Micro Exam Final – Flashcards
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Unlock answers| Antimicrobials |
| ________ are broad spectrum drugs effective against a wide variety of microbial types |
| Antisepsis |
| ________ is the use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens |
| Basophils |
| ________ are the least numerous of all WBC, which release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions |
| Beta lactamase |
| __________ prevents penicillin from blocking cell wall synthesis |
| Complement System |
| _________ of blood proteins acts to enhance phagocytosis and lyse foreign cells |
| Eosinophils |
| _______ are the blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation and particulary target parasitic worms and fungi |
| Artificial immunity |
| Example of __________ _________ is checken pox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox |
| Acyclovir |
| herpes simplex virus treatment |
| HIV is treated with? |
| Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase |
| IGE |
| Is the immunoglobulin class that has the Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells |
| Infections caused by _______ _______ include carbuncles, cellulitis, scaled skin syndrome and styes but NOT acne |
| Staphylococcus aureus |
| Isoniazid |
| used to treat tuberculosis |
| Alcohols |
| 50-70%; solutions most effective |
| Alkylating agents |
| inactivate proteins such as formalin |
| CD8+ |
| is a cytotoxic Tcell |
| Eosinophil |
| attacks helminthes |
| IgA |
| exists as a dimer in secretions |
| IgM |
| secreted as a pentamer |
| Paper disc method |
| zone of inhibition |
| Phenol |
| disrupts cytoplasmic membrane and example is Lysol |
| ______ professional antigen presenting cell |
| Macrophage |
| ______ is the drug used to treat helminthic infections |
| Mebendazole |
| ____ _____ cells are lymphocytes that lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attach cancer cells and virus infected cells |
| Natural killer cells |
| _____ are the WBC that has a multi-lobed nuclei and is ver phagocytic |
| Neutrophils |
| Granulocytes |
| Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils, macrophages are NOT |
| Opsonization |
| is the process involving anti-bodies coating/tagging microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis |
| Penicillin is not a mutagen but what are? |
| UV light, transposable elements and ionizing radiations are mutagens |
| ______ secrete and produce antibodies |
| Plasma cells |
| Smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus |
| Vaccinia |
| _______ causes Nectrotizing fascilitis/gangrene, erysipelas, impetigo, scarlet fever |
| Streptococcus pyogenes |
True or false, Streptococcus pyogenes causes scaleded skin syndrome? |
| False |
| ______ function in cell mediated immunity and _____ function in humoral immunity |
T cells cell mediated B cells humoral immunity |
| The coagulase test performed in lab is an example of a _____ test. |
| Aggulation |
| Tuberculin skin test is an example of type ___ hypersensitivity |
| Tuberculin skin test is an example of type 4 hypersensitivity |
| Type 1, 2 and 3 are the major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a ____ immunoglobulin response. |
| B cell |
| Wells are NOT coated with antibodies in the Elisa they are coated with _______. |
| Antigens |
| Amantadine |
| prevents influenza A replication |
| Cephalosporins |
| more resistant to beta lactamse |
| Erythromycin |
| inhibits protein synthesis and binds to 50s subunit of ribosome |
| Phenol |
| disrupts cytoplasmic membrane ex. Lysol |
| Aminoglycosides |
| inhibit protein synthesis and binds to 30 subunits of ribosome |
| Chloramphenicol |
| side effects include aplastic anemia |
| ______ is the drug that can cause aplastic anemia, and is used to treat thyphoid fever and brain abscesses |
| Chloramphenicol |
| Chloroquine |
| Antimalarial |
| Ethambutol |
| inhibits mycolic acid incorporation into cell wall |
| Imidazoles |
| antifungal that inhibit sterol synthesis |
| Ribavirin |
| antiviral that interferes w/RNA synthesis |
| Tetracycline |
| blocks tRNA from entering during translation |
| Biggest Phylum and classes |
Proteo Bacteria class is the largest phylum Alpha proteo bacteria class Beta proteo bacteria class Delta proteo bacteria class Gama proteo bacteria class Epsilon proteo bacteria class |
| Candida albicans |
| vagina normal biota |
| Clostriduim spp |
| large intestine biota |
| Pityrosporum orbiculare |
| skin normal biota |
| Streptococcus pyogenes |
| mouth normal biota |
| What does drug suseptibility tell you? |
| Dertermining the patoghens response to various antimicrobic |
| Acellular vaccine |
| contatins only antigen molecules |
| ______ _______ immunity is chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox |
| Artificial active immunity |
| Inactivated vaccines are described as containing _____ organisms and ______ are destroyed |
| Inactivated vaccines are described as containing KILLED organismas and ANTIGENS are destroyed |
| Small pox vaccine uses the ______ virus |
| Vaccinia virus |
| Endemic |
Disease that has a steady freq over time in a population is a endemic |
| Sporadic |
| when an infectious disease is reported at irregular intervals in random locales (ex. tetanus) |
| Epidemic |
| when statistics indicate the prevalence of an endemic or sporadic disease is increasing beyond what is expected for that population (ex. outbreak of cholera) |
| Pandemic |
| the spread of an epidemic disease across continents (ex. Aids) |
| Propionibacterium, Staphylococcus and Pityrosporum considered reseident flora of the ______. |
| Skin sites |
| Tetracycline interefers with ______ |
| protein synthesis |
| Escherichia coli, bacteroides, clostriduim and proteus are all resident flora of the _____. |
| gastrointestinal tract |
| HIV is treated with antivirals that target_______ ______. |
| Reverse transcriptase |
| ________ is the drug that can cause aplastic anemic, and is used to treat thyphoid fever and brain abscesses |
| Chloramphenicol |
| Herpes simplex virus is treated with _____ |
| Acyclovir |
| Isoniazid is used to treat ______ |
| Tuberculosis |
| Broad spectrum antibiotics |
| drug is effective against many microorganisms |
| Narrow spectrum antibiotics |
| drug is effective against a selected few microorganisms |
| Natural active immunization |
| coming down with the flu |
| Natural passive immunization |
| breast milk |
| Artificial active immunization |
| an attenuated vaccination |
| Artifical passive immunization |
| gamma globulin injection |
| Naturally acquired active immunity |
| get the disease by normal exp. then develop immunity |
| Naturally acquired passive immunity |
| when immunity is acquired from your momma (or your mamma's face) in utero d/t maternal antibodies or through breast milk |
| Artifically acquired active immunity |
| when you develop immunity without contracting the disease via vaccines |
| Artifically acquired passive immunity |
when you develp a temp. immunity via a gamma globulin injection, anti-venom, etc. A gamma globulin injection contains antibodies from pooled serum (it can be human or animal) Advantges: provide protection fro the immunocompromised, protection is immediate, protection is temporary while your won mimmunity develops
Disadvantages: serum sickness (when using animal preparations) hive like rash, swollen joints and no lasting immunity
|
| Complement system of blood proteins acts to enhance___ and ___ foreign cells |
| Complement system of blood proteins acts to enhance phagocytosis and lyse foreign cells |
| ____ are blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi. |
| Eosinophils |
| ____ is the serum of a person with blood type A will have. |
| Anti B antibodies |
| T cells function in ____ _____ immunity and B cells function in ____ _____ immunity |
| T cells function in cell mediated immunity and B cells function in humeral immunity |
| ______ is the professional antigen presenting cell |
| Macrophage |
| _____ are the WBC that has a multi-lobed nuclei and is very phagocytic |
| Neutrophils |
| _____ are lymphocytes that lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attach cancer cells and virus infected cells |
| Natural killer cells |
| ____, ____ ; ____ are phagocytic |
| Macrophages, monocytes and dendritics |
| The ___ gland shrinks in size during adulthood. |
| Thymus |
| The ____ gland has hormones that function in maturation of T lymphocytes |
| Thymus |
5 classes of antibodies
|
GAME D
IgG - most abundant in plasma
IgA - found in mucus, tears so on DIMER
IgM - PENTAMER, infection initial response switch to IgG
IgE - small number, allergic reactions, Fc protion bound to mast cells/basophils
IgD - antibody that is on the cell surface of B cell |
food allergy is type ? hay fever is type ? posoin ivy detmatitis is type ? blood transfusion is type ? |
hay fever is type 1 food allergy is type 1 blood transfusion is type 2 posoin ivy detmatitis is type 4
|
| Difference between hypersensitivities |
1, Immediate onset involves contact with allergens
2, Interaction of antibodies, foreign cells, and complement leading to lysis of the foreign cell
3, Exposure to a large quantity of soluble foreign antigens, circulating fee floating antigens
4, Delayed response, 12-48 hours after exposure to antigen involving the activation of and edamage by Tcells. Does NOT involve Bcells.... |
| Sensitizing dose |
Type 1 hypersentsitivity reaction. This exposure to the allergen is the sensitizing dose that primes the allergic response system. |
| Desensitization |
Desensitization therapy involves the administration of purified allergens to prevent reactions between allergen, IgE, and mast cells. Injected allergens stimulate the formation of high levels of allergen specific IgG (which have a high affinity for the allergen) instead of IgE. These IgG blocking antibodies remove allergen from the system before it can bvind to IgE, thus preventing the degranulation of mast cells.
Prolonged immunization The antigen is administered in increasing dosage |
| RNA, Start AUG complement |
UAC AUG=amino acid codes for methionine |
| Food allergy, hay fever, anaphylaxis and allergic asthma are all associated with ______ and _____ _____ mediated allergy. |
| IgE and mast cell mediated allergy |
| Promoter |
| RNA pyramilase binds DNA at site of the promoter |
| Central Dogma |
| DNA, replication, transcription, RNA, translation protein |
| Streptococcus pyogenes GPC |
Skin infections Batcterial Impetigo Erysipelas Streptococcal gangrene/nectrotizing fasciitis
Virulence of S. pyogenes, the M protien sticks out and prevents cell to cell contact and therefore cannot be phagocytized
|
| Staphylococcus aureus GPC |
Scalded skin syndrome, caused by exfoliative toxin A produced by S. aureus, is very specific to S. aureus
Exfoliative toxin A of the staphylococcus aureus strains cause blisters and dequamantion of skin in scaled skin syndrome |
| Smallpox (variola) |
| Vaccinia (cowpox), virus used for immunization' protective for 7-10 years |
| River blindness |
Eye infection Helminthic Onchocerciasis, caused by Onchocerca volvulus transmitted by black fly
|
| Oxidation & Reduction Reactions |
Oxidation, loss of a electron Reduction, gaining an electron |
| How do nutreiunts tranport into cells |
Cell wall is meshlike and nutrients diffuse through it
Cell membrane, Hydrophobic molecules pass through Hydrophilic molecules need transporters |
| End product of glycolysis |
2 pyruvates (a 3 carbon molecule with no phosphorus) 2 NADH 2 net ATP (you invest 2, make so you gain 2 additional) |
| Pentose Phosphate pathway (phosphogluconate pathway) end product |
Alternate route in glycolysis
Production of necessary precursors Ribose 5 phosphate Erythrose 4 phosphate
Production of electorn carriers NADPH
|
| Replication |
| Replication produces a new DNA molecule containg one starnd of newly synthesized DNA and the origianl template starnd |
| Transcription |
| Transcription produces the formation of RNA using DNA as a template |
| Tranlation |
| Translation produces amino acids are linked together to form a protein |
| Chemical Bonds |
Covalent, shares electrons ex. H2O
Ionic, electron transfer among atoms to complement valence ex. sodium chloride
Hydrongen (weakest), formed between hydrogen covalently bound to a molecule and an oxygen or nitrogen atom on the same or different molecules ex. DNA |
| Lipids |
Triglyceride, important storage lipids, fats and oils glycerol backbone + 3 fatty acides, hydrocarbon chains, bound by an ester bond
Phospholipids, serve as a major structural component of cell membranes phosphate head (polar and hydrophilic) + glycerol neck and 2 fatty acid tails (tail is nonpolar and hydrophobic) |
| Triglyceride |
Triglyceride, important storage lipids, fats and oils glycerol backbone + 3 fatty acides, hydrocarbon chains, bound by an ester bond
|
Phospholipids |
Phospholipids, serve as a major structural component of cell membranes phosphate head (polar and hydrophilic) + glycerol neck and 2 fatty acid tails (tail is nonpolar and hydrophobic) |
| Semi conservative replication |
Semi conservative replication is old parent strand is the template and the new daughter starand is the complementary One old, one new strand |
| Three types of RNA |
mRNA, is a transcript copy of the DNA (messanger RNA)
tRNA, transfer amino acids used to build the protein, translator, binds mRNA and amino acid (transfer RNA)
rRNA, part of ribosome which is the site of protein synthesis (ribosomal RNA) |
| Barriers to drug distribution |
Cell membrane, drugs can dissolve in phospholipids (hydrophobic) pass through, but most cannot and must use protein protion or use transport system
CNS and eye infections are hard to treat because of almost impermeable membranes
Proteins that bind to drugs, form a protein drug complex that cannot pass membranes in this form. Binding is reversible, as unbound drugs leaves the area, more is released from the complex, this slows down distribution |
| Who disproved spontaeous generation |
| Louis Pasture disporved spontaneous generation with the use of the swan neck flask |
| Phase of Bacteria growth |
Lag phase, flat period, appears to have no growth
Exponential phase, cells reach the max of cell division, curve climbs steadily
Stationary phase, survival mode, cells stop growing or slow, curve levels off
Death phase, cells die exponential rate, curve dips down, slower than grwth phase |
Lag phase
Exponential phase |
Lag phase, flat period, appears to have no growth
Exponential phase, cells reach the max of cell division, curve climbs steadily
Stationary phase, survival mode, cells stop growing or slow, curve levels off
Death phase, cells die exponential rate, curve dips down, slower than grwth phase |
Stationary phase
Death phase |
Stationary phase, survival mode, cells stop growing or slow, curve levels off
Death phase, cells die exponential rate, curve dips down, slower than grwth phase |
| Nutritive Growth Requirements |
CHONPS Carbon Hydrogen Oxygen Nitrogen Phosphorus Sulfur
In addition to CHONPS, growth factors in laboratory growth are added, ammino acids, nucleotides Trace elements (micronutrients) like metal ions (zinc, manganese) |
| Disinfection |
| Disinfection, use of a physical process or a chemical agent to destroy vegetative pathogens (but not bacterial endosporest) on inanimate objects |
| Antisepsis |
| Antisepsis, kills microorganisms on living tissue; are applied directly to exposed body surfaces |
| What cells are stimulated by the antigen Ag plus MHC II |
TH helper Tcells or CD4+ cells. 2 classes TH1, induce cell mediated immunity Tcells TH2, regulate antibody mediated immunity or humoral immunity B cells
|
| What cells are stimulated by the antigen Ag plus MHC I? |
TC cytotoxic Tcells or CD8+ cells are stimulated by the antigen Ag plus MHC I.TC secreated perforin, the cell is lysed |
| Microorganisms |
Most are not pathogens
Prokaryotic, no nucleus or organelles very simplistic, like Bacteria and Archea
Eukaryotic, have nucleus, organells, like mitochondria includes fungus, and animals
Acellular, not complete cell, includes viruses, prions |
| Types of microorganisms |
Prokaryotic, E. coli Bacteria, Archea
Eukaryotic, fungus, molds, yeast, algae, protozoan and helminth worms
Acellular, virus and prions
|
| Structure of a endospore |
Endospore Gram + forms endospores in areorbic |
| Structure of Fungus |
Yeast, round or oval shap single cell
Dimorphism or two shapes, mold at room temperature and yeast grows at body temperature
Hyphae, individual filaments' Mycelium connected hyphae, molds
Lower fungi, if walls are undivided coencytic
Higher fungi if mycelium appear to be divided by a septa incomplete divisions |
Lower fungi?
Higher fungi? |
Lower fungi, if walls are undivided coencytic
Higher fungi if mycelium appear to be divided by a septa incomplete divisions |
| Structure of a segmented helminth, tapeworms |
Scolex, the head with suckers on it for attachment
Proglottids, body segements
Germinal center, wehere new segments are made |
| Peptidoglycan |
Peptidoglycan, polysaccharide it is a combination of a protein component and sugar
Bacteria, prokaryotic, truc bacteris has peptidoglycan cell wall
Proveids shap, helps withsantd turgor pressure Made up of chains alternating polysaccharides, NAG and NAM cross-linked with peptides |
If Aerobic respiration the final electron acceptor is ?
In Anaerobic respiration the final electorn acceptor can be ____, ___, ____. |
Aerobic respiration final electron acceptor is oxygen
Anaerobic respiration the final electron acceptor can be sulfates, nitrate or fumerate
|
| Endosporset (sporulation) occurs when? |
| Endospores sporulation occurs when conditions are unfavorable for growth like extreme heat, cold, dehydration, presence of toxic chemicals or radiateion. |
| Chlamydiae Lifecycle |
Elementary body enteres host cell
Elementary bodies change into reticulate bodies
Reticulate bodies multiply
Reticulate bodies change back into elementary bodies
Host cells lyses releasing elementary bodies, Chlamydiospore spreads infection |
| Cellular respiration, where it takes place |
Cycle Prokaryotes Eukaryotes Glycolisis Cytoplasm Cytoplasm Conversion Cytoplasm Mitochondria TCA Cytoplasm Mitochondria ETC Cell memebrane Mitochondria
|
What cycle creates the most / least ATP FADH2 NADH |
ATP is created the most in the ETC ATP is created the least in conversion
NADH is created the most in the TCA NADH is created the least in conversion/glycolisi
FADH2 is created the most in the TCA due to it only being created there and no where else |
Capsule producing organisms causing pneumonia adn meningitis
|
Meisseria meningitides GNDC (bacteris 25%) has a cpasule and IgA protease virulence factors
Haemophilus influenzae GNR bacteria has a capsule and infects respiratory track |
| Structure of macromolecule |
Triglyceride to phospholipid, hydrophobic/hydrophilic proteins, carbs os on
Carbohydrates, sugars, mono, di and poly-saccharides
Lipids, triglycerides, phospolipids, steroids
Proteins, consist of series of amino acides peptides, ploypeptides
|
Where is the Condon located?
|
Codon on mRNA
Anticodon is on tRNA
|
| DNA structure |
A-T 2 hydrogen bonds G-C 3 hydrogen bonds |
| RNA structure |
translates the DNA information into proteins transcription mRNA copy of gene tRNA, rRNA
A-T U-G |
| CAPSULE PRODUCING ORGANISM |
| MENIGITUS PNEMONIA |
| ATP IS? |
| ADINOSINE TRIPHOPHATE, NUCLEOTIDE CONTAINS ENERGY FOR METABOLISM |
| RESOLUTION |
ABILITY TO DISTINQUISH BETWEEN 2 POINTS MEASURED AS RESOLVING POWER
dependant upon size of objective lens and wave length of light and the refactuve endex of material between ojectives and specimen |
| The tuberculin skin test is an example of type ? hypersensitivity |
| The tuberculin skin test is an example of type 4 hypersensitivity |
| ___ exists as a dimer in secretions |
| IgA exists as a dimer in secretions |
| ___ secreted as a pentamer |
| IgM is secreted as a pentamer |
| Paper disc method is ____ |
| The paper disc method is the zone of inhibition |
| A chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by ____ is Hansens disease |
| Mycobacterium leprae |
| A disease in which worms invade the eyes is ____ |
| River blindness |
