Home Page Social Science Psychology Psychometrics Criterion Related Validity

Criterion Related Validity Flashcards, test questions and answers

Discover flashcards, test exam answers, and assignments to help you learn more about Criterion Related Validity and other subjects. Don’t miss the chance to use them for more effective college education. Use our database of questions and answers on Criterion Related Validity and get quick solutions for your test.

We've found 9 Criterion Related Validity tests

Criterion Related Validity Necessary But Not Sufficient Psychometrics Standard Error Of Measurement Taking The Test Test Retest Reliability Visual Spatial Processing

09 Test – Flashcard 92 terms

Aiden Boyd

92 terms

Preview

09 Test – Flashcard

question

An examiner administers and scores the same test numerous times without deviating from the procedure in order to reduce the possibility of measurement error. This exemplifies what?

answer

Standardization

question

The scores of a representative population sample on a test that an examiner compares an individual's scores to are referred to as ________; while they allow for comparisons on a person's performance on different tests, they do not provide the ultimate standard of performance.

answer

Norms

question

A psychological test that is regarded ________ is administered, scored, and interpreted independent of the subjective judgment of the examiner.

answer

Objective

question

The SAT and GRE are examples of ________ tests, as they provide information about a person's best possible performance, while the MMPI-2 and PAI are ________ tests, providing information about a person's usual experience.

answer

Maximum performance; typical performance

question

________ tests asses the difficulty level an examinee can attain (e.g., Information from WAIS), ________ tests asses the person's response rate (e.g., Digit Symbol from WAIS), and ________ tests help determine whether an individual can attain a certain level of acceptable performance (e.g., test of reading skills).

answer

Power; speed; mastery

question

A ________ occurs when an instrument cannot take on a value higher than some limit due to the measure not including enough difficult items, resulting in all high-achieving examinees getting similar scores (test is too easy); conversely, a ________ occurs when an instrument cannot take on a lower value and thus all low-achieving examinees get similar scores (test is too hard).

answer

Ceiling effect; floor effect

question

In contrast to normative measures, these types of measures use individuals themselves as their own frame of reference, comparing 2 or more desirable options and choosing the one that is most preferred.

answer

Ipsative measures

question

________ is the consistency of a test, or the degree to which a test provides the same results under the same conditions; ________ refers to the degree that a test measures what it claims to be measuring.

answer

Reliability; validity

question

A perfectly reliable test would yield every examinees' ________ every time it was administered, as this would indicate the examinees' actual ability on whatever the test is measuring; however, a test is never perfectly reliable due to ________, which is random and can be caused by environmental noise, examinee's mood on testing day, and any other number of factors.

answer

True score; measurement error

question

The most commonly used methods of estimating reliability of a test use a correlation coefficient, referred to as the ________, ranging in value from 0.0 to +1.0, where coefficients closer to 0.0 indicate less reliability and values closer to +1.0 indicate increasing reliability; the coefficient is not squared to determine the proportion of variability, unlike other correlation coefficients, rather it is interpreted directly.

answer

Reliability coefficient

question

A researcher administers the same instrument to the same group of college students on 2 separate occasions; following the second administration, the researcher correlates on the first and second administrations. What type of reliability is the researcher attempting to obtain?

answer

Test-retest reliability (or "coefficient of stability")

question

True or False: It is not recommended to use the test-retest coefficient when attempting to obtain reliability for a test that measures attributes that are unstable (e.g., mood)?

answer

True- low coefficients, in such cases, would likely be more a reflection of the attribute's unreliability rather than the test's unreliability

question

A researcher administers one form of a test on one day, then administers an equivalent form to the same group of people at a later date/time. What type of reliability is being sought in this example?

answer

Alternate forms reliability (or "coefficient of equivalence;" parallel-forms reliability)

question

When correlations are obtained among individual test items, ________ reliability is being assessed; the 3 methods for obtaining this reliability include ________ (involves dividing test into 2 parts then correlating responses from the 2 parts), ________ (used when test items are dichotomously scored- e.g., "true/false"), and ________ (used for tests with multiple-scored items- e.g., "never/rarely/sometimes/always").

answer

Internal consistency (or "coefficient of internal consistency"); split-half; Kuder-Richardson Formula 20; Cronbach's coefficient alpha

question

While the split-half reliability coefficient usually lowers the reliability coefficient artificially, the ________ can be used to correct for the effects of shortening the measure.

answer

Spearman-Brown formula

question

What type of tests are measures of internal consistency not good at assessing reliability for?

answer

Speed tests, as the correlation would be spuriously inflated

question

Instruments that rely on rater judgments would be best to have high ________ reliability, which is increased when scoring categories are ________ and ________.

answer

Inter-rater (interscorer); mutually exclusive (a particular behavior belongs to a single category); exhaustive (categories cover al possible responses/behaviors)

question

The ________ estimates the amount of error to be expected in an individual test score and is used to determine a range, referred to as a/an ________, within which an examinee's true score will likely fall.

answer

Standard Error of Measurement; confidence interval

question

What is the formula for the standard error of the measurement?

answer

SEmeas = SDx (standard deviation of test scores) / rxx (reliability coefficient)

question

What is the probability that a person's true score lies within a range of plus or minus 1 standard error of measurement (SEM) of their obtained score? How about plus or minus 1.96 (2) SEM? And finally, plus or minus 2.58 (2.5) SEM?

answer

68% of the time; 95% of the time; 99% of the time

question

True or False: Hypothetically, a test with a reliability coefficient of +1.0 would have a standard error of measurement of 0.0?

answer

True- a test with perfect reliability will have no error

question

The standard error of measurement is ________ related to the reliability coefficient (rxx) and ________ related to the standard deviation of test scores (SDx).

answer

Inversely; positively

question

What reliability coefficient, when practical, is the best to use?

answer

Alternate-forms

question

Classical test theory states that an observed score reflects ________ plus ________.

answer

True score variance; random error variance

question

Methods of recording behaviors include ________ recording (elapsed time that behavior occurs is recorded), ________ recording (number of times behavior occurs is recorded), ________ recording (rater notes whether subject engages in behavior during given time period), and ________ recording (all behavior during an observation session is recorded).

answer

Duration; frequency; interval; continuous

question

Simply put, ________ refers to the degree a test measures what it purports to measure.

answer

Validity

question

A depression scale that only assesses the affective aspects of depression but fails to account for the behavioral aspects would be lacking what type of validity?

answer

Content validity, which refers to the extent to which test items represent all facets of the content area being measured (e.g., EPPP)

question

True or False: Content validity assessment requires a degree of agreement between experts in the subject matter, thus it includes an element of subjectivity?

answer

True- in addition, tests should correlate highly with other tests that measure the same content domain

question

In contrast to content validity, ________ occurs when a test appears to valid by examinees, administrators, and other untrained observers; it is not technically a type of test validity.

answer

Face validity

question

A personality test that effectively predicts the future behavior of an examinee has what type validity?

answer

Criterion-related validity, which is obtained by correlating scores on a predictor test to some external criterion (e.g., academic achievement, job performance)

question

Criterion-related validity is assessed using a/an ________ to determine the relationship between the predictor and the criterion; for interpretation this value can be squared, producing the "________," which indicates the proportion of variability in the criterion that is explained by variability in the predictor.

answer

Correlation coefficient; coefficient of determination

question

The process of ________ validation involves the predictor and the criterion being collected at the same time, providing information regarding a test's usefulness for predicting a given current behavior; ________ validation involves a waiting period between collection of predictor scores and criterion data, providing information regarding a test's usefulness for predicting future behavior.

answer

Concurrent; predictive

question

When interpreting a person's predicted score on a given criterion measure, the ________ will determine within what range of scores their actual score will likely fall.

answer

Standard Error of Estimate

question

The standard error of measurement constructs a confidence interval around an examinee's ________ score (using a reliability coefficient), while the standard error of estimate does the same for an examinee's ________ score (using a validity coefficient).

answer

Obtained; predicted

question

Interviewees are given an aptitude test (predictor) to predict work success (criterion), with hiring contingent on achieving a certain minimum score, called a/an ________ score. The manager then rates performance on work tasks, an indication of success, and only those who score above a certain ________ are deemed successful.

answer

Predictor cutoff; criterion cutoff

question

Scoring above both the predictor and criterion cutoff points produces ________; scoring above the predictor cutoff point but below the criterion cutoff point produces ________; scoring below the predictor cutoff point but above the criterion cutoff point produces; and scoring below both the predictor and criterion cutoff points produces ________.

answer

True positives (valid acceptances); false positives (false acceptances); false negatives (invalid rejections); true negatives (valid rejections)

question

Some factors contributing to a low validity coefficient include the validation group being ________ or the predictor and/or criterion being ________.

answer

Homogenous; unreliable

question

When a test has a different validity coefficient for one group compared to another, the variables affecting validity are called ________ variables; when this is the case, the test is said to have ________.

answer

Moderator; differential validity

question

This is the process whereby an already validated test is re-validated with a different sample of people than the original validation sample.

answer

Cross-validation

question

What term is used to describe the reduction that occurs in a criterion-related validity coefficient after cross-validation?

answer

Shrinkage

question

The greatest shrinkage occurs when the original validation sample is ________, the original item pools is ________, the number of items retained is ________ relative to the items in the item pool, and/or item are not chosen based on ________ or ________.

answer

Small; large; small; previously formulated hypothesis; experience with the criterion

question

________ is one way a predictor might end up looking more valid than it actually is, which occurs when predictor scores themselves influence any person's criterion status (e.g., manager is aware that factory worker did well on predictor, this knowledge positively influences manager's ratings on criterion performance).

answer

Criterion contamination

question

How is criterion contamination prevented?

answer

Criterion raters should have no prior knowledge of examinees' predictor scores

question

Theorized psychological variables (e.g., personality, intelligence) that are abstract and not directly observable are referred to as ________, hence ________ provides an indication of the degree to which an instrument measures or correlates with such variables.

answer

Construct; construct validity

question

A newly developed test of personality has a high correlation with the MMPI-2 and a low correlation with the Wechsler Memory Scale, indicating the test has both ________ validity and ________ validity, respectively.

answer

Convergent; discriminant/divergent - both are forms of construct validity

question

True or False: The only time a low correlation coefficient provides evidence of high validity is when discriminant validity is indicated due to there being a low correlation between 2 tests that measure different constructs?

answer

True- in all other cases, high validity is indicated by a high correlation coefficient

question

What complex procedure for assessing convergent and discriminant validity requires the assessment of 2 or more traits (e.g., personality, depression) by 2 or more methods (e.g., self-report, peer rating)?

answer

Multitrait-multimethod matrix

question

When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix, ________ validity is indicated when tests that measure the same traits are highly correlated, even when different methods of measurement are used; conversely, ________ validity is indicated when tests that measure different constructs are minimally correlated, even when the same method of measurement.

answer

Convergent; discriminant

question

The ________ coefficient is a reliability coefficient, as it indicates the correlation between itself and the measure; correlations between two measures that measure the same trait using different methods are called ________ coefficients; correlations between two measures that measure different traits using the same method are called ________ coefficients; and correlations between 2 measures that measure different traits using different methods are called ________ coefficients.

answer

Monotrait-monomethod; monotrait-heteromethod; heterotrait-monomethod; heterotrait-heteromethod

question

When assessing validity using the multitrait-multimethod matrix, convergent validity is indicated when there is a high ________ correlation, while discriminant validity is indicated by a low ________ correlation and further confirmed by a ________ heterotrait-heteromethod correlation.

answer

Monotrait-heteromethod; heterotrait-monomethod; low

question

________, often used to assess the construct validity of a test or tests, involves reducing a larger set of variables into fewer classified sets of variables based on the construct that is primarily "picked-up" by each measure; each variable is correlated with every other variable, creating a ________.

answer

Factor analysis; factor matrix

question

The main purpose of factor analysis is to reveal how many and to what degree underlying constructs, also called ________ due to the fact that the analysis does not directly intend to measure them, can account for scores on a larger number of tests.

answer

Latent variables

question

In a hypothetical factor analysis, the factor matrix indicates a correlation coefficient of .68 between the depression subscale of the MMPI-2 and Factor II. What term is used to describe the correlation between the depression subscale and Factor II?

answer

Factor loading, which refers to the correlation between a given test and a given factor (e.g., the depression subscale loads .68 on Factor II); it can be square to determine proportion of variability

question

________ determines the proportion of variance of a test that is attributable to the factors; it is the sum of squared factor loadings.

answer

Communality (h-squared) - not the case when oblique rotation is used

question

The amount of variability in a test that can be explained by whatever traits are represented by the factors is referred to as ________, while variance that is specific to the test and not explained by the factors is referred to as ________.

answer

Common variance (represents communality); unique variance (represents specificity)

question

In a factor analysis, these values indicate the amount of variance in all the tests accounted for by the factor; they are analyzed to determine whether or not the factor is accounting for a significant amount of variability in the tests.

answer

Eigenvalues (or explained variance)

question

If a factor analysis is performed on 8 tests, what is the largest the sum of the eigenvalues can be?

answer

Since the sum of the eigenvalues can be no larger than the number of tests included in the factor analysis, the answer is 8

question

A procedure that facilitates factor matrix interpretation is ________, which involves re-dividing the test's communalities so that a clearer pattern of loadings emerges.

answer

Rotation

question

Two general rotation strategies include ________ for factors that are uncorrelated (independent of each other) and ________ for correlated factors; the decision as to which one is used is based on the researcher's theoretical assumptions.

answer

Orthogonal; oblique

question

When construct validity is being assessed using factor analysis, a high correlation between a test and a factor the test is expected to correlate highly with is referred to as what?

answer

Factorial validity

question

While factor analysis assumes variance in a variable is composed of ________, ________, and ________, principle components analysis assumes variance is composed of ________ and ________.

answer

Communality; specificity; error; explained variance; error variance

question

"Factor" is to factor analysis as ________ or ________ is to principal components analysis.

answer

Principal component; eigenvector

question

What method might a researcher who is interested in developing a taxonomy (classification system) of different personality characteristics use?

answer

Cluster analysis

question

In ________ analysis, only interval and ratio data can be used and researchers typically have an a priori hypothesis about what traits a set of variables measure; by contrast, ________ can be performed using any type of data (interval, ration, nominal, ordinal) and is not designed for studies where the researcher has an a priori hypothesis.

answer

Factor analysis; cluster analysis

question

True or False: A reliable test is not always a valid test, though a valid test must be a reliable test?

answer

True- reliability is a necessary but not sufficient condition for validity

question

The ________ coefficient is less than or equal to the square root of the ________ coefficient; it cannot be any higher, thus the latter sets a ________ on the former.

answer

Validity; reliability; ceiling (or upper-limit)

question

A researcher discovers a test has low reliability; however, she is interested in what the validity coefficient of the predictor would be if both the predictor and the criterion were perfectly reliable. What formula would she use?

answer

Correction for attenuation

question

What is the correlation between the factors in a factor analysis where an orthogonal rotation is used?

answer

By definition, the correlation would be 0.0

question

What is used to determine which test items will be retained for the final version of a test and to ensure that a test is both reliable and valid from the start?

answer

Item analysis

question

The ________ the p-value, the ________ the item.

answer

Higher; less difficult OR lower; more difficult

question

The percentage of examinees that answer an item correctly is referred to as a/an ________, which is abbreviated ________; most test developers prefer items with a ________ value at or around ________.

answer

Item difficulty index; p; p; .50

question

The rule-of-thumb for item difficulty on a test is that the optimal difficulty level of test items should be approximately halfway between 1.0 (i.e., everyone is correct) and the level of success expected by chance alone. That known, what is the optimal item difficulty level of a multiple choice test with 4 options (e.g., EPPP)?

answer

p = .625, which means there is a 62.5% chance of guessing the correct answer to an item

question

According to Anastasi, the p-level expresses item difficulty in terms of an ________ scale, as conclusions cannot be made about the differences in difficulty between items, only that certain items are easier/harder than others.

answer

Ordinal (difficulty level are rankings, according to Anastasi)

question

The degree to which a test item differentiates among test-takers in terms of the behavior the test is designed to measure is called ________ and can be assessed by calculating a/an ________, which is abbreviated as "________."

answer

Item discrimination; item discrimination index; D

question

An item on a measure of anxiety would have good ________ if low-anxiety examinees consistently answered it differently than high-anxiety examinees.

answer

Discriminability (item discrimination)

question

An item's ________ level places a ceiling on its ________ index; higher levels of discriminability are associated with ________ levels of difficulty.

answer

Difficulty; discrimination; moderate

question

True or False: The reliability of a test will decrease as the mean discrimination index (D) increases?

answer

False- there is a direct correlation between test reliability and mean D

question

A graphical depiction of both item difficulty and item discrimination is called a/an ________; analysis based on ________ is derived from these.

answer

Item characteristic curve (ICC); item response theory

question

An item characteristic curve identifies 3 ________, including item difficulty, item discrimination, and ________.

answer

The probability that a question can be answered correctly by guessing; this is indicated on a chart by the point at which the curve crosses the y-axis)

question

Item response theory assumes (1) performance on an item is related to the estimated amount of a/an ________ being measured by the item, and (2) ________ (an item should have the same characteristics regardless of the sample of people taking the test).

answer

Latent trait; invariance of item parameters

question

The computerized selection of test items for individual examinees is referred to as what?

answer

Computer adaptive assessment

question

What item difficulty level is associated with the maximum level of differentiation among examinees?

answer

.50, indicating half answered correctly and half answered incorrectly

question

What factor most affects an item's difficulty level?

answer

Characteristics of examinees

question

What type of interpretation indicates where the examinee stands in relation to others who have taken the same test?

answer

Norm-referenced interpretation

question

Providing a general indication as to the progression a person has made along the normal developmental path, ________ norms include ________ and ________.

answer

Developmental; mental age; grade equivalent scores

question

What is the calculation for ratio IQ?

answer

(mental age/chronological age) x 100

question

A 20-year-old performs as well on a test as the average 10-year-old. His mental age is ________ and his ratio IQ is ________.

answer

10-years-old; 50

question

Indicating the grade level a person's performance is equivalent to, ________ are typically used in the interpretation of educational achievement tests.

answer

Grade equivalent scores (e.g., Wide Range Achievement Test, 4th Ed [WRAT-4])

question

True or False: When using developmental norms, scores obtained by people of different age groups are not comparable?

answer

True- this is due to the fact that standard deviation is not accounted for

question

Including percentile ranks and standard scores, ________ norms compare examinee scores to those of the most nearly comparable standardization sample.

answer

Within-group

question

Z-scores, t-scores, stanine scores, and deviation IQ scores are all examples of ________, which express a raw score's distance from the mean in terms of standard deviation.

answer

Standard scores

question

Identify the mean (M) and standard deviation (sd) of: z-scores, t-scores, stanine scores, and deviation IQ scores.

answer

Z-score (M = 0, sd = 1), t-score (M = 50, sd = 10), stanine (M = 5, sd = about 2), deviation IQ (M = 100, sd = 15)

STUDY

AP Psychology Criterion Related Validity Psychology Watson And Rayner

pysch – Flashcard 67 terms

Rosa Sloan

67 terms

Preview

pysch – Flashcard

question

Describe the evolution of scientific psyschology from its early pioneers to contemporary concerns.

answer

...

question

Psychological science seeks to answer questions about how people ____,____, and ____ as they do

answer

think feel act

question

The greek philosopher ______ developed early theories about ____,_____,______,____,____ and _____.

answer

Aristotle learning, memory, motivation, emotion, perception, personality

question

The first psychological laboratory was founded in 1879 by Wilhelm ____. His student, ____, introduced the school of ____,, which explored the basic eleemnts of mind using the method of ____. this method proved ____. (reliable/ unreliable)

answer

Wundt; Edward Tichener; structuralism, introspection, unreliable

question

Under the influence of evolutionary theroerist Charles Darwin, psychologist _____ assumed that thinking developed because it was _____. he founded the school of ____, which focused on how mental and behavioral processes enable the organism to adapt, survive, and flourish.

answer

James; adaptive; functionalism

question

The first female president of the American Psychological Association was ___. the first woman to receive her PHD in pscychology was ___.

answer

Mary Calkins Margaret Floy Washburn

question

Describe the evolution of psychology as defined from the 1920's through today.

answer

...

question

The historical roots of psychology include the fields of ____ and____.

answer

biology and philosophy

question

some early psychologists include Ivan Pavlov who pioneered the study of ____; the personality theorist____, and Jean Piaget, who studied ____.

answer

learning Sigmund Freud Children

question

In the earliest years, pyschology was defined as the science of ____ life. from the 1920's into the 1960's psychology in America was redifined as the science of _____ behavior.

answer

Mental observable

question

As a response to Freudian psychology and to _____, which they considered too mechanistic, pioneers ____ and______ forged ___ psychology. This new perspective emphasized the ____ potential of ___ people.

answer

behaviorism Carl Rogers, Abraham Maslow, Humanistic growth, healthy

question

During the 1960's, psychology underwent a ____ revolution as it began to recapture interest in how our ____ processes and retains information. The study of brain activity linked with mental activity is called ____ ______.

answer

cognitive; mind; cognitive neuroscience

question

The text author defines pyschology as the sciencetific study of _____ and _____ processes.

answer

behavior and mental

question

In this definition, "behavior" refers to any action that we can ____ and ____, and "mental processes" refers to the internal, ____ ____ we _____ from behavior.

answer

observe; record subjective experiences infer

question

As a science, psychology is less a set of findings than a way of ____ _____.

answer

asking and answering questions

question

Summarize the nature-nurture debate in psychology.

answer

...

question

worldwide, the number of psychologists is ____ (increasing/decreasing) thank to international publications and meetings, psychological science is also ______.

answer

increasing globalizing

question

the nature-nurture issue is the controversy over the relative contributions of _____ and _____.

answer

biology and experience

question

The greek philosopher who assumed that character and intelligence are inherited is ____. The greek philosopher who argued that all knowledge comes from sensory experience is _____.

answer

Plato Aristotale

question

in the 1600's the views of the greek philosopher were revived by _____, who believed that most knowledge comes in through the senses, and ____, who believed that some ideas are innate.

answer

Locke Descartes

question

In 1859, naturalist _____ explained species variation by proposing the process of _____, which works through the principle of _____ ____.

answer

Charles Darwin evolution Natural Selection

question

Although the debate continues, we will see that ___ works on what ____ endows and that every ____ event is simultaneously a ___ event.

answer

nurture, nature psychological, biological

question

Identify the three main levels of analysis in the biopsychosocial approach, and explain why psychology's varied perspectives are complementary.

answer

...

question

Each person is complex ____ that is part of a larger ____ ____ and at the same time composed of smaller systems. For this reason, psychologists work from three main ____ of _____ - biological, _____ and _____-______ - which together form an intergrated _____ approach to the study of behavior and mental processes.

answer

system social system levels analysis, psychological, social-cultural biopsychosocial

question

Psychologists who study how the body and brain ebable emotions, memories, and sensory experiences are working from the _____ perspective.

answer

neuroscience

question

Psychologists who study how natural selection influences behavior tendencies are working from the ____ perspective, where as those concerned with the relative influences of genes and environment on individual differences are working from the _____ _____ perspective

answer

evolutionary behavior genetics

question

Psychologists who believe that behavior springs from unconscious drives and conflicts are working from the _____ perspective.

answer

psychodynamic

question

Psychologists who study the mechanisms by which observable responses are acquired and changed are working from the ____ perspective.

answer

behavioral

question

The ____ perspective explores how we encode,process, and store, and retrieve information.

answer

cognitive

question

Psychologists who study how thinking and behavior vary in different situations are working from the ____ - ______perspective.

answer

social - cultural

question

The differenct perspectives on the big issues ______ (contradict/compliment) one another.

answer

complement

question

Explain the differences between clinical psychology and psychiatry.

answer

...

question

Psychologists who help people cope with problems in living are called ____ psychologists. Psychologists who study, assess, and treat troubled people are

answer

counseling

question

Psychologists who study, asses, and treat troubled people are called ____ psychologists.

answer

clinical

question

Medical doctors who provide psychotherapy and treat physical causes of psychological disorders are called _____.

answer

psychiatrists

question

Describe the principle of natural selection

answer

natural selction states that among the range of inherited trait variations, those contributing to reproduction and survial will most likely be passed on to succeeding generations.

question

In its earliest days, psychology was defined as the

answer

science of mental life

question

who would be most likely to agree with the statement "psychology should investigate only behaviors that can be observed"?

answer

2 John B. Watson

question

today psychology is defined as the

answer

science of behavior and mental process

question

who introduced the early school of structuralism?

answer

Edward Titchener

question

who wrote the early textbook Principles of Psychology

answer

William James

question

Psychologiest who study the degree to which genes influence our personality are working from the ____ perspective.

answer

behavior genetics

question

Which of the following exemplifies the issue of the relative importance of nature and nurture on our behavior?

answer

the issue of the relative influence of biology and experience on behavior

question

The seventeenth century philosopher who believed that the mind is blank at birth and that most knowledge comes throu ghsensory experience is

answer

Locke

question

which 17th century philosopher believed that some ideas are innate

answer

Descartes

question

which psychological perspective emphasizes the interaction of the brain and the body in behavior?

answer

neuroscience

question

A psychologist who explores how Asian and North American definitions of attractiveness differ is working from the _____ perspective

answer

Social Cultural

question

a psychologist who conducts experiments solely intended to build psychologys knowledge base is engaged in

answer

Basic research

question

psychologists who study, assess and treat toubled people are called

answer

clinical psychologists

question

Today Psychology is a discipline that

answer

connects with a diversity of other fields

question

Psychologists who study how brain activity is linked to memory, perception, and other thought processes are called

answer

cognitive neuroscientists

question

how the body and brain create emotions, memories, and sensations

answer

neuroscience perspective

question

how people differ as products of different enviornments

answer

social cultural perspective

question

the medical treatment of psychological disorders

answer

psychiatry

question

the study, assesment, and treament of troubled people

answer

clinical psychology

question

how much genes and encironment contribute to individual differences

answer

behavior genetics perspective

question

the mechanisms by which observable responses are acquired and changed

answer

behavioral perspective

question

behavior in the work place

answer

industrial/ organizational psychology

question

how we encode, process, store and retrieve information

answer

cognitive perspective

question

adds to psychologys knowledge base

answer

basic research

question

the study of practical problems

answer

applied research

question

how natural selection favors traits that promote the perpetuation of ones genes

answer

evolutionary perspective

question

the disguised effects of unfulfulled wishes and childhood traumas

answer

psychodynamic perspective

question

an early school of psychology that used introspection to explore the contents of the mind

answer

structuralism

question

an early school of psychology that focused on the adaptive value of thought and behaviors

answer

functionalism

question

the view that psychology should be an objective science that avoids refrence to mental processes

answer

behaviorism

question

brain activity linked with perception, thinking, memory, and language

answer

cognitive neuroscience

STUDY

Criterion Related Validity Introductory Sociology Psychometrics Reliability And Validity Sociology Test Retest Reliability

FTCE Professional Education Test: Assessment – Flashcards 37 terms

James Hopper

37 terms

Preview

FTCE Professional Education Test: Assessment – Flashcards

question

reliability

answer

the consistency of a measurement over time and repeated measurements

question

validity

answer

can be determined by comparing a test score against some separate or independent observation of whatever is being measured

question

unbiased test

answer

a test that does not unfairly favor a particular group

question

standardized test

answer

a test that has been carefully constructed and field-tested so that (ideally) it has a high degree of reliability and validity

question

norm-referenced test

answer

a test that assesses students by comparing their performance to that of a norm group (ex: California Achievement Test)

question

criterion-referenced test

answer

a test that assesses students by comparing their performance to a per-determined level of mastery (ex: FCAT)

question

measures of central tendency

answer

mean, median, and mode

question

mean

answer

determined by adding up all the scores and dividing this sum by the total number of scores that were added

question

median

answer

the midpoint in a distribution of scores from highest to lowest

question

mode

answer

the score in a distribution that appears most frequently

question

measures of variability

answer

used to describe the amount of spread

question

range

answer

the greatest score minus the least score in a set of scores; the simplest measure of variability

question

standard deviation

answer

a measure of dispersion of a set of data values about the mean of the data set

question

raw score

answer

the total number of correct responses on an assessment

question

z-score

answer

the distance in standard deviations from the mean of the scores on the assessment; (raw score - mean) / standard deviation

question

percentile

answer

a value at or below which P percent of the data fall

question

quartile

answer

values that divide an ordered data set into four portions, each of which contains approximately 1/4 of the data

question

stanine scores

answer

scores derived from percentiles; compare test performance using nine intervals that are numbered 1 to 9

question

grade equivalent score

answer

used to describe student's performance in comparison to the performance of an average student at a specified grade level

question

formative assessment

answer

occurs before and during instruction

question

diagnostic assessment

answer

administered before instruction and are designed to identify students' strengths and weaknesses (e.g., pre-tests, student interviews, learning style inventories)

question

Florida School Readiness Uniform Screening System (SRUSS)

answer

requires that new kindergarten students in Florida public schools be assessed for school readiness at the beginning of the school year (ESI-K and DIBELS)

question

Early Screening Inventory - Kindergarten (ESI-K)

answer

assesses children's visual-motor/adaptive development, their language and cognition, and their gross motor skills

question

Dynamic Indicators of Basic Literacy Skills (DIBELS)

answer

measures important skills that form the basis for early success in reading

question

summative assessment

answer

most often used to determine students' academic achievement in each class or course, often for the purpose of grades (e.g., student projects, unit and chapter tests, standardized tests)

question

Florida Comprehensive Assessment Test (FCAT)

answer

summative assessment tool which measures students' achievement on the Florida Sunshine State Standards; administered in grades 3-11; measures skills in reading, writing, science, and math

question

authentic assessment

answer

incorporates real-life application tasks and enables the teacher to directly assess meaningful and complex educational performances

question

performance assessment

answer

same as authentic assessment; long been used in assessment of music, art, drama, and physical education

question

process/product assessment

answer

same as authentic assessment; long been used in science, math, social studies, and language arts

question

instructionally embedded assessment

answer

(aka teacher observation) uses systematic observational methods along with checklists, interviews, and questioning while students are engaged in learning activities

question

portfolio

answer

meaningful collection of student work; one of the best ways for students to engage in assessing their progress over time

question

projects

answer

include stories, essays, drawings, models, audio recordings, videos, powerpoints, and other mechanisms that allow students to demonstrate their acquisition of knowledge and skills

question

checklist

answer

an assessment tool, listing skills or performances, that can used by teachers or students to monitor learning

question

conferences or interviews

answer

provide an opportunity to discuss and question a student about what the student knows and is able to do

question

journals

answer

provide a way for students to respond in writing to a prompt by the teacher and to reflect on their own learning

question

student self-assessment

answer

performed by the students (e.g., grading their own papers, group participation, and portfolio assessment)

question

peer assessment

answer

assessment by students of their classmates' products or performances

STUDY

Clinical Psychology Criterion Related Validity Psychology Psychometrics Reliable And Valid

PSYC 3083 Quizzes to Final – Flashcards 80 terms

Trina Garrison

80 terms

Preview

PSYC 3083 Quizzes to Final – Flashcards

question

Which of the following personality assessments is used by more clinical psychologists than any other personality assessment? Select one: A. sentence completion methods B. TAT C. Rorschach D. MMPI-2

answer

question

The content validation approach to objective test construction is based primarily upon: Select one: A. the predictive value of each potential item B. correlations with other tests measuring the same construct C. the premise that examinees cannot or will not reliably and accurately report on themselves D. the prevailing opinions of experts in the field

answer

question

In which situation below would it be most appropriate to use the MMPI-2? Select one: A. Dr. Viviano is interested in assessing for generalized anxiety disorder in a large group of nursing home residents B. Dr. Vinton is interested in the psychological functioning of individuals facing felony assault charges C. Dr. Vilas has been hired by an automotive company to screen individuals applying for jobs with the company D. Dr. Venka would like insight into the psychodynamic functioning of soldiers returning from their tours of duty

answer

question

The purpose of the validity scales of the MMPI-2 is: Select one: A. to provide a global measure of psychopathology across diagnostic categories B. none of these C. to detect malingering, response sets, or carelessness in test-taking D. to measure the similarity between an examinee's test-taking attitude and his/her attitude during a previous administration

answer

question

Which is not a strength of objective personality tests? Select one: A. greater freedom of response than projective tests B. economical and less time consuming than projective tests C. scoring and interpretation of scales are generally simpler than projective testing D. tends to be more objective & reliable than projective tests

answer

question

Which of the following is not consistent with the goals of sound psychological assessment? Select one: A. the test used should be one with which the examiner has adequate experience B. the test used should have incremental validity C. the test used should be one that is familiar to the examinee D. the test used should match the purpose of the assessment

answer

question

Compared to the Rorschach, the TAT: Select one: A. is a purely objective personality test B. contains fewer cards C. has been subject to more criticism D. is used to infer psychological needs

answer

question

An example of test bias would be the situation in which: Select one: A. an individual prejudges all psychological tests as being invalid and therefore refuses to take them B. different decisions or predictions are made for members of two groups even when they obtain the same score on a test such as the MMPI-2 C. a psychologist tends to administer a test such as the MMPI-2 to certain groups more often than to others D. an individual attempts to present himself/herself in the best possible light on a test such as the MMPI-2

answer

question

__________ involve the administration of a standard set of questions or statements to which the examinee responds using a fixed set of options. Select one: A. Personality interviews B. Objective personality tests C. None of these D. Projective personality tests

answer

question

Dr. Klein believes that any patient who reports seeing lemurs on a Rorschach inkblot is necessarily psychotic, when perhaps things aren't quite so simple. This is an apt illustration of: Select one: A. subjective validation B. illusory correlation C. the confirmation bias D. the availability heuristic

answer

question

SORC is an important model in behavioral assessment. Which of the following is not a component of this model? Select one: A. O is the organismic variable (important physical, physiological, or cognitive characteristics that contribute to behavior) B. S is the stimulus or situation that elicits the behavior ("the controlling event") C. R is the response or "target" behavior D. C is the behavioral change that occurs within therapy

answer

question

Evaluators with a behavioral orientation emphasize __________ when doing clinical assessments. Select one: A. the interaction of behaviors and situations B. underlying personality characteristics that mediate behavior C. constellations of needs or motivations D. projective techniques

answer

question

Behavioral clinical psychologists assess behavior by identifying the events that precede and consequences that follow a behavior in order to understand better understand what maintains the behavior. This behavioral assessment method is referred to as: Select one: A. unit of analysis B. cognitive-functional approach C. self-monitoring D. functional analysis

answer

question

Which of the following is not considered to be a strength of behavioral assessment methods? Select one: A. behavioral observations can affect behavior (reactivity) B. behavioral assessment can be used to measure whether the treatment has been effective C. behavioral assessment can be used to inform treatment strategies D. behaviors are directly measured rather than inferred

answer

question

The Dysfunctional Thought Record is an example of a ______________ technique. Select one: A. controlled observation B. self-monitoring C. none of these D. psychophysiological assessment

answer

question

Todd, Jamal, and Samuel are trained observers for a research project. Just after completing their training, their interrater reliability is very high. However, over time and without their awareness, their observations converge less and less. The term for this phenomenon is: Select one: A. observer drift B. rating separation C. fading agreement D. observer spread

answer

question

In the context of behavioral observation, ratings are usually made along all but which of the following dimensions? Select one: A. intensity B. pleasantness C. duration D. frequency

answer

question

Which of the following is a threat to the validity of an observational technique? Select one: A. all of these B. observer error C. reactivity D. a poorly defined unit of analysis

answer

question

Rory has problems with assertiveness. In an early meeting with a behavioral clinician, the clinician tells Rory to imagine that he's out with a friend, and the friend has decided they should eat at a restaurant that Rory dislikes. The clinician asks Rory to respond to him as if he's the friend. This type of behavioral assessment is called: Select one: A. controlled observation B. functional analysis C. role-playing D. cognitive-behavioral assessment

answer

question

Lisa has a history of going out to parties and getting drunk and being promiscuous. She also has a history of cutting herself on her arms and legs. She tends to her cut herself when she is experiencing emotional pain. Which of the following is a behavioral explanation for the cutting behavior? Select one: A. cutting is reinforcing to her B. cutting is an act of self-hate C. cutting is a punishment for her D. cutting is an organismic variable

answer

question

A clinician who is more comfortable making predictions using statistical models based upon correlations between variables rather than intuitively, based upon clinical impressions, exhibits a __________ approach to clinical judgment. Select one: A. subjective B. qualitative C. clinical D. quantitative

answer

question

Clinicians who approach patient data statistically and predict patient behavior according to correlations between objective variables should be aware of the fact that significant correlations may not apply to patients: Select one: A. of different cultures or subcultures B. living in different communities C. with different comorbid diagnoses D. all of these

answer

question

"Barnum" statements are: Select one: A. exaggerate people's characteristics, similar to fun-house mirrors B. are overly negative or pessimistic speech C. are so general as to be true of almost everyone D. are overly positive in speech

answer

question

According to the textbook, clinical psychologists do not appear to be particularly good at predicting future behavior. For instance, many studies show that violence is often overpredicted for both __________ and __________. Select one: A. African-Americans; convicted felons B. men; adolescents C. men; African-Americans D. men; convicted felons

answer

question

Which of the following illustrates bias in clinical judgment? Select one: A. Women and men endorse different combinations of depressive symptoms. B. A higher percentage of women than men are diagnosed with major depression. C. Women score higher on a measure of depression than men. D. A higher percentage of women than men are diagnosed with major depression even when both score similarly on depression measures

answer

question

Dr. Doyle is meeting a client for an assessment. While testing the client and gathering data about her history, a number of contradictions arise—contradictions that Dr. Doyle is unable to resolve. When it comes time to write his report, what should Dr. Doyle do? Select one: A. He should describe the contradictions in adequate detail for the reader. B. How he handles this situation will depend upon the specific referral source. C. He should omit the presence of contradictions at all, so as not to confuse the reader. D. He should mention the contradictions briefly, but play down their importance.

answer

question

Which of the following interpretive fallacies, as described by Meehl (1977), is best illustrated by the clinician who deems a patient non-pathological when in fact the patient demonstrates the same pathology as the clinician? Select one: A. multiple Napoleons fallacy B. understanding it makes it normal fallacy C. me-too fallacy D. sick-sick fallacy

answer

question

Garb (1997) reviewed the empirical evidence for social class bias, race bias, and gender bias in clinical judgment. Based on this review, the author recommended that clinicians should: Select one: A. accept only clients who are similar to the therapist in terms of race, social class, and gender to the extent possible B. use statistical prediction rules instead of clinical prediction or judgment whenever possible C. all of these D. use clinical intuition to avoid biases

answer

question

According to Meehl (1957), what is one of the biggest roadblocks to adopting the statistical approach to judgment and interpretation? Select one: A. There are currently too few well-validated formulas available to assist, in a meaningful way, with clinical interpretation and prediction. B. None of the answers is correct. C. Most decisions required of clinicians are too complex to be addressed through statistical means. D. Clinicians are generally not very adept at statistical analysis.

answer

question

According to a review of the empirical evidence for bias in clinical judgment (Garb, 1997): Select one: A. neither of these B. even when presenting the same constellation of symptoms, men are more likely to be diagnosed as antisocial and women are more likely to be diagnosed as histrionic C. women patients are judged to be more dysfunctional than men patients D. both of these

answer

question

Which of the following is true regarding the overall efficacy of psychotherapy? Select one: A. The overall efficacy of psychotherapy has not been empirically tested. B. Empirical evidence does not support the overall efficacy of psychotherapy. C. Although psychotherapy is efficacious for some, it is not efficacious for the majority of clients. D. Empirical evidence supports the overall efficacy of psychotherapy.

answer

question

Dr. Hennepin is conducting a study on a new psychotherapy for depression. The depressed clients in his study are diverse, ranging greatly both in the presence of comorbid diagnoses and the severity of their depression; the therapists also are diverse, with different types of mental health training (clinical psychology, social work) and different levels of experience. Dr. Hennepin's study has a high degree of external validity. What term is used for studies of this nature? Select one: A. an analog treatment study B. a psychotherapy efficacy study C. a psychotherapy effectiveness study D. a double-blind placebo trial

answer

question

Which of the following is not among the common factors of psychotherapy effectiveness? Select one: A. the expert role of the therapist B. the building of competence/mastery C. contingency management D. the therapeutic alliance

answer

question

What is the term for the degree to which one integrates new cultural patterns into one's original cultural patterns? Select one: A. acculturation B. accommodation C. cultural identification D. cultural sensitivity

answer

question

According to Orlinsky et al. (2004), all but which of the following is associated with a positive psychotherapy outcome? Select one: A. the degree to which clients reflect on, think about, and emotionally process material within sessions B. therapists' competence and adherence to the treatment protocol C. all of these D. therapists' overuse of advice and guidance

answer

question

According to your textbook, Smith and Glass (1977) did which of the following? Select one: A. performed a comparative study involving 90 outpatients and found that psychodynamic and behavioral therapy produced better results than no treatment at all B. published a strong but non-empirical paper supporting the general effectiveness of psychotherapy C. performed a meta-analysis of nearly 400 psychotherapy studies and concluded that psychotherapy is generally effective D. published a strong but non-empirical paper criticizing the general effectiveness of psychotherapy

answer

question

Your textbook talks about therapists and clients entering into a treatment "contract" after completion of the initial assessment. What is an accurate statement about such contracts? Select one: A. they usually specify the length and goals of therapy B. they usually specify the client's responsibilities while in treatment C. they may be modified as needed over time D. all of these

answer

question

Which of the following is not among the stages in the "Stages of Change" model proposed by Prochaska and Norcross (2002)? Select one: A. intention B. preparation C. termination D. action

answer

question

Which of the following is not true of manualized treatments? Select one: A. they generally require less clinical skill than treatment as usual B. they have been used by psychotherapy researchers to ensure that treatment protocols are standardized across patients C. there is usually research evidence regarding their efficacy D. they have been used outside of the research context in clinical practice

answer

question

Which of the following is not a criticism of psychosocial efficacy studies? Select one: A. the majority of efficacy studies are based on a single disorder B. efficacy studies typically focus on only one outcome C. clients are seen for only a fixed duration D. highly controlled studies have poor internal validity

answer

question

Which is not a criticism of Freud's psychoanalytic theories? Select one: A. too much emphasis on the role of poverty B. sexist perspectives C. too much emphasis on earlier life stages D. theories were generally untestable

answer

question

While they are discussing Bernie's recently deceased father, Bernie's psychodynamically oriented therapist encourages Bernie to compose a letter to his father, telling him everything he had wanted to tell him, but had failed to tell him, while he was alive. Bernie comes back the next week and tells his therapist that although writing the letter was an exhausting and very emotional exercise, he now feels much calmer than he did before. What term would Freud use to describe Bernie's experience? Select one: A. catharsis B. working through C. transference D. insight

answer

question

Recent review of psychodynamic psychotherapy: Select one: A. indicate that the treatment appears to be efficacious for only depression B. neither answer is correct. C. suggest that children and adolescents tend to experience more benefit than adults D. both answers are correct

answer

question

When a psychoanalysis patient is reluctant to discuss, remember, or think about events that are threatening, this is labeled as: Select one: A. none of these B. transference C. catharsis D. resistance

answer

question

According to psychodynamic perspectives, the interpretation of dreams involves an examination of the __________ of the dream to uncover the __________ of the dream. Select one: A. unconscious content; conscious meaning B. symbols; merits C. latent content; manifest content D. manifest content; latent content

answer

question

A psychoanalysis patient who reacts to the therapist as if the therapist represented some important figure out of childhood is demonstrating: Select one: A. insight B. resistance C. transference D. working through

answer

question

Research on the curative factors of psychoanalytic psychotherapy highlights the importance of: Select one: A. the facilitation of the "flight into health" B. the frequency of transference interpretations C. the quality and strength of the therapeutic alliance D. the accuracy of dream analysis

answer

question

Which of the following is true regarding interpersonal psychotherapy? Select one: A. has been empirically supported for treatment of depression B. none of these C. involves a psychotherapist taking a neutral, passive stance consistent with Freudian psychoanalysis D. focuses on problems in past relationships, rather than current relationships

answer

question

A recent meta-analysis (Cuijpers et al., 2011) on the efficacy of interpersonal psychotherapy for depression (IPT) found that: Select one: A. none of these B. IPT was superior to no treatment C. IPT was consistently superior to other psychotherapies for depression D. IPT plus medication was no better than medication alone

answer

question

Which is not one of the seven key features of psychodynamic psychotherapy? Select one: A. encourages patients to explore fantasy life (e.g., uncensored thoughts, feelings, dreams) B. discourages patients from focusing on affect and expressing emotions C. helps people explore their attempts to avoid distressing thoughts and feelings D. focuses on the current therapy relationship

answer

question

Which of the following is the best definition for the term phenomenal field? Select one: A. a truly remarkable area of study B. the sum total of a given person's knowledge C. everything experienced by a person at any given point in time D. all of the locations a given person visits/occupies regularly

answer

question

Which term below corresponds to the basic human tendency to maintain and enhance the self? Select one: A. self-realization B. self-actualization C. achievement drive D. perfectionism

answer

question

According to Rogers, truly well-adjusted people: Select one: A. all of these B. are conscious of previously unconscious thoughts and impulses that had been influencing their behavior C. are conscious of childhood experiences that have contributed to their adult personalities D. are able to acknowledge and accept all of their experiences, including those not immediately consistent with their self-concept

answer

question

Client-centered therapists are especially likely to rely on __________ as the primary source of information about their clients. Select one: A. objective personality test data B. previous diagnoses C. client self-reports D. projective personality test data

answer

question

Which of the following is not a recognized shortcoming of the humanistic-existential approach to psychotherapy? Select one: A. an emphasis on feelings that leaves the therapy process vulnerable to bias and unreliability B. the use of language that suggests that other approaches are too authoritarian or inhumane C. too much emphasis on research that seems to detract from the performance of the therapy D. the use of jargon that is vague and ill-defined

answer

question

Humanism and existentialism therapies: Select one: A. emphasize the potential for positive growth rather than psychopathology B. emphasize the therapeutic relationship C. emphasize awareness rather than the influence of unconscious processes D. all of these

answer

question

Emotion-focused therapy (EFT) is best conceived as an integration of what two psychotherapy traditions? Select one: A. logotherapy and Gestalt therapy B. existential therapy and psychodynamic therapy C. client-centered therapy and existential therapy D. client-centered therapy and Gestalt therapy

answer

question

Which of the following is true regarding the "rules" of Gestalt therapy? Select one: A. communication should focus on past problems B. questions are encouraged C. gossip (talking about someone else) is not allowed D. none of these

answer

question

Which of the following is true regarding research on the efficacy and effectiveness of Gestalt therapy? Select one: A. neither of these B. both of these C. an early meta-analysis (Smith et al., 1980) suggested that Gestalt therapy was more beneficial than no treatment at all D. more recent research suggests that Gestalt therapy is more effective than other forms of psychological treatment

answer

question

The primary goals of existential psychotherapy are accepting responsibility for one's decisions and: Select one: A. relinquishing control over decisions B. learning to tolerate anxiety C. avoiding making decisions while in treatment D. processing one's emotional past

answer

question

Which of the following is not one of the skills training areas outlined by dialectical behavior therapy? Select one: A. time management B. interpersonal effectiveness C. distress tolerance D. mindfulness

answer

question

A depressed client is seeing a therapist who uses Beck's cognitive therapy. Which of the following is the therapist least likely to do during treatment? Select one: A. identify automatic thoughts that precede a depressed mood and challenge their validity B. schedule activities to counteract the periods of inactivity that may cause one to focus on depressive feelings C. help the client search for alternative solutions to problems rather than resigning to defeat D. have the client speak extensively about his or her childhood

answer

question

A child is punished for lying to her parents by having her allowance reduced. Behavioral therapists would label this technique as: Select one: A. token economy B. response cost C. thought stopping D. overcorrection

answer

question

To achieve maximum benefit in exposure therapy: Select one: A. the client should be directed to attend as little as possible to the feared stimulus B. exposures should not provoke anxiety C. exposures should be graduated, starting with stimuli that evoke low levels of anxiety and moving up D. the duration of exposures should be short rather than long

answer

question

According to Ellis: Select one: A. the unconscious origins of irrational thought are the key elements to be examined during therapy B. our interpretations of events, rather than the events themselves, determine our behavioral reactions C. none of these D. therapists should focus exclusively on stimuli and responses, and should not focus on any intervening cognitive processes

answer

question

Which is not a common goal of rational emotive therapy (RET) and cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT): Select one: A. helping clients to challenge their irrational beliefs B. helping clients to form more adaptive beliefs C. behavioral activity schedules that allow for positive reinforcement D. helping clients to identify maladaptive beliefs

answer

question

Which of the following is not a behavioral technique used by cognitive-behavioral therapies? Select one: A. role playing B. behavioral activity schedules C. identifying thoughts D. all of these are strictly behavioral techniques

answer

question

Data suggests that the client's perception of the therapeutic relationship: Select one: A. is less important to the outcome of behavioral therapy than to other types of psychotherapy B. is more important to the outcome of behavioral psychotherapy than to other types of psychotherapy C. is not very important to the outcome of any type of psychotherapy D. is very important to the outcome of behavioral and other forms of psychotherapy

answer

question

Critics of behavior therapy argue that: Select one: A. all of these B. behavioral therapy techniques can be mechanistic and dehumanizing C. behavioral therapy may relieve symptoms but does not promote inner growth or fulfillment D. behavioral treatment seems to lack a unifying theory

answer

question

Which of the following is not true regarding behavioral and cognitive-behavioral therapy? Select one: A. on average they require more sessions than most psychodynamic treatments B. they seem to be consistent with the values and activities of scientist-practitioners and clinical scientists C. empirical support regarding their efficacy and effectiveness D. a major goal is to help clients form more adaptive beliefs or behaviors

answer

question

Multiple transference effects are most relevant to: Select one: A. psychoanalytic group therapy B. Gestalt group therapy C. transactional analysis. D. behavioral group therapy

answer

question

A transactional analysis involves the determination of which ____________ are operative in a given transaction between people. Select one: A. social desirability factors B. cognitive distortions C. defense mechanisms D. ego states

answer

question

A group therapist who tells a client that he or she will be the focus of the session and will be on the "hot seat" is probably practicing: Select one: A. behavioral group therapy B. transactional analysis C. psychoanalytic group therapy D. Gestalt therapy.

answer

question

Among the curative factors of group therapy identified by Yalom (1975) is/are: Select one: A. interpersonal learning B. group cohesiveness C. altruism D. All of the answers are

answer

question

Which of the following is not one of the curative factors identified by Yalom (1975) for group therapy? Select one: A. identifying irrational beliefs B. instilling hope C. imparting information D. interpersonal learning

answer

question

From the time of its origins, family therapy has tended to emphasize __________ as the basis for psychopathology. Select one: A. conflicting priorities B. communication failure C. power differentials D. genetic factors

answer

question

Marla and her family are in family therapy, and Marla's mother always agrees with others, no matter what is going on. According to many family therapists, Marla's mother is: Select one: A. probably the most psychologically healthy family member. B. being passive-aggressive C. delusional D. placating

answer

question

Which of the following is the primary goal of emotionally focused couples therapy? Select one: A. to change partners' problematic interactional styles and emotional responses so their attachment is more secure B. to assist each partner in accurately identifying the emotions being experienced by the other C. to help partners focus on their emotional responses in the here-and-now so that they can be more spontaneous. D. to free partners to express all of their emotions to each other, both positive and negative

answer

question

Research has supported the efficacy of behavioral and cognitive-behavioral group interventions for the treatment of: Select one: A. depression B. pain C. social phobia D. all of these

answer

question

Reviews of research literature assessing the effectiveness of group psychotherapy consistently conclude that group treatment is: Select one: A. more effective than other forms of psychotherapy B. All of these answers are correct. C. more effective than no treatment D. equivalent to no treatment

answer

STUDY

Computing Criterion Related Validity Psychology Psychometrics Validity And Reliability

Psychology Quiz 7 Test Answers – Flashcards 25 terms

Larry Charles

25 terms

Preview

Psychology Quiz 7 Test Answers – Flashcards

question

Refers to a test's consistency of scores.

answer

Reliability

question

The rules that determine how sounds and words can be combined and used to communicate meaning within a language are collectively known as

answer

Syntax

question

The first thing that comes to mind when asked to name an example from a category is called the

answer

Prototype

question

A(n) _____ is an example of a concept that a person has based on personal experiences.

answer

Exemplar

question

The failure to use familiar objects in novel ways to solve problems because of a tendency to view objects only in terms of their customary functions is called _____

answer

Functional fixedness

question

Compared to formal concepts learned in science and math, natural concepts tend to befuzzy with unclear boundaries

answer

Fuzzy with unclear boundaries

question

_____ is utilized when an individual conjures up a sensory experience in their own mind

answer

Imagery

question

The danger of making decisions based on _____ is that our _____ will be too strong an influence

answer

Intuition; emotion

question

Shay ran through her mind looking for any problem she had encountered that was at all like this one. She was hoping to use the _____ heuristic to help her find a strategy that would work

answer

Analogy

question

_____ is a heuristic strategy in which the current position is compared with the desired goal and a series of steps are formulated and taken to close the gap between them

answer

Means-end analysis

question

Gardner and his associates are known for proposing _____

answer

The theory of multiple intelligences

question

Heuristics are used for _____ in decision making

answer

Greater speed

question

Sally is enrolled in a high school geometry course, which she describes as "drawing figures and figuring drawings." In a typical class, students draw geometric figures and use a formula to calculate an aspect of the figure such as its area. Each time Sally uses a formula, she is making use of what psychologists call _____

answer

Algorithms

question

A(n) _____ is a measure of what an individual has learned up to a certain point in his/her life

answer

Achievement test

question

Holden, an engineer, was at his workspace trying to figure out how to design the brake system for a new car. He found himself continually going through the process of acquiring information and then storing it, retrieving it, and using it in order to complete his job. Which of the following concepts best describes the entire process in which Holden was engaging?

answer

Cognition

question

During your senior year of high school, you may have taken the ACT or the SAT in order to gain admittance into college. Which of the following most accurately describes these tests?

answer

Aptitude tests

question

_____ refers to the way information is presented to emphasize either potential gain or potential loss as the outcome of our decision.

answer

Framing

question

The system of rules that governs how we assign meaning to the morphemes we use is called _____

answer

Semantics

question

There are elements of language that appear to be unique to the human language; one is _____, which refers to the notion that language can express ideas that are untrue.

answer

Prevarication

question

Everyone was talking at lunch about how awful it is that so many criminals try to get off by pleading insanity. Since less than 1% of violent felons actually make that plea, something other than the truth must be at play. It is probably the _____ because a recent case has been in the news constantly.

answer

Availability heuristic

question

Concepts are ideas that represent _____

answer

A class or category of objects, events, or activities.

question

Laticia wants many things in a new apartment. She wants an outside balcony, a nice view, a gas stove, free internet and a workout room. She is going crazy trying to compare all the available choices. She decides that she won't even look at any that don't have free internet. Laticia has decided to use the _____

answer

Elimination by aspects method

question

Who came up with the triarchic theory of intelligence?

answer

Robert Sternberg

question

A psychological test that measures what we intend it to measure is said to be _____

answer

Valid

question

"Those who are bright in one area are usually bright in other areas as well." Who would have made this comment?

answer

Charles Spearman

STUDY

Criterion Related Validity Psychology Psychometrics Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

Chapter 10 Vocab – AP Psychology – Flashcards 37 terms

Henry Smith

37 terms

Preview

Chapter 10 Vocab – AP Psychology – Flashcards

question

a test designed to assess what a person has learned

answer

achievement test

question

a methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem. Contrasts with the usually speedier, but also more error-prone, use of heuristics

answer

algorithm

question

a test designed to predict a person's future performace; ___ is the capacity to learn

answer

aptitude test

question

estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind (perhaps because of their vividness), we presume such events are common

answer

availability heuristic

question

at about 4 months, the stage of speech development in which the infant spontaneously utters various sounds at first unrelated to the household language

answer

babbling stage

question

clinging to one's initial conceptions after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited

answer

belief perseverance

question

all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering and communicating

answer

cognition

question

a mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas or people

answer

concept

question

the extent to which a test samples the behavior that is of interest (such as a driving test that samples driving tasks)

answer

content validity

question

a condition of retardation and associated physical disorders caused by an extra chromosome in one's genetic makeup

answer

down syndrome

question

the ability to perceive, understand, manage and use emotions

answer

emotional intelligence

question

a statistical procedure that identifies clusters of related items (called factors) on a test; used to identify different dimensions of performance that underline one's total score

answer

factor analysis

question

the inability to see a problem from a new perspective; an impediment to problem solving

answer

fixation

question

the tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions; an impediment to problem solving

answer

functioned fixedness

question

a general intelligence factor that according to Spearman and others underlies specific mental abilities and is therefore measured by every task on an intelligence test

answer

general intelligence

question

in a language, a system of rules that enables us to communicate with and understand others

answer

grammar

question

a simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently; usually speedier but also more error-prone than algorithms

answer

heuristics

question

defined originally as the ratio of mental age (ma) to chronological age (ca) multiplied by 100 times. On contemporary intelligence tests, the average performance for a given age is assigned a score of 100.

answer

intelligence quotient

question

...

answer

linguistic relativity

question

a measure of intelligence test performance devised by Binet; the chronological age that most typically corresponds to a given level of performance. Thus, a child who does as well as the average 8 year old is said to have a ______ ___ of 8.

answer

mental age

question

a condition of limited mental ability, indicated by an intelligence score of 70 or below and difficulty in adapting to the demands of life; varies from mild to profound

answer

mental retardation

question

a tendency to approach a problem in a particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past

answer

mental set

question

in a language, the smallest unit that carries meaning; may be a word or a part of a word (such as a prefix)

answer

morpheme

question

the symmetrical bell-shaped curve that describes the distribution of many physical and psychological attributes. Most scores fall near the average, and fewer and fewer scores lie near the extremes.

answer

normal curve

question

in a language, the smallest distinctive sound unit

answer

phoneme

question

the success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior . aka criterion-related validity

answer

predictive validity

question

a mental image or best example of a category. Matching new items to the prototype provides a quick and easy method for including items in a category (as when comparing feathered creatures to a prototypical bird, such as a robin)

answer

prototype

question

the extent to which a test yields consistent results, as assessed by the consistency of scores on two halves of the test, on alternate forms of the test, or on retesting

answer

reliability

question

judging the likelihood of things in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particular prototypes; may lead one to ignore other relevant information

answer

representativeness heuristic

question

a condition in which a person otherwise limited in mental ability has an exceptional specific skill, such as in computation or drawing

answer

savant syndrome

question

the set of rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences in a given language; also, the study of meaning

answer

semantics

question

defining meaningful scores by comparison with the performance of a pretested standardization group

answer

standardization

question

the widely-used American revision of Binet's original intelligence test

answer

Stanford-Binet

question

the rules for combining words into grammatically sensible sentences in a given language

answer

syntax

question

early speech stage in which a child speaks like a telegram - "go car" - using mostly nouns and verbs and omitting auxiliary words

answer

telegraphic speech

question

the extent to which a test measures or predicts what it is supposed to do

answer

validity

question

the most widely-used intelligence test; contains verbal and performance (nonverbal) subtests

answer

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)

STUDY

Business Management Criterion Related Validity Key Success Factors Organizational Psychology Product Life Cycle Product Service Management Supply Chain Management Value Chain Analysis

Management 301 Exam 1 – Flashcards 104 terms

Jason Westley

104 terms

Preview

Management 301 Exam 1 – Flashcards

question

Introduction What was the point of the football exercise?

answer

To understand the process of MGMT. -Shows organization makes business more efficient -Goal, structure, engagement, and metrics

question

Introduction Diagon Alley Example

answer

Had a ton of planning, resources, organizing to go into it

question

Introduction The Management Process

answer

Planning - Setting performance objectives and deciding how to achieve them Controlling- Measuring performance and taking action to ensure desired results Leading- Inspiring people to work hard to achieve high performance Organizing- Arranging tasks, people, and other resources to accomplish the work

question

Introduction Smeal Honor Code

answer

1. We aspire to high ethical standards & 2. Will hold each other accountable. 3. We will not engage in any improper academic or professional actions.

question

Introduction Languages of Business

answer

Accounting - Technical Language Business Major - Functional Language Management - People and Organizational Language Business Information/Literacy - Conversational Language *You need to know management so you know how to manage people and you understand why you are being managed in a certain way.

question

Introduction Fortune 500

answer

Largest companies in the United States based on revenue -Walmart is the largest (476 billion) -Exxon #2

question

Introduction Global 500

answer

Largest companies in the World based on revenue -#1 is Walmart

question

Introduction So You Think You Can Dance

answer

????

question

Chapter 1 What do Managers Do?

answer

1. Relies on Control 2. Administers 3. Maintains 4. System/Structure 5. Short-Range View 6. Asks How and When 7. Maintain Status Quo 8. Does Things Right *EXECUTION*

question

Chapter 1 What does a Leader do?

answer

1. Innovates 2. Focus on People 3. Develops 4. Inspire Trust 5. Long-Range View 6. Asks what and Why 7. Challenge Status Quo 8. Does the Right Think *VISION, THINKING, STRATEGY*

question

Chapter 1 Shirtless Dancing Guy Example

answer

-Their is a shirtless dancing guy -The first person to follow the dancing guy is actually the most important because he starts the movement -The Leader is just glorifed

question

Chapter 1 Levels of MGMT Traditional Pyramid

answer

1. For Profit = Board of Directors or Non Profit = Board of Trustees 2. CEO (President, VP) 3. Senior Managers (CFO) 4. Middle Managers (Division Managers, Regional Managers) 5. Front-Line Managers (Department Head, Team Leader) 6. Non-Managerial Worker

question

Chapter 1 Levels of MGMT Non-Traditional Pyramid (Inverted Levels)

answer

1. Customers 2. Operating Workers 3. Team Leaders & Middle Managers 4. Sr. Managers 5. CEO 6. Board of Directors or Board of Trustees

question

Chapter 1 Levels of MGMT Inverted Company Structure Example

answer

W. L. Gore -CEO Terri Kelly -GoreTex -No titles, completely team based

question

Chapter 1 Levels of MGMT Traditional Pyramid Examples

answer

Military Religion Education Government Business ***Caterpillar***

question

Chapter 1 Who is Henry Mintzbeg?

answer

*Author of The Nature of Managerial Work" -Mechanical Engineering degree from McGill University

question

Chapter 1 Mintzberg's Roles 3

answer

Interpersonal Role Informational Role Decisional Role

question

Chapter 1 Mintzberg's Roles Interpersonal Role

answer

How a manager interacts with other people. - Figurehead - ceremonial role, honor is important - Leader - Task people, make people accountable - Liaison - Whatever the outside world needs of you (Ex: Government, News) (Inside and Outside Work) - Ex: Don Thompson is the CEO of McDonald's, but he isn't the founder

question

Chapter 1 Mintzberg's Role Informational Role

answer

How a manager exchanges and processes information. - Monitor - looking out for opportunities and threats - Disseminate - take outside information and teach it to any team - Spokes Person - disseminates information to team for innovation - Ex: Steve Jobs (Former CEO of Apple) Tim Cook (Current CEO) unveil new items

question

Chapter 1 Mintzberg's Role Decisional Role

answer

How a manager uses information in decision making - Negotiator - most complex, make decisions, talk with different states about battery function - Disturbance Handler - any internal or external disturbances - Entrepreneur - making decisions to innovate (what is next) - Resource Allocater - who gets what resources, where these resources go, strategies - Ex: Elon Musk - CEO of Tesla Motors, SpaceEx, and Co-founder of Paypal "Iron Man"

question

Chapter 1 Robert Katz's Big 3 Skills of Managers

answer

1. Conceptual Skills - the ability to think analytically and achieve integrative problem solving (High Top-Level Managers) 2. Human Skills - The ability to work well in cooperation with other persons: emotional intelligence - the ability to manage ourselves and relationships effectively (Equal for Top, Middle, and Low Levels) 3. Technical Skills - The ability to apply expertise and perform a special task with proficiency (High Low-Level Managers)

question

Chapter 1 Emotional Intelligence includes all the facets of leadership competencies except?

answer

Ethical Decision Making

question

Chapter 1 Career Issues for Managers Leadership Competencies

answer

1.Globalization 2. Ethics 3. Governance 4. Diversity 5. Knowledge 6. Self Management

question

Chapter 1 Career Issues for Managers Leadership Competencies Globalization

answer

The worldwide interdependence of resource flows, product markets, and business competition.

question

Chapter 1 Career Issues for Managers Leadership Competencies Ethics

answer

A code of moral principles that sets standards of conduct for what is good and right

question

Chapter 1 Career Issues for Managers Leadership Competencies Governance

answer

Oversight of a company's management by a board of directors

question

Chapter 1 Career Issues for Managers Leadership Competencies Diversity

answer

Describes differences among workers in gender, race, age, ethnicity, religion, sexual orientation, and able-bodiness. (discrimination and prejudice)

question

Chapter 1 Career Issues for Managers Leadership Competencies Knowledge

answer

Knowing about the company and it's workers

question

Chapter 1 Career Issues for Managers Leadership Competencies Self Management

answer

The ability to understand oneself, exercise initiative, accept responsibility, and learn from experience.

question

Chapter 2 History of Management

answer

Study of the Western European approach Industrial Revolution 1700's and on -MGMT has occurred everywhere in the world in all cultures -MGMT has been practiced for all of time Ex: Coliseum & Pyramids both needed MGMT of people and supplies to make them happen

question

Chapter 2 3 Approaches to Management

answer

1. Classical 2. Behavioral 3. Modern

question

Chapter 2 Classical

answer

Frederick Taylor - Scientific Management Max Weber - Bureaucratic Organization Henri Fayol - Administrative Principles *Assume that people are rational*

question

Chapter 2 Frederick Taylor

answer

Scientific Management (1911) -Goal is to secure maximum prosperity for employer and maximum prosperity for the employees -Observed that lack of clear uniform methods caused workers to lose efficiency and under-perform *Measured Things* *Quantify* -Proposed 4 core principles to address this: 1. Develop a "science" for each job - study jobs to identify basic steps and motions, work tools, work conditions; identify the most efficient ways to do each jon 2. Hire workers with the right abilities - careful selection and training of workers 3. Train and motivate workers to follow the "science" of each job - teach supervisors how to support and encourage workers 4. Support workers based on the science of each job - supervisors responsible for making sure workers have what they need to successfully perform jobs.

question

Chapter 2 Scientific Management Examples

answer

Ex: UPS (United Parcel Service) still uses Taylor's theories in practice, from conducting time-motion studies as its sorting facilities to developing detailed timelines for deliveries. The savings of seconds on individual delivery stops adds up to productivity increases. Ex: Henry Ford was the first to adopt Taylor's approach in his auto manufacturing business BMW plant is current example Ex: Motion study- science of reducing a job or task to is basic physical motions (Great Shovel Project - right length and poundage) Ex: Top coach teaches football players techniques and how it fits strategy they are going to perform better

question

Chapter 2 Max Weber

answer

Bureaucratic Organization (1864-1920) - Developed his ideas in response to what he viewed as poor performance by organizations - Felt that these problems could be addressed through bureaucracy *Organize* Power = ability to coerce actions' authority = actions taken voluntarily Bureacracy - a rational and efficient form of organization founded on logic, order, and legitimate authority Characteristics of an Ideal Bureacracy (Weber) 1. Clear Division of Labor - jobs well define; workers are highly skilled at performing jobs 2. Clear Hierarchy of Authority - well defined authority and responsibility; clear reporting structure 3. Formal Rules and Procedures - written guidelines for expected behaviors; files are kept for the historical record 4. Impersonality - impartial rules; no preferential treatment based on individual characteristics 5. Careers Based on Merit - worker selection and promotion based on ability/performance; managers are career employees of the organization

question

Chapter 2 Bureaucratic Organization Examples

answer

Ex- NASA and the management of the Space Shuttle program represent the Bureaucratic Management method; the Google Lunar X-Prize is an example of non-bureaucratic approach to business Ex- Military -Religion - Business - Education -Government *Inflexible - not likely to change

question

Chapter 2 Henri Fayol

answer

Administrative Principles (1841 - 1925) - Published Administration Industrielle et Generale outling his views on management; identified "rules" or "duties" of management 1. Foresight/Planning - complete plan of action for the future 2. Organization - provides resources to implement the plan 3. Command - lead, choose, and evaluate workers 4. Coordination - put different efforts together; share information; solve problems 5. Control - ensure that things happen as planned; take corrective action

question

Chapter 2 Administrative Principles Examples

answer

Ex: Scalar Chain Principle - organizations should operate with clear and unbroken lines of communication from the top to the bottom of the organization Ex: Unity of Command Principle - a worker should receive orders from only 1 boss

question

Chapter 2 Behavioral

answer

1. Elton Mayo - Hawthorne Studies 2. Douglas McGregor - Theory X & Y 3. Abraham Maslow - Human Needs Theory Look at MGMT from an HR perspective, shifting MGMT thinking away from physical factors to the human side. Understand people and manage people better, you can increase productivity.

question

Chapter 2 Elton Mayo

answer

Hawthorne Studies (1880 - 1949) - focused on the human side of organizations, trying to increase productivity -Studied - how use of economic incentives and physical conditions affected worker output (Western Electric study) - Ex: When the lights were turned on; productivity went up. When the lights were turned off, productivity went up; productivity improved regardless of changes made - Result - no direct relationships found between changes in physical working conditions and performance; researcher attention was key; groups have negative/positive influence on member behavior *Hawthorne Effect - tendency of people who receive special attention to perform as expected*

question

Chapter 2 Abraham Maslow

answer

Human Needs Theory (1908 - 1970) - Hierarchy of needs Need - physiological or psychological deficiency that a person must satisfy Hierarchy - Self Actualization - self fulfillment and peak experience; give back to the world - Esteem Needs - respect, competence, prestige - Social Needs - love, belonging, family, friends, relationships - Safety Needs - emotional, financial, alliances - Physiological (Basic) Needs - food, water, shelter Higher order needs - self-actualization and esteem needs Progression Principle - A need at any level becomes activated only after the newt-lower need is satisfied Deficit Principle - People act to satisfy needs for which a satisfaction deficit exists; people are not motivated by already-satisfied needs *You can target marketing towards these needs to market your product *You can motivate people buy providing these needs in a management sense.

question

Chapter 2 Douglas McGregor

answer

Theory X & Y (1906 - 1964) -Wrote the Human Side of Enterprise; influence by Maslow and the Hawthorne studies; managers should pay more attention to the social and self-actualizing needs of employees; reflects ways managers manage today -Theory X - assumes people dislike work, lack ambition, are followers, resist change, are irresponsible -Theory Y -assumes people are willing to work, are capable/creative, are self-controlled, are self-directed, are responsible -Self-fulfilling prophecy - when a person acts in a way that confirms another's expectations; people behavior consistently with other's assumptions (like the Hawthorne Effect); the assumptions of both Theory X and Theory Y create self-fulfilling prophecy

question

Chapter 2 Theory X

answer

Directive Industry 1. Dislike Work 2. Lack Ambition 3. Follow not lead 4. Resist Change 5. Irresponsible

question

Chapter 2 Theory Y

answer

Participative 1. Willing to Work 2. Capable/Creative 3. Self-controlled 4. Self-directed 5. Responsible

question

Chapter 2 Modern Approaches to Management

answer

1. Operations and Management Science 2. Customer Driven System 3. Contingency Thinking 4. Quality Management/Evidence Based Management

question

Chapter 2 Modern Approaches to Management Operations and Management Sciene

answer

Analytics- the systematic use and analysis of data to solve problems and make informed decisions Ex: Queing Theory, Network Models, Forecasting, Inventory Analysis, and Linear Programming

question

Chapter 2 Queing Theory

answer

Study of waiting in lines. Ex: Disney studies rides per capita, study consumers on how long they are willing to wait. Walmart on has a certain number of lines open to study how long people are willing to wait for cash register before they just drop their shit and leave

question

Chapter 2 Modern Approaches to Management Customer Driven Open Systems

answer

Transform resource inputs into product outputs - Inputs (resources in) - people, money, materials, technology, information - Outputs (out to customers) - finished goods, completed services - Work - business creates resources to outputs - Customer feedback - loops back from outputs to inputs Ex: Zara -1,659 stores in 85 countries - Operations Management Keys - 2 week design cycle - Design imitator - Attractive price points -Headquartered in Northern Spain

question

Chapter 2 Modern Approaches to Management Contingency Thinking

answer

(Government vs. Private Space Program) matches management practices with situational demands -What works for 1 organization may not work for another -What works now may not work later

question

Chapter 2 Modern Approaches to Management Quality Management/Evidence Based Management

answer

Focuses on continuous improvement; an example is Six Sigma -Total Quality Management - managing with an organization - wide focus on continuous improvement, product quality, customer needs - Continuous Improvement - always searching for new ways to improve work/performance - ISO Certification - conforming with a rigorous set of international quality standards -Make decisions based on facts, looking at what works -Scientific Method

question

Chapter 2 Six Sigma

answer

Process Improvement Example of Quality MGMT/Evidence Based MGMT

question

Chapter 2 Lean Principles

answer

Reduction of waste Example of Quality MGMT/Evidence Based MGMT

question

Chapter 3 Responsibility

answer

Ability or authority to act or decide on one's own without supervision

question

Chapter 3 Spider Man Example

answer

With great power comes great responsibility!

question

Chapter 3 PONG

answer

Personal - Most important Organizational National - different customs Global - values applied across

question

Chapter 3 Ethics Research Study Data

answer

In 2011 we saw a increase of 5% from 2009 to 13% of US workers perceiving pressure to commit misconduct. Millenniums are the most retaliated against age group when it comes to whistle blowing. -% Point Changes in Key ERC Metrics (2011-2013) There was a 2% decrease in Reporting of Observed Misconduct to 63%

question

Chapter 3 Ethics

answer

Standards of good or bad, right or wrong, in conduct Set of Principles Right Conduct Underlying Values

question

Chapter 3 Other Moral Approaches

answer

1. Utilitarian View 2. Individualism View 3. Justice View 4. Moral Rights View

question

Chapter 3 Other Moral Approaches Utilitarian View

answer

John Stuart Mill -Ethical behavior delivers the greatest good to the most people; results oriented view

question

Chapter 3 Other Moral Approaches Individualism View

answer

Ethical behavior advances long-term self interests; people become self-regulating as they strive for their own individual success over time -Pecuniary Ethic - a tendency to push the law to its limits, probably at the expense of others; can result from individualism in the business ethic

question

Chapter 3 Other Moral Approaches Justice View

answer

Ethical behavior treats people fairly and impartially according to legal standards. 1. Procedural Justice - fair application of policies and rules 2. Distributive Justice - treating people the same regardless of personal characteristics 3. Interactional Justice - degree to which others are treated with dignity and respect 4. Commutative Justice - fairness of exchanges or transactions

question

Chapter 3 Other Moral Approaches Moral Right View

answer

Ethical behavior respects and protects people's fundamental rights

question

Chapter 3 Conventional Approach

answer

Common Sense Approach - If that's all we have we are not going to be ethical because their are so many ways that it won't work

question

Chapter 3 What is Right and What is Wrong?

answer

Right 1. Respect 2. Not cheating 3. Treating Workers Fairly Wrong 1. Stealing from company 2. Cheating customers 3. Abusing Children 4. Sexual Abuse 5. Unfair Treatment 6. Discrimination

question

Chapter 3 Hypernorms

answer

Values that are excepted in virtually in every single culture. Customs and approaches can be different, but hyper norms are almost always excepted.

question

Chapter 3 Cultural Relativism

answer

When in Rome, Do as the Romans Do -Follow those standards of the host country -Cultural context determines it No one right way to behave; we must consider cultural context when evaluating ethical behavior, ethics can vary across cultures

question

Chapter 3 Moral Absolutism

answer

Define what my standards are in my host country, and you take your standards with you from your own country. Imposing one's own ethical standards on another culture

question

Chapter 3 Descriptive Ethics

answer

WHAT IS

question

Chapter 3 Normative Ethics

answer

WHAT OUT TO BE

question

Chapter 3 Ethical Decision-Making Assessment Framework (6)

answer

1. Awareness - Idea of what is going on 2. Facts - actual information 3. Stake holders - anyone who has an interest 4. Standards - laws, policies, procedures 5. Values - Do I operate on a certain level 6. Actions - what do I do

question

Chapter 3 Sweetie Case

answer

Worker calls a female worker "Sweetie"

question

Chapter 3 Kolberg's Levels of Moral Development

answer

Level 1: Preconventional (Self) (Self centered, Person at gain) 1. Punish 2. Reward Level 2: Conventional (Others) (Social) 3. Good 4. Law Level 3: Post Conventional (All) (Principles) 5. Fairness 6. Universal - great power, great responsibility

question

Chapter 3 Organizational Ethics Components

answer

1. Leadership 2. Ethics Officer 3. Codes 4. Training 5. Audits 6. Industry Standards 7. Avoid Undue Authority 8. Communicate 9. Detection & Prevention 10. Compliance Standards

question

Chapter 3 What is the #1 factor of effecting behavior?

answer

Behavior of Superiors (Supervisor)

question

Chapter 3 Rules and Ethics

answer

Rules - found in a compliance document Ethics/Values - found in a code of conduct

question

Chapter 3 Whistleblower

answer

Report/expose misconduct of an organization and/or it's members to preserve ethical standards and protect against wasteful, harmful, or illegal acts. Reason for not doing it: No corrective action would be taken, reports would not be confidential.

question

Chapter 3 Immoral Managers

answer

Behaves unethically -personal gain, purposefully disregards ethics

question

Chapter 3 Amoral Manager

answer

Does not consider the ethics of his/her behavior -Unintentional *MOST COMMON*

question

Chapter 3 Moral Managers

answer

Sets ethical behavior as a personal goal -post conventional or principal stage of moral development

question

Chapter 3 Terminal Values

answer

Preferences about desired end states Ex: self-respect, family security, freedom, happiness *Can vary by person

question

Chapter 3 Instrumental Values

answer

Are preferences regarding the means to desired ends. Ex: honesty, ambition, courage, imagination, self-discipline *Can vary by person

question

In classical management theory, who is the person credited with identifying bureaucracy?

answer

Max Weber

question

What management theory focuses on people first?

answer

Behavorial

question

You are asked to make a decision for your new employer based on facts. You are being asked to make what type of decision?

answer

Sensation & Thinking

question

One of the conclusions of the Hawthorne studies was that

answer

Supervisors should avoid close relations with their subordinates

question

When readily available information is used to assess the situation and it results in a bad decision, it is called

answer

Availability Heuristic

question

In a department meeting, your supervisor takes credit for the excellent work of an absent colleague. What should you do?

answer

Inform the absent colleague of what took place and allow him to take action.

question

The (blank) decision model views managers as making optimizing decisions while the (blank) decision model views managers as making satisficing decisions.

answer

Classical/Behavorial

question

If a local bank is a complex system, then customer service department would be a

answer

Subsystem or Closed System

question

The goal of the scientific management approach (Frederick Taylor) was to

answer

Secure maximum prosperity for employer and employee

question

(blank) are broad beliefs about what is considered appropriate behavior.

answer

Values

question

(blank) highlight the risks from public disclosure of a person's actions.

answer

Spotlight questions

question

The social responsibility audit

answer

Measures and reports on organizational performance in regards to social responsibility

question

Who is McDonald's current CEO?

answer

Don Thompson

question

3 P's of Organization Performance

answer

Profit, People, Planet

question

Robert Katz

answer

Skills of Managers

question

Charles Hardy

answer

Shamrock Organization

question

Frederick Taylor

answer

(Classical) Scientific Management

question

Max Weber

answer

(Classical) Bureaucratic Management

question

Henri Fayol

answer

(Classical) Administrative Principles

question

Lawrence Kohlberg

answer

Levels of moral development

question

Elton Mayo

answer

(Behavioral) Hawthorne Studies

question

Abraham Maslow

answer

(Behavioral) Human Needs Theory

question

Douglas McGregor

answer

(Behavioral) Theory X & Theory Y

STUDY

Business Management Criterion Related Validity Description Duties And Responsibilities Merit Systems Protection Board Pay For Performance Public Relations Strengths And Weaknesses

Human Resource Management Ch:6 140 terms

Jason Westley

140 terms

Preview

Human Resource Management Ch:6

question

1. While the overall selection process is the responsibility of the HR department, line managers often make the final decision about hiring personnel into their unit.

answer

question

3. As more steps are generally required when filling positions externally, companies often try to hire within and advertise externally only as a last resort.

answer

question

. A test that gives comparable scores when it is administered to the same individual a few days apart is unreliable

answer

question

5. Reliability refers to what a test or other selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.

answer

question

6. Reliability refers to the extent to which two methods yield similar results but are not consistent with one another.

answer

question

7. If an organization's selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time, the procedures are valid.

answer

question

8. Validity refers to what a selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.

answer

question

. Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection tool predicts or correlates with important elements of work behavior.

answer

question

. Concurrent validity involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after they have been on the job for some indefinite period.

answer

question

Predictive validity is assessed when the test scores of job applicants are held against the performance data of existing employees.

answer

question

. Concurrent validity is determined by comparing the applicant's test scores with the supervisor's performance ratings.

answer

question

13. Correlation (validity) coefficients range from 0.00 to 1.00.

answer

question

. A validity coefficient of 0.00 indicates a complete absence of relationship between the predictor and criterion data.

answer

question

15. The higher the overall validity of a selection procedure is, the greater the chances are of hiring individuals who will be the better performers.

answer

question

. According to the job board CareerBuilder, fewer people lie on application forms relative to their resumes. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Interviewers should steer clear of issues such as age, race, marital status, and sexual orientation. a. True b. False

answer

question

The closer the content of the selection instrument is to actual work samples or behaviors, the greater its content validity.

answer

question

Content validity is the most complicated type of validity to assess.

answer

question

Asking an accountant applicant to solve accounting problems similar to those encountered on the job is an example of construct validity.

answer

question

21. Construct validity refers to the extent to which a selection tool measures a trait, such as intelligence and anxiety.

answer

question

. Most organizations require application forms to be completed because they provide a fairly quick and systematic means of obtaining a variety of information about the applicant.

answer

question

On application forms, questions about arrests are not permissible.

answer

question

24. Firms that operate in more than one state can easily develop one form to use in all locations.

answer

question

. Most large companies accept applications online

answer

question

. A key advantage of accepting applications online is that companies can recruit candidates and fill their job openings much faster.

answer

question

To protect themselves from hiring potentially bad employees, organizations are encouraged to ask job applicants about past arrests on biographical information blanks.

answer

question

. In highly structured interviews, the interviewer determines the course that the interview will follow as each question is asked.

answer

question

Structured interviews are less likely than nondirective interviews to be attacked in court.

answer

question

A behavioral description interview focuses on hypothetical situations.

answer

question

Organizations should try to avoid using telephone reference checks because they are less reliable than written references.

answer

question

In most instances, employers can legally use polygraph tests to screen applicants.

answer

question

"Lie detectors" legally include pencil-and-paper honesty tests in addition to mechanical and electronic devices.

answer

question

. Because of legislation prohibiting their use except in special occupations, use of lie detectors in private firms is extremely low.

answer

question

Sequential interviews are very common.

answer

question

Most interviews take place in person

answer

question

Federal courts have significantly expanded the areas of questioning permitted during an interview.

answer

question

Legally, medical examinations can be administered to an applicant before he or she has been made a conditional employment offer.

answer

question

. The Americans with Disabilities Act severely limits the types of medical inquiries and examinations that employers may use.

answer

question

It is inappropriate for an interviewer to ask men if they are married or have children.

answer

question

A pre-employment test is a subjective measure of behavior. a. True b. False

answer

question

Based on the Privacy Act of 1974, individuals have a legal right to examine reference documentation about them.

answer

question

. Measures of general intelligence, such as IQ tests, are not generally regarded as good predictors of job performance across a variety of jobs.

answer

question

Extroversion refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and curious. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Personality tests measure such things as agreeableness, extroversion, and openness to experience. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Conscientiousness refers to the degree to which someone is trusting, amiable, cooperative, and flexible. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Openness to experience refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and curious. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Personality tests can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Physical ability tests tend to predict performance, accidents, and injuries. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Because of the physical differences between the genders, physical ability tests should be carefully validated on the basis of the essential functions of the job.

answer

question

If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has content validity. a. True b. False

answer

question

. If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has construct validity. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Employment interviews can serve as a public relations tool for employers. a. True b. False

answer

question

Tell me more about your experiences on your last job" is an example of a nondirective interview question. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Data obtained from nondirective interviews are difficult to validate. a. True b. False

answer

question

A situational interview asks the applicant what they actually did in a given situation. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Situational interviews ask the applicant how they would respond, while behavioral description interviews ask the applicant how they did respond.

answer

question

Behavioral description interviews are based on hypothetical situations. a. True b. False

answer

question

Behavioral description interviews appear to be more effective than situational interviews, especially for higher-level positions. a. True b. False

answer

question

. HRM specialists have found that panel interviews lead to higher reliability and shorter decision-making period than one-to-one interviews. a. True b. False

answer

question

Video interviews have the advantages of speed and cost effectiveness. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Federal law requires comprehensive background checks for all child care providers and prohibits convicted felons from engaging in financial and security-oriented transactions. a. True b. False

answer

question

. Police, firefighting, and teaching areas appear to be more prone to discrimination litigation. a. True b. False

answer

question

It is much easier to measure what individuals can do than what they will do. a. True b. False

answer

question

. In the clinical approach to selection, different evaluators assign different weights to an applicant's strengths and weaknesses.

answer

question

. The clinical approach to selection eliminates personal biases and stereotypes. a. True b. False

answer

question

The statistical approach to decision making is less objective than the clinical approach. a. True b. False

answer

False

question

A selection model is compensatory if it requires applicants to achieve some minimum level of proficiency on all selection dimensions. a. True b. False

answer

question

With a compensatory model, a low score on one selection test may not eliminate a candidate if he or she gets a high score on another test. a. True b. False

answer

question

70. The multiple hurdle model is a sequential strategy in which only the applicants with the highest scores at an initial test stage go on to subsequent stages.

answer

question

The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of applicants to be selected to the total number of applicants. a. True b. False

answer

question

The type of information obtained from an applicant should be based on: a. job specifications. b. the biographical data set. c. manning tables. d. the HR manager's preferences.

answer

job specifications.

question

. What is usually the first step in the selection process? a. Reference check b. Submission of resume c. Interviews d. Background checks

answer

Submission of resume

question

Which of the following should NOT be asked on an application form? a. Application date b. References c. National origin d. Criminal convictions

answer

National origin

question

The interview remains a mainstay of selection because of all of the following, EXCEPT: a. it absolves the organization of legal liability. b. it is practical. c. it serves public relations purposes. d. interviewers maintain confidence in their judgments.

answer

a. it absolves the organization of legal liability.

question

. The difference between the situational interview and the behavioral description interview is that: a. there is no difference, the terms are synonymous. b. the situational interview is for technical positions, while the behavioral description interview applies to upper-level management positions. c. the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is based upon actual experience. d. the behavioral description interview is hypothetical, while the situational interview is based upon actual experience.

answer

c. the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is based upon actual experience.

question

During the selection procedure, an applicant may be rejected: a. after the preliminary interview. b. after completing the application blank. c. after selection test results are received. d. at any step in the procedure.

answer

d. at any step in the procedure.

question

Regardless of the selection methods used, it is essential that the selection procedure be: a. lengthy and thorough. b. quick and efficient. c. reliable and valid. d. a positive experience for applicants.

answer

reliable and valid.

question

. The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time is known as: a. consistency. b. reliability. c. validity. d. conformity.

answer

b. reliability.

question

. If two or more methods yield consistent results, the selection procedure can be described as: a. having predictive validity. b. being reliable. c. being redundant. d. having content validity.

answer

b. being reliable.

question

The Uniform Guidelines recognizes and accepts all of the following approaches to validation EXCEPT: a. criterion-related validity. b. content validity. c. utility validity. d. construct validity.

answer

C utility validity.

question

The degree to which a test or selection procedure measures a person's attributes is termed: a. evidence. b. accuracy. c. reliability. d. validity.

answer

validity

question

The extent to which good performance on a test correlates with high marks on a performance review is an example of: a. criterion-related validity. b. clinical approach. c. construct validity. d. cross-validation.

answer

criterion-related validity.

question

Typically, establishing validity is a matter of comparing selection test scores: a. to weighted scores on the candidates' application. b. to supervisors' performance ratings. c. to previous scores done in a similar occupation. d. before and after hiring.

answer

b. to supervisors' performance ratings.

question

Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an example of: a. predictive validity. b. concurrent validity. c. content validity. d. correlational validity.

answer

predictive validity.

question

The process in which a test or battery of tests is administered to a different sample (drawn from the same population) for the purpose of verifying the results obtained from the original validation study is called: a. redundancy validation. b. repeat validation. c. cross-validation. d. inferential validation.

answer

cross-validation.

question

Obtaining criterion data at about the same time as test scores (or other predictive information) is the technique used in: a. predictive validity. b. concurrent validity. c. content validity. d. correlational validity.

answer

concurrent validity.

question

The results of a validation study are usually reported in the form of a: a. correlation coefficient. b. validity indicator. c. scale from 1 to 10. d. standard deviation.

answer

a. correlation coefficient.

question

Validity coefficients range from: a. 0.00 to 1.00. b. 1.00 to 10.00. c. -5.00 to +5.00. d. -1.00 to +1.00.

answer

d. -1.00 to +1.00.

question

A validity coefficient of -1.00 indicates a(n): a. complete lack of correlation. b. error in math. c. perfect negative correlation. d. perfect positive correlation.

answer

c. perfect negative correlation.

question

Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question? a. Where did you go to school? b. Have you ever been convicted of a crime? c. Where were you born? d. Are you legally authorized to work in the United States?

answer

c. Where were you born?

question

. _____ require the applicant to perform tasks that are actually a part of the work required on the job. a. EEOC tests b. Work sample tests c. Job knowledge tests d. Biographical data tests

answer

b. Work sample tests

question

According to the "Big Five" factors, _____ means the degree to which someone is talkative, sociable, active, aggressive, and excitable. a. extroversion b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism

answer

a. extroversion

question

94. The type of validity assumed to exist when a selection instrument adequately samples the knowledge and skills needed to perform a particular job is: a. criterion-related validity. b. content validity. c. construct validity. d. concurrent validity.

answer

b. content validity

question

. According to the "Big Five" factors, _____ refers to the degree to which someone is dependable and organized and perseveres in tasks. a. conscientiousness b. extroversion c. agreeableness d. neuroticism

answer

a. conscientiousness

question

. Which is the most direct and the least complicated type of validity to assess? a. Content validity b. Construct validity c. Criterion-related validity d. Concurrent validity

answer

a. Content validity

question

Constructs, or traits, include all of the following EXCEPT: a. intelligence. b. mechanical comprehension. c. physical ability. d. anxiety.

answer

c. physical ability.

question

Intelligence, mechanical comprehension, and anxiety are examples of: a. job requirements. b. job characteristics. c. theories. d. constructs.

answer

d. constructs.

question

The purposes served by application forms include all of the following EXCEPT: a. eliminating the need for interviews. b. determining if the applicant meets the minimum requirements. c. providing the basis for interview questions. d. offering sources for reference checks.

answer

a. eliminating the need for interviews.

question

Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form? a. Asking the applicant to provide high school, college, and post-college attendance b. Asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests c. Asking the applicant to provide names, addresses, and phone numbers of references d. Asking the applicant to provide all work experience

answer

b. Asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests

question

101. Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form? a. Indicating whether the applicant has the legal right to work in the U.S. b. Making inquiries about the ability of the applicant to perform job functions c. High school and college attendance with dates d. References' names, addresses, and phone numbers

answer

c. High school and college attendance with dates

question

According to studies, _____ of applicants test positive for drugs. a. One-third b. About one-quarter c. Ten percent d. Less than five percent

answer

d. Less than five percent

question

The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants: a. is a recommended procedure for all potential employees. b. should be used only in high-security employment areas. c. is prohibited by federal law for most private employers. d. is prohibited by executive order for government contractors only.

answer

c. is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.

question

Honesty tests have been shown to validly predict all of the following employee outcomes EXCEPT: a. job satisfaction. b. theft. c. absenteeism. d. job performance.

answer

a. job satisfaction.

question

. In the _____ to decision making, those making the selection decision review all the data on the applicants. a. statistical approach b. clinical approach c. subjective iterative approach d. demonstrated approach

answer

b. clinical approach

question

The Americans with Disabilities Act explicitly states that: a. employers may not test for AIDS or the presence of HIV. b. employers can screen out a prospective employee because he or she has an elevated risk of on-the-job injury. c. employers may not test applicants for illegal drug use. d. physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.

answer

d. physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.

question

107. Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988: a. drugs in the workplace are prohibited. b. employers are prohibited from conducting random drug tests. c. all employees must submit to drug tests on demand. d. applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.

answer

d. applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use

question

. A ratio of 0.10, for example, means that _____ percent of the applicants will be selected. a. 0.1 b. 1 c. 10 d. 90

answer

c. 10

question

According to a report by the U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, a quasi-judicial agency that serves as the guardian of federal merit systems, structured interviews are _____ as nondirective interviews to predict on-the job performance. a. twice as likely b. half as likely c. just as likely d. four times as likely

answer

twice as likely

question

. Which of the following interview questions is appropriate? a. Why did you leave your last job? b. Are you a man or a woman? c. How much do you weigh? d. How tall are you?

answer

a. Why did you leave your last job?

question

Which of the following interview questions is appropriate? a. What is the origin of your name? b. What color are your eyes? c. Have you ever worked under a different name? d. Are you a U.S. citizen?

answer

c. Have you ever worked under a different name?

question

112. The personality trait of agreeableness refers to: a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable. b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible. c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous. d. the degree to which someone is dependable and organized.

answer

b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible.

question

The personality trait of openness to experience refers to: a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable. b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible. c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous. d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious.

answer

d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious.

question

114. The personality trait of neuroticism refers to: a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable. b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible. c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous. d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious.

answer

c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous.

question

. Personality tests: a. easily demonstrate job-relatedness. b. can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively. c. measure intelligence. d. measure an applicant's preference for certain activities over others.

answer

b. can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively.

question

The Uniform CPA Examination used to license certified public accountants is an example of a(n): a. work sample test b. job knowledge test c. physical ability test d. interest inventory

answer

job knowledge test

question

Which of the following types of tests is increasingly being aided by computer simulations? a. Personality tests b. Physical ability tests c. Cognitive ability tests d. Work sample tests

answer

Work sample tests

question

Interviews as a method of selection are popular for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. interviews are the most valid method of selection. b. interviews are practical for dealing with a small number of applicants. c. interviews function as a public relations tool. d. interviewers have faith in their ability to make selection judgments.

answer

a. interviews are the most valid method of selection.

question

119. The type of interview that allows the applicant maximum amount of freedom in determining the course of the discussion is the: a. nondirective interview. b. depth interview. c. situational interview. d. structured interview.

answer

nondirective interview.

question

The set of standardized questions used in a structured interview is based on: a. job analysis. b. hypothetical situations. c. the applicant's area of specialization. d. effective communication techniques.

answer

job analysis.

question

An interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would respond to it is a: a. computer interview. b. panel interview. c. situational interview. d. nondirective interview.

answer

situational interview

question

. "Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee" is an example of a: a. behavioral description interview question. b. panel interview question. c. computer interview question. d. closed response interview question.

answer

a. behavioral description interview question

question

"It is late at night before your scheduled vacation. You are all packed and ready to go to bed.You get a phone call from the plant asking you to come in and handle a problem that only you can address. What will you do?" This is an example of a ____ question. a. behavioral description interview. b. panel interview. c. situational interview. d. nondirective interview.

answer

c. situational interview.

question

A behavioral description interview is more effective than a situational interview for: a. lower-level positions. b. higher-level positions. c. recent college graduates. d. first line supervisors.

answer

b. higher-level positions.

question

. Identify a benefit of panel interviews. a. Cost-efficiency b. Unilateral decision making c. Longer decision-making period d. Higher reliability because of multiple inputs

answer

d. Higher reliability because of multiple inputs

question

. ____ interviews are attractive because of their convenience and low cost and they make it easier to interview people in different geographic areas. a. Video b. Behavioral description c. Panel d. Structured

answer

Video

question

. Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question? a. Have you ever worked under a different name? b. If hired, can you prove your age? c. What is your race? d. What is your address?

answer

What is your race?

question

All of the following questions may be considered appropriate during an interview EXCEPT: a. Have you ever been arrested? b. Do you have a legal right to work in the U.S.? c. Are you physically able to perform the essential duties of the job? d. Did you finish school?

answer

a. Have you ever been arrested?

question

129. The selection decision should focus on: a. the strategic objectives of the organization. b. the personality of the applicant and the supervisor. c. the motivation of the applicant. d. both "can-do" and "will-do" factors of the applicant.

answer

d. both "can-do" and "will-do" factors of the applicant.

question

. The "can-do" factors in selection decisions include: a. skills. b. personality. c. values. d. motivation.

answer

a. skills.

question

HR staffs should consider all of the following factors during hiring decisions EXCEPT: a. Should the individuals be hired according to their highest potential or according to the needs of the organization? b. What effect will the applicants' family situation have on job performance? c. To what extent should those applicants who are not qualified but are qualifiable be considered? d. Should overqualified individuals be considered?

answer

b. What effect will the applicants' family situation have on job performance?

question

. Between the two approaches to selection decisions, the statistical approach is considered superior, although the _____ is the most commonly used. a. qualitative b. quantitative c. clinical d. subjective

answer

c. clinical

question

. A selection model that requires an applicant to achieve some minimum level of proficiency on all selection dimensions is referred to as a _____ model. a. multiple cutoff b. multiple hurdle c. compensatory d. contingency

answer

a. multiple cutoff

question

The approach to decision making that identifies candidates with the highest scores based on quantitative predictors is the: a. personal judgment approach. b. quantitative approach. c. objective approach. d. statistical approach.

answer

d. statistical approach

question

A coach who recruits a basketball player who has superb shooting skills but lacks ball-handling and defensive skills is employing a _____ selection decision model. a. multiple hurdle b. compensatory c. multiple cut-off d. clinical

answer

b. compensatory

question

A selection model in which an applicant moves on to the next stage in the process on the condition that she or he satisfies a score criterion on previous parts of the process is referred to as a _____ model. a. multiple cutoff b. multiple hurdle c. compensatory d. contingency

answer

b. multiple hurdle

question

. A low selection ratio means: a. the cutoff score for selection decisions will be relatively low. b. there are very few qualified applicants. c. only the most promising applicants will be hired. d. little selectivity among applicants will be possible.

answer

c. only the most promising applicants will be hired.

question

The "O" in KSAO stands for: a. optimal. b. outside. c. other factors. d. obligation.

answer

c. other factors.

question

. State courts have ruled that companies can be held liable for _____ if they fail to do adequate background checks. a. over recruiting b. staff inflation c. deceptive interviewing d. negligent hiring

answer

d. negligent hiring

question

Generally, _____ reference checks are preferable because they save time and provide for greater candor. a. e-mail b. fax c. telephone d. mail

answer

telephone

question

One of the drawbacks of pre-employment testing is that it creates the potential for _____. a. cross-validation b. legal challenges c. employer misunderstanding d. spurious correlation

answer

b. legal challenges

STUDY

Criterion Related Validity Industrial Organization Intelligence Skills And Abilities

Fundamentals of Human Resource Management Sixth Edition Chapter 6 – Flashcards 22 terms

Julia Rush

22 terms

Preview

Fundamentals of Human Resource Management Sixth Edition Chapter 6 – Flashcards

question

Personal Selection (P168)

answer

The process through which organizations make decisions about who will or will not be allowed to join the organization

question

Reliability (P170)

answer

The extent to which a measurement is free from random error

question

Validity (P170)

answer

The extent to which performance on a measure (such as a test score) is related to what the measure is designed to assess (such as job performance)

question

Criterion-Related Validity (P171)

answer

A measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores

question

Predictive Validation (P171)

answer

Research that uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance of the applicants who were hired

question

Concurrent Validation (P172)

answer

Research that consists of administering a test to people who currently hold a job, the comparing their scores to existing measures of job performance

question

Content Validity (P172)

answer

Consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job

question

Construct Validity (P172)

answer

Consistency between a high score on a test and high level of a construct such as intelligence or leadership ability, as well as between mastery of this construct and successful performance of the job

question

Generalizable (P172)

answer

Valid in other contexts beyond the context in which the selection method was developed

question

Utility (P173)

answer

The extent to which something provides economic value greater then its cost

question

Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 (P175)

answer

Federal law requiring employers to verify and maintain records on applicants' legal rights to work in the United States

question

Aptitude Tests (P181)

answer

Tests that assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities

question

Achievement Tests (P181)

answer

Tests that measure a person's existing knowledge and skills

question

Cognitive Ability Tests (P182)

answer

Tests designed to measure such mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability

question

Assessment Center (P183)

answer

A wide variety of specific selection programs that use multiple selection methods to rate applicants or job incumbents on their management potential

question

Nondirective Interview (P186)

answer

A selection interview in which the interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions to ask each candidate

question

Structured Interview (P186)

answer

A selection interview that consists of a predetermined set of questions for the interviewer to ask

question

Situational Interview (P187)

answer

A structured interview in which the interviewer describes a situation likely to arise on the job, then asks the candidate what he or she would do in that situation

question

Behavior Description Interview (P187)

answer

A structured interview in which the interviewer asks the candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past

question

Panel Interview (P187)

answer

Selection interview in which several members of the organization meet to interview each candidate

question

Multiple-Hurdle Model (P190)

answer

Process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the section process

question

Compensatory Model (P190)

answer

Process of arriving at a selection decision in which a very high score on one type of assessment can make up for a low score on another

STUDY

Criterion Related Validity Flashcards, test questions and answers

We've found 9 Criterion Related Validity tests

Haven't found what you were looking for?

Search for samples, answers to your questions and flashcards