stress decrease the likelihood of physical responses to the stressors ANS: C 10. By 2030, what proportion of the U.S. population is expected to be 65 years of age or older? a. 1 in 7 b. 1 in 6 c. 1 in 5 d. 1 in 4 e. 1 in 3 ANS: C 11. The CDC recommends older adults engage in strength training at least two (non-consecutive) days a week, at a moderate to high intensity for ____ repetitions. a. 5-10 b. 10-15 c. 15-20 d. 20-25 e. 25-30 ANS: B 12. What would be the physiological age of a 75-year-old woman whose physical health is equivalent to that of her 50-year-old daughter, whose physical health is average for her age? a. 25 years c. 70 years b. 50 years d. 125 years ANS: B 13. What is the most important predictor of a person's mobility in the later years? a. BMI b. Alcohol use c. Chronological age d. Regular physical activity e. Good genes ANS: D 14. Which of the following is a finding from studies of diet restriction in rats? a. Restriction of specific nutrients exerted antiaging effects b. Energy-restricted diets led to life extension in 90% of the rats c. Energy-restricted diets led to lowering of the metabolic rate and body temperature d. Restriction of food intake only after rats reached maturity, but not before, resulted in extension of the life span e. Although early research was encouraging, more recent research has found that the effects are much smaller than hoped ANS: C 15. Which of the following is a feature of energy intake and longevity? a. Improvements in longevity with energy restriction depend on reducing energy intake but not on the amount of body fat b. Restriction of energy intake in genetically obese animals does not seem to improve longevity c. Biochemical markers for longevity in humans are improved only when energy intake is reduced by at least one-third d. The activities of the genes of older mice on energy-restricted diets are similar to those of mice on standard diets e. Research with humans has found a substantial increase in longevity with a 5% reduction in energy intake ANS: A 16. What minimum reduction from the usual intake of energy in people brings about measurable improvements in body fat, blood pressure, insulin response, and blood lipids? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% e. 30% ANS: A 17. People who persistently restrict energy intake by 30% for 30 years can expect to increase longevity by up to how many years? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 e. 15 ANS: A 18. In people who practice energy restriction to prolong life, hunger becomes persistent when kcal intake first drops by what percentage? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50 ANS: C 19. Which of the following is a proposed mechanism for energy restriction and improved longevity in animals? a. Reduced oxidative stress b. Increased metabolic rate c. Enhanced lipid oxidation d. Accelerated growth and development e. Decreased physiologic arousal to stress ANS: A 20. Which of the following is a feature of the stress response in men and women? a. Women's general reactions to stress are different than those of men. b. The ability to respond is weaker in older women compared with older men. c. The secretion of epinephrine is suppressed in elderly women compared with elderly men. d. Psychological stressors such as divorce or death of a loved one are handled much less well by elderly men compared with elderly women. e. There are no clinically important differences in men's and women's responses to stress. ANS: A 21. For adults older than ____, mortality is lowest among individuals who are moderately overweight (BMI 23.5-27.5) a. 45 b. 55 c. 65 d. 75 e. 85 ANS: C 22. What is sarcopenia? a. Loss of central visual activity b. Loss of muscle mass and strength c. Aging-induced chronic inflammation of the stomach d. Intestinal dysmotility from excessive use of laxatives e. Paralysis of GI tract muscles ANS: B 23. Which of the following is a characteristic of aging and the immune system? a. Immunity in older people does not seem to be affected by regular exercise. b. In the United States, infectious diseases are a minor cause of deaths in the elderly. c. Immune function does not decline with age in people who maintain good nutrition. d. Antibiotics are often ineffective in treating infections in older people who have deficient immune systems. e. In elderly persons, nutritional status rarely influences immune functioning. ANS: D 24. Which of the following terms describes an immune system that is inefficient and overactive in the aged? a. Inflammaging b. Dysphagic cell mass c. Sarcopenic undermining d. Endentulous-induced wasting e. Cachexia of aging ANS: A 25. A person with dysphagia has a. no teeth. b. low immunity. c. difficulty swallowing. d. diminished muscle mass. e. impaired cognitive function. ANS: C 26. A person who is edentulous has a. no teeth. b. low immunity. c. difficulty swallowing. d. diminished muscle mass. e. limited lower body mobility. ANS: A 27. What fraction of eligible seniors participate in the SNAP? a. 1/4 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 3/4 ANS: B 28. The evidence from studies to date shows that nutritional interventions designed to relieve depression a. may or may not be effective. b. are mildly effective. c. are moderately effective. d. are greatly effective. e. may worsen depression in very old individuals. ANS: A 29. The calcium Dietary Reference Intake for women 50 and older is a. 800 mg. b. 1000 mg. c. 1200 mg. d. 1400 mg. e. 1600 mg. ANS: C 30. A person with a pressure ulcer has damage to her a. skin. b. colon. c. mouth. d. stomach. e. small intestine. ANS: A 31. Approximately what percentage decline in basal metabolism is seen in an 80-year-old person compared with a 40-year-old? a. 1-2 b. 2-4 c. 4-8 d. 8-16 e. 16-24 ANS: C 32. Approximately what percentage decline in total energy expenditure is seen in a 70 year old versus a 30 year old? a. 2 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 e. 40 ANS: C 33. Which of the following describes the nutrient needs of older people? a. They vary according to individual histories. b. They remain the same as in young adult life. c. They increase; therefore, supplementation is required. d. They decrease for vitamins and minerals due to changes in body composition. e. They rarely change from middle-age onward. ANS: A 34. Which of the following is a feature of elderly people and water metabolism? a. They may not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth. b. They have a higher total body water content compared with younger adults. c. They show increased frequency of urination, which results in higher requirements. d. They frequently show symptoms of overhydration such as mental lapses and disorientation. e. Overhydration increases risk of pressure ulcers and urinary tract infections. ANS: A 35. What is the minimum number of glasses of water per day recommended for older adults? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 e. 12 ANS: B 36. What percentage of older adults live in poverty? a. 7 b. 9 c. 11 d. 13 e. 15 ANS: B . 37. Adults aged 71 and older who engage in minimal outdoor activity need ____ micrograms of vitamin D daily. a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30 e. 35 ANS: B 38. Which of the following is a research finding on vitamin D nutrition in the elderly? a. Self-synthesis capacity is high. b. The skin's capacity to synthesize the vitamin is reduced. c. The presence of atrophic gastritis reduces bioavailability of the vitamin. d. Symptoms of deficiency include dermatitis and diminished taste acuity. e. Deficiency is rarely a problem. ANS: B 39. Which of the following is a feature of vitamin D nutrition in the elderly? a. Most elderly receive near-RDA amounts of the vitamin. b. Aging reduces the kidneys' ability to convert vitamin D to its active form. c. The RDA for vitamin D in the elderly is lower due to less excretion by the kidneys. d. Most elderly rely primarily on self-synthesis of the vitamin due to their greater time spent outdoors. e. Elderly individuals need at least 40 micrograms per day. ANS: B 40. Which of the following is a feature of calcium nutrition in the elderly? a. The DRI is 800-1000 mg. b. Calcium intakes are well below recommendations. c. Calcium supplements are not effective sources of calcium due to poor digestibility. d. Calcium from food is not well absorbed due to the intake of calcium-binding laxatives. e. An elderly individual who lacks sufficient calcium stores can rarely be helped by supplementation. ANS: B 41. Which of the following statements describes one aspect of mineral nutrition of older adults? a. Zinc intake is adequate for about 95% of this group. b. Iron absorption is reduced due to low stomach acidity. c. Calcium intakes of females are near the RDA for this group. d. Calcium allowances for this group have recently been increased by the Committee on Dietary Reference Intakes. e. Folate excesses are fairly common. ANS: B 42. A condition that increases the likelihood of iron deficiency in older people is a. lack of intrinsic factor. b. loss of iron due to menopause. c. blood loss from yearly physical testing procedures. d. poor iron absorption due to reduced stomach acid secretion and/or use of antacids. e. the body's need for iron increases well into old age. ANS: D 43. Which of the following is a feature of zinc nutrition in the elderly? a. Zinc intake is insufficient in older people. b. Excess zinc from supplements blunts the taste buds. c. Zinc deficiency stimulates the appetite for high-fat foods. d. Most medications affect zinc excretion but not absorption. e. Excess zinc increases the risk of pneumonia. ANS: A 44. Which of the following is a characteristic of nutrition and cataract formation? a. Obese and lean people have the same risk for cataracts. b. Adequate intakes of biotin and inositol seem to delay the onset of cataract formation. c. Nutrition seems to play little, if any, role in the onset of cataracts. d. Vitamin C supplements in doses of 1,000 mg for several years appear to raise the risk for cataracts. e. Antioxidant supplements appear to slow the progression of cataracts. ANS: D 45. What are the thickenings that occur to the lenses of the eye, thereby affecting vision, especially in the elderly? a. Retinitis b. Keratoids c. Cataracts d. Rhodolipids e. Glaucoma ANS: C . 46. What proportion of persons in the U.S., age 65 and older, have a cataract? a. About 1 in 50 b. About 1 in 20 c. About 1 in 10 d. About 1 in 5 e. More than half ANS: E 47. What organ is affected by macular degeneration? a. Bone b. Eyes c. Liver d. Kidneys e. Spinal cord ANS: B 48. Which of the following foods seems to relieve rheumatoid arthritis in some people? a. Milk b. Olive oil c. Iodized salt d. Refined cereals e. Beef and pork ANS: B 49. Which of the following types of diets has been shown to prevent or reduce arthritis inflammation? a. High in simple sugars, low in canned fruit b. High in animal protein, low in canned fruit c. Low in polyunsaturated fat, high in oleic acid d. Low in saturated fat, high in omega-3 fatty acids e. High in animal protein and both omega-3 fatty acids and oleic acid ANS: D 50. What disorder is associated with the body's breakdown of purines? a. Gout b. Dysphagia c. Sarcopenia d. Senile dementia e. Macular degeneration ANS: A 51. What is thought to be the most important nutrition concern for people with Alzheimer's disease? a. Maintenance of appropriate body weight b. Ensuring adequate intakes of antioxidant nutrients and DHA c. Monitoring intake of medications that may interfere with nutrient bioavailability d. Treatment for iron overload to prevent formation of new neurofibrillary tangles e. Taking vitamin and mineral supplements appropriate for dementia treatment ANS: A 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of alcohol use in the elderly? a. Binge drinking is more frequent in the elderly than in younger persons. b. The proportion of binge drinkers in greater in the elderly than any other age group. c. In elderly individuals, unlike in younger individuals, alcohol use is not associated with other risky behavior such as illicit drug use. d. Alcohol withdrawal is much more difficult for older persons than for younger persons. e. Elderly individuals are rarely successfully treated for alcohol abuse and dependence. ANS: A 53. Which of the following is thought to promote the development of brain senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles? a. Oxidative stress b. Excess acetylcholine c. Dietary deficiency of choline d. Low blood levels of homocysteine e. Inability to adequately metabolize protein ANS: A 54. Approximately what percentage of U.S. adults are affected by Alzheimer's disease after age 65? a. 1 b. 5 c. 12 d. 33 e. 50 ANS: C 55. What is the main reason for dieting in the elderly? a. To economize when food prices increase b. To improve appearance among their peers c. To pursue a medical goal such as reducing blood glucose d. To reduce risks for development of atrophic gastritis and pernicious anemia e. Unintentionally, as a result of depression or dementia ANS: C 56. Which of the following is a feature of food choices and eating habits of older people? a. The quality of life among older people has not improved since 1995. b. Older people spend less money on foods to eat at home than younger people. c. People over 65 are less likely to diet to lose weight than are younger people. d. Most older people think of themselves as generally unhappy and in poor health. e. Older people tend to be adventuresome eaters who enjoy breaking away from traditional foods. ANS: C 57. What is a congregate meal? a. A meal provided for the elderly in a place such as a community center b. A meal prepared for the elderly that meets one-third of the Dietary Recommended Intakes c. A meal prepared for disadvantaged people of all ages to encourage communal gathering of diverse population groups d. A meal provided through the Nutrition Screening Initiative for the elderly and served primarily to church congregations e. A meal prepared by a community organization and delivered to home-bound individuals where they live ANS: A 58. Which of the following is true of food assistance programs for older Americans? a. Persons aged 70 and older are eligible. b. There are no income limits for eligibility. c. Meals on Wheels is generally preferred to congregate meals. d. Meals on Wheels requires that individuals be permanently disabled in order to receive meals. e. Congregate meals and Meals on Wheels are funded by the Social Security Administration. ANS: B 59. Which of the following is a program that provides low-income older adults with coupons that are exchangeable for fresh vegetables and fruits at community-supported farmers' markets and roadside stands? a. Senior Farmers Market Nutrition Program b. Food Security for the Disadvantaged Elderly c. Old Age and Survivors Health Benefits Program d. Elderly Nutrition and Maintenance Food Co-Op e. Eldercare Food Assistance ANS: A 60. Which of the following would be the most effective substitute for fresh milk for the elderly person living alone? a. UHT milk b. Low-cost expired milk c. Calcium carbonate tablets d. Greens with highly bioavailable calcium e. Sweetened condensed milk ANS: A 61. What percentage of all prescription drugs sold in the United States is taken by people over 65 years of age? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50 ANS: D 62. How does aspirin reduce inflammation and pain? a. It acts as a sedative and barbiturate. b. It promotes wound healing and blood clotting. c. It interferes with the synthesis of prostaglandins. d. It binds to nerve receptors involved in pain perception. e. It stimulates endorphin release. ANS: C 63. What are the known consequences of taking a single two-tablet dose of aspirin? a. It inhibits monoamine oxidase activity. b. It doubles the bleeding time of wounds. c. It increases production of prostaglandins that enhance fever. d. It is excreted very rapidly in people taking vitamin C supplements. e. In it insufficient to reduce risk of heart attack in at-risk individuals. ANS: B 64. What is the primary action of the medication megestrol acetate? a. It relieves depression. b. It promotes weight loss. c. It promotes weight gain. d. It lowers blood pressure. e. It is used to treat moderate dementia. ANS: C 65. What nutrient is known to interfere significantly with the utilization of the antibiotic tetracycline? a. EPA b. Zinc c. Calcium d. Vitamin B12 e. Sodium ANS: C 66. What is a common side effect from taking certain prescription drugs and consuming grapefruit juice? a. A metallic taste in the mouth appears. b. Blood concentrations of the drugs increase. c. The bioavailability of the drugs falls substantially. d. The bioflavonoids in the juice bind to the drugs and promote formation of uric acid crystals. e. Absorption is greatly reduced. ANS: B 67. Which of the following is a feature of warfarin use and vitamin K utilization? a. Warfarin blocks vitamin K absorption. b. Orange juice intake interferes with warfarin's effects on vitamin K. c. Dietary vitamin K intake determines the amount of warfarin prescribed. d. The tyramine content of aged meats interferes with binding of vitamin K to warfarin. e. Vitamin K can dangerously potentiate warfarin's anticlotting actions. ANS: C 68. Your father was recently prescribed an anticoagulant medicine and was surprised that the doctor advised him to maintain consumption of consistent amounts of green leafy vegetables every day. You inform your father that a. these vegetables significantly reduce absorption of the drug. b. these vegetables significantly increase absorption of the drug. c. variable intake of green leafy vegetables will affect activity of monoamine oxidase inhibitors. d. inconsistent intakes of green leafy vegetables will interfere with the regular action of the drug. e. he is confused - green leafy vegetable intake is unrelated to anticoagulant action. ANS: D 69. Which of the following foods in particular must be restricted in the diet of a person taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor drug? a. Red meat b. Aged cheeses c. Fresh fish d. Cruciferous vegetables e. Chocolate ANS: B 70. What ingredient commonly used as an additive in liquid medicines often causes diarrhea? a. Sorbitol b. Maltose c. Saccharin d. Aspartame e. Lactulose ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ____________________ is the average number of years lived by people in a given society. ANS: Life expectancy 2. ____________________ is the maximum number of years of life attainable by a member of a species. ANS: Life span 3. ____________________ is a person's perceived physical and mental well-being. ANS: Quality of life 4. ____________________ is a person's age as estimated from her or his body's health and probable life expectancy. ANS: Physiological age 5. ____________________ are damage to the skin and underlying tissues as a result of compression and poor circulation. ANS: Pressure ulcers 6. Any threat to a person's well-being or a demand placed on the body to adapt is referred to as ____________________. ANS: stress 7. The medical term for loss of skeletal muscle mass, strength, and quality is ____________________. ANS: sarcopenia 8. The combination of an inefficient and overactive response in aging—known as "____________________"—results in a chronic inflammation that accompanies frailty, illness, and death . ANS: inflammaging 9. Difficulty swallowing is called ____________________. ANS: dysphagia 10. The medical term for a person who lacks teeth is ____________________. ANS: edentulous

1. What are cytokines? a. Scavengers of the immune system b. Specialized antibodies that retain B-cell memory c. Specialized proteins that activate responses to infection d. Highly specific cells that attack only one type of antigen e. Lymphocytes that produce antibodies ANS: C 2. Immunoglobulins are produced primarily by a. T-cells. b. B-cells. c. antigens. d. phagocytes. e. NK-cells. ANS: B 3. The process by which immune cells engulf and then destroy bacteria is known as a. bactocytosis. b. phagocytosis. c. cytotoxicosis. d. immunoglobinemia. e. immunocytosis. ANS: B 4. The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as a. antigens. b. antibodies. c. antitoxins. d. immunoglobulins. e. symbionts. ANS: A 5. Which of the following is a feature of AIDS? a. It has no cure. b. Its prevention depends on good nutrition. c. It cannot pass from mother to infant during breastfeeding. d. It is among the 10 leading causes of death in the United States. e. There has been very limited progress made in finding effective treatments. ANS: A 6. What is the role of omega-3 fatty acids in immune functioning? a. Maintain healthy skin and other epithelial tissues as barriers to infection. b. Regulate T-cell responses. c. Help to resolve inflammation when it is no longer needed for the immune response. d. Participate in antibody production. e. Helps maintain an effective immune response. ANS: C 7. Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition? a. one b. two c. four d. five e. eight ANS: C 8. Which of the following risk factors for disease may be modified by diet? a. Age b. Gender c. Heredity d. Low HDL level e. Race ANS: D 9. What is the term given to the accumulation of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develops in the artery walls? a. Plaques b. Angina streaks c. Arterial thickening d. Pre-thromboemboli e. Lipid tangles ANS: A 10. The most common form of cardiovascular disease is a. stroke. b. atheromatous disease. c. coronary heart disease. d. hypertensive aneurysm. e. congestive heart failure. ANS: C 11. By what age do most people first have well-developed arterial plaque? a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 e. 60 ANS: B 12. Which of the following is a feature of atherosclerosis? a. It is characterized by inflammation in all stages. b. It is improved by high blood homocysteine levels. c. It is characterized by infiltration of platelets in the arterial wall. d. It is worsened by elevated blood high-density lipoproteins. e. It is the second most common cause of coronary heart disease. ANS: A 13. The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(n) a. aorta. b. plaque. c. aneurysm. d. diverticula. e. pouch. ANS: C 14. A person's level of C-reactive protein appears to be a strong predictor for a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. a heart attack. d. HIV progression. e. rheumatoid arthritis progression. ANS: C 15. Which of the following may be classified as a risk factor for coronary heart disease? a. BMI of 26 b. Low LDL-cholesterol levels c. High HDL-cholesterol levels d. High C-reactive protein levels e. Low blood triglyceride (VLDL) levels ANS: D 16. In the development of plaque, what is thought to be responsible for oxidation of LDL cholesterol during the inflammatory phase? a. Free radicals b. Beta-blockers c. P-reactive protein (PRP) d. Lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A e. Cytokines ANS: A 17. The obstruction of a blood vessel by a clot that broke away from arterial plaque is termed a. an anginism. b. an embolism. c. circulatory hypoxia. d. a de-plaquing event. e. plaque rupture. ANS: B 18. A significant reduction in blood flow to the brain is termed a. angina. b. a stroke. c. a vascular event. d. metabolic syndrome. e. Chiari event. ANS: B 19. Which of the following blood pressure readings first signifies a diagnosis of hypertension? a. 110 over 50 b. 120 over 70 c. 130 over 80 d. 140 over 90 e. 150 over 100 ANS: D 20. What disease accounts for the majority of deaths in U.S. women? a. Diabetes b. Lung cancer c. Breast cancer d. Coronary heart disease e. Stroke ANS: D 21. Which of the following is true of coronary heart disease (CHD)? a. By age 20, half of the adults in the United States have at least one major risk factor for CHD. b. Women who take estrogen to reduce the risk for osteoporosis are at significantly higher risk for CHD. c. Aging becomes a significant risk factor for women who are 75 and older. d. Women younger than 45 years of age tend to have higher LDL cholesterol than do men of that age, but this difference disappears after menopause. e. Levels of the amino acid homocysteine, which protects artery walls, are typically higher in women than in men. ANS: A 22. What proportion of adults in the U.S. have high blood triglycerides? a. 1/10 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 e. 2/3 ANS: C 23. What is prehypertension? a. A predictor of stroke risk b. Slightly high blood pressure c. A precursor for Syndrome X d. A component of the metabolic syndrome e. A cluster of risk factors that predict the likelihood of hypertension ANS: B 24. What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis? a. HDL b. LDL c. HDK d. VLDK e. NK ANS: B 25. Which of the following is considered a desirable blood level for triglycerides? a. 60 mg/dl. ANS: E 28. Which of the following is true of progress in the treatment and prevention of CHD in the United States? a. Mortality rates have increased among men. b. CHD is no longer the number 1 cause of death in women. c. Blood cholesterol levels have been declining since 1960. d. By age 45, about 1/3 of adults have at least one major risk factor for CHD, down from 1/2 20 years ago. e. Efforts to reduce CHD incidence by reducing cigarette smoking have largely failed. ANS: C 29. What should be the next course of action for a person who was unsuccessful in lowering LDL or blood pressure by lifestyle changes? a. Obtain prescription medications. b. Consider coronary bypass surgery. c. Obtain regular nutrition counseling. d. Consider gastric surgery to reduce body weight. e. Try again with a more stringent diet and exercise program. ANS: A 30. Among the following, which should be the first action taken to lower blood cholesterol? a. Begin drug treatment. b. Consume a high-protein diet. c. Consume large amounts of fish and fish oils. d. Achieve and maintain appropriate body weight. e. Increase alcohol intake and/or use an antianxiety medication. ANS: D 31. Approximately what proportion of people in the United States are believed to have hypertension? a. 1/10 b. 1/5 c. 1/4 d. 1/3 e. 1/2 ANS: D 32. What is the best predictor for risk of a stroke? a. Blood pressure b. LDL-cholesterol c. HDL-cholesterol d. Trans-fatty acid intake e. Family history ANS: A 33. Which of the following is a characteristic of factors associated with hypertension? a. Most people with hypertension have BMIs <25. b. Most people with hypertension are extremely salt sensitive. c. Three to four alcohol drinks per day lowers risk for hypertension. d. African Americans develop high blood pressure earlier in life and their average blood pressure is higher than others. e. About 1/3 of people 65 and older have hypertension. ANS: D 34. Hypertension contributes to an estimated ____ strokes in the U.S. each year. a. 400,000 b. 600,000 c. 800,000 d. 1,000,000 e. 1,200,000 ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 18.4 Hypertension OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.18.4 Present strategies to lower blood pressure. 35. Which of the following is the most likely reason that a blood pressure reading should be repeated before confirming a diagnosis of hypertension? a. The person reacted emotionally to the procedure. b. Blood pressure measuring devices often give inaccurate readings. c. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too tightly on the arm. d. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too loosely on the arm. e. The person failed to fast before the test was performed. ANS: A 36. How does obesity increase the risk for developing hypertension? a. Obesity is associated with altered kidney function and fluid retention leading to higher blood pressure. b. The excess fat pads surrounding the kidneys impair blood flow to these organs and lead to a higher output of renin. c. Sodium intake in obese people significantly exceeds the recommended intake, thereby predisposing them to higher blood pressure. d. Higher lipoprotein lipase activity in obese people triggers the angiotensin cascade, leading to increased peripheral resistance to blood flow. e. Obesity alters inflammatory responses, which in turn alters the elasticity of arterial walls. ANS: A 37. The lifetime percent risk of developing hypertension later in life when the blood pressure is normal at age 55 is a. 10. b. 25. c. 50. d. 75. e. 90. ANS: E 38. Peripheral resistance is the resistance blood encounters in the a. veins. b. arteries. c. venules. d. arterioles. e. heart. ANS: D 39. Which of the following statements describes lifestyle modifications suggested to treat high blood pressure? a. Three alcohol drinks per day decreases the risk for developing high blood pressure. b. Optimal body mass in from 25.0 to 29.9. c. Sodium intake should be reduced to 1500 mg among persons who are 51 and older. d. Perform aerobic physical activity for at least 90 minutes per day, most days of the week. e. Recommended sodium intakes are higher for African Americans than for other groups. ANS: C 40. Among the following lifestyle changes, which is least effective at reducing blood pressure? a. Adopting the DASH eating plan b. Limiting daily alcohol intake to 1-2 drinks c. Reducing body weight to achieve a BMI of less than 25 d. Performing physical exercise for 30 minutes per day, 5 days a week e. Restricting sodium to less than 2500 mg per day ANS: B 41. Which of the following describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure? a. People with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive. b. Lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups. c. People less 30 years of age are most likely to be salt-sensitive. d. Weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure. e. Of all racial groups, whites tend to be most salt sensitive. ANS: D 42. People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of a. sodium. b. calcium. c. potassium. d. phosphate. e. manganese. ANS: C 43. Diuretics act to lower blood pressure by a. increasing fluid loss. b. decreasing potassium loss. c. reducing arterial plaque formation. d. increasing retention of calcium and potassium. e. increasing stroke volume. ANS: A 44. Which of the following is a characteristic of drug therapy for hypertension? a. Antihypertensive drugs called diuretics work by lowering blood volume. b. The most frequently prescribed drug therapies are DASH inhibitors. c. Most people with hypertension need only one medicine to reduce blood pressure.. d. Major side effects of antihypertensive drugs are depletion of body sodium and phosphorus. e. Unless weight is also reduced, antihypertensive drugs are unlikely to reduce blood pressure. ANS: A 45. Which of the following is a difference between DASH and USDA recommendations? a. USDA has a higher intake recommendation for grains. b. DASH has a higher recommendation for milk. c. DASH has a separate recommendation for seeds, nuts and legumes. d. USDA has a higher intake recommendation for lean meats, poultry, and fish e. USDA has a higher intake recommendation for fruits. ANS: C 46. A person who hasn't consumed anything except water for the past 8 hours has a blood glucose concentration of 101 mg/dL. This person would be classified as a. normal. b. diabetic. c. prediabetic. d. impaired glucose tolerant. e. hypoglycemic. ANS: C 47. Among the leading causes of death in the United States diabetes ranks number a. 1. b. 3. c. 5. d. 7. e. 9. ANS: D 48. What is believed to be the primary cause of type 1 diabetes? a. Defect in insulin sensitivity b. Excessive body weight gain c. Defect of the immune system d. Excessive intake of simple carbohydrates e. Environmental toxins ANS: C 49. In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin? a. Hyperglycemia b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus c. Type 2 diabetes mellitus d. Adult-onset diabetes mellitus e. Hypoglycemia ANS: B 50. Type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach the age of a. 21. b. 30. c. 40. d. 55. e. 65. ANS: C 51. What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1? a. 5-10 b. 10-15 c. 15-20 d. 20-25 e. 25-30 ANS: A 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes? a. It is an autoimmune disorder. b. It occurs exclusively in people under 40 years of age. c. It must be treated by daily oral intake of insulin pills. d. It accounts for approximately 50% of all cases of diabetes. e. It is typically preceded by metabolic syndrome. ANS: A 53. Most people with type 2 diabetes have a. sarcopenia. b. osteoporosis. c. excess body fat. d. insulin dependency. e. relative insulin excess. ANS: C 54. Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells? a. Hypoglycemia b. Atherosclerosis c. Type 1 diabetes d. Type 2 diabetes e. Juvenile diabetes ANS: D 55. Insulin resistance is defined as a. reduced sensitivity of cells to blood insulin. b. impaired secretion of insulin by the pancreas. c. increased destruction of insulin-producing cells. d. increased persistence of insulin molecules in the blood. e. relative excess of insulin-binding proteins in muscle tissue. ANS: A 56. A complication of diabetes is blurry vision, which results from swelling of the lenses of the eye caused by conversion of excess glucose to a. sugar alcohols. b. glycated fructose. c. long-chain ketones. d. glycated corneal membranes. e. glycoproteins. ANS: A 57. The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as a. polyuria. b. polyphagia. c. polyuresis. d. pseudodiuresis. e. enuresis. ANS: A 58. The excessive thirst common in diabetes is known as a. hydration. b. polyuresis. c. polydipsia. d. hyperhydration. e. paradoxical thirst. ANS: C 59. Microangiopathies are disorders of the a. kidneys. b. pancreas. c. capillaries. d. coronary vessels. e. eyes. ANS: C 60. Which of the following is a leading cause of both blindness and kidney failure? a. Cancer b. Diabetes c. HIV/AIDS d. Atherosclerosis e. Stroke ANS: B 61. In the otherwise stable person with type 1 diabetes, a potential problem associated with physical activity is a. hypoglycemia. b. hyperglycemia. c. nausea and vomiting. d. temporary kidney shutdown. e. sudden-onset blindness. ANS: A 62. Which of the following describes the actions of a carcinogen? a. Initiates cancer b. Inhibits cancer c. Treats cancer d. Acts as an antipromoter e. Stimulates tumor necrosis ANS: A 63. A tumor that releases cells, leading to the spread of cancer to other regions of the body, is said to a. promote. b. augment. c. metastasize. d. infiltrate downstream. e. become necrotic. ANS: C 64. A substance that causes cancer is best termed a(n) a. carcinogen. b. antipromoter. c. DNA-modifier. d. RNA-modifier. e. mutagen ANS: A 65. The higher risk for breast cancer in obese women after menopause is thought to result mainly from chronic exposure to a. estrogen. b. aflatoxin. c. high-fat diets. d. sedentary lifestyles. e. progesterone. ANS: A 66. Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in formation of the highest amounts of carcinogens? a. Broiling b. Roasting c. Marinating before cooking d. Wrapping the food in foil when cooking e. Steaming ANS: A 67. Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer? a. Fiber b. Inositol and biotin c. Certain saturated fats d. Protein from animal sources e. Certain sugars ANS: A 68. Which of the following foods is known to be a protective factor for esophageal cancer? a. Alcoholic beverages b. Nonstarchy vegetables c. Mate tea d. Broiled meats e. Salted fish ANS: B 69. What is ayurveda? a. A system that combines biofeedback with hypnosis b. An oriental plant that suppresses colon and breast tumor growth c. A Hindu system for enhancing the body's ability to prevent illness and to heal itself d. A variation of standard acupuncture technique that applies electromagnetic impulses to the needles e. A manual healing method that directs a healing force from an outside source ANS: C 70. What is the name of the cancer-treatment substance first extracted from the bark of old Pacific yew trees (and now synthesized in the laboratory)? a. Ephedra b. Paclitaxel c. Kombucha d. Germanium e. Echinacea purpurea ANS: B COMPLETION 1. ____________________ are large proteins of the blood and body fluids, produced by the immune system in response to the invasion of the body by foreign molecules. ANS: Antibodies 2. ____________________ are special proteins that direct immune and inflammatory responses. ANS: Cytokines 3. ____________________ are white blood cells, including B-cells and T-cells, which participate in acquired immunity. ANS: Lymphocytes 4. ____________________ are large phagocytic cells that serve as scavengers of the blood, clearing it of old or abnormal cells, cellular debris, and antigens. ANS: Macrophages 5. AIDS develops from infection by ____________________. ANS: human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) HIV human immunodeficiency virus 6. The most common form of cardiovascular disease is ____________________. ANS: coronary heart disease (CHD) 7. The abnormal bulging of a blood vessel wall is called a(n) ____________________ . ANS: aneurysm 8. High levels of ____________________ have proved to more accurately predict future heart attack than high LDL cholesterol. ANS: C-reactive protein (CRP) C-reactive protei CRP 9. A clot that breaks free from an artery wall and travels through the circulatory system until it lodges in a small artery and suddenly shuts off blood flow to the tissues is called a(n) ____________________. ANS: embolism 10. Pain and pressure in the area around the heart is called ____________________. ANS: angina

1. The potential of a substance to harm someone is known as a. a hazard. b. toxicity. c. risk level. d. safety level. e. liability. ANS: B 2. What term defines the measure of the probability and severity of harm? a. Risk b. Safety c. Hazard d. Toxicity e. Danger ANS: A 3. What term describes the possibility of harm from normal use of a substance? a. Hazard b. Toxicity c. Bioinsecurity d. Food insecurity e. Riskiness ANS: A 4. What is the international agency that has adopted standards to regulate the use of pesticides? a. FAO b. FDA c. CDC d. USDA e. WHO ANS: A 5. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, how many people in the United States experience foodborne illnesses every year? a. 24 million b. 36 million c. 48 million d. 60 million e. 72 million ANS: C 6. What is the leading cause of food contamination in the United States? a. Naturally occurring toxicants b. Food poisoning from microbes c. Pesticide residues from farmers d. Food additives from the food industry e. Deliberate contamination ANS: B 7. Approximately how many people in the United States are killed by foodborne illness each year? a. 1,000 b. 3,000 c. 5,000 d. 7,000 e. 9,000 ANS: B 8. What organism is responsible for producing the most common food toxin? a. Escherichia coli b. Vibrio vulnificus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Lactobacillis acidophilus e. Clostridium perfringens ANS: C 9. Which of the following is an example of food intoxication? a. Addition of alkaline and acidic agents to foods b. Illness produced by acute overconsumption of high-fat foods c. Addition of alcohol-containing beverages in the cooking of foods d. Illness produced from ingestion of food contaminated with natural toxins e. The drowsiness that occurs after a high protein meal is consumed ANS: D 10. Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism? a. A chief symptom is diarrhea b. A full recovery may take years c. It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus d. It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions e. Symptoms may take several weeks to appear. ANS: B 11. What fraction of reported foodborne illnesses can be attributed to the food industry? a. 1/10 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 4/5 ANS: E 12. The industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly known as a. sanitization. b. sterilization. c. pasteurization. d. depathogenation. e. irradiation. ANS: C 13. What system was developed by government regulatory agencies and the food industry to help identify and/or control food contamination and foodborne disease? a. The Two-Forty-One-Forty rule b. Safe Handling Certification Program c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points d. North American Residue Monitoring Program e. Precautionary Principle ANS: C 14. A patient with a high temperature complains of headache, stomachache, fever, and vomiting. Upon questioning, he admits to eating several raw eggs the day before. The most likely organism causing these symptoms is a. E. coli. b. Salmonella. c. Perfringens. d. Campylobacter jejuni. e. Staphylococcus aureus ANS: B 15. Clostridium botulinum poisoning is a hazard associated with a. nitrosamines. b. rotting vegetables. c. unpasteurized milk. d. improperly canned vegetables. e. unwashed fruits. ANS: D 16. Which of the following is the major food source for transmission of Campylobacter jejuni? a. Raw poultry b. Contaminated grains c. Imported soft cheeses d. Undercooked beef hot dogs e. Raw fruits and vegetables ANS: A 17. Which of the following foods are associated with illness from Salmonella? a. Raw vegetables b. Pickled vegetables c. Home-canned vegetables d. Raw meats, poultry, and eggs e. Raw fruits ANS: D 18. What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food? a. 10-15 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 1/2-1 minute d. 1-2 minutes e. 2-3 minutes ANS: B 19. A few years ago a foodborne illness outbreak was reported by a national restaurant chain. After dozens of people were infected, authorities determined that employees of the restaurant had used the same knife to cut raw meat products as they did for produce items such as lettuce. Which of the following terms most likely describes the employees' neglect that led to the patrons of the restaurant becoming ill? a. Contamination b. Cross-contamination c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points d. Inappropriate monitoring of food temperatures e. Improper cooking procedures ANS: B 20. The seal "Graded by USDA" that appears on packaged meat and poultry means that the product is a. uncooked. b. not hazardous. c. free of bacteria. d. assessed for tenderness. e. humanely slaughtered. ANS: D 21. In cows infected with mad cow disease, which of the following tissues is generally free of the infectious agents? a. Brain b. Muscle c. Spinal cord d. Nerves e. Eyes ANS: B 22. What unintended benefit is derived from the freezing of fish by the food industry? a. The fish becomes tenderized. b. Mature parasitic worms are killed. c. Botulinum toxin becomes inactivated. d. The toxins from hepatitis A and B are destroyed. e. It will cook more rapidly when thawed. ANS: B 23. To minimize the possibility of foodborne illness, hamburger should be cooked to an internal temperature (°F) of at least a. 125. b. 140. c. 160. d. 195. e. 212. ANS: C 24. Which of the following foods is best known to transmit hepatitis? a. Poultry b. Seafood c. Legumes d. Raw vegetables e. Grains ANS: B 25. What is the minimum recommended safe temperature (°F) to heat leftovers? a. 140 b. 152 c. 165 d. 180 e. 212 ANS: C 26. What is the safe refrigerator storage time for uncooked steaks, cooked chicken, opened packages of lunch meats, and tuna salad? a. 1-2 days b. 3-5 days c. 1 week d. 2-4 weeks e. 4-6 weeks ANS: B 27. What nutrients in foods are most vulnerable to losses during food handling and preparation? a. Trace minerals b. Fat-soluble vitamins c. Polyunsaturated fats d. Water-soluble vitamins e. Simple carbohydrates ANS: D 28. The extent to which an environmental contaminant lingers in the environment or body is referred to as a. persistence. b. degradation rate. c. binding capacity. d. constancy. e. perseverance. ANS: A 29. Which of the following are examples of heavy metals? a. Mercury and lead b. Iron and chromium c. Carbon and nitrogen d. Molybdenum and fluoride e. Manganese and magnesium ANS: A 30. The increase in the concentration of contaminants in the tissues of animals high on the food chain is termed a. bioaccumulation. b. hyperconcentration. c. evolutionary containment. d. functional high-level accumulation. e. biomassing. ANS: A 31. What is the primary source of dietary mercury? a. Seafood b. Legumes c. Unfiltered water d. Undercooked poultry e. Unwashed fruits and vegetables ANS: A 32. What was the toxic substance that accidentally found its way into the food chain in the early 1970s and to which almost all of Michigan's residents became exposed? a. Lead acetate b. Methylmercury c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Polybrominated biphenyl e. Perfluorooctanoic acid ANS: D 33. Which of the following is a characteristic of heavy metals in the U.S. food supply? a. Virtually all fish contain trace amounts of mercury. b. Mercury contamination of fish is most severe in tuna. c. Toxicity is most severe in the elderly population group. d. Contamination is usually greater in farm-raised fish than in ocean fish. e. Older fish are generally safer than younger fish, since they have had more time to excrete the mercury. ANS: A 34. What is the principal factor related to solanine concentration in potatoes? a. Contamination b. Irradiation malfunction c. Soil heavy metal content d. Improper storage conditions e. Cooking at very high temperatures in oil ANS: D 35. Which of the following is a feature of naturally occurring food toxicants? a. Lima beans contain deadly cyanide compounds. b. The toxic solanine in potatoes is inactivated by cooking. c. The toxic laetrile in certain fruit seeds is a moderately effective cancer treatment. d. Mustard greens and radishes contain compounds that are known to worsen a cholesterol problem. e. Even small amounts of goitrogen-containing vegetables can cause thyroid problems. ANS: A 36. Many countries restrict the varieties of commercially-grown lima beans due to the seed's content of a. cyanide. b. solanine. c. goitrogens. d. hallucinogens. e. narcotic-like substances. ANS: A 37. Government agencies that set tolerance levels for pesticides first identify those foods commonly eaten in large quantities by a. children. b. adolescents. c. adults. d. elderly. e. animals used for food. ANS: A 38. What term is used to describe the highest level of a pesticide that is allowed in a food when the pesticide is used according to label directions? a. Toxicity level b. Tolerance level c. Risk concentration d. Optimum concentration e. Adverse concentration ANS: B 39. How many varieties of fruits and vegetables are imported from other countries into the U.S.? a. 200 b. 400 c. 600 d. 800 e. 1000 ANS: B 40. What percentage of foods imported from other countries are tested? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 e. 20 ANS: A 41. Food producers are allowed to label a food product as organic if it a. has been irradiated. b. contains genetically engineered ingredients. c. was made with at least 95% organic ingredients. d. was grown with fertilizer made from sewer sludge. e. was grown in the U.S. ANS: C 42. What is the name of the rule that modifies the original meaning of the Delaney Clause? a. GRAS list b. Bonnie Clause c. De minimis rule d. No-risk standard e. Precautionary Principle ANS: C 43. What level of lifetime cancer risk to human beings from a food additive is accepted by the FDA? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 1,000 c. 1 in 1,000,000 d. 1 in 100,000,000 e. 1 in 1,000,000,000,000 ANS: C 44. What defines the FDA's de minimis rule? a. A requirement that the least toxic food additive be used on foods b. The minimum amount of a food particle that can be detected c. The minimum amount of nitrite that can be added to foods to prevent spoilage over a certain time frame d. The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million lifetime risk of cancer to human beings e. The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million risk of birth defects in human beings ANS: D 45. What is the term that describes the allowance of most additives in foods at levels 100 times below the lowest level known to cause any harmful effects? a. Toxicity range b. Zone of hazard c. Acceptable area d. Margin of safety e. Risk acceptability ANS: D 46. Sugar and salt are used as antimicrobial agents in foods because they prevent microbial use of the food's a. fat. b. water. c. protein. d. carbohydrate. e. micronutrients. ANS: B 47. Of the following, which is used most widely as an antimicrobial agent? a. Sugar b. Saccharin c. Sodium nitrite d. Sodium propionate e. Alcohol ANS: A 48. When a slice of fresh apple turns a brown color, this is most likely the result of a. oxidation. b. dehydration. c. microbial contamination. d. ethylene oxide treatment in the ripening process. e. lack of nutrients in the apple itself. ANS: A 49. What vitamin undergoes the most destruction in foods preserved with sulfites? a. Folate b. Thiamin c. Vitamin D d. Ascorbic acid e. Vitamin K ANS: B 50. A feature of sulfite food additives is that they a. are frequently used in wines. b. inhibit growth of most microbes. c. interact with folate to inhibit its absorption. d. are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects. e. are one of the most expensive additives. ANS: A 51. What is the only food intended to be consumed raw in which the FDA allows the use of sulfite additives? a. Grapes b. Lettuce c. Carrots d. Strawberries e. Apples ANS: A 52. Which of the following is a feature of the substance BHT? a. It is a food antimicrobial. b. It is a common food colorant. c. It contributes significantly to the total additive intake from the diet. d. It decreases cancer formation when given in large amounts to animals exposed to carcinogens. e. It shortens the lives of animals when it is fed in very large amounts. ANS: D 53. The flavor enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of a. sulfite. b. sodium. c. acrylamide. d. bicarbonate. e. manganese. ANS: B 54. What are bacteriophages in the food supply? a. Intentional food additives b. Unusually deadly foodborne bacteria c. Two or more pathogenic organisms on the same food d. Bacteria that are resistant to common cooking methods e. Bacteria used to test food for potentially dangerous contaminants ANS: A 55. The upper safe level of intake for aspartame-sweetened soft drinks (cans/day) for a normal 70 kg adult is approximately a. 1. b. 5. c. 10. d. 20. e. 50. ANS: D 56. What sweetener should be avoided by people with PKU? a. Neotame b. Sucralose c. Aspartame d. Acesulfame-K e. Invert sugar ANS: C 57. Which of the following is a feature of aspartame? a. Its sweetness increases with heat. b. It is made up of three amino acids. c. It is recommended for people with PKU. d. Two of its breakdown products include methanol and formaldehyde. e. It has been removed from the market by the FDA. ANS: D 58. Which of the following foods represents a common source of acrylamide intake in the United States? a. Raw fruits b. French fries c. Raw vegetables d. Grilled seafood e. White rice ANS: B 59. Which of the following toxic substances are formed from production of paper products used in food packaging? a. PBBs b. URPs c. Dioxins d. BHT and BHA e. PFOA ANS: C 60. What is the standard chemical used to remove caffeine from coffee beans? a. Nitric acid b. Sodium propionate c. Methylene chloride d. Polybrominated biphenyl e. Hydrochloric acid ANS: C 61. Which of the following is a characteristic of antibiotic use in animals raised for human consumption? a. Meat from animals fed antibiotics contains resistant bacteria. b. Antibiotic use in dairy cows often gives the milk off-flavors. c. The antibiotic levels are essentially zero by the time the food reaches consumers. d. Although some antibiotics may be present in the food, the level is too low to induce adverse side effects even in sensitive people. e. The FDA lacks legal authority to investigate the impact of this antibiotic use on human health. ANS: A 62. Which of the following is a feature of bovine growth hormone use in the United States? a. It decreases udder infections in cows. b. It cannot be detected in meat or milk of cows receiving it. c. If consumed from foods, it is denatured by enzymes in the GI tract. d. If consumed from foods, it could potentially stimulate receptors for human growth hormone. e. Testing of BGH has indicated that its risks to human health are, at most, minor. ANS: C 63. Which of the following is a characteristic of antibiotic use in livestock? a. Development of antibiotic-resistant organisms is very rare. b. Proper cooking of the meat destroys any traces of antibiotics. c. Farmers use more than 5 times more antibiotic in livestock than physicians use in people. d. Because the antibiotics have a short half-life, the FDA permits slaughter of the animals at any time. e. There is no evidence of harm to the environment or human health from the use of antibiotics in livestock. ANS: C 64. What is meant by potable water? a. Water fit for drinking b. Water that must be boiled before drinking c. Water that must be chlorinated before drinking d. Water suitable only for use on lawns and gardens e. Water to which fluoride has been added ANS: A 65. Water that has the odor of "rotten eggs" is most likely contaminated with a. sulfur. b. dioxins. c. Giardia. d. Cryptosporidium. e. chloramines. ANS: A 66. What is the chief purpose of using ozone as a commercial water treatment? a. It kills microorganisms. b. It complexes with heavy metals. c. It stabilizes the carbon filtration process. d. It promotes chlorine dissipation and thus enhances taste. e. It "softens" the water. ANS: A 67. What is the average yearly intake (gallons) per person of bottled water in the United States? a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 e. 75 ANS: B 68. What is the process by which water is purified by pressurizing it and forcing it across a membrane? a. Ozonation b. Distillation c. Reverse osmosis d. Activated carbon filtration e. Pasteurization ANS: C 69. Improvements in nutrient composition, such as when corn is genetically modified to contain higher amounts of its limiting amino acids, is a strategy known as a. biofortification. b. reverse DNA enrichment. c. USDA approved enrichment. d. nutritional transdevelopment. e. artificial fortification. ANS: A 70. Genetic engineering of broccoli to increase the selenium content has inadvertently lowered the content of a. fiber, an indigestible carbohydrate. b. vitamin C, a water-soluble antioxidant. c. sulforaphane, an anticancer phytochemical. d. chlorophyll, a magnesium-containing substance. e. vitamin E, a fat-soluble antioxidant. ANS: C COMPLETION 1. The toxin produced in improperly refrigerated meats that can cause diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps and fever in 1 to 6 hours is ____________________. ANS: staphylococcal toxin 2. The organism spread by person-to-person contact as well as raw foods, salads and sandwiches, causing vomiting in 1 to 2 days that can last 1 to 2 days, is ____________________. ANS: norovirus 3. ____________________ is found in undercooked ground beef and can cause severe bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting lasting 5 to 10 days. ANS: E.coli: O157:H7 4. In the United States, all food producers use a(n) ____________________ plan to help prevent foodborne illnesses at their source. ANS: Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point HACCP 5. ____________________ refers to sterilizing a food by exposure to energy waves, similar to ultraviolet light and microwaves ANS: Irradiation; Ionizing radiation 6. ____________________ refers to the accumulation of contaminants in the flesh of animals high on the food chain. ANS: Bioaccumulation 7. The Minamata, Japan incident, in which more than 100 individuals, including infants, became ill, many died, and survivors suffered blindness, deafness, lack of coordination, and intellectual deterioration, was caused through the contamination of fish by ____________________. ANS: methylmercury 8. In the late 1970s, women in Taiwan Women who had eaten the rice oil tainted with ____________________ gave birth to children with developmental problems. ANS: PCB (polychlorinated biphenyls) PCB polychlorinated biphenyls 9. The FDA has found that the vast majority of apple juice tested contains trace amounts of ___________________. ANS: arsenic 10. An estimated 97% of Michigan residents were exposed when ____________________ were accidentally mixed in livestock feed that was distributed throughout the state. ANS: PBB (polybrominated biphenyls)

1. Approximately what percentage of the world's population experiences persistent hunger? a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 e. 20 ANS: C 2. Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food a. insecurity. b. insufficiency. c. vulnerability. d. precariousness. e. inadequacy. ANS: A 3. Melissa works two jobs to support her three children. Her financial priorities are to pay the rent and utilities and provide food and medical necessities for the children. Melissa rarely eats three meals a day and worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself and her children. Melissa is experiencing which of the following? a. Food insufficiency b. Food mismanagement c. Non-sustainable lifestyle d. Misallocation of resources e. Very low food security ANS: E 4. Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries? a. Poverty b. High cost of food c. Excessive food waste d. Lack of nutrition education e. Lack of physical access to food ANS: A 5. How many people in the United States live in poverty? a. 19 million b. 29 million c. 39 million d. 49 million e. 59 million ANS: D 6. Which of the following is true of the relationship between poverty and hunger? a. Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household. b. The highest rates of obesity occur among the wealthiest. c. The provision of food to the poor increases obesity. d. Even people below the poverty line have enough money for food. ANS: A 7. Approximately what proportion of the world's food supply is wasted along the way from farm to final consumption? a. 1/10 b. 1/5 c. 1/4 d. 1/3 e. 1/2 ANS: D 8. What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind? a. 1/25 b. 1/15 c. 1/5 d. 1/3 e. 1/2 ANS: C 9. What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States? a. WIC b. EAT c. National Food Resource Program d. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program e. Senior Farmer's Market Program ANS: D 10. What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP, per person? a. $85 b. $105 c. $135 d. $185 e. $215 ANS: C 11. SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase which of the following? a. laundry detergent b. seeds to produce food c. cigarettes d. vitamins e. diapers ANS: B 12. What is a food desert? a. Worldwide crop failures due to drought and pestilence b. Absence of fresh fruits and vegetables at certain times of the year c. A neighborhood having limited access to nutritious and affordable food d. A low-cost energy-dense snack sold primarily in poor neighborhoods e. An area in which poverty has made families unable to purchase necessary food ANS: C 13. Approximately how many people, in millions, are served by the U.S. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program? a. 15 b. 25 c. 35 d. 45 e. 55 ANS: D 14. What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program? a. Feeding America b. Goodwill Food Assistance c. Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals d. Food Salvage and Rescue Organization e. We CAN ANS: A 15. Which of the following is true of malnutrition in children? a. Children with kwashiorkor typically have edema. b. Children with marasmus often have fatty livers. c. Kwashiorkor results mainly from energy inadequacy. d. Marasmus results mainly from protein inadequacy. e. Children with marasmus often have changes in the color of their hair and skin. ANS: A 16. As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor's office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, "...and thus, hunger worsens poverty...." The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty? a. Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care. b. No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty. c. Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households. d. Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive. e. Sometimes, but only when unemployment is high and jobs are scarce. ANS: D 17. A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is best termed a. a plague. b. a famine. c. food poverty. d. food insecurity. e. epidemic starvation. ANS: B 18. Cutting world hunger and malnutrition in half by 2015 would generate a value of more than ____ in longer, healthier, and more productive lives. a. $40 billion b. $80 billion c. $120 billion d. $160 billion e. $200 billion ANS: C 19. The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in a. India. b. China. c. Ethiopia d. Ireland. ANS: B 20. Which of the following is a feature of world poverty? a. Poverty causes hunger in the developing but not the developed world. b. The poorest do not bear children due to poor health. c. Poverty affects about 10% of the world's population. d. The poorest poor are typically female. e. Urbanization typically decreases poverty-associated hunger. ANS: D 21. As the newly appointed director of International Supplementation for the World Health Organization (WHO), you propose supplementing the diets of malnourished populations worldwide with nutrients that would markedly improve health and well-being. Which of the following nutrients is most likely to be deficient? a. Iron b. Iodine c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin D e. Zinc ANS: A 22. Deficiency in which of the following is associated with irreversible intellectual disability? a. iron b. iodine c. protein d. vitamin A e. zinc. ANS: B 23. In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to reduce the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working? a. Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated b. Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished c. Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children d. Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain e. Distributing meals-ready-to-eat (MREs) to restore nutrition. ANS: A 24. Worldwide, approximately what number of children under 5 die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes? a. 1.6 million b. 3.6 million c. 5.6 million d. 7.6 million e. 9.6 million ANS: D 25. Worldwide, how many children younger than 5 have symptoms of vitamin A deficiency? a. 70 million b. 80 million c. 90 million d. 100 million e. 110 million ANS: D 26. What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty? a. Oral rehydration therapy b. Ozone purified waste water c. Protein-energy repletion formula d. Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch e. RUTF ANS: A 27. What is meant by carrying capacity of the earth? a. The number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth's cultivable land b. The maximum number of living organisms that can be supported in an environment over time c. The amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants d. The total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth's water mass e. The maximum number of people who can exist on earth without causing environmental damage. ANS: B 28. What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population? a. 50 million b. 60 million c. 70 million d. 80 million e. 90 million ANS: D 29. What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger in the developing world bear numerous children? a. Birth control expenses are prohibitive. b. The children are less likely to survive to adulthood. c. The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning. d. The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children. e. It is a cultural custom in those areas to have many children. ANS: B 30. The famine Somalia is currently experiencing has left an estimated ____ people starving. a. 6 million b. 8 million c. 10 million d. 12 million e. 14 million ANS: D 31. Worldwide, the poorest poor subsist on less than ____ per day. a. $1 b. $3 c. $5 d. $7 e. $9 ANS: A 32. Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty and population growth? a. As economic status improves, population growth rises. b. As economic status improves, population growth diminishes. c. Lack of natural resources, not poverty, is the most important contributor to overpopulation. d. Extreme poverty tends to greatly suppress population growth. e. Economic status and population growth are unrelated in the developing world. ANS: B 33. What percentage of the world's population is at risk of zinc deficiency? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25 ANS: D 34. What proportion of children in the developing world are severely underweight by age 5? a. 1 in 20 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 4 d. 1 in 3 e. 1 in 2 ANS: C 35. Acute malnutrition in children is characterized by a. hyperactivity. b. shrunken liver. c. low weight for height. d. short height for weight. e. stunting ANS: C 36. Chronic malnutrition in children is characterized by a. hyperactivity. b. shrunken liver. c. short height for age. d. low weight for height. e. rapid weight loss ANS: C 37. You are reading a case study from a researcher at World University. The researcher has traveled to the largest city in India and is reporting on an illness present in a 15-month-old boy. The researcher describes the child as extremely thin and bony, with wrinkled skin and enlarged fatty liver. For the past year, this child has subsisted almost entirely on diluted cereal drink. Your first thought is that most of these observations are characteristic of marasmus, but then you realize that ____ is more consistent with kawashikor. a. wrinkled skin b. food intake pattern c. enlarged fatty liver d. extremely thin e. bony appearance ANS: C 38. Which of the following would you expect to see in a person with kwashiorkor? a. Edema b. Low levels of ADH c. Muscle wasting d. Baggy-appearing skin e. "Match stick" arms and legs ANS: A 39. Which of the following is associated with the presence of tissue edema in kwashiorkor? a. Inadequate intake of water b. Excessive intake of dietary protein c. Low concentration of blood protein d. High concentration of blood protein e. Low levels of ADH ANS: C 40. Which of the following is a characteristic of marasmus? a. Increased body temperature b. Affects brain development only minimally c. Rapid metabolism d. Inability to tolerate cold e. Decreased albumin ANS: D 41. Which of the following is a feature of malnutrition? a. Dysentery is common and leads to diarrhea and nutrient depletion. b. Intestinal villi grow slightly larger to provide additional absorptive surfaces for nutrients. c. Digestive enzyme production increases in order to extract as much of the ingested nutrients as possible. d. Infections are uncommon due to insufficient availability of nutrients in the body to support growth of bacteria and viruses. e. Children typically recover well from marasmus if adequate food is provided. ANS: A 42. At the end of your class presentation on "Acute Malnutrition," a student asks you to clarify how the rapid onset of malnutrition occurs in kwashiorkor. How should you respond? a. It is the result of an inborn error of metabolism. b. It is usually synchronized with the drought season in each respective country. c. It is typically seen in patients who are 2-5 years old due to the sudden change in diet arising from their dislike for breast milk as they grow older. d. It is typically seen in patients after weaning due to the sudden change in diet arising from their being weaned from breast milk after the birth of a sibling. e. It occurs when the family's finances are no longer able to afford food for all family members. ANS: D 43. What term describes the malnutrition syndrome a child develops when the next child is born and the first child no longer receives breast milk? a. Marasmus b. Kwashiorkor c. Psychomalnutrition d. Postbirth malnutrition e. Sibling-associated anorexia ANS: B 44. The word "marasmus" means a. terribly thin. b. without muscle. c. dying away. d. empty stomach. e. lacking food. ANS: C 45. In kwashiorkor, the loss of hair color is indirectly related to a. lack of tyrosine. b. elevated levels of blood homocysteine. c. excessive exposure to the sun's UV rays. d. being nursed by a poorly-nourished mother. e. increased blood lead levels. ANS: A 46. In kwashiorkor, what mineral is often present in an unbound form that promotes bacterial growth? a. Iron b. Iodine c. Arsenic d. Calcium e. Sodium ANS: A 47. What is the most likely explanation for the fatty liver that develops from protein deficiency? a. Increased uptake of circulating fats b. Increased absorption of dietary fats c. Inability of adipose tissue to remove circulating fats d. Inability of the liver to synthesize lipoproteins for fat export e. Paradoxical storage of fats ANS: D 48. Which of the following is a feature of kwashiorkor? a. It makes the child appear grossly dehydrated. b. It usually occurs prior to the onset of marasmus. c. It is usually found in communities where marasmus is present. d. Children typically have a grossly swollen belly. e. Children have a "skin and bones" appearance. ANS: D 49. Which of the following is true of RUTF? a. It restores fluids. b. It is powdered and must be rehydrated for use. c. It is administered IV. d. It is a paste made from local commodities. e. Children dislike the taste and often must be forced to eat it. ANS: D 50. What type of diet is advised to rehabilitate a severely malnourished child? a. RUTF b. Large amounts of the local diet c. Liberal quantities of lactose-free powdered milk until growth rate is restored d. High energy until normal body mass index is achieved, then moderate energy thereafter e. BRAT ANS: A 51. Which of the following is a characteristic of marasmus in children? a. It leads to inability to maintain body temperature. b. It promotes hyperactivity and excessive crying for food. c. It impairs brain development mainly from ages 2-5 years old. d. It leads to severe edema of the abdomen but insufficient water retention by the brain. e. It is rare even in very impoverished nations due to UN programs combating hunger. ANS: A 52. What is RUTF? a. An advanced stage of kwashiorkor b. An advanced stage of protein-energy malnutrition c. A paste of peanut butter and powdered milk plus micronutrients d. A sustainable agricultural practice that integrates farm-raised animals with aquaculture e. A fluid used to restore electrolytes in children with diarrhea ANS: C 53. What percentage of the world's children under the age of 5 have short stature for their age? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25 ANS: E 54. What percentage of the world's children under the age of 5 have low weight for their height? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25 ANS: B 55. The famine in Somalia has left ____ children under the age of 5 dead. a. 10,000 b. 20,000 c. 30,000 d. 40,000 e. 50,000 ANS: C 56. Which of the following is among the ingredients of a common oral rehydration formula? a. Iron b. Sugar c. Milk d. Zinc e. Powdered peanuts ANS: B 57. Which of the following is a feature of common agricultural practices in the developed world? a. They promote protection of soil and water. b. They frequently lead to higher crop prices. c. They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms. d. They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers. e. They emphasize "green" practices. ANS: D 58. A sharp rise in the rates of hunger and malnutrition, usually set off by a shock to either the supply of, or demand for, food and a sudden spike in food prices is called a a. food crisis. b. famine. c. food inflation. d. food imbalance. e. cost imbalance. ANS: A 59. Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation? a. It makes the soil more porous. b. It helps preserve the water supply. c. It contributes to soil preservation. d. It increases the salt content in the soil. e. It raises water tables. ANS: D 60. What is aquaculture? a. A seaweed growth system b. The practice of fish farming c. Replenishment of fish in the wild d. The raising of plants in a water environment e. Raising food crops in fluid rather than soil ANS: B 61. Which of the following is a feature of aquaculture? a. All farmed fish must be fed to sustain the practice. b. It provides about 10% of the world's fish for consumption. c. It is successful in freshwater lakes but not in ocean waters. d. Currently available technologies cannot yet make it sustainable. e. It provides nearly all of the world's shellfish for consumption. ANS: A 62. Approximately what percentage of all energy use in the U.S. is devoted to the food industry? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 e. 40 ANS: C 63. Which of the following is a major contributor to the world's supply of food energy? a. Barley b. Maize c. Rye d. Sorghum e. Adzuki beans ANS: B 64. What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals? a. Integrated production b. Progressive agriculture c. Sustainable agriculture d. Resource management production e. Balanced farming ANS: C 65. About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 1 kcalories of grains? a. <1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 10 e. 15 ANS: A 66. What is the nutritional advantage of eating range-fed buffalo? a. The iron content is higher. b. The nutrients are more stable and less prone to oxidation. c. The fat content includes more omega-3 fatty acids. d. There is a greater variety of phytonutrients, especially those that reduce risk of heart disease and cancer. e. Range-fed buffalo has lower levels of polyunsaturated fats. ANS: C 67. Compared to vegetarian diets, meat based diets use ____ times as much energy. a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 2.5 d. 3.0 e. 3.5 ANS: C 68. Compared to vegetarian diets, meat based diets use ____ times as much water. a. 1.9 b. 2.9 c. 3.9 d. 4.9 e. 5.9 ANS: B 69. How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people? a. Twice as much b. Three times as much c. Five times as much d. Ten times as much e. Twenty times as much ANS: D 70. On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it? a. 25 b. 100 c. 750 d. 1500 e. 3000 ANS: D COMPLETION 1. Collecting crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest is called ____________________. ANS: gleaning, food gleaning 2. Individuals who have limited or uncertain access to foods of sufficient quality or quantity to sustain a healthy and active life with reduced quality of life with little or no indication of reduced food intake have ____________________. ANS: low food security 3. Individuals who have access to enough food to sustain a healthy and active life with one or two indications of food-access problems but with little or no change in food intake have ____________________. ANS: marginal food security 4. In the United States, the largest federal food assistance program is ____________________. ANS: Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) SNAP Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program 5. Neighborhoods and communities characterized by limited access to nutritious and affordable foods are known as ____________________. ANS: food deserts 6. Of the world's 7 billion people, ____________________ percent have no land and no possessions at all. ANS: 25; twenty-five; twenty five 7. Malnutrition caused by recent severe food restriction; characterized in children by underweight for height (wasting) is called ____________________ malnutrition. ANS: acute 8. Severe malnutrition characterized by failure to grow and develop, edema, changes in the pigmentation of hair and skin, fatty liver, anemia, and apathy is called ____________________ ANS: kwashiorkor 9. Severe malnutrition characterized by poor growth, dramatic weight loss, loss of body fat and muscle, and apathy is called ____________________. ANS: marasmus 10. ____________________ is a paste made of local commodities such as peanut butter and powdered milk and fortified with vitamins and minerals and used to rehabilitate children with uncomplicated, severe acute malnutrition. ANS: Ready-to-use therapeutic food (RUTF) Ready-to-use therapeutic food RUTF

During early childhood, __________ skills increase at an astonishing pace.

Spatial skills

Which of the following statements about handedness is true?

Research on handedness demonstrates that

The cerebellum

The hippocampus

Which of the following brain structures connects the two cerebral hemispheres?

Throughout childhood and adolescence, a nutritionally deficient diet is associated with

In developing countries, __________ leads to growth stunting and nearly 1 million childhood deaths each year.

Compared with other industrialized nations, the United States

The high childhood injury rate in developing countries is largely due to

Preschoolers' balance improves greatly when their

According to Piaget, egocentrism is

Conservation refers to the

Vygotsky saw __________ as the foundation for all higher cognitive processes.

Between 14 and 16 months, toddlers display a beginning grasp of

Between ages 2 and 6, most children learn about _____ new words each __________.

The attributes, abilities, attitudes, and values that we believe define ourselves comprise our__________, whereas the judgments we make about our worth and the feelings associated with those judgments are our __________.

Between ages 2 and 6,

Empathy serves as an important motivator of __________ behavior.

As the ability to take another's perspective improves,

All theories of moral development recognize that conscience begins to take shape

According to Freud, children

When parents use inductive discipline, they

According to social learning theorists,

Corporal punishment

The __________ perspective regards children as active thinkers about social rules.

An example of instrumental aggression is a child

Verbally and relationally aggressive acts are particularly frequent in

Gender __________ refers to any association of objects, activities, roles, or traits with one sex or the other in ways that conform to cultural stereotypes.

Adults can combat children's gender stereotyped beliefs by

Gender schema theory

The authoritative child-rearing style is

A(n) __________ parenting style is associated with children who are impulsive, disobedient, overly demanding, and dependent on adults.

Physical growth during the school years

Between ages 6 and 12,

Research shows that obesity has caused a dramatic rise in cases of __________ in children.

In one obesity intervention program, where both parents and children revised eating patterns and exercised daily,

By far, the most common chronic disease or condition of children in the United States is

Compared with preschoolers, school-age children

Which of the following statements about playing games in middle childhood is true?

Participation in community athletic teams

According to Piaget, children are first able to __________ in middle childhood.

A child who is capable of reversibility can

Heritability evidence suggests __________ genetic influences on various aspects of executive function, including combining information in working memory, controlling attention, and inhibiting inappropriate responses.

Which of the following statements about attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is true?

Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is

Children who acquire effective self-regulatory skills develop a sense of

Virtually all intelligence tests provide an overall score (the IQ), which represents __________ intelligence.

Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of successful intelligence identifies which of the following three broad, interacting intelligences?

In a social-constructivist classroom,

According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, the negative outcome of middle childhood is

Erikson's sense of __________ combines several developments of middle childhood: a positive but realistic self-concept, pride in accomplishment, moral responsibility, and cooperative participation with agemates.

Self-esteem

The best way for parents to foster a positive, secure self-image is to

Mastery-oriented children are most likely to attribute failure to

Children who develop __________ attribute their failures, not their successes, to ability.

In problem-centered coping, children

Having received a bad grade on a test, Aiden employs internal strategies such as distraction. Aiden is using

In middle childhood, the ___ becomes an increasingly important context for development.

Training in __________ often improves the peer relations and psychological adjustment of rejected children.

In middle childhood, boys

Child rearing becomes easier in middle childhood for parents who established a(n) __________ style during the early years.

Coregulation

Preschool and young school-age children often __________ a marital breakup.

Regardless of the extent of their friction, divorcing parents who manage to engage in __________ greatly improve the chances of favorable child outcomes.

Children in blended families usually have ___ than children in stable, first-marriage families.

Resilience

__________ viewed the social environment as entirely responsible for the range of teenage experiences, from erratic and agitated to calm and stress-free.

Today we know that adolescent development is

Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic?

Sleep-deprived adolescents

Compared to the moods of older adolescents and adults, the moods of younger adolescents

Psychological distancing occurs in

Early-maturing girls are viewed as

Which of the following statements about individuals with anorexia nervosa is true?

Bulimia nervosa

Which of the following statements about contraceptive use in adolescence is true?

Most gay, lesbian, or bisexual youths experience

Which of the following statements about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) is true?

Children born to teenage mothers

Which of the following substances do U.S. adolescents most often experiment with during high school?

According to Piaget, around age 11 young people enter the __________ stage.

Piaget believed that at adolescence, young people first become capable of

Information-processing researchers regard __________ as central to adolescent cognitive development.

1) Erikson was the first to recognize ________ as a crucial step toward becoming a productive, content adult.

According to Erikson, if the psychological conflict of adolescence is resolved negatively, a young person experiences

In adolescence, self-esteem __________ for most young people.

In adolescence, __________ parenting predicts high self-esteem.

Identity-_______ individuals lack clear direction. They are not committed to values or goals, nor are they actively trying to reach them.

Long-term identity __________ and __________ are maladaptive.

Adolescents who assume that absolute truth is always attainable tend to be

At Kohlberg's _______ level, behaviors that result in punishment are viewed as bad, whereas those that lead to rewards are seen as good.

Low self-esteem, depression, and antisocial behavior among teenagers are associated with __________ parenting.

Cliques

Crowd membership is based on

Early dating is related to

Which of the following statements about adolescent depression is true?

The suicide rate

Which of the following statements about factors related to juvenile delinquency is true?

Between ages 1 and 2, the typical baby grows about _____ inches and gains about _____ pounds.

Infants and toddlers grow

Maggi is concerned because her 8-month-old daughter has gained 10 pounds since birth and has transformed into a round, plump baby. You can assure Maggi that her daughter's rise in "baby fat."

During infancy, __________. These sex differences will __________ during adolescence.

Which of the following children is the most likely to be above the growth norms?

Skeletal age is determined by __________ to determine the extent to which soft, pliable cartilage has hardened into bone.

When skeletal ages are examined at birth,

Which of the following statements is consistent with the cephalocaudal trend of body growth?

Which of the following statements is consistent with the proximodistal trend of body growth?

At birth, the brain is

Neurons

The human brain has __________ neurons.

Synapses are

Neurons send messages to one another by releasing chemicals called

A surprising aspect of brain growth is that

As neurons form connections, stimulation

When Baby Jaleel was born, stimulation in his brain resulted in a massive overabundance of synapses. Neurons that were seldom stimulated began to lose their synapses. This process is known as

In all, about _____ percent of synapses are pruned during childhood and adolescence to reach the adult level.

For synaptic pruning to advance,

__________ are responsible for myelination.

Coating the neural fibers with an insulating fatty sheath during the process of __________ improves the efficiency of message transfer.

Which of the following statements about brain development is true?

__________ provide(s) the most precise information about which brain regions are specialized for certain capacities.

Mia, age 3, is about to undergo a neurobiological exam. The doctor wishes to examine the functioning of Mia's cerebral cortex to measure blood flow and oxygen metabolism. The best method for the doctor to choose in Mia's case is probably

The __________ is the largest brain structure, accounting for 85 percent of the brain's weight

Which of the following statements about the cerebral cortex is true?

The cortical regions with the most extended period of development are responsible for

Which of the following statements about the frontal lobes is true?

In left-handed people, the

The specialization of the two hemispheres of the brain is known as

A lateralized brain

Which of the following statements about brain plasticity is true?

Which of the following provides evidence that the brain hemispheres have already begun to specialize at birth?

__________ greatly influences the organization of the cerebral cortex.

In the first few years of life, the brain is

In a large study of children with injuries to the cerebral cortex that occurred before birth or in the first six months of life, researchers found that

Sharon's 46-year-old husband suffered a traumatic brain injury in an automobile accident. What information about brain plasticity can you provide to Sharon?

Research reveals that

Animal studies on early sensory deprivation

Michael was born with cataracts in both eyes. What can you tell his parents about the possibility of recovery as it relates to sensitive periods in brain development?

In the study of Romanian orphans adopted into British homes, children adopted __________ attained the highest mental test scores in childhood and adolescence.

The chronic stress of early, deprived orphanage rearing

In the study of Romanian orphans adopted into Canadian homes, the longer the children spent in orphanage care, the __________ their __________.

In the Bucharest Early Intervention Project, where specially trained social workers provided foster parents with counseling and support,

__________ brain growth refers to the young brain's rapidly developing organization, which depends on ordinary experiences.

__________ brain growth consists of additional growth and refinement of established brain structures as a result of specific learning experiences that vary widely across individuals and cultures.

Which of the following learning experiences should Cheryl, a caregiver, use to promote experience-expectant brain growth?

Which of the following statements regarding a sensitive period for mastering musical performance skills is true?

Between birth and 2 years,

Between the ages of __________, napping subsides.

Compared to U.S. babies, Dutch babies

Parent-infant "cosleeping" is the norm for approximately _____ percent of the world's population.

Cosleeping

Rachel is concerned that she might accidentally suffocate her baby if she shares a bed with him. What information can you share with Rachel about precautions taken in cultures where cosleeping is widespread?

When __________ and __________ are adequate, height is largely determined by heredity.

__________ growth is a return to a genetically influenced growth path once negative conditions improve.

The weights of adopted children

__________ percent of babies' total caloric intake is devoted to growth.

The World Health Organization recommends breastfeeding until age __________, with solid foods added at __________.

Breastfeeding for just a few weeks

In the U.S. today,

The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises exclusive breastfeeding for the first __________ and inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least __________.

Breastfed and bottle-fed children in industrialized nations

Most chubby babies

In interviews with more than 1,500 U.S. parents of infants and toddlers, results indicated that

Jack and Jami are concerned that their chubby infant son Angus will become an overweight adult. Which of the following steps can they take to help prevent that?

Shay suffers from a wasted condition of the body caused by a diet low in all essential nutrients. Shay most likely has

Yokow gets just enough calories from starchy foods, but his diet is very low in protein. He has an enlarged belly, swollen feet, and a rash on his skin. Yokow probably suffers from

When the diets of severely malnourished children improve, they

Today, inadequate nutrition

Yolanda, age 2, is being raised in Texas by a single mother. While Yolanda's mother works, she does not always have sufficient funds to purchase enough food for a healthy, active life. Yolanda is skinny and withdrawn. Yolanda suffers from

Which of the following statements about infant learning is true?

Newborn reflexes make __________ possible in the young infant.

In classical conditioning, once a baby's nervous system makes a connection between two stimuli, the __________ stimulus produces __________.

Every time baby Gloria nurses, she is placed on a nursing pillow. Gloria's mom later noticed that each time Gloria was placed on the pillow, she made sucking movements. In this example, __________ is the conditioned stimulus.

In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is presented alone enough times, without being paired with the unconditioned stimulus, __________ will __________.

Young infants can be classically conditioned most easily when

Some responses, such as __________, are very difficult to classically condition in young babies because they do not yet have the motor skills needed to deal appropriately with stimuli.

In __________, infants act on the environment, and stimuli that follow their behavior change the probability that the behavior will occur again.

In operant conditioning, a reinforcer

Removing a desirable stimulus or presenting an unpleasant one to decrease the occurrence of a response is called

A researcher hangs a mobile over the crib of 4-month-old Anya. When the researcher attaches Anya's foot to the mobile with a long cord, Anya can, by kicking, make the mobile turn. The turning of the mobile is an example of a(n)

__________ refers to a gradual reduction in the strength of a response due to repetitive stimulation

At first, baby Mario was easily awakened every night by a barking dog in his neighborhood. Several weeks later, Mario's sleep is not bothered by the dog's barks. This is an example of

Following habituation, when a new stimulus causes responsiveness to return to a high level, the increase is called

A baby who first habituates to a visual pattern and then recovers to a new one appears to

Dr. Eden studies a fetus's sensitivity to external stimuli by measuring changes in fetal heart rate when various repeated sounds are presented. Dr. Eden is probably using

By focusing on the shift from a novelty preference to a familiarity preference, researchers can use habituation to assess

Which of the following statements about imitation is true?

__________ fire identically when a primate hears or sees an action and when it carries out that action on its own.

__________ refers to control over actions that help infants get around in the environment, whereas __________ has to do with smaller movements, such as reaching and grasping.

Which of the following is an example of a fine-motor skill?

Four-month-old Logan's parents are tracking his motor development. Which of the following motor skills is Logan likely to have already achieved?

Children acquire motor skills

According to __________ of motor development, mastery of motor skills involves acquiring increasingly complex systems of action.

Dynamic systems theory provides convincing evidence that the development of motor skills

Which of the following mothers is the most likely to actively discourage rapid motor development?

Kipsigi and West Indian infants walk considerably earlier than North American infants because

Of all motor skills, __________ may play the greatest role in infant cognitive development.

Newborn Sam's poorly coordinated swipes or swings toward an object in front of him is called

Four-month-old Kaitlyn reaches for a toy. She grabs it by closing her fingers against her palm. Kaitlyn is using

A baby's ability to manipulate objects greatly expands with the development of __________, use of the thumb and index finger opposably

One-year-old Jameson sits on the sidewalk picking up blades of grass left after his mother mows the lawn. Jameson is using

Dr. Sardoza is interested in research on the organization and interpretation of what we see. Dr. Sardoza studies

ERP brain-wave recordings reveal that around 5 months, babies

At first, babies are sensitive to virtually all speech sounds, but around 6 months, they

Which of the following individuals is the most likely to be able to discriminate individual faces of both humans and monkeys equally well?

Research suggests that there is a sensitive period, __________, when babies are biologically prepared to "zero in" on socially meaningful perceptual distinctions.

Around 7 to 9 months, infants

Which of the following statements about speech stream patterns is true?

For exploring the environment, humans depend on __________ more than any other sense.

__________, infants can focus on objects about as well as adults can.

__________ improves steadily, reaching 20/80 by 6 months and an adult level of about 20/20 by 4 years.

__________ is the first depth cue to which infants are sensitive.

__________ depth cues arise because our two eyes have slightly different views of the visual field.

Infants with a lot of crawling experience

Which of the following pictures is newborn Alex most likely to prefer to look at?

Which of the following statements about pattern perception is true?

One surprising finding of infant face perception is that infants will look longer at

Lana understands that an object's shape is the same whether she sees it or touches it; that breaking a glass causes a sharp, crashing sound; and that the pattern of footsteps signals the approach of a person. This understanding is called

When baby Jon's dad talks to him, Jon focuses on his dad's voice and face. Jon is detecting

Which of the following statements about intermodal perception is true?

According to __________ theory, infants actively search for invariant features of the environment in a constantly changing perceptual world.

__________ make(s) crawlers and walkers more aware of the consequences of their movements.

According to the cognitive perspective of perceptual development, babies

During and after WWII it was found that malnourished people could gain weight more rapidly...

a consistent congnitive effect of marijuana seen both in frequent users and in less experienced users is...

the 1999 report from the Institute of Medicine suggested that marijuana cigarettes should be allowed for

studies show that marijuana increases which of the following?

the 70 chemicals that are known to be unique to the cannabis plant are called

tolerance to the effects of smoked marijuana allows experience marijuana users to obtain

one major behavioral problem that is seen in acute marijuana intoxication is

college athletes who want to avoid failing a drug test have to be very careful because

one ingredient in dietary supplements was banned by the FDA in 2004 after a Major League Baseball pitcher died form heat stroke after using it.

the marijuana Tax Act, the first fed law regulating cannabis

although testosterone and related anabolic steroids clearly increase muscle mass during puberty, it has been more difficult to determine scientifically whether adult men with normal testosterone can get much stronger from extra steroids, partly because

extensive testing of the effects of amphetamines has consluded that they can

the current shift in the US public's attitude towards marijuana laws is probably related to which of the following

studies of the effects of marijuana on automobile driving show

which of the following is NOT ture about the marijuana tax act of 1937

cannabis indica seems to have more psychoactive potency where as cannibis sativa is more associated with

on side effect of the tougher 2006 drug testing policies in major league bball is that

a great # of studies have consistently reported that smoked marijuana and oral THC both

the abuse potential of THC is

in a sutdy of heart rate changes following smoked marijuana with 4% THC or 20 mg oral THC

hashish refers to p

which of these was NOT mentioned as one of the psychological side effects of high dose steroids

so called "pituitary giants" often die at an early age because their internal organs continue to grow due to

after the national football league banned the distribution of amphetamines in 1971

the primary active ingredient in marijuana is

Which one of the following best illustrates self-concept rather than self-worth or self-esteem?

Darien knows that he wants to work with children when he grows up, but he wonders if he'd rather be a pediatrician or a teacher. This situation illustrates what important function that youngsters' sense of self serves?

Which one of the following best describes the role of sense of self as a factor in children's development?

Marion puts off doing a project for the science fair until she has so little time to do it that she cannot possibly complete a good project. Such behavior is most consistent with the concept of:

Mike desperately wants to do well on the Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT), as his scores will affect his chances of getting into his first-choice college. He also knows that many students at his school think that SAT scores are good indicators of how "smart" a person is. Yet the night before the test, rather than get a good night's sleep, Mike goes out with his friends, has a few beers, comes home late, and wakes up with a hangover. With this information in mind, we might suspect that Michael:

On average, children who attend schools for gifted students have lower self-esteem than children of equal intelligence who attend regular schools with students of widely varying abilities. If we consider research about factors affecting youngsters' sense of self, we can explain this finding in which one of the following ways?

Which one of these examples best reflects the role that children's and adolescents' sense of self typically plays in their behavior?

Which one of the following teenage girls appears to have contingent self-worth?

Three of the following statements accurately describe how sense of self changes over the course of childhood and adolescence. Which statement is not accurate?

Which one of the following appears earliest in the development of children's sense of self?

Given what we know about changes in children's and adolescents' self-esteem over the years, which teachers should be especially careful to help students acquire a positive sense of self?

As children grow older, they are more likely to:

Elena woke up this morning with a large pimple on her nose. She refuses to go to school, telling her mother, "It looks awful, and everyone will laugh at me." Which one of the following concepts best helps us explain Elena's behavior?

What is the tendency to conform to one's own ideas about appropriate behavior?

As a 17-year-old high school senior, Julian has no sense of direction. Over the past year he has dabbled in auto mechanics, photography, and Buddhism, but nothing has held his interest for more than a month or two. Julian can best be described as showing:

Sharon is a 12-year-old who does not believe that she can be academically successful. Considering the textbook's discussion of factors that promote positive self-perceptions, you should:

Which one of the following is the best example of social cognition?

The formation of children's sense of self is most strongly influenced by:

Lamont worries that he has unintentionally hurt another student's feelings. From this information alone, we can reasonably conclude that Lamont:

Which one of the following acquisitions related to theory of mind first appears in the elementary school years?

Youngsters begin to think more systematically about what other people might be thinking about them during:

As a classroom teacher, you want to actively work on breaking down stereotypes and prejudices. Which one of the following techniques is least likely to be effective?