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Commands Conjunction Greek Mood Propositions

Jane Austen Writing Style – Flashcards 12 terms

Millie Miller

12 terms

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Jane Austen Writing Style – Flashcards

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antithesis

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an assertion immediately followed by a negation of its opposite

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appositive

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renaming of a noun immediately following the noun

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full character description

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physical, financial, homeplace, personality, age, and so forth

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complex sentences

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sentence containing an independent clause and at least 1 dependent clause

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compound objects

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direct objects or objects of prepositions that have more than 1 component

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compound sentences

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sentence made up of 2 or more independent clauses joined by a conjunction

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favorite vocabulary

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words (particularly adjectives or adverbs) that are used frequently in the text

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italics

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use of italic typeface to distinguish words or phrases from a block of text

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parenthetical

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phrase set aside by parentheses or dashes

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quoted indirect discourse

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quotation marks around non-spoken thoughts in narration; though not spoken aloud, thoughts may suddenly be quoted to intensify the point of view

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superlative

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the form of a word that indicates superiority over others of its kind; often signaled by the word "most" or by the "-est" ending

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understatement / litote

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use of a lesser expression than expected; often with the "not un-" construction

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Conjunction Linguistics Preposition

Writing Coach Chapter 13 – Flashcards 36 terms

Ray Collins

36 terms

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Writing Coach Chapter 13 – Flashcards

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noun

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part of speech that names person, place, thing, or idea

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collective noun

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names a group of people or things. ex: choir, crew

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compound noun

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noun made up of two or more words acting as a single unit. ex: bird dog, self-rule, porthole

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common noun

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names any one of a class of people, places or things. ex:building, writer, book

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proper noun

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names a specific person, or thing. ex: June, John, Jones Diary

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concret nouns

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names something you can see, touch, taste, hear, or smell. ex: person, cannon, road, city, music

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abstract nouns

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names something you can not percieve through any 5 senses. ex: hope, improvement, independence,

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pronouns

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words that stand for nouns or for words that take place of nouns ex: she, her, they, their

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antecedents

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nouns or words that take the place of nouns to which prouns refer ex: Heather

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personal pronouns

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refer to the person speaking (first person), the person spoken to (second person), or the person, place, or thing spoken about (third person)

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reflexive pronouns

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ends in -self or -selves and indicates that someone or something in the sentence acts for or on itself

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intensive pronouns

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ends in -self or -selves and simply adds emphasis to a noun or pronoun in the sentence

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reciprocal pronoun

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each other, and one another refer to a plural antecedent. express mututal action or relationship.

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demostrative pronoun

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directs attention to a specific person, place thing. this, that, these, those

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relative pronoun

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introduces an adjective clause and connects it to the word that the clause modifies.that, which, who, whom, whose

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interrogative pronoun

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used to begin a question. what, which, who, whom, whose

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indefinate pronoun

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refers to a person, place, or thing that may or may not be specifically named. words ending in -other, -body, -one, all, any, both, few

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verbs

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a word or group of words that express time while showing an action, a condition, or the fact that something exists.

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action verb

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tells what action someone or something is performing

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linking verb

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connects its subject with a noun, pronoun, or adjective that identifies or describes the subject. am, is, are, were, etc.

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transitive verbs

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directs action toward someone or something named in the same sentence. answers the question what

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intransitive verbs

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does not direct action toward anyone or anything named in the same sentence. doesn't answer the question what.

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verb phrase

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consist of a main verb, and one or more helping verbs

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adjective

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describes a noun or pronoun or gives a verb a more specific meaning. answers, "what kind. which one. how many. how much."

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articles

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three common ones, a, an, the

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indefinate articles

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a, an, only ones because they refer to any one of a class of nouns

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definate articles

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the, only one because it refers to a specific noun

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Proper adjectives

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proper nouns, used as adjective or adjectives. monday, england, docotor, etc

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particaples

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verbs ending in -ing and -ed

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adverb

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verb that modifies a verb, an adjective or another adverb. answers the question, when. where. in what way. to waht extent.

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preposition

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relates the noun or pronoun that appears with it to another word in the sentence

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prepositional phrase

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a group of words that includes a preposition and a noun and pronoun

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conjunction

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used to connect other words or group of words, and. but. or .nor. for. yet.

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correlative

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have this in the. both...and. not only... but also. either... or. whether... or. neither... nor.

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subornating

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joins two complete ideas by making one of the ideas suborniating to, or dependent upon, the other

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interjection

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word that expresses feeling or emotion and functions independently of a sentence. ouch! wow! etc.

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Conjunction English 1 English 2 English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade)

. WRITING EFFECTIVE SENTENCES – Flashcards 42 terms

Sean Hill

42 terms

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. WRITING EFFECTIVE SENTENCES – Flashcards

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clause

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a group of words CONTAINING a subject and a predicate and used as part of a sentence

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phrase

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a group of words NOT having a subject and predicate, used as a single part of speech

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subordinate clause

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must depend on the main clause to complete the thought

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compound sentence

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Two main clauses joined together

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Main clauses

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are the basis of all types of sentences, whether simple, compound, complex, or compound-complex

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simple sentence

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A main clause used alone or with any number of phrases

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subject complement

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a noun or adjective follows a linking verb and means the same as the subject or describes the subject

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Noun clause as subject

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A subordinate clause functioning as a noun can be used in a variety of ways. A noun clause can serve as the subject of a sentence.

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Noun clause as object

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Noun clauses can also function as objects of either verbs or prepositions.

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Noun clause as complement.

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Besides serving as a subject or an object of a verb or preposition, a noun clause can be used as a subject complement (predicate noun). A subject complement renames the subject and completes the meaning of the verb.

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Adjective Clauses

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is a subordinate clause which modifies a noun or pronoun. Adjective clauses are frequently introduced by relative pronouns (who, whose, whom, which, that) or relative adverbs (when, where).

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elliptical clause

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a clause whose meaning is understood even though one or more words have been omitted

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adverb clause

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Is a subordinate clause which is used to modify a verb, an adjective, or another adverb. It modifies a verb when it tells how, when, where, why, to what extent or under what condition

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antecedent

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a word, phrase, or clause to which a pronoun, especially a relative pronoun, refers

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relative pronoun

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a pronoun that relates to an antecedent and introduces a qualifying clause

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subordinate clauses often begin with the pronouns

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who, whose, whom, which, that, and what, or their compound forms whoever, whomever, whichever, and whatever

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Who, which, that, whoever, whichever, and whatever are the

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nominative case forms of the relative pronouns

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pronouns

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take the place of nouns and function as subjects of sentences or clauses.

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An example of a sentence with a relative pronoun as its subject

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-Whichever you prefer is the one we'll buy. (Whichever is the subject of the noun clause; the entire subordinate clause is the subject of the sentence.)

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objective

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forms of the relative pronouns are whom, which, that, whomever, whichever, and whatever. -used when the relative pronoun is the object of a verb or a preposition.

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relative pronouns have the same form in both

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the nominative and objective cases

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possessive case.

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who and which

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condition

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a circumstance which is dependent or contingent upon some other

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subordinating conjunction

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a conjunction that joins clauses of minor rank to the main clause

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Adverb clauses are introduced by subordinating conjunctions

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after because than whenever although before though where as if unless wherever as if since until while so that as . . . as* when in order that

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Place:

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Did you leave your keys where you could find them easily? I can't remember where I've met you.*

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Time:

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I will write a letter to you when I receive one from you.

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Reason:

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We cancelled the picnic because the storm arrived.

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Condition:

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If you wish to go with us, please be ready on time.

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Purpose or result:

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We set the alarm in order that we might be ready on time

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Comparison

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John took more food in his backpack than his sister did.

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complement

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a word or phrase used after a verb to complete the predicate

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gerund

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a word ending in -ing which has characteristics of both a verb and a noun

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infinitive

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to plus a verb; usually used as a noun but occasionally used as an adjective or an adverb

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participle

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a word that has characteristics of both a verb and an adjective

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appositive

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a noun, pronoun, or phrase following another noun or pronoun to explain or identify it

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relative clause

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A clause introduced by a relative pronoun, such as WHO, WHICH, THAT, or by a relative adverb, such as WHERE, WHEN, WHY.

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antecedents

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preceding events that influence what comes later; ancestors or early background

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gerund phrase

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Begins with noun form of verb ending in -ing, plus any modifiers or complements

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Infinitive phrase

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phrase that includes the infinitive, it's objects, and the objects modifiers

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Participial phrase

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an -ing or -ed verb form that functions as an adjective plus its modifiers

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appositive phase

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Gives more information about a noun or pronoun. It has No verbs and is set off by commas

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Characters Conjunction English/Language Arts 2 (10Th Grade) English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade) Identity

Once More to the lake quiz – Flashcards 7 terms

Isabel Padilla

7 terms

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Once More to the lake quiz – Flashcards

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Who is the narrator of this essay likely to be?

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EB White himself

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What did the narrator stay in at Maine?

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a cabin

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What does it mean when the narrator calls him salt-water man?

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spends time at the ocean

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What does it mean when the narrator refers to the camp as "holy spot", stillness of the cathedral?

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it is sacred in someway

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What does it mean when the narrator lives "a dual existence"?

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he is both his father and his son

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How does White describe summertime in Maine?

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permanent and unbreakable

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What is the authors intention of this narrative?

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to describe an experience of visiting a lkae

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Conjunction Questions Subject Verb Agreement

7th Grade STAAR Writing Test Study Guide – Flashcards 42 terms

Maxim Beck

42 terms

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7th Grade STAAR Writing Test Study Guide – Flashcards

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Steps in the writing process

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Read the prompt, analyze the prompt, brainstorm, level experiences OR rank explanations, organize, draft, proofread, revise, edit, proofread, finalize, and proofread.

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What does the word "EXPOSITORY" mean?

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To explain or inform

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What is the recommended number of paragraphs needed for the EXPOSITORY portion of the STAAR Writing test?

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Four

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What should your introduction include?

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1. an attention grabber a.k.a. "hook" (question, quote, statistic, or fact) 2. a controlling idea which makes reference to the subject/topic

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What should a controlling idea include?

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1. key words from the prompt 2. your opinion on the subject/topic 3. reasons/beliefs that will be covered in each of your body paragraphs.

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What is a good example of a controlling idea?

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People should speak up for what they believe because it is important to communicate honestly, to help others understand, and to offer up new insight.

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What is a topic sentence?

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the main idea of the paragraph

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What should your body paragraphs include?

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1. a topic sentence 2. support for your topic sentence

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What kinds of support should you provide for the topic sentence in your expository body paragraphs?

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1. explanations 2. info-shots (creative ways of explaining) 3. experience examples 4. reference examples (movie, book, TV show, song, etc.)

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What two things should your expository conclusion have?

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1. Restatement of thesis (in different words) 2. Leave your audience with something to think about—for instance a possible solution or thematic statement.

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What is a good example of a restatement of the previously given thesis?

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What this means is that if people don't speak up they will never progress personally and others will not be enlightened.

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For revising questions about ORGANIZING IDEAS...

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THINK: The sentences have to relate to each other. Look for a place that is talking about the same idea and add a sentence or move one around.

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For revising questions about REPLACING WEAK WORD CHOICES.

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THINK: An author should tell the reader exactly what they are thinking. Words like "it," "things," "stuff," or some other pronouns might not tell the reader what the writer wants to say. Reread around the sentence you are focusing on to understand the context. Use the thesaurus.

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For revising questions about SUPPORTING SENTENCES...

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THINK: Find a detail that talks about the same ideas in the paragraph. This detail should relate to the sentences around it and not get off topic.

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For revising questions about COMBINING SENTENCES...

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THINK: A correct answer usually shouldn't have repetition of words or ideas. Sometimes we use a comma and a conjunction to put together two ideas that could stand alone as their own sentences.

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For revising questions about TOPIC SENTENCES or CENTRAL IDEA...

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THINK: The sentence must state the main idea of the ENTIRE paragraph OR composition. Reread to understand what the paragraph or composition is about. A correct answer probably won't have details.

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For revising questions about CONCLUDING STATEMENTS...

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THINK: One sentence must pull the ideas from the essay passage together and not just mention details or get off topic. It should connect to the sentences right before it.

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For revising questions about TRANSITION WORDS...

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THINK: Look for how ideas are presented with time, sequence, or order of importance. Reread the sentence trying every answer choice.

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For revising questions about ELIMINATING SENTENCES...

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THINK: Look for a sentence that is off topic. Check each answer choice to see how the sentence relates to the ones around it.

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For editing questions about COMMAS...

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THINK: Commas are used with coordinating conjunctions to separate two sentences. Commas are also used after introductory phrases such as a prepositional phrase AND in complex sentences if the dependent clause comes first.

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For editing questions about SPELLING...

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THINK: Sometimes we use double consonants. If something is plural that ends in y, the y might change to "ies." Likewise, a verb that ends in a y might change to "ied." Eliminate the other answer choices if you are unsure. Use the dictionary. WATCH OUT FOR COMMONLY CONFUSED WORDS (CCW'S)

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For editing questions about SUBJECT/VERB AGREEMENT...

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THINK: Find the noun the verb refers to and make sure the tense of the verb is correct. For example, if the composition says, "We has...," I might go through my pronouns using the verb "has" in my head (I have, you have, she has, we have, they have).

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For editing questions about COMBINING SENTENCES...

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THINK: Commas will be used with a coordinating conjunction when the part before and the part after the comma can stand alone as their own sentences. If one of the parts cannot, then use a conjunction but no comma. Eliminate answer choices that are fragments or run-on's.

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For editing questions about APOSTROPHES...

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THINK: An apostrophe + s at the end of a word when the word is singular. (Sally's hat) Use an s + apostrophe at the end of a word that is plural. (the kids' classroom). Use an apostrophe in contractions to replace missing letters (you'll, didn't, can't, shouldn't, I'm).

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For editing questions about COMPLETE SENTENCES...

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THINK: A complete sentence must have both a subject and a predicate plus a complete thought. If there is a phrase that does not have both, then it is an incomplete sentence.

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Independent Clause

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A complete sentence that has a subject and a verb. Ex. Anne loves soccer.

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Dependent Clause

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An incomplete sentence that has a subject and a verb but an incomplete thought. Ex. When the bus comes

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Simple Sentence

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One independent clause.

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Compound Sentence

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Two independent clauses joined together with a coordinating conjunction.

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Coordinating Conjunction - definition

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A transition word that combines two independent clauses together to make a compound sentence.

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Coordinating Conjunction - list

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F.A.N.B.O.Y.S for and nor but or yet so

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What punctuation should be used to combine two complete sentences?

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a semicolon ;

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Complex Sentence

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One independent clause joined together with a dependent clause using a subordinating conjunction.

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Subordinating Conjunction - definition

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A transition word that combines an independent clause and a dependent clause together to make a complex sentence.

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Subordinating Conjunction - list

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A.A..W.W.U.B.B.I.S. As, Although, When, While, Until, Before, Because, If, Since

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The following example is what type of sentence? Anne loves soccer.

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Simple Sentence - example

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The following example is what type of sentence? It was the best of times.

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Simple Sentence - example

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The following example is what type of sentence? Jordan was disgusted, yet Sarah still laughed.

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Compound Sentence - example

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The following example is what type of sentence? We did not mind the rain, but the mud was unbearable.

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Compound Sentence - example

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The following example is what type of sentence? Because it had started to rain, the dog ran inside.

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Complex sentence - example

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The following example is what type of sentence? Jordan was disgusted when Sarah threw up on her plate.

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Complex sentence - example

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For editing questions about CAPITAL LETTERS...

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THINK: Use capital letters at the beginning of sentences, for names of people, for names of places, for names of historical events or documents, languages, or nationalities.

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Conjunction Jonathan Swift Law Enforcement Months Of The Year Peanut Butter And Jelly The House Transportation United States And Mexico

TSA Writing Skills Assessment Test – Flashcards 9 terms

Noel Macdonald

9 terms

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TSA Writing Skills Assessment Test – Flashcards

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For questions 1, 2, and 3 choose the one answer that represents a correction that should be made to the sentence. If no correction is necessary, choose (D).

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1. Once a request to carry firearms into a foreign country are approved, a Transportation Security Inspector must notify the Office of Foreign Operations for coordination of the request. A) change "to carry" to "for carrying' B) change "are" to "is" C) change "coordination" to "coordinating" D) no correction is necessary

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B) change "are" to "is" A verb must agree with its subject in number. The subject, "request," is singular and, therefore, the verb should be changed from "are" to "is."

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2. Supervisor Smith knows that it is important for his Transportation Security Inspectors to understand each of the fundamental principals that apply to all methods of dog training. A) change "knows" that to "knows which" B) change "each" to "each and every one" C) change "principals" to "principles" D) no correction is necessary

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C) change "principals" to "principles" The correct use of the word "principles" refers to rules, laws, or standards that are applied to the method of dog training. By contrast, the word "principal" means first or foremost in importance.

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3. The geographical area composing much of the border between the United States and Mexico is considered to have a desert climate. A) change "between" to "from" B) insert a comma after "area" C) change "is" to "are" D) no correction is necessary

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D) no correction is necessary

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Instructions: For question 4, choose the one answer that is the best revision to the underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in the paragraph. If no revision to the underlined word(s) or phrase(s) is necessary, choose option (E). If there are two underlined sections in the same paragraph, each possible answer will consist of two revisions, one for each underlined section. The two revisions will be separated by a slash ( / ). The first revision will be for the first underlined section in the paragraph, and the second revision will be for the second underlined section in the paragraph.

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4. The passenger's use of a fraudulent document was a hindrence to the identification of the passenger. (A) fraudelant / hindrence (B) fraudulant / hindrence (C) fraudulent / hindrance (D) fraudulant / hindrance (E) no correction is necessary

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(C) fraudulent / hindrance The words "fraudulent" and "hindrance" are spelled correctly in this sentence while various incorrect spellings of these words are used in A, B, and D.

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For questions 5 and 6, select the correct paragraph order to create a passage that is well-organized, clear, and coherent. If no correction is necessary, choose (D).

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5. (1) TSA also recognizes that transportation assets, such as airplanes and tunnels, are part of larger systems, such as the national aviation system or a mass transit system. Taken together, all the individual transportation systems form the national transportation system (i.e., a "system of systems"). The behavior of transportation systems cannot be fully explained by confining observations to individual cars, vessels, and aircraft or fixed infrastructure. An attack on a specific asset must be analyzed for how it will impact the larger transportation system within which it resides. Impacts to a specific transportation system may then have ripple-effects on other transportation systems that could result in cascading failures. (2) In December 2005, we made a risk-based choice to change our operations to better meet this threat. Before the change, our screening workforce was spending a lot of time searching for items that no longer posed a significant risk - items that would no longer be useful to terrorists intent on taking control of an aircraft. Based on analysis of threats, vulnerabilities and consequences, we removed the most innocuous of these from our list of items that are prohibited beyond the checkpoint. The time and labor we used to spend detecting them has been shifted to finding explosives instead. (3) The nature of the current threat has changed since September 11, 2001. The deployment of measures like hardened cockpit doors, the Federal Flight Deck Officer Program, a vastly expanded Transportation Security Inspector Program, and others have greatly reduced the risk of an attack similar to those of September 11. Today, explosives pose the greatest risk to our transportation systems. (4) Delivering the best security we can means using risk to guide our decisions - maximizing our resources by directing them where they are most needed. Working with our network of federal and industry partners, we identify the areas of greatest risk throughout transportation systems and act to prevent attacks and mitigate their potential consequences. To meet future threats, we are ensuring that we maintain surge capacity to respond when and where they emerge. A) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 B) 3 - 4 - 1 - 2 C) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 D) no correction is necessary

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A) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 The most logical order of the passages is 4, 3, 2, 1. It is not logical to begin the passages with paragraphs 2 or 3, as indicated in Responses B and C, because they appear to complete information that has been presented earlier and, therefore, depend on information in the other two paragraphs in order to be understood. This also eliminates Response D. This leaves Response A, which begins with paragraph 4. The paragraphs presented in this order form a well-organized, coherent passage.

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6. (1) Immediately following the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport (DCA) was closed to general aviation aircraft because of its proximity to downtown Washington, D.C. (2) After conducting a thorough security review in partnership with other Departments of Homeland Security and Defense agencies, the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) developed a security plan that balances the special security needs of the airport with the economic importance of general aviation flights. (3) ASOs are specially trained law enforcement officers who are authorized by the TSA to fly onboard each general aviation aircraft operating into or out of DCA. (4) The plan, called the DCA Access Standard Security Program, or DASSP, allows a total of 48 general aviation flights a day leaving from designated "gateway airports." All of these flights must have an Armed Security Officer (ASO) onboard. A) 1 - 4 - 2 - 3 B) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2 C) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 D) no correction is necessary

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C) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 The most logical order of the passages is 1, 2, 4, 3. The first paragraph introduces the issue and sets the stage for the remaining paragraphs describing the actions taken to address the issue. Accordingly, paragraph 1 should be the first paragraph. Paragraphs 2 and 4 elaborate on the resolution to the issue introduced in paragraph 1 and therefore must follow paragraph 1. Paragraph 2 logically comes before paragraph 4 because paragraph 2 explains that a plan was put in place whereas paragraph 4 elaborates on the specifics of the plan. Finally, paragraph 3 is clearly the concluding paragraph because it further defines the role of the ASO which is introduced in paragraph 4. The paragraphs presented in this order form a well-organized, coherent passage.

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Circuits Civil Engineering Conjunction Equipment Home Proceed With Caution

CSX Conductor Practice Questions – Flashcards 246 terms

Maisie Clarke

246 terms

Preview

CSX Conductor Practice Questions – Flashcards

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Absolute Block

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A block that may be occupied by only one train at a time.

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Absolute Signal

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A color light color positon light or semaphore signal without a number plate a "P" marker, "APP" marker "C" marker or "G" marker that conveys stop as its most restrictive indication.

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Automated Railroad Crossing

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A railroad crossing at grade it is protected by signals which are actuated automatically by the approach of a train.

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Automatic Block Signal

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A block signal that is activated either by track circuit or in conjunction with interlocking or controlled point circuit this block signal automatically indicates track condition and block occupancy.

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Automatic Block Signal, ABS

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A series of consecutive blocks whose use is governed by train actauted block signals or by certain conditions affecting the use of a block is called an ___________ __________ _________ system or (___).

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Auxiliary track

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A track other than a main track.

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Block

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A track section of defined limits in signaled territory a block is the track section between two consecutive block signals geverning movements in the smae direction it is also the track section from a block signal to the end of signaled territory.

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Block signal

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A fixed signal displayed to trains at the entrance of a block to govern use of the block.

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Bolt lock switch

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A hand operated switch equiped with a pripe-connected locking device that is designated to shunt the signal system before the switch points are operated.

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Centralaized

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A __________train dispatching system (CTDS)is a system by which train and on track equipment movements are governed by a controlled signals and or instructions of a train dispatcher from a centrailized location.

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Color light signal

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A fixed signal that displays aspects by the color of light it may also display aspects by a combination of colored lights.

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Color position

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A ________ ________ light signal is a fixed signal that displays aspects by the color or position of two or more lights it consists of a cluster of colored lights normally displayed in pairs for some aspects an additional white or yellow light is displayed above or below the cluster.

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Control station

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A place from which signals and signal aplliances are operated it is also a place from which instructions governing railroad movements are issued.

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Controlled point

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A station designated in the the timetable where signals are remotely controlled from the control station.

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Controlled siding

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A siding equipped with controlled signals such signals authorize trains to enter or leave the siding only.

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Controlled signal

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A fixed signal at the entrance of a route or block it is used to govern the movement of trains using that route or block the signal is operated from a control station.

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Controlled Speed, TCOOS

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__________ ________ is a speed that will permit within one- half the range of vision it will also permit stopping short of a Train, Car, Obstuction, On track equipment, or Stop signal. Take Control Over Our Speed or ________.

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Controlled track

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________ ________ is a track upon which all movements will be authorized by a train dispatcher.

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Crossover

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A combination of two switches connecting two adjacent tracks.

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Tonnage, special, clearance, radio

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CSX train documentation is a computer generated form consisting of some or all of the following: _________ graph, restricted and _________ handling, CT-168 report, _________ bureau instructions, train listing and hazardous endorsement, hazardous special handling instructions, hazardous material, ________ waybill form.

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Current, traffic

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________ of ________ is the movement of trains on a main track in one direction as a specified in the rules or special instructions.

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DCS track warrant

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Track warrant where the specified limits are designated by form EC-1 authority.

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bulletin

answer

A Dispatcher __________ is a computer generated form issued by the train dispatcher it contains current operating instructions applying to the train addressed it also contains information as to the latest systems and general bulletins issued.

question

dispatcher message

answer

Instructions and mandatory directives issued by the train dispatcher in a the prescribed form when applicable it governs the operaions of trains and is part of a dispatcher bulletin.

question

DTC block

answer

A block whose use is governed by verbal authority of the train dispatcher.

question

DTC block form

answer

The prescribed from used when obtaining a DTC track warrant.

question

DTC block system

answer

A direct traffic control block or a series of consecutive DTC blocks.

question

DTC track warrant

answer

Track warrant where the specified limits are designated by block authority.

question

Dual control

answer

A _____ ______ switch is a power operated switch also equipped for hand operation.

question

EC-1

answer

A form used to record specific instructions regarding movements on controlled tracks.

question

EC-1

answer

The prescribed form used when obtaining a DCS track warrant.

question

Electric Locked

answer

An _______ ________ switch is a hand operated switch with an electric locking device applied.

question

Emergency

answer

___________ inspection or repairs is any unforeseen circumstances (such as a derailment) has caused an inspection or a repair to be made to ensure the safe movements of trains.

question

Engine

answer

A locomotive unit propelled by any form of energy it is also a combination of such units operated from a single control.

question

Excepted Track

answer

A segment of track identified in special instructions with no more than 10 MPH, no revenue passenger service, no more than five hazardous material placrded cars is called _________ _________.

question

Exclusive, move

answer

The authority a train has to occupy a track which does not include other movement within the same limit is called ___________ authority to ______.

question

Fixed Signal

answer

A permanent signal or sign indicationg a condition affecting train movement.

question

General Notice

answer

A computer writtne or electronically transmitted notice of information and instructions not affecting the movement of trains issued by a division.

question

HEAD of train device

answer

A device on an engine that recives information from and transmits infromation to an end of train device. HTD

question

Home Signal

answer

A fixed signal capable of displaying a stop indication governing the entrance to a route block or interlocking.

question

Improper signal aspect

answer

A signal aspect that permits a train to proceed when the condition of the block does not justify such an aspect.

question

Interlocking

answer

An arrangement of interconnected signals and signal appliances for which interlocking rules are in effect. signals and movements of signal appliances must suceed each other in proper sequence.

question

Interlocking Signals

answer

Fixed signals of an interlocking.

question

Intermediate Signal

answer

A block signal equipped with either a number plus "G" marker or a "P" marker it conveys procedd at a restricted speed as its most restictive indication.

question

Intermodal train

answer

A freight train consisting entirely of equipment designed to carry travelers , containers motor vehicles and or auto frames.

question

Limited speed

answer

A speed not exceeding 45 MPH.

question

Locomotive service track area

answer

One or more tracks within an area in which the testing, servicing repair inspection or rebuilding of locomotives is under the exclusive control Mechanical department personnel protected by blue signals and derails ..speed is 5 MPH.

question

Main track

answer

A track extending through yards between stations it is other than an auxiliary track.

question

Mandatory directive

answer

An instruction required to be recoreded in writing such as a DTC block authority 707 authority 704 authority or dispatcher message.

question

Maximum authorized speed

answer

The highest speed permitted for any train on a subdivision or portion of a subdivision it will be listed under "maximum authorized speed" in special Instructions.

question

Medium Speed

answer

A speed not exceeding 30 MPH.

question

Position Light Signal

answer

Conrail- A fixed signal in which the signals aspect consisit of three lights in a straight row rotating from the center.

question

Power Operated Switch

answer

A remotely controlled switch it is operated electronically or electro pnumatically.

question

Release Form

answer

a computer from advising of a disptcher bulletin number and the number of train messages it must contain its address must correspond to the associated dispatcher bulletin.

question

Release Line

answer

The last line of a dispatcher bulletin containing the total number of dispatcher messages.

question

Remotely controlled

answer

A _________ _________ railroad crossing is a railroad crossing at grade operated by a control station.

question

Restricted, TCOSDS

answer

__________ speed is a speed that will permit stopping within one half range of vision it will also permit stopping short of a Train, a Car, an Obstruction, a sStop signal, a Derail, or an improperly lined Switch. It must permit looking out for a broken rail. it will not exceed 15 MPH. The cry of safety dont speed.

question

Schedule

answer

Information concerning directions train ID day of departure and station times of passenger trains.

question

Siding

answer

An auxiliary track for meeting and passing trains. it is designated in special instrutions.

question

Signal aspect

answer

The apperance if a fixed signal as viewed from the direction of an approaching train.

question

Signal Imperfectly Displyed

answer

A block or interlocking signal displaying lights not in conformity with the rules or the absence of a light where a color light should be or the absence of a signal at a place where the signal at a place where the signal is usually displayed or a high color light signal displaying more than one light per signal unit.

question

Signal indication

answer

The information conveyed by the aspect of the signal.

question

Signaled track

answer

A track equipped with a block or interlocking signals that govern train movements.

question

Slow speed

answer

A speed not exceeding 15 MPH.

question

Special Instructions

answer

Information contained in timetables system bulletins general bulletins and CSX procedural instruction manual.

question

Spring Switch

answer

A switch equpped to restore the switch points to normal position after having been trailed through.

question

Station

answer

A place designated in timetable by name.

question

System Bulletin

answer

Written or electronically transmitted special intstructions concerning the safety of employees and the movement of trains issued by the operating rules department.

question

System Notice

answer

Written or electronically transmited notice of information and instructiions not affecting the movement of trains issued by the operating rules department.

question

Timetable

answer

A publication containging instructions relating to the movement of trains or equipment and other essential information.

question

Track warrant control

answer

A method of authorizing movements or protecting employess or on track equipment in signaled territory on controlled track within specified limits. Movements within TWC territory is under the jurisdiction of the train dispatcher.

question

Track warrant

answer

Authorization to use a controlled track outside yard limits received in writing or copied and repeated at the direction of the dispatcher using radio or other communication. Track warrant must be written on the prescribed forms.

question

Train

answer

An engine with or without cars, displying a marker.

question

Train Coordination

answer

A method of exclusive stablishing working limits on tracks upon which a train holds exlusive authority to move whereby the crew of that train yields that authority to a roadway worker / employee-in-charge.

question

Work Train

answer

A train that is assigned to serve the Maintenance of way department in track repair and maintenace.

question

Yard

answer

A system of tracks other than main tracks and sidings a yard is used for the making up of trains storing cars and for sorting, grouping and classifying cars.

question

Yard limits

answer

A portion of main tracks designated by special instructions signs identify yard limits. Rule 193.

question

answer

The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46(Tracks); _____ MPH on other than main track, or signaled tracks, such as in yards.

question

answer

Trains operating on excepted track must not exceed ____ MPH.

question

answer

The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46(Turnouts and corssovers); _____ MPH through hand operated turnouts and crossovers other than to and from the main track.

question

14, 21

answer

Rule EHR 4453, advises to avoid operating cars subject to rocking between __ and __ MPH in locations designated in special instructions.

question

answer

Slow Speed may not exceed __ MPH.

question

answer

The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46(Turnouts and corssovers); _____ MPH through hand operated turnouts and crossovers to and from the main track.

question

answer

A warning sign will be loacted at least ____ miles before the restriction .

question

2, 2 1/2

answer

Unless otherwise specified, warning signs will be displayed at least __, but no more than __ __ miles from the beginning of the working limits on each end.

question

20, leading end

answer

Rule 193-A states that All movements must be made at controlled speed on main track yard limits , not exceeding ___ MPH until the ___________ ______ reaches the far limits.

question

answer

The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46 (Tracks); _____ MPH on non-signaled siding.

question

answer

Locomotives being shoved may not exceed ___ MPH.

question

answer

Medium Speed may not exceed __ MPH.

question

answer

Trains shoving cars may not exceed ___ MPH.

question

answer

Warning signs may be placed up to ____ minutes before the working limits become effective, as long as the employee in charge is available to communicate with any train approaching the working limits.

question

30, 70

answer

A single locomotive may not exceed __ MPH, and a consist of locomotives may never exceed __ MPH.

question

40, 10

answer

Trains handling welded or continuously jointed rail may not exceed __ MPH, and must not exceed __ MPH when crossing thru-truss bridges, and going over turnouts, crossovers, and tunnels.

question

answer

Limited Speed may not exceed __ MPH.

question

answer

The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46(Tracks); within an engine service area or car shop repair area.

question

answer

"Unit" trains consisting of solid loaded trains of coal, coke, grain, or minerals may not exceed __MPH.

question

50, 60

answer

Freight trains handling one or more empty cars may not exceed __/__ MPH.

question

All

answer

When one speed is shown on a Permanent Reduce Speed sign, it indicates the speed permitted for ________ trains.

question

Controlled, 20, switch is lined

answer

Rule 193-A Exception on Non-Signaled track states ____________ speed not exceeding ___ MPH approaching all switches prepared to stop until it is determined __________ ___ __________ for the intended route.

question

Dispatcher Message

answer

On controlled tracks, the loaction of work force limits are designated on the ___________ ___________.

question

End restriction

answer

A permanent end restriction sign will be located at the: ______ of the __________

question

F, 95, rocking

answer

Rule EHR 4453 states that: When handling ___ Plate box cars, high side gondolas, open top hoppers, or covered hoppers witha cubic foot capacity of at least 4000 that are loaded with more than ____ tons and indentified by tonnage graph, observe cars for excessive _________.

question

Intermodal, 60

answer

A train consisting of all loaded box cars will be considered a __________ train and may not exceed __ MPH.

question

Maximum authorized speed

answer

Normal speed is _________ ___________ ________.

question

Passenger, 5, 10

answer

Revenue ________ trains, or freight trains with ____ or more placarded cars may not operate on excepted track, and will not exceed ___ MPH.

question

Permanent Reduce Speed

answer

Permanent speed restrictions are indicated at the beginning of the restriction by a: __________ ___________ ___________ sign.

question

Restricted Speed, 15

answer

_________ is a speed that will permit stopping within one-half the range of vision. It will also permit stopping short of a train, a car, an obstruction, a stop signal, a derail, or an improperly aligned switch. It will not exceed ____ MPH.

question

signal indication, dispatcher

answer

Rule 193 states that trains are authorized to enter and move within main track yard limits by _________ ___________ , or authority of the _________ ___________.

question

Signal Indication, Train Dispatcher

answer

What is the authorization for trains to enter and move within main track yard limits? ____________ __________ or by the ________ __________.

question

Timetable

answer

The locations of permanent speed restrictions are identified in special instructions in the: ____________.

question

train, car, obstruction, derail, improperly, stop

answer

Per rule 46, trains using other than main or signaled tracks must move at a speed that will permit stopping within one-half the range of vision short of a _______, ____, __________, ________, __________ aligned switch, on track equipment, or a _____ signal.

question

1, 6

answer

The minimum number of flags and fusees required at the beginning of a trip or tour of duty in the controlling locomotive is __ red flag, and __ fusees.

question

1, 12

answer

The minimum number of flags and fusees required at the beginning of a trip or tour of duty in an occupied caboose or shoving platform is __ red flag, and __ fusees.

question

Restricted, 15

answer

A train that encounters an unattended fusee burning on or near it's track must immediatley reduce to and not exceed _____________ speed for ___ minutes.

question

Adjacent, distance, stop

answer

Rule 70 (Train Protection) states that when providing warning against approaching trains on adjacent track, place a lighted fusee immediatley on any adjacdnt track at the ________ of the train. Go at least the __________ distance prescribed by the table, and give a ________ signal if you see or hear an approaching train.

question

Fouls, both

answer

Rule 70 states that when a train inadvertently ______ a main track, protection must be provided in _______ directions, at least the dstance prescribed in the table.

question

Dispatcher, warning

answer

Rule 161-A states that if overunning an Authority, notify the train ____________ immedialtley and provide __________ as prescribed in the table.

question

Number, messages, initials, date

answer

The release line of a dispatcher bulletin is the last line and will contain the dispatcher bulletin _________, total number of ___________, the dispatcher's ___________, and the ________ ad time released.

question

Train dispatcher, train, 4

answer

The dispatcher bulletin is a computer generated form issued by the ________ ____________. It contains current operating instructions for the _______ addressed, as well as System and General Bulletins issued. It must be issued within ___ hours of the crew going on duty.

question

Conductor, engineer

answer

If the dispatcher bulletin does not contain the correct _________ or __________ name or ID number, notify the train dispatcher.

question

Flash Flood warning

answer

Form F covers _________ ________.

question

Heat warning

answer

Form H covers ________ _________.

question

Malfunctioning Auto Road Crossing

answer

Form M covers _____________ ________ __________.

question

Superseding part

answer

Form P covers __________ ___________ of a dispatcher message.

question

Block Signal

answer

Form U covers temporarily suspending _________ ________ system rules.

question

Speed Restrictions

answer

Form V covers providing for temporary __________ __________.

question

Conditional stop

answer

Form W covers a _________ ________ in work limits.

question

Out, Service

answer

Form T covers track that is ________ of ________.

question

Track Protection

answer

Form Z covers a _________ _________ .

question

Movements

answer

Form EC-1 is used to record specific instructions regarding ___________ on controlled tracks.

question

Number, Train, Engine, Employee

answer

A form EC-1 will be copied in duplicate and will include the EC-1 form ________, date, location, ________ ID, ________ number, and the name of the __________ copying.

question

Same, date, time, initials

answer

A form EC-1 may be cancelled using the ______ form, and must include the cancellation _____ and _____, as well as the dispatchers _________ .

question

One

answer

Rule 251 relates to track signaled in _____ direction.

question

Both

answer

Rule 261 relates to track signaled in _____ directions.

question

Dispatcher bulletin, release form

answer

Before occupying a main track, signaled track, or siding, employees must receive a ___________ __________ and a ___________ _________.

question

Directional, Speed

answer

The two basic types of signal systems on railroads are _________, and _________.

question

Color Light, Position Light, Color Position Light

answer

The three types of signal units used on CSXT are: _______ _________, ________ ________, and ________ _________ ______.

question

Intermediate

answer

A signal with any type of marker plate is an ___________ signal.

question

Absolute, Intermediate

answer

Th two main types of block signals are ____________ and ____________.

question

Stop

answer

An absolute signal conveys ______ as it's most restrictive speed.

question

Proceed at Restricted Speed

answer

An intermediate signal conveys ______ as it's most restrictive speed.

question

Stop

answer

Arm swung at a right angle to the track.

question

Reduce Speed

answer

Slight horizontal movement at arm's length at right angle to the track.

question

Proceed

answer

Arm raised and lowered vertically.

question

Back up

answer

Arm swung vertically in a circle towards the face at right to the track.

question

Apply air brakes

answer

Arm swung horizontally above the head at a right angle to the track. (When equipment is standing)

question

Release air brakes

answer

Arm held at arms length above the head.

question

Emergency Stop

answer

Any object waived violently by anyone on or near the track.

question

Retarder

answer

A tracking device built into the railway to reduce the speed of rail cars.

question

Coupler

answer

A device located at both end of rail cars in a standard location providing means to connect one car to another.

question

Ladder

answer

A single "lead" track with many tracks branching off to form a classification yard.

question

Interchange

answer

The transfer of rail cars from one railroad to another at a common junction point.

question

Yard

answer

A system of tracks, other than main tracks and sidings used for making up trains, storing rail cars, and other purposes.

question

Team tracks

answer

A side track subject to use by the general public with facilities for loading and unloading cars.

question

answer

Couple speed must never exceed ___ MPH.

question

Hump yard

answer

A switching yard with an elevated track or hump over which cars are pushed by an engine so that they travel by gravity to classification tracks.

question

Siding

answer

An auxilary track for meeting or passing trains. It is designated in special instructions in the time table.

question

Wood, concrete, and steel

answer

CSX uses three types of crossties. They are:

question

Rail anchors

answer

______ _________ are designed to prevent rail creep or run caused by temperature changes, heavy grades, and train braking which cause crosstie and switch alignment problems. These devices are clipped or bolted to the rail on each side of the crosstie.

question

Ballast

answer

The main purpose of __________ is to hold the crossties in place, prevent lateral movement, increase drainage, and spread out the load underneath the crosstie.

question

Steel tie plates

answer

_______ ____ ________ are placed between te rail and the crosstie to increase crosstie life by spreading the load on the rail over a large enough area to prevent the rail from crushing and cutting into the crosstie.

question

Spikes

answer

________ are driven into the crossties to keep the rail from lying on it's side or turning over, and for securing the tie plates to the crossties.

question

Bolted, continuosly welded

answer

The two types of rail are _________ and __________ __________.

question

Ball, Web, Base

answer

The three parts of a rail are the ______, ____, and ______.

question

4 feet, 8 and 1/2 inches

answer

Track guage is the inside distance between the rails and measures:

question

Turnout

answer

A ______________ diverts rail equipment from one track to another.

question

Switch

answer

A _________ is a device consisting of two movable rails , necessary connection, and operating parts designed to turn rail equipment from the track on which it is moving to another track.

question

Derail

answer

A ________ is a track safety device designed to guide the wheels of rolling stock off of the rails as a means of protection against collisons or other accidents.

question

Frog

answer

A ______ is a device made of rail components and assembled to permit the wheels on one rail of track to cross over another rail of intersecting track.

question

Crossover

answer

A _________ is two turnouts (switches) with the track between their frogs arranged to form continuous passage between to nearby and generally parellel tracks.

question

Railroad crossing

answer

A _________ _______ is the point where two railroad tracks intersect.

question

Conductor, Yard Foreman

answer

A ____________ is a train service employee in charge of the train or yard crew. Called a __________ __________ when working in the yard.

question

Trainmaster

answer

A _____________ is a supervisor who controls train operation within a specific area.

question

Yardmaster

answer

A _____________ is the person responsible for control of trains operating within a yard.

question

Yard Limits

answer

______ _______ is a portion of main track designated by special instructions, Yard limits are identified by signs.

question

CSX Safeway

answer

RUle GS-1 states that all employees have a copy of ____ _________ accessible while on duty.

question

Job Briefing

answer

A ___ ________ should discuss the sequence of steps, identify hazards, to make sure everyone understands, and should be followed up as needed.

question

Pinch points

answer

When working with tools, you must be careful of _________ _________ .

question

Walkways, handholds, railings

answer

When available, always use designated __________, _________, and __________.

question

30, 10

answer

The minimum distance you must stand from switches and derails associated with a passing train is ___ feet, and during switching operations is ___ feet.

question

25, 50

answer

Unless you have 3 step protection, do not cross within ___ feet of a standing train, or ___ feet between cars.

question

3 Step protection

answer

Before fouling equipment with a controlled locomotive, you must obtain __ _____ _________.

question

Brake

answer

To determine the A and B end on a rail car, the end with the ________ is the B end.

question

B End

answer

When facing the __ ____ of the rail car, the right side is identified as the R side, and the left as the L side.

question

Wheel

answer

A journal on a rail car is the same as a ___________.

question

X, Z, U

answer

You can determine who owns a rail car, read the last letter of the car initial. __= Private Car, __= Trailer, and __= Container.

question

B, C, H

answer

Plate __ cars are the smallest cars in service and can run anywhere in North America. Plate __ cars do not need clearance authorization. Plate __ cars have height restrictions.

question

Friction, Cushioned

answer

A _________ draft gear car has a standard shock absorbing unit, while a _________ underframe car has additional shock absorbers built into the frame.

question

Bulkhead

answer

A ___________ is a moving partition used to secure lading.

question

Seals

answer

_________ are used to protect the integrity of the shipment loaded in car.

question

Classification

answer

The act of putting cars together going to a common destination is called __________.

question

Doubling, Double Over

answer

Picking up a cut of cars from one location and coupling them to a cut of cars from another location is called ___________, or to __________ _______.

question

Spot

answer

A ______ is a specific location at a customers siding.

question

Switching

answer

The act of sorting or grouping cars is called ___________.

question

Coupling, Moving

answer

Before _________ to or __________ cars that are being loaded or unloaded, notify persons in, on, or around the cars.

question

Removed, Cleared

answer

Before cars are coupled or moved, gang planks, spouts, conveyors, and hose connections must be __________ and _________.

question

Running

answer

The practice of making a __________ switch is prohibited.

question

Static, Gravity

answer

A ________ drop is when the hand brake is released on standing cars and _________ provides the energy to move cars past the standing engine on another track.

question

1, 2, 2

answer

How many hand brakes must be applied for one car ____, two cars ____, three or more cars ____ plus as many as needed to secure the cars.

question

Alignment, Normal

answer

When switching, always check the _________ of the switch and make sure the derails are in the ________ position.

question

Route, properly, lever

answer

Employees lining switches must ascertain that the ________ is lined for movemet, the switch points fit _________, and the switch _______ is secure.

question

Fast walk

answer

When kicking cars, you must not hold on to the uncoupling lever at ay speed faste than a ______ ______.

question

Good Faith Challenge

answer

An employee has the right to challenge any directive that he feels is unsafe. This is called a ______ _______ __________.

question

Stretch

answer

When coupling cars ________ the slack if necessary to ensure that cars are coupled.

question

Secured, Gates

answer

Cars must be ________ before coupling to prevent them from rolling away when standing on a grade, near the ends of tracks, derails, ______, public crossings.

question

Passenger

answer

_________ or camp cars must never be kicked.

question

brakes, locomotives.

answer

Hand ________ must be applied to all ___________ left unattended.

question

Normal

answer

Switches and derails must be lined in the ________ position, except whe changed for immediate movement.

question

Operator

answer

A remote control _________ is an employee who has control of remote control locomotice or platform. (RCO)

question

Foreman

answer

A remote control operator who is in charge of a remote control crew is called a remote control operating _______. (RCOF)

question

Control

answer

An operator ________ unit is a device through which a remotely controlled locomotive or platform is operated.

question

Zone

answer

When activated, a designated portion of track may operate without protection on the leading end movements. This is known as a Remote Control ______. (RCZ)

question

Operator

answer

Before being authorized to enter an Activated Remote Control Zone (RCZ), employees must get permission from the Remote Control ____________ Foreman.

question

Shove Lights, shoving

answer

Unless protected by ________ _________ or other technological means, ___________ or pushing movements must be protected by a crew member.

question

Conflicting, lined, road, sufficient

answer

After strecthing the slack, provide point protection and make positive visual determination that there are no _________ movements, intervening switches and derails are properly _________, no intervening ______ crossings, and that there is _________ room in thetrack for the cars being shoved.

question

RFNOCOM

answer

Which EOT/HTD message is not considered a failure message.

question

30, 2

answer

When a telemetry device fails en route, you must not exceed ___ MPH, or move on a grade of __ % or more.

question

answer

Air brake cylinder piston travel on truck mounted brakes must not exceed __ inches, or it will be considered inoperative.

question

Cut out, set, 4

answer

When you have an overheated bearing on a car, you must ______ ____ the brakes, ____ the car out ASAP, and not exceed __ MPH.

question

Front

answer

On your way into the terminal the dispatcher asks you to pick up 30 loaded hopper cars. Where do you put these in your train if your train has all empty cars?

question

answer

When handling CSX engineering equipment on your train, do not exceed ___ MPH unless otherwise instructed.

question

answer

When handling air dump cars not listed in rule 4556, do not exceed ___ MPH.

question

answer

What is your maximum speed when handling a loaded coal train?

question

Freight Train Speed

answer

At what speed can a locomotive consist without cars travel?

question

Train Documentation

answer

A computer generated document consiting of some or all of the following: Tonnage Graph, CT-168, Restricted & Special Handling report, CBI Instructions, HAZMAT Radio WayBill form, HAZMAT handling instructions is called CSX ________ ___________.

question

Writing, Repeated

answer

A Mandatory Directive must be recorded in ___________ and must be __________.

question

Radio Waybill

answer

On what form do you write down shipping information received orally?

question

NI, NT

answer

Which two work instruction exception codes do not require reason codes? _ _ and _ _ .

question

Load, Axle

answer

Which two items on a tonnage graph are the most important? _____ status, and ____ count.

question

Station Listing Diagram Chart

answer

Whic publication gives authority for movement information?

question

answer

How many locomotives may travel in a consist with no cars or only a caboose or shoving platform?

question

answer

Maximum amount of locomotives allowed with cars?

question

answer

Maximum amount of locomotives on an industrial track or spur?

question

Buff

answer

Slack in a state of compression is called?

question

Railroad, Customer

answer

Two forms of acceptable shipping papers are ________ docs, or ___________ documents.

question

answer

HazMat cars must never be nearer than the __th car from the engine.

question

50, 250

answer

A safety stop must be completed between __ feet and ___ feet.

question

Work Force

answer

Rule 89 covers ______ _______ limits.

question

Support

answer

The 6 basic yard types are Flat Switch, Hump, Receiving, Storage, _________, and Departure.

question

answer

When a defect detector announces that there is a problem with your train but no defects are found, the train may not exceed __ MPH until it reaches the next defect detector.

question

answer

Work order instructions covering picking up a car not in industry is code __.

question

answer

The speed thru a switch to and from the main track may not exceed __ MPH.

question

answer

The speed thru a switch other than to and from the main track is __ MPH.

question

CT-168

answer

A form to record HazMat car location changes is a __-____.

question

Blocking

answer

The assembling of cars of cars in groups going to the same location is called _________.

question

Switch

answer

A device for moving trains from one track to another is called a ________ or a turnout.

STUDY

Civil Engineering Conjunction Hand Limits

GCOR Study EXAM – Flashcards 267 terms

Maisie Clarke

267 terms

Preview

GCOR Study EXAM – Flashcards

question

What main track authorities apply to centralized traffic control (CTC) territory?

answer

Authority to enter CTC limits

question

What main track authorities apply to manual interlockings?

answer

Verbal authority from the control operator or a controlled signal indicates proceed.

question

Define absolute signal.

answer

A block or interlocking signal without a number plate, or designated by an "A" marker.

question

Define automatic block system (ABS).

answer

A series of consecutive blocks governed by block signals, cab signals, or both. The signals are activated by a train or by certain conditions that affect the block use.

question

Define block.

answer

A length of track: -between consecutive block signals -between a block signal and the end of the block system limits, or -in ATC limits the use of which is governed by cab signals and/or block signals

question

Define block signal.

answer

A fixed signal at the entrance of a block that governs trains entering and using that block.

question

Define block system.

answer

A block or series of consecutive blocks within ABS, ACS, CTC, or interlocking limits.

question

Define centralized traffic control (CTC).

answer

A block system that uses block signal indications to authorize train movements.

question

Define control point.

answer

The location of absolute signals controlled by a control operator.

question

Define current of traffic.

answer

The movement of trains in one direction on a main track, as specified by the rules.

question

Define double track.

answer

Two main tracks where the current of traffic on one track is in a specified direction and in the opposite direction on the other.

question

Define general track bulletin.

answer

A notice containing track bulletin restrictions and other conditions affecting train movement.

question

Define interlocking.

answer

Signal appliances that are interconnected so that each of their movements follows the other in proper sequence. May be operated manually or automatically.

question

Define main track.

answer

A track extending through yards and between stations that must not be occupied without authority or protection.

question

Define multiple main tracks.

answer

Two or more main tracks that are used according to the timetable.

question

Define proceed indication.

answer

Any block signal that allows a train to proceed without stopping.

question

Define track warrant control (TWC).

answer

A method to authorize train movements or protect men or machines on a main track within specified limits in a territory designated by the timetable.

question

Define trackside warning detector.

answer

A device that indicates conditions such as overheated journals, dragging equipment, excess dimensions, shifted loads, high water, or slides.

question

Define yard.

answer

A system of tracks, other than main tracks and sidings, used for making up trains, storing cars, and other purposes.

question

Define yard limits

answer

A portion of main track designated by yard limit signs and timetable special instructions or a track bulletin.

question

What is the most important element in performing job duties?

answer

Safety.

question

Who can issue or cancel a general order?

answer

The designated manager.

question

What information is contained in general orders?

answer

The information and instructions related to rules or operating practices.

question

How are general orders used?

answer

They replace any rule, special instruction, or regulation that conflicts with them.

question

What is rule 1.3.3?

answer

Inspection of freight cars.

question

What must cars be checked for during a safety inspection?

answer

Leaning, sagging, improper truck position, object hanging or dragging, objects extending from the side, insecurely attached doors, broken or missing safety appliances, contents leaking, insecure coupling devices, overheard journals or wheels, broken or cracked wheels, brakes that fail to release, or any other apparent hazard that could cause an accident.

question

Who is responsible for the safety and protection of the train?

answer

The conductor and engineer.

question

What must the conductor remind the engineer of?

answer

Limits of authority, track warrants, track bulletins, and radio speed restrictions.

question

When must the conductor inform an engineer of an upcoming restriction along their route?

answer

After the train passes the last station before, but at least two miles from the restriction.

question

True or false: Crew members can use binoculars to determine the position, aspect, or indication displayed by a fixed signal.

answer

False

question

When mobile and transmitting or acknowledging a radio communication, what identification is required?

answer

Name or initials of railroad and train number, engine number, or words that identify the precise mobile unit.

question

When may fixed and mobile units use short identification while communicating by radio?

answer

After making positive identification for switching, classification, and similar operations within a yard.

question

What are examples of mandatory directives?

answer

Track warrants, track bulletins, DTC authority, track and time, track permits, and radio speed restrictions.

question

True or false: A mandatory directive restricts a train's movement will not be issued near a point where the restriction applies until the engineer or conductor confirms that the train can comply with the restriction.

answer

True.

question

When can you indicate "void" on a mandatory directive form?

answer

When employee reports clear of authority limits or mandatory directive is made void.

question

How long must crew retain mandatory directives, including those that have been voided?

answer

For continuous tour of duty, or as instructed by train dispatcher.

question

Before a mandatory directive is acted upon, what must occur?

answer

The conductor and engineer must each have a written copy of the mandatory directive, and each crew member must read and understand it.

question

If the person who is giving the signal to shove a train disappears, or the light being used disappears, what must employees do?

answer

Stop movement, unless the employee on the leading car controls the air brakes.

question

True or false: Any object waived violently by any person on or near the track is a signal to stop.

answer

True.

question

When radio communication is used for shoving movement, what information must be specified to the engineer?

answer

The direction and distance, and distance must be specified when distance is more than four cars.

question

When using radio communication to make a shove, when must movement be stopped unless additional instructions are received by the engineer?

answer

Half the distance specified.

question

What aspect is used to indicate a temporary speed restriction?

answer

A yellow flag.

question

Yellow-red flags are used to indicate what?

answer

That a train may be required to stop.

question

When flags are not displayed to indicate temporary speed restrictions, where will information on such restrictions be found?

answer

In the track bulletin, track warrant, or general order.

question

What documents may restrict or stop trains because of track conditions, structures, or men or equipment?

answer

Track bulletins, track warrants, or general orders.

question

To indicate a restricted area, where must yellow flags be displayed?

answer

Two miles ahead of the restricted area.

question

What must occur once the train reaches a restricted area indicated by a yellow flag?

answer

Train can proceed at the speed specified by the track warrant, track bulletin, general orders, or radio speed restriction.

question

When operating within a restricted area, as indicated by a yellow flag, when can the train resume train speed?

answer

When the rear of the train clears the restricted area.

question

When a yellow flag is displayed, but the restriction is not specified by a track warrant, track bulletin, or general orders, what must the crew do?

answer

Once the train is two miles beyond the yellow flag, crew may proceed at a speed not exceeding 10 MPH. Crew can only resume speed after the rear of the train has passed a green flag, or traveled four miles beyond the yellow flag and the dispatcher has verified that no bulletin or warrant is in effect at that location.

question

Describe the CLEAR aspect.

answer

Solid green or solid green over solid red.

question

Describe the APPROACH LIMITED aspect.

answer

Solid yellow over flashing green.

question

Describe the ADVANCE APPROACH aspect.

answer

Solid yellow over solid green or solid yellow over solid green over solid red.

question

Describe the APPROACH MEDIUM aspect.

answer

Flashing yellow or flashing yellow over solid red.

question

Describe the APPROACH RESTRICTING aspect.

answer

Solid yellow over lunar or solid yellow over lunar over solid red.

question

Describe the APPROACH aspect.

answer

Solid yellow or solid yellow over solid red.

question

Describe the DIVERGING CLEAR aspect.

answer

Solid red over solid green or solid red over solid green over solid red.

question

Describe the DIVERGING APPROACH DIVERGING aspect.

answer

Solid red over solid yellow over solid yellow.

question

Describe the DIVERGING APPROACH MEDIUM aspect.

answer

Solid red over flashing yellow or solid red over flashing yellow over solid red.

question

Describe the DIVERGING APPROACH aspect.

answer

Solid red over solid yellow or solid red over solid yellow over solid red.

question

Describe the RESTRICTING aspect.

answer

Flashing red or solid red over flashing red.

question

Describe the STOP AND PROCEED aspect.

answer

Solid red (with a number plate) or solid red over solid red (with a number plate).

question

Describe the STOP aspect.

answer

Solid red (without a number plate) or solid red over solid red (without a number plate).

question

When will a Maintenance of Way employee display yellow-red flags?

answer

One hour before the track bulletin Form B takes effect until one hour after it expires.

question

True or false: The display of yellow-red flags extends the authorized working time beyond the times listed on the track bulletin form B.

answer

False.

question

When a yellow-red flag is displayed and the restriction is not specified by a track bulletin, track warrant, or general order, what must crew members do?

answer

Be prepared to stop short of a red flag two miles beyond the yellow-red flag.

question

If no red flag is displayed following a yellow-red flag, what must the crew members do?

answer

Move at restricted speed. Increase speed only after a crew member has received instructions for the employee in charge of the restriction, or the leading wheels of movement are four miles beyond the yellow-red flag, and the train dispatcher has verified that no track bulletin or track warrant protecting men or equipment is in effect at that location.

question

What must trains do when a red flag or red light is displayed?

answer

Stop, short of the red flag or red light an not proceed unless the employee in charge gives instructions, including the milepost location of the red flag or red light.

question

True or false: In red flag restricted areas, if instructions to proceed are provided by the employee in charge before the train stops, the train may pass the red flag or red light without stopping.

answer

True.

question

What must a train do when it approaches an unattended fusee burning on or near its track?

answer

The train must stop consistent with good train handling. After stopping, the train must proceed at restricted speed for one mile beyond the fusee.

question

When should the engine bell be rung?

answer

Before moving, except when making momentary stop and start switching movements, as a warning signal any time it is necessary, when approaching men or equipment on or near the track, when whistle signal (7) is required, and when approaching public crossing at grade with the engine in front.

question

When may the whistle be used?

answer

At any time as a warning regardless of any whistle prohibitions.

question

Other forms of communications may be used in place of whistle signals, except under which signals?

answer

When persons or livestock are on the track at other than road crossing at grade (1), when approaching public crossings at grade with the engine in front (7), and when approaching men or equipment on or near the track (8).

question

What is the indication of a CLEAR aspect?

answer

Proceed.

question

What is the indication of an APPROACH LIMITED aspect?

answer

Proceed prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 60 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.

question

What is the indication of an APPROACH LIMITED aspect?

answer

Proceed prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 50 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.

question

What is the indication of an APPROACH MEDIUM aspect?

answer

Proceed prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 40 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.

question

What is the indication of an APPROACH RESTRICTING aspect?

answer

Proceed prepared to pass next signal at restricted speed.

question

What is the indication of an APPROACH aspect?

answer

Proceed prepared to stop at the next signal. Trains exceeding 30 MPH immediately reduce to that speed.

question

What is the indication of a DIVERGING CLEAR aspect?

answer

Proceed prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed through turnout.

question

What is the indication of a DIVERGING APPROACH DIVERGING aspect?

answer

Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to advance on diverging route at the next signal not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout.

question

What is the indication of a DIVERGING APPROACH MEDIUM aspect?

answer

Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 35 MPH.

question

What is the indication of a DIVERGING APPROACH aspect?

answer

Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to stop at next signal. If exceeding 30 MPH, immediately reduce to that speed.

question

What is the indication of a RESTRICTING aspect?

answer

Proceed at restricted speed.

question

What is the indication of a STOP AND PROCEED aspect?

answer

Stop, then proceed at restricted speed.

question

What is the indication of a STOP aspect?

answer

Stop.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Yellow over flashing green?

answer

APPROACH LIMITED -- Proceed prepared to pass the next signal not exceeding 60 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Yellow over green or yellow over green over red?

answer

ADVANCE APPROACH -- Proceed prepared to pass the next signal not exceeding 50 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Flashing yellow or flashing yellow over red?

answer

APPROACH MEDIUM -- Proceed prepared to pass the next signal not exceeding 40 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Yellow over lunar?

answer

APPROACH RESTRICTING -- Proceed prepared to pass the next signal at restricted speed.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Yellow of yellow over red?

answer

APPROACH --- Proceed prepared to stop at the next signal, trains exceeding 30 MPH immediately reduce to that speed.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red over green?

answer

DIVERGING CLEAR -- Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red over yellow over yellow?

answer

DIVERGING APPROACH DIVERGING -- Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to advance on diverging route at the next signal not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red over flashing yellow or red over flashing yellow over red?

answer

DIVERGING APPROACH MEDIUM -- Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 35 MPH.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red over yellow or red over red over yellow?

answer

DIVERGING APPROACH -- Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout; approach next signal preparing to stop, if exceeding 30 MPH, immediately reduce to that speed.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Flashing red or red with a "G" and a marker plate?

answer

RESTRICTING -- Proceed at restricted speed.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red with a number plate?

answer

STOP AND PROCEED -- Stop and proceed at restricted speed.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red or red over red?

answer

STOP -- Stop.

question

What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Green.

answer

CLEAR -- Proceed.

question

Describe a whistle sound (1) and its indication.

answer

Sound: Succession of short sounds. Indication: Use when persons or livestock are on the track at other than road crossings at grade. In addition, use to warn railroad employees when an emergency exists, such as derailment. When crews on other trains hear this signal, they must stop until it is safe to proceed.

question

Describe a whistle sound (2) and its indication.

answer

Sound: - Indication: When stopped: air brakes are applied, pressure equalized.

question

Describe a whistle sound (3) and its indication.

answer

Sound: - - Indication: Release brakes. Proceed.

question

Describe a whistle sound (4) and its indication.

answer

Sound: o o Indication: Acknowledgment of any signal not otherwise provided for.

question

Describe a whistle sound (5) and its indication.

answer

Sound: o o o Indication: When stopped: back up. Acknowledgment of hand signal to back up.

question

Describe the whistle sound (6) and its indication.

answer

Sound: o o o o Indication: Request for signal to be given or repeated if not understood.

question

Describe the whistle sound (7) and its indication.

answer

Sound: - - o - Indication: When approaching public crossings at grade with the engine in front, sound signal as follows: a. At speeds in excess of 45 MPH, start signal at or about the crossing sign by not more than 1/4 mile before the crossing. b. At speeds of 45 MPH or less, start signal at least 15 seconds, but not more than 20 seconds, before entering the crossing. c. If no crossing sign, start signal at least 15 seconds, bu not more than 20 seconds before entering crossing but not more than 1/4 mile before crossing. d. If movement starts less than 1/4 mile from a crossing, signal may be sounded less than 15 seconds before the crossing when it is clearly seen traffic is not approaching the crossing, traffic is not stopped at the crossing, or when crossing gates are fully lowered.

question

Describe the whistle sound (8) and its indication.

answer

Sound: - o Indication: Approaching men or equipment on or near the track, regardless of any whistle prohibitions. After this initial warning, sound whistle signal (4) intermittently until the head end of train has passed the men or equipment.

question

What should be done if the whistle fails and no other unit can be used as the lead unit?

answer

Continue movement with the bell ringing continuously. Stop the train before each public crossing, so a crew member on the ground can provide warning until the crossing is occupied, unless: -Crossing gates are in fully lowered position. -No traffic is approaching or stopped at the crossing.

question

When crossing at a public crossing at grade, at what point must the headlight be on bright?

answer

At the crossing sign. If no sign, or if movement begins between sign and crossing, the headlight must be on bright soon enough before the crossing to provide warning.

question

What are the six situations which allow the headlight to be dimmed?

answer

1. At stations and yards where switching is being done. 2. When stopped close behind a train. 3. When stopped on the main track waiting for an approaching train. However, when stopped in block system limits, turn the headlight off at the radio request of the crew of an approaching train, until the head end of the train passes. 4. When approaching and passing the head end of a train at night. 5. At other times to permit passing of hand signals or when the safety of employees requires. 6. When left unattended on a main track in non-signaled territory.

question

When can you turn off the headlight?

answer

When the train is stopped clear of the main track or when the train is left unattended on the main track in block system limits.

question

What must be displayed to indicate the rear of the train?

answer

A marker.

question

How will trains be identified?

answer

By the initials and engine number, adding the direction when required.

question

When an engine consists of more than one unit, or when two or more engines are coupled, which unit's number will be illuminated?

answer

The first unit in the consist will be illuminated as the identifying number.

question

Under what exceptions are numbers other than the initials and engine number used to identify the train?

answer

-On track bulletins that advise about excessive dimension equipment, trains may be identified by train symbol. -On track bulletins and on track warrants that do not convey movement authority, passenger trains may be identified by the train symbol.

question

What does a blue signal signify?

answer

That workmen are on, under, or between rolling equipment.

question

On a main track, how is blue signal protection provided?

answer

A blue signal must be displayed at each end of the rolling equipment.

question

In addition to providing protection on the track, where else must blue signal protection be posted?

answer

Attached to the controlling engine and be visible to the engineer.

question

When can the engine under blue light protection be moved?

answer

When directed by the individuals who placed the blue signal protection.

question

True or false: An engine must not enter a designated engine servicing area until the blue signal protection is removed from the entrance.

answer

True.

question

When may an engine protected by blue signals be moved?

answer

When an authorized employee operates the engine under the direction of the employee in charge of workmen, the blue signal has been removed from the controlling engine to be repositioned, and workmen have been warned of the movement.

question

When a signal is improperly displayed, or a signal, flag, or sign is absent from the place it is usually shown, how should the signal be regarded? What else should be done?

answer

As displaying the most restrictive indication it can give. Promptly report improperly displayed signals or absent fixed signals.

question

What must a crew member do before initiating movement?

answer

Receive a track warrant or general track bulletin, or determine from the train dispatcher or yardmaster if any track bulletins are needed.

question

What are the different types of main track authorization?

answer

Rule 6.13 yard limits Rule 6.14 restricted limits Rule 6.15 block register territory Rule 9.14 movement with the current of traffic Rule 9.15 track permits Rule 10.1 authority to enter CTC limits Rule 14.1 authority to enter TWC limits Rule 14.6 movement against the current of traffic Rule 15.3 authorizing movement against the current of traffic Rule 15.4 protection when tracks removed from service Rule 16.1 authority to enter DTC limits At manual interlockings, verbal authority from the control operator or a controlled signal that indicates proceed. Special instructions or general order.

question

When a train receives track and time, track warrant or track permit authority join with another employee, when can train occupy the overlapping limits?

answer

After permission is received to enter the limits from the employees listed on the authority.

question

How must reverse movements on any main track, controlled siding, or any track where a block system is in effect be made?

answer

At restricted speed an only within the limits a train has authority to occupy the track.

question

What must be done before making reverse movements?

answer

Obtain permission from the train dispatcher, unless the movement is within the same signaled block.

question

When a train is advised that working limits have been established behind their train, what must be done in order to make reverse movements?

answer

Obtain permission from the employee in charge, including within the same block.

question

When cars or engines are shoved on a main track or controlled siding in the direction authorized, movement must not exceed what speed?

answer

20 MPH for freight trains.

question

When cars or engines are shoved, crew member must be in position and provide visual protection unless relieved by what?

answer

-Local instructions for tracks equipped with shove lights/cameras. -Special instructions specific to tracks involved. -Rule 6.6 (picking up crew member)

question

What are the minimum radio communication requirements that should be used during shoving movements?

answer

Direction of shove, in relationship to the front of the controlling locomotive. Distance of shove if over four car lengths 200 feet.

question

A train may back up on any main track or on any track where CTC is in effect to pick up a crew member under what conditions?

answer

1. The train dispatcher gives permission to make the movement. 2. Movement is limited to the train's authority. 3. Movement does not enter or foul a private or public crossing except as provided by rule 6.32.1. 4. Movement will not be made into or within yard limits, restricted limits, interlocking limits, drawbridges, railroad crossings at grade, or track bulletin Form B limits. 5. Movement does no exceed the train's lengths.

question

What must a train do when required to take siding?

answer

Stop clear of the switch, unless the switch is properly lined to leave the main track.

question

What must a train standing on the main track to meet an opposing train do?

answer

If possible, line the switch for for the opposing train to leave the main track. However, within ABS, do not line the switch until the opposing train has entered the block in advance.

question

How must movements entering or moving within yard limits must be made?

answer

At restricted speed, unless under a block signal indication that is more favorable than Approach.

question

Within yard limits, trains are authorized to use the main track not protecting against other trains, only after what?

answer

Obtaining a track warrant, listing all track bulletins that affect their movement.

question

When do yard limits remain in effect?

answer

Continuously unless otherwise specified by special instructions or track bulletin.

question

True or false: Movement against the current of traffic can be made within yard limits without authorization.

answer

False.

question

When yard limits fall within CTC territory, how is movement authorized on the main track?

answer

By the control operator.

question

How are restricted limits designated?

answer

By signs and in the special instructions.

question

How must movements be made within restricted limits?

answer

At restricted speed.

question

True or false: Movements within restricted limits can be made against the current of traffic with authorization or protection by track warrant, track bulletin, yardmaster, or other authorized employee.

answer

True.

question

When is flag protection not required against following trains on the same track?

answer

If train is within ABS limits and the rear of the train is protected by a least two block signals or one block signal and one distant signal. If the rear of the train is within BRT, CTC, DTC, TWC or interlocking limits. Or if general or special instructions specify that flag protection is not required.

question

What procedure must be followed when leaving a portion of a train temporarily on the main track?

answer

Set a sufficient number of hand brakes to keep the detached portion from moving. Provide protection against movements that may enter the main track between the detached portion and the returning from portion, unless dispatcher verbally relieves the protection, or the return movement is otherwise authorized. Make return movement at restricted speed.

question

When a defect or condition that might cause an accident is discovered, what must be done?

answer

The crew member must immediately notify the train dispatcher and provide protection if necessary.

question

What must occur before beginning work and when work or job conditions change?

answer

A job briefing.

question

What is three point contact? When must it be used?

answer

One hand and two feet, or one foot and two hands. It must be used when getting on or off vehicles, equipment, or machinery.

question

True or false: In an emergency, running is permitted in the performance of duty.

answer

True.

question

When should you expect the movement of trains, engines, cars or other equipment?

answer

At any time, in any direction, and on any track.

question

What must crew members do before going between or working on the end of rail equipment?

answer

Wait for movement to stop and slack to adjust, ensure that all crew members have a clear understanding of the work to be performed.

question

What is the distance required when going between uncoupled locomotives or cars?

answer

50 feet.

question

When engines may be working on both ends of a track, what must be done before working between uncoupled equipment?

answer

Red zone must be setup. Notify all members of the crew by radio that the crew member will be going between or working on the end of the rail equipment.

question

What is the radio response required when a crew member says, "RED ZONE"?

answer

"Set and centered."

question

What should be done when equipment will be ridden?

answer

Notify the engineer. Proceed only after the engineer has acknowledged that you are going to ride. Complete any couplings from the ground after the movement is stopped.

question

True or false: If track condition cannot clearly be observed because of debris, it is still OK to ride moving equipment as long as the engineer is notified.

answer

False.

question

Before a crew member installs or removes a marker, how should protection be provided?

answer

Determine by communicating with the employee at the controls of the engine that the affected equipment will not be moved. Assure at least 50 feet of separation exists between the point of installation or removal and the nearest other standing equipment.

question

What is required when crossing through a standing train or cut of cars?

answer

Cross only through cars equipped with crossover platforms. Be prepared for sudden movement and maintain a firm grip.

question

What is required when crossing through standing coupled cars?

answer

Do not step on the couple or uncoupling lever. Do not place hands, feet, or other parts of the body on the sliding sill or between the couple horn and end sill of the car.

question

When is it permissible to get on or off moving equipment?

answer

In an emergency to avoid injury.

question

Explain how to get off standing equipment.

answer

Face the equipment. Before getting off, determine that no obstructions or debris are where your feet will land.

question

Explain how to load or unload luggage, when getting on or off equipment.

answer

Wait for a co-worker to safely board and get safely on the deck or platform. Secure the item to be loaded against shifting or separating. Get a firm footing and use proper lifting techniques to pass the item to your coworker.

question

Do not operate hand brakes on moving cars. What are the two exceptions to this rule?

answer

In an emergency or if making gravity switch moves.

question

What should you do before attempting to operate a switch?

answer

Stop the train at least 50 feet away from the switch stand to be lined. Look in both directions and watch for moving equipment on adjacent tracks. Visually inspect the switch to make sure it is not damaged, locked or spiked. Verify that the switch points are not fouled by debris.

question

How should you remove debris from a fouled switch point?

answer

Use a stick to remove foreign material. Don't use hands or feet.

question

What should you do if you come across a defective switch?

answer

Remove from service immediately. Identify the switches exact location and report to the dispatcher. Attach a "bad order" tag to the switch. Spike the switch. Do not use until repaired.

question

Who can perform an inspection (rule 1.33) and air brake test?

answer

A qualified person or qualified mechanical inspector.

question

What percentage of car air brakes must be operative before leaving the initial terminal?

answer

100 percent.

question

What percentage of cars must maintain functioning air brakes en route?

answer

95 percent.

question

What should be done with cars discovered to have air brakes that fail en route?

answer

The car should be cut out.

question

How many consecutive cars can be cut out?

answer

Two.

question

What is the standard brake pipe pressure for yard or freight services?

answer

90 PSI.

question

What is the standard brake pipe pressure for trains consisting entirely of business car or passenger equipment?

answer

105 PSI

question

What can be used to determine the air brake system to be charged at the rear of the train?

answer

An accurate gauge, ETD or HTD locomotive consist.

question

How do you conduct a brake pipe leakage test using the Brake Pipe Leakage method? Nine steps.

answer

1. Charge the brake system to within 15 PSI of the regulating valve setting as indicated by a gauge or device at the rear of the train. 2. Wait for the signal to apply the brakes. 3. When you receive the signal, reduce brake pipe pressure by 20 PSI. 4. Allow the brake pipe exhaust to stop. 5. Wait 1 minute. 6. Cut out the automatic brake valve. 7. Wait an additional 1 minute for the brake pipe pressure to equalize. 8. Time the brake pipe leakage for 1 minute. If the leakage does not exceed 5 PSI, the test it complete. If the leakage exceeds 5 PSI, train must be inspected for leakage and re-tested. 9. When you receive the signal to release the brakes, move the automatic brake valve to RELEASE position and cut the automatic brake valve in.

question

Where must a Class 1 air brake test be conducted?

answer

Where the train is originally assembled.

question

When must a Class 1 air brake test be conducted?

answer

At the initial terminal. When the train consist is changed, other than adding and/or removing a car or solid block of cars, or by removing defective cars. When the train has traveled 3000 miles since its last Class 1 air brake test. Or where an interchange train is received and its consist is changed.

question

Before or during an Initial Terminal and Road Air Brake Test, what should be inspected?

answer

That the angle cocks are properly positions. That the air hoses are in condition for service and properly coupled. Inspect the system for leakage. Inspect retaining valves to verify that they are in EXHAUST.

question

How do you conduct an Initial Terminal and Road Air Brake Test (Class 1)? Five steps.

answer

1. Charge the air brake system to within 15 PSI of the locomotive regulating valve setting as indicated by a gauge or device at the rear of the train. 2. When using the preferred Air Flow Method to perform a leakage test, conduct the test as outlined in ABTH 100.9 B. If unable to perform an AFM leakage test due to equipment malfunction or availability, utilize ABTH 100.9 C, Brake Pipe Leakage Method, following step 3. 3. When proper notification is received to apply the brakes from employee conducting the test, make a 20 lb. brake pipe reduction. 4. Inspect the entire train or cars added not pre-tested to determine that: -Brakes are applied and remain applied on each car and piston travel meets requirements of ABTH 100.18 (Piston Travel) until notification is received to release. -Brake rigging does not bind or foul. -All parts of the brake equipment are properly secured. 5. When the test and inspection of the air brake application is complete and the proper notification has been received to release the brakes.

question

During a Class 1 air brake test, at what speed can a roll-by inspection be done to verify release of the brakes?

answer

Not exceeding 10 MPH.

question

What can be used to determine application and release of the air brakes on a train that has been previously tested?

answer

An ETD pressure drop and rise of 5 PSI.

question

When may a Transfer Train Movements test be used to test the air brake system on a train?

answer

When the train an yard movement will not exceed 20 miles in one direction.

question

How do you perform a Transfer Train Movements air brake test? Four steps.

answer

1. Couple brake pipe hoses between all cars. 2. Charge the brake system to at least 60 PSI as indicated by a gauge or device at the rear of the train. 3. Make a 15 PSI brake pipe reduction. 4. Verify that the brakes apply and remain applied on each car until release signal is given.

question

During a Transfer Train Movements air brake test, how many times can a car be retested? During that retest, how long must the brakes remain applied?

answer

Once. Three minutes.

question

When must an Application and Release Test (Class 3) be conducted?

answer

When any change is made to a locomotive consist. When a caboose is changed. After picking up a block of previously tested cars. When helper locomotives are added anywhere in the train or removed from other than the rear end of the train. Or when one of more consecutive cars are set out of the train.

question

What is the procedure for conducting an Application and Release air brake test (Class 3)? Two steps.

answer

1. Charge the brake system to within 15 PSI of the regulating valve setting as indicated by a gauge or device at the rear of the train. 2. Make a 20 PSI brake pipe reduction with the automatic brake valve. Verify that brake on the rear car apply and release.

question

When is a locomotive air brake test required?

answer

When making up a locomotive consist, adding locomotives to the consist, removing locomotives from a consist other than when the rear locomotive is removed, and when locomotives are rearranged in the consist.

question

What is the locomotive air brake test procedure? Ten steps.

answer

1. With the independent and automatic brake valve handles in RELEASE position, apply the independent brake. 2. After observing brakes apply on each locomotive, release the independent brakes. 3. When brakes are release on all locomotives, make a 10 PSI brake pipe reduction using the automatic brake valve. 4. After brakes apply on all locomotives, actuate and observe independent brakes release on all locomotives. 5. Reduce brake pipe pressure an additional 10 PSI with the automatic brake valve and determine all locomotive brakes reapply. 6. Cut out the automatic brake valve. 7. Observe gauges to verify that equalizing reservoir indicates no leakage and that brake pipe leakage does not exceed 5 PSI per minute. 8. Move automatic brake valve handle to RELEASE position and cut the brake valve in. 9. Determine that all brakes release. 10. Fully apply independent brakes upon successful completion of this test.

question

What is the standard air pressure of the main reservoir on a freight locomotive?

answer

120 to 140 PSI.

question

What is the standard brake pipe pressure for yard or freight service?

answer

90 PSI.

question

To the extent possible, what locomotive safety devices should you ensure are operational at all times?

answer

Alerters, automatic cab signals, automatic train stop equipment, automatic train control equipment, event recorder equipment, and locomotive camera system.

question

How do you determine which hand brakes should be applied when setting out cars on grade?

answer

With slack bunched, apply the hand brakes on the low end of the cut cars. With slack stretched, apply the hand brakes on the high end of the cut of cars.

question

What variables should be considered when determining the number of hand brakes to be applied on a cut of cars?

answer

Grade and adhesion, number of loaded and empty cars, and weather conditions.

question

How do you verify that a sufficient number of hand brakes have been applied to prevent movement?

answer

Release all air brakes.

question

True or false: When any part of a train is left standing, you should depend on the air brake system to secure the cars.

answer

False.

question

What is the procedure for detaching locomotives or locomotives and cars? Six steps.

answer

1. Secure equipment against undesired movement. 2. Release all air brakes to ensure hand brakes will prevent movement. 3. Make a 20-PSI brake pipe reduction. 4. Close angle cock on rear locomotive or last car to be detached from portion left standing. Leave angle cock open on portion left standing. 5. Allow brakes on any standing portion to apply in emergency. 6. Do not bottle air or maintain air pressure in the brake pipe when locomotives are detached or yard air is uncoupled.

question

What should you check for before moving cars or locomotives to prevent wheel damage?

answer

That all hand brakes are fully released.

question

When releasing hand brakes, how many cars past the last applied hand brake should be checked to ensure no other hand brakes are applied?

answer

Three additional cars.

question

If a hand brake is difficult to release, what can be done to make the release easier?

answer

Charge the air brake system and make a full service application of the car or locomotive before attempting to release the hand brake again.

question

What should be done if brakes are discovered to stick?

answer

Stop the train as soon as possible. Determine why the brakes are sticking. Correct the problem. If necessary, cut out the control valve or set out the car.

question

What are reasons that brakes may stick?

answer

Overcharged air brake system. Hand brakes applied. Retaining valve not in EXHAUST. Leak in the air brake system. Releasing a brake pipe reduction with brake pipe air still exhausting. An insufficient brake pipe reduction to ensure proper release.

question

What is the procedure to cut out a control valve?

answer

Close the branch pipe cutout cock. Drain the air reservoirs completely by operating the brake cylinder release valve.

question

If necessary to cutout a third consecutive car, what must be done?

answer

Separate it from the other two cars by at least one car with operative brakes.

question

True or false: The rear car of a train must have operative air brakes.

answer

True.

question

When a rear car's brakes become inoperative en route, what should be done? Five steps.

answer

1. Before moving the train, test the hand brake on the disabled car. 2. If the hand brake is inoperative, do not move the car until it is repaired and can be moved safely. 3. Chain, strap or cable the disabled rear car to the rear of the train. 4. Move the car directly to the first auxiliary track and switch it ahead of at least one car with operative brakes, or set it out. 5. If one air brake device/control valve is cut out on a car with multiple control valves, consider the brakes on that car operative.

question

Angle cocks must never be left partially closed or partially open.

answer

True.

question

What should be done before coupling air brake hoses to charge the brake pipe?

answer

1. Make a 20-PSI brake pipe reduction. If on grade, in order to prevent an undesired release of the cars being couple to, make a 40-PSI brake pipe reduction. 2. Signal that the brake valve exhaust has stopped by sounding whistle signal (2) or using the radio. 3. Couple air hoses and open angle cocks slowly to prevent an emergency brake application.

question

When adjusting air hose height, how far from the rail should the glad hand hang?

answer

Four inches.

question

How many people are needed to arm an ETD?

answer

Two.

question

How do you arm an ETD?

answer

1. Press the TEST button on the ETD, which will display the ARM NOW message on the message display window of the HTD. 2. Immediately press the COMMUNICATIONS TEST/ARM button on the HTD, which will display the ARMD message on the message display window of the HTD and light the EMERG ENABLED status LED at the same time. If NOT ARMD appears on the HTD message display, the system did not accept the arming sequence repeat steps above.

question

How do you test an ETD?

answer

1. Close the angle cock between the train and ETD. 2. Initiate an ETD emergency from the lead locomotive HTD. The brake pipe pressure on the ETD must reduce to 0 PSI. 3. Open the angle cock between the ETD and train and determine that brake pipe pressure is restored before proceeding.

question

When an ETD is properly armed, how is an emergency brake application initiated at the rear of the train?

answer

1. Lift the red cover of the EMERGENCY SWITCH located on the right side of the HTD. 2. Push the toggle switch up. 3. Verify that: a. The message EMERGENCY briefly appears in the message display window. b. The brake pipe pressure reading quickly drops to 0 PSI. c. The LOW PRES message is displayed while the last car pressure is below 45 PSI.

question

How do you identify the "B" end of cars?

answer

On cars with one hand brake, it is the end with the hand brake. On cars with more than one hand brake, it is the end with the "B" stenciled on it.

question

How do you determine the wheel or journal identification on cars?

answer

Face the "B" end of the car. From the "B" end, axles are counted from 1, closest to you.

question

In an emergency brake application, if an adjacent main track or controlled siding may be obstructed, what should be done?

answer

Warn other trains by radio, stating the exact location and status of the train and repeat as necessary. Place lighted fusees on adjacent tracks. Notify the train dispatcher or control operator and, when possible, foreign line railroads if necessary.

question

What trains are relieved of visual inspection required by an emergency brake application when it is known that the brake pipe pressure has been restored?

answer

Solid loaded bulk commodity train, any train where emergency application of the brakes occurs at a speed about 30 MPH, or any train that is 5000 tons or less.

question

If physical characteristics prevent visual inspection following an emergency brake application, what should be done?

answer

Inspect as much of the train as possible. The train may then be moved, but may not exceed 5 MPH for the distance necessary to complete the inspection. If excessive power is required to start of keep the train moving, stop immediately.

question

When a train on an adjacent track receives radio notification of an emergency brake application, how must that train pass the location specified?

answer

At restricted speed and stop short of any portion of the stopped train fouling their track.

question

When a facing point move must be made over a spring switch, what should be done?

answer

Test the spring switch.

question

When is it permissible to move against the current of traffic?

answer

With authorization by track bulletin, track warrant, or as authorized by the train dispatcher.

question

How should movements against the current of traffic approaching block and interlocking signals?

answer

Prepared to stop unless signals indicate proceed.

question

How will multiple main tracks be designated?

answer

By name and number.

question

What is restricted speed?

answer

When required to move at restricted speed, movement must be made at a speed which allows stopping within half the range of vision short of: Trains, engines, railroad cars, men or equipment fouling the track, stop signals, or derails or improperly lined switches. When a train or engine is required to move at restricted speed, the crew must keep a lookout for broken rail and not exceed 20 MPH. Comply with these requirements until the leading wheels reach a point where movement at restricted speed is no longer required.

question

What is the rule number of restricted speed?

answer

Rule 6.27

question

What is rule 6.28?

answer

Movement on other than main track.

question

When passing trains, what are crews required to do?

answer

Inspect the passing train.

question

When inspecting a passing train, what conditions should the crew notify the passing train of?

answer

Overheated journals, sticking brakes, sliding wheels, wheels not properly position on the rail, dragging equipment, insecure contents, signs of smoke or fire, headlight of marker improperly displayed, or any other dangerous condition.

question

When a train is stopped and is met or passed by another train, how should a trainman make an inspection?

answer

From the ground if it is safe. During inclement weather, the crew may remain on the locomotive.

question

Who is responsible for knowing and not exceeding the maximum authorized speed for a train?

answer

Conductors and engineers.

question

When possible, who should crew members notify of any condition that will delay a train or prevent a train from making the usual speed?

answer

The train dispatcher.

question

When cars are shoved, kicked or a gravity switch move is made over road crossings at grade, what must occur?

answer

An employee must be on the ground at the crossing to provide warning until the crossing is occupied, except when gates are fully lowered or at crossings fitted with flashing light or passive warning devices when it is clearly seen that no traffic is approaching or stopped.

question

At what speed should shoving movements over crossings at grade be made?

answer

Lower than 15 MPH.

question

When an employee observes an automatic warning device that is malfunctioning, what should be done?

answer

Report the malfunction to the train dispatcher and notify all affected trains.

question

If a clearance point is not indicated or visible, how can you determine the clearance point of a track?

answer

Stand outside the rail of the adjacent track and extend arm towards the equipment. When unable to touch the equipment, leave equipment at least an additional 50 feet into the track.

question

In what situations may equipment be left fouling an adjacent track?

answer

On a main track, fouling a siding switch when the switch is lined for the main track. On a siding, fouling a main track switch, when the switch is lined for siding. In a yard switching lead, fouling a yard track switch when the switch is line for the yard switching lead. Or on an industry track beyond the clearance point of the switch leading into the industry.

question

When are spring and dual control switches considered hand operated switches?

answer

When they are operated by hand.

question

Who is responsible for the position of the switch in use?

answer

The employee handling the switch.

question

When handling switches, what should you make sure of?

answer

The switches properly lined for the intended route. The points fit properly and the target corresponds with the intended route. When operating a switch with a latch, the handler should avoid stepping on the latch except when throwing the switch. After locking a switch, they test to ensure it is secured. The witch is not operated while equipment is fouling, standing on or moving over the switch. When equipment has entered a track, the switch to that track is not lined away until the equipment has passed the clearance point.

question

What is the normal position of a main track switch?

answer

For main track movement.

question

In what situations may a main track switch be left open?

answer

In CTC territory within track and time limits. When attended by a crew member. During switching operations. For another train or engine when the switch is attended by a member of that crew. Within ABS territory as instructed by the dispatcher. In TWC territory when authorized by track warrant.

question

What is the target color on the main track when the switch is lined in other than the normal position?

answer

Red.

question

When lining a main track switch, what is the proper place to stand while waiting for movement to pass over the switch?

answer

Go to the opposite side of the track, 150 feet from the switch, and not return until movement is complete. If that is not possible, stand at least 20 feet from the switch stand.

question

When must a spring switch be tested?

answer

When making a facing point movement over the spring switch and the block signal governing movements over the switch indicates stop, stop and proceed or restricted speed. Also if the the switch point indicator indicates stop and inspect the switch, or if the switch is not protected by a block signal or switch point indicator.

question

What is the normal position of switches connecting any track, except the main track to a siding?

answer

For the siding.

question

What is the normal position of crossover switches?

answer

For other than the crossover movement.

question

What type of switches can be run through?

answer

Spring switches or variable switches.

question

When conflicting movement is closely approaching a switch, what should not be done?

answer

The track must not be fouled, or the twitch operated.

question

If an engine or car partially runs through a switch, what should be done?

answer

Continue movement over the switch. The engine or car must not change direction over a damaged switch.

question

What should be done if a signal is absent, or a white light is displayed where a colored light should be?

answer

Regard the signal as displaying its most restrictive indication.

question

If a train overruns any block signal that requires it to stop, what must the crew do?

answer

Warn other trains at once by radio, strop the train immediately, and report it to the train dispatcher.

question

When may a train comply with the next signal's indication?

answer

When its aspect can be clearly seen and the signal governs the track where movement is occurring or will be made.

question

When is a train considered delayed in block?

answer

When it stops or its speed drops below 10 MPH.

question

What should a train do if it is delayed in block in ABS territory?

answer

Proceed at restricted speed. The train must maintain this speed until the next signal is visible, that signal displays a proceed indication, and the track to that signal is clear.

question

What should a train do if it is delayed in block in CTC or manual interlocking limits?

answer

Proceed prepared to stop at the next signal until the next signal is visible and that signal displays a proceed indication.

question

How should a train proceed when a train enters a block with no governing signal?

answer

At restricted speed until the leading wheels have passed the next governing signal of the end of the block system.

question

How should a train proceed if the previous indication is unknown?

answer

At restricted speed until the leading wheels have passed the next governing signal of the end of the block system.

question

How should movements be made if the train is moving in the opposite direction from which the block was entered?

answer

At restricted speed until the leading wheels have passed the next governing signal of the end of the block system.

question

When a signal requires movement at restricted speed and you're leaving a block system, when can the train resume maximum speed?

answer

For two miles or until leading wheels pass the opposing distant signal.

question

What should be done at a stop indication in CTC territory?

answer

A crew member must immediately contact the control operator unless within track and time limits.

question

What should be done at a stop indication at manual interlockings?

answer

A crew member must immediately contact the control operator.

question

What should be done at a stop indication at automatic interlockings?

answer

Work the box. If the signal continues to display stop indication and there is no conflicting movement, the train must move at restricted speed.

question

When may a crew member operate a dual control switch by hand?

answer

After receiving authorization from the control operator.

question

At what point should a dual control switch be put back into power?

answer

After at least one engine or car has passed over the switch points, unless otherwise instructed by the control operator.

question

What is rule 9.14?

answer

Movement with the current of traffic.

question

What is rule 9.15?

answer

Track permits.

question

What are track permits used for?

answer

Movement against the current of traffic in ABS/9.14 territory.

question

At a stop and proceed indication, what are situations that allow the train to pass the signal at restricted speed without stopping?

answer

To leave the main track when the switch is lined for movement and the track is clear from the signal to the clearance point. To continue on the main track when meeting or passing a train, and the main track is clear to the opposite end of the siding where a train is fouling the main track. To permit an engine with or without cars to coupe to its train or to a standing cut of cars, if the track between the engine and cars is clear.To enter a switch that is less than 1000 feet beyond the signal and the employee in charge of the switch has granted permission for movement. When authorized by the control operator.

question

In ABS territory, how should you enter the main track from a siding? Assume authority has already been obtained.

answer

Open the switch and wait five minutes at the switch to establish block signal protection. If at the end of the five minutes the employee does not hear or see movement, the train may enter the signaled track.

question

What are the situations that don't require a five minute wait when operating a hand operated switch? 11 exceptions.

answer

Switch is equipped with an electric lock. Track occupancy indicator indicates track is clear. Block signal governing movement to signaled track indicates proceed. Block signals governing movements on the signaled track indicates that no train is approaching from either direction. Block to be entered is occupied by a train, engine, or car that is standing or moving away from the switch to be used. Main track between siding switch is occupied by a train that has been met or a standing train that will be passed. Train is entering a main track outside of yard limits for authorized movement against the current of traffic. Rule 6.14 (restricted limits) is in effect, provided movement does not occur beyond restricted limits for five minutes after the main track circuit is fouled, unless a block signal displays a proceed indication. Track permit authorizes movement. Track warrant outside yard limits authorizes "work between" two specific points.

STUDY

Conjunction Date Equipment Nomenclature

3-m – Flashcard 45 terms

Patsy Brent

45 terms

Preview

3-m – Flashcard

question

Provides for efficient, uniform methods of conducting and recording preventive and corrective maintenance.

answer

3m System

question

What is the Navy's system for managing maintenance?

answer

question

T or F: All navy ships use the 3m system.

answer

true

question

TF Equipment of the Naval Air Traffic control use the 3m system.

answer

true

question

TF Nuclear Propulsion Plants and Associated Equipment.

answer

false

question

TF Commander Naval Reserve Force uses 3m system.

answer

true

question

TF Fleet Ballistic Missile Systems use 3m system.

answer

false

question

overall responsibiity for ensuring ship maintenance is accomplished using the 3-m system

answer

question

Ship's 3m system manager, responsible to the CO for overall management

answer

question

Functional manager of the 3m system, responsible to xo for coordination, and direct supervision of all administrative facets of the ship's 3m system

answer

3m System Coordinator

question

Responsible to the department head and manages the divisional 3m program

answer

Department Head

question

Coordinates and supervises department's 3m program. Is usally an officer or po. Knowledgeable about 3m. works for dept head.

answer

Department 3m Assistant

question

Responsible for 2 or more work centers within a division.

answer

Group Center Supervisor

question

Responsible for effective operation of 3m system within the workspace

answer

Workcenter Supervisor

question

where should the 13 week report be located?

answer

work center

question

which column on the 13 week report identifies the equipment needing maintenance?

answer

mip

question

which column on the 13 week report lists the person by name responsible for performing the maintenance assignment?

answer

maintenance responsibility

question

identifies the periodicity code?

answer

mrc

question

which column on the 13 week report identifies the date the maintenance assignment was completed?

answer

date

question

which column on the 13 week report is signed by the maintenance person after completing the maintenance assignment?

answer

signature

question

who should be notified if the dates on the 13 week report are incorrect?

answer

work center supervisor

question

which symbol indicates a mandatory related maintenance action must be performed in conjunction with the current maintenance requirement?

answer

question

document that provides detailed procedures for performing the maintenance requirements

answer

mrc

question

document that contains a complete index of maintenance requirement cards assigned to a work center for the equipment that has pms support

answer

mip

question

document that lists all maintenance index pages assigned to a work center

answer

loep

question

record sheet indicating changes to the loep

answer

change page

question

when to accomplish the maintenance check

answer

periodicity block

question

what maintenance is to be done

answer

maintenance requirement description block

question

how to accomplish the maintenance requirement

answer

procedure block

question

resources needed to accomplish the maintenance check

answer

tools, parts, and material block

question

which block on the mrc shows the skill level recommended to complete the maintenance requirement?

answer

rates

question

identifies the mrc listed on the mip

answer

mrc number block

question

average time to perform the m. requirement

answer

man hours block

question

m. required to be accomplished concurrently.

answer

related maintenance block

question

date the loep was produced

answer

date block

question

issued periodically to update the pms program

answer

force revisions block

question

brief description of system/equipment

answer

nomenclature block

question

lists the latest FR or ACN

answer

change number block

question

shows the date of the latest change

answer

date of change block

question

shows the date the change was entered into the work center pms manual

answer

date entered block

question

displays the signature of the person who entered the change into the pms manual

answer

signature of person entering change block

question

what contains the planned m. requirements for the work center and the documents necessary to verify the m. requirements?

answer

work center pms manual

question

where is the work center pms manual located?

answer

work center

question

what do you compare the syscom mrc number on the mrc to when verifying the mrc?

answer

mip number

question

what do you compare the syscom mip control number on the mip when verifying mip?

answer

loep

STUDY

Conjunction Physiotherapy Surgery

Modalities – Indications, Contraindications, Precautions, and Parameters – Flashcards 80 terms

Edwin Holland

80 terms

Preview

Modalities – Indications, Contraindications, Precautions, and Parameters – Flashcards

question

Indications for Cryotherapy

answer

Inflammation, Edema, Pain, Spasticity

question

Contraindications for Cryotherapy

answer

Cold hypersensitivity/intolerance, cryoglobulinemia, Raynaud's Disease, paroxymal cold HgB

question

Precautions for Cryotherapy

answer

Over superficial nerve, over wound, HTN, Poor sensation/mentation

question

Ice massage Parameters

answer

5-10 minutes (IBAAN)

question

Cold pack parameters

answer

10-20 minutes (Pain, inflammation, edema) 30 min (spacticity)

question

Vapocoolant spray

answer

2-5 swipes, 4 inch/sec, along muscle fibers and trigger point.

question

Indications for Thermotherapy

answer

Pain, Loss of ROM

question

Contraindications for Thermotherapy

answer

Heat intolerance, malignancy

question

Precautions for Thermotherapy

answer

Pregnancy, DVTs/clots, Open wounds

question

Moist hot pack parameters

answer

20 min, 6-8 layers

question

Paraffin parameters

answer

Dip 6-10 times, elevate hand, 10-15 mins

question

Traction Indications

answer

Disc bulge/herniation, nerve root impingement, joint hypomobility, subacute inflammation, paraspinal muscle spasm

question

Traction Contraindications

answer

Acute injury, joint hypermobility, peripherilization of symptoms (upon traction), uncontrolled HTN

question

Traction Precautions

answer

Structural disease of spine, severe pain fully resolves, claustrophobia, medial disc protrusion

question

Cervical Traction Parameters

answer

Initial: 7-9 lbs, static, 5-10 Joint distraction (facet pain): 20-29 lbs, 15 on/15 seconds off for 20-30 minutes Decrease muscle spasm: 11-15 lbs, 5/5, 20-30 minutes Disc Problem/Tissue stretch: 11-15 lbs, 60/20, 20-30 minutes

question

Lumbar Traction Parameters

answer

Initial: 29-44 lbs, static, 5-10 minutes Joint Distraction: 55 lbs, 15 seconds on/ 15 off, 20-30 minutes Decrease muscle spasm: 25% BW, 5/5, 20-30 minutes Disc problem/Tissue stretch: 25% BW, 60/20, 20-30 minutes

question

Compression Indications

answer

Edema, prevent DVT, Venous stasis ulcers, residual limb shaping, control hypertrophic scarring

question

Compression Contraindications

answer

Heart failure, acute DVT, severe PAD, acute trauma, obstructed venous return

question

Compression Precautions

answer

Impaired sensation/mentation, uncontrolled HTN, cancer, stroke, superficial peripheral nerves

question

Compression for Edema/DVT/VSU parameters

answer

3:1, 30-60 mmHg (UE), 40-80 mmHg (LE), 2-3 hours, 1-2 times per day

question

Compression for Residual Limb Shaping

answer

4:1, 30-60 mmHg (UE), 40-80 mmHg (LE), 2-3 hours, 1-2 times per day

question

Compression for Lymphedema

answer

4:1, 40 mmHg 1-2 hours, once per day

question

Indications for Ultrasound

answer

Soft tissue contractures (C), pain (C), dermal ulcers (P), incisions (P), tendon/ligament injuries (C-chronic, P-acute), Absorb Ca++ deposits (P), Bone fx (P), Carpal tunnel (P)

question

Contraindications for Ultrasound

answer

Malignancy, pregnancy, CNS tissue, joint cement, clot, pacemaker

question

Precautions for Ultrasound

answer

Acute inflammation, epiphyseal plates, fxs, breast implants

question

Parameters for Ultrasound

answer

Duty cycle: continuous (thermal) vs. pulsed (non-thermal Frequency: 1 HMz (deep) vs. 3 MHz (superficial) Intensity: 1.5-2.0 W/cm2 (thermal) vs. 0.5-1.0 W/cm2 (non-thermal) Time: 8-10 minutes

question

Indications for Laser

answer

Tissue healing (soft/bone), arthritis, lymphedema, carpal tunnel, diabetic neuropathy (anodyne), pain

question

Contraindications for Laser

answer

Eyes, malignancy, within 4-6 months of Chemo, hemorrhages, over endocrine glands

question

Precautions for Laser

answer

Pregnancy, epiphyseal plates, impaired sensation/mentation, meds that increase photosensitivity

question

Parameters for Laser

answer

Use guidlines provided to determine intensity and time Don't move laser Repeat dose to areas 1 inch apart

question

Parameters for Anodyne

answer

Intensity: 6-8 bars 30-35 minutes (diabetic neuropathy)

question

Indications for Infrared

answer

Pain, Increase ROM, Decrease joint stiffness, Increase healing, Psoriasis

question

Contraindications for Infrared

answer

Recent hemorrhage, clot, impaired sensation/mentation, malignancy, eyes

question

Precautions for Infrared

answer

Acute Inflammation, pregnancy, impaired circulation, edema, open wounds

question

Parameters for Infrared

answer

Allow lamp to warm up 5-10 minutes Lamp perpendicular and 45-60 cm away from treatment area 15-30 minutes

question

Indications for Thermal Diathermy

answer

Pain, Joint Control

question

Indications for Non-thermal Diathermy

answer

Pain, edema, soft tissue healing, treat symptoms of OA

question

Contraindications for Thermal Diathermy

answer

Pacemaker, pregnancy, metal, malignancy, eyes, reproductive organs, epiphyseal plates

question

Contraindications for Non-Thermal Diathermy

answer

Pacemaker, pregnancy, internal organs

question

Precautions for Thermal Diathermy

answer

Near electronics/magnets, obesity, intrauterine conraceptives

question

Precautions for Non-Thermal Diathermy

answer

Near electronics/magnets, obesity, intrauterine conraceptives, Epiphyseal plates, pregnancy

question

Parameters for SWD (Thermal) Diathermy

answer

Frequency: 27.12 MHz Applicator: Inductive coil/capacitative plate Intensity: mild warmth Time: 20 minutes

question

Indications for UV

answer

Psoriasis, wound healing (UVC), Vitamin D deficiency

question

Contraindications for UV

answer

Eyes, Skin cancer, systemic conditions (TB, SLE, etc.)

question

Precautions for UV

answer

Photosensitizing meds, photosensitivity, recent x-ray therapy, do not repeat the dose

question

Parameter for UV

answer

Determine MED (Time period) Time: 5o% MED --> 250% MED MED will increase 10-50% each time

question

Indications for Whirlpool

answer

Cold: Inflammation Tepid: medium for exercise Warm: wounds, cardiac/circulatory tissues, sensory tissue Hot: Pain, increase ROM

question

Contraindicatons for Whirlpool

answer

Maceration, bleeding, MS, DVT, Cancer

question

Precautions for Whirlpool

answer

Impaired sensation/mentation, confusion

question

Parameters for Whirlpool

answer

Get water to desired temperature, place agitator in desired position Time: 10-30 minutes

question

Indications for TENS

answer

Pain (chronic), muscle inflammation, arthritis, cervical myofascial pain, CRPS, neuropathic pain, fibromyalgia

question

Contraindications for TENS

answer

Pacemaker, arrhythmia, carotid sinus, clots, pregnancy

question

Precautions for TENS

answer

Cardiac disease, impaired sensation/mentation, malignancy, open wounds, skin irritation

question

Parameters for Conventional TENS

answer

Frequency: 100-150 pps Duration 50-80 us Amplitude: To tingling Time: 24 hours Theory: Gate theory

question

Parameters for Acupuncture TENS

answer

Frequency: 2-10 pps Duration: 50-80 us Amplitude: to visible contraction Time: 20-30 minutes Theory: Opiate Theory

question

Parameters for Burst TENS

answer

Frequency: Preset 10 bursts Duration: 100-150 us Amplitude: to visible contraction Time: 20-30 minutes Theory: Opiate receptor

question

Indications for IFC

answer

Pain (acute), LBP, OA, Post-op knee, Urinary incontinence, TP

question

Contraindications for IFC

answer

Pacemakers, bleeding, pregnancy, carotid sinus, clots

question

Precautions for IFC

answer

Cardiac disease, impaired sensation/mentation, malignancy, open wounds, skin irritation, chronic corticosteroids, keep distance between electrodes

question

Parameters for IFC

answer

20-220 Hz: Pain Relief 10-20 Hz: increase blood flow and skin temp 30-50 Hz: Tetanic contraction of muscle

question

Indications for NMES

answer

ACL Repair, Weakness (joint pain, effusion), OA/RA, TKA, peripheral n. injury, Bell's injury, CVA, SCI, COPD, incontinence

question

Contraindications for NMES

answer

Where motion is contraindicated, pacemaker, implanted stimulators, directly over metal implants, bleeding, malignancy, disorientation, pregnancy, carotid sinus

question

Precautions for NMES

answer

Open wounds, extreme edema, heavy scarring, chronic corticosteroids

question

Parameters for NMES

answer

Frequency: small msucle (20-35 pps); large muscle (35-50 pps) Duration: small muscle (150-200 us); large muscle (200-300 us) Amplitude: at least 10% of MVIC (50% to build strength) On/Off: Increase strength (5:1); decrease muscle spasm/edema (1:1) Ramp time: Gait (none), exercises (1-4 sec), CVA (4-8 sec)

question

Indications for Russian

answer

Post-knee ligament surgery, post-arthroscopic surgery, ACL repair

question

Contraindications for Russian

answer

Carotid sinus, transthoracic, transcranial, pregnancy, pacemaker, severely impaired sensation

question

Precautions for Russian

answer

Areas of skin damage, impaired cognition, near functioning diathermy

question

Parameters for Russian

answer

Frequency: 50 burst per second On/Off: 10/50 to strengthen 10 contractions for 10 sec with 50 sec rest time

question

Indications for Microcurrents

answer

Wound healing

question

Contraindications for Microcurrents

answer

Pacemaker, neoplastic region, osteomyelitis

question

Precautions for Microcurrents

answer

Anterior cervical, hemorrhagic region, follow infection control practice

question

Parameters for Microcurrents

answer

Amplitude: 1-1000 uA (patient response) 20-120 minutes 1-4 times per day

question

Indications for Biofeedback

answer

Re-establish motor loops, sensory retraining, muscle relaxation

question

Contraindication for Biofeeback

answer

If contraction would exacerbate condition, if pt can't move joint or contract

question

Parameters for Muscle Re-ed

answer

Adjust unit to lowest thershold (uV), have pt contract and readjust threshold

question

Parameters for Muscle relaxation

answer

Adjust unit to a threshold that picks up activity

question

Indications for US/E-stim

answer

Painful muscle spasm, TP

question

Contraindications for US/E-stim

answer

Tumor, pregnancy, CNS tissue, joint cement, pacemaker, clots

question

Precautions for US/E-stim

answer

Acute inflammation, epiphyseal plates, fractures, breast implants, impaired sensation/mentation, open wounds

question

Parameters for US/E-stim

answer

Adjust setting until they feel tolerable electrical stimulation, turn ultrasound on and begin (light will turn on), use same US/E-stim parameters for each

STUDY

Capitals Conjunction Organic Chemistry Prepositions Spelling And Grammar

Capitalization- Medical Transcription – Flashcards 6 terms

Stephanie Landry

6 terms

Preview

Capitalization- Medical Transcription – Flashcards

question

Use initial capital letters in eponymic terms, The common noun following the eponym is lower case.

answer

example:Down syndrome

question

Capitalize: trade names, proprietary names of drugs and brand names

answer

Example: Vaseline, Motrin, ibuprofen, paper tissue

question

Specific areas within the hospital are lowercased, as common nouns.

answer

Example: operating room, blood bank, emergency room

question

Capitalize the proper names of languages, races, religions and sects

answer

Example: Muslim religion, English language

question

Allergy information may be keyed in all capital letters in order to call attention.

answer

Example: ALLERGIC TO PENICILLIN

question

Capitalize acronyms but not the words from which they come from.

answer

Example: skilled nursing facility (SNF), intensive care unit(ICU)

STUDY

Conjunction Difficulty Falling Asleep Pharmaceutical Sciences Pharmacology

Pharm 59 Sedative-Hypnotic drugs – Flashcards 48 terms

Kenneth McQuaid

48 terms

Preview

Pharm 59 Sedative-Hypnotic drugs – Flashcards

question

what are the effects desired from a sedative

answer

question

What are the desired effects of a hypnotic and how does that differ from a sedative

answer

question

How can you create a hypnotic effect with most sedative drugs

answer

increase the dose of the sedative

question

Review the Dose response curve with CNS effects with older sedatives verses newer ones.

answer

Drug A older (barbiturate) Drug B newer (benzo) ceiling effect

question

Review the sedative-hypnotic drugs

answer

question

What are the most widely used anti anxiety drugs

answer

Benzos Replaced Barbiturates because they are much safer

question

Where on the GABA-a channels does GABA bind

answer

question

Where on the GABA-a channels do Benzodiazepines bind

answer

Benzodiazepines bind to a site located between an α subunit and the γ subunit Two benzodiazepine receptor subtypes commonly found in the CNS have been designated BZ1 and BZ2.

question

What type of binding do Benzos follow

answer

Allosteric they bind to different receptors than GABA which enhances the GABA effect *(potency on graph)*

question

How do benzos effect the opening of the chloride channels

answer

increase *FREQUENCY* of channel opening

question

What are the two major clinical uses for GABA agonist

answer

anxiolytic anticonvulsant

question

What is the GABA antagonist

answer

Flumazenil

question

How do Inverse Agonists of GABA effect the binding curve

answer

Negative allosteric modulators of GABA receptor function They can cause anxiety and seizures (no clinical use)

question

What are the clinical uses of Benzos

answer

question

What aspect of Benzos determine which one you will select clinically

answer

Duration of action

question

*Which benzos are long, intermediate, and short acting

answer

question

Why are Diazepam and Flurazepam such long acting drugs

answer

They are metabolized into active metabolites

question

How are most benzodiazepines metabolized

answer

Most benzodiazepines undergo phase I reactions, mainly by CYP3A4. The metabolites are then conjugated in phase II to form glucuronides that are excreted in the urine

question

Which three Benzos and are not metabolized by the P450 system

answer

Conjugated directly to their glucuronides (still in liver) Their plasma levels are not significantly affected in liver disease. Other benzodiazepines may need dose adjustment in liver disease.

question

What are the clinical uses of Diazepam

answer

question

Are benzos used for short term or long term anxiety

answer

Short term, due to dependance and minimal effect on PTSD and OCD *SSRIs* have replaced them for long term use

question

Which Bezos are best used for seizures (epileptic vs status epilepticus)

answer

question

What is the DOC for alcohol withdrawals (Delirium Tremens)

answer

question

How do you determine which benzo is used to treat sleep specific sleep disturbances

answer

Shot acting: used to help initiate sleep Long acting: used for people who keep waking up

question

How do Benzos effect REM sleep (and the other sleep stages)

answer

question

What are the three most common adverse effects of Benzos

answer

question

What is an adverse effect of benzodiazepines where they cause the opposite symptoms than expected (e.g. anxiety, hostility, rage, paranoia, and depression)

answer

*Paradoxical effects*

question

What is one of the most serious/common adverse effects of long term benzodiazepine use

answer

On of the few drugs that cause DEATH due to withdraws

question

What drug is used to treat overdose of benzodiazepines

answer

Fast acting but short duration, frequent administration may be necessary *May precipitate withdrawal in physiologically dependent patients*

question

Do Barbiturates act on the same channel as benzodiazepines? How do they effect the GABA channel

answer

Increase the *DURATION* of the GABA channel

question

Why do Barbiturates cause more adverse side effects than benzodiazepines

answer

dirty drugs that act on several receptors

question

How do Barbiturates effect the CNS

answer

question

How do Barbiturates effect respiratory system and the CYP450 enzymes

answer

Decreased respiration is the main cause of death

question

What are the two main therapeutic uses of Barbiturates and which specific drug is used for each

answer

question

How does N-phenylbarbital treat hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus

answer

induces liver CYP450 to metabolize bilirubin N-phenylbarbital is a metabolite and does not cause CNS depression

question

In which RBC disorders are barbiturates contraindication

answer

porphyria (mostly Acute Intermittent Porphyria)

question

What are some adverse effects of barbiturates

answer

question

What is a potential adverse side effect of barbiturates in terms of pain

answer

question

On which receptors do the non-benzodiazepine act

answer

BZ1 subtype of benzodiazepine receptors.

question

Zolpidem

answer

Ambien

question

Zaleplon

answer

question

Eszopiclone

answer

question

Which serotonin partial agonist is used to treat anxiety

answer

question

Advantages of Busiprone

answer

disadvantage; not as effective

question

What drug is a melatonin agonist used as a sleep aid

answer

absorbed better than melatonin supplements

question

Which anti-histamine is used to treat anxiety and is an antiemitic

answer

question

Which beta blocker is commonly used for performance anxiety

answer

question

Which antihistamines are commonly used to help with insomnia?

answer

Not effective in chronic insomnia

STUDY

Conjunction Data Data Type Database Systems Matching Set Of Instructions Tables

Database ch 7 – Flashcards 33 terms

Sarah Adrian

33 terms

Preview

Database ch 7 – Flashcards

question

Most SQL implementations yield case-insensitive searches

answer

false

question

Although SQL commands can be grouped together on a single line, complex command sequences are best shown on separate lines, with space between the SQL command and the command's components.

answer

true

question

The special operator used to check whether an attribute value matches a given string pattern is .

answer

question

SQL allows the use of logical restrictions on its inquiries such as OR, AND, and NOT.

answer

true

question

The command is used with the ALTER TABLE command to modify the table by deleting a column.

answer

drop

question

In Oracle, the command is used to change the display for a column, for example, to place a $ in front of a numeric value.

answer

format

question

The COUNT function is designed to tally the number of non-null "values" of an attribute, and is often used in conjunction with the DISTINCT clause.

answer

true

question

You cannot insert a row containing a null attribute value using SQL.

answer

false

question

The COMMIT command does not permanently save all changes. In order to do that, you must use SAVE.

answer

false

question

String comparisons are made from left to right

answer

true

question

The conditional LIKE must be used in conjunction with wildcard characters.

answer

true

question

Mathematical operators cannot be used to place restrictions on character-based attributes.

answer

false

question

SQL requires the use of the ADD command to enter data into a table.

answer

false

question

To list the contents of a table, you must use the DISPLAY command.

answer

false

question

Data type selection is usually dictated by the nature of the data and by the intended use.

answer

true

question

A database language enables the user to perform complex queries designed to transform the raw data into useful information.

answer

true

question

A table can be deleted from the database by using the command.

answer

drop

question

The SQL command that allows a user to list the contents of a table is .

answer

select

question

A(n) is an alternate name given to a column or table in any SQL statement.

answer

alias

question

SQL is considered difficult to learn; its command set has a vocabulary of more than 300 words.

answer

false

question

Any changes made to the contents of a table are not physically saved on disk until you use the SAVE command.

answer

false

question

The SQL command that modifies an attribute's values in one or more table's rows is _____.

answer

update

question

Which of the following is used to select partial table contents?

answer

question

Only numeric data types can be added and subtracted in SQL.

answer

false

question

Date procedures are often more software-specific than other SQL procedures.

answer

true

question

All SQL commands must be issued on a single line.

answer

false

question

The command would be used to delete the table row where the P_CODE is 'BRT-345'.

answer

DELETE FROM PRODUCT WHERE P_CODE = 'BRT-345';

question

The SQL command that allows a user to insert rows into a table is .

answer

insert

question

A database language enables the user to create database and table structures to perform basic data management chores.

answer

true

question

The special operator used to check whether an attribute value is within a range of values is .

answer

between

question

The SQL command that allows a user to permanently save data changes is .

answer

commit

question

To list all the contents of the PRODUCT table, a user would use .

answer

wildcard

question

An example of a command a user would use when making changes to a PRODUCT table is .

answer

update

STUDY

Blind Spots Conjunction Implied Consent Law Steering Wheel

Sears Drivers Ed Segment 1 HARDCORE – Flashcards 155 terms

Trina Garrison

155 terms

Preview

Sears Drivers Ed Segment 1 HARDCORE – Flashcards

question

LESSON 2 GETTING ACQUAINTED WITH THE VEHICLE

answer

question

Before entering the vehicle, you should check around the vehicle for:

answer

1. Area around the vehicle 2. No animals in the way 3.Fluid leak/Flat tire 4. Position of front wheel 5. Damage Check 6. Clear windows 7. Check lights Found in section 7.3

question

What are the 4 adjustments that must be made prior to starting the vehicle and describe how to determine the proper adjustment

answer

1. Close/Lock doors-don't open on the road/protection 2.Insert key in ignition - Freehand/avoid misplaying keys 3.Secure Loose objects- vision obstruction, free from flying object 4.Adjust seat- ability to see/control comfortable 5. Seat belt - Safety *Mirrors - See in hard spots Found in section 7.4 - 7.5

question

Why should you use a safety belt if the vehicle is equipped with and airbag?

answer

With just an air bag you fly towards the air bag causing more damage and with a seat belt equiped with the air bag you are now not going to fly forward or backwards your gonna stay there and the air bags is going to prevent you from hitting your head. 7.6 and chapter 6

question

What age are children to use a child restraint system`

answer

age 8 or 4.9 even at age 8 you still wear a booster seat

question

What are the advantages/disadvantages of the traditional mirror setting

answer

disadvantages glare from the vehicle behind you You have to huge blind spots Advantages less blind spots you can see behind you you can see back and forth

question

What are the advantages/disadvantages of the enhanced mirror setting

answer

ADVANTAGES - 4 smaller blind spots instead of 2 large spots the glare is basically eliminated DISADVANTAGES -Depth perception -objects in mirrors are closer then they appear

question

The temperature light comes on?

answer

Shift to neutral Depress gas petal slightly Rev motor Pull over and turn off

question

The oil pressure light turns on?

answer

turn car off

question

The Alternator light comes on?

answer

turn off all unnecessary accessorizes dont shut off the car just find the nearest service station

question

LESSON 3: UNDERSTANDING THE VEHICLE CONTROL: STARTING, STEERING, AND STOPPING VEHICLE

answer

question

When driving a vehicle with airbags,what is the safest positions for your hands on the steering wheel

answer

*9+3

question

Describe HAND TO HAND/PUSH PULL STEERING

answer

One hand pulls down other pushes up

question

Describe HAND OVER HAND STEERING

answer

One hand pulls down other hand crosses over

question

What are the 3 levels of acceleration

answer

1. Smooth accleration 2.Strong acceleration 3. Idle (crawling) Speed

question

When parked alongside the street, list in order the steps necessary to put the vehicle in motion and merge into the traffic lane

answer

1. Drive 2. Signals (mirrors) 3. Blind spot 4. check again

question

What are the 3 levels of braking

answer

1. Control Breaking 2. straight line 3. Threshold

question

Prior to backing a vehicle you should always

answer

Search surroundings Check mirrors apply break go to reverse release parking brake activate turn signal recheck your surroundings place hands at 12 easy break slowly.

question

Backing speed should always be

answer

Idle speed, walking speed, snail speed

question

LESSON 4: TRAFFIC CONTROL DEVICES AND LAWS

answer

question

What are the 3 types of Traffic Control Devices

answer

1. pavement 2. Signs 3. Traffic Signals

question

What are the purpose of Traffic Control Devices

answer

A language all drivers should know it uses pictures and words to help get the road safes

question

What are the 5 types of Traffic signs

answer

1. Regulatory 2.Warning 3. Guide 4.Construction/work site 5.Emergency

question

Describe the color of the sign and describe what actions you take as you approach it

answer

Red+ White Slow down +give right of way to the other traffic Proceed w/out inferring w/ the flow of traffic Proceed = Go

question

MEANT BY: Solid Green light

answer

Check traffic and go

question

MEANT BY: Solid Red light

answer

stop

question

MEANT BY:Flashing red light

answer

Stop, Proceed when safe (stop sign)

question

MEANT BY:Yellow light

answer

Proceed w/ caution

question

MEANT BY: Green arrow

answer

Check traffic + go

question

MEANT BY: Yellow Arrow

answer

Proceed w/ caution

question

When approaching an intersection and light turn yellow what should you do?

answer

Make every reasonable effort to stop

question

What should you do when a Traffic Light is not working

answer

Treat it as a uncontrolled intersection

question

MEANT BY: Broken white line

answer

Same direction traffic, legal to cross

question

MEANT BY:Solid white line

answer

same direction, edge, legal but not encouraged

question

MEANT BY:Broken yellow line

answer

Opposite traffic, clear to pass

question

MEANT BY: Solid Yellow line

answer

opposite direction cant cross

question

MEANT BY: Stop lines

answer

"24" wide white line MUST STOP vehicle front bumper w/in

question

MEANT BY:Double white line

answer

Illiegal

question

MEANT BY: Residential area mph

answer

question

MEANT BY: Business district mph

answer

question

MEANT BY: Highway mph

answer

question

MEANT BY: Expressway

answer

question

MEANT BY:Private neighborhood

answer

15*- owner wants to make it

question

LESSON 5 : VISION AND SPACE MANAGEMENT

answer

question

What are the 3 types of vision

answer

1. Central 2. Minochular vision 3. Peripheral vision

question

What does "Visual Lead" Mean

answer

activly searvhimg the road 2o-30 seconds ahead

question

What is the "light of sight"

answer

Imaginary line that extents from our eyes to the sight of focus and the distance point is unobstructed.

question

What is the "Field of View"

answer

ADD MORE!!!!!! Entire area of the road + surrounding distance

question

Explain the "Three Second Rule" Method of following distance

answer

Person in front passes an object you are 3 seconds behind it to permit a driver to prevent a collision on a dry road surface at 45 mph check 10.9 for more answers

question

What conditions would require an increase in following distance

answer

Road/Weather conditions Speed Following large vehicles and the experience of driving in these conditions

question

List the three ingredients that make up Total Stopping Distance and describe what is meant by each

answer

1. Perception Distance- Your eyes see a hazardous to the time your reacts 2. Reaction Distance the time it takes your brain to make the action 3. Braking Distance - While you are braking pushing Down on break until vehicle stops IF SCREECHING OCCURS KEEP GOING ITS NORMAL!!

question

List 4 factors that affect total stopping distance

answer

1. mph (speed) 2. Mechanical Conditions 3. Weight 4. Road Conditions

question

Why is it important to look further ahead when driving at faster speeds

answer

Ability to handle dangerous situations depends on your searching distance

question

What does the Space Management System (SEE) stand for

answer

S.earch E.valuate 10.2 E.xecute

question

What steps can be taken to minimize a hazard

answer

Reduce speed Change Direction *Avoid coalition w/ vehicle, that appears to hit you in the side -Brake/Accelerate quickly) 10.9

question

LESSON 6: BASIC MANEUVERS IN LOW-RISK ENVIRONMENTS

answer

question

What is the relationship between traction and inertia

answer

Traction can be reduced where as inertia can take over your car for the vehicle to turn your traction must be stronger than your intertia

question

What does it mean to have the right of way

answer

The right away must be given to you and the law specifies who must yield to whom: it never states who has the right of way, if in doubt just extend your courtesy of yielding to to a vehicle so you wont cause a conflict

question

When do you have the right of way

answer

When another driver gives you the right away

question

When stopping at intersection,where are you required to stop

answer

Behind a white line 2ft prior to the line

question

Why should you stop at least one car length behind the vehicle in front of you

answer

If you get hit from behind you wont get pushed into them

question

When turning LEFT at an intersection and you have to wait until oncoming traffic is clear, why is it important to keep your wheels pointed straight

answer

So when turning and you get rear ended you will go straight instead of going into oncoming traffic Check 15.13

question

If you are the first car at an inersetion and intend to turn left, why is it important to "creep" or stop approximately 1/3 of the way into the intersection

answer

Ask yourself if there is sufficient time to pass going at 50 mph because it will take you twelve seconds to pass

question

When are you allowed to turn LEFT + RIGHT red light

answer

LEFT- one way st(legal/safe) RIGHT - When there is a sign

question

What sign will you see when entering a roundabout

answer

Yield

question

Who has the right of way at a roundabout

answer

Motorcyclist, pedestrians but they have to already be in the round about.

question

List the steps in order to make a safe lane change

answer

1. Mirrors 2. Signals 3. gas-maintain 4. head check 5. turn gently 6. cancel signal

question

What is the safest way to turn around

answer

1. round the block 2. 2 point turn about

question

When parked next to the curb, how far way from the curb should you be

answer

12 inches

question

What are the main consideration when preparing to pass another vehicle on a two-lane,two-way highway

answer

Ask yourself is there sufficiant time for me to pass going at 50 mph because it will take me twelve seconds to pass

question

When passing another vehicle, how do you know it is safe to return to the right lane? Car/pickup truck & Large truck

answer

CAR/PICKUP TRUCK -front end in inside rear - view mirror LARGE TRUCK - you want to be able to see the whole front of the truck in your mirror

question

Is it legal to pass on the right? Explain

answer

YES, but only passing on a four lane highway

question

LESSON 7: RISK REDUCING STRATEGIES FOR DIFFERENT DRIVING ENVIRONMENTS

answer

question

When exiting the expressway, when do you normally begin to slow down

answer

Deceleration lane

question

When are you allowed to use an emergency crossover (in the median/Divider strip) on the expressway

answer

illegal for anyone excepted law enforcement,emergency, maintenance vehicles

question

If merging onto the expressway from the left,what will you need to do differently

answer

Turn right turn signal on rather than left check blind spot then heavily accelerate after doing all these steps now merge to right lane

question

What is weave lane on the expressway

answer

Entrance + exit @ the same place accelerator ramp is on the same ramp as the decelerator ramp

question

What should you do if you miss your exit on the expressway

answer

Go to the next exit and then comeback onto the expressway

question

What is the most important decision when driving in urban traffic

answer

-determined a safe speed well considering speed with the traffic time of day and weather conditions

question

What are some considerations to be made when driving in an urban traffic

answer

-Amount of traffic -Weather -Time of Day - Visibility

question

When should you begin to slow down if there is a sharp curve ahead

answer

bef0re the curve while reducing speed

question

What steps should you use when approaching the crest of a hill on a two-lane highway

answer

move to the right reduce speed until you can see the bottom of the hill

question

When encountering an animal in the road, the most important thing to remember is

answer

Do not swerve and brake firmly Dont veer for the deer

question

LESSON 8: SHARING THE ROAD WITH OTHER USERS

answer

question

list areas that you are most likely to encounter pedestrians

answer

Downtown school zone parking lot regulation areas play ground businesses areas

question

What action should you take when you approach a crosswalk where a blind person is waiting to cross the street?

answer

Stop @ white line (he/she listens to the engine to find you location)

question

What special characteristic do motorcycles preset to motorists

answer

Smaller - harder to see less mobile faster braking

question

What should drivers be prepared for when driving around large vehicles

answer

Blind spots (bigger) Wind turbulence

question

When following large vehicles why should you leave more space to the front of your vehicle

answer

See around them

question

What is "Off-Tracking" when refereeing to a large vehicle

answer

Large tractor trailer makes a turns trailer tracks

question

What are the "No Zones" on large vehicles

answer

Blind spot (fancy word) located on vehicles

question

What are you required to do when you see emergency vehicle approach from the front or rear with light and/or siren on

answer

Move to The right and stop Return driving after about two football fields away remained stopped until past

question

Describe Michigan's "Move Over" law

answer

Give one clear lane to an officer that has already pulled someone over move over one lane to the left.

question

What action must you take when approaching a railroad cross yield

answer

Slow by costing,slow listen (windows down/radio off) look

question

How far from railroad tracks are you required to stop

answer

No more then 50ft Less than 15ft

question

What are you required to do stop for a school bus with the overhead red lights flashing

answer

Stop 20ft away

question

What are you NOT required to do stop for a school bus with the overhead red lights flashing

answer

Oth island or other structures that separate the flow of traffic

question

What are some concern when driving around construction vehicles

answer

-Bigger -slower moving

question

SPEED LIMITS OF: Highway Construction Zone

answer

45 mph

question

SPEED LIMITS OF: Expressway Construction Zone

answer

60 mph *45 when worker present

question

LESSON 9 ADVERSE DRIVING CONDITIONS AND EMERGENCIES

answer

question

Explain Michigan's Basic Speed law

answer

You must drive at a careful and prudent speed in all driving conditions you must drive at a speed that allows you to stop within the clear distance. This speed is never faster that the posted speed limit always be ready for trouble ahead be ready to stop!

question

What does it mean to "Over Drive" your headlights

answer

Your driving so fast that you can't see your stopping distance because your driving at faster pace that normal.

question

What should you do when an oncoming vehicle has their bright lights on

answer

Flicker light at him when 500 feet away look at the right edge/ fog line

question

High beam headlights must be dimmed w/ in how many ft of an oncoming car

answer

500ft

question

When are you required to use headlights?

answer

Headlights must be turned on a half hour after and before sunset and at other times when visibility is reduced. Use your low beams when when its foggy raining or snowing during the day. If your having trouble seeing other vehicles they will have trouble seeing you turn on your headlights whenever your in doubt.

question

What should you do when visibility is limited by rain/snow

answer

Low beams

question

When driving in fog, should you use your parking lights, low beam headlights or high beam headlights?

answer

Drive slowly in fog use your low beams always be prepared to stop quickly when fog becomes so thick that you can not see at all pull off the road turn on the four way emergency flashers and wait for fog to lift

question

What can you do to prevent loss of traction in slippery road conditions

answer

Avoid making fast turns Stop + break Steer smooth avoid cruise control

question

What is "Black Ice"

answer

A layer if of ice that is transparent , that is caused by humidity and low temperature.

question

Describe how do you stop a vehicle on icy roads both WITH ABS brakes and WITHOUT ABS brakes

answer

WITH Anti-lock brakes apply the brakes with a hard firm pressure and begin to maintain this pressure until you have stopped, you may feel/hear vibrations or pulsations this is normal. WITHOUT Anti-locks brakes Apply the brakes just hard enough to not lock and the wheels. If the wheels do lock release pressure and apply brakes again. This method of braking is referred to as threshold or controlled braking

question

Describe hydroplaning

answer

A layer of water forms between tires that causes you to lose traction

question

When do you usually find out you are hydroplaning

answer

You won't find out your hydroplaning until you try to stop or steer and then continue you to go forward

question

What should you do when you determined your car is hydroplaning

answer

Foot off accelerator grip firmly activate four wheel flashers.

question

What causes a vehicle to skid

answer

Too much power over steering and jerking of your wheels.

question

Which direction should you steer if your vehicle starts to skid

answer

Turn your front wheels to the direction you want to go right go right and for left go left

question

What is the leading cause of crashes

answer

Driver running into thing they don't see (improper visual search) grip wheel firmly

question

While driving @ highway speeds, explain what steps you should take if your rights wheels accidentally runoff the edge of the pavement onto the shoulder of the road

answer

Foot off of gas then gradually steer gradually back onto the road then center yourself Do not brake.

question

WHAT TO DO WHEN: Tires blow out

answer

Grip steering wheel firmly foot of gas, Do not brake allow vehicle to slow down then coast till protected activate four wheel flashers

question

WHAT TO DO WHEN: brakes fail

answer

Parking brake Pump brakes to regain power then apply down the shaft and apply parking brakes.

question

LESSON 10: FACTORS AFFECTING THE DRIVERS

answer

question

What is distracted driving

answer

Having physical + visual and congnitive concentration taken away from driving

question

What are the types of distraction? How do they affect a driver?

answer

1.VISUAL - eyes of road 2. PHYSICAL - eating, doing something 3. COGNITIVE - mind away

question

How does texting affect the SEE system of defensive driving

answer

SEARCHING - miss section off road/what's going on important change in your driving atmosphere. EVALUATING - Your time to make decisions is reduced EXECUTING -No/less time to react then can miss their evaluating step.

question

Why is it dangerous to listen to music loudly or to wear headphones while driving

answer

Headphones are illegal cause you can't hear at all

question

What is the legal limit of intoxication in Michigan in which a driver would be presumed to be operating while intoxicated

answer

0.08 adult 0.02 minor has to be coming from a religious service

question

What is Michigan's implied Consent Law? What is the purpose of an implied Consent law

answer

Whne you sign for your licenses you are giving consent to get tested for alcohol in body.

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL: Searching

answer

Relaxing eyes muscle affecting your movement control

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL: Eye focus

answer

Difficulty switching object at different distances .

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL: Double visions

answer

You see two thing at once because of your eye hand coordination is off

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL:Distance judgment

answer

Reducing depth perception and accuracy

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL: Side vision

answer

Reducing peripheral vision

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL:Sharpness of visions

answer

Blurs your vision

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL:Color distinction

answer

Temporally color blind

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL: Night Vision

answer

Reduce ability to gather light

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL: a response time

answer

Slows it down

question

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL: Impaired Motor skills

answer

Eye,hand, foot coordination

question

What are some of the signs of a drinking drivers

answer

Too fast / slow Wide/narrow turns Stop too soon/late weaves in and out of lanes strattles lane markings late starts at green lights

question

What are common effects of over-the-counter drugs? How do you determine which drugs can affect driving ability

answer

Make you sleepy - read side affects

question

What is the most common drug found in drivers? What are the affects of this drug

answer

Marijuana lose ability to stay in lane distracts perception and reaction They will sit at a green light

question

What are the affects of mixing alcohol and drugs

answer

Multiple side effects when you combine them together

question

What is fatigue?

answer

Mental/physical tiredness

question

What are the effects of driving while fatigued

answer

Swerving,stopping late, not seeing risk/hazards miss judgement of speed and distance always take a break if you get tired

question

What are some signs of being to tired/fatigued to drive

answer

NOT REMEMBERING LAST FEW MILES Miss judgement of speed/distance *take break b4 you get tired

question

What is aggressive driving

answer

Driving in a bold,selfish or pushy manor without any regard to who is on the street

question

What are the stages of Aggressive Driving

answer

Rush in Total Aggression and violence

question

What is the best way to deal with another's aggressive driving

answer

Avoid eye contact Remain in vehicle Give benefit of the doubt If you are being at all stalked go straight to police.

question

LESSON 11: SECRETARY OF STATE PROCEDURES,TRAVEL PLANNING, AND FUEL EFFICIENCY

answer

question

After receiving the Green Segment 1 certificate of completion, before driving you must

answer

Go to secretory of state with your parents and 6 items of idetification

question

Driving a vehicle is a privilege, not a right. What is the difference

answer

A driving inclines a privilege not a right that granted by the state this is also means that the DMV may refuse to issue or renew license

question

While driving a vehicle. You are required to have in your possession

answer

License Insurance Registration

question

How does a driver prepare for a trip

answer

Plan ahead Get plenty sleep Drive during waking hours

question

During a trip, driver should

answer

Take a break make sure everyone knows where you are Beware of Highway hypnosis

question

5 things about your vehicle that affects fuel consumption

answer

The Size of your vehicle Four wheel drive automatic transmission instead of manual the sun roof cause wind turbulence slowing you down Check oil that also uses gas

question

5 things about driving habits that affects fuel consumption

answer

Air conditioning clear all snow from car keep car clean don't speed when not needed plan ahead and avoid traffic jams

STUDY

Conducting Conjunction

Researching and Informative Persuasive Essays Topic Test Reveiw – Flashcards 15 terms

Bettina Hugo

15 terms

Preview

Researching and Informative Persuasive Essays Topic Test Reveiw – Flashcards

question

What is a subject directory?

answer

A subject directory consists of links compiled by librarians or other experts and is categorized into specific topics

question

Why is the "C" in the acronym CAARP important to consider when evaluating a site?

answer

The "C" stands for "currency," which refers to how current the information on the site is. If a site has not been updated for quite a while, it may indicate that the information is no longer valid. Depending on the topic of your research, that could mean you shouldn't use the site as a source. Currency is most important in scientific areas or current events. While literary sites do not necessarily call for the most recent information, using old information about space travel, for example, could result in erroneous information.

question

In your research on volcanoes, you find this site: What can you determine about the site by looking at the URL?

answer

The ".gov" in the address tells me it is a government site

question

How can presentation aids reduce apprehension?

answer

Presentation aids can help guide the speaker, reducing the chance of getting "lost" in the content. Having a presentation aid to focus on can also help the speaker focus on the presentation, rather than on feelings of anxiety.

question

What is the best type of organization for describing how your bedroom looks to a stranger?

answer

spatial

question

In your search for information on volcanoes, you find this site: Should you use this site for your research paper?

answer

It shouldn't be used because Wikipedia is not reliable.

question

What is the best type of organization for explaining, step by step, how to get to your house from school?

answer

Chronological

question

What is a presentation aid?

answer

A presentation aid is a visual method of clarifying ideas and illustrating the message.

question

The five Principles of Effective Informative Speeches explain how important __________ and ____________ are to a successful Informative Speech.

answer

simplicity, relevance

question

What is a manipulative aid? Describe a situation in which the speaker would want to use a manipulative aid?

answer

A manipulative aid is any presentation aid that the speaker actively changes during the course of the speech. Writing notes on a chalkboard during a classroom lecture is an example of when a speaker may want to use a manipulative aid. Other examples include: writing ideas from audience participation, or changing an aid during a demonstration speech.

question

What is a handout? When would it be useful to use a handout?

answer

A handout is a written aid you provide to the audience. It would be helpful to use a handout if your speech contains detailed information that the audience may not remember without a tangible reminder. It may also be useful to use a handout for "how-to" speeches, to outline the step-by-step instructions. It is also common to use handouts when you use technology aids, such as slideshows, so the audience can follow along.

question

Spatial organization should be used when your subject can best be explained _____________.

answer

from the inside out

question

____________ are presentation aids you can change during the course of your speech

answer

manipulative aids

question

Explain the important guidelines for using a presentation aid during your speech.

answer

The speaker should work for integration with the aid, the speaker should be sure he/she is not talking to the aid and uses the aid only when it is relevant. Finally, the speaker should NEVER read directly from the aid.

question

If you are looking for information about volcanic eruptions, how can you broaden your search?

answer

There are several ways you can broaden a search. You could search for "volcano OR volcanic," use the words "AND volcano," or you could use truncation and search for "volcan," which would result in a listing of sites with "volcano" or "volcanic."

STUDY

Conjunction Linguistics Preposition

Kahoot-8 Parts of Speech – Flashcards 13 terms

Thomas Alday

13 terms

Preview

Kahoot-8 Parts of Speech – Flashcards

question

Which part of speech names a person, place, or thing?

answer

Noun

question

Which part of speech describes a noun or pronoun?

answer

Adjective

question

Which part of speech shows excitement or strong feeling?

answer

Interjection

question

Which part of speech joins words or groups of words?

answer

Conjunction

question

Which part of speech takes the place of a noun?

answer

Pronoun

question

Which part of speech shows action or state of being?

answer

Verb

question

Which part of speech answers the questions what kind? which one? how many/how much? Whose?

answer

Adjective

question

The following words are what part of speech: for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so?

answer

Conjunction

question

Which part of speech often ends in -ly?

answer

Adverb

question

Which part of speech describes a verb, adjective, or another adverb?

answer

Adverb

question

Which part of speech is part of a phrase that adds more detail to your sentence?

answer

Preposition

question

Which part of speech can be numbers and colors?

answer

Adjective

question

Which answers: when? where? why? how something is done? under what conditions? to what extent?

answer

Adverb

STUDY

AP English Language And Composition Area Conjunction Synonyms And Antonyms

Vocab Unit 10: Synonyms and Antonyms – Flashcards 36 terms

Isabel Padilla

36 terms

Preview

Vocab Unit 10: Synonyms and Antonyms – Flashcards

question

oscillate

answer

to fluctuate, waver, vibrate, vacillate (synonyms)

question

penitent

answer

remorseful, regretful, rueful, sorry (synonyms)

question

obsequious

answer

fawning, servile, sycophantic, mealymouthed (synonyms)

question

attenuate

answer

to thin out, dilute, water down (synonyms)

question

foible

answer

a shortcoming, failing, flaw, defect, quirk (synonyms)

question

luminous

answer

radiant, bright, refulgent, lustrous (synonyms)

question

cavil

answer

to nitpick, quibble, carp (synonyms)

question

decimate

answer

to ravage, wreak havoc, devastate (synonyms)

question

obtuse

answer

dull-witted, stupid, dumb, thick, mild (synonyms)

question

sporadic

answer

irregular, intermittent, spasmodic (synonyms)

question

inure

answer

to harden, accustom, acclimate (synonyms)

question

rebuff

answer

to spurn, repulse, reject, a setback (synonyms)

question

concatenation

answer

a series, sequence, conjunction (synonyms)

question

benign

answer

benevolent, salutary, salubrious (synonyms)

question

shambles

answer

a mess, disaster area, a slaughterhouse (synonyms)

question

forgo

answer

to do without, refrain from, renounce (synonyms)

question

charlatan

answer

a fraud, quack, mountebank, impostor (synonyms)

question

concomitant

answer

attendant, accompanying, corollary (synonyms)

question

peremptory

answer

high-handed, dictatorial, unconditional (synonyms)

question

fraught

answer

full of, loaded with, charged with (synonyms)

question

askance

answer

distrustfully, suspiciously, skeptically (synonyms)

question

reconnoiter

answer

to scout, see how the land lies (synonyms)

question

foible

answer

a person's strong suit, forte, a virtue (antonyms)

question

fraught

answer

a devoid of, lacking, deficient in (antonyms)

question

obsequious

answer

assertive, bumptious, overbearing, candid, frank, independent (antonyms)

question

penitent

answer

unrepentant, remorseless, uncontrite (antonyms)

question

sporadic

answer

constant, steady, continuous, uninterrupted (antonyms)

question

peremptory

answer

irresolute, tentative, mild, unassuming (antonyms)

question

obtuse

answer

acute, perceptive, quick-witted (antonyms)

question

forgo

answer

to indulge in, partake of (antonyms)

question

charlatan

answer

the real McCoy, genuine article (antonyms)

question

attenuate

answer

to thicken, to strengthen, bolster (antonyms)

question

luminous

answer

dark, opaque, dim, murky (antonyms)

question

oscillate

answer

to remain fixed, steady, or constant (antonyms)

question

benign

answer

malignant, malevolent, deleterious (antonyms)

question

rebuff

answer

to accept, take someone up on, welcome (antonyms)

STUDY

Conjunction Physical Geography World Geography

Geography Chapter 13 Answers – Flashcards 40 terms

Tyree Bender

40 terms

Preview

Geography Chapter 13 Answers – Flashcards

question

A shallow saltwater body cut off from the ocean by a bay barrier is known as a

answer

lagoon

question

Seawater is a solution.

answer

Which of the following is TRUE about seawater?

question

Particles of sand, gravels, and shells that move along the shore form

answer

beach drift.

question

an uplifted wave-cut platform.

answer

A terrace is

question

The worldwide average salinity of seawater is

answer

3.5%

question

The grinding and shaping of rock surfaces by the "sandblasting" action of particles carried by wind is

answer

abrasion.

question

When the Sun and Moon are on the same side Earth or on opposite sides of earth, the ________ tide occurs and results in the ________ tidal range between low and high tides.

answer

spring; greatest

question

Material deposited in a long ridge extending out from a coast is called a

answer

barrier spit.

question

Pebbles can be moved by ________ in a process known as ________.

answer

saltating particles; surface creep

question

Undercutting action of the sea results in

answer

sea cliffs

question

Seawater with less than 3.5% is termed

answer

brackish

question

Which of the following occurs when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are in alignment (i.e., in opposition or conjunction)?

answer

Maximum tidal ranges

question

In general usage, it only includes the near shore area of coastal environments

answer

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the littoral zone?

question

Areas with heavy freshwater runoff and low evaporation will have ________ average salinity.

answer

lower than

question

An extensive area of sand and sand dunes is known as a(n)

answer

erg desert, or sand sea.

question

Barrier islands can migrate.

answer

True

question

Approximately what percentage of the world's population lives near the ocean?

answer

40%

question

An earthquake, a submarine landslide, or a volcanic eruption is capable of producing a

answer

tsunami

question

When the height of a wave exceeds its vertical stability, the wave is called a

answer

breaker.

question

Approximately what percentage of the United States' population live in coastal areas?

answer

50%

question

When the Sun and Moon are neither in conjunction or opposition, the ________ tide occurs and results in the ________ tidal range between low and high tides.

answer

neap; lowest

question

Water can be considered a "universal" solvent.

answer

True

question

According to the figure above, within the mixing zone and thermocline, the average temperature and salinity

answer

decrease with depth.

question

Seas are generally smaller than an ocean and tend to be partially enclosed by land or large, inland, saline water bodies.

answer

What is the difference between an ocean and a sea?

question

surfaces of concentrated pebbles and gravels.

answer

Desert pavement refers to

question

The height of a tsunami grows as it approaches a coastline primarily because

answer

its wavelength shortens.

question

Which of the following terms is NOT a correct reference to desert pavement?

answer

Sand seas

question

Worldwide salinity varies between ________ and ________.

answer

3.4%; 3.7%

question

A general term for the coastal area and shallow offshore environment is

answer

littoral zone.

question

Dune migration threatens human structures and may adversely affect human health.

answer

True

question

slightly basic.

answer

On average, ocean water is

question

Dunes are the smallest features shaped by the movement of windblown sand.

answer

False

question

They are produced solely by the gravitational pull of the Sun.

answer

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding tides?

question

Elongated, streamlined ridges aligned parallel to the most effective wind direction are called

answer

yardangs.

question

Regular patterns of smooth, rounded waves are called

answer

swells.

question

Relative to dune movement and form, a dune's slipface forms on which side?

answer

leeward side

question

The major erosional processes in deserts are eolian.

answer

True

question

The smallest features shaped by saltating grains of sand are

answer

ripples.

question

High tides are known as ________ whereas low tides are kown as ________.

answer

flood tides; ebb tides

question

The smallest features shaped by saltating grains of sand are

answer

ripples.

STUDY

Conjunction Grade Point Average Linguistics Preposition Question And Answer Thank You Note

GEB Test 3 Grammer only – Flashcards 150 terms

Robert Lollar

150 terms

Preview

GEB Test 3 Grammer only – Flashcards

question

51. The part of speech that names a person, place, or thing is called a a. pronoun. b. verb. c. adjective. d. noun. e. preposition.

answer

d. noun.

question

52. Which of the following is a proper noun? a. Donkey b. Computer c. Billy d. Freedom e. River

answer

c. Billy

question

53. The part of speech that replaces the noun is the a. verb. b. pronoun. c. adverb. d. conjunction. e. none of these

answer

b. pronoun.

question

54. Which of the following is a pronoun? a. John b. sadness c. you d. running e. occasionally

answer

c. you

question

55. What part of speech shows action or state of being? a. adverb b. interjection c. preposition d. adjective e. none of these

answer

e. none of these

question

56. Which of the following is a linking verb? a. seems b. walks c. has d. grows e. laughs

answer

c. has

question

57. Which of the following is an adjective? a. and b. with c. tall d. but e. therefore

answer

c. tall

question

58. Which of the following is an adverb? a. quietly b. Chicago c. although d. Martin e. all of these

answer

a. quietly

question

59. A word that shows the relationship between a noun and some other word is called a a. conjunction. b. preposition. c. predicate. d. subject. e. none of these

answer

b. preposition.

question

60. Which of the following is a preposition? a. giving b. hot c. however d. under e. none of these

answer

d. under

question

61. Which of the following is an interjection? a. yesterday b. ouch c. no d. from e. consequently

answer

b. ouch

question

62. What mark of punctuation usually follows an interjection? a. no mark b. a semicolon c. a question mark d. a period e. an exclamation mark

answer

e. an exclamation mark

question

63. Every sentence must have a subject and a. a preposition. b. a phrase. c. a conjunction. d. a predicate. e. a dependent clause.

answer

d. a predicate.

question

64. A dependent clause a. has a subject but no predicate. b. has a predicate but no subject. c. has a subject and a predicate. d. is similar to a phrase. e. is a simple sentence.

answer

c. has a subject and a predicate.

question

65. A group of related words that contains both a subject and a predicate is called a(n) a. phrase. b. clause. c. conjunctive adverb. d. prepositional phrase. e. declarative.

answer

b. clause.

question

66. A group of related words that does not have both a subject and a verb is called a a. phrase. b. clause. c. conjunctive adverb. d. preposition. e. dependent clause.

answer

e. dependent clause.

question

67. The noun or pronoun that receives the action of the verb is called the a. indirect object. b. direct object. c. modifier. d. verb phrase. e. verb complement.

answer

b. direct object.

question

68. The word or words in the predicate that complete the sense of the verb are called the a. direct object. b. indirect object. c. verb phrase. d. complement. e. preposition.

answer

d. complement.

question

69. In the sentence, My friend gave a sandwich to me, which word is the direct object? a. My b. friend c. gave d. sandwich e. me

answer

d. sandwich

question

70. In the sentence, His harsh assessment was accurate, which word is the complement? a. harsh b. assessment c. was d. accurate e. none of these

answer

d. accurate

question

71. Which sentence pattern is used in the following sentence? Dell gave me his wallet. a. subject/verb b. subject/action verb/direct object c. subject/action verb/indirect object/direct object d. subject/linking verb/complement e. inverted order

answer

c. subject/action verb/indirect object/direct object

question

72. Which sentence pattern is used in the following sentence? All of the customers are being searched. a. subject/verb b. subject/action verb/direct object c. subject/action verb/indirect object/direct object d. subject/linking verb/complement e. inverted order

answer

d. subject/linking verb/complement

question

73. Which sentence pattern is used in the following sentence? Scoring the most points is DeVille. a. subject/verb b. subject/action verb/direct object c. subject/action verb/indirect object/direct object d. subject/linking verb/complement e. inverted order

answer

e. inverted order

question

74. Which of the following is a polite request? a. Can you tell me what time it is? b. Please take this to Susan. c. Please do Exercise 12 first. d. Will you bring me that report. e. All of these are polite requests.

answer

e. All of these are polite requests.

question

75. A compound sentence contains a. one independent clause and no dependent clause. b. two independent clauses and no dependent clause. c. one independent clause and one dependent clause. d. one independent clause and two dependent clauses. e. two independent clauses and one dependent clause.

answer

b. two independent clauses and no dependent clause.

question

41. The most frequently used mark of punctuation is the a. apostrophe. b. colon. c. comma. d. hyphen. e. semicolon.

answer

c. comma.

question

42. The major coordinate conjunctions are a. of, to, with, and by. b. and, but, or, and nor. c. therefore, however, and nevertheless. d. a, an and the. e. although, if, since, and because.

answer

b. and, but, or, and nor.

question

43. Which sentence uses a comma correctly? a. We went to the grocery store, and bought a gallon of milk. b. We went to the grocery store, to buy a gallon of milk. c. We went to the grocery store, and we bought a gallon of milk. d. We went, to the grocery store, and bought a gallon of milk. e. None of these are punctuated correctly.

answer

c. We went to the grocery store, and we bought a gallon of milk.

question

44. Which sentence is punctuated correctly? a. We stopped, and we looked. b. We saw a bright, yellow bird. c. The boy climbed the tower, but didn't seem to be afraid. d. Juan and Mary went to Chicago, but they didn't see the Sears Tower. e. The cold snowy day was dark, and dreary.

answer

d. Juan and Mary went to Chicago, but they didn't see the Sears Tower.

question

45. Which sentence is punctuated correctly? a. Victoria, brought apples bananas and pears. b. Victoria, brought apples, bananas and pears. c. Victoria brought apples, bananas and pears. d. Victoria brought apples bananas, and pears. e. Victoria brought apples, bananas, and pears.

answer

e. Victoria brought apples, bananas, and pears.

question

46. Which sentence is punctuated correctly? a. No, the report is not ready. b. Well, I believe it is true. c. Look, you need to get started. d. Of course, we will be closed on Sunday. e. All of these are punctuated correctly.

answer

e. All of these are punctuated correctly.

question

47. Which sentence(s) is(are) punctuated correctly? a. Alfredo Neuman, the new sales clerk, was late again. b. Ms. Jones, using her people skills tried to change the customer's mind. c. The manager, who uses the new technique, was promoted. d. both a and c e. None are punctuated correctly.

answer

d. both a and c

question

48. A noun that identifies another noun or pronoun that comes immediately before it is called a(n) a. adjacent. b. restrictive expression. c. appositive. d. conjunction. e. nonrestrictive adverb.

answer

c. appositive.

question

49. Some common interruption expressions are the following: a. and, but, or, and nor b. although, if, because, and since c. unfortunately, however, and therefore d. when, first, and while e. none of these

answer

c. unfortunately, however, and therefore

question

50. Which uses the comma correctly? a. May, 1 2005 b. May 1, 2005 c. May, 1, 2005 d. 1, May 2005 e. 1 May, 2005

answer

b. May 1, 2005

question

51. Which sentence is punctuated incorrectly? a. I was born on Tuesday, April 13, 1972. b. I live in Newark, New Jersey. c. We will travel to St. Louis, Missouri, and Portland, Maine. d. David will leave on May 15, 2004 at 3:15 p.m. e. All are punctuated correctly.

answer

d. David will leave on May 15, 2004 at 3:15 p.m.

question

52. Which sentence uses commas correctly? a. Thelma arrived on Saturday, May 24 2004. b. We live at 1450 North Main Street, Tacoma, Washington. c. I know, Maria that, you are trying your best. d. Cam was transferred to Denver, Colorado, on the 25th. e. Both b and d use commas correctly.

answer

e. Both b and d use commas correctly.

question

53. Which sentence is punctuated correctly? a. The president said, "You are never alone." b. The president, said "You are never alone." c. The president said "You, are never alone." d. The president said, "You, are never alone." e. None of these is punctuated correctly.

answer

a. The president said, "You are never alone."

question

54. A semicolon is a. stronger than a period but not as strong as a comma. b. stronger than a period but not as strong as a hyphen. c. stronger than a comma but not as strong as a period. d. not a strong mark of punctuation. e. the weakest mark of punctuation.

answer

c. stronger than a comma but not as strong as a period.

question

55. When typing, leave ________ space(s) after a semicolon. a. one b. two c. three d. no space e. It depends on what follows the semicolon.

answer

a. one

question

56. Which sentence is punctuated correctly? a. I ate; however, I didn't sleep. b. I ate, however; I didn't sleep. c. I ate, however, I didn't sleep. d. All of these are punctuated correctly. e. None of these are punctuated correctly.

answer

a. I ate; however, I didn't sleep.

question

57. Items in a series are usually separated by a. apostrophes. b. colons. c. commas. d. parentheses. e. semicolons.

answer

c. commas.

question

58. Which sentence is punctuated correctly? a. I attended the meetings on October 29, 30, and 31, and on November 1 I returned home. b. I attended the meetings on October 29, 30, and; 31, and on November 1 I returned home. c. I attended the meetings on October, 29, 30 and 31; and on November 1 I returned home. d. I attended the meetings on October 29, 30, and 31; and on November 1 I returned home. e. None of these are punctuated correctly.

answer

e. None of these are punctuated correctly.

question

59. Which sentence is punctuated correctly? a. We have stores in Seattle, Washington, Cleveland, Ohio, and Dallas, Texas. b. We have stores in Seattle Washington; Cleveland Ohio; and Dallas Texas. c. We have stores in Seattle, Washington; Cleveland, Ohio; and Dallas, Texas. d. We have stores in Seattle; Washington, Cleveland; Ohio, and Dallas; Texas. e. None of these are punctuated correctly.

answer

c. We have stores in Seattle, Washington; Cleveland, Ohio; and Dallas, Texas.

question

60. The mark of punctuation used to announce a list or rule is the a. semicolon. b. colon. c. parentheses. d. dash. e. apostrophe.

answer

b. colon.

question

61. A colon should not be used after ________ that introduces a list. a. an adjective b. a verb c. a preposition d. both b and c e. none of these

answer

d. both b and c

question

62. How many spaces should be left after a colon when typing? a. no space b. one c. two d. three e. Spacing varies with the colon.

answer

b. one

question

63. Which sentence uses the colon correctly? a. The contest winners are: Jill, Nygen, and Mike. b. The new officers are the following: Karin, Bert, and Kym. c. Jamie was told to: bring paper, pencils, and erasers. d. The prize consisted of: $100 and a new stereo. e. All of these use the colon correctly.

answer

b. The new officers are the following: Karin, Bert, and Kym.

question

64. The period is used for a. ending a statement. b. ending a command. c. ending a polite request. d. ending an indirect question. e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

65. Which uses the period correctly? a. m.p.g. b. w.p.m. c. W.W.W. d. U.S.A. e. G.P.A.

answer

d. U.S.A.

question

66. Which of the following needs periods? a. a m b. p m c. B S d. P O e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

67. The dash is used instead of which mark of punctuation? a. colons b. hyphens c. commas d. parentheses e. semicolons

answer

b. hyphens

question

68. Which sentence uses parentheses correctly? a. The new officers (Peter, Joan, and Larrie) are starting today. b. The (three colors) tan, blue, and white are used sparingly. c. The candidates Joe, Vincent, and Ty (should be here soon). d. Mr. Janis (the new manager) is very helpful. e. All of these sentences use parentheses correctly.

answer

d. Mr. Janis (the new manager) is very helpful.

question

69. Which sentence uses quotation marks correctly? a. "The Wall Street Journal" is my favorite newspaper. b. "How to Advertise" is the name of the new chapter in Alan's book. c. My brother writes for "Forbes" magazine. d. "Time" magazine has an article entitled The Cash Squeeze. e. Both a and b use quotation marks correctly.

answer

e. Both a and b use quotation marks correctly.

question

70. Italics are used for a. a word used as a word. b. emphasis. c. book titles. d. complete published works. e. all of these.

answer

e. all of these.

question

71. Hyphens are used with a. appositives. b. compound adjectives that precede nouns. c. compound numbers. d. both b and c e. none of these

answer

d. both b and c

question

72. Which uses the hyphen correctly? a. a newly-developed plan b. a report that is up-to-date c. twenty-five people d. high-school dance e. all of these

answer

c. twenty-five people

question

73. Which uses the hyphen correctly? a. a child who is ten-years old b. one-third of the students c. a data-processing center d. a life-insurance policy e. none of these

answer

b. one-third of the students

question

74. Which sentence uses the apostrophe correctly? a. I saw the child's toy. b. That is Mr. and Mrs. Smith's home. c. Both actresses' makeup kits were stolen. d. He had four years' experience. e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

75. Which of the following uses the apostrophe incorrectly? a. Mary's and Sam's cars b. both employees' hats c. those coats are their's d. today's weather e. three ladies' names

answer

c. those coats are their's

question

46. A(n) ________ verb expresses a state of being. a. active b. linking c. transitive d. passive e. helping

answer

b. linking

question

47. Which of the following is an action verb? a. jump b. run c. were d. both a and b e. none of these

answer

d. both a and b

question

48. A verb that does not require an object is a(n) a. transitive verb. b. helping verb. c. intransitive verb. d. linking verb. e. none of these

answer

c. intransitive verb.

question

49. The verb swoon is always a(n) ________ verb. a. intransitive b. transitive c. helping d. linking e. action

answer

a. intransitive

question

50. Which of the following is a linking verb? a. am b. is c. were d. seems e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

51. Linking verbs a. are always active. b. are always passive. c. have no voice. d. are always transitive. e. are none of these.

answer

c. have no voice.

question

52. Linking verbs a. are followed by a complement. b. cannot take an object. c. require a helping verb. d. both a and b e. both b and c

answer

d. both a and b

question

53. Which of the following is a helping verb? a. do b. will c. might d. all of these e. none of these

answer

d. all of these

question

54. The three moods for verbs are a. interjection, transition, and participative. b. imperative, indicative, and subjunctive. c. simple, comparative, and superlative. d. restrictive, subjective, and nominative. e. past, present, and future.

answer

b. imperative, indicative, and subjunctive.

question

55. The property of a verb that expresses time is a. mood. b. voice. c. tense. d. number. e. none of these

answer

c. tense.

question

56. The primary verb tenses are a. past, present, and past perfect. b. present, past participle, and present perfect. c. past perfect, present perfect, and future. d. past, present, and future. e. past, present, and future perfect.

answer

c. past perfect, present perfect, and future.

question

57. Most verbs form the past tense by adding a. -ing. b. a helping verb. c. -d or -ed. d. a complement. e. none of these

answer

c. -d or -ed.

question

58. The past tense of the verb to be is a. was. b. were. c. being. d. will. e. all of these

answer

a. was.

question

59. The future tense is usually formed by adding a. have. b. has. c. will. d. had e. none of these

answer

c. will.

question

60. The four parts of a verb, upon which all tenses are formed, are a. present, past, future, and present participle. b. present, present participle, past, and past participle. c. past, present, future, and past participle. d. past, past participle, future, and future participle. e. none of these

answer

b. present, present participle, past, and past participle.

question

61. The present participle of all verbs is formed by adding a. -d or -ed. b. -ing. c. -ly. d. -s. e. -es.

answer

b. -ing.

question

62. The past tense of the verb lay is a. laid. b. lied. c. laying. d. lain. e. lay.

answer

a. laid.

question

63. The past tense of the verb lie is a. laid. b. lied. c. laying. d. lain. e. lay.

answer

e. lay.

question

64. The past participle of the verb raise is a. rose. b. raising. c. raised. d. risen. e. rising.

answer

c. raised.

question

65. The present participle of the verb raise is a. rose. b. raising. c. raised. d. risen. e. rising.

answer

b. raising.

question

66. The past tense of the verb set is a. set. b. setting. c. sat. d. sitting. e. none of these

answer

a. set.

question

67. The past participle of the verb lie is a. laid. b. laying. c. lay. d. lain. e. none of these

answer

d. lain.

question

68. The verb lay (to place) is a(n) ________ verb. a. intransitive b. transitive c. helping d. linking e. passive

answer

b. transitive

question

69. Most verbs become plural by a. adding-s. b. adding-es. c. dropping-s. d. adding-ed. e. dropping-ed.

answer

c. dropping-s.

question

70. When two subjects are joined by and, the a. subject is plural, but the verb is singular. b. subject is singular, but the verb is plural. c. subject is singular, and the verb is singular. d. subject is plural, and the verb is plural. e. second subject determines the verb.

answer

d. subject is plural, and the verb is plural.

question

71. If the two subjects connected by and are preceded by each or every, the a. subject is plural, but the verb is singular. b. subject is singular, but the verb is plural. c. subject is singular, and the verb is singular. d. subject is plural, and the verb is plural. e. first subject determines the verb.

answer

c. subject is singular, and the verb is singular.

question

72. Which of the following is not an indefinite pronoun? a. each b. either c. every d. he e. one

answer

d. he

question

73. The indefinite pronouns all, none, any, and some are a. always plural. b. usually plural. c. sometimes plural and sometimes singular. d. always singular. e. usually singular.

answer

c. sometimes plural and sometimes singular.

question

74. The expression the number refers to a. one thing and is singular. b. two things and is plural. c. moving things and is active. d. all things and is indefinite. e. various things and is reflexive.

answer

a. one thing and is singular.

question

75. Which of the following would be considered collective nouns? a. department b. company c. team d. all of these e. none of these

answer

d. all of these

question

46. Which of the following is a pronoun? a. I b. its c. everything d. neither e. all of these

answer

a. I

question

47. A pronoun is a. a word that replaces an adjective. b. a word that replaces an adverb. c. a word that replaces a noun. d. a noun that has given up its amateur status. e. none of these

answer

c. a word that replaces a noun.

question

48. Which of the following is a nominative-case pronoun? a. my b. I c. her d. both a and b e. none of these

answer

b. I

question

49. Which of the following is an objective-case pronoun? a. him b. her c. you d. all of these e. none of these

answer

d. all of these

question

50. Which of the following is a possessive-case pronoun? a. it's b. its c. him d. ourselves e. all of these

answer

b. its

question

51. Which of the following is true? a. Personal possessive pronouns never contain an apostrophe. b. Personal possessive pronouns always contain an apostrophe. c. Personal possessive pronouns occasionally contain an apostrophe. d. Personal possessive pronouns are used sparingly in business writing. e. Personal possessive pronouns are not used at all in business writing.

answer

a. Personal possessive pronouns never contain an apostrophe.

question

52. The word whose is a. a contraction. b. a possessive pronoun. c. an objective pronoun. d. a gerund. e. none of these

answer

b. a possessive pronoun.

question

53. The word theiris a. a contraction. b. a gerund. c. a nominative pronoun. d. an objective pronoun. e. none of these

answer

e. none of these

question

54. The word it's is a. a contraction. b. a possessive pronoun. c. an objective pronoun. d. a gerund. e. none of these

answer

a. a contraction.

question

55. A gerund is used as a. a contraction. b. a possessive pronoun. c. an objective pronoun. d. a noun. e. none of these

answer

d. a noun.

question

56. Use the ________ case for a pronoun that modifies a gerund. a. objective b. possessive c. nominative d. subjective e. superlative

answer

b. possessive

question

57. The word between is a. a pronoun. b. an adjective. c. a preposition. d. an adverb. e. none of these

answer

c. a preposition.

question

58. A(n) ________ identifies another noun or pronoun that comes directly before it. a. adjective b. adverb c. gerund d. appositive e. infinitive

answer

d. appositive

question

59. When a pronoun is used with an appositive, mentally omit the ________ to determine the correct case of the pronoun. a. adjective b. adverb c. noun d. object e. preposition

answer

c. noun

question

60. Which of the following uses a pronoun incorrectly? a. Mr. Jones is taller than I. b. Alice is older than he. c. She is as fast as they d. none of these e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

61. Which of the following words should be used in business writing? a. hisself b. ourself c. themselves d. theirself e. themself

answer

d. theirself

question

62. Who is a(n) a. objective-case pronoun. b. nominative-case pronoun. c. possessive-case pronoun. d. selective-case pronoun. e. absolute-case pronoun.

answer

b. nominative-case pronoun.

question

63. Which sentence uses who correctly? a. Who is chairing the meeting? b. To who should we mail the letter? c. Jan is the type of person who we can depend on. d. all of these e. none of these

answer

a. Who is chairing the meeting?

question

64. What do adjectives modify? a. adverbs and pronouns b. verbs and pronouns c. nouns and pronouns d. adverbs and verbs e. nouns and verbs

answer

c. nouns and pronouns

question

65. What do adverbs modify? a. verbs, pronouns, and adjectives b. pronouns, nouns, and gerunds c. verbs, nouns, and prepositions d. verbs, adjectives, and adverbs e. adjectives, pronouns, and prepositions

answer

d. verbs, adjectives, and adverbs

question

66. Adverbs tend to answer which of the following questions? a. When? b. How? c. Where? d. To what extent? e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

67. Adjectives tend to answer which of the following questions? a. Why? b. Where? c. Which one? d. Whose? e. none of these

answer

c. Which one?

question

68. The modifier that follows a linking verb is a. an adverb. b. an adjective. c. a pronoun. d. a gerund. e. none of these

answer

b. an adjective.

question

69. The modifier that follows an action verb is a(n) a. adverb. b. adjective. c. appositive. d. comparative. e. pronoun.

answer

a. adverb.

question

70. Which of the following could be an adjective? a. fast b. long c. early d. hard e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

71. Which of the following could be an adverb? a. long b. early c. better d. hard e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

72. Most adverbs end with a. -tion. b. -er. c. -est. d. -ly. e. -ing.

answer

d. -ly.

question

73. The three degrees of adjectives and adverbs are a. nominative, objective, and possessive. b. positive, comparative, and superlative. c. appositive, comparative, and possessive. d. negative, subjective, and possessive. e. positive, negative, and neutral.

answer

b. positive, comparative, and superlative.

question

74. Which of the following is an absolute modifier? a. round b. dead c. true d. unanimous e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

75. The article a would be used correctly with which of the following words? a. umbrella b. hour c. opening d. envelope e. uniform

answer

e. uniform

question

46. Which of the following pronouns would always be capitalized? a. You b. He c. She d. I e. none of these

answer

d. I

question

47. Which of the following should always be capitalized? a. the first word of a sentence b. the first word of a partial sentence c. the first word of a quoted sentence d. the first item in a list or outline e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

48. Which of the following should not always be capitalized? a. Italian b. Catholic c. English d. Nicky e. a, c, and d

answer

d. Nicky

question

49. Which of the following is true? a. Official titles are capitalized when they precede names. b. Official titles are capitalized when they follow names. c. Official titles are capitalized when they are followed by an appositive. d. Official titles are always capitalized. e. none of these

answer

a. Official titles are capitalized when they precede names.

question

50. Which of the following would be capitalized when used with official titles? a. Ex- b. -Elect c. Late d. Former e. none of these

answer

e. none of these

question

51. Which of the following would not be capitalized when used in direct address? a. sir b. madam c. miss d. doctor e. none of these

answer

a. sir

question

52. Which of the following should be capitalized? a. the name of a river b. the name of a monument c. the name of a building d. the name of a park e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

53. Which of the following should not be capitalized? a. a compass point that designates a definite region b. a compass point used as direction c. a compass point that is part of an official name d. both a and c e. both b and c

answer

b. a compass point used as direction

question

54. Which of the following has an error in capitalization? a. Delta Airlines plane b. Air Jordan shoes c. The Centers for Disease control d. the Republican Party e. none of these

answer

c. The Centers for Disease control

question

55. Which of the following is true about book titles? a. All words are capitalized. b. Only the first and last words are capitalized. c. The first, last, and all other important words are capitalized. d. Only important words are capitalized. e. none of these

answer

c. The first, last, and all other important words are capitalized.

question

56. Which of the following should not be capitalized? a. Page 23 b. Table 4 c. Flight 667 d. Route 66 e. Highway 95

answer

a. Page 23

question

57. Which of the following should not be capitalized? a. Monday b. November c. Winter d. Labor Day e. none of these

answer

c. Winter

question

58. Which of the following should not be capitalized? a. History 1500 b. Business Math c. English d. Business Writing 320 e. none of these

answer

e. none of these

question

59. Spell out which of the following numbers? a. zero to ten b. one to ten c. zero to twenty d. one to one hundred e. Never spell out numbers.

answer

a. zero to ten

question

60. Regarding numbers, one should a. always spell out numbers. b. spell out numbers that begin sentences. c. never spell out numbers. d. spell out numbers that are over 10. e. spell out negative numbers only.

answer

b. spell out numbers that begin sentences.

question

61. Within the same sentence, one should express related numbers a. in the same way. b. in words only. c. in figures only. d. in words and figures. e. It does not matter how they are expressed.

answer

a. in the same way.

question

62. Which of the following is not correct? a. twenty-fifth birthday b. one millionth visitor c. fifty-seventh anniversary d. one hundred twenty-fifth customer e. All are correct.

answer

b. one millionth visitor

question

63. If a whole number does not precede a decimal, one should a. drop the decimal. b. insert a zero before the decimal. c. insert a zero after the decimal. d. insert a zero before and after the decimal. e. do none of these

answer

b. insert a zero before the decimal.

question

64. Which of the following is correct? a. January 22 b. the 23rdof April c. March 29, 2005 d. on the 18th e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

65. Which of the following should be written as a figure? a. definite amounts of money b. indefinite amounts of money c. time when using o'clock d. all of these e. none of these

answer

a. definite amounts of money

question

66. Use figures for a. measurements that serve as significant statistics. b. building numbers higher than one. c. time when using a.m. and p.m. d. money when using cents. e. all of these.

answer

e. all of these.

question

67. Spell out numbers a. when using o'clock. b. when using a.m. and p.m. c. with dollar amounts less than ten. d. with percentages. e. in all these cases.

answer

a. when using o'clock.

question

68. Abbreviations are used ________ in business writing. a. often b. sparingly c. for numbers only d. for clarity e. randomly

answer

b. sparingly

question

69. Which of the following should not be abbreviated? a. the name of months b. the name of days c. the name of people d. common nouns e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

70. Which of the following is an acceptable abbreviation? a. Mr. b. Dr. c. a.m. d. Inc. e. all of these

answer

e. all of these

question

71. Which is not an appropriate abbreviation? a. A.A. b. WWW c. dept. d. c.o.d. e. all of these

answer

c. dept.

question

72. Which of the following should have periods? a. a.m. b. m.p.h. c. w.p.m. d. m.p.g. e. all of these

answer

a. a.m.

question

73. Which of the following should not have periods? a. P.O. b. P.B.S. c. Ph.D. d. U.K. e. all of these

answer

b. P.B.S.

question

74. Which of the following words is spelled incorrectly? a. accidentally b. paralell c. license d. harass e. all of these

answer

paralell

question

75. Which of the following words is spelled correctly? a. wierd b. alloted c. category d. precedant e. seperately

answer

c. category

STUDY

Conjunction Linguistics

English Lit. Terms and Vocab – Flashcards 670 terms

Viola Marenco

670 terms

Preview

English Lit. Terms and Vocab – Flashcards

question

Complete Sentence

answer

a group of words with a subject and a verb that expresses a complete thought

question

Sentence Fragment

answer

a group of words that does not express a complete thought

question

Phrase

answer

a group of words that does not contain a verb and its subject and does not express a complete thought

question

Prepositional Phrase

answer

a group of words consisting of a preposition, its object, and the intervening modifiers

question

Participial Phrase

answer

a group of words containing a present participle(verb ending in -ing) or a past participle(verb ending in -ed, -d, -t, -en, -n), its modifiers, and its complements.

question

Gerund Phrase

answer

a group of words consisting of a gerund (verb ending in -ing used as a noun), its modifiers, and its complements.

question

Appositive Phrase

answer

a group of words consisting of an appositive (noun or pronoun that follows another noun or pronoun to identify or explain it) and its modifiers.

question

Clause

answer

a group of words consisting of a subject and a predicate.

question

Main Clause

answer

sometimes called an independent clause; consists of a subject and verb, expresses a complete thought

question

X Subordinate Clause

answer

consists of a subject and verb, but does not express a complete thought and cannot be seperated from the main clause

question

Adjective Clause

answer

a subordinate clause that modifiers a noun or a pronoun

question

Keeping a light on in the house helps discourage robbers.

answer

Keeping a light on in the house-SUB

question

Mrs. Norman enjoys playing bridge.

answer

playing bridge-DO

question

I remember promising Steve my old bike.

answer

promising Steve my old bike-DO

question

Standing during a two-hour train trip is not my idea of fun.

answer

Standing during a two-hour train trip-S

question

Do you like sailing on the lake?

answer

sailing on the lake-DO

question

Volunteering at the hospital is just one of Helen's activities.

answer

Volunteering at the hospital -S

question

Mrs. Brent enjoys watching quiz shows on television.

answer

watching quiz shows on television-DO

question

Allow twenty minutes a pound for roasting the turkey.

answer

roasting the turkey-OP

question

Taking out the garbage is not my favorite job around the house.

answer

Taking out the garbage-S

question

Understanding a foreign language and speaking it well are two different things.

answer

Understanding a foreign language; speaking it well-S

question

Acting in high school and college plays helped prepare Tim for Broadway.

answer

Acting in high school and college plays-S

question

Collecting stamps is a popular hobby.

answer

Collecting stamps-S

question

Rushing through your chores will get you nowhere.

answer

Rushing through your chores-S

question

Don't you ever get tired of listening to the radio?

answer

listening to the radio-OP

question

Mr. Olsen never tires of talking about his grandchildren.

answer

talking about his grandchildren-OP

question

Bird watching with binoculars is a popular pastime.

answer

Bird watching with binoculars-S

question

Arguing with me takes much of my brother's time.

answer

Arguing with me-S

question

Constant complaining helps no one.

answer

Constant complaining-S

question

Listening to the concert is sheer pleasure for Joan.

answer

Listening to the concert-S

question

After standing behind the counter all day, Jim likes to relax at night.

answer

standing behind the counter all day-OP

question

Fred hates running.

answer

question

My third cousin.

answer

FRAG: Appositive

question

Baking cookies.

answer

FRAG: Participial OR Gerund

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After working out Sandy always stretches.

answer

question

For three hours.

answer

FRAG: Prepositional

question

Loves skiing.

answer

FRAG: Gerund

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Mary's car would not start.

answer

question

Caught by the police officer.

answer

FRAG: Participal

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Marty, Jerry, and Larry.

answer

FRAG: Appositive

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thesis

answer

an unproved statement put forward as a premise in an argument

question

topic

answer

some situation or event that is thought about

question

the writing process

answer

1. Prewriting 2. Drafting 3. Revising 4. Editing 5. Proofreading

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purpose

answer

the quality of being determined to do or achieve something

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audience

answer

a gathering of spectators or listeners at a (usually public) performance

question

summary

answer

a briefstatement that presents the main points in a concise form

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transition

answer

the act of passing from one state or place to the next

question

type of evidence

answer

...

question

chronology

answer

arrangement of events in time

question

a lot

answer

to a very great degree or extent

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active/passive voice

answer

In the ACTIVE VOICE the subject acts. In the PASSIVE VOICE the action happens to the subject.

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antecedent

answer

a preceding occurrence or cause or event

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prepositional phrases

answer

is a group of words that begins with a preposition and ends with a noun or pronoun.

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apostrophe

answer

address to an absent or imaginary person

question

possessive case

answer

the case expressing ownership

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use of quotation marks

answer

...

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negation

answer

(logic) a proposition that is true if and only if another proposition is false

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connotation

answer

an idea that is implied or suggested

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denotation

answer

the most direct or specific meaning of a word or expression

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irony

answer

incongruity between what might be expected and what actually occurs

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satire

answer

witty language used to convey insults or scorn

question

simile

answer

a figure of speech that expresses a resemblance between things of different kinds (usually formed with 'like' or 'as')

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metaphor

answer

a figure of speech in which an expression is used to refer to something that it does not literally denote in order to suggest a similarity

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hyperbole

answer

extravagant exaggeration

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alliteration

answer

use of the same consonant at the beginning of each stressed syllable in a line of verse

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oxymoron

answer

conjoining contradictory terms (as in 'deafening silence')

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allusion

answer

passing reference or indirect mention

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narration

answer

(rhetoric) the second section of an oration in which the facts are set forth

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comparison-contrast

answer

A method of informing that explains something by focusing on how it is similar and different from other things

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cause and effect

answer

The reason something happens and the result of it happening.

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example

answer

a task performed or problem solved in order to develop skill or understanding

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description

answer

sort or variety

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argument/persuasion

answer

writing that attempts to prove a point through reasoning. As one of the Rhetorical Modes of Essays, Argument presses its case by using logic and by supporting its logic with examples and evidence.

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parts of speech

answer

adjectives, adverbs, conjunctions, interjections, nouns, pronouns, prepositions, verbs

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prepositional phrase

answer

a phrase consisting of a preposition, a noun or pronoun that serves as the object of the preposition, and any modifiers

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verb

answer

a content word that denotes an action or a state

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independent clause

answer

a clause in a complex sentence that can stand alone as a complete sentence

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dependent clause

answer

a clause in a complex sentence that cannot stand alone as a complete sentence and that functions within the sentence as a noun or adjective or adverb

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subject

answer

the subject matter of a conversation or discussion

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sentence fragments

answer

A part of a sentence that is written as if it were a complete sentence

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absolute phrase

answer

a phrase that is related to a sentence in meaning, but has no grammatical relationship to the phrase. Ex. "The movie over......,"

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abstract noun

answer

a noun that names a quality or mental concept

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active voice

answer

the subject performs the action

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antecedent

answer

the noun, usually before the pronoun, that the pronoun replaces.

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clause

answer

a group of related words containing both a subject and a predicate.

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comparative adjective

answer

compares two persons, places or things. It is usually followed by "than". ex. colder than

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complement

answer

a word often used to complete the meaning of an intransitive verb without receiving the intransitive verb's action and with copulative (linking) verbs to describe state of being.

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concrete noun

answer

a noun that names a member of a class; a group of people, places, or things that is physical, visible, and tangible

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coordinating conjunction

answer

a word used to connect grammatically equal elements. These include and, but, or, nor, for, so, and yet.

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countable noun

answer

a noun that can be maid plural via changing the ending, usually by adding "s"

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dangling modifier

answer

A modifiying phrase or clause that does not sensibly modify any word or words in a sentence. Usually the actor is missing from the sentence. (Ex. "Reading a book, the black cat crawled onto my lap." The cat was not reading the book. To fix: add an actor to the sentence.)

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demonstrative pronoun

answer

a noun that points out a specific person, place, or thing without naming it (Ex: this, that, these, those)

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direct object

answer

a word that receives a direct action from the subject of the sentence. Answers the question what or whom.

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elliptical clause

answer

an instance in which clause elements are omitted if the context makes clear what is being indicated. ex. Jessica had three dollars; Janie, one.

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idiom

answer

an , an expression having a special meaning different from the usual meanings of the words (example - "hit the road")

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indefinite pronoun

answer

a pronoun that does not refer to a specific, person, place, thing, or idea (Ex: everyone, everything, everybody, anybody, many, most, few, each, some, someone, all, nothing, nobody, and no one)

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indicative mood

answer

The indicative mood is used to make a statement or ask a question. Most sentences are in the indicative mood. -Do you like to play baseball? -I learned to play last year. -Baseball is my favorite game.

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indirect object

answer

a word that receives the action of the subject indirectly. ex. She gave Bill a present.

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infinitive

answer

the basic form of a verb, usually preceded by the preposition "to"

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interjection

answer

used to express stong emotion or surprise. "oh" or "well"

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interrogative pronoun

answer

a pronoun that poses a question. ex. what, which, who, whom, and whose

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interrogative statement

answer

a sentence that asks a question

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intransitive verb

answer

a verb that does not take an object. ex. lie, arrive, went

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misplaced modifier

answer

a modifier that is not placed near near the word it modifies.

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nominal of a sentence

answer

a word or group of words that can function as a noun

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nominative case

answer

when a noun or pronoun is the subject of a verb

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noncountable noun

answer

a noun that cannot be made plural by changing the ending, usually by adding "s". (Ex: milk, juice, music, art, love, happiness, furniture, luggage, rice, sugar, electricity)

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noun compound

answer

a group of words (usually two) that functions as a single part of speech

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objective case

answer

when a noun or pronoun is used as the direct object, indirect object, or object of a preposition

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participial phrase

answer

phrase that contains a participle and its modifiers and functions as an adjective to modify a noun or pronoun, (Ex: They arrested the man DRIVING THE CAR.)

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participle

answer

Verb that can be used as a adjective. *Present ends in -ing*-----*Past ends in ed.-d,-t,-en,-n (The TERRIFYING movie was rated "R"

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passive voice sentence

answer

a sentence in which the subject receives the action

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positive adjective

answer

an adjective used when there is no comparison being made. (Ex: This is a HOT day.)

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predicate

answer

the action of the sentence or what is being said about the subject

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regular verb

answer

a verb that forms the past tense by adding "ed" to the basic verb

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relative pronoun

answer

a pronoun that relates one part of a sentence to a word in another part of the sentence. (Ex: that, which, who, whom, whose)

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split infinitive

answer

An instance in which the words that make up an infinitive are separated by one or more words. (Ex: to boldly go)

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subjunctive

answer

An uncommon construction used to express with exactitude how a verb usage is to be interpreted.

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subordinating conjunction

answer

a word which joins together a dependent clause and an independent clause. Examples are although, because, while, etc.

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superlative

answer

compares three or more persons, places or things.

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transitive verb

answer

a verb that takes an object to complete its meaning

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verbals

answer

words that appear to be verbs, but are acting as some other part of speech. (EX: READING and WRITING are fundamental skills that all of us should possess.)

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WHILE refer to time and should not be used as a substitute for ALTHOUGH, AND, or BUT INCORRECT: While I'm usually interested in Fellini movies, I'd rather not go tonight.

answer

CORRECT: Although I'm usually interested in Fellini movies, I'd rather not go tonight.

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WHERE refere to a place and should not be used as a substitute for THAT. INCORRECT: We read in the paper where they are making great strides in DNA research.

answer

CORRECT: We read in the paper that they are making great strides in DNA research.

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After words like REASON and EXPLANATION, use THAT not BECAUSE. INCORRECT: His explanation for his tardiness was because his alarm did not go off.

answer

CORRECT: His explanation for his tardiness was that his alarm did not go off.

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Present Perfect Tense

answer

for an action that began in the past but continues into the future. (Ex: I HAVE LIVED here all my life.)

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Past Perfect Tense

answer

for an earlier action that is mentioned in a later action. (Ex: Cindy ate the apple that she HAD PICKED. - First she picked it, then she ate it.)

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Future Perfect Tense

answer

for an action that will have been completed at a specific future time (Ex: By May, I SHALL HAVE GRADUATED.)

question

Present Participle

answer

for an action that occurs at the same time as the verb. (Ex: SPEEDING down the interstate, I saw a cop's flashing lights.

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Perfect Participle

answer

for action that occurred before the main verb. (Ex: HAVING READ the directions, I started te test.

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Subjunctive Mood

answer

to express a wish or state condition contrary to fact. (EX: IT IT WERE NOT raining, we could have a picnic.)

question

Use THAT after

answer

verbs like REQUEST, RECOMMEND, SUGGEST, ASK, REQUIRE, and INSIST and after such expressions as IT IS IMPORTANT and IT IS NECESSARY. (EX: It is necessary THAT all papers BE SUBMITTED on time.)

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Unusual Single Verbs: criterion alumnus datum medium

answer

Unusual Plural Verbs: criteria alumni data media

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Nominative (Subject) Pronoun Case:

answer

I he she we they who

question

Objective (Object) Pronoun Case:

answer

me him her us them whom

question

Use nominative case for

answer

the subject of an elliptical clause (Molly is more experience than HE.) the subject of a subordinate clause (Robert is the driver WHO reported the accident.) the complement of an infinitive with no expressed subject (I would not want to be HE.)

question

Use objective case for

answer

for the object of a preposition (Just between you and ME, I'm bored.) for the appositive of a direct object (The committee elected two delegates, Barbara and ME.)

question

When a conjunction connects two pronouns or a pronoun and a noun, remove the "and" and the other pronoun or noun to determine the correct pronoun form.

answer

Mom gave Tom and myself a piece of cake. Mom gave Tom and I a piece of cake. Mom gave Tom and me a piece of cake. CORRECT: Mom gave Tom and me a piece of cake.

question

The only pronouns that are acceptable after BETWEEN and other prepositions are...

answer

me, her, him, them, and whom

question

When deciding between WHO and WHOM...

answer

try substituting HE for WHO and HIM for whom

question

When an antecedent is one of dual gender (student, singer, artist etc) use HIS OR HER or change the antecedent to a plural noun to avoid using the sexist, singular pronoun HIS. INCORRECT: Everyone hopes that he will win the lottery.

answer

CORRECT: Most people hope they will win the lottery.

question

WHO refers to WHICH and THAT refer to WHERE refers

answer

people things and places places

question

Singular indefinite pronouns

answer

another, anyone, anybody, anything, each, either, everybody, everyone, everything, neither, nobody, no one, nothing, one, other, somebody, someone, something

question

Plural indefinite pronouns

answer

both, few, many, others, several

question

Prepositions for Time, Place, and Introducing Objects (10)

answer

on, at, in, since, for, by, from-to, from-until, during, within

question

Prepositions Indicating Place or Location

answer

in, inside, on, at, over, above, beneath, underneath, below, near, next to, by, between, among, opposite etc

question

Prepositions Introducing the Objects of Verbs (3)

answer

at, of, for (Ex: glance at, look at, approve of, smells of, call for, look for)

question

Prepositions Indicating Direction (5)

answer

to, onto, into, on, in

question

Good vs. Well

answer

Good is an adjective (The quiche tastes good.) Well is and adverb or an adjective meaning "in good health". (He plays well. - Adverb My mother is not well. - Adjective)

question

Bad vs Badly

answer

BAD is an adjective used after sentence verbs (look, smells, tastes, etc) or linking verbs (is, am, are, was, were) I feel BAD about the delay BADLY is an adverb It doesn't her very BADLY

question

Sort Of vs. Kind Of

answer

often misused instead of "rather" or "somewhat" INCORRECT: Jan was KIND OF saddened by the results of the test. CORRECT: Jan was SOMEWHAT saddened by the results of the test.

question

It is not necessary to use a comma with a short sentence INCORRECT: In January, she will go to Switzerland.

answer

CORRECT: In January she will go to Switzerland.

question

Use a semicolon to separate two independent clauses connected by a conjunctive adverb. INCORRECT: He took great care with his work, therefore, he was very successful.

answer

CORRECT: He took great care with his work; therefore, he was very successful.

question

DO NOT use a colon after a verb INCORRECT: My favorite holidays are: Christmas, New Year's Eve, and Halloween.

answer

CORRECT: My favorite holidays are Christmas, New Year's Eve, and Halloween.

question

DO NOT use a colon after a preposition INCORRECT: I enjoy different ethnic foods such as: Greek, Chinese, and Italian.

answer

CORRECT: I enjoy different ethnic foods such as Greek, Chinese, and Italian.

question

When quoting several paragraphs, place quotation marks at...

answer

the beginning of EACH paragraph and at the END of the last paragraph.

question

Capitalize geological periods

answer

Neolithic age Cenozic era late Pleistocence times (*notice only the main period is capitalized NOT the other descriptor)

question

Capitalize personifications

answer

Reliable Nature brought her promised Spring. Bring on Melancholy in his sad might. She believed that Love was the answer to all her problems.

question

Capitalize historical periods

answer

Middle Ages World War 1 Christian Era Roaring Twenties Age of Louis XIV (*notice the WHOLE period is capitalized)

question

Capitalize Equatorial Current

answer

NOT equator

question

Most important words of titles are capitalized. Conjunctions and short prepositions are not (unless they are the first or last word)

answer

A Man for All Seasons Of Mice and Men Rise of the West Amazing Grace

question

Do NOT capitalize compass directions or seasons

answer

north, south, west, east, spring, autumn, winter, summer

question

Capitalize political groups and philosophies

answer

Democratic party Communist party Transcendentalism (* note only the GROUP is capitalized not the following descriptor)

question

Do NOT capitalize systems of government or individual adherents to a philosophy

answer

democracy communism transcendentalist

question

five Words Weak Writers Use

answer

you, we, they, this, it

question

Use ACTIVE voice when writing

answer

PASSIVE: The winning field goal was kicked by her. (Stressed the action) ACTIVE: She kicked the winning field goal. (Stresses the actor)

question

Sentence

answer

a group of words that expresses a complete thought

question

Subject

answer

the subject matter of a conversation or discussion

question

Predicate

answer

tells what the subject is or does

question

Object

answer

noun being acted upon

question

Direct Object

answer

the object that receives the direct action of the verb

question

Indirect Object

answer

the object that is the recipient or beneficiary of the action of the verb

question

Clause

answer

a grammatical unit that contains both a subject and a verb

question

Independent Clause

answer

expresses a complete thought and can stand by itself as a sentence

question

Dependent Clause

answer

does not express a complete thought and cannot stand alone as a sentence

question

Noun Clause

answer

a dependent clause used as a noun

question

Adjective Clause

answer

A subordinate clause that act like an ajective

question

Simple Sentences

answer

one independent clause

question

Compound Sentence

answer

two or more independent clauses

question

Coordinate Clauses

answer

two clauses that have equal importance. ex. the ice melted. the sun came out. "the ice melted and the sun came out."

question

Complex Sentences

answer

a sentence that includes one independent clause and at least one dependent clause

question

Subordination

answer

Giving prominence to ideas in the main clause and letting secondary ideas slide into the background

question

Compound-Complex Sentences

answer

sentence that combines elements of both compound and complex sentences

question

Sentence Fragments

answer

A part of a sentence that is written as if it were a complete sentence

question

Verbals

answer

words that appear to be verbs, but are acting as some other part of speech

question

Infinitives

answer

to + verb

question

Gerund

answer

a noun formed from a verb (such as the '-ing' form of an English verb when used as a noun)

question

Participial Phrase

answer

Play the part of adjective

question

Dangling Participle

answer

a participle or participial phrase, often found at the beginning of a sentence, that appears from its position to modify an element of the sentence other than the one it was intended to modify

question

Run-On Sentence

answer

two or more sentences joined without adequate punctuation or connecting words

question

Parallel Structure

answer

same idea, same grammatical form

question

Active Voice

answer

The subject of the sentence performs the action.

question

Passive Voice

answer

The subject of the sentence receives the action.

question

Declarative Sentences

answer

are statements and end with periods

question

Interrogative Sentence

answer

A sentence that asks a question

question

Imperative Sentences

answer

Sentences that make a command or request

question

Exclamatory Sentences

answer

express strong feeling

question

Syntax

answer

the grammatical arrangement of words in sentences

question

Diction

answer

the manner in which something is expressed in words

question

Idiom

answer

combining words or phrases that aren't meant to be together

question

Idiomatic Usage

answer

a word whose meaning can't be derived from the individual words in it. ex- to turn a new leaf over.

question

Apostrophes

answer

The superscript sign ( ' ) used to indicate the omission of a letter or letters from a word, the possessive case, or the plurals of numbers, letters, and abbreviations.

question

Commas

answer

a punctuation mark (,) used to indicate the separation of elements within the grammatical structure of a sentence.

question

Semicolons

answer

joins two indepedent clauses,follows conjunctive adverbs, to seperate groups already with commas

question

Colon

answer

a punctuation mark (:) used after a word introducing a series or an example or an explanation (or after the salutation of a business letter)

question

Dash

answer

break into pieces, as by striking or knocking over

question

Quotation Marks

answer

use to show what someone is saying

question

Question Marks

answer

Make the sentence a question

question

Exclamation Point

answer

a punctuation mark (!) used after an exclamation

question

Sentence fragment

answer

part of a sentence that is set off as if it were a whole sentence by an initial capital letter and a final period or other end punctuation

question

subordinate clauses

answer

contain both subjects and verbs, but they always begin with a subordinating conjunction (although, if) or a relative pronoun (who, which, that)

question

verbal phrase

answer

consists of an infinitive (to choose), a past participle (chosen), or a present participle or gerund (choosing) together with any objects and modifiers it may have

question

prepositional phrase

answer

a modifier consisting of a preposition together with its object and any modifiers

question

appositives

answer

nouns, or nouns and their modifiers, that rename or describe other nouns

question

compound predicates

answer

predicates made up of two or more verbs and their objects

question

Comma splice

answer

joins (or splices) main clauses only with a comma, not with a coordinating conjunction as well

question

fused sentence/run-on sentence

answer

joins main clauses with no punctuation at all

question

Verbals

answer

Word that is formed but used as another part of speech.

question

Appositive Phrase

answer

Noun or pronoun that describes or identifies a nearby noun.

question

Prepositional Phrase

answer

A phrase beginning with a preposition

question

Subordinate Clause

answer

Does not express a complete thought AND cannot stand alone as a sentence.

question

Run-on Sentence (defined)

answer

A fused sentence where the writer joins one (or more) sentences without any punctutation between them.

question

How to change it into a compound sentence:

answer

Add a semi-colon OR a semi-colon and a conjunctive adverb OR a comma and a coordinating conjunction

question

How to revise a run-on sentence:

answer

Make it a compound sentence.

question

Coordinating Conjunctions are these words:

answer

and, but, for, nor, or, so, yet

question

Coordinating Conjunction (defined)

answer

A conjunction (like 'and' or 'or') that connects two identically constructed grammatical constituents

question

Conjunctive Adverb (defined)

answer

Links two parts of a compound sentence.

question

Conjunctive Adverbs are these words:

answer

therefore, instead, meanwhile, still, also, nevertheless, however

question

Conjunctive adverbs are followed by:

answer

A comma

question

comma splice

answer

A comma is used in place of a semi colon, colon, or period to separate two different clauses without a coordinating conjunction.

question

for

answer

coordinating conjunction

question

and

answer

coordinating conjunction

question

nor

answer

coordinating conjunction

question

answer

coordinating conjunction

question

yet

answer

coordinating conjunction

question

answer

coordinating conjunction

question

True or False "Because" is a coordinating conjunction

answer

false

question

True or False Coordinating Conjunctions connect words, phrases, and clauses.

answer

true

question

True or False "However" is a coordinating conjunction

answer

false

question

Is this sentence correct?: Rosie refuses to eat all dry dog food, nor does she like canned food.

answer

correct

question

Is this sentence correct?: Billy likes to go to the library, there is a nice coffee shop.

answer

Incorrect---Correct Version: Billy likes to go to the library, because there is a nice coffee shop.

question

Is this sentence correct?: This bowl of oatmeal is warm and delicious.

answer

Correct: The coordinating conjunction is not separating two complete sentences. Therefore, a comma is not necessary.

question

fragment

answer

incomplete sentence which may be a phrase or dependent clause. Tip: Often dependent clauses begin with words such as although, as, because, even, except, for example, if, since, that, which, and when.

question

Fused (Run-On) Sentences

answer

A fused sentence contains two independent clauses which are joined incorrectly. Two independent clauses must be joined by either 1. comma 2. coordinating conjunction (Fanboys) 3. by a semi-colon. ; Independent clauses can also be separated into two separate sentences.

question

Comma-splice Sentences

answer

Writers must also avoid creating a comma-splice sentence when independent clauses starting with conjunctive adverbs such as consequently, furthermore, however, therefore, and then are used.

question

Misplaced and Dangling Modifiers

answer

A misplaced modifier occurs when the word or phrase it describes is not close enough to the modifier.

question

Active / Passive Voice

answer

passive: The letter was mailed by Julie. Active Voice: Julie mailed the letter.

question

Parallel Structure

answer

two or more sentence elements have the same relationship with one another in the sentence. ie: IBM employs project managers, system analysts, and network administrators. Not Parallel: IBM employs project managers, system analysts, and people who manage hardware.

question

Redundant Expressions

answer

Redundant actual truth alter or change basic fundamentals each and every end result final outcome last and final past history true facts unexpected surprise write this truth alter fundamentals each result outcome final history facts surprise

question

Starting Fillers

answer

There are or It is. Filler Used There are four managers who run the accounting department. Better Four managers run the accounting department. Filler Used It is the employee's responsibility to review the handbook. Better The employee should review the handbook.

question

Pronouns

answer

are substitutes for nouns.

question

The three cases of pronouns are: subjective, objective, and possessive.

answer

Subjective (Nominative) Case Used for subjects of verbs and subject complements. A subjective-case pronoun performs the action. I we you he she it they who, whoever Objective Case Used for objects of prepositions and objects of verbs. An objective-case pronoun is acted upon. me us you him her it them whom, whomever Possessive Case Used to show possession. me us you him her it them whom, whomever

question

Subjective-Case Pronouns

answer

am, is, are, was, were, be, being, and been. ie: Incorrect: Her and I went to the dance. Correct: She and I went to the dance.

question

GUIDE 10: Objective-Case Pronouns

answer

except and between Correct: Dr. Lawson asked she and I to present first. Incorrect: Dr. Lawson asked her and me to present first. Correct: Pam gave a cookie to everyone except John and I. Incorrect: Pam gave a cookie to everyone except John and me.

question

Possessive Pronouns

answer

used to show ownership. do not use an apostrophe.

question

"Self" Ending Pronouns

answer

Pronouns ending in "self" should only be used when referring back to a previously mentioned noun or pronoun. ie: Correct: Katie said that the report was written by Kyle and her. Incorrect: Katie said that the report was written by Kyle and herself.

question

Pronouns Who / Whom

answer

he for who and him for whom. Incorrect Explanation Whom is going to the play? Correct Who is going to the play? A subjective-case pronoun is needed in this sentence. Rephrase as a statement: He (not Him) is going to the play. Incorrect For who were the flowers delivered? Correct For whom were the flowers delivered?

question

GUIDE 14: Pronoun / Antecedent Agreement

answer

An antecedent is what is replaced by the pronoun. incorrect One of the men on the golf team left their clubs on the bus. correct One of the men on the golf team left his clubs on the bus.

question

GUIDE 15: Clear Antecedent / Pronoun Usage

answer

Frequently the antecedent for pronouns such as it, which, this, they, and that are unclear. Incorrect Tom and Todd play golf on Friday because he gets a senior discount. Correct Tom and Todd play golf on Friday because Tom is a senior, and he gets a senior discount.

question

GUIDE 16: Verb Tense

answer

The three simple verb tenses are: present, past, and future. past tense verbs often end in ed. Future tense verbs have will or shall

question

Present Tense (Today I _)

answer

am begin become break choose do eat fall fly give go know see take

question

Past Tense (Yesterday I )

answer

was began became broke chose did ate fell flew gave went knew saw took

question

Past Perfect (I have )

answer

been begun become broken chosen done eaten fallen flown given gone known seen taken

question

Verb Mood

answer

Examples of the indicative mood are: Joe reads his e-mail daily. Does Joe read his e-mail daily? An example of imperative mood is: Please send an e-mail to Joe. Typically, subjunctive verbs are used to express a wish, doubt, or a condition contrary to fact.

question

Subject / Verb Agreement

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The relationship between the subject and verb is that the subject determines whether the verb form is singular or plural. Incorrect The budget reports, along with the sales comparison, is completed weekly. Correct The budget reports, along with the sales comparison, are completed weekly.

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GUIDE 19: Verb Usage with Compound subjects joined by and

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two or more singular nouns or pronouns are joined by the conjunction and. When this occurs, the subject is considered to be plural and a plural verb must be used.

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GUIDE 20: Verb Usages with Compound subjects joined by or or nor

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In sentences which use or or nor to join a compound subject, the subject closest to the verb determines whether to use a singular or plural verb. Correct Neither the actors nor the director ARE following the script very closely. Incorrect Neither the actors nor the director IS following the script very closely. inCorrect John or his brothers IS going to the party. correct John or his brothers ARE going to the party.

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GUIDE 21: Verb Usage with Indefinite Pronouns

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Incorrect Each of the network computers HAVE an assigned printer. Correct Each of the network computers HAS an assigned printer.

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singular:

answer

anyone, anybody, anything, each, either, every, everyone, everybody, everything, nobody, someone, somebody, and something

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These indefinite pronouns are considered plural:

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both, few, and many.

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GUIDE 22: Verb Usages with Collective Nouns

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Collective nouns are nouns which reference a group. Most collective nouns take a singular verb. Examples of collective nouns are: administration, board, class, committee, company, crowd, faculty, group, jury, and team.

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Verb Usages with Collective Nouns

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Incorrect Kelly's family are going to see the play tonight. Correct Kelly's family is going to see the play tonight.

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GUIDE 23: Adverbs

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Adverbs typically tell where, when, why, or how. Incorrect John said he did GOOD on the test. Correct John said he did WELL on the test.

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GUIDE 24: Adjectives

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Simple This test is hard. Comparative This was the harder of the two tests. Superlative This was the hardest test all semester.

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GUIDE 25: Prepositions

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Commonly used prepositions are: about, as, at, before, between, during, except, for, from, in, of, on, to, under, and with.

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GUIDE 26: Conjunctions

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When using conjunctions in a sentence, sometimes punctuation like a comma or semicolon is needed. Other times no punctuation is needed.

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Coordinating Conjunction

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For, And, Nor, But, Or, Yet, So. (FANBOYS)

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Correlative Conjunctions

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both/and, either/or, neither/nor, not only/but also

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Conjunctive Adverbs

answer

as a result, consequently, however, moreover, nevertheless

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Subordinate Conjunctions

answer

although, as, because, before, if, since, that, until, unless, when, where, whether, while

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GUIDE 27: Gerunds

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Gerunds are verbals formed by adding -ing.

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Incorrect Susan talking during the movie was annoying.

answer

Correct Susan's talking during the movie was annoying.

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GUIDE 28: Commas used with items in a series

answer

Use commas to separate three or more words, phrases, or clauses. Ie: The branches in the U.S. government are executive, legislative and judicial. Better: The branches in the U.S. government are executive, legislative, and judicial.

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GUIDE 29: Commas used with independent clauses

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Another frequent use of a comma is to separate two independent clauses joined by a coordinating conjunction. (FANBOYS)

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incorrect Kirsten went to a matinee in the afternoon and she saw a play in the evening.

answer

correct Kirsten went to a matinee in the afternoon, and she saw a play in the evening.

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GUIDE 30: Commas used with introductory clauses

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A third use for commas is to separate an introductory phrase or dependent clause which starts the sentence from the main clause. Dependant clauses starting a sentence typically start with words like since, when, if, although, because, after, as, when, and while.

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Incorrect Because Friday was a holiday the students had an extra day to study.

answer

Correct Because Friday was a holiday, the students had an extra day to study.

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GUIDE 31: Commas used with sentence interrupters

answer

Use a pair of commas to separate non-essential phrases included in a sentence. These sentence interrupters often provide additional information that is not needed to complete the sentence.

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Incorrect Stephanie and Candice who work in the accounting field are members of the advisory board.

answer

Correct Stephanie and Candice, who work in the accounting field, are members of the advisory board.

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GUIDE 32: Commas used with an appositive

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Incorrect Steve Jobs the founder of Apple will be the keynote speaker at the conference. Correct Steve Jobs, the founder of Apple, will be the keynote speaker at the conference.

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GUIDE 33: Commas used with other sentence elements

answer

Commas need to be used appropriately in dates, addresses, professional designations, degrees, and geographical names.

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Incorrect George will start his new job on Tuesday May 31, 2012 after the Memorial Day week-end.

answer

Correct George will start his new job on Tuesday, May 31, 2011, after the Memorial Day week-end.

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Incorrect Send the completed form to Sam Jones, 215 W. Pine St., Long Beach CA 90814 as soon as possible.

answer

Correct Send the completed form to Sam Jones, 215 W. Pine St., Long Beach, CA 90814, as soon as possible.

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Incorrect Karen Potter C.P.A. completed the tax return.

answer

Correct Karen Potter, C.P.A., completed the tax return.

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Incorrect Tim moved from Phoenix, Arizona to San Diego, California in February.

answer

Correct Tim moved from Phoenix, Arizona, to San Diego, California, in February.

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GUIDE 34: Avoid using unnecessary commas

answer

Incorrect Sam wore a new suit, and a new tie to the meeting. Correct Sam wore a new suit and a new tie to the meeting. Incorrect The two people, in the back of the room, are judges. Correct The two people in the back of the room are judges. Incorrect The reason he left early is, that he felt ill. Correct The reason he left early is that he felt ill.

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SEMICOLON

answer

A semicolon is used to separate closely related independent clauses, items in a series with a comma separation, and independent clauses joined by conjunctive adverbs.

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Colons

answer

Colons are used in the salutation of business letters. In business writing, colons are used at the end of a sentence or phrase introducing a list. A colon should not be used when the list is a direct object of the verb or a preposition.

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GUIDE 35: Semicolon joining closely related independent clauses

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One use of a semicolon is to separate two closely related independent clauses. If the clauses are too long, or if the two ideas are not related, two separate sentences may be needed. Many times the second independent clause starts with a conjunctive adverb like however, consequently, or furthermore.

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Incorrect The report outline is due tomorrow, the completed report is due in two weeks.

answer

Correct The report outline is due tomorrow; the completed report is due in two weeks.

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Incorrect He wanted to make the college track team, consequently he practiced every day.

answer

Correct He wanted to make the college track team; consequently, he practiced every day.

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GUIDE 36: Semicolon separating a series which contains a comma separator

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Incorrect Students can take the test on May 5, 2011, May 12, 2011, or May 19, 2011. Correct Students can take the test on May 5, 2011; May 12, 2011; or May 19, 2011. Incorrect The franchise has restaurants in Dallas, Texas, Phoenix, Arizona, and Portland, Oregon. Correct The franchise has restaurants in Dallas, Texas; Phoenix, Arizona; and Portland, Oregon.

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GUIDE 37: Colons

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Incorrect The agenda items included: old business, new business, and future meeting dates. Correct The agenda items included old business, new business, and future meeting dates. Incorrect The following cities are being considered Dallas, Seattle, and Los Angeles. Correct The following cities are being considered: Dallas, Seattle, and Los Angeles.

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GUIDE 38: Apostrophe usage with words not ending in s

answer

Incorrect We meet at Toms house every Tuesday evening. Correct We meet at Tom's house every Tuesday evening. Incorrect He is looking for a job with one weeks paid vacation. Correct He is looking for a job with one week's paid vacation. Incorrect The library had a large selection of childrens books. Correct The library had a large selection of children's books.

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GUIDE 39: Apostrophe usage with words ending in s

answer

If the ownership word ends in the letter s, typically an apostrophe is placed at the end of the word. If the extra syllable caused by 's is easily pronounced, than the ownership word should end with 's.

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Incorrect We meet at James house on Thursday evenings.

answer

Correct We meet at James' house on Thursday evenings.

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Incorrect My bosses two sons were promoted.

answer

Correct My boss's two sons were promoted.

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GUIDE 40: Periods

answer

Incorrect Robert works at Apple, Inc.. Correct Robert works at Apple, Inc. Incorrect Class ends at 10:30 a.m.. Correct Class ends at 10:30 a.m. Incorrect Would you please pass forward your homework? Correct Would you please pass forward your homework.

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GUIDE 41: Question Marks

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Examples Are you going to the seminar on Tuesday? Explanation End a question sentence with a question mark. Examples The article in Business Week was titled "Is Outsourcing the Answer?" Explanation The title is a question, so enclose the question mark within the quotation marks. Examples Have you read the book "Tuesdays with Morrie"? Explanation The sentence is a question, not the title. Place the question mark outside the quotation marks.

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GUIDE 42: Dashes

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Examples Membership in the accounting society - it is a little expensive but worth it - may be obtained by applying in the ABSOC office. Explanation The comment is a separate thought, so it should be offset by dashes. Examples Boeing's first-quarter profits - almost $15 billion - reaffirm the company's 2011 targets. Explanation The comment is a phrase which needs to be emphasized. Use dashes to set-off the comment. Examples Three students - Joe Morris, Steve Howell, and Susan Pike - will represent the college at the conference. Explanation The list of items is separated by commas. Dashes can be used to separate these items within the sentence. Examples Haiti, Chile, and Japan - these countries have recently been hit with natural disasters. Explanation The dash is used to separate the introductory list.

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noun

answer

describes a person, place or thing

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proper noun

answer

names a particular person, place, object, or quality, and they begin with capital letters.

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eponyms

answer

are surnames of people used as descriptive adjectives for disease, instruments, sundromes, procedures, drugs, parts of human body, and other medical nouns.

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collective nouns

answer

represent a group of persons, animals, or things.

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concrete nouns

answer

they name things that are touchable, visble, and audible, that is they are perceived by the senses.

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abstract nouns

answer

name a feeeling, quality, or idea.

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gender

answer

categorizes nouns as masculine, feminine, or indefinite.

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number

answer

is the form of a noun tha indicates whether it is singular or plural.

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A & P

answer

auscultation and percussion

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a.c.

answer

before meals

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A.D., a.d.

answer

before meals

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A.S., a.s.

answer

left ear

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A.U., a.u.

answer

both ears

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answer

assessment

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AAMA

answer

American Association of Medical Assistants

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AAROM

answer

active assistive range of motion

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ABD

answer

abdomen

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abd.

answer

abduction; abdomen

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ABG

answer

arterial blood gas

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ACTH

answer

adrenocortiotropic

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personal pronouns

answer

refer to specific people and things.

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nominative case

answer

is the person or thing talked about in a sentence

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objective case

answer

is a pronoun that receives the action of the verb either directly or indirectly is an object pornoun.

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possessive case

answer

shows ownership or possession.

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reflexive pronouns

answer

reflect back to the person. pronoun refers to a noun or pronoun tha appears earlier.

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indefinite pronouns

answer

refer to persons or things in general.

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interrogative pronouns

answer

are used to ask questions. Who, whom, whose, which, and what.

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The purpose of all writing is...

answer

to communicate (Payne 13).

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An essay is...

answer

the written expression of the author's opinion (Payne 13).

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The only requirement for choosing a subject for an essay is...

answer

know enough to arrive at an opinion (Payne 13-16).

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Facts can be...

answer

proven (Payne 17).

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An opinion is what one...

answer

thinks (Payne 16-17).

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The characteristic when makes an opinion the most interesting is the presence of...

answer

opposition (Payne 19).

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Examining the opposition makes your opinion...

answer

stronger (Payne 20-22).

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The first rule of the essayist is_____before you write (Payne 22).

answer

think

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The thesis of your essay is your opinion boiled down to...

answer

one arguable statement (Payne 25).

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The goal of an argument/essay is to...

answer

persuade (Payne 34).

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In an argument, you should appeal to...

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logic/reason (Payne 29-31).

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The "full thesis" includes...

answer

a thesis statement, a list of CONs, and a list of PROs (Payne 34).

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The CONSs "go on the left simply for...

answer

convenience" (Payne 37).

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Your PRO list is longer, because ...

answer

it "is the main body of your argument" (Payne 38).

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The basic structure of an essay is...

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"an introduction, a body, and a conclusion...a beginning, a middle, and an end" (Payne 40).

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"The first, or introductory, paragraph begins...

answer

broadly and narrows to a point" (Payne 42).

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"The middle section, or 'argument,' is...

answer

in block form and takes up most of the space in the essay" (Payne 42).

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"The last, or concluding, paragraph begins...

answer

at narrow point and ends broadly" (Payne 42).

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"The function of the introductory paragraph is simply...

answer

to introduce the subject and come to the point (the thesis itself" (Payne 42-43).

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"Your opening statement will relate to your thesis but...

answer

will not take a position on it" (Payne 45).

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"The first consideration (in writing the middle section), the most crucial for the beginner, is...

answer

logical development" (Payne 48).

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The "three general rules to guide you (in writing the middle section):

answer

make the necessary concessions to the opposition ASAP, devote at least one paragraph to every major PRO argument in your full thesis statement, save your best argument for the last" (Payne 49).

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The two commandments of style in writing (until you are more experienced) are:

answer

"Do not use first person" and "Do not use 'there'--ever" (Payne 61).

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An example of first person is:

answer

"I..." (Payne 63).

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An example of substitute first person is:

answer

"One..." (Payne 63).

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An example of second person is:

answer

"You..." (Payne 63).

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An example of substitute second person is:

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"A person..." (Payne 63).

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In writing it is better to use _______ verbs (Payne 65-66).

answer

active

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A picture-frame paragraph uses two things to create vivid images for the reader:

answer

action verbs and descriptive adjectives (Payne 75-78).

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Transitions between paragraphs fall roughly into three categories:

answer

standard devices, paragraph hooks, and combinations of standard devices and paragraph hooks (Payne 82).

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Standard devices for transitions between paragraphs are...

answer

simple and obvious, specific words and phrases (Payne 83-84).

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The best guide to transitions is...

answer

common sense (Payne 84).

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The best place to use "however" is...

answer

tucked in the middle of a sentence with commas on both sides (Payne 85-86).

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A(n) _____ _______ is when the last word of the first paragraph is hooked into the first sentence of the second paragraph (Payne 87-88).

answer

paragraph hook

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A(n) ______hook uses a word or phrase from further back in the paragraph in order to bridge the ideas between paragraphs (Payne 88).

answer

deeper

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A(n) ______hook uses two or more words from the previous sentence in order to make the connection for the reader from one thought to the next (Payne 88-89).

answer

multiple

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A(n) ______hook is where the writer does not use the exact words from the previous paragraph but instead uses the main premise behind it (Payne 89).

answer

idea

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"________ voice is direct, vigorous, strong" (Payne 95).

answer

Active

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"_______ voice is indirect, limp, weak" (Payne 95).

answer

Passive

question

"Whenever a verb shows the subject of a sentence doing something, the sentence is in _________ voice" (Payne 95).

answer

active

question

When the subject is having something done to it or it is "being acted upon", the sentence is demonstrating ______ voice (Payne 95).

answer

passive

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"Whenever you create sound with an active verb, you are taking advantage of...

answer

"'audio active' verbs" (Payne 98).

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The rule to remember in terms of voice and creating vivid images in the reader's mind is:

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"Make your subject do something" (Payne 99).

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"The one thing you can borrow from if your written words are ever to achieve an air of naturalness is..."

answer

"the rhythm of speech" (Payne 106).

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"The first principle of rhythm in writing, to capture the basic rhythm of speech, is..."

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"variation of sentence length" (Payne 107-108).

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The two patterns of "major importance " in terms of sentence structure are...

answer

"the 'strung-along' sentence, and the periodic sentence" (Payne 110).

question

subject, predicate and complete thought.

answer

A sentence is a group of related words with a ___________, ______________ and ____________ _______________.

question

subject and verb

answer

A clause has a ________________ and a ______________.

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complete thought

answer

The difference between an independent clause and a subordinate clause is that an independent clause has a ______________ _____________ and a subordinate does not.

question

Example of a comma splice

answer

I like cheese, it tastes yummy.

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independent clauses

answer

A compound sentence has two ___________ ______________.

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complex sentence

answer

A sentence that has an independent clause and a subordinate clause.

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sentences

answer

In the sentence - "These sentences are not very difficult yet." what is the simple subject?

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are

answer

In the sentence - "These sentences are not very difficult yet." what is the simple predicate?

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linking

answer

In the sentence - "These sentences are not very difficult yet." is the simple predicate action or linking?

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difficult

answer

In the sentence - "These sentences are not very difficult yet." what is the complement?

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predicate adjective

answer

In the sentence - "These sentences are not very difficult yet." is the object a direct object, indirect object, predicate adjective, or predicate nominative?

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adverb

answer

In the sentence - "These sentences are not very difficult yet." what part of speech is "not"?

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noun

answer

In the sentence - "These sentences are not very difficult yet." what part of speech is "sentences"?

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adjective

answer

In the sentence - "These sentences are not very difficult yet." what part of speech is "difficult"?

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made

answer

In the sentence - "Our mother made a salad with almonds." what is the simple predicate?

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action

answer

In the sentence - "Our mother made a salad with almonds." is the simple predicate action or linking?

question

salad

answer

In the sentence - "Our mother made a salad with almonds." what is the complement?

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direct object

answer

In the sentence - "Our mother made a salad with almonds." is the object a direct object, indirect object, predicate adjective, or predicate nominative?

question

with almonds

answer

In the sentence - "Our mother made a salad with almonds." what is the prepositional phrase?

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adjective

answer

In the sentence - "Our mother made a salad with almonds." is the prepositional phrase adjective or adverb?

question

answer

In the sentence - "Our mother made a salad with almonds." is there a subordinate clause in this sentence?

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action verb

answer

A direct object follows a(n) ________________.

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action verb

answer

An indirect object follows a(n) ________________.

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linking verb

answer

A predicate nominative follows a(n) __________________.

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linking verb

answer

A predicate adjective follows a(n) ________________.

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subordinate clause

answer

Everyone who signed up for the marathon should meet at 8:00 a.m. tomorrow in the parking lot. - "who signed up for the marathon" is an independent clause. a subordinate clause or a phrase?

question

independent clause

answer

Tuesday we went to the Mardi Gras Parade, which is held every year in New Orleans. - "Tuesday we went to the Mardi Gras Parade" is an independent clause, a subordinate clause or a phrase?

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phrase

answer

Can you go to the park when school is over? - "to the park" is an independent clause, a subordinate clause or a phrase?

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subordinate clause

answer

The CD that I wanted to buy was out of stock. - "that I wanted to buy" is an independent clause, a subordinate clause or a phrase?

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phrase

answer

My older sister, who is on the basketball team, practices after school everyday. - "after school everyday" is an independent clause, a subordinate clause or a phrase?

question

participial phrase

answer

Knowing this, the freshman class planned a carwash for last Saturday. - "Knowing this" is a ____________.

question

action verb

answer

Knowing this, the freshman class planned a carwash for last Saturday. - "planned" is a(n) ____________.

question

adverbial prepositional phrase

answer

Knowing this, the freshman class planned a carwash for last Saturday. - "for last Saturday" is a(n) ____________.

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direct object

answer

Knowing this, the freshman class planned a carwash for last Saturday. -"carwash" is a(n) ____________.

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simple subject

answer

Knowing this, the freshman class planned a carwash for last Saturday. - "class" is a(n) ____________.

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action verb

answer

Glancing at the sky, she paid us a compliment. - "paid" is a(n) _______________.

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direct object

answer

Glancing at the sky, she paid us a compliment. - "compliment" is a(n) _______________.

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indirect object

answer

Glancing at the sky, she paid us a compliment. - "us" is a(n) _______________.

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linking verb

answer

Parents are examples for their children. - "are" is a(n) ________________.

question

predicate nominative

answer

Parents are examples for their children. - "examples" is a(n) ________________.

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adjective propositional phrase

answer

Parents are examples for their children. - "for their children" is a(n) ________________.

question

active voice

answer

Louise made the coffee. - is this sentence writting in active voice or passive voice

question

passive voice

answer

The coffee was made by Louise.- is this sentence written in active voice or passive voice

question

passive voice

answer

The package was advertised by the travel agent.- is this sentence written in active voice or passive voice

question

active voice

answer

The travel agent advertised the package. - is this sentence written in active voice or passive voice

question

passive voice

answer

The sugar water was relished by the hummingbirds. - is this sentence written in active voice or passive voice

question

than

answer

It was later (than, then) I thought it was.

question

well

answer

I am doing (good, well).

question

all ready

answer

Are you (already, all ready) for the test?

question

fewer

answer

There are (less, fewer) people going to the concert than went to the fair.

question

It's

answer

(It's, Its) been a good day today.

question

singular

answer

neither, either, and are __________________.

question

singular

answer

Words ending in "one", "body" and "thing" are ________________.

question

singular

answer

A collective noun is _________________if the group acts as one unit.

question

plural

answer

A collective noun is __________________if the members of group act as individuals.

question

her

answer

Each of the daughters followed (her, their) mother's footsteps.

question

his

answer

Neither of the actors could remember (his, their) lines correctly.

question

his/her

answer

Everyone complained that (his/her, their) food was cold.

question

her

answer

Neither of my sisters remembered to purchase (her, their) tickets.

question

its

answer

Late in the evening, the jury finally reached (its, their) verdict.

question

their

answer

The captains of both teams forgot the words of wisdom that (his, his or her, their) coaches had given the night before the championship.

question

his or her

answer

Every student should proof (his or her, their) essay for Type I errors.

question

their

answer

All of my brothers earned (his, their) degrees from Florida State University.

question

he or she

answer

Almost everyone was surprised when (he or she, they) heard the news.

question

he or she

answer

Everybody on the voyage complained that (he or she, they) were suffering from food poisoning.

question

Noun

answer

a naming word. It refers to a thing, person, animal, substance, quality, or place e.g. coat, girl, cat, happiness, youth etc.

question

Verb

answer

a doing or being word e.g. 'I walked to school today', 'I was happy'.

question

Adjective

answer

a describing word. It adds meaning to a noun by giving more information e.g. 'The big dog.'

question

Adverb

answer

a word that tells us how, when or where an action takes place. Its job is to give extra meaning to verbs e.g. ' Tomorrow I will build a snowman outside, carefully.'

question

Pronoun

answer

takes the place of a noun (or a group of words that work as a noun) e.g. he, she, they, his, yours etc. Writers use them to save repeating a person's name too often in the sentence or passage. Some pronouns are used to make the reader feel involved in the passage, as though the writer is talking directly to him or her e.g. 'You know how it feels to quarrel with your best friend.'

question

1st person narrative point of view

answer

it is told from the point of view of the writer. It closely involves the reader with the text and establishes a strong sense of immediacy e.g. 'I didn't feel like going to football practice but I felt a lot more enthusiastic after Mum reminded me of the great game I had last week.'

question

2nd person narrative point of view

answer

it is written as if the reader was the character in the text. Very rarely used, but a good example is the 'Choose Your Own Adventure' books e.g. 'You don't feel like going to football practice but you feel a lot more enthusiastic after your Mum reminded you of the great game you had last week.'

question

3rd person narrative point of view

answer

the writer is outside the story - 'he', 'she' and 'they' will indicate that the narrator is third person e.g. 'Tom was not feeling like going to football practice. His mother sensed this and decided to psych him up by telling him what a great match he palyed last week.'

question

Incomplete sentence

answer

a sentence with enough parts missing that it can not be understood e.g. 'Anne got up because...'

question

Minor sentence

answer

a sentence without a completed verb that is often used for emphasis. Many common greetings are also minor sentences. They can give a fast-paced, less formal tone.

question

Simple sentence

answer

a group of words, including a verb, that make sense on their own. Commonly used to describe a single idea e.g. 'The student asked a question.'

question

Compound sentence

answer

two or more main clauses (simple sentences) joined together with a conjunction or separated by a semi-colon. They give us more information than a simple sentence by developing a basic idea e.g. 'The student asked a question and the teacher answered it.'

question

Complex sentence

answer

one main clause joined to one or more sub-ordinate clauses. Used to express an idea that requires more elaboration e.g. 'The student asked a question when he had a problem with his class work.'

question

Compound-complex sentence

answer

two or more main clauses linked to one or more subordinate clauses e.g. 'The student asked a question and the teacher answered it because the teacher knew the student needed help.'

question

Cliché

answer

a well-known, over-used expression e.g. 'It's as hot as an oven in here.'

question

Pun

answer

an expression that plays on different meanings of the same word or phrase. It may draw attention to an idea or create a humorous effect e.g. Mercutio, mortally wounded, says: 'Ask for me tomorrow and you shall find me a grave man.'

question

Allusion

answer

a reference to a well-known person, place, book, song etc. that people will know.

question

Alliteration

answer

The repetition of consonants make words flow and phrases easy to remember. It also helps draw our attention to a line in a poem or passage, or a particular image, and it can both slow down our reading or speed up the words in order to create an atmosphere e.g. 'A black-backed gull bent like an iron bar.'

question

Simile

answer

A phrase that compares two things using like or as. They are used by writers and poets to help us picture in our minds what they are writing about. They add colour and vitality to writing e.g. 'My brother John eats like a pig.'

question

Repetition

answer

Words or statements repeated for emphasis or special effect e.g. 'It was cold that night, very, very cold.'

question

Personification

answer

When a non-living thing is given living characteristics. It helps the writer to bring the passage alive by introducing a human characteristic with which the reader can identify e.g. 'The vine is strangling that tree.'

question

Metaphor

answer

A direct comparison between two things e.g. 'My brother John is a pig.'

question

Onomatopoeia

answer

When the sound of the word imitates or suggests the meaning or noise of the action described. Writers use it to help the reader experience what is happening by recalling the sound that something makes and thereby improving the reader's ability to understand what is being described e.g. 'The buzz of the chainsaw.'

question

Colloquial language

answer

Relaxed and informal language that is used in common conversation. It is used be the writer to give a passage a relaxed tone and to appeal to a particular target audience e.g. 'Buzz off!'

question

Dashes

answer

has three main purposes: to indicate a sudden change of thought; to lead to the unexpected; to give extra information e.g. 'I couldn't get out of it - but wait - maybe there was another way'.

question

Colon

answer

introduces more information or shows divisions e.g. I have lots of reasons: I'm too scared, I'm too poor, I'm not interested, the rope might break, I value my life!'

question

Semi-colon

answer

used to break up long sentences and lists or joins clauses that are closely related e.g. 'My close friend told me I should try it; but she wasn't going to do it herself.'

question

Ellipsis (...)

answer

omission or suppression of parts of words or sentences. Can be used to show a pause and help build tension e.g. '

question

Parenthesis

answer

brackets that are most commonly used to include extra information within a sentence e.g. 'She said to me (for the millionth time), "Go on, have a go."'

question

Ungrammatical sentences

answer

sentences that break 'the rules' of grammar e.g. sentences that start with a conjunction. Often used to give a colloquial/informal tone or to show the thoughts of a character.

question

Mood or atmosphere

answer

the 'feeling' associated with the piece e.g. tense, scary, upbeat etc.

question

Tone

answer

shows the writer's attitude about the topic of the piece. It might be angry, sarcastic, passionate or sad, and so on.

question

Rule 1

answer

Use an end mark

question

Rule 2

answer

Use a semi colon between closely related sentences

question

Rule 3

answer

Use a comma and coordinating conjunction between independent clauses

question

Rule 4

answer

Use a subordinating conjunction to make a complex sentence

question

Rule 5

answer

Make a simple sentence

question

Examples of coordinating conjunctions

answer

and, but, or, nor, so, yet

question

Examples of subordinating conjunctions

answer

because, when, if, as, since, although, though, even though

question

Sentence

answer

Because the game was cancelled, it was rescheduled on my birthday, so I had to postpone my party.

question

answer

The store was closing the clerks were turning out the lights.

question

Sentence

answer

Although I had stayed up late studying, I could only recall a few terms; I bombed the test!

question

answer

The new typist was very good she could type 75 wpm with ease.

question

Sentence

answer

Has Kendal left already, or is she still here?

question

answer

After I leave school today, I am going to the mall for I have a dance to attend Friday night.

question

answer

When I get sleepy, I get irritable and no one likes to be around me when I'm crabby.

question

Sentence

answer

As Craig walked out of the room, Tim made a rude comment.

question

Sentence

answer

Before I leave the house in the mornings, I have to get my little brothers ready for school.

question

Sentence

answer

Outside the rain fell softly; it was a very cool fall day.

question

Sentence

answer

As soon as the bell rang, I walked quickly to the bathroom because I was about to wet my pants.

question

Sentence

answer

Wherever I go after school, I have to take my little sisters with me; it's so annoying.

question

Sentence

answer

Kimmi was furious and upset after she lost the tennis match.

question

answer

I can wait for basketball practice to start for I will finally get to be on Varsity!

question

answer

Thanksgiving is one of my favorite holidays for my family is big and entertaining when they get together.

question

Sentence

answer

I can't wait until I turn 16 because I will finally get to drive a car without my parents!

question

Sentence

answer

I can wait for basketball practice to start, for I will finally get to be on Varsity!

question

answer

Whereever I go after school, I have to take my little sisters with me it's so annoying.

question

Sentence

answer

Thanksgiving is one of my favorite holidays, for my family is big and entertaining when they get together.

question

answer

While my mom fixes dinner, I have to work on my homework and my sister has to set the table.

question

Sentence

answer

After the holidays are over, I always get the winter blues and can't wait for spring to come.

question

answer

My favorite Thanksgiving dishes are yams, stuffing, and homemade rolls my grandma makes the best rolls you've ever had.

question

answer

Run-on Sentences are can be difficult to understand so it takes a lot of practice to do well with them.

question

Sentence

answer

After the holidays are over, I always get the winter blues; therefore, I am not a happy person to be around.

question

Sentence

answer

While my mom fixes dinner, I have to work on my homework, and my sister has to set the table.

question

answer

When I get all A's on my report card, I get rewarded with money however, my parents make me save my money instead of going shopping with it

question

answer

I thought the first week of school was very easy but now I am beginning to feel the pressure.

question

Sentence

answer

My favorite Thanksgiving dishes are yams, stuffing, and homemade rolls; my grandma makes the best rolls you've ever had.

question

Sentence

answer

Run-on Sentences are can be difficult to understand, so it takes a lot of practice to do well with them.

question

Sentence

answer

When I get all A's on my report card, I get rewarded with money; however, my parents make me save my money instead of going shopping with it

question

Run On Sentence

answer

When two or more sentences aren't joined correctly because they don't use proper conjunction's and other punctuations

question

Fragment

answer

A group of words that doesn't express a complete thought

question

Fixing Run-Ons

answer

Using proper punctuation marks and conjunctions, and adding proper pronouns

question

Fixing Fragments

answer

Add more words to make sense

question

Example of a Run-On

answer

Jimmy and I went to the mall to buy some matching hats after we bought the hats we went to the food court to get some pizza.

question

Example of a Fragment

answer

Purdue offers many majors in engineering. Such as electrical,chemical, and industrial engineering.

question

Missuse of P. Marks

answer

"What?,no !"

question

Missuse of Conj.

answer

both apples and oranges , but not the red ones or the green ones

question

Punctuation Marks

answer

symbols used to organize indicate structure and organize written language

question

Conjunction

answer

words that are used to connect sentence , most common are nor, or, but, and , yet

question

The cash register near the door.

answer

Fragment

question

2. A delivery truck blocked the way.

answer

Sentence

question

Roasted a chicken.

answer

Fragment

question

A very confusing problem.

answer

Fragment

question

Vic turned on the radio.

answer

Sentence

question

Toni explained her decision.

answer

Sentence

question

The radiator overheated.

answer

Sentence

question

Put the letters into the mailbox.

answer

Sentence

question

Always rushing around.

answer

Fragment

question

A member of the National Basketball Association.

answer

Fragment

question

Often goes to the library on Saturday.

answer

Fragment

question

The wooden toys in the display.

answer

Fragment

question

Corinne, a student in the evening division.

answer

Fragment

question

Brenda argued with the mechanic.

answer

Sentence

question

Evacuated the residents of the area.

answer

Fragment

question

Ms. Parks had a determined look.

answer

Sentence

question

Never used an iron on this fabric.

answer

Fragment

question

Mr. Simmons, an accountant, audited the records.

answer

Sentence

question

Tracy wore hair braids.

answer

Sentence

question

Dr. Pearl Kendrick developed a whopping cough vaccine.

answer

Sentence

question

Warren strung a clothesline on the porch.

answer

Sentence

question

Whichever is less expensive.

answer

Fragment

question

As though we had met.

answer

Fragment

question

The banana bread sold quickly.

answer

Sentence

question

Sally toasted the whole wheat bread.

answer

Sentence

question

Answer the phone.

answer

Sentence

question

A secretary who typed well.

answer

Fragment

question

Jumping up and down and never stopping.

answer

Fragment

question

This book describes life in the future.

answer

Sentence

question

The soldier in the blue uniform.

answer

Fragment

question

The student from Mexico spoke about her country.

answer

Sentence

question

Because I like frogs.

answer

Fragment

question

The basketball player lunged for the ball.

answer

Sentence

question

Spent five dollars at the country fair last night.

answer

Fragment

question

The water heather runs on gas.

answer

Sentence

question

The phonograph needs a new needle.

answer

Sentence

question

Watch for the warning signs.

answer

Sentence

question

Your argument influenced the panel.

answer

Sentence

question

Tina made vegetable soup for dinner.

answer

Sentence

question

Most of the tenants in the organization.

answer

Fragment

question

Run on

answer

Some gardeners raise only flowers others raise only vegetables.

question

Run on

answer

Alexander Graham Bell invented the telephone, he was not a scientist.

question

sentence

answer

the thunderstorm began at three o'clock

question

fragment

answer

from the very first step of the dance.

question

run on

answer

early egyptians liked glass beads, blue beads were favored.

question

sentence

answer

lions sometimes climb trees and nap on the branches.

question

fragment

answer

a sports magazine in the library

question

sentence

answer

because the sun was shining, we went on a picnic.

question

sentence

answer

paper clips are useful items.

question

fragment

answer

whenever it thunders and whenever there is lightning

question

as we entered the house, the telephone rang.

answer

sentence

question

O. Henry was a short-story writer, at one time he was a cowboy.

answer

run-on

question

my spaniel wont chase the ball because he is lazy

answer

sentence

question

Look at the squirrel over there, what is it eating?

answer

run-on

question

a whale may live 80 years, an elephant may live 70 years.

answer

run-on

question

archeon

answer

river of woe

question

achilles

answer

famous soldier; fought at troy

question

aphrodite

answer

goddess of beauty and love

question

apollo

answer

god of sun

question

arachne

answer

woman turned into spider by athena

question

ares

answer

war god

question

artemis

answer

goddess of moon

question

athena

answer

goddess of war and wisdom

question

atlas

answer

titan whose punishment was to hold up the world

question

charon

answer

boat driver in hades

question

cyclopes

answer

one eyed monster

question

daedalus

answer

king whose daughter was locked into a tower (atheseis)

question

demeter

answer

goddess of agriculture

question

deucalion

answer

zeus wiped out mankind and saved only him and his wife

question

dionysus

answer

god of wine

question

dryad

answer

magical city

question

epimetheus

answer

"backwards thinking"

question

fates

answer

controlled what happened to humans (death esp)

question

gaea

answer

mother earth. unmoved mover of greeks

question

hades

answer

god of underworld

question

hephaestus

answer

blacksmith of the gods

question

hera

answer

zeus' wife- goddess of marriage and family

question

hercules

answer

1/2 god. a hero of greece

question

hermes

answer

messenger of the gods

question

hestia

answer

goddess of chasity

question

lethe

answer

river of underworld- forgetfulness

question

metis

answer

zeus' first wife- titan daughter

question

midas

answer

king who had an unhealthy love for gold

question

icarus

answer

son of daeldaus; died flying too close to sun with wax wings

question

minos

answer

king whose wife ended up falling in love with bull because of his disloyalty to gods

question

mnemosyne

answer

greek goddess of time, remembrance, etc

question

odysseus

answer

hero in the odyssey who is trying to get home

question

pan

answer

earth god of woods and field

question

pandora

answer

"perfect"woman whose curiosity brought the world disease and badness

question

paris

answer

soldier in Trojan war. also a prince who married hellen (started war)

question

penelope

answer

odysseus' faithful wife

question

persephone

answer

demeter's daughter who is kidnapped by hades

question

talus

answer

man of bronze who protected greece

question

perseus

answer

slayed medusa (went to gray sisters)

question

phlegethon

answer

river of fire

question

poseidon

answer

god of the sea

question

prometheus

answer

"fore sight" knew what side would win (sided with gods) later punished for giving men fire

question

shades

answer

buried souls

question

styx

answer

river of unbreakable oath

question

the muses

answer

goddesses of the arts

question

theseus

answer

famous hero- defeated minotaur

question

ulsseus

answer

latin for odysseus

question

trojan horse

answer

greeks used this to sneak into sparta (gave it as a gift- had soldiers inside)

question

typhon

answer

ulaea created this monster to defeat zeus for confining the titans (he was pinned under mt.etha)

question

zeus

answer

god of sky

question

1st person

answer

story told by character

question

3rd person

answer

story told by a narrator

question

antagonist

answer

the character who works against the protagonist in the story

question

climax

answer

Most exciting moment of the story; turning point

question

denouement

answer

the final resolution of the main complication of a literary or dramatic work

question

dialect

answer

a variety of speech characterized by its own particular grammar or pronunciation, often associated with a particular geographical region

question

character

answer

a person or animal who takes part in the action of a literary work

question

conflict

answer

opposition between or among characters or forces in a literary work that spurs or motivates the action of a plot (internal, external; person vs. person, self, nature, society)

question

direct characterization

answer

the writer tells us directly what a character's personality is like

question

dramatic irony

answer

occurs when another character(s) and/or the audience know more than one or more characters on stage about what is happening

question

dynamic character

answer

one whose character changes in the course of the play or story

question

epic

answer

a long narrative poem telling of a hero's deeds

question

epithet

answer

Word used adjectivally to describe some quality or attribute of is objects, as in "Father Aeneas".

question

epic simile

answer

A simile developed over several lines of verse, esp. one used in an epic poem.

question

in medias res

answer

in or into the middle of a plot; into the middle of things

question

sentence fragments

answer

A part of a sentence that is written as if it were a complete sentence

question

run ons

answer

two sentences joined without punctuation or a connecting word

question

wordiness

answer

too many words so that what the author is saying is not clear or is repetitive

question

coordinating conjunctions

answer

and, or, but, for, so, yet, nor; use a comma and a coordinating conjunction to join two independent clauses

question

epic hero

answer

the main character or protagonist in an epic that heroically larger than life, often the source and subject of a legend or a national hero

question

verbal irony

answer

occurs when what is said contradicts what is meant or thought

question

exposition

answer

a systematic interpretation or explanation (usually written) of a specific topic

question

falling action

answer

events after the climax, leading to the resolution

question

flat character

answer

this character seems to possess only one or two personality traits - little or no background is revealed

question

indirect characterization

answer

the character is revealed through their personality, appearance, words, actions, and effect on others

question

irony

answer

The use of words to convey a meaning that is the opposite of its literal meaning

question

limited point of view

answer

the story is told from the perspective of one of the characters whose information is restricted to what he/she sees, hears, and feels.

question

omniscient point of view

answer

the narrator is capable of knowing, telling, and seeing all

question

plot

answer

An author's selection and arrangement of incidents in a story to shape the action and give the story a particular focus.

question

protagonist

answer

the principal character in a work of fiction

question

resolution

answer

End of the story where loose ends are tied up

question

tone

answer

The author's attitude toward the subject

question

rising action

answer

events leading up to the climax

question

round character

answer

this character is fully developed - the writer reveals good and bad traits as well as background

question

setting

answer

arrangement of scenery and properties to represent the place where a play or movie is enacted

question

situational irony

answer

occurs when the outcome of a work is unexpected, or events turn out to be the opposite from what one had expected

question

static character

answer

a character that does not change from the beginning of the story to the end

question

theme

answer

The main idea of the story

STUDY

Conjunction Engineering Respiratory Therapy

USS HARRY S TRUMAN (CVN75) BASIC DAMAGE CONTROL (LOK) 71 terms

Richard Lattimore

71 terms

Preview

USS HARRY S TRUMAN (CVN75) BASIC DAMAGE CONTROL (LOK)

question

What fluid is carried by a piping system having hand wheels colored dark striped red and dark green?

answer

Finished Foam

question

The Isometric Damage Control diagrams (DC Plates) are ...... dimensional?

answer

Three

question

What are the two types of Navy Firefighting nozzles used onboard ships?

answer

All Purpose and VARI

question

What is the maximum length of a Shore?

answer

Thirty times the minimum thickness

question

What are the most utilized types of shoring?

answer

H, I, K

question

What do the heavy lines on DC Diagrams indicate?

answer

Watertight and airtight boundaries

question

Compartment Air Test fittings are normally classified as .......... fittings.

answer

William

question

What is the 2JV supplementary circuit designated for?

answer

Engineering circuit

question

Identify three pieces of information that are listed next to each DC Fitting on a Compartment Check-Off List (CCOL).

answer

Compartment name, Division responsible for fitting, Classification

question

After decontaminating the weather decks the decontamination team(s) must enter the ship through the ........

answer

CCA

question

Describes radiation.

answer

Rays or particles emitted from an unstable atom

question

What types of hook bolts are used in plugging and patching.

answer

T, L and J

question

What is the primary designation of the X50J circuit?

answer

Fog Foam

question

What is the actuating source of the RAM fan?

answer

Water

question

What is RADIAC an acronym for?

answer

Radiation, Detection, Intensity, and Computation

question

When using the portable hydraulic access rescue system (PHARS), use extreme causation when cutting by ensuring that personnel keep clear of the ___________.

answer

Moving Parts

question

M-9 paper turns _______ when a nerve agent is detected.

answer

Red

question

When a DC diagram is color coded blue, it indicates _____________.

answer

Decontamination Stations

question

What type of gas is used with the operation of Portable Exothermic Cutting Units(PECU)?

answer

Oxygen

question

What is the proper procedures for donning the OCENCO EBBD

answer

1. Remove EEBD from case 2. Insert mouthpiece 3. Attach nose clip 4. Inhale and escape

question

The X50J circuit is the _________ circuit.

answer

Fog Foam

question

Approximately how long will a 15-kb CO2 Extinguisher last under continuous operation?

answer

40 seconds

question

What is the purpose of patching?

answer

Minimize flood damage

question

What is the effective range of a 27-kb PKP extinguisher?

answer

21 feet

question

Primary monitoring of the fireman system is conducted from ___________.

answer

Damage Control Central (DCC)

question

What is the 7JZ circuit used for?

answer

Repair 5 to DC Central

question

When plugging holes, what holes should be given priority?

answer

Holes at the lower portions of the ship

question

What is the proper sequence of activating an installed Eductor?

answer

Discharge, Firemain, Suction

question

Investigators should be familiar with the following systems:

answer

1. AFFF systems 2. Firemain and fireman risers 3. Ballasting systems

question

What does the acronym MOPP mean?

answer

Mission Oriented Protective Posture

question

What fluid is carried by a piping system having hand wheels colored orange?

answer

Hydraulic oil

question

What fluid is carried by a piping system having hand wheels colored red?

answer

Firemain

question

Where can you find a list of frame numbers which divide the major fire zones?

answer

Damage Control Drawings

question

Removal of water from flooded compartments, is the responsibility of the ___________________.

answer

De-watering Team

question

What are the tree common pipe patches used in the Navy?

answer

Soft, Jubilee, EWARP

question

Atropine injectors deliver _____ mg of Atropine.

answer

2 mg

question

Navigational draft marks are _______ inches in height.

answer

6 in

question

What are the two standard sizes of Navy firefighting hoses?

answer

1.5 and 2.5 inches

question

Which phase does a Casualty Power Cable conductor having only one serving or one Braille marking indicate?

answer

Phase A

question

AFF provided at the nozzle is approximately _______ percent AFFF concentrate.

answer

question

The P-100 pump should be carried by a minimum of _____ personnel.

answer

Two (2)

question

The sounding tape in the investigators bag is ______ feet in length.

answer

50 feet

question

What should the investigator report to the Repair Locker?

answer

FACTS

question

When would you use the Bypass Valve of the Halon System?

answer

If the Time Delay failed to work.

question

What is the recommended extinguishing agent for a Class \"C\" Fire?

answer

CO2

question

Name components of the Chemical Warfare Directional Detector.

answer

- Overboard Lanyard - Remote Control Unit - Pivot Mount

question

What form of Chemical Agent will M-8 Paper detect.

answer

Liquid

question

What is the purpose of the Naval Firefighters Thermal Imager?

answer

To see through light smoke and dense steam

question

What fluid is carried by a piping system having valve hand wheels colored dark green?

answer

Sea Water

question

What size CO2 bottles activates the installed halo system?

answer

5 lbs

question

What is the purpose of the Halon time delay?

answer

To allow time for ventilation to shutdown and personnel to secure accesses.

question

What are three pieces of information listed next to each DC Fitting on a Compartment Check-Off List (CCOL)

answer

- Compartment name - Division Responsible for fitting - Classification

question

What are the major steps involved in Fire Watch Duties?

answer

Muster, Obtain PPE, Inspect Equipment

question

The Chemical Agent Point Detection system will NOT detect _________ agents.

answer

Blood (CK) agents

question

What are the primary and secondary colors for a biological contamination marker?

answer

Blue and Red

question

The X50J circuit is the _______ circuit.

answer

Fog Foam

question

What is the principal means of communication for damage control operations?

answer

Sound powered phones or IVCS

question

General destruction of the skin and tissue is caused by which chemical agent?

answer

Blister Agent

question

What are two types of portable Eductors?

answer

PERI JET and S-TYPE

question

How should primary fire boundaries be set?

answer

(6) Sides of the affected compartment

question

How many auto-injectors of Atropine and 2-PAM Chloride are issued to each person at the threat of a chemical attack?

answer

3 of Each

question

What are the four vital principles of investigation?

answer

- Thorough - Cautious - Report - Repeat

question

When using the portable electrical submersible pump, there must be a minimum of _____ inches of water to safely start pumping.

answer

6 inches

question

How long will the OCENCO EEBD operate after it is activated.

answer

10 Minutes

question

PKP most effective on what class of fire?

answer

BRAVO

question

What is the flow rate setting of AFFF nozzles located in Engine Rooms?

answer

95 gallons per minute (GPM)

question

What method of decontaminating a grossly contaminated compartment is used as the last resort?

answer

Steaming

question

Where is remote monitoring of the fireman system conducted?

answer

Damage Control Central

question

What is an advantage of the PERI JET Eductor?

answer

Passes small objects

question

Who sets the Maximum Permissible Exposure (MPE)

answer

Commanding Officer (CO)

question

What are three colors M-8 paper can display?

answer

Yellow, Green, Red

STUDY

Conjunction Course(s) In English English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade) Larger Than Life Memorize

Unit 1: From Legend to History – Flashcards 35 terms

Kenneth McQuaid

35 terms

Preview

Unit 1: From Legend to History – Flashcards

question

What makes Beowulf a legendary story?

answer

The hero is described as being larger than life

question

What was Beowulf's motivation for helping Hrothgar?

answer

He wanted to help kill the monster

question

How do we know that Beowulf had a sense of honor?

answer

He did not use a sword when Grendel did not have a sword

question

Why does Beowulf win over Grendel's mother?

answer

God willed it

question

Beowulf gives us a valuable moral....

answer

Good always wins

question

What is the purpose of epic poetry?

answer

Tell the deeds of great men

question

How many tales would the pilgrims tell while going to Canterbury?

answer

2 going, 2 coming back

question

Why would Chaucer choose a pilgrimage for the setting of his story?

answer

Gives him the opportunity to have different characters tell stories

question

Why is Chaucer critical of the Church?

answer

The church should have helped the poor

question

Where were the Pilgrims going in The Canterbury Tales?

answer

Canterbury

question

Who does the Monk love the most?

answer

Himself

question

The Nun or Prioress

answer

Well fed, prideful woman

question

The Clerk

answer

Poor student of the church whom Chaucer speaks well of

question

The Knight

answer

Crusader and lives by the code of chivalry

question

The Pardoner

answer

Sold pardons and relics, scam artist

question

When did the Normans defeat the Anglo-Saxons?

answer

1066

question

What tribes invaded England during the Anglo-Saxon period?

answer

Angles, Saxons, Jutes

question

Who was the god Wyrd?

answer

Fate

question

What job did the pilgrims give to the Host?

answer

The leader

question

What two criteria were given to win the contest?

answer

best story and best moral

question

What is the moral of The Pardoner's tale?

answer

Greed is the return of all evil

question

When the characters represent larger ideas this is called an_____________?

answer

Allegory

question

Who does the Old Man in the Pardoner's Tale represent?

answer

Death

question

What crime did the Knight in The Wife of Bath's Tale commit?

answer

Rape

question

At whose court, was the knight in The Wife of Bath's Tale tried?

answer

King Arthur

question

What was the answer to what woman want?

answer

Women want power over their husbands

question

Why did the Green Knight come to King Arthur's court?

answer

He heard of the bravery and renown of the court

question

Ideals of the Anglo-Saxons

answer

Love of glory, loyalty to the king, personal freedom

question

Results of Norman Invasion

answer

Fusion into one people, King's court became the center, changed English government

question

What were the two challenges for Gawain?

answer

test of his bravery and purity

question

What holiday was King Arthur celebrating when the Green Knight visited?

answer

New Year's Day

question

Who told or recited the Old English poems?

answer

Scops

question

What are the 3 estates in medieval England?

answer

Church, serfs, nobility

question

What monsters did Beowulf kill?

answer

Grendel, Grendel's wife, the dragon

question

What was the framework for The Canterbury Tales?

answer

120 tales by 30 pilgrims

STUDY

How would a coder report a definitive procedure performed in conjunction with an exploratory laparotomy?

Code the definitive procedure only
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To what does the term, traffic, refer to when used in conjunction with the Internet?

the communications activity on the Internet
More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ite-ch-2/

Which of the following medications is an anticoagulant when used by itself, but becomes an antagonist when used in conjunction with heparin?

protamine sulfate
More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/nwtc-st-for-the-st-northstar-major-study-surgical-pharmacology/

Most portable devices, and some computer monitors, have a special steel bracket security slot built into the case, which can be used in conjunction with a:

cable lock
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A vagotomy is typically performed in conjunction with which other procedure?

pyloroplasty
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What occurs when a writer joins two independent clauses-without using a coordinating conjunction?

A comma splice
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59. A word that shows the relationship between a noun and some other word is called a a. conjunction. b. preposition. c. predicate. d. subject. e. none of these

b. preposition.
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The BUN test is used in conjunction with what other test?

Creatinine values
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What is a coordinating conjunction?

conjunction that joins 2 independent clauses together
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What is the term used most often to describe the individual within an organization who is responsible for protecting health information in conjunction with the court system?

Custodian of Record
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