Geographers use photographs as well as maps. However, what is one disadvantage to using photographs to view Earth’s surface?

It can be hard to find specific features, such as roads More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/scheffer-ss-6th-grade-tools-of-geography/

In a Microsoft Word document, what is the amount of space that appears between paragraphs called?

Paragraph Spacing More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/microsoft-word-lesson-3-4-33679/

assume a graph in which dollars are measured on the vertical axis and output on the horizontal axis for a purely competitive firm, marginal revenue graphs as

straight line, parallel to the horizontal axis More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/combo-with-micro-ch10-and-2-others-3/

Assume that the scales for graphs (a) and (b) are identical. Compare the graphs. Which of the following statements is true?

The toxicant shown in (b) has a lower toxicity than the toxicant shown in (a). More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-10-environmental-science/

What information does Nick give about himself in the first four paragraphs in the story?

He is not judgmental at all, and people feel they can come to him with their problems because of it. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/great-gatsby-chapter-questions/

7) Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA?

A) the diameter of the helix More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch-16-biology-31677/

A student pronounces the word flat as fat. Instruction in which of the following areas will most likely benefit the student? A) Consonant digraphs B) Graphemes C) Consonant blends D) Dipthongs

C) Consonant blends Consonant blends are a sequence of two or three consonants, each of which is heard with minimal change. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/reading-for-virginia-educators-rve-03065306/

Which of the following best why we see horizontal “stripes” in photographs of Jupiter and Saturn?

The light stripes are regions of high clouds, and the dark stripes are regions where we can see down to deeper, darker clouds. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/astronomy-chapter-8-39271/

What is is that we can learn from people disagreeing or quarreling? Book 1, Chapter 1, paragraphs 1-2

They are appealing to some kind of standard of behavior they expect the other person to know. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/mere-christianity-by-c-s-lewis-study-questions-40414/

What is the major challenge for ideographs?

People have to learn thousands of symbols More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/media-society-ch-4/

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Distance Between Two Points Equations Graphs Physics Traveling

PH 201 – General Physics I Final Exam Review – Flashcards 45 terms

Alexandra Robertson

45 terms

Preview

PH 201 – General Physics I Final Exam Review – Flashcards

question

Displacement

answer

∆x = xf - xi (On a velocity vs. time graph, displacement is equal to the area under the curve.)

question

Time Interval

answer

∆ = tf - ti

question

Velocity

answer

∆x/∆t (On a position vs. time graph, velocity is equal to the slope of the curve.)

question

Uniform Motion

answer

xf = xi + vx*∆t

question

Acceleration

answer

a = ∆v/∆t

question

Constant Acceleration (related to projectile motion)

answer

vxf = vxi + ax*∆t

question

Range (related to projectile motion)

answer

xf = xi + vxi*∆t

question

Gravitational Acceleration (of Earth)

answer

g = 9.80 m/s² (downward)

question

Horizontal Acceleration (vector length)

answer

Ax = A*cosθ

question

Vertical Acceleration (vector length)

answer

Ay = A*sinθ

question

Angle of Acceleration (related to projectile motion)

answer

θ = tan⁻¹(Ay/Ax)

question

Acceleration (vector length)

answer

A = √(Ax² + Ay²)

question

Height (related to projectile motion)

answer

yf = yi + vyi*∆t - ½*g*(∆t)²

question

Final Velocity (related to projectile motion)

answer

vyf = vyi - g*∆t

question

Relationship between Initial and Final Horizontal Velocity (related to projectile motion)

answer

vxf = vxi

question

Frequency

answer

ƒ = 1/T

question

Velocity (related to circular motion)

answer

v = (2πR)/T v = 2πƒR

question

Centripetal Acceleration

answer

a = v²/r a = w²r

question

Force

answer

F = m*a

question

Net Force

answer

Fnet = F₁ + F₂ + F₃ ...

question

Normal Force (Weight)

answer

n = m*g = w

question

Static Friction

answer

ƒs = µs*n

question

Kinetic Force

answer

ƒk = µk*n

question

Net Horizontal Force (vector length)

answer

(Fnet)x = ∑Fx = m*ax

question

Net Vertical Force (vector length)

answer

(Fnet)y = ∑Fy = m*ay

question

Gravitational Constant

answer

G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N*m²/kg²

question

Universal Gravitational Force

answer

F = (G*m₁*m₂)/r²

question

Angular Velocity

answer

w = ∆θ/∆t w = 2πƒ

question

Free-fall Acceleration

answer

g = (G*M)/R²

question

Orbital Velocity

answer

v = √(g*r) v = √(G*M/r)

question

Orbital Period

answer

T² = ([4π²]/[G*M])*r³

question

Moment of Inertia

answer

I = ∑m*r²

question

Equilibrium

answer

∑Fx = 0 and ∑Fy = 0

question

Spring Force (Hooke's Law)

answer

(Fs)x = k*∆x (On a force vs. displacement graph, k is equal to the area under the curve.)

question

Impulse

answer

J = Favg*∆t (On a force vs. time graph, J is equal to the area under the curve; also equal to ½*Fmax*∆t.)

question

Momentum

answer

p = m*v

question

Impulse-momentum Theorem

answer

J = ∆p

question

Law of Conservation of Momentum (for an isolated system)

answer

Pf = Pi

question

Work-energy Equation

answer

∆E = ∆K + ∆Ug + ∆Us + ... = W

question

Work

answer

W = F*d*cosθ

question

Kinetic Energy

answer

K = ½m*v²

question

Gravitational Potential Energy

answer

Ug = m*g*y

question

Elastic Potential Energy (of a spring)

answer

Us = ½k*x²

question

Elastic Collision

answer

(v1x)f = ([m1-m2]/[m1+m2])*(v1x)i v2x)f = ([2*m1])/[m1+m2])*(v1x)i (when object 2 is initially at rest)

question

Power

answer

P = W/t P = ∆E/∆t P = F*v

STUDY

AP Statistics Data Data Collection Method Graphs Look For Patterns Quantitative And Qualitative Statistics

Statistics Vocab 1 – Flashcards 49 terms

Jaxon Wilson

49 terms

Preview

Statistics Vocab 1 – Flashcards

question

Statistics

answer

Sciences that deals with the collection, classification, analysis, and interpretation of information or data

question

Descriptive Statistics

answer

Utilizes numerical and graphical methods to look for patterns in a data set, to summarize the information revealed in a data set, and to present that information in a convenient form

question

Inferential Statistics

answer

Utilizes sample data to make estimates, decisions, predictions, or other generalizations about a larger set of data

question

Quantitative Data

answer

Data that are measured on a naturally occurring numerical scale

question

Qualitative Data

answer

Are measurements that cannot be measured on a natural, numerical scale; they can only be classified into one of a group of categories

question

3 different ways to collecting data

answer

1. From a published source 2. From a designed experiment 3. From an observational study

question

Designed experiment

answer

A collection method where the researcher exerts full control over the characteristics of the experimental units sampled. These experiments typically involve a group of experimental units that are assigned the treatment and an untreated group.

question

Observational study

answer

A data collection method where the experimental units sampled are observed in their natural setting. No attempt is made to control the characteristics of the experimental units samples.

question

Selection Bias

answer

Results when a subset of the experimental units in the population is excluded so that these units have no chance of being selected in the sample.

question

Non Response Bias

answer

Results when the researchers conducting a survey or study are unable to obtain on all experimental units selected for the sample.

question

Measurement Error

answer

Refers to inaccuracies in the values of the data recorded. In survey, this kind of error may be due to ambiguous or leading questions and the inter-viewers effect on the respondent.

question

What is a unit?

answer

A unit is an object about which data is being collected

question

What is population?

answer

A population is a set of units that are being studied

question

What is a variable?

answer

A variable is a characteristics or property of an individual experimental unit in the population

question

What is a sample?

answer

A sample is a subset of the units of a population

question

What is a statistical inference?

answer

A statistical inference is an estimate, prediction, or some other generalization about a population based on information contained in the sample

question

Explain the difference between descriptive and inferential statistics.

answer

Descriptive statistics describes sets of data. Inferential statistics draws conclusions about the sets of data based on sampling.

question

Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative data.

answer

Quantitative data are numerical in nature, while qualitative data are categorical in nature.

question

Explain how populations and variables differ.

answer

A population is a set of units of interest to a study. A variable is a characteristic or property of the units being studied.

question

Suppose you're given a data set that classifies each sample unit into one of four categories: A, B, C,or D. You plan to create a computer database consisting of these data, and you decide to code the data as A= 1, B = 2, C = 3, and D = 4. Are the data consisting of the classifications A, B, C, and D qualitiative or quantitative? After the data are input as 1, 2, 3, or 4, are they qualitative or quantitative? Are the data consisting of the classifications A, B, C, and D qualitiative or quantitative?

answer

Qualitative, because they can only be classified into categories.

question

Suppose you're given a data set that classifies each sample unit into one of four categories: A, B, C,or D. You plan to create a computer database consisting of these data, and you decide to code the data as A= 1, B = 2, C = 3, and D = 4. Are the data consisting of the classifications A, B, C, and D qualitiative or quantitative? After the data are input as 1, 2, 3, or 4, are they qualitative or quantitative? After the data are input as 1, 2, 3, or 4, are they qualitative or quantitative?

answer

Qualitative, because they cannot be meaningfully added, subtracted, multiplied, or divided.

question

Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Is political party preference qualitative or quantitative?

answer

Qualitative

question

Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Is number of children in a family qualitative or quantitative?

answer

Quantitative

question

Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Is distance of commute to work qualitative or quantitative?

answer

Quantitative

question

Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Is beverage preference qualitative or quantitative?

answer

Qualitative

question

A company tracked some credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the type of credit card used (VISA, MasterCard, or American Express), and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each monthly balance. Is the variable (1) qualitative or quantitative?

answer

Qualitative

question

answer

Quantitative

question

answer

Sample

question

A company tracked all credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the cardholder's town of residence, and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each purchase. Is the variable (I) qualitative or quantitative?

answer

Qualitative

question

A company tracked all credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the cardholder's town of residence, and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each purchase.

answer

Quantitative

question

A company tracked all credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the cardholder's town of residence, and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each purchase.

answer

Population

question

Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Calories in a cheese danish a. Is the variable qualitative or quantitative? Why?

answer

Calories in a cheese danish is a quantitative variable. Its values are numerical.

question

Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Dream vacation location Is the variable qualitative or quantitative? Why?

answer

Dream vacation location is a qualitative variable. Its values are not numerical.

question

Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Favorite baby name Is the variable qualitative or quantitative? Why?

answer

Favorite baby name is a qualitative variable. Its values are not numerical.

question

Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Storage space on a computer drive Is the variable qualitative or quantitative? Why?

answer

Storage space on a computer drive is a quantitative variable. Its values are numerical.

question

A company surveyed a random sample of 8,000 employees in the region. One question they asked was, "If your employer provides you with mentoring opportunities are you likely to remain in your job for the next five years?" They found that 640 members of the sample said yes. Identify the population of interest to the company.

answer

All employees in the region

question

A company surveyed a random sample of 8,000 employees in the region. One question they asked was, "If your employer provides you with mentoring opportunities are you likely to remain in your job for the next five years?" They found that 640 members of the sample said yes. Based on the question posed by the company what is the variable of interest?

answer

If they answered yes to the survey question

question

answer

The variable is a qualitative variable. Its values cannot be expressed on a naturally occurring numerical scale.

question

answer

The 8,000 employees surveyed

question

A research company performed a study of Machiavellian traits in accountants. Machiavellian describes negative character traits that include manipulation, cunning, duplicity, deception, and bad faith. A questionnaire was administered to a random sample of 800 acccounting alumni of a large university; however, due to nonresponse and incomplete answers, only 264 questionnaires could be analyzed. Several variables were measured, including age, gender, level of education, income, job sati sfaction score, and Machiavellian ("Mach") rating score. The research findings suggest that Machiavellian behavior is not required to achieve success in the accounting profession. What is the population of interest to the researcher?

answer

All accounting alumni of the large university

question

answer

The quantitative variables are age, income, job satisfaction score, and Machiavellian rating. The qualitative variables are gender and level of education.

question

answer

The sample is the 264 accounting alumni who returned the questionnaire.

question

answer

The data are from a survey.

question

answer

Machiavellian behavior is not required to achieve success in the accounting profession.

question

answer

Nonrespondents may be more Machiavellian in nature, biasing the results.

question

Each month interviewers visit about 65,000 of the 90 million households in the region and question the occupants over 14 years of age about their employment status. Their responses enable the interviewers to estimate the percentage of people in the labor force who are unemployed. Define the population of interest to the interviewers.

answer

All people in the region who are over 14 years old

question

answer

Employment status

question

answer

Qualitative

question

Each month interviewers visit about 65,000 of the 90 million households in the region and question the occupants over 14 years of age about their employment status. Their responses enable the interviewers to estimate the percentage of people in the labor force who are unemployed. Is the problem of interest to the interviewers descriptive or inferential?

answer

Inferential

STUDY

Graphs Psychology Watson And Rayner

EXP3403C Chapter 5 – Flashcards 61 terms

Chad Lipe

61 terms

Preview

EXP3403C Chapter 5 – Flashcards

question

Donald Zimmerman found that a buzzer became a positive reinforcer after it was repeatedly paired with ______.

answer

water

question

The Watson and Rayner experiment with Little Albert may have involved operant as well as Pavlovian learning because the loud noise ______.

answer

occurred as Albert reached for the rat

question

All of the following are recognized kinds of reinforcers except ______.

answer

classical

question

Secondary reinforcers are also called _______ reinforcers.

answer

conditioned

question

The experimental chamber developed by Skinner is often called a _________.

answer

Skinner Box

question

Operant learning probably always involves Pavlovian conditioning as well.

answer

True

question

________ gave Skinner's experimental chamber the name, "Skinner box."

answer

Clark Hull

question

Reinforcement is often said to increase the frequency of a behavior, but research suggestss that any feature of a behavior (e.g., intensity, duration, form, etc.) can be strengthened if a reinforcer can be made contingent on that feature.

answer

True

question

The Premack principle says that reinforcement involves _______.

answer

a relation between behaviors

question

Positive reinforcement increases the strength of a behavior.

answer

True

question

Another term for operant is instrumental.

answer

True

question

Positive reinforcement is sometimes called ______ learning.

answer

reward

question

Positive reinforcement is sometimes called _______.

answer

reward learning

question

Money is a good example of a _______ reinforcer.

answer

generalized

question

Thorndike complained that _______ evidence provided a "supernormal psychology of animals."

answer

anecdotal

question

________ demonstrated that electrical stimulation of the brain could be reinforcing.

answer

Olds and Milner

question

The opposite of a conditioned reinforcer is a ______.

answer

primary reinforcer

question

Operant learning is sometimes called ________ learning.

answer

instrumental

question

Thorndike emphasized that we learn mainly from _______.

answer

success

question

The one thing that all reinforcers have in common is that they _______.

answer

strengthen behavior

question

Sylvia believes that the reinforcement properties of an event depend on the extent to which it provides access to high probability behavior. Sylvia is most likely an advocate of _______ theory.

answer

relative value

question

Thorndike made important contributions to all of the following fields except _____.

answer

social psychology

question

Unexpected reinforcers produce more dopamine than expected reinforcers.

answer

True

question

With reinforcement, it is easy for a person to lower his blood pressure

answer

False

question

Operant learning may also be referred to as _______.

answer

instrumental learning

question

Douglas Anger proposed that there is a signal in the Sidman avoidance procedure. The signal is ________.

answer

Time

question

According to the one-process theory of avoidance, the avoidance response is reinforced by _______.

answer

a reduction in the number of aversive events

question

_______ reinforcers are those that have been arranged by someone.

answer

Contrived

question

Negative reinforcement increases the strength of a behavior.

answer

True

question

According to Skinner, people are rewarded, but behavior is reinforced.

answer

True

question

Schlinger and Blakely found that the reinforcing power of a delayed reinforcer could be increased by ________.

answer

preceding the reinforcer with a stimulus

question

Negative reinforcement is sometimes called ______ learning.

answer

Escape avoidance

question

An action that improves the effectiveness of a reinforcer is called a ______.

answer

motivating operation

question

The level of deprivation is less important when the reinforcer used is a(n) _________reinforcer.

answer

Secondary

question

The area of the brain that seems to be associated with reinforcement is called the reward _______.

answer

pathway/ circuit

question

Vomiting is ordinarily an involuntary response, but sometimes it can be modified by operant procedures.

answer

True

question

Negative reinforcement and punishment are synonyms

answer

False

question

_______ theory assumes that a behavior becomes reinforcing when we are prevented from performing it as ofen as we normally would.

answer

Response deprivation

question

In _______ _ a response is followed by the withdrawal of, or reduction in the intensity of, an aversive stimulus.

answer

Negative reinforcement

question

People can learn to behave randomly provided that reinforcers are made contingent on random acts.

answer

True

question

Premack's name is most logically associated with _______.

answer

relative value theory

question

Charles Catania identified three characteristics that define reinforcement. These include all of the following except _______.

answer

the consequence of the behavior must be positive

question

Reinforcers such as praise, positive feedback, and smiles are called ______ reinforcers.

answer

Secondary/conditioned

question

The _______ principle states that high probability behavior reinforces low probability behavior.

answer

Premack

question

Operant learning is often described as trial-and-error learning, but Thorndike argued that behavior was selected by ______.

answer

success

question

Negative reinforcement is also called _______.

answer

escape-avoidance training

question

The author of your text calls Skinner the ______.

answer

Darwin of behavior science

question

Clark Hull's explanation of reinforcement assumes that reinforcers _____.

answer

reduce a drive

question

A general assumption of behavioral research is that any feature of a behavior may be strengthened by reinforcement, so long as reinforcement can be made contingent on that feature

answer

True

question

In operant learning, the word contingency usually refers to the degree of correlation between a behavior and a consequence.

answer

True

question

Studies of delayed reinforcement document the importance of ______.

answer

contiguity

question

The more you increase the size of a reinforcer, the less benefit you get from the increase.

answer

True

question

In one of Thorndike's puzzle boxes, a door would fall open when a cat stepped on a treadle, thus allowing the cat to reach food outside the box. Eventually the cat would step on the treadle as soon as it was put into the box. Thorndike concluded that ________.

answer

treadle stepping increased because it had a "satisfying effect"

question

Studies demonstrate that operant learning is as effective with involuntary behavior, such as the salivary reflex, as it is with voluntary behavior

answer

False

question

Mary decides to try to modify Pearl's behavior (see above item). She and the rest of the family refuse to respond to any comment or request by Pearl that they know she is capable of expressing in English. For example, if during dinner she says, "Pass the potatoes" in English, she gets potatoes; if she says it in her native language she gets ignored. The procedure being used to change Pearl's behavior is ______.

answer

positive reinforcement

question

Pavlovian and operant learning often occur together.

answer

True

question

Clark Hull's name is associated with the _______ theory of reinforcement.

answer

drive-reduction

question

_____is a neurotransmitter that seems to be important in reinforcement.

answer

Dopamine

question

The number of operant procedures indicated in the contingency square is ______.

answer

four

question

According to ___________ theory, schoolchildren are eager to go to recess because they have been deprived of the opportunity to exercise.

answer

response deprivation

question

Skinner describes some of his most important research in _______.

answer

The Behavior of Organisms

STUDY

Aids Genetically Modified Foods Graphs Linguistics Speech

Speech 102 Final Exam (5-1-17) – Flashcards 14 terms

Mike Bryan

14 terms

Preview

Speech 102 Final Exam (5-1-17) – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is not a goal of a special occasion speech? A: Entertain B: Inspire C: Report D: Commemorate

answer

C: Report

question

The final stage in creating your special occasion speech is... A: Research for suitable material B: Create an outline C: Use effective language and delivery D: Listen and Evaluate

answer

D: Listen and Evaluate

question

What is the first step in creating a special occasion speech? A: Practice delivery B: Research for material C: Determine the purpose and type of speech D: Create your outline

answer

question

Speeches to ___________ are expected to be cheery, playful, light, and usually optimistic, but can have an underlying serious message. A: Commemorate B: Inspire C: Enterain D: Celebrate

answer

Entertain

question

Aaron accepted an award at the young business leaders conference, his purpose was to... A: Inspire B: Celebrate C: Commemorate D: Entertain

answer

Celebrate

question

Your general purpose is to _______ when you wish to reinforce change, or influence the attitudes, beliefs, values, or actions of your audience A: Persuade B: Commemorate C: Invite D: Inform

answer

Persuade

question

Another term for central idea is.... A: Specific Purpose B: Preview C: Objective D: Thesis Statement

answer

Thesis Statement

question

Which of the following is NOT an ethical guideline for selecting a topic? A: Select a topic that is worth the audiences time B: Your topic should not be harmful to you or your audience C: Select a topic that fits the audience and occasion D: Persuasive topics should focus on individuals, not on issues

answer

Persuasive topics should focus in individuals, not issues

question

Everything in your speech should relate back to one complete statement called the... A: Overview B: Central Idea C: Specific Purpose D: General Purpose

answer

Central Idea

question

In the following specific purpose, "To persuade my classmates to eat a low-carb diet," "to eat a low-carb diet" is called the... A: Central Idea B: General Purpose C: Ultimate Goal D: Objective

answer

Objective

question

Which of the following is NOT a way presentation aids can boost your confidence as a speaker? A: You can read your notes from the aids B: You can present your message more professionally C: They can help you internalize your information D: They can help you organize your thoughts

answer

You can read your notes from the aids

question

Presentation aids can help you maintain a ______ delivery A: Extemporaneous B: Manuscript C: Impromptu D: Memorized

answer

Extemporaneous

question

_____ are useful if you want to emphasize location, geography, or topography A: Graphs B: Actual items C: Drawings D: Tables

answer

Drawings

question

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate purpose for using a presentation aid A: to appeal to your audiences emotions B: to aid in intercultural understanding C: to help the audience remember key issues D: to add "pizzazz" to your speech

answer

To add "pizzazz"

STUDY

Boiling And Freezing Graphs Heat Physical Chemistry

Physical Geography Test Questions – Flashcards 87 terms

Lesly Lloyd

87 terms

Preview

Physical Geography Test Questions – Flashcards

question

What is temperature?

answer

The measure of kinetic energy

question

What are the three temperature scales?

answer

1. Celcius scale 2. Fahrenheit scale 3. Kelvin scale

question

what does heat depend on?

answer

volume, temperature, and its capacity to hold heat

question

what is "air temperature"?

answer

temperature measured a meter or two above the surface troposphere

question

what is a lapse rate?

answer

rate of change of temperature with height

question

what is the average tropospheric lapse rate?

answer

decreases 6.5c per 1000m

question

what does environmental lapse rate (ELR) do with height increase

answer

typically decreases with height

question

What is an air parcel?

answer

a theoretical bubble of air

question

What two things can happen to a parcel of air temperature wise?

answer

1. if a parcel is warmer then the environment *parcel rises *unstable air *clouds/rain 2. if a parcel is cooler than the environment *parcel sinks *stable air *clear sky

question

What happens as an air parcel rises?

answer

it expands, and work is done on the surrounding

question

What happens as an air parcel sinks?

answer

it compresses, and work is done on the parcel

question

what happens to the temperature of an air parcel as the height increases?

answer

it decreases

question

what are the two lapse rates of a parcel?

answer

1. dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR) 2. saturated adiabatic lapse rate (SALR)

question

describe DALR

answer

1. non saturated or "dry" air parcels cool at DALR 2. dependent on gases in the atmosphere and acceleration of gravity 3. this lapse rate is a constant (10c per 1km) 4. if a parcel is lowered it will always warm up at the DALR

question

Describe SALR

answer

1. air parcels do not cool as quickly due to latent heat 2. this lapse rate is not a constant (4c per 1 km)

question

describe a stable lapse rate

answer

1. air parcel is cooler than the environment 2. parcel is now denser and heavier and then returns to its original position

question

describe unstable lapse rate

answer

1. air parcel is warmer than the environment 2. parcel is now lighter, and continues to rise

question

what is dewpoint?

answer

the atmospheric temperature below which water droplets begin to condense and dew can form

question

what is the lifting condensation level?

answer

the level where the parcel becomes saturated

question

Diurnal cycle

answer

1. sunrise net radiation becomes positive, and temperature increases 2. solar noon: max net radiation 3. late afternoon net radiation becomes negative, and temperature decreases 4. sunset net radiation is negative, so temperature continues to decrease

question

annual cycle

answer

1. spring a. net radiation becomes positive, and temperatures increase 2. autumn a. net radiation becomes negative, and temperatures decrease

question

how is the spatial distribution of temperature decided?

answer

by the length of daylight and the angle of the suns rays

question

what are the land/water heating differences?

answer

1. dry land heats and cools rapidly 2. water heats and cools slowly

question

does water have a high specific heat?

answer

yes. it takes more energy to heat or cool water because water holds onto heat

question

describe advection

answer

horizontal transport through the atmosphere via wind

question

describe isotherms

answer

lines connection all points having the same temperature

question

describe temperature gradient

answer

horizontal rate of temperature change over a distance

question

describe wind

answer

movement of air relative to the earths surface

question

air moves from_____ to_____ pressure?

answer

higher to lower

question

describe pressure when referring to air

answer

weight of a column of air

question

speeds and directions of surface winds are determined by what three forces?

answer

1. pressure gradient force 2. coriolis force 3. frictional force

question

what are the two types of wind systems?

answer

large and small scale

question

two types of large wind scale systems

answer

upper level winds & surface winds

question

cyclones happen from____ air &____ pressure?

answer

rising & low

question

anticyclones happen from___air &_____ pressure?

answer

sinking & high

question

what is cold air drainage?

answer

steady downward oozing of heavy, dense, cold air along steep slopes under the influence of gravity

question

how is a monsoon formed?

answer

by seasonal reversal of onshore and offshore winds

question

what are ocean currents?

answer

large scale movements of water

question

what is an airmass?

answer

A large uniform body of air that movse across the surface as an organized whole

question

air mass classification

answer

Humidity 1. m-maritime 2. c-continental temperature 1. t-tropical 2. p-polar 3. a-artic

question

air mass types

answer

1. continental tropical-cT (hot and dry 2. maritime tropical- mT (hot and moist) 3. continental polar-cP (cold and dry) 4. maritime polar-mP (cold and moist)

question

two types of extreme air masses?

answer

1. continental artic 2. maritime equatorial

question

describe fronts

answer

Zones separating two types of air masses

question

what are the two main types of fronts?

answer

cold front & warm front

question

cold front

answer

The cold air mass is replacing a warmer air mass

question

warm front

answer

The warm air mass is replacing a colder air mass

question

what two things are needed for precipitation?

answer

moisture & rising motion

question

what are the four lifting mechanisms?

answer

1. convergent lifting 2. frontal lifting 3. orographic lifting 4. convectional uplift

question

convergent lifting

answer

the forced uplift of an air pacel where low level wind converges

question

frontal uplift

answer

-caused by the collision of air masses with different temperatures/densities.

question

frontal uplift-cold front

answer

- cold front for example, if a cold air mass approaches a warmer air mass, the cold air will stay below because it is more dense. This forces the warmer air to rise rapidly

question

frontal uplift-warm front

answer

if a warm air mass approaches a cooler air mass, the warm air mass will ride up over the cooler air

question

orographic lifting

answer

the forced uplift of moving air that encounters a mountain

question

convectional uplift

answer

convection uplift is caused by atmospheric instability. Parcels rise from being warmer than the environment

question

what 3 conditions form airmass thunderstorms?

answer

1. sufficient water vapor 2. sufficient instability 3. weak winds aloft

question

what are the 3 stages of the life cycle for air mass thunderstorms?

answer

1. developing stage 2. mature stage 3. dissipating stage

question

developing stage

answer

convection occurs in an unstable environment as moist heated air rises, condensation occurs, and warms the surrounding air through latent heat

question

mature stage

answer

-updraft continues -heavy rain begins to fall producing a downdraft of cold air

question

dissipation stage

answer

downdraft dominates weakening the updraft of warm, moist air. suffocates it

question

what is a squall line?

answer

individual severe thunderstorms 1-5 miles wide become arranged in a line

question

what are supercells?

answer

individual thunderstorms that assume their own rotation

question

what are 3 types of thunderstorm related phenomena?

answer

lighting/thunder, hail, and tornados

question

what does the hydrosphere do?

answer

it encompasses the global water system

question

what are the 3 physical properties of water?

answer

solid, gas, & liquid

question

define humidity

answer

the amount of water vapor present in a column of air

question

define absolute humidity

answer

mass of water vapor per VOLUME of air

question

define specific humidity

answer

mass of water vapor per MASS of air

question

define mixing ratio

answer

mass of water vapor per mass of dry air

question

what is the dew point?

answer

the temperature at which saturation is reached

question

define evapotranspiration

answer

passage of moisture from the land surface to the atmosphere through the combined processes of evaporation and transpiration

question

define clouds

answer

visible masses of suspended, minute water droplets and/or ice crystals

question

define stratus clouds

answer

-layered appearance -fairly thin -typically cover a large region

question

define nimbostatus clouds

answer

-low level cloud -rain producing

question

define cirrus clouds

answer

-thin -whispy clouds -composed of ice crystals

question

define cumulus clouds

answer

-thick, puffy masses that often develop to great heights

question

define cumulonimbus clouds

answer

-very tall cumulus clouds -anvil shaped at the top -violent weather related

question

what are 5 forms of precipitation?

answer

1. rain 2. snow 3. sleet 4. freezing rain 5. hail

question

define water balance

answer

the measurement of inflow, outflow, and net annual surplus of deficit of water at a given location

question

what are ocean currents?

answer

large scale movements of water

question

worlds oceans are divided into three zones, what are they?

answer

1. mixed layer-75 m in depth roughly 3% of the total ocean water volume 2. thermocline-1000 m in depth 3. deep water-depths greater than 1000 m includes 97% if the total ocean water volume

question

what is the single most important influence of the world ocean on the atmosphere?

answer

it's heat-storage capacity

question

what are the two types of currents?

answer

warm current & cold current

question

warm currents travel from where to where?

answer

the tropics towards the poles

question

cold currents typically travel from where to where?

answer

from the poles towards the equator

question

what 2 ways can you generate ocean currents?

answer

1. the kinetic energy of the prevailing surface winds 2. the density of salt water

question

define gyre

answer

cell like circulation of surface currents that often encompasses an entire ocean basin

question

how does upwelling work?

answer

as the warm water is driven out to sea, water from beneath must "upwell" to replace it

STUDY

Economics Factors Of Production Graphs

Micro Chapter 2 Homework Answers – Flashcards 43 terms

Paula Corcoran

43 terms

Preview

Micro Chapter 2 Homework Answers – Flashcards

question

Which of the following terms are most closely associated with the study of economics?

answer

comparative advantage and deadweight loss

question

Economists, like mathematicians, physicists, and psychologists,

answer

all the above are correct

question

By scientific method we mean

answer

the dispassionate development and testing of theories about how the world works

question

Economists regard events from the past as

answer

interesting and valuable, because those events are capable of helping us to understand the past, the present, and the future.

question

The goal of an economist who formulates new theories is to

answer

contribute to an understanding of how the world works

question

For an economist, the idea of making assumptions is regarded generally as a

answer

good idea, since doing so helps to simplify the complex world and make it easier to understand

question

The decision of which assumptions to make is

answer

usually regarded as an art in scientific thinking

question

When studying the effects of public policy changes, economists

answer

sometimes make different assumptions about the short run and the long run

question

Which types of models are built with assumptions?

answer

economic models as well as models in other disciplines such as physics and sociology

question

A model can be accurately described as a

answer

simplification of reality

question

The circular-flow diagram is a

answer

visual model of how the economy is organized

question

Factors of production are

answer

inputs into the production process

question

In the circular-flow diagram,

answer

households are sellers in the markets for the factors of production

question

In the circular-flow diagram,

answer

income paid to the factors of production flows from firms to households

question

In the simple circular-flow diagram, households

answer

own the factors of production

question

Which arrow represents the flow of goods and services?

answer

(this is an image, it's the inside arrow at the top of the flow chart) B

question

Which arrow represents the flow of spending by households?

answer

(this is an image, it's the arrow on the outside rounding the top right corner) A

question

In the markets for factors of production,

answer

households provide firms with labor, land, and capital

question

The amount by which firms' sales revenue exceeds their payments to factors of production is called

answer

profit

question

An economic outcome is said to be efficient if the economy is

answer

getting all it can get from the scarce resources it has available

question

Production is efficient if the economy is producing at a point

answer

on the production possibilities frontier

question

The economy has the ability to produce at which point or points?

answer

(this is an image) "The economy can produce any combination on or inside the frontier." BDE

question

Which point represents the situation in which the economy is producing its maximum possible quantity of tubas?

answer

(this is an image) The dot closest to the tuba line. E

question

At which point or points can the economy not currently produce?

answer

(this is an image) Any dot on past the curve, so AE.

question

Which of the following events would explain the shift of the production possibilities frontier from A to B?

answer

(this is an image, curve A is increasing to curve B) The economy experienced a technological advance in the production of batteries

question

Unemployment would cause an economy to

answer

produce inside its production possibilities frontier

question

A production possibilities frontier can shift outward if

answer

there is a technological improvement

question

The field of economics is traditionally divided into two broad subfields,

answer

microeconomics and macroeconomics

question

Which of the following would be considered a topic of study in macroeconomics?

answer

unemployment in the nation OR the economy annual's growth rate

question

Which of the following areas of study typifies macroeconomics as opposed to microeconomics?

answer

the effect on the economy of changes in the nation's unemployment rate

question

When economists are trying to explain the world, they are

answer

policy advisors

question

When economists are trying to help improve the world they are

answer

scientists

question

For economists, statements about the world are of two types:

answer

positive statements and normative statements

question

Which of the following is an example of a positive statement?

answer

Prices rise when the government prints too much money

question

Which of the following is an example of a normative statement?

answer

Reducing tax rates on the wealthy would benefit the nation

question

Economists at the Treasury Department

answer

provide advice on tax policy to the President

question

Economists in which cabinet-level department help enforce antitrust laws?

answer

Department of Justice

question

Economists who are primarily responsible for advising Congress on economic matters work in which agency?

answer

the Congressional Budget Office

question

The Council of Economic Advisers has

answer

three members and a staff of economists

question

The two basic reasons why economists often appear to give conflicting advice to policymakers are differences in

answer

scientific judgments and values

question

Almost all economists agree that rent control

answer

adversely affects the availability and quality of housing

question

A survey of economists revealed that more than three-fourths of them agreed with a number of statements, including which of the following?

answer

all the above are correct

question

John Maynard Keynes referred to economics as an easy subject,

answer

at which very few excel

STUDY

Business Management Capital Asset Pricing Model Finance Graphs Human Resource Management Risk

CFA 43: Portfolio Management II – Flashcards 40 terms

Henry Smith

40 terms

Preview

CFA 43: Portfolio Management II – Flashcards

question

The line depicting the risk and return of portfolio combinations of a risk-free asset and any risky asset is the: security market line. capital allocation line. security characteristic line.

answer

B is correct. The capital allocation line, CAL, is a combination of the risk-free asset and a risky asset (or a portfolio of risky assets). The combination of the risk-free asset and the market portfolio is a special case of the CAL, which is the capital market line, CML.

question

The portfolio of a risk-free asset and a risky asset has a better risk-return tradeoff than investing in only one asset type because the correlation between the risk-free asset and the risky asset is equal to: −1.0. 0.0. 1.0.

answer

B is correct. A portfolio of the risk-free asset and a risky asset or a portfolio of risky assets can result in a better risk-return tradeoff than an investment in only one type of an asset, because the risk-free asset has zero correlation with the risky asset.

question

With respect to capital market theory, an investor's optimal portfolio is the combination of a risk-free asset and a risky asset with the highest: expected return. indifference curve. capital allocation line slope.

answer

B is correct. Investors will have different optimal portfolios depending on their indifference curves. The optimal portfolio for each investor is the one with highest utility; that is, where the CAL is tangent to the individual investor's highest possible indifference curve.

question

Highly risk-averse investors will most likely invest the majority of their wealth in: risky assets. risk-free assets. the optimal risky portfolio.

answer

B is correct. Although the optimal risky portfolio is the market portfolio, highly risk-averse investors choose to invest most of their wealth in the risk-free asset.

question

The capital market line, CML, is the graph of the risk and return of portfolio combinations consisting of the risk-free asset and: any risky portfolio. the market portfolio. the leveraged portfolio.

answer

B is correct. Although the capital allocation line includes all possible combinations of the risk-free asset and any risky portfolio, the capital market line is a special case of the capital allocation line, which uses the market portfolio as the optimal risky portfolio.

question

Which of the following statements most accurately defines the market portfolio in capital market theory? The market portfolio consists of all: risky assets. tradable assets. investable assets.

answer

A is correct. The market includes all risky assets, or anything that has value; however, not all assets are tradable, and not all tradable assets are investable.

question

With respect to capital market theory, the optimal risky portfolio: is the market portfolio. has the highest expected return. has the lowest expected variance.

answer

A is correct. The optimal risky portfolio is the market portfolio. Capital market theory assumes that investors have homogeneous expectations, which means that all investors analyze securities in the same way and are rational. That is, investors use the same probability distributions, use the same inputs for future cash flows, and arrive at the same valuations. Because their valuations of all assets are identical, all investors will invest in the same optimal risky portfolio (i.e., the market portfolio).

question

Relative to portfolios on the CML, any portfolio that plots above the CML is considered: inferior. inefficient. unachievable.

answer

C is correct. Theoretically, any point above the CML is not achievable and any point below the CML is dominated by and inferior to any point on the CML.

question

A portfolio on the capital market line with returns greater than the returns on the market portfolio represents a(n): lending portfolio. borrowing portfolio. unachievable portfolio.

answer

B is correct. As one moves further to the right of point M on the capital market line, an increasing amount of borrowed money is being invested in the market portfolio. This means that there is negative investment in the risk-free asset, which is referred to as a leveraged position in the risky portfolio.

question

With respect to the capital market line, a portfolio on the CML with returns less than the returns on the market portfolio represents a(n): lending portfolio. borrowing portfolio. unachievable portfolio

answer

A is correct. The combinations of the risk-free asset and the market portfolio on the CML where returns are less than the returns on the market portfolio are termed 'lending' portfolios.

question

Which of the following types of risk is most likely avoided by forming a diversified portfolio? Total risk. Systematic risk. Nonsystematic risk.

answer

C is correct. Investors are capable of avoiding nonsystematic risk by forming a portfolio of assets that are not highly correlated with one another, thereby reducing total risk and being exposed only to systematic risk.

question

Which of the following events is most likely an example of nonsystematic risk? A decline in interest rates. The resignation of chief executive officer. An increase in the value of the U.S. dollar.

answer

B is correct. Nonsystematic risk is specific to a firm, whereas systematic risk affects the entire economy.

question

With respect to the pricing of risk in capital market theory, which of the following statements is most accurate? All risk is priced. Systematic risk is priced. Nonsystematic risk is priced.

answer

B is correct. Only systematic risk is priced. Investors do not receive any return for accepting nonsystematic or diversifiable risk.

question

The sum of an asset's systematic variance and its nonsystematic variance of returns is equal to the asset's: beta. total risk. total variance.

answer

C is correct. The sum of systematic variance and nonsystematic variance equals the total variance of the asset. References to total risk as the sum of systematic risk and nonsystematic risk refer to variance, not to risk.

question

With respect to return-generating models, the intercept term of the market model is the asset's estimated: beta. alpha. variance.

answer

B is correct. In the market model, Ri=αi+βiRm+ei , the intercept, αi, and slope coefficient, βi, are estimated using historical security and market returns.

question

With respect to return-generating models, the slope term of the market model is an estimate of the asset's: total risk. systematic risk. nonsystematic risk.

answer

B is correct. In the market model, Ri=αi+βiRm+ei , the slope coefficient, βi, is an estimate of the asset's systematic or market risk.

question

With respect to return-generating models, which of the following statements is most accurate? Return-generating models are used to directly estimate the: expected return of a security. weights of securities in a portfolio. parameters of the capital market line.

answer

A is correct. In the market model, Ri=αi+βiRm+ei , the intercept, αi, and slope coefficient, βi, are estimated using historical security and market returns. These parameter estimates then are used to predict firm-specific returns that a security may earn in a future period.

question

An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Annual Return (%) Expected Standard Deviation (%) Correlation between Security and the Market Security 1 11 25 0.6 Security 2 11 20 0.7 Security 3 14 20 0.8 Market 10 15 1.0 Which security has the highest total risk? Security 1. Security 2. Security 3

answer

A is correct. Security 1 has the highest total variance; 0.0625=0.252 compared to Security 2 and Security 3 with a total variance of 0.0400.

question

answer

C is correct. Security 3 has the highest beta value; 1.07=ρ3,mσ3σm=(0.80)(20%)15% compared to Security 1 and Security 2 with beta values of 1.00 and 0.93, respectively.

question

An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Annual Return (%) Expected Standard Deviation (%) Correlation between Security and the Market Security 1 11 25 0.6 Security 2 11 20 0.7 Security 3 14 20 0.8 Market 10 15 1.0 Which security has the least amount of market risk? Security 1. Security 2. Security 3.

answer

B is correct. Security 2 has the lowest beta value; .93=ρ2,mσ2σm=(0.70)(20%)15% compared to Security 1 and 3 with beta values of 1.00 and 1.07, respectively.

question

With respect to capital market theory, the average beta of all assets in the market is: less than 1.0. equal to 1.0. greater than 1.0.

answer

B is correct. The average beta of all assets in the market, by definition, is equal to 1.0.

question

The slope of the security characteristic line is an asset's: beta. excess return. risk premium.

answer

A is correct. The security characteristic line is a plot of the excess return of the security on the excess return of the market. In such a graph, Jensen's alpha is the intercept and the beta is the slope.

question

The graph of the capital asset pricing model is the: capital market line. security market line. security characteristic line.

answer

B is correct. The security market line (SML) is a graphical representation of the capital asset pricing model, with beta risk on the x-axis and expected return on the y-axis.

question

With respect to capital market theory, correctly priced individual assets can be plotted on the: capital market line. security market line. capital allocation line.

answer

B is correct. The security market line applies to any security, efficient or not. The CAL and the CML use the total risk of the asset (or portfolio of assets) rather than its systematic risk, which is the only risk that is priced.

question

With respect to the capital asset pricing model, the primary determinant of expected return of an individual asset is the: asset's beta. market risk premium. asset's standard deviation.

answer

A is correct. The CAPM shows that the primary determinant of expected return for an individual asset is its beta, or how well the asset correlates with the market.

question

With respect to the capital asset pricing model, which of the following values of beta for an asset is most likely to have an expected return for the asset that is less than the risk-free rate? −0.5 0.0 0.5

answer

A is correct. If an asset's beta is negative, the required return will be less than the risk-free rate in the CAPM. When combined with a positive market return, the asset reduces the risk of the overall portfolio, which makes the asset very valuable. Insurance is an example of a negative beta asset.

question

With respect to the capital asset pricing model, the market risk premium is: less than the excess market return. equal to the excess market return. greater than the excess market return.

answer

B is correct. In the CAPM, the market risk premium is the difference between the return on the market and the risk-free rate, which is the same as the return in excess of the market return.

question

An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Standard Deviation (%) Beta Security 1 25 1.50 Security 2 15 1.40 Security 3 20 1.60 With respect to the capital asset pricing model, if the expected market risk premium is 6% and the risk-free rate is 3%, the expected return for Security 1 is closest to: 9.0%. 12.0%. 13.5%.

answer

B is correct. The expected return of Security 1, using the CAPM, is 12.0% = 3% + 1.5(6%); E(Ri)=Rf+βi[E(Rm)−Rf] .

question

An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Standard Deviation (%) Beta Security 1 25 1.50 Security 2 15 1.40 Security 3 20 1.60 With respect to the capital asset pricing model, if expected return for Security 2 is equal to 11.4% and the risk-free rate is 3%, the expected return for the market is closest to: 8.4%. 9.0%. 10.3%.

answer

B is correct. The expected risk premium for Security 2 is 8.4%, (11.4% − 3%), indicates that the expected market risk premium is 6%; therefore, since the risk-free rate is 3% the expected rate of return for the market is 9%. That is, using the CAPM, E(Ri)=Rf+βi[E(Rm)−Rf] , 11.4% = 3% + 1.4(X%), where X% = (11.4% − 3%)/1.4 = 6.0% = market risk premium.

question

An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Standard Deviation (%) Beta Security 1 25 1.50 Security 2 15 1.40 Security 3 20 1.60 With respect to the capital asset pricing model, if the expected market risk premium is 6% the security with the highest expected return is: Security 1. Security 2. Security 3.

answer

C is correct. Security 3 has the highest beta; thus, regardless of the value for the risk-free rate, Security 3 will have the highest expected return: E(Ri)=Rf+βi[E(Rm)−Rf]

question

An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Standard Deviation (%) Beta Security 1 25 1.50 Security 2 15 1.40 Security 3 20 1.60 With respect to the capital asset pricing model, a decline in the expected market return will have the greatest impact on the expected return of: Security 1. Security 2. Security 3.

answer

C is correct. Security 3 has the highest beta; thus, regardless of the risk-free rate the expected return of Security 3 will be most sensitive to a change in the expected market return.

question

Which of the following performance measures is consistent with the CAPM? M-squared. Sharpe ratio. Jensen's alpha.

answer

C is correct. Jensen's alpha adjusts for systematic risk, and M-squared and the Sharpe Ratio adjust for total risk.

question

Which of the following performance measures does not require the measure to be compared to another value? Sharpe ratio. Treynor ratio. Jensen's alpha.

answer

C is correct. The sign of Jensen's alpha indicates whether or not the portfolio has outperformed the market. If alpha is positive, the portfolio has outperformed the market; if alpha is negative, the portfolio has underperformed the market.

question

Which of the following performance measures is most appropriate for an investor who is not fully diversified? M-squared. Treynor ratio. Jensen's alpha.

answer

A is the correct. M-squared adjusts for risk using standard deviation (i.e., total risk).

question

Analysts who have estimated returns of an asset to be greater than the expected returns generated by the capital asset pricing model should consider the asset to be: overvalued. undervalued. properly valued.

answer

B is correct. If the estimated return of an asset is above the SML (the expected return), the asset has a lower level of risk relative to the amount of expected return and would be a good choice for investment (i.e., undervalued).

question

With respect to capital market theory, which of the following statements best describes the effect of the homogeneity assumption? Because all investors have the same economic expectations of future cash flows for all assets, investors will invest in: the same optimal risky portfolio. the Standard and Poor's 500 Index. assets with the same amount of risk.

answer

A is correct. The homogeneity assumption refers to all investors having the same economic expectation of future cash flows. If all investors have the same expectations, then all investors should invest in the same optimal risky portfolio, therefore implying the existence of only one optimal portfolio (i.e., the market portfolio).

question

answer

B is correct. The homogeneous expectations assumption means that all investors analyze securities in the same way and are rational. That is, they use the same probability distributions, use the same inputs for future cash flows, and arrive at the same valuations. Because their valuation of all assets is identical, they will generate the same optimal risky portfolio, which is the market portfolio.

question

The intercept of the best fit line formed by plotting the excess returns of a manager's portfolio on the excess returns of the market is best described as Jensen's: beta. ratio. alpha.

answer

C is correct. This is because of the plot of the excess return of the security on the excess return of the market. In such a graph, Jensen's alpha is the intercept and the beta is the slope.

question

Portfolio managers who are maximizing risk-adjusted returns will seek to invest more in securities with: lower values of Jensen's alpha. values of Jensen's alpha equal to 0. higher values of Jensen's alpha.

answer

C is correct. Since managers are concerned with maximizing risk-adjusted returns, securities with a higher value of Jensen's alpha, αi, should have a higher weight.

question

Portfolio managers, who are maximizing risk-adjusted returns, will seek to invest less in securities with: lower values for nonsystematic variance. values of nonsystematic variance equal to 0. higher values for nonsystematic variance.

answer

C is correct. Since managers are concerned with maximizing risk-adjusted returns, securities with greater nonsystematic risk should be given less weight in the portfolio.

STUDY

Economics Graphs

Economics Review Test Questions – Flashcards 75 terms

Candace Young

75 terms

Preview

Economics Review Test Questions – Flashcards

question

What does Ceteris Paribus mean?

answer

all other things unchanged or constant

question

What is Economics the study of? Why?

answer

Economics is the study of choices that leads to the best possible use of scarce resources. This is used in order to best satisfy unlimited human wants and needs.

question

What is the crucial problem of economics?

answer

That society has unlimited wants and needs but resources are limited.

question

What are the key Economic questions?

answer

1. For whom to produce 2. What to produce 3. How to produce

question

What is the function of an economic system?

answer

To produce and distribute goods and services

question

In order to be considered scarce, what must an economic resource be?

answer

It must be limited in supply

question

What does the circular flow model explain?

answer

It explains how money flows through the economy.

question

What does scarcity mean?

answer

That the supply is inefficient for the demand.

question

How does scaricty relate toa ll goods and services?

answer

Because there is a limit on these items

question

Explain the PPC.

answer

PPC represents all combinations of the maximum amounts of two goods that can be produced by an economy

question

Where do all countries lie on the PPC?

answer

On the inside of the PPC.

question

How can countries improve their production possibilities?

answer

New resources and technology

question

What are resources made by huns that re used to create other goods are called?

answer

capital goods.

question

What is opportunity cost?

answer

the value of giving up an alternative choice by making an economic decision.

question

What is the product market?

answer

the marketplace in which a final good or service is bought and sold.

question

Explain the two different types of economic systems.

answer

Microeconomics- the study of the decisions made by individuals and businesses Macroeconomics- the study of national economy and the global economy

question

What are the factors of production?

answer

Land- natural resources Labor- human side of production capital- man made machines/factories entrepreneurship- person that organizes land, labor, capital

question

Explain the concept of price as a rationing system

answer

price regulates rationing. people have to make a choice of what to produce

question

Explain the law of demand

answer

there is a negative causal relationship between the price of a good and its quantity demanded over a particular time period, ceteris paribus.

question

Explain the law of supply

answer

as price increases the quantity supplied will also increase (positive causal relationship) firms create more

question

equilibrium

answer

when quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied

question

If price is lower than equilibrium what is the result?

answer

A shortage occurs

question

If price is higher than equilibrium what is the result?

answer

A surplus occurs

question

If there is an increase in demand, which way will the demand curve shift? Is the same true for supply?

answer

increase in demand - shift right; same with supply

question

If there is a decrease in supply, which way will the supply curve shift? Is the same true for demand?

answer

decrease in supply - shift left; same with demand.

question

Draw a correctly labeled supply and demand diagram.

answer

question

List and explain each of the determinants of demand.

answer

question

List and explain each of the determinants of supply.

answer

Number of firms, resource prices and costs of production, technology, prices of other goods the firm can produce, expectations, taxes, subsidies, supply shocks

question

What kind of table lists the quantity of a good that a person will buy at different prices?

answer

demand schedule

question

What happens to market equilibrium when there is an increase in supply?

answer

price decreases and quantity demanded increases

question

What happens to market equilibrium when there is an increase in demand?

answer

price increases and quantity demanded increases

question

What happens to market equilibrium when there is a decrease in supply?

answer

price increases and quantity demanded decreases

question

What happens to market equilibrium when there is a decrease in demand?

answer

price decreases and quantity demanded decreases

question

Explain the concept of elasticity.

answer

measures a variable's sensitivity to change in another variable.

question

What is PED?

answer

a measure of how much quantity responds to change in price

question

What is the formula for PED?

answer

percentage change in quantity demanded / percentage change in price

question

What are the ranges for PED?

answer

0<PED<1 = price inelastic 1<PED<infinity = elastic PED = 1 = unit elastic PED = 0 = perfectly inelastic PED = infinity = perfectly elastic

question

What are the determinants of PED? Give examples of each.

answer

availability of substitute goods, definition of the good or service, necessities vs. luxuries, proportion of income spent, addiction

question

What is CED?

answer

measures the change in demand for a good based on a change in price in a substitute or complementary good

question

What is the formula for CED?

answer

percentage change in quantity demanded of good x / percentage change in price of good y

question

What are the ranges for CED?

answer

CED is positive = goods are substitute CED is negative = goods are complementary CED is zero = goods are unrelated

question

Why is CED important to producers?

answer

It informs them how much they need to produce of a product

question

What is YED?

answer

measures the responsiveness of demand to changes in income

question

What is the formula for YED?

answer

percentage change in demand for good x / percentage change in income

question

What are the ranges for YED?

answer

YED>1 = income elastic YED<1 = income inelastic YED is positive = normal YED is negative = inferior

question

What is PES?

answer

measures the amount of a good supplied in relation to a change in its price.

question

What is the formula for PES?

answer

percentage change in quantity supplied / percentage change in price

question

What are the ranges for PES?

answer

PES1 = price elastic PES = 1 = unit elastic PES = 0 = perfectly inelastic

question

What are the determinants for PES?

answer

length of time

question

What are price ceilings and price floors? Give examples of each and the impact on all stakeholders.

answer

price ceiling- a legal maximum price set below the equilibrium price price floor- legally set minimum price above the equilibrium price.

question

Why might the government impose a tax or a subsidy? What do the diagrams look like and explain the impacts on all stakeholders.

answer

subsidy- money granted by the government to assist an industry

question

Explain the concept of market failures.

answer

exists any time the free market results in an over or under allocation of resources towards a particular good or service

question

What are negative externalities?

answer

negative effects creased by producers and consumers

question

What are positive externalities?

answer

positive effects created by producers and consumers

question

Give examples of negative production externalities.

answer

pollution and deforestation

question

Give examples of negative consumption externalities.

answer

cigarettes and alcohol

question

Give examples of positive production externalities.

answer

eco-friendly systems / sage production

question

Give examples of positive consumption externalities.

answer

healthy foods

question

Explain whether the market under-allocates or over-allocates resources when there is a positive or negative externalities associated.

answer

the government under-allocates goods and services with positive externalities

question

Explain why the free market needs government intervention at times.

answer

people can get greedy and create monopolies

question

Explain the government policies used to correct negative production externalities.

answer

governments can use market-bases policies: taxes or tradeable permits

question

Explain the government policies used to correct negative consumption externalities.

answer

advertising and regulation can be used to alert consumer of dangers of consumption shifting D=MPB leftward back to Qe

question

Explain the government policies used to correct positive production externalities.

answer

Direct government provision or subsidies

question

Explain the government policies used to correct positive consumption externalities.

answer

legislation and advertisement shift D=MPB to MSB to promote greater consumption

question

Explain how the circular flow model relates to macroeconomics.

answer

It shows the big picture of economics including leakages and injections in the households and the firms

question

What are leakages in the circular flow model?

answer

savings, taxes, and imports

question

What are injections in the circular flow model?

answer

investments, government intervention, or exports

question

Explain the concept of GDP.

answer

gross domestic product: the value of all goods and services produced

question

Explain the concept of GNP.

answer

gross national product: the income of a country's residents, which is equal to the value of all final goods and servies

question

What are the three methods to calculate GDP?

answer

1. expenditure approach 2. income approach 3. outcome approach

question

What is included in the calculation of GDP?

answer

-consumption -investments -government spending -net exports

question

What is the difference between nominal GDP and real GDP?

answer

Real GDP uses a base year, while nominal GDP is measured at the time of measurement

question

Explain the phases of the business cycle.

answer

expansion- positive real GDP; increase in output and employment peak- cycle max level of real GDP contraction- decrease in output and increase in unemployment trough- minimum GDP and highest rate of unemployment before and expansion

question

When real GDP is above potential GDP which type of gap occurs?

answer

Inflationary

question

When real GDP is below potential GDP which type of gap occurs?

answer

Recessionary

STUDY

Charts And Graphs Data Grade Point Average Graphs Months Of The Year

Statistical Studies: Misleading Graphs (Quiz)~amdm 10 terms

Stephen Sanchez

10 terms

Preview

Statistical Studies: Misleading Graphs (Quiz)~amdm

question

In every bar graph, line graph, or scatter plot, the vertical axis should include the following: a. zero c. missing elements b. bars to represent the data d. horizontal axis

answer

A. zero

question

Car A and Car B were in a race. The driver of Car B claimed that his car was twice as fast as Car A. Do you agree with this claim? Why or why not? a. Yes, because the bar for Car B is twice as tall as the bar for Car A. b. Yes, because the speed of Car B is twice that of Car A. c. No, because Car B was only 10 mi/hr faster than Car A. d. No, because the vertical scale exaggerates the differences in speed.

answer

NOT C

question

The makers of Brand Z paper towel claim that their brand is twice as strong as Brand X and they use this graph to support their claim. Do you agree with this claim? Why or why not? a. Yes, because the bar for Brand Z is twice as tall as the bar for Brand X. b. Yes, because the strength of Brand Z is twice that of Brand X. c. No, because paper towel brands are all alike. d. No, because the vertical scale exaggerates the differences between brands.

answer

D. No, because the vertical scale exaggerates the differences between brands.

question

The AAA Cable Company uses this graph to compare their costs to the costs of a competitor. The competitor charges a $20 installation fee and $1.10 per day. AAA Cable has no installation fee and charges $1.30 per day. What can be done to make this graph less misleading? a. Change the vertical scale to increments of $10 instead of increments of $5. b. Change the horizontal scale to increments of 10 days instead of increments of 1 day. c. Change the vertical scale to increments of $1 instead of increments of $5. d. Change the horizontal scale to increments of 1/2 days instead of increments of 1 day.

answer

NOT C

question

In analyzing a line graph, why is slope important? a. The slope should be negative. c. The spacing for each axis must be chosen so that the line reflects a positive slope. b. The slope of the line reflects the actual trend of the data. d. The slope of a line is not important in analyzing a line graph.

answer

B. The slope of the line reflects the actual trend of the data.

question

Describe how the graph below is deceptive. How would you change it so that it is not misleading? a. It appears that Mike's grade point average for the second quarter is 3 times his first quarter average. Change the intervals on the vertical scale so they are consistent. b. It appears that Mike's grade point average for the second quarter was significantly larger than his first quarter average. Change the width of the bars to display the correct scale. c. It appears that Mike's grade point average for the second quarter is 2 times his first quarter average. Change the intervals on the horizontal scale so they are consistent. d. There is no way to change the graph so it is not misleading.

answer

A. It appears that Mike's grade point average for the second quarter is 3 times his first quarter average. Change the intervals on the vertical scale so they are consistent.

question

A sales representative for a new soft drink is trying to convince a chain of food stores to order a much larger quantity. The salesperson uses the graph below in the sales pitch. How would you change the graph so that it is not misleading? a. The vertical scale needs more intervals between values. b. The horizontal scale needs more intervals between values. c. Diameters should be the same, so only the heights are compared. d. The labels should be changed to reflect the greater sales.

answer

C. Diameters should be the same, so only the heights are compared.

question

Three printing companies were rated on their performance using a percentage scale. This graph shows how they were rated. Which company was rated the best? a. There is insufficient information to determine which company was rated best. b. Superior Printing was rated best, because the bar is wider. c. Quicky Printing was rated best, because the bar comes first in the series. d. All three companies were rated to be equal.

answer

NOT B

question

The following graphs show the performance of two stocks over the first five months of the year. Which graph appears to show the best performance? Which scale makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly? a. Stock XYZ shows the best performance. The scale of Stock ABC makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly. b. Stock ABC shows the best performance. The scale of Stock ABC makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly. c. Stock XYZ shows the best performance. The scale of Stock XYZ makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly. d. Stock ABC shows the best performance. The scale of Stock XYZ makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly.

answer

A. Stock XYZ shows the best performance. The scale of Stock ABC makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly.

question

A news channel on cable T.V. polled politicians on an issue to find out who agreed with a court decision. This is the graphic they used in their report. What makes this graph misleading? a. The horizontal scale only shows three parties. It needs to show every party. b. The vertical scale is too broad. It needs to focus in on a narrower range. c. The horizontal scale exaggerates the differences between the parties. d. The vertical scale is too narrow. It needs to be a wider range, such as 0 to 100.

answer

D. The vertical scale is too narrow. It needs to be a wider range, such as 0 to 100.

STUDY

Algebra 1 Equations Excel Graphs

College Pre-Algebra & College Algebra 10 terms

William Hopper

10 terms

Preview

College Pre-Algebra & College Algebra

question

The first coordinate in an ordered pair. For the point (8, -2) the abscissa is 8.

answer

Abscissa

question

Absolute value makes a negative number positive. Positive numbers and 0 are left unchanged. The absolute value of x is written |x|. We write |-6| = 6 and |8| = 8.

answer

Absolute Value

question

Algebra rules for absolute values are listed below. Piecewise Definition: Square root definition: Rules: 1. |-a| = |a| 2. |a| ≥ 0 3. Products: |ab| = |a||b| 4. Quotients: |a / b| = |a| / |b| 5. Powers: |an| = |a|n 6. Triangle Inequality: |a + b| ≤ |a| + |b| 7. Alternate Triangle Inequality: |a - b| ≥ |a| - |b| CAREFUL!! Sums: |a + b| is not the same as |a| + |b| Differences: |a - b| is not the same as |a| - |b|

answer

Absolute Value Rules

question

The rate of change of velocity over time. For motion along the number line, acceleration is a scalar. For motion on a plane or through space, acceleration is a vector.

answer

Acceleration

question

How close an approximation is to an actual value. Accuracy: 3.14 is a fairly accurate approximation of π (pi). Precision: 3.199 is a more precise approximation, but it is less accurate.

answer

Accuracy

question

The matrix obtained by changing the sign of every matrix element. The additive inverse of matrix A is written -A. Note: The sum of a matrix and its additive inverse is the zero matrix.

answer

Additive Inverse of a Matrix

question

The mathematics of working with variables.

answer

Algebra

question

The study of geometric figures using the coordinate plane or coordinates in space. Formulas from analytic geometry include the distance formula, midpoint formula, point of division formula, centroid formula, area of a convex polygon.

answer

Analytic Geometry

question

The use of algebraic and/or numeric methods as the main technique for solving a math problem. The instructions "solve using analytic methods" and "solve analytically" usually mean that no calculator is allowed.

answer

Analytic Methods

question

The coordinate plane used to graph complex numbers. The x-axis is called the real axis and the y-axis is called the imaginary axis. The complex number x + yi is graphed as the point (x, y).

answer

Argand Plane

STUDY

Data Experiments Forensic Science Graphs Near The End Travel

5th Grade FOSS Variable Science Unit – Flashcards 28 terms

Jason Westley

28 terms

Preview

5th Grade FOSS Variable Science Unit – Flashcards

question

Standard

answer

A procedure that has been established to compare future experiments with

question

Controlled Experiment

answer

An experiment in which only one variable is changed at a time.

question

variable

answer

A factor that can be changed in an experiment and might affect the outcome.

question

independent variable

answer

This is the factor in an experiment that you know before you begin your experiment or the Experimental Variable

question

dependent variable

answer

This is the variable in an experiment that you find out by doing the experiment. The result or outcome

question

How many trials should a good scientist conduct?

answer

3 or more

question

True or False this is a controlled experiment: John wanted to test how fast different batteries ran out of power. He put some batteries in his toys, then he played with them. His radio controlled car batteries failed before his calculator so he concluded those batteries had less power.

answer

False

question

Why is this not a controlled experiment? John wanted to test how fast different batteries ran out of power. He put some batteries in his toys, then he played with them. His radio controlled car batteries failed before his calculator so he concluded those batteries had less power.

answer

He tested two different toys, each could have used different amounts of batteries, the calculator could use less power. He only tested once. He didn't control his variables.

question

What was the relationship we discovered between the capacity of our lifeboats and the passengers it could hold?

answer

The greater the capacity the more passengers it could hold.

question

What was the relationship we discovered between distance our foss plane travelled and the passengers (mass) it could carry?

answer

The more passengers (mass) you have the shorter the distance your plane will travel.

question

What was the relationship we discovered between the length of our swingers and the amount of swings?

answer

The longer the swinger the fewer the swings. The shorter the swinger the more swings. ( in 15 seconds)

question

What was the relationship we discovered between distance our foss plane travelled and the angle of the flight line?

answer

The higher the angle the shorter the distance the plane traveled.

question

What changes could you make to our flipper system to make our cork go higher?

answer

Choose the cork with the least mass, put the cork near the end of the flipper, push the flipper stick down all of the way, and push the flipper to the 1 cm mark.

question

What changes could you make to our flipper system to make the cork travel farther?

answer

Choose the cork with the least mass, put the cork near the end of the flipper stick, only push the flipper stick down part way, move the flipper to 3 cm mark.

question

On what axis is the independent variable graphed?

answer

The X axis.

question

On what axis is the dependent variable graphed?

answer

The Y axis.

question

System

answer

set of parts that work together to act as a whole.

question

What were the parts of our swinger system?

answer

String, penny (mass), tape, paper clip, and a pencil

question

What were the parts of our flipper (catapult) system?

answer

flipper base, flipper stick, cork,aluminum balls, and measuring tape

question

What were the parts of our lifeboat system?

answer

Paper cup, passengers (mass), water, and basin

question

What were the parts of our Foss plane system?

answer

craft sticks, rubber band, propeller, straws, plastic hooks, staples, tape, the flight line.

question

What was the relationship between the angle of the flipper base and the distance traveled by the ball?

answer

The higher the angle the farther the ball travelled.

question

What can you use to predict the results of an experiment?

answer

A two coordinate graph or another form of a graph.

question

How can you tell if you need to retest the outcome of a trial after graphing your data?

answer

The outcome does not match or is too far away from our line of best fit.

question

cycle

answer

any pattern that repeats itself

question

prediction

answer

an estimation based on information or experience

question

What are the three types of graphes we used during our investigations.

answer

concrete, picture, two coordinate graphs

question

capacity

answer

the amount of liquid that a container can hold

STUDY

Applied Behavior Analysis Graphs

The Code of Ethics for the Texas Educator – Flashcards 49 terms

Daphne Armenta

49 terms

Preview

The Code of Ethics for the Texas Educator – Flashcards

question

In the 2007 revision of the Code of Ethics, an added requirement stated that ________ must report certain behaviors, or risk their own certificates.

answer

Superintendents

question

True or False- The Code of Ethics Governing Educators can be found in the Texas Administrative Code.

answer

True

question

The goal-oriented statement of philosophy regarding the role of educators in society and behaviors that support that role is called which of the following?

answer

The Statement of Purpose grew from the goal-oriented acpect of the old Code of Ethics. The Statement of Purpose makes five statements regarding the role of educators and the expected behaviors that support that role. The correct answer is: Statement of Purpose

question

The ___________________ was revised in 2002 to provide greater clarity regarding the standards expected of all Texas educators.

answer

The old code was often vague and ambiguous. The revised one delineates those specific behaviors which may subject educators to sanctions. The correct answer is: Code of Ethics

question

"....protecting the safety and welfare of Texas school children and school personnel; ensuring educators and applicants are morally fit and worthy to instruct or to supervise the youth of the state and to fairly and efficiently resolve educator disciplinary proceedings at the least expense possible to the parties and the state" is which of the following?

answer

The goal of SBEC in educator disciplinary matters

question

Who enforces the Code of Ethics for educators for purposes related to certification disciplinary proceedings?

answer

While the local board, superintendent and even the principal have much to do with contract renewal, they do not impose sanctions on a teacher's certificate. That is the job of SBEC. The correct answer is: SBEC

question

The "Statement of Purpose" declares that teachers should measure their success in which of the following ways?

answer

Teachers are only successful when their students are successful. The correct answer is: The progress of each student toward realization of his or her potential as an effective citizen.

question

The Texas Education Agency has reminded educators that the interpretation of policies (in regards to the Code of Ethics) is up to who?

answer

Local School Boards

question

If you commit fraud you can be said to have committed a crime of ______________________.

answer

Moral turpitude is a legal concept that refers to "conduct that is considered contrary to community standards of justice, honesty or good morals." Fraud is considered such a crime. The correct answer is: Moral turpitude

question

A teacher has a student who she knows is considered a "runner" and will leave the classroom if left unattended. The teacher sits the student by the door and frequently turns her back on the student for prolonged periods of time. This teacher can be said to be acting in which of the following manners?

answer

An educator acts recklessly when he or she is aware of but consciously disregards a substantal and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur. The correct answer is: Recklessly

question

Students gather in the band hall every morning. One or both of the directors is usually there. On the morning a fight breaks out, however, neither director is present. This can be said to be an example of ________________.

answer

Neglect is defined as "The placing or leaving of a student or minor in a situation where the student or minor would be exposed to a substantial risk of physical or mental harm." In school terms, the teacher risks neglect whenever he or she leaves students unattended. The correct answer is: Neglect

question

An educator acts _______________________with respect to the nature of his or her conduct or to a result of his or her conduct when it is his or her conscious objective or desire to engage in the conduct or cause the result.

answer

A person acts intentionally with respect to his or her conduct when it is his or her conscious object to engage in the conduct of that nature or to cause such a result. The correct answer is: Intentionally

question

A disciplinary action by the State Board for Educator Certification, including a restriction, reprimand, suspension, surrender, or revocation of a certificate is called ________________

answer

A violation of the Code of Ethics can result in a sanction of your teaching certificate. The correct answer is: A sanction

question

Which of the words below meet the following definition? "Exposure of a student or minor to unjustified risk of injury or to injury that jeopardizes the physical health or safety of the student or minor without regard to whether there has been an actual injury to the student or minor."

answer

If you endanger a child you expose him or her to an unjustified, unneccessary risk. No actual injury has to occur. The correct answer is: Endanger

question

Surrendering your certificate is the same thing as which of the following?

answer

Having your certificate revoked

question

The fact that the State Board of Educator Certification has stated that an educator who is "unworthy to instruct or supervise the youth of the state" may warrant a sanction implies that educators are seen as ________________.

answer

Role Models

question

Crimes that are considered to be directly related to the duties and responsibilities of the profession include all of the following EXCEPT which of the following?

answer

If two or more of these alcohol related crimes are committed within a 12 month period, then it is considered related. An isolated incident is not. The correct answer is: A crime involving public intoxication, operating a motor vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or disorderly conduct.

question

A superintendent must report specific offenses to SBEC or risk having their own certificate reprimanded, suspended or revoked. What is this designed to do?

answer

Keep bad teachers from district hopping after they commit a sanctionable offense

question

A teacher who pleads a drug conviction down to a misdemeanor could not be sanctioned by the State Board of Educator Certification.

answer

False

question

If a teacher uses a school computer to send threatening e-mails they can be sanctioned by the State Board for Educator Certification.

answer

True

question

Which one of the following offenses could result in a teacher having their certificate sanctioned by SBEC?

answer

While using the school computer to conduct personal business might get you a growth plan or even fired, it will not get your certificate sanctioned. Having a sexual relationship with a student, regardless of the fact that he or she is of legal age to consent, will. The correct answer is: Having sexual relations with an 18 year old student

question

If a person receives an inscribed reprimand that means which of the following has occurred?

answer

A formal, published censure is placed on the face of his teaching certificate.

question

According to the text, no parts of the Statement of Purpose, however laudable, are ___________.

answer

Enforceable

question

If a coach asks a teacher to give a student a few points this grading period that can be taken off of the average for the next grading period, he is asking her to do which of the following?

answer

While teachers find many reasons to "give" students a few extra points, doing so at the request of anyone seeking personal gain (such as a coach wanting a star athlete) is falsifying records. The correct answer is: Falsify records

question

A company that offers fundraiser items gives a teacher/club sponsor a $25 Starbucks gift card. This teacher has not used the vendor but has been considering it. What should the teacher do?

answer

The gift card must be returned in order to be in compliance with the standards. The teacher may do business with the vendor, however. The correct answer is: Give back the gift card.

question

A teacher who uses her school computer to sell items on e-bay is in violation of Standard 1.2, "The educator shall not knowingly misappropriate, divert, or use monies, personnel, property, or equipment committed to his or her charge for personal gain or advantage."

answer

True

question

If a teacher allows a student to use his notes on a test that others took without notes, the teacher is in violation of an Enforceable Standard 1.1. "The educator shall not intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly engage in deceptive practices regarding official policies of the school district...."

answer

Determining whether or not a student can use their notes when testing is a teacher decision and is not in violation of any district policy. The correct answer is 'False'.

question

Standard 2.1 states "The educator shall not reveal ________________________ concerning colleagues unless disclosure serves lawful professional purposes or is required by law.

answer

Confidential health or personnel information

question

Should you know of a colleague who has been dismissed it is your ethical responsibility to ___________________.

answer

Maintain silence about the dismissal

question

Standard 2.6 states "The educator shall not use coercive means or promise of special treatments in order to ______________________."

answer

Influence professional decisions or colleagues

question

If a team of teachers ignores or acts badly towards a team member who is ______________________ then they are violating the standards of ethical conduct.

answer

In the minority for the team (in age, race, gender, religion, etc)

question

A teacher who wants her daughter to be a cheerleader and who offers to help the cheerleader sponsor violates Standard 2.6 which states "The educator shall not use coercive means or promise of special treatment in order to influence professional decisions or colleagues."

answer

False

question

Standard 2.2 cautions us about harming others by ______________________about a colleague or the school system.

answer

Knowingly making false statements

question

If you are asked by a community member for news of a colleague who is coping with an illness or family matter you should respond in which of the following manners?

answer

With empathy, but no private or revealing details

question

Standard 2.4 states that "The educator shall not interfere with a colleague's ________________________."

answer

Exercise of political, professional, or citizenship rights and responsibilities.

question

Standard 3.8 states that "The educator shall maintain appropriate professional educator-student relationships and boundaries based on a ____________ educator standard.

answer

Prudent means to be careful, cautious, wise. The opposite term is reckless. Use good judgment in relationships with students. The correct answer is: Reasonably prudent

question

In recent years __________________have/has derailed many careers.

answer

Do not friend any student or formal student. Ever. The correct answer is: Social networking sites

question

Standard 3.4 states that "the educator shall not exclude a student from participation in a program, deny benefits to a student....on the basis of race, color, gender, disability, national origin, religion, family status or sexual orientation." This standard also covers which of the following?

answer

Including students because of a perceived advantage that they would bring (like family wealth)

question

You are in violation of Standard 3.2 if your actions impact a student adversely or endangers the learning, physical health, mental health or safety of the student and that adverse impact is _______________.

answer

A teacher's actions should protect students from anything that could adversely affect the student. Accidents happen, but was the adverse impact foreseeable. If a teacher locks a student in a closet, there is a foreseeable chance that this aciton could impair the student's learning. The correct answer is: Forseeable

question

A good rule to follow is that you should not reveal confidential information concerning students without a court order, subpeona, or _______________.

answer

Confidential information, which includes discipline information, grades and attendance information, should not be disclosed without a written release from the requesting party that has been signed by the parents and/or student. The correct answer is: Signed release

question

Standard 3.6 states that "The educator shall not solicit or engage in sexual conduct or a romantic relationship with a _________________."

answer

Student or a minor

question

Which of the following is an appropriate way to communicate with your students?

answer

Blogging

question

Factors to be considered in assessing whether the communication is inappropriate include all of the following EXCEPT which one?

answer

The number of other students included in the communication

question

A good rule of thumb in communicating with students is to keep it

answer

Education-related

question

Standard 1.10 states that "The educator shall be of good moral character and be worthy to instruct or supervise the youth of this state." What constitutes "good moral character?"

answer

It is up to local school boards to interpret policies of the State Board of Education. The correct answer is: Local school board policy

question

If you repeat gossip about a colleague you are possibly doing which one of the following.

answer

Violating a Standard that concerns making false statements about a colleague or the school system.

question

Who does the Code of Ethics apply to?

answer

Educators and candidates for certification

question

A person acts __________________ when respect to a result of his or her conduct when he or she is aware that the conduct is reasonably certain to cause the result.

answer

Knowingly

question

Which of the following is a vaguely worded definition that serves as the basis for sanctions?

answer

Unworthy to instruct

STUDY

First Person Point Of View Graphs Third Person Point Of View

Front of the Class – Flashcards 17 terms

Daniel Thompson

17 terms

Preview

Front of the Class – Flashcards

question

historical (autobiography), inspirational

answer

two genres of the movie Front of the Class

question

Missouri; Georgia

answer

two places where Front of the Class was set

question

Brad Cohen

answer

American motivational speaker, teacher, school administrator, and author who has severe Tourette syndrome (TS)

question

Ellen Cohen

answer

divorcée mother of Brad and his younger brother Jeff

question

Nancy Lazarus-Cohen

answer

the one whom Brad met through an Internet dating service and eventually became his wife

question

Thomas

answer

a second grade student of Brad who suffers from several personality disorders

question

Heather

answer

a second grade student of Brad who died from terminal cancer

question

Norman Cohen

answer

Brad's father who could not seem to tolerate the protagonist's tics or initally accept his condition

question

Peter Werner

answer

director of Front of the Class

question

Andrew Gottlieb

answer

producer of Front of the Class

question

Thomas Rickman

answer

(script)writer of Front of the Class

question

Jimmy Wolk

answer

the actor who played the role of Brad Cohen

question

Patricia Heaton

answer

the actor who played the role of Ellen Cohen

question

Zack Miller

answer

the actor who played the role of Thomas

question

Katherine Shepler

answer

the actor who played the role of Heather

question

Treat Williams

answer

the actor who played the role of Norman Cohen

question

Front of the Class: How Tourette Syndrome Made Me the Teacher I Never Had

answer

book of Brad Cohen from which his movie was based

STUDY

Diversity Goals Graphs Problem Solving

BCommExam2 – Flashcards 101 terms

Malcolm Bright

101 terms

Preview

BCommExam2 – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is characteristic of members from high-performing teams?

answer

They openly discuss the set of values, norms, and goals they share.

question

Barb's team has to write a report recommending three healthcare plans to offer the company's employees next year. At the planning meeting, each person is assigned responsibilities. Which of the following team members is not carrying a fair share of the group's work?

answer

Amy will send out reminders of the meetings and take attendance.

question

Which of the following is the best opening for a difficult conversation?

answer

I really want to understand what went wrong and find a solution we both can accept.

question

Hector and his team work for an educational publisher. The team has to write a report comparing the textbooks of three competitors. Who would be the best person to analyze the books' methods of teaching?

answer

Lin, who has four years of experience as an educator Early in the group writing process, your group should clearly discuss the roles and expectations you have for one another. Make sure part of this conversation involves splitting up contributions and time commitments equally. As the group plans together, it should identify subject-matter experts and delegate roles for researching and writing. In this example, Lin would be assigned to analyze the competition's methods of teaching because of his experience as an educator.

question

After Karla's team completed the first draft of its group document, the team asked her to edit it carefully for grammar, punctuation, and spelling. At the next meeting, the group decided one section of the document was not relevant and deleted it. Karla was upset about her wasted work. What did the team do wrong?

answer

It did not choose an appropriate purpose for each round of revision Make sure your group is clear about the purposes of each round of revision. Generally, you should first revise with a focus on the strength of your ideas and how well these ideas match the needs of your audience. Then you should focus on how smoothly the various sections of your paper flow together. Next, you should consider issues such as formatting, ease of reading, and language mechanics. Karla's team was not clear about the appropriate order of revision and asked her to work on language mechanics too early in the process, which resulted in wasted work.

question

Which of the following describes a team in the forming stage of team development?

answer

Nick, Julie, Raul, and Ming take turns sharing their background with the others In the forming stage of team development, team members focus on gaining acceptance and avoiding conflict. In some ways, this stage is a honeymoon period in which team members get to know one another.

question

Effective teams spend about half their time bonding by talking about social activities

answer

False

question

When producing group writing, it is important to ensure that the writing reflects the views of the group at every stage—gathering information, drafting initial findings, and editing the final document.

answer

True

question

Nick, Julie, and Raul each share different ideas about how the team should approach work, and the team spends some time debating which ideas to adopt. What stage is the team at?

answer

Storming In the storming stage of team development, team members open up with their competing ideas about how the team should approach work. This stage is typically the least productive, since team members are attempting to make sense of uncertain roles, goals, and accountabilities.

question

Whenever he has to present a proposal to his managers, LeRoy is able to distance himself from his ideas and accept criticism without becoming defensive. What process enables LeRoy to do this?

answer

Disassociation

question

Which of the following statements is an example of disagreeing diplomatically?

answer

I feel that I was not given a chance to explain my actions.

question

Which of the following is characteristic of the norming stage of team development?

answer

Team members agree upon mutual goals and individual responsibilities.

question

When team members experience conflict because they are trying to make sense of competing ideas about how the team should work, they are in the storming stage of team development.

answer

True

question

During group writing projects, it is important not to waste time discussing roles and contributions.

answer

False

question

Janet's team is working on a group document, which they store in an FTP system on the company server. On Friday, Claire and Malik download the document at the same time, and each makes edits. Malik uploads his document first. When Claire uploads her copy of the document, she erases all of Malik's work. What went wrong?

answer

The team did not have a system to handle version control.

question

In emotionally charged, high-stakes conversations, forcefully stating your message at the beginning will often lead to productive outcomes.

answer

False

question

A learning stance implies that

answer

you are committed to understanding other peoples' versions of interpersonal interactions.

question

Which of the following best describes the performing stage of team development?

answer

The four group members work at their assigned tasks efficiently and work together as needed. In the performing stage of team development, teams operate efficiently toward accomplishing their goals. They have evolved to a level where they can transform disagreement and conflict into consensus for future action.

question

Erik is a manager who organizes his department into teams at the beginning of September. By December, he worries because the teams are still having conflict and do not seem very productive. What would be the best advice to give Erik?

answer

Be patient because the teams are in the storming stage. Give them time to reach the norming and performing stages.

question

Hector and his team work for an educational publisher. The team has to write a report comparing the textbooks of three competitors. Who would be the best person to polish the final version of their report so it has a consistent voice?

answer

George, who has five years of experience as an editor

question

What does validating someone entail?

answer

recognizing their feelings as legitimate

question

Difficult conversations can be handled successfully by

answer

hearing everybody's story

question

Which of the following is true of high-performing teams?

answer

They spend most of their time discussing work-related issues.

question

What impact does 2-D diversity have on a company?

answer

The company is more likely to increase its market share. 2-D diversity refers to companies that have both inherent and acquired diversity. Companies with 2-D diversity are more likely to report a grown in market share and more likely to capture a new market.

question

Which of the following is a trait that contributes to the inherent diversity of a team?

answer

members with a variety of ethnic backgrounds

question

In order to be effective, a consumer survey should contain

answer

exhaustive answer choices for each question Most consumer research questionnaires contain fewer than five or six questions. Survey questions should be (a) simple to answer, (b) non-leading, (c) exhaustive and unambiguous, and (d) limited to a single idea.

question

Which of the following statements about leading questions is true?

answer

In surveys, leading questions produce unreliable and unusable information Leading questions often do not allow respondents to provide their genuine thoughts or impressions. As a result, leading questions in surveys can produce unreliable and unusable information.

question

Which of the following is least important when analyzing data related to a business problem?

answer

focusing on tangential issues If you discipline yourself to focus on your key research problems, you are less likely to get bogged down looking at tangential issues.

question

Which of the following is a disadvantage of conducting primary research into a business problem?

answer

It is more time consuming than secondary research.

question

Geoff creates a survey of 50 questions. Its comprehensive coverage will provide more accurate data.

answer

False

question

Which of the following statements about primary research is true?

answer

Primary research provides feedback directly related to an organization and its needs. Primary research is generally most reliable and useful for your business reports because you can focus it to meet your specific research objectives and get feedback directly related to your organization and its needs.

question

Inga included this question on a customer survey: "Do you prefer restaurants like ours that have a wide variety of sandwiches?" The problem with that question is that it

answer

is leading A leading question is one that suggests an answer. Often, the leading question is designed to gain a preferred response from the survey designer's perspective.

question

Who is the primary audience for most business reports?

answer

decision makers within the company

question

How can you make sure that your business report meets the needs of the target audience?

answer

Consider updating them about progress and involving them in the process. During the research and report writing process, consider updating decision makers and involving them in the process. This increases the likelihood that you will develop a report that is useful to them.

question

Rachael, a marketing assistant at Blue Pearl Resort, is preparing a questionnaire to help her understand the resort's customers better. She wants to use only closed questions in her survey. Which of the following questions can Rachael use?

answer

On a scale of 1 to 5, how would you rate your level of satisfaction at Blue Pearl?

question

Sarah, the owner of Food Folks Diners, wants to know how effective the new dinner menu has been. Which of the following questions should she incorporate into her survey questionnaire?

answer

How do you feel about the new dinner menu compared to the old one?

question

Kate creates a survey question with the following range of choices: a) 0-25%; b) 26-50%; c) 51-75%; d) 76-100%. This set of choices is exhaustive.

answer

True

question

Samantha, the owner of Silver Butterflies Accessories, wants to know how her customers feel about shopping at her stores. One of the questions in her survey questionnaire reads, "On a scale of 1 to 5, where would you place the store's ambience, service, and jewelry collection?" This question is ineffective because it

answer

asks about multiple ideas Survey questions that contain more than one idea are difficult for respondents to answer.

question

Carl heads the in-house market research department at Cook Champion Foods. He is planning a study of the relationship between television commercials for a product and children's desire to buy the product after viewing the commercials. Which of the following is the best way for Carl to define his research problem?

answer

determine how television commercials affect children's desires

question

Clyde creates a survey question with the following range of choices: a) 1-10; b) 10-20; c) 20-30; d) 30-40. This set of choices is unambiguous.

answer

False

question

An executive summary tells the story of the report so the busy reader can get the gist of the content.

answer

True

question

If you have developed a report by yourself, you do not need to get other perspectives before you officially submit it.

answer

False

question

Projecting objectivity involves providing information, analysis, and advice that is sound, reliable, and unbiased.

answer

True

question

A report must be reviewed at least once for typos or mechanical errors.

answer

True

question

Reviewing a report in multiple sittings has a negative impact on the review process.

answer

False

question

Achieving a positive, can-do tone in your communications is appropriate in nearly all business situations.

answer

True

question

You should project objectivity more than positivity in business reports.

answer

True

question

Research-based business reports are generally collaborative efforts

answer

True

question

Professionals with green motivational value systems are most attracted to action-oriented and results-oriented language and logic

answer

False Professionals with red motivational value systems (MVSs) are most attracted to action-oriented and results-oriented language and logic. Professionals with green MVSs will appreciate your ability to provide all of the facts and avoid rushing to judgment about conclusions.

question

When you are giving a presentation, your audience is likely to judge you as having character if you

answer

offer your views transparently. Presentations place a spotlight on you and allow you to maintain and even build your credibility. When you clearly know what you are talking about, audiences will judge you as competent. When you show that you are interested in the needs of your audience, they will judge you as caring. When you offer your views honestly and transparently, audiences will judge you as having character.

question

Which of the following is related to the first step in the AIM planning process?

answer

analyzing your audience to make sure you are addressing their needs

question

Khandi gives a presentation to advocate that her employer, Let-Us Ltd., which offers services such as personal shopping and event planning to assist busy professionals, expand its offerings to include dog walking. She decides to use the PREP method of justifying this position. Which of the following is an example of the third step in the method?

answer

She cites a personal services company in another city that increased its business by adding dog walking to its services. A successful approach to justifying your views in a presentation is the PREP method, which involves stating your position, providing the reasons, giving an example or providing evidence, and restating your position. Khandi's reference to another company doing the same thing is an instance of giving an example.

question

Ellis gives a presentation to propose that his company, Ingenius Inc., eliminate its traditional departments and replace them with flexible teams that will allow employees to move from project to project as needed. He decides to use the PREP method of justifying this position. Which of the following is an example of the second step in the method?

answer

He explains that, with the current structure, employees in one department may be underutilized while other departments are overtaxed.

question

What is one of the purposes of the preview in a presentation?

answer

to generate interest among the audience

question

Kyle's preview of his presentation has a statement that frames his message in appealing terms and a breakdown of the key takeaway messages for the audience. What is his preview missing?

answer

an attention-getter The preview of a presentation should generally include an attention-getter, a positioning statement, and an overview. Kyle's statement that frames his message in appealing terms is a positioning statement and the breakdown of key takeaway messages is the overview. Kyle lacks an attention-getter.

question

The higher the knowledge level of your listeners, the more presentation time you should spend informing them.

answer

False

question

Your colleague tells you that she is worried about persuading the audience to listen to her presentation. You should advise her to make her preview as compelling as possible.

answer

True

question

Connie, who works for a textbook company, has put together a presentation proposing that the company try to sell its textbooks to the untapped homeschooling market. She needs to present her idea to the executive committee. Considering the content of her presentation, which of the following people on the committee should she most try to influence?

answer

the marketing directory

question

If you want your presentation to appeal to professionals with a green motivational value system, you should

answer

use dispassionate, precise language. Professionals with green motivational value systems (MVSs) will appreciate your ability to provide all of the facts and avoid rushing to judgment about conclusions. People with green MVSs generally pride themselves on a dispassionate approach to decision making and may be turned off what they consider blatant and irrelevant appeals to emotion. However, this in no way implies that emotion is unimportant to them. Greens are often emotionally connected to precise language, precise and well-conceptualized charts, models, and other figures, and the ability to handle tough questions.

question

Antwan has to plan a business presentation. The last step in his planning should be to gain a deeper understanding of the needs of his audience.

answer

False

question

Victor works for a manager who has a hub motivational system. In presentations to his manager, Victor should use language that is

answer

option oriented Professionals with hub motivational value systems are most common. Hubs are by nature pragmatic and flexible. They prefer a presentation that holds clear business logic with an emphasis on benefits to people—clients, customers, colleagues, and others. They prefer option-oriented language.

question

Jamal begins his presentation on supplemental insurance by telling a dramatic story about an employee who was able to keep his home because of having such insurance. What type of attention-getter is this?

answer

a vivid example

question

Enrique is giving a presentation to convince his managers that offering yoga classes at work will improve productivity because it will help employees clear their minds. Which of the following aspects of his presentation shows that he is trying to include kinesthetic learners?

answer

He will ask the audience to stand and do a simple yoga pose.

question

Starting a presentation by telling the story of your company is usually effective at capturing audience attention and providing helpful background.

answer

False Starting a presentation with an overwhelming set of facts and numbers or telling the story of your company may not be particularly effective.

question

Which of the following is a purpose of a positioning statement?

answer

to demonstrate value to the audience The preview of your presentation should generally include an attention-getter, a positioning statement, and an overview. The positioning statement frames your message in appealing terms and demonstrates clear and valuable benefits to the audience.

question

If you want your presentation to appeal to professionals with a blue motivational value system, you should

answer

use relationship-centered terms. Professionals with a blue motivational value system (MVS) will appreciate your ability to discuss business relationships—such as benefits to work teams and colleagues and loyalty to customers and clients. Emotionally, people with blue MVSs will connect to you through your use of "we" language and other relationship-centered terms. Analytically, blues will connect with your holistic approach to business benefits. They are attracted to business logic that includes more than just bottom-line measures of performance.

question

When you are giving a presentation, your audience is likely to judge you as caring if you

answer

show that you are interested in the needs of your audience. Presentations place a spotlight on you and allow you to maintain and even build your credibility. When you clearly know what you are talking about, audiences will judge you as competent. When you show that you are interested in the needs of your audience, they will judge you as caring. When you offer your views honestly and transparently, audiences will judge you as having character.

question

Stan begins his presentation about a new type of spreadsheet software by showing managers a sample of how it works. What type of attention-getter is this?

answer

an unexpected exercise

question

The beginning of your presentation is critical because

answer

audience members form quick impressions about you and your message during this time.

question

Khandi gives a presentation to advocate that her employer, Let-Us, Ltd., which offers services such as personal shopping and event planning to assist busy professionals, expand its offerings to include dog walking. Which of the following sentences is a call to action that Khandi might use at the end of her presentation?

answer

For all these reasons, I propose we hire three dog walkers and begin offering this service by year's end.

question

Which of the following is related to the final step in the AIM planning process?

answer

constructing your message to focus on the key takeaway concepts As you design your presentations and speeches, the AIM planning process will help you, just as it does in the writing process. You will analyze your audience to make sure you are addressing their needs and speaking to them in the way that is most appealing and easy to learn. You will develop your ideas by identifying the key facts and conclusions related to your topic. Finally, you will construct your message to focus on the key takeaway concepts and to provide supporting points throughout.

question

Vicki begins her presentation on vacation policy by asking, "Have you ever been so busy that you couldn't take all your vacation time in a given year?" What type of attention-getter is this?

answer

a rhetorical question

question

Gina starts the preview of her presentation with an intriguing statistic and a statement that frames her message in appealing terms. What is her preview missing?

answer

an overview The preview of your presentation should generally include an attention-getter, a positioning statement, and an overview. Gina's intriguing statistic is her attention-getter. The statement that frames her message in appealing terms is a positioning statement. She is lacking an overview.

question

Gregor, who works at a textbook company, has put together a presentation proposing that the company save money by getting its images from less expensive stock photo sites. Gregor needs to present his idea to the executive committee. Considering the content of his presentation, which of the following people on the committee should he most try to influence?

answer

the design director Typically, some people in your audience have more impact on your ability to achieve your work ideas than do others. These key decision makers are the ones you want to influence the most. For internal presentations, think about those individuals who have the most influence and authority to act on your ideas.

question

By doing audience analysis, Radika discovers that the people she will be giving her sales presentation to know very little about her product. Because of this, she is likely to decide to

answer

spend more presentation time informing the audience

question

What is the purpose of an overview?

answer

to show how your audience will benefit from the idea you are proposing The preview of your presentation should generally include an attention-getter, a positioning statement, and an overview. The purpose of an overview is to segment the presentation in terms of key benefits or takeaway messages that are easy to remember and help audience members think about how your ideas benefit them.

question

Generally, formal business attire projects

answer

competence

question

Geneva has joined a small design firm that prides itself on having a non-hierarchical, creative work environment. Which type of business dress would most likely be appropriate for this office?

answer

tailored shirt with either pants or a skirt

question

Which of the following should you do to quickly manage your nervousness before a presentation?

answer

Take several deep breaths to quickly alleviate your anxiety

question

According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, during a presentation you should

answer

attempt to read your audience and get a sense for how much energy they have.

question

When in doubt, the safest way to dress is low-level business casual

answer

False

question

Janice has to give a 20-minute presentation. She will be able to keep the audience more engaged if she moves around the room.

answer

True

question

People often misread body language so you should

answer

pay attention to the audience so you can adjust what you are doing

question

Business casual dress is intended to project

answer

a comfortable, relaxed feel while maintaining a high standard of professionalism.

question

Using notes during a presentation is considered unprofessional.

answer

False

question

Cathy works for a multinational company and has to make a presentation in a large conference room. To make sure that she uses the room to her advantage while delivering her presentation, Cathy should

answer

stand upright behind a podium where she can place her notes. Standing behind a podium or table can help you project authority and add to the formality of the presentation. If you do use a podium to achieve these goals, make sure you stand upright.

question

During a presentation, gesturing with your palms held down beckons the audience to accept your ideas.

answer

False

question

Nathaniel recently joined Anderson Enterprises, a multinational firm. He is confused about what to wear for a business meeting where he will have to make a presentation to important clients. Which of the following should Nathaniel wear?

answer

Nathaniel should wear a conservative business suit with a dress shirt and a necktie.

question

Which of the following will help you maintain a flexible approach during your presentation?

answer

knowing the key messages of your presentation

question

According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, you should

answer

face the audience directly with a slight forward lean and upright posture during a presentation.

question

Hector wants to practice a relaxation technique before his presentation. Which of the following options should he avoid using?

answer

thinking about the things he wants to achieve

question

Which of the following is one of the best ways to relax immediately before a presentation

answer

speaking with audience members to break the ice

question

Complying with audience requests is a bad idea as it will cause you to lose your train of thought.

answer

False

question

Which of the following is the best way to deliver presentations with authenticity?

answer

finding ways to present your real self to your audience Nearly all audience members are making judgments about you and your message based on their perceptions of your authenticity. One of your primary goals as you develop your presentation skills is to find ways to present your real self to your audience.

question

Which of the following is a guideline connected with the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication?

answer

Use your facial expressions to connect with your audience and show enthusiasm for your topic. According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, you should use your facial expressions to connect with your audience members and show your enthusiasm for your topic. Audience members are more likely to warm up to you when you put forth positive, can-do emotion.

question

Making eye contact with audience members while presenting can distract you from your message.

answer

False

question

Which of the following techniques will help you make your presentation about people?

answer

introducing colleagues and referring to them by name during your presentation

question

in order to focus your presentation on people, you should

answer

make individuals and groups the subject of your sentences.

question

Cinnamon was just hired as the manager of an office supply store. For her first day of work, she should wear low-level business casual, which projects creativity and friendliness.

answer

False

question

During Macie's presentation, the manager of another department asked her for some statistics she did not have on hand. She promised to get it to him, looked up the statistics the next morning, and emailed them to him right away. Which aspects of credibility were enhanced by Macie's action?

answer

caring and character

question

When you lose your train of thought during a presentation, you should

answer

pause until you regain your composure and your line of thinking.

STUDY

Cause And Effect Cause And Effect Diagram Graphs

Quality Management Quiz – Flashcards 90 terms

Maddison Bailey

90 terms

Preview

Quality Management Quiz – Flashcards

question

Quality Managment

answer

a way of doing business that continuously improves products and services to achieve better performance

question

Conditions of Participation

answer

rules that determin an entity's eligibility for involvement in a particular activity

question

Quality Assuranace

answer

evaluation activites aimed at ensurig compliance with minimun quality standards; actions performed to ensure the quality of a product

question

Criteria

answer

standards or principles by which something is judged or evaluated

question

Quality Planning

answer

setting quality objectives and specifying operational processes and related resources needed to fulfill the objectives

question

Quality Control

answer

operational techniques and activities used to fulfill quality requirements

question

Accreditation

answer

a self-assessment and external assessment process used by healthcare organizations to assess their level of performance in relation to established standards and implement way to continuously improve

question

IOM

answer

A private nonprofit organization created by the federal government to provide science based advice on matters of medicine and health

question

Stakeholders

answer

people, groups, organizations, or entities that can be directly or indirectly affected by an organization's actions, objectives and policies

question

ACS

answer

founded to addreass variations in the quality of medical education. It has developed the hospital standardization program to address the quality of facilities in which physicians worked

question

Measures

answer

instruments or tools used for measuring

question

Structure Measures

answer

data describing oranganizationsl facilities, environment, equipment, policies, and procedures

question

Process Measures

answer

data describing the delivery of healthcare services

question

Outcome Measures

answer

data describing the results of healthcare services

question

Evidence-based Measures

answer

data describing the extent to which current best evidence is used in making decisions about patient care

question

Pillars of Excellence

answer

strategic themes selected by an organization to focus efforts on aspects crucial to it's success

question

AHRQ

answer

the lead federal agency for research on healthcare quality, costs, outcomes, and patient safety

question

Quality Indicators

answer

measures used to detrmie an organizations performance over time

question

Customer Service

answer

a series of activies designed to attend to customer's needs

question

Numerator

answer

number written above the line in a common fraction to indicate the number parts of a whole

question

Denominator

answer

number written below the line in a common fraction that indicates the number of parts into which one whole is divided

question

Sample

answer

a representative portion of a large group

question

Reliable

answer

yielding the same or compatible results in different situations

question

Interrater Reliability

answer

probability that a measurement is free from random error and yields consistent results regardless of the individuals gathering the data

question

Clincal Practice Guidelines

answer

systematically developed statements that assist practicioners' and patient's decisions about healthcare provided for specific clinical circumstances

question

Balanced Scorecards

answer

frameworks for displaying system-level performance measures; components of structured performance management systems that align an organization's vision and mission with operational objectives

question

Tabular Report

answer

performance data organized in a multicolumn, multirow format

question

Central Tendency

answer

a measure of the middle or expected value of a data set

question

Performance Expectations

answer

desired performance

question

Data Visualization

answer

communication of information clearly and effectively through graphical means

question

Scatter Diagrams

answer

graphs used to show the correlation between two characteristics or variables

question

Pie Charts

answer

graphs in which each unit of data is represented as a pie shaped piece of a circle

question

Bar Graphs

answer

graphs used to show the relative size of difference categories of a variable, on which each category or value of the variable is represented by a bar, usually with a gap between the bars; also called bar chartsq

question

Histograms

answer

graphs used to show the center, dispersion, and shape of the distribution of a collection of performance data

question

Frequency Distributions

answer

Classifications of performance data that allow comparison of results in each category

question

Pareto Charts

answer

graphs used to show where improvement resources should be applied by revealing the significant few problems from the trivial many

question

Radar Chart

answer

graphs used to display the differences between actual and expected perforance for several measures

question

Spider Charts

answer

graphs used to display the differences between actual and expected performance for several measures

question

Performance Trends

answer

patterns of gradual change in performance average or general tendency of performance data to move in a certain direction over time

question

Dashboard

answer

a set of performance measures displayed in a concise manner that allows for easy interpretation

question

Run Charts

answer

Chronological sequences of data that include a horizontal center line; also called line graphs

question

Benchmarking

answer

learning about the practices in other companies for the purpose of using them in your own organization

question

State of Statistical Control

answer

a condition where performance measurement results vary randomly within the control limits

question

Normal Distribution

answer

a spread of information in which the most frequently occurring value is in the middle of the range and the other probabilities tail off symmetrically in both directions

question

Standard Deviation

answer

a measure of the dispersion of a collection of values

question

Common Cause Variation

answer

variation in performance that doesn't result from a specific cause but is inherent in the process being measured

question

Special Cause Variation

answer

unexpected variation in performance that results from a non randon event

question

Performance Gap

answer

the difference between actual and expected performance

question

Lean Model

answer

a performance improvement apprach aimed at eliminating waste

question

Analytic Tools

answer

qualitative and quantitative tools used during an improvement project

question

Continuous Improvement

answer

analyzing performance of various processes and improving them repeatedly to achieve quality objectives

question

PDCA Cycle

answer

Plan Do Check Act The Shewart performance improvement model

question

PDSA Cycle

answer

Plan Do Study Act The Deming performance improvement model

question

RCI

answer

Rapid Cycle Improvement an improvement model that makes repeated incremental improvements to optimze performance

question

Six Sigma Quality

answer

rate of less than 3.4 defecs per million opportunities, which translates to a process that is 99.9997% defect free

question

Improvement Project

answer

a group of individuals who work together to accomplish an improvement objective

question

Opportunity for Improvement

answer

a problem of performance failure

question

Affinity Diagram

answer

charts used by improvement teams to organize ideas and issues, gain a better understanding of a prblem, and brainstorm potential solutions

question

Workflow Diagram

answer

an illustration of the movement of EE's or information during a process

question

Response Scales

answer

ranges of answers from which the survey respondent can choose

question

Response Rate

answer

the number of respondents who complete a survey out of the number who receive the survey, usually expressed as a percentage; can also apply to individual questions

question

Quality Story

answer

a tool that visually communicates the major elements of an improvement project

question

Qualitative Tools

answer

used to generate ideas, set priorities, maintain direction, determine problem causes, and clarify processes

question

Quantitative Tools

answer

analytic improvement tools used for measuring performance, collecting and displaying data, and monitoring performance

question

Fishbone Diagram

answer

graphic representations of the relationships between outcomes and the factors that influence them; also cause and effect diagram or Ishikawa diagram

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Decision Matrix

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a chart used to systematically identify, analyze, and rate the strength of relationships between sets of information, especially useful for looking at large numbers of decision factors and assessing each factor's relative importance

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Flowchart

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graphic reprentation of processes

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Interview

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formal discussions between two parties in which information is exchanged

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Surveys

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questionnaires or interviews used to obtain information fro ma group of individuals about process, product, or service

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Charter

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a written declaration of an improvement team's purpose

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Ground Rules

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established guidelines for how an improvement team wants to operate; norms for behavior

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Gantt Chart

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a bar graph that illustrates a project schedule

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Improvement Team

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a group of individuals working together to implement an improvement or solve a problem

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Inputs

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products, services, or information flowing into a process

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Outputs

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products, services, or information produced by a project

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Process Owners

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individuals ultimately responsible for a process, including its performance outcomes

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Independents

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improvement team members who have little or no knowledge of the process under consideration and have no vested interests in the outcome of the project

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Adverse Event

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an injury caused by medical care

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Incident Reports

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instruments used to document occurences that could have led or did lead to undesirable results

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Incidents

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events or occurrences that could have led or did lead to undesirable results

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Patient Safety

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actions undertaken by individuals or organizations to protect healthcare recipients from being harmed by the effects of health care services; also defined as freedom from accidental or preventable injuries produced by medical care

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Risk

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the possibility of loss or injury

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Safety

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the quality or condition of being safe; freedom from danger, injury, or damage.

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Sentinel Event

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an adverse event involving death or serious physical or psychological injury that signals the need for immediate investigation and response

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Vigilant

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carefully observant or attentative; on the lookout for possible prolems

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Clinical Paths

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descriptions of key patient care interventions for a condition including diagnostic tests, medications, and consultations, which, if completed as described, are expected to produce desired results

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Medically Necessary

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appropriate and consisten with dagnosis and accordin to acceptd standards of practice in the medical community, imperative to treatment to prevent the patient's condition or the qulity of the patient's care from being adversly affected

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Preadmission Certification

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review of the need for medical care or services that is completed before the care or services are provided

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Protocols

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formal outlines of care; treatment plans

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Utilization Management

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planning, organizing, directing, and controlling healthcare products in a cost-effective manner while maintaining quality of patient care and contributing to the organization's goals

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