HR ch:4 – Flashcard
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1. Because a job analysis includes information about the requirements of someone performing a job, it provides the criteria for evaluating the people who do the work. a. True b. False
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a. True
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2. A statement of the different duties, tasks, and responsibilities of a job is known as a job specification. a. True b. False
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b. False
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3. Job specifications describe the duties, tasks, and responsibilities performed on the job and therefore play a key role in performance appraisal. a. True b. False
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b. False
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4. KSAOs refer to the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes required of a person performing a job. a. True b. False
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a. True
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5. If the criteria used to hire and evaluate employees are vague and not job-related, employers are less likely to find themselves being accused of discriminating against the members of protected classes. a. True b. False
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b. False
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6. Requiring a high school diploma, even for a laborer job, is acceptable under the law if the company has a policy that all employees must be high school graduates. a. True b. False
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b. False
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7. Job analysis is the process of obtaining information about jobs through a process of determining what the duties, tasks, or activities of those jobs are. a. True b. False
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a. True
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8. Common methods of analyzing jobs include interviews, questionnaires, observation, and diaries. a. True b. False
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a. True
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9. Employee interviewing is the most accurate method of job analysis because the employee is least likely to exaggerate essential job functions. a. True b. False
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b. False
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10. Inflating a job's responsibilities can occur unintentionally. a. True b. False
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a. True
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11. O*Net Online, maintained by the Department of Labor, contains standardized and comprehensive job descriptions. a. True b. False
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a. True
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12. Critical incident analysis is an organization-specific list of tasks and their descriptions that are used as a basis to identify components of a job. a. True b. False
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b. False
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13. The critical job tasks identified by the critical incident approach to job analysis include those important behaviors and job responsibilities performed by the jobholder that lead to job success. a. True b. False
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a. True
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14. Job descriptions, job specifications, and even job evaluations can now be downloaded quickly from O*NET. a. True b. False
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b. False
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15. The task inventory analysis method was pioneered by Microsoft. a. True b. False
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b. False
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16. Most job descriptions include a job title, a job identification section, and a job duties section. a. True b. False
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a. True
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17. The job title is of psychological importance as well as descriptive. a. True b. False
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a. True
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18. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, the purpose of essential functions in a job description is to help match job requirements to organizational goals. a. True b. False
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b. False
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19. The law requires employers to be able to show that the job criteria they use to select employees for a particular position relate specifically to the duties for that job. a. True b. False
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a. True
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20. Job specifications usually cover two areas: (1) the skill required to perform the job, and (2) the level of autonomy inherent in the position. a. True b. False
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b. False
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21. Federal guidelines and court decisions now permit that performance requirements of a job may be based on invalid job-related criteria. a. True b. False
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b. False
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22. Managers of businesses where employees perform many different job tasks must be concerned about writing specific job descriptions because federal guidelines and court decisions require job requirements to be based on valid job-related criteria. a. True b. False
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a. True
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23. Job design is the process of studying and designing equipment and systems that are easy and efficient for employees to use so that their physical well-being is not compromised. a. True b. False
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b. False
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24. Software programs, more often than not, actually hinder the job analysis process. a. True b. False
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b. False
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25. Job enrichment can improve employee performance in cases of dissatisfaction with pay and benefits. a. True b. False
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b. False
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26. Adding more meaningful tasks to an employee's job in an effort to make it more rewarding is an example of job enrichment. a. True b. False
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a. True
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27. According to Oldham, skill variety is the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, which demand the use of a number of different skills and talents by the jobholder. a. True b. False
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a. True
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28. The job characteristics model suggests that a motivated, satisfied, and productive employee is one who (1) experiences meaningful work; (2) experiences responsibility for work outcomes; and (3) has knowledge of the results of his or her work activities. a. True b. False
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a. True
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29. In the job characteristics model, skill variety refers to the amount of freedom held by an employee to schedule work and perform its activities. a. True b. False
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b. False
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30. In the job characteristics model, task identity refers to the degree to which a job has a substantial impact on the work of others. a. True b. False
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b. False
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31. In the job characteristics model, feedback refers to the degree to which a job provides substantial freedom, independence, and discretion to an employee. a. True b. False
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b. False
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32. In the job characteristics model, task identity refers to the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. a. True b. False
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a. True
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33. In the job characteristics model, skill variety refers to a job entailing different activities that require the use of different skills and talents by the jobholder. a. True b. False
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a. True
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34. According to the job characteristics model, task identity requires performing a job from beginning to end. a. True b. False
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a. True
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35. Job enlargement is the process of adding a greater variety of tasks to a job. a. True b. False
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a. True
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36. Empowerment encourages employees to become innovators and managers of their own work. a. True b. False
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a. True
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37. Employee empowerment is an example of when an organization allows its employees to participate in the decisions that affect the overall strategic direction of the organization. a. True b. False
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b. False
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38. Participation, innovation, access to information, and accountability are the four conditions that organizations must encourage to realize the benefits of empowerment. a. True b. False
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a. True
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39. Job design objectives that emphasize industrial engineering considerations concentrate on the study of work cycles to determine how to reduce the time needed to complete the cycle. a. True b. False
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a. True
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40. A critical aspect of industrial engineering is the establishment of time standards for a particular work cycle. a. True b. False
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a. True
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41. Dejobbing refers to the process of structuring organizations not around jobs but around projects that are constantly changing. a. True b. False
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a. True
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42. Ergonomics is concerned with the design of equipment to accommodate human capabilities. a. True b. False
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a. True
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43. The job specifications section should also include interpersonal skills if a competency-based job analysis approach is used. a. True b. False
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a. True
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44. The concept of work teams holds that employees, not managers, are in the best position to contribute to work performance. a. True b. False
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a. True
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45. Employee empowerment refers to a situation in which workers are enthusiastic and immersed in their work to the degree that it improves the performance of their companies. a. True b. False
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b. False
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46. Characteristics of successful teams include commitment to shared goals, open communication, shared leadership, and clear role assignments. a. True b. False
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a. True
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47. Organizations can help prevent some of the problems a team experiences by determining how to compensate team members individually and jointly for its achievement. a. True b. False
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a. True
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48. The major advantage of the compressed workweek involves federal laws regarding overtime. a. True b. False
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b. False
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49. A compressed work week includes anything less than 40 hours worked per week. a. True b. False
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b. False
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50. Employers using the compressed workweek may be required to pay overtime to employees under the Fair Labor Standards Act. a. True b. False
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a. True
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51. The Fair Labor Standards Act requires the payment of overtime to regular workers who work more than eight hours in a day. a. True b. False
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b. False
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52. Employees participate in flextime when they do entirely different jobs on a rotating schedule. a. True b. False
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b. False
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53. Job sharing is effective with employees who desire to phase into retirement. a. True b. False
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a. True
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54. Telecommuting is effective in retaining valued employees. a. True b. False
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a. True
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55. A job analysis approach that utilizes an inventory of the various types of work activities that can constitute any job is known as: a. functional job analysis. b. the critical incident method. c. task inventory analysis. d. the position analysis questionnaire system.
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a. functional job analysis.
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56. A job analysis method by which important job tasks are identified for job success is known as: a. functional job analysis. b. the critical incident method. c. task inventory analysis. d. the position analysis questionnaire system.
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b. the critical incident method.
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57. An organization-specific list of tasks and their descriptions used as a basis to identify components of a job is known as: a. functional job analysis. b. the critical incident method. c. task inventory analysis. d. competency-based analysis.
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c. task inventory analysis.
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58. A job specification is: a. a group of related activities and duties. b. a set of different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee. c. a statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required of a person to perform a job. d. a statement of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job to be performed.
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c. a statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required of a person to perform a job.
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59. A statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a job is called a: a. job requirement. b. job specification. c. job position. d. job objective.
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b. job specification.
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60. A job description is: a. a group of related activities and duties of a job. b. a set of different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee. c. a statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a job. d. a statement of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.
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d. a statement of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.
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61. Discrepancies between the knowledge, skills, and abilities of a jobholder and the KSAOs required for the job can be remedied by: a. training. b. discipline. c. cooperation. d. corporate leadership.
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a. training.
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62. _____ is the process of studying and designing equipment and systems that are easy and efficient for people to use and that ensure their physical well-being. a. Dejobbing b. Industrial engineering c. Ergonomics d. Autonomy
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c. Ergonomics
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63. Job analysis is called the cornerstone of HRM because: a. the information obtained is proactive. b. it is the first job given to new HRM employees. c. the information it collects serves many HRM functions. d. it is required by the law.
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c. the information it collects serves many HRM functions.
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64. The process of obtaining information about jobs by determining their duties, tasks, or activities is called: a. job design. b. job evaluation. c. job analysis. d. job search.
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c. job analysis.
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65. _____ is a field of study concerned with analyzing work methods and establishing time standards. a. Ergonomics b. Functional job analysis c. Industrial engineering d. Competency-based analysis
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c. Industrial engineering
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66. The American with Disabilities Act requires that job duties and responsibilities must be: a. essential job functions for job success. b. adjusted to describe the reasonable accommodations that an employer is willing to provide. c. limited to not more than twenty individual job tasks. d. written by job incumbents most familiar with the job.
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a. essential job functions for job success.
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67. Under which method of analyzing jobs would you videotape jobs for later study? a. Interviews b. Questionnaires c. Observation d. Diaries
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c. Observation
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68. Which of the following is NOT a method to gather job analysis information? a. Diaries b. Applications c. Questionnaires d. Observations
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b. Applications
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69. Based upon the work of Hackman and Oldham, which of the following is NOT one of the five core job dimensions related to psychological states? a. Skill variety b. Task identity c. Task significance d. Task isolation
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d. Task isolation
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70. Job data may be obtained in all of the following ways EXCEPT from: a. guidelines on employee selection procedures. b. interviews with jobholders. c. observations by HR personnel. d. questionnaires completed by employees and supervisors.
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a. guidelines on employee selection procedures.
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71. When a job analyst doubts the accuracy of information provided by employees, he or she should obtain additional information from all of the following EXCEPT: a. the employees. b. the managers. c. job analysts from a different organization. d. individuals who perform the same job.
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c. job analysts from a different organization.
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72. The degree to which carrying out the work activities required by the job results in the individual being given direct and clear information about the effectiveness of his or her performance is known as: a. task identity. b. autonomy. c. feedback. d. task variety.
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c. feedback.
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73. The objective of the critical incident method of job analysis is to: a. challenge the employees with their false statements. b. provide information for job evaluation based on the critical value of the job. c. prioritize job duties and responsibilities. d. identify critical job tasks.
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d. identify critical job tasks.
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74. Which popular method of job analysis was pioneered by the U.S. Air Force? a. Dynamic job analysis b. Team-based analysis c. Task inventory analysis d. Competency-based analysis
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c. Task inventory analysis
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75. In a fast-moving environment where job analysis must accommodate change, many organizations may adopt a _____, where the emphasis is on characteristics of successful performers rather than standard duties. a. dynamic job analysis b. team-based analysis c. strategic analysis of jobs d. competency-based analysis
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d. competency-based analysis
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76. Most job descriptions contain all of the following EXCEPT: a. the job title. b. a job identification section. c. a job duties section. d. a job evaluation section.
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d. a job evaluation section.
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77. The job title: a. is of psychological importance as it provides status to the employee. b. indicates the level within the occupational hierarchy occupied by the jobholder. c. may indicate the basic duties involved in the job. d. all of these are correct.
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d. all of these are correct.
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78. The section of a job description that provides information about the location of the job and the reporting relationships involved is the: a. job duties section. b. job identification section. c. job title. d. job specification.
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b. job identification section.
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79. The statements in a job description covering job duties or essential job functions are usually arranged in: a. alphabetical order. b. numerical order. c. order of importance. d. sequential order.
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c. order of importance.
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80. The job specification section of a job description should include: a. the skills required to perform the job. b. the location of the job. c. the person to whom the jobholder reports. d. the date of job posting.
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a. the skills required to perform the job.
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81. Which of the following is NOT a problem frequently associated with job descriptions? a. They tend to broaden the scope of activities of the jobholder. b. They may be vague or poorly written. c. They include illegal specifications. d. They require frequent updating.
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a. They tend to broaden the scope of activities of the jobholder.
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82. Federal guidelines and court decisions require that the specific performance requirements of a job be based on _____ job-related criteria. a. valid b. skilled c. incompetent d. competent
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a. valid
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83. The degree to which the job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work, that is, doing a job from beginning to end with a visible outcome is known as: a. autonomy. b. task significance. c. skill variety. d. task identity.
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d. task identity.
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84. _____ is accomplished by adding more meaningful tasks and duties to make the work more rewarding and satisfying. a. Job augmentation b. Job rotation c. Job enlargement d. Job enrichment
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d. Job enrichment
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85. Any effort that makes work more rewarding or satisfying by adding more meaningful tasks to an employee's job is called: a. job enlargement. b. job augmentation. c. job enrichment. d. job rotation.
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c. job enrichment.
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86. Job enrichment is touted as helping employees with: a. self-esteem and job satisfaction. b. dissatisfaction with pay. c. employment security. d. dissatisfaction with benefits.
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a. self-esteem and job satisfaction.
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87. _____ is the process of adding a greater variety of tasks to a job. a. Job enrichment b. Job enlargement c. Job rotation d. Workplace expansion
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b. Job enlargement
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88. According to Herzberg, managers can enrich the jobs of employees by: a. adding more responsibility to jobs. b. increasing fringe benefits. c. improving the quality of employee supervision. d. removing safety hazards.
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a. adding more responsibility to jobs.
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89. According to the job characteristics model, what three psychological states of a jobholder result in motivated, satisfied, and productive employees? a. Meaningfulness of the work, task significance, and autonomy b. Meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for completion of a whole identifiable piece of work, and task significance c. Meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for outcomes, and knowledge of work results d. Meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for outcomes, and fair compensation
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c. Meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for outcomes, and knowledge of work results
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90. Hackman and Oldham propose that the five characteristics in their job characteristics model lead to all of the following EXCEPT: a. work group synergy. b. improved work performance. c. internal motivation. d. lower absenteeism and turnover.
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a. work group synergy.
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91. Skill variety refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of other people. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
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a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents.
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92. Task identity refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of other people. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
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b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome.
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93. Task significance refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of others. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
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c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of others.
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94. Autonomy refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which a job has impact on the work of others. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
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d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
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95. Feedback refers to: a. the degree to which a job entails a variety of different activities, requiring the use of different skills and talents. b. the degree to which a job requires completion of an identifiable piece of work with a visible outcome. c. the degree to which an individual is given direct and clear information about the effectiveness of his or her performance. d. the degree to which a job provides independence and discretion to an individual in scheduling the work and determining the procedures to use.
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c. the degree to which an individual is given direct and clear information about the effectiveness of his or her performance.
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96. _____ is a naturally occurring phenomenon whereby employees mold their tasks to fit their individual strengths, passions, and motives better. a. Job development b. Dejobbing c. Employee engagement d. Job crafting
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d. Job crafting
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97. To achieve empowerment, organizations must encourage participation, innovation, access to information, and _____. a. accountability b. feedback c. responsibility d. training
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a. accountability
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98. Analyzing the elements in a work cycle that make up a particular job activity and determining the time required to complete each element is called: a. job analysis. b. industrial engineering. c. human engineering. d. job design.
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b. industrial engineering.
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99. _____ refers to the process of structuring organizations not around jobs but around projects that are constantly changing. a. Employee engagement b. Dejobbing c. Job crafting d. Ergonomics
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b. Dejobbing
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100. _____ refers to a situation in which workers are enthusiastic and immersed in their work to the degree that it improves the performance of their companies. a. Dejobbing b. Job crafting c. Employee engagement d. Employee empowerment
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c. Employee engagement
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101. _____ occurs when the interaction and outcome of team members is greater than the sum of their individual efforts. a. Autonomy b. Teamwork c. Ergonomics d. Synergy
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d. Synergy
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102. Which of the following is NOT a synergistic team characteristic? a. Support b. Consensus c. Acceptance d. Agreement
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d. Agreement
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103. _____ are groups of highly trained individuals performing a set of interdependent job tasks within a natural work unit. The team members rely on consensus-type decision-making to perform their work duties, solve problems, or deal with internal or external customers. a. Cross-functional teams b. Self-directed teams c. Project teams d. Task-force teams
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b. Self-directed teams
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104. Complete training for teams should cover each of the following skills, EXCEPT: a. leadership. b. goal setting. c. conflict resolution. d. etiquette.
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d. etiquette.
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105. The _____ has stringent rules requiring the payment of overtime to nonsupervisory employees who work more than forty hours a week. a. Fair Labor Standards Act b. Equal Pay Act c. Rehabilitation Act d. Taft-Hartley Act
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a. Fair Labor Standards Act
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106. A compressed work week provides all of the following, EXCEPT: a. improved recruitment and retention of employees. b. better coordinated work and production schedules. c. a reduction in job satisfaction and morale. d. greater accommodation for the employee in making personal appointments.
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c. a reduction in job satisfaction and morale.
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107. Telecommuting is fairly common in: a. Ohio. b. Texas. c. California. d. Maine.
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c. California.
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108. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of telecommuting? a. Reduced absenteeism b. Greater overhead costs c. Increased productivity d. Reduced carbon footprint
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b. Greater overhead costs
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109. What occurs when the interaction and outcome of team members is greater than the sum of their individual efforts? a. Unanimity b. Dejobbing c. Synergy d. Ergonomics
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c. Synergy
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110. Team synergy is heightened when team members engage in behaviors such as support, active listening, consensus decision-making, and _____. a. unanimity b. prioritizing options c. regular meetings d. disagreements
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d. disagreements
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111. A group staffed with a mix of specialists based on assignment (non-voluntary) that is formed to accomplish a specific objective is called a _____. a. self-directed team b. project team c. cross-functional team d. process-improvement team
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c. cross-functional team
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112. A group of employees formed to design a new product or service is called a(n): a. self-directed team. b. project team. c. cross-functional team. d. employee rotation unit.
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b. project team.
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113. A group of employees formed by management to immediately resolve a major problem and develop a long-term plan for problem resolution is called a(n): a. self-directed team. b. task force team. c. cross-functional team. d. employee rotation unit.
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b. task force team.
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114. A group of experienced people from different departments appointed by management and charged with improving productivity and decreasing waste in processes that affect all departments involved is called a(n): a. self-directed team. b. process-improvement team. c. cross-functional team. d. employee rotation unit.
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b. process-improvement team.
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115. _____ use advanced computer and telecommunications technology to link team members who are geographically dispersed. a. Content teams b. Whole teams c. Advanced teams d. Virtual teams
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d. Virtual teams
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116. Work arrangement programs involving a work schedule that differs from normal workweek schedules of 9 to 5, five days a week, include all of the following EXCEPT: a. the compressed workweek. b. flextime. c. job sharing. d. job enrichment.
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d. job enrichment.
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117. When an employee works eighty hours over nine days and takes one day off every other week, the employee's work schedule is known as a(n): a. compressed workweek. b. enriched workweek. c. flextime arrangement. d. adaptable schedule.
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a. compressed workweek.
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118. Compressed workweeks are a problem because the Fair Labor Standards Act requires the payment of overtime to regular employees who work more than: a. 8 hours in a day. b. 40 hours in a week. c. five days a week. d. 10 hours in a day.
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b. 40 hours in a week.
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119. Reasons for implementation of compressed workweek schedules include all of the following EXCEPT: a. coordinating production schedules. b. recruiting and retaining employees. c. avoiding paying overtime. d. balancing employee and organizational needs.
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c. avoiding paying overtime.
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120. When an employee can adjust their daily starting and quitting times, provided they work a certain number of hours per day or week, their work schedule is known as: a. a compressed workweek. b. an enriched workweek. c. a flextime arrangement. d. an adaptable schedule.
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c. a flextime arrangement.
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121. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of flextime schedules? a. Flextime is difficult to implement in situations where workstations must be staffed at all times. b. Flextime makes communication and control more difficult for supervisors. c. Flextime makes it difficult to recruit and retain personnel. d. Flextime leads to increased energy costs due to extended facility hours.
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c. Flextime makes it difficult to recruit and retain personnel.
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122. The advantages of flextime schedules include all of the following EXCEPT: a. improved communication among employees and supervisors. b. recruiting and retaining employees. c. improving customer service. d. balancing employee and organizational needs.
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a. improved communication among employees and supervisors.
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123. Employers favor job sharing since it serves to: a. reduce labor costs. b. reduce layoffs. c. reduce training costs. d. reduce employee appraisals.
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b. reduce layoffs.
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124. Job sharing is suited to all of the following EXCEPT: a. people who only wish to work part-time. b. spouses with families who want to work part-time. c. people who need full-time work to satisfy all of their obligations. d. older workers who wish to phase into retirement.
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c. people who need full-time work to satisfy all of their obligations.
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125. From the employer's perspective, telecommuting is advantageous for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. increased worker productivity. b. reduced carbon footprints. c. replacement of nontelecommuting employees. d. retention of valued employees.
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c. replacement of nontelecommuting employees.
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126. Which of the following is an advantage of telecommuting? a. Employees develop high self-discipline while working alone at home. b. Communication within an organization improves as telecommuting is unambiguous in comparison with face-to-face communication. c. Line managers accustomed to managing by observation may find supervising distributed employees easy. d. It reduces overhead costs and office space of a company.
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d. It reduces overhead costs and office space of a company.
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127. Virtual teams: a. have their problems as well as benefits. b. have never caught on in Europe. c. seem to be without problems. d. began with the invention of color TV.
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a. have their problems as well as benefits.