final part II – Flashcards
100 test answers
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105. Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?
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requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII
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106. What does esophageal atresia cause?
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no fluid or food entering the stomach
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107. Oral candidiasis is considered to:
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be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
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108. Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?
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The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia.
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What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?
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atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions
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110. Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?
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an individual with an allergy to shellfish
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111. Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?
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chemical peritonitis
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112. Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?
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Small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenum.
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Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?
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long-term exposure to certain chemicals
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114. How does iron-deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
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chronic blood loss in stools
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What usually initiates acute appendicitis?
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obstruction of the lumen of the appendix
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116. With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:
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local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum
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117. To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
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liver
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118. Partial obstruction of the sigmoid colon resulting from diverticular disease would likely:
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result in a small, hard stool
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What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?
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continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
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120. When dehydration reduces the compensation possible for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea, what significant change in arterial blood gases indicates this?
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serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, serum pH would drop below 7.35
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Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?
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proximal duodenum
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An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?
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erosion of a large blood vessel
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Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?
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anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA
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124. Which term refers to obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones?
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d. choledocholithiasis
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Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?
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esophageal varices
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126. Which of the following are related to post-hepatic jaundice?
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pruritic skin and light-colored stools
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127. What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?
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accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly
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128. When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:
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sliding hernia
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Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?
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Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands.
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130. The telescoping of one section of bowel inside another section is called:
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intussusceptions
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131. Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla?
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loop of Henle
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132. Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
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Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.
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From the following, choose the substance likely to appear in the urine when the glomerulus is inflamed.
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albumin
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Which of the following functions would be impaired when tubular epithelial cells have been damaged?
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reabsorbing the plasma proteins
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135. Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?
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cystitis
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Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
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congestion and ischemia stimulates release of renin
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137. What is the common initial sign of adenocarcinoma of the kidney?
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microscopic hematuria
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138. Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to hydronephrosis?
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nephrosclerosis
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139. When acidosis becomes decompensated in renal failure, a key indicator is:
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serum pH dropping below 7.35
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140. Uremic signs of renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT:
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congestive heart failure
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141. Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.
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failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D
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142. Agenesis is often not diagnosed because:
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one kidney provides more than adequate function
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Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?
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left hemisphere
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What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere?
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inability to understand what is heard
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145. Where are beta-1 adrenergic receptors located?
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cardiac muscle
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146. What does a vegetative state refer to?
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loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function
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What is the rationale for vomiting with increased intracranial pressure?
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pressure on the emetic center in the medulla
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148. What is the typical change in blood pressure with increased intracranial pressure?
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increasing pulse pressure
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A brain tumor causes headache because the tumor:
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stretches the meninges and blood vessel walls
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150. Which of the following characteristics indicates that the CSF is normal?
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clear and colorless fluid
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151. In the weeks following CVA, why might some neurologic function return?
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1, 2, 3, 41. presence of collateral circulation2. immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion3. reduced inflammation in the area4. development of alternative neuronal pathways
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152. How does a depressed skull fracture cause brain damage?
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A section of skull bone is displaced below the level of the skull, causing pressure on the brain.
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153. Which signs are indicative of post-polio syndrome?
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progressive fatigue and weakness
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An accurate assessment of the extent of permanent spinal cord damage can usually be completed:
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approximately 10 days to 2 weeks following injury if no complications arise
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Common manifestations of rabies infection include:
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headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing
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Which statement is TRUE about tetanus infection?
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Infection usually develops in deep puncture wounds.
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157. How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
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prenatally by ultrasound or detection of AFP in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
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Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?
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tremors, weakness in the legs, visual problems
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Which disease is associated with excessive dopamine secretion, decreased gray matter in the temporal lobes, and abnormal hippocampal cells in the brain?
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schizophrenia
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Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus?
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This condition occurs only in idiopathic seizures.
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161. Which type of seizure commonly occurs in children?
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generalized absence
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162. Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of advanced Parkinson's disease?
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loss of vision
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What is a precipitating factor for diabetic ketoacidosis?
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serious infection
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164. What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis?
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acidosis and hypovolemia
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165. Which of the following applies to diabetic macro-angiography?
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2, 32. It is related to elevated serum lipids.3. It leads to increased risk of myocardial infarction and peripheral vascular disease.
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166. Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently?
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Type I diabetics
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167. Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
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deficit of T3 and T4
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What is caused by hypocalcemia due to hypoparathyroidism?
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1, 21. skeletal muscle twitching or spasm2. weak cardiac contraction
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169. Which signs are typical of Graves' disease?
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exophthalmos, heat intolerance, and restlessness
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Characteristics of Cushing's syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
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staring eyes with infrequent blinking
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171. Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?
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Cushing's disease
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172. Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock?
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1, 21. if conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar2. if unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%)
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173. All these tissues use glucose without the aid of insulin EXCEPT:
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liver
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174. Which of the following may occur with a pituitary adenoma?
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headache and seizures
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175. Which of the following cells produce new bone?
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osteoblasts
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176. What is a sign of a dislocation?
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deformity at a joint
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Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?
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steady, severe, and persisting with rest
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What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
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the osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
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What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
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a systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
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What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
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rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
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What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
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pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
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Which statement defines a sprain? A tear in a ___________:
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ligament
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183. Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:
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dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D
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184. Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested substances?
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urticaria
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Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
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silvery plaques on an erythematous base
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186. How are antiviral drugs effective in treating infection?
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limiting the acute stage and viral shedding
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Tinea capitis is an infection involving the:
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scalp
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What condition does human papillomavirus cause?
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plantar warts
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Which of the following apply to actinic keratosis?
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They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
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190. The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
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noting the location and size of the lesion
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191. Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?
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both a and binfertilitytesticular cancer
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Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
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inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue
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193. Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
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abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
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Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?
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non invasive severe dysplasia
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What is the cause of syphilis?
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an anaerobic spirochete
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196. How do testicular tumors usually present?
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hard, painless unilateral mass
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Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:
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pelvic lymph nodes
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Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
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prevent any micrometases
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199. Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
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vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis
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200. In which cancers has there been a recent significant increase in incidence?
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cervical cancer in situ
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