question

Which of the following decisions does a firm need to make as soon as it has identified the activities from the value chain that are bringing the highest added value to their customers? A. Target high value-adding activities to further enhance their value. B. Target low value-adding activities to increase their value. C. Perform some combination of the two. D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

When evaluating the value chain, all of the following are included in the primary value activities except: A. Inbound activities. B. Operations. C. Service. D. MIS development

answer

D. MIS development

question

What is the support value activity that provides employees with training, hiring, and compensation? A. Procurement. B. Operations resource management. C. Human resource management. D. Firm infrastructure.

answer

C. Human resource management.

question

What are the two main categories in a value chain analysis? A. Primary value activities & secondary value activities. B. Primary value activities & support value activities. C. Primary value activities & strengthening value activities. D. None of the above.

answer

B. Primary value activities & support value activities.

question

The goal of value chain analysis is to identify processes in which the firm can add value for the customer and create a competitive advantage for itself, with a ________ or ________________. A. Focused strategy, product differentiation B. Focused strategy, cost advantage C. Cost advantage, primary value activities D. Cost advantage, product differentiation

answer

D. Cost advantage, product differentiation

question

Which of the following analyzes a company's business processes and is useful for determining how to create the greatest possible value for customers? A. Product analysis. B. Primary supplier power. C. Value chain analysis. D. Buyer chain analysis.

answer

C. Value chain analysis.

question

What is a standardized set of activities that accomplishes a specific task? A. Business strategy. B. Business outcome. C. Business process. D. Knowledge process.

answer

C. Business process.

question

Which of the below is similar to focused strategy versus broad strategy? A. Large market versus leadership. B. Large market versus uniqueness. C. Niche market versus large market. D. Niche market versus generic.

answer

C. Niche market versus large market.

question

Which of the following demonstrates a company that has implemented a low cost, broad market strategy? A. Neiman Marcus. B. Payless Shoes. C. The Sharper Image. D. Walmart.

answer

D. Walmart.

question

When analyzing Porter's three generic strategies for entering a market, if you have a focused strategy what market should you target? A. A niche market. B. A broad market. C. Neither niche or broad markets. D. Both niche and broad markets

answer

A. A niche market.

question

Amazon.com uses a customer profiling system whenever a customer visits its website. Using this system, Amazon can offer products tailored to that particular customer's profile and buying pattern. What is Amazon using to achieve this competitive advantage? A. Rivalry. B. Buyer power. C. Product differentiation. D. Substitute product.

answer

C. Product differentiation.

question

Some industries' competition is much more intense than others. Retail grocery stores such as Kroger, Safeway, and Albertson's in the United States experience fierce competition and offer similar marketing campaigns to compete. What is this an example of in terms of Porter's Five Forces? A. Rivalry among new entrants. B. Rivalry among existing competitors. C. Threat of substitute products or services. D. Buyer power.

answer

B. Rivalry among existing competitors.

question

Which of the following represents a typical supply chain? A. Company - Customers - Suppliers. B. Company - Suppliers - Customers. C. Suppliers - Company - Customers. D. Suppliers - Customers - Company.

answer

C. Suppliers - Company - Customers.

question

What is a feature of a product or service that customers have come to expect and entering competitors must offer the same if they want to survive? A. Significant barrier. B. Entry barrier. C. Product differentiation. D. Entry chain.

answer

B. Entry barrier.

question

What includes all parties involved, directly or indirectly, in obtaining raw materials or a product? A. Support chain. B. Supply chain. C. System chain. D. Supply choice.

answer

B. Supply chain.

question

What are costs that make customers reluctant to switch to another product or service? A. Support activities. B. Switching costs. C. Loyalty rewards. D. Value chain activities.

answer

B. Switching costs.

question

The banking industry has implemented several competitive advantages including ATM's, online bill pay services, and electronic statements. Of course, these competitive advantages were quickly duplicated by any competitor that wanted to remain in the banking industry. These were all examples of ___________ competitive advantages. A. Acquiring new technology products and services B. Hiring new employees C. Reducing expenses D. Gaining invaluable feedback from customers

answer

A. Acquiring new technology products and services

question

A __________ advantage features a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors. A. Competitive advantage B. Competitor advantage C. Power advantage D. First-mover advantage

answer

A. Competitive advantage

question

The process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors' plans, activities, and products, to improve a company's ability to succeed is the definition of ___________. A. Feedback. B. Information. C. Competitive intelligence. D. Data.

answer

C. Competitive intelligence.

question

Greg Provenzo owns and runs a Blockbuster video store. Greg is implementing a drive-thru rental process that is the same as you would find at a fast food restaurant. Customers can pick-up and drop-off their videos without leaving their cars. Greg's new system has become so popular that Videos Plus, a competitor down the street, is attempting to recreate Greg's video drive-thru rental process. Greg's system is an example of a _________. A. Supply chain power. B. First-mover advantage. C. Business processing strategy. D. Business Intelligence.

answer

B. First-mover advantage.

question

All of the following are common tools used in industry to analyze and develop competitive advantages, except: A. Five Forces Model B. Three Generic Strategies C. Competitive analysis model D. Value chain analysis

answer

C. Competitive analysis model

question

Which of the following represents a reason why competitive advantages are typically temporary? A. The competitor will hire away your key employees. B. The competitor quickly seeks ways to duplicate your business operations. C. The competitor will purchase new technology. D. All of the above.

answer

D. All of the above.

question

Updating business strategies is a continuous undertaking as internal and external environments ________. A. Become less competitive. B. Remain stagnant. C. Rapidly change. D. Become more consistent.

answer

C. Rapidly change.

question

Identifying competitive advantages can be difficult and explains why they are typically _______. A. Temporary. B. Satisfactory. C. Terminated. D. Unsuccessful.

answer

A. Temporary.

question

Which of the following is a tool a manager can use to analyze competitive intelligence and identify competitive advantages? A. The three generic strategies. B. The threat of substitute buyer power. C. Differentiated costs. D. Supplier loyalty.

answer

A. The three generic strategies.

question

Competitive intelligence is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including _________. A. Competitors' employees. B. Competitors' differentiated processes. C. Competitors' plans. D. All of the above.

answer

C. Competitors' plans.

question

If you were thinking about an oven as a system which of the following represents the feedback? A. The uncooked food. B. The cooked food. C. A light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature. D. The oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes.

answer

C. A light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature.

question

If you were thinking about an oven as a system which of the following represents the process? A. The uncooked food. B. The cooked food. C. A light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature. D. The oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes.

answer

D. The oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes.

question

If you were thinking about an oven as a system which of the following represents the output? A. The uncooked food. B. The cooked food. C. A light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature. D. The oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes.

answer

B. The cooked food.

question

If you were thinking about an oven as a system which of the following represents the input? A. The uncooked food. B. The cooked food. C. A light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature. D. The oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes.

answer

A. The uncooked food.

question

Which of the following provides an accurate definition of systems thinking? A. A way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part. B. A way of monitoring individual components including an input, the process, and an output, while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system. C. A way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system. D. A way of monitoring singular parts of a system by viewing a single input that is processed or transformed to produce an entire system that is continuously monitored to gather feedback on each individual part.

answer

A. A way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part.

question

Which role within a company is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategic aligns with business goals and objectives? A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO). B. Chief Privacy Officer (CPO). C. Chief Information Officer (CIO). D. Chief Security Officer (CSO).

answer

C. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

question

A system is a collection of parts that link to achieve a common purpose. Systems thinking is a way of monitoring ________________. A. The entire system. B. A division within the sales role. C. The executive team. D. The company's competitors.

answer

A. The entire system.

question

MIS is a business function. Which of the following does MIS perform to help aid the company in decision making and problem solving? A. Moves information about people. B. Moves processes across the company to improve systems. C. Moves information about products. D. All of the above.

answer

D. All of the above.

question

Feedback is information that returns to its original transmitter and modifies the transmitter's actions. What would the original transmitter include? A. Input, Transform, Output. B. Input, Transform, Outnumber. C. Output, Input, Performer. D. Input, Process, Transform.

answer

A. Input, Transform, Output.

question

The challenge that companies today sometimes have is that they are departmentalized and act independently of each other. One solution that can help a company work interdepartmentally includes ___________. A. System processes. B. Human resources. C. Management information systems. D. Resource information systems.

answer

C. Management information systems.

question

Who is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses? A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO). B. Chief Security Officer (CSO). C. Chief Technology Officer (CTO). D. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

answer

B. Chief Security Officer (CSO).

question

Who is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge? A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO). B. Chief Privacy Officer (CPO). C. Chief Technology Officer (CTO). D. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

answer

A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO).

question

MIS is a business function, like accounting or sales, which moves information about people, products, and processes across the company to facilitate decision making and problem solving. What does MIS stands for? A. Management Information Strategy. B. Management Intelligence System. C. Management Information System. D. Management Information Strategist.

answer

C. Management Information System.

question

Which four elements are included in systems thinking? A. Output, Process, Feedback, and Accounting. B. Process, Output, Operations, and Accounting. C. Input, Process, Output, and Feedback. D. Input, Output, Sales, and Feedback.

answer

C. Input, Process, Output, and Feedback.

question

Assume you are in the business of producing and selling cars. If you could produce more cars with the same input what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your cars remains the same? A. Increase in productivity, decrease in profits B. Increase in productivity, increase in profits C. Decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D. Decrease in productivity, increase in profits

answer

B. Increase in productivity, increase in profits

question

Which of the following is considered a service? A. Selling groceries B. Managing a team C. Cutting hair D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

Which of the following is considered a good? A. Milk and eggs B. Managing a team C. Selling groceries D. All of the above

answer

A. Milk and eggs

question

What is productivity? A. Material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. B. Tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. C. The process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services. D. The rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

answer

D. The rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

question

What is production? A. Material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. B. Tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. C. The process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services. D. The rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

answer

C. The process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services.

question

What is the name of a company's internal MIS department? A. Management information systems (MIS) B. Information systems (IS) C. Information technology (IT) D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

47. Which of the following statements is true? A. IT equals business success. B. IT equals business innovation. C. IT represents business success and innovation. D. IT enables business success and innovation.

answer

D. IT enables business success and innovation.

question

Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the human resource department? A. Monetary data. B. Technology data. C. Production data. D. Employee data.

answer

D. Employee data.

question

Which of the following represents the relationship between functional areas in a business? A. Independent B. Autonomous C. Interdependent D. Self-sufficient

answer

C. Interdependent

question

The department within a company that supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services is called ___________. A. Sales. B. Operations Management. C. Accounting. D. Marketing.

answer

D. Marketing.

question

1. What occurs when a task or activity is unnecessarily repeated? A. Bottlenecks B. Redundancy C. Automation D. Streamlining

answer

B. Redundancy

question

2. What occurs when resources reach full capacity and cannot handle any additional demands limiting throughput and impeding operations? A. Bottlenecks B. Redundancy C. Automation D. Streamlining

answer

A. Bottlenecks

question

3. What improves business process efficiencies by simplifying or eliminating unnecessary steps? A. Workflow B. Swim lane C. Automation D. Streamlining

answer

D. Streamlining

question

4. What is the process of computerizing manual tasks, making them more efficient and effective and dramatically lowering operational costs? A. Workflow B. Swim lane C. Automation D. Streamlining

answer

C. Automation

question

5. What includes the tasks, activities, and responsibilities required to execute each step in a business process? A. Workflow B. Swim lane C. Automation D. Streamlining

answer

A. Workflow

question

6. Which of the following explains why a company would implement a BPR strategy? A. To encourage competition B. To decrease customers C. To create value for the customer D. All of the above

answer

C. To create value for the customer

question

7. Changing business processes with MIS outlines how to improve the three levels of business processes which include operational, managerial, and strategic. From operational to strategic, what are the three major improvement strategies that the author describes? A. Automation - streamlining - reengineering B. Artificial intelligence - streamlining - reengineering C. Automation - workflow - reinvention D. Automation - consolidating - restructuring

answer

A. Automation - streamlining - reengineering

question

8. What is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises? A. Critical success factors (CSFs) B. Benchmarking metrics C. Business process reengineering (BPR) D. Decision support interfaces (DSI

answer

C. Business process reengineering (BPR)

question

9. Transaction processing systems are primarily used to automate business processes. Automation increases efficiency and effectiveness, while reducing head count which in turn reduces the overall operational _____________. A. Costs B. Systems C. Revenues D. Intelligence

answer

A. Costs

question

10. What does BPR assume about the current process in the extreme? A. Current process is irrelevant B. Current process is broken C. Current process must be overhauled from scratch D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

11. Which of the below examples indicates when the time is right to initiate a business process change? A. The market being served makes a distinctive shift B. The company is below industry benchmarks on its core processes C. The company strategically passes or leapfrogs the competition on key decisions to regain competitive advantage D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

12. Which of the following should a business follow for success? A. Technology choices should drive business processes B. Business processes should drive technology choices C. Technology choices should drive business strategies and goals D. All of the above depending on the industry

answer

B. Business processes should drive technology choices

question

13. Which of the following represents a business-facing process? A. Loan processing B. Order processing C. Strategic planning D. Customer billing

answer

C. Strategic planning

question

14. Which of the below is a customer-facing process? A. Communicating with customers B. Strategic goal setting C. Providing performance feedback and rewards D. Purchasing raw materials

answer

A. Communicating with customers

question

15. What is the difference between customer-facing processes and business-facing processes? A. Business-facing processes are front-office processes, customer-facing processes are back-office processes B. Customer-facing processes are front-office processes, business-facing processes are back-office processes C. Customer-facing processes are back-office processes, and industry-specific customer-facing processes are back-office processes D. Customer-facing processes are back-office processes, and industry-specific customer-facing processes are front-office processes

answer

B. Customer-facing processes are front-office processes, business-facing processes are back-office processes

question

16. Which of the below represents business processes you would find in the human resources department? A. Hiring employees B. Enrolling employees in benefit plans C. Tracking vacation and sick time D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

17. Which of the following departments is primarily responsible for promoting discounts, attracting customers, and communicating marketing campaigns? A. Accounting and Finance B. Marketing and Sales C. Operations Management D. Human Resources

answer

B. Marketing and Sales

question

18. Which of the below business processes would you find in the marketing and sales division? A. Ordering inventory B. Enrolling employees in health care benefits C. Promoting of discounts D. Creating financial statements

answer

C. Promoting of discounts

question

19. What is software that will search several retailer websites and provide a comparison of each retailer's offerings including prices and availability? A. Augmented reality B. Mutation C. Fuzzy logic D. Shopping bot

answer

D. Shopping bot

question

20. What is the process within a genetic algorithm of randomly trying combinations and evaluating the success (or failure) of the outcome? A. Augmented reality B. Mutation C. Fuzzy logic D. Shopping bot

answer

B. Mutation

question

21. What is a computer-simulated environment that can be a simulation of the real world or an imaginary world? A. Virtual reality B. Augmented reality C. Virtual workforce D. All of the above

answer

A. Virtual reality

question

22. What is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it? A. Virtual reality B. Augmented reality C. Virtual workforce D. All of the above

answer

B. Augmented reality

question

23. Which of the below offers a disadvantage for working virtually? A. Increases in worker productivity B. Increases in feelings of seclusion C. Decreases in expenses for the company D. Alleviation of congested roadway

answer

B. Increases in feelings of seclusion

question

24. Which of the following is a special-purpose knowledge-based information system that accomplishes specific tasks on behalf of its users? A. Intelligent agent B. Executive agent C. Expert agent D. Modeling system

answer

A. Intelligent agent

question

25. What is the process of learning from ecosystems and adapting their characteristics to human and organization situations? A. Data collection B. Artificial intelligence C. Biomimicry D. Intelligent system

answer

C. Biomimicry

question

26. What is the Mathematical method of handling imprecise or subjective information? A. Fuzzy logic B. Virtual reality C. Expert system D. Genetic algorithm

answer

A. Fuzzy logic

question

27. Which of the following is not a feature of a neural network? A. Neural networks can cope with huge volumes of information with many variables B. Neural networks can function without complete or well-structured information C. Neural networks can analyze linear relationships only D. Neural networks can learn and adjust to new circumstance on their ow

answer

C. Neural networks can analyze linear relationships only

question

28. Which of the below categories of AI is used extensively in the finance industry to analyze situations where the logic or rules are unknown? A. Expert system B. Virtual reality C. Neural network D. Genetic algorithm

answer

C. Neural network

question

29. What is a system that uses computerized advisory programs to imitate the reasoning processes of experts in solving difficult problems? A. Expert system B. Virtual reality C. Neural network D. Genetic algorithm

answer

A. Expert system

question

30. Which of the below does not represent a category of AI? A. Genetic algorithms B. Neural networks C. Expert systems D. Consolidation

answer

D. Consolidation

question

31. Which of the following is an example of an intelligent system? A. The Firefighter Robot that can extinguish flames at chemical plants B. Shell Oil's Smart Pump robot that pumps gas for the customer C. A robot that cleans and sweeps at a local airport D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

32. What do cargo transport systems, book distribution centers, the video game market, a flu epidemic, and an ant colony have in common? A. They are all expert systems and thus share some characteristics B. They are all genetic algorithm systems and thus share some characteristics C. They are all neural network systems and thus share some characteristics D. They are all complex adaptive systems and thus share some characteristics

answer

D. They are all complex adaptive systems and thus share some characteristics

question

33. Van Lines Inc. is a large corporation operating in all 50 states. Jim Poulos is the regional manager overseeing the western division, which includes Utah, Colorado, Idaho, Montana, Wyoming, and Nevada. Jim receives data from his managers in each state which he loads into his digital dashboard for analysis of his entire western division. What digital dashboard capability is Jim primarily using? A. Drill-down B. Slice-and-dice C. Intelligent system D. Consolidation

answer

D. Consolidation

question

34. As the product manager for the eatery division at Whole Foods, Jerry is responsible for analyzing sales data to help him manage his team. Today Jerry is analyzing his data by looking at details, and details of details of information. Which of the following common digital dashboard capabilities is Jerry using to analyze his department's success? A. Slice-and-Dice B. Competitive tables C. Drill-down D. Consolidation

answer

C. Drill-down

question

35. As the product manager for the eatery division at Whole Foods, Jerry is responsible for analyzing sales data to help him manage his team. Today Jerry is analyzing his data using many different perspectives to identify different ways to improve his division. Which of the following common digital dashboard capabilities is Jerry using to analyze his department's success? A. Slice-and-Dice B. Competitive tables C. Drill-down D. Consolidation

answer

A. Slice-and-Dice

question

36. Which of the below would not be found in a digital dashboard for a manufacturing team? A. A graph of stock market prices B. A running line graph of planned versus actual production for the past 24 hours C. An excel spreadsheet with cost analysis data D. A hot list of key performance indicators, refreshed every 15 minutes

answer

C. An excel spreadsheet with cost analysis data

question

37. Which of the below is offered by a digital dashboard? A. Consolidation B. Drill-down C. Slice-and-Dice D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

38. What is a common tool that is used to support visualizations and tracks KPIs and CSFs by compiling information from multiple sources? A. Models B. Digital dashboards C. Neural networks D. Verified graphs

answer

B. Digital dashboards

question

39. What is a graphical display of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data? A. Visualization B. Model C. Table D. Digital spreadsheet

answer

A. Visualization

question

40. Executives of a company deal less with details of the operational activities and deal more with the higher meaningful aggregations of information or "coarser" information. What refers to the level of detail in the model? A. Drill-down B. Visualization C. Granularity D. Consolidatio

answer

C. Granularity

question

41. Decision making at the executive or strategic level require business intelligence and knowledge to support the uncertainty and complexity of the business. What is a specialized DSS that supports senior-level executives and unstructured decisions requiring judgment, evaluation, and insight? A. OLTP B. Executive Information System (EIS) C. Transaction Support System (TSS) D. Decision Support System (DSS)

answer

B. Executive Information System (EIS)

question

42. What is the analysis that works in reverse to what-if and sensitivity analysis by finding the inputs necessary to achieve a goal such as a desired level of output? A. Solutions based analysis B. Optimization system C. Goal-seeking analysis D. Revenue analysis

answer

C. Goal-seeking analysis

question

43. An optimization analysis finds the optimum value for a target variable by repeatedly changing other variables, subject to specified constraints. What can a manager determine by changing revenue and cost variables in an optimization analysis? A. Calculate the highest potential profits B. Calculate employee benefit payments C. Use this as an extension for a digital dashboard D. Create production schedules

answer

A. Calculate the highest potential profits

question

44. What is the DSS analysis that checks the impact of a change in a variable or assumption on the model? A. Optimization analysis B. Goal-seeking analysis C. Sensitivity analysis D. What-if analysis

answer

D. What-if analysis

question

45. Which of the below represent the four main DSS analysis techniques outlined in the chapter? A. What-If Analysis, Sensitivity Analysis, Goal-Seeking Analysis, Optimization Analysis B. Workflow Analysis, Sensitivity Analysis, Growth Analysis, Organizational Analysis C. What-If Analysis, Structured Analysis, Goal-Seeking Analysis, Optimization Analysis D. What-If Analysis, Sensitivity Analysis, Growth Analysis, Organizational Analysis

answer

A. What-If Analysis, Sensitivity Analysis, Goal-Seeking Analysis, Optimization Analysis

question

46. Which of the below does not represent an example of analytical information? A. Trends and product statistics B. Unstructured long-term decisions C. Five year sales report D. Future growth projections

answer

B. Unstructured long-term decisions

question

47. What are the three primary types of management information systems available to support decision making across the company levels? A. Transaction Processing Systems, Decision Support Systems, Executive Information Systems B. Analytical Information, Decision Support Systems, Executive Information Systems C. Transaction Processing Systems, Drill-Down Systems, Expert Systems D. What-If Analysis, Sensitivity Analysis, Goal-Seeking Analysis

answer

A. Transaction Processing Systems, Decision Support Systems, Executive Information Systems

question

48. What can a manager use a model to do? A. Calculate risk B. Change variables C. Understand uncertainty D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

49. What is a simplified representation or abstraction of reality? A. Model B. Metric C. Redundancy D. Sensitivity Analysis

answer

A. Model

question

50. Which of the following is a potential feature of a digital dashboard? A. A hot list of KPIs refreshed every 15 minutes B. A running line graph of planned versus actual production for the past 24 hours C. A graph of stock market prices D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

1. What is the ability to purchase goods and services through a wireless Internet-enabled device? A. Ecommerce B. Mobile business C. Meconomics D. Ebusiness model

answer

B. Mobile business

question

2. Many industries have taken an active role in online business including the government. Which of the following is the term that describes the use of strategies and technologies to transform government by improving the delivery of services and enhancing the quality of interaction between the citizen-consumer within all the branches of government? A. Ecommerce B. Information richness C. Egovernment D. Tacit knowledge

answer

C. Egovernment

question

3. Which of the following is not a topic or feature that is included in Web 3.0? A. A worldwide database B. Intelligent applications C. Social networking D. Integration of legacy devices

answer

C. Social networking

question

4. Which statement below is incorrect? A. The semantic Web captures, organizes, and disseminates knowledge (i.e., know-how) throughout an organization B. The semantic Web describes the relationships between things C. The semantic Web describes the properties of things D. The semantic Web is not about links between Web pages

answer

A. The semantic Web captures, organizes, and disseminates knowledge (i.e., know-how) throughout an organization

question

5. What is a component of Web 3.0 that describes things in a way that computers can understand? A. Social tagging B. Sustaining Web C. Social Web D. Semantic Web

answer

D. Semantic Web

question

6. Which of the following best describes Web 3.0? A. User-generated online business B. Based on the 'intelligent' Web where applications use natural language processing C. Collaboration and social media D. All of the above

answer

B. Based on the 'intelligent' Web where applications use natural language processing

question

7. Which of the following best describes Web 2.0? A. Static websites B. Intelligent websites C. Social media and user-generated Web content D. Hypertext markup language

answer

C. Social media and user-generated Web content

question

8. Which of the following best describes Web 1.0? A. Static text-based information websites B. Static electricity and connectivity C. Social media D. Technology intelligence

answer

A. Static text-based information websites

question

9. What is a potential problem or impact of technology dependence? A. Outages hold potentially great havoc for people, business, and educational institutions that rely heavily on technology B. Many have a need to be continuously connected for every activity that potentially eliminates crucial in-person social skills and could stunt psychological growth C. How do people or businesses function if the connection is down? D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

10. An API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools for ______________. A. Building software applications B. Providing a visual interface for a web mashup C. Describing how products in a network work D. Writing and editing HTML

answer

A. Building software applications

question

11. What is a website or Web application that uses content from more than one source to create a completely new product or service? A. Social tagging B. Mashup blog C. Social media D. Mashup

answer

D. Mashup

question

12. Some of the benefits for a company to operate an internal wiki are that they are great tools for all of the following except: A. Collecting and disseminating knowledge B. Building software applications C. Sharing information between functional business areas D. Distribute to employees or partners across geographical distances

answer

B. Building software applications

question

13. What describes how products in a network increase in value to users as the number of users increase? A. Network effect B. RSS C. Mashup editor D. Mcommerce

answer

A. Network effect

question

14. Unlike traditional HTML, which of the following lets writers communicate and readers respond on a regular basis through a simple online journal? A. Instant messaging B. HTTP C. Blog D. Email

answer

C. Blog

question

15. What is the primary way that social networks work? A. Connecting people by matching profile information B. Charging users each time they use the service C. Providing a security system for communication online D. Helping grow website traffic by viral advertisements

answer

A. Connecting people by matching profile information

question

16. How do the majority of potential customers find business websites? A. By applying analytics B. Through search terms that match the content C. Through viral advertisements D. Through magazines and newspapers

answer

B. Through search terms that match the content

question

17. Social tagging describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to ______________. A. Organize it for future navigation B. Organize it for future filtering C. Organize it for future search D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

18. What are the two basic functions that social networking sites provide? A. The ability to create and publish your own software B. The ability to create and maintain a profile that is your online identity and create connections between other people within the network C. The ability to capture and create URLs and RSSs D. The ability to create URLs and edit RSS software

answer

B. The ability to create and maintain a profile that is your online identity and create connections between other people within the network

question

19. Which of the below represents an example of why an employer would use social media? A. To find potential job candidates via LinkedIn B. To review potential job candidates by viewing their Facebook page C. To attract new job candidates via YouTube D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

20. What is the practice of expanding your business and social contacts by constructing a personal network? A. Network effects B. Tagging C. Social taxonomy D. Social networking

answer

D. Social networking

question

21. What are websites that rely on user participation and user-contributed content, such as Facebook, LinkedIn, and YouTube? A. Synchronous communication B. Social media C. Social networking D. Asynchronous communication

answer

B. Social media

question

22. Which of the following is not an example of explicit knowledge? A. Patent B. Trademark C. Employee opinion D. Marketing research

answer

C. Employee opinion

question

23. What is the type of knowledge that consists of anything that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of a MIS department? A. Tacit knowledge B. Explicit knowledge C. Pure knowledge D. Virtual knowledge

answer

B. Explicit knowledge

question

24. What is the type of knowledge that is contained in people's heads? A. Explicit knowledge B. Virtual knowledge C. Tacit knowledge D. Pure knowledge

answer

C. Tacit knowledge

question

25. What are the two categories that include intellectual and knowledge-based assets? A. Explicit knowledge; tacit knowledge B. Efficient knowledge; tacit knowledge C. Intelligent knowledge; explicit knowledge D. Open knowledge; closed knowledge

answer

A. Explicit knowledge; tacit knowledge

question

26. Which system supports the capturing, organization, and dissemination of knowledge throughout an organization? A. Cybermediation system B. Knowledge management system C. Source code system D. Social media system

answer

B. Knowledge management system

question

27. What is the difference between asynchronous and synchronous communication? A. Asynchronous is real-time communication; synchronous is one-way technology B. Asynchronous is communication that does not occur at the same time; synchronous communication occurs at the same time C. Asynchronous communication includes instant messaging; synchronous communication includes email D. Asynchronous communication is fast and instant; synchronous communication is collected at a single point in time

answer

B. Asynchronous is communication that does not occur at the same time; synchronous communication occurs at the same time

question

28. Ebusiness was characterized by few companies or users posting content for the masses. What characterizes Business 2.0? A. A select few posting content for high level executives only B. The masses posting content for a select few C. The masses posting content for the masses D. A select few posting specific content for the masses

answer

C. The masses posting content for the masses

question

29. What is software whose source code is available free for any third party to review and modify? A. Free source B. Open source C. Code source D. Network source

answer

B. Open source

question

30. What is the system that consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allows third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate with the system? A. Management system B. Reputation system C. Knowledge system D. Open system

answer

D. Open system

question

31. Which of the below is not a characteristic of Business 2.0? A. Encourages user participation B. Technical skills are required C. Eliminates entry barriers to publishing on the Web D. Provides an exciting and vibrant virtual environment

answer

B. Technical skills are required

question

32. Many believe that U.S. tax policy should provide a level playing field for traditional retail businesses, mail order companies, and online merchants. What form of ebusiness challenge is this statement referring to? A. Adhering to taxation rules B. Ensuring consumer protection C. Identifying limited market segments D. Managing consumer relationships

answer

A. Adhering to taxation rules

question

33. Internet marketers must develop ___________ to build strong relationships with customers to ensure loyalty. A. Consumer trust B. Consumer testimonials C. Consumer segmentation D. Market segmentation

answer

A. Consumer trust

question

34. Managing consumer trust is a challenge for ebusinesses. Which of the following is a good way to build trust when working with customers over the Internet? A. Be accessible to communicate in-person B. Be available to communicate in-person C. Use customer testimonials that link to your client website D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

35. What is the ebusiness tool that can increase marketing reach and build customer loyalty through audio broadcasting? A. IMing B. Email C. Taxonomy D. Podcasting

answer

D. Podcasting

question

36. Which ebusiness tool increases the speed of business by allowing the transfer of documents with the same speed as the telephone? A. Knowledge management system B. Podcasting C. Email D. Ebusiness

answer

C. Email

question

37. What is the set of ideas about how all information in a given context should be organized? A. Information architecture B. Collective intelligence C. Content management system D. Ebusiness model

answer

A. Information architecture

question

38. What are some of the immediate results businesses found from using instant messaging? A. Quickly identify which employees are at their computers B. Easily hold simultaneous IM sessions with multiple people C. Resolve questions or problems immediately D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

39. What is the primary business advantage of using email? A. Increasing the speed of order entry B. Providing the ability to inform and communicate with many people simultaneously, immediately, and with ease C. Providing the ability to have friends all over the globe D. Increasing the number of computers required in an office

answer

B. Providing the ability to inform and communicate with many people simultaneously, immediately, and with ease

question

40. What is an ISP? A. Instant service provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. B. Internet service provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. C. Internet sales provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. D. Instant sales provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee

answer

B. Internet service provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee.

question

41. Which of the following represents the categories for ebusiness models? A. Email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and Web conferencing B. Content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, transaction brokers C. B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B D. Advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, value-added services fees

answer

C. B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B

question

42. Which of the following represents the primary ebusiness revenue models? A. Email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and Web conferencing B. Content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, transaction brokers C. B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B D. Advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, value-added services fees

answer

D. Advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, value-added services fees

question

43. Which of the following represents the connecting and communicating tools supporting and driving ebusiness? A. Email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and Web conferencing B. Content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, transaction brokers C. B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B D. Advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, value-added services fees

answer

A. Email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and Web conferencing

question

44. What combines art along with science to determine how to make URLs more attractive to search engines resulting in higher search engine ranking? A. Dot-com B. Search engine C. Search engine ranking D. Search engine optimization

answer

D. Search engine optimization

question

45. What is website software that finds other pages based on keyword matching similar to Google? A. Dot-com B. Search engine C. Search engine ranking D. Search engine optimization

answer

B. Search engine

question

46. What occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave? A. Ecommerce model B. Eshop sale C. Paradigm shift D. Web 1.0

answer

C. Paradigm shift

question

47. What is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues on the Internet? A. Ebusiness B. Ebusiness model C. Ecommerce D. Ecommerce model

answer

B. Ebusiness model

question

48. What is a pure-play business? A. A business that operates only on the Internet without a physical store B. A business that sells products only in a physical store C. A business that sells services only in a physical store D. All of the above

answer

A. A business that operates only on the Internet without a physical store

question

49. What is a business that operates in a physical store without an Internet presence? A. Brick-and-mortar business B. Click-and-mortar business C. Virtual business D. Pure-play busines

answer

A. Brick-and-mortar business

question

50. What is the ebusiness model that represents 80% of all online businesses and are typically more complex requiring greater security needs? A. Consumer-to-consumer B. Business-to-consumer C. Consumer-to-business D. Business-to-business

answer

D. Business-to-business

question

1. What is the science that studies encryption, which is the hiding of messages so that only the sender and receiver can read them? A. Digital certificate B. Encryptography C. Decrypt D. Cryptography

answer

D. Cryptography

question

2. What is pharming? A. Reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. B. A technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses. C. A masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. D. A phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to "confirm" their account information.

answer

A. Reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites.

question

3. What is vishing? A. Reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. B. A technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses. C. A masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. D. A phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to "confirm" their account information.

answer

D. A phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to "confirm" their account information.

question

4. What is spear phishing? A. Reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. B. A technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses. C. A masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. D. A phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization.

answer

D. A phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization.

question

5. What is a phishing expedition? A. Reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. B. A technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses. C. A masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. D. A phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization.

answer

C. A masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing.

question

6. What is phishing? A. Reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. B. A technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses. C. A masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. D. A phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization

answer

B. A technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses.

question

7. What is information secrecy? A. The category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. B. A technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses. C. A masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. D. A phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization.

answer

A. The category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity.

question

8. Which of the following authentication methods is 100 percent accurate? A. Smart card B. Fingerprint authentication C. User ID D. None of the above

answer

D. None of the above

question

9. What is the identification of a user based on a physical characteristic, such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice, or handwriting? A. Smart card B. Token C. Biometrics D. Content filtering

answer

C. Biometrics

question

10. What is the most secure type of authentication? A. Something the user knows such as a user ID and password B. Something the user has such as a smart card or token C. Something that is part of the user such as a fingerprint or voice signature D. Combination of all of these

answer

D. Combination of all of these

question

11. Which of the following protection techniques scans and searches hard drives to prevent, detect, and remove known viruses, adware, and spyware? A. Firewall B. Digital certificate C. Virus software D. Antivirus software

answer

D. Antivirus software

question

12. What is hardware or software that guards a private network by analyzing incoming and outgoing information for the correct markings? A. Firewall B. Certificate authority C. Online certificate D. Digital certificate

answer

A. Firewall

question

13. What is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to a digital signature? A. Digital code B. Digital sign C. Digital certificate D. Digital card

answer

C. Digital certificate

question

14. Which of the following is the main drawback of biometrics? A. It is considered illegal B. It is viewed as an invasion of privacy C. It can be costly and intrusive D. It requires constant monitoring and upgrading

answer

C. It can be costly and intrusive

question

15. What is a method for confirming users' identities? A. Phishing B. Authentication C. Authorization D. Programming

answer

B. Authentication

question

16. What is the process that provides a user with permission including access levels and abilities such as file access, hours of access, and amount of allocated storage space? A. Pharming B. Authentication C. Authorization D. Programming

answer

C. Authorization

question

17. What is forging of someone's identity for the purpose of fraud? A. Identity crisis B. Identity theft C. Ediscovery D. All of the above

answer

B. Identity theft

question

18. Applications allowed to be placed on the corporate network, like IM software, and corporate computer equipment used for personal reason on personal networks are two areas that should be addressed by managers in which of the below company policies? A. Information ethics policy B. Information security policies C. Information technology plan D. All of the above

answer

B. Information security policies

question

19. Which of the following is an example of a way to maintain information security that a company should include in their information security policies? A. Requiring computer users to log off before leaving for lunch B. Never sharing user or password information with anyone C. Changing passwords every 30-60 days D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

20. What is it called when a hacker looks through your trash to find personal information? A. Striker bunny B. Dumpster diving C. Trash retrieval D. Approved consent

answer

B. Dumpster diving

question

21. Using ones social skills to trick people into revealing access credentials or other valuable information is called ______________. A. Social engineering B. Social media C. Social viruses D. Social processes

answer

A. Social engineering

question

22. Which of the below represents the biggest problem of information security breaches? A. People misusing organizational information B. Technology failures C. Customers misusing organizational systems D. Company departments missing sales goals

answer

A. People misusing organizational information

question

23. What is spyware? A. A special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user's knowledge or permission. B. Experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge. C. A computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network D. Software that, while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function, also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user.

answer

A. A special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user's knowledge or permission.

question

24. What is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network? A. Spyware B. Hacker C. Drive-by hacking D. Adware

answer

C. Drive-by hacking

question

25. Who are experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge? A. Information spy B. Hacker C. Spyware D. Adware

answer

B. Hacker

question

26. What serves only one customer or organization and can be located on the customers' premises or off the customer's premises? A. Community cloud B. Private cloud C. Utility computing D. Public cloud

answer

B. Private cloud

question

27. What promotes massive, global, industry-wide applications offered to the general public? A. Community cloud B. Private cloud C. Utility computing D. Public cloud

answer

D. Public cloud

question

28. What offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or electricity? A. Community cloud B. Private cloud C. Utility computing D. Public cloud

answer

C. Utility computing

question

29. What is a facility used to house management information systems and associated components, such as telecommunications and storage systems? A. Call center B. Data center C. Delivery base D. Central center

answer

B. Data center

question

30. What enables computers to run multiple operating systems and multiple software applications at the same time and creates multiple 'virtual' machines all on a single computing device? A. Virtualization B. Innovation C. Availability D. Viral computing

answer

A. Virtualization

question

31. Which cloud computing model offers applications on a pay-per-use basis? A. Infrastructure as a Service B. Platform as a Service C. Software as a Service D. All of the above

answer

A. Infrastructure as a Service

question

32. What are the three cloud computing service delivery models? A. Independent as a Service, Supportive as a Service, Partnering as a Service B. Infrastructure as a Service, Software as a Service, Platform as a Service C. Innovation as a Service, Server as a Service, Platform as a Service D. Intuit as a Service, Storage as a Service, Programming as a Service

answer

B. Infrastructure as a Service, Software as a Service, Platform as a Service

question

33. What is dynamic scaling? A. The ability for the system to cut back on expenses when needed B. The infrastructure that is fixed and there are no surprises C. The MIS infrastructure can be automatically scaled up or down based on needed requirements D. The flexibility to charge more or less depending on the market

answer

C. The MIS infrastructure can be automatically scaled up or down based on needed requirements

question

34. What is cloud computing services changing? A. The way people access information B. The way people deliver information C. The way people use information D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

35. What is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction? A. Virtualized computing B. Grid computing C. Cloud computing D. Smart grid

answer

C. Cloud computing

question

36. DreamWorks Animation Company used which sustainable infrastructure component to complete many of its films including Shrek, Madagascar and Antz? A. Agile computing B. Grid computing C. Cloud computing D. Server computing

answer

B. Grid computing

question

37. Which of the following delivers electricity using two-way digital technology? A. A smart grid B. A systematic grid C. A collective grid D. An interactive grid

answer

A. A smart grid

question

38. Grid computing takes advantage of the available 75% of unused processing power of a computer and links thousands of individual computers around the world creating a _______ that can process intensive tasks. A. Personal computer B. Employee client C. Company server D. Virtual supercomputer

answer

D. Virtual supercomputer

question

39. With grid computing a problem is broken into pieces and distributed to many machines, allowing _________ processing than could occur with a single system. A. Moderate B. Slower C. Faster D. Cleaner

answer

C. Faster

question

40. What refers to discarded, obsolete, or broken electronic devices? A. Ewaste B. Energy consumption C. Carbon emissions D. Sustainable MIS

answer

A. Ewaste

question

41. Computers in United States account for 1% of the total energy needs of the entire country. This is roughly equal to the total energy needs of ______________. A. A country such as Russia B. A company such as Microsoft C. A vehicle such as a bus D. A state such as Mississippi

answer

D. A state such as Mississippi

question

42. Currently, what percent of ewaste in the United States is not recycled? A. 42% B. 80% C. 52% D. 10%

answer

B. 80%

question

43. What are the ramifications of improper electronic recycling, when analyzing the example of a single desktop computer? A. One computer contains more than 700 chemicals that can be toxic to the environment B. Computers in landfills can leak these toxic chemicals into our land, water, and air C. Computers contain high levels of mercury, lead, and cadmium-harmful toxins D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

44. Corporate social responsibility is a company's acknowledged responsibility to __________. A. Shareholders B. Employees C. Society D. Governments

answer

C. Society

question

45. What is a system weakness that can be exploited by a threat? A. Capacity B. Web accessibility C. Web accessibility initiative D. Vulnerability

answer

D. Vulnerability

question

46. What refers to how well a system can adapt to increased demands? A. Scalability B. Capacity planning C. Reliability D. Availability

answer

A. Scalability

question

47. What is usability? A. The system is easy to learn and efficient and satisfying to use B. The system functions correctly and provides accurate information C. The system allows varying levels of access D. The system quickly transforms to support environmental changes

answer

A. The system is easy to learn and efficient and satisfying to use

question

48. What determines future environmental infrastructure requirements that ensure high-quality system performance? A. Capacity system B. Capacity planning C. Capacity function D. Performance indicators

answer

B. Capacity planning

question

49. Why is estimating future growth a challenge for most companies? A. Growth can occur because the company acquires new markets B. Growth can occur because the company acquires new customers C. Growth can occur because the company acquires new products D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

50. What does reliability ensure? A. The system has the ability to operate in many different operating systems B. The system is easy to learn and efficient and satisfying to use C. The system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information D. The time frames when the system is operational

answer

C. The system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information

question

1. What tracks corporate metrics such as critical success factors and key performance indicators and include advanced capabilities such as interactive controls allowing users to manipulate data for analysis? A. Informing B. Infographics C. Data visualization Tools D. Business intelligence dashboards

answer

D. Business intelligence dashboards

question

2. What can help uncover correlations and trends in data that would otherwise go unrecognized? A. Informing B. Infographics C. Data visualization Tools D. Business intelligence dashboards

answer

C. Data visualization Tools

question

3. What can present the results of large data analysis looking for patterns and relationships that monitor changes in variables over time? A. Informing B. Infographics C. Data visualization D. Business intelligence dashboards

answer

B. Infographics

question

4. What is information that people use to support their decision-making efforts? A. Information cleansing and scrubbing B. Data-mining tools C. Data mining D. Business intelligence

answer

D. Business intelligence

question

5. Which of the below questions can be answered using business intelligence? A. Where has the business been? B. Where is the business now? C. Where is the business going? D. All of the above.

answer

D. All of the above.

question

6. What is it called when a manager has so much data and information that they cannot make a decision? A. Data rich, information poor B. Data rich, content poor C. Data rich, communication poor D. Data rich, intelligence

answer

A. Data rich, information poor

question

7. When discovering trends and seasonal variations in transactional information, use a _______-_________ forecast to change the transactional information by units of time, such as transforming weekly information into monthly or seasonal information or hourly information and into daily information. A. Analytical graphing B. Association detection C. Market basket D. Time series

answer

D. Time series

question

8. Which of the following techniques performs such functions as information correlations, distributions, calculations, and variance analysis? A. Clustering objective analysis B. Statistical analysis C. Entity modeling D. Market basket analysis

answer

B. Statistical analysis

question

9. What is a common association detection analysis technique where you analyze certain items to detect customers' buying behavior and predict future behavior? A. Clustering factors B. Mashup technology C. Market basket analysis D. Drill-down basket analysis

answer

C. Market basket analysis

question

10. Which of the following is not a common form of data mining? A. Division organization B. Classification C. Estimation D. Clustering

answer

A. Division organization

question

11. Which of the following uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making? A. Data analysis tools B. Electronic analysis tools C. Data-mining tools D. Data integrity tools

answer

C. Data-mining tools

question

12. What determines the accuracy and completeness of organizational data? A. Data quantity audit B. Data quality audit C. Data intelligence audit D. All of the above

answer

B. Data quality audit

question

13. What is another term for information cleansing? A. Information mining B. Information scrubbing C. Information scrapping D. Information mart

answer

B. Information scrubbing

question

14. What are the primary differences between a data warehouse and a data mart? A. Data warehouses make quick decisions, data marts make slow decisions B. Data warehouse tackle ethical issues, data marts tackle hypothetical issues C. Data warehouses have a more organization-wide focus, data marts have functional focus D. Data warehouses have a physical focus, data marts have logical focus

answer

C. Data warehouses have a more organization-wide focus, data marts have functional focus

question

15. Which of the following statements is true? A. The more complete an organization wants to get its information, the less it costs B. The more accurate an organization wants to get its information, the less it costs C. The less accurate an organization wants to get its information, the more it costs D. The more complete and accurate an organization wants to get its information, the more it costs

answer

D. The more complete and accurate an organization wants to get its information, the more it costs

question

16. Which of the following occurs during data cleansing? A. Clean missing records B. Clean redundant records C. Clean inaccurate data D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

17. Which of the following statements is true regarding customer information? A. Customer information can exist in several operational systems B. Customer information in each operational system could change C. Customer information in each operational system can be different D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

18. Which of the below represents a reason why data warehouses were created? A. Numbers and types of operational databases increased as businesses grew B. Many companies had information scattered across multiple systems with different formats C. Completing reporting requests from numerous operational systems took days or weeks D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

19. Standardizing of data elements allows for ______________. A. Greater accuracy, completeness, and consistency B. Stabilizes pivot tables C. Processes the clients faster D. Increases security features

answer

A. Greater accuracy, completeness, and consistency

question

20. Gender can be referred to in many ways (Male, Female, M/F, 1/0) in a data warehouse. What is this an example of? A. Information scaling B. Streamlining data points C. Standardizing information D. Standardizing protocols

answer

C. Standardizing information

question

21. What is an interactive website kept constantly updated and relevant to the needs of its customers using a database? A. Dynamic website B. Data-driven website C. Static information D. Dynamic information

answer

B. Data-driven website

question

22. Which of the following offers an advantage of using a data-driven website? A. Easy to eliminate human errors B. Easy to manage content C. Easy to store large amounts of data D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

23. What are rules that help ensure the quality of information? A. Information integrity B. Integrity constraints C. Information quality D. Information ethics

answer

B. Integrity constraints

question

24. One of the primary goals of a database is to eliminate data redundancy by recording each piece of data in only one place in the database. What does the elimination of data redundancy do for a database? A. Reduces disk space requirements B. Makes updating information easier C. Improves information quality D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

25. What is the primary problem with redundant data? A. It is difficult to determine which values are the most current B. It is often inconsistent C. It is difficult to determine which values are the most accurate D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

26. What is war driving? A. An encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless transmission data B. The practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is available C. Deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle D. All of the above

answer

C. Deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle

question

27. What is a WLAN that uses Wi-Fi and has a built-in security mechanism that uses a wireless security protocol to protect Wi-Fi networks? A. WEP B. Wi-Fi protected access C. War chalking D. War driving

answer

B. Wi-Fi protected access

question

28. Which of the following is a benefit of business mobility? A. Enhances mobility B. Provides immediate data access C. Provides alternative to wiring D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

29. What represents an east/west measurement of position? A. Estimated-time-of-arrival B. Estimated-time-enroute C. Latitude D. Longitude

answer

D. Longitude

question

30. What represents a north/south measurement of position? A. Estimated-time-of-arrival B. Estimated-time-enroute C. Latitude D. Longitude

answer

C. Latitude

question

31. What is the time remaining before reaching a destination using the present speed and is typically used for navigation applications? A. Estimated-time-of-arrival B. Estimated-time-enroute C. Latitude D. Longitude

answer

B. Estimated-time-enroute

question

32. What is the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically used for navigation applications? A. Estimated-time-of-arrival B. Estimated-time-enroute C. Latitude D. Longitude

answer

A. Estimated-time-of-arrival

question

33. What is the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart. GIS allows users to interpret, analyze, and visualize data in different ways that reveal patterns and trends in the form of reports, charts, and maps? A. Automatic vehicle location B. Geographic information system C. Cartography D. Edge matching

answer

C. Cartography

question

34. What uses GPS tracking to track vehicles? A. Automatic vehicle location B. Geographic information system C. Cartography D. Edge matching

answer

A. Automatic vehicle location

question

35. What occurs when a company places active or semi-passive RFID tags on expensive products or assets to gather data on the items location with little or no manual intervention? A. Active RFID B. Semi-passive RFID C. RFID Accelerometer D. Asset tracking

answer

D. Asset tracking

question

36. Which business application is a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed information? A. Radio-frequency identification B. Global positioning systems C. Geographic information systems D. Location-based services

answer

B. Global positioning systems

question

37. Which business application uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances? A. Radio-frequency identification B. Global positioning systems C. Geographic information systems D. Location-based services

answer

A. Radio-frequency identification

question

38. What are satellite communications used for? A. Cell phones B. Mobile base stations C. Satellite dish receivers D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

39. What is a method of sending audio and video files over the Internet in such a way that the user can view the file while it is being transferred? A. Streaming B. Streamlining C. Networking D. Wireless

answer

A. Streaming

question

40. What are areas around access points where users can connect to the Internet via WI-FI? A. Hotspots B. Café or coffee shop C. Company break rooms D. Warmspots

answer

A. Hotspots

question

41. What is a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves? A. Bluetooth B. Wireless fidelity (WI-FI) C. Wide area network (WAN) D. Wireless data centers

answer

B. Wireless fidelity (WI-FI)

question

42. What is the worldwide gap giving advantage to those with access to technology? A. Digital subscriber B. Digital divide C. Digital Darwinism D. Digital era

answer

B. Digital divide

question

43. What is the major challenge of networking or performing business in a connected world? A. Personal issues B. Society demands C. Security issues D. Telecommuting demands

answer

C. Security issues

question

44. Why would a company use an Intranet? A. Intranets are used for business operations and management B. Intranets are used for communications and collaboration C. Intranets are used for Web publishing D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

45. What allows users to work from remote locations such as home or hotel using high-speed Internet to access business applications and data? A. Telecommuting B. Repeater C. Packet header D. Virtual attenuation

answer

A. Telecommuting

question

46. What can unified communications merge? A. IMing B. Videoconferencing C. Voice Mail D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

47. Which of the below statements is inaccurate in reference to unified communications? A. UC decreases communication costs B. UC enhances the way individuals communicate C. UC enhances the way individuals collaborate D. UC increases communication expenses

answer

D. UC increases communication expenses

question

48. What is a benefit of network convergence? A. The weaving together of voice, data, and video B. Multiple services offered from a single vendor C. Multiple devices supported by one provider D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

49. Which domain is reserved for accredited postsecondary institutions? A. .mil B. .edu C. .biz D. .org

answer

B. .edu

question

50. What is the standard Internet protocol, which provides the technical foundation for the public Internet? A. Data streaming and DSL protocols B. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) C. Data streaming rules and regulations D. Internet protocol/Transmission control protocol (IP/TCP)

answer

B. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP)

question

1. Which application's primary business benefits include forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution? A. CRM B. SCM C. ERP D. All of the above

answer

C. ERP

question

2. Which application's primary business benefits include market demand, resource and capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling? A. CRM B. SCM C. ERP D. All of the above

answer

B. SCM

question

3. Which application's primary business benefits include sales forecasts, sales strategies, and marketing campaigns? A. CRM B. SCM C. ERP D. All of the above

answer

A. CRM

question

4. Which of the following occurs when everyone involved in sourcing, producing, and delivering the company's product works with the same information? A. Eliminates redundancies B. Cuts down wasted time C. Removes misinformation D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

5. What is at the heart of any ERP system? A. Information B. Employees C. Customers D. Database

answer

D. Database

question

6. Which of the following describes an ERP system? A. ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments B. ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate C. ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organizations to store critical knowledge used to make the decisions that drive the organization's performance D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

7. Which extended ERP component collects information used throughout an organization, organizes it, and applies analytical tools to assist managers with decisions? A. Business intelligence B. Ebusiness C. Customer relationship management D. Supply chain management

answer

A. Business intelligence

question

8. Which of the following is an extended ERP component? A. Business intelligence B. Ebusiness C. Customer relationship management D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

9. Which activities do human resource components perform? A. Track employee information including payroll, benefits, compensation, performance assessment, and assumes compliance with the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions and tax authorities. B. Handle the various aspects of production planning and execution such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control. C. Manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management D. None of the above

answer

A. Track employee information including payroll, benefits, compensation, performance assessment, and assumes compliance with the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions and tax authorities.

question

10. Which activities do production and materials management components perform? A. Track employee information including payroll, benefits, compensation, performance assessment, and assumes compliance with the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions and tax authorities. B. Handle the various aspects of production planning and execution such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control. C. Manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management D. None of the above

answer

B. Handle the various aspects of production planning and execution such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control.

question

11. Which activities do accounting and finance components perform? A. Track employee information including payroll, benefits, compensation, performance assessment, and assumes compliance with the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions and tax authorities. B. Handle the various aspects of production planning and execution such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control. C. Manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management D. None of the above

answer

C. Manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management

question

12. What is increasing the value of the sale? A. Cross-selling B. Up-selling C. Campaign management system D. Customer service and support

answer

B. Up-selling

question

13. What is selling additional products or services to an existing customer? A. Cross-selling B. Up-selling C. Campaign management system D. Customer service and support

answer

A. Cross-selling

question

14. What guides users through marketing campaigns by performing such tasks as campaign definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation, and success analysis? A. Cross-selling B. Up-selling C. Campaign management system D. Customer service and support

answer

C. Campaign management system

question

15. What is the primary difference between contact management and opportunity management? A. Contact management deals with new customers, opportunity management deals with existing customers B. Contact management deals with existing customers, opportunity management deals with existing customers C. Contact management deals with new customers, opportunity management deals with new customers D. Contact management deals with existing customers, opportunity management deals with new customers

answer

D. Contact management deals with existing customers, opportunity management deals with new customers

question

16. What targets sales opportunities by finding new customers or companies for future sales? A. Sales management system B. Contact management system C. Opportunity management system D. Sales force automation system

answer

C. Opportunity management system

question

17. What maintains customer contact information and identifies prospective customers for future sales? A. Sales management CRM system B. Contact management CRM system C. Opportunity management CRM system D. Sales force automation CRM system

answer

B. Contact management CRM system

question

18. What occurs when a website knows enough about a person's likes and dislikes that it can fashion offers that are more likely to appeal to that person? A. Operational CRM B. Analytical CRM C. Website personalization D. All of the above

answer

C. Website personalization

question

19. What made-to-order views can analytical CRM tools slice-and-dice customer information into? A. Customer value B. Customer spending C. Customer segmentation D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

20. Which of the following is not a valid way that a CRM system can collect information? A. Accounting system B. Order fulfillment system C. Inventory system D. Customer's personal computer

answer

D. Customer's personal computer

question

21. As the business world increasingly shifts from product focus to customer focus, why are most organizations treating existing customers better than in the past? A. Existing customers are the best source of profitable and sustainable revenue growth B. In the age of e-business, an organization is guaranteed a favorable customer base and satisfying them is easier than ever C. Organizations cannot depend on using statistical analysis or value formulas such as Recency, Frequency, and Monetary to gain insight into customer behavior or buying patterns D. Placing customers at the forefront of all thinking and decision making requires very little operational and technology changes

answer

A. Existing customers are the best source of profitable and sustainable revenue growth

question

22. Which of the following can a customer use to contact an organization? A. Telephone B. Email C. Web access D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

23. Which of the below metrics represents the frequency of inventory replacement? A. Back order B. Inventory cycle time C. Customer order cycle time D. Inventory turnover

answer

D. Inventory turnover

question

24. Which of the below metrics represents an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock? A. Back order B. Inventory cycle time C. Customer order cycle time D. Inventory turnover

answer

A. Back order

question

25. Which of the below represents the bullwhip effect? A. Organizations know about employee events triggered downstream in the supply chain B. Customers receive distorted product demand information regarding sales information C. Distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain D. The ability to view all areas up and down the supply chain

answer

C. Distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain

question

26. Which of the following is the least common reason why companies outsource? A. Tap outside sources of expertise B. Concentrate resources on core business C. Reduce headcount and related expenses D. Better manage the costs of internal processes

answer

D. Better manage the costs of internal processes

question

27. Which of the following is the primary reason why companies outsource? A. Tap outside sources of expertise B. Concentrate resources on core business C. Reduce headcount and related expenses D. Better manage the costs of internal processes

answer

A. Tap outside sources of expertise

question

28. Which of the following is a benefit an organization can receive from outsourcing? A. Financial savings B. Increase technical abilities C. Market agility D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

29. Which of the following is an outsourcing challenge caused by contract length? A. Difficulties in getting out of a contract B. Problems in foreseeing future issues C. Problems in reforming an internal IT department D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

30. All of the following are challenges of outsourcing, except: A. Contract length B. Competitive edge C. Confidentiality D. Reduced frustration and expense related to hiring and retaining employees in an exceptionally tight job market

answer

D. Reduced frustration and expense related to hiring and retaining employees in an exceptionally tight job market

question

31. Which of the following is not a guideline for effectively dealing with change management? A. Institute change management policies B. Seek change C. Anticipate change D. Stop change

answer

D. Stop change

question

32. Which of the following includes a common reason why change occurs? A. A misunderstanding of the initial scope B. Shifts in planned technology that force unexpected and significant changes to the business C. An omission in defining initial scope D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

33. What is the critical path? A. The path from resource to task that passes through all critical components of a project plan B. The path between tasks to the projects finish that passes through all critical components of a project plan C. The path from start to finish that passes through all the tasks that are critical to completing the project in the shortest amount of time D. The path from start to finish that passes through all the tasks that are critical to completing the project in the longest amount of time

answer

C. The path from start to finish that passes through all the tasks that are critical to completing the project in the shortest amount of time

question

34. What is the most important part of the project plan? A. Gantt chart B. Specification C. Communication D. None of the above

answer

C. Communication

question

35. What are project objectives? A. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success B. Products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project C. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project D. Defines the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

answer

A. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success

question

36. What is project scope? A. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success B. Products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project C. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project D. Defines the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

answer

D. Defines the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

question

37. What are project assumptions? A. Specific factors that can limit options B. Factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration C. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success D. A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

answer

B. Factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration

question

38. What are project constraints? A. Specific factors that can limit options B. Factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration C. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success D. A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

answer

A. Specific factors that can limit options

question

39. Who are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion? A. Project stakeholders B. Project managers C. Project planners D. Project testers

answer

A. Project stakeholders

question

40. Which of the following does a project manager perform? A. Defines and develops the project plan B. Tracks the plan to ensure all key project milestones are completed on time C. Expert in project planning and management D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

41. What are project deliverables? A. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service B. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project C. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project D. Represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed

answer

C. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project

question

42. What is a project? A. A temporary activity undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result B. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project C. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project D. Represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed

answer

A. A temporary activity undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

question

43. Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful project? A. Delivered on time B. Delivered within budget C. Meets the business's requirements D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

44. What is the number one reason that IT projects fall behind schedule or fail? A. Change in business goals during the project B. Lack of support from business management C. Poor planning or poor project management D. Change in technology during the project

answer

C. Poor planning or poor project management

question

45. What is the success rate for a project using the waterfall methodology? A. 1 in 10 B. 2 in 10 C. 4 in 10 D. 8 in 10

answer

A. 1 in 10

question

46. What is an activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance? A. RAD methodology B. Agile methodology C. Waterfall methodology D. Extreme programming

answer

C. Waterfall methodology

question

47. What is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges? A. SDLC B. Methodology C. Waterfall D. Agile

answer

B. Methodology

question

48. What is the overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance? A. Systems development life cycle B. Project management C. Systems management D. Project development life cycle

answer

A. Systems development life cycle

question

49. Which of the following is a business-related consequence of failing software? A. Decreased productivity B. Damage to brand reputation C. Increased liabilities D. All of the above

answer

D. All of the above

question

50. Which of the following is a business-related consequence of successful software? A. Increased revenues B. Damage to brand reputation C. Increased liabilities D. Increased expenses

answer

A. Increased revenues

question

50. Which of the following is a business-related consequence of successful software? A. Increased revenues B. Damage to brand reputation C. Increased liabilities D. Increased expenses

answer

A. Increased revenues

question

50. Which of the following is a business-related consequence of successful software? A. Increased revenues B. Damage to brand reputation C. Increased liabilities D. Increased expenses

answer

A. Increased revenues

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