describe clinical presentation of seborrheic dermatitis in infants. what is it called?

cradle cap, yellow adherent scale on vertex of scalp that might affect diaper area and axillary skin too More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/dermatology-ii-seborrheic-dermatitis-pityriasis-rosea-lichen-planus/

Which of the following is a built-in security feature of Medisoft Clinical

Username Passwords Access Levels More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/practice-management-and-ehr-study-guide-chapter-3/

The nurse is providing immediate postoperative care to a client who had a thyroidectomy. The nurse should monitor the client for which clinical manifestation?

Signs of respiratory obstruction More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/evolve-endocrine-test-answers/

Which is a transition strategy to achieve and EHR: a. ancillary system support b. clinical data repository c. electronic document mgmt system d. results retrieval

c. electronic document mgmt system More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/module-v/

Which of the following is one of the first clinical manifestations of esophageal cancer

Increasing difficulty is swallowing More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch-46-oral-esoph-disorders/

What is clinical approach (as opposed to an epidemiological approach)?

Description of specific signs and symptoms in a patient More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/hsc-404-mid-term/

What is one similarity shared by clinical psychologists and psychiatrists?

They diagnose and treat people experiencing behavior and emotional problems. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/psychology-chapter-1-4/

What is the commonality in clinical presentation shared by the malignant primary bronchogenic neoplasms?

All types of primary lung cancer can present as a single pulmonary nodule (SPN). More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/resp-pulmonary-nodules/

What is the general difference between the supervised clinical experiences between fieldwork 1&2?

Level 1- Small taste: observational Level 2- Hands on More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ota-101-fieldwork/

What is the most common reason for the clinical evaluation of the extremity veins?

Suspected deep venous thrombosis (DVT)- More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/deep-vein-thrombosis-dvt/

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Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome Clinical Endocrinology Nursing Signs And Symptoms Of Hypoglycemia

medsurg CAQs #2 – Flashcards 48 terms

Clarence Louder

48 terms

Preview

medsurg CAQs #2 – Flashcards

question

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic adrenal insufficiency. Which roommate should be avoided when assigning a room for this client? 1 A young adult client with pneumonia 2 An adolescent client with a fractured leg 3 An older adult client who had a brain attack 4 A middle-aged client who has cholecystitis

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question

A nurse is formulating a teaching plan for a client recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. What interventions should the nurse include to decrease the risk of complications? Select all that apply. 1 Examine the feet daily 2 Wear well-fitting shoes 3 Perform regular exercise 4 Powder the feet after showering 5 Visit the primary healthcare provider weekly 6 Test bathwater with the toes before bathing

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1, 2, 3

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A nurse working in the diabetes clinic is evaluating a client's success with managing the medical regimen. What is the best indication that a client with type 1 diabetes is successfully managing the disease? 1 Reduction in excess body weight 2 Stabilization of the serum glucose 3 Demonstrated knowledge of the disease 4 Adherence to the prescription for insulin

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The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with diabetes about the importance of glucose monitoring. Which blood glucose levels should the nurse identify as hypoglycemia? 1 68 mg/dL (3.8 mmol/L) 2 78 mg/dL (4.3 mmol/L) 3 88 mg/dL (4.9 mmol/L) 4 98 mg/dL (5.4 mmol/L)

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Which clinical manifestation is found in a client with a deficiency of adrenocorticotropic hormone? 1 Anovulation 2 Dehydration 3 Malaise and lethargy 4 Menstrual abnormalities

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A nurse is assessing a client with Cushing syndrome. Which signs should the nurse expect the client to exhibit? Select all that apply. 1 Hirsutism 2 Round face 3 Pitting edema 4 Buffalo hump 5 Hypoglycemia

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1, 2, 4

question

A client reports their lips feel thicker, as well as joint pain and coarse facial features. What should the nurse suspect as the cause of the anterior pituitary hyperfunction? 1 Excessive secretion of growth hormone 2 Excessive secretion of prolactin hormone 3 Excessive secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone 4 Excessive secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone

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Which statement does the nurse know is true regarding the effects of parathyroid hormone on bones for the maintenance of calcium balance? 1 Increases bicarbonate and sodium excretion 2 Enhances absorption of calcium and phosphorous 3 Increases reabsorption of calcium and magnesium 4 Increases net release of calcium into extracellular fluid

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Which condition is characterized by hemorrhage after a pregnant female delivers? 1 Sheehan's syndrome 2 Cushing's syndrome 3 Addison's syndrome 4 Schwartz-Bartter syndrome

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Which drug would be effective for the treatment of pituitary Cushing's syndrome? 1 Mitotane 2 Cabergoline 3 Cyproheptadine 4 Bromocriptine mesylate

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A client has a history of hypothyroidism. Which skin condition should the nurse expect when performing a physical assessment? 1 Dry 2 Moist 3 Flushed 4 Smooth

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What will the nurse expect diagnostic studies of a client with Cushing syndrome to indicate? 1 Moderately increased serum potassium levels 2 Increased numbers of eosinophils in the blood 3 High levels of 17-ketosteroids in a 24-hour urine test 4 Normal to low levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

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Which is the target tissue for the parathyroid hormone? 1 Intestines 2 All body cells 3 Mammary glands 4 Sympathetic effectors

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While a nurse is teaching a client with diabetes about food choices, the client states, "I do not like broccoli." Which food should the nurse suggest to substitute for broccoli? 1 Peas 2 Corn 3 Green beans 4 Mashed potato

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A nurse explains to a client with diabetes that self-monitoring of blood glucose is preferred to urine glucose testing. Why is blood glucose monitoring preferred? 1 Blood glucose monitoring is more accurate. 2 Blood glucose monitoring is easier to perform. 3 Blood glucose monitoring is done by the client. 4 Blood glucose monitoring is not influenced by drugs.

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A nurse in the postanesthesia unit is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy. Which client response is most important for the nurse to monitor? 1 Urinary retention 2 Signs of restlessness 3 Decreased blood pressure 4 Signs of respiratory obstruction

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When obtaining a health history from a client recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes, the nurse expects the client to report what clinical manifestations? 1 Irritability, polydipsia, and polyuria 2 Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia 3 Nocturia, weight loss, and polydipsia 4 Polyphagia, polyuria, and diaphoresis

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question

A primary healthcare provider prescribes a low-sodium, high-potassium diet for a client with Cushing syndrome. Which explanation should the nurse provide to the client about the need to follow this diet? 1 "The use of salt probably contributed to the disease." 2 "Excess weight will be gained if sodium is not limited." 3 "The loss of excess sodium and potassium in the urine requires less renal stimulation." 4 "Excessive aldosterone and cortisone cause retention of sodium and loss of potassium."

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A nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. Upon assessment, which classic sign will the nurse find? 1 Ecchymosis 2 Hyperreflexia 3 Exophthalmos 4 Hyperpigmentation

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Which medical condition could most probably result in clients developing primary diabetes insipidus (DI)? 1 Meningitis 2 Brain tumor 3 Lithium therapy 4 Defect in hypothalamus

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Which assessment finding in a client signifies a mild form of hypocalcemia? 1 Seizures 2 Hand spasms 3 Severe muscle cramps 4 Numbness around the mouth

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What other name can the nurse use for vasopressin? 1 Growth hormone 2 Luteinizing hormone 3 Antidiuretic hormone 4 Thyroid-stimulating hormone

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A nurse is planning to teach facts about hyperglycemia to a client with diabetes. What information should the nurse include in the discussion about what causes diabetic acidosis? 1 Breakdown of fat stores for energy 2 Ingestion of too many highly acidic foods 3 Excessive secretion of endogenous insulin 4 Increased amounts of cholesterol in the extracellular compartment

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The clinical findings of a client with diabetes mellitus show decreased glucose tolerance. Which complication is anticipated in the client? 1 Cystitis 2 Thin and dry skin 3 Decreased bone density 4 Frequent yeast infections

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In order to ensure a quality specimen and an accurate test result, which instruction should the nurse give a client who is scheduled to undergo urine endocrine testing? 1 "Start the urine collection when the bladder is full." 2 "Store the urine specimen in a cooler with ice." 3 "Store the urine specimen in a home refrigerator." 4 "Save the urine specimen that begins the collection."

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question

After surgical clipping of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm, a client develops the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). What manifestations are exhibited with excessive levels of antidiuretic hormone? 1 Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and hypotension 2 Hyperkalemia and poor skin turgor 3 Hyponatremia and decreased urine output 4 Polyuria and increased specific gravity of urine

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Which feature in the client indicates hypersecretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone? 1 Moon face 2 Lower jaw protrusion 3 Heat intolerance 4 Barrel-shaped chest

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Which cells does the nurse identify as producing thyrocalcitonin hormone? 1 Islet cells 2 Adrenal cells 3 Pituitary cells 4 Parafollicular cells

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The nurse is providing care to a client being treated for bacterial cystitis. What is the goal before discharge for this client? 1 Understand the need to drink 4 L of water per day, an essential measure to prevent dehydration 2 Be able to identify dietary restrictions and plan menus 3 Achieve relief of symptoms and maintain kidney function 4 Recognize signs of bleeding, a complication associated with this type of procedure

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question

What are the primary causes of adrenal insufficiency? Select all that apply. 1 Hemorrhage 2 Tuberculosis 3 Pituitary tumors 4 Postpartum pituitary necrosis 5 Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

answer

1, 2, 5

question

Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary gland? 1 Oxytocin 2 Prolactin 3 Growth hormone 4 Luteinizing hormone

answer

question

A client with type 1 diabetes is transported via ambulance to the emergency department of the hospital. The client has dry, hot, flushed skin and a fruity odor to the breath and is having Kussmaul respirations. Which complication does the nurse suspect that the client is experiencing? 1 Ketoacidosis 2 Somogyi phenomenon 3 Hypoglycemic reaction 4 Hyperosmolar nonketotic coma

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question

A client who is taking an oral hypoglycemic daily for type 2 diabetes develops the flu and is concerned about the need for special care. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? 1 Skip the oral hypoglycemic pill, drink plenty of fluids, and stay in bed. 2 Avoid food, drink clear liquids, take a daily temperature, and stay in bed. 3 Eat as much as possible, increase fluid intake, and call the office again the next day. 4 Take the oral hypoglycemic pill, drink warm fluids, and perform a serum glucose test before meals and at bedtime.

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question

A client is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism, and surgery is scheduled because the client refuses ablation therapy. While awaiting the surgical date, what instruction should the nurse teach the client? 1 Consciously attempt to calm down. 2 Eliminate coffee, tea, and cola from the diet. 3 Keep the home warm, and use an extra blanket at night. 4 Schedule activities during the day to overcome lethargy.

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question

A client with malignant hot nodules of the thyroid gland has a thyroidectomy. What is the nurse's priority action immediately postoperative? 1 Place in semi-Fowler's position to limit edema of the neck 2 Monitor intake and output strictly to assess for fluid overload 3 Encourage coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis 4 Assess level of consciousness to determine recovery from anesthesia

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question

A 24-hour urine test is prescribed for a client who has a tentative diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. What should the nurse do first? 1 Start the time of the test after discarding the first voiding. 2 Discard the last voiding in the 24-hour time period for the test. 3 Insert a urinary retention catheter to promote the collection of urine. 4 Strain the urine following each voiding before adding the urine to the container.

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question

A nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which laboratory test will be most beneficial in monitoring the effectiveness of drug therapy? 1 Free thyroxine (FT4) 2 Thyroxine (T4), total 3 Free triiodothyronine (FT3) 4 Triiodothyronine (T3), total

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question

Which action by the nurse while administering human growth hormone ensures effective therapy? 1 Administration at nighttime 2 Administration via oral route 3 Administration along with meals 4 Administration by metered spray

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A client is admitted to the hospital for a thyroidectomy. In which position should the nurse maintain the client after surgery? 1 Prone 2 Supine 3 Left Sims 4 Semi-Fowler

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question

A nurse is assessing a client admitted to the hospital with a tentative diagnosis of a pituitary tumor. What signs of Cushing syndrome does the nurse identify? 1 Retention of sodium and water 2 Hypotension and a rapid, thready pulse 3 Increased fatty deposition in the extremities 4 Hypoglycemic episodes in the early morning

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question

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of cancer of the thyroid gland, and a thyroidectomy is performed. What should the nurse do during the first six to eight hours after surgery? 1 Place two pillows behind the client's head. 2 Monitor for the complication of tetany resulting from hypocalcemia. 3 Assess the sides and back of the client's neck for evidence of bleeding. 4 Encourage the client to perform deep-breathing and coughing exercises.

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A nurse is caring for a client with Cushing syndrome. Which cardiovascular complication should the nurse assess for in this client? 1 Chest pain 2 Tachycardia 3 Hypertension 4 Atrial fibrillation

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question

What symptoms will the nurse identify when assessing a client with Graves disease? 1 Constipation, dry skin, and weight gain 2 Lethargy, weight gain, and forgetfulness 3 Weight loss, exophthalmos, and restlessness 4 Weight loss, protruding eyeballs, and lethargy

answer

question

The nurse is assessing a client suspected of having hypercortisolism. Which questions should the nurse ask to help confirm the diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1 "Did you lose any weight unintentionally?" 2 "Did you notice your extremities to be thin?" 3 "Did you notice any roughness of your skin?" 4 "Did you notice any skin darkening recently?" 5 "Did the hair on your body become thicker?"

answer

2, 5

question

Which clinical findings should the nurse assess when caring for a client with hyperthyroidism? Select all that apply. 1 Lethargy 2 Tachycardia 3 Weight gain 4 Constipation 5 Exophthalmos

answer

2, 5

question

A client with type 1 diabetes receives Humulin R insulin in the morning. Shortly before lunch the nurse identifies that the client is diaphoretic and trembling. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? 1 Administer insulin to the client 2 Give the client lunch immediately 3 Encourage the client to drink fluids 4 Assess the client's blood glucose level

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question

Which clinical findings are observed in a client suffering from an imbalance of adrenocorticotropic hormone? Select all that apply. 1 Anorexia 2 Hyponatremia 3 Slowed cognition 4 Postural hypotension 5 Decreased muscle strength

answer

1, 2, 4

question

A client who is 60 pounds (27.2 kilograms) more than the ideal body weight is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. Which concept should the nurse include in teaching about diabetes when discussing strategies to lose weight? 1 Obesity leads to insulin resistance. 2 Surplus fat causes excretion of insulin. 3 Fat cells absorb insulin and prevent its circulation to other cells. 4 Lipids accumulate in the pancreas and interfere with insulin production.

answer

STUDY

Clinical Congress Multiple Choice Pediatrics Respiratory Therapy Therapy

Respiratory care professional organizations – Flashcards 41 terms

Robert Lollar

41 terms

Preview

Respiratory care professional organizations – Flashcards

question

AARC

answer

American association for respiratory care

question

Founded in 1947 in Chicago

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AARC

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ITA

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Inhalation therapy association

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First professional association for the field of respiratory care

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ITA

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To provide for professional advancement, foster cooperation with physicians and advance the knowledge of inhalation therapy through educational activities

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Goal of ITA

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Provided a forum that discussed the clinical application of oxygen therapy, improvement of patient care and advance the art and science of the field

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Goal of ITA

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American association for Inhalation therapists (AAIT)

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1954

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American association for respiratory therapy (AART)

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1973

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American association for respiratory care (AARC)

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1982

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Introduced the state licensure examination for respiratory care practitioners based on the National Board Respiratory Care (NBRC)

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AARC

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To encourage and promote professional excellence, advance the science and practice of respiratory care and service as an advocate for patients, their families, the public, the profession and the respiratory therapist

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Mission of AARC

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Sponsors educational activities, international meetings, conferences and seminars

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Mission of AARC

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Publishes th science journal

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Mission of AARC

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Science journal

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Respiratory care

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Advocate for the profession to legislative and regulatory bodies

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Mission of AARC

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Profession to legislative and regulatory bodies

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Insurance industry and general public

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NBRC

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National board for respiratory care

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Credentialling body for respiratory therapists

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NBRC

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Began as the American Registry of inhalation therapists in 1960

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NBRC

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To test and credential registered therapists

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American registry of inhalation therapists in 1960

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Certification board was established to certify technicians

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American registry of inhalation therapists in 1960

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Became the national board for respiratory care (NBRC) in 1983

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National board for respiratory therapy

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Collaboration with the national board for cardiopulmonary technologists

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NBRC

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2 levels of general clinical practice credetialling examinations in the US was established

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1968

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2 levels of general clinical practice

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Certified technicians and registered therapist

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Renamed the lower level, CRT (entry level respiratory therapist)

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1998

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CRT

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Certified respiratory therapist

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Advanced level remained RRT (advanced respiratory therapist)

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1998

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RRT

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Registered respiratory therapist

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CoARC

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Committee on accreditation for respiratory care

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Publishing of the first guidelines for respiratory care educational programs

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1956

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Formation of the board of schools to accredit respiratory care programs

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1963

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Board of schools was replaced by joint review committee for inhalation therapy education

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1963

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JRCITE

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Joint review committee for inhalation therapy education

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He led the board of schools that was replaced by JRCITE

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Dr. Fred helmholtz in 1970

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Became the joint review committee for respiratory therapy education in 1977

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JRCITE

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joint review committee for respiratory therapy education

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JRCRTE

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Committee on accreditation for respiratory care

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1996

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Accredited by the CoARC under the guidance of the CAAHEP, registered under the CHEA

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Respiratory care educational program in the US

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CAAHEP

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Commission on accreditation of allied health education program

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CHEA

answer

Council for higher education accreditation

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Clinical

EBT-midterm – Flashcards 190 terms

Karen Combs

190 terms

Preview

EBT-midterm – Flashcards

question

What is clinical case formulation?

answer

The psychologist's hypothesis about the nature of the psychological mechanisms underlying the client's difficulties.

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What are overt difficulties?

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The actual problems in living that clietns seek help for (e.g., depression, relationship, difficulties, anger)

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What are underlying mechanisms?

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the underlying (central) psychological mechanisms that produce and maintain the overt difficulties (e.g., dysfunctional attitudes, cognitive schemas, coping pattern, interpersonal style, lack of secure attachment or unconditional regard, etc.) SHOULD BE CONSISTENT W/Theoretical model

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What are some things you should think about when identifying problems for a cultural formulation?

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big question: how did the problem develop? -what made me vulnerable in the first place? - triggers for the most recent episode - the problem - things that keep the problem going

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What is the difference between case formulations and treatment plan?

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CF: why a problem exists TP: what to do about the problem (informed by CF)

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Name 4 theoretical orientations?

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- Cognitive Behavioral (CBT) - Psychodynamic - Emotion-Focused therapy - Interpersonal Therapy

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How does a cognitive orientation explain psychological problems?

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Distorted cognitions

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What is the focus for cognitive orientation?

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Present, here and now

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What are treatment goals for cognitive orientation?

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Reduction of symptoms

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What are the strategies of cognitive orientation?

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changing cognitions

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Does a cognitive approach require homework?

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Yes

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How does a behavioral approach explain psychological problems?

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Classical and operant conditioning, social learning

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What is the focus for therapy using a behavioral approach?

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Present, here and now

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What are treatment goals for behavioral approach?

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Reduction of symptoms

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What are the strategies for a behavioral approach?

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Modifying behaviors

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Is there a homework component with a behavioral approach?

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yes

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What are examples of therapies that are based on the behavioral approach?

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DBT, ACT

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How does a psychodynamic approach explain psychological issues?

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Historical relationships and trauma

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What is the focus of a psychodynamic approach?

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Past, developmental

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What are tx goals for psychodynamic approach?

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insight, changing long-standing patterns

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What are strategies for psychodynamic?

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using transference and countertransference, interpretation, confrontation of defenses

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Is there a homework component for psychodynamic?

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question

How does emotion-focused therapy explain psychological problems?

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Interpersonal relationships

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What is the focus of emotion-focused therapy?

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Present, interpersonal relationships

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What are tx goals for emotion-focused therapy?

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STRENGTHEN SELF, REGULATE AFFECT, CREATE NEW MEANING

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What are the strategies used for emotion-focused therapy?

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Using therapeutic relationship and in-session experimental exercises

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Does emotion-focused therapy have a homework component?

answer

question

How does interpersonal therapy explain psychological problems?

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Interpersonal relationship

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What is the focus of interpersonal?

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Present, interpersonal relationships

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What are the tx goals for interpersonal?

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Address grief, interpersonal disputes, role transitions, interpersonal deficits

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What are strategies for interpersonal?

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Exploration, encouragement of affect, use of the therapeutic relationship, communication analysis.

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Is there a hw component in interpersonal?

answer

question

What does the APA task force recommendations for empirically validated treatments?

answer

two RCTs w/no-tx or placebo comparison

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What are some controversies about ESTs?

answer

- EST biased towards favored brief, manualized tx - lost focus on common factors that help clients across d/o-focus on specific d/o and specific techniques - Concern about applicability to diverse population

question

What is clinical judgement?

answer

includes judgment, decision-making, interpersonal skill, self-reflection, ability to evaluate the research evidence, ability to evaluate the research evidence, ability to understand individual and cultural differences, willingness to consult and seek additional information, having a clearly articulated rationale for tx approach

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what is ebpp?

answer

Evidence-based practice in psychology is the integration of the best available research w/clinical expertise in the context of patient characteristics, culture, and preferences

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What are three components that make up EBP (evidence-based practice)?

answer

- Best research evidence - clinical expertise - patient values and preference

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What are the 4 ways you can know that tx is effective?

answer

- faith: belief in your theory - hope: belief that your good will, goose sense, and experience will win out - charity: belief that your work will be beneficial even if things seem to be going south at times - experiment: measured outcomes

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What is efficacy?

answer

treatment effects compared to minimal treatment or waitlist control

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What is effectiveness?

answer

the comparative effects of treatments; generalizability across setting

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What is efficiency?

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who benefits from what treatment?

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What are some threats to validity of empirical tx research?

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- internal validity: did the tx make a change? - external validity: can it be generalized? - statistical conclusion validity: appropriate stats tests? - construct validity: proper operationalized definitions

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What are some examples of internal validity?

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- temporal precedence - selection - history - maturation - regression to the mean - attrition - testing and instrumentation

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How can you correct temporal precedence?

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exclude participants w/prior tx experience

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How can you correct selection?

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random assignment, stat analysis of systematic pre-existing difference

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How can you correct for history?

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random assignment, stat analysis if event occurs

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how can you correct for maturation?

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careful participant selection, random assignment, add control/contrast group

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How can you correct for regression to the mean?

answer

Ensure all DVs have strong test-retest reliability, include control group, use multiple measures

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How can you correct for attrition?

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Foster motivation, make sure control group has adequate attention, avoid "no treatment" control group

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How can you correct for testing and instrumentation?

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Choose testing protocols that have minimal impact on performance, include quality checks on measures, add good control groups

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What are some threats to external validity?

answer

- sample characteristics - setting characteristics - testing effects

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How can you correct for sample characteristics?

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recruit a sample that is representative of population of interest

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How can you correct for setting characteristics?

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make sure settings reflect typical treatment conditions

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How can you correct for testing effects?

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use measures in addition to self-reports, use unobtrusive measures, schedule time of assessment in a clinically relevant way

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How can you correct for construct validity?

answer

avoid jargon and ambiguous terms, make sure operational definitions clearly represent the construct

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What are examples of threats to construct validity?

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- inadequate specification of construct - confounding - singular definitions - participant reactivity - experimenter expectancies - treatment diffusion

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How can you correct for confounding threat?

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be clear w/conceptual categories

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How can you correct for singular definitions?

answer

use multiple therapists and multiple measures

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How can you correct for participant reactivity?

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choose control/contrast groups that minimize the treat (adding good attention/placebo contrast)

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How can you correct for experimenter expectancies?

answer

blind research personnel, include treatment integrity and fidelity checks

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How can you correct for treatment diffusion?

answer

use different therapists to implement different conditions, blind research personnel to hypotheses

question

What are examples of threats to statistical conclusion validity?

answer

- low stats. power (increase n, vary alpha, use 1-tailed, reduce variability) - family wise error rates (use conservative stat) - unreliable of measures (use measures w/ strong reliability metrics) - unreliable tx implementation (standardized training - heterogeneity of subjects (clear and stringent i/e criteria)

question

What are common research for evaluating tx efficacy?

answer

- no tx comparison design - wait list comparison - attention placebo - relative efficacy (tx vs TAU)

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What are the dialectics (inquiry) of research and practice?

answer

- concerns of the academic research/outcome researcher - concerns for clinicians

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What are ways of tolerating dialectics?

answer

- accept and tolerate the necessary tension - avoid absolutistic, all or none thinking

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What are patient-level considerations for tx?

answer

= how do patients view treatment - what type of tx do they want

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What are clinician-level considerations for tx?

answer

- sees pt. as end users rather than co-developers who can make good decisions and are potentially creative - tx are "specifically designed to occur within interpersonal relationships"

question

What are some considerations for psychotherapy in the real world?

answer

- psychotherapy is messy and often unscripted - trainees must balance the patients' best interest and faithfulness to the approach in rapidly changing real time contexts - emphasizes fidelity to the conceptual paradigm and flexibility within intervention

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How do clinicians differ from technicians?

answer

- learn general principles not specific techniques - a theory is a good things to have - read a lot - personlize psychotherapeutic approaches - avoid procrustean bed (obsessing over individual differences or situational approaches) - treat people not dx - one size never fits all

question

What are some common characteristics of anxiety d/o?

answer

- personal perfectionism - emotional perfectionism - strong desire to please others - fear of failure - focus on predictability, permanence, order, and routine - impressionistic cognitive style

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What are some forms of emotional avoidance in anxiety d/o?

answer

- avoiding eye contact (behavioral) - procrastination (behavioral) - avoiding exercise/physiological arousal (behavioral) - reassurance (cognitive) - trying to think positive (cognitive) - thought suppression (cognitive) - charging talisman, good luck charm (safety signal) - overuse of sunglasses (safety signal)

question

What is cognitive content-specificity?

answer

- central concept to theory and practice - different mood states associated w/distinct cognitive context - enables clinicians to identify "hot cognitions"

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What are therapeutic stance variables that cut across what the clinician does?

answer

- collaborative empiricism - guided discovery

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What is collaborative empiricism?

answer

- clinician and patient work as partners

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What is guided discovery?

answer

- clinician is coach who shephards patient through data collection using empathy, questioning, and behavioral experimentation

question

How do you increase coping skills using CBT?

answer

- relaxation - stress management - assertiveness

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How do you change unhelpful thinking w/CBT?

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- cognitive restructuring - rational analysis

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How do you decrease avoidance and increase self-efficacy?

answer

- exposure - experiments

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What is a structure of a treatment?

answer

components of session, relationship, assessment measures; homework assignment, exposure trials, social skills practice

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What is the content of a treatment?

answer

- the WHAT - material produced from structure elements (feelings, thoughts, and behaviors)

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WHat is the process of a treatment?

answer

- the HOW - the way the patient reacts to the structure and content (avoidance, irritation, smugness)

question

What is self-monitoring?

answer

- part of CBT - keystone of self-directed change - objective measures - idiographic (scientific) measures

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What are SUDs?

answer

- Subjective Units of Distress in CBT - making emotional quantifiable - can be 1-100 or 1-10 - scaling device which titrates level of distress

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What is climbing the ladder?

answer

- part of CBT - adaptation of hierarchy - climbing is a nice active way to communicate progress through the hierarchy

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What are thought diaries?

answer

- part of CBT - analysis of thoughts, situation, and feelings. Situation is the objective description of what is going on; feeling: emotional label; thought: what is going on through their mind?

question

What are examples of behavioral interventions?

answer

Relaxation - deep controlled breathing - progressive muscle relaxation

question

What is important to note about relaxation techniques?

answer

- you can induce anxiety - related to fears of loss of control - fear that focusing on the sensation is dangerous

question

What are examples of some cognitive interventions?

answer

- cognitive restructing (changing self-talk) - advantages and disadvantages - problem solving - decatastrophizing - reattribution -test of evidence

question

What is cognitive restructuring?

answer

- focuses on changing habits of thought - refocusing attention - direct adaptive behaviors - facilitate accurate appraisals

question

What are some advantages and disadvantages of cognitive restructuring?

answer

- very basic intervention - clients look at costs/benefits of a behavior - clients see what they lose and gain by holding onto specific behaviors - what are the advantages and disadvantages of avoiding a feared stimulus

question

What is problem solving?

answer

- basic staple of cbt - RIBEEYE R: learn to relax in in face of stressor I: Identify stressor B: brainstorm E: evaluate each solution Y: saying yes to the best solution E: encouraging self for active problem solving

question

What is the socratic method?

answer

Curious and inquisitive, gentle questioning

question

What is decatastrophizing?

answer

- tests predictions of doom - adds perspective to narrow beliefs - works to modify the overestimations of the magnitude and probabilty of dangers

question

What is reattribution?

answer

-teaching clients to view experiences from different angles - does not focus on the facts but on the explanation of facts

question

How do you test evidence?

answer

- evaluate whether conclusions are factually based and logically sound - need to take a deliberate and mindful approach - patience is key

question

What is a common technique in CBT and BT approaches?

answer

- exposure: - the experiential approach exposes the patient to experiences that are in themselves powerful enough to change misconceptions

question

What does exposure do?

answer

- true experiential approach - designed to help pts face the situations they fear - pt. remain in control and engaged - pt. learn to habituate reinterpret and often extinguish the fear - promote genuine sense of self efficacy

question

What are the advantages of exposures and experiments?

answer

- present-oriented - increased perceived sense of control

question

How can the therapeutic alliance help with exposure?

answer

- data shows decrease in alliance rating after exposure - allign w/ pt vs. distress - no one wants to do it (avoidance high)

question

What should you do before attempting exposures or experiences?

answer

- psychoeducation (family and pt) - is it useful - needs to be gradual - any medical issues? - pts' feels about tx - make as realistic as possible use props

question

What is the key feature of social anxiety?

answer

- fear of negative evluation - catastrophic predictions of what may happen - common mental equation: disapproval = disaster

question

What cognitive interventions could be used for social anxiety?

answer

- test of evidence - reattribution - decatastrophizing

question

What is a cognitive formulation for obsessions?

answer

Rituals and compulsions are directed at reducing doubt and inceasing certainty.

question

What is the paradox of mental control?

answer

When sense of control is threatened or thwarted high levels of arousal emerge. Client then tries to control the thought without success

question

What treatment approach should you use for OCD?

answer

CBT

question

What are the first steps of initiating treatment w/patient w/OCD?

answer

-psychoeducation - begin self-monitoring

question

What is the overall plan tx for OCD?

answer

- use facilitative strategies - establish exposure hierarchy - in session graduated exposure - out session HW exposure - identify and modify underlying assumptions and core beliefs - ritual prevention

question

What is thought and action fusion?

answer

When Clients believe that thinking something is the same as acting on it.

question

What is response prevention?

answer

- AKA ritual prevention - Exposure is not enough -REsponse must be prevented by client, not situation

question

How can you stop performance of rituals?

answer

- complete stopping (cold turkey) is recommended - thought some clients may need more gradual approach

question

What are some facilitative strategies for ocd?

answer

- challenge rigid thinking: make rules conditional rather than absolute - break rules of ocd (delay, shorten ritual or do it differently)

question

What can you do to minimize counting compulsions?

answer

- gradually reduce the number of times an action is performed - change the way the counting is done - substitute something else for the counting - count to the wrong number

question

What therapy do you use for Panic?

answer

CBT

question

How would you treat physical and mental changes and what is the underlying process?

answer

psycholeducation/preoccupation - hypervigilance

question

How would you treat overarousal of autonomic nervous system?

answer

relaxation/emotional activiation

question

How would you treat attention "glued" to subjective physiological feeliings?

answer

refocusing/attentional focus

question

How would you treat attributoin to danger?

answer

cognitive restructuring/catastrophizing-overgeneralization

question

How would you treat overwhelming escape behavior?

answer

graduated exposure/avoidance

question

What intervention would you use with high level of physical arousal?

answer

attention refocus (early in tx) exposure (later in tx)

question

What intervetion would you use with moderate level of arousal?

answer

cognitive restructuring

question

What intervention would you use the low level of arousal?

answer

psychoeducation relaxation training environmental clean up

question

What are forms of self-monitoring?

answer

- mood diaries - panic diaries - SUDs rating and hierarchies - daily thought records - self-report, clincian rater

question

What is the benefit of refocusing techniques?

answer

- Can ease anxiety - count change in pocket - do different math pockets

question

What are behavioral interventions?

answer

-relaxation - deep breathing - breathing control - environmental clean up - time mgt

question

What are some examples of cognitive restructuring for panic d/o?

answer

- panic sxs are frightening, they are not dangerous - anxiety is like a wave - it will pass - stay in the present - pay attention to breathing

question

What is interoceptive exposure?

answer

- disrupt or weaken associations between specific body cues and panic reactions, decrease the hyperventilation response, and the fear avoidance response -engage in physcal activities to generate sensations similar to what would be experienced in a panic attack

question

What are contradincations for panic inductoin?

answer

- medical/phyiscal hx - pregnancy - epilepsy - hypertension

question

What are four main clusters of PTSD sxs?

answer

- instrusion - avoidance - negative alterations in cognition and mood - alterations in arousal and reactivity

question

What are treatment strategies for PTSD?

answer

- exposure (imaginal/in vivo) - cognitive restructuring (change unrealistic thinking about self, world, future) - coping skills

question

What are types of exposure for PTSD?

answer

- imaginal (narrative) - in session - virtual reality

question

What type of treatment is used for PTSD?

answer

- exposure therapy -cognitive processing therapy - CBT

question

What are common goals of CBT for PTSD?

answer

- remember and accept what happened by not avoiding memories and accompanying emotions - allow self to feel natural emotions and let them runt heir courses so the memory can be put away w/o strong feelings attached - balance belief that had been disrupted or reinforced

question

What are 4 approaches to treating depression?

answer

- Interpersonal therapy - cognitive behavioral therapy - emotion-focused therapy - psychodynamic therapy

question

What is the more efficacious treatment for depression?

answer

- all equally efficacious - IPT bit more...supportive a bit less

question

What is Beck's negative cognitive triad?

answer

pessimistic thoughts about: - self - others/world - future

question

What are the 9 components of cbt case formulation?

answer

CHIP TROPP Chief complaint Hypothesize mechanism Identifying information Problem List Treatment plan Relation of mechanism to problems Origins of central problem Precipitants of current problems Predicted obstacles to tx

question

What are the core tenants of cbt?

answer

- time limited, goal-oriented - pt. is active collaborator - goal is independent functioning - cognitive conceptualization model - model of emotion

question

What are structured sessions of CBT?

answer

- update, mood check, summary of last session, review pt. goals -review homework - set session agenda - discuss agenda -assign new homework -summary/feedback

question

What are characteristics of core beliefs and schemas?

answer

- develop early - deeper level of cognition - rigid - predict & shape automatic thoughts

question

What are automatic thoughts?

answer

- maladaptive automatic thoughts block goals and increase emotional pain - alt. thoughts may help reach goals, decrease emotional pain

question

What are list of maladaptive thought patterns?

answer

- catastrophizing - filtering - personalizing - (over)generalizing - polarizing - emotionalizing COPE FC

question

What are behavioral interventions for depression?

answer

- track behaviors/activities - introduce activity scheduling - increase mastery experiences - role play - relaxation

question

What are components of the treatment termination stage?

answer

- review treatment - assessment of goals - anticipate obstacles - create a plan for obstacles - booster sessions

question

What are some basic goals for EFT?

answer

- strengthen the self - regulate affect - create new meaning

question

What are the basics of EFT?

answer

- role of emotion in psychotherapeutic change - therapeutic relationship is essential for change

question

What do you promote for the client in EFT?

answer

= awareness - acceptance -expression - utilization - regulation - transformation

question

What are the core emotionals in depression according to EFT?

answer

fear and shame

question

according to eft what are some underlying problems of depression?

answer

- maladaptive emotion schemes - self-organizations

question

What are goals for depression when using EFT?

answer

- restore the self - access and utilize the existing resources of the personality -transform the depressive self-organization

question

What is an overview of EFT for depression?

answer

- access core emotional experiences & memories - develop alternative emotional response - using emotion to change emotion

question

What are some techniques in EFT to use for depression?

answer

- empty chair: grief - two chair: self-criticism - Empathic affirmation: process intense feelings

question

In what populations is short-term dynamic psychotherapy useful for?

answer

- depression in outpatient popuolation

question

What is the framework for psychodynamic therapy?

answer

- therapeutic relationship as a vehicle for change - neutral, genuine interaction - developmental context - transference/counter-transference - interpretations

question

What is the greenburg video?

answer

- EFT - woman has conflicts w/sister - mother was sick - focused on therapy

question

What are the 4 components of case formulation?

answer

- origins of intrapsychic and interpersonal conflict - defense mechanisms - transference/ count-transference - treatment goals

question

What are effective treatments for BP D/o?

answer

- CBT - Family-focused - group psychoeducation -interpersonal in combo w/psychopharmocotherpy sig. reduction in mood sxs

question

What are the componants for self-management for BP D/O?

answer

- maintaining wellness - mania - depression - suicidality - family and work

question

What is meant by maintaining wellness for bp d/o?

answer

- known risk factors and protective factors

question

How do you treatment manic sxs for BP?

answer

- controlling severity and limiting damage

question

How do you treat depressive sxs for bp?

answer

- awareness of signs and sxs - cognitive restructuring

question

How do you treat suicidal thoughts for bp?

answer

- risk factor - decrease access and increase support systems - reasons for living inventory - prevention plan

question

How do you evaluate family and work in BP tx?

answer

- possible problems (negative emotional reactions) - possible soluations (education) - Work advantages or disadvantages of disclosing illness - accommodation

question

How do you bridge the efficacy/effectiveness gap?

answer

Translational framework w/several stages - developing interventions - piloting/ feasibility-testing - evaluation - implementation

question

What are core elements of FIMM?

answer

Facilitated Integrated Mood Management - education - mood/ sleep monitoring - prodromal signs - medication adherence - substance use 5- session tx -electronic mood monitoring

question

What do we learn from the Milkowitz video?

answer

- treating woman w/BP d/o - have woman exercise (manic safety plan) - wearing glasses (need to wear glasses)

question

What are the 7 features that distinguish psychodynamic therapy?

answer

- focus on affect and expression of emotion - exploration of attempts to avoid distressing thoughts and feelings - identification of recurring themes and patterns - discussion of past experience - focus on interpersonal relations - focus on therapy relationship -exploration of fantasy life

question

Does psychodynamic tx for bp work?

answer

-efficacy demonstrated for depresson - reduction of relapse -reduction of medication greater self-acceptance

question

What can we learn from the striker video?

answer

- widow/grief - transitioning psychotherapy

question

Which symptom is specifically targeted in Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) for rape victims?

answer

depression

question

Which response is likely to be most adaptive for rape victims, according to Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT)?

answer

accommodation

question

Which of the following victims of trauma are least likely to be involved in Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) as their only form of therapy?

answer

Survivors of incest sexual abuse

question

Which of the following is not a common therapist consideration for therapists performing Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) for rape victims?

answer

CPT certification

question

Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) for rape victims emphasizes the importance of working through a stuck point. A stuck point is _________________.

answer

a conflict in beliefs/thoughts that interferes with accepting an event

question

What are two components that IPT works on for depression?

answer

- attachment (threat of loss) - bereavement/grief

question

What is an interpersonal inventory?

answer

In IPT a systemic review of patient's current and past interpersonal relationships

question

What is a treatment contract?

answer

In IPT it covers the goals and expected worst outcome, length and frequency of tx.

question

What is the focus for IPT?

answer

the interpersonal relationships (crucial for therapy) reduce patient's social isolatuion or interpersonal diffulties

question

What are stages of interpersonal role disputes?

answer

- renegotiation - impasse - dissolution

question

What is more effective for depression IPT or CBT?

answer

equally effective IPT combo w/psychopharm is promising

question

What are techniques in IPT?

answer

- exploratory: let pt. discuss what is going on - encouragement of affect: use affect to bring about interpersonal change - clarification - communication analysis: used to examine communication failures - use of therapeutic relationship: model interpersonal relationship - behavior change techniques: modeling, directive, role playing

question

How does IPT differ from regular psychodynamic therapy?

answer

- therapist takes an active role not passive - similar in that transference and countertransference used therapeutically

question

What is the best treatment for depressed latinos?

answer

CBT and IPT integrated therapy

question

How do you treat bipolar disorder?

answer

Cognitive-behavioral approach

question

What is the focus of CBT for BP d/o?

answer

- addressing depression stage and relapse prevention

question

What is the structure of CBT sessions for BP d/o?

answer

- mood charts review - hw review - agenda setting - session summary - homework assignments Recording the session good resource for patients

question

What does a tx contract for BP d/o include?

answer

- early action if signs of dpression or maina - contact list for suicidal thoughts - outlined steps for friend/family to take when in manic or depressive state

question

What characteristic of BP d/o might make CBT less effective?

answer

history of multiple episodes (more than 12)

question

What are some considerations for treating patients with BP d/o?

answer

- medications are usually prescribed so compliance should be addressed in therapy - pts that are noncompliant are at greater risk for relapse

question

What are some disadvantages of using CBT for BP pts?

answer

-pts do not want family involved - focus is depression not mania - hw is time consuming - more sessions may be needed

question

What are some cultural considerations for CBT?

answer

- CBT emphasizes assertiveness, personal independence, verbal ability, rationality, cognition, and behavioral change.

STUDY

Clinical Diagnosis Linguistics

A&P Chapter 6 and 8 – Flashcards 71 terms

David Dunn

71 terms

Preview

A&P Chapter 6 and 8 – Flashcards

question

Appraisal + Diagnosis=

answer

Assessment

question

Types of Appraisals

answer

Informal and Formal

question

Screening

answer

quickly identifies whether or not a person may have a communication disorder; activities or tests that identify individuals who merit further evaluation

question

Informal Appraisal

answer

speech sample, read a passage; Swimming, Grandfather, Rainbow passage

question

Formal Appraisal

answer

Fluharty Preschool Speech and Language Screening Test (2nd Edition), Diagnostics Evaluation of Articulation and Phonology (DEAP), Joliet 3-minute Speech and Language Screen (Revised)

question

Appraisal

answer

collection of data

question

Diagnosis

answer

represents the end result of studying and interpreting these data

question

Assessment

answer

clinical evaluation of the client's disorder, can be divided into appraisal and diagnosis

question

Phonetic/Phonemic Inventory

answer

all sounds child can produce and all sound they can use contrastively that conveys meaning

question

Phonetic/Phonemic Inventory

answer

hearing test, speech sound test (words and conversational speech), stimulability measures, related areas: language, phonological awareness, speech sound perception/discrimination, special considerations (co-morbid; co-existing diagnosis, Down syndrome), oral mech exam

question

Advantages of Artic Tests

answer

standardized scores, inventory of errors in different word positions, standardized administration, detailed scoring procedures (child to child, clinician to clinician)

question

Disadvantages of Artic Tests

answer

may not provide a representative sample (Goldman-Fristoe only looks at consonants in the initial, middle, and final position), may not provide a reliable sample, some tests are designed to just assess speech sounds, not phonological processes, may not assess all sounds in all contexts

question

When selecting the assessment measure, look at the

answer

age of child, suspected problem, adequate sample of speech sounds, need for standardized scores (qualifying for services), type of sound error analysis, specificity/sensitivity (how well does the test do what is is supposed to do)

question

False/Positive

answer

child has disorder when they really do not

question

False/Negative

answer

identifying child is typical when they really have disorder

question

When using speech sound disorder tests, you should...

answer

if there is an error, transcribe the entire word (minimally broad; narrow if necessary), record a continuous speech sample, elicit additional examples of error sounds (additional sounds in different positions; conversational speech)

question

Speech Sound Assessments at NCCU

answer

GFTA 2, Khan-Lewis Phonological Analysis 2, Clinical Assessment of Articulation and Phonology (CAAP), Bankson-Bernthal Test of Phonology, Slosson Articulation Language Test with Phonology, Kaufman Speech Praxis Test for Children, Photo Articulation Test (PAT-3)

question

Arizona Articulation Proficiency Scale-III

answer

good for older clients, pictures are more mature (black and white), sentence test capability (sound production in sentences), severity rating description, vowels and consonants are scored

question

Diagnostic Evaluation of Articulation and Phonology (DEAP) includes:

answer

screening, diagnostic, oral mech exam, articulation measure, phonological disorders measure, good sensitivity and specificity

question

Hodson Assessment of Phonological Patterns-III

answer

preschoolers, elicits and requires transcription of 55 utterances using toys instead of pictures (more of a spontaneous speech sample with showing pictures), both a comprehensive evaluation and screening test, The Phonological Evaluation can be administered in 20 minutes and contains objects and pictures to elicit 50 stimulus words

question

Describing Error Patterns

answer

two-way scoring, five-way scoring, five-way + phonetic transcription of errors

question

Two-way scoring

answer

screenings or during therapy (incorrect/correct)

question

Five-way scoring

answer

omission or deletion, substitution, distortion, addition, correct

question

Stimulability testing

answer

examine ability to produce a misarticulated sound in an appropriate manner, not a formal procedure, "Watch, listen, say what I say", move from isolation to CV to CVC to word level for each sound in error (coarticulation affects that helps child produce sound or hinders child's ability to produce sound), at least two or three trials each, possibly in each position

question

How do we use stimulability information?

answer

sounds that are highly stimulable should be targeted for intervention or sounds that are highly stimulable should NOT be targeted for intervention (if a child is stimulable for a sound, then that should is already in the child's phonetic/phonemic inventory, priority may be sounds that are not in the child's inventory)

question

Language

answer

80% of children with SSD have poor language skills

question

Language

answer

screen at minimum, children with significant speech sound errors may need a comprehensive language assessment, monitor language development -reassess speech as language improves (ex. 3-4 yr old, non-verbal, 1-2 words, 3-4 word sentences; the more they tried to talk, the more speech sound errors they tried to produce; if you have more verbal production, then you have more of what the child can produce)

question

Triangle levels

answer

bottom-metalinguistics, middle-metaphonology, top-phonological awareness

question

Metalinguistics

answer

ability to use language as a tool, ability to manipulate language, see language as a big picture (looking at a word and seeing that it is made of smaller parts)

question

Phonological Awareness

answer

ability to reflect on and manipulate the structure of an utterance; rhyme knowledge, blending (sounds together), segmentation (sounds apart), manipulation of syllables, clusters and phonemes (What is the first sound in the word sit?), children with speech sound disorders perform poorer on these tasks

question

Speech Perception/Discrimination

answer

Does a child have the ability to discriminate sounds to produce them?, research results are inconclusive or indicate the answer no, speech sound discrimination conducted for children who are collapsing at least two phonemes into a single sound (child substitutes -/s/ for /z, sh, 3, tS/

question

Highly unintelligible children

answer

when eliciting a conversational sample, select the topic and provide a structure, give child specific topic (you know what the child may talk about), gloss the child's utterance (repeat what they said; important if you are recording)

question

Young children/children with emerging phonological systems

answer

consider overall development of child, supplement measures with information from caregivers (target words, language at home, objects that child has attempted to label at home, if there is any intent), conduct an independent analysis (look at child's production on it's own, do not compare child to norms)

question

Independent analysis

answer

only analyzes the child's speech production; does not compare child to adult model; does not matter if sound is produced incorrectly in relation to an adult target, some have a rule that sound must appear twice

question

Relational analysis

answer

compare child's production to adult model, traditional but may not be appropriate for this population

question

Bernthal et al (2009)

answer

suggests an expressive vocabulary of at least 50 words (if they are having difficulty saying words, they will not be able to do the Goldman-Fristoe)

question

Independent analysis

answer

inventory of speech sounds; consonants and vowels, word positions, articulatory features, inventory of syllables and word shapes (syllable constraints-are there any syllable shapes they cannot produce); CVC words --> CV

question

Goldman-Fristoe Test of Articulation

answer

Relational Assessment Measure; comparing child's speech productions

question

Inventory of speech sounds

answer

list of speech sounds that client can produce correctly

question

After collecting data across multiple context,

answer

next step is to analyze and interpret the information

question

At the end of your appraisal,

answer

you should have the following (collected in multiple contexts); list of where correct and error productions occur, syllable shapes, initial, medial, and final, prevocalic, intervocalic and postvocalic consonants

question

prevocalic

answer

consonant before the vowel

question

intervocalic

answer

between two vowels, before and after

question

postvocalic

answer

consonants occurring after the vowel

question

You may not get every consonant in EVERY position!

answer

question

hat

answer

/h/ initial, pre /t/ final, post

question

shoe

answer

/sh/ initial, pre

question

yellow

answer

/j/ initial, pre /l/ medial, intervocalic

question

pajamas

answer

/p/ initial, pre /d3/ medial, intervocalic /m/ medial, intervocalic /z/ final, post

question

Remember..

answer

when giving a test, loot at test manual and see how they define a consonant in a middle position; if there are more than two syllables, then looking for the medial consonant is unreliable

question

At the end of your appraisal you should have,

answer

distribution of speech sounds, inventory of speech sounds (phonetic and phonemic)

question

Phonetic Inventory

answer

list of speech sounds that client can produce correctly (accuracy may vary according to context)

question

Phonemic Inventory

answer

all the sounds the child can produce contrastively to differentiate meaning (use in different contexts, use different sounds with different words)

question

Phonemic Inventory

answer

analyze errors to determine what sounds are being substituted, deleted, etc., does the child always say /w/ for /r/ or others sounds too? does child substitute /w/ for /l, sh, r/? - substitution patterns

question

Phonemic Inventory

answer

can use minimal pairs to see if child can use sounds contrastively; /wEd/ -/rEd/ (target) child produced /wEd/ for both productions, /wEd/ - /lEd/ (target) child produced /wEd/ for both productions, /rEd/ - /lEd/ (target) child produced /wEd/ and /lEd/ - Child does not know the differene between /w/ and /r/ or /l/; knows that there is a difference between the /r/ and /l/. he is trying to use it contrastively and differentiate sounds

question

Does the child know the difference between producing a /w/ for /r/?

answer

He does not contrastively know the difference between these two sounds but realize that there is a difference between /r/ and /l/. It is possible to produce a sound incorrectly in 9/10 contexts but still get one right; you need to see more of a pattern (2 to 3 times in a sample)

question

Articulation disorder

answer

there are phonemic contrasts - differentiate between sounds, problems are motor-based, speech sound errors are consistent (same error across positions)

question

Phonological disorder

answer

review inventory and distribution of speech sounds, examine syllable shapes and constraints, examine phonological error patterns (15 patterns); place, manner, voicing or phonological analysis (Kahn-Lewis assessment)

question

Phonological Error Pattern Analysis

answer

phonological process analysis is the most common type of phonological error pattern analysis, describe the type and frequency of the phonological processes, child could use a phonological process but not have a disorder (depends on age of child); ex. 20 month old deleting final consonants (expected for 2 yr old, but would not address in therapy), can use standardized test measures (Kahn-Lewis)

question

Phonological processes

answer

standardized test may define a phonological process differently from another; need to use definition presented in test manual, may invalidate the norms if you do not follow directions in manual, idiosyncratic processes-unusual or individually distinct, processes for vowels too

question

idiosyncratic processes

answer

things that no one has see before; unique to that child

question

Need for Intervention

answer

Is there a speech sound disorder?, What is the nature of the problem?, How does it impact communication, intelligibility or severity? (school-system)

question

Intelligibility

answer

perceptual judgment (not exact science), takes into account the number, type, and consistency of errors; vowel or consonant errors

question

Three common measures of intelligibility

answer

open-set, closed-set, rating scale

question

Open-set

answer

transcribe a speech sample and determine the percentage of words identifiable; use stars and checks for positive marks

question

Closed-set

answer

client repeats words or reads from a word list or passage; determine the percentage of words identifiable; Rainbow passage

question

Rating scale

answer

Level 6-Sound errors are occasionally noticed in continuous speech Level 5-Speech is intelligible, although noticeably in error Level 4-Speech is intelligible with careful listening Level 3-Speech intelligibility is difficult Level 2-Speech is usually unintelligible Level 1-Speech is unintelligible

question

Percentage of Intelligibility

answer

number of words understood/number of words understood + number of unintelligible words x 100 ex. 50/150 x 100 = 33%

question

Typical intelligibility

answer

3 yr old - 75% intelligible 4 yr old - 85% intelligible 5 yr old - 95% intelligible

question

Severity

answer

conveys the significance of the impairment, percentage of consonants correct (PCC is one of the most commonly used measures (only consonants correct)

question

PCC

answer

mild - 85-100% mild-moderate - 65-85% moderate-severe - 50-65%

STUDY

Clinical Conducting Epidemiology Physician Assisted Suicide Self Defeating Thoughts

Community Nutrition – exam 2 – Flashcards 112 terms

Tiffany Hanchett

112 terms

Preview

Community Nutrition – exam 2 – Flashcards

question

Select the three categories for the indicators of community health status as defined by the RWJF/University of Wisconsin County Health Rankings.

answer

-Premature Death -Birth Outcomes -Health Related Quality of Life

question

Environmental factors included as determinants of disease in epidemiology include:

answer

-living conditions -occupation -geographical locatin (does NOT include nutrition status)

question

The most rigorous evaluation of a dietary hypothesis is the...

answer

randomized controlled trial

question

The most appropriate use of a correlational study is...

answer

generating hypotheses

question

_____ studies examine the relationships among dietary intake, diseases, and other variables as they exist in a population at a particular time.

answer

Cross-sectional

question

_____ studies compare the frequency of events (or disease rates) in different populations

answer

Correlational

question

The relative risk of lung cancer in people with low fruit and vegetable intake compared to those with high intake is about 2.0. This means that the people with....

answer

low fruit/vegetable intake were at twice the risk of developing cancer.

question

Matching: scientific method and description: Problem is identified

answer

observation & question

question

Matching: scientific method and description: A tentative solution to the problem is formulated

answer

hypothesis & prediction

question

Matching: scientific method and description: A study is designed and conducted to collect relevant data

answer

experiment

question

Matching: scientific method and description: Conclusions are drawn based on collected data

answer

results & interpretations

question

Matching: scientific method and description: Integrates conclusions of studies that support the hypothesis

answer

Theory

question

Prevalence

answer

The number of existing cases of a disease in a given population

question

Incidence

answer

The number of new cases of a disease during a specific time period in a defined population

question

Cohort

answer

A well-defined group of people who are studied over a period of time

question

Food balance sheets

answer

National accounts of the annual production of food, changes in stocks, imports/exports, and food distribution

question

Risk

answer

The probability that people will aquire a disease

question

Case-control study

answer

a type of observational analytic study

question

Confounding factor

answer

A "hidden" characteristic that is distributed differently in the study and control groups that may cause an association that the researchers attribute to other factors

question

Determinants

answer

Causes and factors that affect the risk of disease

question

Vital Statistics

answer

Figures pertaining to life events

question

Case

answer

A particular instance of a disease or outcome of interest

question

Case-Control study

answer

-relies on recall or existing records about past exposures -difficult to select suitable comparison group -relatively quick and inexpensive as it requires relatively few subjects

question

Cohort study

answer

-can calculate and compare rates in exposed and unexposed -Need to study large numbers of individuals, which may take years to accomplish -May provide incomplete data from subject loss to follow-up

question

The incidence rate can be determined by _______ studies.

answer

cohort

question

In epidemiological studies, when should the hypotheses be formulated?

answer

At the outset of the study

question

Food consumed away from the home is an example of food consumption data at the ______ level.

answer

household

question

Epidemiology differs from clinical medicine and laboratory science because of its focus on...

answer

populations

question

_____ bias may occur if study participants were self-selected or not randomly assigned.

answer

Selection bias

question

Increased consumption of _____ accounts for the greatest proportion of the overall increase in the U.S. energy intake.

answer

carbohydrates

question

Excessive fat is indicated by a waist circumference of ______ for men and _____ for women

answer

> 40 inches for men & >35 inches for women.

question

The County Health Rankings use what measure from what source of data for the Premature Death category to help establish Community Health Status?

answer

Years of Potential Life Lost (YPLL) from the National vital Statistics System as provided by the CDC's National Center for Health Statistics.

question

_____ studies compare the frequency of events (or disease rates) in different populations.

answer

Correlational

question

Which are not risk factors for heart disease?

answer

High LDL, low LDL

question

By 2030, approximately ___ percent of the population will be over 65 years of age.

answer

21%

question

Which of the following is NOT a public priority issued for the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics?

answer

Increased funding for WIC

question

After a bill is introduced in either body of Congress, the bill is sent...

answer

to a committee

question

Once a bill as been sent from the Congress to the president, the President may...

answer

-sign it into law, at which point it becomes an act OR -veto it, which means it cannot become a law

question

The bill authorizing the WIC supplemental feeding program became Public Law 92-433. The numbers 92-433 stand for:

answer

Bill number 433, enacted by the 92nd Congress.

question

In the House of Representatives, which committee has jurisdiction over revenue bills?

answer

Ways and Means Committee

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

answer

DHHS

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

answer

DHHS

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: Food and Nutrition Service

answer

USDA

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: Food Safety and Inspection Service

answer

USDA

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: National Institutes of Health

answer

DHHS

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: Administration on Aging

answer

DHHS

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion

answer

USDA

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: Public Health Service

answer

DHHS

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: Agricultural Research Service

answer

USDA

question

Matching-Committee w/ Department: Food and Drug Administration

answer

DHHS

question

Expressing Support for Designation of September as National Childhood Obesity Awareness Month

answer

Supports the designation of National Childhood Obesity Awareness Month to raise public awareness and mobilize the country to address childhood obesity

question

Healthy Children through School Nutrition Education Act

answer

Amends section 9A of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act to require local educational agencies participating in the school lunch or breakfast program to include in their school wellness policies the requirement that each student receive 50 hours of nutrition education each school year

question

Fitness Integrated with Teaching Kids Act (FIT Kids Act)

answer

Amends the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 to promote healthy, active lifestyles by students and require annual educational agency report cards to include information on school health and physical education programs

question

Physical Education to Create a Healthier Nation Act

answer

Amends the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 to establish minimum times students should spend in physical education activities

question

Healthy Lifestyles and Prevention Act of America (HeLP America Act)

answer

Aims to improve the health of Americans and reduce health care costs by reorienting the nation's health care system toward prevention, wellness, and health promotion

question

Safe and Complete Streets Act of 2011

answer

Ensures that all users of the transportation system can travel safely and conveniently on streets and highways

question

Safe Routes to School Program Reauthorization Act

answer

Maintains Safe Routes to School as a standalone transportation program

question

nutrition assessment

answer

The measurement of indicators of dietary status to identify impaired nutritional status

question

nutrition monitoring

answer

Assessment of dietary or nutritional status at intermittent times with the aim of detecting changes in the status of a population

question

nutrition surveillance

answer

Continuous assessment of nutritional status for the purpose of detecting changes in trends or distributions so that corrective measures can be taken

question

nutrition screening

answer

A system that identifies specific individuals for nutrition or public health intervention, often at the community level

question

Problem

answer

significant gap between current reality and the desired state of affairs

question

policy agenda

answer

set of problems to which policy makers give their attention

question

institutional agenda

answer

issues that are the subject of public policy

question

budget authority

answer

amounts that govnt agencies are allowed to spend in implementing their programs

question

budget outlays

answer

amounts actually paid out by govnt agencies

question

appropriation

answer

authority to spend money

question

Power players

answer

They are "in the know" and understand the political system

question

Party People

answer

They have strong party allegiance and know their party members

question

willing workers

answer

they will work diligently to get a task completed

question

banner carriers

answer

they feels strongly about an issue but prefer to talk rather than do anything about it

question

critics

answer

they aren't happy with the way things are, but aren't willing to do anything about it.

question

fence sitters

answer

they seldom get involved, but can be motivated on a specific issue.

question

The first step in the policy cycle is:

answer

problem definition and agenda setting

question

_____ is the process in which people concerned about an issue work to bring the issue to the attention of govnt. officials.

answer

Agenda Setting

question

In which phase of the policy-making process are tools/instruments for dealing with the problem chosen?

answer

Policy Adoption

question

A set of nationwide guidelines that specify how the nutritional needs of the population will be met is..

answer

National nutrition policy

question

Of the following choices select ALL that represent the mission of the USDA. Based on sound public policy, the best available science, and efficient management, the mission is to provide leadership on:

answer

-food -nutrition -rural development -agriculture -natural resources

question

The overall mission of the Department of Health and Human Services is to:

answer

promote, protect, and advance the nation's physical and mental health

question

The Food and Drug Administration is an agency of the

answer

Department of Health and Human Services

question

The National Nutrition Monitoring and Related Research Program is operated by:

answer

The USDA & DHHS

question

Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Correlate food consumption and dietary status with incidence of disease over time

answer

historical trends

question

Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Develop food guides and dietary guidance materials

answer

Food programs and guidance

question

Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Establish nutrient requirements such as DRIs

answer

scientific research

question

Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Determine populations at risk of having diets low or high in certain nutrients

answer

assessment of dietary intake

question

Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Develop food labeling policies

answer

regulatory

question

Matching: Use of NNMRRP data with an example: Assess progress toward achieving the objectives in Healthy People 2020

answer

monitoring and surveillance

question

The ______ is the dietary interview component of the current NHANES program

answer

What we eat in America survey

question

The ______ has the responsibility for processing the dietary data derived from the food recalls within the What We Eat in America Survey

answer

Agricultural Research Service

question

Which of the following national surveys is/are used most frequently to assess obesity data?

answer

BRFSS and NHANES

question

The _______, with the USDA's division of Food, Nutrition, and Consumer Services, target(s) obesity-related programs and policies

answer

Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion & Food and Nutrition Service

question

The ____ developed the Healthy Eating Index.

answer

Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion

question

The ______ oversees claims of health effects and labeling of food.

answer

Federal Trade Commission

question

In order for the Dietary Guidelines for Americans to be implemented, they must be...

answer

translated into food-specific behaviors for consumers.

question

Total Diet Study

answer

-It is designed to assess organic and elemental contaminants of the US food supply -The survey is conducted annually by the FDA -The selected minerals in Food Survey is a component

question

According to 'Got Milk' in the Back Story audio file, what was the public health push in 1957 to reduce heart disease directed towards and why?

answer

reducing milk intake because it contains cholesterol

question

In 1968, a review of nutrition experts, studies, and public opinion was begun by what committee in the US legislature?

answer

The senate health and nutrition and McGoverns

question

What were the primary health and nutrition concerns driving the work of the committee beginning in 1968?

answer

Extreme hunger nationwide and Increased incidence of heart disease

question

The objective of this Commitee's interviews with authors of nutrition and health research studies and experts in nutrition was to:

answer

develop recommendations about what Americans should eat to prevent heart disease

question

The final wording on one of the guidelines from the Committee was changed from what to what?

answer

eat less meat became eat lean meat

question

The systematic review - Common Syndromes in Older Adults Related to Primary and Secondary Prevention - was commissioned by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force. The objectives of the review, according to the abstract of the report include

answer

-to create a systematic synthesis of the published evidence about the prevalence of eight geriatric syndromes -to analyze the prevalence of geriatric syndromes and their association with survival of the elderly and their institutionalization - to review models that report survival in the elderly populations to determine whether complex mortality models added more information than simpler models

question

If you wanted to validate that the primary or secondary intervention programs your study group wants to present to class have high levels of evidence supporting their use, of the following resources, select those you could reference for evidence analysis.

answer

A.Cochrane Reviews funded by multiple International Agencies B.Nutrition Evidence Library (NEL) established by the USDA Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion C.The Evidence Analysis Library (EAL) of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics D. Agency for Healthcare Research Quality (AHRQ) established by the Department of Health and Human Services

question

Students in class reported the following findings - listed on the black board in class -- The TEP, the Technical Expert Panel, selected studies with geriatric syndromes (but not diseases) for this review according to:

answer

question

Select all of the correct answers. Most of the studies used, 62 percent, were prospective cohort studies or national surveys including:

answer

B. The National Survey of Self-Care and Aging C. The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey D. The National Health Interview Survey

question

The agency that funded the report - The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality - resides in what Operating Division of what Federal Department? (Text: page 174 - 179)

answer

The Public Health Service of the Department of Health and Human Services

question

What is the most typical way in which epidemiologists work toward controlling and preventing health problems?

answer

Formulation of health policies

question

The epidemiological method was initially used to investigate, control, and prevent epidemics of

answer

infectious diseases.

question

In epidemiological terms, smoking cigarettes would be an example of a(n) _____ risk factor and the data would be collected through the _____________of the NNMRRP.

answer

behavioral, BRFSS

question

Nutritional epidemiology..

answer

question

Methods of assessing household food consumption include which of the following?

answer

Records of number of meals eaten at home or away from the home

question

Epidemiology differs from clinical medicine and laboratory science because of its focus on

answer

populations

question

If passed, which of the following bills considered in Congressional Committee (U.S.) would have the most potential for increasing the public workforce in dietetics? Select all that apply.

answer

STUDY

Clinical Observe And Record Psychology Storage And Retrieval Training

Psych 110 Chapter 1 – Flashcards 25 terms

Tiffany Hanchett

25 terms

Preview

Psych 110 Chapter 1 – Flashcards

question

Birth of Psychology

answer

December 1879, Germany's University of Leipzig, Wilhelm Wundt

question

Wilhelm Wundt

answer

created an experiment seeking to measure "atoms of the mind"; late 1800s, CREATED THE FIRST PSYCHOLOGY LAB

question

Structuralism

answer

early school of thought promoted by Wundt and Tichener; used introspection to reveal the structure of the human mind, mental processes, cognitive, short and long term memory

question

Introspection

answer

Unreliable, looking inward

question

Introspection and Structuralism

answer

As introspection declines so did structuralism

question

Tichner

answer

Wundt's student

question

Functionalism

answer

early school of thought promoted by James and influenced by Darwin; explored how mental and behavioral processes function ---how they enable the organism to adapt, survive, and flourish

question

William James

answer

known as the father of psychology, professor at Harvard University, functionalist, studied Steele of consciousness

question

Mary Calkins

answer

mentored by William James, was denied her Ph.D. By Harvard because she was a woman, first female president of APA (American Psyology Association)

question

Margret Washburn

answer

first woman to receive a psychology Ph.D.

question

What event defined the start of scientific psychology?

answer

Scientific psychology began in Germany in 1879 when Wilhelm Wundt open the first psychology laboratory.

question

Why did introspection fail as a method for understanding how the mind works?

answer

People's self-reports varied, depending on the experience and the person's intelligence and verbal ability.

question

______ used introspection to define the mind's makeup, _______ focused on how mental processes enable us to adapt, survive, and flourish.

answer

Structuralism, functionalism

question

John B. Watson and later B.F. Skinner

answer

dismissed introspective and refined psychology as "the scientific study of observable behavior"

question

John B. Watson

answer

working with Rayner, championed psychology as the science of behavior, famous for "Little Albert"-- says phobias are made, phobias are conditioned and can be unconditioned, 1920s

question

B.F. Skinner

answer

following in footsteps of Watson, 1950s, rejected introspection, studied how consequences shape behavior

question

Behaviorism

answer

the view that psychology (1)should be an objective science that (2) studies behavior without reference to metal processes. Most research psychologists today's agree with (1) but not (2)

question

Freudian Psychology

answer

emphasizes the ways the ways our unconscious thought processes and our emotional responses to childhood experiences affect our behavior

question

Humanistic psychologists

answer

historically significant perspective that emphasizes the growth potential of healthy people; how current environmental influences can nurture or limit our growth potential, and the importance of having our need for love and acceptance stratified, counterculture of the 1960s

question

Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow

answer

Thought behaviorism and Freudian psychology was too limiting

question

Cognitive Psychology

answer

scientifically explored how we perceive, process, and remember information, and even why we can get anxious or depressed

question

Cognitive Neuroscience

answer

the interdisciplinary study of the brain activity linked with cognition (including perception, thinking, memory, and language); studying brain waves

question

Psychology

answer

the science of behavior and mental processes

question

Mental processes

answer

the internal, subjective experiences we infer from behavior----sensations, perceptions, dreams, thoughts, beliefs, and feelings

question

How did cognitive revolution effect the field of psychology?

answer

It recaptured the felid's early interest in mental processes and made them legitimate topics for scientific study.

STUDY

Clinical Data Drop Down Menu Health Computing Healthcare Medical/Clerical Assisting Transcription

GG MOA 160 EHR chapter 1 – Flashcards 63 terms

Darren Farr

63 terms

Preview

GG MOA 160 EHR chapter 1 – Flashcards

question

the ability of electronic systems to share information in compatible formats.

answer

interoperability

question

the patients stated primary reason for seeking treatment.

answer

chief complaint

question

screen that contains the amount owed and other billing details.

answer

ledger

question

an EHR function that facilitates automated prescribing.

answer

CPOE-computerized physician order entry

question

a fixed sum of money usually paid at the time medical services are rendered.

answer

copayment

question

an electronic format that speeds the claims process for physicians and suppliers.

answer

HIPAA 5010

question

a register of business transactions for a single day.

answer

day sheet

question

data entry using structured data entry or voice recognition.

answer

electronic transcription

question

one of the eight core functions of an EHR designated by the IOM(institute of medicine).

answer

reporting and population health

question

an audit is performed by the office manager to investigate whether appropriate employees have viewed the contents of a high profile patients chart. t or f

answer

true

question

the medical record contains legal documents but is not itself a legal document. t or f

answer

false

question

the medicals assistants typical duties will be modified with the implementation of the EHR. t or f

answer

true

question

clinical decision support tools are effective only if the provider chooses to use them. T or f

answer

true

question

an EHR system can help the provider and medical staff plan and coordinate care for a patient with a chronic illness. t or f

answer

true

question

automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription. t or f

answer

true

question

reduced productivity is to be expected for a period of time during the conversion of an EHR system. t or f

answer

true

question

communication among various treating healthcare providers, pharmacies, and allied healthcare workers will be limited until EHR interoperability has been achieved. t or f

answer

true

question

one of the core functions of the EHR includes the ability to assist providers with treatment protocol. t or f

answer

true

question

it is possible for individuals to penetrate EHR systems despite security systems. t or f

answer

true

question

EHR systems make it unnecessary for office staff to be familiar with medical terminology. t or f

answer

false

question

most EHR systems hold the ability to handle clinical and administrative functions without purchasing separate practice management software. t or f

answer

true

question

professional organizations offer continuing education for the core skills of their discipline and do not have any opportunities for learning about EHR. t or f

answer

false

question

what is a medical record?

answer

a complete physical collection of an individuals healthcare information.

question

in the us and other developed countries, healthcare providers are required by law to report new cases of HIV/AIDS and other communicable disease to the...

answer

CDC-centers for disease control and prevention

question

clinical information includes...

answer

medical list, allergies list, immunization records, laboratory records, pathology records, hospital records, history and physical assessment findings, risk assessment, preventive services, progress notes, vital signs and growth charts, imaging test results

question

administrative information is...

answer

information that the administrative staff uses from the medical record in order to perform front office activities such as maintaining appointments, storing patient contact information, and creating patient correspondence

question

administrative information includes...

answer

patient demographics, name of emergency contact, patient correspondence, referral and consultation letters, prior authorizations, insurance information and copies of insurance cards, HIPAA 5010 claims status, billing account ledgers, superbills, day sheets, appointment history, diagnoses and procedure codes

question

legal forms or documentation that can be part of a medical record.

answer

medical releases, general procedure forms, HIPAA forms, advanced directives, living wills, disclosure logs, healthcare power of attorney forms

question

an individual who is responsible for inputting patient information into the medical record is called a...

answer

documenter

question

who is the person/s to document information in the medical record?

answer

receptionist or other member of the front office, next it is, usually, the medical assistant and then the physician

question

who owns the medical record?

answer

the individual who created them such as, if a private practice created the medical record they own it, if a hospital created the record they own it and so on.

question

who owns the information within the medical record?

answer

the patient(the patient has the right to a copy but the original record never leaves the facility that owns it)

question

the eight core functions of an EHR system.

answer

1. health information and data 2. results management 3. order management 4. decision support 5. electronic communication and connectivity 6. patient support 7. administrative processes 8. reporting and population health

question

the eight core functions of the EHR system was created by...

answer

IOM (institute of medicine)

question

an electronic patient record created and maintained by a medical practice or hospital.

answer

EMR-electronic medical record

question

an interconnected aggregate of all the patients health records, pulled from multiple providers and healthcare facilities.

answer

EHR-electronic health record

question

some of the capabilities of the commercial EHR...

answer

provider review of incoming lab data, reports storage of office forms electronic signature insertion fax and messaging functions to transmit prescriptions reminders that patient is do for a screening summary and print functions and more...

question

clinical decision support tools allow providers to do the following.

answer

1. ensure that the patients care compiles with established screening recommendations 2.plan treatment in accordance with evidence-treatment guidelines 3. generate patient data reports and summaries 4. complete documentation templates specific to the patients diagnosis 5. perform data base searches to identify patients who meet specific criteria 6. share best practices regarding treatment and diagnosis of disease 7. reduce the amount of testing 8. improve clinical outcomes and reduce misdiagnoses 9. reduce cost for unnecessary testing 10. improve patient safety

question

allows efficient handling of all front office administrative procedures, including entering patient demographics, tracking billing and insurance information, scheduling appointments, and processing payments for patient visits.

answer

PMS-practice management software

question

what is socioeconomic data information?

answer

age, sex, marital status, education, occupation, and perhaps religious preference

question

the most common way of appointment scheduling is a ....

answer

fixed schedule-when a patient is asked to appear in the office at a specific date and time

question

typical fixed appointments range from...

answer

10 to 30 minutes for acutely ill established patients to one hour for new patient visits

question

accounting procedures performed by practice management software include...

answer

management and creation of statements, generation of day sheets, and completion of HIPAA 5010 claim format

question

HIPAA 5010

answer

a standard electronic format that speeds claims processing for physicians and suppliers

question

advantages of EHR's

answer

improved quality and continuity of care increased efficiency improved documentation easier accessibility at the point of care better security reduced expenses improved job satisfaction improved patient satisfaction

question

disadvantages of EHR's

answer

lack of interoperability cost employee resistance regimentation security gaps

question

the basic skills needed to help you use an EHR effectively.

answer

1. a working knowledge of medical terminology and anatomy and physiology 2. basic typing and computer skills 3. organizational skills 4. interpersonal skills

question

cross-training

answer

is being able to perform more than one duty or skill across various task areas

question

the EHR aids in billing and coding tasks in the following ways.

answer

submission of superbills creation of billing statements assignment of procedural and diagnostic codes linking of procedural and diagnostic codes auditing organizing office finance generating prior authorization forms monitoring submission and follow up of claims

question

account ledger

answer

an accounting billing document that lists services provided, copayments made by the patient, reimbursement received from the patients insurance company and outstanding amount owed

question

audit

answer

a review of employee activity with in the EHR system, including an examination of which files were accessed or modified, when and why

question

CCHIT -certification commission for healthcare information technology

answer

a recognized certification body for EHR systems and their networks.

question

CDS-clinical decision support

answer

a set of patient-centered tools embedded within EHR software that can be used to improve patient safety, ensure that care conforms to protocol for specific conditions, reduce duplicate or unnecessary care and its associated cost

question

CPOE-computerized provider order entry

answer

an EHR function that allows the physician to order medications and tests. reduces prescribing errors, delays and duplication, and simplify inventory and billing processes

question

continuity of care

answer

a key aspect of quality that encompasses planning and coordination of care, communication among members of the healthcare team, and accessibility and transportability of information

question

day sheet

answer

a register for daily business transactions; also called a day journal

question

electronic transcription

answer

data entry into the EHR using handwriting recognition, voice recognition, electronic sentence building, scanning and other means

question

encounter

answer

a documented interaction or visit between patient and healthcare provider

question

interoperability

answer

the ability to separate EHR systems to share information in compatible formats

question

PIF-patient information form

answer

a form used to gather information about the patient, including basic demographic information, medical insurance data, and emergency contact

question

PMS-practice management software

answer

software used in the medical office to accomplish administrative tasks

question

structured data entry

answer

documentation using controlled vocabulary via preloaded data, drop down boxes, radio buttons and sentence builders

question

third-party payer

answer

a party other than the patient, spouse, parent or guardian who is responsible for paying all or part of the patients medical costs, typically the insurance company

STUDY

Clinical Diagnosis Medical Terminology

Chapter 14: Medical Records Management; Key Terms – Flashcards 12 terms

Anthony Richie

12 terms

Preview

Chapter 14: Medical Records Management; Key Terms – Flashcards

question

Accession record

answer

Log book used to assign numbers to correspondence or patients

question

Caption

answer

Method of designation used on file guides

question

Cross-reference

answer

Note in file to direct reader to specific record that may be filed under more than one name/subject (Married, maiden, foreign names)

question

Indexing

answer

Selecting name, subject, or number under which to file a record and determining the order in which the units should be considered

question

Key unit

answer

First indexing unit of the filing segment

question

Out guide or sheet

answer

Card, folder, or slip or paper inserted temporarily in files to replace a record that has been retrieved from the files.

question

Problem-oriented medical record (POMR)

answer

Patient chart record keeping that uses a sheet at a prominent location in the chart to list vital id data. Problems are identified by number that corresponds to charting.

question

Purging

answer

Method to maintain order in files by separating active from inactive and closed files

question

SOAP/SOAPER

answer

Subjective impressions Objective clinical evidence Assessment or diagnosis Plans for further studies Education for patient Response of patient to education and care given

question

Source-oriented medical record (SOMR)

answer

Patient chart record keeping that has separate sections for different sources of patient info. Such as lab reports, pathology reports, progress notes

question

Tickler file

answer

System to remind of action to be taken on a certain date

question

Unit

answer

Each part of a name, words, or numbers that will be indexed and coded for filing

STUDY

Clinical Veterinary Medicine

lecture 1 exotics 73 terms

Jill Lopez

73 terms

Preview

lecture 1 exotics

question

what is the avzmt?

answer

academy of veterinary zoological medicine technicians

question

technicians role

answer

History is very important Exams will take longer Restraint can be complicated Bad information - HUSBANDRY, habitat and diet Bad websites Know the good ones! Stay up on state regs and CE

question

what does Louisiana: Category: B* mean?

answer

Summary of Law: No person may possess bears, cougars, or non-human primates as "pets." If you possessed one of these animals prior to the passage of the regulation you are grandfathered in. No person may possess venomous or large constricting snakes (defined as more than 12 feet long) without first obtaining a permit.

question

Uropygial (preen) gland:

answer

On dorsal surface at upper base of the tail Preening stimulates secretion of an oily, fatty substance Bird uses beak to spread the oil throughout its feathers to clean and waterproof them

question

Powder Down Feathers

answer

Grow continuously at the base Disintegrate at their tip Create waxy powder that spreads throughout the rest of the plumage Birds without a uropygial gland have abundant powder down feathers

question

Alula bone

answer

originates from the wrist and carries the alula feathers (steering feathers)

question

Metacarpal bones

answer

join with the second and third fingers near the distal end of the wing Help support the primary flight feathers

question

Pinioning

answer

is a simple surgical that involves removing the end of the wing to render the bird incapable flight permanently.

question

Hearing and Equilibrium

answer

Ears are located behind and slightly below the eyes Columella: single bone in middle ear External ear is often bordered with auricular feathers

question

respiratory system of a bird

answer

question

lungs of a bird

answer

question

Air Sacs

answer

Thin walled, lightly vascularized membranes Paired - cranial thoracic, caudal thoracic, cervical, and abdominal air sacs Unpaired - interclavicular air sac Reservoirs for air Provide warmth and moisture to facilitate diffusion of air through capillaries Aid in thermoregulation Help provide buoyancy

question

Oral Cavity

answer

Trachea: cartilaginous rings. Can be long and coiled in few species Syrinx: enlargement of trachea above lungs Muscles, air sacs, and vibrating membranes Vocalization complexity depends on number of muscles present in syrinx

question

urogenital system

answer

left male right female

question

Canary & Finch

answer

Canaries The canary — among the most popular and varied pet birds in the world — is well known for his vocal talents and vibrant color. Canaries are actually finches, and they can be green or yellow, bright orange, or even brown. Still, when folks think of them today, they most often conjure up a brilliantly colored yellow bird, thanks to the Sylvester-outsmarting Tweety Bird. If you want a singer, make sure your new bird is a male — female canaries don't sing. This bird is perfect for beginners who aren't sure they want as much interaction as some other species require. The canary is happy to hang out in a cage and entertain you with beauty and song. In fact, they'd rather not be handled. Because they don't desire handling, the canary is a good children's pet, providing song and beauty and allowing youngsters to observe the wonder of birds close up. Finches The finch is another hands-off bird, a little charmer who embodies the word "vivacious." Finches are flashy, fast moving, and fun to watch, with a lively, constant twittering that's considerably below the decibel level parrots are capable of attaining. Finches do better in a social situation, so plan on buying two or more and giving them a cage with plenty of space to exercise their wings — these birds get around by flying and they don't climb for exercise. Also remember that when they're too crowded, territorial cage battles between cage mates will erupt. And Because they're perfectly content to live without handling, finches make good caged birds for an older child's room.

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Budgies

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Budgies (Parakeets) Because of their small price tag and easy availability, budgerigars (or parakeets) are often treated as a throwaway bird — easily purchased, easily disposed of, easily replaced. This deplorable attitude keeps people from valuing these birds for their affectionate personality — some budgies even become very good talkers, albeit with tiny little voices. Colors now reach far beyond the green or blue you remember from the pet department at the dime store. They're usually timid, at first, but budgies can be tamed by gentle, patient handling and can bond closely to their human companions. For a very gentle child, budgies are ideal pets. Choosing a good pet store is important when buying any pet, but especially important for buying budgies. Mass-produced birds are harder to tame because they haven't been socialized, and they're more prone to life-threatening diseases.

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Cockatiels

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Cockatiels are an exceptionally popular bird, and justifiably so. These small parrots are flat-out loving, and they live to snuggle and be petted. If you only recognize the gray bird with orange patches, you may be surprised at how many colors are available, thanks to the work of some energetic breeders. Some cockatiels learn to talk, but many are better at whistling. This bird is another who's a good choice for children as long as they understand the need for careful handling.

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Quakers , Senegals & Parrotlets

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Quaker Parakeets Green and silvery Quakers are active and upbeat, and they like to vocalize. Some learn to talk, while others love to whistle. They can all be loving if they're socialized when young and given consistent, respectful handling. Note that these birds are illegal in a handful of states because they are considered a threat to native agriculture. (For information on restrictions where you live, check with your nearest Department of Agriculture or fish and game authorities.) Still, the Quaker is well worth considering if you live in places where they are legal. Poicephalus Parrots and Parrotlets The small African parrots known collectively as poicephalus are an easy-going bunch. Senegals are probably the most common, a handsome little bird with a gray head, green back and wings, and yellow-orange underside. Other species in the group include the Meyer's, Jardine, cape, red belly, and brown head — all known for their small size (a little bigger than a cockatiel) and affectionate personalities. They aren't the best talkers here, but their noise level is pretty low. After they decide you're trustworthy, these birds are especially fond of having their heads and necks scratched — in fact, they beg for it, tipping their heads and leaning over to expose their necks for a good scratch. Don't let the small size of the Parrotlet fool you; these 5-inch dynamos are all parrot — active, inquisitive, loving, and demanding. Apple-green or blue in hue, parrotlets are more quiet than some of their larger relatives, but some do develop the gift of gab.

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Pionus & Conures

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Pionus Parrots Pionus are sometimes overlooked because they're not as flashy as other parrots. But what they lack in bright colors they make up for with winning personalities. These are slightly larger than the poicephalus, but still small enough to be easy to keep and handle. Their personalities are more sedate, and they're not excessively loud. (Nor are they considered fantastic talkers, although they're certainly capable of learning a few phrases.) The word most connected with the pionus is "sweet," and it fits. And when you're in love with one, you can appreciate the subtle beauty of these birds — the plumage of a healthy pionus has an almost iridescent quality about it. Pyrrhura Conures As pets, you've got about a dozen varieties of conures to choose from. The best bet for new owners is the green-cheeked or maroon-bellied conures, which are both much, much quieter than the more popular sun conure (but then, so are some rock bands). They are affectionate and playful. Some may even grace you with a few acquired phrases.

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Amazons

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Amazon Parrots The Amazons are a little bigger and more expensive than many of the other birds on this list, but they're just too darn appealing to leave off it. Amazons are among the best talkers around, especially the yellow-naped species. They are also beautiful, brilliant, and love to clown around. They love to be in the limelight, and they seem to feed off the attention they attract. Some Amazon species are easier to live with than others. For beginners, the lilac-crowns, blue-fronted, red-lored, and white-fronted are good choices. These are less demanding, quieter, and all around are easy to handle. The problem for beginners: Amazons can be too smart. As with any parrot, you need to be sure you're giving your bird lots of structured socialization, a fair share of toys, and plenty of exercise

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types of amazons

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1. Blue Fronted Amazon Parrots 2. Red Lored Amazon Parrots 3. Orange-Winged Amazon Parrots 4. Yellow-Naped Amazon Parrots 5. Double Yellow Headed Amazon Parrots 6. Lilac-Crowned Amazon Parrots 7. Mealy Amazon Parrots 8. Green Cheeked Amazon Parrots 9. White Fronted (Spectacled) Amazon Parrots

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Lovebirds

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Peach-Faced Lovebirds Peach-faced lovebirds are beautiful, active, and playful. A well-socialized peach-faced can be your best pal for years, if you don't leave him to waste away alone in a cage. When hand-raised and socialized with humans, these little guys love to be handled, carried around in your shirt pocket or on your collar. They're very affectionate, not overly loud, and capable of picking up a few phrases.

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Avian Examination

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Complete Physical Exam Ophtho, Aural, Oral Feather check Abnormal Molting Development Damage or stress bars Ectoparasites Feather loss Body weight (usually in grams) Check Keel for muscle mass, to thin or too fat Fecal testing (Gram stain, direct smear, float) Routine screening bloodwork (CBC, Chemistry Profile) Client education & counseling Behavior Nutrition Husbandry Quarantine (when applicable) Annual veterinary health exam

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Sternum

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Large and concave Site of origin of flight muscles In some species, muscles attach to large bony ridge or keel In flightless birds sternum lacks a keel

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Blood Draw

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How much blood can I safely withdraw from a healthy avian patient? 1% of a patients body weight in blood can be safely withdrawn for diagnostic testing. Example: 30g Budgerigar, 0.3mls of blood can be safely withdrawn in a healthy patient. 1kg Blue & Gold Macaw, 10mls of blood can be safely withdrawn. In the larger birds, although you may be able to take 10mls of blood, one should only withdraw the amount needed for testing. Always be sure to gather your required tubes and sampling supplies prior to venipuncture to avoid clotting. What are suitable venipuncture sites in the bird? --Jugluar vein (right is generally larger than the left) --Basilic vein (wing vein) --Medial metatarsal vein (inner distal leg)

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Restraint

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Put bird down if getting to stressed Losing grip, panting, eyes close, if you/vet are worried

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Wings

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Wing clipping Owner Choice and some times for safety or medically warranted Finches and canaries are always flighted - these are "watching only" birds that most people don't handle. Other small birds that live in an aviary setting are often also left flighted, including budgies, cockatiels, and lovebirds. Parrots that are "hands on" companions often have their wing feathers clipped so that they can't fly away. Clipping doesn't hurt the bird - only the lower half of 7 to 10 mature flight feathers on the wing are clipped, and these don't have a blood supply or nerve endings - it's like a haircut. However, flying does psychologically benefit a bird, so you can keep a hands-on companion flighted if you're very careful about windows and doors, and you parrot-proof your home, removing all of the dangers that a roaming bird can find. All birds left outside of the cage should be closely supervised. Proper Wing Clipping should be comfortable to the bird and the owner

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Feather Picking

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Quickly stop behavior Use pool noddle Bubble collars Disc collars

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Nails and Beak

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Nail and beak trimming Birds need very little actual grooming - they do most of the grooming themselves. They bathe themselves and they preen their feathers into perfection. When people say, "bird grooming," they are referring to clipping the wings, clipping the nails, and conditioning/trimming the beak. A professional should do all of these grooming chores until you know how to do them, with the exception of the beak - only an avian veterinarian should tend to your bird's beak. You can seriously injure the beak if you do something wrong, and the beak is very sensitive. Nail trimming can be traumatic for a bird, especially if it has to be restrained to have it done. Also, the nail has a blood supply, called the "quick," and if you cut into it the nail will bleed. You can stop the bleeding with styptic powder or flour. A really great, non-traumatic way to clip nails is the "sneak up" method. Hold your bird on your hand and talk to him in an animated way to distract him. Then, sneak up on the very tip of one nail and clip it off quickly and then turn around or do something to distract the bird from the fact that you just did that. You can do one nail a day, and in 8 days you'll have all of them done. Remember to only clip the very tip of the nail. Don't try to get too ambitious with this method! A bird's beak can get flaky and overgrown, often due to a poor diet, but sometimes just because the beak is built that way. The beak is made of keratin, the same material as our own nails. An avian vet can "condition" the beak using a file to smooth and shape it, and then oil it to keep it from drying. Don't do this yourself!

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Nails and Beak Trim

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Beak trim - be careful with Chipped beaks can cause inappetance

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Parasites (External)

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Most are seenon outdoor birds/wildlife Can be treated with Ivermectin Knemidokoptes spp. - inhabits the featherless areas of birds, typically seen in Budgies

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Parasites (internal)

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Giardia and Trichomonas - Rx Flagyl Coccidian Species - Rx SMZ Nematodes - Rx Praziquantel

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Heavy Metal Toxicity

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Due to items found in and around caging Hard to determine Lead and Zinc are top 2 to test for

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Signs of illness in birds

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You'll often hear that birds hide the signs of illness until it's too late, and the illness is either too far advanced to be cured, or the bird is belly up in the cage. The truth is, if you know your bird really well, you can easily notice the subtle signs of something being "not quite right." Here are some signs of avian illness: Change of attitude. A typically active, playful bird that becomes listless and withdrawn may be feeling ill. Sleeping too much. A change in your bird's sleeping habits can indicate illness, especially if the bird is sleeping on two feet with its feathers fluffed up to keep it warm. Sometimes an ill bird will crouch on the bottom of the cage. Discharge from nares: The nares are your bird's nostrils and are found at the base of the beak. Discharge or bubbles from the beak: This is indicative of a respiratory infection. Clicking from the beak: A clicking sound that happens as your bird breathes indicates air sac mites - these usually occur in finches and canaries. Tail bobbing: A bird whose tail is bobbing (going back and forth) noticeably while at rest usually has labored breathing. Don't mistake this kind of tail bobbing for the kind that accompanies singing or breathing heavy after exercise. Vomiting: Vomiting is different from regurgitating, which is what a bird does when courting another bird (or you!) or to feed young. Vomit usually sticks to the feathers around the face and the chest. Lack of upkeep: An ill bird will usually look unkempt and ratty because it isn't preening as much. Being picked on by cage mates: Birds will pick on other birds that are ill, and may even kill the weakened one. If you notice any of these signs, take your bird to your avian vet right away.

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Traveling with your bird

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Traveling with your bird is easy if you take some precautions and steps to make it as stress-free as possible. Here are some important travel tips: If you're traveling by air, make sure that you have an airline-approved carrier that will fit under your seat. Do not put your bird into cargo! Call your airline when you book your ticket and ask about their bird policy. Some airlines are no longer accepting birds in the cabin, so don't get stuck at the airport! Book your bird onto the flight when you make your reservation. Most airlines have limit on how many pets they take per flight, so make sure that your bird has its flying papers. Make sure that you take your bird's health certificate with you. You will not be allowed on the plane without it. If you're traveling by car, your bird should always be in a carrier. If you can't get the safety belt around the carrier, use bungee cords to secure it to the seat. It's very dangerous to allow your bird to ride freely in the car. If you have to leave the car, always take your bird with you - the car may become overheated, or a thief may spot your bird and steal it. Birds are not allowed on Amtrak, but they are allowed on some local trains - call to be sure and always have your bird in a carrier. The same applies for busses. In case of an emergency, write your bird's name and species, your phone number, and your veterinarian's phone number in permanent ink on the bird's carrier, and draw an arrow on each side to indicate which way is "up." Most birds are fairly calm inside the carrier, but some may panic. If you have a panicky bird, line the entire carrier with soft towels to avoid any injury from thrashing. Line the carrier with paper towels. Put your bird's favorite food inside the carrier along with a shallow dish of water or a water bottle (if your bird knows how to use one). Or, you can include a dish of cut fruit, like apples and oranges, so that your bird can get moisture from them. If the trip is long, check on his water often to make sure that it hasn't spilled. It's a good idea to clip your bird's wing feathers before the trip in case the carrier opens

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What To Do If Your Bird Flies Away

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It's a tragic moment for any bird keeper to watch a beloved bird fly away - and it happens quite often. Flying away isn't just a result of not having the wing feathers properly clipped. It's also a result of a carelessly opened window or door, and sometimes it's a matter of misjudging the bird, thinking that it will always stay on your shoulder, or that its wing feathers haven't grown in yet. Here's what to do if your bird flies away: Try to keep an eye on the bird and call for it to come down from wherever it has perched, usually a tree or other high spot. If you can, call someone to come outside and bring you the bird's food container, or something else the bird likes. If you have to get it yourself, move quickly. Try to call the bird down using the food. If that doesn't work (and most of the time it doesn't because the bird is scared or distracted), go inside quickly and get the bird's cage, or any cage, and the bird's friend (another bird) if it has one. The other bird will call to its friend to come back. Prop the empty cage door open and put food and water inside, then sit back a few feet (maybe out of sight) and wait for the bird to come back. If it does, rush over and shut the door. If your bird is friendly, try climbing a ladder as close to it as possible and lure it down with food. If you can't get your bird to come down, wait until nighttime when the bird will have to find a roost. If you know where the bird is when darkness falls, then you can use a ladder to reach him - grab him very quickly or use a net so that he doesn't go flying off into the darkness. If your bird has flown out of sight, get in your car and drive around looking for it. Do anything possible to locate it in the daylight hours. If you can't find your bird, immediately call all of the local animal shelters, veterinary offices, and pet stores and inform them about your lost bird. Someone may find your bird and take it to one of these places. Make up flyers with your bird's photo, a brief description of your bird, and offer a reward (but don't say how much the reward is). Post the flyers in high traffic areas within a 10-mile radius of where the bird was lost. As a preventative measure, if your bird can talk, try to teach it your phone number - it's a long shot, but it may help to bring the bird home if it is lost. You can also make a recording of your bird's vocalizations and play it outside if your bird is lost - the sound may bring it back. Make sure that your larger bird is micro chipped and that the chip's number is registered in a database.

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Nutrition

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Seeds vs pelleted diet-seeded diet best for smaller birds Peanuts..or no peanuts ( can be fatty) Fruit, Veggies, whatever you are eating NO Avocado or Chocolate-TOXIC

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Husbandry

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Proper Caging Proper perches Proper Substrate

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Household Hazards

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Common household dangers Birds are sensitive creatures that are prone to injury or illness from common household items. Things we don't often see as dangerous can be deadly for birds. Here are a few: Standing water. Birds have been found drowned in water glasses and even dog bowls. Keep toilet lids down, Jacuzzi tubs and fish tanks/bowls covered, and don't let dishes soak in the sink while your bird is out of its cage. Ceiling fans: Take down your ceiling fans or make absolutely sure that they're off when your bird is out of the cage. You may think that he can't fly that high, but you'd be surprised! Lead: Stained glass, fishing weights, and old, chipping paint contains lead, which is as deadly for your bird as it is for you. Keep these items far from your bird's reach. Scented candles, potpourri, and air fresheners: Anything that scents the air using chemicals is very dangerous for your bird. You can get the same effect by boiling cinnamon sticks and scented teas - just don't leave them on the stove when your bird is loose! Nonstick surfaces: Nonstick surfaces found in cookware, space heaters, popcorn makers, and various other appliances, emit toxic fumes when heated that actually kill birds without warning. Hot pots and pans: A pot full of boiling water might look like a great bathing spot for your bird - very bad! And worse, the pot may be full of hot oil or sauce. Keep your bird away from the kitchen when you're cooking. Glass and mirrors: A flighted bird may think that clean glass and mirrors are empty space and can be seriously injured or killed by flying into them. Sticker your glass and mirrors, or keep them dirty! Open windows and doors: Many birds fly away and are never recovered. Keep your window screens intact and be careful when you go in and out of the house. Wires: Wrap and put away all wires - your bird may become curious and chew on them. New carpeting: New carpet emits fumes that are deadly to birds

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Quick fixes for fumes, oil, and overheating

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Occasionally, an "incident" will happen that doesn't necessarily require an immediate trip to the veterinarian, or perhaps your vet is closed when you have a problem and have to deal with it yourself. Here are three problems that can befall companion birds: Fumes: Sometimes you are unaware of fumes in the air, but may notice your bird acting strangely - perhaps you're using your fireplace for the first time that season (in which case the bird should be out of the room!). The bird may become woozy, have a seizure, or even lose consciousness. Remove the bird from the area immediately and ventilate the room. Removing the bird from the source of the fumes may be enough to bring him around. If not, take him to the avian vet immediately. Oil on the feathers. It happens sometimes that birds will accidentally get into household oil, which is actually incredibly hazardous because oil prevents the feathers from insulating the bird. If your bird does get into oil, the first thing to do is dust him thoroughly with baking flour and then gently wipe it off. Next, fill a bowl or the sink with enough lukewarm water to cover him up to the neck, and add some grease fighting dish soap - just enough to make the water sudsy. Dunk the bird and very gently rub the feathers - do not dunk its head! Then dry the bird with paper towels and put it in a warm place to continue drying. Hopefully these two steps should be enough to remove the majority of oil on the feathers - if not, seek professional medical help. Birds can overheat easily if left in a hot area or put into the sun without a shady spot where it can retreat. An overheating bird will pant with its beak open and hold its wings slightly away from its body, and will be standing on two feet. Take the bird to a cool area right away and mist it with cool water. Place a few drops of cool water into its beak (without distressing it further). Watch to make sure that the bird regains its normal activity.

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Polyoma Virus

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Avian Polyomavirus (Papovavirus, Budgerigar fledgling disease, Psittacine polyomavirus) Avian polyomavirus (AVP) primarily affects young birds. It is a primary infectious cause of nestling psittacine mortality, especially in mixed collections and open aviaries. The typical presentation is a well-fleshed juvenile, just prior to fledgling age, with acute onset of lethargy, crop stasis, and death within 24-48 hr. Subcutaneous hemorrhages are often noted when injections are administered. Asymptomatic adults may be carriers. Gross necropsy : pale skeletal musculature and subcutaneous ecchymotic hemorrhages,kidneys and liver are enlarged and may be pale, congested, and mottled, or have pinpoint, white foci, petechial or ecchymotic hemorrhages may also be present on viscera, particularly the heart which may be enlarged and may show hydropericardium. Aviary control methods include avoiding the housing of budgerigars or lovebirds on premises where other species are bred, adhering to standard hygiene procedures, preventing access to the nursery by visitors, and not introducing birds into the aviary without 90 days quarantine and testing. Testing: involves collection of cloacal and choanal swabs for PCR testing for viral shedding and blood for virus-neutralizing antibody to identify birds with previous viral exposure. Vaccine: For breeding birds, 2 doses of the vaccine are administered at a 2-wk interval; this should be done off-season. The manufacturer recommends administration of the first dose to neonates when the chick is >35 days of age, with a booster vaccination in 2-3 wk.

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Avian Emergency

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How do I triage a bird emergency? Do not touch the bird! Be calm and quiet, as the less panicked you are, the less stress the patient (and the owner) will feel. Escort owners and pet to quiet exam room, if not already done. Observe the bird for obvious signs of respiratory distress: i. Open beak pantingii. Tail bobbing/pumpingiii. Wide leg stance If bird is in respiratory distress, inform the veterinarian and request permission from them and the owner to place the bird in oxygen before any handling. Ideally, keep the bird in it's travel carrier and put it into an oxygen chamber without handling the bird. If the bird is bleeding, try to assess where the blood is coming from without handling the bird. Inform the veterinarian and obtain appropriate cautery tools which the veterinarian may need to stop the bleeding: Electrocautery, styptic powder, gauze, silver nitrate sticks, or even some suture material and a laceration pack. Be prepared! Obtain a brief history from the client. Some questions may help the veterinarian before they are able to get in the room: How long have they noticed the problem, have they seen any bleeding, irregular feces, regurgitating/vomiting, seizures? Inform the veterinarian of your observations and history.

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egg bound

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Some hens (female birds) will lay eggs with or without a mate present, and some will even lay them without a nest present. Cockatiels and lovebirds are notorious for this behavior. Seeing an egg on the bottom of the cage can be distressing for a bird's guardian. What do you do about the egg? It seems cruel to take it away, but actually, if the egg is infertile (which it is if there's no male present, and often even if there is a male present), then it's not so nice to allow the bird to sit on the egg for weeks in attempt to hatch it. Also, the presence of one egg will prompt the bird to lay others to create a "clutch." You can allow the "mom" to sit on it for a few days, but then you should remove the egg and all traces of a nest that she may have tried to build. Egg laying is a perfectly normal behavior, but it's not to be encouraged simply because it takes a large toll on the body. Eggs leach calcium from the bones, and egg-laying hens need a lot more nutrition - especially calcium and protein - than non-laying hens. You can discourage egg-laying by decreasing the amount of light your bird gets a day to less than 12 hours and by removing all "nesting" material, including paper. To stop egg laying: Move bird Make sure they have toys Supplements Implant

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Egg Bound 2

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Sometimes, if a bird isn't in her prime or if she has recently had too many eggs, she can become "egg bound." This is when an egg is stuck inside of her, usually because it is malformed, soft, or because she's too weak to pass it. You may notice that her abdomen is distended and that she's on the bottom of the cage, fluffed up and possibly distressed. Her droppings may be large and watery, or she may not have droppings at all. Egg binding is a potentially deadly condition that requires immediate veterinary care. If you can't get her to the vet right away, place her in a warm hospital cage and give her two drops of olive oil in her beak and several drops in her vent (where the egg comes out). Be very gentle and be careful not to aspirate (choke) her with the oil. The oil may lubricate the egg and allow it to pass - heat is also critical to this process, so make sure that the hospital cage is around 98 to 99 degrees Fahrenheit, and that it's well ventilated. Moisture is important too, so place a dish of water in the hospital cage as well. Keep an eye on her to make sure she's okay, but don't disturb her too much. Give her a chance to pass the egg.

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Feather Damage

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Feather mites and other external parasites can chew and consume parts of the feather vanes Daily wear and tear: lighter tips of flight and tail feathers can be worn off Fault bar (stress bar): weakened area on the feather vane where barbs lack barbules Results from stress that interrupts blood flow during feather growth Common stressor: poor diet

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Molting

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Process of feather replacement Occurs once to several times a year, depending on species In most species, feather replacement is symmetrical One or two pairs of flight feathers molted at a time Many species of waterfowl molt all flight feathers at once after the breeding season

question

The African Grey

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red tail feathers, grey main feathers

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The Amazon

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typically green main feathers with multi-colored feathers depending on type of amazon

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The Canary

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small solid colored birds

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The Cockatiel

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usually has a long feather on top of head

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The Cockatoo

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white feathers, but head feather lift up and will have colorful feathers on top

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The Conure

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multi-colored

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finch

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remember the beak is almost a triangle

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The Macaw

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comes in a variety of colors blue and gold and scarlet

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The Parakeet (Budgie)

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Love Birds Peachface

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has a peach face

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Love Birds Masked

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has a masked face

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Love Birds Fischer

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The Soloman Island Eclectus

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The Quaker Parakeet

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The Senegal Parrot

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remember mindy at all pets

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Ring necked dove

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notice the ring around the neck

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Diamond dove

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red lory

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mostly red

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rainbow lory

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multi-colored

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What is a good amount of time for an appt with a bird/exotic?

answer

30 or more minutes

question

The Class Aves consists of how many species of birds?

answer

8500 species of birds and 29 orders of birds

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2 common orders are:

answer

Psittaciformes (parrots) and Passeriformes (canaries and finches)

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what are the primary flight feathers?

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1-10 are the primary feathers and the 10th feather is the last feather on the wing

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what is a common household product that is toxic to birds?

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PTFE fumes from teflon pans

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what is the average blood loss of a bird?

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a healthy bird can lose up to 10% of its blood volume ( or 1% of BW body weight)

question

dehydration in birds

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most sick birds are 5% to 10% severely dehydrated is >10%

question

what are some clinical signs of dehydration?

answer

depression, reduced skin elasticity over digits, sunken eyes, cool digits, and decreased refill time of the basilic (cutaneous ulnar) vein

STUDY

Clinical Invasion Of Privacy Phlebotomy Quality Assurance

History of Phlebotomy – Flashcards 8 terms

Daniel Thompson

8 terms

Preview

History of Phlebotomy – Flashcards

question

Egyptians (1400BC)

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used blood baths as means of resuscitation and recuperation from illness.

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Barbers/Surgeons (1200BC)

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were forbidden by law to perform any surgery except bloodletting, wound surgery, cupping, leeching, shaving, extraction of teeth and administrating of enemas.

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Hippocrates (460-377 BC)

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1.Father of medicine. 2. disease was the result of excess substance like blood, phlegm, black bile and yellow bile. 3. removal of excess would restore balance. 4. removal performed using drugs or by the surgical technique of phlebotomy

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William Harvey (1578-1657 AD)

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1. Recognized the circulation of blood. 2. Published the theory of the movements of the heart and blood. 3. Discovered the purpose of valves in the veins is to prevent the flow of blood back into the extremities, this keeping the blood in motion

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Jean Baptiste Denis

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performed the first successful blood transfusion of lamb blood into a human

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Leeches (17th and 18th century)

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1.using the European medicinal leech. 2. Enticed to bloodletting spot with a drop of milk or blood. 3. Leech would drop off by itself after it was engorged (about an hr)

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Cupping (17th and 18th century)

answer

1.required practice so patients were not frightened away. 2. Involved the application of heated suction apparatus called the "cup" to the skin to draw the blood to the surface before serving the capillaries in that area by making a series of parallel incisions with lancet

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Venesection (17th and 18th century)

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1.using a sharp lancet-type tool to pierce the vein and make it bleed. 2. used to reduce ever or produce a faint so an expectant mother would deliver her baby by the time she recovered

STUDY

Accountable Care Organization Accountable Care Organizations Acute Care Hospital Clinical Electronic Health Record Health Computing

EOC CH 1 – Flashcards 12 terms

Lucas Davies

12 terms

Preview

EOC CH 1 – Flashcards

question

EHR/EMR software is more comprehensive than practice management software because it a. is computerized b. contains menu options c. includes clinical documentation d. submits insurance claims

answer

c. includes clinical documentation

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PrimeSUITE: a. allows for ePrescribing b. has mobile applications c. assists in information exchange d. all of the above

answer

d. all of the above

question

a patient is entered into the patient list a. once b. twice c. after a procedure d. each time he or she is seen

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a. once

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in the long term, costs will _transitioning to an electronic health record system a. increase b. decrease c. stay the same d. disappear

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b. decrease

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the process of moving a patient from appointment making through check-out is called a. patient cycle b. patient process c. patient flow d. patient records

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c. patient flow

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clinical documentation of a patient's visit is known as the a. superbill b. progress note c. medical claim d. point of care

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b. progress note

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an encounter form is also known as a/an a. HER b. history c. claim form d. superbill

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d. superbill

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the _ is a form used to bill inpatient claims a. CMS-1500 b. ICD-9 c. CPT d. UB-04

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d. UB-04

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One factor that might contribute to slow acceptance of EHRs is a. security fears b. laziness c. fear of change d. space concerns

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a. security fears

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PrimeSUIITE's User Guide is accessed through the _ feature a. Help b. Information c. Lookup d. Query

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a. Help

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The _ is an example of clinical information that is collection through an EHR a. insurance policy b. plan of care c. research effects d. regulatory guidelines

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b. plan of care

question

_ is not easily attained when using a manual record system a. communication b. data capture c. interoperability d. maintenance

answer

c. interoperability

STUDY

Clinical

PrimeSUITE’S management and electronic health record and software – Flashcards 70 terms

Jazzlyn Sampson

70 terms

Preview

PrimeSUITE’S management and electronic health record and software – Flashcards

question

EHR/EMR software is more comprehensive than Practice Management software because it:

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Includes clinical documentation

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PrimeSUITE:

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Allows for ePrescribing, has mobile applications, assists in information exchanges

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A patient is entered into the patient list

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Once

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In the long term, costs will _________ when transitioning to an electronic health record system.

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Decrease

question

The process of moving a patient from appointment making through check-out is called:

answer

Patient flow

question

Clinical documentation of a patient's visit is known as the

answer

Progress note

question

An encounter for is also known as a/an

answer

Superbill

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The______ is a form used to Bill patient claims in physician offices.

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CMS-1500

question

One factor that might contribute to slow acceptance of EHRs is

answer

Security fears

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PrimeSUITE'S user guide is accessed through the_____ feature.

answer

Help

question

Which of the following illustrates clinical information collected through an EHR?

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Plan of care

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_____ is not easily attained when using a manual record system.

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Interoperability

question

Appliction

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Software with a unique purpose, such as word processing, or used for a specific industry

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Interoperability

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A single database to sync multiple unrelated functions or systems

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Care provider

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Person usually a physician, who performs healthcare services requiring specialized

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Clearinghouse

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Service that assists in claims processing by standardizing billing and performing error checks

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Electronic claim submission

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Filing of a healthcare claim using by computer rather than paper

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Encounter form

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A form generated at the completion of an office visit, a portion of which details the patients diagnosis, procedures and services, performed and charge for each procedure/service

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Point of care

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Procedures that take place at the time of care, rather than at a remote location or at a point in time after care is complete.

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Practice management software

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Specialized computer software that performs administrative and billing procedures in medical offices.

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Speech recognition

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Technology that digitally transcribes spoken words

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Demographics

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Documented patient information such as age, sex, and race

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Clinical documentation

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Stores/tracks the progress notes of patient visits

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EPrescribing

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Allows the electronic transmission of prescription information to pharmacies

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PrimeEXCHANGE

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Enables healthcare professionals to share relevant clinical information

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PrimeRESEARCH

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Enables access to clinical trial information and financial benchmarking services

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PrimeMOBILE

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Allows instant access to EHR information even without a computer

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PrimeSPEECH

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Documents verbal dictation on the computer screen

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Data

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A single fact often used interchangeably with information

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Health information exchange

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The sharing of health information among various entities, using standardized and secure processes

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Unstructured data

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Details that cannot be tracked , such as emails and voice recognition technology audio files

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Meaningful use

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Use of health information in an effective and efficient manner to improve patient care

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Clinical decision support

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Method of accessing current treatment options for a disease, through electronic or remote methods

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Master patient index

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Record of the names of all patients seen in a hospital setting

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Protected health information

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Any piece of identifying or clinical information about a patient

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CCHIT

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An independent organization that is responsible for certifying electronic health records for viability

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Institute of medicine(IOM)

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An independent organization that works to provide advice and guidance to the public and healthcare decision makers

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The acronym HIE stands for

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Health information exchange

question

An advantage of using screen-based data collection tools is that the layout of the information on the can be:

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Customized

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The ____ defined the eight core functions of an EHR

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Institute of Medicine

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Which of the following is a goal of HIPAA?

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Establish standards for keeping of health information

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In a physician's office, patient data collection begins when:

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The patient calls to make an appointment

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An advantage of EHRs is that patients are now able to ____ about procedures they procedures they are undergoing

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View videos

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Knowing that Jim Smith had a heart attack when he was 53 is an example of :

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Data

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When patients are finished with their encounter at a hospital, they

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Are discharged

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If a hospital uses information gathered through their EHRs to justify the purchase state-of-art equipment to improve patient care, they are:

answer

Engaging in meaningful use

question

______data includes demographic data

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Administrative

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Which of the following is NOT an example of demographic data?

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Primary physician

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Administrative data is used to satisfy_____requirements.

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HIPAA

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Before a patient can be treated at a healthcare setting, she must be

answer

Registered

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Recording a patient's previous or married name might help with

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Cross-referencing data

question

One of the common Help features is

answer

Frequently Asked Questions

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___is part of a patient's administrative information found on a registration form

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Occupation

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An insurance claim may be denied if the receptionist fails to:

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Enter all data correctly

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_____is part of the appointment scheduling feature of PrimeSUITE

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Chief complaint

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Accountable care organizations rely on EHR

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Data

question

A facility's collection of patient data might be used to satisfy___ requirements.

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Meaningful use

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Editing a patient's mailing address is accomplished by using

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Free-text fields

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Patient check-in is

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Important for efficient patient tracking

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Information such as a policyholder name and insurance plan name appear in the ____ section of a claim form

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Subscriber

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Chief complaint

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Reason for a patient's appointment; may determine the length of an exam visit

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IC-10_CM

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Comprehensive listing of national, alphanumeric diagnosis codes

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CMS-1500

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Form used to submit insurance claims in a healthcare office

question

Data dictionary

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List of correct definitions for a facility's unique terms and jargon

question

Clinical documentation architecture

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HL7 standard that outlines the format of clinical documentation, such as reports and discharge summaries

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Master patient index

answer

Permanent router of all patients ever seen in a healthcare setting

question

UB-04

answer

Form used to submit insurance claims in a hospital setting

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Continuity of care documents

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Document exchange standard that guides how patient information is shared among providers and healthcare settings

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Library

answer

In terms of computer software, a comprehensive listing of related entities to choose from, such as ICD-10 codes

question

Administrative data

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Information, such as a patient's gender and date of birth, that is required to be collected under HIPAA

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