Human Resource Management Ch:6

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1. While the overall selection process is the responsibility of the HR department, line managers often make the final decision about hiring personnel into their unit.
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T
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3. As more steps are generally required when filling positions externally, companies often try to hire within and advertise externally only as a last resort.
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F
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. A test that gives comparable scores when it is administered to the same individual a few days apart is unreliable
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F
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5. Reliability refers to what a test or other selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.
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F
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6. Reliability refers to the extent to which two methods yield similar results but are not consistent with one another.
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F
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7. If an organization’s selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time, the procedures are valid.
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F
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8. Validity refers to what a selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.
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T
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. Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection tool predicts or correlates with important elements of work behavior.
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T
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. Concurrent validity involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after they have been on the job for some indefinite period.
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F
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Predictive validity is assessed when the test scores of job applicants are held against the performance data of existing employees.
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F
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. Concurrent validity is determined by comparing the applicant’s test scores with the supervisor’s performance ratings.
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T
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13. Correlation (validity) coefficients range from 0.00 to 1.00.
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F
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. A validity coefficient of 0.00 indicates a complete absence of relationship between the predictor and criterion data.
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T
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15. The higher the overall validity of a selection procedure is, the greater the chances are of hiring individuals who will be the better performers.
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T
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. According to the job board CareerBuilder, fewer people lie on application forms relative to their resumes. a. True b. False
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T
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. Interviewers should steer clear of issues such as age, race, marital status, and sexual orientation. a. True b. False
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T
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The closer the content of the selection instrument is to actual work samples or behaviors, the greater its content validity.
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T
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Content validity is the most complicated type of validity to assess.
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F
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Asking an accountant applicant to solve accounting problems similar to those encountered on the job is an example of construct validity.
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F
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21. Construct validity refers to the extent to which a selection tool measures a trait, such as intelligence and anxiety.
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T
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. Most organizations require application forms to be completed because they provide a fairly quick and systematic means of obtaining a variety of information about the applicant.
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T
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On application forms, questions about arrests are not permissible.
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T
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24. Firms that operate in more than one state can easily develop one form to use in all locations.
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F
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. Most large companies accept applications online
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T
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. A key advantage of accepting applications online is that companies can recruit candidates and fill their job openings much faster.
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T
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To protect themselves from hiring potentially bad employees, organizations are encouraged to ask job applicants about past arrests on biographical information blanks.
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F
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. In highly structured interviews, the interviewer determines the course that the interview will follow as each question is asked.
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T
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Structured interviews are less likely than nondirective interviews to be attacked in court.
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T
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A behavioral description interview focuses on hypothetical situations.
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F
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Organizations should try to avoid using telephone reference checks because they are less reliable than written references.
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F
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In most instances, employers can legally use polygraph tests to screen applicants.
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F
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\”Lie detectors\” legally include pencil-and-paper honesty tests in addition to mechanical and electronic devices.
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F
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. Because of legislation prohibiting their use except in special occupations, use of lie detectors in private firms is extremely low.
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T
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Sequential interviews are very common.
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T
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Most interviews take place in person
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T
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Federal courts have significantly expanded the areas of questioning permitted during an interview.
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F
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Legally, medical examinations can be administered to an applicant before he or she has been made a conditional employment offer.
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T
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. The Americans with Disabilities Act severely limits the types of medical inquiries and examinations that employers may use.
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T
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It is inappropriate for an interviewer to ask men if they are married or have children.
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F
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A pre-employment test is a subjective measure of behavior. a. True b. False
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F
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Based on the Privacy Act of 1974, individuals have a legal right to examine reference documentation about them.
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T
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. Measures of general intelligence, such as IQ tests, are not generally regarded as good predictors of job performance across a variety of jobs.
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F
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Extroversion refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and curious. a. True b. False
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F
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. Personality tests measure such things as agreeableness, extroversion, and openness to experience. a. True b. False
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T
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. Conscientiousness refers to the degree to which someone is trusting, amiable, cooperative, and flexible. a. True b. False
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F
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. Openness to experience refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and curious. a. True b. False
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T
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. Personality tests can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively. a. True b. False
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T
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. Physical ability tests tend to predict performance, accidents, and injuries. a. True b. False
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T
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. Because of the physical differences between the genders, physical ability tests should be carefully validated on the basis of the essential functions of the job.
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T
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If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has content validity. a. True b. False
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. If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has construct validity. a. True b. False
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F
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. Employment interviews can serve as a public relations tool for employers. a. True b. False
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T
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Tell me more about your experiences on your last job\” is an example of a nondirective interview question. a. True b. False
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T
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. Data obtained from nondirective interviews are difficult to validate. a. True b. False
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T
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A situational interview asks the applicant what they actually did in a given situation. a. True b. False
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F
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. Situational interviews ask the applicant how they would respond, while behavioral description interviews ask the applicant how they did respond.
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T
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Behavioral description interviews are based on hypothetical situations. a. True b. False
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F
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Behavioral description interviews appear to be more effective than situational interviews, especially for higher-level positions. a. True b. False
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T
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. HRM specialists have found that panel interviews lead to higher reliability and shorter decision-making period than one-to-one interviews. a. True b. False
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T
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Video interviews have the advantages of speed and cost effectiveness. a. True b. False
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T
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. Federal law requires comprehensive background checks for all child care providers and prohibits convicted felons from engaging in financial and security-oriented transactions. a. True b. False
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T
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. Police, firefighting, and teaching areas appear to be more prone to discrimination litigation. a. True b. False
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T
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It is much easier to measure what individuals can do than what they will do. a. True b. False
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T
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. In the clinical approach to selection, different evaluators assign different weights to an applicant’s strengths and weaknesses.
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T
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. The clinical approach to selection eliminates personal biases and stereotypes. a. True b. False
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F
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The statistical approach to decision making is less objective than the clinical approach. a. True b. False
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False
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A selection model is compensatory if it requires applicants to achieve some minimum level of proficiency on all selection dimensions. a. True b. False
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F
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With a compensatory model, a low score on one selection test may not eliminate a candidate if he or she gets a high score on another test. a. True b. False
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T
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70. The multiple hurdle model is a sequential strategy in which only the applicants with the highest scores at an initial test stage go on to subsequent stages.
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T
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The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of applicants to be selected to the total number of applicants. a. True b. False
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T
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The type of information obtained from an applicant should be based on: a. job specifications. b. the biographical data set. c. manning tables. d. the HR manager’s preferences.
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job specifications.
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. What is usually the first step in the selection process? a. Reference check b. Submission of resume c. Interviews d. Background checks
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Submission of resume
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Which of the following should NOT be asked on an application form? a. Application date b. References c. National origin d. Criminal convictions
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National origin
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The interview remains a mainstay of selection because of all of the following, EXCEPT: a. it absolves the organization of legal liability. b. it is practical. c. it serves public relations purposes. d. interviewers maintain confidence in their judgments.
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a. it absolves the organization of legal liability.
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. The difference between the situational interview and the behavioral description interview is that: a. there is no difference, the terms are synonymous. b. the situational interview is for technical positions, while the behavioral description interview applies to upper-level management positions. c. the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is based upon actual experience. d. the behavioral description interview is hypothetical, while the situational interview is based upon actual experience.
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c. the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is based upon actual experience.
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During the selection procedure, an applicant may be rejected: a. after the preliminary interview. b. after completing the application blank. c. after selection test results are received. d. at any step in the procedure.
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d. at any step in the procedure.
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Regardless of the selection methods used, it is essential that the selection procedure be: a. lengthy and thorough. b. quick and efficient. c. reliable and valid. d. a positive experience for applicants.
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reliable and valid.
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. The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time is known as: a. consistency. b. reliability. c. validity. d. conformity.
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b. reliability.
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. If two or more methods yield consistent results, the selection procedure can be described as: a. having predictive validity. b. being reliable. c. being redundant. d. having content validity.
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b. being reliable.
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The Uniform Guidelines recognizes and accepts all of the following approaches to validation EXCEPT: a. criterion-related validity. b. content validity. c. utility validity. d. construct validity.
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C utility validity.
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The degree to which a test or selection procedure measures a person’s attributes is termed: a. evidence. b. accuracy. c. reliability. d. validity.
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validity
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The extent to which good performance on a test correlates with high marks on a performance review is an example of: a. criterion-related validity. b. clinical approach. c. construct validity. d. cross-validation.
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criterion-related validity.
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Typically, establishing validity is a matter of comparing selection test scores: a. to weighted scores on the candidates’ application. b. to supervisors’ performance ratings. c. to previous scores done in a similar occupation. d. before and after hiring.
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b. to supervisors’ performance ratings.
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Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an example of: a. predictive validity. b. concurrent validity. c. content validity. d. correlational validity.
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predictive validity.
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The process in which a test or battery of tests is administered to a different sample (drawn from the same population) for the purpose of verifying the results obtained from the original validation study is called: a. redundancy validation. b. repeat validation. c. cross-validation. d. inferential validation.
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cross-validation.
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Obtaining criterion data at about the same time as test scores (or other predictive information) is the technique used in: a. predictive validity. b. concurrent validity. c. content validity. d. correlational validity.
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concurrent validity.
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The results of a validation study are usually reported in the form of a: a. correlation coefficient. b. validity indicator. c. scale from 1 to 10. d. standard deviation.
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a. correlation coefficient.
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Validity coefficients range from: a. 0.00 to 1.00. b. 1.00 to 10.00. c. -5.00 to +5.00. d. -1.00 to +1.00.
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d. -1.00 to +1.00.
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A validity coefficient of -1.00 indicates a(n): a. complete lack of correlation. b. error in math. c. perfect negative correlation. d. perfect positive correlation.
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c. perfect negative correlation.
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Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question? a. Where did you go to school? b. Have you ever been convicted of a crime? c. Where were you born? d. Are you legally authorized to work in the United States?
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c. Where were you born?
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. _____ require the applicant to perform tasks that are actually a part of the work required on the job. a. EEOC tests b. Work sample tests c. Job knowledge tests d. Biographical data tests
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b. Work sample tests
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According to the \”Big Five\” factors, _____ means the degree to which someone is talkative, sociable, active, aggressive, and excitable. a. extroversion b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism
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a. extroversion
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94. The type of validity assumed to exist when a selection instrument adequately samples the knowledge and skills needed to perform a particular job is: a. criterion-related validity. b. content validity. c. construct validity. d. concurrent validity.
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b. content validity
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. According to the \”Big Five\” factors, _____ refers to the degree to which someone is dependable and organized and perseveres in tasks. a. conscientiousness b. extroversion c. agreeableness d. neuroticism
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a. conscientiousness
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. Which is the most direct and the least complicated type of validity to assess? a. Content validity b. Construct validity c. Criterion-related validity d. Concurrent validity
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a. Content validity
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Constructs, or traits, include all of the following EXCEPT: a. intelligence. b. mechanical comprehension. c. physical ability. d. anxiety.
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c. physical ability.
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Intelligence, mechanical comprehension, and anxiety are examples of: a. job requirements. b. job characteristics. c. theories. d. constructs.
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d. constructs.
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The purposes served by application forms include all of the following EXCEPT: a. eliminating the need for interviews. b. determining if the applicant meets the minimum requirements. c. providing the basis for interview questions. d. offering sources for reference checks.
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a. eliminating the need for interviews.
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Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form? a. Asking the applicant to provide high school, college, and post-college attendance b. Asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests c. Asking the applicant to provide names, addresses, and phone numbers of references d. Asking the applicant to provide all work experience
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b. Asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests
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101. Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form? a. Indicating whether the applicant has the legal right to work in the U.S. b. Making inquiries about the ability of the applicant to perform job functions c. High school and college attendance with dates d. References’ names, addresses, and phone numbers
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c. High school and college attendance with dates
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According to studies, _____ of applicants test positive for drugs. a. One-third b. About one-quarter c. Ten percent d. Less than five percent
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d. Less than five percent
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The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants: a. is a recommended procedure for all potential employees. b. should be used only in high-security employment areas. c. is prohibited by federal law for most private employers. d. is prohibited by executive order for government contractors only.
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c. is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.
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Honesty tests have been shown to validly predict all of the following employee outcomes EXCEPT: a. job satisfaction. b. theft. c. absenteeism. d. job performance.
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a. job satisfaction.
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. In the _____ to decision making, those making the selection decision review all the data on the applicants. a. statistical approach b. clinical approach c. subjective iterative approach d. demonstrated approach
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b. clinical approach
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The Americans with Disabilities Act explicitly states that: a. employers may not test for AIDS or the presence of HIV. b. employers can screen out a prospective employee because he or she has an elevated risk of on-the-job injury. c. employers may not test applicants for illegal drug use. d. physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.
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d. physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.
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107. Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988: a. drugs in the workplace are prohibited. b. employers are prohibited from conducting random drug tests. c. all employees must submit to drug tests on demand. d. applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.
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d. applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use
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. A ratio of 0.10, for example, means that _____ percent of the applicants will be selected. a. 0.1 b. 1 c. 10 d. 90
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c. 10
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According to a report by the U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, a quasi-judicial agency that serves as the guardian of federal merit systems, structured interviews are _____ as nondirective interviews to predict on-the job performance. a. twice as likely b. half as likely c. just as likely d. four times as likely
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twice as likely
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. Which of the following interview questions is appropriate? a. Why did you leave your last job? b. Are you a man or a woman? c. How much do you weigh? d. How tall are you?
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a. Why did you leave your last job?
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Which of the following interview questions is appropriate? a. What is the origin of your name? b. What color are your eyes? c. Have you ever worked under a different name? d. Are you a U.S. citizen?
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c. Have you ever worked under a different name?
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112. The personality trait of agreeableness refers to: a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable. b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible. c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous. d. the degree to which someone is dependable and organized.
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b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible.
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The personality trait of openness to experience refers to: a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable. b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible. c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous. d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious.
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d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious.
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114. The personality trait of neuroticism refers to: a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable. b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible. c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous. d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious.
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c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous.
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. Personality tests: a. easily demonstrate job-relatedness. b. can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively. c. measure intelligence. d. measure an applicant’s preference for certain activities over others.
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b. can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively.
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The Uniform CPA Examination used to license certified public accountants is an example of a(n): a. work sample test b. job knowledge test c. physical ability test d. interest inventory
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job knowledge test
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Which of the following types of tests is increasingly being aided by computer simulations? a. Personality tests b. Physical ability tests c. Cognitive ability tests d. Work sample tests
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Work sample tests
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Interviews as a method of selection are popular for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. interviews are the most valid method of selection. b. interviews are practical for dealing with a small number of applicants. c. interviews function as a public relations tool. d. interviewers have faith in their ability to make selection judgments.
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a. interviews are the most valid method of selection.
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119. The type of interview that allows the applicant maximum amount of freedom in determining the course of the discussion is the: a. nondirective interview. b. depth interview. c. situational interview. d. structured interview.
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nondirective interview.
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The set of standardized questions used in a structured interview is based on: a. job analysis. b. hypothetical situations. c. the applicant’s area of specialization. d. effective communication techniques.
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job analysis.
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An interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would respond to it is a: a. computer interview. b. panel interview. c. situational interview. d. nondirective interview.
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situational interview
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. \”Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee\” is an example of a: a. behavioral description interview question. b. panel interview question. c. computer interview question. d. closed response interview question.
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a. behavioral description interview question
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\”It is late at night before your scheduled vacation. You are all packed and ready to go to bed.You get a phone call from the plant asking you to come in and handle a problem that only you can address. What will you do?\” This is an example of a ____ question. a. behavioral description interview. b. panel interview. c. situational interview. d. nondirective interview.
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c. situational interview.
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A behavioral description interview is more effective than a situational interview for: a. lower-level positions. b. higher-level positions. c. recent college graduates. d. first line supervisors.
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b. higher-level positions.
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. Identify a benefit of panel interviews. a. Cost-efficiency b. Unilateral decision making c. Longer decision-making period d. Higher reliability because of multiple inputs
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d. Higher reliability because of multiple inputs
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. ____ interviews are attractive because of their convenience and low cost and they make it easier to interview people in different geographic areas. a. Video b. Behavioral description c. Panel d. Structured
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Video
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. Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question? a. Have you ever worked under a different name? b. If hired, can you prove your age? c. What is your race? d. What is your address?
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What is your race?
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All of the following questions may be considered appropriate during an interview EXCEPT: a. Have you ever been arrested? b. Do you have a legal right to work in the U.S.? c. Are you physically able to perform the essential duties of the job? d. Did you finish school?
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a. Have you ever been arrested?
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129. The selection decision should focus on: a. the strategic objectives of the organization. b. the personality of the applicant and the supervisor. c. the motivation of the applicant. d. both \”can-do\” and \”will-do\” factors of the applicant.
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d. both \”can-do\” and \”will-do\” factors of the applicant.
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. The \”can-do\” factors in selection decisions include: a. skills. b. personality. c. values. d. motivation.
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a. skills.
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HR staffs should consider all of the following factors during hiring decisions EXCEPT: a. Should the individuals be hired according to their highest potential or according to the needs of the organization? b. What effect will the applicants’ family situation have on job performance? c. To what extent should those applicants who are not qualified but are qualifiable be considered? d. Should overqualified individuals be considered?
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b. What effect will the applicants’ family situation have on job performance?
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. Between the two approaches to selection decisions, the statistical approach is considered superior, although the _____ is the most commonly used. a. qualitative b. quantitative c. clinical d. subjective
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c. clinical
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. A selection model that requires an applicant to achieve some minimum level of proficiency on all selection dimensions is referred to as a _____ model. a. multiple cutoff b. multiple hurdle c. compensatory d. contingency
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a. multiple cutoff
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The approach to decision making that identifies candidates with the highest scores based on quantitative predictors is the: a. personal judgment approach. b. quantitative approach. c. objective approach. d. statistical approach.
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d. statistical approach
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A coach who recruits a basketball player who has superb shooting skills but lacks ball-handling and defensive skills is employing a _____ selection decision model. a. multiple hurdle b. compensatory c. multiple cut-off d. clinical
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b. compensatory
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A selection model in which an applicant moves on to the next stage in the process on the condition that she or he satisfies a score criterion on previous parts of the process is referred to as a _____ model. a. multiple cutoff b. multiple hurdle c. compensatory d. contingency
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b. multiple hurdle
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. A low selection ratio means: a. the cutoff score for selection decisions will be relatively low. b. there are very few qualified applicants. c. only the most promising applicants will be hired. d. little selectivity among applicants will be possible.
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c. only the most promising applicants will be hired.
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The \”O\” in KSAO stands for: a. optimal. b. outside. c. other factors. d. obligation.
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c. other factors.
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. State courts have ruled that companies can be held liable for _____ if they fail to do adequate background checks. a. over recruiting b. staff inflation c. deceptive interviewing d. negligent hiring
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d. negligent hiring
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Generally, _____ reference checks are preferable because they save time and provide for greater candor. a. e-mail b. fax c. telephone d. mail
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telephone
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One of the drawbacks of pre-employment testing is that it creates the potential for _____. a. cross-validation b. legal challenges c. employer misunderstanding d. spurious correlation
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b. legal challenges

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