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Comm 101 Ch 9,10&11 – Flashcards 75 terms

Karlie Mack
75 terms
Preview
Comm 101 Ch 9,10&11 – Flashcards
question
Abusing your rank or status over others by demeaning, humiliating, or exploiting them is called "rankism".
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True
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Children whose parents use more confirming messages tend to have higher self-esteem and less stress
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True
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It's impossible to honestly accept the other person's point of view while maintaining your own position
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False
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When others confront us with attacks on our presenting self, we are likely to become defensive
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True
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The emotional tone of a new relationship is called the communication climate
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True
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A communication climate has to do with the way people feel about each other as they carry out activities
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True
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Behavior that fits into Gibb's category of "strategy" attempts to manipulate the other into doing what you want
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True
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A controlling message can be verbal or nonverbal
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True
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Whereas acknowledging others means you are interested in their ideas, endorsement means that you agree with them
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True
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Incongruous responses certain two messages that seem to deny or contradict each other
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True
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Messages shaping the communication climate of a relationship can be both verbal and nonverbal
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True
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When your respond in defensively to criticism, you can agree with the truth of what the critic is saying
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True
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Once a progressive spiral has been established in a relationship, it is likely to continue indefinitely
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False
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Defensiveness is often a self-perpetuating cycle
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True
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Communication climates are a function of
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The way people feel about one another
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"You are such a couch potato" is an example of what Gibb defense-arousing behavior?
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evaluation
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"I know that isn't going to work under any circumstances" is an example of the Gibb defense category of
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certainty
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The communication climate in a relationship is determined by the
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degree to which each person feels valued
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Evaluative language is also described as
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"you" language
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The elements of an assertive message are
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behavior, interpretation, feeling, consequence, and intention
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The most visible way disconfirming messages reinforce one another, as when one attack leads to another and another, is termed a(n)
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Escalatory conflict spiral
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All of the following are behavioral descriptions except
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"your behavior tells me you're angry"
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All of the following are disconfirming messages except
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using a problem-oriented approach
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Cassie felt ignored because Jaime kept playing on his phone during their lunch together. This example best illustrates which type of disconfirming message?
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Imprevious
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"Rankism" best relates to which of these behaviors?
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superiority
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Intimacy can come from intellectual sharing
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True
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By definition, an intimate relationship must exhibit all four intimacy dimensions
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False
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Male-male relationships involve less disclosure than male-female relationships
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True
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Recent research has shown that men achieve intimacy through shared activities
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True
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Because men share less personal information and feelings than women, they are not capable of achieving the type of intimate relationships that women have
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False
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Emotional expression is the only way to develop close relationships
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False
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Some studies show that relational intimacy may develop more quickly through computer-mediated communication than face-to-face
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True
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One researcher concluded that close relationships "maybe the single most important source of life satisfaction and emotional well-being, across different ages and cultures"
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True
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IM-ing, blogging, Facebooking do not enhance intimacy in interpersonal relationships
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False
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Research shows that transgressors who have been forgiven are less likely to repeat their offenses than those who have not received forgiveness
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True
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Research shows that the most effective conversations about forgiveness contain two elements--an explicit statement of your thoughts or feelings, and a discussion of the implications of the transgression and the future of the relationship
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True
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The way we communicate in our families is shaped by our birth order
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True
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Labels used by family members such as "the smart one" and "the cute one" can create self-fulfilling prophecies
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True
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The way parents communicate with their young children creates secure or insecure bonds that have powerful and lasting effects
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True
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Research demonstrates that one family communication pattern isn't necessarily more productive or satisfying than another
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False
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The text states that romantic partners who fear rejection and abandonment are likely to act in ways that increase the odds of their fears coming to pass. This example best relates to which concept from chapter 2?
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self-fulfilling prophecies
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Siblings who are ____ are often more extraverted and concerned with control than their brothers and sisters
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first-born
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When Marlina and Zach fight, they blow things out of proportion, interrupt, and yell. Their conflict style is most likely
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Volatile
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Heterosexual women value their friendships with gay men because
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All of the above
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Which of the following statements accurately describes the research about "friends with benefits?"
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These relationships are often problematic
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Social psychologist Roy Baumeister makes the case that, on average, most people want ___ close, important relationships in their lives at any given time
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four to six
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All of the following are dimensions of intimacy except which one?
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All of these are correct dimensions
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Members of an individualistic culture like the United States
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Act more familiar with strangers and disclose more personal information
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Some studies show that computer-mediated communication
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enhances verbal, emotional, and social intimacy in interpersonal relationships
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The benefit of forgiveness is
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All of these choices are beneficial
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Research has shown that strong marriages manage conflict in constructive ways
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True
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Destructive fights often start because the initiator confronts a partner who isn't ready for a confrontation
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True
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Conflict can exist on when both parties are aware of the disagreement
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True
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As long as one person in the relationship is aware of the disagreement, a conflict exists
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False
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The win-win approach to conflict resolution requires parties to reach a solution through compromise
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False
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When people express hostility in obscure ways, "passive aggression" occurs
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True
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Avoidance is never an effective conflict style to choose
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False
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In high-context, collectivist countries, avoidance and accommodation are considered positive, appropriate ways to handle conflict
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True
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Conflict is considered relational because it is determined by the way the parties interact with each other
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True
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Conflict rituals are not necessarily wrong until they become the only way relational partners handle their conflicts
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True
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The ethnic background of communicators is not a significant factor in their views regarding conflict
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False
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Controlling resources like money, staffing, and time in order to keep employees from being successful is a form of workplace bullying
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True
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Destructive behaviors included in the "four horsemen" described by researcher John Gottman are likely to feed off each other and develop into destructive conflict rituals
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True
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If both partners are willing, the collaborative win-win approach is very likely to be successful
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True
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Which of the following strategies is not recommended as a way to manage workplace bullying?
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All of the above are recommended strategies
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Which of the following is not an example of workplace bullying?
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assertive language
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Stonewalling sends a(n)____ message to the other person
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Disconfirming
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Men are more likely than women to
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be more competitive
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In a survey of conflict views of college men and women, women were described as being
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more concerned with maintaining the relationship during a conflict
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A person who buys a piece of new furniture, finds it damaged, and says nothing because he doesn't want to confront the retailer, is engaging in the personal conflict style of
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avoiding
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When people deliver subtle aggressive messages involving feelings of resentment, anger, or rage that they aren't able or willing to express directly, they are engaging in what psychologist George Bach calls
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crazymaking
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Conflict rituals are
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unacknowledged but repeating patterns of dealing with conflict
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all of the following are true about conflict, except
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people typically have similar conflict styles
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When Brody steered clear of Miranda after they had an argument, he was using what style of conflict?
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avoiding
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Of the following, what is not a step in negotiating a solution in the collaborative conflict style approach?
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All of these answers are steps
Conflict Theory
Low Context Cultures
Men And Women
North America
Win Win Solution
Chapter 12-speech – Flashcards 23 terms

Kate Moore
23 terms
Preview
Chapter 12-speech – Flashcards
question
In a survey of conflict views of college men and women, women were described as being
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more concerned with maintaining the relationship during a conflict.
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Complementary and symmetrical conflict styles have been shown to produce
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both "good" results as well as "bad" ones.
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Individuals in low-context cultures typically resolve conflict by
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avoidance. indirect communication. nonassertion. Correct all of the above
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An uncontrolled, spontaneous "explosion", a "Vesuvius", is
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therapeutic when you feel it's impossible to be relational and your partner understands what you're doing.
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Win-win problem solving is seldom used because
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there is a lack of awareness of it, emotional reflexes prevent constructive solutions, and it requires both persons' cooperation.
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A person who buys a piece of new furniture, finds it damaged, and says nothing because he doesn't want to confront the retailer, is engaging in the personal conflict style of
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nonassertion
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In order for a conflict to exist, two interdependent parties must perceive
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incompatible goals, scarce rewards, and interference from the other party in achieving their goals.
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You are upset with your friend Laura because she's borrowed some clothes and not returned them. You badmouth Laura to some mutual friends, telling them Laura is "undependable." You've engaged in the personal conflict style described as
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passive aggression.
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A possible pitfall of using passive aggression is that
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the object of your indirect aggression may just miss the point. a short-range "win" may lose in the long run. you deny yourself and the other party a chance of building any kind of honest relationship. Correct All of the above are possible pitfalls involved with the use of passive aggression. Passive aggression really has no pitfalls.
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Conflict rituals are
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unacknowledged but repeating patterns of dealing with conflict.
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The "ownership" of a problem almost always belongs to
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the person who brings it up.
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You and your partner's pattern of managing disagreements that repeats itself over time is called your
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relational conflict style.
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"Crazymakers" are
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disguised forms of aggression.
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All of the following are true about conflict, except
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people typically have similar conflict styles.
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Which suggestion does your text offer if you don't meet with success when following the six steps in win-win problem solving?
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Go back and repeat the previous step.
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Studies of different cultures and conflict reveal that
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the assertiveness appropriate in North America would be rude and insensitive in collectivist cultures.
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One of the best methods to use to describe your problem and needs to a partner during conflict resolution is
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the clear message format
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Studies of intimate and aggressive relational conflict styles find that
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the pattern partners choose may reveal a great deal about the kind of relationship they have chosen.
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The best way to boost the odds of a partner's cooperation toward a win-win solution to a conflict is to
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explain the ways the partner will benefit.
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Leah and Rachel have never gotten along. Rachel says that the best way for them to continue to work in the same office is to do their best to avoid one another. Their conflict style is best described as
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Nonintimate-Nonaggressive.
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At which step in the Win-Win negotiation process would you utilize the clear message format described in Chapter Nine?
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Describe your problem and needs
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At which step in the Win-Win negotiation process would brainstorming appropriate?
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Negotiate a solution
question
Of the following statements, which most accurately describes the part gender plays in conflict style?
answer
Gender is less important in determining conflict style than the behavior of the other person in the conflict.
Communications
Conflict Theory
Interpersonal Communication
COM 112 final – Flashcards 201 terms

Killian Parsons
201 terms
Preview
COM 112 final – Flashcards
question
Research indicates that the average person can detect deception approximately what percentage of the time? Select one: a. 25% b. 40% c. 55% d. 73%
answer
c. 55%
question
According to the distinctions between men and women's linguistic styles, men are more likely to: Select one: a. use modifiers to reflect the intensity of their statements b. talk in shorter phrases c. rely on the use of inclusive pronouns like "we" d. withhold opinions
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b. talk in shorter phrases
question
When Jon and Ernesto met in their English class, they were both hesitant to share much about their personal lives. As the semester progressed and they became better friends, they felt comfortable sharing more and more with each other. Which element of self-disclosure is reflected in their relationship? Select one: a. self-disclosure varies in breadth and depth b. self-disclosure must be intentional c. self-disclosure follows a process d. self-disclosure varies among relationships
answer
c. self-disclosure follows a process
question
According to your text, the perception-making process consists of three stages. Which of the following is NOT among them? Select one: a. interpretation b. attribution c. organization d. selection
answer
b. attribution
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According to research, an increase in which of the following nonverbal behaviors is indicative of deception? Select one: a. forward leans b. genuine smiles c. vocal fluency d. blinking
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d. blinking
question
Which of the following statements about people with high self-esteem is NOT true? Select one: a. They score higher on standardized tests b. They are comfortable initiating relationships c. They have higher emotional intelligence d. They are more likely to end a relationship that is in trouble
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a. They score higher on standardized tests
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Your subjective evaluation of yourself is known as: Select one: a. self-evaluation b. self-esteem c. self-concept d. self-image
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b. self-esteem
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We have a tendency to discount first impressions as untrustworthy. Select one: True False
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False
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Samantha was a fantastic softball player, but she rarely took credit for her success. Every time a reporter from the school paper would ask her for a quote, Samantha would say, "I just got lucky today," or, "Their pitcher just gave me something I could hit." Which of these likely factors into Samantha's personality? Select one: a. internal locus b. external locus c. negative attribution d. self-serving bias
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b. external locus
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Your own understanding of who you are as a person comprises your: Select one: a. face b. image c. reference group d. self-concept
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d. self-concept
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Deception done for the right reasons is not really deception. Select one: True False
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False
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Biological sex is genetically determined whereas gender roles are socially constructed. Select one: True False
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True
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Jason went to a party with several of his friends last weekend. While he was there, he made several inappropriate comments and did not notice that people were offended by what he was saying. Afterwards, several people at the party commented to Jason's friends that they were surprised and upset by his behavior. Which of the following statements is likely true of Jason? Select one: a. Jason has low self-esteem. b. Jason is a low self-monitor. c. Jason has a poor self-concept. d. Jason does not engage in self-fulfilling prophecies.
answer
b. Jason is a low self-monitor
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Which of the following linguistic patterns is associated with powerful speech? Select one: a. disclaimers b. hedges c. offering opinions d. asking questions
answer
c. offering opinions
question
Among adults, which of the following is true about touch behavior? Select one: a. women touch men more than men touch women b. opposite-sex touch is more common than same-sex touch c. in same-sex pairs, men touch each other just as much as women do d. none of the above statements is true
answer
b. opposite-sex touch is more common than same-sex touch
question
Frank's grandfather loved to fish. Every time he came back from the lake, he described catching and releasing a bigger and bigger fish. We can infer from this story that Frank's grandfather likely engaged in: Select one: a. commission b. equivocation c. falsification d. exaggeration
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d. exaggeration
question
Idealizing a romantic partner at the beginning of a new relationship is a common example of the __________ bias. Select one: a. delusional b. romantic c. positivity d. confirmatory
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c. positivity
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Idioms and gestures are examples of Select one: a. communication codes b. cultural truisms c. cultural speech development d. communication power-distance
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a. communication codes
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A group of students who attend the same high school and all belong to the school's computer club would be an example of what? Select one: a. cultural norming b. enculturation c. a co-culture d. cultural adaptation
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c. a co-culture
question
Studies involving communication between infants and caregivers have reliably demonstrated that Select one: a. Without sufficient interaction, infants will likely develop severe mental illness later in life. b. Human interaction, specifically touch, is critical for development and health. c. Infants' language acquisition occurs whether or not their caregivers communicate with them. d. Only a child's biological parents are able to influence his or her social development.
answer
b. Human interaction, specifically touch, is critical for development and health.
question
Which concept of culture includes judgments about how good, desirable, or beautiful something is? Select one: a. symbols b. values c. norms d. language
answer
b. values
question
According to social penetration theory, the __________ dimension concerns the number of topics disclosed whereas the __________ dimension concerns the level of detail in topics disclosed. Select one: a. breadth, depth b. depth, breadth c. range, penetration d. penetration, range
answer
a. breadth, depth
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The self-serving bias is a form of self delusion. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Very specific communication codes such as those used by doctors and dentists are known as Select one: a. idiomatic expressions b. specialized codes c. jargon d. clichés
answer
c. jargon
question
Your text discussed several potential risks of self-disclosure. Which of the following was not among them? Select one: a. violating privacy boundaries b. obligating others c. rejection d. damaging personal health
answer
d. damaging personal health
question
Having empathy means feeling sorry for someone else. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
Deception has several characteristics; which of the following is NOT among them? Select one: a. The sender must believe the information is false. b. The receiver must believe the information is true. c. The information must be transmitted knowingly. d. The sender must intend to create a false belief in the receiver.
answer
b. The receiver must believe the information is true.
question
Explain in detail the 4 attachment styles and give an example of how you have seen someone's attachment style impact your relationship.
answer
The 4 attatchment styles are secure, which involes a positive view of self and others, preocupied, which involves positive view of others, and negative view on self. The next, is dismissive, which involves positive view of self, and negative view on others. The last is fearful avoidance, which is a negative view of self, and a negative view of others. My own attatchment style, dismissive, actually impacts my relationships with others. I am very goal-oriented and i do feel that relationships just get in the way sometimes. I have to focus and complete my own plans before i begin to worry about a relationship.
question
You liked most everything about your new roommate when you first met, but when you found out she smokes, that overshadowed all of her good qualities in your mind. What perception-making process are you displaying here? Select one: a. primacy effect b. negativity bias c. stereotyping d. egocentrism
answer
b. negativity bias
question
This model considers both people in a conversation to be senders and receivers simultaneously: Select one: a. action b. transaction c. interaction d. none of these
answer
transaction
question
When competent communicators discover that their perceptions were inaccurate, they will respond by: Select one: a. seeking more information b. considering alternative perceptions c. revising their perceptions accordingly d. all of these
answer
d. all of these
question
Your self-concept is made up of the perceptions you have about who you are as a person. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Competent communication must be both effective and appropriate. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
When lying to a stranger, one will usually be more successful doing so in a face-to-face conversation than in an email message. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Human interaction is critical for the health of both infants and adults. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Organization is the process of assigning meaning to something you have perceived. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
An explanation for why something occurred is called a(n): Select one: a. interpretation b. selection c. attribution d. perceptual set
answer
c. attribution
question
On average, men express more opinions than women do. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
A sign in the library that reads "No Talking Allowed" would constitute an example of what? Select one: a. perceptual filter b. relational dimension c. explicit rule d. unintentional communication
answer
c. explicit rule
question
Lack of effective communication is the most commonly cited reason for relationship failure. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Which of the following forms of deception is an act of dissimulation? Select one: a. exaggeration b. falsification c. sarcasm d. equivocation
answer
d. equivocation
question
When his girlfriend asks if he really loves her, Ramon gives her a vague, ambiguous response. What form of deception is he attempting? Select one: a. fibbing b. equivocation c. exaggeration d. falsification
answer
b. equivocation
question
According to the norm of reciprocity, people expect the level of disclosures in their personal relationships to be relatively equivalent. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
How are interpretations different from facts? Select one: a. Interpretations are objective, whereas facts are subjective. b. Facts speak to what occurred, whereas interpretations speak to the meaning of what occurred. c. Interpretations are the same as descriptions, whereas facts are more similar to attributions. d. They aren't different; facts and interpretations are the same.
answer
b. Facts speak to what occurred, whereas interpretations speak to the meaning of what occurred.
question
What term is used to describe anything that interferes with the accurate decoding of a message? Select one: a. channel b. noise c. feedback d. context
answer
b. noise
question
People from different cultures sometimes experience difficulty in understanding one another because they think differently. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Research has shown that genetics have little or no influence on personality. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
Research suggests that women are more likely than men to use self-references, such as "me" or "I". Select one: True False
answer
False
question
In the United States, most people understand that they are expected to form a line and wait for their turn. That is an example of what type of rule? Select one: a. a culture-bound rule b. an explicit rule c. an implicit rule d. an orderly rule
answer
c. an implicit rule
question
According to the text, your self-concept is influenced by all of the following except: Select one: a. personality and biology b. culture and gender roles c. reflected appraisal d. impression evaluation
answer
d. impression evaluation
question
The ability to take another person's perspective, and to think and feel as that person does, is called what? Select one: a. ethics b. sympathy c. empathy d. self-awareness
answer
c. empathy
question
What is meant by the phrase "deception can serve as a social lubricant?" Select one: a. People commonly engage in deception to get what they want from other people. b. People commonly engage in deception to avoid hurting others' feelings. c. People commonly engage in deception in order to impress others. d. People commonly engage in deception in order to increase their number of friends.
answer
b. People commonly engage in deception to avoid hurting others' feelings.
question
Describe your own culture (or a co-culture you belong to) in terms of whether it is individualistic or collectivistic, high-context or low-context, and high-power-distance or low-power-distance. Use concrete examples. Next, provide a brief critique of each of those characteristics of your culture. What do you find to be positive about it? Negative about it?
answer
My culture would probably something along the lines of where i work. I work at Chick-Fil-A, and I have been working with chick fila since 2008. Chickfila is a collectivistic job because we are all a team. it is a high context job, in my opinion, because there are many ways to get things done. it is probably a mix between the low/high-power stance because many people make decisions but there is still an overall boss. This culture is pretty positive, with the christian aspect of business, we always look out for everyone, including the customers. Masculine&feminine culture monochronic or polychronic
question
Men are more likely than women to initiate touch with other adults, but women are more likely than men to initiate touch with children. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT considered one of the defining elements of culture? Select one: a. values b. symbols c. language d. ethnicity
answer
d. ethnicity
question
Most people in the United States believe they are above-average communicators. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Regarding sex differences in verbal behavior, which of the following is true, according to your text? Select one: a. women are not more talkative than men b. women interrupt more than men do c. men use more disclaimers and hedges than women do d. women ask fewer questions than men do
answer
a. women are not more talkative than men
question
In a low-context culture, people are expected to be direct and say what they mean. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
When we evaluate our own merits with respect to certain reference groups, we are engaging in a process known as: Select one: a. self-esteem maintenance b. social comparison c. the looking-glass self d. impression formation
answer
b. social comparison
question
Low self-monitors are more likely than high self-monitors to appear unsophisticated or socially awkward. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
What of the following could be an example of the Othello error? Select one: a. A listener is so suspicious that he or she doubts someone else's truthful statement. b. People tend to look for deception in bad news more than in good news. c. People tend to look for deception in good news more than in bad news. d. A listener is so trusting of another that he or she does not evaluate the truthfulness of the person's statements.
answer
a. A listener is so suspicious that he or she doubts someone else's truthful statement.
question
Culture is the shared symbols, language, values, and norms that distinguish one group of people from another. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Researchers use this term to describe how aware people are of their own behaviors: Select one: a. cognitive complexity b. self-monitoring c. adaptability d. self-disclosure
answer
b. self-monitoring
question
As defined in the textbook, communication can help us grow spiritually in all of the following areas except: Select one: a. developing a sense of our values b. articulating morals (beliefs about right and wrong) c. discouraging the spirituality of others d. finding a meaning for life
answer
c. discouraging the spirituality of others
question
Many factors affect the likelihood that we will notice a certain object in our environment. Which of the following does not lead to increased attention? Select one: a. plainness b. unusualness c. repetition d. intensity
answer
a. plainness
question
A verbal phrase whose meaning is purely figurative, such as "shake a leg" or "kick the bucket," is called what? Select one: a. oxymoron b. idiom c. pun d. idiosyncrasy
answer
b. idiom
question
Pupil dilation usually decreases when people are being deceptive. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
When you see someone dressed in very tight, dark clothing with spiky hair and eyeliner, you infer that this person is into emo punk rock. Your impression is based on which set of cues? Select one: a. demographic b. sociocultural c. socioeconomic d. psychographic
answer
b. sociocultural
question
Which of the following techniques will NOT help people improve their empathic skills? Select one: a. listening non-judgmentally to the speaker b. acknowledging the speaker's feelings c. encouraging the speaker to focus on what he or she still has, instead of what was lost d. communicating support to the speaker nonverbally
answer
c. encouraging the speaker to focus on what he or she still has, instead of what was lost
question
The word set has nearly 200 discrete meanings in the English language. Imprecise use of set illustrates which of the following statements about language? Select one: a. Language is often confusing because of multiple connotations. b. Language can be unclear because of multiple meanings for the same word. c. Languages around the world do not have a clear definition of referents for words. d. Language symbols are arbitrary and hard to define.
answer
b. Language can be unclear because of multiple meanings for the same word.
question
Words that evoke strongly positive or negative connotations are known collectively as: Select one: a. emotion language b. trigger words c. loaded language d. hot-button words
answer
c. loaded language
question
When one member of a group spreads his or her emotional state to the others, ___________ has taken place. Select one: a. emotional expressiveness b. a sympathetic emotional response c. emotional synchrony d. emotional contagion
answer
d. emotional contagion
question
Which of the following examples illustrates the idea of reclaiming a phrase? Select one: a. Politicians limiting their use of the word "poor" when describing citizens of lower economic status. b. Homosexual men referring to one another as "queer." c. A white speaker using only the term "African American" when referring to black audience members. d. The NAACP holding a ceremonial funeral for the "n-word."
answer
b. Homosexual men referring to one another as "queer."
question
People who can accurately identify which emotion they're feeling are best equipped to manage their emotions in productive ways. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Saying that someone has been "let go" instead of "fired" is an example of which language behavior? Select one: a. hate speech b. slang c. euphemism d. profanity
answer
c. euphemism
question
Information overload can impair our ability to listen effectively. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
The study of how people use movement is called what? Select one: a. haptics b. kinesics c. oculesics d. proxemics
answer
b. kinesics
question
Why do people tend to believe nonverbal messages even when they contradict verbal messages? Select one: a. Nonverbal behaviors are completely involuntary and reflect people's true states. b. People will only attempt to control their nonverbal behavior when they are lying. c. It is harder for most people to control their nonverbal communication than their verbal communication. d. All of these are true.
answer
c. It is harder for most people to control their nonverbal communication than their verbal communication.
question
Your textbook identifies several ways that speakers can use nonverbal communication to increase the persuasiveness of their statements. Which of the following nonverbal behaviors is not in line with these prescriptions? Select one: a. speaking softly, slowly, and calmly b. matching someone else's nonverbal behavior c. casually touching someone on the arm d. maintaining eye contact with someone while speaking
answer
a. speaking softly, slowly, and calmly
question
The literal, "dictionary" definition of a word is its __________ meaning. Select one: a. denotative b. connotative c. abstract d. referent
answer
a. denotative
question
According to Edward T. Hall, this range of this type of distance is approximately 1½ to 4 feet: Select one: a. intimate distance b. personal distance c. social distance d. public distance
answer
b. personal distance
question
Which of the following statements would be true according to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis? Select one: a. If a culture does not have a word for an emotion, its members will not be able to experience that emotion. b. Regardless of the language that individuals from different cultures might speak, people see the world in basically the same way. c. The culture that you are raised in determines the languages you will speak in your lifetime. d. The distinction between nouns and verbs does not exist in most languages.
answer
a. If a culture does not have a word for an emotion, its members will not be able to experience that emotion.
question
During a phone conversation, you are able to infer something about the speaker's mood and personality by listening to his or her vocal cues. That fact illustrates which of the following claims about nonverbal communication? Select one: a. Nonverbal communication is usually believed over verbal communication. b. Nonverbal communication is present in most forms of interpersonal communication. c. Nonverbal communication conveys more meaning than verbal communication. d. Nonverbal communication metacommunicates. Feedback
answer
b. Nonverbal communication is present in most forms of interpersonal communication.
question
Most research strongly supports the common notion that beauty is in the eye of the beholder. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
According to the text, the face is used primarily to communicate all of the following except: Select one: a. identity b. emotion c. attractiveness d. intellect
answer
d. intellect
question
The study of touch behavior is known as: Select one: a. haptics b. oculesics c. proxemics d. kinesics
answer
a. haptics
question
The face communicates more information than any other nonverbal channel. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
When Jesse first met Nicolette, he extended his hand and said warmly, "Nice to meet you." In response, Nicolette sighed, rolled her eyes, and simply said, "Yah," in a very sarcastic tone. Jesse inferred that Nicolette was not excited about meeting him based on her reaction. Which rule of language did Jesse likely base his decision on? Select one: a. phonological rule b. syntactic rule c. semantic rule d. pragmatic rule
answer
d. pragmatic rule
question
Emotions are always triggered from outside events. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
The action tendency for this emotion is to hide or disappear from others: Select one: a. anger b. disgust c. shame d. fear
answer
c. shame
question
Which of the following phrases is an example of doublespeak? Select one: a. sleep together b. kick the bucket c. jumbo shrimp d. collateral damage
answer
d. collateral damage
question
Which type of listening response includes the use of head nods, facial expressions, and short utterances such as "uh-huh" that signal your interest to the speaker? Select one: a. pseudolistening b. engaging c. supporting d. backchanneling
answer
d. backchanneling
question
The tendency to assume that attractive people have other positive qualities is called what? Select one: a. positive prototyping b. character assumption c. principle of facial primacy d. halo effect
answer
d. halo effect
question
This persuasion strategy takes advantage of the speaker's credibility: Select one: a. appeal to logos b. appeal to ethos c. appeal to pathos d. none of the above
answer
b. appeal to ethos
question
An allness claim is one in which the speaker intentionally misleads the hearer by arguing that everyone else agrees with his or her position. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
This type of language rule deals with the correct pronunciation of words: Select one: a. phonological b. syntactic c. semantic d. pragmatic
answer
a. phonological
question
Dan is an atheist with a keen interest in politics. Whenever Dan is watching a debate and one of the candidates mentions his or her belief or interest in God, he stops listening to that candidate. Sometimes, he'll even change his vote if a candidate he likes mentions God too frequently. Which of the following listening barriers describes Dan? Select one: a. rebuttal tendency b. closed-mindedness c. attack listening d. information overload
answer
b. closed-mindedness
question
The vividness effect is the tendency of dramatic, shocking events to distort our perceptions of reality. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Venting is a positive way of releasing your anger. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
Which of the following items was not identified in your textbook as a demographic characteristic? Select one: a. age b. ethnic background c. sexual orientation d. socioeconomic status
answer
d. socioeconomic status
question
Profanity is highly context-specific. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Which of the following statements about listening is true, according to your text? Select one: a. Listening is an innate ability. b. People spend more time listening than speaking. c. Everyone who listens to a message hears the same thing. d. Hearing is the same as listening.
answer
b. People spend more time listening than speaking.
question
Which of the following claims about facial expressions of emotion is not true? Select one: a. Extroverts tend to be better than introverts at interpreting nonverbal expressions of emotion. b. Women are generally better than men at understanding facial displays of emotion. c. Happiness is the easiest facial expression to decode. d. Facial expressions are second only to vocal behaviors in their ability to express emotion
answer
d. Facial expressions are second only to vocal behaviors in their ability to express emotion
question
Based on your observations of the TED video on listening and using course terms: How did the speaker discuss the different Types/ Ways of Listening?
answer
...
question
Which of the following emotions is derived from the product of your overall evaluation of another person? Select one: a. liking b. love c. interest d. affection
answer
a. liking
question
_______________ is a condition in which people lack the ability to understand, describe, and process emotions. Select one: a. neuroticism b. emotional processing deficit disorder c. emotional underexpression d. alexithymia
answer
d. alexithymia
question
A(n) _________________ is a memory aid that helps people recall important information. Select one: a. memory enhancement device b. mnemonic device c. recall device d. alliteration device
answer
b. mnemonic device
question
Contemporary research suggests that approximately this percentage of meaning is transmitted nonverbally: Select one: a. 30-35% b. 45-50% c. 65-70% d. 90-95%
answer
c. 65-70%
question
During a counseling session with his wife, Edith, Harris frequently rolled his eyes, made rude and condescending remarks, and openly mocked Edith in front of their counselor. Harris's emotional state could best be described as: Select one: a. hostile b. arrogant c. contemptuous d. disrespectful
answer
d. disrespectful
question
This is the active process of making meaning out of another person's spoken message: Select one: a. hearing b. acknowledging c. evaluating d. listening
answer
d. listening
question
When Rachel saw her neighbor Harold in the hallway, he quickly flagged her down and began to speak with her. Throughout their conversation, Harold maintained steady eye contact, spoke very quickly, laughed frequently, and stood closer to Rachel than he usually would. Harold's nonverbal cues indicate that: Select one: a. he was nervous or uncomfortable b. he was engaging in deception c. he was excited d. he was content
answer
c. he was excited
question
Slang can serve an important social function by helping people distinguish between those who do and do not belong to their social networks. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
An I-statement claims ownership of what one is feeling or thinking, whereas a you-statement shifts that responsibility to the other person. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Which of the following vocal behaviors is a dimension of nonverbal communication? Select one: a. tone of voice b. rate of speech c. loudness d. all of these
answer
d. all of these
question
According to your text, this could qualify as noise: Select one: a. loud music b. feeling hungry c. being too hot d. all of the above
answer
d. all of the above
question
Which of the following statements about slang is not true? Select one: a. Slang is closely related to jargon. b. Slang can help people identify individuals that belong to their social network. c. Slang is neither inherently good nor inherently bad. d. Slang is an exception to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis.
answer
d. Slang is an exception to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis.
question
Using you-statements to describe your emotions is problematic because: Select one: a. it provides specific prescriptions for change b. it fails to acknowledge the part you play in determining your feelings c. it involves blaming yourself for your emotions d. it doesn't allow you to separate emotions from actions
answer
b. it fails to acknowledge the part you play in determining your feelings
question
Which of the following is not one of the criticisms that have been levied against the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis? Select one: a. It is unclear whether language produces thought or thought produces language. b. Children who grow up in a bilingual family experience a great deal of cognitive dissonance because of the conflicting languages. c. Just because a culture doesn't have a word to describe an experience doesn't mean they don't have that experience. d. People who have cognitive deficiencies for learning language can still engage in thought, despite their language limitations.
answer
b. Children who grow up in a bilingual family experience a great deal of cognitive dissonance because of the conflicting languages.
question
According to your text, which of the following statements correctly represents the two parts of interpretation? Select one: a. Focus on the subjective meaning of the speaker's message and gauge the truthfulness of his or her claim. b. Understand the point of view the speaker represents and assign a mental interpretation of his or her statement based on that understanding. c. Pay attention to all of the speaker's verbal and nonverbal messages and signal your interpretation back to the speaker. d. Interpret the speaker's message carefully and remember your interpretation for future interactions with the speaker.
answer
c. Pay attention to all of the speaker's verbal and nonverbal messages and signal your interpretation back to the speaker.
question
Which of the following emotions has a neutral valence? Select one: a. surprise b. happiness c. contentment d. positivity
answer
a. surprise
question
Regarding the relationship between jealousy and envy, which of the following is true? Select one: a. Jealousy is focused on material things, whereas envy is focused on relationships. b. Envy involves wanting something that another person has. c. Jealousy is a primary emotion; envy is a secondary emotion. d. Envy and jealousy are the same emotion.
answer
b. Envy involves wanting something that another person has.
question
People who score highly on this personality trait are more likely than others to experience anger, guilt, anxiety, and depression: Select one: a. extroversion b. psychoticism c. neuroticism d. agreeableness
answer
c. neuroticism
question
Effectively interpreting nonverbal communication includes all of the following except: Select one: a. sensitivity to others' nonverbal messages b. trying to decipher the correct meaning of nonverbal behavior c. looking past cultural differences to understand the meaning d. asking for clarification when necessary
answer
c. looking past cultural differences to understand the meaning
question
Which of the following linguistic features was NOT identified in the textbook as affecting a speaker's credibility? Select one: a. use of clichés b. a speaker's dialect c. incorrect diction d. equivocal statements
answer
c. incorrect diction
question
Which of the following statements about facial or vocal expressions of emotions is factually incorrect? Select one: a. Infants are unable to respond to pleasant stimuli before they are 12 months old. b. Facial expressions of emotion are fairly consistent across cultures. c. Disgust, boredom, and grief are typically accompanied by a lower vocal pitch. d. People tend to speak faster when they are scared.
answer
a. Infants are unable to respond to pleasant stimuli before they are 12 months old.
question
To an American, the phrase, "How are you today?" sounds correct whereas the phrase "Today you are how?" sounds incorrect. The second phrase violates which rule of language? Select one: a. phonological b. syntactical c. semantic d. pragmatic
answer
b. syntactical
question
Listening non-judgmentally is important for effective critical listening. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
Define and give examples of Ekman and Friesen's five display rules of emotions.
answer
...
question
Empathic listening means feeling sorry for someone else. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
Verbal communication includes both spoken and written language. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Rachel finished her oral exam in her Spanish class and her teacher, Señora Lopez, evaluated her performance. Although Rachel did well on the exam and most of Señora Lopez's comments were positive, Rachel only focused on the negative critiques and felt very bad about her performance. Rachel just engaged in which of the following behaviors? Select one: a. pseudolistening b. content-oriented listening c. selective attention d. negative attention bias
answer
c. selective attention
question
Which of the following statements about smoking is the best example of an appeal to pathos? Select one: a. When you add it all up, smoking costs a person almost $7,000 a year. b. Smoking is the number one cause of emphysema. c. Most employers can legally discriminate against smokers. d. Think about how many lives you're ruining by continuing to smoke.
answer
d. Think about how many lives you're ruining by continuing to smoke.
question
Arousal is an increase in energy. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
This aspect of facial attractiveness refers to the relative size of facial features, such as the nose or ears: Select one: a. symmetry b. rhinoplasty c. proportionality d. asymmetry
answer
c. proportionality
question
This theory predicts that the more we learn about someone, the more we like that person: Select one: a. social exchange theory b. uncertainty reduction theory c. attraction theory d. equity theory
answer
b. uncertainty reduction theory
question
People in this type of culture think of the unequal distribution of power as normal or even desirable: Select one: a. high-content b. low-context c. high power-distance d. low power-distance
answer
c. high power-distance
question
In the _____________ stage of friendship, people begin to drift apart and might lose contact with one another. Select one: a. nascent friendship b. waning friendship c. declining friendship d. drifting friendship
answer
b. waning friendship
question
Which color of love has the most realistic expection of romance? Select one: a. Ludus b. Agape c. Pragma d. Storge
answer
c. Pragma
question
All of the following tips are useful for managing a conflict online except: Select one: a. avoid responding right away b. always respond using the same communication medium c. clarify comments or statements that aren't clear d. use emoticons to express your emotional state
answer
b. always respond using the same communication medium
question
Which of the following is an example of passive aggression, as it is defined in the text? Select one: a. Tara is hurt when her brother forgets her birthday, so she deliberately "forgets" his. b. Parker is angry with his mother so he ignores her calls and e-mail messages. c. Bonnie doesn't want to go to her neighbor's party, so she takes so long to get ready for it that the party is over by the time she's done. d. All of these.
answer
d. All of these.
question
Frank and Samantha just received a large inheritance when Samantha's grandmother passed away. Samantha said she wanted to use the money to build a room addition onto their house. Frank said he wanted to buy a more fuel-efficient car. Which of the following is true about this situation? Select one: a. This is an example of conflict because it involves an expressed struggle. b. This is an example of conflict because it involves scarce resources. c. This is an example of conflict because it involves incompatible goals. d. All of these are true.
answer
d. All of these are true.
question
Which of the following reasons is most commonly cited for ending a friendship due to changes in life circumstances? Select one: a. having a child b. moving away c. getting married d. experiencing an illness in the family
answer
b. moving away
question
Friendship rules are almost always explicit, rather than implicit. Select one: True False
answer
F
question
Single-parent families can include biological children, step-children, and/or adopted children. Select one: True False
answer
T
question
When forming friendships, people find several forms of similarity to be attractive. According to research, which of the following is true? Select one: a. Cognitive similarity is not influential at any stage of friendship formation. b. Attitude similarity is the strongest predictor of initial attraction. c. People generally see attitude similarity as a bad thing. d. Similarity in personalities is the strongest predictor of initial attraction.
answer
b. Attitude similarity is the strongest predictor of initial attraction.
question
Most new relationships end at which stage of Knapp's stage model? Select one: a. initiating b. experimenting c. intensifying d. integrating
answer
b. experimenting
question
When you feel very passionate about an issue and you do not want to compromise, which conflict management style is appropriate? Select one: a. avoiding b. collaboration c. compete d. accomodation
answer
c. compete
question
Traditional gender socialization encourages men to use accommodating conflict management strategies. Select one: True False
answer
F
question
Dialectical tensions are rare in most intimate relationships. Select one: True False
answer
F
question
Which of the following statements about same-sex partners is true? Select one: a. Some of them enter into formal relationships known as domestic partnerships. b. Communication in sex-same partnerships resembles that in opposite-sex partnerships. c. Satisfaction levels in same-sex partnerships are equal to those in opposite-sex partnerships. d. All of these are true.
answer
d. All of these are true.
question
During conflict episodes, someone playing this family role tends to agree with whatever is said in order to keep others from getting angry: Select one: a. computer b. distracter c. placater d. blamer
answer
c. placater Correct
question
Which of the following is not one of the health benefits of marriage identified in your textbook? Select one: a. Married people live longer. b. Married people tend to be healthier. c. Married people have better sexual health. d. Married people are less likely to abuse alcohol and drugs.
answer
c. Married people have better sexual health.
question
Even though Maria is committed to Bill, she finds herself engaged in affair after affair. Which color of love best describes Maria's color of love? Select one: a. Mania b. Storge c. Ludas d. Eros
answer
c. Ludas
question
Pick a friend of yours with whom you've had a relationship for at least three months. Identify this friend and provide a brief description of your relationship. Next, evaluate your relationship in terms of social exchange theory. Make sure to include as many parts of the theory as you can.
answer
My friend that i met this year when coming to state is a really good guy. I work with him at Chick Fil A and he shares many of the same values i do. We joke and laugh and have many of the same interests. In relation to the social-exchange theory, i would say that having him as my friend is both beneficial and joyful. He helps me out when i need it and i help him out when he needs it. Basically, the rewards of this friendship greatly outweigh the costs that i put into it. It is very beneficial to continue my friendship with him.
question
Your place of work enforces the policy that indicates, If you show up for work 1 minute late you can be penalized. However, your boss often shows up late. This sitatuion is best explained by which concept. Select one: a. power is context specific b. principle of scarce resources c. principle of the least interested d. prerogative principle
answer
d. prerogative principle
question
Which of the following statements about opposite-sex friendships is NOT true? Select one: a. They provide men a chance to be emotionally expressive and women a chance to engage in shared activities. b. They often contain some degree of sexual or physical attraction. c. According to one study, about half of college students engage in sexual behavior with their opposite-sex friends. d. They are almost always closer than same-sex friendships.
answer
d. They are almost always closer than same-sex friendships.
question
According to Gottman, people engage in this behavior when they insult each other and attack each other's self worth: Select one: a. contempt b. defensiveness c. criticism d. stonewalling
answer
a. contempt
question
When you establish a friendship with a supervisor at work, it is a good idea to establish _______________ to prevent potential problems. Select one: a. ground rules b. a friendship pact c. safe words d. relational commitment
answer
a. ground rules
question
This occurs when one partner expresses a substantially higher level of interest in the relationship than the other: Select one: a. obsessive relational intrusion b. stalking c. codependency d. equitable relationship exchange
answer
a. obsessive relational intrusion
question
An impervious response is one that ignores the person to whom you are responding. Select one: True False
answer
T
question
Couples tend to progress through the stages of coming together in the same time frame. Select one: True False
answer
F
question
______________ is the ability to manipulate, influence, or control other people or events. Select one: a. conflict b. fear c. power d. coercion
answer
c. power
question
Jordan wants to feel emotionally close to his girlfriend but he also wants to make his own decisions. Which dialectical tension is he experiencing? Select one: a. openness-closedness b. revelation-concealment c. novelty-predictability d. autonomy-connectedness
answer
d. autonomy-connectedness
question
Which of the following represents a peer relationship for you? Select one: a. a graduate student instructor who teaches a class you're taking b. your sister because you are siblings in the same family c. your boss because he works at the same company as you do d. your parents because you are from the same family
answer
b. your sister because you are siblings in the same family
question
Which of the following is NOT an emotional reward commonly associated with close relationships? Select one: a. comfort b. happiness c. emotional continuity d. empathy
answer
c. emotional continuity
question
In the ______________ stage of friendship, people begin to think of themselves as friends and their communication becomes more personal. Select one: a. friendly relations b. moves toward friendship c. nascent friendship d. stabilized friendship
answer
c. nascent friendship
question
During which of Knapp's stages of relationship termination do couples decrease both the quality and frequency of their interactions? Select one: a. differentiation b. termination c. circumscribing d. stagnating
answer
c. circumscribing
question
Felix had been angry with his roommate Hector for some time. Hector was always playing his music so loudly that Felix couldn't concentrate, much less have a conversation on the telephone. Despite his anger, he hadn't expressed his feelings to Hector. Which of the following is true of this situation? Select one: a. Hector and Felix are engaged in conflict because Felix's anger is sufficient to produce conflict. b. Hector and Felix are not engaged in conflict because the source of their conflict is not interpersonal. c. Hector and Felix are engaged in conflict because conflict can exist "under the surface" for some time. d. Hector and Felix are not engaged in conflict because conflict must be expressed.
answer
d. Hector and Felix are not engaged in conflict because conflict must be expressed.
question
Explain in detail the 4 family communication patterns discussed in the lecture and clearly give examples of the pattern that best represents your family. Please only answer if you were in class to learn the family communication patterns.
answer
The four family communication patterns i wrote down are Family Roles, Family Rituals, Family Secrets, and Family Stores.
question
This conflict-management strategy involves a high concern for the other party but a low concern for the self: Select one: a. collaborating b. accommodating c. avoiding d. compromising
answer
b. accommodating
question
To qualify as conflict, a struggle or disagreement has to be expressed. Select one: True False
answer
T
question
Which of the following statements about friendships is NOT true? Select one: a. Friendships are voluntary. b. Friendships are governed by rules. c. Friendships are the same in both sexes. d. Friendships usually occur between peers.
answer
c. Friendships are the same in both sexes.
question
When Kim described how her weekend plans fell apart, Dean said, "Not everything goes the way you want; that's life." Bret said, "I'm sorry your plans fell through; you must be disappointed." The difference between Dean and Bret's messages is reflected in which of Gibb's message types? Select one: a. control vs. problem orientation b. neutrality vs. empathy c. superiority vs. equality d. strategy vs. spontaneity
answer
b. neutrality vs. empathy
question
This strategy for giving non-evaluative feedback involves asking questions that will give you more information about what the person is expecting: Select one: a. paraphrasing b. probing c. priming d. offering support
answer
b. probing
question
Which of the following is true with respect to interpersonal conflict? Select one: a. It involves independent parties. b. It involves perceived scarce resources. c. It occurs within oneself. d. It is synonymous with disagreement.
answer
b. It involves perceived scarce resources.
question
If you try hard enough, you can resolve any conflict. Select one: True False
answer
T
question
Stonewalling involves seeing yourself as a victim and denying responsibility for your own behaviors. Select one: True False
answer
F
question
In this marriage type, spouses adopt conventional gender roles and tend to avoid conflict: Select one: a. traditional b. separate c. independent d. mixed
answer
b. separate
question
When you meet Carrie, you are drawn to her as a friend because she is an excellent piano player, just like you are. That is an example of what form of attraction? Select one: a. social attraction b. physical attraction c. competence attraction d. task attraction
answer
d. task attraction
question
The goal of collaboration is to identify a "win-win" solution to a conflict. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
The disinhibition effect suggests that online conflicts are more likely to involve inequitable distributions of power than face-to-face conflicts. Select one: True False
answer
F
question
This reflects the resources we put into a relationship: Select one: a. interdependence b. investment c. commitment d. independence
answer
b. investment
question
People in arranged marriages are usually unhappy with their relationship. Select one: True False
answer
F
question
Which of the following statements about relationships with clients at work is correct? Select one: a. A good relationship with clients is the single greatest predictor of job satisfaction. b. Companies often encourage their employees to develop close, personal friendships with their clients to help sales. c. Having friendships with clients reduces some of the pressure or expectation related to job performance. d. Close friendships with clients can put workers in an uncomfortable or unethical position.
answer
d. Close friendships with clients can put workers in an uncomfortable or unethical position.
question
According to equity theory, it's better to be equally benefited than to be overbenefited. Select one: True False
answer
T
question
The most distressed relationships are those with the most frequent conflict. Select one: True False
answer
F
question
Jon recently stopped a conflict with his girlfriend, Ana, and said to her, "You don't know how to have a disagreement without losing your temper and swearing!" Ana replied, "Well at least I want to confront the issues instead of avoiding them!" Jon and Ana's exchange is an example of: Select one: a. the content dimension of conflict b. the relational dimension of conflict c. meta-conflict d. pseudoconflict
answer
c. meta-conflict
question
Which step for managing conflict involves imangined interaction? Select one: a. preparation b. resolve the problem c. make a date to discuss the conflict d. interpersonal confrontatoin
answer
a. preparation
question
Friendships and other social relationships often involve this type of rewards: Select one: a. emotional b. material c. health d. all of these
answer
d. all of these
question
Which of the following is one of the friendship rules identified in a study by communication researchers Argyle and Henderson? Select one: a. Protect your friend from potential threats. b. Don't tell your friend information that might hurt his or her feelings. c. Don't be jealous of your friend's other friends. d. Routinely tell your friend that you care about him or her.
answer
c. Don't be jealous of your friend's other friends.
question
Janice and Stephanie have been close friends for some time. When Stephanie recently lost her job, she couldn't afford her rent anymore and was on the verge of homelessness. Janice invited her to stay in her guest room for as long as needed. While there, Stephanie does a little of the cooking. According to equity theory, which of the following statements about this relationship scenario is true? Select one: a. Stephanie is currently over-benefited in their relationship. b. Stephanie is investing less in their relationship than Janice right now. c. This relationship will survive a period of brief inequity as long as long-term equity is maintained. d. All of these statements are true.
answer
d. All of these statements are true.
question
Why is the discussion of routine, mundane tasks important to consider in long-term romantic relationships? Select one: a. Most of the communication that takes place in these relationships falls in this category. b. How to handle these issues can become a major issue of contention. c. The way couples handle these tasks reflects the balance of power in their relationship. d. All of these.
answer
d. All of these.
question
Elizabeth and Aaron had been married for six months when Elizabeth started to feel dissatisfied in their relationship. Although Aaron was a nice person and fun to be around, he didn't do any of the cooking or cleaning despite the fact that both of them worked full time. Elizabeth's dissatisfaction was likely due to the fact that: Select one: a. Aaron exhibited a lack of commitment in his behavior. b. Elizabeth expected an equitable investment in household chores from Aaron. c. Aaron was enjoying too much interdependence in their relationship. d. Elizabeth was conflicted by her own dialectical tensions between work and home.
answer
b. Elizabeth expected an equitable investment in household chores from Aaron.
question
Which of the following statements about potential health benefits of relationships is true? Select one: a. People with more social contacts put themselves at greater risk for illnesses like a cold. b. People with strong social networks are more than twice as likely to survive a heart attack. c. A lack of social relationships increases the risk of mortality, but not on the same level as smoking, heart disease, or obesity. d. When friends share their problems with us, it increases our stress and can actually make us less healthy.
answer
b. People with strong social networks are more than twice as likely to survive a heart attack.
question
According to Gottman's couple typology, this type of couple handles disagreements in a way that is open, but discussions tend to be competitive rather than cooperative. Select one: a. validating b. volatile c. conflict-avoidant d. hostile
answer
b. volatile
question
Which type of sexual harassment includes requesting romantic or sexual favors in return for preferential treatment at work? Select one: a. hostile work environment b. sexual bargaining c. quid pro quo d. harassing requests
answer
c. quid pro quo
question
Which of the following statements about similarity is NOT true? Select one: a. Forming relationships with people unlike ourselves is more interesting and enjoyable. b. Forming relationships with people like ourselves is socially validating. c. Genetically, we are inclined to help people who are similar to ourselves. d. Spending time with people like ourselves makes us feel better about ourselves.
answer
a. Forming relationships with people unlike ourselves is more interesting and enjoyable.
question
Referent power derives from one's admiration for, and attraction to, another. Select one: True False
answer
T
question
This form of power derives from the ability to punish: Select one: a. legitimate power b. expert power c. referent power d. coercive power
answer
d. coercive power
question
A relationship between a person of higher power and a person of lesser power is known as: Select one: a. a symmetrical relationship b. a deficit relationship c. a contemporary relationship d. a complementary relationship
answer
d. a complementary relationship
question
Gottman has discovered that satisfied couples maintain this ratio of positive to negative communication: Select one: a. 5:1 b. 8:1 c. 14:1 d. 1:1
answer
a. 5:1
Conflict
Conflict Theory
Inheritance
IPC online quiz questions – Flashcards 13 terms

Deacon Kirby
13 terms
Preview
IPC online quiz questions – Flashcards
question
Which of the following is true with respect to interpersonal conflict?
answer
It involves perceived scarce resources
question
According to deception research, which of the following behavioral changes is a reliable cue to deception?
answer
decreased gesturing
question
When spouses engage in the demand-withdraw pattern, who is most likely to demand and withdraw?
answer
Women are most likely to demand; men are most likely to withdraw.
question
Concept of flooding
answer
Flooding happens when someone engaged in conflict is emotionally or psychologically unable to engage the discussion further.
question
14. Research indicates that the average person can detect deception approximately what percentage of the time?
answer
55%
question
How do researchers study deceptive behaviors in cross-cultural environments?
answer
They focus their research on the speakers nonverbal cues
question
Jon recently stopped a conflict with his girlfriend, Ana, and said to her, "You don't know how to have a disagreement without losing your temper and swearing!" Ana replied, "Well at least I want to confront the issues instead of avoiding them!" Jon and Ana's exchange is an example of:
answer
Meta-conflict
question
Reframing a conflict
answer
Thinking of conflict as a game if you traditionally think of it as a battle.
question
In her diary study, communication scientist Sandra Metts found that almost half of people's deception attempts involved this form of deception:
answer
Falsification
question
Felix had been angry with his roommate Hector for some time. Hector was always playing his music so loudly that Felix couldn't concentrate, much less have a conversation on the telephone. Despite his anger, he hadn't expressed his feelings to Hector. Which of the following is true of this situation?
answer
Hector and felix are not engaged in conflict bc conflict much be expressed
question
Othello
answer
A listener is so suspicious that he or she doubts someone else's truthful statement.
question
What is meant by the phrase "deception can serve as a social lubricant?"
answer
People commonly engage in deception to avoid hurting others' feelings.
question
Research shows that three issues top the list as sources of conflict in romantic relationships. Which of the following is NOT among them?
answer
Relationships with in-laws
Conflict Theory
Nurs 343 Ch. 34 – Flashcards 49 terms

David Dunn
49 terms
Preview
Nurs 343 Ch. 34 – Flashcards
question
Conflict
answer
a disagreement between two or more people or groups
question
Closed group
answer
a group in which membership is restricted: no new members are added when others leave.
question
Catharsis
answer
intense feelings, as judged by the member, are shared.
question
Feedback
answer
letting group members know how they affect each other.
question
Group
answer
two or more people who come together for the purpose of pursuing common goals and/or interests.
question
Group Content
answer
all that is said in the group.
question
Group Norms
answer
expectations for behavior in the group that develop overtime and provide structure for members (e.g. starting on time, not interrupting)
question
Group Process
answer
the dynamics of interaction among the members (e.g. who talks to whom, facial expressions and body language)
question
Group Psychotherapy
answer
a specialized treatment intervention in which a trained leader establishes a group for the purpose of treating patients with psychiatric disorders.
question
Group Themes
answer
members' expressed ideas or feelings that recur and have a common thread.
question
Group Work
answer
a method whereby individuals with a common purpose come together and benefit by both giving a receiving feedback with the dynamic and unique context of group life.
question
Open Groups
answer
a group in which new members are added as others leave.
question
Psycho-educational Groups
answer
groups set up to increase knowledge or skills about a specific somatic or psychological subject and allow members to communicate emotional concerns.
question
Support Groups/Self-help groups
answer
structured for the purpose of providing patients with the opportunity to maintain or enhance personal and social functioning through cooperation and shared understanding of life's changes.
question
Therapeutic factor
answer
aspects of the group experience that leaders and members have identified as facilitating therapeutic change.
question
Characteristics of groups
answer
Size Defined purpose Degree of similarity of members Rules Boundaries Climate Apparent content
question
Advantages of group therapy
answer
Cost effective for more clients Members feel less isolated Members receive peer feedback Groups teach more problem solving approaches Members learn about functional roles in groups
question
Disadvantages to groups
answer
Privacy can be compromised Some clients cannot share intimate feelings or thoughts in a group Some members may not feel that they are receiving attention if another member is more active
question
Exclusion from groups
answer
Acutely psychotic or manic Those who are cognitively impaired with dementia or intoxicated.
question
Phases of group development
answer
1. Initial 2. Working 3. Mature 4. Termination
question
3 styles of group leadership
answer
Autocratic Democratic Laissez-faire
question
Therapeutic factors common to all groups
answer
Universality-one is not alone in one's situation Instillation of hope Imparting information Altruism Corrective recapitulation Developing social skills Imitative behavior Interpersonal learning Group cohesiveness Catharsis Existential factors
question
Interpersonal learning after trust is established
answer
Group cohesiveness Catharsis Existential resolution-learn to accept painful aspects of life
question
Challenging client behaviors
answer
The monopolizer The complainer who refuses help The demoralizer The silent client
question
The nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient would not be appropriate to consider for group therapy? The patient who: 1. has limited financial resources. 2. is acutely manic. 3. has few friends on the unit. 4. does not speak up often, yet listens to others.
answer
is acutely manic.
question
The nurse tells group members that they will be working on expressing conflicts during the current group session. Which phase of group development is represented? 1. Formation phase 2. Orientation phase 3. Working phase 4. Termination phase
answer
Working phase
question
Group members are having difficulty deciding what topic to cover in today's session. Which nurse leader response reflects autocratic leadership? 1. "We are talking about fear of rejection today." 2. "Let's go around the room and make suggestions for today's topic." 3. "I will let you come to a conclusion together about what to talk about." 4. "I'll work with you to find a suitable topic for today."
answer
"We are talking about fear of rejection today."
question
The nurse is planning care which will include a dual-diagnosis group. Which patient would be appropriate for this group? The patient with: 1. depression and suicidal tendencies. 2. anxiety and frequent migraine headaches. 3. bipolar disorder and anorexia nervosa. 4. schizophrenia and alcohol abuse.
answer
schizophrenia and alcohol abuse.
question
A patient continues to dominate the group conversation despite having been asked to allow others to speak. What is the most appropriate nursing response? 1. "You are monopolizing the conversation." 2. "When you talk constantly, it makes everyone feel angry." 3. "You are supposed to allow others to talk also." 4. "When you speak out of turn, I feel concerned that others cannot participate equally."
answer
"When you speak out of turn, I feel concerned that others cannot participate equally."
question
The phase of group therapy in which the group deals with feelings associated with separation and loss is A. orientation. B. working. C. termination. D. post-termination.
answer
termination.
question
When a group member supports and encourages another group member and thus feels 'good' about doing so, the group phenomenon at work is A. altruism. B. ventilation. C. universality. D. group acceptance.
answer
altruism.
question
A client has recently been treated for prostate cancer. The nurse suggests that talking with others who have had similar problems might be helpful. The type of group most useful to the client would be A. a cognitive-behavioral group. B. a time-limited group. C. a support group. D. a milieu group.
answer
a support group.
question
The group goals are to learn to express feelings comfortably rather than keep them covert. S, a group member, let's the group know how expressing these feelings makes her feel. This dynamic is called A. group content. B. confrontation. C. subgrouping. D. feedback.
answer
feedback.
question
A democratic group leadership style is most appropriate for a group: A. that meets for 30 minutes to discuss unit rules B. focused on creating meaningful trauma-related artwork C. psychotherapy group directed towards anger management D. that is responsible for organizing the unit holiday celebration
answer
psychotherapy group directed towards anger management
question
The nurse reading a group protocol notes that it is a closed group and understands that A. discussion topics will be restricted. B. membership is limited to one sex. C. no new members are added. D. the group is cohesive.
answer
no new members are added.
question
The phase most influenced and managed by the group leader is: A. orientation B. working C. termination D. post termination
answer
orientation
question
Self-help and support groups are least influenced by the premise that A. professional leadership is inappropriately expensive for treatment of minor problems. B. people who have had a particular problem can help others with the same problem. C. promotion of dialogue, self-disclosure, and encouragement can produce change in members. D. Self-help and support groups are designed to serve people with a common problem.
answer
professional leadership is inappropriately expensive for treatment of minor problems.
question
At what point in the life of a group lasting 12 sessions should confidentiality be explained and discussed? A. At the first session B. During session 4, as the working phase begins C. During session 12, as the group terminates D. At the time each client is interviewed so as not to waste group time
answer
At the first session
question
A treatment group that a novice psychiatric nurse is likely to be assigned to lead is: A. group psychotherapy B. medication education C. dialextical behavior treatment D. art therapy group
answer
medication education
question
At what phase of group development would the nurse hear the following interchange? Client 1: "I do not feel comfortable here." Client 2: "I wonder what we are supposed to talk about." Client 3: "Let's ask the leader to explain things again." A. Preorientation B. Orientation C. Working D. Termination
answer
Orientation
question
K tells the group "I think the committee saw how unsure of myself I am. I felt all shaky inside during the promotion interview, just like I am feeling and acting right now." To present reality the leader should A. remain silent and nod slightly to signal that K should continue. B. say "K, tell us more about how you are feeling." C. ask "Does this shaky feeling occur often?" D. ask the group to give K feedback about how he appears to them.
answer
ask the group to give K feedback about how he appears to them.
question
M tells the group "I have so many problems in my life that it is hard to know where to begin." The leader suggests "Choose the problem that is troubling you most at this time and tell us about it." The leader is promoting A. insight. B. focusing. C. reframing. D. feedback.
answer
focusing
question
C had planned to bring up the topic of his angry feelings toward his brother at the group meeting. However, M seemed distraught and on the verge of tears. C noticed M's distress and said "It looks as though you need the floor to tell us what is so upsetting to you." C's action can be assessed as showing A. reality testing. B. universality. C. ventilation. D. altruism.
answer
altruism.
question
A, B, and C always sit together during the group meetings. They are seen to look at one another and nod or smirk as others are talking. Whenever one of them expresses an opinion the others are quick to support the opinion. The leader can assess this behavior as A. altruistic. B. universality. C. subgrouping. D. contingency seeking.
answer
subgrouping.
question
During group, D tells of the pain she experienced when her child was killed in an automobile accident. F mentions that she, too, experienced the pain of losing a child in an accidental drowning. F comments on the fact that the pain lessens over time, even though in the beginning one cannot believe it will. Sharing similar experiences is a curative factor identified by Yalom as A. universality. B. ventilation. C. reenactment. D. recapitulation.
answer
universality.
question
A nurse is the leader for a medication group for bipolar clients. The group is 5 weeks in length. No new clients will be added as the group progresses. The group is A. open. B. homogeneous. C. heterogeneous D. closed.
answer
closed.
question
A key quality indicator that might be identified for successful outcome in a medication education group could be clients will A. state they liked the leader. B. demonstrate a bond between members of the group. C. describe modes of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases. D. confer with health care provider before changing medication regimen.
answer
confer with health care provider before changing medication regimen.
question
The nurse leader of a cognitive therapy group for persons with dysphasia would use the technique of A. negative reinforcement. B. conflict suppression. C. clarification. D. flooding to desensitize a client to anxiety.
answer
clarification.
question
P has been a member of the therapy group for 4 weeks and has said nothing during the sessions. A strategy the leader may use to encourage him to speak during a session is A. "P, you are letting the group down when you fail to contribute." B. "P, what do you have to say about what just happened?" C. "By now, P, you must be feeling safe enough to enter the discussion." D. "What are you thinking, P?"
answer
"What are you thinking, P?"
Abnormal Psychology
AP Psychology
Conflict Theory
Mirror Image Perceptions
Psychology
Flashcards and Answers – Social Psychology Final 265 terms

Shelby Arnold
265 terms
Preview
Flashcards and Answers – Social Psychology Final
question
Conflict is defined as: a) perceived incompatibility of actions or goals. b) dissatisfaction with relationship outcomes. c) hostility that results from frustrating interaction
answer
A
question
The occurrence of conflict in any relationship A. is usually a sign of lack of motivation. B. can stimulate improved human relations. C. is a necessary evil of human interaction. D. necessarily signifies an incompatibility of goals.
answer
B
question
The outcome of creatively managed conflict is A. satisfaction. B. peace. C. accord. D. compliance.
answer
B
question
Peace is defined as A. surface calmness. B. the suppression of open conflict. C. the absence of conflict. D. the outcome of creatively managed conflict.
answer
D
question
Christina and Massimo have been saving money since they got married. Now Massimo wants to buy a new car, but Christina wants to continue saving for a new house. Massimo and Christina A. are experiencing conflict. B. are experiencing dissonance. C. have mirror-image perceptions. D. are developing superordinate goals.
answer
A
question
Pursuing one's self-interest to the collective detriment of one's community or society is the central pattern in A. mirror-image perception. B. the jigsaw problem. C. perceived injustice. D. a social dilemma.
answer
D
question
Some individuals have many children so that they can ensure someone will take care of them in the future. However, this contributes to the collective devastation of overpopulation. This is an example of A. mirror-image perception. B. the jigsaw problem. C. perceived injustice. D. a social dilemma.
answer
D
question
In the Prisoner's Dilemma, if both prisoners confess, each will get a _______; if neither confesses, each will _______. A. moderate sentence; get a light sentence B. severe sentence; get a light sentence C. severe sentence; go free D. moderate sentence; get a severe sentence
answer
A
question
In playing the laboratory version of the Prisoner's Dilemma, you would personally obtain the best payoff on any given trial if you _______ and the other person _______. A. confess; does not confess B. confess; confesses C. do not confess; confesses D. do not confess; does not confess
answer
A
question
If an attorney creates a Prisoner-like Dilemma for two suspects, the attorney's goal is to A. trick either one of them into revealing what really happened. B. create an incentive for one of them to confess while the other maintains innocence. C. create an incentive for both of them to confess privately. D. achieve the greatest punishment for both suspects.
answer
C
question
In small groups - as opposed to large ones - individuals are A. more likely to take more than their equal share. B. less anonymous and thus less cooperative. C. less likely to take more than their equal share. D. more open about their conflicts.
answer
C
question
Which of the following is NOT an effect of rules and regulations in modern societies? A. safeguards on our common good B. reduction in social dilemmas C. diminished personal freedom D. increased personal freedom
answer
D
question
When individuals consume more than their share, and the cost of doing so is dispersed among all, the result is called A. greed. B. environmental devastation. C. overconsumption. D. the tragedy of the commons.
answer
D
question
In the tragedy of the commons, the "commons" refers to A. disputed border territory. B. stolen goods or winnings. C. any jointly used, finite resource. D. private property that repeatedly changes ownership.
answer
C
question
In real life, which of the following parallels the tragedy of the commons? A. pollution of rivers and streams B. gun control C. the death penalty D. online auctions
answer
A
question
Despite official government warnings of a severe water shortage, most citizens fail to conserve in the belief that their personal water consumption will have little effect on the community's total water supply. The eventual depletion of the community's water resources provides an example of A. mirror-image perceptions. B. individualistic calamity. C. the tragedy of the commons. D. rational disaster.
answer
C
question
Sato (1987) gave Japanese students opportunities to harvest trees in a simulated forest for money. When the students equally shared the costs of planting the forest, the result was that A. most of the trees were left to grow too tall for harvesting because the students bickered about the criterion to be used in sharing profits. B. most of the trees were harvested before they had grown to the most profitable size. C. none of the trees were harvested because the collectivist students did not want to be the first to ask for his or her share. D. students made maximum profit not only for themselves individually but for the group.
answer
B
question
Facing the recurring dilemma of cookie-jar depletion within 24-hours of its being re-stocked, Mom and Dad decide to do something. What strategy will be most effective? A. Do not allow family members to talk to one another about how many cookies they eat. B. Restrict each family member to just two cookies per day. C. Stop buying cookies. D. Call a family meeting and scold everyone for eating too many cookies.
answer
B
question
In the commons dilemma, people often consume more than they realize when A. others take on a cooperative strategy. B. resources are not partitioned. C. the "commons" is divided into equal parts. D. everyone cooperates.
answer
B
question
Consistent with what is known about how the common's dilemma operates, people are most likely to take a disproportionate share of food when the A. cookie jar is filled every week. B. cookie jar is not filled every week. C. food is a bowl of mashed potatoes being passed around. D. food is a platter of ten chicken wings that are being passed around.
answer
C
question
Which of the following is NOT a feature shared by both the Prisoner's Dilemma and the Commons Dilemma? A. One party's wins necessarily equals the other party's losses. B. Participants tend to commit the fundamental attribution error. C. Participants' motives change in the course of the entrapment. D. Both are non-zero-sum games.
answer
A
question
Attempting to explain one's own behavior situationally is a characteristic of A. the Prisoner's Dilemma. B. the Commons Dilemma. C. both dilemmas. D. neither dilemma.
answer
C
question
Attempting to explain other's behavior dispositionally is a characteristic of A. the Prisoner's Dilemma. B. the Commons Dilemma. C. both dilemmas. D. neither dilemma.
answer
C
question
In both the Prisoner's Dilemma and the Commons Dilemma, people are tempted to explain their own behavior _______ and others' behavior _______. A. situationally; situationally B. dispositionally; dispositionally C. situationally; dispositionally D. dispositionally; situationally
answer
C
question
Which one of the following is an example of a non-zero-sum game? A. the Prisoner's Dilemma B. the Commons Dilemma C. both the Prisoner's and the Commons Dilemmas D. neither the Prisoner's nor the Commons Dilemmas
answer
C
question
In a non-zero-sum game A. both can win and both can lose. B. one side wins and the other loses. C. one's gains equal another's losses. D. altruistic motives dominate.
answer
A
question
In Sherif's research, the camper groups became hostile towards each other when A. they learned of the other group's existence. B. the two groups first met. C. when competition between the groups was introduced. D. when competition between the groups ended.
answer
C
question
A common excuse for noncooperation is A. "I couldn't have made a difference anyway." B. "The devil made me do it." C. "That's unfair." D. "Cooperation is for the weak and cowardly."
answer
A
question
The smaller the commons, the more A. responsibility each person feels for it. B. intense the conflict among individual members. C. apathetic people are about its preservation. D. the more likely communication will take the form of intimidation and deception.
answer
A
question
The relationship between the size of a commons and a person's feeling of responsibility for it is A. positive. B. negative. C. neutral. D. curvilinear.
answer
b
question
Research on laboratory dilemmas reveals that cooperation is facilitated if A. one person is 100% cooperative. B. the opponents can communicate with one another. C. the game is changed into a zero-sum game. D. the size of the payoffs is increased.
answer
B
question
In research on social dilemmas, it has been found that group discussion A. polarized competitive tendencies. B. had no effect on the outcome. C. led to greater cooperation and better outcomes for all participants. D. led to escalated conflict and tension.
answer
C
question
Which of the following is cited in the text as an example of changing payoffs to resolve social dilemmas? A. allowing carpoolers to drive in the faster, freeway lane B. requiring carpool cars and vans to park in special, larger parking lots farther away from the office building C. lowering the price of gasoline well below $1 per gallon D. raising the price of gasoline well above $5 per gallon
answer
A
question
According to research, it seems that just knowing about the dire consequences of noncooperation in a social dilemma A. is sufficient to convince people to behave cooperatively. B. leads to greater mistrust of others. C. tends to foster greater self-interest and competition. D. has little real effect on people's behavior.
answer
D
question
At the beginning of 2000, people were aware that global warming was already occurring, yet they were also buying gas-slurping SUVs in record numbers. This is an example of A. greed. B. overconsumption. C. how knowing good does not always lead to doing good. D. how important status is to so many people.
answer
C
question
Which of the following is cited in the text as a method for resolving social dilemmas? A. communication B. punishment C. increasing group size D. competition
answer
A
question
Which of the following is NOT cited in the text as a method for resolving social dilemmas? A. regulation B. making the group smaller C. communication D. competition
answer
D
question
Mio (1993) and her colleagues found that after reading about the commons dilemma, theater patrons A. littered less. B. demanded reserved seats. C. were more likely to assist a handicapped person find a seat. D. spent more on theater refreshments.
answer
A
question
As Sherif noted, despite the fact that the behavior of the boys in the warring camps seemed "wicked, disturbed, and vicious," what actually triggered their evil behavior was A. their leaders' modeling of aggression. B. their delinquent backgrounds. C. their ethnic identities. D. an evil situation.
answer
D
question
Esses and his colleagues (2004) found that competition breeds conflict when A. people perceive that resources are limited and available on a non-zero-sum basis. B. there is no distinct outgroup. C. the ingroup is dominant. D. communication is facilitated.
answer
A
question
Equity exists when A. rewards are distributed in proportion to individuals' contributions. B. partners share equally in the rewards of collective effort. C. rewards are distributed in relation to individuals' needs or deservingness. D. group members decide among themselves how rewards should be distributed.
answer
A
question
Before they married, Melinda and Michael, who are both employed full time and collect the same pay, agreed to share equally in routine household tasks such as cleaning and grocery shopping. In reality, Melinda is now doing about 80% of the household work. This situation is an example of A. an integrative disaster. B. an inequitable relationship. C. a social dilemma. D. a zero-sum relationship.
answer
B
question
Rodney and Ralph are twin brothers who each contributed $75 to purchase a new bicycle. Rodney rides it 75% of the time. This would be an example of A. an inequitable relationship. B. the tragedy of the commons. C. a zero-sum relationship. D. mirror-image perceptions.
answer
A
question
What does your text refer to as the "golden rule" of social justice? A. "Equity for strangers, equality for friends." B. "An eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth." C. "Care most for those in greatest need." D. "Whoever has the gold makes the rules."
answer
D
question
Some noncapitalist cultures define justice not as equity but as A. equality. B. the fulfillment of a need. C. either equality or the fulfillment of a need. D. socialism.
answer
C
question
Knowing that one's group has over-benefited can trigger A. equality. B. devaluation of others' inputs. C. heightened competition. D. retaliation.
answer
B
question
Research on the equity theory reveals that the more competent and worthy people feel, and the more they value their inputs, the A. more they will feel under-benefited. B. more they will feel rewarded equitably. C. more competition they will feel. D. higher the likelihood of misperception.
answer
A
question
One potential way to prevent conflict is to A. avoid making excess regulations. B. avoid over-communication. C. reduce excess resources. D. keep groups small.
answer
A
question
Which one of the following is NOT one of the seeds of misperception according to your text? A. the self-serving bias B. reduced competition C. the fundamental attribution error D. groupthink
answer
B
question
What do self-serving biases, group polarization, and negative stereotypes have in common? A. They illustrate the power of the situation. B. They are potential seeds of misperception. C. They illustrate that we are cognitive misers. D. They negate conflict.
answer
B
question
According to Staub and Bar-Tal (2003) all of the following are characteristics of a group in intractable conflict EXCEPT the group that A. views its own goals as supremely important. B. believes itself victimized. C. takes pride in "us" and intensely devalues "them." D. attributes similar characteristics to the other group.
answer
D
question
The misperceptions of those who are in conflict with each other, such as two nations who regard each other with suspicion and hostility, are usually A. nonreciprocal. B. unilateral. C. mutual. D. inequitable.
answer
C
question
The reciprocal views that parties in conflict often hold of one another are referred to as A. mirror-image perceptions. B. stereotypic reciprocation. C. complementary images. D. reciprocal illusions.
answer
A
question
The Republic of Fredonia believes its long-time enemy, the kingdom of Franistan, is aggressive, greedy, and impulsive. On the other hand, Franistan believes Fredonia is hostile, selfish, and unpredictable. This is an example of A. an inequitable relationship. B. a zero-sum relationship. C. mirror-image perceptions. D. reciprocal illusions.
answer
C
question
When two sides have clashing perceptions, at least one of them is misperceiving the other, and when that is the case, according to Bronfenbrenner (1960), "It is characteristic of such images that they are _______." A. self-defeating B. self-confirming C. self-handicapping D. self-monitoring
answer
B
question
Ralph White reviewed ten wars from the last century and reported that each was marked by at least one misperception. Which of the following was NOT on this list? A. underestimating the enemy's strength B. overestimating the leaders' power C. demonizing the enemy D. rationalizing one's own motives
answer
B
question
When Bush called Iraq "evil" in the buildup to the invasion, he was making which common misperception? A. underestimating the strength of one's enemy B. demonizing the enemy C. rationalizing one's own motives D. blaming the wrong people
answer
B
question
John believes that he is hardworking and that his wife Rachel is lazy. Rachel believes that she is hardworking and that John is lazy. This is an example of A. an inequitable relationship. B. mirror-image perception. C. a superordinate goal. D. a social trap.
answer
B
question
In a study by executives who were asked to describe a recent conflict, Thomas and Pondy (1977) found that 12% described the opposing party as _______ and 74% perceived themselves as _______. A. cooperative; cooperative B. intelligent; intelligent C. cooperative; competitive D. rational; competent
answer
A
question
In times of tension, such as during an international crisis, A. views of the opposing side become more simplistic. B. political statements acknowledge that each country's motives are complex. C. judgments about action are prolonged and postponed by time-consuming reevaluations. D. tendencies toward groupthink are weakened.
answer
A
question
One aspect of mirror-image perception is that one side tends to A. exaggerate their differences from their adversaries. B. see itself reflected in the way others see it. C. see the situation as the reflection of an evil situation. D. agree with the other side.
answer
A
question
Which of the following is NOT one of the four C's of peacemaking identified in the text? A. contact B. correction C. conciliation D. communication
answer
B
question
For Blacks, the most noticeable consequence of desegregated schooling is A. very short-term improvements of interracial relations. B. a reduced likelihood of attending primarily White colleges. C. the increased likelihood of living and working in integrated settings. D. a more favorable self-image.
answer
C
question
Surveys of nearly 4000 Europeans revealed that an important factor in determining whether attitudes toward a minority group will become more favorable is whether A. one has a friend who is a member of that minority group. B. the minority group tends to be submissive. C. the minority group has a history of significant accomplishment. D. the language of the minority group can be easily mastered.
answer
A
question
In order for contact between opposing racial groups to reduce conflict, the contact must A. occur in a zero-sum context. B. be structured to confer equal status on both races. C. temporarily award superior status to the minority group. D. be mediated by a third party.
answer
B
question
Gurin and her colleagues (2002) found that informal interactions enabled by ethnic diversity in college classrooms A. increase perceptions of differences among ethnic groups. B. tend to foster greater acceptance of differences among ethnic groups. C. have little effect on perceptions of differences among ethnic groups. D. tend to foster more negative perceptions of other ethnic groups.
answer
D
question
The U.S. Supreme Court's 2003 decision that racial diversity may be a criterion in admissions to colleges and universities was A. the result of counter-prejudice. B. the result of negative stereotypes. C. based on research findings that revealed that racial diversity in the classroom has positive consequences. D. based on research findings that revealed that minorities excel in diverse groups.
answer
C
question
Approval of President Bush's performance after September 11th, 2001 A. increased. B. decreased. C. stabilized. D. was unaffected.
answer
A
question
The fact that 51% of Americans approved of President Bush's performance on September 10th, 2001, and 90% of Americans approved of President Bush's performance on September 11th, 2001 is an example of A. cooperation. B. cohesiveness as a result of a common external threat. C. justification for poor performance. D. heightened paranoia.
answer
B
question
A goal that overrides people's differences from one another is called a(n) A. superior goal. B. superordinate goal. C. ingroup goal. D. independent goal.
answer
B
question
Through the use of _______, Muzafer Sherif made enemies into friends. A. contact B. superordinate goals C. bargaining D. conciliation
answer
B
question
Which of the following best illustrates a superordinate goal? A. A college student who has been failing English gets an "A" on a paper. B. A woman beats her husband at tennis. C. Apartment dwellers install a television antenna they can all use. D. An obese person loses 20 pounds in two weeks.
answer
C
question
After their town was ravaged by a disastrous tornado, two rival community groups set aside their differences and worked together on repairing the damage. This cooperation best illustrates the importance of A. mediation. B. the GRIT strategy. C. superordinate goals. D. the jigsaw technique.
answer
D
question
According to Slavin (2003), a "practical, proven method for implementing contact theory in the desegregated classroom," is A. academic competitions between different schools. B. after-school classes on race relations. C. peer support groups. D. cooperative learning.
answer
D
question
Aronson's jigsaw technique involved having elementary school children A. study in small, racially mixed teams and then compete with other teams in a class tournament. B. form academically and racially diverse groups with each member of the group becoming an expert in one area. C. role-play being members of another race for two-week periods. D. take turns telling each other about their family backgrounds in small-group discussions.
answer
B
question
By emphasizing the contribution Jackie Robinson might make to the Brooklyn Dodgers' winning the 1947 pennant, Branch Rickey used _______ to reduce racial prejudice and conflict among team members. A. a superordinate goal B. an integrative agreement C. arbitration D. the GRIT strategy
answer
A
question
According to Phinney (1990), someone who identifies with both his or her ethnic culture and the larger culture is said to have a _______ identity. A. schizophrenic B. cultural C. bicultural D. subcultural
answer
C
question
Triandis (1994) reported that _______ immigrants felt more comfortable identifying with their ethnicity than _______ immigrants. A. grandchildren of; second-generation B. second-generation; grandchildren of C. European; Asian D. Asian; European
answer
A
question
_______ occurs when conflicted parties seek an agreement through direct negotiation. A. Bargaining B. Amelioration C. Mediation D. Arbitration
answer
A
question
_______ occurs when a neutral third party attempts to facilitate communication and offer suggestions for how to resolve a conflict. A. Bargaining B. Amelioration C. Mediation D. Arbitration
answer
C
question
_______ occurs when a neutral third party studies a conflict and imposes a settlement. A. Bargaining B. Amelioration C. Mediation D. Arbitration
answer
D
question
Motto and Yoko are roommates and are experiencing a conflict about what type of cable television service is within their budget. They negotiate by having Yoko, who wanted a more expensive service, pay the remainder of the bill after both of them have paid for half of the cost of the less expensive service. What form of communication did Motto and Yoko use to resolve their conflict? A. bargaining B. amelioration C. mediation D. arbitration
answer
A
question
Vivian and Pearl, who have been a couple for many years, are having a conflict they have been unable to resolve, so they make an appointment with a counselor. The counselor helps facilitate communication between Vivian and Pearl, and offers suggestions for dealing with future conflicts. What form of communication have they used to resolve their conflict? A. bargaining B. amelioration C. mediation D. arbitration
answer
C
question
A mediator seeks to achieve a mutually beneficial resolution by having the parties adopt a _______ orientation. A. carefree B. win-lose C. win-win D. submissive
answer
C
question
Mediators seek to establish _______ agreements that reconcile both parties' interests to their mutual benefit. A. arbitrated B. integrative C. mirror-image D. zero-sum
answer
B
question
Ahmed and Fatima, two teenage siblings, are fighting over the evening newspaper. Knowing Ahmed only wants the sports section and Fatima only wants the latest stock quotations, their mother takes the paper and gives each the section containing the news of interest. In this case the mother arrived at a(n) A. mutual compromise. B. cooperative settlement. C. enlightened consensus. D. integrative agreement.
answer
D
question
According to conflict researchers, you are more likely to divulge your needs and concerns if your relationship with your partner includes A. mediation. B. trust. C. passion. D. the threat of withdrawal.
answer
B
question
David and Julie fought over what to name their new puppy, until finally they went to their children for a decision. David and Julie relied on _______ to resolve their conflict. A. mediation B. bargaining C. conciliation D. arbitration
answer
D
question
Factory workers want a pay rate of $15 per hour and management offers $12 per hour. After weeks of conflict, they agree to have a third party set the pay scale. After hearing both sides, the third party sets the rate at $14. This is an example of resolving conflict through A. bargaining. B. arbitration. C. mediation. D. conciliation.
answer
B
question
Osgood's (1980) GRIT strategy is an alternative that best fits into the _______ category of the "four C's of peacemaking." A. contact B. conciliation C. communication D. correction
answer
B
question
Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in Osgood's (1980) GRIT strategy? A. Build up first-strike capability to negotiate from a position of strength. B. Announce your conciliatory intent. C. Carry out several verifiable conciliatory acts. D. Maintain retaliatory capability.
answer
A
question
Disputing groups usually prefer to settle their differences A. with arbitration. B. without mediation. C. without arbitration. D. without bargaining.
answer
B
question
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic that conflict expert Deutsch (1993) advises negotiators to exhibit? A. fairness B. firmness C. friendliness D. sympathy
answer
D
question
The communitarian synthesis emphasizes A. individualist values. B. collectivist values. C. both individualist and collectivist values. D. neither individualist nor collectivist values.
answer
C
question
The study, assessment, and treatment of people with psychological difficulties is known as A. developmental psychology. B. comparative psychology. C. social psychology. D. clinical psychology.
answer
D
question
Chapman and Chapman had college students and professional clinicians study the relationship between patients' test performances and diagnoses. They found that A. if students or clinicians expected a particular association, they perceived it, regardless of whether the data was supportive. B. students and clinicians only saw relationships that were supported by the data. C. professional clinicians were more accurate than students in assessing relationships. D. students and clinicians only recognized positive relationships if the actual correlations were greater than 0.75.
answer
A
question
Myers suggests that clinicians may continue to have confidence in uninformative or ambiguous tests because of human susceptibility to A. the inoculation effect. B. learned helplessness. C. the representativeness heuristic. D. illusory correlations.
answer
D
question
Following the suicide of a friend or family member, feelings of guilt are often magnified by A. illusory thinking. B. the fundamental attribution error. C. hindsight bias. D. confirmation bias.
answer
C
question
When psychologists were surveyed regarding intuition versus the scientific method, _______ were more likely to value intuition. A. clinical psychologists B. developmental psychologists C. social psychologists D. educational psychologists
answer
A
question
Rosenhan and his colleagues (1973) faked schizophrenic symptoms to infiltrate mental hospitals. Once they had been admitted and no longer complained of any fake symptoms, A. professional clinicians quickly distinguished them from the real patients and released them from the hospital. B. the clinicians sought and found evidence in their histories and behavior to confirm their admitting diagnoses. C. the pseudo-patients were ostracized by the hospital's real patients. D. the pseudo-patients absorbed their "sick" roles and developed additional symptoms in the course of their treatment.
answer
B
question
In Rosenhan's study (1973), clinicians who dealt with pseudo-patients who had faked symptoms to get into mental hospitals demonstrated the error of A. self-serving bias. B. hindsight bias. C. self-handicapping. D. overjustification.
answer
B
question
Luisa, a Freudian analyst, found that, without exception, her patients reported having dreams closely related to their emotional problems. What may best explain why the dreams and problems of Luisa's patients are so consistent with Freudian theory? A. Freud's theory is the oldest and most comprehensive of all the theories of personality. B. Freud's theory is more ambiguous than any other theory, and thus any problem fits into its framework. C. The patients are perhaps induced by Luisa to give information that is consistent with her theoretical orientation. D. Freudian psychotherapists are "true believers," and Luisa's report is an attempt to convert other therapists to her orientation.
answer
C
question
Snyder and Swann (1984) gave interviewers some hypotheses to test concerning individuals' traits, and found that people often tested for a trait by A. asking those being tested for a general self-evaluation. B. looking for information that would contradict it. C. looking for information that would confirm it. D. asking very specific questions to disprove it.
answer
C
question
April is going out on a first date with Nikos, whom her best friend says is funny and fun-loving. On the date, April asks Nikos, "What is the most fun-loving thing you've ever done?" What is the likely effect of such questioning on Nikos? A. He will act more fun-loving on the date than if not asked such questions. B. He will act more reserved and shy than if not asked such questions. C. He will resent such questions and become annoyed. D. He will try to explain that there are times when he is not fun-loving.
answer
A
question
Research indicates that when interviewers are instructed to test for a trait, they tend to ask questions that show evidence of A. the confirmation bias. B. the illusion of control. C. negative attributional styles. D. illusory correlations.
answer
A
question
When Rosenham and his research associates (1973) reported to mental hospital admissions offices that they were "hearing voices," most were A. diagnosed with schizophrenia and hospitalized for two to three weeks. B. not diagnosed with a mental illness, since they were in fact normal. C. diagnosed with schizophrenia initially but never hospitalized. D. diagnosed with schizophrenia initially, hospitalized, but then released after testing revealed that they were normal.
answer
A
question
Freudian therapists who expect to find evidence of early childhood traumas are likely to uncover such experiences among A. clients who are males. B. clients who are real victims of childhood sex abuse. C. clients who are healthy, successful adults. D. all clients.
answer
D
question
When researchers pit statistical prediction—such as predicting graduate school success using a formula that includes grades and aptitude scores—against interviewers' intuitive prediction, A. statistical prediction is usually superior to expert intuition. B. expert intuition is usually superior to statistical intuition. C. statistical prediction and expert intuition do equally well. D. both methods usually fare no better than chance.
answer
A
question
Myers suggests that we avoid the confirmation bias by A. looking for illusory correlations. B. carefully monitoring the information that is consistent with our ideas. C. considering opposing ideas and then testing them. D. discarding opposing ideas that have not been tested.
answer
C
question
Myers points out that hindsight can A. lead you to feel overconfident. B. lead you to judge yourself too harshly for not having foreseen outcomes. C. lead to both overconfidence and the tendency to judge yourself too harshly. D. be very helpful in developing hypotheses about personality traits.
answer
C
question
Research suggests that the prediction of someone's future academic success is best when the prediction is based on A. statistics. B. the judgments of trained admissions officers. C. statistics plus the judgments of trained admissions officers. D. letters of recommendation.
answer
A
question
According to the text, professional clinicians are NOT LIKELY to A. be the victims of illusory correlation. B. suffer from confirmation bias. C. consider opposing ideas and test them. D. overestimate their clinical intuition.
answer
C
question
According to the text, an important implication of the research on illusory thinking is that A. intuition has no legitimate place in the field of science. B. the scientific method is the only legitimate way to answer significant human questions. C. research psychologists must test their preconceptions before presenting them as truth. D. conventional wisdom is almost always wrong.
answer
C
question
Myers suggests that the pervasiveness of illusory thinking points to the need for a _______ study of thought and behavior. A. psychohistorical B. literary C. scientific D. humanistic
answer
C
question
Alloy and Abramson (1979) had depressed and nondepressed students observe whether pressing a button was linked with a light blinking and found that depressed students A. were too self-focused to complete the task. B. were quite accurate at assessing their control. C. exaggerated the extent of their control of the light. D. underestimated the extent of their control of the light.
answer
B
question
The work of Alloy and Abramson (1979) examined how depressed individuals view the extent of their personal control over events. Their results provided evidence of the phenomenon known as A. optimistic well-being. B. pessimistic exaggeration. C. depressive realism. D. learned helplessness.
answer
C
question
The tendency of mildly depressed people to make accurate rather than self-serving judgments is referred to as A. the accurate explanatory style. B. the Barnum effect. C. realistic pessimism. D. depressive realism.
answer
D
question
Yvonne, a college senior, is mildly depressed. Asked to describe herself, she notes both her positive and negative qualities. She recalls both past successes and failures and takes personal responsibility for both. Yvonne clearly illustrates the _______ effect. A. rose-colored-glasses B. sadder-but-wiser C. head-in-the-clouds D. feet-on-the-ground
answer
B
question
Vanessa is a mildly depressed college student. Considering the research findings presented in the text on depression, she probably A. suffers from the better-than-average phenomenon. B. assumes that her behavior is well-accepted by others. C. demonstrates the sadder-but-wiser effect. D. is below average in intelligence.
answer
B
question
Compared to depressed people, non-depressed people A. exaggerate their control of events around them. B. have realistic perceptions of the good and bad things that the future holds. C. readily accept responsibility for both successes and failures. D. describe themselves with a fairly even mix of positive and negative qualities.
answer
A
question
"Explanatory style" refers to A. the complexity of one's persuasive arguments. B. one's habitual way of explaining life events. C. the pitch and speed with which one communicates. D. whether one relies primarily on reason or emotion when debating an issue.
answer
B
question
Explaining life events in terms of factors that are stable, global, and internal is a _______ explanatory style. A. negative B. positive C. realistic D. repressive
answer
A
question
Who is more likely to exhibit a negative explanatory style? A. a teenager B. a non-depressed person C. an elderly person D. a depressed person
answer
D
question
Maxwell, a college junior, suffers from chronic depression. After learning that he has performed poorly on his chemistry test, he is most likely to say, A. "The test was not a fair assessment of what I actually know." B. "My chemistry professor does not grade his tests fairly." C. "I'm incompetent and probably always will be." D. "I am sure most people did poorly on the test."
answer
C
question
Which of the following attributions regarding a failure or a setback illustrates the global quality of a depressed person's explanatory style? A. "It's my fault." B. "It's going to last forever." C. "It's going to affect everything I do." D. "It's the same with everybody."
answer
C
question
Which of the following best illustrates an internal attribution for a failure or setback? A. "I'll never succeed." B. "This ruins everything." C. "It's my fault." D. "The whole world is against me."
answer
C
question
Which of the following does NOT belong? A. negative explanatory style B. external attribution C. global attribution D. stable attribution
answer
B
question
Which of the following attributions regarding a failure or setback illustrates the stable quality of a depressed person's explanatory style? A. "It's all my fault." B. "It's going to last forever." C. "The whole world is against me." D. "It's going to affect everything I do."
answer
B
question
Compared to nondepressed people, depressed people are more likely to attribute their failures and setbacks to causes that are A. unstable. B. specific. C. internal. D. situational.
answer
C
question
Strack and Coyne (1983) found that depressed people were realistic in thinking that other people A. possessed more accurate self-concepts than they did. B. did not appreciate their behavior. C. would welcome their friendship and trust. D. were less influenced by fear of social disapproval than they were.
answer
B
question
College students who have depressed roommates tend to become A. somewhat depressed themselves. B. more accepting of people suffering from psychological disorders. C. more optimistic about their own lives. D. more studious and committed to achieving academic success.
answer
A
question
Your roommate Joel is depressed. As a result, you will tend to become A. somewhat depressed yourself. B. more accepting of people suffering from psychological disorders. C. more optimistic about your own life. D. more studious and committed to achieving academic success.
answer
A
question
Giesler and her colleagues (1996) found that when given a choice whether to read a favorable or unfavorable assessment of their personality, depressed and high-self-esteem people made which choice? A. High-self-esteem individuals were more likely to choose the unfavorable assessment. B. Depressed individuals were more likely to choose the unfavorable assessment. C. Depressed individuals were more likely to choose the favorable assessment. D. Both groups were about 50/50 in choosing the favorable or unfavorable assessment.
answer
question
The vicious cycle of depression is usually triggered by negative experiences that lead directly to A. self-focused rumination and self-blame. B. depressed moods. C. further negative experiences. D. blaming others for the negative experiences.
answer
A
question
According to Lewinsohn and her colleagues (1985), which of the following does NOT belong in the vicious cycle of depression? A. self-focus B. self-blame C. depressed mood D. defensive pessimism
answer
D
question
Which of the following explains the relationship between depression and negative thinking? A. depressed moods cause negative thinking B. negative thinking causes depressed moods C. depression and negative thinking are unrelated in laboratory experiments D. depressed moods can cause negative thinking and negative thinking can cause depressed moods
answer
D
question
According to Seligman (2002), near-epidemic levels of depression in America today, ironically, can be blamed in part on the promotion of attitudes that say, A. "Everybody needs somebody sometime." B. "You can make it on your own." C. "You're nobody if nobody loves you." D. "Eat, drink, and be merry, for tomorrow we die."
answer
B
question
According to Seligman's (2002) analysis of the attitudes that promote near-epidemic levels of depression in America, most of us feel that, if we do not "make it" in today's world, we can blame A. our parents. B. the government. C. the alienation of the modern world. D. only ourselves.
answer
D
question
In comparison to those in Western cultures, depressed people in Japan are more likely to report feeling A. guilt and self-blame over personal failure. B. shame over letting down their family or co-workers. C. sad about social problems such as poverty and discrimination. D. hopeless and helpless.
answer
B
question
Loneliness is best described as a state created by the awareness that you A. are alone most of the time. B. have lost a significant relationship. C. have less numerous or meaningful social relationships than you desire. D. are not really respected even though you have many acquaintances.
answer
C
question
Larsen and her colleagues (1982) found that when beeped by an electronic pager at various times during a one week period and asked to record what they were doing and how they felt, _______ were most likely to report feeling lonely when alone. A. adolescents B. adults C. women D. men
answer
A
question
Chronically lonely people seem to have the same _______ as chronically depressed people. A. unrealistic vision of the future B. need to achieve perfection C. illusion of control D. negative explanatory style
answer
D
question
Chronically lonely people tend to blame _______ for their poor social relationships. A. their parents and early childhood experiences B. the uncaring attitudes of those presently around them C. themselves D. cultural patterns
answer
C
question
Which of the following statements about lonely people is FALSE? A. They perceive others in positive ways. B. They tend to be low in self-esteem. C. When talking with strangers, they spend more time talking about themselves and take less interest in the other person. D. They self-disclose quickly.
answer
A
question
According to the self-presentation theory, we will feel social anxiety when we are A. motivated to impress others but doubt our ability to do so. B. motivated and able to impress others, but they ignore us. C. in any circumstance in which we can be observed. D. depressed.
answer
A
question
Which of the following theories most clearly predicts that we will feel anxious when we are motivated to impress others but doubt our ability to do so? A. social learning theory B. self-presentation theory C. self-perception theory D. cognitive dissonance theory
answer
B
question
According to the text, shyness is a form of _______ characterized by self-consciousness and worrying about what others think. A. loneliness B. social anxiety C. depression D. social incompetence
answer
B
question
Shy people tend to A. make a good first impression. B. depersonalize social situations. C. become less well-liked over time. D. be self-conscious
answer
D
question
According to the text, labeling oneself as shy, depressed, or under the influence of alcohol can serve a(n) _______ function. A. anger-reducing B. self-handicapping C. concurrence-seeking D. group-identification
answer
B
question
Brodt and Zimbardo (1981) found that shy women who were bombarded with loud noise and told that it would leave them _______ were subsequently _______ when interacting with a handsome male. A. with a pounding heart; no longer so shy B. unaffected; no longer so shy C. with a pounding heart; even more shy D. unaffected; unaffected
answer
A
question
Brodt and Zimbardo (1981) found that shy women were no longer shy when they A. were provided an alternative explanation for their social anxiety. B. were provided alcohol before interacting with others. C. discovered that most people feel shy. D. were taught to blame their failures on circumstances beyond their control.
answer
A
question
Which of the following is an interdisciplinary field that integrates and applies behavioral and medical knowledge about health and disease? A. health psychology B. behavioral medicine C. applied psychology D. clinical psychology
answer
B
question
Psychology's contribution to the interdisciplinary field of behavioral medicine is A. clinical psychology. B. psychiatry. C. behavioral analysis. D. health psychology.
answer
D
question
Dr. Jones is a psychologist who specializes in the causes and control of stress. Dr. Jones is most likely a(n) _________ psychologist. A. consumer B. educational C. forensic D. health
answer
D
question
According to the text as well as research evidence, premenstrual syndrome (PMS) A. occurs in 6 out of 10 women. B. leads to premenstrual dysphoric disorder in 3 out of 10 women. C. has many characteristics of a socially constructed disorder. D. is a myth perpetuated by men.
answer
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. People more often seek treatment if they believe their symptoms have a physical rather than a psychological cause. B. Women are more often sick. C. Women are more likely than men to visit a physician. D. Men use fewer prescription and nonprescription drugs.
answer
B
question
People are more likely to use sunscreen or get an HIV test when the message is A. framed attractively in terms of the potential gain in doing so. B. framed negatively. C. highly arousing. D. framed in terms of shared goals.
answer
A
question
Experiments that subject animals to mild but uncontrollable electric shocks have shown that such experiences A. directly cause diseases like cancer. B. lower the body's resistance to disease. C. strengthen the animals' capacity to deal with future stressors. D. lead to the animals becoming more aggressive in interacting with members of their own species.
answer
B
question
A growing body of evidence reveals that people who undergo highly stressful experiences become A. more resistant to low-level illnesses like colds and flu. B. more vulnerable to disease. C. less self-disclosing and more socially isolated. D. stronger and more socially skilled than less stressed people.
answer
B
question
Research has reported that newlywed couples who become angry while discussing problems A. experience catharsis and have better long-term relationships with their spouses. B. are subsequently more susceptible to problems of depression and loneliness. C. suffer more immune system suppression the next day. D. are more prone to develop colon cancer in the subsequent six months.
answer
C
question
A large Swedish study has found that, compared with unstressed workers, those with a history of workplace stress A. are better prepared to deal with stress in their family lives. B. tend to have a more pessimistic explanatory style. C. are at much greater risk of developing colon cancer. D. develop stronger immune defenses.
answer
C
question
Maggie wants advice on how to cope with the stress of a new job. She would be best advised to approach her new job with a sense of A. passive resignation. B. ambition and competitiveness. C. urgency and time-consciousness. D. optimism.
answer
D
question
Which of the following is NOT an example of one of the components of a pessimistic explanatory style? A. "This is all my fault." B. "I've learned my lesson." C. "This is going to ruin everything." D. "Things are going to be terrible from now on."
answer
B
question
Peterson and Seligman (1987) analyzed the press quotes of baseball Hall of Famers and found that those who routinely offered pessimistic explanations for bad events, like losing big games, were more likely to A. earn lower salaries. B. experience divorce. C. play aggressively. D. die at younger ages.
answer
D
question
Which of the following is an example of an optimistic explanatory style? A. "My fate is out of my hands." B. "Human life is fragile." C. "I usually expect the best." D. "I rarely count on good things happening to me."
answer
C
question
Research investigating the nature of the connection between explanatory style and health has shown that people who routinely use the pessimistic style A. are more likely to experience illness. B. boost the morale of others via a contrast effect. C. also tend to be impulsive and resistant to influence. D. complain more but do not get sick more frequently than optimists.
answer
A
question
According to the text, which of the following is a social-psychological principle that can be applied to the treatment of psychological difficulties? A. attitudes-follow-behavior B. we are cognitive misers C. acceptance breeds compliance D. behavior-follows-attitudes
answer
A
question
Which of the following is NOT a therapy that utilizes the "attitudes-follow-behavior" principle? A. assertiveness training B. rational-emotive therapy C. self-help groups D. psychoanalysis
answer
D
question
Both assertiveness training and rational-emotive therapy are cited in the text as examples of psychotherapeutic techniques that A. utilize social support to change behavior. B. utilize the attitudes-follow-behavior principle. C. encourage changes in explanatory style. D. use counter-conditioning strategies.
answer
B
question
Mendonca and Brehm (1983) found that overweight children were more likely to lose weight and keep it off after an eight-week program if they A. felt responsible for choosing their weight-loss program. B. were regularly monitored and penalized for breaking rules. C. were praised and rewarded for even minor weight loss. D. had been assigned to their "least preferred" treatment program
answer
B
question
Which statement is TRUE? A. A bad marriage is often less depressing to a woman than to a man. B. Single women are happier than married women. C. Marital happiness predicts overall happiness more than finances. D. Finances predict overall happiness more than marital happiness.
answer
question
Having shy or anxious people observe, then rehearse, then try out more assertive behaviors in real situations is called A. foot-in-the-door training. B. rational-emotive therapy. C. social skills training. D. explanatory style therapy.
answer
C
question
A study by Haemmerlie and Montgomery (1986) enticed shy college men to participate in laboratory exercises that would enhance their socially competence. The men A. were taught specific communication skills. B. took a short course on positive thinking. C. delivered self-laudatory speeches to strangers. D. had several successful conversations with women.
answer
question
Research by Haemmerlie and Montgomery (1986) supported the notion that social skills training can lead shy men to A. become dependent on their therapist. B. reduce their social anxiety. C. concentrate on their social incompetence. D. become more shy 6 months after treatment.
answer
B
question
Haemmerlie and Montgomery (1986) concluded that the success of their social skills training with shy men may have occurred because their program A. employed skilled counselors who took responsibility for inspiring the men to feel confident and competent. B. included no counseling, so the participants made internal attributions for their success. C. protected the men from having to participate in actual conversations until they had first been extensively trained. D. paved the way for conversational success by providing many external reasons for initiating conversation.
answer
B
question
Maria's therapist instructed her to monitor her attributions for successes and failures. Maria is probably participating in A. assertiveness training. B. explanatory style therapy. C. stress inoculations. D. group therapy.
answer
B
question
Improvements achieved through changing thought or behavior patterns are most likely to endure if people A. redesign their behavioral contexts. B. are required to report back to their therapist on a regular basis. C. attribute such changes to factors under their own control. D. recognize that success depends on a power beyond themselves.
answer
C
question
As a result of participating in a program to help her quit smoking, Anne has not had a cigarette for three weeks. She is least likely to return to smoking if she attributes her success in quitting the habit to A. her own motivation. B. the therapist who helped her quit. C. the support of her friends. D. the unique nature of the therapeutic program.
answer
A
question
John was recently attacked and mugged on a subway. He is less likely to experience long term stress from the trauma if he A. forgets about it. B. talks about it with a friend. C. sees a doctor immediately. D. blocks it from his thoughts.
answer
B
question
According to research conducted by Cacioppo and her colleagues (2002), the relationship between loneliness and health risks is A. positive. B. negative. C. neutral. D. curvilinear.
answer
A
question
A common conclusion reached by several studies involving thousands of people is that A. close relationships predict health. B. close relationships promote stress and some forms of illness. C. family relationships are unrelated to health. D. physical health is not linked to social support.
answer
A
question
The negative correlation between poverty and health is likely caused by all of the following factors EXCEPT A. reduced material possessions. B. increased stress. C. reduced health care. D. unhealthy lifestyle.
answer
A
question
Women who had been sexually abused reported more health problems especially if they had A. not seen a therapist. B. kept their abuse secret. C. not confronted their abuser D. confronted their abuser.
answer
B
question
Which of the following is the best predictor of overall happiness? A. a satisfying job B. satisfaction with finances C. satisfaction with one's community D. satisfaction with marriage
answer
D
question
According to the text, marriage enhances happiness for which of the following reasons? A. It provides regular sex to both partners. B. It provides financial security. C. It provides multiple roles (e.g., spouse, parent) that can contribute to self-esteem. D. It provides companionship.
answer
C
question
At the University of Washington, Loftus (1979) found that eyewitnesses in a hypothetical robbery-murder case were influential A. unless their testimony was shown to be useless. B. even when their testimony was discredited. C. only if other evidence supported their story. D. only if they were similar to those making the judgments.
answer
B
question
Loftus (1979) found that when an eyewitness who had testified against the defendant in a hypothetical robbery-murder case was discredited because of having poor vision A. about half the jurors switched their votes from guilty to innocent. B. the majority of jurors still voted for conviction. C. jurors regarded the eyewitness testimony as useless and it had no impact on their verdict. D. a boomerang effect occurred with all the jurors changing their votes in favor of an acquittal.
answer
B
question
A prosecuting attorney is uncertain whether her eyewitness will seem credible to the jury. The eyewitness's testimony could help win a conviction, but the witness might be discredited by the defense attorney. What advice should the prosecutor accept? A. Put the witness on the stand, since even a discredited eyewitness is more convincing than no eyewitness at all. B. Do not put the witness on the stand, since a discredited eyewitness is worse than no eyewitness at all. C. Put the eyewitness on the stand but admit your reservations about the credibility of the witness before the defense attorney raises the issue. D. Put the witness on the stand only if he or she is attractive and similar to the jurors.
answer
A
question
Studies of eyewitness testimony indicate that A. jurors can discern whether eyewitnesses have mistakenly identified an innocent person. B. when witnessing conditions are poor, jurors do not usually believe eyewitness testimony. C. eyewitnesses who are shown to have poor eyesight have little effect on the juror's judgment. D. false eye witnesses are usually recognized by the jury.
answer
C
question
Jurors think that an eyewitness who can recall trivial details such as how many pictures were hanging in the room probably A. gained information about these details by a second visit to the crime scene. B. was paying better attention than one who recalls no details. C. was not paying attention to the culprit or the crime itself. D. is no more accurate in recalling important information than witnesses with no memory for details.
answer
B
question
Research indicates that eyewitnesses who remember trivial details of a crime scene A. also tend to overestimate the degree of harm or damage done as a result of the crime. B. also tend to be particularly suspicious of all unfamiliar faces. C. are less likely to have paid attention to the culprit's face. D. are more likely to have paid attention to the culprit's face.
answer
C
question
City police found that Mr. Caldwell, an eyewitness to a murder in a local bank, correctly remembered many trivial details of the crime scene, including the specific time on the clock and the paintings on the wall. Research findings suggest that Mr. Caldwell's recall of trivial details means A. it is more likely that he can also correctly identify the murderer. B. it is less likely that he can also correctly identify the murderer. C. nothing in terms of his ability to correctly identify the murderer. D. it is more likely that he can also correctly identify the murderer, provided Mr. Caldwell is also highly educated.
answer
B
question
A prosecuting attorney learns that a crucial eyewitness to a grocery store robbery correctly remembers trivial details of the crime scene. If the prosecutor hopes to convince the jury that the eyewitness is credible, research suggests A. he should make the jury aware of the witness's ability to remember trivial details. B. he should deliberately avoid making the jury aware of the witness's ability to remember trivial details. C. it will make no difference whether the jury knows that the witness can remember trivial details. D. he should make the jury aware of the witness's ability to remember trivial details only if the jury is composed of all males.
answer
A
question
Wells and his colleagues (2002) reported that it is the _______ eyewitnesses whom jurors find to be most believable. A. older B. younger C. confident D. emotional
answer
C
question
Of the following eyewitnesses to a crime, who would probably appear most believable to a jury? A. Teddy, a fifth-grader whose father is a lawyer B. Randy, a radio announcer who appears very confident about what he saw C. Moira, a retired teacher who has traveled widely to visit other countries D. Dawn, a shy student who smiles and speaks very softly
answer
B
question
Which of the following statements about eyewitness testimony is FALSE? A. Eyewitnesses' certainty about what they have seen is closely related to their accuracy. B. Confident witnesses are more believable to jurors than those lacking confidence. C. Incorrect witnesses are virtually as confident as correct witnesses. D. Eyewitness testimony is powerful to juries.
answer
A
question
In what we now know to be a mistake, the U.S. Supreme Court declared in 1972 that among the factors to be considered in determining an eyewitness's accuracy is "the level of _______ demonstrated by the witness." A. impartiality B. interest C. certainty D. fluency
answer
C
question
Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Eyewitnesses are often more confident than correct. B. Confident eyewitnesses are more accurate than uncertain eyewitnesses. C. Both the gender and race of eyewitnesses have been shown to correlate with their degree of accuracy. D. Eyewitnesses who pay attention to details are most likely to pay attention to the culprit's face.
answer
A
question
Studies of the misinformation effect provide a dramatic demonstration of A. memory construction. B. repressed memory. C. proactive interference. D. state-dependent memory.
answer
A
question
The process of witnessing an event, receiving misleading information about it, and then incorporating the misleading information into one's memory of the event is referred to as the _______ effect. A. false memory B. misinformation C. inoculation D. interference
answer
B
question
In the process known as the misinformation effect, individuals A. give misleading testimony in court. B. receive wrong information about an event and then incorporate that information into their memory of the event. C. purposely give wrong information to police. D. fail to remember any information following a traumatic event.
answer
B
question
After hearing a television report falsely indicating that drugs may have contributed to a recent auto accident, several eyewitnesses of the accident begin to remember the driver as traveling at a faster rate of speed than was actually the case. This provides an example of A. flashbulb memory. B. state-dependent memory. C. the serial position effect. D. the misinformation effect.
answer
D
question
Research on false memories in children find that children A. are not very confident about their memories. B. cannot reliably separate real from false memories. C. very rarely lie about their memories. D. are unlikely to make false accusations.
answer
B
question
The tendency for witnesses to incorporate misleading information into their memories is especially strong when A. suggestive questions are repeated. B. the questioner is female rather than male. C. the event was a traffic incident rather than a violent crime. D. the witness is low in need for cognition.
answer
A
question
Research on the memories of young children indicates that they A. are better at remembering verbal details than visual details. B. tend to fabricate stories about their own victimization even when asked open-ended questions. C. are especially susceptible to misinformation. D. do not react to misinformation.
answer
C
question
Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Retelling events accurately makes people less resistant to the misinformation effect. B. Rehearsing answers before taking the witness stand decreases the confidence of those who are wrong. C. Retelling events commits people to their recollections, accurate or not. D. Retelling has no effect on memory.
answer
C
question
Wells, Ferguson, and Lindsay (1981) had eyewitnesses to a staged theft rehearse their answers to questions before taking the witness stand. Doing so A. increased the accuracy of the eyewitness testimony. B. decreased the confidence of those who were correct. C. increased the confidence of those who were wrong. D. None of the choices are correct.
answer
C
question
Eyewitness testimony can be distorted or biased by which of the following? A. suggestive questions B. an eyewitnesses' own retelling of events C. whether the person is an eyewitness for the defendant or the plaintiff D. All of the choices are correct.
answer
D
question
An eyewitness gains confidence from which of the following sources? A. being the only person who saw the event B. being asked the same question repeatedly C. testifying against a person whose race is different from their own D. disliking the defendant
answer
B
question
Stan was initially uncertain about the man he identified as the burglar in a police lineup. His confidence increased, however, after A. learning that he was the only eyewitness in the case. B. being asked the same question repeatedly. C. viewing a thousand police mug shots. D. seeing the grainy, inconclusive security camera video.
answer
B
question
In Wells and Bradfield's study (1999), participants were asked to identify a gunman they had seen on video. After making a false identification but receiving confirming feedback, ___ % rated their initial certainty as very high. A. 94 B. 58 C. 34 D. 5
answer
B
question
In a police lineup, the lineup interviewer's feedback A. has no effect on the witness's confidence. B. has a very mild effect on the witness's confidence. C. has a large effect on the witness's confidence. D. is usually not believed by the witness.
answer
C
question
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for increasing the accuracy of eyewitnesses and jurors? A. Train police interviewers to elicit unbiased accounts. B. Educate jurors about the limitations of eyewitness testimony. C. Ask witnesses to scan a lineup of several suspects or mug shots simultaneously rather than one at a time. D. Have police acknowledge that the offender may not even be in the lineup.
answer
C
question
In order to promote accurate recall, the "cognitive interview" procedure for questioning eyewitnesses begins with A. specific questions about the event. B. guiding eyewitnesses to visualize the scene. C. advising witnesses about what others' have said. D. flooding witnesses with mug shots right away.
answer
B
question
When Fisher and his colleagues (1994) trained detectives to use the "cognitive interview" procedure for questioning eyewitnesses, A. both the accuracy and the confidence of the eyewitnesses increased. B. the amount of information elicited from eyewitnesses increased 50%. C. the false memory rate increased 50%. D. the false memory rate increased slightly, but confidence increased dramatically.
answer
B
question
Whose eyewitness testimony is probably the most reliable? A. Millie's report given immediately after a grocery store robbery. She was simply asked to tell the police what she saw. B. Fred's report given in court about a bank robbery a month ago. He has been interviewed several times by the defense attorney before appearing in court. C. Sue's report given immediately after observing an attempted rape. She was asked very specific questions by the police, who had identified a suspect immediately after the assault. D. All of these would be equally reliable.
answer
B
question
A police interrogator questioning an eyewitness to a robbery hopes to learn whether the assailant was wearing a bright green hat similar to one seen in another robbery. According to research, which of the following questions will elicit the most detailed, undistorted recall from the eyewitness? A. "Did you see whether the robber was wearing a hat?" B. "Can you describe the hat the robber was wearing?" C. "What color was the robber's hat?" D. "How was the robber dressed?"
answer
D
question
Researchers have found that eyewitness's accuracy can improve when A. interrogators delay the interview at least one week. B. the witnesses scan a group of mug shots or a composite drawing before reviewing a lineup. C. they are presented with a sequence of individual people, one by one, instead of being presented with a group of photos or a lineup. D. the seriousness of the crime is highlighted.
answer
C
question
Dunning and Perretta (2002) found that those eyewitnesses who made their identifications _______ were nearly 90% accurate. A. after a long deliberation B. confidently C. in less than 10-12 seconds D. and then changed them
answer
C
question
Which one of the following is an indicator that can suggest accuracy in a lineup identification? A. being an older eyewitness B. taking a long time to make an ID C. being very confident about an ID D. making a very quick identification
answer
D
question
Which of the following has been suggested as a strategy for reducing misidentifications in police lineups? A. Give eyewitnesses a "blank" lineup that contains no suspects and screen out those who make false identifications. B. Minimize false identifications with instructions that acknowledge that the offender may not be in the lineup. C. Include one suspect and several known innocent people in the lineup rather than a group of several suspects. D. All of the choices are correct.
answer
D
question
Which of the following is the best strategy for weeding out eyewitnesses who are just guessing? A. Include several people known to be innocent in the lineup. B. Include several suspects in the lineup and dress them all alike. C. Include several suspects who look very different from one another in the lineup. D. Tell the witness that the suspect is definitely in the lineup.
answer
A
question
Pryke and her colleagues (2004) invited students to identify a prior class visitor from multiple lineups that separately presented face, body and voice samples. When eyewitnesses consistently identified the same suspect by face, body and voice, he or she was A. never accurate. B. hardly ever accurate. C. sometimes accurate. D. nearly always accurate.
answer
D
question
A study of more than 3,500 criminal cases and some 4,000 civil cases found that _______ the judge agreed with the jury's decision. A. two out of three times B. three out of four times C. four out of five times D. nine out of ten times
answer
C
question
The more lenient treatment juries often give to _______ defendants suggests jurors' judgments continue to be contaminated by cultural bias. A. young B. high-status C. repentant D. poor
answer
B
question
Which of the following factors is NOT likely to lead to a lighter sentence for the person convicted? A. high status B. baby-faced features C. height D. physical attractiveness
answer
C
question
When Efran (1974) gave students a description of a case of students cheating and showed them a photograph of either an attractive or unattractive person accused of the crime, he found that attractive defendants were A. recommended for least punishment. B. more likely to be judged as guilty. C. more respected. D. perceived as more dangerous.
answer
A
question
Who among the following is likely to receive the most severe sentence for drunk driving? A. Kim, a good looking real estate agent B. Tim, an unattractive auto mechanic with long hair C. Ken, a clean-cut businessman D. Carol, an attractive single mother
answer
B
question
If convicted, _______ people strike people as more dangerous, especially if they are sexual offenders. A. cute or baby-faced B. attractive C. unattractive D. underage
answer
C
question
In an experiment conducted with the help of BBC Television, Wiseman (1998) reported that viewers saw the defendant played by either an attractive or an unattractive actor. How did the viewers react? A. More viewers "convicted" the attractive defendant. B. More viewers "convicted" the unattractive defendant. C. There was no difference in the conviction rates of the attractive and unattractive defendants. D. Baby-faced defendants were more often found guilty.
answer
B
question
In researching over 1,700 defendants appearing in Texas misdemeanor cases, Downs and Lyons (1991) found that the judges _______ less attractive defendants. A. set lower bails for B. set greater fines for C. spent less time reviewing the cases of D. spent more time questioning
answer
B
question
Which of the following factors has been shown to influence either the likelihood of conviction or the severity of punishment? A. poverty B. attractiveness C. similarity to the jurors D. both attractiveness and similarity to the jurors
answer
D
question
Someone accused of a crime is judged more sympathetically A. by females than by males. B. if he or she appears to have personality characteristics that are complementary to the one who judges. C. if he or she appears similar to the one who judges. D. if there was a bystander who watched and did not intervene.
answer
C
question
Amato (1979) found that when people play the role of juror, they are more sympathetic to a defendant who A. shares their political views. B. is of another race. C. speaks a different language. D. is of the other gender.
answer
A
question
When Amato (1979) had Australian students read evidence concerning a left- or right-wing person accused of a politically motivated burglary, they judged him less guilty if A. he claimed to have no religious preferences. B. his political views were similar to their own. C. he claimed he had been hired to commit the crime. D. he proved he had not profited by the burglary.
answer
B
question
According to the text, what factor helps explain why in acquaintance rape trials, men more often than women judge the defendant not guilty? A. similarity B. height C. status D. attractiveness
answer
A
question
Nearly all the states in the U.S. now have _______ statutes that prohibit or limit testimony concerning a rape victim's prior sexual activity. A. inadmissible rape testimony B. rape protection C. rape shield D. All of the choices are correct.
answer
C
question
Research shows that when a judge rules evidence to be inadmissible and admonishes the jury to ignore it, A. jurors are generally able to follow the judge's instructions. B. jurors have a hard time ignoring the evidence and its influence on their deliberations. C. jurors do so if the evidence damages the defendant's case but not if it hurts the prosecution's case. D. the evidence typically becomes the focus of debate in jury deliberations.
answer
B
question
Jurors have difficulty "erasing" the impact of inadmissible evidence A. when it is a criminal trial as opposed to a civil trial. B. when the inadmissible evidence is presented by the defense as opposed to the prosecution. C. especially when the inadmissible evidence has an emotional impact. D. when a witness, as opposed to a trial lawyer, blurts out the inadmissible evidence.
answer
C
question
As a result of the judge's warning that the jury disregard evidence ruled inadmissible, the stricken evidence may have an even greater impact on the jury's decision than if it had not been ruled out. This is probably due to _______ in the jurors. A. reactance B. disinhibition C. self-efficacy D. self-monitoring
answer
A
question
Jurors exhibit a tendency to treat racial outgroups A. more favorably. B. without bias. C. less favorably. D. with a strong negative bias.
answer
C
question
In 2006, of the first 130 convictions overturned by DNA evidence, 78% were A. influenced by political parties. B. the result of mistaken eyewitnesses. C. based on falsified evidence. D. the result of novice jurors' errors.
answer
B
question
Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Most people will admit that pretrial publicity has influenced their ability to be impartial. B. The effect of pretrial publicity on jury members can be removed by a judge's instructions to disregard such publicity. C. A judge's orders to ignore inadmissible testimony can boomerang—adding to the impact of the testimony. D. Getting jurors to publicly pledge their impartiality eliminates the effect of pretrial publicity.
answer
C
question
To minimize the effects of inadmissible testimony, Myers suggests that judges are best advised to A. wait until jurors have heard the testimony before ruling it inadmissible, so jurors specifically know what they are to disregard. B. videotape the testimony and cut out the inadmissible parts. C. meet with jurors during their deliberations after the trial to insure that inadmissible testimony is not influencing their judgments. D. immediately follow the trial by seeking a verbal pledge from each juror to ignore inadmissible evidence.
answer
B
question
You have just been appointed to serve as a new county judge. You are concerned about the effect inadmissible evidence may have on the jury in an upcoming trial of a case involving rape. You anticipate that the defense attorney will seek to introduce evidence regarding the victim's prior sexual history. To minimize the impact of such evidence on the jury, you should A. say nothing about such inadmissible evidence to the jury. B. remind the jury before the trial that the victim's previous sexual history is irrelevant. C. only tell the jury that the evidence is inadmissible after the defense attempts to introduce it. D. ask the defendant to refute any damaging evidence about her previous sexual history.
answer
B
question
Eberhardt and her colleagues (2006) reported that over a two-decade period, Black males convicted of murdering a White defendant were doubly likely to be sentenced to death if A. the murder was violent. B. the jurors were inexperienced. C. the jurors were older. D. if they had more stereotypically Afrocentric features.
answer
D
question
Support for capital punishment in the United States has _______ since 1994. A. fallen B. increased slightly C. remained stable D. increased significantly
answer
A
question
Survey researchers sometimes assist defense attorneys by using "scientific jury selection" to eliminate individuals likely to be unsympathetic. Results indicated that in the first nine important trials in which the defense relied on such methods, it A. won all nine. B. won two. C. won seven. D. lost all nine.
answer
C
question
Kressel and Kressel (2002) concluded that jury-selection consultants can make a difference, but A. they charge astronomically high fees. B. they are biased themselves. C. such cases are few and far between. D. they are totally unethical.
answer
C
question
In 1986, the U.S. Supreme Court in a split decision A. ruled that death-qualified jurors are a biased sample. B. overturned a lower court ruling that death-qualified jurors are a biased sample. C. ruled that Georgia's five-member juries were as reliable and accurate as twelve-member juries. D. overturned a lower court decision that six-member juries could decide cases involving the death penalty.
answer
B
question
Death-qualified jurors are A. more likely to be women. B. less likely to convict in criminal cases. C. more likely to convict in criminal cases. D. more concerned with due process of law than with crime control.
answer
C
question
An attorney will be defending James S., who is accused of raping a 22-year-old woman. Who among the following jurors is likely to be least sympathetic to his client's case? A. John, a 40-year-old plumber who once served a sentence for burglary B. Todd, a 22-year-old college student who is a political liberal C. Wilma, a 42-year-old mother of two who tends to be authoritarian D. Rita, a 32-year-old television executive who opposes the death penalty
answer
C
question
Racially mixed mock juries have been found to A. express more leniency. B. be less open to information. C. be harsher in sentencing. D. more susceptible to group polarization.
answer
A
question
Research suggests that jury deliberations can be influenced by all of the following processes except A. group polarization. B. minority influence. C. deindividuation. D. informational influence.
answer
C
question
What is meant by the "two-thirds-majority" scheme? A. Two-thirds of all people asked refuse to serve on a jury. B. Two out of three times judges agree with the jury's decision. C. A two-thirds majority is a better rule than consensus for a jury to follow in reaching a verdict. D. The jury verdict is usually the alternative favored by at least two-thirds of the jurors at the outset.
answer
D
question
Research suggests that jurors in the minority will be most persuasive when they A. change their position. B. are consistent C. are assertive. D. are similar to the others.
answer
C
question
Research suggests that jurors in the minority will be most persuasive when they are all of the following EXCEPT A. consistent. B. self-confident. C. when they win defections from the majority. D. well-educated.
answer
D
question
Hastie, Penrod, and Pennington (1983) showed participants reenactments of an actual murder case, and asked them to deliberate until they agreed on a verdict. After deliberation, their initial leanings A. had weakened. B. had grown stronger. C. were inconsequential. D. did not change.
answer
B
question
After hearing evidence in a murder trial, 10 jurors believed that the evidence was insufficient to convict the 25-year-old Black defendant. According to the group polarization hypothesis, after the jurors deliberated, they would be A. more convinced that the defendant was guilty. B. more convinced that the evidence was insufficient to convict. C. evenly split, with some convinced that he was guilty and others convinced that he was innocent. D. split, with the minority favoring acquittal and the majority favoring conviction.
answer
B
question
Research suggests that minorities are most likely to sway the majority when the minority A. favors conviction. B. favors acquittal. C. is composed of women. D. is composed of Whites.
answer
B
question
Research on the effects of group deliberation by a jury suggests that A. groups do no better at recalling information from a trial than do their individual members. B. deliberation cancels out some of the biases that contaminate individual judgments. C. deliberation increases the likelihood that jurors will use inadmissible evidence. D. All of the choices are correct.
answer
D
question
Research indicates that six-member juries A. are more likely to have hung verdicts. B. encourage less balanced participation among jurors. C. are less likely to embody a community's diversity. D. All of the choices are correct.
answer
C
question
Jury researcher Michael Saks (1998) reported that A. smaller juries more accurately recall trial testimony. B. larger juries more accurately recall trial testimony. C. smaller juries give more time to deliberations. D. larger juries are more likely to convict.
answer
B
question
According to the text, simulated juries A. can help us formulate theories that we can then use to interpret the more complex world. B. are virtually identical to real juries. C. have been viewed by the majority of Supreme Court judges as valuable in predicting the behavior of actual juries. D. have mundane realism but not experimental realism.
answer
A
question
The majority of judges express _______ in the ability of mock jury studies to predict the actual behavior of jurors. A. extreme confidence B. moderate confidence C. moderate doubt D. serious doubt
answer
D
Conflict
Conflict Theory
Human Rights
Social Science
Operational Preventive Medicine – Flashcards 121 terms

Marvel Brown
121 terms
Preview
Operational Preventive Medicine – Flashcards
question
Organized political violence
answer
Conflict is distinguished from peace by the introduction of...
question
Stability and Supportt Operations can include
answer
Noncombatant evacuation operations(NEO) Foreign Humanitarian assistance and disaster relief Combating terrorism Nation Assistance Security Assistance Counter-drug operations Show of Force....etc
question
Combat Health Support is defined as: CHS
answer
those actions encompassing all military health-related activities taken or programs established to further US national goals, objectives and missions.
question
CHS plays a significant role in nation assistance by:
answer
1. Assisting with the development and refinement of the host-nation HN medical infrastructure 2. Providing and maintaining the basic necessities of life for the general population through HN civilian medical programs. 3. Providing assistance in establishing, repairing, or improving basic health and sanitation services.
question
the role of the CHS commander is to
answer
direct every CHS operation towards a clearly defined, decisive and attainable objective. there must be UNITY.
question
the Principles of war that apply in stability and support operations are...
answer
Unity of Effort, Legitimacy, Perseverance, Restraint, and Security.
question
Legitimacy
answer
involves sustaining the peoples willingness to accept the right of the government to govern or of a group or agency to make and carry out decisions.
question
Perseverance
answer
in stability and support operations, strategic goals may be accomplished by long term involvement, plans, and programs. Short-duration operations will occur, but these operations must also be viewed as to their impact on the long-term strategic goals.
question
Restraint
answer
stability and support operations place constraints on the potential actions that can be accomplished and the rules of engagement (ROE) governing these actions. Imprudent action outside the ROE may in fact have a detrimental effect on the attainment of strategic goals and objectives.
question
Security
answer
the security of US forces abroad is PARAMOUNT. Commanders and planners must be aware of the ever-present danger that can exist from the various groups, factions or other governments.
question
CHS personnel must be prepared to:
answer
defend themselves and their patients should the need arise.
question
Battlefield Rules in order of precedence are to:
answer
1. maintain a PRESENCE with the service member ( BE THERE) 2. Maintain the health of the command. 3. Save LIVES 4. Clear the battlefield 5. Provide state-of the art care. 6. Ensure the early return to duty (RTD) of sick, injured, or wounded service members.
question
DNBI
answer
is the major cause of service member ineffectiveness in this environment.
question
before combat and combat suppport troops
answer
CHS personnel will arive in the AO...
question
NEO are conducted to
answer
evacuate civilian noncombatants and nonessential military personnel from locations in a foreign host nation suring time of endangerment to a designated safe haven.
question
NEO
answer
these operations are of short duration and consist of rapidly inserting a force, occupying an objective, and withdrawing as planned.
question
Preventive medicine support provided to NEO consists of:
answer
-Assessment of the medical threat during planning phase and during operation. -Assessment of potential for transferring diseases back to the US. -Assist in the determination of potential sources of food and water.
question
the three basic categories of Domestic support activities.
answer
1. Disaster assistance 2. Community assistance 3. Environmental assistance
question
Preventive medicine support provided for disaster operations includes
answer
1. Assessment of endemic diseases prevalent in the AO( even those considered to be at a low epidemiological level.) 2. Determination of the state of the public works and services (sanitation, water sources, and garbage pickup) 3. and support to temporary camps to reduce rodent and arthropod breeding grounds; establish sanitation facilities; provide training ( education) in field sanitation, personal hygiene and preventive medicine measures PMM, and inspect water supplies, ice etc
question
the US military strategy rests on the four pillars of.. in regards to Environmental Assistance.
answer
1. Compliance 2. Restoration 3. Prevention 4. Conservation.
question
Compliance
answer
includes responding to small-scale hazardous material spills and regulatory support to other government agencies.
question
Restoration
answer
involves cleaning up contamination from past operations.
question
Prevention
answer
is developing and sharing new technologies that reduce pollution generation.
question
Conversation
answer
focuses on the preservation of natural and cultural resources such as wetlands preservation and fighting wildland fires.
question
Foreign Humanitarian Assistance programs
answer
relieve or reduce the results of natural or man-made disasters or other conditions such as human pain, disease, hunger, or deprivation that present a serious threat to life or result in great property damage or loss.
question
Disaster relief operations provide
answer
emergency assistance to victims of natural or man-made disasters abroad. these operations are responses to requests for immediate help and rehabilitation from foreign governments or international agencies.
question
Disaster relief operations may include
answer
Refugee assistance Food programs Medical treatment and care Other civilian welfare programs
question
Refugee Operations
answer
may entail the rescue of individuals fleeing a nation and the establishment of temporary safe havens to house and care for these people. PMT support may be required to ensure: sufficient sanitation, disease surveillance, water, and food wholesomeness.
question
Peace Support Operations
answer
Encompass a wide range of activities which establish or sustain peaceful conditions or foster the conditions essential to establishing peace. Include essentially diplomatic activities to support diplomacy in peacekeeping and peace enforcement. Other activities which support peace operations may include humanitarian assistance and nation assistance.
question
Peacekeeping Operations
answer
include such activities as monitoring and supervising truces to facilitate diplomatic efforts to reach a political settlement of the dispute.
question
Peace Enforcement Operations
answer
are a form of combat, armed intervention, or the physical threa of armed intervention. They are used to compel compliance with international sanctions or resolutions and include combat operations to establish or reestablish conditions conducive to peace such as forcible seperation of belligerents. the role of the PMT in this type of operation is Medical Threat and sanitation and disruption of garbage disposal, water and sewer services.
question
Most stability and support operations require traditional PVNTMED support which are?
answer
assess medical threat, disease surveillance/investigation, OEH surveillance, vector control, education in PMM, informing the chain of command.
question
The aspects to determine base camp location include:
answer
1. Identify available land, facilities, and/or equipment 2. Determine if the site meets mission requirements 3. Determine applicable standards: by purpose of camp(refugee camp,base camp)/ by organization establishing camp( us forces, world health)
question
Location considerations?
answer
Primary: position to perform mission and inherent force protection. Secondary: Political and Economic.
question
Some areas of consideration in site selection include: ???
answer
presence of TIC/TIM or HM/HW hazards(including asbestos and PCBs), Industrial facilities in the area that may subject personnel to contaminants, Potential for dust or noise, Landfills and waste dumps, Drainage( both to and from the site), Proximity to civilian populations, Adequate space for HM/HW and POL storage and protection, Adequate space for latrine and gray water facilities. Existing enviromental infrastructure, such as water and sewer, Overall safety of structures on the site, Proximity to areas of standing water that may spread illness, Possible endangered species or critical habitats, Presence of historical, cultural, or religious sites. Interference with the normal routine of the local civilians.
question
Planners use environmental surveys to: ???
answer
ensure that any hazards from HM/HW, POL, CBRN contamination, disease vectors, and other contamination sources( such as open sewers or medical waste) are identified and mitigated, if possible, before the unit occupies the site.
question
An EBS environmental baseline survey helps to determine: ???
answer
determine site condition before occupation, thereby limiting liability to US forces for any damage incurred.
question
what is the exact purpose of EBS?
answer
1. protection of service personnel( eliminating,minimizing, or mitigating environmental health risks to Service members) 2. Sustainability determination of a designated location 3. Sensitivities involved with cultural or archetectural consideration. 4. Minimizing any potential US liability for the condition of a site at the time US forces depart. 5. Used to determine the environmental impact of property use by military forces and the level of environmental restoration needed prior to returning the property upon their departure.
question
what is the jist of EBS?
answer
is conducted to determine whether a parcel of land is acceptable for military use and it documents the proposed sites existing environmental conditions and the likelihood of last or ongoing activities that may have created environmental safety or health problems.
question
types of Environmental surveys?
answer
1. EBS 2. Closure report. 3. ECR enviromental conditions report: which is conducted periodically and is included in the closure report. not less than on a quarterly basis.
question
the Three types of Environmental survillance assessments.
answer
1. EH short term ( phase I) assessment 2. EH long-term ( phase II) assessment 3. Environmental Reconnaissance
question
Environmental short-term Assessment (phase I)
answer
is conducted during initial entry to a site to determine the baseline environmental conditions at a location where US forces will be or are stationed or have a tendency to visit during a deployment for MORE THAN 30 DAYS. base camps, police stations, headquarters, checkpoints, communications points.
question
Environmental long-term assessment( phase II)
answer
is designed as a second step in the characterization of the environment at a base camp, its purpose is to monitor the service members exposure to contaminants in the environment during the length of the deployment. The data collected during this period is used to monitor trends in the contamination of the environment and potential effects on deployment forces.
question
Environmental Reconnaissance
answer
is performed preventive medicine personnel, engineers, civil affairs or special operations personnel to enhance environmental health intelligence estimates
question
is the Environmental Reconnaissance checklist
answer
USACHPPM TG 251 for use in conducting recon.
question
the purpose of Preventive medicine site survey
answer
- are conducted to evaluate a units preventive medicine status. - conducted periodically as determined by ESO or Surgeon in command to ensure maintenance of a healthy environment.
question
sequence of events in preventive medicine site survey :
answer
1. receipt of mission 2. Research historical data 3. Obtain necessary clearances 4. Gather equipment/ supplies 5. perform introductions to site command/staff 6. Conduct surveillance IAW unit SOPs, references, policies and /or guidance 7. determine units level of PVNTMED compliance 8. Record all data 9. brief site commander or staff 10. guard all data IAW security measures 11 Archive reports/records IAW unit SOP
question
the Geneva Conventions rules concern:
answer
Violence Discrimination children safety, honor, family rights, religious practices, manners and customs.
question
The geneva convention purpose is
answer
to limit and prevent human suffering and it protects people who are not or are no longer participating in hostilities.
question
under international humanitarian law, individuals subject to protected status are:
answer
People not taking part in the fighting are protected: -civilians - Medics -Chaplains -Humanitarian aid workers, and people who can no longer fight: wounded or sick service members and POWs
question
2 types of Protection;
answer
1. Protection from ATTACK 2. Protection upon CAPTURE
question
Retained Personnel
answer
If captured, medical personnel are "_______ ________" not POWs: can only be required to perform medical duties, must receive all benefits that POW recieve and be retained only as long as needed to care for wounded.
question
how are MTFs marked.
answer
All us medical facilities/transports must display the emblem of the Geneva Conventions. the RED CROSS and RED CRESCENT.
question
protected medical transports include:
answer
1. Ambulances 2. Medical Ships 3. Medical Aircraft
question
what are the 4 detainee categories:
answer
1. Enemy prisoner of war EPW 2. Civilian internee CI 3. Retained person RP 4. Other detainees OD
question
what are the 5Ss
answer
Search, segregate, silence, safeguard, speed.
question
treatment of Detainees includes.
answer
1. all detainees are required to be afforded certain rights. 2. Always treat a captured person as a POW initially 3. 5Ss 4. Medical standard of care for detainees is the same as for US Forces. priority is based in severity of injury.
question
Actions upon Capture
answer
Non-injured detainees will be evacuated as quickly as possible Sick and wounded detainees will be evacuated separately. Cavity searches.
question
Rules of cavity searches:
answer
should be performed for valid medical reasons- not part of routine intake PE. are conducted only if there is a reasonable belief detainee is concealing items. and conducted by same gender, if possible.
question
detainees should be provided sufficient
answer
food, water, clothing, shelter and medical attention.
question
what can jeopardize the geneva protection for dedicated medical evacuation vehicles?
answer
mounting of offensive weapons.
question
definition of EPW is:
answer
one who, while engaged in combat under orders of his or her government is captured by the armed forces of the enemy.
question
EPWs can be:
answer
Members of the armed forces, organized militia, or volunteer corps. Person who accompany the armed forces without actually being a member ( mercenaries) Merchant Marines or civilian aircraft crew not qualifying for more favorable treatment. Individuals who, on the approach of the enemy, spontaneously take up arms to resist invading forces.
question
RP retained personnel can be defined as:
answer
Medical personnel who are members of the medical service of their armed forces. Medical personnel exclusively engaged search for, collection, transport or treatment of the wounded or sick, Prevention of Disease, and staff admin of medical units and establishments exclusively. Chaplains attached to enemy armed forces Staff of National Red Cross societies duly recognized and authorized by their governments.
question
Civilian internee can be defined as:
answer
a civilian who is interned during armed conflict or occupation for security reasons or for protection or because he or she has committed an offense against detaining power.
question
Other Detainee can be defined as:
answer
Persons in the custody of US Armed Forces who have not been classified as an EPW, RP or CI. until legal status is ascertained by competent authority.
question
Area requirements for 5,000 person EPW Camp
answer
5 acres total camp space broken in to two categories: 3.6 acres for living spaces 1.4 for latrines and admin spaces.
question
how much space is provided for each occupant?
answer
3.5 square yards of floor space.
question
Refuse and Excreta Disposal requirements for detainee
answer
-Proper disposal of human excreta creates first barrier to excreta related disease. - sanitary supplies, service and facilities necessary for their personal cleanliness and sanitation will be provided. -separate sanitary facilities will be provided for each sex. - Detainees will have at their disposal, day and night, latrine facilities conforming to sanitary rules of the military.
question
For Field Expedient 1-3 days holding time what type of latrine is needed?
answer
a long slit trench latrine, will be used for urination and defecation. 30 m from natural bodies of water, 100m from messing and 15m from living spaces.
question
for longer holding times what type of latrine is needed?
answer
construction of 100 deep-pit, 4-hole latrines
question
how many refuse collection containers are required for camp residents?
answer
200: 33 gallon refuse collection containers. ( 1/25 camp residents)
question
417 refuse collection containers are required:
answer
if camp residents will be preparing their own food. PM personnel will be required to ensure containers are covered and emptied daily to prevetn overflow.
question
what temperatures and length of time is requred to kill all stages of louse on them. WASH
answer
at least 15 minutes at 130 degrees F ( 54 degrees C)
question
when drying what temps and length of time will provide additional assurance that all lice and their nits are killed?
answer
140 degrees F ( 60 degrees C) and 15 minutes
question
Lindane Lotion.
answer
what can be prescribed by medical staff on-site, for individual treatment for head lice, crab lice, and scabies mites.
question
Clothing requirements
answer
5,000 orange jump suits or other generic coverall if various sizes pre-treated with permethrin are needed to protect EPWs and also control spread of disease.
question
Filth Flies
answer
which type of flies will be a major preventive medicine issue especially during warm weather.
question
potable water requirements for EPW
answer
a minimum of 20,000 gal/day to the camp. residents(4 gal/person/day) if preparing food ( 8 gal/person/day)
question
how many water buffaloes are required to be filled daily.
answer
20, 400-gallon water tanks on trailers, every time the containers are filled , they must be inspected for proper sanitary reqs.
question
Humanitarian rations:
answer
do not contain any meat products and are preferred to MREs if there are any dietary restrictions.
question
what are the Three Major Communicable diseases
answer
Diarrheal diseases, tuberculosis and Malaria.
question
DA Form 2664-R is Weight Register(Prisoner of War)
answer
is used to conduct an initial medical screening and weigh-in of each detainee. Its purpose is to monitor the general state of health, nutrition and cleanliness of prisoners and to detect contagious diseases, esp tuberculosis, veneral disease, lice, louse-borne diseases and HIV.
question
what information is collected for a dead EPW,RP,CI.
answer
Full name of deceased Interment serial number ISN of deceased Date, place, and cause of death Statement that the death was, or was not, result of deceased own misconduct.
question
what form is filled out by the attending medical officer and appropriate camp commander as a "certificate of death."
answer
DA Form 2669-R
question
for what reasons may a body be cremated.
answer
only due to imperative hygiene reasons, the detainee's religion, or the detainees request for cremation. When a body is cremated, this fact together wirh the reasons will be set forth in the death certificate DA Form 2669-R
question
All persons will be respected as human beings they will be protected against all acts of violence to include:
answer
Rape, Forced prostitution, Assault and theft, Insults, Public curiosity, Bodily injury, Reprisals of any kind. No SCIENTIFIC EXPERIEMENTS.
question
Which types of detainee deaths require the camp commander to appoint an officer to investigate and report
answer
1. Each death or serious injury caused by guards or suspected to have been caused by guards or sentries, another detainee, or any other person. 2. Each suicide or death resulting from unnatural or unknown causes.
question
Three goals for professional relief agencies
answer
1. reduce suffering 2. reduce secondary risk and provide security 3. Prepare disaster area to resume full responsibility ASAP
question
What is the chronological order of events/ aspects of a disaster.
answer
1. Initial rescuers are victoms or from the zone of fringe impact 2. Professional relief agencies arrive at Day+2 or Day+3 3. Professional agencies must be requested. 4. Mission of organizied relief is to prepare area for self-care.
question
4 types of camps
answer
1. Reception or transit center 2 Self-settled 3.Planned temporary settlements 4. Extensions to temporary settlements.
question
Reception or transit center is defined as:
answer
where displaced people or refugees stay for short periods. A reception and transit center should be treated in the same way as a planned temporary settlement if it is: Large, having >2,000 people Expected to last a long time.
question
Self-settled is defined as
answer
where people have settled spontaneously, yet require partial relocation, provision of infrastructure and sustainable environmental resources.
question
Planned temporary settlements are:
answer
where settlements are constructed and serviced by physical planners in advance of arrival of people( e.g. from reception or transit centers)
question
Extensions to temporary settlements:
answer
where extension to settlement is required to accomodate new arrivals (e.g. from reception or transit centers.)
question
Components of Camp Assessment Program
answer
things to consider: Number of people affected, their current location, Security factors for people affected and relief agencies, current ot threatened water and sanitation related diseases, current water and food distribution, key people, vulnerable population.
question
Critical
answer
in extreme situations, there may not be enough waer available to meet physiological needs, and in these cases a survival level of potable drinking water is ________?
question
water requirements for refugee/internally displaced personnel
answer
15 L/person/day the water point should have a flow of 0.125 L /second and one water collection point for 250 people 500m max distance from shelter two collection/storage containers per household.10-20L and 20L
question
Water treatment options
answer
Chlorination 0.2-0.5 ppm slow sand filtration boiling water( uses the most fuel, not ideal)
question
access and number of facilites for excreta
answer
maximum of 20 people per facility segregated by sex no more than 50m from dwellings, or 1 minutes walk.
question
Requirements for internally displaced refugee camps
answer
Water, Sanitation, Food safety, Shelter, and Control of Communicable Diseases.
question
information
answer
unevaluated material of every description that may be used in production of intelligence.
question
Intelligence
answer
product resulting from collection processing, integration, analysis, evaluation and interpretation of available information concerning foreign countries or areas
question
Strategic intelligence
answer
required by national and allied decision makers to formulate policy and military plans at national and international levels.
question
Tactical intelligence
answer
Required by corps level and below commanders to develop an estimate of situation and to project enemy intentions in sufficient time to select and execute most effective friendly course of action to defeat the enemy.
question
Scientific intelligence
answer
product of collection, evaluation analysis and interpretation of foreign scientific information, applied research and in applied engineering techniques.
question
Technical intelligence
answer
knowledge of foreign technological developments and performance and operational capabilities of foreign material which have or may eventually have a pratical application for military purposes. Communications-electronic, weapons-munitions, nuclear, biological and chemical, medical and mobility.
question
why is medical intelligence significant?
answer
it is critical to strategic and tactical planning and opertaions to conserve fighting stregth.
question
at a tactical level, objective of medical intelligence is to provide intelligence evaluation and analyses of following factors in the theater:
answer
Conditions concerning people or animals Epidemiological information ( incidence, distribution and control of infectious diseases Plants Enemys field health service support New weapons systems or employment methods that could alter health service support planning factors. Medical implications of contamination from NBC weapons based on employment tactics and chemical or biological agents used. Antidotes to protect against the nbc threats Weather and/or terrain implications.
question
intelligence preparation of battlefield functions
answer
-Function one- Battlefield area evaluation -Function 2- Terrain analysis -Function 3- Weather analysis -Function 4- Threat evaluation, how the enemy would fight w/out weather and terrain restrictions -Function 5- Threat integration, how the enemy would actually fight in consideration of weather/terrain.
question
HSS health service support must consider the enemys
answer
-strength, disposition and combat efficiency - ability to generate combat casualties by causing injury or disease -ability to impact the HSS operations of the command -health and fitness -Field HSS system - Attitude towards the Geneva Conventions
question
Considerations of the AO
answer
- terrain -weather -Civilian population and enemy prisoners of war -Disease -Local resources -NBC threat
question
for strategic sources, who is the sole producer of required medical scientific and technical intelligence and general medical intelligence for the DoD?
answer
AFMIC Armed Forces Medical Intelligence Center.
question
what is the objective of medical intelligence at a strategic level?
answer
to contribute to formulation of national and international policy predicted in part on foreign military and civilian capabilities of the medical or biological scientific community.
question
Tactical Sources:
answer
in a theater of operations, intelligence is the staff responsibility of the military intelligence officer( S2 or G2) and those specialized mil intel units in the combat zone.
question
the medical staff officer.
answer
who establishes priority information requirements and information requirements with the supporting intelligence officer?
question
what are the types of military briefings
answer
Information briefs and Decision briefings
question
information briefs are:
answer
presented in order to inform listener, deal primarily with facts, do not involve presenter including his or her conclusion or recommendations and must include orderly, objective, accurate, clear and concise facts.
question
Decision briefs are:
answer
presented in order to obtain a decision from person being briefed, contain essentially same elements of information briefing, but are usually broader and more comprehensive in scope and content. referred to as"oral staff studies"
question
Preventive medicine technician conducts:
answer
-briefings for multiple proponents/echelons -training for deploying soldiers -training for FST certification -training for other PVNTMED measures, food, heat and cold injuries, and other misc training topics (HIV, STDs and Role of 68S)
question
what are the four preparation steps for a briefing?
answer
PLAN PREPARE EXECUTE and ASSESS
Conflict Theory
Differences Across Cultures
Introductory Sociology
Social Theory
Sociology
Sociology CH 4,5,6 – Flashcards 70 terms

Larry Charles
70 terms
Preview
Sociology CH 4,5,6 – Flashcards
question
The theory that various social institutions and processes in society exists to serve some important function to keep society running
answer
Functionalism
question
The idea that conflict between competing interest is the basic animating force of social change and society in general
answer
Conflict Theory
question
The process by which you learn how to become a functioning member of society
answer
Socialization
question
Individual identity of a person as perceived by that same person
answer
Self
question
One's sense of agency, action, or power
answer
I
question
The self as perceived as an object by the "I"; the self as one imagines other perceive one.
answer
Me
question
Someone or something outside of one's self
answer
Other
question
An internalized sense of the total expectations of others in a variety of settings regardless of whether we've encountered those people or places before
answer
Generalized Other
question
Families, School, Peers, and Media
answer
Agents of Socialization
question
The process by which one's sense of social values, beliefs, and norms, are re-engineered, often deliberately through and intense social process that may take place in a total insitution
answer
Resocialization
question
Institutions in which one is totally immersed and that controls all the basics of day-to-day life; no barriers exist between the usual spheres of daily life and all activity occurs in the same place and under the same authority.
answer
Total Institutions
question
A recognizable social position that an individual occupies
answer
Status
question
The duties and behaviors expected of someone who holds a particular status.
answer
Role
question
The incompatibility among roles corresponding to a single status
answer
Role Strain
question
Tension caused between two or more roles pertaining to different statuses
answer
Role Conflict
question
All the statuses one holds simultaneously
answer
Status Set
question
A status into which one is born
answer
Ascribed Status
question
A status into which one enters; voluntary status
answer
Achieved Status
question
One's status within a set that stands out or overrides all others.
answer
Master Status
question
Set of behavioral norms assumed to accompany one's status as male or female
answer
Gender Roles
question
Things we consider natural were socially constructed
answer
The Social Construction of Reality
question
A micro level theory in which shared meanings, orientations, and assumptions form the basic motivations behinds peoples actions.
answer
Symbolic Interactionsim
question
The view of social life as essentially a theatrical performance in which we are all actors on metaphorical with roles, scripts, costumes, and sets.
answer
Dramaturgical Theory
question
Seeks to examine people's reactions to violations of commonly accepted social rules or norms.
answer
Breaching Experiments
question
Form the building blocks for society and most social interactions. Can make predictions about the ways people are going to behave based on the number of actors in the group
answer
Social Groups
question
Group of two
answer
Dyad
question
Group of three or more
answer
Triad
question
Group characterized by face-to-face interaction, a universal perspective, lack of formal arrangements, a certain level of equality
answer
Small Group
question
A group characterized by the presence of a formal structure that mediates interaction and consequently, status differentiation
answer
Large Group
question
Social groups such as family or friends composed of intimate face-to-face relationships that strongly influence the attitudes and ideals of those involved
answer
Primary Groups
question
Groups marked by impersonal, instrumental relationships (those existing as a means to end)
answer
Secondary Groups
question
Another form of the powerful group, most often the majority
answer
In-group
question
Another term for the stigmatized or less powerful group, the minority
answer
Out-group
question
A group that helps us understand or make sense of our position in society relative to other groups
answer
Reference Group
question
A set of relations- essentially a set of dyads- held together by ties between individuals
answer
Social Network
question
A set of stories that explain our relationship to the other members of our network
answer
Tie
question
A sum of stories contained in a set of ties
answer
Narrative
question
The degree to which ties are reinforced through a indirect path within a social network
answer
Embeddedness
question
The notion that often relatively weak ties turn out to be quite valuable because they yield new information
answer
Strength of Weak Ties
question
The information, knowledge of people, and connections that help individuals enter, gain power in, or otherwise leverage social networks
answer
Social Capital
question
The justifiable right to exercise power
answer
Authority
question
Authority that rests in the personal appeal of an individual leader
answer
Charismatic Authority
question
Authority based on appeals to the past or traditions
answer
Traditional Authority
question
A legal-rational organization or mode of administration that governs with reference to rules and roles and emphasizes meritocracy
answer
Bureacracy
question
An experiment devised in 1961 by Stanley Milgram, a psychologist at Yale University, to see how far ordinary people would go to obey a scientific authority figure.
answer
Milgram Experiment
question
Demonstrated the degree to which an individual's own opinions are influenced by those of a majority group.
answer
Solomon Asch's Experiments
question
Any transgressions of socially established norms; breaking the rules that most people abide by.
answer
Social Deviance
question
Violations of laws enacted by society
answer
Crime
question
Social bonds; how well people relate to each and get along on a day-to-day basis; created by Emile Durkheim THEORY: FUNCTIONALISM
answer
Social Cohesion
question
(Segmental) Social cohesion based on sameness
answer
Mechanical Solidarity
question
Social cohesion based on the difference and interdependence of the parts; members perform different specialized functions
answer
Organic Solidarity
question
Those mechanisms that create normative compliance in individuals/the act of abiding by society's norms. Following the rules of group life
answer
Social Control
question
Mechanisms of social control by which rules or laws prohibit deviant criminal behavior (focused on murder, rape, and theft)
answer
Formal Social Sanctions
question
The usually unexpressed but widely known rules of group membership; the unspoken rules of social life (EX: burping loudly in public)
answer
Informal Social Sanctions
question
The belief that individuals subconsciously notice how other see or label them in their reaction to those labels overtime form the basis of their self identity THEORY: SYMBOLIC INTERACTIONISM
answer
Labeling Theory
question
Philosophy of criminal justice arising from the notion that crime results from a rational calculation of its cost and benefits
answer
Deterrence Theory
question
Retribution, deterrence, rehabilitation, restoration, and incapacitation (rrrdi)
answer
Goals of Punishment
question
The 8 crimes that the FBI combines to produce its annual crime index. These crimes are willful homicide, forcible rape, robbery, burglary, aggravated assault, larceny over fifty dollars, motor vehicle theft and arson.
answer
Index Crime
question
The desire for harmony/conformity in the group results in an incorrect/deviant decision
answer
Group Think
question
Social influence involves change in belief/behavior in order to fit with the group
answer
Conformity
question
New Asylums Video
answer
New Asylums Video
question
Overall crime rates decreasing since '91 and increased movement towards rehabilitating inmates
answer
Recent trends in the criminal justice system
question
The self emerges from our ability to assume the point of view of others and thereby imagine how they see us (Cooley)
answer
The Looking Glass Self
question
Deviance occurs when society doesn't give all its members equal ability to achieve socially acceptable goal
answer
Merton's Strain Theory
question
Sense of aimlessness/despair arises when we can no longer reasonably expect life to be predictable. Too little social regulation
answer
Anomie
question
First act of rule breaking that may incline the label of deviant and influences how many people think about and act towards you
answer
Primary Deviance
question
Subsequent acts of rule breaking in result of the new deviant label and people's expectations of you
answer
Secondary Deviance
question
Committed in public. Related to violence, gangs and poverty
answer
Street Crime
question
Crime committed by a professional against a corporation
answer
White Collar Crime
question
Officers of corporations commit crimes
answer
Corporate Crime
Central Business District
Conflict Theory
Shaw And Mckay
Theory And Research
CJ 421 Ch. 4/5 – Flashcards 25 terms

Patricia Harrah
25 terms
Preview
CJ 421 Ch. 4/5 – Flashcards
question
Example of culture conflict, the clash of values between American laws and
answer
an ethiopian ritual
question
Defensible space is a concept in environmental design theory
answer
true
question
W.I. Thomas developed a term that could be used to explain how a person may receive inappropriate cues from different groups and thus be seen as deviant
answer
Definition of the situation
question
conflict between a subculture and a larger culture within which it resides
answer
Secondary culture conflict
question
the chicago school produced chiefly microtheories
answer
true
question
the chicago school purported that behavior is shaped by
answer
social factors
question
best reflects Shaw and McKay's findings on city areas
answer
rates of delinquency, tuberculosis and infant mortality decrease as you move away from the central buisness district
question
process by which social disorganization affects juveniles and leads to delinquency is known as
answer
Symbolic Interactionism
question
Culture conflict theory was developed primarily by
answer
Thorsten Sellin
question
concept of community crime careers looks at the number of career offenders living in each concentric zone of the city
answer
false
question
Chicago school theorists were consensus theorists at heart
answer
true
question
Sampson's research on current immigrant communities supports the idea that predominantly immigrant areas have higher crime rates, particularly violent crime
answer
false
question
Sutherland borrowed three major theories from the Chicago School
answer
cultural transmission, symbolic interactionism, culture conflict
question
Differential association is what type of theory?
answer
positivist
question
sutherland's theory was heavily influenced by his upbringing, which took place in the _____ part of the country
answer
midwestern
question
Dan Glaser extended sutherland's work with his own theory of
answer
Differential Identification
question
Sutherland viewed criminals as following culturally approved behavior that was disapproved by the larger society
answer
true
question
Edwin Sutherland is known as the person who coined the phrase
answer
White Collar Crime
question
According to Sutherland, differential associations may vary according to each of the following except
answer
Relativity
question
Sutherland did not believe that certain locations and people were more crime prone than others
answer
True
question
Sutherland took into account each of the following except
answer
individual responses to societal reaction vary in sensitivity and vulnerability
question
primary concept of Sutherland's theory of differential association is an excess of definitions conducive to violation of law
answer
true
question
Two of Sutherland's books
answer
Principles of Criminology and The Professional Theif
question
Sutherland attempted to explain both individual criminal behavior and variations in group rates of crime
answer
true
question
Cressey responded to criticisms that differential association did not explain crimes of passion or compulsive crimes with his work combining
answer
Role Theory and Symbolic Interaction
Conflict Theory
Introductory Sociology
Social Theory
Sociology
Persepolis Test Questions – Flashcards 17 terms

Mya Day
17 terms
Preview
Persepolis Test Questions – Flashcards
question
Dialectical Materialism
answer
The idea, according to Karl Marx, that change and development in history results from the conflict between social classes. Economic forces impel human beings to behave in socially determined ways.
question
Socialism
answer
an economic system in which the factors of production are owned by the public and operate for the welfare of all.
question
Capitalism
answer
an economic system based on private ownership of capital.
question
Communism
answer
a political system characterized by a centrally planned economy with all economic and political power resting in the hands of the central government
question
Leftist
answer
Liberal , Having radical or liberal views in politics, advocating reform and revolutionary change.
question
Fundamentalist
answer
Person who strictly follows a set of basic ideas or principles.
question
Fidel Castro
answer
(born 1927) Cuban socialist leader who overthrew the dictator in 1959 and established a Marxist, Socialist state in Cuba.
question
Karl Marx
answer
German Philosopher, political economist, historian, political theorist, sociologist, communist, and revolutionary whose ideas played a significant role in the development of modern communism and socialism.
question
Che Guevara
answer
(1928-1967) Argentine revolutionary leader, Castro's chief Lieutenant in the Cuban revolution. Eventually, he was captured and executed by the Bolivian army.
question
Vladimir Lenin
answer
(1870-1924) Russian, Marxist revolutionary. Founder of the Bolsheviks, leader of the Russian revolution, first head of USSR. Communist.
question
Leon Trotsky
answer
(1879-1940) Russian revolutionary and communist theorist who helped Lenin and built up the army. he was ousted from the communist party by Stalin and assassinated in Mexico.
question
Self-Actualism
answer
Realizing one self's purpose, secure in one self, and usually more open in wanting to help others.
question
Rene Descartes
answer
17th century French philosopher; wrote Discourse on Method; 1st principle "i think therefore i am"; believed mind and matter were completely seperate; known as father of modern rationalism
question
Mohammed Reza Shah
answer
Son of Reza Khan, becomes new king of Iran, carried out reforms, allied with US. seen as corrupt, has secret police and gives no political freedom
question
Reza Khan
answer
overthrew the Qajar dynasty and also moved to Westernize and secularize the nation. Unlike Ataturk, however, he retained the monarchy with himself at the helm. The Pahlavi dynasty that he established lasted until 1979, when it was overthrown in a popular revolution. He was able to avoid imperial domination by either the Soviet Union or Great Britain, but his personal ambition and his attempts to undercut the power of the clergy and religion eventually brought down the Pahlavi dynasty.
question
Vietnam war
answer
was a Cold War conflict (1955-75) between the USA who supported the South and the USSR that supported the North.
question
Islamic Revolution
answer
The overthrow of Iran's monarchy under Shah Mohammad Reza Pahlavi and its replacement with an Islamic republic under Ayatollah Ruhollah Khomeini, the leader of the 1979 revolution.
Conflict Theory
Cross Cultural
Give And Take
Win Win Solution
Chapter 13: Negotiation – Flashcards 43 terms

August Dunbar
43 terms
Preview
Chapter 13: Negotiation – Flashcards
question
process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources
answer
definition of negotiation
question
- bargaining over price of a car you want to buy - any gain one person makes is at the other's expense - who gets what share of a fixed pie (set amount of goods needs to be divided up) - labor-management negotiations over wages - each wants to meet target point, won't go higher or lower than resistence point, will probably meet in the middle (settlement range)
answer
Distributive bargaining
question
make the first offer, and make it aggressive. - shows power, also anchoring bias (ppl fixate on initial information) - ambitious, but justifiable
answer
best thing to do in distributive bargaining
question
- a clothing store does well and then in bad economic times, designers set-up payment plans with the store to help them out financially bcuz they've trusted the store for so long - assumes one or more of the possible settlements can create a win-win situation - preferable to distributive in OB because builds long-term relationships and trust - feeling positive about one negotiation is more likely to be lenient in next negotiation - requires two parties that are open with information, sensitive to each others needs, and maintain flexibility
answer
Integrative bargaining
question
- reach more intagrative agreements than when bargaining alone
answer
Bargaining in teams
question
- achieves higher joint-gain settlements (intagrative) because more opportunity for "logrolling" where issues are traded off according to individual preferences - creates better outcomes for each side
answer
putting more issues on the table
question
- better to understand why an employee wants/deserves or doesn't deserve a raise rather than just the raise amount - stay focussed on broad overlying goals rather than immediate incremental outcomes
answer
focus on underlying issues of both sides
question
- reduces pressure to bargain integritavely - if opponent caves in easily, no one needs to reach a settlement - ppl settle for less than they could have obtained if they had been forced to consider the other party's interests, trade-off issues, and be creative.
answer
compromise in integrative bargaining
question
1) preparation and planning 2) definition of ground rules 3) clarifiction and justification 4) bargaining and problem solving 5) closure and implementation
answer
steps in the negotiation process (5)
question
- what's the nature of the conflict, what's the history leading up to the negotiation, who's involved and what are their perceptions of the conflict, what do you want from the negotiation, what are your goals?? - put your goals in writing to keep you focused ("most helpful" and "minimally acceptable" - what is the other party likely to ask, how can you combat it? - consider how the negotiation may affect relationship: if you win, would they hate you? so should you pursue more of a compromise? - if you don't care, maybe chose a more aggressive style - employees who felt more positive about the negotiation were less likely to turnover regardless of outcome - DEVELOP STRATEGY: determine best alternative to a negoatiated agreement (BATNA), any offer higher than your BATNA is better than nothing; you also shouldn't expect much success if the other side doesn't reach or go over their BATNA
answer
Preparation and planning
question
- develop with other party - exchange initial proposals and demands who will do the negotiating? where will it take place? time constraints? to what issues will we be limited?
answer
Definition of ground rules
question
- once you've explained initial conditions, you and other party must explain, amplify, clarify, and justify your initial demands - not confrontational, but an opportunity to educate other
answer
clarification and justification
question
now you make concessions, employ your bargaining techniques, whichever you felt appropriate in preparation stage
answer
bargaining and problem solving
question
formalizing agreement and developing procedures necessary for implementing and monitoring it - like hammering out specifics in a normal contract - handshake
answer
closure and imlementation
question
- related weakly, so you can only sort of predict outcomes based on each others persoanlities - research focuses on big five trait of agreeableness cooperative, compliant, conflict-averse), but still it's weakly related to negotiations - depends on situation - tendencies of one personality trait may pull you in two different directions in a negotiation - agreeableness is compliant but also warm and empathetic; former hinders outcomes, latter helps
answer
personality traits in negotiation
question
- depends on emotion and context - negotiator who shows anger induces concessions, because other party believes no further concessions from angry party are possible - should show anger only if you have at least as much power as your counter part - anger must be genuine (not surface0-acting, deep-acting) - disappointment shown in one party makes other party concede more because they feel guilty - experiencing more anxiety may lead you to be more deceptive than your opposing party; another study found anxious negotiators have lower outcomes and exit bargaining process more quickly - negative emotions matter most to negotiation
answer
moods/emotions in negotiations
question
- different cultures negotiate differently, depending on context - generally negotiate more effectively within cultures than between them (colombian better with colombian than sri lankan) - high openness is important in cross cultural negotiations - avoid time constraint bcuz they inhibit on party - emotions are culturally sensitive (chinese negotiators increase distributive negotiation when reacting to angry counterpart while US negotiators back down more)
answer
culture in negotiation
question
- men and women negotiate differently - men place higher value on status, power, and recognition, economic outcomes - women place higher value on compassion and altruism, relationship outcomes - women are less assertive, less self interested, and more accommodating - women are more reluctant to initiate negotiations and more likely to settle to get out of one - hurts women in managerial positions -women are more likely to engage when bargaining on behalf of someone else than when bargaining on their own behalf
answer
gender differences in negotiation
question
bjbj
answer
LECTURE
question
your goal
answer
target price
question
Your "bottom line," or minimum acceptable agreement
answer
resistance point
question
Your best alternative if they or you walk away from this deal
answer
BATNA
question
zone of possible agreement, your "settlement range"
answer
ZOPA
question
- it seems fair to just split down the middle - but the midpoint is often based on sudjective calculations and is meaningless - midpoint isn't anymore fair than any other point in the ZOPA`
answer
the lure of the midpoint
question
the more you work and prepare for the negotiation, the more you just want to make a deal. So, you will settle for terms that are worse than your current position - sunk costs; need for closure
answer
agreement bias
question
- one person makes offer, other person immediately accepts, so you assume you offered too low/high and feel bad about yourself and walk away from the negotiation unhappy, even though you made a deal.
answer
winner's curse
question
- you didn't do enough research, your target price was too low or too high. - you may have settled for too little/too high
answer
why does winners curse happen
question
- lack of planning and preparation for the negotiation - lack of research (your BATNA, opponent's BATNA, your target price) - being satisfied with the negotiation, rather than optimizing - many people find negotiating uncomfortable, so want to just get it over with - feel bad for pushing for your own interests
answer
common causes for ineffective negotiation
question
- what do I deserve? what do they deserve? what's fair? - need a lot of external information to determine this (list price, blubook) - ex//reference points, justification
answer
claiming value: rights based
question
- I can walk away, so you have to comply with what I want because I have more power. You need this deal.
answer
claiming value: power based
question
distributive (fixed pie, you lose some, I win some. )
answer
what's the most basic negotiation strategy?
question
- Know what you want - Should be ambitious, but justifiable - Do not base your target on your BATNA - Commit to your target - Focus on your target first; later you can shift to your RP
answer
how to set a target with distributive strategy
question
- Decide what you need, to ensure you're better off - Commit to your RP - Do not reveal yours, do try to discover theirs
answer
how to set your reservation price in distributive?
question
- Don't "fall in love" with what you're negotiating for, leaves you vulnerable to going below/above reservation price and becoming worse off- consider your alternatives aka "Fall in love with three" rule (Bazerman) - Know your BATNA - Grow your BATNA - Don't reveal your BATNA, except as a last resort
answer
guidelines for BATNA in distributive
question
1) first offer 2) explanations 3) concessions
answer
what are the tactics for claiming value (3 of them)
question
- make the first offer!! - this anchors the negotiation around that price, anchoring bias - use a value, not a range, bcuz they'll chose one end of the range that works best for them - first offer must be ambitious but justifiable to anchor the negotation
answer
tactics for claiming value : first offer
question
- if you think they might offer more than your target (winners curse) - if you didn't do enough research/ don't have good information - there is a strong social norm in that situation, like a job offer
answer
what are the exceptions to offering the first value (when to hold back)
question
IMMEDIATELY counter offer at your target point, try not to get anchored
answer
If you don't make the first offer...
question
- provide explanations for why you need it at this price that will appeal to your opponent (for this, use objective criteria and norms, like "the bluebook value is actually..." - ask about your opponents subjective standards, and then use them (what is fair to you?)
answer
another tactic for claiming value: explanation
question
- don't make a big concession (don't go from 4k to 5k) - don't make concessions too quickly - don't concede before you start, before you give your target price - never double concede, should be you concede a little, then them, then you - provide explanations and expectations for concessions
answer
tactics for claiming value: concessions
question
- Reciprocity - The power of silence - Looking shocked or surprised - Create time pressure like deadlines, exploding offers - Create competition - Real or feigned - Escalation of commitment (sunk costs) (you've already put so much into it, don't you want to just make the deal already?) - Be patient - most concessions happen in the last few minutes
answer
how to get your opponent to make concessions
question
- Stonewalling (not budging, not talking) - High-balling or low-balling - Good cop/bad cop (if someone calls their wife and you feel bad, they are the good cop and you feel like the bad cop, then you feel bad and want to help them out) - Nibble - Bogey and other types of bluffing - Leaving the table and threats to leave the table - Overwhelming the opponent with incomprehensible information
answer
hardball negotiation tactics
question
- play hardball back - walk away - address the process (this is what you're doing, you need to stop, or else no deal)
answer
what do you do if someone uses these tactics on you?
Anger And Fear
Conflict Theory
Cope With Problems
Creativity And Innovation
Ice Cream Cone
Positions
Strategies And Tactics
Zero Sum Game
Quiz 2 negotiation skills – Flashcards 20 terms

Stephen Sanchez
20 terms
Preview
Quiz 2 negotiation skills – Flashcards
question
All of the issues involved in a negotiation are collectively referred to as the bargaining mix.
answer
True
question
BATNA is the area between parties' resistance points.
answer
False
question
BATNA is the most ideal alternative outcome one party to a negotiation could get without negotiating with the other party.
answer
False
question
A frame is the lens through which you view a negotiation.
answer
True
question
The opening offer is the best outcome each party can resonably and realistically expect to obtain as a result of the negotiation.
answer
False
question
Reciprocity is the notion that if someone does somthing for you, you own them.
answer
True
question
WATTA is the worst outcome you might face if you do not come to a negotiated agreement.
answer
False
question
In most sales transactions the seller effectivly makes the initial offer when she names a price.
answer
True
question
Research shows that negotiators who set challenging goals consistantly achieve better outsomes than those who don't.
answer
True
question
The resistance point is the best outcome each party can reasonably and realistically expect to obtain as a result of the negotiation.
answer
False
question
The settlement point is what the parties actually agree upon.
answer
True
question
What does BATNA stand for?
answer
A. Best Alternative to Negative Agreement B. Best Agreement to a Negotiated Alternative (Answer) C. Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement D. Best Agreement to a Negative Alternative
question
What does WATTA stand for?
answer
A. Worst Alternative to Negative Agreement B.Worst Agreement to a Negative Alternative C. Worst Agreement to a Negotiated Alternative (Answer) D. Worst Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement
question
Which of the following is not defined when preparing a negotiation?
answer
A. Settlement point B. Initial offers C. Target Points (answer)D. Resistaince points
question
Which of the following is the point at which the parties agree?
answer
A. Target point (Answer)B. Settlement point C. Bargaining point D. Resistance point
question
According to the Dual Concerns Model if your concern about your own outcome is high and your concern for the other party's outcomes is low, your approach would be:
answer
A. Problem Solving B. Yeilding (Answer)C. Contending D. Inaction
question
According to the Dual Concerns Model if your concern about your own outcome is low and your concern for the other party's outcomes is high, your approach would be:
answer
A. Contending B. Inaction C. Problem Solving (Answer)D. Yeilding
question
According to the Dual Concerns Model if your concernabout your own outcome is high and your concern for the other party's outcoes is high, your approach would be:
answer
A.Contending B.Yeilding C. Inaction (Answer)D. Problem Solving
question
According to the Dual Concerns Model if your concern about your own outcome is low and your concern for the other party's outcomes is low, your approach would be:
answer
(Answer)A. Inaction B. Contending C. Problem Solving D. Yeilding
question
According to the Thomas-Kilmann Conflict Styles Model if your concern for the relationship is low and your concern for the substantive outcomes is low, your approach would be:
answer
A. Competing B. Collaborating C. Accommodating (Answer) D. Avoiding
Active Listening Skills
Anger And Fear
Conflict Theory
State The Problem
The Nature of Negotiation – Flashcards 20 terms

Carmen Dawson
20 terms
Preview
The Nature of Negotiation – Flashcards
question
Negotiation- win-win situation- both parties are trying to find a mutually acceptance solution to a complex conflict Bargaining- win - lose situation ( haggling over prices)
answer
What is the different between Negotiation and bargaining
question
1. sharing or divided a limited resource 2. creating something that both parties need 3. Resolving a problem
answer
Why do negotiations occur
question
1. Definition of negotiation and the basic characteristics of negotiations situations. 2. Understanding interdependence, the relationship between people and groups that most often leads them to negotiate. 3. The definition and exploration of the dynamics of conflict and conflict management processes, which will serve as a backdrop for different ways that people approach and manage negotiations.
answer
What are the three important themes
question
- Involves 2 or more parties, - there is a desire or need between 2 or more parties, -they negotiate by choice, who can get the better deal -we expect a give an take -prefer to negotiate and search for agreement rather then to fight openly -successful negotiations involve the management of tangibles and also the resolution of intangibles
answer
Describe the characteristic of a negotiations
question
Parties depend on each other to achieve their own preferred outcome.
answer
Interdependence
question
1. Independent 2. dependent 3. interdependent
answer
Three ways of characterizing Interdependence
question
1. zero -sum or distributive -individuals linked together that there is a negative correlation between their goal attainments 2. Non- zero sum or integrative- positive correlation between the goal attainments of both parties
answer
Types of interdependence
question
1. desirability of alternatives working together 2. BATNA ( best alternative to a negotiation agreement)
answer
What alternative shape interdependence
question
The act to influence opponent. Negotiation is a process that transforms over time and mutual adjustment is one of the key cause of the changes that occur during a negotiation.
answer
What is Mutual Adjustment
question
• When one party agrees to make a change in his/her position, a concession has been made • Concessions restrict the range of options • When a concession is made, the bargaining range is further constraints
answer
Mutual Adjustment and Concession Making
question
• Dilemma of honesty - Concern about how much of the truth to tell the other party • Dilemma of trust - Concern about how much negotiators should believe what the other party tells them
answer
What are the two dilemmas of mutual adjustment
question
It is to do whatever is necessary to claim the reward, gain the lion's share, or gain the largest piece possible. ( distributive )
answer
What is Value Claiming
question
Finding a way for all parties to meet their objectives, either by identifying more resources or finding unique ways to share and coordinate the use of existing resources. (Integrative)
answer
What is value creation
question
1. Negotiations must be able to recognize situations that require more of one approach than the other 2. negotiators must be versatile in their comfort and use of both major strategic approaches. 3. Negotiator perceptions of situations tend to be biases toward seeing problems as more distributive/ competitive than they really are.
answer
What are the three implications of claiming and creation
question
interests, difference in judgement abotu the future, risk tolerance, time preference
answer
What are some differences in negotiators
question
"Sharp disagreement or opposition as of interests, ideas etc" and " the perceived divergence of interest, or a belief that the parties' current aspirations cannot be achieved simultaneously"
answer
Define Conflict
question
1. Intrapersonal or intrapsychic conflict- conflict within the person 2. Interpersonal conflict- between individuals 3. intragroup conflict- within a group 4.Intergroup conflict- between organizations, ethnic groups etc
answer
What are the levels of conflict and explain
question
1.Makes organizational members more aware and able to cope with problems through discussion. 2. Promises organizational change and adaptation. 3. Strengthens relationships and heightens morale. 4. Promotes awareness of self and others. 5. Enhances personal development. 6. Encourages psychological development—it helps people become more accurate and realistic in their self-appraisals. 7. Can be stimulating and fun.
answer
What are functions of conflict
question
1. Competitive, win-lose goals 2. Misperception and bias 3. Emotionality 4. Decreased communication 5. Blurred issues 6. Rigid commitments 7. Magnified differences, minimized similarities 8. Escalation of conflict
answer
Dysfunctions of conflict
question
1 Contending - Actors pursue own outcomes strongly, show little concern for other party obtaining their desired outcomes 2 Yielding - Actors show little interest in whether they attain own outcomes, are quite interested in whether the other party attains their outcomes 3 Inaction - Actors show little interest in whether there own outcomes, little concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes. 4 Problem solving - Actors show high concern in obtaining own outcomes, as well as high concern for the other party obtaining their outcomes 5 Compromising - Actors show moderate concern in obtaining own outcomes, as well as moderate concern for the other party obtaining their outcome
answer
What are the 5 styles of conflict management
Answering The Phone
Conflict Theory
Interactions
Personality
Problem Solving
Self Serving Bias
Traits
Negotiation and Conflict Resolution – Flashcards 33 terms

Pat Coker
33 terms
Preview
Negotiation and Conflict Resolution – Flashcards
question
It is the means by which people deal with their differences.
answer
Negotiation
question
the act of resolving a controversy, disagreement, fight, war, misunderstanding, love spat, etc.
answer
Conflict resolution
question
is the result of differing needs, perceptions, assumptions, and/or values.
answer
Conflict
question
Develope skills to recognize conflict and to facilitate, negotiate, madiate, communicate
answer
Managers/Supervisors must
question
Managers do not always need to provide the solution.
answer
True
question
A battle to win; gain advantage; attain dominance in the relationship.
answer
The Conquest Approach
question
Lack the confidence to deal with conflict; Believe and hope that conflict will go away; Assumes that time will heal all wounds.
answer
The Avoidance Approach
question
Demands and interests are traded; Needs, values, and personalfeelings are compromised away; Spin-off conflicts can often occur.
answer
Bargaining Approach
question
Use of quick solutions that fail to address the conflict; Moving employees into different shifts; Relocating desks or reassigning to different groups; Failure to devote time to addressing underlying problem; lack of confidence in skills to address conflict.
answer
The Quick Fixer and Bandaid Approach
question
People act only from their roles (student-teacher); those in roles of lesser status and power will usually be furher disadvantaged; Continued inequality resolution process from the valuable contributions from everyone affected; The boss says or parent says 'because I said so".
answer
The Role Player Approach
question
Diversity and Difference Needs - these are essential to our well being. Perceptions - differences of interpretation of reality. Power - Use of perceived or real influence Values - individual beliefs or principles that are extremely important to us. Feelings and emotions - these can influence an individuals reaction to conflict. Internal conflict - unsure of ones own values, feelings, and wants.
answer
The Ingredients of Conflict: Diversity and Difference
question
Fight, hate, war, fear, anger, avoid, pain, loss, destruction, wrong doing, bad, etc.
answer
Dr. Weeks surveyed across the world and focused the following words as those used often to describe conflict
question
View conflict as an opportunity to implement change in the way people interact. Successful conflict resolution can result in better working relationships. Improved productivity Costs savings Better moral
answer
Successful Conflict Resolution
question
- a condition between or among workers: Whose jobs are INTERDEPENDENT. Who feels ANGRY. Who perceive that others are at FAULT. Act in ways that cause a business problem.
answer
Workplace Conflict
question
Wasted Time, bad decisions, loss of good employees, unnecessary restructuring, sabatosh, theft, damage, lowered job motivation, lost work time, health costs.
answer
Costs of Conflict
question
Workplace violence, Unionization, labor strikes, Vandalism, Malicious whistle-blowing, retaliatory lawsuits.
answer
Risks of Conflict
question
Self actualization - morality, creativity, spontaneity, problem solving, lack of prejudice, acceptance of facts. Esteem - self-esteem, confidence, achievement, respect of others, respect by others. Love/Belonging - friendship, family, sexual intimacy. Safety - security of body, of employment, of resources, of morality, of the family, of health, of property. Physiology - breathing, food, water, sex, sleep, homeostasis, excretion.
answer
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
question
The different processes that we use to form impressions of other people and the different conclusion we make about others.
answer
Perceptions
question
how we are perceived what we do what we say what we think
answer
Perception Pyramid
question
is a belief, a mission, or a philosophy that is meaninful.
answer
Values
question
Feelings (emotions) Perceptions (thoughts) Actions (behaviors) - Conflict is rooted in all parts of human nature.
answer
Workplace conflict definition includes
question
Interdependency - How much parties need each other. if high, cost of not resolving will also be high. Number of Interested Parties - As number and size increase, more difficult to resolve. Constituent representation - Do parties represent other people? Nagotiator authority - Does the representative have authority to make concessions on behalf of others Critical urgency - The greater the urgency, the less likely a concensual solution. Communication Channels - Same time same place dialogue produces far better solutions.
answer
Six Parts of Conflict Structure
question
Conflict between two people in the workplace. - most common - Easiest to resolve through the use of: - Managerial mediation - Self mediation
answer
Interpersonal Conflict
question
A Tip tp Help Avoid Conflict at Work: Develope Personal goals and objectives. Don't let the little things bother you. Focus on the end goal.
answer
True
question
deal making - purchase of a new home. decision making - parties in a zoning case. dispute resolution - litigation over property rights.
answer
Three basic types of negotiation
question
Two or more parties Interdependence Common goals Felxibility Decision-making ability
answer
The Five Elements to Negotiation Situations
question
Avoiding Accommodative Collaborative Competing Compromising
answer
Five Bargaining Styles
question
The two most important types of goals: 1. Content - the substance or specifics 2. Relationship - how the parties want to be viewed by each other.
answer
True
question
1. Preparation 2. Opening Season 3. Bargaining 4. Settlement
answer
The Basic Stages of Negotiation
question
the BEST ALTERNATIVE TO a NEGOTIATION AGREEMENT
answer
BATNA
question
Who - who speaks for each party, is authorized to make/reject offers, and how many people will be on each team? Where - Will negotiation takes place, and what will be the seating arrangement? When - Will negotiatons begin, and how long will sessions last? How - How will offers be made, issues included in the discussions? What - What form of final agreement (handshake, verbal, written, notarized)
answer
The 5 W's
question
Full, Open, Truthful Excange
answer
FOTE
question
Partially, Open, Truthful Exchange (used most be negotiators)
answer
POTE
Conflict Theory
Marketing
Chapter 4 MKT 410 – Flashcards 54 terms

Martha Hill
54 terms
Preview
Chapter 4 MKT 410 – Flashcards
question
In practice, conflict is usually spotted
answer
after it is ell developed and obvious
question
The feasibility and applicability of the various approaches for resolving channel conflict will
answer
Vary for different kinds of channel under different sets of circumstances
question
In the case of the franchiser Alpha Graphics discussed in the text, the main cause of the conflict with franchisees probably stemmed from
answer
communication difficulties
question
Clayton computer systems is a value added retailer that promotes its products as the very latest in technology. Hardware and software producers with a reputation for being on the leading edge will be in a good position to use _______ power with clayton
answer
referent
question
with regard to channel conflict and channel efficiency
answer
channel conflict is usually expected to have a negative effect
question
_______ is defined as when a channel member exerts control or influence over the behavior of another channel member
answer
marketing channel power
question
Two retailers are fighting for the right to represent a major manufacturer in New York. The conflict between these two retailers is probably caused by
answer
allocation of scarce resources
question
Conflict between burger king and its franchisees has occurred because
answer
burger king franchisees were force to set low prices for some menu items
question
Retailers are often willing to adhere to the wishes of large manufacturers such as Procter & Gamble and General Foods because these companies sell brands of products that are in great demand by consumers. These large manufacturers are in a position to emphasize the use of:
answer
Reward power
question
In order to get retailers to display its products a manufacturer has to have its salespeople go to the retailers' stores, set up the displays and instruct them in how to utilize the displays. In this example
answer
Extra input is needed to achieve the distribution objective.
question
According to the text the concept of role is of use to the channel manager because it
answer
Provide him/her with insight into the constraints under which channel members operate
question
Which of the following is not an input to achieving distribution objectives
answer
consumer demand for products
question
the relationship between channel conflict and channel performance is expressed in terms of
answer
channel efficiency
question
Conflict in marketing channel is often caused by all of the following except:
answer
A focus on object center behavior
question
One study by Etgar found that in channels with relatively small local dealers, power employed by manufacturers based on economic rewards or coercion provided a degree of control over channel members ________ power based on legitimacy, expertise or reference
answer
Higher than
question
The underlying theme of the relationship among channel members presented in the text
answer
Cooperation
question
Which of the following statements about role is not true
answer
roles in the marketing channel stay constant over time
question
Large retailers tend to have _______ power over their smaller manufacturers or suppliers
answer
high levels of reward
question
In their communications channel members often omit or distort information
answer
to protect promotional plans from being leaked to the competition
question
Competition is different than conflict because
answer
In competition the parties do no try to impede each other's goal attainment
question
The marketing channel should be viewed as
answer
An inter- organizational social system
question
In order to select the right power bases to use the channel manager needs to know:
answer
All of the above
question
A study found that in a franchised channel avoidance of using coercive power resulted in all of the following except
answer
franchisees were more likely to file class action suits
question
Many manufacturers will listen to retailers' product demands because retailers are knowledgeable about consumer needs. Such retailers are in a good position to emphasize the use of
answer
Expert power
question
Conflict in the marketing channel is usually referred to as behavior that is
answer
goal impeding
question
with regard to channel conflict it is true that
answer
the channel manager must make a conscious effort to detect channel conflict
question
Franchisors have the right to tell franchisees how to market products because of the franchise contract. In this case, franchisors are emphasizing the use of
answer
legitimate power
question
A recent study of marketing channels in China found
answer
That Chinese beer distributors had similar perceptions of power as their western counterparts
question
SEA publishing and Kate's Bookstores are embroiled in conflict over who should establish retail prices. The conflict likely is the result of
answer
Decision domain disagreements
question
Which of the following statements regarding appraising the effects of conflict on the channel is true
answer
At present most channel managers use a linear scale measuring conflict intensity and frequency
question
The social systems perspective of marketing channels is appropriate because
answer
a solely economic approach is not adequate for understanding channels
question
Two retailers are fight for the right to represent a major manufacturer in New York. The conflict between these two retailers is probably caused by
answer
allocation of scarce resources
question
Which of the following statements about role is not true
answer
roles in the marketing channel stay constant over time
question
When an evaluation of key areas of the relationship of a channel member with other members takes place an _______ has been used
answer
marketing channel audit
question
to reduce communication difficulties with small independent retailers channel managers in large manufacturing firms should
answer
Learn whether the goals of smaller channel members are very different from his/her own firm's goals
question
_______ is defined as when a channel member exerts control of influence over the behavior of another channel member
answer
marketing channel power
question
The feasibility and applicability of the various approach for resolving channel conflict will
answer
vary for different kinds of channels under different sets of circumstances
question
A wholesaler and retailer have become embroiled in conflict over attempts by the wholesaler's sales force to help the retailer display its products. The retailer views this sales force as a nuisance that interferes with customer service. There seems to be a problem of
answer
Perceptual differences
question
The greater the degree of optimization in carrying out a distribution objective
answer
The higher is the level of channel efficiency
question
In resolving channel conflict the channel manager should
answer
consider a peace conference to jointly solve the problem
question
four fundamental behavioral process relevant to the marketing channel are
answer
Power, conflict, role, and communication.
question
when considering the use of power in international channels, U.S. channel managers know that
answer
Cultural differences can affect how channel members perceive the use of various power bases
question
The vehicle for all interaction among channel members is
answer
communication
question
the test defines role as
answer
a set of prescriptions defining what the behavior of a position member should be
question
Larger retailers tend to have _________ power over their smaller manufacturers or suppliers
answer
high levels of reward
question
All of the following are advantages of using arbitration for resolving channel conflict except
answer
it lessens secrecy
question
Which of the following generalizations about conflict is not true
answer
Studies have found that leadership styles do not have an impact in creating conflict
question
Sylvan Learning Center's ad stressing its pride in being the world leader in supplementary education is an example of
answer
referent power
question
according to the text the concept of role is of use to the channel manager because it
answer
provides him/her with insight into the constraints under which channel members operate
question
Hoover's "All Aboard" marketing campaign in trade magazines portrayed in the text was based largely on _______
answer
coercive
question
A study found in a franchised channel avoidance of using coercive power resulted in all of the following except
answer
franchisees were more limey to file class action suits
question
in the case of the franchiser Alpha Graphic discussed in the text, the main cause of the conflict with franchisees probably stemmed from
answer
communication diffulties
question
more congruent roles should lead to
answer
more cooperative and efficient channels
question
which of the following is not likely to cause communications problems based on perceptual differences
answer
corporate goals
Conflict
Conflict Theory
Problem Solving
Supply Side Economics
Chapter 09: Conflict and Negotiation – Flashcards 85 terms

Clarence Louder
85 terms
Preview
Chapter 09: Conflict and Negotiation – Flashcards
question
1. If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that a. employee-employer relations will be good. b. conflict is subversive. c. no conflict exists. d. conflict is inevitable. e. management practices are highly effective.
answer
c.no conflict exists.
question
2. Terry is known the provoke arguments, and while some people don't like her for that reason, most would admit that her confrontational style improves the performance of the group. This is an example of a. dysfunctional conflict. b. destructive conflict. c. functional conflict. d. negotiation conflict. e. forcing conflict.
answer
c.functional conflict.
question
3. Raffi is a good worker, but in a group setting, he often resorts to personal attacks on other workers who disagree with his point of view on a given issue. This is an example of a. functional conflict. b. cognitive conflict. c. destructive conflict. d. affective conflict. e. forcing conflict.
answer
d.affective conflict.
question
4. When working on a team, Angela is effective, even though she often expresses disagreement with the perspectives and judgments of her peers regarding various tasks that they are discussing. This is an example of a. cognitive conflict. b. functional conflict. c. affective conflict. d. destructive conflict. e. forcing conflict.
answer
a.cognitive conflict.
question
5. The production department at RLM Inc. is always in conflict with the sales department because the former accuses the latter of promising delivery dates to customers that are unrealistic. The source of conflict in this example is a. communication. b. personalities. c. tasks. d. structure. e. management.
answer
d.structure.
question
6. When Antonio gets into a disagreement with co-workers, he often intimidates them with physical gestures and by pushing them. On the conflict intensity continuum, Antonio's behaviour would be closest to a. functional conflict. b. affective conflict. c. annihilatory conflict. d. personality conflict. e. task conflict.
answer
c.annihilatory conflict.
question
7. The potential for conflict to become actual conflict if a. group members are homogeneous. b. there is an incompatibility of goals. c. group members are diverse. d. there are differences of opinion. e. there is disagreement with established company policy.
answer
b.there is an incompatibility of goals.
question
8. Which of the following is not a requirement of conflict? a. must be perceived b. overt acts c. incompatibility d. opposition e. separation
answer
b.overt acts
question
9. A process that begins when one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is about to negatively affect, something that the first party cares about is called a. politics. b. consideration. c. power. d. conflict. e. negotiation.
answer
d.conflict.
question
10. Which of the following falls outside the general definition of conflict? a. commonly accepted organizational practices b. difference over interpretations of facts c. miscommunication of information d. disagreement on behavioural expectations e. incompatibility of goals
answer
a.commonly accepted organizational practices
question
11. Ambiguity about responsibilities and accountabilities describes which category of conflict sources? a. affective b. structural c. cognitive d. cultural e. communication
answer
b.structural
question
12. Conflict that is task-oriented and related to differences in perspective and judgments is a. affective conflict. b. cognitive conflict. c. dysfunctional conflict. d. structural conflict. e. functional conflict.
answer
b.cognitive conflict.
question
13. Affective conflict is a. emotional and aimed at a person rather that an issue. b. impersonal and based on issues rather that a personality. c. related to differences in perspectives. d. a consequence of the requirements of the job. e. a divergent hierarchy of goals.
answer
a.emotional and aimed at a person rather that an issue.
question
14. The demarcation between functional and dysfunctional conflict is a. neither clear nor precise. b. individual perception. c. the effect on group performance. d. measured on the conflict intensity scale. e. determined by the group's leader.
answer
c.the effect on group performance.
question
15. Conflict is dysfunctional when it a. provides a medium to release tension. b. reduces group cohesiveness. c. fosters an environment of self-evaluation and change. d. enhances flexibility. e. increases productivity.
answer
b.reduces group cohesiveness.
question
16. The most important criterion in determining whether conflict is functional or dysfunctional is a. overall morale. b. turnover rates. c. absenteeism levels. d. group performance. e. individual performance.
answer
d.group performance.
question
17. Which type of conflict is aimed at a person rather than an issue? a. affective b. selective c. cognitive d. sequential e. allowable
answer
a.affective
question
18. Conflict is functional if it a. supports the objectives of the group. b. is satisfying to the individual members of the group. c. causes group members to argue. d. causes turnover. e. supports the objectives of management.
answer
a.supports the objectives of the group.
question
19. When determining the functionality of conflict, research strongly suggests that the most significant factor is a. the frequency of starting conflict. b. the amount of interpersonal conflict. c. the source of conflict. d. the recipient's attitude towards conflict. e. the general attitude of both parties toward conflict.
answer
c.the source of conflict.
question
20. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, only incorporating the will of the other party is termed a. forcing. b. compromising. c. yielding. d. avoiding. e. problem solving.
answer
c.yielding.
question
21. Candice is great at resolving conflict among her staff members. Her usual approach is to try to reach an agreement that completely satisfies the aspirations of both people who are involved in the conflict. This is an example of a. forcing. b. avoiding. c. compromising. d. problem solving. e. yielding.
answer
d.problem solving.
question
22. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, imposing one's will is termed a. forcing. b. problem solving. c. avoiding. d. yielding. e. compromising.
answer
a.forcing.
question
23. Since his work group has a lot of temperamental people in it, when a conflict arises among the group, Francois tends to deal with it by minimizing the importance of the issue that caused the conflict and telling everyone to ―just get back to work‖. This conflict management strategy is known as a. yielding b. compromising c. avoiding. d. problem solving. e. forcing.
answer
c.avoiding.
question
24. Tina is known as a bit of a ―softie‖ among her coworkers, because when someone challenges one of her ideas, she backs right off even when her idea is a very good one. This conflict management strategy is known as a. yielding. b. compromising. c. avoiding. d. problem solving. e. forcing.
answer
a.yielding.
question
25. Timmy is very popular among his coworkers because he tries to balance the needs of others with those of his own to reach solutions when a conflict arises between them. This conflict management strategy is known as a. forcing. b. compromising. c. problem solving. d. yielding. e. avoiding.
answer
b.compromising.
question
26. Will is very adept at resolving conflicts among his staff by playing down the differences with respect to a given issue while emphasizing the common interests of both parties. This conflict management strategy is called a. avoidance. b. smoothing. c. compromising. d. problem solving. e. developing subordinate goals.
answer
b.smoothing.
question
27. A consistent conflict among members of John's staff is the lack of resources; John's staff believe other departments have more and newer technology to complete their work, so they grumble and complain to and about each others use of technology and compare themselves to the other departments. Because he knows it isn't true that other departments have newer and better equipment, John could manage this conflict effectively by a. authoritative command. b. altering the human variable. c. altering the structural variables. d. expansion of resources. e. avoidance,
answer
a.authoritative command.
question
28. Ismal is a well-respected employee from another department who has been brought in to try to resolve a conflict between two employees in another department. His advice to them is to attempt to resolve their main issue first, and he has provided them with some new information that expands their understanding of the issue. Ismal's role is that of a a. compromiser. b. mediator. c. arbitrator. d. negotiator. e. enforcer.
answer
b.mediator.
question
29. Fred has been brought in to resolve the negotiation impasse between the union and management. He is very good at encouraging open communication, and is also very good at fact-finding and interpreting messages of the participants. Fred is known as a(n) a. facilitator. b. arbitrator. c. manager. d. conciliator. e. ombudsperson.
answer
d.conciliator.
question
30. Kerri Anne has been brought in to resolve the stalemate between the union and management regarding the issues of wage increases. She has indicated that if the two parties cannot resolve this issue themselves, she will have to impose a decision herself. Kerri Anne is known as a(n) a. facilitator. b. ombudsperson. c. arbitrator. d. mediator. e. conciliator.
answer
c.arbitrator.
question
31. Rawana is very skilled at bringing conflicting parties to a negotiated solution by suggesting alternatives and by using reasoning and persuasion. Rawana is known as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. facilitator. d. ombudsperson. e. peer review.
answer
a.mediator.
question
32. Most Americans expect conflict to be dealt with directly and openly; most Mexicans expect conflict to be dealt with a. immediately . b. through compromise. c. through authoritative command. d. in private. e. in public.
answer
d.in private.
question
33. To achieve expedient solutions under time pressure, the best conflict resolution strategy is a. yielding. b. compromising. c. forcing. d. avoiding. e. problem solving.
answer
b.compromising.
question
34. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, trying to reach mutually satisfactory results is termed a. avoiding. b. forcing. c. yielding. d. problem solving. e. compromising.
answer
d.problem solving.
question
35. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, ignoring the issue is termed a. forcing. b. yielding. c. compromising. d. avoiding. e. problem solving.
answer
d.avoiding.
question
36. Within the five identified conflict management strategies, balancing concerns to reach a solution is termed a. avoiding. b. forcing. c. yielding. d. problem solving. e. compromising.
answer
e.compromising.
question
37. Forcing, as a conflict management strategy, usually creates which of the following solutions? a. win-lose b. lose-lose c. tie-win d. win-win e. tie-lose
answer
a.win-lose
question
38. The dual concern theory identifies which of the following two primary dimensions of conflict-handling intentions? a. awareness and assertiveness b. reliability and awareness c. cooperativeness and assertiveness d. independence and interdependence e. accommodation and collaboration
answer
c.cooperativeness and assertiveness
question
39. Yielding, as a conflict management strategy, usually creates which of the following solutions? a. win-lose b. lose-lose c. tie-win d. win-win e. tie-lose
answer
a.win-lose
question
40. Making positional commitments in a conflict would illustrate which of the following conflict-handling strategies? a. forcing b. avoiding c. yielding d. problem solving e. compromising
answer
a.forcing
question
41. Which of the following conflict-handling methods is best described as win-win? a. avoiding b. accommodating c. compromising d. problem solving e. competing
answer
d.problem solving
question
42. Which of the following characteristics would be inconsistent with an individual using a problem solving style? a. views conflict as natural and helpful b. demonstrates trust and candidness with others c. believes that each party must give up something to reach a satisfactory solution d. views everyone as having an equal role in resolving the conflict e. attempts to reach a satisfactory and acceptable conclusion
answer
c.believes that each party must give up something to reach a satisfactory solution
question
43. Why are individual attitudes toward conflict so important? a. The individual is the smallest unit of measurement. b. These attitudes define the set of possible settlements. c. These attitudes do not change. d. These attitudes define the structural elements in conflict. e. These attitudes are variable and inconsequential.
answer
b.These attitudes define the set of possible settlements.
question
44. ―Splitting the difference‖ would be used by which of the following conflict management strategies? a. avoiding b. problem solving c. yielding d. compromising e. forcing
answer
d.compromising
question
45. To achieve compromise, one needs to a. avoid overt disagreement. b. value openness and trust. c. dominate the other conflicting party. d. give up something of value. e. give in to the conflicting party.
answer
d.give up something of value.
question
46. Mediation is a strategy that a. brings people together formally to talk about personalities. b. brings a panel of peers together to adjudicate and solve the problem. c. brings people together with a third party to solve the problem. d. brings an impartial third party to dictate the solution. e. brings an impartial third party to help negotiate a solution.
answer
e.brings an impartial third party to help negotiate a solution.
question
47. SCENARIO 9-1 Doors Unlimited is a manufacturer of doors, frames and related hardware and structures for the residential and construction industry. The North Shore plant is the oldest and largest of a series of plants that Doors Unlimited operates. In many cases, they manufacture subassemblies and parts for other plants that are unable to meet a specific customer order. Operations objectives are specifically defined for each of the two departments in this plant. However, production and marketing always seem to have some form of conflict related to issues ranging from manufacturing and design to satisfying customer orders. Communication appears to be a major problem. Frequently, the correct information and data is not provided and a state of confusion exists, creating situations where each department blames the other for problems encountered. The ―it's not our problem‖ attitude is healthy at the North Shore plant! Production always seems to be behind schedule or short of products needed for a shipment. Marketing somehow manages to increase order quantity and variety midway through a production run and is constantly adjusting the orders and shipping dates. These shortcuts and alterations clearly violate established procedure and policy regarding plant operation and how customers are to be served. Production, in turn, responds by altering their own schedules and attempting to force customers into receiving product ahead of schedule. As the problems intensified, each department ―dug in‖ to protect its turf. Eventually an agreement between the two departments was established in an attempt to resolve the problems and smooth out the operations. However, the outcome was that marketing placed even more orders that production was unable to meet. Marketing began to use pressure tactics to get production to ―toe the line.‖ The situation was causing customers to be inconvenienced. Conflict in terms of blame, delays and lack of communication was becoming standard practice. The atmosphere was negative and the departments were blaming each other. Charles Strong, director of operations and production at the North Shore plant, discussed with Norman, vice president of human resources for Doors Unlimited, some approaches to resolve at least some of the conflicts in order to put the plant back into effective operation. Charles noted in a recent discussion that the size and specialization of the plant and the composition of its departments have stimulated conflict. Which of the following is also a potential source of the conflict? a. where group or department members are older b. lower turnover that does not affect group performance c. specific direction/definition of responsibility for actions d. interdependence of groups e. structural conflict is not a possible issue.
answer
d.interdependence of groups
question
48. SCENARIO 9-1 Doors Unlimited is a manufacturer of doors, frames and related hardware and structures for the residential and construction industry. The North Shore plant is the oldest and largest of a series of plants that Doors Unlimited operates. In many cases, they manufacture subassemblies and parts for other plants that are unable to meet a specific customer order. Operations objectives are specifically defined for each of the two departments in this plant. However, production and marketing always seem to have some form of conflict related to issues ranging from manufacturing and design to satisfying customer orders. Communication appears to be a major problem. Frequently, the correct information and data is not provided and a state of confusion exists, creating situations where each department blames the other for problems encountered. The ―it's not our problem‖ attitude is healthy at the North Shore plant! Production always seems to be behind schedule or short of products needed for a shipment. Marketing somehow manages to increase order quantity and variety midway through a production run and is constantly adjusting the orders and shipping dates. These shortcuts and alterations clearly violate established procedure and policy regarding plant operation and how customers are to be served. Production, in turn, responds by altering their own schedules and attempting to force customers into receiving product ahead of schedule. As the problems intensified, each department ―dug in‖ to protect its turf. Eventually an agreement between the two departments was established in an attempt to resolve the problems and smooth out the operations. However, the outcome was that marketing placed even more orders that production was unable to meet. Marketing began to use pressure tactics to get production to ―toe the line.‖ The situation was causing customers to be inconvenienced. Conflict in terms of blame, delays and lack of communication was becoming standard practice. The atmosphere was negative and the departments were blaming each other. Norman Seers, vice president of human resources for Doors Unlimited, is attempting to resolve the problems in the North Shore plant. He realizes that conflict, in this case, is highly dysfunctional and is beginning to negatively impact customer service. Norman, however, also believes that some level of conflict is good in that it a. allows employees to openly question and disagree with each other's ideas. b. discourages expression of personal beliefs and opinions. c. keeps employees quiet, removed and distant. d. disrupts the relationships in the office so they don't waste time talking on the job. e. causes people to disengage and leave the firm.
answer
a.allows employees to openly question and disagree with each other's ideas.
question
49. When it comes to conflict and productivity, research has strongly suggested a. conflict should be avoided at all costs. b. conflict costs almost double productivity input. c. conflict can be functional and improve productivity. d. people have an aversion to productivity. e. conflict and counter-productivity are predictable.
answer
c.conflict can be functional and improve productivity.
question
50. When it comes to personality conflicts in the workplace, research suggests managers can spend between ______ of their time managing them. a. 20-25% b. 6-8% c. 16-18% d. 12-20% e. 50-60%
answer
d.12-20%
question
51. Bob welcomes a certain degree of conflict and disagreement among his staff, since he has been concerned that they have approved proposals in the past based on weak assumptions and without exploring other alternatives. Bob is promoting a type of conflict known as a. mediation. b. affective. c. cognitive. d. collaboration. e. dysfunctional.
answer
c.cognitive.
question
52. Leslie is of the opinion that conflict isn't always bad. His feeling is that it can assist in avoiding one of the biggest problems that groups face known as a. negotiation. b. groupthink. c. arbitration. d. mediation. e. peer reviews.
answer
b.groupthink.
question
53. A process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon the exchange rate for them is a. negotiation. b. conflict management. c. economics. d. supply side economics. e. resource allocation.
answer
a.negotiation.
question
54. What is negotiation? a. win-lose situation b. best alternative to a situation c. resistance point d. exchange process e. creative conflict
answer
d.exchange process
question
55. Distributive bargaining involves a. varying amounts of resources. b. the long term. c. the short term. d. a limited amount of resources. e. both parties as winners.
answer
c.the short term.
question
56. The bargaining strategy that operates under zero-sum conditions is called a. win-win. b. unethical. c. integrative. d. distributive. e. win-lose.
answer
d.distributive.
question
57. Integrative bargaining involves a. limited resources. b. the short term. c. resistance to bargaining. d. the long term. e. winning at any cost.
answer
d.the long term.
question
58. Labour-management negotiations over wages exemplifies a. integrative bargaining. b. cost-effective bargaining. c. distributive bargaining. d. third-party bargaining. e. organizational bargaining.
answer
c.distributive bargaining.
question
59. Conrad is optimistic that the issues between the union and management will be resolved since there appears to be some overlap between their aspirations. This overlap is known as a. a hope for a settlement. b. a bargaining zone. c. collective bargaining. d. groupthink. e. rubber stamping.
answer
b.a bargaining zone.
question
60. Which type of negotiation seeks to divide a ―fixed pie‖? a. distributive bargaining b. integrative bargaining c. unethical bargaining d. resistance bargaining e. cost-effective bargaining
answer
a.distributive bargaining
question
61. The first step in the negotiation process should be a. defining ground rules. b. clarification. c. justification. d. developing a strategy. e. bargaining.
answer
d.developing a strategy.
question
62. James' ―claim to fame‖ is that, in any negotiation process that he is involved with, he has the ability to work towards a solution that can create a win-win situation for all participants. James is thus adept at a. integrative bargaining. b. collective bargaining. c. distributive bargaining. d. barter bargaining. e. wholistic bargaining.
answer
a.integrative bargaining.
question
63. The negotiating strategy that emphasizes win-win solutions is called a. positive negotiation. b. integrative bargaining. c. distributive bargaining. d. equal bargaining. e. all-solutions bargaining.
answer
b.integrative bargaining.
question
64. The lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement is determined by your a. best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA). b. margin of error. c. bid price. d. asking price. e. negotiating stance.
answer
a.best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA).
question
65. Stephen's experience in labour-management relations is that one of the groups always seems to win at the expense of the other. This is known as a. integrative bargaining. b. groupthink. c. the bargaining zone. d. distributive bargaining e. collective bargaining.
answer
d.distributive bargaining
question
66. SCENARIO 9-2 Labour and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement appears to be possible. Both sides have agreed that resources are limited. Each feels that whatever one side wins, the other side loses. They believe they are engaged in a. integrative bargaining. b. distributive bargaining. c. mediation. d. best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA). e. dispute resolution.
answer
b.distributive bargaining.
question
67. SCENARIO 9-2 Labour and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement appears to be possible. Which of the following is a characteristic of distributive bargaining? a. I win; you win. b. long-term focus c. convergent or congruent interests d. parties' interests are opposed to each other e. sensitivity to each other's needs
answer
d.parties' interests are opposed to each other
question
68. SCENARIO 9-2 Labour and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement appears to be possible. Another term for bargaining is a. negotiating. b. compromising. c. collusion. d. good faith gesture. e. resistance.
answer
a.negotiating.
question
69. SCENARIO 9-3 Playbill Inc. is a company that hires culturally diverse people to perform Shakespearean plays for high school students. They employ actors and actresses from all over the world. These actors and actresses have joined together to request higher salaries for their services. Which of the following statements is false concerning gender differences in negotiations? a. Women are neither worse nor better negotiators than men. b. Women's attitudes toward negotiation and negotiating skills appear to be quite different from men's. c. Low-power managers, regardless of gender, attempt to placate their opponents. d. Women are always more cooperative and pleasant in negotiations than men. e. Men are more likely to use dialogue to persuade others.
answer
d.Women are always more cooperative and pleasant in negotiations than men.
question
70. SCENARIO 9-3 Playbill Inc. is a company that hires culturally diverse people to perform Shakespearean plays for high school students. They employ actors and actresses from all over the world. These actors and actresses have joined together to request higher salaries for their services. Which of the following statements about cultural differences in negotiations is false? a. The Chinese draw out negotiations. b. The French like conflict. c. The Russians are quick to make concessions. d. The Americans are impatient and want to be liked. e. The Japanese adapt their behaviours to the situation.
answer
c.The Russians are quick to make concessions.
question
71. In third-party negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. consultant. d. conciliator. e. liaison.
answer
d.conciliator.
question
72. Which of the following would fall outside the general role of a mediator? a. suggest b. reason c. persuade d. facilitate e. dictate
answer
e.dictate
question
73. In third-party negotiations, a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, and suggestions is known as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. counselor.
answer
a.mediator.
question
74. In third-party negotiations, a third party with the authority to dictate an agreement is known as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. counselor.
answer
b.arbitrator.
question
75. SCENARIO 9-4 Janet and Phillip are partners in a law firm. Their firm has grown considerably and they are unable to service all of their clients. They do not want to invite other attorneys to join them and must decide which clients to keep and which to send to other law firms. They have reached an impasse in their discussions regarding which clients they will keep and have decided to bring in outside help in their negotiations. Since their problems are moderate and not severely rooted in personalities or their law practice, Janet and Phillip have decided to bring in a neutral third party to facilitate a negotiated solution. This person is referred to as a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. liaison.
answer
a.mediator.
question
76. SCENARIO 9-4 Janet and Phillip are partners in a law firm. Their firm has grown considerably and they are unable to service all of their clients. They do not want to invite other attorneys to join them and must decide which clients to keep and which to send to other law firms. They have reached an impasse in their discussions regarding which clients they will keep and have decided to bring in outside help in their negotiations. Since they have decided not to have a settlement imposed, they will not seek the services of a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. counselor.
answer
b.arbitrator.
question
77. SCENARIO 9-4 Janet and Phillip are partners in a law firm. Their firm has grown considerably and they are unable to service all of their clients. They do not want to invite other attorneys to join them and must decide which clients to keep and which to send to other law firms. They have reached an impasse in their discussions regarding which clients they will keep and have decided to bring in outside help in their negotiations. They have asked Jillian, a trusted colleague and associate, to engage in fact-finding, interpretation, and persuasion to develop some agreements with them. Jillian's role is that of a(n) a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. e. facilitator.
answer
c.conciliator.
question
78. Research has found that some cultures prefer ____________ relations and may not react well to the confrontational dynamics more common among North Americans. a. functional. b. harmonious. c. professional. d. dysfunctional. e. team.
answer
b.harmonious.
question
79. Liking conflict and not being concerned about whether they are liked or disliked by the opposing party in the negotiations is common for the a. Arabs. b. Russians. c. North Americans. d. French. e. Japanese.
answer
d.French.
question
80. Recent research studies in gender differences in negotiating styles and effectiveness show that a. there are many reliable conclusions. b. women are better negotiators. c. there are few reliable conclusions. d. women are more confident. e. no differences exist.
answer
c.there are few reliable conclusions.
question
81. Asia Lee is from China, and she is clearly uncomfortable with conflict as is typical of people from her country. Asia Lee is from which of the following types of cultures? a. Activist. b. Collectivist. c. Distributive. d. Compliant. e. Assertive.
answer
a.Activist.
question
82. Chinese managers are more likely than US managers to a. force and compromise. b. compromise and yield. c. avoid and yield. d. force and problem-solve. e. compromise and problem-solve.
answer
c.avoid and yield.
question
83. Which personality types are less effective at distributive bargaining? a. extroverts. b. introverts. c. Machiavellians. d. risk-takers e. Type A.
answer
a.extroverts.
question
84. Conflict meets the criteria of constructive conflict when it a. improves the quality of decisions. b. encourages interest and curiosity of members. c. increases tensions to stimulate creativity. d. increases tensions to stimulate creativity and improves the quality of decisions. e. improves the quality of decisions and encourages interest and curiosity of members.
answer
e.improves the quality of decisions and encourages interest and curiosity of members.
question
85. Tom has found that when his project managers have to work in large teams, conflict seems to a. increase. b. decrease. c. be goal-oriented. d. be easier to resolve. e. be avoided.
answer
a.increase.
Bring About Social Change
Conflict Theory
Criminology
General Strain Theory
Internal And External Factors
Social Movements
A Night to Remember: Chapter 10 – Flashcards 20 terms

Isabel Padilla
20 terms
Preview
A Night to Remember: Chapter 10 – Flashcards
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
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ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
answer
ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
question
Individuals are often in conflict with the societies in which they live. Describe both the individual and the society, show the conflict between the two, discuss how the conflict is resolved (if at all) and how it connects to the theme.
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ESSAY Play: Novel: Short story: Poem:
Conflict
Conflict Theory
English/Language Arts 2 (10Th Grade)
Motion
Television
The Nose
The Pedestrian Conflict Essay Quotes 9 terms

Patricia Harrah
9 terms
Preview
The Pedestrian Conflict Essay Quotes
question
Conflict - characterisation of Mead
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\"He was alone in the world of A.D.2053 or as good as alone\"
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Conflict - characterisation of Mead 2
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\"In ten years of walking by night or day, for thousands of miles he had never met another person walking not one in all that time\"
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Conflict - characterisation of society
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\"Grey Phantoms\"
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Conflict - characterisation of society
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\"The tombs, ill lit by the television light, where the people sat like the dead, the grey or muliticoloured lights touching their faces but never really touching them\"
question
Conflict - government controls - contrast
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\"Crime was ebbing: there was no need now for Police, save for this one lone car wandering and wandering the empty streets\"
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Conflict - Key incident
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\"He stood entranced not unlike a night moth, stunned by the illumination and then drawn towards it\"
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Conflict - key incident
answer
\"The light held him fixed, like a museum specimen, needle thrust through chest\"
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Conflict - Ending
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\"Walking for air\" \"walking to see\"
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Conflict - Ending
answer
\"No sound and no motion all the rest of the chill November night\"
Conflict
Conflict Theory
High Power Distance
Interpersonal Communication
Com 11-12 68 terms

Kenneth Wheeler
68 terms
Preview
Com 11-12
question
What is true with respect to interpersonal conflict?
answer
It involves perceived scarce resources
question
Felix and Hector are facing differing views, but nothing has been voiced. What is true?
answer
They are not engaged in conflict because conflict must be expressed
question
Frank and Samantha are facing predicaments
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All of these are true
question
What is not true concerning common conflict metaphors identified in the textbook?
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Conflict is a hammer
question
What accurately reflects the idea of reframing a conflict?
answer
Thinking of conflict as a game if you traditionally think of it as a battle
question
The content dimension of a conflict relates to what?
answer
The specific point of contention giving rise to the conflict
question
John stopped a conflict with Anna. Their exchange is an example of
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Meta conflict
question
What is not one of the health detriments associated with conflict?
answer
Calcium deposits in the kidneys
question
When two points of view are in conflict and share no common ground
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Diametrically opposed
question
Research shows that three issues top the list as sources of conflict, what is not one of them?
answer
Relationships with in-laws
question
what is not true concerning sex and conflict?
answer
Women are always taught to be submissive to the demands of men
question
Examples of passive aggression as defined in the text?
answer
All of these
question
When spouses engage in the demand withdrawal pattern who is most likely to demand and withdraw?
answer
Women are most likely to demand and men are most likely to withdraw
question
What is true about collectivistic cultures?
answer
All of these
question
What is not useful for managing a conflict online?
answer
Always respond using the same communication medium
question
The ability to manipulate, influence, or control other people or events
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Power
question
What is not true concerning statements about power?
answer
Power is known as a single dimension concept
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A relationship between a person of higher power and a person of lesser power
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A complimentary relationship
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The form of power derived from the ability to punish
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Coercive power
question
Women earn only about blank as much as men
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70%
question
Using words to attack or demean others
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Verbal aggression
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People in this type of culture think of the unequal distribution of power as normal or even desirable
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High power distance
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The practice of saving up past grievances and bringing them all up at the same time
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Gunny sacking
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A type of behavior where people insult each other and attack each other's self worth
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Contempt
question
In one statement, correctly define the concept of flooding
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Flooding happens when someone engaged in conflict is emotionally or psychologically unable to engage the discussion further
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This conflict management strategy involves a high concern for the other party but a low concern for the self
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Accommodating
question
To qualify as conflict, a struggle or disagreement has to be expressed
answer
True
question
The most distressed relationships are those with the most frequent conflict
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False
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The strength of the immune system is predicted by the way people handle conflict, particularly in romantic relationships
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True
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The topics that gay and lesbian couples experience conflict over tend to differ from the conflict topics of heterosexual couples
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False
question
traditional gender socialization encourages men to use accommodating conflict management strategies
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False
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The disinhibition effect suggest that online conflicts are more likely to involve in equitable distribution of power than face to face conflicts
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False
question
Referent power derives from one's admiration for, and attraction to, another
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True
question
As an approach to structuring families and communities, patriarchy is virtually universal
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True
question
Stonewalling involves seeing yourself as a victim and denying responsibility for your own behaviour
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False
question
The goal of collaboration is to identify a win win solution to a conflict
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True
question
If you try hard enough, you can resolve any conflict
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False
question
Researchers determined that more than blank of the statements made in a week involved some form of deception
answer
25%
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What is not true concerning the characteristics of deception?
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The receiver must believe the information is true
question
Miss representing facts for the purpose of material gain
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Fraud
question
Tanya had an appointment, and didn't check her calendar. what is true?
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Tanya did not lie to her boss because she believed her statement was true
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What does deception can serve as a social lubricant mean?
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People commonly engage in deception to avoid hurting others feelings
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What is not true concerning common reasons for deception?
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Some lies take advantage of others ignorance
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Lying under oath
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Perjury
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What form of deception is an act of dissimulation?
answer
Equivocation
question
Sandra mats found that almost half of people's deception attempts involved what form of deception?
answer
Falsification
question
Ramon responds to his girlfriend asking if he loves her with an ambiguous response. What form of deception is this?
answer
Equivocation
question
Frank's grandfather always increases the size of his fish from his fishing story. What is this an example of?
answer
Exaggeration
question
Ronaldo bought a TV, and realized it was too expensive. This was because he had to purchase additional channels. what is true?
answer
The salesperson engaged in deception by omission
question
The average person can detect deception approximately what percentage of the time?
answer
55%
question
What contributes to peoples inability to detect deception accurately?
answer
All of these
question
According to research, most people discover that they have been lied to when
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A third party reveals the truth
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What behavioral change is a reliable cue to deception?
answer
Decreased gesturing
question
Men are more likely than women to lie about this characteristic in an online dating ad
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Education level
question
An increase in which nonverbal behavior is indicative of deception?
answer
Blinking
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What would tend to increase your chances of detecting deception?
answer
Being lied to by a highly motivated liar
question
How do researchers study deceptive behaviour in cross-cultural environments?
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They focus their research on the speaker's nonverbal cues
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An example of the othello error
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A listener is so suspicious that he or she doubts someone else's truthful statement
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Many forms of politeness and discretion involves being deceptive
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True
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It is impossible to lie if everything you say is true
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False
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It is possible to be deceptive without ever saying a word
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True
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Deception done for the right reasons is not really deception
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False
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Most people are quite good at detecting deception
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False
question
Our truth bias is usually stronger for friends than for strangers
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True
question
One of the most common ways people discover they have been lied to is from third party information
answer
True
question
Pupil dilation usually decreases when people are being deceptive
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False
question
Vocal characteristics are usually poor indicators of deception
answer
False
question
When lying to a stranger, one will usually be more successful doing so in a face to face conversation than in an email message
answer
True
Avoiding Eye Contact
Beliefs And Principles
Conflict
Conflict Management
Conflict Theory
Defining The Problem
Health Education
GYM 3;2: Conflict Management Flashcards 14 terms

Lisa Currey
14 terms
Preview
GYM 3;2: Conflict Management Flashcards
question
Unless each step in the conflict resolution process is followed precisely, a conflict cannot be resolved.
answer
F
question
Which of the following is NOT an example of a personal attitude toward a conflict? A. level of importance B. biases C. future goals D. prejudice
answer
C
question
Conflicts arise when __________. A. values differ or are questioned B. power is used to manipulate C. perceptions vary D. all of the above
answer
D
question
A problem at work must be handled the same way as a personal conflict.
answer
F
question
Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Arbitration is necessary when one or more of the parties involved is unwilling to compromise. B. Mediation involves a third party who does not help make a decision. C. A compromise is a jointly reached solution where both parties agree to give up part of their plan to reach a solution. D. all of the above
answer
D
question
Which of the following is an influence on conflict resolution? A. capability B. the nature of the conflict C. personal attitudes D. all of the above
answer
D
question
Which of the following is NOT another way of stating that perceptions differ? A. Beauty is in the eye of the beholder. B. Situations can be viewed from many perspectives. C. People of different ages have different tastes and priorities. D. Most people share similar opinions on important life matters.
answer
D
question
Passive communicators do not care about others' feelings or thoughts.
answer
F
question
Which of the following is NOT an example of nonverbal communication? A. facial expressions B. e-mail messages C. crossed arms D. rolling of eyes
answer
B
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Text messaging is an example of nonverbal communication.
answer
F
question
Which of the following messages is most clearly stated? A. Please be here around 7:00 tomorrow. B. Please be here around 7:00 a.m. C. Please be here at 7:00 a.m. tomorrow. D. Please be here tomorrow.
answer
C
question
Speaking skills to work on for effective communication include __________. A. reading body language and active listening B. voice volume, tone, and pitch C. reading body language and voice volume D. tone, pitch, and active listening
answer
B
question
Individual sports can promote a person's social health.
answer
T
question
Why should an athlete see a doctor after taking a blow to the head? A. A blow to the head can result in a serious, but not obvious, injury. B. All sports injuries need to be treated as if they are life-threatening. C. Blows to the head are generally fatal unless treated immediately. D. A blow to the head generally results in a fracture.
answer
A
Abnormal Psychology
AP Psychology
Conflict Theory
Contingency Theory Of Leadership
Gender Role Stereotypes
Introductory Psychology
Psychology
PSY 226 Chapter 8: Interpersonal Conflict 157 terms

Brandon Ruffin
157 terms
Preview
PSY 226 Chapter 8: Interpersonal Conflict
question
_______ exists when two or more people are interdependent and need to rely on one another to achieve their needs or goals. A) A group B) A collective C) A minimal group D) Social roles E) A social loafer
answer
A) A group
question
When social psychologists define a group as a collection of interdependent people, they mean that A) members' needs and goals cause them to influence one another. B) there is seldom interpersonal conflict in social groups. C) minimal groups often evolve into social groups. D) the group members interact with one another. E) members of groups have relatively little impact on one another.
answer
A) members' needs and goals cause them to influence one another.
question
Families, church or synagogue congregations, student organizations, and sports teams can be conceived of as groups because A) they are part of our evolutionary and cultural heritage as humans. B) they are typically composed of more than ten members. C) they are typically composed of more than two members. D) they are relatively stable collections of individuals who share the same goals. E) individual members interact with one another and influence one another.
answer
C) they are typically composed of more than two members.
question
In groups, interdependence is reflected in A) working towards a common goal. B) communicating with one another. C) influencing and being influenced. D) group conflict. E) finding alternatives to conflict.
answer
C) influencing and being influenced.
question
Roy Baumeister and Mark Leary (1995) argue that the need to belong to groups is present in all societies because A) the Industrial Revolution brought about increased specialization in the workforce. B) hunting and farming have been replaced by business and technology. C) interaction with many people is unavoidable. D) cultural norms everywhere dictate that people cooperate. E) group membership has conferred evolutionary advantages to humans.
answer
E) group membership has conferred evolutionary advantages to humans.
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the function of group membership? A) Bonding in groups conveys an evolutionary advantage. B) Groups convey behavioural expectations through social roles. C) Groups can motivate people to be involved in social change. D) Groups can define social identity and influence future aspirations. E) Groups improve task performance and productivity.
answer
E) Groups improve task performance and productivity.
question
Josh is the president of his college residence hall and he is therefore expected to act in a respectable, dignified manner when he attends campus functions. What social psychological phenomenon does this illustrate? A) a loss of personal identity B) expectation consistency pressure C) conformity D) a social role E) a group representativeness assumption
answer
D) a social role
question
Shared group expectations about how particular group members are expected to behave are called A) expectancy effects. B) collective standards. C) social roles. D) norms. E) group effects.
answer
C) social roles.
question
"We will not talk about other members behind their backs and we will never divulge one another's secrets to anyone, inside or outside this group." The preceding statement reflects A) well defined roles. B) a consensual proscription. C) a group norm. D) a subordinate goal. E) a superordinate goal.
answer
C) a group norm.
question
Whereas _______ specify how all group members should behave, _______ specify how individuals in particular positions should behave. A) roles; norms B) rules; roles C) rules; norms D) norms; rules E) norms; roles
answer
E) norms; roles
question
How do norms differ from roles? Norms _______, whereas roles _______. A) are specific; are general. B) apply to small groups; apply to large groups. C) apply to all group members; apply to specific group members. D) apply to large groups; apply to small groups. E) are expectations; are requirements.
answer
C) apply to all group members; apply to specific group members.
question
One advantage of social roles is that they make individuals' rights and responsibilities clear for group members. One disadvantage of such roles, however, is that they A) are not as powerful as norms in guiding behaviours. B) may not share a universal understanding among group members. C) are assigned arbitrarily. D) are less fair than norms and are therefore more harmful. E) carry normative expectations with them.
answer
E) carry normative expectations with them.
question
Sometimes when professors ask students to break up into small groups to discuss an issue, answer a question, or solve a problem, students roll their eyes and complain that it's the professor's job to teach them. This resistance to cooperative learning activities is probably a result of A) psychological reactance. B) students' expectations about the "professor" role. C) social loafing pressures. D) deindividuation processes. E) social facilitation.
answer
B) students' expectations about the "professor" role.
question
Which of the following is the important lesson to be learned from Zimbardo's Stanford Prison Experiment in which university students played the roles of guards and prisoners. A) Personality variables often have a much stronger impact on behaviour than situational variables. B) People who are by nature authoritarian and abusive prefer jobs like being a prison guard. C) The feeling of being crowded that results from the presence of other people can lead to prison violence. D) The behaviours associated with certain roles can overwhelm one's personal identity and sense of decency. E) People who have strong moral convictions are less likely to become abusive than weak, passive people.
answer
D) The behaviours associated with certain roles can overwhelm one's personal identity and sense of decency.
question
In the Stanford Prison Study conducted by Philip Zimbardo and his colleagues (1973), guards became increasingly sadistic and prisoners became increasingly submissive and withdrawn, all in under a week. Results of this (aborted) study suggest that A) social roles can take on a power all their own. B) humans are inherently aggressive and will "act out" in the appropriate situation. C) interdependence can be reduced in powerful situations. D) people who have authoritarian personalities do not make good prisoners. E) norms in the real world are often adopted in artificial settings.
answer
A) social roles can take on a power all their own.
question
Philip Zimbardo and his colleagues established a mock prison in the basement of the psychology building at Stanford University. How did they decide which participants would assume the role of "prisoner" and which would assume the role of "guard"? A) People were assigned at random to each role. B) Aggressive people tended to volunteer for the role of guard. C) The experimenters used personality tests to assign participants to roles. D) Participants who had spent time in jail refused to be prisoners. E) Because of safety concerns, aggressive people were assigned to the role of prisoner.
answer
A) People were assigned at random to each role.
question
According to the authors of your text book, one cost of roles is that individuals can lose their personal identities as individuals. A second cost is that A) leaders can become intolerant and inflexible. B) roles can make group tasks more difficult. C) role demands are seldom well specified. D) expectations can constrain behaviours unnecessarily. E) roles often lead to incorrect decisions.
answer
D) expectations can constrain behaviours unnecessarily.
question
In India, women were traditionally permitted to occupy only the roles of mother, wife, agricultural laborer, or domestic worker. A social psychologist would likely assert that which of these is an example of a cost of social roles? A) Roles often are imposed by the powerful. B) Roles often have cultural implications. C) Roles often bring about deindividuation. D) Roles often constrain behaviours unnecessarily. E) Roles often apply to those who are less powerful.
answer
D) Roles often constrain behaviours unnecessarily.
question
According to research on children's conceptions of gender-roles described in your text, A) girls' ideas of the roles of women in society have remained unchanged for 30 years. B) the occupational aspirations of boys and girls are no longer dominated by gender-role stereotypes. C) boys are mostly responsible for imposing gender-role stereotypes on girls. D) boys seem to be aware of the constraints put on girls by gender-roles. E) girls are not aware of any perceived constraints of gender roles.
answer
D) boys seem to be aware of the constraints put on girls by gender-roles.
question
The term for group qualities that promote liking between members and bind members together is A) group cohesiveness. B) social roles. C) relation-oriented leadership. D) group norms. E) social facilitation.
answer
A) group cohesiveness.
question
The more cohesive a group is, the more likely it is to A) retain members, involve members, and recruit similar members. B) constrain members, lead members, and recruit similar members. C) involve members, polarize members, and lead members. D) evaluate members, reject members, and pressure members. E) pressure members, organize members, and rejects leadership.
answer
A) retain members, involve members, and recruit similar members.
question
The Wednesday Night Social Club has several couples that have been with the group for more than a decade. They meet every week for a different social activity often at each other's homes. Frequent activities include potluck and card games. Two new couples in the same age group who have moved into the neighbourhood have attended recently. This group shows evidence of A) transactive memory. B) cohesiveness. C) continuity. D) consensus. E) strong leadership.
answer
B) cohesiveness.
question
According to research, social groups tend to range in size from two or three members to several dozen members. Why is this? A) If groups were larger it would be impossible to interact with other members. B) If a group becomes too large conflict within the group becomes unavoidable. C) It would be difficult for members to find more people who are similar to them. D) It is too difficult to arrive at normative consensus when groups grow too large. E) The larger the social group, the greater the likelihood of destructive conflict.
answer
A) If groups were larger it would be impossible to interact with other members.
question
Which of the following collections of people best represents the social-psychological concept of a SOCIAL group? A) deliberating members of a 12-person jury B) personnel employed at a large corporation C) students in a large lecture course D) undergraduates enrolled at a large public university E) fans at a hockey game.
answer
A) deliberating members of a 12-person jury
question
In order for social facilitation to occur, the minimum requirement is the A) presence of those with whom one is interacting. B) concern about how others will evaluate us. C) interdependence of actor and audience. D) feedback from at least one other person. E) mere presence of others.
answer
E) mere presence of others.
question
Social facilitation is most likely to occur when A) individual efforts cannot be assessed. B) the task is simple and well-learned. C) the task is difficult and the individual efforts can be assessed. D) the presence of others relaxes you. E) the task is difficult and involving.
answer
B) the task is simple and well-learned.
question
Jamal studied long and hard for his psychology exam, has mastered the material, and can answer any question that anyone poses. When he enters the classroom on the day of the examination, the room is more crowded than it's been all term. In this situation, Jamal should A) move to a quiet room to take the exam alone. B) request to make the exam a conjunctive task performed in groups. C) move to the front of the lecture hall where he will not be able to see the crowd behind him. D) request to make the exam an additive task performed in groups. E) remain in the crowded classroom to take the exam.
answer
E) remain in the crowded classroom to take the exam.
question
The presence of others will facilitate performance for A) Janine, who is leading a difficult group discussion. B) Jasmine, who gives a dress rehearsal of a long speech. C) Arthur, who performs his first heart surgery with interns looking on. D) Lola, who is learning a new gymnastics routine with her team. E) Tim, who is washing his car as his neighbours watch.
answer
E) Tim, who is washing his car as his neighbours watch.
question
Adele has never driven a car with a standard transmission before. That is, she's never had to decide when to shift gears, push in the clutch, or stop suddenly when the car is in gear. She's just bought a car with standard transmission and wants to practice driving it before she takes it onto the highway. What should she do? A) have people in the car who are experienced drivers B) buckle her seat belt C) take her best friend along to provide instructions and support D) have a group of friends follow along behind her to help pull her out of a ditch if something goes wrong E) drive the car alone and circle a large parking lot a few times
answer
E) drive the car alone and circle a large parking lot a few times
question
Dozens of social psychological experiments on the topic of social facilitation have employed everything from people to birds, ants, and cockroaches. Which of the following is the one consistent finding has emerged from these many studies? A) Difficult tasks are more arousing than simple tasks. B) Simplicity is the most dominant response in the presence of others. C) The presence of others enhances performance the most on difficult tasks. D) The presence of others enhances performance on simple tasks. E) Simple tasks are unaffected by the presence of others, but complex tasks are.
answer
D) The presence of others enhances performance on simple tasks.
question
Robert Zajonc and his colleagues (1969) employed the lowly cockroach in their studies of social facilitation. In the presence of other cockroaches, roaches would run faster down a straight-away to escape a bright light than they would alone, but took longer in the presence of a cockroach audience when the escape route was more complicated (i.e., when they had to run a maze). These findings support the idea that A) the presence of other members of a species improves performance on a well- learned response. B) cockroaches differ from humans in their response to other members of their species. C) the presence of other members of a species impedes performance on a well- learned response. D) cockroaches respond better than humans in the presence of other members of their species. E) members of even the most lowly species experience evaluation apprehension.
answer
A) the presence of other members of a species improves performance on a well- learned response.
question
When people or roaches undertake a difficult task, the presence of others _______ performance; whereas when they undertake a simple task, the presence of others _______ performance. A) has no effect on; enhances B) diminishes; has no effect on C) enhances; impairs D) impairs; enhances E) enhances; has no effect on
answer
D) impairs; enhances
question
According to the definition presented in the text, which of the following is an example of social facilitation? A) Hinton laughs louder at a comedian when he is the member of a live audience than when he watches the comedian on the television at home. B) Sanjay has mastered the material in his psychology course, but fails the exam in a crowded room. C) Amy, a novice golfer, performs especially poorly when she plays in a charity tournament with lots of people watching her. D) Bill, who tries bowling for the first time with his friends, rolls a near perfect game. E) Matthew, an inexperienced actor, gives a wonderful portrayal of Hamlet in front of a large audience.
answer
C) Amy, a novice golfer, performs especially poorly when she plays in a charity tournament with lots of people watching her.
question
_______ refers to the tendency of people to perform better on simple tasks and worse on complex tasks when others are present. A) Contagion performance B) Social loafing C) Social facilitation D) Deindividuation E) Contingent performance
answer
C) Social facilitation
question
Robert Zajonc (1965) wrote an influential article in which he posited a theoretical explanation for the social facilitation effect. Elegantly simple, this explanation included what two steps? A) the presence of others is distracting → distractions make it more difficult to perform B) actors are concerned about evaluation → the most dominant response is activated C) performance of difficult tasks is arousing → arousal impedes performance D) the presence of others is arousing → arousal enhances performance E) the presence of others causes arousal → arousal makes it easier to do simple things and harder to do difficult or new things
answer
E) the presence of others causes arousal → arousal makes it easier to do simple things and harder to do difficult or new things
question
Assume that you are playing pool at the student union when James Michaels and three of his colleagues (1982) surround the table to watch you play. If you are _______ player, you would play _______ because of the arousing effects of their presence. A) a poor; better than you have in the past B) a mediocre; better than before C) an excellent; about the same D) an excellent; worse than usual E) an excellent; better than before
answer
E) an excellent; better than before
question
James Michaels and his colleagues (1982) identified both good and bad pool players and then stood around their tables to watch them play. These researchers found that poor players _______ because _______. A) made more shots; arousal facilitates performance. B) made fewer shots; playing pool was a complex task. C) made fewer shots; they were embarrassed. D) made more shots; they were motivated to "show off." E) made more shots; they were better able to focus.
answer
B) made fewer shots; playing pool was a complex task.
question
One explanation for why the presence of others leads to arousal is that in the presence of members of our own species, we become alert, vigilant, and mildly aroused. The beauty of this explanation is that it explains A) why people become concerned about how they are evaluated. B) the causes and consequences of social loafing. C) the causes of groupthink. D) why other sources of arousal such as flashing lights have a similar effect. E) the results of studies with both humans and cockroaches.
answer
E) the results of studies with both humans and cockroaches.
question
Which of the following explanations for social facilitation applies to humans but NOT to cockroaches? A) Humans are aroused at the prospect of evaluation. B) Humans are more likely to perform well on a simple task when aroused. C) Humans are more likely to perform their dominant response when aroused. D) Humans are distracted by a number of stimuli, including members of their own species. E) Humans are alert and aroused in the presence of other members of their species.
answer
A) Humans are aroused at the prospect of evaluation.
question
A number of social psychologists have speculated on why the presence of others should lead to arousal. They have developed three explanatory theories. One is that arousal increases vigilance. Another is that arousal is distracting. Third, arousal A) increases self-awareness. B) makes us socially apprehensive. C) makes us anxious. D) decreases response latencies. E) releases stress hormones.
answer
B) makes us socially apprehensive.
question
If you wanted to determine whether evaluation apprehension or simple arousal accounts for social facilitation in humans, which of the following studies would you conduct? A) Loiter in a health club locker room, either with or without dark glasses, a white cane, and a seeing-eye dog, (or else hide in a locker); measure how long it takes people to dress after a shower. B) Ask people to solve easy or difficult crossword puzzles, either alone or with their friends; measure how long it takes them to solve the puzzles. C) Conduct either a complicated or simple survey, by phone or in person; measure how long it takes people to answer the questions. D) Ask people to participate in an archery exercise, either with friends or with strangers; count the number of bull's-eyes they make. E) Ask people how they feel in a crowded classroom before a difficult exam.
answer
A) Loiter in a health club locker room, either with or without dark glasses, a white cane, and a seeing-eye dog, (or else hide in a locker); measure how long it takes people to dress after a shower.
question
Robert Baron (1986) has found that flashing lights can cause the same social facilitation effects as the presence of other people. These findings support the idea that _______ is the source of arousal that enhances performance on simple tasks. A) increased vigilance B) reactance C) distraction D) stress E) evaluation apprehension
answer
C) distraction
question
The evaluation apprehension explanation for the source of arousal that produces social facilitation posits that _______ leads to increased arousal, and thus enhanced performance on simple tasks. A) the mere presence of others B) the presence of others who might judge us C) vigilance and divided attention D) anything that causes anxiety E) a social distraction such as a loud party
answer
B) the presence of others who might judge us
question
New Ph.D.'s who apply for jobs often report that they give better job talks in front of perfect strangers whom they may never see again than they do during dress rehearsals for their colleagues and professors before they leave for their interviews. These reports provide anecdotal evidence that A) the presence of others rarely enhances performance. B) the distraction of being in a new place serves as a source of arousal. C) evaluation apprehension may be a source of social facilitation. D) the presence of others facilitates social behaviours. E) if performance is to be enhanced, arousal must be optimal.
answer
C) evaluation apprehension may be a source of social facilitation.
question
Research by Gardner and Knowles (2008) illustrated that even the presence of a photograph of _____ impacted performance such that participants did better on ___ tasks and worse on ____ tasks. A) a favorite TV character; complex; simple B) an unknown movie star; simple; complex C) an unknown actor; complex; simple D) a favorite TV character; simple; complex E) a disliked TV character; complex; simple
answer
D) a favorite TV character; simple; complex
question
You and your roommate love to play complex word games while watching TV. Based on research by Gardner and Knowles (2008), if you want to win the game what kind of TV program should be showing? A) a sports match that both of you love but where you have different favourite teams B) a drama program that is your favourite but unfamiliar to your roommate C) a drama program that is your roommate's favourite but that you don't care for D) a sports match in which your, but not your roommate's, favourite team is playing E) a drama program that both of you love and are familiar with
answer
C) a drama program that is your roommate's favourite but that you don't care for D) a sports match in which your, but not your roommate's, favourite team is playing
question
_______ refers to the tendency of people to do worse on simple tasks and better on complex tasks when they are in the presence of others and when their individual performance cannot be evaluated. A) Social accountability B) Social inhibition C) Social facilitation D) Social loafing E) Social norms
answer
D) Social loafing
question
Joint class projects, group presentations, voting in elections, and singing in unison are all examples of group activities that are likely to be affected by A) groupthink. B) social facilitation. C) social loafing. D) evaluation apprehension. E) deindividuation.
answer
C) social loafing.
question
Social loafing is most likely to occur when A) an improvisational comedy troupe performs. B) a team of computer scientists works to locate and correct errors in a program. C) a group is performing a task on which they will be individually evaluated. D) a team of volunteers stuffs envelopes for a large mailing. E) candidates for city council engage in a public debate.
answer
D) a team of volunteers stuffs envelopes for a large mailing.
question
The resident assistant of a campus residence hall notices that when a team of five students is assigned to bathroom duty, the bathrooms are not as well cleaned as when only one student is assigned to clean them. What phenomenon does this example illustrate? A) social facilitation B) group decline C) social inhibition D) social loafing E) a minimal group paradigm
answer
D) social loafing
question
Which of the following individuals is most likely to engage in social loafing? A) Phoebe, who works with her classmates on a difficult assignment B) Troy, who has to write the forward of a novel he did not write C) Tim, who washes a car with his friends D) Danny, who struggles alone with a difficult calculus problem E) Amanda, who sits alone in her office, licking stamps and placing them on envelopes
answer
C) Tim, who washes a car with his friends
question
Social loafing is likely to impair performance _______ and to enhance performance _______. A) on complex tasks; when we're with others. B) on simple tasks; on complex tasks. C) when we're alone; when we're with others. D) when we're with others; when we're alone. E) on complex tasks; on simple tasks.
answer
B) on simple tasks; on complex tasks.
question
Group or team learning activities are becoming more common in the university setting and professors often assign students to work in groups. Given what you know about social loafing, what advice would you give a professor who is considering using group learning activities? A) For simple assignments, it's better to assign a group grade. B) Beware of social loafing. It's always better to have students work alone if you want them to do well. C) Make sure that the groups of students are cohesive and appoint their own leader. D) For simple assignments, it's better to assign individual grades to students. E) Make sure that the groups are not too small. It's better to have more students relying on one another.
answer
D) For simple assignments, it's better to assign individual grades to students.
question
Why is an individual's performance on a task undertaken with others better on complex tasks than on simple tasks? A) There is less evaluation apprehension associated with simple tasks. B) It actually depends on how the task will be evaluated. C) When people become members of a group, they experience positive affect. D) When people realize that their performance cannot be monitored or evaluated, they relax. E) When people become members of a group, they are motivated to impress others.
answer
D) When people realize that their performance cannot be monitored or evaluated, they relax.
question
Consider the proverb, "Many hands make light work." This proverb is most closely related to the social-psychological concept of A) disjunctive tasks. B) social loafing. C) roles. D) deindividuation. E) social facilitation
answer
B) social loafing.
question
From what you know of social loafing, if subjects were asked to solve either simple or complex computer mazes, and were told either that their individual performances would be evaluated, or that their scores would be averaged with other participants' scores. When participants thought their scores would be averaged with another's, their performance would be expected to be _______ because they _______. A) better on difficult mazes; were more motivated. B) better on difficult mazes; were relaxed. C) better on simple mazes; were relaxed. D) worse on simple tasks; were aroused. E) better on difficult mazes; were aroused.
answer
B) better on difficult mazes; were relaxed.
question
When Jeffrey Jackson and Kip Williams (1985) had participants solve either simple or difficult mazes, those who believed that their scores would be averaged with another person's performed better on difficult mazes than on simple mazes. These finding suggest that social loafing A) arises when we believe that we cannot be evaluated. B) impairs performance on simple tasks, but enhances performance on complex tasks. C) impairs performance on complex tasks, but enhances performance on simple tasks. D) is less likely when people focus more on the collective. E) impairs performance on both simple and complex tasks, but more for simple tasks.
answer
A) arises when we believe that we cannot be evaluated.
question
Research on "brainstorming" has found that people had an easier time generating ideas when A) they expressed their ideas anonymously using a computer. B) they worked in groups of less than ten. C) they expressed their ideas using a computer, but individual contributors could be identified. D) they worked in face-to-face groups. E) they worked alone.
answer
A) they expressed their ideas anonymously using a computer.
question
Research on the use of electronic discussion groups in "brainstorming" exercises has found that they result in all of the following EXCEPT A) the increased generation of highly offensive ideas. B) lowered evaluation apprehension in participants. C) the generation of more possible solutions. D) more conservative possible solutions. E) a richer discussion of possible solutions.
answer
D) more conservative possible solutions.
question
Steven Karau and Kipling Williams (1993) conducted a review of over 150 studies of social loafing. They found that in general, the tendency to engage in social loafing is greater in men than in women because A) women tend to feel more pressure in groups. B) women tend to feel more self-conscious in group. C) men tend to feel more anonymous in groups. D) men tend to feel less self-conscious in groups. E) women tend to hold more collectivistic values.
answer
E) women tend to hold more collectivistic values.
question
Steven Karau and Kipling Williams (1993) reviewed more than 150 studies on social loafing and found that the tendency to loaf is stronger in men than in women. Why is this true, according to the authors of your text? A) Men typically occupy positions of higher status than women. B) Women's tasks are typically more complex than typical male tasks. C) Women are more collectivistic and men are more individualistic. D) Men have more power than women and can therefore induce women to do more work. E) Women tend to feel more self-conscious in group.
answer
C) Women are more collectivistic and men are more individualistic.
question
Many Asian cultures are collectivistic—they tend to place a greater emphasis on the welfare of the group than on the individual. Conversely, Western cultures tend to stress individual performance more than that of the group. A reasonable hypothesis would be that the social loafing effect is A) stronger in collectivist cultures. B) slightly stronger in collectivist cultures, but still more dependent on individual personality differences. C) stronger in Western culture. D) almost nonexistent in collectivist cultures. E) unaffected by cultural norms.
answer
C) stronger in Western culture.
question
All other things being equal, _______ from _______ cultures would be most likely to engage in social loafing. A) women; Western B) women; Asian C) men; Western D) men and women; Asian E) men; Asian
answer
C) men; Western
question
In order to predict whether the presence of others will help or hinder performance, one needs two pieces of information, whether _______ and whether _______. A) individual performance can be evaluated; arousal is high or low. B) group performance can be evaluated; the group has a strong leader. C) arousal is present; one holds individualistic or collectivist values. D) individual performance can be evaluated; the task is simple or complex. E) arousal is high or low; the others are friends or strangers.
answer
D) individual performance can be evaluated; the task is simple or complex.
question
Both social facilitation and social loafing are manifestations of the influence that the presence of others have on our behaviours. These phenomena differ, however, in that presence of others _______ in social facilitation situations and _______ in social loafing situations. A) enhances performance on complex tasks; impairs performance on complex tasks B) decreases arousal; impairs performance on complex tasks C) impairs performance on simple tasks; impairs performance on complex tasks D) increases arousal; decreases arousal E) decreases arousal; increases arousal
answer
C) impairs performance on simple tasks; impairs performance on complex tasks
question
You are a member of a group of five people whose task it is to address and stuff 1,000 envelopes for mailing. Research on _______ suggests that it would be better to give each person 200 envelopes to address and stuff the envelopes alone, whereas research on _______ suggests that it would be better to have everyone work on the task together in the same room. A) contagion; social loafing B) social loafing; deindividuation C) deindividuation; social loafing D) social facilitation; social loafing E) social loafing; social facilitation
answer
E) social loafing; social facilitation
question
_______ is the key to social facilitation effects, whereas _______ is the key to social loafing effects. A) Evaluation; arousal B) Relaxation; evaluation apprehension C) Arousal; relaxation D) Evaluation; deindividuation E) Relaxation; arousal
answer
C) Arousal; relaxation
question
_______ refers to the loosening of normal behavioural constraints when people are in a crowd, leading to increases in impulsive and deviant acts. A) Collective contagion B) Social facilitation C) Deindividuation D) Social loafing E) Collective anonymity
answer
C) Deindividuation
question
Consider the following destructive acts: soccer fans bludgeoning one another, fans at rock concerts trampling one another to death to secure good seats, and Klansmen lynching African-Americans. All of these are examples of the dangerous effects of A) anti-social contagion. B) group hysteria C) anti-social anonymity. D) deindividuation. E) hysterical contagion.
answer
D) deindividuation.
question
Deindividuation is defined as the feeling of anonymity that often results in A) contagion. B) prosocial behaviours. C) impulsive deviant acts. D) social loafing. E) social facilitation
answer
C) impulsive deviant acts.
question
There is a powerful scene in the classic film To Kill a Mockingbird. Atticus Finch, a small town lawyer, is on the courthouse steps standing guard over Tom Robinson, an African-American prisoner who he is defending. A mob of townspeople and local farmers approaches the courthouse, demanding that Atticus turn over Robinson; they are intent on administering their own form of vigilante justice. Suddenly, Atticus's young daughter Scout steps forward. She doesn't understand what's about to happen, and begins to address people in the crowd, "Hey, Mr. Cunningham. How's your boy? I like Walter, but I haven't seen him in awhile." As Scout innocently addresses a number of individuals in the crowd, they begin to leave one-by-one, until the whole lynch mob is disbanded. This classic movie scene best illustrates which social psychological phenomenon? A) social facilitation B) diffusion of responsibility C) the bystander effect D) social loafing E) deindividuation
answer
E) deindividuation
question
Consider the following anti-social acts: European soccer fans sometimes attack and bludgeon players and other fans, in the U.S. mobs of whites would lynch African- Americans, and in Canada a young man was beaten to death by a group of disguised youths. What do these situations have in common? A) They reflect mass actions caused by relative deprivation. B) They demonstrate the tragedies sometimes caused by anonymity. C) They represent the downside of social facilitation. D) They reflect extreme examples of social loafing. E) They represent an unexpected hazard of group cohesion.
answer
B) They demonstrate the tragedies sometimes caused by anonymity.
question
Brian Mullen's (1986) analysis of newspaper accounts revealed that the larger the lynch mob, the more savagely the mobs murdered their victims. Robert Watson's (1973) cross-cultural study revealed that warriors wearing face or body paint were more likely to torture or kill captives than warriors who wore no "war paint." These findings suggest that one reason why mobs often commit heinous acts is that the individuals involved A) experience a reduction in self-awareness and lose sight of their moral standards. B) become more self-aware and act on their feelings of rage and frustration. C) fall prey to social facilitation effects when they become aroused. D) feel anonymous and thus less accountable for their actions. E) fall prey to social loafing effects when they become aroused.
answer
D) feel anonymous and thus less accountable for their actions.
question
For Halloween, Jeff wears a sheet and goes to a party as a ghost. How is this costume likely to influence his behaviour? A) He will be more likely to monitor his own behaviour. B) He will feel less like himself, causing him to reaffirm his own moral standards. C) He will feel less personally accountable for his behaviour. D) He will feel self-conscious and be less likely to interact with others. E) He will focus more attention on himself, causing greater self-awareness.
answer
C) He will feel less personally accountable for his behaviour.
question
Deindividuation A) often has the same effects as social facilitation. B) always results in negative behaviours. C) results in people feeling that there is little chance that they will be caught for behaving badly. D) increases self-awareness, but greatly reduces a person's feelings of accountability for his or her behaviour. E) can be reduced by inducing people to pay attention to the people around them.
answer
C) results in people feeling that there is little chance that they will be caught for behaving badly.
question
Most social psychologists agree that which of the following are two causes of deindividuation? A) people become frustrated and people pay less attention to their environment B) people feel less accountable and people pay less attention to their moral standards C) people pay less attention to their environment and people feel anonymous in a group D) people become frustrated and people feel less accountable for acting on their frustration E) people feel less accountable and people use others to shoulder the blame
answer
B) people feel less accountable and people pay less attention to their moral standards
question
Recall the experiment by Jurgen Rehm, Michael Steinleitner, and Waldemar Lilli (1987) in which teams of German school children played handball. Results of this experiment in which children wore their own clothing or team uniforms revealed that A) wearing new uniforms made children more self-aware, thus decreasing aggression. B) when uniforms were black, aggression increased, but when uniforms were yellow, aggression decreased. C) children became most aggressive when they were wearing their own clothes and playing against a team in uniform. D) having to wear their own clothing increased frustration, thus increasing aggression. E) wearing uniforms made children feel less personally accountable, thus increasing aggression.
answer
E) wearing uniforms made children feel less personally accountable, thus increasing aggression.
question
Joe has just read chapter 8 on group processes and is now relaxing, watching football with his girlfriend. She finally understands the concept of "downs" and "turnovers," and moves on to other questions. "If football is a team sport, how come they have the players' names on their uniforms?" she asks Joe. Assuming that the material in chapter 8 is still accessible in his memory, Joe is most likely to reply, A) "Maybe to keep them from playing too mean and dirty." B) "Maybe to help sort the laundry." C) "Maybe so the announcer knows who made the play." D) "Maybe to make it easier for the quarterback to spot the receivers." E) "Maybe so individual players can be recognized by the fans."
answer
A) "Maybe to keep them from playing too mean and dirty."
question
One reason that deindividuation often leads to impulsive or destructive behaviours is that the presence of many other people can reduce self-awareness, thus making people A) feel less accountable for their actions. B) feel less accountable for the actions of the group. C) forget their internal values or moral standards. D) less likely to contribute to group decisions. E) feel more frustrated, which increases the impulse towards aggression.
answer
C) forget their internal values or moral standards.
question
Ivan Steiner (1972) has defined _______ as any aspect of group interaction that impedes good problem-solving. A) social facilitation B) collective obstacles C) communicative friction D) process loss E) social loafing
answer
D) process loss
question
Adam is part of a group organized to increase blood donations in a local community. As a social psychologist, Adam has a relevant background in persuasion tactics, but his group members fail to realize the important contributions he could make. This scenario is an example of A) a task orientation to problem solving. B) poor leadership. C) process loss. D) intragroup conflict. E) goal misdirection
answer
C) process loss.
question
Ellen and Gene had a disagreement before an important meeting and carried their argument into the meeting. They wouldn't listen to one another and were highly critical of each other's contributions. This example best illustrates A) affective spillover. B) intragroup conflict C) disjunctive styles. D) antagonistic task performance. E) process loss.
answer
E) process loss.
question
Which of the following situations best illustrates process loss? A) the prisoner's dilemma B) sharing memory C) contingent leadership D) social loafing E) autokinetic effect
answer
D) social loafing
question
Normative conformity pressures can impair performance of a group in a problem- solving task because A) only shared information is discussed. B) social loafing is encouraged. C) the weakest members of the group generally attempt to contribute the most. D) such conformity interferes with risk-taking tendencies. E) expert members are discouraged from disagreeing with others.
answer
E) expert members are discouraged from disagreeing with others.
question
In one condition of an experiment conducted by Gerald Stasser (Stasser & Titus, 1985), all group members had access to the same information, and in another condition, members had unique information that other group members didn't know. In the second (unshared information) condition, the group made a worse decision than in the first (shared information) condition. This occurred because groups A) often engage in social loafing. B) seldom can agree on who is most expert. C) avoid differences of opinion, given conformity pressures. D) often ignore dissenting opinions. E) focus discussion on the information that all members know.
answer
E) focus discussion on the information that all members know.
question
One way to deal with process loss and therefore enable the group to come up with correct solution to a problem is A) to work towards integrative solutions. B) to make sure that all members pool the available information. C) to have a charismatic leader D) for all members to criticize each other's ideas. E) for all members take turns at a leadership role.
answer
B) to make sure that all members pool the available information.
question
To prevent process loss and make sure all unique information is shared the group should do all of the following except A) assign group members to different areas of information collection. B) make use of transactive memory strategies. C) assign group members the job of retaining and recording information. D) allow the group enough time to thoroughly discuss the problem. E) focus the group on quickly achieving their goals.
answer
E) focus the group on quickly achieving their goals.
question
In one family with young children Bill keeps lists of which groceries to buy while Sylvie keeps track of all events, practices, and appointments. They are making use of A) group cohesiveness. B) task-oriented leadership. C) tit-for-tat strategies. D) social facilitation. E) transactive memory.
answer
E) transactive memory.
question
Decision-making groups are most likely to share unique information when A) the leader points out members' areas of expertise. B) they seek consensus. C) the leader is charismatic. D) their task is additive. E) the leader is relationship-oriented.
answer
A) the leader points out members' areas of expertise.
question
According to Irving Janis (1972, 1982), groupthink occurs when groups value _______ over _______. A) strong leadership; weak leadership. B) cohesiveness and solidarity; a realistic consideration of the facts. C) invulnerability; accuracy. D) efficiency; a common goal. E) as many alternatives as possible; a common goal.
answer
B) cohesiveness and solidarity; a realistic consideration of the facts.
question
Which of the following is NOT an antecedent of groupthink? A) high cohesiveness B) group isolation C) social roles D) directive leader E) high stress
answer
C) social roles
question
The phenomenon of groupthink is most likely to occur when a group is under stress, highly _______, and when the leader is very _______. A) diplomatic; cohesive. B) cohesive; directive. C) motivated; relationship-oriented. D) cohesive; diplomatic. E) motivated; feared.
answer
B) cohesive; directive.
question
Which of the following statements is true about groupthink? A) The group keeps changing its mind in response to outside pressures. B) "Esprit de corps" (morale) tends to be low. C) The leader tends to be process oriented. D) High group cohesiveness is a necessary but not sufficient for groupthink. E) The group feels vulnerable and indecisive about its options.
answer
D) High group cohesiveness is a necessary but not sufficient for groupthink.
question
Jennifer is the leader of a college student group whose goal is to steal the mascot of a rival university the week before the big football game. In planning the heist, Jennifer should _______ to prevent groupthink and ensure that her group is successful in devising the best possible plan. A) take a strong directive role as their leader B) seek the opinions of trustworthy nongroup members C) ensure that all members of the group are completely committed D) assess group members' opinions frequently using show-of-hand voting E) create a unified, cohesive membership to devise strategies together
answer
B) seek the opinions of trustworthy nongroup members
question
In order to avoid the phenomenon of groupthink, the leader of a group should A) form subgroups that discuss the problem separately. B) state his or her opinions forcefully. C) discourage the input of opinions from those outside the group. D) discourage group dissent. E) encourage the importance of group. cohesiveness.
answer
A) form subgroups that discuss the problem separately.
question
Compared to individuals deciding alone, members of groups tend to make decisions that are A) less stable. B) more extreme. C) riskier. D) more accurate. E) more conservative.
answer
B) more extreme.
question
The Choice Dilemmas Questionnaire (CDQ) is often used in research on individual versus group decision-making. This instrument is designed to A) measure individuals' propensity to take risks in social situations. B) prevent groupthink in highly cohesive groups. C) enable group members to record their reactions to discussions. D) identify the most appropriate leader for the task at hand. E) prevent social loafing.
answer
A) measure individuals' propensity to take risks in social situations.
question
_______ refers to the tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than the initial inclinations of their individual members. A) Negotiation B) Groupthink C) The risky shift D) Contagion E) Group polarization
answer
E) Group polarization
question
Early studies of group decision-making demonstrated that groups made riskier decisions than individuals do. The concept of "risky shift" was born. Later studies, however, revealed that group decisions are not necessarily more risky than individual decisions; instead, they are more extreme. The concept of _______ was born. A) decisional instability B) group polarization C) culture-value theory D) social loafing E) extremity shift
answer
B) group polarization
question
Group discussion often pushes people's initial individual decisions to the extreme, yielding group polarization. According to the persuasive arguments interpretation, this is because A) individuals work to maintain the self-esteem of the rest of the group members. B) others bring up perspectives or issues that the individual hadn't considered. C) individuals bolster their initial beliefs when they make their case to others. D) individuals are motivated to be accepted by other members of the group. E) individuals work to reduce the dissonance aroused when other people disagree with them.
answer
B) others bring up perspectives or issues that the individual hadn't considered.
question
Two different interpretations have been proposed to explain group polarization. The persuasive arguments interpretation is to _______ as the social comparison interpretation is to _______. A) groupthink; adaptive decision-making. B) task-oriented leader; relationship-oriented leader. C) risky shift; conservative shift. D) being right; being liked. E) relationship-oriented leader; task-oriented leader.
answer
D) being right; being liked.
question
Nan had pretty much made up her mind before a group discussion. During the discussion, however, she thinks to herself, "I think I'll hang back and see how the others feel about it. I don't want them to think I'm nuts or anything." Nan's thoughts best reflect the _______ interpretation of group polarization. A) social loafing B) social comparison C) persuasive arguments D) deviance avoidance E) accuracy motive
answer
B) social comparison
question
According to a social comparison interpretation, group polarization tends to occur because individuals can present themselves in a more _______ light by taking slightly more _______ positions than the norm of the group. A) positive; extreme B) positive; conservative C) positive; cautious D) negative; extreme E) negative; risky
answer
A) positive; extreme
question
Proponents of the _______ theory of leadership assume that certain key personality traits (e.g., decisiveness, intelligence, compassion) make someone a good leader. A) democratic B) autocratic C) situational D) contingency E) great person
answer
E) great person
question
"Who would make a great president? Someone who is uncompromisingly true to her (or his) values, assertive, intelligent, articulate, courageous, and passionate, that's who." The previous quote reflects the application of the _______ theory of leadership. A) democratic B) contingency C) autocratic D) great person E) culture-value
answer
D) great person
question
"Mario is decisive, assertive, and yet will consider different points of view before making a decision. He would make an excellent chair of this committee." The previous quote reflects the application of the _______ theory of leadership. A) culture-value B) great person C) contingency D) democratic E) contingency
answer
B) great person
question
Which of the following has NOT been identified as a common characteristic of leaders, according to research presented in the text? A) Leaders tend to be more intelligent than non-leaders. B) Leaders tend to be more socially-skilled than non-leaders. C) Leaders tend to be more adaptive than non-leaders. D) Leaders tend to be more ruthless than non-leaders. E) Leaders tend to be more flexible than non-leaders.
answer
D) Leaders tend to be more ruthless than non-leaders.
question
Bradley and colleagues (2002) followed Canadian Forces officer candidates over a five-year period. Which of the following personality variables did they find to be predictive of good leadership in the armed forces? A) flexibility B) process orientation C) intelligence D) charisma E) They found little relationship between personality variables and leadership ability.
answer
E) They found little relationship between personality variables and leadership ability.
question
Suedfeld and colleagues identified _______ as related to leadership ability among Canadian prime ministers and leaders. A) persuasiveness B) prolific writing C) task orientation D) integrative complexity E) dominance
answer
D) integrative complexity
question
__________ leaders set clear, short-term goals and reward followers who meet them; __________ leaders inspire followers to focus on common long-term goals. A) Transactional; communal B) Task-oriented; relationship-oriented C) Transactional; transformational D) Transformational; relational E) Relationship-oriented; task oriented
answer
C) Transactional; transformational
question
Ted is a manager who effectively motivates his employees to complete their short- term projects in a timely manner without sacrificing quality. Ted always rewards the employees who meet these goals. Ted has a__________ leadership style. A) paternalistic B) transactional C) relationship-oriented D) transformational E) communal
answer
B) transactional
question
Ann is a leader who inspires her employees to look at the broad, long-term goals of her company. She is able to get her employees to find a common goal and she really thinks outside of the box. Ann's leadership style is best described as A) transformational. B) task-oriented. C) relationship-oriented. D) transactional. E) communal.
answer
A) transformational.
question
The leader who would be most effective is one who A) uses a transactional leadership style. B) uses a transformational leadership style. C) uses both transactional and transformational leadership styles depending on the situation. D) uses a task-oriented or relationship-oriented leadership style, depending on the gender of the employee. E) breaks through the glass ceiling but avoids the glass cliff.
answer
C) uses both transactional and transformational leadership styles depending on the situation.
question
Research on transformational leaders shows that this style is A) closely linked to the personality traits of great leaders. B) prevalent among individuals high in charisma but low in integrative complexity. C) not related to particular personality traits and can be fostered through training. D) related most closely to a relationship-oriented style. E) seldom apparent in individuals with introverted personalities.
answer
D) related most closely to a relationship-oriented style.
question
With regard to leadership, most social psychologists would agree that A) in large part, some people are born to be leaders. B) personal characteristics are irrelevant to good leadership. C) good leadership is a function of the situation and personal characteristics. D) the specific situation determines the success of leaders. E) people concerned with the emotional well-being of their followers are better leaders.
answer
C) good leadership is a function of the situation and personal characteristics.
question
Most social psychologists would agree that A) ironically, the best leaders are those who do not see themselves as influential. B) intelligent people make the best leaders, so long as they are open-minded. C) those who seek power and influence are never good leaders. D) the most effective leaders are those who seek power and influence. E) it is difficult to predict who will make a good leader based on personal attributes alone.
answer
E) it is difficult to predict who will make a good leader based on personal attributes alone.
question
Peter Suedfeld and colleague's research on prime ministerial greatness found that situational factors have an impact on who is a great leader. Specifically, they found leaders are considered great in _______ with the exception of _______. A) peacetime; economic crisis. B) war; political crisis. C) crises; war. D) difficult times; economic crisis. E) difficult times; war.
answer
D) difficult times; economic crisis.
question
Research by Suedfeld and colleagues indicates that truly great leaders A) show a decrease in integrative complexity in a crisis. B) show recovery in integrative complexity in a crisis. C) show an increase in integrative complexity in a crisis. D) demonstrate that integrative complexity is irrelevant in a crisis. E) show stable integrative complexity in a crisis.
answer
C) show an increase in integrative complexity in a crisis.
question
Fred Fiedler's (1967, 1978) contingency theory of leadership assumed that there are two kinds of leaders: _______ and _______ leaders. A) task-oriented; relationship-oriented B) democratic-oriented; autocratic-oriented C) future-oriented; present-oriented D) autocratic-oriented; orthodox E) orthodox; unorthodox
answer
A) task-oriented; relationship-oriented
question
A(n) _______ leader is more concerned with getting the job done than with the feelings of and relationships between workers. A) democratic B) autonomous C) goal-oriented D) control-oriented E) task-oriented
answer
E) task-oriented
question
A(n) _______ leader is primarily concerned with workers' feelings and relationships with one another. A) relationship-oriented B) contingency C) emotion-oriented D) goal-oriented E) collectivistic
answer
A) relationship-oriented
question
According to Fred Fiedler's (1967, 1978) contingency theory of leadership, in _______ situations, the leader has good relationships with subordinates, is perceived as powerful, and directs structured and well-defined tasks. A) autocratic B) ambiguous C) low control D) contingent E) high control
answer
E) high control
question
According to Fred Fiedler's (1967, 1978) contingency theory of leadership, in _______ situations, the leader has poor relationships with subordinates and directs tasks that are not clearly defined. A) contingent B) despotic C) low control D) all E) high control
answer
C) low control
question
Marsha has been promoted to the supervisor position in her company. She has had a good working relationship with her subordinates, they all highly respect her, and the goals for her team have been clearly defined by the company. In order to be an effective leader in this situation, Marsha should focus on A) maintaining close interpersonal ties with her subordinates. B) the accomplishment of the team's assigned tasks. C) maintaining group solidarity. D) casting the team accomplishments as personal victories. E) cultivating certain key characteristics, such as self-confidence.
answer
B) the accomplishment of the team's assigned tasks.
question
The president of the Noodle Dome Charitable Trust has just resigned in disgrace, leaving the workings of the organization pretty much on track, but also leaving a large number of employees angry and upset. Bolstered by his previous successes in turning things around, Fred has stepped in to fill the president's role. Fred should adopt a _______ of leadership in this case. A) task-oriented style B) contingency style C) relationship-oriented style D) disjunctive-oriented style E) autocratic
answer
C) relationship-oriented style
question
Fred Fiedler's (1967, 1978) contingency theory of leadership posits that "moderate control" situations call for a relationship-oriented leader. By this he means that a relationship-oriented leader is needed when A) interpersonal friction threatens productivity. B) confusion and chaos halt productivity. C) poor working conditions cause low staff morale. D) workers have moderate control over conditions of employment. E) there is task ambiguity.
answer
A) interpersonal friction threatens productivity.
question
A _______ leader would be most effective in dealing with mean-spirited inter-office competition and employee pettiness in an organization that is otherwise productive. A) relationship-oriented B) contingency-oriented C) disjunctive task D) charismatic E) task-oriented
answer
A) relationship-oriented
question
James manages a team of employees for a company that is highly organized, well controlled, and high in employee satisfaction. In this situation, there is a greater need for a _______ leader than a _______ leader. A) feminine; masculine B) feminine; task-oriented C) masculine; task-oriented D) task-oriented; relationship-oriented E) relationship-oriented; task-oriented
answer
D) task-oriented; relationship-oriented
question
A leadership style that is warm, helpful, kind, and concerned with the welfare of others is ________, while a leadership style that is assertive, controlling, independent, dominant and self-confident is ________. A) independent; dependent. B) dependent; independent. C) agentic; communal. D) communal; agentic. E) transformational; task oriented.
answer
D) communal; agentic.
question
According to your textbook, all of the following are true with respect to women and leadership EXCEPT A) if women conform to expectations of how they "should" behave, they are not seen as having leadership potential; if they become leaders and act in an agentic fashion, they are seen as not acting how a woman "should." B) women are even harsher towards other women who act counter to the feminine role than men are. C) prejudice toward women leaders appears to be lessening over time. D) there is growing recognition that effective leaders of either sex must be able to act in both an agentic and a communal fashion. E) when in a leadership position, women tend to be appointed to lead departments that are in crisis, increasing the probability that they will fail.
answer
B) women are even harsher towards other women who act counter to the feminine role than men are.
question
When women are chosen for leadership positions over units or departments in crisis, A) this is referred to as breaking the glass cliff, because women are now in leadership positions. B) this is referred to as the glass cliff, because the chance of any leader failing in such a position is higher. C) this is breaking the glass ceiling, because the chance of any leader failing in such a position is lower. D) this is referred to as the glass ceiling, because men are denied leadership positions. E) this is referred to as the glass cliff, because success is difficult but leads to high rewards.
answer
B) this is referred to as the glass cliff, because the chance of any leader failing in such a position is higher.
question
According to the authors of your text, women in leadership positions are in a double bind. If they conform to social expectations about how to behave and are warm and communal, they may be seen as having low leadership potential, then, when they are given the opportunity to lead and they ______________, they are perceived negatively. A) turn it down to raise their children B) beat men for managerial positions C) act in agentic, assertive ways D) have at least a bachelor's degree E) fail to be transformational
answer
C) act in agentic, assertive ways
question
Dr. Garrett is Chris's supervisor at work. If Dr. Garrett is an assertive leader, under what conditions is Chris most likely to give Dr. Garrett an unfavorable evaluation? If Dr. Garrett is _______ and Chris is _______. A) male; female. B) male; male. C) female; male. D) male or female; female. E) female; female.
answer
C) female; male.
question
Assume that Chris has been appointed the team leader on a new software development project. If Chris is a(n) _______ and uses a(n) _______ leadership style, Chris is likely to be evaluated negatively. A) relationship-oriented leader; masculine B) woman; task-oriented C) transformational; assertive D) autocratic leader; interpersonal E) man; relationship-oriented
answer
B) woman; task-oriented
question
Which of the following leaders is most likely to be evaluated negatively? A) Rebecca, who is assertive and task-oriented, and supervises men B) Angela, who is relationship-oriented and supervises women C) Tom, who is assertive and task-oriented, and supervises women D) Bill, who is relationship-oriented and supervises women E) Chowhong, who is relationship-oriented and supervises men
answer
A) Rebecca, who is assertive and task-oriented, and supervises men
question
Novelist Stephen King's interesting approach to publishing a new novel by asking people to remit $1 for installments that they download is cited as an example of a(n) A) tit-for-tat strategy. B) integrative solution. C) prisoner's dilemma. D) negotiating tactic. E) social dilemma.
answer
E) social dilemma.
question
The Prisoner's Dilemma game is an excellent vehicle for studying social conflicts in the laboratory because A) researchers can systematically vary the strategies participants use. B) there are clear winners and clear losers, and thus reliable dependent variable measures. C) there is one and only one right answer to the problem. D) the rules of the game pit self-interest against looking out for someone else's interest. E) the variables of the game are clearly defined.
answer
D) the rules of the game pit self-interest against looking out for someone else's interest.
question
The key to success in the Prisoner's Dilemma game is to A) respond randomly. B) negotiate with one's partner. C) trust one's partner. D) withdraw when one's partner chooses a competitive response. E) be aggressive.
answer
C) trust one's partner.
question
Under certain conditions, people will choose the cooperative option when playing the Prisoner's Dilemma game. For example, when a player _______, that player will be more likely to play cooperatively. A) begins competitively and switches to cooperative responses B) resolves the public good dilemma C) expects to interact with his or her partner in the future D) begins cooperatively and switches to competitive responses E) punishes his or her partner after a competitive response
answer
C) expects to interact with his or her partner in the future
question
When it comes to social dilemmas such as the Prisoner's Dilemma Game, the tit- for-tat strategy A) employs consistent responses, independent of the partner's response. B) is likely to elicit competitive responses from a partner. C) involves secret verbal communications with one's partner. D) tends to lead to losses for both partners. E) is a means of increasing cooperation.
answer
E) is a means of increasing cooperation.
question
Which of the following is a "social dilemma" as defined by your text? A) Fred must decide between buying himself a present or contributing his money toward a family vacation. B) Beatrice has to choose between going to a movie with a friend or staying home to prepare for a presentation. C) A country is in the middle of a civil war between forces that support a dictator and forces that advocate free elections. D) Lisa has six close friends, but is told by her mother than she can only invite four friends to her birthday party. E) Todd must decide between studying for his psychology exam or his sociology exam. F) Mary must choose between going to the dance with Eric or going with Tom.
answer
A) Fred must decide between buying himself a present or contributing his money toward a family vacation.
question
A conflict in which the most beneficial action for an individual, if chosen by most people, has harmful effects on everyone is called A) tit-for-tat strategy. B) the commons dilemma. C) forced choice. D) a social dilemma. E) an integrative solution.
answer
D) a social dilemma.
question
During a psychology experiment, Chad and Wilma are asked to compete in the Prisoner's Dilemma game. As shown below, Wilma goes first, and after four rounds, the results are as follows: Wilma: cooperate defect defect cooperate Chad: defect defect cooperate cooperate As revealed in the pattern of responses above, Wilma is probably using a _______ strategy. A) random response B) passive response C) adversarial response D) tit-for-tat E) dominant response
answer
D) tit-for-tat
question
Research on social dilemmas by Kiyonan and Barclay (2008) found that cooperation and collective good was best promoted by ________ co-operators and _______ free loaders. A) rewarding; punishing B) rewarding; not punishing C) punishing; rewarding D) not rewarding; punishing E) rewarding; rewarding
answer
B) rewarding; not punishing
question
Morton Deutsch and Robert Krauss (1960, 1962) found that cooperation between adversaries is most likely to occur when A) only one side has the power to make threats. B) neither side is able to make a threat. C) both sides can communicate and only one side can make a threat D) both sides are able to make threats. E) communication is required.
answer
B) neither side is able to make a threat.
question
The Trucking Game (Deutsch & Krauss, 1960, 1962) puts participants in a conflict situation. Each participant wants to get his or her truck to the destination as quickly as possible. Morton Deutsch and Robert Krauss introduced a novel twist. They sometimes gave one participant a gate with which to threaten an opponent. At other times, they gave both participants such a gate, and still other times, neither participant had a gate with which to threaten his or her opponent. What happened? A) When only one participant could wield a threat, both participants lost money. B) When both participants wielded threats (used gates to block their opponents), they negotiated and reached a cooperative arrangement. C) When both participants could wield threats, the game typically ended in a stalemate. D) When only one participant wielded a threat (used the gate to block the opponent), the person with the gate won more money. E) When both participants could wield threats, both participants won more.
answer
A) When only one participant could wield a threat, both participants lost money.
question
In the early trucking studies by Morton Deutsch and Robert Krauss (1960, 1962), it was found that allowing the competing participants to communicate during the game A) increased the profits for the participant that could wield threats. B) distracted the participants from the goal of the game. C) raised the profits gained for each participant by a large margin. D) did not foster trust and cooperation. E) increased trust and cooperation dramatically.
answer
D) did not foster trust and cooperation.
question
Why did allowing (and even requiring) participants to communicate when they played the Trucking Game (Deutsch & Krauss, 1962) fail to engender trust and cooperation? A) Participants were more interested in general conversation than the game itself. B) Participants became so caught up in the competitive game that they forgot to communicate with their opponents. C) Participants could never figure out how to use the intercom. D) Participants used communication primarily as means of threatening their opponents. E) Participants were not allowed to bargain or negotiate in their communications.
answer
D) Participants used communication primarily as means of threatening their opponents.
question
When participants in the Trucking Game were allowed to communicate with one another (Deutsch & Krauss, 1962), such communication seldom ensured cooperation. Why? A) Participants communicated via intercom, and couldn't see the response of their opponents. B) They were not allowed to bargain or negotiate in their communications. C) The participants actually refused to communicate with one another. D) The communication was one-way, and two-way communication is essential for resolving conflicts. E) Communication is only helpful in conflict situations when people work to establish trust.
answer
E) Communication is only helpful in conflict situations when people work to establish trust.
question
_______ is a form of communication between adversaries, wherein parties make offers and counteroffers until a solution acceptable to both parties is reached. A) Conflict resolution B) An integrative approach C) Negotiation D) Conflict management E) Haggling
answer
C) Negotiation
question
Norm and Vera are feuding over where to go out to dinner. Norm wants to go to Burger King for a Whopper, but Vera wants to go to Pizza Hut for pizza. Finally, exchanging a series of proposals and counterproposals, they settle on a new diner in town that has both pizza and hamburgers. This situation is an example of A) negotiation. B) process loss. C) social loafing D) an integrative solution. E) a choice dilemma.
answer
A) negotiation.
question
Integrative solutions are A) rarely achievable. B) frequently imposed by mediators. C) a means to find outcomes favourable to both parties. D) common to zero-sum conflicts. E) generally resisted by both parties.
answer
C) a means to find outcomes favourable to both parties.
question
Negotiation as a means of resolving conflict doesn't work as often as it might because in most conflicts A) adversaries tend to overlook interests they have in common. B) adversaries refuse to involve objective mediators. C) one party has more power than the other. D) adversaries tend to overestimate the amount of trust they should have for one another. E) adversaries refuse to communicate with one another.
answer
A) adversaries tend to overlook interests they have in common.
question
Integrative solutions to conflict are most likely to be reached when A) communication between adversaries is limited to mediators. B) adversaries understand their opponents' priorities. C) adversaries compromise on all issues brought to the bargaining table. D) arbitrators are used to facilitate communication. E) there are no other alternatives.
answer
B) adversaries understand their opponents' priorities.
question
Luke and Laura have been dating off and on for years and have finally decided to break it off for good. Which of the following best illustrates an integrative solution to their dilemma of dividing up their possessions? A) They decide to randomly divide their possessions in half and then flip a coin to see who gets which half. B) They decide to split the possessions strictly by monetary value. C) Laura, the music lover of the two, gets the stereo, while Luke, the gourmet chef, gets all of the fancy pots and pans. D) They agree to let Pedro, a mutual friend, mediate the dispute and decide on the fairness of the negotiations. E) They agree to flip a coin and let the winner choose to take the ten items he or she most wants.
answer
C) Laura, the music lover of the two, gets the stereo, while Luke, the gourmet chef, gets all of the fancy pots and pans.
question
At first blush, it would appear that integrative solutions (in which each side in a conflict agrees to cede something to the other) would be relatively easy to achieve. However, Leigh Thompson (1995) has discovered that these kinds of solutions are difficult to achieve because A) rarely does one adversary want what the other adversary offers to give up. B) when involved parties negotiate, they often tend to be too trustworthy and can end up feeling cheated. C) when involved parties negotiate, they often wield threats. D) involved parties are bad at discovering their adversaries' true interests, so mistrust them. E) adversaries would rather experience a stalemate than cede a point to their opponents.
answer
E) adversaries would rather experience a stalemate than cede a point to their opponents.
question
You are the leader of a labour union on strike against management. The conflict has escalated, and there is anger and mistrust on both sides of the conflict. Management is about to declare bankruptcy and union strike benefits are running low. You want to resolve the conflict as quickly as possible, and to reach an agreement that both sides will accept as binding. What should you do? A) Accept a process loss. B) Hire a mediator. C) Use a tit-for-tat strategy. D) Threaten management with a strike. E) Push for a quid pro quo solution.
answer
B) Hire a mediator.
Conflict Theory
Early History
George Herbert Mead
Introductory Sociology
Sociology
Sociology 210 Final Exam Practice 120 terms

Mary Moore
120 terms
Preview
Sociology 210 Final Exam Practice
question
The system that maintains male privilege in society is known as:
answer
Patriarchy
question
___ highlights tension in the social structure that may fracture and lead to social change.
answer
Conflict Theory
question
The social thinker who coined the term "sociology" in 1838 was ___.
answer
August Comte
question
Conflict theory originated in the work of ____.
answer
Karl Marx
question
According to Durkheim's typology, "suicide bombers" would be an example of _____.
answer
Altruistic Suicide
question
W.E.B Du Bois believed that the elimination of white prejudice would reduce racial conflict and create more equality between blacks and whits. In order to advance his interest in creating racial equality, Du Bois
answer
Co-founded the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
question
To achieve the deepest and most through understanding of the rationalizations and motives that criminals use, and the meaning and consequences of their actions, which method would you use
answer
Participant Observation
question
Which off the following is not a feature of symbolic interactionism?
answer
that societal meanings never change
question
Sociologists say we must look beyond individual states of mind to explain human behavior. What do sociologists focus on in their explanations of human behavior?
answer
Social Causes
question
Which theoretical perspective is most likely to focus the meanings behind fashion choices made by the consumers?
answer
Symbolic Interactionist
question
Stable patterns of social relations are called:
answer
Social Structure
question
The sociological imagination allows people to:
answer
Understand the relationship between social issues and private troubles
question
One aspect of social organization is the patters of intimate social relations that are formed during face-to-face interpersonal interactions. Sociologists call these patterns:
answer
Microstructures
question
Sociologists use the term microstructures to refer to
answer
Patterns of social relations that are intimate and personal.
question
The social class system in the United States would be an example of what kind of social structure?
answer
Macro-Structure
question
The entire social world has become more interconnected economically and politically. This is creates which type of social organization?
answer
Global Structures
question
Which of these is not considered one of the key features of functionalism?
answer
Competing Interests
question
The sociologist best known for emphasizing that various institutions must work to ensure the smooth operation of society as a whole is ______.
answer
Talcott Parsons
question
An early critic of Karl Marx, and the person who noted the rapid growth of the service sector within the industrial economy, was _____.
answer
Max Weber
question
Experiments to measure the impact of media violence on children are most like to lack ____ because of the artificial setting in which experiments are conducted.
answer
Validity
question
Ideas or standards for what is right or wrong, good or bad, and other types of judgements are called _____.
answer
Values
question
Which of these is the best example of material culture?
answer
A computer
question
When humans make and use tools and techniques that improce their ability to take what they want from nature, they are engaged in ____.
answer
Production
question
Jim traveled to Thailand for a vacation and became shocked and judgmental toward "foreign" practices. Which term best describes Jim's reaction?
answer
Ethnocentrism
question
The necessity to understand that other people have values that differ from ours and that we should not see these values as inferior but merely different is known as _____.
answer
Cultural Relativism
question
The opposite of ethnocentrism is _____.
answer
Cultural Relativism
question
The belief that all cultures and all cultural practices have equal value is known as _____.
answer
Cultural Relativism
question
One benefit of the lack of consensus and erosion of authority within postmodernism is that
answer
People are freer to choose their own identities and are more tolerant of differences.
question
Brym and Lie define cultural lag as
answer
The tendency of symbolic culture to change more slowly than material culture.
question
In Weber's sense of the term, rationalization is
answer
The application of the most efficient means to achieve any particular goal.
question
When people make purchases in order to feel good about themselves or their situation, they are engaging in _____.
answer
Consumerism
question
Some sociologists argue that consumerism acts as a constraint in people's lives because
answer
It drive people into debt and requires more work.
question
American core values have remained remarkably stable despite the changes brought by postmodernism.
answer
False
question
Postmodernism has many parents, teachers, politicians, religious leaders, and some university professors worried about the future.
answer
True
question
Because people contribute to the creation of culture, culture is always liberating.
answer
False
question
What has happened to attitudes toward government within postmodern society?
answer
There has been a decline in confidence in the government
question
In the popular film, "Borat: Cultural Learnings of America for Make Benefit Glorious Nation of Kazakhstan," ____ us a major source of humor.
answer
Ethnocentrism
question
In contemporary society, we are overly busy and often feel rushed trying to accomplish too much during the average workday. Our lives seem so highly regimented that each moment is precisely planned. Sociologists attribute this to the growth of _____.
answer
Rationalization
question
Advocates of ___ have argued that school and college curricula should present a more balanced picture of United States history, culture, and society by reflecting the ethnic and racial diversity of the United States.
answer
Multiculturalsim
question
The authors suggest that the "rights revolution" has raised difficult issues. One of the most controversial is the question of
answer
Making reparation for past discrimination.
question
The discussion of the "wild boy of Aveyron" in the text illustrates that without childhood socialization
answer
Most of our human potential remains unlocked until we are socialized.
question
George Hebert Mead is best known for his study of ____.
answer
The Self
question
When people enter military boot camp they are epected to radically change physically, mentally, and emotionally. This is an example of what kind of socialization?
answer
Resocialization
question
The process of socialization begins
answer
At birth
question
The core idea of the perspective of symbolic interactionism is that
answer
Through the process of face-to-face
question
George Herbert Mead called the impulsive and spontaneous aspect of the self the ____.
answer
"I"
question
According to the research of Carol Gilligan, the moral development of boys and girls does not reflect biological or cognitive differences tied to sex. Rather
answer
The differences are the result of different cultural standards passed on to boys and girls.
question
Widely shared expectations about how males and females are supposed to act are called ____.
answer
Gender Roles
question
A ____ is the behavior expected of a person occupying a particular position in society.
answer
Role
question
Settings in which people are isolated from the larger society under the strict control and constant supervision of a specialized staff are called _____.
answer
Total Institutions
question
The idea of the hidden curriculum was first proposed by ____.
answer
Conflict Theorists
question
Which of these is not one of the stages in an initiation rite?
answer
Individuation
question
The individual's conscious experience of a distinct, personal identity that is separate and meaningful from all other people is called _____.
answer
The self
question
According to Mead, children learn to use language and other symbols by
answer
Imitating important people in their lives.
question
The fastest growing mass medium is ____.
answer
the Internet
question
____ emphasize how socialization serves to create orderly social relations.
answer
Functionalists
question
The Thomas theorem was first proposed by _____.
answer
Symbolic Interactionist
question
When an expectation leads a person to create the very situation that they predicted, this is known as _____.
answer
A self-fulfilling prophecy
question
A category of people composed of individuals who are not necessarily friends but are about the same age and of similar status is called a _____.
answer
Peer Group
question
Today, those who watch the most TV tend to be _____.
answer
Socially disadvantaged
question
____ are composed of one or more networks of people who identify with one another and adhere to defined norms, roles, and statuses.
answer
Social Groups
question
How do symbolic interactionists explain people's altruistic and fair behavior?
answer
When people are altruistic and fair they are generally following social norms
question
Which of these statements is not part of Weber's analysis of bureaucracies?
answer
the largest bureaucracies are the most efficient
question
Which of the following is false in regards to facial expressions, body language, and gestures?
answer
Most gestures and postures mean the same thing in all cultures
question
When considering the strength of weak ties who is most likely to provide the most useful information about employment opportunities
answer
acquaintances
question
secondary groups designed to achieve explicit objectives are called
answer
formal organisations
question
The horrifying case of gang rape of a young woman with mental retardation in Glen Ridge New Jersey did not result in serious punishment for the perpetrators . How does the research Bernard Lefkowitz explain this?
answer
the actions of the perpetrators were consistent with the values of the adults around them
question
In the Nazi genocide operations it was possible for some officials to ignore the fool or of what was happening because
answer
the process was broken down into many small tasks
question
In the 1950s and 1960s, stewardesses were expected to behave suggestively and appear available romantically. At the same time they were expected to politely ward off any advances from passengers. This balance, which was difficult to achieve, is an example of _____.
answer
Role Strain
question
People who work as teachers, sales clerks, nurses, and flight attendants are expected to manage their own emotions but also those of students, customers, patients and others. Hoschchild has termed this type of work ____.
answer
Emotional Labor
question
Which of these does not describe social interaction?
answer
A winner-takes-all process
question
Dramaturgical analysis originated in the work of ____.
answer
Erving Goffman
question
____ involves giving the impression that one is "going through the motions" even though one lacks a serious commitment to a role.
answer
Role distancing
question
When people try to control how others see them, they are engaged in _____.
answer
Impression Management
question
____ are visual indicators of other people's social postition.
answer
Status Cues
question
Structures of authority tend to render people obedient
answer
Obedient
question
The classical experiment involving gauging the relative lengths of lines drawn on cards was conducted by ____.
answer
Solomon Asch
question
Emotional responses are not involuntary reactions
answer
True
question
Every society has norms that govern the expression of emotions.
answer
True
question
Milgrim's experiment teaches us that as soon as we are introduced to a structure of authority, we are inclined to obey those in power.
answer
True
question
How has the diagnosis of mental illness changed since the 19th century?
answer
Today Americans are more comfortable seeing their problems as medical or psychological conditions
question
Which of the following is not identified as factoring into the disproportionately high arrest, conviction, and incarceration rates of African Americans?
answer
Geographical distribution
question
Durkheim's controversial claim that deviance is actually beneficial for society is part of the ____ perspective on deviance and crime
answer
Functionalist
question
The sociological term for the ability to carry out one's will against the resistance of others is _____.
answer
Power
question
A major consequence of the War of Drugs in the U.S. since the 1980s is
answer
A dramatic increase in the incarceration rate of non-violent offenders
question
A point illustrated in the film Easy A that is related to Durkheim's thinking but was not made by Durkheim is that
answer
Norm-breakers can provide outsiders with the oppurtunity to become insiders
question
A ____ is a means of showing disapproval of deviance.
answer
Negative Sanction
question
Which theoretical perspective is most focused on learning and labeling deviant and criminal roles?
answer
Symbolic Interactionism
question
The theory of deviance and crime that emphasizes the disparity between the value placed on success and the opportunities for achieving it was introduced by ____.
answer
Robert Merton
question
According to Robert Merton, which of the following social types would accept cultural goals but replace conventional means with alternative means of achieving them?
answer
Innovator
question
Which theory focuses on the power and influence of the wealthy and elites in defining those with less power as deviant and criminal?
answer
Conflict
question
Which theory contends that criminals are those likely to have few social attachments, few legitimate opportunities, weak conventional beliefs, and few involvements in their community?
answer
Control
question
After 1970, more attention was brought to crimes against women that had been largely overlooked previously. New laws brought attention to date rape and marital rape, as well as sexual harassment. What is the explanation for these changes?
answer
Women achieved greater status within the family, employment and other social institutions
question
Which of the following is false in regards to prisons in the U.S.?
answer
As society has become modern, revenge is no longer a motivation for prisons
question
Such crimes embezzlement, false advertising, tax evasion, insider stock trading, fraud , copyright infringement, and price fixing are all examples of _____.
answer
White-collar crime
question
Which of the following is the most cost effective drug policy?
answer
Drug prevention and treatment
question
Labeling theory holds that deviance results
answer
Not just from the actions of the deviant but also from the responses of others.
question
There is no longer a gender gap in arrests; women are now arrested as often as men.
answer
False
question
One of the positive aspects of the death penalty is that because it is so severe it it applied in a just and consistent way for all persons convicted of crimes.
answer
False
question
One must learn how to get high, and also to recognize the effects of marijuana. These things do not just occur "naturally."
answer
True
question
In the story of the Titanic what was/were the consequences of social inequality?
answer
Members of the upper class were given a better chance of survival
question
During the recent period of postindustrialism, social inequality has increased in the US and the UK, but remained fairly stable in countries such as France, Germany, and Canada. How did these countries achieve a stable level of inequality?
answer
through tax and welfare policies
question
___ is the measure of income inequality that ranges from zero to one. It measures the level of internal stratification, and allows researchers to compare inequality between societies.
answer
The Gini Index
question
What you are able to earn in a given period of time is called your ___.
answer
Income
question
If you are not wealthy, but do well in school and are able to obtain a very high paying job, your social position would be based on ____.
answer
Achievement
question
The trend most responsible for the gap between the rich and poor increasing over the past fifty years is
answer
Technological factors that have created new jobs made others more routine and less skilled.
question
Class position in a stratification system is determined by ____, according to Max Weber
answer
Market Situation
question
The percentage of Americans who fall below the poverty threshold is called ____.
answer
The Poverty Rate
question
The US has a low level of internal stratification compared with the rest of the world.
answer
False
question
Functionalism argues that because all occupations are necessary for the smooth functioning of society, social stratification is unfair and unjustified.
answer
False
question
Which of these statements about income is false?
answer
the US has less income inequality than most other countries
question
Over a lifetime, an individual may experience considerable movement up or down the stratification system. Sociologists call this movement ___.
answer
Vertical social mobility
question
In general, over the course of history, as societies became richer and more complex, what has been the pattern in terms of levels of social inequality?
answer
It first increased, then tapered off, and then began to decline
question
The domestication of animals is a characteristic of which type of society?
answer
Pastoralism
question
The tendency of industrialization to lower the level of social stratification
answer
Was not apparent in the first stages of industrial growth
question
Marx argued that as the capitalist economy matured
answer
The capitalist class would get smaller and richer, while the working class grew larger and poorer.
question
Marx called those who do not own the "means of production" and who work for wages ____.
answer
The proletariat
question
Marx called the member of the class that owned the owned the factories, land, and tools, or "means of production," ____.
answer
The bourgeoisie
question
According to Kingsley Davis and Wilbert Moore, society needs to create incentives to motivate the most talented people to train for the most important jobs. This is a core assumption within the ___ perspective on social stratification.
answer
Functionalist
question
___ are not just political groups but, more generally, organizations that seek to impose their will on others.
answer
Parties