Anesthesia & Analgesia Review Questions – Flashcards
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Anticholinergic drugs such as Atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the: a. Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system b. Nicotinic receptors of the parasympatetic system c. Muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic system d. Nicotinic receptors of the sympathetic system
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Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
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High doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression. True or False
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True
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Severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with which drug? a. atropine b. nalaxone c. epinephrine d. atipamezole
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Atipamezole
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Opioids may be reversed with a. atipamezole b. naloxone c. atropine d. yohimbine
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Nalaxone
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Which of the following drugs will precipitate out when mixed w/ other drug solutions? a. atropine b. ace c. diazepam d. butorphanol
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diazepam
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Etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which of the following problems? a. severe cardiac disease b. renal failure c. orthopedic disease d. pediatric (younger than 4wks)
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Cardiac disease
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Which of the following is an example of a dissociative anesthetic? a. thiopental sodium b. pentobarbital sodium c. ketamine hydrochloride d. propofol
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ketamine hydrochloride
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One of the disadvantage of the drug methohexital is that animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery. True or False?
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True
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Compared with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a: a. higher vapor pressure b. similar vapor pressure c. lower vapor pressure
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Higher vapor pressure
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An anesthetic agent that has a low blood gas partition coefficient will result in _______ induction and recovery time a. slow b. moderate c. fast
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Fast
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Which of the following has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient? a. halothane b. Isoflurane c. Methoxylflurane d. Sevoflurane
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Sevoflurane
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As a rough guidline to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, the vaporizer should be set at about a. 0.5 x MAC b. 1 x MAC c. 1.5 x MAC d. 2 x MAC
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1.5 x MAC
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Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To aviod this, the anesthetist should a. give by infusion only b. premed w/ opioids c. administer IV only d. Titrate this drug in several boluses
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Titrate this drug in several boluses
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One problem frequiently associated with recovery from tiletamine-zolazepam in dogs is a. excitement b. bradycardia c. hypotension d. larngospasm
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excitement
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The concentration of barbiturate entering the brain is afffected by a variet of factors such as? (Multiple answers) a.perfusion of the brain b. lipid solubility of the drug c. plasma protein levels d. blood pH
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ALL
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Effects that are commonly seen after admiistration of a dissociate include:(Multiple answers) a. increased blood pressure b. increased heart rate c. increased CSF pressure d. increased intraocular pressure
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ALL
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Adverse effects common with isoflurane include: (Multiple answers) a. hepatic toxicity b. accumulation in body fat stores c. depression of respiration d. seizures during recovery
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depression of respiration
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MAC will vary with: (Multiple answers) a. body temp of the patient b. age of the patient c. concurrent use of other drugs d. anesthetic agent
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all
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Factors that may affect the speed of anesthetic induction w/ a volatile gaseous anesthetic include: (Multiple answers) a. partition coefficient of the agent b. Vaporizer setting c. MAC of the agent d. Concurrent use of atropine
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a. partition coefficient of the agent b. Vaporizer setting
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Which of the following are alpha₂- agonist? (Multiple answers) a. atipamezole b. xylazine c. aceapromazine d. dexmedetomidine
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b. xylazine and d. dexmedetomidine
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Effects that atropine may have on the body include: (Multiple answers) a. decreased salivation b. increased vagal tone c. decreased gastrointestinal motility d. Mydriasis
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a. decreased salivation & c. decreased gastrointestinal motility
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Characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines include: (Multiple answers) a. Pronounced sedation in healthy young animals b. muscle relaxation c. significant decrease in respiratory function d. minimal effect on cardiovascular system
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a. Pronounced sedation in healthy young animals b. muscle relaxation
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A Neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of a. An opioid and an antiocholinergic b. an anticholinergic and a tranquilizer c. an opioid and a tranquilzer d. an anticholinergic and a benzodiazepine
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a. An opioid and an antiocholinergic
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Most preanesthetics will not not cross the placental barrier - True or False
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False
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It is recommended that atropine not be given to an animal that has tachycardia. True or False?
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True
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When the oxygen tank is half full, the tank pressure gauge will read approxximately: a. 1100 psi b. 2000 psi c. 500 psi d. 2200 psi
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a. 1100
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Nitrous oxide is present in the tank as a: a. liquid b. gas c. liquid & gas
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c. liquid & gas
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The amount of oxygen an animal is receiving is indicated by the a. oxygen tank pressure gauge b. flow meter c. pressure manometer d. vaporizer setting
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b. flow meter
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Flow meters that have a ball for reading the gauge should be read from the __________ of the ball. a. top b. bottom c. middle
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c. middle
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The most commonly recommended ratio for nitrous oxide & oxygen flow rates is: a. 50% oxygen and 50 % nitrous oxide b. 80% oxygen and 20% nitrous oxide c. 23% oxygen and 77 nitrous oxide d. 77% oxygen and 23% nitrous oxide e. 33% oxygen and 67% nitrous oxide
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e. 33% oxygen and 67% nitrous oxide
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The minimum size for the reservoir bag can be calculated as: a. 20ml/kg b. 60 ml/kg c. 80ml/kg d. 100ml/kg
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b. 60 ml/kg
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The flutter valves on an anesthetic machine help: a. control the direction of movement of gases b. maintain a full reservoir bag c. regulate pressure d. vaporize the liquid anesthetic
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a. control the direction of movement of gases
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The pop off valse is part of the anesthetic machine and helps: a. Vaporize the liquid anesthetic b. Prevent excess gas pressure from building up w/in the breathing circuit c. Keep the oxygen flowing in one direction only d. prevent waste gases from reentering the vaporizer
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prevent excess gas pressure from building up w/in the breathing circuit
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In small animal anesthesia, when the patient is bagged, the pressure manometer reading should not exceed: a. 5 cm H₂0 b. 10 cm H₂0 c. 15 cm H₂0 d. 20 cm H₂0
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d. 20 cm H₂0
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Rebreathing systems, when used w/ standard small animal corrugated breathing tubes, are best reserved for animals weighing more than 7kg. True or Falsenx
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True
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Rebreathing is determined primarily by the a. Fresh gas flow b. type of anesthetic c. presence of a reservoir bag d. open or shut pop off valve
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a. fresh gas flow
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Non rebreathing systems should have maintenance flow rates that are: a. very low (5-10ml/kg/min) b. low (20 -40 ml/kg/min) c. moderate (50-100 ml/kg/min) d. very high (at least 200 ml/kg/min)
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d. very high (at least 200 ml/kg/min)
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The negative pressure relief valve is particularly important when: a. nitrous oxide is being used b. there is no scavenging system c. there is a failure of oxygen flow through the system d. the carbon dioxide absorber is no longer functioning
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c. there is a failure of oxygen flow through the system
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The tidal volume of an anesthetized animal is considered to be_________ml/kg of body weight. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
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b. 10
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A scavenging system is generally attacehd to: a. the pressure reducing valve b. the exhalation unidirectional valve c. the pop off valve d. the negative pressure relief valve
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c. the pop off valve
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A reservoir bag that is not moving well may indicate that: a. the endotracheal tube is not in the trachea b. the animal has a decreased tidal volumne c. there is a leak around the endotracheal tube d. the vaporizer is empty
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a. the endotracheal tube is not in the trachea b. the animal has a decreased tidal volumne c. there is a leak around the endotracheal tube
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The anesthetist will know when the granules in the carbon dioxide absorber have been depleted b/c the: a. anesthetist will smell waste carbon dioxide b. granules will be brittle c. granules may change color d. granules may be hard
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b. granules will be brittle c. granules may change color d. granules may be hard
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An increase in the depth of anesthesia can be acheived quickly by: a. having high oxygen flow rates b. having high vaporizor settings c. using a closed anesthetic system d. bagging the animal w/ the precision vaporizer on
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a. having high oxygen flow rates b. having high vaporizor settings
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The concentration of anesthetic delivered from a nonprecision vaporizer may depend of the: a. temp of the liquid anesthetic b. flow of the carrier gas through the vaporizer c. back pressure d. type of anesthetic in the vaporizer
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a. temp of the liquid anesthetic b. flow of the carrier gas through the vaporizer c. back pressure d. type of anesthetic in the vaporizer
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When an anesthetic machine is operating correctly, the pressures in the machine are always: a. 40-50 psi between the pressure reducing valve and flow meters b. 15 psi betweenp15 the flow meters and the breathing circuit c. 2200 psi between the compressed gas cylinder and the pressure reducing valve d. 15 psi entering a VOC vaporizer
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a. 40-50 psi between the pressure reducing valve and flow meters b. 15 psi betweenp15 the flow meters and the breathing circuit d. 15 psi entering a VOC vaporizer
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With most injectable and inhalant anesthetics, there is generally progressive depression of cardiovascular and respiratory function as the depth of anesthesia increases? True or False?
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TRUE
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The plane of anesthesia most suitable for surgical procedure is generally considered to be: a. Stage III, plane 1 b. Stage III, plane 2 c. Stage III, plane 3 d. Stage III, plane 4
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b. Stage III, plane 2
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Breath holding, volcalizatin, and involuntary movement of the limbs are most likely an indication that the animal is in what stage or place of anesthesia? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III, plane 1 d. Stage III, plane 2
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b. Stage II
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Anatomic dead space is considered to be the: a. air w/in the breathing circuit b. air w/in the digestive tract c. air w/in the trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchi & and nasal passages d. air w/in the alveoli
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c. air w/in the trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchi & and nasal passages
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The minimum acceptable HR for an anesthetized large breed dog is________ bpm. a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 100
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a. 60
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If the ECG is normal, the heart must be beating normally. True or False
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FALSE
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In general, a respiratory rate of less than_________breaths/in in an anesthetized god should be reported to the vet. a.4 b. 6 c. 10 d. 15
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b. 6
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Tachypnea is: a. an increase in respiratory depth (tidal volume) b.an increase in respiratory rate c. a decrease in respiratory depth (tidal volume) d. a decrease in respiratory rate
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b.an increase in respiratory rate
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A patient that has been anesthetized will often have a: a. mild metabolic acidosis b. mild metabolic alkalosis c. mild respiratory acidosis d. mild respiratory alkalosis
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c. mild respiratory acidosis
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An animal that is in a surgical plane of anesthesia should not respond in any way to any procedure that is being done to it (e.g., pulling on viscera should not change HR). True or False
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False
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A 20kg dog has been anesthetized by make induction w/ Iso and after intubation is maintained on 2% Iso w/ a flow rate of 2 L of O₂/min. The HR is 80 bpm, respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min and shallow, the jaw tone is relaxed and all reflexes are absent. This animal is most likely in what stage of anesthesia? a. Stage III, plane 1 b. Stage III, plane 2 c. Stage III, plane 3 d. Stage III, plane 4
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c. Stage III, plane 3
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Pulse oximetry allows accurate estimation of: a. arterial blood pressure b. pulse pressure c. Pao₂ d. percent saturation of hemoglobin w/ oxygen e. blood gas values
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d. percent saturation of hemoglobin w/ oxygen
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During anesthesia, a mean arterial blood pressure of less than 60 mm Hg indicates? a. Inadequate tissue perfusion b. Imminent cardiac arrest c. a normal expected value during anesthesia d. this value is not indicative of patient condition
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a. Inadequate tissue perfusion
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A pulse oximeter reading of 89% indicates? a. a normal value b. a need for supportive therapy c. a state of hypoxemia, but no need for therapy d. a medical emergency
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b. a need for supportive therapy
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An ETco₂ level of 65 would commonly be caused by: a. hyperventilation b. detachment of the ET tube from the connector c. decreased tidal volume d. hypothermia
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c. decreased tidal volume
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Regarding oxygen transport: a. most oxygen travels in the blood dissolved in plasma b. SpO₂ is an accurate indicator of oxygen available to the tissues even in anemic animals c. Pao₂ is closely related to Spo₂ (as one goes up, the other does also) d. When the patient is breathing 100% oxygen , the Pao₂ is expected to be in the range of 100-120 mm Hg
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c. Pao₂ is closely related to Spo₂ (as one goes up, the other does also)
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Which of the following statements about body temp is/are correct? (Multiple answer) a. Body temp of 32° - 34°C (89.6°- 93.2°F) cause prolonged anesthetic recovery b. Dangerous CNS depression and changes in cardiac function may be seen at body tep less than 32° C (89.6°F) c. Ideally, IV fluids should be warmed to about 37.5°C (approx 100°F) before administration to sx patients d. circulating warm water blankets should be set at 45°C (approx 111°F)
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a. Body temp of 32° - 34°C (89.6°- 93.2°F) cause prolonged anesthetic recovery b. Dangerous CNS depression and changes in cardiac function may be seen at body tep less than 32° C (89.6°F) c. Ideally, IV fluids should be warmed to about 37.5°C (approx 100°F) before administration to sx patients
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Which of the following statements about nystagmus as a monitoring tool is/are accurate? (Multiple answer) a. nystagmus is commonly seen in horses in very light anesthesia b. nystagmus is not a useful indicator of anesthetic depth in small animals c. In a horse, a "divergent eye sign" is typically associated w/ an adequate place of anesthesia for sx d. Ruminants rarely show nystagmus under anesthesia
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a. nystagmus is commonly seen in horses in very light anesthesia b. nystagmus is not a useful indicator of anesthetic depth in small animals c. In a horse, a "divergent eye sign" is typically associated w/ an adequate place of anesthesia for sx d. Ruminants rarely show nystagmus under anesthesia
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Pale MM commonly indicate:(Multiple answer) a. Blood loss b. Anemia c. Decreased perfusion d. Hypertension
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a. Blood loss b. Anemia c. Decreased perfusion
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An animal under stage III, plane 2 anesthesia would exhibit which of the following signs?(Multiple answer) a. very brisk palpebral reflex b regular respiration c. relaxed skeletal muscle tone d. very dilated pupils
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b regular respiration c. relaxed skeletal muscle tone
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In the healthy awake animal, the main stimulus to breathe is the result of: a. excess oxygen concentration in the blood b. Excess carbon dioxide concentration in the blood c. Insufficient oxygen in the blood d. Insufficient carbon dioxide in the blood
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b. Excess carbon dioxide concentration in the blood
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In the healhy awake animal, exhalatio lasts at least______ times as long as inhalation. a. 1/2 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
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b. 2
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The normal VT in an awake animal is _____ ml/kg a. 5-10 b. 10-15 c. 16-20 d. 20-25
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b. 10-15
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In the anesthetized animal that is breathing room air, th anesthitist may expect to see: a. an increase in the Paco₂ and a decrease in PaO₂ b. an decrease in the Paco₂ and an increase in PaO₂ c. an decrease in the Paco₂ and an decrease in PaO₂ d. an increase in the Paco₂ and an increase in PaO₂
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a. an increase in the Paco₂ and a decrease in PaO₂
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When used in a line block, a local anesethetic agent will have a direct effect on the: a. Peripheral nervous system b. central nervous system c. peripheral and central nervous system d. Autonomic system
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a. Peripheral nervous system
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Local anesthetics block transmission of nerve impulses from: a. Sensory neurons only b. Motor neurons only c. sensory and motor neurons only d. sensory, motor and autonomic neurons
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d. sensory, motor and autonomic neurons
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Local anesthetic agents work because: a. they mechanically block nerve impulse transmission b. they interfere w/ the movement of sodium ions c. they block all impulses at the spinal cord level d. they affect neurotransmission w/in the brain
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b. they interfere w/ the movement of sodium ions
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When a local anesthetic is injected around a single major nerve, the procedure is referred to as a(n): a. Line block b. Epidural block c. Infiltration nerve block d. Intravenous anesthesia
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c. Infiltration nerve block
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Epinephrine may be mixed with a local anesthetic agent to prolong the effects of the drug. True or False
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True
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When performing an epidural,one must be aware that the spinal cord in the cat may extend as far caudally as: a. T13 b. L6 c. L7 d. S1 e. 15
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d. S1
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The maximum subcutaneous dose of lidocaine for a dog is _____mg/kg a. 1 b. 4 c. 10 d.15
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c. 10
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When performing IV regional anesthetisa (Bier block) one should use lidocaine a. w/ epinephrine b. w/o epinephrine c. either w/ or ow/o epinephrine d. lidocaine should not be used for this techniquie
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b. w/o epinephrine
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The term atelectasis refers to: a. excess fluid in the respiratory system b. the absence of breathing c. collapse of the alveoli d. bronchial constriction
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c. collapse of the alveoli
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What is the most common acid base abnormality in anesthetized patients? a. respiratory alkalosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis d. metabolic acidosis
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c. respiratory acidosis
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When intermittent mandatory manual ventilation is applied to a patient that is connected to a circle system w/ a precision vaporizer, it is customary to: a. increase the vaporizer setting b. decrease the vaporizer setting c. disconnect the patient from the circle system before starting manual ventilation d. the lungs of patients that are connected to a circle system should not be manually ventilated
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b. decrease the vaporizer setting
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Which of the following can be used to monitor anesthetic depth in a patient that has been given a neuromuscular blocking agent? a. HR b. Jaw tone c. Palpebral reflex d. Pedal reflex
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a. HR
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A neuromuscular blocking agent not only will paralyze skeletal muscle, but also will give some analgesia. True or False?
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False
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When an animal is given a __________ neuromuscular blocking durg, an initial surge of muscle activity may be seen before there is paralysis of the muscles. a. Depolarizing c. nondepolarizing
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a. Depolarizing
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The muscle type that is most affected by neuromuscular blocking agents is: a. cardiac b. smooth muscle c. skeletal muscle d. all types are equally affected
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c. skeletal muscle
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Both depolarizing and nondepolarizing drugs can be reveresed. True or False.
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False
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Problems that may result from excessive controlled ventilation may include (multiple answers) a. a decreased cardiac output b. muscle twitching c. state of respiratory alkalosis d. ruptured alveoli
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a. a decreased cardiac output c. state of respiratory alkalosis d. ruptured alveoli
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Local anesthetic agents such as lidocaine or proparacaine work well when applied (multiple answers) a. topically on the epidermis b. topically on MM c. topically on the cornea d. through injection
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b. topically on MM c. topically on the cornea d. through injection
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Factors that may interfere with the action of local anesthetic agents include (multiple answers) a. fat b. scar tissue c. rapid heart rate d. hemorrhage
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a. fat b. scar tissue d. hemorrhage
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Clinical signs of systemic toxicity from a local anesthetic agent may include: (multiple answers) a.sedation b. convulsions c. muscle twitching d. respiratory depression
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a.sedation b. convulsions c. muscle twitching d. respiratory depression
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The effects that could result from an epidural anesthetic if the drug reached the thoracic and cervical spinal cord include: (multiple answers) a. sympathetic blockade b. paralysis of intercostal muscles c. paralysis of diaphragm d. hypertension
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b. paralysis of intercostal muscles c. paralysis of diaphragm d. hypertension
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Idiopathic pain is defined as: a. pain that is caused by cancer b. pain that is of unknown cause c. pain that is caused by tissue injury d. pain that is not associated w/ tissue injury
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b. pain that is of unknown cause
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Pathologic pain is defined as: a. pain that is caused by cancer b. pain that is of unknown cause c. pain that is caused by tissue injury d. pain that is not associated w/ tissue injury
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c. pain that is caused by tissue injury
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An ovariophysterectomy, which involves surgically incising the skin and abdominal wall and excising the uterus and ovaries, has the following components of pain: a. somatic pain only b. visceral pain only c. both somatic and visceral pain d. neither somatic nor viceral pain
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c. both somatic and visceral pain
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The process by which thermal, mechanical or chemial noxious stimuli are converted into electrical signals called action potentials is: a. Perception b. modulation c. transduction d. transmission
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c. transduction
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In the spinal cord, pain impulses can be altered by neurons that either suppress or amplify nerve impulses. This process is known as: a. perception b. modulation c. transduction d. transmission
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b. modulation
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Where in the pain pathway does secondary sensitizatin or "windup" occur? a. brain b spinal cord c. visceral pain receptors d. peripheral pain receptors
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b. spinal cord
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Which of the following statements regarding multimodal analgesic therapy is true? a. the does of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used b multiple pain receptor mechanisms are targeted by one drug c. one pain receptor mechanism is targeted by several drugs d. side effects are increased by sing several drugs
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a. the does of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used
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Which of the following anesthetic plans includes multimodal analgesic therapy? a. dexmedetomidine, sevoflurane b. acepromazine, ketamine, isoflurane c. acepromzaine morphine, isoflurane d. dexmedetomidine, morphine, ketamine
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d. dexmedetomidine, morphine, ketamine
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Which of the following analgesic plans targets 3 different pain receptor mechanisms? a. morphine IM, fentanyl CRI, lidocaine nerve block b. morphine IM, fentanyl CRI, bupivacaine nerve block c. morphine IM, ketamine CRI, lidocaine nerve block d. Ketamine CRI, lidocaine and bupivacain nerve block
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c. morphine IM, ketamine CRI, lidocaine nerve block
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Treating pain does not improve would healing? True or False?
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False
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Administering analgesics before tissue injury is knowns as: a. premedication b. local analgesia c. multimodal analgesia d. preemptive analgesia
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d. preemptive analgesia
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Which of the following is not a potential side effect of opioid administration in cats & dogs? a. vomiting b. dysphoria c. renal failure d. respiratory depression
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C. renal failure
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What is the mechanism of action of NSAID drugs? a. they block sodium channels b. they are alpha₂- receptor agaonist c. they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis d. they are mu-opioid receptor agaonist
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c. they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
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Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of NSAID administration? a. liver damage b. kidney damage c. GI ulcers d. respiratory depression
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d. respiratory depression
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A pain scale can be used to assess pain as well as response to analgesic therapy. True or False?
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TRUE
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Consider the following scenario: You are performing a procedure on a canine patient that you feel is at an appropriate anesthetic depth. Which of the following settings would be most appropriate if using sevoflurane in this patient? a. 2% b. 2 L/minute c. 3.5% d. 4 mL/minute e. 6%
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c. 3.5%
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Which of the following statements about how to induce anesthesia in a young healthy patient using an IV agent such as thiopental or propofol is least accurate? a. If, after giving the initial amount , the patient is not adequately anesthetized to allow intubation, give the rest of the calculated dose. b. Draw up the caculated dose, give about 1/4 to 1/2 first, and give the rest to effect. c. You must be sure the drug gets in the vein d. Old, sick, or debilitated patients often require less.
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a. If, after giving the initial amount , the patient is not adequately anesthetized to allow intubation, give the rest of the calculated dose.
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Which of the following statements regarding IV induction is least accurate? a. Ketamine-diezepam takes slightly longer to act and lasts somewhat longer than propofol. b. When using propofol, give about 25% to 50% of the calculated dose every 30 seconds to effect. c. Significantly lower doses of thiopental sodium must be used in sick, old, or debilitated patients. d. Thiopental sodium is generally given intraveinously but can be given intramuscularly in uncooperative patients.
answer
d. Thiopental sodium is generally given intraveinously but can be given intramuscularly in uncooperative patients.
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Which of the following barbituates can be used to maintain anesthesia without prolonging recovery? a. Pentobarbital b. Methohexital c. Thiopental sodium d. Phenobarbital
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b. Methohexital
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Which of the following statements about thiopental sodium is least accurate? a. It is likely to cause tissue necrosis if injected outside of the vein. b. Due to the patient's age and condition, you may have to give less of the drug c. It commonly induces seizures during recovery. d. It is more likely than propofol to depress respiration in neonates. e. It is more likely than propofol to cause cardiac arrhythmias such as bigeminy and PVCs.
answer
c. It commonly induces seizures during recovery.
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Which of the following statements concerning endotracheal intubation is false? a. Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space. b. Choosing a tube that is too small may result in increased resistance to breathing. c. Choosing a tube that is too long may result in hypoxemia. d. Failure to cuff the tube may result in aspiration of foreign material.
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a. Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space.
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Which of the following is an indicator that the endotracheal tube has been placed in the esophagus instead of the trachea. a. The patient coughs when the tube is placed. b. The unidirectional valves don't move. c. The pressure manometer indicated 0 to 2 cm H20 while the patient is spontaneously breathing. d. Only one firm structure in the neck is palpated.
answer
b. The unidirectional valves don't move.
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The term atelectasis refers to: a. Increased fluid in the alveoli b. Hyperinflation of the alveoli c. A decrease in the perfusion of blood around the alveoli d. Collapsed alveoli
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d. Collapsed alveoli
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After an anesthetic procedure, when is it best to extubate a dog? a. Right after you turn off the vaporizer. b. About 10 minutes after turning off the vaporizer. c. When the animal begins to swallow. d. Any time that is convenient.
answer
c. When the animal begins to swallow.
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Hypostatic congestion may be present at the end of the anesthetic protocol. This term refers to the: a. Accumulation of mucus in the trachea. b. Pooling of blood in the dependant lung. c. Leakage of fluid into the chest. d. Pooling of ingesta in one area of the gastrointestinal tract.
answer
b. Pooling of blood in the dependant lung.
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Which of the following protocols would result in the fastest induction time and the best control over anesthetic depth? a. IM induction and maintenance b. IV induction with an ultra-short-acting agent, and maintenance with bolus injections of the same c. Inhalant induction and maintenance d. IV induction with an ultra-short-acting agent, and maintenance with an inhalent.
answer
d. IV induction with an ultra-short-acting agent, and maintenance with an inhalent.
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Mask inductions in small animal patients are: a. Easier for the anesthetist than IV inductions. b. Less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias and hypotension than IV inductions c. An excellent technique for brachycephalic breeds d. Possible only with use of inhalent agents with a low solubilty coefficient
answer
d. Possible only with use of inhalent agents with a low solubilty coefficient
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Which of the following techniques are used most often in most general small animal practices? a. General anesthesia and sedation b. Seatves and local techniques c. Neuromusuclar blockade and neuroleptanalgesia d. Local and general anesthesia
answer
a. General anesthesia and sedation
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An 18-kg adult dog or normal would likely require a ____ endotracheal tube. a. 7- to 7.5-mm b. 8- to 8.5-mm c. 9- to 9.5-mm d. 10- to 10.5-mm
answer
c. 9- to 9.5-mm
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The following questions may have more than one correct answer. Select all that apply. An endotracheal tube is used to: a. Decrease dead space b. Maintain a patent airway c. Protect the patient from aspiration of vomitus d. Allow the anesthetist to ventilate the patient.
answer
a. Decrease dead space b. Maintain a patent airway c. Protect the patient from aspiration of vomitus d. Allow the anesthetist to ventilate the patient.
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Problems associated with endotracheal intubation include: a. Decreased dead space b. Pressure necrosis of the tacheal mucosa c. Intubation of a bronchus d. Spread of infectious disease
answer
b. Pressure necrosis of the tacheal mucosa c. Intubation of a bronchus d. Spread of infectious disease
question
During anesthetic maintenance: a. The patient should be supported as it loses consciousness b. The patient should be placed on an electric heating pad to prevent hypothermia c. If a patient has one diseased lung, it should be positioned with the diseased side down. d. The anesthetist should avoid any more than a 15 degree elevation of the rear quarters.
answer
c. If a patient has one diseased lung, it should be positioned with the diseased side down. d. The anesthetist should avoid any more than a 15 degree elevation of the rear quarters. a. The patient should be supported as it loses consciousness
question
The length of the ansthetic recovery period may be influenced by: a. Body temperature b. Patient condition c. The length of time the patient was under. d. The breed of the patient.
answer
a. Body temperature b. Patient condition c. The length of time the patient was under. d. The breed of the patient.
question
Which of the following is/are not a normal sign(s) of recovery? a. Head-bobbing b. Mydriasis c. Seizures d. Rapid limb paddling
answer
c. Seizures
question
Which of the following actions is appropriate during anesthetic recovery? a. Administer oxygen at a high flow rate for 5 minutes after discontinuation of the anesthetic or until extubation. b. Leave the cage door open so you can monitor the patient from across the room. c. Turn the patient about every 10 to 15 minutes. d. Use warming methods to increase the body temerature.
answer
a. Administer oxygen at a high flow rate for 5 minutes after discontinuation of the anesthetic or until extubation. c. Turn the patient about every 10 to 15 minutes. d. Use warming methods to increase the body temerature.
