4. What materials are essential to being exchanged to keep the cell in good working order?

Food, oxygen, and water need to enter while waste needs to leave More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/biology-ch-10-2/

You must ensure that your seatbelts are in good working order. Everyone over whose height is 4’9 must wear a seat belt. Otherwise they must be fastened in… p. 17

federally-approved child passenger restraint system. (Car Seat) More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/dmv-california-study-guide/

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Unit 1 Test Review Study Guide – Flashcards 41 terms

Elizabeth Bates

41 terms

Preview

Unit 1 Test Review Study Guide – Flashcards

question

It is not necessary to keep your workstation clean.

answer

False

question

You should always attempt to repair or fix the computer yourself it if is broken.

answer

False

question

Never attempt to change the computer files or settings.

answer

True

question

It is not safe to give out personal information to others while on the Internet.

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True

question

I am allowed to use a flash drive in class.

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False

question

After shutting down the computer, the first step to cleaning the keyboard is to:

answer

unplug it

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I am allowed to eat and drink at my workstation.

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False

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It is not ok to spray liquids direction onto the computer screen.

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True

question

This is a basic part of a computer:

answer

monitor

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Printers, scanners, speakers/headphones, web cams, and microphones are all examples of:

answer

Peripherals

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What is the motherboard?

answer

A computer's main circuit board. It connects to every part of the computer.

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This type of memory disappears once the computer is turned off.

answer

RAM (Random Access Memory)

question

What is the cloud?

answer

All the things you can access remotely over the Internet.

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What does it mean when something is on the cloud?

answer

It means it is stored on Internet servers instead of a hard drive.

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What are some common reasons for using the cloud?

answer

File storage, file sharing, and backing up data.

question

Give an example of a cloud app.

answer

Dropbox, Google Drive, Flickr, Mozy and Carbonite

question

Explain computer ergonomics.

answer

It's the science of equipment design and how usage and placement of equipment can reduce discomfort and increase productivity.

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Give an example of a piece of ergonomic equipment:

answer

keyboards and chairs

question

How can you avoid injury in your workspace?

answer

Adjust the chair, position your keyboard comfortably, and take frequent breaks to prevent from straining your eyes.

question

All the people working or available to work are known as the_________________.

answer

Workforce

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OSHA

answer

Occupational Safety and Health Administration. Ensures industries and companies are keeping employees safe while on the job.

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Learning Style

answer

A person's best method of gaining knowledge.

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The act of leading a group of people.

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Leadership

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An established way of doing something.

answer

Procedure

question

While working at a local restaurant, Blaze picked up raw meat with his bare hands. What should he have done to ensure his safety in the workplace?

answer

Blaze should have used latex gloves to keep harmful bacteria away from his skin.

question

Amanda brought a personal space heater to her desk at work. Why is this a bad idea?

answer

The space heater could cause a fire. It could also heat up the computer and cause permanent damage.

question

Give an example of a learning style:

answer

Linguistic, logical, bodily, musical, spatial, naturalist, interpersonal, and intrapersonal.

question

Give an example of a career in STEM:

answer

Dentist, Speech Pathologist, Pharmacist, Computer Systems Analyst, Surgeon

question

The word plagiarize means:

answer

Copying or slightly changing someone else's work and then saying you created it.

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A ____________________ is a law that helps protect your control over your creative work.

answer

question

Jake wants to keep some control over the photos he puts online, but he also wants to make it easy for people to share and use them. He should use ______________________.

answer

Creative Commons

question

A course of action designed to help you reach a goal or result is known as a:

answer

strategy

question

Cindy heard a new song on the radio. She wants to search for it online, but she can only remember one line of the song. Which strategy should Cindy use to search for this song?

answer

She should use quotation marks around the line she remembers.

question

What is the first step you should take when you want to conduct an online search?

answer

You should select research questions.

question

What are the 6 Pillars of Character?

answer

Trustworthiness, Respect, Responsibility, Fairness, Caring and Citizenship

question

Give an example of being trustworthy.

answer

Always keep your promises.

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What is one way to be respectful to other people?

answer

Listen to what other people have to say.

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How can you be responsible?

answer

By being reliable and dependable.

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Fairness is _______________________________________.

answer

Playing by the rules.

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How can you become a caring person?

answer

By doing caring things for others.

question

What does good citizenship look like?

answer

Respecting and following the rules of your school, even if you don't always agree with them.

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Common Law Fair And Impartial Good Working Order

CFEI Study Guide – Flashcards 136 terms

David Dunn

136 terms

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CFEI Study Guide – Flashcards

question

Evidence - Demonstrative

answer

Tangible items; see, touch, smell, hear.

question

Evidence - Documentary

answer

Written form; business records, banking, calendars, phone records, fire reports, etc...

question

Evidence - Testimonial

answer

Competent live witness speaking under oath; two types; fact and expert

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Evidence - illustrative

answer

Photos, sketches, maps, diagrams. Modes are frequently used at trial.

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Evidence - illustravtive

answer

Photos and Videos; what, why, how, when

question

Evidence collection

answer

Document in place, document the collection, use proper container, (flag, bag, & tag)

question

Evidence - collection

answer

Fuel gas powered tools outside the perimeter. Find out where tools were refuels.

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Heat transfer

answer

Conduction, convection, radiation

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Interviews

answer

Purpose of the interview; prepare for the interview, document the interview

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Vehicle Fires

answer

Sparks from an aluminum wheel are not a competent ignition source.

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Vehicle Fires

answer

The most common source of an open flame in a vehicle is an exhaust system backfire out of a carburetor.

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Vehicle Fires

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Carburetor backfire leaves a distinct pattern on the hood.

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Vehicle Fires

answer

Two basic fuel systems: vacuum/low pressure carbureted system, and high-pressure, fuel injected system.

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Vehicle Fires

answer

Loose battery connections; not over-current protected; loose connections can result in intermittent arcing.

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Vehicle Fires

answer

Power steering fluid: Flashpoint 347-356*F, autoignition 680-720*F.

question

Vehicle Fires

answer

Automatic Transmission Fluid: Flashpoint 302-536*F, autoignition 626-716*F.

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Vehicle Fires

answer

Overcharging a battery does not cause it to explode.

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Explosions

answer

Low order damage: characterized by walls bulge out or laid down, virtually intact, next to the structure. roofs slightly left.

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Explosions

answer

High order damage: shattering of the structure, producing small debris pieces.

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Explosions

answer

Post blast effects: burned debris away-fire preceded, unburned the debris away-no fire.

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Explosions

answer

Dust explosions: most often occur in confined areas of relatively wide dispersal.

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Explosions

answer

Search 1.5 times further than the farthest piece of debris.

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Fire effects/ fire patterns

answer

Char shrinks as it forms. More reliable for evaluating fire spread, deduce the direction based on depth, large shiny blisters (alligatoring) is not evidence of the use of an accelerant.

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Fire effects/fire patterns

answer

Spalling: loss of surface material due to cracking, breaking, chipping, breakdown in surface tensile strength, moisture present in the concrete, may appear lighter in color.

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Fire effects/fire patterns

answer

Crazed glass: caused by rapid cooling.

question

Fire effects/fire patterns

answer

Light bulbs 25W or more "pull" (gases expand and bubble out); 25W or less contain a vacuum and can pull in.

question

Fire effects/fire patterns

answer

Annealing (softening) of springs may provide clues concerning direction, duration, and intensity.

question

Fire effects/fire patterns

answer

Saddle burns - A U-shaped burn pattern found on the top of floor joists, caused by fire burning down through the floor. Often, a saddle burn is caused by a burning liquid on the floor or radiant heat from a material close to the floor. Saddle burns display deep charring.

question

Fire effects/fire patterns

answer

Inverted cone burns are indicative of the vertical flame plume not reaching the ceiling, short-lived fires with a low HRR

question

Fire effects/fire patterns

answer

Melting Temperatures: Copper 1981*F; Aluminum 1220*F; Steel 2760*F

question

Heat Sources

answer

Mechanical: converted to heat when two materials rub against each other and create friction. Chemical: chemical reaction; exothermic and endothermic. Electrical: Converted to heat energy; flowing through a conductor. Nuclear: splitting the nucleus of an atom into two smaller nuclei (nuclear fission)

question

Electrical

answer

Resistance Heating: properly installed, produces low resistance. Loose connections: high resistance with increased heating at the contact.

question

Electrical

answer

Ground Fault: the purpose if grounding an electrical system is to make sure that any housings or exposed metal in the system or connected to it cannot become electrically charged.

question

Electrical

answer

Sleeving: the softening and sagging of thermoplastic conductor insulation due to the heating of the conductor.

question

Electrical

answer

Lightning: a form of static electricity, a polarized electrostatic charge in the clouds.

question

Electrical

answer

9.2.2.2.2: the unit of measurement of potential difference or voltage is usually volts.

question

Electrical

answer

9.2.2.3: the rate of charge flow is called electrical current, and current is measured in amperes.

question

Electrical

answer

9.2.6.1: power - the rate at which energy is used.

question

Electrical

answer

9.3.3: the cables of a service drop go into a weather-head, which is designed to keep water from entering the system, and then down a service raceway to a meter base.

question

Electrical

answer

9.6.2.1: fuses are basically non-mechanical devices with a fusible element in a small enclosure.

question

Electrical

answer

9.6.3.1: a circuit breaker is a switch that opens either automatically with over-current or manually by pushing a handle.

question

Electrical

answer

9.7: Branch Circuits: the individual circuits that feed lighting, receptacles, and various appliances are the branch circuits.

question

Electrical

answer

9.9.4.1: Arc: is a high temperature luminous electric discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation.

question

Electrical

answer

9.10.3: Arcing through a carbonized path due to thermal means (arcing through char), insulation on conductors, when exposed to direct flame or radiant heat, may be charred before being melted. That char is conductive enough to allow sporadic arcing through the char.

question

Fatalities

answer

Charred bones are an indication of fire intensity and duration

question

Fatalities

answer

The Pugilistic posture is as a result of the muscle dehydrating and shrinking, shrinkage causes flexion

question

Fatalities

answer

Humans do not spontaneously combust

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Hire a FPE to examine a flow valve, EE for a toaster, Mechanical Engineer for a furnace and a metallurgist for metal issues

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Do not put field notes in the investigative report

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Polyethylene chair has a higher HRR than a pool of gasoline or a Christmas tree

question

Miscellaneous

answer

A pathologist should exam a fractured skull

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Main breaker is the safest way to de-energize a house

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Fill the evidence can only 2/3 full

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Annealed (softening) springs can indicate duration and intensity

question

Miscellaneous

answer

An autopsy should always be performed

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Witnesses can only testify to facts observed

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Identify interview question types according to the priority that they should be asked

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Vapor density of <.6 will rise to the ceiling and accumulate

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Oxidation is the basic chemical reaction associated with combustion

question

Miscellaneous

answer

Add more oxygen and expect color change and change of texture

question

Thermal Inertia

answer

Thermal conductivity(k), density(p), heat capacity (c)

question

Latent heat of vaporization

answer

The heat absorbed when a substance changes phase from a liquid to a gas. No change in chemical structure of the material

question

Flameover

answer

Unburned fuel from the originating fire accumulates in the ceiling layer to sufficient concentration that it ignites

question

Flashover

answer

A transition phase in the development of a compartment fire in which surfaces exposed to thermal radiation reach ignition temperature more or less simultaneously

question

Backdraft

answer

A deflagration resulting from the sudden introduction of air into a confined space containing oxygen-deficient products of incomplete combustion

question

Boiling Point

answer

Temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the pressure surrounding the liquid and the liquid changes into a vapor.

question

Burning Point

answer

The lowest temperature at which a volatile oil in an open vessel will continue to burn when ignited by a flame held close to its surface; used to test safety of kerosene and other illuminating oils.

question

Clean Burn

answer

A distinct and visible fire effect generally apparent on non-combustible surfaces after combustible layers (soot, paper, paint)have burned away

question

Combustion

answer

A chemical process of oxidation that occurs at a rate fast enough to produce heat and usually light in the form of either a glow or flame

question

Calcination

answer

A fire effect realized in gypsum products, including wallboard, as a result of exposure to heat that drives off free and chemically bound water

question

Fire

answer

A rapid oxidation process, which is a chemical reaction resulting in the evolution of light and heat in varying intensities

question

Fire Plume

answer

Creation of hot gases by fire; the hot gases rise above the fire itself

question

Flame Spread

answer

Classified as concurrent or counterflow: concurrent-(wide-aided flame spread) occurs when flame spread direction is the same as the gas flow or wind direction; counterflow-(opposed flame spread) occurs where the flame spread direction is counter to or opposed to the gas flow

question

Heat

answer

a form of energy characterized by vibration of molecules and capable of initiating and supporting chemical changes and changes of state

question

Ignition Temperature

answer

Minimum temperature a substance should attain in order to ignite under specific test conditions

question

Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)

answer

The minimum percentage of fuel in air (by volume) in which combustion can occur

question

Upper Explosive Limit

answer

The maximum percentage of fuel in air in which combustion can occur

question

Melting Point

answer

Phase change; the material changes from a solid to a liquid with no change in the chemical structure of the material (melting candle wax)

question

Pyrolysis

answer

A process in which material is decomposed, or broken down, into simpler molecular compounds by the effects of heat alone; pyrolysis often precedes combustion

question

Specific Gravity (Vapor Density)

answer

The ratio of the average molecular weight of a gas or vapor to the average molecular weight of air

question

Specific Gravity

answer

The ratio of the mass of a given volume of a substance to the mass of an equal volume of water at a temperature of 4*C

question

Combustible Liquid

answer

Flash Point @ or above 100°F

question

Flammable Liquid

answer

Flash Point less than 100°F

question

Ignitable Liquid

answer

Both combustible and flammable liquids are ignitable liquids.

question

Flash Point

answer

Momentary Flame; the lowest temperature at which vapors will ignite. Measuring a flash point requires an ignition source. At the flash point, the vapor may cease to burn when the ignition source is removed.

question

Accelerant

answer

Can be any material to spread fire; usually gasoline.

question

Origin Determination

answer

1. Witness Information 2. Fire Patterns 3. Arc Mapping 4. Fire Dynamics

question

Ceiling Jet

answer

Obstruction to plume at ceiling level creates ceiling jets.

question

Thermal Inertia

answer

The degree of slowness with which the temperature of a body approaches that of its surroundings and which is dependent upon its absorptivity, its specific heat, its thermal conductivity, its dimensions, and other factors

question

High Order Explosion

answer

A high order explosion describes an explosive event where the blast pressure front moves rapidly, shattering objects in its path. High order damage: shattering of the structure, producing small debris pieces.

question

High Explosive

answer

A high explosive is a material that has an explosion velocity of greater than 1000 m/s, or a material capable of sustaining a detonation

question

Low Order Explosion

answer

A low order explosion describes an explosive event where the blast pressure front moves slowly, displacing or heaving (rather than shattering) objects in its path. Low order damage: characterized by walls bulge out or laid down, virtually intact, next to the structure. roofs slightly left.

question

Low Explosive

answer

A low explosive is a material that has an explosion velocity of less than 1000 m/s.

question

True - Administrative Warrant

answer

Probably cause IS NOT NEEDED to obtain an ADMINISTRATIVE search warrant.

question

Conduction

answer

Heat transfer to another body or within a body by DIRECT contact.

question

Pre-Flashover conditions

answer

In pre-flashover conditions, the primary heat transfer mechanism for fire spread through a compartment is conduction.

question

Conduction Heat Transfer

answer

Conduction is the form of heat transfer that takes place within solids when one portion of an object is heated. Energy is transferred from the heated area to the unheated area at a rate dependent on the difference in temperature and the physical properties of the material.

question

Convection Heat Transfer

answer

Convection is the transfer of heat energy by the movement of heated liquids or gases from the source of heat to a cooler part of the environment. Heat is transferred by convection to a solid when hot gases pass over cooler surfaces. The rate of heat transfer to the solid is a function of the temperature difference, the surface area exposed to the hot gas, and the velocity of the hot gas. The higher the velocity of the gas, the greater the rate of convective transfer.

question

Radiation Heat Transfer

answer

Radiation is the transfer of heat energy from a hot surface to a cooler surface by electromagnetic waves without an intervening medium. For example, the heat energy from the sun is radiated to earth through the vacuum of space. Radiant energy can be transferred only by line-of-sight and will be reduced or blocked by intervening materials. Intervening materials do not necessarily block all radiant heat. For example, radiant heat is reduced on the order of 50 percent by some glazing materials.

question

Pyrolysis

answer

A process in which material is decomposed, or broken down, into simpler molecular compounds by the effects of heat alone; pyrolysis often precedes combustion

question

Combustion

answer

Combustion may continue with available oxygen concentrations lower than 1 percent.

question

Empirical Data

answer

Data that is based on observation or experience and can be verified.

question

Inductive Reasoning

answer

The process by which a person starts from a particular experience and proceeds to generalizations. The process by which hypotheses are developed based upon observable or known facts and the training, experience, knowledge, and expertise of the observer.

question

Deductive Reasoning

answer

Test the Hypothesis with deductive reasoning. The process by which conclusions are drawn by logical inference from given premises. Testing of the hypothesis is done by the principle of deductive reasoning, in which the investigator compares the hypothesis to all the known facts as well as the body of scientific knowledge associated with the phenomena relevant to the specific incident.

question

Fault Tree

answer

Fault trees can be used to test the possibility of a hypothesized fire cause. Fault trees are developed by breaking down an event into causal component parts. These components are then placed in a logical sequence of events or conditions necessary to produce the event. If the conditions or sequence are not present then the hypothesis is disproved.

question

Time Lines

answer

In the context of testing a cause hypothesis, the time frame may be a discriminator for determining if an ignition scenario is consistent with the available data as it related to time frames.

question

"V" Pattern

answer

The geometric shape of the pattern.

question

Arson

answer

The crime of maliciously and intentionally, or recklessly, starting a fire or causing an explosion.

question

Arc

answer

A high-temperature luminous electric discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation.

question

Cause

answer

The circumstances, conditions, or agencies that brought about or resulted in the fire or explosion incident, damage to property resulting from the fire or explosion incident, or bodily injury or loss of life resulting from the fire or explosion incident.

question

Combustion

answer

A chemical process of oxidation that occurs at a rate fast enough to produce heat and usually light in the form of either a glow or flame.

question

Fire

answer

A rapid oxidation process, which is a chemical reaction resulting in the evolution of light and heat in varying intensities.

question

Drop Down / Fall Down

answer

The spread of fire by the dropping or falling of burning materials. Synonymous with "fall down."

question

Conduction

answer

Heat transfer to another body or within a body by direct contact.

question

Convection

answer

Heat transfer by circulation within a medium such as a gas or a liquid.

question

Competent Ignition Source

answer

An ignition source that has sufficient energy and is capable of transferring that energy to the fuel long enough to raise the fuel to its ignition temperature.

question

Detonation

answer

Propagation of a combustion zone at a velocity greater than the speed of sound in the unreacted medium.

question

Forensic (Forensic Science)

answer

The application of science to answer questions of interest to the legal system.

question

Fire Science

answer

The body of knowledge concerning the study of fire and related subjects (such as combustion, flame, products of combustion, heat release, heat transfer, fire and explosion chemistry, fire and explosion dynamics, thermodynamics, kinetics, fluid mechanics, fire safety) and their interaction with people, structures, and the environment.

question

Scientific Method

answer

The systematic pursuit of knowledge involving the recognition and definition of a problem; the collection of data through observation and experimentation; analysis of the data; the formulation, evaluation and testing of a hypothesis; and, when possible, the selection of a final hypothesis.

question

Systematic Approach

answer

The systematic approach recommended is based on the scientific method, which is used in the physical sciences. This method provides an organizational and analytical process that is desirable and necessary in a successful fire investigation

question

The Scientific Method

answer

Recognize the Need (identify the problem) Define the problem Collect Data Analyze the Data Develop a Hypothesis Test the Hypothesis (if fail, go back to collect data) Select the Hypothesis

question

The Scientific Method - Recognize the need.

answer

First, one should determine that a problem exists. In this case, a fire or explosion has occurred and the cause should be determined and listed so that future, similar incidents can be prevented.

question

The Scientific Method - Define the Problem

answer

Having determined that a problem exists, the investigator or analyst should define the manner in which the problem can be solved. In this case, a proper origin and cause investigation should be conducted. This is done by an examination of the scene and by a combination of other data collection methods, such as the review of previously conducted investigations of the incident, the interviewing of witnesses or other knowledgeable persons, and the results of scientific testing.

question

The Scientific Method - Collect Data

answer

Facts about the fire incident are now collected by observation, experiment, or other direct datagathering means. The data collected is called empirical data because it is based on observation or experience and is capable of being verified or known to be true.

question

The Scientific Method - Analyze the Data

answer

The scientific method requires that all data collected be analyzed. This is an essential step that must take place before the formation of the final hypothesis. The identification, gathering, and cataloging of data does not equate to data analysis. Analysis of the data is based on the knowledge, training, experience, and expertise of the individual doing the analysis. If the investigator lacks expertise to properly attribute meaning to a piece of data, then assistance should be sought. Understanding the meaning of the data will enable the investigator to form hypotheses based on the evidence, rather than on speculation.

question

The Scientific Method - Develop a Hypothesis (Inductive Reasoning)

answer

(Inductive Reasoning). Based on the data analysis, the investigator produces a hypothesis, or hypotheses, to explain the phenomena, whether it be the nature of fire patterns, fire spread, identification of the origin, the ignition sequence, the fire cause, or the causes of damage or responsibility for the fire or explosion incident. This process is referred to as inductive reasoning. These hypotheses should be based solely on the empirical data that the investigator has collected through observation and then developed into explanations for the event, which are based upon the investigator's knowledge, training, experience, and expertise.

question

The Scientific Method - Test the Hypothesis (Deductive Reasoning)

answer

(Deductive Reasoning). The investigator does not have a valid or reliable conclusion unless the hypothesis can stand the test of careful and serious challenge. Testing of the hypothesis is done by the principle of deductive reasoning, in which the investigator compares the hypothesis to all known facts as well as the body of scientific knowledge associated with the phenomena relevant to the specific incident. A hypothesis can be tested physically by conducting experiments, analytically by applying accepted scientific principles, or by referring to scientific research. When relying on the research of others, the investigator or analyst must ensure that the conditions, circumstances, and variables of the research and those of the hypothesis are sufficiently similar. Whenever the investigator relies on research as a means of hypothesis testing, references to the research relied upon should be acknowledged and cited. If the hypothesis is refuted or not supported, it should be discarded and alternate hypotheses should be developed and tested. This may require the collection of new data or the reanalysis of existing data. The testing process needs to be continued until all feasible hypotheses have been tested and one is determined to be uniquely consistent with the facts and with the principles of science. If no hypothesis can withstand an examination by deductive reasoning, the issue should be considered undetermined.

question

The Scientific Method - Testing the hypothesis

answer

Any hypothesis that is incapable of being tested either physically or analytically, is an invalid hypothesis. A hypothesis developed based on the absence of data is an example of a hypothesis that is incapable of being tested. The inability to refute a hypothesis does not mean that the hypothesis is true.

question

Expectation Bias

answer

Expectation bias is a well-established phenomenon that occurs in scientific analysis when investigator(s) reach a premature conclusion without having examined or considered all of the relevant data. Instead of collecting and examining all of the data in a logical and unbiased manner to reach a scientifically reliable conclusion, the investigator(s) uses the premature determination to dictate investigative processes, analyses, and, ultimately, conclusions, in a way that is not scientifically valid. The introduction of expectation bias into the investigation results in the use of only that data that supports this previously formed conclusion and often results in the misinterpretation and/or the discarding of data that does not support the original opinion. Investigators are strongly cautioned to avoid expectation bias through proper use of the scientific method.

question

Confirmation Bias

answer

Different hypotheses may be compatible with the same data. When using the scientific method, testing of hypotheses should be designed to disprove the hypothesis (falsification of the hypothesis). Confirmation bias occurs when the investigator instead tries to prove the hypothesis. This can result in failure to consider alternate hypotheses, or prematurely discounting seemingly contradictory data without an appropriate assessment. A hypothesis can be said to be valid only when rigorous testing has failed to disprove the hypothesis.

question

Administrative Review

answer

An administrative review is one typically carried out within an organization to ensure that the investigator's work product meets the organization's quality assurance requirements. An administrative reviewer will determine whether all of the steps outlined in an organization's procedure manual, or required by agency policy, have been followed and whether all of the appropriate documentation is present in the file, and may check for typographical or grammatical errors.

question

Technical Review

answer

A technical review can have multiple facets. If a technical reviewer has been asked to critique all aspects of the investigator's work product, then the technical reviewer should be qualified and familiar with all aspects of proper fire investigation and should, at a minimum, have access to all of the documentation available to the investigator whose work is being reviewed. If a technical reviewer has been asked to critique only specific aspects of the investigator's work product, then the technical reviewer should be qualified and familiar with those specific aspects and, at a minimum, have access to all documentation relevant to those aspects. A technical review can serve as an additional test of the various aspects of the investigator's work product.

question

Peer Review

answer

Peer review is a formal procedure generally employed in prepublication review of scientific or technical documents and screening of grant applications by research-sponsoring agencies. Peer review carries with it connotations of both independence and objectivity. Peer reviewers should not have any interest in the outcome of the review. The author does not select the reviewers, and reviews are often conducted anonymously. As such, the term "peer review" should not be applied to reviews of an investigator's work by coworkers, supervisors, or investigators from agencies conducting investigations of the same incident. Such reviews are more appropriately characterized as "technical reviews," as described above.

question

Thermal Inertia

answer

During transient heating, a more common condition, the result is changing rates of heat transfer and temperature. During this period, all three properties—thermal conductivity (k), density (ρ), and heat capacity (c) — play a role. Multiplied together as a mathematical product, these properties are called the thermal inertia, kρc, of a material. The thermal inertia of a material is a measure of how easily the surface temperature of the material will increase when heat flows into the material. Low-density materials like polyurethane foam have a low thermal inertia and the surface temperature will increase quickly upon exposure to a heat flux. Conversely, metals have a high thermal inertia due to their high thermal conductivity and high density. As such, when exposed to a flame, the surface temperature of a metal object increases relatively slowly compared to the surface temperature of a plastic or wood object. Table 5.5.2.3 provides data for some common materials at room temperature. Thermal properties are generally a function of temperature.

question

Saddle Burns

answer

A U-shaped burn pattern found on the top of floor joists, caused by fire burning down through the floor. Often, a saddle burn is caused by a burning liquid on the floor or radiant heat from a material close to the floor. Saddle burns display deep charring.

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Applied Philosophy Good Working Order National League For Nursing Nurse Practice Acts Nursing Nursing-LPN Patient-Family Centered Care: Maternal/Child Nursing Primary Care Privacy And Confidentiality

Advanced Nursing Roles – Flashcards 37 terms

Kevin Stewart

37 terms

Preview

Advanced Nursing Roles – Flashcards

question

What states are responsible for being the first to have advanced practice language in their nurse practice act?

answer

Idaho

question

How is the NP role different from PA role?

answer

PA is a physician extender NP independent

question

Who created the 1st NP?

answer

1965 Loretta Ford/Henry Silver University of Colorado Peds

question

What are three major research outcomes NP role should address?

answer

Reimbursements affect on quality of care. DPN on # of APN's/shortage of primary HC. Prescriptive authority affect on pt care.

question

What three major HC system issues can be impacted by NP?

answer

1 Access to care 2 Quality of care 3 Cost of care

question

What issues can impact NP positively or negatively?

answer

DNP Reimbursement Prescriptive authority

question

Who is NONPF and what is their role for APRN's?

answer

National Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculty Help establish domains and competencies for NP's

question

How is PA different from NP?

answer

NP=nursing models independent and depentent PA= regulated by medical practice acts under supervision of a physician

question

What are the three stages of transition from RN to NP?

answer

Identity loss-Novice at one and Expert at another. New skill affect their work. Transitional Role Evolution Phase-Role limbo, feel invisible or inept, peers are very important, leads to resocialization into the new role identity. Incorporation Phase-change in relationships between RN and peers

question

What should a theoretic NP framework be based on?

answer

EBP, research, collaboration, consultation

question

What are the 6 recognized NP roles by the consensus model?

answer

family adult gerontology neonatal pediatrics women's health psychiatric-mental health

question

What percent does medicare/aide reimburse NP?

answer

85% care 92% aide 100% Texas healthy steps

question

CNAP

answer

Coalition for Nurses in Advanced Practice

question

NONPF

answer

National Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculty

question

NAPNAP

answer

National Association of Pediatric Nurse Practitioners: organization for PNP's

question

NANN

answer

National Association of Neonatal Nurses

question

AANP

answer

American Association of Nurse Practitioners

question

ANCC

answer

American Nurses Credentialing Center

question

Tri Council

answer

organized to advance policy at national level

question

AACN

answer

American Association of Critical-Care Nurses

question

TNP

answer

Texas Nurse Practitioner

question

What is specialization of NP role?

answer

intersection of another body of knowledge with NP role that causes specialization

question

What is expansion of NP role?

answer

Often can loose skills due to focused roles.

question

What is the ideal evolution of the APN role?

answer

To have a broad base of theoretical knowledge that expansion or specialization can build from. IE you must know the broadness of your NP role to function in your specialty

question

What are some examples of subspecialty in the NP role?

answer

Diabetes, forensic, palliative care, substance abuse, sexual assault, child abuse

question

What are the three key elements of any healthcare system?

answer

Triangle: Cost Access Quality

question

What drives healthcare change?

answer

Cost Access Quality Fear of government takeover Employers having a hard time paying with increased costs Not enough primary care Not enough people insured

question

HMO

answer

Health maintenance organization Share financial risk between insurer and provider Fixed cost

question

What are the three types of HMO's?

answer

Staff model-provider works for insurance Independent Practice Association-contracts made with providers for services Network-combination Staff and IPA

question

PPO

answer

Preferred provider organization discounted fees for using certain providers on list

question

POS

answer

Point of service plan select provider at time of service, requires a primary provider to refer

question

answer

Utilization Review Company Monitors use of insurance for healthcare

question

EPO

answer

Exclusive Provider Organizations Use one hospital and group of providers, pay out of pocket for going else where

question

Managed Insurance

answer

Rely in UR to manage cost of care, Blue cross Aetna Cigna Kaiser Humana

question

What does LACE stand for?

answer

licensure accreditation certification education

question

What are the three components of the consensus model?

answer

Roles Foci Specialties

question

What are the 6 foci identified by the consensus model?

answer

1. Family/individual across the lifespan 2. Adult gerontology 3. Neonatal 4. Pediatrics 5. Women's health/gender-related 6. Psych/mental health

STUDY

Good Working Order Pull Off The Road Stop And Wait

Driving school: Final Exam – Flashcards 100 terms

Cindy Krause

100 terms

Preview

Driving school: Final Exam – Flashcards

question

You are approaching an intersection with a yield sign you should...

answer

Stop, unless you can enter the intersection safely without interfering with other traffic

question

You intend to turn into a driveway just after an intersection, when should you signal...

answer

As you enter the intersection

question

You must dim your headlights if a car is within...

answer

500 feet of an oncoming vehicle, or within 200 feet of a vehicle traveling ahead of you

question

You come to an intersection and your view to the side is blocked by buildings, you should...

answer

Stop then edge forward slowly until you can see clearly in both directions

question

You have to yield to pedestrian...

answer

Always even if the pedestrian is not obeying traffic controls

question

If there is oncoming traffic on your left and a bike rider on your right you should...

answer

Slow down and let the car pass and then pass the bike

question

If you are driving in the fog, which of the following is most important for deciding how fast you should drive...

answer

How far you can see

question

What must you do if you see or hear an emergency vehicle coming from any direction...

answer

Pull as close as possible to the right side of the road and stop until the vehicle has passed

question

You are approaching a school bus which is picking up and dropping off children, you must...

answer

Remain stop until flashing light stop flashing or the stop sign is folded back

question

What is the rule for checking your car mirrors?

answer

Check several times a minute

question

Which of the following road surfaces freezes first...

answer

A bridge

question

Before pulling out to pass a car, you should...

answer

Check this side mirror, rearview mirror and look over your shoulder

question

Which way should the front wheels of a car be turned when parking downhill with or without a curb...

answer

Toward the curb

question

The right of way law as applied to a four-way intersection states that ...

answer

The vehicle which has entered the intersection first has the right-of-way

question

The first driving ability affected by alcohol is...

answer

Judgment

question

The proper method of approaching for a left turn on a one-way street is...

answer

To do so in the lane of traffic nearest the left-hand side of the roadway and as close as practicable to the left hand curb or edge of the roadway

question

The driver of a vehicle that is being passed by another vehicle must...

answer

Not willfully obstruct the other vehicle, allows the other driver to pass safely

question

Children are at a disadvantage as pedestrians because they are...

answer

Smaller and less visible than adults to drivers; less capable than adults of judging where it is safe to cross the street; less likely to fully understand the consequences of making a bad judgment

question

If you change a flat tire for an undersize of low mileage spare you should drive...

answer

No faster than 15 mph to the nearest repair station

question

A good plan to keep alert on a long trip is to...

answer

Drive in two hour stretches with 15 minute breaks in between

question

Extending your left hand and aiming straight horizontally out the driver side window indicates that you are...

answer

Turning left

question

You see a traffic signal with a flashing red light, you should...

answer

Come to a full stop and proceed when the way is clear

question

You are parking up a hill and there is a curb, how should you place your wheels?

answer

Turn your front wheels out away from the curb

question

You are in the right lane of the freeway, as you come up on an entrance ramp, you can see a car about to enter the freeway the best thing to do is...

answer

Change lanes to the left

question

What is the fundamental speed law?

answer

You must never travel faster than is reasonable and proper for the current conditions in Public Safety

question

If the road is slippery, what following distance should you keep in the car ahead?

answer

Increase the space between you and other vehicles

question

When you enter a crowded freeway from an entrance ramp you should...

answer

Slow down on the ramp to wait for a gap, yield the right away to drivers already on the freeway

question

If your gas pedal sticks, what is the first thing you should do...

answer

Put your car in neutral gear and apply the brakes to slow down, when safe to do so pull your car to the side of the road and bring your vehicle to stop

question

That implied constant law briefly states...

answer

All operators are pledged to drive sub Berley and if arrested in charge of operation under the influence of liquor they must consent into taking a breath test or a pond a refusal to do so please officers are required to take away license on the spot

question

If you are nearing the top of the hill on a 2 Lane Country Rd, as you approach the top of the hill, you should...

answer

Slow down and be ready to stop if needed to do so

question

As a driver, it is your responsibility to drive...

answer

Only when you're able to concentrate

question

What is the legal limit of intoxication?

answer

.08%

question

You must file an accident report when...

answer

The total vehicle damages are $1000 and over, or there are personal injuries involved

question

What can you do to make yourself and others say for a while in your car?

answer

Wear safety belts

question

What does the law say about brakes?

answer

You must have in good working order a foot and hand brake

question

When a driver has the legal right away...

answer

He is not required to proceed and should give up his rights away if it would be dangerous to maintain it

question

What does the law say about driving with a learners permit...

answer

You must be accompanied by a licensed Massachusetts drivers 21 years older and over, who is sitting beside the driver and who has had at least one year of driving experience

question

Who has the right of way at a rotary...

answer

Cars going around the rotary have the right away in may go before cars entering the rotary

question

What is your duty as owner or person in control of the vehicle?

answer

You must be careful about giving your car to someone to drive; you must make sure that this person has a valid drivers license, is competent and has legal authority to drive your car

question

You can manage most potential hazardous driving situations by...

answer

Staying alert

question

If you approach a flashing yellow light posted ahead of the curve you should...

answer

Slow down and stay alert

question

Your lane ends and you have to merge with traffic Adjoining Lane...

answer

You would yield to vehicles passing you

question

Which of the following would justify moving in injured person at a crash site...

answer

Being in the path of oncoming traffic

question

Two solid yellow lines on the roadway indicate that...

answer

No passing is permitted in either direction

question

A driver gathers the most info through...

answer

Vision

question

If you can't stop while approaching a light that turns yellow, you should...

answer

Proceed cautiously

question

Your vehicle should be positioned next to the centerline before you...

answer

Make a left turn from a two-way street

question

If you approach a red arrow, you must...

answer

Stop and wait for the arrow to turn green

question

What is one way to make sure that the other person sees you, as described in the Smith system?

answer

Always drive with your low beam headlights on; tap your brakes to let phone drivers know you are stopping or slowing; signal your intention to turn

question

What is a good example of leaving a way out, as described and smith system?

answer

Position your car so that you have space in one of the lanes next to you and you can move there to avoid a collision

question

The SIPDE process includes...

answer

Searching, identifying, predicting, deciding and executing

question

When you use the Smith system in driving , you...

answer

Get the big picture; keep your eyes moving; make sure others see you

question

In most states, if you violate a traffic light or commit a dangerous at during your in vehicle test...

answer

You will automatically fail

question

When taking the In vehicle test , you should make sure that...

answer

Your radio is off

question

Ideally the in vehicle test should be taken in...

answer

The same vehicle you are practicing

question

If you are not going to take the test in the school driver training car...

answer

You will have to provide the vehicle

question

If you must stop along the roadway to rise, you should...

answer

Try to find a lighted area, then pull over as far off the road as possible; lock all doors but keep the windows open a little; turn on your parking lights but turn off all the accessories

question

In order to control your emotions when driving, you should not...

answer

Expect everybody to know the rules

question

Driver fatigue can be cause do by...

answer

Boredom; overwork; exposure to too much sun

question

The reason that you should turn your engine off if you have to pull over in a rest area for sleep is to...

answer

Prevent carbon monoxide poisoning

question

Drivers who choose to drink should...

answer

ask a nondrinking friend to drive, call a cab or take a bus

question

A false statement about drinking is that...

answer

One or two drinks will affect a persons vision very minimally

question

Regarding alcohol and driving, it is false that...

answer

One or two drinks will not affect one's night vision

question

Alcohol content of a 5 ounce glass of wine, a 12 ounce bottle of beer, or 1 1/2 ounces of whiskey is...

answer

About the same

question

Alcohol is classified as...

answer

A depressant

question

The way to sober up a person who has had too much to drink is too...

answer

Give the alcohol time to wear off

question

A blue sign with white lettering tells you about...

answer

Roadside services

question

If you come to a stop sign and there's no white line on the road, stop at...

answer

Even with a stop sign or just before it

question

A brown sign with white lettering can tell you about...

answer

State parks

question

Traffic that is traveling in the same direction is separated by...

answer

Broken white lines

question

At an intersection with the traffic signal in a police officer directing traffic, you should obey...

answer

The officer

question

The state has the power to...

answer

Issue you a drivers license and suspend your drivers license

question

When driving you must yield too...

answer

Any emergency vehicles with its sirens and emergency lights flashing

question

You should drive slower than the posted speed limit...

answer

In congested traffic, in bad weather and conditions one visibility is poor

question

It is legal to exceed the speed limit...

answer

On no Occasion

question

If you are involved in a collision and nobody appears to be hurt, you should...

answer

Stop immediately and pull your vehicle off the roadway

question

A certificate of title proves...

answer

Who owns the car

question

Maximum and minimum speed limits tell you...

answer

The speed that cannot be exceeded and the minimum speed that you must go

question

The function of a shoulder lap safety belt is...

answer

To reduced by 50% the risk of being killed in a collision; to help you stay in control of the car if you were to swerve or break hard by keeping you close to the steering wheel; to lessen the chance that you will be thrown through the windshield

question

When backing your vehicle...

answer

You look over your shoulder to see where you are going

question

To warn other drivers of a collision you can...

answer

Turn on your four-way flashers; set flares or reflective triangles in front of and behind the closing scene; wave a flashlight or a light colored cloth at oncoming traffic

question

A padded heat restaurant is intended...

answer

To help prevent neck injury when the vehicle is hit from behind

question

If your vehicle has a breakdown and you need to one other drivers that you are parked on the side of the road you should...

answer

Turn on the emergency flashers

question

In accelerating the following general rule applies...

answer

Exceller it gradually and save fuel

question

The amount of foot pressure required to stop a vehicle depends on...

answer

The size and weight of the vehicle; the road surface; the type of brakes on the vehicle

question

After coming to a red light while driving a vehicle with an automatic transmission you...

answer

Leave the vehicle in drive

question

You know that it is illegal to pass another vehicle when...

answer

A warning sign says so; a roadway marking Says so

question

If you are driving on a mountain road behind a truck you need to...

answer

Increase your following distance

question

The first thing to do before changing lanes is too...

answer

Check your mirrors

question

The kind of turned about that you make when there are no driveways, traffic is very light, and the road is narrow and has no outlet is...

answer

The three point turn

question

You should signal for a turn at least...

answer

100 feet in advance of the turn

question

A Driver turning left...

answer

Must yield to cross traffic and to vehicles approaching from the opposite direction

question

When parallel parking you...

answer

Need a space at least 5ft longer than your vehicle

question

To help improve visibility you can...

answer

Clean the outside and inside of all windows; make sure that all of your lights are clean and working; keep sunglasses, A scraper and a flashlight handy

question

Managing space when you drive means managing the distance between your car in the vehicle...

answer

Ahead of you; behind you; to the sides of you

question

When an oncoming vehicles how they try to break you should...

answer

Look at the right edge of traffic lane beyond the the oncoming vehicle

question

Pedestrians jaywalk when they...

answer

Cross the street without regard for traffic rules and signals

question

When waiting at a red signal at an intersection...

answer

Do not start driving until the light turns green and you have looked for pedestrians

question

After passing a truck, you should not pull in closely in front of it because...

answer

You need to have plenty of room between the truck in case you have to hit the brakes

question

At a railroad crossing stop...

answer

No closer than 15 feet from the crossing

STUDY

Color Dots Per Inch Good Working Order Laser Printer Pixels Per Inch

UNIT 11 PART TWO – INKJET PRINTERS 19 terms

Tiffany Hanchett

19 terms

Preview

UNIT 11 PART TWO – INKJET PRINTERS

question

Inkjet

answer

type of printer works by ejecting ink through tiny tubes

question

Bubble-jet

answer

A type of sprayed-ink printer. It uses an electric signal that energizes a heating element, causing ink to vaporize and be pushed out of the pinhole and onto the paper

question

Nozzle

answer

component of an inkjet printer sprays ink from the ink reservoir on a paper

question

Print cartridge

answer

a component of an inkjet printer that contains the ink that is deposited onto paper during printing

question

Maintenance station

answer

Provides a zero position for the an ink- or bubble-jet print head and keeps the print nozzles clear between print jobs

question

Head carriage

answer

comparing side to side

question

Stepper motor

answer

The part of a scanner that makes the sensor move and stop

question

Stabilizer bar

answer

A small metal bar on a printer that holds the printer carriage as it crosses the page

question

Pickup roller

answer

A part in a printer that pushes forward a sheet of paper from the paper tray.

question

Separator pad

answer

This works with the pickup roller to ensure that only one piece of paper is picked up at a time.

question

Paper tray

answer

The tray that holds paper until it is fed into a printer.

question

Paper feed sensor

answer

The sensors on the paper feed mechanism that detect when the printer has paper or is out of paper.

question

Calibration

answer

Process of matching the print output of a printer to the visual output of a monitor.

question

Printer driver

answer

A software component that allows an application to interface with the hardware of a printer.

question

Print spooler

answer

A service that formats print jobs in the language that the printer needs.

question

Printer buffer

answer

temporary memory in the printer

question

Cleaning cycle

answer

A set of steps the bubble-jet printer goes through in order to purge the print heads of any dried ink.

question

CMYK

answer

Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, Black

question

Duplexing

answer

printing on both sides of the paper

STUDY

Good Working Order Radiation Radiology

Radiation Protection 82 terms

August Dunbar

82 terms

Preview

Radiation Protection

question

What personnel monitoring device is capable of providing and immediate reading?

answer

Pocket Dosimeter

question

The Geiger counter is capable of detecting which of the following types of radiation? 1. X-rays 2. Gamma rays 3. Beta particles

answer

X-rays, Gamma rays, and Beta particles

question

Which of the following would be considered natural background radiation? 1. x rays 2. cosmic rays 3. alpha rays

answer

Cosmic rays and Alpha particles

question

Which of the following is a radiation survey instrument? 1. gamma camera 2. cutie pie 3. pocket dosimeter 4. Thermoluminescent dosimeter

answer

Cutie Pie

question

Which of the following is the unit of exposure dose of gamma or x-rays? 1. Rad 2. rem 3. RBE 4. Roentgen

answer

Roentgen

question

Which of the following timers is used to accurately and automatically reproduce radiographic exposures? 1. Mechanical timer 2. impulse timer 3. electronic timer 4. phototimer

answer

Phototimer

question

Which of the following radiation monitoring devices is considered to be the most accurate? 1. film badge 2. ring badge 3. optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter 4. thermoluminescent dosimeter

answer

Optically Stimulated Luminescence Dosimeter (OSL)

question

What describes an Alpha Particle?

answer

2 Protons, 2 Neutrons

question

A piece of paper will provide adequate protection from what types of radiation?

answer

Alpha

question

Which of the following types of radiation is most penetrating? 1. Alpha 2. beta 3. gamma 4. all are equally penetrating

answer

Gamma

question

The probability of photoelectric absorption occurring increases with an increase in which of the following? 1. kVp 2. atomic number of material 3. distance from material

answer

Atomic number of material

question

Which of the following is a major advantage of a film badge as a radiation monitoring device? 1. radiation types cannot be determined 2. immediate readings are not available 3. must be changed monthly

answer

Immediate readings are not available

question

What refers to the primary beam after it has passed through the beam restricting device?

answer

Useful beam

question

According to NCRP report #160, how much background radiation do individuals receive annually in the U.S?

answer

3 mSv

question

How often should personnel radiation monitoring devices be changed?

answer

Monthly

question

Which of the following affects the rate of decay of a radioactive material? 1. pressure 2. temperature 3. elevation 4. nothing can affect the rate of decay

answer

Nothing can affect the rate of decay

question

What describes Beta particles?

answer

High speed electron

question

The roentgen unit only applies to which of the following types of radiation? 1. alpha 2. beta 3. x & gamma rays 4. background

answer

X & Gamma rays

question

Which of the following x-ray interactions occurs most often with x-ray energies over 100 KeV? 1. coherent (classical) scatter 2. Compton effect 3. photoelectric absorbtion 1. pair production

answer

Compton effect

question

The density of a film bade is compared to which of these to determine the exposure to the worker? 1. density standard 2. national standard 3. control film badge

answer

Density standard

question

What measurements is equal to 1 joule per kilogram?

answer

Gray

question

The optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter uses which of the following to detect radiation? 1. aluminum oxide 2. silver bromide 3. calcium tungstate

answer

Aluminum oxide

question

Which of the following exposure indicator numbers indicates that the image receptor and patient were overexposed? 1. 2.5 2. 200 3. 400 4. 2000

answer

2.5

question

When should gonadal shielding be used on a patient?

answer

if the patient is of reproductive age or younger, if the shield will not interfere with the exam, and if the gonads lie in or near the primary beam

question

Which type of gonadal shielding could be used for a patient having an exam requiring a sterile field?

answer

Shadow shield

question

Which of the following will reduce exposure to the patient as well as improve image contrast? 1. Beam restriction 2. increase kVp 3. increase grid ratio

answer

Beam Restriction

question

A .5mm lead gonadal shield will reduce female gonadal exposure by approximately what percentage?

answer

75%

question

The dose rate at the table top during fluoroscopy cannot exceed ___R per minute?

answer

question

Which of the following types of beam restricting devices is considered the best at reducing patient exposure? 1. cone 2. diaphragm 3. collimator 4. extension cylinder

answer

Extension cylinder

question

To prevent leakage radiation from exposing the patient, an x-ray tube must have how much protective lead?

answer

1.5mm

question

How can a fast film-screen combination reduce patient exposure?

answer

Allows for a reduction in mAs

question

What is the equivalent dose limit for an embryo-fetus?

answer

.5 mSv/month

question

What percentage of the total amount of radiation to the general public is due to medical imaging?

answer

50%

question

Which of the following factors will affect the quantity as well as the quality of the x-ray beam? 1. kVp 2. half value layer 3. SID

answer

kVp, HVL, SID

question

The quality of an x-ray beam can be measured by which of the following methods? 1. Rate meter 2. sensitometry 3. Half value layer

answer

Half-value layer

question

What is the equivalent dose limits for the hands of a technologist?

answer

500 mSv (50 rem)/ Year

question

What is the effective dose limit for the whole body of a radiation worker?

answer

50mSv (5 rem)/ Year

question

Personnel monitoring is required when there is any likelihood that an individual will receive more than ____ the effective dose limit.

answer

1/10th

question

What must the lead equivalency be for a lead apron?

answer

.50 mm Pb

question

What is the effective dose limit a radiography student may receive in one year if he/she is under 18 years old?

answer

1 mSv (.1 rem)

question

To reduce the amount of scatter radiation, which of the following should be done by the radiographer? 1. increase kVp and reduce mAs 2. utilize precise collimation 3. Increase to OID

answer

Utilize precise collimation

question

What is the equivalent does limit to the fetus of a pregnant radiologic technologist?

answer

.5 mSv/month

question

How thick must the lead be in a primary barrier of a radiographic room?

answer

1/16th

question

The lead equivalency for a pair of protective gloves must be at least how much?

answer

.25 mm

question

Primary radiation barriers in walls must be how high?

answer

7 feet

question

Which of the following describes a primary protective barrier? 1. a lead apron 2. a barrier to absorb scatter radiation 3. a barrier to absorb primary radiation

answer

A barrier to absorb primary radiation

question

Mobile protective barriers should NOT be used when making exposures over what kilovoltage?

answer

90 kVp

question

How many times should radiation scatter before reaching behind the control booth or a mobile protective barrier?

answer

two times

question

What percentage of the primary exposure to the patient will reach a radiographer standing 1 meter away?

answer

.1%

question

If an exposure of 16 m R is recorded at 1 meter, what would the exposure rate be at 4 meters?

answer

1 mR

question

Which of the following would never be considered as primary barrier in normal diagnostic range? 1. a wall 2. the floor 3. a ceiling 4. a mobile shield

answer

The ceiling

question

Which of the following are considered extremely sensitive to radiation? 1. gonads 2. lens of the eye 3. blood forming organs

answer

Gonads & Blood forming organs

question

Which of the following is the most common result of cell irradiation? 1. cell death 2. sterilization 3. mutation 4. uncontrolled growth

answer

Sterilization

question

Which of the following are the two bases that are the building blocks of both types of nucleic acids? 1. purines and pyrimidines 2. adenine and thymine 3. adenine and guanine

answer

Purines and Pyrimidines

question

Which of the following pyrimidines will always pair with the purine-adenine? 1. cytosine 2. thymine 3. uracil 4. quanine

answer

Thymine

question

Ionization can result from which of the following interactions of radiation with tissue? 1. photoelectric absorption 2. Compton effect 3. coherent (classical) scatter

answer

Photoelectric absorption and Compton effect

question

Which of the following is considered the unit of heredity? 1. the cell 2. the gene 3. the chromosome 4. the DNA molecule

answer

The Gene

question

Where will most of a cell's genetic information be found?

answer

Nucleus

question

Of the following blood cell producing organs, which are considered radiosensitive? 1. spleen 2. bone marrow 3. lymphatic nodes

answer

Spleen, Bone Marrow, Lymphatic Nodes

question

The probability of radiation interacting with matter depends on which of the following? 1. the charge of the radiation 2. the size of the radiation 3. the energy of the radiation

answer

The charge of the radiation, the size of the radiation, and the energy of the radiation

question

Which of the following is NOT a function of a DNA molecule? 1.it carries the genetic codes 2. it duplicates exact copies of itself 3. it synthesizes proteins 3. it divides during mitosis

answer

It synthesizes proteins

question

What does genetically significant dose mean?

answer

Estimated dose received by the population

question

What is the minimum level of radiation exposure below which no genetic or somatic damage occurs?

answer

No minimum level is known

question

If a human is exposed to radiation levels in the 100R to 200R range, which of the following is expected? 1. no clinical effects 2. slight reduction in lymphocytes 3. complete recovery in 90 days 4. death within 30 days

answer

Complete recovery in 90 days

question

Why is radiation exposure to the gonads such a critical concern?

answer

Mutations in offspring may result

question

According to NCRP report #160, what percentage of the total amount of radiation to the general population comes from background radiation?

answer

50%

question

Which of the following publications recommends limits of exposure to ionizing radiation? 1. NCRP report # 100 2. NCRP report #102 3. NCRP report #105 4. NCRP report #116

answer

NCRP Report # 116

question

Standards state the exposure in air from fluoroscopic equipment shall NOT exceed how many Coulomb/kg/minute?

answer

2.58 X 10-3 Coulomb/kg (10 R)

question

Which of the following are NOT required on newly manufactured radiographic equipment? 1. AEC 2.computerized technique selections 3. automatic collimators

answer

Automatic exposure control (AEC), Computerized technique selections, and Automatic Collimators.

question

Which of the following devices alerts the radiologist that 5 minutes of fluoroscopy has elapsed? 1. Phototimer 2. cumulative timer 3. synchronous timer 4. mechanical timer

answer

Cumulative timer

question

Personnel monitoring shall be performed if there is a possibility of exceeding how many milisievert (rem) per year?

answer

5.0 mSv (.50 rem)

question

Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube cannot exceed which of the following at a distance of one meter? 1. 6.45 X 10-6 coulomb/kg/hr (25mR/hr) 2. 1.29 X 10-5 coulomb/kg/hr (50 mR/hr) 3. 1.94 X 10-5 coulomb/kg/hr (75mR/hr) 4. 2.58 X 10-5 coulomb/kg/hr (100 mR/hr)

answer

2.58 X 10-5 Coulomb/kg/hr (100 mR/hr)

question

Which of the following publications contains the regulations for using x rays up to 50 MeV? 1. NCRP report #99 2. NCRP report #100 3. NCRP report #102 4. NCRP report #105

answer

NCRP report #102

question

Which of the following government agencies is responsible for governing the use of radiation? 1. health education and welfare 2. food and drug administration 3. nuclear regulatory commission 4. environmental protection agency

answer

Food and Drug Administration

question

The source-to-skin distance for stationary fluoroscopy must NOT be less than how many inches?

answer

15 inches

question

The source-to-skin distance for mobile fluoroscopy must NOT be less than how many inches?

answer

12 inches

question

What is the effective dose limit a radiation worker may receive to his/her whole body in one year?

answer

50 mSv (50. Rem)

question

A \"Radiation Area\" warning sign must be visible in areas where the exposure rate exceeds which of these? 1. .05 mSv/hr (5 mrem/hr) 2. .10 mSv/hr (10 mrem/hr) 3. .15 mSv/hr (15 mrem/hr)

answer

.05 mSv/hr (5 mrem/hr)

question

Which of the following is a responsibility of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission? 1. set x-ray manufacturing standards 2. police manufacturing standards 3. police the field of nuclear medicine

answer

set x ray manufacturing standards, police manufacturing standards, police the field of nuclear medicine

question

Which of the following topics is covered in NCRP #102? 1. equipment design 2. personnel monitoring 3. radiation survey procedures

answer

Equipment design and use, personnel monitoring and Radiation survey procedures.

question

Mobile fluoroscopic equipment must have which of the following? 1. VCR capabilities 2. image intensification 3. T.V monitoring 4. Solid state circuitry

answer

Image intensification

question

A recommendation that is necessary to meet accepted standards is indicated by the use of which term?

answer

Shall

STUDY

Dots Per Inch Good Working Order Material Safety Data Sheet

CINS 220 – Chapter 27 39 terms

Deloris Connelly

39 terms

Preview

CINS 220 – Chapter 27

question

What kind of printer creates an image on paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper's surface? A. Laser B. Dot-matrix C. Thermal D. Impact

answer

D. Impact

question

What kind of printer is used with multipart forms such as those with point of sale machines? A. Dot-matrix B. Daisy-wheel C. Inkjet D. Color

answer

A. Dot-matrix

question

What kind of printer uses a grid of tiny pins, also known as printwires, to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper? A. Dot-matrix B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal

answer

A. Dot-matrix

question

What are 9-pin dot-matrix printers generically called? A. Economy quality B. Near-letter quality C. Draft quality D. Letter quality

answer

C. Draft quality

question

What type of printer works by ejecting ink through tiny tubes? A. Laser B. Inkjet C. Dot-matrix D. Impact

answer

B. Inkjet

question

What element is heated by tiny resistors or electroconductive plates at the end of each tube in an inkjet printer? A. Ink B. Toner C. Toner powder D. Nozzle

answer

A. Ink

question

The term sublimation means to cause something to change from a solid into a _______________ form and then back into a solid. A. vapor B. viscous C. liquid D. crystal

answer

A. vapor

question

The dye-sublimation printing technique is an example of what method of color printing? A. PPM B. RGB C. CMYK D. LEDS

answer

C. CMYK

question

How are dots put onto the surface of paper from a direct thermal printer? A. Through spraying B. By etching C. Through embedding D. By burning

answer

D. By burning

question

When a thermal printhead passes over the film ribbon, what melts onto the paper? A. Wax B. Toner C. Dye D. Ink

answer

A. Wax

question

What kind of printer relies on a photoconductive process? A. Dot-matrix B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal

answer

C. Laser

question

Laser printers usually use a laser as the light source because of their _______________. A. intensity B. brightness C. precision D. cost-effectiveness

answer

C. precision

question

Laser printers are particularly effective for printing _______________. A. spot color B. full-color images C. complex images D. 256-bit color

answer

B. full-color images

question

During the laser printer process, after the erase lamp exposes the entire surface of the photosensitive drum to light, what happens to the photosensitive coating? A. It becomes bright. B. It becomes electrically charged. C. It becomes conductive. D. It becomes nonconductive.

answer

C. It becomes conductive.

question

What does the primary corona wire charge? A. The fuser assembly B. The paper C. The toner D. The drum

answer

D. The drum

question

The toner in a laser printer is a fine powder. This powder is made up of plastic particles bonded to _______________ particles. A. nickel B. polyester C. aluminum D. pigment

answer

C. aluminum

question

In laser printers, what component applies a positive charge to the paper, drawing the negatively charged toner particles to the paper? A. Transfer corona B. Turning gears C. Laser D. Toner

answer

A. Transfer corona

question

What charges the paper in a laser printer? A. Primary corona B. Transfer corona C. Fuser assembly D. Laser

answer

B. Transfer corona

question

The fuser assembly in a laser printer is almost always separate from the _______________. A. laser head B. gearbox C. drum D. toner cartridge

answer

D. toner cartridge

question

In a laser printer, the _______________ uses friction to isolate a single sheet any others that were picked up. A. duplexing assembly B. separation pad C. transfer roller D. gearbox

answer

...

question

In a laser printer, the pressure roller and heated roller are used to _______________. A. melt the toner to the paper B. fuse the toner to the paper C. burn the toner to the paper D. apply the toner to the paper

answer

B. fuse the toner to the paper

question

What needs to be vacuumed or replaced periodically in a laser printer? A. Ozone filter B. Drum C. Toner cartridge D. Powder

answer

A. Ozone filter

question

The Hewlett-Packard system for controlling printers is _______________. A. PCL B. PostScript C. ASCII D. Unicode

answer

...

question

Most printers, scanner, and multifunction devices connect to a computer via a _______________. A. proxy server B. FireWire port C. Ethernet cable D. USB port

answer

D. USB port

question

Which printer transfers data to the printer one character or one line at a time? A. Impact B. Laser C. Dye-sublimation D. Thermal

answer

A. Impact

question

A laser printer creates an image of dots and holds it in memory before printing it. What is this image of dots called? A. Raster image B. Laser image C. Vector image D. High-resolution image

answer

A. Raster image

question

What kind of chip is used by a laser printer to translate the raster image sent to the printer into commands for the laser? A. RAM B. RIP C. ROM D. UART

answer

B. RIP

question

What should be added to a laser printer to resolve a memory overflow problem? A. RET B. RIP C. ROM D. RAM

answer

D. RAM

question

How is laser printer resolution measured? A. Color per inch B. Dots per inch C. Pixels per inch D. Bits per inch

answer

B. Dots per inch

question

In a laser printer, what must be done to the drum to make it receptive to new images? A. It must be sterilized and decontaminated. B. It must be grounded and fully discharged. C. It must be charged with a uniform positive charge. D. It must be charged with a uniform negative charge

answer

D. It must be charged with a uniform negative charge

question

In a laser printer, what component is used to write a positive image on the surface of the drum? A. Toner B. Marker C. Laser D. Head

answer

C. Laser

question

Toner particles are composed mostly of _______________, which allows them to be melted to the page. A. carbon B. power C. plastic D. Teflon

answer

C. plastic

question

At the end of the laser printing process, what is cleaned? A. Toner B. Laser head C. Photosensitive drum D. Power unit

answer

C. Photosensitive drum

question

What causes an unwanted mark (ghosting) to appear on printed pages? A. A damaged laser B. A damaged toner C. A damaged head D. A damaged drum

answer

D. A damaged drum

question

What Control Panel applet is used to manage printers and faxes in Windows 7? A. Devices and Printers B. Hardware C. Printers and Faxes D. Printers and Hardware

answer

D. Printers and Hardware

question

Assuming a printer is in good working order and online, what should you check next if nothing prints? A. Calibration B. Port settings C. Printer emulation D. Print spooler

answer

D. Print spooler

question

You are printing from a dot-matrix printer and notice that the characters look chopped off at the top. What should you try adjusting? A. Toner B. Driver C. Cartridge D. Drum

answer

B. Driver

question

What should you do if your dot-matrix printer output is covered with dots and small smudges? A. Replace the drum. B. Clean the platen. C. Clean the printhead. D. Replace the cartridge.

answer

B. Clean the platen.

question

What kind of printers tend to have problems with ink drying out inside the nozzles when the printer is not used for a period? A. Color B. Laser C. Inkjet D. Dot-matrix

answer

C. Inkjet

STUDY

Computer Programming Dots Per Inch Good Working Order Pixels Per Inch

Chapter 28 Printers test A+ 26 terms

Josephine Mack

26 terms

Preview

Chapter 28 Printers test A+

question

What kind of printer creates an image on paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper's surface?

answer

Impact

question

What are 9-pin dot-matrix printers generically called?

answer

Draft

question

In laser printers, what component applies a positive charge to the paper, drawing the negatively charged toner particles to the paper?

answer

Transfer corona

question

You are printing from a dot-matrix printer and notice the characters look chopped off at the top. What should you try adjusting?

answer

Printhead

question

What is heated by tiny resistors or electroconductive plates at the end of each tube in an inkjet printer?

answer

Ink

question

The term sublimation means to cause something to change from a solid into a(n) ____ form and then back into a solid.

answer

vapor

question

The dye-sublimation printing technique is an example of what method of color printing?

answer

CMYK

question

How are dots put onto the surface of paper from a direct thermal printer?

answer

Burned

question

When a thermal printhead passes over the film ribbon, what melts onto the paper?

answer

Wax

question

What kind of printer relies on a photoconductive process?

answer

Laser

question

What does the primary corona wire charge?

answer

Drum

question

In a laser printer, what are the pressure roller and heated roller used for?

answer

To fuse the toner to the paper

question

At the end of the laser printing process, what is cleaned?

answer

Photosensitive drum

question

What causes dark ghosting on printed pages?

answer

A damaged drum

question

In a laser printer, what must be done to the drum to make it receptive to new images?

answer

Charged

question

In a laser printer, what is used to write a positive image on the surface of the drum?

answer

Laser

question

Toner particles are composed mostly of ____, allowing them to be melted to the page.

answer

plastic

question

What kind of printout usually results from an empty toner cartridge?

answer

Blank

question

What is the fuser assembly in a laser printer almost always separate from?

answer

Toner cartridge

question

What charges the paper in a laser printer?

answer

Primary corona

question

What should be added to a laser printer to resolve a memory overflow problem?

answer

RAM

question

What needs to be vacuumed or replaced periodically in a laser printer?

answer

Ozone filter

question

Which of the following printers transfer data to the printer one character or one line at a time?

answer

Impact

question

What's the standard that defines backward-compatible, high-speed, bidirectional parallel ports?

answer

IEEE 1284

question

A standard parallel cable used for older printers has a DB-25 connector on one end. What type of connector is on the other end?

answer

Centronics

question

Assuming a printer is in good working order and online, what should you check next if nothing prints?

answer

Print spooler

STUDY

Color Good Working Order Laser Printer

A + Chapter 22 Printers 31 terms

William Hopper

31 terms

Preview

A + Chapter 22 Printers

question

This type of printer Physically strikes an inked ribbon against the surface of the paper

answer

Impact printers

question

This type of printer Uses an array of pins known as print wires to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images

answer

Dot-matrix printers

question

This type of printer Works by ejecting ink through tiny tubes

answer

Inkjet printers

question

This type of printer Uses a heated printhead to burn dots into the surface of special heat-sensitive paper

answer

Direct thermal

question

Uses film coated with colored wax that gets melted onto page

answer

Thermal wax transfer

question

This type of printer uses a mechanism called electro-photographic imaging

answer

Laser printers

question

This type of printer uses sublimation Sublimation causes something to change from a solid form into a vapor

answer

Dye-sublimation printers (or thermal dye transfer printers)

question

Printers that need a special paper

answer

Dye-sublimation printers (or thermal dye transfer printers) Thermal Printers: Direct Thermal

question

What is the CMYK method of printing

answer

Uses these colors Cyan, magenta, yellow, black

question

To fix the alignment issue, you need to adjust the ............ registration

answer

color

question

Creates a uniform negativecharge in laser printing

answer

Primary Corona

question

Acts as the writing mechanism of the printer Discharges areas on drum to negative

answer

Laser

question

Exposes the entire surface of the photosensitive drum to light,draining any electrical charge

answer

Erase Lamp

question

Aluminium cylinder coated with particles of photosensitive compounds

answer

Photosensitive Drum

question

Applies a positive charge to the paper Toner jumps

answer

Transfer corona

question

Attaches the toner permanently to the paper using a pressure roller and heated roller

answer

Fuser assembly

question

What is not located insside a Laser printer cartridge

answer

Fuser assembly

question

The high voltage power supply provides power to the ............... corona

answer

Primary

question

What cable do you need for bi-directional printing

answer

IEEE 1284 cable

question

How do you start or stop the print spooler from the command line interface CLI ( the command)

answer

net stop spooler (to stop) net start spooler (to start)

question

What is the print device

answer

It is the device that physically does the printing

question

Enables the printer to insert smaller dots among the characters to smooth out jagged curves

answer

Resolution Enhancement Technology (RET)

question

This chip translates the raster image into commands for the laser printer

answer

raster image processor (RIP)

question

The first number is the horizontal resolution indicates ...

answer

—how fine a focus can be achieved by the laser

question

The second number is the vertical resolution idicates

answer

the smallest increment by which the drum can be turned

question

The default windows port for connecting a printer is ......

answer

LPT1

question

If the printout does not match screen colors you should adjust the printer.....T or F

answer

False adjust the monitor

question

Laser printers should only be used with .............. switch boxes

answer

electronic

question

After doing preventative maintenance on a laser printer you should ............ the page count.

answer

reset

question

First thing... When you arrive at site and you want to see how the printer is malfunctioning

answer

Print a Test Page

question

Last thing... When you have completed working on a customer's printer and you want to ensure that everything works correctly

answer

Print a Test Page

STUDY

Business Conducting Good Working Order Low Beam Headlights Months Rear View Mirror

PA State Auto Inspection 100 terms

James Storer

100 terms

Preview

PA State Auto Inspection

question

Stickers shall be kept where?

answer

Kept under lock and key in a safe place

question

What is done with any unused stickers?

answer

Keep them until the QAO comes around. You get a 75% refund on unused stickers.

question

First offense of faulty inspection and improper inspection?

answer

Category 1 violation. 2 months suspension.

question

When checking registration or VIN what do we look for, and what if there's a problem?

answer

VIN number and license plate must agree with registration card. Allowed to have one number off or two numbers transposed (out of order) if the owner proves forms have been sent to Penn DOT. VIN plate can't be loose, defaced, or missing. If there is a problem owner must get a corrected registration or show that proper forms have been sent to Penn DOT.

question

What do you check glazing for?

answer

Approved safety glass must be in every window and it must be permanently labeled. See Appendix C(f) Non transparent material or glass etchings may not obstructs the drivers view and may not be higher than 3-1/2 inches from the bottom of any side or rear window. Glass may not be shattered, broken or have sharp edges. No defects in the acute area or the critical area or the windshield. Louvers can't obstruct driver's vision. Dual side mirrors are required when using sunscreen or louvers.

question

What area of the windshield can there be no imperfections?

answer

The acute area. (8-1/2 X 5-1/2)

question

List all the ways to check the wipers.

answer

Speed at manufactures specs or at least 45 cycles per minute Blades can't be torn or smear or streak after 5 cycles. Must have all wipers Wipers must reset to rest position. Washer system working on cars/light trucks newer than 1968.

question

What do you check the doors and trunk lid for?

answer

Must be original equipment or same type. Must close securely.

question

List all the ways to check mirrors.

answer

Mirrors can't be cracked, discolored or broken., Mirrors must hold adjustment. Can't be loose. Cars with louvers and sunscreens must have 2 outside mirrors (19-1/2 square inches each). No junk hanging from rear view mirror.

question

What's the rule for fender flares?

answer

May not exceed 3 inches.

question

What do you check floor for?

answer

Must be able to support weight of people and cargo. No holes allowed.

question

What is the bumper height for a car and a truck.

answer

Must be as strong as and no longer than original bumper. Can't be broken or torn. Wood planks on service trucks (wreckers) only. Height- passenger vehicles 16-20 inches above ground MPVs, SUV's and light trucks 16-30 inches above ground.

question

Turn signals should have a frequency of flash between __________ flashes per minute.

answer

60 - 120 flashes per minute.

question

What are the guidelines for back up lights?

answer

Must turn off when not in reverse OR have a dash indicator light or audible warning.

question

What are the guidelines for broken lenses?

answer

Will not pass if white light shows through.

question

List three reasons for rejecting shocks.

answer

Missing shocks Mounts or mounting bolts broken Severe leakage. Slight dampness OK

question

What's the minimum steering wheel size?

answer

13 inches

question

The horn should be heard at least ________feet away.

answer

200 feet

question

What do we look for when checking the brake pedal?

answer

Can't go down more than 80% of total travel. Can't fade when vehicle is stopped. (bleed by in master cylinder) No excessive friction in linkage. Can't be missing the rubber pedal pad.

question

What's the min. brake specs for Bonded?_______Riveted?_________

answer

Bonded 2/32 Riveted 1/32

question

What do we check brake hoses for?

answer

Make sure they aren't disconnected, don't leak, flattened or Restricted, dry rot (cord showing)

question

List the items for interior inspection.

answer

Steering wheel free play Steering gear box Steering column Proper size steering wheel Proper turning Flexible steering coupler Indicator lamps for high beam, turn signals. Horn- must be stock type Brake pedal travel Brake pedal fade Brake pedal linkage Brake pedal pad Seats- DRIVERS seat and back must be firmly attached No springs sticking out of DRIVER'S seat Seat adjustment must work Seat belts in good condition ( if originally equipped) Rear view mirror- no cracks or discoloration Rear view mirror- must hold adjustment. No junk hanging on it.

question

Describe steering \"Lock to Lock\"

answer

Turning the front wheels as far as they go from one side to the other. \"Stop to Stop\"

question

Describe the \"1/4 inch Play Test\"

answer

Used to check tightness of steering linkage and gearbox. Raise front wheels off the ground. Have someone hold on the brakes to eliminate bearing play. Wiggle the front tires. No more than 1/4 play allowed measured at the outside of the tire.

question

What do we check motor mounts for?

answer

Reject if broken.

question

List all items for under hood inspection.

answer

Hood latch in good working order. Must be double latched. Check motor mounts No fuel leaks No loose fuel lines Fuel tanks and lines must be OEM or equal to. No fuels lines touching hot or moving surfaces. No fuel system parts inside the car. Alternate fuel systems (propane) must meet code standards. Throttle must work properly No holes or cracks in firewall No exhaust leaks No master cylinder leaks No brake lines, flattened, disconnected, restricted or leaking. Booster for power brakes must be working properly Battery must be securely fastened.

question

What are the minimum requirements for tire tread?

answer

No less then 2/32 on any two adjacent treads (side by side) No less than 4/32 on vehicles with 10,000 GW No wear down to the tread wear indicators on two adjacent treads No exposed cord No repairs with blow out patches or boots. No regrooving below original tread depth. No retreads on the front of a taxi.

question

29. Describe how to unload and check ball joints?

answer

conventional & modified McPherson strut Jack up tire under the A frame close as possible to the ball joint. McPherson Jack up under the frame or body. Lift wheel up and down with pry bar. check for movement in the ball joints. Use dial indicator for exact amount of play.

question

Studded snow tires are legal between what two dates?

answer

November 1st to April 15th

question

Describe the procedure for checking exhaust.

answer

Must have muffler with no external repairs. No loose or leaking joints or seams No holes or cracks in systems No cutouts No part of system in passenger compartment Must have proper clamps and hangers Original heats shields must be in place. must discharge to outside edge of vehicle. Loud exhaust must meet requirements of Chapter 157 Headers and side pipes OK. Fire equipment exempt from these regulations.

question

What is the most an unmarked drum can be machined?

answer

.090\" over original diameter.

question

What is the deepest a groove can be in a drum or rotor?

answer

.015\"

question

. Can a ply be broken on a leaf spring?

answer

Yes. MAIN leaf may not be broken.

question

What do we check inside the trunk for?

answer

No holes in floor bed or inner panels Floor strong enough to hold cargo.

question

How do we check the emergency brake?

answer

Brakes must set before pedal travels it's limit. Brakes must exhibit resistance when you try to move the car.

question

Acute area

answer

The part of the windshield 8-1/2 inches wide by 5-1/2 inches high directly in front of the driver's line of vision.

question

Critical area

answer

The part of the windshield that the wipers sweep.

question

Fleet inspection station

answer

A station certificate to inspect all types of vehicles leased or owned by the person that has the station certificate. Must have at least 15 vehicles.

question

GVWR

answer

The loaded weight of a single vehicle as specified on the Federal weight certification label attached to the vehicle. ( DIFFERENT THAN (GW) GROSS WEIGHT )

question

Light truck

answer

Registered gross weight of 11,000 lbs or less.

question

Medium truck .

answer

Registered gross weight from 11,001 to 17,000 lbs inclusive

question

Heavy truck

answer

Registered gross weight in excess of 17,000 lbs.

question

Safety insert tab

answer

The numbers applied to the inspection sticker (safety certificate of inspection) that show when the sticker expires.

question

Passenger vehicle

answer

Motor vehicle (except a motor cycle) designed to carry 15 passengers or less. Primarily used for transporting people. A bus is a vehicle designed to carry 16 or more passengers (including the driver)

question

Certificate of inspection

answer

Inspection sticker

question

MV 431

answer

Use MV-480 for motorcycles, mopeds, and trailers. Inspection report sheet for all motor vehicles EXCEPT motor cycles and motor driven cycles. (mopeds 5 H.P. or less)

question

Annually

answer

Once a year (12 months)

question

Semi annually

answer

Twice a year (6 months)

question

What must you or the station owner do when you start at a new place? of employment?

answer

Notification must be given to the quality assurance officer and the Vehicle Control Division. Your name must be placed on Form TS-443 (listing of mechanics)

question

Stipulation for fog lamps.

answer

May be used only with low beam headlights.

question

Stipulation for driving lamps

answer

May be used only with high beam headlights.

question

Foreign vehicle

answer

Any vehicle not registered in Pennsylvania.

question

How can we tell if a vehicle is from an emission inspection area?

answer

Look for the emissions insert on the inspection sticker or a emissions inspection sticker. Look for the IM on the registration card.

question

If a vehicle is from an emission area, what is our responsibility when inspecting the vehicle?

answer

When placing the inspection sticker on the vehicle we must use an emissions insert.

question

. Name the 3 types of vehicles we check \"scrub\" line on.

answer

Street Rods Specially Constructed Vehicles Reconstructed Vehicles.

question

List the types of hammers required for the inspection station.

answer

Ball-peen Plastic or Brass Rubber

question

An inspection station must be open for a minimum of ______ hours.

answer

40 hours per day unless you get a waiver from the Bureau.

question

If an inspection station is open on Saturday for fuel and service only must an inspection mechanic be on duty?

answer

NO- only during normal business hours (7:00 - 5:00 Mon-Fri)

question

Is the inspection fee for a vehicle that fails the same as for a vehicle that passes?

answer

Yes- Pass or Fail: Same price.

question

Is the price of the sticker included in the fee for inspection?

answer

NO- the price of the sticker is separate. Must have a sign listing them separately.

question

How many stations can a technician be registered at?

answer

As many as he/she wants to as long as they notify the inspection supervisor and the Vehicle Control Division of the Names and station numbers of the places they are working.

question

What is the minimum age of the inspection mechanic?

answer

question

What two documents must a mechanic carry when performing an inspection?

answer

Driver's License and Mechanic Card

question

Must the inspection technician be re certified and if so how often?

answer

Yes - Every 3 years.

question

How many days does a mechanic have to take his recertification test? after being notified it's due to expire?

answer

180 days.

question

What is the meaning of 20-20-12?

answer

A passenger vehicle going 20 MPH must stop within 20 feet without swerving outside of a 12 foot wide lane.

question

To inspect a motorcycle does the inspection mechanic need a motor cycle license?

answer

YES

question

. What 5 items must be marked on the back of the certificates of inspection?

answer

(stickers) Expiration date, VIN, Date of inspection, Brakes inspected, Signature

question

Is a new Certificate of Appointment needed if you move your business to a different building?

answer

YES - and you may not do any inspections until then.

question

What must be done if certificates of inspection are stolen?

answer

You must report it at once to the quality assurance officer.

question

If you replace any parts on a customer's vehicle what must you do with the old parts.

answer

Retain them until the vehicle is returned to the customer in case they want to see the old parts.

question

What could happen if you perform repairs on a vehicle without the owner's authorization?

answer

4 months suspension 1st violation, 6 months-2ed, 1 year- 3rd

question

If Bonded brakes measure 3/32 what is the inspection mechanic required to do?

answer

Pass them BUT inform the owner in writing on the work order that they may become dangerous.

question

Are utility trailers and recreational trailers recorded on the same report sheets?

answer

NO- use separate MV-480 forms

question

. May a motorcycle inspection certificate be placed on the left front fork?

answer

YES or left front fender or plate mounted on left side.

question

Should inspection stickers for trailers be placed on the left-front-side OR the left-front-nose of the trailer?

answer

Left-front- SIDE.

question

. How long is the first violation suspension for putting a sticker on a car without inspecting it?

answer

1 year

question

What should you do when removing inspection stickers from vehicles? with plastic inner liners?

answer

Use a stiff plastic scraper instead of a metal one or razor blade.

question

How long do we keep a copy of the MV-431 inspection records?

answer

2 years

question

Must work orders be retained for two years?

answer

Only if someone other than the mechanic fills out the inspection record. The mechanic must sign the work order.

question

. If a vehicle passes inspection can we affix the sticker outside of the inspection area?

answer

YES. Within 100 feet of the station as long as it's on station property and the same side of the street.

question

What must be 24\" high and 21\" wide?

answer

The inspection station sign outside the garage.

question

. How often do we inspect the following? 1. Antique vehicles 2. Trailers under 3,000 lbs. registered GVW 3. Fire trucks 4. Ambulances 5. Trailers over 10,000 lbs. registered GVW 6. School busses

answer

A. Antique vehicles -Not required B. Trailers under 3,000 lbs. registered GVW -Not required C. Fire trucks -Annually D. Ambulances -Annually E. Trailers over 10,000 lbs. registered GVW -Semi-annually F. School busses -Semi-annually

question

How often should a 12 passenger school van be inspected?

answer

Semi Annually for any school vehicle that carries students including cars.

question

If you were to purchase a new vehicle with an expired inspection sticker, how many days do you have to get it inspected?

answer

question

Can you inspect a vehicle registered in another state?

answer

Yes but not required. Sticker optional

question

What certificates must be displayed at the inspection station?

answer

Certificate of appointment A fee chart for inspections Form TS-443 listing the inspections mechanics. Your outside inspection station sign.

question

What are the minimum sizes of inspection areas for the following?

answer

A. Mechanical aimers - 12' wide by 22' long B. Approved headlamp aiming screen - 12' wide by 43' long

question

Can we use old discontinued head light aimers?

answer

Yes, as longs as they are in good working order and able to test all types of headlights.

question

. What is the maximum floor slope in the inspection area?

answer

1 percent.

question

How many vehicles can you inspect in one hour?

answer

2 ( motorcycles -3)

question

Is a hoist of lift permitted in the inspection area?

answer

Yes, as long as it doesn't interfere with the inspection.

question

What is the least amount of time and the most amount of time an inspection is good for?

answer

6 months to 15 months.

question

What determines when a vehicle is due for inspection?

answer

The month the vehicles registration renews.

question

Describe the procedure when a customer comes in to get a replacement sticker because the windshield was just replaced.

answer

Up to 5 days to come in for a new sticker. Customer must hand in the section of glass with old sticker on it. Old sticker must be saved for the inspection station supervisor. You don't have to re-inspect the vehicle. You may charge no more than $2.00 for the new sticker Record information from old sticker onto the MV-431. Mark \"replacement\" on the MV-431 & on the back of the new sticker. Refuse to issue a new sticker if the car is obviously unsafe.

question

How much is the wheel base allowed to differ from one side of the vehicle to the other?

answer

No more than 1 inch.

question

Is riveted brake lining measured from the shoe or the rivet head?

answer

From the rivet head.

question

Name two vehicles that do not have to have odometers.

answer

Vehicles at least 25 years old. Vehicles over 17,000 RGW.

question

Explain the difference between GVWR and RGW

answer

GVWR- Gross Vehicle Weight Rating- the limit set by the manufacturer and labeled on the vehicle. RGW- Registered Gross Weight - How much the vehicle is licensed to carry on the registration card.

question

May a vehicle pass inspection if it has no hazard warning lamps?

answer

Only if they were not included as original equipment.

STUDY

Care And Concern Good Working Order Health Psychology

stress management 22 terms

Steven Colyer

22 terms

Preview

stress management

question

stress

answer

The physiological response that is activated when the mind perceives a threat, a demand made upon the adaptive capacities of the mind and body.

question

yerkes-dodson principle

answer

A tenet holding that a certain amount of stress is healthy, useful, and even beneficial, but when stress exceeds one's ability to cope, the overload contributes to diminished performance, inefficiency, and even health problems.

question

eustress

answer

A positive stress that energizes a person and helps a person reach a goal

question

distress

answer

The negative effects of stress that drain us of energy and surpass our capacity to cope.

question

acute stress

answer

stress that results from short-term stressors

question

holistic health

answer

a view of health that encompasses physical, intellectual, emotional and social dimensions

question

chronic stress

answer

Continuing stress provoked by unrelenting demands and pressures that go on for an extended time.

question

student stress scale

answer

Assessment tool, which measures the amount of change a person was required to adapt to in the previous year, is an adaptation for college students of the Life Events Scale developed by Holmes and Rahe.

question

stress vulnerability questionnaire

answer

Self-assessment that looks at the ways physical, emotional, social, spiritual, and social factors affect one's vulnerability to stress.

question

cognitive restructuring

answer

changing the meaning or interpretation of stressors

question

self-limiting beliefs

answer

Faulty notion that one does not have the ability to carry out specific tasks

question

social support

answer

The individual's knowledge or belief that he or she is cared for and loved, belongs to a network of communication, and has a mutual obligation with others in the network.

question

effortless effort

answer

A tensionless attempt to allow sensations to happen based on an attitude of passive alertness

question

mantra

answer

A repeated word, a sound, or a phrase used as a point of focus during meditation

question

breath counting meditation

answer

A type of meditation that uses a patterned breathing as the primary point of focus.

question

imagery

answer

A flow of thoughts that includes sensory qualities from one or more of the senses

question

passive alertness

answer

A state of mind, during relaxation technique practice, that is relaxed, nonstriving, and unconcerned with the end product

question

lifebalance

answer

A healthy time-management method that promotes purposeful planning combined with going with the flow.

question

detached observation

answer

Observing without judgment or expectations.

question

urgent

answer

Describes things that demand our immediate attention

question

time management

answer

The art or manner of controlling the sequence of events in life.

question

mindfulness self-efficacy

answer

the level of confidence a person must have to maintain nonjudgemental awareness

STUDY

Electrical Engineering Good Working Order Pounds Per Square Inch

S13 standpipe test 85 terms

William Hopper

85 terms

Preview

S13 standpipe test

question

Automatic Standpipe System

answer

A standpipe system that is attached to a water supply capable of supplying the system demand at all times and that requires no action other than opening a hose valve to provide water at hose connections.

question

Auxiliary water supply

answer

supplementary source of water for a standpipe and/or sprinkler system.

question

Control Valve

answer

A valve controlling flow to water-based fire protection systems. Control valves do not include hose valves, inspector's test valves, drain valves, trim valves for dry pipe, pre-action and deluge valves, check valves, or relief valves.

question

Branch line

answer

A pipe system, generally in a horizontal plane, connecting not more than one hose connection with a standpipe.

question

Deficiency

answer

A condition in which the application of the component is not within its designed limits or specifications.

question

Fire Hose Outlet and Release Rack

answer

A water supply control valve intended to be operated by actuation of an automatic detection system that is installed in the same area as the discharge devices. Each deluge valve is intended to be capable of automatic and manual operation. Deluge systems are suitable for hazardous occupancies. This includes buildings in which flammable liquids or other hazardous materials are handled or stored.

question

Discharge Device

answer

A device designed to discharge water or foam-water solution in a predetermined, fixed, or adjustable pattern. Examples include, but are not limited to, sprinklers, spray nozzles, and hose nozzles.

question

Dry Standpipe

answer

A standpipe system designed to have piping contain water only when the system is being utilized (No automatic water supply.)

question

Dunnage

answer

Rooftop dunnage involves designing a raised series of beams (usually steel) bearing on posts or bearing walls to support mechanical equipment (usually on a roof top).

question

Fire Department Connection

answer

A connection , normally on the exterior of the building, through which the fire department can pump supplemental water into the sprinkler system, standpipe, or other system furnishing water for fire extinguishment to supplement existing water supplies. (Formerly know as Siamese connection.)

question

Fire Hose

answer

A flexible conduit constructed with one or more reinforcements (Jackets), with or without a coating or covering but with an approved nonpermeable lining, or with an inner reinforcement between a protective cover and an approved nonpermeable lining.

question

Fire Hydrant

answer

A valve connection on a water supply system having one or more outlets and that is used to supply hose and fire department pumps with water.

question

Fire Pump

answer

A pump that is a provider of liquid flow and pressure dedicated to fire protection. A fire pump is a part of a fire standpipe system's water supply and can be powered by electric, diesel or steam. The pump intake is either connected to the public underground water supply piping or a static water source (e.g., tank, reservoir, lake). The pump provides water flow at higher pressure and volume to the standpipe system risers and hose standpipes.

question

Fold

answer

A transverse bend (fold) occurring where the hose is lengthwise double over on itself, as on a pin rack.

question

Gallons per minute (GPM)

answer

typically used to measure fluid flow rate (such as water) or pump capacity. Measurement of water flow rate for a pump or a fire standpipe or sprinkler system.

question

Hose Connection

answer

a combination of equipment provided for connection of a hose to the standpipe system that includes a hose valve with a threaded outlet.

question

Attack Hose

answer

Hose designed to be used by trained fire fighters and fire brigade members to combat fires beyond the incipient stage.

question

Booster Hose

answer

A non-collapsible hose used under positive pressure having an elastomeric or thermoplastic tube, a braided or spiraled reinforcement, and an outer protective cover.

question

Covered Hose

answer

A hose with a jacket covered and lined with a continuous synthetic rubber or plastic. The cover is usually thicker than a coating.

question

Fire Hose

answer

A flexible conduit used to convey water.

question

Hose Valve

answer

The valve to an individual hose connection

question

Occupant Use Hose

answer

Fire hose designed to be used by the building's occupants to fight incipient fires prior to the arrival of trained fire fighters or fire brigade members.

question

Unlined Hose

answer

A hose consisting of only a woven jacket that is usually of linen yarns and is of such quality that the yarn swells when wet, tending to seal the hose.

question

Hose Size

answer

An expression of the internal diameter of the hose.

question

Hose Station

answer

a combination of a hose rack, hose nozzle, hose, and hose connection.

question

In Service

answer

The status of hose stored in a hose house, on a rack or reel, or on a fire apparatus that is available and ready for immediate use at an incident. This doesn't include hose in the storage where it is not readily available to be put into service at an incident.

question

In Storage

answer

A hose that is not readily available for use because it is not at the scene of an incident and not loaded on a vehicle that can transport it to the scene.

question

In Use

answer

Hose being used during fire suppression or during training.

question

Impairment Coordinator

answer

The person responsible for ensuring that proper safety precautions are taken when a fire protection system is placed out of service. The building owner shall assign an impairment coordinator to comply with the requirements of this section. In the absence of a specific designee, the owner shall be considered the impairment coordinator.

question

Labeled

answer

Equipment or materials to which has been attached a label, symbol or other identifying mark or an organization that is acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction and concerned with product evaluation, that maintains periodic inspection of production of labeled equipment or materials , and by whose labeling the manufacturer indicates compliance with appropriate standard or performance in a specified manner.

question

Listed Device

answer

A fire protection component that has been tested to perform under parameters specified for its use by a nationally recognized testing agency. Underwriter's Laboratory (UL) and Factory Mutual (FM) are the two most common once.

question

Manual Standpipe

answer

Standpipe system that relies exclusively on the fire department connection to supply the system demand.

question

Master Pressure Reducing Valve

answer

A pressure reducing valve installed to regulate pressures in an entire fire protection system and/or standpipe system zone.

question

Main Drain

answer

The primary drain connection located on the system riser and also utilized as a flow test connection for the automatic sprinkler system.

question

Nozzles

answer

A device for use in applications requiring special water discharge patterns, directional spray, or other unusual discharge characteristics.

question

Occupant-Use Hose

answer

Fire Hose designed to be used by the building's occupants to fight incipient fires prior to the arrival of trained fire fighters or fire brigade members.

question

Out of service system

answer

A fire protection system that is not fully functional; or whose operation is impaired or is otherwise not in good working order.

question

Personal Supervision

answer

Supervision by the holder of a department certificate who is required to be personally present on the premises, or other proximate location acceptable to the department, while the duties for which the certificate is required is being performed.

question

Pounds per square inch (PSI)

answer

a unit of pressure measuring force per unit area.

question

Pressure Control Valve

answer

A pilot operated pressure reducing valve that may be used with a fire or booster pump designed for the purpose of preventing the incoming water supply pressure from dropping below a set pressure.

question

Pressure Control Valve

answer

A pilot-operated pressure-reducing valve designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure to a specific value under both flowing (residual) and non flowing (static) conditions.

question

Pressure-Reducing Valve

answer

A valve designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure under both flowing (residual) and non flowing (static) conditions.

question

Pressure Regulating Device

answer

A device designed for the purpose of reducing, regulating controlling, or restricting water pressure. Example includes pressure reducing valve, pressure control valves, and pressure-restricting devices.

question

Pressure Restricting Device

answer

A valve or device designed for the purpose of reducing of reducing the downstream water pressure under flowing (residual) conditions only.

question

Pressure Relief Valve

answer

A valve designed for the purpose of releasing excess air or water pressure from the Fire Protection Piping System. Pressure relief valve is not a pressure reducing valve.

question

Pressure Tank

answer

A tank using air pressure to supplying water for water-based fire protection systems. Tank contents to be maintained at one third air to two thirds water.

question

Service Test

answer

Hydrostatic test conducted by users on all in-service hose to determine suitability for continued service.

question

Standpipe System

answer

An arrangement of piping, valves, hose connections, and allied equipment installed in a building or structure, with the hose connections located in such a manner that water can be discharged in streams or spray patterns through attached hose and nozzles, for the purpose of extinguishing a fire, thereby protecting a building or structure and its contents in addition to protecting the occupants. Piping installed in a building or structure that serves to transfer water from a water supply to hose connections at one or more locations in a building or structure used for firefighting purposes.

question

Combination Standpipe and Sprinkler System

answer

A system where the fire protection piping services both 21⁄2 in. (65 mm) outlets for fire department use and outlets for automatic sprinklers.

question

Standpipe, Multi-Zone

answer

A standpipe system that is vertically subdivided as required by the construction codes, including the Building Code, into zones to limit the maximum operating pressure in the system. Each zone will have its own individual automatic water supply.

question

Static Pressure

answer

The measurement of system pressure under non flow conditions

question

Strainer

answer

A device capable of removing from the water all solids of sufficient size that are obstructing water spray nozzles.

question

Supervisory signal

answer

signal indicating the need for action in connection with the supervision of guard tours, fire extinguishing systems or equipment, fire alarm systems or the maintenance features of related systems.

question

Supervisory signal-initiating device

answer

an initiating device, such as a valve supervisory switch, water level indicator, or low-air pressure switch on a dry-pipe system, that triggers a supervisory signal.

question

Testing

answer

A procedure used to determine the status of a system as intended by conducting periodic physical checks on water based fire protection systems such as water flow tests, fire pump tests, alarm tests, and trip tests of dry pipe or deluge valves. These tests follow the requirements for acceptance testing at intervals specified in the appropriate chapter of NFPA #25, 2002 edition.

question

Unlined Hose

answer

A hose consisting of only a woven jacket that is usually of linen yarns and is of such quality that yarn swells when wet, tending to seal the hose.

question

Water Hammer

answer

The surge in pressure when a high-velocity flow of water is abruptly shut off. The pressure exerted by the flowing water against a closed system can be seven or more times that of the static pressure

question

Water Spray

answer

Water in a form having a predetermined pattern, particle size, velocity, and density discharge from specially designed nozzles or devices.

question

Water Supply

answer

A source of water that provides the flows [gal/min (L/min)] and pressures [psi (bar)] required by the water-based fire protection system.

question

Water Tank

answer

A tank supplying water for water-based fire protection systems.

question

Wet Standpipe System

answer

A standpipe system having piping containing water at all times.

question

Standpipe class I

answer

This system is designed to be used by professional fire fighters. For example, the system is used by Fire Department and Fire Brigade personnel. The fire hoses in these systems are 2 1/2 inches in diameter. The large hose diameter makes it difficult to control the stream of water from the hose.

question

Standpipe class II

answer

This system is designed to be used by the occupants of a building. The hose and nozzle are connected to the standpipe. They are ready to be used by occupants in case of a fire. The hose is 1 1/2 inches in diameter. The hose stream is easier to control than the Class I hose.

question

Standpipe class III

answer

This system may be used by either professional fire fighters or by occupants of the building. The hosing may be adjusted to either 1 1/2 or 2 1/2 inches in diameter. This is done by attaching special reducing valves to the hose line.

question

Wet Standpipe System

answer

This system always has water in the piping. The water in the system is always under pressure. In some cases a fire pump may be used to increase the water pressure. The wet standpipe system is the most commonly used standpipe system. It is used in heated buildings where there is no danger of the water in the piping freezing. Any part of the standpipe system that is exposed to freezing temperatures should be insulated. It is very important that the water in the piping does not freeze. Frozen water may prevent the standpipe system from working.

question

Dry Standpipe with an Automatic Dry Pipe Valve (Manual Standpipe)

answer

...

question

Dry Standpipe with a Manual Control Valve

answer

This system is supplied by a public water main. Under normal conditions this system has no water in the piping. The water is not allowed into the standpipe until a control valve is manually operated. The control valve remains closed until a fire occurs. The air in the piping is not under pressure. A pre-action valve prevents the water from entering the system. The valve is automatically opened when a fire detection system discovers that there is a fire. This system is usually used in a building that is not heated.

question

Dry Standpipe with No Permanent Water Supply (Manual Standpipe)

answer

...

question

Quick Opening Devices

answer

In a dry pipe system there is a delay between the opening of a sprinkler head or a standpipe nozzle and the discharge of water. This delay may allow the fire to spread and more sprinkler heads to open. The delay is due to the time required for the air to leave the system's piping. This difficulty may be partly overcome by the installation of quick opening devices.

question

Yard Systems

answer

A yard hydrant system is most often used in large private manufacturing plants or storage buildings. The yard system is often needed because the public water supply does not meet the needs of the fire protection system. The yard system usually has several private water sources supplying the total fire protection system. The total system may have a sprinkler system, hydrants, and a standpipe and hose system installed. The water supply sources are all connected together in the yard system. This allows the water to be directly supplied to any part of the system when needed. Water can be supplied even when one of the supply sources is not working. The combined sources of water keep the water pressure in the system at a high level. The picture below shows a detailed yard fire protection system.

question

Public Waterworks Connection

answer

The street main supplies water using the water pressure in the public water works system. Sometimes a street main may not be connected to the system if it is located too far away from the building.

question

Pressure Tank

answer

This tank may supply water to the yard system under pressure. The tank is filled with water and air. The air force

question

Combination / Combined Systems

answer

It is not uncommon to find occupancies having a combination of systems for fire protection. Examples of combination systems are: a. Combination System (Wet standpipe and Dry standpipe) b. Combined System ( Wet standpipe system and Automatic Sprinkler System) - A standpipe system having piping that supplies both hose connections and automatic sprinklers. Each connection from a standpipe that is part of a combined system to a sprinkler system shall have an individual control valve and check valve of the same size as the connection.

question

PREACTION STANDPIPE SYSTEMS

answer

Preaction systems are designed for situations where there is danger of serious water damage. Water damage is usually caused by damaged standpipe piping. Under normal conditions there is no water in the piping. The air in the piping may or may not be is under pressure. A preaction valve prevents the water from entering the system. The valve is automatically opened when an electrical or hydraulic release is manually activated.

question

Roof Manifold

answer

Standpipe systems are used in buildings where it may be difficult for the Fire Department to pump water on the fire. For example, standpipe systems are required in buildings that are over six stories 75 feet in height. A standpipe system may be combined with an automatic fire protection system. For example, a standpipe system and a sprinkler

question

Fire Department Connection

answer

...

question

Fire Department Connection

answer

...

question

Alarms and Supervisory Signal Devices

answer

...

question

Check Valves

answer

...

question

Swing Check Valves

answer

...

question

Alarm check Valves

answer

...

question

Gate Valves (Non-Rising Stem)

answer

...

question

OS & Y (Outside Screw and Yoke)

answer

...

question

Fire Hose including Couplings and Nozzles

answer

...

question

Fire Hose Outlet and Release Rack

answer

...

STUDY

Good Working Order Strong Work Ethic Time Management Skills

Nail Technology Exam Review – Part 4 – Flashcards 134 terms

Jaxon Wilson

134 terms

Preview

Nail Technology Exam Review – Part 4 – Flashcards

question

Before you can obtain a position as a nail technician, you must:

answer

Both are correct (secure the required credentials; pass your state licensing exam)

question

Which of the following will affect how well you perform during your licensing exam?

answer

All are correct (your memory; your time management skills; your psychological state)

question

A test-wise student:

answer

Develops a vocabulary list

question

The "holistic" refers to:

answer

The whole you

question

An important part of preparing for your licensing exam is maintaining good _____ shape.

answer

All are correct (physical; emotional; spiritual)

question

On the day of the test, it is NOT recommended that you:

answer

Spend as much time as necessary to answer each question

question

What is a stem?

answer

A test question or problem

question

Which of the following is an example of an absolute?

answer

Never

question

When two choices in a multiple-choice question are similar:

answer

One is probable right

question

To better prepare for the practical portion of the examination, you should:

answer

All are correct (participate in mock licensing examinations; make sure all equipment and implements are in good working order; practice the correct skills required in the test as often as you can)

question

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that will help you get the position you want and help you keep it?

answer

Apathy

question

When you have _____, you ae committed to a strong code of moral and artistic values.

answer

Integrity

question

Having _____ means taking pride in your work and committing yourself to consistently doing a good job for your clients, employer, and salon team.

answer

A strong work ethic

question

There are nearly _____ professional salons in the United States.

answer

313,000

question

The average independent salon may have as many as _____ nail technicians working there regularly.

answer

question

The majority of professional nail salons are:

answer

Small independent salons

question

Independent salon chains usually have _____ or more salons that are owned by one individual or two or more partners.

answer

question

With large national salon chains, decisions regarding _____ are made at the corporate headquarters.

answer

All are correct (size; services; advertising)

question

Basic value-priced operations:

answer

Generally pay nail technicians by the hour.

question

High-end salons generally:

answer

All are correct (employ well-trained beauty professionals; offer higher-priced services to clients; provide a high level of personal service to clients)

question

When preparing a resume, you should:

answer

List your relevant education information

question

A _____ is a written summary of a person's education and work experience.

answer

Resume

question

On average, a potential employer will scan your resume for _____ before deciding whether to grant you an interview.

answer

20 seconds

question

You should ask yourself which question as you develop accomplishment statements?

answer

All are correct (How many regular clients do I serve; What was my client retention rare; What was my service ticket average)

question

Which of the following is NOT a question that you should ask when preparing your resume and cover letter?

answer

What questions should you ask during your job interview?

question

When preparing your resume, it is NOT recommended that you:

answer

Avoid action verbs

question

An ideal employment portfolio includes:

answer

All are correct (a summary of continuing education certificates; a statement of membership in industry organizations; a statement of relevant civic affiliations)

question

The information in your employment portfolio should be:

answer

Separated into sections

question

When targeting potential employers, it is important to:

answer

All are correct (follow newspapers, television and radio for salon advertising; make a list of area salons or establishments; locate a salon that serves the type of clients you wish to serve)

question

When calling a salon for networking purposes, you should NOT:

answer

Ask when you can come in for a job interview

question

When you visit a salon for networking purposes, it is recommended that you take along:

answer

A checklist

question

After visiting a salon, it is recommended that you always:

answer

Send a brief note thanking the person for meeting with you

question

When you go to a job interview, you should bring along:

answer

All are correct (your driver's license; contact information for your former employers; your social security number)

question

It is recommended that you obtain how many interview outfits?

answer

One or two

question

the accessories you wear with your interview outfit should be:

answer

Both are correct (fashionable; functional)

question

When you go to a job inerview, it is recommended that you bring along:

answer

All are correct (your resume; your employment portfolio; any additional class certificates you may have received)

question

Which of the following is NOT a question typically asked at an interview?

answer

Are you prepared to step immediately into a management position?

question

On the day of the interview, it is recommended that you:

answer

All are correct (be early; speak clearly; answer questions honestly)

question

It is NOT recommended that you ask which of the following questions at an interview?

answer

How long do you expect the salon to stay in business?

question

It is permissible to ask the age of an applicant younger than:

answer

question

An employer is allowed to ask:

answer

Whether you use drugs

question

What is the MOST important factor that will affect your test performance?

answer

Mastery of course content

question

When taking the written test, it is recommended that you:

answer

Read and review each question carefully

question

When answering a true-false question, remember that:

answer

Statements with absolutes are generally false

question

When preparing for the practical exam, it is recommended that you:

answer

All are correct (know where the exam will take place before the day of the exam; follow the licensing agency's directions as they are outlined; real all materials received from the licensing agency about the exam)

question

It is recommended that when you network, you:

answer

All are correct (ask questions; take advice; consider all of your options)

question

In a service business, your work primarily revolves around:

answer

Serving your clients

question

As you serve your clients, it is important NOT to:

answer

Stop learning

question

If you are late for appointments:

answer

All are correct (coworkers will have to handle your clients; clients can become angered; clients may decide to switch salons)

question

To be a good team player, you should be concerned with:

answer

Both are correct (your own success; the success of others in the salon)

question

It is recommended that you resist all temptations to:

answer

Give in to gossip

question

How fast you are able to move up in the business will be determined by your:

answer

Attitude and work ethic

question

Salon management should be loyal to:

answer

Both are correct (clients; the staff)

question

A job description:

answer

Outlines the duties and responsibilities of a particular position

question

If your salon does not use job descriptions and you decide to write your own, it is recommended that you show it to:

answer

Your manager

question

If you are unclear about something in your job description, it is recommended that you:

answer

Ask your manager for clarification

question

The term "compensation" refers to:

answer

What you will actually get paid for your work

question

Which of the following is NOT a standard method of compension in the nail industry?

answer

Salary minus commission

question

Nail technicians may be paid an hourly wage for up to _____ before their form of compensation is reviewed and/or modified.

answer

6 months

question

The term _____ refers to customers who are loyal to a particular nail technician.

answer

"Client base"

question

If you are offered a set salary each week, in liew of an hourly rate:

answer

It must be equal to at least minimum wage

question

The commission paid to a nail technician working on a commission-only basis generally ranges from:

answer

45 to 70 percent

question

If you work under a commission payment structure, the salon usually provides the _____ you will need to perform nail services.

answer

Products

question

Nail technicians can increase their chances of building a solid and loyal clientele more quickly if they:

answer

All are correct (have advanced training; have and use their artistic abilities; concentrate on an unusual niche)

question

A _____ payment structure is often used to motivate nail technicians to perform more services.

answer

Salary-plus-commission

question

Tips are:

answer

Income in addition to your regular compensation

question

How often must tips be recorded?

answer

Daily

question

The best way to keep tabs on your progress is to ask for feedback from your:

answer

All are correct (clients; salon manager; key coworkers)

question

Evaluations are commonly scheduled 90 days after hiring and then _____ after that.

answer

Once a year

question

If you are looking for advice on how to improve your client consultations, it is recommended that you ask _____ to sit inon one and then make suggestions afterward.

answer

All are correct (your mentor; a seasoned coworker; your salon manager)

question

Responsible adults are concerned with:

answer

Planning for the future

question

When you default, you:

answer

Fail to pay back a loan

question

One recommended method for increasing your income is:

answer

Asking for a higher percentage of commission

question

Increasing your service prices in _____ increments is a recommended method of increasing your weekly income without driving away clients.

answer

question

It is recommended that you speak with _____ for advice on how to reduce your credit card debt, invest your money, and plan for retirement.

answer

A financial planner

question

The practice of recommending and selling additional services to clients that you or other practitioners licensed in a different field may perform is known as:

answer

Ticket upgrading

question

The act of recommending and selling quality products to clients for at-home nail care is called:

answer

Retailing

question

To be successful in sales, you need:

answer

All are correct (ambition; determination; a good personality)

question

To become a proficient salesperson, it is recommended that you:

answer

Recognize the right psychological moment to close any sale

question

Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for selling retail products to nail clients?

answer

An incentive program that rewards only the salon

question

What is the standard retail sales commission for nail technicians?

answer

10 percent

question

To get the conversation started about retailing products, it is recommended that you:

answer

Advise clients about how recommended services will benefit them

question

If you are going to send a client a birthday card with a special offer, it is recommended that you send it out:

answer

About one month before the client's birthday

question

If you send a client a birthday card with a special offer, it is recommended that the offer be valid:

answer

Only during the birthday month

question

You can expand your client base by being:

answer

All are correct (respectful; positive; professional)

question

Your job is to be the client's:

answer

Nail technician

question

When selling, it is recommended that after you establish rapport with the client, you:

answer

Determine the client's needs

question

It is recommended that you rebook a client:

answer

Before she leaves the salon

question

How long should a client be in the salon?

answer

Only as long as is necessary to adequately complete a service

question

As you become able to perform services faster, you will notice that:

answer

All are correct (clients have less of a wait; you can perform more services in a day; your income increases)

question

In a booth rental agreement, a nail technician generally:

answer

Pays the salon owner a flat fee for use of the booth on a regular basis

question

When you enter into a booth rental agreement, you are NOT responsible for:

answer

Paying utilities

question

The state board in _____ does not recognize booth rental as an acceptable method of doing business.

answer

New Jersey

question

When you open your own salon, you need to decide:

answer

All are correct (what products to use and carry; whether to hire additional staff members; the types of marketing and promotions you will employ)

question

A _____ statement is a long-term picture of what a business is to become and what it will look like when it gets there.

answer

Vision

question

Which term refers to a set of benchmarks that, once achieved, help you to realize your mission and your vision?

answer

Goals

question

It is recommended that the salon owner focus on _____ between the second and fifth year in business.

answer

Tending to the business, its clientele and employees

question

When deciding where to locate your business, you should look for a location with:

answer

All are correct (good visibility; high traffic; sufficient parking)

question

A(n) _____ is a business that is owned and operated by one person, although the owner may have employees.

answer

Sole proprietorship

question

In a sole proprietorship, the owner:

answer

Is responsible for all expenses

question

A(n) _____ is a business structure in which two or more people share ownership, although not necessarily equally.

answer

Partnership

question

People often enter into a partnership arrangement to:

answer

Both are correct (have more capital for investment; have help running the business)

question

A corporation:

answer

Can be formed to protect the owners' personal assets

question

Employees of a corporation pay income tax on:

answer

The salary that they draw

question

When opening your own business, it is recommended that you consult with _____ to find out the ways in which your business may be registered for tax purposes.

answer

An accountant

question

To become an S Corporation, a business must file with:

answer

The IRS

question

What does LLC stand for?

answer

Limited Liability Company

question

A _____ is a written plan of a business as it is seen in the present and envisioned in the future, to follow throughout the entire process of starting your own business.

answer

Business plan

question

Which part of a business plan describes how the business will run administratively?

answer

Organizational plan

question

Which part of the business plan outlines all of the research obtained regarding the clients your business will target and their needs, wants, and habits?

answer

Marketing plan

question

Before purchasing an existing nail business, you need to:

answer

All are correct (obtain a written purchase and sale agreement; include in the agreement the use of the salon's name and reputation; obtain a non-compete agreement from the seller)

question

It is important to protect your business by installing:

answer

All are correct (a burgular alarm system; a fire alarm system; adequate locks)

question

As a business owner, you may need to obtain a seller's permit to:

answer

Collect sales tax

question

Buying _____ insurance is a wise choice for business owners since it will help you make provisions for your business and your beneficiaries.

answer

Life

question

Health insurance plans are typically available through:

answer

Trade associations

question

A typical salon spends about _____ of its total gross income on rent.

answer

13 percent

question

Which expense typically takes up about 3 percent of a salon's total gross income?

answer

Depreciation

question

A typical salon spends about 1.5 percent of its total gross income on:

answer

Repairs

question

About _____ of a typical salon's total gross income is profit.

answer

15 percent

question

A _____ is someone who is trained to do everything from recording sales and doing payroll to generating a profit-and-loss statement.

answer

Full-charge bookkeeper

question

Supplies that are sold to clients are called:

answer

Retail supplies

question

Service records should include _____ for each client.

answer

All are correct (the contact information; the products used; the results obtained)

question

When renovating a salon, it is recommended that you consult with:

answer

A professional equipment and furniture supplier

question

Which of the following is NOT an important consideration when interviewing potential employees?

answer

Their age

question

Which part of the salon is considered the salon's nerve center?

answer

The reception area

question

The reception area should be well stocked with:

answer

Business cards

question

Who is considered the "quarterback" of a salon?

answer

The receptionist

question

Which of the following is NOT a common responsibility of a salon receptionist?

answer

Performing employee evaluations

question

During slow periods, it is customary for the receptionist to perform certain other duties and activities, such as:

answer

Maintaining inventory

question

When using the telephone, you should:

answer

All are correct (speak clearly; be tactful; show interest and concern)

question

When answering the phone, it is MOST important to:

answer

Identify the salon

question

If a client calls to make an appointment with her favorite nail technician at a certain time, and the nail technician is not available, what is the FIRST thing you should do?

answer

Suggest other times that the nail technician is available

question

What is considered the best form of advertising?

answer

Satisified clients

question

Which of the following is a recommended advertising venue for nail salons?

answer

All are correct (radio advertising; e-mail newsletters; videos in the salon promoting your salon and its services)

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