According to the Conflict Theory perspective, those who have the power to define what is considered deviant are called…

social control agents More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/sociology-final-ch-8101211/

According to the perspective of Conflict Theory, who has the ability to define what is deviant in a society and can more easily hide and defend their own deviance?

those with the most power/resources (economic, political, social resources) More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/sociology-final-ch-8101211/

Based on Max and Georg what was inequality based on? (conflict theory)

wealth, status, ideas, religious beliefs More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-10-criminology/

Which of the following statements is most closely associated with a conflict theory approach to gender studies?

Men benefit economically from women’s inferior position in the family and the workplace More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/soc-100-ch-8/

Which theory developed as a result of applying conflict theory assumptions specifically to gender inequality?

feminist theory More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/sociology-chapter-1-3/

Conflict Theory (how they view society, individuals, and major critiques)

-Society: power struggles over scarce resources. these inequalities result in conflict. Social change is inevitable. -Individuals: good but corrupted by society. ”order” is just an illusion. Natural state of society is in imbalance. -Criticism: Utopian model and Marxist states have failed. It denies the existence of cooperation and equitable exchange More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/soc-100-chapter-1/

Both critical sociology and social-conflict theory seek to __________. identify an objective reality reduce social inequality understand how society actually operates achieve Verstehen, or understanding

reduce social inequality More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/exam-1-sociology-chapters-1-3/

What is conflict theory and how does is explain society?

The basic form of interaction is not cooperation but competition, which often leads to conflict. Social change results from the conflict among competing groups and therefore tends to be drastic and revolutionary. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/sociology-101-exam-1/

What is the link between feminist theory and conflict theory?

Both seek not only to understand inequality, but also to remedy it. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/soc-210-final/

what is used to define crime in radical and conflict theory?

Power More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-10-criminology/

Conflict Theory test questions and answers | Get Access To Conflict Theory Flashcards and exam tests

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Comm 101 Ch 9,10&11 – Flashcards 75 terms

Karlie Mack

75 terms

Preview

Comm 101 Ch 9,10&11 – Flashcards

question

Abusing your rank or status over others by demeaning, humiliating, or exploiting them is called "rankism".

answer

True

question

Children whose parents use more confirming messages tend to have higher self-esteem and less stress

answer

True

question

It's impossible to honestly accept the other person's point of view while maintaining your own position

answer

False

question

When others confront us with attacks on our presenting self, we are likely to become defensive

answer

True

question

The emotional tone of a new relationship is called the communication climate

answer

True

question

A communication climate has to do with the way people feel about each other as they carry out activities

answer

True

question

Behavior that fits into Gibb's category of "strategy" attempts to manipulate the other into doing what you want

answer

True

question

A controlling message can be verbal or nonverbal

answer

True

question

Whereas acknowledging others means you are interested in their ideas, endorsement means that you agree with them

answer

True

question

Incongruous responses certain two messages that seem to deny or contradict each other

answer

True

question

Messages shaping the communication climate of a relationship can be both verbal and nonverbal

answer

True

question

When your respond in defensively to criticism, you can agree with the truth of what the critic is saying

answer

True

question

Once a progressive spiral has been established in a relationship, it is likely to continue indefinitely

answer

False

question

Defensiveness is often a self-perpetuating cycle

answer

True

question

Communication climates are a function of

answer

The way people feel about one another

question

"You are such a couch potato" is an example of what Gibb defense-arousing behavior?

answer

evaluation

question

"I know that isn't going to work under any circumstances" is an example of the Gibb defense category of

answer

certainty

question

The communication climate in a relationship is determined by the

answer

degree to which each person feels valued

question

Evaluative language is also described as

answer

"you" language

question

The elements of an assertive message are

answer

behavior, interpretation, feeling, consequence, and intention

question

The most visible way disconfirming messages reinforce one another, as when one attack leads to another and another, is termed a(n)

answer

Escalatory conflict spiral

question

All of the following are behavioral descriptions except

answer

"your behavior tells me you're angry"

question

All of the following are disconfirming messages except

answer

using a problem-oriented approach

question

Cassie felt ignored because Jaime kept playing on his phone during their lunch together. This example best illustrates which type of disconfirming message?

answer

Imprevious

question

"Rankism" best relates to which of these behaviors?

answer

superiority

question

Intimacy can come from intellectual sharing

answer

True

question

By definition, an intimate relationship must exhibit all four intimacy dimensions

answer

False

question

Male-male relationships involve less disclosure than male-female relationships

answer

True

question

Recent research has shown that men achieve intimacy through shared activities

answer

True

question

Because men share less personal information and feelings than women, they are not capable of achieving the type of intimate relationships that women have

answer

False

question

Emotional expression is the only way to develop close relationships

answer

False

question

Some studies show that relational intimacy may develop more quickly through computer-mediated communication than face-to-face

answer

True

question

One researcher concluded that close relationships "maybe the single most important source of life satisfaction and emotional well-being, across different ages and cultures"

answer

True

question

IM-ing, blogging, Facebooking do not enhance intimacy in interpersonal relationships

answer

False

question

Research shows that transgressors who have been forgiven are less likely to repeat their offenses than those who have not received forgiveness

answer

True

question

Research shows that the most effective conversations about forgiveness contain two elements--an explicit statement of your thoughts or feelings, and a discussion of the implications of the transgression and the future of the relationship

answer

True

question

The way we communicate in our families is shaped by our birth order

answer

True

question

Labels used by family members such as "the smart one" and "the cute one" can create self-fulfilling prophecies

answer

True

question

The way parents communicate with their young children creates secure or insecure bonds that have powerful and lasting effects

answer

True

question

Research demonstrates that one family communication pattern isn't necessarily more productive or satisfying than another

answer

False

question

The text states that romantic partners who fear rejection and abandonment are likely to act in ways that increase the odds of their fears coming to pass. This example best relates to which concept from chapter 2?

answer

self-fulfilling prophecies

question

Siblings who are ____ are often more extraverted and concerned with control than their brothers and sisters

answer

first-born

question

When Marlina and Zach fight, they blow things out of proportion, interrupt, and yell. Their conflict style is most likely

answer

Volatile

question

Heterosexual women value their friendships with gay men because

answer

All of the above

question

Which of the following statements accurately describes the research about "friends with benefits?"

answer

These relationships are often problematic

question

Social psychologist Roy Baumeister makes the case that, on average, most people want ___ close, important relationships in their lives at any given time

answer

four to six

question

All of the following are dimensions of intimacy except which one?

answer

All of these are correct dimensions

question

Members of an individualistic culture like the United States

answer

Act more familiar with strangers and disclose more personal information

question

Some studies show that computer-mediated communication

answer

enhances verbal, emotional, and social intimacy in interpersonal relationships

question

The benefit of forgiveness is

answer

All of these choices are beneficial

question

Research has shown that strong marriages manage conflict in constructive ways

answer

True

question

Destructive fights often start because the initiator confronts a partner who isn't ready for a confrontation

answer

True

question

Conflict can exist on when both parties are aware of the disagreement

answer

True

question

As long as one person in the relationship is aware of the disagreement, a conflict exists

answer

False

question

The win-win approach to conflict resolution requires parties to reach a solution through compromise

answer

False

question

When people express hostility in obscure ways, "passive aggression" occurs

answer

True

question

Avoidance is never an effective conflict style to choose

answer

False

question

In high-context, collectivist countries, avoidance and accommodation are considered positive, appropriate ways to handle conflict

answer

True

question

Conflict is considered relational because it is determined by the way the parties interact with each other

answer

True

question

Conflict rituals are not necessarily wrong until they become the only way relational partners handle their conflicts

answer

True

question

The ethnic background of communicators is not a significant factor in their views regarding conflict

answer

False

question

Controlling resources like money, staffing, and time in order to keep employees from being successful is a form of workplace bullying

answer

True

question

Destructive behaviors included in the "four horsemen" described by researcher John Gottman are likely to feed off each other and develop into destructive conflict rituals

answer

True

question

If both partners are willing, the collaborative win-win approach is very likely to be successful

answer

True

question

Which of the following strategies is not recommended as a way to manage workplace bullying?

answer

All of the above are recommended strategies

question

Which of the following is not an example of workplace bullying?

answer

assertive language

question

Stonewalling sends a(n)____ message to the other person

answer

Disconfirming

question

Men are more likely than women to

answer

be more competitive

question

In a survey of conflict views of college men and women, women were described as being

answer

more concerned with maintaining the relationship during a conflict

question

A person who buys a piece of new furniture, finds it damaged, and says nothing because he doesn't want to confront the retailer, is engaging in the personal conflict style of

answer

avoiding

question

When people deliver subtle aggressive messages involving feelings of resentment, anger, or rage that they aren't able or willing to express directly, they are engaging in what psychologist George Bach calls

answer

crazymaking

question

Conflict rituals are

answer

unacknowledged but repeating patterns of dealing with conflict

question

all of the following are true about conflict, except

answer

people typically have similar conflict styles

question

When Brody steered clear of Miranda after they had an argument, he was using what style of conflict?

answer

avoiding

question

Of the following, what is not a step in negotiating a solution in the collaborative conflict style approach?

answer

All of these answers are steps

STUDY

Conflict Theory Low Context Cultures Men And Women North America Win Win Solution

Chapter 12-speech – Flashcards 23 terms

Kate Moore

23 terms

Preview

Chapter 12-speech – Flashcards

question

In a survey of conflict views of college men and women, women were described as being

answer

more concerned with maintaining the relationship during a conflict.

question

Complementary and symmetrical conflict styles have been shown to produce

answer

both "good" results as well as "bad" ones.

question

Individuals in low-context cultures typically resolve conflict by

answer

avoidance. indirect communication. nonassertion. Correct all of the above

question

An uncontrolled, spontaneous "explosion", a "Vesuvius", is

answer

therapeutic when you feel it's impossible to be relational and your partner understands what you're doing.

question

Win-win problem solving is seldom used because

answer

there is a lack of awareness of it, emotional reflexes prevent constructive solutions, and it requires both persons' cooperation.

question

A person who buys a piece of new furniture, finds it damaged, and says nothing because he doesn't want to confront the retailer, is engaging in the personal conflict style of

answer

nonassertion

question

In order for a conflict to exist, two interdependent parties must perceive

answer

incompatible goals, scarce rewards, and interference from the other party in achieving their goals.

question

You are upset with your friend Laura because she's borrowed some clothes and not returned them. You badmouth Laura to some mutual friends, telling them Laura is "undependable." You've engaged in the personal conflict style described as

answer

passive aggression.

question

A possible pitfall of using passive aggression is that

answer

the object of your indirect aggression may just miss the point. a short-range "win" may lose in the long run. you deny yourself and the other party a chance of building any kind of honest relationship. Correct All of the above are possible pitfalls involved with the use of passive aggression. Passive aggression really has no pitfalls.

question

Conflict rituals are

answer

unacknowledged but repeating patterns of dealing with conflict.

question

The "ownership" of a problem almost always belongs to

answer

the person who brings it up.

question

You and your partner's pattern of managing disagreements that repeats itself over time is called your

answer

relational conflict style.

question

"Crazymakers" are

answer

disguised forms of aggression.

question

All of the following are true about conflict, except

answer

people typically have similar conflict styles.

question

Which suggestion does your text offer if you don't meet with success when following the six steps in win-win problem solving?

answer

Go back and repeat the previous step.

question

Studies of different cultures and conflict reveal that

answer

the assertiveness appropriate in North America would be rude and insensitive in collectivist cultures.

question

One of the best methods to use to describe your problem and needs to a partner during conflict resolution is

answer

the clear message format

question

Studies of intimate and aggressive relational conflict styles find that

answer

the pattern partners choose may reveal a great deal about the kind of relationship they have chosen.

question

The best way to boost the odds of a partner's cooperation toward a win-win solution to a conflict is to

answer

explain the ways the partner will benefit.

question

Leah and Rachel have never gotten along. Rachel says that the best way for them to continue to work in the same office is to do their best to avoid one another. Their conflict style is best described as

answer

Nonintimate-Nonaggressive.

question

At which step in the Win-Win negotiation process would you utilize the clear message format described in Chapter Nine?

answer

Describe your problem and needs

question

At which step in the Win-Win negotiation process would brainstorming appropriate?

answer

Negotiate a solution

question

Of the following statements, which most accurately describes the part gender plays in conflict style?

answer

Gender is less important in determining conflict style than the behavior of the other person in the conflict.

STUDY

Communications Conflict Theory Interpersonal Communication

COM 112 final – Flashcards 201 terms

Killian Parsons

201 terms

Preview

COM 112 final – Flashcards

question

Research indicates that the average person can detect deception approximately what percentage of the time? Select one: a. 25% b. 40% c. 55% d. 73%

answer

c. 55%

question

According to the distinctions between men and women's linguistic styles, men are more likely to: Select one: a. use modifiers to reflect the intensity of their statements b. talk in shorter phrases c. rely on the use of inclusive pronouns like "we" d. withhold opinions

answer

b. talk in shorter phrases

question

When Jon and Ernesto met in their English class, they were both hesitant to share much about their personal lives. As the semester progressed and they became better friends, they felt comfortable sharing more and more with each other. Which element of self-disclosure is reflected in their relationship? Select one: a. self-disclosure varies in breadth and depth b. self-disclosure must be intentional c. self-disclosure follows a process d. self-disclosure varies among relationships

answer

c. self-disclosure follows a process

question

According to your text, the perception-making process consists of three stages. Which of the following is NOT among them? Select one: a. interpretation b. attribution c. organization d. selection

answer

b. attribution

question

According to research, an increase in which of the following nonverbal behaviors is indicative of deception? Select one: a. forward leans b. genuine smiles c. vocal fluency d. blinking

answer

d. blinking

question

Which of the following statements about people with high self-esteem is NOT true? Select one: a. They score higher on standardized tests b. They are comfortable initiating relationships c. They have higher emotional intelligence d. They are more likely to end a relationship that is in trouble

answer

a. They score higher on standardized tests

question

Your subjective evaluation of yourself is known as: Select one: a. self-evaluation b. self-esteem c. self-concept d. self-image

answer

b. self-esteem

question

We have a tendency to discount first impressions as untrustworthy. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

Samantha was a fantastic softball player, but she rarely took credit for her success. Every time a reporter from the school paper would ask her for a quote, Samantha would say, "I just got lucky today," or, "Their pitcher just gave me something I could hit." Which of these likely factors into Samantha's personality? Select one: a. internal locus b. external locus c. negative attribution d. self-serving bias

answer

b. external locus

question

Your own understanding of who you are as a person comprises your: Select one: a. face b. image c. reference group d. self-concept

answer

d. self-concept

question

Deception done for the right reasons is not really deception. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

Biological sex is genetically determined whereas gender roles are socially constructed. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Jason went to a party with several of his friends last weekend. While he was there, he made several inappropriate comments and did not notice that people were offended by what he was saying. Afterwards, several people at the party commented to Jason's friends that they were surprised and upset by his behavior. Which of the following statements is likely true of Jason? Select one: a. Jason has low self-esteem. b. Jason is a low self-monitor. c. Jason has a poor self-concept. d. Jason does not engage in self-fulfilling prophecies.

answer

b. Jason is a low self-monitor

question

Which of the following linguistic patterns is associated with powerful speech? Select one: a. disclaimers b. hedges c. offering opinions d. asking questions

answer

c. offering opinions

question

Among adults, which of the following is true about touch behavior? Select one: a. women touch men more than men touch women b. opposite-sex touch is more common than same-sex touch c. in same-sex pairs, men touch each other just as much as women do d. none of the above statements is true

answer

b. opposite-sex touch is more common than same-sex touch

question

Frank's grandfather loved to fish. Every time he came back from the lake, he described catching and releasing a bigger and bigger fish. We can infer from this story that Frank's grandfather likely engaged in: Select one: a. commission b. equivocation c. falsification d. exaggeration

answer

d. exaggeration

question

Idealizing a romantic partner at the beginning of a new relationship is a common example of the __________ bias. Select one: a. delusional b. romantic c. positivity d. confirmatory

answer

c. positivity

question

Idioms and gestures are examples of Select one: a. communication codes b. cultural truisms c. cultural speech development d. communication power-distance

answer

a. communication codes

question

A group of students who attend the same high school and all belong to the school's computer club would be an example of what? Select one: a. cultural norming b. enculturation c. a co-culture d. cultural adaptation

answer

c. a co-culture

question

Studies involving communication between infants and caregivers have reliably demonstrated that Select one: a. Without sufficient interaction, infants will likely develop severe mental illness later in life. b. Human interaction, specifically touch, is critical for development and health. c. Infants' language acquisition occurs whether or not their caregivers communicate with them. d. Only a child's biological parents are able to influence his or her social development.

answer

b. Human interaction, specifically touch, is critical for development and health.

question

Which concept of culture includes judgments about how good, desirable, or beautiful something is? Select one: a. symbols b. values c. norms d. language

answer

b. values

question

According to social penetration theory, the __________ dimension concerns the number of topics disclosed whereas the __________ dimension concerns the level of detail in topics disclosed. Select one: a. breadth, depth b. depth, breadth c. range, penetration d. penetration, range

answer

a. breadth, depth

question

The self-serving bias is a form of self delusion. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Very specific communication codes such as those used by doctors and dentists are known as Select one: a. idiomatic expressions b. specialized codes c. jargon d. clichés

answer

c. jargon

question

Your text discussed several potential risks of self-disclosure. Which of the following was not among them? Select one: a. violating privacy boundaries b. obligating others c. rejection d. damaging personal health

answer

d. damaging personal health

question

Having empathy means feeling sorry for someone else. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

Deception has several characteristics; which of the following is NOT among them? Select one: a. The sender must believe the information is false. b. The receiver must believe the information is true. c. The information must be transmitted knowingly. d. The sender must intend to create a false belief in the receiver.

answer

b. The receiver must believe the information is true.

question

Explain in detail the 4 attachment styles and give an example of how you have seen someone's attachment style impact your relationship.

answer

The 4 attatchment styles are secure, which involes a positive view of self and others, preocupied, which involves positive view of others, and negative view on self. The next, is dismissive, which involves positive view of self, and negative view on others. The last is fearful avoidance, which is a negative view of self, and a negative view of others. My own attatchment style, dismissive, actually impacts my relationships with others. I am very goal-oriented and i do feel that relationships just get in the way sometimes. I have to focus and complete my own plans before i begin to worry about a relationship.

question

You liked most everything about your new roommate when you first met, but when you found out she smokes, that overshadowed all of her good qualities in your mind. What perception-making process are you displaying here? Select one: a. primacy effect b. negativity bias c. stereotyping d. egocentrism

answer

b. negativity bias

question

This model considers both people in a conversation to be senders and receivers simultaneously: Select one: a. action b. transaction c. interaction d. none of these

answer

transaction

question

When competent communicators discover that their perceptions were inaccurate, they will respond by: Select one: a. seeking more information b. considering alternative perceptions c. revising their perceptions accordingly d. all of these

answer

d. all of these

question

Your self-concept is made up of the perceptions you have about who you are as a person. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Competent communication must be both effective and appropriate. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

When lying to a stranger, one will usually be more successful doing so in a face-to-face conversation than in an email message. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Human interaction is critical for the health of both infants and adults. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Organization is the process of assigning meaning to something you have perceived. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

An explanation for why something occurred is called a(n): Select one: a. interpretation b. selection c. attribution d. perceptual set

answer

c. attribution

question

On average, men express more opinions than women do. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

A sign in the library that reads "No Talking Allowed" would constitute an example of what? Select one: a. perceptual filter b. relational dimension c. explicit rule d. unintentional communication

answer

c. explicit rule

question

Lack of effective communication is the most commonly cited reason for relationship failure. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Which of the following forms of deception is an act of dissimulation? Select one: a. exaggeration b. falsification c. sarcasm d. equivocation

answer

d. equivocation

question

When his girlfriend asks if he really loves her, Ramon gives her a vague, ambiguous response. What form of deception is he attempting? Select one: a. fibbing b. equivocation c. exaggeration d. falsification

answer

b. equivocation

question

According to the norm of reciprocity, people expect the level of disclosures in their personal relationships to be relatively equivalent. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

How are interpretations different from facts? Select one: a. Interpretations are objective, whereas facts are subjective. b. Facts speak to what occurred, whereas interpretations speak to the meaning of what occurred. c. Interpretations are the same as descriptions, whereas facts are more similar to attributions. d. They aren't different; facts and interpretations are the same.

answer

b. Facts speak to what occurred, whereas interpretations speak to the meaning of what occurred.

question

What term is used to describe anything that interferes with the accurate decoding of a message? Select one: a. channel b. noise c. feedback d. context

answer

b. noise

question

People from different cultures sometimes experience difficulty in understanding one another because they think differently. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Research has shown that genetics have little or no influence on personality. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

Research suggests that women are more likely than men to use self-references, such as "me" or "I". Select one: True False

answer

False

question

In the United States, most people understand that they are expected to form a line and wait for their turn. That is an example of what type of rule? Select one: a. a culture-bound rule b. an explicit rule c. an implicit rule d. an orderly rule

answer

c. an implicit rule

question

According to the text, your self-concept is influenced by all of the following except: Select one: a. personality and biology b. culture and gender roles c. reflected appraisal d. impression evaluation

answer

d. impression evaluation

question

The ability to take another person's perspective, and to think and feel as that person does, is called what? Select one: a. ethics b. sympathy c. empathy d. self-awareness

answer

c. empathy

question

What is meant by the phrase "deception can serve as a social lubricant?" Select one: a. People commonly engage in deception to get what they want from other people. b. People commonly engage in deception to avoid hurting others' feelings. c. People commonly engage in deception in order to impress others. d. People commonly engage in deception in order to increase their number of friends.

answer

b. People commonly engage in deception to avoid hurting others' feelings.

question

Describe your own culture (or a co-culture you belong to) in terms of whether it is individualistic or collectivistic, high-context or low-context, and high-power-distance or low-power-distance. Use concrete examples. Next, provide a brief critique of each of those characteristics of your culture. What do you find to be positive about it? Negative about it?

answer

My culture would probably something along the lines of where i work. I work at Chick-Fil-A, and I have been working with chick fila since 2008. Chickfila is a collectivistic job because we are all a team. it is a high context job, in my opinion, because there are many ways to get things done. it is probably a mix between the low/high-power stance because many people make decisions but there is still an overall boss. This culture is pretty positive, with the christian aspect of business, we always look out for everyone, including the customers. Masculine&feminine culture monochronic or polychronic

question

Men are more likely than women to initiate touch with other adults, but women are more likely than men to initiate touch with children. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT considered one of the defining elements of culture? Select one: a. values b. symbols c. language d. ethnicity

answer

d. ethnicity

question

Most people in the United States believe they are above-average communicators. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Regarding sex differences in verbal behavior, which of the following is true, according to your text? Select one: a. women are not more talkative than men b. women interrupt more than men do c. men use more disclaimers and hedges than women do d. women ask fewer questions than men do

answer

a. women are not more talkative than men

question

In a low-context culture, people are expected to be direct and say what they mean. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

When we evaluate our own merits with respect to certain reference groups, we are engaging in a process known as: Select one: a. self-esteem maintenance b. social comparison c. the looking-glass self d. impression formation

answer

b. social comparison

question

Low self-monitors are more likely than high self-monitors to appear unsophisticated or socially awkward. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

What of the following could be an example of the Othello error? Select one: a. A listener is so suspicious that he or she doubts someone else's truthful statement. b. People tend to look for deception in bad news more than in good news. c. People tend to look for deception in good news more than in bad news. d. A listener is so trusting of another that he or she does not evaluate the truthfulness of the person's statements.

answer

a. A listener is so suspicious that he or she doubts someone else's truthful statement.

question

Culture is the shared symbols, language, values, and norms that distinguish one group of people from another. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Researchers use this term to describe how aware people are of their own behaviors: Select one: a. cognitive complexity b. self-monitoring c. adaptability d. self-disclosure

answer

b. self-monitoring

question

As defined in the textbook, communication can help us grow spiritually in all of the following areas except: Select one: a. developing a sense of our values b. articulating morals (beliefs about right and wrong) c. discouraging the spirituality of others d. finding a meaning for life

answer

c. discouraging the spirituality of others

question

Many factors affect the likelihood that we will notice a certain object in our environment. Which of the following does not lead to increased attention? Select one: a. plainness b. unusualness c. repetition d. intensity

answer

a. plainness

question

A verbal phrase whose meaning is purely figurative, such as "shake a leg" or "kick the bucket," is called what? Select one: a. oxymoron b. idiom c. pun d. idiosyncrasy

answer

b. idiom

question

Pupil dilation usually decreases when people are being deceptive. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

When you see someone dressed in very tight, dark clothing with spiky hair and eyeliner, you infer that this person is into emo punk rock. Your impression is based on which set of cues? Select one: a. demographic b. sociocultural c. socioeconomic d. psychographic

answer

b. sociocultural

question

Which of the following techniques will NOT help people improve their empathic skills? Select one: a. listening non-judgmentally to the speaker b. acknowledging the speaker's feelings c. encouraging the speaker to focus on what he or she still has, instead of what was lost d. communicating support to the speaker nonverbally

answer

c. encouraging the speaker to focus on what he or she still has, instead of what was lost

question

The word set has nearly 200 discrete meanings in the English language. Imprecise use of set illustrates which of the following statements about language? Select one: a. Language is often confusing because of multiple connotations. b. Language can be unclear because of multiple meanings for the same word. c. Languages around the world do not have a clear definition of referents for words. d. Language symbols are arbitrary and hard to define.

answer

b. Language can be unclear because of multiple meanings for the same word.

question

Words that evoke strongly positive or negative connotations are known collectively as: Select one: a. emotion language b. trigger words c. loaded language d. hot-button words

answer

c. loaded language

question

When one member of a group spreads his or her emotional state to the others, ___________ has taken place. Select one: a. emotional expressiveness b. a sympathetic emotional response c. emotional synchrony d. emotional contagion

answer

d. emotional contagion

question

Which of the following examples illustrates the idea of reclaiming a phrase? Select one: a. Politicians limiting their use of the word "poor" when describing citizens of lower economic status. b. Homosexual men referring to one another as "queer." c. A white speaker using only the term "African American" when referring to black audience members. d. The NAACP holding a ceremonial funeral for the "n-word."

answer

b. Homosexual men referring to one another as "queer."

question

People who can accurately identify which emotion they're feeling are best equipped to manage their emotions in productive ways. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Saying that someone has been "let go" instead of "fired" is an example of which language behavior? Select one: a. hate speech b. slang c. euphemism d. profanity

answer

c. euphemism

question

Information overload can impair our ability to listen effectively. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

The study of how people use movement is called what? Select one: a. haptics b. kinesics c. oculesics d. proxemics

answer

b. kinesics

question

Why do people tend to believe nonverbal messages even when they contradict verbal messages? Select one: a. Nonverbal behaviors are completely involuntary and reflect people's true states. b. People will only attempt to control their nonverbal behavior when they are lying. c. It is harder for most people to control their nonverbal communication than their verbal communication. d. All of these are true.

answer

c. It is harder for most people to control their nonverbal communication than their verbal communication.

question

Your textbook identifies several ways that speakers can use nonverbal communication to increase the persuasiveness of their statements. Which of the following nonverbal behaviors is not in line with these prescriptions? Select one: a. speaking softly, slowly, and calmly b. matching someone else's nonverbal behavior c. casually touching someone on the arm d. maintaining eye contact with someone while speaking

answer

a. speaking softly, slowly, and calmly

question

The literal, "dictionary" definition of a word is its __________ meaning. Select one: a. denotative b. connotative c. abstract d. referent

answer

a. denotative

question

According to Edward T. Hall, this range of this type of distance is approximately 1½ to 4 feet: Select one: a. intimate distance b. personal distance c. social distance d. public distance

answer

b. personal distance

question

Which of the following statements would be true according to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis? Select one: a. If a culture does not have a word for an emotion, its members will not be able to experience that emotion. b. Regardless of the language that individuals from different cultures might speak, people see the world in basically the same way. c. The culture that you are raised in determines the languages you will speak in your lifetime. d. The distinction between nouns and verbs does not exist in most languages.

answer

a. If a culture does not have a word for an emotion, its members will not be able to experience that emotion.

question

During a phone conversation, you are able to infer something about the speaker's mood and personality by listening to his or her vocal cues. That fact illustrates which of the following claims about nonverbal communication? Select one: a. Nonverbal communication is usually believed over verbal communication. b. Nonverbal communication is present in most forms of interpersonal communication. c. Nonverbal communication conveys more meaning than verbal communication. d. Nonverbal communication metacommunicates. Feedback

answer

b. Nonverbal communication is present in most forms of interpersonal communication.

question

Most research strongly supports the common notion that beauty is in the eye of the beholder. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

According to the text, the face is used primarily to communicate all of the following except: Select one: a. identity b. emotion c. attractiveness d. intellect

answer

d. intellect

question

The study of touch behavior is known as: Select one: a. haptics b. oculesics c. proxemics d. kinesics

answer

a. haptics

question

The face communicates more information than any other nonverbal channel. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

When Jesse first met Nicolette, he extended his hand and said warmly, "Nice to meet you." In response, Nicolette sighed, rolled her eyes, and simply said, "Yah," in a very sarcastic tone. Jesse inferred that Nicolette was not excited about meeting him based on her reaction. Which rule of language did Jesse likely base his decision on? Select one: a. phonological rule b. syntactic rule c. semantic rule d. pragmatic rule

answer

d. pragmatic rule

question

Emotions are always triggered from outside events. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

The action tendency for this emotion is to hide or disappear from others: Select one: a. anger b. disgust c. shame d. fear

answer

c. shame

question

Which of the following phrases is an example of doublespeak? Select one: a. sleep together b. kick the bucket c. jumbo shrimp d. collateral damage

answer

d. collateral damage

question

Which type of listening response includes the use of head nods, facial expressions, and short utterances such as "uh-huh" that signal your interest to the speaker? Select one: a. pseudolistening b. engaging c. supporting d. backchanneling

answer

d. backchanneling

question

The tendency to assume that attractive people have other positive qualities is called what? Select one: a. positive prototyping b. character assumption c. principle of facial primacy d. halo effect

answer

d. halo effect

question

This persuasion strategy takes advantage of the speaker's credibility: Select one: a. appeal to logos b. appeal to ethos c. appeal to pathos d. none of the above

answer

b. appeal to ethos

question

An allness claim is one in which the speaker intentionally misleads the hearer by arguing that everyone else agrees with his or her position. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

This type of language rule deals with the correct pronunciation of words: Select one: a. phonological b. syntactic c. semantic d. pragmatic

answer

a. phonological

question

Dan is an atheist with a keen interest in politics. Whenever Dan is watching a debate and one of the candidates mentions his or her belief or interest in God, he stops listening to that candidate. Sometimes, he'll even change his vote if a candidate he likes mentions God too frequently. Which of the following listening barriers describes Dan? Select one: a. rebuttal tendency b. closed-mindedness c. attack listening d. information overload

answer

b. closed-mindedness

question

The vividness effect is the tendency of dramatic, shocking events to distort our perceptions of reality. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Venting is a positive way of releasing your anger. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

Which of the following items was not identified in your textbook as a demographic characteristic? Select one: a. age b. ethnic background c. sexual orientation d. socioeconomic status

answer

d. socioeconomic status

question

Profanity is highly context-specific. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Which of the following statements about listening is true, according to your text? Select one: a. Listening is an innate ability. b. People spend more time listening than speaking. c. Everyone who listens to a message hears the same thing. d. Hearing is the same as listening.

answer

b. People spend more time listening than speaking.

question

Which of the following claims about facial expressions of emotion is not true? Select one: a. Extroverts tend to be better than introverts at interpreting nonverbal expressions of emotion. b. Women are generally better than men at understanding facial displays of emotion. c. Happiness is the easiest facial expression to decode. d. Facial expressions are second only to vocal behaviors in their ability to express emotion

answer

d. Facial expressions are second only to vocal behaviors in their ability to express emotion

question

Based on your observations of the TED video on listening and using course terms: How did the speaker discuss the different Types/ Ways of Listening?

answer

...

question

Which of the following emotions is derived from the product of your overall evaluation of another person? Select one: a. liking b. love c. interest d. affection

answer

a. liking

question

_______________ is a condition in which people lack the ability to understand, describe, and process emotions. Select one: a. neuroticism b. emotional processing deficit disorder c. emotional underexpression d. alexithymia

answer

d. alexithymia

question

A(n) _________________ is a memory aid that helps people recall important information. Select one: a. memory enhancement device b. mnemonic device c. recall device d. alliteration device

answer

b. mnemonic device

question

Contemporary research suggests that approximately this percentage of meaning is transmitted nonverbally: Select one: a. 30-35% b. 45-50% c. 65-70% d. 90-95%

answer

c. 65-70%

question

During a counseling session with his wife, Edith, Harris frequently rolled his eyes, made rude and condescending remarks, and openly mocked Edith in front of their counselor. Harris's emotional state could best be described as: Select one: a. hostile b. arrogant c. contemptuous d. disrespectful

answer

d. disrespectful

question

This is the active process of making meaning out of another person's spoken message: Select one: a. hearing b. acknowledging c. evaluating d. listening

answer

d. listening

question

When Rachel saw her neighbor Harold in the hallway, he quickly flagged her down and began to speak with her. Throughout their conversation, Harold maintained steady eye contact, spoke very quickly, laughed frequently, and stood closer to Rachel than he usually would. Harold's nonverbal cues indicate that: Select one: a. he was nervous or uncomfortable b. he was engaging in deception c. he was excited d. he was content

answer

c. he was excited

question

Slang can serve an important social function by helping people distinguish between those who do and do not belong to their social networks. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

An I-statement claims ownership of what one is feeling or thinking, whereas a you-statement shifts that responsibility to the other person. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Which of the following vocal behaviors is a dimension of nonverbal communication? Select one: a. tone of voice b. rate of speech c. loudness d. all of these

answer

d. all of these

question

According to your text, this could qualify as noise: Select one: a. loud music b. feeling hungry c. being too hot d. all of the above

answer

d. all of the above

question

Which of the following statements about slang is not true? Select one: a. Slang is closely related to jargon. b. Slang can help people identify individuals that belong to their social network. c. Slang is neither inherently good nor inherently bad. d. Slang is an exception to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis.

answer

d. Slang is an exception to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis.

question

Using you-statements to describe your emotions is problematic because: Select one: a. it provides specific prescriptions for change b. it fails to acknowledge the part you play in determining your feelings c. it involves blaming yourself for your emotions d. it doesn't allow you to separate emotions from actions

answer

b. it fails to acknowledge the part you play in determining your feelings

question

Which of the following is not one of the criticisms that have been levied against the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis? Select one: a. It is unclear whether language produces thought or thought produces language. b. Children who grow up in a bilingual family experience a great deal of cognitive dissonance because of the conflicting languages. c. Just because a culture doesn't have a word to describe an experience doesn't mean they don't have that experience. d. People who have cognitive deficiencies for learning language can still engage in thought, despite their language limitations.

answer

b. Children who grow up in a bilingual family experience a great deal of cognitive dissonance because of the conflicting languages.

question

According to your text, which of the following statements correctly represents the two parts of interpretation? Select one: a. Focus on the subjective meaning of the speaker's message and gauge the truthfulness of his or her claim. b. Understand the point of view the speaker represents and assign a mental interpretation of his or her statement based on that understanding. c. Pay attention to all of the speaker's verbal and nonverbal messages and signal your interpretation back to the speaker. d. Interpret the speaker's message carefully and remember your interpretation for future interactions with the speaker.

answer

c. Pay attention to all of the speaker's verbal and nonverbal messages and signal your interpretation back to the speaker.

question

Which of the following emotions has a neutral valence? Select one: a. surprise b. happiness c. contentment d. positivity

answer

a. surprise

question

Regarding the relationship between jealousy and envy, which of the following is true? Select one: a. Jealousy is focused on material things, whereas envy is focused on relationships. b. Envy involves wanting something that another person has. c. Jealousy is a primary emotion; envy is a secondary emotion. d. Envy and jealousy are the same emotion.

answer

b. Envy involves wanting something that another person has.

question

People who score highly on this personality trait are more likely than others to experience anger, guilt, anxiety, and depression: Select one: a. extroversion b. psychoticism c. neuroticism d. agreeableness

answer

c. neuroticism

question

Effectively interpreting nonverbal communication includes all of the following except: Select one: a. sensitivity to others' nonverbal messages b. trying to decipher the correct meaning of nonverbal behavior c. looking past cultural differences to understand the meaning d. asking for clarification when necessary

answer

c. looking past cultural differences to understand the meaning

question

Which of the following linguistic features was NOT identified in the textbook as affecting a speaker's credibility? Select one: a. use of clichés b. a speaker's dialect c. incorrect diction d. equivocal statements

answer

c. incorrect diction

question

Which of the following statements about facial or vocal expressions of emotions is factually incorrect? Select one: a. Infants are unable to respond to pleasant stimuli before they are 12 months old. b. Facial expressions of emotion are fairly consistent across cultures. c. Disgust, boredom, and grief are typically accompanied by a lower vocal pitch. d. People tend to speak faster when they are scared.

answer

a. Infants are unable to respond to pleasant stimuli before they are 12 months old.

question

To an American, the phrase, "How are you today?" sounds correct whereas the phrase "Today you are how?" sounds incorrect. The second phrase violates which rule of language? Select one: a. phonological b. syntactical c. semantic d. pragmatic

answer

b. syntactical

question

Listening non-judgmentally is important for effective critical listening. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

Define and give examples of Ekman and Friesen's five display rules of emotions.

answer

...

question

Empathic listening means feeling sorry for someone else. Select one: True False

answer

False

question

Verbal communication includes both spoken and written language. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

Rachel finished her oral exam in her Spanish class and her teacher, Señora Lopez, evaluated her performance. Although Rachel did well on the exam and most of Señora Lopez's comments were positive, Rachel only focused on the negative critiques and felt very bad about her performance. Rachel just engaged in which of the following behaviors? Select one: a. pseudolistening b. content-oriented listening c. selective attention d. negative attention bias

answer

c. selective attention

question

Which of the following statements about smoking is the best example of an appeal to pathos? Select one: a. When you add it all up, smoking costs a person almost $7,000 a year. b. Smoking is the number one cause of emphysema. c. Most employers can legally discriminate against smokers. d. Think about how many lives you're ruining by continuing to smoke.

answer

d. Think about how many lives you're ruining by continuing to smoke.

question

Arousal is an increase in energy. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

This aspect of facial attractiveness refers to the relative size of facial features, such as the nose or ears: Select one: a. symmetry b. rhinoplasty c. proportionality d. asymmetry

answer

c. proportionality

question

This theory predicts that the more we learn about someone, the more we like that person: Select one: a. social exchange theory b. uncertainty reduction theory c. attraction theory d. equity theory

answer

b. uncertainty reduction theory

question

People in this type of culture think of the unequal distribution of power as normal or even desirable: Select one: a. high-content b. low-context c. high power-distance d. low power-distance

answer

c. high power-distance

question

In the _____________ stage of friendship, people begin to drift apart and might lose contact with one another. Select one: a. nascent friendship b. waning friendship c. declining friendship d. drifting friendship

answer

b. waning friendship

question

Which color of love has the most realistic expection of romance? Select one: a. Ludus b. Agape c. Pragma d. Storge

answer

c. Pragma

question

All of the following tips are useful for managing a conflict online except: Select one: a. avoid responding right away b. always respond using the same communication medium c. clarify comments or statements that aren't clear d. use emoticons to express your emotional state

answer

b. always respond using the same communication medium

question

Which of the following is an example of passive aggression, as it is defined in the text? Select one: a. Tara is hurt when her brother forgets her birthday, so she deliberately "forgets" his. b. Parker is angry with his mother so he ignores her calls and e-mail messages. c. Bonnie doesn't want to go to her neighbor's party, so she takes so long to get ready for it that the party is over by the time she's done. d. All of these.

answer

d. All of these.

question

Frank and Samantha just received a large inheritance when Samantha's grandmother passed away. Samantha said she wanted to use the money to build a room addition onto their house. Frank said he wanted to buy a more fuel-efficient car. Which of the following is true about this situation? Select one: a. This is an example of conflict because it involves an expressed struggle. b. This is an example of conflict because it involves scarce resources. c. This is an example of conflict because it involves incompatible goals. d. All of these are true.

answer

d. All of these are true.

question

Which of the following reasons is most commonly cited for ending a friendship due to changes in life circumstances? Select one: a. having a child b. moving away c. getting married d. experiencing an illness in the family

answer

b. moving away

question

Friendship rules are almost always explicit, rather than implicit. Select one: True False

answer

question

Single-parent families can include biological children, step-children, and/or adopted children. Select one: True False

answer

question

When forming friendships, people find several forms of similarity to be attractive. According to research, which of the following is true? Select one: a. Cognitive similarity is not influential at any stage of friendship formation. b. Attitude similarity is the strongest predictor of initial attraction. c. People generally see attitude similarity as a bad thing. d. Similarity in personalities is the strongest predictor of initial attraction.

answer

b. Attitude similarity is the strongest predictor of initial attraction.

question

Most new relationships end at which stage of Knapp's stage model? Select one: a. initiating b. experimenting c. intensifying d. integrating

answer

b. experimenting

question

When you feel very passionate about an issue and you do not want to compromise, which conflict management style is appropriate? Select one: a. avoiding b. collaboration c. compete d. accomodation

answer

c. compete

question

Traditional gender socialization encourages men to use accommodating conflict management strategies. Select one: True False

answer

question

Dialectical tensions are rare in most intimate relationships. Select one: True False

answer

question

Which of the following statements about same-sex partners is true? Select one: a. Some of them enter into formal relationships known as domestic partnerships. b. Communication in sex-same partnerships resembles that in opposite-sex partnerships. c. Satisfaction levels in same-sex partnerships are equal to those in opposite-sex partnerships. d. All of these are true.

answer

d. All of these are true.

question

During conflict episodes, someone playing this family role tends to agree with whatever is said in order to keep others from getting angry: Select one: a. computer b. distracter c. placater d. blamer

answer

c. placater Correct

question

Which of the following is not one of the health benefits of marriage identified in your textbook? Select one: a. Married people live longer. b. Married people tend to be healthier. c. Married people have better sexual health. d. Married people are less likely to abuse alcohol and drugs.

answer

c. Married people have better sexual health.

question

Even though Maria is committed to Bill, she finds herself engaged in affair after affair. Which color of love best describes Maria's color of love? Select one: a. Mania b. Storge c. Ludas d. Eros

answer

c. Ludas

question

Pick a friend of yours with whom you've had a relationship for at least three months. Identify this friend and provide a brief description of your relationship. Next, evaluate your relationship in terms of social exchange theory. Make sure to include as many parts of the theory as you can.

answer

My friend that i met this year when coming to state is a really good guy. I work with him at Chick Fil A and he shares many of the same values i do. We joke and laugh and have many of the same interests. In relation to the social-exchange theory, i would say that having him as my friend is both beneficial and joyful. He helps me out when i need it and i help him out when he needs it. Basically, the rewards of this friendship greatly outweigh the costs that i put into it. It is very beneficial to continue my friendship with him.

question

Your place of work enforces the policy that indicates, If you show up for work 1 minute late you can be penalized. However, your boss often shows up late. This sitatuion is best explained by which concept. Select one: a. power is context specific b. principle of scarce resources c. principle of the least interested d. prerogative principle

answer

d. prerogative principle

question

Which of the following statements about opposite-sex friendships is NOT true? Select one: a. They provide men a chance to be emotionally expressive and women a chance to engage in shared activities. b. They often contain some degree of sexual or physical attraction. c. According to one study, about half of college students engage in sexual behavior with their opposite-sex friends. d. They are almost always closer than same-sex friendships.

answer

d. They are almost always closer than same-sex friendships.

question

According to Gottman, people engage in this behavior when they insult each other and attack each other's self worth: Select one: a. contempt b. defensiveness c. criticism d. stonewalling

answer

a. contempt

question

When you establish a friendship with a supervisor at work, it is a good idea to establish _______________ to prevent potential problems. Select one: a. ground rules b. a friendship pact c. safe words d. relational commitment

answer

a. ground rules

question

This occurs when one partner expresses a substantially higher level of interest in the relationship than the other: Select one: a. obsessive relational intrusion b. stalking c. codependency d. equitable relationship exchange

answer

a. obsessive relational intrusion

question

An impervious response is one that ignores the person to whom you are responding. Select one: True False

answer

question

Couples tend to progress through the stages of coming together in the same time frame. Select one: True False

answer

question

______________ is the ability to manipulate, influence, or control other people or events. Select one: a. conflict b. fear c. power d. coercion

answer

c. power

question

Jordan wants to feel emotionally close to his girlfriend but he also wants to make his own decisions. Which dialectical tension is he experiencing? Select one: a. openness-closedness b. revelation-concealment c. novelty-predictability d. autonomy-connectedness

answer

d. autonomy-connectedness

question

Which of the following represents a peer relationship for you? Select one: a. a graduate student instructor who teaches a class you're taking b. your sister because you are siblings in the same family c. your boss because he works at the same company as you do d. your parents because you are from the same family

answer

b. your sister because you are siblings in the same family

question

Which of the following is NOT an emotional reward commonly associated with close relationships? Select one: a. comfort b. happiness c. emotional continuity d. empathy

answer

c. emotional continuity

question

In the ______________ stage of friendship, people begin to think of themselves as friends and their communication becomes more personal. Select one: a. friendly relations b. moves toward friendship c. nascent friendship d. stabilized friendship

answer

c. nascent friendship

question

During which of Knapp's stages of relationship termination do couples decrease both the quality and frequency of their interactions? Select one: a. differentiation b. termination c. circumscribing d. stagnating

answer

c. circumscribing

question

Felix had been angry with his roommate Hector for some time. Hector was always playing his music so loudly that Felix couldn't concentrate, much less have a conversation on the telephone. Despite his anger, he hadn't expressed his feelings to Hector. Which of the following is true of this situation? Select one: a. Hector and Felix are engaged in conflict because Felix's anger is sufficient to produce conflict. b. Hector and Felix are not engaged in conflict because the source of their conflict is not interpersonal. c. Hector and Felix are engaged in conflict because conflict can exist "under the surface" for some time. d. Hector and Felix are not engaged in conflict because conflict must be expressed.

answer

d. Hector and Felix are not engaged in conflict because conflict must be expressed.

question

Explain in detail the 4 family communication patterns discussed in the lecture and clearly give examples of the pattern that best represents your family. Please only answer if you were in class to learn the family communication patterns.

answer

The four family communication patterns i wrote down are Family Roles, Family Rituals, Family Secrets, and Family Stores.

question

This conflict-management strategy involves a high concern for the other party but a low concern for the self: Select one: a. collaborating b. accommodating c. avoiding d. compromising

answer

b. accommodating

question

To qualify as conflict, a struggle or disagreement has to be expressed. Select one: True False

answer

question

Which of the following statements about friendships is NOT true? Select one: a. Friendships are voluntary. b. Friendships are governed by rules. c. Friendships are the same in both sexes. d. Friendships usually occur between peers.

answer

c. Friendships are the same in both sexes.

question

When Kim described how her weekend plans fell apart, Dean said, "Not everything goes the way you want; that's life." Bret said, "I'm sorry your plans fell through; you must be disappointed." The difference between Dean and Bret's messages is reflected in which of Gibb's message types? Select one: a. control vs. problem orientation b. neutrality vs. empathy c. superiority vs. equality d. strategy vs. spontaneity

answer

b. neutrality vs. empathy

question

This strategy for giving non-evaluative feedback involves asking questions that will give you more information about what the person is expecting: Select one: a. paraphrasing b. probing c. priming d. offering support

answer

b. probing

question

Which of the following is true with respect to interpersonal conflict? Select one: a. It involves independent parties. b. It involves perceived scarce resources. c. It occurs within oneself. d. It is synonymous with disagreement.

answer

b. It involves perceived scarce resources.

question

If you try hard enough, you can resolve any conflict. Select one: True False

answer

question

Stonewalling involves seeing yourself as a victim and denying responsibility for your own behaviors. Select one: True False

answer

question

In this marriage type, spouses adopt conventional gender roles and tend to avoid conflict: Select one: a. traditional b. separate c. independent d. mixed

answer

b. separate

question

When you meet Carrie, you are drawn to her as a friend because she is an excellent piano player, just like you are. That is an example of what form of attraction? Select one: a. social attraction b. physical attraction c. competence attraction d. task attraction

answer

d. task attraction

question

The goal of collaboration is to identify a "win-win" solution to a conflict. Select one: True False

answer

True

question

The disinhibition effect suggests that online conflicts are more likely to involve inequitable distributions of power than face-to-face conflicts. Select one: True False

answer

question

This reflects the resources we put into a relationship: Select one: a. interdependence b. investment c. commitment d. independence

answer

b. investment

question

People in arranged marriages are usually unhappy with their relationship. Select one: True False

answer

question

Which of the following statements about relationships with clients at work is correct? Select one: a. A good relationship with clients is the single greatest predictor of job satisfaction. b. Companies often encourage their employees to develop close, personal friendships with their clients to help sales. c. Having friendships with clients reduces some of the pressure or expectation related to job performance. d. Close friendships with clients can put workers in an uncomfortable or unethical position.

answer

d. Close friendships with clients can put workers in an uncomfortable or unethical position.

question

According to equity theory, it's better to be equally benefited than to be overbenefited. Select one: True False

answer

question

The most distressed relationships are those with the most frequent conflict. Select one: True False

answer

question

Jon recently stopped a conflict with his girlfriend, Ana, and said to her, "You don't know how to have a disagreement without losing your temper and swearing!" Ana replied, "Well at least I want to confront the issues instead of avoiding them!" Jon and Ana's exchange is an example of: Select one: a. the content dimension of conflict b. the relational dimension of conflict c. meta-conflict d. pseudoconflict

answer

c. meta-conflict

question

Which step for managing conflict involves imangined interaction? Select one: a. preparation b. resolve the problem c. make a date to discuss the conflict d. interpersonal confrontatoin

answer

a. preparation

question

Friendships and other social relationships often involve this type of rewards: Select one: a. emotional b. material c. health d. all of these

answer

d. all of these

question

Which of the following is one of the friendship rules identified in a study by communication researchers Argyle and Henderson? Select one: a. Protect your friend from potential threats. b. Don't tell your friend information that might hurt his or her feelings. c. Don't be jealous of your friend's other friends. d. Routinely tell your friend that you care about him or her.

answer

c. Don't be jealous of your friend's other friends.

question

Janice and Stephanie have been close friends for some time. When Stephanie recently lost her job, she couldn't afford her rent anymore and was on the verge of homelessness. Janice invited her to stay in her guest room for as long as needed. While there, Stephanie does a little of the cooking. According to equity theory, which of the following statements about this relationship scenario is true? Select one: a. Stephanie is currently over-benefited in their relationship. b. Stephanie is investing less in their relationship than Janice right now. c. This relationship will survive a period of brief inequity as long as long-term equity is maintained. d. All of these statements are true.

answer

d. All of these statements are true.

question

Why is the discussion of routine, mundane tasks important to consider in long-term romantic relationships? Select one: a. Most of the communication that takes place in these relationships falls in this category. b. How to handle these issues can become a major issue of contention. c. The way couples handle these tasks reflects the balance of power in their relationship. d. All of these.

answer

d. All of these.

question

Elizabeth and Aaron had been married for six months when Elizabeth started to feel dissatisfied in their relationship. Although Aaron was a nice person and fun to be around, he didn't do any of the cooking or cleaning despite the fact that both of them worked full time. Elizabeth's dissatisfaction was likely due to the fact that: Select one: a. Aaron exhibited a lack of commitment in his behavior. b. Elizabeth expected an equitable investment in household chores from Aaron. c. Aaron was enjoying too much interdependence in their relationship. d. Elizabeth was conflicted by her own dialectical tensions between work and home.

answer

b. Elizabeth expected an equitable investment in household chores from Aaron.

question

Which of the following statements about potential health benefits of relationships is true? Select one: a. People with more social contacts put themselves at greater risk for illnesses like a cold. b. People with strong social networks are more than twice as likely to survive a heart attack. c. A lack of social relationships increases the risk of mortality, but not on the same level as smoking, heart disease, or obesity. d. When friends share their problems with us, it increases our stress and can actually make us less healthy.

answer

b. People with strong social networks are more than twice as likely to survive a heart attack.

question

According to Gottman's couple typology, this type of couple handles disagreements in a way that is open, but discussions tend to be competitive rather than cooperative. Select one: a. validating b. volatile c. conflict-avoidant d. hostile

answer

b. volatile

question

Which type of sexual harassment includes requesting romantic or sexual favors in return for preferential treatment at work? Select one: a. hostile work environment b. sexual bargaining c. quid pro quo d. harassing requests

answer

c. quid pro quo

question

Which of the following statements about similarity is NOT true? Select one: a. Forming relationships with people unlike ourselves is more interesting and enjoyable. b. Forming relationships with people like ourselves is socially validating. c. Genetically, we are inclined to help people who are similar to ourselves. d. Spending time with people like ourselves makes us feel better about ourselves.

answer

a. Forming relationships with people unlike ourselves is more interesting and enjoyable.

question

Referent power derives from one's admiration for, and attraction to, another. Select one: True False

answer

question

This form of power derives from the ability to punish: Select one: a. legitimate power b. expert power c. referent power d. coercive power

answer

d. coercive power

question

A relationship between a person of higher power and a person of lesser power is known as: Select one: a. a symmetrical relationship b. a deficit relationship c. a contemporary relationship d. a complementary relationship

answer

d. a complementary relationship

question

Gottman has discovered that satisfied couples maintain this ratio of positive to negative communication: Select one: a. 5:1 b. 8:1 c. 14:1 d. 1:1

answer

a. 5:1

STUDY

Conflict Conflict Theory Inheritance

IPC online quiz questions – Flashcards 13 terms

Deacon Kirby

13 terms

Preview

IPC online quiz questions – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is true with respect to interpersonal conflict?

answer

It involves perceived scarce resources

question

According to deception research, which of the following behavioral changes is a reliable cue to deception?

answer

decreased gesturing

question

When spouses engage in the demand-withdraw pattern, who is most likely to demand and withdraw?

answer

Women are most likely to demand; men are most likely to withdraw.

question

Concept of flooding

answer

Flooding happens when someone engaged in conflict is emotionally or psychologically unable to engage the discussion further.

question

14. Research indicates that the average person can detect deception approximately what percentage of the time?

answer

55%

question

How do researchers study deceptive behaviors in cross-cultural environments?

answer

They focus their research on the speakers nonverbal cues

question

answer

Meta-conflict

question

Reframing a conflict

answer

Thinking of conflict as a game if you traditionally think of it as a battle.

question

In her diary study, communication scientist Sandra Metts found that almost half of people's deception attempts involved this form of deception:

answer

Falsification

question

answer

Hector and felix are not engaged in conflict bc conflict much be expressed

question

Othello

answer

A listener is so suspicious that he or she doubts someone else's truthful statement.

question

What is meant by the phrase "deception can serve as a social lubricant?"

answer

People commonly engage in deception to avoid hurting others' feelings.

question

Research shows that three issues top the list as sources of conflict in romantic relationships. Which of the following is NOT among them?

answer

Relationships with in-laws

STUDY

Conflict Theory

Nurs 343 Ch. 34 – Flashcards 49 terms

David Dunn

49 terms

Preview

Nurs 343 Ch. 34 – Flashcards

question

Conflict

answer

a disagreement between two or more people or groups

question

Closed group

answer

a group in which membership is restricted: no new members are added when others leave.

question

Catharsis

answer

intense feelings, as judged by the member, are shared.

question

Feedback

answer

letting group members know how they affect each other.

question

Group

answer

two or more people who come together for the purpose of pursuing common goals and/or interests.

question

Group Content

answer

all that is said in the group.

question

Group Norms

answer

expectations for behavior in the group that develop overtime and provide structure for members (e.g. starting on time, not interrupting)

question

Group Process

answer

the dynamics of interaction among the members (e.g. who talks to whom, facial expressions and body language)

question

Group Psychotherapy

answer

a specialized treatment intervention in which a trained leader establishes a group for the purpose of treating patients with psychiatric disorders.

question

Group Themes

answer

members' expressed ideas or feelings that recur and have a common thread.

question

Group Work

answer

a method whereby individuals with a common purpose come together and benefit by both giving a receiving feedback with the dynamic and unique context of group life.

question

Open Groups

answer

a group in which new members are added as others leave.

question

Psycho-educational Groups

answer

groups set up to increase knowledge or skills about a specific somatic or psychological subject and allow members to communicate emotional concerns.

question

Support Groups/Self-help groups

answer

structured for the purpose of providing patients with the opportunity to maintain or enhance personal and social functioning through cooperation and shared understanding of life's changes.

question

Therapeutic factor

answer

aspects of the group experience that leaders and members have identified as facilitating therapeutic change.

question

Characteristics of groups

answer

Size Defined purpose Degree of similarity of members Rules Boundaries Climate Apparent content

question

Advantages of group therapy

answer

Cost effective for more clients Members feel less isolated Members receive peer feedback Groups teach more problem solving approaches Members learn about functional roles in groups

question

Disadvantages to groups

answer

Privacy can be compromised Some clients cannot share intimate feelings or thoughts in a group Some members may not feel that they are receiving attention if another member is more active

question

Exclusion from groups

answer

Acutely psychotic or manic Those who are cognitively impaired with dementia or intoxicated.

question

Phases of group development

answer

1. Initial 2. Working 3. Mature 4. Termination

question

3 styles of group leadership

answer

Autocratic Democratic Laissez-faire

question

Therapeutic factors common to all groups

answer

Universality-one is not alone in one's situation Instillation of hope Imparting information Altruism Corrective recapitulation Developing social skills Imitative behavior Interpersonal learning Group cohesiveness Catharsis Existential factors

question

Interpersonal learning after trust is established

answer

Group cohesiveness Catharsis Existential resolution-learn to accept painful aspects of life

question

Challenging client behaviors

answer

The monopolizer The complainer who refuses help The demoralizer The silent client

question

The nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient would not be appropriate to consider for group therapy? The patient who: 1. has limited financial resources. 2. is acutely manic. 3. has few friends on the unit. 4. does not speak up often, yet listens to others.

answer

is acutely manic.

question

The nurse tells group members that they will be working on expressing conflicts during the current group session. Which phase of group development is represented? 1. Formation phase 2. Orientation phase 3. Working phase 4. Termination phase

answer

Working phase

question

Group members are having difficulty deciding what topic to cover in today's session. Which nurse leader response reflects autocratic leadership? 1. "We are talking about fear of rejection today." 2. "Let's go around the room and make suggestions for today's topic." 3. "I will let you come to a conclusion together about what to talk about." 4. "I'll work with you to find a suitable topic for today."

answer

"We are talking about fear of rejection today."

question

The nurse is planning care which will include a dual-diagnosis group. Which patient would be appropriate for this group? The patient with: 1. depression and suicidal tendencies. 2. anxiety and frequent migraine headaches. 3. bipolar disorder and anorexia nervosa. 4. schizophrenia and alcohol abuse.

answer

schizophrenia and alcohol abuse.

question

A patient continues to dominate the group conversation despite having been asked to allow others to speak. What is the most appropriate nursing response? 1. "You are monopolizing the conversation." 2. "When you talk constantly, it makes everyone feel angry." 3. "You are supposed to allow others to talk also." 4. "When you speak out of turn, I feel concerned that others cannot participate equally."

answer

"When you speak out of turn, I feel concerned that others cannot participate equally."

question

The phase of group therapy in which the group deals with feelings associated with separation and loss is A. orientation. B. working. C. termination. D. post-termination.

answer

termination.

question

When a group member supports and encourages another group member and thus feels 'good' about doing so, the group phenomenon at work is A. altruism. B. ventilation. C. universality. D. group acceptance.

answer

altruism.

question

A client has recently been treated for prostate cancer. The nurse suggests that talking with others who have had similar problems might be helpful. The type of group most useful to the client would be A. a cognitive-behavioral group. B. a time-limited group. C. a support group. D. a milieu group.

answer

a support group.

question

The group goals are to learn to express feelings comfortably rather than keep them covert. S, a group member, let's the group know how expressing these feelings makes her feel. This dynamic is called A. group content. B. confrontation. C. subgrouping. D. feedback.

answer

feedback.

question

A democratic group leadership style is most appropriate for a group: A. that meets for 30 minutes to discuss unit rules B. focused on creating meaningful trauma-related artwork C. psychotherapy group directed towards anger management D. that is responsible for organizing the unit holiday celebration

answer

psychotherapy group directed towards anger management

question

The nurse reading a group protocol notes that it is a closed group and understands that A. discussion topics will be restricted. B. membership is limited to one sex. C. no new members are added. D. the group is cohesive.

answer

no new members are added.

question

The phase most influenced and managed by the group leader is: A. orientation B. working C. termination D. post termination

answer

orientation

question

Self-help and support groups are least influenced by the premise that A. professional leadership is inappropriately expensive for treatment of minor problems. B. people who have had a particular problem can help others with the same problem. C. promotion of dialogue, self-disclosure, and encouragement can produce change in members. D. Self-help and support groups are designed to serve people with a common problem.

answer

professional leadership is inappropriately expensive for treatment of minor problems.

question

At what point in the life of a group lasting 12 sessions should confidentiality be explained and discussed? A. At the first session B. During session 4, as the working phase begins C. During session 12, as the group terminates D. At the time each client is interviewed so as not to waste group time

answer

At the first session

question

A treatment group that a novice psychiatric nurse is likely to be assigned to lead is: A. group psychotherapy B. medication education C. dialextical behavior treatment D. art therapy group

answer

medication education

question

At what phase of group development would the nurse hear the following interchange? Client 1: "I do not feel comfortable here." Client 2: "I wonder what we are supposed to talk about." Client 3: "Let's ask the leader to explain things again." A. Preorientation B. Orientation C. Working D. Termination

answer

Orientation

question

K tells the group "I think the committee saw how unsure of myself I am. I felt all shaky inside during the promotion interview, just like I am feeling and acting right now." To present reality the leader should A. remain silent and nod slightly to signal that K should continue. B. say "K, tell us more about how you are feeling." C. ask "Does this shaky feeling occur often?" D. ask the group to give K feedback about how he appears to them.

answer

ask the group to give K feedback about how he appears to them.

question

M tells the group "I have so many problems in my life that it is hard to know where to begin." The leader suggests "Choose the problem that is troubling you most at this time and tell us about it." The leader is promoting A. insight. B. focusing. C. reframing. D. feedback.

answer

focusing

question

C had planned to bring up the topic of his angry feelings toward his brother at the group meeting. However, M seemed distraught and on the verge of tears. C noticed M's distress and said "It looks as though you need the floor to tell us what is so upsetting to you." C's action can be assessed as showing A. reality testing. B. universality. C. ventilation. D. altruism.

answer

altruism.

question

A, B, and C always sit together during the group meetings. They are seen to look at one another and nod or smirk as others are talking. Whenever one of them expresses an opinion the others are quick to support the opinion. The leader can assess this behavior as A. altruistic. B. universality. C. subgrouping. D. contingency seeking.

answer

subgrouping.

question

During group, D tells of the pain she experienced when her child was killed in an automobile accident. F mentions that she, too, experienced the pain of losing a child in an accidental drowning. F comments on the fact that the pain lessens over time, even though in the beginning one cannot believe it will. Sharing similar experiences is a curative factor identified by Yalom as A. universality. B. ventilation. C. reenactment. D. recapitulation.

answer

universality.

question

A nurse is the leader for a medication group for bipolar clients. The group is 5 weeks in length. No new clients will be added as the group progresses. The group is A. open. B. homogeneous. C. heterogeneous D. closed.

answer

closed.

question

A key quality indicator that might be identified for successful outcome in a medication education group could be clients will A. state they liked the leader. B. demonstrate a bond between members of the group. C. describe modes of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases. D. confer with health care provider before changing medication regimen.

answer

confer with health care provider before changing medication regimen.

question

The nurse leader of a cognitive therapy group for persons with dysphasia would use the technique of A. negative reinforcement. B. conflict suppression. C. clarification. D. flooding to desensitize a client to anxiety.

answer

clarification.

question

P has been a member of the therapy group for 4 weeks and has said nothing during the sessions. A strategy the leader may use to encourage him to speak during a session is A. "P, you are letting the group down when you fail to contribute." B. "P, what do you have to say about what just happened?" C. "By now, P, you must be feeling safe enough to enter the discussion." D. "What are you thinking, P?"

answer

"What are you thinking, P?"

STUDY

Abnormal Psychology AP Psychology Conflict Theory Mirror Image Perceptions Psychology

Flashcards and Answers – Social Psychology Final 265 terms

Shelby Arnold

265 terms

Preview

Flashcards and Answers – Social Psychology Final

question

Conflict is defined as: a) perceived incompatibility of actions or goals. b) dissatisfaction with relationship outcomes. c) hostility that results from frustrating interaction

answer

question

The occurrence of conflict in any relationship A. is usually a sign of lack of motivation. B. can stimulate improved human relations. C. is a necessary evil of human interaction. D. necessarily signifies an incompatibility of goals.

answer

question

The outcome of creatively managed conflict is A. satisfaction. B. peace. C. accord. D. compliance.

answer

question

Peace is defined as A. surface calmness. B. the suppression of open conflict. C. the absence of conflict. D. the outcome of creatively managed conflict.

answer

question

Christina and Massimo have been saving money since they got married. Now Massimo wants to buy a new car, but Christina wants to continue saving for a new house. Massimo and Christina A. are experiencing conflict. B. are experiencing dissonance. C. have mirror-image perceptions. D. are developing superordinate goals.

answer

question

Pursuing one's self-interest to the collective detriment of one's community or society is the central pattern in A. mirror-image perception. B. the jigsaw problem. C. perceived injustice. D. a social dilemma.

answer

question

Some individuals have many children so that they can ensure someone will take care of them in the future. However, this contributes to the collective devastation of overpopulation. This is an example of A. mirror-image perception. B. the jigsaw problem. C. perceived injustice. D. a social dilemma.

answer

question

In the Prisoner's Dilemma, if both prisoners confess, each will get a _______; if neither confesses, each will _______. A. moderate sentence; get a light sentence B. severe sentence; get a light sentence C. severe sentence; go free D. moderate sentence; get a severe sentence

answer

question

In playing the laboratory version of the Prisoner's Dilemma, you would personally obtain the best payoff on any given trial if you _______ and the other person _______. A. confess; does not confess B. confess; confesses C. do not confess; confesses D. do not confess; does not confess

answer

question

If an attorney creates a Prisoner-like Dilemma for two suspects, the attorney's goal is to A. trick either one of them into revealing what really happened. B. create an incentive for one of them to confess while the other maintains innocence. C. create an incentive for both of them to confess privately. D. achieve the greatest punishment for both suspects.

answer

question

In small groups - as opposed to large ones - individuals are A. more likely to take more than their equal share. B. less anonymous and thus less cooperative. C. less likely to take more than their equal share. D. more open about their conflicts.

answer

question

Which of the following is NOT an effect of rules and regulations in modern societies? A. safeguards on our common good B. reduction in social dilemmas C. diminished personal freedom D. increased personal freedom

answer

question

When individuals consume more than their share, and the cost of doing so is dispersed among all, the result is called A. greed. B. environmental devastation. C. overconsumption. D. the tragedy of the commons.

answer

question

In the tragedy of the commons, the "commons" refers to A. disputed border territory. B. stolen goods or winnings. C. any jointly used, finite resource. D. private property that repeatedly changes ownership.

answer

question

In real life, which of the following parallels the tragedy of the commons? A. pollution of rivers and streams B. gun control C. the death penalty D. online auctions

answer

question

Despite official government warnings of a severe water shortage, most citizens fail to conserve in the belief that their personal water consumption will have little effect on the community's total water supply. The eventual depletion of the community's water resources provides an example of A. mirror-image perceptions. B. individualistic calamity. C. the tragedy of the commons. D. rational disaster.

answer

question

Sato (1987) gave Japanese students opportunities to harvest trees in a simulated forest for money. When the students equally shared the costs of planting the forest, the result was that A. most of the trees were left to grow too tall for harvesting because the students bickered about the criterion to be used in sharing profits. B. most of the trees were harvested before they had grown to the most profitable size. C. none of the trees were harvested because the collectivist students did not want to be the first to ask for his or her share. D. students made maximum profit not only for themselves individually but for the group.

answer

question

Facing the recurring dilemma of cookie-jar depletion within 24-hours of its being re-stocked, Mom and Dad decide to do something. What strategy will be most effective? A. Do not allow family members to talk to one another about how many cookies they eat. B. Restrict each family member to just two cookies per day. C. Stop buying cookies. D. Call a family meeting and scold everyone for eating too many cookies.

answer

question

In the commons dilemma, people often consume more than they realize when A. others take on a cooperative strategy. B. resources are not partitioned. C. the "commons" is divided into equal parts. D. everyone cooperates.

answer

question

Consistent with what is known about how the common's dilemma operates, people are most likely to take a disproportionate share of food when the A. cookie jar is filled every week. B. cookie jar is not filled every week. C. food is a bowl of mashed potatoes being passed around. D. food is a platter of ten chicken wings that are being passed around.

answer

question

Which of the following is NOT a feature shared by both the Prisoner's Dilemma and the Commons Dilemma? A. One party's wins necessarily equals the other party's losses. B. Participants tend to commit the fundamental attribution error. C. Participants' motives change in the course of the entrapment. D. Both are non-zero-sum games.

answer

question

Attempting to explain one's own behavior situationally is a characteristic of A. the Prisoner's Dilemma. B. the Commons Dilemma. C. both dilemmas. D. neither dilemma.

answer

question

Attempting to explain other's behavior dispositionally is a characteristic of A. the Prisoner's Dilemma. B. the Commons Dilemma. C. both dilemmas. D. neither dilemma.

answer

question

In both the Prisoner's Dilemma and the Commons Dilemma, people are tempted to explain their own behavior _______ and others' behavior _______. A. situationally; situationally B. dispositionally; dispositionally C. situationally; dispositionally D. dispositionally; situationally

answer

question

Which one of the following is an example of a non-zero-sum game? A. the Prisoner's Dilemma B. the Commons Dilemma C. both the Prisoner's and the Commons Dilemmas D. neither the Prisoner's nor the Commons Dilemmas

answer

question

In a non-zero-sum game A. both can win and both can lose. B. one side wins and the other loses. C. one's gains equal another's losses. D. altruistic motives dominate.

answer

question

In Sherif's research, the camper groups became hostile towards each other when A. they learned of the other group's existence. B. the two groups first met. C. when competition between the groups was introduced. D. when competition between the groups ended.

answer

question

A common excuse for noncooperation is A. "I couldn't have made a difference anyway." B. "The devil made me do it." C. "That's unfair." D. "Cooperation is for the weak and cowardly."

answer

question

The smaller the commons, the more A. responsibility each person feels for it. B. intense the conflict among individual members. C. apathetic people are about its preservation. D. the more likely communication will take the form of intimidation and deception.

answer

question

The relationship between the size of a commons and a person's feeling of responsibility for it is A. positive. B. negative. C. neutral. D. curvilinear.

answer

question

Research on laboratory dilemmas reveals that cooperation is facilitated if A. one person is 100% cooperative. B. the opponents can communicate with one another. C. the game is changed into a zero-sum game. D. the size of the payoffs is increased.

answer

question

In research on social dilemmas, it has been found that group discussion A. polarized competitive tendencies. B. had no effect on the outcome. C. led to greater cooperation and better outcomes for all participants. D. led to escalated conflict and tension.

answer

question

Which of the following is cited in the text as an example of changing payoffs to resolve social dilemmas? A. allowing carpoolers to drive in the faster, freeway lane B. requiring carpool cars and vans to park in special, larger parking lots farther away from the office building C. lowering the price of gasoline well below $1 per gallon D. raising the price of gasoline well above $5 per gallon

answer

question

According to research, it seems that just knowing about the dire consequences of noncooperation in a social dilemma A. is sufficient to convince people to behave cooperatively. B. leads to greater mistrust of others. C. tends to foster greater self-interest and competition. D. has little real effect on people's behavior.

answer

question

At the beginning of 2000, people were aware that global warming was already occurring, yet they were also buying gas-slurping SUVs in record numbers. This is an example of A. greed. B. overconsumption. C. how knowing good does not always lead to doing good. D. how important status is to so many people.

answer

question

Which of the following is cited in the text as a method for resolving social dilemmas? A. communication B. punishment C. increasing group size D. competition

answer

question

Which of the following is NOT cited in the text as a method for resolving social dilemmas? A. regulation B. making the group smaller C. communication D. competition

answer

question

Mio (1993) and her colleagues found that after reading about the commons dilemma, theater patrons A. littered less. B. demanded reserved seats. C. were more likely to assist a handicapped person find a seat. D. spent more on theater refreshments.

answer

question

As Sherif noted, despite the fact that the behavior of the boys in the warring camps seemed "wicked, disturbed, and vicious," what actually triggered their evil behavior was A. their leaders' modeling of aggression. B. their delinquent backgrounds. C. their ethnic identities. D. an evil situation.

answer

question

Esses and his colleagues (2004) found that competition breeds conflict when A. people perceive that resources are limited and available on a non-zero-sum basis. B. there is no distinct outgroup. C. the ingroup is dominant. D. communication is facilitated.

answer

question

Equity exists when A. rewards are distributed in proportion to individuals' contributions. B. partners share equally in the rewards of collective effort. C. rewards are distributed in relation to individuals' needs or deservingness. D. group members decide among themselves how rewards should be distributed.

answer

question

Before they married, Melinda and Michael, who are both employed full time and collect the same pay, agreed to share equally in routine household tasks such as cleaning and grocery shopping. In reality, Melinda is now doing about 80% of the household work. This situation is an example of A. an integrative disaster. B. an inequitable relationship. C. a social dilemma. D. a zero-sum relationship.

answer

question

Rodney and Ralph are twin brothers who each contributed $75 to purchase a new bicycle. Rodney rides it 75% of the time. This would be an example of A. an inequitable relationship. B. the tragedy of the commons. C. a zero-sum relationship. D. mirror-image perceptions.

answer

question

What does your text refer to as the "golden rule" of social justice? A. "Equity for strangers, equality for friends." B. "An eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth." C. "Care most for those in greatest need." D. "Whoever has the gold makes the rules."

answer

question

Some noncapitalist cultures define justice not as equity but as A. equality. B. the fulfillment of a need. C. either equality or the fulfillment of a need. D. socialism.

answer

question

Knowing that one's group has over-benefited can trigger A. equality. B. devaluation of others' inputs. C. heightened competition. D. retaliation.

answer

question

Research on the equity theory reveals that the more competent and worthy people feel, and the more they value their inputs, the A. more they will feel under-benefited. B. more they will feel rewarded equitably. C. more competition they will feel. D. higher the likelihood of misperception.

answer

question

One potential way to prevent conflict is to A. avoid making excess regulations. B. avoid over-communication. C. reduce excess resources. D. keep groups small.

answer

question

Which one of the following is NOT one of the seeds of misperception according to your text? A. the self-serving bias B. reduced competition C. the fundamental attribution error D. groupthink

answer

question

What do self-serving biases, group polarization, and negative stereotypes have in common? A. They illustrate the power of the situation. B. They are potential seeds of misperception. C. They illustrate that we are cognitive misers. D. They negate conflict.

answer

question

According to Staub and Bar-Tal (2003) all of the following are characteristics of a group in intractable conflict EXCEPT the group that A. views its own goals as supremely important. B. believes itself victimized. C. takes pride in "us" and intensely devalues "them." D. attributes similar characteristics to the other group.

answer

question

The misperceptions of those who are in conflict with each other, such as two nations who regard each other with suspicion and hostility, are usually A. nonreciprocal. B. unilateral. C. mutual. D. inequitable.

answer

question

The reciprocal views that parties in conflict often hold of one another are referred to as A. mirror-image perceptions. B. stereotypic reciprocation. C. complementary images. D. reciprocal illusions.

answer

question

The Republic of Fredonia believes its long-time enemy, the kingdom of Franistan, is aggressive, greedy, and impulsive. On the other hand, Franistan believes Fredonia is hostile, selfish, and unpredictable. This is an example of A. an inequitable relationship. B. a zero-sum relationship. C. mirror-image perceptions. D. reciprocal illusions.

answer

question

When two sides have clashing perceptions, at least one of them is misperceiving the other, and when that is the case, according to Bronfenbrenner (1960), "It is characteristic of such images that they are _______." A. self-defeating B. self-confirming C. self-handicapping D. self-monitoring

answer

question

Ralph White reviewed ten wars from the last century and reported that each was marked by at least one misperception. Which of the following was NOT on this list? A. underestimating the enemy's strength B. overestimating the leaders' power C. demonizing the enemy D. rationalizing one's own motives

answer

question

When Bush called Iraq "evil" in the buildup to the invasion, he was making which common misperception? A. underestimating the strength of one's enemy B. demonizing the enemy C. rationalizing one's own motives D. blaming the wrong people

answer

question

John believes that he is hardworking and that his wife Rachel is lazy. Rachel believes that she is hardworking and that John is lazy. This is an example of A. an inequitable relationship. B. mirror-image perception. C. a superordinate goal. D. a social trap.

answer

question

In a study by executives who were asked to describe a recent conflict, Thomas and Pondy (1977) found that 12% described the opposing party as _______ and 74% perceived themselves as _______. A. cooperative; cooperative B. intelligent; intelligent C. cooperative; competitive D. rational; competent

answer

question

In times of tension, such as during an international crisis, A. views of the opposing side become more simplistic. B. political statements acknowledge that each country's motives are complex. C. judgments about action are prolonged and postponed by time-consuming reevaluations. D. tendencies toward groupthink are weakened.

answer

question

One aspect of mirror-image perception is that one side tends to A. exaggerate their differences from their adversaries. B. see itself reflected in the way others see it. C. see the situation as the reflection of an evil situation. D. agree with the other side.

answer

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the four C's of peacemaking identified in the text? A. contact B. correction C. conciliation D. communication

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question

For Blacks, the most noticeable consequence of desegregated schooling is A. very short-term improvements of interracial relations. B. a reduced likelihood of attending primarily White colleges. C. the increased likelihood of living and working in integrated settings. D. a more favorable self-image.

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Surveys of nearly 4000 Europeans revealed that an important factor in determining whether attitudes toward a minority group will become more favorable is whether A. one has a friend who is a member of that minority group. B. the minority group tends to be submissive. C. the minority group has a history of significant accomplishment. D. the language of the minority group can be easily mastered.

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In order for contact between opposing racial groups to reduce conflict, the contact must A. occur in a zero-sum context. B. be structured to confer equal status on both races. C. temporarily award superior status to the minority group. D. be mediated by a third party.

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Gurin and her colleagues (2002) found that informal interactions enabled by ethnic diversity in college classrooms A. increase perceptions of differences among ethnic groups. B. tend to foster greater acceptance of differences among ethnic groups. C. have little effect on perceptions of differences among ethnic groups. D. tend to foster more negative perceptions of other ethnic groups.

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The U.S. Supreme Court's 2003 decision that racial diversity may be a criterion in admissions to colleges and universities was A. the result of counter-prejudice. B. the result of negative stereotypes. C. based on research findings that revealed that racial diversity in the classroom has positive consequences. D. based on research findings that revealed that minorities excel in diverse groups.

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Approval of President Bush's performance after September 11th, 2001 A. increased. B. decreased. C. stabilized. D. was unaffected.

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The fact that 51% of Americans approved of President Bush's performance on September 10th, 2001, and 90% of Americans approved of President Bush's performance on September 11th, 2001 is an example of A. cooperation. B. cohesiveness as a result of a common external threat. C. justification for poor performance. D. heightened paranoia.

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A goal that overrides people's differences from one another is called a(n) A. superior goal. B. superordinate goal. C. ingroup goal. D. independent goal.

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Through the use of _______, Muzafer Sherif made enemies into friends. A. contact B. superordinate goals C. bargaining D. conciliation

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Which of the following best illustrates a superordinate goal? A. A college student who has been failing English gets an "A" on a paper. B. A woman beats her husband at tennis. C. Apartment dwellers install a television antenna they can all use. D. An obese person loses 20 pounds in two weeks.

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After their town was ravaged by a disastrous tornado, two rival community groups set aside their differences and worked together on repairing the damage. This cooperation best illustrates the importance of A. mediation. B. the GRIT strategy. C. superordinate goals. D. the jigsaw technique.

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According to Slavin (2003), a "practical, proven method for implementing contact theory in the desegregated classroom," is A. academic competitions between different schools. B. after-school classes on race relations. C. peer support groups. D. cooperative learning.

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Aronson's jigsaw technique involved having elementary school children A. study in small, racially mixed teams and then compete with other teams in a class tournament. B. form academically and racially diverse groups with each member of the group becoming an expert in one area. C. role-play being members of another race for two-week periods. D. take turns telling each other about their family backgrounds in small-group discussions.

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By emphasizing the contribution Jackie Robinson might make to the Brooklyn Dodgers' winning the 1947 pennant, Branch Rickey used _______ to reduce racial prejudice and conflict among team members. A. a superordinate goal B. an integrative agreement C. arbitration D. the GRIT strategy

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According to Phinney (1990), someone who identifies with both his or her ethnic culture and the larger culture is said to have a _______ identity. A. schizophrenic B. cultural C. bicultural D. subcultural

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Triandis (1994) reported that _______ immigrants felt more comfortable identifying with their ethnicity than _______ immigrants. A. grandchildren of; second-generation B. second-generation; grandchildren of C. European; Asian D. Asian; European

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_______ occurs when conflicted parties seek an agreement through direct negotiation. A. Bargaining B. Amelioration C. Mediation D. Arbitration

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_______ occurs when a neutral third party attempts to facilitate communication and offer suggestions for how to resolve a conflict. A. Bargaining B. Amelioration C. Mediation D. Arbitration

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_______ occurs when a neutral third party studies a conflict and imposes a settlement. A. Bargaining B. Amelioration C. Mediation D. Arbitration

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Motto and Yoko are roommates and are experiencing a conflict about what type of cable television service is within their budget. They negotiate by having Yoko, who wanted a more expensive service, pay the remainder of the bill after both of them have paid for half of the cost of the less expensive service. What form of communication did Motto and Yoko use to resolve their conflict? A. bargaining B. amelioration C. mediation D. arbitration

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Vivian and Pearl, who have been a couple for many years, are having a conflict they have been unable to resolve, so they make an appointment with a counselor. The counselor helps facilitate communication between Vivian and Pearl, and offers suggestions for dealing with future conflicts. What form of communication have they used to resolve their conflict? A. bargaining B. amelioration C. mediation D. arbitration

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A mediator seeks to achieve a mutually beneficial resolution by having the parties adopt a _______ orientation. A. carefree B. win-lose C. win-win D. submissive

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Mediators seek to establish _______ agreements that reconcile both parties' interests to their mutual benefit. A. arbitrated B. integrative C. mirror-image D. zero-sum

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Ahmed and Fatima, two teenage siblings, are fighting over the evening newspaper. Knowing Ahmed only wants the sports section and Fatima only wants the latest stock quotations, their mother takes the paper and gives each the section containing the news of interest. In this case the mother arrived at a(n) A. mutual compromise. B. cooperative settlement. C. enlightened consensus. D. integrative agreement.

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According to conflict researchers, you are more likely to divulge your needs and concerns if your relationship with your partner includes A. mediation. B. trust. C. passion. D. the threat of withdrawal.

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David and Julie fought over what to name their new puppy, until finally they went to their children for a decision. David and Julie relied on _______ to resolve their conflict. A. mediation B. bargaining C. conciliation D. arbitration

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Factory workers want a pay rate of $15 per hour and management offers $12 per hour. After weeks of conflict, they agree to have a third party set the pay scale. After hearing both sides, the third party sets the rate at $14. This is an example of resolving conflict through A. bargaining. B. arbitration. C. mediation. D. conciliation.

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Osgood's (1980) GRIT strategy is an alternative that best fits into the _______ category of the "four C's of peacemaking." A. contact B. conciliation C. communication D. correction

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Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in Osgood's (1980) GRIT strategy? A. Build up first-strike capability to negotiate from a position of strength. B. Announce your conciliatory intent. C. Carry out several verifiable conciliatory acts. D. Maintain retaliatory capability.

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Disputing groups usually prefer to settle their differences A. with arbitration. B. without mediation. C. without arbitration. D. without bargaining.

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Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic that conflict expert Deutsch (1993) advises negotiators to exhibit? A. fairness B. firmness C. friendliness D. sympathy

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The communitarian synthesis emphasizes A. individualist values. B. collectivist values. C. both individualist and collectivist values. D. neither individualist nor collectivist values.

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The study, assessment, and treatment of people with psychological difficulties is known as A. developmental psychology. B. comparative psychology. C. social psychology. D. clinical psychology.

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Chapman and Chapman had college students and professional clinicians study the relationship between patients' test performances and diagnoses. They found that A. if students or clinicians expected a particular association, they perceived it, regardless of whether the data was supportive. B. students and clinicians only saw relationships that were supported by the data. C. professional clinicians were more accurate than students in assessing relationships. D. students and clinicians only recognized positive relationships if the actual correlations were greater than 0.75.

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Myers suggests that clinicians may continue to have confidence in uninformative or ambiguous tests because of human susceptibility to A. the inoculation effect. B. learned helplessness. C. the representativeness heuristic. D. illusory correlations.

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Following the suicide of a friend or family member, feelings of guilt are often magnified by A. illusory thinking. B. the fundamental attribution error. C. hindsight bias. D. confirmation bias.

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When psychologists were surveyed regarding intuition versus the scientific method, _______ were more likely to value intuition. A. clinical psychologists B. developmental psychologists C. social psychologists D. educational psychologists

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Rosenhan and his colleagues (1973) faked schizophrenic symptoms to infiltrate mental hospitals. Once they had been admitted and no longer complained of any fake symptoms, A. professional clinicians quickly distinguished them from the real patients and released them from the hospital. B. the clinicians sought and found evidence in their histories and behavior to confirm their admitting diagnoses. C. the pseudo-patients were ostracized by the hospital's real patients. D. the pseudo-patients absorbed their "sick" roles and developed additional symptoms in the course of their treatment.

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In Rosenhan's study (1973), clinicians who dealt with pseudo-patients who had faked symptoms to get into mental hospitals demonstrated the error of A. self-serving bias. B. hindsight bias. C. self-handicapping. D. overjustification.

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Luisa, a Freudian analyst, found that, without exception, her patients reported having dreams closely related to their emotional problems. What may best explain why the dreams and problems of Luisa's patients are so consistent with Freudian theory? A. Freud's theory is the oldest and most comprehensive of all the theories of personality. B. Freud's theory is more ambiguous than any other theory, and thus any problem fits into its framework. C. The patients are perhaps induced by Luisa to give information that is consistent with her theoretical orientation. D. Freudian psychotherapists are "true believers," and Luisa's report is an attempt to convert other therapists to her orientation.

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Snyder and Swann (1984) gave interviewers some hypotheses to test concerning individuals' traits, and found that people often tested for a trait by A. asking those being tested for a general self-evaluation. B. looking for information that would contradict it. C. looking for information that would confirm it. D. asking very specific questions to disprove it.

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April is going out on a first date with Nikos, whom her best friend says is funny and fun-loving. On the date, April asks Nikos, "What is the most fun-loving thing you've ever done?" What is the likely effect of such questioning on Nikos? A. He will act more fun-loving on the date than if not asked such questions. B. He will act more reserved and shy than if not asked such questions. C. He will resent such questions and become annoyed. D. He will try to explain that there are times when he is not fun-loving.

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Research indicates that when interviewers are instructed to test for a trait, they tend to ask questions that show evidence of A. the confirmation bias. B. the illusion of control. C. negative attributional styles. D. illusory correlations.

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When Rosenham and his research associates (1973) reported to mental hospital admissions offices that they were "hearing voices," most were A. diagnosed with schizophrenia and hospitalized for two to three weeks. B. not diagnosed with a mental illness, since they were in fact normal. C. diagnosed with schizophrenia initially but never hospitalized. D. diagnosed with schizophrenia initially, hospitalized, but then released after testing revealed that they were normal.

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Freudian therapists who expect to find evidence of early childhood traumas are likely to uncover such experiences among A. clients who are males. B. clients who are real victims of childhood sex abuse. C. clients who are healthy, successful adults. D. all clients.

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When researchers pit statistical prediction—such as predicting graduate school success using a formula that includes grades and aptitude scores—against interviewers' intuitive prediction, A. statistical prediction is usually superior to expert intuition. B. expert intuition is usually superior to statistical intuition. C. statistical prediction and expert intuition do equally well. D. both methods usually fare no better than chance.

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Myers suggests that we avoid the confirmation bias by A. looking for illusory correlations. B. carefully monitoring the information that is consistent with our ideas. C. considering opposing ideas and then testing them. D. discarding opposing ideas that have not been tested.

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Myers points out that hindsight can A. lead you to feel overconfident. B. lead you to judge yourself too harshly for not having foreseen outcomes. C. lead to both overconfidence and the tendency to judge yourself too harshly. D. be very helpful in developing hypotheses about personality traits.

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Research suggests that the prediction of someone's future academic success is best when the prediction is based on A. statistics. B. the judgments of trained admissions officers. C. statistics plus the judgments of trained admissions officers. D. letters of recommendation.

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According to the text, professional clinicians are NOT LIKELY to A. be the victims of illusory correlation. B. suffer from confirmation bias. C. consider opposing ideas and test them. D. overestimate their clinical intuition.

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According to the text, an important implication of the research on illusory thinking is that A. intuition has no legitimate place in the field of science. B. the scientific method is the only legitimate way to answer significant human questions. C. research psychologists must test their preconceptions before presenting them as truth. D. conventional wisdom is almost always wrong.

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Myers suggests that the pervasiveness of illusory thinking points to the need for a _______ study of thought and behavior. A. psychohistorical B. literary C. scientific D. humanistic

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Alloy and Abramson (1979) had depressed and nondepressed students observe whether pressing a button was linked with a light blinking and found that depressed students A. were too self-focused to complete the task. B. were quite accurate at assessing their control. C. exaggerated the extent of their control of the light. D. underestimated the extent of their control of the light.

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The work of Alloy and Abramson (1979) examined how depressed individuals view the extent of their personal control over events. Their results provided evidence of the phenomenon known as A. optimistic well-being. B. pessimistic exaggeration. C. depressive realism. D. learned helplessness.

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The tendency of mildly depressed people to make accurate rather than self-serving judgments is referred to as A. the accurate explanatory style. B. the Barnum effect. C. realistic pessimism. D. depressive realism.

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Yvonne, a college senior, is mildly depressed. Asked to describe herself, she notes both her positive and negative qualities. She recalls both past successes and failures and takes personal responsibility for both. Yvonne clearly illustrates the _______ effect. A. rose-colored-glasses B. sadder-but-wiser C. head-in-the-clouds D. feet-on-the-ground

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Vanessa is a mildly depressed college student. Considering the research findings presented in the text on depression, she probably A. suffers from the better-than-average phenomenon. B. assumes that her behavior is well-accepted by others. C. demonstrates the sadder-but-wiser effect. D. is below average in intelligence.

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Compared to depressed people, non-depressed people A. exaggerate their control of events around them. B. have realistic perceptions of the good and bad things that the future holds. C. readily accept responsibility for both successes and failures. D. describe themselves with a fairly even mix of positive and negative qualities.

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"Explanatory style" refers to A. the complexity of one's persuasive arguments. B. one's habitual way of explaining life events. C. the pitch and speed with which one communicates. D. whether one relies primarily on reason or emotion when debating an issue.

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Explaining life events in terms of factors that are stable, global, and internal is a _______ explanatory style. A. negative B. positive C. realistic D. repressive

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Who is more likely to exhibit a negative explanatory style? A. a teenager B. a non-depressed person C. an elderly person D. a depressed person

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Maxwell, a college junior, suffers from chronic depression. After learning that he has performed poorly on his chemistry test, he is most likely to say, A. "The test was not a fair assessment of what I actually know." B. "My chemistry professor does not grade his tests fairly." C. "I'm incompetent and probably always will be." D. "I am sure most people did poorly on the test."

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Which of the following attributions regarding a failure or a setback illustrates the global quality of a depressed person's explanatory style? A. "It's my fault." B. "It's going to last forever." C. "It's going to affect everything I do." D. "It's the same with everybody."

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Which of the following best illustrates an internal attribution for a failure or setback? A. "I'll never succeed." B. "This ruins everything." C. "It's my fault." D. "The whole world is against me."

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Which of the following does NOT belong? A. negative explanatory style B. external attribution C. global attribution D. stable attribution

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Which of the following attributions regarding a failure or setback illustrates the stable quality of a depressed person's explanatory style? A. "It's all my fault." B. "It's going to last forever." C. "The whole world is against me." D. "It's going to affect everything I do."

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Compared to nondepressed people, depressed people are more likely to attribute their failures and setbacks to causes that are A. unstable. B. specific. C. internal. D. situational.

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Strack and Coyne (1983) found that depressed people were realistic in thinking that other people A. possessed more accurate self-concepts than they did. B. did not appreciate their behavior. C. would welcome their friendship and trust. D. were less influenced by fear of social disapproval than they were.

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College students who have depressed roommates tend to become A. somewhat depressed themselves. B. more accepting of people suffering from psychological disorders. C. more optimistic about their own lives. D. more studious and committed to achieving academic success.

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Your roommate Joel is depressed. As a result, you will tend to become A. somewhat depressed yourself. B. more accepting of people suffering from psychological disorders. C. more optimistic about your own life. D. more studious and committed to achieving academic success.

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Giesler and her colleagues (1996) found that when given a choice whether to read a favorable or unfavorable assessment of their personality, depressed and high-self-esteem people made which choice? A. High-self-esteem individuals were more likely to choose the unfavorable assessment. B. Depressed individuals were more likely to choose the unfavorable assessment. C. Depressed individuals were more likely to choose the favorable assessment. D. Both groups were about 50/50 in choosing the favorable or unfavorable assessment.

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The vicious cycle of depression is usually triggered by negative experiences that lead directly to A. self-focused rumination and self-blame. B. depressed moods. C. further negative experiences. D. blaming others for the negative experiences.

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According to Lewinsohn and her colleagues (1985), which of the following does NOT belong in the vicious cycle of depression? A. self-focus B. self-blame C. depressed mood D. defensive pessimism

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Which of the following explains the relationship between depression and negative thinking? A. depressed moods cause negative thinking B. negative thinking causes depressed moods C. depression and negative thinking are unrelated in laboratory experiments D. depressed moods can cause negative thinking and negative thinking can cause depressed moods

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According to Seligman (2002), near-epidemic levels of depression in America today, ironically, can be blamed in part on the promotion of attitudes that say, A. "Everybody needs somebody sometime." B. "You can make it on your own." C. "You're nobody if nobody loves you." D. "Eat, drink, and be merry, for tomorrow we die."

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According to Seligman's (2002) analysis of the attitudes that promote near-epidemic levels of depression in America, most of us feel that, if we do not "make it" in today's world, we can blame A. our parents. B. the government. C. the alienation of the modern world. D. only ourselves.

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In comparison to those in Western cultures, depressed people in Japan are more likely to report feeling A. guilt and self-blame over personal failure. B. shame over letting down their family or co-workers. C. sad about social problems such as poverty and discrimination. D. hopeless and helpless.

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Loneliness is best described as a state created by the awareness that you A. are alone most of the time. B. have lost a significant relationship. C. have less numerous or meaningful social relationships than you desire. D. are not really respected even though you have many acquaintances.

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Larsen and her colleagues (1982) found that when beeped by an electronic pager at various times during a one week period and asked to record what they were doing and how they felt, _______ were most likely to report feeling lonely when alone. A. adolescents B. adults C. women D. men

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Chronically lonely people seem to have the same _______ as chronically depressed people. A. unrealistic vision of the future B. need to achieve perfection C. illusion of control D. negative explanatory style

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Chronically lonely people tend to blame _______ for their poor social relationships. A. their parents and early childhood experiences B. the uncaring attitudes of those presently around them C. themselves D. cultural patterns

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Which of the following statements about lonely people is FALSE? A. They perceive others in positive ways. B. They tend to be low in self-esteem. C. When talking with strangers, they spend more time talking about themselves and take less interest in the other person. D. They self-disclose quickly.

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According to the self-presentation theory, we will feel social anxiety when we are A. motivated to impress others but doubt our ability to do so. B. motivated and able to impress others, but they ignore us. C. in any circumstance in which we can be observed. D. depressed.

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Which of the following theories most clearly predicts that we will feel anxious when we are motivated to impress others but doubt our ability to do so? A. social learning theory B. self-presentation theory C. self-perception theory D. cognitive dissonance theory

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According to the text, shyness is a form of _______ characterized by self-consciousness and worrying about what others think. A. loneliness B. social anxiety C. depression D. social incompetence

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Shy people tend to A. make a good first impression. B. depersonalize social situations. C. become less well-liked over time. D. be self-conscious

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According to the text, labeling oneself as shy, depressed, or under the influence of alcohol can serve a(n) _______ function. A. anger-reducing B. self-handicapping C. concurrence-seeking D. group-identification

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Brodt and Zimbardo (1981) found that shy women who were bombarded with loud noise and told that it would leave them _______ were subsequently _______ when interacting with a handsome male. A. with a pounding heart; no longer so shy B. unaffected; no longer so shy C. with a pounding heart; even more shy D. unaffected; unaffected

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Brodt and Zimbardo (1981) found that shy women were no longer shy when they A. were provided an alternative explanation for their social anxiety. B. were provided alcohol before interacting with others. C. discovered that most people feel shy. D. were taught to blame their failures on circumstances beyond their control.

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Which of the following is an interdisciplinary field that integrates and applies behavioral and medical knowledge about health and disease? A. health psychology B. behavioral medicine C. applied psychology D. clinical psychology

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Psychology's contribution to the interdisciplinary field of behavioral medicine is A. clinical psychology. B. psychiatry. C. behavioral analysis. D. health psychology.

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Dr. Jones is a psychologist who specializes in the causes and control of stress. Dr. Jones is most likely a(n) _________ psychologist. A. consumer B. educational C. forensic D. health

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According to the text as well as research evidence, premenstrual syndrome (PMS) A. occurs in 6 out of 10 women. B. leads to premenstrual dysphoric disorder in 3 out of 10 women. C. has many characteristics of a socially constructed disorder. D. is a myth perpetuated by men.

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Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. People more often seek treatment if they believe their symptoms have a physical rather than a psychological cause. B. Women are more often sick. C. Women are more likely than men to visit a physician. D. Men use fewer prescription and nonprescription drugs.

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People are more likely to use sunscreen or get an HIV test when the message is A. framed attractively in terms of the potential gain in doing so. B. framed negatively. C. highly arousing. D. framed in terms of shared goals.

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Experiments that subject animals to mild but uncontrollable electric shocks have shown that such experiences A. directly cause diseases like cancer. B. lower the body's resistance to disease. C. strengthen the animals' capacity to deal with future stressors. D. lead to the animals becoming more aggressive in interacting with members of their own species.

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A growing body of evidence reveals that people who undergo highly stressful experiences become A. more resistant to low-level illnesses like colds and flu. B. more vulnerable to disease. C. less self-disclosing and more socially isolated. D. stronger and more socially skilled than less stressed people.

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Research has reported that newlywed couples who become angry while discussing problems A. experience catharsis and have better long-term relationships with their spouses. B. are subsequently more susceptible to problems of depression and loneliness. C. suffer more immune system suppression the next day. D. are more prone to develop colon cancer in the subsequent six months.

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A large Swedish study has found that, compared with unstressed workers, those with a history of workplace stress A. are better prepared to deal with stress in their family lives. B. tend to have a more pessimistic explanatory style. C. are at much greater risk of developing colon cancer. D. develop stronger immune defenses.

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Maggie wants advice on how to cope with the stress of a new job. She would be best advised to approach her new job with a sense of A. passive resignation. B. ambition and competitiveness. C. urgency and time-consciousness. D. optimism.

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Which of the following is NOT an example of one of the components of a pessimistic explanatory style? A. "This is all my fault." B. "I've learned my lesson." C. "This is going to ruin everything." D. "Things are going to be terrible from now on."

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Peterson and Seligman (1987) analyzed the press quotes of baseball Hall of Famers and found that those who routinely offered pessimistic explanations for bad events, like losing big games, were more likely to A. earn lower salaries. B. experience divorce. C. play aggressively. D. die at younger ages.

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Which of the following is an example of an optimistic explanatory style? A. "My fate is out of my hands." B. "Human life is fragile." C. "I usually expect the best." D. "I rarely count on good things happening to me."

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Research investigating the nature of the connection between explanatory style and health has shown that people who routinely use the pessimistic style A. are more likely to experience illness. B. boost the morale of others via a contrast effect. C. also tend to be impulsive and resistant to influence. D. complain more but do not get sick more frequently than optimists.

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According to the text, which of the following is a social-psychological principle that can be applied to the treatment of psychological difficulties? A. attitudes-follow-behavior B. we are cognitive misers C. acceptance breeds compliance D. behavior-follows-attitudes

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Which of the following is NOT a therapy that utilizes the "attitudes-follow-behavior" principle? A. assertiveness training B. rational-emotive therapy C. self-help groups D. psychoanalysis

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Both assertiveness training and rational-emotive therapy are cited in the text as examples of psychotherapeutic techniques that A. utilize social support to change behavior. B. utilize the attitudes-follow-behavior principle. C. encourage changes in explanatory style. D. use counter-conditioning strategies.

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Mendonca and Brehm (1983) found that overweight children were more likely to lose weight and keep it off after an eight-week program if they A. felt responsible for choosing their weight-loss program. B. were regularly monitored and penalized for breaking rules. C. were praised and rewarded for even minor weight loss. D. had been assigned to their "least preferred" treatment program

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Which statement is TRUE? A. A bad marriage is often less depressing to a woman than to a man. B. Single women are happier than married women. C. Marital happiness predicts overall happiness more than finances. D. Finances predict overall happiness more than marital happiness.

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Having shy or anxious people observe, then rehearse, then try out more assertive behaviors in real situations is called A. foot-in-the-door training. B. rational-emotive therapy. C. social skills training. D. explanatory style therapy.

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A study by Haemmerlie and Montgomery (1986) enticed shy college men to participate in laboratory exercises that would enhance their socially competence. The men A. were taught specific communication skills. B. took a short course on positive thinking. C. delivered self-laudatory speeches to strangers. D. had several successful conversations with women.

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Research by Haemmerlie and Montgomery (1986) supported the notion that social skills training can lead shy men to A. become dependent on their therapist. B. reduce their social anxiety. C. concentrate on their social incompetence. D. become more shy 6 months after treatment.

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Haemmerlie and Montgomery (1986) concluded that the success of their social skills training with shy men may have occurred because their program A. employed skilled counselors who took responsibility for inspiring the men to feel confident and competent. B. included no counseling, so the participants made internal attributions for their success. C. protected the men from having to participate in actual conversations until they had first been extensively trained. D. paved the way for conversational success by providing many external reasons for initiating conversation.

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Maria's therapist instructed her to monitor her attributions for successes and failures. Maria is probably participating in A. assertiveness training. B. explanatory style therapy. C. stress inoculations. D. group therapy.

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Improvements achieved through changing thought or behavior patterns are most likely to endure if people A. redesign their behavioral contexts. B. are required to report back to their therapist on a regular basis. C. attribute such changes to factors under their own control. D. recognize that success depends on a power beyond themselves.

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As a result of participating in a program to help her quit smoking, Anne has not had a cigarette for three weeks. She is least likely to return to smoking if she attributes her success in quitting the habit to A. her own motivation. B. the therapist who helped her quit. C. the support of her friends. D. the unique nature of the therapeutic program.

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John was recently attacked and mugged on a subway. He is less likely to experience long term stress from the trauma if he A. forgets about it. B. talks about it with a friend. C. sees a doctor immediately. D. blocks it from his thoughts.

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According to research conducted by Cacioppo and her colleagues (2002), the relationship between loneliness and health risks is A. positive. B. negative. C. neutral. D. curvilinear.

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A common conclusion reached by several studies involving thousands of people is that A. close relationships predict health. B. close relationships promote stress and some forms of illness. C. family relationships are unrelated to health. D. physical health is not linked to social support.

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The negative correlation between poverty and health is likely caused by all of the following factors EXCEPT A. reduced material possessions. B. increased stress. C. reduced health care. D. unhealthy lifestyle.

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Women who had been sexually abused reported more health problems especially if they had A. not seen a therapist. B. kept their abuse secret. C. not confronted their abuser D. confronted their abuser.

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Which of the following is the best predictor of overall happiness? A. a satisfying job B. satisfaction with finances C. satisfaction with one's community D. satisfaction with marriage

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According to the text, marriage enhances happiness for which of the following reasons? A. It provides regular sex to both partners. B. It provides financial security. C. It provides multiple roles (e.g., spouse, parent) that can contribute to self-esteem. D. It provides companionship.

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At the University of Washington, Loftus (1979) found that eyewitnesses in a hypothetical robbery-murder case were influential A. unless their testimony was shown to be useless. B. even when their testimony was discredited. C. only if other evidence supported their story. D. only if they were similar to those making the judgments.

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Loftus (1979) found that when an eyewitness who had testified against the defendant in a hypothetical robbery-murder case was discredited because of having poor vision A. about half the jurors switched their votes from guilty to innocent. B. the majority of jurors still voted for conviction. C. jurors regarded the eyewitness testimony as useless and it had no impact on their verdict. D. a boomerang effect occurred with all the jurors changing their votes in favor of an acquittal.

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A prosecuting attorney is uncertain whether her eyewitness will seem credible to the jury. The eyewitness's testimony could help win a conviction, but the witness might be discredited by the defense attorney. What advice should the prosecutor accept? A. Put the witness on the stand, since even a discredited eyewitness is more convincing than no eyewitness at all. B. Do not put the witness on the stand, since a discredited eyewitness is worse than no eyewitness at all. C. Put the eyewitness on the stand but admit your reservations about the credibility of the witness before the defense attorney raises the issue. D. Put the witness on the stand only if he or she is attractive and similar to the jurors.

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Studies of eyewitness testimony indicate that A. jurors can discern whether eyewitnesses have mistakenly identified an innocent person. B. when witnessing conditions are poor, jurors do not usually believe eyewitness testimony. C. eyewitnesses who are shown to have poor eyesight have little effect on the juror's judgment. D. false eye witnesses are usually recognized by the jury.

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Jurors think that an eyewitness who can recall trivial details such as how many pictures were hanging in the room probably A. gained information about these details by a second visit to the crime scene. B. was paying better attention than one who recalls no details. C. was not paying attention to the culprit or the crime itself. D. is no more accurate in recalling important information than witnesses with no memory for details.

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Research indicates that eyewitnesses who remember trivial details of a crime scene A. also tend to overestimate the degree of harm or damage done as a result of the crime. B. also tend to be particularly suspicious of all unfamiliar faces. C. are less likely to have paid attention to the culprit's face. D. are more likely to have paid attention to the culprit's face.

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City police found that Mr. Caldwell, an eyewitness to a murder in a local bank, correctly remembered many trivial details of the crime scene, including the specific time on the clock and the paintings on the wall. Research findings suggest that Mr. Caldwell's recall of trivial details means A. it is more likely that he can also correctly identify the murderer. B. it is less likely that he can also correctly identify the murderer. C. nothing in terms of his ability to correctly identify the murderer. D. it is more likely that he can also correctly identify the murderer, provided Mr. Caldwell is also highly educated.

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A prosecuting attorney learns that a crucial eyewitness to a grocery store robbery correctly remembers trivial details of the crime scene. If the prosecutor hopes to convince the jury that the eyewitness is credible, research suggests A. he should make the jury aware of the witness's ability to remember trivial details. B. he should deliberately avoid making the jury aware of the witness's ability to remember trivial details. C. it will make no difference whether the jury knows that the witness can remember trivial details. D. he should make the jury aware of the witness's ability to remember trivial details only if the jury is composed of all males.

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Wells and his colleagues (2002) reported that it is the _______ eyewitnesses whom jurors find to be most believable. A. older B. younger C. confident D. emotional

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Of the following eyewitnesses to a crime, who would probably appear most believable to a jury? A. Teddy, a fifth-grader whose father is a lawyer B. Randy, a radio announcer who appears very confident about what he saw C. Moira, a retired teacher who has traveled widely to visit other countries D. Dawn, a shy student who smiles and speaks very softly

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Which of the following statements about eyewitness testimony is FALSE? A. Eyewitnesses' certainty about what they have seen is closely related to their accuracy. B. Confident witnesses are more believable to jurors than those lacking confidence. C. Incorrect witnesses are virtually as confident as correct witnesses. D. Eyewitness testimony is powerful to juries.

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In what we now know to be a mistake, the U.S. Supreme Court declared in 1972 that among the factors to be considered in determining an eyewitness's accuracy is "the level of _______ demonstrated by the witness." A. impartiality B. interest C. certainty D. fluency

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Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Eyewitnesses are often more confident than correct. B. Confident eyewitnesses are more accurate than uncertain eyewitnesses. C. Both the gender and race of eyewitnesses have been shown to correlate with their degree of accuracy. D. Eyewitnesses who pay attention to details are most likely to pay attention to the culprit's face.

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Studies of the misinformation effect provide a dramatic demonstration of A. memory construction. B. repressed memory. C. proactive interference. D. state-dependent memory.

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The process of witnessing an event, receiving misleading information about it, and then incorporating the misleading information into one's memory of the event is referred to as the _______ effect. A. false memory B. misinformation C. inoculation D. interference

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In the process known as the misinformation effect, individuals A. give misleading testimony in court. B. receive wrong information about an event and then incorporate that information into their memory of the event. C. purposely give wrong information to police. D. fail to remember any information following a traumatic event.

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After hearing a television report falsely indicating that drugs may have contributed to a recent auto accident, several eyewitnesses of the accident begin to remember the driver as traveling at a faster rate of speed than was actually the case. This provides an example of A. flashbulb memory. B. state-dependent memory. C. the serial position effect. D. the misinformation effect.

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Research on false memories in children find that children A. are not very confident about their memories. B. cannot reliably separate real from false memories. C. very rarely lie about their memories. D. are unlikely to make false accusations.

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The tendency for witnesses to incorporate misleading information into their memories is especially strong when A. suggestive questions are repeated. B. the questioner is female rather than male. C. the event was a traffic incident rather than a violent crime. D. the witness is low in need for cognition.

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Research on the memories of young children indicates that they A. are better at remembering verbal details than visual details. B. tend to fabricate stories about their own victimization even when asked open-ended questions. C. are especially susceptible to misinformation. D. do not react to misinformation.

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Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Retelling events accurately makes people less resistant to the misinformation effect. B. Rehearsing answers before taking the witness stand decreases the confidence of those who are wrong. C. Retelling events commits people to their recollections, accurate or not. D. Retelling has no effect on memory.

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Wells, Ferguson, and Lindsay (1981) had eyewitnesses to a staged theft rehearse their answers to questions before taking the witness stand. Doing so A. increased the accuracy of the eyewitness testimony. B. decreased the confidence of those who were correct. C. increased the confidence of those who were wrong. D. None of the choices are correct.

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Eyewitness testimony can be distorted or biased by which of the following? A. suggestive questions B. an eyewitnesses' own retelling of events C. whether the person is an eyewitness for the defendant or the plaintiff D. All of the choices are correct.

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An eyewitness gains confidence from which of the following sources? A. being the only person who saw the event B. being asked the same question repeatedly C. testifying against a person whose race is different from their own D. disliking the defendant

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Stan was initially uncertain about the man he identified as the burglar in a police lineup. His confidence increased, however, after A. learning that he was the only eyewitness in the case. B. being asked the same question repeatedly. C. viewing a thousand police mug shots. D. seeing the grainy, inconclusive security camera video.

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In Wells and Bradfield's study (1999), participants were asked to identify a gunman they had seen on video. After making a false identification but receiving confirming feedback, ___ % rated their initial certainty as very high. A. 94 B. 58 C. 34 D. 5

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In a police lineup, the lineup interviewer's feedback A. has no effect on the witness's confidence. B. has a very mild effect on the witness's confidence. C. has a large effect on the witness's confidence. D. is usually not believed by the witness.

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Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for increasing the accuracy of eyewitnesses and jurors? A. Train police interviewers to elicit unbiased accounts. B. Educate jurors about the limitations of eyewitness testimony. C. Ask witnesses to scan a lineup of several suspects or mug shots simultaneously rather than one at a time. D. Have police acknowledge that the offender may not even be in the lineup.

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In order to promote accurate recall, the "cognitive interview" procedure for questioning eyewitnesses begins with A. specific questions about the event. B. guiding eyewitnesses to visualize the scene. C. advising witnesses about what others' have said. D. flooding witnesses with mug shots right away.

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When Fisher and his colleagues (1994) trained detectives to use the "cognitive interview" procedure for questioning eyewitnesses, A. both the accuracy and the confidence of the eyewitnesses increased. B. the amount of information elicited from eyewitnesses increased 50%. C. the false memory rate increased 50%. D. the false memory rate increased slightly, but confidence increased dramatically.

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Whose eyewitness testimony is probably the most reliable? A. Millie's report given immediately after a grocery store robbery. She was simply asked to tell the police what she saw. B. Fred's report given in court about a bank robbery a month ago. He has been interviewed several times by the defense attorney before appearing in court. C. Sue's report given immediately after observing an attempted rape. She was asked very specific questions by the police, who had identified a suspect immediately after the assault. D. All of these would be equally reliable.

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A police interrogator questioning an eyewitness to a robbery hopes to learn whether the assailant was wearing a bright green hat similar to one seen in another robbery. According to research, which of the following questions will elicit the most detailed, undistorted recall from the eyewitness? A. "Did you see whether the robber was wearing a hat?" B. "Can you describe the hat the robber was wearing?" C. "What color was the robber's hat?" D. "How was the robber dressed?"

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Researchers have found that eyewitness's accuracy can improve when A. interrogators delay the interview at least one week. B. the witnesses scan a group of mug shots or a composite drawing before reviewing a lineup. C. they are presented with a sequence of individual people, one by one, instead of being presented with a group of photos or a lineup. D. the seriousness of the crime is highlighted.

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Dunning and Perretta (2002) found that those eyewitnesses who made their identifications _______ were nearly 90% accurate. A. after a long deliberation B. confidently C. in less than 10-12 seconds D. and then changed them

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Which one of the following is an indicator that can suggest accuracy in a lineup identification? A. being an older eyewitness B. taking a long time to make an ID C. being very confident about an ID D. making a very quick identification

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Which of the following has been suggested as a strategy for reducing misidentifications in police lineups? A. Give eyewitnesses a "blank" lineup that contains no suspects and screen out those who make false identifications. B. Minimize false identifications with instructions that acknowledge that the offender may not be in the lineup. C. Include one suspect and several known innocent people in the lineup rather than a group of several suspects. D. All of the choices are correct.

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Which of the following is the best strategy for weeding out eyewitnesses who are just guessing? A. Include several people known to be innocent in the lineup. B. Include several suspects in the lineup and dress them all alike. C. Include several suspects who look very different from one another in the lineup. D. Tell the witness that the suspect is definitely in the lineup.

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Pryke and her colleagues (2004) invited students to identify a prior class visitor from multiple lineups that separately presented face, body and voice samples. When eyewitnesses consistently identified the same suspect by face, body and voice, he or she was A. never accurate. B. hardly ever accurate. C. sometimes accurate. D. nearly always accurate.

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A study of more than 3,500 criminal cases and some 4,000 civil cases found that _______ the judge agreed with the jury's decision. A. two out of three times B. three out of four times C. four out of five times D. nine out of ten times

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The more lenient treatment juries often give to _______ defendants suggests jurors' judgments continue to be contaminated by cultural bias. A. young B. high-status C. repentant D. poor

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Which of the following factors is NOT likely to lead to a lighter sentence for the person convicted? A. high status B. baby-faced features C. height D. physical attractiveness

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When Efran (1974) gave students a description of a case of students cheating and showed them a photograph of either an attractive or unattractive person accused of the crime, he found that attractive defendants were A. recommended for least punishment. B. more likely to be judged as guilty. C. more respected. D. perceived as more dangerous.

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Who among the following is likely to receive the most severe sentence for drunk driving? A. Kim, a good looking real estate agent B. Tim, an unattractive auto mechanic with long hair C. Ken, a clean-cut businessman D. Carol, an attractive single mother

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If convicted, _______ people strike people as more dangerous, especially if they are sexual offenders. A. cute or baby-faced B. attractive C. unattractive D. underage

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In an experiment conducted with the help of BBC Television, Wiseman (1998) reported that viewers saw the defendant played by either an attractive or an unattractive actor. How did the viewers react? A. More viewers "convicted" the attractive defendant. B. More viewers "convicted" the unattractive defendant. C. There was no difference in the conviction rates of the attractive and unattractive defendants. D. Baby-faced defendants were more often found guilty.

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In researching over 1,700 defendants appearing in Texas misdemeanor cases, Downs and Lyons (1991) found that the judges _______ less attractive defendants. A. set lower bails for B. set greater fines for C. spent less time reviewing the cases of D. spent more time questioning

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Which of the following factors has been shown to influence either the likelihood of conviction or the severity of punishment? A. poverty B. attractiveness C. similarity to the jurors D. both attractiveness and similarity to the jurors

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Someone accused of a crime is judged more sympathetically A. by females than by males. B. if he or she appears to have personality characteristics that are complementary to the one who judges. C. if he or she appears similar to the one who judges. D. if there was a bystander who watched and did not intervene.

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Amato (1979) found that when people play the role of juror, they are more sympathetic to a defendant who A. shares their political views. B. is of another race. C. speaks a different language. D. is of the other gender.

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When Amato (1979) had Australian students read evidence concerning a left- or right-wing person accused of a politically motivated burglary, they judged him less guilty if A. he claimed to have no religious preferences. B. his political views were similar to their own. C. he claimed he had been hired to commit the crime. D. he proved he had not profited by the burglary.

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According to the text, what factor helps explain why in acquaintance rape trials, men more often than women judge the defendant not guilty? A. similarity B. height C. status D. attractiveness

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Nearly all the states in the U.S. now have _______ statutes that prohibit or limit testimony concerning a rape victim's prior sexual activity. A. inadmissible rape testimony B. rape protection C. rape shield D. All of the choices are correct.

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Research shows that when a judge rules evidence to be inadmissible and admonishes the jury to ignore it, A. jurors are generally able to follow the judge's instructions. B. jurors have a hard time ignoring the evidence and its influence on their deliberations. C. jurors do so if the evidence damages the defendant's case but not if it hurts the prosecution's case. D. the evidence typically becomes the focus of debate in jury deliberations.

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Jurors have difficulty "erasing" the impact of inadmissible evidence A. when it is a criminal trial as opposed to a civil trial. B. when the inadmissible evidence is presented by the defense as opposed to the prosecution. C. especially when the inadmissible evidence has an emotional impact. D. when a witness, as opposed to a trial lawyer, blurts out the inadmissible evidence.

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As a result of the judge's warning that the jury disregard evidence ruled inadmissible, the stricken evidence may have an even greater impact on the jury's decision than if it had not been ruled out. This is probably due to _______ in the jurors. A. reactance B. disinhibition C. self-efficacy D. self-monitoring

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Jurors exhibit a tendency to treat racial outgroups A. more favorably. B. without bias. C. less favorably. D. with a strong negative bias.

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In 2006, of the first 130 convictions overturned by DNA evidence, 78% were A. influenced by political parties. B. the result of mistaken eyewitnesses. C. based on falsified evidence. D. the result of novice jurors' errors.

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Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Most people will admit that pretrial publicity has influenced their ability to be impartial. B. The effect of pretrial publicity on jury members can be removed by a judge's instructions to disregard such publicity. C. A judge's orders to ignore inadmissible testimony can boomerang—adding to the impact of the testimony. D. Getting jurors to publicly pledge their impartiality eliminates the effect of pretrial publicity.

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To minimize the effects of inadmissible testimony, Myers suggests that judges are best advised to A. wait until jurors have heard the testimony before ruling it inadmissible, so jurors specifically know what they are to disregard. B. videotape the testimony and cut out the inadmissible parts. C. meet with jurors during their deliberations after the trial to insure that inadmissible testimony is not influencing their judgments. D. immediately follow the trial by seeking a verbal pledge from each juror to ignore inadmissible evidence.

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You have just been appointed to serve as a new county judge. You are concerned about the effect inadmissible evidence may have on the jury in an upcoming trial of a case involving rape. You anticipate that the defense attorney will seek to introduce evidence regarding the victim's prior sexual history. To minimize the impact of such evidence on the jury, you should A. say nothing about such inadmissible evidence to the jury. B. remind the jury before the trial that the victim's previous sexual history is irrelevant. C. only tell the jury that the evidence is inadmissible after the defense attempts to introduce it. D. ask the defendant to refute any damaging evidence about her previous sexual history.

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Eberhardt and her colleagues (2006) reported that over a two-decade period, Black males convicted of murdering a White defendant were doubly likely to be sentenced to death if A. the murder was violent. B. the jurors were inexperienced. C. the jurors were older. D. if they had more stereotypically Afrocentric features.

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Support for capital punishment in the United States has _______ since 1994. A. fallen B. increased slightly C. remained stable D. increased significantly

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Survey researchers sometimes assist defense attorneys by using "scientific jury selection" to eliminate individuals likely to be unsympathetic. Results indicated that in the first nine important trials in which the defense relied on such methods, it A. won all nine. B. won two. C. won seven. D. lost all nine.

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Kressel and Kressel (2002) concluded that jury-selection consultants can make a difference, but A. they charge astronomically high fees. B. they are biased themselves. C. such cases are few and far between. D. they are totally unethical.

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In 1986, the U.S. Supreme Court in a split decision A. ruled that death-qualified jurors are a biased sample. B. overturned a lower court ruling that death-qualified jurors are a biased sample. C. ruled that Georgia's five-member juries were as reliable and accurate as twelve-member juries. D. overturned a lower court decision that six-member juries could decide cases involving the death penalty.

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Death-qualified jurors are A. more likely to be women. B. less likely to convict in criminal cases. C. more likely to convict in criminal cases. D. more concerned with due process of law than with crime control.

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An attorney will be defending James S., who is accused of raping a 22-year-old woman. Who among the following jurors is likely to be least sympathetic to his client's case? A. John, a 40-year-old plumber who once served a sentence for burglary B. Todd, a 22-year-old college student who is a political liberal C. Wilma, a 42-year-old mother of two who tends to be authoritarian D. Rita, a 32-year-old television executive who opposes the death penalty

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Racially mixed mock juries have been found to A. express more leniency. B. be less open to information. C. be harsher in sentencing. D. more susceptible to group polarization.

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Research suggests that jury deliberations can be influenced by all of the following processes except A. group polarization. B. minority influence. C. deindividuation. D. informational influence.

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What is meant by the "two-thirds-majority" scheme? A. Two-thirds of all people asked refuse to serve on a jury. B. Two out of three times judges agree with the jury's decision. C. A two-thirds majority is a better rule than consensus for a jury to follow in reaching a verdict. D. The jury verdict is usually the alternative favored by at least two-thirds of the jurors at the outset.

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Research suggests that jurors in the minority will be most persuasive when they A. change their position. B. are consistent C. are assertive. D. are similar to the others.

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Research suggests that jurors in the minority will be most persuasive when they are all of the following EXCEPT A. consistent. B. self-confident. C. when they win defections from the majority. D. well-educated.

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Hastie, Penrod, and Pennington (1983) showed participants reenactments of an actual murder case, and asked them to deliberate until they agreed on a verdict. After deliberation, their initial leanings A. had weakened. B. had grown stronger. C. were inconsequential. D. did not change.

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After hearing evidence in a murder trial, 10 jurors believed that the evidence was insufficient to convict the 25-year-old Black defendant. According to the group polarization hypothesis, after the jurors deliberated, they would be A. more convinced that the defendant was guilty. B. more convinced that the evidence was insufficient to convict. C. evenly split, with some convinced that he was guilty and others convinced that he was innocent. D. split, with the minority favoring acquittal and the majority favoring conviction.

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Research suggests that minorities are most likely to sway the majority when the minority A. favors conviction. B. favors acquittal. C. is composed of women. D. is composed of Whites.

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Research on the effects of group deliberation by a jury suggests that A. groups do no better at recalling information from a trial than do their individual members. B. deliberation cancels out some of the biases that contaminate individual judgments. C. deliberation increases the likelihood that jurors will use inadmissible evidence. D. All of the choices are correct.

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Research indicates that six-member juries A. are more likely to have hung verdicts. B. encourage less balanced participation among jurors. C. are less likely to embody a community's diversity. D. All of the choices are correct.

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Jury researcher Michael Saks (1998) reported that A. smaller juries more accurately recall trial testimony. B. larger juries more accurately recall trial testimony. C. smaller juries give more time to deliberations. D. larger juries are more likely to convict.

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According to the text, simulated juries A. can help us formulate theories that we can then use to interpret the more complex world. B. are virtually identical to real juries. C. have been viewed by the majority of Supreme Court judges as valuable in predicting the behavior of actual juries. D. have mundane realism but not experimental realism.

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The majority of judges express _______ in the ability of mock jury studies to predict the actual behavior of jurors. A. extreme confidence B. moderate confidence C. moderate doubt D. serious doubt

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STUDY

Conflict Conflict Theory Human Rights Social Science

Operational Preventive Medicine – Flashcards 121 terms

Marvel Brown

121 terms

Preview

Operational Preventive Medicine – Flashcards

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Organized political violence

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Conflict is distinguished from peace by the introduction of...

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Stability and Supportt Operations can include

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Noncombatant evacuation operations(NEO) Foreign Humanitarian assistance and disaster relief Combating terrorism Nation Assistance Security Assistance Counter-drug operations Show of Force....etc

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Combat Health Support is defined as: CHS

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those actions encompassing all military health-related activities taken or programs established to further US national goals, objectives and missions.

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CHS plays a significant role in nation assistance by:

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1. Assisting with the development and refinement of the host-nation HN medical infrastructure 2. Providing and maintaining the basic necessities of life for the general population through HN civilian medical programs. 3. Providing assistance in establishing, repairing, or improving basic health and sanitation services.

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the role of the CHS commander is to

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direct every CHS operation towards a clearly defined, decisive and attainable objective. there must be UNITY.

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the Principles of war that apply in stability and support operations are...

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Unity of Effort, Legitimacy, Perseverance, Restraint, and Security.

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Legitimacy

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involves sustaining the peoples willingness to accept the right of the government to govern or of a group or agency to make and carry out decisions.

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Perseverance

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in stability and support operations, strategic goals may be accomplished by long term involvement, plans, and programs. Short-duration operations will occur, but these operations must also be viewed as to their impact on the long-term strategic goals.

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Restraint

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stability and support operations place constraints on the potential actions that can be accomplished and the rules of engagement (ROE) governing these actions. Imprudent action outside the ROE may in fact have a detrimental effect on the attainment of strategic goals and objectives.

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Security

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the security of US forces abroad is PARAMOUNT. Commanders and planners must be aware of the ever-present danger that can exist from the various groups, factions or other governments.

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CHS personnel must be prepared to:

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defend themselves and their patients should the need arise.

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Battlefield Rules in order of precedence are to:

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1. maintain a PRESENCE with the service member ( BE THERE) 2. Maintain the health of the command. 3. Save LIVES 4. Clear the battlefield 5. Provide state-of the art care. 6. Ensure the early return to duty (RTD) of sick, injured, or wounded service members.

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DNBI

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is the major cause of service member ineffectiveness in this environment.

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before combat and combat suppport troops

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CHS personnel will arive in the AO...

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NEO are conducted to

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evacuate civilian noncombatants and nonessential military personnel from locations in a foreign host nation suring time of endangerment to a designated safe haven.

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NEO

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these operations are of short duration and consist of rapidly inserting a force, occupying an objective, and withdrawing as planned.

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Preventive medicine support provided to NEO consists of:

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-Assessment of the medical threat during planning phase and during operation. -Assessment of potential for transferring diseases back to the US. -Assist in the determination of potential sources of food and water.

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the three basic categories of Domestic support activities.

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1. Disaster assistance 2. Community assistance 3. Environmental assistance

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Preventive medicine support provided for disaster operations includes

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1. Assessment of endemic diseases prevalent in the AO( even those considered to be at a low epidemiological level.) 2. Determination of the state of the public works and services (sanitation, water sources, and garbage pickup) 3. and support to temporary camps to reduce rodent and arthropod breeding grounds; establish sanitation facilities; provide training ( education) in field sanitation, personal hygiene and preventive medicine measures PMM, and inspect water supplies, ice etc

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the US military strategy rests on the four pillars of.. in regards to Environmental Assistance.

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1. Compliance 2. Restoration 3. Prevention 4. Conservation.

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Compliance

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includes responding to small-scale hazardous material spills and regulatory support to other government agencies.

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Restoration

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involves cleaning up contamination from past operations.

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Prevention

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is developing and sharing new technologies that reduce pollution generation.

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Conversation

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focuses on the preservation of natural and cultural resources such as wetlands preservation and fighting wildland fires.

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Foreign Humanitarian Assistance programs

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relieve or reduce the results of natural or man-made disasters or other conditions such as human pain, disease, hunger, or deprivation that present a serious threat to life or result in great property damage or loss.

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Disaster relief operations provide

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emergency assistance to victims of natural or man-made disasters abroad. these operations are responses to requests for immediate help and rehabilitation from foreign governments or international agencies.

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Disaster relief operations may include

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Refugee assistance Food programs Medical treatment and care Other civilian welfare programs

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Refugee Operations

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may entail the rescue of individuals fleeing a nation and the establishment of temporary safe havens to house and care for these people. PMT support may be required to ensure: sufficient sanitation, disease surveillance, water, and food wholesomeness.

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Peace Support Operations

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Encompass a wide range of activities which establish or sustain peaceful conditions or foster the conditions essential to establishing peace. Include essentially diplomatic activities to support diplomacy in peacekeeping and peace enforcement. Other activities which support peace operations may include humanitarian assistance and nation assistance.

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Peacekeeping Operations

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include such activities as monitoring and supervising truces to facilitate diplomatic efforts to reach a political settlement of the dispute.

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Peace Enforcement Operations

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are a form of combat, armed intervention, or the physical threa of armed intervention. They are used to compel compliance with international sanctions or resolutions and include combat operations to establish or reestablish conditions conducive to peace such as forcible seperation of belligerents. the role of the PMT in this type of operation is Medical Threat and sanitation and disruption of garbage disposal, water and sewer services.

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Most stability and support operations require traditional PVNTMED support which are?

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assess medical threat, disease surveillance/investigation, OEH surveillance, vector control, education in PMM, informing the chain of command.

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The aspects to determine base camp location include:

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1. Identify available land, facilities, and/or equipment 2. Determine if the site meets mission requirements 3. Determine applicable standards: by purpose of camp(refugee camp,base camp)/ by organization establishing camp( us forces, world health)

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Location considerations?

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Primary: position to perform mission and inherent force protection. Secondary: Political and Economic.

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Some areas of consideration in site selection include: ???

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presence of TIC/TIM or HM/HW hazards(including asbestos and PCBs), Industrial facilities in the area that may subject personnel to contaminants, Potential for dust or noise, Landfills and waste dumps, Drainage( both to and from the site), Proximity to civilian populations, Adequate space for HM/HW and POL storage and protection, Adequate space for latrine and gray water facilities. Existing enviromental infrastructure, such as water and sewer, Overall safety of structures on the site, Proximity to areas of standing water that may spread illness, Possible endangered species or critical habitats, Presence of historical, cultural, or religious sites. Interference with the normal routine of the local civilians.

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Planners use environmental surveys to: ???

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ensure that any hazards from HM/HW, POL, CBRN contamination, disease vectors, and other contamination sources( such as open sewers or medical waste) are identified and mitigated, if possible, before the unit occupies the site.

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An EBS environmental baseline survey helps to determine: ???

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determine site condition before occupation, thereby limiting liability to US forces for any damage incurred.

question

what is the exact purpose of EBS?

answer

1. protection of service personnel( eliminating,minimizing, or mitigating environmental health risks to Service members) 2. Sustainability determination of a designated location 3. Sensitivities involved with cultural or archetectural consideration. 4. Minimizing any potential US liability for the condition of a site at the time US forces depart. 5. Used to determine the environmental impact of property use by military forces and the level of environmental restoration needed prior to returning the property upon their departure.

question

what is the jist of EBS?

answer

is conducted to determine whether a parcel of land is acceptable for military use and it documents the proposed sites existing environmental conditions and the likelihood of last or ongoing activities that may have created environmental safety or health problems.

question

types of Environmental surveys?

answer

1. EBS 2. Closure report. 3. ECR enviromental conditions report: which is conducted periodically and is included in the closure report. not less than on a quarterly basis.

question

the Three types of Environmental survillance assessments.

answer

1. EH short term ( phase I) assessment 2. EH long-term ( phase II) assessment 3. Environmental Reconnaissance

question

Environmental short-term Assessment (phase I)

answer

is conducted during initial entry to a site to determine the baseline environmental conditions at a location where US forces will be or are stationed or have a tendency to visit during a deployment for MORE THAN 30 DAYS. base camps, police stations, headquarters, checkpoints, communications points.

question

Environmental long-term assessment( phase II)

answer

is designed as a second step in the characterization of the environment at a base camp, its purpose is to monitor the service members exposure to contaminants in the environment during the length of the deployment. The data collected during this period is used to monitor trends in the contamination of the environment and potential effects on deployment forces.

question

Environmental Reconnaissance

answer

is performed preventive medicine personnel, engineers, civil affairs or special operations personnel to enhance environmental health intelligence estimates

question

is the Environmental Reconnaissance checklist

answer

USACHPPM TG 251 for use in conducting recon.

question

the purpose of Preventive medicine site survey

answer

- are conducted to evaluate a units preventive medicine status. - conducted periodically as determined by ESO or Surgeon in command to ensure maintenance of a healthy environment.

question

sequence of events in preventive medicine site survey :

answer

1. receipt of mission 2. Research historical data 3. Obtain necessary clearances 4. Gather equipment/ supplies 5. perform introductions to site command/staff 6. Conduct surveillance IAW unit SOPs, references, policies and /or guidance 7. determine units level of PVNTMED compliance 8. Record all data 9. brief site commander or staff 10. guard all data IAW security measures 11 Archive reports/records IAW unit SOP

question

the Geneva Conventions rules concern:

answer

Violence Discrimination children safety, honor, family rights, religious practices, manners and customs.

question

The geneva convention purpose is

answer

to limit and prevent human suffering and it protects people who are not or are no longer participating in hostilities.

question

under international humanitarian law, individuals subject to protected status are:

answer

People not taking part in the fighting are protected: -civilians - Medics -Chaplains -Humanitarian aid workers, and people who can no longer fight: wounded or sick service members and POWs

question

2 types of Protection;

answer

1. Protection from ATTACK 2. Protection upon CAPTURE

question

Retained Personnel

answer

If captured, medical personnel are "_______ ________" not POWs: can only be required to perform medical duties, must receive all benefits that POW recieve and be retained only as long as needed to care for wounded.

question

how are MTFs marked.

answer

All us medical facilities/transports must display the emblem of the Geneva Conventions. the RED CROSS and RED CRESCENT.

question

protected medical transports include:

answer

1. Ambulances 2. Medical Ships 3. Medical Aircraft

question

what are the 4 detainee categories:

answer

1. Enemy prisoner of war EPW 2. Civilian internee CI 3. Retained person RP 4. Other detainees OD

question

what are the 5Ss

answer

Search, segregate, silence, safeguard, speed.

question

treatment of Detainees includes.

answer

1. all detainees are required to be afforded certain rights. 2. Always treat a captured person as a POW initially 3. 5Ss 4. Medical standard of care for detainees is the same as for US Forces. priority is based in severity of injury.

question

Actions upon Capture

answer

Non-injured detainees will be evacuated as quickly as possible Sick and wounded detainees will be evacuated separately. Cavity searches.

question

Rules of cavity searches:

answer

should be performed for valid medical reasons- not part of routine intake PE. are conducted only if there is a reasonable belief detainee is concealing items. and conducted by same gender, if possible.

question

detainees should be provided sufficient

answer

food, water, clothing, shelter and medical attention.

question

what can jeopardize the geneva protection for dedicated medical evacuation vehicles?

answer

mounting of offensive weapons.

question

definition of EPW is:

answer

one who, while engaged in combat under orders of his or her government is captured by the armed forces of the enemy.

question

EPWs can be:

answer

Members of the armed forces, organized militia, or volunteer corps. Person who accompany the armed forces without actually being a member ( mercenaries) Merchant Marines or civilian aircraft crew not qualifying for more favorable treatment. Individuals who, on the approach of the enemy, spontaneously take up arms to resist invading forces.

question

RP retained personnel can be defined as:

answer

Medical personnel who are members of the medical service of their armed forces. Medical personnel exclusively engaged search for, collection, transport or treatment of the wounded or sick, Prevention of Disease, and staff admin of medical units and establishments exclusively. Chaplains attached to enemy armed forces Staff of National Red Cross societies duly recognized and authorized by their governments.

question

Civilian internee can be defined as:

answer

a civilian who is interned during armed conflict or occupation for security reasons or for protection or because he or she has committed an offense against detaining power.

question

Other Detainee can be defined as:

answer

Persons in the custody of US Armed Forces who have not been classified as an EPW, RP or CI. until legal status is ascertained by competent authority.

question

Area requirements for 5,000 person EPW Camp

answer

5 acres total camp space broken in to two categories: 3.6 acres for living spaces 1.4 for latrines and admin spaces.

question

how much space is provided for each occupant?

answer

3.5 square yards of floor space.

question

Refuse and Excreta Disposal requirements for detainee

answer

-Proper disposal of human excreta creates first barrier to excreta related disease. - sanitary supplies, service and facilities necessary for their personal cleanliness and sanitation will be provided. -separate sanitary facilities will be provided for each sex. - Detainees will have at their disposal, day and night, latrine facilities conforming to sanitary rules of the military.

question

For Field Expedient 1-3 days holding time what type of latrine is needed?

answer

a long slit trench latrine, will be used for urination and defecation. 30 m from natural bodies of water, 100m from messing and 15m from living spaces.

question

for longer holding times what type of latrine is needed?

answer

construction of 100 deep-pit, 4-hole latrines

question

how many refuse collection containers are required for camp residents?

answer

200: 33 gallon refuse collection containers. ( 1/25 camp residents)

question

417 refuse collection containers are required:

answer

if camp residents will be preparing their own food. PM personnel will be required to ensure containers are covered and emptied daily to prevetn overflow.

question

what temperatures and length of time is requred to kill all stages of louse on them. WASH

answer

at least 15 minutes at 130 degrees F ( 54 degrees C)

question

when drying what temps and length of time will provide additional assurance that all lice and their nits are killed?

answer

140 degrees F ( 60 degrees C) and 15 minutes

question

Lindane Lotion.

answer

what can be prescribed by medical staff on-site, for individual treatment for head lice, crab lice, and scabies mites.

question

Clothing requirements

answer

5,000 orange jump suits or other generic coverall if various sizes pre-treated with permethrin are needed to protect EPWs and also control spread of disease.

question

Filth Flies

answer

which type of flies will be a major preventive medicine issue especially during warm weather.

question

potable water requirements for EPW

answer

a minimum of 20,000 gal/day to the camp. residents(4 gal/person/day) if preparing food ( 8 gal/person/day)

question

how many water buffaloes are required to be filled daily.

answer

20, 400-gallon water tanks on trailers, every time the containers are filled , they must be inspected for proper sanitary reqs.

question

Humanitarian rations:

answer

do not contain any meat products and are preferred to MREs if there are any dietary restrictions.

question

what are the Three Major Communicable diseases

answer

Diarrheal diseases, tuberculosis and Malaria.

question

DA Form 2664-R is Weight Register(Prisoner of War)

answer

is used to conduct an initial medical screening and weigh-in of each detainee. Its purpose is to monitor the general state of health, nutrition and cleanliness of prisoners and to detect contagious diseases, esp tuberculosis, veneral disease, lice, louse-borne diseases and HIV.

question

what information is collected for a dead EPW,RP,CI.

answer

Full name of deceased Interment serial number ISN of deceased Date, place, and cause of death Statement that the death was, or was not, result of deceased own misconduct.

question

what form is filled out by the attending medical officer and appropriate camp commander as a "certificate of death."

answer

DA Form 2669-R

question

for what reasons may a body be cremated.

answer

only due to imperative hygiene reasons, the detainee's religion, or the detainees request for cremation. When a body is cremated, this fact together wirh the reasons will be set forth in the death certificate DA Form 2669-R

question

All persons will be respected as human beings they will be protected against all acts of violence to include:

answer

Rape, Forced prostitution, Assault and theft, Insults, Public curiosity, Bodily injury, Reprisals of any kind. No SCIENTIFIC EXPERIEMENTS.

question

Which types of detainee deaths require the camp commander to appoint an officer to investigate and report

answer

1. Each death or serious injury caused by guards or suspected to have been caused by guards or sentries, another detainee, or any other person. 2. Each suicide or death resulting from unnatural or unknown causes.

question

Three goals for professional relief agencies

answer

1. reduce suffering 2. reduce secondary risk and provide security 3. Prepare disaster area to resume full responsibility ASAP

question

What is the chronological order of events/ aspects of a disaster.

answer

1. Initial rescuers are victoms or from the zone of fringe impact 2. Professional relief agencies arrive at Day+2 or Day+3 3. Professional agencies must be requested. 4. Mission of organizied relief is to prepare area for self-care.

question

4 types of camps

answer

1. Reception or transit center 2 Self-settled 3.Planned temporary settlements 4. Extensions to temporary settlements.

question

Reception or transit center is defined as:

answer

where displaced people or refugees stay for short periods. A reception and transit center should be treated in the same way as a planned temporary settlement if it is: Large, having >2,000 people Expected to last a long time.

question

Self-settled is defined as

answer

where people have settled spontaneously, yet require partial relocation, provision of infrastructure and sustainable environmental resources.

question

Planned temporary settlements are:

answer

where settlements are constructed and serviced by physical planners in advance of arrival of people( e.g. from reception or transit centers)

question

Extensions to temporary settlements:

answer

where extension to settlement is required to accomodate new arrivals (e.g. from reception or transit centers.)

question

Components of Camp Assessment Program

answer

things to consider: Number of people affected, their current location, Security factors for people affected and relief agencies, current ot threatened water and sanitation related diseases, current water and food distribution, key people, vulnerable population.

question

Critical

answer

in extreme situations, there may not be enough waer available to meet physiological needs, and in these cases a survival level of potable drinking water is ________?

question

water requirements for refugee/internally displaced personnel

answer

15 L/person/day the water point should have a flow of 0.125 L /second and one water collection point for 250 people 500m max distance from shelter two collection/storage containers per household.10-20L and 20L

question

Water treatment options

answer

Chlorination 0.2-0.5 ppm slow sand filtration boiling water( uses the most fuel, not ideal)

question

access and number of facilites for excreta

answer

maximum of 20 people per facility segregated by sex no more than 50m from dwellings, or 1 minutes walk.

question

Requirements for internally displaced refugee camps

answer

Water, Sanitation, Food safety, Shelter, and Control of Communicable Diseases.

question

information

answer

unevaluated material of every description that may be used in production of intelligence.

question

Intelligence

answer

product resulting from collection processing, integration, analysis, evaluation and interpretation of available information concerning foreign countries or areas

question

Strategic intelligence

answer

required by national and allied decision makers to formulate policy and military plans at national and international levels.

question

Tactical intelligence

answer

Required by corps level and below commanders to develop an estimate of situation and to project enemy intentions in sufficient time to select and execute most effective friendly course of action to defeat the enemy.

question

Scientific intelligence

answer

product of collection, evaluation analysis and interpretation of foreign scientific information, applied research and in applied engineering techniques.

question

Technical intelligence

answer

knowledge of foreign technological developments and performance and operational capabilities of foreign material which have or may eventually have a pratical application for military purposes. Communications-electronic, weapons-munitions, nuclear, biological and chemical, medical and mobility.

question

why is medical intelligence significant?

answer

it is critical to strategic and tactical planning and opertaions to conserve fighting stregth.

question

at a tactical level, objective of medical intelligence is to provide intelligence evaluation and analyses of following factors in the theater:

answer

Conditions concerning people or animals Epidemiological information ( incidence, distribution and control of infectious diseases Plants Enemys field health service support New weapons systems or employment methods that could alter health service support planning factors. Medical implications of contamination from NBC weapons based on employment tactics and chemical or biological agents used. Antidotes to protect against the nbc threats Weather and/or terrain implications.

question

intelligence preparation of battlefield functions

answer

-Function one- Battlefield area evaluation -Function 2- Terrain analysis -Function 3- Weather analysis -Function 4- Threat evaluation, how the enemy would fight w/out weather and terrain restrictions -Function 5- Threat integration, how the enemy would actually fight in consideration of weather/terrain.

question

HSS health service support must consider the enemys

answer

-strength, disposition and combat efficiency - ability to generate combat casualties by causing injury or disease -ability to impact the HSS operations of the command -health and fitness -Field HSS system - Attitude towards the Geneva Conventions

question

Considerations of the AO

answer

- terrain -weather -Civilian population and enemy prisoners of war -Disease -Local resources -NBC threat

question

for strategic sources, who is the sole producer of required medical scientific and technical intelligence and general medical intelligence for the DoD?

answer

AFMIC Armed Forces Medical Intelligence Center.

question

what is the objective of medical intelligence at a strategic level?

answer

to contribute to formulation of national and international policy predicted in part on foreign military and civilian capabilities of the medical or biological scientific community.

question

Tactical Sources:

answer

in a theater of operations, intelligence is the staff responsibility of the military intelligence officer( S2 or G2) and those specialized mil intel units in the combat zone.

question

the medical staff officer.

answer

who establishes priority information requirements and information requirements with the supporting intelligence officer?

question

what are the types of military briefings

answer

Information briefs and Decision briefings

question

information briefs are:

answer

presented in order to inform listener, deal primarily with facts, do not involve presenter including his or her conclusion or recommendations and must include orderly, objective, accurate, clear and concise facts.

question

Decision briefs are:

answer

presented in order to obtain a decision from person being briefed, contain essentially same elements of information briefing, but are usually broader and more comprehensive in scope and content. referred to as"oral staff studies"

question

Preventive medicine technician conducts:

answer

-briefings for multiple proponents/echelons -training for deploying soldiers -training for FST certification -training for other PVNTMED measures, food, heat and cold injuries, and other misc training topics (HIV, STDs and Role of 68S)

question

what are the four preparation steps for a briefing?

answer

PLAN PREPARE EXECUTE and ASSESS

STUDY

Conflict Theory Differences Across Cultures Introductory Sociology Social Theory Sociology

Sociology CH 4,5,6 – Flashcards 70 terms

Larry Charles

70 terms

Preview

Sociology CH 4,5,6 – Flashcards

question

The theory that various social institutions and processes in society exists to serve some important function to keep society running

answer

Functionalism

question

The idea that conflict between competing interest is the basic animating force of social change and society in general

answer

Conflict Theory

question

The process by which you learn how to become a functioning member of society

answer

Socialization

question

Individual identity of a person as perceived by that same person

answer

Self

question

One's sense of agency, action, or power

answer

question

The self as perceived as an object by the "I"; the self as one imagines other perceive one.

answer

question

Someone or something outside of one's self

answer

Other

question

An internalized sense of the total expectations of others in a variety of settings regardless of whether we've encountered those people or places before

answer

Generalized Other

question

Families, School, Peers, and Media

answer

Agents of Socialization

question

The process by which one's sense of social values, beliefs, and norms, are re-engineered, often deliberately through and intense social process that may take place in a total insitution

answer

Resocialization

question

Institutions in which one is totally immersed and that controls all the basics of day-to-day life; no barriers exist between the usual spheres of daily life and all activity occurs in the same place and under the same authority.

answer

Total Institutions

question

A recognizable social position that an individual occupies

answer

Status

question

The duties and behaviors expected of someone who holds a particular status.

answer

Role

question

The incompatibility among roles corresponding to a single status

answer

Role Strain

question

Tension caused between two or more roles pertaining to different statuses

answer

Role Conflict

question

All the statuses one holds simultaneously

answer

Status Set

question

A status into which one is born

answer

Ascribed Status

question

A status into which one enters; voluntary status

answer

Achieved Status

question

One's status within a set that stands out or overrides all others.

answer

Master Status

question

Set of behavioral norms assumed to accompany one's status as male or female

answer

Gender Roles

question

Things we consider natural were socially constructed

answer

The Social Construction of Reality

question

A micro level theory in which shared meanings, orientations, and assumptions form the basic motivations behinds peoples actions.

answer

Symbolic Interactionsim

question

The view of social life as essentially a theatrical performance in which we are all actors on metaphorical with roles, scripts, costumes, and sets.

answer

Dramaturgical Theory

question

Seeks to examine people's reactions to violations of commonly accepted social rules or norms.

answer

Breaching Experiments

question

Form the building blocks for society and most social interactions. Can make predictions about the ways people are going to behave based on the number of actors in the group

answer

Social Groups

question

Group of two

answer

Dyad

question

Group of three or more

answer

Triad

question

Group characterized by face-to-face interaction, a universal perspective, lack of formal arrangements, a certain level of equality

answer

Small Group

question

A group characterized by the presence of a formal structure that mediates interaction and consequently, status differentiation

answer

Large Group

question

Social groups such as family or friends composed of intimate face-to-face relationships that strongly influence the attitudes and ideals of those involved

answer

Primary Groups

question

Groups marked by impersonal, instrumental relationships (those existing as a means to end)

answer

Secondary Groups

question

Another form of the powerful group, most often the majority

answer

In-group

question

Another term for the stigmatized or less powerful group, the minority

answer

Out-group

question

A group that helps us understand or make sense of our position in society relative to other groups

answer

Reference Group

question

A set of relations- essentially a set of dyads- held together by ties between individuals

answer

Social Network

question

A set of stories that explain our relationship to the other members of our network

answer

Tie

question

A sum of stories contained in a set of ties

answer

Narrative

question

The degree to which ties are reinforced through a indirect path within a social network

answer

Embeddedness

question

The notion that often relatively weak ties turn out to be quite valuable because they yield new information

answer

Strength of Weak Ties

question

The information, knowledge of people, and connections that help individuals enter, gain power in, or otherwise leverage social networks

answer

Social Capital

question

The justifiable right to exercise power

answer

Authority

question

Authority that rests in the personal appeal of an individual leader

answer

Charismatic Authority

question

Authority based on appeals to the past or traditions

answer

Traditional Authority

question

A legal-rational organization or mode of administration that governs with reference to rules and roles and emphasizes meritocracy

answer

Bureacracy

question

An experiment devised in 1961 by Stanley Milgram, a psychologist at Yale University, to see how far ordinary people would go to obey a scientific authority figure.

answer

Milgram Experiment

question

Demonstrated the degree to which an individual's own opinions are influenced by those of a majority group.

answer

Solomon Asch's Experiments

question

Any transgressions of socially established norms; breaking the rules that most people abide by.

answer

Social Deviance

question

Violations of laws enacted by society

answer

Crime

question

Social bonds; how well people relate to each and get along on a day-to-day basis; created by Emile Durkheim THEORY: FUNCTIONALISM

answer

Social Cohesion

question

(Segmental) Social cohesion based on sameness

answer

Mechanical Solidarity

question

Social cohesion based on the difference and interdependence of the parts; members perform different specialized functions

answer

Organic Solidarity

question

Those mechanisms that create normative compliance in individuals/the act of abiding by society's norms. Following the rules of group life

answer

Social Control

question

Mechanisms of social control by which rules or laws prohibit deviant criminal behavior (focused on murder, rape, and theft)

answer

Formal Social Sanctions

question

The usually unexpressed but widely known rules of group membership; the unspoken rules of social life (EX: burping loudly in public)

answer

Informal Social Sanctions

question

The belief that individuals subconsciously notice how other see or label them in their reaction to those labels overtime form the basis of their self identity THEORY: SYMBOLIC INTERACTIONISM

answer

Labeling Theory

question

Philosophy of criminal justice arising from the notion that crime results from a rational calculation of its cost and benefits

answer

Deterrence Theory

question

Retribution, deterrence, rehabilitation, restoration, and incapacitation (rrrdi)

answer

Goals of Punishment

question

The 8 crimes that the FBI combines to produce its annual crime index. These crimes are willful homicide, forcible rape, robbery, burglary, aggravated assault, larceny over fifty dollars, motor vehicle theft and arson.

answer

Index Crime

question

The desire for harmony/conformity in the group results in an incorrect/deviant decision

answer

Group Think

question

Social influence involves change in belief/behavior in order to fit with the group

answer

Conformity

question

New Asylums Video

answer

New Asylums Video

question

Overall crime rates decreasing since '91 and increased movement towards rehabilitating inmates

answer

Recent trends in the criminal justice system

question

The self emerges from our ability to assume the point of view of others and thereby imagine how they see us (Cooley)

answer

The Looking Glass Self

question

Deviance occurs when society doesn't give all its members equal ability to achieve socially acceptable goal

answer

Merton's Strain Theory

question

Sense of aimlessness/despair arises when we can no longer reasonably expect life to be predictable. Too little social regulation

answer

Anomie

question

First act of rule breaking that may incline the label of deviant and influences how many people think about and act towards you

answer

Primary Deviance

question

Subsequent acts of rule breaking in result of the new deviant label and people's expectations of you

answer

Secondary Deviance

question

Committed in public. Related to violence, gangs and poverty

answer

Street Crime

question

Crime committed by a professional against a corporation

answer

White Collar Crime

question

Officers of corporations commit crimes

answer

Corporate Crime

STUDY

Central Business District Conflict Theory Shaw And Mckay Theory And Research

CJ 421 Ch. 4/5 – Flashcards 25 terms

Patricia Harrah

25 terms

Preview

CJ 421 Ch. 4/5 – Flashcards

question

Example of culture conflict, the clash of values between American laws and

answer

an ethiopian ritual

question

Defensible space is a concept in environmental design theory

answer

true

question

W.I. Thomas developed a term that could be used to explain how a person may receive inappropriate cues from different groups and thus be seen as deviant

answer

Definition of the situation

question

conflict between a subculture and a larger culture within which it resides

answer

Secondary culture conflict

question

the chicago school produced chiefly microtheories

answer

true

question

the chicago school purported that behavior is shaped by

answer

social factors

question

best reflects Shaw and McKay's findings on city areas

answer

rates of delinquency, tuberculosis and infant mortality decrease as you move away from the central buisness district

question

process by which social disorganization affects juveniles and leads to delinquency is known as

answer

Symbolic Interactionism

question

Culture conflict theory was developed primarily by

answer

Thorsten Sellin

question

concept of community crime careers looks at the number of career offenders living in each concentric zone of the city

answer

false

question

Chicago school theorists were consensus theorists at heart

answer

true

question

Sampson's research on current immigrant communities supports the idea that predominantly immigrant areas have higher crime rates, particularly violent crime

answer

false

question

Sutherland borrowed three major theories from the Chicago School

answer

cultural transmission, symbolic interactionism, culture conflict

question

Differential association is what type of theory?

answer

positivist

question

sutherland's theory was heavily influenced by his upbringing, which took place in the _____ part of the country

answer

midwestern

question

Dan Glaser extended sutherland's work with his own theory of

answer

Differential Identification

question

Sutherland viewed criminals as following culturally approved behavior that was disapproved by the larger society

answer

true

question

Edwin Sutherland is known as the person who coined the phrase

answer

White Collar Crime

question

According to Sutherland, differential associations may vary according to each of the following except

answer

Relativity

question

Sutherland did not believe that certain locations and people were more crime prone than others

answer

True

question

Sutherland took into account each of the following except

answer

individual responses to societal reaction vary in sensitivity and vulnerability

question

primary concept of Sutherland's theory of differential association is an excess of definitions conducive to violation of law

answer

true

question

Two of Sutherland's books

answer

Principles of Criminology and The Professional Theif

question

Sutherland attempted to explain both individual criminal behavior and variations in group rates of crime

answer

true

question

Cressey responded to criticisms that differential association did not explain crimes of passion or compulsive crimes with his work combining

answer

Role Theory and Symbolic Interaction

STUDY

Conflict Theory Introductory Sociology Social Theory Sociology

Persepolis Test Questions – Flashcards 17 terms

Mya Day

17 terms

Preview

Persepolis Test Questions – Flashcards

question

Dialectical Materialism

answer

The idea, according to Karl Marx, that change and development in history results from the conflict between social classes. Economic forces impel human beings to behave in socially determined ways.

question

Socialism

answer

an economic system in which the factors of production are owned by the public and operate for the welfare of all.

question

Capitalism

answer

an economic system based on private ownership of capital.

question

Communism

answer

a political system characterized by a centrally planned economy with all economic and political power resting in the hands of the central government

question

Leftist

answer

Liberal , Having radical or liberal views in politics, advocating reform and revolutionary change.

question

Fundamentalist

answer

Person who strictly follows a set of basic ideas or principles.

question

Fidel Castro

answer

(born 1927) Cuban socialist leader who overthrew the dictator in 1959 and established a Marxist, Socialist state in Cuba.

question

Karl Marx

answer

German Philosopher, political economist, historian, political theorist, sociologist, communist, and revolutionary whose ideas played a significant role in the development of modern communism and socialism.

question

Che Guevara

answer

(1928-1967) Argentine revolutionary leader, Castro's chief Lieutenant in the Cuban revolution. Eventually, he was captured and executed by the Bolivian army.

question

Vladimir Lenin

answer

(1870-1924) Russian, Marxist revolutionary. Founder of the Bolsheviks, leader of the Russian revolution, first head of USSR. Communist.

question

Leon Trotsky

answer

(1879-1940) Russian revolutionary and communist theorist who helped Lenin and built up the army. he was ousted from the communist party by Stalin and assassinated in Mexico.

question

Self-Actualism

answer

Realizing one self's purpose, secure in one self, and usually more open in wanting to help others.

question

Rene Descartes

answer

17th century French philosopher; wrote Discourse on Method; 1st principle "i think therefore i am"; believed mind and matter were completely seperate; known as father of modern rationalism

question

Mohammed Reza Shah

answer

Son of Reza Khan, becomes new king of Iran, carried out reforms, allied with US. seen as corrupt, has secret police and gives no political freedom

question

Reza Khan

answer

overthrew the Qajar dynasty and also moved to Westernize and secularize the nation. Unlike Ataturk, however, he retained the monarchy with himself at the helm. The Pahlavi dynasty that he established lasted until 1979, when it was overthrown in a popular revolution. He was able to avoid imperial domination by either the Soviet Union or Great Britain, but his personal ambition and his attempts to undercut the power of the clergy and religion eventually brought down the Pahlavi dynasty.

question

Vietnam war

answer

was a Cold War conflict (1955-75) between the USA who supported the South and the USSR that supported the North.

question

Islamic Revolution

answer

The overthrow of Iran's monarchy under Shah Mohammad Reza Pahlavi and its replacement with an Islamic republic under Ayatollah Ruhollah Khomeini, the leader of the 1979 revolution.

STUDY

Conflict Theory Cross Cultural Give And Take Win Win Solution

Chapter 13: Negotiation – Flashcards 43 terms

August Dunbar

43 terms

Preview

Chapter 13: Negotiation – Flashcards

question

process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources

answer

definition of negotiation

question

- bargaining over price of a car you want to buy - any gain one person makes is at the other's expense - who gets what share of a fixed pie (set amount of goods needs to be divided up) - labor-management negotiations over wages - each wants to meet target point, won't go higher or lower than resistence point, will probably meet in the middle (settlement range)

answer

Distributive bargaining

question

make the first offer, and make it aggressive. - shows power, also anchoring bias (ppl fixate on initial information) - ambitious, but justifiable

answer

best thing to do in distributive bargaining

question

- a clothing store does well and then in bad economic times, designers set-up payment plans with the store to help them out financially bcuz they've trusted the store for so long - assumes one or more of the possible settlements can create a win-win situation - preferable to distributive in OB because builds long-term relationships and trust - feeling positive about one negotiation is more likely to be lenient in next negotiation - requires two parties that are open with information, sensitive to each others needs, and maintain flexibility

answer

Integrative bargaining

question

- reach more intagrative agreements than when bargaining alone

answer

Bargaining in teams

question

- achieves higher joint-gain settlements (intagrative) because more opportunity for "logrolling" where issues are traded off according to individual preferences - creates better outcomes for each side

answer

putting more issues on the table

question

- better to understand why an employee wants/deserves or doesn't deserve a raise rather than just the raise amount - stay focussed on broad overlying goals rather than immediate incremental outcomes

answer

focus on underlying issues of both sides

question

- reduces pressure to bargain integritavely - if opponent caves in easily, no one needs to reach a settlement - ppl settle for less than they could have obtained if they had been forced to consider the other party's interests, trade-off issues, and be creative.

answer

compromise in integrative bargaining

question

1) preparation and planning 2) definition of ground rules 3) clarifiction and justification 4) bargaining and problem solving 5) closure and implementation

answer

steps in the negotiation process (5)

question

- what's the nature of the conflict, what's the history leading up to the negotiation, who's involved and what are their perceptions of the conflict, what do you want from the negotiation, what are your goals?? - put your goals in writing to keep you focused ("most helpful" and "minimally acceptable" - what is the other party likely to ask, how can you combat it? - consider how the negotiation may affect relationship: if you win, would they hate you? so should you pursue more of a compromise? - if you don't care, maybe chose a more aggressive style - employees who felt more positive about the negotiation were less likely to turnover regardless of outcome - DEVELOP STRATEGY: determine best alternative to a negoatiated agreement (BATNA), any offer higher than your BATNA is better than nothing; you also shouldn't expect much success if the other side doesn't reach or go over their BATNA

answer

Preparation and planning

question

- develop with other party - exchange initial proposals and demands who will do the negotiating? where will it take place? time constraints? to what issues will we be limited?

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Definition of ground rules

question

- once you've explained initial conditions, you and other party must explain, amplify, clarify, and justify your initial demands - not confrontational, but an opportunity to educate other

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clarification and justification

question

now you make concessions, employ your bargaining techniques, whichever you felt appropriate in preparation stage

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bargaining and problem solving

question

formalizing agreement and developing procedures necessary for implementing and monitoring it - like hammering out specifics in a normal contract - handshake

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closure and imlementation

question

- related weakly, so you can only sort of predict outcomes based on each others persoanlities - research focuses on big five trait of agreeableness cooperative, compliant, conflict-averse), but still it's weakly related to negotiations - depends on situation - tendencies of one personality trait may pull you in two different directions in a negotiation - agreeableness is compliant but also warm and empathetic; former hinders outcomes, latter helps

answer

personality traits in negotiation

question

- depends on emotion and context - negotiator who shows anger induces concessions, because other party believes no further concessions from angry party are possible - should show anger only if you have at least as much power as your counter part - anger must be genuine (not surface0-acting, deep-acting) - disappointment shown in one party makes other party concede more because they feel guilty - experiencing more anxiety may lead you to be more deceptive than your opposing party; another study found anxious negotiators have lower outcomes and exit bargaining process more quickly - negative emotions matter most to negotiation

answer

moods/emotions in negotiations

question

- different cultures negotiate differently, depending on context - generally negotiate more effectively within cultures than between them (colombian better with colombian than sri lankan) - high openness is important in cross cultural negotiations - avoid time constraint bcuz they inhibit on party - emotions are culturally sensitive (chinese negotiators increase distributive negotiation when reacting to angry counterpart while US negotiators back down more)

answer

culture in negotiation

question

- men and women negotiate differently - men place higher value on status, power, and recognition, economic outcomes - women place higher value on compassion and altruism, relationship outcomes - women are less assertive, less self interested, and more accommodating - women are more reluctant to initiate negotiations and more likely to settle to get out of one - hurts women in managerial positions -women are more likely to engage when bargaining on behalf of someone else than when bargaining on their own behalf

answer

gender differences in negotiation

question

bjbj

answer

LECTURE

question

your goal

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target price

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Your "bottom line," or minimum acceptable agreement

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resistance point

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Your best alternative if they or you walk away from this deal

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BATNA

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zone of possible agreement, your "settlement range"

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ZOPA

question

- it seems fair to just split down the middle - but the midpoint is often based on sudjective calculations and is meaningless - midpoint isn't anymore fair than any other point in the ZOPA`

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the lure of the midpoint

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the more you work and prepare for the negotiation, the more you just want to make a deal. So, you will settle for terms that are worse than your current position - sunk costs; need for closure

answer

agreement bias

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- one person makes offer, other person immediately accepts, so you assume you offered too low/high and feel bad about yourself and walk away from the negotiation unhappy, even though you made a deal.

answer

winner's curse

question

- you didn't do enough research, your target price was too low or too high. - you may have settled for too little/too high

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why does winners curse happen

question

- lack of planning and preparation for the negotiation - lack of research (your BATNA, opponent's BATNA, your target price) - being satisfied with the negotiation, rather than optimizing - many people find negotiating uncomfortable, so want to just get it over with - feel bad for pushing for your own interests

answer

common causes for ineffective negotiation

question

- what do I deserve? what do they deserve? what's fair? - need a lot of external information to determine this (list price, blubook) - ex//reference points, justification

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claiming value: rights based

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- I can walk away, so you have to comply with what I want because I have more power. You need this deal.

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claiming value: power based

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distributive (fixed pie, you lose some, I win some. )

answer

what's the most basic negotiation strategy?

question

- Know what you want - Should be ambitious, but justifiable - Do not base your target on your BATNA - Commit to your target - Focus on your target first; later you can shift to your RP

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how to set a target with distributive strategy

question

- Decide what you need, to ensure you're better off - Commit to your RP - Do not reveal yours, do try to discover theirs

answer

how to set your reservation price in distributive?

question

- Don't "fall in love" with what you're negotiating for, leaves you vulnerable to going below/above reservation price and becoming worse off- consider your alternatives aka "Fall in love with three" rule (Bazerman) - Know your BATNA - Grow your BATNA - Don't reveal your BATNA, except as a last resort

answer

guidelines for BATNA in distributive

question

1) first offer 2) explanations 3) concessions

answer

what are the tactics for claiming value (3 of them)

question

- make the first offer!! - this anchors the negotiation around that price, anchoring bias - use a value, not a range, bcuz they'll chose one end of the range that works best for them - first offer must be ambitious but justifiable to anchor the negotation

answer

tactics for claiming value : first offer

question

- if you think they might offer more than your target (winners curse) - if you didn't do enough research/ don't have good information - there is a strong social norm in that situation, like a job offer

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what are the exceptions to offering the first value (when to hold back)

question

IMMEDIATELY counter offer at your target point, try not to get anchored

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If you don't make the first offer...

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- provide explanations for why you need it at this price that will appeal to your opponent (for this, use objective criteria and norms, like "the bluebook value is actually..." - ask about your opponents subjective standards, and then use them (what is fair to you?)

answer

another tactic for claiming value: explanation

question

- don't make a big concession (don't go from 4k to 5k) - don't make concessions too quickly - don't concede before you start, before you give your target price - never double concede, should be you concede a little, then them, then you - provide explanations and expectations for concessions

answer

tactics for claiming value: concessions

question

- Reciprocity - The power of silence - Looking shocked or surprised - Create time pressure like deadlines, exploding offers - Create competition - Real or feigned - Escalation of commitment (sunk costs) (you've already put so much into it, don't you want to just make the deal already?) - Be patient - most concessions happen in the last few minutes

answer

how to get your opponent to make concessions

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- Stonewalling (not budging, not talking) - High-balling or low-balling - Good cop/bad cop (if someone calls their wife and you feel bad, they are the good cop and you feel like the bad cop, then you feel bad and want to help them out) - Nibble - Bogey and other types of bluffing - Leaving the table and threats to leave the table - Overwhelming the opponent with incomprehensible information

answer

hardball negotiation tactics

question

- play hardball back - walk away - address the process (this is what you're doing, you need to stop, or else no deal)

answer

what do you do if someone uses these tactics on you?

STUDY

Anger And Fear Conflict Theory Cope With Problems Creativity And Innovation Ice Cream Cone Positions Strategies And Tactics Zero Sum Game

Quiz 2 negotiation skills – Flashcards 20 terms

Stephen Sanchez

20 terms

Preview

Quiz 2 negotiation skills – Flashcards

question

All of the issues involved in a negotiation are collectively referred to as the bargaining mix.

answer

True

question

BATNA is the area between parties' resistance points.

answer

False

question

BATNA is the most ideal alternative outcome one party to a negotiation could get without negotiating with the other party.

answer

False

question

A frame is the lens through which you view a negotiation.

answer

True

question

The opening offer is the best outcome each party can resonably and realistically expect to obtain as a result of the negotiation.

answer

False

question

Reciprocity is the notion that if someone does somthing for you, you own them.

answer

True

question

WATTA is the worst outcome you might face if you do not come to a negotiated agreement.

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False

question

In most sales transactions the seller effectivly makes the initial offer when she names a price.

answer

True

question

Research shows that negotiators who set challenging goals consistantly achieve better outsomes than those who don't.

answer

True

question

The resistance point is the best outcome each party can reasonably and realistically expect to obtain as a result of the negotiation.

answer

False

question

The settlement point is what the parties actually agree upon.

answer

True

question

What does BATNA stand for?

answer

A. Best Alternative to Negative Agreement B. Best Agreement to a Negotiated Alternative (Answer) C. Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement D. Best Agreement to a Negative Alternative

question

What does WATTA stand for?

answer

A. Worst Alternative to Negative Agreement B.Worst Agreement to a Negative Alternative C. Worst Agreement to a Negotiated Alternative (Answer) D. Worst Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement

question

Which of the following is not defined when preparing a negotiation?

answer

A. Settlement point B. Initial offers C. Target Points (answer)D. Resistaince points

question

Which of the following is the point at which the parties agree?

answer

A. Target point (Answer)B. Settlement point C. Bargaining point D. Resistance point

question

According to the Dual Concerns Model if your concern about your own outcome is high and your concern for the other party's outcomes is low, your approach would be:

answer

A. Problem Solving B. Yeilding (Answer)C. Contending D. Inaction

question

According to the Dual Concerns Model if your concern about your own outcome is low and your concern for the other party's outcomes is high, your approach would be:

answer

A. Contending B. Inaction C. Problem Solving (Answer)D. Yeilding

question

According to the Dual Concerns Model if your concernabout your own outcome is high and your concern for the other party's outcoes is high, your approach would be:

answer

A.Contending B.Yeilding C. Inaction (Answer)D. Problem Solving

question

According to the Dual Concerns Model if your concern about your own outcome is low and your concern for the other party's outcomes is low, your approach would be:

answer

(Answer)A. Inaction B. Contending C. Problem Solving D. Yeilding

question

According to the Thomas-Kilmann Conflict Styles Model if your concern for the relationship is low and your concern for the substantive outcomes is low, your approach would be:

answer

A. Competing B. Collaborating C. Accommodating (Answer) D. Avoiding

STUDY

Active Listening Skills Anger And Fear Conflict Theory State The Problem

The Nature of Negotiation – Flashcards 20 terms

Carmen Dawson

20 terms

Preview

The Nature of Negotiation – Flashcards

question

Negotiation- win-win situation- both parties are trying to find a mutually acceptance solution to a complex conflict Bargaining- win - lose situation ( haggling over prices)

answer

What is the different between Negotiation and bargaining

question

1. sharing or divided a limited resource 2. creating something that both parties need 3. Resolving a problem

answer

Why do negotiations occur

question

1. Definition of negotiation and the basic characteristics of negotiations situations. 2. Understanding interdependence, the relationship between people and groups that most often leads them to negotiate. 3. The definition and exploration of the dynamics of conflict and conflict management processes, which will serve as a backdrop for different ways that people approach and manage negotiations.

answer

What are the three important themes

question

- Involves 2 or more parties, - there is a desire or need between 2 or more parties, -they negotiate by choice, who can get the better deal -we expect a give an take -prefer to negotiate and search for agreement rather then to fight openly -successful negotiations involve the management of tangibles and also the resolution of intangibles

answer

Describe the characteristic of a negotiations

question

Parties depend on each other to achieve their own preferred outcome.

answer

Interdependence

question

1. Independent 2. dependent 3. interdependent

answer

Three ways of characterizing Interdependence

question

1. zero -sum or distributive -individuals linked together that there is a negative correlation between their goal attainments 2. Non- zero sum or integrative- positive correlation between the goal attainments of both parties

answer

Types of interdependence

question

1. desirability of alternatives working together 2. BATNA ( best alternative to a negotiation agreement)

answer

What alternative shape interdependence

question

The act to influence opponent. Negotiation is a process that transforms over time and mutual adjustment is one of the key cause of the changes that occur during a negotiation.

answer

What is Mutual Adjustment

question

• When one party agrees to make a change in his/her position, a concession has been made • Concessions restrict the range of options • When a concession is made, the bargaining range is further constraints

answer

Mutual Adjustment and Concession Making

question

• Dilemma of honesty - Concern about how much of the truth to tell the other party • Dilemma of trust - Concern about how much negotiators should believe what the other party tells them

answer

What are the two dilemmas of mutual adjustment

question

It is to do whatever is necessary to claim the reward, gain the lion's share, or gain the largest piece possible. ( distributive )

answer

What is Value Claiming

question

Finding a way for all parties to meet their objectives, either by identifying more resources or finding unique ways to share and coordinate the use of existing resources. (Integrative)

answer

What is value creation

question

1. Negotiations must be able to recognize situations that require more of one approach than the other 2. negotiators must be versatile in their comfort and use of both major strategic approaches. 3. Negotiator perceptions of situations tend to be biases toward seeing problems as more distributive/ competitive than they really are.

answer

What are the three implications of claiming and creation

question

interests, difference in judgement abotu the future, risk tolerance, time preference

answer

What are some differences in negotiators

question

"Sharp disagreement or opposition as of interests, ideas etc" and " the perceived divergence of interest, or a belief that the parties' current aspirations cannot be achieved simultaneously"

answer

Define Conflict

question

1. Intrapersonal or intrapsychic conflict- conflict within the person 2. Interpersonal conflict- between individuals 3. intragroup conflict- within a group 4.Intergroup conflict- between organizations, ethnic groups etc

answer

What are the levels of conflict and explain

question

1.Makes organizational members more aware and able to cope with problems through discussion. 2. Promises organizational change and adaptation. 3. Strengthens relationships and heightens morale. 4. Promotes awareness of self and others. 5. Enhances personal development. 6. Encourages psychological development—it helps people become more accurate and realistic in their self-appraisals. 7. Can be stimulating and fun.

answer

What are functions of conflict

question

1. Competitive, win-lose goals 2. Misperception and bias 3. Emotionality 4. Decreased communication 5. Blurred issues 6. Rigid commitments 7. Magnified differences, minimized similarities 8. Escalation of conflict

answer

Dysfunctions of conflict

question

1 Contending - Actors pursue own outcomes strongly, show little concern for other party obtaining their desired outcomes 2 Yielding - Actors show little interest in whether they attain own outcomes, are quite interested in whether the other party attains their outcomes 3 Inaction - Actors show little interest in whether there own outcomes, little concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes. 4 Problem solving - Actors show high concern in obtaining own outcomes, as well as high concern for the other party obtaining their outcomes 5 Compromising - Actors show moderate concern in obtaining own outcomes, as well as moderate concern for the other party obtaining their outcome

answer

What are the 5 styles of conflict management

STUDY

Answering The Phone Conflict Theory Interactions Personality Problem Solving Self Serving Bias Traits

Negotiation and Conflict Resolution – Flashcards 33 terms

Pat Coker

33 terms

Preview

Negotiation and Conflict Resolution – Flashcards

question

It is the means by which people deal with their differences.

answer

Negotiation

question

the act of resolving a controversy, disagreement, fight, war, misunderstanding, love spat, etc.

answer

Conflict resolution

question

is the result of differing needs, perceptions, assumptions, and/or values.

answer

Conflict

question

Develope skills to recognize conflict and to facilitate, negotiate, madiate, communicate

answer

Managers/Supervisors must

question

Managers do not always need to provide the solution.

answer

True

question

A battle to win; gain advantage; attain dominance in the relationship.

answer

The Conquest Approach

question

Lack the confidence to deal with conflict; Believe and hope that conflict will go away; Assumes that time will heal all wounds.

answer

The Avoidance Approach

question

Demands and interests are traded; Needs, values, and personalfeelings are compromised away; Spin-off conflicts can often occur.

answer

Bargaining Approach

question

Use of quick solutions that fail to address the conflict; Moving employees into different shifts; Relocating desks or reassigning to different groups; Failure to devote time to addressing underlying problem; lack of confidence in skills to address conflict.

answer

The Quick Fixer and Bandaid Approach

question

People act only from their roles (student-teacher); those in roles of lesser status and power will usually be furher disadvantaged; Continued inequality resolution process from the valuable contributions from everyone affected; The boss says or parent says 'because I said so".

answer

The Role Player Approach

question

Diversity and Difference Needs - these are essential to our well being. Perceptions - differences of interpretation of reality. Power - Use of perceived or real influence Values - individual beliefs or principles that are extremely important to us. Feelings and emotions - these can influence an individuals reaction to conflict. Internal conflict - unsure of ones own values, feelings, and wants.

answer

The Ingredients of Conflict: Diversity and Difference

question

Fight, hate, war, fear, anger, avoid, pain, loss, destruction, wrong doing, bad, etc.

answer

Dr. Weeks surveyed across the world and focused the following words as those used often to describe conflict

question

View conflict as an opportunity to implement change in the way people interact. Successful conflict resolution can result in better working relationships. Improved productivity Costs savings Better moral

answer

Successful Conflict Resolution

question

- a condition between or among workers: Whose jobs are INTERDEPENDENT. Who feels ANGRY. Who perceive that others are at FAULT. Act in ways that cause a business problem.

answer

Workplace Conflict

question

Wasted Time, bad decisions, loss of good employees, unnecessary restructuring, sabatosh, theft, damage, lowered job motivation, lost work time, health costs.

answer

Costs of Conflict

question

Workplace violence, Unionization, labor strikes, Vandalism, Malicious whistle-blowing, retaliatory lawsuits.

answer

Risks of Conflict

question

Self actualization - morality, creativity, spontaneity, problem solving, lack of prejudice, acceptance of facts. Esteem - self-esteem, confidence, achievement, respect of others, respect by others. Love/Belonging - friendship, family, sexual intimacy. Safety - security of body, of employment, of resources, of morality, of the family, of health, of property. Physiology - breathing, food, water, sex, sleep, homeostasis, excretion.

answer

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

question

The different processes that we use to form impressions of other people and the different conclusion we make about others.

answer

Perceptions

question

how we are perceived what we do what we say what we think

answer

Perception Pyramid

question

is a belief, a mission, or a philosophy that is meaninful.

answer

Values

question

Feelings (emotions) Perceptions (thoughts) Actions (behaviors) - Conflict is rooted in all parts of human nature.

answer

Workplace conflict definition includes

question

Interdependency - How much parties need each other. if high, cost of not resolving will also be high. Number of Interested Parties - As number and size increase, more difficult to resolve. Constituent representation - Do parties represent other people? Nagotiator authority - Does the representative have authority to make concessions on behalf of others Critical urgency - The greater the urgency, the less likely a concensual solution. Communication Channels - Same time same place dialogue produces far better solutions.

answer

Six Parts of Conflict Structure

question

Conflict between two people in the workplace. - most common - Easiest to resolve through the use of: - Managerial mediation - Self mediation

answer

Interpersonal Conflict

question

A Tip tp Help Avoid Conflict at Work: Develope Personal goals and objectives. Don't let the little things bother you. Focus on the end goal.

answer

True

question

deal making - purchase of a new home. decision making - parties in a zoning case. dispute resolution - litigation over property rights.

answer

Three basic types of negotiation

question

Two or more parties Interdependence Common goals Felxibility Decision-making ability

answer

The Five Elements to Negotiation Situations

question

Avoiding Accommodative Collaborative Competing Compromising

answer

Five Bargaining Styles

question

The two most important types of goals: 1. Content - the substance or specifics 2. Relationship - how the parties want to be viewed by each other.

answer

True

question

1. Preparation 2. Opening Season 3. Bargaining 4. Settlement

answer

The Basic Stages of Negotiation

question

the BEST ALTERNATIVE TO a NEGOTIATION AGREEMENT

answer

BATNA

question

Who - who speaks for each party, is authorized to make/reject offers, and how many people will be on each team? Where - Will negotiation takes place, and what will be the seating arrangement? When - Will negotiatons begin, and how long will sessions last? How - How will offers be made, issues included in the discussions? What - What form of final agreement (handshake, verbal, written, notarized)

answer

The 5 W's

question

Full, Open, Truthful Excange

answer

FOTE

question

Partially, Open, Truthful Exchange (used most be negotiators)

answer

POTE

STUDY

Conflict Theory Marketing

Chapter 4 MKT 410 – Flashcards 54 terms

Martha Hill

54 terms

Preview

Chapter 4 MKT 410 – Flashcards

question

In practice, conflict is usually spotted

answer

after it is ell developed and obvious

question

The feasibility and applicability of the various approaches for resolving channel conflict will

answer

Vary for different kinds of channel under different sets of circumstances

question

In the case of the franchiser Alpha Graphics discussed in the text, the main cause of the conflict with franchisees probably stemmed from

answer

communication difficulties

question

Clayton computer systems is a value added retailer that promotes its products as the very latest in technology. Hardware and software producers with a reputation for being on the leading edge will be in a good position to use _______ power with clayton

answer

referent

question

with regard to channel conflict and channel efficiency

answer

channel conflict is usually expected to have a negative effect

question

_______ is defined as when a channel member exerts control or influence over the behavior of another channel member

answer

marketing channel power

question

Two retailers are fighting for the right to represent a major manufacturer in New York. The conflict between these two retailers is probably caused by

answer

allocation of scarce resources

question

Conflict between burger king and its franchisees has occurred because

answer

burger king franchisees were force to set low prices for some menu items

question

Retailers are often willing to adhere to the wishes of large manufacturers such as Procter & Gamble and General Foods because these companies sell brands of products that are in great demand by consumers. These large manufacturers are in a position to emphasize the use of:

answer

Reward power

question

In order to get retailers to display its products a manufacturer has to have its salespeople go to the retailers' stores, set up the displays and instruct them in how to utilize the displays. In this example

answer

Extra input is needed to achieve the distribution objective.

question

According to the text the concept of role is of use to the channel manager because it

answer

Provide him/her with insight into the constraints under which channel members operate

question

Which of the following is not an input to achieving distribution objectives

answer

consumer demand for products

question

the relationship between channel conflict and channel performance is expressed in terms of

answer

channel efficiency

question

Conflict in marketing channel is often caused by all of the following except:

answer

A focus on object center behavior

question

One study by Etgar found that in channels with relatively small local dealers, power employed by manufacturers based on economic rewards or coercion provided a degree of control over channel members ________ power based on legitimacy, expertise or reference

answer

Higher than

question

The underlying theme of the relationship among channel members presented in the text

answer

Cooperation

question

Which of the following statements about role is not true

answer

roles in the marketing channel stay constant over time

question

Large retailers tend to have _______ power over their smaller manufacturers or suppliers

answer

high levels of reward

question

In their communications channel members often omit or distort information

answer

to protect promotional plans from being leaked to the competition

question

Competition is different than conflict because

answer

In competition the parties do no try to impede each other's goal attainment

question

The marketing channel should be viewed as

answer

An inter- organizational social system

question

In order to select the right power bases to use the channel manager needs to know:

answer

All of the above

question

A study found that in a franchised channel avoidance of using coercive power resulted in all of the following except

answer

franchisees were more likely to file class action suits

question

Many manufacturers will listen to retailers' product demands because retailers are knowledgeable about consumer needs. Such retailers are in a good position to emphasize the use of

answer

Expert power

question

Conflict in the marketing channel is usually referred to as behavior that is

answer

goal impeding

question

with regard to channel conflict it is true that

answer

the channel manager must make a conscious effort to detect channel conflict

question

Franchisors have the right to tell franchisees how to market products because of the franchise contract. In this case, franchisors are emphasizing the use of

answer

legitimate power

question

A recent study of marketing channels in China found

answer

That Chinese beer distributors had similar perceptions of power as their western counterparts

question

SEA publishing and Kate's Bookstores are embroiled in conflict over who should establish retail prices. The conflict likely is the result of

answer

Decision domain disagreements

question

Which of the following statements regarding appraising the effects of conflict on the channel is true

answer

At present most channel managers use a linear scale measuring conflict intensity and frequency

question

The social systems perspective of marketing channels is appropriate because

answer

a solely economic approach is not adequate for understanding channels

question

Two retailers are fight for the right to represent a major manufacturer in New York. The conflict between these two retailers is probably caused by

answer

allocation of scarce resources

question

Which of the following statements about role is not true

answer

roles in the marketing channel stay constant over time

question

When an evaluation of key areas of the relationship of a channel member with other members takes place an _______ has been used

answer

marketing channel audit

question

to reduce communication difficulties with small independent retailers channel managers in large manufacturing firms should

answer

Learn whether the goals of smaller channel members are very different from his/her own firm's goals

question

_______ is defined as when a channel member exerts control of influence over the behavior of another channel member

answer

marketing channel power

question

The feasibility and applicability of the various approach for resolving channel conflict will

answer

vary for different kinds of channels under different sets of circumstances

question

A wholesaler and retailer have become embroiled in conflict over attempts by the wholesaler's sales force to help the retailer display its products. The retailer views this sales force as a nuisance that interferes with customer service. There seems to be a problem of

answer

Perceptual differences

question

The greater the degree of optimization in carrying out a distribution objective

answer

The higher is the level of channel efficiency

question

In resolving channel conflict the channel manager should

answer

consider a peace conference to jointly solve the problem

question

four fundamental behavioral process relevant to the marketing channel are

answer

Power, conflict, role, and communication.

question

when considering the use of power in international channels, U.S. channel managers know that

answer

Cultural differences can affect how channel members perceive the use of various power bases

question

The vehicle for all interaction among channel members is

answer

communication

question

the test defines role as

answer

a set of prescriptions defining what the behavior of a position member should be

question

Larger retailers tend to have _________ power over their smaller manufacturers or suppliers

answer

high levels of reward

question

All of the following are advantages of using arbitration for resolving channel conflict except

answer

it lessens secrecy

question

Which of the following generalizations about conflict is not true

answer

Studies have found that leadership styles do not have an impact in creating conflict

question

Sylvan Learning Center's ad stressing its pride in being the world leader in supplementary education is an example of

answer

referent power

question

according to the text the concept of role is of use to the channel manager because it

answer

provides him/her with insight into the constraints under which channel members operate

question

Hoover's "All Aboard" marketing campaign in trade magazines portrayed in the text was based largely on _______

answer

coercive

question

A study found in a franchised channel avoidance of using coercive power resulted in all of the following except

answer

franchisees were more limey to file class action suits

question

in the case of the franchiser Alpha Graphic discussed in the text, the main cause of the conflict with franchisees probably stemmed from

answer

communication diffulties

question

more congruent roles should lead to

answer

more cooperative and efficient channels

question

which of the following is not likely to cause communications problems based on perceptual differences

answer

corporate goals

STUDY

Conflict Conflict Theory Problem Solving Supply Side Economics

Chapter 09: Conflict and Negotiation – Flashcards 85 terms

Clarence Louder

85 terms

Preview

Chapter 09: Conflict and Negotiation – Flashcards

question

1. If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that a. employee-employer relations will be good. b. conflict is subversive. c. no conflict exists. d. conflict is inevitable. e. management practices are highly effective.

answer

c.no conflict exists.

question

2. Terry is known the provoke arguments, and while some people don't like her for that reason, most would admit that her confrontational style improves the performance of the group. This is an example of a. dysfunctional conflict. b. destructive conflict. c. functional conflict. d. negotiation conflict. e. forcing conflict.

answer

c.functional conflict.

question

3. Raffi is a good worker, but in a group setting, he often resorts to personal attacks on other workers who disagree with his point of view on a given issue. This is an example of a. functional conflict. b. cognitive conflict. c. destructive conflict. d. affective conflict. e. forcing conflict.

answer

d.affective conflict.

question

4. When working on a team, Angela is effective, even though she often expresses disagreement with the perspectives and judgments of her peers regarding various tasks that they are discussing. This is an example of a. cognitive conflict. b. functional conflict. c. affective conflict. d. destructive conflict. e. forcing conflict.

answer

a.cognitive conflict.

question

5. The production department at RLM Inc. is always in conflict with the sales department because the former accuses the latter of promising delivery dates to customers that are unrealistic. The source of conflict in this example is a. communication. b. personalities. c. tasks. d. structure. e. management.

answer

d.structure.

question

6. When Antonio gets into a disagreement with co-workers, he often intimidates them with physical gestures and by pushing them. On the conflict intensity continuum, Antonio's behaviour would be closest to a. functional conflict. b. affective conflict. c. annihilatory conflict. d. personality conflict. e. task conflict.

answer

c.annihilatory conflict.

question

7. The potential for conflict to become actual conflict if a. group members are homogeneous. b. there is an incompatibility of goals. c. group members are diverse. d. there are differences of opinion. e. there is disagreement with established company policy.

answer

b.there is an incompatibility of goals.

question

8. Which of the following is not a requirement of conflict? a. must be perceived b. overt acts c. incompatibility d. opposition e. separation

answer

b.overt acts

question

9. A process that begins when one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is about to negatively affect, something that the first party cares about is called a. politics. b. consideration. c. power. d. conflict. e. negotiation.

answer

d.conflict.

question

10. Which of the following falls outside the general definition of conflict? a. commonly accepted organizational practices b. difference over interpretations of facts c. miscommunication of information d. disagreement on behavioural expectations e. incompatibility of goals

answer

a.commonly accepted organizational practices

question

11. Ambiguity about responsibilities and accountabilities describes which category of conflict sources? a. affective b. structural c. cognitive d. cultural e. communication

answer

b.structural

question

12. Conflict that is task-oriented and related to differences in perspective and judgments is a. affective conflict. b. cognitive conflict. c. dysfunctional conflict. d. structural conflict. e. functional conflict.

answer

b.cognitive conflict.

question

13. Affective conflict is a. emotional and aimed at a person rather that an issue. b. impersonal and based on issues rather that a personality. c. related to differences in perspectives. d. a consequence of the requirements of the job. e. a divergent hierarchy of goals.

answer

a.emotional and aimed at a person rather that an issue.

question

14. The demarcation between functional and dysfunctional conflict is a. neither clear nor precise. b. individual perception. c. the effect on group performance. d. measured on the conflict intensity scale. e. determined by the group's leader.

answer

c.the effect on group performance.

question

15. Conflict is dysfunctional when it a. provides a medium to release tension. b. reduces group cohesiveness. c. fosters an environment of self-evaluation and change. d. enhances flexibility. e. increases productivity.

answer

b.reduces group cohesiveness.

question

16. The most important criterion in determining whether conflict is functional or dysfunctional is a. overall morale. b. turnover rates. c. absenteeism levels. d. group performance. e. individual performance.

answer

d.group performance.

question

17. Which type of conflict is aimed at a person rather than an issue? a. affective b. selective c. cognitive d. sequential e. allowable

answer

a.affective

question

18. Conflict is functional if it a. supports the objectives of the group. b. is satisfying to the individual members of the group. c. causes group members to argue. d. causes turnover. e. supports the objectives of management.

answer

a.supports the objectives of the group.

question

19. When determining the functionality of conflict, research strongly suggests that the most significant factor is a. the frequency of starting conflict. b. the amount of interpersonal conflict. c. the source of conflict. d. the recipient's attitude towards conflict. e. the general attitude of both parties toward conflict.

answer

c.the source of conflict.

question

20. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, only incorporating the will of the other party is termed a. forcing. b. compromising. c. yielding. d. avoiding. e. problem solving.

answer

c.yielding.

question

21. Candice is great at resolving conflict among her staff members. Her usual approach is to try to reach an agreement that completely satisfies the aspirations of both people who are involved in the conflict. This is an example of a. forcing. b. avoiding. c. compromising. d. problem solving. e. yielding.

answer

d.problem solving.

question

22. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, imposing one's will is termed a. forcing. b. problem solving. c. avoiding. d. yielding. e. compromising.

answer

a.forcing.

question

23. Since his work group has a lot of temperamental people in it, when a conflict arises among the group, Francois tends to deal with it by minimizing the importance of the issue that caused the conflict and telling everyone to ―just get back to work‖. This conflict management strategy is known as a. yielding b. compromising c. avoiding. d. problem solving. e. forcing.

answer

c.avoiding.

question

24. Tina is known as a bit of a ―softie‖ among her coworkers, because when someone challenges one of her ideas, she backs right off even when her idea is a very good one. This conflict management strategy is known as a. yielding. b. compromising. c. avoiding. d. problem solving. e. forcing.

answer

a.yielding.

question

25. Timmy is very popular among his coworkers because he tries to balance the needs of others with those of his own to reach solutions when a conflict arises between them. This conflict management strategy is known as a. forcing. b. compromising. c. problem solving. d. yielding. e. avoiding.

answer

b.compromising.

question

26. Will is very adept at resolving conflicts among his staff by playing down the differences with respect to a given issue while emphasizing the common interests of both parties. This conflict management strategy is called a. avoidance. b. smoothing. c. compromising. d. problem solving. e. developing subordinate goals.

answer

b.smoothing.

question

27. A consistent conflict among members of John's staff is the lack of resources; John's staff believe other departments have more and newer technology to complete their work, so they grumble and complain to and about each others use of technology and compare themselves to the other departments. Because he knows it isn't true that other departments have newer and better equipment, John could manage this conflict effectively by a. authoritative command. b. altering the human variable. c. altering the structural variables. d. expansion of resources. e. avoidance,

answer

a.authoritative command.

question

28. Ismal is a well-respected employee from another department who has been brought in to try to resolve a conflict between two employees in another department. His advice to them is to attempt to resolve their main issue first, and he has provided them with some new information that expands their understanding of the issue. Ismal's role is that of a a. compromiser. b. mediator. c. arbitrator. d. negotiator. e. enforcer.

answer

b.mediator.

question

29. Fred has been brought in to resolve the negotiation impasse between the union and management. He is very good at encouraging open communication, and is also very good at fact-finding and interpreting messages of the participants. Fred is known as a(n) a. facilitator. b. arbitrator. c. manager. d. conciliator. e. ombudsperson.

answer

d.conciliator.

question

30. Kerri Anne has been brought in to resolve the stalemate between the union and management regarding the issues of wage increases. She has indicated that if the two parties cannot resolve this issue themselves, she will have to impose a decision herself. Kerri Anne is known as a(n) a. facilitator. b. ombudsperson. c. arbitrator. d. mediator. e. conciliator.

answer

c.arbitrator.

question

31. Rawana is very skilled at bringing conflicting parties to a negotiated solution by suggesting alternatives and by using reasoning and persuasion. Rawana is known as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. facilitator. d. ombudsperson. e. peer review.

answer

a.mediator.

question

32. Most Americans expect conflict to be dealt with directly and openly; most Mexicans expect conflict to be dealt with a. immediately . b. through compromise. c. through authoritative command. d. in private. e. in public.

answer

d.in private.

question

33. To achieve expedient solutions under time pressure, the best conflict resolution strategy is a. yielding. b. compromising. c. forcing. d. avoiding. e. problem solving.

answer

b.compromising.

question

34. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, trying to reach mutually satisfactory results is termed a. avoiding. b. forcing. c. yielding. d. problem solving. e. compromising.

answer

d.problem solving.

question

35. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, ignoring the issue is termed a. forcing. b. yielding. c. compromising. d. avoiding. e. problem solving.

answer

d.avoiding.

question

36. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, balancing concerns to reach a solution is termed a. avoiding. b. forcing. c. yielding. d. problem solving. e. compromising.

answer

e.compromising.

question

37. Forcing, as a conflict management strategy, usually creates which of the following solutions? a. win-lose b. lose-lose c. tie-win d. win-win e. tie-lose

answer

a.win-lose

question

38. The dual concern theory identifies which of the following two primary dimensions of conflict-handling intentions? a. awareness and assertiveness b. reliability and awareness c. cooperativeness and assertiveness d. independence and interdependence e. accommodation and collaboration

answer

c.cooperativeness and assertiveness

question

39. Yielding, as a conflict management strategy, usually creates which of the following solutions? a. win-lose b. lose-lose c. tie-win d. win-win e. tie-lose

answer

a.win-lose

question

40. Making positional commitments in a conflict would illustrate which of the following conflict-handling strategies? a. forcing b. avoiding c. yielding d. problem solving e. compromising

answer

a.forcing

question

41. Which of the following conflict-handling methods is best described as win-win? a. avoiding b. accommodating c. compromising d. problem solving e. competing

answer

d.problem solving

question

42. Which of the following characteristics would be inconsistent with an individual using a problem solving style? a. views conflict as natural and helpful b. demonstrates trust and candidness with others c. believes that each party must give up something to reach a satisfactory solution d. views everyone as having an equal role in resolving the conflict e. attempts to reach a satisfactory and acceptable conclusion

answer

c.believes that each party must give up something to reach a satisfactory solution

question

43. Why are individual attitudes toward conflict so important? a. The individual is the smallest unit of measurement. b. These attitudes define the set of possible settlements. c. These attitudes do not change. d. These attitudes define the structural elements in conflict. e. These attitudes are variable and inconsequential.

answer

b.These attitudes define the set of possible settlements.

question

44. ―Splitting the difference‖ would be used by which of the following conflict management strategies? a. avoiding b. problem solving c. yielding d. compromising e. forcing

answer

d.compromising

question

45. To achieve compromise, one needs to a. avoid overt disagreement. b. value openness and trust. c. dominate the other conflicting party. d. give up something of value. e. give in to the conflicting party.

answer

d.give up something of value.

question

46. Mediation is a strategy that a. brings people together formally to talk about personalities. b. brings a panel of peers together to adjudicate and solve the problem. c. brings people together with a third party to solve the problem. d. brings an impartial third party to dictate the solution. e. brings an impartial third party to help negotiate a solution.

answer

e.brings an impartial third party to help negotiate a solution.

question

47. SCENARIO 9-1 Doors Unlimited is a manufacturer of doors, frames and related hardware and structures for the residential and construction industry. The North Shore plant is the oldest and largest of a series of plants that Doors Unlimited operates. In many cases, they manufacture subassemblies and parts for other plants that are unable to meet a specific customer order. Operations objectives are specifically defined for each of the two departments in this plant. However, production and marketing always seem to have some form of conflict related to issues ranging from manufacturing and design to satisfying customer orders. Communication appears to be a major problem. Frequently, the correct information and data is not provided and a state of confusion exists, creating situations where each department blames the other for problems encountered. The ―it's not our problem‖ attitude is healthy at the North Shore plant! Production always seems to be behind schedule or short of products needed for a shipment. Marketing somehow manages to increase order quantity and variety midway through a production run and is constantly adjusting the orders and shipping dates. These shortcuts and alterations clearly violate established procedure and policy regarding plant operation and how customers are to be served. Production, in turn, responds by altering their own schedules and attempting to force customers into receiving product ahead of schedule. As the problems intensified, each department ―dug in‖ to protect its turf. Eventually an agreement between the two departments was established in an attempt to resolve the problems and smooth out the operations. However, the outcome was that marketing placed even more orders that production was unable to meet. Marketing began to use pressure tactics to get production to ―toe the line.‖ The situation was causing customers to be inconvenienced. Conflict in terms of blame, delays and lack of communication was becoming standard practice. The atmosphere was negative and the departments were blaming each other. Charles Strong, director of operations and production at the North Shore plant, discussed with Norman, vice president of human resources for Doors Unlimited, some approaches to resolve at least some of the conflicts in order to put the plant back into effective operation. Charles noted in a recent discussion that the size and specialization of the plant and the composition of its departments have stimulated conflict. Which of the following is also a potential source of the conflict? a. where group or department members are older b. lower turnover that does not affect group performance c. specific direction/definition of responsibility for actions d. interdependence of groups e. structural conflict is not a possible issue.

answer

d.interdependence of groups

question

48. SCENARIO 9-1 Doors Unlimited is a manufacturer of doors, frames and related hardware and structures for the residential and construction industry. The North Shore plant is the oldest and largest of a series of plants that Doors Unlimited operates. In many cases, they manufacture subassemblies and parts for other plants that are unable to meet a specific customer order. Operations objectives are specifically defined for each of the two departments in this plant. However, production and marketing always seem to have some form of conflict related to issues ranging from manufacturing and design to satisfying customer orders. Communication appears to be a major problem. Frequently, the correct information and data is not provided and a state of confusion exists, creating situations where each department blames the other for problems encountered. The ―it's not our problem‖ attitude is healthy at the North Shore plant! Production always seems to be behind schedule or short of products needed for a shipment. Marketing somehow manages to increase order quantity and variety midway through a production run and is constantly adjusting the orders and shipping dates. These shortcuts and alterations clearly violate established procedure and policy regarding plant operation and how customers are to be served. Production, in turn, responds by altering their own schedules and attempting to force customers into receiving product ahead of schedule. As the problems intensified, each department ―dug in‖ to protect its turf. Eventually an agreement between the two departments was established in an attempt to resolve the problems and smooth out the operations. However, the outcome was that marketing placed even more orders that production was unable to meet. Marketing began to use pressure tactics to get production to ―toe the line.‖ The situation was causing customers to be inconvenienced. Conflict in terms of blame, delays and lack of communication was becoming standard practice. The atmosphere was negative and the departments were blaming each other. Norman Seers, vice president of human resources for Doors Unlimited, is attempting to resolve the problems in the North Shore plant. He realizes that conflict, in this case, is highly dysfunctional and is beginning to negatively impact customer service. Norman, however, also believes that some level of conflict is good in that it a. allows employees to openly question and disagree with each other's ideas. b. discourages expression of personal beliefs and opinions. c. keeps employees quiet, removed and distant. d. disrupts the relationships in the office so they don't waste time talking on the job. e. causes people to disengage and leave the firm.

answer

a.allows employees to openly question and disagree with each other's ideas.

question

49. When it comes to conflict and productivity, research has strongly suggested a. conflict should be avoided at all costs. b. conflict costs almost double productivity input. c. conflict can be functional and improve productivity. d. people have an aversion to productivity. e. conflict and counter-productivity are predictable.

answer

c.conflict can be functional and improve productivity.

question

50. When it comes to personality conflicts in the workplace, research suggests managers can spend between ______ of their time managing them. a. 20-25% b. 6-8% c. 16-18% d. 12-20% e. 50-60%

answer

d.12-20%

question

51. Bob welcomes a certain degree of conflict and disagreement among his staff, since he has been concerned that they have approved proposals in the past based on weak assumptions and without exploring other alternatives. Bob is promoting a type of conflict known as a. mediation. b. affective. c. cognitive. d. collaboration. e. dysfunctional.

answer

c.cognitive.

question

52. Leslie is of the opinion that conflict isn't always bad. His feeling is that it can assist in avoiding one of the biggest problems that groups face known as a. negotiation. b. groupthink. c. arbitration. d. mediation. e. peer reviews.

answer

b.groupthink.

question

53. A process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon the exchange rate for them is a. negotiation. b. conflict management. c. economics. d. supply side economics. e. resource allocation.

answer

a.negotiation.

question

54. What is negotiation? a. win-lose situation b. best alternative to a situation c. resistance point d. exchange process e. creative conflict

answer

d.exchange process

question

55. Distributive bargaining involves a. varying amounts of resources. b. the long term. c. the short term. d. a limited amount of resources. e. both parties as winners.

answer

c.the short term.

question

56. The bargaining strategy that operates under zero-sum conditions is called a. win-win. b. unethical. c. integrative. d. distributive. e. win-lose.

answer

d.distributive.

question

57. Integrative bargaining involves a. limited resources. b. the short term. c. resistance to bargaining. d. the long term. e. winning at any cost.

answer

d.the long term.

question

58. Labour-management negotiations over wages exemplifies a. integrative bargaining. b. cost-effective bargaining. c. distributive bargaining. d. third-party bargaining. e. organizational bargaining.

answer

c.distributive bargaining.

question

59. Conrad is optimistic that the issues between the union and management will be resolved since there appears to be some overlap between their aspirations. This overlap is known as a. a hope for a settlement. b. a bargaining zone. c. collective bargaining. d. groupthink. e. rubber stamping.

answer

b.a bargaining zone.

question

60. Which type of negotiation seeks to divide a ―fixed pie‖? a. distributive bargaining b. integrative bargaining c. unethical bargaining d. resistance bargaining e. cost-effective bargaining

answer

a.distributive bargaining

question

61. The first step in the negotiation process should be a. defining ground rules. b. clarification. c. justification. d. developing a strategy. e. bargaining.

answer

d.developing a strategy.

question

62. James' ―claim to fame‖ is that, in any negotiation process that he is involved with, he has the ability to work towards a solution that can create a win-win situation for all participants. James is thus adept at a. integrative bargaining. b. collective bargaining. c. distributive bargaining. d. barter bargaining. e. wholistic bargaining.

answer

a.integrative bargaining.

question

63. The negotiating strategy that emphasizes win-win solutions is called a. positive negotiation. b. integrative bargaining. c. distributive bargaining. d. equal bargaining. e. all-solutions bargaining.

answer

b.integrative bargaining.

question

64. The lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement is determined by your a. best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA). b. margin of error. c. bid price. d. asking price. e. negotiating stance.

answer

a.best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA).

question

65. Stephen's experience in labour-management relations is that one of the groups always seems to win at the expense of the other. This is known as a. integrative bargaining. b. groupthink. c. the bargaining zone. d. distributive bargaining e. collective bargaining.

answer

d.distributive bargaining

question

66. SCENARIO 9-2 Labour and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement appears to be possible. Both sides have agreed that resources are limited. Each feels that whatever one side wins, the other side loses. They believe they are engaged in a. integrative bargaining. b. distributive bargaining. c. mediation. d. best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA). e. dispute resolution.

answer

b.distributive bargaining.

question

67. SCENARIO 9-2 Labour and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement appears to be possible. Which of the following is a characteristic of distributive bargaining? a. I win; you win. b. long-term focus c. convergent or congruent interests d. parties' interests are opposed to each other e. sensitivity to each other's needs

answer

d.parties' interests are opposed to each other

question

68. SCENARIO 9-2 Labour and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement appears to be possible. Another term for bargaining is a. negotiating. b. compromising. c. collusion. d. good faith gesture. e. resistance.

answer

a.negotiating.

question

69. SCENARIO 9-3 Playbill Inc. is a company that hires culturally diverse people to perform Shakespearean plays for high school students. They employ actors and actresses from all over the world. These actors and actresses have joined together to request higher salaries for their services. Which of the following statements is false concerning gender differences in negotiations? a. Women are neither worse nor better negotiators than men. b. Women's attitudes toward negotiation and negotiating skills appear to be quite different from men's. c. Low-power managers, regardless of gender, attempt to placate their opponents. d. Women are always more cooperative and pleasant in negotiations than men. e. Men are more likely to use dialogue to persuade others.

answer

d.Women are always more cooperative and pleasant in negotiations than men.

question

70. SCENARIO 9-3 Playbill Inc. is a company that hires culturally diverse people to perform Shakespearean plays for high school students. They employ actors and actresses from all over the world. These actors and actresses have joined together to request higher salaries for their services. Which of the following statements about cultural differences in negotiations is false? a. The Chinese draw out negotiations. b. The French like conflict. c. The Russians are quick to make concessions. d. The Americans are impatient and want to be liked. e. The Japanese adapt their behaviours to the situation.

answer

c.The Russians are quick to make concessions.

question

71. In third-party negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. consultant. d. conciliator. e. liaison.

answer

d.conciliator.

question

72. Which of the following would fall outside the general role of a mediator? a. suggest b. reason c. persuade d. facilitate e. dictate

answer

e.dictate

question

73. In third-party negotiations, a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, and suggestions is known as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. counselor.

answer

a.mediator.

question

74. In third-party negotiations, a third party with the authority to dictate an agreement is known as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. counselor.

answer

b.arbitrator.

question

75. SCENARIO 9-4 Janet and Phillip are partners in a law firm. Their firm has grown considerably and they are unable to service all of their clients. They do not want to invite other attorneys to join them and must decide which clients to keep and which to send to other law firms. They have reached an impasse in their discussions regarding which clients they will keep and have decided to bring in outside help in their negotiations. Since their problems are moderate and not severely rooted in personalities or their law practice, Janet and Phillip have decided to bring in a neutral third party to facilitate a negotiated solution. This person is referred to as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. liaison.

answer

a.mediator.

question

76. SCENARIO 9-4 Janet and Phillip are partners in a law firm. Their firm has grown considerably and they are unable to service all of their clients. They do not want to invite other attorneys to join them and must decide which clients to keep and which to send to other law firms. They have reached an impasse in their discussions regarding which clients they will keep and have decided to bring in outside help in their negotiations. Since they have decided not to have a settlement imposed, they will not seek the services of a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. counselor.

answer

b.arbitrator.

question

77. SCENARIO 9-4 Janet and Phillip are partners in a law firm. Their firm has grown considerably and they are unable to service all of their clients. They do not want to invite other attorneys to join them and must decide which clients to keep and which to send to other law firms. They have reached an impasse in their discussions regarding which clients they will keep and have decided to bring in outside help in their negotiations. They have asked Jillian, a trusted colleague and associate, to engage in fact-finding, interpretation, and persuasion to develop some agreements with them. Jillian's role is that of a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. facilitator.

answer

c.conciliator.

question

78. Research has found that some cultures prefer ____________ relations and may not react well to the confrontational dynamics more common among North Americans. a. functional. b. harmonious. c. professional. d. dysfunctional. e. team.

answer

b.harmonious.

question

79. Liking conflict and not being concerned about whether they are liked or disliked by the opposing party in the negotiations is common for the a. Arabs. b. Russians. c. North Americans. d. French. e. Japanese.

answer

d.French.

question

80. Recent research studies in gender differences in negotiating styles and effectiveness show that a. there are many reliable conclusions. b. women are better negotiators. c. there are few reliable conclusions. d. women are more confident. e. no differences exist.

answer

c.there are few reliable conclusions.

question

81. Asia Lee is from China, and she is clearly uncomfortable with conflict as is typical of people from her country. Asia Lee is from which of the following types of cultures? a. Activist. b. Collectivist. c. Distributive. d. Compliant. e. Assertive.

answer

a.Activist.

question

82. Chinese managers are more likely than US managers to a. force and compromise. b. compromise and yield. c. avoid and yield. d. force and problem-solve. e. compromise and problem-solve.

answer

c.avoid and yield.

question

83. Which personality types are less effective at distributive bargaining? a. extroverts. b. introverts. c. Machiavellians. d. risk-takers e. Type A.

answer

a.extroverts.

question

84. Conflict meets the criteria of constructive conflict when it a. improves the quality of decisions. b. encourages interest and curiosity of members. c. increases tensions to stimulate creativity. d. increases tensions to stimulate creativity and improves the quality of decisions. e. improves the quality of decisions and encourages interest and curiosity of members.

answer

e.improves the quality of decisions and encourages interest and curiosity of members.

question

85. Tom has found that when his project managers have to work in large teams, conflict seems to a. increase. b. decrease. c. be goal-oriented. d. be easier to resolve. e. be avoided.

answer

a.increase.

STUDY

Bring About Social Change Conflict Theory Criminology General Strain Theory Internal And External Factors Social Movements

A Night to Remember: Chapter 10 – Flashcards 20 terms

Isabel Padilla

20 terms

Preview

A Night to Remember: Chapter 10 – Flashcards

question

Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.

answer