Chapter 15, 16, and 17 Abnormal Final - Flashcards

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1. Which of the following statements MOST accurately reflects current thinking about psychosis and schizophrenia?

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C) People with different diagnoses can exhibit psychosis; it's not limited to schizophrenia.

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2. What was the dominant way of treating schizophrenic people during the first half of the twentieth century?

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A) institutionalization

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Most patients who lived on the hospital wards in state mental hospitals in the mid1900s:

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A) were schizophrenics.

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4. The MAIN contribution of Philippe Pinel to the care of those with severe mental illnesses was to:

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C) treat patients with sympathy and kindness.

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5. Which of the following is TRUE of state mental hospitals in the United States in the mid- twentieth century?

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C) They were overcrowded and understaffed.

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6. The usual way of dealing with troublesome or violent schizophrenic people in institutions in the first half of the twentieth century was to:

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D) use physical restraint.

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7. Some hospitalized mental patients whose original symptoms of schizophrenia improved were nonetheless unable to return to society because of the negative effects of their care. This syndrome is called:

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C) social breakdown syndrome.

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8. Patients who developed extreme withdrawal, anger, physical aggressiveness, and loss of personal hygiene as a result of poor institutional care were showing a pattern known as:

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B) social breakdown syndrome.

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9. Longterm mental patients frequently developed anger, aggressiveness, and loss of interest in personal appearance. This condition has been called:

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C) social breakdown syndrome.

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10. Theorists propose that institutionalized patients deteriorate because they are deprived of opportunities to develop selfrespect and independence. The therapy that counters this effect by creating an environment that encourages selfrespect and responsibility is known as:

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C) milieu therapy.

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11. Which therapy is based on the premise that when you change the social environment, you can change the patient?

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A) milieu therapy

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12. Maxwell Jones (1953) created an approach to psychotherapy of the institutionalized in London called:

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D) the therapeutic community.

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13. Milieu therapy is based primarily on the principles of ______ psychology.

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humanistic

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14. If one were treated by therapists who believed that patients needed to live in a social climate that promoted productive activity, selfrespect, and individual responsibility, one would be likely to be living in the:

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1950s

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15. A patient who is called a resident who lives in a therapeutic community and actively works with staff members to create a life that is as much like that outside the hospital as possible, is probably receiving ______ therapy.

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C) milieu

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16. A token economy approach to treatment is based on principles from the abnormal behavior.

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behavioral view

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17. Who was the first physician responsible for developing the prefrontal lobotomy for use on human patients?

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A) Egas Moniz

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18. The technique for treating mental patients that was pioneered by Egas Moniz was:

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B) the lobotomy.

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19. The Americans Walter Freeman and James Watts "improved" the procedure developed by Egas Moniz by developing the:

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C) transorbital lobotomy.

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20. During a ______ a needle is inserted into the brain through the eye socket and is then rotated to destroy brain tissue.

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B) transorbital lobotomy

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21. Why were lobotomies so enthusiastically accepted by the medical community in the 1940s and 1950s?

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B) The inventors of this procedure were gifted and dedicated physicians.

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22. In behavioral terms, what is a token?

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C) a reinforcer

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23. Tokens:

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B) can be exchanged for a variety of rewards.

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24. A thirdgrade teacher gives students stickers throughout the school day when they engage in appropriate behaviors. At the end of the day, students can trade in their stickers for treats from the class "treasure chest." This program is MOST similar to which form of therapy used for institutionalized people with schizophrenia?

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C) token economy

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25. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of the token economy approach?

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C) Token economy programs do not change the behavior of the most severely ill patients.

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26. A hospitalized patient no longer talks about delusions and hallucinations, thanks to participating in a token economy program. However, critics of the token economy program would say that the token economy program has:

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C) not eliminated the delusions and hallucinations, but improved the patient's ability to imitate normal behavior.

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27. Which of the following BEST describes the effectiveness of token economy strategies?

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C) They are successful at changing the patient's behavior.

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28. What is the concern regarding the changes produced by token economies?

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D) The person may have learned new behaviors without changing his distorted thinking.

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29. Antipsychotic drugs were discovered accidentally when researchers were trying to develop:

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A) antihistamines.

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30. The discovery of antihistamine drugs in the 1940s indirectly led to the development of:

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C) antipsychotic drugs.

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31. The first antipsychotic drug to be approved for use in the United States was:

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C) Thorazine.

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32. The term "neuroleptic" is applied to drugs that:

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D) can mimic symptoms of neurological disorders.

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33. Which of the following drugs has antipsychotic properties?

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D) haloperidol

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34. If one could use only a single treatment for schizophrenia and wanted the MOST effective treatment, one should choose:

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A) antipsychotic drugs.

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35. What is the MOST accurate advice you could give someone thinking about taking traditional antipsychotic medication for their schizophrenia?

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C) "Although these drugs will probably work, there are significant side effects."

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36. If one were taking antipsychotic drugs for schizophrenia, one would expect the drugs to:

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D) need to be taken even after symptoms have been alleviated.

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37. The schizophrenic symptom most likely to be relieved by antipsychotic drugs is:

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delusions

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38. If a patient's chart said the patient had extrapyramidal side effects, you would expect to see the patient showing primarily ______ dysfunction.

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motor

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39. One of the unwanted and later side effects of antipsychotic medications is:

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C) tardive dyskinesia.

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40. The neuroleptic side effect marked by muscle rigidity, fever, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysfunction is called:

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D) neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

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41. A woman has been treated with chlorpromazine for several years. Lately she seems to be chewing gum all the time and her arms are always in motion. She has begun to display twitching facial tics. This is an example of:

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C) tardive dyskinesia.

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42. The proportion of patients taking antipsychotic medication who eventually develop tardive dyskinesia is closest to:

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10 percent

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43. A person who is experiencing a potentially fatal reaction to an antipsychotic drug involving muscle rigidity and autonomic nervous system dysfunction is displaying:

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B) neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

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44. If a schizophrenic were making involuntary ticlike movements of the tongue, mouth, face, or whole body, smacking the lips, and making sucking and chewing movements, one would suspect the patient:

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D) had been taking antipsychotic medication for a long time.

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45. The most successful way to eliminate tardive dyskinesia is:

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A) to stop the antipsychotic medication.

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46. Tardive dyskinesia can be overlooked because:

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B) it has symptoms that are similar to schizophrenia.

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47. If you were working with a patient who displayed muscle tremors and rigidity, facial tics, and tardive dyskinesia, you would suspect that the person was receiving:

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B) antipsychotic drugs.

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48. What do Parkinsonlike symptoms, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, and tardive dyskinesia have in common?

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C) They all involve disruption of motor control.

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49. Which of the following drugs appears to act more at D1 and D4 dopamine receptors than at D2 dopamine receptors?

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A) clozapine

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50. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs appears to work at serotonin receptors?

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B) clozapine

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51. The MOST widely used atypical antipsychotic drug is:

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A) Clozaril.

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52. The LOWEST number of extrapyramidal side effects is seen after taking:

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A) clozapine.

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53. "I want to maximize the antipsychotic effect of a drug while minimizing its undesirable side effects," says a doctor. What's the BEST advice you can give the doctor?

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D) "Use an atypical antipsychotic drug."

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54. Imagine that your neighbor, who is being treated for schizophrenia, says that she has mostly negative symptoms of schizophrenia and is afraid of the extrapyramidal side effects of medication. She asks you what she should do. Your BEST response is:

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C) "Try atypical antipsychotics; they should work best."

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55. Advantages of atypical antipsychotic drugs over conventional medications include:

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C) newer medications produce fewer extrapyramidal effects.

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56. Why aren't atypical antipsychotic drugs universally prescribed for people with schizophrenia? After all, more people with schizophrenia show improvement with atypical antipsychotic drugs than with conventional antipsychotics.

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D) On average, atypicals cost more.

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57. Compared to African Americans, white Americans are:

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C) more likely to receive atypical antipsychotic drugs for both schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders.

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58. Based on research studies, your BEST chance at receiving a prescription for an atypical antipsychotic medication would be if you:

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B) have private insurance and are treated by a psychiatrist.

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59. Why do some therapists believe psychotherapy is unsuccessful in treating schizophrenia?

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C) Unmedicated schizophrenics are too far removed from reality to form the relationship needed.

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60. Frieda FrommReichmann's approach to psychotherapy with schizophrenic patients was to

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B) build a sense of trust in the patient.

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61. Rather than seeking to eliminate hallucinations and delusions, which form of therapy helps people learn to reinterpret their hallucinations and change their reactions to the hallucinations?

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A) cognitivebehavioral.

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62. Therapists who advise clients to resist following orders from their hallucinatory voices are using a technique from the cognitivebehavioral approach that involves:

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D) challenging ideas about the power of hallucinations.

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63. If you are being treated for schizophrenia and are learning to distract yourself from the voices you hear and to reinterpret them as just a symptom of your disorder rather than reality, you are MOST likely receiving:

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D) cognitive-behavioral therapy.

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64. Mindfulness is MOST similar to which of the following therapies?

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D) cognitive-behavioral

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65. Therapists who make statements such as, "It's not a real voice; it's my illness," are using a technique from the cognitive-behavioral approach that involves:

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C) interpreting their hallucinations.

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Therapists who advise clients to apply special breathing and relaxation techniques in response to their hallucinatory voices are using a technique from the cognitive-behavioral approach that involves:

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B) ways of coping with hallucinations.

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67. New-wave cognitive-behavioral therapies are MOST similar to:

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D) Acceptance and Commitment Therapy.

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68. A person attending an HVN (Hearing Voices Network) meeting, can expect to get the message that:

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D) all interpretations of voices are equally valid.

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69. The belief that many people hear voices and that this can be a meaningful, non-pathological experience is held by:

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C) a member of the Hearing Voices Network.

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70. Who is most likely to offer the advice, "If you have the urge to yell at your 'voices' in public, do so with a cell phone up to your ear."?

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C) a member of the Hearing Voices Network.

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71. A family with a high level of expressed emotion may display a great deal of:

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B) criticism.

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72. The goal of family therapy is:

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A) to help the family better support the schizophrenic patient.

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73. If relatives of a schizophrenic come to have more realistic expectations, reduce their guilt, and work on establishing better communication, they are probably receiving:

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C) family therapy.

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74. Families with HIGH levels of "expressed emotion":

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D) express negative emotions like hostility and criticism.

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75. If you and your family were receiving support, encouragement, and advice from other families with schizophrenic members, you would MOST likely be participating in:

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A) family psychoeducational programs.

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76. A patient who receives help in finding work, in finding a place to live, and in taking medication correctly is probably receiving:

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B) social therapy.

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77. Social therapy appears to play the STRONGEST role in:

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A) lessening the possibility of relapse in those recovering from schizophrenia.

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78. The Community Mental Health Act stipulated that patients with mental disorders should receive all of the following except ______ without leaving their communities.

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D) research opportunities

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79. Deinstitutionalization:

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B) was aimed at returning patients with mental disorders to their communities.

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80. In the original Community Mental Health Act, the place where individuals would be treated was a:

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D) community mental health center.

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81. If a person being treated for schizophrenia goes each day to a center where the focus is on improving social skills and receiving therapy, the person is participating in:

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A) partial hospitalization.

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82. Community mental health centers are designed to provide all of the following EXCEPT:

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C) vocational rehabilitation.

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83. A person lives at home but spends his day at a mental health facility. The facility might be described as providing:

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C) partial hospitalization.

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84. An individual who displays serious psychotic symptoms, but would not benefit from being sent to a large state psychiatric hospital for a long period of time, would best be served by:

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A) shortterm hospitalization in a local psychiatric unit.

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85. Schizophrenics who receive 24hour supervision in a community setting, usually following a milieu approach, are receiving:

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C) halfway house services.

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86. Helen was just discharged from a public mental health facility. She went to live with a group of other former patients in a groupliving arrangement. There were staff members to help out but the former patients controlled most of the daytoday activities. Helen's living arrangement is a:

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B) halfway house.

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87. Several people with schizophrenia work at a recycling center, where ontime behavior is expected, and payment is made solely for work completed. The people do not compete with each other. MOST likely, this work takes place at a:

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C) sheltered workshop.

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88. Schizophrenics who are working in a sheltered workshop are receiving:

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D) occupational training.

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89. The person most responsible for coordinating community service and providing practical help with problemsolving social skills, and ensuring that medications are being taken properly is a:

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D) case manager.

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90. In the treatment of schizophrenia, a case manager's primary goal is to help with:

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A) coordination of services.

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91. A disturbed individual kills a number of people in a mass shooting. The shooter is found to be mentally ill. How likely is it that such an individual will have received mental health services in the past year?

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D) likely; although the coordination of those services is a problem

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92. If you were looking for people who have schizophrenia, where would you MOST likely find them?

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A) living on their own, unsupervised

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93. Someone says to you, "Homeless people scare me. They're all crazy." What is your BEST response?

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C) "Unfortunately, about a third of homeless people are mentally ill."

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94. If you went to a meeting of a group lobbying for better care for the mentally ill and made up primarily of family members of people with severe mental disorders, you would probably be attending:

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A) the National Alliance for the Mentally Ill.

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95. Research suggests that an effective treatment plan for schizophrenia should include:

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D) biological treatments and psychological treatments.

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1. The enduring pattern of inner thoughts and emotions along with outward behavior that is unique to each individual is termed:

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C) personality.

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2. The consistencies of one's characteristics are called:

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C) personality traits.

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3. What differentiates normal personality characteristics from personality disorders?

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D) All the answers are correct.

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4. The MOST important similarity among the personality disorders listed in the text is that:

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C) they are inflexible, maladaptive, and related to impaired functioning or distress.

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5. DSM5, like its predecessor, DSMIVTR, identifies 10 personality disorders utilizing a:

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B) categorical approach.

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6. All of the following are criticisms of DSM5 diagnoses of personality disorders EXCEPT:

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D) incorporating new research into the new edition.

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7. One reason that the personality disorders are difficult to treat is that the afflicted individuals:

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B) are frequently unaware that they have a problem.

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8. Comorbidity means that:

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C) two disorders may occur together in an individual.

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9. Personality disorders are categorized into three main clusters that include all of the following EXCEPT:

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D) schizophrenic.

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11. The categorical approach to personality disorders assumes that:

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A) problematic personality traits are either present or absent.

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12. Based on a structured interview, Diagnostician A classifies an individual's personality disorder in the "odd" cluster. Based on another structured interview of the same type, Diagnostician B classifies an individual's personality disorder in the "dramatic" cluster. If what is described here is typical of what happens when that variety of structured interview is used, one would say the structured interview has:

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D) low reliability and low validity

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13. If you believe that personality disorders are BEST understood as a matter of degree in difference from typical personality rather than as a specific diagnosis, you agree with:

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A) the dimensional approach.

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14. How do personality disorders differ from the personality characteristics of typical people?

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A) They lead to more maladaptive, distressful, and inflexible behaviors.

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15. An individual has just received a diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder. That individual is MOST likely to have a parent or sibling who has:

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B) schizophrenia.

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16. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate, in terms of current research findings?

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C) "Odd" personality disorders and schizophrenia are related to one another.

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24. The schizoid personality disorder differs from paranoid personality disorder in that:

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D) those with schizoid personality disorder desire to be alone; those with paranoid personality are alone because of suspiciousness.

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35. A belief that the news anchor on CNN is giving one important messages about one's behavior reflects:

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B) ideas of reference.

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40. Characteristics of the Virginia Tech shooter reveal that he:

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B) displayed a combination of features from many personality disorders.

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43. Which category of personality disorder contains the disorders MOST commonly diagnosed?

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B) "dramatic"

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44. An adult has been jailed for the third time for fraud; each time it has been for persuading investors to put money into a phony silver mine. If the adult has received a DSMIVTR diagnosis, it is MOST likely either:

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D) antisocial personality disorder or a substancerelated disorder.

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45. A friend of yours says, "A 15yearold high schooler accused of shooting several classmates received a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder." Your MOST accurate reply would be:

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D) "No; the kid is too young for that diagnosis."

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46. Cruelty to animals and people, destruction of property, and truancy before the age of 15:

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B) are characteristic of those later diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.

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48. Ben set up an elaborate scheme to mine gold in the Rockies. He had a large town meeting and made a presentation of his stock. The shares were only $5 each, and everyone could afford them. He showed pictures of the mine and explained how the company expected to gross $100 million each month. As it turns out, he was a terrific con artist who had made several "successful" proposals such as this in towns across America in the last couple of years. He is MOST likely suffering from:

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B) antisocial personality disorder.

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49. Which of the following statements is NOT generally true of those with antisocial personality disorder?

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C) They care for no one's safety, except theirs and their children's.

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50. Sarah respects none of society's boundaries and is insensitive to other people, frequently violating their rights. She does not consider the consequences of her actions. She MOST probably experiences:

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B) antisocial personality disorder.

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51. A friend says to you, "He must have antisocial personality disorder; look how careful he is about his own wellbeing, but how careless he is about others' safety." Your MOST accurate reply would be:

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"You're partly right; most people with antisocial personality disorder are careless about their own safety, as well as the safety of others."

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52. If you wanted to write a book about a fictional character who is a "typical" example of antisocial personality disorder, you might have the character exhibit all of the following EXCEPT:

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B) periods of very high anxiety.

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56. The strong relationship between antisocial personality disorder and substance abuse means that:

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C) there are high rates of substance abuse among those with antisocial personality disorder.

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57. The two childhood disorders that have been related to later antisocial personality disorder are:

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D) conduct disorder and attentiondeficit hyperactivity disorder.

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62. Biologically speaking, if one wanted to treat antisocial personality disorder, one would want to ______ the individual with the disorder.

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C) increase the anxiety level of

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64. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding antisocial personality disorder?

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A) Most who have it are not treated, and most who are treated are not helped much.

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65. An individual with a diagnosed personality disorder is emotionally unstable, impulsive, and reckless. This person's diagnosis is likely to be which of the following personality disorders?

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A) borderline

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66. "There's nothing out there for me. I can't stand other people, and I can't stand myself, either. I'm just really mad right now." Such a statement would most likely be made by someone with which personality disorder?

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A) borderline

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67. "That personality disorder has become so common, I encounter it almost every day in the emergency room." MOST likely, this doctor is talking about which personality disorder?

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A) borderline

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Lisa felt like she was on an emotional roller coaster. She felt angry and empty. Lisa's feelings are MOST similar to those of someone with:

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A) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

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69. What is a common reason for the hospitalization of people with borderline personality disorder?

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A) They may attempt suicide or otherwise hurt themselves.

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70. Transported to the hospital after a suicide attempt, a man is later admitted to the hospital's psychiatric wing. His history showed other selfdestructive behaviors and recklessness. MOST likely, if the man is diagnosed with a personality disorder, it will be:

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D) borderline.

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71. Studies of those diagnosed with borderline personality disorder show that:

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D) over half attempt suicide at least once in their lives, and about 10 percent succeed.

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72. A therapist treating a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder came up with the following analysis: the parents probably did not want children in the first place; the child just was not accepted; the child developed low selfesteem, dependency, and an inability to cope with separation. The therapist's theoretical orientation is probably:

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C) object relations theory.

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73. Gort's parents never quite liked him, probably did not want children in the first place. He just was not accepted. It was clear early in school that Gort had a low opinion of himself and did not know how to interact with the other children. Now he cuts himself and has been to the ER several times. This is a description of the possible development of:

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D) borderline personality disorder.

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76. Which of the following have sociocultural theorists suggested as a cause for the emergence of borderline personality disorder?

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A) rapid social change

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77. Which of the following would MOST clearly fit into the biosocial theory of the development of borderline personality disorder?

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D) an individual who has difficulty controlling internal emotions and parents who mislabel those emotions

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78. The inability to accurately interpret one's internal biological emotional or physiological states is characteristic of both:

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D) borderline personality disorder and eating disorders.

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79. "That's it!" says your friend, the psychotherapist. "I can't work with that client. As soon as I show any empathy at all, it becomes almost impossible to challenge the client, and the client keeps calling me at all hours of the day." MOST likely, this is a client with:

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A) borderline personality disorder.

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81. A friend asks your advice about the MOST effective therapy to use for treating borderline personality disorder. Your BEST answer is:

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D) "Research suggests that dialectical behavior therapy is the most effective."

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82. When dialectical behavior therapy is used with patients with borderline personality disorder, those patients, compared to patients receiving other forms of therapy, make:

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A) far fewer suicide attempts, and are hospitalized less often.

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83. Dr. Marsha Linehan, the developer of dialectical behavior therapy, would have diagnosed her young adult self with:

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B) borderline personality disorder.

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84. A patient receiving dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) for borderline personality disorder experiences an emotion that he or she realizes is inappropriate. Immediately after, the patient acts in a very different, appropriate, way. This DBT procedure is called:

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C) opposite action.

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86. A therapist states, "I seldom use drugs when I treat clients with borderline personality disorder." The therapist MOST likely says this because:

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A) the risk of suicide increases because using drugs may lead to overdose.

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87. A client is searching for the BEST treatment for borderline personality disorder. Will drug treatment be effective if it is the only intervention the client receives?

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D) No; they should be used along with psychotherapy, if used at all.

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88. "Beatlemania" gripped the United States in the 1960s when the British rock group The Beatles performed; adoring fans screamed, sometimes fainted, and shouted exaggerated, emotional praise at the group. These behaviors MOST closely resemble the characteristics

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A) histrionic personality disorder.

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89. "You had one eye in the mirror as you watched yourself.../You're so vain, you probably think this song is about you/You're so vain..." sang Carly Simon in the 1973 #1 hit, "You're So Vain." If the subject of the song were diagnosed with a personality disorder, which of the following would be the MOST likely diagnosis?

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B) histrionic

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90. When the seat belt light in DiDi's car stays on for a few extra seconds, she bursts into tears. She always craves attention and reacts to even the smallest event with an elaborate show of emotion. She probably could receive a diagnosis of:

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C) histrionic personality disorder.

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91. A person constantly strives to be the center of attention, yet the ideas the person so eloquently expresses are usually shallow and changeable. If this person were diagnosed with a personality disorder, it MOST likely would be:

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A) histrionic.

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92. "The problem is that they assume they can't take care of themselves, so they think others have to meet their needs. This pattern of thinking is not very helpful in trying to deal with histrionic personality disorder." A psychologist from which of the following perspectives would agree MOST strongly with this quote?

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cognitive

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93. The type of therapist MOST likely to try to help people diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder to believe they are not helpless, and to teach them better thinking skills, is a ______ therapist:

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cognitive

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94. "I am the greatest!" a famous boxer declared loudly and often. Had he in fact acted throughout his adult life as though he were the greatest, the most appropriate diagnosis would be:

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B) narcissistic personality disorder.

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The personality disorder that is characterized by the need for undying love and admiration is:

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C) narcissistic.

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96. Ty is fairly handsome, but not as handsome as he thinks he is. He doesn't care about anyone but himself and is sure that everyone around him feels the same way. He is MOST likely experiencing:

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B) narcissistic personality disorder.

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97. The "flower children" of the 1960s and 1970s have sometimes been called the "me" generation, reflecting the supposed selfcentered individualism of the time. If this is true, a sociocultural theorist would predict a larger than usual percentage of which kind of personality disorder among the aging "me" generation?

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A) narcissistic

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98. Behavioral and cognitive theorists propose that people who develop narcissistic personality disorder may have been treated:

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A) too positively in early life.

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99. You might suspect an "era of narcissism" is approaching for a country when:

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A) there is increasing emphasis on selfexpression and competitiveness.

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100. Assume you have to give an inclass presentation about narcissistic personality disorder. What is the MOST accurate thing you can say about treatment for this disorder?

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D) "No form of therapy is clearly better than the others."

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101. A client is initially very resistant to therapy, cannot acknowledge weaknesses, and ignores feedback. MOST likely, the client is experiencing:

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C) narcissistic personality disorder, and will not make much progress in therapy.

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102. Like those with paranoid personality disorder, those with avoidant personality disorder usually:

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C) are very sensitive to criticism and avoid close relationships.

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103. Elena can't seem to establish social ties because she is afraid of being embarrassed or appearing foolish. She is easily hurt by criticism and is not willing to go into unfamiliar situations. She may be experiencing:

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B) avoidant personality disorder.

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104. Avoidant personality disorder seems MOST closely related to:

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social anxiety

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105. If a person primarily fears close social relationships, one would MOST likely conclude that the person is experiencing:

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B) avoidant personality disorder.

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106. According to psychodynamic theorists, an important factor in the development of avoidant personality disorder is:

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B) early experiences of shame.

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107. A client being treated for avoidant personality disorder must increase the number of social contacts per day. The person, at the least, must greet others with the sentence, "Hello; how are you doing?" MOST likely, the therapist has which theoretical background?

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behavioral

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108. Group therapy is particularly useful in the treatment of avoidant personality disorder MAINLY because group therapy:

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C) provides practice in social interactions.

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109. Cognitive therapy for avoidant personality disorder focuses on:

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B) increasing the client's tolerance of emotional discomfort and building up his or her self image.

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110. A person who has an excessive need to be taken care of and is clingy is MOST likely to qualify for a diagnosis of:

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C) dependent personality disorder.

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111. People with avoidant personality disorder have difficulty ______ relationships, while people with dependent personality disorder have difficulty ______ relationships.

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A) initiating; ending

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112. A high school student asks a guidance counselor, parents, and friends for suggestions before deciding on a college to attend, and on an academic major. This student's behavior is:

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C) normal for those in high school.

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113. If parents excessively reinforce clinging and punish attempts at independence, the result might be the development of:

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C) dependent personality disorder.

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114. A child who is severely criticized for acting independently, and who is praised for doing exactly what parents say to do, later develops dependent personality disorder. The therapist who would be LEAST surprised by this outcome would have which theoretical orientation?

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behavioral

question

115. "Be loyal to your family" was what the child heard all the time, along with "You shouldn't — and can't—do it on your own, so don't even try." A behaviorist would say this kind of upbringing would be MOST likely to produce which of the personality disorders in the child, when he or she reached adulthood?

answer

D) dependent

question

116. "Group therapy is a good option for those with dependent personality disorder; they'll be able to observe others' coping skills, and model them." This statement would MOST likely be made by a therapist having which of the following theoretical perspectives?

answer

behavioral

question

117. One especially good reason to use a form of group therapy in the treatment of dependent personality disorder is that:

answer

the group members can model appropriate behaviors and expression of feelings to one another.

question

119. The TV show Monk features a detective who is very seldom happy, has few good friends, has a very rigid order and way in which he must do things, and who frequently has difficulty making up his mind about what to do. If he were diagnosed with a personality disorder, it would MOST likely be a ______ disorder.

answer

B) obsessive-compulsive

question

120. The TV show Saturday Night Live once featured a skit involving an "Anal Retentive Carpenter," who had to keep all his tools and work materials in just the "right" places, arranged "just so." He was very anxious any time tools and materials were not just as he wanted them. The MOST appropriate diagnosis for the carpenter would be:

answer

A) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

question

121. Obsessivecompulsive personality disorder is MOST common among:

answer

men with jobs

question

122. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between obsessivecompulsive disorder (an anxiety disorder) and obsessivecompulsive personality disorder?

answer

B) Some people with obsessivecompulsive personality disorder also experience obsessive compulsive disorder (an anxiety disorder).

question

123. Psychodynamic theorists explain obsessivecompulsive personality disorder as a fixation at the:

answer

B) anal stage.

question

124. "It is obvious that this case of obsessivecompulsive personality disorder arises from an early childhood fixation." Which type of psychologist would MOST likely have made that

answer

D) psychodynamic

question

125. With the help of a therapist, a client with obsessivecompulsive personality disorder has experienced a dramatic decrease in both dichotomous thinking and worrying. The client's behavior is:

answer

C) uncommon; most with obsessivecompulsive personality disorder do not seek help, and this person is most likely receiving cognitive therapy.

question

126. Those diagnosed with obsessivecompulsive personality disorder appear MORE responsive to which kinds of therapy?

answer

C) psychodynamic and cognitive

question

127. A group of diagnostic clinicians can't agree with each other on appropriate personality disorder diagnoses for several clients. In fact, it is obvious that, in many cases, they have inaccurately made their diagnoses. Assuming they are competent clinicians, this situation would indicate the DSM5 categories for personality disorder are:

answer

B) neither reliable nor valid.

question

128. All of the following are problems in the use of the DSM5 to diagnose personality disorders EXCEPT:

answer

A) the criteria are so restrictive that several categories rarely, if ever, are used.

question

129. Of the following statements, which one most accurately reflects uptodate research on DSM 5 categories of personality disorder?

answer

C) Individuals do not necessarily have to have very similar personalities to receive the same diagnosis.

question

134. Although lying, even compulsive lying, is not considered a psychological disorder, it is sometimes characteristic of people with:

answer

C) narcissistic personality disorder.

question

42. Pat does not follow what the teacher is doing and has difficulty focusing on the task at hand. His behavior in class is disruptive because he cannot sit still, which leads to poor grades in school. These symptoms MOST likely indicate:

answer

D) attentiondeficit / hyperactivity disorder.

question

43. A child's distracting behaviors occur only in a school setting, and include failure to follow instructions and finish work, answering questions before they have been completed, and a lot of seat squirming and fidgeting. Could ADHD be a diagnosis of this child?

answer

C) No; the child's symptoms occur in only one setting.

question

44. Attentiondeficit hyperactivity disorder is MORE common in ______ than in ______.

answer

A) boys; girls

question

45. The two MOST common treatments for attentiondeficit / hyperactivity disorder have been:

answer

A) behavioral and drug therapies.

question

46. What would be the BEST answer to give to parents of a child recently diagnosed with ADHD in response to their questions about what caused it?

answer

D) "Our best guess is that ADHD results from an interaction of several factors."

question

47. Among the likely causes of ADHD are all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

A) abnormal serotonin activity and parietal damage.

question

48. The drug Ritalin is classified as a(n):

answer

stimulant

question

49. "What should I look for in an effective ADHD treatment program?" a friend asks. Your BEST answer among the following alternatives is:

answer

C) "Drugs work best."

question

50. The latest research on the use of Ritalin to treat ADHD suggests which of the following?

answer

A) Research on its effectiveness and safety has been done almost exclusively on white American children.

question

51. Compared to white American children, African American and Hispanic American children with similar levels of activity and attention problems are:

answer

C) less likely to be assessed for ADHD, and less likely to be diagnosed with ADHD.

question

52. Compared to white American children, African American and Hispanic American children with similar levels of activity and attention problems are:

answer

A) less likely to be diagnosed with ADHD, and less likely to receive effective treatment.

question

53. Of the following parents, the ones LEAST likely to have children who receive effective treatment for ADHD are:

answer

D) African Americans who are Medicaidinsured.

question

54. Of the following reasons, the LEAST likely to contribute to the differences between African Americans and white Americans in receiving longacting stimulant drug treatment for ADHD is:

answer

D) differences in drug tolerance.

question

55. Two children—one, AfricanAmerican and the other, white American—display exactly the same symptoms of overactivity. What is MOST likely to happen?

answer

B) The white American will be diagnosed with ADHD, and the African American will be diagnosed with possibly a lower IQ or substance abuse.

question

68. The child most likely to show the first symptom of autism spectrum disorder would be a:

answer

A) boy under 3 years old.

question

69. A female child is diagnosed with autism. Later, as an adult, she is unable to hold a job and has very limited communication skills. Her case is:

answer

B) uncommon; most people diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder are males, and their symptoms usually remain severe into adulthood.

question

70. Assume that you are alone in a room with a child suffering from a disorder of childhood. If you didn't know what the child's diagnosis was, what behavior of the child's might start to convince you that the disorder is autism spectrum disorder?

answer

B) The child is not responsive to other people.

question

71. The mockingbird gets its name from the fact that it often imitates the call of other birds, without conveying any particular message. A child who imitates others' speech without any sign of understanding it, MOST likely would be diagnosed with:

answer

A) autism spectrum disorder.

question

72. One speech problem displayed by many children with autism spectrum disorder is that they repeat everything said to them. This is called:

answer

A) echolalia.

question

73. When a child with autism spectrum disorder says "You want a drink" when he really means that he wants a drink, he is displaying

answer

D) pronominal reversal.

question

74. A person who has difficulty with interpersonal interactions but is otherwise high functioning and would have been diagnosed with Asperger's disorder in the past, will now, in DSM5, be diagnosed with:

answer

C) social communications disorder.

question

75. Individuals with autism spectrum disorder may react with tantrums if an object is moved to a different part of the room. This is known as:

answer

D) perserveration of sameness.

question

76. A child has autism spectrum disorder and does not like much variation in his life. He puts his toys on a shelf in a particular order and throws a tantrum if his mother moves any of them. Any one of several trivial changes in his daily routine can set him off. This is an example of:

answer

D) a perseveration of sameness.

question

77. When a child with autism spectrum disorder jumps, flaps her arms, twists her hands and fingers and makes unusual faces, the child is engaging in:

answer

D) selfstimulatory behavior

question

78. The BEST way to characterize children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder is that they:

answer

A) show disturbed and contradictory patterns of reactions to stimuli.

question

79. According to one psychological view of autism, the awareness that other people base their behaviors on their own belief, and not on information they have no way of knowing, is NOT present in children with autism spectrum disorder. This ability is called:

answer

B) a theory of mind.

question

80. "It is possible, even probable, that 'refrigerator parents'—cold, rejecting, rigid—caused this disorder." This is a reasonable statement about the cause of many cases of:

answer

A) autism.

question

81. Research has shown that, during infancy and early childhood, autistic children are MORE likely to:

answer

D) None of the answers are true.

question

82. A child with autism is laughing, but sees another child crying. When asked what the other child is feeling, the child with autism is MOST likely to say:

answer

D) "happiness," because of mindblindness.

question

83. Imagine that I just stubbed my toe and cried "Ouch." A child with autism, when asked if I was hurt, said, "No," because he wasn't hurt. This inability to take the perspective of another is referred to as:

answer

C) mindblindness.

question

84. Which of the following statements reflects current research about the biological causes of autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?

answer

C) There are probably multiple biological causes, leading to a common "brain problem."

question

85. The MOST recent research has provided evidence that the primary causes of autism spectrum disorder include:

answer

A) brain abnormalities.

question

86. Recent studies show that children with autistic spectrum disorder are MORE likely than other children to have abnormalities in which section of the brain?

answer

C) cerebellum

question

87. A person diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder listens to a piano piece at a concert. Later at home, the person plays the piano piece without the music, and without making a mistake. This behavior is best described as a:

answer

D) savant skill.

question

88. Based on the MOST current research, we can conclude that:

answer

D) MMR vaccinations are not related to the development of autism.

question

Studies of the use of cognitivebehavioral techniques in the treatment of autism spectrum disorder have shown that cognitivebehavioral techniques can produce:

answer

longterm gains in school achievement and intelligence test performance.

question

90. Recent work has revealed that the MOST effective treatment for autism has been the use of:

answer

B) cognitivebehavioral therapy.

question

91. The LEAP program for treating children with autism spectrum disorder is unique because it involves the use of:

answer

D) typical children as models and "teachers."

question

92. A child with autism spectrum disorder points to a picture of a fork on a board rather than saying, "I want food." This child is using:

answer

C) an augmentative communication system.

question

93. What is the BEST educational treatment for a child with a serious level of dysfunction on the autism spectrum?

answer

C) being sent to a special school that combines treatment and education

question

94. If a child on the autism spectrum were being encouraged to engage in childinitiated interactions, the child would be:

answer

C) asking about things that were of particular interest to him or her.

question

95. Which one of the following people would MOST correctly be diagnosed with intellectual developmental disorder?

answer

D) one with an IQ of 69 having problems coping with life

question

96. If you were trying to learn a new language and you could understand it better than you could speak it, you would be showing symptoms MOST like:

answer

D) expressive language disorder.

question

97. A reading proficiency level that is much lower than would be expected based on the measure of general intelligence is called:

answer

A) dyslexia.

question

104. The use of IQ test results to diagnose intellectual developmental disorder has been criticized for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

answer

D) They are not valid predictors of school performance.

question

105. Intelligence test results should not be the only things used to determine intellectual developmental disorder, because intelligence test scores:

answer

C) don't indicate level of adaptive behavior.

question

108. About what percentage of those diagnosed with mental retardation fall into the category of mild intellectual developmental disorder?

answer

D) 80 to 85 percent

question

109. MOST cases of mild intellectual developmental disorder seem to be related to:

answer

sociocultural and psychological factors.

question

110. Isabelle is born into a very poor family. Both parents have belowaverage IQs and are barely able to support and provide for themselves. Isabelle's nutrition and health care have never been very good. She is at risk for:

answer

B) mild intellectual developmental disorder.

question

111. Early home intervention programs for those in the "mild" intellectual developmental disorder category:

answer

D) improve both overall functioning, and later performance in school and in adulthood.

question

112. The percentage of individuals at the four levels of intellectual developmental disorder from mild to profound:

answer

B) decreases steadily as the intelligence level decreases.

question

113. If one knew nothing more than that the person with intellectual developmental disorder also had extensive and severe neurological dysfunction and physical handicaps, the MOST likely estimate of that person's level of mental retardation would be:

answer

D) severe or profound.

question

Children with multiple physical and neurological problems that seriously limit their functioning are MOST likely to be diagnosed with which level of intellectual developmental disorder?

answer

C) severe or profound

question

115. Biological factors are NOT the most important causes of which level of intellectual developmental disorder?

answer

C) mild

question

117. Paula has moderate intellectual developmental disorder, a small head and flat face, as well as a protruding tongue. Her condition is MOST likely:

answer

down syndrome

question

119. Individuals with Down syndrome:

answer

C) have the same range of personality characteristics as do those in the general population without Down syndrome.

question

120. Shy and anxious children who have mild to moderate degrees of intellectual dysfunction, language impairments, and behavioral problems are MOST likely to be diagnosed with:

answer

D) fragile X syndrome.

question

121. An infant is diagnosed with a biological disorder. As she ages, her physical and mental conditions deteriorate steadily so that she loses vision and motor control, and at the age of 3, she dies. Most likely, she was suffering from:

answer

A) TaySachs disease.

question

122. Which of the following do phenylketonuria and TaySachs disease have in common?

answer

B) Both are caused by a double recessive gene.

question

125. Most colleges and universities now require students to have a meningitis vaccination before enrolling. Untreated meningitis can lead to:

answer

D) intellectual development disorder.

question

126. Anoxia, one possible source of intellectual developmental disorder, involves brain damage resulting from:

answer

B) lack of oxygen during or after delivery.

question

127. In poor innercity neighborhoods, children sometimes eat paint that is flaking off walls. This can sometimes lead to intellectual developmental disorder due of:

answer

lead poisoning

question

128. During the 1960s and 1970s, the criteria for remaining in state schools changed, and many individuals with intellectual developmental disorders were released into the community. This is an example of:

answer

A) deinstitutionalization.

question

129. MOST children with intellectual developmental disorder live:

answer

at home

question

130. Nations that pioneered "normalization" in the treatment of intellectual developmental disorder include:

answer

Denmark and Sweden

question

A woman is in a facility for those with intellectual developmental disorder. She has her own apartment, dresses herself, and goes to the dining room, where she orders breakfast off a menu. She then goes to work in a sheltered workshop. At the end of the day, she goes home to her apartment and gets ready for dinner. This arrangement is part of:

answer

B) a normalization program.

question

A child is in public school, but he is grouped with other lowIQ children like him. He and his classmates have a specially designed program that is different from that of the other children in the school. This is MOST likely an example of:

answer

special education

Chapter 15, 16, and 17 Abnormal Final – Flashcards

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