Science Exam

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the main areas of Earth science?
a. geology c. astrology
b. oceanography d. astronomy

2. What is the study of the atmosphere and the processes that produce weather and climate?
a. oceanography c. meteorology
b. geology d. astronomy

3. The area of Earth science that examines the physical and biological changes that have occurred in Earth’s past is called
a. meteorology. c. physical geology.
b. oceanography. d. historical geology.

4. The inner planets—Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars—were formed by
a. supernovas.
b. repeated collisions of asteroid-sized debris.
c. masses of cold hydrogen and helium.
d. collisions with large galaxies.

5. According to the nebular hypothesis, our solar system formed from a huge rotating cloud made mostly of
a. carbon and hydrogen. c. oxygen and helium.
b. helium and hydrogen. d. nitrogen and oxygen.

6. The outer planets—Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune—are made up of
a. hydrogen, helium, and water.
b. iron, nickel, and carbon dioxide.
c. carbon, oxygen, and methane.
d. water, carbon dioxide, ammonia, and methane.

7. Earth’s four major spheres are the
a. hydrosphere, atmosphere, geosphere, and biosphere.
b. hydrosphere, atmosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere.
c. hydrosphere, asthenosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere.
d. hydrosphere, geosphere, lithosphere, and asthenosphere.

8. Which of Earth’s spheres includes the oceans, groundwater, lakes, and glaciers?
a. the atmosphere c. the biosphere
b. the hydrosphere d. the geosphere

9. The life-forms of the biosphere are located in the
a. geosphere only.
b. hydrosphere and atmosphere only.
c. atmosphere, hydrosphere, and geosphere.
d. hydrosphere only.

10. In Figure 1-1, what layer of Earth’s geosphere is labeled A?
a. inner core c. upper mantle
b. outer core d. crust

11. In Figure 1-1, what layer of Earth’s geosphere is labeled C?
a. crust c. lower mantle
b. upper mantle d. outer core

12. What are the three main parts of the geosphere?
a. atmosphere, crust, core
b. crust, mantle, core
c. lithosphere, mantle, core
d. asthenosphere, lithosphere, atmosphere

13. The crust and uppermost mantle make up the rigid outer layer of Earth called the
a. geosphere. c. lithosphere.
b. asthenosphere. d. lower mantle.

14. The theory of plate tectonics helps scientists explain
a. how ocean currents move over Earth’s surface.
b. why hurricanes occur.
c. how earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur.
d. why Earth’s core is less dense than the mantle.

15. What is the driving force for the movement of the lithospheric plates?
a. heat from the sun
b. unequal distribution of heat within Earth
c. heat in the atmosphere
d. unequal distribution of heat in the oceans

16. According to the plate tectonics model, what layers form Earth’s rigid, mobile plates?
a. inner and outer core c. crust only
b. upper and lower mantle d. crust and uppermost mantle

17. The distance, measured in degrees, north and south of the equator is referred to as
a. longitude. c. the prime meridian.
b. latitude. d. the poles.

18. On the global grid, the prime meridian is at
a. 0 degrees latitude. c. 0 degrees longitude.
b. 90 degrees latitude. d. 90 degrees longitude.

19. How could two points 35 degrees north of the equator—one in North America and the other in China—be distinguished using map coordinates?
a. by their elevation c. by their longitude
b. by their map projection d. by their latitude

20. Differences in elevation are best shown using a
a. Mercator projection map. c. Robinson projection map.
b. gnomonic projection map. d. topographic map.

21. A Mercator projection map shows
a. accurate directions, but has distorted sizes and distances.
b. accurate distances, sizes, and shapes, but has distortions around the edges.
c. accurate size, but has distorted distances.
d. accurate size and distances only at the center of the map.

22. Because there is only a small amount of distortion over a local area, what type of map is used for road maps and weather maps?
a. Mercator projection map c. Robinson projection map
b. conic projection map d. gnomonic projection map

23. On a topographic map, contour lines that form a circle indicate a(n)
a. lake. c. hill.
b. ocean. d. depression.

24. In Figure 1-2, what is the distance from point B to point C?
a. 4 miles c. 5 kilometers
b. 6 miles d. 4 kilometers

25. In Figure 1-2, what is the contour interval of the map?
a. 10 feet c. 100 feet
b. 50 feet d. 25 feet

26. In Figure 1-2, what is the approximate difference in elevation between point E and point D?
a. 7500 feet c. 750 feet
b. 1000 feet d. 1500 feet

27. In Figure 1-2, what is the elevation of Sugar Loaf Mountain?
a. 11,300 feet c. 1130 feet
b. 15,000 feet d. 10,000 feet

28. A map with a scale of 1:24,000 means that
a. one unit on the map is equal to 24,000 units on the ground.
b. one unit on the ground is equal to 24,000 units on the map.
c. the contour interval is 24,000 feet.
d. the contour interval changes every 24,000 feet.

29. Earth is considered a system because all of its parts
a. represent separate closed systems.
b. interact.
c. were formed at the same time.
d. are powered by the same energy source.

30. Any size group of interacting parts that form a complex whole is a(n)
a. sphere. c. tectonic plate.
b. energy source. d. system.

31. Which of the following would be one of the interacting parts in a weather system?
a. weather satellite c. clouds
b. tectonic plate d. Earth’s inner core

32. What are the two sources of energy for the Earth system?
a. lightning and the sun c. the sun and wind
b. the sun and Earth’s interior d. Earth’s interior and the winds

33. The sun’s energy drives which of the following processes?
a. volcanic eruptions c. weather and ocean circulation
b. earthquakes d. mountain building

34. Which of the following is powered by energy from Earth’s interior?
a. erosion c. weather
b. a volcano d. ocean circulation

35. Which of the following is an environmental hazard created by humans?
a. air pollution c. hurricane
b. flood d. earthquake

36. Which of the following is NOT caused by human interactions with the Earth system?
a. air pollution c. mountain building
b. water pollution d. deforestation

37. How could the building of a dam affect the Earth system?
a. A dam could cause the flooding of a nearby forest
b. A dam could destroy a fish species that needs swiftly moving water
c. A dam could block the migration of spawning fish
d. all of the above

38. Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?
a. iron c. energy from flowing water
b. petroleum d. coal

39. Resources that can be replenished over a relatively short time span are called
a. fossil fuels. c. nonrenewable resources.
b. renewable resources. d. mineral resources.

40. Which of the following is NOT an example of a nonrenewable resource?
a. solar energy c. copper
b. natural gas d. oil

41. Which of the following is NOT an example of a renewable resource?
a. cotton c. chicken
b. lumber d. iron

42. A hypothesis can become a theory if
a. it has lasted a very long time.
b. the hypothesis is tested extensively and competing hypotheses are eliminated.
c. there are no other competing hypotheses.
d. the hypothesis can be tested at least once.

43. A preliminary untested explanation that tries to explain how or why things happen in the manner observed is a scientific
a. law. c. fact.
b. theory. d. hypothesis.

44. A scientific idea that is well tested and widely accepted by the scientific community is called a scientific
a. hypothesis. c. theory.
b. inquiry. d. method.

45. In scientific inquiry, when competing hypotheses have been eliminated, a hypothesis may be elevated to the status of a scientific
a. estimate. c. theory.
b. idea. d. truth.

1. What are the three major layers of the geosphere?
core, mantle, and crust

2. What is latitude?
the distance north or south of the equator, measured in degrees

3. What do contour lines represent on a topographic map?
it indicates elevetion

4. Define the term nonrenewable resource
a resource that takes millions of years to form

5. What is the difference between a scientific hypothesis and a scientific theory?
a hypothesis is something that is test once to see if they think their is a possibility it could be true and a theory is a well tested idea that can be proven

Chapter 2 test
Chapter 2 test

1. The process of extracting a metal from its mineral ore is called
a. panning c. mining
b. smelting d. cultivating

2. When two or more elements bond together in definate proportions, they form a(n)
a. ion. c. nucleus.
b. atom. d. compound.

3. An atom that loses or gains electrons is called a(n)
a. isotope. c. neutron.
b. proton. d. ion.

4. Missouri leads the world in the production of lead materials and recycling. The mineral ore from which lead is taken from is called
a. hematite c. galena
b. biotite d. hornblende

5. According to the Moh’s hardness scale, the mineral that can scratch gypsum and talc but cannot scratch fluorite is
a. topaz c. apatite
b. calcite d. diamond

6. If the atomic number of an element is 6 and its mass number is 14, how many neutrons are contained in the nucleus?
a. 6 c. 14
b. 20 d. 8

7. The smallest particle of an element that still retains all of the elements properties is a(n)
a. compound. c. isotope.
b. atom. d. mineral.

8. What are the building blocks of minerals?
a. rocks c. isotopes
b. elements d. electrons

9. Often people melt and mix two or more metals together and then let them cool to form a stronger metal such as in jewelry and construction. This new metal is called a(n)
a. bloom. c. compound.
b. alloy. d. ore.

10. The main types of chemical bonds are
a. ionic, covalent, and metallic. c. isotopic, covalent, and metallic.
b. ionic, compound, and metallic.
d ionic, covalent, and nonmetallic.

11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of minerals?
a. crystalline structure c. defintate chemical composition
b. formed by inorganic materials d. either liquid or solid

12. The process of mineral formation from magma is called
a. evaporation. c. crystallization.
b. precipitation. d. melting.

13. Minerals are classified by
a. color. c. size.
b. composition. d. density.

14. All minerals in the sulfate and sulfide groups contain what element?
a. silicon. c. oxygen.
b. sulfur. d. carbon.

15. The most common mineral in Earth’s crust is the
a. oxides. c. sulfides.
b. carbonates. d. silicates.

16. Mohs scale is used to determine what property of minerals?
a. cleavage c. hardness
b. density d. luster

17. The tendency of minerals to break along smooth flat surfaces is called
a. fracture. c. streak.
b. cleavage. d. crystal form.

18. What is the density of a mineral?
a. the ratio of a mineral’s mass to its volume c. a minerals mass and weight
b. the ratio of a mineral’s height to its weight d. a minerals hardness to its compostion

19. To what class of minerals do gold, silver, and copper belong to?
a. Carbonates c. Halides
b. Native Elements d. Sulfates and sulfides

20. Which of the following is a mineral?
a. diamond c. sulfuric acid
b. oxygen d. wood

a. Hematite h. Feldspar
b. Hornblende i. Calcite
c. Graphite j. Galena
d. Cassiterite k. Magnetite
e. Quartz l. Chalcopyrite
f. Diamond m. Biotite
g. Muscovite

21. _______ is pure silicate (SiO2) and is used in making lenses / prisms (optics) and many other types of important glass.

22. A mineral and ore that produces a metal that is important for coating surfaces in CELL PHONES and LAPTOPS to conduct electricity is ________.

23. _______ is found in Missouri cave as speleothems (cave formations).

24. Biotite and _______ are both minerals of the Mica family.

25. ______ is one of the 4 main minerals found in granite and
has rhombic cleavage.

26. The main mineral that makes up limestone and fizzes in acid is __________.

27. _______ is the mineral that is good for light-weight yet strong construction such as for golf clubs/tennis rackets/hockey sticks

28. The mineral called _______ is iron ore and has a reddish streak…

If an atom has 17 electrons and its mass number is 35, calculate the following: number of protons, atomic number, and the number of neutrons.
atomic number-18

34. Short Answer: (2 pts)
List the 4 major processes by which minerals form. (No need to explain the meaning of each if you can name then properly)
Crystallization from magma
Pressure and temperature
chemical compounds

35. Short Answer (2 pts):
List the 5 characteristics necessary to be considered a mineral. (do not explain each one)
Crystalline structure
Solid structure
definite chemical composition
naturally occuring

36. Short Answer (2 pts): Use 1-2 complete sentences
Why is streak such a helpful property when identifying minerals?
you can see the other colors in the mineral and you can figure out what it is because of that

39. BONUS (up to 2 pts):
List the names of the four minerals that make up the igneous rock Granite

40. BONUS (up to 1 pt)
What is the specific name of the spot on the top of the water’s surface at which we look at to read volume using a gradutated cylinder?

41. BONUS (up to 1 pt):
What is chemical formula for calcite?

Chapter 3 test
Chapter three test

1. In Figure 3-1, what type of rock should occur in the part of the rock cycle labeled B?
a. igneous c. lava
b. metamorphic d. sedimentary

2. In Figure 3-1, what process or processes would be occurring in the part of the rock cycle labeled E?
a. cooling c. compaction and cementation
b. melting d. weathering and erosion

3. In Figure 3-1, what type of rock should occur in the part of the rock cycle labeled F?
a. igneous c. lava
b. metamorphic d. sedimentary

4. If granite undergoes high temperatures and high pressures deep within Earth, what type of rock will be formed? Assume that the granite does not melt.
a. a sedimentary rock c. an organic rock
b. a metamorphic rock d. an igneous rock

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of rock?
a. igneous c. sedimentary
b. magma d. metamorphic

6. The three groups of rocks are classified by
a. color. c. chemical composition.
b. grain size. d. how they formed.

7. What is a naturally occurring, solid mass of mineral or mineral-like matter?
a. a rock c. lava
b. a mineral d. a fossil

8. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a rock?
a. coal c. pumice
b. sandstone d. lava

9. Where is the energy source found that drives the processes that form igneous and metamorphic rocks?
a. the sun c. Earth’s interior
b. the wind d. moving water

10. A rock that forms when magma hardens beneath Earth’s surface is called an
a. intrusive metamorphic rock.
b. intrusive igneous rock.
c. extrusive sedimentary rock.
d. extrusive igneous rock.

11. A rock that forms from cooling lava is classified as an
a. intrusive igneous rock. c. extrusive igneous rock.
b. extrusive metamorphic rock. d. intrusive volcanic rock.

12. When large masses of magma solidify far below Earth’s surface, they form igneous rocks that have a
a. glassy texture. c. fine-grained texture.
b. clastic texture. d. coarse-grained texture.

13. The igneous rock texture that is characterized by two distinctly different crystal sizes is called
a. coarse-grained texture. c. glassy texture.
b. fine-grained texture. d. porphyritic texture.

14. Lava that cools so quickly that ions do not have time to arrange themselves into crystals will form igneous rocks with a
a. porphyritic texture. c. coarse-grained texture.
b. glassy texture. d. fine-grained texture.

15. As the rate of cooling of igneous rocks increases, the size of the crystals that form
a. decreases. c. is not affected.
b. increases. d. cannot be determined.

16. According to Figure 3-2, which of the following is responsible for the formation of rock gypsum?
a. weathering and erosion
b. cooling of magma
c. precipitation from a water solution
d. recrystallization from high temperatures and high pressures

17. According to Figure 3-2, what type of rock is composed of very fine crystalline quartz?
a. chalk c. rock gypsum
b. sandstone d. flint

18. According to Figure 3-2, a coarse-grained rock with angular fragments would be classified as a
a. conglomerate. c. breccia.
b. sandstone. d. crystalline limestone.

19. According to Figure 3-2, a clastic sedimentary rock with particles that are 1.5 millimeters in diameter would be classified as a
a. conglomerate. c. siltstone.
b. coquina. d. sandstone.

20. What type of sedimentary rock is formed from weathered particles of rocks and minerals?
a. clastic sedimentary rock c. chemical sedimentary rock
b. biochemical sedimentary rock d. intrusive sedimentary rock

21. Which of the following represents the correct order of the processes involved in sedimentary rock formation?
a. erosion, weathering, compaction, cementation, deposition
b. compaction, cementation, deposition, weathering, erosion
c. deposition, cementation, compaction, erosion, weathering
d. weathering, erosion, deposition, compaction, cementation

22. A conglomerate is a rock that forms as a result of
a. intense heat and pressure. c. rapid cooling.
b. compaction and cementation.
d. slow cooling.

23. Fossils are only found in
a. intrusive igneous rocks. c. sedimentary rocks.
b. foliated metamorphic rocks.
d. nonfoliated metamorphic rocks.

24. Sedimentary rocks with ripple marks suggest that the rocks formed
a. along a beach or stream bed.
b. when ancient animals walked over them.
c. from the shell fragments of ancient sea-dwelling animals.
d. when wet mud dried and shrank.

25. The primary agent of contact metamorphism is
a. flowing water. c. extreme pressure.
b. heat. d. weathering.

26. Metamorphic rocks that have a banded appearance due to the alignment of minerals are called
a. foliated. c. nonfoliated.
b. clastic. d. glassy.

27. Which of the following does not relate to the other three?
a. Extrusive c. Fine-grained crystals
b. Cooled from Magma d. No Crystals

28. What type of compostion does an igneous rock have if it is light in color?
a. granitic c. andesitic
b. basaltic d. ultramafic

29. Which of the following would NOT be true of an igneous rock that has cooled rapidly
a. Rock could have gas holes (vesicles) c. Rock is coarse-grained
b. Rock could have glassy texture d. Rock could have small crystals

30. The process in which rocks are physically and chemically broken down by water, air, and living things to produce sediment.
a. Weathering c. Deposition
b. Erosion d. Compaction

After undergoing metamorphism, the above rock becomes a new rock called
a. Gneiss. c. Slate.
b. Granite. d. Marble.

The above rock is the result of what original “parent” rock that went under heat and pressure?
a. Chert c. Shale
b. Granite d. Limestone

What type of rock would you hypothesize this is?
a. Igneous c. Metamorphic
b. Sedimentary

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