Life Science Test 3 Final Exam – Flashcards
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1. What term describes a harmless, noncancerous or precancerous tumor? A) benign B) carcinogenic C) lymphatic D) malignant E) metastatic
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A. Benign
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2. What is the name of the process by which cancer cells break off of tumors and spread to other parts of the body? A) angiogenesis B) carcinogenesis C) metastasis D) mitosis E) mutagenesis
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C. Metastasis
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3. Cancer cells within which of the following biopsy samples would be the best indicator that the cancer has metastasized and is circulating through the bloodstream? A) liver B) lymph node C) pancreas D) ovary
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B. Lymph node
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4. What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome called? A) alleles B) centrioles C) centromeres D) homologous chromosomes E) sister chromatids
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E. Sister Chrimatids
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5. What is the name for the point at which the two halves of a duplicated chromosome are connected? A) centriole B) centromere C) karyotype D) chromatid E) allele
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B Centromere
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6. The term "semiconservative replication" refers to the fact that A) DNA is created from only four of nine available nucleotides. B) the DNA molecule includes a parental strand and newly created DNA strand. C) DNA is not just one strand but two complementary strands. D) the mode of DNA replication is only tentatively described
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D. The mode of DNA replication is only tentatively decribed
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7. During which part of mitosis does the nuclear envelope break down? A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) telophase
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C. Prophase
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8. Which of the following is the correct order of events in mitosis? A) anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase B) anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase C) metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase E) telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
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D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
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9. A cell plate forms during which process? A) cytokinesis in an animal cell B) cytokinesis in a plant cell C) mitosis in an animal cell D) mitosis in a plant cell
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D. Mitosis in a plant cell
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10. During which phase of mitosis are the replicated chromosome aligned in the middle of the cell? A) prophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase
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C. metaphase
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11. During which phase of mitosis does the cytoplasm divide? A) prophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase
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B. anaphase
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12. Most cells spend most of their time in which phase? A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase
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A. interphase
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13. Consider a gene that encodes a protein necessary for a cell to stop at checkpoints. That is, if a mutation eliminated the function of that gene, there would be no checkpoints. This gene is an example of a(n) A) angiogenesis inhibitor. B) growth factor. C) oncogene. D) proto-oncogene. E) tumor-suppressor gene.
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E. tumor-suppressor gene
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14. Each of the following is a common feature of cancer cells EXCEPT A) anchorage independence. B) contact inhibition. C) metastasis. D) uncontrolled division.
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D. uncontrolled division
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15. The multiple hit model of cancer means that A) most cancer-causing mutations are passed on to future generations. B) most cancers occur in many different tissues simultaneously. C) multiple mutations are required to cause most forms of cancer. D) a person gets cancer only if both of his or her parents had cancer
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C. multiple mutations are required to cause most forms of cancer
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16. What is the name for the surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will be analyzed to determine whether they're cancerous? A) biopsy B) chemotherapy C) karyotyping D) remission
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A. biopsy
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17. The members of a pair of chromosomes are called A) alleles. B) diploids. C) gametes. D) homologous chromosomes. E) sister chromatids.
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D. homologous chromosomes
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18. Different versions of the same gene are called A) alleles. B) diploids. C) homologous chromosomes. D) sister chromatids. E) zygotes.
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A. alleles
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19. Normal sperm or egg cells in a human A) are produced by mitosis. B) have either all dominant or all recessive versions of genes. C) have one copy of each chromosome. D) have two copies of each chromosome. E) are genetically identical to every other sperm or egg cell made by that person.
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C) have one copy of each chromosome.
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20. A normal human cell containing 44 autosomes and two X chromosomes is A) an egg cell. B) a somatic cell of a female. C) a somatic cell of a male. D) a sperm cell.
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B) a somatic cell of a female.
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21. Which of the following affects the number of genetically distinct gametes that an organism can make? A) the number of chromosomes in the cell B) the number of genes for which different alleles are present C) random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis D) crossing over during meiosis E) All the above are correct.
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E) All the above are correct.
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Diversity among offspring can be created through all the following EXCEPT A) crossing over. B) independent assortment. C) random fertilization. D) segregation. E) asexual reproduction.
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E) asexual reproduction.
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23. Monozygotic twins are the result of A) one sperm fertilizing two different eggs. B) one egg being fertilized by two different sperm. C) one embryo splitting to become two embryos. D) two eggs each being fertilized by a different sperm
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C) one embryo splitting to become two embryos.
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24. In humans, heterozygotes are referred to as ________, particularly when the recessive allele is associated with a genetic disease. A) vectors. B) dizygotic. C) carriers. D) qualitative.
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C) carriers.
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25. In a certain plant species, thick-shelled seeds are caused by the dominant allele T, while thin-shelled seeds are caused by the recessive allele t. Consider an individual plant that has thin-shelled seeds. What is the genotype of this individual? A) TT B) tt C) Tt D) tt or Tt
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B) tt
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26. Cystic fibrosis is caused by the allele f, which is completely recessive to the normal dominant allele F. Consider a couple with the genotype Ff. What is the chance that their first child will develop cystic fibrosis? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
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B) 25%
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27. Huntington's disease is caused by the allele H, which is completely dominant to the normal recessive allele h. Consider a couple where the man has the genotype Hh, and the woman has the genotype hh. What is the chance that their first child will develop Huntington's disease? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
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C) 50%
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28. In humans, straight thumbs are caused by the dominant allele T, while individuals who are tt have thumbs that curve backward ("hitchhiker's thumb"). Consider a family in which the father has straight thumbs, and both the mother and their only child have curved thumbs. What is the chance that their next child will have curved thumbs? A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% E) It's impossible to predict based on the information given.
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E) It's impossible to predict based on the information given.
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29. In pea plants, the allele for purple flowers (P) is dominant to the allele (p) for white flowers. In a cross between a purple-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant, all 73 of the offspring plants had purple flowers. Which of the following most likely describes the cross above? A) pp x pp B) Pp x Pp C) PP x PP D) PP x pp E) PP x Pp
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E) PP x Pp
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30. A carrier for a recessive genetic disorder is A) heterozygous. B) homozygous for the recessive allele. C) homozygous for the dominant allele. D) Either A or B is correct.
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A) heterozygous.
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31. How could two parents with curly hair (a dominant condition) have boys and girls with straight hair (a recessive condition)? A) This is impossible, genetically speaking. B) The recessive condition must result from a random mutation in both homologous chromosomes where the gene for hair type resides. C) The recessive condition can occur as a result of X inactivation. D) The recessive condition could happen if both parents were heterozygous carriers of the recessive allele.
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D) The recessive condition could happen if both parents were heterozygous carriers of the recessive allele.
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32. The AB blood type, in which both A and B alleles are expressed, is an example of A) incomplete dominance. B) codominance. C) independent assortment. D) sex linkage.
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B) codominance.
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33. A recessive allele is one A) that is not as strong as a dominant allele. B) whose effect is masked by a dominant allele. C) that appears only in a heterozygote. D) that produces no effect when present in the homozygous condition. E) that must be lethal in the homozygous condition.
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A) that is not as strong as a dominant allele.
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34. Sex-linked traits can be expressed by A) males only. B) females only. C) either males or females. D) carriers only.
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C) either males or females.
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35. A man who carries a harmful sex-linked (on the X chromosome) gene will pass the gene on to A) all of his daughters. B) half of his daughters. C) half of his sons. D) all of his sons. E) all of his children.
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A) all of his daughters.
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36. Humans possess A) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes. B) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes and 23 pairs of autosomes. C) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes. D) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 23 pairs of autosomes. E) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes.
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E) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes.
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37. What are the chances that a hemophiliac male and an unaffected female could have a baby that is a hemophiliac male? (hemophilia is X-linked) A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75%
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A) 0%
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38. What is the sex of the affected individuals in the above pedigree? (The pedigree shows black squares and white circles) A) Male B) Female C) Male and Female D) None of the above
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A) Male
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39. Non-Identical twins are also referred to as A) dizygotic. B) maternal C) monozygotic. D) heterozygous.
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A) dizygotic.
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Which type of cell division produces daughter cells that are identical to the original cell? A) meiosis in animals B) meiosis in plants C) mitosis in animals D) meiosis in bacteria
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C) mitosis in animals