Childhood And Adolescence Flashcards, test questions and answers
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We've found 9 Childhood And Adolescence tests
AP Psychology
Childhood And Adolescence
Gender Role Development
Human Sexual Response Cycle
Primary Sex Characteristics
Psychology
Secondary Sex Characteristic
Secondary Sex Characteristics
Sexology
ch 10 quizzes – Flashcards 15 terms

Will Walter
15 terms
Preview
ch 10 quizzes – Flashcards
question
the sex structures that develop during puberty are categorized as
answer
secondary sex characteristics
question
people who are intersexual
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have a mixture of male and female sexual characteristics
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the process by which people learn their culture's preferences and expectations for male and female behavior is called
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gender typing
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people whose sense of gender identity does not match their external appearance are known as
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transgendered
question
in terms of the view of gender-role development in the United states, most scientists agree that our culture is _____, especially where women are concerned
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somewhere in the middle
question
which theory of gender-role development places a heavy emphasis on the use of mental patterns?
answer
gender schema theory
question
according to researcher alfed kinsey, sexual orientation is best described as
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typically on a continuum
question
in kinsey's original data, approximately _____ of women reported being predominantly homosexual while as many as ______ of men reported the same
answer
2-6 percent; 10 percent
question
which of the following was a criticism of kinsey's research?
answer
the study had a restricted sample
question
robert drivers theory of parental investment states that a _____ desire to engage in sex at an early age results from ____
answer
mans; evolution
question
the savic et al. 2005 study found that homosexual men responded to a pheromone in the same way as
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heterosexual women
question
what is a major cause of organic sexual dysfunction?
answer
stress
question
surveys suggest that about _____ percent of women and ______ percent of men have at least one sexual dysfunction
answer
40-45;30-30
question
hpv is the cause of _______ in both men and women
answer
genital warts
question
which of the following ways can the human immunodeficiency virus be passed along to another person?
answer
exposure to an infected person's blood
Childhood And Adolescence
Junior High School
Positive Self Concept
Weather
PSY danger – Flashcards 82 terms

Robert Lollar
82 terms
Preview
PSY danger – Flashcards
question
John B. Watson would have expressed the greatest disapproval of attempts to scientifically study whether:
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academic achievement is influenced by a positive self-concept.
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To get you to increase the frequency of your daily exercise, operant behavior specialists are most likely to recommend that you:
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specify your exercise goals and how you plan to achieve them.
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The occurrence of spontaneous recovery suggests that during extinction:
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the CR is suppressed.
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Watching the night sky for shooting stars is likely to be reinforced on a ________ schedule.
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variable-interval
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We are especially likely to vicariously experience the reinforcing outcomes of those we perceive as:
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similar to ourselves.
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Alex learned to babysit and care for young children effectively by observing the many ways his mother carefully nurtured his own younger siblings. This best illustrates the value of observational learning for promoting:
answer
prosocial behavior.
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Megan fails to see any connection between how hard she works and the size of her annual pay raises. Consequently, she no longer puts much effort into her job, even though she really wants a big raise. This best illustrates the importance of ________ in the operant conditioning of work habits.
answer
cognitive processes
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Just after they taste a sweet liquid, mice are injected with a drug that produces an immune response. Later, the taste of the sweet liquid by itself triggers an immune response. This best illustrates:
answer
classical conditioning.
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Behaviorism was the view that psychology should scientifically study behavior without reference to:
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cognitive processes.
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Positive punishment is the introduction of a(n) ________ stimulus following a behavior and negative punishment is the withdrawal of a(n) ________ stimulus following a behavior.
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aversive; pleasant
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If a sea slug on repeated occasions receives an electric shock just after being squirted with water, its protective withdrawal response to a squirt of water grows stronger. This best illustrates:
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associative learning.
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An organism learns associations between events it does not control during the process of:
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classical conditioning.
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The tendency to engage in behaviors that we observe others being rewarded for performing best illustrates the influence of:
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vicarious reinforcement.
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A real estate agent showed Gavin several pictures of lakeshore property while they were eating a delicious, mouth-watering meal. Later, when Gavin was given a tour of the property, he drooled with delight. For Gavin, the lakeshore property was a:
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CS
question
Asking potential partners for a date is most likely to be reinforced on a ________ schedule.
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variable-ratio
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Helpful and constructive actions best illustrate:
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prosocial behavior.
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To assess whether Mrs. Webster had suffered a brain injury, researchers conditioned her to blink in response to a sound that signaled the delivery of a puff of air directed toward her face. In this application of classical conditioning, the sound was a:
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CS
question
A type of learning in which behavior is diminished if followed by a punisher is called:
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operant conditioning.
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After a scary biking accident, Alex extinguished his conditioned fear of bikes by cycling on a safe biking trail every day for a week. The reappearance of his previously extinguished fear when he rode a bike on the same trail two weeks later best illustrates:
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spontaneous recovery.
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The pioneering researcher of observational learning was:
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Albert Bandura.
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Recognizing that one of your friends is feeling angry and that another friend is feeling sad illustrates an ability known as:
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theory of mind.
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A dog salivates to the sound of a tone because the tone has regularly been associated with the delivery of food. In this case, the tone is called a(n):
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conditioned stimuli
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Mr. Schneider frequently tells his children that it is important to wash their hands before meals, but he rarely does so himself. Experiments suggest that his children will learn to:
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preach the virtues of cleanliness but not practice cleanliness.
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Pavlov's research on classical conditioning was important because:
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so many different species of animals, including humans, can be classically conditioned.
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so many different species of animals, including humans, can be classically conditioned.
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overimitation.
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The idea that any perceivable neutral stimulus can serve as a CS was challenged by:
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Garcia and Koelling's findings on taste aversion in rats.
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The first experimental studies of associative learning were conducted by:
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Ivan Pavlov
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Research on memory construction indicates that memories of past experiences are likely to be
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much easier to recall if they are seldom rehearsed.
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Varsity basketball players can recall the positions of the players after a 4-second glance at a basketball play. This ability is best explained in terms of:
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chunking
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Research on young children's false eyewitness recollections has indicated that
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it is surprisingly difficult for both children and professional interviewers to reliably separate the children's true memories from false memories.
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The inability to remember whose face appears on a five-dollar bill is mostly likely due to a failure in
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encoding
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Recalling the stunning visual images of a Broadway musical and holding them in working memory would most clearly require activation of the:
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right frontal lobe.
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Incest survivors who lack conscious memories of their sexual abuse may be told they are repressing the memory. This explanation for their lack of memories of abuse emphasizes
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encoding failure
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Ebbinghaus' use of nonsense syllables to study memory led to the discovery that:
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the amount remembered depends on the time spent learning.
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Encoding a written word semantically rather than on the basis of the word's written appearance illustrates a distinction between:
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deep and shallow processing.
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Which memory test would most effectively reveal that Mr. Quintano, at age 55, still remembers many of his high school classmates?
answer
recognition
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Following a brain injury from a brutal knife attack, Mike is unable to consciously recall or recognize what a knife is. But he still shows a conditioned fear response to the sight of a knife. His conditioned reaction best indicates that he retains a(n) ________ memory.
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implicit
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Dramatic experiences that can trigger flashbulb memories are most likely to remain bright and clear in our conscious memories because they:
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are frequently rehearsed.
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The effortful processing of information:
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can become automatic through practice.
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Research on the storage of memory indicates that:
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our brain distributes the components of a memory across a network of locations.
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Recall of what you have learned is often improved when your physical surroundings at the time of retrieval and encoding are the same. This best illustrates
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context-dependent memory.
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A loss of an encoded memory as a result of a gradual fading of the physical memory trace best illustrates
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storage decay
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Chickadees and other birds who store food in hundreds of places cannot remember the food storage locations months later if their ________ has been removed.
answer
hippocampus
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Highly durable memories can often be retrieved from ________ memory into ________ memory.
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long-term; working
question
Incest survivors who lack conscious memories of their sexual abuse may be told they are repressing the memory. This explanation for their lack of memories of abuse emphasizes
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retrieval failure.
question
The finding that people who sleep after learning a list of nonsense syllables forget less than people who stay awake provides evidence that forgetting may involve
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interference
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Implicit memory is to explicit memory as ________ is to ________.
answer
short-term memory; long-term memory
question
Which test of memory typically provides the fewest retrieval cues?
answer
recall
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Karl Lashley trained rats to solve a maze and then removed pieces of their cortexes. He observed that storage of their maze memory:
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was not restricted to single, specific regions of the cortex.
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We are unable to consciously attend to most of the sights and sounds that are continually bombarding us. This fact most clearly contributes to
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Storage Decay
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Sigmund Freud emphasized that the forgetting of painful experiences is caused by a process that involves
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retrieval failure
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After being asked to remember three consonants, participants in a study by Peterson and Peterson counted aloud backward by threes to prevent:
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rehearsal
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Cortex areas surrounding the hippocampus and supporting the processing and storing of explicit memories are located in the:
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temporal lobe
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Research on memory construction indicates that memories of past experiences are likely to be
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distorted by our current expectations.
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Research by Kandel and Schwartz on sea slugs indicates that memory formation is associated with the:
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release of certain neurotransmitters.
question
Using the mnemonic ROY G. BIV to remember the colors of the rainbow in the order of wavelength illustrates the use of:
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acronym
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When Sperling visually displayed three rows of three letters each for only one-twentieth of a second, research participants:
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had a momentary photographic memory of all nine letters.
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The ability to retain more information after sleep and to be a creative problem solver has been found to be most closely associated with a large ________ memory capacity.
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working
question
When children are interviewed about their recollections of possible sexual abuse, their reports are especially credible if
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involved adults have not discussed the issue with them prior to the interview.
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Recalling an old password and holding it in working memory would be most likely to activate the:
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left frontal lobe
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After he was spanked on several occasions for spilling his milk at a restaurant, Colin became afraid to go to the restaurant. In this case, spanking was a(n) ________ for Colin's fear.
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unconditioned stimulus
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Dogs conditioned to salivate to stimulation of the thigh also begin to salivate when stimulated on other body parts. This best illustrates:
answer
generalization
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Five-year-old Trevor is emotionally disturbed and refuses to communicate with anyone. To get him to speak, his teacher initially gives him candy for any utterance, then only for a clearly spoken word, and finally only for a complete sentence. The teacher is using the method of:
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shaping
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The views of learning advanced by Ivan Pavlov and John B. Watson underestimated the importance of:
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cognitive processes.
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B. F. Skinner believed that teaching machines could promote effective learning because they allow for both:
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shaping and immediate reinforcement
question
Paul and Michael sell magazine subscriptions by telephone. Paul is paid $1.00 for every five calls he makes, while Michael is paid $1.00 for every subscription he sells, regardless of the number of calls he makes. Paul's telephoning is reinforced on a ________ schedule, whereas Michael's is reinforced on a ________ schedule.
answer
fixed-ratio; variable-ratio
question
A psychologist who emphasizes cognitive processes would be likely to suggest that classical conditioning depends on:
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an organism's expectation that a US will follow a CS.
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Desensitization and imitation are two factors that contribute to:
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the violence-viewing effect.
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The way slot machines reward gamblers with money best illustrates:
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partial reinforcement.
question
An animal trainer is teaching a miniature poodle to balance on a ball. Initially, he gives the poodle a treat for approaching the ball, then only for placing its front paws on the ball, and finally only for climbing on the ball. The trainer is using the method of:
answer
successive approximations.
question
Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned verbal information. Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned visual designs.
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left hippocampus; right hippocampus
question
Encoding a written word semantically rather than on the basis of the word's written appearance illustrates a distinction between:
answer
deep and shallow processing.
question
After hearing a list of items, peoples' immediate recall of the items is more likely to show a(n) ________ effect than is their later recall of the items.
answer
recency
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Recalling information and holding it in working memory requires that many brain regions send input to your:
answer
frontal lobe
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During her psychology test, Kelsey could not remember the meaning of the term mnemonics. Surprisingly, however, she accurately remembered that the term appeared on the first line of a right-hand page in her textbook. Her memory of this incidental information is best explained in terms of
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automatic processing.
question
After recovering from a stroke, Farina was able to learn how to hit a tennis ball. She is unable, however, to learn and remember the name of the rehabilitation therapist who has been working with her each day to develop her tennis swing. Farina is most likely to have suffered damage to her
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hypothalamus
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Among contemporary memory researchers, increasing numbers think that ________ rarely, if ever, occurs.
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repression
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When asked how they felt 10 years ago regarding marijuana issues, people recalled attitudes closer to their current views than to those they actually reported a decade earlier. This best illustrates
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Memory construction
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A good night's sleep improves recall of the previous day's events by facilitating the transfer of memories from the:
answer
hippocampus to the cerebral cortex.
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hippocampus to the cerebral cortex.
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recognition
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Tim, a third-grader, learns the sentence "George Eats Old Gray Rats and Paints Houses Yellow" to help him remember the spelling of "geography." Tim is using:
answer
a mnemonic technique.
question
Damage to the hippocampus would most likely interfere with a person's ability to learn:
answer
the names of newly introduced people.
Childhood And Adolescence
George Herbert Mead
Introductory Sociology
Rural And Urban
Sociology
Traits And Abilities
REVEL Sociology Chapter 5 Socialization Quiz – Flashcards 20 terms

Daniel Jimmerson
20 terms
Preview
REVEL Sociology Chapter 5 Socialization Quiz – Flashcards
question
1. As sociologists see it, what part does biology play in the development of human personality?
answer
People do inherit a potential to develop certain traits and abilities, but nurture matters more than nature in personality development.
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2. What is the importance of socialization in early childhood?
answer
It develops human personality; without social interaction, development is greatly limited.
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3. The text presents evidence that social isolation of young people results in permanent loss of ____________________.
answer
language acquisition and other human development.
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4. How might socially isolated children, such as Anna, respond when presented with a toy such as a doll house?
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They would be uninterested in playing with it.
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5. The cases of isolated children described in the reading lead to what conclusion?
answer
Social isolation beyond a year or so can lead to permanent developmental damage.
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6. What of the following statements is most correct?
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"As human beings, our nature is to nurture."
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7. What can we learn from the Harlows' rhesus monkey studies?
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Long-term social isolation early in life can cause irreversible damage
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8. What did Gilligan think was the biggest flaw in Kohlberg's development theory?
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It focused only on male subject.
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9. What part does Mead say role playing has in the development of the self?
answer
It helps us learn to see ourselves as others see us.
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10. According to Erik Erikson, after stealing a snack, a child in the preschool stage is now capable of ___________.
answer
feeling guilty about stealing based on not living up to what others expected.
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11. What term did Freud use to refer to a person's conscious efforts to balance pleasure seeking with the demands of society?
answer
ego
question
12. In the United States, about what share of households have at least one television?
answer
97 percent
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13. Why might a teenager looking to join a new social group start listening to a new type of music?
answer
She is engaging in anticipatory socialization.
question
14. Philippe Ariès claimed that the idea of childhood extending until about the early teens is actually ________.
answer
fairly recent in human history.
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15. Which of the following is a distinctive contribution of school to the socialization process?
answer
school allows students to interact with people of different social backgrounds.
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16. What is the main cause of the pattern we describe as the turbulence of teenage years in the United States?
answer
cultural inconsistencies in how our society defines this stage of life.
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17. What effect will the increasing older population have on U.S. society?
answer
The younger generations will be likely to interact more with the elderly.
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18. What is the first step of resocialization in a total institution such as prison?
answer
the "stripping" or removal of an inmate's existing identity
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19. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the complete adjustment to one's approaching death involves which of the following?
answer
acceptance
question
20. Which stage of life discussed in the text spans the year from about forty to sixty-five when people come to realize that their life circumstances are pretty well set?
answer
middle adulthood
Adolescent Growth Spurt
Childhood And Adolescence
Cope With Problems
Developmental Psychology
Elementary School Years
Initiative Versus Guilt
School Age Children
Set High Standards
Twin And Adoption Studies
Lifespan Exam 3 – Flashcards 85 terms

Linda Lynch
85 terms
Preview
Lifespan Exam 3 – Flashcards
question
Which of the following statement is TRUE?
answer
Concern with boy image becomes important early in middle childhood
question
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
answer
Rough and tumble play peaks in middle school
question
Children who have higher BMIs, hypertension, and glucose intolerance have?
answer
A life expectancy of 2 to 5 years less than peers
question
What are some contributors to children being overweight?
answer
Eating out more often with increased calorie consumption Increased time in front of television and computer Less activity and less engagement in sports and physical play
question
The most prevalent chronic illness in childhood is
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asthma
question
The severity of approximately 88 percent of bicycling injuries can be reduced dramatically by
answer
using helmets
question
Which of the following statements about illness in middle childhood is TRUE?
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The death rate during middle childhood is the lowest in the life span
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Children in Piaget's concrete operational stage show increased skill in all of the following areas EXCEPT
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hypothetical thinking
question
The following abilities of school-age children are true EXCEPT?
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the ability to estimate does not change significantly during middle childhood
question
During middle childhood, ____ medical conditions are common and ____ medical conditions are rare
answer
Acute; chronic
question
Because of danger associated with their use, which of the following does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend that parents never buy for their children or allow their children to use
answer
Trampolines
question
A child is told that Bob is older than Sally, and sally is older than Fred. When asked, "Who is older, Bob or Fred?" the child replies, Bob. This child is demonstrating _____ ability
answer
Transitive inference
question
The following abilities of school-age children are true EXCEPT
answer
The ability to estimate does not change significantly during middle childhood
question
Susan is given a list of names of students from her school to remember. To help her remember them, Susan arranges the names according to whether they are in the first, second, or third grade, and according to gender. Susan is using the technique of _____ to aid her memory
answer
organization
question
Intelligence tests used in middle childhood are
answer
good predictors of achievement in school, especially for verbal children
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The rules by which words are organized into phrases and sentences are called
answer
Syntax
question
Congress adopted an act to improve educational accountability, parental options, and local flexibility. This act is called
answer
No Child Left Behind
question
In about one-third of cases of mental retardation, the cause is
answer
unknown
question
Which of the following statements about mental retardation is FALSE?
answer
More girls than boys are mentally retarded
question
A developmental reading disorder in which reading achievement is substantially below the expected level predicted by IQ or age is
answer
dyslexia
question
Under current federal law, when possible, children with disabilities must be educated
answer
in regular classrooms
question
Improvements in information processing may help explain how children find their way to and from school because they demonstrate the following abilities EXCEPT
answer
they can reason abstractly
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The skills involved in developing metacognition include all of the following strategies EXCEPT
answer
improving spelling
question
The ability to arrange objects according to some dimension, such as largest to smallest is called
answer
seriation
question
Homeschooling is legal in ___ of the 50 united states
answer
50
question
Monica, who is 8, describes herself as very good at math and science, but average in reading and art. She also says that she is god at basketball but a terrible baseball player. According to the neo-piagetian view of self-concept development, Monica is using
answer
representational systems
question
The major contributor to self-esteem is
answer
social support from parents, peers, and teachers
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Erikson's developmental crisis of middle childhood (from 6-12 years) is?
answer
Industry vs. Inferiority
question
According to the test, school-age children exposed to parental discord and poor parenting display all EXCEPT
answer
obedience
question
Parents can help children develop coregulation by
answer
-influencing children when they are together -monitoring children when they are apart -teaching children to monitor their own behavior
question
A child who is aggressive, starts fights, is hostile, and is disobedient is displaying ____ behaviors
answer
externalizing
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Parents who continue to use physical punishment after age 10 tend to have children who
answer
are likely to have poor relationships with the parents as they approach adolescence
question
Mark is 7 years old and has cohabitating biological parents and has demonstrated emotional, behavioral, and academic outcomes due to all the following factors EXCEPT
answer
number of friends
question
Currently, what percentage of children live in single-parent homes?
answer
28%
question
Children choose peers that are closest to themselves in
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age, ethnicity, and demographics
question
Children of ____ parents tend to be more popular than those whose parents use other styles
answer
authoritative
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During the school years, aggression declines and changes from overt aggression to
answer
relational
question
Children who have experienced parental divorce do better if they
answer
have emotional support and contact with both parents
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As children approach adolescence, how well parents _____ may be more important than whether a mother works outside the home
answer
keep track of them
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Prosocial children tend to
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-show appropriate social behaviors -cope with problems effectively -volunteer to help others
question
In addition to the usual issues of of parenthood, adoptive parents also typically have to deal with all of the following EXCEPT
answer
-integrating the adopted child into the family -helping the child develop a health sense of self -explaining adoption to the child
question
All of the following determine sibling roles and relationships in non-industrialized societies EXCEPT
answer
Family income
question
Brad knows that he sometimes loses his temper and gets angry at his friends. What aspect of self-definition is he developing?
answer
A real self
question
Negative influences of peer groups include all of the following EXCEPT
answer
counteracting the parent's influence
question
Children whose tendency is to see other children as trying to hurt them and then strike out in retaliation are showing?
answer
hostile attribution bias
question
The process that leads to sexual maturity is
answer
puberty
question
Reasearch suggest that the pubertal process takes about ____ in both sexes
answer
3-4 years
question
At what age would you expect an average American girl to begin puberty?
answer
9-10
question
Which of the following is true about the adolescent growth spurt?
answer
growth may be uneven and cause temporary gawkiness
question
Most teenagers are more concerned about their ____ than any other aspect of their development
answer
appearance
question
Physical exercise affect both physical and mental health by doing all of the following EXCEPT?
answer
decreasing time spent dealing with friends
question
Sleep deprivation can have what effects?
answer
-reduce concentration and performance in school -increase irritability -impair driving
question
The unhealthy diets of many adolescents place them at risk for all of the following EXCEPT
answer
increased heart attacks
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Overweight teenagers are at heightened risk for
answer
-hypertension -diabetes -high cholesterol
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Adolescents who have bulimia
answer
-may be depressed -have low self-esteem -are overly concerned about body image
question
Treatment for anorexia and bulimia may include
answer
-family therapy -antidepressant drugs -cognitive behavior therapy
question
The leading cause of death among U.S. teenagers, accounting for two of three deaths of 16 to 19 year olds is
answer
vehicular accidents
question
Factors that have been found to reduce the risk of suicidal behavior in today's youth include
answer
- emotional well-being -academic achievement -sense of connectedness
question
As adolescents move into the stage of formal operations, they are able to make moral judgements and plan for future. This means they are thinking
answer
abstractly
question
According to the text, Piaget's theory considers all of the following EXEPT
answer
moral considerations of cognitive development
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Information-processing researchers have identify two categories of measurable change in adolescent cognition. These categories are
answer
structural and functional
question
Ron has internalized the moral standards of his parents and grandparents. He is concerned with being considered a good son and maintaining the social order. According to Kohlberg, Ron is in the stage of the
answer
morality of conventional role conformity
question
According to Gilligan, the moral reasoning of male focuses on ____, whereas the moral reasoning of females is concerned with ____ .
answer
Justice; showing of care
question
The most important factor that determines whether or not a student will finish high school is
answer
the student's active engagement in school
question
Which of the following statements about gender as a factor in occupational choice is true?
answer
Although gender-typing in occupational choie has declined considerably, some counselors still steer boys and girls to gender-typed careers
question
Identity includes
answer
- a coherent conception of the self -a set of goals to which one is solidly committed -values and beliefs a person holds dear
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The desirable outcome of the crisis of adolescence, according to Erikson, is being able to
answer
see oneself as a unique person with a meaningful role in life
question
Diane is 13 years old and is pondering her own talents, interests, and need, as well as her place in society. According to Erikson, this struggle represents the crisis of
answer
identity vs identity confusion
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Betty is 18 years old. For the past five years she has been very committed to working with a group of her friends as a volunteer at a local hospital. She has also diligently studied the piano during this time. According to Erikson, Betty is developing the virtue of
answer
fidelity
question
As a child, it is important to learn to trust one's parents; in adolescence a person learns fidelity, which is often defined as
answer
an extension of trust that includes the self, family, and mentors and friends
question
James Marcia identifies four identity states or statuses, according to the presence or absence of
answer
crisis and commitment
question
Ashley that abortion is wrong because her parents, friends, and church say so. She has never really thought about the issue but has simply accepted this view as her own. According to Marcia, what is her identity status?
answer
Foreclosure
question
According to Marcia's model, adolescents who experience crisis with no commitment are in the _____ status of identity development
answer
moratorium
question
Recent research has indicated that gender differences in identity formation of adolescence
answer
may be less important than individual differences
question
Cultural socialization refers to ____ that teach children about their racial or ethnic heritage, promote cultural traditions, and promote ethics and racial pride
answer
-school practice -community practices -parental practices
question
A sexually transmitted disease characterized by extreme fatigue, diarrhea, and weight loss is
answer
AIDS
question
Of the 4.1 million new HIV infections each year about ____ are in young people 15-24
answer
50%
question
Conflict between teenagers and their families and society is
answer
-called adolescent rebellion -found in approximately 20% of all adolescent boys, according to studies -involves reckless behavior
question
____ is the search for autonomy and differentiation
answer
individuation
question
In a survey of where teenagers spend their time, subjects reported that they were happiest when they were
answer
with their friends
question
Virginia is not too happy with many of the decisions that her parents make regarding her life, but she has a good relationship with her parents and follows their lead. Virginia is likely too develop
answer
-good self control and self discipline -confidence in social relationships -competence in academic subjects
question
Adolescents living with their continuously married parents tend to have ____ behavioral problems than do adolescents living in single-parent homes
answer
fewer
question
Adolescents begin to rely on friends more than parents for their
answer
intimacy and emotional support
question
The following are predictors of early juvenile delinquency EXCEPT
answer
age and gender
question
According to Erikson, cliquishness and intolerance of differences in adolescence are
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defenses against identity confusion
Childhood And Adolescence
Fruit And Vegetables
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Nutrition
Understanding Nutrition 14th edition Chapter 16, 17, 18, 19, 20 Test Guide – Flashcards 5 terms

Suzette Hendon
5 terms
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Understanding Nutrition 14th edition Chapter 16, 17, 18, 19, 20 Test Guide – Flashcards
question
1. What would be a normal body weight after one year for a healthy infant with a birthweight of 8 lbs? answer: 24 lbs 2. What is the typical weight gain (lbs) of an infant between the first and second year of life? answer: 10 3. What organ in the infant uses more than half of the day's total energy intake? answer: Brain 4. What is the relative weight of an infant brain compared to an adult's brain? answer: Six times as much 5. The recommended amounts of vitamins and minerals for infants are based on the answer: average amounts ingested by thriving infants breastfed by well-nourished mothers. 6. For optimal breast-feeding benefits, it is recommended that the infant be encouraged to suckle on the first breast offered answer: until he stops actively suckling. 7. What is the chief protein in human breast milk? answer: Alpha-lactalbumin 8. What is thought to be the primary function of the oligosaccharides in breast milk? answer: Protection from infections in the infant 9. What is colostrum? answer: A milk-like substance secreted right after delivery 10. Which of the following is a feature of infant development and nutrition? answer: Breast-fed infants obtain iron-binding proteins that inhibit bacterial infections. 11. Which of the following is associated with bifidus factors? answer: Increased bacterial growth 12. What factor in breast milk binds iron and prevents it from supporting the growth of the infant's intestinal bacteria? answer: Lactoferrin 13. What is lactadherin? answer: A breast milk protein that inactivates a GI virus that causes diarrhea 14. Compared with cow's milk, breast milk contains answer: less protein and calcium. 15. To gradually replace breast milk with infant formula or other foods appropriate to an infant's diet is to answer: wean 16. Which of the following formulas is available for infants with lactose intolerance? a. Egg b. Soy c. Barley d. Powdered cow's milk e. Goat's milk ANS: B 17. Which of the following is a common source of lead poisoning in infants? a. Maternal passage of lead to fetus b. Baby bottles made from lead crystal c. Contaminated water used to make infant formula d. Preparation of infant formula in galvanized containers e. Environmental contamination from leaded gasoline ANS: C 18. What is the most realistic advice for reducing lead exposure from the tap water used to prepare infant formula? a. Because the lead in hot water pipes settles out overnight, draw the water from this source first. b. Whenever possible, boil the water to vaporize the lead and thus decrease the amount remaining in the water. c. Because the first water drawn from the tap each day is highest in lead, let the water run a few minutes before using it. d. To inhibit lead absorption, add a small amount of citrus juice to the water to provide citric acid to complex with the lead. e. Filtering the water through a clean coffee filter will typically remove the majority of lead contamination. ANS: C 19. Goat's milk is inappropriate for infants due to its low content of a. iron. b. folate. c. protein. d. calcium. e. vitamin D. ANS: B 20. Which of the following defines nursing bottle tooth decay? a. Caries development resulting from frequent use of non-sterile bottles and nipples. b. Bacterial attack of teeth due to severe tooth misalignment from sucking on oversized bottle nipples. c. Marked tooth decay of an infant due to prolonged exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle. d. Tooth decay resulting from constant exposure to food due to inability of the infant to swallow normally. e. Tooth decay resulting from the rubbing of the nipple against the teeth and consequent thinning of enamel. ANS: C 21. Which of the following feeding practices is recommended for preterm infants? a. They should be fed exclusively on breast milk. b. They should be fed on breast milk enriched in a 1 to 1 ratio with cow's milk. c. They should be fed preterm breast milk, occasionally fortified with specific nutrients. d. They should be fed only on special formulas because the nutrient content of breast milk is too low. e. They should be fed raw cow's milk fortified with infant vitamins. ANS: C 22. Of the following cereals, which is most likely to result in an allergic reaction upon first feeding? a. Oat b. Rice c. Corn d. Wheat e. Barley ANS: D 23. Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants? a. Two weeks b. Two months c. Five months d. Nine months e. One year ANS: C 24. At what age does the normal infant first develop the ability to swallow nonliquid food? a. 1 to 2 months b. 2 to 4 months c. 4 to 6 months d. 6 to 9 months e. 9 to 12 months ANS: C 25. Why should new foods be introduced to an infant one at a time? a. It prevents overfeeding. b. Any allergic reactions can be detected. c. Immunological protection hasn't been developed. d. The swallowing reflex is not under voluntary control. e. It reduces risk of upset stomach. ANS: B 26. What should be the first cereal introduced to the infant? a. Oat b. Corn c. Rice d. Wheat e. Barley ANS: C 27. Which of the following nutrients need to be supplied first by solid foods in a baby's diet? a. Vitamin C and iron b. Vitamin A and zinc c. Vitamin B12 and fluoride d. Vitamin E and magnesium e. Sodium and manganese ANS: A 28. Infants fed honey or corn syrup are at increased risk for a. protein malnutrition. b. botulism. c. osteopenia. d. type 1 diabetes. e. lead poisoning. ANS: B 29. Young children who drink more than 2 to 3 1/2 cups of milk a day are most likely at increased risk for deficiency of a. iron. b. folate. c. vitamin A. d. vitamin C. e. vitamin D. ANS: A 30. Which of the following is true regarding energy metabolism of the preschool child? a. Food intake is remarkably similar from meal to meal. b. Overweight individuals have appetites similar to normal-weight individuals. c. Energy needs per kg body weight increase from 1 year of age to 5 years of age. d. A 1 year old who needs 800 kcal/day would require only about 1600 kcal at 6 years of age. e. An active 10 year-old requires about 3200 kcal/day. ANS: D 31. Approximately how many kcal per day does an average 6 year old need to obtain? a. 400 b. 800 c. 1600 d. 2400 e. 3200 ANS: C 32. Children should spend no more than ____ hours per day watching television, playing electronic games, and using the computer (except for homework) a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 3 to 4 d. 4 to 5 e. 5 to 6 ANS: A 33. Which of the following is a characteristic of fat in the diet of children? a. The recommended daily fat intake up to age 12 is age plus 20 g. b. There is an RDA for total fat for children beginning at 3 years of age. c. Low-fat diets usually provide sufficient amounts of the micronutrients. d. Fat intakes below 30% of total energy do not impair growth provided that total energy intake is adequate. e. Children between 4 and 18 years of age should get at least 50% of their energy from fat. ANS: D 34. Which of the following is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency among U.S. and Canadian children? a. Iron b. Protein c. Calcium d. Vitamin C e. Vitamin A ANS: A 35. Which of the following is a feature of nutrition in childhood? a. Very few children take nutrient supplements of any kind. b. Total energy requirements are higher for a typical 3 year old than a 12 year old. c. Iron-deficiency anemia in children is prevalent in Canada but not the United States due to fortification. d. Children who fail to consume vitamin D-fortified foods should receive a daily supplement of 10 micrograms. e. Vegetarian and vegan diets are unsafe for children. ANS: D 36. Which of the following was a finding of the Feeding Infants and Toddlers Study? a. Most toddlers but not infants consumed insufficient intakes of sodium. b. The most popular food among these population groups was baked potatoes. c. Most infants but not toddlers demonstrated food intake patterns consistent with MyPlate recommendations. d. About one-fourth of the infants and toddlers failed to consume even one serving of fruits or vegetables daily. e. Less than 10% of young preschoolers consumed nutrient-poor, energy-dense beverages, desserts, and snack foods each day. ANS: D 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of hunger and behavior in children? a. Children who fail to eat breakfast typically become hyperactive after eating lunch. b. The nutrient deficit arising from skipping a breakfast is usually made up over the following 2 days. c. Children who eat nutritious breakfasts are absent from school less often than their friends who do not. d. Although breakfast-skippers show reduced attention spans, their scores on intelligence tests remain unaffected. e. While hunger can have short-term effects, there is little evidence for long-term effects. ANS: C 38. Which of the following is characteristic of children who regularly eat breakfast or skip breakfast? a. Breakfast-skippers actually show lower scores on IQ tests than those who eat breakfast. b. Attention spans are similar but a significant number of breakfast-skippers show hyperglycemia. c. Breakfast-skippers initially show decreased mental performance but with time they adapt and show almost identical achievements. d. Breakfast-skippers who change to eating breakfast show a temporary improvement in mental concentration but also a moderate degree of hypoglycemia. e. Children who skip breakfast and often quite thin and malnourished. ANS: A 39. Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency in children? a. It affects brain function before anemia sets in. b. It rarely develops in those with high intakes of milk. c. It is the primary factor in tension-fatigue syndrome. d. Mild deficiency enhances mental performance by lowering physical activity level, thereby leading to increased attention span. e. Children who had iron deficiency as infants recover completely when iron levels are normalized. ANS: A 40. Which of the following is a characteristic of lead exposure and health? a. Absorption of lead is higher on an empty stomach. b. Lead toxicity is most prevalent in children around the time of puberty. c. Lead-induced anemia is similar to the anemia of vitamin B12 deficiency. d. The symptoms of lead toxicity can be reversed by adding iron to the diet. e. Lead exposure is extremely rare in the U.S.. ANS: A 41. What percentage of young school aged children exhibit hyperactivity? a. 5% b. 7% c. 9% d. 11% e. 13% ANS: D 42. What is thought to account, in part, for the rise in the prevalence of peanut allergy? a. Excess sodium consumed as part of the peanuts. b. Roasting peanuts at very high temperatures makes them more allergenic. c. Impaired digestion/absorption resulting from elevated leptin and adiponectin levels. d. Increased inflammation of the immune system due to altered ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids. e. Hyperstimulation of the immune system by multiple vaccines. ANS: B 43. A child who develops antibodies to a certain food is said to have a a. food allergy. b. food intolerance. c. specific inducible episode. d. transient immune suppression. e. histamine inhibition response. ANS: A 44. Which of the following is a characteristic of a food allergy? a. It always elicits symptoms in the person. b. It always involves the production of antibodies. c. It always shows up immediately after exposure to the allergic food. d. It is elicited from very small, simple molecules as well as large, complex molecules. e. It is less severe than an intolerance. ANS: B 45. Which of the following foods are most often the cause of anaphylactic shock? a. Eggs, peanuts, and milk b. Bananas, juice, and cola c. Apples, noodles, and rice d. Pears, oatmeal, and chocolate e. Barley, corn, and quinoa ANS: A 46. What food is responsible for the most life-threatening allergic reactions in people? a. Eggs b. Peanuts c. Shellfish d. Cow's milk e. Soy ANS: B . 47. A life-threatening whole-body allergic reaction is known as a. anaphylactic shock. b. hyperhistamine response. c. hyporespiratory syndrome. d. wheezing food intolerance. e. immunoresponsive allergy. ANS: A 48. A child known to be allergic to peanuts who begins to show signs such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the tongue, and severe abdominal discomfort is most likely in immediate need of a life-saving injection of a. cortisone. b. serotonin. c. epinephrine. d. acetylcholine. e. histamine. ANS: C 49. A child with a true allergy to milk is actually allergic to the milk's a. casein. b. lactose. c. medium-chain fats. d. bovine growth hormone. e. contamination with antibiotics. ANS: A 50. If a child is allergic to soy, which of the following should be avoided? a. Milk b. Diglycerides c. Peanut butter d. Textured vegetable protein e. Seitan ANS: D 51. Approximately what percentage of U.S. children between 2 and 19 years of age are overweight? a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 32 e. 48 ANS: D 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of obesity in childhood? a. The typical obese child does not learn food behaviors from his family. b. A nonobese child of nonobese parents has a less than 10% chance of becoming obese in adulthood. c. An obese adolescent with one obese parent has virtually a 100% chance of becoming obese in adulthood. d. The typical obese child today has approximately the same energy intake as did children 30 years ago. e. Obese children should be put on restrictive diets to reduce their weight as quickly as possible. ANS: B 53. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, what is the recommended maximum number of hours/day of television viewing for a child under 2 years of age? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. 5 ANS: A 54. What population group consumes the most soft drinks each day at school? a. Teenage boys b. Teenage girls c. 10 to 12 year-old boys d. 10 to 12 year-old girls e. 8 to 10 year-old boys and girls ANS: A 55. The typical can of soft drink contains the equivalent of how many teaspoons of sugar? a. 1 b. 3 c. 7 d. 10 e. 16 ANS: D 56. To help improve a child's BMI, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends limiting television and video time for children older than 2 years to how many hours per day? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 ANS: B 57. What is the leading cause of high blood pressure in children? a. Obesity b. High sodium intake c. Insufficient calcium intake d. Insufficient potassium intake e. Excess vitamin E intake ANS: A 58. Which of the following is a feature of nutrition and behavior in children? a. Hyperactivity responds favorably to a low-sugar diet. b. The adverse effects from caffeine first appear only after drinking 6 cans of cola in one day. c. Television commercials featuring snack foods have been found to affect children's food preferences. d. Because most children are sensitive to the stimulating effects of caffeine, they are able to control their intake of cola beverages. e. Research indicates a strong relationship between food dyes and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. ANS: C 59. Which of the following is an effective strategy for dealing with obesity in a child? a. Encourage the individual to eat quickly and then leave the table. b. Institute new eating habits such as teaching the individual to clean the food plate. c. Engage the individual in at least 1 hour per day of moderate to vigorous physical activity. d. Take control and strongly encourage the individual to lose weight by limiting food intake and exercising vigorously. e. Behavior modification programs that reward healthy choices and punish unhealthy choices. ANS: C 60. Who is best able to manage the growth and weight gain of overweight children? a. School nurse b. Parents/caregivers c. Health-care professional d. School physical education instructor e. Peers ANS: C 61. Even in preschoolers whose habits are being established, existing dietary attitudes are relatively resistant to change. How should wise parents react? a. Be patient and persistent. b. Impose their own eating habits on the children. c. Wait until the children start school to initiate changes. d. Exert continuous pressure to initiate good food habits. e. Punish inappropriate eating behavior. ANS: A 62. If a child is reluctant to try a new food, it is best to a. send the child to his/her room. b. withhold dessert until all food on the plate is eaten. c. quietly remove it and present it again at another time. d. encourage other family members to coax the child to eat it. e. ignore the child until he or she eats it. ANS: C 63. When children are allowed to eat freely from a variety of foods, they usually select foods that are high in a. iron. b. fiber. c. sugar. d. protein. e. fat. ANS: C 64. What minimum fraction of the RDA for key nutrients for children 10-12 years of age should be provided by public school lunches? a. 1/8 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 e. 2/3 ANS: C 65. One factor that has limited the success of the School Breakfast Program is that a. the cost is prohibitive. b. the meals are not nutritious. c. children simply do not participate in it. d. fewer than 10% of the nation's schools participate in it. e. many pediatricians oppose it. ANS: C 66. Which of the following is a characteristic of the adolescent period? a. Obesity occurs more often in African-American females. b. Appetite for red meat increases in females to meet iron needs. c. More nutrient-dense foods are needed by males because of their faster development. d. The risk for calcium insufficiency is greatest in males due to their high intake of soft drinks. e. The adolescent growth spurt begins around age 12 for females and 10 for males. ANS: A 67. Girls younger than the age of 14 who have started to menstruate, need additional ____ milligrams of iron per day. a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 2.5 e. 3 ANS: D 68. Which of the following is a feature of beverage intake in adolescents? a. Juice intake is spread throughout the day. b. Milk intake occurs primarily between meals. c. Males typically drink less milk than females. d. Four standard colas a day provides enough caffeine to alter behavior. e. Soft drinks are typically consumed in addition to milk, not instead of it. ANS: D 69. Approximately what fraction of an average teenager's daily energy intake is derived from snacks? a. 1/4 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 3/4 ANS: A 70. About how many meals each week are eaten outside the home by adolescents? a. 3 b. 7 c. 10 d. 14 e. 18 ANS: B COMPLETION 1. After the age of ____________________ years, children can be transitioned to fat-free milk if care is taken to avoid excessive restriction of dietary fat. ANS: 2; two 2. No single nutrient is more essential to growth than ____________________. ANS: protein 3. The component of breast milk that inhibits the development of inflammatory bowel disease and supports a healthy epithelial barrier is ____________________. ANS: transforming growth factor-beta 4. ____________________ in breast milk help to establish and maintain growth of desired bacteria in gastrointestinal tract and inhibit pathogen attachment to the intestinal mucosa. ANS: Oligosaccharides 5. Honey should never be fed to infants because of the risk of ____________________. ANS: botulism 6. Limited research suggests that food additives such as ____________________ preservative may exacerbate hyperactive symptoms such as inattention and impulsivity in some children. ANS: sodium benzoate 7. A true ____________________ occurs when fractions of a food protein or other large molecule are absorbed into the blood and elicit an immunologic response. ANS: food allergy 8. Adverse reactions to foods that do not involve the immune system are called ___________________. ANS: food intolerances 9. ____________________, the over-the-counter version of orlistat, should not be given to anyone younger than age 18. ANS: Alli 10. ____________________ is a craving to consume nonfood items. ANS: Pica
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Chapter 16 - Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence
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1. Approximately what fraction of the U.S. population is at least 65 years old? a. 1/100 b. 1/30 c. 1/10 d. 1/8 e. 1/3 ANS: D 2. What is the fastest-growing age group in the United States? a. 21-34 years b. 35-49 years c. 50-64 d. 65-84 years e. Over 85 years ANS: D 3. What is the life expectancy of black males and females in the United States? a. 72 (males), 78 years (females) b. 78 (males), 85 years (females) c. 81 (males), 86 years (females) d. 85 (males), 89 years (females) e. 90 (males), 93 years (females) ANS: A 4. What was the average life expectancy of a person born in the year 1900? a. 47 years b. 55 years c. 61 years d. 68 years e. 71 years ANS: A 5. What is the life expectancy of white males and females in the United States? a. 62 (males), 68 years (females) b. 77 (males), 81 years (females) c. 82 (males), 86 years (females) d. 87 (males), 90 years (females) e. 89 (males), 93 years (females) ANS: B 6. Approximately how many years is the maximum human life span? a. 75 b. 100 c. 115 d. 130 e. 145 ANS: D 7. Once a woman reaches the age of 75 years, about how many more years of survival would be expected? a. 9 b. 11 c. 13 d. 15 e. 17 ANS: C 8. Longevity is defined as a. long duration of life. b. a person's age in years from date of birth. c. maximum number of years of life attainable by a species. d. average number of years lived by people in a given society. e. the years of life left for someone who has attained a given age. ANS: A 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of the response to stress? a. Men often follow a pattern of "tend-and-befriend" b. Women usually engage in the "fight-or-flight" response c. Older men and women tend to lose their ability to adapt to stress d. Common psychological stressors in older people include alcohol abuse and smoking e. The physiologic responses triggered by stress decrease the likelihood of physical responses to the stressors ANS: C 10. By 2030, what proportion of the U.S. population is expected to be 65 years of age or older? a. 1 in 7 b. 1 in 6 c. 1 in 5 d. 1 in 4 e. 1 in 3 ANS: C 11. The CDC recommends older adults engage in strength training at least two (non-consecutive) days a week, at a moderate to high intensity for ____ repetitions. a. 5-10 b. 10-15 c. 15-20 d. 20-25 e. 25-30 ANS: B 12. What would be the physiological age of a 75-year-old woman whose physical health is equivalent to that of her 50-year-old daughter, whose physical health is average for her age? a. 25 years c. 70 years b. 50 years d. 125 years ANS: B 13. What is the most important predictor of a person's mobility in the later years? a. BMI b. Alcohol use c. Chronological age d. Regular physical activity e. Good genes ANS: D 14. Which of the following is a finding from studies of diet restriction in rats? a. Restriction of specific nutrients exerted antiaging effects b. Energy-restricted diets led to life extension in 90% of the rats c. Energy-restricted diets led to lowering of the metabolic rate and body temperature d. Restriction of food intake only after rats reached maturity, but not before, resulted in extension of the life span e. Although early research was encouraging, more recent research has found that the effects are much smaller than hoped ANS: C 15. Which of the following is a feature of energy intake and longevity? a. Improvements in longevity with energy restriction depend on reducing energy intake but not on the amount of body fat b. Restriction of energy intake in genetically obese animals does not seem to improve longevity c. Biochemical markers for longevity in humans are improved only when energy intake is reduced by at least one-third d. The activities of the genes of older mice on energy-restricted diets are similar to those of mice on standard diets e. Research with humans has found a substantial increase in longevity with a 5% reduction in energy intake ANS: A 16. What minimum reduction from the usual intake of energy in people brings about measurable improvements in body fat, blood pressure, insulin response, and blood lipids? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% e. 30% ANS: A 17. People who persistently restrict energy intake by 30% for 30 years can expect to increase longevity by up to how many years? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 e. 15 ANS: A 18. In people who practice energy restriction to prolong life, hunger becomes persistent when kcal intake first drops by what percentage? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50 ANS: C 19. Which of the following is a proposed mechanism for energy restriction and improved longevity in animals? a. Reduced oxidative stress b. Increased metabolic rate c. Enhanced lipid oxidation d. Accelerated growth and development e. Decreased physiologic arousal to stress ANS: A 20. Which of the following is a feature of the stress response in men and women? a. Women's general reactions to stress are different than those of men. b. The ability to respond is weaker in older women compared with older men. c. The secretion of epinephrine is suppressed in elderly women compared with elderly men. d. Psychological stressors such as divorce or death of a loved one are handled much less well by elderly men compared with elderly women. e. There are no clinically important differences in men's and women's responses to stress. ANS: A 21. For adults older than ____, mortality is lowest among individuals who are moderately overweight (BMI 23.5-27.5) a. 45 b. 55 c. 65 d. 75 e. 85 ANS: C 22. What is sarcopenia? a. Loss of central visual activity b. Loss of muscle mass and strength c. Aging-induced chronic inflammation of the stomach d. Intestinal dysmotility from excessive use of laxatives e. Paralysis of GI tract muscles ANS: B 23. Which of the following is a characteristic of aging and the immune system? a. Immunity in older people does not seem to be affected by regular exercise. b. In the United States, infectious diseases are a minor cause of deaths in the elderly. c. Immune function does not decline with age in people who maintain good nutrition. d. Antibiotics are often ineffective in treating infections in older people who have deficient immune systems. e. In elderly persons, nutritional status rarely influences immune functioning. ANS: D 24. Which of the following terms describes an immune system that is inefficient and overactive in the aged? a. Inflammaging b. Dysphagic cell mass c. Sarcopenic undermining d. Endentulous-induced wasting e. Cachexia of aging ANS: A 25. A person with dysphagia has a. no teeth. b. low immunity. c. difficulty swallowing. d. diminished muscle mass. e. impaired cognitive function. ANS: C 26. A person who is edentulous has a. no teeth. b. low immunity. c. difficulty swallowing. d. diminished muscle mass. e. limited lower body mobility. ANS: A 27. What fraction of eligible seniors participate in the SNAP? a. 1/4 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 3/4 ANS: B 28. The evidence from studies to date shows that nutritional interventions designed to relieve depression a. may or may not be effective. b. are mildly effective. c. are moderately effective. d. are greatly effective. e. may worsen depression in very old individuals. ANS: A 29. The calcium Dietary Reference Intake for women 50 and older is a. 800 mg. b. 1000 mg. c. 1200 mg. d. 1400 mg. e. 1600 mg. ANS: C 30. A person with a pressure ulcer has damage to her a. skin. b. colon. c. mouth. d. stomach. e. small intestine. ANS: A 31. Approximately what percentage decline in basal metabolism is seen in an 80-year-old person compared with a 40-year-old? a. 1-2 b. 2-4 c. 4-8 d. 8-16 e. 16-24 ANS: C 32. Approximately what percentage decline in total energy expenditure is seen in a 70 year old versus a 30 year old? a. 2 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 e. 40 ANS: C 33. Which of the following describes the nutrient needs of older people? a. They vary according to individual histories. b. They remain the same as in young adult life. c. They increase; therefore, supplementation is required. d. They decrease for vitamins and minerals due to changes in body composition. e. They rarely change from middle-age onward. ANS: A 34. Which of the following is a feature of elderly people and water metabolism? a. They may not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth. b. They have a higher total body water content compared with younger adults. c. They show increased frequency of urination, which results in higher requirements. d. They frequently show symptoms of overhydration such as mental lapses and disorientation. e. Overhydration increases risk of pressure ulcers and urinary tract infections. ANS: A 35. What is the minimum number of glasses of water per day recommended for older adults? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 e. 12 ANS: B 36. What percentage of older adults live in poverty? a. 7 b. 9 c. 11 d. 13 e. 15 ANS: B . 37. Adults aged 71 and older who engage in minimal outdoor activity need ____ micrograms of vitamin D daily. a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30 e. 35 ANS: B 38. Which of the following is a research finding on vitamin D nutrition in the elderly? a. Self-synthesis capacity is high. b. The skin's capacity to synthesize the vitamin is reduced. c. The presence of atrophic gastritis reduces bioavailability of the vitamin. d. Symptoms of deficiency include dermatitis and diminished taste acuity. e. Deficiency is rarely a problem. ANS: B 39. Which of the following is a feature of vitamin D nutrition in the elderly? a. Most elderly receive near-RDA amounts of the vitamin. b. Aging reduces the kidneys' ability to convert vitamin D to its active form. c. The RDA for vitamin D in the elderly is lower due to less excretion by the kidneys. d. Most elderly rely primarily on self-synthesis of the vitamin due to their greater time spent outdoors. e. Elderly individuals need at least 40 micrograms per day. ANS: B 40. Which of the following is a feature of calcium nutrition in the elderly? a. The DRI is 800-1000 mg. b. Calcium intakes are well below recommendations. c. Calcium supplements are not effective sources of calcium due to poor digestibility. d. Calcium from food is not well absorbed due to the intake of calcium-binding laxatives. e. An elderly individual who lacks sufficient calcium stores can rarely be helped by supplementation. ANS: B 41. Which of the following statements describes one aspect of mineral nutrition of older adults? a. Zinc intake is adequate for about 95% of this group. b. Iron absorption is reduced due to low stomach acidity. c. Calcium intakes of females are near the RDA for this group. d. Calcium allowances for this group have recently been increased by the Committee on Dietary Reference Intakes. e. Folate excesses are fairly common. ANS: B 42. A condition that increases the likelihood of iron deficiency in older people is a. lack of intrinsic factor. b. loss of iron due to menopause. c. blood loss from yearly physical testing procedures. d. poor iron absorption due to reduced stomach acid secretion and/or use of antacids. e. the body's need for iron increases well into old age. ANS: D 43. Which of the following is a feature of zinc nutrition in the elderly? a. Zinc intake is insufficient in older people. b. Excess zinc from supplements blunts the taste buds. c. Zinc deficiency stimulates the appetite for high-fat foods. d. Most medications affect zinc excretion but not absorption. e. Excess zinc increases the risk of pneumonia. ANS: A 44. Which of the following is a characteristic of nutrition and cataract formation? a. Obese and lean people have the same risk for cataracts. b. Adequate intakes of biotin and inositol seem to delay the onset of cataract formation. c. Nutrition seems to play little, if any, role in the onset of cataracts. d. Vitamin C supplements in doses of 1,000 mg for several years appear to raise the risk for cataracts. e. Antioxidant supplements appear to slow the progression of cataracts. ANS: D 45. What are the thickenings that occur to the lenses of the eye, thereby affecting vision, especially in the elderly? a. Retinitis b. Keratoids c. Cataracts d. Rhodolipids e. Glaucoma ANS: C . 46. What proportion of persons in the U.S., age 65 and older, have a cataract? a. About 1 in 50 b. About 1 in 20 c. About 1 in 10 d. About 1 in 5 e. More than half ANS: E 47. What organ is affected by macular degeneration? a. Bone b. Eyes c. Liver d. Kidneys e. Spinal cord ANS: B 48. Which of the following foods seems to relieve rheumatoid arthritis in some people? a. Milk b. Olive oil c. Iodized salt d. Refined cereals e. Beef and pork ANS: B 49. Which of the following types of diets has been shown to prevent or reduce arthritis inflammation? a. High in simple sugars, low in canned fruit b. High in animal protein, low in canned fruit c. Low in polyunsaturated fat, high in oleic acid d. Low in saturated fat, high in omega-3 fatty acids e. High in animal protein and both omega-3 fatty acids and oleic acid ANS: D 50. What disorder is associated with the body's breakdown of purines? a. Gout b. Dysphagia c. Sarcopenia d. Senile dementia e. Macular degeneration ANS: A 51. What is thought to be the most important nutrition concern for people with Alzheimer's disease? a. Maintenance of appropriate body weight b. Ensuring adequate intakes of antioxidant nutrients and DHA c. Monitoring intake of medications that may interfere with nutrient bioavailability d. Treatment for iron overload to prevent formation of new neurofibrillary tangles e. Taking vitamin and mineral supplements appropriate for dementia treatment ANS: A 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of alcohol use in the elderly? a. Binge drinking is more frequent in the elderly than in younger persons. b. The proportion of binge drinkers in greater in the elderly than any other age group. c. In elderly individuals, unlike in younger individuals, alcohol use is not associated with other risky behavior such as illicit drug use. d. Alcohol withdrawal is much more difficult for older persons than for younger persons. e. Elderly individuals are rarely successfully treated for alcohol abuse and dependence. ANS: A 53. Which of the following is thought to promote the development of brain senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles? a. Oxidative stress b. Excess acetylcholine c. Dietary deficiency of choline d. Low blood levels of homocysteine e. Inability to adequately metabolize protein ANS: A 54. Approximately what percentage of U.S. adults are affected by Alzheimer's disease after age 65? a. 1 b. 5 c. 12 d. 33 e. 50 ANS: C 55. What is the main reason for dieting in the elderly? a. To economize when food prices increase b. To improve appearance among their peers c. To pursue a medical goal such as reducing blood glucose d. To reduce risks for development of atrophic gastritis and pernicious anemia e. Unintentionally, as a result of depression or dementia ANS: C 56. Which of the following is a feature of food choices and eating habits of older people? a. The quality of life among older people has not improved since 1995. b. Older people spend less money on foods to eat at home than younger people. c. People over 65 are less likely to diet to lose weight than are younger people. d. Most older people think of themselves as generally unhappy and in poor health. e. Older people tend to be adventuresome eaters who enjoy breaking away from traditional foods. ANS: C 57. What is a congregate meal? a. A meal provided for the elderly in a place such as a community center b. A meal prepared for the elderly that meets one-third of the Dietary Recommended Intakes c. A meal prepared for disadvantaged people of all ages to encourage communal gathering of diverse population groups d. A meal provided through the Nutrition Screening Initiative for the elderly and served primarily to church congregations e. A meal prepared by a community organization and delivered to home-bound individuals where they live ANS: A 58. Which of the following is true of food assistance programs for older Americans? a. Persons aged 70 and older are eligible. b. There are no income limits for eligibility. c. Meals on Wheels is generally preferred to congregate meals. d. Meals on Wheels requires that individuals be permanently disabled in order to receive meals. e. Congregate meals and Meals on Wheels are funded by the Social Security Administration. ANS: B 59. Which of the following is a program that provides low-income older adults with coupons that are exchangeable for fresh vegetables and fruits at community-supported farmers' markets and roadside stands? a. Senior Farmers Market Nutrition Program b. Food Security for the Disadvantaged Elderly c. Old Age and Survivors Health Benefits Program d. Elderly Nutrition and Maintenance Food Co-Op e. Eldercare Food Assistance ANS: A 60. Which of the following would be the most effective substitute for fresh milk for the elderly person living alone? a. UHT milk b. Low-cost expired milk c. Calcium carbonate tablets d. Greens with highly bioavailable calcium e. Sweetened condensed milk ANS: A 61. What percentage of all prescription drugs sold in the United States is taken by people over 65 years of age? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50 ANS: D 62. How does aspirin reduce inflammation and pain? a. It acts as a sedative and barbiturate. b. It promotes wound healing and blood clotting. c. It interferes with the synthesis of prostaglandins. d. It binds to nerve receptors involved in pain perception. e. It stimulates endorphin release. ANS: C 63. What are the known consequences of taking a single two-tablet dose of aspirin? a. It inhibits monoamine oxidase activity. b. It doubles the bleeding time of wounds. c. It increases production of prostaglandins that enhance fever. d. It is excreted very rapidly in people taking vitamin C supplements. e. In it insufficient to reduce risk of heart attack in at-risk individuals. ANS: B 64. What is the primary action of the medication megestrol acetate? a. It relieves depression. b. It promotes weight loss. c. It promotes weight gain. d. It lowers blood pressure. e. It is used to treat moderate dementia. ANS: C 65. What nutrient is known to interfere significantly with the utilization of the antibiotic tetracycline? a. EPA b. Zinc c. Calcium d. Vitamin B12 e. Sodium ANS: C 66. What is a common side effect from taking certain prescription drugs and consuming grapefruit juice? a. A metallic taste in the mouth appears. b. Blood concentrations of the drugs increase. c. The bioavailability of the drugs falls substantially. d. The bioflavonoids in the juice bind to the drugs and promote formation of uric acid crystals. e. Absorption is greatly reduced. ANS: B 67. Which of the following is a feature of warfarin use and vitamin K utilization? a. Warfarin blocks vitamin K absorption. b. Orange juice intake interferes with warfarin's effects on vitamin K. c. Dietary vitamin K intake determines the amount of warfarin prescribed. d. The tyramine content of aged meats interferes with binding of vitamin K to warfarin. e. Vitamin K can dangerously potentiate warfarin's anticlotting actions. ANS: C 68. Your father was recently prescribed an anticoagulant medicine and was surprised that the doctor advised him to maintain consumption of consistent amounts of green leafy vegetables every day. You inform your father that a. these vegetables significantly reduce absorption of the drug. b. these vegetables significantly increase absorption of the drug. c. variable intake of green leafy vegetables will affect activity of monoamine oxidase inhibitors. d. inconsistent intakes of green leafy vegetables will interfere with the regular action of the drug. e. he is confused - green leafy vegetable intake is unrelated to anticoagulant action. ANS: D 69. Which of the following foods in particular must be restricted in the diet of a person taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor drug? a. Red meat b. Aged cheeses c. Fresh fish d. Cruciferous vegetables e. Chocolate ANS: B 70. What ingredient commonly used as an additive in liquid medicines often causes diarrhea? a. Sorbitol b. Maltose c. Saccharin d. Aspartame e. Lactulose ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ____________________ is the average number of years lived by people in a given society. ANS: Life expectancy 2. ____________________ is the maximum number of years of life attainable by a member of a species. ANS: Life span 3. ____________________ is a person's perceived physical and mental well-being. ANS: Quality of life 4. ____________________ is a person's age as estimated from her or his body's health and probable life expectancy. ANS: Physiological age 5. ____________________ are damage to the skin and underlying tissues as a result of compression and poor circulation. ANS: Pressure ulcers 6. Any threat to a person's well-being or a demand placed on the body to adapt is referred to as ____________________. ANS: stress 7. The medical term for loss of skeletal muscle mass, strength, and quality is ____________________. ANS: sarcopenia 8. The combination of an inefficient and overactive response in aging—known as "____________________"—results in a chronic inflammation that accompanies frailty, illness, and death . ANS: inflammaging 9. Difficulty swallowing is called ____________________. ANS: dysphagia 10. The medical term for a person who lacks teeth is ____________________. ANS: edentulous
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Chapter 17 - Life Cycle Nutrition: Adulthood and the Later Years
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1. What are cytokines? a. Scavengers of the immune system b. Specialized antibodies that retain B-cell memory c. Specialized proteins that activate responses to infection d. Highly specific cells that attack only one type of antigen e. Lymphocytes that produce antibodies ANS: C 2. Immunoglobulins are produced primarily by a. T-cells. b. B-cells. c. antigens. d. phagocytes. e. NK-cells. ANS: B 3. The process by which immune cells engulf and then destroy bacteria is known as a. bactocytosis. b. phagocytosis. c. cytotoxicosis. d. immunoglobinemia. e. immunocytosis. ANS: B 4. The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as a. antigens. b. antibodies. c. antitoxins. d. immunoglobulins. e. symbionts. ANS: A 5. Which of the following is a feature of AIDS? a. It has no cure. b. Its prevention depends on good nutrition. c. It cannot pass from mother to infant during breastfeeding. d. It is among the 10 leading causes of death in the United States. e. There has been very limited progress made in finding effective treatments. ANS: A 6. What is the role of omega-3 fatty acids in immune functioning? a. Maintain healthy skin and other epithelial tissues as barriers to infection. b. Regulate T-cell responses. c. Help to resolve inflammation when it is no longer needed for the immune response. d. Participate in antibody production. e. Helps maintain an effective immune response. ANS: C 7. Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition? a. one b. two c. four d. five e. eight ANS: C 8. Which of the following risk factors for disease may be modified by diet? a. Age b. Gender c. Heredity d. Low HDL level e. Race ANS: D 9. What is the term given to the accumulation of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develops in the artery walls? a. Plaques b. Angina streaks c. Arterial thickening d. Pre-thromboemboli e. Lipid tangles ANS: A 10. The most common form of cardiovascular disease is a. stroke. b. atheromatous disease. c. coronary heart disease. d. hypertensive aneurysm. e. congestive heart failure. ANS: C 11. By what age do most people first have well-developed arterial plaque? a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 e. 60 ANS: B 12. Which of the following is a feature of atherosclerosis? a. It is characterized by inflammation in all stages. b. It is improved by high blood homocysteine levels. c. It is characterized by infiltration of platelets in the arterial wall. d. It is worsened by elevated blood high-density lipoproteins. e. It is the second most common cause of coronary heart disease. ANS: A 13. The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(n) a. aorta. b. plaque. c. aneurysm. d. diverticula. e. pouch. ANS: C 14. A person's level of C-reactive protein appears to be a strong predictor for a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. a heart attack. d. HIV progression. e. rheumatoid arthritis progression. ANS: C 15. Which of the following may be classified as a risk factor for coronary heart disease? a. BMI of 26 b. Low LDL-cholesterol levels c. High HDL-cholesterol levels d. High C-reactive protein levels e. Low blood triglyceride (VLDL) levels ANS: D 16. In the development of plaque, what is thought to be responsible for oxidation of LDL cholesterol during the inflammatory phase? a. Free radicals b. Beta-blockers c. P-reactive protein (PRP) d. Lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A e. Cytokines ANS: A 17. The obstruction of a blood vessel by a clot that broke away from arterial plaque is termed a. an anginism. b. an embolism. c. circulatory hypoxia. d. a de-plaquing event. e. plaque rupture. ANS: B 18. A significant reduction in blood flow to the brain is termed a. angina. b. a stroke. c. a vascular event. d. metabolic syndrome. e. Chiari event. ANS: B 19. Which of the following blood pressure readings first signifies a diagnosis of hypertension? a. 110 over 50 b. 120 over 70 c. 130 over 80 d. 140 over 90 e. 150 over 100 ANS: D 20. What disease accounts for the majority of deaths in U.S. women? a. Diabetes b. Lung cancer c. Breast cancer d. Coronary heart disease e. Stroke ANS: D 21. Which of the following is true of coronary heart disease (CHD)? a. By age 20, half of the adults in the United States have at least one major risk factor for CHD. b. Women who take estrogen to reduce the risk for osteoporosis are at significantly higher risk for CHD. c. Aging becomes a significant risk factor for women who are 75 and older. d. Women younger than 45 years of age tend to have higher LDL cholesterol than do men of that age, but this difference disappears after menopause. e. Levels of the amino acid homocysteine, which protects artery walls, are typically higher in women than in men. ANS: A 22. What proportion of adults in the U.S. have high blood triglycerides? a. 1/10 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 e. 2/3 ANS: C 23. What is prehypertension? a. A predictor of stroke risk b. Slightly high blood pressure c. A precursor for Syndrome X d. A component of the metabolic syndrome e. A cluster of risk factors that predict the likelihood of hypertension ANS: B 24. What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis? a. HDL b. LDL c. HDK d. VLDK e. NK ANS: B 25. Which of the following is considered a desirable blood level for triglycerides? a. 60 mg/dl. ANS: E 28. Which of the following is true of progress in the treatment and prevention of CHD in the United States? a. Mortality rates have increased among men. b. CHD is no longer the number 1 cause of death in women. c. Blood cholesterol levels have been declining since 1960. d. By age 45, about 1/3 of adults have at least one major risk factor for CHD, down from 1/2 20 years ago. e. Efforts to reduce CHD incidence by reducing cigarette smoking have largely failed. ANS: C 29. What should be the next course of action for a person who was unsuccessful in lowering LDL or blood pressure by lifestyle changes? a. Obtain prescription medications. b. Consider coronary bypass surgery. c. Obtain regular nutrition counseling. d. Consider gastric surgery to reduce body weight. e. Try again with a more stringent diet and exercise program. ANS: A 30. Among the following, which should be the first action taken to lower blood cholesterol? a. Begin drug treatment. b. Consume a high-protein diet. c. Consume large amounts of fish and fish oils. d. Achieve and maintain appropriate body weight. e. Increase alcohol intake and/or use an antianxiety medication. ANS: D 31. Approximately what proportion of people in the United States are believed to have hypertension? a. 1/10 b. 1/5 c. 1/4 d. 1/3 e. 1/2 ANS: D 32. What is the best predictor for risk of a stroke? a. Blood pressure b. LDL-cholesterol c. HDL-cholesterol d. Trans-fatty acid intake e. Family history ANS: A 33. Which of the following is a characteristic of factors associated with hypertension? a. Most people with hypertension have BMIs <25. b. Most people with hypertension are extremely salt sensitive. c. Three to four alcohol drinks per day lowers risk for hypertension. d. African Americans develop high blood pressure earlier in life and their average blood pressure is higher than others. e. About 1/3 of people 65 and older have hypertension. ANS: D 34. Hypertension contributes to an estimated ____ strokes in the U.S. each year. a. 400,000 b. 600,000 c. 800,000 d. 1,000,000 e. 1,200,000 ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 18.4 Hypertension OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.18.4 Present strategies to lower blood pressure. 35. Which of the following is the most likely reason that a blood pressure reading should be repeated before confirming a diagnosis of hypertension? a. The person reacted emotionally to the procedure. b. Blood pressure measuring devices often give inaccurate readings. c. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too tightly on the arm. d. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too loosely on the arm. e. The person failed to fast before the test was performed. ANS: A 36. How does obesity increase the risk for developing hypertension? a. Obesity is associated with altered kidney function and fluid retention leading to higher blood pressure. b. The excess fat pads surrounding the kidneys impair blood flow to these organs and lead to a higher output of renin. c. Sodium intake in obese people significantly exceeds the recommended intake, thereby predisposing them to higher blood pressure. d. Higher lipoprotein lipase activity in obese people triggers the angiotensin cascade, leading to increased peripheral resistance to blood flow. e. Obesity alters inflammatory responses, which in turn alters the elasticity of arterial walls. ANS: A 37. The lifetime percent risk of developing hypertension later in life when the blood pressure is normal at age 55 is a. 10. b. 25. c. 50. d. 75. e. 90. ANS: E 38. Peripheral resistance is the resistance blood encounters in the a. veins. b. arteries. c. venules. d. arterioles. e. heart. ANS: D 39. Which of the following statements describes lifestyle modifications suggested to treat high blood pressure? a. Three alcohol drinks per day decreases the risk for developing high blood pressure. b. Optimal body mass in from 25.0 to 29.9. c. Sodium intake should be reduced to 1500 mg among persons who are 51 and older. d. Perform aerobic physical activity for at least 90 minutes per day, most days of the week. e. Recommended sodium intakes are higher for African Americans than for other groups. ANS: C 40. Among the following lifestyle changes, which is least effective at reducing blood pressure? a. Adopting the DASH eating plan b. Limiting daily alcohol intake to 1-2 drinks c. Reducing body weight to achieve a BMI of less than 25 d. Performing physical exercise for 30 minutes per day, 5 days a week e. Restricting sodium to less than 2500 mg per day ANS: B 41. Which of the following describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure? a. People with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive. b. Lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups. c. People less 30 years of age are most likely to be salt-sensitive. d. Weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure. e. Of all racial groups, whites tend to be most salt sensitive. ANS: D 42. People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of a. sodium. b. calcium. c. potassium. d. phosphate. e. manganese. ANS: C 43. Diuretics act to lower blood pressure by a. increasing fluid loss. b. decreasing potassium loss. c. reducing arterial plaque formation. d. increasing retention of calcium and potassium. e. increasing stroke volume. ANS: A 44. Which of the following is a characteristic of drug therapy for hypertension? a. Antihypertensive drugs called diuretics work by lowering blood volume. b. The most frequently prescribed drug therapies are DASH inhibitors. c. Most people with hypertension need only one medicine to reduce blood pressure.. d. Major side effects of antihypertensive drugs are depletion of body sodium and phosphorus. e. Unless weight is also reduced, antihypertensive drugs are unlikely to reduce blood pressure. ANS: A 45. Which of the following is a difference between DASH and USDA recommendations? a. USDA has a higher intake recommendation for grains. b. DASH has a higher recommendation for milk. c. DASH has a separate recommendation for seeds, nuts and legumes. d. USDA has a higher intake recommendation for lean meats, poultry, and fish e. USDA has a higher intake recommendation for fruits. ANS: C 46. A person who hasn't consumed anything except water for the past 8 hours has a blood glucose concentration of 101 mg/dL. This person would be classified as a. normal. b. diabetic. c. prediabetic. d. impaired glucose tolerant. e. hypoglycemic. ANS: C 47. Among the leading causes of death in the United States diabetes ranks number a. 1. b. 3. c. 5. d. 7. e. 9. ANS: D 48. What is believed to be the primary cause of type 1 diabetes? a. Defect in insulin sensitivity b. Excessive body weight gain c. Defect of the immune system d. Excessive intake of simple carbohydrates e. Environmental toxins ANS: C 49. In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin? a. Hyperglycemia b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus c. Type 2 diabetes mellitus d. Adult-onset diabetes mellitus e. Hypoglycemia ANS: B 50. Type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach the age of a. 21. b. 30. c. 40. d. 55. e. 65. ANS: C 51. What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1? a. 5-10 b. 10-15 c. 15-20 d. 20-25 e. 25-30 ANS: A 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes? a. It is an autoimmune disorder. b. It occurs exclusively in people under 40 years of age. c. It must be treated by daily oral intake of insulin pills. d. It accounts for approximately 50% of all cases of diabetes. e. It is typically preceded by metabolic syndrome. ANS: A 53. Most people with type 2 diabetes have a. sarcopenia. b. osteoporosis. c. excess body fat. d. insulin dependency. e. relative insulin excess. ANS: C 54. Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells? a. Hypoglycemia b. Atherosclerosis c. Type 1 diabetes d. Type 2 diabetes e. Juvenile diabetes ANS: D 55. Insulin resistance is defined as a. reduced sensitivity of cells to blood insulin. b. impaired secretion of insulin by the pancreas. c. increased destruction of insulin-producing cells. d. increased persistence of insulin molecules in the blood. e. relative excess of insulin-binding proteins in muscle tissue. ANS: A 56. A complication of diabetes is blurry vision, which results from swelling of the lenses of the eye caused by conversion of excess glucose to a. sugar alcohols. b. glycated fructose. c. long-chain ketones. d. glycated corneal membranes. e. glycoproteins. ANS: A 57. The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as a. polyuria. b. polyphagia. c. polyuresis. d. pseudodiuresis. e. enuresis. ANS: A 58. The excessive thirst common in diabetes is known as a. hydration. b. polyuresis. c. polydipsia. d. hyperhydration. e. paradoxical thirst. ANS: C 59. Microangiopathies are disorders of the a. kidneys. b. pancreas. c. capillaries. d. coronary vessels. e. eyes. ANS: C 60. Which of the following is a leading cause of both blindness and kidney failure? a. Cancer b. Diabetes c. HIV/AIDS d. Atherosclerosis e. Stroke ANS: B 61. In the otherwise stable person with type 1 diabetes, a potential problem associated with physical activity is a. hypoglycemia. b. hyperglycemia. c. nausea and vomiting. d. temporary kidney shutdown. e. sudden-onset blindness. ANS: A 62. Which of the following describes the actions of a carcinogen? a. Initiates cancer b. Inhibits cancer c. Treats cancer d. Acts as an antipromoter e. Stimulates tumor necrosis ANS: A 63. A tumor that releases cells, leading to the spread of cancer to other regions of the body, is said to a. promote. b. augment. c. metastasize. d. infiltrate downstream. e. become necrotic. ANS: C 64. A substance that causes cancer is best termed a(n) a. carcinogen. b. antipromoter. c. DNA-modifier. d. RNA-modifier. e. mutagen ANS: A 65. The higher risk for breast cancer in obese women after menopause is thought to result mainly from chronic exposure to a. estrogen. b. aflatoxin. c. high-fat diets. d. sedentary lifestyles. e. progesterone. ANS: A 66. Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in formation of the highest amounts of carcinogens? a. Broiling b. Roasting c. Marinating before cooking d. Wrapping the food in foil when cooking e. Steaming ANS: A 67. Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer? a. Fiber b. Inositol and biotin c. Certain saturated fats d. Protein from animal sources e. Certain sugars ANS: A 68. Which of the following foods is known to be a protective factor for esophageal cancer? a. Alcoholic beverages b. Nonstarchy vegetables c. Mate tea d. Broiled meats e. Salted fish ANS: B 69. What is ayurveda? a. A system that combines biofeedback with hypnosis b. An oriental plant that suppresses colon and breast tumor growth c. A Hindu system for enhancing the body's ability to prevent illness and to heal itself d. A variation of standard acupuncture technique that applies electromagnetic impulses to the needles e. A manual healing method that directs a healing force from an outside source ANS: C 70. What is the name of the cancer-treatment substance first extracted from the bark of old Pacific yew trees (and now synthesized in the laboratory)? a. Ephedra b. Paclitaxel c. Kombucha d. Germanium e. Echinacea purpurea ANS: B COMPLETION 1. ____________________ are large proteins of the blood and body fluids, produced by the immune system in response to the invasion of the body by foreign molecules. ANS: Antibodies 2. ____________________ are special proteins that direct immune and inflammatory responses. ANS: Cytokines 3. ____________________ are white blood cells, including B-cells and T-cells, which participate in acquired immunity. ANS: Lymphocytes 4. ____________________ are large phagocytic cells that serve as scavengers of the blood, clearing it of old or abnormal cells, cellular debris, and antigens. ANS: Macrophages 5. AIDS develops from infection by ____________________. ANS: human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) HIV human immunodeficiency virus 6. The most common form of cardiovascular disease is ____________________. ANS: coronary heart disease (CHD) 7. The abnormal bulging of a blood vessel wall is called a(n) ____________________ . ANS: aneurysm 8. High levels of ____________________ have proved to more accurately predict future heart attack than high LDL cholesterol. ANS: C-reactive protein (CRP) C-reactive protei CRP 9. A clot that breaks free from an artery wall and travels through the circulatory system until it lodges in a small artery and suddenly shuts off blood flow to the tissues is called a(n) ____________________. ANS: embolism 10. Pain and pressure in the area around the heart is called ____________________. ANS: angina
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Chapter 18 - Diet and Health
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1. The potential of a substance to harm someone is known as a. a hazard. b. toxicity. c. risk level. d. safety level. e. liability. ANS: B 2. What term defines the measure of the probability and severity of harm? a. Risk b. Safety c. Hazard d. Toxicity e. Danger ANS: A 3. What term describes the possibility of harm from normal use of a substance? a. Hazard b. Toxicity c. Bioinsecurity d. Food insecurity e. Riskiness ANS: A 4. What is the international agency that has adopted standards to regulate the use of pesticides? a. FAO b. FDA c. CDC d. USDA e. WHO ANS: A 5. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, how many people in the United States experience foodborne illnesses every year? a. 24 million b. 36 million c. 48 million d. 60 million e. 72 million ANS: C 6. What is the leading cause of food contamination in the United States? a. Naturally occurring toxicants b. Food poisoning from microbes c. Pesticide residues from farmers d. Food additives from the food industry e. Deliberate contamination ANS: B 7. Approximately how many people in the United States are killed by foodborne illness each year? a. 1,000 b. 3,000 c. 5,000 d. 7,000 e. 9,000 ANS: B 8. What organism is responsible for producing the most common food toxin? a. Escherichia coli b. Vibrio vulnificus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Lactobacillis acidophilus e. Clostridium perfringens ANS: C 9. Which of the following is an example of food intoxication? a. Addition of alkaline and acidic agents to foods b. Illness produced by acute overconsumption of high-fat foods c. Addition of alcohol-containing beverages in the cooking of foods d. Illness produced from ingestion of food contaminated with natural toxins e. The drowsiness that occurs after a high protein meal is consumed ANS: D 10. Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism? a. A chief symptom is diarrhea b. A full recovery may take years c. It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus d. It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions e. Symptoms may take several weeks to appear. ANS: B 11. What fraction of reported foodborne illnesses can be attributed to the food industry? a. 1/10 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 4/5 ANS: E 12. The industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly known as a. sanitization. b. sterilization. c. pasteurization. d. depathogenation. e. irradiation. ANS: C 13. What system was developed by government regulatory agencies and the food industry to help identify and/or control food contamination and foodborne disease? a. The Two-Forty-One-Forty rule b. Safe Handling Certification Program c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points d. North American Residue Monitoring Program e. Precautionary Principle ANS: C 14. A patient with a high temperature complains of headache, stomachache, fever, and vomiting. Upon questioning, he admits to eating several raw eggs the day before. The most likely organism causing these symptoms is a. E. coli. b. Salmonella. c. Perfringens. d. Campylobacter jejuni. e. Staphylococcus aureus ANS: B 15. Clostridium botulinum poisoning is a hazard associated with a. nitrosamines. b. rotting vegetables. c. unpasteurized milk. d. improperly canned vegetables. e. unwashed fruits. ANS: D 16. Which of the following is the major food source for transmission of Campylobacter jejuni? a. Raw poultry b. Contaminated grains c. Imported soft cheeses d. Undercooked beef hot dogs e. Raw fruits and vegetables ANS: A 17. Which of the following foods are associated with illness from Salmonella? a. Raw vegetables b. Pickled vegetables c. Home-canned vegetables d. Raw meats, poultry, and eggs e. Raw fruits ANS: D 18. What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food? a. 10-15 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 1/2-1 minute d. 1-2 minutes e. 2-3 minutes ANS: B 19. A few years ago a foodborne illness outbreak was reported by a national restaurant chain. After dozens of people were infected, authorities determined that employees of the restaurant had used the same knife to cut raw meat products as they did for produce items such as lettuce. Which of the following terms most likely describes the employees' neglect that led to the patrons of the restaurant becoming ill? a. Contamination b. Cross-contamination c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points d. Inappropriate monitoring of food temperatures e. Improper cooking procedures ANS: B 20. The seal "Graded by USDA" that appears on packaged meat and poultry means that the product is a. uncooked. b. not hazardous. c. free of bacteria. d. assessed for tenderness. e. humanely slaughtered. ANS: D 21. In cows infected with mad cow disease, which of the following tissues is generally free of the infectious agents? a. Brain b. Muscle c. Spinal cord d. Nerves e. Eyes ANS: B 22. What unintended benefit is derived from the freezing of fish by the food industry? a. The fish becomes tenderized. b. Mature parasitic worms are killed. c. Botulinum toxin becomes inactivated. d. The toxins from hepatitis A and B are destroyed. e. It will cook more rapidly when thawed. ANS: B 23. To minimize the possibility of foodborne illness, hamburger should be cooked to an internal temperature (°F) of at least a. 125. b. 140. c. 160. d. 195. e. 212. ANS: C 24. Which of the following foods is best known to transmit hepatitis? a. Poultry b. Seafood c. Legumes d. Raw vegetables e. Grains ANS: B 25. What is the minimum recommended safe temperature (°F) to heat leftovers? a. 140 b. 152 c. 165 d. 180 e. 212 ANS: C 26. What is the safe refrigerator storage time for uncooked steaks, cooked chicken, opened packages of lunch meats, and tuna salad? a. 1-2 days b. 3-5 days c. 1 week d. 2-4 weeks e. 4-6 weeks ANS: B 27. What nutrients in foods are most vulnerable to losses during food handling and preparation? a. Trace minerals b. Fat-soluble vitamins c. Polyunsaturated fats d. Water-soluble vitamins e. Simple carbohydrates ANS: D 28. The extent to which an environmental contaminant lingers in the environment or body is referred to as a. persistence. b. degradation rate. c. binding capacity. d. constancy. e. perseverance. ANS: A 29. Which of the following are examples of heavy metals? a. Mercury and lead b. Iron and chromium c. Carbon and nitrogen d. Molybdenum and fluoride e. Manganese and magnesium ANS: A 30. The increase in the concentration of contaminants in the tissues of animals high on the food chain is termed a. bioaccumulation. b. hyperconcentration. c. evolutionary containment. d. functional high-level accumulation. e. biomassing. ANS: A 31. What is the primary source of dietary mercury? a. Seafood b. Legumes c. Unfiltered water d. Undercooked poultry e. Unwashed fruits and vegetables ANS: A 32. What was the toxic substance that accidentally found its way into the food chain in the early 1970s and to which almost all of Michigan's residents became exposed? a. Lead acetate b. Methylmercury c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Polybrominated biphenyl e. Perfluorooctanoic acid ANS: D 33. Which of the following is a characteristic of heavy metals in the U.S. food supply? a. Virtually all fish contain trace amounts of mercury. b. Mercury contamination of fish is most severe in tuna. c. Toxicity is most severe in the elderly population group. d. Contamination is usually greater in farm-raised fish than in ocean fish. e. Older fish are generally safer than younger fish, since they have had more time to excrete the mercury. ANS: A 34. What is the principal factor related to solanine concentration in potatoes? a. Contamination b. Irradiation malfunction c. Soil heavy metal content d. Improper storage conditions e. Cooking at very high temperatures in oil ANS: D 35. Which of the following is a feature of naturally occurring food toxicants? a. Lima beans contain deadly cyanide compounds. b. The toxic solanine in potatoes is inactivated by cooking. c. The toxic laetrile in certain fruit seeds is a moderately effective cancer treatment. d. Mustard greens and radishes contain compounds that are known to worsen a cholesterol problem. e. Even small amounts of goitrogen-containing vegetables can cause thyroid problems. ANS: A 36. Many countries restrict the varieties of commercially-grown lima beans due to the seed's content of a. cyanide. b. solanine. c. goitrogens. d. hallucinogens. e. narcotic-like substances. ANS: A 37. Government agencies that set tolerance levels for pesticides first identify those foods commonly eaten in large quantities by a. children. b. adolescents. c. adults. d. elderly. e. animals used for food. ANS: A 38. What term is used to describe the highest level of a pesticide that is allowed in a food when the pesticide is used according to label directions? a. Toxicity level b. Tolerance level c. Risk concentration d. Optimum concentration e. Adverse concentration ANS: B 39. How many varieties of fruits and vegetables are imported from other countries into the U.S.? a. 200 b. 400 c. 600 d. 800 e. 1000 ANS: B 40. What percentage of foods imported from other countries are tested? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 e. 20 ANS: A 41. Food producers are allowed to label a food product as organic if it a. has been irradiated. b. contains genetically engineered ingredients. c. was made with at least 95% organic ingredients. d. was grown with fertilizer made from sewer sludge. e. was grown in the U.S. ANS: C 42. What is the name of the rule that modifies the original meaning of the Delaney Clause? a. GRAS list b. Bonnie Clause c. De minimis rule d. No-risk standard e. Precautionary Principle ANS: C 43. What level of lifetime cancer risk to human beings from a food additive is accepted by the FDA? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 1,000 c. 1 in 1,000,000 d. 1 in 100,000,000 e. 1 in 1,000,000,000,000 ANS: C 44. What defines the FDA's de minimis rule? a. A requirement that the least toxic food additive be used on foods b. The minimum amount of a food particle that can be detected c. The minimum amount of nitrite that can be added to foods to prevent spoilage over a certain time frame d. The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million lifetime risk of cancer to human beings e. The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million risk of birth defects in human beings ANS: D 45. What is the term that describes the allowance of most additives in foods at levels 100 times below the lowest level known to cause any harmful effects? a. Toxicity range b. Zone of hazard c. Acceptable area d. Margin of safety e. Risk acceptability ANS: D 46. Sugar and salt are used as antimicrobial agents in foods because they prevent microbial use of the food's a. fat. b. water. c. protein. d. carbohydrate. e. micronutrients. ANS: B 47. Of the following, which is used most widely as an antimicrobial agent? a. Sugar b. Saccharin c. Sodium nitrite d. Sodium propionate e. Alcohol ANS: A 48. When a slice of fresh apple turns a brown color, this is most likely the result of a. oxidation. b. dehydration. c. microbial contamination. d. ethylene oxide treatment in the ripening process. e. lack of nutrients in the apple itself. ANS: A 49. What vitamin undergoes the most destruction in foods preserved with sulfites? a. Folate b. Thiamin c. Vitamin D d. Ascorbic acid e. Vitamin K ANS: B 50. A feature of sulfite food additives is that they a. are frequently used in wines. b. inhibit growth of most microbes. c. interact with folate to inhibit its absorption. d. are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects. e. are one of the most expensive additives. ANS: A 51. What is the only food intended to be consumed raw in which the FDA allows the use of sulfite additives? a. Grapes b. Lettuce c. Carrots d. Strawberries e. Apples ANS: A 52. Which of the following is a feature of the substance BHT? a. It is a food antimicrobial. b. It is a common food colorant. c. It contributes significantly to the total additive intake from the diet. d. It decreases cancer formation when given in large amounts to animals exposed to carcinogens. e. It shortens the lives of animals when it is fed in very large amounts. ANS: D 53. The flavor enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of a. sulfite. b. sodium. c. acrylamide. d. bicarbonate. e. manganese. ANS: B 54. What are bacteriophages in the food supply? a. Intentional food additives b. Unusually deadly foodborne bacteria c. Two or more pathogenic organisms on the same food d. Bacteria that are resistant to common cooking methods e. Bacteria used to test food for potentially dangerous contaminants ANS: A 55. The upper safe level of intake for aspartame-sweetened soft drinks (cans/day) for a normal 70 kg adult is approximately a. 1. b. 5. c. 10. d. 20. e. 50. ANS: D 56. What sweetener should be avoided by people with PKU? a. Neotame b. Sucralose c. Aspartame d. Acesulfame-K e. Invert sugar ANS: C 57. Which of the following is a feature of aspartame? a. Its sweetness increases with heat. b. It is made up of three amino acids. c. It is recommended for people with PKU. d. Two of its breakdown products include methanol and formaldehyde. e. It has been removed from the market by the FDA. ANS: D 58. Which of the following foods represents a common source of acrylamide intake in the United States? a. Raw fruits b. French fries c. Raw vegetables d. Grilled seafood e. White rice ANS: B 59. Which of the following toxic substances are formed from production of paper products used in food packaging? a. PBBs b. URPs c. Dioxins d. BHT and BHA e. PFOA ANS: C 60. What is the standard chemical used to remove caffeine from coffee beans? a. Nitric acid b. Sodium propionate c. Methylene chloride d. Polybrominated biphenyl e. Hydrochloric acid ANS: C 61. Which of the following is a characteristic of antibiotic use in animals raised for human consumption? a. Meat from animals fed antibiotics contains resistant bacteria. b. Antibiotic use in dairy cows often gives the milk off-flavors. c. The antibiotic levels are essentially zero by the time the food reaches consumers. d. Although some antibiotics may be present in the food, the level is too low to induce adverse side effects even in sensitive people. e. The FDA lacks legal authority to investigate the impact of this antibiotic use on human health. ANS: A 62. Which of the following is a feature of bovine growth hormone use in the United States? a. It decreases udder infections in cows. b. It cannot be detected in meat or milk of cows receiving it. c. If consumed from foods, it is denatured by enzymes in the GI tract. d. If consumed from foods, it could potentially stimulate receptors for human growth hormone. e. Testing of BGH has indicated that its risks to human health are, at most, minor. ANS: C 63. Which of the following is a characteristic of antibiotic use in livestock? a. Development of antibiotic-resistant organisms is very rare. b. Proper cooking of the meat destroys any traces of antibiotics. c. Farmers use more than 5 times more antibiotic in livestock than physicians use in people. d. Because the antibiotics have a short half-life, the FDA permits slaughter of the animals at any time. e. There is no evidence of harm to the environment or human health from the use of antibiotics in livestock. ANS: C 64. What is meant by potable water? a. Water fit for drinking b. Water that must be boiled before drinking c. Water that must be chlorinated before drinking d. Water suitable only for use on lawns and gardens e. Water to which fluoride has been added ANS: A 65. Water that has the odor of "rotten eggs" is most likely contaminated with a. sulfur. b. dioxins. c. Giardia. d. Cryptosporidium. e. chloramines. ANS: A 66. What is the chief purpose of using ozone as a commercial water treatment? a. It kills microorganisms. b. It complexes with heavy metals. c. It stabilizes the carbon filtration process. d. It promotes chlorine dissipation and thus enhances taste. e. It "softens" the water. ANS: A 67. What is the average yearly intake (gallons) per person of bottled water in the United States? a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 e. 75 ANS: B 68. What is the process by which water is purified by pressurizing it and forcing it across a membrane? a. Ozonation b. Distillation c. Reverse osmosis d. Activated carbon filtration e. Pasteurization ANS: C 69. Improvements in nutrient composition, such as when corn is genetically modified to contain higher amounts of its limiting amino acids, is a strategy known as a. biofortification. b. reverse DNA enrichment. c. USDA approved enrichment. d. nutritional transdevelopment. e. artificial fortification. ANS: A 70. Genetic engineering of broccoli to increase the selenium content has inadvertently lowered the content of a. fiber, an indigestible carbohydrate. b. vitamin C, a water-soluble antioxidant. c. sulforaphane, an anticancer phytochemical. d. chlorophyll, a magnesium-containing substance. e. vitamin E, a fat-soluble antioxidant. ANS: C COMPLETION 1. The toxin produced in improperly refrigerated meats that can cause diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps and fever in 1 to 6 hours is ____________________. ANS: staphylococcal toxin 2. The organism spread by person-to-person contact as well as raw foods, salads and sandwiches, causing vomiting in 1 to 2 days that can last 1 to 2 days, is ____________________. ANS: norovirus 3. ____________________ is found in undercooked ground beef and can cause severe bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting lasting 5 to 10 days. ANS: E.coli: O157:H7 4. In the United States, all food producers use a(n) ____________________ plan to help prevent foodborne illnesses at their source. ANS: Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point HACCP 5. ____________________ refers to sterilizing a food by exposure to energy waves, similar to ultraviolet light and microwaves ANS: Irradiation; Ionizing radiation 6. ____________________ refers to the accumulation of contaminants in the flesh of animals high on the food chain. ANS: Bioaccumulation 7. The Minamata, Japan incident, in which more than 100 individuals, including infants, became ill, many died, and survivors suffered blindness, deafness, lack of coordination, and intellectual deterioration, was caused through the contamination of fish by ____________________. ANS: methylmercury 8. In the late 1970s, women in Taiwan Women who had eaten the rice oil tainted with ____________________ gave birth to children with developmental problems. ANS: PCB (polychlorinated biphenyls) PCB polychlorinated biphenyls 9. The FDA has found that the vast majority of apple juice tested contains trace amounts of ___________________. ANS: arsenic 10. An estimated 97% of Michigan residents were exposed when ____________________ were accidentally mixed in livestock feed that was distributed throughout the state. ANS: PBB (polybrominated biphenyls)
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Chapter 19 - Consumer Concerns about Foods and Water
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1. Approximately what percentage of the world's population experiences persistent hunger? a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 e. 20 ANS: C 2. Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food a. insecurity. b. insufficiency. c. vulnerability. d. precariousness. e. inadequacy. ANS: A 3. Melissa works two jobs to support her three children. Her financial priorities are to pay the rent and utilities and provide food and medical necessities for the children. Melissa rarely eats three meals a day and worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself and her children. Melissa is experiencing which of the following? a. Food insufficiency b. Food mismanagement c. Non-sustainable lifestyle d. Misallocation of resources e. Very low food security ANS: E 4. Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries? a. Poverty b. High cost of food c. Excessive food waste d. Lack of nutrition education e. Lack of physical access to food ANS: A 5. How many people in the United States live in poverty? a. 19 million b. 29 million c. 39 million d. 49 million e. 59 million ANS: D 6. Which of the following is true of the relationship between poverty and hunger? a. Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household. b. The highest rates of obesity occur among the wealthiest. c. The provision of food to the poor increases obesity. d. Even people below the poverty line have enough money for food. ANS: A 7. Approximately what proportion of the world's food supply is wasted along the way from farm to final consumption? a. 1/10 b. 1/5 c. 1/4 d. 1/3 e. 1/2 ANS: D 8. What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind? a. 1/25 b. 1/15 c. 1/5 d. 1/3 e. 1/2 ANS: C 9. What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States? a. WIC b. EAT c. National Food Resource Program d. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program e. Senior Farmer's Market Program ANS: D 10. What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP, per person? a. $85 b. $105 c. $135 d. $185 e. $215 ANS: C 11. SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase which of the following? a. laundry detergent b. seeds to produce food c. cigarettes d. vitamins e. diapers ANS: B 12. What is a food desert? a. Worldwide crop failures due to drought and pestilence b. Absence of fresh fruits and vegetables at certain times of the year c. A neighborhood having limited access to nutritious and affordable food d. A low-cost energy-dense snack sold primarily in poor neighborhoods e. An area in which poverty has made families unable to purchase necessary food ANS: C 13. Approximately how many people, in millions, are served by the U.S. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program? a. 15 b. 25 c. 35 d. 45 e. 55 ANS: D 14. What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program? a. Feeding America b. Goodwill Food Assistance c. Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals d. Food Salvage and Rescue Organization e. We CAN ANS: A 15. Which of the following is true of malnutrition in children? a. Children with kwashiorkor typically have edema. b. Children with marasmus often have fatty livers. c. Kwashiorkor results mainly from energy inadequacy. d. Marasmus results mainly from protein inadequacy. e. Children with marasmus often have changes in the color of their hair and skin. ANS: A 16. As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor's office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, "...and thus, hunger worsens poverty...." The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty? a. Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care. b. No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty. c. Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households. d. Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive. e. Sometimes, but only when unemployment is high and jobs are scarce. ANS: D 17. A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is best termed a. a plague. b. a famine. c. food poverty. d. food insecurity. e. epidemic starvation. ANS: B 18. Cutting world hunger and malnutrition in half by 2015 would generate a value of more than ____ in longer, healthier, and more productive lives. a. $40 billion b. $80 billion c. $120 billion d. $160 billion e. $200 billion ANS: C 19. The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in a. India. b. China. c. Ethiopia d. Ireland. ANS: B 20. Which of the following is a feature of world poverty? a. Poverty causes hunger in the developing but not the developed world. b. The poorest do not bear children due to poor health. c. Poverty affects about 10% of the world's population. d. The poorest poor are typically female. e. Urbanization typically decreases poverty-associated hunger. ANS: D 21. As the newly appointed director of International Supplementation for the World Health Organization (WHO), you propose supplementing the diets of malnourished populations worldwide with nutrients that would markedly improve health and well-being. Which of the following nutrients is most likely to be deficient? a. Iron b. Iodine c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin D e. Zinc ANS: A 22. Deficiency in which of the following is associated with irreversible intellectual disability? a. iron b. iodine c. protein d. vitamin A e. zinc. ANS: B 23. In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to reduce the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working? a. Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated b. Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished c. Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children d. Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain e. Distributing meals-ready-to-eat (MREs) to restore nutrition. ANS: A 24. Worldwide, approximately what number of children under 5 die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes? a. 1.6 million b. 3.6 million c. 5.6 million d. 7.6 million e. 9.6 million ANS: D 25. Worldwide, how many children younger than 5 have symptoms of vitamin A deficiency? a. 70 million b. 80 million c. 90 million d. 100 million e. 110 million ANS: D 26. What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty? a. Oral rehydration therapy b. Ozone purified waste water c. Protein-energy repletion formula d. Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch e. RUTF ANS: A 27. What is meant by carrying capacity of the earth? a. The number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth's cultivable land b. The maximum number of living organisms that can be supported in an environment over time c. The amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants d. The total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth's water mass e. The maximum number of people who can exist on earth without causing environmental damage. ANS: B 28. What is the approximate yearly increase in the world's population? a. 50 million b. 60 million c. 70 million d. 80 million e. 90 million ANS: D 29. What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger in the developing world bear numerous children? a. Birth control expenses are prohibitive. b. The children are less likely to survive to adulthood. c. The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning. d. The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children. e. It is a cultural custom in those areas to have many children. ANS: B 30. The famine Somalia is currently experiencing has left an estimated ____ people starving. a. 6 million b. 8 million c. 10 million d. 12 million e. 14 million ANS: D 31. Worldwide, the poorest poor subsist on less than ____ per day. a. $1 b. $3 c. $5 d. $7 e. $9 ANS: A 32. Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty and population growth? a. As economic status improves, population growth rises. b. As economic status improves, population growth diminishes. c. Lack of natural resources, not poverty, is the most important contributor to overpopulation. d. Extreme poverty tends to greatly suppress population growth. e. Economic status and population growth are unrelated in the developing world. ANS: B 33. What percentage of the world's population is at risk of zinc deficiency? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25 ANS: D 34. What proportion of children in the developing world are severely underweight by age 5? a. 1 in 20 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 4 d. 1 in 3 e. 1 in 2 ANS: C 35. Acute malnutrition in children is characterized by a. hyperactivity. b. shrunken liver. c. low weight for height. d. short height for weight. e. stunting ANS: C 36. Chronic malnutrition in children is characterized by a. hyperactivity. b. shrunken liver. c. short height for age. d. low weight for height. e. rapid weight loss ANS: C 37. You are reading a case study from a researcher at World University. The researcher has traveled to the largest city in India and is reporting on an illness present in a 15-month-old boy. The researcher describes the child as extremely thin and bony, with wrinkled skin and enlarged fatty liver. For the past year, this child has subsisted almost entirely on diluted cereal drink. Your first thought is that most of these observations are characteristic of marasmus, but then you realize that ____ is more consistent with kawashikor. a. wrinkled skin b. food intake pattern c. enlarged fatty liver d. extremely thin e. bony appearance ANS: C 38. Which of the following would you expect to see in a person with kwashiorkor? a. Edema b. Low levels of ADH c. Muscle wasting d. Baggy-appearing skin e. "Match stick" arms and legs ANS: A 39. Which of the following is associated with the presence of tissue edema in kwashiorkor? a. Inadequate intake of water b. Excessive intake of dietary protein c. Low concentration of blood protein d. High concentration of blood protein e. Low levels of ADH ANS: C 40. Which of the following is a characteristic of marasmus? a. Increased body temperature b. Affects brain development only minimally c. Rapid metabolism d. Inability to tolerate cold e. Decreased albumin ANS: D 41. Which of the following is a feature of malnutrition? a. Dysentery is common and leads to diarrhea and nutrient depletion. b. Intestinal villi grow slightly larger to provide additional absorptive surfaces for nutrients. c. Digestive enzyme production increases in order to extract as much of the ingested nutrients as possible. d. Infections are uncommon due to insufficient availability of nutrients in the body to support growth of bacteria and viruses. e. Children typically recover well from marasmus if adequate food is provided. ANS: A 42. At the end of your class presentation on "Acute Malnutrition," a student asks you to clarify how the rapid onset of malnutrition occurs in kwashiorkor. How should you respond? a. It is the result of an inborn error of metabolism. b. It is usually synchronized with the drought season in each respective country. c. It is typically seen in patients who are 2-5 years old due to the sudden change in diet arising from their dislike for breast milk as they grow older. d. It is typically seen in patients after weaning due to the sudden change in diet arising from their being weaned from breast milk after the birth of a sibling. e. It occurs when the family's finances are no longer able to afford food for all family members. ANS: D 43. What term describes the malnutrition syndrome a child develops when the next child is born and the first child no longer receives breast milk? a. Marasmus b. Kwashiorkor c. Psychomalnutrition d. Postbirth malnutrition e. Sibling-associated anorexia ANS: B 44. The word "marasmus" means a. terribly thin. b. without muscle. c. dying away. d. empty stomach. e. lacking food. ANS: C 45. In kwashiorkor, the loss of hair color is indirectly related to a. lack of tyrosine. b. elevated levels of blood homocysteine. c. excessive exposure to the sun's UV rays. d. being nursed by a poorly-nourished mother. e. increased blood lead levels. ANS: A 46. In kwashiorkor, what mineral is often present in an unbound form that promotes bacterial growth? a. Iron b. Iodine c. Arsenic d. Calcium e. Sodium ANS: A 47. What is the most likely explanation for the fatty liver that develops from protein deficiency? a. Increased uptake of circulating fats b. Increased absorption of dietary fats c. Inability of adipose tissue to remove circulating fats d. Inability of the liver to synthesize lipoproteins for fat export e. Paradoxical storage of fats ANS: D 48. Which of the following is a feature of kwashiorkor? a. It makes the child appear grossly dehydrated. b. It usually occurs prior to the onset of marasmus. c. It is usually found in communities where marasmus is present. d. Children typically have a grossly swollen belly. e. Children have a "skin and bones" appearance. ANS: D 49. Which of the following is true of RUTF? a. It restores fluids. b. It is powdered and must be rehydrated for use. c. It is administered IV. d. It is a paste made from local commodities. e. Children dislike the taste and often must be forced to eat it. ANS: D 50. What type of diet is advised to rehabilitate a severely malnourished child? a. RUTF b. Large amounts of the local diet c. Liberal quantities of lactose-free powdered milk until growth rate is restored d. High energy until normal body mass index is achieved, then moderate energy thereafter e. BRAT ANS: A 51. Which of the following is a characteristic of marasmus in children? a. It leads to inability to maintain body temperature. b. It promotes hyperactivity and excessive crying for food. c. It impairs brain development mainly from ages 2-5 years old. d. It leads to severe edema of the abdomen but insufficient water retention by the brain. e. It is rare even in very impoverished nations due to UN programs combating hunger. ANS: A 52. What is RUTF? a. An advanced stage of kwashiorkor b. An advanced stage of protein-energy malnutrition c. A paste of peanut butter and powdered milk plus micronutrients d. A sustainable agricultural practice that integrates farm-raised animals with aquaculture e. A fluid used to restore electrolytes in children with diarrhea ANS: C 53. What percentage of the world's children under the age of 5 have short stature for their age? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25 ANS: E 54. What percentage of the world's children under the age of 5 have low weight for their height? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25 ANS: B 55. The famine in Somalia has left ____ children under the age of 5 dead. a. 10,000 b. 20,000 c. 30,000 d. 40,000 e. 50,000 ANS: C 56. Which of the following is among the ingredients of a common oral rehydration formula? a. Iron b. Sugar c. Milk d. Zinc e. Powdered peanuts ANS: B 57. Which of the following is a feature of common agricultural practices in the developed world? a. They promote protection of soil and water. b. They frequently lead to higher crop prices. c. They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms. d. They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers. e. They emphasize "green" practices. ANS: D 58. A sharp rise in the rates of hunger and malnutrition, usually set off by a shock to either the supply of, or demand for, food and a sudden spike in food prices is called a a. food crisis. b. famine. c. food inflation. d. food imbalance. e. cost imbalance. ANS: A 59. Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation? a. It makes the soil more porous. b. It helps preserve the water supply. c. It contributes to soil preservation. d. It increases the salt content in the soil. e. It raises water tables. ANS: D 60. What is aquaculture? a. A seaweed growth system b. The practice of fish farming c. Replenishment of fish in the wild d. The raising of plants in a water environment e. Raising food crops in fluid rather than soil ANS: B 61. Which of the following is a feature of aquaculture? a. All farmed fish must be fed to sustain the practice. b. It provides about 10% of the world's fish for consumption. c. It is successful in freshwater lakes but not in ocean waters. d. Currently available technologies cannot yet make it sustainable. e. It provides nearly all of the world's shellfish for consumption. ANS: A 62. Approximately what percentage of all energy use in the U.S. is devoted to the food industry? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 e. 40 ANS: C 63. Which of the following is a major contributor to the world's supply of food energy? a. Barley b. Maize c. Rye d. Sorghum e. Adzuki beans ANS: B 64. What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals? a. Integrated production b. Progressive agriculture c. Sustainable agriculture d. Resource management production e. Balanced farming ANS: C 65. About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 1 kcalories of grains? a. <1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 10 e. 15 ANS: A 66. What is the nutritional advantage of eating range-fed buffalo? a. The iron content is higher. b. The nutrients are more stable and less prone to oxidation. c. The fat content includes more omega-3 fatty acids. d. There is a greater variety of phytonutrients, especially those that reduce risk of heart disease and cancer. e. Range-fed buffalo has lower levels of polyunsaturated fats. ANS: C 67. Compared to vegetarian diets, meat based diets use ____ times as much energy. a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 2.5 d. 3.0 e. 3.5 ANS: C 68. Compared to vegetarian diets, meat based diets use ____ times as much water. a. 1.9 b. 2.9 c. 3.9 d. 4.9 e. 5.9 ANS: B 69. How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people? a. Twice as much b. Three times as much c. Five times as much d. Ten times as much e. Twenty times as much ANS: D 70. On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it? a. 25 b. 100 c. 750 d. 1500 e. 3000 ANS: D COMPLETION 1. Collecting crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest is called ____________________. ANS: gleaning, food gleaning 2. Individuals who have limited or uncertain access to foods of sufficient quality or quantity to sustain a healthy and active life with reduced quality of life with little or no indication of reduced food intake have ____________________. ANS: low food security 3. Individuals who have access to enough food to sustain a healthy and active life with one or two indications of food-access problems but with little or no change in food intake have ____________________. ANS: marginal food security 4. In the United States, the largest federal food assistance program is ____________________. ANS: Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) SNAP Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program 5. Neighborhoods and communities characterized by limited access to nutritious and affordable foods are known as ____________________. ANS: food deserts 6. Of the world's 7 billion people, ____________________ percent have no land and no possessions at all. ANS: 25; twenty-five; twenty five 7. Malnutrition caused by recent severe food restriction; characterized in children by underweight for height (wasting) is called ____________________ malnutrition. ANS: acute 8. Severe malnutrition characterized by failure to grow and develop, edema, changes in the pigmentation of hair and skin, fatty liver, anemia, and apathy is called ____________________ ANS: kwashiorkor 9. Severe malnutrition characterized by poor growth, dramatic weight loss, loss of body fat and muscle, and apathy is called ____________________. ANS: marasmus 10. ____________________ is a paste made of local commodities such as peanut butter and powdered milk and fortified with vitamins and minerals and used to rehabilitate children with uncomplicated, severe acute malnutrition. ANS: Ready-to-use therapeutic food (RUTF) Ready-to-use therapeutic food RUTF
answer
Chapter 20 - Hunger and the Global Environment
AP Psychology
Central Nervous System
Childhood And Adolescence
Cognitive Development In Early Childhood
Developmental Psychology
Psychology
Psy 2310 Exam 2 – Flashcards 100 terms

Jason Westley
100 terms
Preview
Psy 2310 Exam 2 – Flashcards
question
During early childhood, __________ skills increase at an astonishing pace.
answer
C) language
question
Spatial skills
answer
D) develop gradually over childhood and adolescence.
question
Which of the following statements about handedness is true?
answer
B) For right-handed people, language is housed in the left hemisphere.
question
Research on handedness demonstrates that
answer
D) most left-handers have no developmental problems.
question
The cerebellum
answer
B) aids in balance and control of body movement.
question
The hippocampus
answer
C) plays a vital role in memory and in images of space that help us find our way.
question
Which of the following brain structures connects the two cerebral hemispheres?
answer
A) corpus callosum
question
Throughout childhood and adolescence, a nutritionally deficient diet is associated with
answer
B) attention difficulties.
question
In developing countries, __________ leads to growth stunting and nearly 1 million childhood deaths each year.
answer
C) diarrhea
question
Compared with other industrialized nations, the United States
answer
B) has a high childhood injury death rate.
question
The high childhood injury rate in developing countries is largely due to
answer
D) widespread childhood poverty.
question
Preschoolers' balance improves greatly when their
answer
C) bodies become more streamlined.
question
According to Piaget, egocentrism is
answer
D) the most fundamental deficiency of preoperational thought.
question
Conservation refers to the
answer
D) idea that certain physical characteristics of objects remain the same, even when their outward appearance changes.
question
Vygotsky saw __________ as the foundation for all higher cognitive processes.
answer
B) language
question
Between 14 and 16 months, toddlers display a beginning grasp of
answer
C) ordinality.
question
Between ages 2 and 6, most children learn about _____ new words each __________.
answer
B) 5; day
question
The attributes, abilities, attitudes, and values that we believe define ourselves comprise our__________, whereas the judgments we make about our worth and the feelings associated with those judgments are our __________.
answer
A) self-concept; self-esteem
question
Between ages 2 and 6,
answer
B) emotional self-regulation improves.
question
Empathy serves as an important motivator of __________ behavior.
answer
C) prosocial
question
As the ability to take another's perspective improves,
answer
D) empathic responding increases.
question
All theories of moral development recognize that conscience begins to take shape
answer
C) in early childhood.
question
According to Freud, children
answer
D) obey the superego to avoid guilt.
question
When parents use inductive discipline, they
answer
D) point out the effects of their child's misbehavior on others.
question
According to social learning theorists,
answer
B) morality is acquired through reinforcement and modeling.
question
Corporal punishment
answer
B) models aggression.
question
The __________ perspective regards children as active thinkers about social rules.
answer
A) cognitive-developmental
question
An example of instrumental aggression is a child
answer
B) pushing another child off a seat that he wants to sit on.
question
Verbally and relationally aggressive acts are particularly frequent in
answer
C) reality TV shows.
question
Gender __________ refers to any association of objects, activities, roles, or traits with one sex or the other in ways that conform to cultural stereotypes.
answer
D) typing
question
Adults can combat children's gender stereotyped beliefs by
answer
D) asking children to avoid using gender labels.
question
Gender schema theory
answer
C) is an information-processing approach that combines social learning and cognitive-development features.
question
The authoritative child-rearing style is
answer
B) the most successful approach.
question
A(n) __________ parenting style is associated with children who are impulsive, disobedient, overly demanding, and dependent on adults.
answer
B) permissive
question
Physical growth during the school years
answer
B) continues at the slow, regular pace of early childhood.
question
Between ages 6 and 12,
answer
A) 12 of the primary teeth are lost and replaced by permanent ones.
question
Research shows that obesity has caused a dramatic rise in cases of __________ in children.
answer
B) diabetes
question
In one obesity intervention program, where both parents and children revised eating patterns and exercised daily,
answer
A) the more weight parents lost, the more their children lost.
question
By far, the most common chronic disease or condition of children in the United States is
answer
B) asthma
question
Compared with preschoolers, school-age children
answer
C) are quicker and have more accurate movements.
question
Which of the following statements about playing games in middle childhood is true?
answer
B) Gains in perspective taking permit a transition to rule-oriented games.
question
Participation in community athletic teams
answer
D) seems to foster self-esteem and social skills.
question
According to Piaget, children are first able to __________ in middle childhood.
answer
C) successfully complete conservation tasks
question
A child who is capable of reversibility can
answer
D) think through a series of steps and then mentally reverse direction.
question
Heritability evidence suggests __________ genetic influences on various aspects of executive function, including combining information in working memory, controlling attention, and inhibiting inappropriate responses.
answer
D) substantial
question
Which of the following statements about attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is true?
answer
C) Boys are diagnosed with ADHD about four times as often as girls.
question
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is
answer
C) highly heritable and is also associated with environmental factors.
question
Children who acquire effective self-regulatory skills develop a sense of
answer
A) academic self-efficacy.
question
Virtually all intelligence tests provide an overall score (the IQ), which represents __________ intelligence.
answer
B) general
question
Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of successful intelligence identifies which of the following three broad, interacting intelligences?
answer
C) analytical, creative, and practical
question
In a social-constructivist classroom,
answer
C) teachers, students, and peers work together on a wide range of challenging activities.
question
According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, the negative outcome of middle childhood is
answer
C) inferiority.
question
Erikson's sense of __________ combines several developments of middle childhood: a positive but realistic self-concept, pride in accomplishment, moral responsibility, and cooperative participation with agemates.
answer
D) industry
question
Self-esteem
answer
B) differentiates and adjusts to a more realistic level as children enter school.
question
The best way for parents to foster a positive, secure self-image is to
answer
D) encourage their children to strive for worthwhile goals.
question
Mastery-oriented children are most likely to attribute failure to
answer
D) insufficient effort.
question
Children who develop __________ attribute their failures, not their successes, to ability.
answer
A) learned helplessness
question
In problem-centered coping, children
answer
C) appraise the situation as changeable, identify the difficulty, and decide what to do about it.
question
Having received a bad grade on a test, Aiden employs internal strategies such as distraction. Aiden is using
answer
B) emotion-centered coping.
question
In middle childhood, the ___ becomes an increasingly important context for development.
answer
C) society of peers
question
Training in __________ often improves the peer relations and psychological adjustment of rejected children.
answer
A) positive social skills
question
In middle childhood, boys
answer
C) usually stick to "masculine" activities.
question
Child rearing becomes easier in middle childhood for parents who established a(n) __________ style during the early years.
answer
C) authoritative
question
Coregulation
answer
C) involves general parental oversight while letting the child make moment-by-moment decisions.
question
Preschool and young school-age children often __________ a marital breakup.
answer
D) blame themselves for
question
Regardless of the extent of their friction, divorcing parents who manage to engage in __________ greatly improve the chances of favorable child outcomes.
answer
B) coparenting
question
Children in blended families usually have ___ than children in stable, first-marriage families.
answer
B) more adjustment problems
question
Resilience
answer
D) enables children to use internal and external resources to cope with adversity.
question
__________ viewed the social environment as entirely responsible for the range of teenage experiences, from erratic and agitated to calm and stress-free.
answer
D) Margaret Mead
question
Today we know that adolescent development is
answer
D) influenced by biological, psychological, and social forces.
question
Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic?
answer
B) pubic hair
question
Sleep-deprived adolescents
answer
B) are more likely to suffer from anxiety and depression.
question
Compared to the moods of older adolescents and adults, the moods of younger adolescents
answer
C) are strongly related to situational changes.
question
Psychological distancing occurs in
answer
D) industrialized nations as a modern substitute for the actual physical departure from the family.
question
Early-maturing girls are viewed as
answer
C) unpopular, withdrawn, and lacking in self-confidence.
question
Which of the following statements about individuals with anorexia nervosa is true?
answer
B) They typically deny or minimize the seriousness of their disorder.
question
Bulimia nervosa
answer
C) is influenced by heredity.
question
Which of the following statements about contraceptive use in adolescence is true?
answer
B) About 20 percent of sexually active U.S. teenagers do not use contraception consistently.
question
Most gay, lesbian, or bisexual youths experience
answer
B) an inner struggle that is intensified by a lack of role models and social support.
question
Which of the following statements about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) is true?
answer
A) Most high school students have only a limited understanding of STDs.
question
Children born to teenage mothers
answer
A) often become adolescent parents.
question
Which of the following substances do U.S. adolescents most often experiment with during high school?
answer
B) alcohol
question
According to Piaget, around age 11 young people enter the __________ stage.
answer
D) formal operational
question
Piaget believed that at adolescence, young people first become capable of
answer
B) hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
question
Information-processing researchers regard __________ as central to adolescent cognitive development.
answer
C) metacognition
question
1) Erikson was the first to recognize ________ as a crucial step toward becoming a productive, content adult.
answer
B) identity
question
According to Erikson, if the psychological conflict of adolescence is resolved negatively, a young person experiences
answer
B) role confusion.
question
In adolescence, self-esteem __________ for most young people.
answer
D) rises
question
In adolescence, __________ parenting predicts high self-esteem.
answer
D) authoritative
question
Identity-_______ individuals lack clear direction. They are not committed to values or goals, nor are they actively trying to reach them.
answer
C) diffused
question
Long-term identity __________ and __________ are maladaptive.
answer
D) foreclosure; diffusion
question
Adolescents who assume that absolute truth is always attainable tend to be
answer
D) identity-foreclosed.
question
At Kohlberg's _______ level, behaviors that result in punishment are viewed as bad, whereas those that lead to rewards are seen as good.
answer
D) preconventional
question
Low self-esteem, depression, and antisocial behavior among teenagers are associated with __________ parenting.
answer
D) coercive or psychologically controlling
question
Cliques
answer
A) usually have members that resemble one another in family background.
question
Crowd membership is based on
answer
B) reputation.
question
Early dating is related to
answer
A) delinquency and drug use.
question
Which of the following statements about adolescent depression is true?
answer
B) Depression is the most common psychological problem of adolescence
question
The suicide rate
answer
B) jumps sharply at adolescence.
question
Which of the following statements about factors related to juvenile delinquency is true?
answer
C) Families of delinquent youths tend to be low in warmth, high in conflict, and characterized by harsh, inconsistent discipline and low monitoring.
Abnormal Psychology
Childhood And Adolescence
Developmental Psychology
Psychology
Psychology Ch. 4 – Flashcards 125 terms

Roy Johnson
125 terms
Preview
Psychology Ch. 4 – Flashcards
question
Between ages 1 and 2, the typical baby grows about _____ inches and gains about _____ pounds.
answer
4; 8
question
Infants and toddlers grow
answer
in little spurts.
question
Maggi is concerned because her 8-month-old daughter has gained 10 pounds since birth and has transformed into a round, plump baby. You can assure Maggi that her daughter's rise in "baby fat."
answer
helps her maintain a constant body temperature.
question
During infancy, __________. These sex differences will __________ during adolescence.
answer
girls are slightly shorter and lighter than boys; be greatly magnified
question
Which of the following children is the most likely to be above the growth norms?
answer
Isaiah, an African-American boy
question
Skeletal age is determined by __________ to determine the extent to which soft, pliable cartilage has hardened into bone.
answer
X-raying the long bones of the body
question
When skeletal ages are examined at birth,
answer
the sexes differ by about 4 to 6 weeks.
question
Which of the following statements is consistent with the cephalocaudal trend of body growth?
answer
During the prenatal period, the head develops more rapidly than the lower part of the body.
question
Which of the following statements is consistent with the proximodistal trend of body growth?
answer
During childhood, the arms and legs grow somewhat ahead of the hands and feet.
question
At birth, the brain is
answer
nearer to its adult size than any other physical structure.
question
Neurons
answer
store and transmit information.
question
The human brain has __________ neurons.
answer
100 to 200 billion
question
Synapses are
answer
tiny gaps where fibers from different neurons come close together but do not touch.
question
Neurons send messages to one another by releasing chemicals called
answer
neurotransmitters.
question
A surprising aspect of brain growth is that
answer
as synapses form, many surrounding neurons die.
question
As neurons form connections, stimulation
answer
becomes vital to their survival.
question
When Baby Jaleel was born, stimulation in his brain resulted in a massive overabundance of synapses. Neurons that were seldom stimulated began to lose their synapses. This process is known as
answer
synaptic pruning.
question
In all, about _____ percent of synapses are pruned during childhood and adolescence to reach the adult level.
answer
40
question
For synaptic pruning to advance,
answer
appropriate stimulation of the child's brain is vital during periods in which the formation of synapses is at its peak
question
__________ are responsible for myelination.
answer
Glial cells
question
Coating the neural fibers with an insulating fatty sheath during the process of __________ improves the efficiency of message transfer.
answer
myelination
question
Which of the following statements about brain development is true?
answer
Gains in neural fibers and myelination account for the extraordinary gain in overall brain size.
question
__________ provide(s) the most precise information about which brain regions are specialized for certain capacities.
answer
Neuroimaging techniques
question
Mia, age 3, is about to undergo a neurobiological exam. The doctor wishes to examine the functioning of Mia's cerebral cortex to measure blood flow and oxygen metabolism. The best method for the doctor to choose in Mia's case is probably
answer
near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS).
question
The __________ is the largest brain structure, accounting for 85 percent of the brain's weight
answer
cerebral cortex
question
Which of the following statements about the cerebral cortex is true?
answer
It is sensitive to environmental influences for a longer period than any other part of the brain.
question
The cortical regions with the most extended period of development are responsible for
answer
thought.
question
Which of the following statements about the frontal lobes is true?
answer
They are responsible for consciousness, inhibition of impulses, and integration of information.
question
In left-handed people, the
answer
cerebral cortex may be less clearly specialized than in right-handed people.
question
The specialization of the two hemispheres of the brain is known as
answer
lateralization.
question
A lateralized brain
answer
may have evolved because it enabled humans to cope more successfully with changing environmental demands.
question
Which of the following statements about brain plasticity is true?
answer
Many areas of a highly plastic cerebral cortex are not yet committed to specific functions.
question
Which of the following provides evidence that the brain hemispheres have already begun to specialize at birth?
answer
Most newborns show greater ERP brain-wave activity in the right hemisphere while listening to nonspeech sounds.
question
__________ greatly influences the organization of the cerebral cortex.
answer
Early experience
question
In the first few years of life, the brain is
answer
highly plastic.
question
In a large study of children with injuries to the cerebral cortex that occurred before birth or in the first six months of life, researchers found that
answer
undamaged areas—in either the left or the right hemisphere—took over certain language functions.
question
Sharon's 46-year-old husband suffered a traumatic brain injury in an automobile accident. What information about brain plasticity can you provide to Sharon?
answer
The adult brain can produce a small number of new neurons and generate new synapses.
question
Research reveals that
answer
deaf adults who, as infants and children, learned sign language depend more than hearing individuals on the right hemisphere for language processing.
question
Animal studies on early sensory deprivation
answer
verify the existence of sensitive periods in brain development.
question
Michael was born with cataracts in both eyes. What can you tell his parents about the possibility of recovery as it relates to sensitive periods in brain development?
answer
The longer cataract surgery is postponed beyond infancy, the less complete the recovery in visual skills.
question
In the study of Romanian orphans adopted into British homes, children adopted __________ attained the highest mental test scores in childhood and adolescence.
answer
before 6 months
question
The chronic stress of early, deprived orphanage rearing
answer
disrupts the brain's capacity to manage stress.
question
In the study of Romanian orphans adopted into Canadian homes, the longer the children spent in orphanage care, the __________ their __________.
answer
higher; cortisol levels
question
In the Bucharest Early Intervention Project, where specially trained social workers provided foster parents with counseling and support,
answer
the foster-care group exceeded the institutional-care group in intelligence test scores, language skills, and emotional responsiveness.
question
__________ brain growth refers to the young brain's rapidly developing organization, which depends on ordinary experiences.
answer
Experience-expectant
question
__________ brain growth consists of additional growth and refinement of established brain structures as a result of specific learning experiences that vary widely across individuals and cultures.
answer
Experience-dependent
question
Which of the following learning experiences should Cheryl, a caregiver, use to promote experience-expectant brain growth?
answer
playing a game of peekaboo
question
Which of the following statements regarding a sensitive period for mastering musical performance skills is true?
answer
No evidence exists for a sensitive period in the first few years of life for mastering musical performance skills.
question
Between birth and 2 years,
answer
the organization of sleep and wakefulness changes substantially.
question
Between the ages of __________, napping subsides.
answer
3 and 5 years
question
Compared to U.S. babies, Dutch babies
answer
sleep, on average, 2 hours more per day.
question
Parent-infant "cosleeping" is the norm for approximately _____ percent of the world's population.
answer
90
question
Cosleeping
answer
babies breastfeed three times longer than infants who sleep alone.
question
Rachel is concerned that she might accidentally suffocate her baby if she shares a bed with him. What information can you share with Rachel about precautions taken in cultures where cosleeping is widespread?
answer
Parents and infants usually sleep on hard surfaces, such as firm mattresses, floor mats, or wooden planks.
question
When __________ and __________ are adequate, height is largely determined by heredity.
answer
diet; health
question
__________ growth is a return to a genetically influenced growth path once negative conditions improve.
answer
Catch-up
question
The weights of adopted children
answer
correlate more strongly with those of their biological than of their adoptive parents.
question
__________ percent of babies' total caloric intake is devoted to growth.
answer
Twenty-five
question
The World Health Organization recommends breastfeeding until age __________, with solid foods added at __________.
answer
2 years; 6 months
question
Breastfeeding for just a few weeks
answer
offers some protection against respiratory and intestinal infections.
question
In the U.S. today,
answer
more than half of breastfeeding mothers stop by 6 months.
question
The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises exclusive breastfeeding for the first __________ and inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least __________.
answer
6 months; 1 year
question
Breastfed and bottle-fed children in industrialized nations
answer
do not differ in later emotional adjustment.
question
Most chubby babies
answer
thin out during toddlerhood and early childhood.
question
In interviews with more than 1,500 U.S. parents of infants and toddlers, results indicated that
answer
as many as one-fourth ate no fruits and one-third no vegetables.
question
Jack and Jami are concerned that their chubby infant son Angus will become an overweight adult. Which of the following steps can they take to help prevent that?
answer
Limit the time Angus spends in front of the TV.
question
Shay suffers from a wasted condition of the body caused by a diet low in all essential nutrients. Shay most likely has
answer
marasmus
question
Yokow gets just enough calories from starchy foods, but his diet is very low in protein. He has an enlarged belly, swollen feet, and a rash on his skin. Yokow probably suffers from
answer
kwashiorkor.
question
When the diets of severely malnourished children improve, they
answer
tend to gain excessive weight.
question
Today, inadequate nutrition
answer
is not confined to developing countries.
question
Yolanda, age 2, is being raised in Texas by a single mother. While Yolanda's mother works, she does not always have sufficient funds to purchase enough food for a healthy, active life. Yolanda is skinny and withdrawn. Yolanda suffers from
answer
food insecurity.
question
Which of the following statements about infant learning is true?
answer
Babies learn through their natural preference for novel stimulation.
question
Newborn reflexes make __________ possible in the young infant.
answer
classical conditioning
question
In classical conditioning, once a baby's nervous system makes a connection between two stimuli, the __________ stimulus produces __________.
answer
neutral; the behavior by itself
question
Every time baby Gloria nurses, she is placed on a nursing pillow. Gloria's mom later noticed that each time Gloria was placed on the pillow, she made sucking movements. In this example, __________ is the conditioned stimulus.
answer
placement on the pillow
question
In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is presented alone enough times, without being paired with the unconditioned stimulus, __________ will __________.
answer
extinction; occur
question
Young infants can be classically conditioned most easily when
answer
the association between two stimuli has survival value.
question
Some responses, such as __________, are very difficult to classically condition in young babies because they do not yet have the motor skills needed to deal appropriately with stimuli.
answer
fear
question
In __________, infants act on the environment, and stimuli that follow their behavior change the probability that the behavior will occur again.
answer
operant conditioning
question
In operant conditioning, a reinforcer
answer
is a stimulus that increases the occurrence of a response.
question
Removing a desirable stimulus or presenting an unpleasant one to decrease the occurrence of a response is called
answer
punishment.
question
A researcher hangs a mobile over the crib of 4-month-old Anya. When the researcher attaches Anya's foot to the mobile with a long cord, Anya can, by kicking, make the mobile turn. The turning of the mobile is an example of a(n)
answer
reinforcer.
question
__________ refers to a gradual reduction in the strength of a response due to repetitive stimulation
answer
Habituation
question
At first, baby Mario was easily awakened every night by a barking dog in his neighborhood. Several weeks later, Mario's sleep is not bothered by the dog's barks. This is an example of
answer
habituation.
question
Following habituation, when a new stimulus causes responsiveness to return to a high level, the increase is called
answer
recovery.
question
A baby who first habituates to a visual pattern and then recovers to a new one appears to
answer
perceive the second pattern as new and different from the first pattern.
question
Dr. Eden studies a fetus's sensitivity to external stimuli by measuring changes in fetal heart rate when various repeated sounds are presented. Dr. Eden is probably using
answer
habituation and recovery.
question
By focusing on the shift from a novelty preference to a familiarity preference, researchers can use habituation to assess
answer
remote memory.
question
Which of the following statements about imitation is true?
answer
Babies several months old often do not imitate an adult's behavior right away because they first try to play familiar social games.
question
__________ fire identically when a primate hears or sees an action and when it carries out that action on its own.
answer
Mirror neurons
question
__________ refers to control over actions that help infants get around in the environment, whereas __________ has to do with smaller movements, such as reaching and grasping.
answer
Gross-motor development; fine-motor development
question
Which of the following is an example of a fine-motor skill?
answer
grasping
question
Four-month-old Logan's parents are tracking his motor development. Which of the following motor skills is Logan likely to have already achieved?
answer
when prone, lifts self by arms
question
Children acquire motor skills
answer
in highly individual ways.
question
According to __________ of motor development, mastery of motor skills involves acquiring increasingly complex systems of action.
answer
dynamic systems theory
question
Dynamic systems theory provides convincing evidence that the development of motor skills
answer
is profoundly influenced by the physical environment.
question
Which of the following mothers is the most likely to actively discourage rapid motor development?
answer
Biyaki, a Gusii mother
question
Kipsigi and West Indian infants walk considerably earlier than North American infants because
answer
their parents emphasize early motor maturity, practicing formal exercises to stimulate particular skills.
question
Of all motor skills, __________ may play the greatest role in infant cognitive development.
answer
reaching
question
Newborn Sam's poorly coordinated swipes or swings toward an object in front of him is called
answer
prereaching.
question
Four-month-old Kaitlyn reaches for a toy. She grabs it by closing her fingers against her palm. Kaitlyn is using
answer
the ulnar grasp.
question
A baby's ability to manipulate objects greatly expands with the development of __________, use of the thumb and index finger opposably
answer
the pincer grasp
question
One-year-old Jameson sits on the sidewalk picking up blades of grass left after his mother mows the lawn. Jameson is using
answer
the pincer grasp.
question
Dr. Sardoza is interested in research on the organization and interpretation of what we see. Dr. Sardoza studies
answer
perception.
question
ERP brain-wave recordings reveal that around 5 months, babies
answer
become sensitive to syllable stress patterns in their own language.
question
At first, babies are sensitive to virtually all speech sounds, but around 6 months, they
answer
narrow their focus, limiting distinctions to the language they hear and will soon learn
question
Which of the following individuals is the most likely to be able to discriminate individual faces of both humans and monkeys equally well?
answer
Jake, a 6-month-old
question
Research suggests that there is a sensitive period, __________, when babies are biologically prepared to "zero in" on socially meaningful perceptual distinctions.
answer
in the second half of the first year
question
Around 7 to 9 months, infants
answer
begin to divide the speech stream into wordlike units.
question
Which of the following statements about speech stream patterns is true?
answer
When presented with controlled sequences of nonsense syllables, babies listen for statistical regularities.
question
For exploring the environment, humans depend on __________ more than any other sense.
answer
vision
question
__________, infants can focus on objects about as well as adults can.
answer
Around 2 months
question
__________ improves steadily, reaching 20/80 by 6 months and an adult level of about 20/20 by 4 years.
answer
Visual acuity
question
__________ is the first depth cue to which infants are sensitive.
answer
Motion
question
__________ depth cues arise because our two eyes have slightly different views of the visual field.
answer
Binocular
question
Infants with a lot of crawling experience
answer
are more likely than their inexperienced agemates to remember object locations.
question
Which of the following pictures is newborn Alex most likely to prefer to look at?
answer
a black-and-white checkerboard with a few large squares
question
Which of the following statements about pattern perception is true?
answer
If babies are sensitive to the contrast in two or more patterns, they prefer the one with more contrast.
question
One surprising finding of infant face perception is that infants will look longer at
answer
attractive faces than unattractive ones.
question
Lana understands that an object's shape is the same whether she sees it or touches it; that breaking a glass causes a sharp, crashing sound; and that the pattern of footsteps signals the approach of a person. This understanding is called
answer
intermodal stimulation.
question
When baby Jon's dad talks to him, Jon focuses on his dad's voice and face. Jon is detecting
answer
amodal sensory properties.
question
Which of the following statements about intermodal perception is true?
answer
It fosters all aspects of psychological development.
question
According to __________ theory, infants actively search for invariant features of the environment in a constantly changing perceptual world.
answer
differentiation
question
__________ make(s) crawlers and walkers more aware of the consequences of their movements.
answer
Experience in trying to keep their balance on various surfaces
question
According to the cognitive perspective of perceptual development, babies
answer
impose meaning on what they perceive.
Childhood And Adolescence
Drug Awareness
Major League Baseball
Performance Enhancing Drugs
drug final quiz 7 25 terms

Robert Carter
25 terms
Preview
drug final quiz 7
question
During and after WWII it was found that malnourished people could gain weight more rapidly...
answer
if they were treated with testosterone.
question
a consistent congnitive effect of marijuana seen both in frequent users and in less experienced users is...
answer
slowing of cognitive processing
question
the 1999 report from the Institute of Medicine suggested that marijuana cigarettes should be allowed for
answer
no more than 6 months for patients with intractable pain or vomiting
question
studies show that marijuana increases which of the following?
answer
nonverbal social interactions
question
the 70 chemicals that are known to be unique to the cannabis plant are called
answer
cannabinoids
question
tolerance to the effects of smoked marijuana allows experience marijuana users to obtain
answer
eupohric effects with minimal cognitive impairment
question
one major behavioral problem that is seen in acute marijuana intoxication is
answer
panic reactions
question
college athletes who want to avoid failing a drug test have to be very careful because
answer
there are more than 3,000 products containing banned substances
question
one ingredient in dietary supplements was banned by the FDA in 2004 after a Major League Baseball pitcher died form heat stroke after using it.
answer
the ingredient was ephedrine
question
the marijuana Tax Act, the first fed law regulating cannabis
answer
was passed in 1937
question
although testosterone and related anabolic steroids clearly increase muscle mass during puberty, it has been more difficult to determine scientifically whether adult men with normal testosterone can get much stronger from extra steroids, partly because
answer
it would be unethical to expose research participants to the high doses of mulitple steroids used by athletes
question
extensive testing of the effects of amphetamines has consluded that they can
answer
improve performances by a few percentage points
question
the current shift in the US public's attitude towards marijuana laws is probably related to which of the following
answer
A and C increasing evidence that marijuana is relatively innocuous and a desire to spend federal funds more wisely and gain tax revenue
question
studies of the effects of marijuana on automobile driving show
answer
significant impairments when inexperienced users are studied in a lab experiment
question
which of the following is NOT ture about the marijuana tax act of 1937
answer
it did not outlaw cannabis
question
cannabis indica seems to have more psychoactive potency where as cannibis sativa is more associated with
answer
hemp
question
on side effect of the tougher 2006 drug testing policies in major league bball is that
answer
as many as 1/4 of the players on some teams have been permantently banned from the league
question
a great # of studies have consistently reported that smoked marijuana and oral THC both
answer
produce increased total daily food intake
question
the abuse potential of THC is
answer
very high regardless of how it is consumed
question
in a sutdy of heart rate changes following smoked marijuana with 4% THC or 20 mg oral THC
answer
the peak effects were similar, but smoking produced effects much sooner
question
hashish refers to p
answer
pure cannibis resin
question
which of these was NOT mentioned as one of the psychological side effects of high dose steroids
answer
memory loss
question
so called "pituitary giants" often die at an early age because their internal organs continue to grow due to
answer
excessive production of human growth hormone
question
after the national football league banned the distribution of amphetamines in 1971
answer
individual plaers could stiss get a prescription and use amphetamines if they wanted
question
the primary active ingredient in marijuana is
answer
delta 9 tetrahydrocannabinal THC
Childhood And Adolescence
Drink And Drive
Elementary School Years
Junior High School
Chapter 12 Practice Test – Flashcards 22 terms

Matthew Carle
22 terms
Preview
Chapter 12 Practice Test – Flashcards
question
Which one of the following best illustrates self-concept rather than self-worth or self-esteem?
answer
Anne says "I am a fast runner."
question
Darien knows that he wants to work with children when he grows up, but he wonders if he'd rather be a pediatrician or a teacher. This situation illustrates what important function that youngsters' sense of self serves?
answer
It helps them think about possible future selves.
question
Which one of the following best describes the role of sense of self as a factor in children's development?
answer
Most youngsters want to believe that they are competent individuals.
question
Marion puts off doing a project for the science fair until she has so little time to do it that she cannot possibly complete a good project. Such behavior is most consistent with the concept of:
answer
Self-handicapping
question
Mike desperately wants to do well on the Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT), as his scores will affect his chances of getting into his first-choice college. He also knows that many students at his school think that SAT scores are good indicators of how "smart" a person is. Yet the night before the test, rather than get a good night's sleep, Mike goes out with his friends, has a few beers, comes home late, and wakes up with a hangover. With this information in mind, we might suspect that Michael:
answer
Is engaging in self-handicapping
question
On average, children who attend schools for gifted students have lower self-esteem than children of equal intelligence who attend regular schools with students of widely varying abilities. If we consider research about factors affecting youngsters' sense of self, we can explain this finding in which one of the following ways?
answer
Children form their self-concepts in part by comparing their own performance to the performance of those around them.
question
Which one of these examples best reflects the role that children's and adolescents' sense of self typically plays in their behavior?
answer
Linda knows she is a good reader, so she takes an extra reading class as an elective.
question
Which one of the following teenage girls appears to have contingent self-worth?
answer
Marlene feels great some days and terrible other days, depending on how many classmates have recently smiled at her in the school corridors.
question
Three of the following statements accurately describe how sense of self changes over the course of childhood and adolescence. Which statement is not accurate?
answer
With age, children's self-appraisals become less and less accurate.
question
Which one of the following appears earliest in the development of children's sense of self?
answer
Recognition of oneself in the mirror
question
Given what we know about changes in children's and adolescents' self-esteem over the years, which teachers should be especially careful to help students acquire a positive sense of self?
answer
Junior high school teachers
question
As children grow older, they are more likely to:
answer
Evaluate their own performance in terms of how it compares with that of their peers
question
Elena woke up this morning with a large pimple on her nose. She refuses to go to school, telling her mother, "It looks awful, and everyone will laugh at me." Which one of the following concepts best helps us explain Elena's behavior?
answer
Imaginary audience
question
What is the tendency to conform to one's own ideas about appropriate behavior?
answer
Self-socialization
question
As a 17-year-old high school senior, Julian has no sense of direction. Over the past year he has dabbled in auto mechanics, photography, and Buddhism, but nothing has held his interest for more than a month or two. Julian can best be described as showing:
answer
Identity diffusion
question
Sharon is a 12-year-old who does not believe that she can be academically successful. Considering the textbook's discussion of factors that promote positive self-perceptions, you should:
answer
Put her in situations in which she will experience academic success.
question
Which one of the following is the best example of social cognition?
answer
Luke tries to predict how Sheila might respond if he backs out of the science project the two of them have agreed to do together.
question
The formation of children's sense of self is most strongly influenced by:
answer
How other people treat them
question
Lamont worries that he has unintentionally hurt another student's feelings. From this information alone, we can reasonably conclude that Lamont:
answer
Has developed a theory of mind
question
Which one of the following acquisitions related to theory of mind first appears in the elementary school years?
answer
An awareness that people's actions do not always reflect their true thoughts
question
Youngsters begin to think more systematically about what other people might be thinking about them during:
answer
Early adolescence
question
As a classroom teacher, you want to actively work on breaking down stereotypes and prejudices. Which one of the following techniques is least likely to be effective?
answer
Play competitive group games