Thepoint: Intra-op – Flashcards
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Which position is used for perineal surgical procedures? Trendelenburg Sim's Lithotomy Dorsal recumbent
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Dorsal recumbent
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Which statement by the client indicates further teaching about epidural anesthesia is necessary? "I will be able to hear the surgeon during the surgery." "A needle will deliver the anesthetic into the area around my spinal cord." "I will become unconscious." "I will lose the ability to move my legs."
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"I will become unconscious."
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The nurse understands that the purpose of the "time out" is to: Clarify the roles of the OR personnel. Maintain the safety of the client. Identify the client's allergies. Verify all necessary supplies are available.
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Maintain the safety of the client.
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When developing a teaching plan for a patient scheduled for ambulatory surgery with epidural anesthesia, which of the following would the nurse include? "You shouldn't experience a headache after this type of anesthesia." "Normally, the blood pressure drops fairly low initially." "You won't be able to move, but you'll be able to feel sensations." "The anesthetic is introduced directly into the spinal cord."
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"You shouldn't experience a headache after this type of anesthesia."
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A patient is undergoing a lumbar puncture. The nurse educates the patient about surgical positioning. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?
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"You will be lying on your side with your knees to your chest."
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The circulating nurse is unsure if proper technique was followed when placing an object in the sterile field during a surgical procedure. What is the best action by the nurse?
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Remove the entire sterile field from use.
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The patient is having a repair of a vaginal prolapse. What position does the nurse place the patient in?
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Lithotomy position
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Which of the following is the appropriate response to the statement, "I'm so nervous about my surgery"?
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"You seem nervous about your surgery."
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There are four stages of general anesthesia. Select the stage during which the OR nurse knows not to touch the patient (except for safety reasons) because of possible uncontrolled movements.
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Stage II: excitement
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Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? A. Tranquilizer B. Dissociative agent C. Neuroleptanalgesic D. Opioid
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D. Opioid
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Which of the following techniques least exhibits surgical asepsis? A. Suctioning the nasopharyngeal cavity of a client B. Placing the sterile field at least one foot away from personnel C. Keeping sterile gloved hands above the waist D. Adding only sterile items to a sterile field
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A. Suctioning the nasopharyngeal cavity of a client
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The nurse recognizes that the older adult is at risk for surgical complications due to: A. increased skeletal mass B. decreased adipose tissue C. increased cardiac output D. decreased renal function
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D. decreased renal function
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As a circulating nurse, what task are you solely responsible for? A. Estimating the client's blood loss. B. Keeping records. C. Counting sponges and needles. D. Handing instruments to the surgeon.
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B. Keeping records.
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During a procedure, a client's temperature begins to rise rapidly. This is likely the result of which of the following complications? A. Hypothermia B. Fluid volume excess C. Infection D. Malignant hyperthermia
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D. Malignant hyperthermia
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A patient is administered succinylcholine and propofol (Diprivan) for induction of anesthesia. One hour after administration, the patient is demonstrating muscle rigidity with a heart rate of 180. What should the nurse do first? A. Notify the surgical team. B. Administer dantrolene sodium (Dantrium). C. Document the assessment findings. D. Obtain cooling blankets.
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A. Notify the surgical team.
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A patient undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery is subjected to intentional hypothermia. The patient is ready for rewarming procedures. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate? A. Temporarily set the OR temperature to 30°C. B. Apply a warm air blanket, gradually increasing body temperature. C. Administer IV fluids warmed to room temperature. D. Place warm damp drapes on the patient, replacing them every 5 minutes.
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B. Apply a warm air blanket, gradually increasing body temperature.
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Which of the following is the appropriate response to the statement, "I'm so nervous about my surgery"? A. "You seem nervous about your surgery." B. "You needn't worry. Your doctor has done this surgery many times before." C. "Stop worrying. It only makes you more nervous." D. "Relax. Your recovery period will be shorter if you're less nervous."
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A. "You seem nervous about your surgery."
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What is the most important postoperative instruction a nurse must give to a client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block? A. "Remain supine for the time specified by the physician." B. "Avoid eating milk products for 24 hours." C. "Avoid drinking liquids until the gag reflex returns." D. "Notify a nurse if you experience blood in your urine."
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A. "Remain supine for the time specified by the physician."
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Which zone of the surgical area only allows for attire in the form of scrub clothes and caps? A. Restricted zone B. Semirestricted zone C. Operative zone D. Unrestricted zone
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B. Semirestricted zone
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Which stage of surgical anesthesia is also known as excitement? A. III B. II C. I D. IV
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B. II
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The OR personnel responsible for maintaining the safety of the client and the surgical environment is the: A. Scrub nurse B. Circulating nurse C. Surgeon D. Anesthesiologist
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A. Scrub nurse
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The scrub nurse is responsible for: A. Monitoring the operating-room personnel for breaks in sterile technique B. Calling the "time-out" to verify the surgical site and procedure C. Monitoring the administration of the anesthesia D. Preparing the sterile instruments for the surgical procedure
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D. Preparing the sterile instruments for the surgical procedure
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A patient is undergoing general anesthesia. The nurse anesthetist starts to administer the anesthesia. The patient starts giggling and kicking her legs. What stage of anesthesia would the nurse document related to the findings? A. IV B. III C. II D. I
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C. II
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The anesthesiologist administered a transsacral conduction block. Which of the following documentation by the nurse is consistent with the anesthesia being administered? A. Yelling and pulling at equipment B. Unresponsive to verbal or tactile stimuli C. No movement in right lower leg D. Denies sensation to perineum and lower abdomen
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D. Denies sensation to perineum and lower abdomen
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What are the circulating nurse's responsibilities, in contrast to the scrub nurse's responsibilities? A. Assisting the surgeon B. Setting up the sterile tables C. Coordinating the surgical team D. Passing instruments
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C. Coordinating the surgical team
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The nurse is caring for a patient who is at risk for malignant hyperthermia subsequent to general anesthesia. What is the most common early sign that the nurse should assess for? A. Hypertension B. Muscle rigidity ("tetanylike" movements) C. Tachycardia D. Oliguria
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C. Tachycardia
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Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? A. I B. IV C. II D. III
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D. III
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Nursing students are reviewing information about agents used for anesthesia. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which of the following as an inhalation anesthetic? A. Fentanyl B. Propofol C. Succinylcholine D. Halothane
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D. Halothane
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A patient develops malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following most likely would be the first indicator of this complication? A. Tentanus-like jaw movements B. Heart rate over 150 beats per minute C. Generalized muscle rigidity D. Body temperature rise of 2 degrees F
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B. Heart rate over 150 beats per minute
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A nurse is working as a registered nurse first assistant as defined by the state's nurse practice act. This nurse practices under the direct supervision of which surgical team member? A. Scrub nurse B. Anesthetist C. Surgeon D. Circulating nurse
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C. Surgeon
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A perioperative nurse is conducting an in-service education program about maintaining surgical asepsis during the intraoperative period. Which of the following would the nurse emphasize? A. The edges of a sterile package, once opened, are considered unsterile. B. A distance of 3 feet must be maintained when moving around a sterile field. C. If a tear occurs in a sterile drape, a new sterile drape is applied on top of it. D. Circulating nurses may come in contact with the sterile field without contaminating it.
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A. The edges of a sterile package, once opened, are considered unsterile.
