Marketing Pearson Questions (Final) – Flashcards
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Companies setup? __________ which allow key customers and? value-network members to access? product, account, and other data anytime they need to A. intranets B. extranets Your answer is correct.C. data warehouses D. websites E. wireless networks
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B
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To develop needed? information, marketing information systems utilize? __________. A. marketing? intelligence, marketing? research, and the marketing environment B. internal? databases, big? data, and market research C. marketing? managers, information? users, and internal databases D. internal? databases, marketing? intelligence, and marketing research E. internal? databases, marketing? research, and marketing managers
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D
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Which of the following statement regarding competitive marketing intelligence is? correct? A. Marketing intelligence information is not available from the U.S. government. B. The goal of competitive marketing intelligence is to improve strategic decision making. C. Monitoring a? competitor's website is unethical. D. Marketing intermediaries are not a good source of competitive marketing intelligenc E. Companies should not be concerned about? competitor's accessing publicly available information about them.
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B
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Which of the following statements about marketing information systems? (MIS) is? correct? A. An MIS begins and ends with information collectors. B. A good MIS must balance what users would like to have against what they really need and what is feasible to offer. C. An MIS is focused on internal data and ignores the marketing environment. D. Marketing information systems provide information only to a? company's internal users. E. A good MIS gives managers all the information they ask for.
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B
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Which one of the following statements about marketing research in small businesses and nonprofit organizations is? correct? A. Small companies and nonprofits do not need marketing information. B. Good research requires large sample sizes which are not feasible for small businesses and nonprofits. C. The research methods of small businesses and nonprofits are less complex and less? costly, but they still must be conducted carefully. D. Only large companies can afford to conduct marketing research. E. Surveys are the only research approach that can be effectively used by small businesses and nonprofits.
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C
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Which of the following statements about information and customer insights is? correct? A. Customer insights are useful but do not give companies a competitive advantage. B. Information to gain customer insights comes from a wide variety of sources. C. To gain useful customer? insights, more? data is better data. D. Customer insights have little impact on building customer relationships. E. Customer insights are relatively easy to obtain.
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B
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What are the three types of research? objectives? A. ?Exploratory, descriptive, and causal Your answer is correct.B. ?Causal, experimental, and hypothetical C. ?Exploratory, causal, and experimental D. ?Exploratory, formal, and casual E. ?Exploratory, descriptive, and definitive
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A
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Which of the following statements about online research is? correct? A. It is more expensive to conduct online research than using? mail, phone, or personal interviews. B. Experiments cannot be conducted online. C. The Internet is especially well suited to qualitative research. D. Online surveys generally have higher response rates than those conducted by mail or phone. E. Online research is only feasible for large companies.
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D
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Defining the problem and research objectives is the? __________ step in the marketing research process. A. fourth B. third C. second D. fifth E. first
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E
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Which of the following statements about big data is? correct? A. Big data actually refers to very small data sets. B. Analyzing big data is a very easy task. C. Analyzing big data will always lead to useful customer insights. D. Big data is very important because marketers today need more information to make good decisions. E. One result of big data is that marketing managers are often overloaded with information.
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E
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Which of the following is a? cost-based pricing? approach? A. ?Value-added pricing B. ?High-low pricing C. ?Competition-based pricing D. ?Break-even pricing E. EDLP pricing
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D
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New, premium movie theaters offer features such as online reserved? seating, high-backed leather executive chairs with armrests and? footrests, the latest in digital sound and? super-wide screens, and other amenities for which they charge a higher price. This is an example of which type of? pricing? A. ?High-low pricing B. ?Cost-plus pricing C. ?Value-added pricing This is the correct answer.D. ?Break-even pricing E. EDLP pricing
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D
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding different types of? markets? A. Under oligopolistic competition each seller is alert and responsive to? competitors' pricing strategies and marketing moves. B. Under pure competition sellers spend considerable time on marketing strategy and pricing decisions. C. In a pure? monopoly, the market consists of many buyers and sellers trading over a range of prices. D. Under oligopolistic? competition, the market consists of many buyers and sellers trading in a uniform commodity and sellers do not spend much time on marketing strategy. E. Under monopolistic competition the market is dominated by one seller.
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A
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In which type of market does no buyer or seller have much impact on setting the going market? price? A. Oligopolistic competition B. Pure competition C. B2B market D. Pure monopoly E. Monopolistic competition
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B
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Which factor sets the ceiling on setting a? product's price? A. Competitors B. Demand C. ?Customer's value perceptions D. Revenue E. Company costs
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C
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A. Competitors B. Demand C. ?Customer's value perceptions D. Revenue E. Company costs
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D
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Price is the only part of the marketing mix that? __________. A. does not play a role in creating customer value B. incurs costs C. produces revenue D. is defined by the consumer E. attracts buyers
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C
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Which of the following correctly identifies the three major pricing strategies used by? marketers? A. Customer value-based ?pricing, cost-based? pricing, and? revenue-based pricing B. Customer value-based ?pricing, revenue-based? pricing, and? competition-based pricing C. Customer value-based ?pricing, revenue-based? pricing, and? profit-based pricing D. Customer value-based ?pricing, cost-based? pricing, and? competition-based pricing E. Customer value-based ?pricing, cost-based? pricing, and? profit-based pricing
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D
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On a? break-even chart, the? break-even volume is located? __________. A. at the intersection of total revenue and fixed costs B. at the intersection of total revenue and target profit C. at the intersection of target profit and total costs D. at the intersection of total revenue and total costs E. at the intersection of total revenue and variable costs
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D
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Internal factors that affect pricing include? __________. A. the? company's overall marketing? strategy, objectives, and demand B. the? company's overall marketing? strategy, objectives, and the nature of the market C. the? company's overall marketing? strategy, the nature of the? market, and demand. D. the nature of the? market, demand, and the economy. E. the? company's overall marketing? strategy, objectives, and marketing mix
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E
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Many amusement parks charge a daily ticket or season pass charge plus additional fees for food and other? in-park features. This is called? __________. A. ?product-bundle pricing B. ?two-part pricing C. product line pricing D. ?by-product pricing E. ?optional-product pricing
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B
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Whirlpool washers and dryers are offered in many different models. Whirlpool will use? __________ pricing to determine the price steps between the different models. A. ?two-part pricing B. ?optional-product C. product line D. ?product-bundle E. ?captive-product
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C
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One form of? __________ is when movie theaters charge one price for adults and a different price for senior citizens. A. product form pricing B. ?location-based pricing C. ?customer-segment pricing D. psychological pricing E. promotional allowances
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C
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Promotional pricing tactics include? __________. A. ?customer-segment pricing,? location-based pricing, and? time-based pricing B. ?discounts, geographical? pricing, and? special-event pricing C. ?discounts, limited time? offers, and reference prices D. functional? discounts, limited time? offers, and? location-based pricing E. ?discounts, special-event? pricing, and limited time offers
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E
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When would a competitor most likely react to a? firm's price? change? A. When the number of firms involved is large B. When buyers are not well informed about prices C. When the product is differentiated D. When buyers are not well informed about the product E. When the number of firms involved is small
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E
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?__________ occurs when retailers set an artificially high? "regular price" and then advertise a? "sale price" which is actually close to their everyday price. A. Price fixing B. Retail price maintenance C. Predatory pricing D. Deceptive pricing E. Price discrimination
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D
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Which of the following statements is true concerning new product pricing? strategies? A. For a? market-skimming strategy to be? successful, the costs of producing a smaller volume cannot be so high that they cancel the advantage of charging more. B. For a? market-penetration strategy to? work, production and distribution costs must increase as sales volume increases. C. If competitors can easily enter the? market, a? market-skimming strategy should be used. D. When using a? market-skimming strategy, marketers do not need to focus on the? product's quality and image. E. A? market-penetration strategy should be used if the market is not highly price sensitive.
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A
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Many personal care companies combine toothpaste with a toothbrush at a reduced price. This is an example of? __________ pricing. A. ?product-bundle B. ?by-product C. ?captive-product D. product line E.
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A
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A soda pop company offers a discount to a grocer. In? exchange, the grocer agrees to provide? in-store advertising for the soda pop and additional? sales-support. This is an example of? __________. A. ?trade-in allowances B. promotional allowances C. cash discounts D. discounts E. segment discounts
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B
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When Apple Computer Company introduced their? iPhone, they priced the new product at? $599, considerably higher than either their iPod or competing cellular phones. Apple Computer was pursuing? a(n) __________ pricing strategy. A. ?by-product B. ?market-skimming C. ?market-penetration D. ?optional-product E. ?captive-product
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B
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Which of the following statements about major retail trends is? true? A. Online buying is growing at a much brisker pace than retail buying as a whole. B. The global expansion of major retailers into other countries has slowed down. C. The green movement has not yet affected retailing. D. The lifecycle of new retail forms is increasing. E. Retail convergence has decreased competition for retailers.
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A
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A discount store? (for example,? Target, Kohl's, or? Walmart) sells standard merchandise at lower prices. To do? this, discount stores accept which of the following two? conditions? A. Lower margins and selling lower volume B. Selling higher volume and having inefficient operations C. Lower margins and selling higher volume D. Operating at a loss and selling higher volume E. Higher margins and selling lower volume
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C
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Which type of retailer carries narrow product lines with deep assortments within those? lines? A. Superstores B. Discount stores C. Convenience stores D. Specialty stores E. Department stores
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D
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Which wholesaler channel function helps reduce inventory holding? costs? A. Risk bearing B. Transportation C. Financing D. Buying and assortment building E. Warehousing
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E
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A cluster of between 15 and 50 retail stores that usually contains a branch of a department store or variety? store, a? supermarket, specialty? stores, professional? offices, and? (sometimes) a bank is a? __________. A. power center B. community shopping center C. neighborhood shopping center D. lifestyle center E. regional shopping mall
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B
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L.L.Bean has turned its flagship store and campus in? Freeport, Maine into a? full-fledged outdoor adventure center.? There, customers can? hike, kayak, or go seal watching at nearby Cisco Bay. This is an example of? __________. A. ?full-service retailing B. a community shopping center C. ?omni-channel retailing D. experiential retailing E. ?one-stop shopping
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D
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Which of the following are the largest group of? wholesalers, accounting for roughly 50 percent of all? wholesaling? A. ?Manufacturers' representatives B. Agents C. Merchant wholesalers D. ?Manufacturers' agents E. Brokers
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C
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Recently, superstores that are actually giant specialty? stores, such as Petco and Home? Depot, have seen tremendous growth. These types of superstores are called? __________. A. department stores B. category killers C. warehouse clubs D. discount stores E. ?off-price retailers
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B
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Retailing today requires? __________, which means creating a seamless? cross-channel buying experience that integrates? in-store, online, and mobile shopping. A. showrooming B. ?full-service retailing C. flash sales D. ?omni-channel retailing E. wholesaling
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D
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Retailers must decide on which three major product? variables? A. Product? assortment, services? mix, and price B. Product? assortment, price, and location C. Product? assortment, store? atmosphere, and price D. Product? assortment, services? mix, and location E. Product? assortment, services? mix, and store atmosphere
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E
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What are the four major functions of? logistics? A. ?Retailing, inventory? management, transportation, and logistics information? management B. ?Warehousing, inventory? management, transportation, and logistics information? management C. ?Warehousing, inventory? management, retailing, and logistics information management D. ?Warehousing, inventory? management, transportation, and? retailing E. Inventory? management, transportation,? shipping, and warehousing
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B
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Companies now use? __________ and supply chain management software to help? recruit, train,? organize, manage,? motivate, and evaluate channel partners. A. channel management B. distribution centers C. partner relationship management D. logistics E. customer relationship management
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C
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Which of the following is an example of horizontal channel? conflict? A. A retailer complaining about a? producer's pricing. B. A consumer complaining to a producer about the quality of a product. C. A Ford dealer complaining that another Ford dealer is advertising in their territory. D. A consumer complaining to a retailer about the service they received. E. A retailer complaining about receiving damaged goods from a wholesaler.
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C
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In? 2001, Apple opened its first Apple stores in the United States. These stores were owned and operated by Apple. This is an example of which type of vertical marketing system? (VMS)? A. Conventional B. Corporate This is the correct answer.C. Contractual D. Administered E. Franchise
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B
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Which of the following statements regarding marketing channel design is? correct? A. It is important to let the responsibilities of channel members evolve as their relationship develops. B. In global? markets, channel systems are the same in different countries. C. Channel objectives should be set in terms of profitability. D. Channel alternatives should be evaluated against? economic, control, and adaptability criteria. E. Marketers should always maximize the number of intermediaries used in a channel.
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D
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he? company, suppliers,? distributors, and customers who open "partner" with one another to improve the performance of the entire system make up the? __________. A. marketing channel network B. supply chain network C. upstream network D. value delivery network E. downstream network
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D
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Which of the following is a reason that producers use marketing channels and channel? intermediaries? A. Using channel intermediaries increases the number of contacts with customers. B. Using marketing channels allows producers to retain full control over how and to whom they sell their products. C. Marketing channel members are able to transform the assortments of products made by producers into the assortments wanted by consumers. D. Marketing channel decisions require only a? short-term commitment. E. The reduced costs of using channel intermediaries offsets the inefficiencies of marketing channels.
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C
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Which of the following statements regarding marketing channel behavior and design is? correct? A. Distribution channels are nothing more than simple collections of firms tied together by various flows. B. Conflicts rarely occur in marketing distribution channels. C. A conventional distribution channel consists of one or more independent? producers, wholesalers, and retailers acting as a unified system. D. Vertical marketing systems lack leadership and? power, often resulting in damaging conflict and poor channel performance. E. The success of individual channel members depends on the overall? channel's success.
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E
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What does the process of designing marketing channels start? with? A. Evaluating major channel alternatives B. Analyzing consumer needs C. Setting channel objectives D. Identifying the types of intermediaries to use E. Identifying the number of intermediaries to use
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B
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?Cross-functional teamwork within the? company, building logistics? partnerships, and third party logistics are all important elements of? __________. A. multimodal transportation B. sustainable supply chains C. integrated logistics management D. reverse logistics E. supply chain management
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C
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Which promotional tool is any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of? ideas, goods, or services by an identified? sponsor? A. Direct and digital marketing B. Sales promotion C. Advertising D. Personal selling E. Public relations
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C
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One form of influence that carries great? weight, especially for products that are? expensive, risky, or highly visible is? __________. A. television B. atmospheres C. grand openings D. company websites E. word of mouth
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E
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Which of the following is the correct order of the six? buyer-readiness stages? A. ?Awareness, knowledge,? liking, preference,? conviction, and purchase B. ?Awareness, knowledge,? liking, preference,? purchase, and conviction C. ?Awareness, preference,? knowledge, liking,? conviction, and purchase D. ?Awareness, knowledge,? preference, liking,? conviction, and purchase E. ?Awareness, knowledge,? purchase, liking,? preference, and conviction
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A
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What are the three major factors identified in the text that are changing? today's marketing communications? landscape? A. ?Consumers, marketing? budgets, and digital technologies B. ?Email, social? media, and blogs C. Television? programming, email, and mass media D. ?Consumers, marketing? strategy, and digital technologies E. Digital? technologies, mass? media, and marketing strategy
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D
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What is the goal of integrated marketing? communications? A. To allow different company departments to send different brand messages B. To only use newer digital technologies to communicate with consumers C. To deliver different brand messages over different communication channels D. To deliver a hodgepodge of brand content to consumers E. To deliver? clear, consistent, and compelling company and brand messages
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E
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One framework for designing an effective message is the AIDA model. In the AIDA model? __________. A. attention leads to? interest, which hopefully leads to desire and then assimilation B. advertising leads to? interest, which hopefully leads to desire and then action C. attention leads to? interest, which hopefully leads to desire and then action D. attention leads to? interest, which hopefully leads to discussion and then action E. advertising leads to? interest, which hopefully leads to desire and then attention
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C
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Which of the following statements regarding advertising in the new marketing communications model is? correct? A. Advertising spending in? magazines, radio, and newspapers has increased. B. Advertisers are using more traditional mass media because costs have declined and audience size has increased. C. Advertisers are using less targeted media to reach consumers. D. Advertisers are spending more on television broadcast media. E. Advertisers are shifting toward digital media.
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E
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A recent study showed that more than? two-thirds of advertisers are planning video ad campaigns that stretch across multiple viewing platforms. This is called? __________. A. platform coordination B. video coordination C. video reach D. video integration E. video convergence
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E
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Specific promotional tools used in? __________ include press? releases, sponsorships,? events, and web pages. A. advertising B. public relations C. direct and digital marketing D. sales promotion E. personal selling
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B
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At certain stages of the buying? process, which element of the promotional mix is most effective in building up? buyers' preferences,? convictions, and? actions? A. Advertising B. Public relations C. Direct and digital marketing D. Personal selling E. Sales promotion
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D
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What is media? impact? A. The return on investment from the ad campaign B. The number of times a person is exposed to a message C. The qualitative value of exposure to a message D. How much the chosen media engages the target audience E. The percentage of the target audience that is exposed to a message
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C
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Advertising objectives can be classified based on three primary purposes. What are the three? purposes? A. To? inform, engage, or entertain B. To? inform, persuade, or gain interest C. To? inform, persuade, or remind D. To get? attention, inform, or entertain E. To? inform, gain? interest, or remind
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E
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What is the intent of? advertainment? A. To clearly separate the advertisement from the entertainment aspect B. To use humorous appeals that everyone agrees are funny C. To place brands in popular television shows D. To make ad messages credible E. To make ads and brand content into something that people actually want to watch
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E
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Which of the following statements about setting an advertising budget is? correct? A. Mature brands usually require higher advertising budgets as a ratio to sales. B. When a product is clearly? differentiated, advertising is not used in the promotion mix. C. New products typically need relatively large advertising budgets to build awareness and to gain consumer trial. D. Brands in a market with many competitors and high advertising clutter usually require less advertising. E. Undifferentiated brands do not require advertising to set them apart.
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C
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The public relations function of? __________ is used to build and maintain national or local community relationships. A. product publicity B. development C. press relations D. lobbying E. public affairs
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E
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Which type of advertising is heavily used for new product category? introductions? A. Attack B. Persuasive C. Comparative D. Reminder E. Informative
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E
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To bring the message strategy to life in a distinctive and memorable? way, advertisers develop what is known as the? "big idea". This big idea becomes the? __________. A. message strategy B. message execution style C. creative concept D. creative appeal E. message content
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C
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One primary PR responsibility is to create content that? __________. A. is more entertaining than an advertising campaign B. draws consumers to a brand C. disparages competitors D. lessens the need for using other promotional tools E. is informative but rarely engaging
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B
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What is the first decision advertisers need to make when developing an advertising? program? A. Setting advertising objectives B. Evaluating the? program's effectiveness C. Setting the budget D. Selecting the media E. Determining the message appeals
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A
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Regardless of the size of the? budget, to? succeed, advertising must engage consumers and? __________. A. use humor B. communicate well C. attack competitors D. entertain them E. reduce the clutter
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B
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According to the? text, what is the? fastest-growing sales trend? today? A. Using a field based sales force B. ?e-learning C. Social selling D. The use of sales quotas E. ?Commission-based compensation plans
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C
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Which of the following statements about personal selling is? correct? A. The role of personal selling is very consistent from company to company. B. Personal selling is a fairly new profession. C. Salespeople represent the company to? customers, but they do not represent customers to the company. D. Many customers are unable to distinguish the salesperson from the company. E. Personal selling is the nonpersonal arm of the promotional mix.
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D
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After the presentation and demonstration step in the sales? process, a salesperson should next be prepared to? __________. A. immediately close the sale B. ?follow-up with the customer C. prospect the customer D. handle objections E. approach qualified customers
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D
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One study found that the best salespersons have four traits in? common: intrinsic? motivation, a disciplined work? style, the ability to close a? sale, and the ability to build relationships with customers. Knowing this would be most useful at which stage of sales force? management? A. Setting sales force size B. Compensating salespeople C. Evaluating salespeople D. Training salespeople E. Recruiting and selecting salespeople
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E
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Sales? reports, call? reports, and expense reports are all used in the process of? __________ salespeople. A. evaluating This is the correct answer.B. selecting C. supervising D. motivating E. training
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A
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In complex selling? situations, personal selling can be very effective because it is? __________. A. designed to reach large groups of consumers B. a generic approach C. impersonal D. interpersonal E. only used for face to face customer interactions
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D
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Which of the following is an objective for business? promotions? A. Generating business leads B. Getting more support for the sales force C. Getting retailers to buy ahead D. Getting more shelf space from retailers E. Urging? short-term customer buying
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A
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Once the company has set its? structure, what is the next strategic decision it? faces? A. Compensating salespeople B. Evaluating salespeople C. Training salespeople D. Recruiting and selecting salespeople E. Sizing the sales force
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E
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What is the first decision made in sales force? management? A. Designing sales force strategy and structure B. Evaluating salespeople C. Compensating salespeople D. Recruiting and selecting salespeople E. Training salespeople
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A
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Which of the following would NOT be a consideration for decision making in designing the full sales promotion? program? A. Conditions for participation B. The length of the promotion C. How to promote the promotion D. The size of the promotion E. How to set it apart from other promotion mix elements
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E
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Buyers have increased their use of direct and digital marketing because they are? __________. A. ?convenient, private, and hard to use B. ?easy, convenient, and public C. ?easy, convenient, and impersonal D. ?easy, convenient, and private E. ?easy, private, and expensive
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D
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What are the two main forms of online? advertising? A. ?Search-related ads and contextual advertising B. Display ads and? search-related ads C. Online display ads and rich media ads D. ?Search-related ads and coupons E. Online display ads and interactive ads
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B
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Which of the following is a challenge to marketers regarding their use of social? media? A. Very few consumers use it. B. It can create brand communities. C. It is? cost-effective. D. It can be used for? real-time marketing. E. Social networks are largely user controlled.
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E
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Digital marketing can link brands to important moments in? customer's lives. This aspect of digital marketing is called? __________. A. ?real-time marketing B. online marketing C. immediate marketing D. web marketing E. ?brand-linked marketing
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A
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According to the? text, what is the toughest public policy issue now confronting the direct marketing? industry? A. Fraudulent online schemes B. Phishing C. Spamming D. Irritation E. Invasion of privacy
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E
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What is the digital version of? word-of-mouth marketing? A. ?Permission-based email B. Blogs C. Brand community websites D. Social media E. Viral marketing
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E
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According to the? text, what can be the ultimate direct marketing? medium, assuming it is used? correctly? A. Email B. Social media C. Online advertising D. Websites E. Blogs
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A
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One drawback to viral marketing is that? __________. A. videos are not available through viral marketing B. marketers cannot control where users pass along the message C. it allows only for negative exposure to a brand D. people tend to ignore it E. it is expensive
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B
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Which form of marketing involves engaging directly with carefully targeted individual consumers and customer communities to both obtain an immediate response and build lasting customer? relationships? A. Sales promotion B. Direct and digital marketing C. Personal selling D. Public relations E. Advertising
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B
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Direct mail is well suited for which of the? following? A. Building brand community B. Engaging customers anytime and anywhere during the buying process C. Offering interactive content D. ?Real-time marketing E. ?Direct, one-to-one communications
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E
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What are the two economic factors that reflect a? country's attractiveness as a? market? A. Income distribution and tariffs B. Industrial structure and income distribution C. Industrial structure and tariffs D. Tariffs and quotas E. Income distribution and monetary regulations
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B
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Which of the following statements about the global marketplace is? correct? A. Corruption no longer exists when doing business in foreign markets. B. ?Economically, there is now a global boom. C. Taking a domestic business abroad is less risky than in the past. D. Global competition is decreasing. E. Domestic firms need to internationalize to take advantage of growing markets throughout the world.
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E
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In balancing standardization and? adaptation, one common suggestion from international marketers is to? __________. A. think locally but act globally Your answer is not correct.B. always standardize because the world is now a global village C. avoid standardization because strategically it is very complicated D. think globally but act locally E. always use adaptation because it is less costly
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D
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What is the main disadvantage of direct? investment? A. The need to staff the facility with home nation employees B. Lack of control over the investment C. The risks the firm faces D. Host nation resentment E. Higher costs
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C
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A? country's attractiveness depends on the? product, geographical? factors, income and? population, political? climate, and other considerations. These factors relate to the importance of which of the following? decisions? A. The targeted level of foreign sales B. The types of countries to enter C. How many countries to enter D. International marketing objectives E. International policies
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B
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To assess the impact of? __________ on global? markets, marketers would look to a? country's norms,? folkways, and taboos. A. free trade zones B. culture C. tariff and quota restrictions D. the economy E. the? political-legal environment
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B
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Apple? iPads, Gillette? razors, and Black? ; Decker tools are all sold successfully in about the same form around the world. This is an example of which global? strategy? A. Product adaptation B. Communication adaptation C. Product invention D. A straight product extension E. Dual adaptation
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D
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Free trade zones can be described as? __________. A. trade zones determined by the U.S. government B. groups of nations organized to work toward common goals in the regulation of international trade C. areas where products are traded for free D. groups of nations who do not regulate trade E. areas within a country that do not impose taxes.
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B
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Which joint venturing method typically involves fees and royalty? payments? A. Joint ownership B. Licensing C. Management contracting D. Direct investment E. Contract manufacturing
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B
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What are the three ways a company can organize its international operating? units? A. By? product, geography, and sales B. By? cultural, economic, and? political-legal factors C. By? sales, profits, and market share D. By geographical? organizations, world product? groups, and international subsidiaries E. By? sales, products, and prices
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D
