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Distance Between Two Points
Equations
Graphs
Physics
Traveling
PH 201 – General Physics I Final Exam Review – Flashcards 45 terms

Alexandra Robertson
45 terms
Preview
PH 201 – General Physics I Final Exam Review – Flashcards
question
Displacement
answer
∆x = xf - xi (On a velocity vs. time graph, displacement is equal to the area under the curve.)
question
Time Interval
answer
∆ = tf - ti
question
Velocity
answer
∆x/∆t (On a position vs. time graph, velocity is equal to the slope of the curve.)
question
Uniform Motion
answer
xf = xi + vx*∆t
question
Acceleration
answer
a = ∆v/∆t
question
Constant Acceleration (related to projectile motion)
answer
vxf = vxi + ax*∆t
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Range (related to projectile motion)
answer
xf = xi + vxi*∆t
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Gravitational Acceleration (of Earth)
answer
g = 9.80 m/s² (downward)
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Horizontal Acceleration (vector length)
answer
Ax = A*cosθ
question
Vertical Acceleration (vector length)
answer
Ay = A*sinθ
question
Angle of Acceleration (related to projectile motion)
answer
θ = tan⁻¹(Ay/Ax)
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Acceleration (vector length)
answer
A = √(Ax² + Ay²)
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Height (related to projectile motion)
answer
yf = yi + vyi*∆t - ½*g*(∆t)²
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Final Velocity (related to projectile motion)
answer
vyf = vyi - g*∆t
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Relationship between Initial and Final Horizontal Velocity (related to projectile motion)
answer
vxf = vxi
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Frequency
answer
ƒ = 1/T
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Velocity (related to circular motion)
answer
v = (2πR)/T v = 2πƒR
question
Centripetal Acceleration
answer
a = v²/r a = w²r
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Force
answer
F = m*a
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Net Force
answer
Fnet = F₁ + F₂ + F₃ ...
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Normal Force (Weight)
answer
n = m*g = w
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Static Friction
answer
ƒs = µs*n
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Kinetic Force
answer
ƒk = µk*n
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Net Horizontal Force (vector length)
answer
(Fnet)x = ∑Fx = m*ax
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Net Vertical Force (vector length)
answer
(Fnet)y = ∑Fy = m*ay
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Gravitational Constant
answer
G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N*m²/kg²
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Universal Gravitational Force
answer
F = (G*m₁*m₂)/r²
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Angular Velocity
answer
w = ∆θ/∆t w = 2πƒ
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Free-fall Acceleration
answer
g = (G*M)/R²
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Orbital Velocity
answer
v = √(g*r) v = √(G*M/r)
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Orbital Period
answer
T² = ([4π²]/[G*M])*r³
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Moment of Inertia
answer
I = ∑m*r²
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Equilibrium
answer
∑Fx = 0 and ∑Fy = 0
question
Spring Force (Hooke's Law)
answer
(Fs)x = k*∆x (On a force vs. displacement graph, k is equal to the area under the curve.)
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Impulse
answer
J = Favg*∆t (On a force vs. time graph, J is equal to the area under the curve; also equal to ½*Fmax*∆t.)
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Momentum
answer
p = m*v
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Impulse-momentum Theorem
answer
J = ∆p
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Law of Conservation of Momentum (for an isolated system)
answer
Pf = Pi
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Work-energy Equation
answer
∆E = ∆K + ∆Ug + ∆Us + ... = W
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Work
answer
W = F*d*cosθ
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Kinetic Energy
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K = ½m*v²
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Gravitational Potential Energy
answer
Ug = m*g*y
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Elastic Potential Energy (of a spring)
answer
Us = ½k*x²
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Elastic Collision
answer
(v1x)f = ([m1-m2]/[m1+m2])*(v1x)i v2x)f = ([2*m1])/[m1+m2])*(v1x)i (when object 2 is initially at rest)
question
Power
answer
P = W/t P = ∆E/∆t P = F*v
AP Statistics
Data
Data Collection Method
Graphs
Look For Patterns
Quantitative And Qualitative
Statistics
Statistics Vocab 1 – Flashcards 49 terms

Jaxon Wilson
49 terms
Preview
Statistics Vocab 1 – Flashcards
question
Statistics
answer
Sciences that deals with the collection, classification, analysis, and interpretation of information or data
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Descriptive Statistics
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Utilizes numerical and graphical methods to look for patterns in a data set, to summarize the information revealed in a data set, and to present that information in a convenient form
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Inferential Statistics
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Utilizes sample data to make estimates, decisions, predictions, or other generalizations about a larger set of data
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Quantitative Data
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Data that are measured on a naturally occurring numerical scale
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Qualitative Data
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Are measurements that cannot be measured on a natural, numerical scale; they can only be classified into one of a group of categories
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3 different ways to collecting data
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1. From a published source 2. From a designed experiment 3. From an observational study
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Designed experiment
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A collection method where the researcher exerts full control over the characteristics of the experimental units sampled. These experiments typically involve a group of experimental units that are assigned the treatment and an untreated group.
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Observational study
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A data collection method where the experimental units sampled are observed in their natural setting. No attempt is made to control the characteristics of the experimental units samples.
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Selection Bias
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Results when a subset of the experimental units in the population is excluded so that these units have no chance of being selected in the sample.
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Non Response Bias
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Results when the researchers conducting a survey or study are unable to obtain on all experimental units selected for the sample.
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Measurement Error
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Refers to inaccuracies in the values of the data recorded. In survey, this kind of error may be due to ambiguous or leading questions and the inter-viewers effect on the respondent.
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What is a unit?
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A unit is an object about which data is being collected
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What is population?
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A population is a set of units that are being studied
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What is a variable?
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A variable is a characteristics or property of an individual experimental unit in the population
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What is a sample?
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A sample is a subset of the units of a population
question
What is a statistical inference?
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A statistical inference is an estimate, prediction, or some other generalization about a population based on information contained in the sample
question
Explain the difference between descriptive and inferential statistics.
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Descriptive statistics describes sets of data. Inferential statistics draws conclusions about the sets of data based on sampling.
question
Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative data.
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Quantitative data are numerical in nature, while qualitative data are categorical in nature.
question
Explain how populations and variables differ.
answer
A population is a set of units of interest to a study. A variable is a characteristic or property of the units being studied.
question
Suppose you're given a data set that classifies each sample unit into one of four categories: A, B, C,or D. You plan to create a computer database consisting of these data, and you decide to code the data as A= 1, B = 2, C = 3, and D = 4. Are the data consisting of the classifications A, B, C, and D qualitiative or quantitative? After the data are input as 1, 2, 3, or 4, are they qualitative or quantitative? Are the data consisting of the classifications A, B, C, and D qualitiative or quantitative?
answer
Qualitative, because they can only be classified into categories.
question
Suppose you're given a data set that classifies each sample unit into one of four categories: A, B, C,or D. You plan to create a computer database consisting of these data, and you decide to code the data as A= 1, B = 2, C = 3, and D = 4. Are the data consisting of the classifications A, B, C, and D qualitiative or quantitative? After the data are input as 1, 2, 3, or 4, are they qualitative or quantitative? After the data are input as 1, 2, 3, or 4, are they qualitative or quantitative?
answer
Qualitative, because they cannot be meaningfully added, subtracted, multiplied, or divided.
question
Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Is political party preference qualitative or quantitative?
answer
Qualitative
question
Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Is number of children in a family qualitative or quantitative?
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Quantitative
question
Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Is distance of commute to work qualitative or quantitative?
answer
Quantitative
question
Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Is beverage preference qualitative or quantitative?
answer
Qualitative
question
A company tracked some credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the type of credit card used (VISA, MasterCard, or American Express), and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each monthly balance. Is the variable (1) qualitative or quantitative?
answer
Qualitative
question
A company tracked some credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the type of credit card used (VISA, MasterCard, or American Express), and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each monthly balance. Is the variable (2) qualitative or quantitative?
answer
Quantitative
question
A company tracked some credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the type of credit card used (VISA, MasterCard, or American Express), and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each monthly balance. Does the data set collected represent a population or a sample?
answer
Sample
question
A company tracked all credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the cardholder's town of residence, and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each purchase. Is the variable (I) qualitative or quantitative?
answer
Qualitative
question
A company tracked all credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the cardholder's town of residence, and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each purchase.
answer
Quantitative
question
A company tracked all credit card purchases during the year 2005 and measured two variables: (I) the cardholder's town of residence, and (2) the amount (in dollars)of each purchase.
answer
Population
question
Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Calories in a cheese danish a. Is the variable qualitative or quantitative? Why?
answer
Calories in a cheese danish is a quantitative variable. Its values are numerical.
question
Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Dream vacation location Is the variable qualitative or quantitative? Why?
answer
Dream vacation location is a qualitative variable. Its values are not numerical.
question
Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Favorite baby name Is the variable qualitative or quantitative? Why?
answer
Favorite baby name is a qualitative variable. Its values are not numerical.
question
Identify each of the following variables as qualitative or quantitative. Storage space on a computer drive Is the variable qualitative or quantitative? Why?
answer
Storage space on a computer drive is a quantitative variable. Its values are numerical.
question
A company surveyed a random sample of 8,000 employees in the region. One question they asked was, "If your employer provides you with mentoring opportunities are you likely to remain in your job for the next five years?" They found that 640 members of the sample said yes. Identify the population of interest to the company.
answer
All employees in the region
question
A company surveyed a random sample of 8,000 employees in the region. One question they asked was, "If your employer provides you with mentoring opportunities are you likely to remain in your job for the next five years?" They found that 640 members of the sample said yes. Based on the question posed by the company what is the variable of interest?
answer
If they answered yes to the survey question
question
A company surveyed a random sample of 8,000 employees in the region. One question they asked was, "If your employer provides you with mentoring opportunities are you likely to remain in your job for the next five years?" They found that 640 members of the sample said yes. Is the variable quantitative or qualitative?
answer
The variable is a qualitative variable. Its values cannot be expressed on a naturally occurring numerical scale.
question
A company surveyed a random sample of 8,000 employees in the region. One question they asked was, "If your employer provides you with mentoring opportunities are you likely to remain in your job for the next five years?" They found that 640 members of the sample said yes. Describe the sample.
answer
The 8,000 employees surveyed
question
A research company performed a study of Machiavellian traits in accountants. Machiavellian describes negative character traits that include manipulation, cunning, duplicity, deception, and bad faith. A questionnaire was administered to a random sample of 800 acccounting alumni of a large university; however, due to nonresponse and incomplete answers, only 264 questionnaires could be analyzed. Several variables were measured, including age, gender, level of education, income, job sati sfaction score, and Machiavellian ("Mach") rating score. The research findings suggest that Machiavellian behavior is not required to achieve success in the accounting profession. What is the population of interest to the researcher?
answer
All accounting alumni of the large university
question
A research company performed a study of Machiavellian traits in accountants. Machiavellian describes negative character traits that include manipulation, cunning, duplicity, deception, and bad faith. A questionnaire was administered to a random sample of 800 acccounting alumni of a large university; however, due to nonresponse and incomplete answers, only 264 questionnaires could be analyzed. Several variables were measured, including age, gender, level of education, income, job sati sfaction score, and Machiavellian ("Mach") rating score. The research findings suggest that Machiavellian behavior is not required to achieve success in the accounting profession. What type of data (quantitative or qualitative) is produced by each of the variables measured?
answer
The quantitative variables are age, income, job satisfaction score, and Machiavellian rating. The qualitative variables are gender and level of education.
question
A research company performed a study of Machiavellian traits in accountants. Machiavellian describes negative character traits that include manipulation, cunning, duplicity, deception, and bad faith. A questionnaire was administered to a random sample of 800 acccounting alumni of a large university; however, due to nonresponse and incomplete answers, only 264 questionnaires could be analyzed. Several variables were measured, including age, gender, level of education, income, job sati sfaction score, and Machiavellian ("Mach") rating score. The research findings suggest that Machiavellian behavior is not required to achieve success in the accounting profession. Identify the sample.
answer
The sample is the 264 accounting alumni who returned the questionnaire.
question
A research company performed a study of Machiavellian traits in accountants. Machiavellian describes negative character traits that include manipulation, cunning, duplicity, deception, and bad faith. A questionnaire was administered to a random sample of 800 acccounting alumni of a large university; however, due to nonresponse and incomplete answers, only 264 questionnaires could be analyzed. Several variables were measured, including age, gender, level of education, income, job sati sfaction score, and Machiavellian ("Mach") rating score. The research findings suggest that Machiavellian behavior is not required to achieve success in the accounting profession. Identify the data-collection method used.
answer
The data are from a survey.
question
A research company performed a study of Machiavellian traits in accountants. Machiavellian describes negative character traits that include manipulation, cunning, duplicity, deception, and bad faith. A questionnaire was administered to a random sample of 800 acccounting alumni of a large university; however, due to nonresponse and incomplete answers, only 264 questionnaires could be analyzed. Several variables were measured, including age, gender, level of education, income, job sati sfaction score, and Machiavellian ("Mach") rating score. The research findings suggest that Machiavellian behavior is not required to achieve success in the accounting profession. What inference was made by the researcher?
answer
Machiavellian behavior is not required to achieve success in the accounting profession.
question
A research company performed a study of Machiavellian traits in accountants. Machiavellian describes negative character traits that include manipulation, cunning, duplicity, deception, and bad faith. A questionnaire was administered to a random sample of 800 acccounting alumni of a large university; however, due to nonresponse and incomplete answers, only 264 questionnaires could be analyzed. Several variables were measured, including age, gender, level of education, income, job sati sfaction score, and Machiavellian ("Mach") rating score. The research findings suggest that Machiavellian behavior is not required to achieve success in the accounting profession. How might the non responses impact the inference?
answer
Nonrespondents may be more Machiavellian in nature, biasing the results.
question
Each month interviewers visit about 65,000 of the 90 million households in the region and question the occupants over 14 years of age about their employment status. Their responses enable the interviewers to estimate the percentage of people in the labor force who are unemployed. Define the population of interest to the interviewers.
answer
All people in the region who are over 14 years old
question
Each month interviewers visit about 65,000 of the 90 million households in the region and question the occupants over 14 years of age about their employment status. Their responses enable the interviewers to estimate the percentage of people in the labor force who are unemployed. What variable is being measured?
answer
Employment status
question
Each month interviewers visit about 65,000 of the 90 million households in the region and question the occupants over 14 years of age about their employment status. Their responses enable the interviewers to estimate the percentage of people in the labor force who are unemployed. Is it quantitative or qualitative?
answer
Qualitative
question
Each month interviewers visit about 65,000 of the 90 million households in the region and question the occupants over 14 years of age about their employment status. Their responses enable the interviewers to estimate the percentage of people in the labor force who are unemployed. Is the problem of interest to the interviewers descriptive or inferential?
answer
Inferential
Graphs
Psychology
Watson And Rayner
EXP3403C Chapter 5 – Flashcards 61 terms

Chad Lipe
61 terms
Preview
EXP3403C Chapter 5 – Flashcards
question
Donald Zimmerman found that a buzzer became a positive reinforcer after it was repeatedly paired with ______.
answer
water
question
The Watson and Rayner experiment with Little Albert may have involved operant as well as Pavlovian learning because the loud noise ______.
answer
occurred as Albert reached for the rat
question
All of the following are recognized kinds of reinforcers except ______.
answer
classical
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Secondary reinforcers are also called _______ reinforcers.
answer
conditioned
question
The experimental chamber developed by Skinner is often called a _________.
answer
Skinner Box
question
Operant learning probably always involves Pavlovian conditioning as well.
answer
True
question
________ gave Skinner's experimental chamber the name, "Skinner box."
answer
Clark Hull
question
Reinforcement is often said to increase the frequency of a behavior, but research suggestss that any feature of a behavior (e.g., intensity, duration, form, etc.) can be strengthened if a reinforcer can be made contingent on that feature.
answer
True
question
The Premack principle says that reinforcement involves _______.
answer
a relation between behaviors
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Positive reinforcement increases the strength of a behavior.
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True
question
Another term for operant is instrumental.
answer
True
question
Positive reinforcement is sometimes called ______ learning.
answer
reward
question
Positive reinforcement is sometimes called _______.
answer
reward learning
question
Money is a good example of a _______ reinforcer.
answer
generalized
question
Thorndike complained that _______ evidence provided a "supernormal psychology of animals."
answer
anecdotal
question
________ demonstrated that electrical stimulation of the brain could be reinforcing.
answer
Olds and Milner
question
The opposite of a conditioned reinforcer is a ______.
answer
primary reinforcer
question
Operant learning is sometimes called ________ learning.
answer
instrumental
question
Thorndike emphasized that we learn mainly from _______.
answer
success
question
The one thing that all reinforcers have in common is that they _______.
answer
strengthen behavior
question
Sylvia believes that the reinforcement properties of an event depend on the extent to which it provides access to high probability behavior. Sylvia is most likely an advocate of _______ theory.
answer
relative value
question
Thorndike made important contributions to all of the following fields except _____.
answer
social psychology
question
Unexpected reinforcers produce more dopamine than expected reinforcers.
answer
True
question
With reinforcement, it is easy for a person to lower his blood pressure
answer
False
question
Operant learning may also be referred to as _______.
answer
instrumental learning
question
Douglas Anger proposed that there is a signal in the Sidman avoidance procedure. The signal is ________.
answer
Time
question
According to the one-process theory of avoidance, the avoidance response is reinforced by _______.
answer
a reduction in the number of aversive events
question
_______ reinforcers are those that have been arranged by someone.
answer
Contrived
question
Negative reinforcement increases the strength of a behavior.
answer
True
question
According to Skinner, people are rewarded, but behavior is reinforced.
answer
True
question
Schlinger and Blakely found that the reinforcing power of a delayed reinforcer could be increased by ________.
answer
preceding the reinforcer with a stimulus
question
Negative reinforcement is sometimes called ______ learning.
answer
Escape avoidance
question
An action that improves the effectiveness of a reinforcer is called a ______.
answer
motivating operation
question
The level of deprivation is less important when the reinforcer used is a(n) _________reinforcer.
answer
Secondary
question
The area of the brain that seems to be associated with reinforcement is called the reward _______.
answer
pathway/ circuit
question
Vomiting is ordinarily an involuntary response, but sometimes it can be modified by operant procedures.
answer
True
question
Negative reinforcement and punishment are synonyms
answer
False
question
_______ theory assumes that a behavior becomes reinforcing when we are prevented from performing it as ofen as we normally would.
answer
Response deprivation
question
In _______ _ a response is followed by the withdrawal of, or reduction in the intensity of, an aversive stimulus.
answer
Negative reinforcement
question
People can learn to behave randomly provided that reinforcers are made contingent on random acts.
answer
True
question
Premack's name is most logically associated with _______.
answer
relative value theory
question
Charles Catania identified three characteristics that define reinforcement. These include all of the following except _______.
answer
the consequence of the behavior must be positive
question
Reinforcers such as praise, positive feedback, and smiles are called ______ reinforcers.
answer
Secondary/conditioned
question
The _______ principle states that high probability behavior reinforces low probability behavior.
answer
Premack
question
Operant learning is often described as trial-and-error learning, but Thorndike argued that behavior was selected by ______.
answer
success
question
Negative reinforcement is also called _______.
answer
escape-avoidance training
question
The author of your text calls Skinner the ______.
answer
Darwin of behavior science
question
Clark Hull's explanation of reinforcement assumes that reinforcers _____.
answer
reduce a drive
question
A general assumption of behavioral research is that any feature of a behavior may be strengthened by reinforcement, so long as reinforcement can be made contingent on that feature
answer
True
question
In operant learning, the word contingency usually refers to the degree of correlation between a behavior and a consequence.
answer
True
question
Studies of delayed reinforcement document the importance of ______.
answer
contiguity
question
The more you increase the size of a reinforcer, the less benefit you get from the increase.
answer
True
question
In one of Thorndike's puzzle boxes, a door would fall open when a cat stepped on a treadle, thus allowing the cat to reach food outside the box. Eventually the cat would step on the treadle as soon as it was put into the box. Thorndike concluded that ________.
answer
treadle stepping increased because it had a "satisfying effect"
question
Studies demonstrate that operant learning is as effective with involuntary behavior, such as the salivary reflex, as it is with voluntary behavior
answer
False
question
Mary decides to try to modify Pearl's behavior (see above item). She and the rest of the family refuse to respond to any comment or request by Pearl that they know she is capable of expressing in English. For example, if during dinner she says, "Pass the potatoes" in English, she gets potatoes; if she says it in her native language she gets ignored. The procedure being used to change Pearl's behavior is ______.
answer
positive reinforcement
question
Pavlovian and operant learning often occur together.
answer
True
question
Clark Hull's name is associated with the _______ theory of reinforcement.
answer
drive-reduction
question
_____is a neurotransmitter that seems to be important in reinforcement.
answer
Dopamine
question
The number of operant procedures indicated in the contingency square is ______.
answer
four
question
According to ___________ theory, schoolchildren are eager to go to recess because they have been deprived of the opportunity to exercise.
answer
response deprivation
question
Skinner describes some of his most important research in _______.
answer
The Behavior of Organisms
Aids
Genetically Modified Foods
Graphs
Linguistics
Speech
Speech 102 Final Exam (5-1-17) – Flashcards 14 terms

Mike Bryan
14 terms
Preview
Speech 102 Final Exam (5-1-17) – Flashcards
question
Which of the following is not a goal of a special occasion speech? A: Entertain B: Inspire C: Report D: Commemorate
answer
C: Report
question
The final stage in creating your special occasion speech is... A: Research for suitable material B: Create an outline C: Use effective language and delivery D: Listen and Evaluate
answer
D: Listen and Evaluate
question
What is the first step in creating a special occasion speech? A: Practice delivery B: Research for material C: Determine the purpose and type of speech D: Create your outline
answer
question
Speeches to ___________ are expected to be cheery, playful, light, and usually optimistic, but can have an underlying serious message. A: Commemorate B: Inspire C: Enterain D: Celebrate
answer
Entertain
question
Aaron accepted an award at the young business leaders conference, his purpose was to... A: Inspire B: Celebrate C: Commemorate D: Entertain
answer
Celebrate
question
Your general purpose is to _______ when you wish to reinforce change, or influence the attitudes, beliefs, values, or actions of your audience A: Persuade B: Commemorate C: Invite D: Inform
answer
Persuade
question
Another term for central idea is.... A: Specific Purpose B: Preview C: Objective D: Thesis Statement
answer
Thesis Statement
question
Which of the following is NOT an ethical guideline for selecting a topic? A: Select a topic that is worth the audiences time B: Your topic should not be harmful to you or your audience C: Select a topic that fits the audience and occasion D: Persuasive topics should focus on individuals, not on issues
answer
Persuasive topics should focus in individuals, not issues
question
Everything in your speech should relate back to one complete statement called the... A: Overview B: Central Idea C: Specific Purpose D: General Purpose
answer
Central Idea
question
In the following specific purpose, "To persuade my classmates to eat a low-carb diet," "to eat a low-carb diet" is called the... A: Central Idea B: General Purpose C: Ultimate Goal D: Objective
answer
Objective
question
Which of the following is NOT a way presentation aids can boost your confidence as a speaker? A: You can read your notes from the aids B: You can present your message more professionally C: They can help you internalize your information D: They can help you organize your thoughts
answer
You can read your notes from the aids
question
Presentation aids can help you maintain a ______ delivery A: Extemporaneous B: Manuscript C: Impromptu D: Memorized
answer
Extemporaneous
question
_____ are useful if you want to emphasize location, geography, or topography A: Graphs B: Actual items C: Drawings D: Tables
answer
Drawings
question
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate purpose for using a presentation aid A: to appeal to your audiences emotions B: to aid in intercultural understanding C: to help the audience remember key issues D: to add "pizzazz" to your speech
answer
To add "pizzazz"
Boiling And Freezing
Graphs
Heat
Physical Chemistry
Physical Geography Test Questions – Flashcards 87 terms

Lesly Lloyd
87 terms
Preview
Physical Geography Test Questions – Flashcards
question
What is temperature?
answer
The measure of kinetic energy
question
What are the three temperature scales?
answer
1. Celcius scale 2. Fahrenheit scale 3. Kelvin scale
question
what does heat depend on?
answer
volume, temperature, and its capacity to hold heat
question
what is "air temperature"?
answer
temperature measured a meter or two above the surface troposphere
question
what is a lapse rate?
answer
rate of change of temperature with height
question
what is the average tropospheric lapse rate?
answer
decreases 6.5c per 1000m
question
what does environmental lapse rate (ELR) do with height increase
answer
typically decreases with height
question
What is an air parcel?
answer
a theoretical bubble of air
question
What two things can happen to a parcel of air temperature wise?
answer
1. if a parcel is warmer then the environment *parcel rises *unstable air *clouds/rain 2. if a parcel is cooler than the environment *parcel sinks *stable air *clear sky
question
What happens as an air parcel rises?
answer
it expands, and work is done on the surrounding
question
What happens as an air parcel sinks?
answer
it compresses, and work is done on the parcel
question
what happens to the temperature of an air parcel as the height increases?
answer
it decreases
question
what are the two lapse rates of a parcel?
answer
1. dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR) 2. saturated adiabatic lapse rate (SALR)
question
describe DALR
answer
1. non saturated or "dry" air parcels cool at DALR 2. dependent on gases in the atmosphere and acceleration of gravity 3. this lapse rate is a constant (10c per 1km) 4. if a parcel is lowered it will always warm up at the DALR
question
Describe SALR
answer
1. air parcels do not cool as quickly due to latent heat 2. this lapse rate is not a constant (4c per 1 km)
question
describe a stable lapse rate
answer
1. air parcel is cooler than the environment 2. parcel is now denser and heavier and then returns to its original position
question
describe unstable lapse rate
answer
1. air parcel is warmer than the environment 2. parcel is now lighter, and continues to rise
question
what is dewpoint?
answer
the atmospheric temperature below which water droplets begin to condense and dew can form
question
what is the lifting condensation level?
answer
the level where the parcel becomes saturated
question
Diurnal cycle
answer
1. sunrise net radiation becomes positive, and temperature increases 2. solar noon: max net radiation 3. late afternoon net radiation becomes negative, and temperature decreases 4. sunset net radiation is negative, so temperature continues to decrease
question
annual cycle
answer
1. spring a. net radiation becomes positive, and temperatures increase 2. autumn a. net radiation becomes negative, and temperatures decrease
question
how is the spatial distribution of temperature decided?
answer
by the length of daylight and the angle of the suns rays
question
what are the land/water heating differences?
answer
1. dry land heats and cools rapidly 2. water heats and cools slowly
question
does water have a high specific heat?
answer
yes. it takes more energy to heat or cool water because water holds onto heat
question
describe advection
answer
horizontal transport through the atmosphere via wind
question
describe isotherms
answer
lines connection all points having the same temperature
question
describe temperature gradient
answer
horizontal rate of temperature change over a distance
question
describe wind
answer
movement of air relative to the earths surface
question
air moves from_____ to_____ pressure?
answer
higher to lower
question
describe pressure when referring to air
answer
weight of a column of air
question
speeds and directions of surface winds are determined by what three forces?
answer
1. pressure gradient force 2. coriolis force 3. frictional force
question
what are the two types of wind systems?
answer
large and small scale
question
two types of large wind scale systems
answer
upper level winds & surface winds
question
cyclones happen from____ air &____ pressure?
answer
rising & low
question
anticyclones happen from___air &_____ pressure?
answer
sinking & high
question
what is cold air drainage?
answer
steady downward oozing of heavy, dense, cold air along steep slopes under the influence of gravity
question
how is a monsoon formed?
answer
by seasonal reversal of onshore and offshore winds
question
what are ocean currents?
answer
large scale movements of water
question
what is an airmass?
answer
A large uniform body of air that movse across the surface as an organized whole
question
air mass classification
answer
Humidity 1. m-maritime 2. c-continental temperature 1. t-tropical 2. p-polar 3. a-artic
question
air mass types
answer
1. continental tropical-cT (hot and dry 2. maritime tropical- mT (hot and moist) 3. continental polar-cP (cold and dry) 4. maritime polar-mP (cold and moist)
question
two types of extreme air masses?
answer
1. continental artic 2. maritime equatorial
question
describe fronts
answer
Zones separating two types of air masses
question
what are the two main types of fronts?
answer
cold front & warm front
question
cold front
answer
The cold air mass is replacing a warmer air mass
question
warm front
answer
The warm air mass is replacing a colder air mass
question
what two things are needed for precipitation?
answer
moisture & rising motion
question
what are the four lifting mechanisms?
answer
1. convergent lifting 2. frontal lifting 3. orographic lifting 4. convectional uplift
question
convergent lifting
answer
the forced uplift of an air pacel where low level wind converges
question
frontal uplift
answer
-caused by the collision of air masses with different temperatures/densities.
question
frontal uplift-cold front
answer
- cold front for example, if a cold air mass approaches a warmer air mass, the cold air will stay below because it is more dense. This forces the warmer air to rise rapidly
question
frontal uplift-warm front
answer
if a warm air mass approaches a cooler air mass, the warm air mass will ride up over the cooler air
question
orographic lifting
answer
the forced uplift of moving air that encounters a mountain
question
convectional uplift
answer
convection uplift is caused by atmospheric instability. Parcels rise from being warmer than the environment
question
what 3 conditions form airmass thunderstorms?
answer
1. sufficient water vapor 2. sufficient instability 3. weak winds aloft
question
what are the 3 stages of the life cycle for air mass thunderstorms?
answer
1. developing stage 2. mature stage 3. dissipating stage
question
developing stage
answer
convection occurs in an unstable environment as moist heated air rises, condensation occurs, and warms the surrounding air through latent heat
question
mature stage
answer
-updraft continues -heavy rain begins to fall producing a downdraft of cold air
question
dissipation stage
answer
downdraft dominates weakening the updraft of warm, moist air. suffocates it
question
what is a squall line?
answer
individual severe thunderstorms 1-5 miles wide become arranged in a line
question
what are supercells?
answer
individual thunderstorms that assume their own rotation
question
what are 3 types of thunderstorm related phenomena?
answer
lighting/thunder, hail, and tornados
question
what does the hydrosphere do?
answer
it encompasses the global water system
question
what are the 3 physical properties of water?
answer
solid, gas, & liquid
question
define humidity
answer
the amount of water vapor present in a column of air
question
define absolute humidity
answer
mass of water vapor per VOLUME of air
question
define specific humidity
answer
mass of water vapor per MASS of air
question
define mixing ratio
answer
mass of water vapor per mass of dry air
question
what is the dew point?
answer
the temperature at which saturation is reached
question
define evapotranspiration
answer
passage of moisture from the land surface to the atmosphere through the combined processes of evaporation and transpiration
question
define clouds
answer
visible masses of suspended, minute water droplets and/or ice crystals
question
define stratus clouds
answer
-layered appearance -fairly thin -typically cover a large region
question
define nimbostatus clouds
answer
-low level cloud -rain producing
question
define cirrus clouds
answer
-thin -whispy clouds -composed of ice crystals
question
define cumulus clouds
answer
-thick, puffy masses that often develop to great heights
question
define cumulonimbus clouds
answer
-very tall cumulus clouds -anvil shaped at the top -violent weather related
question
what are 5 forms of precipitation?
answer
1. rain 2. snow 3. sleet 4. freezing rain 5. hail
question
define water balance
answer
the measurement of inflow, outflow, and net annual surplus of deficit of water at a given location
question
what are ocean currents?
answer
large scale movements of water
question
worlds oceans are divided into three zones, what are they?
answer
1. mixed layer-75 m in depth roughly 3% of the total ocean water volume 2. thermocline-1000 m in depth 3. deep water-depths greater than 1000 m includes 97% if the total ocean water volume
question
what is the single most important influence of the world ocean on the atmosphere?
answer
it's heat-storage capacity
question
what are the two types of currents?
answer
warm current & cold current
question
warm currents travel from where to where?
answer
the tropics towards the poles
question
cold currents typically travel from where to where?
answer
from the poles towards the equator
question
what 2 ways can you generate ocean currents?
answer
1. the kinetic energy of the prevailing surface winds 2. the density of salt water
question
define gyre
answer
cell like circulation of surface currents that often encompasses an entire ocean basin
question
how does upwelling work?
answer
as the warm water is driven out to sea, water from beneath must "upwell" to replace it
Economics
Factors Of Production
Graphs
Micro Chapter 2 Homework Answers – Flashcards 43 terms

Paula Corcoran
43 terms
Preview
Micro Chapter 2 Homework Answers – Flashcards
question
Which of the following terms are most closely associated with the study of economics?
answer
comparative advantage and deadweight loss
question
Economists, like mathematicians, physicists, and psychologists,
answer
all the above are correct
question
By scientific method we mean
answer
the dispassionate development and testing of theories about how the world works
question
Economists regard events from the past as
answer
interesting and valuable, because those events are capable of helping us to understand the past, the present, and the future.
question
The goal of an economist who formulates new theories is to
answer
contribute to an understanding of how the world works
question
For an economist, the idea of making assumptions is regarded generally as a
answer
good idea, since doing so helps to simplify the complex world and make it easier to understand
question
The decision of which assumptions to make is
answer
usually regarded as an art in scientific thinking
question
When studying the effects of public policy changes, economists
answer
sometimes make different assumptions about the short run and the long run
question
Which types of models are built with assumptions?
answer
economic models as well as models in other disciplines such as physics and sociology
question
A model can be accurately described as a
answer
simplification of reality
question
The circular-flow diagram is a
answer
visual model of how the economy is organized
question
Factors of production are
answer
inputs into the production process
question
In the circular-flow diagram,
answer
households are sellers in the markets for the factors of production
question
In the circular-flow diagram,
answer
income paid to the factors of production flows from firms to households
question
In the simple circular-flow diagram, households
answer
own the factors of production
question
Which arrow represents the flow of goods and services?
answer
(this is an image, it's the inside arrow at the top of the flow chart) B
question
Which arrow represents the flow of spending by households?
answer
(this is an image, it's the arrow on the outside rounding the top right corner) A
question
In the markets for factors of production,
answer
households provide firms with labor, land, and capital
question
The amount by which firms' sales revenue exceeds their payments to factors of production is called
answer
profit
question
An economic outcome is said to be efficient if the economy is
answer
getting all it can get from the scarce resources it has available
question
Production is efficient if the economy is producing at a point
answer
on the production possibilities frontier
question
The economy has the ability to produce at which point or points?
answer
(this is an image) "The economy can produce any combination on or inside the frontier." BDE
question
Which point represents the situation in which the economy is producing its maximum possible quantity of tubas?
answer
(this is an image) The dot closest to the tuba line. E
question
At which point or points can the economy not currently produce?
answer
(this is an image) Any dot on past the curve, so AE.
question
Which of the following events would explain the shift of the production possibilities frontier from A to B?
answer
(this is an image, curve A is increasing to curve B) The economy experienced a technological advance in the production of batteries
question
Unemployment would cause an economy to
answer
produce inside its production possibilities frontier
question
A production possibilities frontier can shift outward if
answer
there is a technological improvement
question
The field of economics is traditionally divided into two broad subfields,
answer
microeconomics and macroeconomics
question
Which of the following would be considered a topic of study in macroeconomics?
answer
unemployment in the nation OR the economy annual's growth rate
question
Which of the following areas of study typifies macroeconomics as opposed to microeconomics?
answer
the effect on the economy of changes in the nation's unemployment rate
question
When economists are trying to explain the world, they are
answer
policy advisors
question
When economists are trying to help improve the world they are
answer
scientists
question
For economists, statements about the world are of two types:
answer
positive statements and normative statements
question
Which of the following is an example of a positive statement?
answer
Prices rise when the government prints too much money
question
Which of the following is an example of a normative statement?
answer
Reducing tax rates on the wealthy would benefit the nation
question
Economists at the Treasury Department
answer
provide advice on tax policy to the President
question
Economists in which cabinet-level department help enforce antitrust laws?
answer
Department of Justice
question
Economists who are primarily responsible for advising Congress on economic matters work in which agency?
answer
the Congressional Budget Office
question
The Council of Economic Advisers has
answer
three members and a staff of economists
question
The two basic reasons why economists often appear to give conflicting advice to policymakers are differences in
answer
scientific judgments and values
question
Almost all economists agree that rent control
answer
adversely affects the availability and quality of housing
question
A survey of economists revealed that more than three-fourths of them agreed with a number of statements, including which of the following?
answer
all the above are correct
question
John Maynard Keynes referred to economics as an easy subject,
answer
at which very few excel
Business Management
Capital Asset Pricing Model
Finance
Graphs
Human Resource Management
Risk
CFA 43: Portfolio Management II – Flashcards 40 terms

Henry Smith
40 terms
Preview
CFA 43: Portfolio Management II – Flashcards
question
The line depicting the risk and return of portfolio combinations of a risk-free asset and any risky asset is the: security market line. capital allocation line. security characteristic line.
answer
B is correct. The capital allocation line, CAL, is a combination of the risk-free asset and a risky asset (or a portfolio of risky assets). The combination of the risk-free asset and the market portfolio is a special case of the CAL, which is the capital market line, CML.
question
The portfolio of a risk-free asset and a risky asset has a better risk-return tradeoff than investing in only one asset type because the correlation between the risk-free asset and the risky asset is equal to: −1.0. 0.0. 1.0.
answer
B is correct. A portfolio of the risk-free asset and a risky asset or a portfolio of risky assets can result in a better risk-return tradeoff than an investment in only one type of an asset, because the risk-free asset has zero correlation with the risky asset.
question
With respect to capital market theory, an investor's optimal portfolio is the combination of a risk-free asset and a risky asset with the highest: expected return. indifference curve. capital allocation line slope.
answer
B is correct. Investors will have different optimal portfolios depending on their indifference curves. The optimal portfolio for each investor is the one with highest utility; that is, where the CAL is tangent to the individual investor's highest possible indifference curve.
question
Highly risk-averse investors will most likely invest the majority of their wealth in: risky assets. risk-free assets. the optimal risky portfolio.
answer
B is correct. Although the optimal risky portfolio is the market portfolio, highly risk-averse investors choose to invest most of their wealth in the risk-free asset.
question
The capital market line, CML, is the graph of the risk and return of portfolio combinations consisting of the risk-free asset and: any risky portfolio. the market portfolio. the leveraged portfolio.
answer
B is correct. Although the capital allocation line includes all possible combinations of the risk-free asset and any risky portfolio, the capital market line is a special case of the capital allocation line, which uses the market portfolio as the optimal risky portfolio.
question
Which of the following statements most accurately defines the market portfolio in capital market theory? The market portfolio consists of all: risky assets. tradable assets. investable assets.
answer
A is correct. The market includes all risky assets, or anything that has value; however, not all assets are tradable, and not all tradable assets are investable.
question
With respect to capital market theory, the optimal risky portfolio: is the market portfolio. has the highest expected return. has the lowest expected variance.
answer
A is correct. The optimal risky portfolio is the market portfolio. Capital market theory assumes that investors have homogeneous expectations, which means that all investors analyze securities in the same way and are rational. That is, investors use the same probability distributions, use the same inputs for future cash flows, and arrive at the same valuations. Because their valuations of all assets are identical, all investors will invest in the same optimal risky portfolio (i.e., the market portfolio).
question
Relative to portfolios on the CML, any portfolio that plots above the CML is considered: inferior. inefficient. unachievable.
answer
C is correct. Theoretically, any point above the CML is not achievable and any point below the CML is dominated by and inferior to any point on the CML.
question
A portfolio on the capital market line with returns greater than the returns on the market portfolio represents a(n): lending portfolio. borrowing portfolio. unachievable portfolio.
answer
B is correct. As one moves further to the right of point M on the capital market line, an increasing amount of borrowed money is being invested in the market portfolio. This means that there is negative investment in the risk-free asset, which is referred to as a leveraged position in the risky portfolio.
question
With respect to the capital market line, a portfolio on the CML with returns less than the returns on the market portfolio represents a(n): lending portfolio. borrowing portfolio. unachievable portfolio
answer
A is correct. The combinations of the risk-free asset and the market portfolio on the CML where returns are less than the returns on the market portfolio are termed 'lending' portfolios.
question
Which of the following types of risk is most likely avoided by forming a diversified portfolio? Total risk. Systematic risk. Nonsystematic risk.
answer
C is correct. Investors are capable of avoiding nonsystematic risk by forming a portfolio of assets that are not highly correlated with one another, thereby reducing total risk and being exposed only to systematic risk.
question
Which of the following events is most likely an example of nonsystematic risk? A decline in interest rates. The resignation of chief executive officer. An increase in the value of the U.S. dollar.
answer
B is correct. Nonsystematic risk is specific to a firm, whereas systematic risk affects the entire economy.
question
With respect to the pricing of risk in capital market theory, which of the following statements is most accurate? All risk is priced. Systematic risk is priced. Nonsystematic risk is priced.
answer
B is correct. Only systematic risk is priced. Investors do not receive any return for accepting nonsystematic or diversifiable risk.
question
The sum of an asset's systematic variance and its nonsystematic variance of returns is equal to the asset's: beta. total risk. total variance.
answer
C is correct. The sum of systematic variance and nonsystematic variance equals the total variance of the asset. References to total risk as the sum of systematic risk and nonsystematic risk refer to variance, not to risk.
question
With respect to return-generating models, the intercept term of the market model is the asset's estimated: beta. alpha. variance.
answer
B is correct. In the market model, Ri=αi+βiRm+ei , the intercept, αi, and slope coefficient, βi, are estimated using historical security and market returns.
question
With respect to return-generating models, the slope term of the market model is an estimate of the asset's: total risk. systematic risk. nonsystematic risk.
answer
B is correct. In the market model, Ri=αi+βiRm+ei , the slope coefficient, βi, is an estimate of the asset's systematic or market risk.
question
With respect to return-generating models, which of the following statements is most accurate? Return-generating models are used to directly estimate the: expected return of a security. weights of securities in a portfolio. parameters of the capital market line.
answer
A is correct. In the market model, Ri=αi+βiRm+ei , the intercept, αi, and slope coefficient, βi, are estimated using historical security and market returns. These parameter estimates then are used to predict firm-specific returns that a security may earn in a future period.
question
An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Annual Return (%) Expected Standard Deviation (%) Correlation between Security and the Market Security 1 11 25 0.6 Security 2 11 20 0.7 Security 3 14 20 0.8 Market 10 15 1.0 Which security has the highest total risk? Security 1. Security 2. Security 3
answer
A is correct. Security 1 has the highest total variance; 0.0625=0.252 compared to Security 2 and Security 3 with a total variance of 0.0400.
question
An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Annual Return (%) Expected Standard Deviation (%) Correlation between Security and the Market Security 1 11 25 0.6 Security 2 11 20 0.7 Security 3 14 20 0.8 Market 10 15 1.0 Which security has the highest beta measure? Security 1. Security 2. Security 3.
answer
C is correct. Security 3 has the highest beta value; 1.07=ρ3,mσ3σm=(0.80)(20%)15% compared to Security 1 and Security 2 with beta values of 1.00 and 0.93, respectively.
question
An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Annual Return (%) Expected Standard Deviation (%) Correlation between Security and the Market Security 1 11 25 0.6 Security 2 11 20 0.7 Security 3 14 20 0.8 Market 10 15 1.0 Which security has the least amount of market risk? Security 1. Security 2. Security 3.
answer
B is correct. Security 2 has the lowest beta value; .93=ρ2,mσ2σm=(0.70)(20%)15% compared to Security 1 and 3 with beta values of 1.00 and 1.07, respectively.
question
With respect to capital market theory, the average beta of all assets in the market is: less than 1.0. equal to 1.0. greater than 1.0.
answer
B is correct. The average beta of all assets in the market, by definition, is equal to 1.0.
question
The slope of the security characteristic line is an asset's: beta. excess return. risk premium.
answer
A is correct. The security characteristic line is a plot of the excess return of the security on the excess return of the market. In such a graph, Jensen's alpha is the intercept and the beta is the slope.
question
The graph of the capital asset pricing model is the: capital market line. security market line. security characteristic line.
answer
B is correct. The security market line (SML) is a graphical representation of the capital asset pricing model, with beta risk on the x-axis and expected return on the y-axis.
question
With respect to capital market theory, correctly priced individual assets can be plotted on the: capital market line. security market line. capital allocation line.
answer
B is correct. The security market line applies to any security, efficient or not. The CAL and the CML use the total risk of the asset (or portfolio of assets) rather than its systematic risk, which is the only risk that is priced.
question
With respect to the capital asset pricing model, the primary determinant of expected return of an individual asset is the: asset's beta. market risk premium. asset's standard deviation.
answer
A is correct. The CAPM shows that the primary determinant of expected return for an individual asset is its beta, or how well the asset correlates with the market.
question
With respect to the capital asset pricing model, which of the following values of beta for an asset is most likely to have an expected return for the asset that is less than the risk-free rate? −0.5 0.0 0.5
answer
A is correct. If an asset's beta is negative, the required return will be less than the risk-free rate in the CAPM. When combined with a positive market return, the asset reduces the risk of the overall portfolio, which makes the asset very valuable. Insurance is an example of a negative beta asset.
question
With respect to the capital asset pricing model, the market risk premium is: less than the excess market return. equal to the excess market return. greater than the excess market return.
answer
B is correct. In the CAPM, the market risk premium is the difference between the return on the market and the risk-free rate, which is the same as the return in excess of the market return.
question
An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Standard Deviation (%) Beta Security 1 25 1.50 Security 2 15 1.40 Security 3 20 1.60 With respect to the capital asset pricing model, if the expected market risk premium is 6% and the risk-free rate is 3%, the expected return for Security 1 is closest to: 9.0%. 12.0%. 13.5%.
answer
B is correct. The expected return of Security 1, using the CAPM, is 12.0% = 3% + 1.5(6%); E(Ri)=Rf+βi[E(Rm)−Rf] .
question
An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Standard Deviation (%) Beta Security 1 25 1.50 Security 2 15 1.40 Security 3 20 1.60 With respect to the capital asset pricing model, if expected return for Security 2 is equal to 11.4% and the risk-free rate is 3%, the expected return for the market is closest to: 8.4%. 9.0%. 10.3%.
answer
B is correct. The expected risk premium for Security 2 is 8.4%, (11.4% − 3%), indicates that the expected market risk premium is 6%; therefore, since the risk-free rate is 3% the expected rate of return for the market is 9%. That is, using the CAPM, E(Ri)=Rf+βi[E(Rm)−Rf] , 11.4% = 3% + 1.4(X%), where X% = (11.4% − 3%)/1.4 = 6.0% = market risk premium.
question
An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Standard Deviation (%) Beta Security 1 25 1.50 Security 2 15 1.40 Security 3 20 1.60 With respect to the capital asset pricing model, if the expected market risk premium is 6% the security with the highest expected return is: Security 1. Security 2. Security 3.
answer
C is correct. Security 3 has the highest beta; thus, regardless of the value for the risk-free rate, Security 3 will have the highest expected return: E(Ri)=Rf+βi[E(Rm)−Rf]
question
An analyst gathers the following information: Security Expected Standard Deviation (%) Beta Security 1 25 1.50 Security 2 15 1.40 Security 3 20 1.60 With respect to the capital asset pricing model, a decline in the expected market return will have the greatest impact on the expected return of: Security 1. Security 2. Security 3.
answer
C is correct. Security 3 has the highest beta; thus, regardless of the risk-free rate the expected return of Security 3 will be most sensitive to a change in the expected market return.
question
Which of the following performance measures is consistent with the CAPM? M-squared. Sharpe ratio. Jensen's alpha.
answer
C is correct. Jensen's alpha adjusts for systematic risk, and M-squared and the Sharpe Ratio adjust for total risk.
question
Which of the following performance measures does not require the measure to be compared to another value? Sharpe ratio. Treynor ratio. Jensen's alpha.
answer
C is correct. The sign of Jensen's alpha indicates whether or not the portfolio has outperformed the market. If alpha is positive, the portfolio has outperformed the market; if alpha is negative, the portfolio has underperformed the market.
question
Which of the following performance measures is most appropriate for an investor who is not fully diversified? M-squared. Treynor ratio. Jensen's alpha.
answer
A is the correct. M-squared adjusts for risk using standard deviation (i.e., total risk).
question
Analysts who have estimated returns of an asset to be greater than the expected returns generated by the capital asset pricing model should consider the asset to be: overvalued. undervalued. properly valued.
answer
B is correct. If the estimated return of an asset is above the SML (the expected return), the asset has a lower level of risk relative to the amount of expected return and would be a good choice for investment (i.e., undervalued).
question
With respect to capital market theory, which of the following statements best describes the effect of the homogeneity assumption? Because all investors have the same economic expectations of future cash flows for all assets, investors will invest in: the same optimal risky portfolio. the Standard and Poor's 500 Index. assets with the same amount of risk.
answer
A is correct. The homogeneity assumption refers to all investors having the same economic expectation of future cash flows. If all investors have the same expectations, then all investors should invest in the same optimal risky portfolio, therefore implying the existence of only one optimal portfolio (i.e., the market portfolio).
question
With respect to capital market theory, which of the following statements best describes the effect of the homogeneity assumption? Because all investors have the same economic expectations of future cash flows for all assets, investors will invest in: the same optimal risky portfolio. the Standard and Poor's 500 Index. assets with the same amount of risk.
answer
B is correct. The homogeneous expectations assumption means that all investors analyze securities in the same way and are rational. That is, they use the same probability distributions, use the same inputs for future cash flows, and arrive at the same valuations. Because their valuation of all assets is identical, they will generate the same optimal risky portfolio, which is the market portfolio.
question
The intercept of the best fit line formed by plotting the excess returns of a manager's portfolio on the excess returns of the market is best described as Jensen's: beta. ratio. alpha.
answer
C is correct. This is because of the plot of the excess return of the security on the excess return of the market. In such a graph, Jensen's alpha is the intercept and the beta is the slope.
question
Portfolio managers who are maximizing risk-adjusted returns will seek to invest more in securities with: lower values of Jensen's alpha. values of Jensen's alpha equal to 0. higher values of Jensen's alpha.
answer
C is correct. Since managers are concerned with maximizing risk-adjusted returns, securities with a higher value of Jensen's alpha, αi, should have a higher weight.
question
Portfolio managers, who are maximizing risk-adjusted returns, will seek to invest less in securities with: lower values for nonsystematic variance. values of nonsystematic variance equal to 0. higher values for nonsystematic variance.
answer
C is correct. Since managers are concerned with maximizing risk-adjusted returns, securities with greater nonsystematic risk should be given less weight in the portfolio.
Economics
Graphs
Economics Review Test Questions – Flashcards 75 terms

Candace Young
75 terms
Preview
Economics Review Test Questions – Flashcards
question
What does Ceteris Paribus mean?
answer
all other things unchanged or constant
question
What is Economics the study of? Why?
answer
Economics is the study of choices that leads to the best possible use of scarce resources. This is used in order to best satisfy unlimited human wants and needs.
question
What is the crucial problem of economics?
answer
That society has unlimited wants and needs but resources are limited.
question
What are the key Economic questions?
answer
1. For whom to produce 2. What to produce 3. How to produce
question
What is the function of an economic system?
answer
To produce and distribute goods and services
question
In order to be considered scarce, what must an economic resource be?
answer
It must be limited in supply
question
What does the circular flow model explain?
answer
It explains how money flows through the economy.
question
What does scarcity mean?
answer
That the supply is inefficient for the demand.
question
How does scaricty relate toa ll goods and services?
answer
Because there is a limit on these items
question
Explain the PPC.
answer
PPC represents all combinations of the maximum amounts of two goods that can be produced by an economy
question
Where do all countries lie on the PPC?
answer
On the inside of the PPC.
question
How can countries improve their production possibilities?
answer
New resources and technology
question
What are resources made by huns that re used to create other goods are called?
answer
capital goods.
question
What is opportunity cost?
answer
the value of giving up an alternative choice by making an economic decision.
question
What is the product market?
answer
the marketplace in which a final good or service is bought and sold.
question
Explain the two different types of economic systems.
answer
Microeconomics- the study of the decisions made by individuals and businesses Macroeconomics- the study of national economy and the global economy
question
What are the factors of production?
answer
Land- natural resources Labor- human side of production capital- man made machines/factories entrepreneurship- person that organizes land, labor, capital
question
Explain the concept of price as a rationing system
answer
price regulates rationing. people have to make a choice of what to produce
question
Explain the law of demand
answer
there is a negative causal relationship between the price of a good and its quantity demanded over a particular time period, ceteris paribus.
question
Explain the law of supply
answer
as price increases the quantity supplied will also increase (positive causal relationship) firms create more
question
equilibrium
answer
when quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied
question
If price is lower than equilibrium what is the result?
answer
A shortage occurs
question
If price is higher than equilibrium what is the result?
answer
A surplus occurs
question
If there is an increase in demand, which way will the demand curve shift? Is the same true for supply?
answer
increase in demand - shift right; same with supply
question
If there is a decrease in supply, which way will the supply curve shift? Is the same true for demand?
answer
decrease in supply - shift left; same with demand.
question
Draw a correctly labeled supply and demand diagram.
answer
question
List and explain each of the determinants of demand.
answer
question
List and explain each of the determinants of supply.
answer
Number of firms, resource prices and costs of production, technology, prices of other goods the firm can produce, expectations, taxes, subsidies, supply shocks
question
What kind of table lists the quantity of a good that a person will buy at different prices?
answer
demand schedule
question
What happens to market equilibrium when there is an increase in supply?
answer
price decreases and quantity demanded increases
question
What happens to market equilibrium when there is an increase in demand?
answer
price increases and quantity demanded increases
question
What happens to market equilibrium when there is a decrease in supply?
answer
price increases and quantity demanded decreases
question
What happens to market equilibrium when there is a decrease in demand?
answer
price decreases and quantity demanded decreases
question
Explain the concept of elasticity.
answer
measures a variable's sensitivity to change in another variable.
question
What is PED?
answer
a measure of how much quantity responds to change in price
question
What is the formula for PED?
answer
percentage change in quantity demanded / percentage change in price
question
What are the ranges for PED?
answer
0<PED<1 = price inelastic 1<PED<infinity = elastic PED = 1 = unit elastic PED = 0 = perfectly inelastic PED = infinity = perfectly elastic
question
What are the determinants of PED? Give examples of each.
answer
availability of substitute goods, definition of the good or service, necessities vs. luxuries, proportion of income spent, addiction
question
What is CED?
answer
measures the change in demand for a good based on a change in price in a substitute or complementary good
question
What is the formula for CED?
answer
percentage change in quantity demanded of good x / percentage change in price of good y
question
What are the ranges for CED?
answer
CED is positive = goods are substitute CED is negative = goods are complementary CED is zero = goods are unrelated
question
Why is CED important to producers?
answer
It informs them how much they need to produce of a product
question
What is YED?
answer
measures the responsiveness of demand to changes in income
question
What is the formula for YED?
answer
percentage change in demand for good x / percentage change in income
question
What are the ranges for YED?
answer
YED>1 = income elastic YED<1 = income inelastic YED is positive = normal YED is negative = inferior
question
What is PES?
answer
measures the amount of a good supplied in relation to a change in its price.
question
What is the formula for PES?
answer
percentage change in quantity supplied / percentage change in price
question
What are the ranges for PES?
answer
PES1 = price elastic PES = 1 = unit elastic PES = 0 = perfectly inelastic
question
What are the determinants for PES?
answer
length of time
question
What are price ceilings and price floors? Give examples of each and the impact on all stakeholders.
answer
price ceiling- a legal maximum price set below the equilibrium price price floor- legally set minimum price above the equilibrium price.
question
Why might the government impose a tax or a subsidy? What do the diagrams look like and explain the impacts on all stakeholders.
answer
subsidy- money granted by the government to assist an industry
question
Explain the concept of market failures.
answer
exists any time the free market results in an over or under allocation of resources towards a particular good or service
question
What are negative externalities?
answer
negative effects creased by producers and consumers
question
What are positive externalities?
answer
positive effects created by producers and consumers
question
Give examples of negative production externalities.
answer
pollution and deforestation
question
Give examples of negative consumption externalities.
answer
cigarettes and alcohol
question
Give examples of positive production externalities.
answer
eco-friendly systems / sage production
question
Give examples of positive consumption externalities.
answer
healthy foods
question
Explain whether the market under-allocates or over-allocates resources when there is a positive or negative externalities associated.
answer
the government under-allocates goods and services with positive externalities
question
Explain why the free market needs government intervention at times.
answer
people can get greedy and create monopolies
question
Explain the government policies used to correct negative production externalities.
answer
governments can use market-bases policies: taxes or tradeable permits
question
Explain the government policies used to correct negative consumption externalities.
answer
advertising and regulation can be used to alert consumer of dangers of consumption shifting D=MPB leftward back to Qe
question
Explain the government policies used to correct positive production externalities.
answer
Direct government provision or subsidies
question
Explain the government policies used to correct positive consumption externalities.
answer
legislation and advertisement shift D=MPB to MSB to promote greater consumption
question
Explain how the circular flow model relates to macroeconomics.
answer
It shows the big picture of economics including leakages and injections in the households and the firms
question
What are leakages in the circular flow model?
answer
savings, taxes, and imports
question
What are injections in the circular flow model?
answer
investments, government intervention, or exports
question
Explain the concept of GDP.
answer
gross domestic product: the value of all goods and services produced
question
Explain the concept of GNP.
answer
gross national product: the income of a country's residents, which is equal to the value of all final goods and servies
question
What are the three methods to calculate GDP?
answer
1. expenditure approach 2. income approach 3. outcome approach
question
What is included in the calculation of GDP?
answer
-consumption -investments -government spending -net exports
question
What is the difference between nominal GDP and real GDP?
answer
Real GDP uses a base year, while nominal GDP is measured at the time of measurement
question
Explain the phases of the business cycle.
answer
expansion- positive real GDP; increase in output and employment peak- cycle max level of real GDP contraction- decrease in output and increase in unemployment trough- minimum GDP and highest rate of unemployment before and expansion
question
When real GDP is above potential GDP which type of gap occurs?
answer
Inflationary
question
When real GDP is below potential GDP which type of gap occurs?
answer
Recessionary
Charts And Graphs
Data
Grade Point Average
Graphs
Months Of The Year
Statistical Studies: Misleading Graphs (Quiz)~amdm 10 terms

Stephen Sanchez
10 terms
Preview
Statistical Studies: Misleading Graphs (Quiz)~amdm
question
In every bar graph, line graph, or scatter plot, the vertical axis should include the following: a. zero c. missing elements b. bars to represent the data d. horizontal axis
answer
A. zero
question
Car A and Car B were in a race. The driver of Car B claimed that his car was twice as fast as Car A. Do you agree with this claim? Why or why not? a. Yes, because the bar for Car B is twice as tall as the bar for Car A. b. Yes, because the speed of Car B is twice that of Car A. c. No, because Car B was only 10 mi/hr faster than Car A. d. No, because the vertical scale exaggerates the differences in speed.
answer
NOT C
question
The makers of Brand Z paper towel claim that their brand is twice as strong as Brand X and they use this graph to support their claim. Do you agree with this claim? Why or why not? a. Yes, because the bar for Brand Z is twice as tall as the bar for Brand X. b. Yes, because the strength of Brand Z is twice that of Brand X. c. No, because paper towel brands are all alike. d. No, because the vertical scale exaggerates the differences between brands.
answer
D. No, because the vertical scale exaggerates the differences between brands.
question
The AAA Cable Company uses this graph to compare their costs to the costs of a competitor. The competitor charges a $20 installation fee and $1.10 per day. AAA Cable has no installation fee and charges $1.30 per day. What can be done to make this graph less misleading? a. Change the vertical scale to increments of $10 instead of increments of $5. b. Change the horizontal scale to increments of 10 days instead of increments of 1 day. c. Change the vertical scale to increments of $1 instead of increments of $5. d. Change the horizontal scale to increments of 1/2 days instead of increments of 1 day.
answer
NOT C
question
In analyzing a line graph, why is slope important? a. The slope should be negative. c. The spacing for each axis must be chosen so that the line reflects a positive slope. b. The slope of the line reflects the actual trend of the data. d. The slope of a line is not important in analyzing a line graph.
answer
B. The slope of the line reflects the actual trend of the data.
question
Describe how the graph below is deceptive. How would you change it so that it is not misleading? a. It appears that Mike's grade point average for the second quarter is 3 times his first quarter average. Change the intervals on the vertical scale so they are consistent. b. It appears that Mike's grade point average for the second quarter was significantly larger than his first quarter average. Change the width of the bars to display the correct scale. c. It appears that Mike's grade point average for the second quarter is 2 times his first quarter average. Change the intervals on the horizontal scale so they are consistent. d. There is no way to change the graph so it is not misleading.
answer
A. It appears that Mike's grade point average for the second quarter is 3 times his first quarter average. Change the intervals on the vertical scale so they are consistent.
question
A sales representative for a new soft drink is trying to convince a chain of food stores to order a much larger quantity. The salesperson uses the graph below in the sales pitch. How would you change the graph so that it is not misleading? a. The vertical scale needs more intervals between values. b. The horizontal scale needs more intervals between values. c. Diameters should be the same, so only the heights are compared. d. The labels should be changed to reflect the greater sales.
answer
C. Diameters should be the same, so only the heights are compared.
question
Three printing companies were rated on their performance using a percentage scale. This graph shows how they were rated. Which company was rated the best? a. There is insufficient information to determine which company was rated best. b. Superior Printing was rated best, because the bar is wider. c. Quicky Printing was rated best, because the bar comes first in the series. d. All three companies were rated to be equal.
answer
NOT B
question
The following graphs show the performance of two stocks over the first five months of the year. Which graph appears to show the best performance? Which scale makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly? a. Stock XYZ shows the best performance. The scale of Stock ABC makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly. b. Stock ABC shows the best performance. The scale of Stock ABC makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly. c. Stock XYZ shows the best performance. The scale of Stock XYZ makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly. d. Stock ABC shows the best performance. The scale of Stock XYZ makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly.
answer
A. Stock XYZ shows the best performance. The scale of Stock ABC makes the graph appear to be rising more slowly.
question
A news channel on cable T.V. polled politicians on an issue to find out who agreed with a court decision. This is the graphic they used in their report. What makes this graph misleading? a. The horizontal scale only shows three parties. It needs to show every party. b. The vertical scale is too broad. It needs to focus in on a narrower range. c. The horizontal scale exaggerates the differences between the parties. d. The vertical scale is too narrow. It needs to be a wider range, such as 0 to 100.
answer
D. The vertical scale is too narrow. It needs to be a wider range, such as 0 to 100.
Algebra 1
Equations
Excel
Graphs
College Pre-Algebra & College Algebra 10 terms

William Hopper
10 terms
Preview
College Pre-Algebra & College Algebra
question
The first coordinate in an ordered pair. For the point (8, -2) the abscissa is 8.
answer
Abscissa
question
Absolute value makes a negative number positive. Positive numbers and 0 are left unchanged. The absolute value of x is written |x|. We write |-6| = 6 and |8| = 8.
answer
Absolute Value
question
Algebra rules for absolute values are listed below. Piecewise Definition: Square root definition: Rules: 1. |-a| = |a| 2. |a| ≥ 0 3. Products: |ab| = |a||b| 4. Quotients: |a / b| = |a| / |b| 5. Powers: |an| = |a|n 6. Triangle Inequality: |a + b| ≤ |a| + |b| 7. Alternate Triangle Inequality: |a - b| ≥ |a| - |b| CAREFUL!! Sums: |a + b| is not the same as |a| + |b| Differences: |a - b| is not the same as |a| - |b|
answer
Absolute Value Rules
question
The rate of change of velocity over time. For motion along the number line, acceleration is a scalar. For motion on a plane or through space, acceleration is a vector.
answer
Acceleration
question
How close an approximation is to an actual value. Accuracy: 3.14 is a fairly accurate approximation of π (pi). Precision: 3.199 is a more precise approximation, but it is less accurate.
answer
Accuracy
question
The matrix obtained by changing the sign of every matrix element. The additive inverse of matrix A is written -A. Note: The sum of a matrix and its additive inverse is the zero matrix.
answer
Additive Inverse of a Matrix
question
The mathematics of working with variables.
answer
Algebra
question
The study of geometric figures using the coordinate plane or coordinates in space. Formulas from analytic geometry include the distance formula, midpoint formula, point of division formula, centroid formula, area of a convex polygon.
answer
Analytic Geometry
question
The use of algebraic and/or numeric methods as the main technique for solving a math problem. The instructions "solve using analytic methods" and "solve analytically" usually mean that no calculator is allowed.
answer
Analytic Methods
question
The coordinate plane used to graph complex numbers. The x-axis is called the real axis and the y-axis is called the imaginary axis. The complex number x + yi is graphed as the point (x, y).
answer
Argand Plane
Data
Experiments
Forensic Science
Graphs
Near The End
Travel
5th Grade FOSS Variable Science Unit – Flashcards 28 terms

Jason Westley
28 terms
Preview
5th Grade FOSS Variable Science Unit – Flashcards
question
Standard
answer
A procedure that has been established to compare future experiments with
question
Controlled Experiment
answer
An experiment in which only one variable is changed at a time.
question
variable
answer
A factor that can be changed in an experiment and might affect the outcome.
question
independent variable
answer
This is the factor in an experiment that you know before you begin your experiment or the Experimental Variable
question
dependent variable
answer
This is the variable in an experiment that you find out by doing the experiment. The result or outcome
question
How many trials should a good scientist conduct?
answer
3 or more
question
True or False this is a controlled experiment: John wanted to test how fast different batteries ran out of power. He put some batteries in his toys, then he played with them. His radio controlled car batteries failed before his calculator so he concluded those batteries had less power.
answer
False
question
Why is this not a controlled experiment? John wanted to test how fast different batteries ran out of power. He put some batteries in his toys, then he played with them. His radio controlled car batteries failed before his calculator so he concluded those batteries had less power.
answer
He tested two different toys, each could have used different amounts of batteries, the calculator could use less power. He only tested once. He didn't control his variables.
question
What was the relationship we discovered between the capacity of our lifeboats and the passengers it could hold?
answer
The greater the capacity the more passengers it could hold.
question
What was the relationship we discovered between distance our foss plane travelled and the passengers (mass) it could carry?
answer
The more passengers (mass) you have the shorter the distance your plane will travel.
question
What was the relationship we discovered between the length of our swingers and the amount of swings?
answer
The longer the swinger the fewer the swings. The shorter the swinger the more swings. ( in 15 seconds)
question
What was the relationship we discovered between distance our foss plane travelled and the angle of the flight line?
answer
The higher the angle the shorter the distance the plane traveled.
question
What changes could you make to our flipper system to make our cork go higher?
answer
Choose the cork with the least mass, put the cork near the end of the flipper, push the flipper stick down all of the way, and push the flipper to the 1 cm mark.
question
What changes could you make to our flipper system to make the cork travel farther?
answer
Choose the cork with the least mass, put the cork near the end of the flipper stick, only push the flipper stick down part way, move the flipper to 3 cm mark.
question
On what axis is the independent variable graphed?
answer
The X axis.
question
On what axis is the dependent variable graphed?
answer
The Y axis.
question
System
answer
set of parts that work together to act as a whole.
question
What were the parts of our swinger system?
answer
String, penny (mass), tape, paper clip, and a pencil
question
What were the parts of our flipper (catapult) system?
answer
flipper base, flipper stick, cork,aluminum balls, and measuring tape
question
What were the parts of our lifeboat system?
answer
Paper cup, passengers (mass), water, and basin
question
What were the parts of our Foss plane system?
answer
craft sticks, rubber band, propeller, straws, plastic hooks, staples, tape, the flight line.
question
What was the relationship between the angle of the flipper base and the distance traveled by the ball?
answer
The higher the angle the farther the ball travelled.
question
What can you use to predict the results of an experiment?
answer
A two coordinate graph or another form of a graph.
question
How can you tell if you need to retest the outcome of a trial after graphing your data?
answer
The outcome does not match or is too far away from our line of best fit.
question
cycle
answer
any pattern that repeats itself
question
prediction
answer
an estimation based on information or experience
question
What are the three types of graphes we used during our investigations.
answer
concrete, picture, two coordinate graphs
question
capacity
answer
the amount of liquid that a container can hold
Applied Behavior Analysis
Graphs
The Code of Ethics for the Texas Educator – Flashcards 49 terms

Daphne Armenta
49 terms
Preview
The Code of Ethics for the Texas Educator – Flashcards
question
In the 2007 revision of the Code of Ethics, an added requirement stated that ________ must report certain behaviors, or risk their own certificates.
answer
Superintendents
question
True or False- The Code of Ethics Governing Educators can be found in the Texas Administrative Code.
answer
True
question
The goal-oriented statement of philosophy regarding the role of educators in society and behaviors that support that role is called which of the following?
answer
The Statement of Purpose grew from the goal-oriented acpect of the old Code of Ethics. The Statement of Purpose makes five statements regarding the role of educators and the expected behaviors that support that role. The correct answer is: Statement of Purpose
question
The ___________________ was revised in 2002 to provide greater clarity regarding the standards expected of all Texas educators.
answer
The old code was often vague and ambiguous. The revised one delineates those specific behaviors which may subject educators to sanctions. The correct answer is: Code of Ethics
question
"....protecting the safety and welfare of Texas school children and school personnel; ensuring educators and applicants are morally fit and worthy to instruct or to supervise the youth of the state and to fairly and efficiently resolve educator disciplinary proceedings at the least expense possible to the parties and the state" is which of the following?
answer
The goal of SBEC in educator disciplinary matters
question
Who enforces the Code of Ethics for educators for purposes related to certification disciplinary proceedings?
answer
While the local board, superintendent and even the principal have much to do with contract renewal, they do not impose sanctions on a teacher's certificate. That is the job of SBEC. The correct answer is: SBEC
question
The "Statement of Purpose" declares that teachers should measure their success in which of the following ways?
answer
Teachers are only successful when their students are successful. The correct answer is: The progress of each student toward realization of his or her potential as an effective citizen.
question
The Texas Education Agency has reminded educators that the interpretation of policies (in regards to the Code of Ethics) is up to who?
answer
Local School Boards
question
If you commit fraud you can be said to have committed a crime of ______________________.
answer
Moral turpitude is a legal concept that refers to "conduct that is considered contrary to community standards of justice, honesty or good morals." Fraud is considered such a crime. The correct answer is: Moral turpitude
question
A teacher has a student who she knows is considered a "runner" and will leave the classroom if left unattended. The teacher sits the student by the door and frequently turns her back on the student for prolonged periods of time. This teacher can be said to be acting in which of the following manners?
answer
An educator acts recklessly when he or she is aware of but consciously disregards a substantal and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur. The correct answer is: Recklessly
question
Students gather in the band hall every morning. One or both of the directors is usually there. On the morning a fight breaks out, however, neither director is present. This can be said to be an example of ________________.
answer
Neglect is defined as "The placing or leaving of a student or minor in a situation where the student or minor would be exposed to a substantial risk of physical or mental harm." In school terms, the teacher risks neglect whenever he or she leaves students unattended. The correct answer is: Neglect
question
An educator acts _______________________with respect to the nature of his or her conduct or to a result of his or her conduct when it is his or her conscious objective or desire to engage in the conduct or cause the result.
answer
A person acts intentionally with respect to his or her conduct when it is his or her conscious object to engage in the conduct of that nature or to cause such a result. The correct answer is: Intentionally
question
A disciplinary action by the State Board for Educator Certification, including a restriction, reprimand, suspension, surrender, or revocation of a certificate is called ________________
answer
A violation of the Code of Ethics can result in a sanction of your teaching certificate. The correct answer is: A sanction
question
Which of the words below meet the following definition? "Exposure of a student or minor to unjustified risk of injury or to injury that jeopardizes the physical health or safety of the student or minor without regard to whether there has been an actual injury to the student or minor."
answer
If you endanger a child you expose him or her to an unjustified, unneccessary risk. No actual injury has to occur. The correct answer is: Endanger
question
Surrendering your certificate is the same thing as which of the following?
answer
Having your certificate revoked
question
The fact that the State Board of Educator Certification has stated that an educator who is "unworthy to instruct or supervise the youth of the state" may warrant a sanction implies that educators are seen as ________________.
answer
Role Models
question
Crimes that are considered to be directly related to the duties and responsibilities of the profession include all of the following EXCEPT which of the following?
answer
If two or more of these alcohol related crimes are committed within a 12 month period, then it is considered related. An isolated incident is not. The correct answer is: A crime involving public intoxication, operating a motor vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or disorderly conduct.
question
A superintendent must report specific offenses to SBEC or risk having their own certificate reprimanded, suspended or revoked. What is this designed to do?
answer
Keep bad teachers from district hopping after they commit a sanctionable offense
question
A teacher who pleads a drug conviction down to a misdemeanor could not be sanctioned by the State Board of Educator Certification.
answer
False
question
If a teacher uses a school computer to send threatening e-mails they can be sanctioned by the State Board for Educator Certification.
answer
True
question
Which one of the following offenses could result in a teacher having their certificate sanctioned by SBEC?
answer
While using the school computer to conduct personal business might get you a growth plan or even fired, it will not get your certificate sanctioned. Having a sexual relationship with a student, regardless of the fact that he or she is of legal age to consent, will. The correct answer is: Having sexual relations with an 18 year old student
question
If a person receives an inscribed reprimand that means which of the following has occurred?
answer
A formal, published censure is placed on the face of his teaching certificate.
question
According to the text, no parts of the Statement of Purpose, however laudable, are ___________.
answer
Enforceable
question
If a coach asks a teacher to give a student a few points this grading period that can be taken off of the average for the next grading period, he is asking her to do which of the following?
answer
While teachers find many reasons to "give" students a few extra points, doing so at the request of anyone seeking personal gain (such as a coach wanting a star athlete) is falsifying records. The correct answer is: Falsify records
question
A company that offers fundraiser items gives a teacher/club sponsor a $25 Starbucks gift card. This teacher has not used the vendor but has been considering it. What should the teacher do?
answer
The gift card must be returned in order to be in compliance with the standards. The teacher may do business with the vendor, however. The correct answer is: Give back the gift card.
question
A teacher who uses her school computer to sell items on e-bay is in violation of Standard 1.2, "The educator shall not knowingly misappropriate, divert, or use monies, personnel, property, or equipment committed to his or her charge for personal gain or advantage."
answer
True
question
If a teacher allows a student to use his notes on a test that others took without notes, the teacher is in violation of an Enforceable Standard 1.1. "The educator shall not intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly engage in deceptive practices regarding official policies of the school district...."
answer
Determining whether or not a student can use their notes when testing is a teacher decision and is not in violation of any district policy. The correct answer is 'False'.
question
Standard 2.1 states "The educator shall not reveal ________________________ concerning colleagues unless disclosure serves lawful professional purposes or is required by law.
answer
Confidential health or personnel information
question
Should you know of a colleague who has been dismissed it is your ethical responsibility to ___________________.
answer
Maintain silence about the dismissal
question
Standard 2.6 states "The educator shall not use coercive means or promise of special treatments in order to ______________________."
answer
Influence professional decisions or colleagues
question
If a team of teachers ignores or acts badly towards a team member who is ______________________ then they are violating the standards of ethical conduct.
answer
In the minority for the team (in age, race, gender, religion, etc)
question
A teacher who wants her daughter to be a cheerleader and who offers to help the cheerleader sponsor violates Standard 2.6 which states "The educator shall not use coercive means or promise of special treatment in order to influence professional decisions or colleagues."
answer
False
question
Standard 2.2 cautions us about harming others by ______________________about a colleague or the school system.
answer
Knowingly making false statements
question
If you are asked by a community member for news of a colleague who is coping with an illness or family matter you should respond in which of the following manners?
answer
With empathy, but no private or revealing details
question
Standard 2.4 states that "The educator shall not interfere with a colleague's ________________________."
answer
Exercise of political, professional, or citizenship rights and responsibilities.
question
Standard 3.8 states that "The educator shall maintain appropriate professional educator-student relationships and boundaries based on a ____________ educator standard.
answer
Prudent means to be careful, cautious, wise. The opposite term is reckless. Use good judgment in relationships with students. The correct answer is: Reasonably prudent
question
In recent years __________________have/has derailed many careers.
answer
Do not friend any student or formal student. Ever. The correct answer is: Social networking sites
question
Standard 3.4 states that "the educator shall not exclude a student from participation in a program, deny benefits to a student....on the basis of race, color, gender, disability, national origin, religion, family status or sexual orientation." This standard also covers which of the following?
answer
Including students because of a perceived advantage that they would bring (like family wealth)
question
You are in violation of Standard 3.2 if your actions impact a student adversely or endangers the learning, physical health, mental health or safety of the student and that adverse impact is _______________.
answer
A teacher's actions should protect students from anything that could adversely affect the student. Accidents happen, but was the adverse impact foreseeable. If a teacher locks a student in a closet, there is a foreseeable chance that this aciton could impair the student's learning. The correct answer is: Forseeable
question
A good rule to follow is that you should not reveal confidential information concerning students without a court order, subpeona, or _______________.
answer
Confidential information, which includes discipline information, grades and attendance information, should not be disclosed without a written release from the requesting party that has been signed by the parents and/or student. The correct answer is: Signed release
question
Standard 3.6 states that "The educator shall not solicit or engage in sexual conduct or a romantic relationship with a _________________."
answer
Student or a minor
question
Which of the following is an appropriate way to communicate with your students?
answer
Blogging
question
Factors to be considered in assessing whether the communication is inappropriate include all of the following EXCEPT which one?
answer
The number of other students included in the communication
question
A good rule of thumb in communicating with students is to keep it
answer
Education-related
question
Standard 1.10 states that "The educator shall be of good moral character and be worthy to instruct or supervise the youth of this state." What constitutes "good moral character?"
answer
It is up to local school boards to interpret policies of the State Board of Education. The correct answer is: Local school board policy
question
If you repeat gossip about a colleague you are possibly doing which one of the following.
answer
Violating a Standard that concerns making false statements about a colleague or the school system.
question
Who does the Code of Ethics apply to?
answer
Educators and candidates for certification
question
A person acts __________________ when respect to a result of his or her conduct when he or she is aware that the conduct is reasonably certain to cause the result.
answer
Knowingly
question
Which of the following is a vaguely worded definition that serves as the basis for sanctions?
answer
Unworthy to instruct
First Person Point Of View
Graphs
Third Person Point Of View
Front of the Class – Flashcards 17 terms

Daniel Thompson
17 terms
Preview
Front of the Class – Flashcards
question
historical (autobiography), inspirational
answer
two genres of the movie Front of the Class
question
Missouri; Georgia
answer
two places where Front of the Class was set
question
Brad Cohen
answer
American motivational speaker, teacher, school administrator, and author who has severe Tourette syndrome (TS)
question
Ellen Cohen
answer
divorcée mother of Brad and his younger brother Jeff
question
Nancy Lazarus-Cohen
answer
the one whom Brad met through an Internet dating service and eventually became his wife
question
Thomas
answer
a second grade student of Brad who suffers from several personality disorders
question
Heather
answer
a second grade student of Brad who died from terminal cancer
question
Norman Cohen
answer
Brad's father who could not seem to tolerate the protagonist's tics or initally accept his condition
question
Peter Werner
answer
director of Front of the Class
question
Andrew Gottlieb
answer
producer of Front of the Class
question
Thomas Rickman
answer
(script)writer of Front of the Class
question
Jimmy Wolk
answer
the actor who played the role of Brad Cohen
question
Patricia Heaton
answer
the actor who played the role of Ellen Cohen
question
Zack Miller
answer
the actor who played the role of Thomas
question
Katherine Shepler
answer
the actor who played the role of Heather
question
Treat Williams
answer
the actor who played the role of Norman Cohen
question
Front of the Class: How Tourette Syndrome Made Me the Teacher I Never Had
answer
book of Brad Cohen from which his movie was based
Diversity
Goals
Graphs
Problem Solving
BCommExam2 – Flashcards 101 terms

Malcolm Bright
101 terms
Preview
BCommExam2 – Flashcards
question
Which of the following is characteristic of members from high-performing teams?
answer
They openly discuss the set of values, norms, and goals they share.
question
Barb's team has to write a report recommending three healthcare plans to offer the company's employees next year. At the planning meeting, each person is assigned responsibilities. Which of the following team members is not carrying a fair share of the group's work?
answer
Amy will send out reminders of the meetings and take attendance.
question
Which of the following is the best opening for a difficult conversation?
answer
I really want to understand what went wrong and find a solution we both can accept.
question
Hector and his team work for an educational publisher. The team has to write a report comparing the textbooks of three competitors. Who would be the best person to analyze the books' methods of teaching?
answer
Lin, who has four years of experience as an educator Early in the group writing process, your group should clearly discuss the roles and expectations you have for one another. Make sure part of this conversation involves splitting up contributions and time commitments equally. As the group plans together, it should identify subject-matter experts and delegate roles for researching and writing. In this example, Lin would be assigned to analyze the competition's methods of teaching because of his experience as an educator.
question
After Karla's team completed the first draft of its group document, the team asked her to edit it carefully for grammar, punctuation, and spelling. At the next meeting, the group decided one section of the document was not relevant and deleted it. Karla was upset about her wasted work. What did the team do wrong?
answer
It did not choose an appropriate purpose for each round of revision Make sure your group is clear about the purposes of each round of revision. Generally, you should first revise with a focus on the strength of your ideas and how well these ideas match the needs of your audience. Then you should focus on how smoothly the various sections of your paper flow together. Next, you should consider issues such as formatting, ease of reading, and language mechanics. Karla's team was not clear about the appropriate order of revision and asked her to work on language mechanics too early in the process, which resulted in wasted work.
question
Which of the following describes a team in the forming stage of team development?
answer
Nick, Julie, Raul, and Ming take turns sharing their background with the others In the forming stage of team development, team members focus on gaining acceptance and avoiding conflict. In some ways, this stage is a honeymoon period in which team members get to know one another.
question
Effective teams spend about half their time bonding by talking about social activities
answer
False
question
When producing group writing, it is important to ensure that the writing reflects the views of the group at every stage—gathering information, drafting initial findings, and editing the final document.
answer
True
question
Nick, Julie, and Raul each share different ideas about how the team should approach work, and the team spends some time debating which ideas to adopt. What stage is the team at?
answer
Storming In the storming stage of team development, team members open up with their competing ideas about how the team should approach work. This stage is typically the least productive, since team members are attempting to make sense of uncertain roles, goals, and accountabilities.
question
Whenever he has to present a proposal to his managers, LeRoy is able to distance himself from his ideas and accept criticism without becoming defensive. What process enables LeRoy to do this?
answer
Disassociation
question
Which of the following statements is an example of disagreeing diplomatically?
answer
I feel that I was not given a chance to explain my actions.
question
Which of the following is characteristic of the norming stage of team development?
answer
Team members agree upon mutual goals and individual responsibilities.
question
When team members experience conflict because they are trying to make sense of competing ideas about how the team should work, they are in the storming stage of team development.
answer
True
question
During group writing projects, it is important not to waste time discussing roles and contributions.
answer
False
question
Janet's team is working on a group document, which they store in an FTP system on the company server. On Friday, Claire and Malik download the document at the same time, and each makes edits. Malik uploads his document first. When Claire uploads her copy of the document, she erases all of Malik's work. What went wrong?
answer
The team did not have a system to handle version control.
question
In emotionally charged, high-stakes conversations, forcefully stating your message at the beginning will often lead to productive outcomes.
answer
False
question
A learning stance implies that
answer
you are committed to understanding other peoples' versions of interpersonal interactions.
question
Which of the following best describes the performing stage of team development?
answer
The four group members work at their assigned tasks efficiently and work together as needed. In the performing stage of team development, teams operate efficiently toward accomplishing their goals. They have evolved to a level where they can transform disagreement and conflict into consensus for future action.
question
Erik is a manager who organizes his department into teams at the beginning of September. By December, he worries because the teams are still having conflict and do not seem very productive. What would be the best advice to give Erik?
answer
Be patient because the teams are in the storming stage. Give them time to reach the norming and performing stages.
question
Hector and his team work for an educational publisher. The team has to write a report comparing the textbooks of three competitors. Who would be the best person to polish the final version of their report so it has a consistent voice?
answer
George, who has five years of experience as an editor
question
What does validating someone entail?
answer
recognizing their feelings as legitimate
question
Difficult conversations can be handled successfully by
answer
hearing everybody's story
question
Which of the following is true of high-performing teams?
answer
They spend most of their time discussing work-related issues.
question
What impact does 2-D diversity have on a company?
answer
The company is more likely to increase its market share. 2-D diversity refers to companies that have both inherent and acquired diversity. Companies with 2-D diversity are more likely to report a grown in market share and more likely to capture a new market.
question
Which of the following is a trait that contributes to the inherent diversity of a team?
answer
members with a variety of ethnic backgrounds
question
In order to be effective, a consumer survey should contain
answer
exhaustive answer choices for each question Most consumer research questionnaires contain fewer than five or six questions. Survey questions should be (a) simple to answer, (b) non-leading, (c) exhaustive and unambiguous, and (d) limited to a single idea.
question
Which of the following statements about leading questions is true?
answer
In surveys, leading questions produce unreliable and unusable information Leading questions often do not allow respondents to provide their genuine thoughts or impressions. As a result, leading questions in surveys can produce unreliable and unusable information.
question
Which of the following is least important when analyzing data related to a business problem?
answer
focusing on tangential issues If you discipline yourself to focus on your key research problems, you are less likely to get bogged down looking at tangential issues.
question
Which of the following is a disadvantage of conducting primary research into a business problem?
answer
It is more time consuming than secondary research.
question
Geoff creates a survey of 50 questions. Its comprehensive coverage will provide more accurate data.
answer
False
question
Which of the following statements about primary research is true?
answer
Primary research provides feedback directly related to an organization and its needs. Primary research is generally most reliable and useful for your business reports because you can focus it to meet your specific research objectives and get feedback directly related to your organization and its needs.
question
Inga included this question on a customer survey: "Do you prefer restaurants like ours that have a wide variety of sandwiches?" The problem with that question is that it
answer
is leading A leading question is one that suggests an answer. Often, the leading question is designed to gain a preferred response from the survey designer's perspective.
question
Who is the primary audience for most business reports?
answer
decision makers within the company
question
How can you make sure that your business report meets the needs of the target audience?
answer
Consider updating them about progress and involving them in the process. During the research and report writing process, consider updating decision makers and involving them in the process. This increases the likelihood that you will develop a report that is useful to them.
question
Rachael, a marketing assistant at Blue Pearl Resort, is preparing a questionnaire to help her understand the resort's customers better. She wants to use only closed questions in her survey. Which of the following questions can Rachael use?
answer
On a scale of 1 to 5, how would you rate your level of satisfaction at Blue Pearl?
question
Sarah, the owner of Food Folks Diners, wants to know how effective the new dinner menu has been. Which of the following questions should she incorporate into her survey questionnaire?
answer
How do you feel about the new dinner menu compared to the old one?
question
Kate creates a survey question with the following range of choices: a) 0-25%; b) 26-50%; c) 51-75%; d) 76-100%. This set of choices is exhaustive.
answer
True
question
Samantha, the owner of Silver Butterflies Accessories, wants to know how her customers feel about shopping at her stores. One of the questions in her survey questionnaire reads, "On a scale of 1 to 5, where would you place the store's ambience, service, and jewelry collection?" This question is ineffective because it
answer
asks about multiple ideas Survey questions that contain more than one idea are difficult for respondents to answer.
question
Carl heads the in-house market research department at Cook Champion Foods. He is planning a study of the relationship between television commercials for a product and children's desire to buy the product after viewing the commercials. Which of the following is the best way for Carl to define his research problem?
answer
determine how television commercials affect children's desires
question
Clyde creates a survey question with the following range of choices: a) 1-10; b) 10-20; c) 20-30; d) 30-40. This set of choices is unambiguous.
answer
False
question
An executive summary tells the story of the report so the busy reader can get the gist of the content.
answer
True
question
If you have developed a report by yourself, you do not need to get other perspectives before you officially submit it.
answer
False
question
Projecting objectivity involves providing information, analysis, and advice that is sound, reliable, and unbiased.
answer
True
question
A report must be reviewed at least once for typos or mechanical errors.
answer
True
question
Reviewing a report in multiple sittings has a negative impact on the review process.
answer
False
question
Achieving a positive, can-do tone in your communications is appropriate in nearly all business situations.
answer
True
question
You should project objectivity more than positivity in business reports.
answer
True
question
Research-based business reports are generally collaborative efforts
answer
True
question
Professionals with green motivational value systems are most attracted to action-oriented and results-oriented language and logic
answer
False Professionals with red motivational value systems (MVSs) are most attracted to action-oriented and results-oriented language and logic. Professionals with green MVSs will appreciate your ability to provide all of the facts and avoid rushing to judgment about conclusions.
question
When you are giving a presentation, your audience is likely to judge you as having character if you
answer
offer your views transparently. Presentations place a spotlight on you and allow you to maintain and even build your credibility. When you clearly know what you are talking about, audiences will judge you as competent. When you show that you are interested in the needs of your audience, they will judge you as caring. When you offer your views honestly and transparently, audiences will judge you as having character.
question
Which of the following is related to the first step in the AIM planning process?
answer
analyzing your audience to make sure you are addressing their needs
question
Khandi gives a presentation to advocate that her employer, Let-Us Ltd., which offers services such as personal shopping and event planning to assist busy professionals, expand its offerings to include dog walking. She decides to use the PREP method of justifying this position. Which of the following is an example of the third step in the method?
answer
She cites a personal services company in another city that increased its business by adding dog walking to its services. A successful approach to justifying your views in a presentation is the PREP method, which involves stating your position, providing the reasons, giving an example or providing evidence, and restating your position. Khandi's reference to another company doing the same thing is an instance of giving an example.
question
Ellis gives a presentation to propose that his company, Ingenius Inc., eliminate its traditional departments and replace them with flexible teams that will allow employees to move from project to project as needed. He decides to use the PREP method of justifying this position. Which of the following is an example of the second step in the method?
answer
He explains that, with the current structure, employees in one department may be underutilized while other departments are overtaxed.
question
What is one of the purposes of the preview in a presentation?
answer
to generate interest among the audience
question
Kyle's preview of his presentation has a statement that frames his message in appealing terms and a breakdown of the key takeaway messages for the audience. What is his preview missing?
answer
an attention-getter The preview of a presentation should generally include an attention-getter, a positioning statement, and an overview. Kyle's statement that frames his message in appealing terms is a positioning statement and the breakdown of key takeaway messages is the overview. Kyle lacks an attention-getter.
question
The higher the knowledge level of your listeners, the more presentation time you should spend informing them.
answer
False
question
Your colleague tells you that she is worried about persuading the audience to listen to her presentation. You should advise her to make her preview as compelling as possible.
answer
True
question
Connie, who works for a textbook company, has put together a presentation proposing that the company try to sell its textbooks to the untapped homeschooling market. She needs to present her idea to the executive committee. Considering the content of her presentation, which of the following people on the committee should she most try to influence?
answer
the marketing directory
question
If you want your presentation to appeal to professionals with a green motivational value system, you should
answer
use dispassionate, precise language. Professionals with green motivational value systems (MVSs) will appreciate your ability to provide all of the facts and avoid rushing to judgment about conclusions. People with green MVSs generally pride themselves on a dispassionate approach to decision making and may be turned off what they consider blatant and irrelevant appeals to emotion. However, this in no way implies that emotion is unimportant to them. Greens are often emotionally connected to precise language, precise and well-conceptualized charts, models, and other figures, and the ability to handle tough questions.
question
Antwan has to plan a business presentation. The last step in his planning should be to gain a deeper understanding of the needs of his audience.
answer
False
question
Victor works for a manager who has a hub motivational system. In presentations to his manager, Victor should use language that is
answer
option oriented Professionals with hub motivational value systems are most common. Hubs are by nature pragmatic and flexible. They prefer a presentation that holds clear business logic with an emphasis on benefits to people—clients, customers, colleagues, and others. They prefer option-oriented language.
question
Jamal begins his presentation on supplemental insurance by telling a dramatic story about an employee who was able to keep his home because of having such insurance. What type of attention-getter is this?
answer
a vivid example
question
Enrique is giving a presentation to convince his managers that offering yoga classes at work will improve productivity because it will help employees clear their minds. Which of the following aspects of his presentation shows that he is trying to include kinesthetic learners?
answer
He will ask the audience to stand and do a simple yoga pose.
question
Starting a presentation by telling the story of your company is usually effective at capturing audience attention and providing helpful background.
answer
False Starting a presentation with an overwhelming set of facts and numbers or telling the story of your company may not be particularly effective.
question
Which of the following is a purpose of a positioning statement?
answer
to demonstrate value to the audience The preview of your presentation should generally include an attention-getter, a positioning statement, and an overview. The positioning statement frames your message in appealing terms and demonstrates clear and valuable benefits to the audience.
question
If you want your presentation to appeal to professionals with a blue motivational value system, you should
answer
use relationship-centered terms. Professionals with a blue motivational value system (MVS) will appreciate your ability to discuss business relationships—such as benefits to work teams and colleagues and loyalty to customers and clients. Emotionally, people with blue MVSs will connect to you through your use of "we" language and other relationship-centered terms. Analytically, blues will connect with your holistic approach to business benefits. They are attracted to business logic that includes more than just bottom-line measures of performance.
question
When you are giving a presentation, your audience is likely to judge you as caring if you
answer
show that you are interested in the needs of your audience. Presentations place a spotlight on you and allow you to maintain and even build your credibility. When you clearly know what you are talking about, audiences will judge you as competent. When you show that you are interested in the needs of your audience, they will judge you as caring. When you offer your views honestly and transparently, audiences will judge you as having character.
question
Stan begins his presentation about a new type of spreadsheet software by showing managers a sample of how it works. What type of attention-getter is this?
answer
an unexpected exercise
question
The beginning of your presentation is critical because
answer
audience members form quick impressions about you and your message during this time.
question
Khandi gives a presentation to advocate that her employer, Let-Us, Ltd., which offers services such as personal shopping and event planning to assist busy professionals, expand its offerings to include dog walking. Which of the following sentences is a call to action that Khandi might use at the end of her presentation?
answer
For all these reasons, I propose we hire three dog walkers and begin offering this service by year's end.
question
Which of the following is related to the final step in the AIM planning process?
answer
constructing your message to focus on the key takeaway concepts As you design your presentations and speeches, the AIM planning process will help you, just as it does in the writing process. You will analyze your audience to make sure you are addressing their needs and speaking to them in the way that is most appealing and easy to learn. You will develop your ideas by identifying the key facts and conclusions related to your topic. Finally, you will construct your message to focus on the key takeaway concepts and to provide supporting points throughout.
question
Vicki begins her presentation on vacation policy by asking, "Have you ever been so busy that you couldn't take all your vacation time in a given year?" What type of attention-getter is this?
answer
a rhetorical question
question
Gina starts the preview of her presentation with an intriguing statistic and a statement that frames her message in appealing terms. What is her preview missing?
answer
an overview The preview of your presentation should generally include an attention-getter, a positioning statement, and an overview. Gina's intriguing statistic is her attention-getter. The statement that frames her message in appealing terms is a positioning statement. She is lacking an overview.
question
Gregor, who works at a textbook company, has put together a presentation proposing that the company save money by getting its images from less expensive stock photo sites. Gregor needs to present his idea to the executive committee. Considering the content of his presentation, which of the following people on the committee should he most try to influence?
answer
the design director Typically, some people in your audience have more impact on your ability to achieve your work ideas than do others. These key decision makers are the ones you want to influence the most. For internal presentations, think about those individuals who have the most influence and authority to act on your ideas.
question
By doing audience analysis, Radika discovers that the people she will be giving her sales presentation to know very little about her product. Because of this, she is likely to decide to
answer
spend more presentation time informing the audience
question
What is the purpose of an overview?
answer
to show how your audience will benefit from the idea you are proposing The preview of your presentation should generally include an attention-getter, a positioning statement, and an overview. The purpose of an overview is to segment the presentation in terms of key benefits or takeaway messages that are easy to remember and help audience members think about how your ideas benefit them.
question
Generally, formal business attire projects
answer
competence
question
Geneva has joined a small design firm that prides itself on having a non-hierarchical, creative work environment. Which type of business dress would most likely be appropriate for this office?
answer
tailored shirt with either pants or a skirt
question
Which of the following should you do to quickly manage your nervousness before a presentation?
answer
Take several deep breaths to quickly alleviate your anxiety
question
According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, during a presentation you should
answer
attempt to read your audience and get a sense for how much energy they have.
question
When in doubt, the safest way to dress is low-level business casual
answer
False
question
Janice has to give a 20-minute presentation. She will be able to keep the audience more engaged if she moves around the room.
answer
True
question
People often misread body language so you should
answer
pay attention to the audience so you can adjust what you are doing
question
Business casual dress is intended to project
answer
a comfortable, relaxed feel while maintaining a high standard of professionalism.
question
Using notes during a presentation is considered unprofessional.
answer
False
question
Cathy works for a multinational company and has to make a presentation in a large conference room. To make sure that she uses the room to her advantage while delivering her presentation, Cathy should
answer
stand upright behind a podium where she can place her notes. Standing behind a podium or table can help you project authority and add to the formality of the presentation. If you do use a podium to achieve these goals, make sure you stand upright.
question
During a presentation, gesturing with your palms held down beckons the audience to accept your ideas.
answer
False
question
Nathaniel recently joined Anderson Enterprises, a multinational firm. He is confused about what to wear for a business meeting where he will have to make a presentation to important clients. Which of the following should Nathaniel wear?
answer
Nathaniel should wear a conservative business suit with a dress shirt and a necktie.
question
Which of the following will help you maintain a flexible approach during your presentation?
answer
knowing the key messages of your presentation
question
According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, you should
answer
face the audience directly with a slight forward lean and upright posture during a presentation.
question
Hector wants to practice a relaxation technique before his presentation. Which of the following options should he avoid using?
answer
thinking about the things he wants to achieve
question
Which of the following is one of the best ways to relax immediately before a presentation
answer
speaking with audience members to break the ice
question
Complying with audience requests is a bad idea as it will cause you to lose your train of thought.
answer
False
question
Which of the following is the best way to deliver presentations with authenticity?
answer
finding ways to present your real self to your audience Nearly all audience members are making judgments about you and your message based on their perceptions of your authenticity. One of your primary goals as you develop your presentation skills is to find ways to present your real self to your audience.
question
Which of the following is a guideline connected with the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication?
answer
Use your facial expressions to connect with your audience and show enthusiasm for your topic. According to the SOFTEN model of nonverbal communication, you should use your facial expressions to connect with your audience members and show your enthusiasm for your topic. Audience members are more likely to warm up to you when you put forth positive, can-do emotion.
question
Making eye contact with audience members while presenting can distract you from your message.
answer
False
question
Which of the following techniques will help you make your presentation about people?
answer
introducing colleagues and referring to them by name during your presentation
question
in order to focus your presentation on people, you should
answer
make individuals and groups the subject of your sentences.
question
Cinnamon was just hired as the manager of an office supply store. For her first day of work, she should wear low-level business casual, which projects creativity and friendliness.
answer
False
question
During Macie's presentation, the manager of another department asked her for some statistics she did not have on hand. She promised to get it to him, looked up the statistics the next morning, and emailed them to him right away. Which aspects of credibility were enhanced by Macie's action?
answer
caring and character
question
When you lose your train of thought during a presentation, you should
answer
pause until you regain your composure and your line of thinking.
Cause And Effect
Cause And Effect Diagram
Graphs
Quality Management Quiz – Flashcards 90 terms

Maddison Bailey
90 terms
Preview
Quality Management Quiz – Flashcards
question
Quality Managment
answer
a way of doing business that continuously improves products and services to achieve better performance
question
Conditions of Participation
answer
rules that determin an entity's eligibility for involvement in a particular activity
question
Quality Assuranace
answer
evaluation activites aimed at ensurig compliance with minimun quality standards; actions performed to ensure the quality of a product
question
Criteria
answer
standards or principles by which something is judged or evaluated
question
Quality Planning
answer
setting quality objectives and specifying operational processes and related resources needed to fulfill the objectives
question
Quality Control
answer
operational techniques and activities used to fulfill quality requirements
question
Accreditation
answer
a self-assessment and external assessment process used by healthcare organizations to assess their level of performance in relation to established standards and implement way to continuously improve
question
IOM
answer
A private nonprofit organization created by the federal government to provide science based advice on matters of medicine and health
question
Stakeholders
answer
people, groups, organizations, or entities that can be directly or indirectly affected by an organization's actions, objectives and policies
question
ACS
answer
founded to addreass variations in the quality of medical education. It has developed the hospital standardization program to address the quality of facilities in which physicians worked
question
Measures
answer
instruments or tools used for measuring
question
Structure Measures
answer
data describing oranganizationsl facilities, environment, equipment, policies, and procedures
question
Process Measures
answer
data describing the delivery of healthcare services
question
Outcome Measures
answer
data describing the results of healthcare services
question
Evidence-based Measures
answer
data describing the extent to which current best evidence is used in making decisions about patient care
question
Pillars of Excellence
answer
strategic themes selected by an organization to focus efforts on aspects crucial to it's success
question
AHRQ
answer
the lead federal agency for research on healthcare quality, costs, outcomes, and patient safety
question
Quality Indicators
answer
measures used to detrmie an organizations performance over time
question
Customer Service
answer
a series of activies designed to attend to customer's needs
question
Numerator
answer
number written above the line in a common fraction to indicate the number parts of a whole
question
Denominator
answer
number written below the line in a common fraction that indicates the number of parts into which one whole is divided
question
Sample
answer
a representative portion of a large group
question
Reliable
answer
yielding the same or compatible results in different situations
question
Interrater Reliability
answer
probability that a measurement is free from random error and yields consistent results regardless of the individuals gathering the data
question
Clincal Practice Guidelines
answer
systematically developed statements that assist practicioners' and patient's decisions about healthcare provided for specific clinical circumstances
question
Balanced Scorecards
answer
frameworks for displaying system-level performance measures; components of structured performance management systems that align an organization's vision and mission with operational objectives
question
Tabular Report
answer
performance data organized in a multicolumn, multirow format
question
Central Tendency
answer
a measure of the middle or expected value of a data set
question
Performance Expectations
answer
desired performance
question
Data Visualization
answer
communication of information clearly and effectively through graphical means
question
Scatter Diagrams
answer
graphs used to show the correlation between two characteristics or variables
question
Pie Charts
answer
graphs in which each unit of data is represented as a pie shaped piece of a circle
question
Bar Graphs
answer
graphs used to show the relative size of difference categories of a variable, on which each category or value of the variable is represented by a bar, usually with a gap between the bars; also called bar chartsq
question
Histograms
answer
graphs used to show the center, dispersion, and shape of the distribution of a collection of performance data
question
Frequency Distributions
answer
Classifications of performance data that allow comparison of results in each category
question
Pareto Charts
answer
graphs used to show where improvement resources should be applied by revealing the significant few problems from the trivial many
question
Radar Chart
answer
graphs used to display the differences between actual and expected perforance for several measures
question
Spider Charts
answer
graphs used to display the differences between actual and expected performance for several measures
question
Performance Trends
answer
patterns of gradual change in performance average or general tendency of performance data to move in a certain direction over time
question
Dashboard
answer
a set of performance measures displayed in a concise manner that allows for easy interpretation
question
Run Charts
answer
Chronological sequences of data that include a horizontal center line; also called line graphs
question
Benchmarking
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learning about the practices in other companies for the purpose of using them in your own organization
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State of Statistical Control
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a condition where performance measurement results vary randomly within the control limits
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Normal Distribution
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a spread of information in which the most frequently occurring value is in the middle of the range and the other probabilities tail off symmetrically in both directions
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Standard Deviation
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a measure of the dispersion of a collection of values
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Common Cause Variation
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variation in performance that doesn't result from a specific cause but is inherent in the process being measured
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Special Cause Variation
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unexpected variation in performance that results from a non randon event
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Performance Gap
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the difference between actual and expected performance
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Lean Model
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a performance improvement apprach aimed at eliminating waste
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Analytic Tools
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qualitative and quantitative tools used during an improvement project
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Continuous Improvement
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analyzing performance of various processes and improving them repeatedly to achieve quality objectives
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PDCA Cycle
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Plan Do Check Act The Shewart performance improvement model
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PDSA Cycle
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Plan Do Study Act The Deming performance improvement model
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RCI
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Rapid Cycle Improvement an improvement model that makes repeated incremental improvements to optimze performance
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Six Sigma Quality
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rate of less than 3.4 defecs per million opportunities, which translates to a process that is 99.9997% defect free
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Improvement Project
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a group of individuals who work together to accomplish an improvement objective
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Opportunity for Improvement
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a problem of performance failure
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Affinity Diagram
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charts used by improvement teams to organize ideas and issues, gain a better understanding of a prblem, and brainstorm potential solutions
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Workflow Diagram
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an illustration of the movement of EE's or information during a process
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Response Scales
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ranges of answers from which the survey respondent can choose
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Response Rate
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the number of respondents who complete a survey out of the number who receive the survey, usually expressed as a percentage; can also apply to individual questions
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Quality Story
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a tool that visually communicates the major elements of an improvement project
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Qualitative Tools
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used to generate ideas, set priorities, maintain direction, determine problem causes, and clarify processes
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Quantitative Tools
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analytic improvement tools used for measuring performance, collecting and displaying data, and monitoring performance
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Fishbone Diagram
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graphic representations of the relationships between outcomes and the factors that influence them; also cause and effect diagram or Ishikawa diagram
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Decision Matrix
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a chart used to systematically identify, analyze, and rate the strength of relationships between sets of information, especially useful for looking at large numbers of decision factors and assessing each factor's relative importance
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Flowchart
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graphic reprentation of processes
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Interview
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formal discussions between two parties in which information is exchanged
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Surveys
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questionnaires or interviews used to obtain information fro ma group of individuals about process, product, or service
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Charter
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a written declaration of an improvement team's purpose
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Ground Rules
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established guidelines for how an improvement team wants to operate; norms for behavior
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Gantt Chart
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a bar graph that illustrates a project schedule
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Improvement Team
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a group of individuals working together to implement an improvement or solve a problem
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Inputs
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products, services, or information flowing into a process
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Outputs
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products, services, or information produced by a project
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Process Owners
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individuals ultimately responsible for a process, including its performance outcomes
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Independents
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improvement team members who have little or no knowledge of the process under consideration and have no vested interests in the outcome of the project
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Adverse Event
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an injury caused by medical care
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Incident Reports
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instruments used to document occurences that could have led or did lead to undesirable results
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Incidents
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events or occurrences that could have led or did lead to undesirable results
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Patient Safety
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actions undertaken by individuals or organizations to protect healthcare recipients from being harmed by the effects of health care services; also defined as freedom from accidental or preventable injuries produced by medical care
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Risk
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the possibility of loss or injury
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Safety
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the quality or condition of being safe; freedom from danger, injury, or damage.
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Sentinel Event
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an adverse event involving death or serious physical or psychological injury that signals the need for immediate investigation and response
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Vigilant
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carefully observant or attentative; on the lookout for possible prolems
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Clinical Paths
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descriptions of key patient care interventions for a condition including diagnostic tests, medications, and consultations, which, if completed as described, are expected to produce desired results
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Medically Necessary
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appropriate and consisten with dagnosis and accordin to acceptd standards of practice in the medical community, imperative to treatment to prevent the patient's condition or the qulity of the patient's care from being adversly affected
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Preadmission Certification
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review of the need for medical care or services that is completed before the care or services are provided
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Protocols
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formal outlines of care; treatment plans
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Utilization Management
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planning, organizing, directing, and controlling healthcare products in a cost-effective manner while maintaining quality of patient care and contributing to the organization's goals