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1. Earthquakes that occur in locations such as the New Madrid Fault Zone are know as ___________ b. Interstate earthquakes c. Boundary earthquakes d. Focus centric earthquakes e. Intraplate earthquakes

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e. Intraplate earthquakes

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2. Which of the following is NOT an invasive species? a. Asian carp b. Kudzu c.. bald eagle d. Burmese Python

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c.. bald eagle

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3. Land use change can _______ impact of natural hazards. a. Diminish the b. remove the c.. amplify the d. have no

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c.. amplify the

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4. The magnitude and frequency of natural hazard events are ______related. a. Not b. directly c. inversely d. correlated

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c. inversely

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5. Why is land use planning typically more effective than artificial control of natural hazards? a. Land use planning is an accepted tool used by societies for hazards, while artificial control isn't b. Most hazardous natural processes can't be controlled by humans c. It is more effective to ensure that people are congregated in areas susceptible to natural hazards d. Both b and c are correct

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d. Both b and c are correct

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6. Why are precursor events important? a. Precursor events reveal linkages between hazards. b. Precursor events define the history of a hazardous process c. Precursor events provide warning that a hazardous process is becoming active d. Precursor events help to define the magnitude and frequency of an event

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c. Precursor events provide warning that a hazardous process is becoming active

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7. Which of the following explains why hazard warnings are sometimes problematic? a. The probability of natural hazards are so infrequent that warnings aren't necessary b. People just don't believe scientists c. Warnings are occasionally inaccurate d. People don't want to hear bad news

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c. Warnings are occasionally inaccurate

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8. The risk that society or individuals are willing to endure regarding living with natural hazards is called a. Total risk b. partial risk c. acceptable risk d. needed risk

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c. acceptable risk

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9. What is the difference between an anticipatory response and a reactive response? a. A reactive response is typically stronger than an anticipatory response b. A reactive response has to do with recovery, while an anticipatory response has to do with being prepared c. A reactive response has much less value to society than an anticipatory response d. An anticipatory response is typically stronger than a reactive response

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b. A reactive response has to do with recovery, while an anticipatory response has to do with being prepared

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10. Why does increased population affect the number of catastrophic events? a. Hazardous events are more likely to occur in areas with more people b. Greater population means that more people are likely to live in areas where hazardous processes occur c. Population affects the magnitude and frequency of hazardous events

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b. Greater population means that more people are likely to live in areas where hazardous processes occur

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11. Why is it important to know the history of natural hazards? a. Natural hazards history is always interesting b. Most natural hazards are repetitive events c. Typically, a natural hazard will not recur, so the history of a natural hazard reveals where it won't happen d. Most natural hazards are low magnitude, high frequency events

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b. Most natural hazards are repetitive events

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12. What is the difference between a catastrophe and a disaster? a. Disasters occur across a much larger area than does a catastrophe b. Damages from a catastrophe are of such a magnitude that they require a long recovery period c. Disasters are much worse than a catastrophe d. A catastrophe involves loss of life, while a disaster does not

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b. Damages from a catastrophe are of such a magnitude that they require a long recovery period

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13. Why might global warming increase the magnitude and/or frequency of weather-related hazards? a. Warmer air doesn't hold as much water and makes rains much heavier b. Global warming affects basic processes that happen at high altitudes c. Warmer ocean waters create more energy that can be channeled into the atmosphere

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c. Warmer ocean waters create more energy that can be channeled into the atmosphere

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14. Volcanic eruptions are one of the few natural hazards that have no benefit to humans a. True b. False

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b. False

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15. The deadly 1985 eruption of Nevado del Ruiz is an example of inaccurate prediction a. True b. False

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b. False

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16. Shale is a very strong rock that is definitely suitable to build dams upon. a. True b. False

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b. False

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17. The dominant processes in an ecosystem are a. Damage and restoration b. energy flows and chemical cycles c..life and death d. interactions of biota and environment

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b. energy flows and chemical cycles

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18. A group of individuals that can interbreed is call a(n) a. Ecosystem b. species c. biota d. community

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b. species

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19. The path of _______ is how an ecosystem evolves following disturbance a. Succession b. restoration c. ecology d. naturalization

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a. Succession

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20. An indigenous ecosystem is one that a. Is not substantially impacted by humans b. Includes native human beings c. Is heavily impacted by humans d. Is reconstructed by humans

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a. Is not substantially impacted by humans

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21. The Kissimmee River in Florida needed restoration because of a. Introduction of exotic species b. Channelization c. Extreme industrial pollution d. Seawall construction

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b. Channelization

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22. Why are native trees more diverse in North American than in Europe? a. North American trees are all originally native to the tropics b. The ice sheets in Europe were larger than those in North America c. North American trees grew onto mountain ranges during glaciation d. European trees were "trapped" between the ice sheets and East-West oriented mountains

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d. European trees were "trapped" between the ice sheets and East-West oriented mountains

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23. Coastal marshes reduce flooding and coastal erosion. This impact is an example of a. Ecosystem restoration b. Ecological stewardship c. Natural service functions of ecosystems d. Environmental georeduction

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c. Natural service functions of ecosystems

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24. Any species that has a disproportionate influence on its ecosystem is called a. The dominant species b. Endangered species c. Natural species d. Keystone species

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d. Keystone species

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25. Which of the following does NOT tend to increase biodiversity in an ecosystem a. Evolution b. extreme disturbances c. diverse habitats

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b. extreme disturbances

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26. What human activities have negatively impacted the Florida Everglades? a. Draining wetlands b. removal of keystone species c.. removal of sand dune vegetation d. commercial fishing

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a. Draining wetlands

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27. Which of the following is one result of the reintroduction of wolves in Yellowstone National Park? a. More fine sediment in streams b. Regrowth of streamside vegetation c. Decreased diversity in prey species d. Increased diversity in prey species

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b. Regrowth of streamside vegetation

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28. Mountain ranges may have influenced biodiversity of trees in North America and ________ a. Japan b. China c. Australia d. Europe

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d. Europe

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29. Tree roots can interact with the geological environment to help reduce landslides. a. True b. False

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a. True

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30. Seawalls can _______biodiversity by narrowing beaches. a. Increase b. decrease c. maintain

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b. decrease

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31. Disturbance in an ecosystem can _____ biodiversity. a. Increase b. decrease c. maintain

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b. decrease

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32. Sea otter reintroduction in Alaska has led to a. Overall ecosystem degradation b. Decrease in kelp forests c. Increase in kelp forests d. Extinction of sea urchins

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c. Increase in kelp forests

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33. Wolves and sea otters are examples of ______ species. a. Dominant b. prey c. keystone

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c. keystone

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34. _______ is the transformation of saturated sediments from the solid to liquid form a. Cementation b. Liquefaction c. elasticity

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b. Liquefaction

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35. How does earthquake magnitude differ from intensity? a. Magnitude is a result of the amount of shaking, which is determined by intensity b. Intensity reflects energy release, while magnitude reflects the amount of shaking c. Magnitude reflects energy release, while intensity reflects the amount of shaking

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c. Magnitude reflects energy release, while intensity reflects the amount of shaking

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36. On what basis are Mercalli intensity values assigned to locations? a. Qualitative perceptions of structural response to shaking b. Interpretation of seismograms

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a. Qualitative perceptions of structural response to shaking

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37. How close the location is to the epicenter ______seismometers are needed to determine the epicenter of an earthquake a. Two b. three c. four d. five

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b. three

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38. What type of motion would you see at a strike-slip fault? a. Horizontal b. vertical c. very rapid d. very slow

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a. Horizontal

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39. The 1811 - 1812 New Madrid earthquakes differed from California earthquakes because a. The New Madrid earthquakes did not occur on a fault b. The New Madrid earthquakes were located on a plate interior c. They occurred on a plate boundary between the North American and Caribbean plates d. They were much weaker than most California earthquakes

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b. The New Madrid earthquakes were located on a plate interior

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40. A fault that has experience movement during the Holocene time is a(n) a. Dormant fault b. Extinct fault c. active fault

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c. active fault

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41. During the strain accumulation phase of the earthquake cycle a. The fault is extinct b. rocks are deformed elastically c.. major seismic activity occurs d. the fault is dormant

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b. rocks are deformed elastically

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42. The epicenter of an earthquake is the point of rupture along the fault a. True b. False

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b. False

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43. Surface waves are produced by a. Faults rupturing the Earth's surface b. P- and S-waves reaching the surface c. The absorption of S-waves by a liquid medium

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b. P- and S-waves reaching the surface

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44. Many tsunamis are generated by a. Rupture of faults on land b. Tides in the ocean c. Earthquake waves shaking the ocean floor d. Vertical displacement of the ocean water

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d. Vertical displacement of the ocean water

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45. How can the injection of liquid wastes in the subsurface cause earthquakes? a. It increases fluid pressure and reduces friction b. It causes fractures to form in metamorphic and igneous rocks c. In causes the faults to slip faster

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a. It increases fluid pressure and reduces friction

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46. Ground rupture occurs during an earthquake as a. Saturated sediments are liquefied b. A near surface fault breaks the surface c. California falls into the ocean

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b. A near surface fault breaks the surface

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47. Why have 20th century earthquakes in Turkey suggested that some earthquakes cause subsequent earthquakes? a. Earthquakes have occurred in a pattern from east to west b. Three of them were very strong c. Before the Izmit earthquake in 1999, there had been no major quakes in more than 300 years

answer

a. Earthquakes have occurred in a pattern from east to west

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48. The point of rupture inside Earth were an earthquake originates is_____ a. The epicenter b. the normal fault c. the focus

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C. The focus

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49. ______causes strain. a. Bending b. stress c. force

answer

B. stress

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