Input the correct code(s) in the appropriate sequence: Samantha Farber, a 32-year-old established patient, sees Dr. Hoffman for HIV testing, even though she has not had any HIV-related conditions or symptoms. She admits to having a high-risk lifestyle with multiple sexual partners, one of whom is infected with HIV. Dr. Hoffman discusses how to make the needed lifestyle changes and refers her to a community mental health center for counseling.

Code 1 – Z11.4 Code 2 – Z72.51 Code 3 – Z20.6 More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/hit-200-icd-week-2-case-study/

Which of the following are advantages of outpatient treatment? Pick all that apply. a. It is the most common treatment site b. It is most appropriate for those at risk of harming themselves c. Community mental health centers may provide it d. This may occur in private practice

a. It is the most common treatment site c. Community mental health centers may provide it d. This may occur in private practice More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch-2-learnsmart-abnormal-psychology/

Community Mental Health Centers Act of 1963

Legislation enacted during Kennedy administration directing all states to provide mental health treatment for people in crisis. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chp-2-history-of-crisis-intervention/

In contrast to a clinical psychologist, a psychiatrist is more likely to A) Engage in an eclectic approach B) Use a biomedical treatment C) Recognize the importance of group therapy with patients having the same disorder D) Treat clients in community mental health centers exclusively E) See patients with less serious mental health problems

B More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ap-psychology-chapter-13/

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Community Mental Health Center Flashcards, test questions and answers

Q: Community mental health centers

comprehensive treatment facilities in the community that offer alternatives to hospitalization More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ap-psych-methods-of-therapy/

Discover flashcards, test exam answers, and assignments to help you learn more about Community Mental Health Center and other subjects. Don’t miss the chance to use them for more effective college education. Use our database of questions and answers on Community Mental Health Center and get quick solutions for your test.

We've found 7 Community Mental Health Center tests

AP Psychology Community Mental Health Center Emphasize The Importance Of High Self Esteem Psychology

Unit One pt. 2 – Flashcards 50 terms

Jacob Patel

50 terms

Preview

Unit One pt. 2 – Flashcards

question

A clinical psychologist who explains behavior in terms of unconscious drives and conflicts is employing a(n) ________ perspective.

answer

psychodynamic

question

Akira believes that her son has become a good student because she always praises his learning efforts. Her belief best illustrates a ________ perspective.

answer

biopsychosocial

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Arguments as to whether psychological differences between men and women result from biological or social influences most clearly involve a debate over the issue of

answer

nature versus nurture.

question

Behaviorists dismissed the value of

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science.

question

Charles Darwin believed that behaviors, such as the emotional expressions associated with human rage, could be explained by natural selection. Which early psychologist would be most likely to agree with Darwin's assessment?

answer

William James

question

Clinical psychologists specialize in

answer

providing therapy to troubled people.

question

Descartes theory of how our brain controlled our reflexes involved which of the following?

answer

brain fluid and "animal spirits"

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Dr. Caleigh conducts basic research on the relationship between adults' language skills and their capacity to solve mathematical problems. Dr. Caleigh is most likely a(n) ________ psychologist.

answer

cognitive

question

Dr. Kozak has concluded that the unusually low incidence of alcohol dependence among citizens of a small African country can be attributed to strong fundamentalist religious influences in that region. This belief best illustrates a(n) ________ perspective.

answer

Social-cultural

question

Dr. Lipka is involved in an applied research study of customer satisfaction with a newly developed line of facial cosmetics and other beauty aids. Dr. Lipka is most likely a(n) ________ psychologist.

answer

industrial-organizational

question

Dr. Ochoa develops tests to accurately identify the most qualified job applicants in a large manufacturing firm. Which psychological specialty does Dr. Ochoa's work best represent?

answer

industrial-organizational psychology

question

Dr. Santaniello conducts basic research on how children's moral thinking changes as they grow older. It is most likely that Dr. Santaniello is a(n) ________ psychologist.

answer

developmental

question

Dr. Tiao conducts basic research on the effects of head injuries on people's problem-solving and abstract-reasoning skills. Which psychological specialty does her research best represent?

answer

biological psychology

question

Dr. Wilson attributes the delinquent behaviors of many teens to the pressures associated with being members of street gangs. Her account best illustrates a(n) ________ perspective.

answer

Social-cultural

question

Dr. Winkle conducts basic research on the systematic changes in intelligence associated with aging. It is most likely that Dr. Winkle is a(n) ________ psychologist.

answer

developmental

question

Humanistic psychologists focused on the importance of

answer

healthy growth potential

question

In its early years, psychology focused on the study of ________, but from the 1920s into the 1960s, American psychologists emphasized the study of ________.

answer

mental life; observable behavior

question

In the early 1960s, the cognitive revolution in psychology involved a renewal of interest in the scientific study of

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mental processes

question

In Wilhelm Wundt's experiments, participants were asked to press a key as soon as they were consciously aware of perceiving a sound. By asking participants to examine and report their conscious experiences, Wundt was making use of which of the following?

answer

introspection

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Janna has low self-esteem because she is often teased for being overweight. Appreciating the complexity of Janna's difficulties requires

answer

biopsychosocial approach

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Lissette wonders whether personality differences between her African-American and Asian-American friends result from biological or cultural influences. In this instance, Lissette is primarily concerned with the relative contributions of

answer

nature and nurture

question

Mark believes that people are genetically predisposed to dislike bitter-tasting foods because this has enhanced human survival. His belief best illustrates the ________ perspective.

answer

evolutionary

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Mr. Christian has designed a camera with buttons that are easy to reach and see. Mr. Christian is most likely

answer

engaged in applied research

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Mr. Kay is interested in whether individual differences affect learning. Mr. Kay is most likely a(n) ________ psychologist.

answer

educational

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Natassia believes that boys learn to be more aggressive than girls primarily because boys are more frequently exposed to external pressures to fight. Natassia's belief most directly exemplifies the ________ perspective.

answer

behavioral

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Professor Reed attempts to assess the relative contributions of heredity and home environment on children's susceptibility to depression. Her research best illustrates the concerns of the ________ approach.

answer

biopsychosocial

question

The behavioral perspective is most likely to emphasize the importance of

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observable responses

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The biological perspective in psychology would be most likely to emphasize that behavior is influenced by

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blood chemistry

question

The biopsychosocial approach provides an understanding of social-cultural influences integrated within the larger framework of

answer

multiple levels of analysis

question

The distinctive feature of the psychodynamic perspective is its emphasis on

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unconscious conflicts

question

The first psychological laboratory was established by

answer

Wilhelm Wundt.

question

The ideas that most directly helped form modern empiricism were proposed by

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John Locke and Francis Bacon

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The method of introspection was used by Titchener to identify

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elements of sensory experience

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The self-reflective observation of one's own sensations and feelings is called

answer

introspection

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The specialist most likely to have a medical degree is a(n)

answer

psychiatrist

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The unreliability of introspection contributed to the waning popularity of

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structuralism

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Which approach is most directly concerned with assessing the relative contributions of heredity and experience to personality development?

answer

biosychosocial

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Which approach is most directly concerned with assessing the relative impact of both nature and nurture on our psychological traits?

answer

biosychosocial

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Which perspective is most concerned with the unique ways in which individuals interpret their own life experiences?

answer

cognitive

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Which perspective would focus on the extent to which different styles of parenting are encouraged among various ethnic communities?

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social-cultural

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Which philosopher is most well known for theorizing that the mind at birth is tabula rasa or a "blank slate"?

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John Locke

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Which professional specialty focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of people with psychological disorders?

answer

clinical psychology

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Which psychological perspective highlights the manner in which people encode, process, store, and retrieve information?

answer

cognitive

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Which psychologist was the first woman to receive a Ph.D. in psychology after Harvard University declined to give Mary Calkins the Ph.D.?

answer

Margaret Washburn

question

Which statement best exemplifies contemporary psychology's understanding of the nature and nurture issue?

answer

Depression is a disorder of the brain and of thought

question

Who highlighted the reproductive advantages of environmentally adaptive traits?

answer

Charles Darwin

question

Who was the American philosopher who authored a textbook in 1890 for the emerging discipline of psychology?

answer

William James

question

Who would be most likely to emphasize the role of the unconscious in affecting behavior?

answer

Sigmund Freud

question

Who would have been most likely to ignore mental processes and to define psychology as "the scientific study of observable behavior"?

answer

John B. Watson

question

William James was a prominent American

answer

Functionalist

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PSYC 3082: Chapter 1 – Flashcards 92 terms

Patrick Turner

92 terms

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PSYC 3082: Chapter 1 – Flashcards

question

What is the formal definition of Psychological Abnormality?

answer

there is no single definition for psychological abnormality

question

What is psychological normality?

answer

there is no single defintion

question

What are the three types of Psychological Disorders?

answer

Psychological dysfunction Personal distress Atypical or not culturally expected response

question

Are psychological disorders the same in every part of the world?

answer

No, it differs in all cultures. i.e. hearing voices in one culture might be accepted but not accepted in another.

question

What is psychological dysfunction?

answer

breakdown in cognitive, emotional or behavioral functioning

question

What does cognitive mean?

answer

Breakdown in thought functioning

question

When a person has difficulty performing appropriate and expected roles what are they expressing what type of psychological disorder?

answer

personal distress

question

A reaction that is considered to be outside cultural norm would be called what type of psychological disorder?

answer

atypical or not culturually expected response

question

The psychological dysfunction associated with distress or impairment in functioning that is not an atypical response?

answer

abnormal behavior

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Every single diagnostable mental disorder is decribed in what book?

answer

DSM-IV

question

The DSM-IV contains what?

answer

diagnostic criteria

question

The scientific study of psychological disorders is called what?

answer

psychopathology

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Clinical and counseling psychologists, psychiatrists, MSNs, and Psy.D's are united under what organization?

answer

the Scientist-Practitioner Framework

question

What are the three things that Scientist-Practitioners do?

answer

Produce research consume research/up to date with research evualuate their work using empirical methods

question

Would a Scientist-Practioner ever use a method of treatment that is not considered an empirical method?

answer

No, they always use methods that are proven to be accurate and effective

question

What are the three major categories that make up the study and discussion of psychological disorders?

answer

clinical description causation treatment and outcome

question

Clinical description begins with what?

answer

presenting the problem

question

What is the purpose of clinical description?

answer

it helps distinguish clinically significant dysfunction from common human experience

question

The rate of the disorder in a population is called what?

answer

prevalence

question

What term describes how many cases of a specific disorders occurs during a specific time period?

answer

incidence

question

The term which describes when a disorder began is called?

answer

onset

question

If a disorder suddenly occurs or shows up, what kind of onset is it?

answer

acute onset

question

If a disorder gradually becomes more apparent, what kind of onset is it?

answer

insidious

question

What are the three different courses of disorders?

answer

episodic, time-limited, chronic

question

Causes of an disorders and their contributing factors are called what?

answer

Etiology

question

How can we best improve the lives of people suffering from psychopathology?

answer

study of treatment development includes pharmacologic, psychosocial and combined treatment

question

How do we know that we have alleviated psychological suffering?

answer

study of treatment outcome

question

What is the psychological term for the predicted outcome of a disease?

answer

prognosis

question

When did psychological disorders begin?

answer

they have existed in all cultures across all time periods

question

What are the causes and treatment of abonormal behavior?

answer

they vary widely across cutlures, time periods and world views

question

What are the three dominant tradtions/time periods of abnonal behavior?

answer

supernatural, biological, and psychological

question

During what tradition was deviant behavior treated as a battle between "good" vs. evil

answer

Supernatural tradition

question

During what tradition were abnormal behavior blamed on evil forces and reasonings with religious undertones?

answer

supernatural tradition

question

In which tradition were psychological disorder treatment crude and harsh. i.e. burning at the stake of witches

answer

supernatural

question

Who attributed psychological disorders to be caused by the moon and the stars and rejected the notions of possession of evil?

answer

Paracelsus

question

What does lunacy hearing mean?

answer

it is a medical term to determine wether a person with symptoms have to go hospital or not

question

What was the major change between the biological tradition and supernatural tradition?

answer

society is understanding deviant behaviors and attributing them to biological behaviors

question

Who pioneered the belief that psychological behaviors were caused by biological factors?

answer

Hippocrates

question

What are the three components of a psychological disorder>

answer

personal dysfunction personal distress atypical or not culturally expected response

question

Are abnomal behaviors ALWAYS categorized as psychological disorder?

answer

no, they are only categorized as the same thing under certain circumstances.

question

Psychological dysfunction is associated with what?

answer

distress or impairment in functioning that is not typical or culturally exprected response.

question

What is the first step in clinical description? What is the goal of this step?

answer

presenting the problem. to distinguish clinically significant dysfunction from common human experience

question

The rate of the disorder in the population is called what?

answer

prevalence

question

The number of new disorder cases that occur during given period is called what?

answer

incidence

question

What is the proper term for onset of disorders that suddenly occur?

answer

acute onset

question

Disorders that develop gradually over an extended period have what kind of onset?

answer

insidious

question

If a person with a disorder is likely to recover within a few months and suffer the same symptoms at a later time, their disorder is most likely __________ (course)?

answer

episodic

question

If a person with a disorder improves without treatment in a short time period, their disorder is most likely _______ (course)?

answer

time limited

question

Disorders that last a long time are called?

answer

chronic

question

The study of the factors that contribute to the development of psychopathology is called?

answer

etiology

question

Etiology includes what three factors?

answer

biological psychological social dimensions

question

What is the ultimate goal of etiology?

answer

the improve the lives of people suffering from psychopathology through the study of treatment development

question

What are the three dominant traditions that guided people to understand abnormal behavior?

answer

supernatural biological psychological

question

Deviant behavior was assumed to be a battle of "good" vs. "evil" during what abnormal behavior tradition?

answer

supernatural Tradition

question

During the Supernatural Tradition, what was the course of action to treat people with abnormal behavior?

answer

exorcism torture beatings crude surgeries

question

What are Lunacy Hearings?

answer

They were hearings held to determine wheteher a person goes to hospital or not.

question

Who was the swiss physician that rejected the notions of possession by the devil and suggested that the movement of the moon and the star had a profound effect on people's psychological functionings?

answer

Paracelsus

question

Who introduced that idea that abnormal behavior was connected with the moon and the stars?

answer

paracelsus

question

Who stated that mental illnesses can be correlated to physical disorders and that they can be treated like any other diseases?

answer

Hippocrates

question

Why was hysteria only thought to be in females only?

answer

"wander uterus" Back then, it was correlated with the uterus moving.

question

Who was the Roman physician who extended hippocrates work even more? What was this person's legacy?

answer

Galen Humoral Theory

question

Who came up with the humoral theory?

answer

Galen

question

What were the four bodily fluids in the Humoral Theory?

answer

blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm

question

Where were the four bodily fluids in the humoral theory drawn from?

answer

blood-heart black bile- spleen yellow bile- liver phlegm - brain

question

What were some of the methods in the Humoral Theory?

answer

blood letting, temperature changes, diets, rest, exercise

question

Who discovered the cause of syphillis? This discovery led to what?

answer

Pasteur penicillin as a successful treatment

question

Who were proponents of Moral therapy?

answer

Dorothea Dix Philippe Pinel and Jean Baptiste-Pussin

question

What were the five forms of insanity? Who came up with them?

answer

mania melancholia with delirium melancholia without delirium dementia idiotism

question

Who is know as the father of the scientific classification system of mental disorders?

answer

Emile Kraeplin

question

How did Kraeplin define the two major groups of mental illnesses?

answer

manic depressive psychoses dementia praecox

question

What were the consequences of the biological tradition?

answer

Mental illness was treated like a physical illness they used brain surgeries, shock therapies and medications.

question

Plato said that ______ and ______ factors are the two main causes of abnormal behavior.

answer

cultural and social

question

Who crusaded for more humane treatment for the institutionalized, emphasizing on moral guidance and medical treatment? What was this movement called?

answer

Dorothea Dix The Mental Hygiene Movement

question

What was the outcome of the Mental Hygiene Movement?

answer

There were more human treatments for the institutionalized but it did not mean a better outcome for them.

question

Moral therapy as system originated with which two people?

answer

Philippe Pinel and Jean-Baptiste Pussin.

question

According to Freud, what were the three structures of the mind?

answer

Id, Ego, and Superego

question

Which of the Freudian Structures of the mind was the most primitive and infantile?

answer

question

Which Freudian Structure of the Mind is considered the pleasure principle of our mind?

answer

question

Which Freudian Structure of the Mind is logical and rational but doesnt deny pleasure? It is also known as the mediator structure.

answer

Ego

question

Which Freudian Structure of the Mind is called our moral principles that keeps the Id and Ego in balance?

answer

Superego

question

What kind of defense mechanisms kick in when the ego loses the battle with the id and superego? name three

answer

Displacement Denial Projection Rationalization Reaction formation Repression Sublimation

question

What are the 5 Psychosexual stages of development?

answer

oral anal phallic latency genital stages

question

What were Freud's three levels of consciousness?

answer

conscious pre-conscious unconscious

question

The things that we're aware of at any given time would fall under which Freudian level of consciousness?

answer

conscious

question

Things that are easily brought to our conscious fall under which Freudian level of consciousness?

answer

pre conscious

question

Thoughs, feelings, and drives that are completely out of our awareness fall under which Freudian level of consciousness?

answer

unconscious

question

What is Abraham Maslow known for?

answer

The hierarchy of need

question

According to Carl Rogers, people are....?

answer

basically good and strive towards goodness and reach. Humans strive for self-actualization

question

What is unconditional regard?

answer

the non-judgemental acceptance of the society

question

What is Pavlov known for?

answer

the classical conditioning experiment

question

Who proved that fear is a conditioned response?

answer

John Watson

question

Who was most known for his work with operant conditioning?

answer

BF Skinner

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Abnormal Psychology: Clinical Perspectives on Psychological Disorders Ch 1-4 – Flashcards 69 terms

Kenneth Miller

69 terms

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Abnormal Psychology: Clinical Perspectives on Psychological Disorders Ch 1-4 – Flashcards

question

Biological Causes

answer

Genetic and environmental influences on physical functioning and mental functioning.

question

Biopsychosocial Persepctive

answer

Individuals must change over time.

question

Trephining

answer

Cutting holes in living peoples heads to release evil spirits.

question

Overcrowding

answer

Reason for decline of mental institutions in the 1800's

question

Ridding Body of Excess Fluid

answer

Hippocrates Believed to cure mental illness

question

Patterns of Symptoms

answer

Emil Kraepelin promoted system similar to medical diagnosis.

question

Psychoanalysis

answer

Unconscious mind, early development, inhibited sexual impulses

question

1950's

answer

Pharmacological Treatments for Psychological Illnesses

question

Deinstitutionalization

answer

1963 Mental Retardation Facilities and Community Cental Health Center Construction Act

question

Positive Psychology

answer

Perspective that emphasizes the potential for growth and change throughout life

question

Objectivity

answer

Scientific method for understanding and treatment of Abnormal Behavior

question

Experimental Studies

answer

Studies that investigate differences among groups not determined by random assignment

question

Survey

answer

Research tool used to gather information from a sample of people about a topic of concern

question

Incidence

answer

The frequency of new cases of a disorder within a certain time period

question

Concordance Rate

answer

The agreement ratio between people diagnosed with a disorder and their relatives

question

Clinical Psychologist

answer

A trained specialist in psychology who usually has a doctoral degree; treats a variety of issues; cannot prescribe medicine.

question

Psychiatrist

answer

Physician (MD) with medical training in the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of mental disorders

question

DSM Diagnostic Manual

answer

Publication that contains descriptions of various psychological disorders.

question

Reliability

answer

The consistency of measurements or diagnosis

question

Axis

answer

"One-Dimension" in the DSM regarding an individual's functioning

question

Multi-Axial System

answer

DSM-5 Adheres to this

question

Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

answer

An anxiety disorder characterized by unwanted repetitive thoughts (obsession) and/ or actions (compulsions).

question

Culturally Acceptable

answer

Mr. Kang, a recent immigrant from China, is extremely overwhelmed and distressed by the untimely death of his wife. His co-workers are concerned about his mental health because he believes he is in constant contact with her and can be seen talking to her on a regular basis. It is not likely that Mr. Kang would be diagnosed as having a mental disorder because his behavior

question

Principal Diagnosis

answer

First step in the diagnostic process

question

Drug/Alcohol Abuse

answer

Most common comorbid disorder associated with other psychiatric disorders

question

Case Formulation

answer

Identification of the disorders that may have produced a disorder

question

Immediate Goal

answer

Treating clients in crisis is to ensure that their symptoms are managed

question

Community Mental Health Center

answer

Outpatient clinic that provides psychological services on a sliding fee scale to serve individuals who live within a certain geographic area.

question

Halfway House

answer

A community treatment facility designed for deinstitutionalized clients leaving a hospital who are not yet ready for independent living

question

Modality

answer

Form in which the clinician offers psychotherapy.

question

Group Therapy

answer

Psychological treatment in which the therapist facilitates discussion among several clients who talk together about their problems.

question

Family Therapy

answer

Psychological treatment in which the therapist works with several or all members of the family.

question

Milieu Therapy

answer

A treatment approach, used in an inpatient psychiatric facility, in which all facets of the milieu, or environment, are components of the treatment

question

Quality of the Relationship

answer

The most crucial determinant of whether or not therapy will succeed

question

Psychological Assessment

answer

A broad range of measurement techniques, all of which provide scorable information about their psychological functioning

question

Unstructured Interview

answer

A series of open-ended questions aimed at determining the client's reasons for being in treatment

question

Behavioral Observation

answer

A clinician watches a client through a one-way mirror and records the number of times he engages in self-injurious behavior. This assessment method is commonly referred to as a

question

Structured Questions

answer

Advantage the structured interview has over the unstructured interview

question

Mental Status Examination

answer

Assess's a clients state of mind

question

Evaluation of Cognitive Strengths and Weaknesses

answer

Through intelligence testing, clinicians can obtain standardized scores that allow

question

Rorschach Inkblot Test

answer

Most Famous Inkblot Technique

question

Psychasthenia

answer

A person who tends to worry too much and has unreasonable fears would probably score high on which scale of the MMPI-2?

question

Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

answer

Pablo's therapist is telling him to look at black-and-white drawings that portray people in a variety of ambiguous situations. Pablo's task is to tell a story about what is happening in each scene, focusing on such details as what the characters in the picture are thinking and feeling. Pablo's therapist is administering the

question

Target Behaviors

answer

Behaviors of interest or concern that the client and clinician are trying to change

question

Self-Monitoring

answer

Dr. Schwartz is requesting that his client keep a tally of the number of times per hour he says negative things to his wife. Which assessment technique is Dr. Schwartz employing?

question

Behavioral Interviewing

answer

assessment process in which clinicians ask questions about the target behaviors frequency, antecedents, and consequences

question

Multi-Cultural Assessment

answer

assessment process in which clinicians take into account the person cultural, ethnic, and racial background

question

Clock Drawing Test

answer

Test that measures visuospatial ability

question

Wechsler Memory Scale (WMS-IV)

answer

Which neuropsychological test investigates a variety of memory functions that includes tests of working and long-term memory for visual and verbal stimuli?

question

visual memory, working memory, executive function and planning, attention, verbal memory, and decision making and response control

answer

CANTAB (Cambridge Neuropsychological Testing Automated Battery) Consists of 22 subtests that assess

question

CT Scan - CAT Scan

answer

Consists of a series of X-Rays taken from various angles around the body that integrated by a computer to produce a composite picture.

question

fMRI - Functional Magnetic Resonance Image

answer

Brain Imaging Technique which constructs a picture of the actual activity in the brain

question

Genotype

answer

The genetic makeup of an organism

question

Phenotype

answer

The observed and measurable characteristic that results from the combination of environmental and genetic influences are referred to as the?

question

Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)

answer

Neurosurgeon implants a microelectrode that delivers a constant low electrical stimulation to a small region of the brain, powered by an implanted battery.

question

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

answer

Sandy suffers from Alzheimer's disease. Her treatment includes that application of electrical shock to the head for the purpose of inducing therapeutically beneficial seizures. Which of the following treatments is Sandy being given?

question

Libido

answer

The Id's primal instincts are referred to as the?

question

Attachment Style

answer

The way a person relates to a caregiver figure is referred to as

question

Voluntary or Involuntary Behavior

answer

The difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning is that in the case of

question

Counter Conditioning

answer

The two primary components of systematic desensitization are relaxation training and?

question

Token Economy

answer

A form of behavioral therapy that involves the principle of rewarding a client for desired behaviors and not providing rewards for undesired behavior

question

Cognitive Restructuring

answer

Jackie fears that if he gets into a plane, it will crash. His clinician attempts to change his thoughts by questioning and challenging his dysfunctional attitudes and irrational beliefs. Identify the method employed by the clinician

question

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy

answer

Which of the following is a treatment method in which clinicians focus on changing both maladaptive behaviors and maladaptive thoughts

question

Acceptance and Commitment Therapy

answer

Wendy feels that she has let her children down by focusing on her career and her feelings of guilt have begun to affect her mental health. This has caused her to avoid all interaction with her children. Her clinician helps her to deal with her distressing thoughts and feelings and instead of avoiding her children encourages her to spend more time with them. The method used by the clinician is referred to as

question

Carl Rogers

answer

Who developed the person-centered approach?

question

Unconditional Positive Regard

answer

A method in client-centered therapy in which the clinician gives total acceptance of what the client says, does, & feels.

question

Sociocultural

answer

Dr. Larry focuses on external factors like the influence of people and institutions that have an effect on the personality of his clients. The technique employed by Dr. Larry is referred to as the _______ perspective.

question

Family Perspective

answer

Which of the following perspectives is primarily based on the underlying belief that abnormality is caused by disturbances in the patterns of interactions and relationships with siblings, parents, children, and partner?

question

Milieu Therapy

answer

Daffodils, a mental healthcare unit, promotes positive functioning in clients by creating a therapeutic community. Every member of its staff, whether a therapist, a nurse, or paraprofessional, takes part in the overall mission of providing an environment that supports positive change. the underlying idea is that the pressure to conform to conventional social norms of behavior fosters more adaptive behavior on the part of individual clients. this is an example of

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Chapter 15, 16, and 17 Abnormal Final – Flashcards 255 terms

Pedro Huang

255 terms

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Chapter 15, 16, and 17 Abnormal Final – Flashcards

question

1. Which of the following statements MOST accurately reflects current thinking about psychosis and schizophrenia?

answer

C) People with different diagnoses can exhibit psychosis; it's not limited to schizophrenia.

question

2. What was the dominant way of treating schizophrenic people during the first half of the twentieth century?

answer

A) institutionalization

question

Most patients who lived on the hospital wards in state mental hospitals in the mid1900s:

answer

A) were schizophrenics.

question

4. The MAIN contribution of Philippe Pinel to the care of those with severe mental illnesses was to:

answer

C) treat patients with sympathy and kindness.

question

5. Which of the following is TRUE of state mental hospitals in the United States in the mid- twentieth century?

answer

C) They were overcrowded and understaffed.

question

6. The usual way of dealing with troublesome or violent schizophrenic people in institutions in the first half of the twentieth century was to:

answer

D) use physical restraint.

question

7. Some hospitalized mental patients whose original symptoms of schizophrenia improved were nonetheless unable to return to society because of the negative effects of their care. This syndrome is called:

answer

C) social breakdown syndrome.

question

8. Patients who developed extreme withdrawal, anger, physical aggressiveness, and loss of personal hygiene as a result of poor institutional care were showing a pattern known as:

answer

B) social breakdown syndrome.

question

9. Longterm mental patients frequently developed anger, aggressiveness, and loss of interest in personal appearance. This condition has been called:

answer

C) social breakdown syndrome.

question

10. Theorists propose that institutionalized patients deteriorate because they are deprived of opportunities to develop selfrespect and independence. The therapy that counters this effect by creating an environment that encourages selfrespect and responsibility is known as:

answer

C) milieu therapy.

question

11. Which therapy is based on the premise that when you change the social environment, you can change the patient?

answer

A) milieu therapy

question

12. Maxwell Jones (1953) created an approach to psychotherapy of the institutionalized in London called:

answer

D) the therapeutic community.

question

13. Milieu therapy is based primarily on the principles of ______ psychology.

answer

humanistic

question

14. If one were treated by therapists who believed that patients needed to live in a social climate that promoted productive activity, selfrespect, and individual responsibility, one would be likely to be living in the:

answer

1950s

question

15. A patient who is called a resident who lives in a therapeutic community and actively works with staff members to create a life that is as much like that outside the hospital as possible, is probably receiving ______ therapy.

answer

C) milieu

question

16. A token economy approach to treatment is based on principles from the abnormal behavior.

answer

behavioral view

question

17. Who was the first physician responsible for developing the prefrontal lobotomy for use on human patients?

answer

A) Egas Moniz

question

18. The technique for treating mental patients that was pioneered by Egas Moniz was:

answer

B) the lobotomy.

question

19. The Americans Walter Freeman and James Watts "improved" the procedure developed by Egas Moniz by developing the:

answer

C) transorbital lobotomy.

question

20. During a ______ a needle is inserted into the brain through the eye socket and is then rotated to destroy brain tissue.

answer

B) transorbital lobotomy

question

21. Why were lobotomies so enthusiastically accepted by the medical community in the 1940s and 1950s?

answer

B) The inventors of this procedure were gifted and dedicated physicians.

question

22. In behavioral terms, what is a token?

answer

C) a reinforcer

question

23. Tokens:

answer

B) can be exchanged for a variety of rewards.

question

24. A thirdgrade teacher gives students stickers throughout the school day when they engage in appropriate behaviors. At the end of the day, students can trade in their stickers for treats from the class "treasure chest." This program is MOST similar to which form of therapy used for institutionalized people with schizophrenia?

answer

C) token economy

question

25. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of the token economy approach?

answer

C) Token economy programs do not change the behavior of the most severely ill patients.

question

26. A hospitalized patient no longer talks about delusions and hallucinations, thanks to participating in a token economy program. However, critics of the token economy program would say that the token economy program has:

answer

C) not eliminated the delusions and hallucinations, but improved the patient's ability to imitate normal behavior.

question

27. Which of the following BEST describes the effectiveness of token economy strategies?

answer

C) They are successful at changing the patient's behavior.

question

28. What is the concern regarding the changes produced by token economies?

answer

D) The person may have learned new behaviors without changing his distorted thinking.

question

29. Antipsychotic drugs were discovered accidentally when researchers were trying to develop:

answer

A) antihistamines.

question

30. The discovery of antihistamine drugs in the 1940s indirectly led to the development of:

answer

C) antipsychotic drugs.

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31. The first antipsychotic drug to be approved for use in the United States was:

answer

C) Thorazine.

question

32. The term "neuroleptic" is applied to drugs that:

answer

D) can mimic symptoms of neurological disorders.

question

33. Which of the following drugs has antipsychotic properties?

answer

D) haloperidol

question

34. If one could use only a single treatment for schizophrenia and wanted the MOST effective treatment, one should choose:

answer

A) antipsychotic drugs.

question

35. What is the MOST accurate advice you could give someone thinking about taking traditional antipsychotic medication for their schizophrenia?

answer

C) "Although these drugs will probably work, there are significant side effects."

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36. If one were taking antipsychotic drugs for schizophrenia, one would expect the drugs to:

answer

D) need to be taken even after symptoms have been alleviated.

question

37. The schizophrenic symptom most likely to be relieved by antipsychotic drugs is:

answer

delusions

question

38. If a patient's chart said the patient had extrapyramidal side effects, you would expect to see the patient showing primarily ______ dysfunction.

answer

motor

question

39. One of the unwanted and later side effects of antipsychotic medications is:

answer

C) tardive dyskinesia.

question

40. The neuroleptic side effect marked by muscle rigidity, fever, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysfunction is called:

answer

D) neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

question

41. A woman has been treated with chlorpromazine for several years. Lately she seems to be chewing gum all the time and her arms are always in motion. She has begun to display twitching facial tics. This is an example of:

answer

C) tardive dyskinesia.

question

42. The proportion of patients taking antipsychotic medication who eventually develop tardive dyskinesia is closest to:

answer

10 percent

question

43. A person who is experiencing a potentially fatal reaction to an antipsychotic drug involving muscle rigidity and autonomic nervous system dysfunction is displaying:

answer

B) neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

question

44. If a schizophrenic were making involuntary ticlike movements of the tongue, mouth, face, or whole body, smacking the lips, and making sucking and chewing movements, one would suspect the patient:

answer

D) had been taking antipsychotic medication for a long time.

question

45. The most successful way to eliminate tardive dyskinesia is:

answer

A) to stop the antipsychotic medication.

question

46. Tardive dyskinesia can be overlooked because:

answer

B) it has symptoms that are similar to schizophrenia.

question

47. If you were working with a patient who displayed muscle tremors and rigidity, facial tics, and tardive dyskinesia, you would suspect that the person was receiving:

answer

B) antipsychotic drugs.

question

48. What do Parkinsonlike symptoms, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, and tardive dyskinesia have in common?

answer

C) They all involve disruption of motor control.

question

49. Which of the following drugs appears to act more at D1 and D4 dopamine receptors than at D2 dopamine receptors?

answer

A) clozapine

question

50. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs appears to work at serotonin receptors?

answer

B) clozapine

question

51. The MOST widely used atypical antipsychotic drug is:

answer

A) Clozaril.

question

52. The LOWEST number of extrapyramidal side effects is seen after taking:

answer

A) clozapine.

question

53. "I want to maximize the antipsychotic effect of a drug while minimizing its undesirable side effects," says a doctor. What's the BEST advice you can give the doctor?

answer

D) "Use an atypical antipsychotic drug."

question

54. Imagine that your neighbor, who is being treated for schizophrenia, says that she has mostly negative symptoms of schizophrenia and is afraid of the extrapyramidal side effects of medication. She asks you what she should do. Your BEST response is:

answer

C) "Try atypical antipsychotics; they should work best."

question

55. Advantages of atypical antipsychotic drugs over conventional medications include:

answer

C) newer medications produce fewer extrapyramidal effects.

question

56. Why aren't atypical antipsychotic drugs universally prescribed for people with schizophrenia? After all, more people with schizophrenia show improvement with atypical antipsychotic drugs than with conventional antipsychotics.

answer

D) On average, atypicals cost more.

question

57. Compared to African Americans, white Americans are:

answer

C) more likely to receive atypical antipsychotic drugs for both schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders.

question

58. Based on research studies, your BEST chance at receiving a prescription for an atypical antipsychotic medication would be if you:

answer

B) have private insurance and are treated by a psychiatrist.

question

59. Why do some therapists believe psychotherapy is unsuccessful in treating schizophrenia?

answer

C) Unmedicated schizophrenics are too far removed from reality to form the relationship needed.

question

60. Frieda FrommReichmann's approach to psychotherapy with schizophrenic patients was to

answer

B) build a sense of trust in the patient.

question

61. Rather than seeking to eliminate hallucinations and delusions, which form of therapy helps people learn to reinterpret their hallucinations and change their reactions to the hallucinations?

answer

A) cognitivebehavioral.

question

62. Therapists who advise clients to resist following orders from their hallucinatory voices are using a technique from the cognitivebehavioral approach that involves:

answer

D) challenging ideas about the power of hallucinations.

question

63. If you are being treated for schizophrenia and are learning to distract yourself from the voices you hear and to reinterpret them as just a symptom of your disorder rather than reality, you are MOST likely receiving:

answer

D) cognitive-behavioral therapy.

question

64. Mindfulness is MOST similar to which of the following therapies?

answer

D) cognitive-behavioral

question

65. Therapists who make statements such as, "It's not a real voice; it's my illness," are using a technique from the cognitive-behavioral approach that involves:

answer

C) interpreting their hallucinations.

question

Therapists who advise clients to apply special breathing and relaxation techniques in response to their hallucinatory voices are using a technique from the cognitive-behavioral approach that involves:

answer

B) ways of coping with hallucinations.

question

67. New-wave cognitive-behavioral therapies are MOST similar to:

answer

D) Acceptance and Commitment Therapy.

question

68. A person attending an HVN (Hearing Voices Network) meeting, can expect to get the message that:

answer

D) all interpretations of voices are equally valid.

question

69. The belief that many people hear voices and that this can be a meaningful, non-pathological experience is held by:

answer

C) a member of the Hearing Voices Network.

question

70. Who is most likely to offer the advice, "If you have the urge to yell at your 'voices' in public, do so with a cell phone up to your ear."?

answer

C) a member of the Hearing Voices Network.

question

71. A family with a high level of expressed emotion may display a great deal of:

answer

B) criticism.

question

72. The goal of family therapy is:

answer

A) to help the family better support the schizophrenic patient.

question

73. If relatives of a schizophrenic come to have more realistic expectations, reduce their guilt, and work on establishing better communication, they are probably receiving:

answer

C) family therapy.

question

74. Families with HIGH levels of "expressed emotion":

answer

D) express negative emotions like hostility and criticism.

question

75. If you and your family were receiving support, encouragement, and advice from other families with schizophrenic members, you would MOST likely be participating in:

answer

A) family psychoeducational programs.

question

76. A patient who receives help in finding work, in finding a place to live, and in taking medication correctly is probably receiving:

answer

B) social therapy.

question

77. Social therapy appears to play the STRONGEST role in:

answer

A) lessening the possibility of relapse in those recovering from schizophrenia.

question

78. The Community Mental Health Act stipulated that patients with mental disorders should receive all of the following except ______ without leaving their communities.

answer

D) research opportunities

question

79. Deinstitutionalization:

answer

B) was aimed at returning patients with mental disorders to their communities.

question

80. In the original Community Mental Health Act, the place where individuals would be treated was a:

answer

D) community mental health center.

question

81. If a person being treated for schizophrenia goes each day to a center where the focus is on improving social skills and receiving therapy, the person is participating in:

answer

A) partial hospitalization.

question

82. Community mental health centers are designed to provide all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

C) vocational rehabilitation.

question

83. A person lives at home but spends his day at a mental health facility. The facility might be described as providing:

answer

C) partial hospitalization.

question

84. An individual who displays serious psychotic symptoms, but would not benefit from being sent to a large state psychiatric hospital for a long period of time, would best be served by:

answer

A) shortterm hospitalization in a local psychiatric unit.

question

85. Schizophrenics who receive 24hour supervision in a community setting, usually following a milieu approach, are receiving:

answer

C) halfway house services.

question

86. Helen was just discharged from a public mental health facility. She went to live with a group of other former patients in a groupliving arrangement. There were staff members to help out but the former patients controlled most of the daytoday activities. Helen's living arrangement is a:

answer

B) halfway house.

question

87. Several people with schizophrenia work at a recycling center, where ontime behavior is expected, and payment is made solely for work completed. The people do not compete with each other. MOST likely, this work takes place at a:

answer

C) sheltered workshop.

question

88. Schizophrenics who are working in a sheltered workshop are receiving:

answer

D) occupational training.

question

89. The person most responsible for coordinating community service and providing practical help with problemsolving social skills, and ensuring that medications are being taken properly is a:

answer

D) case manager.

question

90. In the treatment of schizophrenia, a case manager's primary goal is to help with:

answer

A) coordination of services.

question

91. A disturbed individual kills a number of people in a mass shooting. The shooter is found to be mentally ill. How likely is it that such an individual will have received mental health services in the past year?

answer

D) likely; although the coordination of those services is a problem

question

92. If you were looking for people who have schizophrenia, where would you MOST likely find them?

answer

A) living on their own, unsupervised

question

93. Someone says to you, "Homeless people scare me. They're all crazy." What is your BEST response?

answer

C) "Unfortunately, about a third of homeless people are mentally ill."

question

94. If you went to a meeting of a group lobbying for better care for the mentally ill and made up primarily of family members of people with severe mental disorders, you would probably be attending:

answer

A) the National Alliance for the Mentally Ill.

question

95. Research suggests that an effective treatment plan for schizophrenia should include:

answer

D) biological treatments and psychological treatments.

question

1. The enduring pattern of inner thoughts and emotions along with outward behavior that is unique to each individual is termed:

answer

C) personality.

question

2. The consistencies of one's characteristics are called:

answer

C) personality traits.

question

3. What differentiates normal personality characteristics from personality disorders?

answer

D) All the answers are correct.

question

4. The MOST important similarity among the personality disorders listed in the text is that:

answer

C) they are inflexible, maladaptive, and related to impaired functioning or distress.

question

5. DSM5, like its predecessor, DSMIVTR, identifies 10 personality disorders utilizing a:

answer

B) categorical approach.

question

6. All of the following are criticisms of DSM5 diagnoses of personality disorders EXCEPT:

answer

D) incorporating new research into the new edition.

question

7. One reason that the personality disorders are difficult to treat is that the afflicted individuals:

answer

B) are frequently unaware that they have a problem.

question

8. Comorbidity means that:

answer

C) two disorders may occur together in an individual.

question

9. Personality disorders are categorized into three main clusters that include all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

D) schizophrenic.

question

11. The categorical approach to personality disorders assumes that:

answer

A) problematic personality traits are either present or absent.

question

12. Based on a structured interview, Diagnostician A classifies an individual's personality disorder in the "odd" cluster. Based on another structured interview of the same type, Diagnostician B classifies an individual's personality disorder in the "dramatic" cluster. If what is described here is typical of what happens when that variety of structured interview is used, one would say the structured interview has:

answer

D) low reliability and low validity

question

13. If you believe that personality disorders are BEST understood as a matter of degree in difference from typical personality rather than as a specific diagnosis, you agree with:

answer

A) the dimensional approach.

question

14. How do personality disorders differ from the personality characteristics of typical people?

answer

A) They lead to more maladaptive, distressful, and inflexible behaviors.

question

15. An individual has just received a diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder. That individual is MOST likely to have a parent or sibling who has:

answer

B) schizophrenia.

question

16. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate, in terms of current research findings?

answer

C) "Odd" personality disorders and schizophrenia are related to one another.

question

24. The schizoid personality disorder differs from paranoid personality disorder in that:

answer

D) those with schizoid personality disorder desire to be alone; those with paranoid personality are alone because of suspiciousness.

question

35. A belief that the news anchor on CNN is giving one important messages about one's behavior reflects:

answer

B) ideas of reference.

question

40. Characteristics of the Virginia Tech shooter reveal that he:

answer

B) displayed a combination of features from many personality disorders.

question

43. Which category of personality disorder contains the disorders MOST commonly diagnosed?

answer

B) "dramatic"

question

44. An adult has been jailed for the third time for fraud; each time it has been for persuading investors to put money into a phony silver mine. If the adult has received a DSMIVTR diagnosis, it is MOST likely either:

answer

D) antisocial personality disorder or a substancerelated disorder.

question

45. A friend of yours says, "A 15yearold high schooler accused of shooting several classmates received a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder." Your MOST accurate reply would be:

answer

D) "No; the kid is too young for that diagnosis."

question

46. Cruelty to animals and people, destruction of property, and truancy before the age of 15:

answer

B) are characteristic of those later diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.

question

47. Which of these well-known people appears to have displayed symptoms of antisocial personality disorder?

answer

question

48. Ben set up an elaborate scheme to mine gold in the Rockies. He had a large town meeting and made a presentation of his stock. The shares were only $5 each, and everyone could afford them. He showed pictures of the mine and explained how the company expected to gross $100 million each month. As it turns out, he was a terrific con artist who had made several "successful" proposals such as this in towns across America in the last couple of years. He is MOST likely suffering from:

answer

B) antisocial personality disorder.

question

49. Which of the following statements is NOT generally true of those with antisocial personality disorder?

answer

C) They care for no one's safety, except theirs and their children's.

question

50. Sarah respects none of society's boundaries and is insensitive to other people, frequently violating their rights. She does not consider the consequences of her actions. She MOST probably experiences:

answer

B) antisocial personality disorder.

question

51. A friend says to you, "He must have antisocial personality disorder; look how careful he is about his own wellbeing, but how careless he is about others' safety." Your MOST accurate reply would be:

answer

"You're partly right; most people with antisocial personality disorder are careless about their own safety, as well as the safety of others."

question

52. If you wanted to write a book about a fictional character who is a "typical" example of antisocial personality disorder, you might have the character exhibit all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

B) periods of very high anxiety.

question

56. The strong relationship between antisocial personality disorder and substance abuse means that:

answer

C) there are high rates of substance abuse among those with antisocial personality disorder.

question

57. The two childhood disorders that have been related to later antisocial personality disorder are:

answer

D) conduct disorder and attentiondeficit hyperactivity disorder.

question

62. Biologically speaking, if one wanted to treat antisocial personality disorder, one would want to ______ the individual with the disorder.

answer

C) increase the anxiety level of

question

64. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding antisocial personality disorder?

answer

A) Most who have it are not treated, and most who are treated are not helped much.

question

65. An individual with a diagnosed personality disorder is emotionally unstable, impulsive, and reckless. This person's diagnosis is likely to be which of the following personality disorders?

answer

A) borderline

question

66. "There's nothing out there for me. I can't stand other people, and I can't stand myself, either. I'm just really mad right now." Such a statement would most likely be made by someone with which personality disorder?

answer

A) borderline

question

67. "That personality disorder has become so common, I encounter it almost every day in the emergency room." MOST likely, this doctor is talking about which personality disorder?

answer

A) borderline

question

Lisa felt like she was on an emotional roller coaster. She felt angry and empty. Lisa's feelings are MOST similar to those of someone with:

answer

A) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

question

69. What is a common reason for the hospitalization of people with borderline personality disorder?

answer

A) They may attempt suicide or otherwise hurt themselves.

question

70. Transported to the hospital after a suicide attempt, a man is later admitted to the hospital's psychiatric wing. His history showed other selfdestructive behaviors and recklessness. MOST likely, if the man is diagnosed with a personality disorder, it will be:

answer

D) borderline.

question

71. Studies of those diagnosed with borderline personality disorder show that:

answer

D) over half attempt suicide at least once in their lives, and about 10 percent succeed.

question

72. A therapist treating a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder came up with the following analysis: the parents probably did not want children in the first place; the child just was not accepted; the child developed low selfesteem, dependency, and an inability to cope with separation. The therapist's theoretical orientation is probably:

answer

C) object relations theory.

question

73. Gort's parents never quite liked him, probably did not want children in the first place. He just was not accepted. It was clear early in school that Gort had a low opinion of himself and did not know how to interact with the other children. Now he cuts himself and has been to the ER several times. This is a description of the possible development of:

answer

D) borderline personality disorder.

question

76. Which of the following have sociocultural theorists suggested as a cause for the emergence of borderline personality disorder?

answer

A) rapid social change

question

77. Which of the following would MOST clearly fit into the biosocial theory of the development of borderline personality disorder?

answer

D) an individual who has difficulty controlling internal emotions and parents who mislabel those emotions

question

78. The inability to accurately interpret one's internal biological emotional or physiological states is characteristic of both:

answer

D) borderline personality disorder and eating disorders.

question

79. "That's it!" says your friend, the psychotherapist. "I can't work with that client. As soon as I show any empathy at all, it becomes almost impossible to challenge the client, and the client keeps calling me at all hours of the day." MOST likely, this is a client with:

answer

A) borderline personality disorder.

question

81. A friend asks your advice about the MOST effective therapy to use for treating borderline personality disorder. Your BEST answer is:

answer

D) "Research suggests that dialectical behavior therapy is the most effective."

question

82. When dialectical behavior therapy is used with patients with borderline personality disorder, those patients, compared to patients receiving other forms of therapy, make:

answer

A) far fewer suicide attempts, and are hospitalized less often.

question

83. Dr. Marsha Linehan, the developer of dialectical behavior therapy, would have diagnosed her young adult self with:

answer

B) borderline personality disorder.

question

84. A patient receiving dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) for borderline personality disorder experiences an emotion that he or she realizes is inappropriate. Immediately after, the patient acts in a very different, appropriate, way. This DBT procedure is called:

answer

C) opposite action.

question

86. A therapist states, "I seldom use drugs when I treat clients with borderline personality disorder." The therapist MOST likely says this because:

answer

A) the risk of suicide increases because using drugs may lead to overdose.

question

87. A client is searching for the BEST treatment for borderline personality disorder. Will drug treatment be effective if it is the only intervention the client receives?

answer

D) No; they should be used along with psychotherapy, if used at all.

question

88. "Beatlemania" gripped the United States in the 1960s when the British rock group The Beatles performed; adoring fans screamed, sometimes fainted, and shouted exaggerated, emotional praise at the group. These behaviors MOST closely resemble the characteristics

answer

A) histrionic personality disorder.

question

89. "You had one eye in the mirror as you watched yourself.../You're so vain, you probably think this song is about you/You're so vain..." sang Carly Simon in the 1973 #1 hit, "You're So Vain." If the subject of the song were diagnosed with a personality disorder, which of the following would be the MOST likely diagnosis?

answer

B) histrionic

question

90. When the seat belt light in DiDi's car stays on for a few extra seconds, she bursts into tears. She always craves attention and reacts to even the smallest event with an elaborate show of emotion. She probably could receive a diagnosis of:

answer

C) histrionic personality disorder.

question

91. A person constantly strives to be the center of attention, yet the ideas the person so eloquently expresses are usually shallow and changeable. If this person were diagnosed with a personality disorder, it MOST likely would be:

answer

A) histrionic.

question

92. "The problem is that they assume they can't take care of themselves, so they think others have to meet their needs. This pattern of thinking is not very helpful in trying to deal with histrionic personality disorder." A psychologist from which of the following perspectives would agree MOST strongly with this quote?

answer

cognitive

question

93. The type of therapist MOST likely to try to help people diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder to believe they are not helpless, and to teach them better thinking skills, is a ______ therapist:

answer

cognitive

question

94. "I am the greatest!" a famous boxer declared loudly and often. Had he in fact acted throughout his adult life as though he were the greatest, the most appropriate diagnosis would be:

answer

B) narcissistic personality disorder.

question

The personality disorder that is characterized by the need for undying love and admiration is:

answer

C) narcissistic.

question

96. Ty is fairly handsome, but not as handsome as he thinks he is. He doesn't care about anyone but himself and is sure that everyone around him feels the same way. He is MOST likely experiencing:

answer

B) narcissistic personality disorder.

question

97. The "flower children" of the 1960s and 1970s have sometimes been called the "me" generation, reflecting the supposed selfcentered individualism of the time. If this is true, a sociocultural theorist would predict a larger than usual percentage of which kind of personality disorder among the aging "me" generation?

answer

A) narcissistic

question

98. Behavioral and cognitive theorists propose that people who develop narcissistic personality disorder may have been treated:

answer

A) too positively in early life.

question

99. You might suspect an "era of narcissism" is approaching for a country when:

answer

A) there is increasing emphasis on selfexpression and competitiveness.

question

100. Assume you have to give an inclass presentation about narcissistic personality disorder. What is the MOST accurate thing you can say about treatment for this disorder?

answer

D) "No form of therapy is clearly better than the others."

question

101. A client is initially very resistant to therapy, cannot acknowledge weaknesses, and ignores feedback. MOST likely, the client is experiencing:

answer

C) narcissistic personality disorder, and will not make much progress in therapy.

question

102. Like those with paranoid personality disorder, those with avoidant personality disorder usually:

answer

C) are very sensitive to criticism and avoid close relationships.

question

103. Elena can't seem to establish social ties because she is afraid of being embarrassed or appearing foolish. She is easily hurt by criticism and is not willing to go into unfamiliar situations. She may be experiencing:

answer

B) avoidant personality disorder.

question

104. Avoidant personality disorder seems MOST closely related to:

answer

social anxiety

question

105. If a person primarily fears close social relationships, one would MOST likely conclude that the person is experiencing:

answer

B) avoidant personality disorder.

question

106. According to psychodynamic theorists, an important factor in the development of avoidant personality disorder is:

answer

B) early experiences of shame.

question

107. A client being treated for avoidant personality disorder must increase the number of social contacts per day. The person, at the least, must greet others with the sentence, "Hello; how are you doing?" MOST likely, the therapist has which theoretical background?

answer

behavioral

question

108. Group therapy is particularly useful in the treatment of avoidant personality disorder MAINLY because group therapy:

answer

C) provides practice in social interactions.

question

109. Cognitive therapy for avoidant personality disorder focuses on:

answer

B) increasing the client's tolerance of emotional discomfort and building up his or her self image.

question

110. A person who has an excessive need to be taken care of and is clingy is MOST likely to qualify for a diagnosis of:

answer

C) dependent personality disorder.

question

111. People with avoidant personality disorder have difficulty ______ relationships, while people with dependent personality disorder have difficulty ______ relationships.

answer

A) initiating; ending

question

112. A high school student asks a guidance counselor, parents, and friends for suggestions before deciding on a college to attend, and on an academic major. This student's behavior is:

answer

C) normal for those in high school.

question

113. If parents excessively reinforce clinging and punish attempts at independence, the result might be the development of:

answer

C) dependent personality disorder.

question

114. A child who is severely criticized for acting independently, and who is praised for doing exactly what parents say to do, later develops dependent personality disorder. The therapist who would be LEAST surprised by this outcome would have which theoretical orientation?

answer

behavioral

question

115. "Be loyal to your family" was what the child heard all the time, along with "You shouldn't — and can't—do it on your own, so don't even try." A behaviorist would say this kind of upbringing would be MOST likely to produce which of the personality disorders in the child, when he or she reached adulthood?

answer

D) dependent

question

116. "Group therapy is a good option for those with dependent personality disorder; they'll be able to observe others' coping skills, and model them." This statement would MOST likely be made by a therapist having which of the following theoretical perspectives?

answer

behavioral

question

117. One especially good reason to use a form of group therapy in the treatment of dependent personality disorder is that:

answer

the group members can model appropriate behaviors and expression of feelings to one another.

question

119. The TV show Monk features a detective who is very seldom happy, has few good friends, has a very rigid order and way in which he must do things, and who frequently has difficulty making up his mind about what to do. If he were diagnosed with a personality disorder, it would MOST likely be a ______ disorder.

answer

B) obsessive-compulsive

question

120. The TV show Saturday Night Live once featured a skit involving an "Anal Retentive Carpenter," who had to keep all his tools and work materials in just the "right" places, arranged "just so." He was very anxious any time tools and materials were not just as he wanted them. The MOST appropriate diagnosis for the carpenter would be:

answer

A) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

question

121. Obsessivecompulsive personality disorder is MOST common among:

answer

men with jobs

question

122. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between obsessivecompulsive disorder (an anxiety disorder) and obsessivecompulsive personality disorder?

answer

B) Some people with obsessivecompulsive personality disorder also experience obsessive compulsive disorder (an anxiety disorder).

question

123. Psychodynamic theorists explain obsessivecompulsive personality disorder as a fixation at the:

answer

B) anal stage.

question

124. "It is obvious that this case of obsessivecompulsive personality disorder arises from an early childhood fixation." Which type of psychologist would MOST likely have made that

answer

D) psychodynamic

question

125. With the help of a therapist, a client with obsessivecompulsive personality disorder has experienced a dramatic decrease in both dichotomous thinking and worrying. The client's behavior is:

answer

C) uncommon; most with obsessivecompulsive personality disorder do not seek help, and this person is most likely receiving cognitive therapy.

question

126. Those diagnosed with obsessivecompulsive personality disorder appear MORE responsive to which kinds of therapy?

answer

C) psychodynamic and cognitive

question

127. A group of diagnostic clinicians can't agree with each other on appropriate personality disorder diagnoses for several clients. In fact, it is obvious that, in many cases, they have inaccurately made their diagnoses. Assuming they are competent clinicians, this situation would indicate the DSM5 categories for personality disorder are:

answer

B) neither reliable nor valid.

question

128. All of the following are problems in the use of the DSM5 to diagnose personality disorders EXCEPT:

answer

A) the criteria are so restrictive that several categories rarely, if ever, are used.

question

129. Of the following statements, which one most accurately reflects uptodate research on DSM 5 categories of personality disorder?

answer

C) Individuals do not necessarily have to have very similar personalities to receive the same diagnosis.

question

134. Although lying, even compulsive lying, is not considered a psychological disorder, it is sometimes characteristic of people with:

answer

C) narcissistic personality disorder.

question

42. Pat does not follow what the teacher is doing and has difficulty focusing on the task at hand. His behavior in class is disruptive because he cannot sit still, which leads to poor grades in school. These symptoms MOST likely indicate:

answer

D) attentiondeficit / hyperactivity disorder.

question

43. A child's distracting behaviors occur only in a school setting, and include failure to follow instructions and finish work, answering questions before they have been completed, and a lot of seat squirming and fidgeting. Could ADHD be a diagnosis of this child?

answer

C) No; the child's symptoms occur in only one setting.

question

44. Attentiondeficit hyperactivity disorder is MORE common in ______ than in ______.

answer

A) boys; girls

question

45. The two MOST common treatments for attentiondeficit / hyperactivity disorder have been:

answer

A) behavioral and drug therapies.

question

46. What would be the BEST answer to give to parents of a child recently diagnosed with ADHD in response to their questions about what caused it?

answer

D) "Our best guess is that ADHD results from an interaction of several factors."

question

47. Among the likely causes of ADHD are all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

A) abnormal serotonin activity and parietal damage.

question

48. The drug Ritalin is classified as a(n):

answer

stimulant

question

49. "What should I look for in an effective ADHD treatment program?" a friend asks. Your BEST answer among the following alternatives is:

answer

C) "Drugs work best."

question

50. The latest research on the use of Ritalin to treat ADHD suggests which of the following?

answer

A) Research on its effectiveness and safety has been done almost exclusively on white American children.

question

51. Compared to white American children, African American and Hispanic American children with similar levels of activity and attention problems are:

answer

C) less likely to be assessed for ADHD, and less likely to be diagnosed with ADHD.

question

52. Compared to white American children, African American and Hispanic American children with similar levels of activity and attention problems are:

answer

A) less likely to be diagnosed with ADHD, and less likely to receive effective treatment.

question

53. Of the following parents, the ones LEAST likely to have children who receive effective treatment for ADHD are:

answer

D) African Americans who are Medicaidinsured.

question

54. Of the following reasons, the LEAST likely to contribute to the differences between African Americans and white Americans in receiving longacting stimulant drug treatment for ADHD is:

answer

D) differences in drug tolerance.

question

55. Two children—one, AfricanAmerican and the other, white American—display exactly the same symptoms of overactivity. What is MOST likely to happen?

answer

B) The white American will be diagnosed with ADHD, and the African American will be diagnosed with possibly a lower IQ or substance abuse.

question

68. The child most likely to show the first symptom of autism spectrum disorder would be a:

answer

A) boy under 3 years old.

question

69. A female child is diagnosed with autism. Later, as an adult, she is unable to hold a job and has very limited communication skills. Her case is:

answer

B) uncommon; most people diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder are males, and their symptoms usually remain severe into adulthood.

question

70. Assume that you are alone in a room with a child suffering from a disorder of childhood. If you didn't know what the child's diagnosis was, what behavior of the child's might start to convince you that the disorder is autism spectrum disorder?

answer

B) The child is not responsive to other people.

question

71. The mockingbird gets its name from the fact that it often imitates the call of other birds, without conveying any particular message. A child who imitates others' speech without any sign of understanding it, MOST likely would be diagnosed with:

answer

A) autism spectrum disorder.

question

72. One speech problem displayed by many children with autism spectrum disorder is that they repeat everything said to them. This is called:

answer

A) echolalia.

question

73. When a child with autism spectrum disorder says "You want a drink" when he really means that he wants a drink, he is displaying

answer

D) pronominal reversal.

question

74. A person who has difficulty with interpersonal interactions but is otherwise high functioning and would have been diagnosed with Asperger's disorder in the past, will now, in DSM5, be diagnosed with:

answer

C) social communications disorder.

question

75. Individuals with autism spectrum disorder may react with tantrums if an object is moved to a different part of the room. This is known as:

answer

D) perserveration of sameness.

question

76. A child has autism spectrum disorder and does not like much variation in his life. He puts his toys on a shelf in a particular order and throws a tantrum if his mother moves any of them. Any one of several trivial changes in his daily routine can set him off. This is an example of:

answer

D) a perseveration of sameness.

question

77. When a child with autism spectrum disorder jumps, flaps her arms, twists her hands and fingers and makes unusual faces, the child is engaging in:

answer

D) selfstimulatory behavior

question

78. The BEST way to characterize children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder is that they:

answer

A) show disturbed and contradictory patterns of reactions to stimuli.

question

79. According to one psychological view of autism, the awareness that other people base their behaviors on their own belief, and not on information they have no way of knowing, is NOT present in children with autism spectrum disorder. This ability is called:

answer

B) a theory of mind.

question

80. "It is possible, even probable, that 'refrigerator parents'—cold, rejecting, rigid—caused this disorder." This is a reasonable statement about the cause of many cases of:

answer

A) autism.

question

81. Research has shown that, during infancy and early childhood, autistic children are MORE likely to:

answer

D) None of the answers are true.

question

82. A child with autism is laughing, but sees another child crying. When asked what the other child is feeling, the child with autism is MOST likely to say:

answer

D) "happiness," because of mindblindness.

question

83. Imagine that I just stubbed my toe and cried "Ouch." A child with autism, when asked if I was hurt, said, "No," because he wasn't hurt. This inability to take the perspective of another is referred to as:

answer

C) mindblindness.

question

84. Which of the following statements reflects current research about the biological causes of autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?

answer

C) There are probably multiple biological causes, leading to a common "brain problem."

question

85. The MOST recent research has provided evidence that the primary causes of autism spectrum disorder include:

answer

A) brain abnormalities.

question

86. Recent studies show that children with autistic spectrum disorder are MORE likely than other children to have abnormalities in which section of the brain?

answer

C) cerebellum

question

87. A person diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder listens to a piano piece at a concert. Later at home, the person plays the piano piece without the music, and without making a mistake. This behavior is best described as a:

answer

D) savant skill.

question

88. Based on the MOST current research, we can conclude that:

answer

D) MMR vaccinations are not related to the development of autism.

question

Studies of the use of cognitivebehavioral techniques in the treatment of autism spectrum disorder have shown that cognitivebehavioral techniques can produce:

answer

longterm gains in school achievement and intelligence test performance.

question

90. Recent work has revealed that the MOST effective treatment for autism has been the use of:

answer

B) cognitivebehavioral therapy.

question

91. The LEAP program for treating children with autism spectrum disorder is unique because it involves the use of:

answer

D) typical children as models and "teachers."

question

92. A child with autism spectrum disorder points to a picture of a fork on a board rather than saying, "I want food." This child is using:

answer

C) an augmentative communication system.

question

93. What is the BEST educational treatment for a child with a serious level of dysfunction on the autism spectrum?

answer

C) being sent to a special school that combines treatment and education

question

94. If a child on the autism spectrum were being encouraged to engage in childinitiated interactions, the child would be:

answer

C) asking about things that were of particular interest to him or her.

question

95. Which one of the following people would MOST correctly be diagnosed with intellectual developmental disorder?

answer

D) one with an IQ of 69 having problems coping with life

question

96. If you were trying to learn a new language and you could understand it better than you could speak it, you would be showing symptoms MOST like:

answer

D) expressive language disorder.

question

97. A reading proficiency level that is much lower than would be expected based on the measure of general intelligence is called:

answer

A) dyslexia.

question

104. The use of IQ test results to diagnose intellectual developmental disorder has been criticized for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

answer

D) They are not valid predictors of school performance.

question

105. Intelligence test results should not be the only things used to determine intellectual developmental disorder, because intelligence test scores:

answer

C) don't indicate level of adaptive behavior.

question

108. About what percentage of those diagnosed with mental retardation fall into the category of mild intellectual developmental disorder?

answer

D) 80 to 85 percent

question

109. MOST cases of mild intellectual developmental disorder seem to be related to:

answer

sociocultural and psychological factors.

question

110. Isabelle is born into a very poor family. Both parents have belowaverage IQs and are barely able to support and provide for themselves. Isabelle's nutrition and health care have never been very good. She is at risk for:

answer

B) mild intellectual developmental disorder.

question

111. Early home intervention programs for those in the "mild" intellectual developmental disorder category:

answer

D) improve both overall functioning, and later performance in school and in adulthood.

question

112. The percentage of individuals at the four levels of intellectual developmental disorder from mild to profound:

answer

B) decreases steadily as the intelligence level decreases.

question

113. If one knew nothing more than that the person with intellectual developmental disorder also had extensive and severe neurological dysfunction and physical handicaps, the MOST likely estimate of that person's level of mental retardation would be:

answer

D) severe or profound.

question

Children with multiple physical and neurological problems that seriously limit their functioning are MOST likely to be diagnosed with which level of intellectual developmental disorder?

answer

C) severe or profound

question

115. Biological factors are NOT the most important causes of which level of intellectual developmental disorder?

answer

C) mild

question

117. Paula has moderate intellectual developmental disorder, a small head and flat face, as well as a protruding tongue. Her condition is MOST likely:

answer

down syndrome

question

119. Individuals with Down syndrome:

answer

C) have the same range of personality characteristics as do those in the general population without Down syndrome.

question

120. Shy and anxious children who have mild to moderate degrees of intellectual dysfunction, language impairments, and behavioral problems are MOST likely to be diagnosed with:

answer

D) fragile X syndrome.

question

121. An infant is diagnosed with a biological disorder. As she ages, her physical and mental conditions deteriorate steadily so that she loses vision and motor control, and at the age of 3, she dies. Most likely, she was suffering from:

answer

A) TaySachs disease.

question

122. Which of the following do phenylketonuria and TaySachs disease have in common?

answer

B) Both are caused by a double recessive gene.

question

125. Most colleges and universities now require students to have a meningitis vaccination before enrolling. Untreated meningitis can lead to:

answer

D) intellectual development disorder.

question

126. Anoxia, one possible source of intellectual developmental disorder, involves brain damage resulting from:

answer

B) lack of oxygen during or after delivery.

question

127. In poor innercity neighborhoods, children sometimes eat paint that is flaking off walls. This can sometimes lead to intellectual developmental disorder due of:

answer

lead poisoning

question

128. During the 1960s and 1970s, the criteria for remaining in state schools changed, and many individuals with intellectual developmental disorders were released into the community. This is an example of:

answer

A) deinstitutionalization.

question

129. MOST children with intellectual developmental disorder live:

answer

at home

question

130. Nations that pioneered "normalization" in the treatment of intellectual developmental disorder include:

answer

Denmark and Sweden

question

A woman is in a facility for those with intellectual developmental disorder. She has her own apartment, dresses herself, and goes to the dining room, where she orders breakfast off a menu. She then goes to work in a sheltered workshop. At the end of the day, she goes home to her apartment and gets ready for dinner. This arrangement is part of:

answer

B) a normalization program.

question

A child is in public school, but he is grouped with other lowIQ children like him. He and his classmates have a specially designed program that is different from that of the other children in the school. This is MOST likely an example of:

answer

special education

STUDY

Community Mental Health Center

deviance ch 4-7 – Flashcards 183 terms

Brandon Ruffin

183 terms

Preview

deviance ch 4-7 – Flashcards

question

Poor people are more likely to use firearms than other weapons when they kill because guns

answer

give a sense of power to the poor... pg 64

question

One reason why we are more likely to be killed by those we know than by strangers is that murder most often

answer

requires a great deal of emotion, which is more likely to be generated by intimate relations.... pg 65

question

This type of killing is done to save the "face" and "name" of the family.

answer

honor killing

question

Most evidence about the impact of capital punishment on murder rates supports the conclusion that capital punishment

answer

is not an effective deterrent to murder

question

Sociologist David Phillips discovered that some persons can conceal their suicidal wishes but carry them out with more ingenuity. He studied __________ to document this pattern of murder-suicide.

answer

airplane pilots.... have to double check this one

question

Murder is an especially serious type of deviance because

answer

its cost to the victim is forever irreparable.....

question

Which of the following is TRUE about stalking?

answer

Most stalkers know their victims.

question

The factor most commonly associated with murder is

answer

poverty

question

School violence is caused by all of the following, except for

answer

violent sports competition.

question

Which of the following is NOT a way poverty causes homicide?

answer

Genetic factors cause both poverty and homicidal tendencies.

question

Homicides occur most frequently during

answer

the weekends

question

The wholesale killing of members of a racial or ethnic group is the definition of

answer

terrorism

question

Pursuing someone in a way that creates fear of being assaulted or killed is called

answer

stalking

question

According to some sociologists, the extremely high rate of homicide in parts of the South is a striking example of

answer

a widespread culture of violence.

question

The terrorists who attacked the World Trade Center on September 11, 2001, were

answer

loyal members of a religious group

question

Sociologists think that the homicide-suicide type of murder is "normal" because, after the killing, the murderer is

answer

able to feel remorse

question

The external restraint theory holds that

answer

strong external restraint leads to homicide.

question

If guns were less available, many heated arguments would result in

answer

aggravated assaults rather than murders.

question

According to the author, one reason why people advocate the death penalty, even though it does not act as a deterrent, is because

answer

it prevents the murderer from doing harm to others again....... pg 82

question

According to the subculture of violence theory, the poor are more violent than people in the larger culture because

answer

the violent subculture has a powerful grip on the poor..... pg 79

question

According to the "Social Profile of Serial Killers," which of the following statements about serial killers is probably UNTRUE?

answer

They are mostly college educated

question

Gold attempted to add to external restraint theory by arguing that socialization plays a role in determining who becomes a murderer. He felt that

answer

physical punishment in childhood leads to homicide..... 78-79

question

According to Marvin Wolfgang's subculture of violence theory, the subculture upholds all of the following practices, EXCEPT for

answer

providing strong external restraints leading to homicide. needs to be double checked pg 79

question

With terrorism, the victims are usually

answer

innocent citizens

question

All of the following are types of mass murderers, EXCEPT for

answer

murderers who stalk and torture their victims

question

The author of the text points to recent studies that suggest the cause of higher violence rates among poor African Americans is

answer

poverty and social inequality... pg60

question

A type of murder involving killing a number of people one at a time is called

answer

mass murder

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons why the South is the region with the nation's highest murder rate?

answer

the prevalence of population heterogeneity, which leads to a lack of community

question

not on exam

answer

not on exam

question

Which of the following statements about the characteristics of homicide is true?

answer

Women are more likely to be killed at home.

question

Which of the following is NOT a type of hate killer?

answer

racist hate killers

question

Evidence shows that the murder rates in states with capital punishment are

answer

Higher double check pg 88

question

WHich one of the following variables is MOST likely to be the greatest contributing factor toward murder?

answer

accessibility to handguns

question

Murders committed by people who are poor often

answer

committed on impulse

question

Regarding the racial backgrounds of offender and victim, murder

answer

is mostly intraracial

question

Which of the following is NOT a theory that attempts to explain genocide?

answer

Genocide is based on the physical and psychological separation between perpetrators and victims.

question

According to external restraint theory, suicide and homicide are

answer

both acts of aggression resulting from frustration.... pg 78

question

The criminologist Marvin Wolfgang studied victims of self-precipitated murder and determined that victims

answer

secretly wished to kill themselves

question

One reason why more poor people commit murders over very trivial acts is

answer

the impact of economic and social oppression on one's sense of honor.

question

Research suggests that most men who kill their wives or girlfriends

answer

have previously kept their victims in abusive relations.

question

Of all the variables mentioned, this has the most significant effect when it come to murder.

answer

proverty

question

Which of the following statements about school violence is TRUE?

answer

A school environment conducive to school violence seriously affects only a few students.

question

Hate-motivated killers

answer

are more likely to belong to an organized hate group. ..... pg74

question

The perpetrators of genocide are

answer

mostly normal people.... pg75

question

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true today?

answer

Teenagers are more likely than young adults from 20 to 29 to kill.

question

In order to win the "masculinity contest," men tend to see women as

answer

if they were objects.

question

According to the social profile of molesters, which of the following traits is most likely associated with a child molester rather than a rapist?

answer

gentleness and passivity pg 110

question

In her analysis of 156 tribal societies, Peggy Sanday found that rape-prone societies are marked by

answer

male dominance pg 105

question

According to sociologists, participation in a gang rape

answer

fulfills a social need more than a sexual desire. pg 91

question

Most rapes are

answer

premeditated

question

Which of the following is most likely to be a victim of same-sex rape in prison?

answer

a slightly built young white man pg 107

question

The myth that women want to be raped is

answer

a male blame-the-victim rationalization. pg 101

question

All of the following are ways men learn to play the "masculinity game," except for

answer

experiencing the absence of referees to manage the game. pg 100

question

All of the following are part of America's culture of rape, EXCEPT for

answer

the formation of anti-rape organizations like rape crisis centers.

question

Child molesters are likely to

answer

be their victim's relatives or neighbors

question

With acquaintance rape, the rapist mostly uses

answer

verbal coercion

question

All of the following are part of America's culture of rape, EXCEPT for

answer

question

Which of the following traits is part of the traditional masculine social role that leads to rape?

answer

The male should take an active part in achieving social and sexual relations with females.

question

Feminist theory states that rape is caused by sexual inequality because rape is

answer

an expression of men's dominance over women.

question

The "feeling of being raped again" refers to the woman victim's

answer

encounter with the police pg 96

question

Which of the following behavioral characteristics would a rapist NOT consider a sign of vulnerability?

answer

projecting confidence without appearing aggressive

question

Which of the following is a problem psychologists feel can lead men to become rapists?

answer

being raised in a sexually permissive community pg 105

question

Most rapists

answer

do some planning before their assault

question

A majority of actual rapes

answer

involve pushing, shoving, choking the victim pg 90

question

In a recent nationwide survey undertaken by Ms. Magazine, nearly __________ percent of the college women who had been raped by their dates did NOT identify their experience as rape.

answer

75 pg 92

question

According to the author of the text, the assertion that many rapes are victim-precipitated

answer

is a male's biased view of rape.

question

One reason why many rapists felt they would never go to prison for rape is that they believed that

answer

women were sexual objects for men to use for pleasure. pg 99

question

The strongest motivation for rape in prison appears to be

answer

the drive for power pg 107

question

All of the following are types of legal reforms designed to help women in court, EXCEPT for

answer

requiring all rape cases to be heard by female judges.

question

One of the outcomes of same-sex rape is that the male victim

answer

feels a loss of masculinity pg 108

question

Which of the following statements reflects how a rape case is actually handled in court?

answer

a fear that women and married men would have to become priests.

question

One reason why Church leaders failed to dismiss offending priests from their jobs is

answer

the church's culture of secrecy and forgiveness. pg 112

question

Until recently, almost all rapes were

answer

intraracial

question

According to a study undertaken by Chappel and his associates, which of the following kinds of sexual environments might most hurt a man's failures to win sexual favors?

answer

a permissive environment pg 105

question

Most rape survivors go through two phases of disorganization before regaining their ability to live normally: an acute phase of humiliation and self-blame, and a longer phase marked by

answer

rejection of social and sexual relations with others. pg 95

question

The author of the text concludes that psychological theories of rape

answer

can explain only a few unusual cases of rape. pg 104

question

Influenced by the culture of rape, a man whose wife has been raped tends to

answer

respect or love her less than before. pg 98

question

Some men can be raped by some women because rape is basically

answer

an expression of power. pg 108

question

In the study undertaken by Amir, a common victim behavior that eventually leads to "victim-precipitated rape" involves the woman

answer

agreeing to have a drink or ride with a stranger.

question

All of the following are factors that lead to more rape-prone campuses, except for

answer

mandatory membership in fraternities. pg93

question

Child molesting is considered a form of rape because

answer

the victims are too young to give their consent.

question

Women have a _____ percent probability of being raped.

answer

ten (one out of ten)

question

The feminine qualities conducive to becoming a victim of rape are

answer

softness, gentleness, and consideration.

question

Which of the following is one way rapists attempt to determine the vulnerability of their victims?

answer

approaching a woman on the street and asking for directions

question

All of the following are ways that pornography is implicated in the problem of rape, EXCEPT that it

answer

provides an erotic sexual outlet. pg 98-99

question

Which of the following statements about pedophile priests is NOT true?

answer

Almost half of all priests have been involved in molesting children. pg 112

question

Anger, revenge, and courage to keep a rapist in jail are _____ ways rape survivors react after being raped.

answer

outward

question

Which of the following statements about those who abuse the elderly is NOT true?

answer

They are largely male.

question

All of the following are ways U.S. society has attempted to protect women from marital rape and abuse, EXCEPT for

answer

severely punishing men who sexually or physically abuse their wives.

question

The many women who are squeezed between raising children of their own and taking care of parents are called

answer

the sandwiched generation. pg130

question

According to research, which of the following statements is true?

answer

Forced anal intercourse occurs more often than forced vaginal intercourse. pg121

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that supports female genital mutilation in many African cultures?

answer

the meaning of womanhood in many cultures that practice female genital mutilation

question

Feelings of depression, anxiety, and helplessness such as those suffered by U.S. soldiers who served in Vietnam and victims of physical injury, are called

answer

posttraumatic stress disorder. pg 123

question

Critics of mandatory reporting laws for elder abuse say

answer

these laws demean elders by treating them like children.

question

Which of the following is not a cause of rape listed in the text?

answer

improper behavior on the part of the victim

question

The extent of family violence varies from one report to another because researchers

answer

utilize different definitions of family violence.

question

Female genital mutilation mostly takes place in

answer

Africa

question

Problematic interaction between a parent and child is one cause of child abuse. All of the following are problems of interaction, except for

answer

social approval of physical punishment.

question

In the U.S., ______parents physically discipline their children.

answer

nearly sll pg 119

question

According to the exchange theory of family violence, which of the following would be the reward of violence?

answer

enjoyment of power and control over the victim pg134

question

John experienced family violence as he was growing up. According to social learning theory, he is

answer

more likely to engage in family violence. pg133

question

The most prevalent form of forced sex is

answer

the rape of a woman by her husband.

question

According to a famous study of a sample of the elderly in Boston, __________ of elder persons are more likely to become elder abusers.

answer

spouses pg130

question

One serious consequence of marital rape is

answer

self-blame and guilt by the victim. double check

question

All of the following are part of the social profile of family abusers, EXCEPT that they are

answer

members of the middle class. pg 131 132

question

In general, when abuse is committed against children in the U.S.

answer

all family members are viewed as suspects. double check

question

According to a definition of spouse abuse that includes both violent and nonviolent acts,

answer

about one-third of all U.S. couples assault their spouses. pg 122

question

All of the following are true about incest, EXCEPT that

answer

young victims of incest usually forget about the past and lead normal sexual lives as adults. pg125

question

The two types of services that seem most useful to abused elders are medical services and

answer

legal services. pg137

question

According to research, children who have been abused

answer

are likely to suffer severe problems later in life. pg126

question

The real extent of family violence may be much higher than the reported figures because

answer

all of the above are true pg120

question

The criminal justice system

answer

requires some abusers to go to counseling.

question

Men who have lost control of their lives due to poverty, unemployment, drug abuse, or alcoholism are

answer

more likely to become abusive husbands.

question

Research has shown that majority of abused women

answer

leave abusive relationships.

question

When it comes to family violence, all of the following are false EXCEPT which one?

answer

Family violence hits the poor only.

question

All of the following are true about female genital mutilation, EXCEPT that it is

answer

relatively accepted today in most Western cultures.

question

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of the battered woman syndrome?

answer

passively submitting to more violence pg123

question

About __________ children are severely physically abused every year.

answer

3 million pg126

question

All of the following are reasons why large numbers of children are abused in American society, EXCEPT for

answer

the widespread acceptance of spouse abuse.

question

For feminists, a major cause of wife beating is

answer

the sexist, patriarchal nature of society.

question

Older people are more likely to be abused if they live

answer

with relatives.

question

All of the following are ways that abusive husbands try to rationalize their violent acts, EXCEPT for

answer

stating they do not remember carrying out the rape. pg123

question

Which of the following is a reason why most of the women who continue to live with abusive husbands do not leave?

answer

They fear their husbands will retaliate.

question

After committing the violence, most abusive husbands

answer

do not admit guilt. pg123

question

Incest

answer

was assumed to be rare until 1974, when it became part of mandatory child abuse reporting laws. pg125

question

Which of the following factors is involved in most marital rapes?

answer

physical violence or threats of it pg120

question

Outside of the police and the military, American society's most violent institution is

answer

the family.

question

Which of the following types of children would be at the highest risk for child abuse?

answer

a very young child

question

Which of the following are criticisms of protective services efforts for children?

answer

All of the above answers are criticisms. pg 135

question

Which of the following is an important reason why sociologists have a difficult time when studying family violence?

answer

The family is too private to study sociologically. double check

question

Parent-child interaction becomes problematic when

answer

a parent has psychological problems that make child care demanding.

question

Which of the following statements about marital rape is true?

answer

Many victims blame themselves for the rape. double check

question

Many child abusers see abusive behavior as good and proper because they

answer

are among many who accept the rightness of physical punishment. pg127

question

A strong religious identity and degree of religious conservation is associated with a(n) .................. suicide rate.

answer

Lower pg 155

question

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

answer

Whites have a higher suicide rate than blacks. pg 152-153/155

question

When a famous person commits suicide, the nation's suicide rates

answer

go up

question

In his study on suicide, Emile Durkheim showed that

answer

too much integration and individualism can lead to suicide. double check

question

The high rise in youthful suicide over the last 20 years has resulted from

answer

a great decline in social integration and regulation in teen life. pg 161

question

Each year, about __________ Americans die by their own hands.

answer

30,000 pg 144

question

In Western societies today, higher suicide rates are due in part to

answer

increasingly permissive attitudes toward suicide. pg 166

question

The majority of depressed Americans do not kill themselves; those who do commit suicide do so because they have been under the influence of

answer

certain social forces in their lives. pg 144

question

Research has documented that the greater the air time given to country music, the higher the suicide rate. Which of the following is a possible reason?

answer

the themes of country music, many of which are suicide-related pg 165

question

the themes of country music, many of which are suicide-related

answer

hanging or shooting

question

Those who threaten suicide

answer

would rather attempt suicide

question

All of the following are conditions under which doctors in the Netherlands can carry out euthanasia, EXCEPT that

answer

it must be approved by a panel of government officials.

question

Suicide rates depend significantly on

answer

psychological problems.

question

Which of the following is a way suicide attempters differ from suicide committers?

answer

They are more likely to be young. pg 145

question

Psychological theories of suicide assume that suicide comes from

answer

major social problems. double check

question

Over the last 20 years, teenage suicides have

answer

increased dramatically. pg 160-161

question

The type of suicide that slaves are more likely than free people to commit is called __________ suicide.

answer

fatalistic

question

Generally, whites commit suicide

answer

twice as often as blocks PG 154

question

In Douglas's view, the specific meanings of suicide to individuals help to

answer

facilitate the suicidal process.

question

One of the reasons why recently diagnosed, less-sick, HIV-infected patients are more suicidal than those dying of AIDS-related illnesses is

answer

the sudden transformation from being a totally healthy person to a seriously ill person. PG 164

question

According to Henry and Short's theory, all of the following are factors that promote suicide, EXCEPT for the

answer

CULTURAL PG 172

question

Phenomenological theories of suicide

answer

deal with the popular meaning of suicide.

question

Suicide prevention centers cannot substantially reduce suicide rates because

answer

suicide is basically a sociological problem. PG 169

question

At what point is an inmate'' stay at prison most likely to result in suicide?

answer

during the initial phase of imprisonment

question

According to Jerry Jacobs's theory of the suicidal process, suicide victims overcome prohibitions against suicide through a series of events. What is the first stage of this process?

answer

finding themselves faced with unexpected and unsolvable problems PG 174

question

College students in the United States have higher suicide rates than their non-college peers because they

answer

are single and experience much stress.

question

From notes left by successful suicides and from reports given by suicide attempters, we can discern several types of suicidal feelings. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

answer

feeling excited about the prospect of seeing God

question

Durkheim theorized that there are two major forces shaping suicide, social integration and

answer

social regulation. PG 170

question

Which of the following groups has the highest suicide rates?

answer

divorced persons

question

The Patient's Self-Determination Act passed by Congress requires hospitals to

answer

inform patients of rights to control their treatment through living wills.

question

Which of the following groups of people has the LOWEST suicide rates?

answer

married women with children

question

Some countries with developing economies like China have high suicide rates because they

answer

experience rapid social change.

question

If a person kills him- or herself after murdering another, it is called __________ suicide.

answer

ATONEMENT PG 147

question

In the last two decades, the gender difference in suicide attempts has

answer

narrowed significantly pg 156 double check

question

In the last 20 years, during which the number of suicide prevention centers has increased tremendously, the suicide rate has

answer

not declined substantially. pg 169

question

The type of suicide that unmarried people are more likely than married ones to commit is called __________ suicide.

answer

egoistic pg 171

question

Which of the following statements about the relationship between economic conditions and suicide is TRUE?

answer

Suicide rates are higher in affluent societies than in poor ones.

question

Which of the following statements about the suicide bombers who attacked the U.S. on 9/11/2001 is TRUE?

answer

They came from relatively well-off, middle-class families.

question

In general, cutters are

answer

difficult to situate in a category of deviance.

question

Research has shown a positive correlation between suicide rates and the air time of this genre of music.

answer

country

question

Which of the following is the most typical reaction of a suicide victim's family and friends?

answer

guilt pg 167

question

Even though few persons have requested assisted suicide in Oregon, that state's assisted suicide law has been gaining support throughout the U.S. because of growing recognition of the patient's

answer

unberable pain

question

In the past, most researchers attributed the link between urbanization and suicide to

answer

conflicting social norms pg 153

question

According to the latest national survey, nearly __________ percent of all adult Americans have experienced at least one episode of psychiatric disorder during their lifetime.

answer

question

According to social stress theory, if persons do not have _____________, stress might lead to serious mental disorders.

answer

coping resources such as social support and self-esteem

question

Which of the following is NOT a condition associated with "hospitalitis," which patients tend to develop in mental institutions?

answer

a strong desire to kill some hospital staff

question

The unprofessional but effective method of treatment provided by friends and family within the context of a community mental health center is called

answer

network therapy

question

According to the _______, the accused are not guilty if they are mentally ill, because their crime is considered the "product" of their mental illness.

answer

Durham Rule

question

Which of the following examples of mental problems would most likely be defined as a personality disorder?

answer

a crooked politician

question

According to the author, which statement about mental disorder is TRUE?

answer

Virtually all of us can be said to be mentally ill at one time or another.

STUDY

AP Psychology Community Mental Health Center Introductory Psychology Psychology Social Cultural Influences

UNIT #1 PSYCH – Flashcards 11 terms

Christine Brunetti

11 terms

Preview

UNIT #1 PSYCH – Flashcards

question

Who highlighted the reproductive advantages of environmentally adaptive traits?

answer

Charles Darwin

question

The beginning of psychology as a science began in the discipline of...

answer

Philosophy

question

Of the following experimental situations which might be conducted by a structuralist, which one reflects the method of introspection?

answer

Documenting subjects' descriptions of an experience

question

William James was a prominent American whose interest in pragmatic philosophy led him to an approach emphasizing cause and effect, which eventually came to be named

answer

Functionalism.

question

If you were a psychologist who was labeled a structuralist, you would be interested in the _______ of the mind, using ______ as your primary research method.

answer

structure; introspection

question

With which school of psychology is Wilhelm Wundt associated?

answer

Structuralism

question

The specialist most likely to have a medical degree is a(n)

answer

Psychiatrist.

question

In which school of thought did researchers ask participants to report sensations they were experiencing?

answer

Structuralism

question

Who gave the name of "structuralism" to the early psychological approach of identifying the structures of the human mind?

answer

E. B. Titchener

question

Wilhelm Wundt is to ____________, as William James is to __________.

answer

structuralism; functionalism

question

Which is not considered a contemporary approach to Psychology?

answer

Functionalism

STUDY

Assisted Living Facility Community Mental Health Center Current Health Status Health Computing National Committee For Quality Assurance Personal Health Record

HIT 110 – Flashcards 96 terms

Tara Rose

96 terms

Preview

HIT 110 – Flashcards

question

the attending physician's assessment of the patient's current health status?

answer

physical examination

question

Which of the following is true of computer-based records?

answer

can be accessed by multiple end users simutaneously

question

True or False, AHIMA has developed Standards of Ethical Coding.

answer

True

question

what ICD-9-CM codes are always alphanumeric?

answer

V codes

question

At which level of the classification system are the most specific ICD-9-CM codes found?

answer

subclassification levels

question

Which type of standard is required of hospitals by states prior to providing any healthcare?

answer

Licensure

question

specialized patient assessment tools must be used by Medicare-certified home care providers?

answer

Outcomes and Assessment Information Set

question

"The patient indicates that she is dizzy, nauseous, and feels her throat tightening." This entry would be recorded in which section of a SOAP note?

answer

Subjective

question

I need to code an ambulatory record but the procedure code I need is not in the CPT manual. How do I code it?

answer

HCPCS level II codes

question

in which setting may treatment records travel with the patient between treatment centers?

answer

Correctional facility care

question

What is the end result of a review process that shows voluntary compliance with guidelines of an external, non-profit organization?

answer

Accreditation

question

Nosology can be defined as the branch of medical science that deals with

answer

Classification systems

question

what organization drafted more than 130 functional standards for electronic health records?

answer

Health Level Seven (HL7)

question

what term refers to the incideces of death?

answer

Mortality

question

Which of the following groups is the primary accreditation organization for facilities that treat individuals who have functional disabilities?

answer

Commission on Accredition of Rehabilitation Facilities

question

True or False, V codes and E codes are referred to as supplementary classifications in ICD-9-CM

answer

True

question

i work at a substance abuse center. What system should i use to code diagnoses?

answer

DSM-IV-TR

question

The patients address is an example of

answer

Administrative information

question

what organization is responsible for updating the diagnosis classification of ICD-9-CM?

answer

National Centers for Health Statistics

question

in a medical history what is a detailed chronological description of the development of the patient's illness?

answer

Present Illness

question

Which type of patient care record includes documentation of a family bereavement period?

answer

Hospice record

question

not true of the process that should be followed in making corrections in paper-based health record entries?

answer

The incorrect information should be obliterated.

question

Which accrediting organization has instituted unannounced surveys and requires submission of annual performance reviews?

answer

Joint Commission

question

would not be considered clinical data?

answer

name of insurance company

question

Results of a urinalysis and all blood tests performed would be found in what part of a healthcare record?

answer

Laboratory findings

question

what group is the primary accreditation organization for facilities that treat individuals who have functional disabilities?

answer

Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities

question

what is not a traditional health record format?

answer

Process-oriented health record

question

what is not usually a component of acute care patient records?

answer

Problem list

question

what term refers to the incidence of disease?

answer

Morbidity

question

"Acute allergic reaction" would be documented in which part of a SOAP note?

answer

Assessment

question

ICD-10-CM

answer

Diseases for morbidity

question

ICD-10-PCS

answer

Inpatient procedures

question

ICF

answer

States of functioning

question

ICD-O-3

answer

Diseases for Oncology

question

DSM--5

answer

Mental Disorders

question

AHIMA (American Health Information Management Association)

answer

Professional membership organization for managers of Health record services and healthcare info systems. As well as coding services.

question

The formal approval process for academic programs in health information management is called: The formal approval process for academic programs in health information management is called: A ) Accreditation B ) Certification C ) Registration D ) Standardization

answer

A ) Accreditation

question

The primary goal of the Hospital Standardization Program was: A ) Raise the standards of surgical practice B ) Train physicians and nurses for American hospitals C ) Standardize the educational curricula of American medical schools D ) Force substandard hospitals to close

answer

A ) Raise the standards of surgical practice

question

Data definition refers to the: A ) Meaning of data B ) Completeness of data C ) Consistency of data D ) Detail of data

answer

A ) Meaning of data

question

How do accreditation organizations use the health record? A ) To serve as a source for case study information B ) To determine whether the documentation supports the provider's claim for reimbursement C ) To provide healthcare services D ) To determine whether standards of care are being met

answer

D ) To determine whether standards of care are being met

question

Who are the primary users of the health record? A ) Clinical professionals who provide direct patient care B ) Insurance companies that cover healthcare expenses C ) Billers in the healthcare facility's business office D ) Patients and their families

answer

A ) Clinical professionals who provide direct patient care

question

Which organization's goal is centered on health information technology? A ) HIMSS B ) AHDI C ) AHIMA D ) AAPC

answer

A ) HIMSS

question

Which of the following is an arm of AHIMA that promotes education and research in health information management? A ) AHIMA Board of Directors B ) AHIMA CAHIIM C ) AHIMA Foundation D ) AHIMA Commission on Certification for Health Informatics and Information Management

answer

C ) AHIMA Foundation

question

The paper-based health record format that organizes all forms in chronological order is known as the: A ) Problem-oriented health record B ) Integrated health record C ) Patient-oriented health record D ) Source-oriented health record

answer

B ) Integrated health record

question

The ____was established in 1847 to represent the interests of physicians across the United States. A ) AHA B ) AMA C ) ACS D ) AHIMA

answer

B ) AMA

question

The first professional association for health information managers was established in: A ) 1900 B ) 1905 C ) 1928 D ) 1970

answer

C ) 1928

question

Which of the following is true about the AHIMA certification program? A ) The eligibility requirements for all credentials are the same. B ) Candidates must pass an examination before obtaining any of the credentials. C ) Candidates must be college graduates before they can obtain any of the credentials. D ) Candidates must have work experience and pass a certification exam before they can obtain any of the credentials.

answer

B ) Candidates must pass an examination before obtaining any of the credentials.

question

The term used to describe expected data values is A ) Data definition B ) Data currency C ) Data precision D ) Data relevancy

answer

C ) Data precision

question

I have been asked to list institutional users of the health record. Which one of the following would I include in my list? A ) Blue Cross and Blue Shield B ) The patient C ) FBI agent D ) AHIMA

answer

A ) Blue Cross and Blue Shield

question

When all required data elements are included in the health record, the quality characteristic for ______ is met. A ) Data security B ) Data accessibility C ) Data flexibility D ) Data comprehensiveness

answer

D ) Data comprehensiveness

question

Which of the following statements does not pertain to paper-based health records? A ) They have a built-in access control mechanism. B ) They are kept in locked storage areas that are accessible only to authorized staff. C ) They are logged out according to the organization's prescribed procedure. D ) They are forwarded to the appropriate service area when needed for patient care purposes.

answer

A ) They have a built-in access control mechanism.

question

Healthcare information systems need to exchange information. This linkage between systems is referred to as: A ) Connectivity B ) Efficiency C ) Flexibility D ) Security

answer

A ) Connectivity

question

Which of the following elements is not a component of most patient records? A ) Patient identification B ) Clinical history C ) Financial information D ) Test results

answer

C ) Financial information

question

Which of the following is an advantage offered by computer-based clinical decision support tools? A ) They give physicians instant access to pharmaceutical formularies, referral databases, and reference literature. B ) They review structured electronic data and alert practitioners to out-of-range laboratory values or dangerous trends. C ) They recall relevant diagnostic criteria and treatment options on the basis of data in the health record and thus support physicians as they consider diagnostic and treatment alternatives. D ) All of the above

answer

A ) They give physicians instant access to pharmaceutical formularies, referral databases, and reference literature.

question

What is the defining characteristic of an integrated health record format? A ) Each section of the record is maintained by the patient care department that provided the care. B ) Integrated health records are intended to be used in ambulatory settings. C ) Integrated health records include both paper forms and computer printouts. D ) Integrated health record components are arranged in strict chronological order.

answer

D ) Integrated health record components are arranged in strict chronological order.

question

Which of the following functions as the legislative body of AHIMA? A ) AHIMA Board of Directors B ) AHIMA Commission on Certification for Health Informatics and Information Management C ) AHIMA House of Delegates D ) AHIMA Foundation

answer

C ) AHIMA House of Delegates

question

The accreditation program of AHIMA is concerned with: A ) Establishing standards for the content of college programs in HIT and HIM B ) Making sure that AHIMA has good certification examinations C ) Ensuring that AHIMA manages its property and affairs appropriately D ) Establishing policies and procedures to be followed by the Communities of Practice

answer

A ) Establishing standards for the content of college programs in HIT and HIM

question

The new opportunity for HIM professionals that deals with data repositories and data warehouses is: A ) Health information manager B ) Clinical data specialist C ) Enterprise content and information manager D ) Data resource administrator

answer

D ) Data resource administrator

question

Which of the following are elected to their positions by AHIMA members? A ) AHIMA Board of Directors B ) Members of the Council on Certification C ) Members of the Commission on Accreditation for Health Informatics and Information Management Education D ) All of the above

answer

D ) All of the above

question

Critique this statement: Electronic health record systems have the same access control requirements as paper-based record systems. A ) This is a true statement. B ) This is a false statement as the requirements for the electronic health record are less stringent. C ) This is a false statement as the requirements for the electronic health record are more stringent. D ) Electronic health records are inherently less secure.

answer

A ) This is a true statement.

question

The hospital standardization program was started by the American College of Surgeons in: A ) 1900 B ) 1905 C ) 1918 D ) 1928

answer

C ) 1918

question

How do patient care managers and support staff use the data documented in the health record? A ) Evaluate the performance of individual patient care providers and to determine the effectiveness of the services provided B ) Communicate vital information among departments and across disciplines and settings C ) Generate patient bills and/or third-party payer claims for reimbursement D ) Determine the extent and effects of occupational hazards

answer

A ) Evaluate the performance of individual patient care providers and to determine the effectiveness of the services provided

question

In the Middles Ages plagues and epidemics killed millions and were spread by A ) rodents and travelers carrying the diseases B ) contaiminated food C ) unclean water supply D ) evil witch doctors bent on destroying the world

answer

A ) rodents and travelers carrying the diseases

question

Use of the health record to monitor bioterrorism activity is considere: A ) Primary purpose of the health record B ) Secondary purpose of the health record C ) Patient use of the health record D ) Healthcare licensing agency function

answer

B ) Secondary purpose of the health record

question

The admitting form of Mrs. Smith's health record indicated that her birth date was March 21, 1948. On the discharge summary, Mrs. Smith's birth date was recorded as July 21, 1948. Which quality element is missing from Mrs. Smith's health record? A ) Data completeness B ) Data consistency C ) Data accessibility D ) Data comprehensiveness

answer

B ) Data consistency

question

Which of the following make up a virtual network of AHIMA members? A ) AHIMA Board of Directors B ) AHIMA Council on Certification C ) AHIMA Communities of Practice D ) AHIMA House of Delegates

answer

C ) AHIMA Communities of Practice

question

Which of the definitions below best describes the concept of confidentiality? A ) The right of individuals to control access to their personal health information B ) The protection of healthcare information from damage, loss, and unauthorized alteration C ) The expectation that personal information shared by an individual with a healthcare provider during the course of care will be used only for its intended purpose D ) The expectation that only individuals with the appropriate authority will be allowed to access healthcare information

answer

C ) The expectation that personal information shared by an individual with a healthcare provider during the course of care will be used only for its intended purpose

question

Which of the following best describes data completeness? A ) Data are correct. B ) Data are easy to obtain. C ) Data include all required elements. D ) Data are reliable.

answer

C ) Data include all required elements.

question

Use of the health record by a clinician to facilitate quality patient care is considered: A ) A primary purpose of the health record B ) Patient care support C ) A secondary purpose of the health record D ) Patient care effectiveness

answer

A ) A primary purpose of the health record

question

The _______makes up a virtual network of AHIMA members who communicate via a web-based program managed by AHIMA. A ) Board of Directors B ) Communities of Practice C ) Commission on Certification for Health Informatics and Information Management D ) House of Delegates

answer

B ) Communities of Practice

question

When a patient is being treated in long term care facilities, we normally refer to them as a ________ rather than as a patient because they actually live there. A ) client B ) resident C ) outpatient D ) recipient

answer

B ) resident

question

Critique this statement: Data and information mean the same thing. A ) This is a true statement. B ) This is false as data is used for administrative purposes and information is used for clinical purposes. C ) This is a false statement as data is raw facts and figures and information is data converted into a meaningful format. D ) This is a true statement as information is raw facts and figures and data is information converted into a meaningful format.

answer

C ) This is a false statement as data is raw facts and figures and information is data converted into a meaningful format.

question

Critique this statement: Patient care managers are individual users of health records. A ) This is a true statement. B ) This is a false statement as they do not require patient information to do their job. C ) This is a false statement as they require patient information to do their job. D ) This is a false statement as patient care managers are institutional users. Test Bank with Key Instructions: For each item, complete the statement correctly or choose the most appropriate answer.

answer

A ) This is a true statement.

question

The primary function of the American Health Information Management Association is to: A ) Ensure that accurate and complete medical records are written for every hospital patient B ) Standardize the content and format of the health records maintained by acute and emergency care facilities C ) Promote the accuracy, confidentiality, and accessibility of health records in every healthcare setting D ) Provide support for two- and four-year health information management educational programs

answer

C ) Promote the accuracy, confidentiality, and accessibility of health records in every healthcare setting

question

Protection of healthcare information from damage, loss, and unauthorized alteration is also known as: A ) Privacy B ) Results management C ) Security D ) Data accuracy

answer

C ) Security

question

Which of the following statements does not pertain to electronic health records (EHRs)? A ) EHR technologies and systems must not intrude on the patient and provider relationship. B ) EHRs are filed in paper folders. C ) In the United States, a national health information infrastructure is being designed to support EHRs. D ) Clinicians use computer keyboards when documenting in the EHR.

answer

B ) EHRs are filed in paper folders.

question

Which of the following is a secondary purpose of the health record? A ) Support for provider reimbursement B ) Support for patient self-management activities C ) Support for research D ) Support for patient care delivery

answer

C ) Support for research

question

Which of the following best describes data accessibility? A ) Data are correct. B ) Data are easy to obtain. C ) Data include all required elements. D ) Data are reliable.

answer

B ) Data are easy to obtain.

question

Which of the following represents an example of data granularity? A ) A progress note recorded at or near the time of the observation B ) An acceptable range of values defined for a clinical characteristic C ) A numerical measurement carried out to the appropriate decimal place D ) A health record that includes all of the required components

answer

C ) A numerical measurement carried out to the appropriate decimal place

question

Which of the following is a secondary purpose of the health record? A ) Document patient care delivery B ) Assist caregivers in patient care management C ) Aid in billing and reimbursement functions D ) Generate a report to be used in performance improvement

answer

D ) Generate a report to be used in performance improvement

question

Dr. Jones entered a progress note in a patient's health record 24 hours after he visited the patient. Which quality element is missing from the progress note? A ) Data completeness B ) Data relevancy C ) Data currency D ) Data precision

answer

C ) Data currency

question

Attorneys for healthcare organizations use the health record to A ) Support claims for medical malpractice B ) Protect the legal interests of the facility and its healthcare providers C ) Plan and market services D ) Locate missing persons

answer

B ) Protect the legal interests of the facility and its healthcare providers

question

Which of the following is an institutional user of the health record? A ) Patient care provider B ) Third-party payer C ) Coding and billing staff D ) Government policy maker

answer

D ) Government policy maker

question

The only requirements for professional certification through the AHIMA are graduating from an accredited two-year or four-year educational program. A ) Yes B ) No

answer

B ) No

question

A study done by Abraham Flexner in the early 1900's found which of the following? A ) Excellent training being provided in medical colleges B ) A significant improvement in training being provided in medical colleges C ) Poor quality of the training being provided in medical colleges D ) None of the above

answer

C ) Poor quality of the training being provided in medical colleges

question

An individual's right to control access to his or her personal information is known as: A ) Security B ) Confidentiality C ) Privacy D ) All of the above

answer

C ) Privacy

question

Who is responsible for final approval of the AHIMA Code of Ethics? A ) AHIMA Board of Directors B ) AHIMA Commission on Certification for Health Informatics and Information Management C ) AHIMA Ethics Committee D ) AHIMA House of Delegates

answer

D ) AHIMA House of Delegates

question

Critique this statement: The health record documents services provided by allied health professionals and a patient's family. A ) This is a true statement. B ) This is a false statement as the health record only document's physician's care. C ) This is a false statement as the health record only documents care provided by patient families. D ) This is a false statement as the health record documents the care provided by healthcare professionals.

answer

D ) This is a false statement as the health record documents the care provided by healthcare professionals.

question

Inaccurate data recorded in the health record could: A ) Compromise quality patient care B ) Contribute to incorrect assumptions by policy makers C ) Invalidate research findings D ) All of the above

answer

D ) All of the above

question

Since we implemented a new technology, we have eliminated lost orders and problems with legibility. What technology are we using? A ) Computerized physician/provider order entry B ) Electronic health record C ) Results management D ) Clinical decision support

answer

A ) Computerized physician/provider order entry

question

Which of the following entities are at the head of the AHIMA volunteer structure and hold responsibility for managing the property, affairs, and operations of AHIMA? A ) House of Delegates B ) Board of Directors C ) Communities of Practice D ) Component state associations

answer

B ) Board of Directors

question

Which of the following accredits academic programs in health information management? A ) AHIMA Board of Directors B ) CAHIIM C ) CCHIIM D ) House of Delegates

answer

B ) CAHIIM

question

Which of the following best describes data accuracy? A ) Data are correct. B ) Data are easy to obtain. C ) Data include all required elements. D ) Data are reliable.

answer

A ) Data are correct.

question

Which professional organization sponsors the CTR certification? A ) AHIMA B ) NCRA C ) AAPC D ) Community College Consortia Test Bank with Key Instructions: For each item, complete the statement correctly or choose the most appropriate answer.

answer

B ) NCRA

question

Which of the following actively promotes education and research in health information management? A ) Commission on Certification for Health Informatics and Information Management B ) CAHIIM C ) AHIMA Foundation D ) House of Delegates

answer

C ) AHIMA Foundation

question

Our record has all of the lab filed together, all of the progress notes filed together, and so on. What format are we using? A ) Source-oriented health record B ) Integrated health record C ) Patient-oriented health record D ) Problem-oriented health record

answer

A ) Source-oriented health record

STUDY

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