PSY 226 Chapter 8: Interpersonal Conflict
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_______ exists when two or more people are interdependent and need to rely on one another to achieve their needs or goals. A) A group B) A collective C) A minimal group D) Social roles E) A social loafer
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A) A group
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When social psychologists define a group as a collection of interdependent people, they mean that A) members' needs and goals cause them to influence one another. B) there is seldom interpersonal conflict in social groups. C) minimal groups often evolve into social groups. D) the group members interact with one another. E) members of groups have relatively little impact on one another.
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A) members' needs and goals cause them to influence one another.
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Families, church or synagogue congregations, student organizations, and sports teams can be conceived of as groups because A) they are part of our evolutionary and cultural heritage as humans. B) they are typically composed of more than ten members. C) they are typically composed of more than two members. D) they are relatively stable collections of individuals who share the same goals. E) individual members interact with one another and influence one another.
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C) they are typically composed of more than two members.
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In groups, interdependence is reflected in A) working towards a common goal. B) communicating with one another. C) influencing and being influenced. D) group conflict. E) finding alternatives to conflict.
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C) influencing and being influenced.
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Roy Baumeister and Mark Leary (1995) argue that the need to belong to groups is present in all societies because A) the Industrial Revolution brought about increased specialization in the workforce. B) hunting and farming have been replaced by business and technology. C) interaction with many people is unavoidable. D) cultural norms everywhere dictate that people cooperate. E) group membership has conferred evolutionary advantages to humans.
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E) group membership has conferred evolutionary advantages to humans.
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Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the function of group membership? A) Bonding in groups conveys an evolutionary advantage. B) Groups convey behavioural expectations through social roles. C) Groups can motivate people to be involved in social change. D) Groups can define social identity and influence future aspirations. E) Groups improve task performance and productivity.
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E) Groups improve task performance and productivity.
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Josh is the president of his college residence hall and he is therefore expected to act in a respectable, dignified manner when he attends campus functions. What social psychological phenomenon does this illustrate? A) a loss of personal identity B) expectation consistency pressure C) conformity D) a social role E) a group representativeness assumption
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D) a social role
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Shared group expectations about how particular group members are expected to behave are called A) expectancy effects. B) collective standards. C) social roles. D) norms. E) group effects.
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C) social roles.
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"We will not talk about other members behind their backs and we will never divulge one another's secrets to anyone, inside or outside this group." The preceding statement reflects A) well defined roles. B) a consensual proscription. C) a group norm. D) a subordinate goal. E) a superordinate goal.
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C) a group norm.
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Whereas _______ specify how all group members should behave, _______ specify how individuals in particular positions should behave. A) roles; norms B) rules; roles C) rules; norms D) norms; rules E) norms; roles
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E) norms; roles
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How do norms differ from roles? Norms _______, whereas roles _______. A) are specific; are general. B) apply to small groups; apply to large groups. C) apply to all group members; apply to specific group members. D) apply to large groups; apply to small groups. E) are expectations; are requirements.
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C) apply to all group members; apply to specific group members.
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One advantage of social roles is that they make individuals' rights and responsibilities clear for group members. One disadvantage of such roles, however, is that they A) are not as powerful as norms in guiding behaviours. B) may not share a universal understanding among group members. C) are assigned arbitrarily. D) are less fair than norms and are therefore more harmful. E) carry normative expectations with them.
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E) carry normative expectations with them.
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Sometimes when professors ask students to break up into small groups to discuss an issue, answer a question, or solve a problem, students roll their eyes and complain that it's the professor's job to teach them. This resistance to cooperative learning activities is probably a result of A) psychological reactance. B) students' expectations about the "professor" role. C) social loafing pressures. D) deindividuation processes. E) social facilitation.
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B) students' expectations about the "professor" role.
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Which of the following is the important lesson to be learned from Zimbardo's Stanford Prison Experiment in which university students played the roles of guards and prisoners. A) Personality variables often have a much stronger impact on behaviour than situational variables. B) People who are by nature authoritarian and abusive prefer jobs like being a prison guard. C) The feeling of being crowded that results from the presence of other people can lead to prison violence. D) The behaviours associated with certain roles can overwhelm one's personal identity and sense of decency. E) People who have strong moral convictions are less likely to become abusive than weak, passive people.
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D) The behaviours associated with certain roles can overwhelm one's personal identity and sense of decency.
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In the Stanford Prison Study conducted by Philip Zimbardo and his colleagues (1973), guards became increasingly sadistic and prisoners became increasingly submissive and withdrawn, all in under a week. Results of this (aborted) study suggest that A) social roles can take on a power all their own. B) humans are inherently aggressive and will "act out" in the appropriate situation. C) interdependence can be reduced in powerful situations. D) people who have authoritarian personalities do not make good prisoners. E) norms in the real world are often adopted in artificial settings.
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A) social roles can take on a power all their own.
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Philip Zimbardo and his colleagues established a mock prison in the basement of the psychology building at Stanford University. How did they decide which participants would assume the role of "prisoner" and which would assume the role of "guard"? A) People were assigned at random to each role. B) Aggressive people tended to volunteer for the role of guard. C) The experimenters used personality tests to assign participants to roles. D) Participants who had spent time in jail refused to be prisoners. E) Because of safety concerns, aggressive people were assigned to the role of prisoner.
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A) People were assigned at random to each role.
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According to the authors of your text book, one cost of roles is that individuals can lose their personal identities as individuals. A second cost is that A) leaders can become intolerant and inflexible. B) roles can make group tasks more difficult. C) role demands are seldom well specified. D) expectations can constrain behaviours unnecessarily. E) roles often lead to incorrect decisions.
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D) expectations can constrain behaviours unnecessarily.
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In India, women were traditionally permitted to occupy only the roles of mother, wife, agricultural laborer, or domestic worker. A social psychologist would likely assert that which of these is an example of a cost of social roles? A) Roles often are imposed by the powerful. B) Roles often have cultural implications. C) Roles often bring about deindividuation. D) Roles often constrain behaviours unnecessarily. E) Roles often apply to those who are less powerful.
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D) Roles often constrain behaviours unnecessarily.
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According to research on children's conceptions of gender-roles described in your text, A) girls' ideas of the roles of women in society have remained unchanged for 30 years. B) the occupational aspirations of boys and girls are no longer dominated by gender-role stereotypes. C) boys are mostly responsible for imposing gender-role stereotypes on girls. D) boys seem to be aware of the constraints put on girls by gender-roles. E) girls are not aware of any perceived constraints of gender roles.
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D) boys seem to be aware of the constraints put on girls by gender-roles.
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The term for group qualities that promote liking between members and bind members together is A) group cohesiveness. B) social roles. C) relation-oriented leadership. D) group norms. E) social facilitation.
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A) group cohesiveness.
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The more cohesive a group is, the more likely it is to A) retain members, involve members, and recruit similar members. B) constrain members, lead members, and recruit similar members. C) involve members, polarize members, and lead members. D) evaluate members, reject members, and pressure members. E) pressure members, organize members, and rejects leadership.
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A) retain members, involve members, and recruit similar members.
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The Wednesday Night Social Club has several couples that have been with the group for more than a decade. They meet every week for a different social activity often at each other's homes. Frequent activities include potluck and card games. Two new couples in the same age group who have moved into the neighbourhood have attended recently. This group shows evidence of A) transactive memory. B) cohesiveness. C) continuity. D) consensus. E) strong leadership.
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B) cohesiveness.
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According to research, social groups tend to range in size from two or three members to several dozen members. Why is this? A) If groups were larger it would be impossible to interact with other members. B) If a group becomes too large conflict within the group becomes unavoidable. C) It would be difficult for members to find more people who are similar to them. D) It is too difficult to arrive at normative consensus when groups grow too large. E) The larger the social group, the greater the likelihood of destructive conflict.
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A) If groups were larger it would be impossible to interact with other members.
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Which of the following collections of people best represents the social-psychological concept of a SOCIAL group? A) deliberating members of a 12-person jury B) personnel employed at a large corporation C) students in a large lecture course D) undergraduates enrolled at a large public university E) fans at a hockey game.
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A) deliberating members of a 12-person jury
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In order for social facilitation to occur, the minimum requirement is the A) presence of those with whom one is interacting. B) concern about how others will evaluate us. C) interdependence of actor and audience. D) feedback from at least one other person. E) mere presence of others.
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E) mere presence of others.
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Social facilitation is most likely to occur when A) individual efforts cannot be assessed. B) the task is simple and well-learned. C) the task is difficult and the individual efforts can be assessed. D) the presence of others relaxes you. E) the task is difficult and involving.
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B) the task is simple and well-learned.
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Jamal studied long and hard for his psychology exam, has mastered the material, and can answer any question that anyone poses. When he enters the classroom on the day of the examination, the room is more crowded than it's been all term. In this situation, Jamal should A) move to a quiet room to take the exam alone. B) request to make the exam a conjunctive task performed in groups. C) move to the front of the lecture hall where he will not be able to see the crowd behind him. D) request to make the exam an additive task performed in groups. E) remain in the crowded classroom to take the exam.
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E) remain in the crowded classroom to take the exam.
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The presence of others will facilitate performance for A) Janine, who is leading a difficult group discussion. B) Jasmine, who gives a dress rehearsal of a long speech. C) Arthur, who performs his first heart surgery with interns looking on. D) Lola, who is learning a new gymnastics routine with her team. E) Tim, who is washing his car as his neighbours watch.
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E) Tim, who is washing his car as his neighbours watch.
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Adele has never driven a car with a standard transmission before. That is, she's never had to decide when to shift gears, push in the clutch, or stop suddenly when the car is in gear. She's just bought a car with standard transmission and wants to practice driving it before she takes it onto the highway. What should she do? A) have people in the car who are experienced drivers B) buckle her seat belt C) take her best friend along to provide instructions and support D) have a group of friends follow along behind her to help pull her out of a ditch if something goes wrong E) drive the car alone and circle a large parking lot a few times
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E) drive the car alone and circle a large parking lot a few times
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Dozens of social psychological experiments on the topic of social facilitation have employed everything from people to birds, ants, and cockroaches. Which of the following is the one consistent finding has emerged from these many studies? A) Difficult tasks are more arousing than simple tasks. B) Simplicity is the most dominant response in the presence of others. C) The presence of others enhances performance the most on difficult tasks. D) The presence of others enhances performance on simple tasks. E) Simple tasks are unaffected by the presence of others, but complex tasks are.
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D) The presence of others enhances performance on simple tasks.
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Robert Zajonc and his colleagues (1969) employed the lowly cockroach in their studies of social facilitation. In the presence of other cockroaches, roaches would run faster down a straight-away to escape a bright light than they would alone, but took longer in the presence of a cockroach audience when the escape route was more complicated (i.e., when they had to run a maze). These findings support the idea that A) the presence of other members of a species improves performance on a well- learned response. B) cockroaches differ from humans in their response to other members of their species. C) the presence of other members of a species impedes performance on a well- learned response. D) cockroaches respond better than humans in the presence of other members of their species. E) members of even the most lowly species experience evaluation apprehension.
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A) the presence of other members of a species improves performance on a well- learned response.
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When people or roaches undertake a difficult task, the presence of others _______ performance; whereas when they undertake a simple task, the presence of others _______ performance. A) has no effect on; enhances B) diminishes; has no effect on C) enhances; impairs D) impairs; enhances E) enhances; has no effect on
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D) impairs; enhances
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According to the definition presented in the text, which of the following is an example of social facilitation? A) Hinton laughs louder at a comedian when he is the member of a live audience than when he watches the comedian on the television at home. B) Sanjay has mastered the material in his psychology course, but fails the exam in a crowded room. C) Amy, a novice golfer, performs especially poorly when she plays in a charity tournament with lots of people watching her. D) Bill, who tries bowling for the first time with his friends, rolls a near perfect game. E) Matthew, an inexperienced actor, gives a wonderful portrayal of Hamlet in front of a large audience.
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C) Amy, a novice golfer, performs especially poorly when she plays in a charity tournament with lots of people watching her.
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_______ refers to the tendency of people to perform better on simple tasks and worse on complex tasks when others are present. A) Contagion performance B) Social loafing C) Social facilitation D) Deindividuation E) Contingent performance
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C) Social facilitation
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Robert Zajonc (1965) wrote an influential article in which he posited a theoretical explanation for the social facilitation effect. Elegantly simple, this explanation included what two steps? A) the presence of others is distracting → distractions make it more difficult to perform B) actors are concerned about evaluation → the most dominant response is activated C) performance of difficult tasks is arousing → arousal impedes performance D) the presence of others is arousing → arousal enhances performance E) the presence of others causes arousal → arousal makes it easier to do simple things and harder to do difficult or new things
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E) the presence of others causes arousal → arousal makes it easier to do simple things and harder to do difficult or new things
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Assume that you are playing pool at the student union when James Michaels and three of his colleagues (1982) surround the table to watch you play. If you are _______ player, you would play _______ because of the arousing effects of their presence. A) a poor; better than you have in the past B) a mediocre; better than before C) an excellent; about the same D) an excellent; worse than usual E) an excellent; better than before
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E) an excellent; better than before
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James Michaels and his colleagues (1982) identified both good and bad pool players and then stood around their tables to watch them play. These researchers found that poor players _______ because _______. A) made more shots; arousal facilitates performance. B) made fewer shots; playing pool was a complex task. C) made fewer shots; they were embarrassed. D) made more shots; they were motivated to "show off." E) made more shots; they were better able to focus.
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B) made fewer shots; playing pool was a complex task.
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One explanation for why the presence of others leads to arousal is that in the presence of members of our own species, we become alert, vigilant, and mildly aroused. The beauty of this explanation is that it explains A) why people become concerned about how they are evaluated. B) the causes and consequences of social loafing. C) the causes of groupthink. D) why other sources of arousal such as flashing lights have a similar effect. E) the results of studies with both humans and cockroaches.
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E) the results of studies with both humans and cockroaches.
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Which of the following explanations for social facilitation applies to humans but NOT to cockroaches? A) Humans are aroused at the prospect of evaluation. B) Humans are more likely to perform well on a simple task when aroused. C) Humans are more likely to perform their dominant response when aroused. D) Humans are distracted by a number of stimuli, including members of their own species. E) Humans are alert and aroused in the presence of other members of their species.
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A) Humans are aroused at the prospect of evaluation.
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A number of social psychologists have speculated on why the presence of others should lead to arousal. They have developed three explanatory theories. One is that arousal increases vigilance. Another is that arousal is distracting. Third, arousal A) increases self-awareness. B) makes us socially apprehensive. C) makes us anxious. D) decreases response latencies. E) releases stress hormones.
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B) makes us socially apprehensive.
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If you wanted to determine whether evaluation apprehension or simple arousal accounts for social facilitation in humans, which of the following studies would you conduct? A) Loiter in a health club locker room, either with or without dark glasses, a white cane, and a seeing-eye dog, (or else hide in a locker); measure how long it takes people to dress after a shower. B) Ask people to solve easy or difficult crossword puzzles, either alone or with their friends; measure how long it takes them to solve the puzzles. C) Conduct either a complicated or simple survey, by phone or in person; measure how long it takes people to answer the questions. D) Ask people to participate in an archery exercise, either with friends or with strangers; count the number of bull's-eyes they make. E) Ask people how they feel in a crowded classroom before a difficult exam.
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A) Loiter in a health club locker room, either with or without dark glasses, a white cane, and a seeing-eye dog, (or else hide in a locker); measure how long it takes people to dress after a shower.
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Robert Baron (1986) has found that flashing lights can cause the same social facilitation effects as the presence of other people. These findings support the idea that _______ is the source of arousal that enhances performance on simple tasks. A) increased vigilance B) reactance C) distraction D) stress E) evaluation apprehension
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C) distraction
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The evaluation apprehension explanation for the source of arousal that produces social facilitation posits that _______ leads to increased arousal, and thus enhanced performance on simple tasks. A) the mere presence of others B) the presence of others who might judge us C) vigilance and divided attention D) anything that causes anxiety E) a social distraction such as a loud party
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B) the presence of others who might judge us
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New Ph.D.'s who apply for jobs often report that they give better job talks in front of perfect strangers whom they may never see again than they do during dress rehearsals for their colleagues and professors before they leave for their interviews. These reports provide anecdotal evidence that A) the presence of others rarely enhances performance. B) the distraction of being in a new place serves as a source of arousal. C) evaluation apprehension may be a source of social facilitation. D) the presence of others facilitates social behaviours. E) if performance is to be enhanced, arousal must be optimal.
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C) evaluation apprehension may be a source of social facilitation.
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Research by Gardner and Knowles (2008) illustrated that even the presence of a photograph of _____ impacted performance such that participants did better on ___ tasks and worse on ____ tasks. A) a favorite TV character; complex; simple B) an unknown movie star; simple; complex C) an unknown actor; complex; simple D) a favorite TV character; simple; complex E) a disliked TV character; complex; simple
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D) a favorite TV character; simple; complex
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You and your roommate love to play complex word games while watching TV. Based on research by Gardner and Knowles (2008), if you want to win the game what kind of TV program should be showing? A) a sports match that both of you love but where you have different favourite teams B) a drama program that is your favourite but unfamiliar to your roommate C) a drama program that is your roommate's favourite but that you don't care for D) a sports match in which your, but not your roommate's, favourite team is playing E) a drama program that both of you love and are familiar with
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C) a drama program that is your roommate's favourite but that you don't care for D) a sports match in which your, but not your roommate's, favourite team is playing
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_______ refers to the tendency of people to do worse on simple tasks and better on complex tasks when they are in the presence of others and when their individual performance cannot be evaluated. A) Social accountability B) Social inhibition C) Social facilitation D) Social loafing E) Social norms
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D) Social loafing
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Joint class projects, group presentations, voting in elections, and singing in unison are all examples of group activities that are likely to be affected by A) groupthink. B) social facilitation. C) social loafing. D) evaluation apprehension. E) deindividuation.
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C) social loafing.
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Social loafing is most likely to occur when A) an improvisational comedy troupe performs. B) a team of computer scientists works to locate and correct errors in a program. C) a group is performing a task on which they will be individually evaluated. D) a team of volunteers stuffs envelopes for a large mailing. E) candidates for city council engage in a public debate.
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D) a team of volunteers stuffs envelopes for a large mailing.
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The resident assistant of a campus residence hall notices that when a team of five students is assigned to bathroom duty, the bathrooms are not as well cleaned as when only one student is assigned to clean them. What phenomenon does this example illustrate? A) social facilitation B) group decline C) social inhibition D) social loafing E) a minimal group paradigm
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D) social loafing
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Which of the following individuals is most likely to engage in social loafing? A) Phoebe, who works with her classmates on a difficult assignment B) Troy, who has to write the forward of a novel he did not write C) Tim, who washes a car with his friends D) Danny, who struggles alone with a difficult calculus problem E) Amanda, who sits alone in her office, licking stamps and placing them on envelopes
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C) Tim, who washes a car with his friends
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Social loafing is likely to impair performance _______ and to enhance performance _______. A) on complex tasks; when we're with others. B) on simple tasks; on complex tasks. C) when we're alone; when we're with others. D) when we're with others; when we're alone. E) on complex tasks; on simple tasks.
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B) on simple tasks; on complex tasks.
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Group or team learning activities are becoming more common in the university setting and professors often assign students to work in groups. Given what you know about social loafing, what advice would you give a professor who is considering using group learning activities? A) For simple assignments, it's better to assign a group grade. B) Beware of social loafing. It's always better to have students work alone if you want them to do well. C) Make sure that the groups of students are cohesive and appoint their own leader. D) For simple assignments, it's better to assign individual grades to students. E) Make sure that the groups are not too small. It's better to have more students relying on one another.
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D) For simple assignments, it's better to assign individual grades to students.
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Why is an individual's performance on a task undertaken with others better on complex tasks than on simple tasks? A) There is less evaluation apprehension associated with simple tasks. B) It actually depends on how the task will be evaluated. C) When people become members of a group, they experience positive affect. D) When people realize that their performance cannot be monitored or evaluated, they relax. E) When people become members of a group, they are motivated to impress others.
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D) When people realize that their performance cannot be monitored or evaluated, they relax.
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Consider the proverb, "Many hands make light work." This proverb is most closely related to the social-psychological concept of A) disjunctive tasks. B) social loafing. C) roles. D) deindividuation. E) social facilitation
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B) social loafing.
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From what you know of social loafing, if subjects were asked to solve either simple or complex computer mazes, and were told either that their individual performances would be evaluated, or that their scores would be averaged with other participants' scores. When participants thought their scores would be averaged with another's, their performance would be expected to be _______ because they _______. A) better on difficult mazes; were more motivated. B) better on difficult mazes; were relaxed. C) better on simple mazes; were relaxed. D) worse on simple tasks; were aroused. E) better on difficult mazes; were aroused.
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B) better on difficult mazes; were relaxed.
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When Jeffrey Jackson and Kip Williams (1985) had participants solve either simple or difficult mazes, those who believed that their scores would be averaged with another person's performed better on difficult mazes than on simple mazes. These finding suggest that social loafing A) arises when we believe that we cannot be evaluated. B) impairs performance on simple tasks, but enhances performance on complex tasks. C) impairs performance on complex tasks, but enhances performance on simple tasks. D) is less likely when people focus more on the collective. E) impairs performance on both simple and complex tasks, but more for simple tasks.
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A) arises when we believe that we cannot be evaluated.
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Research on "brainstorming" has found that people had an easier time generating ideas when A) they expressed their ideas anonymously using a computer. B) they worked in groups of less than ten. C) they expressed their ideas using a computer, but individual contributors could be identified. D) they worked in face-to-face groups. E) they worked alone.
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A) they expressed their ideas anonymously using a computer.
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Research on the use of electronic discussion groups in "brainstorming" exercises has found that they result in all of the following EXCEPT A) the increased generation of highly offensive ideas. B) lowered evaluation apprehension in participants. C) the generation of more possible solutions. D) more conservative possible solutions. E) a richer discussion of possible solutions.
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D) more conservative possible solutions.
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Steven Karau and Kipling Williams (1993) conducted a review of over 150 studies of social loafing. They found that in general, the tendency to engage in social loafing is greater in men than in women because A) women tend to feel more pressure in groups. B) women tend to feel more self-conscious in group. C) men tend to feel more anonymous in groups. D) men tend to feel less self-conscious in groups. E) women tend to hold more collectivistic values.
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E) women tend to hold more collectivistic values.
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Steven Karau and Kipling Williams (1993) reviewed more than 150 studies on social loafing and found that the tendency to loaf is stronger in men than in women. Why is this true, according to the authors of your text? A) Men typically occupy positions of higher status than women. B) Women's tasks are typically more complex than typical male tasks. C) Women are more collectivistic and men are more individualistic. D) Men have more power than women and can therefore induce women to do more work. E) Women tend to feel more self-conscious in group.
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C) Women are more collectivistic and men are more individualistic.
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Many Asian cultures are collectivistic—they tend to place a greater emphasis on the welfare of the group than on the individual. Conversely, Western cultures tend to stress individual performance more than that of the group. A reasonable hypothesis would be that the social loafing effect is A) stronger in collectivist cultures. B) slightly stronger in collectivist cultures, but still more dependent on individual personality differences. C) stronger in Western culture. D) almost nonexistent in collectivist cultures. E) unaffected by cultural norms.
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C) stronger in Western culture.
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All other things being equal, _______ from _______ cultures would be most likely to engage in social loafing. A) women; Western B) women; Asian C) men; Western D) men and women; Asian E) men; Asian
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C) men; Western
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In order to predict whether the presence of others will help or hinder performance, one needs two pieces of information, whether _______ and whether _______. A) individual performance can be evaluated; arousal is high or low. B) group performance can be evaluated; the group has a strong leader. C) arousal is present; one holds individualistic or collectivist values. D) individual performance can be evaluated; the task is simple or complex. E) arousal is high or low; the others are friends or strangers.
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D) individual performance can be evaluated; the task is simple or complex.
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Both social facilitation and social loafing are manifestations of the influence that the presence of others have on our behaviours. These phenomena differ, however, in that presence of others _______ in social facilitation situations and _______ in social loafing situations. A) enhances performance on complex tasks; impairs performance on complex tasks B) decreases arousal; impairs performance on complex tasks C) impairs performance on simple tasks; impairs performance on complex tasks D) increases arousal; decreases arousal E) decreases arousal; increases arousal
answer
C) impairs performance on simple tasks; impairs performance on complex tasks
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You are a member of a group of five people whose task it is to address and stuff 1,000 envelopes for mailing. Research on _______ suggests that it would be better to give each person 200 envelopes to address and stuff the envelopes alone, whereas research on _______ suggests that it would be better to have everyone work on the task together in the same room. A) contagion; social loafing B) social loafing; deindividuation C) deindividuation; social loafing D) social facilitation; social loafing E) social loafing; social facilitation
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E) social loafing; social facilitation
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_______ is the key to social facilitation effects, whereas _______ is the key to social loafing effects. A) Evaluation; arousal B) Relaxation; evaluation apprehension C) Arousal; relaxation D) Evaluation; deindividuation E) Relaxation; arousal
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C) Arousal; relaxation
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_______ refers to the loosening of normal behavioural constraints when people are in a crowd, leading to increases in impulsive and deviant acts. A) Collective contagion B) Social facilitation C) Deindividuation D) Social loafing E) Collective anonymity
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C) Deindividuation
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Consider the following destructive acts: soccer fans bludgeoning one another, fans at rock concerts trampling one another to death to secure good seats, and Klansmen lynching African-Americans. All of these are examples of the dangerous effects of A) anti-social contagion. B) group hysteria C) anti-social anonymity. D) deindividuation. E) hysterical contagion.
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D) deindividuation.
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Deindividuation is defined as the feeling of anonymity that often results in A) contagion. B) prosocial behaviours. C) impulsive deviant acts. D) social loafing. E) social facilitation
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C) impulsive deviant acts.
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There is a powerful scene in the classic film To Kill a Mockingbird. Atticus Finch, a small town lawyer, is on the courthouse steps standing guard over Tom Robinson, an African-American prisoner who he is defending. A mob of townspeople and local farmers approaches the courthouse, demanding that Atticus turn over Robinson; they are intent on administering their own form of vigilante justice. Suddenly, Atticus's young daughter Scout steps forward. She doesn't understand what's about to happen, and begins to address people in the crowd, "Hey, Mr. Cunningham. How's your boy? I like Walter, but I haven't seen him in awhile." As Scout innocently addresses a number of individuals in the crowd, they begin to leave one-by-one, until the whole lynch mob is disbanded. This classic movie scene best illustrates which social psychological phenomenon? A) social facilitation B) diffusion of responsibility C) the bystander effect D) social loafing E) deindividuation
answer
E) deindividuation
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Consider the following anti-social acts: European soccer fans sometimes attack and bludgeon players and other fans, in the U.S. mobs of whites would lynch African- Americans, and in Canada a young man was beaten to death by a group of disguised youths. What do these situations have in common? A) They reflect mass actions caused by relative deprivation. B) They demonstrate the tragedies sometimes caused by anonymity. C) They represent the downside of social facilitation. D) They reflect extreme examples of social loafing. E) They represent an unexpected hazard of group cohesion.
answer
B) They demonstrate the tragedies sometimes caused by anonymity.
question
Brian Mullen's (1986) analysis of newspaper accounts revealed that the larger the lynch mob, the more savagely the mobs murdered their victims. Robert Watson's (1973) cross-cultural study revealed that warriors wearing face or body paint were more likely to torture or kill captives than warriors who wore no "war paint." These findings suggest that one reason why mobs often commit heinous acts is that the individuals involved A) experience a reduction in self-awareness and lose sight of their moral standards. B) become more self-aware and act on their feelings of rage and frustration. C) fall prey to social facilitation effects when they become aroused. D) feel anonymous and thus less accountable for their actions. E) fall prey to social loafing effects when they become aroused.
answer
D) feel anonymous and thus less accountable for their actions.
question
For Halloween, Jeff wears a sheet and goes to a party as a ghost. How is this costume likely to influence his behaviour? A) He will be more likely to monitor his own behaviour. B) He will feel less like himself, causing him to reaffirm his own moral standards. C) He will feel less personally accountable for his behaviour. D) He will feel self-conscious and be less likely to interact with others. E) He will focus more attention on himself, causing greater self-awareness.
answer
C) He will feel less personally accountable for his behaviour.
question
Deindividuation A) often has the same effects as social facilitation. B) always results in negative behaviours. C) results in people feeling that there is little chance that they will be caught for behaving badly. D) increases self-awareness, but greatly reduces a person's feelings of accountability for his or her behaviour. E) can be reduced by inducing people to pay attention to the people around them.
answer
C) results in people feeling that there is little chance that they will be caught for behaving badly.
question
Most social psychologists agree that which of the following are two causes of deindividuation? A) people become frustrated and people pay less attention to their environment B) people feel less accountable and people pay less attention to their moral standards C) people pay less attention to their environment and people feel anonymous in a group D) people become frustrated and people feel less accountable for acting on their frustration E) people feel less accountable and people use others to shoulder the blame
answer
B) people feel less accountable and people pay less attention to their moral standards
question
Recall the experiment by Jurgen Rehm, Michael Steinleitner, and Waldemar Lilli (1987) in which teams of German school children played handball. Results of this experiment in which children wore their own clothing or team uniforms revealed that A) wearing new uniforms made children more self-aware, thus decreasing aggression. B) when uniforms were black, aggression increased, but when uniforms were yellow, aggression decreased. C) children became most aggressive when they were wearing their own clothes and playing against a team in uniform. D) having to wear their own clothing increased frustration, thus increasing aggression. E) wearing uniforms made children feel less personally accountable, thus increasing aggression.
answer
E) wearing uniforms made children feel less personally accountable, thus increasing aggression.
question
Joe has just read chapter 8 on group processes and is now relaxing, watching football with his girlfriend. She finally understands the concept of "downs" and "turnovers," and moves on to other questions. "If football is a team sport, how come they have the players' names on their uniforms?" she asks Joe. Assuming that the material in chapter 8 is still accessible in his memory, Joe is most likely to reply, A) "Maybe to keep them from playing too mean and dirty." B) "Maybe to help sort the laundry." C) "Maybe so the announcer knows who made the play." D) "Maybe to make it easier for the quarterback to spot the receivers." E) "Maybe so individual players can be recognized by the fans."
answer
A) "Maybe to keep them from playing too mean and dirty."
question
One reason that deindividuation often leads to impulsive or destructive behaviours is that the presence of many other people can reduce self-awareness, thus making people A) feel less accountable for their actions. B) feel less accountable for the actions of the group. C) forget their internal values or moral standards. D) less likely to contribute to group decisions. E) feel more frustrated, which increases the impulse towards aggression.
answer
C) forget their internal values or moral standards.
question
Ivan Steiner (1972) has defined _______ as any aspect of group interaction that impedes good problem-solving. A) social facilitation B) collective obstacles C) communicative friction D) process loss E) social loafing
answer
D) process loss
question
Adam is part of a group organized to increase blood donations in a local community. As a social psychologist, Adam has a relevant background in persuasion tactics, but his group members fail to realize the important contributions he could make. This scenario is an example of A) a task orientation to problem solving. B) poor leadership. C) process loss. D) intragroup conflict. E) goal misdirection
answer
C) process loss.
question
Ellen and Gene had a disagreement before an important meeting and carried their argument into the meeting. They wouldn't listen to one another and were highly critical of each other's contributions. This example best illustrates A) affective spillover. B) intragroup conflict C) disjunctive styles. D) antagonistic task performance. E) process loss.
answer
E) process loss.
question
Which of the following situations best illustrates process loss? A) the prisoner's dilemma B) sharing memory C) contingent leadership D) social loafing E) autokinetic effect
answer
D) social loafing
question
Normative conformity pressures can impair performance of a group in a problem- solving task because A) only shared information is discussed. B) social loafing is encouraged. C) the weakest members of the group generally attempt to contribute the most. D) such conformity interferes with risk-taking tendencies. E) expert members are discouraged from disagreeing with others.
answer
E) expert members are discouraged from disagreeing with others.
question
In one condition of an experiment conducted by Gerald Stasser (Stasser & Titus, 1985), all group members had access to the same information, and in another condition, members had unique information that other group members didn't know. In the second (unshared information) condition, the group made a worse decision than in the first (shared information) condition. This occurred because groups A) often engage in social loafing. B) seldom can agree on who is most expert. C) avoid differences of opinion, given conformity pressures. D) often ignore dissenting opinions. E) focus discussion on the information that all members know.
answer
E) focus discussion on the information that all members know.
question
One way to deal with process loss and therefore enable the group to come up with correct solution to a problem is A) to work towards integrative solutions. B) to make sure that all members pool the available information. C) to have a charismatic leader D) for all members to criticize each other's ideas. E) for all members take turns at a leadership role.
answer
B) to make sure that all members pool the available information.
question
To prevent process loss and make sure all unique information is shared the group should do all of the following except A) assign group members to different areas of information collection. B) make use of transactive memory strategies. C) assign group members the job of retaining and recording information. D) allow the group enough time to thoroughly discuss the problem. E) focus the group on quickly achieving their goals.
answer
E) focus the group on quickly achieving their goals.
question
In one family with young children Bill keeps lists of which groceries to buy while Sylvie keeps track of all events, practices, and appointments. They are making use of A) group cohesiveness. B) task-oriented leadership. C) tit-for-tat strategies. D) social facilitation. E) transactive memory.
answer
E) transactive memory.
question
Decision-making groups are most likely to share unique information when A) the leader points out members' areas of expertise. B) they seek consensus. C) the leader is charismatic. D) their task is additive. E) the leader is relationship-oriented.
answer
A) the leader points out members' areas of expertise.
question
According to Irving Janis (1972, 1982), groupthink occurs when groups value _______ over _______. A) strong leadership; weak leadership. B) cohesiveness and solidarity; a realistic consideration of the facts. C) invulnerability; accuracy. D) efficiency; a common goal. E) as many alternatives as possible; a common goal.
answer
B) cohesiveness and solidarity; a realistic consideration of the facts.
question
Which of the following is NOT an antecedent of groupthink? A) high cohesiveness B) group isolation C) social roles D) directive leader E) high stress
answer
C) social roles
question
The phenomenon of groupthink is most likely to occur when a group is under stress, highly _______, and when the leader is very _______. A) diplomatic; cohesive. B) cohesive; directive. C) motivated; relationship-oriented. D) cohesive; diplomatic. E) motivated; feared.
answer
B) cohesive; directive.
question
Which of the following statements is true about groupthink? A) The group keeps changing its mind in response to outside pressures. B) "Esprit de corps" (morale) tends to be low. C) The leader tends to be process oriented. D) High group cohesiveness is a necessary but not sufficient for groupthink. E) The group feels vulnerable and indecisive about its options.
answer
D) High group cohesiveness is a necessary but not sufficient for groupthink.
question
Jennifer is the leader of a college student group whose goal is to steal the mascot of a rival university the week before the big football game. In planning the heist, Jennifer should _______ to prevent groupthink and ensure that her group is successful in devising the best possible plan. A) take a strong directive role as their leader B) seek the opinions of trustworthy nongroup members C) ensure that all members of the group are completely committed D) assess group members' opinions frequently using show-of-hand voting E) create a unified, cohesive membership to devise strategies together
answer
B) seek the opinions of trustworthy nongroup members
question
In order to avoid the phenomenon of groupthink, the leader of a group should A) form subgroups that discuss the problem separately. B) state his or her opinions forcefully. C) discourage the input of opinions from those outside the group. D) discourage group dissent. E) encourage the importance of group. cohesiveness.
answer
A) form subgroups that discuss the problem separately.
question
Compared to individuals deciding alone, members of groups tend to make decisions that are A) less stable. B) more extreme. C) riskier. D) more accurate. E) more conservative.
answer
B) more extreme.
question
The Choice Dilemmas Questionnaire (CDQ) is often used in research on individual versus group decision-making. This instrument is designed to A) measure individuals' propensity to take risks in social situations. B) prevent groupthink in highly cohesive groups. C) enable group members to record their reactions to discussions. D) identify the most appropriate leader for the task at hand. E) prevent social loafing.
answer
A) measure individuals' propensity to take risks in social situations.
question
_______ refers to the tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than the initial inclinations of their individual members. A) Negotiation B) Groupthink C) The risky shift D) Contagion E) Group polarization
answer
E) Group polarization
question
Early studies of group decision-making demonstrated that groups made riskier decisions than individuals do. The concept of "risky shift" was born. Later studies, however, revealed that group decisions are not necessarily more risky than individual decisions; instead, they are more extreme. The concept of _______ was born. A) decisional instability B) group polarization C) culture-value theory D) social loafing E) extremity shift
answer
B) group polarization
question
Group discussion often pushes people's initial individual decisions to the extreme, yielding group polarization. According to the persuasive arguments interpretation, this is because A) individuals work to maintain the self-esteem of the rest of the group members. B) others bring up perspectives or issues that the individual hadn't considered. C) individuals bolster their initial beliefs when they make their case to others. D) individuals are motivated to be accepted by other members of the group. E) individuals work to reduce the dissonance aroused when other people disagree with them.
answer
B) others bring up perspectives or issues that the individual hadn't considered.
question
Two different interpretations have been proposed to explain group polarization. The persuasive arguments interpretation is to _______ as the social comparison interpretation is to _______. A) groupthink; adaptive decision-making. B) task-oriented leader; relationship-oriented leader. C) risky shift; conservative shift. D) being right; being liked. E) relationship-oriented leader; task-oriented leader.
answer
D) being right; being liked.
question
Nan had pretty much made up her mind before a group discussion. During the discussion, however, she thinks to herself, "I think I'll hang back and see how the others feel about it. I don't want them to think I'm nuts or anything." Nan's thoughts best reflect the _______ interpretation of group polarization. A) social loafing B) social comparison C) persuasive arguments D) deviance avoidance E) accuracy motive
answer
B) social comparison
question
According to a social comparison interpretation, group polarization tends to occur because individuals can present themselves in a more _______ light by taking slightly more _______ positions than the norm of the group. A) positive; extreme B) positive; conservative C) positive; cautious D) negative; extreme E) negative; risky
answer
A) positive; extreme
question
Proponents of the _______ theory of leadership assume that certain key personality traits (e.g., decisiveness, intelligence, compassion) make someone a good leader. A) democratic B) autocratic C) situational D) contingency E) great person
answer
E) great person
question
"Who would make a great president? Someone who is uncompromisingly true to her (or his) values, assertive, intelligent, articulate, courageous, and passionate, that's who." The previous quote reflects the application of the _______ theory of leadership. A) democratic B) contingency C) autocratic D) great person E) culture-value
answer
D) great person
question
"Mario is decisive, assertive, and yet will consider different points of view before making a decision. He would make an excellent chair of this committee." The previous quote reflects the application of the _______ theory of leadership. A) culture-value B) great person C) contingency D) democratic E) contingency
answer
B) great person
question
Which of the following has NOT been identified as a common characteristic of leaders, according to research presented in the text? A) Leaders tend to be more intelligent than non-leaders. B) Leaders tend to be more socially-skilled than non-leaders. C) Leaders tend to be more adaptive than non-leaders. D) Leaders tend to be more ruthless than non-leaders. E) Leaders tend to be more flexible than non-leaders.
answer
D) Leaders tend to be more ruthless than non-leaders.
question
Bradley and colleagues (2002) followed Canadian Forces officer candidates over a five-year period. Which of the following personality variables did they find to be predictive of good leadership in the armed forces? A) flexibility B) process orientation C) intelligence D) charisma E) They found little relationship between personality variables and leadership ability.
answer
E) They found little relationship between personality variables and leadership ability.
question
Suedfeld and colleagues identified _______ as related to leadership ability among Canadian prime ministers and leaders. A) persuasiveness B) prolific writing C) task orientation D) integrative complexity E) dominance
answer
D) integrative complexity
question
__________ leaders set clear, short-term goals and reward followers who meet them; __________ leaders inspire followers to focus on common long-term goals. A) Transactional; communal B) Task-oriented; relationship-oriented C) Transactional; transformational D) Transformational; relational E) Relationship-oriented; task oriented
answer
C) Transactional; transformational
question
Ted is a manager who effectively motivates his employees to complete their short- term projects in a timely manner without sacrificing quality. Ted always rewards the employees who meet these goals. Ted has a__________ leadership style. A) paternalistic B) transactional C) relationship-oriented D) transformational E) communal
answer
B) transactional
question
Ann is a leader who inspires her employees to look at the broad, long-term goals of her company. She is able to get her employees to find a common goal and she really thinks outside of the box. Ann's leadership style is best described as A) transformational. B) task-oriented. C) relationship-oriented. D) transactional. E) communal.
answer
A) transformational.
question
The leader who would be most effective is one who A) uses a transactional leadership style. B) uses a transformational leadership style. C) uses both transactional and transformational leadership styles depending on the situation. D) uses a task-oriented or relationship-oriented leadership style, depending on the gender of the employee. E) breaks through the glass ceiling but avoids the glass cliff.
answer
C) uses both transactional and transformational leadership styles depending on the situation.
question
Research on transformational leaders shows that this style is A) closely linked to the personality traits of great leaders. B) prevalent among individuals high in charisma but low in integrative complexity. C) not related to particular personality traits and can be fostered through training. D) related most closely to a relationship-oriented style. E) seldom apparent in individuals with introverted personalities.
answer
D) related most closely to a relationship-oriented style.
question
With regard to leadership, most social psychologists would agree that A) in large part, some people are born to be leaders. B) personal characteristics are irrelevant to good leadership. C) good leadership is a function of the situation and personal characteristics. D) the specific situation determines the success of leaders. E) people concerned with the emotional well-being of their followers are better leaders.
answer
C) good leadership is a function of the situation and personal characteristics.
question
Most social psychologists would agree that A) ironically, the best leaders are those who do not see themselves as influential. B) intelligent people make the best leaders, so long as they are open-minded. C) those who seek power and influence are never good leaders. D) the most effective leaders are those who seek power and influence. E) it is difficult to predict who will make a good leader based on personal attributes alone.
answer
E) it is difficult to predict who will make a good leader based on personal attributes alone.
question
Peter Suedfeld and colleague's research on prime ministerial greatness found that situational factors have an impact on who is a great leader. Specifically, they found leaders are considered great in _______ with the exception of _______. A) peacetime; economic crisis. B) war; political crisis. C) crises; war. D) difficult times; economic crisis. E) difficult times; war.
answer
D) difficult times; economic crisis.
question
Research by Suedfeld and colleagues indicates that truly great leaders A) show a decrease in integrative complexity in a crisis. B) show recovery in integrative complexity in a crisis. C) show an increase in integrative complexity in a crisis. D) demonstrate that integrative complexity is irrelevant in a crisis. E) show stable integrative complexity in a crisis.
answer
C) show an increase in integrative complexity in a crisis.
question
Fred Fiedler's (1967, 1978) contingency theory of leadership assumed that there are two kinds of leaders: _______ and _______ leaders. A) task-oriented; relationship-oriented B) democratic-oriented; autocratic-oriented C) future-oriented; present-oriented D) autocratic-oriented; orthodox E) orthodox; unorthodox
answer
A) task-oriented; relationship-oriented
question
A(n) _______ leader is more concerned with getting the job done than with the feelings of and relationships between workers. A) democratic B) autonomous C) goal-oriented D) control-oriented E) task-oriented
answer
E) task-oriented
question
A(n) _______ leader is primarily concerned with workers' feelings and relationships with one another. A) relationship-oriented B) contingency C) emotion-oriented D) goal-oriented E) collectivistic
answer
A) relationship-oriented
question
According to Fred Fiedler's (1967, 1978) contingency theory of leadership, in _______ situations, the leader has good relationships with subordinates, is perceived as powerful, and directs structured and well-defined tasks. A) autocratic B) ambiguous C) low control D) contingent E) high control
answer
E) high control
question
According to Fred Fiedler's (1967, 1978) contingency theory of leadership, in _______ situations, the leader has poor relationships with subordinates and directs tasks that are not clearly defined. A) contingent B) despotic C) low control D) all E) high control
answer
C) low control
question
Marsha has been promoted to the supervisor position in her company. She has had a good working relationship with her subordinates, they all highly respect her, and the goals for her team have been clearly defined by the company. In order to be an effective leader in this situation, Marsha should focus on A) maintaining close interpersonal ties with her subordinates. B) the accomplishment of the team's assigned tasks. C) maintaining group solidarity. D) casting the team accomplishments as personal victories. E) cultivating certain key characteristics, such as self-confidence.
answer
B) the accomplishment of the team's assigned tasks.
question
The president of the Noodle Dome Charitable Trust has just resigned in disgrace, leaving the workings of the organization pretty much on track, but also leaving a large number of employees angry and upset. Bolstered by his previous successes in turning things around, Fred has stepped in to fill the president's role. Fred should adopt a _______ of leadership in this case. A) task-oriented style B) contingency style C) relationship-oriented style D) disjunctive-oriented style E) autocratic
answer
C) relationship-oriented style
question
Fred Fiedler's (1967, 1978) contingency theory of leadership posits that "moderate control" situations call for a relationship-oriented leader. By this he means that a relationship-oriented leader is needed when A) interpersonal friction threatens productivity. B) confusion and chaos halt productivity. C) poor working conditions cause low staff morale. D) workers have moderate control over conditions of employment. E) there is task ambiguity.
answer
A) interpersonal friction threatens productivity.
question
A _______ leader would be most effective in dealing with mean-spirited inter-office competition and employee pettiness in an organization that is otherwise productive. A) relationship-oriented B) contingency-oriented C) disjunctive task D) charismatic E) task-oriented
answer
A) relationship-oriented
question
James manages a team of employees for a company that is highly organized, well controlled, and high in employee satisfaction. In this situation, there is a greater need for a _______ leader than a _______ leader. A) feminine; masculine B) feminine; task-oriented C) masculine; task-oriented D) task-oriented; relationship-oriented E) relationship-oriented; task-oriented
answer
D) task-oriented; relationship-oriented
question
A leadership style that is warm, helpful, kind, and concerned with the welfare of others is ________, while a leadership style that is assertive, controlling, independent, dominant and self-confident is ________. A) independent; dependent. B) dependent; independent. C) agentic; communal. D) communal; agentic. E) transformational; task oriented.
answer
D) communal; agentic.
question
According to your textbook, all of the following are true with respect to women and leadership EXCEPT A) if women conform to expectations of how they "should" behave, they are not seen as having leadership potential; if they become leaders and act in an agentic fashion, they are seen as not acting how a woman "should." B) women are even harsher towards other women who act counter to the feminine role than men are. C) prejudice toward women leaders appears to be lessening over time. D) there is growing recognition that effective leaders of either sex must be able to act in both an agentic and a communal fashion. E) when in a leadership position, women tend to be appointed to lead departments that are in crisis, increasing the probability that they will fail.
answer
B) women are even harsher towards other women who act counter to the feminine role than men are.
question
When women are chosen for leadership positions over units or departments in crisis, A) this is referred to as breaking the glass cliff, because women are now in leadership positions. B) this is referred to as the glass cliff, because the chance of any leader failing in such a position is higher. C) this is breaking the glass ceiling, because the chance of any leader failing in such a position is lower. D) this is referred to as the glass ceiling, because men are denied leadership positions. E) this is referred to as the glass cliff, because success is difficult but leads to high rewards.
answer
B) this is referred to as the glass cliff, because the chance of any leader failing in such a position is higher.
question
According to the authors of your text, women in leadership positions are in a double bind. If they conform to social expectations about how to behave and are warm and communal, they may be seen as having low leadership potential, then, when they are given the opportunity to lead and they ______________, they are perceived negatively. A) turn it down to raise their children B) beat men for managerial positions C) act in agentic, assertive ways D) have at least a bachelor's degree E) fail to be transformational
answer
C) act in agentic, assertive ways
question
Dr. Garrett is Chris's supervisor at work. If Dr. Garrett is an assertive leader, under what conditions is Chris most likely to give Dr. Garrett an unfavorable evaluation? If Dr. Garrett is _______ and Chris is _______. A) male; female. B) male; male. C) female; male. D) male or female; female. E) female; female.
answer
C) female; male.
question
Assume that Chris has been appointed the team leader on a new software development project. If Chris is a(n) _______ and uses a(n) _______ leadership style, Chris is likely to be evaluated negatively. A) relationship-oriented leader; masculine B) woman; task-oriented C) transformational; assertive D) autocratic leader; interpersonal E) man; relationship-oriented
answer
B) woman; task-oriented
question
Which of the following leaders is most likely to be evaluated negatively? A) Rebecca, who is assertive and task-oriented, and supervises men B) Angela, who is relationship-oriented and supervises women C) Tom, who is assertive and task-oriented, and supervises women D) Bill, who is relationship-oriented and supervises women E) Chowhong, who is relationship-oriented and supervises men
answer
A) Rebecca, who is assertive and task-oriented, and supervises men
question
Novelist Stephen King's interesting approach to publishing a new novel by asking people to remit $1 for installments that they download is cited as an example of a(n) A) tit-for-tat strategy. B) integrative solution. C) prisoner's dilemma. D) negotiating tactic. E) social dilemma.
answer
E) social dilemma.
question
The Prisoner's Dilemma game is an excellent vehicle for studying social conflicts in the laboratory because A) researchers can systematically vary the strategies participants use. B) there are clear winners and clear losers, and thus reliable dependent variable measures. C) there is one and only one right answer to the problem. D) the rules of the game pit self-interest against looking out for someone else's interest. E) the variables of the game are clearly defined.
answer
D) the rules of the game pit self-interest against looking out for someone else's interest.
question
The key to success in the Prisoner's Dilemma game is to A) respond randomly. B) negotiate with one's partner. C) trust one's partner. D) withdraw when one's partner chooses a competitive response. E) be aggressive.
answer
C) trust one's partner.
question
Under certain conditions, people will choose the cooperative option when playing the Prisoner's Dilemma game. For example, when a player _______, that player will be more likely to play cooperatively. A) begins competitively and switches to cooperative responses B) resolves the public good dilemma C) expects to interact with his or her partner in the future D) begins cooperatively and switches to competitive responses E) punishes his or her partner after a competitive response
answer
C) expects to interact with his or her partner in the future
question
When it comes to social dilemmas such as the Prisoner's Dilemma Game, the tit- for-tat strategy A) employs consistent responses, independent of the partner's response. B) is likely to elicit competitive responses from a partner. C) involves secret verbal communications with one's partner. D) tends to lead to losses for both partners. E) is a means of increasing cooperation.
answer
E) is a means of increasing cooperation.
question
Which of the following is a "social dilemma" as defined by your text? A) Fred must decide between buying himself a present or contributing his money toward a family vacation. B) Beatrice has to choose between going to a movie with a friend or staying home to prepare for a presentation. C) A country is in the middle of a civil war between forces that support a dictator and forces that advocate free elections. D) Lisa has six close friends, but is told by her mother than she can only invite four friends to her birthday party. E) Todd must decide between studying for his psychology exam or his sociology exam. F) Mary must choose between going to the dance with Eric or going with Tom.
answer
A) Fred must decide between buying himself a present or contributing his money toward a family vacation.
question
A conflict in which the most beneficial action for an individual, if chosen by most people, has harmful effects on everyone is called A) tit-for-tat strategy. B) the commons dilemma. C) forced choice. D) a social dilemma. E) an integrative solution.
answer
D) a social dilemma.
question
During a psychology experiment, Chad and Wilma are asked to compete in the Prisoner's Dilemma game. As shown below, Wilma goes first, and after four rounds, the results are as follows: Wilma: cooperate defect defect cooperate Chad: defect defect cooperate cooperate As revealed in the pattern of responses above, Wilma is probably using a _______ strategy. A) random response B) passive response C) adversarial response D) tit-for-tat E) dominant response
answer
D) tit-for-tat
question
Research on social dilemmas by Kiyonan and Barclay (2008) found that cooperation and collective good was best promoted by ________ co-operators and _______ free loaders. A) rewarding; punishing B) rewarding; not punishing C) punishing; rewarding D) not rewarding; punishing E) rewarding; rewarding
answer
B) rewarding; not punishing
question
Morton Deutsch and Robert Krauss (1960, 1962) found that cooperation between adversaries is most likely to occur when A) only one side has the power to make threats. B) neither side is able to make a threat. C) both sides can communicate and only one side can make a threat D) both sides are able to make threats. E) communication is required.
answer
B) neither side is able to make a threat.
question
The Trucking Game (Deutsch & Krauss, 1960, 1962) puts participants in a conflict situation. Each participant wants to get his or her truck to the destination as quickly as possible. Morton Deutsch and Robert Krauss introduced a novel twist. They sometimes gave one participant a gate with which to threaten an opponent. At other times, they gave both participants such a gate, and still other times, neither participant had a gate with which to threaten his or her opponent. What happened? A) When only one participant could wield a threat, both participants lost money. B) When both participants wielded threats (used gates to block their opponents), they negotiated and reached a cooperative arrangement. C) When both participants could wield threats, the game typically ended in a stalemate. D) When only one participant wielded a threat (used the gate to block the opponent), the person with the gate won more money. E) When both participants could wield threats, both participants won more.
answer
A) When only one participant could wield a threat, both participants lost money.
question
In the early trucking studies by Morton Deutsch and Robert Krauss (1960, 1962), it was found that allowing the competing participants to communicate during the game A) increased the profits for the participant that could wield threats. B) distracted the participants from the goal of the game. C) raised the profits gained for each participant by a large margin. D) did not foster trust and cooperation. E) increased trust and cooperation dramatically.
answer
D) did not foster trust and cooperation.
question
Why did allowing (and even requiring) participants to communicate when they played the Trucking Game (Deutsch & Krauss, 1962) fail to engender trust and cooperation? A) Participants were more interested in general conversation than the game itself. B) Participants became so caught up in the competitive game that they forgot to communicate with their opponents. C) Participants could never figure out how to use the intercom. D) Participants used communication primarily as means of threatening their opponents. E) Participants were not allowed to bargain or negotiate in their communications.
answer
D) Participants used communication primarily as means of threatening their opponents.
question
When participants in the Trucking Game were allowed to communicate with one another (Deutsch & Krauss, 1962), such communication seldom ensured cooperation. Why? A) Participants communicated via intercom, and couldn't see the response of their opponents. B) They were not allowed to bargain or negotiate in their communications. C) The participants actually refused to communicate with one another. D) The communication was one-way, and two-way communication is essential for resolving conflicts. E) Communication is only helpful in conflict situations when people work to establish trust.
answer
E) Communication is only helpful in conflict situations when people work to establish trust.
question
_______ is a form of communication between adversaries, wherein parties make offers and counteroffers until a solution acceptable to both parties is reached. A) Conflict resolution B) An integrative approach C) Negotiation D) Conflict management E) Haggling
answer
C) Negotiation
question
Norm and Vera are feuding over where to go out to dinner. Norm wants to go to Burger King for a Whopper, but Vera wants to go to Pizza Hut for pizza. Finally, exchanging a series of proposals and counterproposals, they settle on a new diner in town that has both pizza and hamburgers. This situation is an example of A) negotiation. B) process loss. C) social loafing D) an integrative solution. E) a choice dilemma.
answer
A) negotiation.
question
Integrative solutions are A) rarely achievable. B) frequently imposed by mediators. C) a means to find outcomes favourable to both parties. D) common to zero-sum conflicts. E) generally resisted by both parties.
answer
C) a means to find outcomes favourable to both parties.
question
Negotiation as a means of resolving conflict doesn't work as often as it might because in most conflicts A) adversaries tend to overlook interests they have in common. B) adversaries refuse to involve objective mediators. C) one party has more power than the other. D) adversaries tend to overestimate the amount of trust they should have for one another. E) adversaries refuse to communicate with one another.
answer
A) adversaries tend to overlook interests they have in common.
question
Integrative solutions to conflict are most likely to be reached when A) communication between adversaries is limited to mediators. B) adversaries understand their opponents' priorities. C) adversaries compromise on all issues brought to the bargaining table. D) arbitrators are used to facilitate communication. E) there are no other alternatives.
answer
B) adversaries understand their opponents' priorities.
question
Luke and Laura have been dating off and on for years and have finally decided to break it off for good. Which of the following best illustrates an integrative solution to their dilemma of dividing up their possessions? A) They decide to randomly divide their possessions in half and then flip a coin to see who gets which half. B) They decide to split the possessions strictly by monetary value. C) Laura, the music lover of the two, gets the stereo, while Luke, the gourmet chef, gets all of the fancy pots and pans. D) They agree to let Pedro, a mutual friend, mediate the dispute and decide on the fairness of the negotiations. E) They agree to flip a coin and let the winner choose to take the ten items he or she most wants.
answer
C) Laura, the music lover of the two, gets the stereo, while Luke, the gourmet chef, gets all of the fancy pots and pans.
question
At first blush, it would appear that integrative solutions (in which each side in a conflict agrees to cede something to the other) would be relatively easy to achieve. However, Leigh Thompson (1995) has discovered that these kinds of solutions are difficult to achieve because A) rarely does one adversary want what the other adversary offers to give up. B) when involved parties negotiate, they often tend to be too trustworthy and can end up feeling cheated. C) when involved parties negotiate, they often wield threats. D) involved parties are bad at discovering their adversaries' true interests, so mistrust them. E) adversaries would rather experience a stalemate than cede a point to their opponents.
answer
E) adversaries would rather experience a stalemate than cede a point to their opponents.
question
You are the leader of a labour union on strike against management. The conflict has escalated, and there is anger and mistrust on both sides of the conflict. Management is about to declare bankruptcy and union strike benefits are running low. You want to resolve the conflict as quickly as possible, and to reach an agreement that both sides will accept as binding. What should you do? A) Accept a process loss. B) Hire a mediator. C) Use a tit-for-tat strategy. D) Threaten management with a strike. E) Push for a quid pro quo solution.
answer
B) Hire a mediator.
