Good Working Order Flashcards, test questions and answers
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We've found 13 Good Working Order tests
Good Working Order
Peanut Butter And Jelly
Standard Operating Procedures
Stop And Think
Using The Computer
Unit 1 Test Review Study Guide – Flashcards 41 terms

Elizabeth Bates
41 terms
Preview
Unit 1 Test Review Study Guide – Flashcards
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It is not necessary to keep your workstation clean.
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False
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You should always attempt to repair or fix the computer yourself it if is broken.
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False
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Never attempt to change the computer files or settings.
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True
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It is not safe to give out personal information to others while on the Internet.
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True
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I am allowed to use a flash drive in class.
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False
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After shutting down the computer, the first step to cleaning the keyboard is to:
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unplug it
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I am allowed to eat and drink at my workstation.
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False
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It is not ok to spray liquids direction onto the computer screen.
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True
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This is a basic part of a computer:
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monitor
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Printers, scanners, speakers/headphones, web cams, and microphones are all examples of:
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Peripherals
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What is the motherboard?
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A computer's main circuit board. It connects to every part of the computer.
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This type of memory disappears once the computer is turned off.
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RAM (Random Access Memory)
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What is the cloud?
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All the things you can access remotely over the Internet.
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What does it mean when something is on the cloud?
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It means it is stored on Internet servers instead of a hard drive.
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What are some common reasons for using the cloud?
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File storage, file sharing, and backing up data.
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Give an example of a cloud app.
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Dropbox, Google Drive, Flickr, Mozy and Carbonite
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Explain computer ergonomics.
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It's the science of equipment design and how usage and placement of equipment can reduce discomfort and increase productivity.
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Give an example of a piece of ergonomic equipment:
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keyboards and chairs
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How can you avoid injury in your workspace?
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Adjust the chair, position your keyboard comfortably, and take frequent breaks to prevent from straining your eyes.
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All the people working or available to work are known as the_________________.
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Workforce
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OSHA
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Occupational Safety and Health Administration. Ensures industries and companies are keeping employees safe while on the job.
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Learning Style
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A person's best method of gaining knowledge.
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The act of leading a group of people.
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Leadership
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An established way of doing something.
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Procedure
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While working at a local restaurant, Blaze picked up raw meat with his bare hands. What should he have done to ensure his safety in the workplace?
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Blaze should have used latex gloves to keep harmful bacteria away from his skin.
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Amanda brought a personal space heater to her desk at work. Why is this a bad idea?
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The space heater could cause a fire. It could also heat up the computer and cause permanent damage.
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Give an example of a learning style:
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Linguistic, logical, bodily, musical, spatial, naturalist, interpersonal, and intrapersonal.
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Give an example of a career in STEM:
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Dentist, Speech Pathologist, Pharmacist, Computer Systems Analyst, Surgeon
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The word plagiarize means:
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Copying or slightly changing someone else's work and then saying you created it.
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A ____________________ is a law that helps protect your control over your creative work.
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copyright
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Jake wants to keep some control over the photos he puts online, but he also wants to make it easy for people to share and use them. He should use ______________________.
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Creative Commons
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A course of action designed to help you reach a goal or result is known as a:
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strategy
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Cindy heard a new song on the radio. She wants to search for it online, but she can only remember one line of the song. Which strategy should Cindy use to search for this song?
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She should use quotation marks around the line she remembers.
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What is the first step you should take when you want to conduct an online search?
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You should select research questions.
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What are the 6 Pillars of Character?
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Trustworthiness, Respect, Responsibility, Fairness, Caring and Citizenship
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Give an example of being trustworthy.
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Always keep your promises.
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What is one way to be respectful to other people?
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Listen to what other people have to say.
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How can you be responsible?
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By being reliable and dependable.
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Fairness is _______________________________________.
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Playing by the rules.
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How can you become a caring person?
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By doing caring things for others.
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What does good citizenship look like?
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Respecting and following the rules of your school, even if you don't always agree with them.
Common Law
Fair And Impartial
Good Working Order
CFEI Study Guide – Flashcards 136 terms

David Dunn
136 terms
Preview
CFEI Study Guide – Flashcards
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Evidence - Demonstrative
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Tangible items; see, touch, smell, hear.
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Evidence - Documentary
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Written form; business records, banking, calendars, phone records, fire reports, etc...
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Evidence - Testimonial
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Competent live witness speaking under oath; two types; fact and expert
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Evidence - illustrative
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Photos, sketches, maps, diagrams. Modes are frequently used at trial.
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Evidence - illustravtive
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Photos and Videos; what, why, how, when
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Evidence collection
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Document in place, document the collection, use proper container, (flag, bag, & tag)
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Evidence - collection
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Fuel gas powered tools outside the perimeter. Find out where tools were refuels.
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Heat transfer
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Conduction, convection, radiation
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Interviews
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Purpose of the interview; prepare for the interview, document the interview
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Vehicle Fires
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Sparks from an aluminum wheel are not a competent ignition source.
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Vehicle Fires
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The most common source of an open flame in a vehicle is an exhaust system backfire out of a carburetor.
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Vehicle Fires
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Carburetor backfire leaves a distinct pattern on the hood.
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Vehicle Fires
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Two basic fuel systems: vacuum/low pressure carbureted system, and high-pressure, fuel injected system.
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Vehicle Fires
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Loose battery connections; not over-current protected; loose connections can result in intermittent arcing.
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Vehicle Fires
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Power steering fluid: Flashpoint 347-356*F, autoignition 680-720*F.
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Vehicle Fires
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Automatic Transmission Fluid: Flashpoint 302-536*F, autoignition 626-716*F.
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Vehicle Fires
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Overcharging a battery does not cause it to explode.
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Explosions
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Low order damage: characterized by walls bulge out or laid down, virtually intact, next to the structure. roofs slightly left.
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Explosions
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High order damage: shattering of the structure, producing small debris pieces.
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Explosions
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Post blast effects: burned debris away-fire preceded, unburned the debris away-no fire.
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Explosions
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Dust explosions: most often occur in confined areas of relatively wide dispersal.
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Explosions
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Search 1.5 times further than the farthest piece of debris.
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Fire effects/ fire patterns
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Char shrinks as it forms. More reliable for evaluating fire spread, deduce the direction based on depth, large shiny blisters (alligatoring) is not evidence of the use of an accelerant.
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Fire effects/fire patterns
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Spalling: loss of surface material due to cracking, breaking, chipping, breakdown in surface tensile strength, moisture present in the concrete, may appear lighter in color.
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Fire effects/fire patterns
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Crazed glass: caused by rapid cooling.
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Fire effects/fire patterns
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Light bulbs 25W or more "pull" (gases expand and bubble out); 25W or less contain a vacuum and can pull in.
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Fire effects/fire patterns
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Annealing (softening) of springs may provide clues concerning direction, duration, and intensity.
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Fire effects/fire patterns
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Saddle burns - A U-shaped burn pattern found on the top of floor joists, caused by fire burning down through the floor. Often, a saddle burn is caused by a burning liquid on the floor or radiant heat from a material close to the floor. Saddle burns display deep charring.
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Fire effects/fire patterns
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Inverted cone burns are indicative of the vertical flame plume not reaching the ceiling, short-lived fires with a low HRR
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Fire effects/fire patterns
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Melting Temperatures: Copper 1981*F; Aluminum 1220*F; Steel 2760*F
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Heat Sources
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Mechanical: converted to heat when two materials rub against each other and create friction. Chemical: chemical reaction; exothermic and endothermic. Electrical: Converted to heat energy; flowing through a conductor. Nuclear: splitting the nucleus of an atom into two smaller nuclei (nuclear fission)
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Electrical
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Resistance Heating: properly installed, produces low resistance. Loose connections: high resistance with increased heating at the contact.
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Electrical
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Ground Fault: the purpose if grounding an electrical system is to make sure that any housings or exposed metal in the system or connected to it cannot become electrically charged.
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Electrical
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Sleeving: the softening and sagging of thermoplastic conductor insulation due to the heating of the conductor.
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Electrical
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Lightning: a form of static electricity, a polarized electrostatic charge in the clouds.
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Electrical
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9.2.2.2.2: the unit of measurement of potential difference or voltage is usually volts.
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Electrical
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9.2.2.3: the rate of charge flow is called electrical current, and current is measured in amperes.
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Electrical
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9.2.6.1: power - the rate at which energy is used.
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Electrical
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9.3.3: the cables of a service drop go into a weather-head, which is designed to keep water from entering the system, and then down a service raceway to a meter base.
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Electrical
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9.6.2.1: fuses are basically non-mechanical devices with a fusible element in a small enclosure.
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Electrical
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9.6.3.1: a circuit breaker is a switch that opens either automatically with over-current or manually by pushing a handle.
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Electrical
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9.7: Branch Circuits: the individual circuits that feed lighting, receptacles, and various appliances are the branch circuits.
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Electrical
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9.9.4.1: Arc: is a high temperature luminous electric discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation.
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Electrical
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9.10.3: Arcing through a carbonized path due to thermal means (arcing through char), insulation on conductors, when exposed to direct flame or radiant heat, may be charred before being melted. That char is conductive enough to allow sporadic arcing through the char.
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Fatalities
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Charred bones are an indication of fire intensity and duration
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Fatalities
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The Pugilistic posture is as a result of the muscle dehydrating and shrinking, shrinkage causes flexion
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Fatalities
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Humans do not spontaneously combust
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Miscellaneous
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Hire a FPE to examine a flow valve, EE for a toaster, Mechanical Engineer for a furnace and a metallurgist for metal issues
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Miscellaneous
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Do not put field notes in the investigative report
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Miscellaneous
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Polyethylene chair has a higher HRR than a pool of gasoline or a Christmas tree
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Miscellaneous
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A pathologist should exam a fractured skull
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Miscellaneous
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Main breaker is the safest way to de-energize a house
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Miscellaneous
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Fill the evidence can only 2/3 full
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Miscellaneous
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Annealed (softening) springs can indicate duration and intensity
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Miscellaneous
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An autopsy should always be performed
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Miscellaneous
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Witnesses can only testify to facts observed
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Miscellaneous
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Identify interview question types according to the priority that they should be asked
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Miscellaneous
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Vapor density of <.6 will rise to the ceiling and accumulate
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Miscellaneous
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Oxidation is the basic chemical reaction associated with combustion
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Miscellaneous
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Add more oxygen and expect color change and change of texture
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Thermal Inertia
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Thermal conductivity(k), density(p), heat capacity (c)
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Latent heat of vaporization
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The heat absorbed when a substance changes phase from a liquid to a gas. No change in chemical structure of the material
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Flameover
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Unburned fuel from the originating fire accumulates in the ceiling layer to sufficient concentration that it ignites
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Flashover
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A transition phase in the development of a compartment fire in which surfaces exposed to thermal radiation reach ignition temperature more or less simultaneously
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Backdraft
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A deflagration resulting from the sudden introduction of air into a confined space containing oxygen-deficient products of incomplete combustion
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Boiling Point
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Temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the pressure surrounding the liquid and the liquid changes into a vapor.
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Burning Point
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The lowest temperature at which a volatile oil in an open vessel will continue to burn when ignited by a flame held close to its surface; used to test safety of kerosene and other illuminating oils.
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Clean Burn
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A distinct and visible fire effect generally apparent on non-combustible surfaces after combustible layers (soot, paper, paint)have burned away
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Combustion
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A chemical process of oxidation that occurs at a rate fast enough to produce heat and usually light in the form of either a glow or flame
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Calcination
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A fire effect realized in gypsum products, including wallboard, as a result of exposure to heat that drives off free and chemically bound water
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Fire
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A rapid oxidation process, which is a chemical reaction resulting in the evolution of light and heat in varying intensities
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Fire Plume
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Creation of hot gases by fire; the hot gases rise above the fire itself
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Flame Spread
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Classified as concurrent or counterflow: concurrent-(wide-aided flame spread) occurs when flame spread direction is the same as the gas flow or wind direction; counterflow-(opposed flame spread) occurs where the flame spread direction is counter to or opposed to the gas flow
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Heat
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a form of energy characterized by vibration of molecules and capable of initiating and supporting chemical changes and changes of state
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Ignition Temperature
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Minimum temperature a substance should attain in order to ignite under specific test conditions
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Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
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The minimum percentage of fuel in air (by volume) in which combustion can occur
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Upper Explosive Limit
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The maximum percentage of fuel in air in which combustion can occur
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Melting Point
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Phase change; the material changes from a solid to a liquid with no change in the chemical structure of the material (melting candle wax)
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Pyrolysis
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A process in which material is decomposed, or broken down, into simpler molecular compounds by the effects of heat alone; pyrolysis often precedes combustion
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Specific Gravity (Vapor Density)
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The ratio of the average molecular weight of a gas or vapor to the average molecular weight of air
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Specific Gravity
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The ratio of the mass of a given volume of a substance to the mass of an equal volume of water at a temperature of 4*C
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Combustible Liquid
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Flash Point @ or above 100°F
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Flammable Liquid
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Flash Point less than 100°F
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Ignitable Liquid
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Both combustible and flammable liquids are ignitable liquids.
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Flash Point
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Momentary Flame; the lowest temperature at which vapors will ignite. Measuring a flash point requires an ignition source. At the flash point, the vapor may cease to burn when the ignition source is removed.
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Accelerant
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Can be any material to spread fire; usually gasoline.
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Origin Determination
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1. Witness Information 2. Fire Patterns 3. Arc Mapping 4. Fire Dynamics
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Ceiling Jet
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Obstruction to plume at ceiling level creates ceiling jets.
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Thermal Inertia
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The degree of slowness with which the temperature of a body approaches that of its surroundings and which is dependent upon its absorptivity, its specific heat, its thermal conductivity, its dimensions, and other factors
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High Order Explosion
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A high order explosion describes an explosive event where the blast pressure front moves rapidly, shattering objects in its path. High order damage: shattering of the structure, producing small debris pieces.
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High Explosive
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A high explosive is a material that has an explosion velocity of greater than 1000 m/s, or a material capable of sustaining a detonation
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Low Order Explosion
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A low order explosion describes an explosive event where the blast pressure front moves slowly, displacing or heaving (rather than shattering) objects in its path. Low order damage: characterized by walls bulge out or laid down, virtually intact, next to the structure. roofs slightly left.
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Low Explosive
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A low explosive is a material that has an explosion velocity of less than 1000 m/s.
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True - Administrative Warrant
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Probably cause IS NOT NEEDED to obtain an ADMINISTRATIVE search warrant.
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Conduction
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Heat transfer to another body or within a body by DIRECT contact.
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Pre-Flashover conditions
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In pre-flashover conditions, the primary heat transfer mechanism for fire spread through a compartment is conduction.
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Conduction Heat Transfer
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Conduction is the form of heat transfer that takes place within solids when one portion of an object is heated. Energy is transferred from the heated area to the unheated area at a rate dependent on the difference in temperature and the physical properties of the material.
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Convection Heat Transfer
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Convection is the transfer of heat energy by the movement of heated liquids or gases from the source of heat to a cooler part of the environment. Heat is transferred by convection to a solid when hot gases pass over cooler surfaces. The rate of heat transfer to the solid is a function of the temperature difference, the surface area exposed to the hot gas, and the velocity of the hot gas. The higher the velocity of the gas, the greater the rate of convective transfer.
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Radiation Heat Transfer
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Radiation is the transfer of heat energy from a hot surface to a cooler surface by electromagnetic waves without an intervening medium. For example, the heat energy from the sun is radiated to earth through the vacuum of space. Radiant energy can be transferred only by line-of-sight and will be reduced or blocked by intervening materials. Intervening materials do not necessarily block all radiant heat. For example, radiant heat is reduced on the order of 50 percent by some glazing materials.
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Pyrolysis
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A process in which material is decomposed, or broken down, into simpler molecular compounds by the effects of heat alone; pyrolysis often precedes combustion
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Combustion
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Combustion may continue with available oxygen concentrations lower than 1 percent.
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Empirical Data
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Data that is based on observation or experience and can be verified.
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Inductive Reasoning
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The process by which a person starts from a particular experience and proceeds to generalizations. The process by which hypotheses are developed based upon observable or known facts and the training, experience, knowledge, and expertise of the observer.
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Deductive Reasoning
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Test the Hypothesis with deductive reasoning. The process by which conclusions are drawn by logical inference from given premises. Testing of the hypothesis is done by the principle of deductive reasoning, in which the investigator compares the hypothesis to all the known facts as well as the body of scientific knowledge associated with the phenomena relevant to the specific incident.
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Fault Tree
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Fault trees can be used to test the possibility of a hypothesized fire cause. Fault trees are developed by breaking down an event into causal component parts. These components are then placed in a logical sequence of events or conditions necessary to produce the event. If the conditions or sequence are not present then the hypothesis is disproved.
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Time Lines
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In the context of testing a cause hypothesis, the time frame may be a discriminator for determining if an ignition scenario is consistent with the available data as it related to time frames.
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"V" Pattern
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The geometric shape of the pattern.
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Arson
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The crime of maliciously and intentionally, or recklessly, starting a fire or causing an explosion.
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Arc
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A high-temperature luminous electric discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation.
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Cause
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The circumstances, conditions, or agencies that brought about or resulted in the fire or explosion incident, damage to property resulting from the fire or explosion incident, or bodily injury or loss of life resulting from the fire or explosion incident.
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Combustion
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A chemical process of oxidation that occurs at a rate fast enough to produce heat and usually light in the form of either a glow or flame.
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Fire
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A rapid oxidation process, which is a chemical reaction resulting in the evolution of light and heat in varying intensities.
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Drop Down / Fall Down
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The spread of fire by the dropping or falling of burning materials. Synonymous with "fall down."
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Conduction
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Heat transfer to another body or within a body by direct contact.
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Convection
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Heat transfer by circulation within a medium such as a gas or a liquid.
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Competent Ignition Source
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An ignition source that has sufficient energy and is capable of transferring that energy to the fuel long enough to raise the fuel to its ignition temperature.
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Detonation
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Propagation of a combustion zone at a velocity greater than the speed of sound in the unreacted medium.
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Forensic (Forensic Science)
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The application of science to answer questions of interest to the legal system.
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Fire Science
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The body of knowledge concerning the study of fire and related subjects (such as combustion, flame, products of combustion, heat release, heat transfer, fire and explosion chemistry, fire and explosion dynamics, thermodynamics, kinetics, fluid mechanics, fire safety) and their interaction with people, structures, and the environment.
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Scientific Method
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The systematic pursuit of knowledge involving the recognition and definition of a problem; the collection of data through observation and experimentation; analysis of the data; the formulation, evaluation and testing of a hypothesis; and, when possible, the selection of a final hypothesis.
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Systematic Approach
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The systematic approach recommended is based on the scientific method, which is used in the physical sciences. This method provides an organizational and analytical process that is desirable and necessary in a successful fire investigation
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The Scientific Method
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Recognize the Need (identify the problem) Define the problem Collect Data Analyze the Data Develop a Hypothesis Test the Hypothesis (if fail, go back to collect data) Select the Hypothesis
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The Scientific Method - Recognize the need.
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First, one should determine that a problem exists. In this case, a fire or explosion has occurred and the cause should be determined and listed so that future, similar incidents can be prevented.
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The Scientific Method - Define the Problem
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Having determined that a problem exists, the investigator or analyst should define the manner in which the problem can be solved. In this case, a proper origin and cause investigation should be conducted. This is done by an examination of the scene and by a combination of other data collection methods, such as the review of previously conducted investigations of the incident, the interviewing of witnesses or other knowledgeable persons, and the results of scientific testing.
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The Scientific Method - Collect Data
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Facts about the fire incident are now collected by observation, experiment, or other direct datagathering means. The data collected is called empirical data because it is based on observation or experience and is capable of being verified or known to be true.
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The Scientific Method - Analyze the Data
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The scientific method requires that all data collected be analyzed. This is an essential step that must take place before the formation of the final hypothesis. The identification, gathering, and cataloging of data does not equate to data analysis. Analysis of the data is based on the knowledge, training, experience, and expertise of the individual doing the analysis. If the investigator lacks expertise to properly attribute meaning to a piece of data, then assistance should be sought. Understanding the meaning of the data will enable the investigator to form hypotheses based on the evidence, rather than on speculation.
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The Scientific Method - Develop a Hypothesis (Inductive Reasoning)
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(Inductive Reasoning). Based on the data analysis, the investigator produces a hypothesis, or hypotheses, to explain the phenomena, whether it be the nature of fire patterns, fire spread, identification of the origin, the ignition sequence, the fire cause, or the causes of damage or responsibility for the fire or explosion incident. This process is referred to as inductive reasoning. These hypotheses should be based solely on the empirical data that the investigator has collected through observation and then developed into explanations for the event, which are based upon the investigator's knowledge, training, experience, and expertise.
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The Scientific Method - Test the Hypothesis (Deductive Reasoning)
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(Deductive Reasoning). The investigator does not have a valid or reliable conclusion unless the hypothesis can stand the test of careful and serious challenge. Testing of the hypothesis is done by the principle of deductive reasoning, in which the investigator compares the hypothesis to all known facts as well as the body of scientific knowledge associated with the phenomena relevant to the specific incident. A hypothesis can be tested physically by conducting experiments, analytically by applying accepted scientific principles, or by referring to scientific research. When relying on the research of others, the investigator or analyst must ensure that the conditions, circumstances, and variables of the research and those of the hypothesis are sufficiently similar. Whenever the investigator relies on research as a means of hypothesis testing, references to the research relied upon should be acknowledged and cited. If the hypothesis is refuted or not supported, it should be discarded and alternate hypotheses should be developed and tested. This may require the collection of new data or the reanalysis of existing data. The testing process needs to be continued until all feasible hypotheses have been tested and one is determined to be uniquely consistent with the facts and with the principles of science. If no hypothesis can withstand an examination by deductive reasoning, the issue should be considered undetermined.
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The Scientific Method - Testing the hypothesis
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Any hypothesis that is incapable of being tested either physically or analytically, is an invalid hypothesis. A hypothesis developed based on the absence of data is an example of a hypothesis that is incapable of being tested. The inability to refute a hypothesis does not mean that the hypothesis is true.
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Expectation Bias
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Expectation bias is a well-established phenomenon that occurs in scientific analysis when investigator(s) reach a premature conclusion without having examined or considered all of the relevant data. Instead of collecting and examining all of the data in a logical and unbiased manner to reach a scientifically reliable conclusion, the investigator(s) uses the premature determination to dictate investigative processes, analyses, and, ultimately, conclusions, in a way that is not scientifically valid. The introduction of expectation bias into the investigation results in the use of only that data that supports this previously formed conclusion and often results in the misinterpretation and/or the discarding of data that does not support the original opinion. Investigators are strongly cautioned to avoid expectation bias through proper use of the scientific method.
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Confirmation Bias
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Different hypotheses may be compatible with the same data. When using the scientific method, testing of hypotheses should be designed to disprove the hypothesis (falsification of the hypothesis). Confirmation bias occurs when the investigator instead tries to prove the hypothesis. This can result in failure to consider alternate hypotheses, or prematurely discounting seemingly contradictory data without an appropriate assessment. A hypothesis can be said to be valid only when rigorous testing has failed to disprove the hypothesis.
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Administrative Review
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An administrative review is one typically carried out within an organization to ensure that the investigator's work product meets the organization's quality assurance requirements. An administrative reviewer will determine whether all of the steps outlined in an organization's procedure manual, or required by agency policy, have been followed and whether all of the appropriate documentation is present in the file, and may check for typographical or grammatical errors.
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Technical Review
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A technical review can have multiple facets. If a technical reviewer has been asked to critique all aspects of the investigator's work product, then the technical reviewer should be qualified and familiar with all aspects of proper fire investigation and should, at a minimum, have access to all of the documentation available to the investigator whose work is being reviewed. If a technical reviewer has been asked to critique only specific aspects of the investigator's work product, then the technical reviewer should be qualified and familiar with those specific aspects and, at a minimum, have access to all documentation relevant to those aspects. A technical review can serve as an additional test of the various aspects of the investigator's work product.
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Peer Review
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Peer review is a formal procedure generally employed in prepublication review of scientific or technical documents and screening of grant applications by research-sponsoring agencies. Peer review carries with it connotations of both independence and objectivity. Peer reviewers should not have any interest in the outcome of the review. The author does not select the reviewers, and reviews are often conducted anonymously. As such, the term "peer review" should not be applied to reviews of an investigator's work by coworkers, supervisors, or investigators from agencies conducting investigations of the same incident. Such reviews are more appropriately characterized as "technical reviews," as described above.
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Thermal Inertia
answer
During transient heating, a more common condition, the result is changing rates of heat transfer and temperature. During this period, all three properties—thermal conductivity (k), density (ρ), and heat capacity (c) — play a role. Multiplied together as a mathematical product, these properties are called the thermal inertia, kρc, of a material. The thermal inertia of a material is a measure of how easily the surface temperature of the material will increase when heat flows into the material. Low-density materials like polyurethane foam have a low thermal inertia and the surface temperature will increase quickly upon exposure to a heat flux. Conversely, metals have a high thermal inertia due to their high thermal conductivity and high density. As such, when exposed to a flame, the surface temperature of a metal object increases relatively slowly compared to the surface temperature of a plastic or wood object. Table 5.5.2.3 provides data for some common materials at room temperature. Thermal properties are generally a function of temperature.
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Saddle Burns
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A U-shaped burn pattern found on the top of floor joists, caused by fire burning down through the floor. Often, a saddle burn is caused by a burning liquid on the floor or radiant heat from a material close to the floor. Saddle burns display deep charring.
Applied Philosophy
Good Working Order
National League For Nursing
Nurse Practice Acts
Nursing
Nursing-LPN
Patient-Family Centered Care: Maternal/Child Nursing
Primary Care
Privacy And Confidentiality
Advanced Nursing Roles – Flashcards 37 terms

Kevin Stewart
37 terms
Preview
Advanced Nursing Roles – Flashcards
question
What states are responsible for being the first to have advanced practice language in their nurse practice act?
answer
Idaho
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How is the NP role different from PA role?
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PA is a physician extender NP independent
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Who created the 1st NP?
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1965 Loretta Ford/Henry Silver University of Colorado Peds
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What are three major research outcomes NP role should address?
answer
Reimbursements affect on quality of care. DPN on # of APN's/shortage of primary HC. Prescriptive authority affect on pt care.
question
What three major HC system issues can be impacted by NP?
answer
1 Access to care 2 Quality of care 3 Cost of care
question
What issues can impact NP positively or negatively?
answer
DNP Reimbursement Prescriptive authority
question
Who is NONPF and what is their role for APRN's?
answer
National Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculty Help establish domains and competencies for NP's
question
How is PA different from NP?
answer
NP=nursing models independent and depentent PA= regulated by medical practice acts under supervision of a physician
question
What are the three stages of transition from RN to NP?
answer
Identity loss-Novice at one and Expert at another. New skill affect their work. Transitional Role Evolution Phase-Role limbo, feel invisible or inept, peers are very important, leads to resocialization into the new role identity. Incorporation Phase-change in relationships between RN and peers
question
What should a theoretic NP framework be based on?
answer
EBP, research, collaboration, consultation
question
What are the 6 recognized NP roles by the consensus model?
answer
family adult gerontology neonatal pediatrics women's health psychiatric-mental health
question
What percent does medicare/aide reimburse NP?
answer
85% care 92% aide 100% Texas healthy steps
question
CNAP
answer
Coalition for Nurses in Advanced Practice
question
NONPF
answer
National Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculty
question
NAPNAP
answer
National Association of Pediatric Nurse Practitioners: organization for PNP's
question
NANN
answer
National Association of Neonatal Nurses
question
AANP
answer
American Association of Nurse Practitioners
question
ANCC
answer
American Nurses Credentialing Center
question
Tri Council
answer
organized to advance policy at national level
question
AACN
answer
American Association of Critical-Care Nurses
question
TNP
answer
Texas Nurse Practitioner
question
What is specialization of NP role?
answer
intersection of another body of knowledge with NP role that causes specialization
question
What is expansion of NP role?
answer
Often can loose skills due to focused roles.
question
What is the ideal evolution of the APN role?
answer
To have a broad base of theoretical knowledge that expansion or specialization can build from. IE you must know the broadness of your NP role to function in your specialty
question
What are some examples of subspecialty in the NP role?
answer
Diabetes, forensic, palliative care, substance abuse, sexual assault, child abuse
question
What are the three key elements of any healthcare system?
answer
Triangle: Cost Access Quality
question
What drives healthcare change?
answer
Cost Access Quality Fear of government takeover Employers having a hard time paying with increased costs Not enough primary care Not enough people insured
question
HMO
answer
Health maintenance organization Share financial risk between insurer and provider Fixed cost
question
What are the three types of HMO's?
answer
Staff model-provider works for insurance Independent Practice Association-contracts made with providers for services Network-combination Staff and IPA
question
PPO
answer
Preferred provider organization discounted fees for using certain providers on list
question
POS
answer
Point of service plan select provider at time of service, requires a primary provider to refer
question
UR
answer
Utilization Review Company Monitors use of insurance for healthcare
question
EPO
answer
Exclusive Provider Organizations Use one hospital and group of providers, pay out of pocket for going else where
question
Managed Insurance
answer
Rely in UR to manage cost of care, Blue cross Aetna Cigna Kaiser Humana
question
What does LACE stand for?
answer
licensure accreditation certification education
question
What are the three components of the consensus model?
answer
Roles Foci Specialties
question
What are the 6 foci identified by the consensus model?
answer
1. Family/individual across the lifespan 2. Adult gerontology 3. Neonatal 4. Pediatrics 5. Women's health/gender-related 6. Psych/mental health
Good Working Order
Pull Off The Road
Stop And Wait
Driving school: Final Exam – Flashcards 100 terms

Cindy Krause
100 terms
Preview
Driving school: Final Exam – Flashcards
question
You are approaching an intersection with a yield sign you should...
answer
Stop, unless you can enter the intersection safely without interfering with other traffic
question
You intend to turn into a driveway just after an intersection, when should you signal...
answer
As you enter the intersection
question
You must dim your headlights if a car is within...
answer
500 feet of an oncoming vehicle, or within 200 feet of a vehicle traveling ahead of you
question
You come to an intersection and your view to the side is blocked by buildings, you should...
answer
Stop then edge forward slowly until you can see clearly in both directions
question
You have to yield to pedestrian...
answer
Always even if the pedestrian is not obeying traffic controls
question
If there is oncoming traffic on your left and a bike rider on your right you should...
answer
Slow down and let the car pass and then pass the bike
question
If you are driving in the fog, which of the following is most important for deciding how fast you should drive...
answer
How far you can see
question
What must you do if you see or hear an emergency vehicle coming from any direction...
answer
Pull as close as possible to the right side of the road and stop until the vehicle has passed
question
You are approaching a school bus which is picking up and dropping off children, you must...
answer
Remain stop until flashing light stop flashing or the stop sign is folded back
question
What is the rule for checking your car mirrors?
answer
Check several times a minute
question
Which of the following road surfaces freezes first...
answer
A bridge
question
Before pulling out to pass a car, you should...
answer
Check this side mirror, rearview mirror and look over your shoulder
question
Which way should the front wheels of a car be turned when parking downhill with or without a curb...
answer
Toward the curb
question
The right of way law as applied to a four-way intersection states that ...
answer
The vehicle which has entered the intersection first has the right-of-way
question
The first driving ability affected by alcohol is...
answer
Judgment
question
The proper method of approaching for a left turn on a one-way street is...
answer
To do so in the lane of traffic nearest the left-hand side of the roadway and as close as practicable to the left hand curb or edge of the roadway
question
The driver of a vehicle that is being passed by another vehicle must...
answer
Not willfully obstruct the other vehicle, allows the other driver to pass safely
question
Children are at a disadvantage as pedestrians because they are...
answer
Smaller and less visible than adults to drivers; less capable than adults of judging where it is safe to cross the street; less likely to fully understand the consequences of making a bad judgment
question
If you change a flat tire for an undersize of low mileage spare you should drive...
answer
No faster than 15 mph to the nearest repair station
question
A good plan to keep alert on a long trip is to...
answer
Drive in two hour stretches with 15 minute breaks in between
question
Extending your left hand and aiming straight horizontally out the driver side window indicates that you are...
answer
Turning left
question
You see a traffic signal with a flashing red light, you should...
answer
Come to a full stop and proceed when the way is clear
question
You are parking up a hill and there is a curb, how should you place your wheels?
answer
Turn your front wheels out away from the curb
question
You are in the right lane of the freeway, as you come up on an entrance ramp, you can see a car about to enter the freeway the best thing to do is...
answer
Change lanes to the left
question
What is the fundamental speed law?
answer
You must never travel faster than is reasonable and proper for the current conditions in Public Safety
question
If the road is slippery, what following distance should you keep in the car ahead?
answer
Increase the space between you and other vehicles
question
When you enter a crowded freeway from an entrance ramp you should...
answer
Slow down on the ramp to wait for a gap, yield the right away to drivers already on the freeway
question
If your gas pedal sticks, what is the first thing you should do...
answer
Put your car in neutral gear and apply the brakes to slow down, when safe to do so pull your car to the side of the road and bring your vehicle to stop
question
That implied constant law briefly states...
answer
All operators are pledged to drive sub Berley and if arrested in charge of operation under the influence of liquor they must consent into taking a breath test or a pond a refusal to do so please officers are required to take away license on the spot
question
If you are nearing the top of the hill on a 2 Lane Country Rd, as you approach the top of the hill, you should...
answer
Slow down and be ready to stop if needed to do so
question
As a driver, it is your responsibility to drive...
answer
Only when you're able to concentrate
question
What is the legal limit of intoxication?
answer
.08%
question
You must file an accident report when...
answer
The total vehicle damages are $1000 and over, or there are personal injuries involved
question
What can you do to make yourself and others say for a while in your car?
answer
Wear safety belts
question
What does the law say about brakes?
answer
You must have in good working order a foot and hand brake
question
When a driver has the legal right away...
answer
He is not required to proceed and should give up his rights away if it would be dangerous to maintain it
question
What does the law say about driving with a learners permit...
answer
You must be accompanied by a licensed Massachusetts drivers 21 years older and over, who is sitting beside the driver and who has had at least one year of driving experience
question
Who has the right of way at a rotary...
answer
Cars going around the rotary have the right away in may go before cars entering the rotary
question
What is your duty as owner or person in control of the vehicle?
answer
You must be careful about giving your car to someone to drive; you must make sure that this person has a valid drivers license, is competent and has legal authority to drive your car
question
You can manage most potential hazardous driving situations by...
answer
Staying alert
question
If you approach a flashing yellow light posted ahead of the curve you should...
answer
Slow down and stay alert
question
Your lane ends and you have to merge with traffic Adjoining Lane...
answer
You would yield to vehicles passing you
question
Which of the following would justify moving in injured person at a crash site...
answer
Being in the path of oncoming traffic
question
Two solid yellow lines on the roadway indicate that...
answer
No passing is permitted in either direction
question
A driver gathers the most info through...
answer
Vision
question
If you can't stop while approaching a light that turns yellow, you should...
answer
Proceed cautiously
question
Your vehicle should be positioned next to the centerline before you...
answer
Make a left turn from a two-way street
question
If you approach a red arrow, you must...
answer
Stop and wait for the arrow to turn green
question
What is one way to make sure that the other person sees you, as described in the Smith system?
answer
Always drive with your low beam headlights on; tap your brakes to let phone drivers know you are stopping or slowing; signal your intention to turn
question
What is a good example of leaving a way out, as described and smith system?
answer
Position your car so that you have space in one of the lanes next to you and you can move there to avoid a collision
question
The SIPDE process includes...
answer
Searching, identifying, predicting, deciding and executing
question
When you use the Smith system in driving , you...
answer
Get the big picture; keep your eyes moving; make sure others see you
question
In most states, if you violate a traffic light or commit a dangerous at during your in vehicle test...
answer
You will automatically fail
question
When taking the In vehicle test , you should make sure that...
answer
Your radio is off
question
Ideally the in vehicle test should be taken in...
answer
The same vehicle you are practicing
question
If you are not going to take the test in the school driver training car...
answer
You will have to provide the vehicle
question
If you must stop along the roadway to rise, you should...
answer
Try to find a lighted area, then pull over as far off the road as possible; lock all doors but keep the windows open a little; turn on your parking lights but turn off all the accessories
question
In order to control your emotions when driving, you should not...
answer
Expect everybody to know the rules
question
Driver fatigue can be cause do by...
answer
Boredom; overwork; exposure to too much sun
question
The reason that you should turn your engine off if you have to pull over in a rest area for sleep is to...
answer
Prevent carbon monoxide poisoning
question
Drivers who choose to drink should...
answer
ask a nondrinking friend to drive, call a cab or take a bus
question
A false statement about drinking is that...
answer
One or two drinks will affect a persons vision very minimally
question
Regarding alcohol and driving, it is false that...
answer
One or two drinks will not affect one's night vision
question
Alcohol content of a 5 ounce glass of wine, a 12 ounce bottle of beer, or 1 1/2 ounces of whiskey is...
answer
About the same
question
Alcohol is classified as...
answer
A depressant
question
The way to sober up a person who has had too much to drink is too...
answer
Give the alcohol time to wear off
question
A blue sign with white lettering tells you about...
answer
Roadside services
question
If you come to a stop sign and there's no white line on the road, stop at...
answer
Even with a stop sign or just before it
question
A brown sign with white lettering can tell you about...
answer
State parks
question
Traffic that is traveling in the same direction is separated by...
answer
Broken white lines
question
At an intersection with the traffic signal in a police officer directing traffic, you should obey...
answer
The officer
question
The state has the power to...
answer
Issue you a drivers license and suspend your drivers license
question
When driving you must yield too...
answer
Any emergency vehicles with its sirens and emergency lights flashing
question
You should drive slower than the posted speed limit...
answer
In congested traffic, in bad weather and conditions one visibility is poor
question
It is legal to exceed the speed limit...
answer
On no Occasion
question
If you are involved in a collision and nobody appears to be hurt, you should...
answer
Stop immediately and pull your vehicle off the roadway
question
A certificate of title proves...
answer
Who owns the car
question
Maximum and minimum speed limits tell you...
answer
The speed that cannot be exceeded and the minimum speed that you must go
question
The function of a shoulder lap safety belt is...
answer
To reduced by 50% the risk of being killed in a collision; to help you stay in control of the car if you were to swerve or break hard by keeping you close to the steering wheel; to lessen the chance that you will be thrown through the windshield
question
When backing your vehicle...
answer
You look over your shoulder to see where you are going
question
To warn other drivers of a collision you can...
answer
Turn on your four-way flashers; set flares or reflective triangles in front of and behind the closing scene; wave a flashlight or a light colored cloth at oncoming traffic
question
A padded heat restaurant is intended...
answer
To help prevent neck injury when the vehicle is hit from behind
question
If your vehicle has a breakdown and you need to one other drivers that you are parked on the side of the road you should...
answer
Turn on the emergency flashers
question
In accelerating the following general rule applies...
answer
Exceller it gradually and save fuel
question
The amount of foot pressure required to stop a vehicle depends on...
answer
The size and weight of the vehicle; the road surface; the type of brakes on the vehicle
question
After coming to a red light while driving a vehicle with an automatic transmission you...
answer
Leave the vehicle in drive
question
You know that it is illegal to pass another vehicle when...
answer
A warning sign says so; a roadway marking Says so
question
If you are driving on a mountain road behind a truck you need to...
answer
Increase your following distance
question
The first thing to do before changing lanes is too...
answer
Check your mirrors
question
The kind of turned about that you make when there are no driveways, traffic is very light, and the road is narrow and has no outlet is...
answer
The three point turn
question
You should signal for a turn at least...
answer
100 feet in advance of the turn
question
A Driver turning left...
answer
Must yield to cross traffic and to vehicles approaching from the opposite direction
question
When parallel parking you...
answer
Need a space at least 5ft longer than your vehicle
question
To help improve visibility you can...
answer
Clean the outside and inside of all windows; make sure that all of your lights are clean and working; keep sunglasses, A scraper and a flashlight handy
question
Managing space when you drive means managing the distance between your car in the vehicle...
answer
Ahead of you; behind you; to the sides of you
question
When an oncoming vehicles how they try to break you should...
answer
Look at the right edge of traffic lane beyond the the oncoming vehicle
question
Pedestrians jaywalk when they...
answer
Cross the street without regard for traffic rules and signals
question
When waiting at a red signal at an intersection...
answer
Do not start driving until the light turns green and you have looked for pedestrians
question
After passing a truck, you should not pull in closely in front of it because...
answer
You need to have plenty of room between the truck in case you have to hit the brakes
question
At a railroad crossing stop...
answer
No closer than 15 feet from the crossing
Color
Dots Per Inch
Good Working Order
Laser Printer
Pixels Per Inch
UNIT 11 PART TWO – INKJET PRINTERS 19 terms

Tiffany Hanchett
19 terms
Preview
UNIT 11 PART TWO – INKJET PRINTERS
question
Inkjet
answer
type of printer works by ejecting ink through tiny tubes
question
Bubble-jet
answer
A type of sprayed-ink printer. It uses an electric signal that energizes a heating element, causing ink to vaporize and be pushed out of the pinhole and onto the paper
question
Nozzle
answer
component of an inkjet printer sprays ink from the ink reservoir on a paper
question
Print cartridge
answer
a component of an inkjet printer that contains the ink that is deposited onto paper during printing
question
Maintenance station
answer
Provides a zero position for the an ink- or bubble-jet print head and keeps the print nozzles clear between print jobs
question
Head carriage
answer
comparing side to side
question
Stepper motor
answer
The part of a scanner that makes the sensor move and stop
question
Stabilizer bar
answer
A small metal bar on a printer that holds the printer carriage as it crosses the page
question
Pickup roller
answer
A part in a printer that pushes forward a sheet of paper from the paper tray.
question
Separator pad
answer
This works with the pickup roller to ensure that only one piece of paper is picked up at a time.
question
Paper tray
answer
The tray that holds paper until it is fed into a printer.
question
Paper feed sensor
answer
The sensors on the paper feed mechanism that detect when the printer has paper or is out of paper.
question
Calibration
answer
Process of matching the print output of a printer to the visual output of a monitor.
question
Printer driver
answer
A software component that allows an application to interface with the hardware of a printer.
question
Print spooler
answer
A service that formats print jobs in the language that the printer needs.
question
Printer buffer
answer
temporary memory in the printer
question
Cleaning cycle
answer
A set of steps the bubble-jet printer goes through in order to purge the print heads of any dried ink.
question
CMYK
answer
Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, Black
question
Duplexing
answer
printing on both sides of the paper
Good Working Order
Radiation
Radiology
Radiation Protection 82 terms

August Dunbar
82 terms
Preview
Radiation Protection
question
What personnel monitoring device is capable of providing and immediate reading?
answer
Pocket Dosimeter
question
The Geiger counter is capable of detecting which of the following types of radiation? 1. X-rays 2. Gamma rays 3. Beta particles
answer
X-rays, Gamma rays, and Beta particles
question
Which of the following would be considered natural background radiation? 1. x rays 2. cosmic rays 3. alpha rays
answer
Cosmic rays and Alpha particles
question
Which of the following is a radiation survey instrument? 1. gamma camera 2. cutie pie 3. pocket dosimeter 4. Thermoluminescent dosimeter
answer
Cutie Pie
question
Which of the following is the unit of exposure dose of gamma or x-rays? 1. Rad 2. rem 3. RBE 4. Roentgen
answer
Roentgen
question
Which of the following timers is used to accurately and automatically reproduce radiographic exposures? 1. Mechanical timer 2. impulse timer 3. electronic timer 4. phototimer
answer
Phototimer
question
Which of the following radiation monitoring devices is considered to be the most accurate? 1. film badge 2. ring badge 3. optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter 4. thermoluminescent dosimeter
answer
Optically Stimulated Luminescence Dosimeter (OSL)
question
What describes an Alpha Particle?
answer
2 Protons, 2 Neutrons
question
A piece of paper will provide adequate protection from what types of radiation?
answer
Alpha
question
Which of the following types of radiation is most penetrating? 1. Alpha 2. beta 3. gamma 4. all are equally penetrating
answer
Gamma
question
The probability of photoelectric absorption occurring increases with an increase in which of the following? 1. kVp 2. atomic number of material 3. distance from material
answer
Atomic number of material
question
Which of the following is a major advantage of a film badge as a radiation monitoring device? 1. radiation types cannot be determined 2. immediate readings are not available 3. must be changed monthly
answer
Immediate readings are not available
question
What refers to the primary beam after it has passed through the beam restricting device?
answer
Useful beam
question
According to NCRP report #160, how much background radiation do individuals receive annually in the U.S?
answer
3 mSv
question
How often should personnel radiation monitoring devices be changed?
answer
Monthly
question
Which of the following affects the rate of decay of a radioactive material? 1. pressure 2. temperature 3. elevation 4. nothing can affect the rate of decay
answer
Nothing can affect the rate of decay
question
What describes Beta particles?
answer
High speed electron
question
The roentgen unit only applies to which of the following types of radiation? 1. alpha 2. beta 3. x & gamma rays 4. background
answer
X & Gamma rays
question
Which of the following x-ray interactions occurs most often with x-ray energies over 100 KeV? 1. coherent (classical) scatter 2. Compton effect 3. photoelectric absorbtion 1. pair production
answer
Compton effect
question
The density of a film bade is compared to which of these to determine the exposure to the worker? 1. density standard 2. national standard 3. control film badge
answer
Density standard
question
What measurements is equal to 1 joule per kilogram?
answer
Gray
question
The optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter uses which of the following to detect radiation? 1. aluminum oxide 2. silver bromide 3. calcium tungstate
answer
Aluminum oxide
question
Which of the following exposure indicator numbers indicates that the image receptor and patient were overexposed? 1. 2.5 2. 200 3. 400 4. 2000
answer
2.5
question
When should gonadal shielding be used on a patient?
answer
if the patient is of reproductive age or younger, if the shield will not interfere with the exam, and if the gonads lie in or near the primary beam
question
Which type of gonadal shielding could be used for a patient having an exam requiring a sterile field?
answer
Shadow shield
question
Which of the following will reduce exposure to the patient as well as improve image contrast? 1. Beam restriction 2. increase kVp 3. increase grid ratio
answer
Beam Restriction
question
A .5mm lead gonadal shield will reduce female gonadal exposure by approximately what percentage?
answer
75%
question
The dose rate at the table top during fluoroscopy cannot exceed ___R per minute?
answer
10
question
Which of the following types of beam restricting devices is considered the best at reducing patient exposure? 1. cone 2. diaphragm 3. collimator 4. extension cylinder
answer
Extension cylinder
question
To prevent leakage radiation from exposing the patient, an x-ray tube must have how much protective lead?
answer
1.5mm
question
How can a fast film-screen combination reduce patient exposure?
answer
Allows for a reduction in mAs
question
What is the equivalent dose limit for an embryo-fetus?
answer
.5 mSv/month
question
What percentage of the total amount of radiation to the general public is due to medical imaging?
answer
50%
question
Which of the following factors will affect the quantity as well as the quality of the x-ray beam? 1. kVp 2. half value layer 3. SID
answer
kVp, HVL, SID
question
The quality of an x-ray beam can be measured by which of the following methods? 1. Rate meter 2. sensitometry 3. Half value layer
answer
Half-value layer
question
What is the equivalent dose limits for the hands of a technologist?
answer
500 mSv (50 rem)/ Year
question
What is the effective dose limit for the whole body of a radiation worker?
answer
50mSv (5 rem)/ Year
question
Personnel monitoring is required when there is any likelihood that an individual will receive more than ____ the effective dose limit.
answer
1/10th
question
What must the lead equivalency be for a lead apron?
answer
.50 mm Pb
question
What is the effective dose limit a radiography student may receive in one year if he/she is under 18 years old?
answer
1 mSv (.1 rem)
question
To reduce the amount of scatter radiation, which of the following should be done by the radiographer? 1. increase kVp and reduce mAs 2. utilize precise collimation 3. Increase to OID
answer
Utilize precise collimation
question
What is the equivalent does limit to the fetus of a pregnant radiologic technologist?
answer
.5 mSv/month
question
How thick must the lead be in a primary barrier of a radiographic room?
answer
1/16th
question
The lead equivalency for a pair of protective gloves must be at least how much?
answer
.25 mm
question
Primary radiation barriers in walls must be how high?
answer
7 feet
question
Which of the following describes a primary protective barrier? 1. a lead apron 2. a barrier to absorb scatter radiation 3. a barrier to absorb primary radiation
answer
A barrier to absorb primary radiation
question
Mobile protective barriers should NOT be used when making exposures over what kilovoltage?
answer
90 kVp
question
How many times should radiation scatter before reaching behind the control booth or a mobile protective barrier?
answer
two times
question
What percentage of the primary exposure to the patient will reach a radiographer standing 1 meter away?
answer
.1%
question
If an exposure of 16 m R is recorded at 1 meter, what would the exposure rate be at 4 meters?
answer
1 mR
question
Which of the following would never be considered as primary barrier in normal diagnostic range? 1. a wall 2. the floor 3. a ceiling 4. a mobile shield
answer
The ceiling
question
Which of the following are considered extremely sensitive to radiation? 1. gonads 2. lens of the eye 3. blood forming organs
answer
Gonads & Blood forming organs
question
Which of the following is the most common result of cell irradiation? 1. cell death 2. sterilization 3. mutation 4. uncontrolled growth
answer
Sterilization
question
Which of the following are the two bases that are the building blocks of both types of nucleic acids? 1. purines and pyrimidines 2. adenine and thymine 3. adenine and guanine
answer
Purines and Pyrimidines
question
Which of the following pyrimidines will always pair with the purine-adenine? 1. cytosine 2. thymine 3. uracil 4. quanine
answer
Thymine
question
Ionization can result from which of the following interactions of radiation with tissue? 1. photoelectric absorption 2. Compton effect 3. coherent (classical) scatter
answer
Photoelectric absorption and Compton effect
question
Which of the following is considered the unit of heredity? 1. the cell 2. the gene 3. the chromosome 4. the DNA molecule
answer
The Gene
question
Where will most of a cell's genetic information be found?
answer
Nucleus
question
Of the following blood cell producing organs, which are considered radiosensitive? 1. spleen 2. bone marrow 3. lymphatic nodes
answer
Spleen, Bone Marrow, Lymphatic Nodes
question
The probability of radiation interacting with matter depends on which of the following? 1. the charge of the radiation 2. the size of the radiation 3. the energy of the radiation
answer
The charge of the radiation, the size of the radiation, and the energy of the radiation
question
Which of the following is NOT a function of a DNA molecule? 1.it carries the genetic codes 2. it duplicates exact copies of itself 3. it synthesizes proteins 3. it divides during mitosis
answer
It synthesizes proteins
question
What does genetically significant dose mean?
answer
Estimated dose received by the population
question
What is the minimum level of radiation exposure below which no genetic or somatic damage occurs?
answer
No minimum level is known
question
If a human is exposed to radiation levels in the 100R to 200R range, which of the following is expected? 1. no clinical effects 2. slight reduction in lymphocytes 3. complete recovery in 90 days 4. death within 30 days
answer
Complete recovery in 90 days
question
Why is radiation exposure to the gonads such a critical concern?
answer
Mutations in offspring may result
question
According to NCRP report #160, what percentage of the total amount of radiation to the general population comes from background radiation?
answer
50%
question
Which of the following publications recommends limits of exposure to ionizing radiation? 1. NCRP report # 100 2. NCRP report #102 3. NCRP report #105 4. NCRP report #116
answer
NCRP Report # 116
question
Standards state the exposure in air from fluoroscopic equipment shall NOT exceed how many Coulomb/kg/minute?
answer
2.58 X 10-3 Coulomb/kg (10 R)
question
Which of the following are NOT required on newly manufactured radiographic equipment? 1. AEC 2.computerized technique selections 3. automatic collimators
answer
Automatic exposure control (AEC), Computerized technique selections, and Automatic Collimators.
question
Which of the following devices alerts the radiologist that 5 minutes of fluoroscopy has elapsed? 1. Phototimer 2. cumulative timer 3. synchronous timer 4. mechanical timer
answer
Cumulative timer
question
Personnel monitoring shall be performed if there is a possibility of exceeding how many milisievert (rem) per year?
answer
5.0 mSv (.50 rem)
question
Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube cannot exceed which of the following at a distance of one meter? 1. 6.45 X 10-6 coulomb/kg/hr (25mR/hr) 2. 1.29 X 10-5 coulomb/kg/hr (50 mR/hr) 3. 1.94 X 10-5 coulomb/kg/hr (75mR/hr) 4. 2.58 X 10-5 coulomb/kg/hr (100 mR/hr)
answer
2.58 X 10-5 Coulomb/kg/hr (100 mR/hr)
question
Which of the following publications contains the regulations for using x rays up to 50 MeV? 1. NCRP report #99 2. NCRP report #100 3. NCRP report #102 4. NCRP report #105
answer
NCRP report #102
question
Which of the following government agencies is responsible for governing the use of radiation? 1. health education and welfare 2. food and drug administration 3. nuclear regulatory commission 4. environmental protection agency
answer
Food and Drug Administration
question
The source-to-skin distance for stationary fluoroscopy must NOT be less than how many inches?
answer
15 inches
question
The source-to-skin distance for mobile fluoroscopy must NOT be less than how many inches?
answer
12 inches
question
What is the effective dose limit a radiation worker may receive to his/her whole body in one year?
answer
50 mSv (50. Rem)
question
A \"Radiation Area\" warning sign must be visible in areas where the exposure rate exceeds which of these? 1. .05 mSv/hr (5 mrem/hr) 2. .10 mSv/hr (10 mrem/hr) 3. .15 mSv/hr (15 mrem/hr)
answer
.05 mSv/hr (5 mrem/hr)
question
Which of the following is a responsibility of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission? 1. set x-ray manufacturing standards 2. police manufacturing standards 3. police the field of nuclear medicine
answer
set x ray manufacturing standards, police manufacturing standards, police the field of nuclear medicine
question
Which of the following topics is covered in NCRP #102? 1. equipment design 2. personnel monitoring 3. radiation survey procedures
answer
Equipment design and use, personnel monitoring and Radiation survey procedures.
question
Mobile fluoroscopic equipment must have which of the following? 1. VCR capabilities 2. image intensification 3. T.V monitoring 4. Solid state circuitry
answer
Image intensification
question
A recommendation that is necessary to meet accepted standards is indicated by the use of which term?
answer
Shall
Dots Per Inch
Good Working Order
Material Safety Data Sheet
CINS 220 – Chapter 27 39 terms

Deloris Connelly
39 terms
Preview
CINS 220 – Chapter 27
question
What kind of printer creates an image on paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper's surface? A. Laser B. Dot-matrix C. Thermal D. Impact
answer
D. Impact
question
What kind of printer is used with multipart forms such as those with point of sale machines? A. Dot-matrix B. Daisy-wheel C. Inkjet D. Color
answer
A. Dot-matrix
question
What kind of printer uses a grid of tiny pins, also known as printwires, to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper? A. Dot-matrix B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal
answer
A. Dot-matrix
question
What are 9-pin dot-matrix printers generically called? A. Economy quality B. Near-letter quality C. Draft quality D. Letter quality
answer
C. Draft quality
question
What type of printer works by ejecting ink through tiny tubes? A. Laser B. Inkjet C. Dot-matrix D. Impact
answer
B. Inkjet
question
What element is heated by tiny resistors or electroconductive plates at the end of each tube in an inkjet printer? A. Ink B. Toner C. Toner powder D. Nozzle
answer
A. Ink
question
The term sublimation means to cause something to change from a solid into a _______________ form and then back into a solid. A. vapor B. viscous C. liquid D. crystal
answer
A. vapor
question
The dye-sublimation printing technique is an example of what method of color printing? A. PPM B. RGB C. CMYK D. LEDS
answer
C. CMYK
question
How are dots put onto the surface of paper from a direct thermal printer? A. Through spraying B. By etching C. Through embedding D. By burning
answer
D. By burning
question
When a thermal printhead passes over the film ribbon, what melts onto the paper? A. Wax B. Toner C. Dye D. Ink
answer
A. Wax
question
What kind of printer relies on a photoconductive process? A. Dot-matrix B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal
answer
C. Laser
question
Laser printers usually use a laser as the light source because of their _______________. A. intensity B. brightness C. precision D. cost-effectiveness
answer
C. precision
question
Laser printers are particularly effective for printing _______________. A. spot color B. full-color images C. complex images D. 256-bit color
answer
B. full-color images
question
During the laser printer process, after the erase lamp exposes the entire surface of the photosensitive drum to light, what happens to the photosensitive coating? A. It becomes bright. B. It becomes electrically charged. C. It becomes conductive. D. It becomes nonconductive.
answer
C. It becomes conductive.
question
What does the primary corona wire charge? A. The fuser assembly B. The paper C. The toner D. The drum
answer
D. The drum
question
The toner in a laser printer is a fine powder. This powder is made up of plastic particles bonded to _______________ particles. A. nickel B. polyester C. aluminum D. pigment
answer
C. aluminum
question
In laser printers, what component applies a positive charge to the paper, drawing the negatively charged toner particles to the paper? A. Transfer corona B. Turning gears C. Laser D. Toner
answer
A. Transfer corona
question
What charges the paper in a laser printer? A. Primary corona B. Transfer corona C. Fuser assembly D. Laser
answer
B. Transfer corona
question
The fuser assembly in a laser printer is almost always separate from the _______________. A. laser head B. gearbox C. drum D. toner cartridge
answer
D. toner cartridge
question
In a laser printer, the _______________ uses friction to isolate a single sheet any others that were picked up. A. duplexing assembly B. separation pad C. transfer roller D. gearbox
answer
...
question
In a laser printer, the pressure roller and heated roller are used to _______________. A. melt the toner to the paper B. fuse the toner to the paper C. burn the toner to the paper D. apply the toner to the paper
answer
B. fuse the toner to the paper
question
What needs to be vacuumed or replaced periodically in a laser printer? A. Ozone filter B. Drum C. Toner cartridge D. Powder
answer
A. Ozone filter
question
The Hewlett-Packard system for controlling printers is _______________. A. PCL B. PostScript C. ASCII D. Unicode
answer
...
question
Most printers, scanner, and multifunction devices connect to a computer via a _______________. A. proxy server B. FireWire port C. Ethernet cable D. USB port
answer
D. USB port
question
Which printer transfers data to the printer one character or one line at a time? A. Impact B. Laser C. Dye-sublimation D. Thermal
answer
A. Impact
question
A laser printer creates an image of dots and holds it in memory before printing it. What is this image of dots called? A. Raster image B. Laser image C. Vector image D. High-resolution image
answer
A. Raster image
question
What kind of chip is used by a laser printer to translate the raster image sent to the printer into commands for the laser? A. RAM B. RIP C. ROM D. UART
answer
B. RIP
question
What should be added to a laser printer to resolve a memory overflow problem? A. RET B. RIP C. ROM D. RAM
answer
D. RAM
question
How is laser printer resolution measured? A. Color per inch B. Dots per inch C. Pixels per inch D. Bits per inch
answer
B. Dots per inch
question
In a laser printer, what must be done to the drum to make it receptive to new images? A. It must be sterilized and decontaminated. B. It must be grounded and fully discharged. C. It must be charged with a uniform positive charge. D. It must be charged with a uniform negative charge
answer
D. It must be charged with a uniform negative charge
question
In a laser printer, what component is used to write a positive image on the surface of the drum? A. Toner B. Marker C. Laser D. Head
answer
C. Laser
question
Toner particles are composed mostly of _______________, which allows them to be melted to the page. A. carbon B. power C. plastic D. Teflon
answer
C. plastic
question
At the end of the laser printing process, what is cleaned? A. Toner B. Laser head C. Photosensitive drum D. Power unit
answer
C. Photosensitive drum
question
What causes an unwanted mark (ghosting) to appear on printed pages? A. A damaged laser B. A damaged toner C. A damaged head D. A damaged drum
answer
D. A damaged drum
question
What Control Panel applet is used to manage printers and faxes in Windows 7? A. Devices and Printers B. Hardware C. Printers and Faxes D. Printers and Hardware
answer
D. Printers and Hardware
question
Assuming a printer is in good working order and online, what should you check next if nothing prints? A. Calibration B. Port settings C. Printer emulation D. Print spooler
answer
D. Print spooler
question
You are printing from a dot-matrix printer and notice that the characters look chopped off at the top. What should you try adjusting? A. Toner B. Driver C. Cartridge D. Drum
answer
B. Driver
question
What should you do if your dot-matrix printer output is covered with dots and small smudges? A. Replace the drum. B. Clean the platen. C. Clean the printhead. D. Replace the cartridge.
answer
B. Clean the platen.
question
What kind of printers tend to have problems with ink drying out inside the nozzles when the printer is not used for a period? A. Color B. Laser C. Inkjet D. Dot-matrix
answer
C. Inkjet
Computer Programming
Dots Per Inch
Good Working Order
Pixels Per Inch
Chapter 28 Printers test A+ 26 terms

Josephine Mack
26 terms
Preview
Chapter 28 Printers test A+
question
What kind of printer creates an image on paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper's surface?
answer
Impact
question
What are 9-pin dot-matrix printers generically called?
answer
Draft
question
In laser printers, what component applies a positive charge to the paper, drawing the negatively charged toner particles to the paper?
answer
Transfer corona
question
You are printing from a dot-matrix printer and notice the characters look chopped off at the top. What should you try adjusting?
answer
Printhead
question
What is heated by tiny resistors or electroconductive plates at the end of each tube in an inkjet printer?
answer
Ink
question
The term sublimation means to cause something to change from a solid into a(n) ____ form and then back into a solid.
answer
vapor
question
The dye-sublimation printing technique is an example of what method of color printing?
answer
CMYK
question
How are dots put onto the surface of paper from a direct thermal printer?
answer
Burned
question
When a thermal printhead passes over the film ribbon, what melts onto the paper?
answer
Wax
question
What kind of printer relies on a photoconductive process?
answer
Laser
question
What does the primary corona wire charge?
answer
Drum
question
In a laser printer, what are the pressure roller and heated roller used for?
answer
To fuse the toner to the paper
question
At the end of the laser printing process, what is cleaned?
answer
Photosensitive drum
question
What causes dark ghosting on printed pages?
answer
A damaged drum
question
In a laser printer, what must be done to the drum to make it receptive to new images?
answer
Charged
question
In a laser printer, what is used to write a positive image on the surface of the drum?
answer
Laser
question
Toner particles are composed mostly of ____, allowing them to be melted to the page.
answer
plastic
question
What kind of printout usually results from an empty toner cartridge?
answer
Blank
question
What is the fuser assembly in a laser printer almost always separate from?
answer
Toner cartridge
question
What charges the paper in a laser printer?
answer
Primary corona
question
What should be added to a laser printer to resolve a memory overflow problem?
answer
RAM
question
What needs to be vacuumed or replaced periodically in a laser printer?
answer
Ozone filter
question
Which of the following printers transfer data to the printer one character or one line at a time?
answer
Impact
question
What's the standard that defines backward-compatible, high-speed, bidirectional parallel ports?
answer
IEEE 1284
question
A standard parallel cable used for older printers has a DB-25 connector on one end. What type of connector is on the other end?
answer
Centronics
question
Assuming a printer is in good working order and online, what should you check next if nothing prints?
answer
Print spooler
Color
Good Working Order
Laser Printer
A + Chapter 22 Printers 31 terms

William Hopper
31 terms
Preview
A + Chapter 22 Printers
question
This type of printer Physically strikes an inked ribbon against the surface of the paper
answer
Impact printers
question
This type of printer Uses an array of pins known as print wires to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images
answer
Dot-matrix printers
question
This type of printer Works by ejecting ink through tiny tubes
answer
Inkjet printers
question
This type of printer Uses a heated printhead to burn dots into the surface of special heat-sensitive paper
answer
Direct thermal
question
Uses film coated with colored wax that gets melted onto page
answer
Thermal wax transfer
question
This type of printer uses a mechanism called electro-photographic imaging
answer
Laser printers
question
This type of printer uses sublimation Sublimation causes something to change from a solid form into a vapor
answer
Dye-sublimation printers (or thermal dye transfer printers)
question
Printers that need a special paper
answer
Dye-sublimation printers (or thermal dye transfer printers) Thermal Printers: Direct Thermal
question
What is the CMYK method of printing
answer
Uses these colors Cyan, magenta, yellow, black
question
To fix the alignment issue, you need to adjust the ............ registration
answer
color
question
Creates a uniform negativecharge in laser printing
answer
Primary Corona
question
Acts as the writing mechanism of the printer Discharges areas on drum to negative
answer
Laser
question
Exposes the entire surface of the photosensitive drum to light,draining any electrical charge
answer
Erase Lamp
question
Aluminium cylinder coated with particles of photosensitive compounds
answer
Photosensitive Drum
question
Applies a positive charge to the paper Toner jumps
answer
Transfer corona
question
Attaches the toner permanently to the paper using a pressure roller and heated roller
answer
Fuser assembly
question
What is not located insside a Laser printer cartridge
answer
Fuser assembly
question
The high voltage power supply provides power to the ............... corona
answer
Primary
question
What cable do you need for bi-directional printing
answer
IEEE 1284 cable
question
How do you start or stop the print spooler from the command line interface CLI ( the command)
answer
net stop spooler (to stop) net start spooler (to start)
question
What is the print device
answer
It is the device that physically does the printing
question
Enables the printer to insert smaller dots among the characters to smooth out jagged curves
answer
Resolution Enhancement Technology (RET)
question
This chip translates the raster image into commands for the laser printer
answer
raster image processor (RIP)
question
The first number is the horizontal resolution indicates ...
answer
—how fine a focus can be achieved by the laser
question
The second number is the vertical resolution idicates
answer
the smallest increment by which the drum can be turned
question
The default windows port for connecting a printer is ......
answer
LPT1
question
If the printout does not match screen colors you should adjust the printer.....T or F
answer
False adjust the monitor
question
Laser printers should only be used with .............. switch boxes
answer
electronic
question
After doing preventative maintenance on a laser printer you should ............ the page count.
answer
reset
question
First thing... When you arrive at site and you want to see how the printer is malfunctioning
answer
Print a Test Page
question
Last thing... When you have completed working on a customer's printer and you want to ensure that everything works correctly
answer
Print a Test Page
Business
Conducting
Good Working Order
Low Beam Headlights
Months
Rear View Mirror
PA State Auto Inspection 100 terms

James Storer
100 terms
Preview
PA State Auto Inspection
question
Stickers shall be kept where?
answer
Kept under lock and key in a safe place
question
What is done with any unused stickers?
answer
Keep them until the QAO comes around. You get a 75% refund on unused stickers.
question
First offense of faulty inspection and improper inspection?
answer
Category 1 violation. 2 months suspension.
question
When checking registration or VIN what do we look for, and what if there's a problem?
answer
VIN number and license plate must agree with registration card. Allowed to have one number off or two numbers transposed (out of order) if the owner proves forms have been sent to Penn DOT. VIN plate can't be loose, defaced, or missing. If there is a problem owner must get a corrected registration or show that proper forms have been sent to Penn DOT.
question
What do you check glazing for?
answer
Approved safety glass must be in every window and it must be permanently labeled. See Appendix C(f) Non transparent material or glass etchings may not obstructs the drivers view and may not be higher than 3-1/2 inches from the bottom of any side or rear window. Glass may not be shattered, broken or have sharp edges. No defects in the acute area or the critical area or the windshield. Louvers can't obstruct driver's vision. Dual side mirrors are required when using sunscreen or louvers.
question
What area of the windshield can there be no imperfections?
answer
The acute area. (8-1/2 X 5-1/2)
question
List all the ways to check the wipers.
answer
Speed at manufactures specs or at least 45 cycles per minute Blades can't be torn or smear or streak after 5 cycles. Must have all wipers Wipers must reset to rest position. Washer system working on cars/light trucks newer than 1968.
question
What do you check the doors and trunk lid for?
answer
Must be original equipment or same type. Must close securely.
question
List all the ways to check mirrors.
answer
Mirrors can't be cracked, discolored or broken., Mirrors must hold adjustment. Can't be loose. Cars with louvers and sunscreens must have 2 outside mirrors (19-1/2 square inches each). No junk hanging from rear view mirror.
question
What's the rule for fender flares?
answer
May not exceed 3 inches.
question
What do you check floor for?
answer
Must be able to support weight of people and cargo. No holes allowed.
question
What is the bumper height for a car and a truck.
answer
Must be as strong as and no longer than original bumper. Can't be broken or torn. Wood planks on service trucks (wreckers) only. Height- passenger vehicles 16-20 inches above ground MPVs, SUV's and light trucks 16-30 inches above ground.
question
Turn signals should have a frequency of flash between __________ flashes per minute.
answer
60 - 120 flashes per minute.
question
What are the guidelines for back up lights?
answer
Must turn off when not in reverse OR have a dash indicator light or audible warning.
question
What are the guidelines for broken lenses?
answer
Will not pass if white light shows through.
question
List three reasons for rejecting shocks.
answer
Missing shocks Mounts or mounting bolts broken Severe leakage. Slight dampness OK
question
What's the minimum steering wheel size?
answer
13 inches
question
The horn should be heard at least ________feet away.
answer
200 feet
question
What do we look for when checking the brake pedal?
answer
Can't go down more than 80% of total travel. Can't fade when vehicle is stopped. (bleed by in master cylinder) No excessive friction in linkage. Can't be missing the rubber pedal pad.
question
What's the min. brake specs for Bonded?_______Riveted?_________
answer
Bonded 2/32 Riveted 1/32
question
What do we check brake hoses for?
answer
Make sure they aren't disconnected, don't leak, flattened or Restricted, dry rot (cord showing)
question
List the items for interior inspection.
answer
Steering wheel free play Steering gear box Steering column Proper size steering wheel Proper turning Flexible steering coupler Indicator lamps for high beam, turn signals. Horn- must be stock type Brake pedal travel Brake pedal fade Brake pedal linkage Brake pedal pad Seats- DRIVERS seat and back must be firmly attached No springs sticking out of DRIVER'S seat Seat adjustment must work Seat belts in good condition ( if originally equipped) Rear view mirror- no cracks or discoloration Rear view mirror- must hold adjustment. No junk hanging on it.
question
Describe steering \"Lock to Lock\"
answer
Turning the front wheels as far as they go from one side to the other. \"Stop to Stop\"
question
Describe the \"1/4 inch Play Test\"
answer
Used to check tightness of steering linkage and gearbox. Raise front wheels off the ground. Have someone hold on the brakes to eliminate bearing play. Wiggle the front tires. No more than 1/4 play allowed measured at the outside of the tire.
question
What do we check motor mounts for?
answer
Reject if broken.
question
List all items for under hood inspection.
answer
Hood latch in good working order. Must be double latched. Check motor mounts No fuel leaks No loose fuel lines Fuel tanks and lines must be OEM or equal to. No fuels lines touching hot or moving surfaces. No fuel system parts inside the car. Alternate fuel systems (propane) must meet code standards. Throttle must work properly No holes or cracks in firewall No exhaust leaks No master cylinder leaks No brake lines, flattened, disconnected, restricted or leaking. Booster for power brakes must be working properly Battery must be securely fastened.
question
What are the minimum requirements for tire tread?
answer
No less then 2/32 on any two adjacent treads (side by side) No less than 4/32 on vehicles with 10,000 GW No wear down to the tread wear indicators on two adjacent treads No exposed cord No repairs with blow out patches or boots. No regrooving below original tread depth. No retreads on the front of a taxi.
question
29. Describe how to unload and check ball joints?
answer
conventional & modified McPherson strut Jack up tire under the A frame close as possible to the ball joint. McPherson Jack up under the frame or body. Lift wheel up and down with pry bar. check for movement in the ball joints. Use dial indicator for exact amount of play.
question
Studded snow tires are legal between what two dates?
answer
November 1st to April 15th
question
Describe the procedure for checking exhaust.
answer
Must have muffler with no external repairs. No loose or leaking joints or seams No holes or cracks in systems No cutouts No part of system in passenger compartment Must have proper clamps and hangers Original heats shields must be in place. must discharge to outside edge of vehicle. Loud exhaust must meet requirements of Chapter 157 Headers and side pipes OK. Fire equipment exempt from these regulations.
question
What is the most an unmarked drum can be machined?
answer
.090\" over original diameter.
question
What is the deepest a groove can be in a drum or rotor?
answer
.015\"
question
. Can a ply be broken on a leaf spring?
answer
Yes. MAIN leaf may not be broken.
question
What do we check inside the trunk for?
answer
No holes in floor bed or inner panels Floor strong enough to hold cargo.
question
How do we check the emergency brake?
answer
Brakes must set before pedal travels it's limit. Brakes must exhibit resistance when you try to move the car.
question
Acute area
answer
The part of the windshield 8-1/2 inches wide by 5-1/2 inches high directly in front of the driver's line of vision.
question
Critical area
answer
The part of the windshield that the wipers sweep.
question
Fleet inspection station
answer
A station certificate to inspect all types of vehicles leased or owned by the person that has the station certificate. Must have at least 15 vehicles.
question
GVWR
answer
The loaded weight of a single vehicle as specified on the Federal weight certification label attached to the vehicle. ( DIFFERENT THAN (GW) GROSS WEIGHT )
question
Light truck
answer
Registered gross weight of 11,000 lbs or less.
question
Medium truck .
answer
Registered gross weight from 11,001 to 17,000 lbs inclusive
question
Heavy truck
answer
Registered gross weight in excess of 17,000 lbs.
question
Safety insert tab
answer
The numbers applied to the inspection sticker (safety certificate of inspection) that show when the sticker expires.
question
Passenger vehicle
answer
Motor vehicle (except a motor cycle) designed to carry 15 passengers or less. Primarily used for transporting people. A bus is a vehicle designed to carry 16 or more passengers (including the driver)
question
Certificate of inspection
answer
Inspection sticker
question
MV 431
answer
Use MV-480 for motorcycles, mopeds, and trailers. Inspection report sheet for all motor vehicles EXCEPT motor cycles and motor driven cycles. (mopeds 5 H.P. or less)
question
Annually
answer
Once a year (12 months)
question
Semi annually
answer
Twice a year (6 months)
question
What must you or the station owner do when you start at a new place? of employment?
answer
Notification must be given to the quality assurance officer and the Vehicle Control Division. Your name must be placed on Form TS-443 (listing of mechanics)
question
Stipulation for fog lamps.
answer
May be used only with low beam headlights.
question
Stipulation for driving lamps
answer
May be used only with high beam headlights.
question
Foreign vehicle
answer
Any vehicle not registered in Pennsylvania.
question
How can we tell if a vehicle is from an emission inspection area?
answer
Look for the emissions insert on the inspection sticker or a emissions inspection sticker. Look for the IM on the registration card.
question
If a vehicle is from an emission area, what is our responsibility when inspecting the vehicle?
answer
When placing the inspection sticker on the vehicle we must use an emissions insert.
question
. Name the 3 types of vehicles we check \"scrub\" line on.
answer
Street Rods Specially Constructed Vehicles Reconstructed Vehicles.
question
List the types of hammers required for the inspection station.
answer
Ball-peen Plastic or Brass Rubber
question
An inspection station must be open for a minimum of ______ hours.
answer
40 hours per day unless you get a waiver from the Bureau.
question
If an inspection station is open on Saturday for fuel and service only must an inspection mechanic be on duty?
answer
NO- only during normal business hours (7:00 - 5:00 Mon-Fri)
question
Is the inspection fee for a vehicle that fails the same as for a vehicle that passes?
answer
Yes- Pass or Fail: Same price.
question
Is the price of the sticker included in the fee for inspection?
answer
NO- the price of the sticker is separate. Must have a sign listing them separately.
question
How many stations can a technician be registered at?
answer
As many as he/she wants to as long as they notify the inspection supervisor and the Vehicle Control Division of the Names and station numbers of the places they are working.
question
What is the minimum age of the inspection mechanic?
answer
18
question
What two documents must a mechanic carry when performing an inspection?
answer
Driver's License and Mechanic Card
question
Must the inspection technician be re certified and if so how often?
answer
Yes - Every 3 years.
question
How many days does a mechanic have to take his recertification test? after being notified it's due to expire?
answer
180 days.
question
What is the meaning of 20-20-12?
answer
A passenger vehicle going 20 MPH must stop within 20 feet without swerving outside of a 12 foot wide lane.
question
To inspect a motorcycle does the inspection mechanic need a motor cycle license?
answer
YES
question
. What 5 items must be marked on the back of the certificates of inspection?
answer
(stickers) Expiration date, VIN, Date of inspection, Brakes inspected, Signature
question
Is a new Certificate of Appointment needed if you move your business to a different building?
answer
YES - and you may not do any inspections until then.
question
What must be done if certificates of inspection are stolen?
answer
You must report it at once to the quality assurance officer.
question
If you replace any parts on a customer's vehicle what must you do with the old parts.
answer
Retain them until the vehicle is returned to the customer in case they want to see the old parts.
question
What could happen if you perform repairs on a vehicle without the owner's authorization?
answer
4 months suspension 1st violation, 6 months-2ed, 1 year- 3rd
question
If Bonded brakes measure 3/32 what is the inspection mechanic required to do?
answer
Pass them BUT inform the owner in writing on the work order that they may become dangerous.
question
Are utility trailers and recreational trailers recorded on the same report sheets?
answer
NO- use separate MV-480 forms
question
. May a motorcycle inspection certificate be placed on the left front fork?
answer
YES or left front fender or plate mounted on left side.
question
Should inspection stickers for trailers be placed on the left-front-side OR the left-front-nose of the trailer?
answer
Left-front- SIDE.
question
. How long is the first violation suspension for putting a sticker on a car without inspecting it?
answer
1 year
question
What should you do when removing inspection stickers from vehicles? with plastic inner liners?
answer
Use a stiff plastic scraper instead of a metal one or razor blade.
question
How long do we keep a copy of the MV-431 inspection records?
answer
2 years
question
Must work orders be retained for two years?
answer
Only if someone other than the mechanic fills out the inspection record. The mechanic must sign the work order.
question
. If a vehicle passes inspection can we affix the sticker outside of the inspection area?
answer
YES. Within 100 feet of the station as long as it's on station property and the same side of the street.
question
What must be 24\" high and 21\" wide?
answer
The inspection station sign outside the garage.
question
. How often do we inspect the following? 1. Antique vehicles 2. Trailers under 3,000 lbs. registered GVW 3. Fire trucks 4. Ambulances 5. Trailers over 10,000 lbs. registered GVW 6. School busses
answer
A. Antique vehicles -Not required B. Trailers under 3,000 lbs. registered GVW -Not required C. Fire trucks -Annually D. Ambulances -Annually E. Trailers over 10,000 lbs. registered GVW -Semi-annually F. School busses -Semi-annually
question
How often should a 12 passenger school van be inspected?
answer
Semi Annually for any school vehicle that carries students including cars.
question
If you were to purchase a new vehicle with an expired inspection sticker, how many days do you have to get it inspected?
answer
10
question
Can you inspect a vehicle registered in another state?
answer
Yes but not required. Sticker optional
question
What certificates must be displayed at the inspection station?
answer
Certificate of appointment A fee chart for inspections Form TS-443 listing the inspections mechanics. Your outside inspection station sign.
question
What are the minimum sizes of inspection areas for the following?
answer
A. Mechanical aimers - 12' wide by 22' long B. Approved headlamp aiming screen - 12' wide by 43' long
question
Can we use old discontinued head light aimers?
answer
Yes, as longs as they are in good working order and able to test all types of headlights.
question
. What is the maximum floor slope in the inspection area?
answer
1 percent.
question
How many vehicles can you inspect in one hour?
answer
2 ( motorcycles -3)
question
Is a hoist of lift permitted in the inspection area?
answer
Yes, as long as it doesn't interfere with the inspection.
question
What is the least amount of time and the most amount of time an inspection is good for?
answer
6 months to 15 months.
question
What determines when a vehicle is due for inspection?
answer
The month the vehicles registration renews.
question
Describe the procedure when a customer comes in to get a replacement sticker because the windshield was just replaced.
answer
Up to 5 days to come in for a new sticker. Customer must hand in the section of glass with old sticker on it. Old sticker must be saved for the inspection station supervisor. You don't have to re-inspect the vehicle. You may charge no more than $2.00 for the new sticker Record information from old sticker onto the MV-431. Mark \"replacement\" on the MV-431 & on the back of the new sticker. Refuse to issue a new sticker if the car is obviously unsafe.
question
How much is the wheel base allowed to differ from one side of the vehicle to the other?
answer
No more than 1 inch.
question
Is riveted brake lining measured from the shoe or the rivet head?
answer
From the rivet head.
question
Name two vehicles that do not have to have odometers.
answer
Vehicles at least 25 years old. Vehicles over 17,000 RGW.
question
Explain the difference between GVWR and RGW
answer
GVWR- Gross Vehicle Weight Rating- the limit set by the manufacturer and labeled on the vehicle. RGW- Registered Gross Weight - How much the vehicle is licensed to carry on the registration card.
question
May a vehicle pass inspection if it has no hazard warning lamps?
answer
Only if they were not included as original equipment.
Care And Concern
Good Working Order
Health Psychology
stress management 22 terms

Steven Colyer
22 terms
Preview
stress management
question
stress
answer
The physiological response that is activated when the mind perceives a threat, a demand made upon the adaptive capacities of the mind and body.
question
yerkes-dodson principle
answer
A tenet holding that a certain amount of stress is healthy, useful, and even beneficial, but when stress exceeds one's ability to cope, the overload contributes to diminished performance, inefficiency, and even health problems.
question
eustress
answer
A positive stress that energizes a person and helps a person reach a goal
question
distress
answer
The negative effects of stress that drain us of energy and surpass our capacity to cope.
question
acute stress
answer
stress that results from short-term stressors
question
holistic health
answer
a view of health that encompasses physical, intellectual, emotional and social dimensions
question
chronic stress
answer
Continuing stress provoked by unrelenting demands and pressures that go on for an extended time.
question
student stress scale
answer
Assessment tool, which measures the amount of change a person was required to adapt to in the previous year, is an adaptation for college students of the Life Events Scale developed by Holmes and Rahe.
question
stress vulnerability questionnaire
answer
Self-assessment that looks at the ways physical, emotional, social, spiritual, and social factors affect one's vulnerability to stress.
question
cognitive restructuring
answer
changing the meaning or interpretation of stressors
question
self-limiting beliefs
answer
Faulty notion that one does not have the ability to carry out specific tasks
question
social support
answer
The individual's knowledge or belief that he or she is cared for and loved, belongs to a network of communication, and has a mutual obligation with others in the network.
question
effortless effort
answer
A tensionless attempt to allow sensations to happen based on an attitude of passive alertness
question
mantra
answer
A repeated word, a sound, or a phrase used as a point of focus during meditation
question
breath counting meditation
answer
A type of meditation that uses a patterned breathing as the primary point of focus.
question
imagery
answer
A flow of thoughts that includes sensory qualities from one or more of the senses
question
passive alertness
answer
A state of mind, during relaxation technique practice, that is relaxed, nonstriving, and unconcerned with the end product
question
lifebalance
answer
A healthy time-management method that promotes purposeful planning combined with going with the flow.
question
detached observation
answer
Observing without judgment or expectations.
question
urgent
answer
Describes things that demand our immediate attention
question
time management
answer
The art or manner of controlling the sequence of events in life.
question
mindfulness self-efficacy
answer
the level of confidence a person must have to maintain nonjudgemental awareness
Electrical Engineering
Good Working Order
Pounds Per Square Inch
S13 standpipe test 85 terms

William Hopper
85 terms
Preview
S13 standpipe test
question
Automatic Standpipe System
answer
A standpipe system that is attached to a water supply capable of supplying the system demand at all times and that requires no action other than opening a hose valve to provide water at hose connections.
question
Auxiliary water supply
answer
supplementary source of water for a standpipe and/or sprinkler system.
question
Control Valve
answer
A valve controlling flow to water-based fire protection systems. Control valves do not include hose valves, inspector's test valves, drain valves, trim valves for dry pipe, pre-action and deluge valves, check valves, or relief valves.
question
Branch line
answer
A pipe system, generally in a horizontal plane, connecting not more than one hose connection with a standpipe.
question
Deficiency
answer
A condition in which the application of the component is not within its designed limits or specifications.
question
Fire Hose Outlet and Release Rack
answer
A water supply control valve intended to be operated by actuation of an automatic detection system that is installed in the same area as the discharge devices. Each deluge valve is intended to be capable of automatic and manual operation. Deluge systems are suitable for hazardous occupancies. This includes buildings in which flammable liquids or other hazardous materials are handled or stored.
question
Discharge Device
answer
A device designed to discharge water or foam-water solution in a predetermined, fixed, or adjustable pattern. Examples include, but are not limited to, sprinklers, spray nozzles, and hose nozzles.
question
Dry Standpipe
answer
A standpipe system designed to have piping contain water only when the system is being utilized (No automatic water supply.)
question
Dunnage
answer
Rooftop dunnage involves designing a raised series of beams (usually steel) bearing on posts or bearing walls to support mechanical equipment (usually on a roof top).
question
Fire Department Connection
answer
A connection , normally on the exterior of the building, through which the fire department can pump supplemental water into the sprinkler system, standpipe, or other system furnishing water for fire extinguishment to supplement existing water supplies. (Formerly know as Siamese connection.)
question
Fire Hose
answer
A flexible conduit constructed with one or more reinforcements (Jackets), with or without a coating or covering but with an approved nonpermeable lining, or with an inner reinforcement between a protective cover and an approved nonpermeable lining.
question
Fire Hydrant
answer
A valve connection on a water supply system having one or more outlets and that is used to supply hose and fire department pumps with water.
question
Fire Pump
answer
A pump that is a provider of liquid flow and pressure dedicated to fire protection. A fire pump is a part of a fire standpipe system's water supply and can be powered by electric, diesel or steam. The pump intake is either connected to the public underground water supply piping or a static water source (e.g., tank, reservoir, lake). The pump provides water flow at higher pressure and volume to the standpipe system risers and hose standpipes.
question
Fold
answer
A transverse bend (fold) occurring where the hose is lengthwise double over on itself, as on a pin rack.
question
Gallons per minute (GPM)
answer
typically used to measure fluid flow rate (such as water) or pump capacity. Measurement of water flow rate for a pump or a fire standpipe or sprinkler system.
question
Hose Connection
answer
a combination of equipment provided for connection of a hose to the standpipe system that includes a hose valve with a threaded outlet.
question
Attack Hose
answer
Hose designed to be used by trained fire fighters and fire brigade members to combat fires beyond the incipient stage.
question
Booster Hose
answer
A non-collapsible hose used under positive pressure having an elastomeric or thermoplastic tube, a braided or spiraled reinforcement, and an outer protective cover.
question
Covered Hose
answer
A hose with a jacket covered and lined with a continuous synthetic rubber or plastic. The cover is usually thicker than a coating.
question
Fire Hose
answer
A flexible conduit used to convey water.
question
Hose Valve
answer
The valve to an individual hose connection
question
Occupant Use Hose
answer
Fire hose designed to be used by the building's occupants to fight incipient fires prior to the arrival of trained fire fighters or fire brigade members.
question
Unlined Hose
answer
A hose consisting of only a woven jacket that is usually of linen yarns and is of such quality that the yarn swells when wet, tending to seal the hose.
question
Hose Size
answer
An expression of the internal diameter of the hose.
question
Hose Station
answer
a combination of a hose rack, hose nozzle, hose, and hose connection.
question
In Service
answer
The status of hose stored in a hose house, on a rack or reel, or on a fire apparatus that is available and ready for immediate use at an incident. This doesn't include hose in the storage where it is not readily available to be put into service at an incident.
question
In Storage
answer
A hose that is not readily available for use because it is not at the scene of an incident and not loaded on a vehicle that can transport it to the scene.
question
In Use
answer
Hose being used during fire suppression or during training.
question
Impairment Coordinator
answer
The person responsible for ensuring that proper safety precautions are taken when a fire protection system is placed out of service. The building owner shall assign an impairment coordinator to comply with the requirements of this section. In the absence of a specific designee, the owner shall be considered the impairment coordinator.
question
Labeled
answer
Equipment or materials to which has been attached a label, symbol or other identifying mark or an organization that is acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction and concerned with product evaluation, that maintains periodic inspection of production of labeled equipment or materials , and by whose labeling the manufacturer indicates compliance with appropriate standard or performance in a specified manner.
question
Listed Device
answer
A fire protection component that has been tested to perform under parameters specified for its use by a nationally recognized testing agency. Underwriter's Laboratory (UL) and Factory Mutual (FM) are the two most common once.
question
Manual Standpipe
answer
Standpipe system that relies exclusively on the fire department connection to supply the system demand.
question
Master Pressure Reducing Valve
answer
A pressure reducing valve installed to regulate pressures in an entire fire protection system and/or standpipe system zone.
question
Main Drain
answer
The primary drain connection located on the system riser and also utilized as a flow test connection for the automatic sprinkler system.
question
Nozzles
answer
A device for use in applications requiring special water discharge patterns, directional spray, or other unusual discharge characteristics.
question
Occupant-Use Hose
answer
Fire Hose designed to be used by the building's occupants to fight incipient fires prior to the arrival of trained fire fighters or fire brigade members.
question
Out of service system
answer
A fire protection system that is not fully functional; or whose operation is impaired or is otherwise not in good working order.
question
Personal Supervision
answer
Supervision by the holder of a department certificate who is required to be personally present on the premises, or other proximate location acceptable to the department, while the duties for which the certificate is required is being performed.
question
Pounds per square inch (PSI)
answer
a unit of pressure measuring force per unit area.
question
Pressure Control Valve
answer
A pilot operated pressure reducing valve that may be used with a fire or booster pump designed for the purpose of preventing the incoming water supply pressure from dropping below a set pressure.
question
Pressure Control Valve
answer
A pilot-operated pressure-reducing valve designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure to a specific value under both flowing (residual) and non flowing (static) conditions.
question
Pressure-Reducing Valve
answer
A valve designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure under both flowing (residual) and non flowing (static) conditions.
question
Pressure Regulating Device
answer
A device designed for the purpose of reducing, regulating controlling, or restricting water pressure. Example includes pressure reducing valve, pressure control valves, and pressure-restricting devices.
question
Pressure Restricting Device
answer
A valve or device designed for the purpose of reducing of reducing the downstream water pressure under flowing (residual) conditions only.
question
Pressure Relief Valve
answer
A valve designed for the purpose of releasing excess air or water pressure from the Fire Protection Piping System. Pressure relief valve is not a pressure reducing valve.
question
Pressure Tank
answer
A tank using air pressure to supplying water for water-based fire protection systems. Tank contents to be maintained at one third air to two thirds water.
question
Service Test
answer
Hydrostatic test conducted by users on all in-service hose to determine suitability for continued service.
question
Standpipe System
answer
An arrangement of piping, valves, hose connections, and allied equipment installed in a building or structure, with the hose connections located in such a manner that water can be discharged in streams or spray patterns through attached hose and nozzles, for the purpose of extinguishing a fire, thereby protecting a building or structure and its contents in addition to protecting the occupants. Piping installed in a building or structure that serves to transfer water from a water supply to hose connections at one or more locations in a building or structure used for firefighting purposes.
question
Combination Standpipe and Sprinkler System
answer
A system where the fire protection piping services both 21⁄2 in. (65 mm) outlets for fire department use and outlets for automatic sprinklers.
question
Standpipe, Multi-Zone
answer
A standpipe system that is vertically subdivided as required by the construction codes, including the Building Code, into zones to limit the maximum operating pressure in the system. Each zone will have its own individual automatic water supply.
question
Static Pressure
answer
The measurement of system pressure under non flow conditions
question
Strainer
answer
A device capable of removing from the water all solids of sufficient size that are obstructing water spray nozzles.
question
Supervisory signal
answer
signal indicating the need for action in connection with the supervision of guard tours, fire extinguishing systems or equipment, fire alarm systems or the maintenance features of related systems.
question
Supervisory signal-initiating device
answer
an initiating device, such as a valve supervisory switch, water level indicator, or low-air pressure switch on a dry-pipe system, that triggers a supervisory signal.
question
Testing
answer
A procedure used to determine the status of a system as intended by conducting periodic physical checks on water based fire protection systems such as water flow tests, fire pump tests, alarm tests, and trip tests of dry pipe or deluge valves. These tests follow the requirements for acceptance testing at intervals specified in the appropriate chapter of NFPA #25, 2002 edition.
question
Unlined Hose
answer
A hose consisting of only a woven jacket that is usually of linen yarns and is of such quality that yarn swells when wet, tending to seal the hose.
question
Water Hammer
answer
The surge in pressure when a high-velocity flow of water is abruptly shut off. The pressure exerted by the flowing water against a closed system can be seven or more times that of the static pressure
question
Water Spray
answer
Water in a form having a predetermined pattern, particle size, velocity, and density discharge from specially designed nozzles or devices.
question
Water Supply
answer
A source of water that provides the flows [gal/min (L/min)] and pressures [psi (bar)] required by the water-based fire protection system.
question
Water Tank
answer
A tank supplying water for water-based fire protection systems.
question
Wet Standpipe System
answer
A standpipe system having piping containing water at all times.
question
Standpipe class I
answer
This system is designed to be used by professional fire fighters. For example, the system is used by Fire Department and Fire Brigade personnel. The fire hoses in these systems are 2 1/2 inches in diameter. The large hose diameter makes it difficult to control the stream of water from the hose.
question
Standpipe class II
answer
This system is designed to be used by the occupants of a building. The hose and nozzle are connected to the standpipe. They are ready to be used by occupants in case of a fire. The hose is 1 1/2 inches in diameter. The hose stream is easier to control than the Class I hose.
question
Standpipe class III
answer
This system may be used by either professional fire fighters or by occupants of the building. The hosing may be adjusted to either 1 1/2 or 2 1/2 inches in diameter. This is done by attaching special reducing valves to the hose line.
question
Wet Standpipe System
answer
This system always has water in the piping. The water in the system is always under pressure. In some cases a fire pump may be used to increase the water pressure. The wet standpipe system is the most commonly used standpipe system. It is used in heated buildings where there is no danger of the water in the piping freezing. Any part of the standpipe system that is exposed to freezing temperatures should be insulated. It is very important that the water in the piping does not freeze. Frozen water may prevent the standpipe system from working.
question
Dry Standpipe with an Automatic Dry Pipe Valve (Manual Standpipe)
answer
...
question
Dry Standpipe with a Manual Control Valve
answer
This system is supplied by a public water main. Under normal conditions this system has no water in the piping. The water is not allowed into the standpipe until a control valve is manually operated. The control valve remains closed until a fire occurs. The air in the piping is not under pressure. A pre-action valve prevents the water from entering the system. The valve is automatically opened when a fire detection system discovers that there is a fire. This system is usually used in a building that is not heated.
question
Dry Standpipe with No Permanent Water Supply (Manual Standpipe)
answer
...
question
Quick Opening Devices
answer
In a dry pipe system there is a delay between the opening of a sprinkler head or a standpipe nozzle and the discharge of water. This delay may allow the fire to spread and more sprinkler heads to open. The delay is due to the time required for the air to leave the system's piping. This difficulty may be partly overcome by the installation of quick opening devices.
question
Yard Systems
answer
A yard hydrant system is most often used in large private manufacturing plants or storage buildings. The yard system is often needed because the public water supply does not meet the needs of the fire protection system. The yard system usually has several private water sources supplying the total fire protection system. The total system may have a sprinkler system, hydrants, and a standpipe and hose system installed. The water supply sources are all connected together in the yard system. This allows the water to be directly supplied to any part of the system when needed. Water can be supplied even when one of the supply sources is not working. The combined sources of water keep the water pressure in the system at a high level. The picture below shows a detailed yard fire protection system.
question
Public Waterworks Connection
answer
The street main supplies water using the water pressure in the public water works system. Sometimes a street main may not be connected to the system if it is located too far away from the building.
question
Pressure Tank
answer
This tank may supply water to the yard system under pressure. The tank is filled with water and air. The air force
question
Combination / Combined Systems
answer
It is not uncommon to find occupancies having a combination of systems for fire protection. Examples of combination systems are: a. Combination System (Wet standpipe and Dry standpipe) b. Combined System ( Wet standpipe system and Automatic Sprinkler System) - A standpipe system having piping that supplies both hose connections and automatic sprinklers. Each connection from a standpipe that is part of a combined system to a sprinkler system shall have an individual control valve and check valve of the same size as the connection.
question
PREACTION STANDPIPE SYSTEMS
answer
Preaction systems are designed for situations where there is danger of serious water damage. Water damage is usually caused by damaged standpipe piping. Under normal conditions there is no water in the piping. The air in the piping may or may not be is under pressure. A preaction valve prevents the water from entering the system. The valve is automatically opened when an electrical or hydraulic release is manually activated.
question
Roof Manifold
answer
Standpipe systems are used in buildings where it may be difficult for the Fire Department to pump water on the fire. For example, standpipe systems are required in buildings that are over six stories 75 feet in height. A standpipe system may be combined with an automatic fire protection system. For example, a standpipe system and a sprinkler
question
Fire Department Connection
answer
...
question
Fire Department Connection
answer
...
question
Alarms and Supervisory Signal Devices
answer
...
question
Check Valves
answer
...
question
Swing Check Valves
answer
...
question
Alarm check Valves
answer
...
question
Gate Valves (Non-Rising Stem)
answer
...
question
OS & Y (Outside Screw and Yoke)
answer
...
question
Fire Hose including Couplings and Nozzles
answer
...
question
Fire Hose Outlet and Release Rack
answer
...
Good Working Order
Strong Work Ethic
Time Management Skills
Nail Technology Exam Review – Part 4 – Flashcards 134 terms

Jaxon Wilson
134 terms
Preview
Nail Technology Exam Review – Part 4 – Flashcards
question
Before you can obtain a position as a nail technician, you must:
answer
Both are correct (secure the required credentials; pass your state licensing exam)
question
Which of the following will affect how well you perform during your licensing exam?
answer
All are correct (your memory; your time management skills; your psychological state)
question
A test-wise student:
answer
Develops a vocabulary list
question
The "holistic" refers to:
answer
The whole you
question
An important part of preparing for your licensing exam is maintaining good _____ shape.
answer
All are correct (physical; emotional; spiritual)
question
On the day of the test, it is NOT recommended that you:
answer
Spend as much time as necessary to answer each question
question
What is a stem?
answer
A test question or problem
question
Which of the following is an example of an absolute?
answer
Never
question
When two choices in a multiple-choice question are similar:
answer
One is probable right
question
To better prepare for the practical portion of the examination, you should:
answer
All are correct (participate in mock licensing examinations; make sure all equipment and implements are in good working order; practice the correct skills required in the test as often as you can)
question
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that will help you get the position you want and help you keep it?
answer
Apathy
question
When you have _____, you ae committed to a strong code of moral and artistic values.
answer
Integrity
question
Having _____ means taking pride in your work and committing yourself to consistently doing a good job for your clients, employer, and salon team.
answer
A strong work ethic
question
There are nearly _____ professional salons in the United States.
answer
313,000
question
The average independent salon may have as many as _____ nail technicians working there regularly.
answer
10
question
The majority of professional nail salons are:
answer
Small independent salons
question
Independent salon chains usually have _____ or more salons that are owned by one individual or two or more partners.
answer
5
question
With large national salon chains, decisions regarding _____ are made at the corporate headquarters.
answer
All are correct (size; services; advertising)
question
Basic value-priced operations:
answer
Generally pay nail technicians by the hour.
question
High-end salons generally:
answer
All are correct (employ well-trained beauty professionals; offer higher-priced services to clients; provide a high level of personal service to clients)
question
When preparing a resume, you should:
answer
List your relevant education information
question
A _____ is a written summary of a person's education and work experience.
answer
Resume
question
On average, a potential employer will scan your resume for _____ before deciding whether to grant you an interview.
answer
20 seconds
question
You should ask yourself which question as you develop accomplishment statements?
answer
All are correct (How many regular clients do I serve; What was my client retention rare; What was my service ticket average)
question
Which of the following is NOT a question that you should ask when preparing your resume and cover letter?
answer
What questions should you ask during your job interview?
question
When preparing your resume, it is NOT recommended that you:
answer
Avoid action verbs
question
An ideal employment portfolio includes:
answer
All are correct (a summary of continuing education certificates; a statement of membership in industry organizations; a statement of relevant civic affiliations)
question
The information in your employment portfolio should be:
answer
Separated into sections
question
When targeting potential employers, it is important to:
answer
All are correct (follow newspapers, television and radio for salon advertising; make a list of area salons or establishments; locate a salon that serves the type of clients you wish to serve)
question
When calling a salon for networking purposes, you should NOT:
answer
Ask when you can come in for a job interview
question
When you visit a salon for networking purposes, it is recommended that you take along:
answer
A checklist
question
After visiting a salon, it is recommended that you always:
answer
Send a brief note thanking the person for meeting with you
question
When you go to a job interview, you should bring along:
answer
All are correct (your driver's license; contact information for your former employers; your social security number)
question
It is recommended that you obtain how many interview outfits?
answer
One or two
question
the accessories you wear with your interview outfit should be:
answer
Both are correct (fashionable; functional)
question
When you go to a job inerview, it is recommended that you bring along:
answer
All are correct (your resume; your employment portfolio; any additional class certificates you may have received)
question
Which of the following is NOT a question typically asked at an interview?
answer
Are you prepared to step immediately into a management position?
question
On the day of the interview, it is recommended that you:
answer
All are correct (be early; speak clearly; answer questions honestly)
question
It is NOT recommended that you ask which of the following questions at an interview?
answer
How long do you expect the salon to stay in business?
question
It is permissible to ask the age of an applicant younger than:
answer
18
question
An employer is allowed to ask:
answer
Whether you use drugs
question
What is the MOST important factor that will affect your test performance?
answer
Mastery of course content
question
When taking the written test, it is recommended that you:
answer
Read and review each question carefully
question
When answering a true-false question, remember that:
answer
Statements with absolutes are generally false
question
When preparing for the practical exam, it is recommended that you:
answer
All are correct (know where the exam will take place before the day of the exam; follow the licensing agency's directions as they are outlined; real all materials received from the licensing agency about the exam)
question
It is recommended that when you network, you:
answer
All are correct (ask questions; take advice; consider all of your options)
question
In a service business, your work primarily revolves around:
answer
Serving your clients
question
As you serve your clients, it is important NOT to:
answer
Stop learning
question
If you are late for appointments:
answer
All are correct (coworkers will have to handle your clients; clients can become angered; clients may decide to switch salons)
question
To be a good team player, you should be concerned with:
answer
Both are correct (your own success; the success of others in the salon)
question
It is recommended that you resist all temptations to:
answer
Give in to gossip
question
How fast you are able to move up in the business will be determined by your:
answer
Attitude and work ethic
question
Salon management should be loyal to:
answer
Both are correct (clients; the staff)
question
A job description:
answer
Outlines the duties and responsibilities of a particular position
question
If your salon does not use job descriptions and you decide to write your own, it is recommended that you show it to:
answer
Your manager
question
If you are unclear about something in your job description, it is recommended that you:
answer
Ask your manager for clarification
question
The term "compensation" refers to:
answer
What you will actually get paid for your work
question
Which of the following is NOT a standard method of compension in the nail industry?
answer
Salary minus commission
question
Nail technicians may be paid an hourly wage for up to _____ before their form of compensation is reviewed and/or modified.
answer
6 months
question
The term _____ refers to customers who are loyal to a particular nail technician.
answer
"Client base"
question
If you are offered a set salary each week, in liew of an hourly rate:
answer
It must be equal to at least minimum wage
question
The commission paid to a nail technician working on a commission-only basis generally ranges from:
answer
45 to 70 percent
question
If you work under a commission payment structure, the salon usually provides the _____ you will need to perform nail services.
answer
Products
question
Nail technicians can increase their chances of building a solid and loyal clientele more quickly if they:
answer
All are correct (have advanced training; have and use their artistic abilities; concentrate on an unusual niche)
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A _____ payment structure is often used to motivate nail technicians to perform more services.
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Salary-plus-commission
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Tips are:
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Income in addition to your regular compensation
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How often must tips be recorded?
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Daily
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The best way to keep tabs on your progress is to ask for feedback from your:
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All are correct (clients; salon manager; key coworkers)
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Evaluations are commonly scheduled 90 days after hiring and then _____ after that.
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Once a year
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If you are looking for advice on how to improve your client consultations, it is recommended that you ask _____ to sit inon one and then make suggestions afterward.
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All are correct (your mentor; a seasoned coworker; your salon manager)
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Responsible adults are concerned with:
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Planning for the future
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When you default, you:
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Fail to pay back a loan
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One recommended method for increasing your income is:
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Asking for a higher percentage of commission
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Increasing your service prices in _____ increments is a recommended method of increasing your weekly income without driving away clients.
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$3
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It is recommended that you speak with _____ for advice on how to reduce your credit card debt, invest your money, and plan for retirement.
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A financial planner
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The practice of recommending and selling additional services to clients that you or other practitioners licensed in a different field may perform is known as:
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Ticket upgrading
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The act of recommending and selling quality products to clients for at-home nail care is called:
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Retailing
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To be successful in sales, you need:
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All are correct (ambition; determination; a good personality)
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To become a proficient salesperson, it is recommended that you:
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Recognize the right psychological moment to close any sale
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Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for selling retail products to nail clients?
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An incentive program that rewards only the salon
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What is the standard retail sales commission for nail technicians?
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10 percent
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To get the conversation started about retailing products, it is recommended that you:
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Advise clients about how recommended services will benefit them
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If you are going to send a client a birthday card with a special offer, it is recommended that you send it out:
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About one month before the client's birthday
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If you send a client a birthday card with a special offer, it is recommended that the offer be valid:
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Only during the birthday month
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You can expand your client base by being:
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All are correct (respectful; positive; professional)
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Your job is to be the client's:
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Nail technician
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When selling, it is recommended that after you establish rapport with the client, you:
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Determine the client's needs
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It is recommended that you rebook a client:
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Before she leaves the salon
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How long should a client be in the salon?
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Only as long as is necessary to adequately complete a service
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As you become able to perform services faster, you will notice that:
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All are correct (clients have less of a wait; you can perform more services in a day; your income increases)
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In a booth rental agreement, a nail technician generally:
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Pays the salon owner a flat fee for use of the booth on a regular basis
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When you enter into a booth rental agreement, you are NOT responsible for:
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Paying utilities
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The state board in _____ does not recognize booth rental as an acceptable method of doing business.
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New Jersey
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When you open your own salon, you need to decide:
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All are correct (what products to use and carry; whether to hire additional staff members; the types of marketing and promotions you will employ)
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A _____ statement is a long-term picture of what a business is to become and what it will look like when it gets there.
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Vision
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Which term refers to a set of benchmarks that, once achieved, help you to realize your mission and your vision?
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Goals
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It is recommended that the salon owner focus on _____ between the second and fifth year in business.
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Tending to the business, its clientele and employees
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When deciding where to locate your business, you should look for a location with:
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All are correct (good visibility; high traffic; sufficient parking)
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A(n) _____ is a business that is owned and operated by one person, although the owner may have employees.
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Sole proprietorship
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In a sole proprietorship, the owner:
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Is responsible for all expenses
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A(n) _____ is a business structure in which two or more people share ownership, although not necessarily equally.
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Partnership
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People often enter into a partnership arrangement to:
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Both are correct (have more capital for investment; have help running the business)
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A corporation:
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Can be formed to protect the owners' personal assets
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Employees of a corporation pay income tax on:
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The salary that they draw
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When opening your own business, it is recommended that you consult with _____ to find out the ways in which your business may be registered for tax purposes.
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An accountant
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To become an S Corporation, a business must file with:
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The IRS
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What does LLC stand for?
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Limited Liability Company
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A _____ is a written plan of a business as it is seen in the present and envisioned in the future, to follow throughout the entire process of starting your own business.
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Business plan
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Which part of a business plan describes how the business will run administratively?
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Organizational plan
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Which part of the business plan outlines all of the research obtained regarding the clients your business will target and their needs, wants, and habits?
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Marketing plan
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Before purchasing an existing nail business, you need to:
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All are correct (obtain a written purchase and sale agreement; include in the agreement the use of the salon's name and reputation; obtain a non-compete agreement from the seller)
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It is important to protect your business by installing:
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All are correct (a burgular alarm system; a fire alarm system; adequate locks)
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As a business owner, you may need to obtain a seller's permit to:
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Collect sales tax
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Buying _____ insurance is a wise choice for business owners since it will help you make provisions for your business and your beneficiaries.
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Life
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Health insurance plans are typically available through:
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Trade associations
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A typical salon spends about _____ of its total gross income on rent.
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13 percent
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Which expense typically takes up about 3 percent of a salon's total gross income?
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Depreciation
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A typical salon spends about 1.5 percent of its total gross income on:
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Repairs
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About _____ of a typical salon's total gross income is profit.
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15 percent
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A _____ is someone who is trained to do everything from recording sales and doing payroll to generating a profit-and-loss statement.
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Full-charge bookkeeper
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Supplies that are sold to clients are called:
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Retail supplies
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Service records should include _____ for each client.
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All are correct (the contact information; the products used; the results obtained)
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When renovating a salon, it is recommended that you consult with:
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A professional equipment and furniture supplier
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Which of the following is NOT an important consideration when interviewing potential employees?
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Their age
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Which part of the salon is considered the salon's nerve center?
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The reception area
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The reception area should be well stocked with:
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Business cards
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Who is considered the "quarterback" of a salon?
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The receptionist
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Which of the following is NOT a common responsibility of a salon receptionist?
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Performing employee evaluations
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During slow periods, it is customary for the receptionist to perform certain other duties and activities, such as:
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Maintaining inventory
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When using the telephone, you should:
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All are correct (speak clearly; be tactful; show interest and concern)
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When answering the phone, it is MOST important to:
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Identify the salon
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If a client calls to make an appointment with her favorite nail technician at a certain time, and the nail technician is not available, what is the FIRST thing you should do?
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Suggest other times that the nail technician is available
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What is considered the best form of advertising?
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Satisified clients
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Which of the following is a recommended advertising venue for nail salons?
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All are correct (radio advertising; e-mail newsletters; videos in the salon promoting your salon and its services)