Clinical Flashcards, test questions and answers
Discover flashcards, test exam answers, and assignments to help you learn more about Clinical and other subjects. Don’t miss the chance to use them for more effective college education. Use our database of questions and answers on Clinical and get quick solutions for your test.
We've found 12 Clinical tests
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
Clinical
Endocrinology
Nursing
Signs And Symptoms Of Hypoglycemia
medsurg CAQs #2 – Flashcards 48 terms

Clarence Louder
48 terms
Preview
medsurg CAQs #2 – Flashcards
question
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic adrenal insufficiency. Which roommate should be avoided when assigning a room for this client? 1 A young adult client with pneumonia 2 An adolescent client with a fractured leg 3 An older adult client who had a brain attack 4 A middle-aged client who has cholecystitis
answer
1
question
A nurse is formulating a teaching plan for a client recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. What interventions should the nurse include to decrease the risk of complications? Select all that apply. 1 Examine the feet daily 2 Wear well-fitting shoes 3 Perform regular exercise 4 Powder the feet after showering 5 Visit the primary healthcare provider weekly 6 Test bathwater with the toes before bathing
answer
1, 2, 3
question
A nurse working in the diabetes clinic is evaluating a client's success with managing the medical regimen. What is the best indication that a client with type 1 diabetes is successfully managing the disease? 1 Reduction in excess body weight 2 Stabilization of the serum glucose 3 Demonstrated knowledge of the disease 4 Adherence to the prescription for insulin
answer
2
question
The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with diabetes about the importance of glucose monitoring. Which blood glucose levels should the nurse identify as hypoglycemia? 1 68 mg/dL (3.8 mmol/L) 2 78 mg/dL (4.3 mmol/L) 3 88 mg/dL (4.9 mmol/L) 4 98 mg/dL (5.4 mmol/L)
answer
1
question
Which clinical manifestation is found in a client with a deficiency of adrenocorticotropic hormone? 1 Anovulation 2 Dehydration 3 Malaise and lethargy 4 Menstrual abnormalities
answer
3
question
A nurse is assessing a client with Cushing syndrome. Which signs should the nurse expect the client to exhibit? Select all that apply. 1 Hirsutism 2 Round face 3 Pitting edema 4 Buffalo hump 5 Hypoglycemia
answer
1, 2, 4
question
A client reports their lips feel thicker, as well as joint pain and coarse facial features. What should the nurse suspect as the cause of the anterior pituitary hyperfunction? 1 Excessive secretion of growth hormone 2 Excessive secretion of prolactin hormone 3 Excessive secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone 4 Excessive secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone
answer
1
question
Which statement does the nurse know is true regarding the effects of parathyroid hormone on bones for the maintenance of calcium balance? 1 Increases bicarbonate and sodium excretion 2 Enhances absorption of calcium and phosphorous 3 Increases reabsorption of calcium and magnesium 4 Increases net release of calcium into extracellular fluid
answer
4
question
Which condition is characterized by hemorrhage after a pregnant female delivers? 1 Sheehan's syndrome 2 Cushing's syndrome 3 Addison's syndrome 4 Schwartz-Bartter syndrome
answer
1
question
Which drug would be effective for the treatment of pituitary Cushing's syndrome? 1 Mitotane 2 Cabergoline 3 Cyproheptadine 4 Bromocriptine mesylate
answer
3
question
A client has a history of hypothyroidism. Which skin condition should the nurse expect when performing a physical assessment? 1 Dry 2 Moist 3 Flushed 4 Smooth
answer
1
question
What will the nurse expect diagnostic studies of a client with Cushing syndrome to indicate? 1 Moderately increased serum potassium levels 2 Increased numbers of eosinophils in the blood 3 High levels of 17-ketosteroids in a 24-hour urine test 4 Normal to low levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
answer
3
question
Which is the target tissue for the parathyroid hormone? 1 Intestines 2 All body cells 3 Mammary glands 4 Sympathetic effectors
answer
1
question
While a nurse is teaching a client with diabetes about food choices, the client states, "I do not like broccoli." Which food should the nurse suggest to substitute for broccoli? 1 Peas 2 Corn 3 Green beans 4 Mashed potato
answer
3
question
A nurse explains to a client with diabetes that self-monitoring of blood glucose is preferred to urine glucose testing. Why is blood glucose monitoring preferred? 1 Blood glucose monitoring is more accurate. 2 Blood glucose monitoring is easier to perform. 3 Blood glucose monitoring is done by the client. 4 Blood glucose monitoring is not influenced by drugs.
answer
1
question
A nurse in the postanesthesia unit is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy. Which client response is most important for the nurse to monitor? 1 Urinary retention 2 Signs of restlessness 3 Decreased blood pressure 4 Signs of respiratory obstruction
answer
4
question
When obtaining a health history from a client recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes, the nurse expects the client to report what clinical manifestations? 1 Irritability, polydipsia, and polyuria 2 Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia 3 Nocturia, weight loss, and polydipsia 4 Polyphagia, polyuria, and diaphoresis
answer
2
question
A primary healthcare provider prescribes a low-sodium, high-potassium diet for a client with Cushing syndrome. Which explanation should the nurse provide to the client about the need to follow this diet? 1 "The use of salt probably contributed to the disease." 2 "Excess weight will be gained if sodium is not limited." 3 "The loss of excess sodium and potassium in the urine requires less renal stimulation." 4 "Excessive aldosterone and cortisone cause retention of sodium and loss of potassium."
answer
4
question
A nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. Upon assessment, which classic sign will the nurse find? 1 Ecchymosis 2 Hyperreflexia 3 Exophthalmos 4 Hyperpigmentation
answer
4
question
Which medical condition could most probably result in clients developing primary diabetes insipidus (DI)? 1 Meningitis 2 Brain tumor 3 Lithium therapy 4 Defect in hypothalamus
answer
4
question
Which assessment finding in a client signifies a mild form of hypocalcemia? 1 Seizures 2 Hand spasms 3 Severe muscle cramps 4 Numbness around the mouth
answer
4
question
What other name can the nurse use for vasopressin? 1 Growth hormone 2 Luteinizing hormone 3 Antidiuretic hormone 4 Thyroid-stimulating hormone
answer
3
question
A nurse is planning to teach facts about hyperglycemia to a client with diabetes. What information should the nurse include in the discussion about what causes diabetic acidosis? 1 Breakdown of fat stores for energy 2 Ingestion of too many highly acidic foods 3 Excessive secretion of endogenous insulin 4 Increased amounts of cholesterol in the extracellular compartment
answer
1
question
The clinical findings of a client with diabetes mellitus show decreased glucose tolerance. Which complication is anticipated in the client? 1 Cystitis 2 Thin and dry skin 3 Decreased bone density 4 Frequent yeast infections
answer
4
question
In order to ensure a quality specimen and an accurate test result, which instruction should the nurse give a client who is scheduled to undergo urine endocrine testing? 1 "Start the urine collection when the bladder is full." 2 "Store the urine specimen in a cooler with ice." 3 "Store the urine specimen in a home refrigerator." 4 "Save the urine specimen that begins the collection."
answer
2
question
After surgical clipping of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm, a client develops the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). What manifestations are exhibited with excessive levels of antidiuretic hormone? 1 Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and hypotension 2 Hyperkalemia and poor skin turgor 3 Hyponatremia and decreased urine output 4 Polyuria and increased specific gravity of urine
answer
3
question
Which feature in the client indicates hypersecretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone? 1 Moon face 2 Lower jaw protrusion 3 Heat intolerance 4 Barrel-shaped chest
answer
1
question
Which cells does the nurse identify as producing thyrocalcitonin hormone? 1 Islet cells 2 Adrenal cells 3 Pituitary cells 4 Parafollicular cells
answer
4
question
The nurse is providing care to a client being treated for bacterial cystitis. What is the goal before discharge for this client? 1 Understand the need to drink 4 L of water per day, an essential measure to prevent dehydration 2 Be able to identify dietary restrictions and plan menus 3 Achieve relief of symptoms and maintain kidney function 4 Recognize signs of bleeding, a complication associated with this type of procedure
answer
3
question
What are the primary causes of adrenal insufficiency? Select all that apply. 1 Hemorrhage 2 Tuberculosis 3 Pituitary tumors 4 Postpartum pituitary necrosis 5 Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
answer
1, 2, 5
question
Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary gland? 1 Oxytocin 2 Prolactin 3 Growth hormone 4 Luteinizing hormone
answer
1
question
A client with type 1 diabetes is transported via ambulance to the emergency department of the hospital. The client has dry, hot, flushed skin and a fruity odor to the breath and is having Kussmaul respirations. Which complication does the nurse suspect that the client is experiencing? 1 Ketoacidosis 2 Somogyi phenomenon 3 Hypoglycemic reaction 4 Hyperosmolar nonketotic coma
answer
1
question
A client who is taking an oral hypoglycemic daily for type 2 diabetes develops the flu and is concerned about the need for special care. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? 1 Skip the oral hypoglycemic pill, drink plenty of fluids, and stay in bed. 2 Avoid food, drink clear liquids, take a daily temperature, and stay in bed. 3 Eat as much as possible, increase fluid intake, and call the office again the next day. 4 Take the oral hypoglycemic pill, drink warm fluids, and perform a serum glucose test before meals and at bedtime.
answer
4
question
A client is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism, and surgery is scheduled because the client refuses ablation therapy. While awaiting the surgical date, what instruction should the nurse teach the client? 1 Consciously attempt to calm down. 2 Eliminate coffee, tea, and cola from the diet. 3 Keep the home warm, and use an extra blanket at night. 4 Schedule activities during the day to overcome lethargy.
answer
2
question
A client with malignant hot nodules of the thyroid gland has a thyroidectomy. What is the nurse's priority action immediately postoperative? 1 Place in semi-Fowler's position to limit edema of the neck 2 Monitor intake and output strictly to assess for fluid overload 3 Encourage coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis 4 Assess level of consciousness to determine recovery from anesthesia
answer
1
question
A 24-hour urine test is prescribed for a client who has a tentative diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. What should the nurse do first? 1 Start the time of the test after discarding the first voiding. 2 Discard the last voiding in the 24-hour time period for the test. 3 Insert a urinary retention catheter to promote the collection of urine. 4 Strain the urine following each voiding before adding the urine to the container.
answer
1
question
A nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which laboratory test will be most beneficial in monitoring the effectiveness of drug therapy? 1 Free thyroxine (FT4) 2 Thyroxine (T4), total 3 Free triiodothyronine (FT3) 4 Triiodothyronine (T3), total
answer
2
question
Which action by the nurse while administering human growth hormone ensures effective therapy? 1 Administration at nighttime 2 Administration via oral route 3 Administration along with meals 4 Administration by metered spray
answer
1
question
A client is admitted to the hospital for a thyroidectomy. In which position should the nurse maintain the client after surgery? 1 Prone 2 Supine 3 Left Sims 4 Semi-Fowler
answer
4
question
A nurse is assessing a client admitted to the hospital with a tentative diagnosis of a pituitary tumor. What signs of Cushing syndrome does the nurse identify? 1 Retention of sodium and water 2 Hypotension and a rapid, thready pulse 3 Increased fatty deposition in the extremities 4 Hypoglycemic episodes in the early morning
answer
1
question
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of cancer of the thyroid gland, and a thyroidectomy is performed. What should the nurse do during the first six to eight hours after surgery? 1 Place two pillows behind the client's head. 2 Monitor for the complication of tetany resulting from hypocalcemia. 3 Assess the sides and back of the client's neck for evidence of bleeding. 4 Encourage the client to perform deep-breathing and coughing exercises.
answer
3
question
A nurse is caring for a client with Cushing syndrome. Which cardiovascular complication should the nurse assess for in this client? 1 Chest pain 2 Tachycardia 3 Hypertension 4 Atrial fibrillation
answer
3
question
What symptoms will the nurse identify when assessing a client with Graves disease? 1 Constipation, dry skin, and weight gain 2 Lethargy, weight gain, and forgetfulness 3 Weight loss, exophthalmos, and restlessness 4 Weight loss, protruding eyeballs, and lethargy
answer
3
question
The nurse is assessing a client suspected of having hypercortisolism. Which questions should the nurse ask to help confirm the diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1 "Did you lose any weight unintentionally?" 2 "Did you notice your extremities to be thin?" 3 "Did you notice any roughness of your skin?" 4 "Did you notice any skin darkening recently?" 5 "Did the hair on your body become thicker?"
answer
2, 5
question
Which clinical findings should the nurse assess when caring for a client with hyperthyroidism? Select all that apply. 1 Lethargy 2 Tachycardia 3 Weight gain 4 Constipation 5 Exophthalmos
answer
2, 5
question
A client with type 1 diabetes receives Humulin R insulin in the morning. Shortly before lunch the nurse identifies that the client is diaphoretic and trembling. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? 1 Administer insulin to the client 2 Give the client lunch immediately 3 Encourage the client to drink fluids 4 Assess the client's blood glucose level
answer
4
question
Which clinical findings are observed in a client suffering from an imbalance of adrenocorticotropic hormone? Select all that apply. 1 Anorexia 2 Hyponatremia 3 Slowed cognition 4 Postural hypotension 5 Decreased muscle strength
answer
1, 2, 4
question
A client who is 60 pounds (27.2 kilograms) more than the ideal body weight is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. Which concept should the nurse include in teaching about diabetes when discussing strategies to lose weight? 1 Obesity leads to insulin resistance. 2 Surplus fat causes excretion of insulin. 3 Fat cells absorb insulin and prevent its circulation to other cells. 4 Lipids accumulate in the pancreas and interfere with insulin production.
answer
1
Clinical
Congress
Multiple Choice
Pediatrics
Respiratory Therapy
Therapy
Respiratory care professional organizations – Flashcards 41 terms

Robert Lollar
41 terms
Preview
Respiratory care professional organizations – Flashcards
question
AARC
answer
American association for respiratory care
question
Founded in 1947 in Chicago
answer
AARC
question
ITA
answer
Inhalation therapy association
question
First professional association for the field of respiratory care
answer
ITA
question
To provide for professional advancement, foster cooperation with physicians and advance the knowledge of inhalation therapy through educational activities
answer
Goal of ITA
question
Provided a forum that discussed the clinical application of oxygen therapy, improvement of patient care and advance the art and science of the field
answer
Goal of ITA
question
American association for Inhalation therapists (AAIT)
answer
1954
question
American association for respiratory therapy (AART)
answer
1973
question
American association for respiratory care (AARC)
answer
1982
question
Introduced the state licensure examination for respiratory care practitioners based on the National Board Respiratory Care (NBRC)
answer
AARC
question
To encourage and promote professional excellence, advance the science and practice of respiratory care and service as an advocate for patients, their families, the public, the profession and the respiratory therapist
answer
Mission of AARC
question
Sponsors educational activities, international meetings, conferences and seminars
answer
Mission of AARC
question
Publishes th science journal
answer
Mission of AARC
question
Science journal
answer
Respiratory care
question
Advocate for the profession to legislative and regulatory bodies
answer
Mission of AARC
question
Profession to legislative and regulatory bodies
answer
Insurance industry and general public
question
NBRC
answer
National board for respiratory care
question
Credentialling body for respiratory therapists
answer
NBRC
question
Began as the American Registry of inhalation therapists in 1960
answer
NBRC
question
To test and credential registered therapists
answer
American registry of inhalation therapists in 1960
question
Certification board was established to certify technicians
answer
American registry of inhalation therapists in 1960
question
Became the national board for respiratory care (NBRC) in 1983
answer
National board for respiratory therapy
question
Collaboration with the national board for cardiopulmonary technologists
answer
NBRC
question
2 levels of general clinical practice credetialling examinations in the US was established
answer
1968
question
2 levels of general clinical practice
answer
Certified technicians and registered therapist
question
Renamed the lower level, CRT (entry level respiratory therapist)
answer
1998
question
CRT
answer
Certified respiratory therapist
question
Advanced level remained RRT (advanced respiratory therapist)
answer
1998
question
RRT
answer
Registered respiratory therapist
question
CoARC
answer
Committee on accreditation for respiratory care
question
Publishing of the first guidelines for respiratory care educational programs
answer
1956
question
Formation of the board of schools to accredit respiratory care programs
answer
1963
question
Board of schools was replaced by joint review committee for inhalation therapy education
answer
1963
question
JRCITE
answer
Joint review committee for inhalation therapy education
question
He led the board of schools that was replaced by JRCITE
answer
Dr. Fred helmholtz in 1970
question
Became the joint review committee for respiratory therapy education in 1977
answer
JRCITE
question
joint review committee for respiratory therapy education
answer
JRCRTE
question
Committee on accreditation for respiratory care
answer
1996
question
Accredited by the CoARC under the guidance of the CAAHEP, registered under the CHEA
answer
Respiratory care educational program in the US
question
CAAHEP
answer
Commission on accreditation of allied health education program
question
CHEA
answer
Council for higher education accreditation
Clinical
EBT-midterm – Flashcards 190 terms

Karen Combs
190 terms
Preview
EBT-midterm – Flashcards
question
What is clinical case formulation?
answer
The psychologist's hypothesis about the nature of the psychological mechanisms underlying the client's difficulties.
question
What are overt difficulties?
answer
The actual problems in living that clietns seek help for (e.g., depression, relationship, difficulties, anger)
question
What are underlying mechanisms?
answer
the underlying (central) psychological mechanisms that produce and maintain the overt difficulties (e.g., dysfunctional attitudes, cognitive schemas, coping pattern, interpersonal style, lack of secure attachment or unconditional regard, etc.) SHOULD BE CONSISTENT W/Theoretical model
question
What are some things you should think about when identifying problems for a cultural formulation?
answer
big question: how did the problem develop? -what made me vulnerable in the first place? - triggers for the most recent episode - the problem - things that keep the problem going
question
What is the difference between case formulations and treatment plan?
answer
CF: why a problem exists TP: what to do about the problem (informed by CF)
question
Name 4 theoretical orientations?
answer
- Cognitive Behavioral (CBT) - Psychodynamic - Emotion-Focused therapy - Interpersonal Therapy
question
How does a cognitive orientation explain psychological problems?
answer
Distorted cognitions
question
What is the focus for cognitive orientation?
answer
Present, here and now
question
What are treatment goals for cognitive orientation?
answer
Reduction of symptoms
question
What are the strategies of cognitive orientation?
answer
changing cognitions
question
Does a cognitive approach require homework?
answer
Yes
question
How does a behavioral approach explain psychological problems?
answer
Classical and operant conditioning, social learning
question
What is the focus for therapy using a behavioral approach?
answer
Present, here and now
question
What are treatment goals for behavioral approach?
answer
Reduction of symptoms
question
What are the strategies for a behavioral approach?
answer
Modifying behaviors
question
Is there a homework component with a behavioral approach?
answer
yes
question
What are examples of therapies that are based on the behavioral approach?
answer
DBT, ACT
question
How does a psychodynamic approach explain psychological issues?
answer
Historical relationships and trauma
question
What is the focus of a psychodynamic approach?
answer
Past, developmental
question
What are tx goals for psychodynamic approach?
answer
insight, changing long-standing patterns
question
What are strategies for psychodynamic?
answer
using transference and countertransference, interpretation, confrontation of defenses
question
Is there a homework component for psychodynamic?
answer
No
question
How does emotion-focused therapy explain psychological problems?
answer
Interpersonal relationships
question
What is the focus of emotion-focused therapy?
answer
Present, interpersonal relationships
question
What are tx goals for emotion-focused therapy?
answer
STRENGTHEN SELF, REGULATE AFFECT, CREATE NEW MEANING
question
What are the strategies used for emotion-focused therapy?
answer
Using therapeutic relationship and in-session experimental exercises
question
Does emotion-focused therapy have a homework component?
answer
No
question
How does interpersonal therapy explain psychological problems?
answer
Interpersonal relationship
question
What is the focus of interpersonal?
answer
Present, interpersonal relationships
question
What are the tx goals for interpersonal?
answer
Address grief, interpersonal disputes, role transitions, interpersonal deficits
question
What are strategies for interpersonal?
answer
Exploration, encouragement of affect, use of the therapeutic relationship, communication analysis.
question
Is there a hw component in interpersonal?
answer
No
question
What does the APA task force recommendations for empirically validated treatments?
answer
two RCTs w/no-tx or placebo comparison
question
What are some controversies about ESTs?
answer
- EST biased towards favored brief, manualized tx - lost focus on common factors that help clients across d/o-focus on specific d/o and specific techniques - Concern about applicability to diverse population
question
What is clinical judgement?
answer
includes judgment, decision-making, interpersonal skill, self-reflection, ability to evaluate the research evidence, ability to evaluate the research evidence, ability to understand individual and cultural differences, willingness to consult and seek additional information, having a clearly articulated rationale for tx approach
question
what is ebpp?
answer
Evidence-based practice in psychology is the integration of the best available research w/clinical expertise in the context of patient characteristics, culture, and preferences
question
What are three components that make up EBP (evidence-based practice)?
answer
- Best research evidence - clinical expertise - patient values and preference
question
What are the 4 ways you can know that tx is effective?
answer
- faith: belief in your theory - hope: belief that your good will, goose sense, and experience will win out - charity: belief that your work will be beneficial even if things seem to be going south at times - experiment: measured outcomes
question
What is efficacy?
answer
treatment effects compared to minimal treatment or waitlist control
question
What is effectiveness?
answer
the comparative effects of treatments; generalizability across setting
question
What is efficiency?
answer
who benefits from what treatment?
question
What are some threats to validity of empirical tx research?
answer
- internal validity: did the tx make a change? - external validity: can it be generalized? - statistical conclusion validity: appropriate stats tests? - construct validity: proper operationalized definitions
question
What are some examples of internal validity?
answer
- temporal precedence - selection - history - maturation - regression to the mean - attrition - testing and instrumentation
question
How can you correct temporal precedence?
answer
exclude participants w/prior tx experience
question
How can you correct selection?
answer
random assignment, stat analysis of systematic pre-existing difference
question
How can you correct for history?
answer
random assignment, stat analysis if event occurs
question
how can you correct for maturation?
answer
careful participant selection, random assignment, add control/contrast group
question
How can you correct for regression to the mean?
answer
Ensure all DVs have strong test-retest reliability, include control group, use multiple measures
question
How can you correct for attrition?
answer
Foster motivation, make sure control group has adequate attention, avoid "no treatment" control group
question
How can you correct for testing and instrumentation?
answer
Choose testing protocols that have minimal impact on performance, include quality checks on measures, add good control groups
question
What are some threats to external validity?
answer
- sample characteristics - setting characteristics - testing effects
question
How can you correct for sample characteristics?
answer
recruit a sample that is representative of population of interest
question
How can you correct for setting characteristics?
answer
make sure settings reflect typical treatment conditions
question
How can you correct for testing effects?
answer
use measures in addition to self-reports, use unobtrusive measures, schedule time of assessment in a clinically relevant way
question
How can you correct for construct validity?
answer
avoid jargon and ambiguous terms, make sure operational definitions clearly represent the construct
question
What are examples of threats to construct validity?
answer
- inadequate specification of construct - confounding - singular definitions - participant reactivity - experimenter expectancies - treatment diffusion
question
How can you correct for confounding threat?
answer
be clear w/conceptual categories
question
How can you correct for singular definitions?
answer
use multiple therapists and multiple measures
question
How can you correct for participant reactivity?
answer
choose control/contrast groups that minimize the treat (adding good attention/placebo contrast)
question
How can you correct for experimenter expectancies?
answer
blind research personnel, include treatment integrity and fidelity checks
question
How can you correct for treatment diffusion?
answer
use different therapists to implement different conditions, blind research personnel to hypotheses
question
What are examples of threats to statistical conclusion validity?
answer
- low stats. power (increase n, vary alpha, use 1-tailed, reduce variability) - family wise error rates (use conservative stat) - unreliable of measures (use measures w/ strong reliability metrics) - unreliable tx implementation (standardized training - heterogeneity of subjects (clear and stringent i/e criteria)
question
What are common research for evaluating tx efficacy?
answer
- no tx comparison design - wait list comparison - attention placebo - relative efficacy (tx vs TAU)
question
What are the dialectics (inquiry) of research and practice?
answer
- concerns of the academic research/outcome researcher - concerns for clinicians
question
What are ways of tolerating dialectics?
answer
- accept and tolerate the necessary tension - avoid absolutistic, all or none thinking
question
What are patient-level considerations for tx?
answer
= how do patients view treatment - what type of tx do they want
question
What are clinician-level considerations for tx?
answer
- sees pt. as end users rather than co-developers who can make good decisions and are potentially creative - tx are "specifically designed to occur within interpersonal relationships"
question
What are some considerations for psychotherapy in the real world?
answer
- psychotherapy is messy and often unscripted - trainees must balance the patients' best interest and faithfulness to the approach in rapidly changing real time contexts - emphasizes fidelity to the conceptual paradigm and flexibility within intervention
question
How do clinicians differ from technicians?
answer
- learn general principles not specific techniques - a theory is a good things to have - read a lot - personlize psychotherapeutic approaches - avoid procrustean bed (obsessing over individual differences or situational approaches) - treat people not dx - one size never fits all
question
What are some common characteristics of anxiety d/o?
answer
- personal perfectionism - emotional perfectionism - strong desire to please others - fear of failure - focus on predictability, permanence, order, and routine - impressionistic cognitive style
question
What are some forms of emotional avoidance in anxiety d/o?
answer
- avoiding eye contact (behavioral) - procrastination (behavioral) - avoiding exercise/physiological arousal (behavioral) - reassurance (cognitive) - trying to think positive (cognitive) - thought suppression (cognitive) - charging talisman, good luck charm (safety signal) - overuse of sunglasses (safety signal)
question
What is cognitive content-specificity?
answer
- central concept to theory and practice - different mood states associated w/distinct cognitive context - enables clinicians to identify "hot cognitions"
question
What are therapeutic stance variables that cut across what the clinician does?
answer
- collaborative empiricism - guided discovery
question
What is collaborative empiricism?
answer
- clinician and patient work as partners
question
What is guided discovery?
answer
- clinician is coach who shephards patient through data collection using empathy, questioning, and behavioral experimentation
question
How do you increase coping skills using CBT?
answer
- relaxation - stress management - assertiveness
question
How do you change unhelpful thinking w/CBT?
answer
- cognitive restructuring - rational analysis
question
How do you decrease avoidance and increase self-efficacy?
answer
- exposure - experiments
question
What is a structure of a treatment?
answer
components of session, relationship, assessment measures; homework assignment, exposure trials, social skills practice
question
What is the content of a treatment?
answer
- the WHAT - material produced from structure elements (feelings, thoughts, and behaviors)
question
WHat is the process of a treatment?
answer
- the HOW - the way the patient reacts to the structure and content (avoidance, irritation, smugness)
question
What is self-monitoring?
answer
- part of CBT - keystone of self-directed change - objective measures - idiographic (scientific) measures
question
What are SUDs?
answer
- Subjective Units of Distress in CBT - making emotional quantifiable - can be 1-100 or 1-10 - scaling device which titrates level of distress
question
What is climbing the ladder?
answer
- part of CBT - adaptation of hierarchy - climbing is a nice active way to communicate progress through the hierarchy
question
What are thought diaries?
answer
- part of CBT - analysis of thoughts, situation, and feelings. Situation is the objective description of what is going on; feeling: emotional label; thought: what is going on through their mind?
question
What are examples of behavioral interventions?
answer
Relaxation - deep controlled breathing - progressive muscle relaxation
question
What is important to note about relaxation techniques?
answer
- you can induce anxiety - related to fears of loss of control - fear that focusing on the sensation is dangerous
question
What are examples of some cognitive interventions?
answer
- cognitive restructing (changing self-talk) - advantages and disadvantages - problem solving - decatastrophizing - reattribution -test of evidence
question
What is cognitive restructuring?
answer
- focuses on changing habits of thought - refocusing attention - direct adaptive behaviors - facilitate accurate appraisals
question
What are some advantages and disadvantages of cognitive restructuring?
answer
- very basic intervention - clients look at costs/benefits of a behavior - clients see what they lose and gain by holding onto specific behaviors - what are the advantages and disadvantages of avoiding a feared stimulus
question
What is problem solving?
answer
- basic staple of cbt - RIBEEYE R: learn to relax in in face of stressor I: Identify stressor B: brainstorm E: evaluate each solution Y: saying yes to the best solution E: encouraging self for active problem solving
question
What is the socratic method?
answer
Curious and inquisitive, gentle questioning
question
What is decatastrophizing?
answer
- tests predictions of doom - adds perspective to narrow beliefs - works to modify the overestimations of the magnitude and probabilty of dangers
question
What is reattribution?
answer
-teaching clients to view experiences from different angles - does not focus on the facts but on the explanation of facts
question
How do you test evidence?
answer
- evaluate whether conclusions are factually based and logically sound - need to take a deliberate and mindful approach - patience is key
question
What is a common technique in CBT and BT approaches?
answer
- exposure: - the experiential approach exposes the patient to experiences that are in themselves powerful enough to change misconceptions
question
What does exposure do?
answer
- true experiential approach - designed to help pts face the situations they fear - pt. remain in control and engaged - pt. learn to habituate reinterpret and often extinguish the fear - promote genuine sense of self efficacy
question
What are the advantages of exposures and experiments?
answer
- present-oriented - increased perceived sense of control
question
How can the therapeutic alliance help with exposure?
answer
- data shows decrease in alliance rating after exposure - allign w/ pt vs. distress - no one wants to do it (avoidance high)
question
What should you do before attempting exposures or experiences?
answer
- psychoeducation (family and pt) - is it useful - needs to be gradual - any medical issues? - pts' feels about tx - make as realistic as possible use props
question
What is the key feature of social anxiety?
answer
- fear of negative evluation - catastrophic predictions of what may happen - common mental equation: disapproval = disaster
question
What cognitive interventions could be used for social anxiety?
answer
- test of evidence - reattribution - decatastrophizing
question
What is a cognitive formulation for obsessions?
answer
Rituals and compulsions are directed at reducing doubt and inceasing certainty.
question
What is the paradox of mental control?
answer
When sense of control is threatened or thwarted high levels of arousal emerge. Client then tries to control the thought without success
question
What treatment approach should you use for OCD?
answer
CBT
question
What are the first steps of initiating treatment w/patient w/OCD?
answer
-psychoeducation - begin self-monitoring
question
What is the overall plan tx for OCD?
answer
- use facilitative strategies - establish exposure hierarchy - in session graduated exposure - out session HW exposure - identify and modify underlying assumptions and core beliefs - ritual prevention
question
What is thought and action fusion?
answer
When Clients believe that thinking something is the same as acting on it.
question
What is response prevention?
answer
- AKA ritual prevention - Exposure is not enough -REsponse must be prevented by client, not situation
question
How can you stop performance of rituals?
answer
- complete stopping (cold turkey) is recommended - thought some clients may need more gradual approach
question
What are some facilitative strategies for ocd?
answer
- challenge rigid thinking: make rules conditional rather than absolute - break rules of ocd (delay, shorten ritual or do it differently)
question
What can you do to minimize counting compulsions?
answer
- gradually reduce the number of times an action is performed - change the way the counting is done - substitute something else for the counting - count to the wrong number
question
What therapy do you use for Panic?
answer
CBT
question
How would you treat physical and mental changes and what is the underlying process?
answer
psycholeducation/preoccupation - hypervigilance
question
How would you treat overarousal of autonomic nervous system?
answer
relaxation/emotional activiation
question
How would you treat attention "glued" to subjective physiological feeliings?
answer
refocusing/attentional focus
question
How would you treat attributoin to danger?
answer
cognitive restructuring/catastrophizing-overgeneralization
question
How would you treat overwhelming escape behavior?
answer
graduated exposure/avoidance
question
What intervention would you use with high level of physical arousal?
answer
attention refocus (early in tx) exposure (later in tx)
question
What intervetion would you use with moderate level of arousal?
answer
cognitive restructuring
question
What intervention would you use the low level of arousal?
answer
psychoeducation relaxation training environmental clean up
question
What are forms of self-monitoring?
answer
- mood diaries - panic diaries - SUDs rating and hierarchies - daily thought records - self-report, clincian rater
question
What is the benefit of refocusing techniques?
answer
- Can ease anxiety - count change in pocket - do different math pockets
question
What are behavioral interventions?
answer
-relaxation - deep breathing - breathing control - environmental clean up - time mgt
question
What are some examples of cognitive restructuring for panic d/o?
answer
- panic sxs are frightening, they are not dangerous - anxiety is like a wave - it will pass - stay in the present - pay attention to breathing
question
What is interoceptive exposure?
answer
- disrupt or weaken associations between specific body cues and panic reactions, decrease the hyperventilation response, and the fear avoidance response -engage in physcal activities to generate sensations similar to what would be experienced in a panic attack
question
What are contradincations for panic inductoin?
answer
- medical/phyiscal hx - pregnancy - epilepsy - hypertension
question
What are four main clusters of PTSD sxs?
answer
- instrusion - avoidance - negative alterations in cognition and mood - alterations in arousal and reactivity
question
What are treatment strategies for PTSD?
answer
- exposure (imaginal/in vivo) - cognitive restructuring (change unrealistic thinking about self, world, future) - coping skills
question
What are types of exposure for PTSD?
answer
- imaginal (narrative) - in session - virtual reality
question
What type of treatment is used for PTSD?
answer
- exposure therapy -cognitive processing therapy - CBT
question
What are common goals of CBT for PTSD?
answer
- remember and accept what happened by not avoiding memories and accompanying emotions - allow self to feel natural emotions and let them runt heir courses so the memory can be put away w/o strong feelings attached - balance belief that had been disrupted or reinforced
question
What are 4 approaches to treating depression?
answer
- Interpersonal therapy - cognitive behavioral therapy - emotion-focused therapy - psychodynamic therapy
question
What is the more efficacious treatment for depression?
answer
- all equally efficacious - IPT bit more...supportive a bit less
question
What is Beck's negative cognitive triad?
answer
pessimistic thoughts about: - self - others/world - future
question
What are the 9 components of cbt case formulation?
answer
CHIP TROPP Chief complaint Hypothesize mechanism Identifying information Problem List Treatment plan Relation of mechanism to problems Origins of central problem Precipitants of current problems Predicted obstacles to tx
question
What are the core tenants of cbt?
answer
- time limited, goal-oriented - pt. is active collaborator - goal is independent functioning - cognitive conceptualization model - model of emotion
question
What are structured sessions of CBT?
answer
- update, mood check, summary of last session, review pt. goals -review homework - set session agenda - discuss agenda -assign new homework -summary/feedback
question
What are characteristics of core beliefs and schemas?
answer
- develop early - deeper level of cognition - rigid - predict & shape automatic thoughts
question
What are automatic thoughts?
answer
- maladaptive automatic thoughts block goals and increase emotional pain - alt. thoughts may help reach goals, decrease emotional pain
question
What are list of maladaptive thought patterns?
answer
- catastrophizing - filtering - personalizing - (over)generalizing - polarizing - emotionalizing COPE FC
question
What are behavioral interventions for depression?
answer
- track behaviors/activities - introduce activity scheduling - increase mastery experiences - role play - relaxation
question
What are components of the treatment termination stage?
answer
- review treatment - assessment of goals - anticipate obstacles - create a plan for obstacles - booster sessions
question
What are some basic goals for EFT?
answer
- strengthen the self - regulate affect - create new meaning
question
What are the basics of EFT?
answer
- role of emotion in psychotherapeutic change - therapeutic relationship is essential for change
question
What do you promote for the client in EFT?
answer
= awareness - acceptance -expression - utilization - regulation - transformation
question
What are the core emotionals in depression according to EFT?
answer
fear and shame
question
according to eft what are some underlying problems of depression?
answer
- maladaptive emotion schemes - self-organizations
question
What are goals for depression when using EFT?
answer
- restore the self - access and utilize the existing resources of the personality -transform the depressive self-organization
question
What is an overview of EFT for depression?
answer
- access core emotional experiences & memories - develop alternative emotional response - using emotion to change emotion
question
What are some techniques in EFT to use for depression?
answer
- empty chair: grief - two chair: self-criticism - Empathic affirmation: process intense feelings
question
In what populations is short-term dynamic psychotherapy useful for?
answer
- depression in outpatient popuolation
question
What is the framework for psychodynamic therapy?
answer
- therapeutic relationship as a vehicle for change - neutral, genuine interaction - developmental context - transference/counter-transference - interpretations
question
What is the greenburg video?
answer
- EFT - woman has conflicts w/sister - mother was sick - focused on therapy
question
What are the 4 components of case formulation?
answer
- origins of intrapsychic and interpersonal conflict - defense mechanisms - transference/ count-transference - treatment goals
question
What are effective treatments for BP D/o?
answer
- CBT - Family-focused - group psychoeducation -interpersonal in combo w/psychopharmocotherpy sig. reduction in mood sxs
question
What are the componants for self-management for BP D/O?
answer
- maintaining wellness - mania - depression - suicidality - family and work
question
What is meant by maintaining wellness for bp d/o?
answer
- known risk factors and protective factors
question
How do you treatment manic sxs for BP?
answer
- controlling severity and limiting damage
question
How do you treat depressive sxs for bp?
answer
- awareness of signs and sxs - cognitive restructuring
question
How do you treat suicidal thoughts for bp?
answer
- risk factor - decrease access and increase support systems - reasons for living inventory - prevention plan
question
How do you evaluate family and work in BP tx?
answer
- possible problems (negative emotional reactions) - possible soluations (education) - Work advantages or disadvantages of disclosing illness - accommodation
question
How do you bridge the efficacy/effectiveness gap?
answer
Translational framework w/several stages - developing interventions - piloting/ feasibility-testing - evaluation - implementation
question
What are core elements of FIMM?
answer
Facilitated Integrated Mood Management - education - mood/ sleep monitoring - prodromal signs - medication adherence - substance use 5- session tx -electronic mood monitoring
question
What do we learn from the Milkowitz video?
answer
- treating woman w/BP d/o - have woman exercise (manic safety plan) - wearing glasses (need to wear glasses)
question
What are the 7 features that distinguish psychodynamic therapy?
answer
- focus on affect and expression of emotion - exploration of attempts to avoid distressing thoughts and feelings - identification of recurring themes and patterns - discussion of past experience - focus on interpersonal relations - focus on therapy relationship -exploration of fantasy life
question
Does psychodynamic tx for bp work?
answer
-efficacy demonstrated for depresson - reduction of relapse -reduction of medication greater self-acceptance
question
What can we learn from the striker video?
answer
- widow/grief - transitioning psychotherapy
question
Which symptom is specifically targeted in Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) for rape victims?
answer
depression
question
Which response is likely to be most adaptive for rape victims, according to Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT)?
answer
accommodation
question
Which of the following victims of trauma are least likely to be involved in Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) as their only form of therapy?
answer
Survivors of incest sexual abuse
question
Which of the following is not a common therapist consideration for therapists performing Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) for rape victims?
answer
CPT certification
question
Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) for rape victims emphasizes the importance of working through a stuck point. A stuck point is _________________.
answer
a conflict in beliefs/thoughts that interferes with accepting an event
question
What are two components that IPT works on for depression?
answer
- attachment (threat of loss) - bereavement/grief
question
What is an interpersonal inventory?
answer
In IPT a systemic review of patient's current and past interpersonal relationships
question
What is a treatment contract?
answer
In IPT it covers the goals and expected worst outcome, length and frequency of tx.
question
What is the focus for IPT?
answer
the interpersonal relationships (crucial for therapy) reduce patient's social isolatuion or interpersonal diffulties
question
What are stages of interpersonal role disputes?
answer
- renegotiation - impasse - dissolution
question
What is more effective for depression IPT or CBT?
answer
equally effective IPT combo w/psychopharm is promising
question
What are techniques in IPT?
answer
- exploratory: let pt. discuss what is going on - encouragement of affect: use affect to bring about interpersonal change - clarification - communication analysis: used to examine communication failures - use of therapeutic relationship: model interpersonal relationship - behavior change techniques: modeling, directive, role playing
question
How does IPT differ from regular psychodynamic therapy?
answer
- therapist takes an active role not passive - similar in that transference and countertransference used therapeutically
question
What is the best treatment for depressed latinos?
answer
CBT and IPT integrated therapy
question
How do you treat bipolar disorder?
answer
Cognitive-behavioral approach
question
What is the focus of CBT for BP d/o?
answer
- addressing depression stage and relapse prevention
question
What is the structure of CBT sessions for BP d/o?
answer
- mood charts review - hw review - agenda setting - session summary - homework assignments Recording the session good resource for patients
question
What does a tx contract for BP d/o include?
answer
- early action if signs of dpression or maina - contact list for suicidal thoughts - outlined steps for friend/family to take when in manic or depressive state
question
What characteristic of BP d/o might make CBT less effective?
answer
history of multiple episodes (more than 12)
question
What are some considerations for treating patients with BP d/o?
answer
- medications are usually prescribed so compliance should be addressed in therapy - pts that are noncompliant are at greater risk for relapse
question
What are some disadvantages of using CBT for BP pts?
answer
-pts do not want family involved - focus is depression not mania - hw is time consuming - more sessions may be needed
question
What are some cultural considerations for CBT?
answer
- CBT emphasizes assertiveness, personal independence, verbal ability, rationality, cognition, and behavioral change.
Clinical
Diagnosis
Linguistics
A&P Chapter 6 and 8 – Flashcards 71 terms

David Dunn
71 terms
Preview
A&P Chapter 6 and 8 – Flashcards
question
Appraisal + Diagnosis=
answer
Assessment
question
Types of Appraisals
answer
Informal and Formal
question
Screening
answer
quickly identifies whether or not a person may have a communication disorder; activities or tests that identify individuals who merit further evaluation
question
Informal Appraisal
answer
speech sample, read a passage; Swimming, Grandfather, Rainbow passage
question
Formal Appraisal
answer
Fluharty Preschool Speech and Language Screening Test (2nd Edition), Diagnostics Evaluation of Articulation and Phonology (DEAP), Joliet 3-minute Speech and Language Screen (Revised)
question
Appraisal
answer
collection of data
question
Diagnosis
answer
represents the end result of studying and interpreting these data
question
Assessment
answer
clinical evaluation of the client's disorder, can be divided into appraisal and diagnosis
question
Phonetic/Phonemic Inventory
answer
all sounds child can produce and all sound they can use contrastively that conveys meaning
question
Phonetic/Phonemic Inventory
answer
hearing test, speech sound test (words and conversational speech), stimulability measures, related areas: language, phonological awareness, speech sound perception/discrimination, special considerations (co-morbid; co-existing diagnosis, Down syndrome), oral mech exam
question
Advantages of Artic Tests
answer
standardized scores, inventory of errors in different word positions, standardized administration, detailed scoring procedures (child to child, clinician to clinician)
question
Disadvantages of Artic Tests
answer
may not provide a representative sample (Goldman-Fristoe only looks at consonants in the initial, middle, and final position), may not provide a reliable sample, some tests are designed to just assess speech sounds, not phonological processes, may not assess all sounds in all contexts
question
When selecting the assessment measure, look at the
answer
age of child, suspected problem, adequate sample of speech sounds, need for standardized scores (qualifying for services), type of sound error analysis, specificity/sensitivity (how well does the test do what is is supposed to do)
question
False/Positive
answer
child has disorder when they really do not
question
False/Negative
answer
identifying child is typical when they really have disorder
question
When using speech sound disorder tests, you should...
answer
if there is an error, transcribe the entire word (minimally broad; narrow if necessary), record a continuous speech sample, elicit additional examples of error sounds (additional sounds in different positions; conversational speech)
question
Speech Sound Assessments at NCCU
answer
GFTA 2, Khan-Lewis Phonological Analysis 2, Clinical Assessment of Articulation and Phonology (CAAP), Bankson-Bernthal Test of Phonology, Slosson Articulation Language Test with Phonology, Kaufman Speech Praxis Test for Children, Photo Articulation Test (PAT-3)
question
Arizona Articulation Proficiency Scale-III
answer
good for older clients, pictures are more mature (black and white), sentence test capability (sound production in sentences), severity rating description, vowels and consonants are scored
question
Diagnostic Evaluation of Articulation and Phonology (DEAP) includes:
answer
screening, diagnostic, oral mech exam, articulation measure, phonological disorders measure, good sensitivity and specificity
question
Hodson Assessment of Phonological Patterns-III
answer
preschoolers, elicits and requires transcription of 55 utterances using toys instead of pictures (more of a spontaneous speech sample with showing pictures), both a comprehensive evaluation and screening test, The Phonological Evaluation can be administered in 20 minutes and contains objects and pictures to elicit 50 stimulus words
question
Describing Error Patterns
answer
two-way scoring, five-way scoring, five-way + phonetic transcription of errors
question
Two-way scoring
answer
screenings or during therapy (incorrect/correct)
question
Five-way scoring
answer
omission or deletion, substitution, distortion, addition, correct
question
Stimulability testing
answer
examine ability to produce a misarticulated sound in an appropriate manner, not a formal procedure, "Watch, listen, say what I say", move from isolation to CV to CVC to word level for each sound in error (coarticulation affects that helps child produce sound or hinders child's ability to produce sound), at least two or three trials each, possibly in each position
question
How do we use stimulability information?
answer
sounds that are highly stimulable should be targeted for intervention or sounds that are highly stimulable should NOT be targeted for intervention (if a child is stimulable for a sound, then that should is already in the child's phonetic/phonemic inventory, priority may be sounds that are not in the child's inventory)
question
Language
answer
80% of children with SSD have poor language skills
question
Language
answer
screen at minimum, children with significant speech sound errors may need a comprehensive language assessment, monitor language development -reassess speech as language improves (ex. 3-4 yr old, non-verbal, 1-2 words, 3-4 word sentences; the more they tried to talk, the more speech sound errors they tried to produce; if you have more verbal production, then you have more of what the child can produce)
question
Triangle levels
answer
bottom-metalinguistics, middle-metaphonology, top-phonological awareness
question
Metalinguistics
answer
ability to use language as a tool, ability to manipulate language, see language as a big picture (looking at a word and seeing that it is made of smaller parts)
question
Phonological Awareness
answer
ability to reflect on and manipulate the structure of an utterance; rhyme knowledge, blending (sounds together), segmentation (sounds apart), manipulation of syllables, clusters and phonemes (What is the first sound in the word sit?), children with speech sound disorders perform poorer on these tasks
question
Speech Perception/Discrimination
answer
Does a child have the ability to discriminate sounds to produce them?, research results are inconclusive or indicate the answer no, speech sound discrimination conducted for children who are collapsing at least two phonemes into a single sound (child substitutes -/s/ for /z, sh, 3, tS/
question
Highly unintelligible children
answer
when eliciting a conversational sample, select the topic and provide a structure, give child specific topic (you know what the child may talk about), gloss the child's utterance (repeat what they said; important if you are recording)
question
Young children/children with emerging phonological systems
answer
consider overall development of child, supplement measures with information from caregivers (target words, language at home, objects that child has attempted to label at home, if there is any intent), conduct an independent analysis (look at child's production on it's own, do not compare child to norms)
question
Independent analysis
answer
only analyzes the child's speech production; does not compare child to adult model; does not matter if sound is produced incorrectly in relation to an adult target, some have a rule that sound must appear twice
question
Relational analysis
answer
compare child's production to adult model, traditional but may not be appropriate for this population
question
Bernthal et al (2009)
answer
suggests an expressive vocabulary of at least 50 words (if they are having difficulty saying words, they will not be able to do the Goldman-Fristoe)
question
Independent analysis
answer
inventory of speech sounds; consonants and vowels, word positions, articulatory features, inventory of syllables and word shapes (syllable constraints-are there any syllable shapes they cannot produce); CVC words --> CV
question
Goldman-Fristoe Test of Articulation
answer
Relational Assessment Measure; comparing child's speech productions
question
Inventory of speech sounds
answer
list of speech sounds that client can produce correctly
question
After collecting data across multiple context,
answer
next step is to analyze and interpret the information
question
At the end of your appraisal,
answer
you should have the following (collected in multiple contexts); list of where correct and error productions occur, syllable shapes, initial, medial, and final, prevocalic, intervocalic and postvocalic consonants
question
prevocalic
answer
consonant before the vowel
question
intervocalic
answer
between two vowels, before and after
question
postvocalic
answer
consonants occurring after the vowel
question
You may not get every consonant in EVERY position!
answer
..
question
hat
answer
/h/ initial, pre /t/ final, post
question
shoe
answer
/sh/ initial, pre
question
yellow
answer
/j/ initial, pre /l/ medial, intervocalic
question
pajamas
answer
/p/ initial, pre /d3/ medial, intervocalic /m/ medial, intervocalic /z/ final, post
question
Remember..
answer
when giving a test, loot at test manual and see how they define a consonant in a middle position; if there are more than two syllables, then looking for the medial consonant is unreliable
question
At the end of your appraisal you should have,
answer
distribution of speech sounds, inventory of speech sounds (phonetic and phonemic)
question
Phonetic Inventory
answer
list of speech sounds that client can produce correctly (accuracy may vary according to context)
question
Phonemic Inventory
answer
all the sounds the child can produce contrastively to differentiate meaning (use in different contexts, use different sounds with different words)
question
Phonemic Inventory
answer
analyze errors to determine what sounds are being substituted, deleted, etc., does the child always say /w/ for /r/ or others sounds too? does child substitute /w/ for /l, sh, r/? - substitution patterns
question
Phonemic Inventory
answer
can use minimal pairs to see if child can use sounds contrastively; /wEd/ -/rEd/ (target) child produced /wEd/ for both productions, /wEd/ - /lEd/ (target) child produced /wEd/ for both productions, /rEd/ - /lEd/ (target) child produced /wEd/ and /lEd/ - Child does not know the differene between /w/ and /r/ or /l/; knows that there is a difference between the /r/ and /l/. he is trying to use it contrastively and differentiate sounds
question
Does the child know the difference between producing a /w/ for /r/?
answer
He does not contrastively know the difference between these two sounds but realize that there is a difference between /r/ and /l/. It is possible to produce a sound incorrectly in 9/10 contexts but still get one right; you need to see more of a pattern (2 to 3 times in a sample)
question
Articulation disorder
answer
there are phonemic contrasts - differentiate between sounds, problems are motor-based, speech sound errors are consistent (same error across positions)
question
Phonological disorder
answer
review inventory and distribution of speech sounds, examine syllable shapes and constraints, examine phonological error patterns (15 patterns); place, manner, voicing or phonological analysis (Kahn-Lewis assessment)
question
Phonological Error Pattern Analysis
answer
phonological process analysis is the most common type of phonological error pattern analysis, describe the type and frequency of the phonological processes, child could use a phonological process but not have a disorder (depends on age of child); ex. 20 month old deleting final consonants (expected for 2 yr old, but would not address in therapy), can use standardized test measures (Kahn-Lewis)
question
Phonological processes
answer
standardized test may define a phonological process differently from another; need to use definition presented in test manual, may invalidate the norms if you do not follow directions in manual, idiosyncratic processes-unusual or individually distinct, processes for vowels too
question
idiosyncratic processes
answer
things that no one has see before; unique to that child
question
Need for Intervention
answer
Is there a speech sound disorder?, What is the nature of the problem?, How does it impact communication, intelligibility or severity? (school-system)
question
Intelligibility
answer
perceptual judgment (not exact science), takes into account the number, type, and consistency of errors; vowel or consonant errors
question
Three common measures of intelligibility
answer
open-set, closed-set, rating scale
question
Open-set
answer
transcribe a speech sample and determine the percentage of words identifiable; use stars and checks for positive marks
question
Closed-set
answer
client repeats words or reads from a word list or passage; determine the percentage of words identifiable; Rainbow passage
question
Rating scale
answer
Level 6-Sound errors are occasionally noticed in continuous speech Level 5-Speech is intelligible, although noticeably in error Level 4-Speech is intelligible with careful listening Level 3-Speech intelligibility is difficult Level 2-Speech is usually unintelligible Level 1-Speech is unintelligible
question
Percentage of Intelligibility
answer
number of words understood/number of words understood + number of unintelligible words x 100 ex. 50/150 x 100 = 33%
question
Typical intelligibility
answer
3 yr old - 75% intelligible 4 yr old - 85% intelligible 5 yr old - 95% intelligible
question
Severity
answer
conveys the significance of the impairment, percentage of consonants correct (PCC is one of the most commonly used measures (only consonants correct)
question
PCC
answer
mild - 85-100% mild-moderate - 65-85% moderate-severe - 50-65%
Clinical
Conducting
Epidemiology
Physician Assisted Suicide
Self Defeating Thoughts
Community Nutrition – exam 2 – Flashcards 112 terms

Tiffany Hanchett
112 terms
Preview
Community Nutrition – exam 2 – Flashcards
question
Select the three categories for the indicators of community health status as defined by the RWJF/University of Wisconsin County Health Rankings.
answer
-Premature Death -Birth Outcomes -Health Related Quality of Life
question
Environmental factors included as determinants of disease in epidemiology include:
answer
-living conditions -occupation -geographical locatin (does NOT include nutrition status)
question
The most rigorous evaluation of a dietary hypothesis is the...
answer
randomized controlled trial
question
The most appropriate use of a correlational study is...
answer
generating hypotheses
question
_____ studies examine the relationships among dietary intake, diseases, and other variables as they exist in a population at a particular time.
answer
Cross-sectional
question
_____ studies compare the frequency of events (or disease rates) in different populations
answer
Correlational
question
The relative risk of lung cancer in people with low fruit and vegetable intake compared to those with high intake is about 2.0. This means that the people with....
answer
low fruit/vegetable intake were at twice the risk of developing cancer.
question
Matching: scientific method and description: Problem is identified
answer
observation & question
question
Matching: scientific method and description: A tentative solution to the problem is formulated
answer
hypothesis & prediction
question
Matching: scientific method and description: A study is designed and conducted to collect relevant data
answer
experiment
question
Matching: scientific method and description: Conclusions are drawn based on collected data
answer
results & interpretations
question
Matching: scientific method and description: Integrates conclusions of studies that support the hypothesis
answer
Theory
question
Prevalence
answer
The number of existing cases of a disease in a given population
question
Incidence
answer
The number of new cases of a disease during a specific time period in a defined population
question
Cohort
answer
A well-defined group of people who are studied over a period of time
question
Food balance sheets
answer
National accounts of the annual production of food, changes in stocks, imports/exports, and food distribution
question
Risk
answer
The probability that people will aquire a disease
question
Case-control study
answer
a type of observational analytic study
question
Confounding factor
answer
A "hidden" characteristic that is distributed differently in the study and control groups that may cause an association that the researchers attribute to other factors
question
Determinants
answer
Causes and factors that affect the risk of disease
question
Vital Statistics
answer
Figures pertaining to life events
question
Case
answer
A particular instance of a disease or outcome of interest
question
Case-Control study
answer
-relies on recall or existing records about past exposures -difficult to select suitable comparison group -relatively quick and inexpensive as it requires relatively few subjects
question
Cohort study
answer
-can calculate and compare rates in exposed and unexposed -Need to study large numbers of individuals, which may take years to accomplish -May provide incomplete data from subject loss to follow-up
question
The incidence rate can be determined by _______ studies.
answer
cohort
question
In epidemiological studies, when should the hypotheses be formulated?
answer
At the outset of the study
question
Food consumed away from the home is an example of food consumption data at the ______ level.
answer
household
question
Epidemiology differs from clinical medicine and laboratory science because of its focus on...
answer
populations
question
_____ bias may occur if study participants were self-selected or not randomly assigned.
answer
Selection bias
question
Increased consumption of _____ accounts for the greatest proportion of the overall increase in the U.S. energy intake.
answer
carbohydrates
question
Excessive fat is indicated by a waist circumference of ______ for men and _____ for women
answer
> 40 inches for men & >35 inches for women.
question
The County Health Rankings use what measure from what source of data for the Premature Death category to help establish Community Health Status?
answer
Years of Potential Life Lost (YPLL) from the National vital Statistics System as provided by the CDC's National Center for Health Statistics.
question
_____ studies compare the frequency of events (or disease rates) in different populations.
answer
Correlational
question
Which are not risk factors for heart disease?
answer
High LDL, low LDL
question
By 2030, approximately ___ percent of the population will be over 65 years of age.
answer
21%
question
Which of the following is NOT a public priority issued for the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics?
answer
Increased funding for WIC
question
After a bill is introduced in either body of Congress, the bill is sent...
answer
to a committee
question
Once a bill as been sent from the Congress to the president, the President may...
answer
-sign it into law, at which point it becomes an act OR -veto it, which means it cannot become a law
question
The bill authorizing the WIC supplemental feeding program became Public Law 92-433. The numbers 92-433 stand for:
answer
Bill number 433, enacted by the 92nd Congress.
question
In the House of Representatives, which committee has jurisdiction over revenue bills?
answer
Ways and Means Committee
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
answer
DHHS
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
answer
DHHS
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: Food and Nutrition Service
answer
USDA
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: Food Safety and Inspection Service
answer
USDA
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: National Institutes of Health
answer
DHHS
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: Administration on Aging
answer
DHHS
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion
answer
USDA
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: Public Health Service
answer
DHHS
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: Agricultural Research Service
answer
USDA
question
Matching-Committee w/ Department: Food and Drug Administration
answer
DHHS
question
Expressing Support for Designation of September as National Childhood Obesity Awareness Month
answer
Supports the designation of National Childhood Obesity Awareness Month to raise public awareness and mobilize the country to address childhood obesity
question
Healthy Children through School Nutrition Education Act
answer
Amends section 9A of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act to require local educational agencies participating in the school lunch or breakfast program to include in their school wellness policies the requirement that each student receive 50 hours of nutrition education each school year
question
Fitness Integrated with Teaching Kids Act (FIT Kids Act)
answer
Amends the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 to promote healthy, active lifestyles by students and require annual educational agency report cards to include information on school health and physical education programs
question
Physical Education to Create a Healthier Nation Act
answer
Amends the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 to establish minimum times students should spend in physical education activities
question
Healthy Lifestyles and Prevention Act of America (HeLP America Act)
answer
Aims to improve the health of Americans and reduce health care costs by reorienting the nation's health care system toward prevention, wellness, and health promotion
question
Safe and Complete Streets Act of 2011
answer
Ensures that all users of the transportation system can travel safely and conveniently on streets and highways
question
Safe Routes to School Program Reauthorization Act
answer
Maintains Safe Routes to School as a standalone transportation program
question
nutrition assessment
answer
The measurement of indicators of dietary status to identify impaired nutritional status
question
nutrition monitoring
answer
Assessment of dietary or nutritional status at intermittent times with the aim of detecting changes in the status of a population
question
nutrition surveillance
answer
Continuous assessment of nutritional status for the purpose of detecting changes in trends or distributions so that corrective measures can be taken
question
nutrition screening
answer
A system that identifies specific individuals for nutrition or public health intervention, often at the community level
question
Problem
answer
significant gap between current reality and the desired state of affairs
question
policy agenda
answer
set of problems to which policy makers give their attention
question
institutional agenda
answer
issues that are the subject of public policy
question
budget authority
answer
amounts that govnt agencies are allowed to spend in implementing their programs
question
budget outlays
answer
amounts actually paid out by govnt agencies
question
appropriation
answer
authority to spend money
question
Power players
answer
They are "in the know" and understand the political system
question
Party People
answer
They have strong party allegiance and know their party members
question
willing workers
answer
they will work diligently to get a task completed
question
banner carriers
answer
they feels strongly about an issue but prefer to talk rather than do anything about it
question
critics
answer
they aren't happy with the way things are, but aren't willing to do anything about it.
question
fence sitters
answer
they seldom get involved, but can be motivated on a specific issue.
question
The first step in the policy cycle is:
answer
problem definition and agenda setting
question
_____ is the process in which people concerned about an issue work to bring the issue to the attention of govnt. officials.
answer
Agenda Setting
question
In which phase of the policy-making process are tools/instruments for dealing with the problem chosen?
answer
Policy Adoption
question
A set of nationwide guidelines that specify how the nutritional needs of the population will be met is..
answer
National nutrition policy
question
Of the following choices select ALL that represent the mission of the USDA. Based on sound public policy, the best available science, and efficient management, the mission is to provide leadership on:
answer
-food -nutrition -rural development -agriculture -natural resources
question
The overall mission of the Department of Health and Human Services is to:
answer
promote, protect, and advance the nation's physical and mental health
question
The Food and Drug Administration is an agency of the
answer
Department of Health and Human Services
question
The National Nutrition Monitoring and Related Research Program is operated by:
answer
The USDA & DHHS
question
Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Correlate food consumption and dietary status with incidence of disease over time
answer
historical trends
question
Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Develop food guides and dietary guidance materials
answer
Food programs and guidance
question
Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Establish nutrient requirements such as DRIs
answer
scientific research
question
Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Determine populations at risk of having diets low or high in certain nutrients
answer
assessment of dietary intake
question
Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Develop food labeling policies
answer
regulatory
question
Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Assess progress toward achieving the objectives in Healthy People 2020
answer
monitoring and surveillance
question
The ______ is the dietary interview component of the current NHANES program
answer
What we eat in America survey
question
The ______ has the responsibility for processing the dietary data derived from the food recalls within the What We Eat in America Survey
answer
Agricultural Research Service
question
Which of the following national surveys is/are used most frequently to assess obesity data?
answer
BRFSS and NHANES
question
The _______, with the USDA's division of Food, Nutrition, and Consumer Services, target(s) obesity-related programs and policies
answer
Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion & Food and Nutrition Service
question
The ____ developed the Healthy Eating Index.
answer
Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion
question
The ______ oversees claims of health effects and labeling of food.
answer
Federal Trade Commission
question
In order for the Dietary Guidelines for Americans to be implemented, they must be...
answer
translated into food-specific behaviors for consumers.
question
Total Diet Study
answer
-It is designed to assess organic and elemental contaminants of the US food supply -The survey is conducted annually by the FDA -The selected minerals in Food Survey is a component
question
According to 'Got Milk' in the Back Story audio file, what was the public health push in 1957 to reduce heart disease directed towards and why?
answer
reducing milk intake because it contains cholesterol
question
In 1968, a review of nutrition experts, studies, and public opinion was begun by what committee in the US legislature?
answer
The senate health and nutrition and McGoverns
question
What were the primary health and nutrition concerns driving the work of the committee beginning in 1968?
answer
Extreme hunger nationwide and Increased incidence of heart disease
question
The objective of this Commitee's interviews with authors of nutrition and health research studies and experts in nutrition was to:
answer
develop recommendations about what Americans should eat to prevent heart disease
question
The final wording on one of the guidelines from the Committee was changed from what to what?
answer
eat less meat became eat lean meat
question
The systematic review - Common Syndromes in Older Adults Related to Primary and Secondary Prevention - was commissioned by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force. The objectives of the review, according to the abstract of the report include
answer
-to create a systematic synthesis of the published evidence about the prevalence of eight geriatric syndromes -to analyze the prevalence of geriatric syndromes and their association with survival of the elderly and their institutionalization - to review models that report survival in the elderly populations to determine whether complex mortality models added more information than simpler models
question
If you wanted to validate that the primary or secondary intervention programs your study group wants to present to class have high levels of evidence supporting their use, of the following resources, select those you could reference for evidence analysis.
answer
A.Cochrane Reviews funded by multiple International Agencies B.Nutrition Evidence Library (NEL) established by the USDA Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion C.The Evidence Analysis Library (EAL) of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics D. Agency for Healthcare Research Quality (AHRQ) established by the Department of Health and Human Services
question
Students in class reported the following findings - listed on the black board in class -- The TEP, the Technical Expert Panel, selected studies with geriatric syndromes (but not diseases) for this review according to:
answer
question
Select all of the correct answers. Most of the studies used, 62 percent, were prospective cohort studies or national surveys including:
answer
B. The National Survey of Self-Care and Aging C. The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey D. The National Health Interview Survey
question
The agency that funded the report - The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality - resides in what Operating Division of what Federal Department? (Text: page 174 - 179)
answer
The Public Health Service of the Department of Health and Human Services
question
What is the most typical way in which epidemiologists work toward controlling and preventing health problems?
answer
Formulation of health policies
question
The epidemiological method was initially used to investigate, control, and prevent epidemics of
answer
infectious diseases.
question
In epidemiological terms, smoking cigarettes would be an example of a(n) _____ risk factor and the data would be collected through the _____________of the NNMRRP.
answer
behavioral, BRFSS
question
Nutritional epidemiology..
answer
question
Methods of assessing household food consumption include which of the following?
answer
Records of number of meals eaten at home or away from the home
question
Epidemiology differs from clinical medicine and laboratory science because of its focus on
answer
populations
question
If passed, which of the following bills considered in Congressional Committee (U.S.) would have the most potential for increasing the public workforce in dietetics? Select all that apply.
answer
Clinical
Observe And Record
Psychology
Storage And Retrieval
Training
Psych 110 Chapter 1 – Flashcards 25 terms

Tiffany Hanchett
25 terms
Preview
Psych 110 Chapter 1 – Flashcards
question
Birth of Psychology
answer
December 1879, Germany's University of Leipzig, Wilhelm Wundt
question
Wilhelm Wundt
answer
created an experiment seeking to measure "atoms of the mind"; late 1800s, CREATED THE FIRST PSYCHOLOGY LAB
question
Structuralism
answer
early school of thought promoted by Wundt and Tichener; used introspection to reveal the structure of the human mind, mental processes, cognitive, short and long term memory
question
Introspection
answer
Unreliable, looking inward
question
Introspection and Structuralism
answer
As introspection declines so did structuralism
question
Tichner
answer
Wundt's student
question
Functionalism
answer
early school of thought promoted by James and influenced by Darwin; explored how mental and behavioral processes function ---how they enable the organism to adapt, survive, and flourish
question
William James
answer
known as the father of psychology, professor at Harvard University, functionalist, studied Steele of consciousness
question
Mary Calkins
answer
mentored by William James, was denied her Ph.D. By Harvard because she was a woman, first female president of APA (American Psyology Association)
question
Margret Washburn
answer
first woman to receive a psychology Ph.D.
question
What event defined the start of scientific psychology?
answer
Scientific psychology began in Germany in 1879 when Wilhelm Wundt open the first psychology laboratory.
question
Why did introspection fail as a method for understanding how the mind works?
answer
People's self-reports varied, depending on the experience and the person's intelligence and verbal ability.
question
______ used introspection to define the mind's makeup, _______ focused on how mental processes enable us to adapt, survive, and flourish.
answer
Structuralism, functionalism
question
John B. Watson and later B.F. Skinner
answer
dismissed introspective and refined psychology as "the scientific study of observable behavior"
question
John B. Watson
answer
working with Rayner, championed psychology as the science of behavior, famous for "Little Albert"-- says phobias are made, phobias are conditioned and can be unconditioned, 1920s
question
B.F. Skinner
answer
following in footsteps of Watson, 1950s, rejected introspection, studied how consequences shape behavior
question
Behaviorism
answer
the view that psychology (1)should be an objective science that (2) studies behavior without reference to metal processes. Most research psychologists today's agree with (1) but not (2)
question
Freudian Psychology
answer
emphasizes the ways the ways our unconscious thought processes and our emotional responses to childhood experiences affect our behavior
question
Humanistic psychologists
answer
historically significant perspective that emphasizes the growth potential of healthy people; how current environmental influences can nurture or limit our growth potential, and the importance of having our need for love and acceptance stratified, counterculture of the 1960s
question
Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow
answer
Thought behaviorism and Freudian psychology was too limiting
question
Cognitive Psychology
answer
scientifically explored how we perceive, process, and remember information, and even why we can get anxious or depressed
question
Cognitive Neuroscience
answer
the interdisciplinary study of the brain activity linked with cognition (including perception, thinking, memory, and language); studying brain waves
question
Psychology
answer
the science of behavior and mental processes
question
Mental processes
answer
the internal, subjective experiences we infer from behavior----sensations, perceptions, dreams, thoughts, beliefs, and feelings
question
How did cognitive revolution effect the field of psychology?
answer
It recaptured the felid's early interest in mental processes and made them legitimate topics for scientific study.
Clinical
Data
Drop Down Menu
Health Computing
Healthcare
Medical/Clerical Assisting
Transcription
GG MOA 160 EHR chapter 1 – Flashcards 63 terms

Darren Farr
63 terms
Preview
GG MOA 160 EHR chapter 1 – Flashcards
question
the ability of electronic systems to share information in compatible formats.
answer
interoperability
question
the patients stated primary reason for seeking treatment.
answer
chief complaint
question
screen that contains the amount owed and other billing details.
answer
ledger
question
an EHR function that facilitates automated prescribing.
answer
CPOE-computerized physician order entry
question
a fixed sum of money usually paid at the time medical services are rendered.
answer
copayment
question
an electronic format that speeds the claims process for physicians and suppliers.
answer
HIPAA 5010
question
a register of business transactions for a single day.
answer
day sheet
question
data entry using structured data entry or voice recognition.
answer
electronic transcription
question
one of the eight core functions of an EHR designated by the IOM(institute of medicine).
answer
reporting and population health
question
an audit is performed by the office manager to investigate whether appropriate employees have viewed the contents of a high profile patients chart. t or f
answer
true
question
the medical record contains legal documents but is not itself a legal document. t or f
answer
false
question
the medicals assistants typical duties will be modified with the implementation of the EHR. t or f
answer
true
question
clinical decision support tools are effective only if the provider chooses to use them. T or f
answer
true
question
an EHR system can help the provider and medical staff plan and coordinate care for a patient with a chronic illness. t or f
answer
true
question
automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription. t or f
answer
true
question
reduced productivity is to be expected for a period of time during the conversion of an EHR system. t or f
answer
true
question
communication among various treating healthcare providers, pharmacies, and allied healthcare workers will be limited until EHR interoperability has been achieved. t or f
answer
true
question
one of the core functions of the EHR includes the ability to assist providers with treatment protocol. t or f
answer
true
question
it is possible for individuals to penetrate EHR systems despite security systems. t or f
answer
true
question
EHR systems make it unnecessary for office staff to be familiar with medical terminology. t or f
answer
false
question
most EHR systems hold the ability to handle clinical and administrative functions without purchasing separate practice management software. t or f
answer
true
question
professional organizations offer continuing education for the core skills of their discipline and do not have any opportunities for learning about EHR. t or f
answer
false
question
what is a medical record?
answer
a complete physical collection of an individuals healthcare information.
question
in the us and other developed countries, healthcare providers are required by law to report new cases of HIV/AIDS and other communicable disease to the...
answer
CDC-centers for disease control and prevention
question
clinical information includes...
answer
medical list, allergies list, immunization records, laboratory records, pathology records, hospital records, history and physical assessment findings, risk assessment, preventive services, progress notes, vital signs and growth charts, imaging test results
question
administrative information is...
answer
information that the administrative staff uses from the medical record in order to perform front office activities such as maintaining appointments, storing patient contact information, and creating patient correspondence
question
administrative information includes...
answer
patient demographics, name of emergency contact, patient correspondence, referral and consultation letters, prior authorizations, insurance information and copies of insurance cards, HIPAA 5010 claims status, billing account ledgers, superbills, day sheets, appointment history, diagnoses and procedure codes
question
legal forms or documentation that can be part of a medical record.
answer
medical releases, general procedure forms, HIPAA forms, advanced directives, living wills, disclosure logs, healthcare power of attorney forms
question
an individual who is responsible for inputting patient information into the medical record is called a...
answer
documenter
question
who is the person/s to document information in the medical record?
answer
receptionist or other member of the front office, next it is, usually, the medical assistant and then the physician
question
who owns the medical record?
answer
the individual who created them such as, if a private practice created the medical record they own it, if a hospital created the record they own it and so on.
question
who owns the information within the medical record?
answer
the patient(the patient has the right to a copy but the original record never leaves the facility that owns it)
question
the eight core functions of an EHR system.
answer
1. health information and data 2. results management 3. order management 4. decision support 5. electronic communication and connectivity 6. patient support 7. administrative processes 8. reporting and population health
question
the eight core functions of the EHR system was created by...
answer
IOM (institute of medicine)
question
an electronic patient record created and maintained by a medical practice or hospital.
answer
EMR-electronic medical record
question
an interconnected aggregate of all the patients health records, pulled from multiple providers and healthcare facilities.
answer
EHR-electronic health record
question
some of the capabilities of the commercial EHR...
answer
provider review of incoming lab data, reports storage of office forms electronic signature insertion fax and messaging functions to transmit prescriptions reminders that patient is do for a screening summary and print functions and more...
question
clinical decision support tools allow providers to do the following.
answer
1. ensure that the patients care compiles with established screening recommendations 2.plan treatment in accordance with evidence-treatment guidelines 3. generate patient data reports and summaries 4. complete documentation templates specific to the patients diagnosis 5. perform data base searches to identify patients who meet specific criteria 6. share best practices regarding treatment and diagnosis of disease 7. reduce the amount of testing 8. improve clinical outcomes and reduce misdiagnoses 9. reduce cost for unnecessary testing 10. improve patient safety
question
allows efficient handling of all front office administrative procedures, including entering patient demographics, tracking billing and insurance information, scheduling appointments, and processing payments for patient visits.
answer
PMS-practice management software
question
what is socioeconomic data information?
answer
age, sex, marital status, education, occupation, and perhaps religious preference
question
the most common way of appointment scheduling is a ....
answer
fixed schedule-when a patient is asked to appear in the office at a specific date and time
question
typical fixed appointments range from...
answer
10 to 30 minutes for acutely ill established patients to one hour for new patient visits
question
accounting procedures performed by practice management software include...
answer
management and creation of statements, generation of day sheets, and completion of HIPAA 5010 claim format
question
HIPAA 5010
answer
a standard electronic format that speeds claims processing for physicians and suppliers
question
advantages of EHR's
answer
improved quality and continuity of care increased efficiency improved documentation easier accessibility at the point of care better security reduced expenses improved job satisfaction improved patient satisfaction
question
disadvantages of EHR's
answer
lack of interoperability cost employee resistance regimentation security gaps
question
the basic skills needed to help you use an EHR effectively.
answer
1. a working knowledge of medical terminology and anatomy and physiology 2. basic typing and computer skills 3. organizational skills 4. interpersonal skills
question
cross-training
answer
is being able to perform more than one duty or skill across various task areas
question
the EHR aids in billing and coding tasks in the following ways.
answer
submission of superbills creation of billing statements assignment of procedural and diagnostic codes linking of procedural and diagnostic codes auditing organizing office finance generating prior authorization forms monitoring submission and follow up of claims
question
account ledger
answer
an accounting billing document that lists services provided, copayments made by the patient, reimbursement received from the patients insurance company and outstanding amount owed
question
audit
answer
a review of employee activity with in the EHR system, including an examination of which files were accessed or modified, when and why
question
CCHIT -certification commission for healthcare information technology
answer
a recognized certification body for EHR systems and their networks.
question
CDS-clinical decision support
answer
a set of patient-centered tools embedded within EHR software that can be used to improve patient safety, ensure that care conforms to protocol for specific conditions, reduce duplicate or unnecessary care and its associated cost
question
CPOE-computerized provider order entry
answer
an EHR function that allows the physician to order medications and tests. reduces prescribing errors, delays and duplication, and simplify inventory and billing processes
question
continuity of care
answer
a key aspect of quality that encompasses planning and coordination of care, communication among members of the healthcare team, and accessibility and transportability of information
question
day sheet
answer
a register for daily business transactions; also called a day journal
question
electronic transcription
answer
data entry into the EHR using handwriting recognition, voice recognition, electronic sentence building, scanning and other means
question
encounter
answer
a documented interaction or visit between patient and healthcare provider
question
interoperability
answer
the ability to separate EHR systems to share information in compatible formats
question
PIF-patient information form
answer
a form used to gather information about the patient, including basic demographic information, medical insurance data, and emergency contact
question
PMS-practice management software
answer
software used in the medical office to accomplish administrative tasks
question
structured data entry
answer
documentation using controlled vocabulary via preloaded data, drop down boxes, radio buttons and sentence builders
question
third-party payer
answer
a party other than the patient, spouse, parent or guardian who is responsible for paying all or part of the patients medical costs, typically the insurance company
Clinical
Diagnosis
Medical Terminology
Chapter 14: Medical Records Management; Key Terms – Flashcards 12 terms

Anthony Richie
12 terms
Preview
Chapter 14: Medical Records Management; Key Terms – Flashcards
question
Accession record
answer
Log book used to assign numbers to correspondence or patients
question
Caption
answer
Method of designation used on file guides
question
Cross-reference
answer
Note in file to direct reader to specific record that may be filed under more than one name/subject (Married, maiden, foreign names)
question
Indexing
answer
Selecting name, subject, or number under which to file a record and determining the order in which the units should be considered
question
Key unit
answer
First indexing unit of the filing segment
question
Out guide or sheet
answer
Card, folder, or slip or paper inserted temporarily in files to replace a record that has been retrieved from the files.
question
Problem-oriented medical record (POMR)
answer
Patient chart record keeping that uses a sheet at a prominent location in the chart to list vital id data. Problems are identified by number that corresponds to charting.
question
Purging
answer
Method to maintain order in files by separating active from inactive and closed files
question
SOAP/SOAPER
answer
Subjective impressions Objective clinical evidence Assessment or diagnosis Plans for further studies Education for patient Response of patient to education and care given
question
Source-oriented medical record (SOMR)
answer
Patient chart record keeping that has separate sections for different sources of patient info. Such as lab reports, pathology reports, progress notes
question
Tickler file
answer
System to remind of action to be taken on a certain date
question
Unit
answer
Each part of a name, words, or numbers that will be indexed and coded for filing
Clinical
Veterinary Medicine
lecture 1 exotics 73 terms

Jill Lopez
73 terms
Preview
lecture 1 exotics
question
what is the avzmt?
answer
academy of veterinary zoological medicine technicians
question
technicians role
answer
History is very important Exams will take longer Restraint can be complicated Bad information - HUSBANDRY, habitat and diet Bad websites Know the good ones! Stay up on state regs and CE
question
what does Louisiana: Category: B* mean?
answer
Summary of Law: No person may possess bears, cougars, or non-human primates as "pets." If you possessed one of these animals prior to the passage of the regulation you are grandfathered in. No person may possess venomous or large constricting snakes (defined as more than 12 feet long) without first obtaining a permit.
question
Uropygial (preen) gland:
answer
On dorsal surface at upper base of the tail Preening stimulates secretion of an oily, fatty substance Bird uses beak to spread the oil throughout its feathers to clean and waterproof them
question
Powder Down Feathers
answer
Grow continuously at the base Disintegrate at their tip Create waxy powder that spreads throughout the rest of the plumage Birds without a uropygial gland have abundant powder down feathers
question
Alula bone
answer
originates from the wrist and carries the alula feathers (steering feathers)
question
Metacarpal bones
answer
join with the second and third fingers near the distal end of the wing Help support the primary flight feathers
question
Pinioning
answer
is a simple surgical that involves removing the end of the wing to render the bird incapable flight permanently.
question
Hearing and Equilibrium
answer
Ears are located behind and slightly below the eyes Columella: single bone in middle ear External ear is often bordered with auricular feathers
question
respiratory system of a bird

answer
question
lungs of a bird

answer
question
Air Sacs

answer
Thin walled, lightly vascularized membranes Paired - cranial thoracic, caudal thoracic, cervical, and abdominal air sacs Unpaired - interclavicular air sac Reservoirs for air Provide warmth and moisture to facilitate diffusion of air through capillaries Aid in thermoregulation Help provide buoyancy
question
Oral Cavity
answer
Trachea: cartilaginous rings. Can be long and coiled in few species Syrinx: enlargement of trachea above lungs Muscles, air sacs, and vibrating membranes Vocalization complexity depends on number of muscles present in syrinx
question
urogenital system

answer
left male right female
question
Canary & Finch
answer
Canaries The canary — among the most popular and varied pet birds in the world — is well known for his vocal talents and vibrant color. Canaries are actually finches, and they can be green or yellow, bright orange, or even brown. Still, when folks think of them today, they most often conjure up a brilliantly colored yellow bird, thanks to the Sylvester-outsmarting Tweety Bird. If you want a singer, make sure your new bird is a male — female canaries don't sing. This bird is perfect for beginners who aren't sure they want as much interaction as some other species require. The canary is happy to hang out in a cage and entertain you with beauty and song. In fact, they'd rather not be handled. Because they don't desire handling, the canary is a good children's pet, providing song and beauty and allowing youngsters to observe the wonder of birds close up. Finches The finch is another hands-off bird, a little charmer who embodies the word "vivacious." Finches are flashy, fast moving, and fun to watch, with a lively, constant twittering that's considerably below the decibel level parrots are capable of attaining. Finches do better in a social situation, so plan on buying two or more and giving them a cage with plenty of space to exercise their wings — these birds get around by flying and they don't climb for exercise. Also remember that when they're too crowded, territorial cage battles between cage mates will erupt. And Because they're perfectly content to live without handling, finches make good caged birds for an older child's room.
question
Budgies
answer
Budgies (Parakeets) Because of their small price tag and easy availability, budgerigars (or parakeets) are often treated as a throwaway bird — easily purchased, easily disposed of, easily replaced. This deplorable attitude keeps people from valuing these birds for their affectionate personality — some budgies even become very good talkers, albeit with tiny little voices. Colors now reach far beyond the green or blue you remember from the pet department at the dime store. They're usually timid, at first, but budgies can be tamed by gentle, patient handling and can bond closely to their human companions. For a very gentle child, budgies are ideal pets. Choosing a good pet store is important when buying any pet, but especially important for buying budgies. Mass-produced birds are harder to tame because they haven't been socialized, and they're more prone to life-threatening diseases.
question
Cockatiels
answer
Cockatiels are an exceptionally popular bird, and justifiably so. These small parrots are flat-out loving, and they live to snuggle and be petted. If you only recognize the gray bird with orange patches, you may be surprised at how many colors are available, thanks to the work of some energetic breeders. Some cockatiels learn to talk, but many are better at whistling. This bird is another who's a good choice for children as long as they understand the need for careful handling.
question
Quakers , Senegals & Parrotlets
answer
Quaker Parakeets Green and silvery Quakers are active and upbeat, and they like to vocalize. Some learn to talk, while others love to whistle. They can all be loving if they're socialized when young and given consistent, respectful handling. Note that these birds are illegal in a handful of states because they are considered a threat to native agriculture. (For information on restrictions where you live, check with your nearest Department of Agriculture or fish and game authorities.) Still, the Quaker is well worth considering if you live in places where they are legal. Poicephalus Parrots and Parrotlets The small African parrots known collectively as poicephalus are an easy-going bunch. Senegals are probably the most common, a handsome little bird with a gray head, green back and wings, and yellow-orange underside. Other species in the group include the Meyer's, Jardine, cape, red belly, and brown head — all known for their small size (a little bigger than a cockatiel) and affectionate personalities. They aren't the best talkers here, but their noise level is pretty low. After they decide you're trustworthy, these birds are especially fond of having their heads and necks scratched — in fact, they beg for it, tipping their heads and leaning over to expose their necks for a good scratch. Don't let the small size of the Parrotlet fool you; these 5-inch dynamos are all parrot — active, inquisitive, loving, and demanding. Apple-green or blue in hue, parrotlets are more quiet than some of their larger relatives, but some do develop the gift of gab.
question
Pionus & Conures
answer
Pionus Parrots Pionus are sometimes overlooked because they're not as flashy as other parrots. But what they lack in bright colors they make up for with winning personalities. These are slightly larger than the poicephalus, but still small enough to be easy to keep and handle. Their personalities are more sedate, and they're not excessively loud. (Nor are they considered fantastic talkers, although they're certainly capable of learning a few phrases.) The word most connected with the pionus is "sweet," and it fits. And when you're in love with one, you can appreciate the subtle beauty of these birds — the plumage of a healthy pionus has an almost iridescent quality about it. Pyrrhura Conures As pets, you've got about a dozen varieties of conures to choose from. The best bet for new owners is the green-cheeked or maroon-bellied conures, which are both much, much quieter than the more popular sun conure (but then, so are some rock bands). They are affectionate and playful. Some may even grace you with a few acquired phrases.
question
Amazons
answer
Amazon Parrots The Amazons are a little bigger and more expensive than many of the other birds on this list, but they're just too darn appealing to leave off it. Amazons are among the best talkers around, especially the yellow-naped species. They are also beautiful, brilliant, and love to clown around. They love to be in the limelight, and they seem to feed off the attention they attract. Some Amazon species are easier to live with than others. For beginners, the lilac-crowns, blue-fronted, red-lored, and white-fronted are good choices. These are less demanding, quieter, and all around are easy to handle. The problem for beginners: Amazons can be too smart. As with any parrot, you need to be sure you're giving your bird lots of structured socialization, a fair share of toys, and plenty of exercise
question
types of amazons
answer
1. Blue Fronted Amazon Parrots 2. Red Lored Amazon Parrots 3. Orange-Winged Amazon Parrots 4. Yellow-Naped Amazon Parrots 5. Double Yellow Headed Amazon Parrots 6. Lilac-Crowned Amazon Parrots 7. Mealy Amazon Parrots 8. Green Cheeked Amazon Parrots 9. White Fronted (Spectacled) Amazon Parrots
question
Lovebirds
answer
Peach-Faced Lovebirds Peach-faced lovebirds are beautiful, active, and playful. A well-socialized peach-faced can be your best pal for years, if you don't leave him to waste away alone in a cage. When hand-raised and socialized with humans, these little guys love to be handled, carried around in your shirt pocket or on your collar. They're very affectionate, not overly loud, and capable of picking up a few phrases.
question
Avian Examination
answer
Complete Physical Exam Ophtho, Aural, Oral Feather check Abnormal Molting Development Damage or stress bars Ectoparasites Feather loss Body weight (usually in grams) Check Keel for muscle mass, to thin or too fat Fecal testing (Gram stain, direct smear, float) Routine screening bloodwork (CBC, Chemistry Profile) Client education & counseling Behavior Nutrition Husbandry Quarantine (when applicable) Annual veterinary health exam
question
Sternum
answer
Large and concave Site of origin of flight muscles In some species, muscles attach to large bony ridge or keel In flightless birds sternum lacks a keel
question
Blood Draw
answer
How much blood can I safely withdraw from a healthy avian patient? 1% of a patients body weight in blood can be safely withdrawn for diagnostic testing. Example: 30g Budgerigar, 0.3mls of blood can be safely withdrawn in a healthy patient. 1kg Blue & Gold Macaw, 10mls of blood can be safely withdrawn. In the larger birds, although you may be able to take 10mls of blood, one should only withdraw the amount needed for testing. Always be sure to gather your required tubes and sampling supplies prior to venipuncture to avoid clotting. What are suitable venipuncture sites in the bird? --Jugluar vein (right is generally larger than the left) --Basilic vein (wing vein) --Medial metatarsal vein (inner distal leg)
question
Restraint
answer
Put bird down if getting to stressed Losing grip, panting, eyes close, if you/vet are worried
question
Wings

answer
Wing clipping Owner Choice and some times for safety or medically warranted Finches and canaries are always flighted - these are "watching only" birds that most people don't handle. Other small birds that live in an aviary setting are often also left flighted, including budgies, cockatiels, and lovebirds. Parrots that are "hands on" companions often have their wing feathers clipped so that they can't fly away. Clipping doesn't hurt the bird - only the lower half of 7 to 10 mature flight feathers on the wing are clipped, and these don't have a blood supply or nerve endings - it's like a haircut. However, flying does psychologically benefit a bird, so you can keep a hands-on companion flighted if you're very careful about windows and doors, and you parrot-proof your home, removing all of the dangers that a roaming bird can find. All birds left outside of the cage should be closely supervised. Proper Wing Clipping should be comfortable to the bird and the owner
question
Feather Picking
answer
Quickly stop behavior Use pool noddle Bubble collars Disc collars
question
Nails and Beak
answer
Nail and beak trimming Birds need very little actual grooming - they do most of the grooming themselves. They bathe themselves and they preen their feathers into perfection. When people say, "bird grooming," they are referring to clipping the wings, clipping the nails, and conditioning/trimming the beak. A professional should do all of these grooming chores until you know how to do them, with the exception of the beak - only an avian veterinarian should tend to your bird's beak. You can seriously injure the beak if you do something wrong, and the beak is very sensitive. Nail trimming can be traumatic for a bird, especially if it has to be restrained to have it done. Also, the nail has a blood supply, called the "quick," and if you cut into it the nail will bleed. You can stop the bleeding with styptic powder or flour. A really great, non-traumatic way to clip nails is the "sneak up" method. Hold your bird on your hand and talk to him in an animated way to distract him. Then, sneak up on the very tip of one nail and clip it off quickly and then turn around or do something to distract the bird from the fact that you just did that. You can do one nail a day, and in 8 days you'll have all of them done. Remember to only clip the very tip of the nail. Don't try to get too ambitious with this method! A bird's beak can get flaky and overgrown, often due to a poor diet, but sometimes just because the beak is built that way. The beak is made of keratin, the same material as our own nails. An avian vet can "condition" the beak using a file to smooth and shape it, and then oil it to keep it from drying. Don't do this yourself!
question
Nails and Beak Trim

answer
Beak trim - be careful with Chipped beaks can cause inappetance
question
Parasites (External)
answer
Most are seenon outdoor birds/wildlife Can be treated with Ivermectin Knemidokoptes spp. - inhabits the featherless areas of birds, typically seen in Budgies
question
Parasites (internal)
answer
Giardia and Trichomonas - Rx Flagyl Coccidian Species - Rx SMZ Nematodes - Rx Praziquantel
question
Heavy Metal Toxicity
answer
Due to items found in and around caging Hard to determine Lead and Zinc are top 2 to test for
question
Signs of illness in birds
answer
You'll often hear that birds hide the signs of illness until it's too late, and the illness is either too far advanced to be cured, or the bird is belly up in the cage. The truth is, if you know your bird really well, you can easily notice the subtle signs of something being "not quite right." Here are some signs of avian illness: Change of attitude. A typically active, playful bird that becomes listless and withdrawn may be feeling ill. Sleeping too much. A change in your bird's sleeping habits can indicate illness, especially if the bird is sleeping on two feet with its feathers fluffed up to keep it warm. Sometimes an ill bird will crouch on the bottom of the cage. Discharge from nares: The nares are your bird's nostrils and are found at the base of the beak. Discharge or bubbles from the beak: This is indicative of a respiratory infection. Clicking from the beak: A clicking sound that happens as your bird breathes indicates air sac mites - these usually occur in finches and canaries. Tail bobbing: A bird whose tail is bobbing (going back and forth) noticeably while at rest usually has labored breathing. Don't mistake this kind of tail bobbing for the kind that accompanies singing or breathing heavy after exercise. Vomiting: Vomiting is different from regurgitating, which is what a bird does when courting another bird (or you!) or to feed young. Vomit usually sticks to the feathers around the face and the chest. Lack of upkeep: An ill bird will usually look unkempt and ratty because it isn't preening as much. Being picked on by cage mates: Birds will pick on other birds that are ill, and may even kill the weakened one. If you notice any of these signs, take your bird to your avian vet right away.
question
Traveling with your bird
answer
Traveling with your bird is easy if you take some precautions and steps to make it as stress-free as possible. Here are some important travel tips: If you're traveling by air, make sure that you have an airline-approved carrier that will fit under your seat. Do not put your bird into cargo! Call your airline when you book your ticket and ask about their bird policy. Some airlines are no longer accepting birds in the cabin, so don't get stuck at the airport! Book your bird onto the flight when you make your reservation. Most airlines have limit on how many pets they take per flight, so make sure that your bird has its flying papers. Make sure that you take your bird's health certificate with you. You will not be allowed on the plane without it. If you're traveling by car, your bird should always be in a carrier. If you can't get the safety belt around the carrier, use bungee cords to secure it to the seat. It's very dangerous to allow your bird to ride freely in the car. If you have to leave the car, always take your bird with you - the car may become overheated, or a thief may spot your bird and steal it. Birds are not allowed on Amtrak, but they are allowed on some local trains - call to be sure and always have your bird in a carrier. The same applies for busses. In case of an emergency, write your bird's name and species, your phone number, and your veterinarian's phone number in permanent ink on the bird's carrier, and draw an arrow on each side to indicate which way is "up." Most birds are fairly calm inside the carrier, but some may panic. If you have a panicky bird, line the entire carrier with soft towels to avoid any injury from thrashing. Line the carrier with paper towels. Put your bird's favorite food inside the carrier along with a shallow dish of water or a water bottle (if your bird knows how to use one). Or, you can include a dish of cut fruit, like apples and oranges, so that your bird can get moisture from them. If the trip is long, check on his water often to make sure that it hasn't spilled. It's a good idea to clip your bird's wing feathers before the trip in case the carrier opens
question
What To Do If Your Bird Flies Away
answer
It's a tragic moment for any bird keeper to watch a beloved bird fly away - and it happens quite often. Flying away isn't just a result of not having the wing feathers properly clipped. It's also a result of a carelessly opened window or door, and sometimes it's a matter of misjudging the bird, thinking that it will always stay on your shoulder, or that its wing feathers haven't grown in yet. Here's what to do if your bird flies away: Try to keep an eye on the bird and call for it to come down from wherever it has perched, usually a tree or other high spot. If you can, call someone to come outside and bring you the bird's food container, or something else the bird likes. If you have to get it yourself, move quickly. Try to call the bird down using the food. If that doesn't work (and most of the time it doesn't because the bird is scared or distracted), go inside quickly and get the bird's cage, or any cage, and the bird's friend (another bird) if it has one. The other bird will call to its friend to come back. Prop the empty cage door open and put food and water inside, then sit back a few feet (maybe out of sight) and wait for the bird to come back. If it does, rush over and shut the door. If your bird is friendly, try climbing a ladder as close to it as possible and lure it down with food. If you can't get your bird to come down, wait until nighttime when the bird will have to find a roost. If you know where the bird is when darkness falls, then you can use a ladder to reach him - grab him very quickly or use a net so that he doesn't go flying off into the darkness. If your bird has flown out of sight, get in your car and drive around looking for it. Do anything possible to locate it in the daylight hours. If you can't find your bird, immediately call all of the local animal shelters, veterinary offices, and pet stores and inform them about your lost bird. Someone may find your bird and take it to one of these places. Make up flyers with your bird's photo, a brief description of your bird, and offer a reward (but don't say how much the reward is). Post the flyers in high traffic areas within a 10-mile radius of where the bird was lost. As a preventative measure, if your bird can talk, try to teach it your phone number - it's a long shot, but it may help to bring the bird home if it is lost. You can also make a recording of your bird's vocalizations and play it outside if your bird is lost - the sound may bring it back. Make sure that your larger bird is micro chipped and that the chip's number is registered in a database.
question
Nutrition
answer
Seeds vs pelleted diet-seeded diet best for smaller birds Peanuts..or no peanuts ( can be fatty) Fruit, Veggies, whatever you are eating NO Avocado or Chocolate-TOXIC
question
Husbandry
answer
Proper Caging Proper perches Proper Substrate
question
Household Hazards
answer
Common household dangers Birds are sensitive creatures that are prone to injury or illness from common household items. Things we don't often see as dangerous can be deadly for birds. Here are a few: Standing water. Birds have been found drowned in water glasses and even dog bowls. Keep toilet lids down, Jacuzzi tubs and fish tanks/bowls covered, and don't let dishes soak in the sink while your bird is out of its cage. Ceiling fans: Take down your ceiling fans or make absolutely sure that they're off when your bird is out of the cage. You may think that he can't fly that high, but you'd be surprised! Lead: Stained glass, fishing weights, and old, chipping paint contains lead, which is as deadly for your bird as it is for you. Keep these items far from your bird's reach. Scented candles, potpourri, and air fresheners: Anything that scents the air using chemicals is very dangerous for your bird. You can get the same effect by boiling cinnamon sticks and scented teas - just don't leave them on the stove when your bird is loose! Nonstick surfaces: Nonstick surfaces found in cookware, space heaters, popcorn makers, and various other appliances, emit toxic fumes when heated that actually kill birds without warning. Hot pots and pans: A pot full of boiling water might look like a great bathing spot for your bird - very bad! And worse, the pot may be full of hot oil or sauce. Keep your bird away from the kitchen when you're cooking. Glass and mirrors: A flighted bird may think that clean glass and mirrors are empty space and can be seriously injured or killed by flying into them. Sticker your glass and mirrors, or keep them dirty! Open windows and doors: Many birds fly away and are never recovered. Keep your window screens intact and be careful when you go in and out of the house. Wires: Wrap and put away all wires - your bird may become curious and chew on them. New carpeting: New carpet emits fumes that are deadly to birds
question
Quick fixes for fumes, oil, and overheating
answer
Occasionally, an "incident" will happen that doesn't necessarily require an immediate trip to the veterinarian, or perhaps your vet is closed when you have a problem and have to deal with it yourself. Here are three problems that can befall companion birds: Fumes: Sometimes you are unaware of fumes in the air, but may notice your bird acting strangely - perhaps you're using your fireplace for the first time that season (in which case the bird should be out of the room!). The bird may become woozy, have a seizure, or even lose consciousness. Remove the bird from the area immediately and ventilate the room. Removing the bird from the source of the fumes may be enough to bring him around. If not, take him to the avian vet immediately. Oil on the feathers. It happens sometimes that birds will accidentally get into household oil, which is actually incredibly hazardous because oil prevents the feathers from insulating the bird. If your bird does get into oil, the first thing to do is dust him thoroughly with baking flour and then gently wipe it off. Next, fill a bowl or the sink with enough lukewarm water to cover him up to the neck, and add some grease fighting dish soap - just enough to make the water sudsy. Dunk the bird and very gently rub the feathers - do not dunk its head! Then dry the bird with paper towels and put it in a warm place to continue drying. Hopefully these two steps should be enough to remove the majority of oil on the feathers - if not, seek professional medical help. Birds can overheat easily if left in a hot area or put into the sun without a shady spot where it can retreat. An overheating bird will pant with its beak open and hold its wings slightly away from its body, and will be standing on two feet. Take the bird to a cool area right away and mist it with cool water. Place a few drops of cool water into its beak (without distressing it further). Watch to make sure that the bird regains its normal activity.
question
Polyoma Virus
answer
Avian Polyomavirus (Papovavirus, Budgerigar fledgling disease, Psittacine polyomavirus) Avian polyomavirus (AVP) primarily affects young birds. It is a primary infectious cause of nestling psittacine mortality, especially in mixed collections and open aviaries. The typical presentation is a well-fleshed juvenile, just prior to fledgling age, with acute onset of lethargy, crop stasis, and death within 24-48 hr. Subcutaneous hemorrhages are often noted when injections are administered. Asymptomatic adults may be carriers. Gross necropsy : pale skeletal musculature and subcutaneous ecchymotic hemorrhages,kidneys and liver are enlarged and may be pale, congested, and mottled, or have pinpoint, white foci, petechial or ecchymotic hemorrhages may also be present on viscera, particularly the heart which may be enlarged and may show hydropericardium. Aviary control methods include avoiding the housing of budgerigars or lovebirds on premises where other species are bred, adhering to standard hygiene procedures, preventing access to the nursery by visitors, and not introducing birds into the aviary without 90 days quarantine and testing. Testing: involves collection of cloacal and choanal swabs for PCR testing for viral shedding and blood for virus-neutralizing antibody to identify birds with previous viral exposure. Vaccine: For breeding birds, 2 doses of the vaccine are administered at a 2-wk interval; this should be done off-season. The manufacturer recommends administration of the first dose to neonates when the chick is >35 days of age, with a booster vaccination in 2-3 wk.
question
Avian Emergency
answer
How do I triage a bird emergency? Do not touch the bird! Be calm and quiet, as the less panicked you are, the less stress the patient (and the owner) will feel. Escort owners and pet to quiet exam room, if not already done. Observe the bird for obvious signs of respiratory distress: i. Open beak pantingii. Tail bobbing/pumpingiii. Wide leg stance If bird is in respiratory distress, inform the veterinarian and request permission from them and the owner to place the bird in oxygen before any handling. Ideally, keep the bird in it's travel carrier and put it into an oxygen chamber without handling the bird. If the bird is bleeding, try to assess where the blood is coming from without handling the bird. Inform the veterinarian and obtain appropriate cautery tools which the veterinarian may need to stop the bleeding: Electrocautery, styptic powder, gauze, silver nitrate sticks, or even some suture material and a laceration pack. Be prepared! Obtain a brief history from the client. Some questions may help the veterinarian before they are able to get in the room: How long have they noticed the problem, have they seen any bleeding, irregular feces, regurgitating/vomiting, seizures? Inform the veterinarian of your observations and history.
question
egg bound
answer
Some hens (female birds) will lay eggs with or without a mate present, and some will even lay them without a nest present. Cockatiels and lovebirds are notorious for this behavior. Seeing an egg on the bottom of the cage can be distressing for a bird's guardian. What do you do about the egg? It seems cruel to take it away, but actually, if the egg is infertile (which it is if there's no male present, and often even if there is a male present), then it's not so nice to allow the bird to sit on the egg for weeks in attempt to hatch it. Also, the presence of one egg will prompt the bird to lay others to create a "clutch." You can allow the "mom" to sit on it for a few days, but then you should remove the egg and all traces of a nest that she may have tried to build. Egg laying is a perfectly normal behavior, but it's not to be encouraged simply because it takes a large toll on the body. Eggs leach calcium from the bones, and egg-laying hens need a lot more nutrition - especially calcium and protein - than non-laying hens. You can discourage egg-laying by decreasing the amount of light your bird gets a day to less than 12 hours and by removing all "nesting" material, including paper. To stop egg laying: Move bird Make sure they have toys Supplements Implant
question
Egg Bound 2
answer
Sometimes, if a bird isn't in her prime or if she has recently had too many eggs, she can become "egg bound." This is when an egg is stuck inside of her, usually because it is malformed, soft, or because she's too weak to pass it. You may notice that her abdomen is distended and that she's on the bottom of the cage, fluffed up and possibly distressed. Her droppings may be large and watery, or she may not have droppings at all. Egg binding is a potentially deadly condition that requires immediate veterinary care. If you can't get her to the vet right away, place her in a warm hospital cage and give her two drops of olive oil in her beak and several drops in her vent (where the egg comes out). Be very gentle and be careful not to aspirate (choke) her with the oil. The oil may lubricate the egg and allow it to pass - heat is also critical to this process, so make sure that the hospital cage is around 98 to 99 degrees Fahrenheit, and that it's well ventilated. Moisture is important too, so place a dish of water in the hospital cage as well. Keep an eye on her to make sure she's okay, but don't disturb her too much. Give her a chance to pass the egg.
question
Feather Damage

answer
Feather mites and other external parasites can chew and consume parts of the feather vanes Daily wear and tear: lighter tips of flight and tail feathers can be worn off Fault bar (stress bar): weakened area on the feather vane where barbs lack barbules Results from stress that interrupts blood flow during feather growth Common stressor: poor diet
question
Molting
answer
Process of feather replacement Occurs once to several times a year, depending on species In most species, feather replacement is symmetrical One or two pairs of flight feathers molted at a time Many species of waterfowl molt all flight feathers at once after the breeding season
question
The African Grey

answer
red tail feathers, grey main feathers
question
The Amazon

answer
typically green main feathers with multi-colored feathers depending on type of amazon
question
The Canary

answer
small solid colored birds
question
The Cockatiel

answer
usually has a long feather on top of head
question
The Cockatoo

answer
white feathers, but head feather lift up and will have colorful feathers on top
question
The Conure

answer
multi-colored
question
finch

answer
remember the beak is almost a triangle
question
The Macaw

answer
comes in a variety of colors blue and gold and scarlet
question
The Parakeet (Budgie)

answer
question
Love Birds Peachface

answer
has a peach face
question
Love Birds Masked

answer
has a masked face
question
Love Birds Fischer

answer
question
The Soloman Island Eclectus

answer
question
The Quaker Parakeet

answer
question
The Senegal Parrot

answer
remember mindy at all pets
question
Ring necked dove

answer
notice the ring around the neck
question
Diamond dove

answer
question
red lory

answer
mostly red
question
rainbow lory

answer
multi-colored
question
What is a good amount of time for an appt with a bird/exotic?
answer
30 or more minutes
question
The Class Aves consists of how many species of birds?
answer
8500 species of birds and 29 orders of birds
question
2 common orders are:
answer
Psittaciformes (parrots) and Passeriformes (canaries and finches)
question
what are the primary flight feathers?
answer
1-10 are the primary feathers and the 10th feather is the last feather on the wing
question
what is a common household product that is toxic to birds?
answer
PTFE fumes from teflon pans
question
what is the average blood loss of a bird?
answer
a healthy bird can lose up to 10% of its blood volume ( or 1% of BW body weight)
question
dehydration in birds
answer
most sick birds are 5% to 10% severely dehydrated is >10%
question
what are some clinical signs of dehydration?
answer
depression, reduced skin elasticity over digits, sunken eyes, cool digits, and decreased refill time of the basilic (cutaneous ulnar) vein
Clinical
Invasion Of Privacy
Phlebotomy
Quality Assurance
History of Phlebotomy – Flashcards 8 terms

Daniel Thompson
8 terms
Preview
History of Phlebotomy – Flashcards
question
Egyptians (1400BC)
answer
used blood baths as means of resuscitation and recuperation from illness.
question
Barbers/Surgeons (1200BC)
answer
were forbidden by law to perform any surgery except bloodletting, wound surgery, cupping, leeching, shaving, extraction of teeth and administrating of enemas.
question
Hippocrates (460-377 BC)
answer
1.Father of medicine. 2. disease was the result of excess substance like blood, phlegm, black bile and yellow bile. 3. removal of excess would restore balance. 4. removal performed using drugs or by the surgical technique of phlebotomy
question
William Harvey (1578-1657 AD)
answer
1. Recognized the circulation of blood. 2. Published the theory of the movements of the heart and blood. 3. Discovered the purpose of valves in the veins is to prevent the flow of blood back into the extremities, this keeping the blood in motion
question
Jean Baptiste Denis
answer
performed the first successful blood transfusion of lamb blood into a human
question
Leeches (17th and 18th century)
answer
1.using the European medicinal leech. 2. Enticed to bloodletting spot with a drop of milk or blood. 3. Leech would drop off by itself after it was engorged (about an hr)
question
Cupping (17th and 18th century)
answer
1.required practice so patients were not frightened away. 2. Involved the application of heated suction apparatus called the "cup" to the skin to draw the blood to the surface before serving the capillaries in that area by making a series of parallel incisions with lancet
question
Venesection (17th and 18th century)
answer
1.using a sharp lancet-type tool to pierce the vein and make it bleed. 2. used to reduce ever or produce a faint so an expectant mother would deliver her baby by the time she recovered
Accountable Care Organization
Accountable Care Organizations
Acute Care Hospital
Clinical
Electronic Health Record
Health Computing
EOC CH 1 – Flashcards 12 terms

Lucas Davies
12 terms
Preview
EOC CH 1 – Flashcards
question
EHR/EMR software is more comprehensive than practice management software because it a. is computerized b. contains menu options c. includes clinical documentation d. submits insurance claims
answer
c. includes clinical documentation
question
PrimeSUITE: a. allows for ePrescribing b. has mobile applications c. assists in information exchange d. all of the above
answer
d. all of the above
question
a patient is entered into the patient list a. once b. twice c. after a procedure d. each time he or she is seen
answer
a. once
question
in the long term, costs will _transitioning to an electronic health record system a. increase b. decrease c. stay the same d. disappear
answer
b. decrease
question
the process of moving a patient from appointment making through check-out is called a. patient cycle b. patient process c. patient flow d. patient records
answer
c. patient flow
question
clinical documentation of a patient's visit is known as the a. superbill b. progress note c. medical claim d. point of care
answer
b. progress note
question
an encounter form is also known as a/an a. HER b. history c. claim form d. superbill
answer
d. superbill
question
the _ is a form used to bill inpatient claims a. CMS-1500 b. ICD-9 c. CPT d. UB-04
answer
d. UB-04
question
One factor that might contribute to slow acceptance of EHRs is a. security fears b. laziness c. fear of change d. space concerns
answer
a. security fears
question
PrimeSUIITE's User Guide is accessed through the _ feature a. Help b. Information c. Lookup d. Query
answer
a. Help
question
The _ is an example of clinical information that is collection through an EHR a. insurance policy b. plan of care c. research effects d. regulatory guidelines
answer
b. plan of care
question
_ is not easily attained when using a manual record system a. communication b. data capture c. interoperability d. maintenance
answer
c. interoperability
Clinical
PrimeSUITE’S management and electronic health record and software – Flashcards 70 terms

Jazzlyn Sampson
70 terms
Preview
PrimeSUITE’S management and electronic health record and software – Flashcards
question
EHR/EMR software is more comprehensive than Practice Management software because it:
answer
Includes clinical documentation
question
PrimeSUITE:
answer
Allows for ePrescribing, has mobile applications, assists in information exchanges
question
A patient is entered into the patient list
answer
Once
question
In the long term, costs will _________ when transitioning to an electronic health record system.
answer
Decrease
question
The process of moving a patient from appointment making through check-out is called:
answer
Patient flow
question
Clinical documentation of a patient's visit is known as the
answer
Progress note
question
An encounter for is also known as a/an
answer
Superbill
question
The______ is a form used to Bill patient claims in physician offices.
answer
CMS-1500
question
One factor that might contribute to slow acceptance of EHRs is
answer
Security fears
question
PrimeSUITE'S user guide is accessed through the_____ feature.
answer
Help
question
Which of the following illustrates clinical information collected through an EHR?
answer
Plan of care
question
_____ is not easily attained when using a manual record system.
answer
Interoperability
question
Appliction
answer
Software with a unique purpose, such as word processing, or used for a specific industry
question
Interoperability
answer
A single database to sync multiple unrelated functions or systems
question
Care provider
answer
Person usually a physician, who performs healthcare services requiring specialized
question
Clearinghouse
answer
Service that assists in claims processing by standardizing billing and performing error checks
question
Electronic claim submission
answer
Filing of a healthcare claim using by computer rather than paper
question
Encounter form
answer
A form generated at the completion of an office visit, a portion of which details the patients diagnosis, procedures and services, performed and charge for each procedure/service
question
Point of care
answer
Procedures that take place at the time of care, rather than at a remote location or at a point in time after care is complete.
question
Practice management software
answer
Specialized computer software that performs administrative and billing procedures in medical offices.
question
Speech recognition
answer
Technology that digitally transcribes spoken words
question
Demographics
answer
Documented patient information such as age, sex, and race
question
Clinical documentation
answer
Stores/tracks the progress notes of patient visits
question
EPrescribing
answer
Allows the electronic transmission of prescription information to pharmacies
question
PrimeEXCHANGE
answer
Enables healthcare professionals to share relevant clinical information
question
PrimeRESEARCH
answer
Enables access to clinical trial information and financial benchmarking services
question
PrimeMOBILE
answer
Allows instant access to EHR information even without a computer
question
PrimeSPEECH
answer
Documents verbal dictation on the computer screen
question
Data
answer
A single fact often used interchangeably with information
question
Health information exchange
answer
The sharing of health information among various entities, using standardized and secure processes
question
Unstructured data
answer
Details that cannot be tracked , such as emails and voice recognition technology audio files
question
Meaningful use
answer
Use of health information in an effective and efficient manner to improve patient care
question
Clinical decision support
answer
Method of accessing current treatment options for a disease, through electronic or remote methods
question
Master patient index
answer
Record of the names of all patients seen in a hospital setting
question
Protected health information
answer
Any piece of identifying or clinical information about a patient
question
CCHIT
answer
An independent organization that is responsible for certifying electronic health records for viability
question
Institute of medicine(IOM)
answer
An independent organization that works to provide advice and guidance to the public and healthcare decision makers
question
The acronym HIE stands for
answer
Health information exchange
question
An advantage of using screen-based data collection tools is that the layout of the information on the can be:
answer
Customized
question
The ____ defined the eight core functions of an EHR
answer
Institute of Medicine
question
Which of the following is a goal of HIPAA?
answer
Establish standards for keeping of health information
question
In a physician's office, patient data collection begins when:
answer
The patient calls to make an appointment
question
An advantage of EHRs is that patients are now able to ____ about procedures they procedures they are undergoing
answer
View videos
question
Knowing that Jim Smith had a heart attack when he was 53 is an example of :
answer
Data
question
When patients are finished with their encounter at a hospital, they
answer
Are discharged
question
If a hospital uses information gathered through their EHRs to justify the purchase state-of-art equipment to improve patient care, they are:
answer
Engaging in meaningful use
question
______data includes demographic data
answer
Administrative
question
Which of the following is NOT an example of demographic data?
answer
Primary physician
question
Administrative data is used to satisfy_____requirements.
answer
HIPAA
question
Before a patient can be treated at a healthcare setting, she must be
answer
Registered
question
Recording a patient's previous or married name might help with
answer
Cross-referencing data
question
One of the common Help features is
answer
Frequently Asked Questions
question
___is part of a patient's administrative information found on a registration form
answer
Occupation
question
An insurance claim may be denied if the receptionist fails to:
answer
Enter all data correctly
question
_____is part of the appointment scheduling feature of PrimeSUITE
answer
Chief complaint
question
Accountable care organizations rely on EHR
answer
Data
question
A facility's collection of patient data might be used to satisfy___ requirements.
answer
Meaningful use
question
Editing a patient's mailing address is accomplished by using
answer
Free-text fields
question
Patient check-in is
answer
Important for efficient patient tracking
question
Information such as a policyholder name and insurance plan name appear in the ____ section of a claim form
answer
Subscriber
question
Chief complaint
answer
Reason for a patient's appointment; may determine the length of an exam visit
question
IC-10_CM
answer
Comprehensive listing of national, alphanumeric diagnosis codes
question
CMS-1500
answer
Form used to submit insurance claims in a healthcare office
question
Data dictionary
answer
List of correct definitions for a facility's unique terms and jargon
question
Clinical documentation architecture
answer
HL7 standard that outlines the format of clinical documentation, such as reports and discharge summaries
question
Master patient index
answer
Permanent router of all patients ever seen in a healthcare setting
question
UB-04
answer
Form used to submit insurance claims in a hospital setting
question
Continuity of care documents
answer
Document exchange standard that guides how patient information is shared among providers and healthcare settings
question
Library
answer
In terms of computer software, a comprehensive listing of related entities to choose from, such as ICD-10 codes
question
Administrative data
answer
Information, such as a patient's gender and date of birth, that is required to be collected under HIPAA