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Acute Care study guide 1 – Flashcards 90 terms

Brandon Ruffin
90 terms
Preview
Acute Care study guide 1 – Flashcards
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HIPAA
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Health insurance portability and accountability act
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SBAR
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Situation, background, assessment, recommendation
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Heart rate 1. normal 2. low 3. high
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1. normal 60-100 bpm 2. bradycardia 100 bpm
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Respiration 1. normal 2. low 3. high
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1. normal 12-20 breaths/min. 2. bradypnea 20 breaths/min.
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blood pressure (systolic / diastolic) 1. normal 2. low 3. high
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1. normal < 120/80 mmHg 2. hypotension (< 90 mmHg) / ( 160) / (> 100)
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Oxygen Saturation (02 sats) 1. normal 2. low medicare levels for home? collapsed alveoli / lung lobe is termed?
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1.normal SpO2 >95% in room air 2. hypoxia < 93% medicare levels for home < 88% atelectasis - collapsed alveoli / lung lobe
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CBC (Stands for, includes (6))
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1. Complete Blood Cell Count 2. RBC's, WBC's, WBC differential, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelet count
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Hematocrit/hemoglobin 1. normal values (male v. female) 2. patients with ahemoglobin value < (?) should not be treated (PT contraindication)
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1. Hematocrit - Male - 42-52% Female - 37-47% Hemoglobin - Male- 14-17 g/100mL Female - 12-16 g/100mL 2. 7 g/100mL
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Platelets (normal value, low, contraindication for PT when...?)
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1. normal values : 150,000 - 450,000 2. thrombocytopenia less than 150,000. 3. platelets < 10000 = DO NOT TREAT! Spontaneous bleeding can occur if plt count < 20K
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Exercise guidelines (Samuelson 2010) - Most current guidelines for thrombocytopenia
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- Platelets 100.5degrees • No therapeutic exercise/hold therapy - Platelets 10 - 20 K • Therapeutic exercise, bike without resistance - Platelets > 20K • Therapeutic exercises, bike with or without resistance
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Bradycardia 1. signs/symptoms (4) 2. causes (3)
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1. lethargy, fatigue, Dyspnea (shortness of breath), and syncope (passing out). 2. beta blockers, being a well trained athlete, or heart conduction pathology
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Tachycardia 1. signs/symptoms(6) 2. causes (7)
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1. dyspnea (shortness of breath), dizziness, diaphoresis (sweating), syncope, chest pain, palpitations. 2. anxiety, caffeine, fever, anemia, arrhythmias, breathing treatments, respiratory distress
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Bradypnea 1. causes (5)
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sedatives, narcotics, alcohol, and neurologic and metabolic disorders.
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Tachypnea 1. causes (5)
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1. acute respiratory distress, fever, pain, emotions, and anemia.
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Orthopnea
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often refers to number of pillows needed below a patient because if this patient lays down flat they will have shortness of breath (dyspnea)
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Signs of HTN (4)
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difficult to detect, referred to as "silent killer" headache, blurred vision, numbness, and ringing in the ears.
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Hypotension symtoms (3)
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lightheadedness, syncope, fatigue
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signs of hypoxia (4)
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tachypnea, tachycardia, restlessness, altered mental status.
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Anemia 1. defined 2. causes (6), symptoms (9)
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1.Decrease in quantity or quality or red blood cells. (hemoglobin < 14 Men less than 12 women) 2. caused by B12/iron deficiency, RA, blood loss, lupus, AIDS, sickle cell. 3. Mild fatigue until hemoglobin falls to less than half of normal. Weakness, dyspnea; pallor of fingernails, mucosa, conjunctiva, tachycardia, angina in patients with CHD, palpitations. Lupus = a chronic, autoimmune disease that can damage any part of the body ( skin, joints, and/or organs inside the body). pallor = an unhealthy pale appearance. Angina = chest discomfort due to poor blood flow through the blood vessels in the heart
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WBC count 1. Normal values
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Normal values - 4500-11000
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Neutropenia 1. definition 2. cause
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1. Decrease in neutrophils less than 2000/ml. 2. Caused by bone marrow suppression (chemo/radiation), aplastic anemia, prolonged infections. Aplastic anemia = a condition in which the bone marrow does not make enough new blood cells. Bone marrow is the soft, fatty tissue in the center of bones.
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Neutropenic precautions
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-Generally if WBC < 1000/mm3 or neutrophil < 500 mm3 -Markedly immune-compromised. Do not treat if you are sick -Therapists will wear mask in room vs. patient wears mask in hallway -Strict hand washing. Clean equipment before entering room -Do not bring flowers or fruit into room (parasites, fungus, etc)
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INR 1. purpose 2. normal 3. Reasons for elevated values 4. contraindications
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1. Assesses adequacy of Warfarin/Coumadin therapy. (takes tissue factor issue out of the equation) 2. Healthy person has an INR 0.9 - 1.3 if not on anti-coagulants 3. pt. on anti-coagulation medicine, if vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease 4. INR > 4 = increased risk of bleeding, >5 do defer PT, >6 bed rest / chance of spontaneous bleeding
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BMP 1. What it stands for 2. What lab values are included (do not have to memorize values).
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1. BMP: Basic Metabolic Panel. 2. Glucose, Potassium, Sodium, bun, creatinine, calcium, carbon dioxide/bicarbonate, and chloride. BUN = blood urea nitrogen; used, along with the creatinine test, to evaluate kidney function
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Glucose: normal values, pre-diabetic, DM
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1. Normal 126 mg/dl fasting on two separate days.
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Hemoglobin A1C (HgA1C) 1. use 2. normal val. 3. diabetic goals 4. 1% drop of HgA1C = (?%) decrease in diabetic complications
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1. 4.0 - 6.4 % 2. Reflects average glucose levels for the last 120 days. 3. Diabetic goals (ADA) is a HgA1C of < 7.0% 4. 25 % decrease in diabetic complications for every 1.0% drop in HgA1C
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Hypoglycemia signs
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Symptoms include tachycardia, HTN, hunger, tremor, irritability, sweating, headache, mental status changes, paresthesias, seizures, visual changes, dizziness, LOC (loss of consciousness). Coordinate insulin, meals, exercise to reduce risk of hypoglycemia. < 100 mg/dl limit exercise. paresthesia = a sensation of tingling, tickling, prickling, pricking, or burning of a person's skin with no apparent long-term physical effect
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hyperglycemia
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hyperuria, polydypsia (thirst) weight loss, blurred vision, effects on wound healing. (> 250 mg/dl limit exercise.)
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Diabetic foot care
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avoid bare feet, wear proper shoes and socks, check feet daily, don't soak feet, keep feet dry, tell physician if blisters/ cuts/ wounds, keep toe nails trimmed correctly
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Potassium: normal value physical therapy precautionary values
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3.5-5 mEq/L use caution, get medical clearance generally if 6.0mEq/liter, especially if history arrhythmias/CHD
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Hypokalemia causes clinical signs
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Hypokalemia < 3.5 mEq/liter. o Causes- vomiting, renal disease, gastric suctioning, polyuria (excessive urination), diuretics o Clinical signs - Fatigue, muscle weakness, slow/weak pulse, v-fib, paresthesias, leg cramps, hypotension, EKG changes
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hyperkalemia causes clinical signs
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Hyperkalemia > 5.0 mEq/liter. o Causes - Renal failure, burns, Addison's disease, chronic heparin use o Clinical signs - Muscle weakness, nausea, tachycardia followed by bradycardia, dysrhythmia, flaccid paralysis, irritability, anxiety, EKG changes Addison's disease: A rare, chronic endocrine system disorder in which the adrenal glands do not produce sufficient steroid hormones. This includes aldosterone, which regulates potassium secretion among other things. Burns: Potassium is prevalent within cells, when cells are damaged, this increases extracellular potassium levels, thus hyperkalemia heparin blocks an enzymatic step in the synthesis of aldosterone, and reduced aldosterone levels may be evident as early as four days after initiation of therapy. Although all patients who receive heparin may have reduced aldosterone levels, most are able to compensate through increased renin production and therefore remain asymptomatic. However, patients on prolonged heparin therapy or those unable to adequately increase renin production (e.g., patients with diabetes or renal insufficiency) may exhibit signs of hypoaldosteronism, such as hyperkalemia.
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Sodium: normal values Hyponatremia Hypernatremia
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• Normal ranges 135 - 145 mEq/liter • Hyponatremia 145 mEq/liter
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Order of increased O2 support
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1. Nasal Cannula: Most common method of delivering supplemental 02 2. Open face mask / face shield: Used if nasal cavity is obstructed (i.e. mouth breathers) 3. Closed Face Mask: Closed mask provides 02 to both mouth and nose 4. Partial Non-Rebreather: Closed face mask with reservoir bag, allows some rebreathing of air 5. Non-Rebreather Face Mask: Provides highest concentration of supplemental 02 via a face mask (one way valve) 6. BiPAP (Bi-level positive airway pressure: Provides positive pressure to keep airway open. Provides varying inspiration/expiration support (can be programmed). Can be the step before intubation. Can be loud, claustrophobic. Need to remove to eat. 7. CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure ): Used to treat sleep apnea. Push air through trachea at pressure high enough to prevent sleep apnea. 8. ETT = endotracheal tube: When patient has ETT inserted, it is referred to as intubation (aka as oral intubation & tracheal intubation). When patient has ETT removed, it is referred to as extubation. 9. Tracheostomy: Surgical incision in trachea below vocal cords. Allows weaning to RA by decreasing the size of the trach (Decannulation = trach completely removed). Also used with Head/neck surgery due to swelling and potential for airway impairment
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Reasons for intubation
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1. patients 02 sats are not maintained by other means (ie nasal cannula, face shield, bi-pap) 2. pt's work of breathing is excessively high, and pt's respiratory muscles will fatigue (respiratory distress) 3. pt's respiratory drive is too low (apneic) or respiratory muscles are too weak (Guillain Barre) 4. Can be used when patient is combative and needs to be sedated (level of sedation suppresses respiratory drive) 5. If pt's mental status is impaired (i.e, pt cannot cough, clear secretions - "protect their airway") 6. Used if pt needs to be sedated after brain injury or surgery in order to recover, and level of sedation will suppress respiratory drive 7. Intubation allows suctioning of secretions to clear airways 8. Used during surgery to allow paralytics/sedatives , which would then stop respiration 9. Upper airway obstructions (including burns), tracheal injuries, which can prevent appropriate respirations
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What does ETT/mechanical respiration control?
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1. Respiration rate, depth, and pressure (to inflate lungs) 2. O2 and CO2 levels 3. pH
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Passy Muir Valve
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A valve that allows patients to speak with a tracheostomy. Stays closed until patient exhales, then opens. Lets air reach vocal chords for speech. Make sure balloon is deflated on trach or patient will not be able to breath.
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Pt's sometimes "self extubate", pull their ETT out. What are the implications of this?
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If ok, will simply leave extubated.
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PCA vs. Nerve Blocks vs. Epidural
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1. Patient controlled anesthesia: Pt must press button to deliver dose of meds (has hourly limit). Pt must press button themselves. We cannot press button for pt. Has immediate effect, but effects are relatively short lived. 2. Nerve Blocks: Used postoperatively to locally control pain. In the OR a surgically inserted catheter administers an anesthetic that bathes specific nerves. Used for 1-2 days after surgery. 3. Epidural: Catheter placed in epidural space in spine Opioid/anesthetic mix infused into epidural space Motor and sensory deficits are side effects. Foley catheter kept in place for duration of epidural to avoid urinary retention.
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Oral vs. IV pain meds
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IV pain meds works in 0-20 minutes; fast acting, but shorter duration (1-2 hrs). Takes 20-40 min (max 45 - 60 min) to work, however lasts longer (4-6 hrs). Pt.'s are discharged with oral meds, but not always with IV meds. Example: Should not be receiving IV morphine on day of discharge, as patient will not have access to IV morphine at home
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Pain control ladder
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1. Level One NSAIDS (non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs), acetaminophen, dexamethasone 2. Level Two Mild opioids - codeine, hydrocodone, propoxyphene 3. Level Three Stronger opioids - morphine, oxycodone, hydromorphone, fentanyl, methadone, demerol
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What are the signs of narcotics overdose, and what drug is used to counteract said overdose?
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Signs include decreased mental status/sedation decreased 02 sats decreased respiratory rate pupillary constriction (pinpoint pupils) Narcan
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Heparin v. coumadin/warfarin v. Lovenox
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1. Heparin - Intravenous. Fast acting, with immediate onset. Short lived effects measured w/ PTT. Used for DVT, MI, pulmonary embolism. 2. Coumadin (warfarin)- Given orally, with therapeutic onset 12 hrs - 3 days. Heparin is given initially in combination with coumadin until PT/INR is in therapeutic range for the INR, at which time heparin is discontinued. Used for PE, DVT, MI, rheumatic heart disease with valvular damage, prosthetic heart valves, chronic A-fib. • Can be neutralized by vitamin K infusion • Frequent checks of INR/PT needed, even as outpatient. • Patients are told not to change diet to include foods high in vitamin K. 3. Lovenox - Derivative of heparin, given subcutaneously, used to prevent /treat pulmonary embolism and DVT. Can combined with coumadin.
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Function of anticoagulants
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Drug that helps prevent blood clotting. Tend to prevent new clot from forming or existing clot from enlarging. Does not dissolve blood clots that already exist.
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NPO
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(Latin, nothing by mouth): Used if patient is scheduled for surgery (can also see "NPO after midnight if patient is scheduled for procedure/surgery next day) Also used after GI surgery, or if patient has Ileus (paralysis of intestinal tract)
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Venous dopplers
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Ultrasound test to assess presence of DVT's. Do not treat patient until results are documented.
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Transfer PRBC
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In transfusion medicine, packed red blood cells are red blood cells (RBC, also called erythrocytes) that have been collected, processed, and stored in bags as blood product units available for blood transfusion purposes. An order for a blood transfusion that is given for low hgb values. Need to check hgb before starting PT hgb <7 do not perform PT
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Cardiac enzymes
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After/during an MI, myocardial cell death causes the release of specific enzymes into the blood. These enzymes can be used to determine the level of myocardial death, and are used in the clinical diagnosis of an MI, especially if EKG changes are not clear. If MD is concerned enough to order cardiac enzymes, do not perform physical therapy until first TWO sets are negative. examples: Troponin I (cTnI) and Creatine Kinase /Creatine Phosphokinase (CK or CPK)
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CT scans
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(for abdominal abscesses, head bleeds)-> used to assess strokes, brain hemorrhage, tumors, or brain injuries, abdominal/lung tumors, bone fx in detail
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The role of neurontin/lyrica for neuropathic pain, valium /flexeril for muscle spasms
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...
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AV fistula precautions
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Do not take BP (blood pressure) on arm with AV fistula With an arteriovenous fistula, blood flows directly from an artery into a vein, bypassing some capillaries. When this happens, tissues below the bypassed capillaries receive less blood supply. Arteriovenous fistulas usually occur in the legs, but can develop anywhere in the body. Arteriovenous fistulas are often surgically created for use in dialysis in people with severe kidney disease.
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Sternotomy precautions
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• Avoid repetitive overhead motions. • Avoid lifting/pushing/pulling anything > 10 lbs. • Non weight bearing (B) UE • No driving until sternum heals • Use heart pillow to chest during coughing and sneezing.
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Hip dislocation precautions (posterior)
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No hip flexion past 90 degrees No hip adduction No hip internal rotation
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paralysis of intestinal tract
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Ileus
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Lumbar Punctures
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Used to obtain cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) samples. Check with nurse to see if patient needs to remain supine after procedure. Normally on bedrest after (from one to six hours). Be aware of headaches 24 - 36 hours after test (spinal headaches - severe headache upon sitting that resolves with return to supine).
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Angiogram
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An angiogram is an X-ray test that uses a special dye and camera (fluoroscopy) to take pictures of the blood flow in an artery (such as the aorta) or a vein (such as the vena cava). An angiogram can be used to look at the arteries or veins in the head, arms, legs, chest, back, or belly. • Bed rest for up to 8 hours after procedure. • Know your facility guidelines. Also contact MD regarding results - is patient safe for PT based on test results, or should PT be deferred until intervention (ie angioplasty or CABG) performed?
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Weight bearing statuses
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WBAT or FWB PWB TDWB NWB
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Non-Weight bearing x 2 (UE)
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Non-Weight bearing x 2 (UE) Can only ambulate with CGA
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can NWB 1 LE use cane
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nope
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Knee scooter-
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If distal tibial or foot injury, with MD permission
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w/ TDWB/TTWB, how much force can you apply through affected extremity? Where should you apply weight
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the pressure that wouldn't break an egg." Mid-foot TDWB places less stress on hips.
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TDWB/TTWB difference from NWB
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Really doesn't change functional status from NWB
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If (B) PWB, can you do gait training
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no, you need 1 LE WBAT for gait training
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Non -weight bearing x 1 UE, LE Can only do what transfers...?
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bed to wc (wheelchair) or bsc (bedside commode) transfers (Use a stand pivot or squat pivot transfer using uninjured limbs)
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w/ PWB make sure to
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requires additional documentation of % or # to clarify. Don't assume certain amt.
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PFWB (platform weight bearing) - associated w/
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Distal radius fractures, NOT for scapula or clavicle fractures Can attach platform to walker or crutches
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Levels of Assist
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Independent (I) - Perform correctly w/o supervision Supervision (S) - Performed w/o verbal cues Stand by assist (SBA) - Performing task without holding onto pt. Contact guard assist (CGA) - Performing task with light touch on pt Hand hold assist (HHA) - Performing task while holding pt's hand Min Assist (min) - Requires up to 25 % assist to perform task Moderate Assist (mod)-Requires up to 50 % assist to perform task Max Assist (max) - Requires up to 75 % assist to perform task Dependent (D) - Requires > 75 % assist needed to perform task Can indicate, "mod A for (L) LE only"
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most equipped position to suggest DME for discharge?
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PT's are in the best position to suggest DME for discharge
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Patients are admitted to an acute care hospital for the following reasons
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1. Surgery (elective or emergent) 2. Need for admission to find a diagnosis for an illness (can't be handled on an outpatient basis) 3. Treatment of an acute illness (pt is medically unstable and requires 24 hr medical treatment) 4. Injuries that require in patient admission to treat
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A patient is ready for discharge from the hospital from a medical standpoint when the patient...
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1. Is medically stable 2. Blood work is acceptable, vital signs appropriate 3. Patient is eating, urinating and having bowel movements 4. Symptoms are managed 5. The diagnosis has been made and treatment begun 6. Treatment of illness completed 7. Injuries are surgically repaired or medically treated 8. Patient no longer requires physician supervision
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_____?_____ is considered household ambulation for discharge purposes **
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150'
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3 hr rule
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3 hours skilled therapy day Needs > 3 hrs day, at least two therapies Can tolerate 3 hrs day, medically stable, ok if medically complex Willing to participate (cannot refuse PT in acute care)
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ABI unit
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Some in patient rehab facilities have dedicated "ABI Rehab" units, for patients with acquired brain injuries. The ABI units provide a low stimulus environment that is beneficial to ABI patients Unit has posey beds (see picture), which allows a patient to remain safely in bed without the danger of falling out of bed or inappropriately trying to walk in the room not all strokes need ABI
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coma stim
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Some rehab units contain "coma stim" programs, for pts who are too low functioning to be approved for in pt rehab programs. The programs work on targeted stimulation to increase alertness and ability to follow commands. If patients improve, can enter ABI programs.
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Can get new wc every __?____ years per medicare
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5
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____?____ is the standard adult size
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18"
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Usually ____?_____ weight limit for 18" wc
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Usually 250#
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WC > ___?___ may be difficult for doors
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20"
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renting a wheelchair in the hospital is common, but beyond a certain point
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you own it
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Insurance will pay for a bedside commode every ___?___ years
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5
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bedside commode can be used what 3 places
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3 in 1 can be used next to bed, over toilet, shower chair
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bedside commode Almost mandatory if
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THR (unless very short or has raised/handicapped toilet seat)
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sliding board appropriate pt.'s
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For NWB (B) LE Spinal Cord Injuries (SCI) Difficulty weight bearing For safety
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things medicare doesn't cover
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tub transfer bench and shower chair
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can get a walker every _____?____ yrs
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5
question
crutch weight bearing Wooden Metal Bariatric up to
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Wooden 350# Metal 250 # Bariatric up to 650 #
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Know weight limits of your equipment Crutches metal (?), wooden (?) WC 18" (?) # Walkers (?) # Hospital wall mounted commodes (?) #
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Know weight limits of your equipment Crutches metal 250 #, wooden 350# WC 18" 250 - 300 # Walkers 300# Hospital wall mounted commodes 250-300# Can add support under commode
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HHPT v. outpatient
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HHPT: 30 to 60 minutes each tx outpatient: 2-3 x week, 45 - 60 minutes each tx May start with HHPT first then progress to outpatient therapy outpatient clinic will have more tools/modalities/options for treatment
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SNF pt.'s put in how much work?
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1 - 2 hours therapy per day (PT/OT/ST combined) five to six days/wk Generally longer stay (3-4 weeks, or longer)
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Typical rehab facilities only accept patients ____?___ yrs old or greater.
answer
Typical rehab facilities only accept patients 13 yrs old or greater. In NC only Charlotte and Greensville accept children < 13 years old
Electronic Medical Records
Services And Supplies
CIM 100 Midterm – Flashcards 186 terms

Daniel Jimmerson
186 terms
Preview
CIM 100 Midterm – Flashcards
question
NAACCR's primary role is to represent and serve as a forum for the organization, operation, quality control, and statistical reporting for: Select one: a. hospital-based cancer registries. b. population-based cancer registries. c. specialty cancer registries. d. all of the above
answer
b. population-based cancer registries
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Neoplasia is a synonym for cancer, which is often used among medical professionals Select one: a. True b. False
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a. True
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Hospitals are responsible to identify the list of ICD-9-CM codes that are mandatory to include on the disease index file to meet state reporting requirements. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
b. False
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Which of the following is NOT true of probabilistic record linkage systems? Select one: a. They take into consideration the weighted match probabilities of the different data variables b. They make it feasible and efficient to link large public health datasets in a statistically justifiable manner c. They rely on exact variable matches d. They allow valid matches even when small typographical errors exist in the name or social security number in one or more records of a patient
answer
c. They rely on exact variable matches
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Match the following actions with the appropriate guidelines. 1. Producing complete, accurate and timely information 2. Truthfully and accurately representing credentials, education and experience 3. Revocation of the CTR credential 4. Providing lists of patients for marketing purposes a. Confidentiality and Privacy b. Professionalism c. Discharge of entrusted professional duties and responsibilities d. Breach of ethical conduct sanction
answer
1. Producing complete, accurate and timely information - c. Discharge of entrusted professional duties and responsibilities 2. Truthfully and accurately representing credentials, education and experience - b. Professionalism 3. Revocation of the CTR credential - d. Breach of ethical conduct sanction 4. Providing lists of patients for marketing purposes - a. Confidentiality and Privacy
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Standards for data management procedures for hospitals and population-based registries develop together and have been defined by the same standard setters. Select one: True False
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False
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Benign tumors may grow and interfere with bodily function, but they rarely leave the body part where they originate. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
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In active casefinding procedures, registry personnel retrieve and screen the source documents, such as disease indices, pathology reports, and autopsy documents except: Select one: a. surgery schedules b. admission and discharge documents c. doctor prescriptions d. radiation oncology
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c. doctor prescriptions
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Standard-setting organizations include the CoC, SEER, NPCR, and NAACCR. Select one: True False
answer
True
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An old item is no longer relevant when: Select one: a. one or more new response categories is added to the older item. b. the old item is dropped, and no longer coded. c. both a and b above d. neither a nor b above
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c. both a and b above
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The completeness of casefinding must be monitored for quality control purposes. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
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Consolidation rules determine which data inconsistencies can be resolved automatically and when to assign precedence of one category over another. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
Cancer was first observed in humans Select one: a. in 1842 by an Italian physician. b. in 2500 B. C. c. between 460 and 370 B. C. d. in 1629 in England.
answer
b. in 2500 B. C.
question
Match the following actions with the appropriate solutions. 1. Keeping data secure 2. Transmission of confidential data 3. Appropriate release of data 4. Computer failure a. Explicit administrative authorization b. Data encryption c. Passwords, audit control d. Automatic back up system
answer
1. Keeping data secure - c. Passwords, audit control 2. Transmission of confidential data - b. Data encryption 3. Appropriate release of data - a. Explicit administrative authorization 4. Computer failure - d. Automatic back up system
question
A serious breach of confidentiality can result in the cancer registrar being fired (terminated). Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
Protected health information is anything that connects a patient to his or her health information. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
Step assessments evaluate each step required to perform the job. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
For the majority of registries, it is better to hire an outsourcing company than to hire permanent staff. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
The process of safeguarding data by copying or duplicating files onto computer media separate from the original location is: Select one: a. Compiling b. Clusters c. Graphic user Interface d. Backup
answer
d. Backup
question
The National Cancer Registrars Association adopted a "Professional Practice Code of Ethics" that outlines the principles of professional conduct and provides members of the NCRA with definitive and binding guidelines of conduct. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
Casefinding is a systematic method of identifying all potentially eligible cases that are to be included in the registry database. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
An edit over-ride is the Edits feature that allows a user to note that the data are unusual, but correct. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
It was _____ that made possible the examination of cells and cellular activity and helped people better understand disease-causing organisms. Select one: a. better surgical tools b. better microscopes c. magic spells d. direct observation of the human body
answer
b. better microscopes
question
The purpose of an Edit Set is to group individual edits. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
It is common for a cancer registry to receive multiple types of casefinding source documents that belong to the same patient, even if those source documents have the same admission (or source) date. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
Office design standards call for desks to be facing each other with approximately 4 to 5 feet between desks. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
The term surveillance as applied to public health means: Select one: a. monitoring death certificate cause of death information. b. monitoring the occurrence of selected health conditions in the population. c. studying the cause of cancer. d. recording information on a disease.
answer
b. monitoring the occurrence of selected health conditions in the population.
question
Required data sets are the same for all standard setters. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
The disease index is the primary casefinding source used by central registries to identify incident cases. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
WHO, ACS, and AJCC developed standard codes for topography, morphology and extent of tumor spread. Select one: True False
answer
True
question
The Self Instructional Manuals for Tumor Registrars series is published by: Select one: a. NCRA. b. SEER. c. NAACCR. d. CoC.
answer
b. SEER.
question
When is the patient's written authorization to release information required? Select one: a. in most cases, when patient information is going to be shared with anyone for reasons other that treatment, payment or health care operations b. upon admission to a hospital c. when patient information is to be shared among two or more clinicians involved in the treatment of the patient d. when patient information is used for billing a private insurer
answer
a. in most cases, when patient information is going to be shared with anyone for reasons other that treatment, payment or health care operations
question
A future direction of cancer registry computer systems will be to replace DBMSs with systems for harvesting the increasing power, size, and complexity of fourth and fifth generation computing hardware. Select one: True False
answer
False
question
Typically, more than ______% of all cancers are histologically confirmed. Select one: a. 30 b. 50 c. 75 d. 90
answer
d. 90
question
Only hospital-based cancer registries are allowed to collect and report "reportable by-agreement" cases. Population-based registries, including the state central cancer registries, are forbidden to report these cases by federal law. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
When were the first standard edits made available? Select one: a. 1950 b. 1985 c. 1987 d. 1996
answer
d. 1996
question
Should you access your medical record via the computer system at your facility? Select one: a. yes b. no
answer
b. no
question
A metafile contains everything necessary to edit the data, except the data. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
In the casefinding process, a suspense file is kept so that the status of casefinding can be ascertained at any time. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
The fourth step of the budget cycle is: Select one: a. Presentation b. Adoption, or Approval c. Administration, or Execution d. Monitoring
answer
c. Administration, or Execution Five Steps of the Budget Cycle Preparation - meeting with administrator or budget director; identifying department or program, space, personnel, or equipment need. New items required cost versus benefit analysis. Presentation of budget documents - budget submission to administration; be prepared to answer questions Adoption - approval of budget for implementation (i.e. to incur expenses) Administration - execution of the budget (i.e. spending allocated funds) Monitoring of budget performance - use of control documents to monitor revenues/expenditures in relation to the budget
question
GenEdits, a computerized edit-checking software: Mark all choices that apply! Select one or more: a. improves the quality of the cancer data. b. standardizes the way data are checked for validity. c. is very expensive for registries to purchase. d. is only available in a DOS-based format.
answer
a. improves the quality of the cancer data. b. standardizes the way data are checked for validity.
question
While healthy, normal cells carry out specific functions to sustain life; cancer cells serve no useful purpose in the body. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
What does HL7 stand for, and what is it? Select one: a. Hell Level Seven is where registrars are tortured in Dante's Inferno. b. Hi Low Seven is a soft drink popular in the registry community. c. Hepatic Liver Seven is an advanced stage of liver cancer. d. Health Level Seven is a widely used data exchange standard in the healthcare industry. e. Help Language Seven is the seventh edition of a popular scripting language for help systems.
answer
d. Health Level Seven is a widely used data exchange standard in the healthcare industry.
question
Registry staff can include: Select one: a. epidemiologists. b. CTRs. c. abstractors. d. follow-up clerks e. statistical analysts f. All of the above g. None of the above
answer
f. All of the above
question
Rapid case ascertainment is the process of identifying cases quickly for epidemiologic protocols. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
A court order to provide certain documents, such as medical records, is called a subpoena. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
The central registry DMS is most often used to manage data directly entered by one or more registrars. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
Demographic data consist of the primary site of the malignancy, its cell type, and the extent of disease. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
An explanation of privacy practices is generally referred to as a Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP). Select one: a. True b. False
answer
a. True
question
The National Program of Cancer Registries (NPCR) Cancer Surveillance System (CSS) was authorized by the National Cancer Act in 1971. Select one: a. True b. False
answer
b. False
question
Factors affecting staffing for follow-up include number of cases being followed, type of population being followed and the longevity of the registry. T/F
answer
True
question
Step assessments are a not a necessary part of time-motion studies. T/F
answer
False
question
The accuracy of surgery schedules as a source of casefinding depends on appropriate documentation of orders and diagnoses at the time of surgery. T/F
answer
True
question
A hospital with an ACoS-approved cancer program is not required to maintain a cancer registry. T/F
answer
False
question
Standard 4.8 requires the cancer committee, or other appropriate leadership body, to implement and document at least two (2) improvements that directly affect cancer patient care. T/F
answer
True
question
Edit rejection rates can be monitored by the computer and be used to measure against a standard that is set for _________ accuracy levels. Select one: a. acceptable b. Average c. above average d. high
answer
a. acceptable
question
In order to receive a commendation for Standard 5.2 (RQRS), the facility must participate in in RQRS during the entire 3-year accreditation period and: Select one: a. submit all eligible cases for 25% of the valid performance measures b. submit all eligible cases for 50% of the valid performance measures c. submit all eligible cases for 75% of the valid performance measures d. submit all eligible cases for 100% of the valid performance measures
answer
d. submit all eligible cases for 100% of the valid performance measures
question
A future direction of cancer registry computer systems will be to replace DBMSs with systems for harvesting the increasing power, size, and complexity of fourth and fifth generation computing hardware. T/F
answer
False
question
Each year, the cancer committee offers at least 1 cancer-related educational activity, other than cancer conferences, to physicians, nurses, and other allied health professionals. The activity is focused on the use of: Select one: a. AJCC staging b. Clinical trial accrual c. SEER Summary Staging d. all of the above e. None of the above
answer
a. AJCC staging
question
All categories of program accreditation have the same CoC cancer conference requirements. T/F
answer
False
question
Which of the following are considered "passive" follow-up linkage sources? Select one: a. Motor vehicle/driver license files b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services c. State voter registration files d. All of the above e. None of the above
answer
d. All of the above
question
Which method of record matching is the preferred method? Select one: a. Deterministic b. Probabilistic c. Hierarchical d. Highest Value
answer
b. Probabilistic
question
Failure to consolidate records can lead to overcounting or undercounting cancer incidence. T/F
answer
True
question
The cancer committee is responsible for developing a reportable list that identifies all types of cases to be included in the cancer registry database. T/F
answer
True
question
Under what circumstances can confidential cancer registry data be made available? Select one: a. for marketing products to cancer patients. b. to help healthcare institutions recruit new patients. c. to provide follow up information to an approved facility. d. to aid insurance companies or employers trying to determine a patient's medical status.
answer
c. to provide follow up information to an approved facility
question
Cancer as a disease was first recorded by the _____ . Select one: a. Chinese b. Indians c. Egyptians d. Babylonians
answer
c. Egyptians
question
A reportable list is usually developed by the central registry, is composed of all the reportable case types collected by a cancer registry, and clarifies the types of diagnoses that are not reportable. T/F
answer
True
question
Lifetime follow-up on cancer patients is important for the accurate analysis of survival outcomes. T/F
answer
True
question
Which data format(s) are recommended by NAACCR to laboratories for reporting pathology report text information electronically to central registries? Select one: a. HL7 b. Pipe-delimited c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b
answer
c. Both a and b
question
Reference date refers to the effective date on or after which all reportable cases should be registered in a registry database. T/F
answer
True
question
Computerized edit checks are a cost effective way to assess accuracy, and should be routinely applied to 100% of the registry's cases T/F
answer
True
question
The NCRA mission statement is: Select one: a. Serving professionals who provide data that make a difference in the war on cancer. b. To promote education, credentialing, and advocacy for cancer registry professionals. c. Networking, Mentoring, and Making a difference. d. All of the above.
answer
b. To promote education, credentialing, and advocacy for cancer registry professionals.
question
Any facility whose cancer committee develops and disseminates a report of patient or program outcomes to the public each year during the survey cycle will be awarded a commendation for Standard 1.12 (Public Reporting of Outcomes): T/F
answer
True
question
It was _____ that made possible the examination of cells and cellular activity and helped people better understand disease-causing organisms. Select one: a. better surgical tools b. better microscopes c. magic spells d. direct observation of the human body
answer
b. better microscopes
question
Honorable discharge of the Association's responsibilities is one of the guidelines addressed in the NCRA Professional Practice Code of Ethics. T/F
answer
True
question
Cancer data collection begins by identifying cancer cases (case finding). T/F
answer
True
question
The first hospital-based cancer registry was organized at Yale-New Haven Hospital in Connecticut. The first population-base registry, which was also established in Connecticut, was established in what year? Select one: a. 1913 b. 1930 c. 1935 d. 1956
answer
c. 1935
question
Why is a relational database structure better for storing registry data than a NAACCR data exchange record? Select one: a. Registry data are logically grouped into records such as patient demographics and cases. b. The NAACCR record is designed for data exchange, not storage. c. Some NAACCR data exchange fields simply do not make sense to store in a registry database. d. The NAACCR data exchange record can accommodate only a fixed number of therapy records. e. All of the above
answer
e. All of the above
question
All of the following are core data items needed for successful follow-up except: Select one: a. insurance status. b. cancer status. c. date of last contact. d. none of the above are needed.
answer
a. insurance status.
question
Retrospective cases are discussed after the completion of all treatment, primarily for the purpose of education, and are not intended to influence the management of patient care. T/F
answer
True
question
Providers or facilities who diagnose a patient with cancer, but do not treat that patient's disease, are exempt from reporting that case. T/F
answer
False
question
Cancer registrars need to be concerned with confidentiality regarding: Select one: a. patient information. b. identity of the health care professional. c. identification of the institution. d. all of the above.
answer
d. all of the above.
question
Which statement(s) is (are) true? Select one: a. Computer monitors should be placed with the top line at or below the eye level. b. Monitors should be directly in front of or facing windows. c. Monitors should be placed more than two arm-lengths away. d. All of the above e. None of the above
answer
a. Computer monitors should be placed with the top line at or below the eye level.
question
How many prevention programs are required to be provided each year in most CoC-accredited programs. Select one: a. one b. two c. three d. four
answer
a. one
question
The CoC provides marketing information to local media for each CoC-accredited program. T/F
answer
False
question
Which matching method follows this rule: "A match cannot be made if one data file is missing a critical data field"? Select one: a. Deterministic b. Probabilistic c. Hierarchical d. Highest Value
answer
a. Deterministic
question
Prospective cases are presented for discussion at the time of initial diagnosis with an emphasis on establishing accurate staging (clinical or pathologic), treatment options based on national treatment guidelines, and expected patient management plans. T/F
answer
True
question
The cancer conference policy or procedure is used to establish the annual cancer conference activity. The policy or procedure addresses which of the following: Select one: a. Cancer conference frequency and format b. Attendance rate of physician participants c. Discussion of stage d. Number of case presentations e. Options for clinical trial participation f. All of the above g. None of the above
answer
f. All of the above
question
The central registry DMS is most often used to manage data directly entered by one or more registrars. T/F
answer
False
question
The advantages of ___________________ casefinding include sharing the labor costs and burden of reporting with other departments. Select one: a. Active b. Passive c. Active and Passive d. Reporting requirements and mechanisms
answer
b. Passive
question
he difference between quality control and quality assurance is: Select one: a. quality control is monitoring the processes and methods used to ensure quality, while quality assurance is a planned set of activities. b. quality control is a planned set of activities, while quality assurance is monitoring the processes and methods used to ensure quality. c. neither a nor b above d. both a and b above
answer
b. quality control is a planned set of activities, while quality assurance is monitoring the processes and methods used to ensure quality.
question
Quality of design: Select one: a. Relates to the restrictions and functions mandated by the design of the system (ensures that the fundamental intent is correct) b. Is the degree to which the product adheres to the design specifications and tolerances (the product itself is reproduced accurately) c. Is the degree to which the final form of the product or service meets the needs of the consumers (the end product is useful) d. All of the above
answer
a. Relates to the restrictions and functions mandated by the design of the system (ensures that the fundamental intent is correct)
question
If the matching criteria are too loose, many "false" matches may result in the wrong patients being linked together. T/F
answer
True
question
Quality of performance: Select one: a. Relates to the restrictions and functions mandated by the design of the system (ensures that the fundamental intent is correct) b. Is the degree to which the product adheres to the design specifications and tolerances (the product itself is reproduced accurately) c. Is the degree to which the final form of the product or service meets the needs of the consumers (the end product is useful) d. All of the above
answer
c. Is the degree to which the final form of the product or service meets the needs of the consumers (the end product is useful)
question
Services and supplies are line items traditionally found in ___________ budgets. Select one: a. Capital b. Operating c. Direct d. Indirect
answer
b. Operating
question
Electronic pathology reporting systems are based on the ability to scan documents for key terms to determine reportability. T/F
answer
True
question
These two methods for measuring data accuracy can be combined to provide direct descriptive information on the quality of the data and the reliability of the abstractors in the cancer registry studied. Select one: a. Visual editing and acceptance sampling b. Computerized edit checks and visual review c. Process controls and designed studies d. Reabstracting and case studies
answer
d. Reabstracting and case studies
question
How often should a registry plan to replace desktop computers? Select one: a. Every year b. Every 2 years c. Every 3 to 5 years d. Every 6 to 1 0 years e. Only when the IT department is willing to do it
answer
c. Every 3 to 5 years
question
The Cancer Committee is ultimately responsible for developing a cancer conference plan in a CoC-accredited facility. T/F
answer
True
question
Protected health information is anything that connects a patient to his or her health information. T/F
answer
True
question
Two factors in determining staffing needs are (1) facility and state requirements of the registry, and (2) an assessment of realistic time frames to meet facility, state, and/or national standard-setters' requirements. T/F
answer
True
question
Which can be a cancer registry budget item(s)? Select one: a. Funds for supplies, including providing snacks or drinks at meetings b. Travel costs for meetings c. Cost of electricity, heat, housekeeping, and maintenance staff d. Salaries for registry staff e. All of the above f. None of the above
answer
e. All of the above
question
The most important technological advance for cancer registries in the past two decades has been the development and widespread acceptance of the NAACCR data exchange standard. T/F
answer
True
question
One of the major milestones of the National Cancer Registrars Association is the development of a code of ethics. T/F
answer
True
question
Cancer registries in North America use which set of rules for determining multiple primaries for solid tumors? Select one: a. IARC rules b. ACCC rules c. SEER Multiple Primary and Histology Coding Rules implemented January 1, 2007
answer
c. SEER Multiple Primary and Histology Coding Rules implemented January 1, 2007
question
A computer or dedicated hardware device that restricts access between a protected network and an external network is a(n) __________. Select one: a. WAN b. Firewall c. Ethernet d. MAC
answer
b. Firewall
question
f a patient has multiple primary cancers: Select one: a. all records will be updated with the date of last contact, but the cancer status will need to entered separately. b. all records are updated with the date of last contact. but record cancer status only if the patient still has evidence of disease. c. all records are updated with the date of last contact. The cancer status is not updated when performing patient follow-up. d. none of the above.
answer
a. all records will be updated with the date of last contact, but the cancer status will need to entered separately.
question
One of the biggest challenges to cancer registrars will continue to be: Select one: a. finding a good job. b. keeping up with changes in data collection, coding, and reporting standards. c. getting the proper education for the job. d. all of the above.
answer
b. keeping up with changes in data collection, coding, and reporting standards.
question
Which of the following are challenges to standardizing data edits? Select one: a. differing computer language in registry systems b. standard specifications may be programmed differently c. incomplete editing of data during data entry d. documentation of edit algorithms used are not always available for data researchers e. data collected and consolidated from varied reporting sources and applications are not always uniform, therefore, data analysis may be affected f. standard changes are difficult to synchronize across software providers g. registries use different software providers h. all of the above are challenges
answer
h. all of the above are challenges
question
The cancer registry policy and procedure manual must specify that current CoC data definitions and coding instructions are used to describe all reportable cases. T/F
answer
True
question
The National Program of Cancer Registries (NPCR) Cancer Surveillance System (CSS) was authorized by the National Cancer Act in 1971. T/F
answer
False
question
Timeliness is critical to a registry quality-control process. The methods for evaluating timeliness are (indicate all that are correct) : Select one: a. visual review. b. reabstraction study. c. casefinding audit. d. lag-time report.
answer
d. lag-time report.
question
Prospective cases include which of the following types of cases: Select one: a. Newly diagnosed and treatment not yet initiated b. Previously diagnosed, initial treatment completed, but discussion of adjuvant treatment or treatment for recurrence or progression is needed. c. Newly diagnosed and treatment not yet initiated. d. Previously diagnosed, and discussion of supportive or palliative care is needed. e. Choices a and c f. Choices b and d g. All of the above h. None of the above
answer
g. All of the above
question
It is appropriate to access the medical records of a family member if you are concerned about their treatment, and to let them know about other possible treatment options. T/F
answer
False
question
Edits contain the logic to edit each field. T/F
answer
True
question
Other than the EMR, clinical data used to populate registries may be derived from:: Select one: a. Billing systems b. Pathology/laboratory databases c. Other registries d. All of the above e. None of the above
answer
d. All of the above
question
Non-registry staff could miss the collection of cases with diagnostic terms that may not sound: Select one: a. benign b. ambiguous c. cancerous d. pleasant
answer
c. cancerous
question
Only hospital-based cancer registries are allowed to collect and report "reportable by-agreement" cases. Population-based registries, including the state central cancer registries, are forbidden to report these cases by federal law. T/F
answer
False
question
An effective data quality management program is dependent on timely, complete, and high-quality data. T/F
answer
True
question
The hospital DMS shares many functions with the central registry DMS. Which of the following is NOT a function of the central registry DMS? Select one: a. importing and consolidating complete abstracts from external sources b. conducting record linkages with data files from external agencies c. interfacing with the hospital electronic medical record system to allow direct import of d. all are functions of the central registry DMS
answer
c. interfacing with the hospital electronic medical record system to allow direct import of
question
The term surveillance as applied to public health means: Select one: a. monitoring death certificate cause of death information. b. monitoring the occurrence of selected health conditions in the population. c. studying the cause of cancer. d. recording information on a disease.
answer
b. monitoring the occurrence of selected health conditions in the population.
question
If the matching criteria are set at "exact," no matches will be missed. T/F
answer
False
question
The national averages for abstracting are _____ minutes per abstract and _______ abstracts per year. Or approximately ____ abstracts per day. Select one: a. 40, 604, 4 b. 30, 604, 4 c. 30, 610, 5 d. 40, 610, 5
answer
a. 40, 604, 4
question
What are some of the factors that contribute to the costs of performing follow-up? Select one: a. Postage fees b. Staffing hours c. Both a and b d. There are no costs related to follow-up
answer
c. Both a and b
question
Which of the following describes a law that is prescribed by legislative enactments? Select one: a. Common law b. Statutory law c. Administrative law d. Regulatory law
answer
b. Statutory law
question
What is an essential element of proper disaster recovery planning? Select one: a. Housing registry offices and computers in locations above the flood stage b. Providing a reliable backup and recovery system c. Installing an Uninterruptible Power Supply d. Equipping all technical staff with beepers e. Configuring computer servers with fail-safe and redundant components
answer
b. Providing a reliable backup and recovery system
question
Normally, federal law preempts state law. The exception occurs when state law is: Select one: a. less strict than federal law b. more strict than federal law c. less effective than federal law d. less confusing than federal law
answer
b. more strict than federal law
question
A serious consequence of a finding of guilt for an ethics violation is revocation of the CTR credential. T/F
answer
True
question
A disease index is a listing of patients seen in a hospital, both inpatient and outpatient, with ICD-9-CM diagnosis codes. T/F
answer
True
question
Viruses, worms, and spyware are examples of computer malware. T/F
answer
True
question
One of the biggest challenges to cancer registrars will continue to be: Select one: a. finding a good job. b. keeping up with changes in data collection, coding, and reporting standards. c. getting the proper education for the job. d. all of the above.
answer
b. keeping up with changes in data collection, coding, and reporting standards.
question
Cases entered into the suspense file that are later determined not to be reportable are: Select one: a. Moved the master patient index b. Moved to the history file c. Remain in the suspense file d. Linked to the master patient index
answer
b. Moved to the history file
question
Only manual methods of reviewing pathology reports must include a way to track reports to ensure that each report has been included in the registrar's review. T/F
answer
False
question
All activities (abstracting, follow-up, casefinding, etc.) in the cancer registry must be performed by a Certified Tumor Registrar. T/F
answer
False
question
If a person has the ability to access facility of company systems or applications, they have a right to view any information contained in that system or application. T/F
answer
False
question
Recoding audits provide verification that coding guidelines and rules are correct as applied by the data collectors. T/F
answer
True
question
According to the eligibility standards, diagnostic imaging and radiation therapy services must be available on site. T/F
answer
False
question
Which procedure(s) should be done to ensure that all costs have been included in the budget? Select one: a. Keep records of invoices, costs b. Analyze information from previous budgets c. Check with other registrars d. Review information supported by NAACCR or NCRA e. All of the above f. None of the above
answer
e. All of the above
question
The Cancer Registry Quality Control Plan has procedures to monitor and evaluate which of the following: Select one: a. Abstracting timeliness b. Accuracy of Abstracted Data c. AJCC or other appropriate stage of the cases is discussed and documented for the five major sites seen at the facility d. Casefinding e. NCDB Data Submission f. Percentage of information coded as unknown g. All of the above h. None of the above
answer
g. All of the above
question
A __________ is a logical network partition that allows computers within the partition to be seen from the "outside". Select one: a. LAN b. WAN c. DMZ d. MAC
answer
c. DMZ
question
The first national cancer registry program was established by: Select one: a. CoC. b. NPCR. c. SEER. d. ACS.
answer
c. SEER.
question
Inter-record edit checks examine data items within a particular patient's abstract. T/F
answer
False
question
The survey process is the same for every facility. T/F
answer
False
question
The enactment of the Benign Brain Tumor Cancer Registries Amendment Act is an example of why registrars need to be aware not only of pertinent new legislation, but also of amendments to existing legislation. T/F
answer
True
question
An abstract has an edit error that states the Surgery Summary of Scope of Regional Lymph Nodes (SurgSumScopeRegLN) field conflicts with the number of lymph nodes examined and number of lymph nodes positive. What kind of edit check is this? Select one: a. Allowable range check (edit) b. Interitem check (edit) c. Interrecord check (edit) d. Interdatabase check (edit)
answer
b. Interitem check (edit)
question
How often should time-motion studies be performed? Select one: a. At predetermined intervals, or when a new or change of responsibilities occurs b. Several times a year, when the assigned person gets around to it c. Once a year d. When an employee leaves
answer
a. At predetermined intervals, or when a new or change of responsibilities occurs
question
All of the following are true of the Accredited Cancer Program Performance Report except that it: Select one: a. provides the Accreditation Award b. identifies the facility, surveyor, and date of the survey c. provides a summary of the program deficiencies. d. identifies the program as an Outstanding Achievement Award recipient
answer
d. identifies the program as an Outstanding Achievement Award recipient
question
Registry staff can call the patient or his/her next of kin to discuss the patient's current cancer status. T/F
answer
False
question
All of the following are core data items needed for successful follow-up except: Select one: a. insurance status. b. cancer status. c. date of last contact. d. none of the above are needed.
answer
a. insurance status.
question
For all eligible analytic cases, a 90% follow-up rate is maintained from the cancer registry reference date. T/F
answer
False
question
Cancer registries in North America use which set of rules for determining multiple primaries for solid tumors? Select one: a. IARC rules b. ACCC rules c. SEER Multiple Primary and Histology Coding Rules implemented January 1, 2007
answer
c. SEER Multiple Primary and Histology Coding Rules implemented January 1, 2007
question
The Commission on Cancer of the American College of Surgeons requires accredited cancer programs to meet which follow-up standard? Select one: a. Maintain an 80% follow-up rate for all eligible analytic patients from the cancer registry reference date b. 90% follow-up rate must be maintained for all eligible analytic patients diagnosed within the last 5 years, or from the cancer registry reference date, whichever is shorter c. Both a and b d. None of the above
answer
c. Both a and b
question
Reasons for possible changes of a reference date include: Select one: a. Changes in personnel b. Changes in data processing c. Changes in data acquisition methods d. Changes in facility ownership
answer
c. Changes in data acquisition methods
question
A cell may become cancerous if anything goes wrong in the process of cell reproduction. T/F
answer
True
question
All categories of cancer programs are required to develop and disseminate a report of patient or program outcomes to the public. T/F
answer
False
question
Follow-up can be done by checking the hospital records to determine whether the patient has been seen in the facility. T/F
answer
True
question
Statistical quality-control principles include acceptance sampling, process control, and designed studies. T/F
answer
True
question
Which of the following is NOT true of probabilistic record linkage systems? Select one: a. They take into consideration the weighted match probabilities of the different data variables b. They make it feasible and efficient to link large public health datasets in a statistically justifiable manner c. They rely on exact variable matches d. They allow valid matches even when small typographical errors exist in the name or social security number in one or more records of a patient
answer
c. They rely on exact variable matches
question
Issues with program activity should be addressed after the survey. T/F
answer
False
question
Many physicians view cancer conference as the equivalent to a second opinion and communicate the case presentation discussion to their patients. T/F
answer
True
question
Consistency, reliability, validity, reproducibility, and concordance are terms that can be used to describe: Select one: a. accuracy b. completeness c. timeliness d. acceptance sampling
answer
a. accuracy
question
When consolidating cases manually, the results of consolidation can be different based on the reviewer's experience, caseload, and knowledge of special ascertainment or coding rules. T/F
answer
True
question
NAACCR's primary role is to represent and serve as a forum for the organization, operation, quality control, and statistical reporting for: Select one: a. hospital-based cancer registries. b. population-based cancer registries. c. specialty cancer registries. d. all of the above
answer
b. population-based cancer registries.
question
Which matching method follows this rule: "A match cannot be made if one data file is missing a critical data field"? Select one: a. Deterministic b. Probabilistic c. Hierarchical d. Highest Value
answer
a. Deterministic
question
Currently in the United States, which governing agencies set reporting standards for hospital and population-based registries? Select one: a. American College of Surgeons (ACoS) Commission on Cancer (CoC) b. National Program of Cancer Registrars (NPCR) c. Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) d. All of the above
answer
d. All of the above
question
Which statement(s) regarding the advantages of outsourcing the cancer registry is (are) true? Mark all that apply! Select one or more: a. The number of staff can often be increased or decreased quickly. b. Short- or long-term commitments can be negotiated. c. On-site or remote staffing can be negotiated. d. Specific aspects/projects or the entire responsibility of the cancer registry can be negotiated. e. None of the above
answer
a. The number of staff can often be increased or decreased quickly. b. Short- or long-term commitments can be negotiated. c. On-site or remote staffing can be negotiated. d. Specific aspects/projects or the entire responsibility of the cancer registry can be negotiated.
question
n addition to following federal and state legal requirements concerning patient confidentiality, the cancer registrar must also be aware of pertinent regulations formulated by their own institution. T/F
answer
True
question
The difference between quality control and quality assurance is: Select one: a. quality control is monitoring the processes and methods used to ensure quality, while quality assurance is a planned set of activities. b. quality control is a planned set of activities, while quality assurance is monitoring the processes and methods used to ensure quality. c. neither a nor b above d. both a and b above
answer
b. quality control is a planned set of activities, while quality assurance is monitoring the processes and methods used to ensure quality.
question
Reabstracting studies are usually performed on __________. Select one: a. All cases abstracted during a year b. A small sample of cases c. 10% of cases d. All coded data
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b. A small sample of cases
question
Cancer refers to a single disease characterized by uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells. T/F
answer
False
question
The resource that serves as a reference on cancer registry data requirements and data coding standards is: Select one: a. Cancer Program Standards 2009 b. Facility Oncology Data Standards c. Cancer Registry Management, Principles and Practice d. Registry Operations and Data Standards
answer
b. Facility Oncology Data Standards
question
Which quality method is most costly? Select one: a. Independent case ascertainment b. Reliability study c. Reabstracting study d. CoC survey review
answer
a. Independent case ascertainment
question
Which items affect staffing? Select one: a. The facility type b. Type and number of physician requests c. Number of meetings for which the registrar is a participant or staff d. Budget e. All of the above f. None of the above
answer
e. All of the above
question
An explanation of privacy practices is generally referred to as a Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP). T/F
answer
True
question
A combination of active and passive casefinding is _____ system in registries today. Select one: a. a rarely used b. an outdated c. an experimental d. commonly used
answer
d. commonly used
question
Radiation oncology logs should be reviewed for new cases as well as for collecting follow-up. T/F
answer
True
question
In the casefinding process, a suspense file is kept so that the status of casefinding can be ascertained at any time. T/F
answer
True
question
Cancer conferences with commercial support should include the "disclosures" and "transparency" documents if CE's are provided. T/F
answer
True
question
Visual edits Select one: a. are objective in the sense that all editors will identify the same b. cannot be used to identify global errors, either by an individual or at the registry level c. manually compare the text with the coded data items to identify coding errors or other inconsistencies d. all of the above
answer
Visual edits Select one: a. are objective in the sense that all editors will identify the same b. cannot be used to identify global errors, either by an individual or at the registry level c. manually compare the text with the coded data items to identify coding errors or other inconsistencies Correct d. all of the above
question
The two methods of matching (linking patient data files) are: Select one: a. Hierarchical and Most Frequent b. Deterministic and Probabilistic c. Known and Unknown d. Highest Value and Time Submitted
answer
b. Deterministic and Probabilistic
question
The Self Instructional Manuals for Tumor Registrars series is published by: Select one: a. NCRA. b. SEER. c. NAACCR. d. CoC.
answer
b. SEER.
question
Which statement(s) regarding the advantages of having permanent cancer registry staff is (are) true? Mark all that apply! Select one or more: a. Permanent staff can work remotely. b. Traditionally, there are no housing costs. c. Staff members know the facility and the job expected of them. d. There is consistent staffing. e. None of the above
answer
a. Permanent staff can work remotely. b. Traditionally, there are no housing costs. c. Staff members know the facility and the job expected of them. d. There is consistent staffing.
question
Copies of patient information may be disposed of in any garbage can in the facility, or placed in the recycle bins. T/F
answer
False
question
Time-motion studies examine the time it takes to perform a job. T/F
answer
True
question
Record consolidation rules include: Select one: a. Hierarchy rules b. Most frequent c. Known over unknown d. All of the above
answer
d. All of the above
question
What type of network allows registry staff in different cities to share computer resources? Select one: a. Local Area Network b. Web Enabled Network c. Wide Area Network d. Virtual Network Environment e. Internet Accessible Network
answer
c. Wide Area Network
Connection With Others
Diagnostic Test Results
Electronic Medical Records
Foundations Of Professional Nursing
Implementing The Plan
Ch 22 Questions – Flashcards 47 terms

Mary Browning
47 terms
Preview
Ch 22 Questions – Flashcards
question
Chapter 22: Spiritual Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The student nurse asks why he needs to assess a patient's spirituality when he can call the chaplain. What response by the nurse is best? a. "This way you learn what is involved in a spiritual assessment." b. "Students need to perform all aspects of patient care." c. "Regulatory organizations list this as a required BSN competence." d. "All patients should have a spirituality assessment." ANS: C Although there is some truth to all options, several regulatory groups list conducting a spiritual assessment as a vital skill for nurses, including the American Association of Colleges of Nursing, the Joint Commission, and the American Nurses Association. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 414 OBJ: 22.1 TOP: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 2. The nurse is caring for four patients. Which one should the nurse assess for spirituality needs as a priority? a. New mother, older child at home b. Faces terminal diagnosis c. Needs to change medications d. Pleasant but quiet ANS: B There are many cues to alert the nurse that a patient might have unmet spiritual needs, including facing a terminal illness. The nurse should conduct spiritual assessments on all patients, but this one is the priority. DIF: Analyzing REF: p. 420 OBJ: 22.4 TOP: Assessment MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 3. A patient has the nursing diagnosis Spiritual Distress. What assessment by the patient best indicates that an important goal has been met? a. Observed praying quietly b. Indecisive about treatment c. Asks nurse if God exists d. Executes living will ANS: A Patients may have spiritual distress when facing situations that threaten their meaning and purpose in life, such as in the face of a terminal diagnosis. Patients often express anger, frustration, neediness, or crying. The patient who has worked through this situation and is able to pray has best shown goal attainment. Indecision and questioning do not indicate the resolution of this diagnosis. Executing a living will may be an indication of pragmatism. DIF: Evaluating REF: pp. 420-421 OBJ: 22.5 TOP: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 4. The nurse concerned about a patient's spiritual needs can best address this by which action? a. Leaving a note on the chart for other professional b. Calling the chaplain to come see the patient c. Collaborating during interdisciplinary rounds d. Informing the provider of the patient's needs ANS: C Spiritual care must be multidisciplinary in order to be most effective. The nurse best addresses patients' spiritual needs by discussing them during interdisciplinary rounds. DIF: Applying REF: p. 414 | pp. 420-422 OBJ: 22.6 TOP: Communication and Documentation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 5. A patient is concerned that she will not be able to maintain her dietary restrictions while in the hospital. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this patient? a. Spiritual distress b. Impaired religiosity c. Moral distress d. Decisional conflict ANS: B Impaired religiosity occurs when a patient is unable to maintain religious rituals and practices. The other diagnoses are not related. DIF: Applying REF: p. 421 OBJ: 22.5 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Needs NOT: Concepts: Culture 6. A patient is considering a life-saving procedure that is not accepted by his faith community. What nursing diagnosis is a priority as the nurse plans care? a. Spiritual distress b. Impaired religiosity c. Moral distress d. Decisional conflict ANS: C Moral distress can occur when there is a conflict between medical care and religious beliefs. This is the diagnosis the nurse should consider when planning care. The other diagnoses may exist as well, but they are not manifested by this conflict. DIF: Analyzing REF: p. 421 OBJ: 22.5 TOP: Planning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 7. A patient asks the nurse to pray with him. The nurse is an atheist and uncomfortable with this request. What action by the nurse is best? a. Deny the request because of atheistic beliefs. b. Offer to call the chaplain instead. c. Agree to sit with the patient while he prays. d. Ask the patient if he will meditate instead. ANS: C Although the nurse is uncomfortable with the request, the patient's needs (not the nurse's) come first. The nurse should attempt to honor the request while not imposing his/her ideas of religion and spirituality on the patient. The best option is to agree to sit with the patient while he prays himself. This is consistent with caring behaviors and fulfilling the patient's needs. Denying the request does nothing to address the patient's needs. The nurse can offer to call the chaplain in addition to sitting with the patient. Asking the patient to change his practices is unethical. DIF: Applying REF: pp. 422-423 OBJ: 22.7 TOP: Integrated Process: Caring MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 8. A nurse is concerned about not consistently meeting the spiritual needs of patients. What action by the nurse is best? a. Care for own spiritual needs b. Begin a meditation practice c. Consult the chaplain d. Read books on the subject ANS: A To avoid burnout and a decreased ability to attend to the spiritual needs of patients, nurses must take care of their own spiritual needs first. This may include meditation, consultations, and reading, but other activities can guide the nurse into a reflective practice that will allow better spiritual care. DIF: Applying REF: p. 423 OBJ: 22.3 TOP: Integrated Process: Caring MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 9. The student nurse asks why spirituality is important in health care. What response by the registered nurse is best? a. "All people have a spiritual aspect to their beings." b. "Spirituality affects behavior, which also affects health." c. "Knowledge of it is needed to understand a patient holistically." d. "People who are less spiritual have worse outcomes." ANS: B Spirituality affects behavior, which has a direct impact on health. Spirituality is a universal concept, but all people may not recognize it in themselves. Holistic knowledge is indeed based in part on spirituality, but that does not give the student information on a concrete link. Less spiritual people may or may not have worse outcomes. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 414 OBJ: 22.1 TOP: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 10. A patient who claims to be very involved in church is near death. What action by the nurse is best? a. Get permission to contact the religious leader. b. Allow the family to stay at the patient's bedside. c. Call the hospital chaplain to come to the bedside. d. Ask if the patient and family want to pray. ANS: A Organized religions use rituals to mark important life events such as birth, marriage, and death. This patient would most likely want end-of-life rituals as practiced in his/her church. The nurse's best action is to contact the religious leader (with permission) of that church or institution. Allowing the family to remain at the bedside is important but not the best option to care for the patient's spirituality needs. The hospital chaplain is a valuable resource, but the patient's own religious leader would be better. Praying with the family is always acceptable, but it is best to let the family take the lead in prayer. DIF: Applying REF: p. 415 | p. 420 OBJ: 22.2 TOP: Implementation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 11. A patient, who is an adherent Muslim, is in a burn unit with severe burns. The patient has high caloric requirements but is refusing to eat during Ramadan. What action by the nurse is best? a. Insert a feeding tube and provide enteral feedings. b. Ask the provider about Total Peripheral Nutrition. c. Call the patient's religious leader for advice. d. Tell the patient he has to eat to get better. ANS: C With permission, the nurse should consult with the patient's religious leader on this situation. There may be exceptions to the rule to fast during Ramadan for medical conditions. The other options ignore the patient's religious preferences, and both the tube feeding and parenteral nutrition have potential serious side effects. DIF: Applying REF: p. 418 | p. 420 | p. 422 OBJ: 22.2 TOP: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 12. A patient in the hospital is an adherent Muslim. Which of the five pillars of Islam can the nurse assist the patient in meeting? a. Praying five times a day b. Having privacy c. Personal cleanliness d. Giving alms e. Maintaining modesty ANS: A The five pillars of Islam are: believe in one God, pray five times a day facing Mecca, giving alms to the less fortunate, fasting during Ramadan, and making a pilgrimage to Mecca. The nurse is best able to help the patient maintain the practice of praying five times a day while hospitalized. DIF: Applying REF: p. 418 OBJ: 22.3 TOP: Integrated Process: Caring MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 13. A nurse works in a pediatric oncology unit and is feeling depressed and discouraged. What initial action by the nurse is best? a. Apply for a job transfer to another unit. b. Consult with the hospital chaplain. c. Make an appointment with Employee Assistance. d. Ask other nurses how they deal with the stress. ANS: B Hospital chaplains are great resources for nurses experiencing burnout, moral distress, or spiritual distress. The nurse can take all options, but a consultation with the chaplain is the best place to start to see if the issue can be resolved. The chaplain has a wider range of perceptions and tools than do the other staff nurses. DIF: Applying REF: pp. 422-423 OBJ: 22.6 TOP: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 14. A patient died suddenly in the emergency department. Which action by the nurse best provides the family connection with others? a. Offering the family written information on grief support groups. b. Asking the family if there is someone the nurse can call for them. c. Having the hospital social worker or chaplain sit with the family. d. Offering to stay with the family during this difficult time. ANS: B Promoting connectedness means recognizing that family and friends are providing at least some of the patient's spiritual care. The nurse best assists when offering to call someone for the patient or family. The other options may be appropriate but are not directly related to connectedness. DIF: Applying REF: p. 422 OBJ: 22.7 TOP: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity NOT: Concepts: Culture 15. The charge nurse overhears a new nurse telling a patient that he should no longer follow his vegetarian diet because his protein needs are so high and because "God made animals for us to eat." What action by the charge nurse is best? a. No action is necessary for the charge nurse to take. b. Reinforce the nurse's teaching on proper diet. c. Offer to call the dietitian to work with the patient. d. Privately speak to the nurse about this conversation. ANS: D The nurse should not share opinions or religious edicts with patients when those beliefs contradict the patient's. The charge nurse should counsel the new nurse about this practice. The patient may hold deep convictions about being a vegetarian and may feel disapproval from the nurse, which will impact the nurse-patient relationship. The other options are not appropriate, although the charge nurse could suggest the new nurse collaborate with the dietitian and patient to determine high-protein foods the patient finds acceptable.
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.11. You are caring for a 65-year-old man with severe heart disease who is awaiting a heart transplant. It is during the Christmas season and he must stay in the hospital until the surgery or his death. His wife and physician consistently reinforce the severity of the situation and that he must stay in the hospital for tests. You are working the p.m. shift and he breaks down crying saying he doesn't want this and just wants to go home. What do you say? a. "If you go home, you will die." b. "What can I do to make your hospital stay better?" c. "You don't have to do this. What do you want to do?" d. "Can I call the chaplain for you?"
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ANS: C The patient is in spiritual distress looking for meaning and purpose in the situation. The nurse is helping the patient search for meaning
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Yoost: Fundamentals of Nursing, 1st Edition Chapter 22: Spiritual Health Answer Key for Review Questions (Online-Only) MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is spirituality? Practicing religion Expressing meaningful aspects of self Yoga or other meditative practices Spending time with family ANS: B Spirituality is the expression of meaning and purpose in life. People have different methods of expressing this ... do not assume that any one method is universally helpful. LO: 22.1 DIF: Understanding MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health 2. What is transcendence? Out of body experience A meditative state A Higher Power Spiritual growth over time ANS: D Transcendence is moving beyond who you are toward who you will become. By definition, it is spiritual growth over space and time. LO: 22.1 DIF: Understanding MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health 3. If you have a patient of Indian heritage who is Hindu, what religious practices would affect nursing care? Patient will refuse pain medication because pain is due to bad karma Family may bring in hot or cold food and drink from home to help remove toxins Patient may have special head coverings that cannot be removed Religious leaders are usually involved in health care decision making ANS: B Hindus integrate both Western and Eastern medicine. They believe that disease is caused by toxins in the body and medicine helps remove toxins. Headdress and gurus are associated with Sikhism. LO: 22.2 DIF: Understanding MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health 4. If you have a Chinese patient, what is an appropriate question to determine religious practices? Are there any religious practices I need to know about to help care for you? What is your religion? Would you like to talk to a chaplain? Tell me about your family. ANS: A Chinese people have diverse religious practices. It is best to inquire what practices affect care. Do not assume a specific religion. LO: 22.2 DIF: Applying MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health 5. What spiritual practices would you incorporate in your care for an American Indian patient from a reservation? Storytelling Native American foods Organic-based medications Native American dance and music ANS: A Storytelling is central to the religion. LO: 22.2 DIF: Understanding MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health 6. You have a male patient who is a follower of Islam. How would this affect your care? Integrate prayer times around care. Have the wife present during bathing. Provide for a kosher diet. Maintain the headdress covering. ANS: A Muslims pray 5 times a day facing Mecca with cleansing preparation (providing a washcloth is appropriate). Modesty is important, which implies that it is best to have a male assistant complete the bath. Muslims do not follow kosher diets or use a headdress. LO: 22.2 DIF: Applying MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health 7. How do you best provide spiritual care to an infant? Meet basic feeding needs. Hold and rock the infant. Play with the infant using brightly colored soft objects. Set regular sleeping schedules. ANS: B Spiritual care for an infant is to promote love and compassion. LO: 22.3 DIF: Applying MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health 8. What is the best way to provide spiritual care to a 2-year-old patient? Read a childhood story about good vs evil. Play hide and go seek and let the child find you every time. Let the toddler play with pretend medical supplies. Talk to the mother about special religious diets. ANS: A Toddlers need concrete examples of good vs evil to better understand meaning. LO: 22.3 DIF: Applying MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health 9. You are caring for an 8-year-old who is receiving an intramuscular injection. The patient says, "You hurt me all the time. What did I do wrong?" What is your best response? "You didn't do anything wrong." "Why do you think you did anything wrong?" "Who told you that you did something wrong?" "It will only be a little bee-sting." ANS: B This question encourages the child to think about case and effect. . Spiritual care differs according to the patient's developmental age. For the school age child, spiritual growth happens as a result of finding meaning in social relationships and applying principles of ethical and moral reasoning. LO: 22.3 DIF: Applying MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health 10. You are caring for a 28-year-old married man diagnosed with leukemia. He is hospitalized on reverse isolation. It is his anniversary and his wife is planning to visit. What would be appropriate nursing care to promote spiritual health? Assist him in planning a celebration of his anniversary. Ensure he has adequate pain medication to endure the visit. Maintain strict reverse isolation to prevent infection. Congratulate the couple on their anniversary. ANS: A Celebrating their anniversary promotes hope, love, and compassion, while fostering spiritual connections between the husband and wife. LO: 22.1 DIF: Understanding MSC: NCLEX Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity: Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health .
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11. You are caring for a 65-year-old man with severe heart disease who is awaiting a heart transplant. It is during the Christmas season and he must stay in the hospital until the surgery or his death. His wife and physician consistently reinforce the severity of the situation and that he must stay in the hospital for tests. You are working the p.m. shift and he breaks down crying saying he doesn't want this and just wants to go home. What do you say? "If you go home, you will die." "What can I do to make your hospital stay better?" "You don't have to do this. What do you want to do?" "Can I call the chaplain for you?" ANS: C The patient is in spiritual distress looking for meaning and purpose in the situation. The nurse is helping the patient search for meaning
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1. The nurse is caring for a 16-year-old boy receiving chemotherapy for testicular cancer. He says that his parents are religious and left a cross next to his bed for "good luck." What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. "Would you like to talk with a chaplain?" b. "Sounds like you are not very religious." c. "How well do you get along with your parents?" d. "What helps you get through tough times?"
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Answer: d Asking an open-ended question is the best response that the nurse can make to this patient's comment. It will encourage the patient to share what he thinks would be most supportive at this time. Asking the patient if he would like to talk with a chaplain is incongruent with his comment about having a cross for good luck. Sharing that he does not sound religious is judgmental, and asking about his relationship with his parents is changing the subject.
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10. How do people who participate in organized religion differ from nonreligious people? a. Religious people are healthier than spiritual people. b. Religious people are more spiritual than nonreligious people. c. Religious people express their spirituality through faith traditions. d. Religious people have spiritual practices, whereas nonreligious people do not have spiritual practices.
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Answer: c Religious people express their beliefs through faith traditions. Research has not indicated that religious people are healthier or more spiritual than those who do not participate in organized religion. Nonreligious people may practice various spiritual disciplines.
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9. The nurse is caring for a Catholic patient who is going to surgery tomorrow. The patient states that she is afraid and asks the nurse to pray with her, although the nurse is not religious. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. "I am not confident praying, but I will think about you tomorrow." b. "I need to take care of other patients right now, but I will be back." c. "I am uncomfortable praying. May I call the chaplain for you?" d. "I don't do that. Nurses are not allowed to do that at our hospital."
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Answer: c Offering to call the chaplain because the nurse is uncomfortable praying is the best option. Avoiding the subject or focusing on the nurse's feelings or needs is not appropriate and will not provide for the patient's stated spiritual need.
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8. The nurse is caring for a 45-year-old woman who is a breast cancer survivor. What activity associated with her cancer experience will promote this patient's spiritual well-being? a. Attending church every week b. Ensuring she follows her medication regimen c. Genetic testing on family members d. Speaking about her cancer experience to increase breast cancer awareness
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Answer: d Speaking about her experience helps promote meaning and purpose in life. Church attendance does not guarantee time of spiritual reflection related to her breast cancer experience. Treatment and genetic testing assist in physical treatment and risk identification but do not necessarily relate to finding meaning and purpose.
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7. When caring for patients who are Jewish, how best can the nurse address their religious needs? a. Order a kosher diet. b. Allow time for prayer before each meal. c. Ask about religious holidays, particularly religious practices around the Sabbath. d. Ask about religious practices affecting care.
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Answer: d There are a variety of levels of observance within the Jewish community. It is best to ask patients about what practices will affect their care. Do not assume that all Jews are equally observant.
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6. What is the most important aspect of providing spiritual care in nursing practice? a. Call a chaplain. b. Complete the FICA spiritual assessment and refer as needed. c. Recognize situations and patient behaviors indicating a spiritual need. d. Spend some time in self-reflection.
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Answer: c Changes in spiritual needs happen in the moment, and it is critical for nurses to recognize when a spiritual need arises. The FICA tool is not sensitive to daily changes in spiritual need. Calling a chaplain may be an appropriate intervention when the need arises. Nurses should integrate self-reflection in their own spiritual practices to find meaning in their life experiences, but that is not the best answer to the question.
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5. Which statement by a patient best illustrates reflection on a spiritual need? a. "My husband told me what to do about this situation, and I'm sure he's right." b. "There is little I can do now to change my circumstances. I just need to adapt." c. "I need to think a little more about how I feel about undergoing this treatment." d. "Whatever the physician wants to do is fine. I don't have much of an option."
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Answer: c Reflection requires intentional thought about a situation to determine how it affects or is affected by the person's beliefs and values. Simply having someone tell the person what to do is not reflection, including adopting a fatalistic attitude or accepting the decision of a physician without inquiry.
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4. A nurse assigned to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) has spent most of a day working with a critically ill infant, with the mother standing by. The infant experiences a cardiac arrest and does not survive. The mother spends an hour crying and holding the baby, saying good-bye. Which spiritual care intervention(s) is/are most appropriate for the nurse to implement? (Select all that apply.) a. If desired, briefly hold the baby to say good-bye after the mother leaves. b. Follow procedures to prepare the body for transport to the morgue. c. Visit the mother the next day to see how she is doing. d. Call the family spiritual adviser or the chaplain. e. Ask the mother if you could call a family member or friend to be with her.
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Answers: a, d, e It is important for nurses to take time to say "good-bye" to patients with whom they have developed a relationship. In this case, it would be appropriate for the nurse to hold the infant briefly, if desired, after the family has left before preparing the body for the morgue. With consent, the mother needs to be surrounded by appropriate persons to provide spiritual support, including a chaplain, family members, and friends. Although it is critical that the nurse follow procedures in preparing bodies for the morgue, it is not considered spiritual care. Visiting the mother after her loss could be viewed as a violation of professional boundaries, especially for a nurse who worked with the family for a day only.
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3. The nurse has been caring for a patient who just died. The patient's daughter is crying uncontrollably, saying, "She was my best friend. I thought she would make it! I don't know what I am going to do." What is the nurse's best response? a. Express sympathy, and ask if she would like to talk with a chaplain. b. Give the daughter time to cry in her mother's room alone. c. Ask the daughter if her father is still living. d. Inquire if the daughter would like to pray.
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Answer: a At crisis times, spiritual advisors or chaplains are the best resource with the expertise to address family members' needs. Leaving the daughter alone or inquiring about her father would not provide the emotional support needed. The nurse should avoid making suggestions to the daughter but instead should seek to identify needs from the daughter's cues.
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2. A Buddhist patient has end-stage pancreatic cancer. In what spiritual practice would this patient most likely engage? a. Reading passages in the Vedas b. Visiting with the patient's guru c. Practicing tai chi d. Meditating on the meaning of life
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Answer: d Buddhists believe in meditation. Vedas is associated with the Hindu faith, a guru is associated with Sikhism, and tai chi is an exercise, not appropriate at end of life.
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8. The nurse who incorporates the HOPE framework assesses a Native-American patient for which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Desire for shaman to be present b. Personal use of herbs and prayers c. Desire to create a living will d. Power of storytelling for healing e. Involvement in church activities
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ANS: A, B, D Native Americans often use shamans; prayers, songs, and dances; storytelling; and herbs in health care. The HOPE framework assesses sources of hope, meaning comfort, strength, peace, love, and connection; organized religion; personal spirituality and practice; and effects on medical care and end of life issues. The nurse who knows about both topics will assess this patient for the desire for a shaman to be present, the personal use of herbs and prayers, and storytelling. A living will is more accurately assessed with the SPIRIT framework. Involvement in church activities can be best assessed using either the SPIRIT or FICA framework.
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7. When does the nurse assess patients' spirituality? (Select all that apply.) a. Upon admission b. New diagnosis c. Life-changing diagnosis d. When the chaplain makes rounds e. When facing treatment decisions
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ANS: A, B, C, E There are many times at which a spiritual assessment is necessary. All patients should have their spirituality assessed upon admission at a minimum. Other assessments should be conducted at times when the patient is at risk for spiritual distress. Assessment should be done based on patient need, not when the chaplain is available.
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6. The nurse assessing a patient using the SPIRIT framework would ask which questions? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do you follow a particular religion?" b. "How involved in your church are you?" c. "Are there any practices I can help you with?" d. "How will your religion affect your care?" e. "What gives you hope in bad situations?"
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ANS: A, B, C, D SPIRIT stands for Spiritual belief system, Personal spirituality, Integration and Involvement in a spiritual community, Ritualized practices and restrictions, Implications for medical care, and Terminal events planning. Hope is a good thing to assess but is more related to the HOPE framework.
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5. The student using the FICA Spiritual Health Assessment will consider which factors? (Select all that apply.) a. Faith and belief b. Focused practices c. Importance of faith d. Faith community involvement e. Address spirituality in care
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ANS: A, C, D, E FICA stands for Faith and belief, Importance of faith, faith Community involvement, and Address spirituality in care.
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4. Which actions by a nurse constitute spiritual care? (Select all that apply.) a. Baptizing a critically ill child per the parent's request. b. Leaving the room, giving the patient and family privacy for prayer. c. Considering developmental stage when planning care. d. Notifying the hospital chaplain of a patient's request. e. Praying with patients and families when requested.
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ANS: A, C, D, E Many activities fall into the realm of spiritual nursing care, including baptizing an infant in an emergency, notifying the chaplain or other religious leader of patient requests for service, and praying with the patient and family. The nurse always considers the patient's developmental level when planning or providing any type of care. The patient and/or family may or may not want privacy for prayer; the nurse should assess the situation and not just leave.
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3. The nurse who is aware of spirituality practices of major religions knows that which religions view health and illness as a process of balance or imbalance? (Select all that apply.) a. Catholicism b. Native American c. Hinduism d. Greek Orthodox e. Buddhism
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ANS: B, C, E Native American, Hindu, and Buddhist practitioners believe that health and illness are a matter of balance or imbalance in the body.
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2. The student nurse learns that spirituality consists of practices that lead to connection to which items? (Select all that apply.) a. Other people b. Nature c. Religious institutions d. Oneself e. Higher power
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ANS: A, D, E Spiritual practices generally promote three categories of activity: connection with oneself, with others, and with a higher power.
question
1. The nursing student learns which facts about religion and spirituality? (Select all that apply.) a. Spirituality focuses on the meaning of life to people. b. Religion and spirituality are mutually exclusive. c. Religion implies an organized way of worship. d. Religion provides the structure by which to understand spirituality. e. Spirituality is an individual practice that does not include others.
answer
ANS: A, C, D Spirituality focuses on the meanings of life, death, and existence. Religion is an organized and structured method of practicing or expressing one's spirituality, so they are interconnected and not mutually exclusive. Religion provides the structure for expressing spirituality. Spirituality can be expressed through relationships with others.
question
17. A patient is scheduled to have an MRI and has a metal religious icon pinned to his gown, which can't go in the scanner. What action by the nurse is best? a. Take the icon off the patient's gown until she returns. b. Give the icon to the patient's family for safekeeping. c. Pin the icon to the patient's pillow so it can go to radiology. d. Explain the restriction and ask the patient's preference.
answer
ANS: D The religious icon has profound significance for the patient and should not be removed by the nurse. Since the icon cannot go into the MRI scanner itself, the nurse should explain the situation to the patient and get the patient's opinion of various options. All other options are possibilities, but it should be the patient's determination.
question
16. A home health care nurse has been working with a patient who has the nursing diagnosis Spiritual Distress. After a few weeks of implementing the care plan, what method is best for the nurse to determine if goals have been met? a. Ask the patient to what extent he/she feels goals have been met. b. Ask the patient to rate the distress on a scale of 1-10. c. Assess for objective data to support goal attainment. d. Determine if the patient thinks the interventions are helpful.
answer
ANS: A For a diagnosis with a large subjective component, getting the patient's feedback on goal attainment is best. There may be no objective data the nurse can use to rate goal attainment. Using a scale can be a part of the evaluation, but the patient's determination is best.
question
15. The charge nurse overhears a new nurse telling a patient that he should no longer follow his vegetarian diet because his protein needs are so high and because "God made animals for us to eat." What action by the charge nurse is best? a. No action is necessary for the charge nurse to take. b.Reinforce the nurse's teaching on proper diet. c.Offer to call the dietitian to work with the patient. d.Privately speak to the nurse about this conversation.
answer
ANS: D The nurse should not share opinions or religious edicts with patients when those beliefs contradict the patient's. The charge nurse should counsel the new nurse about this practice. The patient may hold deep convictions about being a vegetarian and may feel disapproval from the nurse, which will impact the nurse-patient relationship. The other options are not appropriate, although the charge nurse could suggest the new nurse collaborate with the dietitian and patient to determine high-protein foods the patient finds acceptable.
question
14. A patient died suddenly in the emergency department. Which action by the nurse best provides the family connection with others? a.Offering the family written information on grief support groups. b.Asking the family if there is someone the nurse can call for them. c.Having the hospital social worker or chaplain sit with the family. d.Offering to stay with the family during this difficult time.
answer
ANS: B Promoting connectedness means recognizing that family and friends are providing at least some of the patient's spiritual care. The nurse best assists when offering to call someone for the patient or family. The other options may be appropriate but are not directly related to connectedness.
question
13. A nurse works in a pediatric oncology unit and is feeling depressed and discouraged. What initial action by the nurse is best? a.Apply for a job transfer to another unit. b.Consult with the hospital chaplain. c.Make an appointment with Employee Assistance. d.Ask other nurses how they deal with the stress.
answer
ANS: B Hospital chaplains are great resources for nurses experiencing burnout, moral distress, or spiritual distress. The nurse can take all options, but a consultation with the chaplain is the best place to start to see if the issue can be resolved. The chaplain has a wider range of perceptions and tools than do the other staff nurses.
question
12. A patient in the hospital is an adherent Muslim. Which of the five pillars of Islam can the nurse assist the patient in meeting? a.Praying five times a day b.Having privacy c.Personal cleanliness d.Giving alms e.Maintaining modesty
answer
ANS: A The five pillars of Islam are: believe in one God, pray five times a day facing Mecca, giving alms to the less fortunate, fasting during Ramadan, and making a pilgrimage to Mecca. The nurse is best able to help the patient maintain the practice of praying five times a day while hospitalized.
question
11. A patient, who is an adherent Muslim, is in a burn unit with severe burns. The patient has high caloric requirements but is refusing to eat during Ramadan. What action by the nurse is best? a.Insert a feeding tube and provide enteral feedings. b.Ask the provider about Total Peripheral Nutrition. c.Call the patient's religious leader for advice. d.Tell the patient he has to eat to get better.
answer
ANS: C With permission, the nurse should consult with the patient's religious leader on this situation. There may be exceptions to the rule to fast during Ramadan for medical conditions. The other options ignore the patient's religious preferences, and both the tube feeding and parenteral nutrition have potential serious side effects.
question
10. A patient who claims to be very involved in church is near death. What action by the nurse is best? a.Get permission to contact the religious leader. b.Allow the family to stay at the patient's bedside. c.Call the hospital chaplain to come to the bedside. d.Ask if the patient and family want to pray.
answer
ANS: A Organized religions use rituals to mark important life events such as birth, marriage, and death. This patient would most likely want end-of-life rituals as practiced in his/her church. The nurse's best action is to contact the religious leader (with permission) of that church or institution. Allowing the family to remain at the bedside is important but not the best option to care for the patient's spirituality needs. The hospital chaplain is a valuable resource, but the patient's own religious leader would be better. Praying with the family is always acceptable, but it is best to let the family take the lead in prayer.
question
9. The student nurse asks why spirituality is important in health care. What response by the registered nurse is best? a."All people have a spiritual aspect to their beings." b."Spirituality affects behavior, which also affects health." c."Knowledge of it is needed to understand a patient holistically." d."People who are less spiritual have worse outcomes."
answer
ANS: B Spirituality affects behavior, which has a direct impact on health. Spirituality is a universal concept, but all people may not recognize it in themselves. Holistic knowledge is indeed based in part on spirituality, but that does not give the student information on a concrete link. Less spiritual people may or may not have worse outcomes.
question
8. A nurse is concerned about not consistently meeting the spiritual needs of patients. What action by the nurse is best? a.Care for own spiritual needs b.Begin a meditation practice c.Consult the chaplain d.Read books on the subject
answer
ANS: A To avoid burnout and a decreased ability to attend to the spiritual needs of patients, nurses must take care of their own spiritual needs first. This may include meditation, consultations, and reading, but other activities can guide the nurse into a reflective practice that will allow better spiritual care.
question
7. A patient asks the nurse to pray with him. The nurse is an atheist and uncomfortable with this request. What action by the nurse is best? a.Deny the request because of atheistic beliefs. b.Offer to call the chaplain instead. c.Agree to sit with the patient while he prays. d.Ask the patient if he will meditate instead. .
answer
ANS: C Although the nurse is uncomfortable with the request, the patient's needs (not the nurse's) come first. The nurse should attempt to honor the request while not imposing his/her ideas of religion and spirituality on the patient. The best option is to agree to sit with the patient while he prays himself. This is consistent with caring behaviors and fulfilling the patient's needs. Denying the request does nothing to address the patient's needs. The nurse can offer to call the chaplain in addition to sitting with the patient. Asking the patient to change his practices is unethical
question
6. A patient is considering a life-saving procedure that is not accepted by his faith community. What nursing diagnosis is a priority as the nurse plans care? a.Spiritual distress b.Impaired religiosity c.Moral distress d.Decisional conflict
answer
ANS: C Moral distress can occur when there is a conflict between medical care and religious beliefs. This is the diagnosis the nurse should consider when planning care. The other diagnoses may exist as well, but they are not manifested by this conflict.
question
5. A patient is concerned that she will not be able to maintain her dietary restrictions while in the hospital. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this patient? a.Spiritual distress b.Impaired religiosity c.Moral distress d.Decisional conflict
answer
ANS: B Impaired religiosity occurs when a patient is unable to maintain religious rituals and practices. The other diagnoses are not related.
question
4. The nurse concerned about a patient's spiritual needs can best address this by which action? a. Leaving a note on the chart for other professional b. Calling the chaplain to come see the patient c. Collaborating during interdisciplinary rounds d. Informing the provider of the patient's needs
answer
ANS: C Spiritual care must be multidisciplinary in order to be most effective. The nurse best addresses patients' spiritual needs by discussing them during interdisciplinary rounds.
question
3. A patient has the nursing diagnosis Spiritual Distress. What assessment by the patient best indicates that an important goal has been met? a.Observed praying quietly b.Indecisive about treatment c.Asks nurse if God exists d.Executes living will
answer
ANS: A Patients may have spiritual distress when facing situations that threaten their meaning and purpose in life, such as in the face of a terminal diagnosis. Patients often express anger, frustration, neediness, or crying. The patient who has worked through this situation and is able to pray has best shown goal attainment. Indecision and questioning do not indicate the resolution of this diagnosis. Executing a living will may be an indication of pragmatism.
question
2. The nurse is caring for four patients. Which one should the nurse assess for spirituality needs as a priority? a.New mother, older child at home b.Faces terminal diagnosis c.Needs to change medications d.Pleasant but quiet
answer
ANS: B There are many cues to alert the nurse that a patient might have unmet spiritual needs, including facing a terminal illness. The nurse should conduct spiritual assessments on all patients, but this one is the priority.
question
10. You are caring for a 28-year-old married man diagnosed with leukemia. He is hospitalized on reverse isolation. It is his anniversary and his wife is planning to visit. What would be appropriate nursing care to promote spiritual health? a. Assist him in planning a celebration of his anniversary. b. Ensure he has adequate pain medication to endure the visit. c. Maintain strict reverse isolation to prevent infection. d. Congratulate the couple on their anniversary.
answer
ANS: A Celebrating their anniversary promotes hope, love, and compassion, while fostering spiritual connections between the husband and wife.
question
9. You are caring for an 8-year-old who is receiving an intramuscular injection. The patient says, "You hurt me all the time. What did I do wrong?" What is your best response? a. "You didn't do anything wrong." b. "Why do you think you did anything wrong?" c. "Who told you that you did something wrong?" d. "It will only be a little bee-sting."
answer
ANS: B This question encourages the child to think about case and effect. . Spiritual care differs according to the patient's developmental age. For the school age child, spiritual growth happens as a result of finding meaning in social relationships and applying principles of ethical and moral reasoning.
question
8. What is the best way to provide spiritual care to a 2-year-old patient? a. Read a childhood story about good vs evil. b. Play hide and go seek and let the child find you every time. c. Let the toddler play with pretend medical supplies. d. Talk to the mother about special religious diets.
answer
ANS: A Toddlers need concrete examples of good vs evil to better understand meaning.
question
7. How do you best provide spiritual care to an infant? a. Meet basic feeding needs. b. Hold and rock the infant. c. Play with the infant using brightly colored soft objects. d. Set regular sleeping schedules.
answer
ANS: B Spiritual care for an infant is to promote love and compassion.
question
6. You have a male patient who is a follower of Islam. How would this affect your care? a. Integrate prayer times around care. b. Have the wife present during bathing. c. Provide for a kosher diet. d. Maintain the headdress covering.
answer
ANS: A Muslims pray 5 times a day facing Mecca with cleansing preparation (providing a washcloth is appropriate). Modesty is important, which implies that it is best to have a male assistant complete the bath. Muslims do not follow kosher diets or use a headdress.
question
5. What spiritual practices would you incorporate in your care for an American Indian patient from a reservation? a. Storytelling b. Native American foods c. Organic-based medications d. Native American dance and music
answer
ANS: A Storytelling is central to the religion.
question
4. If you have a Chinese patient, what is an appropriate question to determine religious practices? a. Are there any religious practices I need to know about to help care for you? b. hat is your religion? c. Would you like to talk to a chaplain? d. Tell me about your family.
answer
ANS: A Chinese people have diverse religious practices. It is best to inquire what practices affect care. Do not assume a specific religion.
question
3. If you have a patient of Indian heritage who is Hindu, what religious practices would affect nursing care? a. Patient will refuse pain medication because pain is due to bad karma b. Family may bring in hot or cold food and drink from home to help remove toxins c. Patient may have special head coverings that cannot be removed d. Religious leaders are usually involved in health care decision making
answer
ANS: B Hindus integrate both Western and Eastern medicine. They believe that disease is caused by toxins in the body and medicine helps remove toxins. Headdress and gurus are associated with Sikhism.
question
2. What is transcendence? a. Out of body experience b. A meditative state c. A Higher Power d. Spiritual growth over time
answer
ANS: D Transcendence is moving beyond who you are toward who you will become. By definition, it is spiritual growth over space and time.
Computer Based Information Systems
Electronic Medical Records
Health Computing
Hub And Spoke
Software As A Service
Telehealth – Flashcards 69 terms

Ruth Jones
69 terms
Preview
Telehealth – Flashcards
question
What does telehealth have to do with HIT and informatics?
answer
Focus on support systems: Electronic records E-prescrbing Management information systems Electronic payments
question
What is telemedicine focused on?
answer
Patient care: telehealth, mobile health, remote monitoring, outsourced specialty services
question
What does tele mean?
answer
operating at a distance
question
What is telehealth?
answer
Use of electronic information and telecommunications technologies to support long-distance clinical health care, patient and professional health-related education, public health and health administration
question
How are telehealth health services delivered?
answer
By telecommunications-ready tools, such as the internet, telephone, videoconferencing, streaming video and wireless communication
question
What does telehealth allow?
answer
Us to improve care delivery services even more of the population
question
What are worldwide drivers for telemedicine?
answer
Accelerating demands and costs, shortages of health professionals, and global public health concerns, demographics, nursing/health care worker shortages, chronic conditions, the new, educated consumers, excessive costs of health care services that are increasing in need and kind
question
What should telehealth technology be included in?
answer
To fill the gap resulting from an overabundance of patients and a scarcity of health care providers
question
What are primary chronic conditions used in telehealth?
answer
Cardiac/COPD/mental health/diabetes
question
What are Hub benefits of telehealth?
answer
Transfer of appropriate patients arriving in better conditions, increased reimbursement for downstream treatment, reduced transfers of inappropriate patients, increased relationships with community hospitals in surrounding areas, service to network community
question
What are spoke benefits of telehealth?
answer
Increased admissions, reimbursement, achieve primary stroke center status, on demand access to specialists, enhanced reputation, service to community
question
What are telemedicine service contracts?
answer
Prisons, oil rigs, ships, international
question
What are telemedicine outsourced services?
answer
Teleradiology, neurology, mental health
question
What is a broader definition of telehealth?
answer
Does not always involve clinical services; videoconferencing, transmission of still images, remote monitoring of vital signs, continuing education, nursing call centers
question
What are transmission formats?
answer
Store and forward Real time Remote monitoring Telephony
question
What is store and forward?
answer
Digital information is stored on client computer or device; then, at a convenient time, the data are transmitted securely to a specialist or clinician at another location for interpretation
question
What is real time?
answer
Real time or live interactions
question
What is remote monitoring?
answer
Devices are used to capture and transmit biometric data
question
What is telephony?
answer
Monitoring via telephone
question
What are advanced technologies?
answer
Robotics, remote surgery, live monitoring via cell phones
question
What are examples of real-time clinical telehealth?
answer
Telehealth mental Telerehabilitation Telehomecare Teleconsultations Telehospice/telepalliative care
question
What is telenursing?
answer
Regers to the use of telecommunications and information technology for providing nursing services in health care to enhance care whenever a physical distance exists between patient and nurse, or between any number of nurses
question
What is the most developing area of telenursing today?
answer
Home telehealthcare. More than 90% of seniors want to remain independent at home and age in place
question
What can home care telenursing involve?
answer
Other activities such as providing: customized patient education in dietary or exercise needs, nursing teleconsultations, review of medical tests and exams, and assistance to primary care providers in the implementation of medical treatment protocols.
question
What are telehealth patient populations?
answer
Homehound, limited access to transportation, lack of primary care and emergency resources in rural or remote populations.
question
What is acute care?
answer
Strategy to reduce hospital length of stay.
question
What populations does telehealth manage?
answer
Major disaster, large scale nuclear/bio-chemical attack or in the case of an outbreak of highly infectious disease
question
What do chronic disease patients have?
answer
Significant risk of having an acute episode when subtle but significant changes in their medical condition occur.
question
What can a kiosk be used for in assisted living facilities or subacute care centers?
answer
To obtain vital signs for large groups of people
question
What then can happen to the vital sign reports?
answer
Then be forwarded on a regularly established schedule to physicians and other involved in the patient's care
question
What is monitoring workers and offter wellness program used for?
answer
Reduce absenteeism and increase productivity Lower healthcare costs and associated insurance premiums Create financial incentives for achieving healthcare objectives such as appropriate weight, reduced blood pressure, and levels of exercise
question
What are tools for home telehealth?
answer
Central station/web server Peripheral biometric devices, vital signs, blood glucose meters. Video cameras, videophones Personal emergency response systems (PERS)
question
What is the most familiar household communication tool used in telehealthcare?
answer
Telephones
question
What telehealth tool can be in home?
answer
Portable sensor and activity monitoring systems can track activities of daily living
question
What are medication management devices?
answer
32 Million people are taking 3 or more medications daily, with even more medications typically being taken by those 65 years of age or older
question
What does home telehealth software allow?
answer
Creation of a digital health record.
question
What does a DHR do?
answer
Information to be recorded over time Trend information can also be developed for groups of patients or populations, allowing for population based analyses of interventions Set an acceptable range of values for an individual patient when he or she is enrolled in the monitoring program
question
What does advanced telemonitoring software have?
answer
Sophisticated electronic notification protocols
question
What are examples of sophisticated electronic protocols?
answer
Readings for multiple pieces of equipment on a sign patient to calculate risk of acute episode. Protocols can be developed related to both routine and alert information organizing communications with physicians, nurses and caregivers
question
How do home telehealth programs differ?
answer
Depending on the type of technology used and the focus of the telehealth programs
question
What must be obtained?
answer
Informed written consent from the client or designee before the beginning use of the telehealth consultations.
question
What are legal and ethical aspects of telehealth?
answer
Nurses must be licensed to practice in all of the states in which they provide telehealth services. Scope of practice and accountability for practice must be defined. Nurses must be vigilant about keeping extensive documentation of their visits on and off site.
question
What must information ensure?
answer
A high level of data security
question
What should patients and family have?
answer
The opportunity to revise consent after they fully understand the intrusiveness of home monitoring.
question
What must all involved parties, including the technical staff assistants have?
answer
Appropriate training in privacy and confidentiality issues.
question
What are some considerations for patients?
answer
Elders may have sensory, cognitive, and motor disabilities. Usability testing need to be sure system works for patient.
question
What are ethical concerns?
answer
How provider or patient-centric is the technology? Does the shift to remote services promote rationality and efficiency at the expenses of values traditionally at the heart of caregiving? How does the design affect home life and family dynamics? To what extend should technology usage involve attempts to manipulate users into different behaviors?
question
What are other ethical concerns?
answer
How might the replacement of human contact by new technologies be ameilorated? To what extend is the deployment of technology an end in itself, aimed not toward the improvement of health or well-being, but to create market needs? How do we identify the boundaries between genuine solutions and futility in light of technologies that may shift them?
question
What does knowledge acquisition involve?
answer
The nurse's receiving the information from the teleheatlh devices via a variety communication modes
question
What is knowledge processing?
answer
Understanding a set of information and ways it can be useful to a specific task.
question
What happens after processing information?
answer
The nurse is able to target the appropriate next steps involving knowledge generation and knowledge dissemination.
question
What does the nurse consider?
answer
All of the data as it applies to this patient, and decides which is the best course of action to be taken and acts on the data
question
What are social and cultural structures affecting telehealth?
answer
Technical Religious/Philosophical Economic Educational Kinship/social Cultural values/Beliefs Political/legal factors
question
What is the challenge for consumers and health care professionals with internet information?
answer
The proliferation of information on the internet and the need to learn how to recognize when information is accurate and useful for the situation at hand.
question
What is consumer empowerment?
answer
Trend of people interested in taking control of their health, not satisfied being dependent on a health care provider to supply them with information.
question
What is the digital divide?
answer
The gap between those who have and those who do not have access to online information.
question
What is the grey gap?
answer
A term used to reflect the age of disparities in computer connectivity; there are fewer persons over age 65 who use computer technology than those in younger age groups.
question
What is health literacy?
answer
The degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions
question
What is the eHealth Initiative (eHI)
answer
Was developed to address the growing need for managing health information and to promote technology as a means of improving health information exchange, health literacy and health care delivery
question
What must web sites of organizations be and do?
answer
Most offer physician search capabilities, enewsletters, and cell-center tie-ins. Must be a sincere commitment to keeping information current and easily accessible. Web designers must pay particular attention to the aesthetics, the ease of use, and the literacy of those in the intended audience
question
What does promoting health literacy in school aged children present?
answer
Special challenges to health educations/
question
What do e-health programs need to be?
answer
Developed specifically to appeal to the generational (highly connected and computer literate) and cultural needs of this group.
question
What is internet a source of?
answer
Health information for patient education and health literacy.
question
What does the internet provide?
answer
Instant information about health maladies.
question
What does the Health on the Net (HON) Foundation survey describe?
answer
Certifications and accreditation symbols that identify trusted health sites.
question
What were identified as two of the most common symbols that power users look for?
answer
HONcode and Trust-e.
question
What does HRSA work to do?
answer
Increase and improve the use of telehealth to meet the needs of underserved.
question
How does HRSA increase the use of telehealth?
answer
Fostering partnerships within HRSA, and with other Federal agencies, states and private sector. Administering telehealth grant programs. Providing technical assistance. Evaluating the use of telehealth technologies. Developing telehealth policy initiatives to improve access to quality health services. Promoting knowledge exchange about "best teleheatlh practices"
question
What are adoption issues?
answer
1. Historic resistance to change 2. Lack of consistent adoption and integration pathways 3. Changing service delivery models and payment coverage.
Cognitive
Computer Science
Direct Patient Care
Educational Technology
Electronic Medical Records
Health Computing
Implementation And Evaluation
Nursing
Patient Centered Care
Storing And Retrieving
Teamwork And Collaboration
UCC2 Advanced Information Management & The Application of Technology – Flashcards 76 terms

Matthew Carle
76 terms
Preview
UCC2 Advanced Information Management & The Application of Technology – Flashcards
question
Nursing Informatics
answer
The combination of Nursing Science, Information Science and Computer Science
question
Information
answer
Data that can be processed using knowledge.
question
Information Must Be:
answer
Accessible, Accurate, Timely, Complete, Cost Effective, Flexible, Reliable, Relevant, Simple, Verifiable and Secure
question
Disseminate
answer
Sharing knowledge with others
question
Data
answer
Raw facts that lacks meaning.
question
Knowledge Acquistion
answer
The Act of Acquiring knowledge
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Empiricism
answer
Based on knowledge being derived from reason
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Rationalism
answer
An ethical position that contends that knowledge is derived from deductive reasoning and not from the senses
question
Core Business Systems
answer
Enhances administrative task within healthcare.
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Core Business Systems
answer
Support the management of healthcare within an organization. Provides framework for reimbursement, support of best practices, Quality control and resource allocation
question
4 Core Business Systems
answer
1. Admission, Discharge, Transfer 2.Financial 3. Acuity 4. Scheduling System
question
Informatics Nurse Specialist
answer
An RN with formal, graduate education in the field of informatics or a related field and is considered a specialist in the field of nursing informatics.
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Informatics Innovator
answer
Process of making enhancements or improvements and creative, novel and inventive solutions in the informatics specialty.
question
Informatics Nurse
answer
A nurse with specialized skills, knowledge and competencies in informatics. An RN with an interest or experience working in an informatics field. A generalist in the field of informatics in nursing.
question
Nursing Informatics
answer
Conceptual framework underpinning the science and practice of nursing with the concepts of data, info, and knowledge wisdon
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Ontological Approach
answer
Theory that considers ontology development (domain analysis) and its mapping to object models (specification of infrastructure). Based on enumerating all concepts used in a domain and in providing their formal definitions according to suitable formalism (usually logic based)
question
Archetype
answer
Broad or general, idealized model of an object or concept from which similar instances are derived, copied, patterned, or emulated. Original model after which other similar things are patterned. First form from which varieties arise or imitations are made.
question
Electronic Health Record
answer
Improves Care Control Cost Improve Delivery No need report
question
T.E.L.O.S
answer
Technological Economic Legal Operational Schedule Feasibility
question
Interoperability
answer
Ability of various systems and organizations to work together to exchange information
question
CPOE
answer
Eliminating medical errors due to writing
question
Evidence Based Nursing
answer
Nursing process in which nurses make clinical decisions using: 1. Best available research evidence 2. Clinical Expertise 3. Patient preference
question
Core Public Health Function
answer
Assessing and monitoring the community
question
Knowledge
answer
is the product of using and working with data and information
question
Benefits of EHR
answer
* Increase delivery of guideline based care * Surveillance & Monitor Disease * Decrease Medication Errors * Determine who qualifies for research
question
To be a Certified EHR, it must contain
answer
*Drug Interactions *Drug Formula * Up to date problem list *active medication list *allergy list * vital signs * BMI *smoking status *growth chart
question
Intrusion detection device
answer
Hardware and software that allow an organization to monitor who is using the network and what files that user has accessed
question
A patient's blood pressure is an example of
answer
Data
question
Learning how to apply computer science to nursing science is
answer
Information
question
Example of Nursing Imformatics
answer
"Patient's BP dropped, decrease cardiac drip" this is using the data of the bp and the knowledge that the medication is causing the patient's bp to drop to rapidly
question
3 Sciences of Nursing Informatics
answer
NIC->Nursing,Information, Computer Science
question
Examples of Knowledge Acquistion
answer
A new nurse watches a seasoned nurse do a procedure first, then the new nurse tries it. Acquisition is the learning or developing of a skill, habit or quality
question
Feed Back
answer
Is the response to knowledge to ensure that the knowledge being generated, disseminated, acquired and processed is ACCURATE
question
Knowledge Processing
answer
The ability to gain knowledge by thinking about the info that is learned and then understanding fully how to use and apply that info for good use
question
Knowledge Gereration
answer
Is the origination of knowledge that is to be shared and eventually acquired
question
5 Specific Ways Knowledge is Developed
answer
Acquisition Dissemination Generation Processing Feedback
question
Epistemology
answer
Is the study of the nature and origin of knowledge. What is means to really KNOW
question
Ubiquity
answer
Healthcare delivery, information and knowledge available everywhere and anywhere
question
Feasibility Study
answer
Examines various points of the implementation project in order to decide whether the organization can afford to implement the program and do so in a timely way.
question
Waterfall Development Model
answer
The development and implementation of info systems use various approaches. Each phase is rolled out individually.
question
Feasibility Indicators
answer
TELOS= Technologies Economic Legal Operational Schedule Feasibility
question
5 Steps of Implementing a new software program
answer
Analysis Design Implementation Evaluation Maintenance
question
Proxy Server
answer
Hardware security tool that prevents internet access
question
Patient Care Support System
answer
Provides info to RN's and MD's about *clinical documentation *prescriptions *labs *radiology reports
question
Benefits of Oder Entry Systems
answer
Decrease errors from poor penmanship Decrease errors from interpreting #'s Information is sent directly to Pharmacy or to the patient
question
Sharing information between systems
answer
PACS, Pharmacy, Meditech, different systems use different software programs. It is essential for the systems to be able to talk with each other.
question
Static Approach
answer
Educating with brochures, pamphlets, flyers, books and magazines
question
Knowledge Age
answer
People want to know Increase in information that feeds individuals Immediate results and unlimited access to services
question
Clinical information system
answer
Used for; drawing data, trends, statistics and reports used fro clinical or admin decision making, audits and process improvment
question
Human Computer Interaction
answer
User must be early & continuous during interface & design Design should be iterative, allowing for evaluation & correction
question
HIMSS
answer
Healthcare Information Management Systems Soceity
question
Healthcare Information & Management Systems Soceity
answer
Better health through information technology, globally lead endeavors optimizing health engagements & care outcomes through Information technology
question
Information Technology Revolution
answer
Information cheap More efficient & effective Good Tools Good Resources
question
Risk Assessment
answer
Identify hazard Exposure time Dose of exposure Risk Characterization;; ?Was it a high or low risk?
question
Examples of Core Public Health Function
answer
Examine: Demographics Socioeconomic Disease Prevalence Disease Incidence
question
Websites you can refer to
answer
US Department of Health & Human Services American Nurses Association *always have author and pub date
question
Interactive Approach
answer
Using Multimedia for Educating *websites*power points*games*sound clips
question
Information Technology
answer
Use of hardware, software, services & supporting infrastructure to manage & deliver information using voice, data & video or the use of technologies from computing, electronics & telecommunications to process & distribute info in digital or other. Anything related to computing technology such as networking, hardware, software, the internet or the people who work with these technologies
question
Expert System
answer
A type of decision support system that implements the knowledge of one or more human experts.
question
Decision Support System
answer
Computer applications designed to facilitate human decision making processes. Usually DSS's are rule-based, using a specified knowledge base and a set of rules to analyze data and information and provide recommendations typically through the use of knowledge base and rules to make recommendations to users.
question
Benefits of using Clinical Information Systems
answer
Decrease Free text Make reports from codes Aggregate data Performance Improvement Graph Vitals Helps clinical analytics Helps Guidelines or best pratices
question
Clinical Information System
answer
Technology based system applied at the point of care & designed to support the acquisition & processing of information capabilities.
question
Heuristic Evaluation
answer
"discount usability eval" . Used to detect problems early in the design so it is cheaper and easier to fix
question
HONcode & Trust-e
answer
Sites have been reviewed & are trustworthy
question
Collaboration Groups
answer
Information technology Clinical Specialty Areas Support Services Software Vendors
question
Stakeholders
answer
They are very critical to success Most responsibility for completing Greatest Influence Overall design Must impact by project Collaborate overall budget & time frame
question
Picture Archiving & Communication System
answer
PACS- Radiology, stand alone, diagnostic studies are stored on this system. Shared instantly.
question
Systemized Nomenclature of Medicine
answer
SNOMED CT- Universal healthcare terminology & messaging structure. Enables terminology from one system to be mapped to concepts from another system.
question
ANA Recognized Terminology
answer
NANDA- nursing diagnosis, definitions, classifications NIC- Nursing Interventions Classifications CCC-Clinical Care Classifications Omaha System NOC-Nursing Outcome Classifications NMMDS- Nursing Management Minimum Data Set ICNP- International classification for nursing pratice
question
HITECH
answer
US. The health information technology for economic & clinical health. 01-2009 Bill was passed for electronic health records to be used.
question
Clinical Care Classification
answer
Interrelated terminologies that cover: Nursing diagnosis Nursing Outcomes Nursing Interventions Nursing Actions
question
Accessibility
answer
Easy to access the information & knowledge needed to deliver care or manage a health service.
question
Administrator's Use Which Systems
answer
Information Systems: Analysis of the Budget Risk Management Quality Assurance HR Payroll Patient Registration Staff Scheduling Communication
question
Cognitive Informatics
answer
Understanding how information is processed in the mind & in the computer
question
Work Flow
answer
Sequential Steps are dependent on one another, Task, Events and interactions
question
Gaming Simulation
answer
Students to learn about task. Provides the nurse to self teach. Disadvantages is that the nurse can not become one like in the virtual world.
Decision Making
Electronic Medical Records
Primary Care
Problem Solving
Size And Type
Traumatic Brain Injury
Veterinary Science
Ch. 2 Veterinary Practice Management – Flashcards 94 terms

Dennis Jennings
94 terms
Preview
Ch. 2 Veterinary Practice Management – Flashcards
question
Traffic Flow
answer
Pattern of movement of patients through the practice
question
Outpatient
answer
Patient that comes into the practice and is treated and leaves w/o staying
question
Strategic Planning
answer
An organization's process for defining or updating its vision, mission, and strategy and allocating resources toward achievement of these goals
question
Walk-In System
answer
Clients come into the practice at will with no appointment needed
question
Appointment System
answer
System by which clients called ahead and are given a specific time and ate to come into the practice
question
Consultation
answer
Specific period of time that the veterinarian meets with the client and the patient for the purpose of diagnosis/treatment
question
NCVEI
answer
National Commission on Veterinary Economic Issues
question
AAHA
answer
American Animal Hospital Association; provides vet professionals w/ resources, including member services, continuing education, and hospital accreditation standards
question
CVPM
answer
Certified Veterinary Practice Manager
question
Money owed to the practice by the client for the sale of goods and services
answer
Accounts Receivable
question
The total money taken in by a practice before subtracting expenses incurred
answer
Gross revenue
question
The amount of money left over after all business expenses are subtracted from the gross revenue
answer
Profits
question
The measurement of the amount of money coming into and going out of the practice
answer
Net income
question
A small amount of discretionary funds that are used to make small purchases for which it is not practice to write a check or use a credit card
answer
Petty cash
question
A facility in which the practice conducted may include inpatient as well as outpatient diagnosis and treatment
answer
Clinic
question
A practice that conducts its work from a vehicle that can make farm or house calls
answer
Mobile facility
question
A facility that consists of a large staff of DVMs who provide clinical and hospital services, but who also perform significant research, along with education professional veterinary students.
answer
Veterinary Teaching Hospital
question
A facility that is set up to allow large animals to be brought to the practice for examination or treatment.
answer
Haul-in facility
question
A facility in which the practice conducted typically includes inpatient as well as outpatient diagnosis and treatment.
answer
Hospital
question
A facility in which veterinarians with a special interest in a specific species or area of veterinary medicine provide services.
answer
Referral facility
question
A practice that is limited in the service it provides as they do not have the facilities to perform inpatient diagnostics or treatment
answer
Office
question
A facility in which the primary function is to treat and monitor critically ill or injured animals.
answer
Emergency facility
question
An option provided by some veterinary facilities that will treat emergencies but do not necessarily have veterinarians and staff on the premises during all operating hours.
answer
On-call emergency service
question
A facility where services are provided by board certified veterinary specialists.
answer
Specialty Facility
question
Basic animal husbandry
answer
Kennel attendant
question
Performing Surgery
answer
Veterinarian
question
Updating Client and patient information
answer
Receptionist
question
Animal restraint
answer
Veterinary assistant
question
Making appointments
answer
Receptionist
question
Patient assessment
answer
Veterinary technician/technologist
question
Client education
answer
Veterinary technician/technologist
question
Filling prescriptions
answer
Veterinary assistant
question
Sending out vaccine reminders
answer
Internal marketing
question
Sponsoring a Little League team
answer
external marketing
question
Personal appearance of staff
answer
Internal marketing
question
Sincere care for an concern about each client
answer
Internal marketing
question
Creating a Facebook page for the practice
answer
External marketing
question
Sending out newsletters
answer
Internal marketing
question
Placing an advertisement in the Yellow Pages
answer
External marketing
question
One-stop shopping
answer
Internal marketing
question
A clean and attractive facility
answer
Internal marketing
question
A sign outside the practice
answer
External marketing
question
For a veterinary practice to be successful, most of the staff will play some type of role related to management. (T/F)
answer
True
question
The types of staff positions that are needed will vary greatly depending on the size and type of practice. (T/F)
answer
False
question
When it comes to naming veterinary facilities, the terms hospital, clinic, and office can be used interchangeably. (T/F)
answer
False
question
When it comes to delegating tasks, the best-run clinics assign tasks to the lowest paid person who can legally and competently complete the task. (T/F)
answer
True
question
In most well-run veterinary practices, job duties are performed by an staff member who is available to accomplish the task. (T/F)
answer
False
question
Pet owners who have owned pets previously usually have a good understanding of the care their pet needs. (T/F)
answer
False
question
A separate entrance and exit to the veterinary practice should be provided to make it easier for clients to enter and exit the practice. (T/F)
answer
True
question
To save time during an appointment, it is okay to have a client restrain his or her own pet. (T/F)
answer
False
question
If laboratory samples (e.g. blood, urine) need to be collected during an appointment, the patient should be taken to the treatment area. (T/F)
answer
True
question
As long as clients wear the proper personal protective equipment, they can accompany their pet into the radiology suite. (T/F)
answer
False
question
When discharging an animal and reviewing home care instructions with the client, it is best to have the client pay their bill before their pet is brought out to them. (T/F)
answer
True
question
Anyone entering the operating room during a surgery, should be wearing the appropriate clothes, shoes, cap and mask. (T/F)
answer
True
question
In a mixed animal practice, the same examination rooms are used for large-animal and small-animal patients. (T/F)
answer
False
question
Many larger equine practices have a single room used for anesthetic induction and anesthetic recovery. (T/F)
answer
False
question
Job descriptions should be used for hiring new employees and for replacing existing employees. (T/F)
answer
True
question
If an applicant submits a resume and cover letter to a practice, there is no need to have them also complete a job application. (T/F)
answer
False
question
When a practice hires a new staff member who has many years of experience from previous work at a different clinic, training is not necessary. (T/F)
answer
False
question
Stress can be caused by both positive and negative life events. (T/F)
answer
True
question
The terms marketing an advertising mean the same thing. (T/F)
answer
False
question
The main goal of external marketing is to attract new clients to the practice. (T/F)
answer
True
question
If a client does not respond to the first reminder they are sent, the practice should follow-up by sending a second reminder, and even a third reminder, if needed. (T/F)
answer
True
question
Veterinary practices are relying less on the use of telephone Yellow Book advertisements as a marketing tool. (T/F)
answer
True
question
Newspaper advertisements are a good marketing tool for a practice that is located in a larger metropolitan area. (T/F)
answer
False
question
The money that a veterinary practice owes for the purchase of a new piece of equipment would be considered an asset of the practice. (T/F)
answer
False
question
To insure that clients pay their bills in full at the time of service, clinics should not offer payment options to clients. (T/F)
answer
False
question
If a pet is brought to the clinic with life-threatening injuries, the pet should be stabilized before a treatment plan/estimate is prepared. (T/F)
answer
True
question
Pet insurance works in a similar manner to human health insurance. (T/F)
answer
False
question
Ideally, physically counting the inventory in a veterinary practice should be done once a year. (T/F)
answer
False
question
Some veterinary practices have completely eliminated paper medical records and replaced them with electronic medical records. (T/F)
answer
True
question
Increased competition, new technology, increasing numbers of malpractice threats, and shifting client expectations have
answer
Made it more difficult to manage a veterinary practice
question
In a typical veterinary practice, the person who acts as the CEO and delegates areas of responsibility is usually the
answer
Veterinarian owner
question
When it comes to practice management positions, individuals who are typically responsible for all activities of the practice and run the hospital in conjunction with the practice's owner(s) would be referred to as the
answer
Hospital administrator
question
The best way to insure that all of the major pieces of equipment in a veterinary practice are cleaned and maintained on a regular basis is to
answer
Assign each member of the team a specific piece of equipment to clean and maintain
question
To minimize the amount of time clients have to wait in the reception area, there should be _____ examination rooms available for each veterinarian working on a particular day.
answer
Two
question
Placement of the laboratory and pharmacy in a central location is very important because
answer
They are often used for both outpatients and hospitalized patients
question
Practices need to get the maximum use of out of their storage area beacuse
answer
This space typically generates very little income
question
It is more common to perform a necropsy when a large animal dies than when a small animal dies because
answer
There is a need to determine if the rest of the herd is threatened
question
A client's judgment regarding the quality of medicine provided at a veterinary practice is generally based on
answer
The level of service the client receives
question
One of the most common selection criteria used by clients when choosing a veterinary practice is
answer
The location
question
Complaints against veterinary practices are usually caused by
answer
Ineffective communication
question
Which on of the following practices should be most successful when it comes to animal strategic planning for the practice?
answer
The practice in which all staff are involved in the planning
question
A document that is a visual representation of how authority and responsibility flow between the various areas of the practice or practice staff is called a(n)
answer
Organizational Chart
question
When it comes to determining compensation for an employee, it is best to base the employee's pay on
answer
performenace
question
One of the most important reasons for holding regular employee evaluations it to
answer
improve the employee's performance
question
Which one of the following statements is the most accurate when it comes to describing what marketing is for a veterinary practice?
answer
Any effort the practice makes to retain or obtain clients and make the practice more visible in the community
question
When it comes to the sale of products such as pet food, the veterinary practice is at an advantage over feed stores and grocery stores because
answer
practice employees can educate clients about the food they purchase
question
When it comes to a veterinary practice's website, it is important that
answer
the website is updated on a regular basis
question
One of the financial tasks that many practices won't do on their own is
answer
Prepare a yearly tax return
question
A financial report that lists a practice's assets and liabilities is called a(n)
answer
Balance sheet
question
A financial report that is used to evaluate the financial performance of a practice for a specified period of time is called a(n)
answer
Income statement
question
When determining the financial success of a veterinary practice, the ________ is the most important indicator.
answer
Profitability
question
One of the main reasons for why inventory management is so important in a veterinary practice is because
answer
Inventory is a significant expense for a practice
Electronic Medical Records
External Hard Drive
Medical Records
Medical Terminology
Medical/Clerical Assisting
CH 43 Medical Records Management – Flashcards 39 terms

Bettina Hugo
39 terms
Preview
CH 43 Medical Records Management – Flashcards
question
Both paper medical records and electronic medical records
answer
Which of the following types of medical records may be reviewed to record statistical information?
question
They provide for continuity of care, They provide an ongoing record of the pt's state of health, They are legal documents if there is a question about care given, They usually include information from more than one source (All the above)
answer
Which of the following are true about both paper medical records and electronic medical records?
question
Baseline data and recent information is scanned into the electronic record, and the paper record is kept available for two to three years
answer
What usually happens to the paper medical record after a medical office transitions to an electronic health record system?
question
Manila folders with one or more tabs on the side that opens
answer
What is used to hold medical records if they are filed in an ordinary file cabinet?
question
Pressure-sensitive self-adhesive labels are usually used
answer
What is true about labels used on paper medical records?
question
Vertical drawer file cabinets, Open-shelf filing units arranged horizontally, Shelf filing units with pull-down fronts, Lateral drawer file cabinets (All of the above)
answer
What is used to hold the medical records if the medical office uses a paper medical record?
question
A means to lock the medical record storage cabinets or storage room
answer
What is always necessary if a paper medical system is used?
question
When the width of the folder reaches 3/4th in
answer
When is it recommended that file folders used to hold paper medical records be broken down into two folders?
question
A stiff piece of paper or plastic that is placed in a file when a medical record is removed.
answer
What is an outguide?
question
Numeric
answer
Which of the following is an indirect method of filing?
question
It reduces the risk of misfiling
answer
What is an advantage of using color-coded labels or folders?
question
All office staff
answer
If the office is using a color-coded system, who needs to know the meaning of the colors in use?
question
Using mounting sheets, with the oldest report at the back on the bottom.
answer
In a paper medical record system, how are laboratory reports often filed if they are smaller than 9x12 inches?
question
Each part of a patient's name
answer
What is an indexing unit in alphabetic filing?
question
Last name
answer
What is the first indexing unit in alphabetic filing?
question
First name
answer
What is the second indexing unit in alphabetic filing?
question
Street address
answer
If two pt's have exactly the same name, what information is used to put their medical records in order?
question
Numeric
answer
Which filing system used for paper medical records protects pt id most successfully?
question
Jones, Jane
answer
Which of the following would be filed first?
question
H
answer
Using the alphabetic system of filing, what would "The Harris Office Supply Company" be filed under?
question
Winston De La Mare
answer
Which of the following names would be filed first?
question
Bower, Edgar Lawrence
answer
Which of the following names would be filed last?
question
St. Charles, Josephine
answer
Which of the following names would be filed first?
question
All the above
answer
If Mary Jane Mitchell marries John L. Walker, which of the following names might Mary Jane choose to use as her married name?
question
A separate system must be maintained to link the pt's name with the numbering system
answer
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using a numeric filing system?
question
59
answer
If the terminal digit filing system is used, what is the first filing unit for the number 01-68-72-59?
question
72-81-19-02
answer
If the terminal digit filing system is used, which of the following medical record numbers comes first in the files?
question
7281
answer
If a chronological numeric filing system is used, which of the following medical records comes last in the files?
question
Filing out a card to place in the outguide for every record that was re,oved
answer
Which of the following makes it easier to find a paper medical record that has been removed from the files?
question
In a desk or file cabinet near where the MA usually sits
answer
Where should the MA's paper tickler files be stored?
question
Bank accounts
answer
If the subject method of filing is used for folders, which of the following would be filed first?
question
It must be initialed by the physician
answer
What must occur before a piece of correspondence can be filed in a pt's paper medical record?
question
In reverse chronological order (most recent first)
answer
In what order are documents filed into a section of the source-oriented medical record?
question
Office policy
answer
What determines the classification of "inactive" for a medical record?
question
Until the patient reaches the age of majority plus the number of years for the statute of limitations in that particular state.
answer
How long should the medical records of minors be kept?
question
When the record has been inactive at least seven years after the statue of limitations has expired
answer
When can a physician destroy a pt's file?
question
External hard drive
answer
Which of the following is the least common method for backing up the electronic medical record?
question
To create more apace for the records of new pt's
answer
Why are inactive records removed from the active file area in most offices?
question
If possible, they should be stored off site in a secure location
answer
What is a guideline for the storage of backup copies of electronic medical records?
Among Other Things
Electronic Medical Records
Husband And Wife
Necessary But Not Sufficient
Needle And Thread
Peanut Butter And Jelly
Psychology
Forl2680 – Flashcards 119 terms

Oscar Hall
119 terms
Preview
Forl2680 – Flashcards
question
When I have a question or concern about this course, I should contact Prof. Smith (select best answer)
answer
Any of the above
question
Information regarding how to contact Prof. Smith can be found on (choose all appropriate answers)
answer
the syllabus the website for the Department of Foreign Languages and Literatures on our Blackboard site
question
I affirm that I have read the syllabus and asked questions about anything I did not understand.
answer
TRUE
question
I understand that my successful completion of this course depends on
answer
all of the above, as well as my viewing of related lectures and videos
question
In the introduction to our primary text, The Great Fairy Tale Tradition, Jack Zipes compares the fairy tale genre to
answer
a biological species because it has benefitted from cross-fertilization of ideas and incremental evolution.
question
What is the relationship between the oral tradition (of fairy tales) and the literary fairy tale?
answer
The exact origins of the literary fairy tale are uncertain and the relationship between oral traditions and the literary fairy tale isn't always clear. We know, for example, that literary fairy tales borrow motifs and plot characteristics from orally told tales from antiquity up to the 14th and 15th centuries and that the literary genre we now call the literary fairy tale gained traction in 16th-century Europe.
question
When did the literary fairy tale genre come into being in western Europe and what country is especially known for its development in the 17th century?
answer
in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries, especially in late seventeenth-century France when writers openly advocated for its relevance and merit as a genre
question
What two French writers had their collections of fairy tales published in 1697?
answer
Charles Perrault and Marie-Catherine d'Aulnoy
question
Zipes argues that the literary fairy tale genre reached an equilibrium in the __________________ century with the Grimm brothers' fairy tale collections because they produced such a vast, stable work. This body of work helps us study the literary fairy tale genre before them and gives a point of reference to study how the genre has branched off since then.
answer
nineteenth
question
The Grimms are well known because they were so creative and created their stories from scratch.
answer
False
question
According to Bruno Bettelheim, who was influenced by Sigmund Freud's writings, fairy tales differ from dreams in that
answer
answers a and c
question
According to Bettelheim, myths and fairy tales differ in several respects:
answer
all of the above
question
Bettelheim implies that fairy tales are ideal reading or listening material for children
answer
for all of the reasons above
question
According to Zipes, fairy tales can often be seen as commenting on the production and exercise of power.
answer
true
question
When did tales of wonder begin to viewed as heretical, dangerous or sacrilegious?
answer
with the rise of the Christian Church in Europe and the solidification of its power
question
Who coined the term conte de fée?
answer
Mme d'Aulnoy, in the 17th century
question
Why, according to Zipes, did it become popular to associate tales of wonder and folktales with women storytellers?
answer
in order to discredit the tales as unreliable and/or to diminish their impact and meaning
question
Why is the "literary tradition of the fairy tale" often associated with men?
answer
because men were the ones being educated formally and publicly to read and write
question
What was a goal of de Beaumont's collection of stories in which her "Beauty and the Beast" appeared in 1757?
answer
to instruct young girls how to behave in society
question
The Grimm brothers published their initial collection of fairy tales in
answer
1812-1815
question
1. Though born in the late 18th century, Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm made a name for themselves through their work in the _______________ century.
answer
nineteenth
question
"Germany" did not exist as a unified nation state during the Grimms' lifetimes. That would not happen until 1871 under Bismarck.
answer
True
question
In addition, French forces occupied the Grimms' homeland in 1806 and did not leave until Napoleon's defeat in 1813.
answer
True
question
4. The lack of political unity in, and sometimes foreign occupation of, "Germany" during the late 18th / early 19th century is important to keep in mind because many writers such as the Grimms were keenly interested in making German speakers
answer
aware of their shared cultural traditions, including their folk poetry, folk songs and myths
question
5. Heavily influenced by J. G. Herder and others, the Grimm brothers were interested in all types of folklore because they believed it gave insight into
answer
who a people are. They believed that folk poetry was a dynamic expression of a people's character, identity, history and beliefs.
question
Aside from their work on fairy tales, the Grimm brothers worked together or individually on other projects of lasting importance (check all that apply):
answer
-Deutsches Wörterbuch (a German dictionary project similar in scope and breadth to the Oxford English Dictionary) -Deutsche Grammatik (a linguistic history of Germanic languages) -Deutsche Mythologie (a work on Germanic mythology) -Deutsche Sagen (a collection of German legends)
question
7. "Göttingen Seven" refers to
answer
the Grimm brothers and five other professors who were fired from their jobs because they wrote a letter of protest to the King of Hanover because he repealed the 1833 constitution. It's an example of the Grimms' commitment to making their society freer.
question
8. The Grimms were approximately _______ old when they started working on their fairy tale collection.
answer
20
question
9. Romanticism is a literary, intellectual and artistic movement roughly of the late 18th to mid 19th century in Europe. In contrast to the Enlightenments, which emphasized an individual's exercise of reason as a means by which to understand and interface with nature and mankind's place in it, Romanticism emphasized ______________ as key.
answer
emotion
question
10. Taking four orally told versions of "Cinderella" from four different dialects of German and editing them down into one version to be printed into a collection of stories has ramifications for the story and tradition. For example, it: (circle all that apply)
answer
all of the above
question
The Grimms' second volume (1815) was more successful because
answer
a and b but not c
question
12. Despite the work they invested in the second volume, popular success didn't come until a smaller edition in 1825. This smaller edition enjoyed popular success because it
answer
Contained illustrations and was geared toward children.
question
13. How did the Grimms regard their revision and expansion of the fairy tale material?
answer
They believed the fairy tales had a stable essence and that their revisions and editions were simply part of an ever changing, ever growing tradition
question
The Grimms weren't the first to collect and disseminate fairy tales. Why is their collection so highly regarded when compared to those that came before them?
answer
because their collection contains such a rich variety and diversity of tales
question
The Grimms did occasionally tone down the violence in their fairy tales. When?
answer
when friends or colleagues asked them to
question
The Grimms were keen to redact stories or situations with overt or implied __________. "Rapunzel" is a perfect example
answer
Pregnancy
question
The Grimms valued scholarly reviews of their work more than their collections' financial success. That said, they did appreciate the revenue they received because they needed it, especially in their early career.
answer
True
question
The Grimms were born in Hanau and are buried in Berlin
answer
True
question
19. The Grimms studied law in Marburg, where they met Clemens Brentano, a well-known German Romantic who influenced them.
answer
True
question
20. The Matt Damon / Heath Ledger film "The Brothers Grimm" is not even close to being historically accurate. It is not recommended as part of this course.
answer
True
question
The "Quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns" was a debate in late 17th-century France
answer
Between authors who wanted to model French literature on works and traditions from antiquity (the Ancients) and those authors who wanted to create French literature more reflective of their own time, a literature that incorporated pagan beliefs, magical elements and fantastical material. These "Moderns" were supportive of fairy tales.
question
The "Quarrel of the Ancients and Moderns" is important for understanding
answer
all of the above
question
Unlike "Germany" at the time, 17th-century France had a king, a central court, and a recognized "standard" language (the French spoken at court).
answer
True
question
Despite their different time periods and societal climates in which they worked, the Grimm brothers and Perrault were deeply interested in advancing their respective languages and literatures (French literature in Perrault's case, German literature in the Grimm brothers' case).
answer
True
question
In "The Struggle for Meaning," Bruno Bettelheim says that meaning
answer
A B and C
question
In "The Struggle for Meaning," Bruno Bettelheim argues that fairy tales help children in particular find meaning in life because modern books
answer
are too shallow
question
Perrault's version of "Cinderella" is noteworthy for many reasons, including
answer
all of the above
question
Cinderella's behavior at the end of Perrault's "Cinderella"
answer
all of the above
question
The Grimms' version of Cinderella is
answer
more detailed
question
The Grimms' version of "Cinderella"
answer
begins notably with the passing of Cinderella's mother and her admonition that Cinderella should be "pious" and the "Lord" will look after her
question
As in Perrault's version of "Cinderella", the father in the Grimms' version of "Cinderella" does not appear as strong as he should be as patriarch of the house as he allows Cinderella to be mistreated.
answer
True
question
When the father in the Grimms' version of "Cinderella" asks what he can bring the daughters home from his trip, Cinderella asks for
answer
The first twig that brushes against his hat.
question
The item that Cinderella's father brings her home in the Grimms' version can be seen to represent _______________, not just because of what it is and stands for sometimes in Germanic folklore, but also because it touches the father's head (and thus establishes a connection between it and the mind).
answer
Wisdom
question
The white bird or dove that descends and inhabits the tree at the grave of Cinderella's mother (Grimms' version) can be seen to
answer
all of the above
question
The Grimms' version of cinderella ends with
answer
pigeons pecking the sisters eyes out
question
The ending of the Grimms' version of "Cinderella" is important because it signals the existence of divine justice. Humans' actions are ultimately judged by a higher being.
answer
True
question
Both versions of "Cinderella" that we read this week can be seen as
answer
All of the above
question
The repetition and grouping of items in a series (often in threes, with the last item slightly amended) gives a printed tale the feel of an orally told tale, as repetition of plot items helps speakers and readers remember the tale and thus to share it with others. A famous example of this in the Grimms' version is "Rook di goo, rook di goo! There's blood in the shoe."
answer
TRUE
question
The Grimms' version indicates that we recognize true beauty only when we are attentive enough to look for it beyond and regardless of any societal markings such as clothing, jewelry, makeup, etc. A prime example of this occurs when Cinderella's beauty is acknowledged as she tries on the shoe.
answer
True
question
When Bettelheim speaks of the "id", he is using a Freudian term that refers to our most basic drives and urges as animals, such as hunger, the need for sleep, and our libido. It and the related terms "ego" and "superego" are meant to help us think about how the human psyche works.
answer
True
question
The color red is associated with blood in "Snow White." In the beginning, in particular, the Queen's pricking of her finger and subsequent bleeding onto the snow can be seen to symbolize the Queen's
answer
Menstrual Cycle (& thus ability to have a baby)
question
The color black is a bit trickier. It is often seen as pointing to death, but its association with the wood frame here means it could also/instead point to fortitude, stability, and even resilience. Some cultures regard black soil as fertile, so it might mean that as well. Freya, the Norse (and thus Germanic) goddess of fertility and love, is described as riding a chariot pulled by cats. It's unclear to me, though, what color the cats were supposed to be. I always thought they were grey, because that's what I've read, but more recently I saw a reference to their being black, but that source wasn't entirely credible. Given that our hair generally grays or whitens as we age, black could simply point to youthfulness. As I said, color symbolism can be tricky.
answer
True
question
The Queen is replaced by a "beautiful woman" who is nevertheless "proud and arrogant." Pride is one of the seven deadly sins. The seven deadly sins are
answer
Pride, envy, gluttony, lust, anger, greed, sloth
question
The wicked queen consults her magic mirror often to hear if she is (or is not) the fairest in the land. Her fixation on being the fairest in the land is best described as
answer
Vanity
question
Though vanitas is an old concept, it becomes a popular trope in 17th-century paintings in the Netherlands. Many artworks then depict a still life with a skull and objects of beauty or human pursuits, such as books, flowers, an hourglass, etc. Such works are meant to convey the
answer
the fleetingness or impermanence of the human body and of human pursuits
question
In wanting to always be the fairest in the land, the wicked queen tries to ignore the fact that our lives, and thus appearance, are characterized by our bodies'
answer
transience
question
The "apple" that the old woman offers Snow White can be seen to symbolize
answer
Temptation
question
The apple and its association with temptation in western literature comes from the "fruit" that Eve and Adam partake of in the Garden of Eden (Genesis). This "fruit" comes to be depicted most generally as an apple in artworks much later, especially in the Renaissance. A linguistic misunderstanding is likely also to blame. In Latin, mālum means "apple" whereas mălum means "an evil or a misfortune."
answer
True
question
The lessons imparted to us by "Snow White" include (check all that apply):
answer
a. choosing the right spouse, one you truly know, is incredibly important for everyone in the family, especially your kid(s) if you have one/them. b. people, especially perhaps young people, make the wrong choices even after being warned, but making choices and suffering the consequences is part of the maturation process. c. life is characterized by change -- whether it is one's appearance or maturation d. appearance does not necessarily reflect being (one isn't always as one appears)
question
Bettelheim argues that the dwarfs represent ________________ and that Snow White's trying out each of the beds is indicative of her _____________________.
answer
phalluses .... growing sexual experience/maturation
question
The Grimms' first version of "Snow White", published in 1812, had Snow White's mother serve as the evil one instead of a stepmother.
answer
True
question
When Snow White is unconscious, the dwarfs comb her hair and put her in a transparent coffin.
answer
True
question
The dwarfs' treatment of Snow White at the end of the Grimms' version can be interpreted as
answer
the objectification of woman by and for male voyeurs.
question
Snow White's unconscious state can be seen as representing the time of development one experiences between childhood and adulthood -- as suggestive of puberty, in other words. She goes to sleep a girl and awakes a woman capable of marrying a prince.
answer
True
question
It's important to note that the "wicked woman" also gives in to temptation as she just has to go see Snow White at her wedding to the prince. For her troubles, the "wicked woman" is made to ________________ until she dies.
answer
dance in hot iron shoes
question
Anne Sexton is a 20th-century American poet who published poetic adaptations of select fairy tales in her book Transformations.
answer
True
question
Sexton's poem "Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs" focuses on
answer
society's objectification of virginity and of women.
question
At the end of Sexton's "Snow White", one has the sense that Snow White
answer
is vane and superficial like her stepmother.
question
It is important to note that Snow White is jostled awake when someone carrying her coffin trips; it isn't anything someone did on purpose. If we see her coma-like state as representing puberty, the unpredictability of her awakening suggests that one can't do anything to speed the transitional process of puberty along. It ends when it ends. We should keep this in mind when we discuss "Sleeping Beauty" later.
answer
True
question
Hans Christian Andersen lived in the
answer
19th century, mostly in Denmark
question
The theme of ________________, whether transpired or desired, occurs often in Hans Christian Andersen's works, probably because he experienced it himself. He was educated in a school for poor children, but he managed to improve his economic conditions through his engagement with the arts.
answer
social mobility
question
The famous statue of The Little Mermaid has its home at the harbor of Denmark's capital, ___________________.
answer
Copenhagen
question
The beginning of Hans Christian Andersen's "The Little Mermaid" encourages us to consider the story in terms of ______________. One sees this emphasis already in the initial phrases "Far out" and "It [the ocean's water] goes down deeper."
answer
spatiality
question
The answer to question #4 is important because it sets the stage for the story's emphasis on _____________________.(The story meant here is Hans Christian Andersen's "The Little Mermaid.")
answer
spirituality mobility
question
Hans Christian Andersen's Little Mermaid tends a garden which she populates with objects of her fascination: "flowers as red as the_____________" and ________________.
answer
"sun" and a marble statute of a boy
question
Andersen's Little Mermaid can obtain ________ only if she gains the love of a human being and that love is attested to by marriage.
answer
an immortale soul
question
Andersen's Little Mermaid gets help from the sea witch. The Little Mermaid's acceptance of the sea witch's help and of the witch's terms reminds one of the literary/cultural motif of a pact with the devil. Generally, a pact with the devil requires one to give up his/her soul exchange for something. The Little Mermaid doesn't have one to give. Nevertheless, she seeks the witch's help for something she (The Little Mermaid) wouldn't normally be able to attain by herself--legs and a chance to win the love of a human being. One of the most famous examples of a pact with the devil occurs
answer
in the Faust legend, between Faust and Mephistopheles. Johann Wolfgang von Goethe (1749-1832) wrote perhaps the most famous version of this story
question
Andersen's Little Mermaid
answer
refuses to stab the prince and is rewarded with her transformation into a daughter of the air.
question
Andersen's Little Mermaid can earn a soul at the end of the story
answer
by her good deeds
question
When you think about it, Andersen's "The Little Mermaid" encourages good behavior among children because
answer
a and c but b
question
Not surprisingly, Disney's film "The Little Mermaid" ends
answer
with the marriage of Ariel and prince Eric.
question
In Disney's "The Little Mermaid," Ariel acts independently. Nevertheless, the lyrics of Ursula's "Poor Unfortunate Souls" and the depiction of Ariel and Ursula in the provided clip invite us to consider [choose all that apply]:
answer
a. latent (or not so latent) sexism and misogyny in society. b. ethnic and societal stereotypes that may influence the drawing of certain characters, such as Ursula. c. the importance of having a voice in human interactions and its connection to one's identity. d. the degree to which films promote and/or reflect notions of beauty and sexual attractiveness.
question
In the Grimms' "Rapunzel", a husband and wife want to have a child and the woman craves
answer
type of lettuce
question
The husband and wife in the Grimms' "Rapunzel" live in an apartment that has a view of a neighbor's luscious garden, and therein grows the Rapunzel that the wife desires. The wife's initial desire for the Rapunzel can be explained as (choose all that apply):
answer
a. resulting from a possible vitamin deficiency, such as a deficiency in folic acid. b. symbolic of temptation and the dangers of coveting what others have. c. as a pregnancy craving
question
The sorceress locks Rapunzel in a tower in the forest when she (Rapunzel) approaches an age associated with puberty.
answer
True
question
The sorceress locks Rapunzel away in an apparent attempt to remove her from the temptations of the world. When you think about it, the fact that the prince finds Rapunzel and that they conceive twins together unbekownst to the sorceress suggests
answer
a b and c
question
Rapunzel shows maturity and ingenuity by suggesting a plan to let herself down from the tower so she can accompany the prince, but immaturity when she reveals the secret of the princes' visits to Mother Gothel.
answer
True
question
Rapunzel and the prince both suffer when their relationship is revealed:
answer
Rapunzel is taken to a desolate location and the prince must wander around the forest blinded because he pierced his eyes on thorns.
question
Despite their suffering, Rapunzel and the prince experience a happy end.
answer
True
question
Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" blends Christian motifs and magical elements, a common practice among fairy tales of his and the Grimms' time periods.
answer
True
question
In considering Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty", we shouldn't forget that he was writing in late 17th century, for a court culture, and that he had been embroiled in the literary/cultural dispute now known as "The Quarrel of the Ancients and Moderns."
answer
True
question
In Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty", all of the fairies "that could be found" were invited to the christening. __________ fairies were invited.
answer
7
question
In Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty," one fairy was overlooked and not invited to the christening. This oversight suggests
answer
The imperfection of human knowledge. We can't know or find everything, try as we might.
question
The king's edict forbids spindles and spinning in Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" because he
answer
he wishes to avoid the prophesied misfortune.
question
The failure of the king's edict in Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" emphasizes
answer
the limits of regal, human, and even parental control.
question
The king's ultimate inability to avoid "misfortune" in Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" shouldn't come as a huge surprise, because fortune can't be controlled by any one person. The ancient notion of Fortuna speaks to this point. The Roman goddess of fortune, Fortuna, was often discussed and portrayed in artwork, especially in the middle ages. There, Fortuna embodies
answer
the fickleness or capriciousness of fortune and fate.
question
One way of depicting the concept of Fortuna was to show or discuss her ______________________, which most people only know nowadays in terms of the game show hosted in part by South Carolina native Vanna White.
answer
wheel of fortune
question
In Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty", the prince
answer
c. gets the girl because he happens to come along at the right time.
question
Bettelheim sees the princess's 100 years of sleep as symbolic of adolescence in general and of sexual maturation in particular, especially as it relates to the onset of menstruation.
answer
True
question
In Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty," the prince appears to have to mature into his role as husband. This can be seen by
answer
A and B
question
Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" seems to suggest ____________________________. You see this with the awakening of the princess, the arrival of the prince, but even early on when the king and queen are described as trying everything to have a child, including making pilgrimages, "and nothing succeeded. At length, however, the queen became pregnant."
answer
that things happen when they are ready to happen. They don't so much depend on us. (We can't effect results as often and as much as we think.)
question
With respect to Grimms' "Brier Rose" (and indeed other fairy tales such as "The Frog King"), frogs have been seen as symbolic
answer
all of the above
question
Among other things, the Grimms' "Brier Rose" points at worst to parental negligence or at least to their being remiss in their duties as parents and as king/queen. They
answer
a and b
question
In regard to "Brier Rose," Bettelheim sees the key in the lock, the tower, and even the princess's path up to the top of the tower as
answer
symbolic of sexual maturation
question
In Perrault's "Bluebeard," the younger daughter begins to look past the man's bluebeard and the fact that no one knows what happened to his other wives because
answer
he throws lavish parties for her and her friends
question
In Perrault's "Bluebeard," the young wife's using of the small key to open the storeroom against her husband's wishes has been typically interpreted as (choose all that apply)
answer
a. depicting (female) curiosity and the dangers of it (like with Lot's wife, Pandora) b. portraying the temptation to know, to expand a human's knowledge base (reminiscent of Adam and Eve, though that does NOT mean that the husband should be seen as a God figure) c. female sexual enlightenment and exploration against the mandate of, here, the man (patriarch) d. depicting the advantages and disadvantages of humans' quest for more (self) knowledge
question
Perrault's "Bluebeard" also gives us an example of a bad or, at least, inconsiderate host, as the young wife forsakes her company by way of a back staircase in order to go open the forbidden door. Hospitality and being a good host were important in French court culture. On a positive note, though, this same action could be seen as indicating that the woman is an independent thinker willing to forsake the "herd" mentality of society in order to find out more about herself and her predicament.
answer
True
question
In the Grimms' "The Robber Bridegroom," the girl neglects to listen to
answer
her own intuition and the bird in the cage.
question
The robber's guilt is revealed by
answer
the severed finger with the ring
Electronic Medical Records
Health Computing
Health Science
Medical Terminology
Pen And Paper
TMA: Chapter 43 20 terms

James Storer
20 terms
Preview
TMA: Chapter 43
question
Describe the advantage and disadvantages of medical records and electronic medical records.
answer
question
Why would the medical office use color-coded labels on folders?
answer
Color-coded labels are often used yo identify the last year patient was seen at the office.
question
What is an out-guide and how is it used in the medical office?
answer
Are placed on the file to mark the place where folder has been removed. Each guide has pocket for a card indicating who removed the record and/ or items that accumulate while the record is out of its area.
question
Describe terminal digit filling system?
answer
Uses a 6 digit number with a hyphen between each group of 2 numbers ex: 01-22-19
question
What is subject filling list 4 types of documents that might be used?
answer
Filling system for documents that are often arranged according to subject, Used for Preprinted forms, invoices, purchase orders, service agreements.
question
What is the second filling unit if the patient's name is Mary Johnson White?
answer
Mary
question
What are 2 advantages of numeric filling?
answer
It is easier to preserve confidentiality, In a large practice, it is easier to identify a patient by number when several patients have the same last name.
question
What is a tickler file?
answer
Is used to tickle the memory by serving as a reminder that a specific action must be taken on a specific date.
question
Why would the medical office use alphabetic filling vs chronological filling?
answer
question
How are computerized records stored?
answer
Through backups,done to network storage and/ or storage devices, such as hard drives, DVD's or other devices.
question
How long should records of adult patients be retained?
answer
question
What determines when a medical record is moved to the inactive files?
answer
When it hasn't been touched for 3 years.
question
Before returning medical records to the files, what are 3 things the medical assistant should do to condition the records?
answer
All clips, pins, or other extraneous material should be removed. Any tears or broken punch holes should be repaired with tape. Any sticky notes or other loose papers should be either removed or filed in the record in the correct location.
question
What is an indirect method of filing?
answer
question
How are hyphenated names filed if an alphabetic filling system is used?
answer
Are indexed as one unit.
question
Explain how electronic records are updated?
answer
question
What is the most common methods used to organized a new paper medical record for a patient?
answer
Most offices use the source-oriented format to organize their medical records, the alphabetic filing system to arrange the records, and shelf filing units to store medical records.
question
2 patients come into the office with the exact same name, what information is used to put their medical records in order?
answer
With their city in the first unit, state as second unit, street as third unit.
question
Before a piece of correspondence can be filed in a patient's paper medical record what is the first thing that must occur?
answer
Should be initialed by the physician, Should be sorted before filing according to name or medical record.
question
Who determines the classification of \"inactive or active\" patients\"?
answer
Electronic Medical Records
Medical Insurance
Medical Records
Medical Terminology
Medical/Clerical Assisting
MOD A Week 4 Theory Test Everest College 20 terms

Ruth Blanco
20 terms
Preview
MOD A Week 4 Theory Test Everest College
question
Following should be avoided in a storage area for inactive medical records
answer
Dust and exposure to insects
question
The proper way to prepare the address on a business envelope
answer
Capitalize all letters and use no punctuation.
question
Which of the following is an example of a complex sentence?
answer
After I open the envelope, I will read its contents.
question
Which of the following names would be filed first?
answer
St. Charles, Josephine
question
What must occur before a piece of correspondence can be filed in a patient's paper medical record?
answer
It must be initialed by the physician.
question
Which type of correspondence is best sent by Certified Mail with Return Receipt requested?
answer
Letter informing a patient that he should find a new physician because he has missed several appointments
question
Advantage of using color-coded labels or folders
answer
It reduces the risk of misfiling.
question
Type of computer program does the medical assistant usually use to prepare letters
answer
Word processing
question
Order are documents filed into the medical record
answer
In reverse chronologic order (most recent first)
question
What information is included on the delivery address line of an address?
answer
The street address, post office box, or rural route number.
question
If a chronological numeric filing system is used, which of the following medical records comes last in the files?
answer
7281
question
In the sentence, \"Roger is a very tall boy,\" which word is a proper noun?
answer
Roger
question
When the medical assistant answers an e-mail, why is it customary to create the answer as a reply?
answer
To allow the recipient to read previous correspondence
question
If two patients have exactly the same name, what information is used to put their medical records in order?
answer
Street address
question
When a letter must reach its destination within 24 hours, how should it be sent?
answer
Express Mail
question
Where should special directions such as \"personal\" or \"confidential\" be placed?
answer
Below the return address
question
What punctuation mark follows the complimentary closing of a business letter?
answer
Comma
question
Which part of speech shows relationships of space, time, or possession?
answer
Preposition
question
What is used to hold the medical records if the medical office uses a paper medical record?
answer
Vertical drawer file cabinets Open-shelf filing units arranged horizontally Shelf filing units with pull-down fronts Lateral drawer file cabinets
question
If the terminal digit filing system is used, which of the following medical record numbers comes first in the files?
answer
72-81-19-02
Electronic Medical Records
Health Computing
Informed Consent Form
Medical/Clerical Assisting
CHAPTER 9 TERMS – Flashcards 17 terms

Clarence Louder
17 terms
Preview
CHAPTER 9 TERMS – Flashcards
question
AUDIT
answer
To examine and review a group of patients' records.
question
CHEDDAR
answer
The format of medical records documentation takes the SOAP format further. Stands For: Chief complaint, History, Examination, Details, Drug and dosage, Assessment, Return visit
question
DOCUMENTATION
answer
The recording of information in a patient's medical record; includes detailed notes about each contact with the patient and about the treatment plan, patient progress, and treatment outcomes.
question
ELECTRONIC HEALTH RECORDS (EHR)
answer
Patient health record created and stored on a computer or other electronic storage device. Also known as electronic medical records.
question
ELECTRONIC MEDICAL RECORDS (EMR)
answer
Patient medical record created and stored on a computer or other electronic storage device.
question
INDIVIDUAL IDENTIFIABLE HEALTH INFORMATION (IIHI)-
answer
Any part of an individual's health information, including demographic information, collected from an individual that is received by a covered entity. ( health care provider)
question
INFORMED CONSENT FORM
answer
A form that verifies that a patient understands the offered treatment and its possible outcomes or side effects.
question
NONCOMPLIANT
answer
Describes a patient who does not follow the medical advice given
question
OBJECTIVE
answer
Pertaining to data that is readily apparent and measurable, such as vital signs, test results, or physical examination findings.
question
PATIENT RECORD/CHART
answer
A compilation of important information about a patient's medical history and present condition.
question
POMR
answer
The problem oriented medical record system- for keeping patients' charts. Information in a POMR includes the database of information about the patient and the patient's condition, the Problem list, the diagnostic and treatment plan, and progress notes.
question
SIGN
answer
An objective or external factor, such as blood pressure, rash, or swelling, that can be seen or felt by the physician or measured by an instrument.
question
SOAP
answer
An approach to medical records documentation that documents information in the following Order: S(subjective data), O(objective data), A(assessment), P(plan of action)
question
SUBJECTIVE
answer
Pertaining to data that is obtained from conversation with a person or patient.
question
SYMPTOM
answer
A subjective, or internal, condition felt by a patient, such as pain, nausea, or something the doctor cannot see nor measure.
question
TRANSCRIPTION
answer
The transforming of spoken notes into accurate written form.
question
TRANSFER
answer
To give something, such as information, to another party outside the doctor's office.
Electronic Medical Records
Health Computing
Informed Consent Form
Medical Terminology
Medical/Clerical Assisting
Ch 9 maintaining office medical records – Flashcards 34 terms

Keisha White
34 terms
Preview
Ch 9 maintaining office medical records – Flashcards
question
Documentation
answer
is the recording of information in a patient's medical record; that includes detailed notes about each contact with the patient and about the treatment plan, patient progress and treatment outcomes.
question
Electronic Health Record EHR
answer
is an electrically stored patient record. Info related to past, present or future physical & mental health or condition of an individual which resides in an electronic system. This contains information from all of the doctors involved in the patients care. Patients need to sign a consent form. Not all doctors participate. Global.
question
Electronic Medical Record EMR
answer
is an electronically stored patient record. A digital version of a paper chart that contains all of the patient's medical history from one practice (doctor office, clinic or hospital) in-house network
question
Individual Identifiable Health Information IIHI
answer
is any part of an individual's health information, including demographic information, collected from an individual that is received by a covered entity, for example a health care provider.
question
Informed Consent Forms
answer
are forms that verify that a patient understands the offered treatment and its possible outcomes or side effects. Refers to the idea that the patient fully understands the treatment and its side effects and the outcome of not doing the treatment and any alternative options. You cannot force a patient to sign the form.
question
Noncompliant
answer
is the term used to describe a patient who does not follow the medical advice given.
question
Objective O in SOAP
answer
pertains to data that is readily apparent and measurable, such as vital signs, fever, test results, or physical examination findings. A Sign.
question
Patient Charts or Records
answer
are a compilation of important information about a patient's medical history and present condition.
question
Problem-Oriented Medical Record POMR
answer
is a system for keeping patients charts. Information in a POMR includes database information about the patient and patient's condition, the problem list, the diagnostic and treatment plan and progress notes.
question
Sign
answer
is an objective or external factor, such as blood pressure, rash, or swelling that can be seen or felt by a physician or measured by an instrument.
question
SOAP
answer
is an approach to medical records documentation that documents information in the following order S - subjective data, O - objective data, A - assessment, P - plan of action.
question
Subjective S in SOAP
answer
Pertains to data that is obtained from conversation with a person or patient. A Symptom; Things we can't see; for example pain or headache.
question
Symptom
answer
Is a subjective or internal condition felt by a patient, such as pain, headache or nausea or another indication that generally cannot be seen or felt by the doctor or measured by instruments.
question
Transcription
answer
Is the transforming of spoken notes into accurate written form.
question
Transfer
answer
Means to give something, such as information, to another party outside the doctor's office.
question
Research with regards to Patient Information
answer
You are allowed to release information for research without patient consent except for patient's name, address, phone number, birthdate and social security number.
question
Assessment A in SOAP
answer
The diagnosis or impression of a patient's problem. DX1, DX2 and DX3; differential diagnosis; DX1 is the most probable.
question
Plan of Action P in SOAP
answer
Treatment options; instructions; referrals; medications; chosen treatment; tests; patient education and follow-up.
question
Which element of SOAP charting describes the data that comes directly from the patient?
answer
S Subjective
question
What does the abbreviation PT mean?
answer
Physical therapy
question
The six C's of charting include
answer
Client's words; Clarity; Completeness; Conciseness; Chronological order; and Confidentiality
question
Client's words
answer
Record patient's exact words rather than your interpretation of them. Do not rephrase patient's words. One of the six C's of charting.
question
Clarity
answer
Use precise descriptions and accepted medical terminology when describing patient's condition. One of the six C's of charting.
question
Completeness
answer
Fill out completely all of the forms used in patient's record. Provide complete information that is readily understandable to others whenever you make any notation in the patient chart. One of the six C's of charting.
question
Conciseness
answer
Be brief and to the point. Abbreviations and specific terminology can often save time and space when recording information. One of the six C's of charting.
question
Chronological order
answer
All entries in patient's records must be dated to show the order in which they are made. This is critical in case of a legal question. One of the six C's of charting
question
Confidentiality
answer
All the information in patient's records and forms. One of the six C's of charting
question
Conventional or Source-Oriented Record
answer
In this approach, patient information is arranged according to who supplied the data-the patient, doctor, specialist, or someone else. These records describe all problems and treatments on the same form in simple chronological order.
question
Problem-Oriented Medical Record POMR
answer
This approach makes it easier for the physician to keep track of a patient's progress.
question
The information in a POMR includes the
answer
Database. Problem list. Educational. Diagnostic. Treatment plan.
question
Electronic Health Record EHR
answer
This contains information from all of the doctors involved in the patients care. Patients need to sign a consent form. Not all doctors participate. Global.
question
Electronic Health Record EHR
answer
is an electrically stored patient record. Info related to past, present or future physical & mental health or condition of an individual which resides in an electronic system.
question
Informed Consent Forms
answer
are forms that verify that a patient understands the offered treatment and its possible outcomes or side effects.
question
Informed Consent Forms
answer
Refers to the idea that the patient fully understands the treatment and its side effects and the outcome of not doing the treatment and any alternative options. You cannot force a patient to sign the form.
Business Process Improvement
Electronic Medical Records
Systems Development Life Cycle
BA382 Quiz Answers – Flashcards 109 terms

Lesly Lloyd
109 terms
Preview
BA382 Quiz Answers – Flashcards
question
Crowdsourcing tools and question-and-answer sites like _____ allow firms to reach out for expertise beyond their organizations.
answer
Quora
question
Amazon was started by
answer
Jeff Bezos
question
Rising customer service standards can partly be attributed to the proliferation of ________
answer
Social Media
question
Some of the racial changes brought about by new technologies include:
answer
the creation of an unprecedented set of security and espionage threats.
question
Offered by the web to the field of
answer
Marketing
question
Firms are increasingly shifting spending from the ____ to other media such as print, radio, and television as these are often easier to track and analyze
answer
Web
question
A company uses Webex, a popular commercial application, to conduct training sessions for its employees who are spread across different countries. This is an example of the impact of technology in the area of
answer
HUMAN SERVICES.
question
Today's job seekers are writing resumes with key words in mind, aware that the first cut is likely made by a database search program, not a human being.
answer
True
question
Many of the careers in accounting firms are highly tech-centric.
answer
True
question
The rise of open source software has lowered computing costs for start-up and blue chip companies worldwide.
answer
True
question
SEM, SEO, CRM, and personalization systems are all central components of the new ________ toolkit.
answer
MARKETING
question
A company uses radio frequency identification (RFID) tags to keep track of its inventory. This is an example of the impact of technology in the area of
answer
Operations
question
Technology experts in the area of user-interface design
answer
work to make sure systems are easy to use.
question
The number of U.S. patent applications waiting approval has ________ in the past decade.
answer
tripled
question
While process redesign, supply chain management and factory automation are all tech-centric operations, service operations are not.
answer
False
question
Technology experts in the area of _______ specialize in technology for competitive advantage.
answer
strategy
question
The rise of open source software has lowered computing costs for start-up and blue chip companies worldwide.
answer
True
question
___________ is the third most popular social network in the United States and was founded by Catherine Cook
answer
MyYearbook.com
question
A focus solely on technology is a definite recipe for success.
answer
False
question
Changes that impact one industry do not necessarily impact other industries in the same way
answer
True
question
When technology can be matched quickly, it is rarely a source of competitive advantage.
answer
True
question
What are Porter's five forces?
answer
Also known as industry and Competitive Analysis. A framework considering the interplay between (1) the intensity of rivalry among existing competitors, (2) the threat of new entrants, (3) the threat of substitute goods or services, (4) the bargaining power of buyers, and (5) the bargaining power of suppliers.
question
Inventory turns
answer
Sometimes referred to as inventory turnover, stock turns, or stock turnover. It is the numver of times inventory is sold or used during the course of a year. A higher figure means that a firm is selling products quickly.
question
Dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM)
answer
A technology that increases the transmission capacity (and hence speed) of fiber-optic cable. Transmissions using fiber are accomplished by transmitting light inside "glass" cables. In DWDM, the light inside fiber is split into different wavelengths in a way similar to how a prism splits light into different colors.
question
Switching Costs
answer
The cost a consumer incurs when moving from one product to another. It can involve actural money spent (e.g., buying a new product) as well as investments in time, any data loss, and so forth.
question
Price transparancy
answer
The degree to which complete information is available.
question
What does Porter say about operational effectiveness?
answer
Operational effectiveness is critical, yet dangerous because it relies on "sameness." Sameness can be duplicated by competitors quickly. For those that rely on technology for a competitive advantage, technology is easily acquired. This leads to the fast follower problem.
question
What does Porter say about strategic positioning?
answer
While technology can be easily duplicated, using strategic positioning can make it hard on competitors to match.
question
Initial Public Stock Offering
answer
Also known as "going public." The first time a firm sells stock to the public.
question
Pure Play
answer
A firm that focuses on a specific product, service, or business model. An internet pure play is a firm that only operates through the Internet channel (i.e. with no physical stores or catalogs).
question
Long Tail
answer
In this context, refers to an extremely large selection of content or products. The long tail is a phenomenon whereby firms can make money by offering a near-limitless selection.
question
Fixed Costs
answer
A cost that does not vary according to production volume.
question
Collaborative Filtering
answer
A classification of software that monitors trends among customers and uses this data to personalize an individual custormer's experience.
question
Churn Rate
answer
The rate at which customers leave a product or service.
question
Crowdsourcing
answer
The act of taking a job traditionally performed by a designated agent (usually an employee) and outsourcing it to an undefined generally large group of people in the form of an open call.
question
Atoms to bits
answer
The idea that many media products are sold in containers (physical products, or atoms) for bits (the ones and zeros that make up a video file, song, or layout of a book). As the internet offers fast wireless delivery to TV's music players, book readers, and other devices, the "atoms" of the container aren't neccessary. Physical inventory is eliminated, offering great cost savings.
question
Disintermediation
answer
Removing an organization or business from a firm's distribution channel. Disintermediation collapses the path between supplier and customer.
question
Bandwith cap
answer
A limit, imposed by the ISP on the total amount of traffic that a given subscriber can consume (usually per each billing period).
question
Open Source Software
answer
Software that is free and where anyone can look at and potentially modify teh code.
question
Marginal Cost
answer
The cost of producing one more unit of a product.
question
Java
answer
A programming language, initially developed by Sun Microsystems, designed to provide true platform independence (write once, run anywhere) for application developers.
question
Scripting Language
answer
Programming tool that executes within an application. Scripting languages are interpreted within their application, rather than compiled to run directly by a microprocessor.
question
Integrated development environment
answer
An application that includes an editor (a programmer's word processor), debugger, and compiler, among other tools.
question
Even though Netflix is now mainly focused on digital distribution, it continues to offer the DVD-by-mail service in its base-price product.
answer
False
question
Grid computing is a type computing in which:
answer
special software is installed on several computers enabling them to work together on a common problem.
question
In 1995, the largest corporate database was one terabyte in size
answer
True
question
Netflix has used the long tail to its advantage, crafting a business model that creates close ties with film studios. What do film studios stand to gain from these ties with Netflix?
answer
A cut of the subscription revenue from every disk sent out by Netflix.
question
Which of the following statements is a valid reason for chip manufacturers carrying minimal inventory?
answer
Products with a significant chip-based component rapidly fall in value, and can cause huge losses when overproduced.
question
In terms of percentage of revenue spent on advertising, Zara has possibly the lowest figures in the whole industry.
answer
True
question
The biggest inefficiency in the movie industry is:
answer
matching content with customers.
question
In an industry where nearly every major player outsources manufacturing to low-cost countries, Zara is highly _____, keeping huge swaths of its production process in-house.
answer
vertically integrated
question
Moore's Law originally stated that chip performance per dollar doubles every twenty-four months.
answer
True
question
Firms that use contract manufacturers do not directly employ the workers who produce the requested goods.
answer
True
question
Moore's Law has been in force over all the five waves of computing.
answer
False
question
Collaborative filtering is a classification of software that
answer
monitors trends among customers to personalize an individual customer's experience.
question
Due to limited production runs, Zara's customers
answer
visit the stores more often.
question
Price elasticity refers to the
answer
rate at which demand for a product or service fluctuates with price change.
question
Which of the following represents an advantage enjoyed by Netflix over traditional video stores?
answer
Lower energy costs
question
Much of Zara's products are stitched together through a network of local cooperatives that have worked with Inditex long enough to operate without written contracts.
answer
True
question
Which of the following factors is considered key to Zara's ability to maintain a winning business formula?
answer
Keen understanding of how information systems can enable winning strategies
question
The third wave of computing was characterized by the introduction of:
answer
personal computers.
question
How do Netflix's scale economies affect competition from established firms?
answer
Established firms that challenge Netflix straddle markets, unable to gain full efficiencies from their efforts.
question
Priceline.com is a company and a commercial website that helps users obtain discount rates for travel-related purchases such as airline tickets and hotel stays. The company facilitates the provision of travel services by its suppliers to its customers. People can directly access a complete array of schedules and fares. This process has, to a great extent, eliminated the travel agency as a middle man. This is an example of:
answer
disintermediation.
question
The strengthening of the euro relative to the dollar has insulated Zara against financial vulnerabilities.
answer
False
question
Zara's limited production runs are not attractive for most customers, as they would rather wait for the products to go on sale.
answer
False
question
Grid computing, though faster and more efficient, is an expensive alternative to supercomputers.
answer
False, it is cheaper.
question
What problem is faced by multicore processors running older software written for single-brain chips?
answer
Multicore processors usually run older software by using only one core at a time.
question
An internal team at Netflix developed a prototype set top box to enable the direct streaming of content to customers' television sets. However, the idea of offering it to Netflix customers was dropped because:
answer
of the brutally competitive nature of the consumer electronics business.
question
With the entry of Wal-Mart and Blockbuster into the DVD-by-mail market, Netflix was forced to:
answer
cut prices and increase spending on advertising.
question
Netflix's decision to unbundle the single fee for its $10 base service into two separate $8 plans for DVD-by-mail and streaming over the Internet proved to be beneficial to the firm.
answer
False
question
One of the advantages of solid state electronics is that:
answer
they consume less power.
question
As the world's largest chain of coffee houses, Starbucks sources most of its raw materials such as coffee beans and vegetables from suppliers owned by it. It also holds equal or majority stakes in most of the foreign direct investment it carries out in other countries to set up franchisee coffee shops. Based on this information, Starbucks can be said to be:
answer
vertically integrated.
question
Costs that do not vary according to production volume are called _____.
answer
fixed costs.
question
_____ is a phenomenon where electrons slide off their pathways, and presents an obstacle to the continuance of Moore's Law.
answer
Quantum tunneling
question
Layers
answer
Hardware, Operating System, Application, User
question
Desktop Software vs. Enterprise Software
answer
Desktop software are software applications installed on a personal computer, typically by a single user. Enterprise software are applications that address the needs of multiple users throughout an organization or work group.
question
Employees, at their own initiative, can go to SocialText or Google Sites and set up a wiki, WordPress to start blogging, or subscribe to a SaaS offering like SalesForce.com, all without corporate oversight and approval. This _____ of technology is one of the challenges associated with the adoption of SaaS models.
answer
consumerization
question
Ensuring that an organization's systems operate within required legal constraints, and industry and organizational obligations results in:
answer
compliance.
question
Firms using SaaS products can dramatically lower several costs associated with the care and feeding of their information systems.
answer
True
question
A PC, laptop, or any other small computer can be set up to run server software.
answer
True
question
The customization options that managers and businesses demand in computers are provided by the:
answer
flexibility of the hardware/software layer cake.
question
Which of the following is one of the benefits enjoyed by SaaS vendors?
answer
Lower distribution costs, limiting development to a single platform, tighter feedback loop with clients, instant deployability to fix bugs, reduced risk of software piracy.
question
Java is not optimized to take advantage of interface elements specific to the Mac or Windows operating systems. As a result:
answer
Java is unsuitable for desktop applications.
question
_____ refer(s) to special-purpose software designed and included inside physical products.
answer
Embedded systems
question
_____ and ____ are some of the commercial equivalents of SugarCRM and Asterix respectively.
answer
Salesforce.com; Cisco
question
Which of the following is one of the functions of firmware?
answer
Loading a computing device's operating system from disk
question
_____ is a language used to create and manipulate databases.
answer
SQL
question
SaaS offerings usually work well when the bulk of computing happens at the client end of a distributed system.
answer
False
question
Which of the following factors should a manager consider while making a make, buy, or rent decision?
answer
Contingency plans for vendor failure
question
All of the costs associated with the design, development, testing, implementation, documentation, training and maintenance of a software system are collectively termed as:
answer
total cost of ownership.
question
Vendors who use open source as part of their product offerings can expect to bring new products to the market faster because:
answer
they can skip whole segments of the software development process.
question
What are the implications for firms without common database systems with consistent formats across their enterprise?
answer
They struggle to manage their value chain efficiently.
question
An application server is software that
answer
houses and serves business logic for use by multiple applications.
question
Firms that adopt software as a service actually buy a system's software and hardware, so these systems become a fixed operating expense.
answer
False
question
Standardizing business processes in software that others can buy means that those functions are difficult for competitors to match.
answer
False
question
Salesforce.com offers systems that organize, automate, and synchronize activities related to sales, marketing, and client support. These systems serve the purpose of:
answer
customer relationship management
question
Which of the following languages are interpreted languages?
answer
Scripting languages
question
The more application software that is available for a platform, the less valuable it potentially becomes.
answer
False
question
_____ is an application that includes an editor that serves as a programmer's word processor, a debugger, and a compiler, among other tools.
answer
Integrated development environment
question
One of the risks associated with SaaS is the:
answer
dependence on a single vendor.
question
Linux is one of the most used operating systems in desktop computers, but can be found only in a tiny fraction of mobile phones, and consumer electronics.
answer
False
question
The LAMP stack of open source products is used:
answer
to power many of the Internet's most popular Web sites.
question
Complete the analogy: Server- Apache HTTP Server; Client- _____
answer
Internet Explorer
question
A server running _____ can create smaller compartments in memory that each behave as a separate computer with its own operating system and resources.
answer
virtualization software
question
A _____ refers to a firm that offers third-party software-replacing services that are delivered online.
answer
hosted software vendor
question
The cost of producing an additional unit of a product is known as its:
answer
marginal cost
question
Benefits of OSS
answer
cost (free), reliability, security, scalability, agility and time to the market
question
Heirarchy of data sizes:
answer
bit, byte, kilobyte, megabyte, gigabyte, terabyte
question
LAMP
answer
Linux, Apache, MySQL, Perl
Electronic Medical Records
Infrastructure As A Service
Open Source Software
Resource Based View
Software As A Service
Structured Query Language
Transaction Processing System
User Interface Design
BADM 350 Quiz 1 – Flashcards 49 terms

Lesly Ford
49 terms
Preview
BADM 350 Quiz 1 – Flashcards
question
The _____ department in an organization not only ensures that systems get built and keep running but also take on strategic roles targeted at proposing solutions for how technology can give the firm a competitive edge.
answer
Information Technology
question
Data analytics and business intelligence are driving discovery and innovation. (T/F)
answer
True
question
The phrase _____ is often used to describe the trend of putting "smarts" (meaning computing and telecommunications technology) putting into everyday products such as lamps, watches, thermostats, and door locks; as well as embedding tech into industrial goods.
answer
internet of things
question
A firm's financial performance that consistently outperforms its industry's peers is known as _____.
answer
sustainable competitive advantage
question
One of the key questions posed by 21st century managers is "How can we possibly compete when everyone can copy our technology and the competition is a click away?" One path to take involves creating a resource or set of resources for sustainable competitive advantage. List the four characteristics that such resources must have for the possibility of sustainable competitive advantage to exist. Why is it important to have all four simultaneously? (Hint: resource-based view )
answer
1. Value 2. Rare 3. Imperfectly Imitable 4. Non-Sustainable
question
List down Porter's five forces?
answer
a. Competitive rivalry b. Threat of substitutes c. Threat of new entrants d. Bargaining power of suppliers e. Bargaining power of buyers
question
Startup firms can struggle to gain lower prices from rivals, but FreshDirect seems to have found several ways to gain lower supplier prices. FreshDirect buys direct from suppliers, eliminating any markup from a middleman. In addition to this, the firm employs other methods to get lower prices from suppliers. Which of the following is not a way FreshDirect helps suppliers in exchange for supplier agreement to offer it better pricing terms?
answer
FreshDirect shares warehouse space with farmers and livestock producers
question
Outsourcing production to third-party firms is called________.
answer
Contract Manufacturing
question
Small chip-based tags that wirelessly emit a unique identifying code for the item that they are attached to are called _____.
answer
RFID
question
10. Zara holds a competitive advantage over its rivals in spite of:
answer
Keeping large portions of its production processes in-house.
question
How does Zara differ from its competitors in converting ideas into products?
answer
Zara concepts appear in stores in fifteen days on average compared to rivals who receive new styles once or twice a season.
question
The strengthening of the euro relative to the dollar has insulated Zara against financial vulnerabilities. (T/F)
answer
False
question
Which of the following is true of Netflix?
answer
It began as a DVD subscription model and then simultaneously introduced a video streaming subscription while maintaining the legacy business.
question
Netflix offered its subscribers a selection of over one hundred thousand DVD-by-mail titles, while other video rental firms can only offer as much as three thousand. This presents a significant _____ for Netflix over its rivals.
answer
Scale advantage
question
Collaborative filtering is a classification of software that:
answer
monitors trends among customers to personalize an individual customer's experience.
question
Even if Netflix gave Cinematch (recommendation software) away to its rivals, they would still not be able to make the same kind of accurate recommendations as Netflix. This is because of Netflix's _____.
answer
data advantage
question
Crowdsourcing is
answer
the act of taking a job traditionally performed by a designated agent and contracting it out to an undefined generally large group of people in the form of an open call.
question
How is scale important to Netflix streaming business?
answer
a. A larger firm with more customers can spend more on content licenses b. The firm can build larger data centers as it competes with the likes of Amazon Prime c. Netflix can continue to expand its network of nationwide distribution centers to overseas locations d. It will allow the firm to improve the marginal cost of its titles, which will also improve profitability e. All of the above
question
Computer hardware refers to:
answer
the physical components of information technology.
question
Which of the following is an example of computer hardware?
answer
A video game console
question
_____ refers to a precise set of instructions that tell the computer hardware what to do.
answer
Software
question
If a computer system can be equated to a layered cake, which of the following combinations represents the computer system in the bottom-to-top order?
answer
Hardware, operating system, application, user
question
Which of the following is an operating system?
answer
Linux
question
When referring to the 'software layer cake' model, Microsoft Office, Angry Birds, and MySQL are all _____.
answer
Applications
question
When referring to the 'software layer cake' model, Android, Windows, and iOS are all ___
answer
operating systems
question
Which of the following is one of the reasons for the failure of technology projects?
answer
Inadequate testing of systems before deployment
question
_____ refers to software that is free and where anyone to look at and potentially modify the code.
answer
Open source software
question
Which of the following sets of software represents the constituents of the LAMP stack?
answer
Linux, Apache, MySQL, Python
question
Open source software products often have fewer bugs than their commercial counterparts because of the:
answer
large number of persons who have looked at the code.
question
Vendors who use open source as part of their product offerings can expect to bring new products to the market faster because:
answer
they can skip whole segments of the software development process.
question
Less popular open source products are not likely to attract the community of users and contributors necessary to help improve these products over time. This situation reiterates the belief that _____ are a key to success.
answer
network effects
question
Oracle, a firm that sells commercial ERP and database products, provides Linux for free, selling high-margin Linux support contracts for as much as five hundred thousand dollars. Oracle's motivation for this lies in:
answer
using open source software to wean customers away from competitors.
question
Cloud computing refers to:
answer
replacing computing resources with services provided over the Internet.
question
Which of the following is true of software as a service (SaaS)?
answer
It refers to software that is made available by a third-party online.
question
One of the risks associated with SaaS is the:
answer
dependence on a single vendor.
question
In _______, clients can select their own operating systems, development environments, underlying applications like databases, or other software packages, while the cloud firm usually manages the infrastructure.
answer
IAAS (infrastructure as a service)
question
______ is the general term used to describe the massive amount of data available to today's managers. (Hint: 3 V's)
answer
Volume
question
_______ refers to type of artificial intelligence that leverages massive amounts of data so that computers can improve the accuracy of actions and predictions on their own without additional programming
answer
Machine learning
question
Data becomes _____ when it is presented in a context so that it can answer a question or support decision making.
answer
knowledge
question
Knowledge is defined as:
answer
data presented in a context so that it can answer a question or support decision making.
question
_____ are the most common standard for expressing databases, whereby tables (files) are related based on common keys.
answer
Entities
question
Database technology known by the term _____ is especially popular with Internet firms that rely on massive, unwieldy, and disparately structured data; and this technology is often at the heart of what are often characterized as "big data" efforts.
answer
NO SQL
question
If a customer pays a retailer in cash, he is likely to remain a mystery to the retailer because his name is not attached to the money. Retailers can tie the customer to cash transactions and track the customer's activity if they can convince the customer to use a _____.
answer
loyalty card
question
The three Vs of "Big Data" are _________; characteristics that distinguish it from conventional data analysis problems and require a new breed of technology.
answer
volume, velocity, and variety
question
The open-source project known as ______ was created to analyze massive amounts of raw information better than traditional, highly structured databases.
answer
HADOOP
question
Which of the following is not considered an advantage of Hadoop?
answer
relational structure
question
_____ is the process of using computers to identify hidden patterns in and to build models from large data sets.
answer
Data mining
question
Consider database Products (ProductName, Price, CategoryID) Output - Each product name with its price in cents - Also mark the products with price >10$ and category='beverage' as 'expensive' and others as 'reasonable'
answer
SELECT productname, price*100, 'expensive' FROM products WHERE price>10 and categoryID='beverage' UNION SELECT productname, price*100, 'reasonable' FROM products WHERE price<=10 OR categoryID'beverage'
question
What are the four data mining functions that data scientist can apply in their analysis?
answer
-Mining frequent patterns, associations, and correlations - Cluster Analysis -Outliers Analysis -Classification and regression for predictive analysis
Direct Patient Care
Electronic Medical Records
Health Computing
Healthcare Reimbursement
Store And Forward
Reimbursement – Final – Flashcards 212 terms

Matilda Campbell
212 terms
Preview
Reimbursement – Final – Flashcards
question
Information technology includes the use of computers, communications ___________, and computer literacy. a. data controls b. networks c. tags d. none of the above
answer
b
question
An electronic device that can accept data as input, process it according to a program, store it, and produce information as output is called a/an ___________. a. adding machine b. calculator c. computer d. copy machine
answer
c
question
Step by step instructions are called a ___________. a. menu b. program c. computer d. copy machine
answer
b
question
A __________ is a computer continued in a touch screen. a. supercomputer b. tablet c. mainframe d. none of the above
answer
b
question
A tiny ___________ can be put into a human being and can dispense medication among other things. a. Embedded computer b. personal digital assistant (PDA) c. supercomputer d. all of the above
answer
a
question
__________ take data that humans understand and digitize it, that is, translate it into binary form of ones and zeroes. a. input devices b. output devices c. storage devices d. none of the above
answer
a
question
A/an __________ manipulates data, doing arithmetic or logical operations on it. a. input device b. output device c. processing unit d. storage device
answer
c
question
____________ identifies people by their body parts. It includes fingerprints, handprints, face recognition, and iris scans. a. biometrics b. all security systems c. both a and b d. none of the above
answer
a
question
In the United states, what is healthcare insurance? a. Federal program to provide medical care and services indigent US citizens b. State programs to provide medical care and services to deserving individuals c. Reduction of a person's or a group's exposure to risk for unknown healthcare costs by the assumption of that risk by an entity d. Set of negotiated guarantees that all healthcare expenses of a risk pool will be covered by employers
answer
c
question
The physician's office sent a request for payment to United Insurance Company. The term used in the healthcare industry for this request for payment is a: a. allowance b. charge c. claim d. contracted amount
answer
c
question
A patient saw a neurosurgeon for treatment of a nerve that was severed during a workplace accident. The patient works for Acme manufacturing company where the accident occurred. Acme carries workers' comp insurance. Which entity is the "third party" and will pay the neurosurgeon fees? a. acme manufacturing b. neurosurgeon c. patient d. workers comp insurance
answer
d
question
In which type of reimbursement methodology do healthcare insurance companies reimburse providers after the costs have been incurred? a. prospective payment b. per diem payment c. retrospective payment d. global payment
answer
c.
question
In the healthcare industry, what is the term for receiving compensation for healthcare services? a. actuarial compensation b. accounts payable c. global payment d. reimbursement
answer
d
question
The financial manager of the physician group practice explained that the third party payer would be reimbursing the practice for its treatment of the exacerbation of COPD that Mrs. Jones experienced. The exacerbation, treatment, and resolution covered approximately five weeks. The payment covered all the services that Mrs. Jones incurred during the period. What method of reimbursement is being used? a. traditional b. episode of care c. per diem d. fee for service
answer
b
question
The health plan reimburses Dr. Smith $20 per patient per month. In January, Dr. Smith saw 200 patients, but he received $5000 from the health plan. What method is the health plan using to reimburse Dr. Smith? a. traditional retrospective b. capitated rate c. relative value d. discounted fee schedule
answer
b
question
To which of the following factors is health insurance status most closely linked? a. community rating b. demographics c. employment d. historical context
answer
c
question
In which type of reimbursement methodology does the health insurance company have the greatest degree of risk? a. capitated payment b. global payment c. block grant d. retrospective
answer
d
question
Which of the four models for health systems predominates in the United States? a. social insurance (Bismark) model b. national health service (beveridge) model c. national health insurance model d. private health insurance model
answer
d
question
In which type of healthcare payment method does the healthcare plan pay for each service that a provider renders? a. episode of care b. block grant c. fee for service reimbursement d. global payment
answer
c
question
In the healthcare industry, what is another term for charge? a. capitated rate b. contractual allowance c. fee d. reimbursement
answer
c
question
In the accounting system of the physician office, the account is categorized as "self pay". How should the insurance analyst interpret this category? a. The guarantor will pay the entire bill b. The physician, himself or herself, will pick up the balance of the bill c. The employer's self insured healthcare insurance plan will cover the account. d. The patient will pay deductibles and non-covered charges
answer
a
question
What is the term for a predetermined list of charges? a. fee schedule b. chart of accounts c. line item register d. claim inventory
answer
a
question
How could a group of physicians increase the monthly payments the group receives from a healthcare plan that uses capitation? a. renegotiate the contract b. refer patients to physicians outside the group c. increase the volume of services per patient per visit d. augment the complexity of services per visit
answer
a
question
In its payment notice (remittance advice), the healthcare plan lists that the payment for the individual laboratory test is $39.00. The bill that the pathologist's office submitted for the laboratory test was $45.00. What does the amount of $39.00 represent? a. cost b. allowable fee c. premium d. capitated rate
answer
b
question
Which healthcare payment method does Medicare use to reimburse physicians based on the cost of providing services in terms of effort, overhead, and malpractice insurance? a. global payment b. capitated rate c. CPR d. resource based relative value scale
answer
d
question
In the US health system, which payer has the greatest influence on payment methods? a. State of California b. Federal government c. Medicare payment advisory commission d. universal coverage
answer
b
question
In which type of healthcare payment method does the healthcare plan oversee both the costs of healthcare and the outcomes of care? a. traditional retrospective b. case based c. resource based relative value scale d. managed care
answer
d
question
In which type of healthcare payment method, does the healthcare plan recompense providers each month with a set amount of money for each individual enrolled in the healthcare plan. a. traditional retrospective b. capitated rate c. relative value d. discounted fee schedule
answer
b
question
Medicare's payment system for home health services consolidates all types of services, such as speech, physical, and OT into a single lump sum payment. What type of healthcare payment method does this lump sum payment represent? a. global payment b. capitated rate c. CPR d. resource based relative value scale
answer
a
question
In which type of healthcare payment method does the healthcare plan recompense providers with a fixed rate for each day a covered member is hospitalized? a. traditional b. episode of care c. per diem d. fee for service
answer
c
question
From the patient's healthcare insurance plan, the rehabilitation facility received a fixed, pre-established payment for the patient rehabilitation after a total knew replacement. What type of healthcare payment method was the patient's healthcare insurance plan using? a. traditional retrospective b. case based c. resource based relative value scale d. managed care
answer
b
question
The coding system that is used primarily for reporting diagnoses for hospital inpatients is known as: a. CPT b. ICD-9-CM c. ICD-10PCS d. HCPCS Level II
answer
b
question
Which of the following coding systems was created for reporting procedures and services performed by physicians in clinical practice? a. CPT b. IC-9-CM c. ICD-10-PCS d. HCPCS Level II
answer
a
question
Under MS-DRGs all of the following factors influence a facility's case mix index, except: a. the productivity standard for coders b. changes in services offered by the facility c. changes made by CMS to MS DRG relative weights d. accuracy of documentation and coding
answer
a
question
Which of the following is not a reason to perform case-mix analysis? a. analyze reimbursement fluctuations b. determine the correct MS DRG assignment for an encounter c. describe a population to be served d. identify differences in practice patterns or coding complexity e. none of the above
answer
b
question
The practice of under coding can affect a hospital's MS DRG case mix in which of the following ways? a. makes it lower than warranted by the actual service/resource intensity of the facility b. makes it higher than warranted by the actual service/resource intensity of the facility c. does not affect the hospital's MS DRG case mix d. coding has nothing to do with a hospital's MS DRG case mix
answer
a
question
The policies and procedures section of a coding compliance plan should include: a. physician query process b. unbundling c. assignment of discharge destination codes d. all of the above
answer
d
question
Recovery Audit Contractors are different from other improper payment review contractors because: a. RACs audit inpatient and outpatient claims b. RACs are charged with finding overpayment and underpayments c. RACs are reimbursed on a contingency based system d. all of the above
answer
c
question
All of the following entities are voluntary healthcare insurance except: a. private healthcare insurance plans b. commercial healthcare ins. plans c. health alliance plan d. workman's compensation
answer
d
question
Which of the following entities is also known as a "group plan"? a. a. employer based healthcare insurance plan b. health alliance plan c. private individual healthcare insurance plan d. Medicaid
answer
a
question
Which of the following characteristics is the greatest advantage of group healthcare insurance? a. more stringent preexisting condition restrictions b. greater benefits for lower premiums c. larger risk pool d. higher out of pocket expenses
answer
b
question
In regards to healthcare insurance, the percentage that the guarantor pays is called the: a. guaranteed amount b. deductible c. copayment d. coinsurance
answer
d
question
which of the following services has the highest likelihood of being a "covered service"? a. preexisting condition b. experimental c. medically necessary d. cosmetic
answer
c
question
The guarantor had paid $2000 as coinsurance on various medical bills. Per the healthcare insurance policy, the healthcare insurance plan would not pay 100 percent of remaining bills with no coinsurance being assessed to the guarantor. What type of provision does this clause in the policy represent? a. stop loss benefit b. maximum out of pocket cost c. catastrophic expense limit d. all of the above
answer
d
question
What is the term for the contract between the healthcare insurance company and the individual or group for whom the company is assuming the risk? a. benefit b. policy c. rider d. carve out
answer
b
question
All of the following are cost sharing provisions except: a. guarantor formulary c coinsurance d. deductible
answer
a
question
Which part of the Medicare program was created under the Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA)? a. part A b. part B c. Part C d. Part D
answer
d
question
The program TRICARE, which provides coverage for the dependents of active members of the armed forces, was formerly known as: a. CHAMPVA b. CHAMPUS c. health e vets d. USA pride
answer
b
question
Which government sponsored program replaced the Aid to Families with Dependent children (AFDC program in 1996? a. Medicare part A b. state children's health insurance program (CHIP) c. women infants and children (WIC) d. temporary assistance for needy families program (TANF
answer
d
question
Which of the following is not a function of the Indian Health Services (IHS)? a. assists in the development of their own health programs b. facilitates and assists in coordinating health planning c. provides only telemedicine healthcare services d. promotes using health resources available at federal, state and local levels
answer
c
question
The civilian health and medical program of the department of veterans affairs (CHAMPVA) is available for: a. veterans of the armed forces b. spouse or widow of a veteran meeting specific criteria c. children of a veteran meeting specific criteria d. any spouse, widower or children of a veteran e. B and C
answer
e
question
Which of the following is not true of CHIP? a. it is a state/local program b. It is a federal/state program c. It varies from state to state d. none of the above
answer
a
question
The Medicare program is divided into ______ parts. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 26
answer
b
question
Medicare part C is a _____ option known as Medicare advantage. a. free b. retrospective fee for service c. self insured managed care
answer
d
question
all of the following are true of state Medicaid programs except: a. federal funds allocated to each state are based on the average family size b. the program must cover infants born to Medicaid eligible pregnant women c. states may offer a managed care option d. services offered to beneficiary vary per state
answer
a
question
A common error that providers make when submitting claims is: a not spelling name correctly or using nickname b. inverted numbers in a social security number c. failure to check box for assignment of benefits d. A and B e. all of the above
answer
e
question
A document issued by an insurance company providing details such as patient name, name of provider, allowable charges, write offs and rejection and denial codes is referred to as an: a. EOB b. NPP c. UBO4 d. EFT
answer
a
question
A 26 year old healthy patient is involved in a car accident driving to work one morning. The primary insurance responsible for the costs for this episode of care will be: a. workman's comp b. patients automobile insurance c. Medicare d. PACE
answer
b
question
This information system uses computers to manage both laboratory tests and their results: a. pathologic b. financial c. administrative d. laboratory
answer
d
question
Responsible for overseeing the adoption and meaningful use of EHRs setting standards, and judging the impact: a. office of the national coordinator b. HL7 c. joint commission d. institute of medicine
answer
a
question
A longitudinal electronic record of patient health information that is generated by multiple licensed providers in any care delivery setting: a. EMR b. PHR c. EHR d. HCPCS
answer
c
question
Considered the building b locks of a national health information network: a. RHIOs b. HIEs c. ISOs d. A and B e. all of the above
answer
d
question
PACS i8s associated with which information system: a. pathology b. clinical c. radiology d. administrative
answer
c
question
The original purpose of HIPAA was to: a. make health information portable from one physician to another b. create 15 forms through the administration simplification act c. allow for health insurance portability between jobs d. all of the above
answer
c
question
Protected health information that is senty over the internet should be this: a. De-identified b. encrypted c. A and B d. PHI should never be sent over the internet
answer
b
question
Practices submit electronic claims to this business, which does a preliminary check of information prior to sending to the various insurance carriers: a. clearinghouse b. covered entity c. third party payer d. CMS
answer
a
question
Generated by a practice management system to show patient's outstanding balances: a. patient day sheet b. procedure day sheet c. practice analysis report d. patient aging report
answer
d
question
Which of the following is NOT a transaction: a. charges b. fee schedule c. payments d. adjustments
answer
b
question
Technology used in teleradiology is called: a. store and receive b.store and forward c.scanning d.Bluetooth
answer
b
question
Technology used to link electronic devices such as a pacemaker with a cell phone: a. a. teleconferencing b. fiber optic cables c. blue tooth d. none of the above
answer
c
question
Which of the following conditions has been found to benefit from teleneurology: a. CVAs b. epilepsy c. Parkinson disease d. all of the above
answer
d
question
When a physician provides a telemedicine consultation to a patient using a video camera and a telecommunications link, he is using which form of technology: a. store and forward b. teleconferencing c. VISTA d. SATELIFE
answer
b
question
In which type of HMO are the physicians employees? a. group model b. independent practice association (IPA) model c. staff model d. network model
answer
c
question
Why did Congress pass the health maintenance organization act of 1973 a. To deter the privatization of the Blue cross plans b. to increase the number of physicians in primary care c. to encourage the delivery of affordable, quality healthcare d. to standardize the costs of healthcare across the nation
answer
c
question
All of the following are characteristics of managed care organizations except: a. coordination of care across the continuum b. integration of financing and delivery of health c. management of costs and outcomes d. freedom of choice and autonomous decision making
answer
d
question
Access to mental or behavioral health or medical specialists is through referral. What is the term for the individual who makes the referral? a. gatekeeper b. primary care physician c. primary care practitioner d. all of the above e. none of the above
answer
d
question
All of the following are characteristics of disease management except: a. focus on single specialist for acute disease b. prevention of exacerbations of chronic disease c. promotion of healthy life choices d. monitoring of adherence to treatment plans
answer
a
question
All of the following are tools managed care organizations use to promote quality care in their healthcare plans except: a. discernment in selection of providers b. emphasis on health of populations c. incentive to meet fiscal targets d. maintenance of accreditation
answer
c
question
Which of the following services is most likely to be considered medically necessary? a. caregivers convenience or relief b. cosmetic improvement c. investigational cancer prevention d. standard of care for health condition
answer
d
question
What is the term that means evaluating, for a healthcare service, the appropriateness of its setting and its level of service? a. coordination of service benefits b. community rating c. outcomes assessment d. utilization review
answer
d
question
all of the following services are typically reviewed for medical necessity and utilization except: a. inpatient admissions b. mental health and chemical dependency care c. rehabilitative therapies d. well baby check
answer
d
question
Gatekeepers determine the appropriateness of all of the following components except: a. rate of capitation or reimbursement b. healthcare service itself c. level of healthcare personnel d. setting in the continuum of care
answer
a
question
The patient belonged to a managed care plan. Prior approval for the surgery was received. What number should the insurance analyst record? a. credit score b. drug enforcement administration c. precertification d. social security
answer
c
question
The patient belonged to a managed care plan. The patient had an elective surgery. Prior approval for the elective surgery had not been obtained. What should the patient expect? a. delay in scheduling the post operative visit b. reduction in future coverage of surgical services c. denial of reimbursement for the surgery d. increase in premium for the next enrollment period
answer
c
question
For what type of care should the physician practice manager expect to work with a case manager? a. acute appendicitis b. pre athletics exam c. well baby check d. workers compensation
answer
d
question
All of the following are elements of prescription management except: a. links to electronic banking b. formulary c. patient education d. alerts for interactions
answer
a
question
All of the following attributes characterize episode of care reimbursement except: a. capitation b. global payment c. retrospective fee for service d. aggregation of utilization of health members and chronically ill members
answer
c
question
The primary care physician did not meet the MCOs target for counseling cardiac patients about smoking cessation. The primary care physician could expect any of the following results except: a. bonus b. exemption from the surplus withholds c. loss of physician contingency reserve d. reduction in salary
answer
a
question
The patient belongs to a managed care plan. The patient wants to make an appointment with an out of network specialist. The plan has approved the appointment as out of plan. What should the patient expect? a. the front office of the out of network specialist will delay and obstruct the making of the appointment b. the patients out of pocket costs for the out of plan appointment will be equal to the out of pocket costs for in plan care because the prior notification was completed. c. The patient's out of pocket costs will be increased d. the patient can permanently transfer his or her care to the out of plan specialist because the initial appointment was approved
answer
c
question
What is meant by the phrase "point of service" in "point of service healthcare insurance plan"? a. charges are captured at the site and time they are incurred. b. decision making is decentralized to the primary care providers who are empowered to determine the care across the continuum during the encounter c. computer linkages allow immediate decisions during an encounter regarding approvals or denials across the entire IDS d. members choose the reimbursement model (HMO, PPO, fee for service)when they need healthcare services rather than during the open enrollment period
answer
d
question
What is the term for an MCO that serves Medicare beneficiaries? a. part A b. social foundation c. Medicare advantage d. exclusive provider organization
answer
c
question
In the 1970s, what factors affected the Medicare program? a. the increase in Medicare expenditures for inpatient hospital care jeopardized Medicare's ability to fund other health programs b. deductibles had remained stagnant, generating insufficient income c. increased incomes of US citizens and concomitantly, their increased payroll deductions paid into the Medicare program assured its financial solvency d. The clear and succinct cost based reporting requirements generated enthusiasm for the Medicare program in the provider community
answer
a
question
Which of the following points is a guideline for the acute hospital prospective payment system? a. incentive for cost control because hospitals retain profits or suffer losses based on differences between payment rate and actual costs b. retrospective, charge based payment c. directly tied to past or current actual charges d. partial payments with add-ons for severity of illness
answer
a
question
What is the average of the sum of the relative weights of all patients treated during a specified time period? a. case mix index b. mean qualifier c. outlier pool d. share
answer
a
question
The MS DRG payment includes reimbursement for all of the following inpatient services except: a. medications b. progress notes c. laboratory tests d. dressings and other supplies
answer
b
question
Select the highest level of the IPPS hierarchy: a. diagnosis related group b. major diagnostic category c. multiple significant trauma d. surgical section
answer
b
question
What is the general term for software that assigns inpatient diagnosis related groups? a. aligner b. encoder c. grouper d. scrubber
answer
c
question
What is Medicare's term for a facility with a high percentage of low income patients? a. disproportionate share hospital b. financial hardship hospital c. percentage income payment facility d. underserved facility
answer
a
question
What condition does CMS require be me for a facility to receive the indirect medical education adjustment? a. medical residents in an approved graduate medical education program b. medical residents and nurses in approved educational programs c. medical residents, nurses, and allied health personn3el in approved educational programs d. any type of health personnel in training including the above listed types s well as other types, such as medical social workers, pharmacists, dentists, recreational and music therapists, and child and family development specialists
answer
a
question
In MS DRGs what does the case mix index signify? a. consumption of resources b. difficulty of treatment c. prognosis d. risk or mortality
answer
a
question
In the IPPS, what is the term for each hospital's unique standardized amount based on its costs per Medicare discharge? a. base payment rate b. carrier amount c. cost outlier d. diagnosis related group
answer
a
question
What is the basis of the "labor related share"? a. cost of living adjustment b. facilities costs related to payrolls, benefits, and professional fees c. market basket index d. disproportionate share percentage
answer
b
question
Which of the following is not a provision of the IPPS? a. disproportionate share hospital adjustment b. high cost outlier c. indirect medical education d. length of stay outlier
answer
d
question
Under the IPF IPPS which states are included in the cost of living adjustment (COLA)? a. Alaska and Hawaii b. California and Alaska c. California and Hawaii d. Hawaii and new York
answer
a
question
Medicare inpatient reimbursement levels are based on: a. charges accumulated during the episode of care b. CPT codes reported during the encounter c. MS DRG calculated for the encounter d. usual and customary charges reported during the encounter
answer
c
question
What is the term for an index based on relative differences in the cost of a market basket of goods across bundle b. cost to charge c. CPI d. GPCI
answer
d
question
All of the following elements are used to calculate a Medicare payment under RBRVS except: a. work value b. malpractice expenses c. extent of the physical exam d. practice expenses
answer
c
question
Which one of the following statements characterized the RBRVS payment system? a.one intent of the RBRVS payment system was to decrease the number of family practitioners b. ICD-9-CM codes trigger payment in the RBRVS payment system c. RVUs can easily be rescaled as changes in technology occur d. RBRVS payment system reflects the skill and resources required for each procedure
answer
d
question
Which element of the RVU accounts for the costs of the medical practice, such as office rent, wages of non physician personnel, and supplies and equipment? a. extent of the physical exam b. malpractice expenses c. practice expenses d. work value
answer
c
question
All of the following items are packaged under the Medicare Hospital outpatient prospective payment system (OPPS) except: a. recovery room b. supplies, other than pass through c. anesthesia d. medical visits
answer
d
question
which of the following statements is true about APCs? a. APCs are based solely on the patient's principal diagnosis b. ICD-9-CM procedure codes are used to group patients c. severity of illness is taken into consideration when grouping APCs d. APCs are based on the CPT or HCPCS code reported
answer
d
question
Medicare certified ASCs must accept assignment, meaning: a. an ASC can balance bill the patient after Medicare has paid their portion of the bill b. An ASC can charge a Medicare patient more than other patients c. An ASC bills the Medicare patient for a 40 percent copayment and any deductible that is required d. An ASC must accept Medicare payment as payment in full
answer
d
question
This PPS has been adopted for use by many third party payers (that is, Medicaid) for reimbursement of outpatient visits. It is not the methodology used by Medicare. a. ASC (ambulatory surgery centers) groups b. APGs (ambulatory patient groups) c. DRGs (Diagnosis related groups d. APCs (ambulatory payment classifications
answer
b
question
Under the OPPS, outpatient services that are similar both clinically and in use of resources are assigned to separate groups called _______. a. APCs b. APR-DRGs c. APGs d. DRGs e. none of the above
answer
a
question
When analyzing a facilities case mix index, a low case mix can indicate what? a. inaccurate code assignments b. poor physician documentation c. more resources required for treatmebnt d. both A and B e. all of the above
answer
d
question
Under the ambulance fee schedule, the ________ is used to determine the level of service for ground transport. a. EMS provider skill set used during the transport b. length of the transport in miles c. patients medical condition using ICD-9-CM diagnosis code d. type of transport vehicle
answer
a
question
When a patient is pronounced dead prior to an ambulance being called, which of the following payment provisions is followed under the ambulance fee schedule? a. no payment is made to the ambulance supplier/provider b. A BLS base rate for ground transport will be paid c. payment rules are the same as if the patient were alive d. 50 percent of the payment rate is paid
answer
a
question
46Under the ASC list, multiple procedures performed during the same surgical session are reimbursed at which of the following rate? a. all procedures receive full (100%) payment b. the procedure in the highest level group receives full payment and the remaining procedures receive half (50%) payment. c. the procedure in the lowest level group receives full payment and the remaining procedures receive half (50%) payment d. the procedure in the highest level group receives full payment and the remaining procedures receive one third (33%) payment
answer
b
question
Under the SNF PPS wghich one of the following healthcare services is excluded from the consolidated payment? a. laboratory tests b. routine cares c. medications d. radiation therapty
answer
d
question
Which classification system is used to case mix adjust the SNF payment rate? a. IRVEN b. geographic cost index c. resource utilization groups d. wage index
answer
c
question
What is not a consequence of an outdated charge description master? a. lost reimbursement b. claim rejections c. timely claims reimbursement d. overpayment
answer
c
question
The therapist in the skilled nursing facility is treating multiple patients who are each performing different therapies. How does CMS classify this mode of delivery? a. concurrent b. group c. individual d. modalitic
answer
a
question
In the PAC payment systems, which tool does CMS use to adjust its payment rates to account for geographic variations in costs? a. national episode amount b. neutrality adjustor c. cost reports d. market basket
answer
d
question
In which of the PAC payment systems is the unit of payment the 60 day episode of care? a. skilled nursing facility b. long term care hospital inpatient rehavilitation facility d. home health agency
answer
d
question
Generally, what is the average length of stay of long term care hospitals? a. more than 15 days b. more than 25 days c. more than 30 days d. more than 60 days
answer
b
question
CMS analysts divide SNF admissions into upper and lower categories. Which of the following categories requires the residents admission to be justified on an individual basis? a. reduced physical function b. rehabilitation and extensive c. clinically complex d. special care
answer
a
question
Patients with all the following conditions are appropriate candidates for LTCHs except: a. acute myocardial infarction b. chronic tuberculosis c. sequelae of head trauma d. vehnilator dependent emphysema
answer
a
question
In terms of their composition, hjow tdo the groups of the MS LTC DRGs compare to the groups of the acute care MS DRGs? a. fewer groups with wider range of conditions in each b. exactly the same c. refined with greater specificity d. none of the above
answer
b
question
In terms of grouping and reimbursement how are the MS LTC DRGs and acute care MS DRGs similar? a. relative weights b. based on principal diagnosis c. categorization of low volume groups into quintiles d. classification of short stay outliers
answer
b
question
In the LTCH PPS what is the standard federal rate? a. constant that converts the MS LTC DRG wight into a payment b. relative weight based on the market basket of goods c. geographic wage index d. adjustment mandated by the benefits improvement and protection act (BIPA) of 2000
answer
a
question
In the IRF PPS what 85 item tool collects the data that drives reimbursement? a. PAI b. MDS c. OASIS d. IGC-UHDDS
answer
a
question
All of the following elements are part of the IRF PPS except: a. major diagnostic category b. impairment group code c. rehabilitation impairment category d. patient assessment instrumentf
answer
a
question
To meet the definition of an IRF facilities must have an inpatient population with at lease a specified percentage of patients with certain conditions. Which of the following conditions is counted in the definition? a. brain injury b. chronic myclogenous leukemia c. acute myocardial infarction d. cancer
answer
a
question
All of the following types of diagnoses are used in the IRF PPS except: a. principal b. admitting c. etiologic d. complication or comorbidity
answer
a
question
In the IRF PPS what is the tool for data collection that drives payment? a. medicare provider analysis review b. inpatient rehabilitation validation and entry c. activities of daily living d. patient assessment instrument
answer
d
question
What data set provides the underpinning of the HHPPS? a. UHDDS b. MHDS c. OASIS d. HAVEN
answer
c
question
All of the following services are consolidated into a single payment under the HHPPS except: a. home health aide visits b. routine and nonroutine medical supplies c. durable medical equipment d. nursing and therapy services
answer
c
question
All of the following domains are part of the HHPPS case mix except: a. clinical severity b. functional status c. service utilization d. medical malpractice
answer
d
question
Which of the following is the definition of revenue cycle management? a. the regularly repeating set of events that produces revenue or income b. the method by which patients are grouped together based on a set of characteristics c. the systematic comparison of the products services, and outcomes of one organization with those of a similar organization d. coordination of all administrative and clinical functions that contribute to the capture, management, and collection of patient service revenue
answer
d
question
_____________ are programmable mannequins on which students can practice medical procedures a. human patient simulators b. virtual human beings c. virtual mannequins d. human mannequins
answer
a
question
For what variations in resource consumption does the HHPPS account? a. type of health personnel, such as nurse versus therapist b. labor versus non labor c. number of therapy visits by a therapist d. all of the above
answer
c
question
Which of the following elements is directly adjusted by the local wage index? a. labor portion b. OASIS c. national standard episode amount d. product
answer
a
question
In which of the PAC payment systems, is the adjusted rate multiplied by the patient's number of medicare days to determine the reimbursement amount? a. skilled nursing facility b. long term care hospital c. inpatient rehabilitation facility d. home health agency
answer
a
question
What is the term used in a rehabilitation facility to mean "a patient's ability to perform activities of daily living"? a. compliance threshold b. etiologic diagnosis c. functional status d. normalization
answer
c
question
All of the following elements are found in a charge description master, except: a. ICD-9-CM code b. procedure/service charge c. HCPCS/CPT code d. narrative description of procedure/service
answer
a
question
The term "hard coding" refers to: a. CPT codes that are coded by the coders b. CPT codes that appear in the hospital's charge master c. ICD-9-CM codes that are coded by the coders d. ICD-9-CM codes that appear in the hospital's charge master
answer
b
question
In healthcare settings, the record of the cash the facility will receive for the services it has provided is known as which of the following terms? a.dollars billed b. aging of accounts c. accounts receivable d. cash balance
answer
c
question
Healthcare facilities should think of the collection process as part of the complete billing process and should educate staff to the fact that not all money billed is a. pending b. charged c. reimbursable d. collected
answer
d
question
Aging of accounts is the practice of counting the days, generally in _____ increments, from the time a bill has been sent to the payer to the current day. a. 7 day b. 14 day c. 30 day d. 90 day
answer
c
question
Most facilities begin counting days in accounts receivable at which of the following times? a. the date the patients registers b. the date the patient is discharged c. the date the bill drops d. the date the bill is received by the payer
answer
c
question
The amount of money owed a healthcare facility when calims are pending is called: a. dollars in accounts receivable b. bad debt c. the write off account d. delayed revenue
answer
a
question
The dollar amount the facility actually bills for the services it provides is known as: a. cost b. charge c. reimbursement d. contractual allowance
answer
b
question
The difference between what is charged and what is paid is known as: a. costs b. charges c. reimbursement d. contractual allowance
answer
d
question
What is the name of the notice sent after the provider files a claim that details amounts billed by the provider, amounts approved by medicare, how much medicare paid, and what the patient must pay? a. EOB b. EOMB c. MSN d. ABN
answer
c
question
which is not a characteristic of the "old" RCM approach? a. proactive b. linear and unidirectional c. silo mentality d. front end and back end
answer
a
question
which of the following is not a function area of the revenue cycle? a. volunteer services b. patient financial services c. admitting d. medical record coding
answer
a
question
which entity is responsible for processing part A claims and hospital based Part B claims for institutional services on hebalf of medicare? a. medicare administrative contractor b. medicare carrier c. third party paryer d. claim editor
answer
a
question
which of the following is not used to reconcile accounts in the patient accounting department? a. explanation of benefits b. medicare code editor c. remittance advice d. medicare summary notice
answer
b
question
In a typical acute care setting, admitting is located in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections
answer
a
question
In a typical acute care setting, aging of accounts reports are monitored in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections
answer
c
question
In a typical acute care setting charge entry is located in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections
answer
b
question
In a typical acute care setting patient education of payment policies is located in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections
answer
a
question
In a typical acute care setting the EOB, Medicare summary notice, and remittance advice documents (provided by the payer) are monitored in which revenue cycle area? a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections
answer
d
question
In a typical acute care setting which revenue cycle area uses an internal auditing system (scrubber) to ensure that error free claims (clean claims) are submitted to third party payers a. pre claims submissions. b. claims processing c. accounts receivable d. claims reconciliation/collections
answer
b
question
In the United States, the __________ oversees the safety and efficacy of new medications a. federal drug administration b.. food and drug administration c. federal safety administration d. none of the above
answer
b
question
___________ requires drug companies to pay fees to support the drug review process a. prescription drug user fees act b. prescription drug and food act c. prescription drug understanding and food act d. none of the above
answer
a
question
__________ sees the human body as a collection of molecules and seeks to understand and treat disease in terms of these molecules a. bioinformatics b. medical computing c. biotechnology d. none of the above
answer
c
question
Developing drugs by design requires mapping the structure and creating a three dimensional graphical model of the target molecule. This is called ________ drug design. a. reasonable b. rational c. graphical d. none of the above
answer
b
question
__________ cells are cells that can develop into different types of body cells; theoretically, they can repair the body. a. stem b. developmental c. both A and B d. none of the above
answer
a
question
The ________ Project is an international project seeking to create mathematical models of human organs a. human model b. human physical c. human physiome d. none of the above
answer
c
question
________ (CPOE) can lower prescription errors a. computerized physician order entry system b. computer pharmacy order email system c. computer and physician email system d. none of the above
answer
a
question
Computer warning systems can be used to prevent _______ (ADEs). a. any deviant event b. adverse drug events c. any drug eventuality d. none of the above
answer
b
question
Centralized computerized pharmacies identify medications by their ___________j. a. color b. shape c. density d. barcode
answer
d
question
__________(RFID) tags include an antenna,, a decoder to interpret data, and the tag that includes information. The antenna sends signals. When the tag detects the signal, it sends back information. The tags can be used to keep track of anything including: a. response frequency identification b. radio pharmacy identification c. radio frequency identification d. none of the above
answer
c
question
_____________ involves using a computer, a network connection, and a drug dispensing unit to allow patients to obtain drugs outside of a traditional pharmacy, at for example, a doctor's office or clinic a. Telepharmacy b. phone pharmacy c. computer pharmacy d. none of the above
answer
a
question
Some medications can currently be delivered on an implanted _________ that is surgically implanted in a patient and releases the drug or drugs. a. barcode b. chip c. both A and B d. none of the above
answer
b
question
________ errors typically occur when a patient changes status - that is, is admitted to, moved within, or released from a hospital a. medication reconciliation b. surgical c. both a and b d. none of the above
answer
a
question
The electronic dental chart is standardized, easy to search, and easy to read. It will include _________. a. administrative applications b. the patients conditions c. treatments d. all of the above
answer
d
question
The fiber-optic camera is analogous to the _________ used in surgery. It is used to view an area that is normally difficult to see. a. endoscope b. knife c. robot d. none of the above
answer
a
question
In dentistry as in other fields, expert systems or __________ (CDSS) can help. a. clinical decision support systems b. clinical dentistry support systems c. computerized dentistry support systems d. none of the above
answer
a
question
Hospitals are beginning to use "electronic informed consent programs." __________ is used at the VA and at 190 US hospitals a. iconcent b emedconsent c. Imedconsent d. none of the above
answer
c
question
__________ among dentists is rising; for example, some dentists deal with geriatrics, others with diagnostics, and others with cosmetic dentistry a. the percent of generalists b. prevention c. specialization d.. none of the above
answer
c
question
__________ is currently used to diagnose cavities. An electric current is passed through a tooth and the tooth's resistance is measured. A decayed tooth has a different resistance reading than a healthy tooth a. electrical conductance b. current conductance c. electrical dentistry d. none of the above
answer
a
question
____________invasive dentistry emphasizes prevention and the least possible intervention a. less b. minimally c. maximally d. none of the above
answer
b
question
Teledentristry programs have been developed to help __________ a. fill cavities over the telephone b. dentists access specialists c. both A and B d. none of the above
answer
b
question
The ________ Project is a computerized library of human anatomy at the National library of medicine. a. visible human b. visible anatomy c. human anatomy d. none of the above
answer
a
question
A project called the _____________ is digitizing some of the 7,000 human embryos lost in miscarriages, which have been kept by the national museum of Health and medicine of the armed forces institute of pathology since the 1880s. a. visible embryo project b. virtual human c. virtual human embryo d. none of the above
answer
c
question
Program attached to another file which replicates itself and does damage to the host computer
answer
virus
question
regularly repeating set of events that produces cash flow
answer
revenue cycle
question
composit measure used to represent physician work, practice expenses, and malpractice fees
answer
relative value unit
question
assigned weight that reflects the relative resource consumption associated with a payment classification
answer
relative weight
question
amount of money periodically paid in return for healthcare insurance
answer
premium
question
determination of reimbursement based on a member's insurance benefits
answer
adjudication
question
outpatient classification system that groups patients by diagnosis and treatment for reimbursement purposes
answer
APC
question
amount adjusted for location, inflation, case mix, and other factors; unique to each facility
answer
base payment rate
question
fixed amount paid to provider per patient per set period/time frame
answer
capitation
question
single value that represents the complexity of illness of the organizations patient population
answer
case mix index
question
provides payment for outpatient drug coverage for an additional premium
answer
medicare part D
question
process of collecting all services, procedures, and supplies provided during patient care
answer
charge capture
question
cost sharing measure in which a set amount is paid per service
answer
copayment
question
provides payment for inpatient hospital services
answer
medicare part a
question
system that enables physicians to enter orders and prescriptions while comparing to external and internal databases for safety
answer
CPOE
question
cost sharing measure of an annual amount that must be paid out of pocket before benefits kick in
answer
deductible
question
list of preferred or approved drugs
answer
formulary
question
person ultimately responsible for paying final remainder of bill
answer
guarantor
question
Use of an EHR to achieve significant improvement in health services
answer
meaningful use
question
provision of insurance policy that requires policyholders to pay for a portion of their healthcare
answer
cost sharing
question
robot used in performing surgeries such as mitral valve repair and prostatectomies
answer
davinci
question
use of charge description master to code repetitive services
answer
hard coding
question
comprehensive online database of current medical research
answer
medline
question
database used to house the price list for services provided to patients can be used to automate charge capturing
answer
cmd
question
calculated list of charges, in an office setting generated based on third party payer contracted amounts and used to determine charges
answer
fee schedule