US Government Mid-Term – Flashcards
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In the case of Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954) the U.S. Supreme court held that a. ethnic minorities have no rights to equal treatment by the government b. public school segregation of races violates the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment c. the national government does not have the power to force any type of actipn on local school boards d. separation of races for a reason such as education is not a violation of the Constitution
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B
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De facto segregation means a. segregation because of previous conditions, not deliberate government intention b. segregation based on different native languages c. racial segregation based on law d. segregation of southern European immigrants
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A
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The civil rights movement led by Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., was based on the philosophy of a. nonviolent civil disobedience b. divide and conquer c. "equality of all, through strong force when necessary." d. equality of practice that did not have to exclude racial segregation
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A
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The Civil Rights Act of 1964 a. was relatively symbolic b. established a Civil Rights Division within the Justice Department c. forbade discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, gender, and national origin d. did not deal with the issue of equality of opportunity in employment
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C
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The Equal Pay Act of 1964 a. requires equal pay for equal work b. does not address the tendency of men and women to hold different types of jobs c. requires quotas proportionate to the population in all new private sector hires d. a and b
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D
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Affirmative action a. requires numerical quotas by gender and race in jobs with a "history of discrimination." b. gives special consideration to traditionally disadvantaged groups in an effort to overcome past discrimination c. applies to African Americans, but no Hispanics or women. d. has been found to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
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B
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The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 prohibits a. companies from paying retired persons a wage that is equal to or greater than the minimum wage. b. age discrimination against people without a valid occupational reason. c. state government from hiring individuals who have not yet reached their 21st birthday. d. Social Security recipients from working at any job.
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B
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The American with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 a. explicitly does not cover alcoholism b. does not require wheel-chair accessible restrooms c. does not require the employment of unqualified job applicants d. explicitly does not cover mental impairment
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C
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Laws regulating conduct between private parties in matters like contracts, business, and domestic relations are called a. jurisprudence b. the common law c. civil law d. criminal law
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C
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Judge-made law developed over many years its called a. the Medicare prescription drugs benefit b. the common law c. civil law d. criminal law
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B
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Examples of the generational effect are a. the Medicare prescription drugs benefit b. support for the Republican Party resulting from the Watergate scandal c. the impact of the Great Depression on voting behavior d. the tendency of African Americans to favor the Republican Party
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C
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The poor tend to be a. economically and socially conservative b. economically and socially liberal c. economically liberal and socially conservative d. economically conservative and socially liberal
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C
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Traditionally, Protestant families tended to be a. Republicans b. concentrated in the northern states c. apolitical d. Democrats
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A
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The first election that indicated the presence of a gender gap was a. won by Richard Nixon (1968) b. won by Jimmy Carter (1976) c. won by Ronald Reagan (1980) d. won by Bill Clinton (1992)
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C
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A random sample means that a. every person in the target population has an equal chance of being selected b. there is no pre-planning in the selection process c. every person in the target population who is encountered is selected d. researchers decide how many persons of certain types they need in the survey
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A
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Possible problems with polling include a. failing to capture late-breaking voter decisions b. poorly designed questions that tip respondents in a particular direction c. a yes/no format that restricts the respondents' choices d. all of the above
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D
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Internet polling a. often takes the form of popular, unscientific "nonpolls." b. is problematic because many Americans do not go online. c. violates the principle of random selection, according to many experts d. all of the above
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D
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Some of the values that shape American political culture include a. personal achievement b. liberty, equality, and property c. religion d. all of the above
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D
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The degree to which individuals express trust in the government is called a. partisan identification b. political trust c. universal suffrage d. public opinion
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B
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The most numerous types of interest groups in the United States are a. economic interest groups b. social interest groups c. liberal interest groups d. environmental interest groups
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A
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The AFL-CIO a. no longer exists in a viable state b. is, in a sense, a union of unions. c. has been ruled illegal under anti-trust statutes d. includes only a minority of the currently existing labor unions
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B
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The Audubon Society and the National Wildlife Federation are examples of a. interest groups whose focus is preservation of the environment b. economic interest groups c. organizations that have only recently been created d. relatively ineffective interest groups
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A
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The American Civil Liberties Union (ACLU) generally enters into legal disputes related to a. labor-management negotiations b. Bill of Rights issues c. foreign relations d. manufacturing
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B
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Successful interest groups and their representatives try to cultivate long-term relationships with a. foreign ambassadors b. legislators and government officials c. federal judges d. business leaders
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B
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Groups recognize that the greatest concern of most legislators is to a. support the principles of their political party b. be reelected c. vote for the ideas of the constituents d. be totally informed on issues they will have to vote on
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B
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Traditionally, labor unions such as the AFL-CIO a. support Republican candidates b. support Democratic candidates c. support third-party candidates d. support both major parties equally
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B
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The intent of "groundswell" public pressure is to a. convince policymakers that public opinion overwhelmingly supports the interest group's position b. mislead the public on environmental issues. c. by-pass the legislative process d. force bureaucrats to answer to Congressional committees
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A
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The "rifle" techniue of lobbying consists of a. having as many constituents as possible contact legislators b. concentrating on gun control issues c. having influential constituents contact legislators d. contacting only members of Congress who appear to be undecided
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C
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All of the following statements about demonstrations are true except: a. if peaceable, they are protected by the First Amendment b. they were used to great effect by the Civil Rights Movement c. they were used by the movement against the Vietnam War d. they are organized refusals to buy the products of a particular company
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D
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A paradox in Republican and Democratic economic policies over the last 25 years has been a. the both parties have supported limited government in practice b. that despite their rhetoric, the Democrats have implemented large tax cuts c. that the Democrats are seen as supporting the less well off, while the Republicans are seen as favoring the prosperous d. that despite their support for tax cuts, the Republicans have sometimes outdone the Democrats in voting for government spending
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D
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The party-in government is a. the members of the general public who identify with a political party b. the formal structure and leadership of a political party c. all of the elected and appointed officials who identify with a party d. pledged to support all of the party's political positions
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C
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The National Convention of the party does all of the following EXCEPT: a. writes the party platform b. nominates a presidential candidate c. nominates gubernatiorial candidates d. seeks to make peace between supporters of rival candidates
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C
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Historically, the local party machine furnished important services and protection to a. wealthy suburban voters b. rural voters c. first-time voters d. immigrants and the poor
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D
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A major reason for the death of local party machines is a. most social services are now controlled by state and national agencies, not elected officials b. the ability of both major parties to win support in urban areas c. the national parties have suppressed them d. a decline in rates of immigration in recent years
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A
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Most candidates for public office in the United States are chosen a. by party "bosses" b. by dues-paid party members c. as a result of the candidate's own efforts and organization d. at party conventions
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C
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A major reason for the two-party system is the electoral system, which is based on a. the winner-take-all, or plurality, system b. proportional representation c. one-party dominance of elections d. majoritarianism
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A
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Third parties have influenced American politics by a. getting their policies adopted by a major party b. determining whether the Republicans or Democrats win an election c. both a and b d. winning elections to state legislative bodies
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C
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Realignment a. is of necessity tied to specific elections b. takes place when a substantial group of voters switches party allegiance c. takes place when one dominant party replaces another one d. took place on schedule in 2004
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B
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A major difference between voters of today and voters of the 1940s is that a. more voters today call themselves independents b. a greater percentage of eligible voters cast votes today c. more people today will vote for candidates of only one party d. third parties have declined in importance
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A
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When only declared party members can vote in a primary election, it is called a. a closed primary b. an open primary c. a run-off primary d. a blanket primary
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A
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The Constitution specifies that the number of members of the Electoral College a. cannot exceed 550 b. cannot be changed without a Constitutional amendment c. is to be determined by the president every ten years d. is equal to the number of representatives and senators a state has in Congress (plus three for D.C.)
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D
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It is possible for a candidate to become president a. without obtaining a majority of the popular vote b. without receiving any electoral votes c. if he is a naturalized citizen d. if he has not yet reached his twenty-ninth birthday
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A
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When a political party has an exceptionally strong presidential or gubernatorial candidate, they would prefer the a. Australian ballot b. Massachusetts ballot c. office-block ballot d. party-column ballot
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D
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In the years following the adoption of the Constitution, many states placed legal restrictions on the right to vote because of a. the belief that since many government decisions affect property, one should own property to vote b. a belief in the South that if poor whites could vote, they might abolish slavery c. a belief that woman's suffrage would injure the traditional family d. the fear of an aristocratic form of government
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A
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Major functions of the mass media in the United States include all of the following EXCEPT: a. entertainment b. conducting elections c. reporting the news d. providing a political forum
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B
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A brief memorable comment that easily can be fit into news broadcasts is called a. spin b. selected coverage c. managed news d. a sound bite
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D
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Generally, in presidential debates a. challengers have much more to gain from debating than do incumbents b. incumbents have much more to gain from debating than do challengers c. the minority party enjoys an advantage d. it is difficult to find sponsors
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A
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(An) indication(s) of how important the Internet has become in political campaigns is a. the high number of candidate web sites b. the increasing number of voters who attain election information on-line c. the large number of Internet users who contribute to political campaign on-line d. all of the above
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D
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The government has much more control over a. the print media than it does over the electronic media b. the radio industry than it does the television industry c. the publishing industry than any other medium d. electronic media than the print media
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D
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Government is a. in America, the president b. any institution that has the power to enforce rules c. any club or organization that allocates values d. the preeminent institution in society
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D
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In the United States, the principle for our structure of government is found a. in the Magna Carta b. in the Declaration of Independence c. in the Articles of Confederation d. in the Constitution
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D
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State governments in the Revolutionary War period and later a. concentrated power in the legislature b. concentrated power in a strong executive c. weakened the power of the judiciary d. weakened the power of the legislature
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A
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The supremacy doctrine a. asserts the superiority of large states over small states b. asserts the superiority of non-slave states over slave states c. asserts the superiority of national law over state law d. asserts the superiority of natural law over man-made law
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C
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The Federalists advocated a. the status quo b. return to the Articles of Confederation c. ratification of the new Constitution d. strong state government system
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C
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The Bill of Rights provided for a. the protection of individual liberties from state governments b. the protection of individual liberties from the national government c. equal protection under the law d. protection against state infringements on the freedoms of conscience, the press, and jury trial
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B
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In vertical checks and balances, a. Congress restricts the actions of the president b. state governments have the same internal checks and balances as the national government c. the president restricts the actions of Congress d. the state and national governments restrict each others actions
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D
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Both the increased spending by the national government and the nationally imposed income tax during the Civil War a. were immediately ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court b. were precursors to the later expanded role of the national government c. were attempts by state governments to restrict the role of the national government d. led to anti-tax riots in major cities
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B
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Teaching Darwin's theory of evolution in the public schools a. is often controversial because the theory is not accepted as true by many of the American people b. cannot constitutionally be banned c. cannot be subject to a requirement that creationism be taught as well d. all of the above
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D
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The Supreme Court has allowed municipalities to require permits for parades, sound trucks, and demonstrations a. because such activities are not covered by the First Amendment b. so that public officials may control traffic or prevent demonstrations from turning into riots c. since 1938, when Congress enacted legislation restricting such activities d. both a and c
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B
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The Thirteenth Amendment to the Constitution a. prohibited slavery b. forced states to alter their own constitutions to end slavery by making the children of slaves free while allowing slavery for existing slaves c. mandated that all persons "will be treated as total equals from this date forward" d. had little impact on state governments and slavery
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A
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The withdrawal of federal troops that occupied the South during Reconstruction resulted in a. a normalizing of relations between the North and South b. the end of a brief period of enfranchisement for African Americans c. an end to the use of poll taxes d. the beginning of de jure segregation
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B
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The tests commonly administered as a precondition for voting were called a. poll tests b. constitutional exams c. literacy tests d. primary tests
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C
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African Americans faced which of the following: a. an informal but detailed code of behavior that they were expected to obey and that confirmed their inferiority b. an absolute prohibition of "familiarity" by African American men or boys toward white women c. mob action to murder, and sometimes torture, those accused of "familiarity" or other offenses d. all of the above
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D
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Martin Luther King's philosophy of nonviolent civil disobedience was influenced greatly by a. Martin Luther b. Buddha c. Nelson Mandela in South Africa d. Mahatma Gandhi in India
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D
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Because there is no one "public," but rather many different publics, surveying public opinion actually means a. focusing on one identifiable opinion among all the competing states b. describing the distribution of opinions among the public about a particular issue c. identifying an issue where opinion can aggregate d. surveying only influential individuals
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B
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General agreement among the citizenry on an issue is a. a consensus b. divisive opinion c. reconciliation d. poll agreement
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A
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Private opinion becomes public opinion a. when an opinion is publicly expressed b. when it concerns public issues c. when an individual is polled by a major polling organization d. both a and b
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D
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The most important principle in sampling, or poll-taking, to ensure a representative sample, is a. the sample size b. the random selection of respondents c. the firm that is conducting the sample d. the number of people who have taken part in polls before this poll
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B
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People who become members of interest groups for solidary incentives are joining a. for a sense of belonging to the group b. to improve their economic opportunities c. for ethical beliefs or ideological reasons d. to obtain political, economic, or social change
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A
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People who become members of interest groups for purposive incentives are joining a. for a sense of belonging to the group b. to improve their economic opportunities c. for ethical beliefs or ideological reasons d. to obtain political, economic, or social impact on the whole society
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B
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American farmers and their workers represent about 2% of the US population. This fact illustrates that a. because of their size, farmers have been unsuccessful as interest groups b. there are more farmers today than there were forty years ago c. most farmers are too busy to be politically actives d. even a small percentage of the populace can be effective if they organize
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D
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Since 1960, the greatest growth in unionization has occurred among a. military personnel b. professional athletes c. public employees d. private sector employees
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C
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A political party differs from an interest group in that a. political parties want to operate the government and interest groups do not want to operate the government b. political parties do not want to operate the government and interest groups do want to operate the government c. individuals must pay dues to belong to a political party d. individuals in a political party agree on all major policy issues
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A
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George Washington viewed political parties as a a. necessary for the functioning of democracy b. tradition from colonial times that would always exist c. threat to national unity and popular government d. legitimate means for interest groups to attempt to gain control of the government
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C
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All of the following statements about the Great Depression are true except a. it shattered the working-class belief in Republican economic competence b. it made the Democrats the "natural party of government" in place of the Republicans c. Roosevelt's relief programs were generally not available to African Americans d. it resulted in the final transformation of the Democrats from a party of limited government
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C
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By the election of 2000 a. the country was closely divided between the two parties b. geographic patterns of support for the parties had reversed almost completely from 1896 c. both a and b d. the same party had held Congress and the presidency for almost thirty years
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C
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Most of the president's nominees for federal judicial positions a. have had limited judicial experience at the federal level b. are from the same geographical area as the president c. are of the same political party as the president d. are chosen on a bipartisan basis
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C
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Third parties have influenced American politics by a. getting their policies adopted by a major party b. determining whether the Republicans or Democrats win an election c. both a and b d. winning elections to state legislative bodies
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C
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A statewide election of delegates to a political party's national convention to help a party determine its presidential nominee is called a. a general election b. a presidential primary c. a delegate selection caucus d. the Electoral College
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B
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A candidate for the U.S. Senate a. must be a natural-born citizen b. must have attained the age of forty years c. must be a resident of the state from which selected d. must be a member of the House of Representatives
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C
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The Supreme Court has ruled that the following action(s) cannot be banned under the Constitution: a. making unlimited contributions to one's own campaign b. making unlimited contributions to a congressional campaign c. accepting campaign contributions from a corporation or union d. all of the above
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A
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When voters can vote in either party primary without disclosing their party affiliation, it is called a. a closed primary b. an open primary c. a run-off primary d.a blanket primary e. a caucus
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B
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How the members of the Electoral College are selected within each state is currently governed by a. state laws and party rules b. the Federal Electoral Selection Act c. article VII of the United States Constitution d. Congressional oversight
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A
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It is possible for a candidate to become president a. without obtaining a majority of the popular vote b. without receiving any electoral votes c. if he is a naturalized citizen d. if he has not yet reached his twenty-ninth birthday
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A
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When we say the media help set the public agenda, we mean that the media a. allow candidates for election to appear on news programs b. report what top officials such as the president have said in their news conferences c. introduce political ideas into entertainment programs d. identify issues that merit public attention and government action
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D
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Politics is a. a process that regulates conflict within a society b. a struggle over power or influence within organizations or informal groups c. fundamentally irrelevant d. both a and b
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D
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Taxes were imposed on the colonists a. to pay for the coronation of King George III b. to pay for the establishment of more colonies c. to pay the costs of Britain's defense of the colonies against the French d. to purchase Canada (Quebec) from the French
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C
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The First Continental Congress a. was called by the colonies to seek independence from Britain b. called for the abdication of King George III c. asked the colonies to boycott British trade and raise troops d. was ignored by the British
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C
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The Tenth Amendment states that the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are a. the sole authority of Congress b. reserved to the central government c. reserved to the states respectively, or the people d. the sole authority of the executive branch
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C
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As originally presented in the Constitution, the Bill of Rights a. limited only the power of the national government, not that of the states b. protected citizens from all forms of government c. protected citizens from the national and state governments, but not from local governments d. limited only the power of state governments
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A
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Civil Rights a. refer to the rights of all Americans equal treatment under the law b. specify what the government must do to ensure equal protection c. are limitations placed on the government to protect citizens d. both a and b
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D
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In 1896 the U.S. Supreme Court ruled, in the case of Plessy v. Ferguson, that a. African Americans are not persons for purposes of the Constitution b. the national government has the power to force all people to treat each other as equals c. schools ma not practice any type of racial segregation d. separation of races is not a violation of the Constitution
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D
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The direct result of the case of Plessy v. Ferguson was a. the integration of public schools in the South b. the development of a system of legal racial segregation known as "Jim Crow." c. the end of racial segregation d. a constitutional amendment that gave Congress more power to deal with racial problems
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B
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Barriers used to prevent African Americans from voting included a. the white primary b. the grandfather clause c. the poll tax d. all of the above
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D
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Concerning sexual harassment, the Supreme Court has ruled that a. employers are not responsible for harassment undertaken by their employees b. individuals cannot be sexually harassed by members of their own gender c. sexual harassment can occur when words or actions of a sexual nature interfere with the employee's work or create a a "hostile environment." d. it is not illegal to condition promotions on sexual favors
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C
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The concept of public opinion refers to a. the aggregation of individual attitudes shared by some portion of adults b. the ideas that public officials want the populace to believe c. only those ideas that fall within the liberal-conservative spectrum d. the official position of the government as announced to the world
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A
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Peer groups are most likely to influence political attitudes when a. people are over the age of fifty b. it is not an election year c. people within the peer group do not have strong party identification d. the peer group is actively involved in political activities
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D
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Generational effect refers to a. the way in which political socialization produces opinions b. the increased tension between the two major political parties c. the tendency for persons to become more conservative as they grow older d. the long-lasting impact of significant events on the generation that came of age at that time
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D
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The rich tend to be a. economically and socially conservative b. economically and socially liberal c. economically liberal and socially conservative d. economically conservative and socially liberal
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D
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Historically, Roman Catholic families tended to be a. apolitical b. very conservative on economic issues c. more liberal on cultural issues than Protestant families d. Democrats
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D
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American women are more likely a. to oppose capital punishment b. to favor restrictions on access to abortions c. to advocate a limited government role in domestic policy d. to support interventions abroad
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A
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A major problem of the Literary Digest's polling technique in the 1930s was that it a. did not include enough individuals in the sample b. was based on the concept of a random sample c. was based on a format that had only a 70% success rate d. used non-representative, non-random respondents
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D
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An interest group is a. any association of individuals b. a group of people who want to gain control of the government c. an organization that actively attempts to influence government policy d. any organization that requires members to pay dues
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C
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A lobbyist is a. any association of individuals b. usually affiliated with one of the two major political parties c. an individual or organization who attempts to influence legislation and regulatory decisions d. a member of Congress who challenges the majority position
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C
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A free rider is a. an interest group member b. a participant in a social movement c. someone granted free passage to Washington to lobby or demonstrate d. someone who benefits from the action of a group without joining it
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D
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People who become members of interest groups for material incentives are joining a. for a sense of belonging to the group b. to improve their economic opportunities c. for ethical beliefs or ideological reasons d. to institute change for political, economic, or social impact on the whole society
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B
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The part of the economy that provides services is called a. the public employee sector b. the military-industrial sector c. the service sector d. the manufacturing sector
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C
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Interest groups attain a reputation for being powerful through a. their membership size b. their financial resources c. their strategies and tactics d. all of the above
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D
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One of the ways in which lobbyists make themselves valuable to decision makers is by a. threatening to campaign against them in upcoming elections b. providing bribes c. threatening to withhold campaign contributions d. providing information and expertise whenever asked
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D
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Interest groups often hire former government employees or former members of Congress as lobbyists for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. the lobbyists "know their way around Washington" b. these individuals often retain friendships with former colleagues c. the groups cannot possibly be effective if they do not hire these people d. these lobbyists have expert knowledge
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C
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A voter or a candidate who does not identify with a political party is called a. a naysayer b. an independent c. a liberal d. a conservative
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B
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A political party is a group of individuals who a. agree on all policy issues b. organize to win elections and operate the government c. pay monthly dues to an ideological organization d. have been elected to office and have obtained positions of power
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B
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A political system in which only two parties have a reasonable chance of winning is called a. a bipartisan government b. a two-party system c. American-style federalism d. bifurcated government
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B
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The first partisan political division in the United States was between a. the Democrats and the Republicans b. the Whigs and the Democrats c. the Federalists and the Anti-Federalists d. the Whigs and the Tories
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C
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In the years after the Civil War a. the Republican Party was by far the stronger of the two parties b. Most northern Catholics supported the Republicans c. the Republicans supported business interests and evangelical Protestant cultural values d. the Republicans turned to supporting states' rights
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C
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During the last half-century, the Democrats have been known as the party of a. the working class and of racial and ethnic minorities b. economic depression c. the economic elite d. conservative political ideas
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A
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Republicans have emphasized a. the need for governmental regulation of the economy b. the importance of the marketplace and less emphasis on social programs c. social freedoms like the proposed Equal Rights Amendment d. the need to increase taxes on the wealthy and large corporations
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B
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According to a series of studies done by The New York Times a. once elected, party members are not very likely to enact platform measures b. delegates to national party conventions are more partisan than party identifiers c. voters are more likely to vote for the party whose convention they see on television d. delegates to national party conventions are more moderate than party identifiers
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B
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One of the largest obstacles for potential presidential candidates is a. name recognition b. family responsibilities c. raising money d. "skeletons" in their closet
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C
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Naturalized citizens are constitutionally barred from running for the office of a. United States Senator b. United States Representative c. President of the United States d. all of the above
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C
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Since 1972, the number of women winning seats in the U.S. House of Representatives has a. increased significantly b. remained the same c. dropped drastically d. been smaller than the number running for the U.S. Senate
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A
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Candidates for public office are likely to be a. people who have lower incomes and are attempting to improve their economic position b. lawyers c. younger than the average worker entering the work force d. veterans
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B
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The goal of a political campaign a. is to provide competition that will allow the most qualified candidate to be elected b. is to win the election c. it to improve the voters' knowledge of the major issues d. is to turn a profit
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B
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For a federal political action committee (PAC) to be legitimate, it must a. contribute to at least five federal candidates b. raise money from at least 50 volunteer donors c. represent at least five corporations, interest groups, or unions d. both a and b
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D
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The process of nominating presidential candidates is now controlled by a. the public rather than party elites b. members of the party in Congress c. the Electoral College d. the national party chairperson and the national executive committee
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A
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When the top two candidates in a primary compete in a second primary for the majority of votes, it is called a. a closed primary b. an open primary c. a run-off primary d. a blanket primary
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C
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In cases where no presidential candidate receives a majority of the electoral college vote, a. the current president serves two more years, at which time there is another general election b. the candidate who receives a plurality of the popular vote is elected c. the electors cast a second ballot to determine who will be elected d. the election is decided in the U.S. House of Representatives
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D
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A democratic republic is a. liberal b. a direct democracy c. impossible d. a republic in which the people elect representatives to make laws
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D
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In response to the tax protest known as the "Boston Tea Party," the British government a. closed Boston Harbor b. placed the government of Massachusetts under direct British control c. backed down and repealed several of the most controversial taxes d. both a and b
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D
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A confederation refers to a. a union with a strong executive authority b. a voluntary association of independent states c. the relationship that existed between the colonies before the revolutionary crisis d. a national legislature
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B
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In a unitary system of government, ultimate government authority is located a. at the state or provincial level b. at the local or municipal level c. at the regional level d. at the national or central level
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D
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"Enumerated powers" mean a. the powers necessary to conduct a census b. the powers expressly delegated to the national government by the Constitution c. the powers reserved for both states and the national government d. powers denied in the Constitution
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B
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Powers held jointly by the national and state governments are called a. cooperative powers b. statutory powers c. reserved powers d. concurrent powers
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D
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Civil liberties represent a. something that the government must do, such as guaranteeing a privilege to individuals b. something the government cannot do, such as abridge a freedom c. a threat to property rights d. a threat to libertarians
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B
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According to the clear and present danger test, expression could be restricted if a. it does not deal with a political question b. it is found to be offensive to religious organizations c. and only if the United States is at war d. Evidence exists that such expression would cause a condition that would endanger the public
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D