Micro Chapter 18 – Flashcards
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1. The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the A. epicardium. B. myocardium. C. endocardium. D. pericardium. E. ectocardium.
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pericardium
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2. The presence of viruses in the blood is called A. viremia. B. fungemia. C. hemovirus. D. bacteremia. E. septicemia.
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viremia
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______ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream. A. Viremia B. Fungemia C. Hemovirus D. Bacteremia E. Septicemia
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Septicemia
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4. All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except A. occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. B. caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue. C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood. D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in a vegetation. E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.
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B. caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
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5. The common causative agent of acute endocarditis is A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Streptococcus pneumoniae. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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6. Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through A. ingestion. B. parenteral entry. C. casual contact. D. droplets. E. fomites.
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B. parenteral entry.
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7. Most cases of septicemia are caused by A. fungi. B. viruses. C. prions. D. bacteria. E. protozoans.
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D. bacteria.
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8. Which of the following is not true of septicemia? A. fever and shaking chills B. respiratory acidosis C. endotoxic shock D. parenteral or endogenous transfer E. drop in blood pressure
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B. respiratory acidosis
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9. Yersinia pestis A. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent. B. has humans as an endemic reservoir. C. does not respond to antimicrobial drugs. D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector. E. All of the choices are correct.
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D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector.
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10. All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except A. transmitted by human feces. B. caused by Yersinia pestis. C. patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. D. patient has fever, headache, nausea, and weakness. E. can progress to a septicemia.
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A. transmitted by human feces.
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11. Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis? A. exhibits bipolar staining B. gram-negative rod C. transmitted by fleas D. has a capsule E. produces enterotoxin
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E. produces enterotoxin
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12. Plague includes A. septicemic form; called Black Death. B. bubonic form; buboes develop. C. pneumonic form; sputum highly contagious. D. disease control; control of rodent population. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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13. Bubonic plague is transmitted by A. mosquitos. B. flies. C. animal bites. D. sexual contact. E. fleas.
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E. fleas.
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14. Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A. brucellosis. B. plague. C. malaria. D. Q fever. E. All of the choices are correct.
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B. plague.
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15. Which is not associated with tularemia? A. a zoonosis B. mammals are the chief reservoir C. a gram-positive bacterium D. symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia E. sometimes called rabbit fever
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C. a gram-positive bacterium
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16. Rabbits and other rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A. tularemia. B. anthrax. C. malaria. D. brucellosis. E. mononucleosis.
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A. tularemia.
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17. The causative agent of Lyme disease is A. Ixodes scapularis. B. Borrelia hermsii. C. Borrelia burgdorferi. D. Ixodes pacificus. E. Leptospira interrogans.
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C. Borrelia burgdorferi.
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18. Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with A. plague. B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C. Q fever. D. Lyme disease. E. yellow fever.
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D. Lyme disease.
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19. The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with A. Lyme disease. B. yellow fever. C. Q fever. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. plague.
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A. Lyme disease.
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20. Lyme disease involves A. early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck. B. crippling polyarthritis, and cardiovascular and neurological problems. C. people having contact with ticks. D. treatment with antimicrobials. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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21. Lyme disease is transmitted by A. flies. B. droplets. C. lice. D. fleas. E. ticks.
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E. ticks.
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22. Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except it A. is more commonly found in adults. B. is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. C. produces sudden leukocytosis. D. has a 30- to 50- day incubation. E. can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants.
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A. is more commonly found in adults.
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23. Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. fever and pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. D. fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis. E. None of the choices is correct.
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C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.
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24. Which of the following requires direct contact with infected body fluids? A. yellow fever B. dengue fever C. Q fever D. Lassa fever E. trench fever
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D. Lassa fever
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25. Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever? A. yellow fever B. trench fever C. Q fever D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever E. cat-scratch fever
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A. yellow fever
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26. Yellow fever and dengue fever are A. caused by arboviruses. B. caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting. C. zoonoses. D. transmitted by a mosquito vector. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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27. Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg? A. caused by filoviruses B. disruption of clotting factors C. transmitted by direct contact with body fluids D. transmitted by mosquitos E. there is no treatment
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D. transmitted by mosquitos
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28. Which type of hemorrhagic fever can be treated with ribavirin? A. Lassa fever B. Ebola C. Marburg D. dengue fever E. yellow fever
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A. Lassa fever
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29. Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in bones? A. Lassa fever B. Ebola C. Marburg D. dengue fever E. yellow fever
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D. dengue fever
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30. The reservoir for Lassa fever is the A. monkey. B. rat. C. gorilla. D. cat. E. cattle.
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B. rat.
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31. Brucellosis is A. a zoonosis. B. seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness. C. also known as undulant fever. D. an occupational illness of people who work with animals. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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32. Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent A. tularemia. B. plague. C. endocarditis. D. brucellosis. E. mononucleosis.
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D. brucellosis.
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33. The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from cat bites or scratches is A. Salmonella typhimurium. B. Yersinia enterocolitica. C. Bartonella henselae. D. Brucella suis. E. Francisella tularensis.
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C. Bartonella henselae.
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34. Rocky Mountain spotted fever A. is seen in highest numbers along the west coast. B. is transmitted by Ixodes ticks. C. symptoms include fever, headache, and rash. D. never has severe complications. E. All of the choices are correct.
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C. symptoms include fever, headache, and rash.
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35. Which is incorrect regarding Q fever? A. transmitted by lice B. pathogen produces resistant spores C. humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread D. causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia E. is a zoonosis
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A. transmitted by lice
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36. Which of the following is mismatched? A. Yersinia pestis - plague B. Coxiella burnetii - Q fever C. Bartonella quintana - trench fever D. Bartonella henselae - cat-scratch disease E. Rickettsia typhi - Rocky Mountain spotted fever
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E. Rickettsia typhi - Rocky Mountain spotted fever
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37. Cat-scratch fever can be prevented by A. avoiding ticks. B. pasteurizing milk. C. vaccine. D. animal control. E. cleaning the scratch wound.
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E. cleaning the scratch wound.
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38. The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48- to 72- hour episodes in a malaria patient are A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain. C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge. D. chills, fever, and sweating. E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.
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D. chills, fever, and sweating.
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39. Which is incorrect about malaria? A. Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells. B Trophozoites develop in RBCs. C. The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites. D. Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human. E. Cerebral malaria is a potential serious complication.
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A. Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells.
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40. The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by A. liver cell lysis. B. white blood cell lysis. C. red blood cell lysis. D. neurological involvement. E. None of the choices is correct.
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C. red blood cell lysis.
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41. Malaria may be prevented by A. using bed nets sprayed with insecticide. B. eliminating standing water. C. taking prophylactic drugs. D. decreasing the mosquito population. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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42. The causative organism of malaria is a A. bacterium. B. virus. C. fungus. D. protozoan. E. prion.
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D. protozoan.
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43. Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except A. capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors. B. a one-time vaccine provides lifelong immunity. C. reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil. D. gram-positive bacillus. E. spore former.
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B. a one-time vaccine provides lifelong immunity.
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44. Anthrax is A. a zoonosis. B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion. C. a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia. D. only seen sporadically in the United States. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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45. Each of the following may be used in the treatment of anthrax except A. penicillin. B. ciprofloxacin. C. doxycycline. D. chloroquine.
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D. chloroquine.
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46. A common cardiovascular/lymph system disease in AIDS patients is A. acute endocarditis. B. Burkitt's lymphoma. C. herpes simplex virus. D. ehrlichioses. E. brucellosis.
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B. Burkitt's lymphoma.
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47. Retroviruses have the following characteristics except A. glycoprotein spikes. B. DNA genome. C. enveloped. D. reverse transcriptase. E. viral genes integrate into the host genome.
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B. DNA genome.
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48. All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except they A. have an immunodeficiency. B. have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm3 of blood. C. get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections. D. can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders. E. have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States.
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B. have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm3 of blood.
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49. Documented transmission of HIV involves A. mosquitoes. B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products. C. respiratory droplets. D. contaminated food. E. All of the choices are correct.
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B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with
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50. All of the following pertain to HIV except A. attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors. B. initial infection often associated with vague symptoms. C. becomes latent in host cells. D. ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens. E. can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities.
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D. ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens.
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51. Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. protease inhibitors C. fusion inhibitors D. integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct.
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B. protease inhibitors
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52. Which new class of drugs will interfere with docking onto host cells? A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. protease inhibitors C. fusion inhibitors D. integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct.
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C. fusion inhibitors
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53. A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is A. leukemia. B. Hodgkin's lymphoma. C. Kaposi's sarcoma. D. melanoma. E. myeloma.
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C. Kaposi's sarcoma.
