Conjunction Flashcards, test questions and answers
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Commands
Conjunction
Greek
Mood
Propositions
Jane Austen Writing Style – Flashcards 12 terms

Millie Miller
12 terms
Preview
Jane Austen Writing Style – Flashcards
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antithesis
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an assertion immediately followed by a negation of its opposite
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appositive
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renaming of a noun immediately following the noun
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full character description
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physical, financial, homeplace, personality, age, and so forth
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complex sentences
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sentence containing an independent clause and at least 1 dependent clause
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compound objects
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direct objects or objects of prepositions that have more than 1 component
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compound sentences
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sentence made up of 2 or more independent clauses joined by a conjunction
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favorite vocabulary
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words (particularly adjectives or adverbs) that are used frequently in the text
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italics
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use of italic typeface to distinguish words or phrases from a block of text
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parenthetical
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phrase set aside by parentheses or dashes
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quoted indirect discourse
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quotation marks around non-spoken thoughts in narration; though not spoken aloud, thoughts may suddenly be quoted to intensify the point of view
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superlative
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the form of a word that indicates superiority over others of its kind; often signaled by the word "most" or by the "-est" ending
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understatement / litote
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use of a lesser expression than expected; often with the "not un-" construction
Conjunction
Linguistics
Preposition
Writing Coach Chapter 13 – Flashcards 36 terms

Ray Collins
36 terms
Preview
Writing Coach Chapter 13 – Flashcards
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noun
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part of speech that names person, place, thing, or idea
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collective noun
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names a group of people or things. ex: choir, crew
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compound noun
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noun made up of two or more words acting as a single unit. ex: bird dog, self-rule, porthole
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common noun
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names any one of a class of people, places or things. ex:building, writer, book
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proper noun
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names a specific person, or thing. ex: June, John, Jones Diary
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concret nouns
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names something you can see, touch, taste, hear, or smell. ex: person, cannon, road, city, music
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abstract nouns
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names something you can not percieve through any 5 senses. ex: hope, improvement, independence,
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pronouns
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words that stand for nouns or for words that take place of nouns ex: she, her, they, their
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antecedents
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nouns or words that take the place of nouns to which prouns refer ex: Heather
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personal pronouns
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refer to the person speaking (first person), the person spoken to (second person), or the person, place, or thing spoken about (third person)
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reflexive pronouns
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ends in -self or -selves and indicates that someone or something in the sentence acts for or on itself
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intensive pronouns
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ends in -self or -selves and simply adds emphasis to a noun or pronoun in the sentence
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reciprocal pronoun
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each other, and one another refer to a plural antecedent. express mututal action or relationship.
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demostrative pronoun
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directs attention to a specific person, place thing. this, that, these, those
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relative pronoun
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introduces an adjective clause and connects it to the word that the clause modifies.that, which, who, whom, whose
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interrogative pronoun
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used to begin a question. what, which, who, whom, whose
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indefinate pronoun
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refers to a person, place, or thing that may or may not be specifically named. words ending in -other, -body, -one, all, any, both, few
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verbs
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a word or group of words that express time while showing an action, a condition, or the fact that something exists.
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action verb
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tells what action someone or something is performing
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linking verb
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connects its subject with a noun, pronoun, or adjective that identifies or describes the subject. am, is, are, were, etc.
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transitive verbs
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directs action toward someone or something named in the same sentence. answers the question what
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intransitive verbs
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does not direct action toward anyone or anything named in the same sentence. doesn't answer the question what.
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verb phrase
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consist of a main verb, and one or more helping verbs
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adjective
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describes a noun or pronoun or gives a verb a more specific meaning. answers, "what kind. which one. how many. how much."
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articles
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three common ones, a, an, the
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indefinate articles
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a, an, only ones because they refer to any one of a class of nouns
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definate articles
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the, only one because it refers to a specific noun
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Proper adjectives
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proper nouns, used as adjective or adjectives. monday, england, docotor, etc
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particaples
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verbs ending in -ing and -ed
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adverb
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verb that modifies a verb, an adjective or another adverb. answers the question, when. where. in what way. to waht extent.
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preposition
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relates the noun or pronoun that appears with it to another word in the sentence
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prepositional phrase
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a group of words that includes a preposition and a noun and pronoun
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conjunction
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used to connect other words or group of words, and. but. or .nor. for. yet.
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correlative
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have this in the. both...and. not only... but also. either... or. whether... or. neither... nor.
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subornating
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joins two complete ideas by making one of the ideas suborniating to, or dependent upon, the other
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interjection
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word that expresses feeling or emotion and functions independently of a sentence. ouch! wow! etc.
Conjunction
English 1
English 2
English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade)
. WRITING EFFECTIVE SENTENCES – Flashcards 42 terms

Sean Hill
42 terms
Preview
. WRITING EFFECTIVE SENTENCES – Flashcards
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clause
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a group of words CONTAINING a subject and a predicate and used as part of a sentence
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phrase
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a group of words NOT having a subject and predicate, used as a single part of speech
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subordinate clause
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must depend on the main clause to complete the thought
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compound sentence
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Two main clauses joined together
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Main clauses
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are the basis of all types of sentences, whether simple, compound, complex, or compound-complex
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simple sentence
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A main clause used alone or with any number of phrases
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subject complement
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a noun or adjective follows a linking verb and means the same as the subject or describes the subject
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Noun clause as subject
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A subordinate clause functioning as a noun can be used in a variety of ways. A noun clause can serve as the subject of a sentence.
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Noun clause as object
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Noun clauses can also function as objects of either verbs or prepositions.
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Noun clause as complement.
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Besides serving as a subject or an object of a verb or preposition, a noun clause can be used as a subject complement (predicate noun). A subject complement renames the subject and completes the meaning of the verb.
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Adjective Clauses
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is a subordinate clause which modifies a noun or pronoun. Adjective clauses are frequently introduced by relative pronouns (who, whose, whom, which, that) or relative adverbs (when, where).
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elliptical clause
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a clause whose meaning is understood even though one or more words have been omitted
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adverb clause
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Is a subordinate clause which is used to modify a verb, an adjective, or another adverb. It modifies a verb when it tells how, when, where, why, to what extent or under what condition
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antecedent
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a word, phrase, or clause to which a pronoun, especially a relative pronoun, refers
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relative pronoun
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a pronoun that relates to an antecedent and introduces a qualifying clause
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subordinate clauses often begin with the pronouns
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who, whose, whom, which, that, and what, or their compound forms whoever, whomever, whichever, and whatever
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Who, which, that, whoever, whichever, and whatever are the
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nominative case forms of the relative pronouns
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pronouns
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take the place of nouns and function as subjects of sentences or clauses.
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An example of a sentence with a relative pronoun as its subject
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-Whichever you prefer is the one we'll buy. (Whichever is the subject of the noun clause; the entire subordinate clause is the subject of the sentence.)
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objective
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forms of the relative pronouns are whom, which, that, whomever, whichever, and whatever. -used when the relative pronoun is the object of a verb or a preposition.
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relative pronouns have the same form in both
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the nominative and objective cases
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possessive case.
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who and which
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condition
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a circumstance which is dependent or contingent upon some other
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subordinating conjunction
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a conjunction that joins clauses of minor rank to the main clause
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Adverb clauses are introduced by subordinating conjunctions
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after because than whenever although before though where as if unless wherever as if since until while so that as . . . as* when in order that
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Place:
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Did you leave your keys where you could find them easily? I can't remember where I've met you.*
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Time:
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I will write a letter to you when I receive one from you.
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Reason:
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We cancelled the picnic because the storm arrived.
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Condition:
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If you wish to go with us, please be ready on time.
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Purpose or result:
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We set the alarm in order that we might be ready on time
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Comparison
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John took more food in his backpack than his sister did.
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complement
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a word or phrase used after a verb to complete the predicate
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gerund
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a word ending in -ing which has characteristics of both a verb and a noun
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infinitive
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to plus a verb; usually used as a noun but occasionally used as an adjective or an adverb
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participle
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a word that has characteristics of both a verb and an adjective
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appositive
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a noun, pronoun, or phrase following another noun or pronoun to explain or identify it
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relative clause
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A clause introduced by a relative pronoun, such as WHO, WHICH, THAT, or by a relative adverb, such as WHERE, WHEN, WHY.
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antecedents
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preceding events that influence what comes later; ancestors or early background
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gerund phrase
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Begins with noun form of verb ending in -ing, plus any modifiers or complements
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Infinitive phrase
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phrase that includes the infinitive, it's objects, and the objects modifiers
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Participial phrase
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an -ing or -ed verb form that functions as an adjective plus its modifiers
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appositive phase
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Gives more information about a noun or pronoun. It has No verbs and is set off by commas
Characters
Conjunction
English/Language Arts 2 (10Th Grade)
English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade)
Identity
Once More to the lake quiz – Flashcards 7 terms

Isabel Padilla
7 terms
Preview
Once More to the lake quiz – Flashcards
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Who is the narrator of this essay likely to be?
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EB White himself
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What did the narrator stay in at Maine?
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a cabin
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What does it mean when the narrator calls him salt-water man?
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spends time at the ocean
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What does it mean when the narrator refers to the camp as "holy spot", stillness of the cathedral?
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it is sacred in someway
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What does it mean when the narrator lives "a dual existence"?
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he is both his father and his son
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How does White describe summertime in Maine?
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permanent and unbreakable
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What is the authors intention of this narrative?
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to describe an experience of visiting a lkae
Conjunction
Questions
Subject Verb Agreement
7th Grade STAAR Writing Test Study Guide – Flashcards 42 terms

Maxim Beck
42 terms
Preview
7th Grade STAAR Writing Test Study Guide – Flashcards
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Steps in the writing process
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Read the prompt, analyze the prompt, brainstorm, level experiences OR rank explanations, organize, draft, proofread, revise, edit, proofread, finalize, and proofread.
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What does the word "EXPOSITORY" mean?
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To explain or inform
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What is the recommended number of paragraphs needed for the EXPOSITORY portion of the STAAR Writing test?
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Four
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What should your introduction include?
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1. an attention grabber a.k.a. "hook" (question, quote, statistic, or fact) 2. a controlling idea which makes reference to the subject/topic
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What should a controlling idea include?
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1. key words from the prompt 2. your opinion on the subject/topic 3. reasons/beliefs that will be covered in each of your body paragraphs.
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What is a good example of a controlling idea?
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People should speak up for what they believe because it is important to communicate honestly, to help others understand, and to offer up new insight.
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What is a topic sentence?
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the main idea of the paragraph
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What should your body paragraphs include?
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1. a topic sentence 2. support for your topic sentence
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What kinds of support should you provide for the topic sentence in your expository body paragraphs?
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1. explanations 2. info-shots (creative ways of explaining) 3. experience examples 4. reference examples (movie, book, TV show, song, etc.)
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What two things should your expository conclusion have?
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1. Restatement of thesis (in different words) 2. Leave your audience with something to think about—for instance a possible solution or thematic statement.
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What is a good example of a restatement of the previously given thesis?
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What this means is that if people don't speak up they will never progress personally and others will not be enlightened.
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For revising questions about ORGANIZING IDEAS...
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THINK: The sentences have to relate to each other. Look for a place that is talking about the same idea and add a sentence or move one around.
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For revising questions about REPLACING WEAK WORD CHOICES.
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THINK: An author should tell the reader exactly what they are thinking. Words like "it," "things," "stuff," or some other pronouns might not tell the reader what the writer wants to say. Reread around the sentence you are focusing on to understand the context. Use the thesaurus.
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For revising questions about SUPPORTING SENTENCES...
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THINK: Find a detail that talks about the same ideas in the paragraph. This detail should relate to the sentences around it and not get off topic.
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For revising questions about COMBINING SENTENCES...
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THINK: A correct answer usually shouldn't have repetition of words or ideas. Sometimes we use a comma and a conjunction to put together two ideas that could stand alone as their own sentences.
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For revising questions about TOPIC SENTENCES or CENTRAL IDEA...
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THINK: The sentence must state the main idea of the ENTIRE paragraph OR composition. Reread to understand what the paragraph or composition is about. A correct answer probably won't have details.
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For revising questions about CONCLUDING STATEMENTS...
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THINK: One sentence must pull the ideas from the essay passage together and not just mention details or get off topic. It should connect to the sentences right before it.
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For revising questions about TRANSITION WORDS...
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THINK: Look for how ideas are presented with time, sequence, or order of importance. Reread the sentence trying every answer choice.
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For revising questions about ELIMINATING SENTENCES...
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THINK: Look for a sentence that is off topic. Check each answer choice to see how the sentence relates to the ones around it.
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For editing questions about COMMAS...
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THINK: Commas are used with coordinating conjunctions to separate two sentences. Commas are also used after introductory phrases such as a prepositional phrase AND in complex sentences if the dependent clause comes first.
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For editing questions about SPELLING...
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THINK: Sometimes we use double consonants. If something is plural that ends in y, the y might change to "ies." Likewise, a verb that ends in a y might change to "ied." Eliminate the other answer choices if you are unsure. Use the dictionary. WATCH OUT FOR COMMONLY CONFUSED WORDS (CCW'S)
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For editing questions about SUBJECT/VERB AGREEMENT...
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THINK: Find the noun the verb refers to and make sure the tense of the verb is correct. For example, if the composition says, "We has...," I might go through my pronouns using the verb "has" in my head (I have, you have, she has, we have, they have).
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For editing questions about COMBINING SENTENCES...
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THINK: Commas will be used with a coordinating conjunction when the part before and the part after the comma can stand alone as their own sentences. If one of the parts cannot, then use a conjunction but no comma. Eliminate answer choices that are fragments or run-on's.
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For editing questions about APOSTROPHES...
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THINK: An apostrophe + s at the end of a word when the word is singular. (Sally's hat) Use an s + apostrophe at the end of a word that is plural. (the kids' classroom). Use an apostrophe in contractions to replace missing letters (you'll, didn't, can't, shouldn't, I'm).
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For editing questions about COMPLETE SENTENCES...
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THINK: A complete sentence must have both a subject and a predicate plus a complete thought. If there is a phrase that does not have both, then it is an incomplete sentence.
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Independent Clause
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A complete sentence that has a subject and a verb. Ex. Anne loves soccer.
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Dependent Clause
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An incomplete sentence that has a subject and a verb but an incomplete thought. Ex. When the bus comes
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Simple Sentence
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One independent clause.
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Compound Sentence
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Two independent clauses joined together with a coordinating conjunction.
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Coordinating Conjunction - definition
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A transition word that combines two independent clauses together to make a compound sentence.
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Coordinating Conjunction - list
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F.A.N.B.O.Y.S for and nor but or yet so
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What punctuation should be used to combine two complete sentences?
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a semicolon ;
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Complex Sentence
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One independent clause joined together with a dependent clause using a subordinating conjunction.
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Subordinating Conjunction - definition
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A transition word that combines an independent clause and a dependent clause together to make a complex sentence.
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Subordinating Conjunction - list
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A.A..W.W.U.B.B.I.S. As, Although, When, While, Until, Before, Because, If, Since
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The following example is what type of sentence? Anne loves soccer.
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Simple Sentence - example
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The following example is what type of sentence? It was the best of times.
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Simple Sentence - example
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The following example is what type of sentence? Jordan was disgusted, yet Sarah still laughed.
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Compound Sentence - example
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The following example is what type of sentence? We did not mind the rain, but the mud was unbearable.
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Compound Sentence - example
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The following example is what type of sentence? Because it had started to rain, the dog ran inside.
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Complex sentence - example
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The following example is what type of sentence? Jordan was disgusted when Sarah threw up on her plate.
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Complex sentence - example
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For editing questions about CAPITAL LETTERS...
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THINK: Use capital letters at the beginning of sentences, for names of people, for names of places, for names of historical events or documents, languages, or nationalities.
Conjunction
Jonathan Swift
Law Enforcement
Months Of The Year
Peanut Butter And Jelly
The House
Transportation
United States And Mexico
TSA Writing Skills Assessment Test – Flashcards 9 terms

Noel Macdonald
9 terms
Preview
TSA Writing Skills Assessment Test – Flashcards
question
For questions 1, 2, and 3 choose the one answer that represents a correction that should be made to the sentence. If no correction is necessary, choose (D).
answer
question
1. Once a request to carry firearms into a foreign country are approved, a Transportation Security Inspector must notify the Office of Foreign Operations for coordination of the request. A) change "to carry" to "for carrying' B) change "are" to "is" C) change "coordination" to "coordinating" D) no correction is necessary
answer
B) change "are" to "is" A verb must agree with its subject in number. The subject, "request," is singular and, therefore, the verb should be changed from "are" to "is."
question
2. Supervisor Smith knows that it is important for his Transportation Security Inspectors to understand each of the fundamental principals that apply to all methods of dog training. A) change "knows" that to "knows which" B) change "each" to "each and every one" C) change "principals" to "principles" D) no correction is necessary
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C) change "principals" to "principles" The correct use of the word "principles" refers to rules, laws, or standards that are applied to the method of dog training. By contrast, the word "principal" means first or foremost in importance.
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3. The geographical area composing much of the border between the United States and Mexico is considered to have a desert climate. A) change "between" to "from" B) insert a comma after "area" C) change "is" to "are" D) no correction is necessary
answer
D) no correction is necessary
question
Instructions: For question 4, choose the one answer that is the best revision to the underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in the paragraph. If no revision to the underlined word(s) or phrase(s) is necessary, choose option (E). If there are two underlined sections in the same paragraph, each possible answer will consist of two revisions, one for each underlined section. The two revisions will be separated by a slash ( / ). The first revision will be for the first underlined section in the paragraph, and the second revision will be for the second underlined section in the paragraph.
answer
question
4. The passenger's use of a fraudulent document was a hindrence to the identification of the passenger. (A) fraudelant / hindrence (B) fraudulant / hindrence (C) fraudulent / hindrance (D) fraudulant / hindrance (E) no correction is necessary
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(C) fraudulent / hindrance The words "fraudulent" and "hindrance" are spelled correctly in this sentence while various incorrect spellings of these words are used in A, B, and D.
question
For questions 5 and 6, select the correct paragraph order to create a passage that is well-organized, clear, and coherent. If no correction is necessary, choose (D).
answer
question
5. (1) TSA also recognizes that transportation assets, such as airplanes and tunnels, are part of larger systems, such as the national aviation system or a mass transit system. Taken together, all the individual transportation systems form the national transportation system (i.e., a "system of systems"). The behavior of transportation systems cannot be fully explained by confining observations to individual cars, vessels, and aircraft or fixed infrastructure. An attack on a specific asset must be analyzed for how it will impact the larger transportation system within which it resides. Impacts to a specific transportation system may then have ripple-effects on other transportation systems that could result in cascading failures. (2) In December 2005, we made a risk-based choice to change our operations to better meet this threat. Before the change, our screening workforce was spending a lot of time searching for items that no longer posed a significant risk - items that would no longer be useful to terrorists intent on taking control of an aircraft. Based on analysis of threats, vulnerabilities and consequences, we removed the most innocuous of these from our list of items that are prohibited beyond the checkpoint. The time and labor we used to spend detecting them has been shifted to finding explosives instead. (3) The nature of the current threat has changed since September 11, 2001. The deployment of measures like hardened cockpit doors, the Federal Flight Deck Officer Program, a vastly expanded Transportation Security Inspector Program, and others have greatly reduced the risk of an attack similar to those of September 11. Today, explosives pose the greatest risk to our transportation systems. (4) Delivering the best security we can means using risk to guide our decisions - maximizing our resources by directing them where they are most needed. Working with our network of federal and industry partners, we identify the areas of greatest risk throughout transportation systems and act to prevent attacks and mitigate their potential consequences. To meet future threats, we are ensuring that we maintain surge capacity to respond when and where they emerge. A) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 B) 3 - 4 - 1 - 2 C) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 D) no correction is necessary
answer
A) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 The most logical order of the passages is 4, 3, 2, 1. It is not logical to begin the passages with paragraphs 2 or 3, as indicated in Responses B and C, because they appear to complete information that has been presented earlier and, therefore, depend on information in the other two paragraphs in order to be understood. This also eliminates Response D. This leaves Response A, which begins with paragraph 4. The paragraphs presented in this order form a well-organized, coherent passage.
question
6. (1) Immediately following the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport (DCA) was closed to general aviation aircraft because of its proximity to downtown Washington, D.C. (2) After conducting a thorough security review in partnership with other Departments of Homeland Security and Defense agencies, the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) developed a security plan that balances the special security needs of the airport with the economic importance of general aviation flights. (3) ASOs are specially trained law enforcement officers who are authorized by the TSA to fly onboard each general aviation aircraft operating into or out of DCA. (4) The plan, called the DCA Access Standard Security Program, or DASSP, allows a total of 48 general aviation flights a day leaving from designated "gateway airports." All of these flights must have an Armed Security Officer (ASO) onboard. A) 1 - 4 - 2 - 3 B) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2 C) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 D) no correction is necessary
answer
C) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 The most logical order of the passages is 1, 2, 4, 3. The first paragraph introduces the issue and sets the stage for the remaining paragraphs describing the actions taken to address the issue. Accordingly, paragraph 1 should be the first paragraph. Paragraphs 2 and 4 elaborate on the resolution to the issue introduced in paragraph 1 and therefore must follow paragraph 1. Paragraph 2 logically comes before paragraph 4 because paragraph 2 explains that a plan was put in place whereas paragraph 4 elaborates on the specifics of the plan. Finally, paragraph 3 is clearly the concluding paragraph because it further defines the role of the ASO which is introduced in paragraph 4. The paragraphs presented in this order form a well-organized, coherent passage.
Circuits
Civil Engineering
Conjunction
Equipment
Home
Proceed With Caution
CSX Conductor Practice Questions – Flashcards 246 terms

Maisie Clarke
246 terms
Preview
CSX Conductor Practice Questions – Flashcards
question
Absolute Block
answer
A block that may be occupied by only one train at a time.
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Absolute Signal
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A color light color positon light or semaphore signal without a number plate a "P" marker, "APP" marker "C" marker or "G" marker that conveys stop as its most restrictive indication.
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Automated Railroad Crossing
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A railroad crossing at grade it is protected by signals which are actuated automatically by the approach of a train.
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Automatic Block Signal
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A block signal that is activated either by track circuit or in conjunction with interlocking or controlled point circuit this block signal automatically indicates track condition and block occupancy.
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Automatic Block Signal, ABS
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A series of consecutive blocks whose use is governed by train actauted block signals or by certain conditions affecting the use of a block is called an ___________ __________ _________ system or (___).
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Auxiliary track
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A track other than a main track.
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Block
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A track section of defined limits in signaled territory a block is the track section between two consecutive block signals geverning movements in the smae direction it is also the track section from a block signal to the end of signaled territory.
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Block signal
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A fixed signal displayed to trains at the entrance of a block to govern use of the block.
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Bolt lock switch
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A hand operated switch equiped with a pripe-connected locking device that is designated to shunt the signal system before the switch points are operated.
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Centralaized
answer
A __________train dispatching system (CTDS)is a system by which train and on track equipment movements are governed by a controlled signals and or instructions of a train dispatcher from a centrailized location.
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Color light signal
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A fixed signal that displays aspects by the color of light it may also display aspects by a combination of colored lights.
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Color position
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A ________ ________ light signal is a fixed signal that displays aspects by the color or position of two or more lights it consists of a cluster of colored lights normally displayed in pairs for some aspects an additional white or yellow light is displayed above or below the cluster.
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Control station
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A place from which signals and signal aplliances are operated it is also a place from which instructions governing railroad movements are issued.
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Controlled point
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A station designated in the the timetable where signals are remotely controlled from the control station.
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Controlled siding
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A siding equipped with controlled signals such signals authorize trains to enter or leave the siding only.
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Controlled signal
answer
A fixed signal at the entrance of a route or block it is used to govern the movement of trains using that route or block the signal is operated from a control station.
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Controlled Speed, TCOOS
answer
__________ ________ is a speed that will permit within one- half the range of vision it will also permit stopping short of a Train, Car, Obstuction, On track equipment, or Stop signal. Take Control Over Our Speed or ________.
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Controlled track
answer
________ ________ is a track upon which all movements will be authorized by a train dispatcher.
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Crossover
answer
A combination of two switches connecting two adjacent tracks.
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Tonnage, special, clearance, radio
answer
CSX train documentation is a computer generated form consisting of some or all of the following: _________ graph, restricted and _________ handling, CT-168 report, _________ bureau instructions, train listing and hazardous endorsement, hazardous special handling instructions, hazardous material, ________ waybill form.
question
Current, traffic
answer
________ of ________ is the movement of trains on a main track in one direction as a specified in the rules or special instructions.
question
DCS track warrant
answer
Track warrant where the specified limits are designated by form EC-1 authority.
question
bulletin
answer
A Dispatcher __________ is a computer generated form issued by the train dispatcher it contains current operating instructions applying to the train addressed it also contains information as to the latest systems and general bulletins issued.
question
dispatcher message
answer
Instructions and mandatory directives issued by the train dispatcher in a the prescribed form when applicable it governs the operaions of trains and is part of a dispatcher bulletin.
question
DTC block
answer
A block whose use is governed by verbal authority of the train dispatcher.
question
DTC block form
answer
The prescribed from used when obtaining a DTC track warrant.
question
DTC block system
answer
A direct traffic control block or a series of consecutive DTC blocks.
question
DTC track warrant
answer
Track warrant where the specified limits are designated by block authority.
question
Dual control
answer
A _____ ______ switch is a power operated switch also equipped for hand operation.
question
EC-1
answer
A form used to record specific instructions regarding movements on controlled tracks.
question
EC-1
answer
The prescribed form used when obtaining a DCS track warrant.
question
Electric Locked
answer
An _______ ________ switch is a hand operated switch with an electric locking device applied.
question
Emergency
answer
___________ inspection or repairs is any unforeseen circumstances (such as a derailment) has caused an inspection or a repair to be made to ensure the safe movements of trains.
question
Engine
answer
A locomotive unit propelled by any form of energy it is also a combination of such units operated from a single control.
question
Excepted Track
answer
A segment of track identified in special instructions with no more than 10 MPH, no revenue passenger service, no more than five hazardous material placrded cars is called _________ _________.
question
Exclusive, move
answer
The authority a train has to occupy a track which does not include other movement within the same limit is called ___________ authority to ______.
question
Fixed Signal
answer
A permanent signal or sign indicationg a condition affecting train movement.
question
General Notice
answer
A computer writtne or electronically transmitted notice of information and instructions not affecting the movement of trains issued by a division.
question
HEAD of train device
answer
A device on an engine that recives information from and transmits infromation to an end of train device. HTD
question
Home Signal
answer
A fixed signal capable of displaying a stop indication governing the entrance to a route block or interlocking.
question
Improper signal aspect
answer
A signal aspect that permits a train to proceed when the condition of the block does not justify such an aspect.
question
Interlocking
answer
An arrangement of interconnected signals and signal appliances for which interlocking rules are in effect. signals and movements of signal appliances must suceed each other in proper sequence.
question
Interlocking Signals
answer
Fixed signals of an interlocking.
question
Intermediate Signal
answer
A block signal equipped with either a number plus "G" marker or a "P" marker it conveys procedd at a restricted speed as its most restictive indication.
question
Intermodal train
answer
A freight train consisting entirely of equipment designed to carry travelers , containers motor vehicles and or auto frames.
question
Limited speed
answer
A speed not exceeding 45 MPH.
question
Locomotive service track area
answer
One or more tracks within an area in which the testing, servicing repair inspection or rebuilding of locomotives is under the exclusive control Mechanical department personnel protected by blue signals and derails ..speed is 5 MPH.
question
Main track
answer
A track extending through yards between stations it is other than an auxiliary track.
question
Mandatory directive
answer
An instruction required to be recoreded in writing such as a DTC block authority 707 authority 704 authority or dispatcher message.
question
Maximum authorized speed
answer
The highest speed permitted for any train on a subdivision or portion of a subdivision it will be listed under "maximum authorized speed" in special Instructions.
question
Medium Speed
answer
A speed not exceeding 30 MPH.
question
Position Light Signal
answer
Conrail- A fixed signal in which the signals aspect consisit of three lights in a straight row rotating from the center.
question
Power Operated Switch
answer
A remotely controlled switch it is operated electronically or electro pnumatically.
question
Release Form
answer
a computer from advising of a disptcher bulletin number and the number of train messages it must contain its address must correspond to the associated dispatcher bulletin.
question
Release Line
answer
The last line of a dispatcher bulletin containing the total number of dispatcher messages.
question
Remotely controlled
answer
A _________ _________ railroad crossing is a railroad crossing at grade operated by a control station.
question
Restricted, TCOSDS
answer
__________ speed is a speed that will permit stopping within one half range of vision it will also permit stopping short of a Train, a Car, an Obstruction, a sStop signal, a Derail, or an improperly lined Switch. It must permit looking out for a broken rail. it will not exceed 15 MPH. The cry of safety dont speed.
question
Schedule
answer
Information concerning directions train ID day of departure and station times of passenger trains.
question
Siding
answer
An auxiliary track for meeting and passing trains. it is designated in special instrutions.
question
Signal aspect
answer
The apperance if a fixed signal as viewed from the direction of an approaching train.
question
Signal Imperfectly Displyed
answer
A block or interlocking signal displaying lights not in conformity with the rules or the absence of a light where a color light should be or the absence of a signal at a place where the signal at a place where the signal is usually displayed or a high color light signal displaying more than one light per signal unit.
question
Signal indication
answer
The information conveyed by the aspect of the signal.
question
Signaled track
answer
A track equipped with a block or interlocking signals that govern train movements.
question
Slow speed
answer
A speed not exceeding 15 MPH.
question
Special Instructions
answer
Information contained in timetables system bulletins general bulletins and CSX procedural instruction manual.
question
Spring Switch
answer
A switch equpped to restore the switch points to normal position after having been trailed through.
question
Station
answer
A place designated in timetable by name.
question
System Bulletin
answer
Written or electronically transmitted special intstructions concerning the safety of employees and the movement of trains issued by the operating rules department.
question
System Notice
answer
Written or electronically transmited notice of information and instructiions not affecting the movement of trains issued by the operating rules department.
question
Timetable
answer
A publication containging instructions relating to the movement of trains or equipment and other essential information.
question
Track warrant control
answer
A method of authorizing movements or protecting employess or on track equipment in signaled territory on controlled track within specified limits. Movements within TWC territory is under the jurisdiction of the train dispatcher.
question
Track warrant
answer
Authorization to use a controlled track outside yard limits received in writing or copied and repeated at the direction of the dispatcher using radio or other communication. Track warrant must be written on the prescribed forms.
question
Train
answer
An engine with or without cars, displying a marker.
question
Train Coordination
answer
A method of exclusive stablishing working limits on tracks upon which a train holds exlusive authority to move whereby the crew of that train yields that authority to a roadway worker / employee-in-charge.
question
Work Train
answer
A train that is assigned to serve the Maintenance of way department in track repair and maintenace.
question
Yard
answer
A system of tracks other than main tracks and sidings a yard is used for the making up of trains storing cars and for sorting, grouping and classifying cars.
question
Yard limits
answer
A portion of main tracks designated by special instructions signs identify yard limits. Rule 193.
question
10
answer
The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46(Tracks); _____ MPH on other than main track, or signaled tracks, such as in yards.
question
10
answer
Trains operating on excepted track must not exceed ____ MPH.
question
10
answer
The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46(Turnouts and corssovers); _____ MPH through hand operated turnouts and crossovers other than to and from the main track.
question
14, 21
answer
Rule EHR 4453, advises to avoid operating cars subject to rocking between __ and __ MPH in locations designated in special instructions.
question
15
answer
Slow Speed may not exceed __ MPH.
question
15
answer
The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46(Turnouts and corssovers); _____ MPH through hand operated turnouts and crossovers to and from the main track.
question
2
answer
A warning sign will be loacted at least ____ miles before the restriction .
question
2, 2 1/2
answer
Unless otherwise specified, warning signs will be displayed at least __, but no more than __ __ miles from the beginning of the working limits on each end.
question
20, leading end
answer
Rule 193-A states that All movements must be made at controlled speed on main track yard limits , not exceeding ___ MPH until the ___________ ______ reaches the far limits.
question
25
answer
The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46 (Tracks); _____ MPH on non-signaled siding.
question
30
answer
Locomotives being shoved may not exceed ___ MPH.
question
30
answer
Medium Speed may not exceed __ MPH.
question
30
answer
Trains shoving cars may not exceed ___ MPH.
question
30
answer
Warning signs may be placed up to ____ minutes before the working limits become effective, as long as the employee in charge is available to communicate with any train approaching the working limits.
question
30, 70
answer
A single locomotive may not exceed __ MPH, and a consist of locomotives may never exceed __ MPH.
question
40, 10
answer
Trains handling welded or continuously jointed rail may not exceed __ MPH, and must not exceed __ MPH when crossing thru-truss bridges, and going over turnouts, crossovers, and tunnels.
question
45
answer
Limited Speed may not exceed __ MPH.
question
5
answer
The following speeds must not be exceeded per rule 46(Tracks); within an engine service area or car shop repair area.
question
50
answer
"Unit" trains consisting of solid loaded trains of coal, coke, grain, or minerals may not exceed __MPH.
question
50, 60
answer
Freight trains handling one or more empty cars may not exceed __/__ MPH.
question
All
answer
When one speed is shown on a Permanent Reduce Speed sign, it indicates the speed permitted for ________ trains.
question
Controlled, 20, switch is lined
answer
Rule 193-A Exception on Non-Signaled track states ____________ speed not exceeding ___ MPH approaching all switches prepared to stop until it is determined __________ ___ __________ for the intended route.
question
Dispatcher Message
answer
On controlled tracks, the loaction of work force limits are designated on the ___________ ___________.
question
End restriction
answer
A permanent end restriction sign will be located at the: ______ of the __________
question
F, 95, rocking
answer
Rule EHR 4453 states that: When handling ___ Plate box cars, high side gondolas, open top hoppers, or covered hoppers witha cubic foot capacity of at least 4000 that are loaded with more than ____ tons and indentified by tonnage graph, observe cars for excessive _________.
question
Intermodal, 60
answer
A train consisting of all loaded box cars will be considered a __________ train and may not exceed __ MPH.
question
Maximum authorized speed
answer
Normal speed is _________ ___________ ________.
question
Passenger, 5, 10
answer
Revenue ________ trains, or freight trains with ____ or more placarded cars may not operate on excepted track, and will not exceed ___ MPH.
question
Permanent Reduce Speed
answer
Permanent speed restrictions are indicated at the beginning of the restriction by a: __________ ___________ ___________ sign.
question
Restricted Speed, 15
answer
_________ is a speed that will permit stopping within one-half the range of vision. It will also permit stopping short of a train, a car, an obstruction, a stop signal, a derail, or an improperly aligned switch. It will not exceed ____ MPH.
question
signal indication, dispatcher
answer
Rule 193 states that trains are authorized to enter and move within main track yard limits by _________ ___________ , or authority of the _________ ___________.
question
Signal Indication, Train Dispatcher
answer
What is the authorization for trains to enter and move within main track yard limits? ____________ __________ or by the ________ __________.
question
Timetable
answer
The locations of permanent speed restrictions are identified in special instructions in the: ____________.
question
train, car, obstruction, derail, improperly, stop
answer
Per rule 46, trains using other than main or signaled tracks must move at a speed that will permit stopping within one-half the range of vision short of a _______, ____, __________, ________, __________ aligned switch, on track equipment, or a _____ signal.
question
1, 6
answer
The minimum number of flags and fusees required at the beginning of a trip or tour of duty in the controlling locomotive is __ red flag, and __ fusees.
question
1, 12
answer
The minimum number of flags and fusees required at the beginning of a trip or tour of duty in an occupied caboose or shoving platform is __ red flag, and __ fusees.
question
Restricted, 15
answer
A train that encounters an unattended fusee burning on or near it's track must immediatley reduce to and not exceed _____________ speed for ___ minutes.
question
Adjacent, distance, stop
answer
Rule 70 (Train Protection) states that when providing warning against approaching trains on adjacent track, place a lighted fusee immediatley on any adjacdnt track at the ________ of the train. Go at least the __________ distance prescribed by the table, and give a ________ signal if you see or hear an approaching train.
question
Fouls, both
answer
Rule 70 states that when a train inadvertently ______ a main track, protection must be provided in _______ directions, at least the dstance prescribed in the table.
question
Dispatcher, warning
answer
Rule 161-A states that if overunning an Authority, notify the train ____________ immedialtley and provide __________ as prescribed in the table.
question
Number, messages, initials, date
answer
The release line of a dispatcher bulletin is the last line and will contain the dispatcher bulletin _________, total number of ___________, the dispatcher's ___________, and the ________ ad time released.
question
Train dispatcher, train, 4
answer
The dispatcher bulletin is a computer generated form issued by the ________ ____________. It contains current operating instructions for the _______ addressed, as well as System and General Bulletins issued. It must be issued within ___ hours of the crew going on duty.
question
Conductor, engineer
answer
If the dispatcher bulletin does not contain the correct _________ or __________ name or ID number, notify the train dispatcher.
question
Flash Flood warning
answer
Form F covers _________ ________.
question
Heat warning
answer
Form H covers ________ _________.
question
Malfunctioning Auto Road Crossing
answer
Form M covers _____________ ________ __________.
question
Superseding part
answer
Form P covers __________ ___________ of a dispatcher message.
question
Block Signal
answer
Form U covers temporarily suspending _________ ________ system rules.
question
Speed Restrictions
answer
Form V covers providing for temporary __________ __________.
question
Conditional stop
answer
Form W covers a _________ ________ in work limits.
question
Out, Service
answer
Form T covers track that is ________ of ________.
question
Track Protection
answer
Form Z covers a _________ _________ .
question
Movements
answer
Form EC-1 is used to record specific instructions regarding ___________ on controlled tracks.
question
Number, Train, Engine, Employee
answer
A form EC-1 will be copied in duplicate and will include the EC-1 form ________, date, location, ________ ID, ________ number, and the name of the __________ copying.
question
Same, date, time, initials
answer
A form EC-1 may be cancelled using the ______ form, and must include the cancellation _____ and _____, as well as the dispatchers _________ .
question
One
answer
Rule 251 relates to track signaled in _____ direction.
question
Both
answer
Rule 261 relates to track signaled in _____ directions.
question
Dispatcher bulletin, release form
answer
Before occupying a main track, signaled track, or siding, employees must receive a ___________ __________ and a ___________ _________.
question
Directional, Speed
answer
The two basic types of signal systems on railroads are _________, and _________.
question
Color Light, Position Light, Color Position Light
answer
The three types of signal units used on CSXT are: _______ _________, ________ ________, and ________ _________ ______.
question
Intermediate
answer
A signal with any type of marker plate is an ___________ signal.
question
Absolute, Intermediate
answer
Th two main types of block signals are ____________ and ____________.
question
Stop
answer
An absolute signal conveys ______ as it's most restrictive speed.
question
Proceed at Restricted Speed
answer
An intermediate signal conveys ______ as it's most restrictive speed.
question
Stop
answer
Arm swung at a right angle to the track.
question
Reduce Speed
answer
Slight horizontal movement at arm's length at right angle to the track.
question
Proceed
answer
Arm raised and lowered vertically.
question
Back up
answer
Arm swung vertically in a circle towards the face at right to the track.
question
Apply air brakes
answer
Arm swung horizontally above the head at a right angle to the track. (When equipment is standing)
question
Release air brakes
answer
Arm held at arms length above the head.
question
Emergency Stop
answer
Any object waived violently by anyone on or near the track.
question
Retarder
answer
A tracking device built into the railway to reduce the speed of rail cars.
question
Coupler
answer
A device located at both end of rail cars in a standard location providing means to connect one car to another.
question
Ladder
answer
A single "lead" track with many tracks branching off to form a classification yard.
question
Interchange
answer
The transfer of rail cars from one railroad to another at a common junction point.
question
Yard
answer
A system of tracks, other than main tracks and sidings used for making up trains, storing rail cars, and other purposes.
question
Team tracks
answer
A side track subject to use by the general public with facilities for loading and unloading cars.
question
4
answer
Couple speed must never exceed ___ MPH.
question
Hump yard
answer
A switching yard with an elevated track or hump over which cars are pushed by an engine so that they travel by gravity to classification tracks.
question
Siding
answer
An auxilary track for meeting or passing trains. It is designated in special instructions in the time table.
question
Wood, concrete, and steel
answer
CSX uses three types of crossties. They are:
question
Rail anchors
answer
______ _________ are designed to prevent rail creep or run caused by temperature changes, heavy grades, and train braking which cause crosstie and switch alignment problems. These devices are clipped or bolted to the rail on each side of the crosstie.
question
Ballast
answer
The main purpose of __________ is to hold the crossties in place, prevent lateral movement, increase drainage, and spread out the load underneath the crosstie.
question
Steel tie plates
answer
_______ ____ ________ are placed between te rail and the crosstie to increase crosstie life by spreading the load on the rail over a large enough area to prevent the rail from crushing and cutting into the crosstie.
question
Spikes
answer
________ are driven into the crossties to keep the rail from lying on it's side or turning over, and for securing the tie plates to the crossties.
question
Bolted, continuosly welded
answer
The two types of rail are _________ and __________ __________.
question
Ball, Web, Base
answer
The three parts of a rail are the ______, ____, and ______.
question
4 feet, 8 and 1/2 inches
answer
Track guage is the inside distance between the rails and measures:
question
Turnout
answer
A ______________ diverts rail equipment from one track to another.
question
Switch
answer
A _________ is a device consisting of two movable rails , necessary connection, and operating parts designed to turn rail equipment from the track on which it is moving to another track.
question
Derail
answer
A ________ is a track safety device designed to guide the wheels of rolling stock off of the rails as a means of protection against collisons or other accidents.
question
Frog
answer
A ______ is a device made of rail components and assembled to permit the wheels on one rail of track to cross over another rail of intersecting track.
question
Crossover
answer
A _________ is two turnouts (switches) with the track between their frogs arranged to form continuous passage between to nearby and generally parellel tracks.
question
Railroad crossing
answer
A _________ _______ is the point where two railroad tracks intersect.
question
Conductor, Yard Foreman
answer
A ____________ is a train service employee in charge of the train or yard crew. Called a __________ __________ when working in the yard.
question
Trainmaster
answer
A _____________ is a supervisor who controls train operation within a specific area.
question
Yardmaster
answer
A _____________ is the person responsible for control of trains operating within a yard.
question
Yard Limits
answer
______ _______ is a portion of main track designated by special instructions, Yard limits are identified by signs.
question
CSX Safeway
answer
RUle GS-1 states that all employees have a copy of ____ _________ accessible while on duty.
question
Job Briefing
answer
A ___ ________ should discuss the sequence of steps, identify hazards, to make sure everyone understands, and should be followed up as needed.
question
Pinch points
answer
When working with tools, you must be careful of _________ _________ .
question
Walkways, handholds, railings
answer
When available, always use designated __________, _________, and __________.
question
30, 10
answer
The minimum distance you must stand from switches and derails associated with a passing train is ___ feet, and during switching operations is ___ feet.
question
25, 50
answer
Unless you have 3 step protection, do not cross within ___ feet of a standing train, or ___ feet between cars.
question
3 Step protection
answer
Before fouling equipment with a controlled locomotive, you must obtain __ _____ _________.
question
Brake
answer
To determine the A and B end on a rail car, the end with the ________ is the B end.
question
B End
answer
When facing the __ ____ of the rail car, the right side is identified as the R side, and the left as the L side.
question
Wheel
answer
A journal on a rail car is the same as a ___________.
question
X, Z, U
answer
You can determine who owns a rail car, read the last letter of the car initial. __= Private Car, __= Trailer, and __= Container.
question
B, C, H
answer
Plate __ cars are the smallest cars in service and can run anywhere in North America. Plate __ cars do not need clearance authorization. Plate __ cars have height restrictions.
question
Friction, Cushioned
answer
A _________ draft gear car has a standard shock absorbing unit, while a _________ underframe car has additional shock absorbers built into the frame.
question
Bulkhead
answer
A ___________ is a moving partition used to secure lading.
question
Seals
answer
_________ are used to protect the integrity of the shipment loaded in car.
question
Classification
answer
The act of putting cars together going to a common destination is called __________.
question
Doubling, Double Over
answer
Picking up a cut of cars from one location and coupling them to a cut of cars from another location is called ___________, or to __________ _______.
question
Spot
answer
A ______ is a specific location at a customers siding.
question
Switching
answer
The act of sorting or grouping cars is called ___________.
question
Coupling, Moving
answer
Before _________ to or __________ cars that are being loaded or unloaded, notify persons in, on, or around the cars.
question
Removed, Cleared
answer
Before cars are coupled or moved, gang planks, spouts, conveyors, and hose connections must be __________ and _________.
question
Running
answer
The practice of making a __________ switch is prohibited.
question
Static, Gravity
answer
A ________ drop is when the hand brake is released on standing cars and _________ provides the energy to move cars past the standing engine on another track.
question
1, 2, 2
answer
How many hand brakes must be applied for one car ____, two cars ____, three or more cars ____ plus as many as needed to secure the cars.
question
Alignment, Normal
answer
When switching, always check the _________ of the switch and make sure the derails are in the ________ position.
question
Route, properly, lever
answer
Employees lining switches must ascertain that the ________ is lined for movemet, the switch points fit _________, and the switch _______ is secure.
question
Fast walk
answer
When kicking cars, you must not hold on to the uncoupling lever at ay speed faste than a ______ ______.
question
Good Faith Challenge
answer
An employee has the right to challenge any directive that he feels is unsafe. This is called a ______ _______ __________.
question
Stretch
answer
When coupling cars ________ the slack if necessary to ensure that cars are coupled.
question
Secured, Gates
answer
Cars must be ________ before coupling to prevent them from rolling away when standing on a grade, near the ends of tracks, derails, ______, public crossings.
question
Passenger
answer
_________ or camp cars must never be kicked.
question
brakes, locomotives.
answer
Hand ________ must be applied to all ___________ left unattended.
question
Normal
answer
Switches and derails must be lined in the ________ position, except whe changed for immediate movement.
question
Operator
answer
A remote control _________ is an employee who has control of remote control locomotice or platform. (RCO)
question
Foreman
answer
A remote control operator who is in charge of a remote control crew is called a remote control operating _______. (RCOF)
question
Control
answer
An operator ________ unit is a device through which a remotely controlled locomotive or platform is operated.
question
Zone
answer
When activated, a designated portion of track may operate without protection on the leading end movements. This is known as a Remote Control ______. (RCZ)
question
Operator
answer
Before being authorized to enter an Activated Remote Control Zone (RCZ), employees must get permission from the Remote Control ____________ Foreman.
question
Shove Lights, shoving
answer
Unless protected by ________ _________ or other technological means, ___________ or pushing movements must be protected by a crew member.
question
Conflicting, lined, road, sufficient
answer
After strecthing the slack, provide point protection and make positive visual determination that there are no _________ movements, intervening switches and derails are properly _________, no intervening ______ crossings, and that there is _________ room in thetrack for the cars being shoved.
question
RFNOCOM
answer
Which EOT/HTD message is not considered a failure message.
question
30, 2
answer
When a telemetry device fails en route, you must not exceed ___ MPH, or move on a grade of __ % or more.
question
6
answer
Air brake cylinder piston travel on truck mounted brakes must not exceed __ inches, or it will be considered inoperative.
question
Cut out, set, 4
answer
When you have an overheated bearing on a car, you must ______ ____ the brakes, ____ the car out ASAP, and not exceed __ MPH.
question
Front
answer
On your way into the terminal the dispatcher asks you to pick up 30 loaded hopper cars. Where do you put these in your train if your train has all empty cars?
question
25
answer
When handling CSX engineering equipment on your train, do not exceed ___ MPH unless otherwise instructed.
question
50
answer
When handling air dump cars not listed in rule 4556, do not exceed ___ MPH.
question
50
answer
What is your maximum speed when handling a loaded coal train?
question
Freight Train Speed
answer
At what speed can a locomotive consist without cars travel?
question
Train Documentation
answer
A computer generated document consiting of some or all of the following: Tonnage Graph, CT-168, Restricted & Special Handling report, CBI Instructions, HAZMAT Radio WayBill form, HAZMAT handling instructions is called CSX ________ ___________.
question
Writing, Repeated
answer
A Mandatory Directive must be recorded in ___________ and must be __________.
question
Radio Waybill
answer
On what form do you write down shipping information received orally?
question
NI, NT
answer
Which two work instruction exception codes do not require reason codes? _ _ and _ _ .
question
Load, Axle
answer
Which two items on a tonnage graph are the most important? _____ status, and ____ count.
question
Station Listing Diagram Chart
answer
Whic publication gives authority for movement information?
question
15
answer
How many locomotives may travel in a consist with no cars or only a caboose or shoving platform?
question
12
answer
Maximum amount of locomotives allowed with cars?
question
8
answer
Maximum amount of locomotives on an industrial track or spur?
question
Buff
answer
Slack in a state of compression is called?
question
Railroad, Customer
answer
Two forms of acceptable shipping papers are ________ docs, or ___________ documents.
question
6
answer
HazMat cars must never be nearer than the __th car from the engine.
question
50, 250
answer
A safety stop must be completed between __ feet and ___ feet.
question
Work Force
answer
Rule 89 covers ______ _______ limits.
question
Support
answer
The 6 basic yard types are Flat Switch, Hump, Receiving, Storage, _________, and Departure.
question
30
answer
When a defect detector announces that there is a problem with your train but no defects are found, the train may not exceed __ MPH until it reaches the next defect detector.
question
PK
answer
Work order instructions covering picking up a car not in industry is code __.
question
15
answer
The speed thru a switch to and from the main track may not exceed __ MPH.
question
10
answer
The speed thru a switch other than to and from the main track is __ MPH.
question
CT-168
answer
A form to record HazMat car location changes is a __-____.
question
Blocking
answer
The assembling of cars of cars in groups going to the same location is called _________.
question
Switch
answer
A device for moving trains from one track to another is called a ________ or a turnout.
Civil Engineering
Conjunction
Hand
Limits
GCOR Study EXAM – Flashcards 267 terms

Maisie Clarke
267 terms
Preview
GCOR Study EXAM – Flashcards
question
What main track authorities apply to centralized traffic control (CTC) territory?
answer
Authority to enter CTC limits
question
What main track authorities apply to manual interlockings?
answer
Verbal authority from the control operator or a controlled signal indicates proceed.
question
Define absolute signal.
answer
A block or interlocking signal without a number plate, or designated by an "A" marker.
question
Define automatic block system (ABS).
answer
A series of consecutive blocks governed by block signals, cab signals, or both. The signals are activated by a train or by certain conditions that affect the block use.
question
Define block.
answer
A length of track: -between consecutive block signals -between a block signal and the end of the block system limits, or -in ATC limits the use of which is governed by cab signals and/or block signals
question
Define block signal.
answer
A fixed signal at the entrance of a block that governs trains entering and using that block.
question
Define block system.
answer
A block or series of consecutive blocks within ABS, ACS, CTC, or interlocking limits.
question
Define centralized traffic control (CTC).
answer
A block system that uses block signal indications to authorize train movements.
question
Define control point.
answer
The location of absolute signals controlled by a control operator.
question
Define current of traffic.
answer
The movement of trains in one direction on a main track, as specified by the rules.
question
Define double track.
answer
Two main tracks where the current of traffic on one track is in a specified direction and in the opposite direction on the other.
question
Define general track bulletin.
answer
A notice containing track bulletin restrictions and other conditions affecting train movement.
question
Define interlocking.
answer
Signal appliances that are interconnected so that each of their movements follows the other in proper sequence. May be operated manually or automatically.
question
Define main track.
answer
A track extending through yards and between stations that must not be occupied without authority or protection.
question
Define multiple main tracks.
answer
Two or more main tracks that are used according to the timetable.
question
Define proceed indication.
answer
Any block signal that allows a train to proceed without stopping.
question
Define track warrant control (TWC).
answer
A method to authorize train movements or protect men or machines on a main track within specified limits in a territory designated by the timetable.
question
Define trackside warning detector.
answer
A device that indicates conditions such as overheated journals, dragging equipment, excess dimensions, shifted loads, high water, or slides.
question
Define yard.
answer
A system of tracks, other than main tracks and sidings, used for making up trains, storing cars, and other purposes.
question
Define yard limits
answer
A portion of main track designated by yard limit signs and timetable special instructions or a track bulletin.
question
What is the most important element in performing job duties?
answer
Safety.
question
Who can issue or cancel a general order?
answer
The designated manager.
question
What information is contained in general orders?
answer
The information and instructions related to rules or operating practices.
question
How are general orders used?
answer
They replace any rule, special instruction, or regulation that conflicts with them.
question
What is rule 1.3.3?
answer
Inspection of freight cars.
question
What must cars be checked for during a safety inspection?
answer
Leaning, sagging, improper truck position, object hanging or dragging, objects extending from the side, insecurely attached doors, broken or missing safety appliances, contents leaking, insecure coupling devices, overheard journals or wheels, broken or cracked wheels, brakes that fail to release, or any other apparent hazard that could cause an accident.
question
Who is responsible for the safety and protection of the train?
answer
The conductor and engineer.
question
What must the conductor remind the engineer of?
answer
Limits of authority, track warrants, track bulletins, and radio speed restrictions.
question
When must the conductor inform an engineer of an upcoming restriction along their route?
answer
After the train passes the last station before, but at least two miles from the restriction.
question
True or false: Crew members can use binoculars to determine the position, aspect, or indication displayed by a fixed signal.
answer
False
question
When mobile and transmitting or acknowledging a radio communication, what identification is required?
answer
Name or initials of railroad and train number, engine number, or words that identify the precise mobile unit.
question
When may fixed and mobile units use short identification while communicating by radio?
answer
After making positive identification for switching, classification, and similar operations within a yard.
question
What are examples of mandatory directives?
answer
Track warrants, track bulletins, DTC authority, track and time, track permits, and radio speed restrictions.
question
True or false: A mandatory directive restricts a train's movement will not be issued near a point where the restriction applies until the engineer or conductor confirms that the train can comply with the restriction.
answer
True.
question
When can you indicate "void" on a mandatory directive form?
answer
When employee reports clear of authority limits or mandatory directive is made void.
question
How long must crew retain mandatory directives, including those that have been voided?
answer
For continuous tour of duty, or as instructed by train dispatcher.
question
Before a mandatory directive is acted upon, what must occur?
answer
The conductor and engineer must each have a written copy of the mandatory directive, and each crew member must read and understand it.
question
If the person who is giving the signal to shove a train disappears, or the light being used disappears, what must employees do?
answer
Stop movement, unless the employee on the leading car controls the air brakes.
question
True or false: Any object waived violently by any person on or near the track is a signal to stop.
answer
True.
question
When radio communication is used for shoving movement, what information must be specified to the engineer?
answer
The direction and distance, and distance must be specified when distance is more than four cars.
question
When using radio communication to make a shove, when must movement be stopped unless additional instructions are received by the engineer?
answer
Half the distance specified.
question
What aspect is used to indicate a temporary speed restriction?
answer
A yellow flag.
question
Yellow-red flags are used to indicate what?
answer
That a train may be required to stop.
question
When flags are not displayed to indicate temporary speed restrictions, where will information on such restrictions be found?
answer
In the track bulletin, track warrant, or general order.
question
What documents may restrict or stop trains because of track conditions, structures, or men or equipment?
answer
Track bulletins, track warrants, or general orders.
question
To indicate a restricted area, where must yellow flags be displayed?
answer
Two miles ahead of the restricted area.
question
What must occur once the train reaches a restricted area indicated by a yellow flag?
answer
Train can proceed at the speed specified by the track warrant, track bulletin, general orders, or radio speed restriction.
question
When operating within a restricted area, as indicated by a yellow flag, when can the train resume train speed?
answer
When the rear of the train clears the restricted area.
question
When a yellow flag is displayed, but the restriction is not specified by a track warrant, track bulletin, or general orders, what must the crew do?
answer
Once the train is two miles beyond the yellow flag, crew may proceed at a speed not exceeding 10 MPH. Crew can only resume speed after the rear of the train has passed a green flag, or traveled four miles beyond the yellow flag and the dispatcher has verified that no bulletin or warrant is in effect at that location.
question
Describe the CLEAR aspect.
answer
Solid green or solid green over solid red.
question
Describe the APPROACH LIMITED aspect.
answer
Solid yellow over flashing green.
question
Describe the ADVANCE APPROACH aspect.
answer
Solid yellow over solid green or solid yellow over solid green over solid red.
question
Describe the APPROACH MEDIUM aspect.
answer
Flashing yellow or flashing yellow over solid red.
question
Describe the APPROACH RESTRICTING aspect.
answer
Solid yellow over lunar or solid yellow over lunar over solid red.
question
Describe the APPROACH aspect.
answer
Solid yellow or solid yellow over solid red.
question
Describe the DIVERGING CLEAR aspect.
answer
Solid red over solid green or solid red over solid green over solid red.
question
Describe the DIVERGING APPROACH DIVERGING aspect.
answer
Solid red over solid yellow over solid yellow.
question
Describe the DIVERGING APPROACH MEDIUM aspect.
answer
Solid red over flashing yellow or solid red over flashing yellow over solid red.
question
Describe the DIVERGING APPROACH aspect.
answer
Solid red over solid yellow or solid red over solid yellow over solid red.
question
Describe the RESTRICTING aspect.
answer
Flashing red or solid red over flashing red.
question
Describe the STOP AND PROCEED aspect.
answer
Solid red (with a number plate) or solid red over solid red (with a number plate).
question
Describe the STOP aspect.
answer
Solid red (without a number plate) or solid red over solid red (without a number plate).
question
When will a Maintenance of Way employee display yellow-red flags?
answer
One hour before the track bulletin Form B takes effect until one hour after it expires.
question
True or false: The display of yellow-red flags extends the authorized working time beyond the times listed on the track bulletin form B.
answer
False.
question
When a yellow-red flag is displayed and the restriction is not specified by a track bulletin, track warrant, or general order, what must crew members do?
answer
Be prepared to stop short of a red flag two miles beyond the yellow-red flag.
question
If no red flag is displayed following a yellow-red flag, what must the crew members do?
answer
Move at restricted speed. Increase speed only after a crew member has received instructions for the employee in charge of the restriction, or the leading wheels of movement are four miles beyond the yellow-red flag, and the train dispatcher has verified that no track bulletin or track warrant protecting men or equipment is in effect at that location.
question
What must trains do when a red flag or red light is displayed?
answer
Stop, short of the red flag or red light an not proceed unless the employee in charge gives instructions, including the milepost location of the red flag or red light.
question
True or false: In red flag restricted areas, if instructions to proceed are provided by the employee in charge before the train stops, the train may pass the red flag or red light without stopping.
answer
True.
question
What must a train do when it approaches an unattended fusee burning on or near its track?
answer
The train must stop consistent with good train handling. After stopping, the train must proceed at restricted speed for one mile beyond the fusee.
question
When should the engine bell be rung?
answer
Before moving, except when making momentary stop and start switching movements, as a warning signal any time it is necessary, when approaching men or equipment on or near the track, when whistle signal (7) is required, and when approaching public crossing at grade with the engine in front.
question
When may the whistle be used?
answer
At any time as a warning regardless of any whistle prohibitions.
question
Other forms of communications may be used in place of whistle signals, except under which signals?
answer
When persons or livestock are on the track at other than road crossing at grade (1), when approaching public crossings at grade with the engine in front (7), and when approaching men or equipment on or near the track (8).
question
What is the indication of a CLEAR aspect?
answer
Proceed.
question
What is the indication of an APPROACH LIMITED aspect?
answer
Proceed prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 60 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.
question
What is the indication of an APPROACH LIMITED aspect?
answer
Proceed prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 50 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.
question
What is the indication of an APPROACH MEDIUM aspect?
answer
Proceed prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 40 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.
question
What is the indication of an APPROACH RESTRICTING aspect?
answer
Proceed prepared to pass next signal at restricted speed.
question
What is the indication of an APPROACH aspect?
answer
Proceed prepared to stop at the next signal. Trains exceeding 30 MPH immediately reduce to that speed.
question
What is the indication of a DIVERGING CLEAR aspect?
answer
Proceed prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed through turnout.
question
What is the indication of a DIVERGING APPROACH DIVERGING aspect?
answer
Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to advance on diverging route at the next signal not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout.
question
What is the indication of a DIVERGING APPROACH MEDIUM aspect?
answer
Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 35 MPH.
question
What is the indication of a DIVERGING APPROACH aspect?
answer
Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to stop at next signal. If exceeding 30 MPH, immediately reduce to that speed.
question
What is the indication of a RESTRICTING aspect?
answer
Proceed at restricted speed.
question
What is the indication of a STOP AND PROCEED aspect?
answer
Stop, then proceed at restricted speed.
question
What is the indication of a STOP aspect?
answer
Stop.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Yellow over flashing green?
answer
APPROACH LIMITED -- Proceed prepared to pass the next signal not exceeding 60 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Yellow over green or yellow over green over red?
answer
ADVANCE APPROACH -- Proceed prepared to pass the next signal not exceeding 50 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Flashing yellow or flashing yellow over red?
answer
APPROACH MEDIUM -- Proceed prepared to pass the next signal not exceeding 40 MPH and be prepared to enter diverging route at prescribed speed.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Yellow over lunar?
answer
APPROACH RESTRICTING -- Proceed prepared to pass the next signal at restricted speed.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Yellow of yellow over red?
answer
APPROACH --- Proceed prepared to stop at the next signal, trains exceeding 30 MPH immediately reduce to that speed.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red over green?
answer
DIVERGING CLEAR -- Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red over yellow over yellow?
answer
DIVERGING APPROACH DIVERGING -- Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to advance on diverging route at the next signal not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red over flashing yellow or red over flashing yellow over red?
answer
DIVERGING APPROACH MEDIUM -- Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout prepared to pass next signal not exceeding 35 MPH.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red over yellow or red over red over yellow?
answer
DIVERGING APPROACH -- Proceed on diverging route not exceeding prescribed speed through turnout; approach next signal preparing to stop, if exceeding 30 MPH, immediately reduce to that speed.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Flashing red or red with a "G" and a marker plate?
answer
RESTRICTING -- Proceed at restricted speed.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red with a number plate?
answer
STOP AND PROCEED -- Stop and proceed at restricted speed.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Red or red over red?
answer
STOP -- Stop.
question
What is the name and indication of the following signal aspect: Green.
answer
CLEAR -- Proceed.
question
Describe a whistle sound (1) and its indication.
answer
Sound: Succession of short sounds. Indication: Use when persons or livestock are on the track at other than road crossings at grade. In addition, use to warn railroad employees when an emergency exists, such as derailment. When crews on other trains hear this signal, they must stop until it is safe to proceed.
question
Describe a whistle sound (2) and its indication.
answer
Sound: - Indication: When stopped: air brakes are applied, pressure equalized.
question
Describe a whistle sound (3) and its indication.
answer
Sound: - - Indication: Release brakes. Proceed.
question
Describe a whistle sound (4) and its indication.
answer
Sound: o o Indication: Acknowledgment of any signal not otherwise provided for.
question
Describe a whistle sound (5) and its indication.
answer
Sound: o o o Indication: When stopped: back up. Acknowledgment of hand signal to back up.
question
Describe the whistle sound (6) and its indication.
answer
Sound: o o o o Indication: Request for signal to be given or repeated if not understood.
question
Describe the whistle sound (7) and its indication.
answer
Sound: - - o - Indication: When approaching public crossings at grade with the engine in front, sound signal as follows: a. At speeds in excess of 45 MPH, start signal at or about the crossing sign by not more than 1/4 mile before the crossing. b. At speeds of 45 MPH or less, start signal at least 15 seconds, but not more than 20 seconds, before entering the crossing. c. If no crossing sign, start signal at least 15 seconds, bu not more than 20 seconds before entering crossing but not more than 1/4 mile before crossing. d. If movement starts less than 1/4 mile from a crossing, signal may be sounded less than 15 seconds before the crossing when it is clearly seen traffic is not approaching the crossing, traffic is not stopped at the crossing, or when crossing gates are fully lowered.
question
Describe the whistle sound (8) and its indication.
answer
Sound: - o Indication: Approaching men or equipment on or near the track, regardless of any whistle prohibitions. After this initial warning, sound whistle signal (4) intermittently until the head end of train has passed the men or equipment.
question
What should be done if the whistle fails and no other unit can be used as the lead unit?
answer
Continue movement with the bell ringing continuously. Stop the train before each public crossing, so a crew member on the ground can provide warning until the crossing is occupied, unless: -Crossing gates are in fully lowered position. -No traffic is approaching or stopped at the crossing.
question
When crossing at a public crossing at grade, at what point must the headlight be on bright?
answer
At the crossing sign. If no sign, or if movement begins between sign and crossing, the headlight must be on bright soon enough before the crossing to provide warning.
question
What are the six situations which allow the headlight to be dimmed?
answer
1. At stations and yards where switching is being done. 2. When stopped close behind a train. 3. When stopped on the main track waiting for an approaching train. However, when stopped in block system limits, turn the headlight off at the radio request of the crew of an approaching train, until the head end of the train passes. 4. When approaching and passing the head end of a train at night. 5. At other times to permit passing of hand signals or when the safety of employees requires. 6. When left unattended on a main track in non-signaled territory.
question
When can you turn off the headlight?
answer
When the train is stopped clear of the main track or when the train is left unattended on the main track in block system limits.
question
What must be displayed to indicate the rear of the train?
answer
A marker.
question
How will trains be identified?
answer
By the initials and engine number, adding the direction when required.
question
When an engine consists of more than one unit, or when two or more engines are coupled, which unit's number will be illuminated?
answer
The first unit in the consist will be illuminated as the identifying number.
question
Under what exceptions are numbers other than the initials and engine number used to identify the train?
answer
-On track bulletins that advise about excessive dimension equipment, trains may be identified by train symbol. -On track bulletins and on track warrants that do not convey movement authority, passenger trains may be identified by the train symbol.
question
What does a blue signal signify?
answer
That workmen are on, under, or between rolling equipment.
question
On a main track, how is blue signal protection provided?
answer
A blue signal must be displayed at each end of the rolling equipment.
question
In addition to providing protection on the track, where else must blue signal protection be posted?
answer
Attached to the controlling engine and be visible to the engineer.
question
When can the engine under blue light protection be moved?
answer
When directed by the individuals who placed the blue signal protection.
question
True or false: An engine must not enter a designated engine servicing area until the blue signal protection is removed from the entrance.
answer
True.
question
When may an engine protected by blue signals be moved?
answer
When an authorized employee operates the engine under the direction of the employee in charge of workmen, the blue signal has been removed from the controlling engine to be repositioned, and workmen have been warned of the movement.
question
When a signal is improperly displayed, or a signal, flag, or sign is absent from the place it is usually shown, how should the signal be regarded? What else should be done?
answer
As displaying the most restrictive indication it can give. Promptly report improperly displayed signals or absent fixed signals.
question
What must a crew member do before initiating movement?
answer
Receive a track warrant or general track bulletin, or determine from the train dispatcher or yardmaster if any track bulletins are needed.
question
What are the different types of main track authorization?
answer
Rule 6.13 yard limits Rule 6.14 restricted limits Rule 6.15 block register territory Rule 9.14 movement with the current of traffic Rule 9.15 track permits Rule 10.1 authority to enter CTC limits Rule 14.1 authority to enter TWC limits Rule 14.6 movement against the current of traffic Rule 15.3 authorizing movement against the current of traffic Rule 15.4 protection when tracks removed from service Rule 16.1 authority to enter DTC limits At manual interlockings, verbal authority from the control operator or a controlled signal that indicates proceed. Special instructions or general order.
question
When a train receives track and time, track warrant or track permit authority join with another employee, when can train occupy the overlapping limits?
answer
After permission is received to enter the limits from the employees listed on the authority.
question
How must reverse movements on any main track, controlled siding, or any track where a block system is in effect be made?
answer
At restricted speed an only within the limits a train has authority to occupy the track.
question
What must be done before making reverse movements?
answer
Obtain permission from the train dispatcher, unless the movement is within the same signaled block.
question
When a train is advised that working limits have been established behind their train, what must be done in order to make reverse movements?
answer
Obtain permission from the employee in charge, including within the same block.
question
When cars or engines are shoved on a main track or controlled siding in the direction authorized, movement must not exceed what speed?
answer
20 MPH for freight trains.
question
When cars or engines are shoved, crew member must be in position and provide visual protection unless relieved by what?
answer
-Local instructions for tracks equipped with shove lights/cameras. -Special instructions specific to tracks involved. -Rule 6.6 (picking up crew member)
question
What are the minimum radio communication requirements that should be used during shoving movements?
answer
Direction of shove, in relationship to the front of the controlling locomotive. Distance of shove if over four car lengths 200 feet.
question
A train may back up on any main track or on any track where CTC is in effect to pick up a crew member under what conditions?
answer
1. The train dispatcher gives permission to make the movement. 2. Movement is limited to the train's authority. 3. Movement does not enter or foul a private or public crossing except as provided by rule 6.32.1. 4. Movement will not be made into or within yard limits, restricted limits, interlocking limits, drawbridges, railroad crossings at grade, or track bulletin Form B limits. 5. Movement does no exceed the train's lengths.
question
What must a train do when required to take siding?
answer
Stop clear of the switch, unless the switch is properly lined to leave the main track.
question
What must a train standing on the main track to meet an opposing train do?
answer
If possible, line the switch for for the opposing train to leave the main track. However, within ABS, do not line the switch until the opposing train has entered the block in advance.
question
How must movements entering or moving within yard limits must be made?
answer
At restricted speed, unless under a block signal indication that is more favorable than Approach.
question
Within yard limits, trains are authorized to use the main track not protecting against other trains, only after what?
answer
Obtaining a track warrant, listing all track bulletins that affect their movement.
question
When do yard limits remain in effect?
answer
Continuously unless otherwise specified by special instructions or track bulletin.
question
True or false: Movement against the current of traffic can be made within yard limits without authorization.
answer
False.
question
When yard limits fall within CTC territory, how is movement authorized on the main track?
answer
By the control operator.
question
How are restricted limits designated?
answer
By signs and in the special instructions.
question
How must movements be made within restricted limits?
answer
At restricted speed.
question
True or false: Movements within restricted limits can be made against the current of traffic with authorization or protection by track warrant, track bulletin, yardmaster, or other authorized employee.
answer
True.
question
When is flag protection not required against following trains on the same track?
answer
If train is within ABS limits and the rear of the train is protected by a least two block signals or one block signal and one distant signal. If the rear of the train is within BRT, CTC, DTC, TWC or interlocking limits. Or if general or special instructions specify that flag protection is not required.
question
What procedure must be followed when leaving a portion of a train temporarily on the main track?
answer
Set a sufficient number of hand brakes to keep the detached portion from moving. Provide protection against movements that may enter the main track between the detached portion and the returning from portion, unless dispatcher verbally relieves the protection, or the return movement is otherwise authorized. Make return movement at restricted speed.
question
When a defect or condition that might cause an accident is discovered, what must be done?
answer
The crew member must immediately notify the train dispatcher and provide protection if necessary.
question
What must occur before beginning work and when work or job conditions change?
answer
A job briefing.
question
What is three point contact? When must it be used?
answer
One hand and two feet, or one foot and two hands. It must be used when getting on or off vehicles, equipment, or machinery.
question
True or false: In an emergency, running is permitted in the performance of duty.
answer
True.
question
When should you expect the movement of trains, engines, cars or other equipment?
answer
At any time, in any direction, and on any track.
question
What must crew members do before going between or working on the end of rail equipment?
answer
Wait for movement to stop and slack to adjust, ensure that all crew members have a clear understanding of the work to be performed.
question
What is the distance required when going between uncoupled locomotives or cars?
answer
50 feet.
question
When engines may be working on both ends of a track, what must be done before working between uncoupled equipment?
answer
Red zone must be setup. Notify all members of the crew by radio that the crew member will be going between or working on the end of the rail equipment.
question
What is the radio response required when a crew member says, "RED ZONE"?
answer
"Set and centered."
question
What should be done when equipment will be ridden?
answer
Notify the engineer. Proceed only after the engineer has acknowledged that you are going to ride. Complete any couplings from the ground after the movement is stopped.
question
True or false: If track condition cannot clearly be observed because of debris, it is still OK to ride moving equipment as long as the engineer is notified.
answer
False.
question
Before a crew member installs or removes a marker, how should protection be provided?
answer
Determine by communicating with the employee at the controls of the engine that the affected equipment will not be moved. Assure at least 50 feet of separation exists between the point of installation or removal and the nearest other standing equipment.
question
What is required when crossing through a standing train or cut of cars?
answer
Cross only through cars equipped with crossover platforms. Be prepared for sudden movement and maintain a firm grip.
question
What is required when crossing through standing coupled cars?
answer
Do not step on the couple or uncoupling lever. Do not place hands, feet, or other parts of the body on the sliding sill or between the couple horn and end sill of the car.
question
When is it permissible to get on or off moving equipment?
answer
In an emergency to avoid injury.
question
Explain how to get off standing equipment.
answer
Face the equipment. Before getting off, determine that no obstructions or debris are where your feet will land.
question
Explain how to load or unload luggage, when getting on or off equipment.
answer
Wait for a co-worker to safely board and get safely on the deck or platform. Secure the item to be loaded against shifting or separating. Get a firm footing and use proper lifting techniques to pass the item to your coworker.
question
Do not operate hand brakes on moving cars. What are the two exceptions to this rule?
answer
In an emergency or if making gravity switch moves.
question
What should you do before attempting to operate a switch?
answer
Stop the train at least 50 feet away from the switch stand to be lined. Look in both directions and watch for moving equipment on adjacent tracks. Visually inspect the switch to make sure it is not damaged, locked or spiked. Verify that the switch points are not fouled by debris.
question
How should you remove debris from a fouled switch point?
answer
Use a stick to remove foreign material. Don't use hands or feet.
question
What should you do if you come across a defective switch?
answer
Remove from service immediately. Identify the switches exact location and report to the dispatcher. Attach a "bad order" tag to the switch. Spike the switch. Do not use until repaired.
question
Who can perform an inspection (rule 1.33) and air brake test?
answer
A qualified person or qualified mechanical inspector.
question
What percentage of car air brakes must be operative before leaving the initial terminal?
answer
100 percent.
question
What percentage of cars must maintain functioning air brakes en route?
answer
95 percent.
question
What should be done with cars discovered to have air brakes that fail en route?
answer
The car should be cut out.
question
How many consecutive cars can be cut out?
answer
Two.
question
What is the standard brake pipe pressure for yard or freight services?
answer
90 PSI.
question
What is the standard brake pipe pressure for trains consisting entirely of business car or passenger equipment?
answer
105 PSI
question
What can be used to determine the air brake system to be charged at the rear of the train?
answer
An accurate gauge, ETD or HTD locomotive consist.
question
How do you conduct a brake pipe leakage test using the Brake Pipe Leakage method? Nine steps.
answer
1. Charge the brake system to within 15 PSI of the regulating valve setting as indicated by a gauge or device at the rear of the train. 2. Wait for the signal to apply the brakes. 3. When you receive the signal, reduce brake pipe pressure by 20 PSI. 4. Allow the brake pipe exhaust to stop. 5. Wait 1 minute. 6. Cut out the automatic brake valve. 7. Wait an additional 1 minute for the brake pipe pressure to equalize. 8. Time the brake pipe leakage for 1 minute. If the leakage does not exceed 5 PSI, the test it complete. If the leakage exceeds 5 PSI, train must be inspected for leakage and re-tested. 9. When you receive the signal to release the brakes, move the automatic brake valve to RELEASE position and cut the automatic brake valve in.
question
Where must a Class 1 air brake test be conducted?
answer
Where the train is originally assembled.
question
When must a Class 1 air brake test be conducted?
answer
At the initial terminal. When the train consist is changed, other than adding and/or removing a car or solid block of cars, or by removing defective cars. When the train has traveled 3000 miles since its last Class 1 air brake test. Or where an interchange train is received and its consist is changed.
question
Before or during an Initial Terminal and Road Air Brake Test, what should be inspected?
answer
That the angle cocks are properly positions. That the air hoses are in condition for service and properly coupled. Inspect the system for leakage. Inspect retaining valves to verify that they are in EXHAUST.
question
How do you conduct an Initial Terminal and Road Air Brake Test (Class 1)? Five steps.
answer
1. Charge the air brake system to within 15 PSI of the locomotive regulating valve setting as indicated by a gauge or device at the rear of the train. 2. When using the preferred Air Flow Method to perform a leakage test, conduct the test as outlined in ABTH 100.9 B. If unable to perform an AFM leakage test due to equipment malfunction or availability, utilize ABTH 100.9 C, Brake Pipe Leakage Method, following step 3. 3. When proper notification is received to apply the brakes from employee conducting the test, make a 20 lb. brake pipe reduction. 4. Inspect the entire train or cars added not pre-tested to determine that: -Brakes are applied and remain applied on each car and piston travel meets requirements of ABTH 100.18 (Piston Travel) until notification is received to release. -Brake rigging does not bind or foul. -All parts of the brake equipment are properly secured. 5. When the test and inspection of the air brake application is complete and the proper notification has been received to release the brakes.
question
During a Class 1 air brake test, at what speed can a roll-by inspection be done to verify release of the brakes?
answer
Not exceeding 10 MPH.
question
What can be used to determine application and release of the air brakes on a train that has been previously tested?
answer
An ETD pressure drop and rise of 5 PSI.
question
When may a Transfer Train Movements test be used to test the air brake system on a train?
answer
When the train an yard movement will not exceed 20 miles in one direction.
question
How do you perform a Transfer Train Movements air brake test? Four steps.
answer
1. Couple brake pipe hoses between all cars. 2. Charge the brake system to at least 60 PSI as indicated by a gauge or device at the rear of the train. 3. Make a 15 PSI brake pipe reduction. 4. Verify that the brakes apply and remain applied on each car until release signal is given.
question
During a Transfer Train Movements air brake test, how many times can a car be retested? During that retest, how long must the brakes remain applied?
answer
Once. Three minutes.
question
When must an Application and Release Test (Class 3) be conducted?
answer
When any change is made to a locomotive consist. When a caboose is changed. After picking up a block of previously tested cars. When helper locomotives are added anywhere in the train or removed from other than the rear end of the train. Or when one of more consecutive cars are set out of the train.
question
What is the procedure for conducting an Application and Release air brake test (Class 3)? Two steps.
answer
1. Charge the brake system to within 15 PSI of the regulating valve setting as indicated by a gauge or device at the rear of the train. 2. Make a 20 PSI brake pipe reduction with the automatic brake valve. Verify that brake on the rear car apply and release.
question
When is a locomotive air brake test required?
answer
When making up a locomotive consist, adding locomotives to the consist, removing locomotives from a consist other than when the rear locomotive is removed, and when locomotives are rearranged in the consist.
question
What is the locomotive air brake test procedure? Ten steps.
answer
1. With the independent and automatic brake valve handles in RELEASE position, apply the independent brake. 2. After observing brakes apply on each locomotive, release the independent brakes. 3. When brakes are release on all locomotives, make a 10 PSI brake pipe reduction using the automatic brake valve. 4. After brakes apply on all locomotives, actuate and observe independent brakes release on all locomotives. 5. Reduce brake pipe pressure an additional 10 PSI with the automatic brake valve and determine all locomotive brakes reapply. 6. Cut out the automatic brake valve. 7. Observe gauges to verify that equalizing reservoir indicates no leakage and that brake pipe leakage does not exceed 5 PSI per minute. 8. Move automatic brake valve handle to RELEASE position and cut the brake valve in. 9. Determine that all brakes release. 10. Fully apply independent brakes upon successful completion of this test.
question
What is the standard air pressure of the main reservoir on a freight locomotive?
answer
120 to 140 PSI.
question
What is the standard brake pipe pressure for yard or freight service?
answer
90 PSI.
question
To the extent possible, what locomotive safety devices should you ensure are operational at all times?
answer
Alerters, automatic cab signals, automatic train stop equipment, automatic train control equipment, event recorder equipment, and locomotive camera system.
question
How do you determine which hand brakes should be applied when setting out cars on grade?
answer
With slack bunched, apply the hand brakes on the low end of the cut cars. With slack stretched, apply the hand brakes on the high end of the cut of cars.
question
What variables should be considered when determining the number of hand brakes to be applied on a cut of cars?
answer
Grade and adhesion, number of loaded and empty cars, and weather conditions.
question
How do you verify that a sufficient number of hand brakes have been applied to prevent movement?
answer
Release all air brakes.
question
True or false: When any part of a train is left standing, you should depend on the air brake system to secure the cars.
answer
False.
question
What is the procedure for detaching locomotives or locomotives and cars? Six steps.
answer
1. Secure equipment against undesired movement. 2. Release all air brakes to ensure hand brakes will prevent movement. 3. Make a 20-PSI brake pipe reduction. 4. Close angle cock on rear locomotive or last car to be detached from portion left standing. Leave angle cock open on portion left standing. 5. Allow brakes on any standing portion to apply in emergency. 6. Do not bottle air or maintain air pressure in the brake pipe when locomotives are detached or yard air is uncoupled.
question
What should you check for before moving cars or locomotives to prevent wheel damage?
answer
That all hand brakes are fully released.
question
When releasing hand brakes, how many cars past the last applied hand brake should be checked to ensure no other hand brakes are applied?
answer
Three additional cars.
question
If a hand brake is difficult to release, what can be done to make the release easier?
answer
Charge the air brake system and make a full service application of the car or locomotive before attempting to release the hand brake again.
question
What should be done if brakes are discovered to stick?
answer
Stop the train as soon as possible. Determine why the brakes are sticking. Correct the problem. If necessary, cut out the control valve or set out the car.
question
What are reasons that brakes may stick?
answer
Overcharged air brake system. Hand brakes applied. Retaining valve not in EXHAUST. Leak in the air brake system. Releasing a brake pipe reduction with brake pipe air still exhausting. An insufficient brake pipe reduction to ensure proper release.
question
What is the procedure to cut out a control valve?
answer
Close the branch pipe cutout cock. Drain the air reservoirs completely by operating the brake cylinder release valve.
question
If necessary to cutout a third consecutive car, what must be done?
answer
Separate it from the other two cars by at least one car with operative brakes.
question
True or false: The rear car of a train must have operative air brakes.
answer
True.
question
When a rear car's brakes become inoperative en route, what should be done? Five steps.
answer
1. Before moving the train, test the hand brake on the disabled car. 2. If the hand brake is inoperative, do not move the car until it is repaired and can be moved safely. 3. Chain, strap or cable the disabled rear car to the rear of the train. 4. Move the car directly to the first auxiliary track and switch it ahead of at least one car with operative brakes, or set it out. 5. If one air brake device/control valve is cut out on a car with multiple control valves, consider the brakes on that car operative.
question
Angle cocks must never be left partially closed or partially open.
answer
True.
question
What should be done before coupling air brake hoses to charge the brake pipe?
answer
1. Make a 20-PSI brake pipe reduction. If on grade, in order to prevent an undesired release of the cars being couple to, make a 40-PSI brake pipe reduction. 2. Signal that the brake valve exhaust has stopped by sounding whistle signal (2) or using the radio. 3. Couple air hoses and open angle cocks slowly to prevent an emergency brake application.
question
When adjusting air hose height, how far from the rail should the glad hand hang?
answer
Four inches.
question
How many people are needed to arm an ETD?
answer
Two.
question
How do you arm an ETD?
answer
1. Press the TEST button on the ETD, which will display the ARM NOW message on the message display window of the HTD. 2. Immediately press the COMMUNICATIONS TEST/ARM button on the HTD, which will display the ARMD message on the message display window of the HTD and light the EMERG ENABLED status LED at the same time. If NOT ARMD appears on the HTD message display, the system did not accept the arming sequence repeat steps above.
question
How do you test an ETD?
answer
1. Close the angle cock between the train and ETD. 2. Initiate an ETD emergency from the lead locomotive HTD. The brake pipe pressure on the ETD must reduce to 0 PSI. 3. Open the angle cock between the ETD and train and determine that brake pipe pressure is restored before proceeding.
question
When an ETD is properly armed, how is an emergency brake application initiated at the rear of the train?
answer
1. Lift the red cover of the EMERGENCY SWITCH located on the right side of the HTD. 2. Push the toggle switch up. 3. Verify that: a. The message EMERGENCY briefly appears in the message display window. b. The brake pipe pressure reading quickly drops to 0 PSI. c. The LOW PRES message is displayed while the last car pressure is below 45 PSI.
question
How do you identify the "B" end of cars?
answer
On cars with one hand brake, it is the end with the hand brake. On cars with more than one hand brake, it is the end with the "B" stenciled on it.
question
How do you determine the wheel or journal identification on cars?
answer
Face the "B" end of the car. From the "B" end, axles are counted from 1, closest to you.
question
In an emergency brake application, if an adjacent main track or controlled siding may be obstructed, what should be done?
answer
Warn other trains by radio, stating the exact location and status of the train and repeat as necessary. Place lighted fusees on adjacent tracks. Notify the train dispatcher or control operator and, when possible, foreign line railroads if necessary.
question
What trains are relieved of visual inspection required by an emergency brake application when it is known that the brake pipe pressure has been restored?
answer
Solid loaded bulk commodity train, any train where emergency application of the brakes occurs at a speed about 30 MPH, or any train that is 5000 tons or less.
question
If physical characteristics prevent visual inspection following an emergency brake application, what should be done?
answer
Inspect as much of the train as possible. The train may then be moved, but may not exceed 5 MPH for the distance necessary to complete the inspection. If excessive power is required to start of keep the train moving, stop immediately.
question
When a train on an adjacent track receives radio notification of an emergency brake application, how must that train pass the location specified?
answer
At restricted speed and stop short of any portion of the stopped train fouling their track.
question
When a facing point move must be made over a spring switch, what should be done?
answer
Test the spring switch.
question
When is it permissible to move against the current of traffic?
answer
With authorization by track bulletin, track warrant, or as authorized by the train dispatcher.
question
How should movements against the current of traffic approaching block and interlocking signals?
answer
Prepared to stop unless signals indicate proceed.
question
How will multiple main tracks be designated?
answer
By name and number.
question
What is restricted speed?
answer
When required to move at restricted speed, movement must be made at a speed which allows stopping within half the range of vision short of: Trains, engines, railroad cars, men or equipment fouling the track, stop signals, or derails or improperly lined switches. When a train or engine is required to move at restricted speed, the crew must keep a lookout for broken rail and not exceed 20 MPH. Comply with these requirements until the leading wheels reach a point where movement at restricted speed is no longer required.
question
What is the rule number of restricted speed?
answer
Rule 6.27
question
What is rule 6.28?
answer
Movement on other than main track.
question
When passing trains, what are crews required to do?
answer
Inspect the passing train.
question
When inspecting a passing train, what conditions should the crew notify the passing train of?
answer
Overheated journals, sticking brakes, sliding wheels, wheels not properly position on the rail, dragging equipment, insecure contents, signs of smoke or fire, headlight of marker improperly displayed, or any other dangerous condition.
question
When a train is stopped and is met or passed by another train, how should a trainman make an inspection?
answer
From the ground if it is safe. During inclement weather, the crew may remain on the locomotive.
question
Who is responsible for knowing and not exceeding the maximum authorized speed for a train?
answer
Conductors and engineers.
question
When possible, who should crew members notify of any condition that will delay a train or prevent a train from making the usual speed?
answer
The train dispatcher.
question
When cars are shoved, kicked or a gravity switch move is made over road crossings at grade, what must occur?
answer
An employee must be on the ground at the crossing to provide warning until the crossing is occupied, except when gates are fully lowered or at crossings fitted with flashing light or passive warning devices when it is clearly seen that no traffic is approaching or stopped.
question
At what speed should shoving movements over crossings at grade be made?
answer
Lower than 15 MPH.
question
When an employee observes an automatic warning device that is malfunctioning, what should be done?
answer
Report the malfunction to the train dispatcher and notify all affected trains.
question
If a clearance point is not indicated or visible, how can you determine the clearance point of a track?
answer
Stand outside the rail of the adjacent track and extend arm towards the equipment. When unable to touch the equipment, leave equipment at least an additional 50 feet into the track.
question
In what situations may equipment be left fouling an adjacent track?
answer
On a main track, fouling a siding switch when the switch is lined for the main track. On a siding, fouling a main track switch, when the switch is lined for siding. In a yard switching lead, fouling a yard track switch when the switch is line for the yard switching lead. Or on an industry track beyond the clearance point of the switch leading into the industry.
question
When are spring and dual control switches considered hand operated switches?
answer
When they are operated by hand.
question
Who is responsible for the position of the switch in use?
answer
The employee handling the switch.
question
When handling switches, what should you make sure of?
answer
The switches properly lined for the intended route. The points fit properly and the target corresponds with the intended route. When operating a switch with a latch, the handler should avoid stepping on the latch except when throwing the switch. After locking a switch, they test to ensure it is secured. The witch is not operated while equipment is fouling, standing on or moving over the switch. When equipment has entered a track, the switch to that track is not lined away until the equipment has passed the clearance point.
question
What is the normal position of a main track switch?
answer
For main track movement.
question
In what situations may a main track switch be left open?
answer
In CTC territory within track and time limits. When attended by a crew member. During switching operations. For another train or engine when the switch is attended by a member of that crew. Within ABS territory as instructed by the dispatcher. In TWC territory when authorized by track warrant.
question
What is the target color on the main track when the switch is lined in other than the normal position?
answer
Red.
question
When lining a main track switch, what is the proper place to stand while waiting for movement to pass over the switch?
answer
Go to the opposite side of the track, 150 feet from the switch, and not return until movement is complete. If that is not possible, stand at least 20 feet from the switch stand.
question
When must a spring switch be tested?
answer
When making a facing point movement over the spring switch and the block signal governing movements over the switch indicates stop, stop and proceed or restricted speed. Also if the the switch point indicator indicates stop and inspect the switch, or if the switch is not protected by a block signal or switch point indicator.
question
What is the normal position of switches connecting any track, except the main track to a siding?
answer
For the siding.
question
What is the normal position of crossover switches?
answer
For other than the crossover movement.
question
What type of switches can be run through?
answer
Spring switches or variable switches.
question
When conflicting movement is closely approaching a switch, what should not be done?
answer
The track must not be fouled, or the twitch operated.
question
If an engine or car partially runs through a switch, what should be done?
answer
Continue movement over the switch. The engine or car must not change direction over a damaged switch.
question
What should be done if a signal is absent, or a white light is displayed where a colored light should be?
answer
Regard the signal as displaying its most restrictive indication.
question
If a train overruns any block signal that requires it to stop, what must the crew do?
answer
Warn other trains at once by radio, strop the train immediately, and report it to the train dispatcher.
question
When may a train comply with the next signal's indication?
answer
When its aspect can be clearly seen and the signal governs the track where movement is occurring or will be made.
question
When is a train considered delayed in block?
answer
When it stops or its speed drops below 10 MPH.
question
What should a train do if it is delayed in block in ABS territory?
answer
Proceed at restricted speed. The train must maintain this speed until the next signal is visible, that signal displays a proceed indication, and the track to that signal is clear.
question
What should a train do if it is delayed in block in CTC or manual interlocking limits?
answer
Proceed prepared to stop at the next signal until the next signal is visible and that signal displays a proceed indication.
question
How should a train proceed when a train enters a block with no governing signal?
answer
At restricted speed until the leading wheels have passed the next governing signal of the end of the block system.
question
How should a train proceed if the previous indication is unknown?
answer
At restricted speed until the leading wheels have passed the next governing signal of the end of the block system.
question
How should movements be made if the train is moving in the opposite direction from which the block was entered?
answer
At restricted speed until the leading wheels have passed the next governing signal of the end of the block system.
question
When a signal requires movement at restricted speed and you're leaving a block system, when can the train resume maximum speed?
answer
For two miles or until leading wheels pass the opposing distant signal.
question
What should be done at a stop indication in CTC territory?
answer
A crew member must immediately contact the control operator unless within track and time limits.
question
What should be done at a stop indication at manual interlockings?
answer
A crew member must immediately contact the control operator.
question
What should be done at a stop indication at automatic interlockings?
answer
Work the box. If the signal continues to display stop indication and there is no conflicting movement, the train must move at restricted speed.
question
When may a crew member operate a dual control switch by hand?
answer
After receiving authorization from the control operator.
question
At what point should a dual control switch be put back into power?
answer
After at least one engine or car has passed over the switch points, unless otherwise instructed by the control operator.
question
What is rule 9.14?
answer
Movement with the current of traffic.
question
What is rule 9.15?
answer
Track permits.
question
What are track permits used for?
answer
Movement against the current of traffic in ABS/9.14 territory.
question
At a stop and proceed indication, what are situations that allow the train to pass the signal at restricted speed without stopping?
answer
To leave the main track when the switch is lined for movement and the track is clear from the signal to the clearance point. To continue on the main track when meeting or passing a train, and the main track is clear to the opposite end of the siding where a train is fouling the main track. To permit an engine with or without cars to coupe to its train or to a standing cut of cars, if the track between the engine and cars is clear.To enter a switch that is less than 1000 feet beyond the signal and the employee in charge of the switch has granted permission for movement. When authorized by the control operator.
question
In ABS territory, how should you enter the main track from a siding? Assume authority has already been obtained.
answer
Open the switch and wait five minutes at the switch to establish block signal protection. If at the end of the five minutes the employee does not hear or see movement, the train may enter the signaled track.
question
What are the situations that don't require a five minute wait when operating a hand operated switch? 11 exceptions.
answer
Switch is equipped with an electric lock. Track occupancy indicator indicates track is clear. Block signal governing movement to signaled track indicates proceed. Block signals governing movements on the signaled track indicates that no train is approaching from either direction. Block to be entered is occupied by a train, engine, or car that is standing or moving away from the switch to be used. Main track between siding switch is occupied by a train that has been met or a standing train that will be passed. Train is entering a main track outside of yard limits for authorized movement against the current of traffic. Rule 6.14 (restricted limits) is in effect, provided movement does not occur beyond restricted limits for five minutes after the main track circuit is fouled, unless a block signal displays a proceed indication. Track permit authorizes movement. Track warrant outside yard limits authorizes "work between" two specific points.
Conjunction
Date
Equipment
Nomenclature
3-m – Flashcard 45 terms

Patsy Brent
45 terms
Preview
3-m – Flashcard
question
Provides for efficient, uniform methods of conducting and recording preventive and corrective maintenance.
answer
3m System
question
What is the Navy's system for managing maintenance?
answer
3m
question
T or F: All navy ships use the 3m system.
answer
true
question
TF Equipment of the Naval Air Traffic control use the 3m system.
answer
true
question
TF Nuclear Propulsion Plants and Associated Equipment.
answer
false
question
TF Commander Naval Reserve Force uses 3m system.
answer
true
question
TF Fleet Ballistic Missile Systems use 3m system.
answer
false
question
overall responsibiity for ensuring ship maintenance is accomplished using the 3-m system
answer
CO
question
Ship's 3m system manager, responsible to the CO for overall management
answer
XO
question
Functional manager of the 3m system, responsible to xo for coordination, and direct supervision of all administrative facets of the ship's 3m system
answer
3m System Coordinator
question
Responsible to the department head and manages the divisional 3m program
answer
Department Head
question
Coordinates and supervises department's 3m program. Is usally an officer or po. Knowledgeable about 3m. works for dept head.
answer
Department 3m Assistant
question
Responsible for 2 or more work centers within a division.
answer
Group Center Supervisor
question
Responsible for effective operation of 3m system within the workspace
answer
Workcenter Supervisor
question
where should the 13 week report be located?
answer
work center
question
which column on the 13 week report identifies the equipment needing maintenance?
answer
mip
question
which column on the 13 week report lists the person by name responsible for performing the maintenance assignment?
answer
maintenance responsibility
question
identifies the periodicity code?
answer
mrc
question
which column on the 13 week report identifies the date the maintenance assignment was completed?
answer
date
question
which column on the 13 week report is signed by the maintenance person after completing the maintenance assignment?
answer
signature
question
who should be notified if the dates on the 13 week report are incorrect?
answer
work center supervisor
question
which symbol indicates a mandatory related maintenance action must be performed in conjunction with the current maintenance requirement?
answer
#
question
document that provides detailed procedures for performing the maintenance requirements
answer
mrc
question
document that contains a complete index of maintenance requirement cards assigned to a work center for the equipment that has pms support
answer
mip
question
document that lists all maintenance index pages assigned to a work center
answer
loep
question
record sheet indicating changes to the loep
answer
change page
question
when to accomplish the maintenance check
answer
periodicity block
question
what maintenance is to be done
answer
maintenance requirement description block
question
how to accomplish the maintenance requirement
answer
procedure block
question
resources needed to accomplish the maintenance check
answer
tools, parts, and material block
question
which block on the mrc shows the skill level recommended to complete the maintenance requirement?
answer
rates
question
identifies the mrc listed on the mip
answer
mrc number block
question
average time to perform the m. requirement
answer
man hours block
question
m. required to be accomplished concurrently.
answer
related maintenance block
question
date the loep was produced
answer
date block
question
issued periodically to update the pms program
answer
force revisions block
question
brief description of system/equipment
answer
nomenclature block
question
lists the latest FR or ACN
answer
change number block
question
shows the date of the latest change
answer
date of change block
question
shows the date the change was entered into the work center pms manual
answer
date entered block
question
displays the signature of the person who entered the change into the pms manual
answer
signature of person entering change block
question
what contains the planned m. requirements for the work center and the documents necessary to verify the m. requirements?
answer
work center pms manual
question
where is the work center pms manual located?
answer
work center
question
what do you compare the syscom mrc number on the mrc to when verifying the mrc?
answer
mip number
question
what do you compare the syscom mip control number on the mip when verifying mip?
answer
loep
Conjunction
Physiotherapy
Surgery
Modalities – Indications, Contraindications, Precautions, and Parameters – Flashcards 80 terms

Edwin Holland
80 terms
Preview
Modalities – Indications, Contraindications, Precautions, and Parameters – Flashcards
question
Indications for Cryotherapy
answer
Inflammation, Edema, Pain, Spasticity
question
Contraindications for Cryotherapy
answer
Cold hypersensitivity/intolerance, cryoglobulinemia, Raynaud's Disease, paroxymal cold HgB
question
Precautions for Cryotherapy
answer
Over superficial nerve, over wound, HTN, Poor sensation/mentation
question
Ice massage Parameters
answer
5-10 minutes (IBAAN)
question
Cold pack parameters
answer
10-20 minutes (Pain, inflammation, edema) 30 min (spacticity)
question
Vapocoolant spray
answer
2-5 swipes, 4 inch/sec, along muscle fibers and trigger point.
question
Indications for Thermotherapy
answer
Pain, Loss of ROM
question
Contraindications for Thermotherapy
answer
Heat intolerance, malignancy
question
Precautions for Thermotherapy
answer
Pregnancy, DVTs/clots, Open wounds
question
Moist hot pack parameters
answer
20 min, 6-8 layers
question
Paraffin parameters
answer
Dip 6-10 times, elevate hand, 10-15 mins
question
Traction Indications
answer
Disc bulge/herniation, nerve root impingement, joint hypomobility, subacute inflammation, paraspinal muscle spasm
question
Traction Contraindications
answer
Acute injury, joint hypermobility, peripherilization of symptoms (upon traction), uncontrolled HTN
question
Traction Precautions
answer
Structural disease of spine, severe pain fully resolves, claustrophobia, medial disc protrusion
question
Cervical Traction Parameters
answer
Initial: 7-9 lbs, static, 5-10 Joint distraction (facet pain): 20-29 lbs, 15 on/15 seconds off for 20-30 minutes Decrease muscle spasm: 11-15 lbs, 5/5, 20-30 minutes Disc Problem/Tissue stretch: 11-15 lbs, 60/20, 20-30 minutes
question
Lumbar Traction Parameters
answer
Initial: 29-44 lbs, static, 5-10 minutes Joint Distraction: 55 lbs, 15 seconds on/ 15 off, 20-30 minutes Decrease muscle spasm: 25% BW, 5/5, 20-30 minutes Disc problem/Tissue stretch: 25% BW, 60/20, 20-30 minutes
question
Compression Indications
answer
Edema, prevent DVT, Venous stasis ulcers, residual limb shaping, control hypertrophic scarring
question
Compression Contraindications
answer
Heart failure, acute DVT, severe PAD, acute trauma, obstructed venous return
question
Compression Precautions
answer
Impaired sensation/mentation, uncontrolled HTN, cancer, stroke, superficial peripheral nerves
question
Compression for Edema/DVT/VSU parameters
answer
3:1, 30-60 mmHg (UE), 40-80 mmHg (LE), 2-3 hours, 1-2 times per day
question
Compression for Residual Limb Shaping
answer
4:1, 30-60 mmHg (UE), 40-80 mmHg (LE), 2-3 hours, 1-2 times per day
question
Compression for Lymphedema
answer
4:1, 40 mmHg 1-2 hours, once per day
question
Indications for Ultrasound
answer
Soft tissue contractures (C), pain (C), dermal ulcers (P), incisions (P), tendon/ligament injuries (C-chronic, P-acute), Absorb Ca++ deposits (P), Bone fx (P), Carpal tunnel (P)
question
Contraindications for Ultrasound
answer
Malignancy, pregnancy, CNS tissue, joint cement, clot, pacemaker
question
Precautions for Ultrasound
answer
Acute inflammation, epiphyseal plates, fxs, breast implants
question
Parameters for Ultrasound
answer
Duty cycle: continuous (thermal) vs. pulsed (non-thermal Frequency: 1 HMz (deep) vs. 3 MHz (superficial) Intensity: 1.5-2.0 W/cm2 (thermal) vs. 0.5-1.0 W/cm2 (non-thermal) Time: 8-10 minutes
question
Indications for Laser
answer
Tissue healing (soft/bone), arthritis, lymphedema, carpal tunnel, diabetic neuropathy (anodyne), pain
question
Contraindications for Laser
answer
Eyes, malignancy, within 4-6 months of Chemo, hemorrhages, over endocrine glands
question
Precautions for Laser
answer
Pregnancy, epiphyseal plates, impaired sensation/mentation, meds that increase photosensitivity
question
Parameters for Laser
answer
Use guidlines provided to determine intensity and time Don't move laser Repeat dose to areas 1 inch apart
question
Parameters for Anodyne
answer
Intensity: 6-8 bars 30-35 minutes (diabetic neuropathy)
question
Indications for Infrared
answer
Pain, Increase ROM, Decrease joint stiffness, Increase healing, Psoriasis
question
Contraindications for Infrared
answer
Recent hemorrhage, clot, impaired sensation/mentation, malignancy, eyes
question
Precautions for Infrared
answer
Acute Inflammation, pregnancy, impaired circulation, edema, open wounds
question
Parameters for Infrared
answer
Allow lamp to warm up 5-10 minutes Lamp perpendicular and 45-60 cm away from treatment area 15-30 minutes
question
Indications for Thermal Diathermy
answer
Pain, Joint Control
question
Indications for Non-thermal Diathermy
answer
Pain, edema, soft tissue healing, treat symptoms of OA
question
Contraindications for Thermal Diathermy
answer
Pacemaker, pregnancy, metal, malignancy, eyes, reproductive organs, epiphyseal plates
question
Contraindications for Non-Thermal Diathermy
answer
Pacemaker, pregnancy, internal organs
question
Precautions for Thermal Diathermy
answer
Near electronics/magnets, obesity, intrauterine conraceptives
question
Precautions for Non-Thermal Diathermy
answer
Near electronics/magnets, obesity, intrauterine conraceptives, Epiphyseal plates, pregnancy
question
Parameters for SWD (Thermal) Diathermy
answer
Frequency: 27.12 MHz Applicator: Inductive coil/capacitative plate Intensity: mild warmth Time: 20 minutes
question
Indications for UV
answer
Psoriasis, wound healing (UVC), Vitamin D deficiency
question
Contraindications for UV
answer
Eyes, Skin cancer, systemic conditions (TB, SLE, etc.)
question
Precautions for UV
answer
Photosensitizing meds, photosensitivity, recent x-ray therapy, do not repeat the dose
question
Parameter for UV
answer
Determine MED (Time period) Time: 5o% MED --> 250% MED MED will increase 10-50% each time
question
Indications for Whirlpool
answer
Cold: Inflammation Tepid: medium for exercise Warm: wounds, cardiac/circulatory tissues, sensory tissue Hot: Pain, increase ROM
question
Contraindicatons for Whirlpool
answer
Maceration, bleeding, MS, DVT, Cancer
question
Precautions for Whirlpool
answer
Impaired sensation/mentation, confusion
question
Parameters for Whirlpool
answer
Get water to desired temperature, place agitator in desired position Time: 10-30 minutes
question
Indications for TENS
answer
Pain (chronic), muscle inflammation, arthritis, cervical myofascial pain, CRPS, neuropathic pain, fibromyalgia
question
Contraindications for TENS
answer
Pacemaker, arrhythmia, carotid sinus, clots, pregnancy
question
Precautions for TENS
answer
Cardiac disease, impaired sensation/mentation, malignancy, open wounds, skin irritation
question
Parameters for Conventional TENS
answer
Frequency: 100-150 pps Duration 50-80 us Amplitude: To tingling Time: 24 hours Theory: Gate theory
question
Parameters for Acupuncture TENS
answer
Frequency: 2-10 pps Duration: 50-80 us Amplitude: to visible contraction Time: 20-30 minutes Theory: Opiate Theory
question
Parameters for Burst TENS
answer
Frequency: Preset 10 bursts Duration: 100-150 us Amplitude: to visible contraction Time: 20-30 minutes Theory: Opiate receptor
question
Indications for IFC
answer
Pain (acute), LBP, OA, Post-op knee, Urinary incontinence, TP
question
Contraindications for IFC
answer
Pacemakers, bleeding, pregnancy, carotid sinus, clots
question
Precautions for IFC
answer
Cardiac disease, impaired sensation/mentation, malignancy, open wounds, skin irritation, chronic corticosteroids, keep distance between electrodes
question
Parameters for IFC
answer
20-220 Hz: Pain Relief 10-20 Hz: increase blood flow and skin temp 30-50 Hz: Tetanic contraction of muscle
question
Indications for NMES
answer
ACL Repair, Weakness (joint pain, effusion), OA/RA, TKA, peripheral n. injury, Bell's injury, CVA, SCI, COPD, incontinence
question
Contraindications for NMES
answer
Where motion is contraindicated, pacemaker, implanted stimulators, directly over metal implants, bleeding, malignancy, disorientation, pregnancy, carotid sinus
question
Precautions for NMES
answer
Open wounds, extreme edema, heavy scarring, chronic corticosteroids
question
Parameters for NMES
answer
Frequency: small msucle (20-35 pps); large muscle (35-50 pps) Duration: small muscle (150-200 us); large muscle (200-300 us) Amplitude: at least 10% of MVIC (50% to build strength) On/Off: Increase strength (5:1); decrease muscle spasm/edema (1:1) Ramp time: Gait (none), exercises (1-4 sec), CVA (4-8 sec)
question
Indications for Russian
answer
Post-knee ligament surgery, post-arthroscopic surgery, ACL repair
question
Contraindications for Russian
answer
Carotid sinus, transthoracic, transcranial, pregnancy, pacemaker, severely impaired sensation
question
Precautions for Russian
answer
Areas of skin damage, impaired cognition, near functioning diathermy
question
Parameters for Russian
answer
Frequency: 50 burst per second On/Off: 10/50 to strengthen 10 contractions for 10 sec with 50 sec rest time
question
Indications for Microcurrents
answer
Wound healing
question
Contraindications for Microcurrents
answer
Pacemaker, neoplastic region, osteomyelitis
question
Precautions for Microcurrents
answer
Anterior cervical, hemorrhagic region, follow infection control practice
question
Parameters for Microcurrents
answer
Amplitude: 1-1000 uA (patient response) 20-120 minutes 1-4 times per day
question
Indications for Biofeedback
answer
Re-establish motor loops, sensory retraining, muscle relaxation
question
Contraindication for Biofeeback
answer
If contraction would exacerbate condition, if pt can't move joint or contract
question
Parameters for Muscle Re-ed
answer
Adjust unit to lowest thershold (uV), have pt contract and readjust threshold
question
Parameters for Muscle relaxation
answer
Adjust unit to a threshold that picks up activity
question
Indications for US/E-stim
answer
Painful muscle spasm, TP
question
Contraindications for US/E-stim
answer
Tumor, pregnancy, CNS tissue, joint cement, pacemaker, clots
question
Precautions for US/E-stim
answer
Acute inflammation, epiphyseal plates, fractures, breast implants, impaired sensation/mentation, open wounds
question
Parameters for US/E-stim
answer
Adjust setting until they feel tolerable electrical stimulation, turn ultrasound on and begin (light will turn on), use same US/E-stim parameters for each
Capitals
Conjunction
Organic Chemistry
Prepositions
Spelling And Grammar
Capitalization- Medical Transcription – Flashcards 6 terms

Stephanie Landry
6 terms
Preview
Capitalization- Medical Transcription – Flashcards
question
Use initial capital letters in eponymic terms, The common noun following the eponym is lower case.
answer
example:Down syndrome
question
Capitalize: trade names, proprietary names of drugs and brand names
answer
Example: Vaseline, Motrin, ibuprofen, paper tissue
question
Specific areas within the hospital are lowercased, as common nouns.
answer
Example: operating room, blood bank, emergency room
question
Capitalize the proper names of languages, races, religions and sects
answer
Example: Muslim religion, English language
question
Allergy information may be keyed in all capital letters in order to call attention.
answer
Example: ALLERGIC TO PENICILLIN
question
Capitalize acronyms but not the words from which they come from.
answer
Example: skilled nursing facility (SNF), intensive care unit(ICU)
Conjunction
Difficulty Falling Asleep
Pharmaceutical Sciences
Pharmacology
Pharm 59 Sedative-Hypnotic drugs – Flashcards 48 terms

Kenneth McQuaid
48 terms
Preview
Pharm 59 Sedative-Hypnotic drugs – Flashcards
question
what are the effects desired from a sedative

answer
question
What are the desired effects of a hypnotic and how does that differ from a sedative

answer
question
How can you create a hypnotic effect with most sedative drugs
answer
increase the dose of the sedative
question
Review the Dose response curve with CNS effects with older sedatives verses newer ones.

answer
Drug A older (barbiturate) Drug B newer (benzo) ceiling effect
question
Review the sedative-hypnotic drugs

answer
question
What are the most widely used anti anxiety drugs
answer
Benzos Replaced Barbiturates because they are much safer
question
Where on the GABA-a channels does GABA bind

answer
question
Where on the GABA-a channels do Benzodiazepines bind

answer
Benzodiazepines bind to a site located between an α subunit and the γ subunit Two benzodiazepine receptor subtypes commonly found in the CNS have been designated BZ1 and BZ2.
question
What type of binding do Benzos follow

answer
Allosteric they bind to different receptors than GABA which enhances the GABA effect *(potency on graph)*
question
How do benzos effect the opening of the chloride channels
answer
increase *FREQUENCY* of channel opening
question
What are the two major clinical uses for GABA agonist
answer
anxiolytic anticonvulsant
question
What is the GABA antagonist
answer
Flumazenil
question
How do Inverse Agonists of GABA effect the binding curve

answer
Negative allosteric modulators of GABA receptor function They can cause anxiety and seizures (no clinical use)
question
What are the clinical uses of Benzos

answer
question
What aspect of Benzos determine which one you will select clinically

answer
Duration of action
question
*Which benzos are long, intermediate, and short acting

answer
question
Why are Diazepam and Flurazepam such long acting drugs

answer
They are metabolized into active metabolites
question
How are most benzodiazepines metabolized

answer
Most benzodiazepines undergo phase I reactions, mainly by CYP3A4. The metabolites are then conjugated in phase II to form glucuronides that are excreted in the urine
question
Which three Benzos and are not metabolized by the P450 system

answer
Conjugated directly to their glucuronides (still in liver) Their plasma levels are not significantly affected in liver disease. Other benzodiazepines may need dose adjustment in liver disease.
question
What are the clinical uses of Diazepam

answer
question
Are benzos used for short term or long term anxiety
answer
Short term, due to dependance and minimal effect on PTSD and OCD *SSRIs* have replaced them for long term use
question
Which Bezos are best used for seizures (epileptic vs status epilepticus)

answer
question
What is the DOC for alcohol withdrawals (Delirium Tremens)

answer
question
How do you determine which benzo is used to treat sleep specific sleep disturbances

answer
Shot acting: used to help initiate sleep Long acting: used for people who keep waking up
question
How do Benzos effect REM sleep (and the other sleep stages)

answer
question
What are the three most common adverse effects of Benzos

answer
question
What is an adverse effect of benzodiazepines where they cause the opposite symptoms than expected (e.g. anxiety, hostility, rage, paranoia, and depression)

answer
*Paradoxical effects*
question
What is one of the most serious/common adverse effects of long term benzodiazepine use

answer
On of the few drugs that cause DEATH due to withdraws
question
What drug is used to treat overdose of benzodiazepines

answer
Fast acting but short duration, frequent administration may be necessary *May precipitate withdrawal in physiologically dependent patients*
question
Do Barbiturates act on the same channel as benzodiazepines? How do they effect the GABA channel

answer
Increase the *DURATION* of the GABA channel
question
Why do Barbiturates cause more adverse side effects than benzodiazepines

answer
dirty drugs that act on several receptors
question
How do Barbiturates effect the CNS

answer
question
How do Barbiturates effect respiratory system and the CYP450 enzymes

answer
Decreased respiration is the main cause of death
question
What are the two main therapeutic uses of Barbiturates and which specific drug is used for each

answer
question
How does N-phenylbarbital treat hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus
answer
induces liver CYP450 to metabolize bilirubin N-phenylbarbital is a metabolite and does not cause CNS depression
question
In which RBC disorders are barbiturates contraindication
answer
porphyria (mostly Acute Intermittent Porphyria)
question
What are some adverse effects of barbiturates

answer
question
What is a potential adverse side effect of barbiturates in terms of pain

answer
question
On which receptors do the non-benzodiazepine act
answer
BZ1 subtype of benzodiazepine receptors.
question
Zolpidem

answer
Ambien
question
Zaleplon

answer
question
Eszopiclone

answer
question
Which serotonin partial agonist is used to treat anxiety

answer
question
Advantages of Busiprone

answer
disadvantage; not as effective
question
What drug is a melatonin agonist used as a sleep aid

answer
absorbed better than melatonin supplements
question
Which anti-histamine is used to treat anxiety and is an antiemitic

answer
question
Which beta blocker is commonly used for performance anxiety

answer
question
Which antihistamines are commonly used to help with insomnia?

answer
Not effective in chronic insomnia
Conjunction
Data
Data Type
Database Systems
Matching
Set Of Instructions
Tables
Database ch 7 – Flashcards 33 terms

Sarah Adrian
33 terms
Preview
Database ch 7 – Flashcards
question
Most SQL implementations yield case-insensitive searches
answer
false
question
Although SQL commands can be grouped together on a single line, complex command sequences are best shown on separate lines, with space between the SQL command and the command's components.
answer
true
question
The special operator used to check whether an attribute value matches a given string pattern is .
answer
like
question
SQL allows the use of logical restrictions on its inquiries such as OR, AND, and NOT.
answer
true
question
The command is used with the ALTER TABLE command to modify the table by deleting a column.
answer
drop
question
In Oracle, the command is used to change the display for a column, for example, to place a $ in front of a numeric value.
answer
format
question
The COUNT function is designed to tally the number of non-null "values" of an attribute, and is often used in conjunction with the DISTINCT clause.
answer
true
question
You cannot insert a row containing a null attribute value using SQL.
answer
false
question
The COMMIT command does not permanently save all changes. In order to do that, you must use SAVE.
answer
false
question
String comparisons are made from left to right
answer
true
question
The conditional LIKE must be used in conjunction with wildcard characters.
answer
true
question
Mathematical operators cannot be used to place restrictions on character-based attributes.
answer
false
question
SQL requires the use of the ADD command to enter data into a table.
answer
false
question
To list the contents of a table, you must use the DISPLAY command.
answer
false
question
Data type selection is usually dictated by the nature of the data and by the intended use.
answer
true
question
A database language enables the user to perform complex queries designed to transform the raw data into useful information.
answer
true
question
A table can be deleted from the database by using the command.
answer
drop
question
The SQL command that allows a user to list the contents of a table is .
answer
select
question
A(n) is an alternate name given to a column or table in any SQL statement.
answer
alias
question
SQL is considered difficult to learn; its command set has a vocabulary of more than 300 words.
answer
false
question
Any changes made to the contents of a table are not physically saved on disk until you use the SAVE command.