question

1. In which of the following are ample amounts of carbohydrates almost always found? a. Plant foods b. Health foods c. Animal products d. Protein-rich foods

answer

a

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2. Which of the following is NOT a source of dietary carbohydrates? a. Fish b. Milk c. Fruits d. Legumes

answer

a

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3. What type of nutrient is starch? a. Fiber b. Gluten c. Simple carbohydrate d. Complex carbohydrate

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d

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4. Which of the following is NOT a simple carbohydrate? a. Starch b. White sugar c. Disaccharide d. Monosaccharide

answer

a

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5. How many carbon atoms are found in most common dietary monosaccharides? a. 5 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12

answer

b

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6. Which of the following is NOT an atom type found in a glucose molecule? a. Carbon b. Oxygen c. Nitrogen d. Hydrogen

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c

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7. Which of the following is known as blood sugar or dextrose? a. Glucose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Fructose

answer

a

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8. What component accounts for the usually sweet taste of fruits? a. Fats b. Fiber c. Simple sugars d. Complex carbohydrates

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c

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9. Which of the following is known as fruit sugar or levulose? a. Maltose b. Glucose c. Fructose d. Galactose

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c

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10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of glucose? a. It is soluble in water b. It is a monosaccharide c. It is part of the sucrose molecule d. It is sweeter tasting than sucrose

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d

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11. What is the sweetest-tasting simple carbohydrate in the diet? a. Glucose b. Lactose c. Fructose d. Sucrose

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c

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12. Which of the following carbohydrates is present in only very small amounts in single form in the diet? a. Lactose b. Glucose c. Fructose d. Galactose

answer

d

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13. Which of the following is NOT a common dietary source of carbohydrate? a. Starch b. Maltose c. Cellulose d. Glycogen

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d

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14. Milk that has been treated with a commercially available lactase preparation undergoes which of the following changes? a. Increase in sweetness b. Decrease in sweetness c. Increase in carbohydrate content d. Decrease in carbohydrate content

answer

a

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15. What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together? a. Hydrolysis b. Absorption c. Disaccharide d. Condensation

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d

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16. Which of the following is a byproduct of the condensation of two molecules of glucose? a. Water b. Oxygen c. Hydrogen d. Carbon dioxide

answer

a

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17. The chemical reaction by which starch is split into monosaccharides is termed a. hydrolysis. b. condensation. c. gluconeogenesis. d. homeostatic balancing.

answer

a

question

18. Common table sugar is typically extracted from sugarcane and a. honey. b. sugar beets. c. sweet potatoes. d. high-sucrose corn syrup.

answer

b

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19. What is the composition of sucrose? a.Two fructose units b.One glucose and one fructose unit c.One glucose and one galactose unit d.One galactose and one fructose unit

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b

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20. What is the composition of maltose? a.Two glucose units b.One glucose and one fructose unit c.One glucose and one galactose unit d.One galactose and one fructose unit

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a

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21. Which of the following is a component of all three dietary disaccharides? a. Sucrose b. Glucose c. Fructose d. Galactose

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b

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22. What is the composition of lactose? a. Two glucose units b. Two fructose units c. One glucose and one fructose unit d. One glucose and one galactose unit

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d

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23. What is the principle carbohydrate of milk? a. Lactose b. Sucrose c. Maltose d. Glycogen

answer

a

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24. What is another name for lactose? a. Milk sugar b. Fruit sugar c. Table sugar d. Artificial sugar

answer

a

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25. Which of the following sugars is NOT found in plants? a. Glucose b. Lactose c. Sucrose d. Fructose

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b

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26. What is the name of the animal polysaccharide composed of glucose units? a. Fiber b. Enzyme c. Dextrin d. Glycogen

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d

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27. Glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues? a. Muscle and liver b. Pancreas and kidneys c. Stomach and intestine d. Brain and red blood cells

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a

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28. Which of the following is a feature of glycogen? a. It is found in plants b. It is important as a dietary nutrient c. It is almost absent from animal meats d. It plays an insignificant role in the body

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c

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29. What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the body? a. Fiber b. Starch c. Glucose d. Glycogen

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d

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30. Which of the following is NOT a rich source of dietary starch? a. Grains b. Fruits c. Tubers d. Legumes

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b

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31. What is the staple grain of Canada, the United States, and Europe? a. Oats b. Rice c. Corn d. Wheat

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d

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32. What is the predominant grain product in much of South and Central America? a. Rice b. Corn c. Millet d. Wheat

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b

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33. What are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin? a. Fibers b. Starches c. Sugar alcohols d. Artificial sweeteners

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a

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34. Which of the following is described as a nonstarch polysaccharide? a. Lactose b. Phytates c. Glycogen d. Cellulose

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d

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35. Which of the following is an example of the difference between the chemical bonds in starch and those in cellulose? a. Starch bonds are single b. Starch bonds are fatty acids c. Cellulose bonds release energy d. Cellulose bonds are not hydrolyzed by human enzymes

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d

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36. Which of the following is a feature of the pectins? a. They are used to thicken jelly b. They are classified as insoluble fibers c. They are resistant to intestinal bacterial fermentation d. They are found in the small seeds of fruits such as strawberries

answer

a

question

37. Which of the following statements is NOT characteristic of fibers? a. Most fibers consist of linked monosaccharides b. An example of a nonstarch polysaccharide fiber is pectin c. An example of a nonpolysaccharide fiber is cellulose d. Most soluble fibers are easily digested by the bacteria in the colon

answer

c

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38. A "functional fiber" is one that a. occurs naturally in the intact plant. b. performs a specific function in the plant. c. is extracted from plants and has a beneficial health effect. d. is a polysaccharide that is stored primarily in muscle and liver of animals.

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c

question

39. Which of the following plays a major role in the breakdown of certain types of dietary fiber in the large intestine? a. Bacteria b. Pancreas c. Colonic cells d. Small intestinal villus cell

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a

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40. Which of the following is a characteristic of dietary fibers? a. They cause diverticulosis b. They raise blood cholesterol levels c. They are usually found in high-fat foods d. They are classified according to solubility in water

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d

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41. With few exceptions, which of the following characteristics are NOT shared by water-soluble and water-insoluble fibers? a. They are found only in plant-derived foods b. They consist primarily of nonstarch polysaccharides c. Neither has an appreciable effect on glucose absorption d. Their consumption enhances stool formation and elimination

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c

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42. What type of fiber is readily digested by colonic bacteria? a. Lignins b. Phytates c. Cellulose d. Fermentable

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d

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43. Which of the following is a common source of resistant starch? a. Apple b. Orange c. Baked potato d. Just-ripened bananas

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d

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44. Which of the following is a feature of resistant starch? a. It is common in overripe bananas b. Excessive intake promotes constipation c. It resists hydrolysis by digestive enzymes d. It cannot be fermented by large intestinal bacteria

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c

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45. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dietary phytic acid? a. It is classified as a fiber b. It is found in the husks of grains c. It is synonymous with the term phytate d. It inhibits absorption of several minerals

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a

question

46. Which of the following describes the compound phytic acid? a. Product of starch digestion b. Nonnutrient component of plant seeds c. Found in gastric juice and helps to lower pH of chyme d. Found in high concentrations in the blood of people with diabetes

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b

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47. Which of the following fibers is water insoluble? a. Gums b. Pectins c. Cellulose d. Mucilages

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c

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48. Which of the following are NOT water-soluble fibers? a. Gums b. Pectins c. Lignins d. Mucilages

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c

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49. Which of the following contains the least amount of fiber? a. Apples b. Prunes c. Potatoes d. White rice

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d

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50. Enzymatic digestion of starches takes place in the small intestine and also in the a. mouth. b. colon. c. stomach. d. pancreas.

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a

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51. What is the meaning of a resistant starch? a. A fiber that escapes digestion in the small intestine b. A disaccharide that passes completely through the GI tract intact c. An insoluble fiber that is only partly degraded by gastric acid and pepsin d. A complex formed between phytic acid and cellulose that inhibits hydrolysis of digestible polysaccharides

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a

question

52. Which of the following is NOT a property of fiber? a. It delays gastric emptying b. It provides a feeling of satiety c. It elevates blood glucose levels d. It contributes about 1.5-2.5 kcalories per gram

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c

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53. What is the name of the short chains of glucose units that result from starch breakdown? a. Sucrose b. Lignins c. Pectins d Dextrins

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d

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54. Which of the following enzymes does NOT act on simple sugars? a. Lactase b. Sucrase c. Amylase d. Maltase

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c

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55. Which of the following is NOT a small intestinal cell enzyme? a. Maltase b. Sucrase c. Lactase d. Pectinase

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d

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56. What is the primary absorption site for digestible carbohydrates? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine

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c

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57. After you and your friend Dolores share pretzels and animal crackers, she announces that she wants to start digesting her food by watching television. You inform Dolores that a. she really should spend 10-15 minutes on the treadmill to help her body break down the carbohydrates faster. b. her body will not begin to break down the carbohydrates for a couple more hours until they reach the small intestine. c. the hydrochloric acid in her stomach breaks down all the carbohydrates and she need not rest while this occurs. d. carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth through the action of amylase, so she has already begun digesting the snacks.

answer

d

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58. The enzymes that digest dietary sugars are produced by the a. mouth. b. stomach. c. pancreas. d. small intestine.

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d

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59. What is the primary means for degradation of soluble fibers in the large intestines? a. Bacterial enzymes b. Pancreatic amylase c. Peristaltic segmentation d. Villus brush border hydrolases

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a

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60. What is the primary organ that metabolizes fructose and galactose following absorption? a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Skeletal muscle d. Small intestines

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a

question

61. What is the first organ to receive carbohydrates absorbed from the intestine? a. Heart b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Skeletal muscle

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b

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62. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of lactose intolerance? a. Bloating b. Diarrhea c. Cramping d. Constipation

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d

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63. What percentage of the world's adult population show good tolerance to lactose ingestion? a. 30 b. 55 c. 80 d. 95

answer

a

question

64. Which of the following would be least likely to be connected with the development of lactose intolerance? a. Medicines b. Milk allergy c. Prolonged diarrhea d. Inherited lactase deficiency

answer

b

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65. A person diagnosed with milk allergy would be sensitive to the milk's a. fat. b. lactose. c. protein. d. minerals.

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c

question

66. For most of the world's population, what is the effect of aging on the activity of lactase? a. Declines by 30-40% b. Declines by 90-95% c. Increases by 30-40% d. Increases by 90-95%

answer

b

question

67. Which of the following is a characteristic of yogurt? a. Bacteria in yogurt produce lactase b. Yogurt is poorly tolerated in lactose-intolerant people c. There are only trace amounts of lactose present in yogurt d. The lactose content of yogurt is about one-half that of milk

answer

a

question

68. What is the chief reason that many people with lactose intolerance can consume foods containing some lactose without suffering any symptoms? a. A change occurs in the GI bacteria b. Intestinal lactase enzyme can re-appear in adequate amounts c. The lactose-containing foods must be eaten only as part of a full meal d. The lactose-containing foods must first be heated to 100° C to degrade lactose

answer

a

question

69. Which of the following is a feature of kefir? a. Its low pH inactivates lactose b. It contains live bacterial organisms c. It contains half as much lactose as milk d. It is a recommended substitute for people with milk allergy

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b

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70. Among the following foods, which contains the lowest amount of lactose per serving? a. Yogurt b. Ice cream c. Doughnut d. American cheese

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d

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71. Why are hard cheeses lower in lactose than soft cheeses? a. The lactose molecules bond to casein b. More lactose is removed during manufacturing c. The bacterial culture is selected to degrade more of the lactose d. The lactose molecules condense to form a poorly digested oligosaccharide

answer

b

question

72. Which of the following is a feature of lactose? a. Its digestion begins in the mouth b. It is found in various amounts in most animal foods c. It is used as filler in one out of five prescription drugs d. It causes frequent allergies in certain population groups

answer

c

question

73. Which of the following provides the least amount of lactose per serving? a. Low-fat milk b. Cottage cheese c. Chocolate milk d. Cheddar cheese

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d

question

74. Among the following population groups, which shows the highest prevalence of lactose intolerance? a. Hispanics b. Caucasians c. Scandinavians d. Native Americans

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d

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75. Which of the following ingredients listed on food labels would be acceptable to the person who is highly intolerant to lactose in the diet? a. Whey b. Casein c. Dextrins d. Milk solids

answer

c

question

76. Which of the following is a feature of kefir? a. Provides GI tract benefits similar to yogurt b. Serves as a substitute in people allergic to milk c. Contains a combination of soluble and insoluble fiber d. Must be restricted in people with genetic deficiency of intestinal sucrase or maltase

answer

a

question

77. Which of the following organs is NOT known to synthesize glycogen in any appreciable amounts? a. Liver b. Brain c. Muscle d. Pancreas

answer

d

question

78. If you were to exercise continuously, about how long would glycogen stores last? a. A few minutes b. A few hours c. About 12 hours d. About 1 day

answer

b

question

79. Approximately what fraction of the body's total glycogen content is found in the liver? a. 1/10 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2

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c

question

80. In what organ is most of the body's glycogen found? a. Liver b. Muscles c. Kidneys d. Intestines

answer

b

question

81. At rest, the typical body stores of glycogen can provide energy for a maximum of about a. 4 hours. b. 1 day. c. 3 days. d. 1 week.

answer

b

question

82. What is the minimum daily amount of dietary carbohydrate necessary to spare body protein from excessive breakdown? a. 10-25 g b. 50-100 g c. 150-175 g d. 200-400 g

answer

b

question

83. What is the primary function of insulin? a. Raises blood glucose levels b. Lowers blood glucose levels c. Stimulates glycogen breakdown d. Stimulates intestinal carbohydrate absorption

answer

b

question

84. The process by which an amino acid is used to make glucose is termed a. glycation. b. ketogenesis. c. protein sparing. d. gluconeogenesis.

answer

d

question

85. Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of a. amino acids from glucose. b. lactose from a source of sucrose. c. fat from excess carbohydrate intake. d. glucose from a noncarbohydrate substance.

answer

d

question

86. Which of the following values falls within the normal range (mg/dL) of blood glucose? a. 40 b. 55 c. 75 d. 140

answer

c

question

87. What is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration? a. Brain b. Liver c. Muscle d. Pancreas

answer

d

question

88. What is a normal range (mg/dL) for blood glucose? a. 60-80 b. 70-100 c. 120-140 d. 140-180

answer

b

question

89. When blood glucose concentration falls, what pancreatic hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stored glucose? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Epinephrine d. Cholecystokinin

answer

b

question

90. Which of the following is a typical response of the body to changes in blood glucose? a. Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of insulin b. Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon c. Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of glycogen d. Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of epinephrine

answer

b

question

91. Which of the following blood glucose concentrations (mg/dL) is most consistent with hypoglycemia? a. 40 b. 80 c. 115 d. 150

answer

a

question

92. When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentration? a. Insulin b. Secretin c. Glucogen d. Epinephrine

answer

d

question

93. In the time between meals, what organ releases glucose to help maintain normal blood glucose levels? a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Intestines d. Skeletal muscle

answer

a

question

94. A person with a fasting blood glucose concentration of 129 mg/dL would be classified as a. normal. b. diabetic. c. prediabetic. d. hypoglycemic.

answer

b

question

95. What glycemic index category would include yogurt and cheese? a. Low b. Moderate c. High d. Very high

answer

a

question

96. A person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready-to-eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic index that is a. very low. b. low. c. moderate. d. high.

answer

d

question

97. Which of the following is a feature of the condition hypoglycemia? a. It is treated with insulin injections b. It is aggravated by high-fiber foods c. It is classified as a pre-diabetic condition d. It occurs rarely in otherwise healthy people

answer

d

question

98. Which of the following is a feature of diabetes? a. Type 1 diabetes is more common than type 2 b. Type 1 diabetes is also known as insulin overload diabetes c. Diabetes is caused by an excessive intake of dietary carbohydrates d. Dietary management should focus on total carbohydrate intake rather than the type of carbohydrate consumed

answer

d

question

99. What term describes how quickly glucose is absorbed from a food after ingestion, how high blood glucose rises as a result, and how quickly blood glucose returns to normal? a. Diabetes index b. Glycemic index c. Diabetes potential d. Glycemic response

answer

d

question

100. A person with a fasting blood glucose level of 101 mg/dL would be classified as a. normal. b. prediabetic. c. a type 1 diabetic. d. a type 2 diabetic.

answer

b

question

101. Which of the following are characteristic of the conditions diabetes and hypoglycemia? a. Neither has a genetic susceptibility b. Neither is associated with increases in body weight c. Both respond to insulin administration and chromium supplements d. Both benefit from the inclusion of fiber-rich foods and consumption of smaller, more frequent meals

answer

d

question

102. Your nephew Jimmy, who is 10 years old, has told you that his body doesn't make insulin. He confides in you that he craves candy but was told by his parents that he can only eat sugar-free snacks. From which of the following conditions does Jimmy most likely suffer? a. Hyperactivity b. Type 1 diabetes c. Type 2 diabetes d. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

answer

b

question

103. Which of the following is a feature of diabetes? a. Many people with type 2 diabetes are obese b. Most people who have diabetes require insulin therapy c. Diabetes results chiefly from excess dietary intake of simple carbohydrates d. People with type 1 diabetes fail to respond to the insulin made by the pancreas

answer

a

question

104. Which of the following statements describes the glycemic index of foods? a. A way of ranking foods according to their potential to increase blood glucose b. The newest, most practical means for planning diets for people with diabetes c. A well-utilized, highly valued mechanism to control the intake of simple sugars d. A measure of the percentage of digestible carbohydrates in relation to total energy content of the food

answer

a

question

105. In a person with type 2 diabetes, which of the following foods would ordinarily promote the least favorable glycemic effect? a. Chocolate b. Ice cream c. Baked potato d. Baked beans

answer

c

question

106. Why might it be unnecessary for most people to use the glycemic index to monitor carbohydrate intake? a. Most people are not at risk of blood sugar abnormalities b. Low-glycemic index foods tend to aggravate hypoglycemia in susceptible individuals c. Most people exceed their requirements for protein, which limits the effectiveness of the glycemic index d. Current dietary guidelines already include many choices that are low- and moderate-glycemic index foods

answer

d

question

107. What is the name of the sweetener consisting of a mixture of glucose and fructose formed by chemical hydrolysis of sucrose? a. Molasses b. Invert sugar c. Turbinado sugar d. High-fructose syrup

answer

b

question

108. Which of the following is NOT a common use for added sugars in the diet? a. Flavor enhancement b. Preservative in jams c. Balances the acidity of tomato-based products d. Provides a fermentable source of carbohydrates for GI bacteria

answer

d

question

109. High-fructose corn syrup contains significant amounts of a. glucose. b. maltose. c. sucrose. d. galactose.

answer

a

question

110. What is the predominant sweetener used in formulating beverages? a. Glucose b. Sucrose c. Invert sugar d. High-fructose corn syrup

answer

d

question

111. Food manufacturers prefer to use high-fructose corn syrup instead of sugar because sugar a. is more soluble. b. is more expensive. c. retains more moisture. d. contains less soluble fiber.

answer

b

question

112. Which of the following is a known indicator of prediabetes? a. Insulin resistance b. Severe hunger 4-5 hours after a meal c. Carbohydrate intake as a percentage of total kcal d. More than two episodes/week of hypoglycemia

answer

a

question

113. Honey contains a. both fructose and lactose. b. both glucose and galactose. c. more kcalories per teaspoon than sucrose. d. abundant amounts of calcium and iron.

answer

c

question

114. Which of the following sweeteners contains a significant amount of calcium? a. Molasses b. Brown sugar c. Maple sugar d. Invert sugar

answer

a

question

115. All of the following are features of honey EXCEPT a. it is the preferred sweetener in infant foods. b. it contains the same monosaccharides as table sugar. c. a teaspoon provides more energy than a teaspoon of table sugar. d. it contains small amounts of a few vitamins and minerals.

answer

a

question

116. Which of the following is best known to result from regular ingestion of sugar? a. Ulcers b. Diabetes c. Dental caries d. Cardiovascular disease

answer

c

question

117. Which of the following sweeteners contains a significant amount of iron? a. Molasses b. Invert sugar c. Turbinado sugar d. High-fructose corn syrup

answer

a

question

118. Which of the following is more effective in preventing the formation of dental caries than restricting intake of sugary foods? a. Regular tooth brushing and flossing b. Consuming more raisins between meals c. Substituting honey or raw sugar for table sugar d. Spreading out the intake of snack foods throughout the day

answer

a

question

119. Which of the following recommendations will help to reduce the incidence of dental caries when the diet contains sugary foods? a. Eat sugary foods separate from meals b. Eat dried fruits in place of whole fruits c. Sip a sugary soft drink slowly rather than quickly d. Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day

answer

d

question

120. Which of the following describes a relationship between carbohydrate intake and dental health? a. Starches cannot promote the formation of dental caries b. After exposure to a single snack, mouth bacteria produce acid for 50-60 minutes c. Eating a sugary dessert at the beginning of a meal, rather than the end, is less likely to promote dental caries d. Sugar consumed in a soft drink promotes more bacterial fermentation than the same amount of sugar in a doughnut

answer

c

question

121. Approximately how many pounds of total sugars are consumed by the average U.S. resident each year? a. 25 b. 65 c. 95 d. 190

answer

c

question

122. You have just arrived at a lunch buffet and are faced with many choices. Although each of the following portions provides about 200 kcalories, which is most nutrient dense? a. 16-ounce soda b. 6 slices of avocado c. 8-ounce sports drink d. 3 slices of whole-wheat bread

answer

d

question

123. Approximately how many kcalories are provided by two teaspoons of sugar? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

answer

c

question

124. Based on height, weight, age, and physical activity level, you have calculated that you should be consuming about 2200 kcalories per day. Which of the following portions is closest to the discretionary kcalories allowed in the USDA Food Patterns for added sugars in your diet? a. 15 tsp honey b. 20 tsp hard candy c. 10 tsp corn starch d. 10 tsp brown sugar

answer

d

question

125. According to the current dietary recommendations, what is the maximum percentage of total energy intake that added sugar should contribute in the diet? a. 2 b. 10 c. 15 d. 25

answer

d

question

126. Excessive consumption of soft drinks, orange juice, and sports drinks increases risk for development of caries because they contain sugar and have a. a low pH. b. organic acids. c. resistant starch. d. insufficient fluoride.

answer

a

question

127. Which of the following is NOT a feature of artificial sweeteners? a. They are sometimes referred to as nonnutritive sweeteners b. There is an Acceptable Daily Intake, which provides a wide margin of safety c. They provide about one-half the energy of carbohydrates plus small amounts of vitamins and minerals d. If used, the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics advises moderate intake and only in a well-balanced, nutritious diet

answer

c

question

128. What is stevia? a. An herb-derived sweetener b. An FDA-approved sugar alcohol c. A poorly digested polysaccharide d. An inhibitor of lactase enzyme activity

answer

a

question

129. Which of the following artificial sweeteners has a composition similar to aspartame? a. Neotame b. Sucralose c. Saccharin d. Acesulfame-K

answer

a

question

130. All of the following components are part of the chemical structure of aspartame EXCEPT a. aspartic acid. b. methyl group. c. phenylalanine. d. methanol group.

answer

d

question

131. Among the following approved sweeteners, which has the highest relative sweetness? a. Tagatose b. Neotame c. Aspartame d. Acesulfame-K

answer

b

question

132. Among the alternative sweeteners available in the United States, which has a structure that integrates chlorine atoms? a. Tagatose b. Sucralose c. Aspartame d. Acesulfame-K

answer

b

question

133. Which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar replacers (sugar alcohols)? a. They have a low glycemic index b. They promote constipation in children c. They demonstrate fewer GI side effects than the artificial sweeteners d. They are less effective than artificial sweeteners in inhibiting dental caries

answer

a

question

134. Which of the following is NOT a classification for the food additives mannitol, sorbitol, and xylitol? a. Polyols b. Sugar alcohols c. Alternative sweeteners d. Artificial sweeteners

answer

d

question

135. Which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar alcohols? a. They are not sweet b. They provide kcalories c. They are not metabolized d. They promote dental caries

answer

b

question

136. When consumed in excess, which of the following is most likely to lead to diarrhea? a. Fiber b. Sucrose c. Wheat starch d. Sugar alcohols

answer

d

question

137. Which of the following is a general feature of the sugar alcohols? a. They provide less than 1 kcalorie per gram b. They elicit a high glycemic index c. They are rapidly absorbed from the intestines d. They cannot be rapidly metabolized by cariogenic bacteria

answer

d

question

138. What is the approximate energy content (kcal/g) of most sugar alcohols? a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 7

answer

b

question

139. Which of the following is known to correlate most strongly with reduced risk of deaths from heart disease when consumed in high amounts? a. Fiber b. Sugar c. Levulose d. Corn syrup

answer

a

question

140. Which of the following foods is/are NOT a rich source of soluble fiber? a. Barley b. Legumes c. Oat bran d. Wheat bran

answer

d

question

141. Which of the following is NOT a feature of high-fiber foods? a. Effective in weight control b. Provide feeling of fullness c. Usually lower in fat and simple sugars d. Provide more energy per gram than processed foods

answer

d

question

142. In general, modifying a diet that by substituting complex carbohydrates for pure sugars results in a diet that is higher in a. fat. b. fiber. c. energy. d. refined foods.

answer

b

question

143. Which of the following is a prominent association between fiber intake and cancer? a. Soluble fiber intake leads to activation of cancer-killing enzymes b. Fiber intake slows the passage of carcinogens in the large intestines c. Fiber supplements are better than dietary fiber at reducing colon cancer risk d. An inverse relationship between fiber intake and prevalence of colon cancer was found in only two countries

answer

a

question

144. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a high-fiber diet? a. There is a risk of not meeting energy needs b. It may reduce risk of lung cancer but increase risk of breast cancer c. It initially may cause bouts of gastrointestinal discomfort and diarrhea d. It may precipitate mineral deficiency if the body's mineral intake status is marginal

answer

b

question

145. According to most dietary guidelines, what percentage of the day's total energy intake should be furnished by carbohydrates? a. 10-15 b. 30-35 c. 45-65 d. 90-95

answer

c

question

146. What is the RDA for carbohydrate? a. 10 g b. 45 g c. 130 g d. 250 g

answer

c

question

147. Approximately what percentage of the recommended fiber intake is met by the average person in the United States? a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100

answer

b

question

148. Allen is 20 years old and asks for help in selecting a fiber-rich diet. After he ranks the kinds of foods he likes to eat, you provide him with a list of food items consisting of a. 1 cup of cooked barley and 1 cup of garbanzo beans, 1 kiwi, and 1 slice whole-wheat bread. b. 3 slices of whole-wheat bread, 2 cups of black beans, 1 ounce 100% bran cereal, and 1 cup apple juice. c. 16 ounces of low-fat cheese, 3 medium apples, 2 cups blackberries, 1/2 cup spinach, and 1/2 cup of broccoli. d. 1 cup baked beans, 1 medium apple, 1 banana, 1 1/2 cups oatmeal, 1 ounce 100% bran cereal, and 1/2 cup chopped raw carrots.

answer

d

question

149. What is the Daily Value for fiber when expressed in g per 1000 kcal? a. 5 b. 8 c. 11.5 d. 16.5

answer

c

question

150. About how many grams of carbohydrate are contained in one ounce of foods in the grain group? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

answer

c

question

151. What is the DRI for fiber for a person consuming 2500 kcalories? a. 5 g b. 15 g c. 25 g d. 35 g

answer

d

question

152. Which of the following provides the most fiber? a. 1 orange b. 1/2 cup oatmeal c. 1 cup split peas d. 1 slice whole-wheat bread

answer

c

question

153. All of the following provide about 15 g of carbohydrate per serving EXCEPT a. 1/2 cup corn. b. 1/2 cup peas. c. 1/2 cup potatoes. d. 1/2 cup green beans.

answer

d

question

154. Which of the following is a feature of dairy products and carbohydrate? a. A cup of milk yields about 6 g of carbohydrate b. Most cheeses provide little, if any, carbohydrate c. Cottage cheese provides about 12 g of carbohydrate per cup d. A cup of yogurt yields about 3 g of carbohydrate

answer

b

question

155. Which of the following is a characteristic of carbohydrates information on food labels? a. The "Sugars" amount includes only added sugars b. The amount of starch is listed as a separate category c. The "Total Carbohydrate" amount includes starch, sugars, and fiber d. The "Total Carbohydrate" amount includes starch and sugars but not fiber

answer

c

question

156. Which of the following is a typical response in people following a low-carbohydrate diet? a. They often complain of diet-induced diarrhea b. They experience frequent bouts of hyperglycemia c. Total weight loss is about the same as in people on a low-fat diet d. They lose about the same amount of weight as people on conventional diets for the first 6 months

answer

c

question

157. Which of the following is a feature of carbohydrate cravings and addictions? a. People seek carbohydrates to restore brain glucagon levels b. The addiction is not physiological or pharmacological c. When people give in to their cravings, they consume sugars at the expense of other foods d. People label all carbohydrate foods as "bad" and then seek out self-destructive behavioral consumption

answer

b

question

158. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the regular consumption of sugary beverages? a. It is easy to overconsume kcal b. It correlates with being overweight c. The fructose stimulates excessive release of insulin, which suppresses appetite d. Substitution of one can of regular soda with water every day could result in a weight loss of one pound per month

answer

c

question

159. What nutrient has accounted for virtually all of the increase in kcal intake of people in the United States since the 1970s? a. Fat b. Protein c. Alcohol d. Carbohydrate

answer

d

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