question

Chapter 5 Consumer Behavior: How and Why We Buy 1) When using ________, a consumer exerts little effort in making a purchase decision. A) habitual decision making B) extended problem solving C) independent heuristic rating D) dependent heuristic rating E) limited problem solving

answer

habitual decision making

question

2) A consumer purchase decision made with a great deal of consumer exertion is a type of ________. A) habitual decision making B) extended problem solving C) independent heuristic rating D) dependent heuristic rating E) limited problem solving

answer

extended problem solving

question

3) The greater the ________ of a purchase, the higher the consumer's level of involvement will be. A) perceived risk B) cognitive dissonance C) psychographics D) heuristics E) targeting

answer

perceived risk

question

4) A consumer who is considering purchasing a house would probably use ________. A) habitual decision making B) stimulus generalization C) operant decision making D) limited problem solving E) extended problem solving

answer

extended problem solving

question

5) How does habitual decision making differ from extended problem solving? A) Extended problem solving uses behavioral learning, while habitual decision making relies upon cognitive learning. B) Consumers engaged in extended problem solving perceive less risk than consumers involved in habitual decision making. C) The level of involvement for habitual decision making is lower than it is for extended problem solving. D) Habitual decision making involves significant cognitive dissonance, while extended problem solving rarely involves cognitive dissonance. E) Consumers who are seeking to develop their loyalty to a brand would be more likely to make habitual decisions than use extended problem solving.

answer

The level of involvement for habitual decision making is lower than it is for extended problem solving.

question

6) ________ is the step of the decision-making process in which the consumer checks her memory and surveys the environment to identify what options might solve her problem. A) Product evaluation B) Behavioral targeting C) Problem recognition D) Problem screening E) Information search

answer

Information search

question

7) A consumer who is armed with information and is narrowing down his choices and comparing the pros and cons of each remaining option is in the ________ step of the consumer decision-making process. A) problem recognition B) information search C) evaluation of alternatives D) product choice E) postpurchase evaluation

answer

evaluation of alternatives

question

8) Consumer satisfaction/dissatisfaction is part of the ________ step of the consumer decision-making process. A) problem recognition B) information search C) evaluation of alternatives D) product choice E) postpurchase evaluation

answer

postpurchase evaluation

question

9) When a customer feels regret after purchasing a product, she is experiencing ________. A) psychography B) a heuristic C) an operant reaction D) cognitive dissonance E) a conditioned response

answer

cognitive dissonance

question

10) Exposure, attention, and interpretation are the three components that affect an individual's process of ________. A) psychographics B) dissonance C) affect D) status E) perception

answer

perception

question

11) Which of the following refers to the extent to which a person's sensory receptors are capable of registering a stimulus? A) cognition B) attention C) affect D) interpretation E) exposure

answer

exposure

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12) Which of the following refers to the extent to which a person devotes mental-processing activity to a particular stimulus? A) cognition B) attention C) affect D) interpretation E) exposure

answer

attention

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13) ________ is an internal state that drives consumers to satisfy needs. A) Motivation B) Interpretation C) Learning D) Affect E) Conditioning

answer

Motivation

question

14) Maslow's theory is that ________ can be arranged in a hierarchy. A) stimuli B) beliefs and attitudes C) perceptions D) human needs E) decisions

answer

human needs

question

15) Which of the following is the highest level of needs on Maslow's hierarchy of needs? A) social needs B) ego needs C) physiological needs D) self-actualization needs E) belongingness needs

answer

self-actualization needs

question

16) A person's attitude has three components. They are ________. A) affect, cognition, and behavior B) psychological, physiological, and situational C) situation, emotion, and environment D) cognitive, operant, and situational E) ritual, cultural, and referential

answer

affect, cognition, and behavior

question

17) ________ is the feeling component of attitudes. A) Affect B) Cognition C) Behavior D) Motivation E) Personality

answer

Affect

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18) ________ is the knowing component of attitudes. It is the beliefs or knowledge a person has about a product and its important characteristics. A) Affect B) Cognition C) Behavior D) Motivation E) Personality

answer

Cognition

question

19) AIO stands for ________. A) activities, interests, and opinions B) abilities, interests, and opinions C) activities, interests, and organization memberships D) abilities, income, and opinions E) activities, income, and opinions

answer

activities, interests, and opinions

question

20) ________ is made up of the values, beliefs, customs, and tastes produced or practiced by a group of people. A) The family life cycle B) Culture C) Lifestyle D) Psychographic data E) Social class

answer

Culture

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21) Which of the following is a social movement growing out of the increasing concern that our consumption behaviors are negatively affecting the physical environment? A) behavioral targeting B) green marketing C) greenwashing D) consumerism E) environmentalism

answer

environmentalism

question

22) ________ is the overall rank of people in a society. A) The family life cycle B) Mass-class C) Subculture D) Microculture E) Social class

answer

Social class

question

23) There are people who have similar income and education levels, and often share tastes in clothing, decorating styles, and leisure activities. These people also share many political and religious beliefs as well as ideas regarding valued activities and goals. These people could all be categorized as being in the same ________. A) family life cycle B) social class C) regional group D) operant conditioning set E) microculture

answer

social class

question

24) ________ often influence others' attitudes or behaviors because others perceive them as possessing expertise about a product. A) Opinion leaders B) Status symbols C) Heuristics D) Reference groups E) Social classes

answer

Opinion leaders

question

Chapter 6 Business-to-Business Markets: How and Why Organizations Buy 1) ________ is the marketing of goods and services that businesses and other organizations buy for purposes other than personal consumption. A) Business-to-business marketing B) Just in time (JIT) marketing C) Single sourcing D) Retailing E) Outsourcing

answer

Business-to-business marketing

question

2) Business-to-business markets do NOT include ________. A) manufacturers B) wholesalers C) end consumers D) retailers E) government agencies e.g. a pair of Seven jeans from Nordstrom, how did they get there?

answer

end consumers

question

3) Business-to-business marketing differs from consumer marketing in that business-to-business marketing ________. A) is targeted at many individual and household customers B) relies upon frequent impulse purchases C) emphasizes advertising more than any other element of the promotion mix D) typically involves competitive bidding and price negotiations E) usually has one person involved in purchase decisions

answer

typically involves competitive bidding and price negotiations

question

3) Organizational markets differ from consumer markets in that organizational markets ________. A) have a high number of purchases that are low risk and low cost B) have derived demand C) are not geographically concentrated-(think Silicon Valley, Seattle) D) have a single individual in the role of decision maker E) involve more frequent purchases

answer

have derived demand

question

4) Which of the following statements about organizational markets is true? A) The average purchase size in organizational markets is much smaller than the average purchase size in the consumer market. B) Demand for products in the organizational market is derived from demand for consumer products. C) Most demand for organizational markets is fixed. (vs. fluctuating) D) Organizational marketers have a broad customer base and a large number of buyers. E) Joint demand is not a factor. (Joint Demand- the demand for two or more goods that are used together to create a product- Porsche needs tires, batteries, etc to make a model)

answer

Demand for products in the organizational market is derived from demand for consumer products.

question

5) Many B2B marketers can take advantage of the ________ of business customers, focusing their sale efforts and perhaps even locating their distribution centers in a single region. A) geographic concentration B) mass media consumption C) multiple requirements D) fluctuating demand E) organizational changes

answer

geographic concentration

question

6) Most demand for business-to-business products is ________. A) derived, inelastic, fluctuating, and joint B) derived, elastic, fixed, and joint C) derived, inelastic, static, and dependent on the macroenvironment D) independent of all consumer market influences E) competitive, derived, fluctuating, and elastic

answer

derived, inelastic, fluctuating, and joint

question

7) Demand in B2B markets is mostly ________ because what a firm sells is often just one of the many parts or materials that go into producing the consumer product. A) elastic B) static C) fixed D) inelastic E) fluctuating

answer

inelastic

question

8) One year many customers' machinery wears out and needs to be replaced. The following year no customers need new machinery. This is an example of ________ demand. A) inelastic B) fluctuating C) elastic D) consumer E) static

answer

fluctuating

question

9) ________ occurs when two or more goods are necessary to create a product. A) Inelastic demand B) Fluctuating demand C) Joint demand D) Elastic demand E) Economic demand

answer

Joint demand

question

10) ________ do not actually produce goods, but they do provide their customers with the time, place, and possession utility by making goods available when and where consumers want them. A) Resellers B) End users C) Not-for-profit organizations D) Producers E) Buying centers

answer

Resellers

question

11) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)? A) NAICS is a numerical coding of industries developed by NAFTA countries. B) NAICS can be used by firms to assess potential markets. C) NAICS replaced the Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) system. D) NAICS can be used to find new customers. E) NAICS is a consumer buying directory for North America.

answer

NAICS is a consumer buying directory for North America.

question

12) Many companies maintain ________, which are internal corporate computer networks that use Internet technology to link company departments, employees, and databases. A) Web sites B) search engines C) extranets D) intranets E) private exchanges

answer

intranets

question

13) An intranet would NOT be used for which of the following? A) videoconferencing B) communicating with geographically dispersed branches of an organization C) training employees D) distributing internal documents E) communicating with the supplier network

answer

communicating with the supplier network

question

14) A(n) ________ can be especially useful for companies that need to have secure communications with their dealers, distributors, and/or franchisees. A) intranet B) social networking site C) extranet D) virtual trade show E) buying center

answer

extranet

question

15) Prudential Health Care's ________ allows its corporate customers to enroll new employees and check eligibility and claim status themselves. A) private exchange B) extranet C) intranet D) professional network E) reciprocity arrangement

answer

extranet

question

16) A(n) ________ is a system that links invited groups of suppliers and partners over the Web, allowing companies to collaborate with suppliers they trust without having to share sensitive information with others. A) corporate Web site B) search engine C) intranet D) private exchange E) professional network

answer

private exchange

question

17) Both B2C and B2B e-commerce companies are making sure that only authorized individuals are allowed to access a site and place an order. These companies are concerned with ________. A) single sourcing B) straight rebuys C) security issues D) private exchanges E) search engines

answer

security issues

question

18) ________ means scrambling a message so that only another individual or computer with the right "key" for deciphering it can unscramble it. A) Back-translation B) Encryption C) Authentication D) Reverse encoding E) Sniffing

answer

Encryption

question

19) According to research, social media channels are most effective to reach and engage business prospects at ________. A) large government buying centers B) large multinational companies C) independent producers D) small not-for-profits E) mid-to-large-size companies

answer

mid-to-large-size companies

question

20) A(n) ________ identifies the degree of effort required of the firm's personnel to collect information and make a purchase decision. A) needs hierarchy B) purchase continuum C) buy class framework D) buying center continuum E) need-response framework

answer

buy class framework

question

21) Straight rebuys ________. A) are the most complex of purchase types because they require customer relationship management B) are more complex than new-task buys C) often involve products with low risks D) involve recruiting new vendors E) are the B2B version of comparison shopping in the consumer market

answer

often involve products with low risks

question

22) A modified rebuy ________. A) requires more time and effort than straight rebuys B) is the B2B version an impulse purchase in the consumer market C) requires more time and effort than new-task buying D) occurs whenever a company reorders a product from an original supplier E) involves only one role in the buying center

answer

requires more time and effort than straight rebuys

question

23) A new-task buy ________. A) requires less time and effort than a modified rebuy B) cannot be used if the buyer uses single sourcing C) is characterized by uncertainty and high risk D) is similar to routine decision making in the consumer market E) begins with a SWOT analysis

answer

is characterized by uncertainty and high risk

question

24) The group of people in the organization who participate in the purchase decision-making process is referred to as the ________. A) buyer institution B) resource center C) buying center D) purchasing hierarchy E) purchasing office

answer

buying center

question

25) Which of the following statements about buying centers is true? A) The buying center is like a standing committee. B) The buying center roles are specified on the organizational chart. C) The most commonly found buying center has six employees, one to assume each of the buying center's roles. D) An individual's role in the buying center does not change. E) The members of a buying center typically participate in a cross-functional team.

answer

The members of a buying center typically participate in a cross-functional team.

question

26) The ________ is the member of the buying center who controls the flow of information to other members. A) initiator B) gatekeeper C) decider D) user E) influencer

answer

gatekeeper

question

27) The ________ is the member of the buying center who makes the final decision. A) buyer B) gatekeeper C) decider D) user E) influencer

answer

decider

question

28) Which member of the buying center typically has the most power? A) buyer B) gatekeeper C) decider D) initiator E) influencer

answer

decider

question

29) The ________ is the member of the buying center whose primary function is handling the details of the transaction. A) buyer B) gatekeeper C) decider D) initiator E) influencer

answer

buyer

question

30) The first step in the business buying decision process is ________. A) recognize the problem B) current vendor analysis C) search for information D) select the supplier E) evaluate the alternatives

answer

recognize the problem

question

31) When a business needs to make a complex purchase, it is most likely to form a buying center during the ________ stage of the business buying decision process. A) problem recognition B) vendor analysis C) information search D) supplier selection E) alternative evaluation

answer

problem recognition

question

32) During the ________ stage of the business buying decision process, the buying center assesses the proposals. A) obtain written or verbal bids B) alternative evaluation C) product selection D) information search E) problem recognition

answer

alternative evaluation

question

33) Which of the following statements about the product and supplier selection stage of the business buying decision process is true? A) Price is the only factor businesses consider before making a purchase decision. B) Even companies that have adopted a total quality management approach consider price to be the most important determinant of who to buy from. C) Before making a purchase decision, many businesses consider quality, reliability, durability, and after-the-sale service, as well as price. D) Because after-the-sale service is a negotiation point, it is not considered at this stage of the business buying decision process. E) Price and warranty are the only two factors businesses consider before making a purchase decision.

answer

Before making a purchase decision, many businesses consider quality, reliability, durability, and after-the-sale service, as well as price.

question

34) Which of the following is an advantage of using single sourcing? A) Suppliers are more likely to remain cost-competitive. B) Buyers are less reliant on one firm to deliver the needed goods without interruption. C) The buyer and seller agree to be each other's customers. D) Consistency of quality of materials input into the product process is greater. E) Buyers have other suppliers to fall back on if one supplier fails.

answer

Consistency of quality of materials input into the product process is greater.

question

35) A vehicle manufacturer often won't buy a new product from a supplier unless the supplier's competitors are also capable of making the same item. The manufacturer is using ________. A) single sourcing B) crowdsourcing C) multiple sourcing D) customer reference programming E) reciprocity

answer

multiple sourcing

question

36) Sometimes supplier selection is based on ________, which means a buyer and a seller agree to purchase each other's goods and services even though the terms of the sales may not be the best available. A) requisition B) reciprocity C) customer references D) outsourcing E) reverse marketing

answer

reciprocity

question

37) ________ occurs when firms obtain outside vendors to provide goods or services that might otherwise be supplied in-house. A) Outsourcing B) Reverse marketing C) Crowdsourcing D) Multiple sourcing E) Insourcing

answer

Outsourcing

question

38) ________ is a business practice in which a buyer shapes a supplier's products and operations to satisfy its needs. A) Reciprocity B) Functionalization C) Reverse marketing D) Bottom-up marketing E) Crowdsourcing

answer

Reverse marketing

question

Chapter 8 Create the Product 1) A(n) ________ is defined as a good, service, idea, or some combination of these that satisfies consumer or business customer needs through the exchange process. A) private brand B) service variability C) core product D) product E) innovation

answer

product

question

2) Which of the following is an example of a good? A) a massage B) a handbag C) a medical examination by a doctor D) an idea for a new television show E) dry cleaning

answer

a handbag

question

3) A product has three distinct layers. The most basic level is the ________, which consists of all the benefits the product will provide for consumers or business customers. A) actual product B) augmented product C) core product D) innovation E) brand

answer

core product

question

4) A product has three distinct layers. The second layer is the ________, which is the physical good or delivered service. A) actual product B) augmented product C) core product D) innovation E) brand

answer

actual product

question

5) Which of the following is the best example of a durable good? A) a bag of cat food B) a refrigerator C) a bottle of nail polish D) a package of lightbulbs E) detergent

answer

a refrigerator

question

6) Which of the following is the best example of a nondurable good? A) a dishwasher B) a book shelf C) a freezer D) a newspaper E) a file cabinet

answer

a newspaper

question

7) Which of the following statements about durable goods is true? A) Durable goods are more likely than perishable goods to involve low-involvement decisions. B) The information search is quicker for durable goods than it is for nondurable goods. C) Consumers purchasing durable goods are likely to use habitual decision making. D) Product evaluation is more likely to take place for nondurable goods than for durable goods. E) Durable goods provide a benefit over a long period of time.

answer

Durable goods provide a benefit over a long period of time.

question

8) ________ include convenience products, shopping products, specialty products, and unsought products. A) Specialty services B) Consumer products C) Line extensions D) Industrial products E) Component products

answer

Consumer products

question

9) A(n) ________ is typically a nondurable good or service that consumers purchase frequently with a minimum of comparison and effort. A) specialty product B) MRO product C) shopping product D) convenience product E) unsought product

answer

convenience product

question

10) Which of the following is the best example of a convenience product? A) a silk scarf B) a subscription to a magazine C) a gallon of milk D) a lawn mower E) a CD player

answer

a gallon of milk

question

11) Marketers classify convenience products as ________. A) staples, impulse products, and emergency products B) specialty products, shopping products, and unsought products C) core products, actual products, and augmented products D) generic products and branded products E) attribute-based products and price-based products

answer

staples, impulse products, and emergency products

question

12) When we need a(n) ________, price and product quality may be irrelevant to our purchase decision. A) emergency product B) staple C) impulse product D) shopping product E) unsought product

answer

emergency product

question

13) A(n) ________ is a good or service for which consumers will spend time and effort gathering information on price, product attributes, and product quality. A) impulse product B) homogeneous product C) shopping product D) convenience product E) emergency product

answer

shopping product

question

14) ________ have unique characteristics that are important to buyers at almost any price. A) Specialty products B) Staples C) Impulse products D) MRO products E) Unsought products

answer

Specialty Products

question

15) ________ are consumer products for which a consumer either has little awareness or interest until a need arises. These products require a lot of advertising, personal selling, and other marketing efforts. A) Specialty products B) MRO products C) Unsought products D) Shopping products E) Staples

answer

Unsought products

question

16) ________ is the category of business-to-business products that refers to the products an organization uses in its daily operations. A) Raw materials B) Component parts C) Equipment D) Processed materials E) MRO products

answer

Equipment

question

17) MRO products are goods that businesses use for ________. A) management, research, and order-processing B) marketing, relationship-building, and operation C) maintenance, research, and organization D) maintenance, repair, and operation E) marketing, research, and organization

answer

maintenance, repair, and operation

question

18) In the business market, products of the fishing and agricultural industries purchased to use in a finished product are examples of ________. A) component parts B) accessory equipment C) processed materials D) MRO products E) raw materials

answer

raw materials

question

19) ________ are manufactured goods or subassemblies of finished items that organizations need to complete their own products. A) Component parts B) Accessory equipment materials C) Processed materials D) MRO products E) Raw materials

answer

Component parts

question

20) Marketers classify innovations based on their ________. A) degree of newness B) costs to manufacture C) prices D) degree of tangibility E) contribution margins

answer

degree of newness

question

21) A ________ is a modification to an existing product. A) technical innovation B) continuous innovation C) discontinuous innovation D) commercial innovation E) dynamically discontinuous innovation

answer

continuous innovation

question

22) A knockoff is a ________. A) company that uses a me-too strategy for its promotion B) company that uses comparative advertising C) new product that is so radically different from anything on the market that it has difficulty moving out of the introduction stage of its product life cycle D) product that is unbranded E) new product that copies, with slight modifications, the design of an original product

answer

new product that copies, with slight modifications, the design of an original product

question

23) A consumer doesn't have to learn anything new to use a(n) ________. A) dynamically continuous innovation B) dynamically continuous new product C) discontinuous new product D) continuous innovation E) discontinuous innovation

answer

continuous innovation

question

24) A ________ is a pronounced modification to an existing product that requires a modest amount of learning or change in behavior to use it. A) dynamically continuous innovation B) nonradical innovation C) competitive innovation D) continuous innovation E) discontinuous innovation

answer

dynamically continuous innovation

question

25) In the ________ phase of new-product development, marketers use a variety of sources to come up with a potentially new product that would benefit customers and be compatible with the company mission. A) idea generation B) problem recognition C) perceptual mapping D) positioning strategy E) product screening

answer

idea generation

question

26) Marketers would be most likely to use a focus group in which stage of new product development? A) idea generation B) problem recognition C) business analysis D) positioning strategy E) product adoption

answer

idea generation

question

27) Marketers estimate ________ when they determine whether anyone is likely to buy a new product. A) pricing points B) distribution costs C) commercial success D) technical success E) creative success

answer

commercial success

question

28) The business analysis for a new product begins with ________. A) idea generation B) problem recognition C) assessing how the new product will fit into a firm's total product mix D) perceptual mapping E) identifying the distribution channel for the product

answer

assessing how the new product will fit into a firm's total product mix

question

29) During which stage of new-product development will management most likely consider whether the new product will cannibalize sales of the company's existing products? A) idea generation B) marketing strategy development C) business analysis D) product concept development E) test marketing

answer

test marketing

question

30) During the technical development phase of the new product development process, a physical version of the product is developed; it is called a ________. A) test market B) focus group C) business analysis D) product concept E) prototype

answer

prototype

question

31) The need to apply for a patent would most likely arise during which phase of new product development? A) business analysis B) technical development C) test marketing D) strategy development E) product proposal

answer

technical development

question

32) One of the advantages of test marketing is ________. A) the low cost B) the ability to keep information from falling into competitors' hands C) the opportunity to survey prospective customers D) the ability to evaluate a product and its marketing program before commercialization E) the opportunity to sell existing products to a core customer base

answer

the ability to evaluate a product and its marketing program before commercialization

question

33) Introducing a new product into the market is called ________. A) technical development B) new product development C) experimenting D) commercialization E) marketing development

answer

commercialization

question

34) Which of the following costs is most likely associated with the commercialization stage of new-product development? A) implementing trade promotion plans for channel members B) paying groups of target consumers for product feedback C) determining the product's planned price, distribution, and marketing budget D) developing a prototype of the product E) identifying target markets

answer

determining the product's planned price, distribution, and marketing budget

question

35) ________ is the process by which a consumer or business customer begins to buy and use a new good, service, or idea. A) Commercialization B) Product testing C) Product adoption D) Diffusion E) Positioning

answer

Product adoption

question

36) The first step in the adoption process is ________. A) product evaluation B) awareness C) problem recognition D) evaluation E) interest

answer

awareness

question

37) Marketers are primarily striving to generate customer ________ when they use a teaser advertisement created to give prospective customers just enough information about a new product to make them curious. A) confirmation B) interest C) evaluation D) adoption E) impulse purchasing

answer

interest

question

38) In which stage of the consumer's adoption of a new product does the purchase actually take place? A) awareness B) adoption C) interest D) tipping point E) evaluation

answer

adoption

question

39) A(n) ________ is a purchase made on the spur of the moment without any planning or search effort. A) unsought product B) commodity C) impulse purchase D) emergency product E) shopping product

answer

impulse purchase

question

40) The last stage in the product adoption process is ________. A) awareness B) adoption C) interest D) confirmation E) evaluation

answer

confirmation

question

41) Unlike innovators, early adopters ________. A) compose the smallest of the adopter categories B) have greater concern for social acceptance C) have stronger physiological needs than others in the population D) are light media users E) are more worldly than the rest of the population

answer

have greater concern for social acceptance

question

42) Which of the following statements about the adopter categories is true? A) More than 50 percent of the population is classified as late majority adopters. B) Early adopters are risk aversive. C) Early majority adopters are typically middle class and like to buy established products. D) Innovators are a much larger group than laggards. E) Late majority adopters are typically unconcerned about social acceptance.

answer

Early majority adopters are typically middle class and like to buy established products.

question

43) Which of the following is NOT identified as one of the five characteristics of innovations that affect the rate of adoption? A) relative advantage B) tangibility C) observability D) trialability E) compatibility

answer

tangibility

question

44) ________ is the degree to which a consumer perceives that a new product provides superior benefits. A) Compatibility B) Complexity C) Relative advantage D) Comparability E) Tangibility

answer

Relative advantage

question

45) ________ is the extent to which a new product is consistent with existing cultural values, customs, and practices. A) Compatibility B) Complexity C) Relative advantage D) Comparability E) Tangibility

answer

Compatibility

question

46) ________ is the degree to which consumers find a new product or its use difficult to understand. A) Compatibility B) Complexity C) Relative advantage D) Comparability E) Tangibility

answer

Complexity

question

47) ________ is how visible a new product and its benefits are to others who might adopt it. A) Compatibility B) Observability C) Relative advantage D) Comparability E) Tangibility

answer

Observability

question

Chapter 9 Manage the Product 1) When marketers develop ________ strategies, they make decisions about product benefits, features, styling, branding, labeling, and packaging. A) communication B) product C) equity D) total quality management (TQM) E) Six Sigma

answer

product

question

2) Which of the following is NOT necessary for a product-related objective to be effective? A) It should focus on short-term implications. B) It should be measurable. C) It should be feasible. D) It should indicate a specific time frame. E) It should be clear.

answer

A) It should focus on short-term implications. B) It should be measurable.

question

3) A ________ is a firm's total product offering designed to satisfy a group of target customers. A) brand B) product line C) product mix D) positioning strategy E) marketing mix

answer

product line

question

4) A firm's ________ is determined by the number of separate items within the same category. A) brand equity B) product mix width C) product line length D) product quality E) product mix

answer

product line length

question

5) A firm that plans to use a(n) ________ will add higher priced, higher quality items to its product line. A) upward line stretch B) limited-line strategy C) undifferentiated strategy D) marketing mix contraction E) cannibalization strategy

answer

limited-line strategy

question

6) Which of the following is NOT an option for extending a product line? A) cannibalization B) downward line stretch C) upward line stretch D) two-way stretch E) filling-out strategy

answer

cannibalization

question

7) Whenever a product line or a product family is extended, there is a risk of ________, which occurs when sales of an existing brand decline as the firm's current customers switch to the new product. A) product line contraction B) disintermediation C) cannibalization D) brand inequity E) a downward line stretch

answer

cannibalization

question

8) A firm's ________ is its entire range of products. A) product line B) product mix C) marketing mix D) promotional mix E) positioning strategy

answer

product mix

question

9) When a company begins marketing a new product line in addition to its existing product lines, it has done which of the following? A) expanded the length of the product line B) expanded the width of the product mix C) expanded the depth of the product mix D) expanded the width of the marketing mix E) used a filling-out strategy

answer

expanded the width of the product mix

question

10) Which of the following is a management philosophy that focuses on satisfying customers through empowering employees to be an active part of continuous quality improvement? A) cannibalization B) total quality management (TQM) C) Six Sigma D) ISO 9000 E) ISO 14000

answer

total quality management (TQM)

question

11) Which of the following was developed to guarantee that an organization's products conform to the customer's requirements? A) Six Sigma B) ISO 9000 C) ISO 14000 D) TQM E) cannibalization

answer

TQM

question

12) Which of the following helps an organization focus on minimizing any harmful effects it may have on the environment? A) Six Sigma B) ISO 9000 C) ISO 14000 D) total quality management (TQM) E) cannibalization

answer

ISO 14000

question

13) The product life cycle concept can be applied by marketers as a useful framework for describing how ________. A) to forecast product performance B) to develop marketing strategies C) a market responds to a product over time D) product ideas are developed E) a brand gains a dominant position in the market

answer

to develop marketing strategies

question

14) The sales peak typically occurs during which stage of the product life cycle? A) introduction B) youth C) development D) maturity E) leveling

answer

maturity

question

15) In which stage of the product life cycle will promotional expenditures be especially high in an attempt to create consumer awareness? A) product development B) introduction C) decline D) maturity E) youth

answer

introduction

question

16) A manufacturer of a product in the decline stage of its product life cycle would be LEAST likely to do which of the following? A) continue producing the product for loyal users B) reduce the advertising budget for the product C) phase out production of the product D) advertise heavily without changing the product or its target market E) withdraw most marketing support for the product and rely on e-commerce

answer

advertise heavily without changing the product or its target market

question

17) A manufacturer with a product in the decline stage of the product life cycle would most likely decide to ________ if there is reason to believe that there will be a residual demand for the product. A) maintain the product without change B) let existing stocks of the product run out C) drop the product immediately D) search for replacements E) increase sales promotion efforts

answer

let existing stocks of the product run out

question

18) A(n) ________ is a name, term, symbol, or other unique element of a product that identifies one firm's products and sets it apart from the competition. A) patent B) brand C) license D) position E) value proposition

answer

brand

question

19) A good brand name should do all of the following EXCEPT fit ________. A) the target market B) the competition C) the customer's culture D) the product's benefits E) legal requirements

answer

the competition

question

20) Which of the following is NOT a desirable quality for a brand name? A) It should suggest something about the product's benefits. B) It should be easy to pronounce and remember. C) It should almost always be a long word to get attention. D) It needs to fit legal requirements. E) It should make sense in the customer's culture.

answer

It should almost always be a long word to get attention.

question

21) A ________ is the legal term for a brand name, brand mark, or trade character. A) trademark B) patent C) copyright D) logo E) corporate mark

answer

trademark

question

22) Which of the following statements about brand equity is NOT true? A) Brand equity means a brand has customer loyalty. B) Brand equity refers to the brand's value to an organization. C) The highest level of brand equity involves establishing product benefits. D) Brand equity gives a firm the power to capture and hold onto a larger share of the market and to sell at prices with higher profit margins. E) Brand equity can provide a competitive advantage.

answer

The highest level of brand equity involves establishing product benefits.

question

23) The concept of ________ encompasses the beliefs and associations that a consumer has about a brand. A) brand meaning B) brand storytelling C) brand equity D) product quality E) total quality

answer

brand meaning

question

24) Which of the following most accurately describes a brand extension? A) a new product that combines the power of two or more brand names B) a new product sold under an established brand name C) a new product added to the lower end of a product mix D) a new product added to the higher end of a product mix E) a new product line added to a product mix

answer

a new product sold under an established brand name

question

25) Oreos and Coke are both examples of ________. A) store brands B) cobrands C) private-label brands D) national brands E) ingredient brands

answer

national brands

question

26) Toronto-based Loblaw supermarket chain developed President's Choice brand products to sell exclusively in its stores. President's Choice is an example of a ________. A) manufacturer brand B) national brand C) cobrand D) generic brand E) private-label brand

answer

private-label brand

question

27) Another name for a store brand is a ________. A) national brand B) private-label brand C) generic brand D) manufacturer brand E) licensed brand

answer

private-label brand

question

28) What is the most logical explanation for why retailers carry private-label brands? A) to eliminate the need for competitive advantages B) to encourage transaction marketing C) to support trade promotions D) to earn more profit E) to prevent sales cannibalization

answer

to earn more profit

question

29) Which of the following is true about generic brands? A) They are more popular today than ever before. B) They were first developed during the last period of economic prosperity in the United States. C) They were designed to appeal to the price-conscious consumer. D) They attract approximately 25 percent of all dollars spent in U.S. supermarkets. E) They are manufacturer brands.

answer

They were designed to appeal to the price-conscious consumer.

question

30) ________ is an agreement between two brands to work together in marketing a new product. A) Manufacturer branding B) Cobranding C) Franchising D) Family branding E) Aggregated branding

answer

Cobranding

question

31) In ________, branded materials become component parts of other branded products. A) family branding B) aggregated branding C) umbrella branding D) manufacturer branding E) ingredient branding

answer

ingredient branding

question

32) Breyers and Reese's have worked together to create Breyers Ice Cream with Reese's Peanut Butter Cups. This is an example of ________. A) family branding B) ingredient branding C) private-label branding D) individual branding E) generic branding

answer

ingredient branding

question

33) Which approach to measuring brand equity focuses on the ability of a brand to charge a higher price than the price charged by an unbranded equivalent? A) revenue premium metric B) financial market metric C) product-market outcomes metric D) equity-identity metric E) customer mind-set metric

answer

product-market outcomes metric

question

34) Which of the following types of brand equity metrics would most likely be based on information gathered through consumer surveys? A) revenue premium metric B) financial market metric C) brand venture metric D) equity-identity metric E) customer mind-set metric

answer

customer mind-set metric

question

35) Product packaging can do all of the following EXCEPT which one? A) protect the product B) provide service C) communicate brand personality D) make the product easier to store E) create a competitive advantage

answer

provide service

question

36) Which of the following controls package communications and labeling in the United States? A) the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) B) the Nutrition Labeling and Education Act C) the Nutrition Facts Panel D) the Federal Fair Packaging and Labeling Act E) the Consumer Bill of Rights

answer

the Federal Fair Packaging and Labeling Act

question

37) Which of the following is NOT required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) on the labels of most foods sold in the United States? A) amount of saturated fat in the product B) sources of all ingredients in the product C) amount of cholesterol in the product D) number of calories in the product E) amount of protein in the product

answer

sources of all ingredients in the product

question

38) In small firms, the marketing function is usually handled by a ________ who is responsible for new-product planning, advertising, working with the company's sales representatives, and marketing research. A) single marketing manager B) brand manager C) product category manager D) market manager E) venture team manager

answer

single marketing manager

question

39) ________ are responsible for the positioning of a brand and developing its brand equity. They are likely to team with sales, finance, and logistics staff members as part of customer business teams who work with major retail accounts. A) Product category managers B) Brand managers C) Venture team managers D) Market managers E) Sales managers

answer

Brand managers

question

40) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the brand management system? A) a tendency to avoid price differentiation B) too much focus on the supplementary and complementary roles of all product lines C) a tendency to overemphasize short-term gains in sales D) an interdependent structure that can undermine personal responsibility E) too much focus on establishing brand equity

answer

a tendency to overemphasize short-term gains in sales

question

41) Which of the following accurately describes a product category manager? A) A product category manager works for a company that relies solely on individual branding. B) A product category manager is responsible for moving a company's product mix from generic to branded. C) A product category manager coordinates the development of brand equity for a specific brand name. D) A product category manager is also called a sales manager. E) A product category manager coordinates the mix of product lines within a general product category and is responsible for the addition of new product lines.

answer

A product category manager coordinates the mix of product lines within a general product category and is responsible for the addition of new product lines.

question

42) When large companies undertake new-product development, they typically enlist specialists in different areas to create a ________ within the organization. A) focus group B) product category team C) sales team D) venture team E) cross-functional brand team

answer

venture team

question

43) A firm's skunk works department would most likely be located ________. A) in a central part of the firm's main office building B) in the most productive section of the company C) away from the firm's traditional offices D) at the headquarters of the firm's largest customer E) as close as possible to the firm's communication specialists

answer

away from the firm's traditional offices

question

Chapter 10 Services and Other Intangibles: Marketing the Product That Isn't There 1) Which of the following product offerings is intangible? A) fish for an aquarium B) refillable ink cartridges for a computer printer C) a mink coat D) a meal at a fast-food restaurant E) a limousine ride

answer

a limousine ride

question

2) ________ are acts, efforts, or performances exchanged from producer to user without ownership rights. A) Tangibles B) Services C) Ideas D) Brand extensions E) Licenses

answer

Services

question

3) Four characteristics are used to differentiate services from goods. Which of the following is NOT one of those characteristics? A) intangibility B) perishability C) variability D) personalization E) inseparability

answer

personalization

question

4) A physician might deal with potential problems associated with the ________ characteristic of services by providing physical cues such as her medical diplomas hanging on the wall of the examining room. A) intangibility B) perishability C) variability D) inseparability E) personalization

answer

intangibility

question

5) Capacity management is one of the ways to meet potential problems related to the ________ characteristic of services. A) intangibility B) perishability C) variability D) inseparability E) responsiveness

answer

perishability

question

6) ________ is the process by which organizations adjust the supply of their services in an attempt to match demand. A) Disintermediation B) Capacity management C) Total quality management D) Just-in-time management E) Augmented service management

answer

Capacity management

question

7) Service ________ refers to the inevitable differences in a service provider's performance from one service encounter to the next. A) inseparability B) variability C) personalization D) responsiveness E) intangibility

answer

variability

question

8) Which of the following is true due primarily to the inseparability of services? A) Customers have to rely on reassuring physical cues that indicate quality service. B) Service businesses cannot promise the same experience with every service encounter. C) A service is produced and consumed at the same time. D) It is impossible for service businesses to exactly match supply with demand. E) It is difficult for service businesses to live up to guarantees.

answer

A service is produced and consumed at the same time.

question

9) The ________ is the interaction between the customer and the service provider. A) supply-demand exchange B) transaction point C) service encounter D) service program E) service promotion

answer

service encounter

question

10) Which of the following statements about the service encounter is true? A) The quality of service delivered by a company is only as good as its best employee. B) The customer plays a minimal role in the quality of the service encounter. C) An employee's actions, words, and physical appearance do not represent the organization. D) The quality of information provided by the customer does not affect the quality of the service encounter. E) The service encounter has a social dimension and a physical dimension.

answer

The service encounter has a social dimension and a physical dimension.

question

11) A haircut, a manicure, and a pedicure are all examples of ________. A) intangible services B) tangible services C) tangible goods D) tangible possessions E) intangible possessions

answer

intangible services

question

12) Which of the following is NOT a way that marketers classify services? A) services performed directly on the customer B) services performed directly on the customer's possession C) services performed indirectly on the customer D) services consisting of tangible actions E) services consisting of intangible actions

answer

services performed indirectly on the customer

question

13) Carpet and furniture repair are classified as ________. A) tangible services performed on the customer B) tangible services performed on the customer's possessions C) tangible goods delivered to the customer D) intangible services performed on the customer E) intangible services performed on the customer's possessions

answer

intangible services performed on the customer's possessions

question

14) Home security services and accounting services are classified as ________. A) tangible services performed on the customer B) intangible services performed indirectly on the customer C) tangible goods delivered to the customer D) tangible services performed on the customer's possessions E) intangible services performed on the customer's possessions

answer

...

question

15) Which of the following is NOT a category on the service continuum? A) goods-dominated products B) service-dominated goods C) equipment-based services D) facility-based services E) people-based services

answer

service-dominated goods

question

16) Which of the following is the best example of an equipment-based service? A) a tutoring service B) an amusement park C) a religious service D) a dog-walking service E) a car dealership

answer

an amusement park

question

17) Most cities have a variety of fast-food restaurant franchises . The proximity of these restaurants to densely populated neighborhoods and high-traffic shopping areas illustrates the importance of the ________ factor for equipment-based services. A) operational B) search C) locational D) augmentation E) supply

answer

locational

question

18) A service provider takes great care in creating a certain look for her storefront, selecting specific colors, lighting, and furnishings to create an inviting atmosphere. In doing so, the service provider is focused on ________ factors. A) operational B) credence C) locational D) environmental E) supply

answer

environmental

question

19) A service offering that differentiates a firm from its competition and provides enhanced value is referred to as a(n) ________. A) core service B) augmented service C) environmental factor D) operational factor E) disintermediator

answer

augmented service

question

20) Experience qualities are product attributes that customers can identify ________. A) prior to consumption B) only during consumption C) only after consumption D) both during and after consumption E) before, during, or after consumption

answer

both during and after consumption

question

21) Which of the following is a product attribute that may be difficult to evaluate even after it has been experienced? A) search quality B) service quality C) experience quality D) credence quality E) benefit quality

answer

credence quality

question

22) Which of the following is an instrument to measure consumers' perceptions of service quality? A) total quality management (TQM) B) capacity management C) credence management D) SERVQUAL E) the service continuum

answer

SERVQUAL

question

23) Which of the following is used to measure the difference between a customer's expectations of service quality and what actually occurred? A) break-even analysis B) SERVQUAL C) the critical incident technique D) gap analysis E) SWOT analysis

answer

gap analysis

question

24) Which of the following is a method for measuring service quality? A) SWOT analysis B) a market audit C) break-even analysis D) the critical incident technique E) market fulfillment

answer

the critical incident technique

question

25) Which of the following involves analyzing very specific customer complaints? A) SERVQUAL B) total quality management (TQM) C) gap analysis D) the critical incident technique E) servicescape

answer

the critical incident technique

question

26) Political consultants market politicians when they "package" candidates who then compete for "market share" as measured by ________. A) purchases B) market fulfillment C) credence qualities D) votes E) social networking

answer

votes

question

27) Agents who work to get their celebrity clients exposure on TV or perhaps a starring role in a movie are practicing ________. A) idea marketing B) relationship marketing C) people marketing D) social marketing E) prestige marketing

answer

people marketing

question

28) After the 2001 attack on the World Trade Center, New York City unveiled a new tourism advertising campaign with the slogan "The New York Miracle: Be a Part of It." This is an example of ________. A) social marketing B) idea marketing C) people marketing D) place marketing E) service marketing

answer

place marketing

question

29) A TV commercial invites people to attend a service at a so-called "mega-church" that has a huge steel and glass structure with acres of parking. This is an example of ________. A) idea marketing B) people marketing C) place marketing D) the market fulfillment approach E) the product fulfillment approach

answer

idea marketing

question

30) Which of the following is a service industry in the United States that is likely to see growth due primarily to demographic changes? A) living assistance for seniors B) babysitting services for baby boomers C) health services for medical tourists D) technology consulting for businesses E) database services for businesses

answer

...

question

Chapter 15 Deliver Value through Supply Chain Management, Channels of Distribution, and Logistics 1) A firm that brings in outside companies to accomplish supply chain activities is using ________. A) insourcing B) outsourcing C) crowdsourcing D) intensive distribution E) exclusive distribution

answer

outsourcing

question

2) Which of the following includes all the activities necessary to convert raw materials into a good or service and put it in the hands of the consumer or business customer? A) the supply chain B) the value chain C) the channel of distribution D) the retailer chain E) the industrial network

answer

the supply chain

question

3) Through ________, many companies today are strengthening their connections to all partners, from providers of raw materials to components to final products that are delivered to final buyers. A) supply chain management B) channel of distribution management C) partnership relationship marketing D) enterprise resource planning E) knowledge management

answer

supply chain management

question

4) Which of the following is the series of firms or individuals that facilitate(s) the movement of a product from the producer to the final customers? A) the industrial network B) the retailer chain C) the multilevel network D) the channel of distribution E) the conventional marketing system

answer

the channel of distribution

question

5) Producers benefit from using intermediaries because they ________. A) offer greater efficiency in making goods available to target markets B) bring a fresh point of view to strategy development C) eliminate risk D) are rarely backlogged with orders E) will store products indefinitely

answer

offer greater efficiency in making goods available to target markets

question

6) Channels of distribution provide which of the following? A) time, place, and ownership utility B) promotion, product, and place utility C) time, place, and form utility D) promotion and form utility E) time and promotion utility

answer

time, place, and ownership utility

question

7) Wholesalers and retailers purchase large quantities of goods from manufacturers but sell only one or a few at a time to many different customers. This process is called ________. A) creating assortments B) breaking bulk C) third-party logistics D) order processing E) inventory control

answer

breaking bulk

question

8) Wholesalers and retailers create efficiencies in the flow of goods from producer to end consumer by ________ when they provide a variety of products in one location. A) creating assortments B) just in time processing C) third-party logistics D) order processing E) inventory control

answer

creating assortments

question

9) Through a process of ________, traditional intermediaries are being eliminated as many companies question the value added by layers in the distribution channel. A) knowledge management B) disintermediation C) horizontal marketing D) vertical marketing E) hybrid marketing

answer

disintermediation

question

10) Intermediaries that do business with many different manufacturers and many different customers are most accurately referred to as ________. A) interdependent intermediaries B) dependent intermediaries C) independent intermediaries D) wholesalers E) retail outlets

answer

independent intermediaries

question

11) Which of the following is true about sales branches, sales offices, and manufacturers' showrooms? A) They are all manufacturer-owned intermediaries. B) They all determine the marketing strategy for the products they sell. C) They are all independent intermediaries. D) They all carry inventory and take title to the inventory they carry. E) They perform the same functions as self-service wholesalers.

answer

They are all manufacturer-owned intermediaries.

question

12) Which of the following is in place when a producer, dealer, wholesaler, retailer, or customer interacts with more than one type of channel? A) dual or multiple distribution system B) intermediation C) knowledge management D) supply chain management E) vertical marketing system

answer

intermediation

question

13) Conventional distribution channels consist of one or more ________ producers, wholesalers, and retailers. A) independent B) product-related C) contract D) merchant E) domestic

answer

independent

question

14) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about conventional marketing systems? A) Conventional marketing systems are multilevel distribution channels. B) Most conventional marketing systems are highly successful. C) Members of conventional marketing systems work independently of one another. D) Members of conventional marketing systems do not work toward the same broad goals. E) Relationships between members of conventional marketing systems are limited to simply buying and selling from one another.

answer

Members of conventional marketing systems do not work toward the same broad goals.

question

15) Leadership in which type of marketing system is assumed not through common ownership or contractual ties but through the size and power of a single dominant channel member? A) a horizontal marketing system B) an administered vertical marketing system C) a corporate vertical marketing system D) a conventional marketing system E) a multiple distribution system

answer

an administered vertical marketing system

question

16) In a ________, two or more companies at the same channel level join together to develop a new marketing opportunity. A) franchise B) corporate VMS C) horizontal marketing system D) multiple distribution system E) conventional marketing system

answer

horizontal marketing system

question

17) Which of the following is the process of designing, managing, and improving the movement of products through the supply chain? A) logistics B) warehousing C) materials handling D) inventory management E) distribution strategy

answer

logistics

question

18) Marketing logistics involves which of the following types of distribution flows? A) outbound and inbound only B) outbound, inbound, and reverse C) outbound and reverse only D) inbound and reverse only E) outbound only

answer

outbound, inbound, and reverse

question

19) During the stage of ________ activities, the company receives materials it needs to manufacture its products. A) inbound logistics B) operations C) outbound logistics D) marketing and sales E) service

answer

inbound logistics

question

20) Which stage of activity in logistics involves shipping the product out to customers? A) inbound logistics B) operations C) outbound logistics D) reverse logistics E) services

answer

outbound logistics

question

21) Physical distribution activities include all of the following EXCEPT which one? A) order processing B) warehousing C) materials handling D) transportation E) order getting

answer

order getting

question

22) Which of the following is a logistics activity that involves developing and implementing a process to ensure the firm always has sufficient goods available to meet customers' demands--no more and no less? A) materials handling B) inventory control C) supply chain supervision D) order processing E) distribution implementation

answer

inventory control

question

23) To reduce inventory management costs, many companies use a system called ________, which involves carrying only small inventories of parts or merchandise, often only enough for a few days of operation. A) just in time (JIT) B) supply chain management C) value chain management D) logistics management E) enterprise resource planning (ERP)

answer

just in time (JIT)

question

24) Through the use of ________, a company is able to know exactly where a product is located within the distribution channel. A) ERP B) RFID C) PRM D) VMS E) JIT

answer

RFID

question

25) The perfect order measurement calculates which of the following? A) the amount of inventory that is just right to warehouse B) the origin, current location, and destination of a tagged product C) the most cost-effective and efficient mode of transportation D) the value of the time utility provided to customers through logistics E) the error-free rate of each stage of a purchase order

answer

the error-free rate of each stage of a purchase order

question

Chapter 16 Retailing: Bricks and Clicks 1) Which of the following is the final stop in the distribution channel in which organizations sell goods and services to consumers for their personal use? A) franchising B) retailing C) brokering D) wholesaling E) disintermediation

answer

retailing

question

2) According to the ________ hypothesis, new retailing forms often begin as low-margin, low-price, low-status operations to challenge established retailers, then become successful, and eventually take the place of the established retailers they had challenged. A) agent B) broker C) wheel-of-retailing D) warehousing E) retail life cycle

answer

wheel-of-retailing

question

3) In the ________ stage of the retail life cycle, the retailer often is an aggressive entrepreneur who takes a unique approach to doing business by creating a differential advantage, such as competing on the basis of low price, offering a distinctive assortment, or using a different way to distribute products. A) expansion B) introduction C) extension D) maturity E) growth

answer

introduction

question

4) Which of the following is NOT a function of a point-of-sale (POS) system? A) collecting sales data B) connecting directly into a store's inventory-control system C) evaluating bids from potential suppliers D) collecting data on returns and transfers to other stores E) automatically sending orders to suppliers

answer

evaluating bids from potential suppliers

question

5) Shoplifting, sweethearting, and retail borrowing are all problems that contribute to ________. A) off-price retailing B) shrinkage C) pyramid schemes D) understored trade areas E) pop-up retailing

answer

shrinkage

question

6) For the retailer, the practice of ________ results in lower total sales and, in many cases, damaged merchandise. A) sweethearting B) experiential shopping C) retail borrowing D) off-price retailing E) network marketing

answer

retail borrowing

question

7) ________ is the basis of most discount operations. Retailers offering this level of service require customers to perform their own product selection and may require customers to handle their own checkout process. A) Limited-service B) Full-service C) Self-service D) Specialty service E) Wholesale service

answer

Self-service

question

8) Which of the following types of retailers place the most emphasis on salespeople assisting customers throughout the purchase process? A) limited-service retailers B) full-service retailers C) limited-service retailers D) discount retailers E) off-price retailers

answer

full-service retailers

question

9) Which of the following is the number of different product lines available at a particular retail store? A) merchandise breadth B) inventory depth C) merchandise depth D) retail diversity E) point-of-sale range

answer

merchandise breadth

question

10) ________, such as Target and Kohl's, provide merchandise return and offer credit, but customers select merchandise without much assistance. A) Self-service retailers B) Full-service retailers C) Specialty retailers D) Off-price retailers E) Limited-service retailers

answer

Limited-service retailers

question

11) Which of the following is a discount retailer owned by a manufacturer that provides the manufacturer a store to sell off defective merchandise? A) a specialty store B) a factory outlet store C) a department store D) a general merchandise discount store E) a warehouse club

answer

a general merchandise discount store

question

12) Which of the following types of retailers obtain surplus merchandise from manufacturers and offer brand-name, fashion-oriented goods at low prices? A) specialty stores B) warehouse clubs C) off-price retailers D) department stores E) hypermarkets

answer

off-price retailers

question

13) Which of the following is any method a firm uses to complete an exchange that does NOT require a customer to visit a store? A) kiosk merchandising B) nonstore retailing C) direct selling D) exchange retailing E) e-commerce

answer

e-commerce

question

14) Through the ________ of direct selling, people tend to get caught up in the "group spirit" and buy things they would not normally buy if alone. A) multilevel network B) pyramid scheme C) automatic vending system D) door-to-door sales E) party plan system

answer

party plan system

question

15) In ________, a master distributor recruits other people to become distributors. The master distributor sells the company's products to the people she entices to join and receives commissions on all the merchandise sold by the people she recruits. A) multilevel marketing B) integrated sales C) disintermediated sales D) hierarchical sales E) party plan systems

answer

multilevel marketing

question

16) Experts predicting that destination retail will be a future trend believe that consumers will soon visit retailers more for ________ than for the basic process of purchasing products. A) information B) credit services C) comparison shopping D) entertainment E) social opportunities

answer

entertainment

question

17) Which of the following is the term for how the marketplace perceives a retailer relative to the competition? A) store layout B) store atmosphere C) merchandise assortment D) store image E) market segmentation

answer

store image

question

18) Which of the following is NOT an element involved in the creation of store atmospherics? A) color B) furnishings C) smells D) sounds E) knowledgeable personnel

answer

knowledgeable personnel

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